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Talk:Lebesgue integral: Difference between revisions

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::I also do not understand. Why is the length <math>\mu \left (\{x\mid f(x)>t\} \right )</math> and not <math>\mu \left (\{x\mid f(x)=t\} \right )</math> or <math>\mu \left (\{x\mid f(x)<t\} \right )</math> ?? --[[User:Erel Segal|Erel Segal]] ([[User talk:Erel Segal|talk]]) 18:27, 3 November 2018 (UTC)
 
::: Well, <math>\mu\{x|f(x)<t\}</math> is the 1-dimensional Lebesgue measure of a slice of the overgraph of the function. (As <math>\mu\{x|f(x)>t\}</math> is the 1-dimensional Lebesgue measure of a slice of the undergraph.) Also <math>\mu\{x|f(x)=t\}</math> is zero a.e. So, <math>\mu\{x|f(x)<t\} + \mu\{x|f(x)>t\} = \mu(\text{domain}(f))</math> a.e.(t). [[User:Sławomir Biały|<span style="text-shadow:grey 0.3em 0.3em 0.1em; class=texhtml">Sławomir Biały</span>]] ([[User talk:Sławomir Biały|talk]]) 21:23, 3 November 2018 (UTC)