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ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION ACT, 1956

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when such violence is done in a domestic relationship, be it by the partner or in-laws.

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Violence means behavior which harms or damages somebody. Domestic violence means
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violence against women. India ratified this in 1993.

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CEDAW CONVENTION – convention on elimination of all forms of domestic

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mentioned in article 15 shall prevent the state from making any special provision for women and
 Article 15(1) of the constitution of India states that no citizen of India shall be discriminated on

 The domestic violence Act 2005 gave a wider scope to justice of women. It included not only the
grounds of religion, sex, place of birth, caste or any of them. And Article 15(3) states that nothing
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Even any stranger or relative can also complain to help that women.

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violence has been done by any person residing in domestic relations.

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 This act protects not only the married women, but also those against whom

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 It is not always necessary that a women complaints about the violence against her.
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and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the

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any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent

67 67 87 87 70 70 07
87 87 07 76 76 65
AGGRIEVED PERSON

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family members living together as a joint family

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DOMESTIC RELATION

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a relationship between two persons who live or have, at any point of time,

marriage, or through a relationship in the nature of marriage, adoption or are

lived together in a shared household, when they are related by consanguinity,
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person has any right, title or interest in the shared household.

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SHARED HOUSEHOLD

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means a household where the person aggrieved lives or at any stage has lived in a

y (9 (9 6 78 8
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respondent, or owned or tenanted by either of them in respect of which either the

67 67 87 87 70 70 07
domestic relationship either singly or along with the respondent and includes such a

87 87 07 07 76 76 65
household whether owned or tenanted either jointly by the aggrieved person and the

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the respondent is a member, irrespective of whether the respondent or the aggrieved

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or equity and includes such a household which may belong to the joint family of which

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aggrieved person or the respondent or both jointly or singly have any right, title, interest
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INCAMERA PROCEEDINGS

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party to the proceedings so desires, he may conduct the proceedings under this Act in

65 51 1)
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If the Magistrate considers that the circumstances of the case so warrant, and if either

1)
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JURISDICTION.
ho ho w w dh dh ur
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TEMPORARY RESIDES.
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SECTION 27 OF DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT STATES ABOUT

76 65 1) )G
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TEMPORARY RESIDENCE

e C C ho ho
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ry
dh ur ry (9
dh ur ur
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y (9 (9 6 78 78
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IT STATES THAT WHERE THE AGGRIEVED PERSON PERMANENTLY OR

65 51 1) 1) )
1) )
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5.
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w w dh
ho ho w w dh dh ur

custody order – section 21

w w dh dh dh u ur
y y
dh ur ry (9
dh ur
y y (9 6
3. Monetary relief – section 20
ur (9
2. Residence order – section 19

y
1. Protection order – section 18

ur (9
ur
y y (9 (9 67 67 67
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87 87 07
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compensation order – section 22

07 76 6 65 1) 1) ) G G
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amongst residents of a locality.

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4. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA): The main functions under the repealed FERA are to adjudicate the Show

Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA), this Directorate is empowered to sponsor cases of preventive detention with regard to contraventions of
5. Sponsoring agency under COFEPOSA: Under the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities

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make connections and associations between what
what you do understand and don’t get caught up in

what you do understand and what you do not. Try to

the difficult parts. Skim over passages that are really
reading you need to complete, break it up into chunks.
➢ If you’re feeling snowed under by the amount of

➢ Ask yourself questions about the reading. Work out

you are reading and what you already know. How do/
difficult and mark or flag what you don’t understand to
yourself the goal of completing it and of working to

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Passage 1 - Tort of Passing Off (Explanatory)
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Passing off means that the defendant - by making a false representation, sells goods with the

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intention to deceive the purchaser, and the plaintiff believes that the goods being sold are of the
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defendant. The protection of commercial goodwill is the objective of the tort of passing off. It
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ensures that exploitation of the people’s business reputation does not take place. “No man can

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have any right to present his goods as the goods of someone else” - is the underlying philosophy

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of the tort of passing off.

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Actionable under common law, the law of passing off in India is mainly to protect the goodwill

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that is attached to unregistered trademarks. One should not get benefit from the labor of another

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wherein a direct false representation of a person is permitted.

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Passing off through deception, is a kind of unfair trade or actionable unfair trade through the

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person. And thus, uses in a particular business or trade to benefit from it. Such an action is

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To make one liable for the tort of passing off, the plaintiff must prove the following- His goods
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defendant made a spoken or written representation by the conduct of others or by word of mouth.
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that the goods by the defendant were of the plaintiff. In the ordinary course of business, the
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defendant’s conduct is likely to mislead or deceive the public, at least in case of unwary or
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incautious, if not the intelligent or careful purchaser.

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The remedies granted in case of the tort of passing off include injunction, damages or
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compensation, and account of profits. The purpose of the profit account is not to punish the
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defendant but to avoid unjust enrichment resulting from passing off. An account shall be limited
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to the actual profits made and attributable to the infringement. The plaintiff shall take the

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business of the defendant as it is.

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Passage 2 - Data Processing Agreement (Explanatory)

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Data Processing Addendum is a documented agreement between the data controller and data
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processor. It can also be an arrangement between data processor to sub-processor, controller to

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controller, or controller to joint controller. DPA lays down certain guidelines as to who are the
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data subjects (who all come under the ambit of DPA), what type of information is processed,
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what categories of data are processed, who collects the client’s personal data, how it is treated,
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where it is stored, how long it is stored, how it can be retrieved, how it can be deleted, how it can
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be processed, how it is protected, what kind of measures should be taken by the parties in order
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to prevent data breaches.

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One essential clause is that DPA should contain definitions of certain important terms to avoid

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access to the client’s personal data, loss of data, or unauthorized disclosure or alteration of such

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data on the systems managed by the processor. The effective date of the DPA and the DPA end

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date has to be provided in this clause. It could be any date post-May 25, 2018 for a valid DPA.

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Client Personal Data shall be accessed by the Sub-processor only to the extent required to

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perform the obligations under this Agreement. The list of Sub-processors has to be annexed to

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this Agreement and any changes in the list must be notified to the Data Controller before 2
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Months. Data Controller reserves the right to object to the addition or deletion of subcontractors.

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underlying contract, data should either be returned or deleted or destroyed, etc., who bears the

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costs of such an obligation, whether they have policies in place in their security documentation,
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etc. should be incorporated in the DPA.

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An audit clause may be incorporated in order to check Whether the Organizational and Security
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measures are properly implemented or not. This can be done by including certain processes like
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Data Protection Impact Assessments (DPIA). )

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Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/essential-clauses-in-a-data-processing-agreement-dpa/

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Passage 3 – Current (Opinion Based)

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In recent years, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), has been the subject of intense
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scrutiny and debate. While it was enacted with the intention of combating terrorism and ensuring

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national security, its implementation and the consequences have sparked concerns about the
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erosion of civil liberties and the stifling of dissent. With the increasing concerns over the UAPA,
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it becomes imperative to delve deep into its intricacies and unravel its fallacies.

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The Statute in its current state contains a number of anomalies that have weakened the intent
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to be viewed as a threat to national security. There are concerns raised about the perceived
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stagnancy of terrorism laws, despite multiple amendments aiming to make them more acceptable
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such cession or secession; or (ii) which disclaims, questions, disrupts or is intended to disrupt the
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sovereignty and territorial integrity of India; or (iii) which causes or is intended to cause
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disaffection against India;”

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appears that the lawmakers are utterly unaware of this principle The UAPA's Section 43D (5)
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association is, or has become, an unlawful association, it may, by notification in the Official

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Gazette, declare such association to be unlawful. The investigating agency can file a charge sheet

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Passage 4 – Writs ()
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A writ is a written official order issued by the court. The formal order may be in form of warrant,

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direction, command, order etc. Writs can only be issued by the High Court Under Article 226 of

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Indian Constitution, 1950 and by The Supreme Court under Article 32 of Indian Constitution,
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1950. Indian constitution has adopted the concept of prerogative writs from English common
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law.

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There are 5 types of writes specified under Indian constitution law. Writ of habeas corpus can be

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issued for preserving the liberty of a person, who is being illegally detained. It can be invoked
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against the state as well as against the person within whose custody the aggrieved person is. Writ
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of habeas corpus is a powerful weapon available before a common man who has been

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wrongfully detained by the person or state. This writ provides a fast and powerful remedy against
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illegal detention.
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History of writ of mandamus say that it is a command, issued in the name of the crown by the
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court of king’s bench to the subordinate court, inferior tribunal, board or to any person requiring
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it for him to perform a public duty imposed by law. Therefore, a writ of mandamus is a command
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given by any high court or supreme court to the lower court or any tribunal or board or to any
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other public authority to perform their public duty imposed upon them by law. It’s primary
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objective is to supply defects of justice and prevent rights of the citizen. Writ of prohibition is as
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old as common law. It is an extraordinary writ of preventive nature. It prevents courts, tribunal,
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quasi-judicial bodies and other officers from exercising their power beyond their jurisdiction or
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exercising those powers which are not vested on them.

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Writ of certiorari has been defined as one of the most effective and efficient remedies taken from
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common law. Certiorari means “to certify”. It is an order issued by the High Court to an inferior
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court or any authority exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions. The main object of this writ
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is to keep the inferior courts, judicial and quasi-judicial authorities within their limits of
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jurisdiction and if the act in excess of their jurisdiction their decision will be quashed by the
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High Court and Supreme Court by issuing a writ of certiorari. Writ of quo warranto prevent the
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person from wrongfully or forcefully holding any office or from continuing the office. By writ of
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quo warranto court has the authority to ask the holder of the office that by what authority he is
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holding the office.

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Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/writ/
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Passage 5 – Current (Statute Based)
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The Delhi government is registering marriages of non-Hindus under the Special Marriage Act,

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1954 (SMA). On account of this, Muslims registering their marriages in Delhi will no longer be
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governed by Muslim personal law on issues of marriage, divorce and inheritance.

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The Delhi (Compulsory Registration of Marriages) Order, 2014 requires all marriages performed

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in Delhi to be registered within six months, failing which a penalty is imposed. This Order itself
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does not specify any particular law under which to register marriages which have been
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performed under personal laws. It merely requires that all marriages performed in Delhi be

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registered.

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This practice, arbitrary and without legal basis, is to register marriages only under the SMA
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where one or both the parties to a marriage are non-Hindus, whereas, in marriages between

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their personal law or the SMA exists. )

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The scheme of the SMA is such that a marriage can directly be performed under it and be
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governed by its provisions. These are referred to as court marriages. However, the SMA also

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provides an option to couples married under personal law to register their marriage under the

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SMA and voluntarily opt out of their personal law.

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In effect, a marriage performed under a personal law, say a nikah, once registered under the
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SMA, will be treated as a court marriage and will not be governed by Muslim personal law. This
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will mean that provisions of divorce under Muslim personal law, including various forms
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of talaq, will not be applicable to such a couple. They will necessarily need to file for divorce
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under provisions of the SMA.

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The SMA further creates a distinction for Muslims in case of law related to inheritance by

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requiring property to be succeeded to as per the Indian Succession Act,1925 (ISA) – except
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where both parties are Hindus, Buddhists, Sikhs and Jains. Thus, if two Hindus register their
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marriage under the SMA, they will continue to be governed by the applicable personal law with
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regard to inheritance. Meanwhile, inheritance in cases of Parsis and Christians is already

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governed under the ISA. The Muslim personal law on inheritance is significantly different from
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the ISA. In Muslim law, a person cannot grant his heirs more than 1/3rd of his assets whereas no
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such restriction exists under the ISA. Such differences will significantly affect people’s ability to
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plan their succession.
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https://thewire.in/law/delhis-compulsory-registration-of-marriages-has-unintended-
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Source:
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consequences-for-muslims
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Passage 6 – Specific Performance (Statute Based)

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The law relating to specific performance as engrafted in the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (“Act”) is
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an extremely important facet of civil law. In respect of moveable property, generally, specific
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relief is refused, based on the presumption that pecuniary compensation would be an adequate
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relief. Exception to this arises when the moveable property is not an ordinary article of
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commerce or is of special value/interest to the plaintiff, or are goods are not easily obtainable in

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Furthermore, section 10 of the Act as amended in 2018, reduces judicial discretion in the matter
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by making specific performance a mandatory relief to grant when pled for. Additionally, the

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Courts consider the following principles while granting/denying specific performance in case of

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movable property:

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(a) The plaintiff has to show that he has performed or was always ready and willing to fulfil

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the essential terms of the contract supposed to be performed by him. The person seeking

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specific performance must show his conduct as unblemished throughout. This imposes a

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personal bar as the plaintiff’s conduct becomes important.

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(b) The plaintiff must seek appropriate relief. It often happens that a contract is terminated

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and that gives rise to a suit for performance. Then, a failure to apply to have the
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termination set aside is fatal to performance as without an appropriate relief to set aside

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the termination it would be deemed the plaintiff has accepted the same and then cannot

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or property in dispute. Clause (a) contains reliefs of possession and partition and separate

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possession of the property, in addition to specific performance. Sub-section (2) says that
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no relief under section 22(1)(a) and (b) shall be granted unless it has been specifically
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(d) The period of limitation for is three years from the date fixed for performance or if no

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such date is fixed, when the plaintiff has noticed that performance is refused.
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https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2020/06/18/specific-performance-principles-
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Passage 7 – Current (Judgment Based)

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Recently, the Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the Constitution of India to direct RBI to
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extend the benefit of reservation in promotion to an employee with a disability, who was denied
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the same for a long time (Reserve Bank of India v. A.K. Nair And Ors). The challenge in the
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petition pertained to securing promotion to the post of Assistant Manager in the RBI under the
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Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunity, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act,
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1995. In 2003, the employee appeared in the All-India Merit Test to secure a promotion to a
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Class-I post. But he fell short of the qualifying marks by 3 marks. He made representations
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seeking condonation of the shortfall marks, which were not considered.

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Reservations are given to SC, ST, and OBC to provide equal opportunity to them in terms of
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education, employment, and also in promotion. Article 16 Clause 4 of the Indian Constitution
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contains the provision of giving reservation in promotion on the direct requirement to SC and
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ST. The promotion reservation will apply to all State and Central government jobs. Supreme
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Court in its judgment in the case of Indra Sawhney & others Vs. Union of India on
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16th November 1992, said that Article 16 of clause 4 did not provide reservation in promotion to
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SC and ST. Later, after the passage of 77th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1995, the
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Government of India got constitutional backup and now provides the reservation in the
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promotion to SC and ST in the 19 ministries of the Central government and provides 15.34% to

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the SC category employees and 6.34% to ST Category employees. Supreme Court in Ajit Singh

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case of 1996 was of the view that reservation in promotion can be given to SC and ST employees

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and the court’s view was changed thus, on a reservation to SC, and ST in government jobs and

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the promotion with an objective to increase their number in the decision-making process. Article

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[under the Government of, or any local or other authority within, a State or Union territory, any

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requirement as to residence within that State or Union territory] prior to such employment or

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appointment.” This is in respect of creating equality of opportunities for all citizens.

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Source: https://jlrjs.com/role-of-reservation-in-promotion/
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promotions-too-supreme-court-grants-relief-to-rbi-employee-232514#
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Govind is a software engineer who works for OBX data securities. One day while working for
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his official work, govind suddenly got an idea of developing a software which would directly
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connect a student with a teacher as soon as he has a doubt in his mind. While in office he
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developed this software using his official logistics and equipment. Who shall retain the IPR for
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the software in this scenario?

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A. Govind because he has developed it

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B. OBX because it was developed using its resources

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C. Both Govind and OBX

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D. None.
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Theme of the passage is void marriages.

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Question: Arjun is a 17 year old boy who was married to Ananya who is 15 years old at the time

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of marriage. Both of them were leading a happy life until Arjun realized two years later that
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Ananya was already married to Pawan, her neighbor. Arjun now wishes to claim nullity of

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marriage. Can Arjun get the marriage dissolved give reason/grounds?

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1. Arjun cannot dissolve the marriage as he has spent two years in the marriage

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2. Arjun can dissolve the marriage as both Arjun and Ananya were below the legally
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permissible age of marriage. C

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3. Arjun cannot dissolve marriage as there is he does not have a concrete proof of earlier
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marriage. He has just realized the possibility of marriage with Pawan.

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4. Arjun can dissolve the marriage on the grounds that Ananya was already married and
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hence her marriage with Arjun is void for this reason.
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Theme of the passage is sexual harassment at workplace by male employees.

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Question: Raman and Riya were husband and wife working in the same company. They both had
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dealings, both at home and in office. However, both of them were not able to consummate their
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wedding for last 5 years as Riya was an asexual and thus didn’t feel an urge to indulge into

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sexual relationship. Raman was One day, Raman being frustrated about casual working attitude

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of Riya and her inability to have sexual intercourse with Raman, made certain sexually explicit
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remarks against her including calling her a sex worker who likes to share bed with all men
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except her husband. Riya feeling humiliated now wishes to file a case against Raman. Decide

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held liable for sexual harassment of wife.

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C. Raman is liable for sexually harassing Riya at workplace.
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y 32 QUESTIONS ON LEGAL REASONING FOR LAW PREP TUTORIAL

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Passage 1 - Tort of Passing Off
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Passing off means that the defendant - by making a false representation, sells goods with the

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intention to deceive the purchaser, and the plaintiff believes that the goods being sold are of the

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defendant. The protection of commercial goodwill is the objective of the tort of passing off. It

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ensures that exploitation of the people‟s business reputation does not take place. “No man can
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have any right to present his goods as the goods of someone else” - is the underlying philosophy

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of the tort of passing off.

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Actionable under common law, the law of passing off in India is mainly to protect the goodwill

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that is attached to unregistered trademarks. One should not get benefit from the labor of another
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person is founded in the basic principle of law. No person is entitled to represent the goods of
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another person as his own. Using any signs, symbols, marks, devices, or some other means

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wherein a direct false representation of a person is permitted.

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Passing off through deception, is a kind of unfair trade or actionable unfair trade through the
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means by which a person obtains the economic benefit of the established reputation by another
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person. And thus, uses in a particular business or trade to benefit from it. Such an action is
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regarded as an action for deceit.
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To make one liable for the tort of passing off, the plaintiff must prove the following- His goods
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were known to the public by some mark, distinctive name, appearance, get-up, or badge. The
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defendant made a spoken or written representation by the conduct of others or by word of mouth.
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The use or initiation of the name by the defendant misleads the public and made them believe

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that the goods by the defendant were of the plaintiff. In the ordinary course of business, the
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defendant‟s conduct is likely to mislead or deceive the public, at least in case of unwary or
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incautious, if not the intelligent or careful purchaser.
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The remedies granted in case of the tort of passing off include injunction, damages or
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compensation, and account of profits. The purpose of the profit account is not to punish the

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defendant but to avoid unjust enrichment resulting from passing off. An account shall be limited
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to the actual profits made and attributable to the infringement. The plaintiff shall take the
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business of the defendant as it is.

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Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/the-tort-of-passing-off/
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G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

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07

65
ho

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07

1. There is a popular and well-established clothing brand called "FashioNation." They have
ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

a recognizable logo and are known for their trendy and high-quality garments. Another
67

87
e
ge

67

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ge

67

e
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(9

67
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(9

individual named John decides to start a small business selling clothing and accessories.
ar

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G

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y
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In an attempt to attract customers and benefit from FashioNation's established reputation,

a
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dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

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1)
65
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1)

John intentionally creates a logo that closely resembles FashioNation's logo. He uses
65
w

65
ho

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07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07

similar fonts, colors, and overall design elements to make it look nearly identical to
C

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87

07
C

87

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C
67

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FashioNation's branding. Decide.

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67

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67

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67
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A. John intentionally created a misleading logo and is thus liable for the tort of passing off.
(9
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y

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G

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y
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B. John had used an identical logo and not the same, hence, he is not liable.
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1)

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1)

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1)
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1)
65
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65
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07

65
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07

ho

07
C

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C

87

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C
67

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ar

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1)

G
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dh

1)

dh
65
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dh

1)
65
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65
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dh

1)

dh
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65
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1
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7
70

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70
78

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C
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6

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C. John is liable for unjust enrichment at the expense of the original brand.

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D. John is liable as he did not represent his goods as someone else‟s goods.

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dh

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65
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dh
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51
65
Answer: A
ho

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7

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70

ho

76
07
C

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C

87
8

70
7
e

C
Difficulty Level: Easy
67

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78

C
ge

67

78
e
ge
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6
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(9

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Option A is correct as selling goods by making a false representation with the intention to
G

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y

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y
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G

y
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y
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dh

G
deceive the purchaser makes the person liable for the tort of passing off. Here, John created the

ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
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51

dh

)
65
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51
misleading logo to attract more customers and is therefore liable. Option B is incorrect as the
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

C
logo need not be the same. It being identical was sufficient to deceive the customer. Option C is

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
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67
incorrect as John is liable for the tort of passing off. Further, no losses were incurred by the

e
ge
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67

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ar

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(9
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(9
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original brand. Thus, it cannot be said that anything was done at the expense of the original

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y
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ry
ur

y
dh

1)

G
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1)
brand. Option D is incorrect as John represented his goods as the goods of FashioNation to

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5
w

51

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

w
deceive the customers.

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
C

70
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

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6

78
ge

67

e
6

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6
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2. Aroma Brew is a well-established coffee chain. Brew Delight deliberately imitates Aroma

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G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
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51

dh

)
Brew's brand elements, including the name, logo, store design, and menu offerings. By
51

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1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

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creating an impression of having an association with Aroma Brew, Brew Delight deceives

65
ho

76

w
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

customers, leading to financial losses and reputational damage for the original brand.
C
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
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Aroma Brew takes legal action, alleging passing off, and seeks remedies to stop Brew
(9

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6
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Delight's deceptive practices. Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative?
ur

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G

y
u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

A. Brew Delight represented the brand of Aroma Brew and is thus, not liable.
dh

1)
65
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dh

)
65
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
B. Brew Delight caused losses and is liable only due to the presence of the „intent‟.
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

0
78

70
C. Brew Delight is liable for an action due to intention and unjust enrichment.
87
e

C
ee
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67

e
6

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67
g

D. None of the above.

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G

y
ur

)G

y
ur

Answer: C
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

dh

1)
5
w

65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
Difficulty Level: Easy
ho

07
C

70

ho
7

07
C
78

87
e

78

7
e
ge

Option C is correct as when which a person obtains the economic benefit of the established
e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

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reputation by another person, it is regarded as action by deceit. Here, Brew Delight had imitated
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y
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y
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the brand elements of Aroma Brew to obtain the economic benefit of the latter established brand.
dh

G
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1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
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dh

1)
65
w

Thus, Brew Delight is liable for the action of deceit. Option A is incorrect as Brew Delight did
65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
not represent the brand but imitated and created a false representation for economic benefit.
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
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67

Option B is incorrect as intent is not the only requirement for attracting liability. The act of
ge

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making a false representation is also necessary.

G

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G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07

3. There are two bakeries, Sweet Treats, and Delicious Delights, located in the same city.
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

Sweet Treats has built a reputation for its delicious, high-quality pastries and cakes.
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
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(9
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Delicious Delights, a relatively new bakery, also focuses on producing excellent baked
G

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G

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ur

y
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a
G

y
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dh

1)

goods which are of a similar level of quality. Customers visiting Delicious Delights often
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65

mistake it for Sweet Treats, assuming that both bakeries are one and the same due to the
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

similarity in product quality. They believe Delicious Delights to be an extension or

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

alternate branch of Sweet Treats, despite the absence of any explicit representation or
e
ge
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67
ar

ge
(9
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(9
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claims made by Delicious Delights to that effect. Decide.

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G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur

A. No tort is committed as no explicit claims or representations were made.

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
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(9
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G

y
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y
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y
ur
dh

1)

G
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dh

1)

dh
65
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51

dh

1)
65
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ho

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07

65
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07
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g

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6

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dh

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ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

e
6

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67

ee
ge
(9

67

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B. Tort of passing off has been committed by word of mouth.

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G

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C. Quality of the product was replicated and thus, the tort of passing off has been

ur

y
dh

1)

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u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

committed.

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
D. Even without explicit claims, an implied mindset was built that the new brand is an

07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee
extension of the original one, and hence, a tort has been committed.

78

C
ge

67

78
e
ge
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6
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(9

6
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Answer: A

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G

y
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y
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dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
w

Difficulty Level: Moderate

51

dh

)
65
w

51
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

C
Option A is correct as selling goods by making a false representation with the intention to

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67
deceive the purchaser makes the person liable for the tort of passing off. Here, no false

e
ge
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67

e
ar

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(9
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(9
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y

representation was made. Further, confusion arose amongst the customers due to the good quality

ar
G

y
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G

ry
ur

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)
of products served by both bakeries. Thus, no tort is committed. Option B is incorrect as the

dh

)
5
w

51

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

w
word of mouth was not initiated by Delicious Delights but arose out of mere confusion. Thus,

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
C

70
there is no tort. Option C is incorrect as the quality was not replicated. The good quality was
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
maintained and no false representation was made, thus, the tort of passing off has not been
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
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ge
(9
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G

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y

ar
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committed. Option D is incorrect as the mindset arose out of confusion among the customers and
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
51

dh

was not created by Delicious Delights. )

51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

65
ho

76

w
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

C
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
4. A small unregistered artisanal chocolate maker named "Cocoa Delights" produces high-
(9

67

e
6
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quality chocolates. They have been operating in a limited geographical area, primarily
ur

ar
G

y
u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

selling their products at local farmer's markets and specialty stores. Another chocolate
dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
manufacturer, "Sweet Temptations," starts producing chocolates with a branding
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

0
78

70
aesthetic, using packaging and design elements that happen to resemble Cocoa Delights'
87
e

C
ee
ge

67

e
6

8
67

e
ge
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67
g

products. However, Cocoa Delights learns about this and files a claim of passing off,
ar

ge
(9
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G

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y

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G

y
ur

ar
arguing that Sweet Temptations' actions are confusing consumers. Decide.
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

A. Sweet Temptations are using similar branding to take over Cocoa Delights and are liable.
65
w

dh

1)
5
w

65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
B. Sweet Temptations is not liable for passing off as the grounds of the same are not met.
ho

07
C

70

ho
7

07
C
78

87
e

78

C
C. Sweet Temptations is a different brand whose name or logo does not resemble Cocoa

7
e
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
Delights.
(9

6
ar

(9
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G

(9
y

g
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y
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ar
G

D. Sweet Temptations is not liable as the branding aesthetic is generic in nature and does not
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65

represent a brand.
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

Answer: B
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
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67

e
ge

67

e
ge
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67
ar

ge

Difficulty Level: Moderate

(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

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G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
Option B is correct as to make one liable for the tort of passing off one must prove that his goods
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65

were well known to the public. Here, Cocoa Delights was operating in a very limited manner
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

which is evident by the fact that they were not very well known. Hence, the tort of passing off
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

cannot be claimed to have been committed. Option A is incorrect as Cocoa Delights was not a
e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

well-established brand. Option C is incorrect as the resemblance of the logo is not a necessity for
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur

the act of passing off. Option D is incorrect as branding aesthetics do represent a brand and its
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

products, but here Cocoa Delights was not a well-known brand in itself.
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
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(9
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(9
y

5. Fashion Fusion is a well-established brand known for its unique designs and high-quality
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur

garments. Style Blend, a relatively new and lesser-known brand, wants to capitalize on
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

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G

y
ur

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
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51

dh

1)
65
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ho

ow
07

65
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76

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07
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6

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y
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dh

)G
ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

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6

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67

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ge
(9

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Fashion Fusion's success. The owner of Style Blend attends local fashion events and

ar

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g
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G

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ar
G

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social gatherings where they engage in conversations with attendees. During these

ur

y
dh

1)

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u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

interactions, the owner strategically drops hints and makes ambiguous statements

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
suggesting a connection or collaboration with Fashion Fusion. Word spreads among

07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee
attendees, and soon, there is a perception that Style Blend is an extension or subsidiary of

78

C
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67

78
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6
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Fashion Fusion, offering similar styles and quality. As a result, some customers

ge
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y

ar
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y
ur

ar
G

y
ur
unknowingly purchase Style Blend products, believing they are associated with Fashion

)G

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

)
65
Fusion. Decide.

51
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

Style Blend is liable for misleading its partners.

ho
87

A. C

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

Style Blend is not liable for defrauding its customers in the name of Fashion Fusion as

67

e
B.
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67

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67

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there was no resemblance of name, sign, logo, etc.

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G

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G

y
ur

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ry
ur

y
Style Blend has committed the tort of passing off.
dh

1)

G
u
C.

ur
dh

1)

dh

)
5
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51

dh

1)
65
76

Style Blend is not liable as it did not by words or actions imitate the brand of Fashion
ho

D.

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
Fusion.
C

70
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

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Answer: C
ar

ge
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6
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G

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y
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G

y
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Difficulty Level: Moderate
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Option C is correct as selling goods by making false representation with the intention to deceive
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the purchaser makes the person liable for the tort of passing off. Here, Style Blend by building a
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perception of being an extension of Fashion Fusion tried to capitalize on the latter‟s success.

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Hence, it is liable for the tort of passing off. Option A is incorrect as Style Blend deceived its

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customers and not partners. Option B is incorrect as defrauding is beyond the scope of this
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5
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passage. Option D is incorrect as Style Blend did not imitate Fashion Blend but by word of
ho

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mouth created an impression of being an extension of the original brand.
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Passage 2 - Data Processing Agreement
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Data Processing Addendum is a documented agreement between the data controller and data
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processor. It can also be an arrangement between data processor to sub-processor, controller to
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controller, or controller to joint controller. DPA lays down certain guidelines as to who are the
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data subjects (who all come under the ambit of DPA), what type of information is processed,
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what categories of data are processed, who collects the client‟s personal data, how it is treated,
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where it is stored, how long it is stored, how it can be retrieved, how it can be deleted, how it can
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be processed, how it is protected, what kind of measures should be taken by the parties in order
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to prevent data breaches.

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One essential clause is that DPA should contain definitions of certain important terms to avoid
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any ambiguities in interpretation. It should also include information about unauthorized use,
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access to the client‟s personal data, loss of data, or unauthorized disclosure or alteration of such
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data on the systems managed by the processor. The effective date of the DPA and the DPA end
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date has to be provided in this clause. It could be any date post-May 25, 2018 for a valid DPA.
07

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Client Personal Data shall be accessed by the Sub-processor only to the extent required to
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perform the obligations under this Agreement. The list of Sub-processors has to be annexed to
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this Agreement and any changes in the list must be notified to the Data Controller before 2
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Months. Data Controller reserves the right to object to the addition or deletion of subcontractors.
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Like in any other agreement, it is a pretty standard clause stating post completion of the

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underlying contract, data should either be returned or deleted or destroyed, etc., who bears the

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costs of such an obligation, whether they have policies in place in their security documentation,

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7

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70

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etc. should be incorporated in the DPA.

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An audit clause may be incorporated in order to check Whether the Organizational and Security

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measures are properly implemented or not. This can be done by including certain processes like

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Data Protection Impact Assessments (DPIA).

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07

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07

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76
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/essential-clauses-in-a-data-processing-agreement-dpa/

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6. Tech-Co handles sensitive customer data and is required to enter into data protection

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agreements with its clients to ensure compliance with data privacy laws. Tech-Co enters

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into an agreement with a client called Company X, but upon reviewing the document,
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they realize that it lacks a definition clause. Disputes arise concerning the handling,

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storage, and sharing of personal data, as the parties have different interpretations of these

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terms based on their own understanding and industry standards. Decide.

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A. The interpretations of Tech-Co shall be given preference as they are the data controllers
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and processors.

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67

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B. The interpretations of Company X and the clients shall be accepted as they are the
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ultimate beneficiaries.
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C. The dispute should be resolved through negotiation.
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65
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D. The DPA should have ideally contained a definition clause to avoid ambiguities.

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C

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Answer: D
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Difficulty Level: Easy

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Option D is correct as DPA should contain definitions of certain important terms to avoid any
dh
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dh

1)
5
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65
ho

76

w
07

65
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ambiguities in interpretation. Here, the DPA lacked the definition clause due to which dispute
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arose. Had the DPA clause been present the ambiguity in interpretation would have been
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avoided. Option A is incorrect as it cannot be concluded in the light of the passage. Option B is
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incorrect as again, it cannot be rightly concluded from the principle elucidated in the passage.
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Option C is incorrect as negotiation is not discussed in the passage.

65
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1)
65
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65
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07

65
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07

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C

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7. ABC Corporation, a multinational company, enters into a Data Processing Agreement 67

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(DPA) with XYZ Cloud Services, a cloud service provider, to handle and process
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1)

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personal data on behalf of ABC Corporation's customers. Over time, ABC Corporation
65
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1)
65
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65
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07

65
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becomes aware that XYZ Cloud Services is outsourcing certain data processing tasks to
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other third-party sub-processors without their explicit knowledge or consent. ABC

67

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Corporation raises the issue with XYZ Cloud Services, expressing their expectation for a
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comprehensive list of sub-processors engaged in data processing activities and the need
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for their prior approval before engaging any new sub-processors. Decide.
w

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65
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65
ho

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07

65
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07

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A. XYZ cloud services should have obtained the consent of ABC Corporation before passing
07
C

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87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e

over the information.

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B. XYZ cloud services have infringed the privacy rights of ABC Corporation.
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C. The DPA is invalid as it did not include the information regarding the sub-processors.
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65
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D. The DPA should be updated to include information regarding the sub-processors.

65
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65
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07

65
ho

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07

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07
C

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C
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C

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6

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Answer: D

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Difficulty Level: Moderate

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dh

1)
65
w

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
Option D is correct as the list of Sub-processors has to be annexed to the DPA. Here, the details
70

ho

76
07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
of the sub-processors were not specified in the DPA, and thus the same should be updated.
67

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C
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Option A is incorrect as consent is essential but the same has not been discussed in the passage

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above. Option B is incorrect as privacy rights are beyond the scope of the passage provided.

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1

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65
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Option C is incorrect as not containing the information would not necessarily render the DPA

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51
ho

w
07

ho

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07

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76
invalid. The same cannot be inferred from the passage.

07
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87

87

0
87
e

C
67

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C
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67

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8. Tech-Corp provides a cloud-based storage service to its customers. As a part of its

y
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G
u

ur
dh

1)

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5
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service, Tech-Corp collects and processes personal data on behalf of its clients, such as

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
names, email addresses, and billing information. To ensure compliance with data
C

70

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C

70
78

70
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78

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protection regulations, Tech-Corp enters into a Data Protection Agreement with its

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78
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clients. However, in one particular case, Tech-Corp's DPA lacks clear information

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regarding the specific types of personal data that will be processed by the company. The

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51

dh

)
51

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w

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agreement only contains general language referring to "personal data" without explicitly
76

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65
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76

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specifying the categories or nature of the data. Which of the following is a most

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C

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87

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inappropriate course of action in the context of the passage above?
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A. Tech- Corp may proceed if the agreement of the term “personal data” refers to the
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definition of personal data as in the regulations.
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65
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65
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51
B. Tech-Corp cannot proceed with such an agreement as it is invalid due to ambiguity.

5
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07

ho

76

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7

ho

76
C

70

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7

C. A DPA should contain information about the type of information which it aims to deal
C

0
78

70
87
e

C
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6

with and thus, the specifications should be updated.

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g
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D. Both (a) and (c)

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Answer: B
65
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5
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C

70

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Difficulty Level: Tough
C
78

87
e

78

7
e
ge

e
6

78
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67

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6

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Option B is correct as the DPA should specify the type of information which is being collected.
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The specifics of the same can be demanded, however, the absence of the same would not
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y
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dh

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ur
1

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invalidate the entire DPA. Option A is incorrect as it is a valid course of action for the arisen
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

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07

ambiguity. Had the term „personal data‟ been defined with respect to the regulations, it shall
ho

07
C

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07
C

87

87
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provide the necessary clarity. Option C is incorrect as it is true in the context of the passage
67

87
e
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67

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67

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(9

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above and is an appropriate course of action. The agreement only contained a general definition
(9
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of „personal data‟ and not the type of information and specifications. Updating the agreement to
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G
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dh

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65

contain these details is an appropriate course of action.

w

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1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

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67

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(9

67
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(9

9. XYZ Inc. enters into a Data Protection Agreement (DPA) with its customers and partners.
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(9
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G

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The DPA outlines the terms and conditions regarding the processing and protection of
ur

a
G

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1)

G
ur
dh

1)

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65

personal data. The DPA specifies an effective date of 25 April 2018 but does not include
w

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1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

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07

ho

an end date or specify its duration. One such partner raises concern regarding the absence
07
C

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87

07
C

87

87
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C
67

87
e

of the end date which XYZ Inc. promises to resolve within a week by updating the DPA.
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67

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67

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(9

67
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(9

Which of the following is most appropriate?

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A. The DPA is invalid.

G

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G
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dh

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dh

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65
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B. The DPA should include the end date which is a mandatory requisite.
65
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65
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65
ho

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07

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07
C

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C

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Answer: A
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DPA is invalid. Option B is incorrect as the end date is not a mandatory requisite. Option C is
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10. A company named TechCo enters into a data protection agreement with a third-party

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vendor, DataPro, to securely store and process sensitive customer data. However, the data

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periodically audit DataPro's security practices and compliance with the agreement. After

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some time, TechCo becomes concerned about the increasing number of data breaches and
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security measures and their compliance with the agreed-upon data protection standards.
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controls and ensure the protection of customer data. However, DataPro objects to the
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clause, thereby denying TechCo's right to conduct an independent assessment. Can

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D. This cannot be determined within the scope of this passage.

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Answer: D
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of action in case of a data breach in the absence of such a clause in the agreement is beyond the
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scope of the passage. Here, the data protection agreement did not contain the audit clause. Yet,
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whether the investigation can be denied due to this reason is not specified in the principle.
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Hence, the conclusion for this situation cannot be determined within the scope of this passage.
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Option A is incorrect as it cannot be inferred from the principle in the passage. Option B is
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incorrect as the same is not discussed in the passage.

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In recent years, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), has been the subject of intense

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scrutiny and debate. While it was enacted with the intention of combating terrorism and ensuring
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national security, its implementation and the consequences have sparked concerns about the

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erosion of civil liberties and the stifling of dissent. With the increasing concerns over the UAPA,

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it becomes imperative to delve deep into its intricacies and unravel its fallacies.

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behind its introduction. Rather than prevent terrorism, the statute has instead struck fear in the

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voices that support democracy, where simply disagreeing with the government's stance has come

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to the public. However, some argue that instead of addressing potential misuse and introducing
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leniency, there is a growing perception of these laws becoming increasingly stringent and

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whatsoever, the cession of a part of the territory of India or the secession of a part of the territory
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of India from the Union, or which incites any individual or group of individuals to bring about
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such cession or secession; or (ii) which disclaims, questions, disrupts or is intended to disrupt the

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sovereignty and territorial integrity of India; or (iii) which causes or is intended to cause

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Our constitution encourages the idea that "bail is a rule and jail is an exception," yet in UAPA it
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appears that the lawmakers are utterly unaware of this principle The UAPA's Section 43D (5)

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provides for the long-term incarceration of those accused of violating the law without bail, which
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can lead to abuses of their right to liberty and due process of law.

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The Act assigns absolute power to the central government. If government is of opinion that any
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association is, or has become, an unlawful association, it may, by notification in the Official

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in a maximum of 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after
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intimating the court. It has the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest punishments.
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https://www.livelaw.in/articles/uapa-breaking-down-the-fallacies-unlawful-activities-
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Source:
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11. In a recent case, the XYZ organization was declared an unlawful association by the
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central government under the UAPA. Several members of the organization were arrested
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and charged with violating the Act. The investigating agency filed a charge sheet within
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the prescribed timeframe. The accused individuals have been denied bail and are facing
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the possibility of life imprisonment. What potential concern can be raised regarding this
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situation?
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A. The accused individuals may be eligible for bail under Section 43D (5) of the UAPA.
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B. The charge sheet must be filed within 90 days, not 180 days, as per the UAPA.
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C. The accused individuals should be given the death penalty considering the gravity of their
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alleged crimes.
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D. The denial of bail to the accused individuals may infringe upon their right to liberty and due

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process of law.

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Answer: D
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Difficulty Level: Moderate
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bail to the accused individuals under the UAPA. Section 43D (5) of the UAPA allows for long-

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term incarceration without bail, which can lead to abuses of their right to liberty and due process
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of law. This raises questions about the fairness and potential violation of constitutional

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principles, such as the presumption of innocence and the right to seek bail. Options A and B are

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incorrect as they misstate the provisions of the UAPA. Option C is incorrect as it suggests a

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punishment that goes beyond what is prescribed by the UAPA.

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12. In the context of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), which of the

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following statements is incorrect regarding the declaration of an association as unlawful?

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The central government has the power to declare an association as unlawful through
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notification in the Official Gazette.

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The investigating agency can file a charge sheet within 180 days of the arrests, with the
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possibility of extension.
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The UAPA does not allow for the imposition of the death penalty or life imprisonment.
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The declaration of an association as unlawful can be challenged in court.

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D.
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Answer: C

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Difficulty Level: Moderate

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The correct answer is Option C as this statement is incorrect. The UAPA does indeed allow for
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the imposition of the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest punishments for certain
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offenses under the Act. This provision has been a subject of criticism and concern due to its

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potential for severe penalties. Option A is correct statement. The UAPA grants the central
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government the power to declare an association as unlawful through notification in the Official
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

Gazette. Option B is correct statement. The investigating agency has a maximum of 180 days to
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

file a charge sheet after the arrests, and this duration can be extended further after informing the
65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
court. Option D is correct statement. The declaration of an association as unlawful can be
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

challenged in court, allowing for a legal recourse to contest the government's decision.
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

13. In a Badalpur city, a group of activists organized peaceful protests demanding social
65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07

justice and government accountability. The government, viewing their activities as a

C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

threat to national security, invoked the provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar

Act (UAPA) against them. The accused individuals were arrested and denied bail under
G

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y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

Section 43D (5) of the UAPA. The investigating agency filed a charge sheet after 150
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65

days and subsequently requested an extension for further investigation. The court
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

approved the extension. What is one concern raised by critics regarding the UAPA
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

implementation in this case?

e
ge
(9

67
ar

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(9
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G

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y

A. The UAPA provides for a maximum duration of 90 days for filing a charge sheet, rendering
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur

the extension beyond that period invalid.

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
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dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

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y

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y
ur

y
ur

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ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
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dh

1)
65
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07

65
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76

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07
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g

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dh

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dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

e
6

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67

ee
ge
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67

ee
ar

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B. The UAPA allows for the release on bail of those accused of violating the law, provided they

ar

(9

g
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G

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G

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can provide a substantial surety.

ur

y
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u

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51

dh

1)
65
w

C. The UAPA grants individuals the right to legal representation of their choice during the trial.

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
D. The UAPA's provisions for long-term incarceration without bail may infringe upon the

07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee
accused individuals' right to liberty and due process of law.

78

C
ge

67

78
e
ge
(9

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6
ar

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(9

6
ar

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(9
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Answer: D

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y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
w

Difficulty Level: Tough

51

dh

)
65
w

51
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

C
Option D is correct as the activists who organized peaceful protests were arrested and denied bail

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67
under Section 43D (5) of the UAPA. They argue that this provision can be misused, leading to

e
ge
(9

67

e
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

the abuse of individuals' right to liberty and due process of law. Option A is incorrect. The UAPA

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
ur

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)
does not have a specific provision stating that the charge sheet must be filed within a maximum

dh

)
5
w

51

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

w
duration of 90 days. Option B is incorrect. Section 43D (5) of the UAPA states that an accused

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
C

70
individual can be denied bail if the court is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds to believe
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
they are guilty of the offense charged and that there are sufficient reasons to believe that the
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
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(9
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y

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accusation against them is prima facie true. Option C is incorrect. While the UAPA does provide
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
51

dh

)
individuals with the right to legal representation, it does not explicitly state that they have the
51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

65
ho

76

w
right to choose their own legal representation.
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

C
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
(9

67

e
6
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(9
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y

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ry

14. In a recent case under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), a group of
ur

ar
G

y
u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

individuals was arrested for their alleged involvement in activities that were deemed
dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
unlawful. The investigating agency filed a charge sheet within the stipulated time frame.
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

0
78

70
However, during the trial, it was revealed that the evidence against the accused was
87
e

C
ee
ge

67

e
6

8
67

e
ge
(9

67
g

insufficient to prove their guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. The defense argued that the
ar

ge
(9
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ge
(9
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G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
accused should be granted bail as per the principle of "bail is a rule and jail is an
G

y
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y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

exception." Which of the following options accurately reflects the course of action that
65
w

dh

1)
5
w

65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
the court should take?
ho

07
C

70

ho
7

07
C
78

87
e

78

C
The court should deny bail to the accused based on the severity of the charges under UAPA,

7
e

A.
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6

78
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67

e
6

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even if the evidence is insufficient.
(9

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G

The court should grant bail to the accused since the evidence against them is insufficient to
ur

B.

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65

establish their guilt.

w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

The court should keep the accused in custody indefinitely until more substantial evidence is
07
C

ho

C.
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
produced.
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9

The court should transfer the case to a military tribunal for further investigation and decision-
ar

(9

D.
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

making.
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

Answer: B
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e

Difficulty Level: Moderate

ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

Option B is the correct choice. If the evidence against the accused is insufficient to prove their
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur

guilt beyond a reasonable doubt, the court should grant them bail. This is in line with the
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

principle of "bail is a rule and jail is an exception." Option A is incorrect because bail should be
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

granted unless there are compelling reasons to deny it. If the evidence against the accused is
C

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

insufficient to establish their guilt, it would not justify denying bail solely based on the severity
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar

of the charges under UAPA. Option C is incorrect because keeping the accused in custody
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

indefinitely, until more substantial evidence is produced, would violate their right to liberty and
dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

1)
65
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ho

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07

65
ho

76

ow
07
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g

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6

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dh

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ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

e
6

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67

ee
ge
(9

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ee
ar

(9
due process of law. Option D is incorrect because the UAPA is not associated with military

ar

(9

g
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
tribunals. It is a civilian law, and the case should be handled by the appropriate civilian court

ur

y
dh

1)

)G
u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

system.

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee

78

C
ge

67

78
e
ge
(9

e
6
ar

ge
(9

6
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(9
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G

(9
y

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G

y
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dh

G
Passage 4 - Writs

ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

)
65
w

51
ho

w
07

ho

w
07
A writ is a written official order issued by the court. The formal order may be in form of warrant,

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

87

0
87
e

C
direction, command, order etc. Writs can only be issued by the High Court Under Article 226 of
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
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67

e
ar

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(9
Indian Constitution, 1950 and by The Supreme Court under Article 32 of Indian Constitution,
ar

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(9
ar
G

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y

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G

y
ur

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G

ry
ur
1950. Indian constitution has adopted the concept of prerogative writs from English common

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)

dh

)
5
w

51
law.

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
C

70
There are 5 types of writes specified under Indian constitution law. Writ of habeas corpus can be
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67
issued for preserving the liberty of a person, who is being illegally detained. It can be invoked

e
6

ge
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

against the state as well as against the person within whose custody the aggrieved person is. Writ

ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
51

dh

)
of habeas corpus is a powerful weapon available before a common man who has been
51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

w
wrongfully detained by the person or state. This writ provides a fast and powerful remedy against

65
ho

76

w
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

illegal detention.
C
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
(9

67

e
6
ar

ge
(9
ar

History of writ of mandamus say that it is a command, issued in the name of the crown by the

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G

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y

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G

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ur

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G

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court of king‟s bench to the subordinate court, inferior tribunal, board or to any person requiring

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u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65

it for him to perform a public duty imposed by law. Therefore, a writ of mandamus is a command
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
7

ho

76
C

70

given by any high court or supreme court to the lower court or any tribunal or board or to any

ho
7

0
78

70
87
e

C
ee
ge

other public authority to perform their public duty imposed upon them by law. It‟s primary
67

e
6

8
67

e
ge
(9

67
g
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9

objective is to supply defects of justice and prevent rights of the citizen. Writ of prohibition is as
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur

old as common law. It is an extraordinary writ of preventive nature. It prevents courts, tribunal,
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

dh

1)
5
w

quasi-judicial bodies and other officers from exercising their power beyond their jurisdiction or
65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
ho

07
C

70

ho
7

07
exercising those powers which are not vested on them.
C
78

87
e

78

7
e
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9

Writ of certiorari has been defined as one of the most effective and efficient remedies taken from
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
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y
ur

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common law. Certiorari means “to certify”. It is an order issued by the High Court to an inferior
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)

court or any authority exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions. The main object of this writ
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

is to keep the inferior courts, judicial and quasi-judicial authorities within their limits of
ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

jurisdiction and if the act in excess of their jurisdiction their decision will be quashed by the
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge

High Court and Supreme Court by issuing a writ of certiorari. Writ of quo warranto prevent the
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

person from wrongfully or forcefully holding any office or from continuing the office. By writ of
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65

quo warranto court has the authority to ask the holder of the office that by what authority he is
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

holding the office.

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/writ/
e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65

15. In a small town, Mr. Sharma, a well-known businessman, was arrested by the local police
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

without any proper legal grounds. He was detained in police custody for several days
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

without any charges being filed against him. His family and friends were deeply
e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

concerned about his well-being and sought a legal remedy to secure his release. They
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

approached the court seeking a writ that would address Mr. Sharma's situation. Which
dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

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G

y
ur

y
ur

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y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

1)
65
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07

65
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76

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ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

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ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

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C

70

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C

70
78

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87
e

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ge

67

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6

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type of writs given below would probably help Mr. Sharma's family and friends to secure

ar

(9

g
ar
G

(9
y

g
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G

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his release assuming there is no application of habeas corpus in Mr. Sharma's country?

ur

y
dh

1)

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u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

Writ of mandamus.

dh
A.

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
Writ of certiorari.

07
C

ho
B.

87
8

70
7
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C
67

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Writ of quo warranto.

78

C
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67
C.

78
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Writ of prohibition.

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D.

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dh

G
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1

dh

1)
Answer: A

dh
65
w

51

dh

)
65
w

51
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
Difficulty Level: Tough

07
C

ho
87

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67
Option B is incorrect as Writ of certiorari is used to review and correct errors of law committed

e
ge
(9

67

e
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

by inferior courts or authorities. Option C is incorrect because Writ of quo warranto is used to

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
ur

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)
challenge the authority or legitimacy of a person holding a public office. It is not directly

dh

)
5
w

51

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

w
applicable to cases of illegal detention. Option D is incorrect as Writ of prohibition is used to

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
C

70
prevent courts, tribunals, or other bodies from exceeding their jurisdiction or acting beyond their
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
powers. Now, writ of mandamus is a command issued by a higher court to a public authority,
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
)G

directing them to perform a public duty imposed by law. Here, the police are a public authority
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
51

dh

)
and can be ordered to do their obligation of releasing someone who has been arrested illegally.
51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

65
ho

76

w
Though, the writ of habeas corpus is the perfect fit for a case of illegal detention, but writ of
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

C
mandamus can be issued in absence of the choice of habeas corpus. Hence, A is correct.
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
(9

67

e
6
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

ry
ur

ar
G

y
u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

16. In a certain jurisdiction, a quasi-judicial authority, the XYZ Board, has been accused of
dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
exceeding its jurisdiction while making a decision. The affected party wishes to challenge
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

0
78

70
the decision before the High Court. Which of the following remedies is most appropriate
87
e

C
ee
ge

67

e
6

8
67

e
ge
(9

67
g

for the affected party to seek?

ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
Writ of Habeas Corpus
G

y
ur

A.
)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

Writ of Mandamus
65
w

dh
B.

1)
5
w

65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
Writ of Certiorari
ho

C.
07
C

70

ho
7

07
C
78

87
e

78

C
Writ of Quo Warranto

7
e

D.
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

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ar

Answer: C
G

(9
y

g
ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)

Difficulty Level: Easy

65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
The writ of certiorari is used to review and quash decisions made by inferior courts or authorities
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

that exceed their jurisdiction. In this case, the XYZ Board, a quasi-judicial authority, is accused
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar

of exceeding its jurisdiction in making a decision. The writ of habeas corpus (Option A) is used
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
to challenge the legality of a person's detention, which is not relevant here. The writ of
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65

mandamus (Option B) is used to compel a public official to perform a duty, but it does not
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

address the issue of jurisdictional limits. The writ of quo warranto (Option D) is used to
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

challenge a person's right to hold a public office, which is not applicable in this scenario.
e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

Therefore, the correct option is C.

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

17. Which of the following statements about writs under the Indian Constitution is incorrect?
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

A. Writ of habeas corpus can be invoked against the state or the person holding the aggrieved
e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

person.
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

1)
65
w
ho

ow
07

65
ho

76

ow
07
 ge
(9

67
g

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

)G
ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

e
6

ge

67

ee
ge
(9

67

ee
ar

(9
B. Writ of mandamus is a command given by any high court or supreme court to perform a

ar

(9

g
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
public duty.

ur

y
dh

1)

)G
u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

C. Writ of certiorari is an order issued by an inferior court to a higher court.

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
D. Writ of quo warranto prevents a person from wrongfully holding or continuing in office.

07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee

78

C
ge

67

78
Answer: C

e
ge
(9

e
6
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur
Difficulty Level: Moderate

)G

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

)
65
w

51
Option C is correct because the statement is incorrect. The writ of certiorari is an order issued by
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

C
a higher court (such as the High Court or Supreme Court) to an inferior court or authority, not the

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67
other way around. It is used to review and quash decisions made by the lower court or authority

e
ge
(9

67

e
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

if they exceed their jurisdiction. Option A is incorrect as the writ of habeas corpus can indeed be

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
ur

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)
invoked against the state or the person holding the aggrieved person. It is used to ensure the

dh

)
5
w

51

dh

1)
65
76

w
ho

w
liberty of a person who is being unlawfully detained and the statement is correct. Option B is

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70

ho
C

70
incorrect because statement is correct. The writ of mandamus is a command issued by a high
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
court or the Supreme Court to a lower court, tribunal, or public authority, requiring them to
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
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perform a public duty imposed by law. Option D is also incorrect as this statement is correct. The
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
51

dh

)
writ of quo Warranto is used to prevent a person from wrongfully holding or continuing in office.
51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

65
ho

76

w
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

C
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
18. Mr. Sharma was detained by the state authorities without any legal justification. Seeking
(9

67

e
6
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

ry

remedy, he filed a petition before the High Court invoking a specific writ under the
ur

ar
G

y
u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

Indian Constitution. The court, upon examining the facts, issued a writ against the person
dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
responsible for Mr. Sharma's detention. Which type of writ was most likely issued in this
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

0
78

70
case?
87
e

C
ee
ge

67

e
6

8
67

e
ge
(9

67
g

Writ of habeas corpus, as it provides a powerful remedy against illegal detention.

ar

ge
(9

A.
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
Writ of mandamus, as it commands a public authority to perform its duty.
G

y
ur

B.
)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

Writ of prohibition, as it prevents courts from exceeding their jurisdiction.

65
w

dh
C.

1)
5
w

65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
Writ of certiorari, as it keeps inferior courts within their limits of jurisdiction.
ho

D.
07
C

70

ho
7

07
C
78

87
e

78

7
e
ge

e
6

Answer: A

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
)G

y
ur

ar
Difficulty Level: Moderate
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

The correct answer is option A. In the given case study, Mr. Sharma was wrongfully detained by
65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
the state authorities without any legal justification. To seek his release and protect his liberty, Mr.
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

Sharma filed a petition before the High Court. In such circumstances, the appropriate writ to be
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar

invoked would be the writ of habeas corpus. The writ of habeas corpus is specifically designed to
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
preserve the personal liberty of individuals who are being unlawfully detained. It allows the
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65

court to inquire into the legality of a person's detention and ensures that they are not held against
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

their will without proper justification. Hence, options B, C, and D are incorrect.
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

Passage 5 – Current
ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

The Delhi government is registering marriages of non-Hindus under the Special Marriage Act,
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar

1954 (SMA). On account of this, Muslims registering their marriages in Delhi will no longer be
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

governed by Muslim personal law on issues of marriage, divorce and inheritance.

ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

1)
65
w
ho

ow
07

65
ho

76

ow
07
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(9

67
g

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar

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y

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G

y
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ar
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y
ur

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y
ur
dh

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ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

e
6

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67

ee
ge
(9

67

ee
ar

(9
The Delhi (Compulsory Registration of Marriages) Order, 2014 requires all marriages performed

ar

(9

g
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
in Delhi to be registered within six months, failing which a penalty is imposed. This Order itself

ur

y
dh

1)

)G
u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

does not specify any particular law under which to register marriages which have been

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
performed under personal laws. It merely requires that all marriages performed in Delhi be

07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee
registered.

78

C
ge

67

78
e
ge
(9

e
6
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

This practice, arbitrary and without legal basis, is to register marriages only under the SMA

ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)
where one or both the parties to a marriage are non-Hindus, whereas, in marriages between

dh
65
w

51

dh

)
65
w

51
ho

w
07

Hindus(which includes Sikhs, Buddhists and Jains), an option to register their marriage under
ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

87
their personal law or the SMA exists.

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67

e
ar

ge
(9
ar

The scheme of the SMA is such that a marriage can directly be performed under it and be

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
ur
governed by its provisions. These are referred to as court marriages. However, the SMA also

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)

dh

)
5
w

51

dh

1)
65
provides an option to couples married under personal law to register their marriage under the
76

w
ho

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70
SMA and voluntarily opt out of their personal law.

ho
C

70
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
In effect, a marriage performed under a personal law, say a nikah, once registered under the
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
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SMA, will be treated as a court marriage and will not be governed by Muslim personal law. This
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
51

dh

)
will mean that provisions of divorce under Muslim personal law, including various forms
51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

65
ho

76

w
of talaq, will not be applicable to such a couple. They will necessarily need to file for divorce
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

C
under provisions of the SMA.
ee

C
67

87
e

78
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
(9

67

e
6
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
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The SMA further creates a distinction for Muslims in case of law related to inheritance by
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

ry
ur

ar
G

y
u

ur
requiring property to be succeeded to as per the Indian Succession Act,1925 (ISA) – except
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65
w

51
where both parties are Hindus, Buddhists, Sikhs and Jains. Thus, if two Hindus register their

5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

marriage under the SMA, they will continue to be governed by the applicable personal law with
C

0
78

70
87
e

C
ee
ge

67

e
6

regard to inheritance. Meanwhile, inheritance in cases of Parsis and Christians is already

8
67

e
ge
(9

67
g
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar

governed under the ISA. The Muslim personal law on inheritance is significantly different from
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur

the ISA. In Muslim law, a person cannot grant his heirs more than 1/3rd of his assets whereas no
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

dh

1)
5
w

65
such restriction exists under the ISA. Such differences will significantly affect people‟s ability to
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
ho

07
C

70

ho
7

07
C

plan their succession.

78

87
e

78

7
e
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9

https://thewire.in/law/delhis-compulsory-registration-of-marriages-has-unintended-

6
ar

Source:
(9
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

consequences-for-muslims
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

19. Rohan and Razia have been childhood friends and want to marry each other. Their
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9

families however do not approve of the match since Rohan is a Hindu boy while Razia
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

belongs to a Muslim family. Both elope from their homes in Uttar Pradesh, get married at
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

a local temple in a Hindu ceremony with the help of a priest. They then run off to Delhi
dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

to make a life for themselves, and get their marriage registered in Delhi. Which law will
07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e

they be governed by?

ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

A. The Hindu law as they have been married in a Hindu ceremony and so Razia is now a
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

Hindu.
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65

B. The applicable law in Uttar Pradesh as the marriage has been solemnized there.
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

C. The SMA will be applicable.

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

D. Any law that the couple wish to apply for themselves.

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

Answer: C
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65

Difficulty Level: Moderate

w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

1)
65
w
ho

ow
07

65
ho

76

ow
07
 ge
(9

67
g

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

)G
ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70
78

h
e

87
e

C
ge

67

e
6

ge

67

ee
ge
(9

67

ee
ar

(9
No matter where the marriage has been performed, if it is being registered in Delhi, it will be

ar

(9

g
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
governed by the Delhi (Compulsory Registration of Marriages) Order, 2014 which necessarily

ur

y
dh

1)

)G
u

ur
dh

)
51

dh

1)
65
w

registers a marriage with one or both non-Hindu parties under the SMA. This marriage will

dh
w

51
65
ho

76

w
7

ho

w
70

ho

76
therefore be governed by the SMA. Option C, which recognises this, is the correct answer.

07
C

ho
C

87
8

70
7
e

C
67

ee
Option B which wrongly assumes that a marriage in UP shall be governed by UP law is wrong,

78

C
ge

67

78
e
ge
(9

e
6
ar

ge
(9

6
ar
for reasons stated above. Option A is incorrect as Razia does not become a Hindu merely by

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur
marrying in a Hindu ceremony and so the law applicable to a non-Hindu applies to her. Option D

)G

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

)
65
is irrelevant and false as per the scheme of the passage.

51
ho

w
07

ho

w
07

ho

76
07
C

ho
87

87

0
87
e

C
67

87
e

C
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67

e
ar

ge
(9
ar

20. Assume that in the above scenario, Razia was a Sikh girl. Which law would the marriage

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

ry
be solemnised under now (in Delhi)? ur

y
dh

1)

G
u

ur
dh

1)

dh

)
5
w

51

dh

1)
65
A. The SMA as Razia is a non-Hindu party still.
76

w
ho

5
ho

76

w
7
70

ho

76
C

70
B. The Hindu law as the marriage has been performed as per Hindu ceremonies.

ho
C

70
78

70
e

78

C
e

8
ge

C. It will be governed by the Uttar Pradesh law as it was performed there.

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9

e
ar

ge
(9

6
ar

ge
(9
D. The couple shall have an option to have their marriage registered under Hindu law or

ar
G

(9
y

ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
under the SMA.
dh

G
ur
51

dh

)
51

dh

1)
w

dh

1)
76

5
ho

65
ho

76

w
Answer: D
07
0

ho
C

ho
87

07
C

70
87

C
ee

C
67

87
e

78
Difficulty Level: Easy
67

e
ge
g

e
ge
(9

67

e
6
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

ry

The passage clearly and outrightly lays down that while in the event of even one party being a
ur

ar
G

y
u

ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

non-Hindu the marriage will be registered under the SMA, the same is not the case for a
dh

1)
65
w

dh

)
65
w

51
5
ho

w
07

ho

76

w
marriage between a Hindu and a Sikh. The latter couple shall have an option to have it registered
7

ho

76
C

70

ho
7

0
78

70
under Hindu law or under the SMA. Option D, which recognises this, is the right answer. Option
87
e

C
ee
ge

67

e
6

8
67

e
ge
(9

67
g

A is false as a clear exception to the situation exists despite Razia being a non-Hindu party.
ar

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
Option B is wrong as Hindu law is not applicable here solely, but an option between it and the
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

SMA exists. Option C is incorrect for it wrongly assumes that the place of solemnization of
65
w

dh

1)
5
w

65
ho

76

w
07

65
ho

w
marriage is whose law it shall be governed by whereas the fact is that it shall be governed by the
ho

07
C

70

ho
7

07
C
78

87
e

78

C
law of where it has been registered. This being Delhi in the present case, it shall be

7
e
ge

e
6

78
ge

67

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
registered under the Delhi (Compulsory Registration of Marriages) Order, 2014.
(9

6
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

g
ar
)G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur
dh

G
ur
1

dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

21. In the above scenario, if the couple registers their marriage in Delhi under the Hindu
ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

personal law, which law shall govern their matters of inheritance and succession?
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge

A. The Hindu law as their marriage has been registered under it.
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

B. The ISA as both parties are not Hindus or Sikhs and whenever that is the case, they shall
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65

be governed by the ISA as per the SMA.

w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

C. The Uttar Pradesh law as that is where the marriage has been performed.
07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e

D. Whichever law the couple wishes to apply to themselves.

ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

Answer: A
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

a
G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh

1)
65

Difficulty Level: Easy

w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

The exception in the last paragraph says that the SMA requires marriages under it to be governed
87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

by the ISA, unless both parties are Hindus/Sikhs/Jains/Buddhists; if „both‟ parties are not so, the
e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ISA shall apply. However, that exception applies to marriages registered under the ISA. Here, our
ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur

marriage has been voluntarily registered under the Hindu law by exercising the option available
dh

1)

dh

1)
65
w

dh

1)
65
w

65
ho

w
07

65
ho

w
07

ho

07
C

ho
87

07
C

87

87
e

C
67

87
e
ge

67

e
ge

67

e
ge
(9

67
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
ar
G

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

1)

G
ur
dh

1)

dh
65
w

51

dh

1)
65
w
ho

ow
07

65
ho

76

ow
07
 ge
(9

67
g

e
6

ge
(9
ar

ge
(9
ar

(9
y

ar
G

y
ur

ar
G

y
ur

)G

y
ur
dh

)G
ur
51

dh

1)

dh
w

51

dh
65
76

1
ho

65
ho

76

w
7
70

ho
C

70

ho

07
C

70