Trident Exam Paper 2012
Trident Exam Paper 2012
Trident Exam Paper 2012
English Questions: 12, 1 mark for correct answer, -0.25 mark for incorrect answer
Read the following passage and answer the 3 questions that follow: No very satisfactory account of the mechanism that caused the formation of the ocean basins has yet been given. The traditional view supposes that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a liquid when it is subjected to small forces for long periods and that differences in temperature under oceans and continents are sufficient to produce convection in the mantle of the earth with rising convection currents under the mid-ocean ridges and sinking currents under the continents. Theoretically, this convection would carry the continental plates along as though they were on a conveyor belt and would provide the forces needed to produce the split that occurs along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has the advantage that the currents are driven by temperature differences that themselves depend on the position of the continents. Such a back-coupling, in which the position of the moving plate has an impact on the forces that move it, could produce complicated and varying motions. On the other hand, the theory is implausible because convection does not normally occur along lines, and it certainly does not occur along lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in direction, as the ridge is. Also it is difficult to see how the theory applies to the plate between the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the ridge in the Indian Ocean. This plate is growing on both sides, and since there is no intermediate trench, the two ridges must be moving apart. It would be odd if the rising convection currents kept exact pace with them. An alternative theory is that the sinking part of the plate, which is denser than the hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the plate after it. Again it is difficult to see how this applies to the ridge in the South Atlantic, where neither the African nor the American plate has a sinking part. Another possibility is that the sinking plate cools the neighboring mantle and produces convection currents that move the plates. This last theory is attractive because it gives some hope of explaining the enclosed seas, such as the Sea of Japan. These seas have a typical oceanic floor, except that the floor is overlaid by several kilometers of sediment. Their floors have probably been sinking for long periods. It seems possible that a sinking current of cooled mantle material on the upper side of the plate might be the cause of such deep basins. The enclosed seas are an important feature of the earths surface, and seriously require explanation because, in addition to the enclosed seas that are developing at present behind island arcs, there are a number of older ones of possibly similar origin, such as the Gulf of Mexico, the Black Sea, and perhaps the North Sea.
Q According to the author which of the explanations for formation of ocean basins is NOT provided 1. in the passage
Option A B C D
Upper mantle of the earth behaves as a liquid when it is subjected to small forces Sinking part of the plate, which is denser than the hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the plate after it Sinking plate cools the neighboring mantle and produces convection currents that move the plates Japan Sea has a typical oceanic floor, except that the floor is overlaid by several
kilometers of sediment
Q 2. According to the author, which theory has been successfully able to prove the cause of ocean 2. basin formation? I. Sinking part of the plate, which is denser than the hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the plate after it. II. Sinking plate cools the neighboring mantle and produces convection currents that move the plates Travellers proof
Option
A B C D
Q 3.
Option
A B C D
Resolve a controversy Sketch a theory Reinforce certain research findings tabulate various observations
Q 4. Fill
up
the
blanks
with
suitable
prepositions
from
the
alternatives
given:
In the long run, drinking proved fatal, both.his reputation & health.
Option
A B C D
for to of at
Q 5. Fill up the blanks with suitable prepositions from the alternatives given under the sentence. We should try to.. the evil practices in the society.
Option
A B C D
Q 6. Fill
up
the
blanks
with
suitable
prepositions
from
the
alternatives
given:
Option
A B C D
at in on for
Q In the following sentence, some part or whole sentence is underlined. Below the sentence are 7. given four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the answer from among the choices which produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact. The relationship between the RJD and the congress, which had earlier formed a morcha of sort. are currently somewhat strained.
Option
A B C D
a morcha of sort, were currently somewhat strained. a morcha of sort, was currently somewhat strained. a morcha of sorts, is currently somewhat strained. a morcha of sort, is currently somewhat strained
Q Fill in the blanks with correct article or prepositions: 8. That night, she entered the room alone ___ the door, switched __ the light and sat motionless __ the dining table ____ her head bowed.
Option
A B C D
at, on, with, for through, on, at, with for, from, against, with before, above, with, of
Q In the following sentence a word or phrase is underlined. For the underlined part four 9. words/phrases are listed below the sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to underlined part: He displayed a distinct tendency to long-winded speeches when asked how he was.
Option
A B C D
Q In the following sentence a word or phrase is underlined. For the underlined part four 10. words/phrases are listed below the sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to underlined part: The two opposing parties have reached a stalemate.
Option
A B C D
Q In the following sentence a word or phrase is underlined. For the underlined part four 11. words/phrases are listed below the sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to underlined part: Incensed by his rude behavior the manager suspended the work.
Option
A B C D
Q In the following sentence a word or phrase is underlined. For the underlined part four 12. words/phrases are listed below the sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to underlined part: The journey to Siliguri is quite tedious.
Option
A B C D
Analytical Reasoning
Questions: 15, 1 mark for correct answer, -0.25 mark for incorrect answer
Directions: In each of the 4 questions given below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known fact.
Q 13.
Statements: All
readers
are teachers
are are
Option
A B C D
if only conclusion I follows if only conclusion II follows if neither I nor II follows if both I and II follow
Q 14.
dogs
are dogs
are are
Option
A B C D
if only conclusion I follows if only conclusion II follows if neither I nor II follows if both I and II follow
Q 15.
are are
Option
A B C D
if only conclusion I follows if only conclusion II follows if neither I nor II follows if both I and II follow
Q 16.
Statements: No
All tree
plants
is plants
are are
Conclusions: I. Some II. Those plants which are not trees are green.
Option
A B C D
if only conclusion I follows if only conclusion II follows if neither I nor II follows if both I and II follow
Q In a certain code DIRECTOR is coded as ROTCERID. In that code language SOLUTION will be 17. coded as:
Option
A B C D
Q A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A? To answer this question which of the 18. statements (1) and (2) is necessary? C is the brother of A and the son of E. F is the mother B.
Option
A B C D
Only (1) Only (2) Either (1) or (2) (1) and (2) both
Q 19.
in
the
series:
Option
A B C D
45 35 25 14
Q 20. If DOCTOR is coded as ROTDOC, which of the following is the code for NURSED?
Option
A B C D
Q 21.
Complete 8 ,27,125,343,____
the
following
Number
series.
Option
A B C D
Q In a code language 79N4U94E is coded as E49U4N97 then in that code language 22. 1I4R9TIONwill be coded as:
Option
A B C D
Directions: Study the following information and answer the 5 questions given below it: Eight friends, A to H, are students of three colleges Loyola, Xaviers and Christ with two to three in each college. They are majoring in three subjects Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry. Not more than three of them specialize in any subject. There are only two students in Xaviers. G studies Physics in Xaviers with only E, who studies Mathematics. A and H do not study in Christ, and study the same discipline but not Physics. C studies Mathematics in Christ with F who studies Physics. D studies Mathematics and does not study in the same college where C studies. B does not study Chemistry.
Option
A B C D
Q 24.
Option
A B C D
Q 25.
What is Bs specialization?
Option
A B C
Data inadequate
Option
A B C D
Q 27.
Option
A B C D
Numerical Reasoning
Questions: 15, 1 mark for correct answer, -0.25 mark for incorrect answer
Q If 12 bulls can eat 5 kg of husk in 15 days, how long will it take 96 goats to eat 4 kgs assuming 28. a bull can consume 4 times as much as a goat:
Option
A B C D
Q Kalyan has the ability to complete a work in 4 days. Amit takes double the time taken by Kalyan 29. , Firoz takes double that of Amit,and Nizam takes double that of Firoz to complete the same task. They are paired in group of two each. One pair takes two-thirds the time needed by the second pair to complete the work. Which is the first pair?
Option
A B C D
Kalyan and Amit Kalyan and Firoz Kalyan and Nizam Amit and Firoz
Q 2 whole number x and y are such that the sum of 5% of x and 4% of y is 2/3 rd of the sum of 30. 6% of x and 8% of y. calculating the ratio of x: y, we get:
Option
A B C D
Q At a cd rental shop data was collected on the number of cds rented on each of ten consecutive 31. Sundays: 40, 58, 30, 90, 48, 50, 41, 39, 40, 56. Calculate the sample mean (or the value closest to it).
Option
A B C D
44 49 46 48
Q Shyam tries a particular combination to open a number lock which contains 5 rings , each ring 32. containing 10 distinct numbers. Find the probability that the lock is not opened?
Option
A B C D
Q Assuming license plates are randomly distributed and that they consist of 3 letters followed by 3 33. digits (ex. UPW 181), what is the probability that SAM OTE will get a plate with either his first or last name on it?
Option
A B C D
Q Suganya goes to visit the house of some friends whom she has not seen in many years.She 34. knows that besides the two married adults in the household, there are 2 children of different ages. But she does not know their genders. When she knocks on the door of the house, a boy answers. What is the probability that the other child is a boy?
Option
A B C D
Q 35.Suppose that you have Rs. 10 and that you play a betting game to win an additional Rs. 10.00. Following are the rules:
1) You bet your entire fortune of Rs. 10.00 on one spin of the wheel 2) The wheel has totally 18 holes, out of total 40 slots. 3) If the ball lands in any one of the holes, then you win additional Rs. 10 As per the above rules, what is the chance of you earning a profit of Rs. 20?
Option
A B C D
Q Assume that a pathway is being created through two circular figures represented by the 36. equations below : 2 2 (x+2) + (y-6) = 16
2 (x+2) + (y-6) What is the area of the pathway, in sq units, thus created?
81
Option
A B C D
20 pi 65 pi 30 pi 40 pi
Q 37. What is the area bounded by the following curves Y+2x <5, y-5x <-5 and y>0
Option
A B C D
Q A book has 317 pages. If each page has the number written on it, what percentage of all the 38. numerals used are 3?
Option
A B C D
Option
A B C D
Option
A B C D
Q 41.
Option
A B C D
Q 42.
Option
A B C D
Mathematical Modelling
Questions: 3, 1 mark for correct answer, -0.25 mark for incorrect answer
Q Suppose that a national government takes census of population every quarter in a year. The 43. population of the country at the start of 2005 (P 2005) is 100 million. The per capita growth rate of population (gr) of 0.01 per year and per capita death rate (dr) is 0.007 per year. What would be the population of the country at the start of 2006?
Option
A B C D
Q See 44.
the
figure
and
answer
the
given
question:
The earth has a circumference at the equator of about 25,000 miles. (For purposes of this problem, lets assume a perfect sphere with a circumference of exactly 25,000 miles.) Imagine a wire laid around the earth at the equator. By how much would this wire have to be lengthened so that it could be lifted to a height of 6 ft over the entire equator? (Note: 1 mile = 5280 ft.)
Option
A B
10 ft. 32 ft.
C D
Q A government decides to adopt the exponential method for taking census. Given that P 0 is the 45. initial population, r is the average yearly growth rate, and n is the time in years, choose from the list below, the correct model qualifying the exponential method? r*n 1) P0 *exp r 2) P0*exp * n 3) P0*exp n * r
Option
A B C D
1&2 1 2&3 3
Mechanical
Questions: 45, 1 mark for correct answer, -0.25 mark for incorrect answer
Q In a four bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory motion to the follower for a continuous 46. rotation of the crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of follower, determine the theoretical maximum length of coupler. The distance between fixed pivots of crank and followers is
Option
A B C D
Q 47. Vaporisation curve on p-t diagram for all substances possesses the following slope
Option
A B C D
Q The specific heats at constant volume and constant pressure for air are 711 J/Kg oK and 1000 48. J/Kg0K respectively. The gas constant for air is
Option
A B C D
Q A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible process during which 200 kcal are rejected, the 49. volume changing from 4 cubic meter to 2 cubic meter and the pressure remaining constant at 4.2 kg per cubic cm. The change in the internal energy will be
Option
A B C D
Q 50.
Option
A B C D
Inert gas combustion Combustion in vaccum Catalytic combustion Does not exist
Q The maximum displacement amplitude for an instrument having neutral frequency of 20 rad/sec 51. and withstand capability of 4m per second square can be
Option
A B C D
Q In a rotary engine the angular velocity of the cylinder centre line is 25 rad/sec and the relative 52. velocity of a point on the cylinder centre line wrt to the cylinder is 10 m /sec. Coriolis acceleration will be
Option
A B C D
250 m per second square 100 m per second square 500 m per second square 1000 m per second square
Q 53.
Option A B C D
Provides basis of determining critical damping Predicts nature of vibration Provides a measure of the relative amount of damping in a system Enables measurement of damping
Q A flywheel weighs 981/ Kg and has a radius of gyration of 100 cm. It is given a spin of 100 54. r.p.m about its horizontal axis. The whole assembly is rotating about a vertical axis at 6 rad / sec. The gyroscopic couple experienced will be
Option
A B C D
Q A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre 55. lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm
Option
A B
3 8
C D
18 5
Q The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while 56. performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
Option
A B C D
N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Q During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of 57. taken at constant All cylinders firing 3037 Number 1 cylinder not firing Number 2 cylinder not firing Number 3 cylinder not firing Number 4 cylinder not firing The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
Option
A B C D
Q A body having moment of inertia of 30 kg m 2 is rotating at 210 RPM and meshes with another 58. body at rest having M.I. of 40 Kg m2. The resultant speed after meshing will be
Option
A B C D
Q 59.
In elliptical trammels
Option
A B C D
Three pair turning one pair sliding Two pairs turning two pair sliding One pair turning three pairs sliding All four pairs are turning
Q Rockwell C scale uses minor increment load of 10 Kg and the major increment load and 60. diamond indenter respectively are
Option
A B C D
100 kg and 118 degrees 140 kg and 118 degrees 150 kg and 120 degrees 140 kg and 129 degrees
Q 61. The significance of dieing down of white flame during the operation of Bessemer converter is
Option A B C D
The air is burning out the silicon and the manganese resulting in high increase in temperature and scrap steel needs to be added to control temperature. The silicon has burned out and carbon has started burning That the converter must be tilted and air turned off , otherwise iron would oxidise Such a phenomenon does not occur
Q 62. The purpose of scrap steel in the charge for blast furnace is
Option
A B C D
To act as an aggregate of iron bearing mineral To supply heat to reduce ore and melt the iron To form a slag by combining with impurities To control the grade of cast iron produced
Q 63.
Option
A B C D
Q 64. Which of the following has the highest specific strength of all structural materials
Option
A B C D
Q 65.
Proof stress
Option A B C D
Is the safest stress Is that which will cause a specified permanent deformation in a material, usually 0.01 % or less Is used in connection with materials like mild steel Does not exist
Q A certain high tensile strength steel has a modulus of elasticity of 2 x 10 6 kg per square cm and 66. a yield point stress of 6000 kg per square cm. Find the minimum limiting value of the slenderness ratio for which eulers equation is valid
Option
A B C D
99 80 75 57
67. kg to form a beam. What is the greatest force p that could act vertically at the mid span. Weight of bricks may be neglected.
Option
A B C D
Q A rectangular plate 8 cm long and 6 cm wide is subjected to normal forces of 600 kg at 6 cm 68. side and 200 kg at 8 cm side. The normal and tangential components of force on the diagonal plane will be
Option
A B C D
200 kg and 600 kg 520 kg and 360 kg 800 kg and 400 kg Cannot be determined
Q There are two bars of equal length and equal volume and same material, one having stepped 69. diameters and other having uniform diameter. If maximum stress produced in both bars is same then the stored energy will be
Option
A B C D
More in stepped diameter shaft More in uniform diameter shaft Equal in both Would depend on other factors
Option
A B C D
Q 71. Diametral gauging for out of roundness measurement is not sufficient because
Option A B C D
It cant sense even lobed parts Radial changes always occur which cant be sensed by it It is difficult to find true centre Its reading cant be fed to computer
Q 72.
Option A B C D
Error is the disagreement between the result of measurement and actual value. Random error are regularly repetitive in nature and result from improper conditions or procedures that are constant in action Uncertainty of measurement represents the dispersion of the result of measurement defined by the limits of the error Absolute error is the algebraic difference between the result of measurement and the value of comparison
Q Which of the following is not the essential requirement for accuracy of measurement with a 73. sine bar?
Option A B C D
Flatness of upper surface Exact distance between roller axes and mutual parallelism Parallelism between top and bottom surfaces Parallelism of rollers to upper surface and equality of axis distance as from surface.
Q 74.
Option
A B C D
Q If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at a constant total dynamic head 75. requiring a definite B.H.P. , the same pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity nearly same as of water would discharge
Option
A B C D
Q 76.The most economical section of a trapezoidal channel for maximum discharge is obtained when
Option A B C D
Hydraulic depth = half of depth Half of top width = sloping side Length at perpendiculars from centre of top width to bottom and sloping sides are equal All of the above
Q The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface 77. being 0.5 m below the water level will be
Option
A B C D
Q 78.
Option A B
Hydraulic grade line should always be above the centre line of conduit Hydraulic grade line should always be below the centre line of conduit
C D
Hydraulic grade line should always be parallel to the centre line of conduit Hydraulic grade line may be above or below the centre line of conduit
Q 79.
A centrifugal pump has the Speed Flow Head Power If speed is increased to 1500 rpm, new flow will be
Option
A B C D
Q An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 cubic meter volume will be completely 80. submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of
Option
A B C D
Option
A B C D
Q 82.
Option
A B C D
First angle projection Third angle projection Both a) and b) Assembly view
Q 83. Choose
the
best
option
for
the
figures
shown:
Option A B C D
According to rules Hidden lines are correctly shown in B According to rules Hidden lines are correctly shown in A. Hidden lines are correctly shown in both the figures. Insufficient data
Q 84. Choose
the
best
option
for
the
image
given
below
Option A B C D
This figure is correctly drawn The central lines are misplaced and should have been singular The dash in the middle of the horizontal line is misplaced None of the above
Q 85. Which of the following is a most highly stressed component in steam turbines?
Option
A B C D
Q 86. Which of the following given options is described by the diagram given below:
Option
A B C D
Rankine cycle with regeneration Rankine cycle with reheat Both a) and b) None of the above
Q Which of the following alternatives is/ are included during MIS, which provide a variety of 87. information products to managers?
Option
A B C D
Periodic Scheduled Reports Exception Reports Demand Reports and Responses All of the above
Option A B C D
Decision where only part of the problem has a clear cut answer provided by an accepted procedure. Inventory reorder formula Rules for granting Credit None of the above
Q A disc oscillates freely at the end of a shaft, the other end of which is fixed. With increase in 89. shaft stiffness, the natural frequency of vibration will:
Option
A B C D
Q Under service conditions involving jarring, vibration and pulsations of the working load, the bolt 90. of choice would be
Option
A B C D
Short bolt with high rigidity Long bolt with increased elasticity Bolt with a dished washer Bolt with castle nut
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