For a given transformer volte/turn for primary and secondary winding is 1 A different C depends on transformer design B same D depends

on load

No load power factor of transformer compared to full load power factor is 2 A more C same B less D depends on load

In transformer short circuit test the current Isc is 3 A equal to rated current C less than rated current B more than rated current D depends on transformer design

For a step up transformer secondary resistance reffered to primary is 4 A less than secondary resistance C more than secondary resistance B equal to secondary resistance D depends on transformer design

No load efficiency of transformer is ___________ than full load efficiency 5 A greater C depends on transformer design B lesser D equal

Which of the following loss varies with the load 6 A hystresis loss C copper loss B eddy current loss D core loss

In auto transformer if power transferred inductively and conductively are same, the ratio of output/input voltage is 7 A 1 C 0.5 B 0.7 D none of above

kVA rating of open delta connected transformer is ______ % kVA rating of delta/delta connection 8 A 50 C 57.7 Scott connection is used for 9 A 3-phase to 2-phase conversion C to save copper B to achieve higher effciency D to reduce harmonics B 70.7 D 75.7

In scott connected transformer number of turns in the primary winding of teaser transformer is _______ % of number of primary turns of main transformer. 10

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10 A 86.6 C 14.4 B 57.7 D 33.3

The mechanical angle is _____________ electrical angle 11 A always less than C equal to B greater than or equal to D less than or eaual to

In winding design, the angle of chording () is nearly equal to 12 A 45 degree C 30 degree B 60 degree D 90 degree

Squirrel cage induction motor has constant 13 A slip C rotor resistance B stator current D speed at all load

Frequency of rotor emf in induction motor is around 14 A same as stator frequency C 5 % or below Slip at maximum torque depends on 15 A rotor resistance and reactance C load current B stator reactance D stator resistance B 50% D 30%

Calculate torque developed by the 3-phase, 5 H.P., 4 pole induction motor runs at 1500 rpm 16 A 23 N-m C 10 N-m Induction generator has 17 A negative speed C negative voltage B negative slip D negative current B 21 N-m D 0 N-m

Magnetizing current for induction motor compared to transformer is 18 A equal C less B more D depends on load

Efficiency of induction motor compared to transformer is 19 A equal C less B more D depends on load

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Stator core loss of squirrel cage induction motor compared to rotor core loss is 20 A equal C less B more D depends on load

No load test of induction motor is carried out to compute 21 A stator resistance C magnetizing reactance B rotor resistance D rotor reactance

Short circuit test of induction motor is carried out to compute 22 A stator resistance C magnetizing reactance B rotor resistance D stator reactance

Auto transformer starter gives the same effect as star/delta strater if its turn ratio is 23 A 0.5 C o.66 Rotor resistance starter is used to obtain 24 A increased starting torque C decrease starting loss Plugging is a phenomenon to 25 A braking the motor C to run IM as generator B to accelerate the motor D to start the motor B decrease starting current D increase efficiency B 0.67 D 0.577

The slip during plugging operation is given by 26 A 1-s C 1+s During regenerative breaking 27 A rotating magnetic field is reversed C torque is positive B slip is positive D slip is negative B 2+s D 2-s

In which of the following case, the rotating magnetic field is reversed? 28 A regenerative breaking C dynamic breaking B plugging D forward motoring

Which of the following breaking method save energy? 29 A regenerative breaking B plugging

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C dynamic breaking

D none of above

Electromagnetic torque developed by the motor is _______ compared to shaft torque. 30 A less C depends on motor design B same D more

31

An 8 pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase IM is loaded to a poing where pull out torque will occur. The rotor resistance per phase is 0.3 ohm and motor stalls at 650 rpm. The rotor reactance at stand still is A 2 ohm C 3.15 ohm B 1.25 ohm D 2.25 ohm

32

An 8 pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase IM is loaded to a poing where pull out torque will occur. The rotor resistance per phase is 0.3 ohm and motor stalls at 650 rpm. The slip when motor stalls is A 1 C 13.33% B 0 D 10.33%

33

An 8 pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase IM is loaded to a poing where pull out torque will occur. The rotor resistance per phase is 0.3 ohm and motor stalls at 650 rpm. The rotor frequency at maximum torque point is A 3.33% C 5.55% B 4.44% D 6.66%

In an ideal transformer no load primary current I0 34 A lags behind V1 by 90 degree C leads V1 by 90 degree B is in the phase with V1 D lags V1 by 45 degree

Transformer cores are laminated in order to 35 A simplify its construction C reduce cost B minimize eddy current loss D reduce hysterisis loss

A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load PF is 36 A zero C lagging B unity D leading

Essential condition for parallel operation of two single phase transformer is that they should have same 37 A polarity C voltage ratio B kVA rating D % impedance

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Saving in copper achieved by converting a 2 winding transformer in to an auto transformer is determined by 38 A voltage transformation ratio C quality of core material B load on secondary D size of transformer core

kVA rating of ordinary transformer is increased when connected as an auto transformer because 39 A transformation ratio increased C energy is transferred both inductively and conductively B secondary voltage increased D secondary current increased

At light load transformer efficiency is less because 40 A secondary output is low C fixed loss is high compared to output B transformer losses are high D copper loss is small

Which of the following connection is best suited for 3-ph, 4 wire system 41 A delta-delta C delta-star B star-star D star-delta

A T-T transformer can not be parallel with ______ transformer 42 A V-V C star-star B star-delta D delta-delta

Following test should be conducted to find out relative polarity of transformenr terminals 43 A no load test C phasing out test B back to back test D none of above

In power transformer tappings are provided on 44 A high voltage side C In middle of both the windings B low voltage side D both high and low voltage side

Main advantage of auto transformer over two windings transformer is that 45 A it needs no cooling C core losses are reduced B it uses only one winding D it has simple construction

Material commonly used in making transformer core is 46 A cast iron C high silicom steel B mild steel D high carbon steel

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If we impress a dc voltage of 230 V on an unloaded 230 V, 50 Hz transformer it will 47 A give high secondary voltage C give secondary voltage as per K B burn out D none of these

Short circuit voltage of a transformer mainly depend on 48 A ohmic resistance of primary C magnitude of leakage flux B ohmic resistance of secondary D cross sectional area of core

Transfer of electric power from primary to secondary in a transformer takes place 48 A electrically C electro-magnetically B magnetically D conductively

Resistance of low voltage side of transformer compared to high voltage side is 49 A less C more B equal D depens on design

As load in a transformer increases, mutual flux linkage in core 50 A increases C not change Size of transformer core depends on 51 A frequency C cross sectional area of core B flux density of core D both (A) & (B) B decreases D first increase then decrease

Distribution transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency nearly 52 A at full load C at no load B at 50 % of full load D none of these

Distribution transformers have good all day efficiency due to 53 A low copper loss C low copper and iron loss Buchholz relay is 54 A voltage sensitive device C frequency sensitive device B current sensitive device D gas actuated device B low iron loss D none of these

A three phase transformer with delta connected high voltage side and star connected low voltage side gave the following displacement 55 A Dy1 or Dy11 B Dy0 or Dy6

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C Dy1 only

D Dy11 only

Skewing in squirrel cage induction motor is not used for 56 A it prevents cogging C it produces uniform torque B it increases starting torque D it reduces hum

In 3-ph induction motor relative speed of stator flux with respec to _____ is zero. 57 A stator winding C space B rotor D rotor flux

When load is placed on 3-phase induction motor its slip 58 A increases C remains constant B decreases D does not depend on load

In squirrel cage IM if per phase applied voltage reduced to half, its starting torque becomes _______ of starting torque with full oltace 59 A 0.5 C 0.25 B 0.75 D un altered

Fractional slip of an induction motor is the ratio 60 A rotor cu loss/rotor input C staror cu loss/stator input B rotor cu loss/rotor output D staror cu loss/stator output

Efficiency and power factor of squirrel cage IM increase in proportion to 61 A speed C mechanical load B voltage D slip

In equivalent circuit of induction motor, equivalent load resistance is 62 A R2/s C R2 (1-s)/s B sR2 D R2(1-s)

At crawling the machine running stably at speed as low as 63 A 1/3 of synchronous speed C 1/7 of synchronous speed B 1/5 of synchronous speed D none of above

In a double cage induction motor inner cage has 64 A low R and low X C high R and low X In induction generator slip is B low R and high X D high R and high X

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65

A zero C negative Torque/slip curve of an 3-phase IM is

B positive D may have any value

66

A hyperbola C flat

B parabola D rectangular hyperbola

In case of IM reactance/phase as compared to resistance/phase is 67 A almost same C very small B slightly large D large

For a given 3-phase IM if torque and speed both are negative then it is 68 A forward motoring mode C reverse motoring mode B breaking mode D none of above

EMF induced in rotor of an IM is proportional to 69 A voltage applied to the stator C slip B relative velocity between flux and conductors

D both (A) & (B)

Starting torque of an IM is maximum when 70 A C rotor resistance equals rotor reactance rotor resistance is half rotor reactance B D rotor resistance is twice rotor reactance rotor resistance is 1.41 times rotor reactance

In 3-ph induction motor at close to synchronous speed torque is proportional to 71 A load current C slip B power factor D rotor resistance

In 3-ph induction motor at low speed torque is proportional to 72 A s C load current B 1/s D rotor resistance

In 3-phase squirrel cage IM at pull out torque, rotor power factor is 73 A 0.5 C 0.707 B 1 D 0.866

In 3-phase IM at rated frequency applied voltage reduces to half, slip when maximum torque occurs will be 74 A same B half

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C one fourth

D none of above

In 3-phase IM at rated applied voltage if rotor resistance is increased , slip when maximum torque occurs will be 75 A same C decrease B increase D none of above

In constant torque region of 3-phase IM torque-speed characteristics, the power output is proportional to 76 A constant C depends on speed B depends on load D none of above

In constant power region of 3-phase IM torque-speed characteristics, the torque is proportional to 77 A speed C 1/speed B slip D 1/slip

In constant power region of 3-phase IM torque-speed characteristics, if frequency increases slip 78 A does not alter C increases B decreases D none of above

In constant power region of 3-phase IM torque-speed characteristics, if frequency increases flux 79 A does not alter C increases B decreases D none of above

In constant power region of 3-phase IM torque-speed characteristics, if frequency increases voltage 80 A does not alter C increases B decreases D none of above

Stator of 3-phase IM has 3 slots per pole per phase. If supply frequency is 50 Hz, calculate the speed of rotating stator flux 81 A 1000 rpm C 1500 rpm B 500 rpm D 1440 rpm

Stator of 3-phase IM has 3 slots per pole per phase, calculate number of stator pole pairs. 82 A 1 C 2 B 6 D 3

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A 3-phase IM is supplied from 50 Hz system. It runs at speed of 1440 rpm and slip equal to 4 %. Calculate number of pole pairs. 83 A 1 C 2 B 6 D 3

A 3-phase IM is supplied from 50 Hz system. It runs at speed of 1440 rpm and slip equal to 4 %. Calculate rotor frequency. 84 A 50 Hz C 4 Hz B 0 Hz D 6 Hz

A 3-phase IM is supplied from 50 Hz system. It runs at speed of 600 rpm. Calculate rotor frequency. 85 A 20 Hz C 25 Hz B 30 Hz D 50 Hz

Rotor emf of 3-phase, 6 pole, 400 V, 50 Hz IM alternates at 3 Hz. Calculate slip. 86 A 4% C 5% B 6% D 8%

Rotor emf of 3-phase, 6 pole, 400 V, 50 Hz IM alternates at 3 Hz. Calculate rotor copper loss if full load input to rotor is 111.9 kW. 87 A 2238 W C 2300 W B 6715 W D 6900 W

If rotor power factor of 3-phase IM is 0.866, displacement between stator magnetic field and rotor magnetic field will be 88 A 30 degree C 90 degree B 150 degree D 120 degree

If voltage of an IM is decreased by 10 %, torque is reduced by 89 A 80% C 5% B 10% D 20%

If synchronous speed of 3-phase IM is 1000 rpm. The speed of 5th space harmonics will be 90 A 1000 rpm C 5000 rpm B 6000 rpm D 200 rpm

If synchronous speed of 3-phase IM is 1000 rpm when supplied by 50 Hz system. The frequency of 5th space harmonics will be 91 A 10 Hz B 20 Hz

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C 40 Hz

D 5 Hz

92

If rotor of 3-phase wound rotor IM supplied by 50 Hz is driven by external means at speed equals to synchronous speed of the machine in opposite direction, the frequency of voltage across slip ring will be A 50 Hz C 75 Hz B 25 Hz D 100 Hz

If rotor of 3-phase wound rotor IM is driven by external means at speed equals to synchronous speed of the machine in opposite direction, the slip will be 93 A 0.5 C 2 B 1 D 2.5

Find the rated torque of 3.3 kW, 3-phase, 400 V, 50 Hz IM runs at rated speed of 1440 rpm. 94 A 15.6 N-m C 21.9 N-m B 24.5 N-m D 29 N-m

A starting torque of 80 N-m is deeloped in an IM by auto transformer starter with a tapping of 30 %. If tapping is changed to 60 %, starting torque will be 95 A 20 N-m C 160 N-m B 40 N-m D 320 N-m

96

A 440 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole squirrel cage IM develops a torque of 150 N-m at speed of 1200 rpm. If the stator supply frequency is reduced by 1/2, new speed to develop the same torque is A 450 rpm C 1050 rom B 750 rpm D 1200 rpm

97

Rotor resistance and standstill reactance of 3-phase IM are respectively 0.02 ohm and 0.09 ohm per phase. At normal voltage full load slip is 3 %, power factor will be A 0.49 C 0.99 If slip of IM reduces, the power factor B 0.69 D 0.89

98

A increase C not change

B decrease D depends on design

99

A 3-phase 4 pole, 50 Hz 7.46 kW IM has at rated voltage and frequency, a starting torque of 160 % and a maximum torque of 200 % of full load torque. Calculate load speed.

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99 A 1440 rpm C 1465 rpm B 1485 rpm D 1475 rpm

100

A 3-phase 12 pole, 50 Hz 100 kW star connected IM has full load slip is 1.8 % and full load power factor 0.85. Stator copper loss is 2.44 kW, Iron loss 3.5 kW and rotational losses -1.2 kW. Calculate line current. A 20.4 A C 40 A B 22.4 A D 30.4 A

101

A 3-phase 12 pole, 50 Hz 100 kW star connected IM has full load slip is 1.8 % and full load power factor 0.85. Stator copper loss is 2.44 kW, Iron loss 3.5 kW and rotational losses -1.2 kW. Calculate rotor copper loss. A 1.955 kW C 2.015 kW B 1.855 kW D 2.5 kW

102

A 3-phase 12 pole, 50 Hz 100 kW star connected IM has full load slip is 1.8 % and full load power factor 0.85. Stator copper loss is 2.44 kW, Iron loss 3.5 kW and rotational losses -1.2 kW. Calculate efficiency. A 93.70% C 92.70% B 91.70% D 94.70%

Concentric windings are used in core type transformer with 103 A HV winding placed next to core C LV winding on the outer side Cross over windings are used for 104 A C HV winding of small rating transformer HV winding of large rating transformer B LV winding of small rating transformer B LV winding placed next to core D HV winding on the outer side

D none of above

Transformer oil is used as 105 A insulant only C both insulant and coolant B coolant only D none of above

A 3000/300 V transformer takes 0.8 A at power factor of 0.4 on open circuit. Magnetizing current of the transformer will be 106 A 0.73 A C 0.33 A B 0.53 A D 0.83 A

A 3000/300 V single phase transformer takes 0.8 A at power factor of 0.4 on open circuit. Find the core loss resistance 107 A 937.5 ohm B 947.5 ohm

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C 537.5 ohm

D 815.5 ohm

A 3000/300 V single phase transformer takes 0.8 A at power factor of 0.4 on open circuit. Find the magnetizing reactance 108 A 411 ohm C 523 ohm B 311 ohm D 513 ohm

Auto transformer supplied a load of 8 kW at 115 V at unity power factor. If primary voltage is 345 V, power transferred to load inductively will be 109 A 4.44 kW C 3.78 kW B 3.33 kW D 5.33 kW

110

Two transformers connected in open delta supply a 500 kVA balanced load operating at 0.866 power factor lagging. Load voltage is 440 V. kVA supplied by each transformer will be A 131.7 kVA C 181 kVA B 288.7 kVA D 251 Kva

111

Two transformers connected in open delta supply a 500 kVA balanced load operating at 0.866 power factor lagging. Load voltage is 440 V. kW supplied by each transformer will be A P1=288.7 kW and P2=144.35 kW C P1=218.7 kW and P2=114.35 kW B P1=218.7 kW and P2=144.35 kW D P1=318.7 kW and P2=214.35 kW

112

A 230/460 V transformer has a primary resistance of 0.2 ohm and reactance of 0.5 ohm and corresponding values for secondary are 0.75 ohm and 1.8 ohm respectively. Find secondary terminal voltage when supplying 10 A and 0.8 power factor lagging A 434.8 V C 424.8 V B 244.8 V D 342.8 V

113

Calculate % voltage drop of transformer with a % resistance of 2.5 ohm and % reactance of 5 ohm of rating 500 kVA when it is delivering 400 kVA at 0.8 power factor lagging A 2% C 3% B 4% D 5%

A transformer has copper loss of 1.5 % and reactance of 3.5 % when tested on load. Calculate its full load regulation at unity power factor. 114 A 3.32% C 1.56% B 0.83% D -0.83%

A transformer has copper loss of 1.5 % and reactance of 3.5 % when tested on load. If its full load regulation is 3.32 % find its power factor. 114

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114

A 0.85 lagging C 0.85 leading

B 0.8 leading D 0.8 lagging

A transformer has copper loss of 1.5 % and reactance of 3.5 % when tested on load. If its full load regulation is -0.83 % find its power factor. 115 A 0.85 lagging C 0.85 leading B 0.8 leading D 0.8 lagging

Auto transformer supplied a load of 8 kW at 115 V at unity power factor. If primary voltage is 345 V, power transferred to load conductively will be 116 A 3.67 kW C 3.78 kW B 2.67 kW D 5.33 kW

Primary and secondary voltage of autotransformer are 500 V and 400 V repectively. When secondary current is 100 A, calculate % saving of copper 117 A 70% C 75% B 80% D 78%

Calculate core area of 500 kVA , 1-phase, 50 Hz, 6600/5000 V auto transformer, emf per turn = 8 V, maximum flux density 1.3 Wb/square meter 118 A 234 sq cm C 277 sq cm B 337 sq cm D 289 sq cm

119

Calculate number of turns in HV and LV winding for a given 500 kVA , 1-phase, 50 Hz, 6600/5000 V auto transformer, emf per turn = 8 V, maximum flux density 1.3 Wb/square meter A 800, 606 C 425, 625 B 825, 625 D 400, 600

What should be kVA rating of each transformer in V-V bank when three phase balanced load is 40 Kva? 120 A 19 C 37 B 28 D 23

121

A 10 Kva, 400V/200 V single phase transformer with a resistance of 3 % and reactance of 6 % is supplying a current of 50 A to a resistive load, voltage across load is A 176 V C 194 V B 188.7 V D 205.6 V

In a transformer if iron losses and copper losses are 40.5 kW and 50 kW respectively, then at what fraction of load will efficiency be maximum? 122

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122

A 0.9 C 0.56

B 0.86 D 0.7

Capacitor start and run 1-phase IM is basically a 123 A 1-ph IM C 1-ph reluctance IM B 2-ph IM D 3-ph IM

Direction of rotation of a 1-ph IM can be reversed by 124 A reversing leads of main wdg C reversing supply leads B reversing leads of auxiliary wdg D any of (A) or (B)

A capacitor start and run IM compared to capacitor start IM has 125 A more over load capacity C quiter operation B good p.f. and high efficiency D all of these

In a 1-phase IM starting torque may be obtained with auxiliary winding connected in series with 126 A resistor C inductor B capacitor D R and L

In 1-phase motors almost constant torque during starting is produced by 127 A split phase motor C hysteresis motor B reluctance motor D shaded pole motor

1-phase motor which does not have any winding on its rotor 128 A split phase motor C hysteresis motor B reluctance motor D shaded pole motor

In a universal motor normally ratio of width of brush to width of commutator segment is 129 A 02:01 C 06:01 B D 04:01 01:01

Speed control of universal motor is achieved by 130 A varying field flux with tapped field winding B Applying variable voltage by means of auto transformer

C Connecting rehostat in series

D all of the above

Starting winding of a single phase motor is placed in the 131 A rotor B stator

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C armature

D field

If a dc series motor is operated on ac supply it will 132 A have poor efficiency C spark excessively 1-phase IM has a characteristic that it 133 A is self starting C requires only one winding A repulsion motor is equipped with 134 A commutator C a reppler B slip rings D neither (A) nor (B) B is not self starting D none of above B have poor power factor D all of the above

Compensating winding is employed in an ac series motor in order to 135 A compensate for decrease in field flux B reduce effect of armature reaction D reduce sparking at brushes

C increase total torque

Capacitor in a capacitor start induction run ac motor is connected in series with _________ winding. 136 A starting C compensating B running D squirrel cage

If starting winding of 1-phase IM is left in the circuit, it will 137 A draw excessive current C run faster B run slower D spark at light loads

Starting torque of a capacitor start induction run motor is directly related to angle between its two winding current by relation 138 A cos C tan B sin D sin/2

Direction of rotation of a hysteresis motor is determined by 139 A retentivity of rotor material C permeability of rotor material B amount of hysterisis loss D position of shaded pole with respect to main pole

After starting winding of a 1-phase IM is disconnected from supply, it continues to run on __________ winding. 140 A rotor B compensating

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C field

D running

If a single phhase IM runs slower than normal, more likely, defect is 141 A improper fuses C open starting winding B shorted running winding D worn bearings

A permanent split 1-phase capacitor motor does not have 142 A centrifugal switch C squirrel cage rotor B starting winding D high power factor

An outstanding feature of a universal motor is its 143 A highest output kW/kg ratio C constant speed at all loads B slow speed at all loads D good performance on dc

144

A single phase transformer has a turn ratio of 6. Resistance and reactance of the primary winding are 0.9 ohm and 5 ohm respectively and those of secondary are 0.03 ohm and 0.13 ohm respectively. If 330 V at 50 Hz be applied to HV winding with LV winding short circuited, find current in LV winding. A 100 A C 400 A B 200 A D 300 A

145

A single phase transformer has a turn ratio of 6. Resistance and reactance of the primary winding are 0.9 ohm and 5 ohm respectively and those of secondary are 0.03 ohm and 0.13 ohm respectively. If 330 V at 50 Hz be applied to HV winding with LV winding short circuited, find power factor. A 0.2 C 0.5 B 0.3 D 0.7

A single phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90 % at full load and unity power factor. Efficiency at half load and unity power factor is 146 A 87.80% C 88.90% B 88.26% D 88.25%

147

No load test on 3-phase IM was conducted at different supply voltages and a plot of input power versus voltage was drawn. This curve was extrapolated to intersect y-axis. The intersection point yiiels A core losses are reduced C stray load loss B stator copper loss D friction & windage loss

For a given stepper motor following torque has the highest numerical value. 148

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148

A detent torque C pull out torque

B pull in torque D holding torque

149

The direction of rotation of a 3-phase IM is clockwise when it is supplied with 3phase sinusoidal supply having phase sequence A-B-C. For counterclockwise rotation of the motor, the phase sequence of the power supply should be A B-C-A C any of (A) or (B) B C-A-B D A-C-B

Magnetizing reactance of transformer compared to primary and secondary leakage reactance (refered to primary) is 150 A very small C very large B almost equal D depends on design

In a transformer zero voltage regulation at full load is 151 A not possible C possible at leading p.f. B possible at unity p.f. D possible at lagging p.f.

The variation of flux in core of the transformer from no load to 50% load is 152 A half than rated C double than rated B one forth than rated D zero

In the vector diagram of transformer the direction of Self induced E.M.F. in primary vector [E1] & Mutually induced E.M.F. in secondary vector [E2] is 153 A Same C Opposite B Shifting 90 degree clockwise D Shifting 90 degree Anti clockwise

If the transformer is applied Rated supply voltage with double frequency, then it's hysteresis losses will be 154 A constant C Reduced to half than rated B Increased by double than rated

D Increased by four times than rated If the transformer is applied rated supply voltage with double frequency, then it's Eddy current losses will be 155 A constant C Reduced to half than rated B Increased by double than rated

D Increased by four times than rated At No load condition of transformer , Iron losses are 156 A Equal to copper losses C Less than Copper losses B More than copper losses D none of above

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IF Transformer 's efficiency is maximum at 60% of full load , then at rated full load it's copper losses are 157 A Equal to Iron losses C less than Iron losses B More than Ironlosses D none of above

To design a 2MVA , 11KV/ 66KV step up transformer has 2 voltge per turn [Et],at primary side. So at secondary side it will be 158 A 2 C 6 Transformer mainly transfer 159 A Voltage C Power B Current D losses B 3 D 36

The Ratting of two parellel connected tranformer is inversely proportional to 160 A Their Secondary resistance C Their secondary Voltage TheResistance of step up transformer 161 A Higher at secondary side than primary side B Higher at primary side than secondary side B Their secondary current D Their percentage Impedance

C is equal at both the sides Torque angel id define as angel between 162 Resultant field axis & stator field A axis Resultant field axis & rotor field C axis A pole pitch in Electrical Machine is 163 A Equal to 1800 Electrical C Less than 1800 Electrical The interaction torque depends on 164 A Stator field strenth alone C Stator field strenth & torque angel

D none of above

B D

rotor field axis & stator field axis Mutual field axis & stator field axis

B Greater than 1800 Electrical D Equal to 1800 Mechanical

B Both Stator & rotor field strenths D Stator & rotor field strenth & torque angel

In Synchronous machines, pole face losses consist of 165 A Hysteresis loss C Eddy current loss B I2R loss in pole phase winding D (A) & (C) both

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In rotating machine torque developed , when relative speed between rotr field & stator field is 166 A zero C Equal to rotor speed B Equal & opposite to rotor speed D None of above

In three phase synchronous motor , the field poles 167 Lead the resultant airgap flux A wave B Lag the resultant airgap flux wave

C Along the resultant airgap flux D are opposite to resultant airgap wave flux wave A salient pole Synchronous machine feed from infinite bus & running at no load, if it's field current reduced to zero, then motor would 168 A stop C Run at synchronous speed B Run at reduced speed D Run above synchronous speed

A synchronous motor, fed from infinite bus , is working at half load, if increased in it's field current causes a reduction in the armature current, then the motor is 169 Delivering reactive power to bus A at leading power factor Absorbing reactive power from C the bus at leading power factor B D Delivering reactive power to bus at lagging power factor Absorbing reactive power from the bus at lagging power factor

An Alternator a synchronous machine is connected to an infinite bus & both operating at Unity power factor , the reactive power handle by them is, 170 A Both deliver it to BUS C Both absorb it from BUS Alternator is delivering & motor is B absorbing it Neither of these machines is D absorbing nor delivering it

171

A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus , is working at leading power factor, it's excitation EMF Ef & alternator terminal voltage Vt are related as follows B Ef > Vt & Ef lead Vt A Ef> Vt & Ef lags Vt C Ef < Vt & Ef lags Vt D Ef < Vt & Ef lead Vt

The speed regulation of Synchronous motor is 172 A 100% C 0% Slip test is performed on 173 A Salient pole machines C Cylindrical pole machines B High speed machines D none of above B 10% D none of above

In Synchronous motor, V-Curve is a graph of

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174

Armature current Versus Field current Armature current Versus Active C power

Armature current Vesus power factor Armature current Versus Reactive D power B

In sychronous motor, Inverted V-curve is a graph of 175 A Armature current Versus Field current B Armature current Vesus power factor

Armature current Versus Active C power

Armature current Versus Reactive D power

176

A Cylindrical rotor Synchronous motor , connected to infinite bus , is working with load angel of 300 ,if the load on motor is doubled , Keping excitation constant ,then the load angel will be A 60 degree C 90 degree B 30 degree D 45 degree

The maximum torque that a synchronous motor can deliver is proportional to 177 A 1/V2 C V B 1/V D V2

A three phase synchronous motor can be braked electrically by 178 A Rheostatic Bracking C Regenerative Braking B Plugging D All Of these

The maximum torque developed by Synchronous motor by maintaining synchronism is known as 179 A Pull In torque C Pull Out torque B Running torque D Starting torque

Breakaway torque in Sychronous motor is equal to 180 A Staring Torque C Running torque B Pull In torque D Pull Out torque

The torque produced by Synchronous motor is maximum , when load angle equals to 181 A 60 degree C 90 degree B 30 degree D 45 degree

In synchronous motor at full load , The value of armature current will be minimum , if operates at 182 A Unity Power factor C o.8 lagging P.F. B 0.8 leading P.F. D 0.2 Leading P.f

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When synchronous motor is loaded , the rotor fall back with respect to stator , the angle at which rotor axis retard is known as 183 A Load Angle C Torque angle B Angle of retardation D All Of these

Auto Synchronous motor has a unique advantage of 184 A Self starting C Always operate at unit power factor B Zero loss D Constant speed

Three phase Construction of Synchronous motor resembles with 185 Three phase Slip ring induction A motor Three phase squirrelcage C inu.motor B Single phase induction D Alternator

186

In a synchronous motor, "hunting" may be due to variation in any of the following EXCEPT: A Load B Frequency C Supply Voltage D Frictional Winding

A synchronous motor is switched on to supply with its field winding shortcircuited, the motor will 187 A not start C bun out B D
start and run as induction motor

start as induction motor and run as synchronous motor. In a synchronous motor, during hunting when the rotor speed exceeds the synchronous speed 188 A C field excitation increases harmonics are developed B D negative phase sequence currents come into action damper bars develop induction generator torque.

The negative phase sequence in a three phase synchronous motor exists when the motor is 189 A C under loaded Fed with un balaced supply B D over loaded Hot

The rotor of a synchronous motor can only run at synchronous speed of the stator magnetic field due to 190 A C Faraday's law of electro-magnetic B induction Lenz's law D Magnetization of rotor poles by stator magnetic field Interlocking action between stator and rotor fields

Damper windings are provided on

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191

A C

pole faces separate armature

B D

rotor shaft stator frame.

Hunting of a synchronous motor may be due to 192 A C pulsations in power supply reciprocating type of load B D pulsating torque of driven equipment any of the above.

In a synchronous motor with field under excited, the power factor will be 193 A C leading lagging B D unity none of the above.

In a synchronous motor, net armature voltage is of Eb and V 194 A C Vector sum Vector difference B D Arithmetic difference Arithmetic Sum

Increasing load on a normally-excited synchronous motor, the power factor 195 A C remain unchanged becomes increasing lagging B D becomes increasing leading none of the above.

Synchronous motor speed is controlled by varying 196 A C supply voltage only supply frequency only B D supply voltage and frequency both none of the above.

Maximum electrical power input of a synchronous motor is, 197 A C (Vt Ef) / Xs V t / Xs
2

B D

2 E f/ Xs

Xs/ (Vt Ef )

A synchronous motor is operating with excitation adjusted for unity power factor current at constant load. On increasing the excitation, the power factor 198 A C will lag will lead B D will become zero none of the above.

Synchronous motor can operate at 199 A C Lagging power factor only Leading power factor only B D unity power factor only. Lagging, leading and unity power factor

An unexcited single phase synchronous motor is similar to

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200

A C

reluctance motor repulsion motor

B D

universal motor A.C.Series motor

When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor gets disconnected A 201 C the motor will stop D the motor will bum B the motor will ran as a reluctance motor at the same speed the motor will run as a reluctance motor at a lower speed.

The damping winding in a synchronous motor is generally used A 202 C To reduced Eddy current Loss D to prevent hunting and provide the starting torque To reduced Noise Level B To provide starting torque only

203

A synchronous motor is a useful industrial machine on account of which of the following reasons ? I. It improves the power factor of the complete installation II. Its speed is constant at all loads, provided mains frequency remains constant III. It can always be adjusted to operate at unity power factor for optimum efficiency and economy.

A C

I only III Only

B D

II Only i& II & III

The back emf set up in the stator of a synchronous motor will depend on 204 A C rotor speed only rotor excitation only B D rotor excitation and rotor speed

coupling angle, rotor speed and excitation. The armature current of a synchronous motor has large values for low excitation only high excitation only B D both low and high excitation Depends on other Factors

205

A C

What is the ratio of no load speed to full load speed of a 200 kVA, 12 pole, 2200 V, 3 phase, 60 Hz synchronous motor ? 206 A C 1 1.11 B D 1.41 1.21

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If a synchronous motor drops too far behind, the power it takes from the supply also increases too much, and the armature tries to get accelerated, until it is in correct position. Sometimes, some motor overshoots the marks and then the process of acceleration-retardation continues. This phenomenon is known as 207 A C Hunting Synchronizing B D Swinging Pulling Out

In a synchronous motor if the back emf generated in the armature at no load is approximately equal to the applied voltage, then A 208 C the excitation is said to be zero percent D the motor is said to be fully loaded. the torque generated is maximum B the excitation is said to be 100%

Which motor can conveniently operate on lagging as well as leading power factor ? 209 A C squirrel cage induction motor wound rotor induction motor B D synchronous motor any of the above.

A synchronous motor working on leading power factor and not driving any mechanical, is known 210 A C synchronous induction motor spinning motor B D synchronous condenser none of the above.

The constant speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by 211 A C interchanging any two phases changing the applied voltage B D changing the load changing the frequency of supply.

In an alternator, voltage drops occurs in A 212 C Armature resistance, leakage B reactance, armature reaction and earth connections. Armature resistance D Armature resistance, leakage reactance, &armature reaction Leakage reactance

The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 8 poles and rotating at 250 rpm is 213 A C 50Hz 16 2/3 Hz. B D 60Hz 25Hz

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A 10 pole AC generator rotates at 1200 rpm. The frequency of AC voltage in cycles per second will be 214 A C 180 Hz 100 Hz B D 150Hz 140Hz

An alternator is generating power at 210 V per phase while running at 1500 rpm. If the need of the alternator drops to 1000 rpm, the generated voltage per phase will be 215 A C 180 V 150 V B D 140 V 105 V.

The magnitude of various voltage drops that occur in an alternator, depends on 216

A C

power factor of the load load current

B D

power factor x load current power factor x (load current)2.

The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six pole synchronous alternator is 217 A C
360

B D

2160 1080

720

When an alternator is running on no load the power supplied by the prime mover is mainly consumed 218 A C Iron losses No load losses B D Copper losses To Induce E.M.F in Armature

Which method is known as pessimistic method to find the voltage regulation? A C Synchronous Impedance method MMF method B D Potier Triangle method Direct loading method

219

Which method is known as optimistic method to find the voltage regulation? A C Synchronous Impedance method MMF method B D Potier Triangle method Direct loading method

220

Which kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo alternators which arc designed to run at high speed ? 221 A C Non Salient Pole type Salient Pole type B D A & C Both none of above

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The power factor of an alternator depends on 222 A C Load Speed of rotor B D Core losses Armature losses.

Synchronous reactance Includes A 223 C Reactance of Armature reaction D A & C Both Leakage reactance B Magnetizing reactance

Synchronizing power comes into play, when rotor speed is 224 A C Equal to Synchronous speed Greater than Synchronous speed B D Less than Synchronous speed

Either more or less than Synchronous speed An alternator running at 1500RPM & Delivering 30Amp current to Purely inductive load, With the field current remaining constant, if the speed is reduced to 1000RPM , The load current becomes 225 A C Little less than 20Amp 20Amp B D Little more than 20Amp 30Amp

Salient poles are generally used for 226 A C high speed prime movers only B low speed prime movers only

low and medium speed prime movers. Reactive power output[lagging] of synchronous generator is limited by 227 A C Load angel Field current B D Armature current A & C Both

medium speed prime movers only D

AN Alternator has phase sequence ABC at it's output terminals, if the direction of field excitation is reversed, then the sequence will be 228 A C ABC ACB B D CBA None of these

For providing load power of 100MW at 0.8P.f.lagging. The ratting of an alternator, it's prime mover & transformer should respectively be 229 A C 100MW, 125MVA,125MVA all of 125 MVA B D 125MVA, 100MW, 125MVA 100MW,100MW, 125MVA

As the speed of an alternator increases 230 A C It's Frequency will increase It"s Frequency Will Decrese B D the frequency remains constant but power factor decreases none of above

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Aof 4 pole alternator having 36 slots & a coil span of 1 to 8 is short pitched by 231 A C 20 Degree 140 Degree B D 80 Degree 40 Degree

If alternator winding has fractional pitch of 5/6, the coil span is 232 A C 300 Degree 30 Degree B D 150 Degree 60 Degree

The number of harmonics which can eliminated totally by proving fractional short pitch of 4/5 is 233 A C 7th 3rd B D 5th 9th

For an alternator when the power factor of the load is unity A 234 C the armature flux will reduce to zero. the armature flux will be demagnetising B D the armature flux will have square waveform the armature flux will be Cross Magnetizing

For eliminating 7th harmonics from generated EMF in alternator the fractional pitch must be 235 A C 2/3 7/8 B D 5/6 6/7

If in alternator chording angle for fundamenat flux wave is , it's value for 5th harmonics will be 236 A C 25 B D 0.2 5

For Parellel operation of two alternator, they mast have same 237 A C Voltage ratting KVA Ratting B D Speed Excitation

For Alternator connected to infinite bus , active power can be varied by 238 A C Changing excitation A & C both B D Changing prime mover speed None of above

If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed, then the 239 A active component of the output is B changed power factor of the load remains constant

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reactive component of the output D is changed

power factor of the load reduces.

An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at 240 A C lagging to leading power factor. lagging power factor. B D leading power factor.

Unity power factor. In case of alternators, the dark and bright lamp method is used for Load balancing load transfer B D Synchronisation phase balancing

241

A C

Salient pole type rotors as compared to cylindrical pole type are A 242 C smaller in diameter and larger in axial length B larger in diameter and smaller in axial length small in diameter as well as axial length.

larger in diameter as well as axial D length

Overheating of generator's winding 243 A C reduces generated voltage reduces life of the machine B D reduces power factor does not have any significant effect.

Two synchronous generators G1and G2 are equally sharing the KVAR of the load while operating in parallel. Keeping the terminal voltage fixed in order to shift part of the KVAR load from G2 to G1 244 A C The field current of G1 is lowered B The field current of G1 is raised and of G2 lowered D The field current of G2 is raised The field current of G1 is lowered and of G2 is raised

Unbalanced 3-phase stator currents cause 245 A C double frequency currents in the rotor vibrations B D healing of rotor all of the above.

In large generators protection provided against external faults is 246 A C Biased differential protection inter-turn fault protection B D sensitive earth fault protection all of the above.

Pitch factor is the ratio of the emfs of A 247 C full pitch winding to short pitch winding D short pitch coil to full pitch coil B full pitch winding to concentrated winding distributed winding to full pitch winding.

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The Potier's triangle separates A 248 armature leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf. Two alternators are running in parallel. If the field of one of the alternator is adjusted, it will 249 A C reduce its speed change its load B D change its power factor change its frequency. C armature voltage and field voltage D stator losses and rotor losses B fixed losses and variable losses

250

An alternator has rated field current of 4 A. The alternator develops 180 V while drawing a field current of 2 A at 750 rpm. If the field current is made 4 A at 750 rpm generated voltage could be A 1000Volts B 330 Volts C 100 Volts D 800Volts

The regulation of an alternator is likely to be negative in case of A 251 C lagging power factor of the load D leading power factor of the load. high speed alternators B slow speed alternators

If two machines are running in synchronism and the voltage of one machine is suddenly increased A 252 C the machines will burn D synchronising torque will be produced to restore further synchronism. both machines will stop B Nothing will happen

The advantage of salient poles in an alternator is 253 A C reduce noise reduced windage loss B D adoptability to low and medium speed operation reduce bearing loads and noise.

At a particular instant a turbo alternator is generating 80 MW at 0.8 power factor lagging. Now if the steam supply valve to the steam turbine is further opened and the excitation is not changed A 254 C the speed of the alternator will increase but kW delivered will remain unchanged B the speed of the alternator will increase and kW delivered will also increase the speed of the alternator will remain unchanged but it will deliver more kVA.

the speed of the alternator will D remain unchanged but it can meet more kW demand

When two alternators are running in exactly synchronism, the synchronising power wil be 255

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255

A C

sum of the output of two zero

B D

unity 0.707.

The armature reaction of an alternator influences 256 A C windage losses generated voltage per phase B D operting speed waveform of voltage generated.

The driving power from the prime mover driving the alternator is lost but the alternator remains connected to the supply network and the field supply also remains on. The alternator will A 257 C behave as a synchronous motor and will rotate in the same direction D get burnt B behave as an induction motor but will rotate in the opposite direction behave as a synchronous motor but will rotate in a reverse direction to that corresponding to generator action

For the same power rating, a lower voltage alternator will be 258 A C more efficient larger in size B D operating at high rpm more costly.

Dampers in a large generator 259 A C increase stability reduce voltage fluctuations B D reduce frequency fluctuations. none of above

A magnetisation curve represents the relationship between A 260 C reactive and non-reactive components of voltage B exciting currents and terminal voltage magnetic flux and armature current.

power factor and terminal voltage D

The regulation of an alternator is A 261 C the reduction in terminal voltage B when alternator is loaded at leading p.f in terminal voltage D the increase when load is thrown off at lagging P.F. the variation of terminal voltage under the conditions of maximum and change minimum excitation the in terminal voltage from lagging power factor to leading power factor.

Alternators used in aircraft systems usually have frequency of 262 A C 25 Hz 100Hz B D 50Hz 400Hz

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In D. C. machine it is preferable to place armature winding on rotor to 263 A C Reduce losses Save iron B D Reduce armature reaction Facilitate commutation

In order to reduce ________ losses, armature of DC machine is laminated? 264 A C Copper Eddy current B D Hysteresis Frictional

The number of commutator segments in a DC machine is equal to.. 265 A C Twice the number of poles Number of conductors B D Number of coils None of the above

Generated voltage of a DC generator depends upon 266 A C Speed only Both speed and flux B D Flux only None of the above

The field winding of a DC machine usually carries ________ of the rated current of the machine. 267 A C 2% to 5% 15% to 20% B D More than 20% Less than 0.5%

In general pole pitch of a DC machine is defined as A 268 C Equal to the number of armature D conductors per pole The distance between two poles. B The periphery of the armature divided by number of poles All of the above

The functions of yoke in DC machine is A 269 C To provide mechanical support to D the machine To provide path to the flux B Works as a protective cover of whole machine All of the above

The armature core of a DC machine is made of 270 A C Cast steel Wrought iron B D Silicon steel Soft iron

Armature slots of a small DC machines are skewed in order to 271 A C Slight decrease in losses Saving of copper B D Quieter operation Both a and b

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The commutation process in a dc generator basically involves

A 272 C

Passage of current from moving armature to a stationary load

Conversion of ac to dc

Reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA

Suppression of reactance voltage

For lap winding of DC machine, pitch of a winding (Y) is equal to 273 A C YB + YF YB/YF B D YB-YF None of the above

The nature of the current flowing in the armature of a DC machine is 274 A C DC DC superimposed on AC B D Pulsating AC

The emf produced in DC machine is ______ induced emf. 275 A C Statically Dynamically B D Electrostatically Both A & C

EMF induced in a coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field will be maximum when A C Flux link with coil is maximum Rate of cutting flux by coil sides is maximum B Rate of change of flux linkage is maximum Rate of change of flux linkage is minimum

276

The yoke of DC machine carries _______ pole flux. 277 A the C two times the B one-half of D None of the above

A 4-pole DC machine has ____ magnetic circuits. 278 A 8 C 4 B D 2 16

________ part of DC machine sharing overall more percentage of eddy current loss. 279 A commutator C field poles B armature D yoke

The brush voltage drop in a DC machine is about ________ 280 A 2V C 0.5 V B 1V D less than 1 V

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The commutator pitch of a simplex lap winding is equal to ______ 281 A number of poles/2 C number of poles B 1 D 2 X number of poles

The number of parallel paths in a simplex wave winding is equal to 282 A number of poles/2 C 2 B number of poles D 2 X number of poles

The number of parallel paths in a simplex lap winding is equal to 283 A 2 C number of poles/2 B 2 X number of poles D number of poles

Windings of high voltage DC machines are generally ________ winding. 284 A wave C either lap or wave B lap D combined

In a lap winding, the number of brushes required is equal to ____ 285 A number of pairs of poles C number of poles B commutator pitch D number of poles/2

In a wave winding, commutator pitch almost equal to _____ 286 A pole pitch C pole pitch / 2 B twice the pole pitch D thrice the pole pitch

An 8 pole, 250 V, wave-wound generator has 400 conductors. If the generator is to be lap-wound, the number of conductors required is____ 287 A 800 C 1600 B 3200 D 400

An 8 pole pole duplex lap winding will have ______ parallel paths 288 A 16 C 4 B 8 D 32

An AC machine has _______ DC machine for the same rating. 289 A the same weight as C less weight than B more weight than D None of the above

A separately excited DC generator is not used because . 290 A it is too costly B voltage drops considerably with load

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C separate DC source is required

D None of the above

A DC generator having full load terminal voltage equal to no load voltage is known as _____ generator. 291 A under compounded C flat compounded B flat compounded D None of the above

The main drawback of DC shunt generator is that _______ 292 A it is too costly C poor voltage regulation B generator voltage is small D high shunt field resistance

There is provision of _________ for Those DC machines which are subjected to sudden load changes. 293 A copper brushes C compensating winding B interpole windings D equalisers

The terminal voltage of a ______ series generator vary widely with changes in load current. 294 A shunt C flat compounded B series D None of the above

The effect of the armature reaction is to _____ 295 A make the air-gap flux uniform C decrease the flux B increase the total flux D None of the above

At pole tip of a DC generator armature reaction is to ______ 296 A weakens the flux at the trailing C strengthens the flux at the leading B weakens the flux at leading D strengthens the flux at trailing

For a DC machine armature having 10 poles with 10 rps, the number of hysteresis loops formed per second is ____ 297 A 100 C 1 B 10 D 50

298

A shunt generator delivers 195 A at a terminal p. d. of 250 V. The armature resistance and shunt field resistance are 0.02 and 50 respectively. The value of generated EMF is _________A 282 C 246 B 270 D 254

The size of DC generator can be reduced by using ______

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299

magnetic material of high permeability

B high resistance winding material D iron commutator

C lap winding

The physical size of 100 kW, 2000 rpm generator is ________ that of 10 kW 200 rpm generator. 300 A about the same as C greater than B less than D None of the above

The efficiency of a dc generator is maximum when its variable loss is 301 A equal to double the constant loss C equal to half the constant loss B equal to constant loss

D equal to square of the constant loss The greatest percentage of heat loss in a DC machine is due to 302 A frictional losses C copper losses B hysteresis losses D eddy-current losses

hysteresis loss in a DC machine is directly proportional to 303 A Speed C (speed)1.6 Stray loss is equal to _______ 304 A frictional loss & copper loss C field copper loss & iron loss B iron loss & mechanical loss D copper loss and iron loss B (speed)2 D 2 X speed

What will be generated emf of DC generator if the flux per pole is halved but the speed is doubled? 305 A be quadrupled C halved B double D remain the same

A 30 kW, 300 V DC shunt generator has armature and field resistance of 0.05 and 100 respectively. What is generated emf? 306 A 294.85 C 305.15 B 311.25 D None of the above

In DC generator, the main function of compensating winding is to 307 A assist in commutation C reduce distorting effect of armature reaction B reduce demagnetizing effect of armature reaction

D eliminate reactance voltage

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What do you mean efficiency of DC generator? 308 A overall efficiency C mechanical efficiency B electrical efficiency D None of the above

309

The overall efficiency of a DC generator is maximum when its copper loss is equal to A constant loss B iron loss C stray loss In DC generator, constant loss is equal to D mechanical loss

310

A mechanical losses C stray loss + shunt Cu loss

B stray losses D copper loss and iron loss

A 4 pole, lap-wound DC shunt generator has an armature winding consisting of 220 turns each of 0.004 . The armature resistance is 311 A 0.5 C 0.22 B 1 D 0.055

For DC series generator terminal voltage V is equal to 312 A E - Ia (Ra + Rse ) C E - IaRse B E + Ia(Ra + Rse ) D E + IaRse

The resistance of armature circuit includes 313 A armature winding resistance C armature winding resistance + field winding resistance B armature winding resistance + brush resistance

D None of the above

Open circuit characteristic of DC generator is a plot of 314 A load voltage vs load current B no load voltage vs field current D terminal voltage vs armature current

C terminal voltage vs load current

Internal characteristic of DC generator is plot of 315 A C load voltage vs load current generated emf on load vs armature current B no load voltage vs field current D terminal voltage vs armature current

External characteristic of DC generator is plot of 316 A C load voltage vs load current generated emf on load vs armature current B no load voltage vs field current D terminal voltage vs armature current

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EMF equation of a DC generator is 317 A Eg = PZN/120 A C Eg = ZN/P A B Eg = PZN/60 A D Eg = PZ/N A

Electrical power developed in armature of DC generator is equal to 318 A C mechanical power input - friction losses mechanical power input - Cu losses B D mechanical power input + iron losses mechanical power input - (iron losses + friction losses)

Shunt field is made parallel with ________ in long shunt compound wound generator. 319 A series combination of armature and series field B parallel combination of armature and series field

C series field

D armature

The commutator of a DC generator is act as 320 A amplifier C rectifier Wave wound generators provide 321 A more current but less voltage C more current and more voltage B less current but more voltage D both less current and less voltage B resistive load D inductive load

Eddy current power loss in a DC generator is directly proportional to directly proportional to square of A the thickness of the lamination 322 C directly proportional to the thickness of the lamination D inversely proportional to square of the thickness of the lamination inversely proportional to the B thickness of the lamination

The copper loss is constant for 323 A series generator only C both shunt and compound generator B shunt generator only D None of the above

A DC generator supplies a load of 7.5 kW at 200 V. The armature resistance is 0.6 ohm and field resistance is 80 ohms. The generated emf is 324 A 176 C 204 B 224 D 448

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In a practical DC generator, mechanical efficiency is 325 A more than electrical efficiency C equal to electrical efficiency B less than electrical efficiency D None of the above

326

A 4-pole, long shunt compound generator supplies 100 A at a terminal voltage of 500 V. If armature resistance is 0.02 ohm, series field resistance is 0.04 ohm and shunt field resistance is 100 ohm, then generated emf is A 525.5 C 512.5 B 493.7 D 506.3

The armature copper loss in a DC generator is a 327 A constant loss C stray loss B variable loss D None of the above

Due to armature reaction main pole flux of DC generator is 328 A weakened only C both weakened and distorted B distorted only D strengthened

The O. C. C. if a DC generator is also known as its _______ characteristic. 329 A magnetic C load B external D internal

The line representing the critical resistance of a DC generator ______ its O. C. C. 330 A just touches C intersects B runs parallel to D None of the above

______ DC generator has poorest voltage regulation 331 A shunt C over compounded B series D flat compounded

The level of compounding in a cumulatively compounded DC generator is generally adjusted by 332 A connecting it long shunt C connecting it short shunt The O. C. C. of DC generator 333 A is similar for all types of generator C may be same of different B is different for all types of generator B changing shunt field current D changing series field current

D None of the above

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If P is the number of poles of a generator and N is the armature speed in rpm then frequency f of magnetic reversal is 334 A f=NP/120 C f=NP/240 B f=PN/60 D f=PN/30

If the value of shunt field resistance of a shunt field resistance of a shunt generator is greater than the critical resistance, the generator will 335 A excite the full voltage C excite to one-half of full voltage B fail to excite D None of the above

In a cumulatively compounded generator, the shunt and series fields ____ each other. 336 A aid C sometime aid, sometime oppose B oppose D None of the above

which of the following will not prevent a self excited generator from building up to its full voltage? 337 A open field C no residual magnetism B wrong direction of rotation D speed to high

The ideal commutation is not possible because each coil has 338 A capacitance C capacitance B inductance D None of the above

Current vs time graph for an ideal commutation is a 339 A straight line C hyperbola B parabola D None of the above

DC motor is still a good option for industrial application because it 340 A is simple in construction C provides fine speed control The back EMF in a DC motor . 341 A aid the applied voltage C aids the armature current B opposes the applied voltage D None of the above B is cheap D has high efficiency

In a DC motor, back EMF value becomes maximum at . 342 A full load B half load

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C 1/4th load The motor equation is given by 343 A V = Eb - IaRa C Eb = IaRa - V

D no load

B V = Eb + IaRa D None of the above

The condition for maximum mechanical power development in a DC motor is that back EMF is equal to 344 A half the applied voltage C the applied voltage B twice the applied voltage D None of the above

Armature current of a DC motor _________ as speed of motor increases. 345 A remains constant C increases The speed of a DC motor is .. 346 A inversely proportional to flux/pole C directly proportional to flux/pole B inversely proportional to applied voltage B decreases D None of the above

D None of the above

The torque developed by a DC motor is directly proportional to . 347 A flux/pole X armature current C armature resistance X applied voltage B armature resistance X armature current D None of the above

Because of _____ in a DC motor shaft torque is less than armature torque. 348 A Cu losses C field losses B iron and friction losses D None of the above

Armature reaction in DC motor is increased .. 349 A when field current increases C by interpoles B when armature current decreases D when armature current increases

In very large DC motors with severe heavy duty, armature reaction effects are corrected by 350 A using interpoles C shifting the brush position B using compensatory windings in addition to interpoles

D None of the above

Variable speed motor is DC _________ motor. 351 A compulatively compounded B shunt

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C differentially compounded

D series

The running speed of DC series motor is basically determined by .. 352 A field excitation C armature resistance B load D None of the above

Which of the following motor has best speed regulation? 353 A differentially compounded C shunt B series D cumulatively compounded

DC shunt motor are used in those applications where ______ is required. 354 A practically constant speed C high no-load speed B high starting torque D variable speed

Cumulatively compounded motors are used where we require 355 A constant speed C variable speed B sudden heavy load for short duration

D None of the above

Belt connected loads are not advisable for DC ______ motor. 356 A differentially compounded C series B shunt D cumulatively compounded

DC _____ motor is used to start against heavy loads. 357 A shunt C cumulatively compounded B differentially compounded D series

DC _____ motor is used to start against heavy loads. 358 A differentially compounded C shunt B series D cumulatively compounded

Excessive sparking at the brushes of DC motor may be caused due to 359 A dirt on commutator C loose coupling B worn bearing D misalignment of machine

Bearings of DC motor may be heated up due to 360 A incorrect voltage C loose coupling B poor ventilation D lack of or dirty lubricant

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A 440 V shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.8 ohm and field resistance of 200 ohm. What will be back emf for an output of 7.46 kW at 85% efficiency? 361 A 324.6 V C 425.8 V B 391.5 V D 222.4 V

A DC shunt motor takes 5A at 100V when running light. Shunt field resistance is 50 ohm and armature resistance is 0.2 ohm. What will be driving power? 362 A 204 W C 412 W B 298 W D 305 W

Which kind of Dc motor should not be used for centrifugal pump? 363 A shunt C cumulatively compounded B differentially compounded D series

What will happen if in a DC shunt motor connection of both armature as well as shunt field winding are reversed? 364 A motor will not run C direction of rotation is reversed B D motor will run at dangerously high speed. direction of rotation remains unchanged.

The resistance of shunt field winding is ______ as compared to series winding for DC machine. 365 A less C more B the same D None of the above

BY putting controller resistance in series with the armature of a DC motor, we can obtain speeds 366 A below the normal speed C above as well as below the normal speed B above the normal speed D None of the above

The speed of a DC motor can be controlled by changing 367 A its flux C armature circuit resistance B applied voltage D All of the above

By flux control method of speed control of a DC shunt motor, we can obtain speed.. 368 A below the normal speed B above the normal speed

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above as well as below the normal speed

D None of the above

Motor starters are essential for 369 A avoiding excessive starting current C preventing fuse blowing B accelerating the motor D starting the motor

A compensating winding is an auxiliary winding embedded in slots in 370 A the pole faces of main poles C partly in pole faces, partly in armature B the armature D None of the above

Swinburne's test is to be carried out on 371 A DC compound motor C DC shunt motor B DC series motor D None of the above

Hopkinson's test is the test to be carried out on 372 A induction motor with any DC motor B two identical DC motor D None of the above

C two identical induction motors

SUJJECT CODE:

44/44

PGCET

The auxiliary power consumption in a thermal (steam) power station is A 2-5% B 5-10% C 10-15% D 15-20% For a load flow solution the quantities specified at the generator bus are A P and |V| B P and Q C Q and |V| D P and The power system needs injection of VARs at A Off pick load B Peak load C Both off peak and peak load D None of the above If a generating station is situated very close to the load centre, the penalty factor A Zero B Almost unity C Negative D Very high Two areas A and B have equal connected loads. However, load diversity in area A Maximum demand of both the B Maximum demand of A would be area would be same more than that of B C Maximum demand of B would be D Maximum demand of A may be more than that of A more or less than that of B 100 % String efficiency means A One of the insulator discs shorted B Zero potential across each disc C None uniform potential distribution across each disc The charging (capacitive) reactance of a 50 km line is 1500. What is the A 150 B 750 C 3000 D 500 For a short line, if the receiving end voltage is equal to sending end voltage A The sending end power factor is B The receiving end power factor is unity unity C The sending end power factor is D The receiving end power factor is leading leading To increase the real power transfer capacity of the transmission line A The difference between voltage B The inductive reactance of the magnitudes of both the ends transmission line should be more should be more C The phase angle between voltages D None of the above of both the ends should be more Total instantaneous power supplied by a 3-phase balanced ac supply to a A Zero B Constant C Pulsating with zero average D Pulsating with non-zero average Critical clearing time of a fault in a power system is related to A Reactive power limit B Short circuit limit C Steady state limit D Transient stability limit The voltage at a particular bus can be controlled by controlling the A Active power at the bus B Reactive power at the bus C Phase angle D Frequency at the bus As the inductance of the transmission increases the transmission capacity Equal potential across each disc D

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1/23

PGCET

14

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A increases B decreases C remains almost constant D cant say Which is the most prominent factor that limit the power transfer capacity of the A transient stability limit B loop power flow C thermal limit D steady state stability limit In case of HVDC transmission there is A charging current but no skin effect B no charging current no skin effect C both charging effect and skin effect Phase Shifting transformers are used in power systems to control A voltage B current C power flow D power factor Steady state stability of a power system is improved by A reducing fault clearing time B decreasing generator inertia C single pole switching D using double circuit line instead of single circuit line If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in a power system are equal, then A three phase fault B line to ground fault C line to line fault D double line to ground fault The synchronous generator used in hydro power plant is of _______ type A Salient B High speed C Cylindrical D None of the above For economical operation of power plants in the region _____ A The incremental fuel cost must be B The incremental fuel cost must be low the same C The incremental fuel cost must be D The plant should be operated all high the time The unit of Transmission line constant B is _____ A Ohm B Unit less C Siemens D Per unit Making capacity of the circuit breaker depends on A Operating Voltage B Short circuit MVA C Fault current D All the above Lightening arresters are used for the protection against A Over current B inter turn C Reverse power D Over voltage The normal standard secondary voltage of PT is A 50 V B 0.1 V C 5V D None of the voltage The errors in the CT are mainly due to A Leakage flux B. Core losses C Copper losses D. Excitation emf required Underground cable system for 11 kV can work upto a length of A 100 miles B. 50 miles C 25 D. 400 miles Number of insulator discs, each rated 11 kV, required in a suspension type no charging current but skin effect D

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2/23

PGCET

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A 6 B. More than 6 C 12 D. Less than 6 More efficient plants are used as A Base load stations B. Peak load station C Intermittent load stations D. All of these Which fault gives rise to symmetrical fault current? A Single line to ground fault B. Three phase fault C Line to line fault D. Double line to ground fault Method of Earthing used for domestic supply is generally _______ A Plate earthing B. resistance earthing C Patterson coil earthing D. Spike earthing Ferranti effect in a transmission system is because of A Inductive effect of transmission B. Corona line C Resistive effect of transmission D. Capacitive effect of transmission line line Skin effect results in________. A Decrease of resistance B. Increase of resistance C Constant resistance D. None of the above While testing a specimen for dielectric strength, the shape should be so A The electric stress is at its corner B. The electric stress is high at its centre C The electric stress is same at all D. None of these the points The electric breakdown strength of insulating materials depends on A Nature of applied voltage B. Imperfection of dielectric material C Pressure, temperature and D. All of these humidity The secondary winding of a current transformer whose primary is carrying a A Should not be open circuited B. Should not be short circuited C Always open circuited D. Should not be connected to wattmeter Which of the following combination of three-phase transformer connections can A Y-Y and - B. -Y and Y- C -Y and -Y D. None of these Which type of generator is normally used in wind mill A D. C. shunt generator B. Induction Generator C Synchronous generator D. D. C. Series Generator Which earthing is known as arc suppression earthing A Patterson coil earthing B. Resistance earthing C Pipe earthing D. Plate earthing The SIL for a transmission line is 250 What will be its SIL if length is doubles A Remains same B. gets doubled C Becomes half D. Becomes four times How is the real power at the generatong stations controlled?

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3/23

PGCET

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By changing the excitation of a generator C by incresing the voltage D by increasing the current in magnitude armature winding Which one of the following is not a source of reactive power? A Generators B Reactors C Capacitors D Resistors Economic Dispatch Problem is.. A Minimise the operating cost of B Maximise the active power active power generation generation cost C Minimise the losses in the system D Switching ON the most economic generator when load is incresed Power factor of an alternator is determined by its A Speed B Excitation C Load D Prime mover How many symmetrical components are required to analyse six phase A 3 B 6 C 12 D 1 The phenomina taking place when the neutral of system is ungrounded A Thomson Effect B Ferranti effect C Skin effect D Arcing ground The steel core normally used in ACSR conductor is usually of . A alloy steel B stainless steel C galvanized steel D High speed steel Stringing chart is useful .. A for finding the sag in the B in the design of the Tower conductor C for the design of insulator string D finding the distance between the towers Fast excitation system of the generator will A Improve the voltage control B Improve the power factor C improve the dynamic stability D improve the reactive power control The area under the daily load curve divided by 24 gives.. A Average demand B Least demand C Totla units generated D Maximum demand In the substation Grit is used to .. A Increase the step potential B decrease the step potential C increase the earthing resistance D reduce the earthing resistance At generator terminals compared to 3 phase fault, 1 phase fault is A More dangerous B less dangerous C both are same D None of the above Compared with steady state stability limit, transient stability limit is... A Always more B Always less C some times more and some times D Depends on the loading less conditions Shunt reactors in the long transmission lines are provided to

By controlling the driving torque

SUJJECT CODE:

4/23

PGCET

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Increase voltage under peak lod B Reduce voltage under light load condition condition C reduce line loading D increase transient stability Which of the following is not a standard power rating of distribution transformer A 25 kVA B 63 kVA C 133 kVA D 100 kVA The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by A Load power factor B Switching over voltages C Harmonics D Corona Capacitance of the cable depends upon A Length of the cable B Relative permeability of dielectric used in cable C ratio of sheath diameter and core D all of the above diameter The power factor of an open ended cable can be improved by A increasing capacitance B decreasing capacitance C increasing insulation resistance D Increasing conductor resistance Most versatile and accurate metohd of achieving reactive power compensation A Switched capacitor B Fixed capacitor with controlled reactor C Switched reactor with capacitive D Swithced capacitor with bank controlled reactors In a load flow study PV bus is treated as PQ bus when A Voltage limit is violated B Phase angle limit is violated C Active power limit is violated D Reactive power limit is violated ________ is a sparse matrix A Impedance matrix B Admittance matrix C Resistance matrix D Incidance matrix A transmission line has 3% cu loss and 4% reactive loss. Calculate its percentage A 5% B 3% C 4% D 7% Unit commitment means A Switching of generator B Economic distribution of load on Economically genrator C Loss allocation on generator D All the above in N R Method of load flow, number of iterations A are almost constant B depends on the size of system C Depends on no. of load buses D depends on selection of Slack bus Load factor = A Average demand/max demand B Maximum demand/total load C Max demand/ Installed capacity D Average demand/ installed capacity A 60 km long line when excited with a source of 500 Hz frequency, It will be A Short line B long line C midium line D can be modeled as short of midium The size of conductor in radial distribution system is selected based on

SUJJECT CODE:

5/23

PGCET

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A temprature rise B capital cost C voltage drop D corona loss An RLC series circuit, behaves like a capacitive circuit when the supply frequency A the resonance frequency B below resonance frquency C above resonance frequency D at double the reted freqeuncy The permissible variation of frequency in power systems is B 3% A 6% C 5% D 2% By increasing the transmission voltage to double of its original value the same A equal to original value B half the original value C double the original value D one-fourth of original value The G S load flow method has following disadvantage, tick the incorrect A Unreliable convergence B Slow convergence C choise of slack bus affect the D iterations are constant convergence Bundled conductors are employed to improve A appearance of the line B mechanical stability of the line C current carrying capacity of the D corona performance of the line line The phenomenon of rise in receiving end voltage of the open circuited or lightly A Proximity effect B Ferranti effect C Skin effect D Seebeck effect Which is a non conventional source of energy ? A Fossil fuels B Radio active substances C Geothermal, ocean tides and D Water waves The efficiency of thermal power plant is of the order of A 15% B 30% C 50% D 60% Peterson coil is used A for grounding of neutral system B to reduce fault current C for connecting two D for shunt compensation of interconnected systems transmission line The area under the load curve represents A system voltage B current C energy consumed D maximum demand

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Load factor is the ratio of A peak load to average load B peak load to minimum load C average load to peak load D average load to minimum load Effect of increase in temperature in overhead transmission lines is to A Increase the stress and length B Decrease the stress but increase the length

SUJJECT CODE:

6/23

PGCET

79

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C Decrease the stress and length D None of the above An overhead line with surge impedance of 400 ohms is terminated through a A 20 ohms B 200 ohms C 800 ohms D None of the above The voltage of a particular bus can be controlled by controlling the A Phase angle B Reactive power of the bus C Active power of the bus D Phase angle and reactive power

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Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of A Air blast circuit breakers B bulk oil circuit breakers C Minimum oil circuit breakers D All types of breakers The magnetizing inrush current in a transformer is rich in A 3rd harmonics B 5th harmonics C 7th harmonics D 2nd harmonics For a load flow solution the quantities specified at the Slack bus are A and |V| B P and |V| C Q and |V| D P and Load flow study is carried out for A Fault calculations B Stability studies C System planning D Load frequency control SSR (Sub-synchronous resonance) phenomenon is A purely electrical B purely mechanical C purely hydraulic D both (a) and (b) Earth wire on EHV overhead transmission line is provided to protect the line A lightning surge B switching surge C excessive fault voltages D corona effect Which of the power plants has the highest total installed capacity in India ? A hydro-electric power plant B diesel plant C nuclear plant D thermal power plant A long line under no load conditions, for a good voltage profile needs, A Shunt resistance at receiving end B Shunt reactors at receiving end C Shunt capacitance at receiving D All of the above end A distance relay measures A difference in voltage B difference in impedance C difference in current D difference in phase For transmission line, which one of the following relation is true ? A AD BC =1 B AD-BC =1 C AD-BC=0 D AD - BC = 0 The sag of the conductors of a transmission line is 2.5m when the span is 250m. A reduce by 25% B increase by 25% C reduce by 12.5 % D remain unchanged Shunt compensation in EHV line is resorted to A Improve the stability B Reduce the fault level C Improve voltage profile D As a substitute for synchronous phase modifier

SUJJECT CODE:

7/23

PGCET

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The percent bias for a generator protection lies between A 5 to 10 percent B 10 to 15 percent C 15 to 20 percent D 20 to 25 percent For stability reasons we operate the transmission line with power angle in the A 10 to 25 degree B 30 to 45 degree C 60 to 75 degree D 65 to 80 degree Load flow solution is always assured in case of A Gauss method B Gauss Siedel method C Newton Raphson method D None of the method guarantees convergence The coefficient of reflection for a short circuited line is A 1 B -1 C 0 D infinity If is the loss angle of the cable then its power factor is A sin B cos C Power factor is independent of D tan For complete protection of a 3-phase line A Three phase and three earth fault B Three phase and two earth fault relays are required relays are required D Two phase and one earth fault C Two phase and two earth fault relays are required relay is required The operation of the relay which is most affected due to arc resistance is A Mho relay B Reactance relay C Impedance relay D All are equally affected If a Iine is 100% series compensated then series resonance occurs at A 50 Hz B 100 Hz C 150 Hz D Series resonance is not dependent on line compensation For a transmission line with resistance R, reactance X, and negligible A 0 B 1 C R+jX D R+X The critical clearing time of a fault in a power system is related to A reactive power limit B short circuit current limt C steady state stability limit D transient stability limit Whenever the conductors are dead ended or there is a change in direction of A pin type B suspension type C strain type D shackle type The design of insulation for systems above 400 kV is based on A lightning surge B switching surge C system voltage D system load level The bus admittance matrix of a power system is not A symmetric B full matrix C square matrix D matrix having dominant diagonal elements Severe over-voltages are produced during arcing faults in a power system with A isolated B solidly earthed C earthed through a low resistance D earthed through an inductive coil

SUJJECT CODE:

8/23

PGCET

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In a power station, the cost of generation of power reduces when A diversity factor alone increases B both diversity factor and load factor increase C load factor alone increases D both diversity factor and load factor decrease The inductance of a transmission line is minimum when A B GMR is high GMD is high C Both GMD and GMR are high D GMD is low and GMR is high For a 500 Hz frequency excitation, a 50 km long power line will be modeled as A B medium line short line C long line D data insufficient for decision The reactive power transfer over a line mainly depends on A B |VS VR| power angle C VS D VR HVDC transmission is preferred to EHV AC because A VAR compensation is not required HVDC terminal equipment are B in HVDC system. inexpensive C System stability can be improved In a d.c. transmission line A it is necessary for sending and D B Harmonic problem is avoided. the effects of inductive and capacitive reactances are greater than in ac transmission line of the same rating power transfer capability is limited by stability considerations

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receiving end to be operated in synchronism

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there are no effects due to D inductive and capacitive reactances In a thermal power plant, the feed water coming to the economiser is heated A B LP steam HP steam C Direct heat in the furnace D Flue gases The most appropriate operating speeds in rpm of generators used in thermal, A B 3000, 300 and 1500 3000, 3000 and 300 C 1500, 1500 and 3000 D 1000, 900 and 750 A fault is more severe from the point of view of RRRV if it is a A B Medium length line fault Short line fault C Long line fault D None of the above A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus in subsequent iteration in GS A B Reactive power limit is violated Voltage limit is violated C Active power limit is violated D Phase angle limit is violated In case of three phase short circuit in a system, the power fed into the system is A B mostly reactive mostly active C active and reactive both equal D only reactive Capacitance Voltage Transformer (CVT) is used to A improve the power factor of B reduce losses in transmission line transmission line C connect instruments on LT side D reduces the incidence of overvoltages on transmission line

SUJJECT CODE:

9/23

PGCET

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Which of the following protects the underground cables against mechanical A Armouring B Bedding C Sheath D None of the above For an existing ac transmission line the string efficiency is 80%. Now if dc voltage A B More than 80% 80.00% C Less than 80% D 100.00% A 50 Hz, four pole turbo alternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 kV has an inertia A B 80 MJ 80 kJ C 40 MJ D 20 MJ If X is the system reactance and R its resistance the power transferred is A B X = R X=R C X = 3R D X = 2R If the penalty factor of a plant is unity, the incremental transmission loss is A B Infinity One C Zero D None of the above If the normal system frequency is 50 Hz and if it is operating at 53 Hz, the A B Turbine Power transformer C Alternator D all the above are equally affected For Y-delta transformer with Y-side grounded, the zero sequence current B exists in the line on delta side A exists in the line on Y-side C exists in the line on both Y and D has no path to ground delta sides A lightning arrestor connected between the line and the earth in a power system A B protects the transmission line protects the terminal against lightning stroke equipment against traveling

surges
C 127 suppresses high frequency D reflects back the traveling wave oscillations in the line approaching it A power system network with a capacity of 100 MVA has a source impedance of B 30 MVA A 10 MVA C 100 MVA D 1000 MVA A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect A B a transformer an alternator C a transmission line D a bus bar A three phase 33 kV oil circuit breaker is rated 1200A, 2000MVA, 3s. The A B 3600A 1200A C 35 kA D 104.8 kA In a 12 pulse valve group operation the most troublesome harmonics on ac side A B 23rd and 25th 11th and 13th C 5th and 7th D 3rd and 5th In G-S method of power flow problem, the number of iterations may be reduced A B Acceleration constant Deceleration constant C Gauss Constant D Blocking factor If the positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of an element of a power A B synchronous motor synchronous generator

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SUJJECT CODE:

10/23

PGCET

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C static load D transmission line In Merz-Price percentage differential protection of a -Y transformer, the CT A B Y- -Y C - D Y-Y Transmission lines are transposed to A B reduce skin effect reduce copper loss C prevent interference with D prevent short circuit between neighbouring communication lines circuits For harnessing low variable waterheads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high A B Francis Kaplan C Pelton D Impeller The interrupting time of a circuit breaker is the period between the instant of A B energizing of the trip circuit and initiation of short circuit and the arc extinction on an opening the arc extinction on an operation opening operation C energizing of the trip circuit and the parting of primary arc contacts In the protection of transformers, harmonic restraint is used to guard against A B unbalanced operation magnetizing current inrush C lightning D switching over voltages A 3-phase, 50 Hz transmission line has R = 10 ohms, Inductive reactance = 20 A B 0.127 H 0.06368 H C 1.274 H D 2.654 H A single phase transmission line of impedance j0.8 ohm supplies a resistive load A B 0.8 lagging unity C 0.8 leading D 0.6 lagging A thermal generating station has an installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a A B 0.67 0.5 C 0.75 D 1 The condition AD-BC =1 for 2 port network implies that the network is a ___ A B loss less network Reciprocal network C unilateral network D Lumped element network In a large interconnected power system, consider three buses having shortA B V1 > V3 > V2 V1 > V2 > V3 C V1 < V3 < V2 D None of the above Galloping in transmission line conductors arises generally due to A B vortex phenomenon in light winds asymmetrical layers of ice initiation of short circuit and the parting of primary contacts D

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formation
C 144 heavy weight of the line D adoption of horizontal conductor conductors configurations When a 50 MVA, 11kV, 3-phase generator is subjected to a 3-phase fault, the A B j0.2 and j0.25 pu j0.2 and j0.05 pu C j0.25 and j0.25 pu D j0.05 and j0.05 pu

SUJJECT CODE:

11/23

PGCET

145

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The power generated by two plants are:P1 = 50 MW, P2 = 40 MW. If the loss A B 6.5 MW 5.5 MW C 4.5 MW D 8.5 MW 26) The L/C ratio for 132 kV and 400 kV lines are typically 160 103 and 62.5 A B 44 and 2560 MW 108.9 and 2560 MW C 44 and 640 MW D 640 and 44 MW In a 3 phase 4-wire cable the cross sectional area of neutral conductor A B equal to area of phase conductor half of the area of phase

conductor
C 148 double the area of phase D 1.5 times the area of phase conductor conductor A 500 MW, 21 kV, 50 H,z 2 pole synchronous generator having rated pf of 0.9 lag B 2.71s A 2.44s C 4.88s D 5.42s If the inductance and capacitance of a system are 1.0 H and 0.01 F respectively A B 100 kV 50 kV C 60 kV D 57 kV The velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative permittivity 4 is B 1/4 times the speed of light A equal to that of light C 1/2 times the speed of light D Data available is insuficient In a MHD generator the conductor is made up of A B copper copper or aluminium C gas D liquid metal or gas For protection of parallel feeders fed from one end the relays required are A B Non-directional relays at both the Non-directional relays at the ends source end and directional

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C Directional relays at the source D Directional relays at both ends end and non-directional at the load end Two alternators each having 4% speed regulation are working in parallel. A B 6 MW and 4 MW 4 MW and 6 MW C 5 MW and 5 MW D 10 MW and zero In a three generator power system one generator G1 has a speed governor A B generation of G1 alone is generation of G2 and G3 increased while that of G2 and G3 increases equally while that of remain unchanged G1 remains unchanged generation G1,G2 and G3 is increased D

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generation G1,G2 and G3 is increased equally 0.5, 0.25 and 0.25 The low power factor of an industrial plant is uneconomical for A B owner of the plant only electric supply utility only C both the owner of the plant and D either (A) or (B) electric supply utility The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together

SUJJECT CODE:

12/23

PGCET

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A B M1-M2 M1+M2 C M1*M2/(M1+M2) D M1M2 The powe transmission capability of bipolar lines is approximately A B the same as that of 3-phase single half that of 3-phase single circuit line circuit line twice that of 3-phase single circuit D thrice that of 3-phase single circuit line line An EHV line of length 300 km can be approximated by a lossless line having A B 12.12% 24.24% C 19.05% D 6.06% A generator is connected through a 20 MVA 13.8/138 kV step up transformer to A B 1.44 36 C 0.72 D 0.18 An industrial sub-station with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to A B 1 0.85 C 0.80 lag D 0.90 lag A generator with 1.0 pu terminal voltage supplies power through a step up B 3.125 pu A 12.5pu C 10.0 pu D 5.0 pu A solidly grounded 3-phase 500 MVA alternator operating on no load has A B 3.333 pu 2.851 pu C 6.667 pu D 8.553 pu A coal fired steam power station working at a plant load factor of 80% has one A One B Six C Ten D Twenty four In a 400 kV power network, 360 kV is recorded at a 400 kV bus. The reactive A 61.73 MVAR B 55.56 MVAR C 45.0 MVAR D 40.5 MVAR If, for a given alternator in economic operation mode, the incremental cost is A B 1250 MW 1000 MW C 750 MW D 1500 MW The corona loss on a particular system at 50 Hz is 1 kW/km per phase. The A B 1.13 kW/km per phase 1 kW/km per phase C 1.2 kW/km per phase D 0.83 kW/km per phase A 3-phase overhead transmission line has its conductors horizontally spaced A B average capacitance will decrease average capacitance and and inductance will increase inductance will increase C average capacitance will increase D and inductance will decrease surge impedance loading of the line increases C

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For Low head and high discharge the hydraulic trubine used is A Pelton wheel B Francis Turbine C Kaplna Turbine D None of these The input equation of 0.75 MW power house is given by A 0.5 Kcal/hr B 15 X 109 Cal/Hr

I=

SUJJECT CODE:

13/23

PGCET

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C D Zero 1.2 X 109 Cal/Hr For a 5 Hz frequency excitation, a 400 km long power line will be modelled as A Long line B Short line C medium line D data insufficient for decision The insulation resistance of cable of length 10 km is 1 M W. For length of 100 KM A 10 MW B 100 MW C 0.1 MW D 0.01 MW At SIL, the transmission line____________________________ A only absorbs reative power B Only generates reactive power C generate active power D none of the above The advantage of dc system over ac system is A no skin effect B improved line regulation C no reactive power consumpsion D all the above The top most wire in distribution line is A a neutral wire B a phase wire C a earth wire D None of these The Z matrix of 2 port network is given by [0.9 0.2;0.2 0.6] The element Y22 of A 1.2 B -0.4 C 0.4 D 1.8 A power transmisssion line of surge impedance Zo is terminated in impeadence A (Zo* ZL)/(Zo + ZL) B (Zo - ZL)/(Zo + ZL) C (Zo + ZL)/(Zo - ZL) D (Zo + ZL)/(Zo* ZL) For transient stability of power system A P/t > 0, P/ < 0 B P/t > 0, P/> 0 C P/t < 0, P/ > 0 D P/t < 0, P/< 0 Time taken for surge to travel 500 Km long overhead transmission line is A 1.25 ms B 2 ms C 1.666 ms D 5 ms A long over head transmission line is terminated by its characteristic impedance. A progressively increase from the B progressively decreases from the sending end to receiving end sending end to receiving end C reamin same at two ends but D remain same at all the points higher at intermediate point and being maximum at the centre of line Inertia constant H of a machine of 200 MVA is 2 p.u. Its value corresponding to A 2.0 B 1.0 C 0.5 D 4.0 For stable operation of interconnected power system, the passive element that A Resistor B Capacitor C Resistor & Capacitor D Reactor If two synchronous generators are connected in parallel, loss of synchronism will A stalling of generators B Wild fluctuation in current C Wild fluctuation in current and D Wild fluctuation in voltage voltage For Power system planning studies ___________ is most essential

SUJJECT CODE:

14/23

PGCET

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A Fault analysis B Load flow analysis C stability studies D Fault calculation A B C and D parameters are used for analysis of _________ transmission line A Short B Midium C Long D None of the above The presence of earth wire in case of over head line increases its A increases its inducatnce B increases its capacitance C decreases its capacitance D decreases its capacitance Stability of a system is termed as A the value of power below which B the value of power below which system is stable and above which system is stable and above which also stable a unstable C the value of power below which D the value of power below which system is unstable and above system is unstable and above which stable which also unstable In AC transmission line system there is difference in phase voltage at the two A earthing of line B system voltage C insultaors D reactance of line An isolator operates under A no load condition B full load condition C fault condition D 60 % of load condition If a system is dynamically unstable A governer action has no effect B oscillation may increase until synchronism is lost C load of sytem is less than energy D None of these input When excitation is altered in an alternator connected to infinite bus , its A Power generated B Speed of rotor C Power Factor D Terminal Voltage Shunt compensation in EHV line is generally provided at A middle of the line B the receiving end C the supply end D anywhere In Load Flow Studies/ Analysis, the load connected to bus is represented as A Constant impedance connnected B Voltage and frequency dependent at the bus source at the bus C Cons curent drawn from the bus D constant real and reactive power drawn from the bus For load flow analysis, the quantities normally specified at voltge controlled A P and |V| B P&Q C Q & |V| D P& The velocity of travelling wave through a cable at relative permittivity of 9 is A B 9 X 108 m/s 1 X 108 m/s C D 3 X 108 m/s 5 X 108 m/s The per unit impedance of transmission line 0.25, if the base KV and MVA are A 0.0625 B 0.125 C 0.25 D 0.5

SUJJECT CODE:

15/23

PGCET

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Switching surge is A Hperbolically dying voltage B short duration trasient voltage C high voltage dc D high voltage ac Current reactors are used A to improve efficiency B to improve power factor C to reduce fault level D to improve regulation A medium transmissio n with parameters A,B,C,D is extended by connecting A A, AZ + B, C, CZ + D B A, AZ , C, CZ C A, BZ , C,DZ D AZ, B, C/Z, D Steepness of travelling wave is attenuated by A resistance of line B inductance of line C capacitance of line D None of these A line having resistance R0 =25 ohm is terminated with resistance of 50 Ohm A 0.3333 B 1.6666 C 0.66666 D 0 Reflection coefficient of open circuited transmission line is A 1 B -1 C 0 D Reflection coefficent of line when line is terminated with its charateristics A 1 B -1 C 0 D The rated votlage of 3 phase power system is given as A rms phase voltage B rms line to line voltage C peak line voltage D Peak phase voltage Equal area criterion gives the information regarding A absolute stability B relative stability C stability region D swing curve If in short transmission line, resistance and inductance are found to be equal and A of unity pf B of zero pf C of 0.707 lagging D of 0.707 leading The non- uniform distribution of voltage across the unit in string of suspension A the existence of stray capacitance B non-uniform distance between between metallic junctions of the the cross arm and the units units and the tower body C unequal self capacitance of units D None of these Hollow conductors are used in transmission lines to A reduce weight of copper B improve stability C reduce corona D increase power transmission capacity The function of steel in ACSR conductor is A to care of surges B to provide mechanical strength C to prevent corona D to improve power factor In an interconnected power system consisting of a Nuclear power station, A Nuclear power station B Thermal power station C Diesel generating station D All of the above Capacity factor of a power station is

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SUJJECT CODE:

16/23

PGCET

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maximum installed capacity of station / average demand of station C Average demand on station / D average demand of station / maximum demand on station maximum installed capacity of station. For a thermal power plant, which is not the fixed cost ? A Interest on capital B Insurance charges C Cost of fuel D Depreciation Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ? A Tidal power B Nuclear energy C Geothermal energy D Wind power Pressure of steam in condenser is A much less than steam pressure. B slightly less than steam pressure C more than steam pressure D atmospheric pressure Transmission efficiency increases as voltage increases but power factor B A voltage decreases but power decreases factor increases C voltage and power factor both D voltage and power factor both decreases increases When alternating current passes through a conductor A it remains uniformly distributed B portion of conductor near the throughout the section of surface carries less current as conductor compared to the core C portion of conductor near the D entire current passes through the surface carries more current as core of the conductor. compared to the core The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to A skin effect B corona C permeability D unsymmetrical fault Skin effect depends on A size of the conductor B frequency of the current C resistivity of the conductor D all of the above. material The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the A diameter increases B frequency increases C resistivity of conductor material D permeability of conductor increases. material increases In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when A less than 200 km B less than 150 km C less than 120 km D less than 80 km The voltage of transmission can be regulated by A use of tap changing transformers B switching in shunt capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads

Maximum demand / average demand

SUJJECT CODE:

17/23

PGCET

221

use of series capacitors to D any of the above methods. neutralize the effect of series reactance In case the height of transmission tower is increased A the line capacitance and B the line capacitance will decrease inductance will not change but line inductance will remain unaltered C the line capacitance and line D the line capacitance will decrease inductance both will decrease and line inductance will increase

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For increasing the capacity of a transmission line to transmit power A the voltage must be reduced B line inductance should be decreased C line capacitance should be D all of the above decreased In a thermal power plant cooling towers are used to A condense low pressure steam B cool condensed steam C cool water used in condenser for D cool feed water of boiler condensing steam Which of the following material can be used as a moderator ? A Graphite B Heavy water C Beryllium D Any of the above A gas turbine works on A Carnot cycle B Brayton cycle C Dual cycle D Rankine cycle Which auxiliary of gas turbine consumes most of the power ? A Burner B Compressor C Combustion chamber D Fuel pump Compressor used in gas turbines is A reciprocating compressor B plunger type compressor C multistage axial flow compressor D screw compressor In a thermal power plant, heat from the flue gases is recovered in A Economizer B Electric precipitator C chimney D condenser In bleeder turbines, part of the steam is extracted for A heating secondary air B reheating C condensation. D feed water heating The effect of corona is A increased energy loss B increased reactance C increased inductance D all of the above In transmission system a feeder feeds power to A service mains B distributors C generating stations D all of the above In a transmission line having negligible resistance the surge impedance is A B (L+C)1/2 (1/LC)1/2 C D (L/C)1/2 (C/L)1/2

SUJJECT CODE:

18/23

PGCET

233

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Transmission lines link A service points to consumer B distribution transformer to premises consumer premises C receiving end station to D generating station to receiving distribution transformer end station. String efficiency can be improved by A using shorter cross arm B insulator disc of same size C using a guard ring D any of the above. Stranded conductors are used for transmitting power at high voltages because A ease-in handling B low cost C better wind resistance D increased tensile strength If 3 MW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable A 33 kV B 66 kV C 132 kV D 220 kV Which of the following equipment is not installed in a substation ? A Shunt reactors B Voltage transformers C Series capacitors D Exciter Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of operations of A Close earthing switch - open B Open isolator - close circuit circuit breaker open isolator breaker - open earthing switch C Open circuit breaker - open D Close circuit breaker - close isolator - close earthing switch isolator - open earthing switch Which of the following correctly presents the sequence of operations of isolator A Ensure circuit breaker is open B make sure that circuit breaker is open isolator - open earthing open - close isolator - open switch if any - close circuit earthing switch if any close circuit breaker. breaker C Ensure circuit breaker is closed - D None of the above close isolator - open earthing switch Stability of a system is not affected by A Reactance of line B Reactance of generator C Losses D Output torque The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is A to each any stray voltages B to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value C to limit arcing current during the D to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker operation of circuit breaker. In air blast circuit breakers, the pressure of air is of the order of A 100 mm Hg B 1 kg/cm2 C 20 to 30 kg/cm2 D 200 to 300 kg/cm2 A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire is A Aluminium B Silver C Lead D Copper The disadvantage offered by ungrounded systems is A frequent arcing grounds B difficult earth fault relaying

SUJJECT CODE:

19/23

PGCET

245

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C voltage oscillations D all of the above. Solid grounding is used for voltages A above 220 kV B above 11 kV C below 660 V D below 115 V Resistance grounding is used for voltages A below 220 V B up to 660 V C between 3.3 kV to 11 kV D above 66 kV. Arcing in transmission line can be prevented by connecting suitable A Circuit breaker B Relay C capacitor in neutral D inductor in neutral The operation of relay which is most affected due to arc resistance A Mho Relay B Reactance Relay C Impedance relay D All are equally afected The relay which is most sensitive to power swings (mal operation ) is A Mho Relay B Reactance Relay C Impedance relay D All are equally afected A 100/5 CT has secondary winding & lead resistance of 0.2 ohm, and the A 10 B 7.5 C 5 D 2.5 A distance relay is said to be inheretently directional if its characteristics on R-X A is a straight line passing through B is a circle that passes through origin origin C is a circle that encloses origin D None of these Which component of the magnetizing inrush current provides restraining torque A 2nd harmonics B 3rd harmonics C 4th harmonics D 5th harmonics Differential protection of generator make use of the principle that under normal A at the neutral end of phase B in each of three phase winding is winding is zero identical C at both end of the phase winding D at the two ends of the phase are equal winding are unequal The reactance relay is essentially A an overcurrent relay with current B an over volatge relay with restraint directional restraint C a directional relay with voltage D a directional relay with current restraint restraint During arc extinction SF6 gas A decomposes into S and F ions B gets oxidized C decomposes into SF4and SF2 D reduces to SF3. Which of the following protective devices can be used against lightning surges ? A Horn gap B Surge diverters C Lightning arresters D all of the above Electro-magnetic relays may be operated by A electro-magnetic attraction B electro-magnetic induction C thermal effect D any of the above. Differential protection principle is used in the protection of

SUJJECT CODE:

20/23

PGCET

259

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272

A generators B transformers C feeders D all of the above. Thermal relays are often used in A generator protection B transformer protection C motor starters D none of the above. The power factor of the arc in circuit breaker is A always zero B always unity C always lagging D always leading. In a circuit breaker the arc is indicated by the process of A I and IV only B I, II and III only C II, III and IV only D I and II only. The ratio of drop off value to pick-up value of a relay is known as A CT ratio B Holding ratio C PT Ratio D Tripping ratio The directional relay senses A capacitance B inducatnce C impedance D power The time interval between the instant of occurrence of fault and closure of relay A fault clearing time B breaker time C relay time D action time The time interval between the instant of closure of relay contact and final arc A fault clearing time B breaker time C relay time D action time What is used in resonant earthing ? A resistor B GI Pipe C Copper plate D Peterson coil reactance A protection system, which responds to the vector difference between two A Distance Protection Scheme B directional protection scheme C Differential protection scheme D over reach protection scheme The value of holding ratio of relay is always A less than 1 B greater than 1 C infinite D none of these In which portion of transmission system fault occurs the most A Under ground cables B Over head lines C transformer D isolator What is the function of Fault diverters? A divert the current to earth in the B neutralize the surges by resistors event of short circuit C modify the surge wave shape D none of these Internal Incipient fault of transformser are detected by A Thermal relay B Directional relay C Buchholz relay D Distance relay The RRRV depends upon A the type of circuit breaker B the inductance of the system only C the capacitance of system only D the inductance and capacitance of the system

SUJJECT CODE:

21/23

PGCET

273

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Reverse power protection is necessary when the prime mover is a A steam turbine B diesel engine C gas turbine D any of the above Bias setting of trnaformer differntial realy cannot avoid mal-operation due to A external fault B CT saturation C CT mismatching D over voltage on the source side of the transformer Zero sequence current is exclusively used for relaying purpose only in the case of A phase overcurrent relay B phase impeadence relay C ground overcurrent relay D ground impedance relay Impedance relaying scheme calculates the impedance using the A fundamental components of post B transient component of post fault fault current current C fundamental as well as transient D none of the above component of post fault current For large induction motors, to detect single phasing condition A a relay shall depend on positive B a relay shall depend on negative sequence current measurement sequence current measurement C a relay shall depend on zero D no special protection is required sequence current measurement For more sensitive earth fault protection of an induction motor A differntial protection scheme shall B Inverse time over current relay be provided shall be provided C an instantaneous relay shall be D Mer price protection shall be used connectd in the secondary of core balance CT If in a protection schmeme fault current is of 4000 A, CT used is of 100/1 A and A 160 B 80 C 40 D 20 The fault occuring in transmission actually are mostly A L-G faults B L-L-G faults C L-L faults D L-L-L faults The burden of over current relay is helpful in deciding A transformation ratio of CT B transfomation ratio of PT C VA rating of CT D VA rating of PT An overcurrent relay of current rating 5 A and setting 150 % is connected to a A 100 B 150 C 200 D 300 Which is a relay characteristics has closest resemblence to the charateristics of A norma inverse characteristics B very inverse chacteristics C extremley inverse characteristics D all of the above Which of the following protection scheme applied to generator is time delayed ? A Differential protection B Unbalance protection C Stator earth fault protection D Rotor earth fault protection Which of the following protection applied to generator is instantaneous A Field failure protection B Under frequency protection C unabalnce protection D Turn-to-turn fault protection

SUJJECT CODE:

22/23

PGCET

286

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In differntial protection scheme, a stabilizing resisistance connected to A block harmonics B reduce the effect of non identical CTs C increase the relay sensitiviy D none of above The reverse power protection is applied for A over speeding B excitation failure C prime mover failure D over fluxing Failure of generator field breaker causes A over speeding B over heating C voltage drop D none of the above A harmonic restrain feature used in the realy for transformer protection to ____ A detect external fault B avoid mal operation due to magnetizing inrush current C increase the speed of relay D none of the above A L-G ( line to ground)fault occurs on the star side of a feeder of a 3-phase starA L-L faults B L-G fault C L-L-G fault D L-L-L faults The KPV of Protective CT should _________________the KPV of metering CT. A lower than B higher than C double than D half of The angle between the phase wires and the ground wire used for lightning A 30 B 45 C 90 D 75 The power tranfer capacity of a line is doubled when degree of the series A 50% B 70% C 90% D 100% The relay operates in 3 sec when TMS is 0.6, when the TMS is adjusted to 0.4 the A 2 times B 3 times C 4 times D 5 times The line current in a three phase unbalanced load are Ir= 4 +j6, Ib=2-j2 and Ic= -3 A 3 + j6 B 9 + j10 C 1 + j2 D 3 -j6 The tranformer is rated at 11 KV/0.4 KV, 500 kVA and 5% reactnce, the short A 10 MVA B 11 kVA C 110 kVA D 8 MVA The surge impedance of a 500 km long, 400 KV transmission line is 400 ohms. A 400 MW B 1600 MW C 200 MW D 2000 MW The synchronous motor improves the power factor of load of 500 kW from 0.6 A 102.5 kVAR B 105 kVAR C 100.5 kVAR D 107.5 kVAR The plug setting of negative sequence relay is 0.2 A, the CT ratio is 5:1. The A 0.707 B 3 C 1.732 D 5 If a new bus is added in the power sustem network then size of the Ybus of N X A remain same B N+1 X N+1 C N-1 X N+1 D N-1 X N-1

SUJJECT CODE:

23/23

PGCET

1.

The r.m.s value of the current i(t) in the circuit shown below is

A C

2.

2 The fourier series expansion = + + of the periodic signal shown below will contain the following nonzero terms: D

1 2

A C 3.

In the circuit given below, the value of R required for the transfer of maximum power to the load having a resistance of 3 is:

, , = 1,2,3, ,

, = 1,3,5, ,

B D

, = 1,2,3, , , = 1,3,5, ,

A C

Zero 6

B D

3 Infinity

4.

Given two continuous time signals = = which exist for t > 0, the convolution z(t) = x(t) * y(t) is: A B C D +

5.

In the circuit shown below, the power dissipated in the resistor R is:

A C 6.

0.5 W 2 W

B D

1W 2W

The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is:

A C 7.

50 5 k

B D

100 10.1 k

In the circuit shown below, the current through the inductor is:

A C

2 1+ 1 1+

B D

1 1+ 0A

8.

In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors.C1 has been charged to 12 V before the ideal switch is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is:

A C 9.

Zero

A step function

An exponentially decaying D An impulse function function The average power delivered to an impedance 4 3 by a current 5 cos100 + 100 is: A 44.2 W B 50 W C 62.5 W D 125 W

10.

In the circuit below, if VA - VB is 6 V, then VC - VD is:

A C 11.

-5 V 3V

B D

2V 6V

In the network of figure, for Vs = V0, I = 1A then what is the value of I1, if Vs = 2V0 ?

A C

2A 3A

B D

1.5 A 2.5 A

12.

In the network of figure, If Is = I0 then V = 1 volt. What is the value of I1 if Is = 2I0 ?

A C 13.

1.5 A 4.5 A

B D

2A 3A

The linear network in the figure contains resistors and dependent sources only. When Vs = 10 V, the power supplied by the voltage source is 40 W. What will be the power supplied by the source if Vs = 5 V ?

A C 14.

20 W 40 W

B D

10 W Cannot be determined.

In the circuit below, when Vs = 20 V, IL = 200 mA. What values of IL and Vs will be required such that power absorbed by RL is 2.5 W ?

A C

1A, 2.5 V 0.5 A, 50 V

B D

0.5 A, 2 V 2A, 1.25 V

15.

In the circuit below, the voltage drop across the resistance R2 will be equal to:

A C 16.

46 volt 22 volt

B D

38 volt 14 volt

In the circuit below, the voltage V across the 40 resistor would be equal to:

A C 17.

80 V 160 V

B D

40 V 0V

In the circuit below, current I = I1+ I2+ I3, where I1, I2 and I3 are currents due to 60 A, 30 A and 30 V sources acting alone. The values of I1, I2 and I3 are respectively:

A C

8 A, 8 A, -4 A 4 A, 4 A, -1 A

B D

12 A, 12 A, -5 A 2 A, 2 A, -4 A

18.

Assuming both voltage sources in the figure below are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is:

A C 19.

0.8 2

B D

1.4 2.8

With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear reciprocal network shown below, The following were observed.

1) 1 connected at port B draws a current of 3 A. 2) 2.5 connected at port B draws a current of 2 A. For the same network, with 6 V dc connected at port A, 1 connected at port B draws 7/3 A. If 8 V dc is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage of port B is: A C 20. 6V 8V B D 7V 9V

In the circuit shown, the three voltmeter readings are V1 = 220 V, V2 = 122 V, V3 = 136 V.

The power factor of the load is: A 0.45 C 0.55

B D

0.5 0.6

21.

The current Ic in the figure below is:

A C 22.

j2 A + 1

D +j2 A 2 The value of current I flowing through 2 resistance in the circuit below equals to:

A C 23.

10 A 4A

B D

5A 0A

In the circuit below, current I is equal to sum of two currents I1 and I2 , with current source and voltage source alone respectively, while applying the superposition theorem. What are the values of I1 and I2?

A C 24.

6 A, 1 A 3 A, 1 A

B D

9 A, 6 A 3 A, 4 A

A network consists only of independent current sources and resistors. If the values of all the current sources are doubled, then values of node voltages: A remains same B will be doubled C will be halved D changes in some other way

25.

In the circuit shown in the figure below, the value of current I will be be given by:

A C 26.

1.5 A 0.05 A

B D

-0.3 A -0.5 A

The value of current I in the circuit below is equal to:

A C 27.

2/7 A 2A

B D

1A 4A

What is the value of current I in the circuit shown below ?

A C

8.5 A 1.5 A

B D

4.5 A 5.5 A

28.

Which of the following circuits is equivalent to the circuit shown below?

D None of these

29.

In the circuit shown, the three voltmeter readings are V1 = 220 V, V2 = 122 V, V3 = 136 V.

If RL = 5 , the approximate power consumption in the load is: A 700 W B 750 W C 30. 800 W D 850 W

With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear reciprocal network shown below, The following were observed.

1) 1 connected at port B draws a current of 3 A. 2) 2.5 connected at port B draws a current of 2 A. For the same network, with 10 V dc connected at port A, the current drawn by 7 connected at port B is: A 3/7 A B 5/7 A C 1A D 9/7 A

31.

What is the value of current I in the following network?

A C 32.

4A 2A

B D

6A 1A

Consider a network which consists of resistors and voltage sources only. If the values of all the voltage sources are doubled, then the values of mesh current will be A Doubled B Same C Halved D None of these

33.

In the given network if V1 = V2 = 0, then what is the value of Vo?

A C 34.

3.2 V 5.33 V

B D

8V Zero

In the circuit below, the 12 V source:

A C 35.

absorbs 36 W absorbs 100 W

B D

delivers 4 W delivers 36 W

Consider a dependent current source shown in figure below.

The source transformation of above is given by: A B

Source transformation is not applicable to dependent sources.

36.

The period of signal = 8sin 0.8 + is: A C 0.4 s B 1.25 s D

0.8 s 2.5 s

37.

How much power is being dissipated by the 4 k resistor in the network?

A C 38.

0 9 mW

B D

2.25 mW 4 mW

For the circuit shown in the figure the Thevenin voltage and resistance seen from the terminal a-b are respectively:

A C

34 V, 0 14 V, 0

B D

20 V, 24 14 V, 24

39.

The Thevenin equivalent resistance RTh between the nodes a and b in the following circuit is:

A C 40.

3 12

B D

16 4

In the following circuit, Thevenin voltage and resistance across terminal a and b respectively are:

A C 41.

10 V, 18 10 V, 18.67

B D

2 V, 18 2 V, 18.67

What values of RTh and VTh will cause the circuit of figure (B) to be the equivalent circuit of figure (A)?

A C

2.4 , 24 V 10 , 24 V

B D

3 , 16 V 10 , 24 V

42.

Consider the two circuits shown in figure (A) and figure (B) below:

The value of Thevenin voltage across terminals a-b of figure (A) and figure (B) respectively are: A 30 V, 36 V B 28 V, 12 V C 43. 18 V, 12 V D 30 V, 12 V

Consider the circuit shown in the figure.

The equivalent Thevenin voltage across terminal a-b is: A 31.2 V B 19.2 V C 44. 16.8 V D 24 V

Consider the circuit shown in the figure.

The Norton equivalent current with respect to terminal a-b is: A 13 A B 7A C 8A D 10 A

45.

Find the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH) between terminals A and B of the circuit given below.

A C 46.

4.16 V, 120 4.16 V, 70

B D

41.6 V, 120 41.67 V, 70 . The values for an

A certain current source has the values IS = 4 A and RS = 1.2 M equivalent voltage source are: A 4.8 V, 1.2 M B 1 V, 1.2 M C 4.8 V, 4.8 M D 4.8 V, 1.2 M

47.

Find the total current through R3 in the given circuit.

A C 48.

7.3 mA 12.8 mA

B D

5.5 mA 0.769 mA

A 680 load resistor, RL, is connected across a constant current source of 1.2 A. The internal source resistance, RS, is 12 k . The load current, RL, is A Zero B 0.766 A C 114 mA D 1.2 A

49.

The value of RTh and VTh such that the circuit of figure (B) is the Thevenin equivalent circuit of the circuit shown in figure (A), will be equal to:

A C 50.

6 , 4 V 6 , 6 V

B D

4 , 6 V 4 , 4 V

Consider the two circuits shown in figure (A) and figure (B) below:

The value of Thevenin resistance across terminals a-b of figure (A) and figure (B) respectively are: A zero, 3 B 9 , 16 C 51. 2 , 3 D zero, 16

Find the current through R2 of the given circuit.

A C 52.

134 mA 74 mA

B D

104 mA 30.7 mA

Determine IN for the circuit consisting of VS, R1, R2, and R3 shown in the given circuit.

A C 53.

676 mA 431 mA

B D

245 mA 75 mA . The equivalent current source

A 120 V voltage source has a source resistance, RS, of 60 is A 2A B 4A C 200 mA D 400 mA

54.

What is the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH) for the circuit given?

A C 55.

6.4 V, 560 6.4 V, 680

B D

6.4 V, 422 30 V, 422

Find the current in R2 of the given circuit, using the superposition theorem.

A C 56.

16.7 mA 50 mA

B D

33.3 mA 16.6 mA

A 470 RL is connected across a voltage source, VS, of 120 V. The source's internal resistance, RS, is 12 . What is the output voltage across the load? A 120 V B Zero C 12 V D 117 V

57.

Find the Norton circuit, that is, IN and RN, for the circuit given below.

A C 58.

478 mA, 12.8 478 mA, 6.8

B D

750 mA, 12.8 750 mA, 6.8 . The values for an

A certain voltage source has the values VS = 30 V and RS = 6 equivalent current source are A 5 A, 6 B 30 A, 6 C 5 A, 30 D 30 A, 5

59.

A 12 V source has an internal resistance of 90 to the voltage source, the load power, PL, is A 2.38 mW B C 238 mW D

. If a load resistance of 20 2.38 W 23.8 W

is connected

60.

Referring to the given circuit, the voltage and current for the load resistor, RL, is

A C 61.

450 mV, 4.5 mA 450 mV, 45 mA

B D

4.50 V, 45 mA 4.50 V, 4.5 mA

A 2 RL is connected across a voltage source, VS, of 110 V. The source's internal resistance is 24 . What is the output voltage across the load? A 8.5 V B 85 V C Zero D 110 V

62.

Consider a star network in which three resistances Ra, Rb and Rc are connected to terminals A, B and C respectively. The resistance between terminals A and B with C open is 6 , between B and C with A open is 11 , and between C and A with B open is 9 . Then A B Ra= 4 , Rb= 2 , Rc= 5 Ra= 2, Rb= 4, Rc= 7 C Ra= 3 , Rb=3 , Rc= 4 D Ra= 5, Rb= 1 , Rc= 10 resistor, what will be the current

63.

Referring to circuit given, if R1 is changed to a 68 through it?

A C 64.

0.16 A 0.2 A

B D

0.24 A 0.04 A . If a load resistance of 33 1W 18 mW is connected

An 18 V source has an internal resistance of 70 to the voltage source, the load power, PL, is A Zero B C 175 mW D

65.

Find the current through R1 in the given circuit.

A C 66.

0.16 A 0.2 A

B D

0.24 A 0.04 A

In a two-source circuit, one source acting alone produces 12 mA through a given branch. The other source acting alone produces 10 mA in the opposite direction through the same branch. The actual current through the branch is A 22 mA B 12 mA C 10 mA D 2 mA

67.

For a network having resistors and independent sources, it is desired to obtain Thevenin equivalent across the load which is in parallel with an ideal current source. Then which of the following statement is true? A The Thevenin equivalent circuit B The Thevenin equivalent circuit is simply that of a voltage consists of a voltage source and a source. series resistor.

68.

The Thevenin equivalent circuit D None of these does not exist but the Norton equivalent does exist. In the following network, value of current I through 6 resistor is given by:

A C 69.

0.83 A 1A

B D

2A -0.5 A

In the circuit shown below, the Norton equivalent current and resistance with respect to terminal a-b is:

A C 70.

17/6 A, 0 -7/6 A, 24

B D

2 A, 24 -2 A, 24

For a network consisting of resistors and independent sources only, it is desired to obtain Thevenins or Nortons equivalent across a load which is in parallel with an ideal voltage sources. Consider the following statements: 1. Thevenin equivalent circuit across this terminal does not exist. 2. Thevenin equivalent circuit exists and its simply that of a voltage source. 3. Norton equivalent circuit for this terminal does not exist. Which of the above statements is/are true ? A 1 and 3 B 1 C 2 and 3 D 3

71.

For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenins voltage and resistance looking into a-b are:

A C 72.

2 V, 3 6 V, 9

B D

2 V, 2 6 V, 3

For the circuit below, what value of R will cause I = 3 A?

A C 73.

2/3 Zero

B D

4 None of these

The Thevenin equivalent circuit of a network consists only of a resistor (Thevenin voltage is zero). Then which of the following elements might be contained in the network? A resistor and independent sources B resistor only C resistor, independent sources dependent sources What are the values of equivalent Norton current source (IN) and equivalent resistance (RN) across the load terminal of the circuit shown in figure? resistor and dependent sources D and

74.

A C

10 A, 2 10 A, 9

B D

3.33 A, 9 6.66 A, 2

75.

For a network consisting of resistors and independent sources only, it is desired to obtain Thevenins or Nortons equivalent across a load which is in series with an ideal current sources. Consider the following statements

 Norton equivalent across this terminal is not feasible. Norton equivalent circuit exists and it is simply that of a current source only. Thevenins equivalent circuit across this terminal is not feasible. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? A 1 and 3 B 2 and 3 C 76. 1 only D 3 only

The maximum power that can be transferred to the resistance R in the circuit is

A C 77.

486 mW 121.5mW

B D

243mW 225mW

In the circuit below, if RL is fixed and Rs is variable then for what value of Rs power dissipated in RL will be maximum?

A C 78.

RS = RL RS = RL/2

B D

RS = 0 RS = 2RL

In the circuit shown below the maximum power transferred to RL is Pmax, t hen:

A C 79.

RL = 12 , Pmax = 12 W RL = 3 , Pmax = 48 W

B D

RL = 3 , Pmax = 96 W RL = 12 , Pmax = 24 W

In the circuit of figure (A), if I1 = 20 mA, then what is the value of current I2 in the circuit of figure (B)?

A C 80.

40 mA 20 mA

B D

20 mA R1, R2 and R3 must be known

If V1 = 2 V in the circuit of figure (A), then what is the value of V2 in the circuit of figure (B)?

A C 81.

2V 4V

B D

2 V R1, R2 and R3 must be known

The value of current I in the circuit below is equal to:

A C 82.

100 mA 233.34 mA

B D

10 mA None of these

The value of current I in the following circuit is equal to:

A C 83.

1A 3A

B D

6A 2A

For the following circuit the value of RTh is:

A C 84.

3 6

B D

12

If V = AV1+ BV2+ CI3 in the following circuit, then values of A, B and C respectively are:

85.

2 2 1 B , , 3 3 3 1 1 1 C D , , 2 2 3 What is the value of current I in the network of figure? A

1 1 100 , , 3 3 3 1 2 100 , , 3 3 3

A C 86.

0.67 A 1.34 A

B D

2A 0.5 A

The value of current I in the figure is:

A C

1mA 1.8 mA

B D

1.4 mA 1.2mA

87.

In the circuit below, for what value of k , load RL = 2 absorbs maximum power?

A C 88.

4 2

B D

7 6

In the circuit shown below, the maximum power that can be delivered to the load RL is equal to:

A C 89.

72mW 24mW

B D

36mW 18mW

For the linear network shown below, V-I characteristic is also given in the figure. The load voltage when current I is zero is 3 V. The value of Norton equivalent current and resistance respectively are:

A C 90.

3A, 2 6A, 0.5

B D

6 A, 2 3A, 0.5

A practical DC current source provides 20 kW to a 50 load and 20 kW to a 200 load. The maximum power, that can drawn from it, is: A 22.5 kW B 45 kW C 30.3 kW D 40 kW

91.

For the following circuit the value of equivalent Norton current IN and resistance RN are:

A C 92.

2 A, 20 0 A, 20

B D

2 A, 20 0 A, 20

Consider the following circuits shown below:

The relation between Ia and Ib is: A Ib = Ia + 6 C 93. Ib = 1.5Ia

B D

Ib = Ia + 2 Ib = Ia

For the following circuit, value of current I is given by:

A C 94.

0.5 A 1A

B D

3.5 A 2A

In the following circuit, some measurements were made at the terminals a, b and given in the table below.

The Thevenin equivalent of the unknown network across terminal a-b is: A 3 , 14 V B 5 , 16 V C 16 , 38 V D 10 , 26 V

95.

The Thevenin equivalent resistance between terminal a and b in the following circuit is:

A C 96.

22 17

B D

11 1

In the circuit shown below, the value of current I will be given by:

A C 97.

2.5 A 4A

B D

1.5 A 2A

The V -I relation of the unknown element X in the given network is V = AI + B. The value of A (in ohm) and B (in volt) respectively are:

A C 98.

2, 20 0.5, 4

B D

2, 8 0.5, 16

The power delivered by 12 V source in the following network is:

A C

24 W 120 W

B D

96 W 48 W

99.

In the circuit shown, what value of RL maximizes the power delivered to RL?

A C 100.

286 Zero

B D

350 500

In the following circuit, some measurements were made at the terminals a, b and given in the table below.

The value of R that will cause I to be 1A, is: A 22 B C 101. 8 D

16 11

In the following circuit equivalent Thevenin resistance between nodes a and b is RTh = 3 . The value of is:

A C 102.

2 3

B D

1 4

Find the Thevenin equivalent (VTH and RTH) between terminals A and B of the circuit given.

562 mV, 167

5.62 V, 167

C 103.

5.62 V, 188

562 mV, 188

A certain network consists of a large number of ideal linear resistors, one of which is R and two constant ideal sources. The power consumed by R is P1 when only the first source is active and P2 when only the second source is active. If both sources are active simultaneously, then the power consumed by R is A B C A network N feeds a resistance R as shown in circuit below. Let the power consumed by R be P. If an identical network is added as shown in figure, the power consumed by R will be D

104.

A C 105.

equal to P between P and 4P

B D

less than P more than 4P

If the 60 resistance in the circuit of figure (A) is to be replaced with a current source Is and 240 shunt resistor as shown in figure (B), then magnitude and direction of required current source would be

A C 106.

200 mA, upward 50 mA, downward

B D

150 mA, downward 150 mA, upward

The Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the figure is

A C

4 V, 48 24 V, 24

B D

24 V, 12 12 V, 12

107.

will be equal to:

The voltage VL across the load resistance in the figure is given by =

. V and R

A C 108.

10 V, 2 10 V, 2

B D

10 V, 2 none of these

The maximum power that can be transferred to the load resistor RL from the current source in the figure is

A C 109.

4W 16 W

B D

8W 2W

An electric circuit is fed by two independent sources as shown in figure.

The power supplied by 36 V source will be A 108W B C 110. 129.6W D

162W 216W

What is the value of voltage V in the following network ?

A C 111.

14 V -10 V

B D

28 V None of these

In the circuit shown in the figure, power dissipated in 4 resistor is

A C 112.

225 W 9W

B D

121 W None of these

In the circuit given below, viewed from a-b, the circuit can be reduced to an equivalent circuit as:

113.

10 volt source in series with 2 B 1250 resistor only k resistor C 20 V source in series with D 800 resistor only 1333.34 resistor For the circuit shown in figure below the value of RTh is: A

A C

100 200

B D

136.4 272.8

114.

Consider the network shown below:

The power absorbed by load resistance RL is shown in table:

The value of RL, that would absorb maximum power, is A 60 k B 100 C 115. 300 D 30 k

An electric circuit is fed by two independent sources as shown in figure.

The power supplied by 27 A source will be A 972W B C 116. 1458W D

1083W 1026W

The V -I equation for the network shown in figure, is given by

A C 117.

7V = 200I + 54 V = 200I + 54

B D

V = 100I + 36 V = 50I + 54 = 10.75

The voltage across a 20 F capacitor varies with time and is given by 1.5 V. What is the current through the capacitor? A B 0.3 0.03 C 0.5 D 0.05

118.

In the circuit shown below, the value of RL such that the power transferred to RL is maximum is:

A C 119.

5 15

B D

10 20

In the circuit shown, what value of RL maximizes the power delivered to RL?

A C 120.

2.4 4

B D

8/3 6

For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin voltage and resistance looking into X-Y are:

A C 121.

, 2

For the circuit shown in the figure, Thevenins voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance at terminals a-b is:

B D

4 V, 2

4 ,

A C 122.

5 V and 2 4 V and 2

B D

7.5 V and 2.5 3 V and 2.5

Use the data of the figure (a). The current i in the circuit of the figure (b):

A C 123.

-2 A -4 A

B D

2A 4A

In the network of the figure, the maximum power is delivered to RL if its value is

A C 124.

16 60

B D

40/3 20

What is the time constant of the circuit shown in figure below when the switch is closed?

A C 125.

0.5 s 3.75 s

B D

2s 1s

The maximum power that can be transferred to the load resistor RL from the voltage source in the figure is:

A C 126.

1W 0.25 W

B D

10 W 0.5 W

The value of R (in ohms) required for maximum power transfer in the network shown in the given figure is:

A C 127.

2 8

B D

4 16

Superposition theorem is NOT applicable to networks containing A C nonlinear elements dependent current sources B D dependent voltage sources transformers

128.

The voltage V in the figure is always equal to:

A C 129.

9V 1V

B D

5V None of the above.

For the circuit shown in figure, the Norton equivalent source current value and and its resistance is:

A C

2 A, 4 A,

B D

2 A, 4 A,

130.

Viewed from the terminals A-B, the following circuit shown in figure can be reduced to an

equivalent circuit of a single voltage source in series with a single resistor with the following parameters:

A C 131.

5 volt source in series with 10 resistor 15 volt source in series with 2.4 resistor

B D

1 volt source in series with 2.4 resistor 1 volt source in series with 10 resistor

For the circuit given above, the Thevenins resistance across the terminals A and B is: A 0.5 k B 0.2 k C 132. 1 k D 0.11 k

As shown in the figure, a 1 resistance is connected across a source that has a load line V + I = 100. The current through the resistance is:

A C 133.

25 A 100 A

B D

50 A 200 A

In the circuit given below, the value of R required for the transfer of maximum power to the load having a resistance of 3 is:

A C 134.

Zero 6

B D

3 Infinity

For the circuit shown in figure VR = 20 V when R = 10 and VR = 30 V when R = 20 . For R = 80 ,VR will read as:

A C 135.

48 V 120 V

B D

60 V 160 V

For the circuit shown in figure R is adjusted to have maximum power transferred to it. The maximum power transferred is:

A C 136.

16 W 64 W

B D

32 W 100 W

In the circuit shown in figure, current through the 5 resistor is:

A C 137.

Zero 3A

B D

2A 7A

In full sunlight, a solar cell has a short circuit current of 75 mA and a current of 70 mA for a terminal voltage of 0.6 with a given load. The Thevenin resistance of the solar cell is: A 8 B 8.6 C 120 D 140

138.

The source network S is connected to the load network L as shown by dashed lines. The power transferred from S to L would be maximum when RL is:

A C

0 0.8

B D

0.6 2

139.

For the circuit given above, the Thevenins voltage across the terminals A and B is A 1.25 V B 0.25 V C 140. 1V D 0.5 V

The current I shown in the circuit given below is equal to:

A C 141.

3A 6A

B D

3.67 A 9A

The voltages V1 and V2 in the given circuit are respectively:

A C 142.

6 V, 4 V 4 V, 6 V

B D

5 V each None of these

A two-port network is reciprocal if and only if: A C Z11 = Z22 BC AD = - 1 B D Y12 = Y21 h12 = h21

143.

Referring to the give circuit, the output will

A C

decay to zero at the end of the pulse reach 3.78 V at the end of the pulse

B D

reach 6 V at the end of the pulse reach 5.16 V at the end of the pulse

144.

Find the node voltage VA.

A C 145.

6V 4.25 V

B D

12 V 3V

What is the current through R2?

A C 146.

3.19 A 1.73 A

B D

319 mA 173 mA

In assigning the direction of branch currents, A C the directions are critical they must point into a node B D the directions are not critical they must point out of a node

147.

Using the mesh current method, find the branch current, IR1, in the figure below.

A C 148.

125 mA 12.5 A

B D

12.5 mA 135 mA

The branch current method uses A C Kirchhoff's voltage and current laws Kirchhoff's current law and Ohm's law B D Thevenin's theorem and Ohm's law the superposition theorem and Thevenin's theorem

149.

Find the node voltage VA.

A C 150.

518 mV 9.56 V

B D

5.18 V 956 mV

What is the voltage drop across R2?

A C

3.5 V 1.5 V

B D

4.18 V 145 mV

A single-phase load is supplied by a single-phase voltage source. If the current flowing 0 from the load to the source is 10 -150 A and if the voltage at the load terminals is 100 0 60 V, then the 151. A load absorbs real power and B load absorbs real power and absorbs delivers reactive power reactive power C load delivers real power and D load delivers real power and absorbs delivers reactive power. reactive power. Two systems with impulse responses h1(t) and h2(t) are connected in cascade. Then the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is given by Product of h1(t) and h2(t) B Sum of h1(t) and h2(t) 152. A C Convolution of h1(t) and h2(t) D Subtraction of h1(t) and h2(t)

A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb 153. resembles A an AND gate B an OR gate C an XOR gate D a NAND gate

For a periodic signal v(t) = 30sin100t +10cos300t +6sin(500t + /4 ) , the fundamental frequency in rad/s is 100 B 300 154. A C 500 D 1500

A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is 5 B 12 155. A C 15 D 20

Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown below. If all elements of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k > 0, the elements of the corresponding star equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

156.

A C

Three moving iron type voltmeters are connected as shown below. Voltmeter readings are V, V1 and V2 as indicated. The correct relation among the voltmeter readings is

B D

157.

158.

Figure shows the waveform of the current passing through an inductor of resistance 1 and inductance 2 H. The energy absorbed by the inductor in the first four seconds is

A C 159.

144 J 132 J

B D

98 J 168

A segment of a circuit is shown in Fig. VR = 5V, VC = 4 sin 2t. The voltage VL is given by

A C

3 8 cos 2t 16 sin 2t

B D

32 sin 2t

160.

In the figure, = 10 60 , Thevenn impedance seen from X-Y is

= 10 60 , = 50 53.13 .

16 cos 2t

A C 161.

In the circuit of figure the magnitudes of VL and VC are twice that of VR. The inductance of the coil is

7030

56.6645

B D

6030

34.465

A C 162.

2.14 mH 31.8 mH

B D

5.30 H 1.32 H

In Figure the potential difference between points P and Q is

A C 163.

12 V

B D

10 V 8V

-6V

Two ac sources feed a common variable resistive load as shown in figure. Under the maximum power transfer condition, the power absorbed by the load resistance RL is

A C 164.

2200 W 1000 W

B D

1250 W 625W

In Figure the value of R is

A C 165.

10 24

B D

18 12

In the circuit shown in Figure the switch S is closed at time t = 0. the voltage across the inductance at t = 0+, is

A C 166.

2V -6V

B D

4V 8V

The value of Z in Figure which is most appropriate to cause parallel resonance at 500 Hz, is

125.00 mH

304.20 F

C 167.

2.0 F

0.05 F

In figure, the value of the voltage source is

A C 168.

12 V

B D

24 V 44 V

30 V

In figure, Ra, Rb and Rc are 20, 10 and 10 respectively. The resistance R1, R2 and R3 in of an equivalent star-connection are

A C 169.

2.5, 5, 5 5 , 5, 2.5

B D

5, 2.5, 5 2.5, 5 , 2.5

The three elements having admittance values in Siemens are YR = 0.5 + j0.0, YL= 0 - j1.5, YC = 0 + j0.3 respectively. They are connected in parallel to current source having magnitude I. The value of I as a phasor when the voltage E across the elements is 10.00 V is
A C 1.5 + j0.5 0.5+j1.8 B D 5 j18 5 j12

170.

In figure, the value of resistance R in is

A C 171.

10 30

B D

20 40

In figure, the capacitor initially has a charge of 10 Coulomb. The current in the circuit one second after the switch S is closed, will be

A C 172.

14.7 A 40.0 A

B D

18.5 A 50.0 A

The rms value of the resultant current in a wire which carries a d.c. current of 10 A and a sinusoidal alternating current of peak value 20 A is A 14.1 A B 17.32 A C 22.4 A D 30.0 A

173.

In figure the value of R is

A C

2.5 7.5

B D

5.0 10.0

174.

The RMS value of the voltage u (t ) = 3 + 4cos (3t ) is: 17 7V

5V (3 + 22)V

C 175.

In Figure the initial capacitor voltage is zero. The switch is closed at t = 0. The final steady-state voltage across the capacitor is:

A C 176.

20V 5V

B D

10V 0V

The RL circuit of figure, is fed from a constant magnitude, variable frequency sinusoidal voltage source vIN. At 100 Hz, the R and L elements each have a voltage drop uRMS. If the frequency of the source is changed to 50 Hz, the new voltage drop across R is:

177.

3 2 For the three-phase circuit shown in figure the ratio of the current IR:IY:IB is given by C D

5 8 8 5

2 3

A C 178.

1:1:3 1:1:0

B D

1:1:2 1:1:

The circuit shown in figure is in steady state, when the switch is closed at t = 0. Assuming that the inductance is ideal, the current through the inductor at t = 0+ equals

A C 179.

0A 1A

B D

0.5A 2A

In Figure the Thevenins equivalent pair (voltage, impedance), as seen at the terminals P-Q, is given by

A C

(2V, 5W) (4V, 5W)

B D

(2V, 7.5W) (4V, 7.5W)

180. Maxwell's equations involve_______. A

Charge density

Current density

Magnetic intensity

All of these

181. Electric dipole is a pair of __________ and __________ point charges. A C 182.

Equal and same Equal and opposite

B D

Unequal and same Unequal and opposite

0 is ________ F/m.
A C

8.854 1012
8.854 1010

B D

6.654 1012 6.654 1010

183. Magnitude of dipole moment | p| is given as __________. A C

qd d/q

B D

q/d None of these

184. Electric flux density is ________medium. A C

Depends on Both (a) and (b)

B D

Independent of None of these

185. If work done Wmn is zero, then VN and VM are related as _______. A C

VN + VM = 0 2VN + VM = 0

B D

VN VM = 0 VN + 2VM = 0

186. Charge distribution symmetry can be of _______ type. A C

Spherical Plana

B D

Cylindrical All of these

187. Curl of electrostatic field is __________. A C

B D

None of these

188. Potential energy _____ if a test charge is moved from a lower potential point

to a higher potential point. A Remains the samE

C

B D

Increases Becomes zero

Decreases

189. In the case of a linear material medium, _________ equation can be derived

easily from Gauss' law. A Poisson

C

B D

Laplace None of these

Both (a) and (b)

190. According to the method of images, the tangential component of electric field

to conductor surface is __________. A B Unity

C

Zero None of these

Infinity

191. In a Cartesian coordinate system, axes x, y and z are at __________ to each

other.
A C

45 120

B D

90 180

192. Cartesian coordinates are represented in terms of ___________. A C

(r, , z) (x, y, z)

B D

(r, , ) all of these

193. Cylindrical coordinates are represented in terms of __________. A C

(r, , z) (x, y, z)

B D

(r, , )
all of these

194. Two infinite strips of width w m in x direction as shown in Figure, are carrying forward and return currents of +I and I in the z direction. The strips are separated by a distance of x m. The inductance per unit length of the configuration is measured to be L H/m. If the distance of separation between the strips is now reduced to x/2 m the inductance per unit length of the configuration is

A C

2L H/m L/2 H/m

B D

L/4 H/m 4L H/m

195. Spherical coordinates are represented in terms of ___________. A C

(r, , z) (x, y, z)

B D

(r, , ) all of these

196. Cylindrical coordinate 'z' is related to the Cartesian coordinate as __________. A C

tan1(y/x) xy/z

B D

z cot z

197. In a Spherical coordinate system, is ____________. A C

angle of elevation

azimuthal angle

distant from the origin D all of these to the point 198. Spherical coordinate system is a _________.
A C

right-handed system. both (a)and (b)

B D

left-handed system none of these

199. In a Spherical coordinate system, is given as _________. A C

y/x tan1(y/x)

B D

x/y tan1(x/y)

200. Two conductors are carrying forward and return current of +I and I as shown in figure. The magnetic field intensity H at point P is

A C

201. In terms of Spherical coordinate system variables, y of Cartesian coordinate

system is given as __________. A r sin cos

C

B D

B D

r sin sin r cos cos

r cos sin

202. A point charge of +1 nC is placed in a space with a permittivity of 8.85 10-12 F/m as shown in figure. The potential difference VPQ between two points P and Q at distances of 40 mm and 20 mm respectively from the point charge is

A C

0.22 kV -2.24 kV

B D

-225 V 15 V

203. In the Cylindrical coordinate system, z ranges between ____________. A C

0 and 1 0 and

B D

and 0 and

204. In the Cylindrical coordinate system, ranges from _____________. A C

0 to less than 0 to less than 3

B D

0 to less than 2 0 to less than 4

205. A scalar quantity has __________. A C

Magnitude both (a) and (b)

B D

direction
none of these

206. Which of the following is/are scalar quantity(s)? A C

Distance Temperature

B D

density all of these

207. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity? A C

Entropy Volume

B D

displacement mass

208. A vector quantity has __________. A C

Magnitude both (a) and (b)

B D

direction
none of these

209. Which of the following is/are vector quantity(s)? A C

Force Acceleration

B D

electric field intensity

all of these

210. A unit vector has its magnitude as ____________.

A C

B D

1 none of these

211. A unit vector has _______ direction to that of the main vector. A C

Same normal upwards

B D

opposite normal downwards

212. If two vectors are orthogonal, then their scalar product is __________. A C

B D

0 100

213. ___________ Product is governed by the Right-Hand Screw Rule. A C

Vector simple mathematical

B D

scalar none of these

214. The vector product obeys the __________ law. A C

Commutative Distributive

B D

Associative Parallelogram

215. The cross product of the same vector to itself is ____________. A C

B D

1 100

216. ____________ product of two unit vectors is the third unit vector. A C

Vector both (a) and (b)

B D

scalar none of these

217. 'r' in Cylindrical coordinates corresponding to Cartesian coordinate (3, 4, 5) is

____________.
A C 12 10 B D 7 5

218. Maxwell's equations shelter on __________ law(s). A C

Faraday's Ampere's

B D

Gauss's All of these

219. Conduction current through a wire is __________ displacement current in

capacitor. A Same as

Different from

Twice of

None of these

220. In empty space, conduction current is __________. A C

Infinity Zero

B D

Unity None of those

221. emf is closed __________ integral of non-conservational electric field that is

generated by battery. A Line

C

B D

Surface None of these

Volume

222. Maxwell's equations in __________ form give information at points of

discontinuity in electromagnetic fields. A B Differential Integral

C

Algebraic

None of these

223. Another boundary condition using Maxwell's equations is given as

__________.
A C

Htan '1' + Htan '2' = 0 Htan '1' + Htan '2' = Js

B D

Htan '1' Htan '2' = 0 Htan '1' Htan '2' = Js

224. At the point of discontinuity, __________ component of magnetic flux density

is continuous. A Tangential
C

B D

Normal Cannot say

None of these

225. A parallel plate capacitor has an electrode area of 100 mm2, with a spacing of 0.1 mm between the electrodes. The dielectric between the plates is air with a permittivity of 8.8510-12 F/m. The charge on the capacitor is 100 V. The stored energy in the capacitor is A C

8.85 pJ 22.1 nJ

B D

440 pJ 44.3 pJ

226. A composite parallel plate capacitor is made up of two different dielectric materials with different thickness (t1 and t2) as shown in figure. The two different dielectric materials are separated by a conducting foil F. The voltage of the conducting foil is

A C

52 V 67 V

B D

60 V 33 V

227. Displacement current density

____________ current passing through a

B D

capacitor. A Represents
C

Does not represent None of these

Is the same as

228. Line integral of an electric field around a closed path is __________. A C

Infinity Zero

B D

Unity None of these

229. A parallel plate capacitor is shown in figure. It is made of two square metal plates of 400 mm side. The 14 mm space between the plates is filled with two layers of dielectrics of r = 4 , 6 mm thick and r =2 , 8 mm thick. Neglecting fringing of fields at the edges the capacitance is

A C

1298 pF 354 pF

B D

944 Pf 257 pF

230. The inductance of a long solenoid of length 1000 mm wound uniformly with 3000 turns on a cylindrical paper tube of 60mm diameter is A 3.2 H B 3.2 mH C 231. 32.0 mH D

3.2 H
| | is equal to

is the electric field intensity, If A C Null vector

B D

zero

232. Wave speed in terms of frequency f and wavelength is expressed as A C

_________. f/ f

B D

/f ( + f)

233. For a lossy dielectric medium, ____________. A

=0

None of these

Cannot say

234. Wave attenuation is given as ______________. A C

e+x e+x

B D

e-x ex
Decreases None of these

235. In the case of a perfect dielectric medium, phase constant ______________ as

conductivity increases. A Increases

C

B D

Remains unchanged

236. Phase velocity is given as _________. A C

B D

None of these

237. In good conductors, rate of attenuation is __________. A C

Small Infinity

B D

Large Zero

238. Which of the following statements holds for the divergence of electric and

magnetic flux densities?

A C Both are zero It is zero for the electric flux density B D

These are zero for static densities but non zero for time varying densities
It is zero for the magnetic flux density

239. Reflection coefficient is __________. A C

100 1

B D

= 10 None of these

240. Divergence of the vector field, , , = cos + +

cos + sin + + is A B 2 cos

C

241. Standing wave consists of two travelling waves of ____________ amplitudes

sin cos

None of these

sin + 2 cos

and _____________ is direction. A B Unequal, same

C

Unequal, opposite Equal, opposite

Equal, same

242. A solid sphere made of insulating material has a radius R and has a total

charge Q distributed uniformely in its volume. What is the magnitude of the electric field intensity, E, at a distance r (0<r<R) inside the sphere?

A C

1 40 3 243. An extra high voltage transmission line of length 300 km can be approximated by lossless line having propagation constant =0.00127 radians per km. Then the percentage ratio of line length to wavelength will be given by A 24.24 % B 12.12 %
D C 19.05 % D

1 4 1 4

3 4

6.06 %

244. A medium behaves like dielectric when A The displacement current is much greater than the conduction current The displacement current is just less than the conduction current . = 0 B

The displacement current is just equal to the conduction current

The displacement current as well as conduction current both are negligibly small 245. Which of the following represents the continuity equation for discrete components?
A C B D . =

. =

246. Which of the following equation represents the relation between the

magnetizing volume current density Jm and the magnetization polarization M? A B Jm=2.M Jm=. XM
C 247. The vector product of electric intensities E and magnetic field intensities H at Jm=. M D

Jm. M

any point is a measure of rate of energy flow per unit area at that point. The above statement is known as A Principle of duality B Poynting theorem
C Helmholtz theorem D Gausss theorem

248. Electrostatic field is _________ a perfect conductor. A C

same inside zero inside

B D

infinite inside none of these

249. Potential is _________ a perfect conductor. A C

same inside zero inside

B D

infinite inside none of these

250. As per Gauss' Law, charge density inside a perfect conductor is zero if E is

_________.
A C

positive unity

B D

Negative Zero

251. Conductivity of dielectric is _________. A C

low both (a) and (b)

B D

High cannot say

252. Which of the following is not a non-polar dielectric? A C

water CO2

B D

Oxygen Alcohol

253. The direction of electric dipole moment is _________ applied electric field. A C orthogonal B D

Contrary
None of these

same

254. Electric polarization of a material is electric dipole moment per unit

_________. A length
C

B D

Area
None of these

volume

255. Capacitor stores energy in _________ field. A C

electric gravity

B D

Magnetic
None of these

256. Inductor stores energy in ________ field. A C

electric gravity

B D

Magnetic
None of these

257. Which of the following is not an inductor? A C toroid Solenoid B D Transmission line None of these

258. Magnetic field at any point inside a long solenoid is _________. A C zero constant B D Infinity None of these

259. The ratio of the velocity of a wave in free-space to that in conducting medium

is known as

A C

Space factor Poynting vector = J + D XH . B = 0 B=H =

B D

Attenuation Refractive index = . D

260. Which of the following is not Maxwells equation? A C B D

261. Which of the following is not Maxwells equation? A C B D

= B . E

= =

262. Poynting vector signifies A Power density vectors producing electro-magnetic field Power density vectors producing electro-static field B

Current density vectors producing electro-magnetic field Current density vectors producing electro-static field.
Watts/meter Newtons

263. Poynting vectors has the units of : A C Watts Watts/meter2 B D

264. Line integral involves _________ product. A C

scalar
both (a) an (b)

B D

vector none of these

265. Del operator is ______________. A C

same as the gradient operator both (a) an (b)

B D

vector differential operator

none of these

266. Gradient represents the __________ of maximum space rate of increase of a

scalar field. A magnitude

C

B D

direction

both (a) an (b)

none of these

267. Divergence of a vector at a point in a vector field is __________ quantity. A C

vector
both (a) an (b)

B D

scalar none of these

268. Divergence of vector field is net outward flux of a vector per unit ______.

A C

surface area length

B D

Volume none of these

269. Divergence at a point is positive if field lines are _________. A C

diverging both (a) an (b)

B D

converging none of these

270. If the rate at which field lines enter into a small volume and also leave, then

divergence is ________. A
C 0

B D

1
-1

271. Divergence Theorem is applicable for a ________ that is bounded by a

_________. A volume, surface

C

B D

surface, volume
line, surface

surface, line

272. Divergence Theorem relates ________ integral to __________ integral. A C

surface, volume volume, line

B D

line, surface all of these

273. Laplacian operator ________. A C

is a scalar function

B D

is a vector function none of these

can be a scalar or vector function 274. Curl measures _________.

A C

rate of change of vector both (a) an (b)

B D

circular rotation none of these

275. Stoke's Theorem relates, ______ integral to a _______ integral. A C

volume, surface line, surface

B D

volume, line all of these

276. Laplacian of a scalar is __________. A C

scalar
both (a) an (b)

B D

vector none of these

277. Laplacian of a vector is ___________ of gradient of its divergence and its curl

of curl.

A C

addition multiplication

B D

difference division

278. A scalar field is harmonic in a given region, if its Laplacian is __________. A C

B D

-1 0

279. An electromagnetic field exists only when there is A C an increasing current voltage B D decreasing current current

280. The two vectors [1,1,1] & [1,a,a2] , where a = [-1/2+j3/2] , are A Orthonormal B Orthogonal C Parallel D Collinear

281. Given a vector field, F = y2 xax - yzay = x2az , the line integral F.dl evaluated along a segment on the x-axis from x=1 to x=2 is A C -2.33 2.33 B D 0 7

282. The curl of the gradient of the scalar field defined by V = 2x2y + 3y2z + 4z2x is A 4xyax + 6yzay + 8zxaz B 4ax + 6ay + 8az (4xy+4z2) ax + D 0 (2x2 + 6yz) ay + (3y2 + 8zx) az 283. A dielectric slab with 500mm x 500mm cross-section is 0.4m long. The slab is subjected to a uniform electric field of E = 6ax + 8ay kV/mm. The relative permittivity of the dielectric material is equal to 2. The value of constant 0 is 8.85*10-12 F /m. The energy stored in the dielectric in Joules is A 8.85*10-11 B 8.85*10-5 C C 88.5 D 885

284. Transmission lines facilitate _________propagation of energy. A C Guided None of these B D Unguided Cannot say

285. Poynting vectors gives the A Rate of energy flow B Intensity of electric field

Intensity of magnetic field

Direction of polarization

10

11

12

The transfer function of a zero order hold system is A (1/s)(1+e-st) B (1/s)(1-e-st) -st C 1-(1/s)e D 1+(1/s)e-st Signal flow graph is used to find A Stability of the system. B Transfer function of system. C Poles of the system. D Controllability of the system. -2t A control system whose step response is -0.5(1+e ) is cascaded to another block whose -t impulse response is e . The transfer function of the cascaded combination is A 1/((s+1)(s+2)) B 1/s(s+1) C 1/s(s+2) D 0.5/((s+1)(s+2)) Phase lag compensation will A Improve relative stability. B Increase the bandwidth. C Increase the speed of response. D Increase the overshoot. The closed loop transfer function of a control system is given by C(s)/R(s)=1/(1+s). For the input r(t)=sin t, the steady state value of c(t) is equal to A (1/2)cos t B 1 C (1/2)sin t D (1/2)sin(t-/4) The open loop transfer function of a control system is given by K(s+10)/(s(s+2)(s+a)). The smallest possible value of a for which this system is stable in the closed loop for all positive values of K is A 0 B 8 C 10 D 12 The characteristic equation of a feedback system is s3 + Ks2 +5s +10 =0. For the system to be critically stable, the value of K should be A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 A unity control feedback system has an open loop transfer function of G(s)=K/s(s+1). The steady state error of the system due to a unit step input is A Zero. B K C 1/K D The characteristic equation of a closed loop system is given by s4+6s3+11s2+6s+K=0. Stable closed loop behavior can be ensured when the gain K is such that A 0< K <10 B K >10 C - K > D 0< K 20 A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation,z2 0.81z =0. The system A Is stable B Is marginally stable. C Stability cannot be assessed from the D Is unstable. given equation. The response of a system to an input r(t) is given by the following differential equation. d2c(t)/dt2 + 3 dc(t)/dt + 5 c(t)= 5r(t). The transfer function of the system is given by A G(s)=5/(s2+3s+5) B G(s)=1/(s2+3s+5) 2 C G(s)=3s/(s +3s+5) D G(s)=(s+3)/(s2+3s+5) The values of s which make the transfer function infinite after substituting in the denominator of the transfer function are called the A Zeros of the transfer function. B Poles of the transfer function. C Factors of the transfer function. D Holes of the transfer function.

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

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22

23

24

25

The maximum phase shift that can be obtained by using a lead compensator with transfer function GC(s)=4(1 + 0.15s)/(1+0.05s) is equal to A 15 B 30 C 45 D 60 Consider the unit step response of a unity feedback control system whose open loop transfer function is G(s)=1/s(s+1). The maximum overshoot is equal to A 0.143 B 0.153 C 0.163 D 0.194 For making an unstable system stable, A Gain of the system should be increased. B Gain of the system should be decreased. C The number of zero to loop transfer D The number of poles to loop functions should be increased. transfer functions should be increased. Consider a feedback control system with a loop transfer function of G(s)H(s)= K(1+0.5s)/(s(1+s)(1+2s)). The type of closed loop system is A Zero. B One C Two D Three For the transfer function G(s)H(s)= 1/(s(s+1)(s+0.5)), the phase cross over frequency is A 0.5 rad/sec B 0.707 rad/sec C 1.732 rad/sec D 2 rad/sec The Nyquist plot of a loop transfer function G(j)H((j) of a system encloses the point (1,j0). The gain margin of the system is A Less than zero. B Zero. C Greater than zero. D Infinity. 2 If the characteristic equation of a closed loop system is s + 2s + 2 =0, then the system is A Overdamped. B Marginally damped. C Underdamped. D Critically damped. The amount of additional phase lag which can be introduced into the system till it reaches the verge of instability is called A Gain cross over. B Phase Margin. C Phase cross over. D Gain Margin. In a linear system, an input of 5sint produces an output of 10cost. The output corresponding to an input of 10cost will be equal to A 5sint B -5sint C 20sint D -20sint As compared to a closed loop system, an open loop system is A More stable and more accurate. B Less stable but more accurate. C Less stable and less accurate. D More stable but less accurate. Consider a system with a transfer function of G(s)=(s + 6)/(Ks2 + s + 6). Its damping ratio will be 0.5 when the value of K is A 2/6 B 3 C 1/6 D 6 The number of roots of the equation 2s4+s3 +3s2 ++5s +7=0, which lie to the right half of the s plane is A Zero B Three C One D Two The transfer function of a system is G(s)=10(1+0.2s)/(2+0.5s). The phase shift at =0 and = - will be

26

27

28

A 90 and 0. B -180 and 180. C -90 and 70. D None of these The gain margin of the given transfer function G(s)= 0.75/((s+1)(s+2)) will be A 4 dB B 8 dB C 12 dB D 16 dB The first two rows of Rouths tabulation of a fourth order system are s4 1 10 5 s3 2 20 The number of roots of the system lying to the right half of the s-plane is A 0 B 2 C 3 D 4 The gain cross-over frequency is defined as A B G ( j ) H ( j ) =1 G ( j ) H ( j ) C

=0 =1/2

G ( j ) H ( j )

G ( j ) H ( j )

29

30

31

32

33

None of the poles of a linear control system lie in the right half of the s-plane. For a bounded input, the output of this system A Is always bounded. B Always tends to zero. C Could be unbounded. D Always tends to infinity. A unity feedback system has the open loop transfer function G(s)=1/((s-1)(s+2)(s+3)) The nyquist plot of G encircles the origin A Never B Once C Twice D Thrice A system has a transfer function (1 s)/(1 +s). It is known as A Low-pass system. B High-pass system C All pass system. D Class system. In the Bode-plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of phase of G(j) at the gain cross over frequency is -125. The phase margin of the system is A -125 B -55 C 55 D 125 The transfer function of a system is (2s2 + 6s + 5)/((s+1)2(s+2)) The characteristic equation of the system is A 2s2 + 6s + 5=0 B (s+1)2(s+2)=0 C 2s2 + 6s + 5+ (s+1)2(s+2)=0 D 2s2 + 6s + 5 -(s+1)2(s+2)=0

34

35

36

In the root locus for open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=K(s+6)/((s+3)(s+5), the break away and break-in points are located respectively at A -2 and -1 B -2.47 and -3.77 C -4.27 and -7.23 D -7.73 and -4.27 An open loop transfer function is given by G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)/(s(s+2)(s2+2s+2)). It has A One zero at infinity. B Three zeroes at infinity. C Two zeroes at infinity. D Four zeroes at infinity. For the characteristic equation s2+4.8s+72=0 the damping ratio and natural frequency respectively are A 0.212, 8.1rad/s B 0.299, 8.66rad/s C 0.283, 8.48rad/s D 0.252, 8.88rad/s

37

38

39

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41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

The root locus of the system having the loop transfer function, G(s)H(s)=K/(s(s+4)(s2+4s+5)) has A No breakaway point. B One real and two complex breakaway points. C Three real breakaway points. D Only one breakaway point. If the characteristic equation of a closed loop system is 1 + K/(s(s+1)(s+2)) =0, the centroid at the asymptotes in root locus will be A Zero. B 2 C -1 D -2 A system with the characteristic equation s4+2s3+11s2+18s+18=0 will have closed loop poles such that A All poles lie in the left half of the sB All poles lie in the right half of plane. the s-plane. C Two poles lie symmetrically on the D No pole lies on the imaginary imaginary axis of the s-plane. axis of the s-plane. For a second order system, the damping ratio ( ) is 0< <1, then the roots of the characteristic polynomial are A Real but not equal. B Complex conjugates. C Real and equal. D Imaginary. The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is G(s)=1/(s+2)2. The closed loop transfer function will have poles at A -2,0.2 B -2,-1 C -1 j D -2,2 The characteristic polynomial of a system is 2s5 +s4 +4s3 +2s2 +2s+1. The system is A Stable. B Marginally stable. C Unstable. D Oscillatory. Natural frequency of a unity feedback control system of transfer function G(s)=10/(s(s+1)) is A 3.16 rad/sec. B 0.5 rad/sec. C 4.6 rad/sec. D 6.13 rad/sec. In a closed loop feedback system with a positive value of feedback gain, the overall gain of the system will A Decrease B Increase C Increase or decrease D Remain unaffected. Which of the following systems has a tendency to oscillate? A Open loop system. B Closed loop system. C Both open and closed loop system. D Neither open nor closed loop system. The initial response when the output is not equal to the input is called A Transient response. B Dynamic response. C Error response. D Static response. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with the gain margin close to unity and the phase margin close to zero. A The system is relatively stable. B The system is oscillatory. C The system is highly stable D The system is unstable. A control system with excessive noise is likely to suffer from A Saturation in amplifying stages. B Oscillations. C Loss of gain. D Vibrations. In a stable control system, backlash can cause which of the following? A Underdamping. B Poor stability at low values of

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51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

C Overdamping. D Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagram. A The poles of the transfer function for a B The response of the system to a set of parameter values. step input. C The bandwidth of the system. D The frequency response of the system. Which are the starting points for the root loci? A Open loop zeros B Closed loop poles. C Closed loop zeros. D Open loop poles. Bode plot is used to analyse which of the following? A Minimum phase network. B Maximum phase network. C Lag lead network. D All phase network. The root locus is symmetrical about the real axis because A Complex roots occur in conjugate pairs. B Roots occur simultaneously in the left hand and right hand plane. C All roots occur in pairs. D Roots occur only on right hand plane. How can the steady state errors be minimized? A By increasing the system gain constant. B By increasing the damped frequency. C By decreasing the damped frequency. D By decreasing the natural frequency. A system which has some roots with real parts equal to zero, but none with positive real parts is A Marginally stable. B Absolutely unstable. C Relatively stable. D Absolutely stable. Introduction of negative feedback in a system does not lead to reduction in A Bandwidth B Instability C Distortion D Overall gain Error constants of a system are a measure of A Steady state response B Steady state and transient response C Transient state response D Relative stability Bandwidth is used as a means of specifying performance of a control system related to A Relative stability of the system B The constant gain C The speed of response D All of the above. In a system, if the poles lie off the real axis, then the system is A Over damped. B Critically damped. C Under damped. D Marginally damped. The transfer function of a first order control system is of the type A 1/(Ts2 +1) B 1/(Ts +1) C Ts D 1/Ts In the s-plane, the unstable region is A Second and third quadrants including B First and second quadrants imaginary axis. including real axis. C First and fourth quadrants including D Second and fourth quadrants imaginary axis except the origin. including real axis except the

the open loop gain. Low level oscillations.

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origin. A system has poles at -1 and -5 and zeros at 1 and -2. The system is A Stable. B Marginally stable. C Unstable. D Conditionally stable. For a second order differential equation, if the damping ratio is 1, then A The poles are imaginary and complex B The poles are negative, equal conjugate. and real. C The poles are in the right half of the sD The poles are negative and plane. real. If the complex poles of a system have greater real parts, then the overshoot is A Less B More C Not affected. D Sometimes less and sometimes more. Given the transfer function G(s)= K/(s2(1+sT)). What is the type and order of the system. A 2 and 3. B 3 and 2. C 3 and 3. D 1 and 2. In a control system, excessive bandwidth should be avoided because A Noise is proportional to bandwidth. B It leads to slow response of the system. C It leads to low relative stability. D It makes the system response fast. The transfer function of a system is G(s)= k(s+3)/(s(s+2+j4)(s+2-j4)). The number of poles is A One B Two C Three D Four A system has a transfer function of (1-s)/(1+s). What is its gain at 1 rad/sec. A 1 B 0 C -1 D 2 The steady state error for a unit ramp input to the characteristic equation s2 + 2s + 8=0 is A 0.20 B 0.25 C 0.30 D 0.50 A temperature control system is known as A Process control system B Cascade control system. C Servomechanism. D Automatic control system. Rouths array for a system is given below. s4 1 3 5 s3 1 2 0 s2 1 5 -3 s1 s0 5 The system is A Stable. B Marginally stable. C Unstable. D Conditionally stable. If the system has multiple poles on the j axis, the system is A Stable. B Marginally stable. C Unstable. D Conditionally stable. Conditionally stable system is one which exhibits poor stability at A Increased values of open loop gain. B Reduced values of open loop

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gain. C Low frequencies. D High frequencies. A unity feedback system having a transfer function of G(s)=K/(s(s+1)). The steady state error for unit step position and unit acceleration inputs respectively are A Zero and zero. B Infinity and zero. C Zero and infinity. D Infinity and infinity. The number of sign changes in the entries in the first column of Rouths array denotes A The number of zeros of the system in B The number of open loop poles the LHP. in LHP. C The number of roots of the D The number of open loop zeros characteristic polynomial in RHP. in RHP. If the gain of the open loop system is doubled , the gain margin A Is not affected. B Gets doubled. C Becomes one fourth. D Becomes half. s The poles of F(s)=1/(1-e ) are located at A s=0 and 1. B s=j2n (n=0,1,2) C s=1 only D No poles A system has a loop gain as G(s)H(s)= K/(s(s+1)(s+2)(s+3)). The number of poles and zeros are respectively A 2,2 B 1,4 C 4,0 D 1,3 A second order system with no zeros has its poles at -3 +j4 and -3 j4 in the s-plane. The undamped natural frequency and the damping factor of the system are respectively A 4 rad/sec and 0.75 B 5 rad/sec and 0.80 C 3 rad/sec and 0.60 D 5 rad/sec and 0.60 A second order system exhibits 100% overshoot. The damping co-efficient is A Equal to 0 B Greater than 1. C Equal to 1 D Less than 1 Damping is proportional to A Gain B 1/gain C gain D 1/gain Two blocks having respective transfer functions G1 and G2 are connected in series cascade. The resultant gain will be A G1 + G2 B G1 G2 C G1/ G2 D G2/G1 Which of the following is used for Nyquist plot? A Open loop function. B Closed loop function. C Characteristic function. D Damped function. With feedback system A The transient response gets magnified. B The transient response decays slowly. C The transient response decays at a constant D The transient response decays rate. more quickly. Saturation of a stable system can cause A Conditional stability. B High level oscillations. C Overdamping. D Low level oscillations. The gain margin of any second order system, in dB, is A Infinite B -1 dB C 0 dB D Can not be determined without

data 87 The main application of transfer function is in the study of A Steady state behavior of systems. B Transient behavior of systems. C Steady state and transient behavior of D Damped behavior of systems. systems. The transfer function of the system whose input and output are related by the differential equation d2y/dt2 + 3dy/dt +2y =x + dx/dt is given by A s/(s2+3s+2) B 1/(s2+3s+2) C (s+1)/(s2+3s+2) D (s+2)/(s2+3s+2) 3 2 The value of K for which the system s + 3s +3s +1 +k=0 becomes unstable is A K>8 B K=8 C K=7 D None of these The sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes and load disturbances depends upon A Forward gain. B Frequency. C Loop gain D All of the above. The system with the characteristic equation (s+1)(s+2)(s-3)=0 is A Stable. B Marginally stable. C Conditionally stable. D Unstable. Settling time of a second order system for damping ratio and frequency n is given by A B 4 n 4 n/ C 93 4/( n ) D

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Nyquist criteria is used to find which of the following? A Absolute stability. B Dynamic stability. C Relative stability. D Absolute and relative stability. The gain of 6 dB/octave is equal to A -6 dB/decade. B 6 dB/decade. C 20 dB/decade. D 40 dB/decade. In Routh Hurwitz criterion, if all the elements in one row are zero, then there are A Pairs of equal roots with opposite sign. B Conjugate roots forming a quadrate in the s-plane. C Pairs of conjugate roots on imaginary D All of these. axis. Gain margin is the reciprocal of the gain at the frequency at which the phase angle becomes A 0 B 180 C 270 D 90 The transfer function of a system is G(s)=100 /(1 +0.25s)/(1+0.5s). The phase shift at =0 and = will be A 0 and -90. B 90 and 180. C 90 and -90. D 0 and -180. The function 1/(j T) has a slope of A -20 db/decade. B 20 db/decade. C -6 db/decade. D 6 db/decade. In Routh-Hurwitz criterion, if the first element in any row of the Rouths tabulation is zero, then A The elements in the next row become B The polynomial has to be infinite. divided by (s+a) where a is a positive number. C The system is highly unstable. D The system is oscillatory.

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101

A minimum phase system with no zeros has a phase angle of -270 at the gain crossover frequency. The system is A Stable. B Marginally stable. C Unstable. D Conditionally stable. The steady-state error of a feedback control system with an acceleration input becomes finite in a A C type 0 system type 2 system B D type 1 system type 3 system

102

The Laplace transform of e^(-2t)sin 2 wt is _______.

103. For a type one system, the steady state error due to step input is equal to A C 104 infinite. 0.25 B D zero 0.5.

The Equation 2s^4+s^3+3s^2+5s+10=0 has______ roots in left half s plane A C one three B D two four

105

The LVDT is primarily used for the measurement of A C Displacement Acceleration B D velocity Humidity

106

A systems with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is A C Highly stable Relatively stable B D Oscillatory Unstable

107

The overshoot in the response of the system having the transfer function

16K/S(S^2+2S+16) for a unit-step input is A C 108

60%. 20%.

B D

40%. 10%. (S^2+2S+8)=0 is.

The damping ratio of a system having the characteristic equation A C

0.353 0.300

B D

0.330. 0.250

109

Electrical time-constant of an armature-controlled dc servomotor is A Equal to mechanical time-constant B Smaller than mechanical timeconstant. Not related to mechanical time-constant

C 110

Larger than mechanical time-constant

Peak overshoot of step-input response of an under damped second-order system is Explicitly indicative of. A C Settling time. Natural frequency. B D Rise time. Damping ratio.

111

The range of K for stability of a unity-feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function G(s)=K/S(S+1)(S+2) A C 0<K<1 0<K<8. B D 0<k<6. 0<K<10

112

Consider the closed-loop system given by C(S)/R(S)=Wn^2/(S^2+2WnS+Wn^2) Determine the values of and Wn so that the system responds to a step input with Approximately 5% overshoot and with a settling time of 2 seconds. (Use the 2% criterion). A C

0.69, 2.89 0.7, 0.7

B D

0.3, 0.5 0.8,0.95

113

A position control system is a/an A C automatic Regulating system Servomechanism B D Process control system Stochastic control system

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A temperature control system is known as A C Process control system Cascade Control system B D Servomechanism On-Off control system

115

A system has the transfer function (1-S)/(1+s).It is known as A C Low Pass system All Pass system B D high Pass system None

116

The type of a transfer function denotes the number of A C poles at origin Finite poles B D Zeros at Origin poles at infinity

117

The transfer function of a system is 10/(1+s).The steady state error to unit step input when operated as a unity feedback system is. A C ten one/eleven B D Zero Five

118

The Transfer function of a system is 1/(1+sT).The input to this system is tu(t).The output would track this system, but the error would be A C 0 T B D T^2 T/2

119

All all-Pass network imparts only A C Negative phase shift to input (plus-minus) 90 phase shift to input B D Positive phase shift to input (plus-minus) 180 phase shift to input

120

Which input yields natural response? A C ac input impulse input B D dc input a ramp input

121

If the system has multiple pole on jw axis, the system is A Stable B Unstable

C 122

marginally stable

conditionally stable

Sinusoidal oscillators are A C Stable marginally stable B D Unstable conditionally stable

123

The number of sign changes in the entries in the first column of Rouths array denotes the number of A C zeros of the system in RHP open loop poles in RHP B D roots of the characteristics polynomial in RHP open loop zeros in RHP

124

An On-Off Controller is a A C P Controller non-linear controller B D integral controller PID controller

125

A lag network for compensation normally consist off A C R only R and L elements B D R and C Elements R,L and C elements

126

Consider a characteristic equation s^4+3s^3+5s^2+6s+K+10=0.The condition for stability is A C K>5 K>-4 B D -10<K -10<K<-4

127

The phase crossover Frequency is the frequency at which the phase shift is A C 0 degree 180 degree B D 90 degree 360 degree

128

For a system to be stable gain crossover must occur______ phase crossover A C prior to Simultaneously B D After in direct proportion

129

The Characteristic equation of a feedback control system is given by s^3+5s^2+(6+K)s+K=0 Where K>0 is a scalar variable parameter. In the root locus diagram of the system the

asymptotes of the root loci for large values of k meet at a point in the s-plane, whose coordinates are A C 130 (-3,0) (-1,0) B D (-2,0) (2,0)

A unity-feedback control system has the openloop transfer function G(s)=4(1+2s)/ s^2(s+2).If the input to the system is a unit ramp,the steady state error will be. A C 0 2 B D 0.5 infinity

131

Traffic light on roads are example of A C closed-loop system B D open-loop system open-loop but can be made closed loop

both open-loop and closed loop

132

The gain margin of the system is -10 dB.If it is increased to 5 dB. Then the system is A C Stable marginally stable B D Unstable unstable for -10 db itself

133

Match the following (a)Force (p)Capacitance (b)Velocity (q) Inductance (c) Mass (r) Transformer (d) Spring constant (s) Current (e) Lever (t) Voltage A C a-s,b-t,c-p,d-q,e-r a-s,b-t,c-q,d-p,e-r B D a-t,b-s,c-p,d-q,e-r a-r,b-t,c-p,d-q,e-s

134

In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback the overall gain of the system will A C Decrease Be Affected B D Increase Any of above

135

Which one of the following is an open loop control system?

A C 136

Field Controlled D.C motor Metadyne

B D

Ward Leonard control Stroboscope

An Externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a A C Feedback Signal B D Stimulus Gain Control

137

A computer system working under unknown random action is called A C Digital data system Adaptive Control system B D Stochastic control system None

138

A car is running at a constant speed of 50km/hour, which of the following is the Feedback Element of Driver? A C Clutch Needle of Speedometer B D Eyes Steering wheel

139

Increases steady state accuracy A C Integrator Phase lead Compensator B D Differentiator Phase lag Compensator

140

A control system with excessive noise is likely to suffer from A C Saturation in amplifying stage Vibrations B D loss of gain Oscillations

141

Zero initial conditions for a system means A Input reference signal is zero B zero stored energy system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components

C no initial movement of moving parts 142

Due to which of the following reasons excessive bandwidth in control systems Should be avoided? A It leads to slow speed of response B It leads to low relative stability

C 143

Noise is Proportional to bandwidth

None of above

The capacitance in force current analogy is analogous to A C Momentum Displacement B D Velocity Mass

144

The viscous friction co-efficient ,in force voltage analogy is analogous to A C Charge reciprocal of inductance B D Resistance reciprocal of conductance

145

The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to A C Voltage Capacitance B D Current Charge

146

Transient response of the system is mainly due to A C Inertia forces Stored energy B D Internal forces Friction

147

The transfer function is applicable to which of the following A C Linear and time invariant system Linear systems B D Linear and time variant system Non-Linear systems

148

The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following? A C Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral Fourier Integral B D Laplace Transform Either B or C

149

The type 1 system has____ the origin A C No pole Simple pole B D Net pole No pole

150

Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit _____function. A Parabolic B Ramp

C 151

Impulse

Step

Which one of the following is the best method for determining stability and transient response? A C Root Locus Nyquist Plot B D Bode Plot None of Above

152

Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following? A C Lead Compensation Lead-Lag Compensation B D Lag Compensation None of Above

153

In order to increase the damping of badly under damped system which of the following compensators may be used? A C Phase-lead Both (a) and (b) B D Phase-lag Either (a) and (b)

154

phase lag-lead network introduces in the output A lag at all Frequencies lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies B lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies None of Above

C 155

differentiator is usually not part of input system because it A C Reduces damping Increases input noise B D Reduces Gain Margin Increases error

156

Which one of the following is output of Thermocouple A C A.C Voltage D.C Voltage B D Direct Current Alternating Current

157

When a human being tries to approach an object, his brain acts as A C An error measuring device An actuator B D A controller An amplifier

158

Assertion (A): Feedback control systems offer more accurate control over open-loop systems. Reason (R): The feedback path establishes a link for input and output comparison and subsequent error correction Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is false but R is true

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A A is true but R is false

C 159

Consider the following statements: 1. The effect of feedback is to reduce the system error 2. Feedback increases the gain of the system in one frequency range but decreases in another 3. Feedback can cause a system that is originally stable to become unstable Which of these statements are correct? A C 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only 1 and 3 B D 1 and 2 1 and 3

160

Consider the following statements which respect to feedback control systems: 1. Accuracy cannot be obtained by adjusting loop gain. 2. Feedback decreases overall gain. 3. Introduction of noise due to sensor reduces overall accuracy. 4. Introduction of feedback may lead to the possibility of instability of closed loop system. Which of the statements given above are correct? A C 1, 2, 3 and 4 Only 1 and 3 B D Only 1, 2 and 4 Only 2, 3 and 4

161

A negative-feedback closed-loop system is supplied to an input of 5V.The system has a forward gain of 1 and a feedback gain of a 1. What is the output voltage? A C 1.0 volt 2.0 volt B D 1.5 volt 2.5 volt

162

The transfer function of a linear-time-invariant system is given as 1/(S+1). What is the

steady-state value of the unit-impulse response? A C 163 Zero two B D One Infinite

If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a closed-loop system encloses the (-1, jo) point in the G(s) H(s) plane, the gain margin of the system is A C zero. less than zero B D greater than zero infinity

164 If the system matrix of a linear time invariant continuous system is given by A=[0 1 -3 -5] its characteristic equation is given by

A C 165
s^2+3S+5

B D

s^2-3S-5 s^2+S+2

Given Lf(t)=F(s),L[f(t)e^(-at)] is equal to A C F(s+a)

e^(-as ) F(s)]

B D

F(s)/F(s+a)
e^(as ) F(s)

166

A system has the transfer function (1-S)/(1+s).what is the gain at 1 rad/sec. A C 1 -1 B D 0 -0.5

167

A system has the transfer function of 1-s/1+s. It is a A C non-minimum phase system Low Pass system B D minimum phase system second order system

168

G(s)=1/s(1+6s).The system is A stable B unstable

C 169

marginally stable

conditionally stable

A unity-feedback control system has transfer function G(jw)=K/jw(j0.2w+1)(j0.05w+1).The phase crossover frequency of the Nyquist plot is given by. A C 1 rad/sec 10 rad/sec B D 100 rad/sec None

170

A second order differential Equation is given by (dx/dt)^2 +5(dx/dt)+7x=7y.The undamped natural frequency and damping ratio are. A C 1,5 1,7 B D 5,7 7,0.94

171

A second order differential Equation is given by (dx/dt)^2 +5(dx/dt)+7x=7y.The damed natural frequency damping coefficient and time constant are. A C 0.865,7,0.945 0.865,0.4,2.5 B D 0.903,2.5,0.4 0.4,2.5,0.865

172

A second order system with no zeros has its pole located at -3+j4 and -3-j4 in the splane.The undamped natural frequency and the damping factor of the system respectively. A C 4 rad/sec and 0.75 5 rad/sec and 0.80 B D 3 rad/sec and 0.60 5 rad/sec and 0.60

173

A second order system has a Transfer function given byG(s)=25/(s^2+8s+25).If the system, initially at rest, is subjected to a unit step input at t=0,the second peak in the response will occur at A C sec 2 /3 sec B D /3 sec /2 sec

174

The open loop transfer function of the feed-back control system is G(s)H(s)=1/(s+1)^3.The gain margin of the is A C 2 8 B D 4 16

175

A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation z^3-0.81z=0.The system is

A C 176

stable unstable

B D

marginally stable stability cannot be assessed from given information

In the root locus for open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=K(s+6)/(s+3)(S+5),the breakaway and breakin points are located respectively at. A C (-2,-1) (-4.27,-7.73) B D (-2.47,-3.77) (-7.73,-4.27)

177

For a two phase servomotor which one of following statements is not true? A C The rotor diameter is small The applied voltage are seldom balanced B D The rotor resistance is low The torque speed characteristics are linear

178

The maximum phase shift that can be obtained by using a lead compensator with transfer function G(s)=4(1+0.15s)/(1+0.05s)is equal to. A C 15 degree 45 degree B D 30 degree 60 degree

179

A system has openloop transfer function G(s)H(S)=10/s(s+1)(s+2).what is steady state error when it is subjected to step input r(t)=[1+2t+3/2(t^2)] A C 0 4 B D 0.4 infinity

180

The closedloop transfer function of a control system is given by C(s)/R(s)=1/(1+s).For the input r(t)=sint,the steady state value of c(t) is equal to A C (1/2)cost (1/2)sint B D 2; -4 5 -2; 2 -2 1]is B D negative semidefinite negative definite 1 (1/2)sin(t-/4)

181

The given 33 matrix is [4 -4 A C positive semi definite positive definite

182

The rise time for c(t)=1-e^(-t) is

A C 183

0.2198s 21.98s

B D

2.198s 2.309s

For G(s)=(s+1)/s(0.5s+1).The corner frquencies are. A C 0.5 and 1 2 and 1 B D 0 and 2 none

A Karnaugh map is used for A Minimising Boolean expressions C Computer interfac B D Develop digital circuits e None of these

A five variable Karnaugh map contains A 4 cells C 16 cells B D 8 cells 32 cells

Quine McCluskey method uses A Tabular Method C Boolean Algebra B D Karnaugh map None of these

OR-AND realisation is equivalent to A SOP B D POS None of these

C K-map 5

The minimisation of logic expression is done due to A Reduce space C Reduce cost B D Reduce number of gates All of these

A multiplexer has One data input and two or more than A two data outputs One data output and a number of data C input and a number of select inputs B One data output and two or more than two data inputs One data output and a number of select inputs D

A two variable Boolean logic function can be implemented by A 4:1 multiplexer C NAND Gate B D 1:4 demultiplexer NOR Gate

A demultiplxer can be used as A A counter C A combinational circuit B D A flip flop A 7-segment display

The ...................... gate is used as two bits comparator. A AND C NAND B D OR EX-OR

10

Multi channel signals can be transmitted through a single channel by using.................

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A Demultiplexers C Decoder 11

B D

Encoder Multiplexer

In 16:4 priority encoder, lowest priority is given on A 7 C 9 B D 0 F

12

A full adder can be designed A Using 2 half adders C Using 4 half adders B D Using 3 half adders Using 5 half adders

13

In BCD addition, 0110 is required to be added to sum for getting the correct result, if The sum of two BCD numbers is not a A valid BCD number C A carry is produced B D The sum of two BCD numbers is not a valid 3BCD number or a carry is produced None of these

14

The ALU is used to perform A Only logical operation C Only arithmetic operation B D Arithmetic and logical operation Control operations

15

A multiplier circuit consists of A AND gate and Full adders C NAND B D OR gate and EX-OR gates None of these

16

The final carry output equation of carry look ahead addition is A C3=PCin + G C C3=P=GCin B D C3=P+Cin+G None of these

17

74283 is a A 4 bit adder C 4 bit subtractor B D 4 bit carry look ahead adder None of these

18

Serial adder is A Faster than parallel adder C Costly with respect to parallel adder B D Slower than parallel adder None of these

19

A flip-flop can be built by using A NAND gates C AND or OR gates B D AND gates None of these

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20

Race around condition occurs in JK flip-flop if A J=1,K=1 C J=0,K=1 B D J=0,K=0 J=1,K=0

21

In a flip-flop with Preset and Clear terminals A Preset and Clear operation perform separately B D In preset operation, clear is disabled None of these

C In clear operation, preset is disabled 22 Master salve is used to A Improve its reliability C Eliminate race condition 23 A transparent latch is A D flip-flop C T or D flip-flop 24

B D

Reduce power dissipation Increase its clock frequency

B D

T flip-flop T and D flip-flop

The initial output of JK flip-flop Q is 1. It changes to 0, when a clock pulse is applied. The input J and K will be A J=1, K=1 C J=0, K=1 B D J=0, K=0 J=1, K=0

25

Flip-flops can be used as A Latches C Counters B D Registers All of these

26

The digital memory element consists of A Flip-flops C NOR gates B D NAND gates Shift registers

27

Flip-flops can be used to store A One bit data C One byte data B D Two bit data Two byte data

28

Right shifting the contents of a shift register by one bit is equivalent to A Dividing the content by 2 C Multiplying the content by 2 B D Dividing the content by 10 Multiplying the content by10

29

Parallel loading of the 4-bit register means A Left shifting the data in all four flip-flops simultaneously B Right shifting the data in all four flip-flops simultaneously

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C 30

Loading data in two of the flip-flops

Loading data in all four flip-flops at the same time

How many clock pulses are required to completely load serially a 8 bit shift register ? A 8 C 4 B D 7 5

31

In a 4-bit register, of the last flip-flop is connected with the J terminal of first flip-flop and Q of the last flip-flop is connected with the J terminal of first flip-flop. The shift register acts as A Ring counter C Shift register B D Binary counter None of these

32

The data can be taken out of a PIPO shift register from A The Q output of the first FF C All of the Q outputs together B D The Q output of the last FF None of these

33

By adding recirculating lines to a 4-bit Parallel-In, Serial-Out shift register , it becomes A C A Parallel-In, Serial and Parallel Out A Serial- Parallel-In ,Series and Parallel Out B D A Serial-In, Parallel and Serial Out A bidirectional In, Parallel and Series Out

34

A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may be easily generated by which type of counter circuit? A Ring Shift C Johnson B D Clock Binary

35

The difference between a Ring counter and a Johnson counter is A Ring counter is faster C Johnson is faster B D The feedback is reversed None of these

36

Why stepper motors are very popular in digital systems? A Low cost Can be able to provide repetitive C mechanical movement B D Driven by sequential signals b&c

37

In design a counter circuit, the most commonly used flip-flop is A D type B D RS type JK type

C Latch 38 A decade counter can be designed by A 4 flip-flop and by pass 6 states

10 flip-flop and by pass 10 states

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C 39

4 flip-flop and by pass 5 states

4 flip-flop and by pass 4 states

Three mod-5 counters are connected in cascade. The overall modulus of circuit will be A Mod-10 counter C Mod-125 counter B D Mod-15 counter None of these

40

A 3-bit ripple counter will have the counting sequence as A 000,001,010,011,100,101,110,111 C 1,11,11,01,01,10,00,11,00,00,00,000 B D 000,001,011,111 None of these

41

The example of sequential circuit is A Counter C Combinational logic circuit B D Shift register 7 - segment display

42

A synchronous Melay machine has A C An input decoder, memory elements and an output decoder An input decoder and an output decoder B D An memory elements and an output decoder An input decoder and memory elements

43

The asynchronous Moore machine consist of A C An input decoder and an output decoder An memory elements and an output decoder B D An input decoder, memory elements and an output decoder An input decoder and memory elements

44

When the output of a sequential circuit depends on the present input as well as previous output states, the circuit is called A Moore machine C Sequential circuit B D Mealy machine All of these

45

An bistable multivibrator has A One stable state C One quasi-stable state B D Two stable state Two quasi-stable state

46

Pulse stretches is the alternative name of A Monostable multivibrator C Flip-flop B D 555 timer Schmitt-trigger

47

A 556 timer IC consists of A Two 555 timer C Four 555 timer B D Three 555 timer None of these

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48

Which multivibrator IC is non-triggerable? A 74121 C 74123 B D 74122 None of these

49

A non-triggerable monostable multivibrator has Rext = 10K and Cext = 0.01F. Its pulse-width will be A 0.7ms C 0.07ms B D 0.6ms 0.06ms

50

In a IC 555 timer, it will be triggered when input voltage connected is A Less than VCC/3 C Greater than VCC/3 B D Less than 2 VCC/3 Between None of these

51

The differential mode A C Opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs The outputs are of different amplitudes B D The gain is unity Only one supply voltage is used

52

Common mode gain is A Very high C Always unity B D Very low Unpredictable

53

An averaging amplifier has five inputs. The ratio Rf/Ri must be A 5 C 1 B D 0.2 2

54

For step-input, the output of an integrator is a A Pulse C Spike B D Triangular waveform Ramp

55

In a differentiator, the feedback element is a A Resistor C Zener Diode B D Capacitor Voltage divider

56

Current cannot flow to the ground through A A mechanical ground C A virtual ground B D An ac ground An a ordinary ground

57

In an averaging circuit, the input resistance are A Equal to the feedback resistor B Less than the feedback resistor

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C Greater than the feedback resistor 58

Unequal

When a large sine wave drives Schmitt trigger, the output is a A A rectangular wave C Rectified sine wave B D Triangular wave Series of ramps

59

To work properly, many IC comparators need an external A Pull up resistor C Bypass capacitor B D Compensating capacitor Compensating resistor

60

The trip point of comparator is the input voltage that causes A The circuit to oscillate C The output to switch states B D Peak detection of the input signal Clamping to occur

61

The zero-level detector is one application of a A Comparator C Summing Amplifier B D Differentiator Diode

62

Noise on the input of a comparator can cause the output A Hang up in one state C Change back and forth erractically between two states B D Go to zero Produce the amplified noise signals

63

The miller input capacitance of an amplifier is depend, in part, on A The input coupling C The bypass capacitor B D The voltage gain None of these

64

An amplifier has the following critical frequencies: 1.2 kHz, 950Hz and 8.5kHz. The bandwidth is A 7550Hz C 6800Hz B D 7300Hz 7050Hz

65

Ideally, the midrange gain of the amplifier A Increases with frequency C Remains constant with frequency B D Decreases with frequency Depends on the coupling capacitors

66

If the fT of a transistor use in a certain amplifier is 75 MHz and the bandwidth is 10 MHz, the voltage gain must be A 750 C 10 B D 7.5 1

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67

In the midrange of an amplifiers bandwidth, the peak output voltage is 6 V. At the lower critical frequency, the peak output voltage is A 3V C 8.48 V B D 3.82 V 4.24 V

68

At the upper critical frequency, the peak output voltage of a certain amplifier is 10 V. The peak voltage in a midrange of the amplifier is A 7.07 V C 14.14 V B D 6.37 V 10 V

69

The lower critical frequency of a direct-coupled amplifier with no bypass capacitor is A Variable C Depend on the bias B D 0 Hz None of these

70

One advantage of a class B push-pull amplifier is A No quiescent current drain C Greater than class A B D of 78.5% All of above

71

If the load power is 3 mV and DC power is 150 mW, the efficiency is A 0 C 3% B D 2% 20%

72

The instantaneous operating point swings along A The DC load line C Both load lines B D The AC load line Neither load line

73

An amplifier has two load lines because A It has AC and DC collector resistances C It has two equivalent circuits B D DC acts on one and AC acts another All of above

74

The current drain of an amplifier is the A Total AC current from the generator C Current gain from base to collector B D Total DC current from the supply Current gain from collector to base

75

Cross over distortion is a problem for A Class A amplifiers C Class B amplifiers B D Class AB amplifiers None of these

76

Guard driving reduces the A CMRR of an IA B Leakage current in the shielded cable

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C Voltage gain of the first stage 77 In a voltage-controlled current source A A current booster is never used C A stiff current source drives the load 78 The Howland current source produces a A Unidirectional floating load current C Unidirectional single-ended load current 79

Common-mode input voltage

B D

The load is always floated The load current equals Isc

B D

Bidirectional single-ended load current Bidirectional floating load current

To make a basic instrumentation amplifier, it takes One op-amp with a certain feedback A arrangement C Three op-amps and seven capacitors B D Two op-amp and seven resistors Three op-amps and seven resistors

80

When we trim a resistor, we are A Making a fine adjustment C Increasing its value B D Reducing its value Making a coarse adjustment

81

Typically, an IA has an external resistor used for A Establishing the output impedance C Setting the current gain B D Setting the voltage gain Interfacing with an instrument

82

In the OTA, the transconductance is controlled by A The ac supply voltage C The input signal voltage B D A bias current The manufacturing process

83

An FM receiver has an IF frequency that is A 88MHz-108MHz range C 455kHz B D 540kHz-1640kHz range 10.7MHz

84

In order to handle all combinations of input voltage polarities, a multiplier must have A Four-quadrant capability C Four inputs B D Three-quadrant capability Dual-supply voltages

85

When the two inputs of a multiplier are connected together, the device operates as a A Voltage doubler C Squaring circuit B D Square root circuit Averaging circuit

86

Amplitude modulation is basically a

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A Summing of two signals C Subtraction of two signals 87 The output of an AM detector goes directly to the A IF amplifier C Audio Amplifier 88 A PLL maintains lock by comparing A The phase of two signals C The amplitude of two signals 89

B D

Multiplication of two signals Non-linear process

B D

Mixer Loudspeaker

B D

The frequency of two signals None of these

Which of the following amplifier compensates for drift? A Low gain amplifier C DC amplifier B D High gain amplifier Differential amplifier

90

If a square wave is integrated by integrator using op-amp, the output is A Triangular wave C Sine Wave B D Ramp None of these

91

A good op-amp has A Very high bandwidth C High selectivity B D Narrow bandwidth All of these

92

The loss of precision in quantity is called A Down time C Unavoidable delay B D Delay None of these

93

Photolithography involves A Making photographic mask and photoetching C Only masking B D Only photoetching None of these

94

The positive clipper can be easily converted into negative clipper by A Reversing diode and changing the polarity of reference voltage C Changing the polarity B D Reversing diode only None of these

95

....................... regulator operates the power transistors as high frequency on/off switch. A Series C Switching B D Short None of these

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96

The high-frequency response in RC active filters using op-amp is due to A BW C Gain,BW product B D Gain High frequency

97

By cascading LPF and HPF active filter, the resulting circuit is A BPF C Wide BPF B D Narrow BPF All of these

98

The magnitude of the gain or integrator transfer function using op-amp is A WR1Cf C -WR1Cf B D -1/WR1Cf 1/WR1Cf

99

If R1=R2, then B=0.5, the total time T of square wave in astable multivibrator using op-amp is A T=RC C T=2 RC ln 2 B D T=2 RC ln 3 T=2RC ln (1+ 0.5)

100

The total time of the pulse from monostable multivibrator is A T=2 RC C T=0.69 RC B D T=0.3 RC T= RC ln (1+VD+Vsat)/1-B

101

The simplifeid for of logical expression A++E+AE is A 1 C AB B D A None of these

102

A multiplexer, with 3-bei data select inputs, is a A 4:1 multiplexer C 16:1 multiplexer B D 8:1 multiplexer 32:1 multiplexer

103

Minimisation of Boolean logical expressions helps to reduce A Space C Cost B D Number of gates Space,number of gates and cost

104

In 7-segment display system, zero blanking is used to blank out A All the leading zeros C The zero in the MSB(location) B D All the trailing zeros a and b

105

In binary to gray converter, gate is used. A AND C NAND B D OR EX-OR

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106

In digital electronics addition is performed using A Half adders Adders with ones complement C representation of negative numbers B D Half subtractors None of these

107

A half adder consists of gate A AND C NAND B D EX-OR and AND None of these

108

An N bit adder consists of A 2 full addrs C 4 full adders B D N full adders N-1 full adders

109

2's complement of a number is A 1's complement of a number +1 C 1's complement of a number +10 B D 1's complement of a number -1 None of these

110

The invalid state of SR flip-flop is A S=1,R=1 C S=0,R=1 B D S=0,R=0 S=1,R=0

111

When T filp-flop is set, its output will be A Q=0,=1 C Q=1,=1 B D Q=0,=0 Q=1,=0

112

JK flip-flop can be used as Toggle swirch when A J and K connected to ground C J and K connected to +VCC B D J connected to ground and K connected to +VCC None of these

113

In a clocked SR flip-flop, R is connected with S through an inverter, the cicuit is called A JK flip-flop C D flip-flop B D T flip-flop None of these

114

The initial output of SR flip-flop Q is 0. It changes to 1, when a clock pulse is applied. The input S and R will be A S=1, R=1 C S=0, R=1 B D S=0, R=0 S=1, R=0

115

A 4-bit PISO shift register will receive 4 bits of ..data and data will shift by position(s) for each clock pulse.

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A Parallel, one C Serial, one 116 A n bit shift register can not be used as A Module n counter C Serial to parallel conversion 117 The universal shift register can be used as A Serial to parallel conversion C Serial to serial conversion 118

B D

Parallel, two Serial, two

B D

Module 2n counter Parallel to serial conversion

B D

Parallel to serial conversion a,b and c

What is the name of shift register that will accept parallel or a bidiretional serial load amd will out data in parallel or bidirectional serial form? A Universal C PISO B D SIPO Tristate

119

What is the modulas of 5-bit rippel counter A 16 C 5 B D 32 64

120

A twisted ring counter consisting of 6 fipl-flops, will have A 6 states C 64 states B D 12 states 128 states

121

A mod-2 counter, followed by a mod-5 counter is A Mod-5 counter followed by a mod-2 counter B D Mod-11 counter Decade counter

C Mod-9 counter 122 Any sequential logical cicuit consist of A Only flip-flops C Flip-flops and combitional logic circuits 123 Any sequential cicuits consist of Combitional logic as well as memory A elements C Memory elements 124 The sequential machine is a A Feedback system

B D

Only gates Only combitional logic circuits

B D

Combitional logic only None of these

Feedback and non-feedback system

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C Non-feedback system 125 The Moore machine is defined by the equations A Next state=F(Present state,Inputs) and Output=G(Present state) C Next state=F(Present state) and Output=G(Present state) 126 The Mealy machine is defined by the equations Next state=F(Present state,Inputs) and A Output=G(Present state,Inputs) Next state=F(Present state,Inputs) and C Output=G(Inputs) 127 The asynchronous Mealy machine consists of An input decoder and an output decoder A C 128 Memory elements and an output decoder

None of these

B D

Next state=F(Inputs) and Output=G(Present state) Next state=F(Present state,Inputs)

B D

Next state=F(Present state) and Output=G(Present state,Inputs) Next state=F(Inputs) and Output=G(Present state,Inputs)

B D

An input decoder, memory elements and an output decoder An input decoder and memory elements

The synchronous Moore machine has An input decoder, memory elements and A an output decoder An input decoder and an output decoder C D Memory elements and an output decoder B An input decoder and memory elements

129

Reduced state diagram of any state table can obtained from A Inspection C Implication tabel B D Partitioning All of these

130

A sequential circuit can be designed with the help of A State table C K-maps B D State Diagram All of these

131

An astable multivibrator has A One stable state C One quasi-stable state B D Two stable state Two quasi-stable state

132

An astable multivibrator can be triggered A When output is high C Triggering pulse is not required B D When output is low None of these

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133

An pulse width of retriggerable monostable multivibrator can be controlled A Frequency of trigger pulse C Amplitude of trigger pulse B D External resistance and capacitor None of these

134

An non-retriggerable monostable multivibrator(One Shot) can be triggered A When is 1 low and B is low to high C When 1 and 2 are low and B is low to high B D When 2 is low and B is low to high All of these

135

An retriggerable monostable multivibrator can be triggered When 1 and 2 are grounded and B2 is A high, B1 is low to high When 1 is grounded,2 is +Vcc and B2 is C high, B1 is low to high B D When 1 and 2 are +Vcc and B2 is high, B1 is low to high None of these

136

A digital instument is used to measure analog voltage and display in it 7 segment display devices. The instrument has A An ADC at the input and a DAC at the output B D An ADC at the input An ADC at the output

C A DAC at the input 137 Sample and hold circuit is used in A ADC C ADC and DAC 138

B D

DAC None of these

The minimum number of resistances are required for a 8-bit weighted-resistor type DAC is A 8 C 15 B D 8 16

139

In a 8-bit weighted resistor type DAC, the resistance value corresponding to MSB is 1K. The resistance value for LSB will be A 16K C 64K B D 32K 256K

140

The resolution of a D/A converter is 0.4% of full scale rannge. It is a A 8 bit converter C 12 bit converter B D 10 bit converter 16 bit converter

141

The input resistance of an R-2R ladder D/A converter is A R for each digital input C 3R for each digital input B D 2R for each digital input None of these

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142

A D/A converter's full scale output voltage is 10V and it's accuracy is +0.4%. The maximum error of DAC will be A 20mV C 40mV B D 30mV None of these

143

Dynamic characteristics of DAC is A Dynamic nonlinearity(DNL) C Offset error B D Gain over Conversion speed

144

The speed of conversion is maximum in A Successive approximation ADC C Single slop serial ADC B D Flash ADC Dual slope ADC

145

An A/D converter consists of A Only a DAC C DAC,comparator, logic gates and a counter B D A DAC and a counter DAC and logic gates

146

In a 4-bit ADC,the full-scale analog input voltage 16V is divided into A Sixteen equal intervals C Eight intervals B D Fifteen intervals None of these

147

The aquantisation error of a 3 bit ADC is A 0 C V/14 B D V/7 V

148

A 12-bit A/D converter has the input voltage signal from 0V to +10V. The voltage equivalent to LSB will be A 0 C 2.4mV B D 1.2mV 0.833V

149

The number of comparators used in 3 bit parallel converter is A 7 C 6 B D 8 None of these

150

An offset voltage 0.5LSB is added to the sucessive approximation ADC A Improve the conversion speed C Reduce the maximam quantisation error B D Increase accuracy None of these

151

The cutoff frequency of an op-amp equals the unity-gain frequency divided by

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A The cutoff frequency C Unity 152

B D

Closed-loop voltage Common-mode voltage gain

When slew rate distortion of a sine wave occurs, the output A is larger C is normal B D Appears triangular Has no effect

153

The 741C has A A voltage gain of 100,000 C An output impedance of 75 B D An input impedance of 2M All of these

154

A summing amplifier can have A Only one input C Only three inputs B D Only two inputs Anly number of inputs

155

In a scaling adder, the input resistors are A All of the same value Each proportional to the weight of its C input B D All of different value Related by a factor of two

156

A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes called A Threshold detector C Positive limit detector B D Zero-crossing detector Half-wave detector

157

A schmitt trigger A is a ZCD C produces triangular output waves B D has two trip inputs is designed to trigger on noise voltage

158

An input transducer converts A Voltage to current B D Current to voltage A non-electrical quantity to an electrical quantity

An electrical quantity to a non-electrical C quantity 159 A thermistor converts A Light to resistance C Voltage to sound 160

B D

Temparature to resistance Current to voltage

The frequency spectrum of a balanced modulator contains A A sum frequency B A difference frequency

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C A carrier frequency 161

A an B

The equivalent weight of the LSB in a 4-bit variable resistive divider D/A converter is A (1/4) C (1/15) B D (1/16) (1/32)

162

For a 4-bit resistive divider (0=0V, 1=+10V) the analog output voltage for a digital input of 1101 is A (22/3)V C (26/3)V B D 13V 11.01V

163

A 4-bit resistive divider D/A converter uses an 80k resistor's MSB, The resistor value for LSB is A 160k C 20k B D 40k 10k

164

For a 5-bit resistive divider network, the weight assigned to MSB is A (1/31) C (8/31) B D (1/32) (16/32)

165

In a binary R/2R ladder D/A converter, the input resistance for each input is A R C 3R B D 2R 4R

166

The percentage resolution of a 10-bit A/D converter is nearly A 1% C 0.10% B D 0.01% 10%

167

A transresistance amplifier is one which has A Input current I and output voltage V C Input voltage V1 and output voltage Vo B D Input voltage V and output current I Input current Iin and output current Io

168

The other name of voltage follower is A Differential amplifier C Non-inverting amplifier B D Inverting amplifier Unity-gain amplifier

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169

Find Vo

A (-Rf/R1V1) C (-RfV1/R1) - (Rf*(-15)/R2) 170

B D

(-Rf/R1V1) - (Rf/R2) (-Rf/R2V1)

The differential mode and common mode voltage is defined as A Vdm=V2-V1 , Vcm=V1+V2/2 C Vdm=V1/2=V2/2 , Vcm=V2-V1/2 B D Vdm=V1+V2/2 , Vcm=V2-V1 None of these

171

For the op-amp shown in fig. ,the output will be

A (-2x) C (-12x) 172

B D

(-5x) (-720x)

For which values of Rf and Ri, the output/input ratio of the amplifier shown in fig. will be the least?

A Rf=100k , Ri=10k C Rf=1000k , Ri=10k

B D

Rf=800k , Ri=200k Rf=10k , Ri=1k

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173

In the circuit shown below, the feedback factor will be

A (1/3) C (3/7) 174 The circuit shown represents

B D

(2/7) (1/7)

A Differentitor C Multiplier 175 The circuit shown represents

B D

Adder Sign reversal

A I-to-V converter C Log amplifier 176

B D

Differentitor Analog invertere

An integrator is mostly preffered over a differentiator because of

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A More stebility C Less noise 177

B D

Less voltage drift All of above

A A 741C op-amp is used in the circuit, the output voltage for the ideal op-amp will be A (-5)V C (-2.5)V B D (-3)V (-2)V

178

A system is critically damped. Now if the gain of the system is increased , the system will behave as A Over-damped C Oscillatory B D Under-damped Critically difined

179

For the below circuit, find CMRR (R3/R R2/R1)

(R3(R1+R2)+R2(R+R3))/ A (R3(R1+R2)+R1(R+R3)) (R3(R1+R2)+R2(R+R3))/ C R1(R+R3)) 180 (R3(R1+R2)-

B D

(R3(R1+R2)+R2(R+R3))/ (R3(R1+R2))/

(R+R 3)

(R3(R1+R2)+R1(R1+R3))

For large CMRR, A cm should be A As large as possible C Zero B D As small as possible Level to A dm

181

MOSFET op-amp is preffered over BJT and FET because of A High input resistance 1012 C High slew rate, 10 V/sec B D Low input current, 1PA All the above

182

DC characters of op-amp are A Input bias and offset current C Thermal Drift B D Input offset voltage All of the above

183

The slew rate of op-amp is defined as A dvc/dt B dvc/dt max

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C I max / C 184

None of the above

The relation between slew rates, frequency is given by A f max = SR /6.2*V m

max =

B D

max =

V n / S.R* 6.2

C f 185

Vn* 6.2/SR

f max = SR/V n , SR- slew rate

The function of window detector is A C To find unknown input between two threshold levels Without threshold voltages input is detected B D To find unknown itput at one thereshold voltage None of the above

186

The VCO is otherwise called as A Free-running multivibrator C Bistable B D Monostable multivibrator None of the above

187

IC PLL 565 is called A PLL C VCO B D Monolithic PLL Phase detector

188

Select correct statement of PLL. A Capture range smaller than lock range C Capture range smaller equal to lock range B D Lock range smaller than capture range None of the above

189

Non-linearity due to power disspation in DAC can be avoided by A Weighted resistor method C Inverted R-2R method B D R-2R method None of the above

189

ADC 0800/0801/0802 are A 8-bit ADC C 4-bit ADC B D 6-bit ADC None of the above

190

A V/F convertor circuit is used in A Charge-balancing ADC C Parallel comparators B D Dual slope ADC Successive-approximation ADC

191

The S/H circuit is not needed for__________ADC. A Direct type C Integrating type B D Counter type None of the above

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192 Calculate trigger points if supply voltage V = 12V. Plot the output voltage V 0 versus t if V i is 100 A 3.686 V, - 3.686 V C (- 1.843 V, 1.843 V) 193 Find the transfer function of the given circuit. B D 3.686 V, 1.843 V 7.24 V, -7.24 V

A RCS + 1 C RCS - 1 194

B D

1/ RCS + 1 1/RCS-1

The gain of an op-amp decreases at high frequency due to A Capacitance C Gain B D Resistors None of the above

195

Military grade op-amp be operated in the temperature range of A (- 55 to 1210C) C 0 to 1000C B D (- 50 to 1500C) at 300C

196

Isolation technique is used in IC to A Isolate device and to prevent short circuit C Increase the area B D Provide high gain None of the above

197

Switching speed is fast in A PnP Transistor C Schottky transistor B D nPn TV None of the above

198

The technique used to produce small-device pattern on silicon wafer is A Photolithography C Diffusion B D Oxidation Epitaxy

199

When silicon water is oxidized, the product is A Oxygen, silicon dioxide B Hydrogen, silicon dioxide

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C Silica only 200

SiO2 only

The meaning of planner technology implies wafers A Devices fabricated on the surface C Devices fabricated in depth in to wafer A zener diode A Has a high forward voltage rating. Has a negative resistance. B D Has a sharp breakdown voltage at low reverse voltage. None of this. B D Cut into piece for different devices Less thickness wafer being used

201

If the ripple factor of the output wave of a rectifier is low, it means that A 202 C Output voltage will have less ripple. Filter circuits may be required. B D Output voltage will be low. None of this.

A half wave rectifier circuit with capacitive filter is connected to 200V,50 HZ ac line the output voltage across the capacitor should be approximately A 203 C 100V 280V B D 180V 400V

The colour band sequence of a resistor is Yellow, Violet, Orange and Gold. The range inwhich its value must lie so as to satisfy the tolerance specified is between A 204 C 44.66KW and 49.35 KW 44.65KW and 49.36 KW B D 44.65 KW and 49.35 KW 45 KW and 49.34 KW

The translator program that converts source code in high level language into machine code line by line is called A 205 C Assembler loader B D Compiler interpreter

The threshold voltage of an n-channel MOSFET can be increased by A. 206 C. increasing the channel doping concentration reducing gate oxide thickness B. D. reducing the channel length decreasing the channel doping concentration

Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases A. 207 C. the mobility decreases the drain current increase B. D. the transconductance increases the transconductance decreases

The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is A. 208 C. Class A Class AB B. D. Class B Class C

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The gain bandwidth product of a two stage CE amplifier is A. 209 C. the same as that of one stage less than that of one stage B. D. greater than that of one stage

the product of the two gain bandwidth products of each stage Class AB amplifier is often used in power(large signal) amplifiers in order to A. get maximum efficiency overcome a cross-over distortion B. D. remove even harmonics reduce collector dissipation

210

C.

In a common emitter amplifier, unbiased emitter resistance provides A. 211 C. voltage-shunt feedback negative voltage feed back B. D. current-series feed back positive current feed back

Op-amp used as a tuned amplifier has the tuned circuit connected A. 212 C. across input across feed-back impedance Zf B. D. across series impedance at the input across output

How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023 A. 213 C. 1 10 B. D. 6 24

Which one of the following can be used to change data from special code to temporal code? shift registers A/D converter counters Combinational circuits

A. 214 C.

B. D.

Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt for 8085 microprocessor? A. 215 C. TRAP RST 7.5 B. D. INTR RST3

The number of comparators in a parallel conversion type 8 -bit A to D converter is A. 216 C. 8 255 B. D. 16 256

A Schottkey diode is a A. 217 C. majority carrier device fast recovery diode B. D. minority carrier device both a majority and a minority carrier diode

Optocouplers combine

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A. 218 C.

SIT and BJTS Diode and BJT

B. D.

IGBTS and MOSFETS Infrared LED and a silicon photo transistor.

In microprocessor architecture, flag indicates the A. 219 C. bit-size of the microprocessor number of microprocessor B. D. internal status of the central processing unit None of the above

How many two input AND gates and two input OR gates are required to realize Y = BD+CE+AB

A. 220 C.

1, 1 3, 2

B. D.

4, 2 2, 3

Which of the following transistor amplifier configuration has the highest power gain A 221 C comman base comman emitter B D comman collector none of above

The information in ROM is stored A 222 C By the user any number of times. By the user using ultraviolet light. B D By the manufacturer during fabrication of the device By the user once and only once.

In the context of IC fabrication, metallization means A 223 C Connecting metallic wires. Depositing Sio2 layer. B D Forming interconnecting conduction pattern and bonding pads. Covering with a metallic cap.

A major advantage of an emitter follower is that is provides A 224 C maximum gain maximum output impedance B D maximum efficiency minimum distortion

An eight stage ripple counter uses a flip-flop with propagation delay of 75 nanoseconds. The pulse width of the strobe is 50ns. The frequency of the input signal which can be used forproper operation of the counter is approximately A 225 C 1 MHz 2 MHz. B D 500 MHz. 4 MHz

Scratch Pad memory is a A 226 C first in first out memory local temporary memory B D Local permanent memory last in first in memory

The output of a JK flipflop with asynchronous preset and clear inputs is 1. The output can be changed to 0 with one of the following conditions.

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By applying J = 0, K = 0 and using a clock. B

By applying J = 1, K = 0 and using the clock.

C 227

By applying J = 1, K = 1 and using the clock.

By applying a synchronous preset input.

The ripple frequency in case of a full wave rectifier is A 228 C Twice the supply frequency thrice the supply frequency B D equal to the supply frequency None of these

BURST refresh in DRAM is also called as A 229 C Concentrated Refresh Hidden Refresh B D Distributed Refresh None

Stack pointer is a register which comes into use A 230 B whenever a data is written into the memory whenever a data is read from the memory C whenever the output variable is sent out D whenever an interrupt or high priority call of the CPU comes from external device A weighted resistor digital to analog converter using N bits requires a total of A 231 C N precision resistors N + 1 precision resistors B D 2N precision resistors. N 1 precision resistors.

Which of the following classes has lowest efficiency? A 232 C Class A Class AB B D Class B Class C

The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by A 233 C fast turn-on large collector-base reverse bias B D fast turn-off large emitter-base forward bias

MOSFET can be used as a A 234 C current controlled capacitor current controlled inductor B D voltage controlled capacitor voltage controlled inductors

Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases A 235 C the mobility decreases the drain current increases B D the transconductance increases none of the above

A source follower using an FET usually has a voltage gain which is A greater than +100 B slightly less than unity but positive

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236

exactly unity but negative

about -10

A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000. CMRR=80 dB. The common mode gain is given by A 2 B 1 237 C 0.5 D 0

The approximate input impedance of the OPAMP circuit which has Ri=10k,Rf=100k,RL=10k

A 238 C

110k

B D

120k 10k

An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/ S .The largest sine wave O/P voltage possible at a frequency of 1MHZ is A 239 C 10 volts 5/3 volts B D 5 volts 5/2 volts

A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re in a differential amplifier A 240 C affects the difference mode gain Ad affects both Ad and Ac B D affects the common mode gain Ac does not effect either Ad and Ac

A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all OP-AMPs.This is domebasically to provide the OP-AMPs with a very high A 241 C CMRR slew rate B D bandwidth open-loop gain

The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a saturation decreases with increase in A 242 C gate voltage source voltage B D drain voltage body voltage

Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction A 243 C junction capacitance depletion capacitance B D charge storage capacitance channel length modulation

In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias , the magnitude of electric field is maximum at A 244 C the edge of the depletion region on the p- B side the p-n junction D the edge of the depletion region on the n-side

the center of the depletion region on the nside An n- channel JFET has IDSS=2mA,and Vp=-4v.Its transconductance gm=(in mA/V)for anapplied gate to source voltage VGS=-2v is A 0.25 B 0.5

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245

0.75

In a common emitter, unbypassed resister provides A 246 C voltage shunt feedback negative voltage feedback B D current series feedback positive current feedback

A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuits gives an o/p of 1.4v at the signalfrequency of 3.89KHZ and 4.1KHZ .At the frequency of 4KHZ,the o/p voltage will be A 1v B 2v 247 C 1.4v D 2.8v

Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to A 248 C get maximum efficiency overcome a crossover distortion B D remove even harmonics reducing collector dissipation

The bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is dependent on A 249 C Q factor of the tuned o/p circuit Quiescent operating point B D Q factor of the tuned i/p circuit

Q-factor of the o/p and i/p circuits as well as quiescent operating point The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to A resistor capacitor B D inductor battery

250

Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier because of its A C I/P voltage dependent linear transfer Characteristic high input resistance B D high voltage gain high CMRR

251

Negative feedback in an amplifier A 252 C Reduces gain Reduces bandwidth B D Increase frequency &phase distortion Increases noise

A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30v,and a full-load voltage of 25v at full-loadcurrent of 1A.Its output resistance & load regulation ,respectively are A 253 C 5 & 20 % 5 & 16.7 % B D 25 & 20 % 25 & 16.7 %

The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of A 254 C Transistor capacitances Parasitic inductive elements B D High current effects in the base The early effect

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The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics. A 255 C Ri= ,A= ,R0=0 Ri= ,A= ,R0= B D Ri=0 ,A= ,R0=0 Ri=0 ,A= ,R0=

An npn BJT has gm= 38mA/v, c =10-14 F, c =10-13F and DC current gain 0=90.For thistransistor fT& f are A B fT =1.64 x 108 Hz & f = 1.47 x 1010 Hz. fT =1.47 x 1010 Hz & f = 1.64 x 108 Hz 256 C fT =1.33 x 1012 Hz & f = 1.47 x 1010 Hz D fT =1.47 x 1010 Hz & f = 1.33 x 1012 Hz

A 741-type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth product of 1MHz.A non-inverting amplifierusing this opamp& having a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit -3db bandwidth of

A 257 C

50 KHz 1000/17 KHz

B D

100KHz 1000/7.07 KHz

An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/sec has a gain of 40db.if this amplifierhas to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to 20 KHz without introducing any slew-rateinduced distortion, then the input signal level must not exceed A 258 C 795mV 795 mV B D 395mV 39.5mV

In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a differential amplifierare 48db &2db respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is A 259 C 23dB 46dB B D 25dB 50dB

Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to the A 260 C Internal Capacitance of the device Skin effect B D Coupling capacitor at the input Coupling capacitor at the output

An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of 1 K & Outputresistance of 2.5K.The input resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using A 261 C 1/11K 5K B D 1/5K 11K

The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a A 262 C Current controlled Current source Voltage controlled voltage source B D Current controlled voltage source voltage controlled current source

Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50,input resistance of 1K& output resistance of 250, are cascaded.The open circuit voltage gain of combined amplifieris

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A 263 C

49dB 98dB

B D

51dB 102dB

An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal A 264 C Current controlled Current source Voltage controlled voltage source B D Current controlled voltage source voltage controlled current source

In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes,Vdc&Vm are the dc & peak values of thevoltage respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the peak inverse voltage of the diode, thenthe appropriate relationships for this rectifier is. A 265 C Vdc = Vm/, PIV=2Vm Vdc = 2Vm/, PIV=Vm B D Vdc = 2Vm/, PIV=2vm Vdc = Vm/, PIV=Vm

The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of A 266 C CC-CB CB-CC B D CE-CB CE-CC

The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold circuits is A C 267 The following components are all active components A 268 C a resistor and an inductor a capacitor, and an inductor B D a diode, a BJT and an FET. an Op amp , a BJT and thermionic triode A unity gain non-inverting amplifier An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10 B D A unity gain inverting amplifier An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100

Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common amplifier stabilizes the dc operating pointagainst variations in A 269 C Only the temperature Both Temperature & B D only the of the transistor None of the above

Which of following are known as universal gates A 270 C NAND & NOR XOR & OR B D AND & OR None

In forward mode NPN BJT, if we increase the voltage VCC , the collector current increases A due to ohms law, higher VCC causes higher current B due to base width decrease less carrier recombine in the base region. due to both the reasons B and C

C 271

as the gradient of minority carriers in the D base region becomes steeper

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An emitter follower has high input impedance because A 272 C large emitter resistance is used B D large biasing resistance is used. the emitter-base junction is highly reverse biased. Zero 1

there is negative feedback in the base emitter circuit In a differential amplifier an ideal CMRR is A infinity 1.

B D

273

The main reason why electrons can tunnel through a P-N junction is that A 274 C They have high energy. Depletion layer is extremely thin. B D Barrier potential is very low Impurity level is low.

FET is advantageous in comparison with BJT because of A 275 C high input impedance its current controlled behaviour B D high gain-bandwidth product high noise immunity.

The emission of electrons in a vacuum diode is achieved by A 276 C Electrostatic field Heating. B D Magnetic field. electron bombardment

An intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero temperature A 277 C has a large no. of holes. behaves like a metallic conductor B D Behaves like an insulator. has few holes and same number of electrons.

The current flow through a Ge PN junction diode with a forward bias of 0.22 Volt and a reverse saturation current of 1 mA at 25o C is around A 6.3 A B 5.22 A 278 C 4 mA D 5.1 mA

For the operation of a depletion-type N-MOSFET, the gate voltage has to be A 279 C low positive high negative B D high positive Zero

The typical operating voltage for LEDs ranges from A 280 C 0.2 V to 0.6 V. 1.5 V to 2.5 V B D 6 V to 10 V 9 V to 10 V

In a Zener diode large reverse current is due to A 281 C Collision. rupture of bonds B D Presence of impurities. lower resistance in reverse biased region.

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Ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier without filter will be A 282 C 0.2. 0.24 B D 0.48. 1.21

JFET has main drawback of A 283 C having low input impedance being noisy. B D having high output impedance Having small gain-bandwidth product.

The CE configuration amplifier circuits are preferred over CB configuration amplifier circuitsbecause they have A lower amplification factor. B Larger amplification factor. 284 D none of these. high input resistance and low output resistance. A device whose characteristics are very close to that of an ideal current source is C A 285 C a gas diode a BJT in CE mode B D a BJT in CB mode a triode.

In an N-type semiconductor, the concentration of minority carriers mainly depends upon A 286 C the doping technique the temperature of the material B D the number of donor atoms. the quality of the intrinsic material,

When forward bias is applied to a junction diode, it A C 287 increases the potential barrier B decreases the potential barrier.

D reduces the minority-carrier current to zero. reduces the majority-carrier current to zero. The theoretical maximum efficiency of a Bridge rectifier circuit is A 48.2%. 82% B D 81.2%. 40.6%.

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The input resistance of a common-collector configuration will be of the order of A 289 C Approx. 90KW Approx. 150KW B D Approx. 60KW 300KW and above

A switching voltage regulator can be of the following type: A 290 C step-down inverting B D step-up none of these

Doping materials are called impurities because they A Decrease the number of charge carriers. B Change the chemical properties of semiconductors

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291

Make semiconductors less than 100 D Alter the crystal structures of the pure percent pure. semiconductors. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of A Collision Ionization B D Doping Recombination

292

In a rectifier, larger the value of shunt capacitor filter A 293 Larger the peak-to-peak value of ripple B Larger the peak current in the rectifying diode. voltage. C Longer the time that current pulse flows D Smaller the dc voltage across the load. through the diode If a change in base current does not change the collector current, the transistor amplifier is saidto be A 294 C Saturated Critical. B D Cut-off. Complemented.

The extremely high input impedance of a MOSFET is primarily due to the A C 295 The forbidden energy gap in semiconductors A C 296 The barrier potential for a Ge PN junction is A 297 C 0.6V. 0.1V B D 0.3V. 0.5V. lies just below the valance band lies between the valence band and the conduction band B D lies just above the conduction band is the same as the valence band Absence of its channel. Depletion of current carriers B D Negative gate-source voltage. Extremely small leakage current of its gate capacitor.

The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of A 298 C its voltage regulation purity of power output B D its diode rating its filter efficiency.

In a BJT, if the emitter junction is reverse-biased and the collector junction is reverse-biased, itis said to operate in A in active region B in saturation region 299 C in cut-off region D none of the above

300

With increasing temperature, the resistivity of an intrinsic semiconductor decreases. This isbecause, with the increase of temperature Both the carrier concentration and mobility of A The carrier concentration increases but B the mobility of carriers decreases. carriers decreases C The carrier concentration decreases, but D The carrier concentration remains the same the mobility of carriers increases. but the mobility of carriers decreases

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At room temperature of 25C, the barrier Potential for Silicon is 0.7V. Its value at 0C will be A 301 C 0.7 V 0.75 V B D 0.65 V 0.55 V.

Which of the following is a unipolar device? A 302 C P-N junction diode Tunnel diode B D Zener diode Schottky diode

On applying a Positive voltage signal to the base of a normally biased N-P-N CE transistoramplifier A 303 C Base current will fall. Emitter current will fall. B D Collector current will fall. Collector voltage will become less positive.

An N-channel JFET has Pinch-off Voltage of VP = 4V and given that VGS = 1V,then the minimum VDS for the device to operate in the Pinch-off region will be A 304 C +1V +4V B D +3V +5V

Acesstime is faster for A 305 C ROM DRAM B D SRAM EPROM

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 368 A 306 C 101110000 111010000 B D 110110000 111100000

The NAND gate output will be low if the two inputs are A 307 C 0 10 B D 1 11

The decimal equivalent of hex number 1A53 is A 308 C 6793 6973 B D 6739 6379

The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation delay time is A 309 C ECL CMOS B D TTL PMOS

The device which changes from serial data to parallel data is A COUNTER B MULTIPLEXER

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310

DEMULTIPLEXER

FLIP-FLOP

The number of control lines for a 8 to 1 multiplexer is A 311 C 2 4 B D 3 5

How many Flip-Flops are required for mod16 counter? A 312 C 5 3 B D 6 4

EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to A 313 C Ultraviolet rays Burst of microwaves B D Infrared rays. Intense heat radiations

The hexadecimal number A0 has the decimal value equivalent to A 314 C 80 100 B D 256 160

The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to A 315 C 1100 101 B D 1001 110

In a JK Flip-Flop, toggle means A 316 C Set Q = 1 and Q = 0. B Set Q = 0 and Q = 1 No change in output.

Change the output to the opposite state. D

The digital logic family which has minimum power dissipation is A 317 C TTL DTL B D RTL CMOS

The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is either A 318 C a NAND or an EX-OR an AND or an EX-OR B D an OR or an EX-NOR a NOR or an EX-NOR

Data can be changed from special code to temporal code by using A 319 C Shift registers Combinational circuits B D counters A/D converters

A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have A 5 states B 10 states

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320

32 states

Infinite states.

What does mp speed depends on A 321 C Clock Address bus width B D Data bus width Size of register

The 2s complement of the number 1101101 is A 322 C 101110 110010 B D 111110 10011

The correction tobe applied in decimal adder to the generated sumis A 323 C 101 1101 B D 110 1010

When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z) simplifies to A 324 C x x(1 + yz) B D x + x(y + z) x + yz

The gates required to build a half adder are A 325 C EX-OR gate and NOR gate EX-OR gate and AND gate B D EX-OR gate and OR gate Four NAND gates.

The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single bit is A 326 C Binary code Excess 3 B D BCD Gray.

Which of the following is the fastest logic A 327 C TTL CMOS B D ECL LSI

Which of the memory is volatile memory A 328 C ROM PROM B D RAM EEPROM

DeMorgans first theorem shows the equivalence of A 329 C OR gate and Exclusive OR gate. NOR gate and NAND gate. B D NOR gate and Bubbled AND gate. NAND gate and NOT gate

Which stack in 8085? A FIFO B LIFO

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330

FILO

LILO

In 8085,example for non maskable interrupts are A 331 C TRAP INTR B D RST 6.5 RST 5.5

A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is called A 332 C Encoder Multiplexer B D Decoder De multiplexer

Which interrupts has highest Priority A 333 C INTR RST 7.5 B D TRAP RST6.5

The access time of ROM using bipolar transistors is about A 334 C 1 sec 1 sec B D 1 msec 1 nsec

In 8085 name the 16 bit registers A 335 C Stack Pointer IR B D Program Counter A and B

Which of the following is a hardware interrupt A 336 C RST 5.5 ,RST 6.5 ,RST 7.5 TRAP B D INTR ,TRAP A and B

The advantage of memory mapped i/o over i/o mapped i/o is A 337 C Faster Require a bigger adress decoder B D Many instructions supporting memory mapped i/o All of the above

In8085 are of the following statements is not true A 338 C Co-processor is interfaced in max mode. B Co-processor is interfaced in MIN mode

Co-processor is interfaced in max/min D Supports pipelining mode How many select lines will a 32:1 multiplexer will have A 5 B 8 C 9 D 11

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