Apec 8001 Applied Microeconomic Analysis: Demand Theory Lecture 2: Consumer Choice (MWG, Ch. 2, Pp.17-28)
Apec 8001 Applied Microeconomic Analysis: Demand Theory Lecture 2: Consumer Choice (MWG, Ch. 2, Pp.17-28)
Apec 8001 Applied Microeconomic Analysis: Demand Theory Lecture 2: Consumer Choice (MWG, Ch. 2, Pp.17-28)
II. Commodities
Commodities are simply goods and services that the
consumer values. We assume that there a finite number
of possible commodities, denoted by L. We use to
index these commodities, so that = 1, 2, L.
A commodity vector, or commodity bundle, is denoted
by x. It is a list of the individual commodities in a
specific bundle. It is complete in that it indicates how
much of all L commodities are in the bundle. If some
commodity is not in the bundle then we assign it a value
of zero. Thus the vector x can be explicitly described as
follows:
x1
x
x = 2
x
L
x2
w/p2
{x RL+ : px = w}
Slope = -(p1/p2)
Bp,w
w/p1
x1
x2
w/p2
Bp,w
( x 1 + p1, x 2 + p2)
x = (x - x )
x
w/p1
x1
V. Demand Functions
We can define a consumers Walrasian demand
correspondence, x(p, w), as a relationship that assigns a
set of chosen consumption bundles for every possible
value of p and w. In theory, it is possible that, for a given
(p, w) pair, there is more than one consumption bundle.
However, we will usually assume that there is a single
unique consumption bundle for each (p, w) pair, and so
we can call this relationship the Walrasian demand
function.
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For the rest of this lecture (and the next lecture) we will
make two assumptions about the Walrasian demand
correspondence: it is homogenous of degree zero and it
satisfies Walras law. Lets define these two concepts:
Definition: The Walrasian demand correspondence
x(p, w) is homogenous of degree zero if, for any > 0,
x(p, w) = x(p, w) for any values of p and w.
The intuition here is that the consumer does not suffer
from money illusion; if prices and wealth increase or
decrease by the same proportion then there is no reason to
change his or her consumption bundle. More formally,
such a change in prices and wealth does not change the
consumers feasible consumption bundles (that is Bp,w =
Bp,w) and thus his or her choice should not change.
Definition: The Walrasian demand correspondence
satisfies Walras law if, for every p >> 0 and w > 0,
px(p, w) = w.
This simply states that the consumer spends all the wealth
that he or she has, which is reasonable to assume for most
people (most people do not reach a satiation point). It
is sometimes called the adding up restriction. This
assumption should be interpreted flexibly. In particular,
for a consumer who spends money over several time
periods during his or her life all, we are assuming is that
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x(p, w) = 2
x (p, w)
L
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13
x2
w > w > w
Bp,w
Ep
Bp,w
Bp,w
x( p , w)
x( p , w)
x( p , w)
x1
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RL
D w x(p, w) =
w
x
(p,
w)
L
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p2
x2( p1 , p2, w)
x2( p1 , p2, w)
x2( p1 , p2, w)
x2
Question: Is p 1 > or < p 1?
Another useful way to show price effects in a diagram is
an offer curve, which shows how the demand for two
goods changes as the prices change. In the following
diagram, w and p 1 are held constant while p2 changes:
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x2
p2 < p2 < p2
w/p2
w/p2
x( p1 , p2, w)
w/p2
x( p1 , p2, w)
x( p1 , p2, w)
w/p1
x1
x 1 (p, w)
x 1 (p, w)
p
p L
1
D px(p, w) =
x
(p,
w)
x
(p,
w)
L
L
p L
p1
pk
x (p, w)
x (p, w)
p k
w (p, w) =
x (p, w)
w
x (p, w)
w
k =1
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=1
x (p, w)
+ x k(p, w) = 0 for k = 1, 2, L
p k
=1
x (p, w)
=1
w
=1
(Cournot)
b (p, w)w(p, w) = 1
=1
(Engel)
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