1.

In demand forecasting important method used in trend projection is: (a) Scientific Method (b) Box-Jenkins Method (c) Delphi Method (d) Logistics Method Ans. (b) 2. The term job satisfaction refers to: (a) A collection of feelings that an individual has towards his/her job. (b) The degree to which an individual identifies himself/herself with job. (c) The degree to which an individual identifies himself/herself with the, organization. (d) None of the above. Ans. (a) 3. The following are the three components of creativity: (a) Expertise, creativity skills and task motivation (b) Expertise, innovation and rationality (c) Expertise, rationality and relevance (d) Expertise, novelty and performance Ans. (b) 4. The factor theory propounded by: (a) Fredrick Hertzberg (b) David McClellanel

(c) Mc Cardhy (d) Philip Rotler Ans. (a) 5. Grape Wine is the term used in relation to: (a) Formal Communication (b) Informal Communication (c) Horizontal Communication (d) Vertical Communication Ans. (b) 6. Mutual cooperation and net working is: (a) Win-win strategy (b) Networking strategy (c) Franchise strategy (d) Competitive strategy Ans. (a) 7. A list of Jobs duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, and working conditions is called: (a) Job enhancement (b) Job specification (c) Job description (d) Job enlargement Ans. (c) 8. The use of predesigned set of questions used in an interview process leads to:

(a) Behavioural interview (b) Situational interview (c) Non-directional interview (d) Structured interview Ans. (d) 9. One of the following is training provided to enhance decision making skills: (a) On the job training (b) Behavioural modeling (c) Management games (d) Action learning Ans. (c) 10. Dramatic reduction of manpower is called: (a) Termination (b) Retrenchment (c) Down sizing (d) Right sizing Ans. (b) 11. Monitoring employees through a preplanned series of position is called: (a) Promotion (b) Succession planning (c) Job reporting (d) Job rotation

Ans. (b) 12. A situation where management is unable to provide employment due to non-availability of work is called: (a) Lock out (b) Lay off (c) Termination (d) Closure Ans. (b) 13. The basic goal of financial management is: (a) Maximizing the profit (b) Maximizing shareholders wealth n the long run (c) Maximizing the rate of dividend (d) Minimizing the business risk. Ans. (a) 14. The principal value of a bond is called: (a) Coupon rate (b) Par value (c) Maturity value (d) Market value Ans. (b) 15. Trade credit is a: (a) Negotiated source of finance

(b) Hybrid source of finance (c) Spontaneous source of finance (d) Source of credit from the owners of the business Ans. (a) 16. IRR is the rate of interest: (a) Equal to the cost of capital of the proposal (b) Prevailing rate interest in the market (c) Paid on the bonds by the firm (d) That makes the NPV of capital proposal almost zero Ans. (d) 17. Mutually exclusive investment proposals are these: (a) Wherein the acceptance of one proposal leads to rejection of all other proposals (b) That requires special sources of financing (c) That has unique features (d) The reduce the total risk complexion of the firm Ans. (a) 18. The technique used for classifying inventory according to the value of usage is called: (a) XYZ Analysis (b) DCF Analysis (c) ABC Analysis (d) DEF Analysis Ans. (a)

19. When a consumer derives more satisfaction from a product/service than his expectation, it is known as: (a) Consumer satisfaction (b) Consumer delight (c) Consumer dazzling (d) Consumer dissatisfaction Ans. (b) 20. Classical conditioning is associated with: (a) Repetition (b) Generalization (c) Discrimination (d) All Ans. (a) 21. The process selecting, organizing and interpreting or attaining meaning to events happening in the environment is called: (a) Perception (b) Attitude (c) Personality (d) Learning Ans. (a) 22. Under which concept of marketing customer remains focused? (a) Marketing (b) Production

(c) Product (d) Selling Ans. (a) 23. Segmentation of consumers based on factors like climatic conditions and regions are known as: (a) Demographic Segmentation (b) Cultural Segmentation (c) Geographic Segmentation (d) Administrative Segmentation Ans. (c) 24. Which city is more favourable for selling electric blankets? (a) Mumbai (b) Chennai (c) Shillong (d) Pune Ans. (c) 25. Decision on plant layout and location are concerned with: (a) System design (b) System operations (c) System control (d) None of the above Ans. (c)

26. Production system which enables for maximizing the scale advantage is: (a) Flow type (b) Intermittent type (c) Batch type (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 27. Which of the following is the objective of production scheduling? (a) Where to start the operation (b) When to start the operation (c) How to start the operation (d) When to start as well as stop the operation Ans. (d) 28. SQC requires determination of: (a) Quality tolerance limit (b) Quantity measurement (c) Production load time (d) Inventory carrying cost Ans. (a) 29. AQL (Acceptable Quality Level) is: (a) Maximum number of detective that the consumers will accept (b) Fraction detective (f) that the user considers acceptable (c) Fraction detective (f) that the producer considers acceptable

(d) Maximum number of detectives that the producer will allow Ans. (b) 30. The probability of drawing a Spade from a well shuffled packet of cards is: (a) 1/52 (b) 4/52 (c) 1/4 (d) 2/3 Ans. (b) 31. If both the regression coefficients are negative, the correlation coefficient would be: (a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) None of these Ans. (a) 32. Chi-square distribution is: (a) Continuous (b) Multimodel (c) Symmetrical referred (d) Nome of the above Ans. (a) 33. Sick enterprise is referred to: (a) World Bank

(b) SIDBI (c) RBI (d) BIFR Ans. (d) 34. Which of the following is the cause of sickness of an enterprise? (a) Lack of adequate capital (b) Lack of demand for the products (c) Lack of competition (d) All the above Ans. (d) 35. Which one of the following is not the social responsibility of business? (a) Adopting villages for development (b) Setting up educational institutes (c) Opening research and development department (d) Construction of temples Ans. (d) 36. Which o of the following is not related to Business Ethics? (a) Environmental ethics (b) Social responsibility of business (c) Profiteering (d) Ecological consciousness Ans. (c)

37. Ethical values are derived from: (a) Corporate objectives (b) Organizational culture (c) The Bible, the Koran and the Geeta (d) Corporative philosophy Ans. (d) 38. The Cobb-Douglass Production Function is often used as: (a) Q =A K a Lb (b) Q =AK a L 1-b (c) log Q = a log k = log c (d) Q = A b a L a Ans. (a) 39. Swimming price for a new product is: (a) Low initial price (b) Average price (c) High initial price (d) Moderate price Ans. (c) 40. Under monopoly market structure, the degree of freedom is pricing decision is: (a) Very low (b) Quite good

(c) Very high (d) Zero Ans. (b) 41. Capital budgeting decision are generally: (a) Irreversible (c) Irrevocable (b) Reversible (d) Revocable Ans. (a) 42. Which one is not the prerequisite of a perfect market? (a) Existence of large number of buyers and sellers in the market (b) Free flow of market information among the players (c) Free entry and free exit (d) Intervention of the Government. Ans. (d) 43. The term emotion refers to: (a) A broad range of feelings that a person experiences (b) A broad and intense feeling that is directed at someone or something (c) A broad range of feelings in the form of anger that a person experiences (d) None bf the above Ans. (b) 44. PERT stands for

(a) Production Estimation & Research Technique (b) Project Evaluation and Review Technique (c) Project Estimation & Research Technique (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 45. Mass communication tools available to marketers include: (a) Advertising (b) Sales promotion (c) Public relations (d) All the above Ans. (d) 46. Distribution channel aims of moving products from producer to: (a) Ultimate consumer (b) Retailers (c) Stockists (d) Brokers Ans. (a) 47. Minimum wages are fixed by: (a) Trade Unions (b) Employees (c) State Governments (d) Court of law

Ans. (c) 48. Demand curve under monopolistic competition is: (a) Downward sloping and flat (b) Downward sloping and steep (c) Parallel to X axis (d) Parallel to Y axis Ans. (a) 49. If the demand curve is rectangular hyperbola, the elasticity is: (a) One (b) Zero (c) Infinity (d) Less than one Ans. (a) 50. Supply creates its own demand is known as: (a) Keyresian law (b) Say s law (c) Veblen law (d) Griffins law Ans. (b) Management Objective solved paper Management Objective solved paper MCQ solved paper

online solved questions for management 1. The Law of Diminishing Returns depends on the assumption that: (a) Total output is constant (b) The state of technical knowledge is unchanged (c) Land is the factor kept constant (d) Average output declines faster than marginal output Ans. (b) 2. An ISQ cost line represents: (a) Combinations of two inputs which yield the same amount of output (b) Combinations of two inputs which cost the same amount to a firm (c) Combinations of two inputs which yields varying amounts of output (d) Combination of two inputs which Cost different amounts of outlay to a firm Ans. (b) 3. Pure monopoly exists: (a) When there is a single producer (b) When there is a single producer without any close substitutes (c) When there is a single producer with close substitutes (d) When a few producers control the industry Ans. (b) 4. Under bilateral monopoly the price is higher if: (a) The monopolist has his way (b) The monopolist acts as a competitor

(c) The monopolist ha his way (d) The monopolist sells his own product in a monopoly market Ans. (a) 5. Match the following: List-I A. Increasing cost industry B. Decreasing cost industry C. Constant cost industry Codes: ABC (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 3 Ans. (c) 6. Match the following: List-I List-II 1. e > 1 2. e = 1 3. e < 1 4. e = 0 List-II 1. Horizontal long run supply curve 2. Positively sloped long run supply curve 3. Negatively sloped long run supply curve

A. For a given 10% change in price, demand changes by 0% B. For a given 10% change in price, demand changes by 5% C. For a given 10% change in price, demand changes by 10% D. For a given 10% change in price, demand changes by 20% Codes:

ABCD (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 Ans. (b) 7. When AR is falling, MR will be: (a) Equal to AR (b) Less than AR (c) More than AR (d) Either more or equal to AR Ans. (b) 8. In case the two commodities are complements, cross elasticity will be: (a) Positive (b) Unitary (c) Negative (d) Infinite Ans. (c) 9. MU curve will he below X-axis when: (a) MU is positive (b) MU is negative (c) MU is zero

(d) MU is constant Ans. (b) 10. OPEC is an example of the type of producer s organization known as a: (a) Marketing board (b) Producer s cooperative (c) Trust (d) Cartel Ans. (d) 11. How throne studies s have proved that: 1. Wherever the supervisors are employee-centered, the output of the employees is more. 2. Wherever the supervisors are production-centered, the output of the employees is more. 3. Wherever the supervisors are production-centered, the output of the employees is less. 4. Wherever the supervisors are employee-centered, the output of the employees is less. Codes: (a) l and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 sand 3 (d) 2 and 4

Ans. (c) 12. The Scientific Management was criticized on the grounds that: 1. It did not put forward a fully developed theory. 2. The Social and Psychological factors were emphasized by it. 3. It over simplified the worker motivation. 4. It viewed efficiency in mechanistic term only. 5. It emphasized only physiological variables of production. Select the correct code: (a) l, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, and 5 (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 Ans. (c) 13. The reasons for acknowledging Taylor as the Father of Scientific Management are: 1. He is the originator of Scientific Management 2. He coined the term Scientific Management . 3. He is the first to give a complete explanation of Scientific Management . 4. He gave the techniques of Scientific Management a general framework for wider acceptance. Codes: (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4 Ans. (d) 14. Assertion (A): The neglect of the human side of the organization has been one of the major criticisms of Taylorism. Reason (R): Taylor and his followers had viewed organization mechanically. Codes: (a) A and R are true and R is the true explanation of A. (b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (a) 15. Assertion (A): Scientific Management did put forward a fully developed theory of organization. Reason (R): It addressed itself to the problems of the shop floor. Codes: (a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Ans. (d) 16. Which of the following is NOT correct? (a) Informal organizations are spontaneous and sentimental. (b) Informal organizations are customary and societal.

(c) Informal organizations are legal and rational. (d Informal organizations are personal and emotional. Ans. (c) 17. Match the following: List-I A. Behavioural Approach B. Scientific Management C. System Approach D. Classical Theory Codes: ABCD (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 2 1 3 Ans. (b) 18. Listed below are four leadership qualities mentioned by Chester Barnard: 1. Responsibility and intellectual capacity 2. Decisiveness 3. Vitality and endurance 4. Persuasiveness what according to him is their importance in descending order? List-II 1. Interaction between organization and environment 2. Formulation of principles of organization. 3. Work done at the lowest level. 4. People in the organization.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes: (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3 Ans. (c) 19. Assertion (A): The terms leader and manager are interchangeable. Reason (R): Leadership is a sub-class of management. Codes: (a) A and R are true and R explains A. (b) A and R are true but R does not explain A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (d) 20. Which of the following is not an audible media of communication? (a) Public meeting (b) Personal demonstration (c) Interviewing (d) Broadcasting Ans. (b) 21. Arrange the following ingredients of communication process in the proper order:

1. Message 2. Receiver 3. Encoder 4. Channel 5. Decoder (a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 (c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 Ans. (c) 22. Match the following: List-I List-II 1. Allen 2. Follet

A. Leadership is often made or broken by circumstance B. A person is born with the talent for personal leadership, he must learn management leadership. C. We should think not only of what the leader does to the group, but also of what the group does to the leader. D. Leadership depends upon the individual, the followers and the conditions. Codes: ABCD

3. Barnard

4. Millet

(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (d) 23. Assertion (A): Communication is the passing of information in the organization. Reason (R): Communication is the blood of every organization. Codes: (a) A and R are true and R explains A. (b) A and R are true but R does not explain (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (d) 24. Match the following: List-I (a) Alderfer (b) Maslow (c) Hertzberg (d) Mc Gregor 5. Hierarchy of Needs Codes: ABCD List-II 1. Job Enrichment 2. Job Enlargement 3. Theory X and Theory Y 4. ERG Theory

(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 4 5 (c) 4 5 2 3 (d) 4 5 1 3 Ans. (d) 25. Which of the following is the first systematically stated theory of motivation? (a) Hertzberg s Theory (b) Maslow Theory (c) Monistic Theory (d) Mc Gregor s Theory Ans. (b) 26. The management of personnel is also called: (a) Staffing (b) Controlling (c) Co-coordinating (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 27. Common uses of information generated via performance appraisal include all of the following except: (a) Administrative/personal decisions. (b) Organizational training and development programme. (c) Input to job content evaluation.

(d) Feedback to individual s performance. Ans. (c) 28. Successful career planning and development requires action from: (a) The organization, his employee s immediate manager, and the employee. (b) The employee and his/her immediate manager. (c) A variety of sources both internal and external to the organization: (d) The employee with some assistance! guidance from his or her immediate manager. Ans. (a) 29. A frequently used method for determining training needs involves: (a) In-depth interviews of randomly selected employees. (b) Group discussions with employee groups. (c) Individual skill assessment by supervisor. (d) Observation analyses conducted by training. experts Ans. (c) 30. The ultimate goal of OD is to: (a) Structure the organizational environment so that managers and employers can use their developed skills and abilities to the fullest. (b) Reduce the levels of uncertainty in managerial decision making throughout the organization. (c) Create an internal environment which is conducive to self expression. (d) Change the traditional relationship between the supervisors and subordinates. Ans. (a) 31. Incentives gives on psychological base:

(a) Are not financial (b) Monetary and non-monetary (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 32. Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified the following two variables: (i) Employee-oriented (ii) Production-oriented (iii) Goal-oriented (iv) Group-oriented The Correct Code is: (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) Ans. (c) 33. In line organization: (a) The organization is divided according to the skill required to perform a work. (b) The organizational is divided according to the type of work involve. (c) The authority flows from the man at the top to the lowest man vertically. (d) Each worker serves a number of supervisors. Ans. (c)

34. Letter of credit is now becoming an increasingly popular method of financing: (a) Fixed capital needs (b) Working capital needs (c) Redemption of debentures (d) Distribution of dividend Ans. (b) 35. In which of the following types of insurance should insurable interest be present only at the time when policy is taken? (a) Fire Insurance (b) Life Insurance (c) Marine Insurance (d) Life & Marine Insurance Ans. (b) 36. The agreement of partnership: (a) must be oral (b) must be in writing (c) can be either oral or in writing (d) must be in writing on a stamp paper Ans. (c) 37. The first Stock Exchange was set up in India in: (a) 1887 (b) 1905

(c) 1908 (d) 1923 Ans. (a) 38. Working capital can be used for the purchase of: (a) Machinery (b) Goodwill (c) Land & Building (d) Raw. Material Ans. (d) 39. In which of the following, rate of interest/dividend is not fixed? (a) Equity Capital (b) Debentures (c) Preference Capital (d) Public deposits Ans. (a) 40. When an existing company offers its shares for sale to the existing shareholders, it is known as: (a) Private placing (b) Bonus issue (c) Rights issue (d) Offer for sale Ans. (c)

41. Which of the following speculative activities is based on disparity in quote prices in different markets? (a) Option dealings (b) Arbitrage (c) Margin trading (d) Blank Transfers Ans. (b) 42. Motivational process and not the motivators as such is associated. with the: (a) Need hierarchy theory (b) Two-factor theory (c) ERG theory (d) Expectancy theory Ans. (d) 43. Perceived equity in reward results in satisfaction , which one of the following motivation theories take this into account? (a) Porter and Lowler model (b) Victor Vroom s Expectancy scheme. (c) F. W. Taylor s incentive scheme (d) Hertzberg s Two-factor theory Ans. (a) 44. It for a demand process suited to a = 0.1 we try to fit a forecasting procedure with a = 0.3, the forecast will:

(a) Show large swings up and down (b) Follow the demand better, consequently reducing forecast errors (c) Show a pronounced leveled behaviour (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 45. When work stations are arranged according to the progressive steps by which the product is produced, it is called a: (a) Functional layout (b) Process layout (c) Fixed position layout (d) Product layout Ans. (d) 46. Process layout offers the advantage of: (a) Adaptability to changes (b) Better job satisfaction for the workers (c) Higher flow times (d) Both (a) and (b) Ans. (d) 47. A line layout generally provides the advantages of: (a) Simple tasks that can be done with less skilled manpower. (b) Lower levels of work-in-process inventories. (c) Lower materials handling casts.

(d) All of the above Ans. (d) 48. The Price index that uses base year quantities as weights is called: (a) Passche s index (b) Laspe yere s index (c) Fisher s ideal index (d) Whole sale price index Ans. (b) 49. SEBI was established in: (a) 1993 (b) 1992 (c) 1988 (d) 1990 Ans. (c) 50. National Sample Survey (NSS) was established in: (a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1947 Ans. (a) MODEL UGC -NET PAPER I This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching? (A) To give information related to the syllabus. (B) To develop thinking power of students. (C) To dictate notes to students. (D) To prepare students to pass the examination. 2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching? (A) Lecture and Dictation (B) Seminar and Project (C) Seminar and Dictation (D) Dictation and Assignment 3. Teacher uses teaching aids for (A) Making teaching interesting (B) Making teaching within understanding level of students (C) Making students attentive. (D) The sake of its use. 4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on (A) Qualification of teacher (B) Personality of teacher (C) Handwriting of teacher (D) Subject understanding of teacher 5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity (B) Subjectivity (C) No use of vague words (D) Reliable. 6. A researcher is generally expected to: (A) Study the existing literature in a field (B) Generate new principles and theories (C) Synthesize the idea given by others (D) Evaluate the findings of a study 7. One of the essential characteristics of research is: (A) Replicability (B) Generalizability (C) Usability (D) Objectivity 8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is: (A) Case Study (B) Developmental (C) Survey (D) Experimental 9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a

(A) Conference (B) Seminar (C) Workshop (D) Symposium 10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called (A) Research paper (B) Article (C) Thesis (D) Research report Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15 The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent. Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage. But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.

11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our (A) Political system (B) Social behaviour (C) Individual behaviour (D) Behaviour of a group of people 12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind (A) Economic prosperity (B) Vote bank (C) People' welfare (D) Patriotism 13. "Trump Card" means (A) Trying to move a dead horse (B) Playing the card cautiously (C) Sabotaging all the moves by others (D) Making the final jolt for success 14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies (A) Lust for power (B) Desire to serve the nation (C) Conviction in one's own political abilities (D) Political corruption 15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha

(A) 10 (B) 7. 91 (C) 43 (D) 9. 1 16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as (A) Interpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal Communication (C) Mass Communication (D) Grapevine Communication 17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as (A) Gyan Darshan (B) Vyas (C) Eklavya (D) Kisan 18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information: (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Punjab 19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is (A) Inform, Entertainment & Education

(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction (C) Educate, Interact & entertain (D) Entertainment only 20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of: (A) Personality of communicator (B) Experience in the field (C) Interactivity with target audience (D) Meeting the needs of target audience. 21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date: (A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony (B) Trees in a garden (C) Vehicular traffic on a highway (D) Student population in a class 22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief? (A) Antecedent - consequent (B) Acceptability (C) Verifiability (D) Demonstratability 23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is (A) A fact (B) An value

(C) An opinion (D) A value judgement 24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard? (A) Beam (B) Plank (C) Shaft (D) Timber 25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ? (A) 300 (B) 200 (C) 100 (D) 150 26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements? (i) All machines make noise (ii) Some machines are noisy (iii) No machine makes noise (iv) Some machines are not noisy (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv) 28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors. Assumptions: (i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work. (ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work. (A) Only assumption (i) is implicit (B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit (C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit (D) Both the assumptions are implicit 29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-restraint? (i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices. (ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences. (A) Only the argument (i) is strong (B) Only the argument (ii) is strong (C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong (D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong 30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down. What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument? (A) Valid (B) Invalid (C) Doubtful (D) Long drawn one Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below. Papers I W X Y Z 60 59 74 72 II 81 43 A 76 III 45 51 71 A IV 55 A 65 68

Students

Where 'A' stands for absent Where 'A' stands for absent Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35 31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate (A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z 32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z 33. Who has obtained the highest average (A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z 34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV 35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared (A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z 36. ICT stands for (A) Information common technology

(B) Information & communication technology (C) Information and computer technology (D) Inter connected technology 37. Computer Can (A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information (B) Store huge information (C) Process information and fast accurately (D) All the above. 38. Satellite Communication works through (A) Rader (B) Transponder (C) Receptor (D) Transmitter 39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is (A) Correct (B) Incorrect (C) Partially correct (D) None of the above. 40. Information and communication technology includes (A) E-mail

(B) Internet (C) Education television (D) All the above. 41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in. (A) Increase in availability of usable land. (B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles. (C) Fall in the sea level (D) melting of polar ice. 42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination? (A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Sikkim (D) West Bengal 43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for (A) Grasslands (B) Conifers (C) Mangroves (D) Arid forests 44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river (A) Ganga

(B) Godavari (C) Mahanadi (D) Narmada 45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value? (A) Pine (B) Teak (C) Neem (D) Oak 46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India: (A) Medical (B) Management (C) Pharmaceutical (D) Aeronautical 47. Which of the following is a Central university (A) Mumbai University (B) Calcutta University (C) Delhi University (D) Madras University 48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates (A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature (B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary (D) Theory of Separation of Power 49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is: (A) 30 % of the total seats (B) 33 % of the total seate (C) 33% of the total population (D) In Proportion to their population 50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below: LIST ( Institutions) LIST II( Locations) 1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute (i) Pune 2. Institute of Armament Technology (ii) Izat Nagar 3. Indian Institute of Science (iii) Delhi 4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi (iv) Bangalore and Administrators (A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii) (B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii) (C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)

(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) Source: Sample Paper based on questions provided by UGC Model Paper. Answer Key: 1. 11. 21. 31. 41. B 2. B 12. A 22. A 32. D 42. B 3. B 13. B 23. B 33. D 43. B 4. D 14. D 24. A 34. C 44. D 5. A 15. A 25. B 35. D 45. B 6. B 16. A 26. D 36. C 46. B 7. D 17. D 27. B 37. A 47. D 8. C 18. C 28. D 38. C 48. C 9. C 19. D 29. B 39. A 49. A 10. A 20. A 30. A 40. B 50. B D D D A

UGC NET Mangement Solved paper II 2006 UGC NET Mangement Solved paper II 2006 UGC course material solved question paper of Management UGC NET CSIR UGC NET Study Material Solved Question Paper Management Solved previous questions UGC NET Management previous years solved papers of management 1. Which pattern reflects a pure executive form of management? (a) Functional (b) Line (c) Line and Staff (d) Committee Ans. (a) 2. Match the following: A. Increasing cost industry B. Decreasing cost industry C. Constant cost 1. Horizontal long run supply curve 2. Positively sloped long run supply curve 3. Negatively sloped long run supply curve industry

Codes: ABC (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 3 Ans. (c) 3. The management of personnel is also called: (a) Staffing (b) Controlling (c) Co-coordinating (d) None of these Ans. (a) 4. Assertion (A): High capital gearing leads to greater speculation. . Reason (R): Proportion of equity share capital in relation to the total capital comprising the other securities is small leading to capitalization being highly geared. Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (d) 5. Techniques of managerial control are useful in: (a) Selection of plant location (b) Identifying appropriate strategy (c) Profit planning (d) Conducting shareho1der s meetings Ans. (c) 6. Opportunity costs are also known as: (a) Spillover costs (b) Money-costs (c) Alternative costs (d) External costs Ans. (d) 7. Assertion (A): The focus of scientific management was narrow. Reason (R): It concentrated on the work done at the lowest level. Codes: (a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (a)

8. The Human Relations Theory does not lay emphasis on: A. Principles B. People C. Human motivations D. Informal group function Select the answer from answer from the codes given below: (a) A (b) A and B. (c) A, B and C (d) A, B, C and D Ans. (a) 9. What is consumer market? (a) Buyer s (b) Seller s (b) Distributors (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 10. There will be only one regression line in case of two variables if: (a) r = 0 (b) r = l (c) r = 0.5

(d) None of them Ans. (b) 11. Match the following: A. Various combinations of two commodities 1. Indifference map that a consumer can purchase B. Various combinations of two commodities 2. Indifference curve that give consumer equal satisfaction C. A set of indifference curves D. Point of agency of a budget line and an indifference curve Codes: ABCD (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 Ans. (d) 12. The area which lies under the demand curve for a given good measures: (a) Marginal utility (b) Total utility (c) Disutility 3. Budget Line 4. Consumer s equilibrium

(d) Marginal cost of production Ans. (b) 13. The prime cost may be considered as: (a) Variable cost (b) Direct cost (b) Sunk cost (d) Fixed cost Ans. (d) 14. The optimum is the one which is produced: (a) By the optimum firm (b) At the maximum average cost (c) At the minimum average cost (d) At zero marginal cost Ans. (c) 15. Product mix consist: (a) 2 P (b) 6 P (c) 4 P (d) None of these Ans. (c) 16. Gresham s law is related to:

(a) Consumption and Demand (b) Supply and Demand (c) Circulation of Money (d) Deficit Financing Ans. (c) 17. SDR is the currency of IMF which is in the form of: (a) Paper currency (b) Gold (c) Silver and gold both (d) Book-keeping entry only Ans. (d) 18. Assertion (A): The investors in the capital market have been showing a decisive shift in favour of fixed income instruments. Reason (R): The debt instruments have active secondary market. Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d A is false but R is true. Ans. (c) 19. The first stock exchange was set up in India in:

(a) Calcutta (b) Bombay (c) Delhi (d) Madras Ans. (b) 20. Under perfect competition, a firm will be in equilibrium when its AC is: (a) At a maximum (b) At a minimum (c) Covering only prime costs of production (d) Covering wages and salaries only Ans. (b) 21. The greatest weakness of the informal organizations: (a) Its utter instability (b) Its behaviour can be predicted (c) It does not change (d) All of the above Ans. (a) 22. Which of the following are devices to bring about co-ordination? A. Cabinet Committees B. Union Government C. Zonal Councils

D. National Development Council (a) A and B only (b) B only (c) A, B, and D only (d) A, B, C, and D Ans. (d) 23. TQM S major emphasis is on: (a) Product Quality (b) Company Profitability (c) Customer Delight (d) Employees Training Ans. (a) 24. The theory which deals with the comparative statistics and positive equilibrium is called: (a) Macro Economics (b) Modern Economics (c) Micro Economics (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 25. An informal organization is: A. Not written and manualised B. Not portrayed in organizational charts

C. A set of work relationship that grow out of the mutual interactions of persons working together over a period of time D. Customary, not enacted Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) A only (b) A and B only (c) A, B and C only (d A, B, C and D Ans. (d) 26. When the greater the elasticity of supply the change in the new equilibrium price will: (a) Be higher (b) Be higher than previous price (c) Be lower (d) Be lower than previous price Ans. (c) 27. In the short run, the monopolist: (a) Incurs a loss (b) Breaks down (c) Makes a profit (d) Any of the above Ans. (d)

28. Match the following: A. Responsiveness of demand to change in price B. Responsiveness of demand to change in tastes 1. Income elasticity of demand 2. Price elasticity of demand

C. Responsiveness of demand to change in income 3. Cross elasticity of demand D. Responsiveness of demand to change in price of related goods Codes: ABCD (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 4 1 3 Ans. (d) 29. A stable equilibrium position is one in which: (a) There are never any departures from the equilibrium position (b) There are only two forces influencing equilibrium (c) Any departure from the equilibrium position calls into play forces which end to restore that position (d) There are endless oscillations Ans. (c) 30. We can separate the income effect from the substitution effect of the price fall of reducing the consumers: 4. Taste elasticity of demand

(a) Money income sufficiently to keep his real income constant (b) Money income to make his real income higher (c) Money income to make his real income lower (d) None of these Ans. (a) 31. The Law of Diminishing Returns is applied to all fields of production was stated by (a) Walras (b) A. C. Pigou (c) Alfred Marshall (d) David Ricardo Ans. (a) 32. Assertion (A): A manager dealing with trained subordinates can afford to operate on a wide span. Reason (R): Trained subordinates carry on their functions without very frequent reference to the superior. Codes: (a.) A and R are true and R explains A. (b) A and R are true but R does not explain A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (a) 33. Pocus on social environment is related to the:

(a) Human Relations (b) Unity of direction (c) Unity of command (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 34. Which of the following are associated with the Scientific Management Movement? 1. Functional-Foremanship 2. Centralization 3. Time and motion study 4. Unity of command Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) l and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) l, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3, and 4 Ans. (a) 35. Commercial banks are now permitted to I undertake to the business of: (a) Equipment leasing (b) Mutual funds (c) Factoring (d) All of these

Ans. (d) 36. Marketing research data is gathered by: (a) Observation (b) In-depth interviews (c) Controlled experiment (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 37. Who authored book Policy and Management ? (a) Gladden (b) Weber (c) Dimock (d) Appleby Ans. (d) 38. If the agreement is silent, an arbitration reference is to appoint: (a) Sole arbitrator (b) Two or more arbitrators (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 39. Structure variable is synonymous with:: (a) Task

(b) Relations (c) Styles (d) Attitude Ans. (a) 40. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, does not at all apply to: (a) State Bank of India and its subsidiaries (b) Nationalized Banks (c) Foreign Banks having their offices in India (d) Primary agricultural credit societies and co-operative and mortgagee banks Ans. (d) 41. Which of the following is most likely to cause an immediate increase in the stage of the working population? (a) A rise in the average size of families (b) An increase in the birth rate (c) A fall in the death rate of the over 60 years old (d) More favourable tax treatment of the earnings, married women Ans. (d) 42. You are the manager of a firm. Which of the following activities do you initiate first? (a) Planning (b) Organizing

(c) Staffing (d) Directing Ans. (a) 43. The Industrial Finance Corporation, of India came into existence in (a) July, 1948 (b) August, 1968 (c) September, 1951 (d) None of these Ans. (a) 44. A court has power to: (a) Modify the award of an arbitrator with his consent (b) Modify the award subject to the consent of the parties (c) Nullify the arbitration agreement (d) None of these Ans. (d) 45. The three objectives of scientific management are: 1. Standardization of working conditions 2. Standardization of work methods 3. Planning of large daily tasks 4. Maximization of employment Select the correct code from the following:

(a) l, 2 and 4 (b) l, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (c) 46. Scientific management addressed itself to the problems of: (a) Bottom part of organization (b) Top management (c) Middle tier of management (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 47. Which of the following is not a typically used procedure to reduce the total number of employees? (a) Lay off (b) Terminations (c) Downturns (d) Early retirement in inducements Ans. (d) 48. You require capital for purchase of fixed assets. What is this capital called : (a) Floating capital (b) Reserve capital

(c) Circulating capital (d) Fixed capital Ans. (a) 49. Who is the final authority for deciding the design, form and material of bank notes? (a) Central Government (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Indian Bank s Association (d) Note Issuing Authority of India Ans. (c) 50. Who is author of The Function of the Executive ? (a) Chester Bernard (b) Cart Rogers (c) A. H. Maslow (d) E. Mayo Ans. (a) Thursday, November 18, 2010 UGC NET Management 2008 solved paper 1. Data collection terminals gather data for use by the: (a) Inventory subsystem (b) Cost subsystem (c) Production subsystem (d) All of the above Ans. (d)

2. Average inventory level is educed by: (a) Decreasing the vender lead time (b) Increasing the usage rate (c) Decreasing the order quantity (d) Lowering the reorder point Ans. (c) 3. Below are given four different theories: (1) Trait approach (ii) Attitude criterion (iii) Behaviour approach (iv) Situational approach These are identified with: (a) Administrative behaviour (b) Organizational behaviour (c) Leadership index (d) Administrative approaches Ans. (c) 4. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the: (a) Finance function (b) Marketing function (c) Manufacturing function (d) Information system function Ans. (c) 5. Focus on Social Environment is related to: (a) Unity of Command (b) Human Relations (c) Unity of Direction (d) Delegation Ans. (b) 6. Section 16 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a person: (a) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is an undischarged insolvent. (b) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is not of sound financial position. (c) To be appointed as director of more than one banking company. (d) None of these Ans. (c)

7. The funds management subsystem attempts to: (a) Increase cash input (b) Decrease cash output (c) Balance cash inflow with outflow (d) All of the above Ans. (c) 8. The democratic leadership style goes with: (a) Theory X (b) Theory Y (c) Theory Z (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 9. This type of information overlay indicates the key people who can accomplish something because they know the ropes. (a) The decision overlay (b) The power overlay (c) The communication overlay (d) The functional overlay Ans. (b) 10. Delegation of authority results in: (a) Avoiding responsibility (b) Centralization of powers at top level (c) Costliness of decision (d) Enabling the managers to distribute their work load Ans. (d) 11. Taylorism: 1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man. 2. Underestimated the meaning of human motivation. 3. Emphasized only a limited number of physiological variables. 4. Completely neglected the psychological aspects. Select the correct code from the following: (a) (l)+(2) (b) (1)+(2)+(3) (c) (l)+(3)+(4)

(d) All of the above Ans. (d) 12. Which of the following markets is associated with short term funds? (a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Stock market (d) Chamber of commerce Ans. (c) 13. In India, the system of decimal coinage introduced on: (a) 15th August 1947 (b) 26th January 1950 (c) 1st April 1957 (d) None of these Ans. (a) 14. The most structured marketing problems are likely to be those dealing with: (a) Product (b) Promotion (c) Place (d) Price Ans. (b) 15. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the: (a) Finance, function (b) Marketing function (c) Manufacturing function (d) Information system function Ans. (d) 16. One who does too much work is called (a) A squealer (b) A rate buster (b) A chiseller (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 17. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is the meeting called? (a) Extra ordinary meeting

(b) Statutory meeting (c) Committee meeting . (d) Annual general meeting Ans. (a) 18. The management of a company is vested in the hands of: (a) Shareholders (b) Directors (c) Board of directors elected by shareholders (d) Creditors Ans. (c) 19. A popular technique for forecasting is: (a) Correlation analysis (b) Regression analysis (c) Linear programming (d) Month Carlo Ans. (b) 20. Which of the following is not a component of the new issue market? (a) Stock exchange (b) Unit Trust of India (c) Financial Institution like IFC, IDBI (d) LIC Ans. (d) 21. Bank deposits are money when they are: (a) Lying with Bank (b) In circulation (c) Kept with government (d) Kept with R.B.I. Ans. (b) 22. Money is: (a) Consumer goods (b) Capital goods (c) Producer goods (d) Neither of them Ans. (d)

23. Papers on the Science of Administration is written by: (a) L. Urwick (b) Gullick (c) Both combined (d) M. P. Follett Ans. (c) 24. Find the correct answer regarding classical theory of organizations? (i) It throws focus on human beings as such (ii) It throws focus not on human beings as such but on the role (iii) It is normally the dominant set of work relationship. (iv) All of the above (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (iv) only Ans. (b) 25. Full delegation is called: (a) Alter-ego (b) Shelter-ego (c) Ego (d) None of the above Ans. (d) 26. The Modern Theory is also called the: (a) System Analysis of Organizations (b) Human Relations Theory (b) Mechanistic Theory (d) Structural Theory Ans. (a) 27. Sales invoicing is a: (a) Pre-sales activity (b) Job of finance department (c) Post-sales activity (d) All of the above. Ans. (a)

28. Managerial decision-making refers to: (a) Programmed decisions (b) Unprogrammed decisions (c) Information system (d) Operation system Ans. (b) 29. Which of the following statement is true? (a) Authority can not be delegated, but responsibility can be delegated (b) Both authority and responsibility can be delegated (c) Authority ca only be delegated (d) Responsibility can only be delegated Ans. (a) 30. Dynamic factors in trade theory refer to change in: (a) Factor endowments (b) Technology (c) Tastes (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 31. The classical theory of organizations manifest following certain features which are: (i) Impersonality (ii) Division of work (iii) Hierarchy (iv) Efficiency (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only (c) (i), iii and (iv) only (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ans. (d) 32. The line agency should not have: (a) Operating unit (b) Major substantial purpose (c) Advisory and co-coordinating functions (d) Independent staff Ans. (b)

33. The difference between the line and staff units is: (a) Marginal (b) Qualitative (c) Quantitative (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 34. Oral communication in Organisations are: (a) Formal communication (b) Information communication (c) Discretionary communication (d) All of the above Ans. (b) 35. Structure variable is synonymous with: (a) Task (b) Relation (c) Style (d) Attitude Ans. (a) 36. Effective supervision is an activity of: (a) Organization function (b) Staffing function (c) Direction function (d) Control function Ans. (c) 37. Accent of human relation theory is: (a) Action-Oriented (b) Hierarchy-Oriented (c) Organization-Oriented (d) None of the above Ans. (a) 38. Marketing research does not normally: (a) Gather environmental information (b) Provide a continuous source of information (c) Relate to all aspects of. marketing operations

(d) Describe the current situation Ans. (b) 39. A periodic report can be used to: (a) Identify the problem (b) Evaluate solution (c) Identify solution (d) Select solution Ans. (a) 40. Corporate modeling software can be used for: (a) Cash planning (b) Operational budding (c) Capital budgeting (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 41. The overall goal of Scientific Management is: (a) Maximization of productivity (b) Maximization of employment (c) Higher industrial efficiency (d) Greater profit to producers Ans. (c) 42. Statutory meeting is needed for: (a) All companies (b) For a private company (c) For a public company only (d) For a statutory company only Ans. (c) 43. Central Monetary Authority of the country is: (a) Union Finance Ministry (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Planning Commission (d) Central Bank of Direct Taxes Ans. (b) 44. How many nationalized banks are there in our country? (a) Nineteen

(b) Twenty two (c) Fourteen (d) None of these Ans. (a) 45. It is only implies the transfer of function and not of authority. The reference is to: (a) Decentralization (b) Co-ordination (c) Delegation (d) None of the above Ans. (c) 46. The transfer of functions as well as authority is known as: (a) Delegation (b) Devolution (c) Decentralization (d) Promotion Ans. (c) 47. Two-factor theory is related to: (a) Leadership (b) Motivation (c) Communication (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 48. The ERG Theory is related to: (a) Hertzberg (b) Maslow (c) Adam (d) Alderfer Ans. (d) 49. For McGregor, leadership condition that provides for security is/are: (a) Knowledge (b) Consistent discipline (c) Atmosphere of approval (d) All of the above Ans. (d)

50. Economic analysis in the content of equity stock valuation is concerned with: (a) Study of fiscal policies (b) Study of monsoons (c) Study of economic policies of the government (d) All of the above Ans. (d) COMPETITIONS TODAY E-magazine of General Studies, General Knowledge & Current Affairs for All Competitive Exams

Showing newest posts with label UGC. Show older posts Showing newest posts with label UGC. Show older posts Thursday, November 18, 2010 UGC NET MANAGEMENT PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER 1. OPEC is an example of the type of producer s organization known as a: (a) Marketing Board (b) Producer s Cooperative (c) Trust (d) Cartel Ans. (d) 2. TQM s major emphasis is on (a) Product quality (b) Company profitability

(c) Customer delight (d) Employee training Ans. (a) 3. Assertion (A): Effective motivation is moderated by organizational complexity and conflicts. Reason (R): An Individual s motives may be complex and conflicting. Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (d) 4. Match the following: List-I List-II A Classical 1. Fact-orientation B Human Relations 2. Environment C Behavioural 3. Structure D Systems 4. Informal organization 5. Incentives to work Codes: ABCD (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 4 3 2

(c) 3 2 4 5 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (d) 5. External environment of business is: (a) Physical (b) Demographic (c) Economic (d) All of these Ans. (d) 6. Co-ordination in an organization means: 1. Complete control of the activities of the employees. 2. To structure harmony among different units of the organization. 3. Removal of conflict and overlapping in the organization. Codes: (a) 1 and 2 (b) l and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 7. Regression coefficient is independent change of: (a) Origin but not to scale (b) Both origin and scale

(c) Scale but not of origin (d) None of these Ans. (a) 8. Assertion (A): E-commerce is an emerging field, which cannot be ignored. Reason (R): The legal framework relating to E-commerce is yet to be crystallized. Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (b) 9. Which of these is marketing research method? (a) Observation (b) Questionnaire (c) Interview (d) None of these Ans. (a) 10. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always posses the minimum gold stock of worth: (a) Rs. 85 crores (b) Rs. 115 crores (c) Rs. 200 crores (d) None of these

Ans. (b) 11. ISO-quants are also known as: (a) Equal revenue curves. (b) Equal cost curves (c) Equal product curves (d) Indifference curves Ans. (c) 12. Match the following: List-I List-II (a) Cardinal approach 1. Margin Utility (b) Ordinal approach 2. Alfred Marshall (c) Hicks-Allen approach 3. J. R Hicks (d) Consumer s surplus 4. Indifference curve 5. Revealed preference theory Codes: ABCD (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 5 4 2 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 3 2 4 Ans. (b) 13. The scientific management stressed upon:

1. Rationality 2. Specialization 3. Technical competence 4. Predictability Select the Correct Code: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) 14. One who does too mu1i work is called: (a) A rate buster (b) A chiseller (c) A squealer (d) None pf the above Ans. (a) 15. Which of the following is not an essential feature of social environment? (a) Competitiveness (b) Respect for the individual (c) Better quality of life (d) Bailment Ans. (d)

16. Marketing information system help to (a) Sales Manager (b) Purchase Manager (c) Operational Manager (d) Marketing Manager Ans. (d) 17. Consider the following: I Measurement II. Projection III. Selection IV. Observation V. Comparison VI. Decision making The correct sequence of the above ingredients of management by exception is: (a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI (b) I, II, III, V, IV, VI (c) I, H, III, VI, IV, V (d) I, II, III, IV, VI, V Ans. (a) 18. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? A. Value of any security 1. The real value of any security is determined by the prior rights to the return of income.

B. Debenture 2. It possesses maximum safety and normally offers regular and fixed income. C. Preference Share 3. It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and fixed income by way of dividend. D. Equity Shares 4. It invites speculative tendency and the investors. There is risk of loss in such a share. Select the correct answer using the codes using the codes given below: Codes: ABCD (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (a) 19. Normal profits are considered as: (a) Explicit Costs (b) Implicit Costs (c) Social Costs (d) Private Costs Ans. (b) 20. Consider the following statements: 1. Quartile deviation is more instructive range as it discards the dispersion of extreme items.

2. Coefficient of quartile deviation cannot be used to compare the degree. 3. There are 10 deciles for a series. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 alone (c) 3 alone (d) 1 alone Ans. (c) 21. Three necessary and sufficient conditions that must be satisfied if traits should be unique determinants of the Leadership Index are 1. The trait quality should follow a descending order as one traverses from the highest to the lowest levels. 2. There must be a high correlation between the Level of traits and the level of success 3. The achievement trait curve should be convex to the trait axis as one travels from the low to the high trait terminals. The above conditions have been suggested by: (a) F. W. Taylor (b) Elton Mayo (c) Edin E. Ghiselli (d) Dorwin Cartwright Ans. (c) 22. Michigan Leadership studies are based on the following approach to the study of leadership: (a) Trait approach

(b) Attitude criterion (c) Behaviour approach (d) Situational approach Ans. (b) 23. Choose the correct facts of the following? A. Unity of command in no case seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and auxiliary agencies. B. What we are having today in practice, there is no unity of command, not even duality of command, but multiplicity of command. C. The unity of command has been seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and auxiliary agencies. (a) A only (b) A and B only (c) B and C only (d) A, B and C Ans. (c) 24. Find out correct answer: (a) Heart of co-ordination is unity of actions. (b) Co-ordination is the basic responsibility of management. (c) Co-ordination is not a distinct function but the very essence of management. (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 25 The definition that Economics is concerned with an enquiry into the nature and causes of wealth of nations is given by

(a) Karl Marx (b) Adam Smith (c) A. E. Cairns (d) None of these Ans. (b) 26. A long run analysis of production is called: (a) Economies of scale (b) Law of variable proportion (c) Law of increasing returns (d) Law of returns to scale Ans. (d) 27. Which of the following persons is engaged in secondary production ? 1. A brick layer 2. An automobile assembly-line worker 3. An accountant 4. A cinema projectionist (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) 28. Rectangular hyperbola is the shape of:

(a) TFC (b) AFC (c) FC (d) MC Ans. (b) 29. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and managers. Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct? Codes: (a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. Ans. (c) 30. Which of the following are the Mechanisms of the Scientific Management? 1. Functional Foremanship 2. One best way of doing a task 3. Differential Piece Rate Plan 4. Scientific Selection of workman 5. Time and Motion study (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5 (c) 4, 3 and 5 (d) 2 and 4 Ans. (c) 31. Who described the classical approach as the engineering approach? (a) Gullick (b) Fayol (c) Urwick (d) Mooney Ans. (c) 32. Match List-I with List-II: List-I List-II A. A store clerk tells the top executive when to buy 1. Leadership by personality a commodity. B. A youth rushing to save life and property of a house 2. Leadership by position on fire commands neighbours to collect water. C. A newly elected secretary advises members about 3. Leadership by function their duties. D. A leader attempts to bend his followers to his will 4. Leadership by situation in most kind of work. Codes: ABCD

(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1 Ans. (c) 33. Arrange the Maslow s Need descending order: 1. Social 2. Self-Actualization 3. Physiological 4. Ego 5. Security (a) 3, 5 1, 4, 2 (b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 (c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 (d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 Ans. (d) 34. Which of the following, according to Hertzberg, are not the motivators? 1. Responsibility 2. Recognition 3. Interpersonal relations 4. Work itself 5. Working condition

(a) l, 2 and 4 (b) l, 2, and 3 (c) 3 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5 Ans. (c) 35. The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of: (a) Path-goal (b) Participation (c) Motivation-hygiene (d) Fear and punishment Ans. (d) 36 The sources of recruitment are: (a) Internal (b) External (c) Internal as well as external (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 37. The Human Relations Theory rejects: (a) Formal institutionalization (b) Informal functioning (c) Human motivation (d) People

Ans. (d) 38. The terms speed boss, rout clerks etc., are used in relation to: (a) Line organization (b) Line and staff organization (c) Functional organization (d) None of the above Ans. (d) 39. Paid-up value is payable on a life insurance policy: (a) on the maturity of the policy (b) when the policy lapses (c) when the policy is surrendered (d) on maturity or death which ever is earlier Ans. (d) 40. FICCI was formed in the year: (a) 1920 (b) 1925 (c) 1926 (d) 1951 Ans. (c) 41. Which among the following is the most popular approach for accomplishing the results? (a) Management by exception

(b) Reward system (c) Management by objectives (d) Mentor system Ans. (c) 42. Techniques of managerial control are useful in: (a) Selection of plant location (b) Identifying appropriate technology (c) Profit planning (d) Conducting shareholders meetings Ans. (c) 43. Facility location decisions: (a) Do not affect other capacity decisions (b) Are intermediate range capacity decisions (c) Are not affected by other existing capacities (d) All of the above statements are untrue Ans. (d) 44. Ship building and construction of dams and bridges are typical examples of: (a) Fixed position layout (b) Functional layout (c) Product layout (d) Project type layout Ans. (a)

45. If unit item cost = Rs. 10, monthly carrying charge = 3%, monthly demand = 100 units and ordering cost = Rs.20 per order, the EOQ is: (a) 11.45 (b) 400 (c) 115.4 (d) 33.3 Ans. (c) 46. PERT/CPM network analysis can be used for: (a) Projection appraisal (b) Project Implementation (c) Project monitoring and control (d) All of the above Ans. (a) 47 Where r is equal to zero the regression lines cut each other making an angle of: (a) 450? (b) 60? (c) 90? (d) None of these Ans. (d) 48. In a moderately asymmetrical distribution (a) A. M > G.M > H.M (b) A.M <>

(c) A.M <> H.M. (d) None of these Ans. (a) 49. National Housing is a controlled enterprise of: (a) NABARD (b) UTI (c) RBI (d) LIC of India Ans. (c) 50. Corporate tax is imposed by: (a) State Government (b) Local Government (c) Central Government (d) Both (a) and (c) Ans. (c) Posted by APPSC at 12:11 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: UGC UGC NET Management 2008 solved paper 1. Data collection terminals gather data for use by the: (a) Inventory subsystem (b) Cost subsystem (c) Production subsystem

(d) All of the above Ans. (d) 2. Average inventory level is educed by: (a) Decreasing the vender lead time (b) Increasing the usage rate (c) Decreasing the order quantity (d) Lowering the reorder point Ans. (c) 3. Below are given four different theories: (1) Trait approach (ii) Attitude criterion (iii) Behaviour approach (iv) Situational approach These are identified with: (a) Administrative behaviour (b) Organizational behaviour (c) Leadership index (d) Administrative approaches Ans. (c) 4. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the: (a) Finance function (b) Marketing function (c) Manufacturing function (d) Information system function Ans. (c) 5. Focus on Social Environment is related to: (a) Unity of Command (b) Human Relations (c) Unity of Direction (d) Delegation Ans. (b) 6. Section 16 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a person: (a) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is an undischarged insolvent. (b) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is not of sound financial position.

(c) To be appointed as director of more than one banking company. (d) None of these Ans. (c) 7. The funds management subsystem attempts to: (a) Increase cash input (b) Decrease cash output (c) Balance cash inflow with outflow (d) All of the above Ans. (c) 8. The democratic leadership style goes with: (a) Theory X (b) Theory Y (c) Theory Z (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 9. This type of information overlay indicates the key people who can accomplish something because they know the ropes. (a) The decision overlay (b) The power overlay (c) The communication overlay (d) The functional overlay Ans. (b) 10. Delegation of authority results in: (a) Avoiding responsibility (b) Centralization of powers at top level (c) Costliness of decision (d) Enabling the managers to distribute their work load Ans. (d) 11. Taylorism: 1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man. 2. Underestimated the meaning of human motivation. 3. Emphasized only a limited number of physiological variables. 4. Completely neglected the psychological aspects. Select the correct code from the following:

(a) (l)+(2) (b) (1)+(2)+(3) (c) (l)+(3)+(4) (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 12. Which of the following markets is associated with short term funds? (a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Stock market (d) Chamber of commerce Ans. (c) 13. In India, the system of decimal coinage introduced on: (a) 15th August 1947 (b) 26th January 1950 (c) 1st April 1957 (d) None of these Ans. (a) 14. The most structured marketing problems are likely to be those dealing with: (a) Product (b) Promotion (c) Place (d) Price Ans. (b) 15. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the: (a) Finance, function (b) Marketing function (c) Manufacturing function (d) Information system function Ans. (d) 16. One who does too much work is called (a) A squealer (b) A rate buster (b) A chiseller

(d) None of the above Ans. (b) 17. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is the meeting called? (a) Extra ordinary meeting (b) Statutory meeting (c) Committee meeting . (d) Annual general meeting Ans. (a) 18. The management of a company is vested in the hands of: (a) Shareholders (b) Directors (c) Board of directors elected by shareholders (d) Creditors Ans. (c) 19. A popular technique for forecasting is: (a) Correlation analysis (b) Regression analysis (c) Linear programming (d) Month Carlo Ans. (b) 20. Which of the following is not a component of the new issue market? (a) Stock exchange (b) Unit Trust of India (c) Financial Institution like IFC, IDBI (d) LIC Ans. (d) 21. Bank deposits are money when they are: (a) Lying with Bank (b) In circulation (c) Kept with government (d) Kept with R.B.I. Ans. (b) 22. Money is: (a) Consumer goods

(b) Capital goods (c) Producer goods (d) Neither of them Ans. (d) 23. Papers on the Science of Administration is written by: (a) L. Urwick (b) Gullick (c) Both combined (d) M. P. Follett Ans. (c) 24. Find the correct answer regarding classical theory of organizations? (i) It throws focus on human beings as such (ii) It throws focus not on human beings as such but on the role (iii) It is normally the dominant set of work relationship. (iv) All of the above (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (iv) only Ans. (b) 25. Full delegation is called: (a) Alter-ego (b) Shelter-ego (c) Ego (d) None of the above Ans. (d) 26. The Modern Theory is also called the: (a) System Analysis of Organizations (b) Human Relations Theory (b) Mechanistic Theory (d) Structural Theory Ans. (a) 27. Sales invoicing is a: (a) Pre-sales activity

(b) Job of finance department (c) Post-sales activity (d) All of the above. Ans. (a) 28. Managerial decision-making refers to: (a) Programmed decisions (b) Unprogrammed decisions (c) Information system (d) Operation system Ans. (b) 29. Which of the following statement is true? (a) Authority can not be delegated, but responsibility can be delegated (b) Both authority and responsibility can be delegated (c) Authority ca only be delegated (d) Responsibility can only be delegated Ans. (a) 30. Dynamic factors in trade theory refer to change in: (a) Factor endowments (b) Technology (c) Tastes (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 31. The classical theory of organizations manifest following certain features which are: (i) Impersonality (ii) Division of work (iii) Hierarchy (iv) Efficiency (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only (c) (i), iii and (iv) only (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ans. (d) 32. The line agency should not have: (a) Operating unit

(b) Major substantial purpose (c) Advisory and co-coordinating functions (d) Independent staff Ans. (b) 33. The difference between the line and staff units is: (a) Marginal (b) Qualitative (c) Quantitative (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 34. Oral communication in Organisations are: (a) Formal communication (b) Information communication (c) Discretionary communication (d) All of the above Ans. (b) 35. Structure variable is synonymous with: (a) Task (b) Relation (c) Style (d) Attitude Ans. (a) 36. Effective supervision is an activity of: (a) Organization function (b) Staffing function (c) Direction function (d) Control function Ans. (c) 37. Accent of human relation theory is: (a) Action-Oriented (b) Hierarchy-Oriented (c) Organization-Oriented (d) None of the above Ans. (a)

38. Marketing research does not normally: (a) Gather environmental information (b) Provide a continuous source of information (c) Relate to all aspects of. marketing operations (d) Describe the current situation Ans. (b) 39. A periodic report can be used to: (a) Identify the problem (b) Evaluate solution (c) Identify solution (d) Select solution Ans. (a) 40. Corporate modeling software can be used for: (a) Cash planning (b) Operational budding (c) Capital budgeting (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 41. The overall goal of Scientific Management is: (a) Maximization of productivity (b) Maximization of employment (c) Higher industrial efficiency (d) Greater profit to producers Ans. (c) 42. Statutory meeting is needed for: (a) All companies (b) For a private company (c) For a public company only (d) For a statutory company only Ans. (c) 43. Central Monetary Authority of the country is: (a) Union Finance Ministry (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Planning Commission

(d) Central Bank of Direct Taxes Ans. (b) 44. How many nationalized banks are there in our country? (a) Nineteen (b) Twenty two (c) Fourteen (d) None of these Ans. (a) 45. It is only implies the transfer of function and not of authority. The reference is to: (a) Decentralization (b) Co-ordination (c) Delegation (d) None of the above Ans. (c) 46. The transfer of functions as well as authority is known as: (a) Delegation (b) Devolution (c) Decentralization (d) Promotion Ans. (c) 47. Two-factor theory is related to: (a) Leadership (b) Motivation (c) Communication (d) None of the above Ans. (b) 48. The ERG Theory is related to: (a) Hertzberg (b) Maslow (c) Adam (d) Alderfer Ans. (d) 49. For McGregor, leadership condition that provides for security is/are: (a) Knowledge

(b) Consistent discipline (c) Atmosphere of approval (d) All of the above Ans. (d) 50. Economic analysis in the content of equity stock valuation is concerned with: (a) Study of fiscal policies (b) Study of monsoons (c) Study of economic policies of the government (d) All of the above Ans. (d) Posted by APPSC at 12:09 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: UGC Tuesday, October 12, 2010 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1. Who advocated the concept of democratic administration as part of the public choice approach? (a) V. Qstrom (b) B. Goffman (c) H.G. Rainey (d) R. Hartman Ans. (a) 2. Who among the following developed the Rational Choice Model Sf Bureaucracy? (a) J. Olsen (b) Norton B. Long

(c)William B. Long d) V.O. Key Ans. (b) 3. While comparing Akbar s revenue administrative system to Ripon s local governments system, how would you define this comparison? (a) Cross-institutional and cross-cultural (b) Cross-processual and cross institutional (c) Cross-territorial and cross-temporal (d) Cross-institutional and cross-temporal Ans. (d) 4. A prismatic society is characterized by which of the following? 1. Poly-normativism 2. Nepotism 3. Homogeneity 4. Poly-functionalism Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) l, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 5. Which one of the following orientations was missing in Woodrow Wilson s article The Study of Administration ?

(a) Comparative administration (b) Ecological approach (c) Performance motivation (d) Organization effectiveness Ans. (b) 6. Who among the following is the author of Development Administration: Concepts Goals and Methods? (a) F.W. Riggs (b) George Cant (c) Ferrel Heady (d) B.W. Weidner Ans. (b) 7. Who introduced the term elects ? (a) Max Weber (b) Talcott Parsons (c) Fred Riggs (d) Robert Merton Ans. (c) 8. Who among the following have contributed significantly to the studies conducted by the Comparative Administration Group (CAG)? (a) Ferrel Heady (b) Ralph Braibanti (c) Dwight Waldo

(d) William Willoughby Ans. (a) 9. Consider the following statementsAccording to Fred Riggs in his study of comparative public administration 1. ideographic orientation concentrates on an approach of generalization 2. nomothetic orientation concentrates on unique case studies Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 10. Consider the following statements1. Underpinning of Max Weber s legal rational authority impacted Riggs s explanation of functionally diffused society 2. Max Weber s traditional authority features impacted Rigg s explanation of diffracted society Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d)

11. Consider the following statements 1. The closed model of organizations is based on the premise that what is good for the individual is also good for the society 2. The closed model of organizations distinguishes between citizens and bureaucrats 3. According to closed model theorists, virtually everyone in society is encased on some sort of organization Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 only Ans. (d) 12. Which of the following are factors which promote delegation of authority in an organization? 1. Need for expertise 2. Need of timely decisions at operational points 3. Seniority rules and policies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l and 2only (b) 2 and 3only (c) l and 3 only (d) 1 and3only Ans. (a)

13. Which of the following are desirable features of effective control features of an effective control system in an organisation? 1. Emphasis on exception 2. Corrective action of correct deviation 3. Multiple criteria Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) 14. Which one of the following is the correct statement? (a) When an organization is departmentalized, decision making is vertically altered (b) When an organization is decentralized, a horizontal grouping of specialized activities is attained (c) Departmentalization is usually not linked with functional authority (d) Functional departmentalization often focuses on achieving coordination between staff and line agencies Ans. (b) 15. Which of the following contingency factors impact on the extent of delegation in an organisation? 1. The size of the organisation 2. The importance of duty or decision 3. Complexity of the task

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 16. Which of the following pairs concerning span of control is/are correctly matched? 1. The size of the organization 2. The important duty or decision 3. Complexity of the task Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 17. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of functional departmentation of an organisation? (a) It is a logical and time-proven method (b) It simplifies training of the personnel (c) It does not facilitate efficiency in utilization of personnel (d) It tends to de-emphasize overall enterprise objectives

Ans. (c) 18. Which one of the following statements in respect of departmentation by product of an organisation is not correct? (a) It facilitates the use of specialized capital (b) It leads to maximum use of skills of employees (c) It leads to maximum use of specialized knowledge (d) It does not carry the dangers of increased costs through duplication of central service and staff activities Ans. (b) 19. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of decentralization in an organisation? (a) It facilitates product diversification (b) It does not aid in adaptation to fast-changing environment (c) It facilitates setting up of profit centers (d) It becomes more difficult to have a uniform policy Ans. (b) 20. Consider the following statements1. In an open control system in organisation, managers actively intervene to make decisions 2. Establishing standard in not a constituent step of the control step of the control process of an organization 3. Most statistical control procedures have strong post action elements. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 21. Which of the following are the behavioral problems associated with a matrix form of organization? 1. Career disruption 2. Demarcation of authority 3. Role reassessment Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 22. Consider the following statements1. Difficulty in defining staff authority is independent of the personality of executive and the environment. 2. Actual authority for decision making differs in each department, but this is not dictated by functional specialization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) 23. Consider the following statements: 1. Functional authority is not restricted to managers of a particular type of department 2. More often, functional authority is exercised by service or staff department heads Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) 24. Whose work inspired the US Congress to establish child labour laws and develop regulations for protecting workers from harsh and unsafe conditions? (a) Elton Mayo (b) Lillian Gilbreth (c)Henry Gantt (d) Henri Fayol Ans. (a) 25. Which one of the following was not supported by F.W. Taylor? (a) Standardization of work (b) Efficiency experts (c) Doctrine of the economic man

(d) Functionalisation Ans. (b) 26. The contribution of Mary Parker Follett includes 1. circular behaviour. 2. integrative unity. 3. strategic limiting factor. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. (b) 27. Which one of the following is not a similarity between Max Weber and Fred Riggs? (a) Both constructed ideal-type models (b) Both used deductive approach (c) Both focused on the problems of change (d) Both studied administrative systems in their environmental context Ans. (d) The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the Assertion A and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:

Codes: (a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 28. Assertion (A): By World War II sharp criticism of Max Weber s ideas of rational bureaucracy by social scientists began to surface. Reason (R) : The social scientists argued that Max Weber had ignored the conflicts, sidestepping of rules and the chain of command that occurred in the organizations. Ans. (d) 29. Who among the following developed the concept of zone of indifference in respect of acceptance of authority by a subordinate from his manager? (a) Fred Fiedler (b) Chester I. Barnard (c) Frank Gilberth (d) F. Herzberg Ans. (b) 30. Which of the following were outlined by Max Weber as key characteristics of bureaucracy? 1. System of supervision and subordination 2. Unity of Command 3. Training in job requirement and skills Select the correct answer using he code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 2 only

(d) l, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 31. According to Max Weber, the modem bureaucracy includes which of the following attributes? 1. Concentration of means of administration 2. A leveling effect on social and economic differences 3. Implementation of a system of authority that is practically indestructible Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 32. Which one of the followings is not a part of Mary Parker Follet s thought? (a) Integration must follow the law of the situation (b) Power is self-developing capacity (c) Authority relates to the job (d) Human behaviour is linear Ans. (d) 33. Max Weber s ideal-typical pure aucratic model focuses upon which of the following? (a) Efficiency and rationality (b) Rationality and responsiveness

(c) Responsiveness and reorganization (d) Motivation and goal-achievement Ans. (a) 34. Which of the following were the conclusions of the Hawthrone Studies? 1. One best method of controlling the work environment. 2. Social pressure dominated behaviour. 3. Effect of intervention by researchers. Select the correct answer by using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (b) 35. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Kurt Lewin Group Behaviour Period following the World War-II

2. Human needs and motivation 3. William Ouchi

Comparison between American and European Organization

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (b) 36. In respect of the Organizational Configuration model given by Henry Mintzberg, which of the followings pairs are correctly matched? 1. Standardization of outputs 2. Mutual adjustment Diversified organization

Innovative organization

3. Standardization of work processes Shop-floor organization Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 37. Consider the following statements 1. Fred Fielder s leadership theory is based on matching manager s styles with situational variables 2. The path-goal theory is contingency-based but is also related to the underpinning concepts of expectancy theory 3. According to the VroomYetton theory of leadership, types of decisions which managers face do not influence changes in leadership approaches Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (b) 38. Match List-I with List-I in respect of the managerial grid model of leadership and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List-II (Leadership) (Orientation) (A) Authority-obedience management 1. 1,9 (B) Country club management 2. 5,5 (C) Organization man management 3. 9,9 (D) Team management 4. 9,1 Ans. (c) 39. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to structure-functional approach? (a) Function is a consequence of a structure over another structure (b) Structure is a pattern of behaviour that is a standard feature of a social system (c) Function denotes mutual relationship between two or more structures (d) Every structure can be physically seen and verified Ans. (d) 40. Consider the following statements: Behavioral approach is known for 1. scio-psychological stand 2. empirical work 3. prescriptive analysis 4. dogmatic position

Which of the statement given above a correct? (a) 1and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 41. Who among the following developed a measurement scale of public service motivation and a framework for a theory on public service motivation? (a) Mary Parker Follett (b) Elton Mayo (c) J. Perry (d) F. Herzberg Ans. (d) 42. Which one of the followings is not a correct depiction of emotional intelligence? (a) Ability to monitor one s own and other s emotions (b) Discriminate between different emotions and label them appropriately (c) Enhance the cognitive capacity of the individual (d) Use emotional information to guide thinking and behaviour Ans. (c) 43. Herbert Simon is not associated with which one of the following? (a) Fact and value premises (b) Satisficing

(c) Logical positivism (d) Science of muddling through Ans. (d) 44. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Herbert Simon s thought? (a) An administrative decision can be evaluated only in terms of its factual element (b) Activities derive their value from means-ends relationship (c) Value and factual elements cannot be combined in a single decision (d) No decision in an organization is the task of a single individual Ans. (c) 45. The science of communication and control is known as (a) PERT (b) MIS (c) Informatics (d) Cybernetics Ans. (d) 46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II (Administrative Thinker) (Administrative Approach) (A) Charles Lindblom 1. Rational Approach (A) Amitai Etzioni 2.Garbage Can Model (C) Herbert Simon 3. Incremination (D) Michael 4.Mixed Scanning

Code: ABCD (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 4 3 2 Ans. (a) 47. Consider the following statements in respect of communication network in an organisation: 1. The wheel and all-channel networks are not preferred if speed of com is important 2. If accuracy is crucial, the chain, Y and wheel networks are preferred. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 48. Which one of the following is not a hypothesis that has evolved out of the path-goal theory of leadership? (a) Directive leadership will lead to lesser employee satisfaction when there is substantive conflict within a work group (b) Subordinates with an external locus of control will be more satisfied with a directive style (c) Supportive leadership results in high employee performance and satisfaction when subordinates are performing structured tasks

(d) Directive leadership is likely to be perceived as redundant among subordinates with considerable experience Ans. (a) 49. Consider the following statements: In the least-preferred con (LPC) questionnaire development by Fred Fiedler, 1. if the respondent assigns high score to the least preferred co-worker, the respondent is termed as tasks oriented 2. if the respondent assigns low score to the least- preferred co-worker, the respondent is termed as relationship-oriented (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 50. Consider the following statements: 1. According to Douglus McGregor Theory X, a hierarchical structure is with a narrow spun of control at each l in organization 2. Theory is much likely to cause diseconomy of scale in a large organization Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) l only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b)

Posted by APPSC at 2:59 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: APPSC, PUBLIC ADMN., UGC, UPSC PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1. Consider the following statements about Motivation 1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals. 2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals. 3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) 2. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism . These views are assigned to whom? (a) N. Umapathy (b) Amilai Etzioni (c) Deming (d) Chris Argyris Ans. (a) 3. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I List-II (Book) (Author) (a) Human Organization Likert 1. Rensis (b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization 2. Elton Mayo (c) New Patterns of Management Fayol 3. Hermry (d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization 4. Max Weber Code: ABCD (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 Ans. (a) 4. Which one of the following tenet in the trinity of Administration? (a) Critical Theory (b) Neo Taylorism (c) Rational Theory (d) Public Choice Theory Ans. (c) 5. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following? (a) Behaviour and attitude of a person (b) Skill-set and compensation of an employee (c) The leadership styles of two managers (d) Motivational needs of two employees Ans. (a) 6. In the context of Frederick Herzberg s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Salary Motivator (b) Status Hygiene factor (c) Growth Motivator (d) Security Hygiene factor Ans. (a) 7. Which of the following are correctly matched? 1. Situational leadership theory Heresy Blanchard 2. Path goal theory Robert House 3. Leadership participation Model The University of Michigan Studies Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the Assertion A and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether

the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly: Codes: (a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 8. Assertion (A): Economic Man is the product of traditional theory of motivation. Reason (R): Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits. Ans. (c) 9. Assertion (A): Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow. Reason (R): Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving. Ans. (d) 10. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred F. Fielder that helps determine which leadership style will be effective? (a) Environmental pressures and workplace demands (b) Leader-member relations (c) Task structures (d) Leader s position power Ans. (a) 11. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the cotes given below the lists List-I List-II (a) Talcott Parsons 1.Creative Experience (b) Frederick Herzberg 2.Inside Bureaucracy (c) Anthony Downs 3.The Structure of Social Action (d) M.P. Follett 4. Work and the Nature of Man Code: ABCD (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 3 4 2 1 Ans. (d) 12. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II (Subject) (Related to) (a) Non programmed decisions 1. Lower-level mart (b) Programmed decision 2. Upper-level managers (c) Emphasis on data storage 3. Decision support system (d) Emphasis on data manipulation 4. Management Information System Code: ABCD (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (d) 13. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following? (a) Systems theory (b) Behavioral theory (c) Human Relations theory (c) Scientific Management theory Ans. (c) 14. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A.Etzioni? (a) Programme, Organizational and Normative (b) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian (c) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian (d) Coercive, Normative and Organizational Ans. (c) 15. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work Administrative Behaviour: A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ? (a) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard (b) H.A. Simon and Chester Barnard (c) F Herzberg and A. Maslow

(d) A. Maslow and Chester I. Barnard Ans. (b) 16. What is/are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication? 1. Cultural 2. Perceptual 3. Ideological 4. Technological Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) l, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (c) 17. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social-psychological tradition? 1. The idea goes against the open model. 2. It is against the closed model. 3. It ascribes special characteristics to some members in an organization. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) l and 3 (d) 2 only Ans. (c) 18. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I List-II (a) Job enrichment 1. H. Simon (b) Zone of acceptance 2. Etzioni (c) Zone of acceptance 3. Chester Barnard (d) Mixed scanning 4. Maslow 5. F. ehrzberg Codes: ABCD (a) 5 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 5 (c) 5 1 4 2

(d) 2 4 3 5 Ans. (c) 19. Consider the following statements In the ambiguous and uncertainty-ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense-making perspective under which 1. Preferences may be easy to identify. 2. Choices may be contradictory and unclear. 3. Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) l and 3 only Ans. (d) 20. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them? (a) Rewards and sanctions (b) Social disapproval (c) Legitimacy (d) Subordinate s confidence in superior s ability Ans. (b) 21. In explaining administrative decision-making, Simon s decision-theory focused on which one of the following? (a) The single best choice made by the decision-maker (b) The limits of information availability in the organization (c) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator (d) Bounded rationality and Satisficing Ans. (d) 22. While dealing with superior-subordinate communication, th of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following? (a) Emphasis on task directives (b) Communication on organizational policy and procedures (c) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates (d) Superior s managerial capacity Ans. (c)

23. The behavioral approach led to administrative research on which of the following? 1. Motivation studies. 2. Decision making studies. 3. Organization 4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) l, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) l, 2 and 4 Ans. (d) 24. Which of the following has/have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005 unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information? 1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which harm the competitive position ala third party. 2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 25. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office? (a) By an order of the State Chief Information Commissioner (b) By the Supreme Court of India (c) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed (d) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a judge of a High Court Ans. (c) 26. Consider the following statements Ethich Reforms Act, 1989 passed by the U.S. Congress was an improvement over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that 1. It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well. 2. It created the Office of Personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics. 3. It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal

counsel in the Sentate. 4. It did none of the above except change the title of the Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. (d) 27. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U.K. The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for 1. A complete overhaul of administrative training 2. More professionalism 3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by Parliament Which of the statements given above are correct? (a)1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 28. In the U.K. the Citizen and the Administration Redress of Grievances was published by which Report? (a) Whyatt Report (b) Atkinson Report (c) William Report (d) Northcote-Trevelyan Report Ans. (a) 29. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally attributed to which of the following? 1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait. 2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem. 3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compromise. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 30. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists List-I List-II (a) Davis Committee 1.Political activities of Civil Servants (b) Masterman Committee 2. Senior Executive Service (c) Second Hoover Committee 3 Official Secrets Act (d) Franks Committee 4. Method-II Codes: Code: ABCD (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (a) 31. The Code of Ethics for public service developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following? 1. Respect for public interest, Constitution and laws. 2. Personal integrity, professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations. 3. High salaries, quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) l and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (a) 32. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A.? (a) F. Roosevelt (b) A. Jackson (c) T. Jefferson (d) C Washington Ans. (a)

33. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I List-II (Body/Feature) (Country) (a) National Personnel Authority 1. United States of America (b) Constitution contains only Seven Articles 2. France (c) Doctrine of Rule of Law 3. U.K. (d) Commune- A unit of local self-government 4. Japan Code: ABCD (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 1 3 2 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1 Ans. (b) 34. Which one of the following is not a/an approach/method/principle for organization development (OD)? (a) Grid approach (b) Survey feedback method (c) Process consultation (d) Peter principle Ans. (d) 35. Which one among the following conducts the Census of Central Government Employees and publishes the Report thereof? (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme implementation, Government of India (b) Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of Labour, Government of India (c) Planning Commission of India (d) Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India Ans. (b) 36. Consider the following statements 1. The Central Staffing Scheme for the. Central Government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission. 2. The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (d) 37 Consider the following statements 1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers. 2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels. Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 38. Assertion (A): Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people. Reason (R): Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization. Ans. (c) 39. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit? 1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources. 2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority. 3. Identifying and classifying the various activities. 4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2, 4, 3 and l (b) 3, 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4, 2 and l Ans. (b) 40. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization? (a) Job design (b) Work measurement (c) Decision under uncertainty

(d) Training program for new recruits Ans. (c) 41. Consider the following statements about variable budgets 1. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive. 2. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses. 3. Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d) 42. Consider the following statements All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, 1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to President of India. 2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State. 3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance. Which of the statements given above is correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) None Ans. (b) 43. Provisions of which f the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill? 1. The receipt of money c account of the public account of India. 2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India. 3. Alteration of any tax. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (d)

44. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission? (a) P. Chidambaram (b) Manmohan Singh (c) Jaswant Singh (d) Yashwant Sinha Ans. (b) 45. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Feature Type of Budget 1. Allow no proper incentive for Incremental budget managers to develop innovative ideas 2. Increases staff motivation Zero-based budget 3. The R&D Department is threatened Zero-based budget whereas production department 4. The impact of change can be seen quickly Incremental budget Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) l and 4 only (d) l, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 46. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution? (a) French Revolution of 1789 (b) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847 (c) The Civil Service Act of 1946 (d) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948 Ans. (c) 47. Consider the following statements about budget 1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration. 2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration. 3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document. 4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) l, 2 and3

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 48. What did the Bhore Committee deal with? (a) Technical education in India (b) Public health in India (c) Development of airports in India (d) Development of ports in India Ans. (b) 49. Consider the following statements 1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and, for the first time, bicameral. 2. Before independence, while under all the previous Government of India Acts, the Government of India was unitary, the Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 50. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India? 1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949. 2. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Posted by APPSC at 2:56 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post

Labels: APPSC, UGC, UPSC UGC NET Public administration Solved Paper

1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely? 1. Economic 2. Optimizing 3. Administrative 4. Satisficing Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List -II (Advocate) (Model) A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model 4. Incremental model Code: ABC (a) 3 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 (c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 Ans. (d) 3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model? 1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements. 2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality. 3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.

4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism. Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of above Ans. (a) 4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor? 1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize 2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards 3. inherently likes work 4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity. Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) All of above (d) 3 and 4 only Ans. (c) 5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style? (a) Democratic style leadership (b) Employee-centered leadership (c) Participative group leadership (d) Team leadership Ans. (b) 6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs? (a) Chester Barnard (b) David Mc Clelland (c) Abraham Maslow (d) Warren Bennis Ans. (b) 7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include 1. Working condition 2. Supervision

3. Salary 4. Responsibility 5. Recognition Which of the above are correct? (a) 4 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) All of above (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only Ans. (b) UNIT-V ACCOUNTABILITY AND CONTROL 8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process? 1. Standard actions 2. Corrective actions 3. Coercive actions 4. Evaluative actions. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Ans. (d) 9. On which of the following factors does people s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process? 1. Ability of the people to participate 2. Willingness for the people to participate 3. Opportunity4o the people to participate 4. Mechanisms available for participation. Code: (a) l, 2 and 4 only (b) l, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of above Ans. (d) UNIT-VI ADMINISTRATIVE SYSTEMS

10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of Constructive Conflict in an organization? (a) Elton Mayo (b) Mary Parker Follett (c) Peter Blau (d) Henri Fayol Ans. (b) 11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List -II (Commission/Committee) (Recommendation) A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President s office C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration Code: ABCD (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (b) 12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated? (a) The Hatch Act of 1939 (b) The Civil Service Act of 1833 (c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940 (d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947 Ans. (a) 13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports? (a) Sir John Whyatt Report (b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report (c) Fulton Report (d) Aitchison Report Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct? (a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel (b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps. (c) French Civil Service is elitist (d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices. Ans. (a) 15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France? 1. Department 2. Arrondissement 3. Canton 4. Commune Which of the above are correct? (a) l, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. (c) 16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is (a) a post-retirement assignment (b) professional training (c) foreign posting (d) monetary compensation Ans. (a) 17. Which of the following statements regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct ? 1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies. 2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of above Ans. (c) 18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies? (a) Japan (b) France (c) Great Britain

(d) USA Ans. (c) 19. The Collegial type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries? (a) Japan (b) France (c) Switzerland (d) Great Britain Ans. (c) UNIT-V PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION 20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments? (a) Bank wiring observation room (b) Relay assembly test room (c) Cutting metals (d) Greg illumination Ans. (c) 21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan? (a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation (b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation (c) Grouping of positions -job analysis Position allocation-Standardization (d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization Ans. (a) 22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system? 1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service. 2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification. 3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character Which of the above are correct? (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only Ans. (a) 23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics? (a) Paul Appleby (b) Frederick Mosher (c) Chanakya (d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler Ans. (c) UNIT-VIII FINANCIAL ADMINISTRATION 24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process? (a) Robert Golembiewski (b) Aaron Wildavsky (c) Jesse Birkhead (d) A. Premchand Ans. (b) 25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting? 1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes. 2. it improves the programme effectiveness. 3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits. Which of the above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of above Ans. (d) UNIT-IX UNION GOVERNMENT AND ADMINISTRATION ININDIA: BRITISH LEGACY 26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee? (a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan (b) Railway Convention Committee (c) Business Advisory Committee (d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer Ans. (b)

27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following? 1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services) 2. Secretarial System 3. Local Self-government 4. Law and Order Administration (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All of above Ans. (a) 28. Consider the following statements: The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of 1. pension payable to Judges of High Court. 2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable. 3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Ans. (a) 29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct? A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the 1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management 2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy. 3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues. 4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: (a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of above Ans. (c)

30. Consider the following statements: A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the 1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax 2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government. 3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) All of above Ans. (d) 31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget? (a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it. (b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it. (c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it. (d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it. Ans. (c) 32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill? 1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure. 2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature. 3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill. Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of above. Ans. (a) 33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of Zero Hour discussion? 1. It is not directed against individual Minister. 2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance. Code: (a) l and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Ans. (b) 34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised? 1. Adjudication 2. Judicial Review 3. Writs 4. Public Interest Litigation Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Code: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) All of above (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans. (d) 35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition? 1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction. 2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right. Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Ans. (c) 36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005? 1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days. 2. There are restrictions for third party information. 3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000. 4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank. Code: (a) 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only Ans. (c) 37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of India ? (a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act (b) 43rd Amendment Act (c) 40th Amendment Act (d) 40th and 41st Amendment Ans. (a) 38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister s Office (PMO) is/are correct? 1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961. 2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department. Code: (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of these Ans. (c) 39. Consider the following statements: Indicative planning indicates the 1. broad directions of development. 2. long-term goals in strategic areas 3. exclusive areas of government planning Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Code: (a) 1 and 2only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Ans. (a) 40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? 1 The Accounts of a State

2. The Railway Accounts 3. The Union Government Accounts 4. Defense Accounts Code: (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Ans. (b) 41. Which one of the correct? (a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India. (b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries. (c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market. (d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors. Ans. (a) 42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India? 1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds. 2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Ans. (c) 43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India: 1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission. 2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India. 3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Code:

(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Ans. (d) 44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)? (a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status (b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President (c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India. (d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years. Ans. (b) 45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India: 1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business 2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council. Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these Ans. (c) 46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports? (a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington (b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee (c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton (d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay Ans. (c) 47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India? (a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950. (b) The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister

(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees (d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years. Ans. (d) 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below: List-I List-II A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector Code: ABCD (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Ans. (c) 49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers 1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers 2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign 3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers 4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries. Which of the given above are correct? (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration. Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants. Ans. (b)