Nicolae Testemitanu State Medical and Pharmaceutical University

Department of Topographical Anatomy and Operative Surgery

TESTS Course in Topographical Anatomy

Chiinu 2010

Upper limb Infraclavicular region

1. Boundaries of the infraclavicular region are: a) inferior border of the major pectoral muscle b) edge of the sternum c) anterior border of the deltoid muscle d) clavicle e) the III rib 2. Which fascia forms the capsule of the mammary gland: a) pectoral fascia b) clavipectoral fascia c) superficial fascia d) transversal fascia e) endothoracic fascia 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) Determine which of the following statements are true: the sheath of pectoralis major muscle represents superficial fascia the sheath of pectoralis major muscle is pectoral fascia pectoralis major muscle does not have sheath pectoralis major muscle forms the anterior wall of the superficial subpectoral space pectoralis major muscle is surrounded by clavipectoral fascia The deep layer of pectoral fascia is called: superficial fascia pectoral fascia endocervical fascia clavipectoral fascia axilar fascia The following statements are true: deltoidopectoral trigonum is limited by: clavicle, deltoid muscle and pectoral major muscle cephalic vein is situated in the deltoidopectoral trigonum supraclavicular nerves are situated in the subcutaneuous infraclavicular layer superficial fascia forms suspensory ligament of mammary gland cephalic vein flows into the basilic vein The sheath of which muscle is formed by clavipectoral fascia? pectoralis major muscle pectoralis minor muscle serratus anterior muscle deltoid muscle intercostal muscles Superficial subpectoral space is situated: posterior to pectoralis major muscle anterior to pectoralis minor muscle and clavipectoral fascia posterior to superficial fascia anterior to deep fascia in the subcutaneous fatty tissue Deep subpectoral space is located between: pectoral fascia pectoral major muscle clavipectoral fascia pectoral minor muscle deep lamina of the clavipectoral fascia

9. Pus gathering in the superficial subpectoral space may spread to axilar cavity through the course of: a) coracohumeral ligament b) suspensory ligament of axilla c) cephalic vein d) thoracoacromial artery and anterior thoracic nerves e) all answers are true 10. Clavipectoral fascia inserts on: a) clavicle b) coracoid process c) sternum d) ribs I-V e) pectoralis muscle 11. The mammary gland is enervated by: a) branches of intercostal nerves II-VII b) brancehs of cervical plexus c) anterior thoracic braches of brachial plexus

d) phrenic nerves e) vagus nerves

Scapular region
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) Deep fascia of scapular region forms sheath for next muscles: supraspinatus muscle infraspinatus muscle teres minor muscle latissimus dorsi muscle trapezius muscle The superficial group of muscles from scapular region are: teres major teres minor latissimus dorsi supraspinatus trapezius The osteofibrous scapular sheaths are filled with: trapezius muscle supraspinatus muscle latissimus dorsi muscle infraspinatus muscle teres minor et major muscles Main arteries that form the scapular arterial anastomosis are: a. suprascapularis a. axilaris a. toracoacromialis a. circumflexa scapulae ramus descendens a. transversae colli The scapular region is enervated by the following nerves: suprascapular n. infrascapular n. subscapular n. lateral thoracic n. dorsal scapular n.

Deltoid region
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) Axilary nerve can be injured in the deltoid region: by the acromial process on the posterior margin of deltoid muscle on the anterior margin of deltoid muscle at the inferior limit of deltoid muscle at the superior limit of deltoid muscle What vessels and nerves are situated in the subdeltoid space? anterior circumflex humeral a. posterior circumflex humeral a. dorsal scapular n. axillary n. subscapular a. Wound on the posterior margin of deltoid muscle. Arm abduction suffers. Probably is injured: brachial plexus suprascapular nerve axillary nerve musculocutaneus nerve radial nerve In the fracture of the surgical neck of the humeral bone the following can be injured: long head of the brachial biceps muscle circumflex posterior humeral artery axillary nerve radial nerve circumflex anterior humeral artery

Axillary region
1. Which of the following limits of axillary fosae are correct: a) inferior margin of pectoralis major muscle b) inferior margin of pectoralis minor muscle c) inferior margin of latissimus dorsi muscle d) conventional lines which connect pectoralis major muscle with latissimus dorsi muscle laterally and medially e) inferior margin of subscapular muscle

2. Posterior wall of the axillary cavity is made of: a) subscapular muscle b) teres major and minor muscles c) latissimus dorsi muscle d) long head of the brachial triceps muscle e) pectoral major and minor muscles 3. Through the quadrilateral foramen of the posterior wall of the axillary cavity passes: a) axillary artery b) subscapular nerve c) scapular circumflex artery d) axillary nerve e) posterior circumflex humeral artery 4. Through the trilateral foramen of the posterior wall of the axillary cavity passes: a) subscapular artery b) subscapular nerve c) circumflex scapular artery d) circumflex posterior humeral artery and axillary nerve e) toracodorsal artery 5. Anterior wall of the axillary cavity is made of: a) pectoral minor muscle with clavipectoral fascia b) axillary fascia c) deep subpectoral space d) pectoral major muscle e) serratus anterior muscle 6. Lateral wall of the axillary cavity is made of: a) coracobrachial muscle and short head of the biceps brachial muscle b) triceps brachial muscle c) humeral bone d) proper fascia e) brachioradial muscle 7. Medial wall of the axillary cavity is made of: a) clavipectoral fascia b) thoracic wall c) serratus anterior muscle d) pectoral minor muscle e) pectoral major muscle 8. The projection line of the axillary artery is drawn between: a) anterior and medial 1/3 of axillary fossa b) inferior margin of pectoralis major muscle c) posterior and medial 1/3 of axillary fossa d) half distance between pectoralis major muscle and latissimus dorsi muscle e) coracoid process medial epicondyle of humerus 9. The quadrilateral foramen is bounded by: a) teres major muscle b) coracobrachial muscle c) teres minor and subscapular muscles d) humeral bone e) long head of the triceps brachial muscle 10. The trilateral foramen is bounded by: a) teres major muscle b) coracobrachial muslce c) teres minor and subscapular muscles d) humeral bone e) long head of the triceps brachial muscle 11. Apex of the axillary cavity is situated between: a) elements of the shoulder articulation b) I rib c) clavicle d) pectoralis minor muscle e) deltoid muscle 12. In the clavipectoral triangle the syntopy of the neurovascular bundle regarding the axillary artery is: a) medially - axillary vein b) laterally brachial plexus c) medially the medial fascicle of the brachial plexus d) laterally the lateral fascicle of the brachial plexus e) medially cephalic vein

13. In the pectoral triangle the following branches start from the axillary artery: a) superior thoracic artery b) thoracoacromial artery and lateral thoracic artery c) lateral thoracic artery, circumflex posterior humeral artery and circumflex scapular artery d) lateral thoracic artery, e) all answers are false 14. In the subpectoral triangle the following branches start from the axillary artery: a) thoracoacromial artery b) circumflex posterior humeral artery c) circumflex scapular artery d) subscapular artery e) circumflex anterior humeral artery 15. Collateral circulation will be more efficient if the ligature of the axillary artery will be placed: a) proximal to the lateral thoracic artery b) bistal to the circumflex humeral posterior artery c) proximally to the subscapular artery d) distal to the subscapular artery e) proximal to the thoracoacromial artery 15. In the subpectoral triangle the axillary artery is . by: a) median n. b) musculocutaneus n. c) ulnar n., medial cutaneus n. of arm and forearm d) radial n., axillary n. e) suprascapular n.

Shoulder articulation
1. Which portion of the shoulder joint is not supported by muscles: a) anterior b) posterior c) extern d) medial e) is supported by muscles all around 2. Which nerve can be injured if the shoulder is dislocated antero-inferior: a) median n. b) radial n. c) ulnar n. d) axillary n. e) all nerves can be injured 3. Humeral dislocation occurs more often in cases of absence or underdevelopment of which ligament: a) coracohumeral b) coracoacromial c) tendon of the long head of biceps brachial muscle d) median glenohumeral e) superior glenohumeral

Brachial (arm) region

1. The projection line of the brachial artery and median nerve is drawn between: a) anterior and medial 1/3 of the axillary fossa b) posterior 1/3 of the axillary fossa c) centre of cubital plica d) medial epicondyl e) lateral epicondyl 2. The projection line of the ulnar nerve in the inferior 1/3 of the arm connects the following points: a) the limit between medial and inferior 1/3 of the bicipital groove b) medial epicondyl c) lateral epicondyl d) centre of cubital plica e) lateral bicipital groove 3. In the anterior region of the arm the radial nerve corresponds to: a) the inferior 1/3 of the lateral bicipital groove b) the inferior 1/3 of the medial bicipital groove c) corresponds to the medial bicipital groove d) corresponds to the projection of the ulnar nerve e) has no projection on the anterior region of the arm 4. In the subcutaneous fatty tissue of the anterior region of the arm lies: a) cephalic vein b) basilic vein c) median nerve d) medial cutaneus nerve of arm and forearm e) radial nerve

5. Proximal third of the anterior fascial lodge of the brachial region contains: a) m. triceps brachii, n. radialis b) m. coracobrachialis, m. biceps brachii, m. brachialis c) a., v. brachialis, n. medianus, n. musculocutaneus d) ulnar n. e) teres minor m. 6. Distal third of the anterior fascial lodge of the brachial region contains: a) M. coracobrachialis, n. radialis, v. basilica b) Long head of biceps brachii m., n. cutaneus brachii lateralis c) M. biceps brachii, m. brachialis, a. and v. brachialis, a. collateralis ulnaris inferior d) N. medianus, n. musculocutaneus e) N. cutaneus brachii medialis, n. cutaneus antebrachii medialis 7. Syntopy of the main brachial neurovascular bundle in the inferior third is: a) ulnar n., median n., brachial v., brachial a. b) median n., brachial v., brachial a. c) brachial v., radial n., brachial a. d) ulnar n., musculocutaneus n., brachial v. e) brachial a., cutaneus antebrachii medialis n.,basilic v. 8. Ulnar nerve in the superior 1/3 of the arm is situated: a) medial and posterior to the median n. b) lateral from the brachial a. c) medial to the brachial a d) lateral to the basilic v. e) medial to the basilic v.

9. Ulnar nerve in the inferior 1/3 of the arm is situated: a) anterior and medial to the brachial a. b) between the medial epicondyl of humerus and olecranon c) in the fascial sheath of the triceps brachii m. d) between brachial m. and biceps brachii m. e) in the fascial sheath of the biceps brachii m. 10. Critical area of the main arterial trunk of the upper limb is situated between: a) deep brachial artery b) anterior circumflex humeral artery c) scapular circumflex a. d) posterior circumflex humeral artery e) subscapular artery 11. In the medial 1/3 of the arm the musculocutaneus nerve is situated between: a) coracobrachial m. b) brachial m. c) brachioradial m. d) triceps brachii m. e) biceps brachii m. 12. Identify the anatomical structures situated in the posterior fascial lodge of the medial 1/3 of the arm: a) triceps brachii m. b) radial n. c) deep brachial a. d) musculocutaneus n. e) superior collateral ulnar a. 13. The projection line of the radial nerve on the arm is the line that connects: a) posterior margin of the deltoid m. b) inferior 1/3 of the lateral bicipital groove c) greater tubercle of humerus d) lateral epicondyl of humerus e) inferior 1/3 of the medial bicipital groove 14. Through the humeromuscular canal passes: a) axillary n. b) posterior circumflex humeral a. c) musculocutaneous n. d) radial n. e) deep brachial a. and v. 15. In the groove formed by the medial humeral epicondyle and the olecranon are situated: a) ulnar n. b) superior ulnar collateral a. c) inferior ulnar collateral a. d) anterior ulnar recurrent a. e) deep brachial a.

16. The humeromuscular canal is situated: a) in the posterior fascial lodge of the arm b) in the anterior fascial lodge of the arm c) between the humerus and the triceps brachii m. d) between the humerus and the biceps brachii m. e) this canal is situated in another region 17. Terminal branches of the deep brachial a. are: a) radial collateral a. b) medial collateral a. c) superior collateral ulnar a. d) inferior collateral ulnar a. e) none of the answers are true 18. Determine which of the statements are true: a) radial n. can be injured in cases of fracture of the humerus in the middle 1/3 b) radial n. passes through tha humeromuscular canal c) ligature of the brachial a. is better to be performed proximal to the deep brachial a. d) in the inferior 1/3 of the brachial region the ulnar n. is situated in the posterior fascial lodge e) radial n. gives branches in the middle 1/3 of the forearm 19. In case of fracture of the humeral bone proximal to the insertion of the deltoid m. bone fragments displace: a) proximal fragment is externally rotated under the action of infraspinatus and teres minor mm. b) proximal fragment is displaced lateral and anterior under the action of supraspinatus and deltoid mm. c) proximal fragment is displaced medial under the action of teres major and pectoralis major mm. d) distal fragment is displaced lateral and superior under the action of deltoid m. e) distal fragment is displaced posterior under the action of biceps brachii m.

Cubital region
1. In the subcutaneuous fatty tissue of the anterior cubital region are situated: a) basilica and cephalic vv. b) medial and lateral cutaneus nerves of forearm c) median cubital v. d) brachial a. e) median n. 2. In the cubital fossa the brachial a. is: a) medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii m. b) lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii m. c) accompanied by the median n. d) accompanied by the musculocataneous n. e) superficial to the proper fascia 3. What muscles are situated in the lateral fascial lodge of the cubital fossa: a) brachioradial m. b) biceps brachii m. c) brachial m. d) supinator m. e) pronator teres m. 4. What muscles are situated in the medial fascial lodge of the cubital fossa: a) pronator teres m. b) palmaris longus m. c) flexor digitorum mm. d) supinator m. e) all answers are true 5. Where in the cubital fossa is situated the radial nerve: a) in the lateral intermuscular septum, between the brachioradial and brachial mm. b) in the lateral intermuscular septum, between the brachial and biceps mm. c) in the medial intermuscular septum d) adhere to the joint capsule e) in the thickness of the pronator teres m. 6. Determine what statements are true: a) in the cubital fossa the superficial branch of the radial n. is situated between the brachioradial and supinator mm. b) the deep branch enters the supinator canal c) the radial n. has only one branch d) the superficial branch of the radial n. is accompanied by the radial a. e) the deep branch of the radial n. is accompanied by the radial a. 7. About the radial artery are true: a) is situated between the pronator teres and the brachioradial mm. b) is situated under the palmaris longus m. c) is accompanied by the median n. d) is accompanied by the superficial branch of the radial n. e) is accompanied by the ulnar r.

8. About the ulnar artery are true: a) is situated between the superficial and deep flexor digitorum mm. b) is accompanied by the deep branch of the radial n. c) from the ulnar a. starts ulnar recurrent a. d) is situated superficially above the pronator teres m. e) is situated on the interosseous membrane 9. The arterial net of the elbow joint region is formed by the anastomoses between: a) posterior circumflex humeral a. and recurrent interosseous a. b) superior ulnar collateral a. and deep brachial a. c) superior ulnar collateral a. and posterior ulnar recurrent a. d) radial collateral a. and radial recurrent a. e) inferior ulnar collateral a. and anterior ulnar recurrent a. 10. The osteofibrous canal through which the ulnar n. passes in the cubital region is formed by: a) medial epicondyl of humerus b) lateral epicondyl of humerus c) olecranon d) proper fascia and superficial tissues e) the head of radial bone 11. Through the canal of the ulnar n. in the cubital region passes: a) ulnar n. b) radial n. c) median n. d) superior ulnar collateral a. e) inferior ulnar collateral a.

Antebrachii (forearm) region

1. Projection of the ulnar neurovascular bundle on the forearm is the line that connects: a) tendon of the biceps brachii m. b) styloid process of the ulna c) medial epicondyle of the humerus d) pisiform bone e) olecranon 2. Projection of the radial neurovascular bundle on the forearm is the line between: a) tendon of biceps brachii m. b) middle of the cubital fossa c) styloid process of the radius d) lateral epicondyl of the humerus e) scaphoid bone 3. The projection line of the median nerve on the forearm connects: a) tendons of the biceps brachii m. b) middle of the cubital fossa c) middle point between the styloid processes of radius and ulna d) medial epicondyl of the humerus e) middle point between the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis m. and palmaris longus m. 4. In the subcutaneous fatty tissue of the anterior region of the forearm we can find: a) cephalic and basilic vv. b) medial and lateral cutaneous nerves of the forear c) ulnar and radial aa. d) median n. e) median a. 5. Determine which of the statements are true: a) 2 septums start from the proper fascia in the forearm region b) the muscles are stratified in 3 layers in the anterior region of the forearm c) the 4th layer is represented by pronator quadratus m. d) main neurovascular bundles of the forearm are situated in the subcutaneous layer e) the Paron-Pirogov space is situated between the 3rd and 4th layer of flexor muscles 6. Determine between which muscles is situated the radial artery in the medial 1/3 of the forearm: a) brachioradialis m. b) pronator teres m. c) flexor carpi radialis m. d) flexor digitorum superficialis m. e) supinator m. 7. The median nerve in the medial 1/3 of the forearm is situated between: a) superficial flexor of the fingers m. b) deep flexor of the fingers m. c) palmaris longus m. d) flexor carpi ulnaris m. e) flexor carpi radialis m.

8. The adipose space of Paron-Pirogov on the forearm is delimited by: a) deep flexor of fingers m. b) long flexor of policis m. c) superficial flexor of fingers m. d) interosseous membrane e) pronator quadratus 9. The lateral neurovascular bundle of the forearm is formed by: a) radial artery and vein b) radial n. c) median n. d) superficial branch of radial n. e) deep branch of radial n. 10. The medial neurovascular bundle of the forearm is formed by: a) radial a. b) ulnar artery and vein c) radial n. d) median n. e) ulnar n. 11. The median nerve is accompanied on the forearm by: a) comitans a. b) median a c) ulnar a. d) radial a. e) none of the answers 12. In the medial 1/3 of the forearm the median nerve is situated: a) under the proper fascia b) between carpiradialis mm. and palmaris longus m. c) between brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis m. d) between superficial flexor of fingers and flexor carpi ulnaris m. e) between superficial digitorum mm. and deep digitorum mm. 13. The radial groove in the medial and inferior 1/3 of the forearm is limited by: a) brachioradial m. b) flexor carpi radialis m. c) pronator teres m. d) palmaris longus m. e) pronator quadratus m. 14. The ulnar groove of the forearm is limited by: a) flexor carpi ulnaris m. b) superficial flexor of fingers m. c) brachioradial m. d) palmaris longus m. e) pronator teres m. 15. What passes through the supinator canal? a) radial nerve b) deep branch of the radial nerve together with the radial collateral artery c) deep branch of the radial nerve d) posterior interosseous nerve of the forearm e) radial artery 16. The supinator canal has the following boundaries: a) anular radial ligament b) supinator m. c) brachioradial m. d) middle diaphysis of the radial bone e) neck of the radial bone 17. What is the manifestation of the supinatory canal syndrome: a) diminished skin sensibility of the anterior-lateral region of the forearm b) diminished skin sensibility of the posterior region of the forearm c) diminished force of extension of the hand and fingers d) inability to flex the hand and fingers e) ischemia of the tissues of the posterior region of the forearm 18. Neurovascular bundle of the posterior region of the forearm is formed by: a) posterior nerve of the antebrachii b) the terminal branch of the deep branch of the radial n. c) posterior interosseous artery and two interosseous veins d) radial a. e) posterior artery of the forearm

19. The adipose layer from the posterior region of the forearm communicates with the Pirogov space: a) along the perivascular tissue of the interosseous arteries b) through the supinator canal c) through the openings into the interosseous membrana d) through the ulnar groove e) through the radial groove 20. The fatty tissue space from the posterior region of the forearm is displaced: a) between the superficial and the deep layers of muscles b) between the deep layer of muscles and the interosseous membrana c) above the superficial layer of muscles d) between the superficial muscles e) in this region the fatty tissue space does not exist 21. The median groove is situated between: a) flexor carpi radialis m. b) flexor carpi ulnaris m. c) superficial flexor of fingers m. d) deep flexor of fingers m. e) pronator teres m. 22. The neurovascular interosseous anterior bundle from the forearm region represents branches of: a) median n. b) ulnar n. c) ulnar a. and v. d) radial a. and v. e) radial n. 23. The third layer of muscles from the anterior region of the forearm consists of: a) long flexor of thumb m. b) deep flexor of fingers m. c) superficial flexor of fingers m. d) pronator teres m. e) pronator quadratus m.

Hand region
1. In the subcutaneous tissue of the carpian region we can find the following structures: a) cephalic and basilic vv. b) intermediate v. c) medial cutaneus nerve of the forearm d) radial n. e) lateral cutaneus nerve of the forearm 2. Carpal canal contains the following anatomical structures: a) ulnar n. b) superficial branch of the radial n. c) tendons of the superficial and deep flexors of fingers d) tendon of the long flexor muscle of the thumb e) median n. 3. Carpi-ulnar canal (of Guyon) contains: a) tendon of the flexor carpi ulnar m. b) ulnar artery and vein c) ulnar n. d) tendon of the flexor digiti minimi m. e) all answers are true 4. The syntopy of the anatomical structures in the carpiulnar canal (of Guyon) : a) the artery is situated medial to the nerv b) the nerv is situated superficially c) the artery is situated lateral and superficially d) the nerv is situated deep and medial to the artery e) the vein is situated medial to the nerv 5. The carpiradial canal contains: a) radial artery and vein b) radial n. c) tendon of the flexor carpi radialis m. d) medial n. e) superficial branch of the radial n. 6. Median nerve compression syndrome in the carpian region is determined by: a) localization of the nerve between dense fibrous structures with low stretchability b) localization of the comitans artery of the median n. c) limitrophe localization of the pisiform bone d) thickening of the carpal volar ligament e) thickness of the median n.

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7. In the subcutaneous tissue of the posterior carpian region are situated the following structures: a) cephalic and basilic vv. b) tendons of the extensors c) medial and lateral cutaneus nn. of the forearm d) posterior cutaneus n. of the forearm e) superficial branch of the radial n., dorsal branch of the ulnar n. 8. The radiocarpian joint is formed by: a) the radial bone b) the trapezoid bone c) the ulnar bone with the articular cartilage d) the proximal line of the carpian bones e) the pisiform bone 9. The palmar aponeurosis formed by: a) the extension of the palmaris brevis m. tendon b) the extension of the palmaris longus m. tendon c) superficial fascia d) tendons of the flexors e) a triangular plate of dense connective tissue, thick and solid 10. The superficial palmar arterial arch is projected: a) on the proximal transverse palmar crease b) in the middle of metacarpian bones c) on the distal transverse palmar crease d) on the metacarpophalangean crease e) on the longitudinal palmar crease 11. The deep palmar arterial arch is situated: a) more proximal than the superficial arch b) more distal than the superficial arch c) at the same level with the superficial arch d) in the thenar fascial lodge e) in the mesothenar fascial lodge 12. In the mesothenar fascial lodge can be found: a) tendons of the superficial and deep flexors of the fingers muscles b) common palmar digital nn., superficial palmar arterial arch c) tendon of the flexor policis longus muscle d) subaponeurotic cellular space, subtendinous cellular space e) lumbrical mm. 13. Show possible ways of spreading the pus from the subaponeurotic space of the mesothenar fascial compartment: a) along neurovascular bundles of the finger to the subcutaneous palmar tissue b) along the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and artery into subtendineous space c) on the way of the carpal canal to the forearm and to the Paron-Pirogov space d) along the lumbrical muscles to the dorsal region of the hand e) along the deep palmer arch to the dorsal part of the hand 14. Ulnar synovial bursa contains the tendons of: a) superficial flexor of the fingers b) carpi radial flexor c) deep flexor of the fingers d) long flexor of the thumb e) carpi ulnar flexor 15. The motor branch of the median nerve enervates the following muscles of the thenar eminence: a) adductor policis m. b) flexor policis brevis m. (deep head) c) abductor policis brevis m. d) oponens policis m. e) flexor policis brevis m. (superficial head) 16. The deep branch of the ulnar nerve enervates the following muscles: a) palmaris brevis m. b) interosseous mm. c) adductor policis m. d) flexor policis brevis m. (deep head) e) flexor policis brevis m. (superficial head) 17. Which branches enervate the palmar region of the fingers: a) superficial branch of ulnar n. ulnar surface of the 5th and 4th fingers b) median n. radial surface of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th fingers c) radial n. radial surface of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th fingers d) radial n. 1st finger, median n. 2nd, 3rd and 4th, ulnar n. 5th finger e) all answers are wrong

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18. The dorsal region of the fingers is enervated as follows: a) superficial branch of radial n. radial surface of the 2nd and 5th fingers b) median n. radial surface of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th fingers c) dorsal branch of ulnar n. ulnar surface of the 2nd and 5th fingers d) radial n. radial surface of the 5th finger e) median n. 3rd and 4th finger 19. The superficial palmar arterial arch is formed by: a) radial a. and deep branch of the ulnar a. b) ulnar a. and deep branch of the radial a. c) metacarpian aa. d) digital aa. e) anastomosis between the ulnar a. and superficial branch of the radial a. 20. The limits of the mesothenar fascial lodge are: a) ligaments of the flexors b) palmar aponeurosis c) medial and lateral intermuscular septums d) the space under the ligaments e) interosseous deep fascia 21. Pus from the synovial sheath of the palmar region can spread: a) from one synovial sheath to another b) to the hipothenar fascial lodge c) to the cellular spaces of the mesothenar d) to the Paron-Pirogov space e) to the radiocarpian joint 22. What type of whitlow is the perinychial and subungual whitlows of the fingers of the hand: a) of the skin b) subcutaneuos c) onychia d) pandactilitis e) tendineous 23. The osteofibrous canals of the fingers are formed from: a) peribone of the falanx b) palmar fascia of the fingers c) the parietal layer of the sinovial sheath d) the visceral layer of the sinovial sheath e) flexors ligaments 24. The tendon of the deep flexor of fingers m. inserts on the: a) base of medial phalanx b) base of distal phalanx c) tuberosity of distal phalanx d) midpoint of medial phalanx e) proximal margin of the nail 25. Tendons bands of the superficial flexor of fingers m. inserts on the: a) base of medial phalanx b) base of distal phalanx c) tuberosity of distal phalanx d) midpoint of medial phalanx e) none of the answers 26. The sinovial sheats of the flexors on the fingers are formed by: a) fibrous canal b) peritenon c) peribone of the phalanx d) epitenon e) mezotenon 27. Articular line of the metacarpophalangeal joint is distal from the prominence of the metacarpal bone head at a distance of: a) 10-12 mm b) 8-10 mm c) 6-8 mm d) 4-6 mm e) 2-4 mm 28. Articular line of the proximal interphalangeal joint is distal from the prominence of the phalanx head at a distance of: a) 10-12 mm b) 8-10 mm c) 6-8 mm d) 4-6 mm e) 2-4 mm

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29. Articular line of the distal interphalangeal joint is distal from the prominence of the phalanx head at a distance of: a) 2-4 mm b) 4-6 mm c) 6-8 mm d) 8-10 mm e) 10-12 mm 30. To the doctor comes a patient with a right hand trauma. During examination edema and pain are revealed at palpation in the anatomic snuffbox. A bone fracture is supposed. Which bone could it be? a) trapezium bone b) scaphoid bone c) trapezoid bone d) lunate bone e) pisiform bone 31. A patient has tendosinovitis of the II finger; by the 4th day from the beginning of the illness necrosis of the tendon of the deep flexor of fingers m. is revealed. What might be the cause of the necrosis of the tendon? a) compression of the digital arteries b) compression of the mesothenon by the liquid accumulated in the sinovial sheath c) compression of the tendon d) compression of the digital muscles e) compression of the digital nerves 32. Pus from the synovial sheath of the little finger may spread to: a) subcutaneous fatty tissue of the distal phalanx b) Paron-Pirogov cellular space through mesothenar compartment and carpal canal c) mesothenar compartment d) dorsum of the hand along with the lumbrical mm. e) dorsal region of the forearm 33. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) subcutaneous b) paronychia c) of the bone d) subungual e) tendineous 34. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

of the skin of the joint subepidermal tendineous subcutaneous

35 What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

cutaneo-subcutaneous as a buttonhole paronychia tendineous subungual subcutaneous

36. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

of the skin paronychia subcutaneous subungual tendineous

13

37. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

subcutaneous pandactilitis of the bone subungual tendineous

38. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

of the skin paronychia of the bone subungual tendineous

39. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

of the skin paronychia of the bone subungual subcutaneous

40. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

of the skin paronychia subcutaneous subungual tendineous

41. What type of whitlow is drawn:

a) b) c) d) e)

subperiosteal of the joint of the bone subungual subcutaneous

Lower limb Gluteal region

1. a) b) c) d) e) Projection of the superior gluteal a. is: the superior quadrant of the gluteal region middle of the gluteal region the line that connects the posterior-superior iliac spine with the great trochanter, the point between the superior and medial 1/3 the middle of the line that connects posterior-superior iliac spine with the ischial tuberosity none of the answers

2. Projection of the inferior gluteal a. is: a) the line that connects the posterior-superior iliac spine with the great trochanter, the point between the superior and medial 1/3 b) more inferior and extern from the line that connects posterior-superior iliac spine with the ischial tuberosity c) the region of the ischial tuberosity d) on the external line of the sacrum e) the superior-inferior quadrant

14

3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

Projection of the sciatic nerve is the line that connects: middle of the distance between the ischial tuberosity and the apex of the greater trochanter middle of the popliteal fossa ischial tuberosity gluteal fold the suprapiriform orifice Which muscle does not take part in the formation of the middle layer of the gluteal region: gluteus medius m. piriformis m. obturator internus m. obturator externus m. quadratus femoris m. What muscles are part of the deep layer of the gluteal region: gemellus mm. obturator internus m. obturator externus m. gluteus minor m. piriformis m. The fatty tissue space under the gluteus maximus m. communicates with: small pelvis cavity ischiorectal fossa posterior compartment of the thigh anterior compartment of the thigh lombar region The fatty tissue space from the gluteal region communicates with the small pelvis through the means of: sciatic minor orifice suprapiriform orifice proximal part of the ligament of the gluteus major m. infrapiriform orifice all answers are correct Through the suprapiriform orifice pass the following structures: superior gluteal a. and v. superior gluteal n. sciatic n. inferior gluteal a. external pudendal n. Through the suprapiriform orifice pass the following structures: inferior gluteal a., v., n. sciatic n., n. cutanat femural posterior lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh internal pudendal a., v., pudendal n. external pudendal a., v., n.

10. The great sciatic foramen is limited by: a) sacrotuberal lig. b) sacrospinous lig. c) lesser sciatic notch d) greater sciatic notch e) sacrum 11. The lesser sciatic foramen is limited by: a) greater sciatic notch b) sacrospinous lig. c) sacrotuberous lig. d) lesser sciatic notch e) sacrum 12. Superior gluteal nerve exits the pelvis through: a) greater sciatic foramen b) lesser sciatic foramen c) obturator foramen d) suprapiriform foramen e) infrapiriform foramen 13. Pudendal Alcocks canal contains: a) obturator a., v., n. b) pudendal a., v., n. c) internal pudendal a., v. d) pudendal n. e) inferior gluteal a., v., n.

15

14. Which of the muscles have their insertion on the greater trochanter? a) piriformis m. b) gluteus maximus m. c) gluteus minimus m. d) quadratus femoris m. e) iliopsoas m. 15. The piriformis muscle attachments are the following structure: a) posterior superior iliac spine b) ala of ilium c) coccyx d) anterior part of sacrum e) anterior superior iliac spine 16. What is the sintopy of the sciatic nerve in the infrapiriform foramen: a) lateral from all structures b) more medial from all structures c) between the pudend and gluteal inferior neurovascular bundles d) medial from the inferior gluteal a. s) in general passes through the suprapiriform foramen 17. Where goes the internal pudendal a. and v. and the pudendal n. from the gluteal region: a) parietal space of the pelvis b) the posterior compartment of the femur c) ischiorectal fossa d) the anterior part of the femur e) the retrorectal space of the pelvis

Coxofemural joint
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) Which are the internal ligaments of the coxofemural joint: iliofemoral lig. pubofemoral lig. ischiofemoral lig. lig. capitis femoris orbicular zone Which are the weak points of the capsule of the coxofemural joint: capsule of coxofemural joint does not have weak points the collections of pus can spread through every region of the joint capsule anterior between the pubofemural and the iliofemural ligaments posterior and inferior under the inferior margin of the ischiofemural ligament the lateral part The pus from the hip joint can spread anterior through the pubofemural and iliofemural ligaments towards: the fascial sheath of the iliopsoas m. iliopectineal bursa gluteal region medial region of the thigh antero-lateral region of the abdomen Blood supply of the hip joint is provided by the following arteries: internal pudendal artery ascending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery acetabular branch of the obturator artery inferior gluteal artery medial circumflex femoral artery Arterial net of the hip joint region is formed by the following arterial anastomosis: a. glutea superior with ascending branch of a. circumflexae femoris lateralis a. glutea inferior with ascending branch of a. circumflexae femoris lateralis a. glutea superior with obturator artery a. obturatoria with a. circumflexae femoris lateralis a. obturatoria with a. circumflexae femoris medialis

Anterior medial region of the thigh

1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) Subinguinal muscular gap (lacuna musculorum) contains: femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve femoral a., v. iliopsoas m. femoral n. lateral cutaneus n. of thigh In the subinguinal vascular gap (lacuna vasorum) are: lateral cutaneus n. of thigh iliopsoas m. femoral n. femoral a., v. femoral branch of the genitofemoral n.

16

3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

The projection of the deep femoral ring is: the medial 1/3 of the inguinal ligament the extern 1/3 of the inguinal ligament in the middle of the inguinal ligament lateral from the femoral v. medial from the femoral v. Projection of the femoral artery is the line that connects: middle of the inguinal ligament medial epicondyle of the femoral bone proximal edge of the patella anterior superior iliac spine distal edge of the patella Projection of the femoral nerve is: 1 2cm laterally from the femoral a. interior from the femoral a. posterior from the femoral a. anterior from the femoral a. between the femoral artery and vein Limits of the femoral triangle of Scarp are: inguinal ligament adductor longus m. vastus literalis m. sartorius m. gracilis m. The bottom of the femoral triangle is represented by: iliopsoas m. vastus lateralis m. adductor longus m. pectineus m. gracillis m. The superficial branches of the femoral artery are: internal pudendal a. inferior epigastric a. external pudendal a. superficial circumflex iliac a. superficial epigastric a. In the subcutaneous fatty tissue of the femoral region are situated the following nerves: genitofemoral n. lateral cutaneus n. of thigh femural n., anterior cutaneous branches obturator n., cutaneous branches pudendal n.

10. Anterior part of the proximal third of the thigh contains: a) sartorius m. b) femoral a, v., n., tensor fascia latae m. c) adductor longus m. d) quadriceps femoris m. e) articularis genus m. 11. Identify the structures placed in the medial (internal) part of the thigh: a) adductor brevis m., pectineus m. b) adductor longus m. c) adductor magnus m. d) gracilis m. e) sartorius m. 12. Which of the statements are correct: a) fascia lata forms the iliotibial tract b) fascia lata forms the lateral and medial intermuscular septums c) in the femoral triangle it has 2 layers d) the femoral vessels are situated under the deep lamina of fascia lata e) lamina cribrosa is part of the fascia lata 13. Which of the following statements are correct: a) the falciform margin is situated above the sartorius m. b) the falciform margin is situated above the femoral n. c) fascia cribrosa is situated above the femoral v. d) fascia cribrosa is situated under the femoral v. e) the falciform margin and fascia cribrosa are a portion of the superficial lamina of fascia lata

17

14. The fatty tissue space from the femoral triangle (Scarp) communicates with: a) retroperitoneum and subperitoneal space through lacuna vasorum and musculorum b) subcutaneous fatty tissue of the femur through lamina cribrosa c) adductor canal over the femoral neurovascular bundle d) anterior fascial compartment of the femoral region over the femoral n. e) femoral canal over the femoral v. 15. The limits of the deep femoral ring: a) inguinal ligament b) pectineal ligament c) lacunar ligament d) arcus iliopectineus e) femoral vein 16. The limits of the superficial femoral ring: a) medial margin of the sartorius m. b) the falciform margin, superior and inferior horns c) femoral n. d) femoral a. e) none of the answers 17. The femoral canal has the following limits: a) superficial lamina of fascia lata, superior anterior horn b) femoral a. c) lateral femoral v. d) posterior deep lamina of fascia lata e) transversal fascia 18. Through the femoral canal passes the following structures: a) femoral artery b) sac of femoral hernia c) femoral nerve d) femoral vein e) saphenus nerve 19. The femoral canal contains: a) femoral v. b) safena magna v. c) hernial sac d) soft connective tissue e) lymphatic nodes 20. The main vessel that forms Corona mortis is: a) external pudendal a. b) femoral v. c) obturator a. from the inferior epigastric artery d) inferior epigastric a. e) obturator a. from internal iliac a. 21. The adductor canal lays between: a) adductor magnus m. b) adductor longus m. c) vastus medialis m. d) gracilis m. e) lamina vastoadductoria 22. Which of the statements are not true: a) through the superior foramen of the Hunter canal pass the femoral vessels and saphenous n. b) through the anterior foramen of the Hunter canal pass the saphenous n. and the genus descendens a. and v. c) through the inferior foramen of the Hunter canal pass the femoral vessels and femoral n. d) through the inferior foramen of the Hunter canal the femoral vessels pass into the popliteal fossa e) through the superior foramen of the Hunter canal pass the femoral vessels and femoral n. 23. Identify which of the following statements are correct? a) lacuna musculorum is bounded from lacuna vasculorum by the iliopectineal tract b) the falciform margin bounds the saphenous opening c) superficial epigastric a. takes part in forming the corona mortis d) saphenous n. exits through the anterior foramen of the Hunters canal e) great saphenous v. flows into the femoral v. 24. Through the adductor canal (Hunter) pass the following structures: a) femoral artery b) hernial sac of femoral hernia c) femoral nerve d) femoral vein e) saphenus nerve

18

25. Distal fragment of the femoral bone in case of fracture of the inferior third usually is displaced: a) medial b) lateral c) posterior, under the pressure of gastrocnemius m. d) medial and anterior, under the action of quadriceps femoris and sartorius mm. e) lateral and anterior 26. In case of fracture of the femoral neck the lower limb takes the following position: a) internally rotated b) externally rotated c) semiflected in the hip and knee joint d) abducted e) no determined position 27. The femoral nerve in the superior third of the thigh is situated between: a) iliac m. b) Iliopsoas m. c) femoral v. d) femoral a. e) sartorius m.

Posterior region of the thigh

1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) Projection of the sciatic nerve is the line that connects: ischial tuberosity middle of the popliteal fossa middle of the distance between the greater trochanter and the ischial tuberosity medial border of the fibular head lateral border of the fibular head Identify the structures placed in the middle third of the posterior part of the thigh: gracilis m. semimembranosus and semitendinosus mm. biceps femoris m. sciatic n., perforating aa., descendent branch of lateral circumflex femoral a. pectineus m., adductor magnus m. The sciatic nerve lays in the posterior compartment of the thigh: by the gluteal plica under fascia lata in the superior third covered by the long head of biceps fomoris m. in the middle third posterior from the adductor magnus m. in the inferior third between the biceps femoris and the semimembranosus mm. in the inferior third between the semimembranosus and the semitendinosus mm. The fatty tissue space from the posterior region of the thigh communicates directly with: gluteal region the antero-medial region of the limb popliteal fossa lateral region of the femur all answers are true External rotation of the lower leg is determined by: biceps femoris m. semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gracilis, sartorius and popliteus mm. vastus medialis m. medial part of the patellar ligament vastus lateralis m. Internal rotation of the shank is determined by: biceps femoris m. semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gracilis, sartorius and popliteus mm. vastus medialis m. medial part of the patellar ligament vastus lateralis m.

Knee region
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) Bursas of the anterior region of the knee are the following: bursa prepatellaris subcutanea, subfascialis and subtendinea bursa infrapatellaris superficialis bursa infrapatellaris profunda bursa suprapatellaris bursa poplitea Which structures consolidate fascia propria of the anterior region of the knee: retinaculum patellae mediale retinaculum patellae anterior retinaculum patellae laterale oblique popliteal ligament proper patellar ligament

19

3. Which arteries do not participate in the patellar arterial net: ) a. genus descendens b) a. poplitea with its branches c) a. recurrens tibialis anterior d) r. circumflexus fibulae e) a. peronea 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e) The limits of the popliteal fossa are: tendon of the biceps femoris m. semimembranosus and semitendinosus mm. adductor magnus m. gastrocnemius m. gracilis m. What are the projection lines of the structures in the popliteal fossa region: popliteal vessels and the tibial n. middle region of the superior angle of the popliteal fossa popliteal vessels and the tibial n. medial margin of the tendon of the biceps femoris m. the common fibular n. medial margin of the tendon of the biceps femoris m. the common fibular n. lateral margin of the biceps femoris m. the common fibular n. medial margin of the semimembranosus m. What structures can be found in the subcutaneous layer of the popliteal fossa: great and small saphenous vv. saphenus n., posterior femoral cutaneous n. tibial n. popliteal a. common fibular n. Syntopy of popliteal neurovascular bundle from posterior to anterior: n. tibialis, v. poplitea, a. poplitea a. poplitea, n. ischiadicus, v. poplitea n. ischiadicus, a. poplitea, v. poplitea v. poplitea, n. ischiadicus, a. poplitea none of answers Which of the following statements are correct: popliteal artery is situated lateral to the popliteal vein popliteal vein is situated lateral to the tibial nerve popliteal artery is situated medially and deeper to popliteal vein and tibial nerve popliteal artery is situated lateral to the peroneal nerve all answers are incorrect The sural nerve is: continuation of the saphenus n. continuation of the femoral n. continuation of the cutaneus surae lateralis n. continuation of the cutaneus surae medialis n. all answers are correct

10. Branches of the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa are: a) a. tibialis anterior b) a. tibialis posterior c) aa. genus superiores lateralis and medialis d) a. genus media e) aa. genus inferiores mediales and laterales 11. Surgical approach to the popliteal artery is more convenient via the following access: a) posterior popliteal b) medial, through fossa of Jobert c) lateral d) transarticular (through the joint) e) transligamentar (through the ligament) 12. Fossa of Jober is bounded by: a) medial condyle of the femur and the medial head of gastrocnemian m. b) gracilis m. c) tendons of the adductor magnus m., semimembranosus and semitendinosus mm. d) sartorius m. e) popliteus m. 13. What are the ways of spreading the pus from the fatty tissue space of the popliteal fossa: a) inguinal canal b) femural canal c) obturator canal d) posterior region of the thigh e) posterior and anterior region of the shank

20

Knee joint
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) The structures that form the knee joint are: femur fibula tibia patella all answers are correct Which of the following ligaments from the knee joint region are extraarticular: anterior cruciate lig. fibular collateral lig. tibial collateral lig. oblique popliteal lig. posterior cruciate lig. Which ligaments strengthen the anterior portion of the knee joint: patellar lig. tibial collateral lig. fibular collateral lig. anterior and posterior cruciate lig. medial and lateral patellar retinaculum A maximum relaxation of the knee joint ligaments can be obtained in case of: maximum flexion of the articulation maximum extension of the articulation Semiflexion internal rotation it is impossible to obtain a simultaneous relaxation of ligaments The intraarticular ligaments of the knee joint are represented by: anterior cruciate lig. posterior meniscofemoral lig. arcuate popliteal lig. posterior cruciate lig. transverse genicular lig. The oblique popliteal ligament is the continuation of the following muscle tendon: semimembranosus semitendinosus sartorius gracilis adductor magnus

Region of the leg

1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) Projection of the anterior tibial artery and of the deep peroneal nerve is the line that connects: middle of the distance between the head of the fibula and the tibial tuberosity middle of the bimalleolar distance medial malleolus tibial tuberosity head of fibula Projection of the posterior tibial artery and of the tibial nerve is the line that connects: middle of the distance between the head of the fibula and the tibial tuberosity medial border of the tibia middle of the distance between Achilles tendon and the medial malleolus 1 cm posterior from the medial border of tibia medial malleolus The following structures can be found in the subcutaneous tissue of the leg: small saphenous v. cutaneous sural nn. anterior tibial v. great saphenous v. and saphenous n. anterior tibial a. Anterior fascial sheath of the lower leg region at the level of proximal third contains: anterior tibial artery and vein and the deep fibular nerve brevis et longus fibular mm. anterior tibial m. extensor digitorum longus m. common fibular nerve The superior musculoperoneus canal is formed by: fibularis longus m. neck of the fibula fibularis brevis m. anterior tibial m. extensor hallucis longus m.

21

6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

Identify structures present at the level of medial third of the lower leg in the lateral fascial sheath: fibularis longus m. superficial fibular n. fibularis brevis m. fibular a. and v. deep fibular n. The deep fibular nerve has the following position according to the anterior tibial artery: in the superior 1/3 lateral in the superior 1/3 medial in the middle 1/3 anterior in the middle 1/3 posterior in the inferior 1/3 medial The sintopy of the neurovascular bundle of the anterior region of the leg is: in the superior 1/3 between the anterior tibial m. and extensor digitorum longus m. in the superior 1/3 between the extensor digitorum longus m. and extensor hallucis longus m. in the inferior 1/3 between the anterior tibial m. and extensor hallucis longus m. in the inferior 1/3 between the extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus m. posterior from all muscles Between which muscles is located the deep fibular nerve in the inferior third of the lower leg: interosseus membrane anterior tibial m. extensor hallucis longus m. extensor digitorum longus m. fibularis longus m.

10. The course of the superficial fibular nerve is: a) in the superior and medial 1/3 passes through the fibers of the fibularis longus m., parallel to anterior intermuscular septum b) in the superior and medial 1/3 passes through the fibers of the fibularis brevis m. c) in the inferior 1/3 parallel to the posterior intermuscular septum d) between the fibers of the anterior tibial m. e) in the inferior 1/3 is situated in the subcutaneous tissue 11. What muscles lay in the superficial compartment of the posterior region of the leg: a) gastrocnemius m. b) posterior tibial m. c) soleus m. d) flexor digitorum longus m. e) plantaris m. 12. What are the muscles from the deep fascial sheath of the posterior region of the leg: a) flexor digitorum longus m. b) flexor hallucis longus m. c) soleus m. d) plantaris m. e) posterior tibial m. 13. Which structures unite to form the calcaneal tendon of Achilles: a) tendon of the soleus m. b) tendon of the posterior tibial m. c) tendon of the gastrocnemius m. d) tendon of the plantar m. e) tendon of the flexor hallucis longus m. 14. The limits of the cruropopliteus canal (Gruber) are: a) interosseus membrane b) posterior tibial m. from anterior c) soleus m. from posterior d) flexor hallucis longus m. from lateral, flexor digitorum longus m. from medial e) plantar m. from posterior 15. The cruropopliteus canal (Gruber) contains the following structures: a) posterior tibial a. and v. b) anterior tibial a. and v. c) tibial n. d) common fibular n. e) peroneal vessels 16. The limits of the inferior musculofibular canal are: a) fibularis longus m. b) fibularis brevis m. c) posterior tibial m. d) flexor hallucis longus m. e) fibula

22

17. Which structures are situated in the inferior musculofibular canal: a) common fibular n. b) tibial n. c) posterior tibial a. d) fibular a and v. e) fibularis brevis m. 18. Identify structures present at the level of middle third of the lower leg in the posterior fascial sheath: a) fibularis longus m. b) soleus m., gastrocnemius m. c) flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus mm., tibial n., posterior tibial a. and v. d) posterior tibial and plantaris longus mm., fibular a. and v. e) anconeus m. 19. Which of the following statements are correct: a) superior musculofibular canal is formed by the neck of the fibula and the fibularis longus m. b) inferior musculofibular canal is formed by the fibula and the fibularis brevis m. c) inferior musculofibular canal contains the peroneal a., v. and n. d) superior musculofibular canal contains the common fibular n. e) inferior musculofibular canal is formed by the fibula and the long fibular m. 20. Identify the wrong statements: a) arterial trunks can be pressed at the proximal third of the thigh b) pseudoartrhoses of distal third of tibia are determined by the insufficient blood supply c) superficial and deep venous system of the lower leg connects via communicating veins d) small saphenous vein flows into the femoral vein in the distal third of the hip e) sural nerve is a motor nerve 21. Posterior tibial a. and tibial n. are localized in the middle third of the lower leg between: a) soleus m. b) gastrocnemius m. c) posterior tibial m. d) flexor hallucis longus m. e) flexor digitorum longus m. 22. To which direction spreads the pus from the cruropopliteal canal: a) popliteal fossa b) medial malleolar canal c) anterior fascial sheath of the leg d) lateral malleolar canal e) anerior region of the knee 23. Injury of the tibial nerve compromises (leads to): a) dorsal flexion of the foot and extension of the toes b) plantar flexion of the foot c) flexion of the toes d) dorsal flexion of the foot and flexion of the toes e) blood supply of the lower leg

Talocrural (ankle) joint region

1. What structures form the ankle joint? a) tibia b) fibula c) astragalus (talus) d) calcaneus e) navicular bone 2. What structures are situated between the superficial and proper fascia in the talocrural joint region: a) great saphenous v. and saphenous n., anterior from medial malleolus b) small saphenous v. and sural n., posterior from lateral malleolus c) great saphenous v. and saphenous n., posterior from lateral malleolus d) superficial fibular n. in the anterior part of the articulation e) small saphenous v. and sural n., anterior from medial malleolus 3. The medial malleolar canal is formed by: a) retinaculum of flexorum mm. b) medial part of the calcaneus bone c) retinaculum of extensorum superior mm. d) lateral part of the calcaneus bone e) retinaculum of the extensorum inferior mm. 4. a) b) c) d) e) The medial malleolar canal contains the following structures: tendon of the posterior tibial m. tendons of flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus mm. Achilles tendon posterior tibial a. and v., tibial n. tendon of soleus m.

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5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e)

Syntopy of the anatomical structures in the medial malleolar canal starting with the posterior tibial m. is: tendon of flexor digitorum longus m. the most posterior is the tendon of the flexor halucis longus m. neurovascular bundle lyes between the tendons of flexor digitorum longus and flexor halucis longus mm. the neurovascular bundle is situated immediately posterior from the medial malleolus posterior from the tendon of the posterior tibial m. is situated the tendon of the flexor halucis longus m. Which of the following answers are correct: under the superior fibular retinaculum the fibular mm. are situated in a common osteofibrous sheath by the inferior fibular retincaculum the fibular mm. have separate osteofibrous sheaths fibular mm. have a separate osteofibrous sheath through the whole length fibular mm. have a common osteofibrous sheath through the whole length there is no superior and inferior fibular retinaculum, there is just one retinaculum In the subcutaneous tissue of the lateral malleolar region can be found: small saphenous v. sural n. great saphenous v. deep fibular n. tibial n. Which are the ligaments of the talocrural joint: medial deltoid lig. calacaneofibular lig. tendon of Achile anterior talofibular lig. posterior talofibular lig.

Region of the foot

Projection of the dorsal neurovascular bundle of the foot is the following line: head of the I metatarsian bone head of the II metatarsian bone the II interdigital space the middle of the bimalleolus distance the I interdigital space In the subcutaneous tissue of the dorsal region of the foot can be found: dorsal venous network dorsalis pedis a. superficial fibular n. sural and saphenous nn. fibular a. The following structures are situated under the proper fascia of the dorsal region of the foot: extensor digitorum brevis m. extensor halucis brevis m. dorsalis pedis a. and deep fibular n. anterior tibial m. superficial fibular n. Branches of dorsalis pedis artery are: arcuat a. deep plantaris branch medialis et lateralis tarsea aa. lateral plantar a. medialis plantar a. Between which two structures is placed a. dorsalis pedis? tendon of the tibial anterior muscle tendon of m. extensor hallucis longus extensor hallucis brevis m. extensor digitorum longus m. extensor digitorum brevis m. The deep fibular nerv enervates: skin of the IV interdigital space skin of the I interdigital space skin of the medial malleolar region extensor digitorum brevis m. flexor mm. What muscles are situated in the medial fascial sheath of the foot: flexor digitorum brevis m. quadratus plantae m. adductor halucis m. abductor halucis m. lumbrical mm.

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8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

What anatomical structures are situated in the medial fascial sheath of the foot: flexor halucis brevis m. abductor halucis m. tendon of the flexor halucis longus m. tendon of the flexor digitorum longus m. tendon of the posterior tibial m. In the lateral fascial sheath of the foot are: abductor digiti minimi m. flexor digitorum brevis m. flexor digiti minimi m. quadratus plantae m. lumbrical mm.

10. The walls of the plantar canal are: a) medial and lateral intermuscular septums b) long plantar lig. c) deep fascia of the foot d) superficial fascia of the foot e) quadratus plantae m. 11. The plantar canal comprises: a) quadratus plantae m. b) flexor halucis brevis m. c) tendons of the flexor hallucis and digiti longus mm. d) lateral and medial neurovascular bundles e) flexor digitorum brevis m. 12. Boundaries of the calcaneus canal are: a) calcaneus bone b) abductor halucis m. c) adductor halucis m. d) quadratus plantae m. e) flexor halucis brevis m. 13 In the calcaneus canal are situated: a) medial neurovascular bundle b) tendon of the flexor digitorum longus m. c) tendon of the long fibular m. d) tendon of the flexor halucis longus m. e) tendon of the posterior tibial m. 14. The medial plantar nerve enervates the following structures: a) flexor of I toe and digitorum brevis mm. b) adductor halucis m. c) 2 medial lumbrical mm. d) 2 lateral lumbrical mm. e) the skin of the internal part of the I, II, III and IV toes 15. The structures enervated by the lateral plantar nerve are: a) 5th toe mm. , quadratus plantae m. b) adductor halucis m. c) 2 lateral lumbrical mm. and interosseus mm. d) extern part of the skin of the 5th and 4th toes e) flexor dgitorum brevis m. 16. Where do the tendons of the long extensor muscles insert on the dorsal part of the toes: a) lateral portions at the base of distal phalanges b) medial portions at the base of medial phalanges c) lateral portions at the base of proximal phalanges d) medial portions at the base of distal phalanges e) all portions are inserted at the base of distal phalanges 17. Find the correct answers: a) tendons of the flexors from the toes region are united in osteofibrous canals b) tendons of the flexors have synovial sheaths c) synovial sheaths of the flexors begin from the metatarsal bones d) synovial sheaths begin from the calcaneus bone e) synovial sheaths of the flexors finish at the base of distal phalanges 18. Joint of Chopart is formed by: a) head of metatarsal bones b) base of proximal phalanx c) cuboid bone d) astragalus (talus) and calcaneus e) navicular bone

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19. Tarsometatarsal joint of Lisfranc is formed by: a) head of metatarsal bones b) base of proximal phalanx c) cuboid and three cuneiform bones d) base of metatarsal bones e) astragalus (talus) and calcaneus

Head
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e) What is the reason the incisions on the face are made in radial direction: to obtain a broader approach not to injure the branches of the trigeminal nerve not to injure the mimical muscles not to injure the branches of the facial a. and v. to avoid the injure of the branches of the facial n. What type of hematoma is formed in case of injury of medial meningeal artery: epydural subdural subarahnoidal subpial intracerebral Which vessels or tissues bleed more frequently in case of penetrating cranian trauma: vessels of the encephalons meninges sinuses of the dura mater brain tissues epicranian tissues diploic vv. The posterior auricular nerv is branch of which nerve: trigemenal n. facial n. trochlear n. oculomotor n. zigomatic n. Sides of the Chipauts triangle of trepanation for mastoidotomy are: a line traced from spina suprameatum to the tip of mastoid process facial canal a line continuing the zygomatic arch on the mastoid process sigmoid sinus anterior border of mastoid crest Superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into: sinus sagittalis superior sinus cavernosus sinus sagittalis inferior sinus petrosus superior sinus transversalis What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure? maxillar n. oculomotor and ophtalmic nn. trochlear and abducens nn. superior ophthalmic vein zygomatic n. What passes through oval foramen: maxillar n. meningeal accessory branch of middle meningeal a. mandibular n. accessory n. zygomatic n. Venous drainage from the cavernous sinus goes to: superior petrosal sinus transverse sinus inferior petrosal sinus venous plexus of the carotid canal sigmoid sinus

10. Great cerebral vein of Galen drains into: a) sagital sinus b) sinuses of the base of the skull c) straight sinus d) transverse sinus e) occipital sinus

11. At the intersection of anterior vertical and inferior horizontal lines of cranio-cerebral scheme of Kronleine-Brusova is projected:

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a) b) c) d) e)

central cerebral sulcus of Rolando trunk of middle meningeal artery anterior cerebral a. internal carotid a. lateral cerebral sulcus of Sylvius

12. Facial artery arises from: a) external carotid a. b) internal carotid a. c) basilar a. d) common carotid a. e) maxillary a. 13. Angular artery anastomoses with: a) ophthalmic artery b) dorsal artery of the nose c) parotid arterial branches d) posterior auricular artery e) superficial temporal artery 14. What passes through the mandibular foramen: a) mental a. b) inferior alveolar a. and v. c) superior alveolar a. d) artery of the inferior lip e) inferior alveolar n. 15. Innervation of the face skin is done by: a) facial n. b) trigeminal n., terminal branches c) glossopharyngeal n. d) auricular magnus n., anterior branch e) petrosus major n. 16. Facial nerve passes through: a) foramen rotundum b) foramen spinosum c) carotid canal d) facial canal of Fallppio e) stylomastoid foramen 17. Indicate the terminal branches of the facial nerve after its exit from the stilomastoid foramen: a) temporal branches b) zygomatic and buccal branches c) marginal mandibular and cervical branches d) pharyngeal branches e) posterior auricular n. 18. Where is situated the trigeminal ganglion: a) on the posterior surface of the pyramid of the temporal bone b) in the carotid canal of the pyramid of the temporal bone c) in the region of the small wings of the sphenoid bone d) in the region of the big wings of the sphenoid bone e) in the depression of the anterior wall of the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone (cavum Meckeli) 19. What regions are innervated by the maxillary nerve: a) temporal region b) lateral surface of the nose and cheek c) superior lip d) mucous layer of the nasal septum e) mucous layer of the frontal and maxaillary sinuses 20. What branches start from the maxillary nerve in the pterygopalatine fossa: a) zygomatic nerve b) lachrymal nerve c) superior posterior alveolar branches d) infraorbital nerve e) deep petrosal nerve 21. What structures are innervated by the mandibular nerve? a) mylohyoidian muscle b) maseter muscle c) venter posterior of m. digastricus d) venter anterior of m. digastricus e) entire digastricus m.

22. What structures accompanies the auriculotemporal nerve?

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a) b) c) d) e)

middle meningeal artery internal acoustic meatus superficial temporal vein superficial temporal artery lateral pterygoid m.

23. Where is localized the lingual nerve? a) in the interpterygoid space b) in the temporopterygoid space c) in the submucous space of the buccal floor d) in the submandibular triangle e) under the mucous layer of the tongue frenulum 24. Through what orifices the orbit communicates with the cranial cavity? a) superior orbital fissure b) inferior orbital fissure c) optic canal d) sphenoidal sinus e) anterior and posterior ethmoidal foraminas 25. Ophthalmic vein drains into: a) pterygoidian venous plexus b) internal jugular vein c) cavernous sinus d) sagittal superior sinus e) superior petrosus sinus 26. Lymph from the region of lips drains into: a) submandibular lymph nodes b) buccinator lymph nodes c) retroauricular lymph nodes d) submental lymph nodes e) supraclavicular lymph nodes 27. What muscle forms the diaphragm of the oral cavity: a) genioglossus b) hyoglossus c) mylohyoid d) geniohyoid e) palatoglossus 28. Blood supply of the tongue is provided mainly by: a) lingual a. b) descending palatinal a. c) ascending palatinal a. d) pharyngeal ascending a. e) sphenopalatinal a. 29. Lymph from the tongue draines into: a) submental lymph nodes b) submandibular lymph nodes c) retropharyngean lymph nodes d) mastoidian lymph nodes e) deep cervical lymph nodes 30. Indicate the motor nerves for the tongue muscles: a) mandibular n. b) hypoglossal n. c) glossopharyngian n. d) intermedius n. e) superior laryngeal n. 31. Boundary between head and neck is: a) imaginary horizontal line passing through the hyoid bone b) the imaginary line which connects the upper edge of the thyroid cartilage with the superior nuchal line c) the line passing through the lower edge of the mandible d) apex of the mastoid process e) occipital superior nuchal line and external occipital protuberance 32. The boundary between the visceral cranium and the cerebral cranium passes through: a) the upper margin of the orbit, the zygomatic bone and arch, all the way to the external acoustic meatus b) infraorbital margin, zygomatic arch, mastoid apex, external occipital protuberance c) atlas, mastoid apex, zygomatic arch, infraorbital margin d) atlas, mastoid apex, zigomatic arch, supraorbital margin e) atlas, stiloid apex, zigomatic arch, supraorbital margin

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33. Boundary between the skull base and vault passes through: a) external occipital protuberance, inferior nuchal line, mastoid apex, crysta infratemporalis b) external occipital protuberance, superior nuchal line, base of the mastoid process, crysta infratemporalis c) internal occipital protuberance, inferior temporal line, mastoid apex, crysta infratemporalis d) the internal occipital protuberance, superior temporal line, base of the mastoid, crysta infratemporalis e) the internal occipital protuberance, inferior nuchal line, mastoid apex, crysta infratemporalis 34. n limitele calvariei craniene deosebim urmtoarele regiuni: a) frontoparietoccipital region b) frontotemporomastoid region c) temporal region d) mastoid region e) occipitotemporalis region 35. What fatty tissue spaces comprise the epycranian layers: a) subcutaneous, subaponeurotic, subperiostal b) intradermal, subcutaneous, subaponeurotic, subperiostal c) intradermal, paravascular, subperiostal d) intradermal, subcutaneous, subaponeurotic e) subcutaneous, paravascular, subaponeurotic 36. Galea aponeurotica connects the following muscles: a) frontal b) temporal c) occipital d) nucal e) trapezius 37. In the temporal region we can find the following fatty tissue layers: a) subcutaneous b) interaponeurotic c) subaponeurotic d) intermuscular e) subperiostal 38. What are the vascular characteristics of the epicranian tissues: a) the vessels lay above the aponeurose b) the vessels are fixed by conjunctive septums c) have a radial track d) do not collabate in case of injury e) the arteries form anastomoses with medial meningeal a. through the emissary foramens 39. Which of the answers represents the venous layers of the cerebral region: a) subcutaneous vv., diploic vv., sinuses of the dura mater b) intradermic vv., periostal vv., cerebrale vv. c) subcutaneous vv., perforant vv., sinuses of the dura mater d) diploic vv., emissary vv., cerebral vv. e) diploic vv., emissary vv., perforant vv. 40. What true emissary veins can be mentioned: a) parietal emissary vv. b) mastoid emissary vv. c) orbital emissary vv. d) frontal emissary vv. e) temporal emissary vv. 41. Mastoid emissary veins flow into: a) sinus transversus b) sinus sigmoideus c) sinus sagitalis superior d) sinus petrosus superior e) vena cerebri magna 42. Parietal emissary veins flow into: a) sinus sagitalis inferior b) sinus sagitalis superior c) sinus sigmoideus d) sinus rectus e) sinus occipitalis 43. Which bony structure is fractured more frequent on a wider area in craniocerebral trauma: a) lamela vitrea b) diploe c) external lamela d) periostum e) mastoid process

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44. The disposal of the neurovascular bundles in the head region is: a) radial b) parallel c) oblique d) perpendicular e) in the form of S letter 45. Terminal branches of the ophthalmic artery are: a) frontal a. b) supraorbital a. c) superficial temporal a. d) transvers a. of the face e) angular a. 46. Find the correct answers: a) a. frontalis passes at 2cm from the median line through incisura frontalis b) a. supraorbitalis passes at 2,5cm from the median line through incisura supraorbitalis c) a. frontalis passes through incisura supraorbitalis at 2cm from the median line d) a. supraorbitalis passes at 5cm from the median line e) a. supraorbitalis passes through incisura frontalis 47. Lymphatic vessels from the frontoparietooccipital region flow into: a) nodi limphatici auricularis anteriores b) nodi limphatici auricularis posteriores c) nodi limphatici occipitalis d) nodi limphatici frontalis e) nodi limphatici buccalis 48. Sinus sagitalis inferior flows into: a) sinus rectus b) sinus petrosus superior c) confluens sinus d) sinus sigmoideus e) magna cerebri vein 49. How many laminas form the temporalis fascia: a) one b) two c) three d) four e) it does not have laminas, it is an aponeurosis 50. How many fatty tissue layers are there in the temporal region: a) one b) two c) three d) four e) five 51. Find the true sentence:
a) b) c) d) e) a. meningeia media insures blood supply to the dura mater, starts from the a. maxilaris, passes through foramen spinosum, gives two branches in the cranium a. meningeia media insures blood supply to the arachnoida, starts from the a. maxilaris, passes through foramen lacerum, gives two branches in the cranium a. meningeia media insures blood supply to the pia mater, starts from the a. maxilaris, passes through foramen ovale, gives three branches in the cranium a. meningeia media insures blood supply to the arachnoida, starts from the a. carotis interna, passes through foramen lacerum, gives two branches in the cranium a. meningeia media insures blood supply to the orbit, starts from the a. carotis interna, passes through foramen rotundum, gives two branches in the cranium

52. What muscles insert on the mastoid process: a) m. longisimus capitis and splenius b) m. sternocleidomastoideus c) posterior belly of m. digastricus d) m. omohyoid e) lateral pterygoid m. 53. Communication between cavum tympani and mastoid cells is insured by: a) aditus ad antrum b) recessus epitimpanicus c) tegmen tympani d) sinus sigmoideus e) Eustaches trump 54. Auditive bones are situated in: a) recessus epitimpanicus b) cavum tympani c) antrum tympanicum d) antrum mastoideum e) celullae mastoidea 55. On which side of the trepanation triangle is projected the sigmoid sinus: a) posterior side b) superior side c) anterior side d) anterior and superior side

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e) does not have tangencies with the trepanation triangle 56. At what depth and on which side of the trepanation triangle can be injured the facial nerve: a) anterior side, at 1,5 2 cm depth b) superior from porus acusticus externum, at 1cm c) posterior from spina suprameatum, subperiostal d) anterior side, at 0,5 cm e) facial n. is not projected in this region 57. How many structures can be injured in case of trepanation of the mastoid process: a) one b) two c) three d) four e) five 58. What foramens can be found in the anterior cranial fossa: a) foramen caecum b) foramens of the lamina cribrosa c) foramen rotundum d) fisura orbitalis superior e) foramen opticum 59. What passes through the openings from the anterior cranian fossa: a) filea olfactoria b) a. ethmoidalis anterior c) a. ethmoidalis posterior d) a. ethmoidalis media e) a. meningeia media 60. Through the cavernos sinus passes: a) a. carotis interna b) n. abducens c) n. trochlearis d) plexul pterigoideus e) n. oculomotorius 61. Through the external wall of the cavernos sinus pass the following structures: a) n. oculomotor b) n. trochlearis c) n. ophtalmicus d) a. carotis interna e) n. abducens 62. Through the superior ophthalmic fissure pass: a) n. ophtalmic b) n. trochlearis c) n. abducens d) n. facial e) n. oculomotor 63. Which structures are situated between the external and internal lamina of the bones of the cranium: a) lamina vitrea b) spongious bone tissue c) diploic veins d) epidural veins e) a. meningea medie 64. Frontal nerve is the branch of which nerve: a) n. infraorbitalis b) n. supratrochlearis c) n. trochlearis d) n. ophthalmicus e) n. supraorbitalis 65. What structure is situated between the laminas of the temporal aponeurosis: a) a. temporalis superficialis b) interaponeurotic fatty tissue c) aa. temporalis profundae d) m. temporalis e) n. auriculotemporal 66. Which side of the Chipauts triangle of trepanation not being respected can lead to penetration of the medial cranian fossa: a) superior the line that represents the continuation of the zygomatic arch on the mastoid process b) anterior the line that passes externally from porus acusticus externus c) in aditus ad antrum d) posterior on the anterior margin of the mastoid tuberosity e) none of the answers

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67. What structures pass through etmoid bone: a) v. ophtalmica superior b) fila olfactoria c) n. ethmoidalis anterior d) n. ethmoidalis posterior e) v. emissariae 68. What passes through foramen rotundum: a) n. maxilaris b) n. petrosus minor c) vv. emissariae d) n. vagus e) ramus meningeus n. mandibularis 69. Where does the dura mater intimly join with the bones of the cranium: a) on the vertex of the cranium b) on the sfenoidal bone, circular from the cella turcica c) lamela cribrosa of the etmoid bone d) temporal pyramid e) squamos part of the temporal bone 70. In which anatomical structure flows the sagital sinus: a) sinus sagitalis superior b) sinus rectus c) sinus sigmoideus d) sinus transversus e) sinus occipitalis 71. Which artery is formed at the confluence of the aa. vertebralis dextra et sinistrsa: a) posterior communicating a. b) anterior communicating a. c) a. basilaris d) a. cerebri media e) a. carotis interna 72. What nerve enervates the mimic muscles: a) n. trigemenus b) n. facialis c) n. oculomotorius d) n. accessorius e) n. trochlearis 73. What branches gives a. temporalis superficialis at the superior margin of the orbit: a) r. parietalis b) rr. parotidei c) a. auriculars posterior d) rr. auriculares anterior e) r. frontalis 74. Which artery is situated in the temporopterygoid space: a) a. meningeia media b) a. alveolaris inferior c) a. maxilaris d) a. auricularis profunda e) a. tympanica anterior 75. Through which foramen passed the a. meningeia media into the cranian cavity: a) foramen rotundum b) foramen spinosum c) foramen ovale d) foramen magnum e) foramen stilomastoideum 76. With which vein communicated the pterygoidian plexus: a) with v. facialis through v. faciei profunda b) with v. retromandibularis through v. maxillares c) with sigmoidian sinus d) with cavernos sinus through emissary veins from the spinosum, ovale and lacerum foramena e) with sinus rectus 77. Which nerv evervates the masticator muscles: a) n. trochlearis b) n. facialis c) n. glossopharyngeus d) n. accesorius e) n. trigemenus

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78. Which nerves begin from the semilunar ganglion (Gasser): a) n. opthalmicus b) n. auricularis posterior c) n. zigomaticus d) n. maxillaris e) n. mandibularis 79. What structures can be found in the sphenopalatin fossa: a) n. auriculotemporalis b) n. zigomaticus c) rr. ganglionares of n. maxilar d) ganglionum pterigopalatinum e) ganglionum ciliare 80. Through which foramen the mandibular nerve leaves the cranium cavity: a) foramen ovale b) foramen spinosum c) foramen rotundum d) foramen stylomastoideum e) none of the answers 81. The projection of the transvers sinus is: a) inferior temporal line b) superior nuchal line c) inferior nuchal line d) the line that connects lambda with asterion e) zygomatic arch 82. Which structures pass through the internal acustic prus: a) a. auditiva interna b) n. facialis c) n. vestibulochohlearis d) n. petros maior e) n. petros minor 83. Which structures pass through the jugular foramen: a) n. glossopharyngeus b) n. vagus c) n. accesorius d) internal jugular v. e) n. hypoglossus 84. The intercranial portion of the facial nerve is situated in the midst of which bone: a) temporal b) parietal c) sphenoidal d) occipital e) frontal 85. In which of the following spaces do the reservoirs form: a) subarahnoidean b) subdural c) epidural d) in cerebral ventricles e) none of the answers 86. In which space is the circulus arteriosus Willissii situated: a) subarahnoidian b) subdural c) epidural d) subperiostal e) extracranial 87. What regions does the lateral compartment of the face include: a) buccal (oralis) b) parotydomasseteric c) deep facial d) genian e) nasolabialis 88. Where is the ganglion of trigeminal nerve situated: a) on the impressio trigemeni of the pyramid in the dura maters duplicature (cavum Meckeli) b) subdural on the impressio trigemeni of the pyramid c) epidural on the impressio trigemeni of the pyramid d) on the impressio trigemeni of the pyramid in the pia mater duplicature e) none of the answers

33

89. What does the aponeurosis pharyngoprevetebralis limit: a) retropharyngeal space from the parapharyngeal space b) anterior parapharyngeal space from the posterior parapharyngeale space c) retropharyngeal space from the pterygomandibular space d) retropharyngeal space from the prevertebral cervical space e) previsceral cervical space from the cervicale neurovascular space 90. What are the limits of the parotideomasseteric region: a) anterior anterioar margin of the masseter m. b) posterior anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoidean m., porus acusticus externus and mastoid process c) anterior anterioar margin of the parotid gland d) inferior mandible margin e) superior zygomatic arch 91. How many weak points has the capsule of the parotid gland a) one b) two c) three d) four e) none 92. What are the limits of the fatty tissue space of the sublingual space: a) superior mucosa of the buccal cavity b) lateral the mandible c) medial genyoglossus and genyohyod mm. d) inferior mylohyoid and hyoglossus mm. e) inferior platisma m. 93. What muscles does the facial nerve enervate: a) mimmic mm. b) frontal and occipital mm. c) stylohyoid m. and posterior belly of the digastric m. d) platisma m. e) mylohyoid m. 94. What muscles are enervated by the IIIrd branch of the trigeminal nerve? a) masseter m. b) temporal m. c) medial and lateral pterygoid mm. d) mylohyoid m. and anterior belly of the digastric m. e) frontal m. 95. Where does the sphenoidal sinus open: a) above the superior nasal conchae b) in the medial nasal meatus c) in the inferior nasal meatus d) in the mesopharynx e) in the maxilar sinus 96. The maxillary sinus opens: a) in the medial nasal meatus b) in the inferior nasal meatus c) in the superio nasal meatus d) in the bulla ethmoidalis e) nasopharynx 97. Where does the nasolacrimal canal open: a) medial nasal meatus b) inferior nasal meatus c) superior nasal meatus d) nasopharynx e) buccal cavity 98. Which muscles cover the arch of the mandible and contribute to the formation of the buccal diaphragm: a) mylohyoid m. b) digastric mm. c) geniohyoid mm. d) genioglossus m. e) hyoglossus m. 99. Which muscles form the soft palate: a) uvulae m. b) levator veli palatini m. c) tensor veli palatini m. d) lateral pterygoid m. e) medial pterigoid m.

34

100. The posterior margin of the soft palate passes into the lateral wall of the pharynx by the means of two folds which contain the following muscles: a) palatoglossal m. b) m. palatopharyngeal c) uvulae m. d) levator veli palatini m. e) tensor veli palatini m. 101. What are the limits of the genian region: a) superior inferior magin of the orbit b) inferior margin of the mandible c) posterior anterior margin of the masseter m. d) anterior nasolabial and nasobuccal fold e) posterior ramus of the mandible 102. Where is situated the corpus adiposum buccae of Bichat: a) on the buccal m., anterior from the masseter m. b) under the bucal m. c) under the zygomatic bone d) on the parotid gland e) under the bucopharingian fascia 103. Which structures are in direct neighbourhood with the weak points of the parotid gland: a) parapharinx b) cartilage portion of the extern acustic porus c) canal of the facial n. d) retropharinx e) the capsule of the submandibular gland 104. Where does the external carotid artery give branches: a) in the mass of parotid gland b) posterior from the parotid gland c) at the entrance of the parotid gland d) above the zygomatic arch e) between the pteygoid mm. 105. Which are the branches of the extern carotid artery: a) a. temporalis superficialis b) a. maxilaris c) a. facialis d) a. temporalis profunda e) a. meningeia madia 106. Name the branches of the facial nerve which spread from the parotidean plexus: a) temporal and zygomatic b) buccal c) marginal of the mandible d) cervical e) auriculotemporal

Neck
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) Choose the correct answer concerning the limits between neck and head: inferior edge of the mandibule, tip of the mastoid process, superior nuchal line, external occipital protuberance horizontal plane which passes through inferior edge of the mandibule frontal plane which passes through transverse processes of cervical vertebrae horizontal plane which passes at the level of C7 and sternal notch horizontal plane which passes through sternal notch and superior edge of clavicle Borders of the medial triangle of the neck: edge of mandibula, anterior boundary of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, middle line of the neck posterior belly of digastricus muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, middle line of the neck edge of mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, superior belly of omohyoid muscle posterior belly of digastricus muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle horizontal line which on the level of hyoid bone, middle line of the neck, trapezius muscle Borders of the lateral triangle of the neck: inferior edge of the mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle posterior belly of digastricus muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle inferior edge of the mandibula, sternocleidomastoid muscle, omohyoid muscle clavicle, posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle horizontal line traced on the hyoid bone, sternocleidomastoid muscle, trapezius muscle Show the elements of the medial neurovascular bundle of the neck. common carotid a. vagus n. internal jugular v. medial supraclavicular nn. anterior supraclavicular nn.

5. Show the elements of the lateral neurovascular bundle of the neck: a) supraclavicular a.

35

b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

external carotid a. subclavicular v. brachial plexus branches of the cervical plexus Borders of the submandibular triangle: inferior edge of mandible anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle superior belly of omohyoid muscle both bellies of digastricus muscle free edge of mylohyoid muscle Borders of the carotid triangle posterior belly of digastricus muscle anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle posterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle inferior edge of the mandible superior belly of omohyoid muscle Limits of the omotrapezoid triangle: clavicle trapezius muscle inferior belly of omohyoid muscle sternocleidomastoid muscle posterior belly of digastricus muscle What structures are situated in the suprasternal interaponeurotic space? extern jugular veins lymph nodes anterior jugular veins jugular venous arch anterior supraclavicular nerves

10. Indicate the extension of the previsceral cervical space: a) from the edge of mandible to the manubrium sterni and clavicles b) from the edge of mandible to the hyoid bone c) from the hyoid bone to the manubrium sterni d) from the superior edge of the thyroid cartilage to the manubrium sterni and clavicles e) from the edge of the mandibula to the superior edge of the thyroid cartilage 11. Which celluloadipose spaces of the neck communicates with the anterior mediastinum? a) suprasternal interaponeurotic space b) previsceral cervical space c) retrovisceral cervical space d) retropharyngian space e) paravascular space of the main neurovascular bundle of the neck 12. Borders of the infrahyoid region: a) hyoid bone and the posterior belly of digastricus muscle b) anterior edge of sternocleidomastoid muscle c) horizontal line traced on the level of thyroid cartilage d) inferior edge of mandible e) sternum and clavicle 13. Syntopy of the cervical portion of the trachea: a) anteriorly thyroid gland isthmus b) anteriorly and bilaterally thyroid gland lobes c) posteriorly - esophagus d) at the level of jugular notch common carotid arteries e) internal carotid arteries 14. Indicate arteries that supply the thyroid gland: a) superior thyroid arteries b) inferior thyroid arteries c) medium thyroid arteries d) recurrent thyroid artery e) ima thyroid artery 15. Lymphoepithelial pharyngeal ring is formed by: a) pharyngeal tonsils b) palatine tonsils c) tubal tonsils d) submandibular tonsils e) lingual tonsils 16. Innervation of the cervical part of esophagus is provided by: a) vagus n. b) glossopharyngeal nerve c) cervical ganglia of the sympathetic trunk d) hypoglossus n. e) recurrent nerves of the larynx

36

17. Indicate three possible levels of the common carotid artery bifurcation: a) superior border of C5 b) superior border of C6 c) superior border of thyroid cartilage d) at the level of cricoid cartilage e) inferior border of C4 18. Indicate differences between internal and external carotid arteries: a) external carotid artery is positioned anteriorly and medially to the internal carotid artery b) external carotid artery has branches but the internal carotid artery has no branches in the region of neck c) internal carotid artery begins with a dilatation carotid sinus d) pressure of the external carotid artery in wound stops pulsation of the superficial temporal artery on zygomatic arch e) internal carotid artery gives rise to the superior thyroid artery just at the bifurcation 19. Carotid reflexogenic zone is situated: a) at the level of hyoid bone b) at the level of superior border of thyroid gland c) in the region of manubrium sterni d) in the region of cricoid cartilage e) in the region of common carotid artery bifurcation 20. Indicate the walls of interscalenic space: a) sternothyroid muscle b) anterior scalene muscle c) posterior scalene muscle d) omohyoid muscle e) medium scalene muscle 21. What veins participate in the formation of the jugular venous angle (Pirogov): a) subclavicular vein b) internal jugular vein c) anterior jugular vein d) external jugular vein e) brachiocephalic vein 22. What structures are situated in the scalenovertebral triangle? a) subclavicular a., thyriocervical trunk, vertebral a. b) thoracic lymphatic duct c) internal jugular vein d) middle cervical ganglion of the sympathetic chain e) inferior cervical ganglion of the sympathetic trunk 23. Arterial branches that arise from the subclavian artery in the scalenovertebral triangle: a) vertebral artery b) transverse cervical artery c) suprascapulary artery d) thyriocervical trunk e) internal thoracic artery 24. Thoracic lymphatic duct flows into: a) right subclavian artery b) right brachiocephalic vein c) right internal jugular vein d) left external jugular vein d) left jugular venous angle 25. Main routes of the inflamation spreading from the region of the neck are: a) posterior mediastinum b) abdominal cavity c) retroperitoneal space d) anterior mediastinum e) pleural cavity 26. In which triangle is performed the ligature of the lingual artery: a) lingual triangle of Pirogov b) carotid c) submandibular d) lateral triangle of the neck e) medial triangle of the neck 27. Borders of the omoclavicular triangle: a) superior belly of the omohyoid muscle b) sternocleidomastoidian muscle c) clavicle d) inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle e) median line of the neck

37

28. What is the syntopy of the stellate ganglion? a) inferior cupola of pleura b) anterior vertebral and subclavicular artery c) vertebral nerve originates from it d) medial phrenic nerve e) posterior - the long cervical muscle 29. Choose the structures that have sheath from the first superficial fascia of the neck: a) sternocleidomastoid muscle b) submandibular gland c) parotid gland d) platysma e) posterior belly of digastricus muscle 30. The projection of the carotic tubercle on the neck is: a) middle of the anterior margin of sternocleidomastoideus m. b) middle of the sternocleidomastoideus m.when the head is turned laterally c) at the level of cricoid cartilage d) middle of the sternocleidomastoideus m. when the head is in maximal extension e) none of the answers 31. What can be palpated under the inferior margin of the mandible: a) submandibular gland b) lymphatic nodes c) carotic a. d) lingual a. e) hyoid bone 32. Which vessel intersects the sternocleidomastoidian muscle from the exterior: a) external jugular v. b) internal jugular v. c) anterior jugular v. d) jugular venous arch e) ima thyroid v. 33. The projection of the vocal ligaments is at the level of: a) inferior margin of the thyroid cartilage b) hyoid bone c) crycothyroid membrane d) angle of the mandible e) crycoid cartilage 34. Apex of the pleural cupola is projected: a) in the supraclavicular fossa b) in the infraclavicular fossa c) incisura jugularis d) does not come out of the thoracic boundaries e) in the deltopectoral fossa 35. According to V. N. evkunenko how many cervical fascias we have: a) one b) two c) three d) four e) five 36. Which fascias serve as boundary for he suprasternal interaponeourotic space: a) fascia superficialis colli and lamina superficialis of the fascia colli propria b) superficial and deep lamina of the colli propria fascia c) omoclavicular aponeurosis and endocervical fascia d) endocervical fascia and prevertebral fascia e) visceral and parietal sheaths of the endocervical fascia 37. The surface of the retrovisceral cervical space is limited by: a) basis of the cranium and the diaphragm b) basis of the cranium and the hyoid bone c) basis of the cranium and incisura jugularis d) basis of the cranium and Th5 e) basis of the cranium and Th1 38. The prevertebral space is limited by: a) cervical vertebra and prevertebral fascia b) mm. longus capitis and prevertebral fascia c) mm. longus colli and prevertebral fascia d) superficial sheath of the fascia colli propria and prevertebral fascia e) parietal and prevertebral fascias

38

39. The prevertebral space contains: a) mm. longus capitis b) mm. longus colli c) sympathetic trunk d) vagus n. e) mm. splenius capitis 40. The external jugular vein forms at the confluence of: a) retromandibular v. b) posterior auricular v. c) facial v. d) deep facial v. e) angular v. 41. The cutaneous nerves of the neck can be found in the superficial layers at the level of: a) middle of the posterior margin of the sternocleidumastoidian m. b) middle of the anterior margin of the sternocleidumastoidian m. c) angle of the mandible d) hyoid bone e) vertebra C3 42. The subcutaneous nerves of the neck are localized: a) subcutaneous b) between the I and the II fascia c) between the II and the III fascia d) between the I and the III fascia e) none of the answers 43. Which cervical fascia forms a fascial sheth for the submandibular gland: a) I fascia b) II fascia c) III fascia d) IV fascia e) V fascia 44. Where do the sheaths of the II cervical fascia which form a capsule for the submandibular gland fix: a) inferior margin of the mandible b) linea mylohyoidea c) superior magine of the mandible d) body of the hyoid bone e) submandibular duct 45. What are the limits of the lingual triangle (Pirogov)? a) superior hypoglossus n. b) inferior intermediar tendon of the digastric m. c) medial free margine of the mylohyoideus m. d) superior lingual n. e) anterior free margin of the hyoglossus m. 46. The floor of the lingual triangle (Pirogov) is formed by: a) hyoglossus m. b) mylohyoid m. c) digastric m. d) deep lamina of the II fascia e) stylohyoid m. 47. Which branch is the lingual artery from its origin external carotid artery: a) first b) second c) third d) fourth e) does not originate from the external carotic artery 48. Which fascias participate at the formation of linea alba colli: a) I fascia b) II fascia c) III fascia d) IV fascia e) V fascia 49. For which muscles the omoclavicular aponeurosis forms a fascial sheath: a) pretraheal mm. b) prevertebral mm. c) suprahyoid mm. d) scalen mm. e) submandubular mm.

39

50. Which nerves enervate the pretraheal muscles: a) ansa cervicalis b) vagus n. c) phrenic n. d) n. recurrens dexter e) ganglion stellatum 51. What is the syntopy of the elements of the main neurovascular bundle of the neck: a) medial a. carotis communis, lateral v. jugularis interna, between the vein and the artery and posterior vagus n. b) lateral a. carotis communis, medial v. jugularis interna, between the vessels vagus n. c) medial a. carotis communis, between the artery and nerve v. jugularis interna, lateral vagus n. d) between v. jugularis interna and vagus n. a. carotis communis, medial vagus n. e) lateral a. carotis communis, between the artery and nerve v. jugularis interna 52. What is the origin of the subclavicular arteries: a) right from the brachiocephalic arterial trunk, left aortic arch b) left from the brachiocephalic arterial trunk, right aortic arch c) left from the brachiocephalic trunk, right brachiocephalic arterial trunk d) left aortic arch, right aortic arch e) none of the answers

Thorax
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) Thoracic cavity is limited by: ribs, sternum and vertebral column sternum, vertebral column and ribs ribs, sternum, vertebral column and diaphragm the cavity limited by thoracic wall and the diaphragm the space between the superior and inferior thoracic openings What does the pleural cavity represent: cavity that is limited by the visceral and parietal pleura space between the lungs and mediastinum cavity between lungs, diaphragm and mediastinum cavity limited by the sheaths of the parietal pleura it is a part of the thoracic cavity where the magistral vessels pass Which statements are correct conserning the lymphatic dranage from the mammary gland? there is superficial and deep lymphatic reflux parasternal lymphatic nodes recieve lymph from the axillary lymph nodes lymph node of Sorgius is a sentinel node of the first step fom the internal-superior quadran the lymph reaches the epigastric ganglia main collectors of lymph are the axillary lymph nodes Venous system of the mammary gland is composed from: superficial venous network deep venous nentwork intercostal veins subclavian veins axillary veins Which fascia forms the capsule for the mammary gland in women: pectoral fascia clavipectoral fascia superficial fascia transversal fascia endocervical fascia Which arteries vascularise the mammary gland? internal thoracic artery lateral thoracic artery intercostal arteries inferior thyroid artery subclavian artery Mammary gland is innervated by: branches of the II-VII intercostal nerves branches of cervical plexus branches of the brachial plexus phrenic nerves vagus nerves What is called the deep sheath of pectoral fascia: superficial fascia pectoral fascia endocervical fascia clavipectoral fascia axillary fascia

40

9. a) b) c) d) e)

The fascial sheath of which muscle is formed by the clavipectoral fascia: major pectoral muscle minor pectoral muscle seratus anterior muscle deltoid muscle intercostal muscles

10. The superficial subpectoral space is situated: a) behind the major pectoral muscle b) in front of the clavipectoral fascia and minor pectoral muscle c) behind the fascia superficialis d) in front of deep fascia e) in the subcutaneous fatty tissue 11. The deep subpectoral space is situated: a) in front of the major pectoral muscle b) behind the major pectoral muscle c) in front of the minor pectoral muscle d) behind the minor pectoral muscle e) in front of the clavipectoral fascia 12. Which of the following pleural cavity sinuses is the deepest: a) costodiaphragmatic sinus b) costomediastinic sinus c) diaphragmomediastinic sinus d) costal sinus e) mediastinal sinus 13. Space between the sternal part and costal part of the diaphragm on the right side is named? a) triangle of Pirogov b) fissure of Larey c) triangle of Morganye d) triangle of Bohdalec e) triangle of Ghesselbach 14. Space between the sternal part and costal part of the diaphragm on the left side is named? a) triangle of Pirogov b) triangle of Larey c) triangle of Morganye d) triangle of Bohdalec e) triangle of Ghesselbach 15. The diaphragm is vascularized by: a) musculophrenic a. b) intercostal aa. c) superior phrenic a. d) inferior phrenic a. e) superior epigastric a. 16. The main respiratory muscle is: a) m. rectus abdominis b) m. obliqus abdominis externus c) m. obliqus abdominis internus d) intercostals mm. e) diaphragm 17. All of the mentioned below refer to congenital anomalies of the heart besides: a) persistence of the duct of Botallo b) interatrial sept undevelopment c) dextro-position of the heart d) acquired mitral stenosis e) interventricular septum underdevelopment 18. In the azygos vein flows: a) hemiazygos v. b) left intercostal vv. c) esophageal veins d) posterior bronchial vv. e) mediastinal vv. 19. To which rib corresponds the sternal angle (Ludovic): a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) V

41

20. In the intercostal spaces are situated: a) superficial and deep intercostals muscles b) intercostals aa. c) intercostal vv. d) intercostals nn. e) endothoracic fascia 21. Syntopy of the intercostal neurovascular bundle from superior to inferior: a) superior intercostal a., inferior nerv and more inferior vein b) superior nerv, inferior vein and more inferior intercostal a. c) superior vein, inferior intercostals a. and more inferior nerv d) the nerv is situated more medial, vessels more lateral e) lateral is situated the nerv, medial vessels 22. What represents the pulmonary ligament: a) ligament that bind the right lung with the left lung b) ligament between the pulmonary artery and vein c) double fold of visceral pleura extending from the pulmonary hilum towards the diaphragm d) duplication of the parietal pleura in which are placed the pulmonary vessels e) ligament between the aortic arch and the pulmonary artery 23. At the level of what rib can be found the inferior border of the right lung: a) Vth rib on the medioclavicular line b) Xth rib on the anterior axillar line c) Xth rib on the scapular line d) XIth rib on the paravertebral line e) IXth rib on the posterior middle line 24. Inferior vena cava drains into: a) right ventricle b) left ventricle c) right atrium d) left atrium e) correct answer is C and D 25. Syntopy of the right pulmonary root components from superior to inferior: a) artery, bronchus, vein b) bronchus, vein, artery c) vein, artery, bronchus d) bronchus, artery, vein e) artery, vein, bronchus 26. What intersects the left bronchus: a) descendent aorta b) left vagus nerve c) left phrenic nerve d) hemiazygos vein e) left pulmonary vein 27. What branches originate from the arch of aorta (from right to left): a) right common carotid artery, right subclavian a. b) left common carotid artery, left subclavian a. c) arterial brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, left subclavicular artery d) left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, a. ima e) right common carotid artery, left common carotid artery, left subclavian artery 28. What nerve crosses the arch of aorta from anterior? a) right phrenic nerve b) right vagus nerve c) left phrenic nerve d) left splanchnic nerve e) left vagus nerve 29. Where is situated the arterial canal of Botallo? a) between aorta and superior vena cava b) between inferior vena cava and aorta c) between pulmonary artery and arch of aorta d) between the right auricle and superior vena cava e) between the left common carotid artery and subclavian artery 30. At what level right and left recurrent laryngeal nerves start? a) right at the level of right subclavian artery b) left at the level of left brachiocephalic trunk c) left at the level of aortic arch d) right at the level of trachea bifurcation e) left and right at the level of IV cervical vertebra 31. Where does the right phrenic nerve cross the anterior mediastinum more superior from the pulmonary hilum: a) between aorta and superior vena cava b) between the superior vena cava and right common carotid artery c) between superior vena cava and mediastinal pleura

42

d) between the brachiocephalic truk and superior vena cava e) anteriourly to the arch of aorta 32. Between the trachea and manubrium sterni are placed: a) superior vena cava b) left subclavian a. c) sympathetic trunk d) recurrent laryngean nerve e) arch of aorta with brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery and left brachiocephalic vein 33. What passes immediately posterior from the right bronchus: a) azygos vein and right vagus nerve b) right pulmonary artery c) right pulmonary vein d) sympathetic trunk e) inferior vena cava 39. What criteria correspond to the pulmonary arteries? a) deliver oxygenated blood to the heart b) deliver oxygenated blood to the lung c) deliver unoxygenated blood from the the heart to the lungs d) are parallel to the bronchi e) vascularise the pulmonary parenchim 35. Anterior mediastinum contains everything except: a) thymus b) asscending aorta and arch of aorta c) magistral veins d) thoracic lymphatic duct e) trachea 36. Posterior mediastinum contains the following, except: a) esophagus b) descending aorta c) thoracic lymphatic duct d) pulmonary hilum, bifurcation of the trachea, arch of aorta e) azygos and hemiazygos veins 37. Posterior mediastinum contains: a) azygos and hemiazygos veins and sympathetic trunks b) thoracic lymphatic duct, thoracic aorta, hemiazygos vein, intercostal vessels c) esophagus and vagus nerves d) pulmonary arteries and veins e) inferior vena cava and portal vein 38. Deviation of esophagus in the thoracic part (at the level of thoracic vertebra II-V): a) to left b) to right c) posterior d) anterior e) localized strictly on the lateral side of the vertebral column 39. On the level of whichs vertebra esophagus intersects the aorta from anterior: a) Th3 b) Th5 c) Th6 d) Th7 e) Th8 40. Venous reflux from the inferior 1/3 of the esophagus directed to: a) vena cava inferior b) vena cava superior c) azygos and hemiazygos veins d) left gastric vein e) portal vein 41. Lymphatic thoracic duct passes through: a) esophageal opening of the diaphragm b) aortal opening of the diaphragm c) costo-lumbar triangle of the diaphragm d) inferior vena cava opening e) vena azygos opening 42. Which organ lesion is a criterion for a thoraco-abdominal trauma? a) lung b) liver c) spleen d) diaphragm e) heart and pericardium

43

43. Which nerve can be damaged during the ligature of the duct of Bottalo? a) phrenicus nerve b) vagus nerve c) intercostal nerve d) sympathetic neural trunk e) left recurrent laryngeal nerve 44. Which tissues are damaged in a penetrating thoracic wound? a) skin and muscles b) integuments injury and fracture of a rib c) lung injury with bronchus rupture d) teguments injury and rupture of the parietal pleura e) external haemorrhage with intercostal artery injury 45. Which nerves enervate the diaphragm: a) phrenic nn. b) branches from vagus and sympathetic nn. c) 6 pairs of inferior intercostals nn. d) branches of the lombar plexus e) infraclavicular nn. 46. Which are the branches of internal thoracic artery: a) pericardophrenic a. b) superior epigastric a. c) musculophrenic a. d) mediastinal branches e) superior diaphragmatic aa. 47. Which of the following statements about the toracoacromial trunk are correct: a) toracoacromial arterial trunk strarts from the subclavian a. b) toracoacromial trunk is a branch of the axillar a. c) toracoacromial trunk penetrates the coracoclavipectoral fascia d) penetrates into the superficial subpectoral fatty tissue space e) gives pectoral, acromial and deltoid branches 48. Which of the following statements about the costodiaphragmatic sinusare wrong: a) has a hight of 5 7 cm b) extends from the VIIth to the Xth rib c) as a rule the lung enters this sinus at a deep inspiration d) forms as a result of passing costal pleura into the diaphragmatic pleura e) in case of hydrothorax, hemothorax, chylothorax and pyothorax in this sinus liquid does not cumulate 49. The syntopy of the right pulmonary pediculus from superior to inferior is as follows: a) ABV b) BVA c) BAV d) VAB e) VBA 50. The syntopy of the left pulmonary pediculus from superior to inferior is as follows: a) ABV b) BVA c) BAV d) VAB e) VBA 51. The syntopy of the left pulmonary pediculus from superior to inferior is as follows: a) left VAB b) right VAB c) left AVB d) right VBA e) right AVB 52. Which are the pericardiac sinuses: a) transversal b) vertical c) oblique d) antero-inferior (apycal) e) anterior 53. Internal thoracic artery is situated between the following structures of the thoracic wall: a) endothoracic fascia b) parietal pleura c) transversal thracic m. d) internal face of the ribs and of the internal intercostals mm. e) parapleural tissue

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54. Which of the following statements concerning the topography of the phrenical nerves in the anterior mediastinum are correct: a) penetrate into the anterior mediastinum between the subclavian a. and v. b) right phrenic n. initially is situated between the lateral wall of the superior vena cava and mediastinal pleura c) pass anterior from the pulmonary hilum d) pass posterior from the pulmonary hilum e) the left nerve passes on the anterior surface of the esophagus, the right on the posterior surface 55. The azygos vein drains into: a) inferior vena cava b) right brachiocephalic vein c) superior vena cava d) internal thoracic vein e) hemyazygos vein 56. Which are the weak points of the diaphragm: a) esophagian opening b) aortal opening c) central tendon d) sterno-costal triangles e) lumbo-costal triangles

Abdomen Antero-lateral abdominal wall

1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) Resistance of which wall is lowered in case of direct inguinal hernias? posterior anterior superior inferior all walls Congenital inguinal hernia can be: through sliding direct strangulated oblique through sliding and direct What is the cause of congenital inguinal hernia formation? tension of abdominal press muscle increase of intra-abdominal pressure the persisting processus vaginalis peritonei cryptorchidism inguinal space dilatation What nerves innervate the inguinal region? iliohypogastric nerve ilioinguinal nerve genitofemural nerve subcostal nerves all are correct What are the structures that form the external orifice of the inguinal canal? external abdominal oblique muscle and pubic symphysis internal abdominal oblique muscle and pubic tubercle splitting of the aponeurosis of external oblique muscle the reflex ligament from the inguinal ligament superficial fascia and pubic tubercle Which vessel forms corona mortis? obturator artery inferior epigastric artery obturator branch of the inferior epigastric artery femoral vein obturator vein What fossa on the inner surface of the abdominal wall corresponds to the internal orifice of the inguinal canal? medial inguinal fossa supravesicular fossa lateral inguinal fossa femoral fossa umbilical fossa What structure forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal in patients with hernia? superficial fascia external abdominal oblique muscle transverse abdominal muscle aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominal muscle inguinal ligament

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9. a) b) c) d) e)

What structure forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal? transversal fascia interior margin of external oblique muscle Jimbernats ligament inguinal ligament iliac bone crest

10. What structure forms the inferior wall of the inguinal canal? a) transversal fascia b) interior margin of external oblique muscle c) Jimbernats ligament d) inguinal ligament e) iliac bone crest 11. What separates the lateral inguinal fossa from the medial one, on the inner surface of the abdominal wall? a) median umbilical fold b) medial umbilical fold c) lateral umbilical fold d) umbilical artery e) transverse peritoneal fold 12. What inguinal fossa is implicated in descending of testicle? a) medial b) lateral c) supravesicular d) ateral and medial e) lumbar triangle (of Petit) 13. Which nerves passes through the external orifice of the inguinal canal? a) iliohypogastric nerve b) ilioinguinal and subcostal nerve c) ilioinguinal nerve and genital branch of genitofemural nerve d) obturator nerve and external spermatic nerve e) ilioinguinal nerve and external spermatic nerve 14. Which are the sides of the inguinal triangle? a) inferior-lateral inguinal ligament b) medial pectineal ligament c) medial lateral margin of rectus abdominis m. d) superior the line that connects the umbilic with anterior superior iliac crest e) superior the line that connects the point between the lateral and medial 1/3 of the inguinal ligament 15. What represents the inguinal space? a) the space between the anterior and posterior wall of the inguinal canal b) the space between the superior and inferior wall of the inguinal canal c) the space between the anterior and superior wall of the inguinal canal d) the space between the posterior and inferior wall of the inguinal canal e) the space between the inguinal ligament and the pectineal ligament 16. The elements of the spermatic cord are all, except: a) testicular a. b) pampiniform plexus c) deferent duct d) the artery of deferent duct e) genital branch of genitofemural nerve 17. Which of the following statements concerning the process of descending the testicle are correct: a) the testicle begins to descend under the action of gubernaculums testis, starting with the 4 th month of intrauterine development b) in the 7th month the testicle can be found at the level of future internal inguinal orifice c) initially it can be found in the lombar region near the primary kigney d) in the 9th month it descends in the scrotum e) in the 7th month descends in the scrotum 18. The walls of the inguinal canal in people with hernia are: a) anterior aponeurosis of external oblique abdominal m. b) superior free margins of the internal oblique abdominal and transvers abdominal mm. c) inferior inguinal ligament d) posterior aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. e) posterior transvers fascia 19. Which of the following statements are wrong? a) the inguinal canal is a weak point of the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen b) direct inguinal hernia prolabates through lateral fossa c) hernial sac in oblique inguinal hernia can be found in the spermatic cord d) hernial sac in direct inguinal hernia can descend in the scrotum (inguino-scrotal hernia) e) congenital inguinal hernia is oblique

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20. What represents the anterior wall of the inguinal canal in patients without hernias (healthy): a) aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. b) aponeurosis of external oblique abdominal m. c) fibers of the transvers abdominal m. d) fibers of cremaster m. e) fibers of internal oblique abdominal m. 21. What anatomical structures consolidate the floor of the inguinal space (transverse fascia): a) falx aponeurotica inguinalis b) falx aponeurotica femoralis c) fibers of m. cremaster d) lig. interfoveolare e) fibers of transvers abdominal m. 22. Common vaginal sheath of the testicle and spermatic cord is formed as a result of: a) spermatic cord penetration through the transverse fascia b) descend of the testicle c) infundibular prolabation of the transvers fascia by the spermatic cord d) prolabation of the parietal peritoneum e) all answers are true 23. What is the lateral limit of the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen: a) a line that represents the continuation of the anterior axillary line below b) a line connecting the middle of the XIIth rib with the anterior superior iliac spina c) a continuation of the medial axillary line below Lesgaft line d) left and right paravertebral lines e) a line that represents a continuation of the posterior axillary line below 24. What structures define from the superior and inferior the anterolateral region of abdominal wall: a) a line passing through the upper edge of the pubis, inguinal ligament and iliac crest b) a line that connects the anterior iliac spine with the umbilic c) a line perpendicular from the anterior-superior ileac spina to the lateral margin of the rectus abdominal m. d) a line which passes through the xiphoid process and costal margin e) a line which passes through the XIth rib 25. Which nerves innervate the skin from the hipogastric region of the anterolateral wall of the abdomen a) intercostal nn. V-VIII b) intercostal nn. IX XI c) intercostal nn. XII (n. subcostalis) d) ileohypogastric n. e) ileoinguinal n. 26. Which nerves innervate the skin from the mezogastric region? a) intercostal nn. X XI b) intercostal nn. IX c) intercostal XII nn. (n. subcostalis) d) ileohypogastric n. e) ileoinguinal n. 27. Which nerves innervate the skin from the epigastric region: a) n. iliohypogastric b) n. intercostal X XI c) n. intercostal XII (n. subcostalis) d) nn. intercostal VI IX e) n. ileoinguinal 28. Which subcutaneous veins take part at formation of cavo-caval anastomosis around the umbilic: a) thoracoepigastric v. b) paraombilical vv. c) inferior epigastric v. d) superficial epigastric v. e) superior epigastric v. 29. Which subcutaneous veins take part at formation of porto-caval anastomosis around the umbilic: a) superficial epigastric v. b) paraombilical vv. c) epigastric inferioar v. d) thoracoepigastric v. e) epigastric superior v. 30. Which anatomical structures define the internal femoral orifice: a) medial lacunar ligament (Gimbernati) b) lateral femoral a. c) lateral fascial sheath of femoral vein d) anterior and superior inguinal ligament (Poupart) e) posterior and inferior pectineal ligament (Cooperi)

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31. List the layers at the level of umbilical ring: a) skin b) subcutaneous fatty tissue c) cicatriceal tissue d) ombilical fascia e) parietal peritoneum 32. Where are situated the main trunks of the intercostal arteries on the anterior-lateral abdominal wall: a) between the internal oblique and transverse abdominal mm. b) between the external and internal oblique abdominal mm. c) between the aponeurotic laminas of the external and internal oblique abdominal mm. d) between the subcutaneous fatty tissue and the external oblique abdominal m. e) into the fascial sheath of the rectus abdominis mm. 33. Where is situated the inferior epigastric artery at the level of hypogastrium? a) between the internal oblique and transverse abdominal mm. b) between the transverse muscle and the peritoneum c) between the transverse fascia and parietal peritoneum (in the preperitoneal tissue) d) between the aponeurosis of external and internal oblique abdominal mm. e) in the subcutaneous fatty tissue 34. In the thickness of which umbilical fold is situated the inferior epigastric artery: a) medial umbilical fold b) median umbilical fold c) transverse vesical fold d) lateral umbilical fold e) inferior epigastric fold 35. Which of the following statements are correct? a) deep lamina of the superficial fascia of the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen in the hypogastrium region fascia Thompson b) superficial lamina of the superficial fascia of the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen in the hypogastrium region fascia Thompson c) in case of portal hypertension syndrom the superficial venous network around the umbilic expand, which is called caput medusae d) the round ligament of the liver forms as a result of obliteration of the umbilical vein in the postnatal period e) umbilical hernias more frequent prolabate through the superior semicircumference of the umbilical canal 36. In the surgical treatment of which type of hernia corona mortis can be injured: a) oblique inguinal hernia b) strangulated direct inguinal hernia c) strangulated femoral hernia d) obturator hernia e) strangulated oblique inguinal hernia 37. The connection between the portal vein and the veins of the abdominal wall is done through: a) paraombilical vv. b) testicular v. c) inferior epigastric v. d) superior epigastric v. e) intercostal v. 38. Which muscles form the anterolateral abdominal wall? a) rectus abdominis and pyramidal mm. b) transvers abdominal mm. c) external oblique mm. d) internal oblique mm. e) iliopsoas m. 39. From which artery start the superficial epigastric artery? a) femural a. b) extern iliac a. c) intern a. iliac d) profunda femoris a. e) obturator a. 40. Vascularization of the antero-lateral abdominal wall is insured by: a) superficial epigastric a., inferior epigastric a. b) superioar epigastric a., intercostal aa. c) left gastric a., external pudend a. d) internal pudend a., extern iliac a. e) lumbal aa. 41. Inferior epigastric artery starts from: a) femoral a. b) internal iliac a. c) external iliac a. d) obturator a. e) a. profunda femoris

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42. The preperitoneal tissue immediately communicates with: a) parametral tissue b) prevezical tissue c) paranephral tissue d) retroperitoneum e) pararectal 43. Which structure covers the rectus abdominis muscle from posterior below the Duglass arcuate line? a) parietal peritoneum b) parietal peritoneum and aponeurosis of transvers m. c) transversal fascia d) parietal pelvic fascia e) aponeurosis of transversal m. 44. The anterior fascial sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle superior from the arcuat line of Douglas is formed by: a) aponeurosis of transversal abdominal m. b) aponeurosis of external oblique abdominal m. c) transversal fascia d) anterior lamina of the aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. e) aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m 45. The anterior wall of the fascial sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle below the arcuat line of Douglas is formed by: a) aponeurosis of transversal abdominal m. b) aponeurosis of external oblique abdominal m. c) transversal fascia d) anterior lamina of the aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. e) aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. 46. The posterior wall of the fascial sheath of the rectus abdominis muscle superior from the arcuat line of Douglas is formed by: a) aponeurosis of transversal abdominal m. b) aponeurosis of external oblique abdominal m. c) transversal fascia d) posterior lamina of the aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. e) aponeurosis of internal oblique abdominal m. 47. What represents the arcuate line of Douglas: a) the limit of passing from anterior to posterior of the external oblique abdominal muscles aponeurosis b) the limit of passing from anterior to posterior of the transversal abdominal muscles aponeurosis c) the limit of passing from posterior to anterior of the transversal abdominal muscles aponeurosis d) the limit of passing from posterior to anterior of the posterior lamina of internal oblique abdominal muscles aponeurosis e) the limit of passing from posterior to anterior of the transversal fascia 48. The superior and inferior epigastric arteries are situated: a) between the internal and external oblique abdominal mm. b) in the subcutaneous fatty tissue c) posterior from the rectus abdominis m. d) into the sheath of the rectus abdominis m. e) between the internal oblique and the transversal abdominal mm. 49. The superficial arteries in the hypogastrium region: a) superficial epigastric a. b) superior epigastric a. c) superficial circumflex iliac a. d) inferior epigastric a. e) external pudend aa. 50. What represents the semilunar line of Spigel? a) the limit of passing the internal oblique abdominal m. into his aponeurosis b) the limit of passing the external oblique abdominal m. into his aponeurosis c) the limit of passing the mezogastric region into hypogastric region d) a line situated 2-3 cm below the umbilic e) the limit of passing the transversal abdominal m. into his aponeurosis 51. Which of the following statements concerning the umbilical ring are correct: a) is a weak point of the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen b) in the intrauterine period through the inferior 1/2 of the ring passes the urahus and two umbilical aa. c) is a region where the subcutaneous fatty tissue and the preperitoneal tissue is absent d) in the intrauterine period through the superior 1/2 of the ring passes the umbilical a. e) stratigraphycally has 6 lalyers 52. Into how many anatomo-topographical regions is devided the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen: a) 6 b) 8 c) 9 d) 4 e) 10

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Peritoneal cavity
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e) Which veins form the portal vein of liver? vv. gastrica sinistra and mesenterica superior vv. mesenterica inferior and renalis vv. mesenterica inferior, testicular (ovarian) sinistra vv. mesenterica superioris, inferioris and lienalis vv. renalis and mesenterica superior Where is situated the portal vein of the liver? in the bursa omentalis initially in retroperitoneal space, posterior from the head of pancreas in front of the head of pancreas between the laminas of hepatoduodenal ligament behind the stomach Which part of the duodenum crosses the portal vein of the liver: superior descending inferior horizontal ascending does not pass behind the duodenum How is situated the common bile duct with regard to portal vein of the liver: in front behind to the right to the left above Left from the portal vein passes: right gastroepiploic artery left gastroepiploic artery left gastric artery hepatic proper artery hepatic common artery The hepatoduodenal ligament starts from? from the left hepatic lobe from the right hepatic lobe from the quadrate lobe from the hepatic hilum from the caudate lobe of the liver The content of the hepatoduodenal ligament is: a. hepatica comunis, bile duct, a. lienalis choledoc duct, v. porta, a. hepatica propria a. gastrica sinistra, vv. hepatica, bile duct a. hepatica comunis, a. gastrica dextra, a. lienalis v. porta, a. lienalis, bile duct Which structures contribute to the formation of the hepatoduodenal ligament? fascia endoabdominalis and transversus parietal peritoneum two sheaths of the visceral peritoneum from the lesser omentum transversal fascia and aponeurosis of transverse abdominal muscle transversal fascia and visceral peritoneum Which part of the omental foramen does hepatoduodenal ligament forms? anterior posterior superior inferior medial

10. Lesser omentum is supplied with blood by: a) a. hepatica propria, a.lienalis b) a. lienalis, aa.gastrici brevis c) a. hepatica propria, a. colica media d) a. hepatica propria, a.gastroduodenalis e) a. gastrica sinistra, a. gastrica dextra, a. hepatica propria 11. A. gastrica sinistra originates from: a) a. mesenterica superior b) a. mesenterica inferior c) truncus arteriosus celiacus d) a. lienalis e) a. hepatica comunis

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12. A. gastrica dextra originates from: a) truncus celiacus b) a. hepatica comunis c) a. hepatica propria d) a. lienalis e) abdominal aorta 13. Where is situated the main trunk of the left gastric artery: a) hepatogastricum ligament b) phrenicocolicum ligament c) phrenicogastric ligament d) gastrocolicum ligament e) hepatoduodenal ligament 14. Lesser omentum is formed by the following ligaments: a) gastrocolic, hepatogastric, gastrolienal b) gastrolienal, inghinal, lacunar c) hepatoduodenal, hepatogastric, phrenicogastric d) hepatogastric, gastropancreatic e) gastrolienal, pectinal 15. Hepatoduodenal ligament goes to? a) descending part of duodenum b) ascending part of duodenum c) superior part of duodenum d) lesser curvature of the stomach e) omental bursa 16. Hepatoduodenal ligament is a part of: a) greater omentum b) lesser omentum c) epiploon d) duodenorenale ligament e) hepatogastric ligament 17. Which structures delimitate the omental foramen? a) inferior duodenum b) superior hepatic caudate lobe c) anterior hepatoduodenal ligament d) posterior parietal peritoneum which covers inferior vena cava e) lateral stomach 18. Between the laminas of the hepatogastric ligament are situated the following structures: a) artera gastrica sinistra b) artera hepatica propria c) artera gastrica dextra d) v. coronaria ventriculi e) vena lienalis 19. Posterior wall of the omental bursa is formed by: a) spleen b) left hepatic lobe c) parietal peritoneum which covers the pancreas, aorta, inferior vena cava and left kidney d) visceral peritoneum e) hepatic caudate lobe 20. What structures form the superior wall of the omental bursa? a) diaphragm b) inferior surface of the caudate lobe c) posterior wall of the stomach d) posterior part of the left hepatic lobe e) inferior part of the duodenum 21. Right gastroepiploic artery originates from: a) lienal artery b) superior mesenteric artery c) gastroduodenal artery d) inferior mesenteric artery e) left gastric artery 22. What is the relationship between the stomach and the peritoneum? a) retroperitoneal b) intraperitoneal c) mesoperitoneal d) posterior wall is retroperitoneal e) anterior wall is mesoperitoneal

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23. Abdominal portion of the esophagus can be situated: a) retroperitoneal b) intraperitoneal c) mesoperitoneal d) in posterior mediastinum e) in anterior mediastinum 24. Portal vein of the liver is situated in: a) hepatogastric ligament b) gatropancreatic ligament c) hepatoduodenal ligament d) gastrocolic ligament e) gastrolienal ligament 25. In hepatoduodenal ligament can be found the following ducts: a) left and right hepatic ducts b) cystic duct c) bile duct d) pancreatic duct e) accessory pancreatic duct 26. From the liver to blood flows into: a) v. cava inferior b) v. cava superior c) v. lienalis d) v. mesenterica superior e) v. gastrica dextra 27. What is the relationship of the gallbladder with peritoneum? a) intraperitoneal b) retroperitoneal c) mesoperitoneal d) in peritoneal cavity e) posterior to the peritoneum 28. Veins of the esophagus flow into: a) portal v. b) azygos and hemiazygos vv. c) v. gastrica sinistra d) v. cava inferior e) v. mesenterica superior 29. Where is situated the motor branch of vagus, the nerve of Latarget? a) near the greater curvature of stomach b) in the lesser omentum parallel to lesser curvature of stomach c) near the fundus of stomach d) along the duodenum e) along the gastrolienal ligament 30. A. gastroepiploica sinistra originates from: a) a. gastrica sinistra b) a.gastrica dextra c) a. lienalis d) a. mesenterica superior e) a. hepatica propria 31. Blood supply of the greater curvature of stomach is provided by: a) a. mesenterica superior b) a. gastroepiploica dextra c) a. lienalis d) a. gastroepiploica sinistra e) short gastric aa. 32. Which nerves go along with the abdominal portion of the esophagus? a) splanhnic nn. b) n. diafragmalis c) laryngeal recurrent nn. d) anterior and posterior vagus trunks e) inferior intercostal nerves 33. Anterior wall of the omental bursa is composed by: a) lesser omentum and spline b) lesser omentum and spline, stomach, lobuus caudatus of liver c) hepatogastric ligament, anterior gastric wall d) right hepatic lobe, lesser omentum e) lesser omentum, posterior gastric wall and gastrocolic ligament

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34. Omental foramen forms a communication between: a) superior and inferior storeys of abdominal cavity b) abdominal cavity and retroperitoneal space c) subhepatic recess and omental bursa d) abdominal cavity and the cavity of small (true) pelvis e) abdominal cavity and posterior mediastinum 35. Common hepatic duct is formed through joining of: a) cystic and left hepatic ducts b) cystic and right hepatic ducts c) right and left hepatic ducts d) left hepatic and bile ducts e) bile duct and pancreatic ducts 36. Bile duct (coledoch) is formed by joining: a) cystic and common hepatic ducts b) cystic and right hepatic ducts c) right and left hepatic ducts d) left hepatic and coledochus ducts e) coledochus and pancreatic ducts 37. Gallbladder is situated on the following surface of the liver: a) posterior b) anterior c) diaphragmal d) visceral e) medial 38. Cyctic artery begins from? a) common hepatic artery b) proper hepatic artery c) lienal artery d) right hepatic artery e) left gastric artery 39. Superior storey (level) of abdomen is delimited from inferior storey (level) by: a) lesser omentum b) greater omentum c) transverse colon d) root of transverse colon mesenterium e) small intestine 40 The following parts of the duodenum are situated retroperitoneal: a) superior part b) descending part c) inferior horizontal part d) ascending part e) whole duodenum 41. Bile duct drains into: a) small intestine b) hepatopancreatic ampulla c) descending part of duodenum d) transverse colon e) superior part of duodenum 42. The relationship between the spleen and the peritoneum is: a) retroperitoneal b) intraperitoneal c) it is not covered by peritoneum d) mesoperitoneal e) partially covered by peritoneum 43. The pancreas is situated: a) in hepatic bursa b) in the inferior floor of the peritoneal cavity c) in retroperitoneal space d) in duodenojejunal recess e) into the cavity of omental bursa 44. The pancreatic duct opens into: a) horizontal inferior portion of the duodenum b) descending portion of the duodenum c) on the greater duodenal papilla d) hepatopancreatic ampulla e) omental bursa

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45. The hepatopancreatic ampulla opens into: a) horizontal inferior portion of the duodenum b) descending portion of the duodenum c) horizontal and superior duodenum d) pancreatic duct e) omental bursa 46. The hepatic bursa is limited by: a) posterior right coronary lig. b) right falciform lig. c) left falciform lig. d) superior diaphragm e) inferior right lobe of the liver 47. What represents the right subdiaphragmatic space? a) the lowest point of subhepatic recess b) the lowest point of the hepatic bursa c) is situated posterior from the superior surface of the right lobe of the liver d) can serve as a site of accumulation of pathologic liquids e) does not have any practical importance 48. Limits of pregastric bursa: a) posterior lesser omentum and anterior wall of the stomach b) superior diaphragm c) anterior antero-lateral abdominal wall d) superior hepatic hilum e) inferior communicates freely with the preepiploic space 49. Which of the following statements concerning the bursa omentalis are correct? a) is situated posterior from the stomach and lesser omentum b) serves as a way of access to the pancreas c) serves as space of accumulating the exudates in pancreatites or of the gastric contents in gastric perforations d) has three recesses inferior, superior and left e) none of the answers are correct 50. What are the limits of the Callots triangle: a) left proper hepatic a. b) right common biliar hepatic duct c) left common hepatic biliar duct d) inferior-lateral ductus cysticus e) at the base a. cistica or right hepatic a. 51. The bile duct has the following portions: a) hillar b) supraduodenal c) retroduodenal d) pancreatic e) intramural 52. In case of cancer of pancreatic head first is compressed the following portion of the bile duct: a) hilalr b) supraduodenal c) retroduodenal d) pancreatic e) intramural 53. Enumerate the superficiale ligaments of the stomach: a) lig. hepatogastric b) lig. gastropancreatic c) lig. phrenicogastric d) lig. gastrocolic e) lig. gastrolienal 54. Enumerate the deep ligaments of the stomach: a) lig. hepatogastric b) lig. gastrocolic c) left gastropancreatic lig. d) lig. gastrolienal e) right gastropancreatic lig. 55. Which veins participate at formation of porto-caval anastomosis at the level of abdominal esophagus: a) inferior diaphragmatic vein b) medial diaphragmatic vein c) left gastric vein d) right gastric vein e) esophagean veins

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56. Which are the branches of the celiac trunk? a) left gastric a. b) right gastric a. c) common hepatic a. d) proper hepatic a. e) lienal a. 57. Which of the following statements concerning the Letarje nerve are correct: a) is a long branch fo the vagus n. b) is a branch that innervates the cardial portion of the stomach c) is a branch that innervates the antral and pyloric portions of the stomach d) passes on the lesser curvature of the stomach between the laminas of hepatogastric lig. e) passes between the laminas of phrenicogastric lig. 58. Which vessels start from the lienal artery? a) a. gastrica sinistra b) a. gastrica dextra c) a. gastroepiploica sinistra d) aa. gastrici brevis e) a. hepatica propria and gastroepiploica dextra 59. The route of the lienal artery is: a) along the posterior margin of the pancreas b) along the inferior margin of the pancreas c) along the superior margin of the pancreas d) through the pancreatic parenchyma e) it has no attachment with the pancreas 60. Right mesenteric sinus is delimited by: a) mesentery of sigmoid colon b) superior transverse colon and its mesocolon c) right ascending colon d) medial descendent colon e) left and inferior the mesentery of the small intestine 61. Which portions of the large intestine are situated intraperitoneal? a) cecum b) ascending colon c) vermiform appendix, transvers and sigmoid colon, supraampullar portion of the rectum d) descending colon e) ampullar portion of the rectum 62. Which portion of the large intestine are situated mesoperitoneal? a) cecum b) ascendent colon c) vermiform appendix, transvers and sigmoid colon d) descendent colon e) ampullar portion of the rectum 64. Which of the following statements concerning the small bowel are wrong? a) is situated mesoperitoneal b) is situated intraperitoneal c) receives blood supply from superior mesenteric a. d) receives blood supply from the inferior mesenteric a. e) ileal aa. and jejunal aa. start from the left semicircumference of the superior mesenteric a. 65. the righ portion of the large intestine receives blood supply from the following branches: a) lienal a. b) gastroepiploic aa. c) inferior mesenteric a. d) superioare mesenteric a. e) appendycular a. 66. Predict routes for pus spreading in perforating appendicitis: a) omental bursa b) duodenojejunal recessus of Treitz c) subdiaphragmal space d) pregastric bursa e) cavity of pelvis 67. What veins join the portal vein of liver with inferior cava vein? a) left gastric vein, esophageal veins, azygos and hemiazygos b) superior rectal vein, medial rectal veins, and internal iliac vein c) paraumbilical veins, inferior epigastric vein, external iliac vein d) superior epigastric vein and internal thoracic vein e) all are incorrect

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68 Appendicular artery passes: a) retroperitoneal b) within small intestine mesenterium c) within appendiculat mesenterium d) on the posterior surface of the cecum e) between cecum bands 69. The appendicular artery is a branch of: a) right colic a. b) ileocolic a. c) a. colica media d) ileal a. e) extern ileac a. 70. What nerves form celiac plexus? a) greater and lasser splanchnic nerves b) vagus and phrenic nerves c) hepatic plexus d) lumbar plexus e) intercostal and subcostal nerves 71. Which of the following statements concerning the right lateral canal are correct? a) from the right is limited by the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen b) from the left is limited by ascendent colon c) superior communicates with the subhepatic bursa and right hepatic bursa d) inferior communicates with the right iliac fossa and cavity of the pelvis e) is situated more medial from the ascendent colon 72. Which of the following statements refer to the topography of the left lateral canal? a) from the left is limited by the antero-lateral wall of the abdomen b) from the right is limited by ascendent and sigmoid colon c) superior from the phrenicocolic lig. d) inferior communicates with the cavity of the pelvis e) inferior does not communicate with the cavity of the pelvis 73. Which of the following recesses are situated in the ileocecal flexure of the intestine? a) subhepatic b) ileocecal superior c) ileocecal inferior d) retroappendicular e) retrocecal 74. Branches of which artery supplies with blood the left half of the colon? a) superioar mesenteric a. b) inferioar mesenteric a. c) coeliac trunk d) lombar aa. e) renal aa. 75. The Riolani arcade is formed by the anastomosis of the following arteries: a) a. colica media and right colic a. b) a. ileocolica and right colic a. c) a. colica media and left colic a. d) left colic a. and sigmoid aa. e) a. colica media and ileocolic a. 76. The critical segments in the colon vascularisation are: a) incipient portion of the jejunum b) terminal ileon and iliocecal flexure (Trave) c) lienal flexure of the colon (Griffiths) d) hepatic flexure of the colon e) rectosigmoid portion of the colon (Zudeck) 77. Enumerate the branches of the superioare mesenteric artery: a) ileocolic a. b) right colic a. c) left colic a. d) sigmoid aa. e) a. colica media

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Spine and lombar regions, retroperitoneal space

Spine Region
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) 5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e) Indicate the physiological curves of the vertebral column directed anterior in sagittal plane: cervical curvature lordosis thoracic curvature lordosis lumbar curvature chiphosis sacral curvature chiphosis lumbar curvature lordosis Which ligaments fix the vertebral bodies along the vertebral column? interspinal ligaments of vertebrae anterior longitudinal ligament posterior longitudinal ligament ligamenta flava transversal ligaments Determine the right sequence (order) of the medullas sheaths: pia matter, arachnoid, dura matter dura matter, arachnoid, pia matter arachnoid, dura matter, pia matter arachnoid, pia matter, dura matter dura matter, pia matter, arachnoid Determine which of the following represents kyphosis: curvature of the vertebral column segment with posterior convexity curvature of the vertebral column with anterior convexity curvature of the vertebral column with lateral convexity curvature of the vertebral column with medial convexity vertebral column without curvatures Determine which of the following statements represents scoliosis? curvature of the vertebral column with posterior convexity curvature of the vertebral column with anterior convexity curvature of the vertebral column with lateral convexity curvature of the vertebral column with medial convexity vertebral column without curvatures Determine which of the following statements represents lordosis? curvature of the vertebral column with convexity posteriourly curvature of the vertebral column with convexity anteriourly curvature of the vertebral column with convexity lateraly curvature of the vertebral column with convexity medialy vertebral column without curvatures Indicate the incorrect determination of the vertebral columns curvatures cervical curvature with the convexity in anterior - lordosis thoracic curvature with the convexity in posterior - kyphosis lumbar curvature with the convexity in anterior - kyphosis sacral curvature with the convexity in posterior - lordosis lumbar curvature with the convexity in anterior - lordosis Which arteries participate in the supply of cervical vertebras? vertebral arteries ascending cervical arteries deep cervical arteries external carotid artery internal carotid artery Which arteries participate in the supply of thoracic vertebras? inferior epigastric aa. aa. intercostals suprema intercostal arteries transverse arteries of the neck superficial cervical arteries

10. Which arteries participate in the supply of lumbar and sacral vertebras: a) lombar aa. b) lateral sacral aa. c) median sacral a. d) superior rectal a. e) inferior rectal a.

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11. At what intervertebral level can be done the lumbar puncture in adults? a) between spinous processes of Th11-12 vertebras b) between spinous processes of Th12 L1 vertebras c) between spinous processes of L1-2 vertebras d) between spinous processes of L2-3 vertebras e) between spinous processes of L3-4 and L4-5 vertebras 12. At what level can be done the lumbar puncture in children? a) between spinous processes of Th12 L1 vertebras b) between spinous processes of L1-2 vertebras c) between spinous processes of L2-3 vertebras d) between spinous processes of L3-4 vertebras e) between spinous processes of L4-5 vertebras 13. Where is situated the spinal epidural space? a) between spinal dura mater and spinal arachnoid b) between the wall of vertebral canal and spinal dura mater c) between arachnoid and spinal pia mater d) under dura mater e) under pia mater 14. Where is situated the spinal subdural space? a) under pia mater b) under the arachnoid membrane c) between dura mater and the arachnoid membrane d) between dura mater and the wall of vertebral canal e) between the arachnoid membrane and pia mater 15. Where is situated the spinal subarachnoid space? a) under pia mater b) under the arachnoid c) between dura mater and the arachnoid membrane d) between dura mater and the wall of vertebral canal e) between the arachnoid membrane and pia mater 16. How many pairs of spinal nerves with the origin in the spinal cord we can distinguish: a) C 7, Th 12, L 5, S 5, Co 1 = 30 pairs b) C 8, Th 12, L 5, S 5, Co 1 = 31 pairs c) C 8, Th 12, L 5, S 5, Co 2 = 32 pairs d) C 9, Th 13, L 6, S 4, Co 1 = 33 pairs e) C 10, Th 12, L 5, S 5, Co 3 = 35 pairs

Lumbar region
1. a) b) c) d) e) Boundaries of the lumbar region: superior XIIth rib inferior iliac crests and sacrum medial paravertebral line medial vertical line vertical line passing on the spinous processes of lumbar vertebras lateral vertical line passing as a continuation of the middle axilary line towards the iliac crest

2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e)

Which muscles are situated in the medial portion of the lumbar region? m. psoas m. erector spinae m. quadratus lumborum internal oblique abdominal m. external oblique abdominal m. Which muscles are situated in the lateral portion of the lumbar region? transversal abdominal m. internal oblique abdominal m. external oblique abdominal m. psoas m. quadratus lumborum m. Dedublation of the aponeurosis of which muscle forms the sheath of sacrospinal (erector spinae) muscle? fascia thoracolumbalis external oblique abdominal m. internal oblique abdominal m. transversal abdominal m. trapezius m.

5 Sides of inferior lumbar triangle of Petit: a) margin of latissimus dorsi muscle b) margin of external oblique abdominal muscle c) margin of internal oblique abdominal muscle d) iliac crest e) transverse abdominal muscle

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6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

The floor of lumbar triangle of Petit: m. latissimus dorsi external oblique abdominal m internal oblique abdominal m. iliac crest transverse abdominal muscle Between the limits and the floor of the lumbar triangle of Petit passes: lombar a. subcostal neurovascular bundle iliohypogastric n. ilioinghinal n. no vessels, no nerves Sides of superior lombar triangle (or rhombus) of Lesgaft-Grynfeldt: serratus posterior inferior muscle XII rib internal oblique abdominal muscle erector spinae muscle aponeurosis of transverse abdominal muscle What is the bottom of superior lumbar triangle (or rhombus) of Lesgaft-Grynfeldt: m. serratus posterior inferior XII rib internal oblique abdominal muscle m. erector spinae aponeurosis of transverse abdominal muscle

10. The lumbar space of Lesghaft-Grynfelt is situated under: a) m. serratus posterior inferior b) m. trapezius c) internal oblique abdominal muscle d) m. erector spinae e) m. latissimus dorsi 11. The floor of the lumbar space of Lesghaft-Grynfelt is pierced by: a) subcostal neurovascular bundle b) XIIth rib c) iliohypogastric n. d) lumbar a. e) m. psoas minor 12. The triangle of Petit and the lumbar space of Lesghaft-Grynfelt have clinical importance because: a) they are weak points and here can form lumbar hernias b) can serve as a miniinvasive gateway (endoscopic) c) place of draining the inflammation processes from the retroperitoneal space d) serve as extern landmarks e) can be easily determined anatomically, but do not have clinical importance

Retroperitonial space
1. a) b) c) d) e) 2. a) b) c) d) e) 3. a) b) c) d) e) 4. a) b) c) d) e) The limits of the retroperitoneal space are: posterior endoabdominal fascia posterior retroperitoneal fascia anterior retroperitoneal fascia anterior posterior lamina of parietal peritoneum anterior prerenal fascia In the retroperitoneal space we can find the following fascias: fascia retroperitonealis fascia prerenalis fascia retrorenalis fascia retrocolica (Toldti) fascia endoretroperitonealis The proper retroperitoneal fatty tissue space is limited by: fascia endoabdominalis (transversa) fascia retrorenalis fascia prerenalis fascia retroperitonealis parietal peritoneum The paranefral fatty tissue space is limited by: fascia endoabdominalis fascia retrorenalis fascia prerenalis fascia retroperitonealis parietal peritoneum

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5. a) b) c) d) e) 6. a) b) c) d) e) 7. a) b) c) d) e) 8. a) b) c) d) e) 9. a) b) c) d) e)

The paracolon fatty tissue space is limited by: fascia endoabdominalis fascia retrorenalis fascia prerenalis fascia retroperitonealis fascia retrocolica (Toldti) and parietal peritoneum In the proper retroperitoneal fatty tissue space are situated : branches of lombar plexus sympathetic neural trunk lymphatic nodes celiac plexus superior mesenterial plexus What anatomical structures are situated in paranephral celluloadipose space? kidneys and renal pedicles suprarenal gland abdominal aorta inferior vena cava vena porta What anatomical structures are situated in paracolonic celluloadipose space? ureter doudenum, descendent portion and inferior horizontal pancreas suprarenal gland aorta and inferior vena cava Fascial sheath for the suprarenal gland is formed by: fascia endoabdominalis fascia retrorenalis fascia prerenalis fascia retroperitonealis fascia retrocolica

10. Possible routs of pus and hematomas spreading from proper retroperitoneal space: a) in the paranephral fatty tissue space b) in the paracolic fatty tissue space c) in the parapleural space through weak points of the diaphragm d) in the infrainguinal region through lacuna musculorum e) in the paraureteral space 11. Possible routs of primary pus spreading from paranefral space: a) in the proper retroperitoneal fatty tissue space b) in the paracolic fatty tissue space c) primary spreading is not possible, because the inflamtory process forms strong fascial septums d) parietal fatty tissue space of the pelvis e) in the paraureteral space 12. Possible routs of primary pus spreading from paracolic space: a) in the subdiafragmal extraperitoneal and parapleural space b) in the proper retroperitoneal fatty tissue space c) in the parapleural space d) in the parietal fatty tissue space of the pelvis e) in the paraureteral space 13. The ureters relationship with the retroperitoneal structures is: a) posterior from the lumbar arteries and veins b) posterior from the testicular (ovarian) vessels c) anterior from the genitofemoral nn. d) attached to the parietal peritoneum at the level of terminal line e) lateral from the quadratus lumborum m. 14. Where is situated the femoral nerve? a) between the greater psoas and quadratus lumborum muscles b) between iliac and greater psoas muscles c) between the greater and lesser psoas d) between quadratus lumborum and its fascia e) no correct answer 15. Where is situated the genitofemoral nerve? a) protrudes the fascia projecting on the anterior surface of the greater psoas muscle b) on the posterior surface of the greater psoas c) between greater psoas and quadratus lumborum muscles d) between greater psoas and iliac muscles e) between transverse fascia and the parietal peritoneum

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16. The aberrant renal artery: a) can cause hydronephrosis b) starts from the renal a. or the aorta c) the majority of aberrant aa. supply with blood the inferior pole d) ignoring this artery can lead to abundent hemorrhages or necrosis of the inferior pole of the kigney e) does not present clinical interest 17. Which vessels cross the ureter in the retroperitoneal space? a) left common iliac artery b) right external iliac artery c) left external iliac artery d) right common iliac artery e) left and right common iliac artery 18. Kidney projection on the anterolateral abdominal wall is: a) in epigastric and hypochondriac right and left regions b) in mesogastric and lateral abdominal regions c) in epigastric region d) in hypogastric region e) in umbilical region 19. Renal hilum projection on the anterior abdominal wall is: a) on the intersection of rectus abdomini muscle with costal arch b) 10 cm below the intersection of rectus abdomini muscle with costal arch c) on the level of costal arch and xiphoid process d) on the level of umbilicus e) on the level of apex of xiphoid process 20. Renal hilum projection on posterior abdominal wall is: a) on the intersection of lateral edges of erector spinae muscle with XII rib b) 10 cm below the intersection of lateral edges of erector spinae muscle with XII rib c) on the intersection of erector spinae muscle with XI rib d) on the intersection of erector spinae muscle with X rib e) on the intersection of erector spinae muscle with IX rib 21. Interrelation between structures of renal hilum from anterior to posterior: a) artery, vein, ureter b) vein, artery, ureter c) artery, ureter, vein d) ureter, artery, vein e) vein, ureter, artery 22. Right kidney has interrelation with limitrophe organs, from anterior are situated: a) right lobe of liver b) descending part of duodenum c) superior portion of the ascendent colon and the small bowel loops d) aorta e) stomach 23. Left kidney has interrelation with limitrophe organs, from anterior are situated: a) tail of pancreas and spleen b) superior portion of the descendent colon c) small bowel loops d) posterior wall of the omental bursa e) sigmoid colon 24. Right suprarenal gland has interrelation with the following limitrophe structures: a) right lobe of the liver from anterior b) diaphragm from posterior c) abdominal aorta d) inferior vena cava e) coeliac plexus ganglia 25. Left suprarenal gland has interrelation with the following limitrophe structures: a) body of pancreas b) posterior wall of omental bursa c) inferior vena cava d) abdominal aorta et plexus coeliacus e) diaphragm from posterior 26. Projection of the ureters on anteriolateral abdominal wall: a) on lateral edge of the rectus abdomini muscles b) on medial edge of the rectus abdomini muscles c) 6 cm lateral to the lateral edge of rectus abdomini muscle d) 6 cm medial to the medial edge of rectus abdomini muscle e) on linea alba

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27. Projection of the ureters on the posterior abdominal wall: a) parallel to the tips of spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae b) the line that connects the transversal processes of lumbar vertebrae c) on scapular lines d) on posterior axillary lines e) on midaxillary lines 28. Which of the following are visceral branches of abdominal aorta? a) celiac trunk b) testicular aa. (ovarian) c) superior and inferior mesenteric aa. d) renal arteries and medial suprarenal a. e) inferior phrenic aa. 29. Which of the following are parietal branches of abdominal aorta? a) inferior phrenic aa. b) lombar aa. c) median sacral artery d) testicular (ovarien) arteries e) median suprarenal arteries 30. What anatomical structures cross inferior vena cava from posterior? a) right renal artery b) left renal artery c) right lumbar arteries d) left testicular (ovarien) artery e) superior phrenic artery 31. Which of the following are visceral branches of the inferior vena cava? a) lumbar veins b) hepatic veins c) superior mesenteric vein d) right testicular vein (ovarian) e) renal and suprarenal veins 32. Which of the following are parietal branches of inferior vena cava? a) inferior phrenic veins b) testicular (ovaric) veins c) renal veins d) medial sacral vein e) lumbar veins 33. How many narrowings has the ureter? a) one b) two c) three d) four e) five 34. How many equal parts of the ureter are considered? a) none b) two c) three d) four e) five 35. Anterior from abdominal aorta are situated: a) pancreas b) ascending portion of duodenum c) root of the small bowel mesentery d) left renal v. e) left testicular (ovarian) v. 36. Proximal from the iliac vessels, the ureter is situated posterior from: a) terminal portion of the ileum from right b) cecum from right c) root of the sigmoid mesentery from left d) descendent colonum from left e) rectosigmoid portion of the colon from left

Pelvis
Boris M. Topor, M.D., Ph.D. Professor and Chairman 06.05.2009

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