Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 6/20 1. The nurse is teaching a class on biological warfare.

Which information should the nurse include in the presentation? a. Contaminated water is the only source of transmission of biological agents. b. Vaccines are available and being prepared to counteract biological agents. c. Biological weapons are less of a threat than chemical agents. d. Biological weapons are easily obtained and result in significant mortality. 2. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse assess in the client who has been exposed to the anthrax bacillus via the skin? a. A scabby, clear fluidfilled vesicle. b. Edema, pruritus, and a 2-mm ulcerated vesicle. c. Irregular brownish-pink spots around the hairline. d. Tiny purple spots flush with the surface of the skin. 3. The client has expired secondary to smallpox. Which information about funeral arrangements is most important for the nurse to provide to the clients family? a. The client must be cremated. b. Suggest an open casket funeral. c. Bury the client within 24 hours. d. Notify the public health department. 4. A chemical exposure has just occurred at an airport. An off-duty nurse, knowledgeable about biochemical agents, is giving directions to the travelers. Which direction should the nurse provide to the travelers? a. Hold their breath as much as possible. b. Stand up to avoid heavy exposure. c. Lie down to stay under the exposure. d. Attempt to breathe through their clothing. 5. The nurse is caring for a client in the prodromal phase of radiation exposure. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse assess in the client? a. Anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. b. Sudden fever, chills, and enlarged lymph nodes. c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. d. Flaccid paralysis, diplopia, and dysphagia. 6. The off-duty nurse hears on the television of a bioterrorism act in the community. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Immediately report to the hospital emergency room. b. Call the American Red Cross to find out where to go. c. Pack a bag and prepare to stay at the hospital. d. Follow the nurses hospital policy for responding.

7. Which situation would warrant the nurse obtaining information from a material safety data sheet (MSDS)? a. The custodian spilled a chemical solvent in the hallway. b. A visitor slipped and fell on the floor that had just been mopped. c. A bottle of antineoplastic agent broke on the clients floor. d. The nurse was stuck with a contaminated needle in the clients room. 8. The triage nurse is working in the emergency department. Which client should be assessed first? a. The 10-year-old child whose dad thinks the childs leg is broken. b. The 45-year-old male who is diaphoretic and clutching his chest. c. The 58-year-old female complaining of a headache and seeing spots. d. The 25-year-old male who cut his hand with a hunting knife. 9. According to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) triage system, which situation would be considered a level red (Priority 1)? a. Injuries are extensive and chances of survival are unlikely. b. Injuries are minor and treatment can be delayed hours to days. c. Injuries are significant but can wait hours without threat to life or limb. d. Injuries are life threatening but survivable with minimal interventions. 10. Which statement best describes the role of the medical-surgical nurse during a disaster? a. The nurse may be assigned to ride in the ambulance. b. The nurse may be assigned as a first assistant in the operating room. c. The nurse may be assigned to crowd control. d. The nurse may be assigned to the emergency department. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 6/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Answer: D Rationale: Because of the variety of agents, the means of transmission, and lethality of the agents, biological weapons, including anthrax, smallpox, and plague, is especially dangerous. 2. Answer: B Rationale: Exposure to anthrax bacilli via the skin results in skin lesions, which cause edema with pruritus and the formation of macules or papules that ulcerate, forming a 1-3 mm vesicle. Then a painless eschar develops, which falls off in one (1) to 2 weeks. 3. Answer: A Rationale: Cremation is recommended because the virus can stay alive in the scabs of the body for 13 years. 4. Answer: B Rationale: Standing up will avoid heavy exposure the chemical will sink toward the floor or ground.

5. Answer: C Rationale: The prodromal phase (presenting symptoms) of radiation exposure occurs 4872 hours after exposure and the signs/symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, and fatigue. Higher exposures of radiation signs/symptoms include fever, respiratory distress, and excitability. 6. Answer: D Rationale: The nurse should follow the hospitals policy. Many times nurses will stay at home until decisions are made as to where the employees should report. 7. Answer: A Rationale: The MSDS provides chemical information regarding specific agents, health information, and spill information for a variety of chemicals. It is required for every chemical that is found in the hospital. 8. Answer: B Rationale: The triage nurse should see this client first because these are symptoms of a myocardial infarction, which potentially life is threatening. 9. Answer: D Rationale: This is called the immediate category. Individuals in this group can progress rapidly to expectant if treatment is delayed. 10. Answer: D Rationale: New settings and atypical roles for nurses may be required during disasters; medicalsurgical nurses can provide first aid and be required to work in unfamiliar settings.

Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 5/20 1. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement when performing mouthto-mouth resuscitation on a client who has pulseless ventricular fibrillation? a. Perform the jaw thrust maneuver to open the airway. b. Use the mouth to cover the clients mouth and nose. c. Insert an oral airway prior to performing mouth to mouth. d. Use a pocket mouth shield to cover clients mouth. 2. The nurse is teaching CPR to a class. Which statement best explains the definition of sudden cardiac death? a. Cardiac death occurs after being removed from a mechanical ventilator. b. Cardiac death is the time that the physician officially declares the client dead. c. Cardiac death occurs within one (1) hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms. d. The death is caused by myocardial ischemia resulting from coronary artery disease.

3. Which statement explains the scientific rationale for having emergency suction equipment available during resuscitation efforts? a. Gastric distention can occur as a result of ventilation. b. It is needed to assist when intubating the client. c. This equipment will ensure a patent airway. d. It keeps the vomitus away from the health-care provider. 4. Which equipment must be immediately brought to the clients bedside when a code is called for a client who has experienced a cardiac arrest? a. A ventilator. b. A crash cart. c. A gurney. d. Portable oxygen. 5. The nursing administrator responds to a code situation. When assessing the situation, which role must the administrator ensure is performed for legal purposes and continuity of care of the client? a. A person is ventilating with an ambu bag. b. A person is performing chest compressions correctly. c. A person is administering medications as ordered. d. A person is keeping an accurate record of the code. 6. The nurse in the emergency department has admitted five (5) clients in the last two (2) hours with complaints of fever and gastrointestinal distress. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask each client to determine if there is a bioterrorism threat? a. Do you work or live near any large power lines? b. Where were you immediately before you got sick? c. Can you write down everything you ate today? d. What other health problems do you have? 7. The health-care facility has been notified that an alleged inhalation anthrax exposure has occurred at the local post office. Which category of personal protective equipment (PPE) would the response team wear? a. Level A b. Level B c. Level C d. Level D 8. The nurse is teaching a class on bioterrorism and is discussing personal protective equipment (PPE). Which statement is the most important fact that must be shared with the participants? a. Health-care facilities should keep masks at entry doors. b. The respondent should be trained in the proper use of PPE. c. No single combination of PPE protects against all hazards. d. The EPA has divided PPE into four levels of protection

9. The nurse is teaching a class on bioterrorism. What is the scientific rationale for designating a specific area for decontamination? a. Showers and privacy can be provided to the client in this area. b. This area isolates the clients who have been exposed to the agent. c. It provides a centralized area for stocking the needed supplies. d. It prevents secondary contamination to the health-care providers. 10. The triage nurse in a large trauma center has been notified of an explosion in a major chemical manufacturing plant. Which action should the nurse implement first when the clients arrive at the emergency department? a. Triage the clients and send them to the appropriate areas. b. Thoroughly wash the clients with soap and water and then rinse. c. Remove the clients clothing and have them shower. d. Assume the clients have been decontaminated at the plant. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 5/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Answer: D Rationale: Nurses should protect themselves against possible communicable disease, such as HIV, hepatitis, or any types of sexually transmitted disease. 2. Answer: C Rationale: Unexpected death occurring within1 hour of the onset of cardiovascular symptoms is the definition of sudden cardiac death. 3. Answer: A Rationale: Gastric distention occurs from overventilating clients. When compressions are performed, the pressure will cause vomiting that could be aspirated into the lungs. 4. Answer: B Rationale: The crash cart is the mobile unit that has the defibrillator and all the medications and supplies needed to conduct a code. 5. Answer: D Rationale: The chart is a legal document and the code must be documented in the chart and provide information that may be needed in the intensive care unit. 6. Answer: B Rationale: The nurse should take note of any unusual illness for the time of year or clusters of clients coming from a single geographical location who all exhibit signs/symptoms of possible biological terrorism. 7. Answer: A Rationale: Level A protection is worn when the highest level of respiratory, skin, eye, and

mucous membrane protection is required. In this situation of possible inhalation of anthrax, such protection is required. 8. Answer: C Rationale: The health-care providers are not guaranteed absolute protects. The nurse should take note of any unusual illness for the time of year or clusters of clients coming from a single geographical location who all exhibit signs/symptoms of possible biological terrorism.ion, even with all the training and protective equipment. 9. Answer: D Rationale: Avoiding cross contamination is a priority for personnel and equipmentthe fewer number of people exposed, the safer the community and area. 10. Answer: C Rationale: This is the first step. Depending on the type of exposure, this step alone can remove a large portion of exposure. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 4/20 1. The nurse is planning a program for clients at a health fair regarding the prevention and early detection of cancer of the pancreas. Which self-care activity should the nurse teach that is an example of primary nursing care? a. Monitor for elevated blood glucose at random intervals. b. Inspect the skin and sclera of the eyes for a yellow tint. c. Limit meat in the diet and eat a diet that is low in fats. d. Instruct the client with hyperglycemia about insulin injections. 2. The client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas is being discharged to start chemotherapy in the HCPs office. Which statement made by the client indicates the client understands the discharge instructions? a. I will have to see the HCP every day for six (6) weeks for my treatments. b. I should write down all my questions so I can ask them when I see the HCP. c. I am sure that this is not going to be a serious problem for me to deal with. d. The nurse will give me an injection in my leg and I will get to go home. 3. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the collaborative problem of altered nutrition. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Continuous feedings via PEG tube. b. Have the family bring in foods from home. c. Assess for food preferences. d. Refer to the dietitian. 4. The client is taken to the emergency department with an injury to the left arm. Which should the nurse take a. Assess the nail beds for capillary refill b. Remove the clients clothing from the action first? time. arm.

c. Call radiology for a STAT d. Prepare the client for the application of a cast.

x-ray

of

the

extremity.

5. The nurse finds the client unresponsive on the floor of the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. Check the client for breathing. b. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse. c. Shake the client and shout. d. Call a code via the bathroom call light. 6. Which behavior by the unlicensed assistive personnel who is performing cardiac compressions on an adult client during a code warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Has one hand on the lower half of the sternum above the xiphoid process. b. Performs cardiac compressions and allows for rescue breathing. c. Depresses the sternum 0.5 to one (1) inch during compressions. d. Requests to be relieved from performing compressions because of exhaustion. 7. Which is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement when participating in a code? a. Elevate the arm after administering medication. b. Maintain sterile technique throughout the code. c. Treat the clients signs/symptoms; do not watch the monitor. d. Be sure to provide accurate documentation of what happened in the code. 8. The CPR instructor is explaining what an automated external defibrillator (AED) does to students in a CPR class. Which statement best describes an AED? a. It analyzes the rhythm and shocks the client in ventricular fibrillation. b. The client will be able to have synchronized cardioversion with the AED. c. It will keep the health-care provider informed of the clients oxygen level. d. The AED will perform cardiac compressions on the client. 9. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client is most likely to experience sudden cardiac death? a. The 84-year-old client exhibiting uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. b. The 60-year-old client exhibiting asymptomatic sinus bradycardia. c. The 53-year-old client exhibiting ventricular fibrillation. d. The 65-year-old client exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia. 10. Which health-care team member referral should be made when a code is being conducted on a client in a community hospital? a. The hospital chaplain. b. The social worker. c. The respiratory therapist. d. The director of nurses.

Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 4/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Answer: C Rationale: Limiting the intake of meat and fats in the diet would be an example of primary interventions. Risk factors for the development of cancer of the pancreas are cigarette smoking and eating a high-fat diet that is high in animal protein. By changing these behaviors the client could possibly prevent the development of cancer of the pancreas. Other risk factors include genetic predisposition and exposure to industrial chemicals. 2. Answer: B Rationale: The most important person in the treatment of the cancer is the client. Research has proved that the more involved a client becomes in his or her care, the better the prognosis. Clients should have a chance to ask all the questions that they have. 3. Answer: Rationale: A collaborative intervention would be to refer to the nutrition expert, the dietitian. D

4. Answer: A Rationale: The nurse should assess the nail beds for the capillary refill time. A prolonged time (greater than three seconds) indicates impaired circulation to the extremity. 5. Answer: C Rationale: This is the first intervention the nurse should implement after finding the client unresponsive on the floor. 6. Answer: C Rationale: The sternum should be depressed 1.5 to 2 inches during compressions to ensure adequate circulation of blood to the body; therefore, the nurse needs to correct the assistant. 7. Answer: C Rationale: This is the most important intervention. The nurse should always treat the client based on the nurses assessment and data from the monitors; an intervention should not be based on data from the monitors without the nurses assessment. 8. Answer: Rationale: This is the correct statement explaining what an AED does when used in a code. A

9. Answer: C Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is the most common dysrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac death; ventricular fibrillation is responsible for 65% to 85% of sudden cardiac deaths. 10. Answer: A Rationale: The chaplain should be called to help address the clients family or significant others. A small community hospital would not have a 24-hour on-duty pastoral service.

Nursing Board Sample Review Questions in Emergency

22 Jul, 2010 | Written by Nursingbuzz_editor | under Emergency Nursing Review Questions, Emergency Questions Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 3/20 1. A client with multiple injury following a vehicular accident is transferred to the critical care unit. He begins to complain of increased abdominal pain in the left upper quadrant. A ruptured spleen is diagnosed and he is scheduled for emergency splenectomy. In preparing the client for surgery, the nurse should emphasize in his teaching plan the: a. Complete safety of the procedure b. Expectation of postoperative bleeding c. Risk of the procedure with his other injuries d. Presence of abdominal drains for several days after surgery 2. After you managed to stabilize the respiratory function of your burn patient, your next goal is to prevent this you have to replace the lost fluid and electrolytes. In starting fluid replacement therapy, the total volume and rate of IV fluid repalcement are gauged by the patients response and by the patients response and by the resuscitation formula. In determining the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, it is essential for you to monitor the: a. urine output b. blood pressure c. intracranial pressure d. cardiac output 3. You are a nurse in the emergency department and it is during the shift that Mr. CT is admitted in the area due to a fractured skull from a motor accident. You scheduled him for surgery under which classification? a. Urgent b. Emergent c. Required d. Elective 4. Lucky was in a vehicular acccident where he sustained injury to his left ankle. In the Emergency room, you noticed anxious he looks. You establish rapport with him and to reduce his anxiety, you initially: a. Identify yourself and state your purpose in being with the client b. Take him to the radiology section for x-ray of affected extremity c. Talk to the physician for an order of valium d. Do inspection and palpation to check extent of his injuries

5. The client diagnosed with a mild concussion is being discharged from the emergency department. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the clients significant other? a. Awaken the client every two hours. b. Monitor for increased intracranial pressure. c. Observe frequently for hypervigilance. d. Offer the client food every three to four hours. 6. The client diagnosed with Addisons disease is admitted to the emergency department after a day at the lake. The client is lethargic, forgetful, and weak. Which intervention should be the emergency department nurses first action? a. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle and infuse NS rapidly. b. Have the client wait in the waiting room until a bed is available. c. Perform a complete head-to-toe assessment. d. Collect urinalysis and blood samples for a CBC and calcium level. 7. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the nursing diagnosis of risk for altered skin integrity related to pruritus. Which interventions should the nurse implement? a. Assess tissue turgor. b. Apply antifungal creams. c. Monitor bony prominences for breakdown. d. Have the client keep the fingernails short. 8. The client diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas is two (2) days postpancreatoduodenectomy (Whipples procedure). Which nursing problem has the highest priority? a. Anticipatory grieving. b. Fluid volume imbalance. c. Acute incisional pain. d. Altered nutrition. 9. The client is diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas. When assessing the patient, which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find? a. Clay-colored stools and dark urine. b. Night sweats and fever. c. Left lower abdominal cramps and tenesmus. d. Nausea and coffee-ground emesis. 10. The client admitted to rule out pancreatic islet tumors complains of feeling weak, shaky, and sweaty. Which should be the first intervention implemented by the nurse? a. Start an IV with D5W. b. Notify the health-care provider. c. Perform a bedside glucose check. d. Give the client some orange juice.

Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 3/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Answer: D Rationale: Presence of abdominal drains for several days after surgery Drains are usually inserted into the splenic bed to facilitate removal of fluid in the area that could lead to abscess formation. 2. Answer: A Rationale: to establish the sufficiency of fluid resuscitation, urine output totals an index of renal perfusion. Urine output totals an index of renal perfusion, urine output totals of 30-50 ml/hour have been used as resuscitation goals. Other indicators of adequate fluid replacement are systolic blood pressure exceeding 100 mmHg, a pulse rate less than110 beats/min or both. 3. Answer: B Rationale: Emergent surgery is performed, immediately without delay to maintain life, limb or organ, remove damage and stop bleeding. Urgent surgery requires prompt attention and is done few hours but within 24 to 48 hours. Required surgery is done within a few weeks as surgery is important. Elective surgery is scheduled and done at the convenience of client as failure to have surgery is not catastrophic. Optional surgeries are done by preference only. 4. Answer: A Rationale: Introducing self initiates the nurse-patient interaction, relationship and the purpose of being with the client. This prevents confusion and let the client know what to expect, thereby reducing anxiety. 5. Answer: A Rationale: Awakening the client every 2 hours allows the identification of headache, dizziness, lethargy, irritability, and anxietyall signs of post-concussion syndromethat would warrant the significant others taking the client back to the emergency department. 6. Answer: A Rationale: This client has been exposed to wind and sun at the lake during the hours prior to being admitted to the emergency department. This predisposes the client to dehydration and an Addisonian crisis. Rapid IV fluid replacement is necessary. 7. Answer: D Rationale: Keeping the fingernails short will reduce the chance of breaks in the skin from scratching. 8. Answer: B Rationale: This is a major abdominal surgery, and there are massive fluid volume shifts that occur when this type of trauma is experienced by the body. Maintaining the circulatory system without overloading it requires extremely close monitoring.

9. Answer: A Rationale: The client will have jaundice, clay-colored stools, and tea-colored urine resulting from blockage of the bile drainage. 10. Answer: C Rationale: These are symptoms of an insulin reaction (hypoglycemia). A bedside glucose check should be done. Pancreatic islet tumors can produce hyperinsulinemia or hypoglycemia. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 2/20 1 Which nursing intervention would be appropriate when caring for a client who has sustained an electrical burn? a. Applying ice to the burned area b. Flushing the burn area with large amounts of water c. Monitoring the client with cardiac telemetry d. Preparing to administer the chemical antidote 2. Eddie, 40 years old, is brought to the emergency room after the crash of his private plane. He has suffered multiple crushing wounds of the chest, abdomen and legs. It is feared his leg may have to be amputated. When Eddie arrives in the emergency room, the assessment that assume the greatest priority are: a. Level of consciousness and pupil size b. Abdominal contusions and other wounds c. Pain, Respiratory rate and blood pressure d. Quality of respirations and presence of pulses. 3. An emergency treatment for an acute asthmatic attack is Adrenaline 1:1000 given hypodermically. This is given to: a. increase BP b. decrease mucosal swelling c. relax the bronchial smooth muscle d. decrease bronchial secretions 4. Intervention for a pt. who has swallowed a Muriatic Acid includes all of the following except a. administering an irritant that will stimulate vomiting b. aspirating secretions from the pharynx if respirations are affected c. neutralizing the chemical d. washing the esophagus with large volumes of water via gastric lavage 5. John, 16 years old, is brought to the ER after a vehicular accident. He is pronounced dead on arrival. When his parents arrive at the hospital, the nurse should: a. ask them to stay in the waiting area until she can spend time alone with them b. speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely c. Speak to one parent at a time so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the

other d. ask the MD to medicate the parents so they can stay calm to deal with their sons death. 6. A nurse is eating in the hospital cafeteria when a toddler at a nearby table chokes on a piece of food and appears slightly blue. The appropriate initial action should be to a. Begin mouth to mouth resuscitation b. Give the child water to help in swallowing c. Perform 5 abdominal thrusts d. Call for the emergency response team 7. A client is admitted from the emergency department with severe-pain and edema in the right foot. His diagnosis is gouty arthritis. When developing a plan of care, which action would have the highest priority? a. Apply hot compresses to the affected joints. b. Stress the importance of maintaining good posture to prevent deformities. c. Administer salicylates to minimize the inflammatory reaction. d. Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day. 8. The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust), for acute airway obstruction, attempts to: a. Force air out of the lungs b. Increase systemic circulation c. Induce emptying of the stomach d. Put pressure on the apex of the heart 9. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult patient. When performing chest compressions, the nurse understands the correct hand placement is located over the a. upper half of the sternum b. upper third of the sternum c. lower half of the sternum d. lower third of the sternum 10. John, 16 years old, is brought to the ER after a vehicular accident. He is pronounced dead on arrival. When his parents arrive at the hospital, the nurse should: a. ask them to stay in the waiting area until she can spend time alone with them b. speak to both parents together and encourage them to support each other and express their emotions freely c. Speak to one parent at a time so that each can ventilate feelings of loss without upsetting the other d. ask the MD to medicate the parents so they can stay calm to deal with their sons death. Nursing Board Exam Review Questions in Emergency Part 2/20 (ANSWER KEY) 1. Answer: C Rationale: Because of the effects of the electrical current on the cardiovascular system, all clients experiencing electrical burns should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Applying ice is

inappropriate for any type of burn. Only chemical burns should be flushed with large amounts of water. Chemical antidotes may be used for chemical burns for which an antidote has been identified. 2. Answer: D Rationale: Respiratory and cardiovascular functions are essential for oxygenation. These are top priorities to trauma management. Basic life functions must be maintained or reestablished 3. Answer: C Rationale: Acute asthmatic attack is characterized by severe bronchospasm which can be relieved by the immediate administration of bronchodilators. Adrenaline or Epinephrine is an adrenergic agent that causes bronchial dilation by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscles. 4. Answer: A Rationale: Swallowing of corrosive substances causes severe irritation and tissue destruction of the mucous membrane of the GI tract. Measures are taken to immediately remove the toxin or reduce its absorption. For corrosive poison ingestion, such as in muriatic acid where burn or perforation of the mucosa may occur, gastric emptying procedure is immediately instituted, This includes gastric lavage and the administration of activated charcoal to absorb the poison. Administering an irritant with the concomitant vomiting to remove the swallowed poison will further cause irritation and damage to the mucosal lining of the digestive tract. Vomiting is only indicated when non-corrosive poison is swallowed. 5. Answer: B Rationale: Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. They go into a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Assisting them with information they need to know, answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move on and be of support to one another. 6. Answer: C Rationale: Perform 5 abdominal thrusts. At this age, the most effective way to clear the airway of food is to perform abdominal thrusts. 7. Answer: D Rationale: Ensure an intake of at least 3000 ml of fluid per day. Gouty arthritis is a metabolic disease marked by urate deposits that cause painful arthritic joints. The patient should be urged to increase his fluid intake to prevent the development of urinary uric acid stones. 8. Answer: A Rationale: The Heimlich maneuver is used to assist a person choking on a foreign object. The pressure from the thrusts lifts the diaphragm, forces air out of the lungs and creates an artificial cough that expels the aspirated material. 9. Answer: C Rationale: The exact and safe location to do cardiac compression is the lower half of the

sternum. Doing it at the lower third of the sternum may cause gastric compression which can lead to a possible aspiration. 10. Answer: B Rationale: Sudden death of a family member creates a state of shock on the family. They go into a stage of denial and anger in their grieving. Assisting them with information they need to know, answering their questions and listening to them will provide the needed support for them to move on and be of support to one another.
1.The nurse is triaging four clients injured in a train derailment. Which client should receive priority treatment? A A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest . asymmetry B A 17-year-old with a fractured arm . C A 4-year-old with facial lacerations . D A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma . 2.Direct pressure to a deep laceration on the clients lower leg has failed to stop the bleeding. The nurses next action should be to: A Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration. . B Elevate the leg above the level of the heart. . C Cover the laceration and apply an ice . compress. D Apply pressure to the femoral artery. . 3.A pediatric client is admitted after ingesting a bottle of vitamins with iron. Emergency care would include treatment with: A Acetylcysteine . B Deferoxamine . C Calcium disodium . acetate D British antilewisite . 4.The nurse is preparing to administer Ringers Lactate to a client with hypovolemic shock. Which intervention is important in helping to stabilize the clients condition?

A Warming the intravenous fluids . B Determining whether the client can take oral . fluids C Checking for the strength of pedal pulses . D Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine . 5.The emergency room staff is practicing for its annual disaster drill. According to disaster triage, which of the following four clients would be cared for last? A A client with a pneumothorax . B A client with 70% TBSA full thickness . burns C A client with fractures of the tibia and . fibula D A client with smoke inhalation injuries . 6.An unresponsive client is admitted to the emergency room with a history of diabetes mellitus. The clients skin is cold and clammy, and the blood pressure reading is 82/56. The first step in emergency treatment of the clients symptoms would be: A Checking the clients blood sugar . B Administering intravenous . dextrose C Intubation and ventilator support . D Administering regular insulin . 7.A client with a history of severe depression has been brought to the emergency room with an overdose of barbiturates. The nurse should pay careful attention to the clients: A Urinary output . B Respirations . C Temperature . D Verbal . responsiveness 8.A client is to receive antivenin following a snake bite. Before administering the antivenin, the nurse should give priority to:

A Administering a local anesthetic . B Checking for an allergic . response C Administering an anxiolytic . D Withholding fluids for 68 hours . 9.The nurse is caring for a client following a radiation accident. The client is determined to have incorporation. The nurse knows that the client will: A Not need any medical treatment for radiation exposure . B Have damage to the bones, kidneys, liver, and thyroid . C Experience only erythema and desquamation . D Not be radioactive because the radiation passes through the . body 10.The emergency staff has undergone intensive training in the care of clients with suspected anthrax. The staff understands that the suggested drug for treating anthrax is: A Ancef (cefazolin . sodium) B Cipro (ciprofloxacin) . C Kantrex (kanamycin) . D Garamycin . (gentamicin) . You are the charge nurse in an emergency department (ED) and must assign two staff members to cover the triage area. Which team is the most appropriate for this assignment? a. An advanced practice nurse and an experienced LPN/LVN b. An experienced LPN/LVN and an inexperienced RN c. An experienced RN and an inexperienced RN d. An experienced RN and a nursing assistant 2. You are working in the triage area of an ED, and four patients approach the triage desk at the same time. List the order in which you will assess these patients. a. An ambulatory, dazed 25-year-old male with a bandaged head wound b. An irritable infant with a fever, petechiae, and nuchal rigidity c. A 35-year-old jogger with a twisted ankle, having pedal pulse and no deformity d. A 50-year-old female with moderate abdominal pain and occasional vomiting _____, _____, _____, _____

3. In conducting a primary survey on a trauma patient, which of the following is considered one of the priority elements of the primary survey? a. Complete set of vital signs b. Palpation and auscultation of the abdomen c. Brief neurologic assessment d. Initiation of pulse oximetry 4. A 56-year-old patient presents in triage with left-sided chest pain, diaphoresis, and dizziness. This patient should be prioritized into which category? a. High urgent b. Urgent c. Non-urgent d. Emergent 5. The physician has ordered cooling measures for a child with fever who is likely to be discharged when the temperature comes down. Which of the following would be appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant? a. Assist the child to remove outer clothing. b. Advise the parent to use acetaminophen instead of aspirin. c. Explain the need for cool fluids. d. Prepare and administer a tepid bath. 6. It is the summer season, and patients with signs and symptoms of heat-related illness present in the ED. Which patient needs attention first? a. An elderly person complains of dizziness and syncope after standing in the sun for several hours to view a parade b. A marathon runner complains of severe leg cramps and nausea. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, pallor, and weakness are observed. c. A previously healthy homemaker reports broken air conditioner for days. Tachypnea, hypotension, fatigue, and profuse diaphoresis are observed. d. A homeless person, poor historian, presents with altered mental status, poor muscle coordination, and hot, dry, ashen skin. Duration of exposure is unknown. 7. You respond to a call for help from the ED waiting room. There is an elderly patient lying on the floor. List the order for the actions that you must perform. a. Perform the chin lift or jaw thrust maneuver. b. Establish unresponsiveness. c. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). d. Call for help and activate the code team. e. Instruct a nursing assistant to get the crash cart. _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ 8. The emergency medical service (EMS) has transported a patient with severe chest pain. As the patient is being transferred to the emergency stretcher, you note unresponsiveness, cessation of breathing, and no palpable pulse. Which task is appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant? a. Chest compressions b. Bag-valve mask ventilation c. Assisting with oral intubation d. Placing the defibrillator pads

9. An anxious 24-year-old college student complains of tingling sensations, palpitations, and chest tightness. Deep, rapid breathing and carpal spasms are noted. What priority nursing action should you take? a. Notify the physician immediately. b. Administer supplemental oxygen. c. Have the student breathe into a paper bag. d. Obtain an order for an anxiolytic medication. 10.An experienced traveling nurse has been assigned to work in the ED; however, this is the nurses first week on the job. Which area of the ED is the most appropriate assignment for the nurse? a. Trauma team b. Triage c. Ambulatory or fats track clinic d. Pediatric medicine team 11. A tearful parent brings a child to the ED for taking an unknown amount of childrens chewable vitamins at an unknown time. The child is currently alert and asymptomatic. What information should be immediately reported to the physician? a. The ingested childrens chewable vitamins contain iron. b. The child has been treated several times for ingestion of toxic substances. c. The child has been treated several times for accidental injuries. d. The child was nauseated and vomited once at home. 12.In caring for a victim of sexual assault, which task is most appropriate for an LPN/LVN? a. Assess immediate emotional state and physical injuries b. Collect hair samples, saliva swabs, and scrapings beneath fingernails. c. Provide emotional support and supportive communication. d. Ensure that the chain of custody is maintained. 13.You are caring for a victim of frostbite to the feet. Place the following interventions in the correct order. a. Apply a loose, sterile, bulky dressing. b. Give pain medication. c. Remove the victim from the cold environment. d. Immerse the feet in warm water 100o F to 105o F (40.6o C to 46.1o C) _____, _____, _____, _____ 14.A patient sustains an amputation of the first and second digits in a chainsaw accident. Which task should be delegated to the LPN/LVN? a. Gently cleanse the amputated digits with Betadine solution. b. Place the amputated digits directly into ice slurry. c. Wrap the amputated digits in sterile gauze moistened with saline. d. Store the amputated digits in a solution of sterile normal saline. 15.A 36-year-old patient with a history of seizures and medication compliance of phenytoin (Dilantin) and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is brought to the ED by the MS personnel for repetitive seizure activity that started 45 minutes prior to arrival. You anticipate that the physician will order which drug for status epilepticus? a. PO phenytoin and carbamazepine b. IV lorazepam (Ativan)

c. IV carbamazepam d. IV magnesium sulfate 16.You are preparing a child for IV conscious sedation prior to repair of a facial laceration. What information should you immediately report to the physician? a. The parent is unsure about the childs tetanus immunization status. b. The child is upset and pulls out the IV. c. The parent declines the IV conscious sedation. d. The parent wants information about the IV conscious sedation. 17.An intoxicated patient presents with slurred speech, mild confusion, and uncooperative behavior. The patient is a poor historian but admits to drinking a few on the weekend. What is the priority nursing action for this patient? a. Obtain an order for a blood alcohol level. b. Contact the family to obtain additional history and baseline information. c. Administer naloxone (Narcan) 2 4 mg as ordered. d. Administer IV fluid support with supplemental thiamine as ordered. 18.When an unexpected death occurs in the ED, which of the following tasks is most appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant? a. Escort the family to a place of privacy. b. Go with the organ donor specialist to talk to the family. c. Assist with postmortem care. d. Assist the family to collect belongings. 19.Following emergency endotracheal intubation, you must verify tube placement and secure the tube. List in order the steps that are required to perform this function? a. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray to document tube placement. b. Secure the tube in place. c. Auscultate the chest during assisted ventilation. d. Confirm that the breath sounds are equal and bilateral. _____, _____, _____, _____ 20.A teenager arrives by private car. He is alert and ambulatory, but this shirt and pants are covered with blood. He and his hysterical friends are yelling and trying to explain that that they were goofing around and he got poked in the abdomen with a stick. Which of the following comments should be given first consideration? a. There was a lot of blood and we used three bandages. b. He pulled the stick out, just now, because it was hurting him. c. The stick was really dirty and covered with mud. d. Hes a diabetic, so he needs attention right away. 21.A prisoner, with a known history of alcohol abuse, has been in police custody for 48 hours. Initially, anxiety, sweating, and tremors were noted. Now, disorientation, hallucination, and hyper-reactivity are observed. The medical diagnosis is delirium tremens. What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Risk for Injury related to seizures b. Risk for Other-Directed Violence related to hallucinations c. Risk for Situational Low Self-esteem related to police custody d. Risk for Nutritional Deficit related to chronic alcohol abuse

22.You are assigned to telephone triage. A patient who was stung by a common honey bee calls for advice, reports pain and localized swelling, but denies any respiratory distress or other systemic signs of anaphylaxis. What is the action that you should direct the caller to perform? a. Call 911. b. Remove the stinger by scraping. c. Apply a cool compress. d. Take an oral antihistamine. 23.In relation to submersion injuries, which task is most appropriate to delegate to an LPN/LVN? a. Talk to a community group about water safety issues. b. Stabilize the cervical spine for an unconscious drowning victim. c. Remove wet clothing and cover the victim with a warm blanket. d. Monitor an asymptomatic near-drowning victim. 24.You are assessing a patient who has sustained a cat bite to the left hand. The cat is up-to-date immunizations. The date of the patients last tetanus shot is unknown. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Risk for Infection related to organisms specific to cat bites b. Impaired Skin Integrity related to puncture wounds c. Ineffective Health Maintenance related to immunization status d. Risk for Impaired Mobility related to potential tendon damage 25.These patients present to the ED complaining of acute abdominal pain. Prioritize them in order of severity. a. A 35-year-old male complaining of severe, intermittent cramps with three episodes of watery diarrhea, 2 hours after eating b. A 11-year-old boy with a low-grade fever, left lower quadrant tenderness, nausea, and anorexia for the past 2 days c. A 40-year-old female with moderate left upper quadrant pain, vomiting small amounts of yellow bile, and worsening symptoms over the past week d. A 56-year-old male with a pulsating abdominal mass and sudden onset of pressure-like pain in the abdomen and flank within the past hour _____, _____, _____, _____ 26.The nursing manager decides to form a committee to address the issue of violence against ED personnel. Which combination of employees is best suited to fulfill this assignment? a. ED physicians and charge nurses b. Experienced RNs and experienced paramedics c. RNs, LPN/LVNs, and nursing assistants d. At least one representative from each group of ED personnel 27.In a multiple-trauma victim, which assessment finding signals the most serious and lifethreatening condition? a. A deviated trachea b. Gross deformity in a lower extremity c. Decreased bowel sounds d. Hematuria 28.A patient in a one-car rollover presents with multiple injuries. Prioritize the interventions that must be initiated for this patient.

a. Secure/start two large-bore IVs with normal saline b. Use the chin lift or jaw thrust method to open the airway. c. Assess for spontaneous respirations d. Give supplemental oxygen per mask. e. Obtain a full set of vital signs. f. Remove patients clothing. g. Insert a Foley catheter if not contraindicated. _____, _____, _____, _____, ____, ____, ____ 29.In the work setting, what is your primary responsibility in preparing for disaster management that includes natural disasters or bioterrorism incidents? a. Knowledge of the agencys emergency response plan b. Awareness of the signs and symptoms for potential agnets of bioterrorism c. Knowledge of how and what to report to the CDC d. Ethical decision-making about exposing self to potentially lethal substances 30.You are giving discharge instructions to a woman who has been treated for contusions and bruises sustained during an episode of domestic violence. What is your priority intervention for this patient? a. Transportation arrangements to a safe house b. Referral to a counselor c. Advise about contacting the police d. Follow-up appointment for injuries

Answers & Rationale

1. ANSWER C Triage requires at least one experienced RN. Pairing an experienced RN with inexperienced RN provides opportunities for mentoring. Advanced practice nurses are qualified to perform triage; however, their services are usually required in other areas of the ED. An LPN/LVN is not qualified to perform the initial patient assessment or decision making. Pairing an experienced RN with a nursing assistant is the second best option, because the assistant can obtain vital signs and assist in transporting. 2. ANSWER B, A, D, C An irritable infant with fever and petechiae should be further assessed for other meningeal signs. The patient with the head wound needs additional history and assessment for intracranial pressure. The patient with moderate abdominal pain is uncomfortable, but not unstable at this point. For the ankle injury, medical evaluation can be delayed 24 48 hours if necessary. 3. ANSWER C A brief neurologic assessment to determine level of consciousness and pupil reaction is part of the primary survey. Vital signs, assessment of the abdomen, and initiation of pulse oximetry are considered part of the secondary survey. 4. ANSWER D Chest pain is considered an emergent priority, which is defined as potentially lifethreatening. Patients with urgent priority need treatment within 2 hours of triage (e.g. kidney stones). Non-urgent conditions can wait for hours or even days. (High urgent is not commonly used; however, in 5-tier triage systems, High urgent patients fall between emergent and urgent in terms of the time lapsing prior to treatment). 5. ANSWER A The nursing assistant can assist with the removal of the outer clothing, which allows the heat to dissipate from the childs skin. Advising and

explaining are teaching functions that are the responsibility of the RN. Tepid baths are not usually performed because of potential for rebound and shivering. 6. ANSWER D The homeless person has symptoms of heat stroke, a medical emergency, which increases risk for brain damage. Elderly patients are at risk for heat syncope and should be educated to rest in cool area and avoid future similar situations. The runner is having heat crams, which can be managed with rest and fluids. The housewife is experiencing heat exhaustion, and management includes fluids (IV or parenteral) and cooling measures. The prognosis for recovery is good. 7. ANSWER B, D, A, C, E Establish unresponsiveness first. (The patient may have fallen and sustained a minor injury.) If the patient is unresponsive, get help and have someone initiate the code. Performing the chin lift or jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway. The nurse is then responsible for starting CPR. CPR should not be interrupted until the patient recovers or it is determined that heroic efforts have been exhausted. A crash cart should be at the site when the code team arrives; however, basic CPR can be effectively performed until the team arrives. 8. ANSWER A Nursing assistants are trained in basic cardiac life support and can perform chest compressions. The use of the bag-valve mask requires practice and usually a respiratory therapist will perform this function. The nurse or the respiratory therapist should provide PRN assistance during intubation. The defibrillator pads are clearly marked; however, placement should be done by the RN or physician because of the potential for skin damage and electrical arcing. 9. ANSWER C The patient is hyperventilating secondary to anxiety, and breathing into a paper bag will allow rebreathing of carbon dioxide. Also, encouraging slow breathing will help. Other treatments such as oxygen and medication may be needed if other causes are identified. 10. ANSWER C The fast track clinic will deal with relatively stable patients. Triage, trauma, and pediatric medicine should be staffed with experienced nurses who know the hospital routines and policies and can rapidly locate equipment. 11. ANSWER A Iron is a toxic substance that can lead to massive hemorrhage, coma, shock, and hepatic failure. Deferoxame is an antidote that can be used for severe cases of iron poisoning. Other information needs additional investigation, but will not change the immediate diagnostic testing or treatment plan. 12. ANSWER C The LPN/LVN is able to listen and provide emotional support for her patients. The other tasks are the responsibility of an RN or, if available, a SANE (sexual assault nurse examiner) who has received training to assess, collect and safeguard evidence, and care for these victims. 13. ANSWER C, B, D, A The victim should be removed from the cold environment first, and then the rewarming process can be initiated. It will be painful, so give pain medication prior to immersing the feet in warmed water. 14. ANSWER C The only correct intervention is C. the digits should be gently cleansed with normal saline, wrapped in sterile gauze moistened with saline, and placed in a plastic bag or container. The container is then placed on ice. 15. ANSWER B IV Lorazepam (Ativan) is the drug of choice for status epilepticus. Tegretol is used in the management of generalized tonic-clonic, absence or mixed type seizures, but it does not come in an IV form. PO (per os) medications are inappropriate for this emergency situation. Magnesium sulfate is given to control seizures in toxemia of pregnancy. 16. ANSWER C Parent refusal is an absolute contraindication; therefore, the physician must be notified. Tetanus status can be addressed later. The RN can

restart the IV and provide information about conscious sedation; if the parent still notsatisfied, the physician can give more information. 17. ANSWER D The patient presents with symptoms of alcohol abuse and there is a risk for Wernickes syndrome, which is caused by a thiamine deficiency. Multiples drug abuse is not uncommon; however, there is nothing in the question that suggests an opiate overdose that requires naloxone. Additional information or the results of the blood alcohol level are part of the total treatment plan but should not delay the immediate treatment. 18. ANSWER C Postmortem care requires some turning, cleaning, lifting, etc., and the nursing assistant is able to assist with these duties. The RN should take responsibility for the other tasks to help the family begin the grieving process. In cases of questionable death, belongings may be retained for evidence, so the chain of custody would have to be maintained. 19. ANSWER C, D, B, A Auscultating and confirming equal bilateral breath sounds should be performed in rapid succession. If the sounds are not equal or if the sounds are heard over the mid-epigastric area, tube placement must be corrected immediately. Securing the tube is appropriate while waiting for the x-ray study. 20. ANSWER B An impaled object may be providing a tamponade effect, and removal can precipitate sudden hemodynamic decompensation. Additional history including a more definitive description of the blood loss, depth of penetration, and medical history should be obtained. Other information, such as the dirt on the stick or history of diabetes, is important in the overall treatment plan, but can be addressed later. 21. ANSWER A The patient demonstrates neurologic hyperactivity and is on the verge of a seizure. Patient safety is the priority. The patient needs chlordiazepoxide (Librium) to decrease neurologic irritability and phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures. Thiamine and haloperidol (Haldol) will also be ordered to address the other problems. The other diagnoses are pertinent but not as immediate. 22. ANSWER B The stinger will continue to release venom into the skin, so prompt removal of the stinger is advised. Cool compresses and antihistamines can follow. The caller should be further advised about symptoms that require 911 assistance. 23. ANSWER D The asymptomatic patient is currently stable but should be observed for delayed pulmonary edema, cerebral edema, or pneumonia. Teaching and care of critical patients is an RN responsibility. Removing clothing can be delegated to a nursing assistant. 24. ANSWER A Cats mouths contain a virulent organism, Pasteurella multocida, that can lead to septic arthritis or bacteremia. There is also a risk for tendon damage due to deep puncture wounds. These wounds are usually not sutured. A tetanus shot can be given before discharge. 25. ANSWER D, B, C, A The patient with a pulsating mass has an abdominal aneurysm that may rupture and he may decompensate suddenly. The 11-year-old boy needs evaluation to rule out appendicitis. The woman needs evaluation for gallbladder problems that appear to be worsening. The 35-year-old man has food poisoning, which is usually self-limiting. 26. ANSWER D At least one representative from each group should be included because all employees are potential targets fro violence in the ED. 27. ANSWER A A deviated trachea is a symptoms of tension pneumothorax. All of the other symptoms need to be addressed, but are of lesser priority. 28. ANSWER C, B, D, A, E, F, G For a multiple trauma victim, many interventions will occur simultaneously as team members assist in the resuscitation. Methods to open the airway such as the chin lift or jaw thrust can be used simultaneously while assessing for spontaneous respirations. However, airway and oxygenation are priority. Starting IVs for fluid resuscitation is part of supporting

circulation. (EMS will usually establish at least one IV in the field.) Nursing assistants can be directed to take vitals and remove clothing. Foley catheter is necessary to closely monitor output. 29. ANSWER A In preparing for disasters, the RN should be aware of the emergency response plan. The plan gives guidance that includes roles of team members, responsibilities, and mechanisms of reporting. Signs and symptoms of many agents will mimic common complaints, such as flu-like symptoms. Discussions with colleagues and supervisors may help the individual nurse to sort through ethical dilemmas related to potential danger to self. 30. ANSWER A Safety is a priority for this patient, and she should not return to a place where violence could reoccur. The other options are important for the long term management of this care. nclex community health nursing questions, nursing board exam sample questions with rationale, nclex questions for community health nursing, community health nursing nclex questions, nursing care plan for generalized weakness, nursing care plan for dizziness, ncp for dizziness and vomiting

Answer Rationales
1.Answer A is correct. Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe. 2.Answer B is correct. If bleeding does not subside with direct pressure, the nurse should elevate the extremity above the level of the heart. Answers A and D are done only if other measures are ineffective, so they are incorrect. Answer C would slow the bleeding but will not stop it, so its incorrect. 3.Answer B is correct. Deferoxamine is the antidote for iron poisoning. Answer A is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, making it wrong. Answers C and D are antidotes for lead poisoning, so they are wrong. 4.Answer A is correct. Warming the intravenous fluid helps to prevent further stress on the vascular system. Thirst is a sign of hypovolemia; however, oral fluids alone will not meet the fluid needs of the client in hypovolemic shock, so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are wrong because they can be used for baseline information but will not help stabilize the client. 5.Answer B is correct. The client with 70% TBSA burns would be classified as an emergent client. In disaster triage, emergent clients, code black, are cared for last because they require the greatest expenditure of resources. Answers A and D are examples of immediate clients and are assigned as code red, so they are wrong. These clients are cared for first because they can survive with limited interventions. Answer C is wrong because it is an example of a delayed client, code yellow. These clients have significant injuries that require medical care. 6.Answer A is correct. The client has symptoms of insulin shock and the first step is to check the clients blood sugar. If indicated, the client should be treated with intravenous dextrose. Answer B is wrong because it is not the first step the nurse should take. Answer C is wrong because it does not apply to the clients symptoms. Answer D is wrong because it would be used for diabetic ketoacidosis, not insulin

shock. 7.Answer B is correct. Barbiturate overdose results in central nervous system depression, which leads to respiratory failure. Answers A and C are important to the clients overall condition but are not specific to the question, so they are incorrect. The use of barbiturates results in slow, slurred speech, so answer D is expected, and therefore incorrect. 8.Answer B is correct. The nurse should perform the skin or eye test before administering antivenin. Answers A and D are unnecessary and therefore incorrect. Answer C would help calm the client but is not a priority before giving the antivenin, making it incorrect. 9.Answer B is correct. The client with incorporation radiation injuries requires immediate medical treatment. Most of the damage occurs to the bones, kidneys, liver, and thyroid. Answers A, C, and D refer to external irradiation, so they are wrong. 10.Answer B is correct. Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.