Pricing Theory of Financial Derivatives
Pricing Theory of Financial Derivatives
Pricing Theory of Financial Derivatives
One-period securities model S denotes the price process {S (t) : t = 0, 1}, where S (t) = (S1 (t) S2(t) SM (t)). Here, M is the number of securities. At t = 1, there are K possible state of the world. S1 (1; 1) S (1; ) 2 S (1; ) = 1
Vt = h0S0 (t) +
m=1
hmSm(t),
t = 0, 1.
= h0 +
m=1
hm S m (t),
t = 0, 1.
Arbitrary opportunity An arbitrary opportunity is some trading strategy H that has the properties: (i) V0 = 0, (ii) V1( ) 0 and EV1( ) > 0, (iii) H is self-nancing.
A probability measure Q on is a risk neutral probability measure if it satises (i) Q( ) > 0 for all ,
] = 0, m = 1, , M , where E denotes the expectation under Q. (ii) EQ[Sm Q ] = 0, we have From EQ[Sm (0) = Sm K k=1 (1; ). Q(k )Sm k
The current discounted security price is given by the expectation of the discounted security payo one period later.
No arbitrage theorem No arbitrage opportunities exist if and only if there exists a risk neutral probability measure Q. Numerical example S (0) = (4 2) and
S (1; ) = 3 2 .
4 3 2 4
4 = 4Q(1) + 3Q(2) + 2Q(3) 2 = 3Q(1) + 2Q(2) + 4Q(3) 1 = Q(1) + Q(2) + Q(3). We obtain Q(1) = Q(2) = 2/3 and Q(3) = 1/3, so Q does not ex = 4h + 2h = ist. Can we nd a trading strategy (h1 h2)T such that V0 1 2 ( ) > 0, k = 1, 2, 3 (with at least one strict inequality)? 0 but V1 k Yes, suppose we take h1 = 2 and h2 = 4, we then have
( ) = 4, V ( ) = 2 and V ( ) = 12. V1 1 2 3 1 1
3), then
3 = 4Q(1) + 3Q(2) + 2Q(3) 3 = 3Q(1) + 2Q(2) + 4Q(3) 1 = Q(1) + Q(2) + Q(3). We obtain Q(1) = Q(2) = Q(3) = 1/3. This implies the existence of a risk measure Q, and there will be no arbitrage opportunity.
The region above the two bold lines represents arbitrage trading strategies. The trading strategies that lies on the dotted line: 4h1 + 2h2 = 0, h1 < 0 are dominant trading strategies.
The proof of the no arbitrage theorem requires the Separating Hyperplane Theorem. If A and B are two non-empty disjoint convex sets in a vector space V , then they can be separated by a hyperplane.
A contingent claim is a random variable X that represents the time T payo from a seller to a buyer.
A contingent claim is said to be marketable or attainable if there exists a self-nancing trading such that VT ( ) = X ( ) for all . Risk neutral valuation principle The time t value of a marketable contingent claim X is equal to Vt , the time t value of the portfolio which replicates X . Vt = Vt /Bt = EQ[X/BT |Ft ], for all risk neutral probability measure Q. t = 0, 1, , T
If prices of derivative securities can be modelled as martingales, this implies that no market participant can consistently make (or lose) money by trading in derivatives.
Martingales pricing theory A risk neutral probability measure (martingale measure) is a probability measure Q such that 1. Q( ) > 0 for all ; and
is a martingale under Q, n = 1, , , N . 2. the discounted price process Sn EQ[Sn (t + s)|Ft ] = Sn (t),
t and s 0.
Theorems 1. There are no arbitrage opportunities if and only if there exists a martingale measure Q. 2. If Q is a martingale measure and H is a self nancing trading strategy, then V , the discounted value process corresponding to H, is a martingale under Q.
Completeness theorem If the market is complete, that is, all contingent claims can be replicated, then equivalent martingale measures are unique. Fundamental theorem of asset pricing In an arbitrage free complete market, there exists a unique equivalent martingale measure. Risk neutral pricing formula In an arbitrage free complete market, arbitrage prices of contingent claims are their discounted expected values under the risk neutral (equivalent martingale) measure.
Market price of risk V V 2 2 2V + S + S V V = 0 2 t 2 S S where V is the expected rate of return of V . We may write formally the stochastic process of V as dV = V dt + V dZ. V Since the option and the stock are hedgeable, they share the same market price of risk r V r = V from which we can deduce V V 2 2 2V + rS + S rV = 0. 2 t 2 V S
Riskless hedging principle Consider the writer of a derivative whose underlying asset has the following price process dS = dt + dZ. S Let V (S, t) denote the price of the derivative. Black-Scholes (1973) derived the governing equation for V (S, t) by following the dynamic hedging principle. Form the portfolio that contains units of the underlying asset and shorts one unit of the derivative = V + S. By Itos lemma: V V 2 2 2V d = dt + dS. dt + dS + S 2 t S 2 S
The riskfree portfolio should earns the riskfree interest rate, otherwise there is arbitrage opportunity. We then have d = rdt V 2 2 2V + S t 2 S 2 dt = r V + V S S dt,
and obtain the Black-Scholes equation V V 2 2 2V rV = 0. + rS + S t S 2 S 2 Note that the expected rate of return does not appear in the equation. Risk neutral valuation V (S, t) = er(T t) E [V0 (ST )]. The option price is the discounted expectation of the terminal payo under the risk neutral measure.
European call price formula Terminal payo: c(S, T ) = max(S X, 0), where X is the strike price c(S, t) = SN (d1) Xer(T t) N (d2), where d1 =
S + ln X
2 r+ 2
The formula dictates that a call option can be replicated by holding = N (d1) units of asset and shorting cash amount Xer(T t) N (d2). The hedge ratio changes with respect to time and asset value. The replication requires the dynamic hedging procedure. The writer charges the cost of constructing the replicating portfolio.
T t
(T t)
and d2 =
S + ln X
T t
2 r 2
(T t)