Cetking SNAP 2009 Actual Paper With Solution
Cetking SNAP 2009 Actual Paper With Solution
Cetking SNAP 2009 Actual Paper With Solution
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SNAP
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1. Answer OMR Sheet is contained inside the Test Booklet. Make sure that the Answer OMR Sheet is not damaged in any way. 2. Use only a blue/black ball point pen to darken circles on Answer OMR Sheet. 3. Write your SNAP-Id and darken appropriate circles in the Answer OMR Sheet. 4. The sequence of the sections differs in each Booklet series. However as mentioned in SNAP 2009 Bulletin, the Sections remain the same. Sections General English Quantitative & Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario Analytical & Logical Reasoning Total Total Marks 40 40 40 60 180 No. of Questions 40 40 40 30 150
5. In the Answer OMR Sheet, darken the circles against the question numbers indicating your answers. For example, if your answer is 2 for a question, then darken as follows: 1 2 3 4 Darken only one circle. If you darken more than one circle against any question, you will score zero mark. Use only a blue/black ball point pen for filling the OMR sheet. Do not use pencil. 6. For every wrong answer, you will score 25% negative marks. 7. Do not attempt to copy nor allow or help others in copying. Any malpractice will invalidate your candidature. 8. Return this Test Booklet and Answer OMR Sheet to the Invigilator before you leave the hall. Answer Sheet is valid only if it is returned with the Test Booklet. 9. Do not leave the hall at any point of time without handing over your Test Booklet and Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. 10. You may take the question paper back with you. 11. Once you go out of the hall, re-entry is not permitted. Best of Luck! SNAP 2009 SET L
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3. A five digit number is formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetitions. What is the probability that the number is divisible by 4? (1) 1/5 (2) 5/6 (3) 4/5 (4) None of these
4. If the algebraic sum of deviations of 20 observations measured from 23 is 70, mean of these observations would be (1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) None of these
5. An alloy of gold and silver weighs 50 gms. It contains 80% gold. How much gold should be added to the alloy so that percentage of gold is increased to 90? (1) 50 gms (2) 60 gms (3) 30 gms (4) 40 gms
6. Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 7 : 3 and their weekly expenses are in the ratio of 5 : 2. If each of them saves Rs. 300 per week, then the weekly income of the first person is (1) Rs. 7500 (2) Rs. 4500 (3) Rs. 6300 (4) Rs. 5400
7. Wheat is now being sold at Rs. 27 per kg. During last month its cost was Rs. 24 per kg. Find by how much per cent a family reduces its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed. (1) 10.2% (2) 12.1% (3) 12.3% (4) 11.1%
8. There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets that are required by the authorities is (1) 92 (2) 90 (3) 91 (4) None of these
9. The radius of circle is so increased that its circumference increased by 5%. The area of the circle then increases by (1) 12.5% (2) 10.25% (3) 10.5% (4) 11.25%
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10. In how many ways can the letters of the word ABACUS be rearranged such that the vowels always appear together? (1) 6!/2! (2) 3!*3! (3) (3!*3!)/2! (4) (4!*3!)/2!
11. In 4 years, Rs. 6000 amounts to Rs. 8000. In what time at the same rate will Rs. 525 amount to Rs. 700? (1) 2 years (2) 3 years (3) 4 years (4) 5 years
Directions for Question Nos. 12 - 14: At the start of a game of cards, J and B together had four times as much money as T, while T and B together had three times as much as J. At the end of the evening, J and B together had three times as much money as T, while T and B together had twice as much as J. B lost Rs. 200 12. What fraction of the total money did T have at the beginning of the game? (1) 1/3 (2) 1/8 (3) 2/9 (4) 1/5
13. What fraction of the total money did J win/lose? (1) Won 1/12 (2) Lost 1/6 (3) Lost 1/3 (4) Won 1/5
14. What amount did B start with? (1) Rs. 575 (2) Rs. 375 (3) Rs. 825 (4) Rs. 275
15. If a and b are negative, and c is positive, which of the following statement/s is/are true? I) a-b < a-c II) if a < b, then a/c < b/c III) a/b < a/c
(1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) II and III only 16. The diagonal of a square is 4 2 cm. The diagonal of another square whose area is double that of the first square is (1) 8 cm (2) 82 cm (3) 42 cm (4) 16 cm
17. The maximum length of a pencil that can be kept in a rectangular box of dimensions 8 cm 6 cm 2 cm, is (1) 213 cm (2) 214 cm (3) 226 cm (4) 102 cm
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Directions for Question Nos. 18 to 19: based on the information given below The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated readership of 3 daily newspapers (X, Y & Z) in a city. The total readership and advertising cost for each of these papers is as below Newspapers Readership (lakhs) Advertising cost (Rs. per sq. cm) X 8.7 6000 Y 9.1 6500 Z 5.6 5000 The total population of the city is estimated to be 14 million. The common readership (in lakhs) is indicated in the given Venn diagram
18. The number of people (in lakhs) who read at least one newspaper is (1) 4.7 (2) 11.9 (3) 17.4 (4) 23.4
19. The number of people (in lakhs) who read only one newspaper is (1) 4.7 (2) 11.9 (3) 17.4 (4) 23.4
20. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs What is Sonalis monthly income? (1) Rs. 42,500 (2) Rs. 38,800 (3) Rs. 40,000 (4) Rs. 35,500
21. How many kgs. of tea worth Rs. 25 per kg must be blended with 30 kgs. Of tea worth Rs. 30 per kgs so that by selling the blended variety at Rs. 30 kgs there should be a gain of 10%? (1) 36 kgs (2) 40 kgs (3) 32 kgs (4) 42 kgs
22. In an examination, out of 80 students 85% of the girls and 70% of the boys passed. How many boys appeared in the examination if total pass percentage was 75%? (1) 370 (2) 340 (3) 320 (4) 360
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23. 300 gms of salt solution has 40% salt in it. How much salt should be added to make it 50% in the solution? (1) 40 kgs (2) 60 kgs (3) 70 kgs (4) 80 kgs
24. What number should replace the question mark in the image below? 6 48 (1) 18 12 96 ? 192 (2) 20 (3) 22 (4) 24
25. What image from bottom row should replace the question mark? + C T
T +
T T 1 (1) 4
26. A five-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using numerical 0, 1,2,3,4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways this can be done is: (1) 122 (2) 210 (3) 216 (4) 217
27. A contract is to be completed in 50 days and 105 men were set to work, each working 8 hours a day. After 25 days, 2/5th of the work is finished. How many additional men be employed so that the work may be completed on time, each man now working 9 hours a day? (1) 34 (2) 36 (3) 35 (4) 37
28. A can built up a structure in 8 days and B can break it in 3 days. A has worked for 4 days and then B joined to work with A for another 2 days only. In how many days will A alone built up the remaining part of the structure? (1) 10 days (2) 9 days (3) 12 days (4) None of these
29. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of the third and the fourth terms is 48. If the terms of the geometric progression are alternately positive and negative, then the first term is (1) -2 (2) -4 (3) -12 (4) 8
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30. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.80. Then which one of the following gives possible values of a and b? (1) a = 0, b = 7 (2) a = 5, b = 2 (3) a = 3, b = 4 (4) a = 2, b = 4
31. An agent sells goods of value of Rs. 15,000. The commission which he receives at the ratio of 12 % is (1) Rs. 1875 (2) Rs. 2125 (3) Rs. 2000 (4) Rs. 2700
32. 110.25 0.01 0.00025 420.25 equal to (1) 0.75 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.64 (4) 0.73
Directions for Question Nos. 33 35: The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage. Age Classical Pop Rock Jazz Blues Hip Hop Ambient 15 - 20 6 7 6 1 2 9 2 33 21 - 30 4 5 12 4 3 3 2 33 31+ 17 5 14 11 15 4 2 68
33. What percentage of respondents under 31 indicated that Blues is their favourite style of music? (1) 7.1 (2) 7.6 (3) 8.3 (4) 14.1
34. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated a favourite style other than Rock music? (1) 64% (2) 60% (3) 75% (4) 36%
35. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is their favourite style of music? (1) 6% (2) 8% (3) 22% (4) 12%
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Directions for Question Nos. 36 40: The pie charts below show the percentage of students in each faculty at North West University and the number of non-US students in the Arts faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in Arts faculty. Use this information to answer the following questions.
Engineering 9% Science 21% Business 14% Computing 22% Australian 4 African 2 Asian 6 European 21
Arts 23%
Medicine 5% Law 6%
South American 79
Students by Faculty 36. What percentage of students in the Arts faculty are non-US students? (1) 14% (2) 9% (3) 30% (4) 11%
37. How many students are there in the Engineering faculty? (1) 420 (2) 410 (3) 390 (4) 440
38. How many students are there at the University? (1) 4650 (2) 4560 (3) 4640 (4) 4450
39. If six percent of Science students are Asian. How many Asian students are studying Science? (1) 48 (2) 66 (3) 120% (4) 57%
40. There are 34 European medical students. What percentage of the faculty does this represent? (1) 14% (2) 18% (3) 16% (4) 15%
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42. Although most of the fastest growing jobs in todays economy will require a college degree many of the new jobs being created from home health aide to desktop publisher require knowledge other than gained from earning a degree. For workers in those jobs, good basic skills in reading, communication, and mathematics play a important role in getting a job and developing a career. From the information given above it can be validly concluded that in todays economy (1) skills in reading, communication and mathematics play an important role in developing a career as a desktop publisher. (2) the majority of the new jobs being created require knowledge other than that gained from earning a college degree (3) a job as a home health aide will rely more on communication skills than on a basic skills in reading and mathematics (4) if a job is one of the fastest growing jobs, it will require a college degree. 43. According to the National Agricultural Aviation Society (NAAS), without the use of crop protection products to control insects, weeds, and diseases, crop yields per acre will drop by more than 50 percent. The first aerial application of insecticide occurred in and it was a huge success By contrast in todays economy all aircraft that are classified as aerial applicators do more than just apply insecticide; today, they also spread sees and apply fertilizer. From the information given above it CANNOT be validly concluded that (1) according to the NAAS, if crop yields per acre never drop by more than 50 parcent, then crop protection products have been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases. (2) in todays economy any aircraft that cannot be used to apply fertilizer cannot be classified as an aerial applicator (3) in todays economy if an aerial applicator is used then it will be able to spread seed and to apply fertilizer (4) according to NAAS, if crop yields per acre drop by more than 50 percent, then crop protection products have not been used to control insects, weeds, and diseases. 44. Lou observes that if flight 409 is cancelled, then the manager could not possibly arrive in time for the meeting. But the flight was not cancelled. Therefore, Lou concludes, the manager will certainly be on time. Evelyn replies that even if Lous premises true his argument is fallacious And therefore she adds the manages will not arrive on time after all. SNAP 2009 SET L
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Which of the following is the strongest thing that we can properly say about this discussion? (1) (2) (3) (4) Evelyn is mistaken in thinking Lous argument to be fallacious and so her own conclusion is unwarranted Evelyn is right about Lous argument but nevertheless her own conclusion is unwarranted Since Evelyn is right about Lous argument her own conclusion is well supported Since Evelyn is mistaken about Lous argument her own conclusion must be false
45. Cars are safer than planes. Fifty percent of plane accidents result in death, while only one percent of car accidents result in death. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above? (1) (2) (3) (4) Planers are inspected more often than cars. The number of car accidents is several hundred thousand times higher than the number of plane accidents. Pilots never fly under the influence of alcohol, while car drivers often do. Plane accidents are usually the fault of air traffic controllers, not pilots.
Directions for Question Nos. 46 - 48 Refer to the chart below showing annual production and answer the questions that follow. Element (% Production) 1 - 10% 2 - 10% A Industry Primary User (% used) P - 15% Q - 15% R - 15% 3 - 10%
4 - 25% B
S - 15% T - 5%
Total - 100%
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46. Which industry /industries contribute /contributes to company S? (1) Industry A and B only (3) A and C only (2) B and C only (4) Smallest plant
47. Industry B processes what percentage of the total production of listed elements? (1) 25% (3) 40% (2) 65% (4) Cannot be determined
48. Of the listed elements processed by the Industry A, how many tons are produced annually? (1) 30,000 (3) 1,00,000 (2) 50,000 (4) 55,000
Directions for Question Nos. 49 52: In each of the following questions there are two blanks marked I & II. The words to fill in these blanks are given against I as (A,B,C,D) and II as (P,Q,R,S) RESPECTIVELY. The right words to fill in these blanks are given as four alternatives. The words on either side of the sign (: :) have a similar relationship. That alternative which signifies this relationship is your answer. 49. I : Increase : : Descend : II I. (A) Grow II. (P) Reduce (1) AR 50. Modern : I : : II : Old I. (A) Ancient II. (P) Industrialisation (1) AQ 51. Part : I : : Class : II I. (A) Section II. (P) Student (1) AR 52. Summit : Apex : I : II I. (A) beautiful II. (P) Comfortable (1) AQ (B) Picture (Q) Pretty (2) BP (C) Attractive (R) Healthy (3) DS (D) Enhancing (S) Brave (4) CR (B) Whole (Q) School (2) BQ (C) School (R) Teachers (3) CP (D) Students (S) Room (4) DS (B) Death (Q) Young (2) AS (C) Famous (R) Fashion (3) BP (D) Civilization (S) Western (4) CR (B) Ascend (Q) Down (2) RB (C) Rise (R) Decrease (3) CP (D) Price (S) Mountain (4) DQ
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53. If in a certain code beautiful is coded as 573041208, BUTTER as 504479, How is FUTURE coded in that code? (1) 201497 (3) 704092 (2) 204097 (4) 204079
54. How many Mondays are there in particular month of a particular year if the month ends on Wednesday? (1) 4 (3) 3 (2) 5 (4) Cannot be specified
Directions for Question Nos. 55 56: There are two rows of numbers in each question. The upper row is complete and in the lower one number is missing. Find a suitable number to fill the blank space so that the symmetry with the upper row is maintained. 55.
17 102 12 15 ? 10
(1) 211 (3) 125 56. (2) 75 (4) 117
12 336 14 15 ? 16
(1) 220 (3) 125 (2) 480 (4) 450
Directions for Question Nos. 57 - 58 Seven People A, B, C, D, E, F, G are planning to enjoy boating. There are only two boats, and the following conditions are to be kept in mind. (I) A will go in the same boat in which E is to go. (II) F cannot go in the same boat in which C is, unless D is also accompanying. (III) Neither B nor C can be given the boat in which G is. (IV) The maximum number of persons in one boat can be four only. 57. If F and B are in one boat, which of the following statements is true? (1) G is in the other boat (3) C is in the other boat (2) D is in the other boat (4) E is with F and B in one boat
58. If E gets the boat with F, which of the following is the complete and accurate list of the people who must be sitting in one boat? (1) F and E (3) D and A (2) G and A (4) C,D and B
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Directions for Question Nos. 59 - 60 A series of figures has been shown on the left. Find the figure in the place of ? from the figures on the right. 59.
60.
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61. Complete the following series. (GMSY, IOVA, KQWC, ?) (1) MSYE (2) NSYE (3) MYTE (4) MSYF
Directions for Question Nos. 62 65: Following is a new plan called Airtel One introduced by Airtel GSM service Provider for its post-paid customers. Pulse Rate Price of Plan Free Airtime on Plan Incoming Calls (Rs.) Outgoing Calls (Rs./minute) 60 Secs Rs. 99 Nil Free Airtel LOCAL RATES STD RATES 50-200 KM 200-500 KM 500+ KM ISD USA, Canada, Europe(Fixed Line) Gulf, Europe(Mobile)SAARC Rest of the world SMS Local National International Value Added Service(Rs.) Rs. 1 Rs. 1.50 Rs. 1.50 Rs. 1.50 Rs. 7 Rs. 10 Rs. 40 Rs. 1.50 Rs. 2.00 Rs. 5.00 Rs. 3.00 and Rs. 6.00 Depending on the service GSM/CDMA (10 Digit) Rs. 1 Rs. 1.50 Rs. 2.50 Rs. 3.00 Landline/WLL Rs. 2 Rs. 2 Rs. 2.50 Rs. 3.50
Monthly bill = Call charges + SMS charges + Price of Plan 62. If Mohan made STD calls (within 100 kms) for 30 min and spent 100 min on local calls with 30% on landline. 40% in GSM and 30% on Airtel, and Rohan spent 18 min on STD within 150 Kms and spent 120 min on local calls with 30%, 40% and 30% on GSM, landline and Airtel respectively, then who spent more? (1) Mohan (3) Both spent the same amount. (2) Rohan (4) Cannot be determined.
63. A new SMS scheme was introduced @60p/local SMS, with an additional monthly charge of Rs.35. Who will not benefit from the scheme? A Person sending (1) 38 local SMS a month (3) 60 local SMS a month (2) 40 local SMS a month (4) 59 local SMS a month
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64. A bill of Rs 199/Month is definitely not possible when you make only (1) 30 calls to Airtel on STD (500+Kms) and 55 local calls in a month (2) 16 calls to Airtel on STD (15 Kms and 76 local calls in a month) (3) 10 STD calls (250 Kms) each to Airtel, GSM and landline respectively and 30 calls in a month (4) 8, 4 and 7 calls to Airtel GSM and landline respectively on STD (500+Kms) and 55 local calls in a month 65. A person makes 12 minutes of ISD calls in a month. If 80% of his ISD bill from calling the rest of the world, then the ISD calls for the minimum duration were made to which of the following group of countries? (1) USA, Canada, Europe (Fixed Line) (2) Gulf, Europe (Mobile), SAARC (3) Rest of the world (4) Cannot be determined. Directions for Question Nos. 66 67: These questions are based on the graph which shows the demand and production statistics of 5 T.V. companies 3500
3000 3300 2700 2200 1800 1500 1200 1000 600
3000
2500
Demand Production
66. What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of the five companies taken together? (1) 1400 (2) 400 (3) 280 (4) 138
67. The production of the company D is how many times of the production of the company A? (1) 1.8 (2) 1.5 (3) 2.5 (4) 1.11
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Directions for Question Nos. 68 69: The following questions are based on the pie-chart given below which gives the expenditure incurred in printing a magazine:
Editorial content development 30% 68. What is the angle for the sector representing paper cost? (1) 10 degrees (2) 36 degrees (3) 23.5 degrees (4) 45 degrees
69. For a given issue of the magazine, the 2% of the cost is Rs. 2,000 and the print-run is 12,500 copies. What should be the sale price if the publisher desires a profit of 5 percent? (1) Rs.5 (2) Rs.7.5 (3) Rs.8 (4) Rs.8.40
70. )f water is called food food is called tree tree is called sky sky is called wall on which of the foll owing does a fruit grow (1) Water (2) Food (3) Tree (4) Sky
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73. Choose the correct option: The man (1) is changing (2) changed
74. From the options below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling: (1) Diarrhea (2) Diaper (3) Dichotomy (4) Dias
75. Choose the word spelt correctly : (1) superintendant (2) sieve (3) allotted (4) dissipate
Direction for Question Nos. 76 79 Fill in the blanks with the correct pair of words : 76. He lives (1) at (2) in (3) at (4) in Bangaluru in at on on 115, Richmond Road.
77. Aurally challenged is a for the (1) metaphor (2) euphemism (3) simile (4) synonym 78. If error is a blind deaf disable dump , fault is . (2) mistake a defect (3) slip - an inaccuracy (4) blunder to
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Direction for Question Nos. 80 81 Which punctuation mark is missing in the following sentences ? (1) (2) (3) (4) inverted commas semicolon comma hypen
80. Part of Australia is known to the natives as The Outback. 81. I know that you want to learn to drive Rima but you are too young. Direction for Question Nos. 82 83 Select as option the word closest in meaning to the given word: 82. Veracious (1) False 83. Perturb (1) Stipulate (2) Turn around (3) Disturb greatly (4) Compatible (2) Varied (3) Image (4) Truthful
Direction for Question Nos. 82 83 Choose the option that is the closest in meaning to the phrases in bold : 84. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand. (1) sympathetically (2) oppressively (3) democratically (4) generously
85. I racked my brains to solve this difficult problem. (1) I read a large number of books. (2) I consulted several people. (3) I used my commonsense. (4) I subjected my mind to hard thinking. Direction for Question Nos. 86 87 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiomatic phrase : 86. I was supposed to give a speech to my English class, but I got cold feet and ) didnt go (1) My English class-room makes my feet feel too cold. My feet got cold so ) didnt go ) got too nervous and ) didnt go (4) It was winter time and I had no snacks for my feet. 87. Take care of what u say! You will have to eat your words! (1) You have no food to eat.
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(2) You will have to take back what you have said. (3) You are not good with your language. (4) None of the above. 88. Which two sentences convey the same idea? 1) 2) 3) 4) Shouldnt they have checked your tickets I wonder if they should have checked your tickets. I want to know if they checked your tickets. They should have checked your tickets. (2) 1, 2 (3) 1, 4 (4) 2, 4
(1) 2, 3
Direction for Question Nos. 89 90 Choose a single word which is opposed to the meaning contained in the sentence. 89. He was magnanimous and his benevolence made him give to charity. (1) mean 90. Biannual is (1) once in two years (3) twice a year 91. Choose the odd one out : (1) temporal (2) ephemeral (3) transient (4) eternal (2) every year (4) after every two years (2) cruel (3) snobbish (4) tyrannical
92. Choose the correct option : )f inter means between as in interstate intra as in intravenous means (1) into (2) onto (3) within
(4) without
93. Match the part of speech (in bold) to their usage(down) 1. 2. 3. 4. Adjective Preposition Noun Verb 5. The fire engine came rushing down the hill. 6. He has seen the ups and downs of life. 7. Down with the tyrant! 8. The porter was hit by the down train.
(1) 1-8, 2-5, 3-6, 4-7 (2) 1-6, 2-5, 3-8, 4-7 (3) 1-5, 2-6, 3-7, 4-8 (4) 1-5, 2-7, 3-6, 4-8
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Direction for Question Nos. 94 Match the items in the column I with those in column II. Choose the correct answer combination given below. 94. 1. 2. 3. 4. I As deaf as As bitter as As unpredictable as As Slippery as a 1-7 2-6 3-8 4-5 b 1-7 3-8 3-8 4-6 II 5. gall 6. an eel 7. a post 8. the weather c 1-8 3-5 3-5 4-7 d 1-5 2-7 3-6 4-8
Direction for Question Nos. 95 Match the part of speech (in bold) to their usage. 95. ABOVE 1. 2. 3. 4. Adjective adverb Noun preposition a 1-8 2-7 3-5 4-6 b 1-7 2-6 3-5 4-8 5. Rain comes from above. 6.His conduct is above suspicious. 7. Look above the mantel piece. 8. The above information is for the public. c 1-8 2-5 3-6 4-7 d 1-6 2-8 3-5 4-7
Direction for Question Nos. 96 - 97 Choose the segment with error )f there is no error choose d 96. Idli and Sambar make the breakfast in the South. a b c d
97. Your account should have been credited withthreemonthsinterest a b c 98. Choose the sentence where the underlined word is used appropriately. a. b. c. d. Whos car are you planning to borrow ? Whose planning to have a birthday party ? He is the person who you met at the junction. Does he know whom to about the hotel reservations?
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Direction for Question Nos. 99 - 100 Choose a if the first sentence is correct b if the second sentence is correct c if both sentences are correct d if both sentences are wrong 99. 1. Can you imagine his forgetting his own birthday? 2. Can you imagine him forgetting his own birthday? a. 100. 1. Recently I read about a unique wedding that took place in the newspaper. 2. Recently I read in the newspaper about a unique wedding that took place. a. b. c. d. b. c. d.
101. Complete the given sentence by choosing the correct phrase. You cannot succeed unless (1) you do not work hard. (2) you shall not work hard. (3) you will work hard. (4) you work hard. 102. Re arrange the scrambled segments in logical order to make a complete sentence. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. to place where more opportunities are available and so there is a great demand for English for professional and economic growth because it takes one outside ones own community English is language of opportunities
(1) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 (2) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 (3) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (4) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 103. Choose the best construction : )f you would have taken care you wouldnt have got typhoid )f you took care you wouldnt have got typhoid )f you take care you wouldnt have got typhoid. )f you had taken care you wouldnt have got typhoid
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Direction for Question Nos. 104 - 105 Choose the correct option. 104. At times,we are all _ _ to be mistaken. (1) apt 105. He hardly cares, (1) does he he (2) likely ? doesnt he (3) will he wont (3) considered (4) able
Direction for Question Nos. 106 - 107 Identify the figures of speech in the following sentences : 106. As proud as a peacock. (1) Metaphor (2) Simile (3) Apostrophe (4) Epigram
107. Death lays his icy hand on kings. (1) Personification (2) Exclamation (3) Simile (4) Anticlimax
Direction for Question Nos. 108 - 110 Read the passage carefully and answer within the context. A way to deal with frozen feelings Every child experiences all that happens around him with total awareness. In the first seven years the child's brain is like a sponge, taking in all sensory inputs and building his idea of his surroundings. As long as the environment is safe, the child learns with incredible speed. However, when the environment is scary or stressful, the child unlearns past learning just as rapidly. In the early years of every child's life, whenever there is shock, violence, fear or pain, these intense emotions are imprinted deeply into memory. Whenever the same activity or situation is repeated, the nervous system and body subconsciously re-experience the memory of that trauma. Any emotional situation that takes us out of the present and into the past means that whenever the same kind of emotion crops up later in our life we return to the past for our reference point. If that point was at age three, we find ourselves behaving like a three-year-old. We feel childish and we behave childishly. Our feelings are the cause of this 'glitch' in our learning process. We know we should be able to make a positive change, but that doesn't change anything. The process of change need not be traumatic. We couldn't have done any better because we didn't know how to. But we should realise that was then and this is now! We can choose to choose again. It's up to us. It's our movie! 108. The Frozen Feelings being talked about are about (1) negative childhood experiences (2) childhood learning patterns (3) inability to learn as an adult (4) none of the above. SNAP 2009 SET L
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109. A glitch is (1) a ditch (2) uneasy emotions (3) sudden malfunction or breakdownn (4) learning patterns 110. Identify the correct sentence, based on the paragraph (1) The process of change needs to be traumatic. (2) We feel childish and we behave childishly. (3) Both sentences are incorrect. (4) Both the sentences are correct.
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113. Which is the longest running English language TV cartoon in history, first launched by Warner Brothers in 1969 exclusively for television, and is now popular fare on the Cartoon Network? (1) Scooby Doo (2) Tom and Jerry (3) Popeye (4) Johnny Bravo
114. The expansion for BIFR, in the context of the Indian Industry is: (1) (2) (3) (4) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction Bureau for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction Board for Investment and Financial Reconstruction Bureau for Investment and Financial Reconstruction
115. What is Ekistics? (1) The water sports related study (3) The art of card tricks 116. What is Red Herring in an IPO? (1) Prospectus (3) Funds Generated during IPO (2) Submission of Form (4) Minimum Offer per Share (2) The science of Body Mass (4) The science of human settlements
117. Eight Oclock Coffee a US based coffee marketer is a group company of (1) Tata (2) ITC (3) Britannia (4) Unilever
118. Bio-diesel is extracted from the following plant: (1) Hibiscus (2) Aloe Vera (3) Jatropha (4) Chamomile
119. Which woman tennis player won the maximum number of Grand Slam singles titles in the history of tennis? (1) Steffi Graf (3) Billi Jean King (2) Martina Navratilova (4) Margaret Court
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120. What is the nickname of New York city? (1) Big Sweet Lime (2) Big Apple (3) Big Grape (4) None of the above
121. Which was the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ? (1) TCS (2) Wipro (3) Infosys (4) Cognizant
122. TAREGNA a village in Bihar was in the news because of Rahul Gandhis election campaign (3) A visit by Hillary Clinton 123. The driver for Formula Ones Force )ndia Team is (1) Mark Webber (2) Adrian Sutil (3) Felipe Massa (4) Jensen Button (2) Viewing of the solar eclipse (4) The Naxal massacre of tribals
124. (MDRT) Million Dollar Round Table consists of Worlds richest industrialists Worlds most powerful golfers (3) Global Association of Life Insurance professionals Worlds richest sports persons 125. Who declares the Credit Policy of )ndia (1) The Finance Ministry (3) The Commerce Ministry (2) Reserve Bank of India The )ndian Banks Association
126. Name of the body which regulates the stock Exchanges in India is (1) CBI (2) CID (3) SHCIL (4) SEBI
127. Rafflesia arnoldii is its botanical name and it holds a world record in the plant world Whats the record (1) Tallest cacti (3) Longest surviving tree (2) Largest bloom (4) Smallest plant
128. Temujin was a famous historical character of the world, but we know him by a different name. Which one? (1) Babur (2) Genghis Khan (3) Kublai Khan (4) Empereor Nero
129. What is Short Selling in stock market lingo? (1) Selling the shares which you do not own. (2) Selling a share after owning it for a short period of time. (3) Selling all the shares in your booty which are not productive. (4) Selling of shares which are quoted for a short period of time.
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130. Mahatma Gandhi was nominated for Nobel Peace prize for the first time in the year 1937 and last time in the year 1948. How many times in between these two years was he nominated? (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 0
131. Which organization instituted the Nobel Prize in Economics? (1) Svenska Handelsbanken (2) International Monetary Fund (3) Economics Department of Oxford University (4) Sveriges Riksbank 132. Film stars have been endorsing Lux beauty soap since ages. Who was the first actress of Bollywood to do so? (1) Madhubala (2) Leela Naidu (3) Suraiya (4) Leela Chitnis
133. )ndias interstate cricket tournament is named after Kumar Shri Ranjitsinghji Vibhaji Jadeja or in short Ranji, the great cricket legend. He played his cricket in England and also played for English national team. Which county he used play for in the league cricket of England? (1) Sussex (2) Essex (3) Somerset (4) Surrey
134. As a practice, all major states capitals have offices of Reserve Bank of India with only one exception. Which city of India has an office of RBI without being a state capital? (1) Pune (2) Allahabad (3) Baroda (4) Nagpur
135. This distinguished Indian was born on 28th December 1937 in Surat. He has completed the Advanced Management Program at Harvard Business School, USA. He turned down a job offer from IBM to join his family business and today he is one the top business leaders of India. Name the tycoon. (1) Ratan Tata (2) Anil Ambani (3) Azim Premji (4) Anand Mahindra
136. )ts known to be used in Egypt in BC but its name had been derived from old French expression )t is made from the fermentation of ethanol in a process that yields its key ingredient, ethanoic acid. What is it? (1) Tobasco Sauce (2) Phenol (3) Vinegar (4) Soya Sauce
137. The name of this Japanese company literally means three diamonds Which one (1) Sanyo (2) Mutsuhito (3) Mitsubishi (4) Suzuki
138. Who were the first twins to ply test cricket? (1) Merv and Kim Hughes (3) Surinder and Mohinder Amarnath (2) Ian and Greg Chappel (4) Steve and Mark Waugh
139. Which country has the largest rail network in the world? (1) India SNAP 2009 SET L (2) China (3) U.S.A (4) U.K.
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140. Who won the 2009 French open tennis ladies title? (1) Svetlana Kuznetsova (3) Maria Sharapova 141. Who invented the microchip? (1) Robert Noyce and Jack Kilby (3) Saber Bhatia 142. Which is the largest landlocked country in the world? (1) Switzerland (2) China (3) Kazakhstan (4) Mongolia (2) Larry Page and Sergey Brin (4) Gordon Moore & Robert Noyce (2) Kristina Mladenovic (4) Venus Williams
143. Which country makes Panama hats? (1) Ecuador (2) Panama (3) Cuba (4) Bolivia
144. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 42 nd Amendment Bill bringing in the changes in the Constitution was passed? (1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) V.P. Singh (3) Indira Gandhi (4) Morarji Desai
145. Which one of the following planets lost its planet status recently? (1) Moon (2) Neptune (3) Pluto (4) Saturn
146. One barrel of oil is approximately equivalent to how many litres? (1) 200 (2) 150 (3) 120 (4) 160
147. Five year plans in India are finally approved by the : (1) Union Cabinet (3) National Development Council (2) President on the advice of prime minister (4) Planning commission
148. Many a time we read in the newspapers about Southern Cone of South America which includes Argentina, Chile, Paraguay, Uruguay and Peru. Which is the most spoken language of this geographical area? (1) Portuguese (2) Spanish (3) French (4) English
149. Which one of the following is not a member of the organization of petroleum exporting countries (OPEC)? (1) Algeria (2) Brazil (3) Ecuador (4) Nigeria
150. Who invented computer laptop (1) Arthur Wynna - USA (3) Sinclair - Britain (2) Q. Daimler - Germany (4) None of the above
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A B A B D B B A D C C A B A D D C A B D D
Ans. D D C D D B B B D A C D C B D C B C A C D C A B A B D D B B D B D B A
106 107 108 109 110 Section4 Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
B A A C B
Ans. A D A D A A C D B C B B C B D B B A B D D A D A C C D C A A C A C C D D B B D