SSABSA

SENIOR SECONDARY ASSESSMENT BOARD OF SOUTH AUSTRALIA

BIOLOGY
2001 ASSESSMENT REPORT

Science Learning Area

SOUTH AUSTRALIAN CERTIFICATE OF EDUCATION

BIOLOGY 2001 ASSESSMENT REPORT

The mean score for the 2001 examination was 54.2%, which compares with previous means of 53.7% (2000), 59.6% (1999), 54.1% (1998), 57.0% (1997), and 58.2% (1996). The mean mark or higher was obtained by 49.5% of the candidates and the range of examination marks was from 6 to 196 out of 200. The mean marks for Sections A, B, C, and D were 55.8% (Section A), 52.6% (Section B), 70.9% (Section C), and 46.1% (Section D). The trend was similar to that of the 2000 examination: candidates performed very well in the practical question (Section C), but poorly in the extended-response questions (Section D).

SECTION A: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Twenty-three candidates scored full marks in Section A. The facility for a question is the percentage of candidates who gave the correct response. The mean facility for the multiple-choice questions was 56.1%. The mean facility and range of facilities for each of the last 5 years are shown in the table below: Year Mean Facility (%) 56.1 57.9 58.7 68.3 56.8 Range (%) 32 to 83 24 to 95 33 to 88 23 to 90 19 to 87

2001 2000 1999 1998 1997

Most questions are intentionally discriminating so that, ideally, the poorer candidates are likely to choose each of the four responses with equal frequency, whereas the more capable candidates will show a distinct preference for the correct response. It was pleasing that the top 30% of candidates chose the correct response for every question in Section A. The bottom 10% of students chose the correct answers to Questions 2, 9, 12, 15, 20, and 24. COMMENTS ON SELECTED MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Question 3 The poorer candidates preferred response K, indicating a lack of understanding about the relationship between cell membrane receptors and hormones. Question 6 Although most candidates knew that genetically identical daughter cells are produced by binary fission, the finer details of the process of binary fission seemed to be less well known. Question 10 The high percentage of candidates who incorrectly chose response M either did not know that sister chromatids are separated in mitosis or misunderstood the term mass.

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

Question 11 In choosing responses K or L, candidates probably knew that enzymes are not consumed in a chemical reaction. Candidates who incorrectly chose response K apparently did not know that the concentration of ATP in the test-tube would decrease as the reaction proceeded, in order to provide energy for the synthesis of the polysaccharide. Question 17 It is of concern that nearly one-quarter of the candidates thought that reflex responses do not involve nerves. Question 18 The large percentage of candidates who incorrectly chose response J apparently either forgot that sister chromatids are genetically identical, or simply failed to read the complete response. Question 19 The large number of candidates who incorrectly chose response L seemed to be unaware that exchange of materials occurs at capillaries. Question 21 The bottom 50% of candidates chose response J, whereas the top 50% chose M. Response J describes an early part of a mechanism that could lead to speciation, but provides no direct evidence that speciation has occurred. Response M indicates a difference between the gene pools of the two shrimp populations and, although this by itself is not evidence of speciation, it suggests that the mechanism of speciation could be in progress. Multiple-choice Analysis The table below indicates the correct response to each of the questions in Section A and the percentage of responses to each alternative in each question: Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 Correct Answer K K J M J L M J J L L L L M M K K M K M M K K L K Percentage of Responses to Each Alternative J K L M 6 66 12 16 9 83 1 7 58 24 5 12 12 18 26 44 64 8 19 9 7 31 45 17 13 16 17 54 46 17 20 17 71 8 13 8 12 12 37 39 8 39 40 13 8 12 72 9 15 16 47 23 8 15 24 53 8 3 8 81 19 53 11 17 17 51 9 23 44 6 19 32 18 39 28 15 7 8 8 77 42 3 7 48 20 44 29 7 11 65 18 6 10 2 75 12 16 57 10 17

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

SECTION B: SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS In general in this section 2 marks are allocated for one well-expressed piece of information. Questions that require an explanation are worth 4 marks and therefore, in order to obtain full marks, candidates must supply two relevant and connected pieces of information. Questions that require candidates to state the name of a term in the curriculum statement often have a communication mark associated with them. A candidate who gives a correct answer but misspells a term from the curriculum statement is penalised by the loss of 1 mark. The mean marks for the questions in Section B are shown in the table below: Question 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 Total Question 26 (a) Most candidates correctly identified transcription as the process. Incorrect answers included protein synthesis or translation, or were related to DNA replication. (b) Molecule 1 was identified as mRNA by most candidates. Many candidates correctly identified molecule 2 as a polypeptide. A very common incorrect response was tRNA. (c) Most candidates gave a correct response. Many candidates did not sufficiently link the tRNA to protein synthesis; they discussed codons and anticodons, or translation, without elaborating on their answer. Question 27 (a) Many candidates correctly discussed binding in terms of receptors and complementary shapes. However, they discussed only binding to disease-causing cells, and did not explain why binding to the bodys own cells does not occur. Candidates who gave incorrect responses often discussed binding by repeating information given in the question (without referring to the importance of molecular shape), or discussed why it is beneficial to destroy disease-causing cells and not the bodys own cells. Many suggested that it is the bodys cells that recognise the T-cells. A common error was to refer to the active site. (b) Many candidates gave satisfactory responses to this part. Marks were commonly lost by candidates who gave two similar reasons. Question 28 (a) Most candidates correctly identified Q as an active site. (b) To obtain full marks candidates were required to position the substrates correctly and to show a modification in the shape of the active site. Candidates frequently lost marks for failing to show any change in the shape of the enzyme molecule, and following the given outline exactly. A number of candidates showed only one substrate molecule attached to the enzyme. Mean Mark / Maximum Mark 4.11/6 4.60/8 4.85/8 1.00/4 2.19/4 3.10/6 2.09/6 4.52/10 3.62/6 5.19/12 3.12/4 1.03/4 3.41/6 2.96/4 2.97/6 3.79/6 52.55/100 Mean Mark (%) 68.55 57.47 60.61 25.01 54.75 51.64 34.86 45.25 60.34 43.28 78.12 25.72 56.86 73.90 49.58 63.17 52.55

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

(c) Many candidates repeated or rephrased information given in the question. Other candidates gave responses such as the enzyme catalyses the reaction or the enzyme acts as a catalyst, without further explaining how the activation energy was lowered. The careless expression used by many candidates resulted in incorrect statements (e.g. weakens bonds between substrates). Question 29 This question had the lowest mean in the paper. Responses tended to be either very good or very bad, and a significant number of candidates did not attempt an answer. Most candidates were unable to identify the single-stranded segment of DNA as a probe. Those candidates who discussed the need to bind the single strand of DNA to the DNA of the test subject usually scored well. The need to heat the DNA of the test subject to separate the strands and to expose the bases on separated strands was mentioned by only a small percentage of candidates. Restriction enzymes and electrophoresis were often mentioned, with little apparent relevance. Some candidates who did not understand the concept said that if the protein were present it would bind to the DNA. Question 30 (a) Most responses to this part were satisfactory. Some candidates seemed to regard lux gene as too simple an answer and responded in more complex terms. (b) Responses to this part of the question were generally poor. Many candidates misread the question and gave responses consistent with inserting the gene into a grown tree. If in doubt, they suggested that the shooting caused mutation, or that there was a problem because of the difference in kingdom (i.e. plant and animal), or that fish lived in the sea and the trees lived on the earth. Responses included: the lux gene only works under water, the fish DNA will be killed by the antibodies of the tree, the DNA/genes will die, and some of the genes may not grow into trees. A common response was to discuss rejection of either the donated gene or the donated nucleus. These candidates clearly did not understand the universal nature of DNA. Question 31 (a) Most responses to this part were correct. A common error was to reverse the appropriate names of structures W and X. Some candidates had no idea and identified W as a guard cell, vacuole, or mitochondrion, and X as spindle fibres or mitochondria. (b) Responses to this part varied widely in quality. Most candidates recognised that the permeability of the membrane would be affected. Some candidates then explained that the cell would be unable to maintain a stable internal environment. Several of these went on to discuss the entry of T-cells or white blood cells to kill the bacteria. Other candidates discussed how the tube would inhibit the movement of materials into the cell. Some candidates misread the question and discussed the movement of either the bacteria or the antibiotic through the tube. Question 32 (a) Responses to this part varied in quality. Common responses included aspects of controlling the reaction, often to prevent spontaneous combustion. The responses of a number of candidates were of the cart before the horse type, stating that, because many enzymes are involved, the reaction must occur in many stages. (b) Responses to this part were generally poor. Relatively few candidates described how aerobic respiration releases energy or that energy is needed to synthesise ATP. A number of candidates did not clearly distinguish two reactions and gave the impression, directly or by implication, that ATP is a product of respiration. Many thought that oxygen is the energy source. There was much evidence of rote learning, combined with very little understanding. A significant number of candidates made no reference to energy. Question 33 (a) A number of candidates seemed unfamiliar with the definition of a tissue. Many seemed to derive their definitions to fit the characteristics of muscle cells.

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

(b) Most responses correctly identified the nervous system. The most common incorrect response was the muscular system. (c) (i) This part of the question reinforces the need for candidates to know the chemical formulae in the curriculum statement. The large proportion of candidates who did not attempt this question suggests that more attention needs to be paid to chemical formulae. Many candidates gave formulae for ethanol production. Others included somewhat fanciful chemical formulae. Some otherwise correct answers were marred by the inclusion of ATP in the equation. (ii) Responses to this part varied widely in quality. The most successful students discussed fermentation in connection with capillaries or mitochondrial numbers. Those students who chose glycogen levels often gave incomplete or simplistic responses (e.g. glycogen is the raw material for fermentation). Many candidates chose more than one piece of evidence from the table, and this may have reduced their ability to score full marks. A few candidates ignored the information in the table and invented their own evidence, for which they scored zero. Question 34 (a) Most candidates correctly identified A as a lacteal or lymph capillary. The most common incorrect responses were villus or capillary. (b) Although many candidates successfully linked a single layer of cells to a decreased distance for diffusion, a number (as in part (c)) repeated information given in the question, with little or no elaboration. Some candidates gave more general responses, describing the surface as thin, moist, and with a large surface area. (c) This part was generally done very well. Most candidates linked the microvilli to increased surface area. The poorer candidates frequently repeated given information, or occasionally introduced some fanciful mechanism for the microvilli to gather materials for absorption. Question 35 (a) Most candidates showed understanding of how the data are presented in tabular form, with appropriate column headings and correct units. (b) Most candidates recognised that species B had a higher rate of photosynthesis at lower light intensities than species A. (c) Only the more able candidates deduced and reasoned that plants living in the shade receive less energy from the sun and hence make less glucose. As a result of their lower energy input, these plants carry out respiration at a lower rate. Many candidates stated incorrectly that light is necessary for respiration. (d) This part of the question required candidates to read the graph and deduce that, because it shows a negative value for the uptake of carbon dioxide, carbon dioxide is being given out. They then had to realise that under these conditions the rate of respiration would exceed that of photosynthesis. Only the very able candidates conveyed an understanding that the rate of respiration is a continuous process and that the rate of photosynthesis is dependent on the light intensity. Question 36 Some very well-expressed answers suggested that most candidates had engaged with the human awareness strand of the curriculum statement. Question 37 This question was done very poorly. Most candidates were unable to relate the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis to the context of the question. (a) Those candidates who understood that, when mitosis occurs, chromosomes replicate and then the sister chromatids separate, were unable to express their understanding clearly in their answer. (b) The more able candidates stated that for meiosis to occur the first step is the pairing of homologous chromosomes. The horse and the donkey do not have homologous chromosomes, and so the cellular process of meiosis does not proceed.

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

Question 38 (a) This part of the question gave candidates the opportunity to compare a balanced ecosystem in New Guinea with a disrupted ecosystem on Guam. Candidates who were unable to use the discourse of the subject correctly were penalised. Most candidates gained some credit by explaining either how the presence or absence of predators may affect Boiga irregularis or how the birds may or may not have adaptations to reduce predation by the snake. (b) The outcome that biodiversity is essential for the perpetuation of communities was generally understood well but once again many answers lacked clarity of expression. The better answers generally included a specific example of the effect of reduced biodiversity, such as reduced food-supply for the next trophic level. Question 39 (a) Most answers were accurate and were given to an appropriate degree of precision, (e.g. 1450 1900 m). (b) This part was answered well. Very few candidates gave biotic factors. Question 40 This question on natural selection was answered better than similar questions in previous examinations. (a) Most candidates explained the process correctly and only a few attributed the change in population number to the conscious will of the blowflies. (b) Very few candidates realised that a different selection agent was now causing population change. In the new dieldrin-free environment the dieldrin-resistant blowflies were less viable than the non-dieldrin-resistant blowflies. Question 41 (a) This part of the question was answered well. Most candidates correctly used the information about living mass or depth to conclude that X were producers. (b) Most candidates knew about the vital role of decomposers in recycling matter but a few incorrectly stated that decomposers are involved in recycling energy. (c) Some candidates were unable to relate the larger living mass of decomposers to their role in recycling matter from all trophic levels in the community.

SECTION C: PRACTICAL QUESTION This section had the highest mean of the examination, reinforcing the suggestion in last years assessment report that candidates generally were familiar with experimental skills. Also consistent with the 2000 examination, the performance of candidates in this section was often significantly different from their performance in the other sections of the paper. Most candidates stated a hypothesis that was testable and linked the independent variable with the dependent variable. Very few candidates confused the independent variable with the dependent variable, and most candidates were able to state a quantity that must be kept constant. Part (d), however, was answered poorly. Very few candidates showed an understanding that random errors are involved whenever measurements are made. Many candidates proposed that an error in procedure would lead to a random error; this answer was not given any credit. This year the drawing of a single graph was awarded 6 marks rather than the usual 4 marks. This allowed better discrimination among answers. Most candidates drew a graph for which they correctly placed the independent and dependent variables, labelled the axes with units, chose a scale that was even and used most of the grid, and accurately and precisely plotted the data points. The most common error was failing to draw a curve of best fit, as is required when random errors are suspected.

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

When describing the pattern of the results in response to part (f), most candidates included a statement about the fluctuations in the graph but many neither referred to specific data points nor expressed a realisation that wavelength affected the production of oxygen. Most responses to part (g) ignored the application of the data from the experiment to the growing of indoor plants. Instead many candidates simply repeated the general statements made in part (f). SECTION D: EXTENDED-RESPONSE QUESTIONS Section D had the lowest mean of any section in the examination. This was also the case in the 2000 examination. The marking of extended-response questions was discussed in detail in the 2000 assessment report and in articles in the SASTA journal. The Advertiser study guide for science also contained advice for both teachers and students about answering extended-response questions. The changes made to the marking of Section D since 2000 mean that, in order to get full marks for an extended-response question, candidates must fully address all parts of the question. This was not necessarily the case before 2000. Candidates should be able to answer an extended-response question fully in about 1 page of writing. It is unnecessary for candidates to rewrite the question or to provide an introduction to their response. Both of these practices waste time, receive no credit, and may even result in a reduction in the communication mark. Each extended-response question is marked out of 15; 12 marks are allocated for content (each well-made point is worth 2 marks) and 3 marks for communication. The dot-point format used in this examination to identify the content parts of each question received favourable comment and is likely to be used in future. Both questions in this examination had three content parts, each of which was marked out of 4. In awarding a communication mark the following factors are taken into account:

Is the response at least half a page long, and structured in the form of sentences and paragraphs? Does the response contain correct grammar and spelling? Does the response clearly explain concepts, using relevant and concise biological language?

Many candidates structured their answers appropriately, some used correct grammar and spelling, but only a small percentage clearly explained concepts, using relevant and concise biological language. Question 43 had a mean of 50.4% and Question 44 had a mean of 41.7%. Question 43 In explaining how changes in nucleotide sequences can occur, candidates were given credit for discussing mutations and the crossing over of homologous chromosomes during meiosis. This part was generally answered well although common mistakes included the idea that independent assortment and random fertilisation cause mutations. The second part of the question was done poorly. Marks were awarded for answers explaining that a change in a DNA triplet would result in a different mRNA codon, and consequently a different anticodon and possibly a different amino acid. Many candidates provided good descriptions of protein synthesis but did not relate the information to the effect of a change in nucleotide sequences. In the final part of the question only the better candidates attempted to connect speciation with the idea that proteins determine characteristics of organisms. A common error was to neglect to mention isolation as a factor in the process of speciation. Unfortunately some candidates still insist that human beings evolved from monkeys, and others describe adaptations as conscious changes that an individual organism makes in order to survive. Question 44 As was the case in 2000, the second extended-response question was based on the human awareness strand of the curriculum statement. Not surprisingly, the performance of many candidates in this question was quite different from their performance in Question 43. The low mean for this question

Biology 2001 Assessment Report

suggests that the regulation of cell division and the techniques of cell culture were not well understood by many candidates. Many candidates either did not attempt to describe the regulation of cell division or provided irrelevant descriptions of the phases of mitosis. This part of the question gave candidates the opportunity to describe how gene products regulate the cell cycle, the role of growth factors and mitosis-promoting factors (MPF), and the effect of physical factors, such as density and anchorage, on cell division. Many candidates incorrectly referred to mitosis-promoting factors as anything that initiates cell division. In describing a method of culturing cells, candidates could receive credit for discussing factors such as a nutrient growth medium, sterile techniques, suitable temperature and pH, and the provision of suitable hormones. Unfortunately, many gave detailed descriptions of polymerase chain reactions (PCR), genetic engineering, or some other irrelevant process. Teachers may need to differentiate more clearly between the processes of cell culture and DNA manipulation in future. Most candidates were able at least to state one or two examples of the use of cell cultures. Examples included: medical research (e.g. cancer cells); culturing genetically engineered bacterial cells to produce insulin; testing cosmetics and drugs on human cells; culturing bacterial or yeast cells for food production and plant propagation.

Chief Examiner Biology

Note Please note that the statistics for Questions 43 and 44 show numbers of scores, not numbers of candidates, and reflect the double-marking process.