CompTIA JK0-017

CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam

Q1
Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select Three).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
Q2
A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q3
A project manager is informed that material expenditures will increase. Which of the following documents
should be referenced to address this increase?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Cost management plan
C. Approved project charter
D. Project scope document
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q4
The project charter is an output of which of the following project phases?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q5

All of the following are considered part of the risk management plan EXCEPT the risk:
A. register.
B. matrix.
C. assessment.
D. baseline.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q6
Which of the following is true of fast tracking a schedule?
A. Project schedule critical path will change.
B. Project activities will be performed concurrently.
C. Project schedule is shortened by decreasing the project scope.
D. Project schedule lead times are increased.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q7
A project team member is uncertain how many activities are required to complete a task. Which of the
following documents should be referenced?
A. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
B. Project charter
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q8
Which of the following is the BEST communication option for team building?
A. Send an email transmission to introduce the project.
B. Send a completed project charter to introduce the project.
C. Leave a voicemail message to introduce the project.
D. Schedule a face-to-face meeting to introduce the project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q9
Which of the following is created using the work breakdown structure (WBS) as an input?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Vendor selection criteria
C. Project scope statement
D. Project charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q10

A cause and effect diagram can also be called:

A. a control chart.
B. a scatter diagram.
C. an Ishikawa diagram.
D. a Pareto Chart.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q11
In order to obtain the best pricing and product quality, a project manager should:
A. obtain an RFP from one vendor who can provide the products.
B. obtain an RFP from the vendor who provides the lowest priced products.
C. obtain responses from different vendors to compare the products.
D. use past vendors who have provided all project deliverables.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q12
A project manager has decided to increase the number of resources working on critical path activities.
This is an example of:
A. rolling wave planning.
B. resource leveling.
C. fast tracking.
D. crashing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q13
Which of the following may have a significant adverse impact upon the successful completion of an
international project? (Select Three).
A. Time zones
B. Travel costs
C. Co-location of resources
D. The project plan
E. Scheduled vacations
F. Language barriers
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
Q14
A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Q15
Which of the following are created using information contained in the work breakdown structure (WBS)?
(Select Two).
A. Project scope statement
B. Project statement of work
C. Project charter
D. Project activity estimates
E. Project resource estimates
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Q16
Which of the following steps should a project manager take to ensure the quality of project deliverables
for a customer? (Select Two).
A. The project manager should consult the project sponsor and customer to review the current quality
requirements.
B. The project manager should request a peer review of the project to determine if it meets the customers
quality standards.
C. The project manager should change the scope of the project to meet the customers expectations of
quality standards.
D. The project manager should check the finished product to determine if it meets the customers quality
standards.
E. The project manager should outsource to obtain the best resources for the project.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Q17
A product has been sent to an outside vendor for testing. During their testing it was determined that the
product is not meeting the quality standards. The project manager scheduled a meeting to review their
findings. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality analysis
D. Quality planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q18
The project manager crashes a project that is behind schedule and under-budget. Which of the following
will be the intended result?
A. The project will be behind schedule and over-budget.
B. The project will be on schedule but over-budget.
C. The project will be on schedule and on-budget.
D. The project will be behind schedule and on-budget.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q19
Which of the following methods would a project manager use to estimate the construction cost of a 2,000
square foot home when given the cost per square foot?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Top-down estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q20
A project manager is performing activity sequencing using the arrow diagramming method (ADM).
Which of the following is true of ADM?
A. ADM can only represent finish to start dependencies.
B. ADM cannot represent multiple successor activities.
C. ADM can only represent activities that are on the critical path.
D. ADM uses boxes representing activities, and arrows to represent dependencies.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q21
Which of the following represents the appropriate order of an effective change management process?
A. Identify change, perform impact analysis, approve or deny change, update applicable project plan
components, document change.
B. Identify change, document change, perform impact analysis, approve or deny change, update
applicable project plan components.
C. Identify change, document change, perform impact analysis, update applicable project plan
components, approve or deny change.
D. Identify change, document change, approve or deny change, perform impact analysis, update
applicable project plan components.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q22
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques is used to get people to face their conflicts directly
and work through the issues?
A. Confronting
B. Forcing
C. Compromising
D. Smoothing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q23
In which of the following organization types would a project manager have the MOST authority?

A. Projectized
B. Balanced Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q24
Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select Two).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q25
Which of the following cost estimating techniques uses previous, similar projects as a basis of estimating
costs for the current project?
A. Top-down estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Analogous estimating
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q26
Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select Two).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q27
Which of the following is a use for a Pareto diagram?
A. In procurement management to evaluate vendor proposals.
B. In cost management to determine actual versus expected project costs.
C. In quality management to identify and prioritize problem areas.
D. In risk management to assess potential project risk occurrences.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q28

Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q29
Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along with
ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q30
Which of the following risk response strategies involves the use of insurance, performance bonds, or
warranties?
A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk transfer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q31
During which of the following process groups is the preliminary project risk assessment performed?
A. Monitoring/Controlling
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Executing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q32
During which of the following process groups is the availability of required resources for the project
determined?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring/Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q33
Which of the following describes the point in time when resources can be assigned to scheduled tasks?
A. When the project statement of work (SOW) has been created
B. When the project deliverables have been defined
C. When the work breakdown structure (WBS) is decomposed into work packages
D. When the project WBS dictionary has been created
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q34
In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing demands
for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q35
Which of the following elements does a project charter contain?
A. A project scope statement
B. A change management template
C. A completed request for proposal (RFP)
D. A complete list of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q36
A project can be defined as which of the following?
A. A high level cost estimate
B. An ongoing work assignment
C. A temporary endeavor with unlimited time or cost for completion
D. A temporary endeavor limited by time or cost
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q37
Which of the following elements would be needed to prepare an effective project scope document?
A. An approved project milestone schedule
B. An approved risk assessment document
C. An approved project charter
D. A responsibility assignment matrix
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q38
Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select Two).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q39
Given the circumstances below, which of the following would be the BEST action for the project manager
to take?
1. One of the key stakeholders disagrees with the project.
2. Two of the key staff members refuse to work with each other.
3. The budget for the project has been reduced.
4. The scope of the project has changed.
A. The staff members who refuse to work together should be terminated so that the project can proceed
on schedule.
B. The project should be closed because the scope has changed.
C. The project manager should work with the stakeholders to resolve the areas of disagreement.
D. The project manager should fast track the schedule because the project budget was reduced.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q40
Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q41
Several managers are sharing a project team member, which is impacting the progress of both projects.
Which of the following BEST describes the situation?
A. Varying work styles
B. Schedule variance
C. Scope creep
D. Competing resource demands

Answer: D
Explanation:
Q42
Which of the following occurs during a project kick-off meeting? (Select Two).
A. Work performance information is established.
B. Risk analysis is performed.
C. Quality metrics are defined.
D. Project goals are communicated.
E. Roles and responsibilities of the project team are identified.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Q43
A project manager has failed to obtain the necessary permits from the local building commission. The
project has been stopped because of a failure to understand the importance of:
A. internal process compliance.
B. risk avoidance.
C. standards compliance.
D. audit trail compliance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q44
A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q45
Key resources on a project are being shared. The stakeholders are aware of the shared resources and do
not expect this to impact the progress of the project. In which of the following should the shared resource
be documented?
A. Quality management metrics
B. Work Breakdown Schedule (WBS)
C. Scope statement
D. Risk register
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q46
Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?

A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q47
A customer requests that the products quality be reduced to control its cost. Which of the following
actions should the project manager take FIRST?
A. Modify the project schedule.
B. Obtain approval for the change.
C. Reduce the amount of project resources to control costs.
D. Modify the project budget.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q48
Which of the following components are included in a communication plan? (Select Two).
A. Statement of Work (SOW)
B. Risk matrix
C. Frequency
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Distribution list
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Q49
Which of the following documents is used when soliciting vendors?
A. Request for Proposal (RFP)
B. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q50
Which of the following components is included in a transition plan?
A. Ownership
B. Quality metrics
C. Project budget
D. Quality baseline
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q51

All of the following occur during the project closure phase EXCEPT:
A. ensure the project is aligned with organizational goals.
B. ensure document retention compliance is being performed.
C. release project team resources.
D. close contracts and pay vendors.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q52
Which of the following actions would require a formal project closure? (Select Two).
A. The project is delayed indefinitely because a required vendor part cannot be delivered.
B. The project is producing a product that is no longer compliant with new Federal regulations.
C. The project work is completed.
D. The project has run out of money.
E. The project sponsor has become disinterested in the project.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q53
The lessons-learned activity and formal acceptance documentation form part of which of the following
process groups?
A. Closing
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring/Controlling
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q54
The purpose of a WBS dictionary is to provide:
A. additional details for each component of the WBS, and for each component provide a brief definition of
its statement of work, outputs, actual activities and pertinent milestones.
B. a detailed glossary of terms used in the WBS.
C. written authorization to sanction work on a particular work-package within the WBS, and define the
methods for its implementation and the monitoring of its performance.
D. a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be undertaken to address the objectives and meet the
requirements of the project at the lowest level.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q55
Which of the following would measure a project's validity?
A. Risk analysis
B. Strategic alignment
C. Resource allocation
D. Gantt chart

Answer: B
Explanation:
Q56
The project team is recognized for contribution efforts and is officially released from the project during
which of the following stages?
A. Formal acceptance
B. Administrative closure
C. Lessons learned
D. Transition plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q57
A project manager has a project with staff in four different countries. When generating the resource
management plan, which of the following should be considered FIRST?
A. Reviewing holiday and vacation schedule with all team members.
B. Getting the email address of all the employees.
C. Locating each employee on the map in the office.
D. Understanding the international country code of all the team members.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q58
Which of the following quality option costs BEST identifies the expense of inspecting deliverables to
prevent flawed products from reaching the customer?
A. Actual costs
B. Failure costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. Contract costs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q59
A project manager receives formal leadership authority from which of the following documents?
A. Resource matrix
B. Project charter
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q60
Which of the following would be goals of an effective kick-off meeting? (Select Two).
A. To create the project charter
B. To create the statement of work (SOW)
C. To outline the communication plan

D. To set team member expectations

E. To determine the critical path of the project
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q61
Which of the following techniques can a project manager use to assist with quality planning? (Select
Three).
A. Peer review
B. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
C. Inspection
D. Performance Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
E. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
F. Benchmarking
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
Q62
All of the following are part of the monitoring and controlling process group EXCEPT:
A. updating the project charter.
B. updating the project management plan.
C. implementing change requests.
D. updating the project scope.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q63
After identifying the activities in a work package, which of the following is the NEXT step that a project
manager should complete?
A. Estimate costs
B. Identify activities
C. Build a project schedule
D. Assign key stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q64
In which of the following organization types would a project manager have the LEAST amount of project
authority?
A. Functional
B. Strong Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Weak Matrix
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q65

A project manager was asked to complete a project three weeks early and not crash the project.
Which of the following should be done?
A. Move some of the task to another release.
B. Have the team work over time and give them time off later to save the budget.
C. Continue to work and complete the project as soon as possible.
D. Review the plan with the team and develop a way to reduce the time
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q66
The work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary contains which of the following elements? (Select Three).
A. Identification of stakeholders
B. Description of work processes and procedures
C. Quality control processes
D. Estimated calendar time of activities
E. Required resources
F. Risk response strategies
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Q67
One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST
response to this situation?
A. Ask other team members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q68
A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system. Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
A. Conduct a feasibility study.
B. Determine the justification of the project.
C. Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee.
D. Determine if the project is in alignment with the companys strategic plan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q69
A project manager is performing activity duration estimation. This project will have conditional decisions.
Which of the following tools would be the BEST to use?
A. GERT
B. Gantt chart
C. PERT

D. EVM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q70
A project manager is reviewing the ownership, date, and the necessary training for a deliverable. Which
of the following documents would include this information?
A. Transition plan
B. Quality plan
C. Change Control plan
D. Procurement plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q71
Which of the following tools would be used to determine the relationship between two changed variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q72
Which of the following is included in the project charter?
A. A work performance report
B. A cost assessment
C. A high level plan
D. A risk assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q73
Refer to the attached Exhibit. Which of the following is the float of path Start-C-E-Finish in the network
diagram?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Three
D. Five
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q74
After final acceptance, which of the following would the project manager use to assess the strengths and
weaknesses of the project?
A. Post-project review

B. Transition plan
C. Project kick-off meeting
D. Quality analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q75
Which of the following is used to display a project schedule?
A. Gantt chart
B. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Pareto chart
D. Ishikawa diagram
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q76
The project manager crashes a project that is behind schedule and under-budget. Which of the following
will be the intended result?
A. The project will be behind schedule and over-budget.
B. The project will be on schedule but over-budget.
C. The project will be on schedule and on-budget.
D. The project will be behind schedule and on-budget.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q77
Several managers are sharing a project team member, which is impacting the progress of both projects.
Which of the following BEST describes the situation?
A. Varying work styles
B. Schedule variance
C. Scope creep
D. Competing resource demands
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q78
A project manager is reviewing the ownership, date, and the necessary training for a deliverable. Which
of the following documents would include this information?
A. Transition plan
B. Quality plan
C. Change Control plan
D. Procurement plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q79
Which of the following shows a project that is presently over its financial budget?

A. CPI = 1.4
B. CPI = 0
C. CV = +$11,000
D. CPI = 0.8
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q80
A major change has been approved by the change control board and it now needs to be scheduled for
implementation. Which of the following is the BEST method of implementing the change?
A. Distribute details of the change per the communication plan, and implement according to the change
control process.
B. Ask the change control board to schedule the change, and when scheduled, identify the individual
team member responsible for implementing it.
C. Email the project team, identifying the team member responsible for implementing the change, and
then schedule it with the appropriate team members.
D. Identify the team member responsible for implementing the change and direct the team member to
inform the rest of the project team of the date and time of implementation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q81
Refer to the attached Exhibit. Which of the following is the float of path Start-C-E-Finish in the network
diagram?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Three
D. Five
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q82
Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q83
Two members of a team have had difficulty working together in the past. Which of the following should
the project manager do to facilitate communication between the team members?
A. Discuss the problem at the next project meeting and have the team members find a solution.
B. Evaluate both members and replace the least important member.
C. Speak with both team members and address concerns.
D. Dismiss both team members and replace them with new members.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Q84
Which of the following is included in the project scope document? (Select Two).
A. Quality metrics
B. Work packages
C. Assumptions
D. Constraints
E. Resource requirements
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q85
Which of the following is a benefit of the work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. It will provide a detailed budget for the stakeholders.
B. Items not included in the project objectives can be added to the WBS for flexibility.
C. It will ensure that scope creep will not occur.
D. Contains all activities required to complete the project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q86
Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project warranty
C. Project process reports
D. Earned value calculations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q87
Which of the following occurs during a project kick-off meeting?
A. Project plan approval
B. Analyze project risks
C. Identification of the stakeholders
D. Project charter review
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q88
A project manager is conducting a root cause analysis with the project team. Which of the following tools
should be utilized?
A. Gantt chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Network diagram

D. Run chart
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q89
The project has been terminated. Which of the following should be conducted with the project team
before they are released?
A. Case study
B. Feasibility analysis
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Post-mortem analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q90
A project manager conducted a risk probability and impact assessment with the project team. In which of
the following risk management processes did this occur?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q91
Which of the following contract types places the LEAST amount of risk on the seller?
A. Fixed-Price
B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
C. Cost-Plus-Fee (CPF)
D. Time and material
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q92
A SPI of 1.1 means that the project is:
A. under-budget.
B. behind schedule.
C. ahead of schedule.
D. over-budget.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q93
A project manager should formally close out a project when:
A. key project team members are needed to work on other projects.
B. a key stakeholder is satisfied with the project deliverables.

C. the CPI is 1.5 at the midpoint of the project.

D. the project has been terminated unexpectedly.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q94
During the planning phase of the project, a subject matter expert (SME) estimates that one of the tasks
identified for the project will take 120 hours to complete. Which of the following actions should the project
manager take to make sure the work is scheduled correctly?
A. Advise the SME that the work must be completed in less than 120 hours.
B. Consult with others on the team to determine their estimates for the work.
C. Further decompose the work of the task to no more than 80 hours.
D. Increase the estimate to ensure work is completed on time.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q95
Which of the following BEST describes the definition of a project?
A. Work undertaken to deliver a unique product or service
B. Major work initiatives requested by an Executive Sponsor
C. A yearly list of strategic goals for a company
D. Work that can be decomposed to the task level
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q96
To ensure that project status meetings are effective and productive, the project manager should:
A. invite only team members who have an immediate task on the project.
B. publish an agenda prior to the meeting.
C. invite all stakeholders and the sponsor to every meeting.
D. hold only one meeting per week.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q97
Given the following information: Pessimistic estimate is 30 days Most Likely estimate is 15 days
Optimistic estimate is 10 days Which of the following is the expected duration for this scheduled activity?
A. 11 days
B. 17 days
C. 25 days
D. 29 days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q98
Which of the following defines a project? (Select Two).

A. Limited time span

B. Contains more than one deliverable
C. Delivers a unique product or service
D. Changes an ongoing process
E. Generates positive returns
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q99
Final project acceptance criteria are contained in which of the following?
A. Transition plan
B. Project scope document
C. Project charter
D. Quality plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q100
Project information is received by the project manager in a number of different formats from team
members. Which of the following would be the BEST way for the project manager to standardize the
information?
A. Create project templates.
B. Require supervisor approval of documentation.
C. Use document version control.
D. Implement organizational format standards.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
Q101
Paperwork related to the project is not being signed in the correct order. The BEST way to correct this
problem would be to implement a procedure for managing:
A. required forms.
B. document routing.
C. change.
D. document version control.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q102
Which of the following activities are associated with a project kick-off meeting? (Select Two).
A. Obtaining a signature on the project charter.
B. Communicating project goals and objectives.
C. Communicating work package assignments.
D. Creating a rough draft of the transition plan.
E. Communicating stakeholder expectations.
Answer: B,E

Explanation:
Q103
In regards to proper change management procedures, which of the following would be the FINAL activity?
A. Coordinate with the appropriate stakeholders to determine course of action.
B. Document the change using the appropriate change control forms.
C. Perform impact analysis with project team members.
D. Update the project plan components based on the approved change request.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q104
A company manager has turned in project objectives, and requests that the project manager start the
project immediately. The project manager informs the company manager that the project cannot be
started. Which of the following is an appropriate reason for not starting the project?
A. Project sponsor approval has not been received.
B. Projects can only be implemented by upper management.
C. The project manager already has several ongoing projects.
D. The project team has not been formed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q105
Project team members are confused about their roles on a project. Which of the following is the FIRST
technique the project manager can use to define their roles?
A. Create a resource assignment matrix.
B. Ask team members to define their roles.
C. Have project sponsor assign their roles.
D. Conduct stakeholder meeting to determine expectations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q106
Which of the following is the purpose of a post-project review?
A. Analyzes project performance
B. Forms the control structure for the project
C. Manages stakeholder expectations
D. Identifies end products and intermediate deliverables
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q107
The project manager has outsourced a call center to a company in another region. The project manager
receives reports that customers sometimes cannot hear the instructions given by call center employees.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the reports?
A. Functional barriers
B. Language barriers

C. Technology barriers
D. Communication preferences
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q108
Which of the following estimating types requires the MOST effort when creating a work breakdown
structure (WBS)?
A. Expert judgment
B. Top-down
C. Bottom-up
D. Rough order of magnitude
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q109
A project has been delayed due to an ongoing labor dispute. The project sponsor asks the project
manager to transfer the risk to complete the project on time. Which of the following is a method of
transferring the risk?
A. Delay the project
B. Change the project schedule
C. Outsource the project
D. Hire more resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q110
Several team members have criticized the project manager for requesting that they work overtime in order
to complete a project on time. Which of the following steps should the project manager take to resolve the
conflict?
A. Force the team members to work and terminate any who do not comply.
B. Avoid the conflict by asking the stakeholders to talk to the team members.
C. Compromise and let the team members finish the project late.
D. Discuss schedule options with team members.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q111
Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select Two).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone differences
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

Q112
Which of the following would be included in a project scope document? (Select Three).
A. Project constraints
B. Gantt chart
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project roles and responsibilities
E. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
F. Detailed project objectives
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
Q113
A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of the
following is the NEXT step that the project manager should take?
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q114
Which of the following activities occur during a project kick-off meeting? (Select Three).
A. Review of the risk management plan
B. Review of the roles and responsibilities
C. Review of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Review of the change management procedures
E. Review of the project goals and objectives
F. Review of the stakeholder expectations
Answer: B,E,F
Explanation:
Q115
Which of the following personnel should sign the project charter?
A. A representative from the project management office
B. The project manager
C. The most senior project team member
D. An executive with the power to authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q116
An ongoing project that is currently on schedule has had the required completion date moved up by one
week; however, the project scope remains the same. Which of the following would be the effect on the
project?
A. Cost will decrease and time will increase.
B. Cost will decrease and time will decrease.

C. Cost will increase and time will increase.

D. Cost will increase and time will decrease.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q117
Which of the following activity sequencing methods describes the start-to-start dependency?
A. The completion of the successor activity depends upon the beginning of the predecessor activity.
B. The completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.
C. The beginning of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity.
D. The beginning of the successor activity depends upon the beginning of the predecessor activity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q118
A project manager is performing activity duration estimation for a project. Using expert judgment the
project manager has three values for each activity: the worst case, most likely case, and best case. Which
of the following tools would be the BEST to use?
A. Gantt chart
B. PERT
C. EVM
D. GERT
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q119
A project manager is performing activity sequencing with the project team. Each activity is written in a box
with arrows linking the boxes according to their dependencies. Which of the following tools is the project
manager utilizing?
A. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
B. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
C. Critical Path Method (CPM)
D. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q120
A project manager is analyzing the network schedule to determine the early start and early finish dates as
well as the late start and late finish dates, for each activity. The project manager is not taking into account
any resource constraints. Which of the following methods is demonstrated in this scenario?
A. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
B. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
C. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
Answer: D
Explanation:

Q121
A stakeholder wants information on how frequently the project manager will provide a status report.
Which of the following documents would be the BEST place to find this information?
A. Stakeholder analysis report
B. Quality plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Communication plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q122
The project sponsor has just requested a status report be emailed to all project stakeholders every two
weeks. Which of the following documents needs to be updated?
A. Communications plan
B. Quality plan
C. Stakeholder analysis report
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q123
A project manager is performing activity sequencing. The project manager is only using start to finish
dependencies. Dummy activities are being utilized to define all logical relationships. Which of the
following methods is the project manager demonstrating?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
B. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
C. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q124
The project manager has been informed that the project team cannot procure any more materials until a
new purchase order has been received. The project manager should record this information in which of
the following documents?
A. Risk response plan
B. Communications plan
C. Issues log
D. Change control log
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q125
A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register

C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q126
Which of the following activities would happen FIRST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses.
B. Perform a make or buy analysis.
C. Perform contract administration.
D. Perform vendor selection.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q127
Control limits would be found in which of the following plans?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Scope management plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q128
The project manager needs to determine the relationship between two variables. Which of the following
tools will the project manager use?
A. Histogram
B. Run chart
C. Pareto chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q129
The project cost performance index is 1.2 and the project manager has spent $71,248 dollars to date.
The project is currently 50 percent complete. Which of the following is the earned value (EV)?
A. $35,624.00
B. $59,373.33
C. $71,248.00
D. $85,497.60
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q130
A project manager is new to an organization and is about to begin work on a $1,000,000 project. Which of
the following would BEST help the project manager?

A. Reviewing closure reports from previous projects within the organization.

B. Asking stakeholders what standards they consider important.
C. Developing a quality management plan.
D. Talking to other project managers who have been with the organization for a long time.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q131
A key stakeholder on a project advises the project manager that there is a component of the project that
has yet to be decided. They are concerned that their needs regarding this component will not be
addressed. In which of the following documents should the project manager record this information?
A. Lessons learned
B. Issue log
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Project charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q132
A project manager is managing a project that is scheduled to take ten months to complete. The project is
in its sixth month and $450,000 has been spent. The project budget is $990,000. Which of the following
will the project manager use to determine the budgeted cost of work scheduled?
A. Estimate to completion
B. Planned value
C. Cost performance index
D. Budget at completion
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q133
The amount of time ahead or behind schedule on a project is called the:
A. schedule baseline.
B. schedule performance index.
C. estimate to complete.
D. schedule variance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q134
A project sponsor is adamant that a complex project must be completed within 12 months. Based on
lessons learned from previous projects of this type, the project manager believes that the project cannot
possibly finish in less than 24 months. Which of the following tools can the project manager use to show
the improbability of the proposed timeline?
A. Pareto Diagram
B. Decision tree
C. Monte Carlo analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: C
Explanation:
Q135
A network diagram shows two critical paths for a project. Which of the following will MOST likely
increase?
A. Staff
B. Risk
C. Cost
D. Time
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q136
A project manager is responsible for meeting with the companys project review board to periodically
evaluate the progress on a project. Which of the following is the role of the board?
A. To supply audit trail oversight
B. To ensure local standards compliance
C. To provide decision oversight
D. To communicate to stakeholders
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q137
Which of the following are components of an internal / external communication plan? (Select Two).
A. Technology requirements
B. Communication budget
C. Distribution list
D. Stakeholders list
E. Communication frequency
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Q138
A project manager creates a detailed list of costs for each activity involved in the project and then uses
the sum of the individual activities to create the budget. Which of the following cost estimating techniques
was used?
A. Bottom-up
B. Expert judgment
C. Parametric
D. Top-down
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q139
Communication preferences, cultural differences, and language barriers are BEST described as which of
the following?

A. Special communication needs of project members

B. Critical aspects of managing stakeholder expectations
C. Items within the risk management plan
D. Reasons for premature project failure / abandonment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q140
A healthcare company must store project records for seven years. This is an example of which of the
following?
A. Document retention compliance
B. ISO compliance
C. Version control compliance
D. Document version control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q141
Post-mortem analysis occurs in which of the following process groups?
A. Closing
B. Pre-project setup
C. Monitoring / controlling
D. Planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q142
In pre-project setup, which of the following must be completed prior to validating a project?
A. Project definition
B. Preliminary SOW
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder approval
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q143
Which of the following is the FINAL step in pre-project setup?
A. Complete the work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. Sign the approval document.
C. Create the needed stakeholder forms.
D. Validate the project.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q144
A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected.
To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime,

which will increase the cost of the project. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?
A. Ask the key stakeholder for more funding for the project.
B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project.
C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule.
D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q145
There are three teams assigned to the same project. Two of the project teams are ahead of schedule;
however, the product does not meet the needed quality standards. The third project team is behind
schedule, but their product meets the quality standards. Which of the following should be the NEXT step
for the project manager?
A. Inform the stakeholders that the project is behind schedule.
B. Meet with the teams to clarify the schedule and the quality standards expected.
C. Crash the schedule to meet the project timeline.
D. Fast track the schedule to complete the project on time without impacting the quality of the product.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q146
A new project manager has been assigned to a high profile project. In order to determine project status,
which of the following should the project manager do? (Select Two).
A. Ask the key stakeholders for the project status.
B. Leave a voicemail message to key personnel requesting the project status.
C. Schedule a meeting with the team members to determine the project status.
D. Send an email to the team members to request project status reports.
E. Schedule a meeting with the project sponsor to determine the project status.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q147
The project sponsor indicates that one of the key stakeholders is very unhappy with the project schedule.
The other stakeholders are happy with the schedule. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason
why the stakeholder is unhappy with the schedule?
A. The stakeholder has unrealistic expectations.
B. The project manager did not obtain buy-in from the stakeholder.
C. The project manager did not discuss the schedule with the stakeholders.
D. The project manager did not schedule the project team appropriately.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q148
A project manager has to complete an asset inventory project for a large corporation. Several
departments have refused to allow access to the equipment to complete the project. The project manager
should update which of the following?
A. Change control form

B. Risk register
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Issues log
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q149
Two team members have been assigned to a specific project task. Neither can agree on how the task
should be completed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The project manager provided an unrealistic schedule.
B. The team members have a personality conflict.
C. The work package was not clearly defined.
D. The team members have different management styles.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q150
Changing the project schedule to prevent a known risk is an example of which of the following risk
responses?
A. Mitigation
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Transference
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q151
Which of the following would be the MOST important objective of a kick-off meeting? (Select Two).
A. To educate team members on what will be expected
B. To give official notification for the project
C. To inform the project sponsor on what will be expected
D. To create a work breakdown structure (WBS)
E. To develop the statement of work (SOW)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Q152
Which of the following is the BEST way to manage stakeholder expectations?
A. Provide the stakeholder with a copy of the project charter.
B. Approve stakeholder requests.
C. Obtain stakeholder buy-in.
D. Have the stakeholders complete a change request form.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q153
Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should the

project manager take to minimize the conflict?

A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q154
A key team member is performing poorly on a project. The project manager has verified that the team
member knows the project expectations. The project manager has met repeatedly with this team member
to outline expectations. Which of the following is the NEXT step the project manager should take to keep
the project on schedule?
A. Ignore the team members behavior.
B. Terminate the team member.
C. Move the team member to another project.
D. Request the resource managers assistance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q155
Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to obtain qualified vendors?
A. Use the largest vendors with access to enhanced resources.
B. Use the vendors with the closest location for easy access.
C. Use the established vendor approval process.
D. Use the lowest priced vendors.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q156
In order to complete the pre-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A. Obtain funding for the project.
B. Provide quality review of the deliverables.
C. Provide leadership to the project team.
D. Obtain resolution of the application development issues.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q157
Which of the following would require that the project risk register be updated?
A. A qualitative risk analysis is performed
B. A stakeholder has concerns about material delays
C. The risk management plan is created
D. Increased costs for required materials
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q158
A project manager is working with a large team on an important project. Many of the team members work
remotely. The project manager requires each team member to submit weekly status reports at a certain
time each week. One team member consistently submits late status reports. Which of the following should
the project manager consider FIRST?
A. Time zones for various work locations
B. Necessity of weekly status reports
C. Format of the status report
D. Past performance reviews of the team member
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q159
A stakeholder asks the project manager to finish a project early. The project manager should ask the
stakeholder to FIRST:
A. speak to the other stakeholders to get their opinion.
B. complete a change request form.
C. speak to the project sponsor.
D. consider how this might impact the quality of the product.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q160
A project sponsor is adamant that a complex project must be completed within 12 months. Based on
lessons learned from previous projects of this type, the project manager believes that the project cannot
possibly finish in less than 24 months. Which of the following tools can the project manager use to show
the improbability of the proposed timeline?
A. Pareto Diagram
B. Decision tree
C. Monte Carlo analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q161
A Pareto chart is a special type of:
A. histogram.
B. Ishikawa diagram.
C. scatter diagram.
D. run chart.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q162
Which of the following is true of a work breakdown structure (WBS)? (Select Two).

A. It consists of work packages at the top level which are decomposed to increasingly detailed levels.
B. It is a quantitative analysis tool used in quality management to analyze defects.
C. Each descending level represents an increasing detailed definition of the project work.
D. It is developed during the planning process and used to create the project scope statement.
E. It organizes and defines the total scope of the project.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Q163
Which of the following is a benefit of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. It can determine the amount of progress on the project.
B. It can quickly identify the projects major deliverables and underlying activities with graphical
representation.
C. It can quickly identify the probability and impact of project risks.
D. It allows a real time analysis of actual project costs compared to the project baseline to determine the
project variances.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q164
Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?
A. A high level requirements document used to create the WBS.
B. An alphabetical listing of WBS components detailing their associated project schedule dependencies.
C. An organizational reference defining how WBS levels must be decomposed.
D. A supporting document that provides more detail for the WBS components.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q165
Which of the following would require that the project risk register be updated?
A. A qualitative risk analysis is performed
B. A stakeholder has concerns about material delays
C. The risk management plan is created
D. Increased costs for required materials
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q166
The change control board has just approved a request to modify the sampling technique for a project.
Which of the following documents would the project manager update?
A. Risk management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Communication management plan
D. Scope management plan
Answer: B
Explanation:

Q167
A project manager is comparing their budgeting techniques to the most successful project in the
companys history. Which of the following techniques is being utilized?
A. Benchmarking
B. Return on investment
C. Process analysis
D. Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q168
A project manager has determined the probability and impact of identified project risks. A meeting with
the project team will be held to determine how to mitigate risks above the project threshold. Which of the
following will be created during this meeting?
A. Risk response strategies
B. Risk register
C. Risk assessment
D. Stakeholder risk tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q169
A project manager can create a risk breakdown structure (RBS) to determine which of the following?
A. Risk tolerance
B. Risk probability
C. Risk category
D. Risk impact
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q170
The project is behind schedule. A project team member has analyzed the work performance information
and has not created the weekly status update because they are uncertain when the update should be
completed. Which of the following documents should the team member consult?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk plan
C. Scope plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q171
The change control board approved a request for $25,000 to address rising labor costs of specialized
trades. Which of the following documents should be updated?
A. Scope statement
B. Project schedule
C. Resource requirements

D. Project budget
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q172
Refer to the attached Exhibit. Which of the following is the duration of the critical path in the diagram?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q173
The frequency of measurement would be found in which of the following documents?
A. Risk management plan
B. Scope management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Communication management plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q174
The project has been terminated prematurely by the organization. Which of the following will the project
manager need to complete?
A. Case study
B. Cost benefit analysis
C. Quality assessment
D. Post-mortem
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q175
A project manager has finished the first phase of a project. Who of the following determines if the project
continues?
A. End users
B. Project manager
C. Project team
D. Project sponsor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q176
The project has an AC of $5,000. Which of the following would be used to determine the budget needed
to complete the project?
A. ETC

B. PV
C. BAC
D. EAC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q177
Which of the following skills would be the MOST useful in assembling an effective project team in a
functional organization?
A. Compromising
B. Negotiation
C. Estimating
D. Padding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q178
A project manager has been assigned two team members who do not get along. On past projects they
have proven very difficult to work with and are often at odds with one another. Which of the following
conflict resolution techniques would be BEST to address this?
A. Forcing
B. Avoiding
C. Confronting
D. Compromising
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q179
A project manager is receiving many requests for changes to a project. Which of the following did the
project manager fail to complete?
A. Proper project team selection
B. Subject Matter Expert (SME) solicitation
C. Milestone scheduling
D. Stakeholder analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q180
A project manager added some experienced team members to work on certain project activities in
conjunction with inexperienced team members because the project is behind schedule. Which of the
following BEST describes the technique the project manager is using?
A. Schedule optimization
B. Fast tracking
C. Resource management
D. Crashing
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q181
A team member reports that a system component they are working on causes the system to continually
reboot. The project manager should record this in which of the following documents?
A. Quality management plan
B. Communication plan
C. Risk matrix
D. Issue log
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q182
A project manager is working with a large team on an important project. Many of the team members work
remotely. The project manager requires each team member to submit weekly status reports at a certain
time each week. One team member consistently submits late status reports. Which of the following should
the project manager consider FIRST?
A. Time zones for various work locations
B. Necessity of weekly status reports
C. Format of the status report
D. Past performance reviews of the team member
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q183
An experienced team member comes to the project manager to report that they are uncertain of the
project requirements. This can MOST likely be attributed to:
A. a poorly decomposed WBS.
B. inadequate schedule analysis.
C. inadequate resource management.
D. improper risk planning.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q184
To determine the MOST likely estimate for the length of project activities, a project manager would use
which of the following?
A. PERT
B. Gantt chart
C. WBS Dictionary
D. SPI
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q185
A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q186
In working with the risk management plan all of the following are ways of dealing with opportunities
EXCEPT:
A. exploiting.
B. mitigating.
C. sharing.
D. enhancing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q187
A project manager sits down to discuss with team members the strengths and weaknesses of a project.
This is BEST described as:
A. managing stakeholder expectations.
B. post-project review.
C. work performance review.
D. human resource management.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q188
A project is approved in a series of stages. This is an example of:
A. standards compliance.
B. project version approval.
C. stakeholder approval.
D. phase gate approval.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q189
The purpose of the WBS is to:
A. maintain standards compliance.
B. manage change requests.
C. determine work packages.
D. aid in version control.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q190
Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?

A. Team member compensation

B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Project needs assessment
D. Control limits
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q191
The project kick-off meeting is held:
A. at the end of the planning process.
B. before getting a signed project charter.
C. during the initiating process.
D. after the post review meeting.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q192
Which of the following is the BEST reason to conduct a feasibility analysis?
A. To ensure that risks are addressed during the project
B. To authorize a project
C. To gather technical data
D. To assign team member roles
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q193
A project manager has noted that a vendor is providing a poor quality product. The vendor states that its
products meet the quality standards outlined in the current contract. Which of the following documents
outline the contractual requirements?
A. The statement of work (SOW)
B. The milestone schedule
C. The request for proposal (RFP)
D. The work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q194
Two employees do not want to work with each other. The project manager tells the employees to perform
the tasks or find other employment. Which of the following conflict resolution styles is being used?
A. Forcing
B. Withdrawing
C. Compromising
D. Accepting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q195

Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together. This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q196
The greatest amount of conflict occurs in which of the following team development stages?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Norming
D. Forming
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q197
Refer to the attached Exhibit. Which of the following dependencies is demonstrated between task 1 and
task 2 in the following diagram?
A. Start-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Finish-to-Finish
D. Finish-to-Start
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q198
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques is described as having one of the conflicting parties
not deal with the problem?
A. Negotiating
B. Compromise
C. Smoothing
D. Avoiding
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q199
Although there is a difference of opinion among several team members, the project managers authority is
used to keep the project moving forward. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques is being
used by the project manager?
A. Forcing
B. Avoiding
C. Negotiating
D. Confronting

Answer: A
Explanation:
Q200
Which of the following sequences represents the correct order for implementing a change request?
A. Change is requested, change impact analyzed, change request submitted to board, change request
approved, change implemented.
B. Change is requested, change implemented, change impact analyzed, change request submitted to
board, change request approved.
C. Change is requested, change request submitted to board, change impact analyzed, change request
approved, change implemented.
D. Change is requested, change request submitted to board, change request approved, change
implemented, change impact analyzed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
Q201
Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q202
Which of the following may require a modification to the project scope baseline?
A. An approved project change request
B. A team member removed from the project
C. A task that is falling behind schedule
D. An identified product quality issue
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q203
In order to meet governmental requirement Q555, all materials must meet spec #A-223 qualifications.
This is an example of which of the following types of dependencies? (Select Two).
A. Internal
B. Discretionary
C. Fixed
D. External
E. Mandatory
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
Q204
Which of the following is MOST likely to be included in a communication plan?
A. Change request
B. Risk register
C. Frequency
D. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q205
A project team is estimating the amount of time needed to perform an activity. They have recommended
an optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration to complete the activity. Which of the following would
be the BEST tool to estimate the final duration?
A. PERT
B. GANTT
C. GERT
D. WBS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q206
Which of the following is a component of a project charter?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Risk register
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Problem statement
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q207
Which of the following would MOST likely be reviewed during a project kick-off meeting?
A. Change requests
B. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Risk register
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q208
Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

Explanation:
Q209
Which of the following tools is the BEST to determine the cause of a problem?
A. Run chart
B. Pareto chart
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Histogram
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q210
Which of the following documents would MOST likely be updated to reflect an approved time change for a
regularly scheduled weekly status meeting?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix
C. Communication plan
D. Change request
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q211
During the execution phase of a project, a change request has been approved to add activities to the
critical path without altering the schedule. Which of the following techniques will the project manager
MOST likely use to deliver the project on time?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Resource leveling
D. Fast tracking
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q212
A customer is reporting that the projects deliverables are not meeting the acceptance criteria. Which of
the following documents MOST likely needs to be updated?
A. Deliverable summary
B. Quality checklist
C. Risk register
D. Resource assignment matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q213
During the execution of an assigned task the developer informs the project manager of a missing
component. Which of the following should the project manager do next?
A. Inform the sponsor and have the developer include it in the same task.
B. Document the change and determine the impact of the modification.

C. Add the task to the project plan and assign the task to the developer.
D. Inform the sponsor that the change is out of scope.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q214
Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if the
plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate their
modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q215
The project is running behind schedule because one of the developers has taken an unscheduled
vacation. The project manager informs the developer that any further unauthorized absence will result in
removal from the project. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Forcing
B. Negotiating
C. Avoiding
D. Confronting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q216
A project manager has been informed that a project deliverable must be completed by September 1st.
Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A. Project assumption
B. Project constraint
C. Project risk
D. Acceptance criteria
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q217
Which of the following is the BEST point for a project manager to join a project?
A. Project initiation
B. Project pre-planning
C. Project planning
D. Project executing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q218

Which of the following are examples of a good business case for a new project? (Select Two).
A. Increased profit opportunity for the customer
B. Increased billing through maintenance contract
C. Increased efficiency internally for the customer
D. Increased engagement length with the customer
E. Increased billing opportunity for the project team
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q219
A project team has increased from six to twelve resources. How many total communication paths exist
after the addition of resources?
A. 24
B. 48
C. 66
D. 144
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q220
In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q221
At a project milestone meeting, the project sponsor asked about a deliverable that is not on the project
plan. Which of the following should the project manager do to compensate for this unmet expectation?
A. Review the scope with the vendor.
B. Review the scope with the customer.
C. Review the scope with the team.
D. Review the scope with the sponsor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q222
The project scope document should outline which of the following project items? (Select Two).
A. Services
B. Lessons learned
C. Products

D. Schedule baselines
E. Resource availability
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q223
Which of the following is an input to a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Performance reports
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Project scope statement
D. Variance analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q224
Which of the following should be included in a Gantt chart to analyze a project schedule? (Select Three).
A. Risks
B. Probability
C. Cost analysis
D. Start date
E. Activity durations
F. Finish date
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
Q225
Which of the following can a project manager use to determine the critical path of a project? (Select
Three).
A. Business requirements
B. Sequence of activities
C. Completion date
D. Stakeholder expectations
E. Start date
F. Risk register
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Q226
Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact upon the outcome of a project? (Select Two).
A. Quality metrics
B. Scope creep
C. Performance reports
D. Project life cycle
E. Project delays
Answer: B,E
Explanation:

Q227
A stakeholder asks the project manager to finish a project early. The project manager should ask the
stakeholder to FIRST:
A. speak to the other stakeholders to get their opinion.
B. complete a change request form.
C. speak to the project sponsor.
D. consider how this might impact the quality of the product.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q228
The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q229
Whose approval should be obtained before modifying the scope of a project?
A. Project team
B. Executive management team
C. Change control board
D. Stakeholders
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q230
Which of the following are schedule compression techniques? (Select Two).
A. Fast tracking
B. Critical Path Method (CPM)
C. Crashing
D. PERT analysis
E. Schedule network analysis
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q231
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a project tollgate?
A. Review the tasks from the next phase of the project.
B. Review changes to a project.
C. Get acceptance to move the project to the next phase of work.
D. Give a status update on a set of deliverables.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q232
A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Reassign the individual to another role on the project team.
B. Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best.
C. Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further.
D. Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q233
Which of the following is a tool that can be used to identify project team members that are responsible for
a task or deliverable?
A. Project charter
B. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Project schedule
D. RACI chart
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q234
All of the following are taken into account when determining the critical path EXCEPT:
A. Late start and finish dates.
B. Activity durations.
C. Early start and finish dates.
D. Resource limitations.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q235
CORRECT TEXT
Which of the following techniques could a project manager use to determine a project schedule based
upon a variety of simulations?
Answer:
Answer: Schedule network analysis
Answer: Critical chain method
Answer: Critical path method
Answer: Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: D
Q236
Which of the following steps should a project manager take to ensure the quality of project deliverables
for a customer? (Select Two).
A. The project manager should consult the project sponsor and customer to review the current quality
requirements.
B. The project manager should request a peer review of the project to determine if it meets the customers

quality standards.
C. The project manager should change the scope of the project to meet the customers expectations of
quality standards.
D. The project manager should check the finished product to determine if it meets the customers quality
standards.
E. The project manager should outsource to obtain the best resources for the project.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Q237
During which of the following process groups is the availability of required resources for the project
determined?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring/Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q238
A project manager was asked to complete a project three weeks early and not crash the project.
Which of the following should be done?
A. Move some of the task to another release.
B. Have the team work over time and give them time off later to save the budget.
C. Continue to work and complete the project as soon as possible.
D. Review the plan with the team and develop a way to reduce the time
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q239
Which of the following would require that the project risk register be updated?
A. A qualitative risk analysis is performed
B. A stakeholder has concerns about material delays
C. The risk management plan is created
D. Increased costs for required materials
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q240
A project sponsor has requested that the training be delivered in parallel to a project's implementation in
order to ensure the project is delivered on schedule. If accepted, this request is an example of:
A. the critical path method.
B. crashing.
C. fast-tracking.
D. rolling wave planning.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Q241
Which of the following documents would be generated to solicit bids from outside vendors?
A. WBS
B. PERT
C. RFP
D. SOW
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q242
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn when a project has a CPI of 1.2?
A. The project is taking longer than the estimated schedule.
B. The project is costing less than the estimated budget.
C. The project is taking less time than the estimated schedule.
D. The project is costing more than the estimated budget.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q243
Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
E. The project is taking longer than the estimated schedule.
F. The project is costing less than the estimated budget.
G. The project is taking less time than the estimated schedule.
H. The project is costing more than the estimated budget.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q244
Which of the following resource leveling techniques describes schedule compression by performing
activities concurrently?
A. Exploiting
B. Crashing
C. Optimizing
D. Fast tracking
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q245
Which of the following describes a quality control tool used to analyze defects based upon number of
occurrences?
A. Pareto diagram

B. Scatter diagram
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Ishikawa diagram
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q246
Which of the following is an important aspect of formal project closure?
A. Assign resources to the next project.
B. Analyze quality and ensure standards are being met.
C. Document lessons learned for use in future projects.
D. Modify the WBS to include all the change requests that occurred during the project.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q247
Which of the following would be the BEST tool to estimate activity time durations?
A. Gantt chart
B. CPM
C. Estimating model
D. PERT
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q248
Who has the MOST control over project scope changes?
A. Key stakeholders
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Change control board
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q249
Monitoring and controlling project work is a control process function that spans from:
A. the creation of the project work plan to the completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. project kickoff to the project completion, including documentation of lessons learned.
C. project kickoff to the project plan generation.
D. the creation of the project work plan to the completion of the statement of work (SOW)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q250
A project has been cancelled during the execution phase. Which of the following steps should be taken?
A. Continue to work the project.
B. Finish the project charter and project plan.

C. Complete lessons learned document.

D. Develop the project transition plan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q251
A project manager seeks to implement a change control system. Which of the following elements are
essential for this system to be effective? (Select Three).
A. Change request form
B. Sponsor communication
C. Approval mechanism
D. Pareto chart
E. Impact analysis
F. Earned Value (EV) analysis
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Q252
In order to prepare a project charter, which of the following items are required for the pre-project setup?
A. Assumptions, constraints, project deliverables, and all resources required for the project.
B. Client name, client project manager, organization project manager, and a complete project budget.
C. Direction from team members, development methodology, and staff requirements.
D. Business need, assumptions, constraints, project deliverables, and staff requirements.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q253
In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholders needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q254
Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q255
Which of the following are characteristics of an approved project charter? (Select Two).

A. Provides the prioritization of work from the stakeholders.

B. Defines the project managers authority.
C. Identifies what the project manager wants to derive from the project.
D. Increases the number of just-in-time processes required to decrease scope creep.
E. Validates the existence of a project.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Q256
Which of the following is the main objective for a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. To develop a proven methodology that will assist the project manager with the delegation of authority.
B. To decompose the project down into manageable parts.
C. To develop the estimating and detailed scheme of the project.
D. To build on individual development, independent of the team efforts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q257
Which of the following is the correct formula for computing a projects SPI?
A. SPI = EV - AC
B. SPI = EV / PV
C. SPI = EV - PV
D. SPI = EV / AC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q258
An ongoing project has a BAC of $450,000, an EV of $110,000 and an AC of $100,000.
Which of the following is the CPI of the project?
A. $340,000
B. 1.1
C. $10,000
D. .91
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q259
In a highway project 5 miles (8 kilometers) out of the total 15 miles (24 kilometers) have been completed.
The BAC is $900,000. Which of the following represents the EV of this project?
A. $150,000
B. $300,000
C. $450,000
D. $600,000
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q260
In a highway project 5 miles (8 kilometers) out of the total 15 miles (24 kilometers) have been completed.
The BAC is $900,000. Which of the following represents the ETC of this project?
A. $150,000
B. $300,000
C. $450,000
D. $600,000
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q261
Which of the following are characteristics of a projects critical path? (Select Two).
A. The critical path is the longest duration.
B. The critical path has the least amount of resources.
C. The critical path is the shortest duration.
D. The critical path has less than or equal to zero float time.
E. The critical path has a greater than zero float time.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Q262
A project sponsor has requested that weekly status updates are to be sent by email, detailing the
schedule performance index (SPI) and schedule variance (SV) of the project. In which of the following
documents should these requirements be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Cost management plan
C. Project charter
D. Contract management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q263
Which of the following processes incorporates the make-or-buy analysis?
A. Procurement management
B. Risk management
C. Quality management
D. Scope management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q264
The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to form
the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.

D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q265
A project has a CPI of 0.6. Which of the following would BEST describe the cost-efficiency of the project?
A. The costs are currently over the estimates.
B. The costs and the estimates are about the same.
C. The costs are currently under the estimates.
D. The earned value is greater than the actual cost.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q266
The EV of a particular project is $6 million. The CV is -$340,000. Which of the following can be
determined from this information?
A. The project costs are currently under-budget.
B. The AC is less than the EV.
C. The EV is higher than the AC.
D. The project costs are currently over-budget.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q267
Cause and effect diagrams are also referred to as:
A. run charts.
B. Pareto charts.
C. histograms.
D. fishbone diagrams.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q268
In order to compare a current projects quality to that of a previously completed project, a project manager
should use which of the following techniques?
A. Process improvement
B. Quality metrics
C. Benchmarking
D. Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q269
A quality control technician is diagramming test results on a run chart. The chart consists of twenty-five
points, with twelve consecutive points below the median line; however, the other thirteen points alternate
above and below the median line. The twelve consecutive points represent which of the following?

A. The run denotes common cause variation.

B. The quality process is flawed and should be completed again.
C. The product does not adhere to specification.
D. The run denotes special cause variation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q270
A stakeholder has indicated that a three phase project must be completed in four months instead of the
previously agreed upon six months. It is determined that fast-tracking the project is the only option. Which
of the following is a characteristic of fast-tracking a project?
A. Minimizes risk due to decreased timeline.
B. Requires planning and execution to be completed in parallel.
C. Minimizes cost since work is completed in four months instead of six.
D. Requires rework due to decreased timeline.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q271
A new critical requirement has been identified after the project charter was approved. Which of the
following is the NEXT step the project manager should take?
A. Convene another meeting with the entire group reviewing the requirements one last time and
incorporating the additional requirement.
B. Determine the effort of the missing requirement and incorporate it into the work plan.
C. Revise the approved requirements document and forward to the project team for review.
D. Generate a change request and submit it to the change control board for review.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q272
Two team members refuse to work together and have undermined the project with their constant
bickering. The project manager needs both of them to complete the project. The team members meet and
agree to work at different times. Which of the following conflict resolution styles is being used?
A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Confronting
D. Compromising
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q273
If the EV is $3,000 and the AC is $4,000, which of the following would be the CPI for the project?
A. .50
B. .75
C. 1.25
D. 1.75
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q274
Which of the following would be the impact upon a project if the CPI for the project is .75?
A. The project is under-budget.
B. There would be a 25 percent cost decrease.
C. There would be a 75 percent cost increase.
D. The project is over-budget.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q275
If the EV is $3,000 and the AC is $4,000, which of the following is the CV for the project?
A. -$1,000
B. $1,000
C. -$3,000
D. $3,000
E. There would be a 25 percent cost decrease.
F. There would be a 75 percent cost increase.
G. The project is over-budget.
H. The project is under-budget.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q276
Which of the following are the benefits of a work breakdown structure (WBS)? (Select Two).
A. It determines the project milestones.
B. It determines the project budget.
C. It outlines the communication plan for the team.
D. It determines the resources required to complete project tasks.
E. It outlines the statement of work (SOW) for the project.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Q277
When a project ends unexpectedly, which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Create an end document to add to the file before moving on to another project.
B. Create a document identifying the negative impact of the early project ending to give to the customers
management.
C. Perform project close out with full documentation and review.
D. Perform a limited project close that consists of releasing team members.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q278
It is important to complete a formal project closure process to: (Select Three).
A. assure that the customer will work with all vendors in the future.

B. confirm that the stated project objectives were met.

C. confirm that the customer accepts the final deliverables.
D. collect new information to enter into the issue log for further review.
E. assure that the contract is complete and the team members can be released.
F. collect additional scope requirements that need to be entered into the project plan.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Q279
Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q280
When would a project manager have a closure meeting? (Select Three).
A. Stage completion
B. Task completion
C. Document completion
D. Project cancellation
E. Project completion
F. Vendor cancellation
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Q281
Which of the following occurs during administrative closure?
A. Requiring input from the sponsor on the project objectives.
B. Updating quality expectations for the deliverables.
C. Closing out contracts with vendors.
D. Revealing new WBS tasks to team members.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q282
Faced with a complex project with many stages, which of the following is the BEST action for the project
manager to take?
A. Employ phase closure meetings.
B. Encourage vendors to work overtime.
C. Request a schedule extension.
D. Hire additional contractors.
Answer: A
Explanation:

Q283
A project manager wants to have complete control of the project team members. Which of the following
organization structures would allow for this?
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q284
Which of the following would be contained in the problem statement within the project charter?
A. The issues that might block a vendor's success.
B. The conflict between management and the project vendors.
C. The issues the customer wants resolved.
D. The conflict management style that will be used during the project.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q285
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a stakeholder? (Select Two).
A. Anyone impacted negatively by the project.
B. Anyone who is in the company where the project is taking place.
C. Anyone who is interested in the project.
D. Anyone who negatively impacts the project.
E. Anyone impacted positively by the project.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q286
Before a change request is presented to the change control board, which of the following should the
project manager do?
A. Suggest the board study the cost of the change.
B. Evaluate the affect on all other parts of the project.
C. Review the change request with the project sponsor.
D. Request team member input on the value of the change.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q287
Which of the following documents should be used to present the length of identified tasks?
A. CPM
B. Key event/activity list
C. PERT
D. Gantt
Answer: D

Explanation:
Q288
Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q289
Which of the following should a project manger do to actively track issues as they are identified?
A. Develop a quality management plan.
B. Create a process for anonymous team review of issue resolution.
C. Make an issues log template.
D. Update the issues log.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q290
A project manager was called into the office of the Chief Information Officer (CIO) and informed that the
resource budget for the company has been reduced by 10%. The CIO expects that the project must be
completed on time.
Which of the following will be impacted?
A. Project scope will be impacted.
B. Quality will be impacted.
C. WBS will be impacted.
D. SOW will be impacted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q291
Quality assurance is performed during which phase of a project?
A. During the controlling phase
B. During both controlling and execution phase
C. During the execution phase
D. During the planning phase
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q292
A project manager has decided to reduce the impact of a possible threat. Which of the following risk
response strategies BEST describes this action?
A. Avoidance
B. Exploiting

C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q293
During a status meeting, a team member informs the project manager of a possible risk. Which of the
following is the FIRST action the project manager should take?
A. Record the risk in the risk register.
B. Work with the team to develop a risk response.
C. Perform an initial prioritization of the risk.
D. Determine the probability and impact of the risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q294
A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor. This is an example of which of the following actions?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Audit review
D. Phase gate
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q295
The project manager has documented a change request from a key project stakeholder. Which of the
following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Discuss this change during the next status meeting.
B. Ask other stakeholders for recommendations.
C. Send the request to the change control board.
D. Perform an impact analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q296
The change control board has approved a change to the scope of a project. Which of the following
actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Obtain additional approval from the project sponsor.
B. Discuss this change during the next status meeting.
C. Perform a probability and impact analysis on the change.
D. Create a plan to implement the change.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q297
A project manager has analyzed work performance information and identified alarming variances in the

project deliverable. Which of the following would be the BEST response for the project manager?
A. Perform a qualitative risk assessment.
B. Speak with the project sponsor about possible solutions.
C. Approve a change request to correct the actions.
D. Recommend corrective actions.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q298
A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
A. ADM
B. WBS
C. AON
D. PDM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q299
A project manager needs to replace someone on the project team. Which of the following is the FIRST
action they should take?
A. Consult the project staffing plan.
B. Notify the human resources department to open a job posting.
C. Search for skilled subcontractors who could quickly fill the opening.
D. Ask the project sponsor for another resource.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q300
Which of the following documents would a project manager review to determine all the identified risks on
a project?
A. Risk matrix
B. Risk register
C. Risk response
D. Risk baseline
Answer: B
Explanation:
Topic 4, Volume D
Q301
The initial quality measurements used to determine if a variance has occurred is known as the:
A. Quality checklist.
B. Baseline.
C. Quality metrics
D. Control limit.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Q302
Which of the following BEST describes the chart of accounts?
A. The numbering system used to monitor the quality measurements during the life of the project.
B. The numbering system used to track project costs depending on their activity type.
C. The numbering system used to decompose project activities into sub-project activities.
D. The numbering system used to identify each activity on the work breakdown structure.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q303
Which of the following would MOST likely contain warranty information for the project deliverable?
A. Scope statement
B. Cost baseline
C. Risk assessment
D. Transition plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q304
Before the execution phase begins, who is in control of the project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Program manager
C. Project manager
D. Project coordinator
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q305
An adjustment to the project has been approved and funding granted, but the project manager feels the
modification is out of scope.
Which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Schedule a meeting with the project sponsor to reject the adjustment.
B. Refuse to make the adjustment and send a recommendation to the review board.
C. Make the adjustment and wait for another review.
D. Make the adjustment but document the concern.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q306
The project team has completed phase testing. After testing, a subject matter expert (SME) notices that a
component was skipped.
Which of the following should the project manager do?

A. Proceed with the release and document the adjustment in the change log.
B. Proceed with the release and tell the SME the component will be added in a special release.
C. Delay the release until the component is tested.
D. Schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to review the impact.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q307
Who should conduct lessons learned when an outside vendor is used?
A. The project coordinator because they are responsible for the project and vendor.
B. The resource manager because they are responsible for the vendors actions.
C. The program manger because they control the project budget.
D. The project manager because they are responsible for the entire project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q308
A project manager is using a vendor with a fixed bid contract. The vendor would like to help out with other
parts of the project.
Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Review the vendors SOW and determine if the additional work items can be included.
B. Allow the vendor to accept the additional work on a time and material (T&M) basis.
C. Allow the vendor to accept the additional work, but honor the fixed bid price.
D. Explain to the vendor that the work is already assigned to the vendor with the lowest cost.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q309
Which of the following is the BEST reason to review the historical information from a similar project?
A. To get a good idea of the writing style of the project manager.
B. To get an understanding of the number of managers within the organization.
C. To get an understanding of the resources needed to complete the project.
D. To get an understanding of the document approval process.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q310
A project manager must initially address a performance issue with a project team member.
Which of the following communication methods is BEST to use?
A. Formal written communication
B. Informal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Formal verbal communication
Answer: B
Explanation:

Q311
The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A. Contingency reserve
B. Project charter
C. Project schedule
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q312
A Pareto diagram focuses attention on which of the following?
A. Identifying the stage of failure during the process
B. Predicting future problems based on historic results
C. Checking for variances in quality over time
D. Locating defects with the highest occurrence
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q313
Which of the following is the BEST report to provide to senior management?
A. Daily progress report
B. Milestone report
C. Quality audit
D. Work performance report
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q314
Which of the following is an appropriate risk response for diverting a portion of the project risk?
A. Avoiding
B. Sharing
C. Enhancing
D. Exploiting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q315
Who has the MOST control over project scope changes?
A. Key stakeholders
B. Project sponsor
C. Project manager
D. Change control board
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q316

Which of the following is created as part of the closing phase?

A. Quality baseline
B. Cost review
C. Activity estimation
D. Feasibility analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q317
After a change control board meeting, which of the following actions should the project manager do
NEXT?
A. Notify the requester of the verdict.
B. Review the impact of proposed change.
C. Update the project scope statement.
D. Document the specific change request.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q318
A project manager is implementing a new community park and wants to build public support. Which of the
following communication mediums would BEST facilitate the goal?
A. Send a personally signed letter to the residents.
B. Hold a public ceremony at the location for the residents.
C. Hold a teleconference for residents.
D. Send an email to the community residents.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q319
A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team members
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select Two).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Q320
A hurricane is forecasted near the corporations call center. The project manager has arranged for a
redundant call center in another location to accept calls if the corporate call center is unable to receive
calls. Which of the following risk responses is the project manager using?
A. Avoidance
B. Acceptance
C. Mitigation

D. Transference
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q321
Several project tasks cannot be completed because local resources are not available. The project
manager has to outsource the work to find qualified resources. Which of the following risk responses is
the project manager using?
A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Transference
D. Avoidance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q322
By completing the lessons learned during project closure, the project manager can:
A. modify the project budget.
B. determine the reasons for the success or failure of a project.
C. manage stakeholder expectations.
D. determine the critical path of the project schedule.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q323
An important team member will not be available to complete a project. The project manager selects a new
team member and trains the new team member on the project tasks. The project manager is using which
of the following risk response techniques to resolve the issue?
A. Monitor the risk
B. Mitigation of the risk
C. Acceptance of the risk
D. Transference of the risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q324
Which of the following shows a project that is presently over its financial budget?
A. CPI = 1.4
B. CPI = 0
C. CV = +$11,000
D. CPI = 0.8
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q325
Which of the following would a project manager do NEXT after selecting a vendor for a project?

A. Determine a list of qualified sellers.

B. Determine vendor resource availability.
C. Hold a bidders conference.
D. Negotiate the contract.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q326
Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
E. Determine vendor resource availability.
F. Hold a bidders conference.
G. Negotiate the contract.
H. a list of qualified sellers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q327
The schedule estimates for a particular work package that is underway were not properly considered and
the timescales are too tight. Which of the following methods should the project manager select to
investigate?
A. PDM
B. SPI and SV
C. CPM
D. Issues log
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q328
A team member on a project uncovers a minor risk with the quality of a purchased component. The team
uses their combined expert judgment to determine that the risk to the deliverable is very low. Which of the
following is the MOST likely action the project manager should take?
A. Issue a change request to the change control board to select a different vendor from the qualified
sellers list and request early termination of the current vendors contract.
B. Call a project team meeting to discuss the risk and communicate the issue directly with the project
sponsor.
C. Contact the vendor and request a thorough review of the products architecture.
D. Document the risk in the risk register, accept it and refer to the agreed vendor contracts for methods of
raising the issue with the vendor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q329
The change control board has requested that a project manager evaluate the impact of a major change
request that will affect the timetable of several work-packages. Which of the following actions should the

project manager undertake FIRST?

A. Create a modified version of the project schedule applying the critical path method.
B. Call a project team meeting to use combined expert judgment to accept or reject the change request.
C. Create a Pareto chart for the outputs from the specific work-packages identified by the change control
board.
D. Crash the schedule to meet the original deadlines.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q330
A project manager has been engaged to deliver a project in South America and does not speak Spanish.
More than 50 percent of the project team will be Spanish speaking. Which of the following would be the
project managers BEST option?
A. Insist that all communication be in English.
B. Use automated translation technologies to communicate with team members in writing.
C. Engage only bi-lingual team members.
D. Engage interpreters at both locations for all key team communication.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q331
Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones; then calculate the total
time from the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q332
During handover stage a customer of a particular project noticed the extended warranty from a particular
vendor for a critical application has not been ordered. In which of the following documents should this
have been previously addressed?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Project charter
C. Staffing management plan
D. Risk management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q333
A variance between the planned scheduled work and the actual work completed would initially be
highlighted in which of the following performance statistics?
A. CV

B. SV
C. CPI
D. ETC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q334
Which of the following is the correct progression of the project life cycle?
A. Planning, initiating, executing, monitoring / controlling, closing
B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring / controlling, closing
C. Planning, initiating, monitoring / controlling, executing, closing
D. Initiating, planning, monitoring / controlling, executing, closing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q335
A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project manager
use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Post mortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q336
Which of the following is a representation of the difference between the planned costs of work completed
compared to the actual cost at a point in time?
A. EV
B. CPI
C. CV
D. AC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q337
Which of the following is a representation of the amount of money spent on project work at a point in
time?
A. CV
B. CPI
C. EV
D. AC
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q338
An ongoing project requires several parts manufactured at an outside vendor. If the vendor has sufficient

quantity and can still ship today, the parts should be received in five days; although in most cases an
order of this size requires ten days. Allowing for an upcoming holiday and some potential bad weather the
shipment could take up to twenty-one days. Using the PERT method, which of the following is the correct
time estimate for a parts delivery?
A. 10 days
B. 11 days
C. 21 days
D. 36 days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q339
Which of the following is a quantitative risk analysis tool or technique?
A. Risk register
B. Decision tree analysis
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Cause and effect diagram
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q340
Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk factors
based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q341
Which of the following would be considered a valid strategy in response to an adverse risk?
A. Exploit
B. Monitor
C. Mitigate
D. Enhance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q342
A project team is comprised of team members based in North America, Europe, the Middle East and the
Far East. Which of the following is the MOST efficient means of reporting project updates to all team
members?
A. E-mail to all team members
B. A daily web conference
C. A weekly conference call
D. Face to face meeting at a central location

Answer: A
Explanation:
Q343
All of the following should be detailed in the communications management plan EXCEPT:
A. the person responsible for communicating the information.
B. team member roles and responsibilities.
C. team members that will receive the information.
D. frequency of project team communications.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q344
Which of the following is a characteristic of a project charter?
A. Issued by the project manager with support from the project sponsor.
B. Links the project to the on-going work of the organization through a business plan.
C. Formally recognizes the existence or establishment of the project.
D. Provides low-level requirements for the project.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q345
Which of the following is included within the RFP?
A. Identify the price quote and include the communication plan.
B. Request a price and the names of the project resources.
C. The vendor that will complete the work and the vendors background, history and experience.
D. Request total cost for all work to be completed and procedures for replying to the bid.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q346
Work must be overlapped and completed in parallel rather than sequentially within the critical path in
order to meet the end date of the project. Which of the following would be utilized?
A. Optimizing
B. Crashing
C. Resource leveling
D. Fast-tracking
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q347
Pareto charts helps the project manager with which of the following?
A. Determine if a process will be experiencing difficulties.
B. Focus on creative thinking.
C. Explore required future events.
D. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Q348
Which of the following is used in quality control?
A. Pareto chart
B. RACI matrix
C. PERT
D. Issues log
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q349
To ensure the quality of implemented project change requests, which of the following will need to occur?
(Select Two).
A. The project team is not notified of the approved change.
B. Change is tracked and is either accepted or rejected by the change control board.
C. Change is logged and updated in the change log document.
D. Once a change is forwarded to the change control board, it will be removed from the change log.
E. Once the change is submitted to the change control board, it will be approved and placed into
production.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Q350
Several stakeholders and the project sponsor have indicated that they are not being supplied with project
updates. As the project manager, which of the following should be done to address the situation?
A. Create a communication roles template.
B. Speak in-depth personally to each stakeholder.
C. Send emails to everyone on the project team.
D. Refer to the communications plan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q351
During execution, a project manager of a construction project requires certain project team members to
work outdoors, atop tall buildings. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk of injury to those
team members, without affecting the approved project schedule?
A. Ensure that project team members do not work in very windy weather.
B. Ensure that project team members are furnished with slip-resistant boots.
C. Ensure that project team members are trained in injury response.
D. Ensure that project team members are covered by applicable insurance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q352
A project manager decides to manage the threat of a particular risk through the purchase of an insurance

policy. Which of the following risk response strategies is being applied?

A. Avoidance
B. Transfer
C. Acceptance
D. Mitigation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q353
A qualitative analysis identified a server crash as an internal project risk with a medium probability and
high adverse impact to the project. The project manager decides to manage this risk by authorizing the
purchase and installation of a tape backup unit for the server, to prevent the potential loss of documents.
Which of the following risk response strategies was applied in this circumstance?
A. Acceptance
B. Transfer
C. Mitigation
D. Avoidance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q354
Which of the following is found in project closure documentation?
A. Updated communications plan
B. Quality baseline
C. Responsibility assignment matrix
D. Transition plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q355
A project manager receives a memo from a key stakeholder in the project. The memo states that going
forward they should be notified of all scope changes, but not involved in the decision making process.
Which of the following should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Initiate a transition plan.
B. Assign the stakeholder to the change control board.
C. Schedule a meeting with the stakeholder.
D. Update the communication plan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q356
Which of the following is the BEST way for a project manager to conduct a lessons learned session?
A. Talk about different conflict resolution techniques that could be used in the future.
B. Talk about specific task failures and who is responsible for the failures.
C. Talk about processes needing improvement versus things that went wrong.
D. Talk about the project vendor shortcomings and contractual failures.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Q357
A project manager has an initial problem with a remote team members performance. Which of the
following is the BEST form of communication to address this issue?
A. Formal written communications
B. Informal written communications
C. Informal verbal communications
D. Formal verbal communications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q358
The project manager has three stakeholders with whom they need to communicate (not including the
project manager). There are six channels of communication. A new stakeholder has been added to the
project that the project manager needs to communicate with. How many communication channels are
now existent?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q359
The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:
A. methodology verification.
B. scope verification.
C. change verification.
D. system verification.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q360
A manager and the head of engineering discuss a change to a major work package. After the meeting,
the project manager contacts a third person and tells them to complete the paperwork to make the
change. Who did the project manager contact?
A. A project sponsor
B. A third party vendor
C. A change control board member
D. A project expediter
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q361
A project manager is managing the delivery of a project awarded under a fixed-cost contract. The project

cost was poorly planned and underestimated, but the projects overall scope and deadline cannot change.
Failure to deliver the project is not an option. Which of the following will MOST likely be affected by these
circumstances?
A. Earned Value (EV)
B. Quality
C. Change management
D. Resource leveling
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q362
Which of the following is created during the initiation phase?
A. Project scope statement
B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Project charter
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q363
Which of the following is the MOST common precedence dependency type?
A. Start-to-Start
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q364
Which of the following correctly identifies the application of a projects quality management plan?
A. Quality assurance and quality control both occur in the monitoring / controlling phase.
B. Quality control occurs in the execution phase, quality assurance occurs in the monitoring / controlling
phase.
C. Quality assurance occurs in the execution phase, quality control occurs in the monitoring / controlling
phase.
D. Quality assurance and quality control both occur in the execution phase.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q365
Which of the following is the effect of triple constraint on a project?
A. A change in one constraint can be approved by the project sponsor.
B. A change in one constraint may cause a change in another constraint.
C. At least two constraints must change before there is an effect on the project.
D. Changing all three constraints will cause the project to be closed.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Q366
A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is needed
to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team believes that
estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The project
manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to thirteen days
to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q367
The project manager has the MOST authority in which of the following organizational structures?
A. Balanced Matrix
B. Functional
C. Weak Matrix
D. Strong Matrix
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q368
A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q369
Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q370
During final inspection, a project team member finds a deficiency in the product. In which of the following

did this action occur?

A. Gap analysis
B. Quality control
C. Process audit
D. Quality assurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q371
A project manager has just completed the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the project team. Which
of the following would be used during activity sequencing?
A. Precedence diagramming method
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Resource availability
D. Resource leveling technique
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q372
A project manager has received a change request. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
A. Approve the change and notify the project sponsor that cost can be reduced.
B. Re-baseline the project budget because this change will decrease the expenditures.
C. Send the change to the project sponsor for approval.
D. Analyze the change to determine the impact.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q373
Which of the following is a reason why the project kick-off meeting is important?
A. It will introduce the team to the projects goals and objectives.
B. It will provide a detailed timeline for the project and its deliverables.
C. It will make the executive sponsor aware of project expectations.
D. It will define the scope of the project.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q374
Crashing a schedule involves which of the following?
A. Performing a re-baseline of the project schedule
B. Performing critical path activities simultaneously
C. Adding resources to critical path activities
D. Estimating the earned value of the project activities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q375

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

A. Reduce the likelihood of the risk.
B. Transfer ownership of the risk.
C. Update the risk management plan.
D. Change the project scope to eliminate the risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q376
Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Determines the critical path of a project schedule
B. Identifies stakeholders and their roles
C. Is deliverable-oriented and hierarchical in nature
D. Measures the quality of the project objectives
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q377
During the execution phase, a customer approaches the project manager demanding a change. Which of
the following are the steps the project manager should take? (Select Two).
A. Make the change.
B. Notify the Executive Sponsor.
C. Fill out a change request form.
D. Evaluate the impact of the change.
E. Deny the change.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q378
A project team member informs the project manager that they have added functionality to enhance the
product. The team member did not inform the project manager prior to making the change. Which of the
following should the project manager do in this situation?
A. Remove the team member from the team and assign them to another project.
B. Remove all enhancements to the product and proceed as was originally stated.
C. Document the enhancement and send to the change control board.
D. Advise the team member that they cannot request future changes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q379
During execution of the project, the project sponsor informs the project manager that a requirement needs
to be added to the scope statement. Which of the following is the FIRST action that the project manager
should take?
A. Evaluate the impact of the change on the project.
B. Call the project team members together to determine how to handle the change.
C. Change the work breakdown structure (WBS) to include all the tasks involved with this change.
D. Rewrite the statement of work (SOW) to include the proposed change.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Q380
Which of the following are reasons why formal project closure is important? (Select Three).
A. Release staff from the project
B. Reassign staff to another project
C. Releases leftover funding from the project
D. Provides historical information
E. Allows for final changes to the work breakdown structure (WBS)
F. Confirms completed/non-completed objectives
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
Q381
When does stakeholder identification initially take place?
A. When the organizational structure is determined
B. Once the project charter document is created
C. Once the project planning phase is entered
D. When documenting the project objectives
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q382
Which of the following documents is used when assigning resources to scheduled tasks?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) dictionary
B. Cost management plan
C. WBS
D. Approved project charter
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q383
Various technologies exist to complete a project, but the project manager is not well versed in these
technologies. Which of the following can the project manager initiate to assist with the decision?
A. A Statement of Work (SOW)
B. A project needs assessment
C. A vendor contract
D. A Request for Proposal (RFP)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q384
Information regarding training, extended support, and warranties are detailed in the:
A. Risk register
B. Project scope statement

C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D. Transition plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q385
Several project team members are in conflict about the lighting in their office and the noise level. Which of
the following describes this type of conflict?
A. Forming
B. Competing resource demands
C. Varying work styles
D. Expert judgment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q386
A project manager is concerned that certain aspects of a project may not meet the local regulations.
Which of the following is the project manager concerned with?
A. Standards compliance
B. Phase gate approval
C. Internal process compliance
D. Company compliance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q387
In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q388
When ensuring the quality of project deliverables, which of the following is the NEXT step the project
manager should take, once performance information has been gathered?
A. Create Gantt charts
B. Generate change requests
C. Identify variances
D. Implement change requests
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q389

Which of the following is the FINAL step in the pre-project setup phase?
A. Obtain signed approval of the project charter.
B. Obtain signed approval of the statement of work (SOW).
C. Conduct a feasibility analysis for the project.
D. Create the work breakdown structure (WBS).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q390
Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q391
A new technology being implemented will result in project team member layoffs. Which of the following
actions can the project manager take to address team member concerns?
A. Cancel the project
B. Host a meeting to provide a status update
C. Outsource the project
D. Select a different technology that will not result in layoffs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q392
When are project closure procedures determined?
A. During the planning phase
B. During the monitoring/controlling phase
C. During the closure phase
D. During the execution phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q393
Which of the following would be included in a project scope document? (Select Two).
A. Project constraints
B. WBS dictionary
C. Project assumptions
D. Project charter
E. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:

Q394
Which of the following is the BEST tool to determine how the frequency of an individual cause contributes
towards the total result?
A. SWOT analysis
B. Critical Chain Method (CCM)
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Pareto chart
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q395
During which of the following process groups is the project charter developed?
A. Pre-project setup
B. Project execution
C. Project planning
D. Project control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q396
Which of the following steps should be taken to formally close a project? (Select Two).
A. Finalize the project charter
B. Create a statement of work (SOW)
C. Verify client sign-off of the project deliverables
D. Document the lessons learned
E. Finalize the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q397
A major change has been approved by the change control board and it now needs to be scheduled for
implementation. Which of the following is the BEST method of implementing the change?
A. Distribute details of the change per the communication plan, and implement according to the change
control process.
B. Ask the change control board to schedule the change, and when scheduled, identify the individual
team member responsible for implementing it.
C. Email the project team, identifying the team member responsible for implementing the change, and
then schedule it with the appropriate team members.
D. Identify the team member responsible for implementing the change and direct the team member to
inform the rest of the project team of the date and time of implementation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q398
Which of the following would a project manager organize and implement in order to provide decision
oversight to scope changes?
A. Request for Proposal (RFP)

B. Quality management plan

C. Change control board
D. Version control system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q399
Which of the following contract types places the LEAST amount of risk on the seller?
A. Fixed-Price
B. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
C. Cost-Plus-Fee (CPF)
D. Time and material
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q400
Control limits would be found in which of the following plans?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Scope management plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q401
Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should the
project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q402
Several project tasks cannot be completed because local resources are not available. The project
manager has to outsource the work to find qualified resources. Which of the following risk responses is
the project manager using?
A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Transference
D. Avoidance
Answer: C
Explanation: