TEST 1

1. It deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them.
a) Kinetics
b) Motion
c) Kinematics
d) Acceleration
2. Progressive change in position of a body is called:
a) Acceleration
b) Motion
c) Force
d) Momentum
3. Cam in general maybe divided into two classes; uniform motion and _________motion cam.
a) Reverse
b) gravity
c) decelerated
d) accelerated
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known as:
a) Impulse
b) Linear momentum
c) Angular momentum
d) Impact
5. It is the motion of an object diminished/decreased speed.
a) Deceleration
b) Retarded motion
c) Negative impulse
d) All of these
6. It is a property of matter, which causes it to resist any change in its motion or state of rest.
a) Brake
b) Friction
c.) Inertia
d) Impulse
7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during which motion takes place is called:
a) Deceleration
b) Uniform motion
c) Acceleration
d) None of these
8. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium means that the body cannot
a) have any type of motion
b) be acted upon by more than one force
c) undergo any displacement
d) have any type of acceleration
9. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar or vector algebra.
a) Kinematics
b) Curvilinear translation
c) Projectile
d) Acceleration
10. An object thrown upward will return to earth the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to
a) zero
b) one-half the initial velocity
c) twice the initial velocity

d) initial velocity
11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cam.
a) Radial cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Cam curves
d) Tangential cam
12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of rotation.
a) cam curves
b) cylindrical cam
c) tangential cam
d) Radial cam
13. A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the large end.
a) cone distance
b) back cone
c) root cone
d) cone center
14. The ability of moving body to perform work is called:
a) Internal energy
b) potential energy
c) kinetic energy
d) flow work
15. A slider crank chain is made up of
a) one turning and one sliding pair
b) one turning and two sliding pairs
c) two turning and one sliding pair
d) three turning and one sliding pair
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made up of
a) rotating pair only
b) sliding and turning pairs
c) turning and rotary pairs
d) turning pair only
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of
a) rolling and sliding pairs
b) rolling pairs
c) sliding and rotary pairs
d) turning pairs
18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the cam is called:
a) circular cam
b) cylindrical cam
c) reciprocating cam
d) tangential cam
19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on
a)
b)
c)
d)

a point obtained by intersection of extending adjoining links

left side pivot of this link
right side pivot of this link
any of the choices above
20. A vector quantity that describes both how fast it is moving and the direction in which
a) Acceleration
b) displacement
c) Motion
d) Velocity

it is heated.

21. Which of the following is the rate at which the velocity is changing?
a) Acceleration
b) Linear
c) Motion
d) Vertical
22. The direction of the ________ is toward the center of the circle in which, the studymoves.
a) centripetal acc.
b) centrifugal acc.
c) radial cam
d) tangential
23. It is a device that changes the magnitude, direction or mode of application of a torque or force while transmitting it for a particular
purpose.
a) Frame
b) Machine
c) Mechanism
d) Structure
24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any number of vectors.
a) Scalar quantity
b) Vector composition
c) Vector quantity
d) Vector resolution
25. It has magnitude, direction and sense.
a) scalar quantity
b) absolute quantity
c) vector quantity
d) relative velocity
26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface of contact so designed as to caused or modify the motion of the piece.
a) Cam
b) Disc
c) Gear
d) Pulley
27. When acceleration is zero, the
a) velocity is constant
b) velocity is negative
c) velocity is variable
d) velocity is zero
28. When the velocity is changing, the acceleration is
a) constant
b) not constant
c) variable
d) zero
29. Kleins construction is used to determine the
a) acceleration of various parts
b) angular acceleration of various parts
c) displacement of various parts
d) velocity of various parts
30. Kleins construction can be used when
a)
b)
c)
d)

crank has a uniform angular acceleration

crank has a uniform angular velocity
crank has a non uniform angular velocity
b and c above

31. The cam angle is

a)
b)
c)
d)

the angle subtended by live portion of cam at the cams center

the angle of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
the angle subtended at the cams center by the portion of cam during which the follower moves
the angle subtended by the cam at the cam center when the follower dwells

32. The pitch point on a cam refers to

a)
b)
c)
d)

any point on pitch curve

a point at a distance equal to pitch circle radius from the center
the point of cam pitch circle that has the maximum pressure angle
none of the above

33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism,

a) none of the links should be fixed
b) one link should be fixed
c) there is no such criterion
d) two links should be fixed
34. Hart mechanism has how many links?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
36. A cam with a roller follower would constitute which type of pair?
a) close pair
b) higher pair
c) lower pair
d) open pair
37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have
a)
b)
c)
d)

elements of pairs not held together mechanically

point or line contact between the elements when in motion
surface contact between the two elements when in motion
two elements that allow relative motion

38. A Pantograph is a mechanism having

a) higher pairs
b) lower pairs
c) rolling pairs
d) spherical pairs
39. The number of links in a pantograph is equal to
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
40. In elliptical trammels,
a) all four pairs are turning
b) one pair turning and three pairs sliding
c) three pairs turning and one pair sliding
d) two pairs and two pairs sliding

41. The Kleins method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism

a)
b)
c)
d)

enables determined of coriolis component

is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
is based on acceleration diagram
utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine

42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that changes both in magnitude and direction at any instant, then
a)
b)
c)
d)

it must have only unidirectional acceleration

it must have two components of acceleration e.g., centripetal and tangential
it must have three components of acceleration e.g., centripetal, centrifugal and tangential
it must have three components of acceleration e.g., centripetal, centrifugal and gravitational

43. Select the one that is the highest pair.

a) Crosby indicator mechanism
b) Harts straight line mechanism
c) Thomson indicator mechanism
d) Both gearing mechanism
44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a
a) Cylindrical pair
b) higher pair
c) lower pair
d) sliding pair
45. The total number of instantaneous center for a mechanism of N links is equal to
a) 2N
b) (N-1)(N+1)
c) 2N(N-1)
d) N(N-1)/2
46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of
a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs
b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs
c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs
d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair the relation between the number of joint J is given by
a) L = 2/3(J+2)
b) L = 3/2(J+2)
c) L = 2/3(L+2)
d) L = 3/2(L+2)
48. In case of an elliptical trammel,
a) one pair turns and two pairs slide
b) two pairs and two pairs slide
c) three pairs turn and one pair slides
d) all four pairs turn
49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in
a) four bar mechanism
b) mechanism of steam engine
c) higher pair
d) whitworth-quick-return mechanism
50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by the action of any external force or load.
a) rigid body
b) structure
c) Frame
d) Mechanism

TEST 2

1. At a given section of an I beam the maximum bending stress occurs at the

a) max. shear stress area
b) neutral axis
c) web joint near the flange
d) outermost
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a
a) couple of forces
b) concurrent of forces
c) momentum
d) resolution of forces
3. Two or more forces acting together, could be replaced by a single force with same effect in a mass called:
a) couple of forces
b) resolution of forces
c) resultant
d) concurrent of forces
4. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and
a) torque
b) weights of object
c) normal of force
d) moment
5. Shear modulus is also known as:
a) Shear elasticity
b) poissons ratio
c) modulus of elasticity
d) modulus of rigidity
6. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to intermittent or repeated
load without causing failure is called:
a) Ultimate stress
b) Endurance limit
c) Ultimate strength
d) Elastic limit
7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the action of outside force is called:
a) Shearing stress
b) tensile stress
c) ultimate stress
d) compressive stress
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will eventually fail if the load/stress is above the endurance for the steel under consideration.
The endurance limit of the steel is therefore
a) equal to the allowable stress of the module of elasticity
b) equal to half of the ultimate strength
c) equal to module of elasticity
d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit
9. Moment of inertia is also called:
a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Weep strength
c) Radius of gyration
d) None of these
10. Defection of a beam is
a) proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
b) proportional to the load imposed and inversely to the length squared
c) inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
d) inversely proportional to the weight imposed times the length
11. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than the yield point is called:

a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Creep
d) Ductility
12. It is opposite direction of parallel force.
a) concurrent
b) coplanar
c) couple
d) non coplanar
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross - section of the beam to the section modulus is
a) equal to the radius of gyration
b) equal to the area of the cross-section
c) measure of a distance
d) dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam measure
14. The differential of the shear equation is which of the following:
a) bending moment of the beam
b) tensile strength of the beam
c) slope of the elastic curve
d) load of the beam
15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as
a) work
b) force
c) inertia
d) power
16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due to action of a force on it is called deformation or
a) shearing stress
b) stresses
c) compressive stress
d) strains
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called:
a) plasticity
b) all of these
c) stiffness
d) toughness
18. The property of a material that relates the lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called:
a) stress
b) strain
c) poissons ratio
d) endurance limit
19. The single force which produces the same effect upon a body as two or more forces acting together is called:
a) Resultant force
b) co-planar force
c) couple
d) non-coplanar force
20. The ability of metal to resist being crushed is called
a) shearing strength
b) compressive stress
c) torsional strength
d) tensile strength
21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called:
a) co-planar

b) non-coplanar forces
c) Acceleration
d) composition of forces
22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are related as follows
a) design stress = ultimate stress times factor of safety
b) design stress = ultimate stress divided by factor of safety
c) factor of safety = design stress divided ultimate stress
d) ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by design stress
23. Stresses that are independent to loads are known as:
a) Working stresses
b) Operating stresses
c) residual stresses
d) shear stresses
24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit longitudinal deformation is called:
a) poissons ratio
b) willans line
c) modulus of elasticity
d) deformation
25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are called:
a) non-concurrent
b) couple
c) combined forces
d) concurrent forces
26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the ultimate strength but not with
a) yield strength
b) design stress
c) shear stress
d) all of these
27. The three moment equation may be used to analyze a
a) tapered column
b) continuous beam
c) endurance limit
d) tensile stress
28. Poissons ratio is the ratio of
a) shear strain to compressive strain
b) elastic limit to compressive strain
c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain
d) elastic limit to proportional limit
29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body and the time that the resultant acts.
a) angular impulse
b) angular momentum
c) Linear impulse
d) linear momentum
30. The system of forces and opposite collinear forces are added, which of the following if any is true?
a) equilibrium is destroyed
b) equilibrium is maintained
c) none of these is true
d) an unbalance of moment exist
31. What is the property of a material, which resists forces acting to pull the material apart?
a) shear strength
b) tensile strength
c) torsional strength
d) compressive strength

32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that causes twisting?
a) torsional strength
b) modulus of elasticity
c) twisting moment
d) elasticity

33. The unit deformation is called

a) torsion
b) strain
c) stress
d) shear
34. The total amount of permanent extension of the gage length measured after specimen has fractured and is expressed as percentage
increase of the original length.
a) elongation
b) strain
c) stress
d) elastic limit
35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity determined by considering the maximum test load to act over the original area of the
test specimens called
a) yield point
b) ultimate strength
c) break strength
d) elastic limit
36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a tension test is called
a) stress
b) elasticity
c) strain
d) tensile strength
37. Which of the following is the different of the shear equation?
a) bending moment
b) load on the beam
c) tensile strength of the beam
d) slope of the beam
38. The change in length per unit original length
a) strain
b) stress
c) deformation
d) elastic modulus
39. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is
a) fatigue strength
b) bending strength
c) torsional strength
d) compressive strength
40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes a member to twist.
a) shear strength
b) tensile strength
c) bearing strength
d) torsional strength
41. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is called
a) creep
b) modulus of rigidity

c) modulus of elasticity
d) poissons ratio
42. The ability of metal to withstand loads without breaking down is termed as
a) strain
b) stress
c) elasticity
d) strength
43. The last point at which a material may be stretched a still return to its underformed
condition upon release of the stress.
a) rupture limit
b) elastic limit
c) proportional limit
d) ultimate limit
44. The deformation that results from a stress and is expressed in terms of the amount of deformation per inch.
a) elongation
b) strain
c) poissons ratio
d) elasticity
45. The internal resistance a material offers to being deformed and is measured in terms
of applied load.
a) strain
b) elasticity
c) stress
d) resilience
46. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to alternating or repeated
loading without causing failure.
a) Ultimate strength
b) yield strength
c) endurance strength
d) rupture strength
47. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected before failure occurs is
called:
a) Rupture strength
b) ultimate strength
c) Yield strength
d) proportional limit
48. The total deformation measured in the direction of the line of stress.
a) strain
b) elasticity
c) elongation
d) contraction
49. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load is called
a) friction torque
b) stress
c) rigidity
d) compressive force
50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following a number of twist.
a) shear strength
b) bearing strength
c) endurance limit
d) deformation

TEST 3
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress.

a) proportionality constant
b) strain
c) Modulus
d) Factor of safety
2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free end, the moment is
a) constant along the beam
b) maximum at the wall
c) maximum half way out on the beam
d) maximum at the free end
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand.
a) yield point
b) bearing strength
c) ultimate strength
d) point of rupture
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed the strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can be
deducted about this material?
a) It is elastic.
b) It has a modulus of elasticity.
c) it is plastic
d) it is ductile.
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing load toward the fixed end
a)
b)
c)
d)

has uniform shear

has a reaction equal to the load
will have maximum bending moment midway to the beam
has a reaction is not equal to the load

6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces

a)
b)
c)
d)

depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surface

depends only on the finish condition pf the surface
does not depend on the materials
depends on the composition of the materials only

7. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected before failure occurs.
a) rupture stress
b) yield stress
c) ultimate stress
d) allowable stress
8. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load.
a) flexure
b) stress
c) elasticity
d) rigidity
9. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular beams are the same and both are
put to equal bending moment then the correct statement is
a) both the beams are equally economical
b) both the beams are equally strong
c) the circular beam is more economical
d) the square beam is more economical
10. Ties are load carrying members that carry
a) axial compressive loads
b) axial tension loads
c) prestressing thick cylinders
d)relieving thick cylinders
11. Auto frottage is the method of

a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders

b) increasing life of thick cylinders
c) prestressing thick cylinders
d) relieving thick cylinders
12. Mohrs circle can be used to determine _________ on inclined surface.
a) principal stress
b) normal stress
c) tangential stress
d) all of the above
13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of
a) linear stress to longitudinal strain
b) shear stress to shear strain
c) shear to strain
d) shear stress to volumetric strain
14. The total strain energy stored in a body is called
a) resilience
b) proof resilience
c) modulus of resilience
d) toughness
15. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)

one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same length

one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length
one third that of a prismatic bar of the same length
that of a prismatic bar of the same length

16. Which one is the incorrect statement about true stress-strain method?
a)
b)
c)
d)

it is more sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions.

There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain.
This method can be used for compression tests as well.
True stress is load per unit area and similarly true strain is determined under actual conditions.

17. The tensile stress of a material is given by

a)
b)
c)
d)

average load during the test / average at the time of fracture

average load during the test / original cross-sectional area
maximum load during test / area at the time of fracture
maximum load during test / original cross-sectional area

18. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops what kind of stress?
a) compressive stress
b) principal stress
c) shear stress
d) tensile stress
19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly
a) one-half
b) one-third
c) one-fourth
d) the same
20. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as
a) bulk modulus
b) modulus of elasticity
c) modulus of rigidity
d) unit stress
21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as compared to its ultimate compressive stress will be

a) less
b) more
c) more or less depending on the factors
d) same
22. The relation between modulus of elasticity E and modulus of elasticity in shear G, bulk modulus of elasticity K and Poissons ratio is
given by
a) E = Gu
b) E = G (u + 1)
c) E = 2g(u+1)
d) E = 4G (1+2u)
23. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will be
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) minimum or maximum
d) zero
24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test is
a) an irregular
b) a parabola
c) a sudden break
d) a straight line
25. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a circular section is equal to
a) 2
b) 2/3
c) 3/2
d)
26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poissons ratio of 0.25 will be equal to
a) 3/2
b) 5/16
c) 1
d) 2
27. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of
a) axis of load
b) perpendicular to the axis of load
c) minimum cross-section
d) least radius of gyration
28. The stress in an elastic material is
a)
b)
c)
d)

inversely proportional to the materials yield strength

inversely proportional to the force acting
proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon by the force
inversely proportional to the strain

29. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined as the ratio of its
a)
b)
c)
d)

length to its minimum width

unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration
length to its moment of inertia
unsupported length to its least radius of gyration

30. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as

a) modulus of elongation
b) plastic range
c) irreversible range
d) elastic range

31. Principal stresses occur on those planes

a)
b)
c)
d)

where the shearing stress is zero

which are 45 degrees apart
where the shearing stress is a maximum
which are subjected only to tension
32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross-section of a beam to the section
modulus is
a)
b)
c)
d)

equal to the radius of gyration

equal to the area of the cross section
a measure of distance
multiplied by the bending moment to determine the stress

33. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop what kind of stress?
a) bending stress
b) compressive stress
c) shearing stress
d) tensile stress
34. The bending moment at a section of a beam is derived from the
a)
b)
c)
d)

sum of the moments of all external forces on one side of the section
difference between the moments on one side of the section and the opposite side
sum of the moments of all external forces on both sides of the section
sum of the moments of all external forces between supports

35. The stress concentration factor

a)
b)
c)
d)

is a ratio of the average stress on a section to the allowable stress

can not be evaluated for brittle materials
is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden change of cross-section
is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a cross section to the average stress over the section

36. Poissons ratio is the ratio of the

a)
b)
c)
d)

unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation

unit stress to unit strain
elastic limit to proportional limit
shear strain to compressive strain

37. Hookes law for an isotropic homogeneous medium experiencing one dimensional stress is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)

Stress = E (strain)
Strain = E (stress)
(Force)(Area) = E (change in length/length)
strain energy = E (internal energy)

38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is

a)
b)
c)
d)

a function of the length and depth

defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation
equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus Poissons ratio
defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia

39. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply supported at both ends and subject to a total load uniformly distributed over its
length L is expressed by the formula
a) L/8
b) L2/8
c) L/2
d) L2/2
40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160), which of the following has the greatest influence on its tendency to buckle under a compressive
load?
a)
b)
c)

the modulus of elasticity of the material

the compressive strength of the material
the radius of gyration of the column

d)

the length of the column

41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points on the beam is equal to the
a)
b)
c)
d)

change in shear between the two points

total shear beyond the two points
average moment between the two points
change in moment between the two points

42. Poissons ratio is principally used in

a)
b)
c)
d)

the determination of capability of material for being shaped

the determination of capacity of a material for plastic deformation with fracture
stress-strain relationships where stresses are applied in more than one direction
the determination of the endurance limit

43. Modulus of resilience is

a)
b)
c)
d)

the same as the modulus of elasticity

a measure of a materials ability to store strain energy
the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
a measure of the deflection of member

44. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset yield stress?
a)
b)
c)
d)

it is elastic limit after which a measurable plastic strain has occurred.

it is the stress at which the material plastically strains 0.2%.
it is the stress at which the material elastically strains 0.2%
it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material.

45. Under very low deformation and at high temperature it is possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress lower than the
critical shear stress. What is this phenomenon called?
a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Creep
d) Shearing
46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the correct term for the stress level at e = 0.20% offset?
a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Offset rupture stress
d) Offset yield stress
47. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
a) Static load
b) Plane
c) High load
d) Repeated load

a)
b)
c)
d)

48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can be
deduced about this material?
It is elastic.
It is plastic.
It is has a high modulus of elasticity.
It is ductile.

49. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a material?

a) 0.45
b) 0.5
c) 0.55
d) 0.60
50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional stress occurs at the
a) center
b) long side

c) medium side
d) short side

TEST 4
1. In a specification schedule is used when the pipe specified as schedule 80, the pipe corresponds to the
a)
b)
c)
d)

extra standard weight

allowable stress
internal pressure
old standard weight

2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls between ________ million pounds per square inch.
a) 26 to 28
b) 28 to 31
c) 20 to 45
d) 50 to 30
3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of
a) accuracy
b) quality
c) stiffness
d) rigidity

4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in compression is usually taken as that in
a) tension
b) bearing
c) torsion
d) yield
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called:
a) Contraction
b) Proportional constant
c) Section modulus
d) Strain
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the flexural stress is _______ when the
vertical shear is maximum.
a) infinity
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) zero
7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually exhibit ________characteristics up to the yield strength as they do when tested in
tension
a) the same
b) less than
c) more than
d) approximately the same
8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine parts have been due to
a) compression
b) fatigue failures
c) negligence
d) torsion
9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su ratios, often called endurance ratio, from
a) 0.23 to 0.65
b) 0.34 to 0.45
c) 0.34 to 0.87
d) 0.63 to 0.93
10. The discontinuity or change of section, such as scratches, holes, bends, or grooves is a

a) stress raiser
b) stress functioning
c) stress raiser
d) stress relieving
11. The degree of stress concentration is usually indicated by the
a) power factor
b) stress concentration factor
c) service factor
d) stress factor
12. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon by an external load, any internal stress that exists is called:
a) Control stress
b) Form stress
c) Residual stress
d) Superposed stress
13. The stress or load induced by the tightening operation.
a) Initial stress
b) Initial tension
c) Residual stress
d) None of these
14. A type of failure due to instability is known as
a) Slenderness ratio
b) Buckingham
c) Buckling
d) Stability
15. The ratio of the length of the column and the radius of gyration of the cross-sectional area about a centroidal axis is called
a) contact ratio
b) constant ratio
c) power factor
d) slenderness ratio
16. Formula that applies to a very slender column is called
a) Column formula
b) Eulers formula
c) Moment formula
d) Slender formula
17. If two principal stresses are zero, the state stress is
a) biaxial
b) monoaxial
c) triaxial
d) uniaxial
18. If one principal stress is zero, the state stress is
a) biaxial
b) monoaxial
c) triaxial
d) uniaxial
19. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the system is
a) biaxial
b) monoaxial
c) triaxial
d) uniaxial
20. Under theories of failure for static loading of ductile material, the design stress is the

a)
b)
c)
d)

endurance strength / factor of safety

factor of safety / yield stress
yield stress / factor of safety
ultimate stress / factor of safety
21. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is ______ that of tensile stress.
a) equal
b) double
c) half
d) three times

22. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the results from the octahedral shear stress theory and those from the maximum
distortion energy theory are ________.
a) more than
b) less than
c) relevant
d) the same
23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along or parallel to the area is called
a) Bearing stress
b) Shearing stress
c) Tangential stress
d) tensile stess
24. Obtained by dividing the differential load dF by the dA over which it acts.
a) Elasticity
b) Elongation
c) Strain
d) Stress
25. The highest ordinate in the stress strain diagram or curve is called
a) elastic limit
b) rapture strength
c) ultimate strength
d) yield point
26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude opposite in direction, and not in the same line is called
a) couple
b) momentum
c) parallel forces
d) torque
27. Framework composed of members joined at their ends to form a rigid structure is known as :
a) Joists
b) Machine
c) Purlins
d) Truss
28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile strain is called
a) Bulk modulus
b) Hookes law
c) Shear modulus
d) Young modulus
29. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain is called the coefficient of volume elasticity or
a) bulk modulus
b) Hookes law
c) shear modulus
d) Young modulus

30. The action of a force is characterized by

a) its magnitude
b) direction of its action
c) point of application
d) all of the above
31. At highest or lowest point on the moment diagram
a)
b)
c)
d)

shear is half, the maximum moment

shear is maximum
shear is negative
shear is zero
32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of supporting
a) an axial load
b) a traverse force
c) a bending moment
d) all of these
33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly called
a) Bulk modulus
b) deformation
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Young modulus
34. The stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when unloaded, but will retain a permanent deformation is
termed as
a) elastic limit
b) proportional limit
c) yield point
d) yield strength
35. Refers to the actual stress the material has when under load.
a) Allowable stress
b) Factor of safety
c) Ultimate strength
d) Working stress
36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel engine is about

a)
b)
c)
d)

2000 kg per sq. cm

4600 kg per sq. cm
4890 kg per sq. cm
5633 kg per sq. cm
37. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
38. The load acts over a smaller area, and the ________ continues to increase unit failure.
a) actual stress
b) allowable stress
c) compressive stress
d) tensile stress
39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is a large increase in strain with little or no increase in stress is called
a) Endurance strength
b) Ultimate strength
c) Rapture strength
d) Yield strength

40. A ________ member that carries loads transverse to its axis.

a) structure
b) column
c) beam
d) frame
41. Which type of load that is applied slowly and is never removed?
a) Uniform load
b) Static load
c) Equilibrium load
d) Impact load
42. When varying loads are applied that are not regular in their amplitude, the loading is called
a) Repeated loading
b) Random loading
c) Reversed loading
d) Fluctuating loading
43. A measure of the relative safety of a load-carrying component is termed as
a) design factor
b) load factor
c) ratio factor
d) demand factor
44. The condition, which causes actual stresses in machine members to be higher than nominal values predicted by the elementary direct
and combined stress equations.
a) Stress concentration factor
b) Stress factor
c) Design factor
d) Load factor
45. The stress value, which is used, in the mathematical determination of the required
size of the machine member.
a) Endurance stress
b) Design stress
c) Maximum stress
d) Normal stress
46. Typical values for Poissons ratio of cast iron is in the range of
a) 0.30 to 0.33
b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.25 to 0.27
d) 0.35 to 0.45
47. Typical values for Poissons ratio of steel is in the range of
a) 0.30 to 0.33
b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.25 to 0.27
d) 0.35 to 0.45
48. Typical values for Poissons ratio of aluminum and titanium is in the range of
a) 0.25 to 0.27
b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.30 to 0.33
d) 0.35 to 0.45
49. The angle of inclination of the planes on which the principal stresses act is called
a) normal plane
b) principal plane
c) tangential plane
d) traverse plane

50. _________ provides a very accurate prediction of failure of ductile materials

under static loads or completely reversed normal, shear or combined stresses.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Shear stress theory

Normal stress theory
Distortion energy theory
Soderberg line theory

TEST 5
1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the design of shaft and the limit
should be in the range of ________ degrees/foot of length.
a) 0.004 to 0.006
b) 0.08 to 1
c) 0.006 to 0.008
d) 0.008 to 1
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be _________ degrees maximum and much less if in high rotational speed.
a) 12
b) 16
c) 15
d) 14
3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to consider a limit to the linear
deflection of ________ inch/foot length maximum.
a) 0.050
b) 0.010
c) 0.020
d) 0.060
4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits power.
a) Cam
b) Plate
c) Shaft
d) Flywheel
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. that transmit power is called:
a) Axle
b) Propeller shaft
c) Turbine shaft
d) Machine shaft
6. A line shaft is also known as
a) Counter shaft
b) Jack shaft
c) Main shaft
d) Head shaft
7. Which of the following shaft intermediate between a line shaft and a driven shaft?
a) Counter shaft
b) Jack shaft
c) Head Shaft
d) All of the above
8. Short shafts on machines are called
a) Core shafts
b) Head shafts
c) Medium shafts
d) Spindles
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at the neutral plane where the
normal stress is

a) constant
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) zero
10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from 0.08 per foot of length for
machinery shafts to _______ per foot.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one degree in a length of
_________ diameters.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the deflection should not exceed

____________ of length between supports.

a) 0.01 in. per foot

b) 0.02 in. per foot
c) 0.03 in. per foot
d) 0.04 in. per foot
13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible deflection may be closer to
a) 0.02 in/ft
b) 0.01 in/ft
c) 0.002 in/ft
d) 0.030 in/ft
14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the deflecting forces on the shaft with its attached bodies will then vibrate violently,
since the centrifugal force changes its direction as the shaft turns.
a) Critical speed
b) Geometrical speed
c) Mean speed
d) Unit speed
15. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined shock and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to the computed bending
moment is
a) 1.0
b) 1.3
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
16. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield strength be about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.25 for minor shock loads, and
_________ when the loading reverse during operation.
a) 3.0
b) 4.0
c) 3.5
d) 4.5
17. A column is called short column when
a)
b)
c)
d)

the length is more than 30 times the diameter

slenderness ratio is more than 120
the length is less than 8 times the diameter
the slenderness ratio is more than 32

18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress
a) is uniform throughout
b) has maximum value at the axis

c)
d)

has maximum value at the surface

is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface of the shaft

19. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of

a)
b)
c)
d)

axis of load
perpendicular to the axis of load
minimum cross-section
least radius of gyration
20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of

a)
b)
c)
d)

clad material
composite material
homogeneous material
heterogeneous material
21. The column splice is used for increasing
a)
b)
c)
d)

strength of the column

cross-sectional area of the column
length of the column
all of the above
22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed load on it, the bending moment is
a) triangle
b) parabola
c) semi-circle
d) rectangle
23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel through the
a) countershaft
b) crank shaft
c) transmission shaft
d) line shaft
24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely

a)
b)
c)
d)

single piece and built up

forged and turned
rotary and stationary
none of these
25. Engine valves get open by means of
a) cam shaft
b) rocker shaft
c) crank shaft
d) valve guard
26. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in practice for main transmitting shafts is
a) 282 kg/cm2
b) 423 kg/cm2
c) 599 kg/cm2
d) 620 kg/cm2
27. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in practice for line shafts carrying pulleys is
a) 150 kg/cm2
b) 282 kg/cm2
c) 423 kg/cm2
d) 550 kg/cm2
28. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in practice for small, short shafts, countershafts is
a) 282 kg/cm2
b) 599 kg/cm2
c) 650 kg/cm2

d) 750 kg/cm2
29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be limited to _______ in 20 diameters.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)

0.001 in. per foot of length

0.005 in. per foot of length
0.01 in. per foot of length
0.05 in. per foot of length
31. Front axle should be live and
a) weak
b) dead
c) strong
d) none of these
32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by means of a
a) connecting rod
b) tie rod
c) push rod
d) spindle
33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation speed of ________ rest higher than that of engines speed.
a) main shaft
b) crank shaft
c) propeller shaft
d) machine shaft
34. A slip joint ________ the length of propeller shaft.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) keeps appropriate
d) none of these
35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear box, and propeller shaft and
a) brake
b) differential
c) steering
d) main shafting
36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary shaft.
a) equal to
b) more than
c) less than
d) in the gear ratio
37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay shaft.
a) before
b) after
c) parallel to
d) adjacent to
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of _________ remain the same

a)
b)
c)

primary and lay shafts

main and lay shafts
primary and main shafts

d)

secondary and main shafts

39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in _________ direction.
a) in the same
b) different
c) reverse
d) none of the above
40. It is an integral part of a machine.
a) Spindle
b) Axle
c) Counter shaft
d) Machine shaft
41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through
a) torsional
b) bending
c) axial
d) all of these
42. What is the standard stock length?
a) 16 ft
b) 20 ft
c) 24 ft
d) all of the above

43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds ________ also employ these flexible
shafts.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1000 to 3000 rpm

5000 to 10000 rpm
15000 to 30000 rpm
20000 to 50000 rpm
44. Which of the following material is used for shafting?
a) AISI 3240
b) AISI 3150
c) AISI 4063
d) AISI 33000
45. The process of redistributing the mass attached to a rotating body in order to reduce
vibrations arising from a centrifugal force.
a) Shaft coupling
b) Shaft balancing
c) Shaft hooper
d) stator balancing
46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft is an import design feature.
a) deflections
b) rigidity
c) size
d) strength
47. Commercial shafting is made of
a) low carbon steel
b) cast iron
c) brass
d) bronze

48. What is the most common material for shafting?

a) Wrought iron
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Aluminum
49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft that hot rolling, but with higher residual stresses.
a) weaker
b) stronger
c) harder
d) none of the above
50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to ________ are common in design of a shaft.
a)
b)
c)
d)

3000 to 5000 psi

4000 to 6000 psi
5000 to 8000 psi
6000 to 10000 psi

TEST 6
1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional angular flexibility due to introduction with some elastic material cylindrically
wrapped around the bolts in the flange.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Simple elastic bonded coupling

Elastic material bushed coupling
Elastic material bonded coupling
All of these

2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat and tapered with head?
a) Pin key
b) Saddle key
c) Gib-head keys
d) None of these
3. What are considered as the most common keys?
a) Flat key
b) Square key
c) Saddle key
d) A & B above
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a drive fit.
a) Pin key
b) Saddle key
c) Gib-head key
d) None of these
5. A key with one of several patented methods of keying is driven or pressed into a hole that is small enough to close the slit, assembled in
radial direction.
a) Fit key
b) Saddle key
c) Roll Pin
d) Pin key
6. Kennedy keys are also known as
a) Tangential keys
b) Normal keys

c) Saddle keys
d) Roll Pin
7. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but prevents the rotation of the shaft.
a) Woodruff key
b) Feather key
c) Gibbs key
d) Square key
8. Which of the following type of fits used for involute spline?
a) Close fit
b) Press
c) Sliding
d) All of these
9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute splines except that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg.
a) Separation load
b) Stub serrations
c) Spline shaft
d) Involute serrations
10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fall in
a) compression
b) shear
c) tension
d) double shear
11. In case of sunk key,
a)
b)
c)
d)

the key is cut in both shaft and hub

the key way is cut in hub only
the key way is cut in shaft only
the key way is helical along the shaft

12. Splined shafts are generally for

a) air craft
b) automobiles
c) bicycles
d) machine tools
13. Splines are used when
a)
b)
c)
d)

the power to be transmitted is low

the power to be transmitted is high
the torque is high
axial relative motion between shaft and hub is necessary

14. Which key normally used in wristwatches?

a) Kennedy key
b) Sunk key
c) Tangent key
d) None of the above
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same material and of equal strength the
length of key would be equal to
a) d
b) 0.75 d
c) 1.2 d
d) 1.5 d
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key made by a side milling cutter in the form of a segment of a disk.
a) Kennedy key
b) Saddle key

c) Tangent key
d) Woodruff key
17. A female mating member that forms a groove in the shaft to which the key fits.
a) Key path
b) Key way
c) Key holder
d) Key hole
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square section and driven from opposite ends of the hub is known as
a) Barth key
b) Feather key
c) Kennedy key
d) Saddle key
19. A machine member employed at the interface of a pair of mating male and female
circular cross-sectioned members to prevent relative angular motion between these mating.
a) Key way
b) Key
c) Constant key
d) Variable key
20. A feather key is one of the following types of
a) sunk
b) tapered
c) parallel
d) tangent
21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and fitting into key ways broached
into the mating hub.
a) Square keys
b) Splines
c) Woodruff keys
d) Kennedy keys

22. A type of square key with bottom two corners beveled is called
a) Flat key
b) Feather key
c) Barth key
d) Woodruff key
23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed
a) 600 psi
b) 800 psi
c) 1000 psi
d) 1200 psi
24. The two keys are angularly spaced
a) 45
b) 60
c) 75
d) 90
25. The three keys are angularly spaced
a) 60
b) 90
c) 1200
d) 1800

26. The permissible crushing stress is about _________ times the permissible shear stress.
a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 1.9
d) 1.10
27. Practical considerations required that the hub length should be at least _________ to obtain a good grip.
a) 1.2D
b) 1.5D
c) 1.7D
d) 1.9D
28. For three keys, a _________ percent overload often is used.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one end and a radial through hole in the other end.
a) Clevis pins
b) Taper pins
c) Dower pins
d) Taper pins
30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar devices onto shafts for light-duty service.
a) Clevis pins
b) Cotter pins
c) Dowel pins
d) Taper pins
31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and mating member is called
a) Key way
b) Key path
c) Key hole
d) None of these
32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where there is danger of injury to
machines or to material in process.
a) Flange couplings
b) Involute serrations
c) King pins
d) Shear pins
33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional forces induced by pulling the flanges toward each other over slotted tapered sleeves is
known as
a)
b)
c)
d)

Flange coupling
Flange compression coupling
Ribbed compression coupling
Rigid coupling

34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibration that may appear on one shaft and of preventing the occurrence of reversed
stresses caused by the shaft deflecting at the coupling.
a) Flange coupling
b) Flexible coupling
c) Rigid coupling
d) None of these
35. For a single Hookes coupling the shaft angle should not be greater than
a) 10

b) 12
c) 15
d) 30
36. A universal coupling is
a)
b)
c)
d)

A rigid coupling
A type of flange coupling
Used for collinear coupling
Used for non-collinear shafts

37. A flange coupling is

a)
b)
c)
d)

flexible
used for collinear shafts
used for non-collinear shafts
used only on small shafts rotating at low speed

38. In flange coupling the weakest element should be the

a) bolts
b) flange
c) key
d) shaft
39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
a) fatigue
b) shear forces
c) compression
d) tensile forces
40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for uniting or connecting parts of a mechanical system?
a) Coupling
b) Keys
c) Splines
d) Flexible coupling
41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular flexibility between the input and output shafts.
a) Rigid coupling
b) Flexible coupling
c) Hydraulic coupling
d) Oldham coupling
42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with collinear shafts?
a) Collar coupling
b) Rigid coupling
c) Flexible coupling
d) Hydraulic coupling
43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that have lateral misalignment.
a) Compression coupling
b) Collar coupling
c) Chain coupling
d) Oldham coupling
44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members, which are connected by a
continuous steel spring, and lies in the slots.
a) Ajax coupling
b) Falk coupling
c) Lord coupling
d) Slip coupling
45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several purposes. The most common purpose of shaft coupling is
a)
b)

to provide for the connection of shafts of units that are manufactured separately
to provide for misalignment of the shafts

c)
d)

to reduce the transmission of shock loads from one shaft to another

all of the above

46. Typical hub length falls between _________ where D is the shaft diameter
a) 1.2D and 1.8D
b) 1.25D and 2.4D
c) 1.30 and 2.5D
d) 1.35D and 3.0D
47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be ________ the shaft diameter.
a)
b) 1/3
c)
d) 3/2
48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and is widely used on doors is the
a) Pawl fastener
b) Magnetic fastener
c) Sliding fastener
d) Screw fastener
49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience has shown that, the permissible crushing stress is about ____________ times the
permissible shear stress.
a) 1.3
b) 1.5
c) 1.7
d) 1.9
50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts together for power transmission.
a) Coupling
b) Key
c) Splines
d) None of the above

TEST 7
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is known as
a) Pitch
b) Top flank
c) Top land
d) Crest
2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a
a) thread series
b) thread shear
c) straight thread
d) taper thread
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is called
a) Pitch cone
b) Chamfer
c) Crest
d) Flute
4. The surface connecting the cast and roots of the screw thread.
a) Lead angle
b) Length of engagement
c) Top land
d) Flank
5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one pitch in the axial plane on which design forms of both the external threads are
based.

a)
b)
c)
d)

Basic form of thread

Effective thread
Basic profile of thread
Design form of external thread

6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as to crest and ________ for screw thread.
a) flank
b) root
c) flank tooth
d) top land
7. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed that experience mechanic could bread a ________ bolt due to nut tightening.
a) 3/8
b) 5/8 inch
c) inch
d) 7/16 inch
8. The angle included between the sides of the thread measured in an axial plane in a screw thread.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Angle of thread
Angle between thread or 40 deg
Helix angle thread
Half angle thread
9. Length of contact between two mating parts in screw and nut threads measured axially is called

a)
b)
c)
d)

Arc of contact
Depth of engagement
Length of engagement
Axis of contact
10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in
a) screw thread
b) bolt
c) gear
d) all of these
11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the
a) major diameter
b) minor diameter
c) stress area
d) mean diameter
12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which the width of the thread and the space between threads are approximately equal.
a) square thread
b) acme thread
c) buttress thread
d) whit worth thread
13. A kind of thread that is generally used.
a) UNEC
b) UNC
c) UNF
d) UNEF
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is threaded in both ends.
a) Stud bolt
b) Acme threaded bolt
c) Square threaded bolt
d) Hex bolt
15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts.
a) Shaver
b) Tachometer
c) Tensor

d) Torque wrench
16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads in holes.
a) Tapping tap
b) Plug tap
c) Taper tap
d) Bottoming tap
17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting wooden parts together or wood to metal. It has a short portion of shank just underneath a round
head, which is designed to keep the bolt from turning in the wood when the nut is tightened.
a) U-bolt
b) Carriage bolt
c) Eye bolt
d) Stud bolt
18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads formed around it and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the threads to form
cutting edges. It is used to cut internal threads.
a) Groove
b) Lap
c) Tap
d) Flute
19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but instead has threads on bolts ends.
a) Stud bolt
b) Acme threaded bolt
c) Square bolt
d) Hex bolt
20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that bounds the crest of an external thread.
a) Mean diameter
b) Stress diameter
c) Minor diameter
d) Major diameter
21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances axially in one turn.
a) Lead
b) Circular pitch
c) Pitch
d) Mean pitch
22. Which of the following type of threads recommended for general use?
a) UNC
b) UNEF
c) UNF
d) NC
23. It is frequently used in automobile and aircraft work.
a) UNC
b) UNEF
c) UNF
d) NC
24. Which of the following type of threads are useful in aeronautical equipments?
a) UNC
b) UNEF
c) UNF
d) NC
25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder head studs etc.
a) UNC

b) UNEF
c) UNF
d) 8UN
26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it.
a) Bolt
b) Fastener
c) Rivet
d) None of these
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into a threaded hole?
a) Rivet
b) Screw
c) Stud bolt
d) U-bolt
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt, comes with a square.
a) Coupling bolt
b) Machine bolt
c) Stud bolt
d) Automobile bolt
29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually having coarse threads?
a) Coupling bolt
b) Machine bolt
c) Stud bolt
d) Automobile bolt
30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the shank underneath the head
being square or finned or ribbed.
a) Carriage bolt
b) Coupling bolt
c) Machine bolt
d) Stud bolt
31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends that can be used where a through bolt
is impossible.
a) Carriage bolt
b) Coupling bolt
c) Machine bolt
d) Stud bolt
32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes.
a) Stud bolt
b) Carriage bolt
c) Stove bolt
d) Mini bolt
33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and equipment to a wooden base.
a) Lag screw
b) Log screw
c) Wood screw
d) None of these
34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a minimum of about ___________
for cast iron.
a) D
b) 1.5D
c) 1.2D
d) 2D
35. When the location of bolt is such that it would normally be shear, it is better

practice to use a
a) dummy bolts
b) mid-pins
c) crank pins
d) dowel pins
36. A locking device used to maintain pressure between the threads of the bolt and nut.
a) Gasket
b) Lock nuts
c) Lock washer
d) Lock out
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as
a) major diameter
b) pitch diameter
c) minor diameter
d) none of the above
38. Turn buckle has
a)
b)
c)
d)

left hand threads on both ends

left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end
right hand threads on both ends
no threads

39. The diameter of a washer is generally

a)
b)
c)
d)

equal to the diameter of bolt

slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
of any size that suits the application

40. The stress concentration is maximum at _________ in a standard coarse thread.

a) all over the surface
b) flank
c) root
d) top surface
41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has
a)
b)
c)
d)

one small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one
loosening, creating friction jamming.
a slot is cut partly in middle of nut partly in middle of tightening of screw
hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip.
Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse
direction at other end

42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of a least ________ times
the diameter of the anchor bolt.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
43. Foundation bolts should be at least ____________ times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18
44. No foundation bolts shall be less than _________ mm diameter.

a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at least ___________ times the bolt diameter.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
46. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of motion is one of the
following types of ___________ threads.
a) acme
b) vee
c) knuckle
d) British Association
47. The spindle of bench vises are usually provided with
a) buttress threads
b) square threads
c) acme threads
d) v-threads
48. Any device to connect or joint more components.
a) Bolt
b) Screw
c) Fastener
d) None of the above
49. When the threads are of opposite hand, the driven screw moves rapidly is known as
a) Bearing screw
b) Compound screw
c) Differential screw
d) Set screw
50. The threaded length is about _________ times the diameters.
a) 1.25
b) 1.5
c) 1.8
d) 2.0

TEST 8
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is
a) 6 x 27
b) 6 x 37
c) 6 x 9
d) 6 x 21

2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire rope arrangement except this ________ which deals with rope materials strength .
a) performed
b) IWRC
c) Mps
d) Lang lay
3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for wire rope pulley / sheave applications.
a) Plastic
b) Iron
c) Paper
d) Copper alloy
4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope design starts at 3-4 for standing rope application, 5-12 for operating rope and
__________ for hazard to life and properly application like foundry operation.
a) higher value
b) 7 10
c) 8 10
d) 10 18
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and standards are arranged in the following manner _________
a)
b)
c)
d)

twisted in same direction

twisted in any direction
twisted in opposite direction
twisted in along direction
6. A process of prestressing or over stressing a hollow cylindrical member beyond the elastic range by hydraulic pressure.
a) Presstage
b) Stress relieving
c) Auto frettage
d) Countersinking
7. When two touching surface have a high contact pressure and when these surfaces have minute relative motion a phenomenon called
a) Carving
b) Friction
c) Fretting
d) Prestressing
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are generally made by
a) slush casting
b) pressure casting
c) extrusion
d) centrifugal casting
9. Hoop stress refers to

a)
b)
c)
d)

circumferential tensile stress

compressive stress
longitudinal stress
radial stress
10. Autfrettage is the method of
a)
b)
c)
d)

calculating stress in thick cylinders

increasing life of thick cylinders
prestressing thick cylinders
relieving thick cylinders

11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is
a)
b)
c)

maximum at inner surface and decreases toward outer surface

minimum at inner surface and increases towards outer surface
minimum at inner and outer surfaces and maximum in middle

d)

maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in middle

12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point in the thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress Sr and hoop stress Sh are
related as
a)
b)
c)
d)

Sr Sh = constant
Sr + Sh = constant
Sr/Sh = constant
Sr Sh/Sr = constant
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when subjected to internal pressure P, if Poissons ratio of material is , the
circumferential or hoop strain is
a) Pd(1-2)/2tE
b) Pd(1-2)/
c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE
d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to the inside diameter is may be called a thin cylinder
a) less than 0.05
b) less than 0.
c) more than 0.05
d) more than 0.07
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an apparent factor of safety of
a) 1 to 3
b) 4 to 6
c) 5 to 7
d) 8 to 10
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross section having a continuous periphery.
a) Gear
b) Flywheel
c) Sphere
d) Tube
17. The thickness should be multiplied by _________ to obtain the nominal wall thickness.
a) 5/8
b) 8/5
c) 7/8
d) 8/7
18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Thin-walled cylinders
Thick-walled cylinders
Solid-walled cylinders
Hard-walled cylinders

19. To obtain safe working pressure the critical pressure, should be at least ______ times the working pressure.
a) 3
b) 4
c)
d) 6
20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the surface of contact depends on the ___________ of the materials.
a) strength
b) hardness
c) modulus of elasticity
d) modulus of rigidity
21. In cross or regular lay ropes the
a)
b)

direction of twist in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of strands

direction of twist of wires and strands are the same

c)
d)

wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction

wires are not twisted

22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible?

a) 6 by 7
b) 6 by 19
c) 6 by 37
d) 8 by 19
23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in opposite direction.
a) Long lay
b) Lang lay
c) Regular lay
d) Performed
24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in the same direction.
a) Long lay
b) Lang lay
c) Performed
d) Non-performed
25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and guardrails.
a) 6 x 35 IWRC
b) 6 x 25 IWRC
c) 7 x 7 IWRC
d) 6 x 8 IWRC
26. A rope used for general-purpose.
a) 6 x 15 IWRC
b) 6 x 21 IWRC
c) 6 x 19 IWRC
d) 7 x 26 IWRC
27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated cranes, hoists.
a) 6 x 34 IWRC
b) 6 x 35 IWRC
c) 6 x 37 IWRC
d) 6 x 45 IWRC
28. The regular materials for wire rope are made of
a) cast steel
b) chromium
c) wrought iron
d) high-carbon steel
29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow Steel is in the range of
a) 200 and 400 ksi
b) 240 and 280 ksi
c) 230 and 260 ksi
d) 400 and 500 ksi
30. The minimum suggested design factor of ________ for ropes miscellaneous hoisting equipment.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for cast iron.
a) 200 psi
b) 300 psi
c) 400 psi

d) 500 psi
32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ________ for cast steel.
a) 700 psi
b) 900 psi
c) 1000 psi
d) 1200 psi
33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for manganese steel.
a) 2000 psi
b) 2300 psi
c) 2500 psi
d) 3000 psi
34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first wrapped into
a) layer
b) segment
c) strands
d) none of these
35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope is made of six strands each containing
a) 7 pieces
b) 7 diameters
c) 7 wires
d) 7 strands
36. Ropes are made of
a) aluminum alloys
b) copper
c) bronze
d) all of the above
37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the strength of all the wires in the rope
a) excess strength
b) reserve strength
c) factor of safety
d) ratio of factor
38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
a) elevators
b) cranes
c) tramways
d) all of the above
39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J.F. Howe indicate that for steel ropes of the ordinary constructions the value of modulus of
elasticity is
a) 10,000,000 psi
b) 10,500,000 psi
c) 11,000,000 psi
d) 12,000,000 psi
40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use drums ______________ times the rope diameter.
a) 60 to 70
b) 60 to 80
c) 60 to 90
d) 60 to 100
41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for haulage rope?
a) 70d
b) 71d
c) 72d
d) 73d

42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for standard hoisting rope?
a) 40d
b) 45d
c) 50d
d) 55d
43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for extra-flexible hoisting rope?
a) 30d
b) 31d
c) 32d
d) 33d
44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first wrapped into
a) pulp
b) strands
c) helices
d) hemp
45. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design factor of guys is
a) 3.0
b) 3.5
c) 4.0
d) 5.0
46. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design factor of miscellaneous hoisting equipment is
a) 3.0
b) 5.0
c) 7.0
d) 9.0
47. An extra flexible rope is
a) 6 x 7
b) 6 x 19
c) 6 x 37
d) 7 x 7
48. The strength of the rope is always ____________ the sum of the strength of wires
a) less than
b) more than
c) equal
d) the same
49. One of the most popular rope style is
a) 6 x 7
b) 6 x 19
c) 6 x 37
d) 7 x 7
50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9