SSC CGL Guide

Free Guide for SSC Combined Graduate
Level Examination
TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. SSC CGL Syllabus
B. Topic wise Sample Practice Questions

1. GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING (VERBAL)
• Alphabet Test
• Logical Sequence of Words
• Classification Test
• Analogy
• Series Completion
• Coding-Decoding
• Blood Relation
• Direction Sense Test
• Alpha-Numeric Sequence Test
• Number, Ranking and Time Sequence Test
• Mathematical Operations
• Puzzle Test
• Logical Venndiagram
• Logical Venndiagram
• Inserting the Missing Character
• Data Sufficiency
2. GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING (NON - VERBAL)
• Series
• Analogy
3. QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
• Number System
• Squares, Cubes and Indices
• Decimal Fractions
• HCF & LCM
• Average
• Ratio & Proportion
• Partnership, Mixtures and Alligations
• Problems on Ages
• Percentage
• Profit & Loss
• Time and Work
• Pipes and Cisterns
• Time and Distance
• Problems on Train
• Alligation or Mixture
• Probability
• Boats and Streams
• Simple Interest
• Compound Interest
• Area
• Volume and Suface Area
• Stock and Shares
4. ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
• Narration (Direct and Indirect)

• Common Error
• One-Word Substitution
• Synonyms and Antonyms
• Idioms and Phrases
• Sentence Correction
• Sentence Arrangements
• Analogy
• Foreign Words & Phrases
• Comprehension
5. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
• Indian History
• General Science
• Indian Polity
• Indian Economy
C. SOLVED PAPER SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL PRELIM
D. Study Kit for SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination

Guidance Programme for SSC CGL Exam 2012:
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Staff Selection Commission

Combined Graduate Level Examination,
Exam Syllabus
Tier - I
A. General Intelligence & Reasoning:
It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may
include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial
orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory,
discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural
classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding,
statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy,
Symbolic/Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification,
Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series,
Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical
Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn
Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern –folding & un-folding, Figural
Pattern – folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching,
Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding,
decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence,
Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.
B. General Awareness :
Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of
the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be
designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day
observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated
person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring
countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General
Policy & Scientific Research.
C. Quantitative Aptitude :
The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and
number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole
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numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio &
Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership
Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic
identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle
and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its
chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or
more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right
Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular
Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric
ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights
and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.
D. English Comprehension :
Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing
ability, etc. would be tested.
The questions in Posts A,B & D will be of a level commensurate with the Essential
Qualification prescribed for the post viz graduation and questions in Part C will be
of 10+2 level.
Tier - II
Paper-I : Quantitative Ability : The questions will be designed to test the ability of
appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will
be the computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between
numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and
Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time
& Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of
Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of
triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common
tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right
Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular
Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric
ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights
and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
Paper-II : English Language & Comprehsion : Questions in this components will be

designed to test the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and
will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting
mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences,
active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of
sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension
passage.

Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme

Implementation & Compiler in RGI. Collection Classification and Presentation of
Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of
data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of
frequency distributions.
• Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean

median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.
• Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile
deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative
dispersion.
• Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their
relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness
and kurtosis.
• Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient;
simple regression lines; Spearman’s rank correlation; Measures of association of
attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three
variables only).
• Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability;
Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes’
theorem.
• Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability
functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a
random variable; Binomial , Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint
distribution of two random variable (discrete).
• Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic,
Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling
techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling,
multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling,
convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement
only); Sample size decisions.
• Statistical Inference - Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a
good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood
method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing,
Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F
statistic, Confidence intervals.
• Analysis of Variance - Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified
data.
• Time Series Analysis - Components of time series, Determinations of trend
component by different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different
methods.
• Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of
index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and
splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index
Numbers.

NOTE- I: (i) The Commission will have full discretion to fix separate minimum
qualifying marks in each of the papers in Tier II and in the aggregate of all the papers
separately for each category of candidates (viz. SC/ST/OBC/ including minority sub-
quota /PH/ExS/General (UR) ). Only those candidates who qualify in all the papers as
well as in the aggregate would be eligible to be considered for being called for Interview
and/or Skill Test.
(ii) There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in
Paper-I-Quantitative Ability, which shall not have any component of
Map/Graphs/Statistical Data/ Diagrams/Figures/Geometrical problems/Pie-chart etc.
However, components of other papers will be the same as that for general candidates.
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TOPIC WISE
SAMPLE
PR ACTICE
QUESTIONS
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GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
&
REASONING (VERBAL)
ANSWERS
ALPHABET TEST
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Directions (Q. No. 1-10): In each of the following
Questions, five words are given which of them
will come in the middle it all of them are arranged Classification Test
alphabetically as in a distionary?
1. (a) Bishop (b) Bifocal
(c) Bicycle (d) Bitter Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Choose the word which
2. (a) Parasite (b) Party is look like the other words in the group
(c) Petal (d) Paste 1. (a) House (b) Cottage
3. (a) Research (b) Rational (c) School (d) Palace
(c) Round (d) Rustic 2. (a) Tamato (b) Cucumber
3. (a) Nature (b) Native (c) Brinjal (d) Carrot
(c) Narrate (d) Diastole 3. (a) Brick (b) Heart
5. (a) Didactic (b) Dictum (c) Bridge (d) Spade
(c) Dictionary (d) Diastole 4. (a) Hostel (b) Hotel
(c) Inn (d) Club
ANSWERS 5. (a) Kennel (b) House
(c) Stable (d) Aviary
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
ANSWERS
Logical Sequence of 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
Words
Direction (Q. No. 1-20): Sequence of occurrence
Analogy
of events or various stages in a process:
1. 1. Curd 2. Grass
Directions (Q. No. 1-20) : In each of the following
3. Butter 4. Milk Questions, there is a certain relationship between
(a) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 (b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 two given words on one side of : : and one word is
(c) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 given on another side of : : while another word is
2. 1. Heel 2. Shoulder to be found from the given alternatives, having
3. Skull 4. Neck the same relation with this word as the words of
5. Knee 6. Chest the given pair bear : choose the correct alternatives.
7. Thigh 8. Stomach 1. Aeroplane : Cockpit : : Train : ?
9. Face 10. Hand (a) Wagon (b) Coach
(a) 2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3 (c) Compartment (d) Engine
(b) 3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1
(c) 4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 3, 2, 5, 8
2. Amnesia : Memory : : Paralysis : ?
(d) 3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1 (a) Movement (b) Limbs
3. 1. Butterfly 2. Cocoon (c) Handicapped (d) Legs
3. Egg 4. Work 3. Meningitis : Brain : : Cirrhosis : ?
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2 (a) Lungs (b) Brain
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1 (c) Liver (d) Heart
4. 1. Rainbow 2. Rain 4. Book : Publisher : : Film : ?
3. Sin 4. Happy (a) Producer (b) Director
5. Child (c) Editor (d) Writer
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 5. Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?
(c) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (d) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
(a) Present (b) Atone FTJBBNM. How is FISHERY written in that
(c) Past (d) Sins code?
(a) ZSFIGJT (b) ZSFGIHR
(c) ZSFGEHR (d) ZSFEHGR
ANSWERS ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
Series Completion Blood Relation
1. Pointing to a woman, Naman said, "She is the

Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Find the missing term in daughter of the only child of my grandmother."
each of the following series : How is the woman related to Naman?
1. 625, 5, 125, 25, 25, ?, 5 (a) Sister (b) Niece
(a) 5 (b) 25 (c) Cousin (d) Data inadequate
(c) 125 (d) 625 2. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his
2. 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ? friend, "She is the grand daughter of the elder
(a) 42 (b) 43 brother of my father." How is the girl in the
(c) 51 (d) 52 photograph related to this man?
3. 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001 (a) Niece (b) Sister
(a) 101 (b) 110 (c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law
(c) 111 (d) 113 3. A man said to a lady, "Your mother's husband's
4. 13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76 sister is my aunt." How is the lady related to
(a) 45 (b) 52 the man?
(c) 54 (d) 55 (a) Daughter (b) Grand daughter
5. 0, 4, 6, 3, 7, 9, 6, ?, 12 (c) Mother (d) Sister
(a) 8 (b) 10 4. If Neena says, "Anita's father Raman is the only
(c) 11 (d) 14 son of my father-in-law Mahipal", then how is
Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to
ANSWERS Mahipal?
(a) Niece (b) Daughter
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) (c) Wife (d) None of these
5. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Rajiv
said, "Her mother has only one grandchild
Coding-Decoding whose mother is my wife." How is the woman
in the picture related to Rajiv?
(a) Cousin (b) Wife
1.In a certain code LAWN is written as JCUP. How (c) Sister (d) Data inadequate
will SLIT be coded in that code?
(a) QNGV (b) QJGV ANSWERS
(c) QNVG (d) NJGV
2. In a certain code SATELLITE is written as 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)
FUBHTLDSHK. How is LAUNCHING written
in that code?
(a) DOUBFMGHO (b) OVBMCFMHG Direction Sense Test
(c) OVMBCFMGH (d) DOUBCFMHG
3. In a certain code LOUD is written as JOSF then
which of the following English words shall be 1. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he
coded as PKQG? turns to South and walks 5 km. Again he turns
(a) RISE (b) ROPE to East and walks 2 km, after this he turns to
(c) ROAD (d) RICE North and walks 9 km. Now, how far is he from
4. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as his starting point?
BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in (a) 3 km (b) 4 km
that code? (c) 5 km (d) 7 km
(a) PSHBMCDRH (b) BHSPMCDRH
2. Raj travelled from a point X straight to Y at a
(c) BHSPOCDRH (d) BHSPNHRDC
distance of 80 metres. He turned right and
5. In a certain code CONCISE is written as
walked 50 metres, then again turned right and
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walked 70 metres. Finally, he turned right and 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
walked 50 metres. How far is he from the way based on the positions of the elements in
starting point? the above arrangement and hence form a
(a) 10 metres (b) 20 metres group. Which one does not belong to the
(c) 50 metres (d) 70 metres group?
3. Laxman went 15 kms to the west from my (a) 2 Y C D (b) £ S 1 3
house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He (c) J S © 3 (d) = # 2 C
then turned East and walked 25 kms and finally 5. 2 Y S is to E G £ in the same way as P H K is to?
turning left covered 20 kms. How far was he (a) W Q β (b) @ W L
from his house? (c) @ β Q (d) @ W K
(a) 5 kms (b) 10 kms
(c) 40 kms (d) 80 kms ANSWERS
4. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the
North. Then he turned West and covered 10 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
kms. Then, he turned South and covered 5 kms.
Finally, turning to East, he covered 10 kms. In
which direction is he from his house?
Number, Ranking and
(a) East (b) West Time Sequence Test
(c) North (d) South
5. Going 50 m to the South of her house, Radhika 1. If the positions of the first and the sixth digits
turns left and goes another 20 m. Then, turning of the number 2796543018 are interchanged,
to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts similarly the positions of the second and the
walking to her house. seventh digits are interchanged and so on,
In which direction is she walking now? which of the following will be the third to the
(a) North-west (b) North left of seventh digit from the left end?
(c) South-east (d) East (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 7 (d) 8
ANSWERS 2. What will be the difference between the sum
of the odd digits and the sum of the even digits
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) in the number 857423?
(a) 0 (b) 1
Alpha-Numeric Sequence (c) 2 (d) None of these
3. If each of the odd digits in the number 54638 is
Test decreased by 1 and each of the even digits is
increased by 1, then which of the following will
Directions (Q. No. 1 to 5) : These questions are be the sum of the digits of the new number?
based on the following arrangement; (a) 25 (b) 26
JY2=S£ξEGM¤7$HP9KLβ@WQ13#C (c) 28 (d) 29
DÓ 4. How many times will you write even numerals
if you write all the numbers from 291 to 300?
1. How many such symbols are there in the above
(a) 11 (b) 13
arrangement each of which is either
(c) 15 (d) 17
immediately followed by a number or
5. A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also,
immediately preceded by a letter, but not both?
it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number
(a) Nil (b) One
is?
(c) Two (d) Three
(a) 5 (b) 6
2. How many such letters are there in the above (c) 7 (d) 8
immediately followed by a number or ANSWERS
immediately preceded by a symbol, but not
both? 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
(a) Four (b) Five
(c) Six (d) None of these
3. How many such letters are there in the above Mathematical Operations
immediately followed by a number or 1. If + means ÷, ÷ means –, – means ×, × means +,
immediately preceded by a symbol, but not then 12 + 6 ÷ 3 – 2 × 8 = ?
both? (a) – 2 (b) 2
(a) Two (b) Three (c) 4 (d) 8
(c) Four (d) Five
2. If + means –, – means ×, ÷ means + and × means (c) (iii)
÷, then 15 – 3 + 10 × 5 ÷ 5 = ? (d) All are required
(a) 5 (b) 22
(c) 48 (d) 52 ANSWERS
3. If × means ÷, – means ×, ÷ means + and + means
–, then (3 – 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ? 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
(a) – 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8
4. If × means +, + means ÷, – means × and ÷ means Logical Venndiagram
–, then 8 × 7 – 8 + 40 ÷ 2 = ?
2 Directions (Q. No. 1-5) : In the following diagram,
(a) 1 (b) 7
5 the circle represents College Professors, the
triangle stands for Surgical Specialists, and
3
(c) 8 (d) 44 Medical Specialists are represented by the
5 rectangle.
5. If × means –, + means ÷, – means × and ÷ means
+, then 15 – 2 ÷ 900 + 90 × 100 = ? A
(a) 190 (b) 180
(c) 90 (d) None of these D
X Y X
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) B Z B
C
Puzzle Test 1. College Professors who are also Surgical
Specialists are represented by
(1) A (b) B
Directions (Q. No. 1-5): Study the given (c) C (d) D
information carefully and answer the questions 2. Surgical Specialists who are also Medical
that follow : Specialists but not Professors are represented
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and by
all of them are facing east. (a) B (b) X
(c) X (d) Z
(ii) C is on the immediate right of D.
3. C represents
(iii) B is at an extreme end and has E as his
(a) Medical Specialists
neighbour.
(b) College Professors
(iv) G is between E and F. (c) Surgical Specialists
(v) D is sitting third from the south end. (d) Mecial and Surgical Specialists
1. Who is sitting to the right of E? 4. B represents
(a) A (b) C (a) Professors who are neither Medical nor
(c) D (d) F Surgical Specialists
2. Which of the following pairs of people are (b) Professors who are not Surgical Specialists
sitting at the extreme ends? (c) Medical Specialists who are neither
(a) AB (b) AE Professors nor Surgical Specialists
(c) CD (d) FB (d) Professors who are not Medical Specialists
3. Name the person who should change place 5. College Professors who are also Medical
with C such that he gets the third place from Specialists are represented by
the north end. (a) A (b) X
(a) E (b) F (c) Y (d) Z
(c) G (d) D
4. Immediately between which of the following
pairs of people is D sitting? ANSWERS
(a) AC (b) AF
(c) CE (d) CF 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
5. Which of the conditions (i) to (v) given above
is not required to find out the place in which A
is sitting?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
III. Some deserts are hills.
Syllogism (a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) Only II and III follow
Directions (Q. No. 1-20) : In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by three ANSWERS
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)
seem to be at variance from the commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
Inserting the
from the given statements disregarding commonly Missing Character
known facts.
1. Statements: All dolls are windows. Directions (Q. No. 1-20): In each of the following
All bottles are windows. questions, a set of figures carrying certain
All cars are bottles. characters, is given. Assuming that the characters
Conclusions: I. All cars are windows. in each set follow a similar pattern, find the
II. Some cars are dolls. missing character in each case.
III. Some windows are cars.
(a) Only I and II follow 1. 4 9 9 16 16 ?
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follow
2. Statements: All fruits are vegetables.
All pens are vegetables.
All vegetables are rains. 6 12 20
Conclusions: I. All fruits are rains. (a) 21 (b) 25
II. All pens are rains. (c) 35 (d) 45
III. Some rains are vegetables.
(a) None follows 2. 18 19 22 24 26 27
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All follow
3. Statements: All snakes are trees.
Some trees are roads.
All roads are mountains. 35 43 ?
Conclusions: I. Some mountains are snakes. (a) 49 (b) 76
II. Some roads are snakes. (c) 89 (d) 94
III. Some mountains are trees.
(a) Only I follows 3. 27 54 42 84 ? 42
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Both I and II follow
4. Statements: Some saints are balls.
All balls are bats.
9 14 7
Some tigers are balls.
Conclusions: I. Some bats are tigers. (a) 12 (b) 21
II. Some saints are bats. (c) 24 (d) 35
III. All bats are balls.
(a) Only I and II follow 4. 2 4 3 9 1 7
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only III follows
5. Statements: Some hills are rivers.
Some rivers are deserts.
20 90 ?
All deserts are roads.
Conclusions: I. Some roads are rivers. (a) 20 (b) 25
II. Some roads are hills. (c) 50 (d) 75
but heavier than Kamal.
5. 4 3 11 9 15 6
5. On a T.V. channel, four serials A, B, C
and D were screened, one on each day,
on four consecutive days but not
necessarily in that order. On which day
was the serial C screened?
144 9801 ? I. The first serial was screened on 23rd,
Tuesday and was followed by serial
(a) 1216 (b) 2250 D.
(c) 8100 (d) 11036 II. Serial A was not screened on 25th and
one serial was screened between
ANSWERS serials A and B.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) ANSWERS

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
Data Sufficiency
Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Each of the Questions
below consists of a Question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data Provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the Questions.
Read both statements and give answer.
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the Question, while the data in
statement II alone are not dufficient to answer
the Question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the Question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer
the Question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in
statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
Question.
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II
together are not sufficient to answer the
Question; and
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the Question.
1. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is the
heaviest?
I. A and D are heavier than B, E and F but
none of them is the heaviest.
II. A is heavier than D but lighter than C.
2. Madan is taller than Kamal and Sharad is
younger than Arvind. Who among them is the
youngest?
I. Sharad is younger than Madan.
II. Arvind is younger than Kamal.
3. Among five friends, who is the tallest?
I. D is taller than A and C.
II. B is shorter than E but taller than D.
4. Manoj, Prabhakar, Akash and Kamal are four
friends. Who among them is the heaviest?
I. Prabhakar is heavier than Manoj and Kamal
but lighter than Akash.
II. Manoj is lighter than Prabhakar and Akash
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
&
REASONING (NON - VERBAL)
Series
Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following (a) (b) (c) (d)
questions consists of five figures called the 5. Problem figures
problem figures followed by five other figures
marked a, b, c, d . Select a figure from amongst
the answer figures. which will continue the same
series as established by the five problem figures.
1. Problem figures
Answer figures
Answer figures (a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Problem figures
Analogy
Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following

Answer figures
questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures
A, B, C and D constitute the problem set while
figures a, b, c, d .There is a difinite relationship
between figures A and B. Establish a similar
relationship between figures C and D by selecting
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a suitable figure from the answer set that would
3. Problem figures
replace the question mark (?) in figure (D)
1. Problem figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Problem figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Problem figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Problem figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Problem figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Problem figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
(c) 5/6 (d) 8/15

Number System 3. A decimal number has 16 decimal places. The
number of decimal places in the square root of
this number will be:
9 3 - 5 - 5 4 ÷ 10 (a) 7 (b) 4
1. Evaluate:
-3 ( 5) - 2 × 4 ÷ 2 (c) 8 (d) 16
(a) 9/10 (b) –8/17 4. Consider the following values of three given
(c) –16/19 (d) 4/7 numers:
2. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers 103, 99.35, 102.20
each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest (a) 10.1489 (Approx.)
among them? (b) 10.109 (Approx.)
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 9.967 (Approx.)
(c) 27 (d) 30 The correct sequence of these values matching
3. 55% of a number is more than one-third of that with the above number is:
number by 52. What is two-fifth of that (a) 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2
number? (c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2
(a) 96 (b) 240 5. If a four-digited perfect square number is such
(c) 144 (d) 142 that the number formed by the first two digits
4. The digits of a two-digit number are in the ratio and the number formed by the last two digits
of 2 : 3 and the number obtained by are also perfect squares, then the four digited
interchanging the digits is bigger than the number is:
original number by 27. (a) 5625 (b) 3616
What is the original number? (c) 1681 (d) 1024
(a) 63 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 69 ANSWERS
5. What least number would be subtracted from
427398 so that the remaining number is 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
divisible by 15?
(a) 13 (b) 3
(c) 16 (d) 11 Decimal Fractions
ANSWERS 1. If 2025 = 45, then the value of
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 0.00002025 + 0.002025 + 2025 +
20.25 =
Squares, Cubes and Indices (a) 49.95
(c) 4.9995
(b) 49.5495
(d) 499.95
5
2. If 15 = 3.88, the the value of is:
.85 ´ (.105 + .024 - .008) 3
1. The expression
.022 ´ .25 ´ 1.7 (a) 1.39 (b) 1.29
simplifies to: (c) 1.89 (d) 1.63
3. If 2805 ÷ 2.55 = 1100, then 280.5 ÷ 25.5 is:
(a) 11 (b) 1.1 (a) 111 (b) 1.1
(c) 0.11 (d) .011 (c) 0.11 (d) 11
4. The value of 213 + 2.013 + 0.213 + 2.0013 is:
16 1 (a) 217.2273
2. The value of + is: (b) 21.8893
36 4
(c) 217.32
(a) 4/5 (b) 1/3
(d) 3.217.32 her eighth examination to obtain an average
of 60% on 8 examinations?
0.05 ´ 0.05 ´ 0.05 + 0.04 ´ 0.04 ´ 0.04
5. =? (a) 88% (b) 78%
0.05 ´ 0.05 - 0.05 ´ 0.04 + 0.04 ´ 0.04 (c) 92% (d) 68%
(a) 0.09 (b) 0.9 3. Ages of ‘A’ and ‘B’ are in the ratio of 2 : 3
(c) 0.009 (d) 0.001 respectively. Six years hence the ratio of their
ages will become 8 : 11 respectively. What is
ANSWERS B’s present age?
(a) 18 years (b) 28 years
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)
(c) 27 years (d) 25 years
4. The total age of A and B is 12 years more than
that of total age of B and C. C is how many
HCF & LCM years younger than A?
(a) C is elder than A (b) 26
1. How many numbers less than 10,000 are there (c) 12 (d) 25
which are divisible by 21, 35 and 63? 5. The average marks fetched by Mohan in
(a) 33 (b) 32 History, Geography, Science and Mathematics
(c) 38 (d) 37 is 10 more than the marks fetched in
2. Find the side of the largest possible square slabs Mathematics. If he has got 110 marks aggregate
which can be paved on the floor of a room 2m in History and Geography, what will be the
50 cm long and 1 m 50 cm broad. Also find the aggregate marks fetched in Science and
number of such slabs to pave the floor. Mathematics?
(a) 40, 18 (b) 30, 15 (a) 90 (b) 70
(c) 50, 15 (d) 20, 25 (c) 75 (d) 85
3. What is the largest number which when
divides 1475, 3155 and 5255 leaves the same ANSWERS
remainder in each case?
(a) 220 (b) 420 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)
(c) 350 (d) 540
4. A florist has 200 roses and 180 jasmines with
him. He was asked to make garlands of flowers Ratio & Proportion
with only roses or only jasmines each
containing the same number of flowers. What 1. In a school the number of boys and that of the
will be the largest number of flowers, he can girls are in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 If the
join together without leaving a single flower? number of boys is increased by 20% and that
(a) 16 (b) 17 of girls is increased by 10%, what will be the
(c) 20 (d) 19 new ratio of number of boys to that of the girls?
5. The HCF and LCM of a pair of numbers are 12 (a) 13 : 7 (b) 7 : 9
and 926 respectively. How many such distinct (c) 13 : 4 (d) 8 : 11
pairs are possible? 2. Income of two companies A and B are in the
(a) 3 (b) 7 ratio of 5 : 8. Had the income of company A
(c) 1 (d) 0 been more by Rs. 25 lakhs, the ratio of their
incomes would have been 5 : 4 respectively.
ANSWERS What is the income of company B?
(a) Rs. 45 lakhs (b) Rs. 80 lakhs
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) (c) Rs. 40 lakhs (d) Rs. 65 lakhs
3. The ratio of males and females in a city is
7 : 8 respectively and the percentage of children
Average among males and females is 25% and 20%
respectively. If the number of adult females in
the city is 1,56,800, what is the total population?
1. The average weight of 8 persons increases by (a) 3,00,000 (b) 3,67,500
2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of (c) 3,96,000 (d) 2,71,500
one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be 4. A sum of money is to be distributed among P,
the weight of the new person? Q and R in the ratio 6: 19:7. If R gives Rs. 200
(a) 82 kg (b) 85 kg from his share to Q, the ratio of P, Q and R
(c) 76.5 kg (d) 80 kg becomes 3 : 10 3 what is the total sum?
2. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 (a) Rs. 6400 (b) Rs. 4800
examinations. How much she should make on (c) Rs. 3200 (d) Rs. 3600
5. A total of 91 boys are seated in three rows. The
ratio between the number of boys seated in the ANSWERS
first and the second row is 5 : 2 respectively
and the ratio between the number of boys 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
seated in the second and the third row is 1 : 3
respectively. How many boys were there in the
second row? Problems on Ages
(a) 24 (b) 14
(c) 42 (d) 60
1. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal
and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio
ANSWERS of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar’s
age at present?
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
(a) 16 years (b) 19 years
(c) 22 years (d) 25 years
Partnership, 2. The total of the ages of Jayant, Prem and

Saransh is 93 years. Ten years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 2 : 3 : 4. What is the present age
of Saransh?
1. Avinash invested an amount of Rs. 25,000 and (a) 44 years (b) 36 years
started a business. Jitendra joined him after one (c) 33 years (d) 38 years
year with an amount of 3. The ratio of the present ages of two brothers is
Rs. 30,000. After two years from starting the 1 : 2 and 5 years back, the ratio was1 : 3. What
business they earned the profit of Rs. 46,000. will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years?
What will be Jitendra’s share in the profit? (a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 2
(a) Rs. 16,000 (b) Rs. 13,000 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 6
(c) Rs. 7,66.67 (d) 17,250 4. Hitesh is 40 years old and Ronnie is 60 years
2. Mr. Nilesh Agrawal opened a workshop old. How many years ago was the ratio of their
investing Rs. 40,000. He invested additional ages 3 : 5?
amount of Rs. 10,000 every year. After two (a) 2 years (b) 10 years
years his brother Suresh joined him with an (c) 30 years (d) 47 years
amount of Rs. 85,000. Thereafter Suresh did not 5. The ratio of the father’s age to his son’s age is
invest any additional amount. On completion 7 : 3. The product of their ages is 756. The ratio
of four years from the opening of workshop of their ages after 6 years will be:
they earned an amount of Rs. 1,95,000. What (a) 6 : 7 (b) 2 : 1
will be Nilesh’s share in the earning? (c) 10 : 9 (d) 3 : 2
(a) Rs. 96,000 (b) Rs. 1,10,000
(c) Rs. 1,35,000 (d) Rs. 98,000 ANSWERS
3. A invests Rs. 3000 for one year in a business.
How much B should invest in order that the 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b)
profit after 1 year may be divided into ratio of
2 : 3?
(a) Rs. 3,000
(c) Rs. 3600
(b) Rs. 1800
(d) Rs. 9,000
Percentage
4. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and
B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are 1. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the
drawn off and can is filled with B, the ratio of larger number. If the smaller number is 20, then
A and B becomes the larger number is:
7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained (a) 25 (b) 46
by the can initially? (c) 27 (d) 82
(a) 28 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 23 2. When any number is divided by 12, then
5. Three friends A, B and C started a business by dividend becomes 1/4th of the other number.
investing amount in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 6 By how much percent first number is greater
respectively. After a period of six months C than the second number?
withdrew half of the amount invested by him. (a) 165 (b) 200
If the amount invested by A is Rs. 40,000 and (c) 300 (d) 400
the total profit earned at the end of one year is 3. If one number is 80% of the other and 4 times
Rs. 33,000, what, is C’s share in profit? the sum of their squares is 656, then the
(a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 15,000 numbers are:
(c) Rs. 11,000 (d) Rs. 12,000 (a) 6,8 (b) 8, 10
(c) 16, 20 (d) 10, 15
4. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of
5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of Time and Work
6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3 1. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12
5. Three candidates contested an election and days, which B and C together can do in 16 days.
received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes After A has been working at it for 5 days and B
respectively. What percentage of the total votes for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many
did the winning candidate get? days C alone will do the work?
(a) 57% (b) 77% (a) 16 (b) 24
(c) 80% (d) 90% (c) 37 (d) 48
2. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and
ANSWERS 40 days respectively. They began to do the work
together but A leaves after some days and then
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) B completed the remaining work in 23 days.
The number of days after which A left the work
was:
Profit & Loss (a) 11
(c) 9
(b) 7
(d) 12
3. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B
1. A man purchased a box full of pencils at the can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3
rate of 7 for Rs. 9 and sold all of them at the days before the completion of the work, A
rate of 8 for Rs. 11. In this transaction, he gained leaves off. The total number of days to
Rs. 10. How many pencils did the box contain? complete the work is:
(a) 111 (b) 112
3 1
(c) 114 (d) 116 (a) 6 (b) 8
2. A man bought a number of clips at 3 for a rupee 5 2
and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At what 1 1
price per dozen should he sell them to make a (c) 10 (d) 13
5 2
profit of 20%?
(a) Rs. 9 (b) Rs. 10 4. A, B and C can complete a work separately in
(c) Rs. 6 (d) Rs. 7 24, 36 and 48 days respectively. They started
together but C left after 4 days of start and A
3. A man buys eggs at 2 for Re. 1 and an equal
left 3 days before the completion of the work.
number at 3 for Rs. 2 and sells the whole at 5
In how many days will the work be completed?
for Rs. 3. His gain or loss percent is:
(a) 15 days (b) 24 days
2 6 (c) 25 days (d) 38 days
(a) 2 % loss (b) 3 % gain
7 7 5. A, B and C together earn Rs. 300 per day, while
A and C together earn Rs. 188 and B and C
2 6 together earn Rs. 152. The daily earning of C
(c) 3 % loss (d) 2 % loss
7 7 is:
4. A man bought some oranges at Rs. 10 per (a) Rs. 40 (b) Rs. 70
dozen and bought the same number of oranges (c) Rs. 112 (d) Rs. 160
at Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges at
Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs.120. The total ANSWERS
number of oranges bought by him was:
(a) 55 dozens (b) 80 dozens 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a)
(c) 90 dozens (d) 60 dozens
5. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How
many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%? Pipes and Cisterns
1 8 (b) 9
(c) 5 (d) 2
1. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours.
1
ANSWERS Because of a leak, it took 2
3
hours to fill the
tank. The leak can drain all the water of the
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) tank in:
(a) 43 hrs (b) 9 hrs
(c) 10 hrs (d) 14 hrs my bicycle went out of order.
2. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 5 hours and Consequently, I rested for 35 minutes
20 hours respectively. If both the taps are open and came back to my house walking all
then due to a leakage, it took 30 minutes more the way. I reached my house at 1 p.m. If
to fill the tank. If the tank is full, how long will my cycling speed is 10 kmph and my
it take for the leakage alone to empty the tank? walking speed is
(a) 44 hrs (b) 12 hrs 1 kmph, then on my bicycle I covered a
(c) 18 hrs (d) 36 hrs distance of:
3. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 61 4
(a) 4 km (b) 13 km
4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then 66 3
B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill 3 7
the cistern. How much time will be taken by A (c) 5 km (d) 15 km
6 8
to fill the cistern separately? 5. A, B and C are on a trip by a car. A drives
(a) 10 hr (b) 4 hrs during the first hour at an average speed
(c) 6 hrs (d) 8 hrs. of 50 km/hr. B drives during the next 2
4. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as hours at an average speed of 48 km/hr.
another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill C drives for the next 3 hours at an
the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe average speed of 52 km/hr. They
alone will be able to fill the tank in: reached their destination after exactly 6
(a) 92 min (b) 112 min hours. Their mean speed was:
(c) 144 min (d) 192 min
5. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B
1
(a) 50 km/hr (b) 50 km/hr
and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is 3
twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A (c) 51 km/hr (d) 52 km/hr
alone take to fill the tank?
(a) 22 hrs (b) 27 hrs ANSWERS
(c) 35 hrs
(d) cannot be determined 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
ANSWERS
Problems on Train
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (6) 4. (c) 5. (c)
1. A train moves past a telegraph post and a
bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds
Time and Distance respectively. What is the speed of the train?
(a) 75 km/hr (b) 82 km/hr
(c) 79 km/hr (d) 79.2 km/hr
1. Mac travels from A to B a distance of 250 miles
2. A train takes 18 seconds to pass completely
1 through a station 162 m long and 15 seconds
in 5 hours. He returns to A in 4 hours 30
2 through another station 120 m long. The length
minutes. His average speed is: of the train is:
(a) 42 mph (b) 49 mph (a) 73 m (b) 92 m
(c) 48 mph (d) 50 mph (c) 90 m (d) 100 m
2. A boy goes to his school from his house at a 3. How many seconds will a 500 metre long train
speed of 3 km/hr and returns at a speed of 2 take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3
km/hr. If he takes 5 hours in going and coming, km/hr in the direction of the moving train if
the distance between his house and school is: the speed of the train is 63 km/hr?
(a) 8.5 km (b) 5.5 km (c) 6 km (d) 9 km (a) 32 (b) 30
3. The average speed of a train in the onward (c) 40 (d) 48
journey is 25% more than that in the return 4. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway
journey. The train halts for one hour on track is 240 metres ahead of the engine of a
reaching the destination. The total time taken 120 metre long train running at 45 kmph in the
for the complete to and for journey is 17 hours, same direction. In how much time will the train
covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of pass the jogger?
the train in the onward journey is: (a) 38 sec (b) 20 sec
(a) 50 km/hr (b) 53 km/hr (c) 36 sec (d) 72 sec
(c) 52 km/hr (d) 56.25 km/hr 5. A train 110 metres long is running with a speed
4. I started on my bicycle at 7 a.m. to reach a of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man
certain place. After going a certain distance, who is running at 6 kmph in the direction
opposite to that in which the train is going? probability that the ticket drawn bears a
(a) 8 sec (b) 6 sec number which is a multiple of 3?
(c) 7 sec (d) 12 sec 3 5 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWERS 10 11 2 5
3. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ticket drawn bears has a
number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
Alligation or Mixture (a)
6
(b)
9
(c)
8
(d)
9
7 11 15 20
1. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties 4. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks.
of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg so that A lottery is drawn at random. What ist he
by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may probability of getting a prize?
gain 10%? 11 7 2 5
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 6 : 7 (a) (b) (c) (d)
13 9 7 7
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 5
5. One card is drawn at random from a pack of
2. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs. 9 52 cards. What is the probability that the card
per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar drawn is a face card?
costing Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain
of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per 5 4
(a) (b)
kg? 7 13
(a) 38 kg (b) 43 kg
1 11
(c) 54 kg (d) 63 kg (c) (d)
3. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk 4 52
2 ANSWERS
to gain 16 on selling the mixture at cost
3
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)
price?
(a) 1 : 6 (b) 7 : 1
(c) 7 : 3 (d) 4 : 3
9. A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk Boats and Streams
at cost price but he mixes it with water and
thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in 1. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph
the mixture is: and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A man
(a) 4% 2. 35% (c) 20% (d) 30% rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and
4. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water comes back to the starting point. The total time
mixed in the ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. taken by him is:
Find the ratio in which these mixture be mixed (a) 22 hours (b) 27 hours
to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing (c) 20 hours (d) 24 hours
spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5? 2. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/hr
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 9 : 4 (c) 5 : 6 (d) 7 : 9 and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The distance
travelled downsteam in 12 minutes is:
ANSWERS (a) 3.3 km (b) 2.9 km
(c) 2.4 km (d) 3.6 km
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
3. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the
velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him
1 hour to row to a place and come back, how
Probability far is the place?
(a) 2.4 km (b) 2.5 km
1. Two dice are thrown simultaneusly. What is (c) 3 km (d) 3.1 km
the probility of getting two numbers whose 4. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling
product is even? downstream from point A to point B and
coming back to a point C midway between A
3 3 3 7 and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 8 9 and the speed of the boat in still water is 14
2. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and kmph, what is the distance between A and B?
then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the (a) 162 km (b) 180 km
(c) 223 km (d) 220 km
5. A man can row 9

1
3
kmph in still water and Compound Interest
finds that it takes him thrice as much time to
row up than as to row down the same distance 1. The difference between compound interest and
in the river. The speed of the current is: simple interest on an amount of Rs. 15,000 for
1 1 2 years is Rs. 96. What is the rate of interest
(a) 2 km hr (b) 4 km hr per annum?
3 9
(a) 8 (b) 11
2 1 (c) 12 (d) None of these
(c) 4 km hr (d) 4 km hr
3 2 2. The difference between simple and compound
interests and compounded annually on a
ANSWERS certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per
annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) (a) 625 (b) 620
(c) 640 (d) 660
3. The compound interest on a sum of money for
Simple Interest 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on
the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800.
The difference between the compound interest
1. If Rs. 64 accounts to Rs. 83.20 in 2 years, what and the simple interest for 3 years will be:
will Rs. 86 amount to in 4 years at the same (a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 67
rate per cent pr annum? (c) Rs. 98.56 (d) Rs. 75.45
(a) Rs. 115.80 (b) Rs. 127.70
4. The difference between the simple interest on
(c) Rs. 127.40 (d) Rs. 51.60
a certain sum at the rate of 10% per annum for
2. The simple interest on a certain sum of money 2 years and compound interest which is
at the rate of 5% p.a. for 8 years is Rs. 840. At compounded every 6 months is Rs. 124.05.
what rate of interest the same amount of What is the principal sum?
interest can be received on the same sum after
(a) Rs. 9000 (b) Rs. 8000
5 years?
(c) Rs. 10,000 (d) Rs. 13,000
(a) 10% (b) 8%
(c) 9% (d) 12% 5. The difference between compound interest and
simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per
3. The interest on a certain deposit at 4.5% p.a. is
annum, when the interest is compounded
Rs. 202.50 in one year. How much will the
annually is Rs. 16. If the interest were
additional interest in one year be on the same
deposit at 5% p.a.? compounded half-yearly, the difference in two
(a) Rs. 30.25 (b) Rs. 22.50 interests would be:
(c) Rs. 25 (d) Rs. 52.75 (a) Rs. 24.81 (b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 31.61 (d) Rs. 35
4. A sum invested at 5% simple interest per
annum grows to Rs. 504 in 4 years. The same ANSWERS
amount at 10% simple interest per annum in
1 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
2 years will grow to:
2
(a) Rs. 530 (b) Rs. 555
(c) Rs. 525 (d) Rs. 650 Area
5. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned
by certain amount at the same rate of interest
for 6 years and that for 9 years? 1. The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 4 : 7 side. The ratio of the length to the breadth of
(c) 2 : 3 (d) data inadequate the rectangle is:
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 3 :1
(c) 2 :1 (d) 2 2 :1
ANSWERS
2. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq.
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length
of its diagonal is:
(a) 15 m (b) 19 m
(c) 17 m (d) 22 m
3. The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm and its (a) 5835 (b) 6400
(c) 6420 (d) 9260
area is 20 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle
must be:
(a) 10 cm (b) 18 cm
ANSWERS
(c) 22 cm (d) 42 cm
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
4. A took 15 seconds to cross a rectangular field
diagonally walking at the rate of 52 m/min and
B took the same time to cross the same field
along its sides walking at the rate of 68 m/min. Stock and Shares
The area of the field is:
(a) 52 m2 (b) 40 m2 1. A 9% stock yields 8%. The market value of the
(c) 61 m 2
(d) 60 m2 stock is:
5. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 sq. m. If (a) Rs. 72 (b) Rs. 94
its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 (c) Rs. 112.50 (d) Rs. 118.50
times the shorter side, the length of the carpet 2. A 12% stock yielding 10% is quoted at:
is: (a) Rs. 87 (b) Rs. 112
(a) 8 m (b) 12 m (c) Rs. 112 (d) Rs. 120
(c) 15 m (d) 14.5 m
3. By investing Rs. 1620 in 8% stock, Michael
earns Rs. 135. The stock is then quoted at:
ANSWERS (a) Rs. 90 (b) Rs. 96
(c) Rs. 106 (d) Rs. 110
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)
4. To produce an annual income of Rs. 1200 from
a 12% stock at 90, the amount of stock needed
is:
Volume and Suface Area (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 12,800
(c) Rs. 13,000 (d) Rs. 16,000
1. A rectangular water tank is 80 m × 40 m. Water 5. In order to obtain an income of Rs. 650 from
flows into it through a pipe 40 sq. cm at the 10% stock at Rs. 96, one must make an
opening at a speed of 10 km/hr. By how much, investment of:
the water level will rise in the tank in half an (a) Rs. 6200 (b) Rs. 6240
hour? (c) Rs. 6500 (d) Rs. 9800
(a)
4
cm (b)
5
cm ANSWERS
11 9
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
5 4
(c) cm 4. cm
8 5
2. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum
of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal
to the sum of areas of the four walls, the
volume of the hall is:
(a) 720 (b) 800
(c) 1200 (d) 2000
3. The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a
cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is 5 5 cm. It
surface area is:
(a) 127 cm2 (b) 236 cm2
(c) 361 cm 2
(d) 480 cm2
4. A swimming pool 9 m wide and 12 m long is 1
m deep on the shallow side and 4 m deep on
the deeper side. Its volume is:
(a) 309 m3 (b) 270 m3
(c) 360 m 3
(d) 607 m3
5. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with
dimensions 48 m × 36 m. From each of its
corners, a square is cut off so as to make an
open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the
volume of the box (in m3) is:
Study Kit for SSC Combined Graduate Level
Examination (Tier- II)
Our Objectives:
 Firstly to cover 100% SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier - II examination syllabus.
 Secondly to compile all the required study materials in one place, so to save the precious time of the
aspirants. Further, in this study kit we have incorporated all available study material in the market,
also we have included material of standard Books meant for SSC CGL preparation. This is in the
interest of candidate so that they need not to study separate material for every section.
Our Strategy:
 Content of every section of the syllabus is developed after a thorough research of last year Question
Papers.
 Every section and every chapter is covered with overview of chapter along with exercise and practice
set.
 The Study Kit is available in English only.

http://sscportal.in/community/study-kit/cgl-tier-2
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Narration ANSWERS
(Direct and Indirect) 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Directions: Pick out the correct alternative that Common Error

complete sentence which is changed into indirect
narration.
1. The thief said to the policeman, “Why did you Directions: In each of the following sentences four
beat me so mercilessly?” words or phrases have been underlined. Only one
The thief: underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable
(a) asked the policeman why he had beaten him in standard English. Pick up the part 1, 2, 3, 4.
so mercilessly. 1. I have seen as bad or worse scenes of
(b) said the policeman that why he had beaten 1
him mercilessly. disorder at the English fair than the ones
(c) asked the policeman that why he had beaten 2 3
him so mercilessly. in any other Australian mining town.
(d) None of these. 4
2. The saint said to me, “Why do you not go to 2. This is the third communication we have
the temple daily?” 1
The saint: sent and we are surprised that we have
(a) said to me that why I did not go to the 2 3
temple daily. received no answer.
(b) asked me that why I did not go to the temple 4
daily. 3. The officers are now perfectly happy
(c) asked me that why I do not go to the temple 1 2
daily. fishing, boating, shooting, playing cricket
(d) enquired of me why I did not go to the 3
temple daily.
3. My friend said to me, “Where do you go and other sports.
daily?” 4
My friend: 4. While in conversation with a high ranking
(a) asked me where I went daily. 1
(b) said to me that where I went daily. military officer he told me that at the
(c) told me that where I went daily. 2 3
(d) asked me that where I go daily. head-quarters nothing was known.
4
4. The teacher said to me, “Have you read this 5. The fear of an impending invasion has more
book?” The teacher 1 2
(a) told to me that had I read this book. to do than even the debasing of the coinage
(b) said to me that had I read this book. 3
(c) asked me if I had read that book. with the financial difficulties.
(d) told me that I had read that book. 4
5. The milk man says, “My cow does not give
much milk.”
The milk man :
ANSWERS
(a) said that his cow does not give much milk.
(b) told that his cow does not give much milk. 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
(c) says that his cow does not give much milk.
(d) told that his cow do not give much milk.
(a) Spiteful (b) Careless
(c) Fussy (d) Ignorant
One-Word Substitution
ANSWERS
Directions: In each of these questions, out of the 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
four lternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given sentence, group of words
or clauses.
Idioms and Phrases
1. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river's
banks.
(a) Swamps (b) Archipelago Directions (Q. No. 1-30): Select the meaning of the
(c) Hinterland (d) Isthmus bold Idiom or phrase from the given alternatives.
2. A lower-area storm with high winds rotating
1. In the organised society of today no individual
about a centre of low atmospheric pressure
or nation can plough a lonely furrow.
(a) Cyclone (b) Tornado
(a) remain unaffected
(c) Typhoon (d) Hurricane
(b) do without the help of others
3. One who promotes the idea of absence of (c) survive in isolation
government of any kind, when every man (d) remain non-aligned
should be a law unto himself
2. To flog a dead horse
(a) Anarchist (b) Belligerent
(a) to do interesting things
(c) Iconoclast (d) Agnostic
(b) to try to take work from a weak horse
4. Something which is not through or profound (c) to beat a horse that is dead
(a) Superficial (b) Superstitious (d) to revive interest in a subject which is out
(c) Superfluous (d) Supernatural of date
5. Indifference to pleasure or pain 3. To bait the hook to suit the fish
(a) Docility (b) Stoicism (a) to look at things from other person's point
(c) Patience (d) Reticence of veiw
(b) to catch fish by providing suitable food
ANSWERS (c) to do things to please others
(d) to prepare a box to pack the fish
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
4. Bed of roses
(a) very soft bed (b) dull life
(c) belong to (d) full of joys
Synonyms and Antonyms 5. Black and blue
(a) painting (b) severely
(c) together (d) intermix
Directions (Q. No. 1-30): In this section you find
a number of sentences, parts of which are bold. ANSWERS
For each bold part, four or five words/phrases are
listed below. Choose the word/phrase nearest in 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
meaning to the bold part.
1. Indians are likely to be parochial.
(a) Generous Sentence Correction
(b) Narrow-minded.
(c) Brave (d) Short-sighted
2. I was discomfited to find the boss in the disco. Directions: Each of the following question is in
(a) irritated (b) uncomfortable the form of a sentence with four underlined
(c) embarrassed (d) displeased portions marked a, b, c and d, respectively. Choose
3. He spent most of his years debunking the marked portion that carries errors. If no error
politicians. required then your answer is 5.
(a) Exposing (b) Cheating 1. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave,
(c) Threatening (d) Pacifying a
4. We arrived safely at the quay and went ashore. called the wrap, which across are passed
(a) Peninsula (b) Wharf b
(c) Target (d) Island several coloured threads, called wefts,
5. Editors are known to be pernickety about c
grammar. forming decorative patterns.
d
2. The fossil remains of much extinct 2. A. The Vikings were the terrorists whom
a Europe feared the most between the eighth
mammals have been found in the tar pits and the twelfth centuries.
b c B. They set out on these voyages of dangerous
or Rancho Brea in Los Angles. adventure because they felt an even more
d unbearable fear than did their neighbours
3. Chemical engineering is based on the who stayed behind.
a C. For they were tortured by the thought that
principles of physics, chemists, and their name and reputation might vanish
b c into nothingness.
mathematics. D. They managed to brave the seas to pillage,
d ransom, and create havoc from
4. The salesman refused to show the family Constantinople to Lisbon and Dublin, even
a though they carried inside them all the
around the showroom, till they told him usual fears of poor peasants as well as the
b c loneliness of Scandinavia's long nights.
what kind of a carthey were looking for. (a) CDAB (b) CBAD
d e (c) DABC (d) ADBC
5. Despite the manager's comprehensive and 3. A. Deprived of livelihood and income, they
a face penury, and as families split up and
enthusiastic explanation of the scheme, we spread out, their community bonds
b crumble.
were completely disinterested in the matter. B. Oddly, all this happens in the name of
d development, and the victim are described
as beneficiaries.
C. Cut off from their most vital resources,
ANSWERS those uprooted are then robbed of their
history traditions and culture.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)
D. Imagine the entire population of the
continent of Australia turned out of their
homes – eighteen million people losing
Sentence Arrangements their lands, evicted from their houses.
(a) DACB (b) DBAC
(c) ACDB (d) ABDC
Direction (Q. No. 1-30) : Sentences given in each 4. A. This chemical compound finds wide usage
in diversified industries such as refectories,
question, when properly sequenced form a
ceramics, etc.
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with
B. Indal developed the requisite technology
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
in-house at its Belgaum centre.
from among the given choices to construct a
C. In 1982-83, it started developing special
coherent paragraph.
alumina, an import substitute.
1. A. 'Electricity' is a subject enumerated in the D. In pursuit of its policy of adding value to
Concurrent list, meaning that the Federal the basic products, Indal has been adding
and State legislatures are competent to enact value to alumina too.
laws on the subject. (a) BCDA (b) CDAB
B. The Constitution of India has demarcated (c) CBAD (d) DCAB
the legislative competence of the Federal
5. A. India accorded Most Favoured Nation
and State legislatures in three different lists.
(MFN) status to Pakistan long ago.
C. However, a State law cannot override, or
B. Matters have hardly improved since
be inconsistent with, a Federal law and in
case of inconsistency, the Federal law will dialogue was broken off in early 1994.
override the State law. C. Pakistan is still only talking about giving
D. The Union list contains matters within the India MFN status in trade, even though it
exclusive domain of the Federal legislature, is obliged to under the World Trade
the State list contains matters within the Organisation.
exclusive domain of the State legislature, D. In some ways, they have worsened.
and the Concurrent list contains subjects on (a) CADB (b) BDCA
which both the Federal and the State (c) CBDA (d) ACBD
legislatures are competent to enact laws.
(a) ACBD (b) BDAC ANSWERS
(c) DABC (d) BCDA
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d)
(c) according to cost
(d) according to demand
Analogy 4. Aide memoire
(a) hearing aid
Direction (Q. No. 1-30): Each of the questions (b) without memory
consists of two capitalised words which have a (c) with sound memory
certain relationship to each other. Followed by four (d) notes to aid memory
pairs of words. Choose the pair that is related to 5. Ad interim :
each other in the same way as the capitalised pair. (a) finally (b) ultimately
(c) unanimously (d) in the mean time
1. PEST : IRKSOME
(a) salesclerk : courteous
(b) expert : proficient ANSWERS
(c) enigma : unexpected
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
(d) leader : non-descript
2. PROLOGUE : NOVEL
(a) preamble
(b) sketch
:
:
constitution
drawing
Comprehension
(c) movement : symphony
(d) index : book
3. EXPAND : VOLUME Directions (Q.1–11): Read the following
(a) ascent : flight passage carefully and answer the questions given
(b) proliferate : number below it. Certain words are printed in bold in the
(c) bend : flexibility passage to help you locate them while answering
(d) cool : temperature some of the questions.
4. RUST : CORROSION What is immediately needed today is the
(a) vapour : flammability establishement of a Wrold Government or an
(b) dew : condensation
(c) crystal : purification
International Federation of mankind. It is the
(d) solution : precipitation utmost necessity of the world today, and all
5. CLAIM : LEGITIMATED those persons who wish to see all human beings
(a) hypothesis : confirmed happy and prosperous naturally feel it keenly.
(b) verdict : appealed Of course, at times we feel that many of the
(c) counter :
problem of our political, social, linguistic and
argument : doubted
(d) proposition : repeated cultural life would come to an end if there were
one Govenment all ovet the world. Travellers,
ANSWERS businessmen, seekers of knowledge and teach-
ers of righteousness know very well that great
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)
impediments and obstructions are faced by
them when they pass from one country to
Foreign Words & Phrases another, exchange goods, get information, and
make an efforts to spread their good gospel
among their fellow-men. In the past, religious
Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the sects divided one set of people against another,
foreign words and phrases out of the four
responses a, b, c and d. colour of skin or shape of the body set one
against the other. But today when philosophical
1. vis-a-vis :
(a) similar (b) face to face
light has exploded the darkness that was cre-
(c) contrary to the fact ated by religious differences, and when scien-
(d) in good faith tific knowledge has flasified the superstitions,
2. Modus operandi they have enabled human beings of all religious
(a) successful operation views and of all races and colours to come in
(b) unsuccessful mission
frequent contact with one another . It is the
(c) mode or manner of doing a thing
(d) a clandestine operation governments of various countries that keep
3. Ad valorem poeple of one country apart from, those of
(a) according to the-value another. They create artificial barriers, unnatu-
(b) according to utility
ral distinctions, unhealthy isolation, unneces-
sary fears and dangers in the minds of
common men who by their nature want to
live in friendship with their fellow-men. But
all these evils would cease to exist if there
were one Government all over the world.
1. What divides people of a country against
another?
(a) Different religions
(b) Different language
(c) Different social and political systems of
different people
(d) Government of various countries
2. What is the urgent heed of the world today?
(a) The establishment of an international
economic order.
(b) The establishment of a world
government.
(c) The creation of a cultural international
social order.
(d) The raising of an international spiritual
army.
3. What will the world Government be
expected to do?
(a) it will arrange for interplanetary contacts
(b) it will end all wars for all time to come
(c) it will bring about a moral regeneration
of mankind
(d) it will kill the evil spirit in man
4. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in
meaning as the word "righteousness" as
used in the passage.
(a) rectitude (b) religiosity
(c) requirement (d) scrupulousness
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
ered the oldest civilization before the discovery
Indian History of Mohenjodaro and Harappa. The main features
of Ancient Indian History are as follows:
Indus Valley Civilization
The Indian History is perhaps the oldest in Discovery: In 1921, R.B. Dayaram Sahani,
the world, and the sources of Indian History are first discovered Harappa, in the Montgomery dis-
the verbal history, because our ancients never did trict of the Punjab. According to radio-carbon
bother about putting things down on paper and dating, it spread from the year 2350-1750.
archaeological evidences. Based on the evidences
Indus Valley Civilization
available today, Indian History, like the history
of every ancient culture in the world, is broadly Dr. R. D. Banerjee found the ancient city
divided into four periods as mentioned below: Mohenjodaro (literally, ‘city of the dead’) in Larkana
district of Sindh, now in Pakistan in 1922.
Pre-History The Marvelous Town Planning of
From the big bang, the primeval swamp to Mohenjodaro: A chief feature of Mohenjodaro
the Indus Valley civilization. Though Indus Val- is its superb town planning. The streets, which
ley civilization is included in pre-historical period. divided the city into neat rectangular or square
However, technical evidences shows that Indus blocks, varied in width but always intersected each
Valley civilization did have a script, although it other at right angles. The city had an elaborate
has not been decoded yet. So, it is generally in- drainage system, consisting of horizontal and ver-
cluded in Ancient History nowadays. tical drains, street drains and so on. The architec-
Ancient History ture of the buildings was clearly intended to be
It begins from the Indus Valley civilization functional and minimalist, and certainly not to
(for which the date is a matter of hot debate, but please the aesthete. Mohenjodaro was obviously
historians have agreed to disagree on 3000 BC) a cosmopolitan city, with people of different races
to just after the king Harsha Vardhana, which is mingling with the local populace-Prot o-
around 700-800 BC. Austroloid, Mediterranean, Alpine and Mongol-
Medieval History oid.
It begins from 800 BC to mid-18th century The Indus Valley Civilization
AD. Before the coming of Aryans, there was a
civilization that was not only well-developed, but
Modern History
actually far more sophisticated than that of the
From mid-18th century to the independence
Aryans. The Indus Valley civilization said its last
of India, which is on August 15, 1947. The his-
hurray roughly in 2200 BC. The beginning and
tory of Modern India is farther sub-divided into
end of the Indus Valley Civilization are both a
two major periods:
matter of debate because people could not have
1. The British Period.
emerged complete with their perfect town plan-
2. The India Freedom Struggle and Partition of
India. ning, neat houses, lovely jewellery and loads of
make-up. So where did they come from? and then
ANCIENT INDIA having come, just where did they disappear?
The discovery of Mohenjodaro and Harappa Popular theory, which is most accepted is that
by British archeologist: Marshall proved that the people of the Harappan civilization were
Indian civilization is the oldest civilization in the chased out by the Aryans and went down south.
world. Even India came before Greece, consid- The present South Indians are their descendants.
The Vedic Period (1500 Bc-600 Bc)
Initially, they settled in the area of Sapt- Geography
Sindhu, which included Punjab, Kashmir, Sindh,
Kabul and Gandhara (Kandhar). The chief sources
SOLAR SYSTEM
of this period are The Vedas and the Epics, the
Mahabharata and the Ramayana, which through Important Facts
their stories PO and hymns tell us about the ex- Biggest planet : Jupiter
pansion of the Aryans. The epic Ramayana is a Smallest plant : Mercury
symbolic tale which tells of the Aryan expansion Satellite of Earth : Moon
to the south-the good, almost godly, aryaputra Nearest planet from Sun : Mercury
(an Aryan’s son) king Rama surging forth to fin- Farthest planet from Sun : Neptune
ish off the evil Dasyu (that was what the Aryans Nearest planet to Earth : Venus
called the natives) Ravana. Brightest planet : Venus
Aryans Political System Brightest star : Dog Star
Planet having maximum
There was complex political system. They
number of satellite : Jupiter (63)
hung around together in small village settlements
Coldest planet : Neptune
(which later grew to kingdoms) and the basis of Red planet (seen at night) : Mars
their political and social organization was the clan Heaviest planet : Jupiter
or kula. It was very much a patriarchal society, Biggest satellite of solar : Ganymede system
with the man the house expected to keep his clan Smallest satellite of solar : Demos
in control. system
The King was the Supreme Power Blue planet : Earth
The king was the supreme power though he Red planet : Mars
Morning star : Venus
had to work in tandem with the people’s wishes.
Evening star : Venus
He had an elaborate court of many officials, in-
Sister of Earth : Venus
cluding the chief queen (Mahishi) who was elected
9th planet : Karla
to help in the decision making process. Two As-
semblies, Sabha and Samiti further assisted the Sun
Distance from Earth: 149.6 million km
king.
(Approximately).
No Rigidity in Caste System Critical value of absolute visual magnitude 4.83
The caste system was a loose social system Diameter: 13,92,000 km
where people could move up and down the so- Temperature of Code: 20-15 million Celsius Apparent
cial scale. Aryan’s worshipped nature gods-they surface temperature: 5778°C (6000°C approximately)
Rotational period: 25 days, 3 hrs., 21 minutes, 136
prayed to the Usha (Dawn), Prajapati (The Cre- seconds (in reference of equator) 33 days (in reference
ator), Rudra (Thunder), Indra (Rain), Surya (Sun) to pole)
and so on. These gods and goddesses were ap- Chemical composition: Hydrogen-69.5%, Helium-
peased by prayers and sacrifices. 28%. Carbon, Nitrogen and Oxygen-2%, Magnesium,
Sulphur, Silicon and Iron 0.5%
Growth of Buddhism and Jainism
Age: 5 billion years (approximately)
Buddhism and Jainism were instant hits with Possible life of normal star
the populace and became powerful clannish mi- 10 billion years (approximately)
norities while the bulk of the people remained Equatorial radius: 6,95,500 km
with Aryanism. Not for long, however. As the (approximately)
two new religions which had extremely charis- GALAXIES
matic leaders and very zealous followers caught Galaxy Name Magnitude Visual
the people’s imagination, the influence of both Milky way —
faiths spread enough for kings to profess and ac- Large Magellanic Cloud 0.9
tively promote them. Small Magellanic Cloud 2.5
Ursa Minor Dwarf 11.9
Sculptor Dwarf 80
Draco Dwarf 10.9
Formax Sysyem 8.3 Average distance from Sun: 149,597,887.5 km
Leo -II System 12.04
Leo -I System 12.0
Venus
N. G.C 6822 8.9 Diameter: 11,102 km
N.G.C. 147 9.73 Mass: 4.867 × 10224 kg
N.G.C. 185 10.1 Volume: 92.843 × 1010 km3
N .G.C. 205 8.17 Mean Radius: 6052 km
N.G.C. 2 21 (M 32) 8.16 Mean Density: 5204 kg/metre3
IC 1613 9.61 Surface Gravity: 8.87 metre/second2
Andromeda Galaxy 3.47
Mean distance from the Sun: 108.2 million km
N.G.C. 598 (M 33) 5.79
Maffel I 11.0
Greatest distance from the Sun (Aphelion): 108.9
million km
Moon Least distance from the Sun: 107.5 million km
Average distance: 3,84,365 km Diameter: 3,474 km (Perihelion)
Ratio of mass in reference to Earth: 1:81.30 Rotational period: 243.7 days
Density (with reference to water): 3.3464 kg/metre3 Revolutional period (Sidereal period): 224.7 days
Density (with reference to Earth): 0.6058 Ratio in the earth days
gravitational force of Moon & Inclination of orbit: 3.39°
Sun: 0.116 Mean surface temperature: 464°C
Disappearing part of Moon: 0.41 Maximum distance Mean surface pressure: 92 bars
of Earth from Sun 4,05,508 km No. of Satellites: Nil
Minimum distance of Earth from Sun 3,63,300 km
Mercury
Revolution period of the Moon round the Earth.
Diameter: 4878 km
Sidereal Month: 27 days, 7 hrs, 43.25 minutes
Mass: 3.64 × 1020 tons (3.3 10 kg) (About 5% of the
Synodic Month: 29 days, 12 hrs, 44 minutes
earth)
Rotation on its own axis : 27 days, 7 hrs, 43 minutes,
Volume: 2.15 × 1021 cube metre (About 6% of the
11.47sec.
earth)
Atmosphere: Absent
Average density: 340 pound/cubic feet
Highest mts. Peak : 35,000 (Libtney, situated at
Surface gravity: 11.8 feet/sec. (3.6 metre)
Moon’s south pole).
Surface temperature: 280° to 800°F (–175 to 425°C)
Time taken by light to reach the earth.: 1.3 seconds.
Surface atmospheric pressure: 2 × 1012 millibar
Speed of Rotation at its own axis: 2287 miles per hrs.
Greatest distance from the earth: 142.6 million miles
Earth (229.4 million km)
Approximate age of Earth: 4600,000,000, years, Greatest distance from the Sun (Aphelion) 43 million
Total surface area: 510,072,000 km2 miles (70 million km)
Total land area: 153,000,000 km2 Least distance from the Sun (Perihelion) 29 million
Water area: 71% of the total land surface 357,100,000 miles (46.5 million km)
km2 Revolution period (Sidereal year): 87.97 earth days
Average density: 5.52 gm per cub.cm. Rotational period (Sidereal day): 58.65 earth days
Equatorial diameter: 12,756 km No. of Satellites: Nil
Polar diameter: 12,714 km
Necessary escape velocity to cross the gravitational
attraction of the Earth: 11.2 km/sec.
Velocity of a rocket to go against the gravitational
attraction of the Earth 8 km /sec.
Distance from Moon: 3,84,365 km
Maximum height of the earth from M.S.L. 8848 m
(Mount Everest)
Maximum depth of sea from M.S.L. : 11,033 metro
(Mariana Trench)
Lowest part of the earth surface: 396 metre (Dead
Sea)
Rotational period at its own axis: 23 hrs, 56 minutes
4.091 sec.
Revolution of earth round the Sun: 365 day, 5 hrs, 48
minutes, 45.51 second
Satellite of Earth: Moon
Inclination at its own axis: 23*-27.
Indian Polity
DIRRERENT SOURCES OF THE INDIAN CONSTITURION

Although the skeleton of the constitution was derived from Government of India Act 1935, many provisions were
imported from other constitution,, of the world. Some of them are listed below:
Government of India Act 1935: Federal scheme, office of Governor, power of Federal judiciary, emergency powers
etc.
Constitution of Britain: Law making procedures, rule of law, provision for single citizenship, Parliamentary system of
government, office of CAG.
Constitution of USA: Independence of judiciary. judicial review, fundamental rights, removal of Supreme Court and
High Court judges, preamble and functions of Vice-president.
Constitution of Canada: Federation with strong Centre, to provide residuary powers to the centre.
Constitution of Ireland: Directive Principles of State policy, method of presidential elections, and the nomination of
members to Rajya Sabha by the President,
Constitution of Germany: Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during emergency.
Constitution of Australia: Idea of the Concurrent list.
Constitution of South Africa: Amendment with 2/3rd majority in Parliament and election of the Members of Rajya
Sabha on the basis of proportional representation.
THE PREAMBLE
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ end now the Preamble reads as follows:
“We, the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social. economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship Equality of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity
of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly on this twenty-sixty day November,
1949, we do hereby, Adopt, Enact and Give Ourselves this Constitution.”
PARTS AND ARTICLES OF THE CONSTITUTION

• Part I/Articles 1-4 : Territory of India, admission, establishment or formation of new
states
• Part II/Articles 5-11 : Citizenship
• Part III/Articles 12-35 : Fundamental Rights
• Part I V/Articles 36-51 : Directive Principles of State Policy
• Part I V-A/Article 51A : Duties of a citizen of India
• Part V/Articles 52-151 : Government at the Union level
• Part VI/Articles 152-237 : Government at the State level
• Part VII/Article 238 : Repeated by 7th Amendment 1956
• Part VIII/Articles 239-241 : Administration of Union Territories
• Part IX/Articles 242-243 : The Panchayats
• Part IX-A/Articles 243P-243 ZG : The Municipalities
• Part X/Articles 244-244 : A Scheduled and tribal areas
• Part XI/Articles 245-263 : Relations between the Union and States
• Part XMI/Articles 263-300 : A Finance, property, contracts and suits
• Part XIII/Articles 301—307 : Trade, commerce and travel within territory of India
• Part XIV/Articles 308-323 : Services under the Union and States
• Part XIV-A/Articles 323A-323B : Deals with administrative tribunals
• Part XV/Articles 324-329 : A Election and Election Commission
• Part XVI/Articles 330-342 : Special provision to certain classes SCs/STs, OBCs and Anglo
Indians
• Part XVII/Article 343-351 : Official languages
• Part XVIII/Articles 352-360 : Emergency provisions
• Part XIX/Article 361-367 : Miscellaneous provisions
• Part XX/Article,68 : Amendment of Constitution
• Part XXI/Articles X69-392 : Temporary, transitional and special provisions
SCHEDULES IN THE CONSTITUTION

First Schedule • It deals with the territories of th, 28 states and 7 union, territories of the Indian
Union.
Second Schedule • Deals with salaries, allow a cesn etc., payable to the President of India, Governors
of States, Chief Justice of India, judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts and
the Comptroller and editor General of India. There revised salaries now are:
President of India Rs 1.50,000 pm
Vice-President Rs 1.20.000 pm
Governor of a state Rs 1,10,000 par
(varies from state to state)
Chief Justice of India Rs 1,00.000 pm
Judges of the Supreme Court Rs 90,000 pm
Chief Justice of a High Court Rs 90,000 put
Judges of a High Court Rs. 80.000 put
Third Schedule • It prescribes the various forms of oath or affirmation, which various incumbents
have to take before assuming a public office.
Fourth Schedule • Allocates seats to each state and union territory in the Rajya Sabha. Contains
provisions as to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas.
Fifth Schedule • It deals with the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas.
Sixth Schedule • Deals with provisions regarding administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam,
Meghalaya and Mizoram. This Schedule in the Constitution, amended in 1988 by
the Act 67 of 1988, received the assent of the President on 16 December 1988,
and was applied to the states of Tripura and Mizoram w.e.f. 16 December 1988.
Seventh Schedule • Gives three lists of powers and subjects to be looked after by the Union and the
states as follows:
(i) Union List—Comprises subjects of all-India importance like Defence.
International Affairs. Railways. Post and Telegraph, Income tax, etc. The
Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on these subjects. It
contains 97 subjects:
(ii) State List-Contains subjects of local importance. Normally, the State
Legislature alone legislates on these subjects. It contains 66 subjects.
(iii) Concurrent List-Contains subjects on which the Parliament as well as the
State Legislature enjoy authority. According to the 88th amendment,
service tax is to be levied, collected and appropriated by the union and
the states.
Eighth Schedule • Gives a list of 22 regional languages recognised by the Constitution; Originally
there were only 14 languages in the schedule and the l5th language ‘Sindhi’ was
added by the list amendment in 1967, and three languages-Konkani, Manipuri and
Nepali were added by the 71st amendment in 1992. In 2003, the 92nd amendment
added four more languages to the list-’Bolo’, ‘Dogri’, ‘Maithali’ and ‘Santhali’. The
language’ are as follows:
1. Assamese 2. Bengali 3. Bndo
4. Dogri 5. Gujarati 6. Hindi,
7. Kanada 8. Kashmiri 9. Malayalam
10. Maithali 11. Marathi 12. O, it a,
13. Punjabi 14. Sanskrit 15. Sindhi,
16. Tamil 17. Telugu 18. Santhali
19. Urdu 20. Konkagi 21. Manipuri
22. Nepali.
Ninth Schedule • Contains certain Acts and regulations of the State Legislature dealing with and
reforms and abolition of the zamindari system. it contains 284 Acts. This Schedule
was added to the Constitution in 1951, by the First Constitution (Amendment Act.
Tenth Schedule • Contains certain provisions -regarding disqualification of members on grounds of
defection.
Eleventh Schedule • It lists 29 subjects on which the panchayats have been given administrative control.
It was added to the Constitution on 20 April 1992, by the 73rd Amendment in 1992.
Twelfth Schedule • It lists 18 subjects on which the municipalities are given administrative control. It
was added to the Constitution on 20 April 1992 by the 74th Amendment in 1992.
NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT COUNCIL
Indian Economy • All the plans made by the Planning
Commission have to be approved by National
Development Council first. It was constituted
HISTORY OF PLANNING IN INDIA to build co-operation between the States and
• First attempt to initiate economic planning in the Planning Commission for economic
India was made by Sir M.Visvesvarayya, a planning.
noted engineer and politician in 1934 through • It is an extra-constitutional and extra-legal
his book ‘Planned Economy For India’. body.
• In 1938 ‘National Planning Commission’ was • It was set up on August 6, 1952, by a proposal
set-up under the chairmanship of J.L. Nehru of the Government. The PM is the ex-officio
by the Indian National Congress. Its chairman of NDC. Other members are Union
recommendations could not be implemented Cabinet ministers, Chief’ Ministers & Finance
because of the beginning of the Second World Ministers of all States, Lt. Governors of Union
War and changes in the Indian political Territories and Governors of Centrally Ruled
situation. States.
• In 1944 ‘Bombay Plan’ was presented by 8 State Planning Boards
leading industrialists of Bombay. • Apex planning body at State level is generally
• In 1944 ‘Gandhian Plan’ was given by S. N. a State Planning Body comprising the Chief
Agarwal. Minister as Chairman, Finance and Planning
• In 1945 ‘People’s Plan’ was given by M. N. Roy. ministers of that State and some technical
• In 1950 ‘Sarvodaya Plan’ was given by J. P. experts.
Narayan. A few points of this plan were • District Planning Committee is also there
accepted by the Government. comprising both official and non-official
members.
THE PLANNING COMMISSION
FIVE YEAR PLANS
• The Planning Commission was set up on March
15, 1950 under the chairmanship J.L. Nehru, First Five Year Plan (1951-56)
by a resolution of Union Cabinet. • It was based on Harrod-Domar Model.
• It is an extra-constitutional, non-statutory • Community Development Program was
body. launched in 1952.
• It consists of Prime Minister as the ex-officio • Two- fold objectives were there:
Chairman, one deputy-Chairn appointed by o To correct the disequilibrium in the
the PM and some full time members. economy caused by 3 main problems-
• The tenure of its members and deputy influx of refugees, severe food shortage
chairman is not fixed. There is no defi and mounting inflation.
definition of its members also. They are o To initiate a process of all-round balanced
appointed by the Government on its c development to ensure a rising national
discretion. The number of members can also income and a steady improvement in
change according to the wishes of Government. living standards.
Functions • Emphasized on agriculture, price stability,
power & transport.
• Assessment of material, capital & human
resources of the country. • It was more than a success, because of good
harvests in the last two years.
• Formulation of plans for the most effective &
balanced utilization of country’s resources. Second Five Year Plan (1956-61)
• To determine the various stages of planning • Also called Mahalanobis Plan after its chief
and to propose the allocation of resources on architect. It was based on 1928 Soviet Model
the priority basis. of Feldman.
• To act as an advisory body to the Union • Its emphasis was on economic stability.
Government. Agriculture target fixed in the first plan was
• To evaluate from time to time the progress almost achieved. Consequently, the agriculture
achieved in every stage of the plan and also to sector got low priority in the second five year
suggest remedial measures. plan.
• To advise the Centre and the State • Its objective was rapid industrialization,
Governments from time to time on special particularly basic and heavy industries such
matters referred to the Commission. as iron and steel, heavy chemicals like
nitrogenous fertilizers, heavy engineering and wealth.
machine building industry. • Relied heavily on foreign aid (IMF).
• Besides, the Industrial Policy of 1956 • Complete failure due to unforeseen
emphasized the role of Public Sector and misfortunes, viz. Chinese
accepted the establishment of a socialistic aggression (1962), Indo-Pak war
pattern of the society as the goal of economic (1965), severest drought in 100 years
policy. (1965-66).
• Advocated huge imports which led to Three Annual Plans (1966-69)
emptying of funds leading to foreign loans. It
• Plan holiday for 3 years. The
shifted basic emphasis from agriculture to
prevailing crisis in agriculture and
industry far too soon. During this plan, price
serious food shortage necessitated
level increased by 30%, against a decline of
the emphasis on agriculture during
13% during the First Plan.
the Annual Plans.
Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) • During these plans a whole new
• At its conception time, it was felt that Indian agricultural strategy involving
economy has entered a take-off stage. wide-spread distribution of High-
Therefore, its aim was to make India a ‘self- Yielding Varieties of seeds, the
reliant’ and ‘self-generating’ economy. extensive use of fertilizers,
• Also, it was realized from the experience of exploitation of irrigation potential
first two plans that agriculture should be given and soil conservation was put into
action to tide-over the crisis in
the top priority to suffice the requirements of
agricultural production.
export and industry.
• During the Annual Plans, the
• The other objectives of the plan included the
economy basically absorbed the
expansion of basic industries, optimum
shocks given during the Third Plan,
utilization of country’s labour power and
making way for a planned growth.
reducing the inequalities of income and
General Science
INVENTIONS AND DISCOVERIS

Invention Year Inventor Country
Acetylene gas 1862 Berthelot France
Adding machine 1642 Pascal France
Adhesive tape, Scotch 1930 Richard Drew U.S.A.
Aeroplane 1903 Orville & Wilbur Wright U.S.A.
Air Conditioning 1902 Carrier U.S.A.
Airplane, jet engine 1939 Ohain Germany
Airship (non-rigid) 1852 Henri Giffard France
Aerosol spray 1926 Erik Rotheim Norway
Artificial Heart 1957 Willem Kolff Netherlands
Atomic Bomb 1945 J. Robert Oppenheimer U.S.A.
Atomic numbers 1913 Moseley Britain
Atomic theory 1803 Dalton Britain
Automatic rifle 1918 John Browning U.S.A.
Bakelite 1907 Leo H. Baekeland Belgium
Ballistic missile 1944 Wernher von Braun Germany
Balloon 1783 Jacques & Joseph Montgolfier France
Ball-Point Pen 1888 John J. Loud U.S.A.
Barometer 1644 Evangelista Torricelli Italy
Battery (Electric) 1800 Alessandro Volta Italy
Bicyle 1839-40 Kirkpatrick Macmillan Britain
Bicycle Tyres (Pneumatic) 1888 John Boyd Dunlop Britain
Bifocal Lens 1780 Benjamin Franklin U.S.A
Bleaching Powder 1798 Tennant Britain
Bunsen Burner 1855 R. Willhelm von Bunsen Germany
Burglar Alarm 1858 Edwin T. Holmes U.S.A.
Calculus 1670 Newton Britain
Camera, Kodak 1888 Walker Eastman U.S.A.
Canned food 1804 Appert France
Car (Steam) 1769 Nicolas Cugnot France
Car (Petrol) 1888 Karl Benz Germany
Carburetor 1876 Gottlieb Daimler Germany
Cassette, Audio 1963 Philips Co. Holland
Cassette, Videotape 1969 Sony Japan
Celluloid 1861 Alexander Parkes Britain
Cement (Portland) 1824 Joseph Aspdin Britain
Chemotherapy 1909 Ehrlich Germany
Chronometer 1735 John Harrison Britain
Cinema 1895 Nicolas & Jean Lumiere France
Clock (Mechanical) 1725 I-Hsing & Liang Ling-Tsan China
Clock (Pendulum) 1656 Christian Huygens Netherlands
Cloning, DNA 1973 Boyer, Cohen U.S.A.
Cloning, Mamma, 1996 Wilmut, et al U.K.
Compact disc 1972 RCA U.S.A.
Compact disc player 1979 Sony, Philips co Japan, Netherlands
Computer, laptop 1987 Sinclair Britain
Computer, mini, 1960 Digital Corp. U.S.A.
Crossword Puzzle 1913 Arthur Wynne U.S.A.
CT scan 1973 Hounsfield Britain
Diesel Engine 1895 Rudolf Diesel Germany
Disc Brake 1902 Dr.F. Lanchester- Britain
Disc, video 1972 Philips Co. Holland
DNA, Structure 1951 Crick-UK, Watson-US, W iikins-UK —
Dyriamo 1832 Hypolite Pixii France
Electric Flat Iron 1882 H.W. Seeley U.S.A.
Electric Lamp 1879 Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A.
Electric Motor (DC) 1873 Zenobe’ Gramme Belgium
Electric Motor (AC) 1888 Nikola Tesla, U.S.A.
Electric Iron 1882 Henry W. Seely U.S.A.
Electric Washing machine 1906 Alva J. Fisher U.S.A
Electro-Magnet 1824 William Sturgeon Britain
Electron 1897 Tnomson.J - Britain
Electroplating 1805 Luigi Brugnatelli Italy
Electronic Computer 1824 Dr. Alan M. Turing Britain
Facsimile Machine 1843 Alexander Bain Britain
Fibre optics 1955 Kepany Britain
Film (moving outlined) 1885 Louis Prince France
Film (taiking) 1922 J. Engl, J. Mussolle & H. Vogt Germany
Film (musical sound) 1923 Dr Le de Fo;est U.S.A.
Frequency Modulation (FM) 1933 E.H. Armstrong U.S.A.
Frisbee 1948 Fred Morrisson U,S.A.
Fountain Pen 1884 Lewis E. Waterman U.S.A.
Galvanometer 1834 Andre-Marie Ampere France
Glider 1853 Sir George Cayley Britain
Gramophone 1878 Thomos Alva Edison U.S.A.
Helicopter 1924 Etienne Oehmichen France
HIV 1984 Martagnier French
Holography 1947 Denis Gason Britain
Hydrogen bomb 1952 Edward Teller U.S.A.
Intelligence testing 1905 Simon Binet French
Jet Engine 1937 Sir Frank Whittle Britain
Laser 1960 Theodore Maiman U.S.A.
Launderette 1934 J.F. Cantrell U.S.A.
Lift (Mechanical) 1852 Elisha G. Otis U.S.A.
Lighting Conductor 1752 Benjamin Franklin U.S.A.
Locomotive 1804 Richard Trevithick Britain
Logarithms 1614 Napier Britain
Loom, power 1785 E. Cartwright Britain
Loudspeaker 1900 Horace Short Britain
Machine Gun 1718 Richard Gatling Britain
Magnetic Recording Tape 1928 Fritz Pfleumer Germany
Match, Safety 1826 John Walker Britain
Microphone 1876 Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A.
Microprocessor 1971 Robert Noyce & Gordon Moore U.S.A
Microscope, comp. 1590 Z. nssen Netherlands
Microwave Oven 1947 Per -y LeBaron Spencer U.S.A.
Motor cycle 1885 G. Daimler Germany
Movie Projector 1893 Thomas Edison U.S.A.
MR! 1971 Danradian U.S.A.
Neon Lamp 1910 Ge urges Claude France
Neutron - 1932 Chadwicrt Britain
Neutron bomb 1958 Samuel Cohen U.S.A.
Photocopier 1938 Carlson U.S.A.
Photoelectric cell 1893 Julius Elster, Hans F. Geitel Germany
Photo film, celluloid 1893 Reichenbach U.S.A.
Photo film , Transparent 1884 Goodwin Eastman U.S.A.
Photography (on metal) 1826 J.N. Niepce France
Photography (on paper) 1835 W.H. Fox Talbot Britain
Photography (on film, 1888 John Carbutt U.S.A.
Piano 1709 Cristofori Italy
Pistol, revolver 1836 Colt U.S.A.
Plutonium fission ‘E940 Kennedy, Whal, Seabolg, Segre U.S.A.
Printing (rotary) 1846 Richard Hoe U.S.A.
Printing (Web) 1865 William Bullock U.S.A.
Proton 1919 Rutherford N. Zealand
Quantum Theory 1900 Plank Germany
Radar 1922 A.H. Taylor & Leo C. Young U.S.A.
Radiocarbon dating 1947 Libby U.S.A.
Radio Telegraphy 1864 Dr. Mohlon Loomis U.S.A.
Radio Telegraphy (Trans Atlantic 1901 Marconi Italy
Rayon 1883 Sir Joseph Swan Britain
Razor (electric) 1931 Ccl. Jacob Scnick U.S.A.
Razor (Safety) 1895 King C. Gillette U.S.A.
Refrigerator 1850 James Harrison, Alexander catlin U.S.A.
Relativity Theory 1905 Einstein Germany
Rubber (latex foam) 1928 Dunlop Rubber Co. Britain
Rubber (Tyres) 1846 Thomas Hancock Britain
Rubber (Vulcanised) ,1841 Charles Goodyear U.S.A.
Rubber (Waterproof) 1823 Charles Macintosh Britain
Safety Pin 1849 Walter Hunt U.S.A.
Safety razor 1903 King Camp Gillette U.S.A.
Seat belt 1959 Volvo Sweden
Ship (steam) 1775 I.C. Perier France
Ship (turbine) 1894 Hon. Sir C. Parsons Britain
Skyscraper 1882 W.Le Baron Jenny U.S.A.
Slide Rule 1621 William Oughtred Britain
Spinning Frame 1769 Sir Richard Arkwright Britain
Spinning Jenny 1764 James Hargreaves Britain
Spinning Mule 1779 Samuel Crompton Britain
Steam Engine 1698 Thomas Savery Britain
Steam Engine (Piston) 1712 Thomas Newcomen Britain
Steam Engine (Condenser) 1765 James Watt Britain
Steel (Stainless) 1913 Harry Brearley Britain
Stethoscope 1819 Laennec French
Submarine 1776 David Bushnell U.S.A.
Super Computer 1976 J.H.Van Tassel U.S.A.
Synthesiser 1964 Moog U.S.A.
Tank 1914 Sir Ernest D. Swington Britain
Tape recorder 1899 Fessenden Poulsen Denmark
Telegraph 1787 M. Lammond France
Telegraph Code 1837 Samuel F.B. Morse U.S.A.
Telephone, Cellular 1947 Bell Labs U.S.A.
Telephone (Imperfect) 1849 Antonio Meucci Italy
Telephone (Perfected) 1876 Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A.
Telescope 1608 Hans Lippershey Netherlands
Television (Mechanical) 1926 John Logie Baird Britain
Television (Electronic) 1927 P.T. Farnsworth U.S.A.
Television, colour 1928 John Logie Baird Britain
Transformer 1831 Michael Faraday Britain
Transistor 1948 Bardeen, Shockley & Brattain U.S.A.
Transistor radio 1955 Sony Japan
Uranium Fission, Atomic reactor 1942 Szilard Fermi U.S.A.
Vacuum Cleaner, elec. 1907 Spangler U.S.A.
Video tape 1956 Charles Ginsberg U.S.A.
Velcro (hook-and-loop-fastener 1948 Georges de Mestral Switzerland
Washing Machine (elec.) 1907 Hurley Machine Co. U.S.A.
Watch 1462 Bartholomew Manfredi Italy
Welder (electric) 1877 Elisha Thomson U.S.A.
Windmill 600 Persian corn grinding
Wireless (telegraphy) 1896 G. Marconi Italy
X-ray 1895 W.K. Roentgen Germany
Zip Fastener 1891 W.L. Judson U.S.A.
SOLVED PAPER
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL
PRELIM EXAM
Held on: 19.06.2011 (First Sitting)
8. Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?

PART-A: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & (a) Museum (b) Stone
REASONING (c) Chisel (d) Statue
9. MKQO : LNPR : : ? XVTZ
(a) YSUW (b) SVWY
Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions (c) VTWY (d) WYTS
select the related letters/word/number from the
given alternatives. Directions (10-15): In each of the following
questions, find the odd number/letters/word from
1. CFIL : ORUX :: GDJM : ? the given alternatives.
(a) HJLN (b) NQST
(c) PSVY (d) RTVX 10. (a) PQXZ (b) BCQN
2. BEHK : YVSP :: DGJM : ? (c) ABDF (d) MNPR
(a) JGDA (b) ROLI 11. (a) ABYZ (b) CDWX
(c) WTQN (d) ZWTQ (c) EFUV (d) GHTV
3. 24 : 60 : : 120 : ? 12. (a) 626 (b) 841
(a) 160 (b) 220 (c) 962 (d) 1090
(c) 300 (d) 108 13. (a) 5720 (b) 6710
4. 392 : 28 : : 722 : ? (c) 2640 (d) 4270
(a) 18 (b) 28 14. (a) Swimming (b) Sailing
(c) 38 (d) 48 (c) Dividing (d) Driving
5. 123 : 36 : : 221 : ? 15. (a) Perception (b) Discernment
(a) 52 (b) 69 (c) Penetration (d) Insinuation
(c) 72 (d) 25
6. Timid : Ass : : Cunning : ? Directions: In the following question from among
(a) Ant (b) Fox the given alternative select the one in which the
(c) Rabbit (d) Horse set of numbers is most like the set of number given
7. Ecstasy : Gloom : : ? in the questions.
(a) Congratulations : Occasion
(b) Diligent : Successful Give Set: (4, 25, 81)
(c) Measure : Scale 16. (a) (4, 36, 79) (b) (9, 48, 81)
(d) Humiliation : Exaltation (c) (16, 64, 100) (d) (9, 49, 143)
Guidance Programme for SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012
17. In the following question, number of letters 23. 0, 4, 8, 24, 64, 176, __?__
are skipped in between by a particular rule. (a) 180 (b) 480
Which of the following series observes the (c) 280 (d) 300
rule? 24. WTPMIFB __?__ __?__
(a) BAFHTU (b) ACEGJL (a) ZV (b) XU
(c) ACFJOU (d) ADFHJL (c) YU (d) YV
25. Mrs. Sushella celebrated her wedding
Directions: In the following question, which one anniversary on Tuesday, 30 th September
of the given response would be a meaningful order 1997. W hen will she celebrate her next
of the following? wedding anniversary on the same day?
(a) 30 September 2003
18. (1) Ocean (2) Rivulet (b) 30 September 2004
(3) Sea (4) Glacier (c) 30 September 2002
(5) River (d) 30 October 2003
(a) 5,2,3,1,4 (b) 4,2,5,3,1 26. A clock gains five minutes every hour. What
(c) 5,2,3,4,1 (d) 4,2,1,3,5 will be the angle traversed by the second
hand in one minute?
Directions: Arrange the following words as per (a) 360o (b) 360.5o
order in the dictionary. (c) 390o (d) 380o
27. B is twice as odd as A but twice younger
19. (1) Preposition than F.C is half the age of A but is twice older
(2) Preperatively than D. Who is the second oldest?
(3) Preposterous (a) B (b) F
(4) Preponderate (c) D (d) C
(5) Prepossess 28. A two member committee comprising of one
(a) 2,4,1,5,3 (b) 1,5,2,4,3 male and one female member is to be
(c) 5,4,2,3,1 (d) 4,2,5,1,3 constituted out of five males and three
20. Which one of set of letters when sequentially females. Amongst the females, Ms. A
placed at the gaps in the given letter series refuses to be a member of the committee in
shall complete it? which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how
Ac__cab__baca__aba__aca__ many different ways can the committee be
(a) acbcc (b) aacbc constituted?
(c) babbb (d) bcbba (a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
Directions (21-24): In each of the following
29. Find the wrong number in the series.
questions, a series is given, with one/two term(s) 6, 12, 21, 32, 45, 60
missing. Choose the correct alternative from the (a) 6 (b) 12
given ones that will complete the series. (c) 21 (d) 32
30. Ramesh ranks 13th in a class of 33 students.
21. _?_DREQ, GUHT, JXKW There are 5 students below Suresh
(a) EFRS (b) TGSF rankwise. How many students are there
(c) JWVI (d) AOBN between Ramesh and Suresh?
22. 56, 90, 132, 184, 248, __?__ (a) 12 (b) 14
(a) 368 (b) 316 (c) 15 (d) 16
(c) 362 (d) 326
31. Naresh’s age is 4 years 4 years less than IV. No, one may take up agriculture
twice the age of his brother. W hich of the where education is not necessary.
following represents the equation to find his (a) Only I and II arguments are strong
age? (b) Only III and IV argument are strong
(a) 2x + 4 (b) 4x + 2 (c) Only I argument is strong
(c) x – 4 (d) 2x – 4 (d) Only I and III arguments are strong
32. Suresh’s sister is the wife of Ram. Ram is 37. A man started walking West. He turned right,
Rani’s brother. Ram’s father is Madhur. then right again and finally turned left.
Sheetal is Ram’s grandmother. Rema is Towards which direction was he walking
Sheetal’s daughter-in-law. Rema is now?
Sheetal’s daughter-in-law. Rohit is Rani’s (a) North (b) South
brother’s son. Who is Rohit to Suresh? (c) W est (d) East
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Son 38. Sudha travels 8 km to the South. Then she
(c) Brother (d) Nephew turns to the right and walks 4 km. Then again
33. In a survey, 70% of those surveyed owned a the turns to her right and moves 8 km
car and 75% of those surveyed owned a TV. forward. How many km away is she from
If 55% owned both a car and a TV, what the starting point?
percent of those surveyed did not own either (a) 7 (b) 6
a car on a TV? (c) 4 (d) 8
(a) 25% (b) 20% 39. From the given alternative words, select the
(c) 10% (d) 5% word which cannot be formed using the
34. If DANCE is coded as GXQZH then how will letters of the given words:
RIGHT be coded? ‘COMPREHENSION’
(a) UFJEW (b) SGKFX (a) MUTUAL (b) LIMITATION
(c) UFJWE (d) UFWJE (c) ONION (d) PREACH
35. If LOSE is coded as 1357 and GAIN is coded 40. From the given alternative words, select the
as 2468, what do the figures 84615 stand word which can be formed using the letters
for? of the given word:
(a) NAILS (b) SNAIL ‘MULTIPLICATION’
(c) LANES (d) SLAIN (a) MUTUAL (b) LIMITATION
36. A statement is given followed by four (c) APPLICATION (d) NOTION
alternative arguments. Select the alternative
which is most appropriate. Directions (41-42): In each of the following
Statements: questions, select the missing number from the
Is it necessary that education should be job given response.
oriented?
Arguments:
I. Yes, the aim of education is to
prepare person for earning. 6 5
II. Yes, educated person should stand
41. 125 ?
on his own feet after completion of
education.
III. No, education should be for sake of
knowledge only. (a) 127 (b) 31
(c) 217 (d) 328
47. Some equations are solved on the basis of
2 1 2 a certain system. Find the correct answer
for the unsolved equation on that basis.
21 22 ?
If 324 × 289 = 35, 441 × 484 = 43,
42. 1 2 5
625 × 400 = 45, find the value of 256 × 729.
20 23 43 (a) 33 (b) 35
(c) 43 (d) 34
(a) 40 (b) 48
(c) 50 (d) 36 Directions: From the given answer figures, select
43. If ‘–‘ stands for division ‘+’ stands for the one in which the question figures is hidden/
subtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘×’ embedded.
stands for addition, then which one of the
following equations is correct? 48. Question Figure:
(a) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 44
(b) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 21
(c) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 341
(d) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 36
44. The school result is increasing year after
year. Forecast the result of 2012 from the
Answer figures:
following information.
Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
Result 34.25% 36.75% 39.75% 43.25% 47.25% 51.75% ?
(a) 51.75% (b) 56.75%
(c) 48.00% (d) 57.25%
45. W hich diagram correctly represents the
relationship between politicians, poets and (a) (b) (c) (d)
women?
Directions: If a mirror is placed on the line MN,
then which of the answer figures is the correct
image of the given question figure?
(a) (b) (c) (d) 49. Question Figure:
46. How many triangles are there in the N

following figures?
Answer figures:
(a) 29 (b) 27
(c) 23 (d) 30 (a) (b) (c) (d)
59. As announced by the Finance Minister in his
PART – B
Budget speech on 28th February 2011, with
GENERAL AWARENESS a view to assist States in modernising their
stamp and registration administration, E-
51. In the budget for 2011-2012, the fiscal deficit
stamping is expected to be rolled out in all
(% of GDP) for 2011-2012 has been
the districts of different States in a period of
projected at
(a) one year (b) two year
(a) 5.1 (b) 5.0
(c) three year (d) five year
(c) 4.6 (d) 3.4
60. Which Sikh Guru called himself the ‘Sachcha
52. Which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Badshah’?
as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(a) Guru Gobind Singh
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Guru Hargoving
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Guru Arjun Dev
(d) Rights to Freedom of Religion
61. The Civil Disobedience Movement was
53. W hich is not the concern of the local
launched by Mahatma Gandhi in
government?
(a) 1928 (b) 1930
(a) Public Health
(c) 1931 (d) 1922
(b) Sanitation
62. W hat is the maximum strength prescribed
(c) Law and order
for State Legislative Assemblies?
(d) Public Utility Services
(a) 350 (b) 600
54. In India, the concept of single citizenship is
(c) 500 (d) 750
adopted from
63. Fa-hien visited India during the region of
(a) England (b) U.S.A.
(a) Chandragupta II
(c) Canada (d) France
(b) Samundragupta
55. Who had proposed partyless democracy in
(c) Ramagupta
India?
(d) Kumaragupta
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
64. At which place in Bengal was the East India
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Company given permission to trade and
(c) Vinoba Bhave
build a factory by the Mughals in 1651?
(d) S.A. Dange
(a) Calcutta
56. Disinvestment in Public Sector is called
(b) Cassim Bazar
(a) Liberalisation
(c) Singur
(b) Globalisation
(d) Burdwan
(c) Industrialisation
65. Diu is an island off
(d) Privatisation
(a) Daman
57. ‘Darwin finches’ refers to a group of
(b) Goa
(a) Fishes (b) Lizards
(c) Gujarat
(c) Birds (d) Amphibians
(d) Maharashtra
58. An individual’s actual standard of living can
66. W hich from the following is a land-locked
be assessed by
sea?
(a) Gross National Income
(a) Red Sea (b) Timor Sea
(b) Net National Income
(c) North Sea
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Aral Sea
(d) Disposable Personal Income
67. Shivasamudram Falls is found in the course 76. The dried flower buds are used as a spice
of river in
(a) Krishna (b) Godavari (a) Cardamom (b) Cinnamon
(c) Cauvery (d) Mahanandi (c) Cloves (d) Saffron
68. Who gave the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad”? 77. The tissue in man where no cell division
(a) Chandrashekhar Azad occurs after birth is
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose (a) skeletal (b) nerves
(c) Bhagat Singh (c) connective (d) germinal
(d) Iqbal 78. DNA fingerprinting is used to identify the
69. The position of India Railways network in (a) Parents (b) Rapist
the world is (c) Thieves (d) All the above
(a) second (b) third 79. The normal cholesterol level in human blood
(c) fourth (d) fifth is
70. The oldest international airline is (a) 80 – 120 mg%
(a) Dutch. KLM (b) 120 – 140 mg%
(b) Air Canada (c) 140 – 180 mg%
(c) Qantas Airways (d) 180 – 200 mg%
(d) Air Sahara 80. W hich of the following are warm-blooded
71. Which of the following can be used to absorb animals?
neutrons to control the chain reaction during (a) W hales
nuclear fission? (b) Whale Sharks
(a) Boron (b) Heavy water (c) Alytes
(c) Uranium (d) Plutonium (d) Draco
72. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of 81. Syrinx is the voice box in
(a) controlled fission reaction (a) Amphibians (b) Reptiles
(b) uncontrolled fission reaction (c) Birds (d) Mammals
(c) controlled fusion reaction 82. The largest ecosystem of the Earth is
(d) uncontrolled fusion reaction (a) Biome (b) Hydrosphere
73. Troposphere is the hottest part of the (c) Lithosphere (d) Biosphere
atmosphere because 83. In a food chain, the solar energy utilized by
(a) it is closest to the Sun plants is only
(b) there are charged particles in it (a) 10 per cent
(c) it is heated by the Earth’s surface (b) 1 per cent
(d) heat is generated in it (c) 0.1 per cent
74. The outermost layer of the Sun is called (d) 0.01 per cent
(a) Chromosphere 84. Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinning
(b) Photosphere of
(c) Corona (a) O3 layer (b) O2 layer
(d) Lithosphere (c) SO2 layer (d) CO2 layer
75. W here was India’s computer installed? 85. OTEC stand for
(a) Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi (a) Ocean Thermal Energy Conservation
(b) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore (b) Oil and Thermal Energy Conservation
(c) Indian Iron & Steel Co. Ltd., Burnpur (c) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
(d) Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta (d) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

86. As per Railway Budget for 2011-2012, the 94. 2018 FIFA World Cup would be held in
senior citizen concession for men has been (a) Russia
increased from (b) Qatar
(a) 25 % to 30% (c) France
(b) 30 % to 40% (d) Netherlands
(c) 40 % to 50% 95. Who of the following was not the recipient of
(d) 30 % to 50% Nobel Prize in Economics 2010?
87. The monster earthquake-cum-tsunami (a) Peter A. Diamond
which his Japan on March, 11, 2011 has (b) Christopher Pissarides
moved the country’s main island, Honshu, (c) Lui Xiaobo
by about (d) Dale Mortensen
(a) two feet (b) three feet 96. Which troubled model was recalled recently
(c) five feet (d) eight feet by the Indian automobile giant Maruti Suzuki
88. W hat is the commonly used unit for for replacement of faulty fuel pump gasket?
measuring the speed of data transmission? (a) Maruti 800
(a) Mega Hertz (b) Maruti A-Star
(b) Character per second (c) Wagon R
(c) Bits per second (d) Baleno
(d) Nano seconds 97. As a part of Human Resource Development
89. Which type of reaction produces the most Ministry’s ‘brain gain’ policy to attract global
harmful radiation? talent, 14 world class universities to attract
(a) Fusion reaction global talents are proposed to be set up in
(b) Fission reaction various states. Name the state from the
(c) Chemical reaction following where no university of the
(d) Photo-Chemical reaction aforesaid type is proposed to be located.
90. Which type of glass is used for making glass (a) Punjab
reinforced plastic? (b) Bihar
(a) Pyrex glass (b) Flint glass (c) Rajasthan
(c) Quartz glass (d) Fibre glass (d) Uttaranchal
91. W hich of the following metals causes Itai- 98. Who discovered South Pole?
Itai disease? (a) Robert Peary
(a) Cadmium (b) Chromium (b) Amundsen
(c) Cobalt (d) Copper (c) John Cabot
92. Glycol is added to aviation gasoline (d) Tasman
because it 99. W hich of the following folk dances is
(a) reduces evaporation of petrol associated with Rajasthan?
(b) increases efficiency of petrol (a) Rauf (b) Jhora
(c) prevents freezing of petrol (c) Veedhi (d) Suisini
(d) reduces consumption of petrol 100. Which of the following books is authored by
93. Who invented penicillin? V.S. Naipalu?
(a) Alexander Fleming (a) The Rediscovery of India
(b) Louis Pasteur (b) A House for Mr. Biswas
(c) Dresser (c) Witness the Night
(d) Edward Jenner (d) Tender Hooks

PART – C 21 17
NUMERICAL APTITUDE (a) (b)
13 3
34 8
101. If p = 124, 3
p ( p 2 + 3 p + 3) + 1 = ? (c) (d)
21 5
(a) 5 (b) 7
109. The unit digit in the product (122)173 is
(c) 123 (d) 125
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
x3 3
102. If 1- = , then x equals
100 5 2+ 3 2- 3 3+ 1
110. The value of + + is
(a) 2 (b) 4 2- 3 2+ 3 3 -1
(c) 16 (d) (136)1/3
103. I multiplied a natural number by 18 and (a) 16+ 3 (b) 4 - 3
another by 21 and added the products. Which
(c) 2- 3 (d) 2 + 3
one of the following could be the sum?
(a) 2007 (b) 2008 111. If a * b = 2a + 3b – ab, then the value of (3 * 5
(c) 2006 (d) 2002 + 5 * 3) is
104. The product of two numbers is 45 and their (a) 10 (b) 6
difference is 4. The sum of squares of the (c) 4 (d) 2
two numbers is 112. Simplify:
(a) 135 (b) 240
0.0347 × 0.0347 × 0.0347 + (0.9653)3
(c) 73 (d) 106
(0.0347) 2 - (0.347) + (0.09653) 2
105. (a) 0.9306 (b) 1.0009
8+ 57 + 38+ 108+ 169 = ?
(c) 1.0050 (d) 15
(a) 4 (b) 6 113. A copper wire is bent in the form of an
(c) 8 (d) 10 equilateral triangle, and has are 121 3 cm2.
106. The square root of 14 + 6 5 is If the same wire is bent into the form of a
circle, the area (in cm2) enclosed by the wire
(a) 2+ 5 (b) 3+ 5
22
(c) 5+ 3 (d) 3+ 2 5 in (Take π = )
7
107. When 231 is divided by 5 the remainder is
(a) 364.5 (b) 693.5
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1 (c) 346.5 (d) 639.5
114. A child reshapes a cone made up of clay of
height 24 and radius 6cm into a sphere. The
1
1+ radius (in cm) of eh sphere is
1 (a) 6 (b) 12
1+
1 (c) 24 (d) 48
1+
108. The value of 1 115. Water flows into a tank which is 200m long
1+
2 and 150m wide, through a pipe of cross-
1+
3 section 0.3m × 0.2m at 20 km/hour. Then

the time (in hour) for the water level in the
2 2
tank to reach 8cm is (a) 5 days (b) 6 days
(a) 50 (b) 120 3 3
(c) 150 (d) 200 (c) 6 days (d) 7 days
116. The product of two numbers is 2028 and 123. The ratio of the volumes of water and
their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs glycerine in 240cc of a mixture is 1 : 3. The
is quantity of water (in cc) that should be added
(a) 1 (b) 2 to the mixture so that the new ratio of the
(c) 3 (d) 4 volume of water and glycerine becomes 2:3
117. Two equal vessels are filled with the mixture is
of water and milk in the ratio of 3:4 and 5:3 (a) 55 (b) 60
respectively. If the mixtures are poured into (c) 62.5 (d) 64
a third vessel, the ratio of water and milk in 124. At present, the ratio of the ages of Maya and
the third vessel will be Chhaya is 6:5 and fifteen years from now,
(a) 15 : 12 (b) 53 : 59 the ratio will get changed to 9:8. Maya’s
(c) 20 : 9 (d) 59 : 53 present age is
118. I am three times as old as my son. 15 years (a) 21 years (b) 24 years
hence, I will by twice as old as my son. The (c) 30 years (d) 40 years
sum of our ages is 125. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of
(a) 48 years (b) 60 years a family is 10:7. If the family’s expenses are
(c) 64 years (d) 72 years Rs. 10,500, then savings of the family is
119. Three bells ring simultaneously at 11 a.m. (a) Rs. 4,500 (b) Rs. 10,000
They ring at regular intervals of 20 minutes, (c) Rs. 4,000 (d) Rs. 5,000
30 minutes, 40 minutes respectively. The 126. The average mathematics marks of two
time when all the three ring together next is Sections A and B of Class IX in the annual
(a) 2 p.m. (b) 1 p.m. examination is 74. The average marks of
(c) 1.15 p.m. (d) 1.30 p.m. Section A is 77.5 and that of Section B is 70.
120. A and B together can do a works in 12 days. The ratio of the number of students of
B and C together do it in 15 days. If A’s Section A and B
efficiency is twice that of C, then the days (a) 7 : 8 (b) 7 : 5
required for B alone to finish the work is (c) 8 : 7 (d) 8 : 5
(a) 60 (b) 30 127. The average weight of a group of 20 boys
(c) 15 (d) 15 was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later
121. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C discovered that one weight was misread as
can do the same work in 15 days, C and A 78kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average
can do the same time work in 20 days. The weight is
time taken by A, B and C to do the same (a) 88.95 kg (b) 89.25 kg
work is (c) 89.55 kg (d) 86.85 Kg
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days 128. The diameter of a wheel is 98 cm. The
(c) 15 days (d) 20 days number of revolutions in which it will have to
122. A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the cover a distance of 1540 m is
work done by A and B together. If C alone (a) 500 (b) 600
does the work in 20 days, then A, B and C (c) 700 (d) 800
together can do the work in 129. In an equilateral triangle ABC of side 10cm,

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the side BC is trisected at D. Then the length 135. The price of sugar goes up by 20%. If a
(in cm) of AD is housewife wants the expenses on sugar to
(a) (b) 7 3 remain the same, she should reduce the
3 7
consumption by
10 7 7 10 1 2
(c) (d) (a) 15 % (b) 13 %
3 3 5 3
130. The cost price of an article is Rs. 800. After (c) 20% (d) 25%
allowing a discount of 10%, a gain of 12.5% 136. In a factory 60% of the workers are above 30
was made. Then the marked price of the years and of these 75% are males and the
article is rest are females. If there are 1350 male
(a) Rs. 1,000 workers above 30 years, the total number of
(b) Rs. 1,100 workers in the factory
(c) Rs. 1,200 (a) 3000 (b) 2000
(d) Rs. 1,300 (c) 1800 (d) 1500
131. A man bought an article listed at Rs. 500
with a discount of 20% offered on the list 3
137. Walking at of his usual speed, a main is
price. W hat additional discount must be 4
offered to man to bring the net price to Rs.
1,104? 1
1 hours late. His usual time to cover to
(a) 8% (b) 10% 2
(c) 12% (d) 15% same distance, in hours, is
a c e 1
132. If = = = 3, (a) 4 (b) 4
b d f 2
2a 2 + 3c 2 + 4e 2 1
then =? (c) 5 (d) 5
2b 2 + 3d 2 + 4 f 2 2
138. The selling price of 10 oranges is the cost
(a) 2 (b) 3
price of 13 oranges. Then the profit
(c) 4 (d) 9
percentage is
133. The floor of a room is of size 4m × 3m and
(a) 30% (b) 10%
its height is 3m. The walls and ceiling of the
(c) 13% (d) 3%
room require painting. The area to be painted
139. The marked price of a ratio is Rs. 480. The
is
shopkeeper allows a discount at 10% and
(a) 66 m2 (b) 54 m2
gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his gain
(c) 43 m2 (d) 33 m2
percent would be
134. When the price of an article was reduced by
(a) 18% (b) 18.5%
20% its sale increased by 80%. What was
(c) 20.5% (d) 20%
the net effect on the sale?
140. A man sold 20 apples for Rs. 1000 and
(a) 44% increase
gained 20%. How many apples did he buy
(b) 44% decrease
for Rs. 100?
(c) 66% increase
(a) 20 (b) 22
(d) 66% decrease
(c) 24 (d) 25

141. A rectangular sheet of metal is 40 cm by 15 same compound rate become sixteen
cm. Equal squares of side 4 cm are cut off times?
at the corners and the remainder is folded (a) 6 years (b) 4 years
up to form an open rectangular box. The (c) 8 years (d) 5 years
volume of the box is
(a) 896 cm3 (b) 986 cm3 Directions (147-150): The pie chart given below
(c) 600 cm3 (d) 916 cm3 show the spending of a family on various heads
142. If 78 is divided into three parts which are in during a month. Study the graph and answer the
1 1 questions 147 to 150.
the ratio 1: : , the middle part is
3 6
1 11% nt
(a) 9 (b) 13 Clothing Re
%
3 14
9% Fuel
1 1
(c) 17 (d) 18
3 3 15% Education
45% food
143. The simple interest on a sum of money is
ers
Oth
1
6%
of the principle and the number of years
9
is equal to rate per cent annum. The rate 147. If the total income of the family is Rs. 25,000,
per annum is then the amount spent on Rent and Food
together is
1 (a) Rs. 17,250 (b) Rs. 14,750
(a) 3% (b) %
3 (c) Rs. 11,250 (d) Rs. 8,500
148. What is the ratio of the expenses of Education
1 3 to the expenses on Food?
(c) 3 % (d) %
3 10 (a) 1 : 3
144. The difference between simple interest and (b) 3 : 1
compound interest of a certain sum of money (c) 3 : 5
at 20% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 48. (d) 5 : 3
Then the sum is 149. Expenditure on Rent is what percent of
(a) Rs. 1,000 (b) Rs. 1,200 expenditure of Fuel?
(c) Rs. 1,500 (d) Rs. 2,000 (a) 135%
145. Shri X goes to his office by scooter at a speed (b) 156%
of 30 km/h and reaches 6 minutes earlier. If (c) 167%
he goes at a speed of 24 km/h, he reaches (d) 172%
5 minutes late. The distance of his office is 150. W hich three expenditures together have a
(a) 20 km (b) 21 km central angle of 108o?
(c) 22 km (d) 24 km (a) Fuel, Clothing and Others
146. A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 (b) Fuel, Education and Others
years, if the rate is compounded annually. In (c) Clothing, Rend and Others
how much time will the same amount at the (d) Education, Rent and Others

(a) spinster (b) bachelor
PART – D
(c) unmarried (d) single
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION 160. Do not stay in the grasslands after dark, as
some animals become ____ when they see
Directions (151-155): In the following question, humans.
some of the sentences have errors and some are (a) provoked (b) alerted
(c) aggressive (d) threatened
correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an
error. The number of the part is you answer. If a Directions (161-165): In the following, questions
sentence is free from errors, then you answer is out of the four alternatives, choose one which best
(d) i.e., No error. expresses the meaning of the given word.
151. A senior doctor (1) / expressed concern (2) / 161. LUCIDITY
about physicians recommended the (a) Fluidity (b) Politeness
vaccine. (3) / No error. (4) (c) Clarity (d) Fluency
152. W e have discussing (1) / all the known 162. INDICT
mechanisms (2) / of physical growth, (3) / (a) Implicate (b) Elude
No error. (4) (c) Appreciate (d) Judge
153. Children enjoy listening to (1) / ghosts 163. DELUGE
stories (2) / especially on Halloween night. (a) Confusion (b) Deception
(3) / No error. (4) (c) Flood (d) W eapon
154. I (1) / have (2) / many works to do. (3) / No 164. PREPONDERANCE
error. (4) (A) Pre-eminence
155. There are so many filths (1) / all around (2) / (B) Dominance
the place. (3) / No error. (4) (C) Domineering
(D) Preoccupation
Directions (156–160): In the following questions,
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with Directions (166-170): In the following question no.
an appropriate word. Four alternatives are 166 to 170, out of the four alternatives, choose the
suggested for each question. Choose the correct word opposite in meaning to the given word.
alternative out of the four.
166. INVINCIBLE
156. The building is not safe and must be _____ (a) Small
down. (b) Invisible
(a) pull (b) pulling (c) Vulnerable (d) Reachable
(c) pulled (d) pulls 167. INOFFENSIVE
157. There is something wonderful ___ him. (a) Sensitive (b) Organic
(a) of (b) about (c) Sensible (d) Rude
(c) for (d) inside 168. DIVULGE
158. The song in the play cannot be deleted it is (a) Conceal (b) Disguise
____ to the story. (c) Oppress (d) Reveal
(a) intervened (b) innate 169. DISCORD
(c) exacting (d) integral (a) Harmony (b) Serenity
159. She remained a _____ all her life. (c) Acceptance (d) Placidity

170. MAMMOTH (a) The man whom I thought was
(a) Quiet (b) Significant thoroughly honest proved as swindler.
(c) Huge (d) Small (b) The man who I thought was
thoroughly honest proved to be a
Directions (171-175): In the following four swindler.
alternatives are given for the meaning of the given (c) The man to whom I thought was
Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best thoroughly honest proved to be a
expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase. swindler,
(d) No improvement
171. To take to heart 177. No sooner had the dividend been declared,
(a) to be encouraged the notices were sent out.
(b) to grieve over (a) The company had hardly declared the
(c) to like dividend till the notices were sent for
(d) to hate mailing.
172. Yeoman’s service (b) They had no sooner declared to
(a) medical help dividend then the notices were sent
(b) excellent work out.
(c) social work (c) Hardly had the dividend been declared
than the notices were sent out.
(d) hard work
(d) No improvement.
173. To face the music
178. Riding upon his horse, the tiger jumped at
(a) to enjoy a musical recital
him.
(b) to bear the consequences
(a) Riding upon the tiger, the horse
(c) to live in a pleasant atmosphere
jumped at him.
(d) to have a difficult time
(b) The tiger jumped at him while he was
174. To put up with riding upon his horse.
(a) to accommodate (c) The tiger rode at him while he was
(b) to adjust jumping upon his horse.
(c) to understand (d) No improvement
(d) to tolerate 179. I in black and white must have your terms
175. To call it a day down.
(a) to conclude proceedings (a) I must have in black in white your
(b) to initiate proceedings terms down.
(c) to work through the day (b) I must have your terms in black and
(d) None of the above white down.
(c) I must have your terms down in black
Directions (176-180): In the following questions, and white.
a sentence or bold part thereof is given which may (d) No improvement.
need improvement. Alternative are given at (A), (B) 180. When we are came out of the restaurant it
and (C) below, which may be a better option. In was half past eleven.
(a) W hen we had come out of the
case, no improvement is needed, your answer is
restaurant
(D).
(b) After we came out of the restaurant
(c) W hen we have come out of the
176. The man whom I thought was thoroughly
restaurant
honest proved to be a swindler.
(d) No improvement
Directions (181-185): In the following questions, Directions (191-200): In the following passage
out of the four alternatives, choose the one which some of the words have been left out. First read
can be substituted for the given words/sentence. the passage over and try to understand what it is
about. Then fill the blanks with the help of the
181. Code of diplomatic etiquette and alternative given.
precedence
(a) Statesmanship
PASSAGE
(b) Diplomacy
(c) Hierarchy (d) Protocol Science means knowledge, but not all knowledge is
182. To renounce a high position of authority or science. I know from my own eyesight that our dog
control Chippy lies papaya; I know from a book that Akbar
(a) Abduct (b) Abandon was the (191) of Babar, and (192) in 1605; and I know
(c) Abort (d) Abdicate (193) the ratio that India did not do well in the (194)
183. Not to be moved by entreaty Test matches. We can call these (195) of knowledge
(a) Rigorous (b) Negligent (196) but they are not science.
(c) Inexorable (d) Despotic
184. An object or portion serving as a sample Science (197) with facts, but not with facts which have
(a) Specification (b) Spectre (198) to do with each other, like the facts about our
(c) Spectacle (d) Specimen dog, cricket and the Mughal ruler; those facts are not
185. The practice of submitting a proposal to related (199), and so have nothing (200) with science.
popular vote Science stars with observation.
(a) Election (b) Reference 191. (a) grandson
(c) Popularity (d) Referendum (b) grandfather
(c) grand nephew
Directions (186-190): In the following questions, (d) son
groups of four words are given. In each group, one 192. (a) gone (b) died
word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt (c) disappeared (d) absented
word. 193 (a) on (b) in
(c) since (d) from
186. (a) mandatary 194. (a) old (b) ordinary
(b) circulatory (c) latest (d) outdated
(c) temporary 195. (a) pieces (b) peace
(d) regulatory (c) whole (d) block
187. (a) convinience 196. (a) lies (b) charges
(b) initative (c) facts (d) blame
(c) concessional 197. (a) starts (b) stops
(d) exaggerate (c) passes (d) drives
188. (a) diologue (b) giraffe 198. (a) no (b) neither
(c) scissors (d) humourous (c) nor (d) nothing
189. (a) assiduous (b) nefarious 199. (a) by that way (b) in any way
(c) macabre (d) loquacious (c) from the side (d) in addition to
190. (a) cortege (b) damage 200. (a) to lie (b) to speak
(c) milege (d) plumege (c) to sleep (d) to do

ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (c) 62. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72 (d) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75 (d) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b)
101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (d) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (a)
111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (c)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (a) 129. (c) 130. (a)
131. (a) 132. (d) 133. (b) 134. (a) 135. (b) 136. (a) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (d) 140. (c)
141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (c) 144. (b) 145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (a) 149. (b) 150. (b)
151. (c) 152 (a) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (d) 159. (a) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (c) 163. (d) 164. (c) 165. (b) 166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (d)
171. (b) 172. (a) 173. (b) 174. (d) 175. (d) 176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (d)
181. (d) 182. (d) 183. (d) 184. (d) 185. (d) 186. (c) 187. (d) 188. (c) 189. (b) 190. (a)
191. (a) 192. (b) 193. (a) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (c) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b) 200. (d)

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011
SOLVED PAPER
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM
Held on:– 26-06-2011
(First Sitting)
PART A
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

Directions: In questions no. 1 to 9, select the 8. PNLJ : IGEC : : VTRP : ?
related letters / words / numbers from the given (1) OMKI (2) RSTU
alternatives. (3) QSRC (4) RPOM
1. 6 : 64 : 11 : ? 9. 17 : 60 : : 20 : ?
(1) 57 (2) 69
(1) 144 (2) 169
(3) 81 (4) 93
(3) 121 (4) 124
2. 123 : 4 : : 726 : ? Directions: In questions no. 10 to 15, find the odd
number / letters / word from the given
(1) 23 (2) 26
alternatives.
(3) 14 (4) 12
3. Fish : Scale : : Bear : ? 10. (A) 162 (B) 405
(1) Feathers (2) Leaves (C) 567 (D) 644
(3) Fur (4) Skin 11. (A) 156 (B) 201
4. Writer : Pen : : ?
(C) 273 (D) 345
(1) Needle : Tailor (2) Artist : Brush
(3) Painter : Canvas (4) Teacher : Class 12. (A) Flute (B) Violin
5. NUMBER : UEALRMN : : ALGEBRA : ? (C) Guitar (D) Sitar
(1) LRBAGEA (2) BARLAGE 13. (A) Prod (B) Sap
(3) LERAGBA (4) LERABGA (C) Jab (D) Thrust
6. BDAC : FHED : : NPMO : ?
14. (A) JKOP (B) MNST
(1) RQTS (2) QTRC
(3) TRQS (4) RTQS (C) CABD (D) OPWX
7. FGHI : OPQR : : BCDE : ? 15. (A) CAFD (B) TSWV
(1) KLMJ (2) KLMN (C) IGLJ (D) OMRP
(3) IUVW (4) STUW

(Solved Paper):–26-06-2011
16. In the following questions, number of letters (A) 368 (B) 676
are skipped in between by a particular rule. (C) 855 (D) 908
Which of the following series observes the 23. X Y Z C B A U V W F E ___?___ ___?___
rule?
(A) DR (B) RS
(A) ABFGJK (B) ACEJOU
(C) DS (D) MN
(C) MPQSTV (D) ADFHJL
24. reoc, pgme, nikg, lkii, ___?___
17. Find out the pair of numbers that does not
belong to the group for lack of common (A) acef (B) jmgk
property. (C) efgh (D) wxyz
(A) 11 – 115 (B) 10 – 90 25. Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are
(C) 9 – 72 (D) 8 – 56 Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of
Sharat, who is loves most by his uncle
Directions: Which one of the given response
would be a meaningful descending order of the Mithun. The head of the family is Ram Lal,
following? who is succeeded by his sons Gopal and
Mohan. Gopal and Ganga has been married
18. 1. Major 2. Captain
for 35 years and have 3 children. What is
3. Colonel 4. Brigadier the relation between Mithum and Mohan?
5. Lt. General (A) Uncle (B) Son
(A) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 (C) Brother (D) No relation
(C) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 (D) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 26. Find the wrong number in the series.
Directions: Arrange the following words as per 6, 9, 15, 22, 51, 99
order in the dictionary. (A) 99 (B) 51
19. 1. Dissident 2. Dissolve (C) 22 (D) 15
3. Dissent 4. Dissolute 27. In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left
5. Dissolution and Veena is 6th from the right. If they
interchange their positions. Kamla becomes
(A) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 (B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
25th from the left. How many girls are here
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
in the row?
20. Which one set of letters when sequentially
(A) 34 (B) 36
placed at the gaps in the given letter series
(C) 40 (D) 41
shall complete it?
_cd_cab_baca_cba_ab  1
28. Ravi has spent a quarter   of his life as a
(A) cabcb (B) abccb 4
(C) bacbc (D) bcaba
 1  1
Directions: In questions no. 21 to 24 a series is boy, one-fifth   as a youth, one-third  
given, with one / two terms(s) missing. Choose 5 3
the correct alternative from the given one that as a man and thirteen (13) years in old age.
will complete the series. What is his present age?
21. 4, 169, 16, 169, ?, 144, 64 (A) 70 years (B) 80 years
(C) 60 years (D) 65 years
(A) 21 (B) 81
(C) 36 (D) 32 29. Five boys A, B, C, D, E are sitting in a park in
22. 8, 15, 36, 99, 288. ___?___ a circle. A is facing South-West, D is facing

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

South-East, B and E are right opposite A and married men have children, then what part
D respectively and C is equidistant between of workers are without children?
D and B. Which direction is C facing? (A) 5/18 (B) 4/9
(A) West (B) South (C) 11/18 (D) 17/36
(C) North (D) East 35. If a man of a moped starts from a point and
30. At what time are the hands of clock together rides 4 km South, then turns left and rides 2
between 6 and 7? km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km
more, towards which direction is he
8 moving?
(A) 32 minutes past 6
11 (A) North (B) West
(C) East (D) South
8
(B) 34 minutes past 6 36. Ganesh cycles towards South-West a
11
distance of 8 m, then he moves towards East
8 a distance of 20 m. From there he moves
(C) 30 minutes past 6 towards North-East a distance of 8 m, then
11
he moves towards West a distance of 6 m.
5 From there he moves towards North-East a
(D) 32 minutes past 6
7 distance of 2 m. Then he moves towards West
31. Our of 100 families in the neighbourhood, a distance of 4 m and then towards South-
50 have radios, 75 have TVs and 25 have West 2 m and stops at that point. How far is
VCRs. Only 10 families have all three and he from the starting point?
each VCR owner also has a TV. If some (A) 12 m (B) 10 m
families have radio only, how many have (C) 8 m (D) 6 m
only TV? 37. Tow statements are given followed by four
(A) 30 (B) 35 inferences. Select the alternative which is
(C) 40 (D) 45 most appropriate.
32. Suresh was born of 4 th October 1999. Statements:
Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh.
India is becoming industrialised.
The Independence day of that year fell on
Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born? Pollution is a problem associated with
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday industralisation.
(C) Monday (D) Sunday Inferences:
33. From the given alternative words, select the I.All industrial centres are polluted.
word which cannot be formed using the
letters of the given word: II. India is polluted.
‘CONCENTRATION’ III. Polluted nations are industrialised.

(A) CONCERN (B) NATION IV. India many become polluted
(C) TRAIN (D) CENTRE (A) All are appropriate
34. In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are (B) None is appropriate
women, ½ of the women are married and 1/ (C) Only IV is appropriate
3 of the married women have children. If 3/ (D) Only II is appropriate
4 of the men are married and 2/3 of the 38. From the given alternative words, select the

word which can be formed using the letters
of the given word:
‘DETERMINATION’
(A) DECLARATION (B) NATIONAL
(C) TERMINATED (D) DEVIATION (A) (B) (C) (D)
39. If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written 45. Some equations have been solved on the
as JCJZYSSD, then how can ANTIMONY basis of a certain system. Find the correct
be written in that code? answer for the unsolved equation on that
(A) CPVKOQPA (B) CRZQWABO basis.
(C) ERXMQSRC (D) GTZOSUTE
If 9 * 7 = 32, 13 * 7 = 120, 17 * 9 = 208, then 19
40. If DELHI coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA * 11 = ?
as 82589662, then the how can CALICUT
(a) 150 (b) 180
be coded?
(c) 210 (d) 240
(A) 5279431 (B) 5978013
46. Forecast the Growth Rate for the year 1995
(C) 82501896 (D) 8543691
from the following data:
Directions: In questions no. 41 and 42, select the
missing number from the given responses.
Year 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
41. 2 7 9
Growth
7 3 4 Rate
3.5 3.7 4.1 4.9 6.5 ?
9 8 7
126 168 216 (A) 7.8 (B) 8.6
(C) 9.7 (D) 9.9
(A) 8 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 36 47. If '-' stand for '÷', '+' stand for '×', '÷' for '-'
and '×' for '+', which one of the following
equations is correct?
? 9 (A) 30 - 6 + 5 × 4 ÷ 2 = 27
(B) 30 + 6 - 5 ÷ 4 × 2 = 30
42. 33 17 (C) 30 × 6 ÷ 5 - 4 + 2 = 32
(D) 30 ÷ 6 × 5 + 4 - 2 = 40
(A) 60 (B) 68 Directions: From the given answer figures, select
(C) 55 (D) 65 the one in which the question figure is hidden /
43. How many rectangles are there in the given embedded.
diagram? 48. Question figures:
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 18
44. Which of the following diagrams represents
the relationship among Sun, Moon and
Star?

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

Answer figurs: FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED
CANDIDATES ONLY
46. Select the letters that complete the first word
and begin the second from the given
(A) (B) (C ) (D) alternatives.
FLO(?)TACK
Directions: If a mirror is placed on the line MN, (A) CK (B) OR
then which of the answer figures is the correct (C) AT (D) UR
image of the given question figures? 47. An a election 1/2 of voters vote for Anand,
49. Question figures: half of the remaining vote for Bhuvan and
half of the remaining vote for Chaman. 840
persons did not vote. What percent of the
entire list did not vote?
(A) 8.4 (B) 8.5
(C) 12.4 (D) 12.5
48. Amit is shorter than Biju but taller than
Answer figurs: Chand. Dhruv is shorter than Amit but taller
than Chand and Ekta is shorter than Biju
but taller than Amit. Who is the tallest
person.
(A) Biju (B) Ekta
(C) Amit (D) Dhruv
49. Four books are kept on each other. K is on A,
Directions: A piece of paper is folded and cut as
C is below B. If A is above B, then which
shown below in the question figures. From the
book is at the top?
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear
when opened. (A) K (B) C
(C) A (D) B
50. Question figure: 50. In a brick furnace there were 100 bricks, out
1
of which of them were broken into two
4
1
and of them broken into three pieces in
Answer figures: 5
the process of heating. How many full bricks
were remaining?
(A) 40 (B) 45
(C) 55 (D) 56

PART B
GENERAL AWARENESS
51. Judicial review in the Indian Constitution 58. The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the
is based on budget of
(A) Rule of Law (A) 2003-04 (B) 2004-05
(B) Due process of Law (C) 2005-06 (D) 2006-07
(C) Procedure established by Law 59. In the Budget estimates for 2011-12, and
(D) Precedents and Conventions allocation of Rs. 400 crore had been made to
52. The Drafting of the Constitution was bring in a green revolution in the East in the
completed on cropping system of
(A) 26th January 1950 (A) Wheat (B) Rice
(B) 26th December 1949 (C) Jowar (D) Pulses
(C) 26th November 1949 60. As announced by the Finance Minister in
(D) 30th November 1949 his budget speech on 28-2-2011, the income
53. Who was the President of the Constituent tax exemption limit for individuals other
Assembly? than senior citizen and women has been
(A) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru raised to
(B) Sardar Patel (A) Rs. 1,80,000 (B) Rs. 1,90,000
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Rs. 2,00,000 (D) Rs. 2,50,000
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 61. Who among the following British persons
54. Which innovative discussion process is admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national
introduced by the Indian Parliament to the revolt?
World Parliamentary systems? (A) Lord Dalhousie (B) Lord Canning
(A) Question hour (B) Zero hour (C) Lord Ellenborough
(C) Resolutions (D) Disraeli
(D) Presidential speech 62. The Greek ambassador sent to
55. The Judges of the Supreme Court retire at Chandragupta Maurya’s court was
the age of (A) Kautilya (B) Selecus Nicator
(A) 60 years (B) 65 years (C) Megasthenes (D) Justin
(C) 62 years (D) 58 years 63. Identify the European power from whom
56. When there is an official change in the Shivaji obtained cannons and ammunition.
exchange rate of domestic currency, then it (A) The French (B) The Portuguese
is called (C) The Dutch (D) The English
(A) Appreciation (B) Depreciation 64. The call of “Back to the Vedas” was given
(C) Revaluation (D) Deflation by
57. Inflation redistributes income and wealth (A) Swami Vivekananda
in favour of (B) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(A) Pensioners (B) Poor (C) Aurobindo Ghosh
(C) Middle class (D) Rich (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

65. Simon Commission was boycotted by the (C) to convert static friction into kinetic
nationalist leaders of India because friction
(A) they felt that it was only an eyewash (D) just for convenience
(B) all the numbers of the Commission were 74. ‘Shock-absorbers’ are usually made of steel
english as it
(C) the members of the Commission were (A) is not brittle
biased against India (B) has lower elasticity
(D) it did not meet the demands of the (C) has higher elasticity
Indians (D) has no ductile property
66. The lowest layer of the atmosphere is 75. The first computer made available for
(A) Stratosphere (B) Thermosphere commercial use was
(C) Troposphere (D) Mesosphere (A) MANIAC (B) ENIAC
67. The Konkan Railway connects (C) UNIVAC (D) EDSAC
(A) Goa—Mangalore 76. A communication network which is used
(B) Roha—Mangalore by large organizations over regional,
(C) Kanyakumari—Mangalore national or global area is called
(D) Kanyakumari—Mumbai (A) LAN (B) WAN
68. Bark of this tree is used as a condiment— (C) MAN (D) VAN
(A) Cinnamon (B) Clove 77. Who was the architect of North and South
(C) Neem (D) Palm Blocks of the Central Secretariat in Delhi?
69. How much of the Earth’s land surface is (A) Sir Edward Lutyens
desert? (B) Hebert Baker
(A) 1/10th (B) 1/5th (C) Robert Tor Russell
(C) 1/3rd (D) 1/6th (D) Antonin Raymond
70. Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp 78. Saliva helps in the digestion of
capital of India’? (A) Fats (B) Starch
(C) Proteins (D) Vitamins
(A) Mangalore (B) Nagapatnam
(C) Kochi (D) Nellore 79. The longest bone in the human body is
71. River Indus originates from (A) Ulna (B) Humerus
(A) Hindukush range (C) Femur (D) Tibia
(B) Himalayan range 80. Red data book gives information about
(C) Karakoram range species which are
(D) Kailash range (a) extinct (b) endangered
72. The atmospheric air is held to the Earth by (c) dangerous (d) rare
(A) gravity (B) winds 81. Which of the following is the smallest bird?
(C) clouds (A) Pigeon (B) Parrot
(D) rotation of the Earth (C) Humming bird (D) House sparrow
73. The function of ball bearings in a wheel is 82. The time period of a pendulum when taken
(A) to increase friction to the Moon would.
(B) to convert kinetic friction into rolling (A) remain the same (B) decrease
friction (C) become zero (D) increase

83. Indian Army’s Operation ‘Saiyam’ was 91. The word’s only floating national park is
related to situated in
(A) Kashmir (A) Manipur
(B) Indo-China Border in the Central Region (B) Kula Lumpur
(C) North-East (C) Bilaspur
(D) Indo-Pak Border in Punjab and (D) Dispur
Rajasthan 92. According to the latest ‘Education
84. Which of the following could be used as fuel Development Index’ based on a series of
in propellant or rockets? surveys conducted by the National
(A) Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen University of Education, Planning and
(B) Liquid Oxygen + Liquid Argon Administration and released in February,
(C) Liquid Nitrogen + Liquid Oxygen 2011, the state with the highest Development
(D) Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Oxygen Index is
85. The addition of gypsum to Portland cement (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala
helps in (C) Punjab (D) Gujarat
(A) increasing the strength of cement 93. The ‘Project Snow Leopard’ to conserve the
(B) rapid setting of cement endangered species, launched by the Union
(C) preventing rapid setting of cement Ministry of Environment and Forests covers
(D) reduction in the cost of cement the states of
86. White lung disease is prevalent among the (A) Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal
workers of Pradesh only
(A) Paper industry (B) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh
(B) Cement industry and Uttarakhand only
(C) Cotton industry (C) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
(D) Pesticide industry Uttarakhand and Arunachal Pradesh
only
87. Indoform is used as an
(D) Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,
(A) antipyretic (B) analgesic Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh and
(C) antiseptic (D) anaesthetic Sikkim
88. An artificial ecosystem is represented by 94. In the Railway Budget for 2011-12, an outlay
(A) pisciculture tank(B) agricultural land of Rs. 57,630 crore has been announced for
(C) zoo (D) aquarium adding new lines with length of
89. The constituents of automobile exhaust that (A) 1000 km (B) 1200 km
can cause cancer is/are (C) 1300 km (D) 1500 km
(A) Oxides of nitrogen 95. The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which
(B) Carbon monoxide has moved Japan’s main island by a few
(C) Polycyclic hydrocarbons feet and has caused the Earth’s axis to
(D) Lead wobble is expected to lead to the shortening
90. The optimum dissolved oxygen level (in of the day by
mg/litre) required for survival of aquatic (A) 1.6 microseconds
organisms is (B) 2.3 microseconds
(A) 4-6 (B) 2-4 (C) 3.1 microseconds
(C) 8-10 (D) 12-16 (D) 3.4 microseconds
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(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

96. Which of the following folk/tribal dances 99. The 2010 FIFA World Cup Final was held at
is associated with Uttar Pradesh? (A) Paris (B) Berlin
(A) Veedhi (B) Thora (C) Johannesburg (D) London
(C) Tamasha (D) Rauf 100.Who of the following received Sangeet Natak
97. Which of the following books has been Akademi’s Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva
written by Atiq Rahimi? Puruskar for 2009 in ‘Hindustani Vocal
(A) Earth and Ashes (B) This Savage Rite Music’?
(C) The Red Devil (D) Witness the Night (A) Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
98. Who is the recipient of the Sahitya Akademi (B) Ragini Chander Shekar
Award 2010 in Hindi Literature category? (C) Abanti Chakravorty and Sukracharya
(A) Uday Prakash (B) Laxman Dubey Radha
(C) Nanjil Nanda (D) Mangat Badal (D) K. Nellai Manikandan
UPSC
GEOGRAPHY
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(Mains) Examination
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PART C
NUMERICAL APTITUDE
101. The value of
127
107. 3 1- is equal to
3 2 4 3 6 343
- + is
3+ 6 6+ 2 3+ 2 5 1
(A) 4 (B) 0 (A) (B) 1-
9 7
(C) 2 (D) 3 6 4 2
(C) (D) 1-
7 7
102. 6+ 6+ 6+... = ?
108. If the sun of two numbers be multiplied by
(A) 2.3 (B) 3 each number separately, the product so
(C) 6 (D) 6.3 obtained are 247 and 114. The sun of the
numbers is
 3+ 2 
103. The square root of  (A) 19 (B) 20
 is
 3- 2  (C) 21 (D) 23
109. Find a number, one-seventh of which
(A) 3+ 2 (B) 3 - 2 exceeds its eleventh part by 100.
(C) 2± 3 (D) 2 - 3 (A) 1925 (B) 1825
104. The remainder when 321 is divided by 5 is (C) 1540 (D) 1340
(A) 1 (B) 2 110. If x * y =(x + 3)2 (y – 1), then the value of 5 * 4
(C) 3 (D) 4 is
(A) 192 (B) 182
1 2
2 -1 (C) 180 (D) 172
3 11
3+
1 (0.05) 2 +(0.41) 2 +(0.073) 2
1 is 111. is
105. The value of 3+ (0.005) 2 +(0.041) 2 +(0.073) 2
1
3+ (A) 10 (B) 100
3
(C) 1000 (D) None of these
38 109 112. If 9 x = 12 + 147 , then x = ?
(A) (B)
109 38 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
116
(C) 1 (D) 113. A and B can complete a piece of work in 8
109
days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A
106. The last digit of (1001)2008 + 1002 is can do it in 8 days. A, B and C together can
(A) 0 (B) 3 complete it in
(C) 4 (D) 6 (1) 4 days (2) 5 days
(3) 6 days (4) 7 days

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

114. X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to 121. The traffic lights at three different road
complete the work in 40 days less than Y. crossing change after 24 seconds, 36 seconds
Then the time in which they can complete and 54 seconds respectively. If they all
the work together is change simultaneously at 10 : 00 AM, then
(1) 15 days (2) 10 days at what time will they again change
simultaneously?
1
(3) 7 days (4) 5 days (A) 10 : 16 : 54 AM (B) 10 : 18 : 36 AM
2 (C) 10 : 17 : 02 AM (D) 10 : 22 : 12 AM
115. A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square 122. A can do a work in 12 days. When he had
of area 81 cm2. If the same wire is bent in the worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they
form of a semicircle, the radius (in cm) of the complete the work in 3 more days, in how
22 many days can B alone finish the work?
semicircle is (Take π= )
7 (A) 6 days (B) 12 days
(A) 16 (B) 14 (C) 4 days (D) 8 days
(C) 10 (D) 7 123. Among three numbers, the first is twice the
116. The volume (in m3) of rain water that can be second and thrice and third. If the average
collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a of the three numbers is 49.5, then the
rainfall of 5 cm is difference between the first and the third
(A) 75 (B) 750 number is
(C) 7500 (D) 75000 (A) 54 (B) 28
117. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is following (C) 39.5 (D) 41.5
at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water 124. The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was
(in litres) will fall into the sea in a minute? discovered that two entries were wrongly
(A) 4,00,000 (B) 40,00,000 entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31.
(C) 40,000 (D) 4,000 Find the correct mean.
118. The L.C.M. of three different numbers is 120.
(A) 36.12 (B) 30.66
Which of the following cannot he their
(C) 29.28 (D) 38.21
H.C.F.?
(A) 8 (B) 12 125. A bicycle wheel marks 5000 revolutions in
(C) 24 (D) 35 moving 11 km. Them the radious of the wheel
119. A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as 22
remainder. This number when divided by 7 (in cm) is (Take π= )
7
will have the remainder as
(A) 70 (B) 35
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 17.5 (D) 140
(C) 2 (D) 5
120. In an examination a student scores 4 marks 126. The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its
for every correct answer and loses 1 mark area is 60 cm2. If the largest side measures
for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 17 cm, then the length (in cm) of the smallest
questions and secures 125 marks, the side of the triangle is
number of questions he attempts correctly (A) 4 (B) 6
is (C) 8 (D) 15
(A) 35 (B) 40 127. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% to
(C) 42 (D) 46 his customers and still gains 20%. Find the

marked price of the article which costs Rs. hours more in upstream than in the
450 downstream for the same distance. The
(A) Rs. 600 (B) Rs. 540 distance is
(C) Rs. 660 (D) Rs. 580 (A) 30 km (B) 24 km
128. What single discount is equivalent to two (C) 20 km (D) 32 km
successive discounts of 20% and 15%? 135. If the selling price of 10 articles is equal to
(A) 35% (B) 32% the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain
(C) 34% (D) 30% percent is
129. In a business partnership among A, B, C and (A) 10 (B) 11
D, the profit is shared as follows: (C) 15 (D) 25
136. While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives a
A's share B's share C's share 1
= = = discount of 5%. If he gives a discount of 6%,
B'share C'share D'share 3 he earns Rs. 15 less as profit. What is the
If the total profit is Rs. 4,00,000, the share of marked price of the watch?
C is (A) Rs. 1,250 (B) Rs. 1,400
(A) Rs. 1,12,500 (B) Rs. 1,37,500 (C) Rs. 1,500 (D) Rs. 750
(C) Rs. 90,000 (D) Rs. 2,70,000 137. Krishna purchased a number of articles at
130. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A Rs. 10 for each and the same number for Rs.
and B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of 14 each. He mixed then together and sold
mixture are drawn off and the can is filled
them for Rs. 13 each. Then his gain or loss
with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9.
percent is
Liters of liquid A contained by the can
initially was 1
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) Loss 8 %
3
(C) 21 (D) 25
131. What number should be added to or 2
(B) Gain 8 %
subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 3
so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2?
2
(A) 5 is subtracted (B) 10 is added (C) Loss 8 %
(C) 7 is added (D) 10 is subtracted 3
132. The ratio of weekly incomes of A and B is 9 : 1
7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. (D) Gain 8 %
3
If each saved Rs. 200 per week, then the sum
of their weekly incomes is 138. A trader bought two horses for Rs. 19,500.
(A) Rs. 3,600 (B) Rs. 4,200 He sold one at a loss of 20% and the other at
(C) Rs. 4,800 (D) Rs. 5,600 a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each
horse is the same, then their cost prices are
133. If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer
is 80% of B. What percentage of A is B? respectively
(A) 30% (B) 40% (A) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 9,500
(C) 70% (D) 75% (B) Rs. 11,000 and Rs. 8,000
(C) Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 7,500
134. A man can row 6km/h in still water. If the
(D) Rs. 10,500 and Rs. 9,000
speed of the current is 2 km/h, it takes 3

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

139. The cost price of an article is 40% of the for 2 years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per
selling price. What percent of the cost prices annum is
is the selling price? (A) 5% (B) 7%
(A) 140% (B) 200% (C) 10% (D) 12%
(C) 220% (D) 250%
1
140. If 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A then 144. A student goes to school at the rate of 2
the value of x is 2
km/h and reaches 6 minutes late. If he
(A) 450 (B) 400
travels at the speed of 3 km/h, he is 10
(C) 300 (D) 150
minutes early. The distance (in km) between
141. When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a the school and his house is
man could buy 1 kg more for Rs. 270. Then (A) 5 (B) 4
the original price of sugar per kg is (C) 3 (D) 1
(A) Rs. 25 (B) Rs. 30 145. A sum of money placed at compound interest
(C) Rs. 27 (D) Rs. 32 doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years
142. If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by will it amount to four times itself?
how much percent a householder must (A) 12 years (B) 13 years
reduce his consumption of sugar so as not (C) 8 years (D) 16 years
to increase his expenditure?
146. The simple interest on a sum of 5 years is
(A) 10 (B) 20 one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest
(C) 18 (D) 25 per annum is
143. The difference between the compound (A) 5% (B) 6%
interest and simple interest on Rs. 10,000 (C) 4% (D) 8%
Directions: (Question No. 147 to 150). The following graph shows the demand and production of
cotton by 5 companies A, B, C, D and E. Study the graph and answer question 147 to 150.
Demand (in tonnes) Production (in tonnes)

3300
3000
2700
2400
1800
1500
1500
1200
900
600
A B C D E
Companies

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147. The production of company D is how many months, A increases his share by 50% If the
times that of the production of the company total profit at the end of one year be Rs.
A? 21,600, then B’s share in the profit is
(A) 1.8 (B) 1.5 (A) Rs. 2,100 (B) Rs. 2,400
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.4 (C) Rs. 3,600 (D) Rs. 4,000
148. The demand for company B is what percent 148. A person travels 48 km at 12 km/h and
of the demand? further 48 km at 16 km/h. His average speed
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 for the whole journey, in km/h, is
(C) 25 (D) 30
4
149. What is the ratio of companies having more (A) 14 (B) 13
7
demand than production to those having
more production than demand? 3 5
(C) 12 (D) 13
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 4 : 1 7 7
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 1 : 4 149. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are
150. What is the difference (in tonnes) between 13 and 1989 respectively. If one of the
average demand and average production of numbers is 117, determine the other.
the five companies taken together? (A) 121 (B) 143
(A) 320 (B) 420 (C) 217 (D) 221
(C) 2100 (D) 1050 150. A sphere of radius r and a cylinder of the
FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED base radius r have equal volumes. If the
height of the cylinder is h, then which of the
CANDIDATES ONLY
following is true?
147. A, B and C enter into a partnership with (A) 4r = 3h (B) 4r = h
7 4 6 (C) H = 3r (D) H = 2r
investments in the ratio : : . After 4
2 3 5
CURRENT AFFAIRS
Designed for IAS
State Civil Services, Bank PO, SSC
NDA & CDS Examination

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011
PART D
Directions: In questions no. 151 to 155, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct.
Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the
appropriated letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding to
(D) in the Answer Sheet.
151. His son is working very hardly. No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
152. Do you know that it was I who had done this piece of beautiful work? No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
153. The company has ordered some new equipments. No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
154. The future of food companies seems quite secure owed to ever-growing demand. No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
155. The vaccine when hit the Indian market is dogged by controversy. No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions: In questions no. 156 to 160, sentences 159. ______ you leave no, you will be late.
are given with blanks to the filled in with an (A) Until (B) Till
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are (C) Unless (D) Although
suggested for each question. Choose the correct 160. The _______ were arrested for illegally
alternative out of the four and indicate it by hunting the bears.
blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the (A) poachers (B) rangers
Answer Sheet. (C) soldiers (D) villagers
156. If you had followed therules, you _______ Directions: In questions no. 161 to 165, out of the
disqualified. four alternatives, choose the one which best
(A) will not be (B) would not be expresses the meaning of the given word and
(C) will not havebeen mark it in the Answer Sheet.
(D) would not havebeen 161. GENIAL
157. Thehousewife _______ the cakes burning, (A) Cordial (B) Unselfish
and ran to switch off theoven. (C) Careful (D) Specific
(A) smell (B) smells 162. ACCRUE
(C) smelt (D) smelling (A) Accumulate (B) Accommodate
158. _______ and old legend, King Shirham (C) Grow (D) Suffice
lived in India. 163. LOQUACIOUS
(A) In theevent of (B) Dueto (A) Talkative (B) Slow
(C) According to (D) In referenceto (C) Content (D) Unclear

164. VINDICTIVE (A) eat voraciously
(A) Imaginative (B) Accusative (B) have nothing to eat
(C) Spiteful (D) Aggressive (C) eat roots
165. INCLEMENT (D) none of the above
(A) Selfish (B) Active 174. A bolt from the blue
(C) Unfavourable (D) Inactive (A) a delayed event
(B) an inexplicable event
Directions: In questions no. 166 to 170, choose
(C) an unexpected event
the word opposite in meaning to the given word
(D) an unpleasant event
and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
175. Cold comfort
166. SYNTHETIC (A) absurdity (B) deception
(A) Natural (B) Plastic (C) slight satisfaction
(C) Cosmetic (D) Apathetic (D) foolish proposal
167. ACCORD Directions: In questions no. 176-180, a sentence
(A) Disagreement (B) Welcome or underlined part thereof is given which many
(C) Disrespect (D) Conformity need improvement. Alternatives are given of (A),
168. INFIRMITY (B) and (C) below, which may be a better option.
(A) Employment (B) Indisposition In case no improvement is needed, your answer
(C) Strength (D) Weakness is (D). Blacken the appropriate rectangle [ ] in
169. FEASIBLE the Answer Sheet.
(A) Useful (B) Impractical 176. My friend lives in a nearly street whose
(C) Uneven (D) Important name I have forgotten.
170. METICULOUS (A) the name of which
(A) Forgetful (B) Destructive (B) which name
(C) Careless (D) Flagrant (C) of which name
(D) No improvement
Directions: In questions no. 171-175, four
alternatives are given for the meaning of the 177. He both won a medal and a scholarship.
given Indian / Phrase. Choose the alternative (A) He won a medal and a scholarship both.
which best express the meaning of the Indian / (B) Both he won a medal and a scholarship.
Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet. (C) He won both a medal and a scholarship.
(D) No improvement
171. To be all at sea
178. He has for good left India.
(A) a family voyage
(A) He has left for good India.
(B) lost and confused
(B) He has left India for good.
(C) in the middle of the ocean
(C) Good he has left India.
(D) a string of islands
(D) No improvement
172. To take to one’s heels
179. We are credibly informed that the murderer
(A) to walk slowly has given himself up.
(B) to run away
(A) We are informed that the murderer has
(C) to march forward
credibly given himself up.
(D) to hop and jump
(B) We are informed that the murdered has
173. To bite the dust given credibly himself up.

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

(C) We are informed that credibly the 187. (A) harassment (B) embarrassment
murderer has given up himself. (C) fulfillment (E) denouement
(D) No improvement.
188. (A) agnostik (B) accomplice
180. We generally select one of the most
intelligent student of the school for this (C) advercity (D) acrimonous
award. 189. (A) dysentery (B) momentary
(A) one of the most intelligent students of
(C) cementary (D) commentary
the school
(B) one of the intelligent most students of 190. (A) ebulient (B) jubilant
the school (C) imminent (D) tolerant
(C) one of the intelligent most student of the
school Directions: In the following passage (questions
(D) No improvement no. 191 to 200), some of the words have been left
out. First read the passage over and try to
Directions: In questions no. 181-185, out of the understand what it is about. Then fill in the
four alternatives, choose the one which can be blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
substituted for the given words/sentence and Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
indicate it by blackening the appropriate
rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.
PASSAGE (A. NOS. 191-200)
181. Pertaining to cattle
The Solar System has been a complicated
(A) Canine (B) Feline
wonder for the astronomers. This is a 191 to
(C) Bovine (D) Verminous
which we many never have the exact answer.
182. To look at someone in an angry or threatening Man has wondered 192 the age of the Earth 193
way ancient times. There were all kinds of 194 that
(A) Glower (B) Gnaw seemed to have the 195. But man could not begin
(C) Gnash (D) Grind to 196 about the question scientifically until
183. A post with little work but high salary about 400 years 197.
(A) Director (B) Trustee When it was proved that the 198 revolved round
(C) Sinecure (D) Ombudsman the Sun and the Earth was a 199 of our Solar
184. Something that cause death System, and scientists knew where to 200.
(A) Dangerous (B) Fatal
191. (A) problem (B) question
(C) Brutal (D) Horrible
185. A person who writes decoratively (C) matter (D) query
(A) Calligrapher (B) Collier 192. (A) around (B) out
(C) Choreographer (D) Cartographer (C) about (D) on
Directions: In questions no, 186-190, groups of 193. (A) since (B) during
four words are given. In each group, one word (C) around (D) from
is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word 194. (A) ideas (B) opinions
and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
(C) stories (D) matters
186. (A) malaign (B) arraign
195. (A) solution (B) novel
(C) asigne (D) degine
(C) book (D) answer

196. (A) read (B) think (C) Earth (D) Mars
(C) open (D) guess 199. (A) part (B) division
197. (A) now (B) time (C) opening (D) centre
(C) then (D) ago 200. (A) end (B) begin
198. (A) Moon (B) time (C) think (D) work
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(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011
SOLVED PAPER
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM
Held on:– 26-06-2011
(Second Sitting)
PART A
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

1. There are three baskets of fruits. First basket (A) 10 km (B) 30 km
has twice the number of fruits in the 2nd (C) 20 km (D) 25 km
3 4. From the given alternative words, select the
basket. Third basket has th of the fruits in word which cannot be formed using the
4
the first. The average of the fruits in all the letters of the given word:
baskets is 30. What is the number of fruits in REFORMATION
the first basket? (A) REFRAIN (B) MOTION
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) REFRACT (D) FORMAT
(C) 35 (D) 40 Directions: From the given alternative words,
2. From my house I walked 5 km towards select the word which can be formed using the
North. I turned right and walked 3 km. letters of the given word.
Again I went one km to the south. How far
5. MANUFACTURE
am I from my house?
(A) FRACTURE (B) MANNER
(A) 7 km (B) 6 km
(C) MATTER (D) FACE
(C) 4 km (D) 5 km
6. If in a certain language, PLAYER is coded
3. A and B are standing as a distance of 20 km
as QNDCJX, then how SINGER will be
from each other on a straight East-West road.
coded in the same language?
A and B start walking simultaneously
eastwards and westwards respectively and (A) TKQKJX (B) TKJKQX
both cover a distance of 5 km. Then A turns (C) TKQKXJ (D) TKQXJK
to his left the walks 10 km. B turns to his 7. If in a certain code, 95789 is written as
right and walks 10 km at the same speed. EGKPT and 2436 is written as ALUR, the
Then both turn to their left and cover a how will 24539 be written in that code?
distance of 5 km at the same speed. What (A) ALEUT (B) ALGTU
will be distance between them? (C) ALGUT (D) ALGRT

(Solved Paper):– 26-06-2011

8. A statement is given followed by four 17. 83 : 25 : : 29 : ?
alternative arguments. Select on which is (A) 44 (B) 49
most appropriate. (C) 40 (D) 63
Statement : White clothes are Directions: In question nos. 18 to 22, find the
women more often is odd number/letters/figures/number pair from
summer because the given alternatives.
(A) they are thin and cool
(B) they are bad absorbers of heat 18. (A) Ladder
(C) they can be easily washed (B) Staircase
(D) they are easily available in summer
(C) Bridge
Directions: In question nos. 9 to 17, select the
related letter/word/number/figure from the (D) Escalator
given alternatives. 19. (A) Talking (B) Walking
9. Procession : Route : : Earth : ? (C) Sleeping (D) Running
(A) Space (B) Sun 20. (A) DWHS (B) BYDW
(C) Orbit (D) Highway
(C) CWFS (D) EVJQ
10. FERTILIZER : CROPS : : ?
(A) TEACHER : EDUCATION 21. (A) DHLP (B) TXBF
(B) CHLORINE : WATER (C) JNRV (D) YBEH
(C) TONIC : BODY 22. (A) 1 (B) 65
(D) PESTICIDE : RATS
(C) 8 (D) 64
11. LOCKER : KMNPBDJLDFQS : : LEFT : ?
(A) KNCDSGSU (B) KMDFEGSU 23. Find the number that does not belong to the
(C) KMDFEGUS (D) KMDEFGUS group of number for lack of common
property.
12. YWUS : BDFH : : WUSQ : ?
(A) 945 (B) 625
(A) DFHJ (B) FHJL
(C) 743 (D) 853
(C) JLNP (D) RTVX
24. Find out the set of numbers amongst the four
13. ADCB : KNML : : EHGF : ?
sets of numbers given in the alternatives
(A) DGFE (B) RUST which is mot like the set given in the
(C) QRST (D) ZYXW question.
14. BCDF : GHIK : : LMNP : ?
Given set: (8, 56, 72)
(A) QRST (B) QRTS
(A) (7, 56, 63) (B) (3, 15, 24)
(C) QRSU (D) QRSV
(C) (6, 42, 54) (D) (5, 30, 35)
15. IC : 6 : : DP : ?
25. In the following question, number of letters
(A) 14 (B) 10 are skipped in between by a particular rule.
(C) 12 (D) 16 Which of the following series observes the
16. ABCD : WXYZ : : EFGH : ? rule?
(A) STUV (B) ZYXW (A) AEJOTY (B) AFKPUZ
(C) VUTS (D) WXZY (C) AFKPTY (D) AEINRV

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

26. Insert the correct missing number from the 33. Find the wrong number in the series.
choices given below: 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342
(A) 28 (B) 63
2 cm 7 cm 9 cm 18 cm 36 cm 72 cm (C) 124 (D) 342
34. In a class Rajan got the 11th rank and he
157 150 141 123 87 ? was 31st from the bottom of the list of boys
passed. Three boys did not take the
(A) 36 (B) 15 examination and one failed. What is the total
(C) 51 (D) 69 strength of the class?
(A) 32 (B) 42
Directions: Arrange the following words as per
(C) 45 (D) 46
order in the dictionary.
35. In a family, mother’s age is twice that of
27. 1. Noble 2. Nobilitary daughter’s age. Father is 10 years older than
3. Noblesse 4. Nobility mother. Brother is 20 years younger than his
5. Nobble mother and 5 years older than his sister.
What is the age of the father?
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(C) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 (D) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 (A) 62 years (B) 60 years
28. Which one of set of letters when sequentially (C) 58 years (D) 55 years
placed at the gaps in the given letter series 36. Rahul and Robin are brothers. Pramod is
shall complete it? Robin’s father. Sheela is Pramod’s sister.
an _ nn _ ana _ na _ nan _ a Prema is Pramod’s niece. Shubha is Sheela’s
granddaughter. How is Rahul related to
(A) Annan (B) Aanan
(C) Nanna (D) Naana Shubha?
Directions: In question nos. 29 to 33, a series is (A) Brother (B) Cousin

given with one/two term missing. Choose the (C) Uncle (D) Nephew
correct alternative from the given ones that will 37. In a survey of a town, it was found that 65%
complete the series. of the people surveyed watch the news on
T.V., 40% read a newspaper and 25% read a
29. MNOABCPQRDEFST ??
newspaper and watch the news on T.V.
(A) GK (B) UV
What per cent of the people surveyed neither
(C) GH (D) UG
watch the news on T.V. nor read a
30. 5 9 ? = 84 newspaper?
8 6 4 = 56 7 3 7 = 70 (A) 5% (B) 10%
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 20% (D) 15%
(C) 5 (D) 6
38. In the year 1996, the Republic Day was
31. 9, 8, 10, 16, 11, ? 12, 64 celebrated of Friday. On which day was the
(A) 28 (B) 36 Independence Day celebrated in the year
(C) 25 (D) 32 2000?
32. 34, 18, 10, ? (A) Tuesday (B) Monday
(A) 8 (B) 5 (C) Friday (D) Saturday
(C) 7 (D) 6


39. Mr. and Mrs. Gopal have 3 daughters and
Month Jan Feb March April May June
each daughter has one brother. How many
persons are there in the family? No. of
4 8 16 28 44 ?
accidents
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8 (A) 64 (B) 48
40. In Ravi’s clock shop, two clocks were (C) 52 (D) 40
brought for repairs. One clock has the cuckoo 44. If ‘×’ means ‘addition’, ‘–‘ means ‘division’,
coming out every sixteen minutes, while the ‘÷’ means ‘subtraction’ and ‘+’ means
other one has the cuckoo coming out every ‘multiplication’, then which of the following
eighteen minutes. Both cuckoos come out at equations is correct?
12.00 noon. When will they both come out (A) 16 + 5 – 10 × 4 ÷ 3 = 9
together again? (B) 16 – 5 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 12
(A) 2.06 PM (B) 2.08 PM (C) 16 + 5 ÷ 10 × 4 – 3 = 9
(C) 2.24 PM (D) 2.32 PM (D) 16 × 5 ÷ 10 ÷ 4 – 3 =19
Directions: In question nos. 41 and 42, select the 45. A man starts from a point, walks 8 km
missing number from the given responses. towards North, turns right and walks 12 km,
turns left and walks 7 km, turns and walks
169 64 81 30 24 km towards South, turns right and walks
12 km. In which direction is he from the
625 ? 49 50 starting point?
41. (A) North (B) South
1296 576 100 70 (C) West (D) East
46. Which diagram correctly represents the
(A) 324 (B) 289 relationship between Human beings,
(C) 441 (D) 361 Teachers, Graduates?
1 2 3
(A)
4 5 6
7 8 9
42.
(B)
27 28 ?
(A) 49 (B) 50
(C) 51 (D) 52
(C)
43. The number of road accidents in a city is
increasing month by month as given below.
Find out of the number of accidents in the
month of June. (D)

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

47. How many triangles are there in the given Directions: In a mirror is placed on the line MN,
figures? the which of the answer figures is the right
image of the given figure?
49. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) 29 (B) 38
(C) 40 (D) 35
Directions: From the given answer figures, select
the one in which the question figures is hidden/ (A) (B) (C ) (D)
embedded.
Directions: A piece of paper is folded and cut
48. Question figure. as shown below in the question figures. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear
when opened.
50. Question figures
Answer figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C ) (D) (A) (B) (C ) (D)

PART —B
GENERAL AWARENESS
51. Lambert’s law is related to 58. The maximum limit on poll expenditure for
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction parliamentary constituencies has been
(C) Interference (D) Illumination raised in February, 2011 to
52. The coral reefs are the marine counterparts (A) 30 lacks (B) 35 lacks
of (C) 40 lacks (D) 50 lacks
(A) Temperate forest 59. Who received Sangeet Natak Akademi’s
(B) Tropical rain forests Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar for
(C) Savannahs (D) Scrubland Dance in 2009?
53. The Refrigerant ‘FREON’ is (A) Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(A) Calcium Tetra Fluoride (B) Ragini Chander Sarkar
(B) Difluoro Dichloro Methane (C) Abanti Chakravotry and Sukracharya
(C) Fluorspar and Felspar Rabha
(D) Hydrofluosilicic acid (D) K. Nellai Manikandan
54. In the budget speech on February 28, 2011, 60. Which of the following folk dances is
the Finance Minister has announced that associated with Jammu and Kashmir?
an international award with prize money (A) Jhora (B) Veedhi
of Rs. 1 crore is being instituted in the (C) Rauf (D) Suisini
memory of Rabindranath Tagore for 61. Which of the following books has been
promoting written by Kamala Das?
(A) international peace (A) Witness the Night
(B) emancipation of underprivileged (B) The Red Devil
(C) universal brotherhood (C) Earth and Ashes
(D) human rights (D) Tonight This Savage Rite
55. The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which 62. Who invented the Jet Engine?
has moved Japan’s main island Honshu by (A) Karl Benz (B) Sir Frank Whittle
a few feet has also caused Earth’s axis to (C) Thomas Savery
wobble by about (D) Michael Faraday
(A) 1 inch (B) 2 inch 63. South-South dialogue is associated with
(C) 4 inch (D) 6 inch (A) Co-operation among developing nations
56. WILILEAKS, a whistleblowers website is an (B) Arms conference
international organisation based in (C) Summit meeting between developed and
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.K. developing countries
(C) Sweden (D) Norway (D) All the above
57. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ was the joint military 64. The reserve held by Commercial Banks over
exercise held some time back in India and above the statutory minimum, with the
between India and RBI are called
(A) China (B) U.S.A. (A) Cast reserves (B) Deposit reserves
(C) Russia (D) Mongolia (C) Excess reserves
(D) Momentary reserves

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

65. Who is authorized to issue coins in India? (A) Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha
(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha – Prime
(B) Ministry of Finance Minister
(C) State Bank of India (C) President of India – Rajya Sabha – Lok
(D) Indian Overseas Bank Sabha
66. Which four countries are called the Asian (D) President of India – Vise President of
Tigers? India – Lok Sabha – Rajya Sabha
(A) Hong Kong, Singapore, South Korea, 73. Generally the soil of the northern plains of
Taiwan India has been formed by
(B) Hong Kong, China, Singapore, Taiwan (A) degradation
(C) Hong Kong, Malaysia, Singapore, China (B) aggradation
(D) Hong Kong, South Korea, China, Taiwan (C) weathering in situ
67. In the Budget Estimates for 2011-12, an (D) erosion
allocation of Rs. 300 crore has been made 74. Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign
for promoting output of pulses in 60,000 of
villages in rainfed areas with a view to (A) Chandragupta I (B) Chandragupta II
attaining self sufficiency in pulse in a period (C) Harshavardhana
of (D) Rudradaman
(A) two years (B) three years 75. The Muslim adventurer who destroyed the
(C) four years (D) five years Nalanda University was
68. In the budget for 2011-12 presented by the (A) Alla-ud-din Khilji
Finance Minister on 28-2-2011, the growth (B) Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
rate for the year 2010-11 was projected at (C) Muhammad-bin-Bhaktiyar
(A) 7.6% (B) 8.0% (D) Muhammad-bin-Quasim
(C) 8.6% (D) 9.0% 76. Painting reached its highest level of
69. The ‘break-even’ points where development during the region of
(A) marginal revenue equals marginal cost (A) Akbar (B) Aurangzeb
(B) average revenue equals average cost (C) Jahangir (D) Shah Jahan
(C) total revenue equals total cost 77. The communal electorate was introduced
(D) none of the above for the first time in India in
70. The method of Impeachment of the President (A) 1919 (B) 1935
of India is adopted from (C) 1906 (D) 1909
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.K. 78. The two states which and had non-Congress
(C) U.S.S.R. (D) France Ministries in 1937 were
71. In the English Schedule of the Constitution (A) Bengal and Punjab
of India, which languages were added (B) Punjab and NWEP
subsequently? (C) Madras and Central Provinces
(A) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit (D) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri 79. Sea breeze is formed during
(C) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (A) Day time (B) Night time
(D) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali (C) Both (D) Seasonal
72. Indian Parliament Means


80. What percentage of word’s freshwater is 89. For how many years have the dinosaurs
stored as glacial ice? been extinct?
(A) 50% (B) 10% (A) About 25 million years
(C) 70% (D) 30% (B) About 65 million years
81. Which one of the following rivers of India (C) About 100 million years
does not make a delta? (D) About 135 million years
(A) Ganges (B) Godavari 90. A geostationary statellite revolves round the
(C) Mahanandi (D) Tapti earth from
82. Which one of the following state has the (A) East to West
longest coastline? (B) West to East
(A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu (C) North to South
(C) Gujarat (D) Andhra Pradesh (D) South to North
83. The pass located in Himanchal Pradesh is 91. Among the following materials sound
travels fastest in
(A) Shipkila (B) Zojila
(C) Nathula (D) Jelepla (A) Steel (B) Air
(C) Vacuum (D) Water
84. Match the following and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: 92. The rear side of the moon was
photographed by
Crops Producing state
(a) Tea (1) Himanchal Pradesh (A) Viking I
(b) Sugarcane (2) Assam (B) Viking II
(c) Groundnut (3) Uttar Pradesh (C) Luna III
(d) Apple (4) Gujarat (D) Mariner IX
93. Which phenomenon do bats or dolphins use
(A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 to find prey, predators or obstacles?
(B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (A) Refraction of sound
(C) a-3, b-2,c-1, d-4 (B) Formation of beats
(D) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 (C) Scattering of sound
85. An example of false fruit is (D) Echo location
(A) Apple (B) Guava 94. What did the first electronic digital computer
(C) Mango (D) Tomato contain?
86. Normal fasting blood sugar level per 100 (A) Transistors (B) Valves
ml. of blood in man is (C) Core memory
(A) 30 – 50 mg (B) 50 – 70 mg (D) Semiconductor memory
(C) 80 – 100 mg (D) 120 – 140 mg 95. Microsoft Office’s personal information
87. Rate of interest is determined by manager is
(A) The rate of return of the capital invested (A) Outlook (B) Internet Explorer
(B) Central Government (C) Organizer (D) Access
(C) Liquidity preference 96. Hard steel contains
(D) Commercial Banks (A) 2 to 5 per cent carbon
88. The vector of disease sleeping sickness is (B) 0.5 to 1.5 per cent carbon
(A) sand-fly (B) house-fly (C) 0.1 to 0.4 per cent carbon
(C) fruit-fly (D) tse-tse fly (D) 0.01 to 0.04 per cent carbon

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

97. Cement is formed by strongly heating a (C) supercooled gas
mixture of (D) superheated liquid
(A) limestone and graphite 99. The temperature of oxy-acetylene flame is
(B) limestone and clay around
(C) chalk and graphite (A) 2800oC (B) 3200oC
(D) clay and graphite o
(C) 4000 C (D) 1500oC
98. Glass is a 100. Which is the most stable eco-system?
(A) superheated solid (A) Desert (B) Ocean
(B) superheated liquid (C) Mountain (D) Forest
UPSCPORTAL’S
UPSC
Hindi/English/Essay
(Compulsory)
(Mains) Examination
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PART-C
NUMERICAL APTITUDE
101. A reduction of 20% in the price of an apple (A) Rs. 1020.80 (B) Rs. 1025
enables a man to buy 10 apples more for Rs. (C) Rs. 1052 (D) Rs. 1050
54. The reduced price of apple per dozen is
16
(A) Rs. 4.32 (B) Rs. 12.96 107. Simple interest on a certain sum is of the
(C) Rs. 10.80 (D) Rs. 14.40 25
sum. The rate per cent if the rate per cent
102. Price of a commodity has increased by 60%.
and time (in years) are equal, is
By what per cent must a consumer reduce
the consumption of the commodity so as not (A) 6% (B) 8%
to increase the expenditure? (C) 10% (D) 12%
(A) 37 (B) 37.5 108. If the difference between S.I. and C.I. for 2
(C) 40.5 (D) 60 years on a sum of money lent at 5% is Rs. 6,
then the sum is
103. The cost of an apple is twice that of a banana
and the cost of a banana is 25% less than (A) Rs. 2200 (B) Rs. 2400
that of a guava. If the cost of each type of (C) Rs. 2600 (D) Rs. 2000
fruit increase by 10%, then the percentage 109. A hemisphere and a cone have equal bases.
increase in cost of 4 bananas, 2 apples and If their heights are also equal, the ratio of
3 guavas is their curved surface will be
(A) 10% (B) 12% (A) 1: 2 (B) 2:1
(C) 16% (D) 18% (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
6
104. Walking th of his usual sped, a man is 12 5+1
7 110. If x = , then, the value of 5x2 – 5x–1 is
5-1
minutes too late. The usual time taken by
him to cover that distance is (A) 0 (B) 3
(A) 1 hour (C) 4 (D) 5
23
111. When 2 is divided by 10, the remainder
(B) 1 hour 12 minutes
(C) 1 hour 15 minutes will be
(D) 1 hour 20 minutes (A) 2 (B) 3
105. If I walk at 5 km/hour, I miss a train by 7 (C) 4 (D) 8
minutes. If, however, I walk at 6 km/hour, I
reach the station 5 minutes before the 3
3÷
departure of the train. The distance (in km) 1
3+
between my house and the station is 112. The value of 1 is
3+
(A) 6 (B) 5 3
(C) 4 (D) 3
40 43
106. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a (A) (B)
11 11
certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of
interest is increased by 4%, what amount 46 41
will Rs. 800 become in 3 years? (C) (D)
11 11

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

113. Find the unit digit in the product (4387)245 × 122. What is the least number which, when
(621)72 divided by 4, 6, 7, 8 gives the remainder 3
(A) 1 (B) 2 but is divisible by 9 ?
(C) 5 (D) 7 (A) 1463 (B) 1573
(C) 1683 (D) 1793
114. If 2 = 1.4142 find the value of
123. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The
1 1 sum of the largest and the smallest equals
2 2+ 2+ + the sum of the second and 52. The smallest
2+ 2 2-2 number is
(A) 1.4144 (A) 20 (B) 27
(B) 2.8284 (C) 39 (D) 52
(C) 28.284 124. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%,
(D) 2.4142 its area is increased by
115. If X * Y = Y2 + Y2 – XY then 11 * 13 is (A) 125% (B) 100%
(A) 117 (B) 147 (C) 75% (D) 50%
(C) 290 (D) 433
125. A and B working separately can do a piece
(3.2)3 -0.008 of work in 9 and 12 days respectively. If the
116. The value of is work for a day alternately with a beginning,
(3.2)3 +0.64+0.04
the work would be completed in
(A) 0 (B) 2.994
(C) 3.208 (D) 3 2 1
(A) 10 days (B) 10 days
1 3 2
117. If a 3 = 11, then the value of a2 – 33ia is
1 1
(A) 1331331 (B) 1331000 (C) 10 days (D) 10 days
4 3
(C) 1334331 (D) 1330030
126. A and B together can do a work in 10 days. B
x 32 and C together can do the same work in 6
118. If a+ = , then the value of x is days. A and C together can do the work in
961 31
12 days. Then A, B and C together can do
(A) 63 (B) 61 the work in
(C) 65 (D) 64
(A) 28 days (B) 14 days
119. If a and b are odd numbers, then which of
the following is even? 5 2
(C) 5 days (D) 8 days
(A) a + b + ab (B) a + b – 1 7 7
(C) a + b + 1 (D) a + b + 2ab 127. A does half as much work as B in three-
16
120. 2 – 1 is divisible by fourth of the time. If together they take 18
(A) 11 (B) 13 days to complete a work, how much time
(C) 17 (D) 19 shall B take to do it alone?
121.The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 (A) 30 days (B) 35 days
and 924 respectively. Then the number of (C) 40 days (D) 45 days
such pairs is 128. If a wire is bent into the shape of a square,
(A) 0 (B) 1 then the area of the square so formed is
(C) 2 (D) 3 81cm2 . When the wire is rebent into a


semicircular shape, then the area (in cm2) of 134. The single discount equal to three
2 consecutive discounts of 10%, 12% and 5%
the semicircle will be ( Take π= ) is
7
(A) 22 (B) 44 (A) 26.27% (B) 24.76%
(C) 77 (D) 154 (C) 9% (D) 11%
129. Marbles a diameter 1.4 cm are dropped into 135. If x : y = 5 : 6, then (3x2 – 2y2) : (y2 – x2) is
a cylindrical beaker containing some water (A) 7 : 6 (B) 11 : 3
and are fully submerged. The diameter of (C) 3 : 11 (D) 6 : 7
the beaker is 7 cm. Find how many marbles 136. An alloy contains copper, zinc and nickel
have been dropped in it if the water rises by in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. The quantity of nickel
5.6 cm. in kg that must be added to 100 kg of this
(A) 50 (B) 150 alloy to have the new ratio 5 : 2 : 3, is
(C) 250 (D) 350 (A) 8 (B) 10
130. Water is flowing at the rate of 3km/hr (C) 12 (D) 15
through a circular pipe of 20 cm internal 137. The ratio of the ages of Ram and Rahim 10
diameter into a circular cistern of diameter years ago was 1 : 3. The ratio of the their
10m and depth 2 m. In how much time will ages five years hence will be 2 : 3. Then the
the cistern be filled? ratio of the their present ages is
(A) 1 hr (B) 1 hr 40 mins (A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 5
(C) 1 hr 20 mins (D) 2 hr s 40 mins (C) 3 : 4 (D) 2 : 5
131. A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolution in 138. The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio
moving 11 km. The diameter of the wheel, in 7: 9 : 12 and their spending are in the ratio 8
cm, is 1
: 9 : 15. If A saves th of his income, then the
(A) 35 (B) 55 4
(C) 65 (D) 70 saving of A, B and C are in the ratio of
132. At each corner of a triangular field of sides (A) 69 : 56 : 48 (B) 47 : 74: 99
26 m, 28 m and 30 m, a cow is tethered by a (C) 37 : 72: 49 (D) 56 : 99 : 69
rope of length 7 m. The area (in m2) unglazed 139. Out of 4 numbers, whose average is 60, the
by the cows is first one is one-fourth of the sum of the last
(A) 336 (B) 259 three. The first number is
(C) 154 (D) 77 (A) 15 (B) 45
133. A shopkeeper allows 23% commission on (C) 48 (D) 60
his advertised price and still makes a profit 140. The average of 25 observations is 13. It was
of 10%. If he gains Rs. 56 on one item, his later found that an observation 73 was
advertised price of the item, in Rs. is wrongly entered as 48. The new average is
(A) 820 (B) 780 (A) 12.6 (B) 14
(C) 790 (D) 800 (C) 15 (D) 13.8

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

141. If the cost price of 10 articles is equal to the The following graph shows the production of
selling price of 8 articles, then gain per cent wheat flour (in 1000 tonnes) by three companies
is X, Y and Z over the years. Study the graph and
answer Question Nos. 147 to 150.
(A) 10% (B) 8%
(C) 50% (D) 25%
X Y Z
142. An article is marked 40% above the cost price
and discount of 30% is allowed. What is the
gain or loss percentage?
500
(A) 10 % gain
(B) 5% gain 400
Production (in 1000 tonnes)

(C) 2% loss
(D) 12% loss 300
143. A main bought oranges at the rate of 8 for
Rs. 34 and sold them at the rate of 12 for Rs. 200
57. How many oranges should be sold to
100
earn a net profit or Rs. 45?
(A) 90 (B) 100
0
(C) 135 (D) 150 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
144. A man sells two articles for Rs. 5000 each

Years
neither losing nor gaining in the deal. If he 147. What is the different between the production
sold of them at a gain of 25%, the other article of company Z in 2004 and company Y in
is sold at a loss of 2000 (in thousand tonnes)?
2 2 (A) 2000 (B) 200
(A) 15 % (B) 16 % (C) 20 (D) 100
3 3
148. What is the ratio of the average production
1 1
(C) 17 % (D) 18 % of Company X in the period 2002-2004 to
3 3 the average production of company Y in the
145. By selling an article for Rs. 144, a person same period?
gained such that the percentage gain equals (A) 1 : 1 (B) 15 : 17
the cost price of the article. The cost price of (C) 23 : 25 (D) 27 : 29
the article is 149. What is the percentage increase in the
(A) Rs. 90 (B) Rs. 80 production of company Y from 2002 to
(C) Rs. 75 (D) Rs. 60 2003?
146. The average age of 11 players of a cricket
team is increased by 2 months when two of 2 6
(A) 14 (B) 16
them aged 18 years and 20 years are replaced 7 7
by two new players. The average age of the (C) 25 (D) 40
new players is 150. The average production for five years was
(A) 19 years 1 month maximum for which company?
(B) 19 years 6 month (A) X and Z both (B) Y
(C) 19 years 11 month (C) Z (D) X and Y both
(D) 19 years 5 month

PART D
Directions: In questions nos. 151 to 155, out of 160. Controversial
the four alternatives, choose the one which best (A) indisputable (B) restrained
expresses the meaning of the given word and (C) controlled (D) appeasing
mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Directions: In questions nos. 161 to 165, four
151. Poignant alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase and
(A) showy (B) sad bold italicized in the sentence. Choose the
(C) silly (D) snobbish alternative which best expresses the meaning of
152. Querulous the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer
Sheet.
(A) critical (B) curious
(C) complaining (D) ambiguous 161. To strain every nerve
153. Audacious (A) to make utmost efforts
(A) brilliant (B) powerful (B) to feel weak and tired
(C) bold (D) frightening (C) to be a diligent worker
154. Perilous (D) to be methodical in work
(A) hazardous (B) rigorous 162. To flog a dead horse
(C) resilient (D) requisite (A) to whip a dead horse
155. Reverie (B) to attempt to do the impossible
(C) waste one’s efforts
(A) determination (B) rigorous (D) to take advantage of a weakness
(C) reality (D) requisite
163. To show a clean pair of heels
Directions: In question nos. 156 to 160, choose
(A) to hide (B) to escape
the word opposite in meaning to the given word
(C) to pursue (D) to follow
and mark in the Answer Sheet.
164. To die in harness
156. Autonomous (A) premeditated murder
(A) self-government (B) dying young in an accident
(B) dependent (C) to die while in service
(C) defensive (D) to be taken by surprise
(D) neutral 165. To feather one’s nest
157. Deceitful (A) to make a residential house
(A) sincere (B) useful (B) something that lasts for a short time
(C) plain (D) honest (C) to profit in a dishonest way
158. Exonerate (D) none of the above
(A) admit (B) release Directions: In questions nos. 166 to 170, a
(C) convict (D) reject sentence is given which may need improvement.
159. Exaggerate Alternatives are given at (A), (B) and (C) below
(A) underwrite (B) understate which may be a better option. In case no
(C) ignore (D) condemn improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011

Blacken the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Directions: In questions nos. 171 to 175, groups
Answer Sheet. of four words are given. In each group, one word
is correctly spelt. find the correctly spelt word
166. A taller Sikh rushed forward than any of his and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
comrades.
(A) A Sikh, taller than any of this comrades, 171. (A) persistence (B) thesaurus
rushed forward (C) conspicous (D) renaissance
(B) A Sikh rushed forward taller than any
172. (A) acoustic (B) norcoctic
of his comrades
(C) A Sikh rushed forward than any of his (C) pesimist (D) permenant
comrades taller 173 (A) impetous (B) ignoable
(D) No improvement
(C) ignominious (D) idiosyncrasy
167. An author is the reign of Question Anne
who was famous lived in a cottage. 174. (A) Inconsistant (B) Repentant
(A) An author in the reign, who was (C) Exponant (D) Excultent
famous, of Queen Anne lived in a cottage 175. (A) demagogue (B) deliverance
(B) In the reign of Queen Anne, an author
lived in a cottage, who was famous (C) delinquency (D) deliberative
(C) An author who was famous in the reign Directions: In question nos. 176 to 180, out of
of Queen Anne lived in a cottage the four alternatives, choose the one which can
(D) No improvement be substituted for the given words/sentence and
168. In the absence of your support, he would indicate it by blackening the appropriate
have lost the election. rectangle [ ] in the answer Sheet.
(A) Lacking your support, he would have
lost the election 176. A person who has no money to pay off his
(B) But for your support, he would have lost debts
the election (A) Insolvent (B) Poor
(C) He would have lost the election, if you (C) Destitute (D) Pauper
had not support him 177. Words uttered impiously about God
(D) No improvement (A) amoral (B) philosophy
169. My uncle is enough rich to buy a car. (C) logic (D) blasphemy
(A) My uncle is rich enough to buy a car 178. Quibble
(B) My uncle is richer enough to buy a car
(A) Premeditate (B) Prenominate
(C) My uncle is enough richer to buy a car
(C) Prevaricate (D) Preponderate
(D) No improvement
179. One who compiles a dictionary
170. Walking along the road, an old man ran over
the lorry. (A) geographer (B) lexicographer
(C) lapidist (D) linguist
(A) Walking along the road, an old man ran
behind the lorry 180. A test in which cells from diseased organs
(B) Running along the road, the lorry ran are removed and tested
over an old man (A) Biopsy (B) Autopsy
(C) The lorry ran over an old man walking (C) Operation (D) Amputation
along the road Directions: In the following passage (181 to 190),
(D) No improvement some of the words have been left out. First read


the passage over and try to understand what it 191. If you had told (a) / I would have helped
is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of you (b) / solve the problem. (c) / No error
the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the (d).
Answer Sheet. 192. “The Arabian Nigh” (a) / are indeed (b) /
an interesting book. (c) / No error (d).
PASSAGE
193. He (a) / lover her (b) / despite of himself (c)
(Question Nos. 181 to 190) / No error (d).
A 181 becomes a flowing stream only 182 194. Of all the models (a) / Jessica is (b) / the
there is continuity of 183 life in a society. In more good-looking one (c) / No error (d).
184 words, a 185 culture comes into 186 195. When I went there (a) / Charles is playing
when people 187 a continuous way of life. (b) / a game of chess. (c) / No error (d).
Such 188 expresses itself 189 various ways
in common tradition and 190 of conduct. Directions (196-200): In the following questions,
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in
181. (A) civilization (B) culture with an appropriate words. Four alternatives are
(C) idea (D) philosophy suggested for each question.
182. (A) at (B) what Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
(C) when (D) as
196. _____ your instructions, we have closed you
183. (A) individual (B) nature’s
bank account.
(C) society’s (D) collective
(a) In lieu of (b) With regard to
184. (A) different (B) difficult (c) In accordance with
(C) other (D) many (d) On account of
185. (A) distinctive (B) unique 197. _____ she is cleaver, she often makes
(C) clean (D) foggy mistakes.
186. (A) phase (B) existence (a) Despite (b) Since
(C) action (D) thinking (c) Although (d) Yet
187. (A) develop (B) create 198. Do you prefer _____ or traditional art forms?
(C) follow (D) end (a) archaic (b) contemporary
188. (A) inconsistency (B) uniqueness (c) foreign (d) simultaneous
(C) greatness (D) continuity 199. The farmers _____ their farms, if they had
known that a thunderstorm was
189. (A) in (B) of
approaching.
(C) with (D) at
(a) will leave (b) would leave
190. (A) rules (B) regulations (c) will have left (d) would have left
(C) norms (D) laws
200. The Paralympics is a competition for the
Directions (191-195): In the following questions, ______
some of the sentences have errors and some are (a) disadvantaged (b) discouraged
correct. Find out which part of a sentence has (c) disabled (d) despised
an error. The number of that part is your answer.
If a sentence is free from errors, then your answer
is (d) i.e., No error.

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Answer figures (a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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(a) (b) (c) (d)

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8. Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?

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(Solved Paper) :– 26-06-2011