9700 Biology November 2005

CONTENTS

BIOLOGY ............................................................................................................................ 1
GCE Advanced Level and GCE Advanced Subsidiary Level ...................................................................... 1
Paper 9700/01 Multiple Choice ..................................................................................................................... 2
Paper 9700/02 Paper 2 ................................................................................................................................. 3
Paper 9700/03 Practical 1 ............................................................................................................................. 8
Paper 9700/04 Paper 4 ................................................................................................................................. 9
Paper 9700/05 Practical 2 ........................................................................................................................... 12
Paper 9700/06 Options ............................................................................................................................... 13

FOREWORD
This booklet contains reports written by Examiners on the work of candidates in certain papers. Its contents
are primarily for the information of the subject teachers concerned.
 9700 Biology November 2005

BIOLOGY
GCE Advanced Level and GCE Advanced Subsidiary Level

Grade thresholds taken for Syllabus 9700 (Biology) in the November 2005 examination.

maximum minimum mark required for grade:

mark
A B E
available
Component 1 40 35 33 23
Component 2 60 48 44 31
Component 3 25 20 18 12
Component 4 60 45 41 24
Component 5 30 23 21 15
Component 6 40 25 22 13

The thresholds (minimum marks) for Grades C and D are normally set by dividing the mark range between
the B and the E thresholds into three. For example, if the difference between the B and the E threshold is
24 marks, the C threshold is set 8 marks below the B threshold and the D threshold is set another 8 marks
down. If dividing the interval by three results in a fraction of a mark, then the threshold is normally rounded
down.

Grade Thresholds are published for all GCE A/AS and IGCSE subjects where a corresponding mark scheme
is available.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Paper 9700/01
Multiple Choice

Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 C 21 C
2 D 22 B
3 C 23 B
4 B 24 B
5 D 25 A

6 D 26 A
7 C 27 D
8 B 28 A
9 D 29 A
10 A 30 B

11 A 31 C
12 D 32 C
13 D 33 C
14 A 34 A
15 C 35 C

16 C 36 D
17 D 37 C
18 A 38 C
19 C 39 A
20 B 40 A

General comments

The mean score was 27.7 (69.4%) with a very good spread around the mean, the standard deviation being
6.6. The easiest items were Questions 2, 3, 8, 10, 12, 18, 19, 31, 35 and 36, where more than 80% of
candidates answered correctly. Only Question 39 was found difficult. All other questions performed well,
with good discrimination, and few require any special comment.

Comments on specific questions

Question 21

Able candidates had no difficulty with this question while the less able showed a preference for the peptide
bond.

Question 23

Not only did weaker candidates assume that the answer involved complementary triplets, they were also
unclear as to whether U pairs with A or T.

Question 24

Able candidates knew how to solve this problem while weaker ones guessed at the answer.

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Question 25

This was one of the few questions with poor discrimination. Too many able candidates chose option C,
apparently unaware of any difference between passage of water through the cytoplasm only and through the
cytoplasm and vacuoles.

Question 27

The popularity of option B suggests that many candidates were basing their answer on just one of the
factors: the effect of soil water potential.

Question 37

This item had low discrimination because a relatively high proportion of the more able chose option A. As
the antibody is broken into three fragments and not more, the two arms with their antibody binding sites,
must be left intact.

Question 39

This concept is usually well known, but the option showing the transfer with the highest efficiency was twice
as popular as the correct option, making this an unexpectedly difficult item. It appears that candidates did
not understand what was meant by ‘lowest efficiency’.

Paper 9700/02
Paper 2

General comments

There were many encouraging answers to all 6 questions especially Questions 1, 2, 3 and 4 from well
prepared candidates though, disappointingly, there were some very low scores and even the more able
candidates had some difficulty with Questions 3 (d), 5 (b), 6 (a), 6 (c).

As in previous sessions, candidates continue to lose marks by not answering the actual question set. For
example, in Question 3 (d), where candidates often gave details on other ways in which HIV is transmitted,
following on from 3 (c), rather than in outlining the problems involved in controlling the spread of HIV in terms
of educating about risks, symptomless carriers and the difficulty in providing condoms/femidoms.

Again, in answer to Question 2 (c), candidates were asked to explain how the structure of triglycerides, such
as tristearin, makes them more suitable for energy storage than carbohydrates, such as glycogen.
Candidates often mentioned that tristearin generated more energy, had a higher calorific value, often quoting
appropriate kilojoules to support their answer, but made no reference to the relevance of the structure in
terms of more C-H bonds or a higher proportion of hydrogen.

Other candidates were far too imprecise in their answers. For example, in Question 6 (c), candidates were
asked to describe how the precise three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is maintained. Candidates
often mentioned the names of the four bonds involved, namely hydrogen, ionic and disulphide bonds along
with hydrophobic interactions, but gave no detail of the groups between which these bonds are formed in
order to produce a specific tertiary shape.

There were sufficient marking points to allow candidates to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding
and most candidates appeared to have had sufficient time.

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Comments on specific questions

Question 1

There were some high scoring answers to this very accessible first question.

(a) The vast majority of candidates named structures A and C on Fig. 1.1 as Golgi (body/apparatus)
and mitochondria respectively. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, however, was not uncommon for A
whilst many incorrectly named B as a nucleus rather than as a nucleolus.

(b) In stating two places in the gas exchange system where goblet cells are found, knowledgeable
candidates gave two from trachea, bronchus and bronchiole. A significant number correctly
identified only one place. These candidates and the weaker ones mentioned the nose (nasal
cavities, nasal epithelium) and alveoli and occasionally gave example of places where goblet cells
are found other than in the gas exchange system, for example, in the alimentary canal and
oviducts.

(c) Candidates were required to use label lines and the letters P and G to indicate on Fig. 1.2 the
positions of: P – a peptide bond and G – a glycosidic bond. A number of candidates ignored
instructions and indicated P or G on the actual bonds, whilst others gave label lines to all the
peptide and glycosidic bonds. The best candidates had P to a line between 2 amino acids and G
to a line between 2 sugars or between the first sugar and the amino acid. Only rarely did
candidates transpose the label lines and letters.

(d) In describing the role of mucus in the gas exchange system, the majority of candidates made
suitable reference to the trapping of dust and bacteria, and thereby protecting the alveoli against
damage and pathogens, with the mucus being swept away by cilia movement. There were many
vague references to lubrication, moistening of incoming air and description of phagocytic action in
the stomach on swallowed mucus.

(e) In stating one function of glycoprotein in cell surface membranes, knowledgeable candidates
referred to the stabilising of the membrane structure forming hydrogen bonds with water molecules.
Many more correctly mentioned their role in cell adhesion and as receptor molecules, though
several candidates referred to receptor cells. Only occasionally was reference made to cell surface
antigens. Weaker candidates confused glycoproteins with transmembrane proteins and incorrectly
indicated that they were involved in the movement of substances across the membrane.

Question 2

There were many good answers to this question, with candidates finding parts (c) and (e) being the most
difficult to answer correctly.

(a) Here candidates were asked to describe how phospholipid molecules were arranged in a cell
surface membrane. This was clearly understood by the majority of candidates. There were many
detailed accounts with references to the bilayer, the hydrophilic heads facing to the outside of the
cell and the cytoplasm with the hydrophobic parts facing inwards towards each other. Many
candidates successfully used the space provided for a simple, annotated diagram in answering this
part question. Several weaker candidates confused ‘hydrophilic’ with ‘hydrophobic’, drew
phospholipids with only one tail and referred to glycoproteins in their answers, believing them to be
phospholipids.

(b) In stating 2 ways, visible in Fig. 2.1, in which phosphatidylcholine differs from tristearin, many
candidates made suitable reference to the presence of phosphate and two fatty acid chains.
Several referred to the unsaturated fatty acid in phosphatidylcholine and more unusually to the
presence of choline and nitrogen. Few made reference to fatty acids of different lengths. Two tails
unqualified was a common answer from weaker candidates.

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(c) Only the most able candidates were able to clearly explain how the structure of triglycerides, such
as tristearin, makes them more suitable for energy storage than carbohydrates such as glycogen.
They made mention of repeated CH2 units, a more highly reduced structure, and occasionally
referred to triglycerides being stored in a compact form.

Weaker candidates limited their responses to more energy being released and only a minority of
able candidates referred to more energy per unit mass or quoted suitable comparative figures.
Many incorrectly wrote about insulation, solubility and osmotic inactivity or referred to the different
amounts of water produced in respiration.

(d)(i)(ii) In using the data in Fig. 2.2, from an enzyme investigation, almost all candidates were able to state
the times when lipase was added and the reaction ended as 5 minutes and 9-10 minutes
respectively, though weaker candidates stated that the lipase was added at 0 minutes with the
reaction ending at 20 minutes.

(e) In explaining why the pH decreases during the reaction described, good answers made reference
to the production of fatty acids by hydrolysis of triglycerides. Several candidates simply mentioned
an increase in H+ ion concentration. Weaker candidates indicated that both fatty acids and glycerol
as products caused a decrease in pH, whilst others incorrectly stated that water from hydrolysis
with a pH 7 was responsible for the increase in acidity.

(f) In sketching on Fig. 2.2 the results expected from the second investigation described, the best
candidates clearly indicated a steeper decrease from 5 minutes levelling off at pH 7.0. Many
ignored the statement “lipase was added as before” and sketched a line starting from time
0 minutes, whilst others had the curve levelling off at a pH above or below pH 7. A minority did the
graph at the bottom of the page.

Question 3

There were some excellent answers to this question, with part (c) often scoring full marks.

(a)(i) A pleasing number of candidates gained both marks, being able to show their working
(e.g. 13 mm divided by 100,000) and therefore calculate the actual size of a viral particle as for
example 130 nm. However many candidates did not appreciate that size of the specimen = size of
image/magnification and so the calculation was beyond them. Some candidates could not
transform the value received from a correct calculation into nm. A significant number of candidates
had problems with 10– values. It would have perhaps been appropriate to convert the size of the
image from 13 mm to 13,000,000 nm before dividing by the magnification of 100,000. Some
candidates expressed the answer in units other than nanometers.

(ii) Good/high, resolution was the stated property given by better candidates in explaining why the
electron microscope makes it possible to view clearly very small objects, such as viral particles.
Weaker candidates answered solely in terms of increased magnification.

(b) In suggesting why an infected T lymphocyte that is producing HIV particles has a higher demand
for amino acids, many candidates made suitable reference to the cell having to produce viral
proteins, though other candidates indicated incorrectly that amino acids are required for DNA
replication. Weaker candidates suggested that increased antibody production resulted in a higher
amino acid demand or made vague reference to the production of viral particles.

(c) The three most stated ways in which HIV is transmitted were sexual intercourse, infected blood
products and from mother to foetus/across the placenta. Correct answers given by some
candidates included the sharing of hypodermic needles and via breast milk. Less well answered
responses described using unsterilised equipment without indicating contamination or sharing. The
majority of candidates scored 3 marks.

(d) In outlining the problems involved in controlling the spread of HIV, only the better candidates were
well able to clearly respond in terms of the difficulties in testing people’s HIV status as many are
symptomless carriers. Several referred appropriately to the problems involved in providing
condoms, screening and treating blood and, of course, the lack of education about the risks.
However weaker candidates incorrectly interpreted the question and were satisfied with giving
additional transmission mechanisms to those already given in response to part (c).

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 4

Overall, a sound level of response. Part (a) was least well understood.

(a) A surprising number of candidates found it difficult to clearly explain fully why the mammalian
circulatory system is described as a closed double circulation. For several double circulation
involved blood flowing through the lungs twice, rather than the heart, and only the better candidates
indicated that the blood passes through the heart twice during one cycle. Incorrect responses
included reference to the separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood or the ability of the
heart to send blood to two different destinations with one beat. Some candidates mentioned
pulmonary and systemic circulations without any reference to the heart itself. Many candidates did
refer to a closed circulation as one in which blood travels inside blood vessels. There were vague
references to blood not being in contact with the organs or to the outside of the blood system.
Several candidates, having described double circulation at length, did not address closed
circulation.

(b) The vast majority of candidates were able to state one advantage and one disadvantage of mature
mammalian red blood cells having no nuclei, making suitable reference to more space for more
haemoglobin to carry oxygen and the inability of the cell to divide. Only rarely did candidates give
alternative answers such as the advantage of being able to change shape and move through
capillaries and the inability to carry out protein synthesis and repair. In stating an advantage, a
significant number of candidates made inappropriate reference to increased surface area or
surface area to volume ratio, or made vague reference to the disadvantage of the cell in not being
able to control its activities.

(c)(i) Mitosis was almost universally given as the type of nuclear division that occurs at V with only
occasional mention of meiosis.

(ii) Not all candidates were aware that tissue W was the bone marrow. Incorrect responses included
the lymph nodes, blood, spleen and thymus gland.

(iii) Most candidates gave antigen as the term to describe foreign molecules on the surface of the
measles virus that stimulate an immune response, though pathogen and even antibody were not
uncommon.

(iv) Some difficulty here with only the most able candidates naming both cell X and molecule Y as a
plasma cell and antibody respectively. Weaker candidates often named cell X as a macrophage, a
killer T cell, B lymphocyte or effector cell.

(v) The very best candidates named cell Z as a memory cell and correctly described its role in the
secondary response with reference to such memory cells remaining in the body, recognising the
same virus/antigen on a subsequent occasion, with more rapid production of antibodies in
response, so preventing symptoms and disease. Weaker candidates referred to the recognition of
a pathogen or a disease. There were surprisingly very few references to the term
‘secondary response’ and even fewer to ‘immunological memory’.

Question 5

A significant number of candidates produced disappointing answers to this question which involved data
interpretation. Many candidates displayed a lack of understanding of the difference between ‘describe’ and
‘explain’.

(a) By far the majority of candidates understood and explained why eight cubes of side
1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm were used in this experiment with appropriate reference to them having the
same mass/volume as the larger cube. Common errors were to write about replicates or the need
to be able to take averages.

Weaker candidates made vague references to control/fair test.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

(b) In describing the results shown in Fig. 5.1, several candidates appreciated the rapid rise in mass
for the first 3 hours with a slower increase between 3–25 hours before levelling out. Several
candidates also made a comparison referring to the larger percentage increase of the 8 cubes and
quoted data to support this. However, a large number of candidates made general statements in
describing the results with incorrect reference to time and usually with no supporting data. Where
data was given it was often inaccurately read from the graph in Fig. 5.1. There was very little
evidence of the use of a ruler to gain x and y value readings from the graph. Surprisingly some
candidates referred to minutes, even seconds, rather than hours in their responses. A high
proportion of candidates wrote about water absorption and many weaker responses were
characterised by an explanation of the results, which was required in (c), rather than the
description as required in (b).

(c) In explaining, in terms of water potential, why all the cubes of yam gained in mass, the vast
majority of candidates made suitable reference to osmosis, water potential gradients and partially
permeable membranes. Some candidates still persist in referring to a semi-permeable membrane
and water concentrations. A few candidates answered this part question in a purely theoretical
way and not in the context of yam cells. Several candidates continue to refer to less and greater
water potential rather than lower and higher.

(d) Only able candidates made reference to the greater surface-area:volume ratio in explaining why
the percentage increase in mass for the eight cubes of side 1cm was faster than that of the cube of
side 2cm, often referring to 6:1 as opposed to 3:1. They did not however always clearly explain
that this meant that more water per unit time (at least initially) would enter the cells by osmosis.
Few, if any, appreciated that the outer cells of the large cube may have become fully turgid and so
restricted the inner cells from absorbing water and increasing their mass. Weaker responses solely
referred to the cubes of side 1cm having a greater surface area for uptake of water by osmosis with
no reference to volume. Several candidates simply reworded the question.

Question 6

The standard of responses in (a) and (c) were generally disappointing. It was a good discriminating
question. Molecular biology appeared to be a weak area for many candidates.

(a) In explaining how a globular protein differs from a fibrous protein, such as collagen, several
candidates referred to globular proteins being compact and soluble with the best candidates
making additional reference to hydrophilic groups pointing outwards. Some referred to the
metabolic functions of globular proteins, acting as enzymes and hormones. Weaker candidates
frequently used words such as round and circular in their answers, and had proteins coiling rather
than the polypeptide chains. Several candidates gave long accounts of the types of bonding
making up the tertiary structure of a globular protein or wrote about the quaternary structure of
haemoglobin.

(b) Surprisingly some candidates found it difficult to use the information in Table 6.1 to complete the
sequence of amino acids at the beginning of P globulin. The fact that different codons can code for
the same amino acid may have surprised some candidates and led to indecision despite the
position of some of the amino acids already being given in the sequence. Overall, however, the
response was very good, although a few candidates left this question blank.

(c) Candidates were asked to describe how the precise three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is
maintained. A significant number of candidates were aware of the bonds involved, hydrogen, ionic,
disulphide and hydrophobic interactions, though several could give no more than two types. Very
few knew or could clearly explain where these bonds were formed, in producing a polypeptide with
a precise tertiary structure e.g. hydrogen bonds between polar groups and hydrophobic interactions
between non-polar side chains. For many ionic bonds occurred between charged groups and
disulphide bonds between sulphurs. Several candidates gave a complete account from primary to
secondary to tertiary structure. A few candidates gave a description of how the structure is
maintained in extreme conditions of pH and temperature.

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Paper 9700/03
Practical 1

General comments

The quality of answers was high from many Centres with a significant number of candidates scoring well
over half marks from a total of twenty five.

The paper appeared to discriminate very well between candidates, allowing the vast majority of candidates to
demonstrate their knowledge and practical skills. Very few candidates scored less than eight marks.

There was no evidence that any candidates suffered due to a lack of time.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

This question was either answered very well indeed or quite poorly. It was clear which candidates were
familiar with the procedure for testing the activity of the enzyme amylase with starch. Candidates that were
familiar with the procedure performed much better on this question.

(a)(i) Examiners were given considerable leeway in marking this question and awarded marks for any
indication that A2 reacted faster than A3 and that A3 reacted faster than A1. Even if candidates
had failed to use the correct procedure in (ii) some candidates were able to score in this section.

(ii) Answers to this section were widely variable. Good candidates realised that fixed volumes of
starch were added to each of the different amylase solutions and that these were then dropped
onto the iodine at regular fixed intervals. Candidates who did this always gained full marks.
Unfortunately far too many candidates added the enzyme to the iodine and then added the starch.
As iodine is an enzyme inhibitor this procedure could not possibly work in a satisfactory way.
Candidates who used a procedure that could not work were not awarded any marks on this
section.

(b)(i) Nearly all candidates managed to score on this section by correctly calculating the rate of reaction.

(ii) Most candidates scored the full four marks for this question. However, there are still far too many
candidates who are losing marks for failing to master the skill of plotting graphs. At this level
candidates should be able to plot graphs correctly and accurately. Common errors included
plotting the axes the wrong way round, error in plotting individual points, failing to give units in the
axes labels, and extrapolating the line of best fit through zero. All of these errors lost marks.

(iii) This section was not well answered as many candidates failed to understand the command word
‘explain’ and instead simply described what happened. It is most important that candidates are
trained to look at the command instruction when answering a question. In this case failure to do so
lost many candidates both marks. Good answers referred to active sites and collisions between
molecules.

(c) Most candidates performed much better on this question and referred to using an enzyme of the
same concentration at different temperatures and then recording the time for complete hydrolysis
to take place.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 2

(a)(i) Candidates were asked to draw four cells only and most did. One mark was awarded for following
this instruction. However, there were still too many candidates who drew a cluster of cells that
lacked clarity. Candidates should be aware that simply drawing lots of similar cells poorly is no
substitute for drawing a few cells well. Credit was also given for quality of drawing, having cells
touching but some spaces between them and having a very irregular shape.

(ii) This was not done well by most candidates and is clearly a skill that needs practice. Credit was
given to those candidates who measured several cells and calculated the average size even if they
failed to obtain a correct answer at the end of the question. Good candidates managed to get a
reading between 10 – 15 µm for the mean width of a nucleus.

(b)(i) Most candidates managed to score one of the two marks for this section. The second mark was
usually lost for identifying a feature that could also be seen with a light microscope. The question
specifically asked for features that could not be seen on the microscope slide. Credit was therefore
given for mitochondria, golgi body, EPR, ribosomes, glycogen granules, membranes, vesicles or a
lysosome.

(ii) Most candidates managed to score the final mark by referring to the greater resolving power of the
electronmicroscope.

Paper 9700/04
Paper 4

General comments

The paper appeared to be of the correct standard producing a range of marks from below 10 to well over 50.

Candidates seemed to have had enough time to complete the paper and there was no general evidence of
questions being missed out.

Comments on specific questions

Section A

Question 1

(a) Most candidates correctly identified ‘matrix of mitochondrion’. Common mistakes mentioned just
‘mitochondrion’ or ‘cytoplasm’.

(b) Many candidates missed the link reaction and only dealt with the Krebs cycle despite being told to
mark all the places where decarboxylation and dehydrogenation occurred. Despite this omission,
this was quite a high scoring question.

(c) It was pleasing to note that most candidates were able to score some marks here, many obtaining a
maximum three by stating that ‘reduced NAD was oxidised in the ETC’. Credit was also given for a
correct mention of regeneration in anaerobic respiration.

(d) This question proved difficult as many seemed unfamiliar with the term ‘substrate level
phosphorylation’ and many candidates made contradictory statements. A common error was a
comparison of the number of ATP molecules produced by the two processes.

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Question 2

(a) Although this was a straightforward ‘genetic diagram’ question it was disappointing to see so many
poorly presented answers with stages unidentified. Candidates should be encouraged to use
appropriate headings such as ‘parental genotype’ and ‘gametes’ etc. If the gametes are placed in
a logical order in a punnet square then a logical pattern emerges. Some candidates still do not
realise that it is essential to link the genotypes produced by the punnet square accurately to their
corresponding phenotypes. The final stage of the explanation required a link back to the data and
a comparison with the 9:3:3:1 ratio. This was frequently not given.

(b) Most candidates were able to state that yellow shrunken grains would be homozygous recessive or
were able to describe this condition. The term ‘gene’ was sometimes incorrectly given instead of
allele.

(c) Many candidates scored full marks here by following the steps shown in the table. Some
candidates made errors in completing the entries for the yellow and shrunken grains or did not
realise that the total chi-square is obtained by adding up all the individual values.

(d) The wording of this question appeared to cause trouble for some but for most candidates did not
pose a particular problem. Candidates were required to state a value ‘greater than 0.5’ to gain
credit. Some candidates seemed unfamiliar with the use of the probability table and simply
identified the critical chi-square value.

(e) A number of candidates stated ‘the result was due to chance’ and ‘the result was not significant’
when, in each case, it is the deviation from the expected that is not significant.

Question 3

(a) A large number of candidates did not score as they failed to mention ‘volume’ or ‘moles’. A
common mistake was to refer to the ‘amount’ of carbon dioxide and oxygen. Some merely
referred to carbon dioxide being evolved and oxygen taken in. A few got the ratio upside down and
this then penalised them in part (b)(ii).

(b)(i) A majority correctly gave 18CO2 and 18H2O.

(ii) There were many correct answers but some put 18 ÷ 18 = 1 which, although it did not score here,
did allow for a possible error carried forward mark in part (b)(iii).

(iii) There was a range of answers here from correct ones like lipid and fat to incorrect ones such as
protein and glucose.

(c) Not many candidates scored two marks. The most common correct answer was less hydrogen
and less C-H bonds. The last three marking points were rarely given.

Question 4

The data for this question was quite extensive and was frequently misread by candidates who found the
extraction of information very demanding.

(a) This was the better answered question and most candidates were able to mention lack of food,
large beaked birds surviving as the large beaks were able to open the large seeds. Some were
able to then state that the large beaked birds were able to pass on this characteristic.

(b) Many different answers were given here but few referred to the abundance of seeds in normal
years or that the extreme phenotypes would be selected against. Incorrect answers mentioned
‘small beaked birds, having small seeds to feed on, survived whilst the larger beaked birds died
out’ or ‘plenty of large and small seeds hence birds developed body size and beak size to suit the
food they fed on’.

(c) There were a relatively small number of correct answers mentioning ‘geographical isolation,
allopatric speciation or different environmental conditions’. Many candidates did not realise that the
data was not necessary in order to answer this question and largely depended on their knowledge
of speciation.

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Question 5

(a) This was a reasonably well scoring question as a large number of candidates had a good
understanding of genetic engineering. Most referred to ‘restriction enzymes’, ‘specific base
sequences’ and ‘sticky ends’. Only a few were able to give named examples of the enzymes.

(b) All marking points came up, the most common being ‘complementary base pairing’ and ‘ligase’.
Very few mentioned ‘phosphodiester bonds’. A frequent misunderstanding was using the same
restriction enzyme to cut the human insulin gene when in fact reverse transcription is used.

(c) Most candidates were able to score two marks with ‘cheaper’, ‘fewer allergies/side effects’ and
‘ethical issues’ being the most common answers.

Section B

Question 6

(a) This section was generally done well. Good answers were characterised by precise and often
short responses. Many were able to correctly mention the large surface area of the leaf, the
arrangement of palisade cells and their internal details and link these to efficient absorption of light.
Likewise thin leaves, airspaces in the spongy layer and stomata were frequently linked to gas
exchange.

Common errors were reference to thin parts of the leaf not the leaf overall, transparent upper
epidermis not cuticle and confusion or omission of what carries what and where (xylem and
phloem).

(b) This section scored lower marks. A considerable number of candidates wrote at length about
photosynthesis giving great detail of biochemical processes. They did not always relate this to rate
of photosynthesis.

Those who wrote about carbon dioxide concentration and then light intensity (or vice versa) scored
more highly than those who combined the two.

Many candidates were able to mention that the rate increased as the concentration of carbon
dioxide increased and that a plateau was reached. They often illustrated this with a diagram. The
equivalent information was then given for light intensity. Some were able to go on and explain the
principle of limiting factors.

Question 7

(a) This was well answered with many high scores. Most were able to mention the deamination of
excess amino acids to produce ammonia and then urea and that this occurred in the liver. Better
candidates were also able to comment on the production of uric acid from nucleic acids or
creatinine from amino acids.

(b) Candidates displayed much knowledge about the functioning of the kidney but wrote a lot of
irrelevant detail because they did not read the question carefully enough. What was required was
an account of how the kidney removed metabolic wastes. Most candidates picked up marks on the
process of ultrafiltration but then went into great detail about the roles of the proximal convoluted
tubule, the loop of Henle and the distal tubule and in so doing wasted much time. The role of ADH
on the collecting duct was rarely given correctly and the release of metabolic water as part of urine
was hardly ever mentioned.

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Paper 9700/05
Practical 2

General comments

The quality of answers was very high from many Centres with a significant number of candidates scoring in
excess of twenty marks from a possible thirty.

The paper appeared to discriminate well between candidates, allowing the vast majority of candidates to
demonstrate their knowledge and practical skills. Very few candidates scored less than ten marks.

There was no evidence that candidates suffered due to a lack of time.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Most candidates scored well on this question, particularly if they realised the effect that a metabolic poison
would have on cell membranes and the consequences that this would have for osmosis.

(a)(i) This was well answered and most candidates scored both marks. The quality of drawing was good
and credit was given for using clear single or double lines close together and having the correct
ratio of length to width for cells that were drawn.

(ii) Again this question was well answered. Candidates explained that the cell was turgid and the
cytoplasm complete through out the cells. Most candidates scored both of the marks.

(b)(i) Very few candidates scored full marks on this section. Credit was given for any sign of plasmolysis
and then an additional mark for each kind of plasmolysis shown. This resulted in most candidates
scoring two marks. Credit was given for complete plasmolysis, cap plasmolysis and plasmodesma
plasmolysis.

(ii) Candidates should have scored full marks on this section but most only scored two or three. The
most common error was failing to mention that osmosis took place through the cell membrane.
However, many gave good explanations using water potential.

(c) Few candidates managed to score this mark. Instead of describing what they saw, they attempted
to explain the observation using plasmolysis and thus lost the mark. Good answers simply
described the cell indicating that the contents had changed colour, were disorganised or had
leaked out of the cell.

(d) This part was generally well done with candidates explaining that the cell rapidly regained turgor.
This answer scored both of the marks.

(e) Most candidates scored this mark by saying that the cell failed to regain turgor. However, a
significant number insisted that turgor was regained even when the metabolic poison had
destroyed the cell membrane. This was a classic case of candidates seeing what they expected to
see, rather than what actually happened.

(f) Candidates gave a variety of answers to this question. Good answers included that effects to cell
A were reversible but cell B was irreversible as the membrane had been destroyed.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 2

This question was generally answered very well showing good understanding of what was happening in the
photomicrograph.

(a)(i) Most candidates scored both marks for correctly identifying the five stages. Stage 1 was credited
as either anaphase or telophase. The majority of errors occurred with Stage 5 as candidates did
not want to answer anaphase again and gave an alternative answer.

(ii) This section was also answered well with most candidates scoring both of the marks.

(iii) Most candidates drew a good diagram but there were still too many who simply redraw a textbook
diagram from memory. Spindle fibres and propeller shaped chromosomes are not what are seen in
real life. Candidates were clued into this by being asked to draw a circle around the cell that they
were drawing from the photomicrograph, but too many ignored this instruction. Good answers
were clearly drawings at metaphase with at least three correct labels. Labels for cell membrane
were not accepted as the cell membrane cannot be seen with a light microscope. Chromosomes
should been distinct, and thicker than the cell wall.

(b) There were some very good answers to this section with credit being given for reference to
homologous pairs, chiasma, and chromosomes pulling apart on the equator.

(c) This was also answered well by most candidates with the majority correctly referring to the root
cells undergoing mitosis and describing one of the differences between the two processes.

Paper 9700/06
Options

General comments

Option 3, Growth, Development and Reproduction, proved to be the most popular choice with candidates.
There appeared to be a slight increase in numbers attempting Option 1 Mammalian Physiology, while
Examiners marked very few of Option 2 Microbiology and Biotechnology.

All options provided a range of questions differing in the degree of difficulty so the paper was able to
discriminate well between candidates. As a result, candidates’ marks were spread across most of the
available range.

Candidates with sound factual knowledge were able to use this to interpret both familiar and new data but all
candidates need to be reminded to read the question carefully to avoid inappropriate responses. In addition,
candidates did not always take sufficient note of differences in examination instructions, failing to distinguish
between terms such as ‘describe’, ‘compare’ and ‘explain’. This basic lack of examination technique at times
resulted in candidates failing to gain potentially accessible marks.

Interpreting graphical information proved difficult for some. Examiners were pleased to see candidates
quoting figures in their responses but it should be emphasised that units are essential to gain credit. Practice
is also needed in the describing of general trends in data, an essential skill. Too often the data is simply
listed without any attempt being made to note the patterns that are evident.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Comments on specific questions

Option 1

Mammalian Physiology

Question 1

(a) Some candidates had difficulty naming A–D but in general this was answered well.

(b) Few responses indicated that the outside or ends of the bones were the location of compact bone.

(c)(i) The question asked for differences in structure, so responses describing differences in properties
failed to gain credit.

(ii) Most answers referred to smoothness, reducing friction or the prevention of damage to the bone.
Many candidates used the expression ‘friction free’ when ‘less friction’ was more accurate here.

(d)(i) It was pleasing to see so many candidates understanding the role of this control group.

(ii) Most responses noted reduced strength but few supported their comment with figures. Units were
often lacking.

(iii) Many stated less or no oestrogen was produced with the ovaries removed. The change in the ratio
of osteoclasts to osteoblasts was not appreciated, so figures supporting this idea were not seen.

(iv) Statements were very muddled. Although many candidates realised that bone strength was
increased (compared to just ovaries out), it was not always clear whether a comparison was being
made with this group or group E. Marks were gained for increased strength and numbers of
osteocytes (estren compared to oestrogen) but it was disappointing to see few supporting figures.

Question 2

(a)(i) Few candidates were able to make this calculation.

(ii) The fact that glucose could be absorbed from the start, without digestion, was appreciated by some
candidates. Many responses were muddled, the candidates failing to note that the starch in rice
was simply a glucose polymer.

(b) It was expected that candidates would refer to the insulin concentration following the changes in
blood glucose. Unfortunately, many responses did not mention blood glucose concentration. The
idea of negative feedback was not seen.

(c) Most marks were gained here by the conversion of glucose to glycogen and its storage in the liver.
Few candidates described the insulin binding to receptors on the cell membrane of the liver cell or
mentioned the increased absorption of glucose.

Question 3

(a) Candidates realised its importance in controlling body temperature or the pituitary gland. Detail of
how it had this effect was lacking. Although hormones released by the pituitary were sometimes
named, it was not clear that it was the neurones of the hypothalamus that secreted them or which
part of the pituitary gland was responsible for their release.

(b)(i) Most could correctly name this.

(ii) Despite the emphasis in the question on the transmission of information, few candidates referred to
action potentials in neurones. Most realised that the optic nerve was involved but further detail was
lacking.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 4

(a) This was generally well answered.

(b) Only a few candidates knew this occurred in the mitochondria.

(c) Many realised that the Kreb’s cycle needed the NAD to pick up hydrogen.

(d) Some awareness was shown that fatty acids would not be oxidised due to lack of NAD, so these
would be converted to fats. No appreciation was shown that excess fats should be converted to
LDLs but that this was impossible with damaged liver cells.

Option 2

Microbiology and Biotechnology

Question 1

(a)(i) The need for a cooling jacket or other modifications was often mentioned together with an
explanation. However, explanations often lacked detail while many responses simply concentrated
on making things bigger.

(ii) Most responses correctly linked pH or temperature to their effects on enzymes. Other possibilities
were oxygen or substrate concentration but these were not seen.

(b)(i) Correctly calculated.

(ii) Many were able to correctly calculate this.

(iii) Good candidates commented on the inaccuracy of counting large numbers of colonies and their
possible overlap or the unreliability of too few colonies.

(c) Both turbidity and haemocytometry were well known, together with the problem of the presence of
dead cells.

(d) The most common mistake here was not starting above zero, while the stationary phase was often
unclear. Many however scored full marks.

Question 2

(a) Well understood.

(b) Many good answers selected a high optimum temperature and a suitable pH range. Fewer
explained that this would save time by not needing to cool or reduce the pH after the first stage.

(c) This was well understood.

(d) Candidates should be encouraged to organise their comparisons clearly in the pairs of boxes
provided. On the whole the differences were well known.

Question 3

(a) Surprisingly poor responses, with few using the correct terminology.

(b) While aseptic conditions and methods of inoculation were well known, only a few included a
nutrient medium containing cadmium or the incubation conditions. A suitable method of obtaining
the fungus from the leaves, the use of a range of cadmium concentrations or the isolation of spores
from colonies that grew was omitted.

(c) Many vague answers here, although a few successfully described extracting metals from low grade
ores and detoxifying waste.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 4

(a) Generally well done. Some confusion was shown over the fact that there was a slight increase in
1998 which was not always noticed.

(b) Many candidates discussed genetic manipulation in general terms without really addressing the
question. References were often made to plasmid involvement with no further detail. The role of
Agrobacterium was not generally known.

(c)(i) Most responses described these as controls without distinguishing between X and Y, so few marks
were scored here.

(ii) Few commented that the Bt toxin was only found in the sap but it was realised that Bt cotton gives
less protection against sap sucking insects. The reduced insecticide use was noted along with the
increase in yield, although few noted the dramatic nature of this increase.

Option 3

Growth, Development and Reproduction

Question 1

(a) Some candidates realised that more RNA indicated more activity of the gene, but many simply
related RNA production to protein synthesis, often muddling transcription and translation in the
process.

(b)(i) Too often responses only gave figures for mRNA production at each time interval without relating
these to the light and dark periods. While figures gained credit, candidates should be encouraged
to note more general trends in a graph, e.g. the increase in the light and the decrease in the dark,
with the peak at the end of the light period in both.

(ii) Most appreciated this was a long day plant but could not always explain why from the evidence.

(c)(i) Candidates could easily gain full marks, but some still do not understand this, often thinking that
red light changes to far red light rather than the forms of phytochrome interchanging.

(ii) Failure to read the question led many to comment on the advantages to man rather than to the
plant species. Better answers suggested flowering when pollinators are available or at the same
time for cross pollination.

Question 2

(a)(i) Most gained full marks here.

(ii) Many responses simply repeated the idea that they would swim faster. Credit was given for ideas
of reaching the egg faster or that fertilisation was more likely. The viscosity link was missed, with
only an occasional candidate discussing advantages when travelling through viscous mucus, such
as in the cervix.

(b)(i) Responses ranged from very good to confusion with capacitation or the cortical reaction.

(ii) A few answers realised that the acrosome reaction might destroy the hooks. Credit could also
have been given for noting the relationship shown on the graph but figures needed to be quoted to
support this idea of the link between the acrosome reaction and numbers forming ‘trains’.

(iii) Only a few candidates explained that some sperm needed to retain the ability to fertilise the egg.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 3

(a) Most candidates scored full marks here. A few weaker candidates included information about
non-male parts.

(b)(i) Good answers were seen.

(ii) This proved difficult for the majority of candidates. Even when they calculated the difference as
54 flies, it was rare for them to use this to correctly work out the percentage difference.

Question 4

(a)(i) Many scored maximum marks here.

(ii) When candidates appreciated the lack of genetic variation, they usually realised that this would
reduce the ability to adapt to ‘new’ diseases or a changed environment. Very few answers noted
that genetic change could only be by mutation, a rare process.

(iii) If responses concentrated on the environment candidates were able to score both marks, with
ideas of the rapid colonisation by the crayfish, effective competition for scarce resources or
disruption of the food chain. However, many described possible effects of the crayfish not adapting
instead.

Option 4

Applications of Genetics

Question 1

(a) Many recognised this as initiating the beat and controlling its rate. Very few appreciated its
myogenic property. Some attempts were made to describe how the excitation was passed to the
rest of the heart.

(b)(i) This proved quite accessible.

(ii) Responses were disappointing. When it was realised that the channel would be a protein, correct
statements with respect to a change of shape preventing the ion fitting were made.

(c)(i) Only very rarely were responses phrased in terms of action or resting potentials but candidates
were able to access the marks by correctly quoting figures.

(ii) Many responses confused the situation in the treated and untreated cells.

(iii) Few realised that cells would either be treated in the right atrium itself or treated in vitro and
returned there.

Question 2

(a) Generally well known.

(b)(i) Surprisingly few attempts were made to quote figures. Some noted the significant difference in
effect between resistants and susceptibles but rarely were the effects at low and high
concentrations commented upon.

(ii) Poor reading of the graph was a problem for some, while others were unable to manipulate the
numbers they obtained.

(c) Very clear accounts were supplied. The idea of random mutation and its preferential selection was
well known but weaker candidates still refer to the gene rather than the allele being passed to the
next generation.

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 9700 Biology November 2005

Question 3

(a)(i) Good responses were provided.

(ii) A readily accessible question.

(b) This was surprisingly poorly explained. A few described the use of many females, AI and
surrogates in the process. Little awareness was shown of the need to use different sires and to
progeny test these for their suitability to maintain genetic diversity.

Question 4

(a)(i) Often the idea of epistasis was defined well but less often was the dominant idea explained
correctly in this context. Some candidates explained dominance between alleles of the same gene.

(ii) A few responses described the white flowers as colourless but most supplied the colours correctly.

(b) While candidates may need to draw all the generations involved in such crosses, they would be
advised to make quite clear which generation is being shown at each stage. Some responses did
not show phenotypes clearly linked to their genotypes often losing marks as a result.

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