This document contains 74 multiple choice questions testing medical knowledge across various specialties including radiology, trauma, surgery, oncology, gastroenterology, pulmonology, and more. The questions cover topics such as signs seen on imaging, types of fractures, trauma resuscitation, surgical procedures, cancer staging and treatments, anatomy, and more. The correct answers to each question are indicated by a single letter choice.
This document contains 74 multiple choice questions testing medical knowledge across various specialties including radiology, trauma, surgery, oncology, gastroenterology, pulmonology, and more. The questions cover topics such as signs seen on imaging, types of fractures, trauma resuscitation, surgical procedures, cancer staging and treatments, anatomy, and more. The correct answers to each question are indicated by a single letter choice.
This document contains 74 multiple choice questions testing medical knowledge across various specialties including radiology, trauma, surgery, oncology, gastroenterology, pulmonology, and more. The questions cover topics such as signs seen on imaging, types of fractures, trauma resuscitation, surgical procedures, cancer staging and treatments, anatomy, and more. The correct answers to each question are indicated by a single letter choice.
This document contains 74 multiple choice questions testing medical knowledge across various specialties including radiology, trauma, surgery, oncology, gastroenterology, pulmonology, and more. The questions cover topics such as signs seen on imaging, types of fractures, trauma resuscitation, surgical procedures, cancer staging and treatments, anatomy, and more. The correct answers to each question are indicated by a single letter choice.
a) Panda eyes b) Battle sign c) Csf otorrhea d) subconjunctival hemorrhage
3) Forte fracture which is true?
a) 2 and three through nasal b) Type 1 involves nasal bone c) Type one doesn't involve pterygoid plate d) Multiple types don co exist 4) Trauma Transfusion . PRBC FFP. a) 1:3 b) 1:1 c) 1:two d) 1:4 5) Pulmonary lingual lobe. a) Right lower b) Left lower c) Right middle d) Left upper 6) Pulmonary tractotomy used for a) Pulmonary vessel ligation b) Lobectomy c) Pnemothorax decompression d) Hemothorax evacuation 7) Egg on side in x ray.. a) TGA b) TOF 8) PDA kept open therapeutic open nsaid in what condition a) Tof b) Tapvc c) TGA 9) Adbomen compartment measurement a) 2 measurements 30 min apart b) 2 measurements 60 min apart c) 3 measurements 30 min apart d) 3 measurements 60 min apart 10) Sign of three in x ray with rib notching a) Coarctation of aorta b) TOF c) TAPVS 11) Most common ASD. a) Ostium primum b) Ostium secondum c) sinus venosus 12) TAPVC associated with a) Septal cusion defect b) sinus venosus ASD 13) Endocardial cushion defect associated with a) Mitral stenosis . b) Pulmonary stenosis c) mitral regurgitation d) Aortic regurgitation 14) Emobolectomy in a artery embolim more than 6 hours a) Embolectomy done b) If infective endocarditis then only after antibiotic use embolectomy 15) Brunswig operation a) Sigmoid b) Ascending colon malignancy c) transverse colon cancer d) rectal ca. involving ?pelvic wall 16) Dcis favourable type RTOG a) <3.5 cm 2mm margin b) <2.5 cm size 2mm c) <3.5cm and 3 mm d) <2.5cm and 3mm margin 17) Varicose vein false. a) Endovascular not used when DVT b) 18) Aortic aneurysm FALSE IS . a) Define more than 50 percent normal size. b) Endo vascular contraindications in rupture. c) Equal incidence of above renal artery and below. 19) Aorta rupture common site. a) distal to left Subclavian origin b) Above the diaphragm entry c) At root d) distal to left carotid 20) Ionotropes in shock. Indication. FALSE a) Not first line of treatment b) Used in cardiac shock c) Noradrenaline as the first agent of choice d) 21) mC death in intestinal transplant a) Sepsis b) Acute rejection c) PTLD d) 22) Insulinoma MC site a) Tail b) Body c) Head d) equal 23) Gist false a) More in female. b) More than 5 cm malignant c) Mesodermal origin d) 24) Phylloids true is .. a) locally invasive. b) Mammography is diagnostic. c) It is benign proliferative in ANDI. d) 25) Scrotal pain in young. a) CT is needed for diagnosis. b) Immediate surgery can be done. c) Appendix of testis. 26) COMICE study of comparative of MRI in breast carcinoma. true is a) women >18yrs included b) Recurrence after 6 months is considered end point c) MRI guided biopsy is taken d) It is an observational study with use of contrast mri 27) Occult breast cancer with n1 treatment a) MRM with axilla dissection b) MRM with axilla radio therapy c) Axilla dissection with chemotherapy d) Simple mastectomy and chemo 28) Radio isotope not take up thyroid cancer a) Medullary b) Papillary c) Follicular d) Hurtule cell 29) Sentinel node radio isotope. a) Tecniteum iodine b) Techniteum labelled coloid sulfer c) Tc 99 d) 30) N 2 stage in oesophagus carcinoma.. a) 2 b) 3-6 c) 5-7 d) 31) N stage in oral carcinoma. Size. a) N1 is ipsilateral >6cm b) N2a is ipsilateral single c) N2b is d) N2c is 32) Lymph node spread in head and neck cancer false is a) tongue and lip spread to level 1,2,3 b) Tounge and lip can have skip metastases to 3, 4 ,5 directly c) Pharynx spread to level 2,3,4 d) 33) Pharynx ends at a) C4 b) C5 c) C6 34) Mayomayo disease. a) Smoke puff sign in angiography b) Vertebral artery occlusion c) Seen in old age 35) Reno vascular hypertension. a) Seen in young. b) Both kidney same size. c) Diueritic will control d) Familial 36) Moderate Hydronephrosis criteria in antenatal usg ap size is a) >20 b) 15-20 c) 10 d) 5
37) Caseatiom in nodes in Tb.
a) Cortex involved. b) Immunity less. c) Good response to anti TB drugs 38) Post transplant lymphopoiesis disorder. a) Viral.etiology. b) immunology suppression more . c) Kids more than adults 39) Children vitamins to prevent myelodysplasia. a) Folic acid b) Selenium c) Vit a 40) Anterior pelvic exenteration and orthotopic neo bladder contraindicated a) Lymph node invasion b) Anterior vaginal invasion. c) age >75yrs d) preexisting HUN 41) bladder carcinoma. Perioperative Local treatment a) BCG b) mitomycin 42) Papilloma with low malignancy bladder. a) Mitomycin with no other treatment b) Deep re excision and biopsy c) BCG 6 weeks and follow up therapy 43) Starburst appearance. a) MCN b) SCN c) Pseudo cyst d) IPMN 44) Gastrinoma triangle which does not form a part a) Pylorus b) Junction of neck and body c) Cystic duct d) Duodenum 2 and 3 part 45) Triangle of doom seen during what type of hernia surgery a) Laproscopy b) 46) Recurrence rate in lap repair of recurrent inguinal hernias a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 14 47) Low weight mesh a) Less than 50 b) <60 c) <80 d) <90 48) Flexor tendon repair . Suture used. a) Monocry for core structures b) Poly ester coated c) PDS d) Silk 49) Flexor sheath infection.. Sign except a) Flexor deformity b) No Pain in passive extendion c) Swelling d) tenderness 50) Shortest urethra a) Bulbar b) Prostatic c) Penile d) membranous 51) MC site of urethral cancer. a) Navicular fossa b) Penile c) bulbomembranous 52) Median is useful except. a) Bp. b) Survival c) Out of pocket expenditure d) 53) Funnel graph is used for in statistics. a) Cut out outliers. b) SD range 2 c) Publication bias d) 54) Laurens criteria for diffuse gastric cancer except a) FAMILIAL b) MORE IN MALES c) undifferntiated. 55) Prophylactic mastectomy. a) BRCA 1 and 2 carriers b) Cancer in mother c) After surgery in oppositebreast 56) Inflammatory breast cancer. true a) Redness and edema. Histopath proof b) Lymph invasion necessary for diagnosis. c) MRM with chemotherapy is treatment d) 57) Scar malignancy. a) No lymph spread. b) 58) Immunology suppressor which act as anti tumour. a) M tor inhibitor. b) Cd52 mono clonal. c) Ig receptor inhibition. d) Calcineurin inhibitors. 59) Skin malignancy a) SCC and BCC 1 cm margin. b) Immunology suppression leads to non melanotic malignancy c) UV radiation damage p53 60) Keloid. a) High Vascular b) Contain collagen type 4 c) Collagen is same but arranged hapazard d) High growth factor 61) Bevacizumab in breast ca action a) Anti her2 neu b) Anti angio genesis c) Hormone therapy d) Immunotherapy 62) Desmoid tumours false a) Young pregnant women b) Radiotherapy is only treatment c) 63) Ixabepilone used in a) Melanoma b) breast carcinoma c) oat cell carcinoma d) small cell carcinoma lung 64) MC complication after Whipple' a) Delayed gastric emptying b) Pancreatic fistula c) Wound infection d) 65) Duct to jejunum anstamosis instead of duct to duct in liver transplantation in which condition a) PSC b) Allegile yndrome c) Alcoholic cirrhosis d) Xxxxxxxx 66) Order of anastomosis in lung transplant a) Pulmonary Artery vein bronchus b) Pulmonary Vein, bronchus then pulmonary artery c) Pulmonary vein artery bronchus 67) Delta cells in pancreas secrete a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Somatostatin d) VIP 68) Priapism in trauma patient a) Severe spinal cord injury b) Penile rupture c) Dordal vein of penis thrombosis 69) Most common cause of recurrent Priapism . a) Sickle cell. b) Too much sex c) mastrubation 70) Hypospadias correction age of correction a) before 1 yr b) 2 yrs c) 4 yrs d) 5 yr
71) Undecended testis in 1yr old best investigation is
a) USG abdomen b) CT c) MRI d) Laproscopy 72) Unilateral cleft lip repair. a) 4-5 months b) 5-6 months 73) Common cause of congenital adrrenal hyperplasia a) 21 hydroxylase. b) 11. c) 5 alpha reductase 74) In ICU . Suspected adrenal insufficiency. What is investigation of choice. a) 8 am cortisol. b) Syntropin test. c) Random cortisol 75) Clept palate repair age. a) 9 month 76) Oesophageal atresia mc type a) Atresia with distal fistula b) Proximal fistula. 77) Duodenal atresia seen in syndrome a) Downs b) Patau c) turners 78) Electrolyte Abnormalities in pyloric hyperplasia. Pediatrics. a) Hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis 79) Half marathon hematuria in 28 old guy. Which investigation. a) Ivp. b) Cystograohy. c) No investigation d) CT scan 80) MC type of urethral opening in cystoscopy a) Cone b) Golf hole c) Horse shoe d) stadium 81) Urgent cystogram indication. a) Pelvic fracture with hematuria . b) Urinary retention with hematuria . c) Clots in bladder in CT and in urine. d) CT suggestive of free fluid in peritoneal cavity 82) Hydatid cyst . True except. a) Liver mc; lung 2nd MC b) Dog is definite and human and sheep intermittent c) Commonly presents with painless mass abdomen d) Anaphylaxis can occur due to rupture in emergency setting 83) Layers of hydatid false is a) Pericyst in intermediate layer. b) Endo cyst produces daughter cysts c) 84) Loss of consciousness for less than 5 min with GCS and CT normal.. what to do next. a) Observation b) Discharge with explain danger signs. c) Discharge with review in opd after 2 days d) Discharge with review in opd after 5 days 85) Post op Hb of 7 and asymptomatic, no future surgery planned what to do next. a) Probably will benefit from transfusion b) No indication for transfusion c) Transfusion unlikely to be benefit in the absence of bleeding or impending surgery d) 86) Trauma with acidosis and coagulopathy. Liver and duodenal injury what to do a) Damage control. b) Liver repair c) whipples 87) Mucinous pancreatic tumour. a) Less amylase in fluid b) Enucleation. c) Estrogens receptors are positive. 88) trauma score. Best assessment score a) RTS b) ISS c) Modified trauma score. 89) Sensitivity 90 specific 80 . Prevelance 30. NEGATIVE predictive value. a) 70% b) 80% c) 95% d) 100% 90) P value in statistics meaning . a) Probability of rejecting null hypothesis when it is true b) Probability of accepting null hypothesis when it is false 91) Some statistal rest for two comparisn .. Cox regression analyysis/ log rank
92) Glasgow outcome score of vegetative state
a) Two b) 3 c) 5 d) 8 93) Achalasia Cardia. True except. a) Meaning no relaxation b) Hellers is only treatment choice c) It is pre malignant d) 94) Bariatric surgery use all except a) Cosmetic b) Decrease comorbidity c) increase Life expentency d) Social medical expenditure decreased. 95) Gas bloat syndrome. a) Partial wrap b) Complete wrap of stomach 96) Nissens true except. a) Gas bloat syndrome seen b) 360 wrap c) Thoracic aproach d) Three sutures to hold it 97) Dysphagia in oesophagus means invasion of which layer. a) Mucosal. b) Submucosal. c) Transmural d) Node 98) Percentage of incontinence after spincterotomy a) 8 b) 10 c) 15 d) twenty 99) Fascial nodes. All except . a) Submental b) Buccinator c) supra mandibular d) ?inferior orbital 100) Superficial inguinal and deep inguinal soepareted by a) Fascia lata b) Femoral vessels c) Inguinal ligament d) 101) Modified radical neck dissection type 1 what is preserved. a) Accessory nerve b) Internal jugular vein c) sternomastoid 102) Thoracic pheochromocytoma where is it common. a) Anterior medistenum b) Posterior c) Middle d) superior 103) Before Adrenal biopsy rule out . a) Pheochromocytoma. b) Malignancy c) Cushing's 104) Radio isotope useful in a) toxic nodule of thyroid b) toxic multinodular goiter 105) Men 1 mc seen NET of pancrease a) Gastrinoma b) Glucagonoma c) insulinoma 106) FAP false is a) ApC gene chromosome 5 . b) autosomal dominant. c) Pentration 90 percent . d) Cancer by 15 to twenty 107) Cystocele repair and incontinence of urine in female . Reason. a) Urethral sphincter injury. b) Bladder partial denervation c) Detrusor instability 108) Gastric cancer borrmans classification type 1 a) Protruding b) Ulcerated c) flat d) Excavated 109) Ameobic infection false is a) After chronic infection in large bowel ,Granulomatous lesion in caecum devoleps. b) Saucer ulcer. c) Liver mc extra intestinal . 110) Regarding perinatal AP diameter of renal pelvis in 3rd trimester that corresponds to moderate hydronephrosis a) 4-8mm b) 9-15mm c) 16-20mm d) >20mm 111) Sub dural hematoma cause a) Cortical vessels b) Venous sinus c) Middle cerebral artery 112) Infection of scalp most dangerous site. a) Sub glieal. b) Aponeurosis. c) Epicranium d) Loose areolar tissue 113) Gaze parasis seen in . a) Uncal herniation. b) Brain stem defect. 114) Idiopathic intr cranial hypertension false a) Pseudo tumour cerebri called b) No tumour seen c) Can not lead to blindness 115) Tumour of brain present as . Except. a) Pin point pupil b) Seizures c) Headache d) Focal neurological deficiet 116) MC tumour of brain . a) Meningioma. b) Glioma. c) Metastasis 117) Benign prostatic hypertrophy. In what region a) Peripheral b) Middle c) transitional. d) Central 118) Brain blood flow.. a) 55ml/min/100 gm of tissue b) 35 c) 45 d) 75 119) Fluids in burns.. True is a) Water intoxication in the setting of hyponatremia can be fatal b) Colloid better than crystalloids c) plasma better than albumin 120) Escherotomy true is a) Elbow. b) Chest transverse. c) Lateral to nipple line vertical or lateral .. d) Down the chest lateral to nipples, across the chest below the clavicle and across the chest at the level of xiphisternum 121) Percentage of burns in adult. Scalp and face using Berkow formula a) 9 b) 10 c) 7 d) 8 122) Paneoplastic syndrome . In lung. Myalgia a) Small cell carcinoma . b) Scc.. 123) Paraneoplastic in renal cell cancer a) Hypocalcemia dur to PTH secretion b) 124) Brachiogenic carcinoma. a) Brachial cyst cancer. b) Bronchus. 125) Brachial cyst is lined by what epithelium a) Columnar b) Cuboidal c) squamous d) Cilliated columnar 126) Jeep disease. a) Pilonidal sinus 127) Enhanced recovery protocol. What is false. a) 72hr antibiotics b) Pain relief c) Mobilise d) Early feed 128) Things to do to decrease stress in surgery all except a) MIS. b) Afferent block. c) 8 hours fasting d) Early mobilisation 129) Pre op preparation. a) Clipping of hair. b) Shaving on table 130) Distributive shock except.. a) Decreased venous return b) Decreased co c) Decreased vascular resistance d) High mixed venous saturation 131) First line of therapy in shock trauma. a) Fluids. b) Colloid and cystaloids. c) inotrops 132) UTI in hospital . MC organism a) E coli b) Klebsiella c) Proteus d) pseudomonas 133) SYNERGISTIC GANGRENE false a) caused by clostridium b) Always in immuno suppressed 134) Stemmers sign seen in . a) Lymphadema. b) Venous disease. c) factitious lymphedema 135) Diagnosis of lymphoedema usually done by a) History and clinical b) Lymphangiogram. c) Mri 136) MC primary malignant peritoneal tumour. a) Mesothelioma. 137) Abdomen wall embryology. a) Lateral mesodermal. b) Medial mesodermal c) ectoderm 138) Uracus is remnant of . a) Allantoin b) Medial umbilical ligament 139) MC cancer of testis in kids. a) Yolk sac . b) Leydigs. c) Seminoma. d) Choriocarcinoma 140) Right adrenal lymph drainage. a) Para aortic. b) Inter Aortocaval. c) Pre aortic. d) Para Caval 141) Fullers zone 1 injury, surgery includes mobilisation of a) Right medial rotation. b) Left Medial rotation. c) Duodenal dissection. d) Lesser sac approch 142) Tropical pancreatitis. a) Tapioca. b) Large stones with fibrosis. c) Cancerous 143) Clinical marker of mi. a) Trop t b) Alkaline phosphatase 144) SA is supplied by which artery. a) Right coronary b) Left coronary c) Left circumflex. d) Anterior inter ventricular. 145) Z plasty. a) 3 limbs equal with 45 degree. b) 3limbs equal 60 degree. c) All limbs equal with 45 degree d) All limbs equal with 60 degree 146) Bi lobed graft used in . a) Nose. b) Eyelid. c) Cheek. 147) Gastric carcinoma after vagotomy after______years a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 20 148) True about mesothelioma except a) Can be cleared completely with surgery. b) Common in females 149) paradoxical breathing. a) Flial chest 150) Prime rose oil for how many months a) 1 b) Two c) 3 month d) 4 151) Precancerous . Oral. Except. a) Erythroplakia. b) Speckled erythroplakia. c) Discoid lupus d) Chronic hypertrophic candidiasis 152) GB premalignant all except a) PSC , b) Porceline. c) Multiple 2 cm stones. d) Choledochal cyst 153) First gene in pancreatic adenocarcinoma is .. a) kras2. b) P53. 154) Morgagni foramen MC content. a) Stomach. b) Small intestine. c) Transverse colon. 155) Allen's test used for a) Patency of ulnar and radial artery . 156) Troracic outlet all except. a) Scalene muscle. b) Long transverse c7. c) Spondylosis 157) Named surgery. .. Named test in statistics. ..Many scores and interpretation 158) In continuous cough which muscle is relaxed. a) Diaphragm. b) Anal sphincter. c) Abdomen muscles. d) Chest muscles 159) Emergency airway. false a) Cricothyroidotomy is preferred b) Skin incision is vertical. c) Membrane incision is vertical d) Airway is prepared before cricothyroidotomy 160) Most common radiolucent renal stone . a) Calcium oxalate . b) Calcium phosphate c) Triple phosphate d) Uric acid 161) Treatment of hypocalcemia tetany a) Oral b) Injectable 10 percent calcium gluconate 162) Newest treatment for anal incontinence. a) Sacral nerve stimulation. b) Artificial sphincter. c) Repair of sphincter d) Gluteus maximus graft 163) Hand washing false. a) Alcohol rub replace hand washing in ot. b) Alcohol 70 percent kills spores of clos difficle. 164) Cancericidal. a) 1 percent cetrimide. b) Phenol. c) FormAldehyde. d) Saline 165) Holding the needle with needle holder. a) One third away from the rear of needle. b) In middle c) th 166) Arterial bleeding in a wound how to control in emergency setting a) Pressure. b) Blind artery clamp. c) Under vision and ligation.. 167) Infected wound. Which was left to heal and then sutured. a) Delayed primary intention healing b) secondary 168) Lag phase in wound healing??????? 169) Maturation of scar true is a) Become more cellular b) Type 4 collagen. c) Become More vascular d) Fibers became organised and strength is in waves 170) Proliferative cell nuclear antigen(pcna) markers used for.. a) For angiogenesis. b) Necrosis. c) Proliferation d) apoptosis 171) Blood supply of bowel . a) Riolan and Drummond provide collateral supply b) Water shed area at sigmoid. c) SMA till distal transverse colon. 172) MC site of mandible fracture .. a) Condyle b) Angle c) Ramus d) body 173) STARVATION ALL NOT EXCEPT- a) LOW GLUCAGON b) Glucolysis c) Lipolysis d) Protien lysis 174) Vaccume dressing. ALL EXCEPT: a) noeffect on EDEMA OF WOUND b) Decrease bacterial load c) 175) RICHMOND gitation sedation score.RANGE 176) Mamography dose. a) 0.1 gy b) 0.01 cgy c) 0.1 cgy d) 0.01 gy 177) MONTOGMERY GLAND in pregnancy secrets a) SEBUM b) Sweat c) Mucus d) 178) Koch postulates false a) Found in 50% cases b) Possible to isolate it from host and grow in culture c) It should reproduce the disease when injected in another host d) Should be recovered from 2nd host 179) Spinal cord injury a) frenkel score ? b) Glass glow coma score c) Johnson score d) 180) Fowler Stephen surgery is done in a) Epispadias b) Hypospadias c) Extrophy of bladder d) Cryptorchidism 181) Ca bladder laser a) Carbon dioxide b) Nd yag c) Ho yag 182) Banfff score. a) acute glomerulonephritis b) Chronic glomerulonephritis c) Graft rejection d) Chronic renal graft rejection 183) Foreign body injetion in child true is a) Lead bettry in oesophagus should be romoved b) Sharp objects must be operated c) 184) Recurrent trauma in a child with incomplete history a) Non traumatic injury b) . 185) COMPOUND # SKULL- a) INNER/ b) OUTER TABLE/ c) PERICRANIUM 186) DENVER CRITERIA a) Blunt cerebrovascular trauma b) Chest trauma c) Blunt trauma abdomen 187) GE JUNTION.. a) stewart 2.. b) Stewart 1 c) 3 d) 4 188) PANCREAS CA MEDIAN SURVIVAL after surgery and adjuvant therapy a) 12 months b) 22 c) 32 d) 44 189) LATE DUMPING due to .. a) insulin. b) Food bolus entering in jejunum 190) MESENTRIC ISCHEMIA a) 3 VESSELS > 50 % OCCLUDED for angina. 191) PIG SKIN is a) homo graft. b) Heterograft. c) Allograft d) 192) LYMPHEDEMA STOCKING A= class a) 30 -40mmHg b) 40-50mmHg c) 50-60mmHg d) C 193) COMPARTMENT SYNDROME of limb ALL EXCEPT. a) If pulse felt diagnosis unlikely b) Passive stretch pain c) pain out of proportion 194) Temperature to store the procured organ is a) -2 degree b) 0 degree c) 4 degree d) 6 degree 195) AMPUTATED FINGER HOW TO TRANSPORT . a) Plastic bag with ice b) no plasticbag on dry ice c) In plastic bag with dry ice
196) True about choledocal disease except.
a) Type 4 is Caroli b) Type1 is most common c) Type 3 is also called choledochocele d) Type 2 is diverticular disease 197) Carbon monoxide poisoning true is a) It is having 10 times more affinity than oxigen b) 60 percent is not deadly. c) Concentration above 10% are dangerous and need observation d) Concentration above 10% are dangerous and need treatment with pure oxigen for more than 24 hours 198) Parotid tumour . False is. a) Superficial lobe trismus. b) Pain indicate malignancy. c) Enucleation leads to recurrence d) pleomorphic cancer. 199) Alimentary limb of rou after gastrectomy LENGTH a) .. 50 cm . b) 20 cm . c) 30cm 200) About foreign bodies true is. a) Coin more dangerous than battery. b) Button batteries shud be removed promptly c) Sharp require surgical treatment