Mt:Metallurgical Engineering: General Instructions
Mt:Metallurgical Engineering: General Instructions
Mt:Metallurgical Engineering: General Instructions
MT:METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100
General Instructions:
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display
the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.
3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question
will be considered in the evaluation.
Navigating to a Question
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter
a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
d. Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it
for review, and then go to the next question.
e. Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you
navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.
5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for
multiple choice type questions will not be shown.
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Answering a Question
8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for
answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be
considered for evaluation.
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1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.
4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.
5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
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USEFUL DATA
Universal gas constant, R: 8.314 J/mol/K
Acceleration due to gravity, g: 9.81 m/s2
Faraday constant, F: 96500 C/mol
Bohr magneton, B: 9.273 10 24 Am2
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 1 (C) 1 and 1 (D) 2 and 2 NPTEL Reference
Q.2 As the concentration of point defects in a crystal increases, its configurational entropy
(A) does not change (B) decreases NPTEL Reference 1
(C) increases (D) initially increases and then decreases
NPTEL Reference 2
Q.3 In a binary system A-B, AA, BB and AB correspond to A-A, B-B and A-B bond energies
respectively. The miscibility gap will occur if
(A) AB > ½ (AA + BB) (B) AB < ½ (AA + BB)
(C) AB = ½ (AA + BB) (D) AB < ¼ (AA + BB) NPTEL Reference
Q.5 With respect to the matrix of Al-Cu alloys, G-P zones are
(A) coherent (B) incoherent NPTEL Reference 1
Q.6 Which one of the following techniques does NOT require quenching to obtain final case hardness?
(A) Flame hardening (B) Induction hardening
(C) Nitriding (D) Carburizing NPTEL Reference
Q.8 A 0.2 wt.% plain carbon steel sheet is heated and equilibrated in the inter-critical region followed
by instant water quenching. The microstructure of the quenched steel sheet consists of
(A) fully martensite (B) proeutectoid ferrite + martensite
(C) martensite + pearlite (D) martensite + austenite NPTEL Reference
Q.9 As compared to the engineering stress-engineering strain curve, the true stress-true strain curve for
a given material
(A) lies above and to the left
(B) lies below and to the right
(C) crosses the engineering stress-engineering strain curve
(D) is identical NPTEL Reference
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Q.10 Which one of the following does NOT improve fatigue life of a steel component?
(A) Nitriding (B) Decarburization
(C) Improving surface finish (D) Shot-peening NPTEL Reference
Q.11 When two phases α and β in an alloy are in thermodynamic equilibrium, then
(A) c p c p (B) Vm Vm (C) Gm Gm (D) G i G i NPTEL Reference
1 V 1 V
(A) (B)
p p T p p T
1 V 1 V
(C) (D) NPTEL Reference
V p T V p T
Q.13 In the Ellingham diagram for oxides, C-CO line cuts the M-MO line at temperature T1 and the
M′-M′O line at a higher temperature T2. At a temperature greater than T1 and less than T2, carbon
can reduce
(A) MO (B) both MO and M′O
(C) M′O (D) neither MO nor M′O NPTEL Reference
Q.14 Which one of the following can give information about the corrosion rate? NPTEL Reference 1
(A) Pourbaix diagram (B) Polarization technique NPTEL Reference 2
(C) EMF series (D) Galvanic series
NPTEL Reference 3
Q.15 In a roasting process, the set of conditions that favour sulphate formation from metal sulphide
concentrates are
P. high temperature
Q. high partial pressure of oxygen
R. use of excess air
NPTEL Reference 1
S. high partial pressure of SO3
(A) P, R and S (B) P, Q and R NPTEL Reference 2
(C) Q and S (D) R and S
NPTEL Reference 3
Q.16 High top pressure in a blast furnace operation
(A) favours the solution-loss reaction
NPTEL Reference 1
(B) suppresses the solution-loss reaction
(C) decreases gas-solid contact time
(D) increases coke rate NPTEL Reference 2
NPTEL Reference 3
Q.17 In L-D steelmaking, the final slag can be best described as
(A) oxidizing (B) basic
NPTEL Reference
(C) oxidizing and basic (D) reducing and basic
Q.18 The permeability of burden in an ironmaking blast furnace can be improved by using
(A) fine charge NPTEL Reference 1
(B) agglomerated charge
(C) oxygen enriched air blast NPTEL Reference 2
(D) pulverized coal injection through the tuyeres
NPTEL Reference 3
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Q.19 For a good quality brazing, the molten filler alloy should have
(A) low contact angle with the base metal (B) low density
NPTEL Reference
(C) high surface tension (D) high viscosity
Q.21 For scalar fields and , the value of () is ______ NPTEL Reference
Q.22 The atomic packing fraction of diamond cubic structure is __________ NPTEL Reference
Q.23 The total number of possible heat transfer mode(s) is __________ NPTEL Reference
Q.24 If and are true stress and true strain, respectively, the maximum true uniform strain that can be
imparted to a material obeying = 10500.25 is _________ NPTEL Reference
Q.25 Arc welding is done using current, voltage and welding speed of 200 A, 20 V and 0.01 m/s,
respectively. The heat input in kJ per unit length is _________ NPTEL Reference
NPTEL Reference 2
1 1 1 1
(A) 3
n 1
n 1
(B) n
n 1
(C) 2
n0
n
(D) n
n 1
n
NPTEL Reference 3
(A) 1 ⋯ (B) 1 ⋯
NPTEL Reference
(C) 0 ⋯ (D) 0 ⋯
Q.28 Which one of the following attributes is NOT correct for the matrix?
cos sin 0
sin cos 0 , where = 60°
0 0 1 NPTEL Reference 1
Q.29 A unit cell of an element has maximum linear density along the [110] direction. The packing
density of its (100) plane is
(A) 0.68 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.79 (D) 0.91 NPTEL Reference
Q.30 For an FCC metal, the ratio of interplanar spacing obtained from the first two peaks of the X-ray
diffraction pattern is
(A) 1.91 (B) 1.63 (C) 1.41 (D) 1.15 NPTEL Reference
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Q.31 There are 150 gearwheels in a box, out of which 112 are within the required tolerance, 21 are below
and rest are above the required tolerance. If the selection is done without replacement, the
combined probability of randomly selecting a gearwheel below the tolerance and then a second one
above the tolerance is
NPTEL Reference
(A) 0.016 (B) 0.032 (C) 0.492 (D) 0.984
Q.32 Match the metal in Group I with its corresponding ore in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Ni (1) Monazite
(Q) Th (2) Cassiterite
(R) Pb (3) Penlandite
(S) Sn (4) Galena
Q.33 The yield strength of a polycrystalline metal increases from 100 MPa to 145 MPa on decreasing the
grain size from 64 µm to 25 µm. The yield strength of this metal (in MPa) having a grain size of 36
µm is
(A) 110 (B) 125 (C) 140 (D) 165 NPTEL Reference
Q.34 In a brittle material, the maximum internal crack length is 8 µm. If Young’s modulus is 400 GPa
and surface energy is 3.14 J/m2, the estimated theoretical fracture strength (in MPa) is
NPTEL Reference
(A) 375 (B) 412 (C) 327 (D) 447
Q.35 Saturation magnetization of an FCC metal with lattice parameter 0.2 nm is 600 kA/m. The net
magnetic moment per atom is given by (in Bohr magneton)
(A) 8.08 1057 (B) 2.02 1057 (C) 0.517 (D) 0.129
Q.36 A 480 mm thick slab is hot-rolled using a roll of 720 mm diameter. For a coefficient of friction of
0.5, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is
(A) 90 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360 NPTEL Reference
Q.37 Match the defects listed in Group I with the corresponding manufacturing process listed in
Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Orange-peel effect (1) Extrusion
(Q) Chevron cracking (2) Deep drawing
(R) Flash (3) Arc welding
(S) Undercut (4) Forging
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Q.38 Match the powder production technique given in Group I with the corresponding shape listed in
Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Reduction (1) Flaky
(Q) Gas Atomization (2) Spongy
(R) Milling (3) Dendritic
(S) Electrolysis (4) Spherical
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
NPTEL Reference
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
Q.39 Match the suitability of non-destructive testing method in Group I for the detection of defects
listed in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Magnetic particle inspection (1) Surface crack in martensitic stainless steels
(Q) X-ray radiography (2) Surface crack in austenitic stainless steels
(R) Dye penetrant test (3) Hairline crack in aluminium
(S) Ultrasonic testing (4) Inclusions in steels
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
NPTEL Reference
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.40 For the following electrochemical reaction Sn + 2H+ = Sn2+ + H2, if the solution has Sn2+
concentration 102 M and pH 5 at 298 K, which of the following is true?
Given: standard reduction potential for Sn2+ + 2e Sn is 0.136 V versus SHE; pH 2 = 1 atm
NPTEL Reference 1
(A) Sn undergoes oxidation (B) H+ undergoes reduction
(C) Sn2+ undergoes reduction (D) No net reaction NPTEL Reference 2
Q.41 Match the unit operation in Group I with its corresponding principle in Group II:
Group I Group II
(P) Jigging (1) Modification of surface tension
(Q) Tabling (2) Difference in density
(R) Heavy media separation (3) Differential initial acceleration
(S) Flotation (4) Differential lateral movement
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 NPTEL Reference
Q.42 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion: For the extraction of metal values from their sulphide concentrates by
hydrometallurgical route, leaching with oxygen under high pressure is used.
Reason: Presence of oxygen under high pressure causes roasting of sulphides, which helps in
leaching of the values.
(A) a is true but r is false
(B) a is false but r is true NPTEL Reference 1
(C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a
(D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a NPTEL Reference 2
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Q.43 The aperture size (in m) of a 200 mesh sieve having a wire diameter of 53 µm is __________ NPTEL Reference
Q.44 From a 2 m × 1.2 m sheet, squares are cut out from each of the four corners as shown in the figure
and then the sides are bent to form an open box. The maximum possible volume (in m3) of the box
is __________
NPTEL Reference
Q.45 Applying the secant method, the first approximation to the root of 1 ln , starting
with function values at x = 0.3 and x = 0.4, is_______ NPTEL Reference
Q.46 The critical internal crack length (in mm) in a steel having KIc of 45 MPa√m to support a Mode-I
stress of 400 MPa is __________ NPTEL Reference
Q.47 Ladle deoxidation of liquid steel is done at 1600°C by adding ferro-aluminium. By assuming
Stokes law behaviour, time (in s) required for alumina particles of 50 m diameter to float to the
surface from a depth of 2 m would be__________
A steel specimen containing 0.2 wt.% C is carburized in an atmosphere that maintains a carbon content of
1.2 wt.% C at the surface of the specimen.
Given:
For carbon diffusion in austenite: D0=2.0×105 m2/s
Activation energy for diffusion, Q=142 kJ/mol
y erf(y)
0.85 0.7707
0.90 0.7970
0.95 0.8209
Q.48 What is the depth (in m) from the surface of the specimen at which a composition of 0.4 wt.% C is
obtained after carburizing at 870°C for 10 h? NPTEL Reference 1
Q.49 How long (in h) will it take to double the depth at which 0.4 wt.% C is reached?
NPTEL Reference 1
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 18 (D) 14
NPTEL Reference 2
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Integral enthalpy of mixing (in J/mol) of liquid (Cu, Zn) solution can be approximated by
H mmix = 19250xCuxZn
Q.50 The corresponding partial molar enthalpy of mixing (in J/mol) for Cu is
(A) 19250
(B) 19250
(C) 38500xZn19250 19250 NPTEL Reference
(D) 19250
Q.51 Assuming regular solution behaviour, the solution parameter (in J/mol) is
(A) 19250 (B) 9625 (C) 13.75 (D) 2315.4 NPTEL Reference
The density and associated crystallinity for two polypropylene samples are as follows:
Q.53 The percent crystallinity of polypropylene sample having a density of 1.3 g/cm3 is
NPTEL Reference
(A) 54 (B) 64 (C) 74 (D) 84
An edge dislocation is present in α-Fe. Atomic diameter of iron atom is 0.25 nm and its shear modulus is
70 GPa.
(A) 0.125 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.625 NPTEL Reference
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Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:
Primeval
(A) Modern (B) Historic
(C) Primitive (D) Antique
(B) intimate
(C) secret
(D) pleasant
Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
Medicine: Health
(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace
(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness
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Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010
and 2011.
In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages
Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price
should be increased to maintained the same profit level.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above
statements?
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