USMLE Platinum Notes Step 2, 2e PDF

USMLE STEP 2 CK
PLATINUM NOTES
The Complete Preparatory Guide
Second Edition
Ashfaq UI Hassan
MBBS MS
Consultant Anatomy
SKIMS Medical College
Bemina, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, India
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USMLE Step 2 CK Platinum Notes
First Edition: 2013
Second Edition: 2016
ISBN: 978-93-5250-172-4
Printed at
Contributors
Ashfaq UI Hassan
MBBS MS
Consultant–Anatomy
SKIMS Medical College
Bemina, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, India
Prof. Showkat A Zargar

MD DM (Gastroenterology)
Director and Principal
Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences (SKIMS)
Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, India
Prof. Naseer Mir

MS (Orthopedics)
Professor and Head – Orthopedics
Dr Sheikh Manzoor Ahamed

MD (Dermatology)
Associate Professor and Head–Dermatology
Preface to the Second Edition
I am extremely obliged to the Almighty Allah and no words would be enough to express my thanks to his holiness for
guiding me.
This book USMLE Step 2 CK Platinum Notes consists of complete revision material for the preparation of the USMLE
examinations with important latest questions asked in these examinations and most of the students do not fare well with
these questions, thus significantly lowering their scores.
The book is for complete revision with special focus on the most common and most important cases asked. It covers
special and important topics which are most frequently asked by the examiners.
The prime focus for the students to go through the most important points and recapitulating these at the end is
important for any examination and special focus for the same has been given for their benefit.
Like the other series of books for the USMLE examinations being authored by me, which have had a tremendous
success, I hope this effort of mine again would be helpful for the students throughout the world in their pursuit of academic
excellence along with the important fact of getting a very good score in the examinations.
I hope the book proves to be useful for our students to the fullest.
I would encourage any aspiring student to join me for his/her contribution.
Ashfaq Ul Hassan
ashhassan@rediffmail.com
Preface to the First Edition
It gives me a great pleasure to introduce Platinum Notes for USMLE Step 1 and Step 2.
A need was felt by most of the students for a comprehensive book for USMLE for preparing extensively and
simultaneously getting a very good score.
My efforts are directed to benefit the students to the maximum.
For a student preparing, revising, forgetting and consulting different books is a part of the game. In this journey some
students tend to get nervous and anxious and I thought of putting all my best efforts into one book which would make the
preparation simpler, interesting, more lucid and palatable.
High yield points, important topics, clinical correlations, in-depth focus on subjects, easy retention and quick revision
are the points on which I have focused taking into account the latest trends of the examinations.
The matter in the book is highly concentrated, needs multiple revisions and deep concentration for retention.
The book has been framed to simulate the study pattern of USMLE examinations to its best.
The questions in the text and after every subject are almost similar to the questions put in the actual USMLE examination
which gives a student a good chance to understand the standard of USMLE as well as to prepare for the examinations in a
better way.
I feel that the students would be benefitted through my effort and a feedback from the students would be highly
appreciated at ashhassan@rediffmail.com
I wish you good luck for your academic pursuits.
Ashfaq Ul Hassan
ashhassan@rediffmail.com
Acknowledgments
No words would be enough to express my regards to Prof. Showkat A Zargar, Director, Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical
Sciences (SKIMS), Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, India for his constant encouragement.
I am also thankful to my father Prof. Ghulam Hassan for his constant encouragement in all my academic pursuits and
guiding me throughout the process of the completion of this book.
I convey my sincere thanks to Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd, New Delhi, India for their efforts and
suggestions, especially Shri Jitendar P Vij (Group Chairman), Ms Chetna Vohra (Associate Director), and Ms Payal Bharti
(Project Manager) for helping me through my idea.
Abbreviations
1° Primary bid Twice a day
2° Secondary BMR Basal metabolic rate
# Fracture BP Blood pressure
ACE Angiotensin converting enzyme BPH Benign prostatic hypertrophy
ACE-I Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor BUN Blood urea nitrogen
ACTH Adrenocorticotropic hormone B/L Bilateral
ACh Acetylcholine BM Bone marrow, basement membrane
Adr Adrenaline b/n or b/w Between
AD Autosomal dominant C/S Culture and sensitivity
ADH Anti-diuretic hormone Ca Calcium
2+
AF Atrial fibrillation CABG Coronary artery bypass graft

AFB Acid-fast bacilli CAD Coronary artery disease
AFP Alpha-fetoprotein CCF Congestive cardiac failure
A.k.a Also known as CT Computerized tomography
ALL Acute lymphocytic leukemia CHF Congestive heart failure
AML Acute myelogenous leukemia CHO Carbohydrate
ANA Antinuclear antibody CML Chronic myelogenous leukemia
ANS Autonomic nervous system CMV Cytomegalovirus
AP Anteroposterior CN Cranial nerves
AR Autosomal recessive CNS Central nervous system
ARDS Acute respiratory distress syndrome CO Cardiac output
ARF Acute renal failure C/O Complaining of
AS Aortic stenosis COLD Chronic obstructive lung disease
ATP Adenosine triphosphate COPD Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
ASD Atrial septal defect CPK Creatine phosphokinase
AV Atrioventricular CRF Chronic renal failure
A/E All except CRP C-reactive protein
Acc/ to According to CSF Cerebrospinal fluid
Ad/E, ad/e Adverse effects CVA Cerebrovascular accident
A/W or a/w Associated with CVP Central venous pressure
BBB Bundle branch block CVS Cardiovascular system
xii USMLE Step 2 CK Platinum Notes
CXR Chest X-ray FTT Failure to thrive

Ca Carcinoma/Cancer FVC Forced vital capacity
C/c Complication FA Fatty acid
CT Chemotherapy FFA Free fatty acid
C/I Contraindication GFR Glomerular filtration rate
CI/f Clinical features GH Growth hormone
CTD Connective tissue disease GIT Gastrointestinal tract
Cont./L Contralateral GTT Glucose tolerance test
Cx Cervix GU Genitourinary
D and C Dilation and curettage HAV Hepatitis A virus
DI Diabetes insipidus HCG Human chorionic gonadotropin
DIC Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy HDL High density lipoprotein
DIP Distal interphalangeal joint Hb Hemoglobin
DKA Diabetic ketoacidosis HIV Human immunodeficiency virus
dL Deciliter HLA Histocompatibility locus antigen
DM Diabetes mellitus H/O History of
DTR Deep tendon reflexes HR Heart rate
DVT Deep venous thrombosis HSV Herpes simplex virus
d/to Due to HTN Hypertension
D/g Diagnosis HS Hereditary spherocytosis
DOC Drug of choice HCC Hepato cellular carcinoma
Ds, d/s Disease, disease HD Hodgkin’s disease
DM Diabetes mellitus I and D Incision and drainage
ECG Electrocardiogram IDDM Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
ECT Electroconvulsive therapy Ig Immunoglobulin
ECHO Echocardiography IM Intramuscular
EMG Electromyogram INR International normalized ratio
EOM Extraocular muscles ITP Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
ESR Erythrocyte sedimentation rate IV Intravenous
ERCP Endoscopic retrograde cholangio- IVP Intravenous pyelogram
Pancreatography IVU Intravenous urogram
EUA Examination under anesthesia ICT Intracranial tension
FBS Fasting blood sugar IOC Investigation of choice
FEV Forced expiratory volume ILD Interstitial lung disease
FFP Fresh frozen plasma IOT Intraocular tension
FRC Functional residual capacity Ipsi/L Ipsilateral
Abbreviations xiii
JVP Jugular venous pressure PT Prothrombin time, or physical therapy

K Potassium
+
PTCA Percutaenous transluminal coronary
K/as Known as angioplasty
LAE Left atrial enlargement PTH Parathyroid hormone
LBBB Left bundle branch block PTT Partial thromboplastin time
LDH Lactate dehydrogenase P/g Prognosis
LMN Lower motor neuron Px Prophylaxis
LE Lupus erythematosus PBC Primary bilary cirrhosis
LP Lumbar puncture RA Rheumatoid arthritis
LV Left ventricle RBBB Right bundle branch block
LVH Left ventricular hypertrophy RBC Red blood cell
LN Lymph node RIA Radioimmunoassay
MAO Monoamine oxidase RNA Ribonucleic acid
MEN Multiple endocrine neoplasia RTA Renal tubular acidosis
MI Myocardial infarction or mitral RVH Right ventricular hypertrophy
insufficiency Rx Treatment
mL Milliliter R, or T/t Treatment
MMR Measles, mumps, rubella RT Radiotherapy
MRI Magnetic resonance imaging SBE Subacute bacterial endocarditis
MRSA Methicillin resistant staph aureus SGOT Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase
MG Myasthenia gravis SGPT Serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase
Mc or MC Most common SIADH Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
MN Malnutrition hormone
M/m Management SLE Systemic lupus erythematous
Ms, m/s Muscle SCLC Small cell lung carcinoma
Na Sodium SM Smooth muscle
NIDDM Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus Supf. Superficial
NSAID Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs SqCC Squamous cell carcinoma
n.or nv Nerve TIBC Total iron binding capacity
NHL Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma tid Three times a day
OCG Oral cholecystogram TSH Thyroid stimulating hormone
PA Posteroanterior TT Thrombin time
PDA Patent ductus arteriosus TTP Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
PMN Polymorphonuclear leukocyte TURP Transurethral resection of prostate
(neutrophil) TOC Treatment of choice
PP Patient profile UC Ulcerative colitis
xiv USMLE Step 2 CK Platinum Notes
UMN Upper motor neuron V/s Vessel

URI Upper respiratory infection Vs Versus (= against)
US, U/S Ultrasound WBC White blood cell
UTI Urinary tract infection WPW Wolff-Parkinson-White
UVA Ultraviolet A light WG Wegner’s granulomatosis
U/L Unilateral WT Wilm’s tumor
VF Ventricular fibrillation XLR X linked recessive
VDRL Venereal disease research laboratory Yr Year
(test for syphilis) Zn Zinc
V/Q Ventrilation-perfusion ZES Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
VT Ventricular tachycardia — Reaction block by, inhibited by
vWD von Willebrand’s virus ~ Denotes heading
VZV Varicella zoster virus ! Increase
Contents
1. Medicine 1
2. Pediatrics 217
3. Psychiatry 327
4. Dermatology 369
5. Surgery 421
6. Orthopedics 609
7. Ophthalmology 625
8. Obstetrics and Gynecology 675

MEDICINE
Medicine 1
MINERAL-ASSOCIATED DISEASES
Zinc
•• Zinc is an integral component of many metalloenzymes in the body
•• It is involved in the synthesis and stabilization of proteins, DNA, and RNA and plays a structural role in ribosomes and
membranes
•• Zinc is necessary for the binding of steroid hormone receptors and several other transcription factors to DNA and thereby plays an
important role in the regulation of gene transcription
•• Zinc is absolutely required for normal spermatogenesis, fetal growth, and embryonic development
•• Deficiency: Mild zinc deficiency has been described in many diseases including:
–– Diabetes mellitus
–– AIDS
–– Cirrhosis
–– Alcoholism
–– Inflammatory bowel disease
–– Malabsorption syndromes and
–– Sickle-cell anemia
Mild chronic zinc deficiency can cause stunted growth in children, decreased taste sensation (hypogusia), impaired immune
function, and night blindness due to impaired conversion of retinol to retinaldehyde
Severe chronic zinc deficiency has been described as a cause of hypogonadism and dwarfism in several Middle-Eastern countries.
In these children, hypopigmented hair is also part of the syndrome ‘Acrodermatitis enteropathica’
It is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by abnormalities in zinc absorption. Clinical manifestations include diarrhea,
alopecia, muscle wasting, depression, irritability, and a rash involving the extremities, face, and perineum. The rash is
characterized by vesicular and pustular crusting with scaling and erythema. In addition, hypopigmentation and corneal edema
have been described in these patients
•• The diagnosis of zinc deficiency is usually made by ↓serum zinc level
•• Pregnancy and birth-control pills may cause a slight depression in serum zinc levels, and hypoalbuminemia from any cause can
result in hypozincemia
Copper
Copper is an integral part of numerous enzyme systems including:
•• Amine oxidases
•• Ferroxidase (ceruloplasmin)
•• Cytochrome-c oxidase
•• Superoxide dismutase and
•• Dopamine hydroxylase
•• Dietary copper deficiency is relatively rare, although it has been described in premature infants fed milk diets and in infants with
malabsorption
4 USMLE Step 2 CK Platinum Notes
•• Signs and symptoms of copper deficiency include:

•• A hypochromic-normocytic anemia
•• Osteopenia
•• Depigmentation
•• Mental retardation
•• Psychomotor abnormalities
•• The diagnosis of copper deficiency is usually made on the basis of low serum levels of copper.
Selenium
•• Selenium, in the form of selenocysteine, is a component of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase, which serves to protect proteins,
cell membranes, lipids, and nucleic acids from oxidant molecules. Selenocysteine is also found in the deiodinase enzymes, which
mediate the deiodination of thyroxine to the more active triiodothyronine
•• Keshan disease is an endemic cardiomyopathy found in children and young women residing in regions of China where dietary
intake of selenium is low. Low blood levels of selenium in various populations have been correlated with an increase in coronary
artery disease and certain cancers, although the data are not consistent.
Chromium
•• Chromium potentiates the action of insulin in patients with impaired glucose tolerance, presumably by increasing insulin
receptor-mediated signaling
•• Chromium deficiency has been reported to cause glucose intolerance, peripheral neuropathy and confusion.
Magnesium
Magnesium deficiency is a common clinical problem:
•• Reduced renal reabsorption due to loop diuretics and alcohol use is a common cause of hypomagnesemia
•• Vomiting and nasogastric suctioning, fluid loss from diarrhea
•• Hypomagnesemia is prevalent in alcoholics
The clinical manifestations of hypomagnesemia are similar to those of severe hypocalcemia
The signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia include:
•• Muscle weakness
•• Prolonged PR and QT intervals
•• Cardiac arrhythmias
•• Positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs
•• Carpopedal spasm can also occur with hypomagnesemia
•• Remember: Magnesium is important for effective PTH secretion as well as the renal and skeletal responsiveness to PTH; thus,
hypomagnesemia is often associated with hypocalcemia due to impaired PTH secretion and function.
Ultratrace Elements
Are those for which the need is <1 mg/d
•• Molybdenum is necessary for the activity of sulfite and xanthine oxidase, and molybdenum deficiency may result in skeletal
and brain lesions
•• Arsenic (impaired growth, infertility)
•• Boron (impaired energy metabolism, impaired brain function)
•• Nickel (impaired growth and reproduction), silicon (impaired growth) and
•• Vanadium (impaired skeletal formation) might also be essential.
Medicine 5
Cadmium
•• Environmental exposure to cadmium can result from the ingestion of basic foodstuffs, especially grains, cereals, and leafy
vegetables, which readily absorb cadmium occurring naturally or in soil contaminated by sewage sludge, fertilizers, and
polluted groundwater
•• Cigarette smoke contains cadmium
•• Occupational exposure takes place in the metal-plating, pigment, battery, and plastics industries
•• Most absorbed cadmium is concentrated in the liver and kidneys. In erythrocytes and soft tissues, cadmium is bound to
metallothionein. The toxicity of cadmium may involve its binding to key cellular sulfhydryl groups, its competition with other
metals (zinc and selenium) for inclusion in metalloenzymes, and its competition with calcium for binding sites on regulatory
proteins such as calmodulin
Acute high-dose cadmium inhalation can cause severe respiratory irritation with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, cyanosis, fever,
tachycardia, nausea, and life-threatening noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
Acute exposure through ingestion can cause severe nausea, vomiting, salivation, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea
Chronic effects of cadmium exposure are dose-dependent and include anosmia, yellowing of the teeth, emphysema, minor
changes in liver function, microcytic hypochromic anemia unresponsive to iron therapy, renal tubular dysfunction character-
ized by proteinuria and increased urinary excretion of b2-microglobulin and (with prolonged poisoning) osteomalacia leading
to bone lesions and pseudofractures. In follow-up studies of occupationally exposed workers, b2-microglobulinuria was found
to be irreversible
Chelation therapy is not useful, and dimercaprol is contraindicated as this agent may exacerbate nephrotoxicity. Avoidance of further
exposure and supportive therapy (including vitamin D if osteomalacia exists) are the mainstays of management.
Deficiency of Minerals
•• Iron deficiency •• Microcytic anemia
•• Iodine •• Goiter
•• Zinc •• Acrodermatitis enteropathica
•• Copper •• Menkes disease
•• Selenium •• Cardiomyopathy
•• Chromium •• Impaired glucose tolerance
Arsenic-related Diseases
Chronic arsenic (As) exposure has been linked to many cancers. Most common cancers associated are:
•• Basal cell carcinoma
•• Squamous cell carcinoma
•• Angiosarcoma of liver
•• Lung Ca
•• Kidney Ca
•• Colon Ca
•• Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis is a medical condition associated with As exposure
ACID-BASE/ELECTROLYTE DISORDERS
Medically Important Electrolyte Imbalances
Potassium Deficit and Hypokalemia Potassium Excess and Hyperkalemia
1. K depletion usually is due to excessive losses of K in the Hyperkalemia (serum K > 5.5 mEq/L)
urine or stool Must be distinguished from pseudohyperkalemia due to
2. Bartter’s syndrome is characterized by sodium wasting, hemolysis of the blood sample, or the release of K from
excessive production of renin and aldosterone, and erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets during the clotting
normotension
Contd...
Contd...
Potassium Deficit and Hypokalemia Potassium Excess and Hyperkalemia
3. Cushing’s syndrome due to adrenal cancer or the ectopic process in patients with marked leukocytosis (> 50,000/µL) or
ACTH syndrome and hyperaldosteronism thrombocytosis (> 500,000/µL)
4. In association with diuretics (e.g. thiazides, bumetanide, Hyperkalemia may occur when:
furosemide, ethacrynic acid, but not spironolactone or 1. Acidosis (due to accumulation of inorganic acids)
triamterene) 2. Hyperglycemia (in the presence of insulin deficiency)
5. Hypomagnesemia in osmotic diuresis (e.g. diabetic 3. Moderately heavy exercise (particularly in the presence of
ketoacidosis); in renal tubular disease, such as type I or ß-blockade)
type II renal tubular acidosis, Fanconi’s syndrome
4. Digitalis intoxication, Beta blockers
6. Excessive licorice ingestion and Liddle’s syndrome
5. Acute tumor lysis
7. Amphotericin B and with antipseudomonal penicillins
6. Acute intravascular hemolysis or
(e.g. carbenicillin) or high-dose penicillin treatment
7. Hyperkalemic familial periodic paralysis produces a shift of
8. Gastrointestinal losses usually are due to diarrhea,
K out of cells into the ECF; or as a consequence of K excess
chronic laxative abuse or clay ingestion, vomiting
or gastric suction (renal K wasting with developing 8. Since the kidneys normally excrete K loads rapidly, sus-
metabolic alkalosis is of primary importance) and bowel tained hyperkalemia usually implies diminished renal
diversion K excretion
9. Villous adenoma of the colon is a rare cause of K loss 9. K excess is particularly common in acute oliguric states
from the GI tract (especially acute renal failure) associated with severe crush
injuries, burns, bleeding into soft tissue or the GI tract, or
10. Beta 2-Adrenergic agonists such as albuterol or
adrenal insufficiency
terbutaline may produce hypokalemia due to cellular K
uptake TREATMENT:
11. Cystic fibrosis Acute emergency: Calcium gluconate, sodium bicarbonate, insulin,
albuterol
12. Theophylline intoxication
Nonemergency: Furosemide, resins, hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis
13. Cortisol
Hypokalemia
•• Severe hypokalemia (serum K < 3 mEq/L) may produce:
•• Muscular weakness and lead to paralysis and respiratory failure. Muscular malfunction may result in respiratory
hypoventilation, paralytic ileus
•• The characteristic ECG changes are
–– ST segment depression
–– Increased U wave amplitude and
–– T wave amplitude <U wave amplitude
–– Severe hypokalemia may produce premature ventricular and atrial contractions and ventricular and atrial
tachyarrhythmias.
Hyperkalemia
The ECG Changes are:
•• Shortening of the QT interval and
•• Tall, peaked T waves (serum K > 5.5 mEq/L)
•• Progressive hyperkalemia produces nodal and ventricular arrhythmias, widening of the QRS complex (serum K > 6.5 mEq/L)
•• PR interval prolongation and disappearance of the P wave and finally
•• Degeneration of the QRS complex to a sine wave pattern and ventricular asystole or fibrillation.
Medicine 7
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old Hypertensive, Diabetic man from Chicago with end-stage renal disease presents with syncope. An
electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia with a sine-wave pattern. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
step in management?
1. Oral calcium
2. Intravenous calcium
3. Intravenous lactate
4. Intravenous furosemide
5. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
Ans. 2. Intravenous Calcium
It will work very rapidly to counteract the effect of the high potassium on the heart and muscle and should be given first.
Hypomagnesemia
•• Serum magnesium concentration < 1.6 mEq/L (< 1.9 mg/dL)
•• Magnesium depletion usually results from:
–– Inadequate intake/alcoholism
–– Impairment of renal or gut absorption
–– Prolonged parenteral feeding, usually in combination with loss of body fluids via gastric suction or diarrhea
–– Lactation (increased requirement for Mg)
–– Conditions of abnormal renal conservation of Mg, such as hypersecretion of aldosterone, ADH, or thyroid hormone,
hypercalcemia, diabetic acidosis, and cisplatin or diuretic therapy
–– It is often associated and presents with hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia
•• Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, weakness, personality change, Tetany (e.g. positive Trousseau’s or Chvostek’s sign, or
spontaneous carpopedal spasm), tremor, and muscle fasciculations may be present. The neurologic signs, particularly
tetany, correlate with the development of hypocalcemia and hypokalemia
•• Myopathic potentials are found on electromyography.
Hypermagnesemia
Serum magnesium > 2.1 mEq/L (> 2.5 mg/dL)
•• Symptomatic hypermagnesemia is common in Renal failure when patients are taking magnesium-containing antacids, laxatives,
enemas, or infusions
•• Acute rhabdomyolysis. Volume depletion
•• Lithium
•• Ketoacidosis without treatment
•• Renal failure
Hypermagnesemia leads to generalized impairment of neuromuscular transmission, probably as the result of inhibition of
acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction. ECG shows:
•• Prolongation of the PR interval,
•• Widening of the QRS complex, and increased T wave amplitude
Deep tendon reflexes disappear; hypotension, respiratory depression and narcosis develop with progression of the
hypermagnesemia, cardiac arrest occurs
Treatment of Severe Mg Intoxication:
•• Consists of circulatory and respiratory support, with IV administration of 10 to 20 mL of 10% calcium gluconate. The latter may
reverse many of the Mg-induced changes, including the respiratory depression
•• Administration of IV furosemide or ethacrynic acid increases Mg excretion, if continuous and adequate hydration is maintained
and renal function is adequate
•• Hemodialysis may be of value in severe hypermagnesemia
•• When hemodialysis is impractical, peritoneal dialysis may be effective.
Hypocalcemia
•• Hypoparathyroidism: Characterized chemically by low serum calcium and high serum phosphorus levels usually follows
accidental removal of or damage to several parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.
–– Idiopathic hypoparathyroidism, in which the parathyroids are absent or atrophied, is uncommon. It may occur
sporadically as an isolated or inherited condition, or in association with the DiGeorge syndrome
–– It also occurs as part of a Genetic syndrome of hypoparathyroidism, Addison’s disease and mucocutaneous candidiasis.
–– Pseudohypoparathyroidism (PHP) differs from the postoperative and idiopathic forms and is characterized not by deficiency
of PTH but by target organ (bone and kidney) unresponsiveness to its action.
•• Vitamin D deficiency, due to inadequate dietary intake, decreased exposure to sunlight, hepatobiliary disease, or intestinal
malabsorption and associated with rickets or osteomalacia. Functional vitamin D deficiency may occur during prolonged
anticonvulsant therapy with barbiturates and phenytoin, presumably the result of increased catabolism of 25-(OH) D3.
•• Vitamin D-dependent rickets (VDDR), in which the formation of 1,25-DHCC is defective (Type I), or there is marked resistance
of target organs to the effects of 1,25-DHCC and other vitamin D metabolites (Ttype II) and familial hypophosphatemic
(Vitamin D-resistant) rickets.
•• Renal tubular disease, including Fanconi’s syndrome due to nephrotoxins (e.g. heavy metals) and distal renal tubular acidosis.
•• Renal failure, where diminished formation of 1, 25-DHCC coupled with hyperphosphatemia produces hypocalcemia.
•• Magnesium depletion occurring with intestinal malabsorption or dietary deficiency, which causes hypocalcemia by relatively
deficient secretion of PTH, as well as end-organ resistance to its action.
•• Acute pancreatitis, which lowers serum Ca levels when Ca is chelated by lipolytic products.
•• Hypoproteinemia of any cause with reduction in protein-bound Ca (e.g. nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis, protein-losing
enteropathy). Hypocalcemia due to diminished protein-binding is asymptomatic, since the ionized Ca fraction is unaltered and
the effects of Ca upon membrane excitability are produced by the ionized fraction.
•• During periods of increased Ca utilization coupled with inadequate intake (e.g. after surgical correction of hyperparathyroidism
with healing bone lesions), hypocalcemia can also develop. It may develop in oxalic acid poisoning and during sodium edetate
therapy.
•• Septic shock may be associated with hypocalcemia due to suppression of PTH release and 1, 25-DHCC formation.
Symptoms and Signs: The clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia are primarily

neurologic
Slowly developing, insidious hypocalcemia may produce mild, diffuse encephalopathy and thus should be suspected in any patient
with unexplained dementia, depression, or psychosis.
Severe hypocalcemia (Serum Ca < 7 mg/dL) may cause laryngospasm and generalized convulsions.
The most characteristic syndrome is tetany, resulting from severe hypocalcemia or a reduction in the serum ionized Ca fraction without
marked hypocalcemia (e.g. in respiratory or metabolic alkalosis). Tetany is characterized by:
1. Sensory symptoms consisting of paresthesias of the lips, tongue, fingers and feet
2. Carpopedal spasm, which may be prolonged or painful
3. Generalized muscle aching
4. Spasm of facial musculature
•• Chvostek’s sign is contraction of the facial muscles, elicited by a light tapping of the facial nerve. It is occasionally present in
normal individuals and is often absent in chronic hypocalcemia.
•• Trousseau’s sign is carpopedal spasm caused by reduction of the blood supply to the hand when a tourniquet or blood pressure
cuff above systolic pressure is applied to the forearm for 3 min
•• Erbs’s sign: Muscle contraction can be produced by subthreshold electric stimulus
•• Peroneal sign: Tapping of peroneal nerve will produce pedal spasm.
The ECG typically shows ‘prolongation’ of the QT interval.
Medicine 9
Causes of Hypercalcemia
Total serum calcium>10.5 mg/dL.
•• Primary hyperparathyroidism usually characterized by hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and excessive bone resorption.
•• Sarcoidosis is associated with hypercalcemia in up to. Hypercalcemia and/or hypercalciuria have also been described in other
granulomatous diseases (e.g. tuberculosis, leprosy, berylliosis, histoplasmosis, and coccidioidomycosis). Similarly, elevated
serum levels of 1, 25-DHCC have been reported in hypercalcemic patients with tuberculosis, silicosis, and Hodgkin’s and non-
Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
•• Milk-alkali syndrome, excessive amounts of Ca and absorbable alkali are ingested, usually during peptic ulcer therapy, resulting
in increased Ca absorption and hypercalcemia.
•• Idiopathic hypercalcemia of infancy is recognized by the combination of suppressed levels of PTH, hypercalciuria, and in
some severely affected patients, the somatic abnormalities of ‘Williams’ syndrome’ (e.g. supravalvular aortic stenosis, mental
retardation, and an elfin facies).
•• Myeloma should be suggested by the syndrome of anemia, azotemia, and hypercalcemia. This diagnosis is confirmed by bone
marrow examination or finding a monoclonal gammopathy or free light chains in the serum or urine on immunoelectrophoresis
•• Lithium causes hypercalcemia.
Endocrine causes of hypercalcemia (e.g. Thyrotoxicosis, Addison’s disease)

•• Polyuria
•• Depression
•• Abdominal pain, are features
Effective in treatment:
•• Furosemide
•• Prednisolone
•• Pamidronate are used for treatment
•• Calcitonin
•• Gallium nitrate
•• Plicamycin
Hypercalciuria is treated by: Thiazides
Hypercalcemia is not caused by tumor lysis but HYPOCALCEMIA
A 40-year-old male from California who presented with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea, vomiting, and altered sensorium was found
to have Bronchogenic carcinoma. The electrolyte abnormality seen in him would be Hypercalcemia
Simplest Explanation of Metabolic Disorders

CO2 pH HCO3
Respiratory Acidosis ↑ ↓ ↑
Respiratory Alkalosis ↓ ↑ ↓
Metabolic Acidosis No change ↓ ↓
Metabolic Alkalosis No change ↑ ↑
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old woman with glaucoma is treated by an ophthalmologist with acetazolamide. Three weeks later, the woman has
an arterial pH of 7.34, an arterial PCO2 of 29 mm Hg, and plasma HCO3 of 15 mEq/L. Which of the following abnormalities has
this woman most likely developed?
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis
Ans. 1. Metabolic Acidosis
The laboratory results indicate that the arterial pH, arterial PCO2, and plasma HCO3– concentrations are all low. These changes
clearly demonstrate metabolic acidosis, which occurs commonly when a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is administered.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 73-year-old male diabetic has a cardiopulmonary arrest, and is transported to the Texas Coronary Care unit by paramedics.
The data shown below are derived from an arterial blood sample obtained upon admission. Plasma pH: 7.09, Plasma
Bicarbonate: 15 mEq/L, Arterial Carbon Dioxide: 50 mm Hg. What type of acid-base abnormality is present in this man?
1. Respiratory acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
5. Mixed acidosis
6. Mixed alkalosis
Ans. 5. A mixed acidosis
It commonly occurs with cardiopulmonary arrest. Cardiac arrest victim experiences some degree of lactic acidosis (metabolic
acidosis) as a result of poorly perfused tissues. A simultaneous respiratory acidosis due to ventilatory standstill also occurs.
This combination of metabolic acidosis and respiratory acidosis is referred to as a ‘mixed acidosis.’
Remember:
•• Respiratory Acidosis: Any cause of hypoventilation causes Respiratory Acidosis (COAD, CNS Depression, Neuromuscular disease)
•• Respiratory Alkalosis: Hyperventilation, Hypoxia, Hyperthyroidism, High Altitude (H4)
•• Metabolic Alkalosis: Conditions causing Hypokalemia usually
•• Metabolic Acidosis: Lactic acidosis, Ketoacidosis, Liver failure, Cardiac failure, Ethylene glycol, Renal tubular acidosis, Diarrhea.
Anion Gap (AG)

•• It represents those unmeasured anions in plasma
•• (Normally = 10 to 12 mmol/L) and
•• Calculated as follows: AG = Na+ – (Cl– + HCO3–)
•• The unmeasured anions include anionic proteins, phosphate, sulfate, and organic anions
•• When acid anions, such as acetoacetate and lactate, accumulate in extracellular fluid, the AG increases, causing a high-AG acidosis
Increased anion gap is seen in:
•• Lactic acidosis
•• Diabetic ketoacidosis
•• Starvation
•• Salicylate poisoning
Hypoalbumenemia
Lithium toxicity
lgG myeloma
Hypercalcemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hyperkalemia
Conditions with decreased anion gap

Medicine 11
Lactic Acidosis
An increase in plasma L-lactate may be secondary to:
Poor tissue perfusion (Type A):
•• Circulatory insufficiency
•• Shock, circulatory failure
•• Severe anemia, mitochondrial enzyme defects
•• Inhibitors (carbon monoxide, cyanide)
Aerobic disorders (Type B): Malignancies, diabetes mellitus, renal or hepatic failure, severe infections (cholera, malaria), seizures,
AIDS, or drugs/toxins:
•• Biguanides
•• Ethanol
•• Methanol
•• Isoniazid
•• AZT analogues
•• Fructose
HYPOTHERMIA
Degrees of Hypothermia
•• Mild Hypothermia 95–90 °F
•• Moderate Hypothermia 90–82.4 °F
•• Severe Hypothermia less than 82.4 °F
Accidental hypothermia occurs when there is an unintentional drop in the body’s core temperature below 35 °C (95 °F)
Causes
•• Primary accidental hypothermia is geographically and seasonally pervasive. Although most cases occur in the winter months
and in colder climates, it is surprisingly common in warmer regions as well.
•• Multiple variables make individuals at the extremes of age, the elderly and neonates, particularly vulnerable to hypothermia.
Dementia, psychiatric illness, and socioeconomic factors often compound these problems by impeding adequate measures to
prevent hypothermia.
•• Individuals whose occupations or hobbies entail extensive exposure to cold weather are clearly at increased risk for hypothermia.
Military history is replete with hypothermic tragedies. Hunters, sailors, skiers, and climbers are also at great risk of exposure,
whether it involves injury, changes in weather, or lack of preparedness.
•• Ethanol, Amphetamine, chlorpromazine
•• Wernicke’s encephalopathy, phenothiazines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cyclic antidepressants, and many other
medications reduce centrally mediated vasoconstriction.
•• Several types of endocrine dysfunction can lead to hypothermia. Hypothyroidism, Adrenal insufficiency and hypopituitarism
can also increase susceptibility to hypothermia. Hypoglycemia, most commonly caused by insulin or oral hypoglycemic drugs, is
associated with hypothermia, in part the result of neuroglycopenic effects on hypothalamic function.
•• Neurologic injury from trauma, cerebrovascular accident, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or hypothalamic lesions increases
susceptibility to hypothermia. Agenesis of the corpus callosum, or Shapiro syndrome is one cause of ‘episodic hypothermia’,
characterized by profuse perspiration followed by a rapid fall in temperature. Acute spinal cord injury disrupts the autonomic
pathways that lead to shivering and prevents cold-induced reflex vasoconstrictive responses.
•• Hypothermia is confirmed by measuring the core temperature, preferably at two sites. Rectal probes should be placed to a
depth of 15 cm and not adjacent to cold feces.
Brain activities are slowed at temperatures below 35 °C.

Hypothermia provides protection against ischemia and hypoxia by reducing BMR.
Hypothermia is used in:

•• Neurosurgery
•• Cardiac surgery
•• Malignant hypoerthermia
•• Prolonged surgeries
Osborn waves (also known as camel-hump sign, late delta wave or current of injury) are usually observed on the electrocardiogram
of people suffering from hypothermia, though they may also occur in people with high blood levels of calcium (hypercalcemia), brain
injury, vasospastic angina, or ventricular fibrillation. Osborn waves are positive deflections occurring at the junction between
the QRS complex and the ST segment, where the S point, also known as the J joint, has a myocardial infarction-like elevation
QT INTERVAL PROLONGED
‘Hyper Thermic’ Syndromes

•• Hyperthermia: It is present when core body temperature > 37.2 °C. Heat injury syndromes may result in body temperatures in
> 40 °C (104 °F) When temperatures are > 41 °C, enzymes are denatured, mitochondrial function is disturbed, cell membranes are
destabilized, and oxygen-dependent metabolic pathways are disrupted
•• Heat Cramps: Painful spasm of major muscle groups is the hallmark of heat cramps. Typically seen in young, unacclimatized
athletes or laborers who exert themselves excessively in a hot climate, heat cramps are related to excessive losses of sodium,
chloride, and water. Patients complain of nausea, vomiting, and fatigue in addition to muscle cramps, with onset of symptoms
typically occurring several hours after they stop exercising
•• Heat Exhaustion: The most common heat injury syndrome seen in athletes, may be preceded by heat cramps and is due to severe
dehydration and electrolyte loss. In the young, heat exhaustion usually occurs following strenuous activity by unacclimatized
individuals in a hot, humid environment. In the elderly, the problem is usually related to inadequate cardiovascular response to
heat with disruption of normal compensatory mechanisms. Patients frequently complain of cramps, headache, fatigue, nausea, and
vomiting. They appear listless, with pallor of the skin and profuse sweating. Other clinical findings include orthostatic hypotension,
core temperatures of 37.5 to 39 °C (99.5 to 102.2 °F), altered mental status, incoordination, and diffuse weakness
•• Heatstroke: Classified as exertional or nonexertional, is a syndrome due to acute disruption of thermoregulatory mechanisms
manifested by central nervous system depression, hypohidrosis, core temperatures {greater than or equal to} 41 °C, and severe
physiologic and biochemical abnormalities. Exertional heatstroke occurs in people working or exercising in a warm environment
with an overwhelmed but unimpaired central thermoregulatory center. Nonexertional heatstroke occurs most frequently in
elderly, debilitated, schizophrenic, intoxicated, or paralyzed individuals. These people have impaired central and/or peripheral
thermoregulatory mechanisms (physiologic or drug-induced autonomic impairment), impaired awareness of or inability to
leave a hot environment, poor acclimatization, and inadequate ability to increase cardiac output in response to heat.
Consequences of Heat-induced Cell Damage are:

•• Rhabdomyolysis
•• Cardiac failure and arrhythmias
•• Vasodilation
•• Cytotoxic cerebral edema
•• Hypotension
•• Acute renal failure
Medicine 13
•• Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

•• Gastrointestinal hemorrhage and
•• Acute hepatic failure
Laboratory Abnormalities include:
•• Hyperkalemia
•• Hypocalcemia
•• Hyperphosphatemia or hypophosphatemia
•• Rising creatinine
•• Hemoconcentration
•• Stress leukocytosis
•• Thrombocytopenia
•• Consumptive coagulopathy
•• Lactic acidosis
•• Hypoglycemia
•• Proteinuria
•• Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a complex of extrapyramidal muscular rigidity, high-core temperature, altered level
of consciousness, and elevated creatine kinase levels occurring as an acute or subacute reaction to therapy with neuroleptic
medications
•• Malignant hyperthermia is a hypermetabolic, myopathic syndrome, chemically or stress-induced, and is manifested by an abrupt
rise in core temperature, vigorous muscle contractions, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, and ventricular arrhythmias, usually
when inducing anesthesia.
RESPIRATORY MEDICINE
Importance of Different Presentations
•• Wheeze (Rhonci): Monophonic Obstruction in Airway
•• Wheeze: Polyphonic Asthma
•• Crepitations (Crackles): Fine and high-pitched: Pulmonary edema
•• Persistent coarse crepitations: Bronchiectasis
•• Pleural rub: Pleuritis, pulmonary infarction
•• Silent chest: Severe bronchospasm
•• Paradoxical breathing: Diaphragmatic palsy

•• Tubular breathing: Consolidation, cavity
•• Cavernous breathing: Cavity
•• Amphoric breathing: Pneumothorax
Sputum
•• Copious, pink, frothy: Pulmonary edema
•• Copious, pungent, purulent: Bronchiectasis, lung abscess
•• Black: Coal dust
Differentiate between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Disease

Obstructive lung disease Restrictive lung disease
•• TLC↑ •• TLC↓
•• RV↑ •• RV↓
Obstructive lung disease Restrictive lung disease

•• TV↓ •• TV↓
•• VC↓ •• VC↓
•• FEV1↓ •• FEV1↓
•• FVC↓ •• FVC↓
•• FEV1/FVC↓ •• FEV1/FVC↑
•• PaCO2↑ •• PaCO2 (N )or ↓
Carbon Monoxide Diffusion Capacity DLCO

Increased In Decreased In
•• Alveolar hemorrhage •• Interstitial lung disease
•• Congestive heart failure •• Emphysema
•• Pulmonary embolism
•• Pulmonary hemorrhage
Respiratory Failure
Type I respiratory failure: PaO2: ↓, PaCO2: n or ↓, PA–aO2↑Hypoxemia with decreased PaCO2
Caused by:
•• Parenchymal diseases
•• Pneumoniae
•• ARDS
•• Emphysema
•• R-L shunts
Type II respiratory failure: Pa O2: ↓, PaCO2: ↑, PA–a O2 n. Hypoxemia with increased PaCO2
Caused by:
•• COAD
•• Interstitial lung diseases
•• Musculoskeletal problems: Polymyositis, kyphoscoliosis
Asthma
•• Category of COAD/COPD
•• Hyperesponsiveness of airways with bronchoconstriction
•• Incidence is increasing day by day
•• Hypoxia is a common feature
•• Leukotrienes ↑
•• Hyperesponsiveness of airways
•• Mast cell stabilizer used: Ketotifen
•• Hypersensitive lung
•• Constriction of small airways
–– Creola bodies seen
–– Charcot-Leyden crystals seen
–– Curschmann’s spirals seen
•• FEV1 is the parameter to improve maximum on bronchodilator therapy
•• Mast cell stabilizers are used in treatment (chronic)
•• Omalizumab is used now for treatment
Medicine 15
Speech difficulty
Diaphoresis
Altered sensation Bad signs of asthma
Cyanosis
Silent chest
Severe asthma
Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis

•• Emphysema is defined anatomically as a permanent and destructive enlargement of airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles
without obvious fibrosis and with loss of normal architecture
•• Smoking is the commonest precipitant
•• α1 antitrypsin (α1AT) deficency is associated with panacinar emphysema
•• Breathlessness is a characteristic feature
•• Panacinar emphysema involves both the central and peripheral portions of the acinus, which results, if the process is extensive, in
a reduction of the alveolar-capillary gas exchange surface and loss of elastic recoil properties
•• Chronic bronchitis is defined clinically as the presence of a cough productive of sputum not attributable to other causes on
most days for at least 3 months over 2 consecutive years
•• Diurnal variation in the peak expiratory flow rate is seen
–– Pink puffers = emphysema
–– Blue bloaters = chronic bronchitis
Reid’s index is used for chronic bronchitis
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis describes a permanent dilatation of the airways secondary to chronic infection or inflammation.
Bronchiectasis
•• Cylindrical bronchiectasis—the bronchi appear as uniformly dilated tubes that end abruptly at the point that smaller airways are
obstructed by secretions
•• Varicose bronchiectasis—the affected bronchi have an irregular or beaded pattern of dilatation resembling varicose veins
•• Saccular (cystic) bronchiectasis—the bronchi have a ballooned appearance at the periphery, ending in blind sacs without
recognizable bronchial structures distal to the sacs
–– Nodular bronchiectasis is seen in infection with mycobacterium avium
–– Feature of Kartagener’s syndrome
–– Tram-track lines on CXR
–– Commonest in left lower lobe
–– Clubbing is a feature
–– Does not predispose to lung cancer
–– HRCT is the diagnostic technique of choice
Causes
•• Postinfective: Tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, pneumonia
•• Cystic fibrosis
•• Bronchial obstruction, e.g. lung cancer/foreign body
•• Immune deficiency: Selective IgA, hypogammaglobulinemia
•• Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
•• Ciliary dyskinetic syndromes: Kartagener’s syndrome, Young’s syndrome
•• Yellow nail syndrome
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia

The primary disorders associated with ciliary dysfunction, termed Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia, are responsible for 5 to 10% of cases
of bronchiectasis. The clinical effects include recurrent upper and lower respiratory tract infections, such as sinusitis, otitis media, and
bronchiectasis
Approximately half of the patients with primary ciliary dyskinesia fall into the subgroup of Kartagener’s syndrome:
•• Situs inversus
•• Bronchiectasis and sinusitis
•• Infertility
Cystic Fibrosis (CF)

•• Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a monogenetic disorder that presents as a multisystem disease
•• This disease is characterized by chronic airways infection that ultimately leads to bronchiectasis, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
and intestinal dysfunction, abnormal sweat gland function, and urogenital dysfunction
•• CF is an autosomal recessive disease
•• Resulting from mutations in a gene located on chromosome 7
•• The most common mutation in the CF gene results in an absence of phenylalanine at amino acid position 508 (DF508) of the
CF gene protein product, known as the CF transmembrane regulator (CFTR)
•• The diagnostic biophysical hallmark of CF is the raised transepithelial electric potential difference (PD) detected in airway
epithelia
•• The transepithelial PD reflects components of both the rate of active ion transport and the resistance to ion flow of the superficial
epithelium
•• The unique predisposition of CF airways to chronic infection by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa raises the
issue that other as yet undefined abnormalities in airway surface liquids may also contribute to the failure of lung defense
•• Cavitation is usually seen with staph infections.
Interstitial Lung Diseases

The interstitial lung diseases (ILDs) represent a large number of conditions that involve the parenchyma of the lung, the alveoli, the
alveolar epithelium, the capillary endothelium as well as the perivascular and lymphatic tissues
•• Sarcoidosis
•• Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) and
•• Pulmonary fibrosis associated with CTDs are the most common ILDs of unknown etiology
–– Among the ILDs of known cause, the largest group comprises occupational and environmental exposures, especially the
inhalation of inorganic dusts, organic dusts, and various fumes or gases
–– Patients with ILDs come to medical attention mainly because of the onset of progressive exertional dyspnea or a persistent,
nonproductive cough. Hemoptysis, wheezing, and chest pain may be present. Often, the identification of interstitial opacities
on chest X-ray focuses on the diagnostic approach toward one of the ILDs.
Medicine 17
–– Dyspnea is a common and prominent complaint in patients with ILD, especially the idiopathic interstitial pneumonias,
hypersensitivity pneumonitis, COP, sarcoidosis, eosinophilic pneumonias, and PLCH
–– HRCT is superior to the plain chest X-ray for early detection and confirmation of suspected ILD
–– Drug Therapy: Glucocorticoids are the mainstay of therapy for suppression of the alveolitis present in ILD
–– Many cases of ILD are chronic and irreversible despite the therapy discussed above and
–– Lung transplantation may be considered.
Restrictive Lung Disease

•• TLC ↓
•• RV ↓
•• TV ↓
•• VC ↓
•• FEV1 ↓
•• FVC ↓
•• FEV1/FVC ↑
•• PaCO2 (N) or ↓
Pleural Effusion
Transudate Exudate
•• Protein < 3 gm/100 ml •• Protein > 3 gm/100 ml
•• LDH < 200 IU •• LDH > 200 IU
•• LDH Ratio < 0.6 •• LDH Ratio > 0.6
•• Pleural fluid/serum protein < 0.5 •• Pleural fluid/serum protein > 0.5
–– CHF –– Pneumoniae
–– Cirrhosis –– Pulmonary infarction
–– Nephrotic syndrome –– Tuberculosis
–– Meig’s syndrome –– Rheumatoid arthritis
–– Pulmonary embolism –– Myxedema
–– Lupus erythematosus
–– Pulmonary embolism
–– Bronchogenic cancer
QUESTIONS ASKED
Pleural Fluid Characteristics
•• Bloodstained: Pulmonary infarction, metastatic carcinoma, tuberculosis
•• Low Glucose: Rheumatoid arthritis, empyema
•• PH < 7.2: Empyema
•• PH < 6.0: Esophageal rupture
•• ↑Amylase: Esophageal perforation, pancreatitis
•• Chylous effusion: Lymphomas, chest trauma
•• Cholesterol: Hypothyroidism, TB, rheumatoid arthritis
•• Left sided effusion: Pancreatitis, esophageal rupture
•• Tuberculous pleuritis: The pleural fluid is an exudate with predominantly small lymphocytes. The diagnosis is established by
demonstrating high levels of TB markers in the pleural fluid (adenosine deaminase > 45 IU/L, gamma interferon > 140 pg/mL,
or positive PCR for tuberculous DNA).
•• Effusion secondary to malignancy treat by: (1) tube thoracostomy with the instillation of a sclerosing agent such as talc;
(2) outpatient insertion of a small indwelling catheter; or (3) thoracoscopy with pleural abrasion or the insufflation of talc
•• Parapneumonic effusion parapneumonic effusions are associated with bacterial pneumonia, lung abscess, or bronchiectasis and
are probably the most common exudative pleural effusion
–– Loculated pleural fluid
–– Pleural fluid pH below 7.20
–– Pleural fluid glucose less than 60 mg/dL
–– Positive Gramstain or culture of the pleural fluid
–– The presence of gross pus in the pleural space.
Pneumonias
‘Typical’ pneumonia syndrome is characterized by the sudden onset of fever, cough productive of purulent sputum, shortness
of breath, and (in some cases) pleuritic chest pain; signs of pulmonary consolidation
•• Dullness
•• Increased fremitus
•• Egophony
•• Bronchial breath sounds, and rales) may be found on physical examination in areas of radiographic abnormality
The typical pneumonia syndrome is usually caused by the most common bacterial pathogen in community-acquired pneumonia,
S pneumoniae, but can also be due to other bacterial pathogens, such as H influenzae and mixed anaerobic and aerobic components
of the oral flora.
‘Atypical’ pneumonia syndrome is characterized by a more gradual onset, a dry cough, shortness of breath, a prominence
of extrapulmonary symptoms (such as headache, myalgias, fatigue, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea), and
abnormalities on chest radiographs despite minimal signs of pulmonary involvement (other than rales) on physical examination
Atypical pneumonia is classically produced by:
•• M pneumoniae
•• L pneumophila
•• C pneumoniae
•• Oral anaerobes
•• P carinii
Less frequently encountered pathogens. C psittaci, Coxiella burnetii, Francisella tularensis, H capsulatum, and Coccidioides
immitis.
Remember
•• Mycoplasma pneumonia: May be complicated by erythema multiforme, hemolytic anemia, bullous myringitis, encephalitis,
and transverse myelitis.
•• Staph aureus: Postinfluenza and pneumatocele formation
•• Klebsiella pneumonia: It is characterized by red current jelly sputum
•• Legionella pneumonia: It is frequently associated with diarrhea, deterioration in mental status (delirium), renal and hepatic
abnormalities, and marked hyponatremia; (walking pneumonia), failure to respond to beta lactam antibiotics
•• Self-limiting form of legionella infection is called pontaic fever (Flu-like illness without pneumonia)
•• C pneumonia: Pneumonia, sore throat, hoarseness, and wheezing are relatively common.
•• The atypical pneumonia syndrome in patients whose HIV infection suggests Pneumocystis infection.
USMLE Case Scenario

A highly encapsulated organism is found to cause bronchopneumonia with patchy infiltrates involving one or more lobes with
red sputum in a debilitated alcoholic. Most likely disease is:
Klebsiella pneumonia
Medicine 19
‘Community-acquired ‘Atypical Pneumonia’

•• It is atypical in its gradual onset, absence of higher fevers and rigors, and nonproductive cough
•• The results of the lung examination and the chest X-ray film reveal the typical findings of a bilateral interstitial infiltrate
•• This clinical pattern can be caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae or alternatively by viral agents
•• Although the Mycoplasma can be cultured, this takes 7 to 10 days and requires special culture techniques that are not commonly
available in hospital laboratories. Gram’s stain of sputum usually shows sparse bacteria, clumps of desquamated respiratory
epithelial cells, and a mixture of neutrophils and mononuclear cells (most helpful in practice in distinguishing from the more usual
bacterial agents that tend to have a dense neutrophilic infiltrate)
•• A single cold agglutinin reaction with titer greater than 1:64 is a helpful (but a little nonspecific) confirmatory test; sequential
specimens with a fourfold increase in titer are also considered confirmatory. Common antibacterial agents used to treat
M pneumoniae include tetracycline (not used for children) and erythromycin; clarithromycin and azithromycin are also effective.
High-yield Points in Pneumonia

•• Pnuemonia alba is due to treponnema palladium
•• Bronchopneumonia in measles is due to immunosuppression
•• Bulging fissure sign in pneumoniae is due to: Klebsiella pneumoniae
•• Plasma cell pneumnoniae is caused by pneumocystis carnii
Mycoplasma Pneumonia
•• Cause of atypical pneumonia which often affects younger patients
•• It is associated with a number of complications such as Erythema multiforme and Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Features
•• Flu-like symptoms classically precede a dry cough
•• Bilateral consolidation on X-ray
•• Serology useful in diagnosis
Complications:
•• Cold agglutins (IgM) may cause hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
•• Erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum
•• Meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome
•• Bullous myringitis: painful vesicles on the tympanic membrane
•• Pericarditis/myocarditis
•• Gastrointestinal: Hepatitis, pancreatitis

•• Renal: Acute glomerulonephritis
•• Erythromycin is effective in treatment
Nosocomial Pneumonia
The usual criteria for nosocomial pneumonia, which include new or progressive pulmonary infiltrates, purulent tracheobronchial
secretions, fever, and leukocytosis, are frequently unreliable in those patients who often have preexisting pulmonary disease,
endotracheal tubes that irritate the tracheal mucosa and may elicit an inflammatory exudate in respiratory secretions, or multiple
other problems likely to produce fever and leukocytosis.
Aspiration Pneumonia and Anaerobic Lung Abscess

•• Aspiration of a sufficient volume of gastric acid produces a chemical pneumonitis characterized by acute dyspnea and wheezing
with hypoxemia and infiltrates on chest radiographs in one or both the lower lobes
•• Clinical findings following aspiration of particulate matter depend on the extent of endobronchial obstruction and range from
acute apnea to persistent cough with or without recurrent infection
•• Although the aspiration of oral anaerobes can initially lead to an infiltrative process, it ultimately results in putrid sputum, tissue
necrosis, and pulmonary cavities. In about three-quarters of cases, the clinical course of an abscess of anaerobic polymicrobial
etiology is indolent
•• Patients with anaerobic abscesses are usually prone to aspiration of oropharyngeal contents and have periodontal disease.
Aspiration of Solids
•• Usually food. Obstruction of major airways typically results in atelectasis and moderate nonspecific inflammation. Therapy consists
of removal of the foreign body.
Mendelson’s Syndrome
•• Results from regurgitation of stomach contents and aspiration of chemical material, usually gastric juices. Pulmonary
inflammation including the destruction of the alveolar lining, with transudation of fluid into the alveolar space, occurs
with remarkable rapidity
•• Typically this syndrome develops within hours, often following anesthesia when the gag reflex is depressed. The patient
becomes tachypneic, hypoxic, and febrile. The leukocyte count may rise, and the chest X-ray may evolve suddenly from normal
to a complete bilateral ‘whiteout’ within 8 to 24 hours. Sputum production is minimal. The pulmonary signs and symptoms can
resolve quickly with symptom-based therapy or can culminate in respiratory failure, with the subsequent development of bacterial
superinfection over a period of days.
In contrast to these syndromes, bacterial aspiration pneumonia:

•• Develops more slowly
•• It is seen in patients who are hospitalized
•• Have a depressed gag reflex, impaired swallowing, or a tracheal or nasogastric tube
•• Elderly patients
•• Those with transiently impaired consciousness in the wake of seizures, cerebrovascular accidents, or alcoholic blackouts
•• Tachypnea is the mc sign.
Paroxysmal (Nocturnal) Dyspnea

Also known as cardiac asthma, this condition is characterized by attacks of severe shortness of breath that generally occur at night and
usually awaken the patient from sleep. The attack is precipitated by stimuli that aggravate previously existing pulmonary congestion;
frequently, the total blood volume is augmented at night because of the reabsorption of edema from dependent portions of the body
during recumbency.
Medicine 21
Necrotizing Pneumonitis
This form of anaerobic pneumonitis is characterized by numerous small abscesses that spread to involve several pulmonary segments.
The process can be indolent or fulminating. This syndrome is less common than either aspiration pneumonia or lung abscess and
includes features of both types of infection.
FREQUENTLY ASKED
Differentiate
Tropical eosinophilia
It is usually caused by filarial infection; however, eosinophilic pneumonias also occur with other parasites such as Ascaris,
Ancyclostoma sp, Toxocara sp, and Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti or W malayi.
Drug-induced eosinophilic pneumonias

Are exemplified by acute reactions to nitrofurantoin, which may begin 2 h to 10 days after nitrofurantoin is started, with symptoms
of dry cough, fever, chills, and dyspnea; an eosinophilic pleural effusion accompanying patchy or diffuse pulmonary infiltrates may
also occur. Other drugs associated with eosinophilic pneumonias include sulfonamides, penicillin, chlorpropamide, thiazides, tricyclic
antidepressants, hydralazine, mephenesin, mecamylamine, nickel carbonyl vapor, gold salts, isoniazid and para-aminosalicylic acid.
Eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome
Caused by dietary supplements of L-tryptophan, is occasionally associated with pulmonary infiltrates.
Loeffler’s syndrome
It is a benign, acute eosinophilic pneumonia of unknown cause characterized by migrating pulmonary infiltrates and minimal clinical
manifestations
Acute eosinophilic pneumonia has been described recently as an idiopathic acute febrile illness lasting less than 7 days with severe
hypoxemia, pulmonary infiltrates, and no history of asthma
Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia presents with significant systemic symptoms including fever, chills, night sweats, cough, anorexia, and
weight loss lasting for several weeks to months. The chest X-ray classically shows peripheral infiltrates resembling a photographic negative
of pulmonary edema. Some patients also have bronchial asthma of the intrinsic or nonallergic type. Dramatic clearing of symptoms and chest
X-rays is often noted within 48 h after initiation of glucocorticoid therapy.
Allergic Angiitis and Granulomatosis of Churg and Strauss

•• It is a multisystem vasculitic disorder that frequently involves the skin, kidney, and nervous system in addition to the lung
•• The disorder may occur at any age and favors persons with a history of bronchial asthma. The asthma often is progressive until the
onset of fever and exaggerated eosinophilia, at which time the symptoms of asthma may ease
•• Zafirlukast, zileuton, and montelukast are recognized causes of Churg-Strauss syndrome.
The Hypereosinophilic Syndrome

•• The presence of more than 1500 eosinophils per microliter of peripheral blood for 6 months or longer
•• Lack of evidence for parasitic, allergic, or other known causes of eosinophilia; and signs or symptoms of multisystem organ
dysfunction
•• Consistent features are blood and bone marrow eosinophilia with tissue infiltration by relatively mature eosinophils
•• The heart may be involved with tricuspid valve abnormalities or endomyocardial fibrosis and a restrictive, biventricular
cardiomyopathy
•• Other organs affected typically include the lungs, liver, spleen, skin, and nervous system. Treatment consists of glucocorticoids
and/or hydroxyurea
Remember: Hypersensitive Pneumonitis

•• Farmer’s lung Micropolyspora faeni Moldy hay
•• Humidifier lung Thermophilic actinomyces Air conditioners
•• Bird Fancier’s lung Avian proteins Bird excreta
•• Baggassosis Thermoactinomyces sacchri Sugar cane dust
•• Sequoisis Graphium/aureobasidium Sawdust
•• Suberosis Pencillium frequentans Cork dust
•• Mushroom Picker’s Lung Micropolysporafaeni Moldy composite
ABPA (Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis)

It is characterized by episodic airway obstruction, fever, eosinophilia, mucous plugs, positive sputum cultures, and the presence of
grossly visible brown flecks in the sputum (hyphae), transient infiltrates and parallel ‘tram-line’ or ring markings on chest radiographs,
proximal bronchiectasis, upper lobe contraction, and elevated levels of total IgA and immunoglobulin E (IgE).
•• Bronchial asthma
•• Pulmonary infiltrates
•• Peripheral eosinophilia
•• Immediate wheal and flare to aspergillus fumigates
•• Serum precipitins to aspergillus fumigates
•• Elevated IgE
•• ‘Central’ bronchiectasis
•• Noncontagious
•• Upper lobe dominance
•• Effusion is rare
Nocardiosis
The clinical manifestations are nonspecific and include fever, cough, weight loss, and dyspnea. The range of pulmonary involvement
extends from transient or inapparent infection to confluent bronchopneumonia with complete consolidation. Radiographic examination
of the chest may reveal one or more of the following: fluffy infiltrates, multiple abscess formation with cavitation, bulging fissures, masses,
nodules, and empyema.
Caused by:
•• Filamentous, aerobic Gram-positive Bacteria:
•• Partially acid causes disseminated infections in immunocompromised
•• The risk of pulmonary or disseminated disease is greater than usual among people with deficient cell-mediated immunity especially
that associated with lymphoma, transplantation, or AIDS
•• In persons with AIDS, Nocardiosis usually presents at a CD4+ lymphocyte concentration of <250/ul
•• Prophylaxis with sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim appears to reduce the risk of nocardiosis in persons with AIDS or transplanted
organs
•• Nocardiosis has also been associated with pulmonary alveolar proteinosis, tuberculosis and other mycobacterial diseases, and
chronic granulomatous disease.
Pneumonia is by far the most common respiratory tract nocardial disease. Nocardial pneumonia is typically subacute; symptoms
have usually been present for days or weeks at presentation. The onset may be more acute in immunosuppressed patients. Cough is
prominent and produces small amounts of thick, purulent sputum that is not malodorous. Fever, anorexia, weight loss, and malaise
are common; dyspnea, pleuritic pain, and hemoptysis are less common. Remissions and exacerbations over several weeks are frequent
The most common site of dissemination is the brain.
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Pulmonary Tuberculosis
•• Ghon Complex: Primary subpleural granuloma in the inferior upper lobe/superior lower lobe region (Ghon Focus) along with
draining Hilar nodes
•• Puhl’s lesion: Isolated lesion of chronic pulmonary TB in apex of lung
•• Assmann’s Focus: Infraclavicular lesion of chronic pulmonary TB
•• Rancke Complex: Combination of calcified peripheral lesion (Ghon Complex) and calcified Hilar nodes seen in primary TB
Obligate aerobe
Acid fast
Acid fastness is due to mycolic acid and cell wall
Lung is the mc organ involved
Koch’s phenomenon is seen in Tuberculosis
Primary Pulmonary Tuberculosis

•• Results from an initial infection with tubercle bacilli
•• This form of disease is often seen in children and is frequently localized to the middle and lower lung zones
•• The lesion forming after infection is usually peripheral and accompanied by hilar or paratracheal lymphadenopathy, which
may not be detectable on chest radiography. In the majority of cases, the lesion heals spontaneously and may later be evident as
a small calcified nodule (Ghon lesion)
•• Fibrocaseous lesion or phylenticular conjunctivitis can be a part of primary TB
•• USUALLY unilateral lymphadenopathy is seen
•• In children and in persons with impaired immunity, such as those with malnutrition or HIV infection, primary pulmonary
tuberculosis may progress rapidly to clinical illness.
Postprimary Disease
•• Also called adult-type, reactivation, or secondary tuberculosis, postprimary disease results from endogenous reactivation
of latent infection and is usually localized to the apical and posterior segments of the upper lobes, where the high oxygen
concentration favors mycobacterial growth
•• In addition, the superior segments of the lower lobes are frequently involved
•• The extent of lung parenchymal involvement varies greatly, from small infiltrates to extensive cavitary disease
•• Hemoptysis, however, may also result from rupture of a dilated vessel in a cavity (Rasmussen’s aneurysm) or from aspergilloma
formation in an old cavity
–– Popcorn calcification can occur
–– Patients of atopic asthma are prone to develop TB
–– ‘Hemorrhagic’ pleural effusions can ocuur in TB
–– ‘Cavitatory’ lesions in lung can occur
Pleural Tuberculosis
•• Involvement of the pleura is common in primary tuberculosis and results from penetration by a few tubercle bacilli into the
pleural space
–– The fluid is straw-colored and, at times, hemorrhagic
–– It is an exudate with a protein concentration > 50% of that in serum, a normal-to-low glucose concentration
–– A pH that is generally < 7.2
–– And detectable white blood cells (usually 500 to 2500/ml). Neutrophils may predominate in the early stage, while
mononuclear cells are the typical finding later
–– Mesothelial cells are generally rare or absent. AFB are very rarely seen on direct smear, but cultures may be positive for
M tuberculosis in up to one-third of cases
•• Necrotic Lymph nodes with peripheral rim enhancement is due to TB
•• PCR and BACTEC are now used for diagnosis.
Tuberculous Empyema
It is a less common complication of pulmonary tuberculosis
It is usually the result of the rupture of a cavity, with delivery of a large number of organisms into the pleural space, or of a bronchopleural
fistula from a pulmonary lesion
Tuberculous empyema may result in severe pleural fibrosis and restrictive lung disease.
Cryptic Miliary Tuberculosis
•• A rare presentation which has a chronic course characterized by mild intermittent fever, anemia, and ultimately meningeal
involvement preceding death
•• An acute septicemic form, nonreactive miliary tuberculosis, occurs very rarely and is due to massive hematogenous dissemination
of tubercle bacilli
•• Pancytopenia is common in this form of disease, which is rapidly fatal
•• At postmortem examination, multiple necrotic but nongranulomatous (nonreactive) lesions are detected
In miliary TB:
•• Large cavities are formed
•• Radiologically diffuse consolidation
•• Pleural effusions seen
Tuberculocidal drugs Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin

Tuberculostatic drugs Ethambutol, Thiacetazone, PAS, Ethionamide, Cycloserine
Important Points about TB in HIV-Positive Individuals

•• Tuberculosis can appear at any stage of HIV infection
•• In early stages, TB can present as typical pattern as upper lobe involvement with Cavitation without significant Lymphadenopathy
or effusion
•• In late stages, TB can present as diffuse interstitial or miliary pattern with little Cavitation with Lymphadenopathy
•• Active TB can accelerate course of HIV infection
•• Extrapulmonary TB is common in HIV patients
•• The diagnosis of TB in HIV patients is difficult because of:
–– Increased sputum negativity
–– Atypical radiography
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–– Lack of classic granulomas

–– Negative PDD skin tests
•• Worldwide about one-third of all AIDS-related deaths are due to TB
•• Clinical manifestations ‘depend on CD4 CELL COUNTS’
•• In patients with low CD4 CELL COUNTS, disseminated disease is more common
•• Pleural effusions, miliary spread, lymphadenopathy and bilateral reticulonodular pattern is seen
•• In patients with High CD4 CELL COUNTS, typical pattern as upper lobe involvement with cavitation without significant
lymphadenopathy or effusion is seen
•• Heart disease is a common postmortem finding in HIV-infected patients
•• ‘Paradoxical reactions’ (Exacerbations in signs and symptoms) have been reported with administration of HAART.
MAC Mycobacterium Avium Complex

•• Formerly known as MAI, it stands for Mycobacterium Avium Complex. MAC is a group of mycobacteria
•• (The two most common being M avium and M intracellulare) that cause a serious disease in people with advanced AIDS. MAC
most often causes a disseminated illness (bacteria is spread though the bloodstream) and can cause many symptoms throughout
the body
•• MAC bacteria are found in air, water, soil, foods, some tobacco products, and in many animals. It is impossible to avoid contact with
MAC bacteria. A recent study showed that person-to-person transmission of MAC bacteria is unlikely
•• Risk factors for developing MAC include having fewer than 50 CD4 cells, a high viral load (greater than 90,000 copies per/ml)
and having had another opportunistic infection such as CMV (cytomegalovirus)
Signs and symptoms of MAC
•• MAC can infect a person’s entire body. The signs and symptoms of MAC can be the same signs of other diseases
•• They include: high fever, drenching sweats, diarrhea, weight loss, abdominal pain, fatigue, weakness, anemia (low levels of red
blood cells), neutropenia (low levels of white blood cells) or thrombocytopenia (low levels of platelets), and elevated liver function tests
•• The liver or spleen may be enlarged. Blood infections, hepatitis, skin lesions, and pneumonia may also occur
•• Prophylaxis is recommended for anyone who is HIV-positive and has 50 CD4 cells or less. While rifabutin, clarithromycin, and
azithromycin are all approved drugs for prophylaxis of MAC, clarithromycin and azithromycin are the preferred choices
–– Treatment for MAC involves taking a combination of antibiotics. MAC treatment must include at least two drugs, one of which
should be either clarithromycin or azithromycin
–– Ethambutol is the recommended second drug
–– Rifabutin, ciprofloxacin, or amikacin may be added for people with more severe MAC.
Pneumocystis Carinii
•• Pneumocystis carinii, recently suggested to be a fungus rather than a parasite, is usually dormant in the host lung, causes disease
when defenses are compromised
•• Fungus causing pneumonia in AIDS
•• Damage of type I pneumocytes
•• Hypertrophy of type II pneumocytes
•• Interstitial pneumonitis
•• Nearly all patients have immunologic deficiencies
•• The most common being defects in cell-mediated immunity as with hematologic malignancies, lymphoproliferative
diseases, cancer chemotherapy, and AIDS
•• Among patients with HIV infection, about 60% have P. carinii pneumonia as the initial AIDS-defining diagnosis, and >80% of AIDS
patients have this infection at some time during their course
•• Most patients have a history of fever, dyspnea, and a ‘dry, nonproductive cough’ that may evolve in a subacute fashion over
several weeks or acutely over several days
•• The chest X-ray characteristically shows diffuse, bilateral, perihilar infiltrates, but 10 to 20% of patients have normal X-rays.
•• Arterial blood gases show ‘hypoxemia, with a marked increase in the alveolar-arterial O2 gradient’, and pulmonary function
shows altered diffusing capacity
•• Patients with HIV become vulnerable to P. carinii pneumonia when the CD4 helper cell count is <200/µL
•• The diagnosis requires histopathologic demonstration of the organism with methenamine silver, Giemsa, Wright-Giemsa,
modified Grocott, Gram-Weigert, or monoclonal antibody stain, with specimens obtained by transtracheal aspiration,
transthoracic needle aspiration, open lung biopsy, induced sputum, or bronchoscopy
•• The preferred diagnostic method is induced sputum when technical expertise is available
•• Alternatively, the preferred method is bronchoscopy with bronchioalveolar lavage and brush biopsy.
•• ‘Pneumocystis carinii or Pneumocystis jerovici’ is an opportunistic pathogen

•• It is ‘yeast-like fungus’
•• Natural habitat is lung
•• People at risk of PCP
•• Immunocompromised
•• Patients undergone solid organ transplants
•• Patients with HIV
•• Children with primary immunodeficiency
–– Symptoms: Dyspnea, fever, nonproductive cough
–– Signs: Tachypnea, Tacycardia, Cyanosis
–– X-ray findings: Bilateral diffuse infiltrates in perihilar region
–– ABG: Hypoxia, Increased Alveolar Arteriolar gradient, respiratory alkalosis
•• Associated with eosinophilic exudates
•• Damage of type I pneumocytes and hypertrophy of type II pneumocytes
•• Adults present as ‘alveolar predominant’ type disease
•• Infants present as predominant ‘interstitial’ type
•• Bronchoalveolar lavage is done for confirmation
•• Risk of PCP increases when CD4 count in children drops below 200 cells/micro liter and it is the most common opportunistic
infection in pediatric population with severly depressed cell counts.
Several Antimicrobials are Effective for PCP Infection

They are:
•• TMP-SMZ (cotrimoxazole)
•• TMP+Dapsone is also used
•• Dapsone alone or along with Pyremethamine is also effective
•• Combination therapy of Clindamycin + Primaquine
•• Atavaquone
•• Pentamidine is also used for the treatment of PCP
•• Glucocorticoids are used in severe cases of PCP infection
Sarcoidosis
•• Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease, and thus the clinical manifestations may be generalized or focused on one or more organs.
However, because the lung is almost always involved, most patients have symptoms referable to the respiratory system
•• The first manifestation of the disease is an accumulation of mononuclear inflammatory cells, mostly CD4+ TH1 lymphocytes
and mononuclear phagocytes, in affected organs. The giant cells within the granuloma can be of the Langhans’ or foreign-body
variety and often contain inclusions such as noncaseating granulomas with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
–– Schaumann bodies (conch-like structures)
–– Asteroid bodies (stellate-like structures) and
–– Residual bodies (refractile calcium-containing inclusions)
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Two syndromes have been identified in the acute group:

–– Lofgren’s syndrome includes the complex of erythema nodosum and X-ray findings of bilateral hilar adenopathy, often
accompanied by joint symptoms, including arthritis at the ankles, knees, wrists, or elbows
–– Heerfordt-Waldenstrom syndrome describes individuals with fever, parotid enlargement, anterioruveitis and facial nerve
palsy
•• Lupus pernio is characterized by indurated blue-purple, swollen, shiny lesions on the nose, cheeks, lips, ears, fingers, and
knees
•• Eye involvement occurs in ~25% of patients with sarcoidosis, and it can cause blindness, ~75% have anterior uveitis and
25 to 35% have posterior uveitis. There is blurred vision, tearing, and photophobia. When the lacrimal gland is involved, a
keratoconjunctivitis sicca syndrome, with dry, sore eyes, can result
•• Parotid enlargement is a classic feature of sarcoidosis. Bilateral involvement is the rule. The gland is usually nontender, firm,
and smooth. Xerostomia can occur; other exocrine glands are affected only rarely
Common abnormalities in the blood include:
•• Lymphocytopenia
•• Occasional mild eosinophilia
•• ↑erythrocyte sedimentation rate
•• Hyperglobulinemia and
•• ↑Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
•• False-positive tests for rheumatoid factor or antinuclear antibodies can be observed
•• Hypercalcemia
•• The Kveim-Siltzbach skin test, the intradermal injection of a heat-treated suspension of a sarcoidosis spleen extract which is
biopsied 4 to 6 weeks later, yields sarcoidosis-like lesions in 70 to 80% of individuals with sarcoidosis. Biopsy is confirmatory test
•• Egg-shell calcification of hilar lymph nodes may be seen.
Typical USMLE Case Scenario

A 54-year-old engineer is having nonproductive cough and dyspnea. Chest radiograph shows bilateral hilar adenopathy.
Over the next month, the patient undergoes a series of laboratory tests and, eventually, mediastinoscopy with a lymph
node biopsy. Laboratory testing is remarkable for a (total) serum calcium level of 11.5 mg/dL and an elevated angiotensin-
converting enzyme (ACE) level. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular fibrotic lesions surrounded by histiocytes without necrosis
(Noncaseous) (Noncaseating Granuloma).
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
•• Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) is a rare lung disease that results in disorderly smooth muscle proliferation throughout the
bronchioles, alveolar septa, perivascular spaces, and lymphatics, resulting in the obstruction of small airways (leading to pulmonary
cyst formation and pneumothorax) and lymphatics (leading to chylous pleural effusion)
•• LAM occurs in a sporadic form, which only affects females, who are usually of childbearing age. LAM also occurs in patients who
have tuberous sclerosis
•• Symptoms are dyspnea, cough, chest pain, and hemoptysis; spontaneous pneumothorax is common
•• Diagnosis is suspected on the basis of symptoms and chest X-ray and is confirmed by high-resolution CT. Prognosis is uncertain,
but the disorder is slowly progressive and over the years often leads to respiratory failure and death. Primary treatment is lung
transplantation
•• Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) is not an interstitial lung disease, but patients are occasionally misdiagnosed as having
interstitial lung disease (and also asthma or COPD).
Pulmonary Hypertension PPH

GENE involved: Bone morphogenetic protein receptor II
Causes:
•• Primary pulmonary hypertension
•• COPD (mc cause for chronic cor pulmonale)

•• Pulmonary thromboembolism (mc cause of acute cor pulmonale)
•• Congenital heart disease (Eisenmenger’s syndrome)
•• Recurrent pulmonary embolism
•• HIV
•• Sarcoidosis
•• Connective tissue disease
•• Sickle cell anemia
•• Obesity
•• High altitude
•• Fenfluamine
Features
•• Exertional dyspnea
•• Chest pain, syncope
•• Loud P2
Guidelines for Treatment in PPH

•• Digoxin may increase cardiac output and lower circulating levels of norepinephrine.
•• Diuretic therapy relieves dyspnea and peripheral edema and may be useful in reducing right ventricular volume overload.
•• Because pulmonary vascular resistance increases dramatically with exercise, patients should be cautioned against participating in
activities demanding increased physical stress, i.e. physical stress has got an effect on PPH.
•• In one study, it is recommended that anticoagulant therapy be given to all patients as it increases survival but does not cause
regression of disease
•• Other important points in treatment are:
–– Patients with substantial reductions in pulmonary vascular resistance from short-acting vasodilators may be candidates for
calcium channel blocker therapy
–– Prostacyclin is an important modality in treatment
–– It causes improvement in symptoms, improves exercise tolerance and causes reduction in mortality
–– Transplantation may be considered in patients on prostacyclin who develop or continue to manifest heart failure. Heart lung,
bilateral lung and single lung transplants are done.
Lung Cancer
Lung Cancer
•• Lung Ca with worst prognosis Small cell Ca
•• Lung Ca most responsive to radiotherapy Small cell Ca
•• Lung Ca most responsive to chemotherapy Small cell Ca
–– Most common type of lung Ca Adenocarcinoma
–– Most commonly metastasizing to opposite lung Adenocarcinoma
–– Most common type in females Adenocarcinoma
–– Most common type in nonsmokers Adenocarcinoma
–– Most common in young Adenocarcinoma
–– Most common in peripheral location Adenocarcinoma
•• Second most common lung Ca Squamous cell carcinoma
•• Most common cavitating lung Ca Squamous cell carcinoma
•• Best prognosis among lung Ca Squamous cell carcinoma
•• Most common to produce hypercalcemia Squamous cell carcinoma
C associated with squamous cell carcinoma
Medicine 29
•• Central in location
•• Cavitation
•• Clubbing
•• Calcium level↑
Small Cell Carcinoma of Lung: Oat Cell Carcinoma

•• Highly malignant
•• MC cancer causing SVC
•• Metastasis occurs early especially to brain
•• Usually associated with smoking
•• Usually occurring in males
•• Causes paraneoplastic syndrome: Cushing’s Syndrome, SIADH
•• Treated by Chemotherapy
•• Surgical intervention not done usually
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent, breast and ovarian
cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody
directed against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.
Features:
•• Repeated muscle contractions lead to increased muscle strength *(in contrast to myasthenia gravis)
•• Limb girdle weakness (affects lower limbs first)
•• Hyporeflexia
•• Autonomic symptoms: Dry mouth, impotence, difficultly micturating
•• Ophthalmoplegia and ptosis not commonly a feature (unlike in myasthenia gravis)
EMG
–– Incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation
Management
–– Guanidine is sometimes used
Pulmonary Embolism
•• Dyspnea most common symptom and earliest manifestation
•• Tachypnea most common sign
•• Tachycardia, S3Q3T3 (an S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III Pattern in ECG) Abnormalities include
sinus tachycardia; new-onset atrial fibrillation or flutter; and an inverted T wave in lead III. Often, the QRS axis is greater than 90.
T wave inversion in leads V1 to V4 reflects right ventricular strain
–– West Mark’s Sign: Focal oligemia on CXR
–– Hamptons’s Sign: Wedge shaped density on CXR
–– Palla’s Sign: Enlarged Right Descending Pulmonary Artery
•• Plasma D-dimer enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) level is elevated in more than 90% of patients with PTE, reflecting
plasmin’s breakdown of fibrin
•• Pulmonary angiography: Selective pulmonary angiography is the most specific test available for establishing the definitive
diagnosis of PTE and can detect emboli as small as 1 to 2 mm
•• A definitive diagnosis of PTE depends upon visualization of an intraluminal filling defect in more than one projection
•• Secondary signs of PTE include:
–– Abrupt occlusion (cut-off) of vessels
–– Segmental oligemia or avascularity
–– A prolonged arterial phase with slow filling
–– Or tortuous, tapering peripheral vessels
A Hypercoagulable state is characteristic of pregnancy, and deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is a common complication. Indeed,
pulmonary embolism is the most common cause of maternal death in the United States. Activated protein C resistance caused by the
factor V Leiden mutation increases the risk for DVT and pulmonary embolism during pregnancy
•• Well’s grading of pulmonary embolism is based on: clinical symptoms
•• Definitive method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is pulmonary angiography
•• Most reliable method for diagnosis of PE is angiography
USMLE Case Scenario

On 8th postoperative day after repair of a broken hip, a 68-year-old man from Texas suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain
and shortness of breath. On examination by a physician, he is found to be anxious, diaphoretic, and tachycardic, with a blood
pressure of 146/85 mm Hg. He has prominent distended veins in his neck and forehead. Blood gases show both hypoxemia and
hypocapnia. His chest X-ray film is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
1. Aortogram
2. Cardiac enzymes
3. Hyperventilation and PEEP
4. Retinal examination
5. Ventilation-perfusion lung scan, or spiral CT scan of the chest
6. CXR
Ans. 5. Ventilation-perfusion lung scan, or spiral CT scan of the chest
The clinical picture is that of a pulmonary embolus. Although pulmonary angiogram is the ‘gold standard’ diagnostic test,
confirmation is usually obtained with the less invasive ventilation-perfusion scan.
Pneumothorax
•• Pneumothorax is the presence of gas in the pleural space
•• Sudden dyspnea following cough and chest pain is seen
•• Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs without antecedent trauma to thorax common in males/smokers
•• Rupture of subpleural bleb is a common cause
•• Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in the absence of underlying lung disease, while
•• Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in its presence. A traumatic pneumothorax results from penetrating or
nonpenetrating chest injuries
–– Tension pneumothorax is a pneumothorax in which the pressure in the pleural space is positive throughout the respiratory
cycle
–– Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Primary spontaneous pneumothoraces are usually due to rupture of apical pleural
blebs, small cystic spaces that lie within or immediately under the visceral pleura. Primary spontaneous pneumothoraces
occur almost exclusively in smokers
–– Secondary Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Most secondary spontaneous pneumothoraces are due to chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease
–– Traumatic Pneumothorax: Traumatic pneumothoraces can result from both penetrating and nonpenetrating chest trauma.
Traumatic pneumothoraces should be treated with tube thoracostomy unless they are very small.
Medicine 31
–– Tension Pneumothorax: This condition usually occurs during mechanical ventilation or resuscitative efforts. The positive
pleural pressure is life-threatening both because ventilation is severely compromised and because the positive pressure is
transmitted to the mediastinum, which results in decreased venous return to the heart and reduced cardiac output
•• Decreased breath sounds
•• Hyper-resonant percussion note
•• Intrapleural pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure in Open Pneumothorax.
Tension Pneumothorax
This is a life-threatening emergency that needs to be managed immediately with either chest tube thoracostomy or needle
thoracocentesis to relieve the tension on the affected side of the thorax. Physical examination reveals tachycardia, tachypnea,
decreased or absent breath sounds over the involved hemithorax, increased resonance to percussion, subcutaneous
emphysema, and deviation of the trachea to the opposite side. Tension pneumothorax develops when air leaking into the chest
increases intrathoracic pressure, completely collapsing the lung on that side. It results in displacement of the mediastinum
and trachea to the opposite side of the chest and impedes venous return.
Remember
•• Shrinking lung syndrome is seen in SLE
•• Bovine cough is a feature of laryngeal palsy
•• White lung is a feature of asbestosis
•• Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by angiography
•• Shock lung/DAD (Diffuse Alveolar Damage) is ARDS
USMLE High Yield

The risk of a smoker with asbestos exposure developing lung cancer is about greater than the regular population. The patient
has an increased risk for lung cancer and would greatly benefit from smoking cessation. Asbestosis can lead to an interstitial
lung disease in patients with or without a smoking history. Even nonsmokers may present with dyspnea on exertion, cough,
chest wall pain, and ultimately, end-stage lung disease. Patients with asbestosis are at increased risk for pleural or peritoneal
mesotheliomas.
X-ray presentations of asbestosis
ARDS Shock Lung/DAD (Diffuse Alveolar Damage)
Features of ARDS
•• Stiff lungs
•• Hypoxemia
•• Hypercapnia
•• Pulmonary edema
•• Normal PCWP
•• ↑Pulmonary artery pressure
•• No response to oxygen
•• Ground glass appearance
•• Acute onset of respiratory failure
•• Air bronchogram sign is positive
•• Associated with
•• Pancreatitis
•• Trauma
•• Septicemia
•• Embolism
•• Multiple blood transfusions
Respiratory Causes of Clubbing
•• Bronchogenic cancer
•• COLD
•• Bronchiectasis
•• Lung abscess
•• Empyema
•• Pulmonary fibrosis
•• Mediastinal tumors
•• Pleural tumors
•• Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
•• Opacification with no mediastinal shift: consolidation

•• Opacification with ipsilateral mediastinal shift: collapse
•• Opacification with contralateral mediastinal shift
•• Haemothorax, hydrothorax
•• Most common cause of hemoptysis •• Bronchitis

•• Most common cause of hemoptysis in india •• Tuberculosis
•• Most common cause of massive hemoptysis •• Bronchiectasis
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•• Most common cause of massive hemoptysis in India •• Tuberculosis

•• Most common presenting symptom of lung cancer •• Cough
•• Most common site for bronchogenic cysts •• Middle mediastinum
•• Most common cause of stridor in children •• Foreign body
CXR demonstrating COPD (Emphysematous Lung) CXR demonstrating miliary tuberculosis
Rib-notching in coarctation of aorta CXR demonstrating a big right-sided pleural effusion
CXR demonstrating atelectasis of right lung

(i) Homogenous density right hemithorax, (ii) Mediastinal shift to right, (iii) Right hemithorax smaller,
(iv) Right heart and diaphragmatic silhouette are not identifiable
CXR demonstrating bihilar adenopathy CXR of a squamous cell carcinoma of the left upper lobe of lung
CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICINE
Different Types of Pulse
•• Small volume, slow rising pulse: (Anacrotic): Aortic Stenosis
•• Collapsing and slow rising (Bisferiens): AS with AR
•• Collapsing Pulse: Hyperdynamic circulation, AR, Thyrotoxicosis, PDA, AR
•• Pulsus alternans. LVF
•• Jerky pulse: HOCM
•• Pulsus paradoxus: Asthma, cardiac tamponade, pericarditis
Waves in JVP
•• ‘a’ wave – 1st positive wave and it is due to atrial systole. Absent in AF
•• ‘x’ wave – fall of pressure in atrium, coincides with atrial diastole
•• ‘c’ wave – it is due to rise in atrial pressure during isometric contraction during which the AV valves bulge into atrium
•• ‘x1’ wave – occurs during ejection period, when AV ring is pulled towards ventricles causing distension of atria
•• ‘v’ wave – occurs during isometric relaxation period or during atrial diastole
•• ‘Y’ wave – due to opening of AV valve and emptying of blood into ventricle.
Jugular venous distension suggests:

•• Right heart failure
•• Pulmonary hypertensin
•• Tricuspid regurgitation
•• Volume overload
•• Pericardial disease
Hepatojugular reflux: seen in fluid overload, impaired right ventricular compliance
Kussmaul’s sign is an increase in JVP with inspiration.
Medicine 35
Heart Sounds
Heart sounds Cause
First Closure of AV valves (Mitral Tricuspid)
High-pitched duration: 14 seconds
SOFT S1 is seen in:
–– MS (long-standing, calcified)
–– Obesity
–– MR
–– Pleural effusion
–– Loud S1 is heard in:
anemia, anxiety, fever, Thyrotoxicosis
ASD, PDA
MS (Polonged flow through AV valve)
Second Closure of semilunar valves (aortic, pulmonary)
Wide split of S2 is seen in:
ASD, MR, PS
Reverse splitting of S2 is seen in:
LBBB, HTN, AS
•• AS: Aortic stenosis

•• AR: Aortic regurgitation
•• MS: Mitral stenosis
•• MR: Mitral regurgitation
•• HTN: Hypertension
•• LBBB: Left bundle branch block
•• RBBB: Right bundle branch block
S3
•• S3 is low-pitched and because of ventricular filling
•• Diastolic occurring after S2
•• Best heard at apex
•• Best heard with bell of stethoscope
Causes of S3:
•• In children, hyperdynamic states
•• LVF, RVF
•• Regurgitant lesions
S4
•• S4 is low-pitched
•• Presystolic, produced during second rapid filling phase (before S1)
•• Best heard with bell of stethoscope
Seen in:
•• Hypertension
•• AS
•• HOCM
•• Ischemic heart diseases
•• Acute MR
Differentiating Different Types of Shock

•• Cardiogenic shock ↑PCWP ↓CO
•• Volume overload ↑PCWP ↑CO
•• Hypovolemic shock ↓PCWP
•• Noncardiogenic shock (ARDS) n PCWP
Parameters in shock
Recognizing Certain ECG Rhythms

ECG Identification:
•• Identify the atrial rhythm and measure its rate. Establishing the rate allows the atrial rhythm to be characterized as bradycardia
(rate < 60 per minute), normal (rate between 60 and 100 per minute), and tachycardia (rate >100 per minute)
•• If atrial and ventricular rates are different from each other, their rates must be determined separately
•• Determine the regularity or irregularity of the rate. Irregular rhythms should be further described as totally irregular (‘irregularly’
irregular as, for example, in atrial fibrillation) or regular with periods of irregularity (‘regularly’ irregular as, for example, in atrial
bigeminy)
•• Determine the P wave axis, duration, and morphology to provide information about the focus or origin of the atrial rhythm and
whether the atria are being depolarized antegradely or retrogradely
•• If the atrial rhythm is sinus, the P wave morphology and duration can suggest the presence of atrial enlargement or hypertrophy
•• Identify the ventricular rate and whether it is regular or irregular. Ascertain whether it is associated with the atrial rhythm and what
their relationships are: Is there one P wave for each QRS complex? Do the P waves precede or follow the QRS complexes? What is
the PR interval? Is it constant or does it change?
•• Determine the QRS axis and duration, and describe the QRS morphology. The duration, morphology, and axis of the QRS complexes
can help define the origin of the ventricular rhythm
•• Rhythms originating above the ventricles usually use the normal His-Purkinje system to active ventricular muscle, and the QRS
complexes are narrow and normal-appearing unless bundle branch block is present. QRS complexes originating from ventricular
tissue, on the other hand, are broad and bizarre. If the ventricles are depolarized using the normal His-Purkinje pathways, the QRS
morphology (including voltage), duration, and axis can suggest the presence of left and/or right ventricular hypertrophy
•• Finally, compare the present ECG with previous records.
Medicine 37
Conduction Abnormalities
Normal ECG
Waves of Normal ECG

Wave/Segment From – To Cause Duration (second)
P wave _ Atrial depolarization 0.1
QRS complex _ Ventricular depolarization 0.08 – 0.10
T wave _ Ventricular repolarization 0.2
P–R interval Onset of P wave to onset of Q (0.12 to 0.2)
wave
Q–T interval Onset of Q wave and end of T 0.4 – 0.42
wave
Prolonged
•• Lev’s disease: There is calcification and sclerosis of the fibrous cardiac skeleton, which frequently involves the aortic and mitral
valves, the central fibrous body, and the summit of the ventricular septum
•• Lenegre’s disease appears to be a primary sclerodegenerative disease within the conducting system itself with no involvement
of the myocardium or the fibrous skeleton of the heart
•• First-degree AV block, more properly termed prolonged AV conduction, is classically characterized by a PR interval > 0.20 s
•• Second-degree heart block (intermittent AV block) is present when some atrial impulses fail to conduct to the ventricles
•• Mobitz type I second-degree AV block (AV Wenckebach block) is characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to
block of an atrial impulse. This type of block is almost always localized to the AV node and associated with a normal QRS duration,
although bundle branch block may be present
•• There is progressive lengthening of the PR interval and a drop beat occurs
•• Mobitz type II second-degree AV block, conduction fails suddenly and unexpectedly without a preceding change in PR intervals.
It is generally due to disease of the His-Purkinje system and is most often associated with a prolonged QRS duration
•• Third-degree AV block is present when no atrial impulse propagates to the ventricles. If the QRS complex of the escape rhythm
is of normal duration, occurs at a rate of 40 to 55 beats per minute, and increases with atropine or exercise, AV nodal block is
probable. Congenital complete AV block is usually localized to the AV node. If the block is within the His bundle, the escape
pacemaker is usually less responsive to these perturbations. If the escape rhythm of the QRS is wide and associated with rates 40
beats per minute, block is usually localized in, or distal to, the His bundle and mandates a pacemaker, since the escape rhythm in
this setting is unreliable
•• Some patients with infra-His bundle block are capable of retrograde conduction. In such patients, a ‘pacemaker syndrome’ may
develop if a simple ventricular pacemaker is used. Dual-chamber pacemakers eliminate this potential problem.
Important Points to Note in ECG

•• LBBB: QRS duration greater than 120 msec. W pattern of QRS in V1-V2 and M pattern of QRS in V3-V6
•• RBBB: QRS duration greater than 120 msec. M pattern of QRS in V1-V2 and W pattern of QRS in V3-V6
•• Long QT syndrome: QTC greater than 440 msec
•• LVH: S in V1+R in V6 > 35 mm
•• RVH: Right axis deviation and wave in V1 > 7 mm
•• Ischemia/Infarction: Inverted T waves, Poor R wave Progression in precordial chest leads. ST segment elevation/depression
•• Transmural infarction: Significant Q waves
‘Pacemaker’ Syndrome
The pacemaker syndrome consists of fatigue, dizziness, syncope, and distressing pulsations in the neck and chest and can be
associated with adverse hemodynamic effects. The pathophysiologic contributors to the pacemaker syndrome include:
•• Loss of atrial contribution to ventricular systole
•• Vasodepressor reflex initiated by cannon A waves, which are caused by atrial contractions against a closed tricuspid valve and
observed in the jugular venous pulse and
•• Systemic and pulmonary venous regurgitation due to atrial contraction against a closed AV valve
The symptoms associated with the pacemaker syndrome can be prevented by maintaining AV synchrony by dual-chamber pacing
or, in the case of a ventricular demand pacemaker, by programming an escape rate of 15 to 20 beats per minute below that of the
paced rate.
Relative Bradycardia
•• Typhoid fever
•• Brucellosis
•• Leptospirosis
•• Drug-induced fever
•• Factitious fever
ECG: Axis Deviation

Causes of left axis deviation (LAD)
•• Left anterior hemiblock
•• LBBB
•• Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
•• Hyperkalemia
•• Congenital: ostium primum ASD, tricuspid atresia
•• Minor LAD in obese people
Causes of Right Axis Deviation (RAD)

•• Right ventricular hypertrophy
•• Left posterior hemiblock
•• RBBB
•• Chronic lung disease
•• Pulmonary embolism
•• Ostium secundum ASD
•• Normal in infant < 1 year old
•• Minor RAD in tall people
Medicine 39
ST Elevation is seen in
•• Acute MI
•• Prinzmetal’s angina
•• Acute pericarditis
•• Ventricular aneurysm
•• Early repolarization variant
Torsades De Pointes
Causes: Prolonged QT Syndrome

•• Quinidine
•• Procanamide
•• Disopyramide
•• Terfenadine, astemizole
•• Cisapride
•• Gatifloxacin
•• Sparfloxacin
•• Halofantrine
•• Mefloquine
•• TCA
•• Hypomagnesemia
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
•• The term Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is applied to patients with both pre-excitation on the ECG and paroxysmal tachycardias.
AV bypass tracts can be associated with certain congenital abnormalities, the most important of which is Ebstein’s anomaly
•• AV bypass tracts that conduct in an antegrade direction produce a typical ECG pattern of a:
–– Short PR interval (< 0.12 s)
–– A slurred upstroke of the QRS complex (delta wave) and
–– A wide QRS complex
•• During PSVT in WPW, the impulse is usually conducted antegradely over the normal AV system and retrogradely through the
bypass tract
•• Procainamide is helpful
•• Radiofrequency ablation is done.
Drugs and Arrhythmias

•• DOC for ventricular arrhythmias Lidocaine
•• DOC for AF without heart failure Beta blockers
•• DOC for Atrial flutter without heart failure Beta blockers
•• DOC for AF with heart failure Digoxin
•• DOC for Atrial flutter with heart failure Digoxin
•• DOC for PSVT Adenosine
•• DOC for WPWS Procainamide
•• DOC for ventricular ectopics Beta blockers
•• DOC for sinus bradycardia Atropine
Sinus Bradycardia
Heart rate: < 60 bpm, regular rhythm

Medicine 41
Atrial Fibrillation
Heart rate greater than 350, irregular rhythm, fibrillatory p wave

PVC
Every third beat is a PVC
Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular Fibrillation
VF: Here heart rate is greater than 300, irregular rhythm, absent P wave, fibrillatory base line
Myocardial Infarction
Anteroseptal MI
The QS complexes, resolving ST segment elevation and T wave inversions in

V1-2 are evidence for a fully evolved anteroseptal MI
Medicine 43
Old Inferior MI
Anteroseptal MI
LVH with ‘Strain’

Left Atrial Enlargement
LAE is best seen in V1 with a prominent negative (posterior) component

measuring 1 mm wide and 1 mm deep hypothermia: J-waves or Osborn waves
In hypothermia, a small extra wave is seen immediately after the QRS complex (best seen in Lead I in this example)
This wave is called a J-wave, or Osborn wave. This wave disappears with the warming of body temperature
MURMURS: INNOCENT MURMUR FEATURES

7 Ss
•• Soft
•• Systolic
•• Short
•• Sounds (S1 and S2) normal
•• Symptomless
•• Special tests normal (X-ray, EKCG)
•• Standing/Sitting (vary with position)
Murmurs
Ejection systolic Pan-systolic Late systolic Early diastolic Mid-diastolic
•• Aortic stenosis •• Mitral regurgitation •• HOCM •• Aortic •• Mitral stenosis
•• Pulmonary stenosis •• Tricuspid •• Mitral valve prolapse regurgitation •• Austin-Flint murmur
•• HOCM regurgitation •• Coarctation of aorta (severe aortic
•• ASD •• Mitral prolapse regurgitation)
•• Fallot’s •• VSD
Medicine 45
Continous murmur is seen in

•• PDA
•• AV fistula
•• Rupture of sinuses of valsalva
•• Coarctation of aorta
•• Venous hum
•• VSD with AR
REMEMBER
Coarctation of the aorta
Coarctation of the aorta occurs in two patterns:
In the infantile type, the stenosis is proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus (preductal); this pattern is associated with
Turner’s syndrome
In the adult form, the stenosis is distal to the ductus arteriosus (postductal) and is associated with notching of the ribs (secondary
to continued pressure from the aorta on them), hypertension in the upper extremities, and weak pulses in the lower extremities.
Headache, cold extremities, and lower extremity claudication with exercise are typical if the patient is symptomatic (many adults with
mild distal coarctation may remain asymptomatic for years). Upper extremity hypertension with weak pulses in the lower extremities,
and a midsystolic (or continuous) murmur over the chest or back may be the only obvious signs in some.
Cyanotic Congenital Heart Diseases

5 Ts:
•• Truncus arteriosus
•• Transposition of the great arteries
•• Tricuspid atresia
•• Tetralogy of Fallot
•• Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
MS is a female title (Ms) and it is female-predominant

MR is a male title (Mr) and it is male-predominant
Rheumatic Heart Disease

JONES CRITERION
•• According to revised Jones criteria, the diagnosis of rheumatic fever can be made when two of the major criteria, or one major
criterion plus two minor criteria are present along with evidence of streptococcal infection
•• Exceptions are chorea and indolent carditis, each of which by itself can indicate rheumatic fever
Major criteria
•• Migratory polyarthritis: A temporary migrating inflammation of the large joints, usually starting in the legs and migrating
upwards
•• Carditis: Inflammation of the heart muscle which can manifest as congestive heart failure with shortness of breath, pericarditis
with a rub, or a new heart murmur
•• Subcutaneous nodules: Painless, firm collections of collagen fibers over bones or tendons. They commonly appear on the back of
the wrist the outside elbow, and the front of the knees
•• Erythema marginatum: A long-lasting rash that begins on the trunk or arms as macules and spreads outward to form a snake-like
ring
•• While clearing in the middle, this rash never starts on the face and it is made worse with heat.
•• Sydenham’s chorea (St. Vitus’ dance): A characteristic series of rapid movements without purpose of the face and arms
•• This can occur very late in the disease
Minor Criteria
•• Fever
•• Arthralgia: Joints pain without swelling
•• Raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein
•• Leukocytosis
Rheumatic Heart Disease

•• Preceded by streptococcal pharyngitis
•• Aschoff bodies are a feature
•• Anitschkow cells/caterpillar cells are seen
•• Pancarditis is a feature
•• Bread and butter pericarditis
•• Vegitations along the line of closure of valves
•• Subendocardial MacCallum’s patches present
•• Most common cause of mitral stenosis
Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis: It is said that the causes of mitral stenosis are rheumatic fever, calcium deposits and narrowing of motral valve in
Newborn babies. Rarer causes that may be seen include mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid and endocardial fibroelastosis
Features:
•• Mid-diastolic murmur (Best heard in expiration)
•• Loud S1, opening snap
•• Low volume pulse
•• Malar flush
•• Atrial fibrillation
•• Hemoptysis seen
•• Hoarseness of voice is seen in MS
•• Left atrial myxoma is an important differential diagnosis
•• Pulmonary hypertension occurs
Features of severe MS:
Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
Echocardiography:
Most useful in MS is echocardiography
•• The normal cross-sectional area of the mitral valve is 4–6 sq cm
•• A ‘tight’ mitral stenosis implies a cross-sectional area of < 1 sq cm
•• < 0.6 cms of mitral vavle area is incompatible with life.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 68-year-old woman who is normotensive presents to her cardiac physician after several episodes of syncope. Physical
examination is remarkable for a low-pitched ‘plopping’ sound during mid-systole. Two-dimensional echocardiography
demonstrates a ball-valve type obstruction of the mitral valve. Most likely diagnosis would be:
Myxoma
Medicine 47
Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis:
Features
•• Ejection systolic murmur
•• Slow rising pulse
•• Narrow pulse pressure
•• Sustained heaving apex is seen
•• Angina is a feature
•• Sudden death is a feature
•• Exercise testing is contraindicated in AS
Causes of Aortic Stenosis:
•• Degenerative calcification
•• Bicuspid aortic valve
•• William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis)
•• Postrheumatic disease
•• Subvalvular: HOCM
Management:
•• If asymptomatic, then observe the patient as a general rule
•• If symptomatic, then valve replacement
•• If asymptomatic but valvular gradient > 50 mm Hg and with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, then consider
surgery
•• Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
Aortic Regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation:
Features
•• Early diastolic murmur
•• Collapsing pulse
•• Wide pulse pressure
•• Mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur in severe AR—due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the
regurgitation streams
Causes (due to valve disease)
•• Rheumatic fever
•• Infective endocarditis
•• Connective tissue diseases e.g. RA/SLE
•• Bicuspid aortic valve
Causes (due to aortic root disease)
•• Aortic dissection
•• Spondylarthropathies (e.g. ankylosing spondylitis)
•• Hypertension
•• Syphilis
•• Marfan’s, Ehler-Danlos syndrome
Signs seen in AR
•• Corrigan’s sign Dancing carotids
•• De Musset’s sign Head movements with cardiac pulse
•• Quincke’s sign ↑Capillary pulsations
•• Traube’s sign Pistol shot sounds over femorals
•• Duroziez’s murmur Diastolic murmur over femorals

•• Hill’s sign Femoral-Brachial pulse gradient
•• Lighthouse sign Blanching/flushing of forehead
•• Landolfi’s sign Alternate constriction/dilation of pupil
•• Muller’s sign Uvual pulsations
•• Rosenbach’s sign Liver pulsations
•• Gerhard’s sign Splenic pulsations
•• Lincoln’s sign Pulsating popliteals
•• Mayer’s sign Diastolic drop on raising arm
AR
An 20-year-old male comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. His height is 198 cm. He has long fingers
and toes. Blood pressure is 150/65 mm Hg, and pulse is 66/min. On auscultation, there is a grade 2/6, long, high-frequency
diastolic murmur at the second right intercostal space.
MVP: Floppy Valve Syndrome/Mitral Valve Prolapse

•• Systolic click-murmur syndrome, Barlow’s syndrome, floppy-valve syndrome, and billowing mitral leaflet syndrome
•• Myxomatous degeneration
•• Frequent finding in patients with heritable disorders of connective tissue, including the:
–– Marfan syndrome
–– Osteogenesis imperfecta and the
–– Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
•• MVP is more common in females
•• Most patients are asymptomatic and remain so for their entire lives
•• Chest pain is seen
•• Midsystolic murmur with myxomatous degeneration
•• Sudden death has been noted but is a very rare complication
•• The most important finding is the mid- or late (nonejection) systolic click.
CARDIOMYOPATHIES
HOCM
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a common cause of sudden cardiac death in young patients. It usually causes problems during
exertion. Clues to the diagnosis include: dyspnea, palpitations, bifid apical impulse, coarse systolic murmur at the left sternal border,
and ventricular hypertrophy with asymmetric septal thickening on echocardiogram. Left ventricular outflow obstruction typically
plays an important role in the pathophysiology of this condition. Maneuvers that decrease preload, such as the Valsalva maneuver, will
accentuate the heart murmur because they result in less ventricular filling, contributing to greater outflow obstruction.
HOCM: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is an autosomal dominant disorder of muscle tissue caused by defects in
the genes encoding contractile proteins
Features:
•• Dyspnea, angina, syncope
•• Sudden death (most commonly due to ventricular arrhythmias), arrhythmias, heart failure
•• Jerky pulse
•• Large ‘A’ waves
•• Double apex beat
•• Ejection systolic murmur: Increases with Valsalva maneuver and decreases on squatting
Associations: Friedreich’s ataxia, WPWS
Medicine 49
ECHO:
•• Systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the anterior mitral valve leaflet
•• Asymmetric hypertrophy (ASH)
•• Mitral regurgitation
•• Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) caused by mutations in the myosin heavy chain b gene
•• Udually follows AD inheritance
•• Sudden death is a feature
•• Ejection systolic murmur of HOCM ↑STANDING, ↓Lying down, supine
•• Avoid digoxin
•• Cardiac catheterization shows Banana shaped left biventricular cavity in systole
•• Usual Premature closure of Aortic cusps
•• Predominantly Left ventricular outflow tract gradient.
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Basics:
•• Dilated heart leading to systolic (+/– diastolic) dysfunction
•• All 4 chambers affected but LV more so than RV
•• Features include arrhythmias, emboli, mitral regurgitation
•• Absence of congenital, valvular or ischemic heart disease
Causes:
•• Infections, e.g. coxsackie A and B, HIV, diphtheria, parasitic
•• Endocrine, e.g. hyperthyroidism
•• Infiltrative*, e.g. hemochromatosis, sarcoidosis
•• Neuromuscular, e.g. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia
•• Nutritional, e.g. kwashiorkor, pellagra, thiamine/selenium deficiency
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is the least prevalent form of cardiomyopathy
•• Amyloidosis
•• Hemochromatosis
•• Sarcoidosis and
•• Fabry’s disease
The main hemodynamic consequence of these pathologic states is a rigid, noncompliant chamber with a high-filling pressure
•• Systolic function may deteriorate if compensatory hypertrophy is inadequate to compensate for infiltrated or fibrosed chambers
•• Mural thrombosis and systemic emboli can complicate either the restrictive or obliterative variety
Echocardiography shows normal systolic function
•• The atria are often dilated
•• Myocardial hypertrophy is often seen in restrictive myopathy
•• High atrial pressure with a prominent ‘y’ descent
•• Kussmaul’s sign is seen
•• Normal-sized ventricular cavities with normal or decreased systolic shortening
•• Biopsy can demonstrate endocardial fibrosis and thickening, myocardial infiltration with iron or amyloid or chronic myocardial
fibrosis.
Infective Endocarditis
Infective Endocarditis
•• Patients affected by endocarditis
•• Previously normal valves (50%, typically acute presentation)
•• Rheumatic valve disease (30%)
•• Prosthetic valves
•• Congenital heart defects
•• Intravenous drug users (IVDUs, e.g. typically causing tricuspid lesion)
Causes:
•• Streptococcus viridans (most common cause – 40–50%)
•• Staphylococcus epidermidis (especially prosthetic valves)
•• Janeway’s lesions, (nontender maculopapular lesions in palms/soles)
•• Splinter hemorrhages (NAILS)
•• Roth’s spots seen (RETINA)
LOW RISK:
•• ASD
•• MVP without MR
Atherosclerosis
Risk factors for atherosclerosis:
•• Smoking
•• Hypertension
•• Low HDL, raised apolipoprotein A
•• Familial hypercholesterolemia
•• Familial hypertriglyceridemia
•• Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia
•• Diabetes mellitus
•• Family history
•• Obesity
•• Physical inactivity
Associated with coronary atherosclerosis:
•• CMV
•• Chlamydiae
•• H. pylori
Amino acid associated with atherosclerosis: homocysteine
Medicine 51
ECG Changes seen in Acute Myocardial Infarction

Hyperacute phase:
•• ST elevation
•• Tall T wave
•• Increased ventricular activation time
Fully evolved phase:
•• Pathological Q wave
•• Elevated ST segment
•• Inverted T waves
Old infarct:
•• Pathological Q waves
ECG: Coronary Territories (Infarct areas)

Anteroseptal
•• V1-V4
•• Left anterior descending
Inferior
•• II, III, aVF
•• Right coronary
Anterolateral
•• V4 – 6, I, aVL
•• Left mainstem
Lateral
•• I, aVL +/ – V5 – 6
•• Left circumflex
Posterior
•• Tall R waves V1 – 2
Key Points for the Exam

•• In stable angina enzyme levels are normal
•• Myoglobin is the first to rise
•• CK-MB is useful to look for reinfarction as it returns to normal after 2-3 days (troponin T remains elevated for up to 10 days)
•• CK-MB is raised earlier than other enzymes
•• Troponin is a marker of cardiac infarction
•• Sensitive marker for myocardial infarction is Troponin T
Begins to rise Peak value Returns to normal

Myoglobin 1–2 hours 6–8 hours 1–2 days
CK-MB 2–6 hours 16–20 hours 1–2 days
CK 4–8 hours 16–24 hours 3–4 days
Trop T 4–6 hours 12–24 hours 7–10 days
AST 12–24 hours 36–48 hours 3–4 days
LDH 24–48 hours 72 hours 8–10 days
Sequence of MI
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) Syndrome (ADDITIONAL)

Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome: It is caused by a congenital accessory conducting pathway between the atria and
ventricles leading to an atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). As the accessory pathway does not slow conduction, AF can
degenerate rapidly to VF. Possible ECG features include:
•• Short PR interval
•• Wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke—‘delta wave’
•• Left axis deviation
Differentiating between type A and type B
•• Type A (left-sided pathway): dominant R wave in V1
•• Type B (right-sided pathway): no dominant R wave in V1
Associations of WPW
•• HOCM
•• Mitral valve prolapse
•• Ebstein’s anomaly
•• Thyrotoxicosis
•• Secundum ASD
Management
•• Definitive treatment: radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway
•• Medical therapy: Procainamide flecainide.
•• Eisenmenger’s syndrome
Describes the reversal of a left to right shunt in a congenital heart defect due to pulmonary hypertension associated with:
–– VSD
–– ASD
–– PDA
Features
•• Original murmur may disappear
•• Cyanosis
•• Clubbing
•• Right ventricular failure
•• Hemoptysis, embolism
•• Carey Coombs Murmur: Transient soft mid-diastolic murmur of acute rheumatic fever due to mitral valvulitis
•• Graham Steel Murmur: Early diastolic murmur of Pulmonary Regurgitation
•• Means Murmur: Pulmonary systolic murmur in Thyrotoxicosis
•• Seagull’s Murmur: Aortic regurgitation murmur.
Medicine 53
Mitral Valve Prolapse: (ADDITIONAL)

Usually idiopathic but may be associated with a wide variety of cardiovascular disease. Associations:
•• Congenital heart disease: PDA, ASD
•• Cardiomyopathy
•• Turner’s syndrome
•• Marfan’s syndrome, Fragile X syndrome
•• Osteogenesis imperfecta
•• Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
•• Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
•• Long-QT syndrome
Features
•• Patients may complain of atypical chest pain or palpitations
•• Mid-systolic click (occurs later if patient squatting)
•• Late systolic murmur (longer if patient standing)
•• Complications: mitral regurgitation, arrhythmias (including long QT), emboli, sudden death
Management: Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is only required if mitral regurgitation is present.
Digoxin Toxicity
•• Digoxin toxicity
Features: Generally unwell, lethargy, N/V, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia, VF, VT)
Idioventricular rhythm is a feature:
Precipitating factors
•• Classically: hypokalemia*
•• Myocardial ischemia
•• Hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, acidosis
•• Hypoalbuminemia
•• Hypothermia
•• Hypothyroidism
•• Drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, spironolactone (compete for secretion in distal convoluted tubule, therefore,
reduce excretion)
Management
•• Withdrawal of digitalis, potassium supplements
•• Correct arrhythmias, phenytoin used, digitalis antibody (fab fragments)
•• Monitor K+
Long QT Syndrome (ADDITIONAL)

Long QT syndrome:
Important as it may lead to ventricular tachycardia and can, therefore, cause collapse/sudden death. A normal corrected QT is less than
440 ms
Congenital
•• Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome (includes deafness and is due to an abnormal potassium channel)
•• Romano-Ward syndrome (no deafness)
Drugs
•• Amiodarone
•• Sotalol
•• Class 1a antiarrhythmic drugs
•• Tricyclic antidepressants
•• Chloroquine
•• Terfenadine: A nonsedating antihistamine and classic cause of prolonged QT in a patient, especially if also taking P450 enzyme
inhibitor, e.g. patient with cold takes terfenadine and erythromycin at the same time
Other causes
•• Electrolyte: Hypocalcemia
•• Hypokalemia
•• Hypothermia
•• Acute MI
•• Myocarditis
•• Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Management
•• Beta-blockers
•• Implantable cardioverter defibrillators in high-risk cases.
Acute Pericarditis
Pain, a pericardial friction rub, electrocardiographic changes, and pericardial effusion with cardiac tamponade and paradoxic
pulse are cardinal manifestations:
•• Chest pain is an important but not invariable symptom in various forms of acute pericarditis
•• The pericardial friction rub is the most important physical sign of acute pericarditis; it may have up to three components
per cardiac cycle and is high-pitched, scratching, and grating
•• The electrocardiogram: Widespread elevation of the ST segments, often with upward concavity.
Cardiac Tamponade
The accumulation of fluid in the pericardium in an amount sufficient to cause serious obstruction to the inflow of blood to the ventricles
results in cardiac tamponade
The three most common causes of tamponade are neoplastic disease, idiopathic pericarditis, and uremia. Tamponade may also
result from bleeding into the pericardial space either following cardiac operations and trauma (including cardiac perforation during
diagnostic procedures) or from tuberculosis and hemopericardium. The latter may occur when a patient with any form of acute
pericarditis is treated with anticoagulants
The three principal features of tamponade are:
•• Elevation of intracardiac pressures
•• Limitation of ventricular filling and
•• Reduction of cardiac output
Look for
•• Electrical alternans
•• Pulsus paradoxus
•• JVP↑
•• Prominent x descent
•• Absent y descent
•• Beck’s triad: hypotension, silent heart, ↑JVP
•• Absent Kussmaul’s sign
Medicine 55
Constrictive Pericarditis
•• Right heart failure occurs
•• Raised JVP seen
•• Ascites precox seen
•• Prominent x descent
•• Prominent y descent
•• Thickened pericardium
•• Kussmaul’s sign +
•• Square root sign+
Heart failure
Pericardial Effusion
Pericardial effusion nearly always has the physical characteristics of an exudate:
Bloody fluid is commonly due to:
•• Tuberculosis
•• Tumor
•• Effusion of rheumatic fever
•• Postcardiac injury
•• Postmyocardial infarction (especially following the administration of anticoagulant) and in uremic pericarditis
•• Transmural myocardial infarction
•• Aortic aneurysm dissection
•• Metastasis to pericardium.
A man with fever, dull-aching retrosternal chest pain reported to the emergency. On examination, he was found to show
pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul’s sign and increased jugular venous pressure. His apex beat was impalpable and heart sounds
were muffled. Probable diagnosis is: Pericardial effusion.
HEMATOLOGY
Iron deficiency anemia of long duration is characterized by:
•• Erythroid hyperplasia in bone marrow

•• Normal reticulocyte count
•• Normal WBC count
•• Normal platelet count

•• Microcytosis, hypochromasia, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis in PBF
•• Normoblastic hyperplasia in bone marrow
•• Raised free erythrocyte protoporphyrin
•• Raised transferring receptor levels
Changes in reticulocyte count
Microcytic Anemia
Causes:
•• Iron deficiency
•• Thalassemia
•• Sideroblastic anemia
•• Anemia of chronic disease
•• Lead poisoning
Blood Changes:
•• Hypochromia
•• Microcytosis
•• Poikilocytosis
•• Bone marrow with ↑ normoblasts
•• Microcytic hypochromic anemia not responding to iron is thalassemia usually.
Iron deficency Thalassemia Sideroblastic anemia Chronic anemia

Sr Fe ↓ n n ↓
TIBC ↑ n n ↓
% Saturation ↓ ↑ ↑ ↓
Ferritin ↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
•• Hypochromic microcytic anemia with ↓Sr, Fe, ↑TIBC: Iron deficiency anemia
•• Hypochromic microcytic anemia with ↓Sr, Fe, ↓TIBC: Anemia of chronic disease
•• ↓ Sr Ferritin is the early indicator of iron deficiency
Paterson-Kelly Syndrome is Characterized

•• Koilonychia
•• Microcytic hypochromic anemia
•• Iron-deficiency anemia
Medicine 57
Megaloblastic Anemia
Causes:
•• Liver diseases
•• Orotic aciduria
•• Thiamine deficiency
•• B12 deficiency
•• Folic acid deficiency
•• Hemodialysis
•• Fish tapeworm infestation
•• Drugs: Phenytoin, primidone, nitrous oxide, phenobarbitone, folate antagonists.
Hematological findings
•• Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count and hemoglobin levels
•• Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV, >95 fl) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
•• Normal mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC, 32–36 g/dL)
•• The reticulocyte count is decreased due to destruction of fragile and abnormal megaloblastic erythroid precursor
•• The platelet count may be reduced
•• Neutrophil granulocytes may show multisegmented nuclei (senile neutrophil). This is thought to be due to decreased production
and a compensatory prolonged lifespan for circulating neutrophils, which increase number of nuclear segments with age
•• Anisocytosis (increased variation in RBC size) and poikilocytosis (abnormally shaped RBCs)
•• Macrocytes (larger than normal RBCs) are present
•• Howell-Jolly bodies (chromosomal remnant) also present
•• Pancytopenia can also occur.
Blood chemistries will also show:

•• Increased homocysteine and methylmalonic acid in B12 deficiency
•• Increased homocysteine in folate deficiency
•• Normal levels of both methylmalonic acid and total homocysteine rule out clinically significant cobalamin deficiency with
virtual certainty
Bone marrow shows
•• (Not normally checked in a patient suspected of megaloblastic anemia) megaloblastic hyperplasia
•• Increased stainable iron
•• Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
•• Large megakaryocytes
Possible associated neurological findings: Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord and its symptoms may be present due
to demyelination secondary to deficiency of vitamin B12.
Tongue in Megaloblastic Anemia

•• Large (macroglossia)
•• Atrophic glossitis (loss of papillae)
•• Red patches and red lines on ventral surface (Moeller’s glossitis)
•• Sore
•• Angular cheilitis and ulcers
Folate Deficiency
It is commonly seen in alcoholics (poor intake) and pregnant women (increased need). All women of reproductive age should
take folate supplements to prevent neural tube defects in their offspring. Rare causes of folate deficiency include poor diet (e.g.
tea and toast), methotrexate, prolonged therapy with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, anticonvulsant therapy (especially
phenytoin), and malabsorption. Look for macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils (either one should make you think of
the diagnosis) with no neurologic symptoms or signs and low folate levels in serum or red blood cells. Treat with oral folate.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 53-year-old woman from New York is being treated for long-standing severe rheumatoid arthritis. Screening blood studies
demonstrate anemia with a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL. The patient’s nutritional status is good, and the clinician suspects
she has anemia of chronic disease. Which of the following erythrocyte findings would be most likely to be seen on peripheral
blood smear?
1. All normal morphology
2. Macrocytes
3. Numerous spherocytes
4. Target cells
5. Tear drop forms
6. Siderroblasts
7. Spherocytes
Ans. 1. All normal morphology
The anemia of chronic disease is seen in patients with underlying severe chronic disorders, such as infections, inflammatory
diseases (such as this patient’s rheumatoid arthritis), and cancers. The anemia is usually initially normocytic but may, with
time, become microcytic.
Hemolytic Anemias: By Site

In intravascular hemolysis, free hemoglobin is released which binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, hemoglobin
binds to albumin forming methemalbumin (detected by Schumm’s test). Free hemoglobin is excreted in the urine as hemoglobinuria,
hemosiderinuria.
Intravascular Hemolysis: Causes

•• Mismatched blood transfusion
•• G6PD deficiency
•• Red-cell fragmentation: Heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS
•• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
•• Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Extravascular Hemolysis: Causes

•• Hemoglobinopathies: Sickle-cell, Thalassemia
•• Hereditary spherocytosis
•• Hemolytic disease of newborn
•• Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Medicine 59
Features of Hemolytic Anemia

•• Increased reticulocyte count
•• Increased serum lactate dehydrogenase level
•• Decreased serum haptoglobin level
•• Increased serum unconjugated bilirubin
•• Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in SLE
Features of Hemolysis
•• Elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
•• Elevated bilirubin (unconjugated as well as conjugated if the liver is functioning)
•• Jaundice
•• Low or absent haptoglobin (intravascular hemolysis only)
•• Urobilinogen, bilirubin, and hemoglobin in urine (only conjugated bilirubin shows up in the urine, and hemoglobin shows
up in the urine only when haptoglobin has been saturated, as in brisk intravascular hemolysis).
Sickle-cell Crises
•• AR condition
•• Glutamine-valine change
TO BE EXACT: Replacement of glutamate by valine at position 6 beta chain of Hb A
Features:
•• Bone pain commonest. (acute presentation)
•• Pulmonary HTN
•• Cardiomegaly
•• Fish mouth vertebrae
•• Osteomyelitis, priaprism, renal pappilary necrosis
–– Hemosidenuria
–– ↑LDH
–– ↑unconjugated bilirubin
–– ↓haptoglobin
–– Leucocytosis
–– Target cells seen
•• Autosplenectomy
•• Crewcut hair skull along with thalassemia
•• Improved with Hb F
Four Main Types of Crises are recognized

•• Thrombotic ‘painful crises’
•• Sequestration
•• Aplastic
•• Hemolytic
Thrombotic crises
•• Also known as ‘painful crises’ or ‘vaso-occlusive crises’
•• Precipitated by infection, dehydration, deoxygenation
•• Infarcts occur in various organs including the bones (e.g. avascular necrosis of hip, hand-foot syndrome in children, lungs, spleen
and brain
Sequestration crises
•• Sickling within organs such as the spleen or lungs causes pooling of blood with worsening of the anemia
•• Acute chest syndrome: Dyspnea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates, low pO2—the most common cause of death after childhood
Aplastic crises
•• Caused by infection with parvovirus
•• Sudden fall in hemoglobin
Hemolytic crises
•• Rare
•• Fall in hemoglobin due an increased rate of hemolysis
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-year-old African-American woman with sickle-cell disease is brought to the Medical OPD because she is having some
respiratory problems. About 8 days before the visit, she developed a low-grade fever of 101.6 °F with complaints of generalized
body aches, loss of appetite. Her mother noticed development of a rash that has since disappeared. Laboratory studies show:
A peripheral blood smear shows no evidence of any erythroid precursor. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
1. Chlamydia
2. EBV
3. CMV
4. Neisseria
5. Parvovirus
6. Streptococcus
7. Staphylococcus
Medicine 61
Ans. 5. Parvovirus
This patient is presenting with aplastic crisis, organism is parvovirus B19, a virus implicated in erythema infectiosum (fifth
disease). The virus causes a transient red cell aplasia; bone marrow often shows lack of erythroid precursors.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old black man comes to the New York Emergency complaining of a few hour’s history of bilateral knee pain and a
severe painful erection. He had a similar episode two-and-a-half years ago. He has no nausea, vomiting or fever and his vital
signs are within normal limits. After receiving treatment with oxygen and intravenous fluids, his symptoms resolve and he is
discharged home. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Osteoarthritis
2. Gonococcal infection
3. Leukemia
4. Sickle-cell disease
5. Traumatic injury
Ans. 4. Sickle-cell disease
It is the likely cause of this patient’s unusual combination of symptoms
USMLE High Yield

Patients with sickle-cell anemia are at risk for pain crises when they are exposed to cold, have infection, become dehydrated
or are under severe stress resulting in oxygen deprivation. Pain occurs due to occlusion of small vessels by the sickle-shaped
cells. Although pain may be felt anywhere, more common sites include the bones, joints, and abdomen. Men may present
with priapism (a persistent, painful erection unrelated to sexual activity or excitement). Treatment is largely symptomatic and
supportive.
Applications of Gene Therapy

•• SCID
•• GH deficiency
•• Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
•• Parkinsonism, Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s chorea, Gaucher’s disease
•• Stroke, head injury, multiple sclerosis
•• Anemia, sickle-cell anemia
•• Hemophilia, HIV
•• Cancers
Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency G6PD

•• It is X-linked recessive
•• Causes episodic hemolytic anemia because of decreased ability of RBCs to withstand oxidative stress
•• G6PD is the first and rate-limiting step of HMP shunt responsible for NADPH production
•• NADPH is the cofactor for production for glutathione reductase forming reduced glutathione which is a potent antioxidant
•• In its absence, H2O2 accumulates in RBC causing cell membrane damage leading to hemolysis
•• Pallor, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, Heinz bodies, bite cells are seen
•• Oxidized hemoglobin denatures and precipitates in the form of Heinz bodies
•• Agents implicated:
–– Primaquine
–– Chloroquine
–– Dapsone
–– Nitrofurantoin
–– Nalidixic acid
Hereditary Spherocytosis
•• Primary abnormality in the cytoskeletal proteins that form RBC membrane
•• Cytoskeletal proteins: maintain RBC shape, strength and flexibility
Structure of RBC Membrane

•• Lipid bilayer
•• Proteins: Stabilize lipid bilayer
•• Spectrin: Major protein, inner surface of cell membrane
•• Ankyrin: ‘Anchors’ spectrin to transmembrane proteins
•• Spherical RBC due to a molecular defect in one of the proteins in the cytoskeleton of the RBC membrane, leading to a loss of
membrane
•• Decreased ratio of surface area to volume
•• Usually has an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
•• The major clinical features of hereditary spherocytosis are anemia, splenomegaly, and jaundice
•• Assessed by measurement of the osmotic fragility of the RBC (↑)
•• Aplastic crisis is triggered by parvovirus
•• About 50% of patients have a defect in ankyrin, the protein that forms a bridge between protein 3 and spectrin
•• A mutation of protein 3, resulting in a deficiency of that protein and mild anemia with dominant inheritance
•• Mutations of spectrin, leading to impaired synthesis or self-association
•• Paladin defect
•• Splenectomy is curative
Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis: This condition results from a deficiency of spectrin and an abnormality of spectrin self-assembly.
Hemolysis is usually severe, is recognized in childhood, and is partially responsive to splenectomy
Hereditary stomatocytosis: Stomatocytes are cup-shaped RBCs (concave on one face and convex on the other).
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is an acquired disorder leading to hemolysis (mainly intravascular) of hematological
cells (STEM CELL DEFECT).
•• It is thought to be caused by increased sensitivity of cell membranes to complement due to a lack of glycoprotein
glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI).
•• Patients are more prone to venous thrombosis. GPI can be thought of as an anchor which attaches surface proteins to the cell
membrane complement-regulating surface proteins, e.g. decay-accelerating factor (DAF) are not properly bound to the cell
membrane due a lack of GPI.
Features
•• Hemolytic anemia
•• Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets or stem cells may be affected: Therefore, pancytopenia may be present
•• Hemoglobinuria: Classically dark-colored urine in the morning (although has been shown to occur throughout the day)
•• Thrombosis, e.g. Budd-Chiari syndrome/Thrombocytopenia
•• Aplastic anemia may develop in some patients
Medicine 63
•• ↓LAP score
•• Hypercellular marrow
Diagnosis: Ham test: Acid-induced hemolysis (normal red cells wouldn’t)
Management: Blood product replacement, anticoagulation, stem cell transplantation
HAM test is a complement-based test
Analysis of GPI-linked proteins is used as a diagnostic test.
The LAP Score

It is a semiquantitative cytochemical assessment of alkaline phosphatase in neutrophils. The LAP score is based on staining intensity,
with a possible score of 0-400. It differentiates chronic myeloid leukemia (low) from reactive leucocytosis (high), e.g. bacterial
infection. It may assist in the differentiation of polycythemia rubra vera (high) from other causes of erythrocytosis (normal)
Sideroblastic Anemia
•• Red cells contain abnormal iron granules in the mitochondria around the nucleus: ring sideroblasts
•• Peripheral blood cells are hypochromic whilst increased marrow iron
•• High or normal transferrin saturation, ↑Serum ferritin, ↑Sr iron
•• May be congenital or acquired
•• Congenital cause: Delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency
Acquired causes
•• Myelodysplasia
•• Alcohol
•• Lead
•• Anti-TB medications
Investigations
•• Hypochromic microcytic anemia (more so in congenital)
•• Bone marrow: Sideroblasts and increased iron store
•• Management: Supportive, pyridoxine may help.
Pyridoxine-responsive conditions
Homocystinuria
Oxaluria
Xanthinuria
Convulsions
Pyridoxine response +ve
Pernicious Anemia
Deficiency of intrinsic factor of Castle:
•• Antigastric parietal cell antibodies in 90%
•• Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies in 50%
•• Macrocytic anemia: Low WCC and platelets
•• LDH may be raised due to ineffective erythropoiesis
•• Also low-serum B12, hypersegmented polymorphs on film, megaloblasts in marrow
•• Schilling test
Remember
•• Uremia •• Burr cells are seen
•• G6PD deficiency •• Bite cells
•• Helmet cells •• Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
•• Cirrhosis •• Spur cells are seen
•• Iron depletion •• Seen in iron-deficiency anemia, polycythemia vera
•• Thalassemia minor •• Decreased osmolysis, microcytic hypochromic anemia, increased HbA2.
•• Sickle-cell anemia •• Tactoids and sickling seen
•• Acquired spherocytosis •• Schistocytes present, Coombs positive
•• Hereditary spherocytosis •• Coombs negative
•• Aplastic anemia •• Platelets maximum affected and last to recover, pancytopenia present
•• Pernicious anemia and folate deficiency •• Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, fragmented RBCs, neutrophil lobes increased,
anemia platelets normal. Absolute reticulocyte count low.
•• Sideroblastic anemia •• Ring sideroblasts present (These are iron granules in mitochondria
around the nucleus), microcytic, hypochromic RBCs, macrocytic hypo- or
normochromic RBCs
Autoimmune gastritis causes a lack of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb vitamin B12. Autoantibodies that are often present include
those directed against the microsomal fraction of parietal cells and those capable of neutralizing intrinsic factor.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 77-year-old woman has a four-month history of weight loss, burning sensation of the tongue, fatigue, anorexia, and poorly
localized abdominal pain. The woman appears pale to the physician. Intraoffice hematocrit is 25% with peripheral smear
showing large erythrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils. Serum folate is 2.6 ng/ml (normal greater that 1.9 ng/ml) and
serum vitamin B12 is 111 pg/ml (normal 200–800 pg/ml). Stomach biopsy demonstrates chronic gastritis.
Pan Cytopenia is seen in

•• Hypoplastic anemia
•• Megaloblastic anemia
•• PNH
Polycythemia Rubra Vera

Polycythemia rubra vera is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of a marrow stem cell leading to an increase
in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade, with
typical features including:
•• Hyperviscosity (thrombosis)
•• Even bleeding as well
•• Pruritus
•• Splenomegaly
•• Normal erythropoietin levels
–– ↑LAP score
–– ↑Vitamin B12 levels
•• Management
Medicine 65
•• Venesection—first-line treatment
•• Hydroxyurea-slight increased risk of secondary leukemia
•• Phosphorus-32 therapy
•• Prognosis
•• Progress to myelofibrosis
•• Progress to acute leukemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old lady from Texas is investigated for recurrent episodes of gouty arthritis. On examination, she looked plethoric
and has a 6 cm splenomegaly. She has the following results:
Hb 19.45 gm/dl
Hct 0.632
Platelet count 466 x 109/l
ESR 2 mm/1st hour
Coagulation screen normal
AST normal
ALT normal
BUN normal
Creatinine normal
Most likely diagnosis is: Polycythemia
Myelophthisic Anemia
It is due to a space-occupying lesion in the bone marrow. The common causes are malignant invasion that destroys bone
marrow (most common) and myelodysplasia or myelofibrosis. On the peripheral smear, look for marked anisocytosis (different
size), poikilocytosis (different shape), nucleated red blood cells, giant and/or bizarre-looking platelets, and teardrop-shaped
red blood cells. A bone marrow biopsy may reveal no cells (‘dry tap’ if the marrow is fibrotic) or malignant-looking cells.
Tumors Associated with Polycythemia

•• Hypernephroma
•• Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
•• Hepatoma
•• Fibroid (uterine)
•• Pheochromocytoma
•• Meningioma
•• Adrenal adenoma
Thrombocytopenia
Causes of ‘severe’ thrombocytopenia:
•• ITP
•• DIC
•• TTP
•• Hematological malignancy
Causes of ‘moderate’ thrombocytopenia:
•• Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
•• Drug-induced, (e.g. quinine, diuretics, sulphonamides, aspirin, thiazides)
•• Alcohol
•• Liver disease
•• Hypersplenism
•• Viral infection (EBV, HIV, hepatitis)
•• Pregnancy
•• SLE/antiphospholipid syndrome
•• B12 deficiency
•• Hess’ (tourniquet) test is used for ITP
Hemophilia
•• Decreased VIII level
•• Increased PTT
•• Bleeding into soft tissue
•• Anti-factor VIII antibodies are seen in hemophilia who have received infusion of plasma concentrates
Coagulation Defects
•• Hemophilia A Deficiency of factor VIII C
•• Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) Deficiency of factor IX (X-linked)
•• Hemophilia C Deficiency of factor XI (autosomal inherited defect)
•• Parahemophilia Deficiency of factor V
•• von Willebrand’s disease Deficiency of v WF along with VIII C
von Willebrand’s Disease

•• von Willebrand’s disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder
•• It is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion and
•• Characteristically behaves like a platelet disorder, i.e. epistaxis and menorrhagia are common whilst hemoarthroses and muscle
hematomas are rare
Role of von Willebrand Factor:
•• Large glycoprotein which forms massive multimers up to 1,000,000 Da in size
•• Promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium
•• Carrier molecule for factor VIII
Types
•• Type 1: partial reduction in vW
•• Type 2: abnormal form of vW
•• Type 3: total lack of vWF
Investigation
•• Prolonged bleeding time
•• APTT may be prolonged
•• Factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced
•• Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin
•• Normal PT
Management
•• Tranexamic acid for mild bleeding
•• DDAVP: raises levels of vWF by inducing release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells
•• Factor VIII concentrate
•• Cryoprecipitate is used to treat.
Medicine 67
Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation—Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation (RIPA) measures the affinity with which vWF
binds to the platelet receptor GP Ib by limiting the concentration of ristocetin in the assay. It is used primarily to look for the type 2B
variant of vWF which has mutations in the binding site for GP Ib such that the type 2B vWF binds to GP Ib more readily than normal.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-month-old fell from a staircase while learning to walk. The toddler has an enlarging, swollen bruise on his forehead,
which is now over 5 cm across and increasing in size. A blood sample is drawn, and the child oozes blood at the puncture site
for 25 minutes. Clotting studies on the blood sample show a prolonged PTT and a normal PT. Follow-up studies show very low
levels of factor VIII. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
2. Hemophilia B
3. Hyperhomocysteinemia
4. von Willebrand disease
Ans. 2 Hemophilia B
Hemophilia
•• It is an X-linked clotting disorder that occurs in two forms:
–– Hemophilia A due to deficient factor VIII and
–– Hemophilia B due to deficient factor IX
•• Some individuals with hemophilia have levels of these factors that are 5% of normalor even higher, and have relatively
mild disease, only requiring replacement therapy during surgical procedures or other situations in which significant
bleeding might occur
•• In contrast, individuals with factor levels less than 1% of normal have severe bleeding problems throughout life that
usually become apparent by 18 months of age. In these individuals, excessive bleeding into joints and tissues may cause
crippling musculoskeletal disorders.
von Willebrand’s Disease (NUTSHELL)

•• von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant disease
•• von Willebrand’s disease is the commonest hereditary bleeding disorder
•• von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by platelet adhesion defect
•• Postoperative traumatic or mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, menorrhagia common
•• Hemarthosis or muscle hematomas are rare
•• Increased BT and increased PTT are findings
•• A vWF (von Willebrand’s factor) level which is synthesized in platelets is low
•• Treatment: Factor VIII cryoprecipitate, vasopressin
Factor V Leiden Mutation

In the normal person, factor V functions as a cofactor to allow factor X to activate an enzyme called thrombin. Thrombin in turn cleaves
fibrinogen to fibrin, which polymerizes to form the dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. Activated protein C (aPC) is
a natural anticoagulant that acts to limit the extent of clotting by cleaving and degrading factor V
•• Factor V Leiden mutation is an autosomal dominant condition
•• The gene that codes the protein is referred to as F5
•• As a missense substitution, it changes a protein’s amino acid from arginine to glutamine
•• When factor V remains active, it facilitates overproduction of thrombin leading to excess fibrin generation and excess clotting
•• The excessive clotting that occurs in this disorder is almost always restricted to the veins, where the clotting may cause a deep
vein thrombosis (DVT). If the venous clots break off, these clots can travel through the heart to the lung, where they block a
pulmonary blood vessel and cause a pulmonary embolism
•• Women with the disorder have an increased risk of miscarriage and stillbirth. It is extremely rare for this disorder to cause the
formation of clots in arteries that can lead to stroke or heart attack, though a ‘mini-stroke’, known as a transient ischemic attack, is
more common.
Genetical Hypercoagulable States

•• Factor V Leiden Mutation (Most Common)
•• Antithrombin III Deficiency
•• Protein C and Protein S Deficiency
•• Homocysteinemia
•• Defects in fibrinolysis
Parameters in Different Disorders (Bleeding)

•• von Willebrand’s disease ↑BT ↑PTT
•• Liver failure ↑PT ↑PTT
•• Heparin ↑PTT
•• Warfarin ↑PT
•• Scurvy ↑N
•• ITP ↑BT ↓Platelets
•• TTP ↑BT ↓Platelets
Antiphospholipid Syndrome
Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired disorder characterized by a predisposition to both venous and arterial thromboses,
recurrent fetal loss and thrombocytopenia. It may occur as primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, most commonly
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
A key point for the exam is to appreciate that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical rise in the APTT. This is due to an ex-
vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade
Features: Can be asymptomatic
•• Venous/arterial thrombosis NOT BLEEDING
•• Recurrent fetal loss (2nd trimester abortions)
•• Livedo reticularis
•• Prolonged APTT
•• Other features: preeclampsia, pulmonary hypertension
•• Not Bleeding Disorder
Leukemoid Reaction
The leukemoid reaction describes the presence of immature cells, such as myeloblasts, promyelocytes and nucleated red cells in the
peripheral blood. This may be due to infiltration of the bone marrow causing the immature cells to be ‘pushed out’ or sudden demand
for new cells
Causes:
•• Severe infection
•• Severe hemolysis
•• Massive hemorrhage
•• Metastatic cancer with bone marrow infiltration
Medicine 69
A relatively common clinical problem is differentiating chronic myeloid leukemia from a leukemoid reaction. The following differences
may help:
Leukemoid reaction:
•• High leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score
•• Toxic granulation (DÖhle bodies) in the white cells
•• ‘Left shift’ of neutrophils, i.e. three or less segments of the nucleus
Chronic myeloid leukemia
•• Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 70-year-old retired male from Washington complains of chronic fatigue. On examination, the patient is noted to have
Lymphadenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Laboratory examination reveals a white blood cell count of 29,000/µl
with 96% lymphocytes; the lymphocytes appear small and mature. Both the hematocrit and platelet counts are within normal
limits. The likely diagnosis is:
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is typically a disease of the elderly.
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

It is typically a disease of the elderly, with most of the cases occurring after the age of 50; the median age is 65. Patients will typically
present with a complaint of chronic fatigue and/or lymphadenopathy. Approximately, half of all the patients with CLL present with an
enlarged liver and/or spleen. CLL typically pursues an indolent course but can occasionally present as a rapidly progressive disease.
The hallmark of CLL is the isolated lymphocytosis in which the white blood cell count is usually greater than 20,000/ml and between
75% and 98% of the circulating cells are small ‘mature’ lymphocytes.
Blood Transfusion Complications

Hemolytic: Immediate or delayed
•• Febrile reactions
•• Transmission of viruses, bacteria, parasites
•• Hyperkalemia, citrate toxicity
•• Iron overload
•• ARDS
•• Clotting abnormalities
Immediate hemolytic reaction
•• For example, ABO mismatch
•• Massive intravascular hemolysis
Febrile reactions
•• Due to white blood cell HLA antibodies
•• Often the result of sensitization by previous pregnancies or transfusions
Causes a degree of immunosuppression
•• Patients with colorectal cancer who have blood transfusions have a worse outcome than those who do not.
Others:
•• ARDS
•• Hypothermia
•• In nonmismatch blood transfusion reaction, direct Coombs test should be done.
Viruses Transmitted by Blood Transfusion

•• Hepatitis B
•• Hepatitis C
•• Hepatitis G
•• HIV type I
•• HTLV type I
•• CMV
•• Parvovirus B19
Thrombophilia
Inherited
•• Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden)
•• Antithrombin III deficiency
•• Protein C deficiency
•• Protein S deficiency
Acquired
•• Antiphospholipid syndrome
•• OCP
ITP (Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)

In many cases, the cause is not actually idiopathic but autoimmune, with antibodies against platelets being detected in approximately
60 percent of patients
Most often these antibodies are against platelet membrane glycoproteins IIb-IIIa or Ib-IX, and are of the IgG type
•• The diagnosis of ITP is a process of exclusion
•• In approximately one percent of the cases, autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenic purpura coexist, a
condition called ‘Evans syndrome’
•• Bleeding time is prolonged in ITP patients
•• On examination of the bone marrow, an increase in the production of megakaryocytes may be observed and may help in
establishing a diagnosis of ITP.
DIFFERENTIATE ITP FROM TTP AND HUS

TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)
There is widespread formation of platelet thrombi
‘Pentad of signs’ is:
•• Fever
•• Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
•• Neurological symptoms
Lab features:
•• Decreased platelet count and increased bleeding time
•• Normal PT and PTT
•• Normal complement.
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HUS: (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)

It is a complication of the Shiga toxin or Shiga-like toxin: exotoxins released by Shigella species and the enterohemorrhagic E. coli.
HUS in children usually develops after a gastrointestinal or flu-like illness, and is characterized by bleeding, oliguria and hematuria,
and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Presumably the Shiga toxin is toxic to the microvasculature, producing microthrombi that
consume platelets and RBCs, and may fragment the red cell membrane.
•• Occurs most commonly in children

•• Follows gastroenteritis
•• Pentad similar to TTP seen
•• Verocytotoxin producing E. coli 0157: H7 is most commonly encountered
Some Specific Splenomegalic Syndromes

•• Myeloproliferative disorders include:
–– Polycythemia vera
–– Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
–– Chronic myelogenous leukemia and
–– Essential thrombocythemia
•• Lymphoproliferative disorders: The spleen is enlarged in chronic lymphocytic leukemia and the lymphomas (including
Hodgkin’s disease)
•• Lipid storage diseases: Glucocerebroside (in Gaucher’s disease) or sphingomyelin (in Niemann-Pick disease) may accumulate
in the spleen
•• Collagen vascular disorders: In both SLE and RA, splenomegaly and leukopenia may coexist. In the latter, often termed Felty’s
syndrome, neutropenia may be severe and associated with frequent infections.
Congestive splenomegaly (Banti’s syndrome): Chronically increased splenic venous pressure may result from hepatic cirrhosis,
portal or splenic vein thrombosis, or certain malformations of the portal venous vasculature. Associated bleeding from esophageal
varices may be worsened by the superimposed thrombocytopenia induced by splenomegaly.
Common Translocations associated with Hematological Malignancies

t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome
•• Present in > 95% of patients with CML
•• This results in part of the Abelson proto-oncogene being moved to the BCR gene on chromosome 22
•• The resulting BCR-ABL gene codes for a fusion protein which has tyrosine kinase activity in excess of normal
•• Poor prognostic indicator in ALL
t(15;17)
•• Seen in acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
•• Fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes
t(8;14)
•• Seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma
•• MYC oncogene is translocated to an immunoglobulin gene
t(11;14)
•• Mantle cell lymphoma
•• Deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene
Hodgkin’s Disease
•• Bi modal age distribution (late 20 years and after 50 years)
•• The commonest presentation of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is painless enlargement of lymph nodes
•• Prognosis is directly proportional to number of RS cells and inversely proportional to number of lymphocytes
•• Spread is to be contigious to adjacent lymph nodes
•• Extranodal spread is uncommon
•• EBV is causative in some cases
•• Malignant cell is Reed-Sternberg Cell. (Owl-eyed, bilobed nucleus with prominent nucleoli)
•• RS cells are positive for CD 15 and CD 30. (Except lymphocyte predominant)
•• CNS involvement is uncommon
•• Cerebellar degeneration is seen in HD (anti-Tr antibodies)
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterized by the presence of the Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a
bimodal age distributions being most common in the third and seventh decades
Ann-Arbor Staging of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

•• I: Single lymph node
•• II: 2 or more lymph nodes/regions on same side of diaphragm
•• III: Nodes on both sides of diaphragm
Each Stage May be Subdivided into A or B

•• A = No systemic symptoms other than pruritus
•• B = Weight loss > 10% in last 6 months, fever > 38 °C, night sweats (poor prognosis)
Nodular sclerosing CHL

It is the most common subtype and is composed of large tumor nodules showing scattered lacunar classical RS cells set in a background
of reactive lymphocytes, eosinophils and plasma cells with varying degrees of collagen fibrosis/sclerosis
•• Most common type in females
•• Mediastinal involvement common
•• Lacunar cell present
Mixed-cellularity subtype
It is a common subtype and is composed of numerous classic RS cells admixed with numerous inflammatory cells including
lymphocytes, histiocytes, eosinophils, and plasma cells without sclerosis. This type is most often associated with EBV infection and
may be confused with the early, so-called ‘cellular’ phase of nodular sclerosing CHL
MC type in India
Lymphocyte-rich
It is a rare subtype, shows many features which may cause diagnostic confusion with nodular lymphocyte predominant
B-cell
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (B-NHL)
‘Popcorn cells’ are a feature of this type
Lymphocyte-depleted
It is a rare subtype, composed of large number of often pleomorphic RS cells with only few reactive lymphocytes which may easily
be confused with diffuse large cell lymphoma. Many cases previously classified within this category would now be reclassified under
anaplastic large cell lymphoma.
Lymphocyte predominant is considered a histogenetically different subtype. CD 15 –, CD 30 –, CD 45+

Popcorn cells are seen in this variety
Best prognosis
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Burkitt’s lymphoma
This type of lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell lymphoma that occurs in endemic form in and sporadically in the United States and
Europe. The sporadic form is often in an abdominal site and occurs in young adults. The African form of Burkitt’s lymphoma has been
strongly associated with antibodies directed against Epstein-Barr virus; the association is weaker in sporadic cases. A characteristic
translocation, t(8;14) (q24.l3;q32.33) has been described.
Hairy Cell Leukemia

Hairy cell leukemia is a rare malignant proliferation disorder of B cells
•• Express CD 19, 20, CD 11, CD 25
•• CD 103 is exclusive
•• It is more common in males (4:1)
Features:
•• Pancytopenia
•• Splenomegaly
•• Skin vasculitis in 1/3rd patients
•• ‘Dry tap’ despite bone marrow hypercellularity
•• Tartrate-resistant acid phosphotase (TRAP) stain positive
•• Cladribine is DOC
•• Pentostatin and interferon alpha are also used
•• Hairy cell leukemia: CD 103+

•• Mantle cell lymphoma: CD5+, CD103–
•• CLL: CD 23+
•• Apoptosis: CD95+
Mantle Cell Lymphoma

•• Painless lymphadenopathy
•• Splenomegaly
•• Occasional GI involvement
•• CD5+, CD23 –. CD10 –, CD 19+, CD 79 b+
•• t (11 – 14) translocation
•• Popcorn type of Reed Sternberg cell is seen in: Lymphocyte-predominant type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma
•• ABVD and MOPP Regimes are used in Hodgkin’s lymphoma
•• B-cell lymphomas are hairy cell leukemia, mantle cell lymphoma, Burkitt’s Lymphoma
•• HTLV 1 is associated with Adult T cell lymphoma
•• IgA lymphoma involves stomach
Blood Films: Typical Pictures

Hyposplenism, e.g. postsplenectomy Iron-deficiency anemia Myelofibrosis Megaloblastic anemia
•• Target cells •• Target cells •• ‘Tear-drop’ •• Hypersegmented
•• Howell-Jolly bodies •• ‘Pencil’ poikilocytes poikilocytes neutrophils
•• Cabot’s rings •• If combined with B12/folate
•• Siderotic granules deficiency, a ‘Dimorphic’ film
•• Acanthocytes occurs with mixed microcytic
and macrocytic cells
•• Schizocytes
Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP)

Raised In Low In
•• Myelofibrosis •• Chronic myeloid leukemia
•• Leukemoid reactions •• Pernicious anemia
•• Polycythemia rubra vera •• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
•• Infections •• Infectious mononucleosis
•• Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
•• Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill
Castleman’s disease, which can present with localized or disseminated lymphadenopathy; some patients have systemic symptoms. The
disseminated form is often accompanied by anemia and polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia, and the condition seems to be related to
an overproduction of interleukin 6, possibly produced by human herpesvirus 8.
Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy (Rosai-Dorfman’s disease) usually presents with bulky lymphadenopathy in
children or young adults. The disease is usually nonprogressive and self-limited, but patients can manifest autoimmune hemolytic
anemia.
Lymphomatoid papulosis is a cutaneous lymphoproliferative disorder that is often confused with anaplastic large-cell lymphoma
involving the skin. The cells of lymphomatoid papulosis are similar to those seen in lymphoma and stain for CD30, and T cell receptor
gene rearrangements are sometimes seen. However, the condition is characterized by waxing and waning skin lesions that usually
heal, leaving small scars.
Cat Scratch Disease

Typical Cat Scratch Disease presents with Painful Regional Lymphadenopathy persisting for weeks to months after a cat scratch
Only occasionally a generalized lymphadenopathy may occur
Tender Regional Lymphadenopathy occurs in 1–2 weeks after inoculation
Epitrochlear, axillary, pectoral and cervical lymph nodes may be affected
Lymph nodes become suppurative occasionally
Lymphadenopathy persists for weeks.
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Takayasu’s Arteritis
•• Also called ‘Pulseless Disease’ or ‘Aortic Arch Syndrome’
•• It is a vasculitis common in Asia, especially in young and middle-aged females, affecting medium to large size arteries including
aorta and its branches.
•• Characterized by granulomatous inflammation leading to arterial thrombosis, stenosis or aneurysm.
•• Clinical features are:
–– Aortic involvement with palpable purpura and panarteritis
–– Loss of pulse in upper extremities, (radial pulse not felt)
–– Systemic features: fever, weight loss, arthalgias, fatigue
–– Anemia and increased ESR
–– Visual loss or field defects, retinal hemorrhages
–– Neurological abnormalities like headache, pulsating chest pain, hypertension
Treatment is by steroids (Drug of choice)
Polyarteritis Nodosa and Microscopic Polyangiitis

•• ‘Necrotizing vasculitis’ of small- and medium-sized muscular arteries in which involvement of the renal and visceral arteries
is characteristic
•• Intimal proliferation is a feature
•• Classic PAN does not involve pulmonary arteries
•• Preceded by history of asthma
•• The microscopic polyangiitis (microscopic polyarteritis) connot a necrotizing vasculitis with few or no immune complexes
(pauci-immune) affecting small vessels (capillaries, venules, or arterioles). Since necrotizing arteritis involving small- and
medium-sized arteries may also be present, it shares features with classic PAN except that glomerulonephritis is very common
(90%) in microscopic polyangiitis, and pulmonary capillaritis often occurs
•• Multiple organ systems are involved
•• Skin involvement: livedo reticularis, hyperpigmentation
•• The pathology in the kidney in classic PAN is predominantly that of arteritis without glomerulonephritis
•• The presence of hepatitis B antigenemia in approximately 20 to 30% of patients with systemic vasculitis
•• Hypergammaglobulinemia may be present, and up to 30% of patients have a positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen
•• Positive ANCA titers (usually of the p-ANCA type) are found in a low percentage (< 20%) of patients with classic PAN
•• Microscopic polyangiitis is strongly associated with ANCA that are usually of the p-ANCA type, but c-ANCA have also been
reported
•• The diagnosis of classic PAN is based on the demonstration of characteristic findings of vasculitis on biopsy
Kawasaki Disease
•• Kawasaki disease (also known as ‘lymph node syndrome’, ‘mucocutaneous node disease’, ‘infantile polyarteritis’)
•• Kawasaki disease is an inflammation (vasculitis) of the middle-sized arteries
•• Kawasaki disease affects many organs, including the skin, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, and blood vessel walls, but the
‘most serious’ ‘effect is on the heart where it can cause ‘severe aneurysmal dilations’
Classically, five days of fever plus four of five ‘diagnostic criteria’ must be met in order to establish the diagnosis
The criteria are:
•• Erythema of the lips or oral cavity or cracking of the lips
•• Rash
•• Swelling or erythema of the hands or feet
•• Red eyes (conjunctival injection)
•• Swollen lymph node in the neck of at least 15 millimeters
Strawberry tongue seen

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIg) is the standard treatment for Kawasaki disease and is administered in high doses with
marked improvement usually noted within 24 hours. If the fever does not respond, an additional dose may have to be considered. IVIg
by itself is most useful within the first 7 days of onset of fever, in terms of preventing coronary artery aneurysm
Salicylate therapy, particularly aspirin, remains an important part of the treatment. ‘Aspirin therapy’ is started at high doses until
the fever subsides, and then is continued at a low dose when the patient returns home, usually for 2 months, to prevent blood clots
from forming. ‘Except for Kawasaki disease, aspirin is otherwise normally not recommended for children due to its association
with Reye’s syndrome.’
Corticosteroids have also been used especially when other treatments fail or symptoms recur.
Polymyositis/Dermatomyositis
•• A systemic connective tissue disease characterized by inflammatory and degenerative changes in the muscles (polymyositis) and
frequently also in the skin (dermatomyositis), leading to symmetric weakness and some degree of muscle atrophy, principally
of the limb girdles
•• Dermato + Myositis: Involves skin and muscles usually
•• Females are more commonly affected. Features are ‘rash and muscle weakness’
•• ‘Proximal’ muscle weakness with loss of fine motor movements is seen
•• Dermatomyositis can be associated with malignancy in 10–20% cases
•• Rash involves:
–– Eyelids with edema (Heliotrope rash)
–– Erythema of knuckles with scaly eruption (Gottron’s rash)
–– Neck and anterior chest (V sign)
–– Back and shoulder (Shawl sign)
Creatine kinase is increased especially in damage to muscles and in conditions like:

•• Myocardial infarction
•• Trauma to muscles (Rhabdomyolysis)
•• Muscular dystrophies
•• Dermatomyositis
•• Polymyositis
•• Hypothyroidism and
•• Cerebral infarction
–– It has been reliably suggested that Creatine kinase is a reliable biochemical marker of myositis in dermatomyositis.
Serum muscle enzymes, especially the transaminases, creatine kinase (CK), and aldolase, are usually elevated; the ‘most
sensitive and useful’ is CK
–– Periodic enzyme determinations are helpful in monitoring treatment
–– Elevated levels decrease with effective therapy.
Reiter’s Syndrome (RS)

•• Arthritis associated with nonbacterial urethritis or cervicitis, conjunctivitis, and mucocutaneous lesions.
•• RS is classified with the seronegative spondyloarthropathies.
•• Arthritis usually is the 2nd or 3rd feature of RS and may be mild or severe.
•• Joint involvement generally is asymmetric and polyarticular, occurring in the large joints of the lower extremities as well as the
toes. Back pain may occur, usually with more severe disease
•• Enthesopathy (inflammation at tendinous insertion into bone) is common in RS and other seronegative arthritides, e.g. plantar
fasciitis, digital periostitis, Achilles tendinitis.
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•• Mucocutaneous lesions, small, painless superficial ulcers are commonly seen on the oral mucosa, tongue, and glans penis (balanitis
circinata). Patients may also develop hyperkeratotic skin lesions of the palms and soles, and around the nails (keratoderma
blennorrhagica)
•• Cardiovascular involvement with aortitis, aortic insufficiency, and conduction defects occurs rarely
Temporal Arteritis
Temporal Arteritis (Giant Cell Arteritis; Cranial Arteritis)
•• A chronic inflammatory disease of large blood vessels, particularly those with a prominent elastica, occurring primarily in the
elderly
•• More common in females
•• Giant cell arteritis most often involves arteries of the carotid system, particularly the cranial arteries
•• Segments of the aorta, its branches, the coronary arteries, and the peripheral arteries may also be affected
•• The disease has a predilection for arteries containing elastic tissue; it is rarely seen in veins
•• The histologic reaction is a granulomatous inflammation of the intima and inner part of the media
•• Presentations are diverse, depending on the distribution of the arteritis, but typically include:
–– Severe headache (MC)
–– (Especially temporal and occipital), scalp tenderness, and visual disturbances (amaurosis fugax, diplopia, scotoma,
ptosis, and vision blurring)
–– Claudication of the masseter, temporalis, and tongue muscles are characteristic
–– Blindness due to ischemic optic neuropathy
–– On physical examination, there may be swelling and tenderness with nodularity over the temporal arteries and
–– Bruits over the large vessels
•• ESR is usually markedly elevated (often >100 mm/h, Westergren) during the active phase, but is normal in about 1% of patients
•• Normochromic and normocytic anemia are often present and, at times, profound. Alkaline phosphatase may be elevated
•• Other nonspecific findings include ‘polyclonal hyperglobulinemia and leukocytosis.’
•• Diagnosis can be made clinically but should be verified by temporal artery biopsy because of the need for prolonged corticosteroid
treatment
•• Even a temporal artery that is normal to palpation and without tenderness or swelling may be abnormal on biopsy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 75-year-old African resident started to complain of occasional jaw pain 4 months ago. She also began complaining of
headache 3 weeks ago, which is throbbing, rated as 5/10 on 0–10 scale, worse in the afternoon, and radiating down the neck.
Raynaud’s Phenomenon and Disease

Spasm of arterioles, usually in the digits (and occasionally other acral parts such as the nose and tongue), with intermittent pallor
or cyanosis of the skin
More common in females
Raynaud’s phenomenon may be idiopathic (Raynaud’s disease)
Or secondary to other conditions:
•• Connective tissue disorders (e.g. scleroderma, RA, SLE)
•• Obstructive arterial diseases (arteriosclerosis obliterans, thromboangiitis obliterans, thoracic outlet syndrome), neurogenic lesions
•• Drug intoxications (ergot and methysergide)
•• Dysproteinemias, myxedema
•• Primary pulmonary hypertension and trauma
•• Idiopathic Raynaud’s disease is most common in young women (60 to 90% of reported cases)
Primary Raynaud syndrome commonly affects upper limb arteries

Hos good prognosis
Attacks of vasospasm of the digital arteries and arterioles may last from minutes to hours but are rarely severe enough to cause
gross tissue loss. With long-standing Raynaud’s disease, the skin of the digits may become smooth, shiny, and tight, with loss of
subcutaneous tissue (sclerodactyly)
Small painful ulcers may appear on the tips of the digits
Vessels are histologically normal in early stages, but in advanced cases, the arterial intima may thicken and thromboses may form in
small arteries
In secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, pathologic changes of the underlying disease are apparent.
Erythromelalgia
A rare syndrome of paroxysmal vasodilation with burning pain, increased skin temperature, and redness of the feet and, less
often, the hands
Causes of secondary erythromelalgia:
•• Myeloproliferative disorders
•• Hypertension
•• Venous insufficiency
•• Diabetes mellitus, SLE, RA
•• Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, gout
•• Spinal cord disease, or multiple sclerosis
Acrocyanosis
Persistent, painless, symmetric cyanosis of the hands and, less commonly, the feet, caused by vasospasm of the small vessels of
the skin
The etiology is unknown but may be related to increased tone of the arterioles associated with dilation of capillaries and venules
The disorder usually occurs in women and is not associated with occlusive arterial disease
The digits and hands or feet are persistently cold and bluish, and sweat profusely; they may swell
Cyanosis is usually intensified by cold and lessened by warming.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

•• Ninety percent of cases are in women, usually of child-bearing age
Clinical Manifestations
Musculoskeletal Manifestations
•• Almost all the patients experience arthralgias and myalgias; most develop intermittent arthritis
•• Erosions are rare. Differentiating point is nonerosive arthritis
•• Myopathy can be inflammatory (during periods of active disease), or secondary to treatment (hypokalemia, glucocorticoid
myopathy, hydroxychloroquine myopathy)
•• Ischemic necrosis of bone is a common cause of hip, knee, or shoulder pain in patients receiving glucocorticoids
Cutaneous Manifestations
•• The malar ‘butterfly’ rash is a photosensitive, fixed erythematous rash, flat or raised over the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often
involving the chin and ears
•• Scarring is absent; telangiectasia may develop
•• A more diffuse maculopapular rash, predominant in sun-exposed areas, is also common and usually indicates disease flare
•• Loss of scalp hair is usually patchy but can be extensive
•• Less frequent SLE skin lesions include urticaria, bullae, erythema multiforme, lichen planus-like lesions, and panniculitis
(‘lupus profundus’)
•• Patients with SLE can develop vasculitic skin lesions. These include purpura, subcutaneous nodules, nailfold infarcts, ulcers,
vasculitic urticaria, panniculitis, and gangrene of digits. Shallow, slightly painful ulcers in the mouth and nose are frequent in
patients with SLE.
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Renal Manifestations
•• Most patients with SLE have immunoglobulins deposited in glomeruli, but only one-half have clinical nephritis, defined by
proteinuria
•• Early in the disease, most are asymptomatic, although some develop the edema of nephrotic syndrome. Urinalysis shows
hematuria, cylindruria, and proteinuria
•• Papillary necrosis seen
•• Most patients with mesangial or mild focal proliferative nephritis maintain good renal function. Patients with diffuse proliferative
nephritis develop renal failure if untreated
•• Wire loop lesions seen
•• Renal involvement is the most common cause of death
Nervous System Manifestations
•• Mild cognitive dysfunction is the most frequent manifestation
•• Headaches are common and may be migraine-like or nonspecific
•• Seizures of any type may occur
•• Less frequent manifestations include psychosis, acute confusional states, demyelinating disorders, cerebrovascular disease,
movement disorders, aseptic meningitis, myelopathy, mononeuropathy or polyneuropathy of cranial or peripheral nerves,
autonomic dysfunction, acute demyelinating polyneuropathy (Guillain-Barre), mood disorders, optic neuritis, subarachnoid
hemorrhage, pseudotumor cerebri, and hypothalamic dysfunction with inappropriate secretion of vasopressin. Depression and
anxiety are frequent.
Vascular System
•• Thrombosis in vessels of any size can be a major problem
•• Although vasculitis may underlie thrombosis, there is increasing evidence that antibodies against phospholipids lupus
anticoagulant (LA), anticardiolipin (ACL) are associated with clotting without inflammation.
Hematologic Manifestation
•• Anemia of chronic disease occurs in most patients when lupus is active
•• Autoimmune hemolytic anemia seen
•• Coombs’ positive hemolysis occurs
•• Cold antibodies
•• Leukopenia (usually lymphopenia)
•• Mild thrombocytopenia is common
•• Pancytopenia can occur
•• Clinical manifestations of lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin include thrombocytopenia, recurrent venous or arterial
clotting, recurrent fetal loss, and valvular heart disease usually respond to glucocorticoids; clotting syndromes do not
Cardiopulmonary System
•• Pericarditis is the most frequent manifestation of cardiac lupus
•• Effusions can occur and occasionally lead to tamponade; constrictive pericarditis is rare
•• Myocarditis can cause arrhythmias, sudden death, and/or heart failure
•• Valvular insufficiency (usually aortic or mitral) can occur, with or without Libman-Sacks endocarditis
•• Myocardial infarcts usually result from degenerative disease, although they can result from vasculitis
•• Cavitation in lung
•• Pulmonary fibrosis
•• Pleurisy and pleural effusions are common manifestations of SLE
•• Shrinking lung syndrome
•• Lupus pneumonitis causes fever, dyspnea, and cough; X-rays show fleeting infiltrates and/or areas of plate-like atelectasis; this
syndrome responds to glucocorticoids. However, the most common cause of pulmonary infiltrates in patients with SLE is infection
•• Polyserositis
Pregnancy and SLE

•• Most patients complete pregnancy safely and deliver normal infants
•• Fertility rates are normal in patients with SLE, but spontaneous abortion and stillbirths are frequent (10–30%), especially in
women with lupus anticoagulant and/or anticardiolipin
•• NO strelity
•• Neonatal lupus, caused by transmission of maternal anti-Ro across the placenta, consists of transient skin rash and (rarely)
permanent heart block. Transient thrombocytopenia from maternal antiplatelet antibodies also occurs.
Lab Tests
•• ANAs are the best screening test
•• Antibodies to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) and to CM are relatively specific for SLE. High serum levels of ANAs and anti-
dsDNA and low levels of complement usually reflect disease activity, especially in patients with nephritis.
•• Very low levels of CH50 with normal levels of C3 seen
•• Hematologic abnormalities include anemia (usually normochromic normocytic but occasionally hemolytic), leukopenia,
lymphopenia, and thrombocytopenia
•• The Westergren erythrocyte sedimentation rate correlates with disease activity in some patients
•• Urinalysis should be performed and serum creatinine levels should be measured periodically in patients with SLE
•• With active nephritis, the urinalysis usually shows proteinuria, hematuria, and cellular or granular casts.
Drug-induced Lupus
•• Several drugs can cause a syndrome resembling SLE, including:
–– Procainamide
–– Hydralazine
–– Isoniazid
–– Chlorpromazine
–– D-penicillamine, practolol
–– Methyldopa, quinidine
–– Interferon A and
–– Possibly hydantoin, ethosuximide, and oral contraceptives
•• The syndrome is rare with all but procainamide, the most frequent offender, and hydralazine. There is genetic predisposition to
drug-induced lupus, partly determined by drug acetylation rates
•• Most common are systemic complaints and arthralgias; polyarthritis and pleuropericarditis
•• Renal and CNS involvement are rare
•• All patients have ANA and most have antibodies to histones
•• ‘Best marker’ is antibodies to histones.
Progressive Systemic Sclerosis (PSS) (Scleroderma)

A chronic disease of unknown cause, characterized by diffuse fibrosis; degenerative changes; and vascular abnormalities in
the skin (scleroderma), articular structures, and internal organs (especially the esophagus, intestinal tract, lung, heart, and
kidney).
PSS is about 4 times more common in women than men and is comparatively rare in children
•• The disease varies in severity and progression, ranging from generalized cutaneous thickening (PSS with diffuse scleroderma) with
rapidly progressive and often fatal visceral involvement, to a form distinguished by restricted skin involvement (often just the fingers
and face) and prolonged passage of time, often several decades, before full manifestation of characteristic internal manifestations
(CREST syndrome: Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Esophageal dysfunction, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia).
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•• Raynaud’s phenomenon is an important component of scleroderma.

•• Anticentromere antibody seen
•• The most common are Raynaud’s phenomenon and insidious swelling of the acral portions of the extremities with gradual
thickening of the skin of the fingers. Polyarthralgia also is a prominent early symptom.
•• The skin: Induration is symmetric and may be confined to the fingers (sclerodactyly) and distal portions of the upper extremities,
or it may affect most or all of the body. As the disease progresses, the skin becomes taut, shiny, and hyperpigmented; the face
becomes mask-like; telangiectases appear on the fingers, chest, face, lips, and tongue. Subcutaneous calcifications develop
(calcinosis circumscripta), usually on the fingertips and over bony eminences.
•• Musculoskeletal system: Friction rubs develop over the joints (particularly the knees), tendon sheaths (tendinitis), and large
bursae because of fibrin deposition on synovial surfaces. Flexion contractures of the fingers, wrists, and elbows result from fibrosis
of the synovium and periarticular structures. Trophic ulcers are common, especially on the fingertips and overlying the finger
joints
•• GI tract:
•• Esophageal dysfunction is the most frequent visceral disturbance and eventually occurs in most patients
•• Dysphagia, acid reflux due to lower esophageal sphincter incompetence, and peptic esophagitis with possible ulceration and
stricture are common
•• Barrett’s metaplasia of the esophagus occurs in 1/3rd of all patients with scleroderma; these patients have an increased risk of
complications such as stricture or adenocarcinoma
•• Hypomotility of the small intestine may be associated with malabsorption resulting from anaerobic bacterial overgrowth.
•• Pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis, biliary cirrhosis has occurred in persons with CREST syndrome.
•• Cardiorespiratory system: Lung fibrosis, with exertional dyspnea, its most prominent symptom, is associated early with an
impairment in gas exchange. Pleurisy and pericarditis with effusion may occur. Recent studies indicate generally indolent
progression of lung involvement, with substantial individual variability. Pulmonary hypertension may develop as a result of
long-standing interstitial and peribronchial fibrosis or intimal hyperplasia of small pulmonary arteries; the latter is associated with
the CREST syndrome. Cardiac arrhythmias, conduction disturbances, and other ECG abnormalities are common
•• The kidneys: Severe renal disease may occur as a consequence of intimal hyperplasia of interlobular and arcuate arteries, and
usually is heralded by the abrupt onset of accelerated or malignant hypertension
•• An antibody that reacts with centromeric protein (anticentromere antibody) is found in the serum of a high proportion of
patients with the CREST syndrome
•• Localized forms of scleroderma occur as circumscribed patches (morphea) or linear sclerosis of the integument and immediately
subjacent tissues without systemic involvement.
Sjogren’s Syndrome
•• Occurs as primary form/isolated disorder
•• Secondary form with other CT disorders
•• Sjogren’s syndrome is a chronic, slowly progressive autoimmune disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the
exocrine glands resulting in xerostomia and dry eyes
•• A small but significant number of the patients may develop malignant lymphoma
•• The disease affects predominantly middle-aged women (female-to-male ratio 9:1)
•• Sera of patients with Sjogren’s syndrome often contain a number of autoantibodies directed against non-organ-specific antigens,
such as immunoglobulins (rheumatoid factors) and extractable nuclear and cytoplasmic antigens (Ro/SS-A, La/SS-B)
Lymphoma is a well-known manifestation of Sjogren’s syndrome that usually presents later in the illness. Persistent parotid gland
enlargement, lymphadenopathy, cutaneous vasculitis, peripheral neuropathy, lymphopenia, and cryoglobulinemia are manifestations
suggesting the development of lymphoma. Most lymphomas are extranodal, marginal zone B cell, and low grade. Salivary glands are
the most common site of involvement.
•• Dry eye or Keratitis Sicca or Aqueous deficiency dry eye occurs in Sjogrens syndrome
•• Dry mouth
•• Dry nose
•• Dry eyes
•• Dry skin
•• Dry throat
•• Dry sex (vaginal involvement)
•• Involvement of other exocrine glands occurs less frequently and includes a decrease in mucous gland secretions of the upper and
lower respiratory tree, resulting in dry nose, throat, and trachea (xerotrachea), and diminished secretion of the exocrine glands of the
gastrointestinal tract, leading to esophageal mucosal atrophy, atrophic gastritis, and subclinical pancreatitis. Dyspareunia due to
dryness of the external genitalia and dry skin also may occur.
Behçet’s Syndrome: Oro-oculo-genital Syndrome

•• Recurrent oral and genital ocular involvement
•• Associated with HLA B5
•• The ulcers are usually painful, shallow or deep with a central yellowish necrotic base, appear singly or in crops, and are located
anywhere in the oral cavity. The ulcers persist for 1 to 2 weeks and subside without leaving scars
•• The genital ulcers resemble the oral ones
•• Skin involvement includes folliculitis, erythema nodosum, an acne-like exanthem, and, infrequently, vasculitis. Nonspecific
skin inflammatory reactivity to any scratches or intradermal saline injection (pathergy test) is a common and specific manifestation
•• Eye involvement is the most dreaded complication, since it occasionally progresses rapidly to blindness. Iritis, posterior uveitis,
retinal vessel occlusions, and optic neuritis are seen in some patients with the syndrome. Hypopyon, uveitis is a feature
•• Recurrent DVT is seen
•• The arthritis of Behçet’s syndrome is not deforming and affects the knees and ankles.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 38-year-old lady from Mexico presents with myalgia and lethargy. Her blood tests show a positive ANA and rheumatoid
factor is negative. The CK is raised at 360 U/l. Extranuclear antigen tests show a negative Ro and negative La, negative Scl 70
and positive ribonuclear protein antibody. Most likely diagnosis is:
Mixed connective tissue disease.
Henoch Schönlein Purpura

•• Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP): Abdominal pain with guaiac-positive stools, plus a prominent rash, mostly on his lower
extremities. Other characteristic findings of HSP include hematuria and joint pains. The illness may follow an upper respiratory
infection or strep throat
•• Also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a distinct systemic vasculitis syndrome that is characterized by:
–– Palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities)
–– Arthralgias
–– Abdominal pain
–– Glomerulonephritis
•• It is a small vessel vasculitis
•• Henoch-Schönlein purpura is usually seen in children; most patients range in age from 4 to 7 years
•• A seasonal variation with a peak incidence in spring has been noted
•• IgA is the antibody class most often seen in the immune complexes and has been demonstrated in the renal biopsies of these
patients
•• Gastrointestinal involvement, which is seen in almost 70% of pediatric patients, is characterized by colicky abdominal pain
usually associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation and is frequently accompanied by the passage of blood and
mucus per rectum; bowel intussusception may occur rarely
•• It usually resolves spontaneously without therapy. Rarely, a progressive glomerulonephritis will develop.
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•• Renal failure is the most common cause of death in the rare patient who dies of Henoch-Schönlein purpura
•• Routine laboratory studies generally show a mild leukocytosis, a normal platelet count, and occasionally eosinophilia. Serum
complement components are normal, and IgA levels are elevated in about one-half of patients
•• Treatment: The prognosis of Henoch-Schönlein purpura is excellent. Most patients recover completely, and some do not
require therapy.
Differentiate
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department. His parents assert that over the past 3 days, he has become
progressively ill with generalized fatigue and mid-abdominal pain that have become steadily worse. On examination, he has
a maculopapular rash on his thighs and feet with some spread of the rash to his buttocks. The rash does not blanch and some
lesions near the ankles look petechial. His temperature is 103.4 °F He has dark stool, which is positive for occult blood.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

It is a rickettsial disease associated with fever, headache, and a rash caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, the vector, a tick, and the
reservoir rodents and mammals. Clinically, the onset is nonspecific. The patient may complain of fever, myalgias, nausea, and
vomiting. The typical triad of the illness is headache, fever, and a rose-colored blanching, maculopapular rash that begins on
the extremities and spreads centripetally to the entire body. The erythematous macules soon turn into petechiae as a result
of vasculitis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because of sudden onset of headache, fever, vomiting, and a skin rash.
He spent vacation camping in North Carolina. During his stay, he had experienced multiple insect bites and removed several ticks
from all family members. The boy had started complaining of a headache and developed fever by noon. He vomited several times.
He noticed that a rose-colored rash had developed around his ankles. He has multiple erythematous macules on his lower legs and
hands, and rare petechiae interspersed between them.
Paraneoplastic Syndromes (Endocrine Syndromes)

•• Hypercalcemia Hypercalcemia with cancer is classified as humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM), which is caused
of malignancy by circulating hormones, or local osteolytic hypercalcemia (LOH), which is caused by local paracrine factors
secreted by cancers within the bone
Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) causes nearly all cases of HHM, while the mediators of LOH
in bone are heterogenous
•• Hyponatremia Due to the inappropriate secretion of arginine vasopressin (AVP) and is termed as the syndrome of
of malignancy inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Small cell lung cancer is the malignancy chiefly responsible for producing ectopic AVP
•• Ectopic acth Responsible for ~15% of all cases of Cushing’s syndrome and for most cases of Cushing’s syndrome that occur
syndrome in cancer patients
Ectopic ACTH syndrome is most commonly due to small cell lung cancer (50% of cases), bronchial
carcinoid tumors (10%), thymic carcinoid tumors or thymomas (10%), pancreatic islet cell tumors (10%),
pheochromocytoma or other neural crest tumors (5%), or medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (5%).
•• Ectopic Ectopic production of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) is the predominant cause of ectopic
acromegaly acromegaly
The cancers associated with ectopic acromegaly include carcinoid tumors of the bronchus, pancreatic
islet cell tumors, and cancers of the lung, breast, colon and adrenal glands.
•• Gynecomastia Ectopic production of hCG is the most common cause of paraneoplastic gynecomastia; hepatoma or a germ
cell tumor with choriocarcinoma elements contains aromatase enzyme activity that converts circulating
androgens to estrogen. Other tumors rarely associated with ectopic gynecomastia include carcinoid tumors
of the bronchus, intestine, and small cell lung cancer
About 5% of men with testicular choriocarcinoma present with an enlarging breast mass.
•• Non-islet Can occur with large, slow-growing sarcomas, mesotheliomas, and hepatomas.
cell tumor
hypoglycemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old man visits his family doctor after his friend from New York, who has not seen him for 15 years, notices a change in
his appearance. Overgrowth of his frontal bones and enlargement of his hands and feet have occurred. The patient complains
of a tingling sensation in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd digits of the right hand and loss of coordination and strength of the right
thumb. He is most likely having Acromegaly.
Hematologic Syndromes
•• Erythrocytosis Renal cell cancer, 10% of patients with hepatoma, and 15% of patients with cerebellar hemangioblastomas
have erythrocytosis
•• Granulocytosis Tumors and tumor cell lines from patients with lung, ovarian, and bladder cancers have been documented
to produce granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating
factor (GM-CSF)
•• Thrombocytosis Lung and gastrointestinal cancers, 20% of patients with breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancers, and 10%
of patients with lymphoma
•• Eosinophilia Eosinophilia is present in 10% of patients with lymphoma, 3% of patients with lung cancer, and occasional
patients with cervical, gastrointestinal, renal, and breast cancer
•• Thrombophlebitis Lung, pancreatic, gastrointestinal, breast, ovarian, and genitourinary cancers, lymphomas, and brain tumors
Medical Oncology
Cytotoxic Mechanism of action Adverse effects
•• Vincristine Inhibits formation of microtubules Peripheral neuropathy (reversible)
•• Cisplatin Causes cross-linking in DNA Ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy
•• Bleomycin Degrades preformed DNA Lung fibrosis
•• Doxorubicin Stabilizes DNA—topoisomerase II complex inhibits DNA Cardiomyopathy
and RNA synthesis
•• Methotrexate Inhibits purine synthesis Myelosuppression, mucositis
•• Cyclophosphamide Alkylating agent—causes cross-linking in DNA Hemorrhagic cystitis,
myelosuppression
TREATMENT-RELATED ONCOLOGICAL EMERGENCIES

Tumor Lysis Syndrome
Tumor lysis syndrome is a well-recognized clinical entity that is characterized by various combinations of:
•• Hyperuricemia
•• Hyperkalemia
•• Hyperphosphatemia
•• Lactic acidosis and
•• Hypocalcemia
Frequently, acute renal failure develops as a result of the syndrome.
Medicine 85
Human Antibody Infusion Reactions

The initial infusion of human or humanized antibodies (rituximab) is associated with fever, chills, nausea, asthenia, and headache in
up to half of treated patients. Bronchospasm and hypotension occur in 1% of patients. The pathogenesis is thought to be activation of
immune effector processes (cells and complement).
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) and, less commonly, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) occurring after treatment
with antineoplastic drugs have been described. Mitomycin is by far the most common agent causing this peculiar syndrome. Other
chemotherapeutic agents, including cisplatin, bleomycin, and gemcitabine, have also been reported to be associated with this
syndrome.
Neutropenia and Infection

These remain the most common serious complications of cancer therapy.
Pulmonary Infiltrates
Patients with cancer may present with dyspnea associated with diffuse interstitial infiltrates on chest radiographs. Such infiltrates
may be due to progression of the underlying malignancy, treatment-related toxicities, infection, and/or unrelated diseases. The cause
may be multifactorial.
Typhlitis
Neutropenic enterocolitis (Typhlitis) is a necrosis of the cecum and adjacent colon that may complicate the treatment of acute
leukemia. The patient develops right lower quadrant abdominal pain, often with rebound tenderness and a tense, distended
abdomen, in a setting of fever and neutropenia
Watery diarrhea (often containing sloughed mucosa) and bacteremia are common, and bleeding may occur).
Hemorrhagic Cystitis
Hemorrhagic cystitis can develop in patients receiving cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide. Both drugs are metabolized to ‘Acrolein’
which is a strong chemical irritant that is excreted in the urine. Prolonged contact or high concentrations may lead to bladder irritation and
hemorrhage. Symptoms include gross hematuria, frequency, dysuria, burning, urgency, incontinence, and nocturia. Maintaining
a high rate of urine flow minimizes exposure. In addition, ‘2-Mercaptoethane sulfonate’ (Mesna) detoxifies the metabolites and can be
coadministered with the instigating drugs.
MUSCLE DISORDERS
Toxic Myopathies
Drugs and chemicals may produce focal or generalized damage to skeletal muscle
•• The most common cause of focal damage is the injection of narcotic analgesics. Three agents in particular: pentazocine,
meperidine, and heroin
•• D-Penicillamine induces a condition simulating the clinical and pathologic picture of polymyositis. A similar condition has been
reported with cimetidine
•• Procainamide may cause myositis as part of a systemic lupus erythematosus-like reaction
•• Chloroquine administration may cause a vacuolar myopathy
•• Zidovudine, used in the treatment of AIDS, produces proximal weakness and pain
•• Fibric acid derivatives (clofibrate, gemfibrozil), 3-hydroxy-methyl-glutaryl-coenzyme A reductase inhibitors (lovastatin,
simivastatin, pravastatin), and niacin have all been implicated in myopathies, occasionally
•• Emetine hydrochloride (used for treatment of amebiasis).
•• E-aminocaproic acid (an antifibrinolytic agent) and

•• Perhexiline (used for angina pectoris) have all been observed to cause muscle weakness and muscle fiber necrosis after several
weeks of therapy
•• Drug-induced myopathy accompanied by proximal weakness occurs with glucocorticoid therapy
•• Excess alcohol intake causes acute muscle weakness with rhabdomyolysis and ↑CPK
•• Steroid myopathy mainly involves pelvis
•• A very serious drug-induced condition, malignant hyperthermia occurs in susceptible individuals after exposure to certain
general anesthetic and depolarizing muscle relaxants.
Polymyositis
PM is a subacute inflammatory myopathy affecting adults, and rarely children, who do not have any of the following:
•• No rash
•• No involvement of the extraocular and facial muscles
•• No family history of a neuromuscular disease
•• No cutaneous manifestations
•• No history of exposure to myotoxic drugs or toxins
•• No endocrinopathy
•• No neurogenic disease
•• No muscular dystrophy
No biochemical muscle disorder (deficiency of a muscle enzyme), or PM may occur either in isolation, in association with a systemic
autoimmune or connective tissue disease, or with known viral or bacterial infection
Proximal limb muscles are involved
Pharyngeal muscles are involved
Pain is a feature
Focal necrosis on biopsy is seen
CPK is increased
Inclusion Body Myositis

•• Weakness and atrophy of distal muscles, especially foot extensors and deep finger flexors, occur
•• Patients present with falls because their knees collapse due to early quadriceps weakness
•• The diagnosis is always made by the characteristic findings on the muscle biopsy
•• Disease progression is slow but steady, and most patients require an assistive device such as cane, walker, or wheelchair within
several years of onset.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 69-year-old man from Ohio presents with muscle weakness and difficulty swallowing. On neurological examination, he has
proximal and distal upper and lower limb weakness. Antibody profile is normal. There is wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the
fingers and thigh muscles. CK is elevated and EMG findings are consistent with a myopathic process. Most likely diagnosis is:
Inclusion Body Myositis
Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

•• In Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, inheritance is X-linked Recessive
•• Defect lies in Dystrophin gene and results in absence of dystrophin protein
•• Onset is typically below 5 years of age
Medicine 87
•• Sarcolemal protein defect

•• Proximal limb muscles are involved and pseudohypertrophy of these muscles occurs
•• Patient on standing tries to climb on himself (Gowers’ sign)
•• Characteristic pathological features are:
–– Necrosis of muscle fibers
–– Muscle fibers of varying size
–– Fibrosis
–– Fatty infiltration
The less severe form is the Becker’s dystrophy
Features are:
•• Less common
•• Less severe
•• Not absence but decreased and altered dystrophin protein
•• Later onset
•• Cardiac involvement is rare
•• May have normal lifespan
Other Muscular Dystrophies

Facioscapulohumeral (Landouzy-Dejerine) muscular dystrophy:
•• It is an autosomal dominant form characterized by weakness of the facial muscles and shoulder girdles, usually beginning at age
7 to 20 years
•• Difficulty with whistling, eye closure, and elevation of the arms are early symptoms
•• Anterior tibial and peroneal weakness develops in some kindreds and although foot drop develops, ambulation is rarely lost. Life
expectancy is normal.
Limb-girdle Muscular Dystrophy: Describes patients with weakness of:

•• Pelvis (Leyden-Möbius [pelvifemoral] type) and
•• Shoulder (Erb [scapulohumeral] type) girdles
Mitochondrial myopathies are inherited through maternal, non-Mendelian inheritance

Some mitochondrial myopathies cause only progressive external ophthalmoplegia (ocular myopathy); others also cause patients to
develop limb weakness and multisystem disorders, predominantly involving brain and muscle
Diagnosis is made either by finding biochemical abnormalities of mitochondria or ‘ragged red fibers’ in muscle biopsy specimens
stained with modified Gomori’s trichrome stain.
Congenital myopathies have been named by their characteristic findings on muscle biopsy:
Central core disease
Centronuclear myopathy
Nemaline myopathy
These children present with delayed walking and mild proximal muscle weakness that is not progressive
The biochemical defect is unknown
Myotonic dystrophy (Steinert’s disease)

•• It is an autosomal dominant disorder that combines dystrophic muscular weakness with myotonia
•• The gene for this disorder has been localized to Chromosome 19q. It occurs at any age and is variable in severity
•• Myotonia is prominent in the hand muscles, and ptosis is common even in mildly affected individuals
•• Severe cases show marked peripheral muscular weakness associated with:

•• High incidence of cataracts
•• Testicular atrophy NOT ENLARGEMENT
•• Premature balding
•• Cardiac muscle conduction defects
•• Hatchet facies, and endocrine abnormalities, i.e. diabetes mellitus
•• Mental retardation occurs frequently
•• It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder
•• Mostly affects type 1 Fibers
•• Typically involves Distal Muscles
Pattern of inheritance
Calcium Channel Disorders of Muscle

•• Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
•• Familial hemiplegic migrane
•• Spinocerebellar ataxia-6
Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis (hypoKPP)

•• Causes episodic weakness, which usually affects proximal limb muscles more than distal ones
•• Rarely ocular, bulbar, or respiratory muscles are affected
•• Respiratory muscle weakness may prove fatal
•• Meals high in carbohydrate or sodium can provoke attacks
•• Reflexes become hypoactive, and cardiac arrhythmias may occur during attacks owing to low serum potassium. Onset is at
adolescence
•• Men are more often affected because of decreased penetrance in women. Some women have only infrequent attacks
•• Diagnosis is established by demonstrating a low serum potassium level during a paralytic attack and by excluding secondary
causes of hypokalemia
•• The molecular defect in the calcium channel can be defined in many patients
•• The acute paralysis improves after the administration of potassium salts. Oral KCl (0.2 to 0.4 mmol/kg) should be given to patients
with severe weakness and repeated at 15- to 30-min intervals depending on the response of the ECG, serum potassium level, and
muscle strength.
Sodium Channel Disorders of Muscle

Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (hyperKPP)
•• Causes episodic weakness of limb muscles; cranial and respiratory muscles are rarely involved
•• The term ‘hyperkalemic’ is misleading, since patients are often normokalemic during attacks
•• Paresthesias and muscle pain are present during many attacks.
Medicine 89
•• Diagnosis is suggested by a modest elevation of the serum potassium level during attacks in nearly half of patients; at times,
however, the serum potassium level is normal or even low. The so-called hyperkalemic and normokalemic forms of this disorder
are not separate entities
•• Paramyotonia Congenita Paramyotonia congenita (PC) causes attacks of paralysis either spontaneously or with cold provocation.
PC with periodic paralysis is similar to hyperKPP, except that paradoxical myotonia (i.e. myotonia worsening with activity) and
objective cold sensitivity are more prominent in PC
•• Potassium-aggravated Myotonia Some patients with muscle sodium channel defects have severe muscle stiffness but no
paralytic episodes. The stiffness is accentuated by elevations in serum potassium levels.
CHLORIDE CHANNEL DISORDERS OF MUSCLE

Myotonia Congenita
Myotonia congenita (Thomsen’s disease):
It is a rare, autosomal dominant myotonia that begins usually in infancy. The myotonia produces symptoms most troublesome in the
hands, legs, and eyelids
Weakness is usually minimal
Muscles may become hypertrophied, but muscle stiffness is the most important problem
Diagnosis usually is established by the characteristic physical appearance, by inability to relax the handgrip rapidly after opening
and closing the hand, and by sustained muscle contraction after direct muscle percussion
The myotonic phenomenon causes a typical dive-bomber sound in electromyography studies
Family pedigrees are important.
Myasthenia Gravis (MG)

•• A disease characterized by episodic muscle weakness, chiefly in muscles innervated by cranial nerves, and characteristically
improved by cholinesterase-inhibiting drugs
•• The disease is caused by an autoimmune attack on the acetylcholine receptor of the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction,
resulting in loss or dysfunction of acetylcholine receptors and jeopardizing normal neuromuscular transmission
•• Dercreased myoneural junction transmission
•• The disease predominates in women, most commonly presents between 20 and 40 years of age, but may occur at any age
•• Neonatal myasthenia is a syndrome of generalized muscle weakness seen in 12% of infants born to MG mothers because of
passive transfer of Abs through the placenta. Symptoms resolve as the Ab titer declines in days to weeks
•• Congenital myasthenia is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of neuromuscular transmission beginning in childhood, usually
with ophthalmoplegia. Since acetylcholine-receptor Abs are absent, the disease is not regarded as autoimmune
•• The most common symptoms are ptosis, diplopia, and muscle fatigability after exercise. Ocular muscles are affected first in
40% of patients and eventually in 85%
•• Dysarthria, dysphagia, and proximal limb weakness are common
•• Sensory modalities and deep tendon reflexes are normal
•• Pyridostigmine or neostigmine are the most commonly used cholinergic drugs
•• Thymectomy is indicated in most patients with generalized MG; 80% will subsequently remit or require less maintenance drug. If
a thymoma is found, excision is adviced to prevent spread within the mediastinum
Should be done in all cases
•• Plasmapheresis may be useful to prepare refractory patients for thymectomy and during respiratory crisis. During severe crisis,
ventilating support should be given along with IV feeding and withdrawal of anticholinesterase therapy
REMEMBER
•• It is done for myasthenia crisis and not cholinergic crisis
•• Myasthenia gravis is one condition in which biopsy is not specific for diagnosis
•• ENMG is more diagnostic. Decremental response is seen to repetitive nerve stimuli
•• Role of muscle biopsy is limited. Inflammatory lymphorrhages and nonspecific atrophy are seen.
GIT
•• Migratory glossitis Geographic tongue
•• Atrophic glossitis Iron deficiency
•• Leutic glossitis Syphilis
Esophagitis
Most common causes are:
–– Reflux esophagitis (mc)
–– Infectious esophagitis
–– Eosinophilic esophagitis
–– Drug-induced esophagitis
–– Radiation esophagitis
–– Corrosive esophagitis
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
•• Also called the Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome or sideropenic dysphagia
•• Describes young women with koilonychias, iron-deficiency anemia and dysphagia referred high in the neck
–– Commonest type of esophageal carcinoma: Squamous cell carcinoma
–– Commonest site of squamous cell carcinoma: Lower end of esophagus
–– Commonest feature of achalasia cardia: Dysphagia
–– Commonest feature of cancer esophagus: Progressive dysphagia
–– Difficulty in swallowing: Dysphagia
–– Pain during swallowing: Odynophagia
The metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium (Barrett’s esophagus) is a complication of severe
reflux esophagitis, and it is a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma
Barrett’s epithelium progresses through a dysplastic stage before developing into adenocarcinoma.
•• Multiple sacculations and diverticulae with corckscrew esophagus: diffuse esophageal spasm
•• Rat tail esophagus with dilated proximal and narrow distal end: achalasia
•• Narrow and irregular esophageal lume: esophageal cancer
•• Stricture/ulcer in esophagus: esophageal reflux—GERD
•• Initial investigation for dysphagia for solid food is barium swallow

•• Best investigation for dysphagia for solid food is endoscopy
•• Best investigation for dysphagia for solid and liquid food is manometry.
Gastritis
The term gastritis should be reserved for histologically documented inflammation of the gastric mucosa
•• Acute Gastritis: The most common causes of acute gastritis are infectious. Acute infection with H. pylori induces gastritis
•• Chronic Gastritis is identified histologically by an inflammatory cell infiltrate consisting primarily of lymphocytes and plasma
cells, with very scant neutrophil involvement. Chronic gastritis is also classified according to the predominant site of involvement
•• Type A refers to the body-predominant form (autoimmune) and
•• Type B is the central-predominant form (H. pylori-related)
•• The AB gastritis has been used to refer to a mixed antral/body picture
Medicine 91
•• Lymphocytic gastritis is characterized histologically by intense infiltration of the surface epithelium with lymphocytes. The
infiltrative process is primarily in the body of the stomach and consists of mature T cells and plasmacytes
•• A subgroup of patients has thickened folds noted on endoscopy. These folds are often capped by small nodules that contain a
central depression or erosion; this form of the disease is called Varioliform gastritis
•• Marked eosinophilic infiltration involving any layer of the stomach (mucosa, muscularis propria, and serosa) is characteristic of
Eosinophilic gastritis
•• Several systemic disorders may be associated with Granulomatous gastritis. Gastric involvement has been observed in Crohn’s
disease. Involvement may range from granulomatous infiltrates noted only on gastric biopsies to frank ulceration and stricture
formation. Gastric Crohn’s disease usually occurs in the presence of small intestinal disease. Several rare infectious processes can
lead to granulomatous gastritis, including histoplasmosis, candidiasis, syphilis, and tuberculosis.
Menetrier’s Disease
•• Menetrier’s disease characterized by large, tortuous gastric mucosal folds
•• The mucosal folds in Menetrier’s disease are often most prominent in the body and fundus
•• Histologically, massive foveolar hyperplasia (hyperplasia of surface and glandular mucous cells) is noted, which replaces most of
the chief and parietal cells
•• Protein-losing enteropathy is common
•• Gastric acid secretion is not increased
•• Premalignant: Increased risk of adenocarcinoma
•• Hyperplasia and hypertrophy produce the prominent folds observed
•• The pits of the gastric glands elongate and may become extremely tortuous
•• Although the lamina propria may contain a mild chronic inflammatory infiltrate, Menetrier’s disease is not considered a form of
gastritis.
Schindler’s Disease
•• Acid hypersecretion
•• Giant rugae
•• Normal protein balance
H. pylori
H. pylori accounts for most of the peptic ulcer cases
More prevalent in developing countries
•• It is a gram-negative bacillus
•• Microaerophilic
•• Urease-producing
•• pH-gated urea channel in H. pylori bacterium is called Urel
Causes
•• Gastritis
•• Gastric Ca
•• Gastric lymphoma
•• Peptic ulcer disease
Extragastric diseases in which H. pylori is believed to play a role:

•• Ischemic heart diseases
•• Coronary atherosclerosis
•• Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
•• Iron-deficiency anemia
•• Hepatocellular carcinoma
•• Cholangiocarcinoma
•• Inflammatory Bowel diseases
•• Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Tests for H. pylori: Endoscopy-based biopsy urease test

•• Histology
•• Culture
•• Urea breath test (Documenting eradication)
•• Serological test (Epidemiological)
•• Stool antigen test
Treatments to of Helicobacter pylori are:
•• Clarithromycin
•• Bismuth subsalicylate
•• Metronidazole
Duodenal Ulcer Gastric Ulcer

•• More common •• Less common
•• More associated with H. pylori •• Associated with H. pylori
•• Early age of onset •• Later age of onset
•• Occur most often in the first portion of duodenum), with •• Occur most often in the lesser curvature
~90% located within 3 cm of the pylorus •• More chances of malignancy
•• Usually < 1 cm in diameter •• Loss of weight
•• Less chances of malignancy •• Tenderness usually midline
•• No loss of weight •• Night pain uncommon
•• Tenderness usually in R Hypochondrium
•• Night pain common
•• Gastric ulcers associated with normal or ↓ acid output

•• H. pylori is more important as a cause of duodenal ulcer
•• Family history is more important in duodenal ulcer
•• Stress ulcers after head trauma: Cushings ulcer
•• Commonest site for Cushings ulcer: distal duodenum
•• Commonest site of peptic ulcer: first part of duodenum
•• Stress ulcers after burns: Curling’s ulcer
•• Most common complication of peptic ulcer—Hemorrhage
GI BLEEDING: CAUSES
ABCDEFGHI
•• Angiodysplasia
•• Bowel cancer
•• Colitis
•• Diverticulitis/Duodenal ulcer
•• Epistaxis/Esophageal (cancer, esophagitis, varices)
•• Fistula (anal, aortoenteric)
•• Gastric (cancer, ulcer, gastritis)
•• Hemorrhoids
•• Infectious diarrhea/IBD/Ischemic bowel
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•• Hematemesis indicates an upper GI source of bleeding (above the ligament of Treitz). Melena indicates that blood has been
present in the GI tract for at least 14 h. Thus, the more proximal the bleeding site, the more likely melena will occur
•• Hematochezia usually represents a lower GI source of bleeding, although an upper GI lesion may bleed so rapidly that blood
does not remain in the bowel long enough for melena to develop
•• GIB of obscure origin. Obscure GIB is defined as recurrent acute or chronic bleeding for which no source has been identified
by routine endoscopic and contrast studies. Push enteroscopy, with a specially designed enteroscope or a pediatric colonoscope to
inspect the entire duodenum and part of the jejunum, is generally the next step. Push enteroscopy may identify probable bleeding
sites in 20 to 40% of patients with obscure GIB. If enteroscopy is negative or unavailable, a specialized radiographic examination of the
small bowel (e.g. enteroclysis) should be performed
•• Occult GIB is manifested by either a positive test for fecal occult blood or iron-deficiency anemia
•• Peptic ulcers are the most common cause of UGIB, accounting for about 50% of cases. Mallory-Weiss tears account for 5 to 15%
of cases. Hemorrhagic or erosive gastropathy [e.g. due to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or alcohol] and erosive
esophagitis often cause mild UGIB, but major bleeding is rare.
MALABSORPTION
Tropical Sprue
Tropical sprue: Malabsorptive disease in tropical regions with unknown etiology
Similar features to celiac sprue and responds to antibiotics, Vitamin B12, Folate.
Whipple’s Disease
Whipple’s disease: Malabsorptive disease caused by Tropheryma whippeli
•• PAS positive, rod-shaped bacilli fill lamina propria, Tropheryma whipelli
•• Biopsy is specific test
•• Malabsorption, fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia
•• CNS involvement with dementia, seizures, coma, myoclonus
•• Treatment is with antibiotics
•• Trimethoprim sulfamethaxozole

•• Treatment is with antibiotics

•• Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
Celiac Disease
Celiac disease: It is caused by sensitivity to the protein gluten. Repeated exposure leads to villous atrophy which, in turn, causes
malabsorption. Conditions associated with celiac disease include dermatitis herpetiformis (a vesicular, pruritic skin eruption) and
autoimmune disorders
•• Type 1 diabetes mellitus
•• Autoimmune hepatitis
•• Myasthenia gravis
•• Sjogren’s syndrome
•• Lymphomas, Addison’s, Grave’s disease
•• Diagnosis is made by a combination of immunology and jejunal biopsy. Villous atrophy and immunology should reverse
on a gluten-free diet. Immunology:
–– Anti-endomyseal antibody
–– Alpha-gliadin antibody
–– TTG (tissue transglutinamise) antibodies
–– Anti-casein antibodies are also found in some patients
•• Jejunal biopsy shows:
–– Villous atrophy
–– Crypt hyperplasia
–– Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes
–– Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes
–– Thickness of mucosa unaltered.
In Nutshell
•• Celiac sprue is gluten-sensitive enteropathy or nontropical sprue
•• Hypersensitivity to gluten/gliadin occurs with loss of villi and malabsorption
•• RICE is safe to use
•• Genetic predisposition: HLA B8, DR 3 and DQ
•• Pathology: Loss of villi, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
•• Increased plasma cells in lamina propria
•• Presentation: Malabsorption, abdominal distension, bloating, diarrhea, steatorrhea, weight loss
•• Association with dermatitis herpetiformis.
Tests for GIT

•• Gastric analysis with pentagastrin stimulation: Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
•• Serum level of Vitamin B12: Pernicious anemia
•• Lactose tolerance test: Milk intolerance
•• Bile acid breath Test: Blind loop syndrome
•• Urea breath test: H. pylori infection
•• Secretin test: Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
Bloody diarrhea
•• Salmonella
•• Shigella
•• Yersinia
•• EIEC
•• Campylobacter jejuni
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Ulcerative Colitis Crohn’s disease

Involves rectum always Involves ileum mostly
May cause ‘pancolitis’ Nondiffuse involvement
Diffuse involvement Called ‘regional enteritis’
Retrograde spread to ileum is backwash ileitis
Disease of continuity Skip lesions
Pseudopolyps present Pseudopolyps absent
Limited to mucosa and submucosa Transmural inflammation
Noncaseating granulomas not seen Noncaseating granulomas seen
Creeping fat not seen Creeping fat seen
Strictures, ulcerations, fistula less frequent Strictures, ulcerations, fistula frequent
Toxic megacolon occurs Rare
Malignant transformation +++ Malignant transformation +
Mediators of inflammatory bowel diseases
•• Antisachromycies cereviase antibody: Crohn’s disease

•• p ANCA: more in favor of ulcerative colitis
•• Antiendomyseal antibody: Celiac sprue
Mainstay of therapy for inflammatory bowel diseases: 5 aminosalicylic acid
•• Sulfasalazine, olsalazine, mesolaminate also used
Other drugs used:
•• Methotrexate
•• Azathioprine
•• Cyclosporine
•• Cyclophosphamide
Extraintestinal manifestations of Crohn’s disease

•• Multiple, longitudinal, oval ulcers, along antimesenteric border: typhoid ulcers

•• Ulcers that heal; without scarring: typhoid ulcers
•• Classical flask-shaped ulcers: amebic ulcer
Verner-Morrison Syndrome
WDHA Syndrome
Pancreatic cholera is due to increased secretion of VIP, GIP
Delta cell tumor causes pancreatic cholera which is not an infective condition but simulates cholera due to increased secretion of
water and salt
Diarrhea, weight loss and flushing occur
Electrolyte abnormalities include:
•• Hypokalemia
•• Hypochlorrhydia
•• Hyperglycemia
•• ‘Hypercalcemia’ and not Hypocalcemia
VIRAL HEPATITIS
Incubation period
•• Hepatitis A – incubation period 2–6 weeks
•• Hepatitis B4 – 8 weeks
•• Hepatitis C2 – 22 weeks
•• Hepatitis D4 – 8 weeks
•• Hepatitis E2 – 9 weeks
•• Hepatitis B is a DNA virus; all others are RNA virus

•• P GENE codes reverse transcriptase of Hepatitis B virus
•• Spreads by feco-oral route—Hepatitis A and E
•• Spreads by percutaneous route—Hepatitis B, C and D
•• Hepatitis B also spreads by vertical and sexual route—most common
•• Oncogenicity present in Hepatitis B especially after neonatal infection
•• Carrier state present in Hepatitis B
•• Hepatitis B virus may present in blood and other body fluids and excretions, such as saliva, breast milk, semen, vaginal secretions,
urine, bile, etc
•• Feces not known to be infectious
•• HBsAg is the first viral marker to appear in blood after infection; it remains in circulation throughout icteric course of disease. In
a typical case, it disappear within roughly 2 months but may last for 6 months
•• HBcAg is not demonstrable in circulation but antibody, anti-HBe appears in serum a week or two after appearance of HbSAg
•• Anti-HbeAg is the antibody marker to be seen in blood
•• HBeAg (HB envelop antigen) appears in blood concurrently with HBsAg
•• HbeAg is an indicator of intrahepatic viral replication and its presence in blood indicates high infectivity
•• For diagnosis of HBV infection, simultaneous presence of IgM, HBC indicates recent infection
•• And presence of IgG; anti H-Be indicates remote infection
•• Hepatitis B is associated with PAN
•• Interferon, lamuvidine, adefovir are used in treatment of Hepatitis B
•• Type E hepatitis: enterically transmitted.
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•• MC cause of sporadiac cases of hepatitis in adults: Hepatitis E

•• Worst prognosis in pregnancy: Hepatitis E
•• Most common route of spread of Hepatitis E is feco-oral
•• Non A–non B hepatitis caused by Hepatitis C virus
•• Interferon + ribavarin combinations are used for hepatitis C
•• Hepatitis most prone to chronicity: hepatitis C
•• Hepatitis C is associated with:
•• Cryoglobinemia
•• PAN
•• Sjögren’s syndrome
•• Throioditis
•• Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
•• Glomerulonephritis
•• Lichenoid eruption
•• Arthritis
HDV
•• HDV is ‘defective’ because it does not have genes for its proteins
•• HDV can replicate in cells only infected with HBV
•• HDV uses surface antigen of HBV (HBsAg) as its envelop protein
•• HBV is a helper virus for HDV
•• HDV is an enveloped virus

•• HDV is an RNA virus
•• Genome of HDV is small and encodes only one protein—the delta antigen
•• HDV genome is a ribozyme, i.e. has ability to self-cleave and self-ligate
•• Infection with Hepatitis D can be prevented by vaccinating susceptible persons with Hepatitis B vaccine.
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome
•• Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a condition in which bacteria, usually from a pelvic infection, spread through the abdomen and
cause inflammation of the tissue surrounding the liver. It occurs in 15–30% of women with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID),
but may also occur in women without PID, and in men
•• In Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome, the inflammation of the liver tissue leads to the (adhesions) between the outside of the liver and the
inside of the abdomen. In some individuals, these adhesions cause no symptoms. Others have severe pain in the upper right part
of the abdomen, over the gallbladder. The pain may move to the right shoulder. Sometimes the pain increases with coughing,
sneezing, or movement. Since the source of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is most often a pelvic infection, symptoms such as nausea,
vomiting, chills, fever, and headaches may be present
•• Diagnosis: The presence of a pelvic infection would also provide a clue to the diagnosis, but without PID, the diagnosis may be
difficult, since many conditions can cause abdominal pain. In women, cervical cultures for two particular pelvic infections
need to be done. Chlamydia and gonorrhea are the most common causes of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome. If infection is present,
the white blood cell (WBC) count in the blood will be high, as will the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
•• Laparoscopy confirms diagnosis: The physician can see the adhesions on the outside of the liver, which have a typical stringy
look (called ‘violin-string’ adhesions).
Budd-Chiari Syndrome: (5 Ps)

•• Polycythemia vera
•• Pregnancy
•• Postpartum
•• Pills (OCP)
•• PNH
•• Hepatocellular cancer
•• Caplan’s syndrome: Pneumoconiosis+rheumatiod arthritis

•• Felty’s syndrome: Rheumatiod arthritis+splenomegaly+
Cholestasis is reflected by:

•• ↑Alkaline phosphatase
•• ↑5 nucleotidase
•• ↑GGT
Wilson’s Disease
•• It is an AR disorder
•• Chromosome 13 is involved
•• The diagnosis is confirmed by the demonstration of either:
–– A serum ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/dl and Kayser-Fleischer rings or
–– A serum ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/dl and a concentration of copper in a liver biopsy sample > 250 mg/g dry weight or
–– Most symptomatic patients excrete >100 mg copper per day in urine and have histologic abnormalities on liver biopsy
Pathognomonic features are:
•• Hepatic dysfunction: Jaundice, Hepatomegaly, Cirrhosis, Portal hypertension, Hepatitis occur
•• Eye Changes: Brownish or grayish Kayser-Fleisher ring in Descement’s membrane in cornea
•• These golden deposits of copper in Descemet’s membrane of the cornea do not interfere with vision but indicate that copper has
been released from the liver and has probably caused brain damage
•• If a patient with frank neurologic or psychiatric disease does not have Kayser-Fleischer rings when examined by a trained observer
using a slit lamp, the diagnosis of Wilson’s disease can be excluded
•• Rarely, Kayser-Fleischer rings may be accompanied by sunflower cataracts
•• The neurologic manifestations include resting and intention tremors, spasticity, rigidity, chorea, drooling, dysphagia, and
dysarthria. Babinski responses may be present, and abdominal reflexes are often absent. Sensory changes never occur, except
for headache
•• Psychiatric disturbances are present in most patients with neurologic symptoms. Schizophrenia, manic-depressive psychoses,
and classic neuroses may occur, but the commonest disturbances are bizarre behavioral patterns that defy classification
Treatment consists of removing and detoxifying the deposits of copper as rapidly as possible and must be instituted once the diagnosis
is secure, whether the patient is ill or asymptomatic
•• Zinc is the DOC
•• Penicillamine is administered orally in an initial dose of 1 g daily in single or divided doses at least 30 min before and 2 h after
eating
•• The dose of Trientine is 1 g/d on an empty stomach is more potent than pencillamine and used in patients not tolerating
pencillamine
Zinc acetate or gluconate are effective as maintenance therapy, at doses of 150 mg/d of elemental zinc, for patients who are
asymptomatic or have improved maximally on penicillamine or trientine.
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Disease of C (Wilson’s Disease)

•• Ceruloplasmin ↓
•• Chromosomal involvement
•• Copper deposition in hepatocytes
•• Chronic active hepatitis
•• Cirrhosis
•• Changes (Sensory) absent
•• Cataract (Sunflower)
•• Chorea is a feature
•• Corneal Involvement (Kayser-Fleischer Ring)
Hemochromatosis
•• It is a common disorder of iron storage
•• In which there is an appropriate increase in intestinal iron absorption
•• Results in deposition of excessive amounts of iron in parenchymal cells with eventual tissue damage and
•• Impaired function of organs, especially the liver, pancreas, heart, joints, and pituitary
–– Hereditary or genetic hemochromatosis: This disorder is most often caused by inheritance of a mutant HFE gene, which is
tightly linked to the HLA-A locus on chromosome 6p
–– Autosomal dominant
–– Secondary iron overload: Tissue injury usually occurs secondary to an iron-loading anemia such as thalassemia or
sideroblastic anemia, in which increased erythropoiesis is ineffective. In the acquired iron-loading disorders, massive iron
deposits in parenchymal tissues can lead to the same clinical and pathologic features as in hemochromatosis
In hemochromatosis, mucosal absorption is inappropriate to body needs and amounts to 4 mg/d or more. The progressive
accumulation of iron causes an:
–– Early elevation in plasma iron
–– An increased saturation of transferrin, and
–– Progressive elevation of plasma ferritin level.
Initial symptoms include weakness, lassitude, weight loss, change in skin color, abdominal pain, loss of libido, and symptoms of diabetes
mellitus
The liver is usually the first organ to be affected, and hepatomegaly is present in more than 95% of symptomatic patients.
Hepatocellular carcinoma develops in about 30% of patients with cirrhosis, and it is the most common cause of death in
treated patients; hence the importance of early diagnosis and therapy. Its incidence increases with age, is more common in men, and
occurs almost exclusively in cirrhotic patients. Splenomegaly occurs in approximately half of symptomatic cases
Excessive skin pigmentation is present in over 90% of symptomatic patients at the time of diagnosis. The characteristic metallic or
slate gray hue is sometimes referred to as bronzing and results from increased melanin and iron in the dermis. Pigmentation usually is
diffuse and generalized, but it may be more pronounced on the face, neck, extensor aspects of the lower forearms, dorsa of the hands,
lower legs, genital regions, and in scars
Bronze color
Diabetes mellitus is more likely to develop in those with a family history of diabetes, suggesting that direct damage to the pancreatic
islets by iron deposition occurs in combination with a genetic predisposition
Bronze Diabetes
Arthropathy develops in 25 to 50% of patients. It usually occurs after age 50, but may occur as a first manifestation, or long after
therapy. The joints of the hands, especially the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints, which are usually the first joints
involved may ensue
Acute brief attacks of synovitis may be associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate (chondrocalcinosis or pseudogout),
mainly in the knees.
Cardiac involvement is the presenting manifestation in about 15% of patients. The most common manifestation is congestive heart
failure, which occurs in about 10% of young adults with the disease, especially those with juvenile hemochromatosis
Hypogonadism occurs in both sexes and may antedate other clinical features. Manifestations include loss of libido, impotence,
amenorrhea, testicular atrophy, gynecomastia, and sparse body hair. These changes are primarily the result of decreased
production of gonadotropins due to impairment of hypothalamic-pituitary function by iron deposition; however, primary testicular
dysfunction may be seen in some cases. Adrenal insufficiency, hypothyroidism, and hypoparathyroidism may also occur.
Diagnosis
The association of:
1. Hepatomegaly
2. Skin pigmentation
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. Heart disease
5. Arthritis and
6. Hypogonadism should suggest the diagnosis
Transferrin saturation and iron-binding capacity are used as initial screening tests
Treatment: Venesection, Phlebotomy (TOC) and desferroxamine.
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

•• PBC is associated with a variety of disorders, such as CREST, the sicca syndrome (dry eyes and dry mouth); autoimmune
thyroiditis; type 1 diabetes mellitus; and IgA deficiency
•• IgG antimitochondrial antibody (AMA) is detected in more than 90% of patients with PBC
•• Many patients with PBC are asymptomatic, and the disease is initially detected on the basis of ↑ serum alkaline phosphatase
•• 90% are women aged 35 to 60
•• Earliest symptom is pruritus, which may be either generalized or limited initially to the palms and soles
•• Steatorrhea and the malabsorption of lipid-soluble vitamins
•• Protracted elevation of serum lipids, especially cholesterol, leads to subcutaneous lipid deposition around the eyes (xanthelasmas)
and over joints and tendons (xanthomas)
•• Over a period of months to years, the itching, jaundice, and hyperpigmentation slowly worsen. Eventually, signs of hepatocellular
failure and portal hypertension develop and ascites appears
Laboratory Findings:
•• ↑Serum alkaline phosphatase
•• ↑Serum 5-nucleotidase activity and
•• ↑γ-glutamyl transpeptidase levels
•• Serum bilirubin is usually normal and aminotransferase levels minimally increased
•• The diagnosis is supported by a positive AMA test
Treatment: Ursodiol has been shown to improve biochemical and histologic features and might improve survival, particularly liver
transplantation-free survival (although this remains unproven)
Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis
•• SBC results from prolonged partial or total obstruction of the common bile duct or its major branches caused by postoperative
strictures or gallstones. Chronic pancreatitis may lead to biliary stricture and secondary cirrhosis
•• SBC is also an important complication of primary sclerosing cholangitis
•• Patients with malignant tumors of the common bile duct or pancreas rarely survive long enough to develop SBC
•• In children, congenital biliary atresia and cystic fibrosis are common causes of SBC.
•• Anti-smooth muscle antibody: Autoimmune hepatitis I

•• Anti-liver/kidney microsomal antibody: Autoimmune hepatitis II
•• Anti-mitochondrial antibody: Primary biliary cirrhosis
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•• Angiosarcoma liver: Vinyl chloride, Aflatoxin, Thorotrast

•• Peliosis hepatitis: Steroids, Danazol
•• Hepatic vein thrombosis: OCP, cytotoxic drugs
•• Veno occlusive disease: Pyrozziline alkaloids, cytotoxic drugs
Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)

•• Patients with ascites and cirrhosis may develop acute bacterial peritonitis without an obvious primary source of infection
•• Patients with very advanced liver disease are particularly susceptible to SBP
•• The ascitic fluid in these patients typically has especially low concentrations of albumin and other so-called opsonic proteins,
which normally may provide some protection against bacteria
•• An ascitic fluid leukocyte count of 500 cells/L (with a proportion of polymorphonuclear leukocytes of 50%) or more than 250
polymorphonuclear leukocytes should suggest the possibility of bacterial peritonitis while results of bacterial cultures of ascitic
fluid are pending
•• The presence of more than 10,000 leukocytes per liter, multiple organisms, or failure to improve after standard therapy for
48 h suggest that the peritonitis may be secondary to an infection elsewhere in the body.
Carcinoid Syndrome
•• Kulchitsky Type I (typical carcinoid)
•• Kulchitsky Type II (atypical carcinoid)
•• Kulchitsky Type III (small cell lung cancer)
•• ‘Carcinoid syndrome’ occurs in less than 10% of patients with carcinoid tumors
The carcinoid syndrome is encountered when venous drainage from the tumor gains access to the systemic circulation so that
vasoactive secretory substances escape hepatic degradation
This situation obtains in three circumstances:
1. When hepatic metastases are present
2. When venous blood from extensive retroperitoneal metastases drains into paravertebral veins, and
3. When the primary carcinoid tumor is outside the gastrointestinal tract, e.g. a bronchial, ovarian, or testicular tumor
Hepatorenal Syndrome
Definition and Pathogenesis Hepatorenal syndrome is a serious complication in the patient with cirrhosis and ascites and is
characterized by worsening azotemia with avid sodium retention and oliguria in the absence of identifiable specific causes of
renal dysfunction
•• The kidneys are structurally intact
•• Urinalysis and pyelography are usually normal
•• Renal biopsy is also normal, and
•• Kidneys from such patients have been used successfully for renal transplantation
Clinical features and diagnosis:
•• Worsening azotemia
•• Hyponatremia
•• Progressive oliguria
•• Hypotensions are the hallmarks of the hepatorenal syndrome
This syndrome, which is distinct from prerenal azotemia, may be precipitated by severe gastrointestinal bleeding, sepsis, or overly
vigorous attempts at diuresis or paracentesis; it may also occur without an obvious cause.
Hypoxemia and Hepatopulmonary Syndrome

Mild hypoxemia occurs in approximately one-third of patients with chronic liver disease
The hepatopulmonary syndrome is typically manifest by hypoxemia, platypnea, and orthodeoxia
Hypoxemia usually results from right to left intrapulmonary shunts through dilatations in intrapulmonary vessels that can be detected
by contrast-enhanced echocardiography or a macroaggregated albumin lung perfusion scan.
Remember
•• Commonest cause of lower GI bleed is: Hemorrhoid
•• BUT commonest cause of massive bleed per rectum in elderly is diverticulosis
•• Hypergastrenemia with hypochlorrydia is a feature of pernicious anemia
•• Clostridium difficile has been associated with Crohn’s disease.
RENAL SYSTEM
Significance of Casts
RBC Casts: Glomerulonephritis
Dysmorphic RBC: Glomerular pathology
WBC Casts: Pyelonephritis
Hyaline Casts: Normal, ARF
Coarse granular casts: ATN
Waxy casts: CRF
Tom Harsfall protein: normal, tubular in origin
Recurrent Gross Hematuria is seen in

•• IgA nephropathy
•• Alport’s syndrome
•• Thin glomerular basement membrane disease
•• Hypercalciuria
•• Urolithiasis
Prerenal Uremia-Kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume

Prerenal uremia Acute tubular necrosis
Urine sodium < 20 mmol/L > 30 mmol/L
Fractional sodium excretion* < 1% > 1%
Fractional urea excretion** < 35% >35%
Urine: plasma osmolality > 1.5 < 1.1
Urine: plasma urea > 10:1 < 8:1
Specific gravity > 1020 < 1010
Urine ‘bland’ sediment brown granular casts
Response to fluid challenge Yes No
Seen in CRF are

•• Broad casts in urine
•• Restless legs
•• Impotence
•• Isothenuria
•• Hypernatremia/hyponatremia
•• Hypokalemia/hyperkalemia
•• Hypocalcemia
•• Hyperurecemia
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Causes of CRF:
•• Membranous GN
•• Membranoproliferative GN
•• FSGN
•• Azotemia (High levels of BUN and creatinine)

•• Metabolic acidosis
•• Hyperkalemia
•• Fluid retention (may cause hypertension, edema, congestive heart failure, and pulmonary edema)
•• Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia (impaired vitamin D production; bone loss leads to renal osteodystrophy)
•• Anemia (due to lack of erythropoietin; give synthetic erythropoietin to correct)
•• Anorexia, nausea, vomiting (from build-up of toxins)
•• Central nervous system disturbances (mental status changes and even convulsions or coma from toxin build-up)
•• Bleeding (due to disordered platelet function)
•• Uremic pericarditis (friction rub may be heard)
•• Skin pigmentation and pruritus (skin turns yellowish-brown and itches because of metabolic byproducts)
•• Increased susceptibility to infection (due to decreased cellular immunity).
Diabetes Mellitus
Epidemiology IDDM NIDDM
Age at onset Younger, lean patients Older, obese patients
Heredity Usually < 25 years Usually > 40 years
HLA-DR 3 and/or DR 4 (95%) No HLA links
30–50% concordance in identical twins 90% concordance in identical twins
Autoimmunity Presence of islet cell antibody, Insulin autoantibody. Association with None
other organ-specific autoimmune diseases
Insulin deficiency
May develop ketoacidosis
Insulin
Clinical Partial insulin deficiency, Insulin
treatment resistance
May develop nonketotic
hyperosmolar state
Weight loss, drugs, insulin sometimes
Remember
•• Glucose levels rise in the early morning (Dawn phenomenon)
•• Rebound hyperglycemia may appear from 1/2 to 24 hours after moderate to severe hypoglycemia (Somogyi phenomenon)
•• Syndrome X is a term used to describe a constellation of metabolic derangements that includes insulin resistance, hypertension,
dyslipidemia, central or visceral obesity, endothelial dysfunction, and accelerated cardiovascular disease
•• Chronic complications can be divided into vascular and nonvascular complications. The vascular complications of DM are further
subdivided into:
–– Microvascular (retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy) and
–– Macrovascular complications (coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease, cerebrovascular disease)
–– Nonvascular complications include problems such as gastroparesis, sexual dysfunction, and skin changes.
RENAL COMPLICATIONS OF DIABETES MELLITUS

•• Diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of ESRD and a leading cause of DM-related morbidity and mortality
•• Proteinuria in individuals with DM is associated with markedly reduced survival and increased risk of cardiovascular disease
•• Individuals with diabetic nephropathy almost always have diabetic retinopathy also
OPHTHALMOLOGIC COMPLICATIONS OF DIABETES MELLITUS
•• DM is the leading cause of blindness
•• Blindness is primarily the result of progressive diabetic retinopathy and clinically significant macular edema
•• Diabetic retinopathy is classified into two stages: nonproliferative and proliferative
NEUROPATHY AND DIABETES MELLITUS
•• Diabetic neuropathy occurs in approximately 50% of individuals with long-standing type 1 and type 2 DM
•• It may manifest as polyneuropathy, mononeuropathy, and/or autonomic neuropathy
•• Development of neuropathy correlates with the duration of diabetes and glycemic control
•• The absence of chest pain (silent ischemia) is common in individuals with diabetes.
DRUGS IN DIABETES
•• Α-Adrenergic blockers slightly improve insulin resistance and positively impact the lipid profile, whereas beta blockers and
thiazide diuretics can increase insulin resistance
•• Beta blockers cause masking of hypoglycemic symptoms
•• Central adrenergic antagonists and vasodilators are lipid- and glucose-neutral
NONALCOHOLIC STEATOHEPATITIS
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis in the absence
of a history of alcohol abuse. Associated factors:
•• Obesity
•• Hyperlipidemia
•• Type 2 diabetes mellitus
•• Jejunoileal bypass
•• Sudden weight loss/starvation
Features: Usually asymptomatic, hepatomegaly, AST > ALT
MODY
Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) is characterized by the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus in patients <25 years
old. It is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant condition. Over six different genetic mutations have so far been identified as
leading to MODY. Ketosis is not a feature at presentation
MODY 2: 20% of cases, due to a defect in the glucokinase gene
MODY 3: 60% of cases, due to a defect in the HNF-1 alpha gene
Diabetic Nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical syndrome characterized by:
•• Persistent albuminuria (> 300 mg/d or > 200 mcg/min) that is confirmed on at least 2 occasions 3–6 months apart (early test)
•• A relentless decline in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
•• Elevated arterial blood pressure
•• HbA1C is used to monitor diabetic control
Diabetic Nephropathy: Stages

Diabetic nephropathy: Stages
Diabetic nephropathy may be classified as occurring in five stages*:
Stage 1
•• Hyperfiltration: increase in GFR
•• May be reversible
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Stage 2 (silent or latent phase)

•• Most patients do not develop microalbuminuria for 10 years
•• GFR remains elevated
Stage 3 (incipient nephropathy)
•• Microalbuminuria (albumin excretion of 30–300 mg/day, dipstick negative)
Stage 4 (overt nephropathy)
•• Persistent proteinuria (albumin excretion > 300 mg/day, dipstick positive)
•• Hypertension is present in most patients
•• Histology shows diffuse glomerulosclerosis and focal glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules)
Stage 5
•• End-stage renal disease, GFR typically < 10 ml/min
•• Renal replacement therapy needed.
•• It is the leading cause of End-stage Renal disease, (ESRD)

•• It is more common in blacks with type 2 DM
•• Microalbuminuria is the first manifestation of injury to glomerular filtration barrier and predicts nephropathy
•• Kidney size is normal or increased
•• ACE inhibitors are the drugs of choice as they control both systemic and intraglomerular hypertension
•• The determination of microalbuminuria in diabetes mellitus is important as it is the earliest indication of diabetic nephropathy
which, left untreated, will eventually lead to end-stage renal disease.
•• The pathological changes are identical in Type 1 and 2
•• The main changes occur in the glomeruli. Rarely, changes may occur in the renal tubules
•• Aggressive and sustained treatment of nephropathy would slow the progression of the condition
•• Microalbuminuria is best determined on a 24-hour urine sample
•• For convenience, a random sample can also be used and the test done with the Micral Test Strip.
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules are characteristic of diabetic nephropathy. ‘Nodules of pink hyaline material form in regions of
glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus. This is due to a marked increase in mesangial matrix from damage as a result of non-
enzymatic glycosylation of proteins.’
Differences between Nephritic and Nephrotic Syndromes

Nephritic Syndrome Nephrotic Syndrome
1. Hematuria 1. Severe proteinuria
2. Hypertension 2. Hypoalbuminemia
3. Oliguria 3. Hyperlipidemia
4. Proteinuria 4. Fibrinogen increased
5. Lipoproteins increased
6. Low serum calcium
7. Platelet activation
8. Decreased HDL
Acute Nephritic Syndrome

•• It is characterized by sudden onset (i.e. over days to weeks) of acute renal failure and oliguria (< 400 ml of urine per day)
•• Renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) fall
•• Extracellular fluid volume expansion, edema
•• Hypertension develops because of impaired GFR and enhanced tubular reabsorption of salt and water
•• As a result of injury to the glomerular capillary wall, urinalysis typically reveals red blood cell casts, dysmorphic red blood cells,
leukocytes, and subnephrotic proteinuria of < 3.5 g per 24 h (nephritic urinary sediment)
•• Hematuria is often macroscopic.
Glomerulonephritides: Membranous glomerulonephritis

•• Presentation: proteinuria/nephrotic syndrome/CRF
•• Cause: infections, rheumatoid drugs, malignancy
•• Gold, pencillamine
•• 1/3 resolve, 1/3 respond to cytotoxics, 1/3 develop CRF
IgA nephropathy aka Berger’s disease mesangioproliferative GN
•• Typically young adult with hematuria following an URTI
•• Patient presents with gross hematuria often ‘24 to 48 hrs’ after a pharyngeal or GIT infection as compared to poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis which develops ‘10 days’ after pharyngitis and ‘2 weeks’ after skin infection
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
•• Classical poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis in a child
•• Presents as nephritic syndrome/ARF
Minimal change disease (MCD)

•• Typically a child with nephrotic syndrome (accounts for 80%)
•• Causes: Idiopathic, HIV, Hodgkin’s, NSAIDs, rifampicin,interferon alpha
•• Good response to steroids
•• IgA deposits
•• Fusion of foot processes on EM
•• No change on light microscopy
•• Polyanions contribute to damage
•• Hypertension is not common in MCD
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
•• May be idiopathic or secondary to HIV, heroin
•• Presentation: proteinuria/nephrotic syndrome/CRF
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis aka crescentic glomerulonephritis
•• Rapid onset, often presenting as ARF, crescent formation, nonselective proteinuria
Causes include:
•• Poststreptococcal GN
•• Goodpasture’s
•• ANCA positive vasculitis
•• SLE
•• Infective endocarditis
•• HS purpura
•• Burger’s disease
Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis (Membranoproliferative)
•• Type 1: cryoglobulinemia, hepatitis C
•• Type 2: partial lipodystrophy
Kidney in HIV
Aggressive form of ‘focal segmental glomerulosclerosis’ (FSGS) characterizes HIV infection along with microcystic tubular dilatation
and interstitial fibrosis.
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Viral genome has been detected in glomerular and tubular cells

1. HIV infection is associated with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, and
mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis, including IgA nephropathy, MPGN, and membranous glomerulopathy
2. The ‘classic and most common’HIV-associated glomerulopathy is an‘aggressive form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis’,
an entity that is termed as HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN)
3. This disease may be the first manifestation of infection in otherwise asymptomatic patients. HIVAN is more common in blacks
than in other ethnic groups and is more frequent in intravenous drug abusers with HIV infection than in homosexuals
4. The disease has been described in all high-risk groups, however, including infants of HIV-positive mothers
5. Renal biopsy typically reveals visceral epithelial cell swelling, collapse of the glomerular capillary tuft, severe tubulointerstitial
inflammation, and microcystic dilatation of renal tubules
6. Electron microscopy characteristically reveals severe visceral epithelial cell injury and tubuloreticular inclusions in glomerular
endothelial cells, tubular cells and infiltrating leukocytes. This constellation of findings has been termed as collapsing
glomerulopathy, but it should be emphasized that a similar picture can be seen in the absence of HIV infection
7. The presence of tubuloreticular inclusions and the aggressive clinical course distinguish HIVAN from idiopathic focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis
8. The typical clinical correlates of HIVAN are severe nephrotic syndrome and rapid progression to ESRD, occurring in weeks to
months.
Wegner’s Granulomatosis
•• Necrotizing vasculitis of small arteries and veins together with granuloma formation that can be either intravascular or
extravascular
•• Lung involvement: Bilateral nodular cavitary infiltrates demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis
•• The renal biopsy lesion is that of a pauci-immune necrotizing and crescentic GN.
Goodpasture’s Syndrome
•• Autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies are directed against type IV collagen
•• The clinical complex of anti-GBM nephritis and lung hemorrhage is referred to as Goodpasture’s syndrome. Patients with
Goodpasture’s syndrome are typically young males (5 to 40 years; male-female ratio of 6:1)
•• The target antigen is a component of the noncollagenous (NCI) domain of the α3 chain of type IV collagen, the α3 chain being
preferentially expressed in glomerular and pulmonary alveolar basement membrane
Anti-GBM disease commonly presents with:
•• Hematuria
•• Nephritic urinary sediment, subnephrotic proteinuria and
•• Rapidly progressive renal failure over weeks, with or without pulmonary hemorrhage
•• About 20% of patients have low titers of ANCA, usually a perinuclear (p ANCA)
•• Renal biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis of anti-GBM nephritis
•• The typical morphologic pattern on light microscopy is diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, with focal necrotizing lesions and
crescents in >50% of glomeruli (crescentic glomerulonephritis)
•• Immunofluorescence microscopy reveals linear ribbon-like deposition of IgG along the GBM
•• C3 is present in the same distribution in 70% of patients. Prominent IgG deposition along the tubule basement membrane and
tubulointerstitial inflammation is found occasionally
•• Electron microscopy reveals nonspecific inflammatory changes without immune deposits. Typical features on lung biopsy include
alveolar hemorrhage.
Alport’s Syndrome (Hereditary Nephritis)

•• Nephritis
•• Nerve deafness
•• Eye disorders (Lens dislocation, corneal dystrophy, posterior cataracts)
•• Foamy cells in interstitium

•• Mutation in alpha 5 chain of collagen type IV
•• Electron microscopy is used for diagnosis
Rhabdomyolysis
Causes:
•• Crush injury
•• Burns
•• Heroin, barbiturates
•• Cocaine, amphetamines
•• Hypokalemia
•• Hypophosphatemia
•• Diabetic ketoacidosis
•• Clostridium, streptococcus
Liddle’s Syndrome
Liddle’s syndrome is a rare familial disease with a clinical presentation of ‘hyperaldosteronism’, consisting of:
•• Hypertension
•• Hypokalemia and
•• Metabolic alkalosis
However, aldosterone levels are undetectable in these patients, and a nonaldosterone mineralocorticoid has not been isolated
Increased distal tubule sodium reabsorption, due to activating mutations in the amiloride-sensitive sodium channel, has been
described in multiple families
Pharmacologic agents that block distal tubule sodium uptake, such as amiloride and triamterene, are effective in treating the
hypertension and electrolyte abnormalities.
Differentiating features
Bartter’s Syndrome
Antenatal Bartter’s syndrome is characterized by polyhydramnios and premature delivery
The infants also have a characteristic facies consisting of a triangular face with prominent eyes and ears. Prostaglandin E production
is very high
Characteristic of Bartter’s syndrome:
•• Hypokalemia
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•• Metabolic alkalosis and

•• Normal to low blood pressure ‘Not Elevated’
The ‘Gitelman’s variant’ of Bartter’s syndrome presents during adolescence or adulthood and generally has a milder course than
Bartter’s syndrome. The dominant features are fatigue and weakness. It is distinguished from Bartter’s Syndrome by:
•• Hypocalciuria
•• Hypomagnesemia with hypermagnesuria and
•• Normal prostaglandin production.
Renal Tubular Acidosis

All three types of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are associated with hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis (normal anion gap):
Type 1 RTA (distal)
•• Inability to generate acid urine (secrete H+) in distal tubule
•• Causes hypokalemia
•• Complications include nephrocalcinosis and renal stones
•• Causes include idiopathic, RA, SLE, Sjogren’s
Type 2 RTA (proximal)
•• Decreased HCO3 – reabsorption in proximal tubule
•• Causes hypokalemia
•• Complications include osteomalacia
•• Causes include idiopathic, as part of Fanconi syndrome, Wilson’s disease, cystinosis, outdated tetracyclines
Type 4 RTA (hyperkalemic)
•• Causes hyperkalemia
•• Causes include hypoaldosteronism, diabetes.
•• Benign hypertension: Hyaline arteriosclerosis

•• Malignant hypertension: Fibrinoid necrosis
•• Renin-dependent hypertension: Renovascular hypertension
Pheochromocytomas
Rule of ‘10’ in pheochromocytomas:
•• 10% malignant*
•• 10% bilateral*
•• 10% extra-adrenal*
•• 10% extra-abdominal*
•• 10% occur in children
•• 10% familial
•• 10% not associated with hypertension*
•• Most common sign in pheochromocytoma = Hypertension*
•• Commonest cause of paroxysmal hypertension
Syndromes associated with pheochromocytoma:
•• MEN type I (Sipple’s syndrome)
•• MEN type II (Mucosal neuroma syndrome)
•• von Hippel–Lindau’s syndrome
•• von Recklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis
Polycystic Kidney Disease

•• APKD is autosomal dominant
•• Type I involves Chromosome 16
•• Type II involves Chromosome 4
•• APKD has got other manifestations such as:
Colonic diverticuli (most common)
•• Hepatic cysts
•• Splenic cysts
•• Aneurysms
•• Mitral valve prolapse
•• Hypertension is seen in 20–30% cases of children and 70% cases of adults
•• Acute renal colic is due to hemorrhage into cyst
•• Both gross and microscopic hematuria are seen along with UTI, pyelonephritis, pyocyst, ESRD.
Remember APKD: 11 B’s

Bloody urine
Bilateral pain [vs stones, which are usually unilateral pain]
Blood pressure ↑
Bigger kidneys
Bumps palpable
Complications:
Berry aneurysm
Biliary cysts
Bicuspid valve [prolapse and other problems]
Accelerators:
Boys
Blacks
Blood pressure high
Tuberous Sclerosis
Patients with this multisystem disease most commonly present with skin lesions and benign tumors of the central nervous system
Renal involvement is common
Angiomyolipomas are the most frequent abnormality and are usually bilateral
Renal cysts may be present as well and can give an appearance similar to that of ADPKD
Histologically, the cysts are unique. The cyst-lining cells are large with an eosinophilic-staining cytoplasm and may form
hyperplastic nodules that can fill the cyst space.
von Hippel-Lindau Disease

This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by:
•• Hemangioblastomas of the retina and the central nervous system
•• Renal cysts occur in the majority of cases and are usually bilateral
•• The VHL gene is a tumor-suppressor gene and has been localized to chromosome 3. It is the same gene that is mutated in sporadic
renal cell carcinoma, which may be found in up to 25% of patients with von Hippel-Lindau disease and is frequently multifocal.
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Causes of Enlarged Kidneys: SHAPE

Scleroderma
HIV nephropathy
Amyloidosis
Polycystic kidney disease
Endocrinopathy (diabetes)
Diabetes Insipidus
Causes of cranial DI:
•• Idiopathic
•• Post-head injury
•• Pituitary surgery
•• Craniopharyngiomas
•• Histiocytosis X
DIDMOAD is the association of cranial Diabetes Insipidus, Diabetes Mellitus, Optic Atrophy and Deafness (also known as Wolfram’s
syndrome)
Causes of nephrogenic DI:
•• Genetic (primary)
•• Electrolytes: hypercalcemia, hypokalemia
•• Drugs: demeclocycline, lithium
•• Tubulointerstitial disease: obstruction, sickle-cell, pyelonephritis
Investigation
•• High-plasma osmolarity, low-urine osmolarity, water deprivation test
Differentiating diabetes insipidus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man from Toledo has severe polyuria and polydipsia, drinking 6 to 7 glasses of water and producing over one
liter of urine each hour. An internal medicine resident places the patient on overnight water restriction for further analysis. The
test results shown below were obtained the following morning. Plasma sodium concentration: 153 mEq/L, Urine osmolarity:
86 mosmol/L, Urine glucose concentration: 0 mg/d. There is no glucose in urine. The following is the most likely diagnosis:
1. Conn’s Syndrome
2. Bartter’s Syndrome
3. Liddle’s Syndrome
4. Addison’s disease
5. Diabetes insipidus
7. Fanconi syndrome
Ans. 5. Diabetes lnsipidus
It is characterized by the excretion of abnormally large volumes of dilute urine (polyuria) with a commensurate increase in fluid
intake (polydipsia). The most common type is due to inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (also called vasopressin) and is
usually referred to as ‘neurogenic’ diabetes insipidus. This condition rarely causes severe problems as long as the person has plenty of
water to drink. Placing the patient on overnight water restriction caused severe dehydration and a greatly elevated plasma sodium
concentration. The possibility of diabetes mellitus which can also be associated with polyuria and polydipsia is easily excluded by the
lack of glucosuria.
Renal Vein Thrombosis (RVT)

•• Thrombosis of one or both main renal veins occurs in a variety of settings (hypercoagulable states such as may develop in
pregnant women, users of oral contraceptives, subjects with nephrotic syndrome, or dehydrated infants. Nephrotic syndrome
accompanying membranous glomerulopathy and certain carcinomas predispose to the development of RVT
•• Acute cases occur typically in children and are characterized by sudden loss of renal function, often accompanied by fever, chills,
lumbar tenderness (with kidney enlargement), leukocytosis, and hematuria. Hemorrhagic infarction and renal rupture may lead
to hypovolemic shock
•• In cases of gradual thrombosis, usually occurring in the elderly, the only manifestation may be recurrent pulmonary emboli or
development of hypertension. A Fanconi-like syndrome and proximal renal tubular acidosis have been described
•• The definitive diagnosis can only be established through selective renal venography with visualization of the occluding
thrombus. Short of angiography, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) often provides definitive evidence of thrombus
•• Treatment consists of anticoagulation, the main purpose of which is prevention of pulmonary embolization, although some
authors have also claimed improvement in renal function and proteinuria. Thrombectomy is effective in some cases.
Renal Artery Stenosis

•• Stenosis of the main renal artery and/or its major branches accounts for 2 to 5% of hypertension
•• The common cause in the middle-aged and elderly is an atheromatous plaque at the origin of the renal artery
•• In younger women, stenosis is due to intrinsic structural abnormalities of the arterial wall caused by a heterogenous group of
lesions termed as fibromuscular dysplasia
•• Renal artery stenosis should be suspected when hypertension develops in a previously normotensive individual over 50 years of
age or in the young (under 30 years) with suggestive features: symptoms of vascular insufficiency to other organs, high-pitched
epigastric bruit on physical examination, symptoms of hypokalemia secondary to hyperaldosteronism (muscle weakness, tetany,
polyuria), and metabolic alkalosis
•• The best initial screening test is a renal ultrasound, which may reveal unilateral renal hypotrophy (but normal cortical
echogenicity). Absence of compensatory hypertrophy in the contralateral kidney should raise the suspicion of bilateral stenosis or
superimposed intrinsic (structural) renal disease, most commonly hypertensive or diabetic nephropathy
•• A positive captopril test, which has a sensitivity and specificity of greater than 95%, constitutes an excellent follow-up
procedure to assess the need for more invasive radiographic evaluation
•• Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) has replaced previous modalities as the most sensitive (100%) and specific (95%)
test for the diagnosis of renal arterial stenosis
•• The most definitive diagnostic procedure is bilateral arteriography with repeated bilateral renal vein and systemic renin
determinations.
Medicine 113
Dialysis
Commonly accepted criteria for putting patients on dialysis include:
•• The presence of uremic syndrome
•• The presence of hyperkalemia unresponsive to conservative measures
•• Extracellular volume expansion
•• Acidosis refractory to medical therapy
•• A bleeding diathesis; and a creatinine clearance of < 10 cc/min per 1.73 m2
•• In chronic renal failure (ESRD), the options include:
–– Hemodialysis (in center or at home)
–– Peritoneal dialysis, either as continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) or
–– Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)
•• Hemodialysis is the most common therapeutic modality
•• Peritoneal dialysis is favored in younger patients.
Complications during Hemodialysis:

•• Hypotension is the most common acute complication of hemodialysis
•• Muscle cramps
•• Anaphylactoid reactions to the dialyzer
•• The major cause of death in patients with ESRD receiving chronic dialysis is cardiovascular disease.
Hemodialysis is done for Poisoning in Blood From

•• Barbiturates
•• Aspirin
•• Methanol (Alcohol)
•• Boric acid
•• Thiocyanates
•• Lithium
•• Theophylline
•• Atenolol
For Dialysis, Properties Should be

•• Low molecular weight
•• High water solubility
•• Low protein binding
•• Small volume of distribution
•• Long half life
•• High dialysis clearance
Cushing’s Syndrome
ACTH-dependent causes
•• Cushing’s disease (80%): pituitary tumor secreting ACTH producing adrenal hyperplasia
•• Ectopic ACTH production (5–10%): e.g. small cell lung cancer
ACTH-Independent causes
•• Iatrogenic: steroids
•• Adrenal adenoma (5–10%)
•• Adrenal carcinoma (rare)

•• Carney complex: Syndrome including cardiac myxoma
•• Micronodular adrenal dysplasia (very rare)
Pseudo-Cushing’s
•• Mimics Cushing’s
•• Often due to alcohol excess or severe depression
•• Causes false positive dexamethasone suppression test or 24-hr urinary free cortisol
•• Insulin stress test may be used to differentiate.
Tests
•• The first test to perform is the dexamethasone suppression, which consists of administering 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11 PM,
and then measuring serum cortisol levels in a blood sample drawn at 8 AM the next day. Abnormally high cortisol levels after this
test confirm hypercortisolism
•• The next step is to find the source of excessive cortisol or ACTH
Baseline plasma ACTH measurement should be performed after a diagnosis:
•• If hypercortisolism has been confirmed by dexamethasone suppression test. This test is used to determine whether excessive
cortisol production is secondary to increased ACTH levels
•• CT scans of the chest and abdomen are performed to look for ectopic
•• Sources of ACTH. These radiologic studies are especially useful in finding neoplasms that may manifest with inappropriate ACTH
secretion, the most frequent of which is small cell carcinoma of the lungs.
Cushings disease
Cushing’s syndrome Addison’s syndrome
Weight gain Weight loss

Hypertension Hypotension
↓ K , ↓ Cl
+ -
↓ Na+, ↑ K+
Obesity Weakness, asthenia
No salt craving Salt craving
Difference
Medicine 115
Thyroid Endocrinology
Wolff-Chaikoff Effect
•• Excess iodide transiently inhibits thyroid iodide organification, a phenomenon known as the Wolff-Chaikoff effect
Sick euthyroid syndrome
•• Any acute, severe illness can cause abnormalities of circulating TSH or thyroid hormone levels in the absence of underlying thyroid
disease, making these measurements potentially misleading
•• The major cause of these hormonal changes is the release of cytokines. Unless a thyroid disorder is strongly suspected, the routine
testing of thyroid function should be avoided in acutely ill patients
The most common hormone pattern in sick euthyroid syndrome (SES) is a decrease in total and free T3 levels
(Low T3 syndrome) with normal levels of T4 and TSH
HYPERTHYROIDISM:
•• AF
•• Tachycardia
•• Cardiomyopathy
•• Diarrhea
•• Heat intolerance
•• Improper tissue handling in surgeries of thyroid can lead to thyroid storm
Hormonal changes in Primary Thyrotoxicosis are:
•• TSH↓
•• T3 and T4↑
•• RAIU↑
Hormonal changes in Secondary Hyperthyroidism are:
•• TSH↑
•• T3 and T4↑
•• RAIU↑
Drugs for Hyperthyroidism

•• Propyl thiouracil is unique in the fact that in addition to inhibiting other steps of thyroid hormone synthesis, it blocks peripheral
conversion of T4 to T3
•• Propyl thiouracil can be given in pregnancy
•• Propyl thiouracil is not associated with fetal aplasia cutis like methimazole and carbimazole
T4 to T3 conversion is effected by:
•• Fasting
•• Systemic illness or acute trauma
•• Oral contrast agents, and a variety of medications, (e.g. propylthiouracil, propranolol, amiodarone, glucocorticoids)
Subacute Thyroiditis or De Quervain’s Thyroiditis or Granulomatous Thyroiditis or Giant

Cell Thyroiditis
•• Leads to transient hyperthyroidism in early phase and hypothyroidism in late phase
•• WCC is normal in viral causes, increased in bacterial causes
•• Myopathy, diffuse goiter, myxedema are found
•• Present with fever, malaise, tender neck swelling
•• ESR is increased
•• Radio-iodide scan shows reduced uptake:

•• It is self-limited inflammation with complete recovery in 6 months
•• Main long-term complication is hypothyroidism which develops after the initial hyperthyroid phase
•• Microscopy reveals:
–– Initial phase: Acute inflammation
–– Later: Granulomatous reaction
–– More advanced: Fiberoblastic proliferation
•• Treat with NSAIDs and steroids if severe.
Hypothyroidism
•• Hung-up reflexes
•• Carpal tunnel syndrome
•• Menorrhagia
•• Constipation
•• Subnormal body temperature
•• Tendency for↑ sleep
•• Cold intolerance
•• ↑TSH
•• Lithium, PAS, Amidarone implicated in causation
Commonest cause of congenital hypothyroidism is thyroid agenesis
↓ T3↓T4↑TSH are a feature of primary hypothyroidism
Hashimoto’s disease is autoimmune throiditis
Thyroxine is used for treatment
Severe cases lead to myxedemic coma characterized by:
•• Slow pulse
•• Hypotension
Treated with:
•• IV fluids
•• Hydrocortisone
•• T3 injections
•• Childhood hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine

•• Hyperthyroidism during lactation is treated with propyl thiouracil.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is stereotypically seen in elderly females with an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or
raised parathyroid hormone level. It is most commonly due to a solitary adenoma
Causes of Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
•• 80%: solitary adenoma
•• 15%: hyperplasia
•• 4%: multiple adenoma
•• 1%: carcinoma
Features—‘bones, stones, abdominal groans and psychic moans’
•• Polydipsia, polyuria
•• Peptic ulceration/constipation/pancreatitis
•• Bone pain/fracture
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•• Bone cysts (brown tumors)

•• Renal stones
•• Depression
•• Hypertension
•• Impaired glucose tolerance
Associations
•• Hypertension
•• Multiple endocrine neoplasia: MEN I and II
Investigations
•• Raised calcium, low phosphate
•• PTH may be raised or normal
•• Normal alkaline phosphatase
•• Technetium-MIBI subtraction scan
Treatment
•• Total parathyroidectomy
Hypoparathyroidism
Primary hypoparathyroidism
•• Decrease PTH secretion, e.g. secondary to thyroid surgery
•• Low calcium, high phosphate
•• Treat with alfacalcidol
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
•• Target cells being insensitive to PTH
•• Due to abnormality in a G protein
•• Associated with low IQ, short stature, shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals
•• Low calcium, high phosphate, high PTH
•• Diagnosis is made by measuring urinary cAMP and phosphate levels following an infusion of PTH. In hypoparathyroidism this will
cause an increase in both cAMP and phosphate levels. In pseudohypoparathyroidism type I, neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are
increased whilst in pseudohypoparathyroidism type II, only cAMP rises
Pseudo-pseudo-hypoparathyroidism
•• Similar phenotype to pseudohypoparathyroidism but normal biochemistry.
Conn’s Syndrome
•• Hyperaldosteronism
•• ↑Aldosterone↑renin
•• Hypertension
•• ↑sodium
•• ↓potassium
•• Polyuria, polydipsia
•• Weakness
•• Proximal myopathy
Addison’s Disease
•• Addison’s disease is primary adrenocortical insufficiency. Associated electrolyte abnormalities:
–– Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia
–– Hypoglycemia
–– Metabolic acidosis
•• 90% gland must be destroyed to manifest the disease
•• Autoimmune causes are responsible for most cases
•• Clinical signs include: fatigability, weakness, anorexia, weight loss, cutaneous and mucosal pigmentation, hypotension and
hypoglycemia
•• Pigmentation is usually increased except in adrenal insufficiency secondary to pituitary failure. Increased pigmentation is
characterized by diffuse tanning of both exposed and nonexposed portions of the body, especially on pressure points (bony
prominences), skin folds, scars, and extensor surfaces
•• Black freckles over the forehead, face, neck, and shoulders; areas of vitiligo; and bluish-black discolorations of the areolae
and of the mucous membranes of the lips, mouth, rectum, and vagina are common
•• In a patient with suspected Addison’s disease, the definite investigation is a short ACTH test. Plasma cortisol is measured before
and 30 minutes after giving Synacthen 250 mg IM. Adrenal autoantibodies such as anti-21-hydroxylase may also be demonstrated
•• Busulfan causes Addisonian-like features.
Adrenal Insufficiency
A 44-year-old female from Ohio has unexplained fatigue, weight loss, and diffuse muscle pains over the last 4 months. She
has been using oral prednisone (10 mg/day) that was started early this year. Three months ago her breathing seemed to be
getting a lot better, so she decided to stop the prednisone. Her temperature is 37.0 °C (98.6 °F), blood pressure is 90/40 mm
Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical examination, she has a tanned appearance with an otherwise
normal skin examination. Her heart is tachycardic and regular without murmurs. Her lungs have a few scattered wheezes.
Laboratory studies show: hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia.
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
Fulminant, life-threatening meningitis caused by meningococcus is with a vasculitic purpura and disseminated intravascular
coagulation. Complicated by adrenal involvement with coagulopathy, hypotension, adrenal cortical necrosis, and sepsis is Waterhouse-
Friderichsen syndrome.
SIADH
CAUSED BY:
•• Carbamezapine
•• Vincristine
•• Chlorpropamide
•• Oxytocin
•• Head injury
•• Encephalitis
•• Oat cell carcinoma of lung
•• Hyponatremia is a feature
Concentrated urine, dilute serum: SIADH

Dilute urine-concentrated serum: Diabetes insipidus
Medicine 119
Polyglandular Autoimmune Syndrome Type I

PGA type I is usually recognized in the first decade of life and requires two of the three components for diagnosis:
•• Mucocutaneous candidiasis
•• Hypoparathyroidism and
•• Adrenal insufficiency
This disorder is also called autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dystrophy (APECED)
Other endocrine defects can include gonadal failure, hypothyroidism, anterior hypophysitis, and, less commonly, destruction of the
β cells of the pancreatic islets and development of insulin-dependent (Type 1) diabetes mellitus. Additional features include hypoplasia
of the dental enamel, ungual dystrophy, tympanic membrane sclerosis, vitiligo, keratopathy, and gastric parietal cell dysfunction
resulting in pernicious anemia
Some patients develop autoimmune hepatitis, malabsorption (variably attributed to intestinal lymphangiectasia, IgA deficiency,
bacterial overgrowth, or hypoparathyroidism), asplenism, achalasia, and cholelithiasis.
Polyglandular Autoimmune Syndrome Type II

PGA type II is characterized by:
•• Primary adrenal insufficiency
•• Graves’ disease or autoimmune hypothyroidism
•• Type 1 diabetes mellitus and
•• Primary hypogonadism
Other associated conditions include hypophysitis, celiac disease, atrophic gastritis, and pernicious anemia. Vitiligo, caused by
antibodies against the melanocyte, and alopecia are less common than in the type I syndrome. Mucocutaneous candidiasis does not
occur.
Insulinomas
•• Insulinomas are endocrine tumors of the pancreas derived from β cells that autonomously secrete insulin, which results in
hypoglycemia
•• The most common clinical symptoms are due to the effect of the hypoglycemia on the central nervous system (neuroglycemic
symptoms) and include confusion, headache, disorientation, visual difficulties, irrational behavior, or even coma
•• Also, most patients have symptoms due to excess catecholamine release secondary to the hypoglycemia, including sweating,
tremor, and palpitations. Characteristically these attacks are associated with fasting.
•• Insulinomas are generally small (> 90% are < 2 cm in diameter)
•• Usually solitary (90%), and only 5 to 15% are malignant
•• They almost invariably occur only in the pancreas, distributed equally in the pancreatic head, body and tail
•• Insulinomas should be suspected in all patients with hypoglycemia, especially with a history suggesting attacks provoked by
fasting or with a family history of MEN-1
•• In insulinomas, in addition to elevated plasma insulin levels, elevated plasma proinsulin levels are found and
C-peptide levels can be elevated.
Glucagonomas
•• Glucagonomas are endocrine tumors of the pancreas that secrete excessive amounts of glucagon that causes a distinct
syndrome characterized by dermatitis, glucose intolerance or diabetes, and weight loss
•• Glucagonomas mainly occur in persons between 45 and 70 years old. They are heralded clinically by a characteristic dermatitis
(migratory necrolytic erythema; accompanied by glucose intolerance weight loss , anemia, diarrhea and thromboembolism
•• The characteristic rash usually starts as an annular erythema at intertriginous and periorificial sites, especially in the groin or
buttock. It subsequently becomes raised and bullae form; when the bullae rupture, eroded areas form. The lesions can wax and
wane.
•• A characteristic laboratory finding is hypoaminoacidemia

•• Glucagonomas are generally large tumors at diagnosis, with an average size of 5 to 10 cm. Between 50 and 80% occur in the
pancreatic tail and 50 to 82% have evidence of metastatic spread at presentation, usually to the liver
•• Glucagonomas are rarely extrapancreatic and usually occur singly.
Somatostatinoma Syndrome
•• Somatostatinomas are endocrine tumors that secrete excessive amounts of somatostatin, which causes a syndrome
characterized by diabetes mellitus, gallbladder disease, diarrhea, and steatorrhea
•• Somatostatinomas occur primarily in the pancreas and small intestine, and the frequency of the symptoms differs in each
•• Somatostatinomas occur in the pancreas in 56 to 74% of cases, with the primary location being in the pancreatic head.
VIPomas
•• These are endocrine tumors that secrete excessive amounts of VIP, which causes a distinct syndrome characterized by large-
volume diarrhea, hypokalemia, and dehydration
•• This syndrome is also called Verner-Morrison syndrome, pancreatic cholera, or WDHA syndrome (watery diarrhea,
hypokalemia, and achlorhydria).
Important Enzymes and Clinical Correlations

17-Alpha-hydroxylase deficiency: Hypertension is the hallmark of this congenital adrenal hyperplasia disorder, but these patients
are unable to produce sex hormones and glucocorticoids. Excess mineralocorticoids cause hypertension via sodium and water
retention.
3-Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase: This enzyme metabolizes pregnenolone to progesterone. No sex hormones, glucocorti-
coids, or mineralocorticoids may be produced. Excretion of salts is prominent. Prognosis is poor.
11-Beta-hydroxylase: Virilization, hypertension, and cortisol deficit are the presenting factors in 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency.
Deoxycorticosterone is a mineralocorticoid that causes fluid retention despite aldosterone absence. Sex hormones are produced
excessively, as the cortisol feedback needed to decrease ACTH production is lacking.
21-Alpha-hydroxylase: This type of deficiency is the most common congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Laboratory results should reveal
decreased cortisone and aldosterone, but deoxycorticosterone should be diminished as well. Promotion of the pituitary-adrenal axis
by ACTH promotes virilization by excess sex hormones. Hypotension is common in 21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency.
Aromatase: The hallmark of aromatase deficiency is ambiguous genitalia in 46, XX patients, with progressive virilization. In 46, XY
patients, normal male genitalia are observed, but these individuals are very tall, possibly eunuchoid, and have an increased risk
of osteoporosis. Hypertension has not been associated with aromatase deficiency.
NEUROLOGY
Alzheimer’s Disease
•• Mc cause of dementia in elderly
•• Cortical Dementia not Subcortical Dementia
•• Causes brain atrophy in advanced cases
•• Atrophy usually involves frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
•• Neurofibrillary tangles, Neuritic plaques, Granulovacuolar degeneration, Hirano bodies are pathological features
•• Nucleus Basalis of Meynert is effected
–– Aphasia
–– Amnesia
–– Agnosia
–– Acalculia
–– Alexia are features
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•• There is reduction in acetylcholine concentration

•• Presenile dementia occurs before 60 years of age
•• Associations with:
–– Down’s syndrome, APP (Amyloid Precursor Protein gene on Chromosome 21)
- Presinilin 1 on chromosome 14
- Presinilin 2 on chromosome 1
•• Treatment is by Tacrine, Donepezil, Memantine
–– Neurofibrillary tangles are intracytoplasmic filamentous inclusions found in Alzheimer disease and, to a lesser extent, in
normal aging brains
–– Granulovacuolar degeneration
–– Hirano Bodies: They are specific protein deposits associated with AGE (Advance Glycosylation End-products localized within
soma of neurons
–– Amyloid Plaques: They represent fragmented accumulations of proteins which are normally broken down but accumulate
in Alzheimer’s disease
–– Alzheimer’s Cells (special cells)
–– Neurofibrillary tangles: are insoluble twisted fibrils composed of Tau proteins
•• Mini-Mental status examination is useful screening test for Dementia
•• Maximum score in Mini-Mental examination is 30
Frontotemporal Dementia and Pick’s Disease

Imaging studies reveal atrophy confined to the frontal or frontal and temporal lobes. The condition is heterogenous, and the
broad designation FTD usually includes Pick’s disease
Microscopic findings include gliosis, neuronal loss, and swollen or ballooned neurons, which frequently contain silver-staining
cytoplasmic inclusions referred to as Pick bodies.
Diffuse Lewy Body Disease

•• Lewy bodies are intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions that stain with periodic acid-Schiff and ubiquitin. They contain
epitopes recognized by antibodies against phosphorylated and nonphosphorylated neurofilament proteins, ubiquitin, and a
presynaptic protein called α-synuclein.
•• Lewy bodies are traditionally found in the substantia nigra of patients with idiopathic Parkinson’s disease. Large numbers of such
inclusions have also been discovered in cortical neurons in patients with dementia. In patients without other pathologic features,
the condition is referred to as diffuse Lewy body disease
•• In patients whose brains also contain amyloid plaques and NFTs, the condition is called the diffuse Lewy body variant of
Alzheimer’s disease.
Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

The clinical triad includes an:
•• Abnormal gait (ataxic or apractic)
•• Dementia (usually mild to moderate)
•• Urinary incontinence
•• Neuroimaging studies of the brain reveal enlarged lateral ventricles (hydrocephalus)
Huntington’s Disease
•• Huntington’s disease (HD) is a autosomal dominant, degenerative brain disorder
•• The two clinical hallmarks of the disease are chorea and behavioral disturbance, the movement disorder is usually slowly
progressive and eventually may become disabling.
•• There are frequent, irregular, sudden jerks and movements of any of the limbs or trunk. Grimacing, grunting, and poor articulation
of speech may be prominent
•• The gait is disjointed and poorly coordinated and has a so-called dancing (choreic) quality.
MS (Multiple Sclerosis)
•• Multiple scarred are as visible on macroscopic examination of the brain
–– These lesions, termed plaques, are sharply demarcated gray or pink areas easily distinguished from surrounding white matter
–– Plaques vary in size from 1 or 2 mm to several centimeters
–– CSF abnormalities consist of:
- Abnormally increased levels of intrathecally synthesized IgG, oligoclinal banding, and mononuclear cell pleocytosis
- The ratio of IgG to albumin in the CSF is divided by the ratio in the serum ‘the CSF IgG index’. Oligoclonal banding of CSF
IgG is detected by agarose gel electrophoresis techniques
•• Optic neuritis is the mc manifestation
•• Also seen are:
–– Nystagmus on adducting eye
–– One and half syndrome
–– Pendular nystagmus
•• Two or more oligoclonal bands are found in 75 to 90% of patients with MS. Three treatment options for patients with RRMS
are approved for use:
–– IFN-1b
–– IFN-1a (Avonex) and
–– Glatiramer acetate
Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s syndrome) is characterized by separate attacks of acute optic neuritis and myelitis. Optic neuritis
may be unilateral or bilateral and precede or follow an attack of myelitis by days, months or years
Acute MS
(Marburg’s variant) is a rare acute fulminant process that generally ends in death from brainstem involvement within one
year. There are no remissions. Diagnosis can be established only at postmortem examination; widespread demyelination, axonal loss,
edema, and macrophage infiltration are characteristic.
Learn to Differentiate
•• Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a potentially reversible cause of dementia that causes gait disturbances (unsteady or
shuffling gait), urinary incontinence, and dementia. Enlargement of the ventricles with increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
pressure is found, and therapeutic lumbar punctures may significantly improve symptoms.
•• Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare diffuse degenerative disease that usually affects people in their 50s, and the usual course
is about one year. The terminal stage is characterized by severe dementia, generalized hypertonicity, and profound speech
disturbances. It is one of the several diseases caused by prions.
•• Huntington’s disease is a hereditary disease associated with progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia and the cerebral
cortex. It is transmitted in an autosomal dominant pattern. The onset of Huntington’s disease occurs between 35 and 50 years
of age, or later in rare cases. This disease is characterized by progressive dementia, muscular hypertonicity, and bizarre
choreiform movements.
•• Parkinson’s disease is characterized primarily by motor dysfunction, but dementia may be a part of the disorder. The
characteristic motor symptoms (bradykinesia, flat facies, resting tremor, shuffling gait, etc. are caused by degeneration of
the nigrostriatal dopaminergic tract.
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•• Pick’s disease causes a slowly progressive dementia. It is associated with focal cortical lesions, primarily of the frontal lobe.
Pathological examination of the brain reveals intraneuronal inclusions called Pick bodies.
•• Tumor of the Falx or the parasagittal meninges typically produces sensory or motor dysfunction of the leg.
•• Tumor of hippocampus might produce memory problems or seizures.
•• Tumor of the posterior fossa produces unilateral deafness, tinnitus, vertigo, and sometimes sensory loss in the distribution
of cranial nerves V or VII.
•• Tumor of the sphenoidal ridge can cause cranial nerve palsies involving III, IV, V, or VI.
Bulbar palsy
•• B/L LMNL of 9,10,11,12 Cranial Nerves
Features:
•• Dysarthria
•• Dysphagia
•• Dysphonia
Pseudobulbar palsy:
•• B/L UMNL of 9, 10, 11, 12 Cranial Nerves
Syringomyelia:
•• Dissociated sensory loss
•• Wasting of small muscles of hand
•• Charcot’s joints
Syringobulbia:
•• Facial pain/Sensory loss
•• Facial Palsy
•• Vertigo, Nystagmus, Horner’s Syndrome
Remember Epilepsy Syndromes Given Below

Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
•• Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is a generalized seizure disorder of unknown cause
•• Appears in early adolescence and is usually characterized by bilateral myoclonic jerks that may be single or repetitive
•• The myoclonic seizures are most frequent in the morning after awakening and can be provoked by sleep deprivation
•• Consciousness is preserved unless the myoclonus is especially severe
•• Many patients also experience generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and up to one-third have absence seizures
•• The condition is otherwise benign, and although complete remission is uncommon, the seizures respond well to appropriate
anticonvulsant medication (VALPROIC ACID)
•• There is often a family history of epilepsy, and genetic linkage studies suggest a polygenic cause.
Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
•• Lennox-Gastaut syndrome occurs in children and is defined by the following triad:
–– Multiple seizure types (usually including generalized tonic-clonic, atonic, and atypical absence seizures);
–– An EEG showing slow (<3 Hz) spike-and-wave discharges and a variety of other abnormalities;
–– Impaired cognitive function in most but not all cases
•• Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is associated with CNS disease or dysfunction from a variety of causes, including developmental
abnormalities, perinatal hypoxia/ischemia, trauma, infection, and other acquired lesions.
Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome

•• Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE) is the most common syndrome associated with complex partial seizures and is an example
of symptomatic, partial epilepsy.
•• High-resolution magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can detect the characteristic hippocampal sclerosis that appears to be an
essential element in the pathophysiology of MTLE for many patients.
•• Recognition of this syndrome is especially important because it tends to be refractory to treatment with anticonvulsants but
responds extremely well to surgical intervention.
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

•• Characterized pathologically by multifocal areas of demyelination of varying size distributed throughout the CNS
•• Caused by JC virus
•• Disease of white matter
•• Follows indolent course and is fatal. Within a year or so, patients often present with visual deficits (45%), typically a homonymous
hemianopia, and mental impairment (38%) (Dementia, confusion, personality change)
•• Motor weakness may not be present early but eventually occurs in 75% of cases
•• Almost all patients (> 95%) have an underlying immunosuppressive disorder
•• The diagnosis of PML is frequently suggested by MRI or less commonly CT
•• MRI is more sensitive than CT and reveals multifocal asymmetric, coalescing white matter lesions located periventricularly, in the
centrum semiovale, in the parietal-occipital region, and in the cerebellum
•• The CSF is typically normal, although mild elevation in protein and/or IgG may be found. Pleocytosis occurs in < 25% of cases, is
predominantly mononuclear, and rarely exceeds 25 cells/ml
•• The presence of a positive CSF PCR for JC virus DNA in association with typical MRI lesions in the appropriate clinical setting
is diagnostic of PML
•• Patients with negative CSF PCR studies may require brain biopsy for definitive diagnosis.
SSPE
•• SSPE is a chronic, progressive, demyelinating, late CNS complication of Measles.
•• It appears after a latent periods of 6–8 years.
•• It was first described by Dawson in 1933.
•• The incidence of SSPE has decreased over years since the introduction of live attenuated measles vaccine.
Early in the course of disease, the electroencephalogram (EEG) may be normal or show only moderate nonspecific slowing.
•• In the myoclonic stage, most patients with SSPE have ‘burst-suppression’ episodes. However, this pattern is not unique to SSPE.
•• Later in the illness, EEG becomes increasingly disorganized.
•• Diagnosis is confirmed by elevated levels of measles antibodies in the serum and CSF. CSF also shows elevated oligoclonal bands
(IgG). CSF pleocytosis is absent or minimal.
•• MRI or CT scans of patients with SSPE show variable cortical atrophy and ventricular enlargement
•• Myoclonic seizures are a feature.
•• No definitive therapy is available.
•• Inosoplex alone or win combination with interferon has been shown to be beneficial.
•• Burst suppression pattern in EEG is seen in SSPE

•• Burst suppression pattern is seen in ‘SSPE’ and ‘Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease’
•• It is characterized by high-voltage slow and sharp wave complexes superimposed on a relatively flat background
Remember:
•• Absence seizures show ‘three per second spike and wave pattern’ on EEG
•• HSV encephalitis displays ‘high-voltage sharp waves’ over temporal lobes at regular three second’s interval. (TEMPORAL
ENHANCEMENT ON MRI)
•• Hepatic encephalopathy shows ‘synchronous triphasic’ waves
•• Burst suppression pattern is seen in ‘SSPE’ and ‘Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease.’
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Prion Diseases
•• Prions are a unique class of infectious proteins associated with a group of neurodegenerative diseases, the transmissible spongiform
encephalopathies
•• In humans, these diseases include:
–– Kuru
–– Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
–– Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome and
–– Fatal familial insomnia
•• In animals:
–– Scrapie and
–– Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (madcow disease)
•• PrPSc is a pathogenic, transmissible spongiform encephalopathy-specific form of the host-encoded prion protein (PrP);
•• PrPSc differs from PrP in that it contains a high amount of b-pleated sheet structure and is insoluble and resistant to proteolytic
enzymes
•• PrPSc deposits either consist of or can be readily converted to amyloid fibrils.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
•• Caused by Prion Protein (Infectious proteins)
•• Most common infectious prion disease in humans
•• Neurodegenerative disease
•• On light microscopy, the pathologic hallmarks of CJD are spongiform degeneration and astrogliosis
•• The lack of an inflammatory response in CJD and other prion diseases is an important pathologic feature of these degenerative
disorders
•• Spongiform degeneration is characterized by many 1- to 5-mm vacuoles in the neuropil between nerve cell bodies
•• In (new variant) nvCJD, a characteristic feature is the presence of ‘florid plaques’. These are composed of a central core of PrP
amyloid surrounded by vacuoles in a pattern suggesting petals on a flower
Features:
–– Rapidly progressive dementia
–– Myoclonus
–– Rapid progression are common features
–– Can be transmitted by corneal implants and is inheritable
•• Brain biopsy is diagnostic
Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by the three As: acute, areflexic, ascending. It is an autoimmune-mediated, demyelinating
ascending paralysis that is often idiopathic but is also associated with HIV and Campylobacter infections. A lumbar puncture can often
help clinch the diagnosis, although nerve conduction studies, if available, are often more consistent, as CSF findings can be ambiguous
early in the disease. The classic finding is CSF with few cells and a high total protein
Remember the disease by features:
•• Motor paralysis
•• Ascending type
•• Areflexia seen
•• No sensory loss
•• Flaccidity seen
•• Legs affected more than arms
•• Deep tendon reflexes absent usually
•• Albumin cytological dissociation seen
Plasmapheresis and immunoglobulins used for treatment
A 28-year-old man of weakness. He reports a 4-day history of weakness and tingling in his legs, which has since progressively involved
his upper body. Physical examination is remarkable for profound weakness in his lower extremities and torso, with normal cranial
nerves and moderately reduced strength in his upper extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are absent in his lower extremities and
reduced in his upper extremities. All findings are symmetrical. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows increased total protein.
Guillain-Barre-syndrome is characterized by the three As: Acute, areflexic, ascending. It is an autoimmune-mediated, demyelinating
ascending paralysis that is often idiopathic but is also associated with HIV and campylobacter infection. A lumbar puncture can often
help clinch the diagnosis, although nerve conduction studies, if available, are often more consistent, as CSF findings can be ambiguous
early in the disease. The classic finding is CSF with few cells and a high total protein.
Miller-Fisher Syndrome
•• Variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome
•• Associated with areflexia, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia
•• Anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of the cases
Friedreich’s Ataxia
•• Most common form of inherited ataxia
•• AR Inheritance
•• The classic form of Friedreich’s ataxia has been mapped to (Ch 13)
•• And the mutant gene, frataxin contains expanded GAA triplet repeats in the first intron
•• Earliest feature is ataxia
•• Dorsal root ganglia are affected earliest
•• Presents before 25 years of age with progressive staggering gait, frequent falling, and titubation. The lower extremities are more
severely involved than the upper ones
•• The neurologic examination reveals nystagmus, loss of fast saccadic eye movements, truncal titubation, dysarthria, dysmetria,
and ataxia of extremity and truncal movements
•• Extensor plantar responses (with normal tone in trunk and extremities), absence of deep tendon reflexes, and weakness (greater
distally than proximally) are usually found. Loss of vibratory and proprioceptive sensation occurs
•• Absent knee jerk and extensor plantar response are features
•• Pyramidal tract is involved
•• Cardiac involvement occurs in 90% of patients. Cardiomegaly, symmetric hypertrophy, murmurs, and conduction defects are
reported. (CARDIOMYOPATHY)
•• Musculoskeletal deformities are common and include pes cavus, pes equinovarus, and scoliosis.
A 13-year-old boy having difficulty in running and a staggering gait, poor articulation in speech. The physical examination
revealed an unsteady, broad-based stance and sudden lurching when walking. Loss of vibratory and position sense was
observed bilaterally in all extremities. There was a tremor of the upper extremity as the patient reached for objects. Speech
was slurred, slow and with an uneven pattern. Hyporeflexia was present but there was only a slight indication of muscle
atrophy, though there were bilateral Babinski’s signs.
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Ataxia-telangiectasia
•• Patients usually present in the first decade of life with progressive telangiectatic lesions associated with deficits in cerebellar
function and nystagmus
•• Truncal ataxia, extremity ataxia, dysarthria, extensor plantar responses, myoclonic jerks, areflexia, and distal sensory deficits may
develop
•• There is a high incidence of:
–– Recurrent pulmonary infections
–– Neoplasms of the lymphatic and reticuloendothelial system and
–– Increased incidence of cancer
•• Especially an increased incidence of lymphomas, Hodgkin’s disease, and acute leukemias of the T cell type
•• Thymic hypoplasia with cellular and humoral (IgA and IgG2) immunodeficiencies, premature aging, and endocrine disorders
such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus are described
•• The immunologic defects and increased susceptibility to cancer have been causally linked to cellular disorders in AT. Exposure
of cultured cells to ionizing radiation slows the rate of DNA replication and increases the frequency of chromosomal
aberrations
•• The most striking neuropathologic changes include:
–– Loss of Purkinje, granule, and basket cells in the cerebellar cortex as well as of neurons in the deep cerebellar nuclei
–– Loss of anterior horn neurons in the spinal cord and of dorsal root ganglion cells associated with posterior column spinal cord
demyelination
•• A poorly developed or absent thymus gland is the most consistent defect of the lymphoid system
•• The gene for AT (the ATM gene) has been positionally mapped to chromosome 11
•• Defective DNA repair in AT fibroblasts exposed to ultraviolet light has been demonstrated.
Choreoathetoid movements, slurred speech, ophthalmoplegia, and progressive mental retardation characterize the disease
at it advances. Telangiectasias are a helpful diagnostic clue. These children also have vulnerable recurrent sinopulmonary
infections. Immunologic evaluation may demonstrate a lack of IgA and IgE, cutaneous anergy, and a progressive cellular
immune defect. Other features of the syndrome include endocrine disorders and a predisposition for certain cancers
(leukemias, brain cancer, and gastric cancer).
Newer Concepts
Mitochondrial Ataxias
•• Spinocerebellar syndromes have been identified with mutations in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)
Xeroderma Pigmentosum
•• Xeroderma pigmentosum is a rare autosomal recessive neurocutaneous disorder
•• Caused by the inability to repair damage to DNA, such as that produced by ultraviolet radiation
•• In addition to skin lesions, patients may show progressive mental deterioration, microcephaly, ataxia, spasticity,
choreoathetosis, and hypogonadism
•• Nerve deafness, peripheral neuropathy (predominantly axonal), electroencephalographic abnormalities and seizures are reported
Cockayne Syndrome
•• This is a rare autosomal recessive disorder first described by Cockayne in 1936
•• Clinical features are mental retardation, optic atrophy, dwarfism, and neural deafness, hypersensitivity of skin to sunlight,
cataracts, and retinal pigmentary degeneration
•• Cerebellar, pyramidal, and extrapyramidal deficits and peripheral neuropathy may occur, with a ‘bird-headed’ facial appearance
and normal-pressure hydrocephalus
•• Skin fibroblasts exposed to ultraviolet light demonstrate defective DNA repair.
Marinesco Sjogren Syndrome

•• This rare syndrome, in which progressive cerebellar deficits begin early in childhood, is another example in which a Friedreich’s
syndrome is associated with additional specific features
•• In this case, cataracts, mental retardation, multiple skeletal abnormalities, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, and severe
cerebellar atrophy are associated
•• The syndrome is likely a lysosomal storage disorder
Central Pontine Myelinolysis
•• Demyelination of the central basal pons can appear in chronically ill patients subjected to sudden fluxes in electrolyte and water
metabolism, especially when hyponatremia is corrected too rapidly
•• Quadriparesis, weakness of lower face and tongue, can evolve over a few days or weeks
•• The lesion may extend dorsally to involve sensory tracts and leave the patient with a ‘locked-in’ syndrome (an awake and sentient
state in which the patient, because of motor paralysis in all parts of the body, cannot communicate except possibly by coded eye
movements)
Marchiafava-bignami Disease
•• A rare demyelination of the corpus callosum that occurs in chronic alcoholics, predominantly males
•• Patients become agitated and confused and show progressive dementia with frontal release signs.
Diseases of the Cerebellum

•• Diseases of the cerebellum result in inability to do movements smoothly and accurately. This condition is called cerebellar ataxia
or cerebellar asynergia.
•• Disturbance of Gait: Gait is similar to that of a drunken person; Lesion in one cerebellar hemisphere results in a tendency to
fall towards that side. Right side of body is under the control of right cerebellar hemisphere. Lesions of cerebellar ataxia are not
corrected by vision
•• Decomposition of movements: A movement is broken into components, i.e. the shoulder, elbow and the wrists move separately
and not in a synchronized way
•• Dysmetria: Inability to stop a movement at a desired point, i.e. overshooting, past pointing, etc.
•• Dysdiadochokinesia: Inability to stop one movement and immediately to follow it up with other movement of opposite nature,
i.e. rapid pronation and supination.
•• Scanning speech: Due to lack of synergy of muscles used in speaking, the spacing of sounds is irregular with pauses at wrong
places.
•• Hypotonia
•• Decreased tendon reflexes
•• Intention tremor (NOT RESTING TREMOR)
•• Sometimes Nystagmus
Bacterial Meningitis
•• S. pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in adults > 20 years
•• N. meningitidis accounts for nearly 60% of bacterial meningitis cases in children and young adults
•• Staphylococcus aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci are predominant organisms causing meningitis that follows
invasive neurosurgical procedures, particularly shunting procedures for hydrocephalus
•• Group B-streptococcus or S. agalactiae is responsible for meningitis predominantly in neonates
•• L. monocytogenes has emerged as an important cause of bacterial meningitis in the elderly and in individuals with impaired cell-
mediated immunity.
–– Purulent exudates seen
–– Cloudy CSF
–– Ventricular spread seen
–– Ventricular enlargement seen
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The classic clinical triad of meningitis is fever, headache, and nuchal rigidity (stiff neck). Each of these signs and symptoms occurs
in > 90% of the cases.
Alteration in mental status occurs in >75% of patients and can vary from lethargy to coma. Nausea, vomiting, and photophobia are
also common complaints.
Nuchal rigidity is the pathognomonic sign of meningeal irritation and is present when the neck resists passive flexion.
Kernig’s sign is elicited with the patient in the supine position. The thigh is flexed on the abdomen, with the knee flexed; attempts to
passively extend the leg elicit pain when meningeal irritation is present.
Brudzinski’s sign is elicited with the patient in the supine position and is positive when passive flexion of the neck results in
spontaneous flexion of the hips and knees.
The Classic CSF Abnormalities in Bacterial Meningitis are

•• Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis (>100 cells per microliter in 90%)
•• ↓glucose concentration [< 2.2 mmol/l (< 40 mg/dl) and/or CSF/serum glucose ratio of < 0.4 in ~ 60%]
•• ↑protein concentration [> 0.45 g/l (> 45 mg/dl) in 90%], and
•• ↑opening pressure (> 180 mm H2O in 90%).
•• CSF bacterial cultures are positive in > 80% of patients, and CSF Gram’s stain demonstrates organisms in > 60%.
Commonest Causes of Meningitis

Commonest causes of meningitis:
•• Neonates: Gram-negative bacilli
•• Adults: S. pneumoniae
•• Epidemics: N. meningitidis
•• Head trauma: S. pneumoniae
•• Infective endocarditis Staph aureus
•• CSF shunts: Staph epidermis
Unlike meningitis occurring in normal children, ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections are most commonly caused by
coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, such as Staphylococcus epidermidis. S. epidermidis causes 40 to 60% of all CSF infections
in persons with ventriculoperitoneal shunts. Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus presents a significant threat to people who
have indwelling devices or catheters. Most S. epidermidis isolates are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including nafcillin and
oxacillin. Vancomycin is the drug of choice to S. epidermidis infection. Removal of the indwelling medical device and parenteral
antibiotic treatment are often necessary.
Viral Meningitis
Enteroviruses account for 75 to 90% of aseptic meningitis cases in most series. Viruses belonging to the Enterovirus genus are members
of the family Picornaviridae and include the coxsackieviruses, echoviruses, polioviruses, and human enteroviruses 68 to 71
The most important laboratory test in the diagnosis of meningitis is examination of the CSF. The typical profile in cases of viral
meningitis is:
•• Lymphocytic pleocytosis (25 to 500 cells per microliter)
•• A normal or slightly elevated protein level [0.2 to 0.8 g/l (20 to 80 mg/dl)]
•• A normal glucose level
•• A normal or mildly elevated opening pressure (100 to 350 mm H2O)
•• Organisms are not seen on Gram’s or acid-fast stained smears or India ink wet mounts of CSF
CSF polymerase chain reaction (PCR) tests, culture, and serology, a specific viral cause can be found in 75 to 90% of cases of viral
meningitis
CSF cultures are positive in 30 to 70% of patients, the frequency of isolation depending on the specific viral agent.
HIV meningitis
•• Should be suspected in any patient with known or identified risk factors for HIV infection
•• Aseptic meningitis is a common manifestation of primary exposure to HIV and occurs in 5 to 10% of cases
•• In some patients, seroconversion may be delayed for several months; however, detection of the presence of HIV genome by PCR
or p24 protein establishes the diagnosis
•• HIV can be cultured from CSF in some patients
•• Cranial nerve palsies, most commonly involving cranial nerves V, VII, or VIII, are more common in HIV meningitis than in other viral
infections.
Fungi causing meningitis: Cryptococcus, candida, sporothrix

Viruses causing meningitis: HSV, (Enterovirus) polio, mumps coxsackie
Cryptococcus Neoformans Meningitis

A 44-year-old AIDS patient presents to OPD complaining of fever for the past week and an increasing headache. His past
medical history is significant for pneumocystis pneumonia and a total CD4 count of 66. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reveals
4 WBC, and budding encapsulated yeast forms grow on Sabouraud’s agar.
Neuroimaging
This is a normal sagittal MRI scan demonstrating the midline with the frontal lobe and parietal lobe and occipital lobe and cerebel-
lum and genu of corpus callosum and splenium of corpus callosum and mammillary body and thalmus and midbrain and pons
and medulla and cervical spinal cord and tongue and nasal cavity
TCT scan without contrast demonstrating a large epidural hematoma with right to left shift and ventricular narrowing
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MRI scan of the head in coronal view demonstrates a cysticercus cyst of the brain
This computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head in transverse view demonstrates an area of
hemorrhage arising in the basal ganglia on the left
CT scan without contrast demonstrating a large subdural hematoma with left to right shift and ventricular narrowing
MRI scan in axial view here demonstrates a macroadenoma of the pituitary
CT scan, there is a midline cerebellar mass in a child
Encephalitis
In distinction to meningitis, where the infectious process and associated inflammatory response are limited largely to the
meninges, in encephalitis, the brain parenchyma is also involved. Many patients with encephalitis also have evidence of
associated meningitis (meningoencephalitis) and, in some cases, involvement of the spinal cord or nerve roots (encephalomyelitis,
encephalomyeloradiculitis)
•• HSV is the mc cause of sporadic viral encephalitis
•• Hemorrhagic lesions seen
•• Temporal lobe involvement is common
•• PCR of HSV virus is diagnostic
Progressive Rubella Panencephalitis

Clinical Features and Epidemiology: This is an extremely rare disorder that primarily affects children with congenital rubella
syndrome, isolated cases have been reported following childhood rubella
After a latent period of 8 to 19 years, patients develop progressive neurologic deterioration.
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The initial manifestations are similar to those seen in SSPE and include decline in school performance, behavioral alterations, and
seizures, followed by severe progressive dementia, prominent ataxia, pyramidal signs (spasticity, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar
responses), and visual deterioration
In the terminal stages of the illness, patients are globally demented, mute, and quadriparetic, often with associated ophthalmoplegia
Diagnostic Studies: CSF shows a mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, slightly elevated protein level, and rubella virus-specific
oligoclonal bands. CT scan may show enlarged ventricles, cortical and cerebellar atrophy, and hypodensity in the white matter.
Herpes simplex virus (HSV): It is the most common etiologic agent of sporadic viral encephalitis. The clinical presentation is variable
but usually abrupt, and the rapid onset of confusion and seizures are frequent manifestations. The most characteristic pathologic
lesions, which are demonstrated by CT studies, consist of hemorrhagic necrosis of the temporal lobes. Herpes encephalitis is almost
always due to HSV type 1 and affects previously healthy individuals. Up to 50% of newborns delivered vaginally from mothers with
active HSV infection develop a severe generalized form of herpetic encephalitis.
Arbovirus encephalitis: It is the most important cause of epidemic viral encephalitis. Many different species may be involved, each
with a specific regional geographic distribution. The clinical course is milder and prognosis is better than herpetic encephalitis.
Echovirus encephalitis: It is one of the most common etiologic agents of the so-called lymphocytic meningoencephalitis, Symptoms
are mild, often limited to headache and malaise. CSF is usually normal or shows mild lymphocytosis.
•• Septic cavernous sinus thrombosis: The oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve, the abducens nerve, the ophthalmic and
maxillary branches of the trigeminal nerve, and the internal carotid artery all pass through the cavernous sinus
•• The symptoms of septic cavernous sinus thrombosis are fever, headache, frontal and retroorbital pain, and diplopia. The classic
signs are ptosis, proptosis, chemosis, and extraocular dysmotility due to deficits of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI
•• Hypo- or hyperesthesia of the ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the fifth cranial nerve and
•• A decreased corneal reflex may be detected
•• There may be evidence of dilated, tortuous retinal veins and papilledema.
–– Gradiengo’s Syndrome: It is irritation of ophthalmic division of Trigeminal (V) nerve and Abducens (VI) nerve in which
Petrositis of petrous temporal bone occurs.
–– Tolsa-hunt Syndrome: Inflammatory condition involving Cavernous Sinus presenting with pain, loss of ocular movements
and loss of sensations in territory of ophthalmic division of Trigeminal (V) nerve.
•• Raeder’s Syndrome:
–– It is Paratrigeminal Syndrome
–– Pain in Ophthalmic and Maxillary Divisions of Trigeminal Nerve
–– Ptosis and Miosis+IV and VI Cranial Nerve involvement
–– It occurs in lesions of Middle Cranial Fossa
•• Costen’s Syndrome: Aching pain around ear aggravated by chewing due to malalignment of Temporomandibular joint with
‘Altered BITE’
•• Symptomatic Neurosyphilis: Although mixed features are common, the major clinical categories of symptomatic neurosyphilis
include meningeal, meningovascular, and parenchymatous syphilis. The last category includes general paresis and tabes
dorsalis
Features:
•• Dorsal column involvement
•• Ptosis
•• Miosis
•• Ataxia
•• Sensory loss
•• Argyll-Robertson pupil
•• Bladder dysfunction
Benign Intracranial Hypertension

•• ↑Intracranial pressure
•• Normal CSF Pressure
•• Normal CSF protein

•• Normal ventricles
•• Normal ventricular position
Pseudotumor Cerebri
•• Increased intracranial pressure
•• Papilledema
•• 6th cranial nerve palsy
•• Visual field defects
Causes:
•• Tetracycline
•• OCP
•• Hypervitaminosis A
Neuropathic Joint Disease

•• Neuropathic joint disease (Charcot’s joint) is a progressive destructive arthritis associated with loss of pain sensation,
proprioception, or both
•• Diabetes mellitus is the most frequent cause of neuropathic joint disease
•• Diabetes affects tarsal joints mainly
A variety of other disorders are associated with neuropathic arthritis including:
•• Leprosy
•• Yaws
•• Syringomyelia
•• Tabes dorsalis
•• Meningomyelocele
•• Congenital indifference to pain
•• Peroneal muscular atrophy (Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease)
•• Amyloidosis
•• There is fragmentation and eventual loss of articular cartilage with eburnation of the underlying bone. Osteophytes are found at
the joint margins. With more advanced disease, erosions are present on the joint surface. Fractures, devitalized bone, and intra-
articular loose bodies may be present. Microscopic fragments of cartilage and bone are seen in the synovial tissue
•• CPPD disease resembles charcot joint.
5 Ds of Charcot’s joints:
•• Disorganization
•• Density increased
•• Debris within joint capsule
•• Destruction of bone
•• Deformity
•• Neuropathic joint disease usually begins in a single joint and then progresses to involve other joints, depending on the underlying
neurologic disorder
•• The involved joint progressively becomes enlarged from bony overgrowth and synovial effusion
•• Loose bodies may be palpated in the joint cavity
•• Joint instability, subluxation, and crepitus occur as the disease progresses. Neuropathic joints may develop rapidly, and a totally
disorganized joint with multiple bony fragments may evolve in a patient within weeks or months
•• The amount of pain experienced by the patient is less than would be anticipated based on the degree of joint involvement. Patients
may experience sudden joint pain from intra-articular fractures of osteophytes or condyles.
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Remember Here: Joint Erosions are seen in

•• Rheumatoid arthritis
•• Psoriasis
•• Reticulohistocytosis
•• Osteoarthritis
•• Psoriasis
Intracerebral Leukocytostasis
Ball’s disease is a potentially fatal complication of acute leukemia (particularly myelogenous leukemia) that can occur when the
peripheral blast cell count is greater than 100,000/ml
•• High blast cell counts
•• Blood viscosity is increased
•• Blood flow is slowed
•• Primitive leukemic cells are capable of invading through endothelium and causing hemorrhage into the brain
Patients may experience stupor, dizziness, visual disturbances, ataxia, coma, or sudden death.
•• Putamen hemorrhage Hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, homonymous hemianopia

•• Pontine hemorrhage Pin-point pupils, reactive to light, no horizontal eye movements
•• Brainstem lesion Sensory loss of half of face, contralateral half of body with cranial nerve lesions
•• Thalamic lesion Sensory loss of half of face and ipsilateral half of body
•• Cerebellar involvement Hypotonia, tremor, ataxia
Arterial Territories and Important Points in Blood Supply of Brain

•• Left middle cerebral artery: Blockage of this vessel would cause, among other effects, right-sided hemiplegia and sensory
deficits mainly of the face and arms, a right visual field defect with inability to gaze to the right, and aphasia.
•• Right middle cerebral artery: Blockage of this vessel would cause, among other things, left-sided hemiplegia and sensory
deficits mainly of the face and arms and left visual field neglect with inability to gaze to the left. In addition, there may be neglect
of the left side.
•• Left anterior cerebral artery: This vessel supplies the medial aspects of the left hemisphere. Blockage may cause a weak, numb
right leg. The face is typically spared.
•• Right anterior cerebral artery: This vessel supplies the medial aspects of the right hemisphere. Blockage may cause a weak,
numb left leg. The face is typically spared.
•• Left posterior cerebral artery: This lesion presents as a right-sided visual field deficit, alexia without agraphia (if the corpus
callosum is spared), and possible defects in naming colors.
•• Right posterior cerebral artery: This lesion typically presents as a left-sided visual field deficit along with left-sided sensory loss
if the thalamus is affected. There may also be left-sided neglect.
Occlusion of the vertebral artery may cause Medial Medullary Syndrome which is characterized by:
Paralysis or atrophy of tongue on the side of lesion (XII nerve involvement)
Paralysis of arm and leg on opposite side
Impaired tactile and proprioceptive sense on opposite side. (involvement of pyramidal tract and medial lemniscus.
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)

•• It is the largest and main branch of the vertebral artery
•• It has a tortuous S-shaped course immediately after it arises from the vertebral artery
•• Damage causes Lateral Medullary Syndrome/Wallenberg’s Syndrome.
•• Impaired pain and temperature sense on opposite side.

•• Nystagmus (involvement of vestibular nucleus).
•• Dysphagia (involvement of nucleus ambigus).
•• Nystagmus (involvement of cerebellum).
•• Horner’s Syndrome (involvement of sympathetic pathway).
Occlusion of the Anterior Spinal Artery May Cause

•• Loss of motor function below the level of the lesion (due to damage to the corticospinal tracts)
•• Loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion (due to damage to the spinothalamic tracts)
•• Weakness of limbs (due to damage of the anterior grey horns in the cervical or lumbar regions of the cord)
•• Loss of bowel and bladder control (due to damage of the descending autonomic tracts).
Occlusion of the Posterior Spinal Artery May Cause

•• Loss of position sense, vibration sense and light touch due to damage of the posterior white columns
Pyramidal tract lesions cause

•• Clasp knife spasticity
•• Hyperreflexia
•• Absent abdominal reflexes
•• Positive Babinsiki (Extensor plantar)
Extra pyramidal tract lesions cause (Movement disorders):
•• Rigidity
•• Tremor
•• Hypokinesia
•• Chorea/Athetosis/Hemiballismus
Remember Lesions and their Locations

•• Caudate nucleus lesion: Chorea
•• Subthalamic nucleus: Hemiballismus
•• Substantia nigra: Parkinson’s
•• Nucleus basalis: Alzheimer’s disease
•• Amygdala: Klüver-bucy syndrome
Parkinsonism
Parkinson’s disease has a classic tetrad of (1) slowness or poverty of movement, (2) muscular (‘lead pipe’ and ‘cog-wheel’)
rigidity, (3) ‘pill-rolling’ tremor at rest (which disappears with movement and sleep), and (4) postural instability (manifested
by the classic shuffling gait and festination)
Parkinsonism is a syndrome consisting of a combination of:
•• Tremor
•• Rigidity
•• Bradykinesia and
•• Characteristic disturbance of gait and posture
Associated:
•• On-off phenomenon
•• Decreased blinking
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•• Symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are caused by loss of nerve cells in the pigmented substantia nigra, pars compacta and the
locus coeruleus in the midbrain
•• Parkinsonism can be induced in primates by exposure to 1-methyl-4-phenyl-1,2,3,6-tetrahydropyridine (MPTP)
•• The 4- to 6-Hz tremor is typically most conspicuous at rest and worsens with emotional stress
•• Festinating gait is a feature
•• It often begins with rhythmic flexion-extension of the fingers, hand, or foot, or with rhythmic pronation-supination of the forearm
–– There is fixity of facial expression, with widened palpebral fissures and infrequent blinking
–– There may be:
•• Blepharoclonus (fluttering of the closed eyelids)
•• Blepharospasm (involuntary closure of the eyelids) and
•• Drooling of saliva from the mouth
•• The voice is hypophonic and poorly modulated. Power is preserved, but fine or rapidly alternating movements are impaired
•• They walk with small, shuffling steps, have no arm swing, are unsteady (especially on turning), and may have difficulty in
stopping. Some patients walk with a festinating gait, i.e. at an increasing speed to prevent themselves from falling because of
their abnormal center of gravity
•• The tendon reflexes are unaltered, and the plantar responses are flexor
•• Repetitive tapping (at about 2 Hz) over the glabella produces a sustained blink response (Myerson’s sign)
Parkinsonism:
The cause is thought to be a loss of dopaminergic neurons, especially in the substantia nigra, which project to the basal
ganglia. The result is decreased dopamine in the basal ganglia. Drug therapy, which aims to increase dopamine, includes:
•• Levodopa with carbidopa
•• Bromocriptine
•• Pergolide
•• Monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors (selegiline), and
•• Amantidine
USMLE Case Scenario

An 88-year-old patient complains of shaking in his right hand and trouble starting movements. On physical examination, the
patient has a resting tremor of 6 Hz of the right hand. Man’s face is expressionless (mask-like). Cogwheel rigidity is noted in
both arms. He also has a slightly stooped posture, and a slow, shuffling gait. Saliva seems to be drooping from his mouth.
Drugs Causing Parkinsonism

•• Methyldopa
•• Reserpine
•• Haloperidol
•• Manganese
•• Thiazides
•• Metocloperamide
•• Chlorpromazine
Remember
•• A resting tremor may be due to: hyperthyroidism, anxiety, drug withdrawal or intoxication, or benign (essential) hereditary
tremor
•• Benign hereditary tremor is usually autosomal dominant; look for a positive family history, and use beta blockers to
reduce the tremor
•• Also watch for Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration), which can cause chorea-like movements; asterixis (slow,
involuntary flapping of outstretched hands) may be seen in patients with liver and kidney failure.
Clinical Scenarios of Headache

•• A patient comes with severe, unilateral headaches •• Cluster •• Periorbital
several times a day with lacrimation, photophobia headache •• Male predominant
•• A person reports with severe, unilateral, throbbing •• Migraine •• Lateralized usually
headache with aura of scintilating scotomas •• Female predominant
•• Often preceded by aura, photopsia
•• Photophobia, nausea, vomiting
•• An elderly person reports scalp tenderness, intermittent •• Temporal
throbbing and jaw claudication. ESR is↑. arteritis
•• A person reports with prostrating headache associated •• Glaucoma
with nausea and vomiting. The history will usually
reveal that the headache started with severe eye pain.
On physical examination, the eye is often red with a
fixed, moderately dilated pupil
•• A person reports with chronic head pain syndrome •• Tension and •• Tight band-like discomfort
characterized by bilateral tight, band-like discomfort headache •• Usually generalized with exacerbation by
stress, fatigue
•• A patient reports with pain located at the jaw or neck, •• Caritodynia
deep, dull, and aching, and it becomes pounding or
throbbing. There are often superimposed sharp, ice
pick-like jabs. Tenderness and prominent pulsations
of the cervical carotid artery and soft tissue swelling
•• A patient reports with vertigo, dysarthria, or diplopia, •• Basila-migraine
tinnitus, distal and perioral paresthesia, and occipital
headache
•• A 56-year-old female presents with severe headache •• SAH
and neck stiffness of abrupt onset. She tells she never
had such a headache before. She is nauseated and has
photophobia
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

•• Most aneurysms present as a sudden SAH
•• Berry’s aneurysms in anterior circulation are frequent cause
•• Sudden loss of consciousness may be preceded by a brief moment of excruciating headache, but most patients first
complain of headache upon regaining consciousness
•• The patient often calls the headache ‘the worst headache of life’. The headache is usually generalized, and vomiting is
common
•• Although sudden headache in the absence of focal neurologic symptoms is the hallmark of aneurysmal rupture, focal
neurologic deficits may occur. The common deficits that result include hemiparesis, aphasia, and abulia
•• A third cranial nerve palsy, particularly when associated with pupillary dilatation, loss of light reflex, and focal pain above
or behind the eye, may occur with an expanding aneurysm at the junction of the posterior communicating artery and the internal
carotid artery
•• A sixth nerve palsy may indicate an aneurysm in the cavernous sinus, and visual field defects can occur with an expanding
supraclinoid carotid or anterior cerebral artery aneurysm
•• Occipital and posterior cervical pain may signal a posterior inferior cerebellar artery or anterior inferior cerebellar artery
aneurysm (rarer)
•• Rebleed and vasospasm are responsible for clinical deterioration in a week following
•• Pain in or behind the eye and in the low temple can occur with an expanding MCA aneurysm. Growing aneurysms rarely cause
head pain in the absence of neurologic symptoms and signs.
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•• Aneurysms can undergo small ruptures and leaks of blood into the subarachnoid space, so-called sentinel bleeds
•• Noncontrast CT is used as best initial investigation. Nimodepine is used to prevent vasospasm
•• Surgical clipping of aneurysm is the modality of treatment used.
Headache of sudden onset (‘thunderclap’ headache), rapid deterioration of mental status and blood in the CSF are virtually
diagnostic of ruptured berry aneurysms. Note the characteristic hyperdensity on CT of the suprasellar cistern, indicating blood
in the subarachnoid space. Rupture of a berry aneurysm is the most common cause of subarachnoid bleeding. Berry aneurysms
develop as a result of congenital weakness at branching points of the arteries in the circle of Willis. These outpouchings tend
to expand progressively, but in most cases they remain asymptomatic. Hypertension facilitates development and rupture of
berry aneurysm. One-third of patients recover, one-third die, and one-third develop re-bleeding. Rapid onset of coma is an
ominous sign.
•• Basilar migrane seen in adolescent females beginning with total blindness: Bickersaffs migrane
•• Cluster headache: Reader’s syndrome, sphenopalatine neuralgia.
CRANIAL NERVE DISORDERS

Trigeminal Neuralgia
•• Tic Douloureux
–– A disorder of the trigeminal nerve producing bouts of severe, lancinating pain lasting seconds to minutes in the distribution
of one or more of its sensory divisions, most often the mandibular and/or maxillary. Adults usually are affected, especially later
in life
–– The pain is often set off by touching a trigger point or by activity (e.g. chewing or brushing the teeth). Although each bout of
intense pain is brief, successive bouts may incapacitate the patient
•• Treatment:
–– Carbamazepine
–– Phenytoin, baclofen, amitriptyline or trazodone is occasionally helpful.
Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia
•• A rare syndrome characterized by recurrent attacks of severe pain in the posterior pharynx, tonsils, back of the tongue, and
middle ear
•• As in trigeminal neuralgia, intermittent attacks of:
–– Brief
–– Severe
–– Excruciating pain occurs paroxysmally, either spontaneously or
–– Precipitated by movement (e.g. chewing, swallowing, talking, sneezing)
–– The pain, lasting seconds to a few minutes, usually begins in the tonsillar region or at the base of the tongue and may
radiate to the ipsilateral ear. The pain is strictly unilateral. Occasionally, increased vagus nerve activity causes cardiac
sinus arrest with syncope. Attacks may be separated by long intervals
•• Treatment:
•• As in trigeminal neuralgia, carbamazepine is the drug of choice
•• Phenytoin, baclofen, amitriptyline, or trazodone may be added if necessary.
Facial Nerve Disorders: Bell’s Palsy

•• Usually unilateral facial paralysis of sudden onset and unknown cause
•• The mechanism is presumed to involve swelling of the nerve due to immune or viral disease, with ischemia and compression of
the facial nerve in the narrow confines of its course through the temporal bone
•• Pain behind the ear may precede the facial weakness that develops within hours, sometimes to complete paralysis
•• It is a type of LMNL
•• The involved side is flat and expressionless, but patients may complain instead about the seemingly twisted intact side
•• In severe cases, the palpebral fissure is wide, and the eye cannot be closed
•• Corneal protection is necessary
•• The patient may complain of a numb or heavy feeling in the face, but no sensory loss is demonstrable
•• A proximal lesion may affect salivation, taste, and lacrimation, and may cause hyperacusis.
PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY
Peripheral neuropathy may be divided into conditions which predominately cause a motor or sensory loss.
Diseases with Predominately Motor Loss

•• Guillain-Barré syndrome
•• Porphyria
•• Lead poisoning
•• Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN)—Charcot-Marie-Tooth
•• Inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (IDP)
•• Diphtheria
Diseases with Predominately Sensory Loss

•• Diabetes
•• Uremia
•• Leprosy
•• HIV
•• Alcoholism
•• Vitamin B12 deficiency
•• Amyloidosis
•• Alcoholic neuropathy
•• Secondary to both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins
•• Cisplatinum and suramin
•• Sensory symptoms typically present prior to motor symptoms
Vitamin B12 Deficiency

•• Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord (SACD)
•• Dorsal column usually affected first (joint position, vibration) prior to distal paresthesia
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

•• Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is an idiopathic, degenerative, neurological disorder affecting both upper and lower motor neurons
•• Usually anterior horn cells are affected
•• Corticospinal tracts are involved
•• Sensory nerves are usually spared
•• Hyporeflexia is seen
•• Ocular muscles are spared. Muscle wasting or atrophy is due to LMNL and brainstem motor nuclei degeneration
•• Combination of upper motor neuron lesions in lower extremity and lower motor neurons in upper extremity is seen.
Typically involvement is asymmetric
•• Riluzole presynaptically inhibits glutamate release in the central nervous system (CNS) and postsynaptically interferes with the
effects of excitatory amino acids.
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Remember
•• Balaclava type of sensory loss: Syringomyelia
•• Dissociated sensory loss: Syringomyelia
•• Mask-like facies: Parkinsonism
•• Tic douloureux: Trigeminal neuralgia
•• Punch drunk: Alcoholism
•• Picket fence fever: Lateral sinus thrombosis
•• Astasia-Abasia: Hysterical conversion
•• Opsoclonus/myoclonus: Neuroblastoma
Pearls about Brain Tumors

•• Astrocytomas: MC brain tumors
•• Gliomas: MC intracranial neoplasms
•• Astrocytomas: MC glial tumors
•• Medulloblastomas: MC malignant brain tumor in children
•• Craniopharyngioma: MC supratentorial tumor in children
•• Medulloblastomas: MC midline cerebellar tumors
•• Medulloblastomas: Most radiosensitive tumor
•• Astrocytomas: MC posterior fossa tumors (CEREBELLAR)
Brain Tumors are associated with

•• von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
•• Tuberous sclerosis
•• Neurofibromatosis
•• Optic nerve glioma is the mc tumor associated with NF1

•• Bilateral acoustic neuromas are a feature of NF 2
•• Craniopharyngiomas are derived from Rathke’s pouch
Fevers
Fever Causative Organism
•• Sandfly fever •• Arbovirus
•• Lassa fever •• Arena virus
•• Glandular fever •• Ebstein-barr virus
•• Boutonneuse fever •• Rickettsiae conorii
•• Oroya fever •• Bartonella
•• Pretibial fever •• Leptospirosis
•• Canicola fever •• Leptospirosis
•• Swamp fever •• Leptospirosis
•• Seven-day fever •• Leptospirosis
•• Haverhill fever •• Streptobacillus moniliformis
•• Scarlet fever •• Streptococci
•• Pontiac fever •• Legionella
Parasitic Diseases
Parasitic Diseases
‘Most Likely’ clinical scenarios associated with parasitic diseases
Type of Schistosomiasis presenting predominantly with pulmonary hypertension •• Schistosoma mansoni
Type of Schistosomiasis presenting predominantly with portal hypertension •• Schistosoma japonicum
Type of Schistosomiasis presenting predominantly with hematuria •• Schistosoma hematobonium
Parasitic disease in which pruritis ani is a feature •• Pinworm infection
Parasitic disease in which rectal prolapse is a feature •• Whipworm
Parasitic disease in which intestinal obstruction is a feature commonly •• Roundworm
Parasitic disease in which megaloblastic anemia is a feature •• Diphyllobathrium latum
Parasitic disease in which cholangitis or cholangiocarcinoma is a complication •• Clonorchis sinesis

Parasitic disease in which megaesophagus is a feature •• Chagas disease
Parasitic disease in which anchovy sauce expectoration is seen •• Amebic abscess
Parasitic disease in which tennis racket-shaped organisms produce malabsorption •• Giardiasis
Parasitic disease in which hemoptysis is a feature •• Paragonimiasis
Parasitic disease in which elephantiasis occurs is a feature •• Filariasis
Antibody Target Disease

•• Nicotinic acetyl choline receptor •• Myasthenia gravis
•• Intrinsic factor •• Pernicious anemia
•• Proteinase 3 (ANCA) •• Wegner’s granulomatosis
•• Alpha 3 chain of Collagen Type IV •• Goodpasteur’s syndrome
•• Thyroid peroxidase •• Hashimoto’s thyroiditi’s
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•• ANA: SLE
•• Anti-smith, anti-dsDNA: Specific for SLE
•• Anti-histone: Drug induced SLE
•• Anti-centromere: CREST Syndrome (c-c)
•• Anti-Scl 70: Scleroderma (scl-scl)
•• Anti-SSA, Anti-SSB: Sjogren’s syndrome (s-s)
•• Anti-Jo 1: Polymyositis
•• Anti-mitochondrial: Primary biliary cirrhosis
•• Anti-glidian, Anti-transglutaminase: Celiac disease
•• Anti-GIL: Hemolytic transfusion reactions
•• Anti-sacchromyces cerevisiae: Crohn’s disease
•• Anti-epithelial cell: Pemphigus vulgaris
•• Anti-IgG: Rheumatoid arthritis
•• Antibodies to filaggrin
•• Antibodies to citrulline
•• Antibodies to calpastatin
•• Antibodies to components of the spliceosome (RA-33), and an unknown antigen, Sa
Enzyme Deficiencies in Porphyrias

•• Erythropoietic porphyria •• Ferrochelatase
•• Hereditary porphyria •• Coproporphynogen oxidase
•• Variegate porphyria •• Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
•• Acute Intermittent porphyria •• Porphobilinogen deaminase
•• Porphyria cutanea tarda •• URO decarboxylase
•• Congenital erythropoietic porphyria •• URO III CoA synthase
Eponym Spots in Medicine

•• Koplik spot Measeles
•• Roth Spots SABE
•• Bitot’s Spots Vitamin A deficiency
•• Herald Spot Pitryriasis rosea
•• Café au lait spots Peutz-jegher’s syndrome
Important Eponyms
•• Hebra nose Rhinoscleroma
•• Rubber man Ehler-Danlos syndrome
•• Sailors skin Solar elastosis
•• Petrified man Myositis ossificans
Gamma heavy chain disease: Franklin’s disease

Alpha heavy chain disease: Seligmann’s disease
•• Swimming pool granuloma: Mycobacterium marinum

•• Swimmer’s itch: Schistosomiasis
•• Swimming pool conjunctivitis: Adenovirus
Rare Syndromes
LEOPARD syndrome:
•• Lentiges
•• ECG abnormalities
•• Ocular hypertelorism
•• Pulmonary stenosis
•• Abnormal genitalia
•• Retarded growth
•• Deafness
LAMB syndrome:
•• Lentiges
•• Atrial myxoma
•• Blue nevus
NAME syndrome:
•• Nevus
•• Atrial myxoma
•• Myxoid neurofibroma
•• Ephelids
Carney syndrome: LAMB and NAME syndrome
POEMS syndrome:
•• Polyneuropathy
•• Organomegaly
•• Endocrinopathy
•• M protein
•• Skin change
Important Triads and Pentads to be remembered

Triad of Alport’s Syndrome: Sensorineural deafness, Progressive renal failure, Ocular anomalies
Triad of Behçet’s Syndrome: Recurrent oral ulcers, Genital ulcers, Iridocyclitis
Beck’s Triad: Muffled heart sound, Distended neck veins, Hypotension (cardiac tamponade)
Gradenigo’s Triad: Sixth Cranial N palsy, Persistent ear discharge, Deep-seated retro-orbital pain
Hutchinson’s Triad: Hutchison’s teeth, Interstitial keratitis, Nerve deafness
Saint’s Triad: Gallstones, Diverticulosis, Hiatus hernia
Trotter’s Triad: Conductive deafness, immobility of homolateral soft palate, trigeminal neuralgia
Virchow’s Triad: Stasis, Hypercoagulability, Vessel injury
Whipple’s Triad: Hypoglycemia during attacks, S. glucose 10%, Hypergammaglobulinemia
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome Triad: Anemia,Thrombocytopenia, Renal failure
Fanconi Syndrome Triad: Aminoaciduria, Proteinuria, Phosphaturia
Alkaptonuria Triad: Ochronotic arthritis, Ochronotic pigmentation, Urine darkens on standing.
•• Anderson Triad: Bronchiectasis, Cystic fibrosis, Vitamin A deficiency

•• Pentad of TTP: Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, Fever, Disturbed neurological function, Renal failure, Thrombocytopenia
•• O’Donoghue Triad: Twisting force in a weight-bearing knee joint causes injury to Medial collateral ligament, Anterior cruciate
ligament, Medial meniscus
•• Cushing’s Triad of Increased Intracranial Pressure: Bradycardia, Bradypnea, Hypertension
•• Hemobilia: Malena, Obstructive jaundice, Biliary colic
•• Kartagener’s Syndrome Triad: Triad of bronchiectasis, Recurrent sinusitis, and Situs inversus.
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Concept Clarifications
•• Hutchinson’s freckle Lentigo maligna (melanoma variant)
•• Hutchinson’s pupil Blown pupil in uncal herniation
•• Hutchinson’s sign Herpes zoster ophthalmicus, vesicles at tip of nose
•• Hutchinson’s teeth Small, widely spaced teeth in congenital syphilis
•• Hutchinson’s triad Interstitial keratitis, notched incisors, VIII nerve deafness
•• Hutchinson’s # # radial styloid process
•• Hutchinson’s book Book on medicine (not asked in exams)
•• Charcot’s crystals In bronchial asthma

•• Charcot’s disease ALS
•• Charcot’s joint Neuropathic joints in leprosy, syphilis
•• Charcot’s triad Seen in multiple sclerosis, cholangitis
•• Charcot’s aneurysm Brain aneurysm
CD Markers
•• Hairy cell leukemia CD 103+
•• Mantle cell lymphoma CD 5+, CD 103–
•• CLL CD 23+
•• Apoptosis CD 95+
•• Brainstem lesion:
Cranial nerve involvement+sensory loss of ½ of face+contralateral ½ of body
•• Thalamic lesion:
Sensory loss of ½ of face+same ½ of body
•• Internal capsule lesion:
Loss of face, arm, leg without higher cortical dysfunction
•• Renkies edema: It is edema of vocal cords

•• Angioneurotic edema: Due to C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
•• Berlins edema: Blunt trauma to eye
•• Quincke’s edema: Generalized anasarca
Remember
•• Nonenhancing lesion in AIDS PML
•• Solitary weakly ring-enhancing lesion CNS lymphoma
•• Multiple ring-enhancing lesions Toxoplasmosis
USMLE Case Scenario

Toxoplasmosis
A 44-year-old patient diagnosed with AIDS develops right-sided weakness involving the lower limb. MRI scans reveal two
ring-enhancing lesions within the white matter of the left frontal lobe. A biopsy shows coagulative necrosis of brain
parenchyma with macrophage-rich chronic inflammatory infiltration admixed with microscopic cysts that contain
characteristic bradyzoites.
•• This patient has cerebral toxoplasmosis, which represents one of the most common opportunistic infections in AIDS
•• Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoon that infects humans who ingest the oocysts from cat feces or incompletely cooked lamb or pork
•• Only immunodepressed patients and fetuses are vulnerable to this infection. In the fetus, toxoplasmosis causes extensive damage
to brain parenchyma and retina
•• Toxoplasmosis associated with AIDS manifests with necrotizing lesions surrounded by chronic inflammation
•• A ring-enhancing lesion is a mass that contains a rim of contrast enhancement (bright signal on MRI) surrounding a dark core
corresponding to central necrosis
•• In AIDS, the most frequent causes of a ring-enhancing lesion are primarily brain lymphoma and toxoplasmosis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old man at home develops hemiparesis, ataxia, homonymous hemianopia, and cognitive deterioration. He was
taken to a neurologist In New York. An MRI of the brain demonstrates widespread areas of abnormal T2 signal in the white
matter. Brain biopsy reveals demyelination with abnormal giant oligodendrocytes, some of which contain eosinophilic
inclusions. Most likely cause is:
1. Chickenpox
2. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Syphilis
5. Tuberculosis
Ans. 2. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

•• It is a rapidly progressive demyelinating disorder
•• JC virus (a papovavirus) infects oligodendroglial cells in the brain
•• The eosinophilic inclusions represent accumulations of JC virus
•• PML occurs in about 1% of AIDS patients, and is the AIDS-defining illness in half of the patients who develop the condition.
•• Pott’s puffy tumor Osteomyelitis of skull

•• Cock’s peculiar tumor Complicated, infected sebaceous cyst
•• Hemoptysis normally is due to bronchial artery

•• Hempotysis in Mitral stenosis is due to pulmonary artery
Familial breast cancer: BRCA1

Sporadic breast cancer: p53
•• HTLV1: Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma, Tropical spastic paraplegia

•• HTLV2: Hairy T cell leukemia
•• HTLV3: HIV/AIDS
•• Rebound hypertension: Clonidine

•• Postural hypotension: Prazosin
Cardiac Tamponade
•• X-descent
•• Pulsus paradoxus
Medicine 147
Constrictive Pericarditis
•• Kussmaul sign
•• Steep y-descent
•• Square root sign
•• M contour sign
•• Pericardial knock
•• Myelodysplastic syndrome: 5q
•• Cri-du-chat syndrome: 5p
•• S100, TA 90: Melanoma

•• CA 27.29: Breast Ca
•• CA 72.4: Ovarian Ca, pancreatic Ca
•• LASA P: Ovarian Ca
•• Mycotic aneurysm is due to bacteria

•• Mycotic abscess is due to fungal infection
‘Quick wrap-up’: Important Points Highlighted
USMLE Case Scenarios

•• An organism is found to be a pleomorphic, gram-negative rod that causes a localized skin Erysipelothrix
infection and seems to be a cause of an occupational disease of fishermen, fish handlers,
and butchers. Most likely disease is caused by:
•• A nematode infection is caused by taking undercooked Pork with symptoms of diarrhea, Trichinella
periorbital edema, myositis, fever, and eosinophilia. Most likely organism is:
•• An organism occurs in the immunocompromised population and may cause severe Cryptosporidiosis
diarrhea. The organism presents as minute (2–5 mm) intracellular spheres or arc-shaped
merozoites under normal mucosa. Most likely disease is:
•• A 44-year-old patient from Central America presents with facial edema and nodules, fever, Chagas disease
lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. The disease also affects cardiac muscle most
severely. It is most prevalent in Central and South America; with rare cases in the southern
US. The disease is:
•• A 35-year-old female says she had a protozoan infection and used to eat undercooked Toxoplasmosis
meat and had exposure to cat feces. The organism can also cause a heterophile-negative,
mononucleosis-like syndrome. In patients with AIDS, it causes ring-enhanced focal brain
lesions and pneumonia. Most likely the disease is:
•• An African child develops massive unilateral enlargement of his lower face in the vicinity Burkitt’s lymphoma
of the mandible. Biopsy demonstrates sheets of medium-sized blast cells with admixed
larger macrophages. This type of tumor has been associated with viral infection. Most
likely disease is:
•• A disease is found to be due to reactivation of epidemic typhus infection caused by Brill-zinsser disease
Rickettsia prowazekii. It can occur many years after an infection that was not been treated
with antibiotics. The most likely disease is:
•• A gram-positive coco-bacillus is causing Infection during pregnancy that may result in Listerosis
sepsis, abortion or premature delivery. Infection in the neonate may produce meningitis.
In immunocompromised adults, either meningitis or sepsis may occur. The organism is:
•• A 3-year-old boy from rural America is brought to the ENT emergency room in extreme Epiglottitis
respiratory distress, with a temperature of 104 degrees Fahrenheit. He is drooling and
has great difficulty swallowing and on physical examination, an inspiratory stridor is noted.
An immediate lateral X-ray done shows swelling of the epiglottis. He has had no previous
vaccinations. Most likely disease is:
•• A highly encapsulated organism is found to cause bronchopneumonia with patchy Klebsiella pneumoniae
infiltrates involving one or more lobes with red sputum in a debilitated alcoholic. Most likely
disease is:
•• An 8-year-old girl is bitten in the leg by a dog. She presents the next day with fever and Pasteurella
bone pain localized to her right calf. X-ray reveals a lytic lesion of the left femur. Results of
the bone culture are pending. Infecting organism is most likely to be:
•• An organism is causing urinary tract infections. It has ability to break down urea and is Proteus species
thought to contribute to the development of struvite kidney stones due to the elevation of
urine pH by production of ammonia. The said organism is also having swarming motility. The
organism is identified as:
•• A 44-year-old man from rural Indian village is brought to a rural hospital with severe Plague
bronchopneumonia. He suffered sudden onset of chills, fever, and headache several days
ago. Two days later, he complained of chest pain and difficulty breathing, and coughed up
blood-tinged sputum. Chest X-ray reveals patchy infiltrates and segmental consolidation.
The most likely cause of this man’s pneumonia and the disease itself is due to yersinia.
Disease itself is:
•• A disease is caused in a gardener by virtue of organism entering through skin breaks in Sporotrichosis
the fingers or hands, causing a chancre, papule, or subcutaneous nodule with erythema
and fluctuance. Ulcerating lesions appear along lymphatic channels, but the lymph nodes
are not commonly infected. Potassium iodide is used for the treatment of the subcutaneous
manifestations. The disease is common in gardeners. Most likely disease is:
•• A 66-year-old alcoholic man from New with brain and pulmonary abscess and is treated with Clostridium difficile
antibiotics for last two weeks. He develops nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and voluminous
green diarrhea. The condition is diarrhea due to:
•• An organism identified on dark ground microscopy caused testicular involvement with Syphilis
gumma formation, endarteritis, and/or a prominent plasma cell infiltrate. Most likely
disease is:
•• A disease which may be spread by handling rabbits or rabbit skins, or by bites from ticks Tularemia
that feed on the blood of wild rabbits, a gram-negative coccobacillus. The disease begins
as a rupturing pustule followed by an ulcer, with involvement of regional lymph nodes.
More serious cases can be complicated by bacteremia, splenomegaly, rash, pneumonia, or
endotoxemic shock. Most likely disease is:
•• A gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod causing (a spastic paralysis caused by Tetanus caused by clostridia
toxin which blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and gamma- tetani
aminobutyric acid [GABA]) is most likely:
•• A gram-negative rod that is a zoonotic agent causing an undulating febrile disease with Brucellosis
malaise, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. The normal route of exposure is via
ingestion of the organism. Most likely disease is:
•• A 65-years-old male from Chicago presents with low back pain, anemia and fatigability. ESR •• Multiple myeloma
is 90 and serum creatinine: 3.2 mg%. Likely diagnosis is:
•• A child brought by his mother from Mexico presents with ascending flaccid paralysis. There •• Guillain-Barré syndrome
is subsequent respiratory muscle involvement. CSF examination shows albuminocytological
dissociation. Likely diagnosis is:
•• A 56-year-old engineer from Michigan presents with pain, numbness and impaired sensation •• Wallenberg’s syndrome
over half of the face along with ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia and hoarseness of voice. His
pain and thermal sensations over opposite half are impaired. Horner’s syndrome is present.
Likely cause is:
Medicine 149
•• A 25-year-old male scholar from New Zealand had pigmented macules over the palm, sole and •• Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
oral mucosa. He also had anemia and pain in abdomen. The most probable diagnosis is:
•• A 64-year-old lady admitted in neurology unit of Philadelphia complains of severe unilateral •• Temporal arteritis
headache on the right side and blindness for 2 days. On examination, there is a ‘thick cord’
like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hr in the first hour. The most
likely diaganosis is:
•• A 45-years-old female in Texas presented with hypertension, palpitation. CT scan finds 7 cm •• Pheochromocytoma
suprarenal mass. Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A young female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion. On examination, she has wide, •• Ostium primum atrial sep-
fixed split S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/VI) in left second intercostal space. Her EKG tal defect
shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
•• A 29-year-old woman from Ohio was found to have hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dl with a reticulocyte •• Iron-deficiency anemia
count of 0.8%. The peripherial blood smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia,
hemoglobin A2 and hemoglobin F levels were 2.4% and 1.3% respectively. The serum irom
and the total iron-binding capacity were 15 micro g/dl, and 420 micro g/dl, respectively.
The most likely cause of anemia is:
•• A 33-year-old lady working as a manager in Ohio presents with polydipsia and polyuria. Her •• Psychogenic polydipsia
symptoms started soon after a road traffic accident 6 months ago. The blood pressure is 120/80
mm Hg with no postural drop. The daily urinary output is 6–8 liters. Investigation showed, Na
130 mEq/l, K.3.5 mEq/l, urea 15 mg/dl, sugar 65 mg/dl. The plasma osmolality is 268 mosmol/l
and urine osmolality 45 mosmol/l. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 4½-year-old girl brought by her dear mother from Washington always had to wear warm •• Coarctation of aorta
socks even is summer season. On physical examination, it was noticed that she had high
blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to radial and carotid pulse.
A chest radiograph showed remarkable notching of ribs along with their lower borders. The
most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 56-year-old immunocompromised man who was given steroids by his physician in •• Herpes zoster
Ohio has painful vesicular rash over his right upper eyelid and forehead for the last
48 hours. He underwent chemotherapy for nonhodgkin’s lymphoma one year ago. His tepmperature
is 98 °F, blood pressure 138/76 mm Hg and pulse is 80/minute. Examination shows no other
abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
•• A 40-years-male from Calafornia presents with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea, vomiting, •• Hypercalcemia
altered sensorium was found to have Bronchogenic carcinoma. The electrolyte abnormality
seen in him would be:
•• A 65-year-old female is seen in surgical casualty of New Orleans. The patient has a progressive •• Nelson’s syndrome
skin pigmentation, amenorrhea, and visual field disturbances from a functioning
pituitary tumor. A CT scan shows a pituitary tumor. History is significant for bilateral
adrenalectomy for Cushing’s disease. High plasma concentrations of ACTH and MSH were
demonstrated by bioassay. Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 75-year-old working in some factory in China presents with symptoms of nonpleuritic chest •• Mesothelioma
pain, dyspnea secondary to pleural effusion, weight loss, fever, and cough also occur with
high frequency. Physical examination is notable for dullness to percussion and diminished
breath sounds. They stain positive for keratin. The chest X-ray shows pleural plaques,
pleural effusion. Computed tomography demonstrates extrapleural soft tissue invasion and
diaphragmatic involvement. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 55-year-old man has abdominal fullness, nonspecific symptoms of fatigue, weakness, •• Hairy cell leukemia
and weight loss, easy bruising. It is found that he has a type of leukemia. This leukemia is
characterized by presence of malignant cells that have irregular, filamentous cytoplasmic
projections on light microscopy that give the cells a hairy appearance. The most likely
diagnosis is:
•• In a 55-year-old of Chicago, a painless firm fibrotic thickening of the fascia of the •• Peyronie’s disease
corpora cavernosa is observed involving the dorsolateral aspects of the penile shaft or the
intracavernous septum between the corpora cavernosa. Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 54-year-old alcholic after a trauma on the highway in California has hypoxia, confusion. •• Fat embolism
Petechiae are found over the chest, conjunctivae, and uvula. Neurological examination shows
confusion, agitation, stupor. Respiratory abnormalities include tachypnea, profound hypoxia.
Blood examination shows thrombocytopenia, hypofibrinogenemia, and prolongation of the
partial thromboplastin time. Electrocardiogram shows prominent S waves in lead 1, prominent
Q waves in lead 3, ST segment depression, and right axis strain. Arterial PO2 is 50 mm Hg on
room air. Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A pathologist from Leicester (UK) reports that a disease is confined to the mucosal and •• Ulcerative colitis
submucosal layers of the colonic wall, with superficial ulcers, increased cellular infiltration of
the lamina propria, and crypt abscesses beginning in the rectum and advancing proximally
to involve the entire colon. On gross inspection, the colonic mucosa demonstrates healed
granular superficial ulcers superimposed on a friable and thickened mucosa with
increased vascularity. The most likely cause is:
•• A syndrome is associated with the rare occurrence of malignant infiltration of the colonic •• Ogilvie syndrome
sympathetic nerve supply in the region of the celiac plexus in which sometimes massive
cecal and colonic dilation is seen in the absence of mechanical obstruction. Such an entity
is described as:
•• A 6-year-old boy seen by a neurologist in Washington DC has been complaining •• Craniopharyngioma
of headache, ignoring to see the objects on the sides for four months.
On examination, he is not mentally retarded, his grades at school are good, and visual acuity
is diminished in both the eyes. Visual charting showed significant field defect. CT scan of the
head showed suprasellar mass with calcification. Most probable diagnosis is:
•• A patient from National Athletic Association of New York has nuchal lymphedema •• Turner’s syndrome
at birth, short stature, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, and primary
ovarian failure. A buccal smear done would classically reveal absent Barr bodies.
Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A tall Patient from Third year Class of a medical school with arachnodactyly, hyperextensible •• Homocystinuria
joints, mitral valve prolapse, dislocation of the lens of the eye, and a high risk for thoracic
aortic dissection is most likely having:
•• CD 19 positive, CD 22 positive, CD 103 positive monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa •• Hairy cell leukemia
positivity were found to comprise 60% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells on flow
cytometric analysis in a 55-year-old man with massive splenomegaly and a total leucocyte
count of 3.3 x 109/l. Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 36-year-old female with symptoms of hyperparathyroidism, tumor in pancreas, adrenal •• MEN I
cortical hyperplasia, pituitary adenomas, islet cell tumor with cutaneous angiofibromas. Most
likely diagnosis is:
•• A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and •• Polyarteritis nodosa
both lower limbs for the last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd
and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left side. On examination, BP was
160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy.
Investigations showed Hb 12 gm%, TLC 12,000 per cu mm platelets 4,30,000 and ESR 49 mm.
Urine examination showed Proteinuria and RBC-10–15/hpf with no casts. The most likely
diagnosis:
•• A 34-year-old female, nonhypertensive working in White House presents with severe headache •• Subarachnoid hemorrhage
and neck stiffness of abrupt onset. She tells she never had ‘such a severe headache’ before. On
further asking, she tells she is nauseated and has photophobia. Diagnosis is:
•• A 16-year-old girl from Texas with primary amenorrhea attends OPD. She has normal sexual •• Androgen insensitivity syn-
development and normal breast but with absent pubic and axillary hair. Examination drome
shows B/L inguinal hernias
•• USG shows absent uterus and blind vagina. Diagnosis will be:
Medicine 151
•• A 20-year-old male comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. •• Aortic regurgitation
His height is 198 cm. He has long fingers and toes. Blood pressure is 150/65 mm Hg,
and pulse is 66/min. On auscultation, there is a grade 2/6, long, high-frequency diastolic
murmur at the second right intercostal space. Echo would reveal most likely a diagnosis of
valvular lesion of:
•• A 66-year-old woman reports to a physician because of aches and stiffness in her neck, •• Polymyalgia
shoulders, and hips for two-and-a-half months. Her symptoms are more in the morning
hours. She has had chronic fatigue and low-grade fever during this period. Range of motion
of the neck, shoulders, and hips is normal. The muscles are minimally tender to palpation.
Muscle strength, sensation, and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Erythrocyte sedimentation
rate is 88 mm/h. Serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays are negative.
The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 20-year-young man presents with exertional dyspnea, headache, and giddiness. On •• Coarctation of the aorta
examination, there is hypertension and LVH. X-ray picture shows notching of the anterior
ends of the ribs. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 30-year-old HIV-positive patient from New York robbery gang presents with fever, dyspnea •• Pneunocystis carinii pneu-
and nonproductive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical monia
interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 40-year-old male working as a bartender in a local pub, with history of daily alcohol •• Delerium tremens
consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital with acute onsent of not recognizing
family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for few hours. There is history of his
having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days. Examination reveals increased blood pressure,
tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation,
impaired judgment and insight
•• He is most likely to be suffering from:
•• A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3-hour history of increasing •• Acute aortic dissection
shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and
radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On
examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40
mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds
were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. The
•• A patient with ‘leukemia on chemotherapy’ in a Chemotherapy unit of Washington •• Neutropenic colitis
develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia
and leukopenia. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A patient presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, duodenal biopsy shows villous •• Gluten enteropathy
atrophy. Antiendomysial antibodies are positive. Most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 24-year-old male presents with abdominal pain, rashes, palpable purpura and arthritis. •• Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
The most probable diagnosis is: (HSP)
•• A 7-year-old girl presents with repeated episodes of bleeding into joints. APTT is •• von Willebrand disease
prolonged and PT is normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• In a lady with bilateral superior temporal quadrantopia and galactorrhea, the most •• Pituitary macroadenoma
probable cause is:
•• A 40-year-old engineer presented with hepatosplenomegaly, hilar lymphadenopathy •• Sarcoidosis
and hypercalcemia. Most probable diagnosis is:
•• A man with fever, dull-aching retrosternal chest pain reported to the emergency. On •• Pericardial effusion
examination, he was found to show pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul’s sign and increased jugular
venous pressure. His apex beat was impalpable and heart sounds were muffled. Probable
diagnosis is:
•• A 33-year-old lady presents with polydipsia and polyuria. Her symptoms started soon after •• Psychogenic polydipsia
a road traffic accident 6 months ago. The blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg with no postural
drop. The daily urinary output is 6–8 liters. Investigation showed Na 130 mEq/l, K.3.5
mEq/l, urea 15mg/dl, sugar-65 mg/dl. The plasma osmolality is 268 mosmol/l and urine
osmolality 45 mosmol/l. The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 33-year-old HIV-positive male from New York complains of pain on swallowing. Physical •• Candidiasis
examination is remarkable for white plaque-like material on his tongue and buccal
mucosa, which is scraped and sent to the laboratory. The man is diagnosed with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
•• The most likely diagnosis is:
•• A 4-year-old boy presents with a 1-day history of loose stools, fever, abdominal •• Salmonella
cramping, headache, and myalgia. He has no blood in the stool. The incubation period is
36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food or water. Most likely the causative agent
of his diarrhea is:
•• A 4-year-old girl with a history of hydrocephalus is brought to the neurologist by her •• Staph epidermis infection
parents with a severe headache and fever. The girl underwent a surgery for a ventricular-
peritoneal shunt 2 months ago, and the neurologist suspects that an infection has occurred.
Infection is most likely due to:
Medicine 153
USMLE Case Scenario

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP, Moschcowitz’s syndrome) is a syndrome characterized by:
1. Thrombocytosis, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, progressive hepatic failure, and fever
2. Thrombocytosis, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, nonfluctuating neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure, and fever
3. Thrombocytopenia, macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure, and fever
4. Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure, and fever
Ans. 4. Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fluctuating neurologic abnormalities, progressive renal failure,
and fever
USMLE Case Scenario

Features of tumor lysis syndrome are:
1. Hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypercalcemia
2. Hyperuricemia, hypophosphatemia, hypocalcemia
4. Hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
Ans. 4. Hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man from New Jersy with known hepatitis C and cirrhosis complains of confusion over the past week. He has
had a declining urinary output. On physical examination, he is jaundiced, has tense ascites. Laboratory results reveal a WBC
count of 4500/mm3, An Hb of 8.4 g/dl, and a hematocrit of 31%. His KFT reveals a BUN of 37mg/dl and a creatinine of 3.3 mg/
dl. Urinary sodium is less than 11 mEq/l. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for his elevated BUN and
creatinine?
1. Large volume paracentesis
2. Hemodialysis
3. Portocaval shunt
4. Kidney transplantation
5. Liver transplantation
6. Peritoneal dialysis
7. Sodium restriction
Ans. 5. Liver Transplantation
This patient with well-advanced cirrhosis and portal hypertension has developed the onset of renal insufficiency consistent
with hepatorenal syndrome. This occurs during the end-stages of cirrhosis and is characterized by diminished urine output
and low urinary sodium. Liver transplantation is a viable option which will reverse this clinical scenario and kidney function
will return to normal.
USMLE Case Scenario

An elderly patient presents with pallor, fever, recurrent infections, oral ulcerations, ecchymoses, and petechiae. Preliminarily
hypersplenism is suspected. Criteria for diagnosis include:
1. Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, or combinations, bone marrow hypoplasia, splenomegaly, improvement after
splenectomy
2. Erythrocytosis, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, or combinations, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, splenomegaly,
improvement after splenectomy
3. Erythrocytosis, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis or combinations, bone marrow hypoplasia, splenomegaly, improvement after
splenectomy
4. Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, or combinations, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, splenomegaly,
Ans. 4. Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, or combinations, compensatory bone marrow hyperplasia, splenomegaly,
USMLE Case Scenario

In Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, constitutional symptoms (B symptoms) may appear simultaneously with lymph node enlargement
or may precede development of lymphadenopathy. Truth about these B symptoms is that they include:
1. Fever, night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus and indicative widespread involvement and are favorable prognostic signs
2. Fever, night sweats, weight gain, and pruritus and indicative widespread involvement and are favorable prognostic signs
3. Fever, night sweats, weight gain, and pruritus and indicative local involvement and are unfavorable prognostic signs
4. Fever, night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus and indicative widespread involvement and are unfavorable prognostic signs
Ans. 4. Fever, night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus and indicative widespread involvement and are unfavorable prognostic
signs.
USMLE Case Scenario

Hodgkin’s disease involving lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm is classified as:
1. Stage I
2. Stage II
3. Stage III
4. Stage IV
Ans. 3. Stage III
•• Stage I disease indicates nodal involvement in only one lymph node region
•• Stage II disease is limited to two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm
•• Stage III refers to disease involving lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (the spleen is considered a lymph node)
•• Stage IV disease encompasses diffuse or disseminated involvement of one or more distant extranodal organs with or without
associated lymph node involvement
•• Stage IV is further classified as A (absence) or B (presence) with regard to fever, night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old man has abdominal fullness nonspecific symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and weight loss, easy bruising. It
is found that he has a type of leukemia. This leukemia is characterized by presence of malignant cells that have irregular,
filamentous cytoplasmic projections on light microscopy that give the cells a hairy appearance. Truth about it is that it is:
1. Common form of leukemia characterized by pancytopenia, splenomegaly without significant lymphadenopathy
2. Common form of leukemia characterized by pancytopenia, splenomegaly with significant lymphadenopathy
3. Uncommon form of leukemia characterized by pancytopenia, splenomegaly with significant lymphadenopathy
4. Uncommon form of leukemia characterized by pancytopenia, splenomegaly without significant lymphadenopathy
Ans. 4. Uncommon form of leukemia characterized by pancytopenia, splenomegaly without significant lymphadenopathy
Hairy cell leukemia (leukemic reticuloendotheliosis) is an uncommon form of leukemia characterized by pancytopenia,
splenomegaly without significant lymphadenopathy, and characteristic mononuclear cells in the blood and bone marrow.
USMLE Case Scenario

Truth about pigment gallstones in patients with sickle-cell anemia is:
1. Incidence of pigment gallstones in patients with sickle-cell anemia decreases with age. Calculi appear first in childhood and
are present in approximately 70% of adult patients
2. Incidence of pigment gallstones in patients with sickle-cell anemia increases with age. Calculi appear first in adulthood and
3. Incidence of nonpigment gallstones in patients with sickle-cell anemia increases with age. Calculi appear first in childhood
and are present in approximately 70% of adult patients
4. Incidence of pigment gallstones in patients with sickle-cell anemia increases with age. Calculi appear first in childhood and
Ans. 4. Incidence of pigment gallstones in patients with sickle-cell anemia increases with age. Calculi appear first in childhood
and are present in approximately 70% of adult patients
Medicine 155
USMLE Case Scenario

The physiologic mechanisms affected by medical strategies for the management of osteoporosis include:
1. Decreased apoptosis of osteoclasts by bisphosphonates
2. Increased activation of osteoclast activity by calcitonin
3. Increased osteoblast differentiation by selective estrogen receptor modulators
4. Decreased intestinal Ca2+ secretion by vitamin D
Ans. 3 Increased osteoblast differentiation by selective estrogen receptor modulators
USMLE Case Scenario

An 88-year-old female smoked cigarettes for 20 years but stopped smoking 5 years ago. She has increasing dyspnea for
months with a nonproductive cough. A chest radiograph shows prominent hilar lymphadenopathy. A transbronchial biopsy
is performed, and the microscopic findings include interstitial fibrosis and small noncaseating granulomas. This disease is
believed to be caused by:
1. Delayed hypersensitivity response to an unknown antigen
2. Immediate hypersensitivity response to an unknown antigen
3. Immune complexes formed in response to inhaled antigens
4. Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD)
5. Smoke inhalation for many years
6. Infection with atypical mycobacteria
Ans. 1. Delayed hypersensitivity response to an unknown antigen
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be associated with cystic fibrosis?
1. Intestinal obstruction
2. Sinusitis
3. Steatorrhea
4. Dextrocardia
5. Clubbing
Ans. 4. Dextrocardia
USMLE Case Scenario

Methylphenyltetrahydropyridine is taken by a 25-year-old male from California complaining of uncontrollable shaking in his
hands. Most likely pathology he might have as a result of the above-mentioned features is:
1. Lewy bodies
2. Pick bodies
3. Negri bodies
4. Neurofibrillary tangles
Ans. 1. Lewy bodies
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old alcoholic. Comes to your office complaining of cough, chills and fever. He has a ‘cold’ for 4 days and has been
coughing up yellow-thick tenacious sputum with jelly-like consistency and reddish color. He denies shortness of breath and
chest pain. Temperature is 39.6 °C and expiratory rales are heard over both lung fields. Among the following, the most likely
causative organism is:
1. Klebsiella pneumonia
2. E. coli
3. Pseudomonas pneumonia
4. Mycoplasma pneumonia
5. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
6. Pulmonary tuberculosis
Ans. 1. Klebsiella pneumonia
USMLE Case Scenario

Dominantly inherited disease associated with progressive chorea and dementia; related to neurotransmitter imbalance:
1. Wilson’s disease
2. Tardive dyskinesia
3. Tourette’s syndrome
4. Huntington’s disease
5. Shy-Drager syndrome
Ans. 4. Huntington’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

It is found that the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is elevated and cells are resistant to osmotic lysis:
1. Hereditary xerocytosis
2. Hereditary spherocytosis
3. Hereditary elliptocytosis
4. Aplastic anemia
Ans. 1. Hereditary xerocytosis
Hereditary hydrocytosis and xerocytosis are rare forms of hemolytic anemia that result from a primary alteration in red cell
membrane monovalent cation permeability. Xerocytosis is differentiated from hereditary spherocytosis, elliptocytosis, or
other conditions where the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is elevated by red cell morphology and resistance
of the cells to osmotic lysis.
USMLE Case Scenario

Howell-Jolly bodies are:
1. Nuclear remnant
2. Denatured hemoglobin
3. Iron granules
4. Organelles
Ans. 1. Nuclear remnant
•• Howell-Jolly bodies are (nuclear remnant)
•• Heinz bodies are (denatured hemoglobin)
•• Pappenheimer bodies are (iron granules)
USMLE Case Scenario

After splenectomy, suspicion of splenosis is made. This is demonstrated by:
1. Absence of Howell-Jolly bodies, siderocytes
2. Presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, siderocytes
3. Absence of target cells, reticulocytes
4. Presence of target cells, reticulocytes
Ans. 1. Absence of Howell-Jolly bodies, siderocytes
The absence of Howell-Jolly bodies, siderocytes, and other postsplenectomy blood changes as well as the recurrence of the
hematologic disease for which splenectomy was performed should raise suspicion of splenosis or the presence of accessory
splenic tissue.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old has malaise, dyspnea, and weight with abdominal fullness and discomfort, early satiety. Older records
suggest that he has had episodes of bone pain, pruritus and hyperuricemia. Pathologist reports he has myeloid metaplasia.
Characteristic features of myeloid metaplasia are:
1. Fibrosis of the bone marrow, no extramedullary hematopoiesis, presence in the peripheral blood of mature erythroid and
granulocytes and no splenomegaly
Medicine 157
2. Fibrosis of the bone marrow, extramedullary hematopoiesis, presence in the peripheral blood of immature erythroid and
granulocyte precursors and massive splenomegaly
3. No fibrosis of the bone marrow, no extramedullary hematopoiesis, presence in the peripheral blood of immature erythroid
and granulocyte precursors and massive splenomegaly
4. No fibrosis of the bone marrow, extramedullary hematopoiesis, presence in the peripheral blood of immature erythroid and
granulocyte precursors and no splenomegaly
Ans. 2 Fibrosis of the bone marrow, extramedullary hematopoiesis, presence in the peripheral blood of immature erythroid
and granulocyte precursors and massive splenomegaly
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old has a long history of arthritis. The patient fails to show a substantial granulocytosis in response to infection, and
severe, persistent, and recurrent infections are characteristic. Antibody directed against granulocytes is demonstrable in the
patient. Mild anemia and thrombocytopenia are present in some cases. Moderate splenomegaly is seen. Most likely arthritis is:
1. Osteoarthritis
2. Gouty arthritis
3. Gonococcal arthritis
4. Syphilitic arthritis
5. Rheumatoid arthritis
6. Septic arthritis
Ans. 5. Rheumatoid arthritis
Felty’s syndrome consists of the triad of severe rheumatoid arthritis, granulocytopenia and splenomegaly
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old college student is brought to the Emergency Room by her parents who state that the patient vomited all
night. Examination reveals an ill-appearing woman. Her temperature is 37.8 °C, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse
is 154/min, and respirations are 28/min. The patient is dehydrated. Chest and CVS Examination are normal. Laboratory
analysis shows:
Sodium ...................... 131 mEq/l
Potassium .................. 6.4 mEq/l
Chloride .................... 101 mEq/l
Bicarbonate ............... 8.5 mEq/l
Urea nitrogen ............ 10 mg/dl
Creatinine ................. 1.1 mg/dl
Glucose .................... 777 mg/dl
pH........................... 7.13
pCO2 ....................... 30 mm Hg
pO2 ......................... 85 mm Hg
Urinalysis is positive for ketones
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
1. Ion exchange resins
2. IV diazepam
3. Intravenous insulin
4. Streptokinase
5. Put her on ventilator
6. IV potassium
7. Mannitol
Ans. 3. Intravenous insulin
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of diabetes mellitus. DKA exists if there is hyperglycemia
(glucose >300), ketonemia, acidosis (pH < 7.30, HCO3 < 15) with clinical symptoms of diabetes. The mainstay of treatment for
DKA is intravenous insulin.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-year-old Ashkenazi Jew presents with massive splenomegaly. He is having a disease which is genetically transmitted as
an autosomal recessive trait caused by a deficiency of an enzyme responsible for breaking down certain lipid complexes. On
biopsy of macrophages, cells are seen to contain dense fibrillar deposits of glucocerebroside in the cytoplasm. Diagnosis is
made by finding the typical cells in biopsied tissues. These cells are:
1. Ito cells
2. Gaucher cells
3. Kuffer cells
4. Adipocytes
Ans. 2. Gaucher cells
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old person from Wales imitates movements of his friend. This implies he has:
1. Echopraxia
2. Echolalia
3. Cataplexy
4. Stereotypy
5. Stereotaxy
Ans. 1. Echopraxia
USMLE Case Scenario

A disease of defect in platelet adhesion with abnormally large platelets and lack of platelet-surface glycoprotein is:
1. Glanzmann’s disease
2. ITP
3. TTP
4. Hemophilia
5. Myelofibrosis
6. von Willebrand’s disease
7. Bernard-Soulier disease
Ans. 7. Bernard-Soulier disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 71-year-old man with a 70-pack-year smoking history comes to the physician after he notes that his right eye has a lagging
lid. The physician has been seeing this patient for more than 10 years for management of his symptoms of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). On physical examination, he has ptosis of the right eye with a constricted right pupil. The
remainder of the ophthalmologic examination is normal. Cranial nerve function is otherwise normal. Which of the following
would most likely be expected on a chest X-ray film?
1. A normal chest X-ray film
2. An irregularly shaped mass at the apex of the right lung
3. A calcified granuloma in the left mid-lung field
4. A left-sided pleural effusion
5. A right upper lobe pneumonia
Ans. 2. An irregularly shaped mass at the apex of the right lung. This patient has physical findings consistent with right-sided
Horner’s syndrome, which consists of a triad of ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. This results from a lung cancer in this long-time
smoker at the apex of the right lung, which causes compression of the cervical sympathetic plexus. These patients may also
complain of scapular pain and a radiculopathy in the ulnar nerve distribution.
USMLE Case Scenario

Alport’s syndrome is:
1. Hereditary nephritis with goiter
2. Hereditary nephritis with nerve deafness
Medicine 159
3. Hereditary nephritis with nerve blindness

4. Hereditary nephritis with gynecomastia
Ans. 2. Hereditary nephritis with nerve deafness
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old Philipino nurse has loss of carotid, radial pulse with night sweats. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Temporal arteritis
2. Wegener’s disease
3. Kawasaki disease
4. Takayasu’s arteritis
Ans. 4. Takayasu’s arteritis
USMLE Case Scenario

Munchausen syndrome is:
1. Nonfactitious disorder, unconsciously creates symptoms, but doesn’t know why
2. Nonfactitious disorder, consciously creates symptoms, but knows why
3. Factitious disorder, consciously creates symptoms, but knows why
4. Factitious disorder, consciously creates symptoms, but doesn’t know why
Ans. 4. Factitious disorder, consciously creates symptoms, but doesn’t know why
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old patient has severe muscle discomfort and restlessness that causes him agitation, pacing, and anxiety. He has
used antipsychotics for a pretty long period now. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Dystonia
2. Chorea
3. Hemiballismus
4. Akathisia
5. Akinesia
Ans. 4. Akathisia
It is a subjective feeling of muscle discomfort and restlessness that can cause agitation, pacing, anxiety, and dysphoria. It is
related to the use of antipsychotics
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old presents to medicine clinic with seizures. There is no aura. No EEG abnormalities are seen on further evaluation.
The movements are asynchronous and nonstereotyped and they occur when the person is awake. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Dystonia
2. Chorea
3. Hemiballismus
4. Pseudoseizures
5. Akathisia
6. Akinesia
Ans. 4. Pseudoseizures
USMLE Case Scenario

A middle-aged, itchy woman having CREST has jaundice, pruritus, and hepatomegalies are common. The liver function tests
show a mild transaminitis with # alkaline phosphatase and # bilirubin. Diagnosis would be suggested by ordering for:
1. Antimicrosomal antibody
2. Antikidney antibody
3. AntiLKM antibody
4. Antiphospholipid antibody
5. Antimitochondrial antibody
Ans. 5. Antimitochondrial antibody
USMLE Case Scenario

A severely ill HIV-affected patient has evidence of destruction of myelin at multiple sites in the CNS pointing to a diagnosis of
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). PML is caused by:
1. JC virus which is a papovavirus
2. JC virus which is a parvovirus
3. HTLV1 virus which is a rhabdovirus
4. HTLV2 virus which is a papovavirus
Ans. 1. JC virus which is a papovavirus
USMLE Case Scenario

Bracht-Wachter lesions are seen in:
1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
2. Syphilis
3. Dermoid cyst
4. Leprosy
5. Tuberculosis
Ans. 1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
USMLE Case Scenario

A young girl presents with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, café au lait spots, short stature. Most likely the
diagnosis is:
1. von Recklinghausen’s disease
2. Tuberous sclerosis
3. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
4. Wermer’s syndrome
5. Sipple syndrome
6. Albright’s syndrome
Ans. 6. Albright’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old male, who was hypertensive and diabetic, developed unconsciousness. It was found that he had paramedian
infarct of midbrain with ipsilateral mydriasis, contralateral UMN paralysis of lower face and body. Most likely he is having:
1. Weber’s syndrome
2. Wallenberg’s syndrome
3. Medial medullary syndrome
4. Argyll Robertson syndrome
Ans. 1. Weber’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

The risk of acquiring hepatitis B is significantly higher than the risk for HIV, and somewhat higher than the risk for hepatitis
C. Thus, it is essential that health care workers be immunized against the hepatitis B virus. The immunization schedule is for
administration of the vaccine at:
1. 1, 2, and 6 months
Medicine 161
Ans. 1. 1, 2, and 6 months
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient of 44 years, who recently had a head trauma, is clinically euvolemic and has a high urine osmolality and specific
gravity. He responded to demeclocycline. Most likely he is having:
1. SIADH
4. Latent diabetes
Ans. 1. SIADH
USMLE Case Scenario

Pain reproduced by ulnar deviation to stretch the affected tendons is positive Finkelstein sign. It is seen in:
1. de Quervain’s tenosynovitis
2. Dupuytren’s contracture
3. Carpal tunnel syndrome
4. Bursitis
Ans. 1. de Quervain’s tenosynovitis
USMLE Case Scenario

In the 3rd week of life, a baby presents with projectile non-bilious vomiting and on palpation, an olive-sized mass is
palpable in the epigastrium. Plain radiographs demonstrate the absence of air distal to the obstructed pylorus. Regarding
this condition:
1. Male infants are less commonly affected than female infants and the incidence is far greater in full-term infants than in preterm
infants
2. Male infants are more commonly affected than female infants and the incidence is far less in full-term infants than in preterm
infants
3. Male infants are less commonly affected than female infants and the incidence is far less in full-term infants than in preterm
infants
4. Male infants are more commonly affected than female infants and the incidence is far greater in full-term infants than in pre-
term infants
Ans. 4. Male infants are more commonly affected than female infants and the incidence is far greater in full-term infants than
in preterm infants.
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with a superficial cellulitis of the skin with marked lymphatic involvement, caused by beta-hemolytic
group. A streptococci begins with an area of redness and enlarges to form the typical tense, painful, bright red, shiny, brawny,
infiltrated plaque with a well-demarcated, distinct, and slightly raised border. Most likely the diagnosis is:
1. Botromycosis
2. Gangrene
3. Rodent ulcer
4. Varicose ulcer
5. SSSS
6. Erysipelas
Ans. 6. Erysipelas
USMLE Case Scenario

A physician diagnoses a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which of the following signs is most consistent with
Duchenne muscular dystrophy:
1. Wrist drop
2. Foot drop
3. Gower’s sign
4. Festinant gait
5. Waddling gait
6. Positive Babinski sign
Ans. 3. Gower’s sign
The Gower’s sign is very characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It is considered positive if the patient uses his hands
to ‘walk’ up the legs when going from a prone to an upright sitting position because he does not have enough proximal
muscle power to get-up in a normal fashion.
USMLE Case Scenario

Lucio phenomenon is a widespread diffuse infiltration of the skin with secondary alopecia of the hair, eyebrows and eyelashes,
and generalized sensory loss. The patients are systemically ill with fever, chills, malaise, arthralgias, myalgias, and tender
cutaneous lesions that are responsive to steroids but not to thalidomide. Lucio phenomenon is usually associated with:
1. Mycoplasma
2. Chlamydia
3. Mycobacterium avium
4. Mycobacterium africanum
5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
6. Mycobacterium leprae
Ans. 6. Mycobacterium leprae
USMLE Case Scenario

Irregular, unpredictable, involuntary muscle contractions:
1. Athetosis
2. Dystonia
3. Tics
4. Chorea
5. Akinesia
Ans. 4. Chorea
USMLE Case Scenario

A disease characterized by chronic, multiple tics:
1. Parkinson’s disease
3. Shy-Drager syndrome
4. Tourette’s syndrome
Ans. 4. Tourette’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Donovanosis is caused by encapsulated, gram-negative bacterium Calymmatobacterium granulomatis. Infection results in a
painless papule that eventually ulcerates over the course of days or weeks. Donovan bodies are seen. They are:
1. Leukocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Medicine 163
2. Eosinophils that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

3. Monocytes that contain the organism, Hemophilus influenza
4. Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Ans. 4. Monocytes that contain the organism, Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old male has intense pruritus over bilaterally symmetrical lesions. Patient uses the terms ‘coin-shaped’ and ‘discoid’
which are used to describe skin lesions. Microscopically, the dominant feature is a localized spongiosis of the epidermis,
containing minute fluid-filled holes that correspond to the tiny vesicles seen clinically in early lesions. Patient gets relief with
high-potency steroids. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Psoriasis
2. Pompholyx
3. Pemphigus vegetans
4. Nummular eczema
5. Seborrhea
Ans. 4. Nummular eczema
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old woman, who is otherwise well, consults an ophthalmologist because of seeing double and droopy eyelids. She
also has complaints of generalized muscle weakness. IV injection of edrophonium dramatically, but only briefly, reverses her
symptoms. Most likely cause is:
1. Erb’s palsy
2. Erb-Duchenne Paralysis
3. Myotonia
4. Inclusion body myositis
5. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
6. Myasthenia gravis
Ans. 6. Myasthenia gravis. It is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies directed against the acetylcholine receptor of the
muscle side of the neuromuscular junction block the ability of the receptor to bind to acetylcholine.
USMLE Case Scenario

Ménétrier’s disease is:
1. Atrophic gastritis, small rugae, plasma protein loss
2. Atrophic gastritis, enlarged rugae, plasma protein loss
3. Giant hypertrophic gastritis, small rugae, plasma protein loss
4. Giant hypertrophic gastritis, enlarged rugae, plasma protein loss
Ans. 4. Giant hypertrophic gastritis, enlarged rugae, plasma protein loss
USMLE Case Scenario

ECG manifestation of WPWS is:
1. Long PR interval, delta wave, slight shortening of the QRS complex
2. Long PR interval, delta wave, slight widening of the QRS complex
3. Short PR interval, delta wave, slight shortening of the QRS complex
4. Short PR interval, delta wave, slight widening of the QRS complex
Ans. 4. Short PR interval, delta wave, slight widening of the QRS complex
USMLE Case Scenario

A 54-year-old was admitted to hospital and found to have severe symmetrical distal limb weakness and ‘glove and stocking’
sensory loss to the elbows and knees. Nerve conduction studies showed evidence of a mixed motor and sensory neuropathy.
A diagnosis was made of the Guillain-Barré syndrome. Investigation of the patient would demonstrate:
1. Low titers of IgE and IgG antibodies to Campylobacter jejuni were found in his peripheral blood
2. Low titers of IgE and IgD antibodies to Campylobacter jejuni were found in his peripheral blood
3. High titers of IgE and IgD antibodies to Campylobacter jejuni were found in his peripheral blood
4. High titers of IgM and IgG antibodies to Campylobacter jejuni were found in his peripheral blood
Ans. 4. High titers of IgM and IgG antibodies to Campylobacter jejuni were found in his peripheral blood
USMLE Case Scenario

A 23-year-old woman goes to the emergency department because she feels weak, having muscle cramping and fasciculations.
Blood chemistry studies demonstrate plasma potassium of 1.5 mEq/l. She admits to chronic use of laxatives and diuretics to
control her weight. Which of the following ECG changes would be most characteristic of changes related to her K+ level?
1. ST segment elevation
2. Decreased U wave amplitude
3. Increased U wave amplitude
4. Prolongation of the P wave
5. Shortening of the QT interval
6. Tall, symmetric, peaked T waves
7. Widening of the QRS complex
Ans. 3. Increased U wave amplitude
Severe hypokalemia, with plasma potassium < 3 mEq/l, can markedly affect skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles. Skeletal muscle
effects can include:
•• Weakness
•• Cramping
•• Fasciculations
•• Paralysis (with risk of respiratory failure), tetany, and rhabdomyolysis
•• Smooth muscle effects include hypotension and paralytic ileus
•• Cardiac muscle effects include premature ventricular and atrial contractions, tachyarrhythmias, and AV block. Additional ECG
changes can include ST segment depression, increased U wave amplitude, and T wave amplitude less than U wave.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 53-year-old woman presents complaining of fatigue, pruritus and weight loss for the last 6 months. There are excoriations
noted on all four extremities and trunk and back. The liver edge is smooth and nontender and measures 9.2 cm at the
midclavicular line. There is no ascites, splenomegaly, or peripheral edema. Laboratory results reveal a normal complete
blood count, normal electrolytes, and liver function tests with an alkaline phosphatase of 288 U/L (Normal, < 110 U/L),
total bilirubin of 3.5 mg/dl and normal transaminase levels. Which of the following would be associations of the disease:
Medicine 165
1. Iron-deficiency anemia
2. Wegner’s granulomatosis
3. Sjögren’s syndrome
4. Osteoarthritis
5. Thrombophlebitis
Ans. 3. Sjögren’s syndrome
This woman has a classic presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is often seen in individuals with
other autoimmune diseases, such as Sjögren’s syndrome, pernicious anemia and Hashimoto thyroiditis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 65-year-old female is seen in surgical casualty. The patient has a progressive skin pigmentation, amenorrhea, and visual
field disturbances from a functioning pituitary tumor. A CT scan shows a pituitary tumor. History is significant for bilateral
adrenalectomy for Cushing’s disease. High plasma concentrations of ACTH and MSH were demonstrated by bioassay. Most
1. Liddle’s syndrome
2. Barter’s syndrome
3. Craniopharyngoma
4. Nelson’s syndrome
5. Conn’s syndrome
6. Prolactinoma syndrome
Ans. 4. Nelson’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old man with adult polycystic kidney disease is brought to the emergency room in a coma. CT scan of the head
demonstrates a subarachnoid hemorrhage without parenchymal hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely source
of bleeding?
1. AV malformation
2. Bridging veins
3. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
4. Circle of Willis
5. Middle meningeal artery
Ans. 4. Circle of Willis
USMLE Case Scenario

A bone marrow examination showed a pleomorphic cellular infiltrate composed of a mixture of small lymphocytes, plasma
cells and cells of an intermediate appearance, called lymphoplasmacytoid cells. These are features of :
1. Gaucher’s disease
2. Krabe’s disease
3. Fabry’s disease
4. Hairy cell leukemia
5. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
6. Sézary syndrome
Ans. 5. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old gentleman has pickwickian syndrome. He has poor exercise tolerance and often feels lethargic at work. Which
of the following is the best investigation?
1. Echocardiography to assess cor pulmonale
2. CT scan of the chest
3. Blood gas
4. Sleep study
5. Exercise tolerance test
Ans. 4. Sleep study
The diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea can be made with a sleep study. In sleep apnea, there is gross obesity and airways
obstruction, occasionally leading to type II respiratory failure.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 67-year-old man after a long-standing illness, has been on hemodialysis for 22 years due to diabetic nephropathy. He now
has joint pains in the shoulders and knees. His blood test reveals:
Hb 10 g/dl, ESR 54 mm/hr, urea 19 μmol/l, creatinine 257 μmol/l, sodium 143 mmol/l, potassium 4.2 mmol/l, urate 0.7 (< 0.45)
What is the likely diagnosis?
1. Gout
2. Myeloma
3. Polymyalgia rheumatica
4. Conn’s disease
7. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition
8. B2 microglobulin amyloidosis
9. Cystinuria
Ans. 8. B2 microglobulin amyloidosis
The history of joint pains in a dialysis patient suggests amyloidosis. Amyloid deposits composed of b2-microglobulin are laid
down in periarticular surfaces of joints.
USMLE Case Scenario

An HIV patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular
hemorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis:
1. Herpes simplex virus
2. Human herpes virus 8
3. Cytomegalovirus
4. Epstein-Barr (EB) virus
Ans. 3. Cytomegalovirus
USMLE Case Scenario

A chronic inflammatory condition having features of a mass of granulation tissue around the carotid artery in the cavernous
sinus with symptoms simillar to cavernous sinus thrombosis associated with painful acute ophthalmoplegia and MRI findings
suggesting cavernous sinus enlargement are a feature of:
1. Weber’s syndrome
2. Tolsa-Hunt syndrome
3. Benedict’s syndrome
4. Nothangel’s syndrome
5. Millard-Gubler syndrome
Ans. 2. Tolsa-Hunt syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 59-year-old man driving on highway has been involved in a car accident and is admitted for assessment. His attendants
are told by the attending physician that he may have frontal lobe damage. Which of the following might be associated with
frontal lobe damage?
1. Left-right disorientation
2. Tremor of tongue
Medicine 167
3. Homonymous hemianopia
4. Dressing apraxia
5. Finger agnosia
6. Chorea
7. Perseverance
8. Total blindness
Ans. 7. Perseverance
Deficits following frontal lobe damage are attention disorder (distractibility and poor attention), aphasia, reduced activity,
particularly a diminution of spontaneous activity, lack of drive, inability to plan ahead, and lack of concern.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old male has presented with repeated episodes of hematemesis. There is no history of jaudice or liver
decompensation. On examination, their significant findings include splenomegaly (8 cms below costal margin), and presence
of esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic ulceration. The liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Extrahepatic portal venous obstruction
2. Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis
3. Cirrhosis
4. Hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction
Ans. 2. Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis
USMLE Case Scenario

After a cardiac catheterization in a 56-year-old patient from New Jersy, a female presents with of a pulsatile mass, femoral
bruit, and compromised distal pulses. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Cholesterol embolization syndrome
2. Femoral pseudoaneurysms
3. Retroperitoneal bleed
4. Femoral hernia
5. Saphena varix
Ans. 2. Femoral pseudoaneurysms
USMLE Case Scenario

A 16-year-old girl was brought by her mother and both have similar skin appearance for soft, pink tumors distributed all
over the body. Multiple light brown macules are also seen. Slit lamp examination of eye reveals iris hamartomas. Most likely
disease is:
3. Sturge-Weber syndrome
4. Neurofibromatosis
5. SABE
Ans. 4. Neurofibromatosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old female with frequent urination, increased thirst with serum osmolality of 350 mOsm/l and 24-hour urine
osmolality of 50 mOsm/l improving upon giving desmopressin has most likely:
3. SIADH
4. DIDMOAD syndrome
Ans. 1. Diabetes insipidus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old man from New York reports with lethargy and confusion followed by hypotension, bradycardia, AV block and
cardiac arrest. After giving IV fluids, next line of treatment would be:
1. Hemodialysis
2. Calcium chloride
3. Digoxin
4. Hemoperfusion
Ans. 2. Calcium chloride
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old female comes to you with bruising, epistaxis, mennorrhagia. Further examination reveals fever,
thrombocytopenia, anemia, hematuria and intravascular hemolysis and confusion. Most likely she is having:
1. ITP
2. TTP
3. Hemophilia
Ans. 2. TTP
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old American male presents with sudden onset lightning-like pain pattern on his face with about 30 episodes in a
day. There are no other associated medical problems. The male is nonhypertensive, nondiabetic and afebrile. The complaint
described is most likely associated with which of the following disorders:
1. Pick’s disease
3. Huntington’s chorea
Ans. 4. Multiple sclerosis
The condition is bilateral trigeminal neuralgia and multiple sclerosis is associated with it
USMLE Case Scenario

A 75-year-old patient presents with mask-like facies, expression less face, bradykinesia, festinant gait. The disease involves
substantia nigra. He is diagnosed with parkinsonism. The aid disease is due to:
1. Overactivity of cholinergic neurons and overactivity of dopaminergic neurons
2. Underactivity of cholinergic neurons and underactivity of dopaminergic neurons
3. Underactivity of cholinergic neurons and overactivity of dopaminergic neurons
4. Overactivity of cholinergic neurons and underactivity of dopaminergic neurons
Ans. 4. Overactivity of cholinergic neurons and underactivity of dopaminergic neurons
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old male presents with history of frequent falls and nausea. There is no history of alcohol intake. He has difficulty in
remaining erect and tends to fall to his right side. He is hypertensive; diabetic. He is currently taking lisinopril and aspirin. On
ophthalmological examination, nystagmus is present. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Parkinsonism
3. Tabes dorsalis
4. Hydrocephalus
5. Cerebral disease
6. Pontine lesion
Medicine 169
7. Pseudotumor cerebri
8. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
9. Cerebellar disease
10. Midbrain infarct
Ans. 9. Cerebellar disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 74-year-old man comes to a hematology clinic for a routine check-up. On the peripheral smear, anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
nucleated red blood cells, giant platelets, and tear drop-shaped red blood cells are seen. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pernicious anemia
3. Alpha thalassemia
4. Beta thalassemia
5. ALL
6. AML
7. Myelophthisic anemia
8. Lymphoma
9. Sezary syndrome
Ans. 7. Myelophthisic anemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old female from Toledo has developed a small nodule at a site of previous injury with granulation tissue formation.
The lesion is neither nonbacterial nor a true granuloma. Microscopically, proliferating blood vessels in an immature fibrous
stroma are seen. Most likely the lesion is a:
1. Wart
2. Keloid
3. Keratocanthoma
4. Basal cell cancer
5. Squamous cell cancer of skin
6. Pyogenic granuloma
Ans. 6. Pyogenic granuloma
USMLE Case Scenario

After a snake bite, a 55-year-old victim was immediately transported to the nearest medical facility. Earlier he had developed
diplopia, dysphagia and ptosis after snake bite. Most likely cause is:
1. Myotoxic envenomation by a coral snake
2. Cytolitic envenomation by a pit viper snake
3. Cytolitic envenomation by a rattle snake
4. Neurotoxic envenomation by a coral snake
Ans. 4. Neurotoxic envenomation by a coral snake
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old patient reports to dermatology clinic after an HSV infection manifests with lesions on the palms and soles with
mucosal blisters and a widespread vesicular/bullous skin eruption. Lesions consist of a dusky red center with a central vesicle
surrounded by an erythematous halo. Most likely he is having:
1. Erythema multiforme
2. Erythema nodosum
3. Erythema migrans
4. Erythema ab igne
Ans. 1. Erythema multiforme
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old presents with bilateral knee pain for 6 months. Knee joints are tender with narrow joint space, subchondral
bone cysts. Best management is by:
1. Oral NSAIDs
2. Oral acetaminophen
3. Steroids
4. Weight loss
Ans. 4. Weight loss
Obesity being the major risk factor, weight loss is the best management
USMLE Case Scenario

Occlusive arterial occlusion, superficial thrombophlebitis and Raynaud’s phenomenon are a feature of:
1. Buerger’s disease
2. Beurger’s disease
3. Kawasaki disease
4. Takayasu’s disease
Ans. 2. Buerger’s disease
Buerger’s disease is IgA Nephropathy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old presents with pain, redness and swelling of external ear. He has joint pains and episcleritis. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Polychondritis
2. Polyarteritis
4. Otitis externa
Ans. 1. Polychondritis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old presents with a painful ulcer in mouth. She presented to ophthomologist and gynecologist two days back for
uveitis and ulcer on genital respectively. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Herpes simplex infection
2. Reiter’s disease
3. Behçet’s disease
4. Sjögren’s disease
Ans. 3. Behçet’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

Clear vesicles with red base developing into macules on palms and soles in a patient with Reiter’s syndrome are:
1. Pompholyx
2. Keratoderma
3. Circinate balanitis
4. Herpes Zoster
Ans. 2. Keratoderma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old female presents with swelling of her right wrist. Her MCP and PIP joints are tender and swollen. She has an
oral ulcer with low platelets. Her APTT is prolonged with positive rheumatoid factor and negative anti-Sm antibodies. Lupus
anticoagulant is positive. She is most likely having:
Medicine 171
2. SLE
3. Polymyositis
4. Mixed connective tissue disease
Ans. 2. SLE
Rheumatoid factor is not specific for Rheumatoid arthritis. Combination of oral ulcer, thrombocytopenia, prolonged APTT
suggests SLE. Anti-Sm antibodies are not sensitive for SLE.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 60-year-old woman develops multiple organ failure 3 weeks following a pneumonia complicated by septicemia. Antibiotic
therapy has resulted in sputum and blood cultures that are now without growth of organisms. Nevertheless, she requires
intubation with mechanical ventilation, but it becomes progressively more difficult to maintain her oxygen saturations.
Ventilatory pressures must be increased. A portable chest radiograph shows increasing opacification of all lung fields. Which
of the following pathologic processes is most likely now to be present in her lungs?
1. Diffuse alveolar damage
2. Extensive neutrophilic alveolar exudates
3. Extensive intra-alveolar hemorrhage
4. Widespread bronchiectasis
Ans. 1. Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD) is the pathologic term for adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) that is the final
common pathway for many acute lung injuries. DAD produces increasing interstitial thickening with mixed inflammation and
features of an acute restrictive lung disease.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old female with low backache for last 7 months presents to orthopedic clinic in Washington DC which improves with
physical activity. There is reduced forward flexion of lumbar spine. There is no history of pain in joints, rash, fever, weight loss,
decreased appetite. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Osteoarthritis
2. Ankylosing spondylitis
Ans. 2. Ankylosing spondylitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A rheumatoid arthritis patient presents to OPD clinic with improvement of her symptoms. Blood investigations reveal.
Hb=9.8
Serum Na=141
Serum K=3.7
Calcium=9.9
BUN=15
MCV=14
Most likely medication the patient is taking is:
1. Corticosteroid
2. Chloroquine
3. Cyclosporine
4. Methotrexate
Ans. 4. Methotrexate
Megaloblastic anemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient presents to Doctor in a New York’s leading orthopedic clinic with pain in her both ankles and lesions on the skin
suggesting erythema nodosum and chest radiography revealing bilateral hilar prominence most probably due to hilar
lymphadenopathy. Most likely correct diagnosis a specialist makes is:
1. Sarcoidosis
2. Lofgren’s syndrome
3. Heerd Ford Waldenstroms syndrome
4. Tuberculosis
Ans. 2. Lofgren’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old woman from New Jersey presents to her physician with complaints of severe heartburn with or without meals.
She has a history of hypertension, multiple facial telangiectasias, and very taut skin on the dorsum of both hands. She has
failed to obtain relief for her heartburn with large doses of antacids, ranitidine, or omeprazole. Esophageal manometry is
ordered. Which of the following would be the most likely results of this test?
1. Decreased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
2. Decreased esophageal peristalsis and increased LES pressure
3. Increased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
4. Increased esophageal peristalsis and increased LES pressure
5. Normal esophageal peristalsis and normal LES pressure
Ans. 1. Decreased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure. Patient has GERD secondary to scleroderma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old patient presents orthopedic clinic with pain and stiffness in shoulder girdle. However, on examination, no
tender spots can be found. However, occasional headaches and fever are noted by the patient who has all investigations
within normal except for raised ESR. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Fibromyalgia
2. Chronic fatigue syndrome
Ans. 3. Polymyalgia rheumatica
USMLE Case Scenario

A 72-year-old male presents with headaches and myalgias. On examination, there is tenderness in scalp on right side with
visual field defect in the right eye. He is a smoker for the last 35 years. His investigations reveal:
Hb = 12
Serum Na = 141
Serum K = 3.7
Calcium = 9.9
BUN = 15
ESR = 65
He is most probably having:
1. Reiter’s arthritis
2. Giant cell arteritis
3. Reactive arthritis
Ans. 2. Giant cell arteritis
USMLE Case Scenario

Abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss and joint pains suggesting bacterial infection represents:
1. Celiac disease
2. Whipple’s disease
3. Inflammatory disease
Ans. 2. Whipple’s disease
Medicine 173
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old female from Kansas complains of pain. She describes the pain as sudden onset, severe, electric shock-like pain
occurring in paroxysms multiple times a day at infrequent intervals not responding to conventional NSAIDs without any rash.
The doctor traces the path of pain along the branches of Cranial Nerve V. Most likely the pain represents:
1. Carotidodynia
3. Migraine
4. Herpes zoster
5. Neuralgia
Ans. 5. Neuralgia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old patient presents orthopedic clinic with widespread pain. He complains of poor sleep, fatigue and depression.
Multiple trigger points of tenderness are found. The patient most likely represents:
1. Fibromyalgia
2. Chronic fatigue syndrome
Ans. 1. Fibromyalgia
USMLE Case Scenario

Subchondral sclerosis, narrow joint space, osteophytes are a radiological feature of:
1. Hemochromatosis
3. Gouty arthritis
4. Osteoarthritis
5. Spondylitis
Ans. 4. Osteoarthritis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old man from Chicago comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of fever, chills, cough, pleuritic
chest pain. His friends were caught by police for drug-trafficking. His temperature is 103.2 °F, blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg,
pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination shows oval, retinal hemorrhages with a clear, pale center
and marks over his arm. Blood cultures are drawn. A chest X-ray film shows multiple patchy infiltrates. Laboratory studies
show high ESR. Most likely the causative organism is:
1. E. coli
2. Candida albicans
3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. HACEK
5. Serratia marcescens
6. Staphylococcus
7. Streptococcus
Ans. 6. Staphylococcus
This patient has acute bacterial endocarditis, most likely due to Staphylococcus aureus, the most common organism causing
endocarditis in intravenous drug abusers. The marks on his arm are signs of injection drug abuse. Acute endocarditis in drug
abusers typically presents with a high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and cough.
USMLE Case Scenario

A dusky malar rash and periorbital edema and scaly patches over MCP joints in a 40-year-old female with symmetrical
weakness of her proximal muscles is most likely:
1. Malar rash of SLE
2. Rash of psoriasis
3. Rash of scabies
4. Heliotrope rash of dermatomyositis
Ans. 4. Helitrope rash of dermatomyositis
USMLE Case Scenario

Fibromyalgia is usually treated by:
1. Colchicine and NSAIDs
2. Oxycodone
3. Counseling
4. Amitryptiline and cyclobenzapyrine
Ans. 4. Amitryptiline and cyclobenzapyrine
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old female from Ohio is suspected to have porphyria. Porphyria is evaluated by measuring:
1. Copper protoporphyrin levels in blood
2. Selenium protoporphyrin levels in blood
3. Cadmium protoporphyrin levels in blood
4. Zinc protoporphyrin levels in blood
5. Iron protoporphyrin levels in blood
Ans. 4. Zinc protoporphyrin levels in blood
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old nonhypertensive has had severe headache. Headache of sudden onset (‘thunderclap’ headache), rapid
deterioration of mental status and blood in the CSF are diagnostic of:
1. Migraine
2. Tension headache
3. Cluster headache
4. Trigeminal neuralgia
5. Ruptured berry aneurysms
Ans. 5. Ruptured berry aneurysms
USMLE Case Scenario

An 86-year-old lady who usually stays indoors with restricted mobility presents with frequent episodes of back pains. Lateral
spine X-rays and pelvic X-rays show osteopenia. A serum-corrected calcium is 1.9 mmol/l and phosphate is 0.7 mmol/l. Alkaline
phosphatase is 369 U/l. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
1. Infantile rickets
2. Myeloma
3. Metastasis
4. Osteoporosis
5. Osteomalacia
6. Paget’s disease
Ans. 5. Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is likely due to the low calcium, low phosphate and raised ALP.
Medicine 175
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-year-old man from Texas has had type 1 diabetes for 5 years. He now presents with leg edema. After reporting to a
physician, on investigation, he was found to have an urinary protein of 5.5 g/24 hours and serum cholesterol was 8.2 mmol/l.
The histology will show fusion and deformity of the foot processes under the electron microscope. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. RPGN
2. MPGN
3. Diabetic nephropathy
4. IgA nephropathy
5. Minimal change disease
6. Alport’s syndrome
7. SLE
8. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Ans. 5. Minimal change disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 79-year-old lady complains of a headache for 2 days in the left side of the head. The pain is worse when she is chewing or
talking. Her ESR is 95 mm/hr. The vision in the right eye is 6/18 and her left eye is 6/6. What is the best course of action?
1. Start aspirin immediately
2. Start IV methylprednisolone
3. Do nothing till temporal artery biopsy
4. CT of the head to exclude space-occupying lesion
5. MRI of the brain
6. PET scan immediately
7. Refer to an ophthalmologist
Ans. 2. Start IV methylprednisolone
There are early signs of visual loss. So high-dose steroids should be commenced with the suspicion of temporal arteritis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 68-year-old man with severe aortic stenosis presented with melena. Upper GI endoscopy was normal. What may be the
cause of bleeding?
1. Hemorrhoids
2. Cecal carcinoma
3. Angiodysplasia
4. Duodenal ulcer
5. Ulcerative colitis
Ans. 3. Angiodysplasia
Angiodysplasia is the most common vascular abnormality of the GI tract. After diverticulosis, it is the second leading cause
of lower GI bleeding in patients older than 60 years. Angiodysplasia has been reported to be associated with aortic stenosis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 65-year-old has colonic cancer. Pathologist states that no single genetic defect has been identified that is common to all
cancers. The process of carcinogenesis is believed to be due to a sequence of genetic alterations, which ultimately result in
both the activation of oncogenes and the inactivation of tumor suppressor genes. The loss of tumor suppressor gene function
serves to promote carcinogenesis. The K-ras oncogene, the DCC (deleted in colon cancer) and the p53 tumor suppressor gene
are implicated. The true for these genes is:
1. The K-ras oncogene is located on chromosome 12, the DCC (deleted in colon cancer) located on chromosome 18 and the
p53 tumor suppressor gene located on chromosome 17p
Ans. 1. The K-ras oncogene is located on chromosome 12, the DCC (deleted in colon cancer) located on chromosome 18 and the
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient has nuchal lymphedema at birth, short stature, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, and primary ovarian failure. A
buccal smear done would classically reveal:
1. Absent Barr bodies
2. One Barr body
3. Two Barr bodies
4. Three Barr bodies
Ans. 1. Absent Barr bodies
USMLE Case Scenario

Classic electrolyte and vitamin/mineral abnormalities in alcoholics are:
1. High magnesium, high potassium, low sodium, deficiencies of folate and thiamine
2. High magnesium, low potassium, high sodium, deficiencies of folate and thiamine
3. High magnesium, high potassium, low sodium, deficiencies of folate and thiamine
4. Low magnesium, low potassium, low sodium, deficiencies of folate and thiamine
Ans. 4. Low magnesium, low potassium, low sodium, deficiencies of folate and thiamine
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old patient presents with a sore throat fever, malaise, pharyngitis, rash, lymphadenopathy. As a doctor, you should
be concerned about a sexually transmitted disease. The disease which you should be concerned most about is:
1. Syphilis
2. LGV
3. Chancroid
4. HIV
Ans. 4. HIV
Human immunodeficiency virus infection, because initial seroconversion may present as a mononucleosis-like syndrome (e.g.
fever, malaise, pharyngitis, rash, lymphadenopathy).
USMLE Case Scenario

Samter’s triad is a triad consisting of:
1. Rectal polyp, angioedema, aspirin intolerance
2. Colonic polyp, urticaria, aspirin intolerance
3. Nasal polyp, asthma, aspirin intolerance
4. Hamatomatous polyp, urticaria, aspirin intolerance
Ans. 3. Nasal polyp, asthma, aspirin intolerance
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old man presents with episodes of light headedness. He has no significant past medical history. Cardiac examination
reveals no heart murmurs, chest X-ray and ECG are normal. A 24-hour tape is requested. Which arrhythmia might cause these
symptoms?
1. Atrial extrasystole
2. Supraventricular tachycardia
3. Wenkebach
Medicine 177
4. Ventricular extrasystole
5. First-degree heart block
Ans. 2. Supraventricular tachycardia
Out of the following options, the most likely rhythm which may cause symptoms are supraventricular tachycardia. The other
rhythms may cause palpitations but would be unusual to cause light-headedness/presyncope.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old tennis player presents with shoulder pains especially whilst serving the ball. He has limited passive and active
shoulder abduction to less than 55°. His temperature is 36.5 °C and he has a normal white cell count. There is tenderness
around the anterior portion of the shoulder joint. Which of the following diagnoses is likely?
1. Glenohumeral joint osteoarthritis
2. Bursitis
3. Tennis elbow
4. Supraspinatus tendonitis
5. Septic arthritis
Ans. 4. Supraspinatus Tendonitis
Supraspinatus tendonitis. Pain during abduction with limitation of movement is suggestive of supraspinatus tendonitis.
Palpation or compression around the greater tubercle of the humerus is particularly tender.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old man presented with painless hematuria. Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass over the right
flank. Subsequently, right nephrectomy was done and mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear cytoplasm. Areas of
hemorrhage and necrosis were frequent. Cytogenic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal an abnormality of:
1. Chromosome 1
2. Chromosome 3
3. Chromosome 11
4. Chromosome 17
Ans. 2. Chromosome 3
USMLE Case Scenario

A 75-year-old lady has sudden movements of her arm where she throws her arm outwards, and uncontrollably injures herself.
Which one of the following areas could have sustained an infarct?
1. Globus pallidus
2. Pontine nucleus
3. Corpus callosum
4. Subthalamic nucleus
5. Thalamus
Ans. 4. Subthalamic nucleus
Hemiballismus is caused by a subthalamic nucleus lesion, which is commonly due to an infarct.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old man is referred to the dermatologist for further assessment having noticed a growth of papules from the
nailfolds. A doctor confirms that they are subungual fibromas. There is also a history of seizures and renal impairment. The
1. NF 1
2. NF 2
4. Sturge-Weber disease
5. Weber-Christian disease

8. Motor neuron disease
Ans. 3. Tuberous sclerosis
The diagnosis is tuberous sclerosis. This is an inherited (autosomal dominant) hamartomatous condition in which there are
facial angiomas (adenoma sebaceum), subungual fibromas, angiomyolipomas, cardiac rhabdomyomas, pulmonary lymphatic
involvement, skin changes such as shagreen patches and ash leaf macules.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 32-year-old lady has difficulty with her vision. On examination, she has impaired adduction of the left eye looking right. The
right eye has jerky nystagmus. Which investigation is most likely to yield a diagnosis?
1. Nerve conduction studies
2. X-ray of the head
3. CSF and serum for oligoclonal bands
4. Serum copper
5. Serum ceruloplasmin
6. Visual evoked potentials
Ans. 3. CSF and serum for oligoclonal bands
The clinical scenario is internuclear ophthalmoplegia. This is most commonly seen in multiple sclerosis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old veterinary surgeon presents with a 2-week history of high fevers, night sweats. He also had dry cough, and
myalgia. On examination, the patient had a palpable splenic tip. Blood films for malaria parasites were negative. Liver function
tests showed a raised serum alkaline phosphatase, raised serum aspartate aminotransferase concentration, ↑serum bilirubin
concentration Likely cause is:
1. Salmonella
2. Chlamydia
3. Bartonella
4. Francisella
5. Mycoplasma
6. Brucella
7. Legionella
Ans. 6. Brucella
The occupation suggests Brucella. It is transmitted through milk and meat, especially in abattoirs. The commonest cause
is Brucella melitensis. Detection of brucella may require extended culture of 6 weeks and blood agar plates. Detection of
Brucella agglutinins (with the Coombs’ test) also helps confirm the diagnosis
Fever and rigors, followed by possible osteomyelitis, polyarthritis, endocarditis, pneumonia, hepatitis/jaundice, splenic
abscess, meningitis/encephalitis, skin changes, orchitis/cervicitis and retinitis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 38-year-old lady from Mexico presents with myalgia and lethargy. Her blood tests show a positive ANA and rheumatoid
factor is negative. The CK is raised at 360 U/l. Extranuclear antigen tests show a negative Ro and negative La, negative Scl 70
and positive ribonuclear protein antibody. Most likely diagnosis is:
3. Polymyositis
4. Scleroderma
5. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Ans. 6. Mixed connective tissue disease
Positive ANA (speckled pattern), raised CK and positive anti-RNP antibody suggests mixed connective tissue disease
Medicine 179
USMLE Case Scenario

A 69-year-old man from Ohio presents with muscle weakness and difficulty swallowing. On neurological examination, he has
proximal and distal upper and lower limb weakness. Antibody profile is normal. There is wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the
fingers and thigh muscles. CK is elevated and EMG findings are consistent with a myopathic process. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Localized sclerosis
3. Lambert-Eaton crisis
4. Polymyositis
5. Dermatomyositis
6. Inclusion body myositis
7. Motor neuron disease
8. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Ans. 6. Inclusion body myositis
Muscle biopsy shows intracellular inclusions (amyloid precursor protein, ubiquitins) and inflammatory infiltrates, connective
tissue disease.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-week-old girl is brought by her parents to the emergency room. She looks severly ill. She is pale and dyspneic with a
respiratory rate of 80 breaths per min. Heart rate is 210 bpm, heart sounds are distant, a gallop is heard, and she has
cardiomegaly on X-ray. An echo demonstrates poor ventricular function, dilated ventricles, and dilation of the left atrium.
An electrocardiogram shows ventricular depolarization complexes that have low voltage. Most likely she is suffering from:
1. Pericarditis
2. Myocarditis
3. Libman-Sacks endocarditis
4. Cardiac tamponade
5. Tuberculous pericardial effusion
Ans. 2. Myocarditis
The findings of pallor, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, and cardiomegaly are common in congestive heart failure regardless
of the cause. The most common causes of myocarditis include adenovirus and coxsackievirus B, although many other viruses
can cause this condition.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old immunosuppressed HIV-positive man presents with episodes of breathlessness. He has a temperature of 38 °C.
The blood gases show a pH of 7.30, pO2 of 8kPa and pCO2 of 3 kPa. CXR shows bilateral interstitial and alveolar consolidation.
Which of the following medications should be used?
1. Quadruple anti-TB therapy
2. Pencillin
3. Cephalosporine
4. Amphotericin
5. Pyridium
6. Cotrimoxazole
7. Foscarnet
8. Teicoplanin
Ans. 6. Cotrimoxazole
The patient has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia and is hypoxic on the blood gases. IV cotrimoxazole, clindamycin or
pentamidine can be used to treat this.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 month’s duration. Contrast-enchanced
computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic
nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Sarcoidosis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Lymphoma
4. Silicosis
Ans. 2. Tuberculosis
USMLE Case Scenario

In acute pancreatitis, a diverse spectrum of illness is seen, varying from a mild, short-lived, self-limited disease to a severe
toxic condition associated with shock, hypovolemia, multiple metabolic derangements, and ultimate death. Typical findings
on physical examination in patients with acute pancreatitis include fever, tachycardia, epigastric tenderness, and abdominal
distention. It is characterized by:
1. Turner’s sign (bluish discoloration in the flanks) and Cullen’s sign (bluish discoloration of the periumbilical region)
2. Turner’s sign (bluish discoloration in the periumbilical region) and Cullen’s sign (bluish discoloration of the flanks)
3. Turner’s sign (reddish discoloration in the flanks) and Cullen’s sign (bluish discoloration of the periumbilical region)
4. Turner’s sign (bluish discoloration in the periumbilical region) and Cullen’s sign (reddish discoloration of the flank region)
Ans. 1. Turner’s sign (bluish discoloration in the flanks) and Cullen’s sign (bluish discoloration of the periumbilical region)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man presents with malaise and is found to be anemic clinically. His blood tests reveal: Blood film shows
spherocytosis. Hereditary spherocytosis is diagnosed. Which of the following tests is most appropriate for diagnosis?
1. FISH
2. ELISA
3. Direct antiglobulin test
4. G6PD activity
5. Hb electrophoresis
6. Urinary hemosiderin
7. Methemoglobin levels
Ans. 3. Direct antiglobulin test
The blood tests with high bilirubin, reticulocyte count and high LDH suggests hemolysis. Spherocytes on blood film suggest
hereditary spherocytosis. In HS, the red cells are smaller, rounder, and more fragile than normal. The condition is commoner
among Northern Europeans. The direct antiglobulin test will help to confirm this.
USMLE Case Scenario

A pregnant 18-year-old woman came to the clinic with a low-grade fever, malaise, and headache. Few days later, she presented
with a macular rash on her trunk, arms, hands, and feet. Further examination revealed that one month previously, she had a
painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Lyme disease
2. Lymphogranuloma venereum
4. Endocarditis
5. Syphilis
Ans. 5. Syphilis
The initial lesion of primary syphilis develops at the site of transmission after an incubation period of 10–90 days, with a
mean of about 21–28 days, and then heals spontaneously in 3–7 weeks. T. pallidum is sensitive to the penicillins and is easily
treatable in the early stages.
USMLE Case Scenario

The commonest cause of traveler’s diarrhea is:
1. Giardia
2. Shigella
Medicine 181
3. Pseudomonas
4. Salmonella
5. Campylobacter
6. EHEC
7. EIEC
8. ETEC
Ans. 8. ETEC
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old woman presented with a 5-month history of weight loss (half a stone), anorexia and generalized pruritus. On
examination, she was jaundiced with numerous spider nevi, scratch marks, palmar erythema and hepatosplenomegaly.
Investigations showed:
Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dl
White-cell count 7 x 10^9/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 140 mm/h
Serum albumin 42 g/l
Serum bilirubin of 37 µmol/l
Alanine transaminase of 122 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase of 154 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase level 83 IU/l
Which one of the following findings is suggestive of autoimmune hepatitis?
1. High IgG
2. HLA DR2
3. HLA DR6
4. Antimitochondrial antibodies
5. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
Ans. 1. High IgG
Antinuclear antibodies of IgG class are frequently strongly positive (e.g. to a titer of 1/10000) in autoimmune hepatitis.
Antibodies to dsDNA and to smooth muscle are also good markers. HLA-DR3 and DR4 antigen are associated with autoimmune
hepatitis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old woman presented with unusual feelings like tingling, numbness and clumsiness of both hands for 2 weeks.
Earlier she had experienced paresthesia in the feet. On neurological examination, she had absent abdominal reflexes with
brisk tendon jerks and bilateral extensor plantar responses. Blood investigations were normal, including hemoglobin, white-
cell count and differential, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, vitamin B12 and folate levels and syphilis serology. Oligoclonal
IgG bands were found in CSF. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. SAH
2. Guillain-Barré syndrome
4. Subacute degeneration of cord
5. Hysteria
6. Empty sella syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

An 88-year-old man presents to the physician with a 3-day history of headache, fever and profound malaise. Tenderness over
the right temple is appreciated on palpation. The right temporal artery is tender and slightly nodular. Neurologic examination
is normal, including funduscopic examination. However, visual acuity is reduced. Laboratory studies show: Erythrocyte
sedimentation rate 88 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
1. Measurement of intraocular pressure
2. Give lithium
3. Give sumatriptan
4. Give ergometrine
5. Give latanoprost
6. Low-dose prednisone treatment
7. High-dose prednisone treatment
8. Temporal artery biopsy
Ans. 7. High-dose prednisone treatment
The patient needs urgent treatment with high-dose prednisone for giant cell arteritis (i.e. temporal arteritis)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old woman in New Jersey presented with a 1-day history of fever and chills. On examination, she was febrile with
a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. Over several hours, a widespread erythrodermic rash developed. The female collapses.
Further questioning revealed that the patient had removed a tampon shortly before presentation, as she had just ceased
menstruating
1. Streptococcus bovis infection
2. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
3. E. coli sepsis
4. Fungal infection
5. Toxic shock syndrome
6. Meningococcal septicemia
7. Staph epidermis infection
8. Pseudomonas-induced shock
Ans. 5. Toxic shock syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome is due to toxin-1 (TSST-1), a protein secreted by S. aureus or streptococci, was the first of many toxins
associated with the syndrome to be identified.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old man was brought by ambulance into hospital. He was found by his friends on a rooftop with unusual position of
his legs and was reported to have stood there without moving in a stuporose state for three hours. This implies:
1. Cerebral palsy
2. Lissencephaly
3. Porencephaly
4. Paralysis
5. Narcolepsy
6. Cataplexy
7. Catalepsy
8. Mannerisms
Ans. 7. Catalepsy
Catalepsy is a type of catatonia. It a disorder of muscle tone in which uncomfortable positions can be maintained for a long
time. It is a feature of schizophrenia
Cataplexy is the sudden loss of motor tone associated with the sleep disorder narcolepsy.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old man presents with severe hemoptysis. An organism is isolated and it is found that it has a tendency to invade
pre-existing pulmonary cavities and form a rounded necrotic mass of matted hyphae, fibrin and inflammatory cells. This mass
usually lies free in the cavity and can change its location as the patient moves from an upright to a recumbent position. On
the chest X-ray, a crescentric radiolucency adjacent to a rounded mass within a cavitary lesion is seen. A filamentous organism
with coarse, septate, fragmented hyphae is isolated. Most likely organism is:
1. Cryptococcus neoformans
2. Candida albicans
3. Blastomyces dermatitidis
4. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Medicine 183
5. Coccidioidomycosis
6. Aspergillus fumigatus
Ans. 6. Aspergillus fumigatus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old man working as a manual laborer injures his foot. He develops swelling, erythema and pain in all the digits of
his foot. The pain is severe and burning in nature. He cannot sleep due to severity of pain. He has an ESR of 22 mm/hour and a
temperature of 36 °C. Most likely cause could be:
1. Hysteria
2. Sepsis
3. Cellulitis
4. Gout
5. Raynaud’s phenomenon
6. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
7. Phantom limb
Ans. 6. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy occurs following trauma, can progress to other parts. It is due to autonomic nervous
system dysfunction. Symptoms of extreme pain and burning can occur.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 75-year-old man presents to New York City Hospital unwell with diarrhea. He has a BP of 110/70, heart rate 120 and
temperature 38 °C. A diastolic murmur is heard in aortic area. Which organism is likely to grow in the blood cultures?
1. MRSA
2. Listeria
3. Streptococcus mitis
4. Staphylococcus aureus
5. Streptococcus bovis
6. Escherichia coli
7. Brucella melitensis
Ans. 5. Streptococcus bovis usually enters the bloodstream via the gastrointestinal tract. There is also an association with
malignancy of the GI tract.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 28-year-old man has come from suburban Mexico 6 years ago. Since a year ago, he has had three tonic clonic seizures a
week. On examination, he appears well, with no focal neurological deficit. A CT scan shows multiple calcified cystic lesions in
the brain. Which diagnosis is there likely?
1. PML
2. Cerebral malaria
3. SAH
4. Encephalitis
5. MID (Multi-infarct dementia)
6. Neurocysticercosis
8. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
9. Tuberculosis
Ans. 6. Neurocysticercosis is caused by Tenia solium (pork tapeworm)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old woman has Z deformity of her hands. She was asked to see a pulmonologist because of breathlessness. She
has a known history of rheumatoid arthritis and is on leuflunomide. She has a CXR and lung function tests. Which one of the
following can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
1. Small cell carcinoma
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Asthma
4. Fibrotic lung
5. Pulmonary eosinophilia
6. Pulmonary embolus
Ans. 4. Fibrotic lung
•• In rheumatoid arthritis:
•• Exudative pleural effusions
•• Fibrotic lung disease
•• Caplan’s syndrome (pneumoconiosis, pulmonary nodules)
•• Obstructive lung disease in the form of bronchiolitis obliterans (obstruction of bronchiolar lumen with inflammatory exudate) may
occur
USMLE Case Scenario

A 53-year-old man working in India for the last two years presents with a 4-month history of cough and breathlessness.
Mantoux test done is negative. He was apyrexial on admission to the hospital. His blood tests shows: ESR 68 mm/hr. Chest
X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and egg shell calcification. What is the likely diagnosis?
1. Churg-Strauss syndrome
2. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
3. Tuberculosis
4. Sarcoidosis
5. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
6. Farmer’s lung
7. Cat-scratch disease
Ans. 4. Sarcoidosis
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy in sarcoidosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old woman seen by a rheumatologist in Washington is suspected of having polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the
following features supports the diagnosis?
1. Low ESR
2. Stiffness around the shoulders
3. Muscle weakness
4. Iritis
5. Mania
6. Weight gain
7. Glaucoma
Ans. 2. Stiffness around the shoulders
Polymyalgia Rheumatica (PMR) typically produces pain and stiffness, especially around the shoulders. There is associated
polyarthritis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old man from New Orleans developed flu-like symptoms, severe diarrhea and abdominal pain 4 days after attending
a dinner party at which he had eaten a chicken. Stool cultures taken from all four individuals grew Campylobacter jejuni.
Over the next week, the sensory changes worsened and spread to involve his arms and legs. He was admitted to hospital
and found to have severe symmetrical distal limb weakness and ‘glove and stocking’ sensory loss to the elbows and knees.
Nerve conduction studies showed evidence of a mixed motor and sensory neuropathy. High titers of IgM and IgG antibodies
to Campylobacter jejuni were found in his peripheral blood. A diagnosis was made of the Guillain-Barré syndrome. His CSF
would show:
1. A very low total protein level but without any increase in the number of cells in the CSF
2. A normal protein level with an increase in the number of cells in the CSF
Medicine 185
3. A very high total protein level but without any increase in the number of cells in the CSF
4. A very high total protein level along with an increase in the number of cells in the CSF
Ans. 3. A very high total protein level but without any increase in the number of cells in the CSF
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old lady from Texas is investigated for recurrent episodes of gouty arthritis. On examination, she looked plethoric
and has a 6 cm splenomegaly. She has the following results:
Hb 19.9 gm/dl
Hct 0.632
Platelet count 468 x 109/l
ESR 2 mm/1st hour
Coagulation screen normal
AST normal
ALT normal
BUN: Normal
Creatinine: Normal
What is the diagnosis?
1. B-cell lymphoma
2. Aplastic anemia
3. Multiple myeloma
4. Polycythemia
5. Acute myeloid leukemia
Ans. 4. Polycythemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 6-year-old boy has been complaining of headache, ignoring to see the objects on the sides for four months. On examination,
he is not mentally retarded, his grades at school are good, and visual acuity is diminished in both the eyes. Visual charting
showed significant field defect. CT scan of the head showed suprasellar mass with calcification. Which of the following is the
most probable diagnosis?
1. Astrocytoma
2. Craniopharyngioma
3. Pituitary adenoma
4. Meningioma
Ans. 2. Craniopharyngioma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 27-year-old woman presented with a 6-month history of extreme fatigue, lethargy and difficulty in concentration following
a flu-like illness. She was unable to work as a manager. Clinical examination was unremarkable with the exception of reduced
muscle strength; the rest of the neurological examination was normal. She was assessed by several physicians with no
explanation being found for her extreme lethargy. Likely diagnosis is:
1. Polymyalgia
3. Myopathy
4. Neuropathy
5. Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
Ans. 5. Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man from New Zealand working as a nurse has been having dysuria previously. Now he has renal colic. Ultrasound
of the abdomen confirms renal calculi. Urinalysis showed typical hexagonal or benzene crystals. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Calcium stones
2. Oxaluria
3. Calcium carbonate stones
4. Adult polycystic kidney disease
5. Cystinuria
6. Uric acid stones
7. Pigment stones
8. Cholesterol stones
Ans. 5. Cystinuria is a disorder of proximal tubular cells
Urinalysis may show typical hexagonal which are pathognomonic of cystinuria
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man working as an automobile engineer in Texas presents with pain in his left foot. Examination reveals a
swollen ankle. Neurological examination reveals absent ankle jerk and weak foot flexion/extension on the left. His ESR is
32 mm/hr, CRP is < 5 mg/l. Joint X-ray reveals subchondral fractures, soft tissue swelling and a narrowed joint space. The likely
diagnosis is:
2. Caplan’s syndrome
3. Reiter’s arthritis
4. Neuropathic joint
5. Osteoarthritis
6. Gouty arthritis
7. Juvenile chronic arthritis
Ans. 4. Charcot joint or neuropathic joint disease can be caused by:
•• Diabetic neuropathy
•• Syphilis
•• Syringomyelia or
•• Leprosy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 63-year-old man complains of trouble swallowing and hoarseness. On physical exam, he is noted to have ptosis and a
constricted pupil on the left, and a diminished gag reflex. Neurological examination shows decreased pain and temperature
sensation on the left side of his face and on the right side of his body. Which of the following vessels is most likely occluded?
1. Internal carotid
2. External carotid
3. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
4. Anterior spinal artery
5. Middle cerebral artery
6. Posterior cerebral artery
7. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
8. Subclavian
9. Axillary
Ans. 7. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old man has genital ulceration and uveitis. His GP suspects Behçet’s syndrome and is referred to the rheumatologist.
Which one of the following is a feature of Behçet’s syndrome?
1. Facial asymmetry
2. Receding hair line
Medicine 187
3. Hirsutism
4. Malignant melanoma
5. Arterial thrombosis
Ans. 5. Arterial thrombosis
Behçet’s syndrome is inflammatory disorder (associated with certain HLA B and DR types) causing:
•• Mouth ulceration
•• Arthritis
•• Eyes (anterior uveitis, retinal vein occlusion)
•• Vasculitis (thrombophlebitis) and thrombosis
•• CNS vasculitis involvement may lead to TIA, meningoencephalitis, Parkinson’s and dementia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion. On examination, she has wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection-
systolic murmur (III/VI) in left second intercostal space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
2. Tricuspid atresia
3. Ostium primum atrial septal defect
4. Tetralogy of Fallot
Ans. 3. Ostium primum atrial septal defect
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old man is referred for investigation of abnormal liver function tests. His ophthalmological check-up reveals some
abnormality which he does not remember. He has a previous history of diabetes diagnosed 5 years ago. His albumin is 35 g/l,
bilirubin elevated at 15 μmol/l, ALP is 390 U/l and ALT is 350 U/l. He has a serum copper of 30 μmol/l (12–26) and cerulloplasmin
of 90 μmol/l (200–350). What is the diagnosis?
1. Cholangiocarcinoma
2. Autoimmune hepatitis
3. Primary biliary cirrhosis
4. Hemochromatosis
6. Menke’s disease
Ans. 5. Wilson’s disease
Wilson’s disease is described. The abnormal gene is the ATP7B gene on chromosome 13. It is autosomal recessive. Kayser-
Fleischer rings are often seen on slit lamp, but not always. Ceruloplasmin levels are low in 95% of patients, but can be normal
in acute liver failure when there is a hypoproteinemic state. The best test is hepatic copper concentration (> 250 μg/g of dry
weight).
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old secretary has jaundice and lethargy. Her blood tests show Bilirubin 110 µmol/l (1–22), AST of 240 U/l (1–30) and
ALP of 650 U/l (5–35 U/l). AMA is positive. If she has primary biliary cirrhosis, what is the liver biopsy likely to show?
1. Granulomatous changes of hepatocytes
2. Fatty changes of the liver parenchyma
3. Piecemeal necrosis and fibrosis around portal veins
4. Collagen layering around bile ducts
5. White cell infiltrates causing biliary duct destruction
Ans. 5. White cell infiltrates causing biliary duct destruction
Inflammatory changes with biliary destruction are suggestive of primary biliary cirrhosis. Granulomatous changes would
suggest sarcoidosis or Wegener’s granulomatosis. Piecemeal necrosis and fibrosis suggest chronic hepatitis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old man is referred for investigation of abnormal liver function tests. His ophthalmological check-up reveals some
abnormality which he does not remember. He has a previous history of diabetes diagnosed 5 years ago. His albumin is 35 g/l,
bilirubin elevated at 15 μmol/l, ALP is 390 U/l and ALT is 350 U/l. He has a serum copper of 30 μmol/l (12–26) and cerulloplasmin
of 90 μmol/l (200–350). Abnormality is in:
1. Iron metabolism
2. Calcium metabolism
3. Sodium metabolism
4. Potassium metabolism
5. Zinc metabolism
6. Copper metabolism
7. Phosphorus metabolism
Ans. 6. Copper metabolism
Wilson’s disease is described. The abnormal gene is the ATP7B gene on chromosome 13. It is autosomal recessive. Kayser-
Fleischer rings are often seen on slit lamp, but not always. Ceruloplasmin levels are low in 95% of patients, but can be normal
in acute liver failure when there is a hypoproteinemic state.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old man presented 14 days after return from a 6-week field trip to New Guinea. He had a six-day history of high
fevers and rigors which upset him terribly On the day of presentation, he had become lethargic, vague and slightly confused.
He had taken antimalarials as prophylaxis. He does not remember any incidence of bite by mosquito or flea
His temperature was 40 °C
Pulse rate 140 bpm
Respiratory rate 28 per minute and
Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg
He had dry mucous membranes, mild jaundice, pallor and splenomegaly and generalized crackles in both lungs
Full blood examination revealed:
6.5 g/dl
WCC 2.5 x 10^9/l
Platelet 10 x 10^9/l
Bilirubin 60 μmol/l (3–20 μmol/l)
Lactate dehydrogenase 489 U/l (100–225 U/l) creatinine 250 umol/l
What is the likely diagnosis?

1. Leishmaniasis
2. Tick bite fever
3. Endocarditis
4. Falciparum malaria
5. Viral hemorrhagic fever
Ans. 4. Falciparum malaria
This patient has severe malaria suggested by altered consciousness, focal neurological signs, jaundice, oliguria, severe anemia,
hypoglycemia, hypotension and acidosis. Severe malaria requires treatment with intravenous quinine. Not remembering
mosquito bite is a distractor and is not essential.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old man has been to Malaysia for 6 months. He has an erythematous, serpiginous, pruritic, cutaneous eruption on
the medial side of the ankle. What is the diagnosis?
1. Lyme disease
2. Cutaneous larval migrans
3. Leishmaniasis
4. Sarcoidosis
5. Tuberculosis
Medicine 189
Ans. 2. Cutaneous larva migrans

Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by the penetration through intact skin of larval animal hookworms, (e.g. Ancylostoma
braziliense). Diagnosis is predominantly clinical
Treatment is often necessary because of intense pruritus, long duration (over a year) and complications, such as impetigo and
allergic reactions. Therapy comprises ivermectin, albendazole or thiabendazole.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man presents with lethargy and pruritus. He has had no abdominal pains and he is not jaundiced on examination.
Blood tests show an increased bilirubin of 16.68 μmol/l, albumin 35 g/l, ALT 350 U/l, ALP 1200 U/l Antibody profile of ANA and
AMA is negative
Ultrasound of the liver shows normal intrahepatic bile ducts and increased echotexture of liver parenchyma. Which is the
likely diagnosis?
1. Primary biliary cirrhosis
2. Chronic active hepatitis
3. Autoimmune hepatitis
4. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
5. Cholangiocarcinoma
Ans. 4. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is usually seen in males. It is typically associated with ulcerative colitis. A positive pANCA can
occur. The best investigation to confirm this is ERCP, which will reveal multiple strictures in the biliary system. 10% of patients
with PSC will progress towards developing cholangiocarcinoma.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old man was found to have heaviness in his left hypochondrium. Clinical exam reveals an enlarged spleen. USG
scan followed by CT scan of abdomen shows gross splenomegaly. Further Investigation showed normal hemoglobin. The
hematologist reports: On the blood film, cells are mainly small mononuclear cells resembling lymphocytes, but having a spiky
or ‘hairy’ appearance, have B-cell markers on their surface and are positive for kappa but not lambda light chains. The cells
stain positively for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP positivity) Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Mantle cell lymphoma
2. Glandular fever
3. Littoral cell angioma
4. Portal hypertension
5. Acute leukemia
6. Follicular cell lymphoma
8. CML
9. Kala-Azar
Ans. 7. Hairy cell leukemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-year-old child of a family from Malta has had recurrent episodes of bone pain and mild fever. He has X-rays which show
necrosis of the hip. Examination also reveals proliferative retinopathy. Which of the following diagnoses is likely to be there?
1. Multiple myeloma
2. Paget’s disease
4. Osteopetrosis
6. Thalassemia
Ans. 5. Sickle-cell disease
Aseptic necrosis of the hip, cholecystitis, renal papillary necrosis and proliferative retinopathy are clinical features of sickle-
cell disease.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-year-old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 day’s duration. There is also a history of blurring of
vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive.
The most porbable diagnosis is:
1. Poliomyelitis
2. Botulism
3. Diphtheria
4. Porphyria
Ans. 2. Botulism
USMLE Case Scenario

A 73-year-old woman is referred for investigation of a creatinine of 255 mmol/l. She also has had episodes of hematuria. She
has a long history of low back pain treated with a combination of painkillers. An ultrasound shows two irregular-shaped
kidneys sized 8.3 and 9.1 cm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Minimal change nephropathy
2. ATN
3. Diabetic nephropathy
4. Membranous glomerulonephritis
5. IgA nephropathy
6. RPGN
7. Analgesic nephropathy
Ans. 7. Analgesic nephropathy
There is interstitial nephritis and renal papillary necrosis, eventually leading to acute renal failure or chronic renal failure.
There may be hematuria but minimal or no proteinuria.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old lady from Michigan has been repeatedly attending a physician. Eventually the physician orders investigations
which reveal:
Hb: 13 g/l
PH 7.20
Sodium 141 mmol/l
Potassium 2.7 mmol/l
Urea 6.6 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 μmol/l
Chloride 119 mmol/l (95–107)
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l
Which of the following is likely to be there?
1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
2. Type I renal tubular acidosis
3. Type II renal tubular acidosis
4. Overdose of ibuprofen
5. Lactic acidosis
Ans. 2. Type I renal tubular acidosis
There is a hypokalemic, hyperchloremic acidosis. The anion gap is normal (Na+ K– Cl– Bicarb) – normal range is 10–16. This is
most likely to represent distal (type I) renal tubular acidosis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 21-year-old man presented with acute pain in the iliac region. A year later, he developed an iritis in his left eye, low back pain
and stiffness. His peripheral joints were normal but pain could be elicited in both sacroiliac joints. On investigation, he had a
raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 102 mm/h, a mild anemia (Hb 106 g/l) but no detectable serum rheumatoid factor.
Tissue typing would reveal:
Medicine 191
1. HLA-DR4 positivity
2. HLA-B27 positivity
Ans. 2. HLA-B27 positivity
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man from Illinois while reading the morning newspaper suddenly becomes completely blind in one eye. The
report of angiography demonstrates occlusion of the central retinal artery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of
the occlusion?
1. Atheroma or embolism
2. Cranial (temporal) arteritis
3. Hypertension
4. Polycythemia vera
5. Tumor
Ans. 1. Atheroma or embolism is the most common cause of central retinal artery occlusion
USMLE Case Scenario

A 52-year-old man while driving rashly on a highway has an automobile accident. He sustains a closed head injury. On arriving
at a hospital, his CT scan of head was done. CT scan does not show any intracranial hemorrhage or contusion, but reveals a
small tumor at the cerebellopontine angle of the brain. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected by this
tumor?
1. Facial nerve and vestibular nerve
2. Glossopharyngeal nerve and vestibular nerve
3. Optic nerve and facial nerve
4. Trigeminal nerve and abducens nerve
5. Vagus nerve and vestibular nerve
Ans. 1. Facial nerve and vestibular nerve
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man presented with decreasing vision and painful swollen knees. He had a six-year history of relapsing and
remitting mouth ulcers and frequent episodes of genital ulceration. On examination, he had retinal vasculitis, few mouth
ulcers and synovitis in both knees. Investigations show a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate at 99 mm/h but a normal
blood count and negative tests for rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibodies, cytomegalovirus and HIV infection. A clinical
diagnosis suggests:
1. Reiter’s syndrome
3. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Pseudogout
5. CPPD deposition disease
6. Polymyalgia
7. Behçet’s syndrome
Ans. 7. Behçet’s syndrome
Remember in nutshell
ORO-OCCULO-GENITAL SYNDROME
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old veterinarian on a cattle farm presents with a 1 to 2-month history of malaise, chills, drenching malodorous
sweats, fatigue, and weakness. He has anorexia and has lost 15 pounds. He has intermittent fevers that range up to 103 °F
(39.4 °C) There is no accompanying skin lesion. He has no pets. He complains of visual blurring. A physical examination reveals
mild lymphadenopathy, petechiae and a cardiac murmur consistent with aortic insufficiency. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Anthrax
2. Trichinosis
3. Brucellosis
4. Leptosporiosis
5. Toxoplasmosis
6. Histoplasmosis
Ans. 3. Brucellosis
Brucellosis abortus is the most common species to cause endocarditis. The aortic valve is most commonly involved, followed
by the mitral valve, and then both valves. Most cases of brucellosis are associated with occupational exposure in persons such
as veterinarians.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old woman who works in a grocery shop presents to her physician with ‘double vision’and is unable to adduct her
right eye on attempted left lateral gaze
Convergence is intact. Both direct and consensual light reflexes are normal. Which of the following structures is most likely to
be affected?
1. Left oculomotor nerve
2. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
3. Occipital cortex
4. Pretectal area
5. Right abducens nerve
6. Right oculomotor nerve
7. Right trochlear nerve
Ans. 2. Medial longitudinal fasciculus
The medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) connects the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nuclei and is essential
for conjugate gaze. A lesion in the MLF will result in the inability to medially rotate the ipsilateral eye on attempted lateral
gaze.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old woman, who is a bit nervous, presents with a 3-year history of headaches, generalized tonic-clonic seizures
and bilateral leg weakness. Skull X-ray films reveal hyperostosis of the calvarium. Biopsy of the responsible lesion shows a
whorling pattern of the cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Medulloblastomas
2. Arachnoid cyst
3. Glioblastoma multiforme
4. Meningioma
5. Neurosarcoid
6. Metastatic breast cancer
7. Oligodendroglioma
Ans. 4. The most likely diagnosis is an intracranial meningioma
Microscopically, the meningioma cells have a tendency to encircle one another, forming whorls and psammoma bodies
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old man comes to the Medical Emergency department because of dyspnea, palpitations, and a headache. These
symptoms came on soon after he took Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. Laboratory studies show
a normochromic, normocytic anemia with the peripheral blood smear revealing Heinz bodies. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of this patient’s anemia?
1. Lead poisoning
2. Folate deficiency
3. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
4. Thalassemia
5. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
6. Hereditary spherocytosis
7. Blood loss
Medicine 193
Ans. 5. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

This patient has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, which is an X-linked disorder that leads to hemolytic crises
within hours of exposure to oxidant stress. The most common stressors are:
•• Viral and bacterial infections
•• Sulfa drugs
•• Quinines and
•• Fava beans
During an acute hemolytic crisis, hemoglobin becomes denatured and leads to the formation of Heinz bodies. The diagnosis is made
by the demonstration of Heinz bodies during an acute crisis and low levels of G6PD during normal times. The treatment includes
maintaining adequate urine output and the prevention of future episodes.
USMLE Case Scenario

High blood levels of homocysteine are known to increase severity of atherosclerosis and frequency of both arterial and
venous thrombosis. The reason is:
1. Homocysteine promotes the formation of microaggregates of clotting protiens
2. Homocysteine is linked to the formation of anticardiolipin antibodies
3. Homocysteine causes decreased levels of proteins C and S
4. This is in fact completely wrong, homocysteine is protective
Ans. 3. Homocysteine causes decreased levels of proteins C and S
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old male from Kansas comes to the medicine OPD for a follow-up examination. He has taken paracetamol for chronic
headaches and phenytoin for a seizure disorder for 3 years. Examination shows 4 cm nontender axillary lymph nodes. A lymph
node biopsy shows hyperplasia. Most likely the cause is:
1. Toxoplasmosis
3. Tuberculosis
4. CLL
5. ALL
6. Hodgkin’s disease
7. Drug reaction
Ans. 7. Drug reaction
USMLE Case Scenario

A 75-year-old woman from Illinois reports to a physician saying that she has had increasing difficulty swallowing solids
and liquids over the past one year. She has noticed that her fingers change color when exposed to cold. Examination shows
tightness of the skin over the face with tightening of oral cavity. Barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus with loss of
peristalsis. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pharyngoesophageal (Zenker’s) diverticulum
2. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
3. Polymyositis
4. Systemic sclerosis
5. Diffuse esophageal spasm
6. Esophageal cancer
7. Esophageal candidiasis
8. Globus hystericus
9. Lower esophageal web
10. Paraesophageal hernia
11. Peptic stricture of the esophagus
Ans. 4. Systemic sclerosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 77-year-old man from Missouri is brought to the medicine OPD by his wife because she is concerned about his memory loss
over the past two years. Few days back, he could not remember his daughter’s name. Although he himself denies that there is
any problem, she says he has been forgetful and becomes easily confused. There is no history of alcohol abuse
His temperature is 37 °C
Blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg
Pulse is 72/min
On mental status examination, his mood is normal
He is oriented to person and place but initially gives the wrong year, which he is able to correct
He has difficulty recalling the names of common objects he uses in day-to-day life and does not remember the name of his son,
who lives with him. The most likely cause is:
1. Generalized anxiety disorder
2. Depression
3. Normal age-associated memory decline
6. Pick’s disease
7. Multi-infarct (vascular) dementia
8. Alcohol withdrawal
9. Apathetic hyperthyroidism
10. Bipolar disorder, depressed
11. Dementia, alcohol-related
12. Dementia, Alzheimer’s type
Ans. 12. Dementia, Alzheimer’s type
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks’ gestation presents to a maternity clinic with chief complaints of four days’ history of
generalized malaise, anorexia and vomiting. She has also complains of abdominal discomfort, a poor appetite. On physical
exam, she has mild jaundice. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 101 °F, pulse of 74, and BP of 100/70. She has no
significant edema, and in fact appears very dehydrated.
Blood results are obtained:
•• WBC: 22,000
•• HCT: 41.0
•• Platelets: 45,000
•• SGOT/PT: 292/334
•• Glucose: 45
•• Creatinine: 2.0
•• Fibrinogen: 125
•• PT/PTT: 12/50 s
•• Serum ammonia level: 80 mol/l (n 11–35)
•• Urinalysis is positive for protein and ketones
The patient’s most likely diagnosis is:
1. Hepatitis A
2. Hepatitis B
3. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
4. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
5. Severe preeclampsia
6. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Ans. 3. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Medicine 195
USMLE Case Scenario

CAH (congenital adrenal hyperplasia) is a medical emergency. Which one is the fact about CAH?
1. CAH is an autosomally inherited disease of adrenal hyperfunction that causes hyponatremia and hyperkalemia because of
lack of mineralocorticoids
2. CAH is an autosomally inherited disease of adrenal failure that causes hypernatremia and hyperkalemia because of lack of
mineralocorticoids
3. CAH is an autosomally inherited disease of adrenal failure that causes hyponatremia and hyperkalemia because of lack of
mineralocorticoids
4. CAH is an autosomally inherited disease of adrenal failure that causes hyponatremia and hypokalemia because of lack of
mineralocorticoids
Ans. 3. CAH is an autosomally inherited disease of adrenal failure that causes hyponatremia and hyperkalemia because of lack
of mineralocorticoids.
USMLE Case Scenario

The second most common site in the gastrointestinal tract for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:
1. Stomach
2. Small intestine
3. Colon
4. Rectum
Ans. 2. Small intestine
The stomach is the most common site in the gastrointestinal tract for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, followed by the small
intestine and the colon.
USMLE Case Scenario

MHC class II molecules with a bound antigen are recognized by:
1. T-cell receptor on CD41 cells
2. B-cell receptor on CD81 cells
3. B-cell receptor on CD81 cells
4. T-cell receptor on CD41 cells
Ans. 1. T-cell receptor on CD41 cells
•• Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins are polymorphic cell surface molecules that are important in lymphocyte-
lymphocyte and lymphocyte-target interactions
•• All nucleated cells express MHC class I proteins. B lymphocytes, macrophages, antigen-presenting cells, vascular endothelium, and
activated T lymphocytes express both MHC class I and class II. MHC class I proteins are encoded by the HLA-A, B, and C loci, and
MHC class II proteins are encoded by the HLA-D locus. Classically, MHC class I molecules with a bound antigen are recognized by
the T-cell receptor on CD81 cells, and MHC class II molecules with a bound antigen are recognized by the T-cell receptor on CD41
cells.
USMLE Case Scenario

Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is:
1. Donor-type lymphoid cells transplanted may recognize the host’s tissue as nonforeign and mount an immune response against
the host
2. Donor-type lymphoid cells transplanted may recognize the host’s tissue as foreign and mount an immune response against the
host
3. Host-type lymphoid cells transplanted may recognize the tissue as nonforeign and mount an immune response against the
donor
4. Host-type lymphoid cells transplanted may recognize the donor’s tissue as foreign and mount an immune response against the
donor
Ans. 2. Donor-type lymphoid cells transplanted may recognize the host’s tissue as foreign and mount an immune response
against the host.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 19-year-old young boy presents with low back pain for the past 7months accompanied by stiffness of the lumbar spine. He
denies any gastrointestinal or genital infections. Examination reveals moderate limitation of back motion and tenderness of
the lower spine. X-ray films of the vertebral column and pelvic region show flattening of the lumbar curve and subchondral
bone erosion involving the sacroiliac joints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
2. Gout
5. Degenerative joint disease
7. Seronegative rheumatoid arthritis
8. Still disease
Ans. 4. Ankylosing spondylitis. It should be suspected in any young person complaining of chronic lower back pain and
confirmed by radiographs or CT scans of sacroiliac joints.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis is ordered some investigations. A screening battery of tests is ordered, revealing
a decreased total thyroxine (T4). Physical examination of the thyroid gland is unremarkable. Follow-up studies showed a
decreased total triiodothyronine (T3) and normal TSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
1. Digeorge syndrome
2. Pappilary thyroid cancer
3. Euthyroid sick syndrome
4. Graves’ disease
5. Hashimoto disease
6. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
7. Lymphocytic thyroiditis
Ans. 3. Euthyroid sick syndrome
This patient is seriously ill, with low T4 and low T3, but normal TSH. This is typical for euthyroid sick syndrome, which occurs
in many seriously ill patients who do not have clinical hypothyroidism.
USMLE Case Scenario

Overall, 30–40% of all infections contracted in the postrenal transplant period are viral. The most common viral infections are
by:
1. DNA viruses
2. RNA viruses
3. Retroviruses
4. Arboviruses
Ans. 1. DNA viruses
The most common viral infections are DNA viruses of the herpes virus family and include cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr
virus, herpes simplex virus, and varicella zoster virus.
USMLE Case Scenario

The treatment modalities used for acute rejection are high-dose steroids, antilymphocyte globulin and OKT3. OKT3 is:
1. Murine monoclonal antibody to the human CD3 complex
2. Murine monoclonal antibody to the human CD8 complex
3. Equine monoclonal antibody to the human CD9 complex
4. Equine monoclonal antibody to the human CD10 complex
Ans. 1. Murine monoclonal antibody to the human CD3 complex
Medicine 197
USMLE Case Scenario

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) is a peptide hormone produced by endotoxin-activated monocytes/macrophages and has been
postulated to be the principal cytokine mediator in gram-negative shock and sepsis-related organ damage. Biologic actions
of TNF do not include:
1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) deactivation
2. Increased nonspecific host resistance
3. Increased vascular permeability
4. Lymphopenia
5. Promotion of interleukins 1, 2, and 6
6. Capillary leak syndrome
7. Microvascular thrombosis; anorexia and cachexia
Ans. 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) deactivation
USMLE Case Scenario

The classic triad hemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain, and dyspnea can be seen in:
1. Esophagitis
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. Pneumothorax
4. Asthma
5. Mediastinitis
Ans. 2. Pulmonary embolism
USMLE Case Scenario

A 52-year-old, tall male presents to the Accident and Emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. He denies
chest pain. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. A chest X-ray shows clear lung fields, mild
cardiomegaly and a widened thoracic aorta with linear calcifications. An MRI of the chest shows aortic dilatation in the thorax,
extending proximally,with atrophy of the muscularis and wrinkling of the intimal surface. The most likely etiology of this
condition is:
1. Syphilis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Atherosclerosis
4. Hypertension
5. Noonan’s syndrome
6. Marfan’s syndrome
7. Syphilis infection
Ans. 6. Marfan’s syndrome. An autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old professor from Michigan, concerned about his recent complaints, presents to a physician because of difficulty
in coming downstairs, which he attributes to an inability to ‘look down’. A complete Physical examination reveals that the
patient looks around by moving his head rather than his eyes and also shows a distinctive axial rigidity of neck, trunk, and
proximal limb muscles. He shows poverty of movement and dysarthric speech. Mentally, the patient responds very slowly but
has better memory and intellect than are initially apparent. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pick’s disease
2. Alzhiemer’s disease
4. Progressive supranuclear palsy
5. PML
6. CJD
7. Kuru disease
Ans. 4. Progressive supranuclear palsy
USMLE Case Scenario

CD19 positive, CD22 positive, CD103 positive monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity were found to comprise 60% of
the peripheral blood lymphoid cells on flow cytometric analysis in a 55-year-old man with massive splenomegaly and a total
leucocyte count of 3.3 x 109/L. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes
3. B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
Ans. 4. Hairy cell leukemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old man presented to an ophthalmologist with a severe painful left eye for 38 hours. There is marked redness around
the cornea which developed into iritis. Three days later, the right eye also became involved. One week after the onset of the
eye symptoms, the patient complained of pain after and during micturation. No chlamydia, viruses or bacteria were isolated
from his urinary discharge. He was treated with tetracycline and his eye signs gradually cleared. Subsequently, several joints
were similarly involved. He was found to be HLA-B27-positive. Most likely diagnosis would be:
4. Gonococcal arhrtitis
6. Gouty arthritis
Ans. 3. Reiter’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old male had pigmented macules over the palm, sole and oral mucosa. He also had anemia and pain in abdomen.
The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Albright’s syndrome
2. Cushing’s syndrome
3. Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
4. Turcot’s syndrome
5. Incontinentia pigmenti
6. FAP
7. HNPCC
8. Gardener’s syndrome
Ans. 3. Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old student has been diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus for the last 3 years. Which of the following is the best
early indicator for diabetic nephropathy?
1. Hematuria
2. WBC casts
3. Bence Jones proteins
4. Albuminuria
5. Hypertension
6. Rising blood urea nitrogen
7. Rising creatinine
8. Urinary tract infection
Ans. 4. Albuminuria
The spilling of albumin into the urine and, more specifically, the spilling of very small levels of albumin (microalbuminuria) are
the best markers for significant diabetic nephropathy.
Medicine 199
USMLE Case Scenario

Familial polyposis coli is a rare condition inherited as autosomal dominant, with equal sex incidence. Hundreds of adenomas
develop throughout the colon and rectum. The gene responsible for FAP is:
1. On the short arm of chromosome 5
2. On the long arm of chromosome 5
3. On the short arm of chromosome 15
4. On the long arm of chromosome 15
Ans. 1. On the short arm of chromosome 5
USMLE Case Scenario

Exudate within the pleural cavity can be a result of:
1. Bacterial pleuritis
2. Cirrhosis of the liver
3. Congestive heart failure
4. Nephrotic syndrome
5. Protein-losing enteropathy
Ans. 1. Bacterial pleuritis
An exudate results from leakage of protein-rich fluid from the plasma into the interstitium. It is usually the result of increased
vascular permeability caused by inflammation. Exudates also contain numerous acute or chronic inflammatory cells.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 77-year-old man residing in a suburban area presented with lumbago. He was mildly anemic but had no lymphadenopathy
and no fever. There were no signs of bruising, no finger-clubbing, no hepatosplenomegaly and no abdominal or pelvic masses.
On investigation, his hemoglobin was low 102 g/l. He had a normal differential white-cell count and a normal platelet count
but his ESR was 94 mm/h
•• Total serum proteins were raised with rouleaux seen on the blood film
•• His serum albumin, creatinine and urea were normal
•• He had a raised serum calcium level (3.2 mmol/l) but a normal alkaline phosphatase
•• Serum protein electrophoresis revealed a monoclonal band in the gamma region
•• Diagnosis of myeloma is established. Findings would be:
1. Raised serum calcium level, a raised alkaline phosphatase, raised platelets usually
2. Normal serum calcium level, a normal alkaline phosphatase, normal platelets usually
3. Raised serum calcium level, a normal alkaline phosphatase, elevated platelets usually
4. Raised serum calcium level, a normal alkaline phosphatase, normal platelets usually
Ans. 4. Raised serum calcium level, a normal alkaline phosphatase, normal platelets usually
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old woman has had a long history of frequent fractures to the long bones, deafness and recurrent osteomyelitis.
She is told she has osteopetrosis. Which one of the following is a description of the pathology?
1. Mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic defect
2. Increased bone density due to defective osteoclastic activity
3. Increased bone density due to defective osteoblastic activity
4. Decrease in bone density
5. Decrease in bone mineralization
6. Decreased collagen turnover
Ans. 2. Increased bone density due to defective osteoclastic activity
Osteopetrosis is caused by increased bone density due to defective osteoclastic activity. Paget’s disease is due to high
turnover due to osteoblastic and osteoclastic activities. Osteoporosis causes decreased bone density. Osteomalacia causes
decrease in bone mineralization.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 88-year-old patient was admitted in ICU with Herpes simplex encephalitis. Part of brain effected most specfically would be:
1. Hippocampus
2. Cerebellum
3. Basal ganglia
4. Brainstem
5. Spinal cord
6. Temporal lobes
Ans. 6. Temporal lobes
USMLE Case Scenario

Physical examination of a 55-year patient from Philadelphia demonstrates a pulsatile abdominal mass. Radiographic studies
demonstrate a 9 cm diameter aneurysm of the abdominal aorta with foci of calcification in the walls. Which of the following is
the most common etiology for this aneurysm?
1. Mucocutaneous disease
2. Atherosclerosis
3. Congenital weakness
4. Cystic medial necrosis
5. Syphilis
6. Vasculitis
Ans. 2. Atherosclerosis
USMLE Case Scenario

Myxopapillary ependymoma is a variant of ependymoma, a tumor arising from ependymal cells. Histologically, myxopapillary
ependymoma contains a myxoid intercellular matrix, in which spindly neoplastic ependymal cells are arranged in a fascicular
and papillary pattern. They are mostly found in:
1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Arachnoid cap cells
4. Sella turcica
5. Conus medullaris
6. 4th ventricle
7. Lateral ventricles
8. Midbrain
Ans. 5. Conus medullaris
It is a benign tumor that almost always occurs in the distal segment of the spinal cord, i.e. the conus medullaris
USMLE Case Scenario

A 46-year-old who was nonhypertensive with adult polycystic kidney disease is brought tot he emergency room in a coma.
CT scan of the head demonstrates a subarachnoid hemorrhage without parenchymal hemorrhage. Which of the following is
the most likely source of the bleeding?
1. Thrombosis
2. AV malformation
3. Bridging veins
4. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
5. Middle meningeal artery
6. Berry aneurysm
Ans. 6. Berry aneurysm
Medicine 201
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old man has been reported by a physician to have bitemporal hemianopia. He also has elevated IGF-1 levels in the
serum and an enlarged pituitary seen on MRI. Which one of the following is an associated feature?
1. Hypolipidemia
2. Hypoglycemia
4. Myocarditis
6. Hypotension
Ans. 5. Carpal tunnel syndrome
The diagnosis is acromegaly. Impaired glucose tolerance, carpal tunnel syndrome and high cardiac output, cardiac failure are
associated.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old student of biochemistry after his return from India reports that he was bitten by flies while he was there
in the Indian city of Delhi. He has been lethargic for two-and-a-half months and has a fever. Clinical examination reveals
hepatomegaly with splenomegaly. Ultrasound of the abdomen reveals lymphadenopathy as well. One of the lymph nodes is
biopsied which shows amastigotes within a macrophage. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Brucellosis
2. Schistosomiasis
3. Malaria
4. Amebiasis
5. Leptosporiosis
6. Chlamydia infection
7. Kala azar
8. Babesiosis
Ans. 7. Leishmaniasis or Kala azar
The smears can show Donovan bodies (amastigotes of Leishmania donovani)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old female who is working as a secretary in Honduras has had a diagnosis of pulmonary embolus. She has the
following investigations: Hemoglobin 10.3 g/dl, white cell count 4.0 x 109/L, platelet count 45 x 109/L. Which of the following
diagnoses is likely to be there?
1. Homocystinuria
2. Protein C deficiency
3. Factor V Leiden deficiency
4. DIC
5. Antiphospholipid syndrome
6. Protein S deficiency
Ans. 5. Antiphospholipid syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man who was hypertensive, smoker for the last 20 years and also had raised serum cholesterol, was admitted
to the coronary care unit in New Texas with a diagnosis of a large myocardial infarct (MI) of the left ventricle. On his 6th
postinfarct day, he goes into shock and dies, manifesting signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade. The most likely cause of
this patient’s death is:
1. HOCM
2. Aortic dissection
3. AV block
4. Extension of previous MI
5. Fatal arrhythmia
6. Rupture of the left ventricular wall
7. Rupture of papillary muscle
Ans. 6. Rupture of the left ventricular wall
USMLE Case Scenario

A 67-year-old patient had lymphoma and, after few months, developed herpes simplex encephalitis. Which of the following
would you expect a CT scan of the patient’s brain to show?
1. Generalized volume loss in cerebral hemispheres
2. Volume loss selectively in the basal ganglia and thalamus
3. Volume loss selectively in the medulla
4. Volume loss selectively in the cerebellar vermis
5. Volume loss selectively in the temporal and frontal lobes
Ans. 5. Volume loss selectively in the temporal and frontal lobes
Herpes simplex can cause anecrotizing, hemorrhagic, acute encephalitis that may rapidly produce death. The encephalitis
characteristically involves the lower portions of the cerebral cortex, notably the temporal lobes and the base of the frontal
lobes, possibly because the infection spreads from the oropharynx.
USMLE Case Scenario

A young male had a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with syncopal episodes. He died of a sudden death. The features
of the disease he died of are that it has an autosomal dominant inheritance and the abnormality is in the cardiac sodium
channel. The most likely disease is:
1. Chaga’s disease
2. Floppy valve disease
3. Holt oram disease
4. Wenkeback’s disease
5. Brugada syndrome
6. Leigh’s disease
7. NARP syndrome
Ans. 5. Brugada syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old man came to see an immunologist who has noted several 1 to 2 cm reddish purple, nodular lesions present on
the skin of his right arm which have increased in size and number over the past 3 months. The lesions do not itch and are not
painful. He has had a watery diarrhea for the past month. On physical examination, he has generalized lymphadenopathy and
oral thrush. Which of the following infections is most likely to be related to the appearance of these skin lesions?
1. Candida albicans
2. Human herpesvirus 8
5. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Ans. 2. Human herpesvirus 8
Lesions of Kaposi sarcoma in an immunodeficient HIV patient.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old female presented with one year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhea. She also had off-and-on
headache. Her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic
atropy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case:
2. Pituitary macroadenoma
3. Pineal tumor
4. Frontal lobe tumor
5. Occipital infarct
6. Ophthalmic ICA aneurysm
7. Chiasmal glioma
Ans. 2. Pituitary macroadenoma
Medicine 203
USMLE Case Scenario

Needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals are seen from synovial fluid of a patient with pain in his joints. These
crystals most likely are composed of:
1. Cysteine
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Oxalate
4. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
5. Cholesterol
6. Monosodium urate
Ans. 6. Monosodium urate
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 × 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of platelets, WBC count
of 12 x 109/L, hemoglobin of 11 g/dI and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome. The most likely diagnosis would be:
2. Essential thrombocythemia
3. Chromic myeloid leukemia
4. Leukemoid reaction
Ans. 2. Essential thrombocythemia
USMLE Case Scenario

Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi presents with a red macule or papule at the site of the tick bite. The initial lesion
slowly expands to form a large annular lesion with a red border and central clearing. The lesion is warm, but usually not
painful. This initial lesion is called:
1. Erythema nodosum
2. Erythema gyrum repens
3. Erythema chronicum migrans
5. Erythema ab igne
Ans. 3. Erythema chronicum migrans
USMLE Case Scenario

A 28-year-old student from New York presented with a 1-week history of a sore throat, stiffness and tenderness of his neck and
extreme malaise. On examination, he was mildly pyrexial with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae and
pharyngeal inflammation without an exudate. Abdominal examination showed mild splenomegaly. There was no evidence of
a skin rash or jaundice. Feature seen in him would be:
1. Atypical lymphocytosis and his serum contains IgE antibodies to CMV viral capsid antigen
2. Atypical lymphocytosis and his serum contains IgM antibodies to CMV viral capsid antigen
3. Atypical lymphocytosis and his serum contains IgM antibodies to Epstein-Barr viral capsid antigen
4. Atypical lymphocytosis and his serum contains IgE antibodies to Epstein-Barr viral capsid antigen
Ans. 3. Atypical lymphocytosis and his serum contains IgM antibodies to Epstein-Barr viral capsid antigen
USMLE Case Scenario

A 23-year-old engineer from New York presented with a 1-week history of a sore throat, stiffness and tenderness of his neck,
and extreme malaise. On examination, he was mildly pyrexial with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae and
pharyngeal inflammation without an exudate. Abdominal examination showed mild splenomegaly. There was no evidence of
a skin rash or jaundice. The clinical diagnosis is:
1. Hay fever
2. Glandular fever
3. Lymphoma
4. Tonsillitis
5. Retropharyngeal abscess
6. Ludwig’s angina
7. Quinsy
Ans. 2. Glandular fever
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old lady presents with features of malabsorption and iron-deficiency anemia. Duodenal biopsy shows complete
villous atrophy. Which of the following antibodies is likely to be present?
1. Antiendomysial antibodies
2. Antigoblet cell antibodies
3. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibodies
4. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
Ans. 1. Antiendomysial antibodies
USMLE Case Scenario

An 89-year-old elderly patient suffering from Pick’s disease also has multiple small strokes. During her stay in the nursing
home, on multiple occasions she aspirated food, and neurological examination reveals that her gag reflex is absent. These
findings suggest involvement of the nucleus of which of the following cranial nerves?
1. Facial (VII)
2. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
3. Hypoglossal (XII)
4. Spinal accessory (XI)
5. Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
Ans. 2 Cranial nerve IX is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which has a nucleus in the medulla and is necessary for the gag reflex
USMLE Case Scenario

A 16-year-old boy on a routine health check-up by a physician in New York is said to have systolic murmur preceded by a
distinct click on auscultation. The patient has unusually long legs and long, tapering fingers. An ocular examination reveals
dislocation of the lens. An abnormality of which of the following gene products is thought to underlie this condition?
1. Collagen
2. Dystrophin
3. Elastin
4. Fibrillin
5. Myosin b-chain
Ans. 4. Fibrillin
The genetic condition is Marfan syndrome, which is characterized by skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular abnormalities.
The gene mutated in Marfan syndrome encodes fibrillin protein that serves as scaffolding for the deposition of elastin and
formation of elastic fibers.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 37-year-old man with Wegener’s granulomatosis (WG) was admitted to hospital with a 2-week history of fever and shortness
of breath. The diagnosis of WG had been made 19 months earlier when he presented with hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis.
Disease remission will be achieved with aggressive immunosuppressive therapy using:
1. A combination of pulse hydrocortisone and nitrogen mustard
2. A combination of pulse hydrocortisone and cyclosporine
3. A combination of pulse methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide
4. A combination of pulse cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide
Ans. 3. A combination of pulse methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide
Medicine 205
USMLE Case Scenario

A clinical condition as seen in a 24-year-old male from New Orleans is characterized by a facial palsy and is often associated
with facial pain and the appearance of vesicles on the ear drum, ear canal and pinna. Vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss
(VIII nerve) accompanying it are suggestive of:
1. Down’s syndrome
2. Turner’s syndrome
3. Bell’s palsy
4. Pendred syndrome
5. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
6. Goldenhar syndrome
8. Pierre Robin syndrome
9. Treacher collins syndrome
Ans. 5. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

CREST syndrome (calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal motility syndrome, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia)
which is also called limited scleroderma This would be associated with:
1. Anti-Ro
2. Anti-SS-B
3. Decreased ESR
4. Anticentromere antibody
Ans. 4. Anticentromere antibody
USMLE Case Scenario

An infection is transmitted by inhaling dust or drinking milk from infected mammals, especially sheep and cows. The disease
in humans, Q fever, is marked by mild nonspecific symptoms or pneumonia, and may progress to myocarditis or hepatitis. The
causative organism is:
1. Moraxella
2. Bordetella
3. Coxiella
4. Francisella
5. Salmonella
6. Kingella
Ans. 3. Coxiella
USMLE Case Scenario

A 50-year-old male presents with bilateral weakness of upper limbs for the last one-and-a-half weeks. He has blood pressure
of 130/80 mm Hg. He got a flu three weeks back followed by paresthesias. There is no history of alcohol intake. Neurological
examination of face reveals facial palsy on both sides. CSF shows a normal cell count. A doctor starts him on plasmapheresis
and his condition improves. He is most likely suffering from:
1. Brain metastasis
2. Putamen hemorrhage of left side
3. Botulism
5. Herpes encephalitis
6. Tuberculous meningitis
7. Polio
8. Wegener’s granulomatosis
9. Sarcoidosis
Ans. 4. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A solitary weakly ring-enhancing lesion without demyelination is seen in MRI of a 45-year-old man from Kansas. The patient is
on HAART for HIV for the last 3 months. After a check-up in a medical clinic. He was given Trimethoprim but failed to respond
to the medication. What can be expected in this patient:
1. SSPE after measles infection
2. A positive toxoplasma serology
3. Cytoalbuniological dissociation
4. Response to plasmapheresis
5. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
6. EBV DNA in CSF
7. CSF suggestive of bacterial meningitis
Ans. 6. EBV DNA in CSF
Explanation: Case is suggestive of CNS lymphoma in a HIV infected patient. Exclude other options.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old female is not able to work in her office, says she can’t sleep either. She has not taken her meals the nicely for the
last 20 hours because of severe nature of her pain. The pain is described as electric with about 20–30 episodes for the last two
days. She was given oral Paracatemol and later Piroxicam for the pain which failed to respond. There is no obivious precipitant
for the said pain. Her psychiatric check-up reveals nothing abnormal. She does not take alcohol or any other drug. Which drug
would be most effective for her complaint?
1. Low-flow oxygen
2. High-flow oxygen
3. Levodopa
4. Ergot
5. Sumatriptan
6. Steroids
7. Acyclovir
8. Lithium
9. Carbamazepine
10. Histocalamine lotion
Ans. 9. Carbamazepine
USMLE Case Scenario

After suffering from a stroke, a 36-year-old man from New Jersey is reported by his wife to be shaving only right side of his
face. He is asked to lift his left hand and he lifts his right hand. Hemineglect is due to involvement of:
1. Left parietal lobe (dominant)
2. Right parietal lobe (dominant)
3. Right parietal lobe (nondominant)
4. Left parietal lobe (nondominant)
Ans. 3. Right parietal lobe (nondominant)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 52-year-old male presents with bilateral weakness of upper limbs for the last one-and-a-half weeks. He has blood pressure
of 120/80 mm Hg. He got a flu three weeks back followed by Parasthesias. There is no history of alcohol intake. Neurological
examination of face reveals facial palsy on both sides. CSF shows a normal cell count. He is said to have Guillain-Barré
syndrome. Guillain Barré syndrome is:
1. Acute idiopathic noninflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
2. Chronic idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating mononeuropathy
3. Chronic idiopathic noninflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
4. Acute idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
Ans. 4. Acute idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
Medicine 207
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man from Downtown, Chicago develops severe, acute, excruciating chest pain that radiates to his back. On
the way to the emergency room, he collapses after a spell of becoming unresponsive, and is pulseless on arrival Several
resuscitation attempts are unsuccessful. Autopsy reveals massive hemoperitoneum due to a ruptured aortic dissection. There
is an intimal tear in the ascending aorta, with a dissecting hematoma in the media, extending from the aortic valve to the
renal arteries. Which feature of this scenario most strongly suggests hypertension as the cause of the aortic dissection?
1. Adventitial tear above renal arteries
2. Dissection through media
3. Involvement of major aortic branches
4. Origin at the ascending aorta
5. Rapid exsanguination
Ans 4. Origin at the ascending aorta
The two most common causes of aortic dissection are hypertension and atherosclerosis. An important distinction between
the two is that hypertensive dissections generally originate in the ascending aorta, at an intimal surface free of atherosclerosis
Dissection secondary to atherosclerosis is typically the consequence of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, which originates in the
abdominal aorta at the iliac bifurcation.
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
2. Testicular feminization syndrome
3. Klinefelter’s syndome
Ans. 3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A history of a new kitten in the house and the papule in a child at the site of a scratch with regional painful adenopathy defines:
1. Rat bite fever
2. Bacillary angiomatosis
4. Pausterulla infection
5. Cat-cry syndrome
6. Tularemia
Ans. 3. Cat-scratch disease
This patient has the classic symptoms of cat-scratch disease caused by the bacillus Bartonella henselae.
USMLE Case Scenario

An organism is a part of the normal flora of the oral cavity of pets. A splenectomized patient develops cellulitis and fulminant
septicemia after a bite of a cat. An organism is identified as the causative agent. The likely organism is:
1. Capnocytophaga canimorsus
2. Bartonella
3. Pasteurella
4. Spirillum
Ans. 1. Capnocytophaga canimorsus
This organism is associated with cat bites, but the patient develops cellulitis and fulminant septicemia, especially in asplenic
patients.
USMLE Case Scenario

Listeriosis is caused by the gram-positive rod listeria monocytogenes. Meningitis and bacteremia are common clinical
manifestations. Most at risk are:
1. Young, nonpregnant, immunocompetent
2. Elderly, neonates, pregnant women
3. Nonpregnant females, middle-aged
4. Immunocompetent, pregnant and young
Ans. 2. Elderly, neonates, pregnant women
USMLE Case Scenario

Feature of X-linked recessive diseases is that:
1. Carrier mothers cannot pass the disease to their sons; nonaffected fathers can have carrier daughters but not affected sons
2. Carrier mothers pass the disease to half their daughters; affected fathers cannot have carrier daughters but affected sons
3. Carrier mothers pass the disease to half their sons; affected fathers can have carrier daughters but not affected sons
4. Carrier mothers pass the disease to half their sons; affected fathers can have carrier sons
Ans. 3. Carrier mothers pass the disease to half their sons; affected fathers can have carrier daughters but not affected sons.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old man while reading newspaper in the morning suddenly becomes completely blind in one eye, and angiography
demonstrates occlusion of the central retinal artery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the occlusion?
1. Atheroma or embolism
2. Cranial (temporal) arteritis
3. Hypertension
5. Tumor
Ans. 1. Atheroma or embolism
Simple explanation. Occlusion of the central retinal artery rapidly causes irreversible blindness with loss of the inner retinal
layers. (The photoreceptor rod and cone cells are maintained by the pigment epithelium.) The site of occlusion is typically
just posterior to the cribriform plate. A garden-variety atheroma or embolism is overwhelmingly the most common cause of
central retinal artery occlusion.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old woman with known HIV comes to her physician with a 3-month history of watery diarrhea, severe weakness,
and a 22-pound weight loss. Multiple stool tests for bacteria, ova, and parasites are repeatedly negative. A colonoscopy is
normal, as are biopsies of the colon. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for her diarrhea?
1. Cryptosporidiosis
2. Cytomegalovirus infection
3. Entameba histolytica
4. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
5. Shigella dysenteriae
Ans. 1 Cryptosporidiosis
This patient has a typical small bowel-type diarrhea seen in HIV with watery diarrhea, weakness, and weight loss. The most
common etiology for this syndrome is cryptosporidiosis infection of the small intestine, where the spores can be seen on the
tips of the villi on biopsy. This organism can be demonstrated with special culture media. Other organisms in the same family,
such as microsporidia and isospora belli, produce identical syndromes.
Medicine 209
USMLE Case Scenario

A 49-year-old woman meets with an automobile accident and sustains a closed head injury. A CT scan does not show any
intracranial hemorrhage, but reveals a small tumor at the cerebellopontine angle of the brain. Which of the following nerves
is most likely to be affected by this tumor?
1. Facial nerve
2. Glossopharyngeal nerve
3. Optic nerve
4. Trigeminal nerve
5. Vagus nerve
6. Abducens nerve
Ans. 1. Facial nerve
The facial nerve and the vestibulocochlear nerve emerge from the brainstem at the cerebellopontine angle. These are the two
nerves which will be initially affected by a tumor in this region.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old woman from Chicago seen previously by a physician presents with an eight-year history of headaches,
generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and bilateral leg weakness. X-ray skull films reveal hyperostosis of the calvarium. Biopsy of
the responsible lesion shows a whorling pattern of the cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Arachnoid cyst
2. Glioblastoma multiforme
3. Meningioma
4. Metastatic breast cancer
5. Oligodendroglioma
6. Ependymoma
Ans. 3. Meningioma
The most likely diagnosis is an intracranial meningioma. Meningiomas are slow-growing, benign tumors comprising 15%
of intracranial tumors; seen mostly in elderly. They originate from meninges, either the dura mater or the arachnoid matter
•• Meningiomas often incite an osteoblastic reaction in the overlying cranial bones. Microscopically, the meningioma cells
have a tendency to encircle one another, forming whorls and psammoma bodies
•• Clinically, they present as mass lesions; seizures may occur
•• The superior parasagittal surface of the frontal lobes is a favorite site of origin
•• This can often produce leg weakness, since the leg motor fibers that pass down through the internal capsule originate in
parasagittal cortical regions
•• Treatment of meningiomas is usually surgical.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 72-year-old woman was commenced on oral corticosteroids for giant cell arteritis. Over the next 6 months, she had three
episodes of a painful, vesicular rash over the ophthalmic division of the right trigeminal nerve. Virus implicated is:
1. CMV
2. Polio
3. EBV
4. HPV
5. HIV
6. Herpes
Ans. 6. Herpes
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old boy presents with fever for 3 days which responded to administration of paracetamol. Three days later, he
developed acute renal failure, marked acidosis and encephalopathy. His urine showed plenty of oxalate crystals. The blood
anion gap and osmolal gap were increased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Paracetamol poisoning
2. Diethyl glycol poisoning
3. Severe malaria
4. Hanta virus infection
5. Sulfuric acid poisoning
6. Dengue fever
Ans. 2. Diethyl glycol poisoning
USMLE Case Scenario

A 68-year-old, well-developed, well-nourished black male presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness
of breath. He denies chest pain. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. A chest X-ray shows
clear lung fields, mild cardiomegaly and a widened thoracic aorta with linear calcifications. An MRI of the chest shows aortic
dilatation in the thorax, extending proximally, with atrophy of the muscularis and wrinkling of the intimal surface. What is the
most likely etiology of this condition?
1. Atherosclerosis
2. Hypertension
4. Syphilis infection
Ans. 4. Syphilis infection
USMLE Case Scenario

A 41-year-old man with no previous medical history presents to the emergency department with chest pain and shortness
of breath. An ECG done in the emergency department shows normal sinus rhythm with no ST-T segment changes. Cardiac
enzymes are negative. He is admitted to the telemetry unit for monitoring. Six hours after admission, he begins to feel dizzy.
The telemetry monitor shows the patient is in atrial fibrillation with a pulse of 160/min. His blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
1. DC cardioversion
2. Intravenous digoxin
3. Start coumadin
4. Start intravenous diltiazem drip
5. Start intravenous heparin drip
Ans. 1. DC cardioversion
In patients with atrial fibrillation and hemodynamic instability, the treatment of choice is immediate cardioversion.
Hemodynamic compromise may be manifested clinically by hypotension and shock and by worsening angina pectoris,
shortness of breath, or heart failure.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old woman has a dry mouth and pain during sexual intercourse, most probably attributed to genital dryness with a
raised ESR (53 mm/h). Schirmer’s test was performed. The test was markedly abnormal. Her rheumatoid factor titer is increased
and ANA and antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens Ro and La are detectable. Now she also has development of the
dry mouth and dry eyes and bilateral nonerosive polyarthritis of her hands, wrists and knees. Likely diagnosis is:
Medicine 211
1. SLE
2. Dermatomyositis
3. Polymyositis
5. MCTD
6. Amyloidosis
Ans. 4. Sjögren’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 13-year-old boy from Chicago has a small tumor in the wall of the left lateral ventricle of brain. A biopsy of this tumor is
consistent with pathologic diagnosis of subependymal giant cell astrocytoma. Which of the following lesions may also be
present in this patient?
1. Café au-lait spots
2. Renal angiomyolipomas
3. Sesamoid bones
4. Hemangioblastoma
5. Wickham’s striae
6. Lisch nodules
7. Cancers of genital tract
8. Schwannoma of the VIII cranial nerve
Ans. 2. Renal angiomyolipomas
Tuberous sclerosis: It manifests with multiple hamartomatous lesions in the skin, CNS, and visceral organs. Cortical tubers are
malformed (hamartomatous) nodules of the cortex, probably resulting from faulty cortical development
Other lesions include:
•• Shagreen patches
•• Ash leaf spots on the skin
•• Cardiac myomas
•• Renal angiomyolipomas
USMLE Case Scenario

In a 34-year-old female with Raynaud’s phenomenon, tethering and thickening of skin, dysphagia soft-tissue, calcified
nodules, increasingly shortness of breath would indicate:
3. Localized sclerosis
4. Systemic sclerosis
5. SLE
6. Polymyositis
Ans. 4. Systemic sclerosis
USMLE Case Scenario

In a 34-year-old female Raynaud’s phenomenon, tethering and thickening of skin, dysphagia soft-tissue, calcified nodules,
increasingly shortness of breath showed the patient to systemic sclerosis. Lung function tests would show:
1. An obstructive defect with only a slight reduction in transfer factor
2. An obstructive defect with elevation in transfer factor
3. A restrictive defect with only a slight reduction in transfer factor
4. A restrictive defect with elevation in transfer factor
Ans. 3. A restrictive defect with only a slight reduction in transfer factor
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old Asian presented with a 4-week history of coughing, breathlessness and malaise. He had lost 4 kg in weight,
but had no history of night sweats or hemoptysis. He had returned from holiday in India 2 months earlier. Crepitations were
audible over both the lung apices; there were no other physical signs. His hemoglobin and white cell count were normal but
the CRP was 239 mg/l. The chest X-ray showed bilateral upper- and middle-lobe shadowing but no hilar enlargement. Correct
statement would be:
1. Noncaseating granuloma
2. BAL showing pneumocystis carinii
3. Red currant sputum
4. Sputum was found to contain acid-fast bacilli
5. Frothy sputum would be a feature
Ans. 4. Sputum was found to contain acid-fast bacilli
USMLE Case Scenario

A 38-year-old man from Washington complained of breathlessness. On examination, he had no clubbing and no abnormal
chest signs. A chest X-ray showed fine, diffuse radiological shadows, predominantly in the mid zones, and bilateral hilar
lymphadenopathy. Lung function tests were normal and a Mantoux test was negative. ACE levels and calcium levels are
increased. A clinical diagnosis suggests:
1. Pneumonia
2. Tuberculosis
3. Sarcoidosis
5. Coal worker’s lung
Ans. 3. Sarcoidosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old primigravida from New Texas had been well once she had recovered from morning sickness during the first
4 weeks of gestation. She had been drinking unpasteurized milk for 5 weeks when she developed fever, vomiting and diarrhea
followed by headache, myalgia and low back pain which persisted for 5 days. Four weeks later, at 28 weeks gestation, she went
into premature labor and a stillborn, jaundiced child was delivered after 36 hrous. At the post-mortem of the child, there was
evidence of hepatitis, purulent pneumonia, conjunctivitis and meningitis. Most likely organism would be:
1. E. coli
2. Pseudomonas
3. Legionella
4. Streptococci
5. Anthrax bacillus
6. Listeria
7. Measles
8. Toxoplasma
Ans. 6. Listeria
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old business-class woman was admitted with a 3-week history of increasing bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain;
she had lost 5 kg in weight. She smoked 25 cigarettes a day. On examination, she was having tenderness over the right iliac
fossa. Sigmoidoscopy showed a red, granular mucosa with mucous and contact bleeding. Ulceration of the surface epithelium,
noncaseating granulomas and skip lesions. Most likely cause is:
1. Ischemic colitis
2. Gluten enteropathy
3. Crohn’s disease
Medicine 213
5. Pseudomembranous colitis
Ans. 3. Crohn’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

CSF analysis of a 55-year-old man presenting with numbness and parasthesis off and on reveal:
•• Protein concentration 0.4 g/l (NR 0-0.4 g/l)
•• Red blood cells: None
•• Lymphocytes 4 × 106/l (NR < 5 × 106/l)
•• IgG concentration 120 mg/l (NR < 60 mg/l)
•• Albumin concentration 488 mg/l (NR < 400 mg/l)
•• IgG/albumin ratio 28% (NR 4–22%)
•• IgG index 1.17 (NR < 0.7)
•• Isoelectric focusing oligoclonal bands present

1. SAH
4. Subacute degeneration of cord
5. Hysteria
6. Empty sella syndrome
•• MS is a disorder of unknown cause, defined clinically by characteristic symptoms, signs, and progression and pathologically by
scattered areas of inflammation and demyelination affecting the brain, optic nerves, and spinal cord
•• After separating CSF gamma globulin fractions by agarose or polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, separate discrete ‘oligoclonal’
bands (OCB) can be detected in 70 to 80% of patients. The sensitivity for detecting OCB can be increased by separating CSF by
isoelectric focusing or by staining the gels or nitrocellulose blots with anti-immunoglobulin antibodies
USMLE Case Scenario

A 57-year-old mechanical engineer from rural Mexico complains of seeing double, was found to have bilateral ptosis, covering
most of the pupil on the right side and partially obscuring that on the left. He admitted to tiredness in the arms and legs
on exercise, which recovered with resting. A clinical diagnosis of ocular myasthenia gravis was made. His Tensilon test was
positive but electromyography was inconclusive. His serum would contain:
1. Antibodies to adrenergic receptors of smooth muscle
2. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors of smooth muscle
3. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors of skeletal muscle
4. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors of both skeletal and smooth muscle
Ans. 3. Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors of skeletal muscle
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old man made repeated visits to a dermatologist after being referred to a physician. He presented with mild itching
and redness of his skin for 2 months, with severe keratosis on the soles of his feet and the palms of his hands. On examination, he
had characteristic exfoliative dermatitis with bilateral axillary lymphadenopathy but no hepatosplenomegaly. Investigation
showed that his hemoglobin was normal (139 g/l) but he had a raised white-cell count (12.8 × 109/l). A blood film showed an
increase of small cleaved lymphocytes, 90% of which were T-lymphocytes. Electron microscopy of buffy coat cells confirmed
that the nuclei of these cells had multiple clefts. The patient was treated with PUVA therapy to the skin. Most likely diagnosis is:
2. Glandular fever
3. Littoral cell angioma

5. Acute leukemia
6. Sezary syndrome
7. Follicular cell lymphoma
9. CML
Ans. 6. Sezary syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old nervous and anxious woman presented with a 3-month history of increased sweating and palpitations with
weight loss of 7 kg despite a relatively good appetite. On examination, she had a diffuse, nontender, smooth enlargement of
her thyroid, over which a bruit could be heard. She had a fine tremor of her fingers and a resting pulse rate of 159/minute. On
investigation, she had:
•• Serum T3 of 5.2 nmol/l (NR 0.8-2.4)
•• T4 of 59 nmol/l (NR 9-23)
•• Measurement of her thyroid-stimulating hormone showed that this was low normal, 0.4 mU/l (NR 0.4 – 5 mU/l)
•• Circulating antibodies to thyroid peroxidase were detected by agglutination
Most likely cause is:
1. Hashimoto’s disease
2. Wolff-Chaikkoff effect
3. Pendred syndrome
4. Autoimmune thyrotoxicosis
5. De Quervian’s disease
Ans. 4. Autoimmune thyrotoxicosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old woman from a hilly area presented with a large, painless swelling in her neck. Thyroid function tests showed
that she was euthyroid; however, her serum contained high titer antibodies to thyroid peroxidase. Most likely cause is:
1. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
2. Wolf-chaikkoff effect
3. Pendred syndrome
4. Autoimmune thyrotoxicosis
5. De Quervian’s disease
6. Pendred syndrome
7. Basedow phenomenon
8. Dawn phenomenon
Ans. 1. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old girl presented with vague abdominal discomfort for 3 months. She had noticed occasional diarrhea but had not
passed any blood. She admitted to weight loss and anorexia. On examination, she was pigmented with her buccal mucosa and
gums were also brown. She had a low cortisol level and her response to the adrenocorticotrophic hormone in a Synacthen test
was poor. Most likely cause is:
1. Parathyroid hyperactivity
2. Parathyroid underactivity
3. Thyroid overactivity
4. Thyroid underactivity
5. Adrenal medulla failure
6. Adrenal cortical failure
Ans. 6. Adrenal cortical failure
Medicine 215
USMLE Case Scenario

A 70-year-old female presented in hospital with increasing tiredness, exertional dyspnea and ankle swelling for a few years.
Two years earlier, she had been found to be anemic and had been treated with oral iron without symptomatic improvement.
Laboratory investigations showed:
•• Hemoglobin of 62 g/l with a reduced white-cell count of 3.8 x 109/l (and a platelet count of only 32 × 109/l)
•• A blood film showed marked macrocytosis with a mean cell volume of 112 fl
•• Bone marrow examination revealed marked megaloblastic erythropoiesis with abundant iron stores
•• Serum vitamin B12 was decreased but serum folate, serum iron and total iron-binding capacity were normal
•• Her serum contains positive gastric parietal cell antibodies of IgG class and blocking antibodies to intrinsic factor. The patient
would respond to:
1. Thiamine
2. Hydroxocobalamin
3. Ascorbate
4. Tocopherol
5. Pantothenic acid
Ans. 2. Hydroxocobalamin
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old female presented in hospital with increasing tiredness, exertional dyspnea and ankle swelling for few years.
Two years earlier, she had been found to be anemic and had been treated with oral iron without symptomatic improvement.
She responded to hydroxycobalamine. Most likely cause was:
1. Hemolytic anemia
4. Aplastic anemia
Ans. 3. Pernicious anemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old female developed loose stools and generalized but vague abdominal pain. On questioning, she had felt tired for
3 years and had lost about five kg in weight during the preceding 7 months despite a good appetite. Laboratory investigations
showed:
•• A macrocytic anemia but normal white-cell, platelet and reticulocyte counts
•• The blood film showed many Howell-Jolly bodies
Bone marrow examination revealed active erythropoiesis with early megaloblastic features. Her serum was positive for IgA
antibodies to endomysium and she had high levels of IgA and IgG antibodies to gliadin, strongly supporting the clinical
diagnosis. A jejunal biopsy was performed: this showed a convoluted pattern of stunted villi under the dissecting microscope
and subtotal villous atrophy with marked increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes and chronic inflammation in the lamina
propria. The patient should be started on:
1. A high-carbohydrate diet
2. A low-iron diet with high gluten content
3. A high-calorie diet
4. A gluten-free diet with folic acid and iron supplements
5. Total parenteral nutrition
6. Intravenous iron only
Ans. 4. A gluten-free diet with folic acid and iron supplements
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old lady had nephrotic syndrome. On further investigations, warm sample of ladies blood serum contained a mixed
cryoglobulin. A skin biopsy showed scattered deposits of IgM, IgG and C3 in dermal blood vessels. The final diagnosis was
mixed cryoglobulinemia. It is seen in association with:
1. Perihepatitis by chlamydia
2. Hepatitis A infection
3. Chronic hepatitis C infection

4. Hepatitis B
5. Lichen planus
6. Psoriasis
Ans. 3. Chronic hepatitis C infection
USMLE Case Scenario

The most common malignancy found in Marjolin’s ulcer is:
1. Basal cell carcinoma
2. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
4. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma
Ans. 2. Squamous cell carcinoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old woman was admitted in the neurology department with a stroke due to a cerebrovascular thrombosis. She
had three spontaneous abortions in the past. She was a nonsmoker. Antibodies to nuclei, extractable nuclear antigens
and double-stranded DNA were negative, but she did have high-titer antiphospholipid antibodies. A diagnosis of primary
antiphospholipid antibody syndrome was made. Lab tests would suggest:
1. ↑Hemoglobin, ↑platelet and ↑white-cell counts↑C3 and C4 levels. A normal kaolin-cephalin clotting time
2. ↓Hemoglobin, ↓ platelet and ↓white-cell counts↓C3 and C4 levels. A ↓ kaolin-cephalin clotting time
3. Normal hemoglobin, platelet and white-cell count, normal C3 and C4 levels. A normal kaolin-cephalin clotting time
4. Hemoglobin, platelet and white-cell counts were normal, normal C3 and C4 levels. A prolonged kaolin-cephalin clotting time
Ans. 4. Hemoglobin, platelet and white-cell counts were normal, normal C3 and C4 levels. A prolonged kaolin-cephalin clotting
time
USMLE Case Scenario

A bone marrow examination showed only 12% plasma cells. X-ray done showed absence of osteolytic lesions, the absence of
monoclonal free light chains in the urine and normal serum IgA and IgM levels. These findings support a diagnosis of:
1. Myeloma
2. Amyloidosis
3. MGUS
4. Histiocytosis X
Ans. 3. MGUS
USMLE Case Scenario

A 64-year-old man presents to a physician because of difficulty in reading newspapers and coming downstairs, which he
attributes to an inability to ‘look down’. Physical examination reveals that the patient looks around by moving his head rather
than his eyes and also shows a distinctive axial rigidity of neck, trunk, and proximal limb muscles. He shows decrease of
movement and altered dysarthric speech. Mentally, the patient responds very slowly but has good short-term as well as long
memory and his intellectectual capabilities are apparently normal. Which of the following pathologic findings of the brain
would most likely be present?
1. Depigmentation of the substantia nigra
2. Widespread cortical atrophy
3. Temporal lobe atrophy
4. Degeneration of the caudate nucleus and putamen
5. Widespread neuronal loss and gliosis in subcortical sites
Ans. 5. Widespread neuronal loss and gliosis in subcortical sites
PEDIATRICS
Pediatrics 2
Intrauterine Growth Retardation: IUGR
Causes:
•• Alcohol
•• Smoking
•• CRF
•• Propranolol
•• Fetal growth is maximally affected by insulin
•• Fetal well-being in IUGR is assessed by:
–– Amniocentesis
–– NST (Nonstress Test)
–– AF (Amniotic Fluid) Volume
Small for Date Babies

•• ‘Any infant whose weight is below the 10th percentile for gestational age, whether premature, full-term, or postmature.’
•• Despite his small size, a full-term SGA infant does not have the problems related to organ system immaturity that the premature
infant has
•• Causes: An infant may be small at birth because of Genetic factors (short parents or a genetic disorder associated with short
stature) or from other factors that can retard intrauterine growth. These intrauterine (nongenetic) factors usually are not operative
before 32 to 34 weeks’ gestation, and include placental insufficiency that often results from maternal disease involving the small
blood vessels (as in preeclampsia, primary hypertension, renal disease, or long-standing diabetes); placental involution
accompanying postmaturity; or infectious agents such as cytomegalovirus, rubella virus, or Toxoplasma gondii
•• An infant may be SGA if the mother is a narcotic or cocaine addict or a heavy user of alcohol and, to a lesser degree, if she
smokes cigarettes during pregnancy.
Full-Term Small for Date Babies are at a Risk For

•• IUFD (Intrauterine fetal death)
•• Perinatal asphyxia
Hypoglycemia:
The SGA infant is very prone to hypoglycemia in the first hours and days of life because of lack of adequate glycogen stores
•• Polycythemia-Hyperviscosity
•• Hypothermia
•• Dysmorphology
•• Pulmonary hemorrhage
COMPLICATIONS OF LBW (LOW BIRTH WEIGHT)

Immediate
•• Hypoxia/ischemia
•• IVH
•• Sensorineural injury
•• Respiratory failure
•• Necrotizing enterocolitis
•• Cholestatic liver disease
Late
Neurological:
•• Seizures
•• Microcephaly
•• Poor school performance
•• Hearing impairment, visual impairment, myopia
Respiratory:
•• Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
•• Cor pulmonale, recurrent pneumonia
GIT:
•• Short bowel syndrome
•• Malabsorption
•• Infectious diarrhea
Liver: Cirrhosis, liver failure, carcinoma
Nutrient deficiency: Osteopenia, anemia, growth failure
Others:
•• SIDS
•• Inguinal hernia
•• GERD
•• Hypertension
•• Craniosynostosis
•• Nephrocalcinosis
Differentiate Between
Cephalohematoma Caput succedaneum
•• Not present at time of birth •• Present over presenting part
•• Subperiosteal swelling •• Soft, boggy swelling
•• Does not cross suture lines •• Can cross suture line
•• Disappears late (2 weeks–3 months) •• Disappears early
Causes of Macrocephaly are:

•• Caput succedaneum
•• Cephalohematoma
•• Subgaleal hematoma
•• Hydranencephaly
•• Subdural collections
•• Sotos syndrome
•• Canavan’s disease
•• Alexander disease
Pediatrics 221
Causes of Microcephaly are:

There are about more than 200 causes of ‘microcephaly’. However, the most important ones are:
•• Down’s syndrome
•• Congenital Rubella syndrome
•• Edward’s syndrome
•• Patau’s syndrome
•• Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
•• Cornelia de Lange syndrome
•• Velocardiofacial syndrome
•• Cockayne syndrome
•• Charge syndrome
Teratogens
•• Carbamazepine •• Cleft lip, cleft palate
•• Valproic acid •• Neural tube defects
•• Warfarin •• Chondrodysplasia punctata
•• Carbimazole •• Fetal cutis aplasia
•• Lithium •• Ebstein’s anomaly
•• Thalidomide •• Phocomelia
•• Chloramphenicol •• Gray baby syndrome
•• DES •• Clear-cell cancer
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Remember the features:
•• Microcephaly
•• Maxillary hyperplasia (imp)
•• Small eyes
•• Cardiac malformation
•• Hyperkinetic movements
Milestones in Children (Try to Memorize as Much as Possible)

Social smile 2 months
Recognizes mother 3 months
Holds object and takes it to mouth 4 months
Sitting on slight support 5 months
Enjoys mirror 6 months
Sits alone momentarily 5–6 months
Transfers object from head to hand 6 months
Rolls over 7 months
Sits steadily 7–8 months
Crawls in bed 8 months
Monosyllabic words (Mama, Dada) 9 months

Creeps 10 months
Cruises around furniture 10 months
Builds a tower of 2 cubes and pincer grasp 12 months
Can turn two or three pages of a book 13 months
Walks alone 13–14 months
Walks sideways and backwards 15 months
Builds a tower of three cubes 18 months
Feeds self 18 months
Can drop and draw a horizontal or vertical line 2 years
Can turn one page at a time 2 years
Able to wear socks or shoes 2 years
Can remove his pants 2½ years
Can draw a circle 3 years
Can dress or undress completely and buckle his shoes 3 years
Knows age and sex 3 years
Can copy and draw a cross (Plus Sign) 4 years
Can draw a rectangle 4 years
Can draw a tilted cross (Multiplication sign) 5 years
Can draw a triangle 5 years
Bladder control—Diurnal 12–16 months
Nocturnal 2½ to 3 years
Drawing pattern at different ages

Pediatrics 223
•• Draws a horizontal or vertical line •• 2 years

•• Draws a circle •• 3 years
•• Draws a cross •• 4 years
•• Draws a rectangle •• 4 years
•• Draws a triangle •• 5 years
Most Importantly Remember

•• A 2-month-old infant can lift its head to 45 degrees, eyes follow to the midline, vocalize, smiles and has a state of half-waking
consciousness
•• A 6-month-old infant can roll over, grasp a rattle, turn to voice, feed self and separate the world into a ‘parent’ and ‘not parent’
world
•• A 12-month-old child can sit without support, pull to stand, use a pincer grasp, babble, indicate wants, and have stranger
anxiety
•• An 18-month-child can walk well, make a tower of 2 blocks, say 3 words, use a spoon and a cup, have temper tantrums, and bridge
gaps by bringing objects to the caregiver.
Remember the Following Nonpathological Entities

•• Erythema toxicum
•• Epstein pearls
•• Stork bites
•• Vaginal bleeding (Maternal hormones)
•• Mongolian spots
•• Phimosis
•• Breast engorgement
Important Clinical Conditions

•• Single umbilical artery: Very common in infants of diabetic mothers and trisomies 18 and twins
•• Hernia: Has peritoneal layer and skin
•• Omphalocele: Peritoneal layer but no skin
•• Gastroschisis: Neither peritoneal layer nor skin
Premature Neonate
Features are:
•• Sutures widely separated
•• Skin appears shiny
•• Abundant lanugo
•• Subcutaneous fat is reduced
•• Sluggish neonatal reflexes
•• Small face
Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn

•• As a result of vitamin K deficiency. The normal newborn has a moderate deficiency of the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors
•• Prematurity has been associated with hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. Delayed feeding, breastfeeding, vomiting, severe
diarrhea, and antibiotics also delay the colonization of the gut by bacteria
•• Bleeding is usually severe and occurs most commonly on the 2nd or 3rd day of life. The most common manifestations are melena,
large cephalohematomas and bleeding from the umbilical stump and after circumcision
•• Generalized ecchymoses, often without petechiae, intracranial bleeding, and large intramuscular hemorrhages, also may develop
in severe cases
•• In infants with hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, the prothrombin time (PT) is always prolonged. The partial thromboplastin
time (PTT) and the thrombin time are also prolonged. Specific factor assays reveal deficiencies of prothrombin; factors VII, IX, and
X; and proteins C and S. The bleeding time and the platelet count usually are within normal limits.
Breast Milk
Has got many protective factors against bacteria, viruses, parasites
•• Lactoferrin is particularly important against Plasmodium falciparum, E. coli, Giardia
•• Bile salt-stimulated lipase is important against E. histolytica
•• Lactadherin against Rotavirus
•• PABA is also anti-infective for malaria
•• Can transmit tuberculosis
Breastfed infant can be deficient in:
•• Vitamin B1
•• Vitamin B12
•• Vitamin D
•• Vitamin K
•• Folic acid
•• Cow’s milk has more proteins than breast milk

•• Cow’s milk has more calcium than breast milk
•• Cow’s milk has more Vitamin K than breast milk
•• Oxytocin is necessary for ejection/let down

•• Prolactin is necessary for milk synthesis
Contraindications to Breastfeeding
•• Galactosemia is an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding
•• Chronic medical illness such as decompensated heart failure
•• Open tuberculosis of mother is also a contraindication to breastfeeding in developing countries
•• Severe anemia
•• Chronic nephritis
•• Puerperal psychosis
•• Patient on antiepileptic, antithyroid drugs
Pediatrics 225
Growth and Development

•• Thelarche → Pubarche → Menarche
•• Thelarche is the first change occurring at puberty
•• It is noticed as appearance of firm, tender lump under center of nipple
•• It is referred to as breast budding
•• It is due to rising estrogen levels
•• Pubarche refers to appearance of pubic hair

•• It results from rising androgen levels
•• Menarche refers to appearance of first menstrual cycle

•• Adrenarche refers to stage of maturation of adrenal cortex
MALNUTRITION
Marasmus
•• It is a state in which virtually all available body fat stores have been exhausted due to starvation. The diagnosis is based on:
–– Severe fat and muscle wastage resulting from prolonged calorie deficiency. Diminished skin-fold thickness reflects the loss of
fat reserves
–– Reduced arm muscle circumference with temporal and interosseous muscle wasting reflects the catabolism of protein
throughout the body, including vital organs such as the heart, liver, and kidneys
–– The laboratory findings in marasmus are relatively unremarkable
–– The creatinine-height index (the 24-hour urinary creatinine excretion compared with normal values based on height) is
low, reflecting the loss of muscle mass, immunocompetence, wound healing, and the ability to handle short-term stress are
reasonably well-preserved in most patients with marasmus.
Kwashiorkor
•• In contrast to marasmus, kwashiorkor in developed countries occurs mainly in connection with acute, life-threatening illnesses
such as trauma and sepsis, and chronic illnesses that involve acute-phase inflammatory responses. In its early stages, the physical
findings of kwashiorkor are few and subtle
•• Fat reserves and muscle mass are initially unaffected, giving the deceptive appearance of adequate nutrition
•• Signs that support the diagnosis of kwashiorkor include easy hair pluck ability, edema, skin breakdown, and poor wound healing
•• The major sine qua non is severe reduction of levels of serum proteins such as albumin (< 2.8 g/dl) and transferrin (< 150 mg/dl) or
iron-binding capacity (< 200 g/dl).
•• Cellular immune function is depressed, reflected by lymphopenia (< 1500 lymphocytes/l in adults and older children) and lack of
response to skin test antigens (anergy)
•• Unlike treatment in marasmus, aggressive nutritional support is indicated to restore better metabolic balance rapidly.
Marasmic Kwashiorkor
•• Marasmic kwashiorkor, the combined form of PEM, develops when the cachectic or marasmic patient experiences acute stress
such as surgery, trauma, or sepsis, superimposing kwashiorkor onto chronic starvation
•• An extremely serious, life-threatening situation can occur because of the high risk of infection and other complications. It is
important to determine the major component of PEM so that the appropriate nutritional plan can be developed
•• If kwashiorkor predominates, the need for vigorous nutritional therapy is urgent; if marasmus predominates, feeding should be
more cautious.
Features Marasmus Kwashiorkor

•• Edema Absent Present
•• Wasting Marked Less
•• Growth retardation Severe Less
•• Mental changes Usually absent Usually present
•• Hepatomegaly Absent Present
Remember
•• Gomez syndrome: It is a nutritional recovery syndrome due to sudden rise of estrogen leading to hepatomegaly, jaundice and
spider naevi.
•• Keshans disease: It is cardiomyopathy due to selenium deficiency
•• Kashin-Beck disease: It is osteoarthritis due to selenium deficiency
PEM
•• Hypothermia
•• Hypoglycemia
•• ↑Total body water
•• ↑Cortisol and↑GH
Acute malnutrition is judged by: Weight for height

Chronic malnutrition is judged by: Height for age. Features are:
•• Hypokalemia
•• Hypoglycemia
•• Hypothermia are acute complications of PEM
•• Tick sign: It is seen in Kwashiorkor: Edema disappears on starting treatment
•• Flag sign: It is seen in Kwashiorkor: Hair is thin, dry, brittle, lusterless, sparse, easily pluckable and hypopigmented
Causes of Delayed Puberty

Delayed puberty with short stature
•• Prader-Willi syndrome
•• Noonan’s syndrome
Delayed puberty with normal stature

•• Polycystic ovarian syndrome
•• Androgen insensitivity
•• Kallmann’s syndrome
•• Klinefelter’s syndrome
Other causes:
•• Chronic diseases
•• Hypopituitarism
•• Anorexia nervosa
Pediatrics 227
Rickets
The clinical manifestations of rickets are the result of skeletal deformities:
•• Susceptibility to fractures, weakness and hypotonia, and disturbances in growth
•• Features:
•• Parietal flattening
•• Frontal bossing develops in the skull
•• Craniotabes: The calvariae are softened
•• Sutures may be widened
•• Rachitic rosary: Prominence of the costochondral junctions is called the rachitic rosary
•• Harrison’s groove: Indentation of the lower ribs at the site of attachment of the diaphragm
•• Knock Nee + Coxa Vara
•• Bow legs
•• Pot belly
•• Forward projection of sternum (pectus carinatum)
•• Caput quadratum
•• Lumbar lordosis
•• Short stature, genu valgum, coxa vara, kyphoscoliosis
•• Triradiate pelvis
•• Rickets is characterized by defective mineralization of bones

•• Rickets is seen before closure of growth plates
Causes
•• Nutritional rickets: Vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption
•• Accelerated loss of Vitamin D: Phenytoin, rifampicin, barbiturates
•• Impaired hydroxylation in liver and kidney
•• Liver disease, hypoparathyroidism, renal failure, renal tubular acidosis
•• Vitamin D-resistant rickets Fanconi’s syndrome, Wilson’s disease
Biochemical
Serum calcium: Normal or low
Serum phosphate: Low
Alkaline phosphatase: High
PTH : High
Scurvy
•• Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy
•• Symptoms of scurvy primarily reflect impaired formation of mature connective tissue and include bleeding into skin (petechiae,
ecchymoses, perifollicular hemorrhages); inflamed and bleeding gums; and manifestations of bleeding into joints, the
peritoneal cavity, pericardium and the adrenal glands
•• Wimberger’s sign seen
•• Rosary seen
•• Pseudoparalysis seen
Vitamin C, or ascorbic acid, is a necessary cofactor for platelet function. A deficiency, most commonly due to a dietary cause, results in
petechiae, microhemorrhages, gingival bleeding, and perifollicular hemorrhages. Classically, this disease was called ‘scurvy,’ and British
sailors who did not have access to fresh fruits and vegetables suffered from this condition. Today, scurvy is rare and is seen mostly in
elderly patients with poor dietary habits (such as those who may live alone). Treatment requires the daily administration of vitamin C
for 3 to 4 weeks and is quite successful.
Rashes in Infancy and Childhood

Vesicular Rashes
•• Varicella
Lesions normally appear without a prodromal illness and progress rapidly (within a few hours) from papules to vesicles surrounded
by an erythematous base. Crops of vesicles appear over 3 days, predominantly on the trunk and proximal limbs. Vesicles may also
develop on mucous membranes.
•• Herpes zoster
Lesions similar to those seen in varicella infection may develop over specific dermatomes or cranial nerves. Although the
immunosuppressed are at increased risk from zoster, this condition is also seen in normal children.
•• Herpes simplex virus
Although infection is most commonly associated with gingivostomatitis during childhood, vesicles are seen on the skin in eczema
herpeticum (Kaposi’s varicelliform eruption). Pyrexia is followed by the appearance of crops of vesicles on the eczematous skin.
Crops of lesions may occur over several days. Correct and rapid diagnosis is essential because untreated severe infection may be fatal.
•• Hand, foot and mouth disease
This is caused by enteroviruses, the commonest being Coxsackievirus type 16, and occurs in epidemics. It is associated with a
papular-vesicular eruption of the mouth, hands, feet and, sometimes, buttocks.
•• Impetigo
This condition usually presents as a red macule and then becomes vesicular. The small vesicles burst to leave a honey-colored crust.
Both streptococcal and staphylococcal impetigo occur commonly around the mouth but can occur elsewhere.
•• Molluscum contagiosum
This is caused by a poxvirus. Flesh-colored papules with a central dimple are seen. Although firm initially, they become softer and
more waxy with time. Lesions are 2–5 mm in size and may occur anywhere. It is more severe in HIV infection.
•• Dermatitis herpetiformis
This occurs in children from 8 years upwards who develop recurrent crops of pruritic papulovesicles over extensor surfaces including
the elbows, buttocks and knees. Many of these children also have a gluten-sensitive enteropathy.
Maculopapular Rashes
Measles
Measles rash is blotchy, red or pink in color, raised in places, and starts behind the ears and on the face, spreading downwards.
The lesions tend to become confluent on the upper part of the body and remain more discrete lower down. The rash fades, usually
after 2–3 days. The skin becomes brown and although desquamation occurs, this is not usually seen on the hands and feet as it is in
the case of scarlet fever.
Rubella
Rubella results in a pink rash which progresses caudally. The lesions are normally discrete and the rash develops more quickly and
disappears earlier than in measles. Desquamation is not a characteristic.
Scarlet fever
The eruption is dark red and punctiform
The rash tends to be most prominent on the neck and in the major skinfolds
A distinctive feature is circumoral pallor as a result of the rash sparing the area around the mouth. As with measles, desquamation is
seen but the hands and feet are involved
True scarlet fever is associated with inflammation of the tongue (white and red strawberry tongue)
Scarlatina refers to the rash which may occur alone in milder streptococcal infection, and is often shortlived.
Pediatrics 229
Kawasaki disease
Although several features are required for the diagnosis of this condition, which is of unknown etiology, the rash may be confused with
that of scarlet fever. Discrete red maculopapules are seen on the feet, around the knees and in the axillary and inguinal skin
creases. Desquamation of the hands and feet is a common feature.
Erythema infectiosum or fifth disease
Infection caused by parvovirus B19 is associated with a rash which develops in two stages
The cheeks appear red and flushed, giving rise to a ‘slapped cheek’ appearance. A maculopapular rash develops 1–2 weeks later,
predominantly over the arms and legs which, as it fades, appears lace-like
Causes nonimmune hydrops is caused by parvo virus.
Roseola infantum
The main cause is human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
Roseola infantum is characterized by a widespread morbilliform (measles-like) rash, seen in its most florid form on the trunk. The
lesions tend to be discrete. As the rash appears, the fever, which is normally present over the previous 4 days, resolves and the child
looks well (in contrast to measles, in which the child is febrile and unwell when the rash appears).
Viral infections
Many viral infections, particularly those associated with the enteroviruses, may cause maculopapular rashes.
Kawasaki Disease
A 2-year-old boy was admitted to a pediatric hospital with a 7-day history of high fever, lymphadenopathy, conjunctivitis and an
erythematous exfoliative rash affecting his trunk and extremities.
Petechial and Purpuric Rashes

•• Meningococcal Infection
The first sign of meningococcal septicemia may be a petechial or purpuric rash anywhere on the body and often localized. On
occasions, these lesions may be preceded by or accompany a maculopapular rash which may blanch
The petechiae will not blanch, and although it is conventional to make a microbiological diagnosis on blood culture, PCR bacteria
can also be isolated from these lesions.
•• Meningococcal petechiae can be confused with those seen on the face around the eyes following events that result in a transient
rise in venous pressure such as vomiting. Rarely petechial rashes are associated with septicemia caused by other bacteria
particularly Hemophilus influenzae.
•• Henoch-Schönlein purpura
This condition often follows an upper respiratory tract infection but no single infective agent has been implicated. Hemorrhagic
macules and papules develop on the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the limbs, particularly the knees and ankles. The lesions
come in crops and fade over a few days, leaving a brown pigmentation.
•• Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
A purpuric rash sometimes associated with frank bleeding is seen in this condition.
•• Leukemia
Children with leukemia may present with a hemorrhagic rash as a result of thrombocytopenia but, in addition, the pallor of severe
anemia will usually be obvious.
Types of Rash
•• Anaphylactoid purpura •• Vasculitis
•• Dermatomyositis •• Violaceous
•• Salmonella •• Evanescent
•• Erythema infectiosum •• Slapped face appearance
•• Infectious mononucleosis •• Drug (ampicillin) induced rash
Henoch-Schönlein Purpura
A 7-year-old boy from Kansas is brought to the emergency department. His parents assert that over the past 3 days, he has
become progressively ill with generalized fatigue and mid-abdominal pain that have become steadily worse. On examination,
he has a maculopapular rash on his thighs and feet with some spread of the rash to his buttocks. The rash does not blanch and
some lesions near the ankles look petechial. His temperature is 103.4 °F. He has dark stool, which is positive for occult blood.
The boy has not voided since early morning and is unable to provide a urine sample. The physician determines that the boy is
dehydrated.
•• Also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a distinct systemic vasculitis syndrome that is characterized by:
–– Palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities)
–– Arthralgias
–– Glomerulonephritis
•• It is a small vessel vasculitis
•• Henoch-Schönlein purpura is usually seen in children; most patients range in age from 4 to 7 years
•• A seasonal variation with a peak incidence in spring has been noted
•• Ig A is the antibody class most often seen in the immune complexes and has been demonstrated in the renal biopsies of these
patients
•• Gastrointestinal involvement, which is seen in almost 70% of pediatric patients, is characterized by colicky abdominal pain
usually associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation and is frequently accompanied by the passage of blood and
mucus per rectum; bowel intussusception may occur rarely
•• It usually resolves spontaneously without therapy. Rarely, a progressive glomerulonephritis will develop
•• Renal failure is the most common cause of death in the rare patient who dies of Henoch-Schönlein purpura
•• Routine laboratory studies generally show a mild leukocytosis, a normal platelet count, and occasionally eosinophilia. Serum
complement components are normal, and IgA levels are elevated in about one-half of patients
•• Treatment: The prognosis of Henoch-Schönlein purpura is excellent. Most patients recover completely, and some do not
require therapy.
Kawasaki Disease
•• Kawasaki disease (also known as ‘lymph node syndrome’, ‘mucocutaneous node disease’, ‘infantile polyarteritis’)
•• Kawasaki disease is an inflammation (vasculitis) of the middle-sized arteries
•• Kawasaki disease affects many organs, including the skin, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, and blood vessel walls, but the ‘most
serious’ effect is on the heart where it can cause ‘severe aneurysmal dilations’.
Classically, five days of fever plus four of five ‘diagnostic criteria’ must be met in order to establish the diagnosis
•• The criteria are:
•• Erythema of the lips or oral cavity or cracking of the lips

•• Rash
•• Swelling or erythema of the hands or feet
•• Red eyes (conjunctival injection)
•• Swollen lymph node in the neck of at least 15 millimeters
Treatment:
Intravenous immunoglobulin + aspirin. Long-term therapy: aspirin. Only condition in children in which aspirin is given. (Causes
Reye’s syndrome.)
Pediatrics 231
Rashes
•• Mnemonic ‘’V’ery ‘S’ick ‘P’atient ‘M’ust ‘T’ake Double Tea.
•• Day 1 of fever: ‘v’aricella zoster
•• Day 2 of fever: ‘s’carlet fever
•• Day 3 of fever: small’p’ox
•• Day 4 of fever: ‘m’easles
•• Day 5 of fever: ‘t’yphus
•• Day 6th- dengue fever
•• Day 7th- typhoid
•• First disease •• Rubeola or measles, (koplik’s spots)

•• Second disease •• Scarlet fever (circumoral pallor, pastia’s lines, strawberry tongue)
•• Third disease •• Rubella (Forchheimer’s spots, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy)
•• Fourth disease •• SSSS (Nikolsky’s sign)
•• Fifth disease •• Erythema infectiosum (parvovirus B19, slapped cheek appearance)
•• Sixth disease •• Exanthem subitum, roseola infantum, HHV 6
SSSS (Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome)

A 3-month-old male infant developed otitis media for which he was given a course of Co-trimoxazole. A few days later, he developed
extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions and the baby was not toxic
SSSS
Simple Important Eponyms (WITHOUT CLUES)

•• 1st day disease: Measles
•• 2nd day disease: Scarlet fever
•• 3rd day disease: Rubella
•• 5th day disease: Erythema infectiosum
•• 6th day disease: Roseola infantum
•• 8th day disease: Tetanus
Kawasaki Disease
•• It is a systemic vasculitis of unknown origin that remains a leading cause of acquired heart disease in infants and children
•• It is a multisystemic disease, also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome. An (unidentified) infectious origin and a T-cell
immune activation play a prominent role in disease pathogenesis
•• Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) receptor levels correlate with the degree of vascular damage and likelihood of coronary
artery aneurysm formation
•• The cardiovascular complications account for most of the morbidity and mortality
•• Fever, bilateral nonexudative conjunctivitis, mucous membrane changes (injected pharynx, cracked lips, or strawberry
tongue), extremity changes (edema, desquamation, erythema, or rash), and cervical adenopathy are common at
presentation.
•• The acute manifestations include myocarditis, valvular insufficiency, arrhythmias, pericardial effusion, and congestive heart
failure with coronary abnormalities; these develop in 15% to 25% of patients
•• Leukocytosis and an elevated C-reactive protein are associated with the development of coronary artery aneurysms
•• Treatment includes aspirin at 80-100 mg/kg/day in divided doses and IV immune globulin in high doses
•• Corticosteroids should be avoided because of the potential link with increasing the likelihood of coronary aneurysm development.
CHROMOSOMAL SYNDROMES
Down’s Syndrome
•• Common trisomy
•• Head circumference is small
•• Brachycephalic skull
•• The neck is short and thick
•• Hypotonicity is present
•• The palpebral fissures slope upwards (i.e. the outer canthus is higher than the inner canthus) and there may be marked epicanthic
folds (HYPOTELORISM)
•• Brushfield’s spots (whitish spots scattered round the periphery of the iris)
•• ↑ Nuchal fold thickness
•• There is an increased incidence of lens opacities. The ears are small with an overfolding helix. The nasal bridge is flat.
•• The tongue appears large and may protrude because the mouth is relatively small. Eruption of the teeth is frequently delayed
with abnormalities in dental positioning. The hair may be fine and sparse
•• Hypothyroidism and VSD can be present
•• Transient myeloproliferative disorder of newborn is seen
•• The hands are short and broad. The fifth finger is short and incurved (clinodactyly). Radiologically this feature is accompanied by
shortening of the shaft of the middle phalanx
•• Iliac index < 60
•• A single transverse palmar crease (or simian crease)
•• A deep plantar crease (sandal gap) between the first and second toe may also be a helpful diagnostic sign
•• Atrioventricular canal and ventricular septal defects are the commonest types of cardiac lesion seen. Intestinal atresia, in
particular, duodenal atresia. Leukemia (CML) is also common
•• Transient myeloproliferative disorder is seen
•• Initially a child with Down may be hypotonic, but the early developmental milestones are eventually reached. Hypothyroidism is
common
•• The ultimate IQ ranges from 20 to 75 with a mean around 50. The earlier assessment of development tends to be more favorable
than the formal measurement of IQ in later childhood
•• It is associated with Alzheimer’s dementia
•• Intellectual function shows a decline with age and this has been attributed to a presenile dementia
•• Triple test is done for Down’s syndrome
•• ↑nuchal fold thickness is a feature of Down’s syndrome
•• Maternal nondisjunction is the mc cause
A 48-year-old woman from Holland delivers a 3126 g newborn male. Her pregnancy was normal except that she noted decreased fetal
movement compared to her previous pregnancies. She declined an amniocentesis offered by her obstetrician. Physical examination
of the newborn reveals an infant with facial features suggestive of Down’s Syndrome. The infant then has bilious vomiting. An X-ray
film showing the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) is performed, which shows a distended and gas-filled stomach and proximal
duodenum and the absence of gas in the distal bowel.
Pediatrics 233
Other causes of mental retardation:

•• Fragile X syndrome
•• Homocystinemia
•• Phenylketonuria
Trisomy 18 (Edward’s Syndrome)

•• There is often polyhydramnios and intrauterine growth retardation.
•• The cranium is long and narrow with a prominent occiput. The ears are low set and frequently underdeveloped.
•• The facies characteristically shows micrognathia and narrow-sloping palpebral fissures.
•• The hands are clenched with the second and fifth fingers overlapping the third and fourth fingers. There may be other flexion
deformities. The nails are hypoplastic.
•• The feet show a ‘rocker bottom’ appearance like the shape of the runners of a rocking chair.
•• A variety of congenital malformations are present. Anomalies of the gastrointestinal tract are particularly common, e.g. intestinal
atresias, malabsorption and exomphalos.
•• Renal abnormalities are also frequent with renal hypoplasia or cystic dysplasia being one of the commoner and more serious
abnormalities. Congenital heart defects, ocular abnormalities and neural tube defects can also occur
•• Most specific marker for neural tube defects is acetylcholine esterase.
Trisomy 13 (Patau’s Syndrome)

•• The affected children show intrauterine growth retardation.
•• There may be marked microcephaly
•• Structural malformations of the brain are common and this may alter facial development. Instead of two cerebral hemispheres with
lateral ventricles, a single forebrain with a single ventricle may form. This malformation sequence is known as holoprosencephaly
•• The process alters the development and separation of optic vesicles from the forebrain and the migration of the median process from the
forehead to form the nose. In its most extreme form, the optic vesicles may fuse to give cyclopia
•• Marked hypotelorism with a small nose and cleft lip and palate. Ocular abnormalities such as microphthalmos are common,
often reflecting the underlying cerebral abnormality.
•• In the hands, postaxial polydactyly is frequent.
•• Flexion contractures and ‘rocker bottom’ feet may also be present. Scalp defects may be helpful diagnostically as they rarely
appear in other abnormalities. Internally, in addition to cerebral malformations, renal and cardiac abnormalities are also frequent.
4p–(WOLF-HIRSCHHORN) Syndrome
•• The features include
–– Microcephaly
–– Hypertelorism
–– Low set simple ears
–– Coloboma cleft palate, renal abnormalities, heart defects and intrauterine growth retardation
•• The facial features are described as resembling a Greek helmet since the flat nasal bridge appears to run in continuity from the glabella
in much the same way that the protective nose piece is incorporated into a Greek helmet.
5p–(CRI DU CHAT) Syndrome

•• It derives its name from the striking cat-like cry that is heard in infancy
•• This cry is related to the hypoplastic larynx and tends to lessen with increasing age and growth of the larynx
•• In the newborn, the face is round with microcephaly, micrognathia and down-slanting palpebral fissures. With further growth,
the microcephaly remains but the face becomes long and narrow
•• Survival into adult life with severe mental retardation has frequently been described.
18q–syndrome
•• The cardinal features are intrauterine growth retardation, profound mental retardation and a ‘carp-shaped mouth’
•• Cleft palate, heart defects and ocular defects are also common. Genital hypoplasia may occur
•• Serum immunoglobulin A (IgA) is decreased in about half the affected individuals.
Deletions of 13q
•• Deletions of 13q14 are associated with retinoblastoma
•• They also characteristically have hypoplastic thumbs and anal atresia
Digeorge Syndrome 22q11 Deletion

•• Different names, e.g. velocardiofacial syndrome or CATCH 22 syndrome
•• About 75% of patients with 22q11 deletion will have significant congenital heart defects. The range of defects is wide but
tetralogy of Fallot and abnormalities in the main arteries are most frequently seen. About 50% of patients will have defects of the
palate. This is often velopharyngeal insufficiency rather than overt cleft palate
•• Hypocalcemia may also occur and is a cause for fits. Other feature is severe immunodeficiency with T cell depletion.
A 5-year-old boy suffers from a condition characterized by recurrent fungal and viral infections, thymic hypoplasia, tetany, and
abnormal facies. Serum levels of immunoglobulins are mildly depressed, and lymph node biopsy shows lymphocyte depletion of
T-dependent areas.
•• The constellation of thymic hypoplasia, hypocalcemia with (Tetany) abnormal facies and congenital cardiac anomalies
defines the condition known as DiGeorge syndrome
•• This results from a developmental failure of third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, which gives rise to congenital absence or
anomalies of the parathyroid, thymus, lower face, and cardiac structures
•• Immune deficiency results from failure of T-lymphocytes to mature in the thymus. Thus, fungal and viral organisms, which are
normally controlled by T-mediated mechanisms, become frequent causes of opportunistic infections
•• The underlying gene defect is related to 22q11 deletion, which results in two partially overlapping conditions.
USMLE Case Scenario

Condition resulting from incomplete separation of the cerebral hemisphere along the midline, leading, in its extreme form, to a
single midline ventricular cavity enclosed within the forebrain. Associated facial anomaly, often associated with trisomy 13, is:
1. Dandy-Walker malformation
2. Holoprosencephaly
3. Arnold-Chiari malformation
4. Myelomeningocele
Ans. 2. Holoprosencephaly
Williams Syndrome
It was initially referred to as infantile hypercalcemia as the biochemical change was the usual presentation, ‘elfin facies’
•• Short stature
•• Supravalvular aortic stenosis
•• Hyperacusis
•• Developmental delay
Angelman Syndrome and Prader-Willi Syndrome

Although these are very different clinical disorders, it is important to consider these together as they can both be due to deletions of
chromosome 15 and illustrate an important biological principle known as genetic imprinting.
Pediatrics 235
Prader-Willi syndrome usually presents with neonatal hypotonia with feeding difficulties and in males, undescended testes
Angelman syndrome presents with severe developmental delay, inappropriate laughter and complex seizures
•• Prader-Willi syndrome is due to paternal deletions
•• Angelman syndrome is due to maternal deletions
This phenomenon would not be predicted by Mendelian inheritance where the paternal origin of a mutation does not usually
matter and is an example of genetic imprinting. It appears that both paternal and maternal chromosome 15s are required in early
embryonic development and that paternal and maternal chromosome 15q12 have different functions. Thus, genetic imprinting
may be defined as the determination of gene expression depending on the parental origin.
SEX CHROMOSOME ABNORMALITIES

Turner’s Syndrome
•• At birth, there is lymphedema especially in the dorsum of the hand and there may be redundant skin over the back of the neck.
(Sequestration of jugular lymph sacs)
•• Hydrops and cystic hygroma are seen in utero and may occasionally be present in the neonate
•• There is a short stature
•• Webbed neck with low posterior hairline
•• The chest is shield-shaped with widely spaced nipples
•• The carrying angle at the elbow is increased (Cubitus valgus)
•• Finger deformities
•• Coarctation of the aorta may also be present
•• Renal tract abnormalities, which include horseshoe kidneys and duplex ureters
•• At puberty, it may present for the first time with primary amenorrhea and failure of secondary sexual development. Streak
gonads are found with ultrasound and at laparotomy. The patients are almost invariably sterile, but menstruation and secondary
sexual development may be induced by estrogen replacement
•• Short fourth metacarpal
•• Have a normal life span
•• Patients with Turner’s syndrome have a 45XO karyotype
47XXX
•• The majority of girls with triple X (47XXX) will not have been brought to medical attention and have had their chromosomes tested.
However, prospective studies have identified some potential differences
•• Their height tends to be greater than average and in statistical terms, there is a slight lowering of mean IQ but no specific
abnormal behavioral patterns
•• Fertility is normal
Klinefelter’s Syndrome (47xxy)

•• Klinefelter’s syndrome of:
– Gynecomastia
– Small atrophic testes and
– Absent spermatogenesis (azoospermia) in phenotypic males
– It is associated with an abnormal karyotype (47XXY)
– MC cause of hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism
•• At puberty, however, the secondary sexual characteristics develop poorly and body fat tends to take on a feminine distribution
with gynecomastia in 50% of cases
•• Beard growth is minimal and in adult life, patients will rarely need to shave more than twice a week
•• The testes remain small and infertility may be the presenting feature in adult males. Sexual function is normal, although the libido
is reduced
•• The testosterone levels are low and the gonadotrophin levels elevated and testosterone replacement may be helpful
•• Testicular histology shows an increase in Leydig cells and interstitial fibrosis. Height is usually increased with relatively long
limbs
•• Subnormal intelligence
It is best diagnosed with a 47, XXY karyotype, although variants with 46, XY exist. This condition is characterized by small
testes, disproportionately long arms and legs (secondary to delayed epiphyseal plate closure in puberty), infertility, and
gynecomastia. Mental retardation and learning disability are common. Many men are not diagnosed until adulthood when
they seek medical attention for infertility. Our patient clearly has these traits. Patients with Klinefelter’s syndrome often have
an unexplained increase in follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone. This increase occurs even in patients
with normal testosterone levels. Low follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone and testosterone are typical for a
secondary form of hypogonadism. Secondary hypogonadism is not associated with gynecomastia because patients don’t
have an increase in conversion of testosterone to estradiol, which is stimulated by follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing
hormone.
Fragile X Mental Retardation

•• It is now recognized as the second commonest cause of mental handicap in males after Down’s syndrome
•• Fragile X males have a:
–– Large forehead
–– Large head
–– Prominent chin and
–– Long ears
•• Fragile X males tend to be larger at birth
•• Macroorchidism is present: The size of the testes may be considerably enlarged
•• There is a slight increase in the frequency of mitral valve prolapse, aortic root dilatation and hernias. More striking clinically is
the soft skin and joint hypermobility, which may be helpful diagnostically
•• The range of intellectual handicap in fragile X males varies but most are moderately to severely retarded.
Torch Infections
The acronym TORCH has been used to summarize the infections toxoplasma, rubella, CMV and herpes, to which should
be added human immunodeficiency virus and varicella zoster.
•• Rubella
Rubella infection in the first 16 weeks of pregnancy can result in a severely damaged baby with:
•• Cataracts
•• Sensorineural deafness
•• Congenital heart disease (PDA), ASD, VSD, PDA
•• Microcephaly
•• Hepatosplenomegaly
The condition is preventable by achieving high immunization coverage.
Pediatrics 237
•• CMV
Can present in a dramatic form with jaundice and petechiae, the ‘blueberry muffin’ baby. Most babies who are symptomatic at birth
will be handicapped. Only small percentage of babies born with congenital CMV infection are symptomatic. However, most babies are
being clinically unaffected by the infection.
•• Varicella zoster
Can result in severe damage with cicatricial skin scarring, cataracts and seizures.
Can result in severe illness in newborns. There is a high incidence of meningitis and encephalitis.
•• Human immunodeficiency virus
This retrovirus can cause meningitis and encephalopathy. Neurological manifestations include encephalopathy and microcephaly.
•• Toxoplasma gondii
–– This protozoan can cause neurological sequelae when acquired in uterine life and the diagnosis is important because the
condition is treatable
–– The organism is mainly acquired from cat litter or consumption of undercooked meat
–– The classic is of hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis and intracranial calcification is seen
–– MC Manifestation: Chorioretinitis
Syphilis
Early Congenital Syphilis Snuffles or rhinitis is the early feature
•• Vesico bullous lesions (not found in any other variety of syphilis)
•• Snail track ulcers on oral mucosa
Late Congenital Syphilis
•• Hutchinson’s triad (Hutchinson’s teeth + 8th cranial nerve deafness+ Interstitial keratitis)
•• Moon’s molars and maldevelopment of the maxilla resulting in ‘bulldog’ facies are typical
•• Saddle nose
•• Saber tibia
•• Mulberry molars
•• Rhagades The infant may fail to thrive and have a characteristic ‘old man’ look, with fissured lesions around the mouth (rhagades)
and a mucopurulent or blood-stained nasal discharge causing snuffles
•• Frontal bossing of Parrot
•• Peroistitis (Higoumenakis sign)
•• IgM FTA ABS best diagnoses congenital syphilis
•• Cataract, deafness, IUGR, patent ductus arteriosus •• Rubella

•• Chorioretinitis, intracerebral calcification, jaundice •• Toxoplasmosis
•• Chorioretinitis, periventricular manifestations, microcephaly •• CMV
•• Limb hypoplasia, cutaneous scar, microcephaly, cataract •• Varicella
Maternal Serum Screening

•• Measurements of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) in the second trimester constitute the
Double test
•• The addition of unconjugated estriol (μE3) makes the Triple test
•• The addition of μE3 and inhibin A makes the Quadruple test
Jaundice in Pediatrics
Causes of ‘Unconjugated’ hyperbilirubenimia are:
•• Criggler najar Syndrome I, Criggler najar Syndrome II
•• Hemolytic anemia
•• Physiological jaundice
•• Breast milk jaundice
•• Excessive RBC destruction (Rh incompatibility, G6PD deficiency, spherocytosis, vitamin K, sulfamethoxazole)
Causes of ‘Conjugated’ hyperbilirubenemia are:

•• Parenchymal diseases (Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, CMV, Herpes infection)
•• Neonatal hepatitis syndrome
•• Biliary atresia (intrahepatic/extrahepatic)
•• Watson-Alagille syndrome
•• Choledochal cyst
•• Dubin-Johnson syndrome, Rotor syndrome
•• Commonest cause in newborn: Idiopathic infantile hepatitis
Remember
•• Jaundice appearing on the first day in any newborn and a bilirubin concentration >10 mg/dl in premature infants or >15 mg/dl in
full-term infants warrant investigation
•• Physiological jaundice usually appears on 3rd day and disappears by 7th day
•• When the blood level of bilirubin is about 4 to 5 mg/dl, jaundice becomes apparent
•• In kernicterus, unconjugated bilirubin is increased
•• In kernicterus, staining of brain is more in basal ganglia
•• With increasing bilirubin levels, visible jaundice advances in a head-to-foot direction
•• MC cause of jaundice in a newborn within 24 hours is erythroblastosis fetalis
•• Breast milk jaundice is due to pregnanediole
Physiological Jaundice
•• Jaundice not present on day 1
•• Total bilirubin level rises < 5 mg/dl/day
•• Total bilirubin does not exceed 13 mg/dl in term infants and 15 mg/dl in preterm infants
•• Jaundice should not last more than one week in term infants or 2 weeks in preterm infants
Causes of Prolonged Neonatal Jaundice

•• Galactosemia
•• Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

•• Tyrosenemia
•• GH deficiency
Pediatrics 239
Gilbert’s Syndrome
•• Common, benign, inherited condition
•• Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
•• Common in males
•• ↓UDP glucoronyl transferase activity
•• Normal LFT
•• Normal liver histology
•• Stress, fatigue, alcohol use, ↓ caloric intake, illness ↑ serum bilirubin
Idiopathic Neonatal Hepatitis

•• Also known as Giant Cell Hepatitis
•• It is cholestatic jaundice in nature
•• Cause is unknown
•• Among all cases of intrahepatic cholestasis, it accounts for about of the 50% cases (MC)
•• Typical feature in liver histology is the appearance of giant cells
•• Conditions with similar features clinically and histologically:
–– Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
–– Alagille syndrome
–– Byler disease
–– Viral infections
Alagille Syndrome
•• Alagille syndrome is an autosomal dominant (AD) disorder
•• There is an error in development of bile ducts, heart, CNS and face
•• Neonatal intrahepatic cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly with xanthomas with teratology of fallot and coarctation of
aorta are a feature
•• Supplementation of vitamins A, D, E, K and ursodeoxycholic acid is initially used for treatment
•• Liver transplant is selectively used
•• A liver biopsy may indicate too few bile ducts (bile duct paucity)
Other signs of Alagille syndrome include:
•• Congenital heart problems, particularly tetralogy of fallot
•• Unusual butterfly shape of the bones of the spinal column
•• Many people with Alagille syndrome have similar facial features, including a broad, prominent forehead, deep-set eyes, and a small
pointed chin. The kidneys and central nervous system may also be affected.
A full-term infant is brought to the office on her 6th day of life because her mother noted that she looked ‘yellow’. The mother states
that the infant is strictly breast-fed and has been eating every 2-3 hours. On examination, she is noted to be jaundiced over her trunk
and face. There is no scleral icterus. She is otherwise healthy. Both the mother and baby are Rh positive. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of this infant’s jaundice?
Breastfeeding jaundice
Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

•• Pyloric stenosis develops in approximately 3 per 1000 live births with a male to female preponderance of 4:1
•• Appears around 2 weeks after birth
•• A thickening of the pyloric muscle results in gastric outlet obstruction with resulting vomiting
•• Symptoms of projectile vomiting occurring 10–20 min after a feed develops between the second and fourth weeks of life,
although they can occasionally occur either sooner or at up to 4 months of age
•• With progressive vomiting, the infants lose weight and may eventually become dehydrated and alkalotic (hypokalemic
metabolic alkalosis)
•• Compensation is by: paradoxical aciduria with hyponatremia and hypochloremia
•• On clinical examination, gastric peristaltic activity may be seen, and palpation of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
during a test feed will reveal the pyloric tumor in most cases
•• The initial management of the patient after the diagnosis has been confirmed is intravenous rehydration and correction of any
acid-base disturbance
•• The patient should then undergo a Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy where the pyloric muscle is split down to the mucosa.
Pyloric Stenosis
A four-week-old boy is brought to the pediatric emergency department by his father who states that he has been vomiting after
being fed for the past several days. She describes the vomitus as nonbilious, and he has had normal stools with no blood in them. On
examination, the infant appears to be mildly dehydrated, his abdomen is soft, and there is a palpable, olive-sized, firm movable mass
in the right upper quadrant.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-week-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has become dehydrated during his first few weeks
of life and is vomiting frequently. The parents state that the infant vomits after each feeding but he is always hungry. The emesis is
nonbilious in color. On examination, the infant is afebrile and the anterior fontanelle is sunken. Abdominal examination shows visible
gastric peristaltic waves and a 2.2 cm firm, mobile mass above and to the right of the umbilicus in the midepigastrium beneath the
liver edge.
Cystic Fibrosis
•• Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition
•• The underlying defect results from one of a number of possible mutations, in a chloride transporter protein which lines ductular
epithelium
•• As a result, abnormal sweat chloride test
•• Lung is normal at birth
•• This results in inspissation of mucus in the ducts of the pancreas and in the bronchial and biliary trees with the resulting
development of pancreatic insufficiency, chronic respiratory disease and biliary cirrhosis
•• Causes intractable diarrhea in children
•• Pancreatic insufficiency: The inspissated concretions result in distension of the ducts and acini of the pancreas which with time
progress to the formation of small cysts with destruction and fibrosis of the exocrine tissue. As a consequence of this, the output
of pancreatic enzymes and bicarbonate falls, leading to pancreatic insufficiency
•• Patients with cystic fibrosis have pancreatic insufficiency with resulting malabsorption and steatorrhea
Meconium Ileus
•• Fibrosis may present in the first day or two of life with vomiting and abdominal distension due to meconium ileus
(mucoviscidosis)
•• This obstruction to the small intestine with thick tenacious meconium may be complicated by volvulus, atresia or peritonitis
•• Plain abdominal X-ray will show dilated loops of intestine with meconium, outlined by trapped air, present in the obstructed
segment of bowel and
•• Gastrografin enema will reveal a microcolon distal to the obstruction.
Pediatrics 241
Shwachman’s Syndrome
•• This autosomal recessive condition is characterized by the presence of neutropenia with impairment of neutrophil function
•• The diagnosis should be considered in any child with pancreatic insufficiency, a normal sweat test and neutropenia.
(Mucoviscidosis; Fibrocystic Disease of the Pancreas; Pancreatic Cystic Fibrosis)

•• An inherited disease of the exocrine glands, primarily affecting the GI and respiratory systems, and usually characterized by the
triad of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, and abnormally high sweat electrolytes
•• CF is carried as an autosomal recessive trait
•• The gene responsible for CF has been localized to 250,000 base pairs of genomic DNA on chromosome 7q (the long arm)
•• It encodes a membrane-associated protein called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)
•• Nearly all exocrine glands are affected in varying distribution and degree of severity
Involved Glands Fall into 3 Types

•• Those that become obstructed by viscid or solid eosinophilic material in the lumen (pancreas, intestinal glands, intrahepatic
bile ducts, gallbladder, submaxillary glands)
•• Those that produce an excess of histologically normal secretions (tracheobronchial and Brunner’s glands)
•• Those that are normal histologically but secrete excessive Na and Cl (sweat, parotid, and small salivary glands)
•• Aspermia and infertility are seen in 98% of adult men secondary to maldevelopment of the vas deferens. In women, fertility is
decreased secondary to viscid cervical secretions, but many women with CF have carried pregnancies to term. However, maternal
complications and fetal wastage show an increased incidence.
–– In infants without meconium ileus, onset is frequently heralded by a delay in regaining birthweight and inadequate weight
gain at 4 to 6 weeks of age.
–– Pancreatic insufficiency is clinically apparent in 85 to 90% of patients. It is usually present early in life but may be progressive.
–– Manifestations include the passage of frequent, bulky, foul-smelling, oily stools; abdominal protuberance; and poor
growth pattern with decreased subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass, despite a normal or voracious appetite.
–– Rectal prolapse occurs in 20% of untreated infants and toddlers.
–– In arid climates, infants may present with chronic metabolic alkalosis. Findings of salt crystal formation on the skin and a salty
taste on the skin are highly suggestive of CF.
–– Fifty percent of all patients present with pulmonary manifestations usually consisting of chronic cough and wheezing
associated with recurrent or chronic pulmonary infections.
Laboratory Findings
•• Since meconium in most neonates with CF contains large amounts of serum proteins (especially albumin), meconium examination
has been used as the basis of a newborn screening test. Pancreatic insufficiency is present in about 85% of patients with CF
•• The serum concentration of immunoreactive trypsin is elevated in newborns with CF
Causes of Neonatal Obstruction

Congenital Atresias
•• Duodenal (mc)
•• Jejunal
•• Ileal
•• Colonic
–– Arrested rotation
–– Meconium ileus
–– Hirschsprung’s disease
–– Volvulus neonatorum (Barium meal follow-through is DOC)
Intussusception
•• Intussusception is one of the acute abdominal emergencies occurring in children. In children, three months to three years of age
without prior abdominal surgery, intussusception is the most common cause of an acquired intestinal obstruction. It is believed
that enlarged intramural lymphoid tissue (Peyer’s patches) in the small bowel may act as a lead point for the development of an
idiopathic intussusception with invagination of the distal small bowel into the cecum and colon. Other structural lesions such as
a Meckel’s diverticulum, duplication cyst, polyp or lymphoma may be lead points for an intussusception. However, these
associated lead points are more frequently identified in children younger than three months of age, older than five years of age, or
in children with multiple recurrent episodes of intussusception
•• A child with intussusception typically has intermittent episodes of abdominal pain, emesis and bloody or ‘currant jelly’
stools. However, the clinical presentation may be varied, occasionally with diarrhea, a palpable abdominal mass or lethargy with
delay in treatment. Plain films may be diagnostic if a soft-tissue mass in the cecum or transverse colon is identified or strongly
suggestive of intussusception with a distal small bowel obstruction in a young child with no prior abdominal surgery. However,
plain films are frequently unrevealing. Therefore, if intussusception is suspected, clinically further imaging evaluation is warranted
•• Intussusception has a characteristic appearance on ultrasound (US). On transverse imaging through an intussusception, a
‘target’ or ‘donut’ sign is seen with a peripheral rim of hypoechoic tissue and a hyperechoic center. On longitudinal imaging
through the intussusception, the intussusceptum can be seen extending into the intussuscipiens.
•• Outer tube •• Intussuscipiens

•• Inner tube •• Intussceptum
•• Most common •• Iliocolic type
•• Most infantile cases •• Idiopathic
Secondary causes:
•• Meckel’s diverticulum
•• Polyps/carcinomas
•• Duplication cysts
•• Lipoma
•• Purpura
•• Lymphoma
•• Intermittent colicky pain with screaming, vomiting with red currant jelly stools
•• Sausage-shaped periumbilical mass
•• Commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in children: intussusception
•• Empty right iliac fossa (signe de dance)
•• Step ladder peristalsis
•• Initially hydrostatic reduction is done
•• Laparotomy with reduction is done in complicated cases and those failing initially
Features of intussusception
Pediatrics 243
•• X-ray features show:

–– Target sign
–– Meniscus sign
•• Barium enema shows:
–– Claw sign
–– Coiled spring sign
•• USG signs are:
–– Target sign
–– Bull’s eye sign
–– Pseudokidney sign
–– Hayfork and sandwich appearance
Hirschsprung’s Disease
•• There is absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexuses (both Auerbach’s and Meissner’s) of the most distal bowel and
extending proximally for a variable distance
•• Aganglionosis involving only the rectum or rectosigmoid is often termed ‘short segment’ Hirschsprung’s disease and affects
males five times more commonly than females
•• ‘Long segment’ Hirschsprung’s disease, extending above the sigmoid
•• Associated congenital anomalies are:
–– Down’s syndrome
–– Waardenburg’s syndrome
–– Cartilage-hair hypoplasia syndrome
•• Usually the symptoms of Hirschsprung’s disease are manifest within the first few days of life
•• Failure to pass meconium within the first 24 h, abdominal distention, bile-stained vomiting and reluctance to feed are the main
symptoms
•• Diarrhea may be the presenting feature of Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis, a devastating complication of the condition which
has a high mortality
•• A plain abdominal X-ray shows distended small and large bowel, sometimes with multiple fluid levels on an erect film. Distal
segment is constricted, proximal segment is dilated
•• A barium enema is best carried out without a previous rectal examination as then the narrow aganglionic bowel with dilation
proximally is demonstrated
•• Definitive diagnosis is by rectal biopsy.
Duodenal Atresia
•• Associated with Down’s syndrome
•• Atresia at the level of ampulla of vater
•• Double bubble sign on radiograph
•• Mc cause of acute intestinal obstruction in neonates
•• Duodenojujenostomy is the procedure of choice
Reye’s Syndrome
Reye’s syndrome is the best known example of secondary mitochondrial hepatopathy
Mitochondrial changes include:
•• Microvesicular steatosis
•• Swelling of mitochondrial matrix
•• Dissolution of cristae/appearance of granules
•• Ameboid shapes
•• Reye’s syndrome is an encephalopathy with fatty degeneration of liver

•• In liver peripheral zonal hepatic necrosis is seen
•• Liver is yellow, enlarged with diffuse microvacuolization of cells
•• In renal tubules, fatty changes in renal tubular cells are seen
•• In brain cerebral edema and neuronal degeneration are seen
•• It usually occurs in children
•• Patients have a history of recent viral upper respiratory tract infection or varicella
•• Adeno, herpes, influenza are common precipitants
•• Use of aspirin also leads to Reye’s syndrome
•• Hypoglycemia, hypoglycorrhea, ↑AST, ALT.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-year-old girl has chickenpox. A week after the onset of the rash, she begins vomiting and becomes lethargic and
comatose. Laboratory examination is significant for elevated liver enzymes and ammonia. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
1. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
2. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
3. Gilbert’s syndrome
4. Reye’s syndrome
Ans. 4. Reye’s syndrome
Wilson’s Disease
It is an AR disorder
•• Chromosome 13 is involved
•• The diagnosis is confirmed by the demonstration of either:
–– A serum ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/dl and Kayser-Fleischer rings or
–– A serum ceruloplasmin level < 20 mg/dl and a concentration of copper in a liver biopsy sample >250 mg/g dry weight
–– Most symptomatic patients excrete > 100 mg copper per day in urine and have histologic abnormalities on liver biopsy
Pathognonic features are:
–– Hepatic dysfunction: Jaundice, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, portal hypertension
–– Eye changes: Brownish or grayish Kayser-Fleischer ring in Descemet’s membrane in cornea. These golden deposits of
copper in Descemet’s membrane of the cornea do not interfere with vision but indicate that copper has been released from
the liver and has probably caused brain damage
–– If a patient with frank neurologic or psychiatric disease does not have Kayser-Fleischer rings when examined by a trained
observer using a slit lamp, the diagnosis of Wilson’s disease can be excluded
–– Rarely, Kayser-Fleischer rings may be accompanied by sunflower cataracts
–– The neurologic manifestations include resting and intention tremors, spasticity, rigidity, chorea, drooling, dysphagia, and
dysarthria. Babinski responses may be present, and abdominal reflexes are often absent. Sensory changes never occur,
except for headache
–– Psychiatric disturbances are present in most patients with neurologic symptoms. Schizophrenia, manic-depressive psychoses,
and classic neuroses may occur, but the commonest disturbances are bizarre behavioral patterns that defy classification
Treatment consists of removing and detoxifying the deposits of copper as rapidly as possible and must be instituted once the
diagnosis is secure, whether the patient is ill or asymptomatic
•• Zinc is the DOC
•• Penicillamine
•• Trientine
•• Zinc acetate or gluconate are effective as maintenance therapy.
Pediatrics 245
Biliary Atresia
•• It is a disorder of unknown cause where a destructive sclerosing inflammatory process causes obstruction of the extrahepatic
bile ducts and extends into the major intrahepatic bile ducts
•• By 6–10 weeks of age, the portal blood pressure is increased. Cirrhosis rapidly develops
Clinical features:
•• The first sign is prolongation of jaundice. The urine is always yellow. The stools contain no yellow or green pigment
•• Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
•• Acholic stools
•• Biliary atresia must be considered in any infant remaining jaundiced beyond 14 days of age
•• Percutaneous liver biopsy showing the features described above in all portal tracts is suggestive. Diagnosis of it is confirmed at
laparotomy
•• Complications: Cholangitis occurs in a significant minority of cases in the first 2 years after surgery. Portal hypertension is present
in almost all cases
•• The prognosis is transformed by the Kasai operation and with liver.
A four-month-old presents with cholestasis. Biopsy shows inflammation and fibrosing stricture of the hepatic or common bile ducts;
inflammation of major intrahepatic bile ducts, with progressive destruction of the intrahepatic biliary tree, marked bile ductular
proliferation, portal tract edema and fibrosis, and parenchymal cholestasis); and periportal fibrosis and cirrhosis.
Choledochal Cyst
•• In this disorder, there is enlargement or dilatation of part or all the extrahepatic biliary system
•• Bile flow may be obstructed with intrahepatic changes similar to those of biliary atresia, progressing to cirrhosis
–– Recurrent abdominal pain
–– Episodic jaundice
–– Right upper quadrant mass
–– Or silent up to childhood are features
•• Type 1 (dilatation of common bile duct) is commonest
•• Cholangitis
•• Cyst rupture
•• Pancreatitis
•• Gallstones
•• Carcinoma of the cyst wall
•• In infancy, it presents with features of neonatal cholestasis
–– In older children, there may be recurrent upper abdominal pain, recurrent jaundice and/or a palpable cystic mass but the
classical triad is rare
–– The treatment is surgical removal with biliary drainage via a Roux-en-Y loop
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-week-old infant is jaundiced. Findings include weight and length at the 75th percentile for age; icterus; with
hepatosplenomegaly; total bilirubin, 6.8 mg/dl; direct bilirubin, 5.9 mg/dl; alanine aminotransferase activity, 139 U/L;
aspartate aminotransferase activity, 149 U/L; and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase activity, 1050 U/L. Of the following, the
BEST study to evaluate the excretion of bile from the liver is:
1. Computed tomography of the liver
2. Hepatic ultrasonography
3. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy
4. Spiral CT
5. Indigo carmine
6. Rose Bengal test
Ans. 3. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy
Caroli’s Disease
•• Congenital, autosomal recessive disorder
•• Communicating cavernous ectasia of intrahepatic biliary ducts. Kindly note this point. It differentiates the disease from
choledochal cyst
•• Cystic structures (multiple) converging towards porta hepatis
•• Central dot sign on CT scan
•• Cholangiography most diagnostic
•• Congenital hepatic fibrosis and cystic (polycystic) kidney disease are associations.
Clinical Scenarios. Highlighted text underlined. Don’t look at the answers initially. Try to make diagnosis reading the left
column only.
•• Within 6 hours of birth a baby with excessive salivation. NG tube insertion shows tube •• TE fistula
coiling back and air in GIT
•• A newborn is found to be tachypneic, cyanotic and grunting. Abdomen is scaphoid •• Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
with bowel sounds heard in chest
•• A newborn with green-colored vomitus in first day of life not passing meconium. X-ray •• Intestinal atresia
shows multiple air fluid levels and distended bowel
•• A prematurely born baby has feeding intolerance and early abdominal distension •• Necrotizing enterocolitis
•• A 2-year-old boy has fractured humerus, subdural hematoma and retinal hemorrhages •• Suspect child abuse
•• A 3-month-old has chronic constipation, abdominal distension. X-ray shows dilated •• Hirschsprung’s disease
bowel loops
•• A 3-week-old has non bilious, projectile vomiting with visible peristalsis and mass in •• Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
right upper abdomen
•• A 7-year-old with bloody bowel movement •• Meckel’s diverticulitis
Common Causes of Chronic Diarrheas

•• Lactase deficiency
•• Cow’s milk intolerance
•• Irritable bowel
•• Inflammatory bowel
•• Giardiasis
•• Celiac disease
A 12-year-old boy has a productive cough characterized by large volumes of foul-smelling sputum. Three years ago, the patient was
diagnosed with pancreatic insufficiency, as evidenced by repetitive gastrointestinal symptoms of steatorrhea. After culture of the
sputum, colorless, oxidase-positive colonies with a fruity aroma develop on the agar. Most likely cause is:
Cystic Fibrosis
Pneumatosis Intestinalis
•• Pneumatosis intestinalis, defined as gas in the bowel wall, is often first identified on abdominal radiographs or computed
tomography (CT) scans
•• It is a radiographic finding and not a diagnosis, as the etiology varies from benign conditions to fulminant gastrointestinal disease
•• In neonates, pneumatosis is usually secondary to NEC and indicates a later stage of the disease
•• NEC is seen almost exclusively in premature infants and is associated with bowel ischemia caused by bacterial invasion and
hyperosmolar feeds. Mesenteric vascular occlusion leads to ischemic damage of the mucosa, which allows luminal gas and bacteria
to invade the bowel wall
•• Pneumatosis intestinalis is considered an ‘ominous finding’ in ischemia, especially in association with portomesenteric venous
gas.
Pediatrics 247
Pneumatosis Intestinalis occurs in 2 forms

•• Primary pneumatosis intestinalis (15% of cases) is a benign idiopathic condition in which multiple thin-walled cysts develop
in the submucosa or subserosa of the colon. Usually, this form has no associated symptoms, and the cysts may be found
incidentally through radiography or endoscopy. When the cysts protrude into the lumen, they may mimic polyps or carcinomas, as
shown on barium enema studies. This primary form is often termed pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis
•• The secondary form (85% of cases) is associated with obstructive pulmonary disease, as well as with obstructive and necrotic
gastrointestinal disease.
The Disease is seen in Other Conditions, Including

•• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
•• Connective tissue disorders
•• Infectious enteritis
•• Celiac disease
•• Leukemia
•• Amyloidosis and
•• Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
It is also found in association with organ transplantation, steroid use and chemotherapy
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Choanal Atresia
•• This rare anomaly is due to failure of breakdown of the nasobuccal membrane which normally occurs at 6 weeks’ fetal
development
•• Of the cases, 50% are associated with the CHARGE syndrome – choanal atresia with ear, eye, heart and genital defects
•• Gasping respiration in a neonate is suggestive of choanal atresia
•• Bilateral choanal atresia is a neonatal emergency
•• The diagnosis is by suspicion, by inability to pass a catheter along the nose and confirmation by endoscopic examination
•• The treatment consists of establishment of an airway, either oral or orotracheal.
A newborn infant is in respiratory distress and requires several attempts at resuscitation in the delivery room because of difficulty
breathing and frequent cyanosis. The neonatologist notes that during crying, her breathing improves and breath and heart sounds
are normal. Direct laryngoscopy is unremarkable as well. Deep inspirations by the neonate are ineffective. Which of the following is
the most effective intervention?
The patient most likely has choanal atresia, which is the presence of a congenital membrane between the nose and the pharynx.
Since most newborns are obligate nose breathers, spells of crying force mouth breathing, improving the ventilation. If unilateral, the
atresia may not cause symptoms. Intubation via the oropharynx will provide immediate relief and surgery should then be performed
to correct the atresia.
•• Transient tachypnea of newborn •• Self-limited

•• Seen after cesarean section
•• Tachypnea, mild retractions and grunting seen
•• CXR shows fluid in fissure and prominent vascular markings, air bronchogram and
reticular shadows
•• Meconium aspiration syndrome •• Meconium aspirated
•• CXR shows patchy infiltration
•• Mechanical ventilation, NO, ECMO are used
Foreign-Body Aspiration
A 2-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by her parents because of an acute attack of wheezing. At one point, they
noticed that something was wrong because she was gasping for breath and became very frightened and quiet. They looked in her
mouth, thinking she had swallowed something, as there were lots of snacks and food lying around, but they could not see anything.
The patient has an unremarkable medical history with no prior respiratory problems. She is not allergic to any foods or drugs. On
physical examination, the patient is in severe respiratory distress, drooling and continuously attempting to swallow. Nasal flaring and
intercostal retractions are present. She appears cyanotic. Breath sounds are decreased bilaterally.
Foreign-body aspiration is most commonly seen in children 1 to 3 years of age because of the size of the trachea, the lessening of
parental supervision secondary to increased independence of the child, and the tendency of small children to put objects in their
mouths. Foreign bodies include hot dogs, peanuts, beans, coins, buttons, nuts, deflated balloons, etc. When aspirated, these items
may go to the airway or the esophagus.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-month-old child presents with a 4-day history of fever, deepening cough, and dyspnea. A chest X-ray shows multiple
interstitial infiltrates and hyperinflation of the lungs. Multinucleated giant cells with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies are seen
when a nasal wash is inoculated into culture. Diagnosis is:
Bronchiolitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-week-old infant is brought with a 7-day history of coughing and choking spells. The white blood cell count is elevated with
80% lymphocytes. The child is gasping for breath, experiencing paroxysms of coughing. Encapsulated; gram-negative rods
grow out on Bordet-Gengou media. Likely diagnosis is:
Pertusis
Diaphragmatic Hernia
•• The commonest herniation is the Bochdalek type, a posterolateral defect, possibly a failure of closure of the pleuroperitoneal
canal
•• A hernia through the Foramen of Morgagni (Retrosternal) is less common in neonates. This defect is retrosternal, to the right
or left of the midline
•• The third site for herniation is the Esophageal hiatus—the so-called hiatus hernia
•• Majority present with respiratory distress—cyanosis, dyspnea and tachypnea—either immediately after birth or within a few
hours
•• Most common on left side
•• Examination reveals a scaphoid abdomen, bowel sounds on auscultation of the affected side of the chest and a shift of
the apex beat to the right in the case of a left-sided hernia. Once air has been swallowed after birth, a chest X-ray confirms
the diagnosis, showing gas-filled loops of bowel on the affected side of the chest with displacement of the mediastinum to the
opposite side
•• Treatment: A nasogastric tube is passed to reduce the gaseous distention of the bowel with air.
Eventration of the Diaphragm

•• This is due to a deficiency in the muscle of the diaphragm
•• The thin layer becomes attenuated and bulges up into the thorax
•• Extensive eventrations are similar to diaphragmatic hernia presenting in the neonatal period
•• Smaller eventrations present later and require localized plication
•• Congenital diaphragmatic hernia are present along with polyhydramnios.
Pediatrics 249
HMD (Hyaline Membrane Disease)

•• Most neonates with HMD demonstrate clinical findings of respiratory distress in the delivery room or during the first few hours
of life. (6) HOURS
HM is made of fibrin
•• The condition starts with an increase in breathing rate, with respiration then becoming labored and more rapid
•• It is due to surfactant deficiency resulting in poor lung compliance and atelectasis
•• Seen in diabetics, premature babies
•• In addition to the early onset of respiratory distress, clinical features include:
–– Tachypnea
–– Intercostal and sternal retractions, expiratory grunt
–– Nasal flaring
–– Decreased lung compliance.
Four Radiographic Features Characteristic of HMD are

•• Reduced lung volume, with expansion only to the fifth, sixth or seventh thoracic vertebrae, rather than to the eighth or ninth, as
found in the normally expanded chest. The reduced lung expansion is a consequence of atelectasis, which occurs due to a lack of
surfactant. Also, the diaphragms will appear unusually high and sometimes domed, and the intercostal spaces will appear narrow
•• Air bronchograms or the outlines of air-filled secondary and tertiary bronchi are seen over abnormal lung fields. Because normally
expanded lungs and the overlying bronchi are of air density, air bronchograms are not generally seen in the lung fields on a normal
chest X-ray
•• A reticulogranular/reticulonodular pattern, or ground glass appearance, uniformly distributed throughout both the lung
fields. Because of surfactant deficiency, some alveoli in the lung collapse from high surface tension. The alveoli that remain
distended have lower surface tension. Air entering the lung goes only to the area of lowest pressure, creating the image of ground
glass
•• Increased lung opacification. When diffuse lung opacification becomes visible, it usually is the result of nonexpanded alveoli
with little or no terminal airway aeration. The heart borders may be visible initially, but the X-ray may progress to a complete loss
of visualization of the heart borders, called a ‘whiteout’
•• Confirmed by chest X-ray

•• L/S > 2 indicates lung maturity
Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis (PAP)

•• PAP presents in infancy with progressive respiratory distress
•• In some children, it may be related to a form of immune deficiency, such as thymic atrophy, lymphopenia and immunoglobulin
deficiency
•• CXR shows a ground glass appearance
•• HRCT, a typical cobblestone appearance.
USMLE Case Scenario

A male born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy, labor and delivery develops severe respiratory distress within a few
hours of birth. Results of routine culture were negative. The chest roentgenogram reveals a normal heart shadow and fine
reticulonodular infiltrates radiating from the hilum. ECHO findings reveal no abnormality. Family history reveals similar
clinical course and death of a male and female sibling at 1 month and 2 months of age respectively.
Bronchiolitis
•• Caused by RSV mainly. Commonly in children less than 2 years
•• Self-limiting
•• Ribavirin DOC
•• Leads to asthma
•• Humidified oxygen
Distinct Symptoms of RSV Bronchiolitis Include

•• Rhinorrhea (runny nose)
•• Wheezing and coughing (can persist for several months in severe infections)
•• Irritability and restlessness (usually in those with impending respiratory failure)
•• Low-grade fever (102 °F); but temperatures can be as high as 104 °F when another illness, such as otitis media is present
•• Nasal flaring and retractions (intercostal, subcostal, and sternal) are indicative of airway obstruction. The chest may appear
hyperexpanded and be hyper-resonant to percussion. As a result of hyperexpansion of the lungs, the liver and spleen may be
palpable several centimeters below the costal margins
•• X-ray findings are not pathognomonic, but often show air trapping and hyperinflation or appear normal
•• Apnea, usually as an initial presenting symptom in short episodes. It occurs in approximately 20 to 25% of young infants
•• Circumoral and nailbed cyanosis (severely affected infant).
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7½-month-old child with cough, mild stridor is started on oral antibiotics. The child showed initial improvement but later
developed wheeze, productive cough, and mild fever. X–ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows an obstructive curve.
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness Includes

•• Malaria
•• Diarrhea
•• Acute respiratory infections
Bronchiolitis (Detailed Overview, Important Topic)

The infecting organism in around 75% cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and H. influenzae
•• More common in boys
•• Infants at high risk of severe RSV include those born prematurely, and those with cardiovascular disease, chronic respiratory disease
including bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and cystic fibrosis or immunosuppression
•• Characteristically there is a short prodromal upper respiratory tract illness with coryzal symptoms and low-grade pyrexia,
followed by a relatively sudden onset of tachypnea, hypoxia, a moist cough and difficulty with feeding. Increased work of
breathing is reflected by suprasternal, subcostal and intercostal recession with head bobbing and nasal flaring. The predominant
feature on auscultation is crackles with or without the presence of wheeze. As the chest becomes hyperinflated, the liver is
displaced and is often easily palpable in the abdomen
•• CXR show hyperinflation with multiple areas of interstitial infiltration
•• Current therapy for RSV bronchiolitis is essentially supportive, involving maintenance of hydration and oxygen status. Nasogastric
or intravenous feeding is required if the baby is unable to suck
•• May lead to asthma in later life
•• Ribavirin inhibits viral replication and is the antiviral agent available against RSV
•• Oxygen is helpful
•• RSV immunoglobulin has no role in acute attacks
•• Antibiotics are not used initially
Pediatrics 251
Obliterative Bronchiolitis
•• Obliterative bronchiolitis (OB) has been described in association with infections caused by adenovirus types 3, 7 and 21; measles,
pertussis, influenza A, mycoplasma; after lung transplantation; and secondary to chronic aspiration
•• The clinical course is one of cough, wheeze and tachypnea in an infant or young child, which may be static if the cause is an
infection, or progress at a variable rate to respiratory failure and failure to thrive if there is ongoing aspiration
•• Chest radiography initially shows generalized hyperinflation. HRCT demonstrates patchy air trapping, particularly if the scan
is expiratory
•• Focal hyperlucency involving a lobe or a whole lung represents the radiological appearance of MacLeod’s syndrome, in which the
affected lung appears small and hyperlucent
•• Long-term oxygen dependency is common
•• Improvement after 2–3 years may be seen. The condition is usually stable once the initial effects of the devastating infection have
burnt out, but some may go on to require lung transplantation. OB developing after lung transplant is eventually fatal and the
results of second transplantation are very poor.
Follicular Bronchiolitis
•• Follicular bronchiolitis (FB) is part of the spectrum of lymphoid disorders of the lung, which includes lymphoid interstitial
pneumonia (LIP)
•• There is a polyclonal expansion of lymphoid tissue, probably part of the bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT), which
causes small airway obstruction
•• Presentation is with chronic respiratory distress, and HRCT demonstrates air trapping, sometimes with associated infiltrates.
Inhaled Foreign Bodies

•• Acute onset cough, stridor, dyspnea in a child indicates foreign body inhalation
•• Commonest sign is cough
•• Intrabrochial foreign bodies need bronchoscopy/thoracotomy/ lung resection
•• Immediate procedure is bronchoscopy.
Pulmonary lymphangiectasia
•• This typically presents with relentlessly progressive respiratory distress in a term baby
•• CXR may show dilatation of lymphatics and pleural effusions.
Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
•• This condition, which may be inherited, has a nonspecific presentation but a classical sandstorm appearance on CXR
•• Calcium carbonate stones are formed within the alveoli; the differential diagnosis is other form of pulmonary calcification
•• Pulmonary fibrosis may develop many years later when the patient becomes symptomatic.
•• Asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy (Jeune’s syndrome): This is a rare disorder of the costal cartilages in which the ribs are
shortened and the rib cage narrowed so that lung development is retarded and the lungs are small.
•• Bronchiolitis 0–18 months Respiratory syncytial virus Hyperinflation

•• Laryngotracheobronchitis 1–2 years Parainfluenza virus Steeple sign
•• Epiglottitis 2–5 years H. influenzae Thumb sign
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-month-old child has moderate fever and nonproductive cough and mild dyspnea. After course of mild antibiotic, the
condition of the child improved transiently but he again develops high fever, productive cough and increased respiratory
distress. Chest X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive pattern.
Bronchiolitis
Kartagener’s Syndrome
•• Situs inversus in Kartagener’s Syndrome
It is assumed that during early embryonic life, ciliary beats in the growing embryo determine the type of laterality. When ciliary
movements are absent, laterality may develop fortuitously, thus affecting a situs inversus in about half the affected cases
•• Infertility in Kartagener’s Syndrome
Infertility is common due to defective ciliary action in the fallopian tube in affected females or diminished sperm motility in affected
males
•• The Chest in Kartagener’s Syndrome
Mucociliary clearance is an important primary innate defense mechanism that protects the lungs from deleterious effects of inhaled
pollutants, allergens and pathogens (bronchiectasis)
The main consequence of impaired ciliary function is reduced or absent mucus clearance from the lungs, and susceptibility to chronic
recurrent respiratory infections, including sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia and otitis media.
1. Ciliated columnar epithelia move mucus and other substances via cilia, and are found in the upper respiratory tract, the Fallopian
tubes, the uterus and the central part of the spinal cord.
2. Mucociliary clearance is an important primary innate defense mechanism that protects the lungs from deleterious effects of
inhaled pollutants, allergens, and pathogens.
3. Ciliated columnar epithelium lines the lumen of the uterine tube, where currents generated by the cilia propel the egg cell, toward
the uterus.
4. Cilia are also involved in maintaing left-right axis during embryogenesis.
Pediatric Cardiology
•• A 10-year-old girl with pulmonary flow systolic murmur and fixed split second hear sound ASD
•• A 3-year-old girl with failure to thrive has pansystolic murmur on left sternal border with prominent VSD
pulmonary vascular markings
•• A 5-day-old girl with machinery-like heart murmur and bounding peripheral pulses PDA
•• A 6-year-old with clubbing, cyanosis improved by squatting, systolic ejection murmur in 3rd intercostal Tetralogy of Fallot
space with right ventricular hypertrophy.
•• Alcohol •• VSD mainly

•• Lithium •• Ebstein’s anamoly
•• Phenytoin •• Pulmonic stenosis, aortic stenosis, coarctation, PDA
Right to left shunts:

•• TOF
•• Transposition of great vessels
•• Tricuspid atresia
Left to Right shunts (when Eisenmenger’s complex) is not developed:

•• ASD
•• VSD
•• PDA
Cardiac tumors in childhood:

•• Rhabdomyoma
•• Myxoma
•• Fibroma
Pediatrics 253
ASD:
•• Commonest: Ostium secondum defects
•• Systolic ejection murmur in left, mid and upper sternal borders
•• A wide fixed split of S2
•• Left parasternal heave is seen
•• CXR: Enlarged RA, RV not LA
•• Seen in Holt-Oram syndrome
VSD:
•• Holosystolic murmur at left lower sternal border
•• Thrill associated
•• LVF, biventricular hypertrophy with left axis deviation
•• Close spontaneously in 30-50% cases
PDA:
•• Failure of closure of ductus arteriosus
•• Blood flows from aorta to pulmonary artery both during systole and diastole
•• Seen in rubella
•• Hypoxia and prematurity predispose
•• ‘Differential cyanosis’ is seen
•• ‘Machinery murmur’ which is continuous. Heard at 2nd left intercostal space
•• CXR: Prominent pulmonary artery
•• PG inhibitors stimulate closure of PDA
Coarctation of Aorta
•• Mostly below origin of left subclavian artery
•• Acyanotic
•• Seen in Turner’s syndrome and associated with bicuspid aortic valve
•• Upper extremity, hypertension, headache, dizziness, intermittent claudication
•• Lower extremity hypotension
•• Ribnotching due to increased flow through collaterals
•• Ribnotching with double buldging is seen
•• Cause of death is usually complication of hypertension, CHF, endocarditis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4½-year-old girl brought by her deer mother from Washington always had to wear warm socks even is summer season. On
physical examination, it was noticed that she had high blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to radial
and carotid pulse. A chest radiograph showed remarkable notching of ribs along with their lower borders. The most likely
diagnosis is:
Coarctation of aorta
Trilogy of Fallot:
•• Pulmonary valve stenosis
•• Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot:
•• Ventricular septal defect, communication between the two ventricles
•• Pulmonary stenosis, narrowing at the pulmonary valve or at the level of right ventricular infundibulum, which lies just below the
pulmonary valve
•• Overriding of the aorta, the aorta being positioned over the ventricular septal defect instead of in the left ventricle
Pentalogy of Fallot:
•• The four characteristics of Fallot’s tetralogy syndrome, plus a patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect.
TOF: Tetrology of Fallot

•• Boot-shaped heart, Corn en Sabot heart
•• ↓ Pulmonary blood flow
•• Ejection systolic mumur, single S2
•• Associated with right-sided aortic arch
•• Right axis deviation and RVH
•• Blue spells seen
•• TOF with ASD = Pentology of Fallot
TGA (Transposition of Great Vessels)
•• Aorta arises from right ventricle and pulmonary artery from left ventricle
•• Common in infants of diabetic mothers
•• Presents with cyanosis in first 24 hours of life
•• Egg on string appearance
•• PGE1 is used.
Tricuspid atresia:
•• Single S2
•• Pansystolic murmur
•• LVH and LAD
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)
•• Pulmonary veins drain back into systemic venous circulation
•• Right atrial blood goes to left atrium through foramen ovale/ASD
•• Pulmonary hypertension occurs
•• Mc Type issu pracardiac
•• Infracardiac type is invariably always obstructive
•• Snowman pattern of figure 8 occurs.
USMLE Case Scenario

A two-month-old infant born to a mother who was taking lithium for BPD was noted at birth to have an upper left sternal
border ejection murmur. The infant at that time was not cyanotic, but slowly developed cyanosis over the next two months.
ECG shows right axis deviation and right ventricular hypertrophy. A chest X-ray film showed a small heart with a concave main
pulmonary artery segment and diminished pulmonary blood flow. Most likely diagnosis is: TOF
Tetralogy of Fallot
Important Points about ASD

•• Most common type of ASD is •• Ostium secondum type
•• S2 is fixed and widely split in •• ASD
•• There is •• Delayed diastolic murmur (Tricuspid)
•• ASD+Mitral stenosis •• Ejection systolic murmur (Pulmonary)
Pediatrics 255
•• ASD+Single atrium •• Lutembacher’s syndrome

•• ASD+Bony abnormalities •• Ellis-van Creveld Syndrome
•• Holt-Oram Syndrome
•• Carey Coombs Murmur: Transient Soft middiastolic murmur of acute rheumatic fever due to mitral valvulitis, low-pitched
•• Austin Flint Murmur: Murmur of mitral stenosis at apex
•• Graham Steell Murmur: Early diastolic murmur of Pulmonary Regurgitation
•• Means Murmur: Pulmonary Systolic murmur in Thyrotoxicosis
•• Seagull’s Murmur: Aortic regurgitation murmur.
Carcinoid Syndrome and Heart

•• ENDOCARDIUM is most commonly involved
•• Involvement of tricuspid valve cause TRICUSPID REGURGITATION
•• Involvement of pulmonary valve cause PULMONARY STENOSIS
•• MITRAL VALVE is most commonly involved valve on left side (not the commonest overall)
•• If cardiac lesions are present in carcinoid syndrome, it causes heart failure in 80% patients
•• Cardiac effects in carcinoid are due to serotonin.
Major Cardiovascular Manifestations of Some Important Diseases

•• Progeria: Accelerated atherosclerosis
•• Cystic fibrosis: Cor pulmonale
•• Friedreich’s ataxia: Cardiomyopathy
•• William’s syndrome: Supravalvular aortic stenosis
•• Cornelia de Lange syndrome: VSD
Kindly Memorize
•• Turner’s syndrome •• Coarctation of aorta
•• Noonan syndrome •• Pulmonary stenosis, ASD
•• Congenital rubella •• PDA
•• Marfan’s syndrome •• MVP
•• William’s syndrome •• Supravalvular aortic stenosis
•• Digeorges’s syndrome •• Aortic arch abnormalities
Marfan’s syndrome
•• It is an autosomal dominant disorder of the connective tissues
•• The genetic defect results in abnormal synthesis and secretion of fibrillin, which is an essential component in connective tissues
•• Patients with Marfan’s syndrome often have involvement in the skeletal, ocular and cardiovascular systems
•• Most of the morbidity and mortality with this disease are related to the cardiovascular manifestations; patients develop aortic root
dilatation. This may be associated with aortic insufficiency and aortic arch dissection. They may also have mitral valve prolapse
with significant hemodynamic consequences. Aortic root, aortic valve and mitral valve replacement may be needed during the
lifetime of the patient.
•• Patients with Marfan’s syndrome may frequently complain of chest pain; these patients must be viewed as having aortic dissection
until proven otherwise. In this population, a spontaneous pneumothorax is another potential cause of chest pain
•• Patients must avoid contact sports that cause acceleration-deceleration injury and isometric maneuvers that tend to increase
central blood pressure. Aerobic activity is encouraged, but those with established aortic root dilatation should have adequate
heart rate control with beta-blockers.
Hypoplastic Left Heart (HLH) Syndrome

•• It is a group of closely related cardiac anomalies characterized by underdevelopment of the left cardiac chambers, atresia or
stenosis of the aortic and/or the mitral orifices, and hypoplasia of the aorta
•• These anomalies are an especially common cause of heart failure in the 1st week of life
•• The left atrium and ventricle often exhibit endocardial fibroelastosis. Pulmonary venous blood traverses a patent foramen ovale
and a dilated and hypertrophied right ventricle acts as the systemic, as well as pulmonary, ventricle; the systemic circulation
receives blood by way of a patent ductus arteriosus
•• Infants who have HLH syndrome develop poor perfusion and metabolic acidosis when systemic blood flow decreases. When the
ductus closes, inadequate blood flow to the body occurs because the ductus is the only path for blood to flow from the right
ventricle to the body. Even if the ductus remains open, when the infant is given oxygen, the oxygen will dilate the vasculature
of the pulmonary circulation and blood will preferentially flow to the lower pressure pulmonary system, depriving the systemic
circulation of adequate perfusion
•• ECG usually shows right axis deviation, right atrial and ventricular enlargement, and nonspecific ST and T-wave abnormalities in
the left precordial leads
•• Chest radiography may show only slight enlargement shortly after birth, but with clinical deterioration, there is marked
cardiomegaly with increased pulmonary vascular markings
•• Echocardiography is diagnostic and will show a diminutive aortic root and left ventricular cavity and absence or poor visualization
of aortic and mitral valves
•• An infant with HLH syndrome has a hyperdynamic precordium because the enlarged right ventricle is contracting against
systemic pressure. The infant also has a loud, or even palpable, second heart sound (S2) because the pulmonary artery acts as the
aorta by pumping blood to the systemic circulation through the ductus arteriosus.
Blood
•• Hematopoiesis is the process by which formed elements of the blood are produced
•• In the BM (Bone Marrow) first morphologically recognizable precursor is the PRO normoblast and ‘not normoblast’
•• Erythropoietin is produced by the peritubular cells within the kidney
•• There is daily replacement of 0.8–1% of all circulating red cells
•• ‘Hematopoiesis’ is the process by which formed elements of the blood are produced. Stem cells are capable of producing all
classes of cells
•• In the BM (Bone Marrow), first morphologically recognizable precursor is the’PRO normoblast.’ This cell can undergo 4–5 cell
divisions that result in production of 16–32 mature red cells
•• Hemoglobin first to appear in fetus: Hb Gowers
•• Switch over of fetal Hb to adult Hb begins at 14 week’s gestation
•• Fetal Hb is completely replaced by adult Hb by 6 months
•• Increased Fetal Hb is a feature of CML.
Iron-deficiency Anemia
Commonest type of anemia in children
Iron deficiency in children can be due to causes slightly different from adults:
•• Cow’s milk (poor source of iron)
•• Hookworm infestation
•• Polyposis colon
•• Meckel’s diverticulum
•• Malabsorption syndrome
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•• Prematurity and low birthweight

•• Red cell distribution width (RDW) in iron-deficiency anemia is increased
•• Iron supplementation should be started to a term breastfed baby at 6 weeks
•• Lab features of iron-deficiency anemia:
↓Iron strores
↓Serum iron
↑Free erythrocyte porphyrin
↑TIBC (Total iron-binding capacity)
↑RDW
•• Increased reticulocyte is the first indicator of response after iron therapy

•• Iron requirement: 4x wt (kg) × Hb deficit (gm/dl)
Iron deficiency Thalassemia Sideroblastic anemia Chronic anemia

Sr Fe ↓ n n ↓
TIBC ↑ n n ↓
% Saturation ↓ ↑ ↑ ↓
Ferritin ↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
Hypochromic microcytic anemia with ↓srFe, ↑TIBC: Iron-deficiency anemia

↑RDW, ↓MCH↓MCV↓MCHC
Hypochromic microcytic anemia with ↓srFe, ↓TIBC: Anemia of chronic disease.
↓ Sr Ferritin is the early indicator of iron deficiency.
Thalassemias
(Mediterranean Anemia; Hereditary Leptocytosis; Thalassemia Major and Minor)
•• A group of chronic, inherited, microcytic anemias

•• Characterized by defective Hb synthesis and ineffective erythropoiesis
•• They are particularly common in persons of Mediterranean, African, and South-east Asian ancestry
•• Clinical features of all thalassemias are similar but vary in severity
•• Symptoms of severe anemia occur in ß-thalassemia major (Cooley’s anemia). Clinical features result from anemia, markedly
expanded marrow space, and transfusional and absorptive Fe overload. Patients are jaundiced, and leg ulcers and cholelithiasis
occur (as in sickle cell anemia)
•• Splenomegaly is common, and the spleen may be huge. If splenic sequestration develops, the survival time of transfused, normal
RBCs is shortened. Bone marrow hyperactivity causes thickening of the cranial bones and malar eminences, producing ‘hemolytic
facies’
•• Long-bone involvement makes pathologic fractures common
•• Osmotic fragility decreased. NOT INCREASED
•• Growth rates are impaired, and puberty may be significantly delayed or absent
•• Fe deposits in heart muscle may cause dysfunction and ultimately heart failure
•• Hair on end appearance seen
•• Hepatic siderosis occurs typically, leading to functional impairment and cirrhosis
•• Electrophoresis is the diagnostic test.
Thalassemia Major
•• ↑HbF
•• Normal Hb A2
•• Microcytosis and hypochromia
•• Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis
•• Target and tear drop RBC
•• Howel-Jolly bodies and Heinz bodies
•• Erythroblasts seen
•• Bone marrow hypercellular

•• Hemosiderin deposits↑
•• Serum ferritin↑
α Thalassemia
Deletion of one α globin gene •• Silent hematologically
Deletion of two α globin gene •• Called α Thalassemia triat
•• Presents as mild microcytic anemia
•• ↑HbF
•• ↑Hb A2
Deletion of three α globin gene •• Hb H disease
•• Cases have chronic hemolysis with jaundice and hepatosplenomegaly
•• Gallstones and leg ulcers seen
Deletion of four α globin gene •• Hydrops fetalis occurs
•• Profound anemia
•• Most severe
•• Tear drop cells: Myelofibrosis, myelophthisic anemia

•• Target cells: Liver diseases, thalassemia
•• Helmet cells: DIC, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
•• Burr cells: Uremia
•• Bite cells: G6PD deficiency
•• Smudge cells: CLL

von Willebrand’s disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion and
characteristically behaves like a platelet disorder, i.e. epistaxis and menorrhagia are common whilst hemoarthroses and muscle
hematomas are rare:
Role of von Willebrand factor:
•• Large glycoprotein which forms massive multimers up to 1,000,000 Da in size
•• Promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium
•• Carrier molecule for factor VIII
Types:
•• Type 1: Partial reduction in vW
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•• Type 2: Abnormal form of vW

•• Type 3: Total lack of vWF
Investigation
•• Prolonged bleeding time
•• APTT may be prolonged
•• Factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced
•• Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin

•• von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant disease
•• von Willebrand’s disease is the commonest hereditary bleeding disorder
•• von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by platelet adhesion defect
•• Postoperative traumaticor mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, menorrhagia is common
•• Hemarthosis or muscle hematomas are rare
•• Increased BT and increased PTT are findings
•• vWf (von Willebrand’s factor) level which is synthesized in platelets is low
•• Treatment: Factor VIII cryoprecipitate, vasopressin
LABORATORY TESTING: There are five tests commonly used to screen for vWD
•• Plasma vWF antigen (vWF:Ag)
•• Plasma vWF activity (ristocetin cofactor activity, vWF: RCo)
•• Factor VIII activity (FVIII) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
•• Platelet function analyzer (PFA) testing or bleeding time (BT)
If one or more of these tests is abnormal, or if there is still a high index of suspicion for vWD in the face of normal results, further testing
is carried out to evaluate the following:
•• vWF multimer distribution on gel electrophoresis
•• Ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation (RIPA)
Collagen-binding assay: Collagen binding has been introduced as a second type of functional assay for vWF (vWF:CB). The binding
of plasma vWF to collagen-coated plates is dependent upon the quantity of vWF in plasma and on the presence of higher molecular
weight multimers that bind more readily. This functional assay takes longer to perform, but is gaining wide acceptance in clinical
laboratories.
ITP
In many cases, the cause is not actually idiopathic but autoimmune, with antibodies against platelets being detected in approximately
60 percent of patients:
Most often these antibodies are against platelet membrane glycoproteins IIb-IIIa or Ib-IX, and are of the IgG type
•• The diagnosis of ITP is a process of exclusion
•• In approximately one percent of cases, autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenic purpura coexist.
This condition is called ‘Evans syndrome’
•• Bleeding time is prolonged in ITP patients
•• On examination of the bone marrow, an increase in the production of megakaryocytes may be observed and may help in
establishing a diagnosis of ITP
•• Platelet transfusions are not helpful in immunogenic variety.
TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)

There is widespread formation of platelet thrombi
‘Pentad of signs’ is:
•• Fever
•• Neurological symptoms
Lab features:
•• Decreased platelet count and increased bleeding time
•• Normal PT and PTT
•• Normal complement
Overwhelming Postsplenectomy Infection (OPSI)

•• Infection due to encapsulated bacteria
•• Almost 50% due to strep pneumoniae
•• Other organisms include: Hemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis
•• Occurs postsplenectomy in 4% patients without prophylaxis
•• Mortality of OPSI is approximately 50%
•• Greatest risk in first 2 years postop.
Renal System
Childhood Hypertension
•• Childhood hypertension is defined as arterial BP above 95th percentile with reference to age and sex
•• Essential hypertension is relatively uncommon in children
•• Causes of persistent hypertension in children: in decreasing order:
•• Chronic glomerulonephritis
•• Chronic pyelonephritis
•• Essential hypertension
•• Renal artery stenosis
•• Renal arteritis
•• Obstructive uropathy
Liddle’s Syndrome
Liddle’s syndrome is a rare familial disease with a clinical presentation of ‘hyperaldosteronism’, consisting of:
•• Hypertension (Compare with Bartter’s syndrome)
•• Hypokalemia
•• Metabolic alkalosis
Bartter’s Syndrome
Most cases of classic Bartter’s syndrome present during childhood
•• Symptoms such as weakness and cramps are secondary to hypokalemia
•• Polyuria and nocturia are common due to the hypokalemia-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
•• Growth retardation may be seen.
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Characteristies of Bartter’s syndrome:

1. Hypokalemia
3. Normal to low blood pressure, (compare with Liddle’s syndrome)
The Gitelman’s variant of Bartter’s syndrome presents during adolescence or adulthood and generally has a milder course than
Bartter’s syndrome. The dominant features are fatigue and weakness. It is distinguished from Bartter’s syndrome by:
•• Hypocalciuria
•• Hypomagnesemia with hypermagnesuria
•• Normal prostaglandin production
Nephrocalcinosis
•• Hypercalciuria
•• Hyperoxaluria
•• Distal renal tubular acidosis
•• Bartter’s syndrome
•• Dent’s disease
•• Primary hyperparathyroidism
Urachus
The urachus in the embryo connects the bladder to the allantois. It is normally obliterated to form the median umbilical ligament.
It may, however, persist as a patent urachus in the neonate, requiring repair. Occasionally the two extremities of the urachus close,
leaving a cyst in the middle which becomes filled with secretions and may present as a mass or, more commonly, when it becomes
infected, as an abscess.
Bladder Exstrophy (Ectopia Vesicae)

•• In bladder exstrophy, there is a lower abdominal wall anomaly in which there is wide separation of the pubic bones, the
bladder surface being flat and exposed with the two ureteric orifices clearly visible
•• In the male, there is complete epispadias with a strip of urethral mucosa on the dorsum of a short broadened flattened penis
•• In the female, there is also an epispadiac urethra with a bifid clitoris and separation of the labia anteriorly at the level of the
vaginal orifice
•• The bladder is best repaired soon after birth
•• If necessary, bilateral iliac osteotomies enable the pubic bones to be better approximated, thus facilitating the repair. Careful
construction of the bladder neck is vital to achieve subsequent continence and in the male, later repair of the severe epispadiac
deformity is required.
VUR
•• Straining and dribbling of urine in a male child with recurrent UTI is suspicious of UTI
•• Mc cause of renal scarring in CHILDREN
•• Caused by congenital incompetence of vesicoureteral junction
Common cause of hypertension and scarring:

•• Grade I reflux into an undilated distal ureter
•• Grade II reflux into the upper collecting system (ureter plvis calyces) without dilatation of the kidney
•• Grade III reflux into the dilated ureter and/or blunting of the calyceal fornices
•• Grade IV reflux into a grossly dilated ureter with moderate dilatation of the pelvis, calyces
•• Grade V massive rflux, gross dilation, tortuosity of ureter, pelvis, calyces
•• Diagnosed by MCUG
Acute Nephritic Syndrome

•• It is characterized by sudden onset (i.e. over days to weeks) of acute renal failure and oliguria (< 400 ml of urine per day)
•• Renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) fall
•• Extracellular fluid volume expansion, edema
•• Hypertension develops because of impaired GFR and enhanced tubular reabsorption of salt and water
•• As a result of injury to the glomerular capillary wall, urinalysis typically reveals red blood cell casts, dysmorphic red blood cells,
leukocytes, and subnephrotic proteinuria of < 3.5 g per 24 h (nephritic urinary sediment)
•• Hematuria is often macroscopic.
Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis
•• Most cases are sporadic, though the disease can occur as an epidemic.
•• Glomerulonephritis develops, on an average, 10 days after pharyngitis or 2 weeks after a skin infection (impetigo) with a
nephritogenic strain of group Ab-hemolytic streptococcus.
•• The known nephritic strains include M types
•• Epidemic poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is most commonly encountered in children of 2 to 6 years of age with pharyngitis
during the winter months.
•• The classic clinical presentation of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is full-blown nephritic syndrome with oliguric acute
renal failure; however, most patients have milder disease
•• Subclinical cases outnumber overt cases by four- to tenfold during epidemics.
Nephrotic Syndrome
The nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria of > 3.5 g per 1.73 m2 per 24 h (in practice, > 3.0 to 3.5 g per 24 h),
hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria, and hypercoagulability
•• Hyperlipidemia is a consequence of increased hepatic lipoprotein synthesis
•• Hypercoagulability is caused by increased urinary loss of antithrombin III, altered levels and/or activity of proteins C and
S, hyperfibrinogenemia due to increased hepatic synthesis, impaired fibrinolysis, and increased platelet aggregability.
Patients can develop spontaneous peripheral arterial or venous thrombosis, renal vein thrombosis, and pulmonary
embolism
•• Clinical features that suggest acute renal vein thrombosis include sudden onset of flank or abdominal pain, gross hematuria, a
left-sided varicocele (the left testicular vein drains into the renal vein), increased proteinuria, and an acute decline in GFR. Seen
most commonly in membranous glomerulonephritis
•• An increased susceptibility to infection may reflect low levels of IgG that result from urinary loss and increased catabolism
•• Low serum calcium is a feature
Six entities account for greater than 90% of cases of nephrotic syndrome in adults: Minimal change disease (MCD) is the commonest
cause. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), membranous glomerulopathy, MPGN, diabetic nephropathy, and amyloidosis
Renal biopsy is used for establishing a definitive diagnosis, guiding therapy, and estimating prognosis
Renal biopsy is not required in the majority of children with nephrotic syndrome as most cases are due to MCD and respond to
empiric treatment with glucocorticoids.
Minimal Change Disease

•• This glomerulopathy accounts for about 80% of nephrotic syndrome in children
•• MCD (also called nil disease, lipoid nephrosis, or foot process disease) is so named because glomerular size and architecture
are normal by light microscopy
•• Immunofluorescence studies are typically negative for immunoglobulin and C3
•• Mild mesangial hypercellularity and sparse deposits of C3 and IgM may be detected. Occasionally, mesangial proliferation is
associated with scanty IgA deposits, similar to those found in IgA nephropathy.
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•• Bacterial peritonitis is common (SBP)

•• Electron microscopy reveals characteristic diffuse effacement of the foot processes of visceral epithelial cells
•• MCD is highly steroid-responsive and carries an excellent prognosis.
HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)

•• Occurs most commonly in children
•• Follows gastroenteritis
•• Verocytotoxin producing E. coli 0157: H7 is most commonly encountered
•• HUS is characterized by:
•• Acute renal failure
•• The onset is preceded by acute diarrheal or dysenteric illness by shigella or E. coli (Shigella dysentriae 1, Verocytotoxin producing
E. coli
•• Serum complement may be low
•• There is no significant direct involvement of CNS. Direct microvascular injury affects kidneys significantly.
Cat-Scratch Disease
•• Typical cat-scratch disease presents with painful regional lymphadenopathy persisting for weeks to months after a cat scratch
•• Only occasionally a generalized lymphadenopathy may occur
•• Tender regional lymphadenopathy occurs in 1–2 weeks after inoculation
•• Epitrochlear, axillary, pectoral and cervical lymph nodes may be affected
•• Lymph nodes become suppurative occasionally
•• Lymphadenopathy persists for weeks
•• Bartonella henselae is the most common organism

•• 60% cases occur in children
•• Most cases are caused by scratch
•• CSD is a type of granulomatous infection
•• Azithromycin, doxycycline and ciprofloxacin are used in treatment.
HIV in Pediatric Age Group

•• Incubation period is short: 6 months to 1 year
•• Recurrent infection with typical organisms
•• Kaposi sarcoma is rare
•• NHL is common
•• Parotid enlargement
•• Polyclonal hyperglobuliemia
•• Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis is seen
•• Ideal mode of delivery is cesarean section
•• Breastfeeding is contraindicated
HIV in Newborn is Diagnosed by

•• HIV DNA or RNA PCR
•• HIV culture
•• HIV p24 antigen
•• Immune-dissociated p24 antigen
Commonest viral tumor: Warts

Commonest benign tumor in infancy is hemangiomas
Commonest malignant tumor in childhood: Leukemia
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

•• Risk factors for ALL: Down’s syndrome, Bloom’s syndrome, Ataxia, telangiectasia
•• ALL is the commonest childhood tumor
•• PreB-cell type is the commonest
•• CALLA antigen absent
•• TdT positive
•• Commonest childhood malignancy: leukemia
•• Mediastinal mass is a feature of T-cell ALL
Specific cytogenetic abnormalities include:
•• t(15;17) in M3
•• inv(16) in M4
•• t(8;14) in mature B cell ALL
FAB Classification of ALL

•• L 1 Lymphoblasts with uniform, round nuclei and scant cytoplasm
•• L 2 More variability of lymphoblasts; nuclei may be irregular with more cytoplasm than L 1
•• L 3 Lymphoblasts have finer nuclear chromatin and blue-to-deep-blue cytoplasm with cytoplasmic vacuolization
FAB Classification of AML

•• M1 Undifferentiated myeloblastic; no cytoplasmic granulation
•• M2 Differentiated myeloblastic; a few to many cells may have sparse granulation
•• M3 Promyelocytic; granulation typical of promyelocytic morphology
•• M4 Myelomonoblastic; mixed myeloblastic and monocytoid morphology
•• M5 Monoblastic; pure monoblastic morphology
•• M6 Erythroleukemic; predominantly immature erythroblastic morphology, sometimes megaloblastic appearance
•• M7 Megakaryoblastic; cells have shaggy borders that may show some budding.
Favorable Outcome is seen in

Low WBC counts
3–7 years of age
Female gender
No organomegaly
Pediatrics 265
Hyperdiploidy
DNA index >16
PreB-cell type
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-year-old boy has severe pains in both his legs. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), blood
pressure is 108/68 mm Hg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 17/min. He is noted to have marked pallor on his lips and
palpebral conjunctiva. Numerous purpura and petechiae are noted on his skin. His spleen is palpable 3 cm below his left
costal margin. Laboratory evaluation reveals a white blood cell count of 1600/mm3; hemoglobin, 6.1 g/dl; and platelets,
36,000/mm3. Diagnosis is: ALL
Neuroblastoma
•• Most frequently presenting as a large abdominal mass and abdominal calcification
•• The commonest primary sites are the adrenal glands
•• It arises from primordial neural crest cells which form part of the sympathetic and rarely the parasympathetic nervous system
•• May present as lytic lesion in skull with sutural diasthesis
•• Spontaneous regression of malignant to benign ganglioneuroma occurs
•• It occurs with increased frequency in Beckwith-Wiedemann’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, nesidioblastosis and in fetal
phenytoin syndrome
•• MC mass in postmediastinum of children
•• The commonest presentation is with a large firm abdominal mass often crossing the midline but with the features of marrow
infiltration including anemia, bruising, fever, lethargy and irritability. A syndrome of opsoclonus/myoclonus in which the patient
has acute cerebellar and truncal
•• Metastasize to bones most often
•• HVA, VMA, Catecholamines in urine are seen
•• Associated with hypertension
Wilms’ Tumor
•• Wilm’s tumor is the most common primary tumor of childhood
•• Wilms’ tumor is also called nephroblastoma
•• An embryonal adenomyosarcoma of the kidneys with heterogenous carcinomatous elements; the tumor occurs fetally and may
not manifest itself clinically for years
•• The diagnosis usually is made in children < 5 years of age, but the tumor occasionally can be detected in older children and rarely
in adults
•• The most frequent presenting finding is a palpable abdominal mass; other findings include abdominal pain, hematuria, fever,
anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
•• Hematuria (15 to 20% of cases) indicates invasion of the collecting system
•• Hypertension may occur secondary to ischemia from renal pedicle or parenchymal compression.
•• Wilms’ tumor involves chromosome 11

•• Wilms’ tumor on pathology examination shows tan to gray color with areas of necrosis, hemorrhage and cyst formation
•• Chemotherapy with actinomycin D and vincristine, with or without radiation therapy, is used, depending on the stage of the
disease
•• It has the highest cure rates.
•• ISOP (International Staging of Society of Pediatrics) is used for staging

Wilms’ tumor occurs in association with:
•• WAGR syndrome: Wilms’ Tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary Anomalies, Mental Retardation
•• Denys-Drash syndrome: Characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and nephropathy
•• Beck-Wiedemann syndrome: Characterized by hemihypertrophy, renal medullary cysts, enlargement of adrenal cortex.
Macroglossia, renomegaly, omphalocele, hypoglycemia (Lancet: 1997, 349 663)
Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS)
•• These are the commonest soft tissue sarcomas and arise from tissue which imitates striated muscle
•• They make up over 75% of the soft tissue sarcomas
•• Bladder and vaginal rhabdomyosarcomas predominantly occur in infancy and in the young
•• They are principally embryonal or botryoid in type
•• Rhabdomyosarcomas can arise at any site in the body as mass lesions. They are usually nontender and the presentation depends
on the site of the tumor
•• Head and neck—about 10% of tumors arise in the orbit producing proptosis and ophthalmoplegia. These usually present early,
before the tumor has metastasized. There is little lymphatic spread from the orbit and the prognosis is good. Parameningeal tumors
(about 20%) arise from the nasopharynx, paranasal sinuses, middle ear, mastoid and pterygopalatine fossa, producing nasal airway
and ear symptoms often with signs of secondary purulent or even bloody discharge
•• Commonest tumor of face in children
•• Genitourinary tract
•• These usually arise in the bladder (commonest) and prostate (12%) presenting as a polypoid mass inside the bladder leading
to hematuria, urinary obstruction or even extrusion of the tumor into the urethra in females. They tend to be localized. Prostatic
tumors lead to bladder outlet obstruction. Constipation may arise from obstruction of the rectum. Bladder tumors tend to occur in
younger patients. Vaginal and uterine rhabdomyosarcomas
•• Most are botryoid (grape-like) and present with a mucousy and sometimes bloody discharge.
•• MC Pediatric malignancy •• Leukemia > Lymphoma

•• MC Neoplasm in children < 2 years •• ALL
•• MC Solid tumor in children •• Brain tumors
•• MC Renal neoplasm in children •• Wilms’ tumor
•• MC Soft-tissue tumor in children •• Rhabdomyosarcoma
The Eye in Relation to Medical Pediatrics and Clinical Genetics

–– Diabetic retinopathy is exceptionally rare before puberty. Retinal screening examinations should be carried out annually from
puberty. Cataract may develop as an acute feature of diabetes mellitus.
•• Cystinosis
–– Small crystals may develop in the corneal epithelium, which may be painful.
The Eye in Relation to Medical Pediatrics and Clinical Genetics

•• Cherry-red spot
–– In Tay-Sachs disease (GM2 type 1) ganglioside accumulation in retinal ganglion cells leads to a ‘cherry-red spot’ appearance
–– A cherry-red spot is also seen in Niemann–Pick disease type A (sphingomyelinase deficiency) and neuraminidase deficiency
(sialidosis types 1 and 2)
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•• Corneal clouding
–– Mucopolysaccharidoses, all of which show corneal clouding, except MPSII and MPSIII
–– Mucolipidoses
–– Fucosidosis
–– Mannosidosis
•• Wilson’s disease
–– KF ring. Copper deposition in the peripheral cornea may be detected on slit-lamp examination
•• Ophthalmology changes in leukemia
–– Retinal hemorrhages may be found in severe anemia and leukemia
•• Marfan’s syndrome
–– Screening for lens subluxation, ectopia lentis may be requested
–– The ophthalmologist may provide diagnostic information in cases of suspected neurofibromatosis types 1 and 2 (NF1, NF2). Lisch
nodules of the iris will be present in over 90% of children aged 5 years or more who have NF1. Children with confirmed NF1 also
require regular screening examinations for optic nerve gliomas and optic chiasma gliomas
•• In NF2, posterior subcapsular cataract is present in more than 50% of cases and is a useful diagnostic sign. Combined hamartoma
of the retina and pigment epithelium is a less common ocular association of NF2.
–– Fundus examination for retinal hamartomas should be performed in children with seizures and delayed cognitive development.
Hamartomas will be found in approximately 50% of patients with tuberous sclerosis.
•• von Hippel-Lindau disease
–– Retinal angiomas are the earliest and the most common clinical features of von Hippel-Lindau disease. Careful annual fundus
examination is required in order to detect early lesions, which are most often found in the mid-periphery.
Endocrinology
Rokitansky–Küster–Hauser Syndrome
•• Girls with this condition are phenotypically normal, with a 46XX karyotype and normal ovaries
•• The degree of failure of development varies from total absence of Mullerian duct structures to varying degrees of uterine horn
development, very occasionally including endometrium within a small blind uterine horn when the girl will present with severe cyclical
abdominal pain
•• Vaginal reconstruction either by the use of dilators or surgically using a loop of bowel is required.
Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS)

•• Girls with CAIS have a 46XY karyotype
•• They are often slightly taller than average, have good breast development and sparse pubic and axillary hair
•• The condition arises as a result of the cells of the mesonephric duct and genital tubercle failing to respond to circulating
androgens with the resulting failure of development of male external genitalia
•• Production of Mullerian inhibitory factor (MIF) causes degeneration of the fallopian tubes, uterus and upper third of the vagina
•• Treatment is by removal of the testes because of the 5% risk of malignancy and vaginal reconstruction. Long-term estrogen
replacement is required to protect against osteoporosis.
Glycogen Storage Diseases

1. Von Gierke’s •• Glucose-6-phosphatase •• Protruding abdomen because of marked hepatomegaly, renomegaly,
disease deficiency hypotrophic muscles, truncal obesity, a rounded ‘doll face’
•• Severe symptomatic hypoglycemia is frequent, often occurring during
the night or after even short periods of reduced caloric intake.
•• Even minor delays or reduction of carbohydrate intake may provoke

hypoglycemic attacks that are accompanied by lactic acidosis and
hyperuricemia
•• Muscles not involved
2. Pompe disease •• Lysosomal alpha-1,4- •• Profound muscle hypotonia, weakness, hyporeflexia, glossomegaly,
glucosidase deficiency massive cardiomyopathy without murmurs but no hepatomegaly
•• (Acid maltase deficiency except with cardiac failure
(AMD) •• The ECG shows a huge QRS complex, left or biventricular hypertrophy
and shortened PR interval.
3. Cori disease •• Debranching enzyme •• Mild hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly
4. Anderson’s •• Branching enzyme •• Infantile hypotonia, cirrhosis
disease
5. McArdle9i’s •• Muscle phosphorylase •• Increasing intolerance for strenuous exercise
disease •• Strenuous muscle activity is accompanied by severe cramps and may
be followed by myoglobinuria, which can precipitate anuria and renal
failure.
6. Hers’ disease •• Liver phosphorylase •• Pronounced hepatomegaly, without splenomegaly
•• Protuberant abdomen due to muscle hypotonia are the most striking
features
7. Tarui’s disease •• Phosphofructokinase
deficiency
Glucose-6-Phosphatase Deficiency (GSD Type IA: von Gierke’s Disease)

•• The most conspicuous clinical findings are a protruding abdomen because of marked hepatomegaly, hypotrophic muscles,
truncal obesity, a rounded ‘doll face’ and short stature. Because glucose-6-phosphatase activity is required for both
glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, severe symptomatic hypoglycemia is frequent, often occurring during the night or after
even short periods of reduced caloric intake
•• Even minor delays or reduction of carbohydrate intake may provoke hypoglycemic attacks that are accompanied by lactic acidosis.
The liver may be enlarged at birth; its size increases gradually and may achieve a total span of 15–20 cm.
Lysosomal alpha-1, 4-glucosidase deficiency (GSD type II: Pompe Disease)

•• Deficiency of this enzyme, also called acid maltase deficiency (AMD), leads to a generalized glycogen storage disease
•• Pompe disease is characterized by the rapid onset in the first months of life of profound muscle hypotonia, weakness,
hyporeflexia, glossomegaly, massive cardiomyopathy without murmurs but no hepatomegaly except with cardiac failure.
The ECG shows a huge QRS complex, left or biventricular hypertrophy and shortened PR interval. The clinical course is downhill
with cardiopulmonary failure or pneumonia leading to death in the first 2 years.
McArdle’s Disease
•• This disorder is characterized by increasing intolerance for strenuous exercise
•• Strenuous muscle activity is accompanied by severe cramps and may be followed by myoglobinuria, which can precipitate
anuria and renal failure. In middle life, the fatigue increases and muscle wasting and weakness predominate.
•• The serum CPK may be permanently or intermittently elevated

•• Muscle exercise is normally accompanied by release of lactate and of inosine, hypoxanthine and ammonia through the purine
nucleotide cycle. In myophosphorylase deficiency, lactic acid production is blocked and release of the purine nucleotide cycle
compounds is exaggerated. The ensuing myogenic hyperuricemia is one of the characteristic features of defects of muscle
glycogenosis.
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•• Phosphorylase activity must be assayed in muscle;

•• Liver phosphorylase is presumably normal, as is glucose homeostasis
•• DNA mutation analysis is useful in myophosphorylase deficiency as there are common mutations
•• Treatment is symptomatic and consists of the avoidance of strenuous exercise. ‘Carbo-loading’ and a high-protein diet are of some
help and glucose should always be taken during exercise. Strenuous exercise is always a risk.
Galactosemia
•• Three enzyme deficiencies implicated
–– GPUT deficiency (Galactose 1 Po4 uridyl transferase) most common
•• AR condition:
–– Newborn presents with failure to thrive, vomiting, diarrhea and jaundice
–– Hepatomegaly
–– Cataract (oil-drop cataract)
–– Mental retardation
–– E. coli sepsis
•• Cataract because of accumulation of galactitol
•• Reducing sugar seen in urine
•• Rapid diagnosis and rapid removal of galactose from diet are essential.
USMLE Case Scenario

A newborn born to a couple appears normal at birth, but develops mild vomiting and diarrhea accompanied by jaundice and
hepatomegaly within the first few weeks of life. Within five months, the baby has obvious difficulty in vision as per mother
which was diagnosed as cataracts. By one year of age, he has developed mental retardation.
Lipid Metabolism Disease Deficiency

•• Fabry’s •• Alpha galactoside A (Ceramide trihexoside accumulates)
•• Niemann-Pick’s •• Sphingomyelinase (RBCs appear as foam cells)
•• Tay-Sach’s •• Hexosaminidase A
•• Sandhoff •• Hexosaminidase A and B
•• Krabbe leukodystrophy •• Galactocerebrosidase
•• Metachromatic leukodystrophy •• Arylsulfatase A
•• Gaucher’s •• Glucocerebrosidase
•• Tangier’s •• Lipid metabolism disturbed (Low alpha-lipoprotein)
Fabry Disease
•• This is an X-linked disorder
•• Results from a variety of mutations in the alphagalactosidase gene
•• Clinically, the disease manifests with:
–– Angiokeratomas (telangiectatic skin lesions)
–– Hypohidrosis
–– Corneal and lenticular opacities
–– Acroparesthesia
–– Small-vessel disease of the kidney, heart and brain
•• Angiokeratomas are punctate, dark red to blue-black, flat or slightly raised, usually symmetric, and do not blanch with pressure.
They range from barely visible to several millimeters in diameter and have a tendency to increase in size and number with age
•• The acroparesthesia can be debilitating in childhood and adolescence, with a tendency to decrease after the third decade. Episodic
agonizing, burning pain of the hands, feet and proximal extremities can last from minutes to days and can be precipitated by exercise,
fatigue, or fever. Abdominal pain can resemble that from appendicitis or renal colic
•• Renal: Casts and microscopic hematuria can occur early, whereas proteinuria, isosthenuria, and progressive renal dysfunction
occur in the second to fourth decades. Progressive renal failure occurs and requires transplantation
•• CVS: Hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, anginal chest pain with or without myocardial ischemia or infarction, and
congestive heart failure can occur in the third to fourth decades
•• Hypohidrosis or anhidrosis, angiokeratomas, and the typical corneal and lenticular lesions provide a presumptive
diagnosis in males.
Amino Acid Metabolism Disease Deficiency

•• Phenylketonuria •• Phenylalanine hydroxylase
•• Alkaptonuria •• Homogentisic acid oxidase
•• Homocystinuria •• Cystathionine synthetase
•• Hartnup •• Decreased trytophan absorption, increased excretion
Phenylketonuria Phenylalanine •• Mental retardation, seizures, hyperactivity

hydroxylase •• Tremor
•• Microcephaly, hypopigmentation
•• Failure to grow are features
•• Convulsions seen
•• Musty urine
•• Ferric chloride test+
•• Guthrie’s test +
Alkaptonuria Homogentisate oxidase •• Urine darkens on standing
•• Pigmentation of the sclerae and ears
•• Generalized darkening of the concha, anthelix, and helix of the ear are typical
•• Pigmentation of heart valves, larynx, tympanic membranes and skin
•• Arthritis
Maple syrup urine Branched chain α ketoacid •• Valine, leucine, isoleucine defect
disease (MSUD) dehydrogenase •• Maple syrup urine
•• Lethargic baby, loses weight, letosis, coma
Homocystinuria Cystathionine synthetase •• Mental retardation, MI, osteoporosis
•• Dislocation of lens
•• It is inherited as AR trait
•• Patients can be responsive to Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
Albinism Tyrosinase •• White hair
•• Photosensitivity
•• Strabismus
•• Nystagmus
•• Photophobia
Alkaptonuria
•• Alkaptonuria is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
•• Patients have minimally increased concentrations of homogentisic acid in blood because it is rapidly cleared by the kidney.
However, homogentisic acid accumulates in cells and body fluids.
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•• Its oxidized polymers bind to collagen, leading to the progressive deposition of a gray to bluish-black pigment
•• Clinical Manifestations: Alkaptonuria may go unrecognized until middle life when degenerative joint disease develops. Prior to
this time, the tendency of the patient’s urine to darken on standing may go unnoticed, as may slight pigmentation of the sclerae
and ears. Foci of gray-brown scleral pigment and generalized darkening of the concha, anthelix, and finally, helix of the ear are
typical. Ear cartilages may be irregular and thickened
•• Ochronotic arthritis is heralded by pain, stiffness, and some limitation of motion of the hips, knees, and shoulders. Acute arthritis
may resemble rheumatoid arthritis, but small joints are usually spared. Limitation of motion and ankylosis of the lumbosacral
spine are common late manifestations. Pigmentation of heart valves, larynx, tympanic membranes, and skin occurs, and
occasional patients develop pigmented renal or prostatic calculi. Degenerative cardiovascular disease may be increased in
older patients
•• Diagnosis: The diagnosis is usually made from the triad of degenerative arthritis, ochronotic pigmentation, and urine that
turns black upon alkalinization
•• Homogentisic acid in urine may be identified presumptively by other tests: after addition of ferric chloride, a purple-black color
is observed; treatment with Benedict’s reagent yields a brown color; addition of a saturated silver nitrate solution produces an
intermediate black color
•• These screening tests can be confirmed by chromatographic, enzymatic, or spectrophotometric determinations of homogentisic
acid
•• X-rays of the lumbar spine show degeneration and dense calcification of the intervertebral disks and narrowing of the
intervertebral spaces (bamboo-like appearance)
•• There is no specific treatment for ochronotic arthritis. Joint manifestations might be mitigated if homogentisic acid accumulation
and deposition could be curbed by dietary restriction of phenylalanine and tyrosine. Ascorbic acid impedes oxidation and
polymerization of homogentisic acid in vitro, but the efficacy of this form of treatment has not been established.
Homocystinuria
•• Homocystinuria (elevated urinary levels of homocysteine) is a hallmark of several disorders in the metabolism of sulfur-containing
amino acids.
•• The classic form of the disease which is caused by defective activity of the enzyme cystathionine beta-synthase (CBS)
•• This autosomal recessive enzyme defect is the most common cause of homocystinuria
•• The classic presentation of cystathionine beta-synthase deficiency includes Marfanoid habitus, developmental delay, lens
dislocation and predisposition for blood clotting.
•• Presentation is usually in the first decade with the exception of embolism which may occur later
•• The most characteristic feature of this disorder is subluxation of the ocular lens. Mental retardation is common, although
not always present
•• Most patients have osteoporosis and skeletal abnormalities similar to those seen in Marfan’s syndrome. In homocystinuria,
however, the joints tend to be limited in mobility rather than hypermobile
•• There is also lenticular subluxation in both conditions; however, in Marfan’s syndrome, the lens is usually displaced upwards,
whereas in homocystinuria it is displaced downwards and medially
•• Diagnosis
•• In CBS deficiency, elevated homocysteine can be detected in both urine and blood. Levels of methionine are usually also
elevated and levels of cystine are reduced. Because homocysteine is unstable, testing should be done on fresh urine
•• Screening tests for homocystinuria using cyanide nitroprusside reagent are available, but are not completely sensitive.
Measurement of total homocysteine in blood is useful
•• Because homocystinuria can be caused by several genetic defects, it is important to specifically confirm the diagnosis of CBS
deficiency by measuring the enzyme in liver, cultured skin fibroblasts or lymphoblasts
•• Treatment
•• All patients should initially be treated with large doses (100–500 mg/day) of pyridoxine to determine their degree of vitamin
responsiveness
•• Those who do not respond may be treated with a diet low in methionine and supplemented with L-cysteine.
All patients should probably receive high doses of folic acid. In addition, the compound betaine may be used to aid in the
conversion of homocysteine to methionine.
Cystinuria
•• Cystinuria is a complex genetic disorder involving at least three alleles governing dibasic amino acid COAL (cystine ornithine,
arginine and lysine) transport
•• Renal tubular cells demonstrate an inability to take up cystine from their brush border, but can do so from the basolateral surface.
Because the excretion of cystine can exceed the amount filtered, there is evidence of net cystine secretion by the tubule
•• The clinical manifestations are confined to individuals in whom the cystine concentration in urine exceeds its solubility product
and leads to calculus formation. Almost all untreated homozygotes will experience calculi at some time in their lives, a quarter of
them before 20 years of age. Obstruction and infection cause lasting damage to the urinary tract. Patients present with renal colic
or episodes of hematuria
•• The stones are radiopaque because of their high sulfur content. Ultrasound is a good way of identifying calculi in both the renal
collecting system and the bladder but often misses calculi in ureters
•• Microscopy of the urine reveals flat hexagonal birefringent crystals under polarized light, and the Nitroprusside test for
urinary disulfides is positive. Confirmation is by quantification of urinary proteins
•• The mainstay of treatment is to keep the urine volume sufficiently high so that cystine is kept below its solubility maximum
•• A second line of treatment, additional to and not a substitute for the first, is to prescribe bicarbonate or citrate to ensure that the
early morning urine pH is alkaline
•• Increase in cystine solubility can be achieved by forming a thiol is cysteine disulfide with agents such as D-penicillamine.
Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS)
The various forms of MPS result from deficiencies of lysosomal enzymes needed for glycosaminoglycan (GAG) catabolism. GAGs are
long-chain, complex carbohydrates that are linked to proteins in connective tissue.
MPS IH (Hurler Disease)

•• This a severe autosomal recessive disorder
•• Results from mutations of L-iduronidase
•• Progressive mental retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal malformations, and cardiopulmonary compromise typically
lead to death during the first decade.
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•• Affected individuals appear normal at birth but exhibit accelerated growth and mild coarsening of facial features in the first year.
Subsequently, there is slowing of growth, leading to short stature
•• In the first 2 years, clinical diagnosis is suggested by hepatosplenomegaly, corneal clouding, coarse features, large tongue, joint
stiffness, and characteristic dysostosis multiplex on skeletal X-rays
•• Instability of the cervical vertebral bodies can lead to paralysis, particularly with subluxation on hyperextension
MPS II (Hunter Syndrome)
•• This is an X-linked recessive disorder
•• Results from mutations in the gene encoding iduronate sulfatase
•• Clinically, MPS IH and II are similar, though corneal clouding is absent in MPS II
•• Clinical manifestations range from severe CNS and visceral involvement with death in late childhood to milder forms with normal
CNS function and survival into adulthood
MPS IIIA, IIIB, IIIC, and IIID (the Sanfilippo Syndrome)
•• Skeletal defects and hepatosplenomegaly are less pronounced in this group of MPS variants, though progressive behavioral
problems, mental retardation, and seizures are present
•• Affected patients can survive into the third or fourth decade with progressive CNS disease
MPS IV (Morquio Syndrome)
•• These MPS variants are autosomal recessive disorders characterized by severe skeletal diseases that resemble the
spondyloepiphyseal dysplasias
•• There is extreme shortening of the trunk due to multiple vertebral collapses
•• The long bones are relatively spared. Joint laxity can lead to osteoarthritis-like destruction of the joints
•• Upper cervical spinal cord compression due to atlantoaxial instability predisposes to subluxation and paralysis. Many patients have
mitral valve insufficiency that can be functionally significant
MPS VI (Maroteaux-Lamy Disease)
•• Mutations in the arylsulfatase B gene cause this autosomal recessive disorder. Although clinically variable, the general phenotype
resembles Hurler disease. Intelligence is normal, and the life span can extend beyond three decades. Cardiac valvular disease and
progressive pulmonary hypertension are frequent causes of death.
Different Skull Appearances

•• Salt and pepper skull
•• Hair on end appearance of skull
•• Rain drop pattern of skull
•• Punched out skull lesions
Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome
A complete deficiency of HPRT, the Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, is characterized by:
•• Hyperuricemia
•• Self-mutilative behavior
•• Choreoathetosis
•• Spasticity
Kelley-Seegmiller syndrome
•• A partial deficiency of HPRT, the Kelley-Seegmiller syndrome, is associated with hyperuricemia but no central nervous system
manifestations
•• In both disorders, the hyperuricemia results from urate overproduction and can cause uric acid crystalluria, nephrolithiasis,
obstructive uropathy, and gouty arthritis
•• Purine metabolic defect
•• HPRT catalyzes the reaction that combines PRPP and the purine bases hypoxanthine and guanine to form the respective
nucleoside monophosphate IMP or GMP and pyrophosphate.
Menkes’ Disease
•• Menkes’ disease is also known as kinky hair disease
•• X-linked neurodegenerative disease
•• Impaired copper transport. Occurs Named after noting the similarity of kinky hair to the brittle wool of Australian sheep raised
in areas with copper-deficient soil, he demonstrated abnormal levels of copper and ceruloplasmin in these patients
•• In Menkes’ disease, transport of dietary copper from intestinal cells is impaired, leading to the low serum copper levels. Abnormal
copper transport in other cells leads to paradoxical copper accumulation in duodenal cells, kidney, pancreas, skeletal muscle,
and placenta
•• Hair changes: Abnormal kinky hair, eyebrows, and eyelashes. Often lightly or abnormally pigmented; can be white, silver, or gray
•• Associated are abnormal facies, progressive cerebral degeneration, connective-tissue abnormalities. Loose skin at the nape
of the neck and over the trunk
•• Joint hypermobility, polypoid masses, which can be multiple, in the gastrointestinal tract, umbilical and inguinal hernias,
which can be bilateral, bladder diverticula, dilated ureters, emphysema, arterial rupture, brachial, lumbar and iliac artery
aneurysms, internal jugular vein aneurysms
•• Menkes’ kinky hair syndrome is associated with the defecive functioning of several copper-dependent enzymes due to impaired
copper absorption, transport, or metabolism. Lysyl oxidase is a copper-requiring enzyme
•• Decreased lysyl oxidase (LO) activity accounts for the connective-tissue fragility and vascular abnormalities in Menkes’
disease.
Congenital Hypothyroidism
•• Open posterior fontanelle
•• Large posterior fontanelle, sluggishness are a feature of newborn hypothyroid
•• Absent social smile, absent eyebrows are also features of a hypothyroid
•• Growth retardation, delayed puberty, umbilical hernia are a feature
Other important features:
–– Constipation
–– Pallor
–– Hypothermia
–– Cold extremeties in children are a common feature
–– Large tongue
–– Rough, dry skin
–– Hypotonia
–– Causes prolonged physiological jaundice
–– Causes delayed skeletal maturity
•• Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a feature
•• Seminiferous tubule dysgenesis is also seen
•• Pendred syndrome is hypothyroidism + deafness
•• Pendred syndrome has goiter + sensorineural type deafness
Remember Related Terminology Frequently asked

Arnold-Chiari malformations are congenital herniations of hindbrain structures into the spinal canal
In type I Arnold-Chiari malformation, the cerebellar tonsils herniate into the foramen magnum
In type II Arnold-Chiari malformation, parts of the hindbrain, cerebellar vermis, and fourth ventricle herniate into the foramen.
This second type is commonly associated with meningomyeloceles
Other neonatal presentations associated with Arnold-Chiari malformation include hydrocephalus (because of cerebrospinal fluid
obstruction) and brainstem dysfunction (causing stridor and poor swallowing). Milder cases may present later in life with spinal cord
or cerebellar symptoms.
Pediatrics 275
‘Holoprosencephaly’ is a complex malformation of the brain such that only a single large monoventricular cerebral hemisphere
exists. It is characterized by failed septation of the midline forebrain structures and is frequently accompanied by midfacial
abnormalities. Associated syndromic (including Smith-Lemli-Opitz, Hall-Pallister, pseudotrisomy 13) and structural anomalies are
common. Trisomy 13 is the most commonly identified cause.
‘Porencephaly’ is a severe cleft in the brain that allows the ventricles to communicate with the subarachnoid space.
It is a vascular malformation
Seen in cerebral infarction, Dandy-Walker syndrome.
Dandy-Walker malformation: Dandy-Walker malformation (DWM) describes agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis with
communication between the fourth ventricle and the cisterna magna, due to obstruction of foramen of Magendie and Lushka.
Lissencephaly is synonymous with ‘smooth brain.’
•• A rare condition in which there is defective neuronal migration from 12th week of gestation onwards resulting in ‘Agyria’
•• Such children are severely handicapped
•• Viral infections, mutation of ‘Reelin gene’ on ‘chromosome 7’ occurs
•• It occurs in association with:
–– Miller-Dieker syndrome
–– Walker-Warburg syndrome and
–– Muscle eye brain diseases
Remember the commonest cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children is aqueductal stenosis.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-month-old weak girl is brought to the emergency clinic by her parents because of intractable vomiting. The girl was born
at home to a mother who did not receive any prenatal care. MRI studies reveal the following congenital malformations in the
CNS: small posterior fossa, downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla through the foramen magnum,
syringomyelia, and myelomeningocele.
Arnold-Chiari malformations
Arnold-Chiari malformations are among the most frequent congenital anomalies of the CNS. The small posterior fossa is a crucial
diagnostic feature of Arnold-Chiari type 2. This change is probably responsible for downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis
and medulla through the foramen magnum. This leads to obstruction of the CSF flow and hydrocephalus. Important associated
abnormalities include lumbar myelomeningocele and syringomyelia.
Hydrocephalus
•• Internal or noncommunicating hydrocephalus: Excess of CSF within the ventricular system up to the level of the outlet
foramina of the fourth ventricle. The common sites of obstruction are at the outlet foramina of the fourth ventricle, the aqueduct
of Sylvius or at the foramen of Monro
•• External or communicating hydrocephalus: An increase in the ventricular volume and the subarachnoid spaces of the
cranium and spine. The sites of obstruction are at the arachnoid villi or in the basal cisterns
•• Panventricular hydrocephalus: Dilation of the lateral, third and fourth ventricles (in aqueduct stenosis, the fourth ventricle is
small or of normal size—‘triventricular hydrocephalus’). An isolated fourth ventricle (‘double compartment hydrocephalus’
or ‘trapped fourth ventricle’) occurs when there is outlet obstruction from that ventricle and stricture of the aqueduct.
•• Unilateral hydrocephalus: Abnormal dilation of the body, frontal and/or posterior horn of the lateral ventricle on one side.
This may be due to compression of the ventricular system on the opposite side, obstruction to one foramen of Monro, slit ventricle
syndrome or hemiparenchymal atrophy
•• Slit ventricles: A reduction in the size of the ventricular system seen on CT scan, usually in response to excessive CSF
drainage. The slit ventricle syndrome is distinguished from radiological slit ventricles by the presence of symptoms and clinical
signs attributable to this overdrainage.
Bacterial Meningitis
The classic triad of symptoms of bacterial meningitis includes:
•• Fever
•• Stiff neck
•• Alterations of mental status
Poor feeding is the most common presentation of neonatal meningitis
Physical signs are:
•• Kernig’s sign
•• Brudzinski’s sign
•• Nuchal rigidity
Rash is present in only a minority of cases of bacterial meningitis

Classic cerebrospinal fluid findings among patients with bacterial meningitis include:
•• White blood cell count more than 1000 cells per microliter
•• More than 80% neutrophils on white blood cell differential
•• Elevated protein levels
•• Reduced glucose levels
•• Group B streptococcus most common cause in neonates
•• E. coli and listeria are other common organisms
•• Aseptic meningitis is caused by: mumps, polio, coxsackie viruses
•• LOW CSF protein is seen in:
–– Infants
–– Pseudotumor cerebri
–– Recurrent LP
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-month-old boy is brought to the emergency room because of fever and rash. Two days ago, he was fine. An ENT physician
diagnosed otitis media and prescribed amoxicillin. During the interim period, the child has developed a nonblanching
erythematous rash on his face, trunk, and extremities. Currently, the child is very irritable with temperature of 103.5 °F. He
turns drowsy.
Meningitis in a young
A febrile, irritable, inconsolable infant with rash and fever with an altered state of alertness even in the absence of meningeal
signs should be suspected to have meningitis.
Seizures in Childhood
•• Commonest cause of convulsions in childhood is febrile seizures
•• Subtle seizures are the commonest type of seizures in newborn
•• Phenobarbitone is the DOC for neonatal convulsions

•• Diazepam is the DOC for status epilepticus in childhood
•• Diazepam is the DOC for prophylaxis of seizures in childhood
Febrile Seizures
Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy is mc cause of seizure in newborne
Commonest type of seizure in newborn: Subtle
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•• Seen between 9 months and 5 years. Do not usually last more than 10 minutes
•• Good prognosis
•• Generalized in nature
•• EEG normal after 2 weeks
•• Fifty percent recurrence
Asterixis:
•• Consists of coarse arrhythmic lapses of sustained posture
•• It is usually related to metabolic disorders and is most easily seen when the patient’s arms are outstretched
•• Asterixis occurs bilaterally
Lennox-Gastaut syndrome:
•• It is a variant of petit mal epilepsy
•• Consists of intellectual impairment, distinctive slow spike and wave pattern, and atonic postural lapses followed by minor tonic-
clonic spasms.
Pseudoseizures:
•• Are parts of conversion disorder and are not directly related to the use of antipsychotics
•• They are very much like real seizures except that there are no aura and no EEG abnormalities
•• The movements are asynchronous and nonstereotyped and they occur when the person is awake.
Infantile Spasms
Constitute a unique and very serious epilepsy syndrome confined to infants. The usual characteristic features of this syndrome are:
•• Tonic or myoclonic seizures
•• Hypsarrhythmic EEGs
Infantile spasms may vary considerably in their clinical manifestations. Some seizures are characterized by brief head nods, whereas
other seizures consist of violent flexion of the trunk, arms, and legs. Most patients have more than one seizure type. Infantile spasms
can be classified into three major groups:
1. Flexor: Flexion of the neck, trunk, arms, and legs. Spasms of the muscles of the upper limbs result in either adduction of the arms
or a self-hugging motion, or adduction of the arms to either side of the head with the arms flexed at the elbow
2. Extensor: A predominance of extensor muscle contractions, which produce abrupt extension of the neck and trunk, along with
extensor abduction or adduction of the arms, legs, or both
3. Mixed flexor-extensor: Flexion of the neck, trunk, and arms and extension of the legs, or flexion of the legs and extension of the
arms with varying degrees of flexion of the neck and trunk.
Electroencephalography
Infantile spasms are usually associated with markedly abnormal EEGs. The most common interictal abnormality is hypsarrhythmia.
There are several variations:
•• Hypsarrhythmia with interhemispheric synchrony
•• Hypsarrhythmia with a consistent focus of abnormal discharge
•• Hypsarrhythmia with episodes of attenuation
•• Hypsarrhythmia consisting primarily of high-voltage slow activity with few sharp waves or spikes.
Batten’s Disease (Neuronal Ceroid Lipofuscinosis, NCL)

•• The ceroid lipofuscinoses are characterized by the storage of lipopigments that present morphological and tinctorial similarities
with ceroid and lipofuscin
•• The chemical nature of these pigments is unknown
•• They normally accumulate in neurones with age and present in external tissues out with the CNS
Twin-Twin Transfusion Syndrome

•• The syndrome develops when there is unbalanced shunting of blood from one twin (the donor) to the other (the recipient)
through arteriovenous anastomoses in the placenta
•• The donor twin progressively becomes anemic, growth-restricted, and oliguric. The resulting oligohydramnios can be so severe
that the donor becomes shrouded in the amniotic membrane (‘stuck twin’)
•• The recipient twin becomes plethoric, polyuric, and develops cardiomegaly and cardiac failure manifest as hydrops. The
polyuria leads to hydramnios which predisposes to miscarriage.
The Gray Baby Syndrome

•• Immaturity of liver function leads to jaundice and also to the newborn’s inability to tolerate drugs which are usually excreted via
the biliary tree
•• The ‘gray baby’ syndrome is due to increased free and conjugated chloramphenicol levels in the serum, leading to vomiting,
poor sucking, respiratory distress, abdominal distention, diarrhea.
Physical Abuse
•• A physically abused child is defined as ‘any child who receives physical injury (or injuries) as a result of acts (or omissions)
usually on the part of his parents or guardians’
•• The definition includes actual or likely physical injury to a child, or failure to prevent physical injury (or suffering) to a child
•• Deliberate poisoning, suffocation and Munchausen syndrome by proxy are usually included in this category
•• Physical abuse (nonaccidental injury) is usually perpetrated by the child’s carers. It has been recognized as an assault, i.e. abuse,
from when ‘battered babies’ were first described
•• Common pattern of injuries in infancy includes skull, rib and long bone fractures, bruising anywhere (but note that the head,
neck and chest are more common), retinal hemorrhages and subdural hematomas
Battered child syndrome (BCS) is found at every level of society, although the incidence may be higher in low-income households,
where adult caregivers suffer greater stress and social difficulties, without having had the benefit of higher education. The child abuser
most often injures a child in the heat of anger that he was also often abused as a child himself. The incessant crying of an infant or child
may trigger abuse. Symptoms may include a delayed visit to the emergency room with an injured child; an implausible explanation
of the cause of a child’s injury; bruises that match the shape of a hand, fist or belt; cigarette burns; scald marks; bite marks; black eyes;
unconsciousness; bruises around the neck; and a bulging fontanel in infants.
A four-month-old infant is brought to a physician because of increased lethargy and irritability. The father of the infant says that the
child rolled off the bed and fell on the cemented floor. According to the father, the child has been previously healthy and is up-to-
date on his vaccinations. He has been meeting his development milestones. While in office, the patient develops a seizure. Initial
examination shows tense fontanellae and bruises on limbs.
Shaken Baby Syndromes

•• This term is applied to a clinical picture in which the causative mechanism of injury is thought to be severe repeated
shaking, probably with impact in most cases
•• Important symptoms include drowsiness, unconsciousness, poor feeding, irritability, fits, pallor, floppiness, and vomiting,
sudden collapse, breathing difficulties, signs of other injury, large head, apnea and delayed development
•• Infants may present as ‘cot death’
•• Diagnosis is commonly missed or delayed.
Sexual Abuse
‘The sexual exploitation of children is referred to as the involvement of dependent, developmentally immature children and adolescents
in sexual activities that they do not fully comprehend, are unable to give informed consent to and that violates the social taboos of
family roles’.
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Contact involves touching, fondling or oral contact of breast or genitals. There may be insertion of fingers or objects into vulva or anus.
Masturbation may be by adult of him/herself in the presence of the child, including ejaculation onto the child, by adult of child or by
child of adult. Intercourse is vaginal, anal or oral, whether actual or attempted in any degree. This is usually with an adult as the active
party but, in some cases a child may be encouraged to penetrate the adult. Rape is attempted or achieved penile penetration of the
vagina. Other genital contacts include intercrural intercourse where the penis is laid between the legs or genital contact with any part
of the child’s body, e.g. a penis rubbed on child’s thigh
Prostitution involves any of the above abuses which includes the exchange of money, gifts or favors and applies to both boys (‘rent
boys’) and girls
Noncontact abuse involves exhibitionism (flashing), pornography (photographing sexual acts or anatomy), showing pornographic
images (photographs, films, videos) and erotic talk (telling children titillating or sexually explicit stories). Other sexual exploitations
include sadistic activities, e.g. burning a child’s buttocks or genital area.
Refsum Disease
•• The cardinal manifestations of Refsum disease include retinitis pigmentosa, cerebellar ataxia and polyneuropathy
•• The underlying metabolic etiology for Refsum disease is a deficiency of phytanoyl-coenzyme A (CoA) hydroxylase, an enzyme
that catalyzes an essential step in phytanic acid degradation
•• Deficiency of this enzyme results in the accumulation of phytanic acid
•• The sensory-motor polyneuropathy associated with Refsum disease typically begins in the distal lower extremities and, if
untreated, progresses to involve the upper extremities and trunk. Usually become evident later than the retinal degeneration and
polyneuropathy
•• Additional clinical features can include sensorineural hearing loss, anosmia, cardiac conduction abnormalities and
cardiomyopathy and skeletal manifestations (epiphyseal dysplasia, shortening or elongation of the third or fourth
metatarsals, hammer toes)
•• Cardiomyopathy is a frequent cause of sudden death in untreated patients
•• Therapy: Because phytanic acid is dietary in origin, therapy focuses on diets low in phytanic acid.
Nail-patella Syndrome
•• Nail-patella syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder consisting of hypoplasia or absence of patellae, dystrophic nails,
dysplasia of the elbows and iliac horns, and renal disease
•• The nephropathy is usually benign and includes microhematuria and mild proteinuria, which usually appear in adolescence or
young adulthood. Some patients develop nephrotic syndrome and mild hypertension and are at risk of progression to end-stage
renal failure
•• Remember chronic glomerulonephritis is mc cause of childhood hypertension.
Kasabach–Merritt Syndrome
•• In the neonate, large or multiple hemangiomas are occasionally associated with a generalized bleeding disorder caused by
the trapping of platelets within them, which produces a profound thrombocytopenia
•• A course of prednisone, 2–4 mg/kg per 24 h can effect dramatic improvement
•• If this fails, embolization of the hemangioma can be considered.
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma
•• The sacrococcygeal teratoma is the commonest teratoma presenting in the neonatal period
•• They tend to be large and protrude from the space between the anus and the coccyx
•• The lesion is usually covered in skin but the most protuberant part may be necrotic due to vascular compromise
•• The tumor may also extend up into the pelvis and a large retrorectal component is palpable in all the cases. In a presacral teratoma,
there is no protrusion behind the anus and the presentation may be later in the first year of life
•• The tumor may be both solid and cystic in nature. A very large tumor may give rise to dystocia and, if diagnosed antenatally, is
best delivered by cesarean section
•• Treatment is excision within the first few days of life
•• Adulthood recurrence of benign or malignant elements may occur.
Prune Belly Syndrome (Triad syndrome)

•• This consists of deficiency of the anterior abdominal wall muscles, cryptorchidism and urinary tract deformities. The
abdominal muscular deficiency is mainly in the lower abdomen, the whole abdominal wall taking on the wrinkled appearance of
a prune.
Infants of Diabetic Mothers

•• Hypoglycemia
•• Hypocalcemia
•• Respiratory distress syndrome
•• Hyperbilirubinemia
•• Polycythemia
•• HOCM
•• VSD, ASD, transposition of great vessels, caudal regression
•• Lazy left colon
Caudal Regression Syndrome

•• It is a rare disorder characterized by abnormal development of the lower spine end of the developing fetus
•• A wide range of abnormalities may occur, including partial absence of the tailbone end of the spine causing no apparent symptoms,
to extensive abnormalities of the lower vertebrae, pelvis, and spine
•• Neurological impairment as well as inability to control urination and bowel movements (incontinence) may occur in severe cases.
Physiological pubertal gynecomastia:

•• May involve one or both breasts
•• Spontaneous regression may occur
•• All hormones are normal
Musculoskeletal System
Systemic Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
•• More common in boys

•• Maculopapular rash with clearing in center
•• Hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy occur
•• Rheumatoid factor negative
•• Pericarditis and interstitial lung disease occur
Polyarticular JRA (Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis)

•• Most common chronic arthritis in children is JRA
•• Bilateral symmetric fleeting polyarthritis of small joints is not always characteristic of polyarticular JRA (Juvenile Rheumatoid
Arthritis).
Pediatrics 281
•• Spine, knee, wrist and hip joints may also be involved

•• Arthritis with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, toxic look favor diagnosis of rheumatoid factor positive JRA
•• Disease onset is below 16 years of age
•• More common in girls
•• Five or more joints affected
•• It is not essential for rheumatoid factor to be positive
•• Highest risk of ‘Chronic Uveitis’ is in ANA seropositive oligoarticular JRA
•• Etanercept is indicated for reduction of signs and symptoms of moderately to severely active polyarticular-course juvenile
rheumatoid arthritis not adequately responsive to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs.
Fractures in Children
•• The periosteum is extremely strong in children
•• Children’s bones are much more resilient and less brittle than those of adults
•• Bending moments applied to the bone of a child may cause a Greenstick fracture, in which there is distraction of the cortex on
the convex side and compression of bone on the concave side (Cortex intact.)
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) consists of a group of disorders of connective tissue characterized by:
•• Joint hypermobility plus fragility and laxity of the skin
•• These conditions are characterized by abnormalities in collagen genes resulting in the production of abnormal collagen and
consequent tissue fragility
•• EDS has soft, hyperextensible skin, ‘cigarette paper’ scars, easy bruising and marked hypermobility. EDS type II is similar to
type I but less severe
•• Also seen is serious involvement with a high incidence of rupture of the arteries, the colon or the pregnant uterus. Management
of EDS consists of patient education and support, with genetic counseling for the more severe forms.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
OI is also called brittle bone disease or ‘Lobstein syndrome’
•• Basic defect is in collagen type 1
•• It is transmitted either as AD or AR Inheritance
•• Type 1 OI is the most common type
•• OI is inherited autosomal dominant trait mostly

•• ‘Blue sclera’ is present in several types of OI but not all
•• Saturn ring, arcus juvenilis, hypermetropia and retinal detachment
•• The sclera is normal in some types of OI
•• Feature of OI is generalized osteopenia with recurrent fractures and skeletal deformity. Fracture healing, however, is normal.
Fracture in utero may be seen
•• Laxity of joint ligaments leads to hypermobility
Most common site of acute osteomyelitis in infants: Hip

Most common site of acute osteomyelitis in children: Femur
Acute Pyogenic Arthritis (SEPTIC)

•• Joint infection with pyogenic organisms occurs as a result of hematogenous seeding of the joint, extension of adjacent
osteomyelitis or penetrating wounds of the joint
•• Hematogenous pyarthrosis is most commonly observed in children under the age of 5 years
•• S. aureus is the most common etiologic agent, followed by Hemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus, Gonococcus, and Pneumococcus
•• Acute pyarthrosis is almost always monarticular
•• Patients with immune deficiency may present with multiple joint involvement
•• The hip joint is the most frequently involved
•• A male presents with triad of lytic bony lesions on skull, diabetes Insipidus and exomphalos Hand-Schullerchristian disease
•• An infant presents with failure to thrive, pancytopenia. Bones are brittle and fracture easily. Infantile osteopetrosis
Defect is found in osteoclasts
•• A two-year-old presents with multiple fractures in different stages of healing brought by Battered baby syndrome
overconcerned parents
•• A six-year-old with b/l symmetrical fractures and blue sclera. Bones are osteopenic and Osteogenesis imperfecta
brittle
Sexual precocity in girls with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and cutaneous pigmentation constitutes ‘McCune-Albright syndrome’.
Fibrous dysplasia
McCune-Albright syndrome represents a phenotypic spectrum of disorders caused by activating mutations in the GNAS1 gene
Duchenee Muscular Dystrophy

•• In Duchenee muscular dystrophy, inheritance is X-LINKED Recessive
•• Disease of sarcolemmal proteins
•• Defect lies in dystrophin gene and results in abscenced of dystrophin protein
•• Onset is typically below 5 years of age
•• Proximal limb muscles are involved and pseudohypertrophy of these muscles occurs
•• Patient on standing tries to climb on himself. (Gower’s sign)
•• Characteristic pathological features are:
Necrosis of muscle fibers
Muscle fibers of varying size
Fibrosis
Fatty infiltration
The less severe form is the Becker’s dystrophy. Features are:

•• Less common
•• Less severe
•• Not absence but decreased and altered dystrophin protein
•• Later onset
•• Cardiac involvement is rare
•• May have normal life span
•• CPK levels are diagnostic
Floppy Baby Syndrome is caused by

•• Werrding-Hoffman’s disease
•• Central core disease
Pediatrics 283
•• Mitochondrial myopathies
•• Ehler-Danlos syndrome
•• Clostridium botulinum
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

•• It is displacement of ‘Proximal Femoral Epiphysis’
•• Common in children (obese) in 2nd decade
•• Pain is the initial and most common complaint
•• ‘Epiphysis’ slips ‘downwards and posteriorly’
•• Limping is the associated feature
•• Flexion, abduction and medial rotation are limited
•• Diagnosis is by: Trethowan’s sign, Capener’s sign
•• Trendelenburg’s sign may be positive
Perthe’s Disease
•• It is a chronic disease with ischemia of upper end of femur causing ‘avascular necrosis.’
•• Osteochondritis of femoral head
•• Boys are affected more
•• Not obese usually
Ewing’s Sarcoma
•• Affects children <15 years usually
•• Diaphysial tumor
•• Onion skin lesions on X-ray
•• Translocation (t11:22)
•• Mimics osteomyelitis
•• PAS positive material (glycogen) found
•• Most radiosensitive bone tumor
Remember Most Common Causes

•• Fungal ball in lung cavity •• Aspergillosis
•• Bronchiolitis in children •• Respiratory Syncytial virus
•• Croup •• Parainfluenza virus
•• Viral pneumonia in adults/children •• Influenza/Resp syncytial virus
•• Tropical hemoptysis •• Paragonimus westermanii
•• Meningitis in less than 2 months old •• E Coli, Beta Hemolytic Streptococci
•• Meningitis in 2 months to 12 years •• H. Influenzae
•• Meningitis after 12 years •• Meningococccus
•• Meningitis in recurrent CSF leaks •• Streptococcus pneumonia
•• Endemic hematuria •• Schistosoma haemotobium

•• Infection in burns •• Pseudomonas
•• Bockhart’s impetigo •• Staphylococcus
•• Parotitis •• Staphylococcus
•• Boil •• Staphylococcus
Buzz Phrases
•• Cherry-red spot on macula ‘without’ hepatosplenomegaly: Tay-Sachs disease
•• Cherry-red spot on macula ‘with’ hepatosplenomegaly: Niemann-Pick’s disease
•• Bronze skin: Hemochromatosis
•• Heliotrope rash: Dermatomyositis
•• Salty tasting infant: Cystic fibrosis
•• Honey ingestion: Infant botulism
•• Currant jelly stool: Intussusception
•• Currant jelly sputum: Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Clinical Cases Frequently Asked

•• A child presents with:
–– Hepatosplenomegaly
–– Abdominal distension
–– Jaundice, anemia and adrenal calcification
Wolman’s disease
•• A 7-year-old girl with:
–– Nonproductive cough
–– Mild stridor for 3 months’ duration
–– Patient is improving but suddenly developed wheeze-productive cough, mild fever and hyperlucency on CXR and PFT shows
obstructive curve
–– Diagnosis is:
Bronchiolitis obliterans
•• A term male baby weighing 3.5 kg, born of uncomplicated pregnancy, developed respiratory distress at birth
–– Not responding to surfactant, echofinding revealed nothing abnormal
–– X-ray showed ground glass appearance and culture is negative
–– Apgars are 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively
–– History of one-month female sibling died before
–– The diagnosis is:
Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
An infant with:
•• Cleft lip
•• Cleft palate
•• Polydactyly
•• Microcephaly with holoprosencephaly
•• Ectodermal scalp defect, is suffering from:
Trisomy 13
•• A 3-year-old boy
–– With normal developmental milestones with delayed speech and difficulty in communication and concentration.
Pediatrics 285
–– He is not making friends

–– Most probable diagnosis is:
Autism
•• A 3-year-old boy presents with
–– Fever; dysuria and gross hematuria
–– Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion
–– Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria
Posterior urethral valves
•• An 8-day-old breastfed baby presents with:
–– Vomiting, poor feeding and loose stools
–– On examination, the heart rate is 190/minute, blood pressure 50/30 mm Hg, respiratory rate 72 breaths/minute and capillary
refill time 4 seconds
–– Investigations show hemoglobin level of 15 g/dl, Na 120 mEq/l, K 6.8 mEq/l, bicarbonate 15 mEq/l, urea 30 mg/dl and creatinine
0.6 mg/dl. The most likely diagnosis is:
Acute tubular necrosis
•• A male infant presented with:
–– Distension of abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium
–– Subsequently a full-thickness biopsy of the rectum was performed. The rectal biopsy shows lack of ganglion cells. Likely
diagnosis is:
Hirshspring’s disease
•• A 2-year-old boy has vitamin D-resistant rickets. His investigations revealed:
–– Serum Calcium–9 mg/dl
–– Phosphate–2.4 mg/dl
–– Alkaline phosphatase–1041 IU
–– Normal intact parathyroid hormone and bicarbonate–22 mEq/L
The most probable diagnosis is:
Hypophosphatemic rickets
•• A 3-month-old male infant developed otitis media, for which he was given a course of Cotrimoxazole. A few days later:
–– He developed extensive peeling of the skin;
–– There were no mucosal lesions and the baby was not toxic
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
•• A two-year-old girl child is brought to the outpatient department (OPD) with features of:
–– Hand-wringing stereotype movements
–– Impaired language and communication development
–– Breath-holding spells
- Poor social skills and deceleration of head growth after 6 months of age
Rett’s syndrome
•• An 11-month-old boy, weighing 3 kg
–– Has polyuria, polydipsia and delayed motor milestones
–– Blood investigations show creatinine of 0.5 mg/dl, potassium 3 mEq/l, sodium 125 mEq/l, chloride 88 mEq/l, calcium
8.8 mg/dl, pH 7.46 and bircarbonate 26 mEq/l
–– Ultrasonography shows medullary nephrocalcinosis
Barter’s syndrome
•• A 13-year-old boy is referred for evaluation of nocturnal enuresis and short stature.
His blood pressure is normal

•• The hemoglobin level is 8 g/dl
•• Urea 112 mg/dl
•• Creatinine 6 mg/dl
•• Sodium 119 mEq/dl
•• Potassium 4 mEq/l
•• Calcium 7 mg/dl
•• Phosphate 6 mg/dl and alkaline phosphatase 300 U/l
•• Urinalysis shows trace proteinuria with hyaline casts; no red and white cells are seen
•• Ultrasound shows bilateral small kidneys and the micturating cystourethrogram is normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
Nephronophthisis
•• An infant presents with:
–– Hypotonia and
–– Hyporeflexia
–– During his intrauterine period, there were polyhydramnios and decreased fetal movements
Most probable diagnosis is:
Spinal muscular atrophy
•• 12-year-old presented with
–– Gross hematuria with 80%
–– Dysmorphic RBCs 2 days after an attack of upper respiratory tract infection. Diagnosis is:
IgA nephropathy
•• A neonate presents with
–– Jaundice and clay: colored stools
–– Liver biopsy shows giant cells. Diagnosis is:
Neonatal hepatitis with extrahepatic biliary atresia
•• An 8-year-old child presents with:
–– Lethargy
–– Multiple epiphyseal breaks
–– Wormian bones with growth retardation and
–– Mental retardation. Diagnosis is:
Hypothyroidism
•• An 8-year-old female child following URTI developed:
–– Maculopapular rash on the jaw spreading onto the trunk which cleared on the 3rd day without desquamation and
–– Tender postauricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy
The diagnosis is:
Rubella
•• A month-old-HIV positive child following URTI:
–– Developed sudden onset of breathlessness
–– The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation
–– The O2 saturation was greater than 90%. The diagnosis most likely is:
Brochiolitis
Important ‘Pediatric’ Syndromes

•• Lowe’s syndrome: Hypophosphatemic rickets + aminoaciduria + CNS and eye defects
•• Potter’s syndrome: Pulmonary hypoplasia + renal hypoplasia + ear deformities
•• Cat eye syndrome: Partial trisomy 22
•• Floppy baby syndrome: Due to clostridium botulinum
•• Dandy-Walker syndrome: Due to obstruction of Foramina of Luschka and Megendie
Pediatrics 287
•• McLeod syndrome: Unilateral pseudoemphysema occurring in childhood

•• William’s syndrome: Infantile hypercalcemia
•• Caudal regression syndrome: Seen in diabetics
Timothy Syndrome
•• It is a multisystem disorder characterized by cardiac, hand/foot, facial, and neuro developmental features
•• The two forms are type 1 (classic) and type 2, a rare form caused by mutations in an isoform of the same gene
•• Cardiac findings include a rate-corrected QT interval of between 480 ms and 700 ms and congenital heart defects (patent
ductus arteriosus, patent foramen ovale, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)
•• Hand/foot findings are unilateral or bilateral cutaneous syndactyly variably involving fingers two (index), three (middle),
four (ring), and five (little) and bilateral cutaneous syndactyly of toes two and three
•• Facial findings include flat nasal bridge, low-set ears, thin upper lip, and round face. Neuropsychiatric involvement includes
global developmental delays and autism spectrum disorders. Ventricular tachyarrhythmia is the leading cause of death,
followed by infection and complications of intractable hypoglycemia
•• Diagnosis/testing: Timothy syndrome is diagnosed by clinical features and by the presence of one of the three known mutations
in CACNA1C, the gene encoding the CaV1.2 calcium channel. Molecular genetic testing is available on a clinical basis.
Landau-Kleffner Syndrome
•• It is a childhood disorder. A major feature of LKS is the gradual or sudden loss of the ability to understand and use spoken
language
•• All children with LKS have abnormal electrical brain waves that can be documented by an electroencephalogram (EEG), a
recording of the electric activity of the brain
•• Approximately 80 percent of the children with LKS have one or more epileptic seizures that usually occur at night. Behavioral
disorders such as hyperactivity, aggressiveness and depression can also accompany this disorder
•• LKS occurs most frequently in normally developing children who are between 3 and 7 years of age. For no apparent reason, these
children begin having trouble understanding what is said to them. Doctors often refer to this problem as auditory agnosia or
‘word deafness’. The auditory agnosia may occur slowly or very quickly. Parents often think that the child is developing a hearing
problem or has become suddenly deaf. Hearing tests, however, show normal hearing. Children may also appear to be autistic
or developmentally delayed
•• The inability to understand language eventually affects the child’s spoken language which may progress to a complete loss of the
ability to speak (mutism)
•• Children who have learned to read and write before the onset of auditory agnosia can often continue communicating through
written language.
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Remember the features:
•• Microcephaly
•• Maxillary hyperplasia (imp)
•• Small eyes
•• Cardiac malformation
•• Hyperkinetic movements
‘Gray Baby’ Syndrome

•• It is a disorder that occurs in newborns who have either received chloramphenicol immediately after birth or whose mothers have
received the medication close to the delivery date
•• Symptoms typically appear in the following order: Abdominal distention with or without emesis, progressive pallid cyanosis,
and vasomotor collapse, frequently accompanied by irregular respiration
•• Death can occur as early as a few hours after onset of signs and symptoms
•• Other symptoms may include: Loose, greenish stools, a refusal to suck, ashen color (implied by the name gray baby
syndrome) and lactic acidosis.
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
•• It is an X-linked recessive immunodeficiency disease characterized by the triad of thrombocytopenia (hemorrhage may be
the presenting complaint), eczema, and recurrent infections (often respiratory)
•• The children have defects in both T- and B-cell function, and are vulnerable to pyogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, and Pneumocystis
carinii
•• These patients have severe disease, and formerly often dies by the age of 15
•• Survivors past age 10 have a 10% incidence of cancer, particularly lymphoma and acute lymphoblastic leukemia
•• Modern treatment consists of splenectomy, continuous antibiotic therapy, IV immunoglobulin, and bone marrow
transplantation.
Kallmann’s Syndrome
•• It is an isolated gonadotropin deficiency or familial hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and can present with primary amenorrhea
•• Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menses in a female by the age of 16
•• Associated findings in Kallmann’s syndrome may include anosmia or hyposmia, color blindness, and cleft lip or cleft palate.
These findings are attributable to the fact that during embryogenesis, the GnRH neurons originally develop in the epithelium of
the olfactory placode and normally migrate into the hypothalamus
•• Physical examination may reveal absent to minimal breast development. Treatment of the patient with Kallmann’s syndrome is
with exogenous estrogen and progestin replacement therapy. If pregnancy is desired, ovulation induction can be brought about
with the pulsatile administration of exogenous GnRH.
Caudal Regression Syndrome

•• It is a rare disorder characterized by abnormal development of the lower spine end of the developing fetus
•• A wide range of abnormalities may occur including partial absence of the tailbone end of the spine causing no apparent symptoms,
to extensive abnormalities of the lower vertebrae, pelvis, and spine
•• Neurological impairment as well as inability to control urination and bowel movements (incontinence) may occur in severe cases.
CHARGE Syndrome
Includes
•• Colobomas
•• Heart defects
•• Atresia, (choanal)
•• Retardation
•• Genitourinary abnormalities
•• Ear anomalies
The etiology of the CHARGE syndrome is unknown, but it may involve altered morphogenesis during the second trimester of pregnancy.
It is not genetically transmitted and is not associated with a teratogenic effect of any substance.
Constriction Band Syndrome

•• This condition occurs sporadically and is alternatively known as Streeter’s dysplasia or amniotic band syndrome
•• The etiology remains uncertain but constriction by intrauterine amniotic bands remains a hypothesis as well as localized failures
of formation. Bands can be multiple and are asymmetric
•• Structures proximal to the band are normal but distally they may be deformed or even amputated
•• Tight bands can cause severe distal edema and vascular compromise with urgent ‘Z’-plasty release required in the neonatal period.
Pediatrics 289
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
•• Facial nevus flames (usually in the distribution of 1st branch of trigeminal nerve)
•• Contralateral focal seizures
•• Calcification (rail-road track) of the cortex and subcortical structures
•• Glaucoma on the same side as skin lesions
•• Mental retardation due to cerebral atrophy
Segawa Syndrome
Segawa syndrome, also called dopa-responsive dystonia, is an inherited disease that can cause physical rigidity and
developmental delay. There are two forms—mild and severe.
In the mild form, symptoms typically begin in childhood. Children develop jerky movements that quickly progress to physical
rigidity. These children show spastic movements, and make very little voluntary movement. If untreated, children with Segawa
syndrome may have expressionless faces, drooping eyelids, tongue tremors, and drooling problems. They will show both mental
and physical developmental delays. Some children with Segawa syndrome show a ‘diurnal’ pattern, meaning their symptoms are
more or less severe on alternate days.
The severe form of the disease will appear in infancy, usually before six months of age. Affected infants have delayed motor skills,
weakness in the chest and abdomen, rigidity in the arms and legs, and problems with movement. These children will eventually
have learning disabilities, problems with speech, and behavioral/psychological problems. In addition, some people with the
disease have problems with their autonomic nervous system, which regulates unconscious functions, such as body temperature
regulation, digestion, blood sugar level, and blood pressure. Treatment of the severe form of the disease is often less successful
Segawa syndrome is caused by a deficiency in an enzyme called tyrosine hydroxylase. Without it, the amino acid tyrosine cannot
properly be converted to dopamine, a key neurotransmitter in the brain. Dopamine is important for many functions, including muscle
control and cognition.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-day-old infant presents to the emergency department with vomiting, lethargy, hypotonia, and jaundice. Physical
examination reveals hepatomegaly and neurologic depression. A full sepsis evaluation is undertaken and the Gram stain of
the cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-negative organisms of the following. The best additional laboratory test to obtain is:
1. Erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate
2. RBC transketolase
3. Tyrosinase levels
4. Thyroid profile
Ans. 1. Erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate
USMLE Case Scenario

Clinical feature of microphthalmos, hypertelorism, colobomas, mental retardation, microcephaly are seen in Cat’s Eye
Syndrome, which involves:
1. Chromosome 11
2. Chromosome 22
3. Chromosome 3
4. Chromosome 13
Ans. 2. Chromosome 22
USMLE Case Scenario

Fetal alcohol syndrome is:
1. Mental retardation, macrocephaly, macrophthalmia, midfacial hyperplasia and cardiac defects
2. Mental retardation, microcephaly, microphthalmia, midfacial hyperplasia and cardiac defects
3. Mental retardation, macrocephaly, microphthalmia, midfacial hyperplasia and cardiac defects
4. Mental retardation, microcephaly, microphthalmia, midfacial hypoplasia and cardiac defects
Ans. 4. Mental retardation, microcephaly, microphthalmia, midfacial hypoplasia and cardiac defects
USMLE Case Scenario

An inborn error in amino acid metabolism with congenital cataract and systemic manifestation of mental retardation,
dwarfism, osteomalacia, muscular hypotonia, frontal prominence are a feature of:
1. Alkaptonuria
2. Phenylketonuria
3. Lowe’s syndrome
4. Cystinuria
Ans. 3. Lowe’s syndrome (oculocerebrorenal) syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Discrete maculopapular lesions that become confluent as they spread from ‘head to toe’ associated with cough, conjunctivitis,
coryza and spots in oral cavity are a feature of:
1. Rubella
2. Pox
3. CMV
4. EBV
5. HSV
6. Measles
7. Rabies
8. Erythema infectiousum
Ans. 6. Measles
Typical presentation of measles, which is caused by a paramyxovirus
Pediatrics 291
USMLE Case Scenario

IgA deficiency recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections are common. IgA levels are always low and levels of IgG
subclass 2 may be low. Treatment involves:
1. Immunoglobulins in low dose
2. Immunoglobulins in high dose
3. Immunoglobulins with azathioprine
4. No immunoglobulins
Ans. 4. No immunoglobulins
Do not give immunoglobulins, which may cause anaphylaxis due to development of anti-IgA antibodies.
USMLE Case Scenario

Chediak-Higashi syndrome is usually an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by giant granules in neutrophils,
infections, and often oculocutaneous albinism. It is caused by a defect in:
1. Microtubule polymerization
2. Lysozome overactivity
3. Mitochondrial dysfunction
4. Peroxisome dysfunction
Ans. 1. Microtubule polymerization
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old female brings her newborn child to a pediatrician. The child is seen to have a flat, salmon-colored lesion on his
glabella. On crying, the lesion becomes darker. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Cafe au lait spots
2. Erythema toxicum
3. Cavernous hemangioma
4. Salmon patch
Ans. 4. Salmon patch
USMLE Case Scenario

A newborn is seen to have amastia, radial nerve aplasia and aplasia of pectoralis muscle. The child is most likely to have:
1. Waardenburg syndrome
2. Patau’s syndrome
3. Poland syndrome
4. Edward syndrome
Ans. 3. Poland syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A two-month-old boy is brought by her mother to a pediatrician with projectile vomiting for the last three days.
The child is found to have eczematous rash and has a peculiar musty odor. The doctor advices the mother that there is a chance
that the baby might have mental retardation as well. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Cystinuria
2. Alkaptonuria
3. Fragile X syndrome
4. Phenylketonuria
Ans. 4. Phenylketonuria
USMLE Case Scenario

A male infant has initial Apgar scores of 5 and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes following birth by normal vaginal delivery at 30 weeks
gestation. However, increasing respiratory distress in the next hour requires intubation and positive pressure ventilation.
Two months later, the infant is finally taken off the ventilator, but still does not oxygenate normally. Which of the following
diseases has this infant most likely developed?
1. Bronchial asthma
2. Bronchiectasis
3. Tracheoesophageal fistula
4. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Ans. 4. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
The BPD is a complication of the treatment for neonatal respiratory distress. The positive pressure ventilation with the higher
FIO2’s and the prolonged intubation contribute.
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with jaundice, hypoglycemia, hepatosplenomegaly. He has poor weight gain. He has been adviced
galactose-free diet. The infant is at risk for sepsis particularly by:
1. Streptococcus
2. Staphylococcus
3. E. coli
4. Klebsiella
5. Pseudomonas
6. H. influenza
Ans. 3. E. coli
USMLE Case Scenario

A 32-weeks gestation infant is seen to develop tachypnea and nasal flaring. An immediate CXR shows hazy lungs with a
reticular glandular pattern with air bronchogram. Most likely the child suffers from:
1. Transient tachypnea of newborn
2. Diaphragmatic hernia
3. Persistent fetal circulation
4. Surfactant deficiency
5. Meconium aspiration
Ans. 4. Surfactant deficiency
USMLE Case Scenario

Periventricular calcifications are seen in a premature along with decreased size of head. The child is jaundiced and physical
examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly. Most likely TORCH infection is:
1. HSV
2. CMV
3. Toxoplasmosis
4. Rubella
Ans. 2. CMV
USMLE Case Scenario

An ophthalmologist notices chorioretinitis and cataract in a child with a decreased head size. CT scan reveals cortical atrophy.
Cutaneous scars and maldevelopment of a limb are noted on general physical examination. Most likely cause is:
1. HSV
2. CMV
3. Toxoplasmosis
4. Varicella
Ans. 4. Varicella
Pediatrics 293
USMLE Case Scenario

In VACTERL, anomalies are seen as V–Vertebral anomalies, A-Anal anomalies, C-Cardiovascular anomalies, T-Tracheal
anomalies, E-Esophageal anomalies, R-------, L-Limb anomalies. R stands for:
1. Retinal anomalies
2. Renal anomalies
3. Regional anomalies
4. Right pectoral deformities
Ans. 2. Renal anomalies
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-year-old boy is seen by a pediatrician in an Ilinos pediatric unit. The boy is weak with decreased muscle tone and hair, which
is sparse. Previously a dermatologist had treated him for dermatitis, which is generalized. The boy is seen to be edematous.
1. Iron deficiency
2. Protein malnutrition
3. Caloric malnutrition
4. Protein caloric malnutrition
Ans. 4. Protein caloric malnutrition (Kwashiorkor)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old child is seen to have a large tongue. Ultrasound shows a large pancreas and a large kidney. At birth, he had a large
fontanella and feeding problems. Currently he is having a low blood sugar. Most likely cause is:
1. Glucose 6 phosphate deficiency
2. Hers disease
3. Wilms tumor
4. Beckwith-Weidemann Syndrome
Ans. 4. Beckwith Wiedemann Syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Defect in ataxia telangiectasia gene is present on:
1. Short arm of chromosome 1
2. Long arm of chromosome 1
3. Short arm of chromosome 11
4. Long arm of chromosome 11
Ans. 4. Long arm of chromosome 11
USMLE Case Scenario

In Leopard Syndrome, O is:
1. Ocular hypotelorism
2. Ocular hypertelorism
3. Oculogyric crisis
4. Oculomotor palsy
Ans. 1. Ocular hypotelorism
USMLE Case Scenario

Pterygium coli is a feature of:
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
3. Edwards’ syndrome
4. Patau syndrome
5. Turner syndrome
6. Waardenburg syndrome
7. Eagle-Barrett syndrome
Ans. 5. Turner syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

USG scan of a pregnant female reveals absence of kidneys on both sides in a fetus at 30th week. Most likely cause can be:
1. Poland syndrome
2. Potter syndrome
3. Prune belly syndrome
4. Patau syndrome
Ans. 2. Potter syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A pediatrician examines an infant. An infant is found to have poor suckling, floppy and is with poor head control. On making
repeated ocular muscle movements, his eyes seem to get tired and he cannot make further ocular movements. An associated
anomaly can be:
1. Mydriasis
2. Miosis
3. Proptosis
4. Ptosis
Ans. 4. Ptosis. Condition is MG
USMLE Case Scenario

Wilson’s disease is also called hepatolenticular degeneration. Correct statement about Wilson’s disease is:
1. Autosomal recessive disease involving sympathetic ganglia with high serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels
2. Autosomal dominant disease involving basal ganglia with high serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels
3. Autosomal recessive disease involving basal ganglia with low serum copper and high ceruloplasmin levels
4. Autosomal recessive disease involving basal ganglia with low serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels
Ans. 4. Autosomal recessive disease involving basal ganglia with low serum copper and ceruloplasmin levels
USMLE Case Scenario

Dancing eyes and dancing feet may be a feature of:
1. Wilms’ tumor
2. Pheochromocytoma
3. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
4. Neuroblastoma
Ans. 4. Neuroblastoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old child is brought to a pediatrician for extensive bruising and recurrent epistaxis. The disease occurs in an X-linked
recessive manner and Factor IX replacement is effective in treatment. Most probably the disease is:
Pediatrics 295

2. Hemophilia A
3. ITP
4. TTP
5. Scurvy
6. Christmas disease
Ans. 6. Christmas disease (i.e. Hemophilia B)
USMLE Case Scenario

Thrombocytopenia is not a feature of:
1. TAR syndrome
2. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
3. DiGeorge syndrome
4. Kasabach/Merrit syndrome
Ans. 3. DiGeorge syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Diamond-Blackfan syndrome is:
1. Congenital, aplastic anemia often with low MCV
2. Congenital pure red blood cell anemia often with elevated MCV
3. Accquired l thrombocytopenia often with elevated MCV
4. Acquired pure red blood cell anemia often with low MCV
Ans. 2. Congenital pure red blood cell anemia often with elevated MCV
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old boy who had developmental dysplasia hip at birth is brought to a pediatric clinic with a small-sized foot. The foot
is medially rotated with medial rotation of the heel. The child as such is having:
1. Talipes equinovalgus
2. Pes cavus
3. Pes planus
4. Talipes equinovarus
Ans. 4. Talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old overactive boy has localized swelling and tenderness in his upper shin near the tibial tubercle.
He says that pain gets exaggerated on exertion and is relieved at rest. Radiograph reveals a soft tissue swelling at the site. Rest
of skeletal survey is normal. The said disease is a:
1. Benign tumor
2. Malignant tumor
3. Bursitis
4. Apophysitis
5. Synovitis
Ans. 4. Apophysitis (Remember Osgood-Schlatter disease)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 5-year-old child is seen by a pediatrician. The child has severe pain in his knee. He walks with a limp and is febrile. The hip is
tender, warm and swollen. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Streptococcal osteomyelitis of knee
2. Staphylococcal osteomyelitis of knee
3. Syphlitic arthritis of knee

4. Osteoarthritis of knee
5. Congenital dislocation of hip
6. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
7. Septic arthritis of hip
Ans. 7. Septic arthritis of hip (Remember hip pain is referred to knee)
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-month-old child from a far off area presents with cough which is paroxysmal in nature. There is no whoop. Facial
petechea and subconjunctival hemorrhage are seen. His mother says that the child has not been immunized till date. Blood
investigations reveal absolute lymphocytosis. Most likely diagnosis is infection by:
1. Streptococcus
2. Staphylococcus
3. Mycoplasma
4. Yersinia
5. Influenza virus
6. Bordetella
7. H. influenzae
8. Measles virus
9. Mycobacterium
10. Mycoplasma
Ans. 1. Streptococcus
USMLE Case Scenario

A boy is brought to you with unilateral conjunctivitis, preauricular lymphadenopathy and cervical lymphadenopathy. The
doctor confirms the disease as perinaud occuloglandular syndrome. The causative agent is:
1. Streptococcus
2. Staphylococcus
3. Mycoplasma
4. Yersinia
5. Influenza virus
6. Bordetella
7. H. influenzae
8. Bartonella
9. Mycobacterium
10. Mycoplasma
Ans. 6. Bordetella
USMLE Case Scenario

A DNA virus is found to be a causative agent for a child who presents with red cheeks followed by appearance of a lacy rash in
trunk and proximal extremities with sparing of palms and soles. The said infection is:
1. Herpes
2. Measles
3. Mumps
4. Erythema infectiosum
5. Erythema induratum
6. Exanthem subitum
Ans. 4. Erythema infectiosum
Pediatrics 297
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-month-old infant presents with rash after the onset of fever. The rash is red-colored begining in trunk and spreads to
neck and proximal extremities. The said infection is:
1. Exanthem subitum caused by HHV 5
Ans. 2. Exanthem subitum caused by HHV 6
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old male medical student reports to emergency because of fever and severe headache. He says that he developed a
rose-colored rash in his ankles which was maculopapular initially and was present on palms as well as soles which responds to
tetracycline. He came back from Virginia after he was camping along with his friends. None of his friends is affected in a similar
way. Most likely the causative agent is a:
1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Fungus
4. Rickettsia
Ans. 4. Rickettsia (Rocky mountain spotted fever)
USMLE Case Scenario

Miliary sudamina, Pastia lines, Sandpaper texture and Strawberry tongue are a feature of infection by:
1. Staphylococcus
2. Streptococci
3. Pneumococci
4. Meningococci
5. Gonococci
Ans. 2. Streptococci, Scarlet fever
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old child presents with painful enlargement of salivary glands and fever and is at a high-risk of developing pancreatitis,
orchitis and meningoencephalitis. Erythema is also present along Stensen’s duct. The most likely causative agent is:
1. Retrovirus
2. Paramyxovirus
3. Rhabdovirus
4. Herpesvirus
5. Togavirus
Ans. 2. Paramyxovirus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-year-old boy from south-west Texas is brought with fever, intense headache, chest pain and an erythematous patch on
his shin. DNA probe reveals a fungal origin of the disease. He responds to Amphotericin dramatically. Most likely cause is:
1. Histoplasmosis
2. Candidiasis
3. Cryptococciosis
4. Coccidioidomycosis
Ans. 4. Coccidioidomycosis
USMLE Case Scenario

Dennie’s lines and Morgan fold in a child are a feature of:
1. Polymyositis
2. Dermatomyositis
5. SLE
7. Atopy
8. Contact dermatitis
Ans. 7. Atopy
USMLE Case Scenario

The abnormal gene in Bruton’s X-Linked agammaglobulinemia is:
1. q 22 on short arm of chromosome X
2. q 22 on long arm of chromosome X
3. q 11 on short arm of chromosome X
4. q 11 on long arm of chromosome X
Ans. 2. q 22 on long arm of chromosome X
USMLE Case Scenario

A four-week-old infant with hypertelorism, low set ears, fish mouth and micrognathia presents with recurrent seizures.
The infant is fed well. A pansystolic murmur suggesting VSD is auscultated by a cardiologist. Serum concentration of IgA is
decreased. Most likely cause is:
1. Trisomy
2. Monosomy
3. Microdeletion
4. Mosaicism
5. Translocation
Ans. 3. Microdeletion
USMLE Case Scenario

A nine-months-old infant is brought with infection of his ear. His mother says that the infant previously had pneumonia along
with six episodes of infection till date. On examination, an eczematous rash is noticed by a dermatologist. The skin is studded
with minute petechia. Serum levels of IgG are normal but IgM levels are low. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. IgA deficiency
2. Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobinemia
3. Severe combined immunodeficiency
4. Ataxia telangiectasia
5. Friedrich’s ataxia
6. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Ans. 6. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

CHARGE syndrome is:
1. Cataract, Heart disease, Atresia (esophageal), Retarded growth, Genital anomalies, Ear anomalies
2. Cataract, Heart disease, Atresia (intestinal), Retarded growth, Genital anomalies, Ear anomalies
3. Coloboma, Heart disease, Atresia (rectal), Retarded growth, Genital anomalies, Ear anomalies
4. Coloboma, Heart disease, Atresia (choanal), Retarded growth, Genital anomalies, Ear anomalies
Ans. 4. Coloboma, Heart disease, Atresia (choanal), Retarded growth, Genital anomalies, Ear anomalies
Pediatrics 299
USMLE Case Scenario

Foramen cecum is related to:
1. Branchial cleft cyst
2. Cystic hygroma
3. Thyroglossal cyst
4. Sternomastoid tumor
Ans. 3. Thyroglossal cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

Most common site for a foreign body in a child less than one year is:
1. Larynx
2. Trachea
3. Carina
4. Right bronchus
5. Left bronchus
Ans. 1. Larynx
In older than one year: right bronchus
USMLE Case Scenario

A physician in an emergency notices a three-year-old child drooling with expiratory stridor. His respiratory rate is 45/minute
and temperature of 104 OF. His neck is hyperextended. His voice is muffled. The most likely causative organism is:
1. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
2. H. influenzae type A
3. H. influenzae type B
4. H. influenzae type C
Ans. 3. H. Influenzae type B
USMLE Case Scenario

A term newborn presents with bilious vomiting shortly after birth. Her abdomen is distended slightly, and facial features
are characteristic of Down’s syndrome. She has passed a normal meconium stool. The pregnancy was complicated by
polyhydramnios. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is:
1. Duodenal atresia
2. Hirschsprung’s disease
3. Meconium ileus
4. Midgut volvulus
5. Pyloric stenosis
Ans. 1. Duodenal atresia
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following constellations of features BEST describes the fetal alcohol syndrome?
1. Palmar crease, brushfield spots, decreased IQ
2. Cataract, deafness, PDA
3. Sacral agenesis, TGA, large baby
4. Microcephaly, developmental delay and short palpebral fissures
5. Short stature, webbed neck, pulmonic stenosis
6. Cerebral calcification, jaundice, hepatomegaly
Ans. 4. Microcephaly, developmental delay and short palpebral fissures
USMLE Case Scenario

A lateral CXR shows Thumb Print Sign. It is usually seen in:
1. Pharyngitis
2. Laryngitis
3. Epiglottitis
4. Bronchitis
5. Laryngeotracheobronchitis
Ans. 3. Epiglottitis
USMLE Case Scenario

Bronchiolitis is:
1. Upper respiratory tract infection in infants involving small airways of lower respiratory tract
2. Lower respiratory tract infection in infants involving large airways of lower respiratory tract
3. Lower respiratory tract infection in infants involving large airways of lower respiratory tract
4. Lower respiratory tract infection in infants involving small airways of upper respiratory tract
5. Lower respiratory tract infection in infants involving small airways of lower respiratory tract
Ans. 5. Lower respiratory tract infection in infants involving small airways of lower respiratory tract
USMLE Case Scenario

Nasal polyps, Rectal prolapse and Malabsorption are most often associated with:
1. Bronchiolitis
2. Pertussis
3. Asthma
4. Cystic fibrosis
Ans. 2. Pertussis
USMLE Case Scenario

Apical heave suggests:
1. Left atrial enlargement
2. Right atrial enlargement
3. Left ventricular enlargement
4. Right ventricular enlargement
Ans. 3. Left ventricular enlargement
USMLE Case Scenario

A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 102 oF. He is well fed. Physical examination is normal. On examination by a cardiologist,
a systolic murmur is heard at left lower sternal border. The grade of murmur is 2/6. The examination suggests that the boy has:
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Mitral regurgitation
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Aortic regurgitation
5. ASD
6. VSD
7. No significant cardiac disease
Ans. 7. No significant cardiac disease. Innocent murmurs. Further high temperature
Pediatrics 301
USMLE Case Scenario

Association with heart disease is not seen in:
4. DiGeorge’s syndrome
5. Cri du chat syndrome
Ans. 5. Cri du chat syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-month-old weak boy is seen by a cardiologist. Physical examination reveals a thrill and a harsh grade 4/6 pansystolic
murmur at left lower sternal border. ECG suggests LVH. Most likely cause is:
1. Ostium primum ASD
2. Ostium secondum ASD
3. VSD
4. PDA
5. TAPV
Ans. 3. VSD
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old girl is brought to you. Her pulse is 100 beats per minute, bounding in nature with wide pulse pressure. Her history
suggests that she was born premature. Auscultation reveals a murmur occurring both during systole as well as diastole. CXR
reveals an enlarged heart size with prominent pulmonary vascular markings. She eventually dies of heart failure. Most likely
she was suffering from:
1. A defect in atrial septum
2. A defect in ventricular septum
3. Failure of closure of ductus arteriosus
4. Failure of closure of ductus venosum
Ans. 3. Failure of closure of ductus arteriosus, PDA
USMLE Case Scenario

A radiologist on angiography notices dilatations in the right and left coronary artery of a four-year-old boy. The boy was
febrile and his blood investigations revealed thrombocytosis. The parents of the boy were told to administer aspirin to the
patient who raised concern over the development of Reye’s syndrome. The doctor still insisted on treating the boy with aspirin
along with other medications. Most likely the impression of the disease the boy is suffering from is:
1. Takayasu’s disease
2. Polyarteritis nodosa
4. Wegener’s granulomatosis
5. Occuloglandular syndrome
7. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome
Ans. 7. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Feature of Kawasaki disease is:
1. Unilateral, purulent conjunctival infection
2. Unilateral, nonpurulent conjunctival infection
3. Bilateral purulent conjunctival infection
4. Bilateral nonpurulent conjunctival infection
Ans. 4. Bilateral nonpurulent conjunctival infection
USMLE Case Scenario

Hereditary nephritis is:
1. X-linked dominant
2. X-linked recessive
3. Autosomal dominant
4. Autosomal recessive
Ans. 1. X-linked dominant (Alport’s syndrome)
USMLE Case Scenario

A two-month-old infant with large tongue, large fontanelle’s is seen by a genetic specialist. The infant is a female with
decreased muscle tone and umbilical hernia. Hair is coarse and brittle. The history is insignificant except for an icterus at the
time of birth for about three weeks. The most likely cause is:
1. Down’s syndrome because of Mosaicism
2. Down’s syndrome because of translocation
3. Congenital hypothyroidism because of thyroid dysgenesis
5. Amyloidosis
Ans. 3. Congenital hypothyroidism because of thyroid dysgenesis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-year-old boy underwent an USG which showed an enlarged spleen and presence of cholelithiasis. He was adviced
hematological check-up which showed Hb=6.5 gms/dl and MCV=60. The boy can have an associated feature as:
1. Maxillary hypoplasia with normocytic normochromic RBC
2. Maxillary hypoplasia with microcytic hypochromic RBC
3. Maxillary hyperplasia with normocytic normochromic RBC
4. Maxillary hyperplasia with microcytic hypochromic RBC
Ans. 4. Maxillary hyperplasia with microcytic hypochromic RBC
USMLE Case Scenario

A special pediatric hematology department receives a twenty-two-month old who has Microcephaly, Microphthalmia. Skeletal
survey reveals absent radii and thumbs. Blood investigations reveal aplastic anemia. The doctor informs that the child is at
risk for developing AML. The boy is most likely suffering from:
1. Simple aplastic anemia
2. Myelofibrosis
3. Myelosclerosis
4. Congenital pure red cell aplasia
6. TAR syndrome
7. Fanconi’s anemia
Ans. 7. Fanconi’s anemia
USMLE Case Scenario

Branchial cleft cysts are remnants of the:
1. First and second branchial pouches
2. Third and fourth branchial pouches
3. Fourth and fifth branchial pouches
4. Fifth and sixth branchial pouches
Ans. 1. First and second branchial pouches
Branchial cleft cysts, sinuses and fistulas are remnants of the first and second branchial pouches.
Pediatrics 303
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old nonhypertensive patient presents with the sudden onset of an excruciating headache, complains of a stiff neck
and photophobia with transient loss of consciousness and third nerve palsy. An angiography reveals a sac-like dilatations in
anterior circulation at circle of Willis. The disease may be usually associated with:
1. Osteomas
2. Hemangiomas
3. Rhabdomyosarcomas
4. Myxomas
5. Umbilical adenomas
6. Cherry red spots
7. Cysts in kidney
Ans. 7. Cysts in kidney
USMLE Case Scenario

Tumor originating from Rathke’s pouch is:
1. Meningioma
2. Pinealoma
3. Ependymoma
4. Medulloblastoma
5. Craniopharyngiomas
Ans. 5. Craniopharyngiomas
Craniopharyngiomas are cystic tumors with areas of calcification and originate in the epithelial remnants of Rathke’s pouch.
These usually benign tumors are found in the sellar and suprasellar regions and lead to compression of the pituitary, optic
tracts, and third ventricle.
USMLE Case Scenario

In a 77-year-old man, the onset of irregular respirations, bradycardia and finally increased blood pressure with increasing
intracranial pressure (ICP) is termed as:
1. The Beck’s triad
2. The Cushing’s response
3. The Charcot’s triad
4. The Hutchinson’s triad
Ans. 2. The Cushing’s response
USMLE Case Scenario

The Glasgow coma scale was developed to enable an initial assessment of the severity of head trauma. It measures the level
of consciousness using three parameters. The score is the sum of the highest number achieved in each category. The fully
oriented and alert patient will receive a maximum score of 15. Points in GCS are given as:
1. Verbal response (6 points), motor response (4 points) and eye opening (5 points)
Ans. 4. Verbal response (5 points), motor response (6 points) and eye opening (4 points)
USMLE Case Scenario

Orange-yellow tonsillar hyperplasia due to the cholesterol ester deposition is seen with:
1. Gaucher’s disease
2. Nieman-Pick’s disease
3. Tay-Sach’s-disease
4. I-cell disease
5. Fabry’s disease
6. Tangier’s disease
Ans: 6. Tangier’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

In the twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome:
1. Hydramnios does not occur
2. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is more frequent in the recipient because of circulatory overload
3. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is more frequent in the donor because of circulatory overload
4. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is equally frequent in both twins
Ans. 2. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is more frequent in the recipient because of circulatory overload
USMLE Case Scenario

After playing rugby, a boy has a swollen knee bilaterally. He was known to have hemophilia B. Replacement of which of the
following is indicated for treatment:
1. Factor C
2. Factor S
3. Factor VII
4. Factor VIII
5. Factor IX
6. Factor XII
7. Fibrinogen
Ans. 5. Factor IX
Hemophilia B is similar to hemophilia A, but is due to X-linked deficiency of blood-clotting factor IX rather than VIII.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 14-year-old boy from Illinois is brought by his parents to a physician. He presents with a three-month history of recurrent
headache. Neurologic examination is unremarkable except for bitemporal deficits in his visual field. X-ray and MRI of the
head are performed. X-ray films show calcifications in the suprasellar region, while MRI images reveal a multicystic tumor
displacing the optic chiasm. Most likely lesion is:
2. Meningioma
3. Ependymoma
4. Cysticercosis
5. Astrocytoma
6. Pituitary microadenoma
It is a histologically benign epithelial tumor of odontogenic origin. Located in the suprasellar compartment, extending
variably onto the sella, hypothalamus, and optic chiasm. Heavy calcifications, unilocular or multilocular cysts, and a viscous
yellow fluid content are the classic features that allow the diagnosis on radiologic and gross examination.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-year-old boy has multiple yellow, crusted erosions below the nares and on the cheeks, chin and upper extremities. The rest
of the examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
1. Oral acyclovir
2. Silver sulfadiazine
3. Griseofulvin
4. Cephalexin
5. Topical ketoconazole
6. Topical hydrocortisone
Ans. 4. Cephalexin drug of choice for impetigo is oral cephalexin. Cloxacillin, dicloxacillin and azithromycin are good
alternatives.
Pediatrics 305
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-month-old infant born to a mother who was taking lithium for BPD was noted at birth to have an upper left sternal border
ejection murmur. The infant at that time was not cyanotic, but slowly developed cyanosis over the next two months. ECG
shows right axis deviation and right ventricular hypertrophy. A chest X-ray film showed a small heart with a concave main
pulmonary artery segment and diminished pulmonary blood flow. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Ebstein’s anomaly
2. PDA
3. Hypoplastic left ventricle
4. Coarctation of aorta
5. Atrial septal defect
7. Transposition of the great arteries
Ans. 6. Tetralogy of Fallot
This is tetralogy of Fallot, in which severe obstruction of right ventricular outflow and a ventricular septal defect allow unoxygenated
blood to pass from the right side of the heart to the left. In severe cases, cyanosis presents at birth; in milder cases (such as this baby
has), it develops more slowly. The upper left sternal border ejection murmur is due to right ventricle outflow obstruction.
USMLE Case Scenario

A woman over 45 years of age from North America has hypertension, proteinuria, and features suggestive of hyperthyroidism.
She has an enlarged-for-dates uterus and has had intermittent bleeding in the first two trimesters. Grossly her lesions appear
as small, clear clusters of grape-like vesicles, the passage of which confirms the diagnosis of H mole. A tissue sample would
show:
1. No villi
2. Villi without hydropic changes and no vessels
3. Villi with hydropic changes and no vessels
4. Villi with hydropic changes and plenty of vessels
Ans. 3. Villi with hydropic changes and no vessels
USMLE Case Scenario

Fetal hydrops occurs as a result of excessive and prolonged hemolysis due to isoimmunization. Characteristics of fetal hydrops
include abnormal fluid in two or more sites, such as the thorax, abdomen and skin. The placenta in fetal hydrops is:
1. Pale, enlarged and boggy
2. Pale, smaller and shrunken
3. Erythematous, enlarged and boggy
4. Erythematous, small and shrunken
Ans. 3. Erythematous, enlarged and boggy
USMLE Case Scenario

The therapeutic range of serum magnesium to prevent seizures is:
1. 4–7 mg/dl
2. 10–12 mg/dl
3. 15–20 mg/dl
4. 25–30 mg/dl
Ans. 1. 4–7 mg/dl
USMLE Case Scenario

At levels between 8 and 12 mg/dl, patellar reflexes are lost. At 10 to 12 mg/dl, somnolence and slurred speech commonly
occur. Muscle paralysis and respiratory difficulty occur at 15 to 17 mg/dl and cardiac arrest occurs at levels greater than
30 mg/dl.
1. Appendicitis in pregnancy is easy to diagnose and has lesser mortality

2. Appendicitis in pregnancy is easy to diagnose but has more mortality
3. Appendicitis in pregnancy is difficult to diagnose but has lesser mortality
4. Appendicitis in pregnancy is difficult to diagnose and has more mortality
Ans. 4. Appendicitis in pregnancy is difficult to diagnose and has more mortality
The diagnosis is very difficult in pregnancy because leukocytosis, nausea and vomiting are common in pregnancy and the
upward displacement of the appendix by the uterus may cause appendicitis to simulate cholecystitis, pyelonephritis and
gastritis. Surgery is necessary even if the diagnosis is not certain. Delays in surgery due to difficulty in diagnosis as the
appendix moves up are probably the cause of increasing maternal mortality with increasing gestational age.
USMLE Case Scenario

HELLP syndrome is:
1. Hepatitis, elevated liver enzymes, low plasma albumin
2. Hepatitis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
3. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
4. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low plasma albumin
Ans. 3. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old child has severe difficulty walking. Neurological examination documents ataxia and mental retardation.
The neurologist notes the presence of multiple telangiectasias involving the face. The child also has a history of multiple
respiratory tract infections. Diagnosis is:
1. Friedreich’s ataxia
2. Ataxia telangiectasia
3. Hemorrhagic telangiectasia
4. ALS
5. Anterior spinal artery syndrome
6. Guillain-Barre syndrome
Ans. 2. Ataxia telangiectasia
USMLE Case Scenario

Chronic granulomatous disease is usually an X-linked recessive disorder that affects males because of a defect in the
activity of:
1. Reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) oxidase
2. Reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase
3. Reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) reductase
4. Reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) reductase
Ans. 2. Reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase
USMLE Case Scenario

A tall patient with arachnodactyly, hyperextensible joints, mitral valve prolapse, dislocation of the lens of the eye and a high
risk for thoracic aortic dissection is most likely having:
1. Syphilis
2. Osteogenesis imperfecta
3. Galactosemia
4. Homocystinuria
5. Menkes disease
Ans. 4. Homocystinuria
Pediatrics 307
USMLE Case Scenario

Congenital deafness may result from abnormal development of the membranous labyrinth and/or bony labyrinth, as well as from
abnormalities of the auditory ossicles. Recessive inheritance is the most common cause of congenital deafness, but a virus infection
near the end of the embryonic period is a major environmental factor known to cause abnormal development of the spiral organ
and defective hearing. Most likely virus to cause such a defect would be:
1. Measles
2. EBV
3. Herpes
4. Pox
5. Mumps
6. Rabies
7. Rubella
8. CMV
Ans. 7. Rubella
USMLE Case Scenario

A 6-year-old boy brought by his mother presented with easy fatiguability, malaise and lethargy of eight months’ duration. He
is anorexic and had lost four kg in weight. On examination he was thin, anxious and anemic. There was mild, bilateral, cervical
lymphadenopathy and moderate splenomegaly. On investigation, his hemoglobin (70 g/l) and platelet count (67 × 109/l) were
low, but the white-cell count was high (27 × 109/l). The blood film showed that most leucocytes were blasts; the red cells were
normochromic and normocytic. Bone marrow examination showed an overgrowth of primitive white cells with diminished
numbers of normal erythroid and myeloid precursors. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Mononucleosis
2. Leukemoid reaction
3. Aplastic anemia
4. Malnutrition
5. Acute leukemia
6. Chronic leukemia
7. Hodgkin’s disease
8. Nonhodgkin’s disease
Ans. 5. Acute leukemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A clinical condition seen in a 24-year-old male from New Orleans is characterized by a facial palsy and is often associated
with facial pain and the appearance of vesicles on the eardrum, ear canal and pinna. Vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss
(VIII nerve) accompanying it is suggestive of:
3. Bell’s palsy
4. Pendred syndrome
5. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
6. Goldenhar’s syndrome
8. Pierre Robinson syndrome
9. Treacher Collins syndrome
Ans. 5. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

An X-linked dominant condition that affects boys more severely than girls and is associated with severe progressive
glomerulonephritis and a progressive sensorineural hearing loss suggests:
1. Waardenburg’s syndrome
2. Lowe’s syndrome
5. Pendred syndrome
6. Goldenhar’s syndrome
8. Pierrie Robinson syndrome
9. Treacher Collins syndrome
Ans. 7. Alport’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-day-old girl has bruising and gastrointestinal bleeding. Her parents seek advice of the physician. On investigation,
laboratory findings include partial thromboplastin time and prothrombin time, greater than 2 minutes; serum bilirubin,
4.9 mg/dl; alanine aminotransferase, 19 mg/dl; platelet count, 335, 550/mm3; and hemoglobin, 15.3 g/dl. Most likely the cause
of bleeding is:
1. Factor IX deficiency
2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
3. TTP
4. Hemophilia
5. Liver disease
6. Vitamin K deficiency
Ans. 6. Vitamin K deficiency
It is a hemorrhagic disease of the newborn as a result of vitamin K deficiency. The normal newborn has a moderate deficiency
of the vitamin K–dependent coagulation factors. All newborns should receive 0.5-1.0 mg of vitamin K intramuscularly within
the first hour after birth.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 48-year-old woman from Holland delivers a 3126 g newborn male. Her pregnancy was normal except that she noted
decreased fetal movement compared to her previous pregnancies. She declined an amniocentesis offered by her obstetrician.
Physical examination of the newborn reveals an infant with facial features suggestive of Down’s syndrome. The infant then
has bilious vomiting. An X-ray film showing the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) is performed, which shows a distended
and gas-filled stomach and proximal duodenum and the absence of gas in the distal bowel. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of the abdominal signs and symptoms?
1. Duodenal atresia
2. Hirschsprung disease
3. Malrotation
4. Meconium ileus
5. Pyloric stenosis
Ans: 1. Duodenal atresia
Explanation: The ‘double bubble’ sign is pathognomonic for duodenal atresia, which is a congenital anomaly associated
with Down’s syndrome. Duodenal atresia is associated with bilious vomiting. Children with Down’s syndrome can also have
esophageal atresia, imperforate anus, endocardial cushion defects and hypotonia.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 14-year-old boy from Chicago has a small tumor in the wall of the left lateral ventricle. A biopsy of this tumor is consistent
with pathologic diagnosis of subependymal giant cell astrocytoma. Which of the following lesions may also be present in this
patient?
1. Cafe–au–lait spots
2. Renal angiomyolipomas
3. Sesamoid bones
4. Hemangioblastoma
5. Wickham’s striae
6. Lisch nodules
7. Cancers of genital tract
8. Schwannoma of the 8th cranial nerve
Pediatrics 309
Ans. 2. Renal angiomyolipomas. Tuberous sclerosis

It manifests with multiple hamartomatous lesions in the skin, CNS and visceral organs. Cortical tubers are malformed
(Hamartomatous) nodules of the cortex, probably resulting from faulty cortical development. Other lesions include shagreen
patches and ash-leaf spots on the skin, cardiac myomas and renal angiomyolipomas.
USMLE Case Scenario

Atresia (blockage) of this canal results from failure of the meatal plug to canalize. Usually the deep part of the meatus is open
but the superficial part is blocked by bone or fibrous tissue. Most cases are associated with the:
1. First arch syndrome
2. Second arch syndrome
3. Third arch syndrome
4. Fifth arch syndrome
Ans. 1. First arch syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 5-month-old infant is seen by a pediatrician. He has been exclusively fed a commercially available infant formula. Upon
introduction of fruit juices, however, the child develops jaundice, hepatomegaly, vomiting, lethargy, irritability and seizures.
Tests for urine-reducing substances are positive. Which of the following is likely to explain this child’s condition?
1. Alkaptonuria
2. Galactosemia
3. Fructosemia
4. A1-antitrypsin
5. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
Ans. 3. Fructosemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A genotypic male (XY) is born with feminized external genitalia. The testes are retained within the abdominal cavity and
the internal reproductive tracts exhibit the normal male phenotype. Which of the following could account for this abnormal
development?
1. Complete androgen resistance
2. 5a-reductase deficiency
3. 17a-hydroxylase deficiency
4. Sertoli-only
5. Testicular dysgenesis
Ans. 2. 5a-reductase deficiency
In utero differentiation of the Wolffian ducts into the normal male phenotypic internal reproductive tract requires
testosterone, but not dihydrotestosterone. On the other hand, differentiation of the indifferent external genital slit into the
penis, prostate, and scrotum does require dihydrotestosterone. A congenital absence of 5a-reductase in these tissues will
result in feminization. If left untreated, the affected individuals are generally phenotypic females until puberty, at which time
increased amounts of testosterone result in virilization (‘penis-at-twelve’ syndrome).
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after the acute onset of headache, vomiting, nuchal rigidity and
impaired mental status. MRI reveals a posterior fossa tumor that fills the 4th ventricle. Surgery is immediately started, and
intraoperative consultation leads to a ‘frozen section’ diagnosis of medulloblastoma. Which of the following pathologic
mechanisms most likely accounts for this child’s clinical presentation?
1. Chronic hemorrhage into the 4th ventricle
2. Alteration of medullary function
3. Increased intracranial pressure
4. Infiltration of the cerebellum by the neoplasm
5. Spread of tumor to the subdural space
Ans. 3. Increased intracranial pressure

Any tumor ‘filling the 4th ventricle’ blocks the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This blockage leads to increased
intracranial pressure, which manifests with nausea, vomiting, headache, nuchal rigidity, and mental status changes. If surgery
is not performed promptly, cerebellar tonsillar herniation and rapid death will ensue. In children, medulloblastoma and
ependymoma are the most frequent neoplasms presenting in this manner.
USMLE Case Scenario

A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination, the child has a line on gums.
There is history of constipation. Which will be the most appropriate drug that should be used in this child?
1. EDTA
2. DMSA
3. BAL
4. Penicillamine
5. Penicillin
6. Ampicillin
Ans. 1. EDTA
USMLE Case Scenario

Chronic salicyclism is manifested by headache, dizziness, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), difficulty in hearing, mental confusion,
drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The CNS changes may progress to convulsions and coma. The drug implicated is:
1. Penicillin
2. Quinine
3. Metoclopramide
4. Cisplatin
5. Paracetamol
6. Aspirin
Ans. 6. Aspirin
USMLE Case Scenario

Cat eye syndrome is:
1. Partial trisomy 18
Ans. 4. Partial trisomy 22
USMLE Case Scenario

A newborn born to a couple (a Japanese husband and an American wife) appears normal at birth, but develops mild vomiting
and diarrhea accompanied by jaundice and hepatomegaly within the first few weeks of life. Within five months, the baby
has obvious difficulty in vision as per mother which was diagnosed as cataract. By one year of age, he has developed mental
retardation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Fructose intolerance
2. Measles
3. Toxoplasmosis
4. Cystic fibrosis
5. Galactosemia
6. McArdle’s disease
7. von Gierke’s disease
9. Rubella
Ans. 5. Galactosemia
Pediatrics 311
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following malformations in a newborn is specific for maternal insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus?
1. Transposition of great arteries
2. Caudal regression
3. Holoprosencephaly
4. Meningomyelocele
Ans. 2. Caudal regression
USMLE Case Scenario

A newborn presented with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full thickness biopsy of the
rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings is most likely to be present?
1. Fibrosis of submucosa
2. Hyalinization of the muscular coat
3. Thickened muscularis propria
4. Lack of ganglion cells
Ans. 4. Lack of ganglion cells
USMLE Case Scenario

The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy is:
1. Influenza virus
2. Parainfluenza virus
3. Rhinovirus
4. Respiratory syncytial virus
Ans. 4. Respiratory syncytial virus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 1-month-old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows feature of congestive failure. The femoral pulses
are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
1. Congenital aortic stenosis
3. Patent ductus arteriosus
4. Congenital aortoiliac disease
Ans. 2. Coarctation of aorta
USMLE Case Scenario

A specialist is called to the newborn nursery when a male infant born at term is found to have bilateral colobomas, choanal
atresia, ear anomalies, and cryptorchidism. There is no history of maternal drug or alcohol abuse during pregnancy. There is
no family history of similar congenital defects. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to exclude
any associated abnormalities?
1. Barium swallow
2. Echocardiography
3. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
4. Renal ultrasonography
5. Skeletal survey
Ans. 2. Echocardiography
The infant in this question likely has the CHARGE syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for a lifetime history of bedwetting. He has otherwise been completely healthy and
has met all development milestones. His parents deny a history of trauma and the history is not consistent with abuse. The
patient has been wetting every night but not during the daytime. He has no incontinence. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in his evaluation?
1. Intravenous pyelogram
2. Renal ultrasound
3. 24-hour urine collection
4. Urinalysis
5. CT of pelvis
Ans. 4. Urinalysis
Given the fact that this patient has had a lifelong history of bedwetting, the initial evaluation will include a urinalysis to rule
out infection or bleeding. No neurologic dysfunction exists in this case.
USMLE Case Scenario

A male infant born at term is found to have bilateral colobomas, choanal atresia, ear anomalies, and cryptorchidism. There is
no history maternal drug or alcohol abuse during pregnancy. There is no family history of similar congenital defects. It is an
example of:
1. Leopard syndrome
2. LAMB syndrome
3. Name syndrome
4. CHARGE syndrome
5. Vacterl syndrome
Ans. 4: CHARGE syndrome
The infant likely has the CHARGE syndrome, which includes colobomas, heart defects, choanal atresia, retardation,
genitourinary abnormalities, and ear anomalies.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because she has not yet had a menstrual period. She also complains of a lack of
breast development. Past medical history is significant for loss of smell and color blindness. Past surgical history is significant
for a cleft palate that was repaired in childhood. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination
is significant for absent breast development, and a hypoestrogenic vulva and vagina. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Anorexia nervosa
2. Kallmann’s syndrome
3. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
4. Pregnancy
5. Testicular feminization syndrome
Ans. 2. Kallamann’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-year-old girl develops fever, conjunctivitis, photophobia, and cough. Her pediatrician notes white spots on a bright
red background on the girl’s buccal mucosa. Within days, a rash begins around the hairline, then spreads to the trunk and
extremities. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Measles
2. Rabies
3. Mumps
4. Varicella
5. Poxvirus infection
Ans. 1. Measles
Pediatrics 313
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-year-old child has a history of a blue patch over eyelids, which disappeared at the age of 1 year. The diagnosis is:
1. Strawberry angioma
2. Salmon patch
3. Cavernous hemangioma
4. Port-Wine stain
Ans. 2. Salmon patch
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-day-old male pseudohermaphrodite child with 46 XY karyotype presents with BP of 110/80 mm Hg. Most likely enzyme
deficiency is:
1. 21 hydroxylase
2. 17 hydroxylase
3. 11 hydroxylase
4. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. 2. 17 hydroxylase
USMLE Case Scenario

A 16-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because of sudden onset of headache, fever, vomiting, and a skin
rash. His family had spent their vacation camping in North Carolina and just returned the previous day. During their 10-day
stay, they had experienced multiple insect bites and removed several ticks from all family members. The boy had started
complaining of a headache that morning and developed a high fever by noon. He vomited several times in the following
few hours. Early in the afternoon, his mother noticed that a rose-colored rash had developed around his ankles. The boy
is in moderate distress. His temperature is 39.0 °C (102.2 °F), pulse is 110/min and respirations are 24/min. He has multiple
erythematous macules on his lower legs and hands, and rare petechiae interspersed between them. His mucosae are dry.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Erythema migrans
2. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
4. Scarlet fever
5. Rocky mountain spotted fever
Ans. 5. Rocky mountain spotted fever
USMLE Case Scenario

A toddler is brought by overconcerned parents to the emergency department by his parents with burns on both of his thighs
and buttocks. The child is hydrated. On examination of the burn areas, the areas are moist and painful to touch. The parents
assert that the child accidentally pulled a kettle with hot water while playing. Which of the following is the most important
step in management?
1. Early excision and grafting of the burned areas
2. Prompt administration of fluid resuscitation
3. Take parents into custody for neglect
4. Referral to the proper authorities for suspected child abuse
5. Discharge the boy after treatment immediately
6. Counsel the parents not to repeat the negligence on their part
Ans. 4. Referral to the proper authorities for suspected child abuse
Scalding burns in children should always raise the possibility of child abuse. Referral to the proper authorities for suspected
child abuse is the most appropriate thing.
USMLE Case Scenario

A one-month-old infant is brought by his parents to a pediatrician. The infant was born at term. On auscultating the chest of
the infant, a continuous murmur at the upper left sternal border is heard. The peripheral pulses in all extremities are full and
show widened pulse pressure. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Patent ductus arteriosus
2. Pulmonic stenosis
3. Persistent truncus arteriosus
4. VSD
5. TOF
6. Coarctation of the aorta
Ans. 1. Patent ductus arteriosus
This is patent ductus arteriosus which is a failure of closure of the duct between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. Feature
of murmur suggests PDA.
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following intrauterine infections is associated with limb reduction defects and scarring of skin:
1. Varicella virus
2. Herpes virus
3. Rubella
4. Parvovirus
Ans. 1. Varicella virus
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has
history of taking spiramycin but was not compliant with therapy:
1. Rubella
2. Toxoplasmosis
3. CMV
4. Herpes
Ans. 2. Toxoplasmosis
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following is a marker for neural tube defects:
1. ↑Phosphatidyl esterase
2. ↑Pseudocholinesterase
3. ↑Acetylcholinesterase
4. ↑Butyrylcholinesterase
5. ↓Phosphatidyl esterase
6. ↓Pseudocholinesterase
7. ↓Acetylcholinesterase
8. ↓Butyrylcholinesterase
Ans. 3. ↑Acetylcholinesterase
USMLE Case Scenario

A child presents with massive hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. There is no improvement in blood glucose on administration
of Glucagon. The probable diagnosis is:
1. von Gierke’s disease
2. McArdle’s disease
3. Cori’s disease
4. Forbe’s disease
Ans. 1. von Gierke’s disease
Pediatrics 315
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7½-months-old child with cough, mild stridor is started on oral antibiotics. The child showed initial improvement but later
developed wheeze, productive cough, and mild fever. X–ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows an obstructive curve. The
most probable diagnosis is:
1. Bronchiolitis obliterans
2. Postviral syndrome
3. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
4. Follicular bronchitis
Ans. 1. Bronchiolitis obliterans
USMLE Case Scenario

A male born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy, labor and delivery develops severe respiratory distress within a few
hours of birth. Results of routine culture were negative. The chest roentgenogram reveals a normal heart shadow and fine
reticulonodular infiltrates radiating from the hilum. ECHO findings reveal no abnormality. Family history reveals similar
clinical course and death of a male and female sibling at 1 month and 2 months of age respectively. The most likely diagnosis
is:
1. Neonatal Alveolar Proteinosis
2. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Circulation (TAPVC)
3. Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
4. Diffuse Herpes Simplex Infection
Ans. 1. Neonatal Alveolar Proteinosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A diabetic mother gives birth to a baby who dies in the first week of life. Autopsy reveals a severe cardiac malformation. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Atrial septal defect
2. Holt-Oram syndrome
3. TAR syndrome
4. Coarctation of the aorta
5. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
6. Lutembacher’s syndrome
8. Transposition of the great arteries
10. Pentalogy of Fallot
Ans. 8. Transposition of the great arteries
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3½-year-old boy is brought to the hospital in Chicago after the acute onset of headache, vomiting and nuchal rigidity. He
has impaired mental status. MRI reveals a posterior fossa tumor that fills the 4th ventricle. Surgery is immediately started,
and intraoperative consultation leads to a ‘frozen section’ diagnosis of medulloblastoma. Which of the following pathologic
mechanisms most likely accounts for this child’s clinical presentation?
1. Hemorrhage into the 4th ventricle
2. Increased intracranial pressure
3. Decreased intracranial pressure
4. Increased blood pressure
5. Infiltration of the cerebellar vermis by the neoplasm
6. Spread of tumor to the subarachnoid space
7. Altered metabolic response
Ans. 3. Decreased intracranial pressure
USMLE Case Scenario

The leukotriene receptor antagonist used in bronchial asthma is:
1. Zafirlukast
2. Zileuton
3. Ketotifen
4. Omalizumab
Ans. 1. Zafirlukast
USMLE Case Scenario

A newborn has congenital heart failure, which is not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelles with a bruit
on auscultation. On transfontanelle USG, a hypoechoic midline mass is seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable
diagnosis is:
1. Vein of Galen malformation
2. Arachnoid cyst
3. Medulloblastoma
4. Encephalocele
Ans. 1. Vein of Galen malformation
USMLE Case Scenario

A child has Microcephaly, Blue eyes, Fair skin, and Mental retardation-Ferric chloride test is positive. What is the likely
diagnosis?
1. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
2. Homocystinuria
3. Tyrosinosis
4. Alkaptonuria
Ans. 1. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
USMLE Case Scenario

Cholangitis is the term used for acute inflammation of the wall of bile ducts, almost always caused by bacterial infection
of the normally sterile lumen. It can result from any lesion obstructing bile flow, most commonly choledocholithiasis, and
also from surgical reconstruction of the biliary tree. Uncommon causes include tumors, indwelling stents or catheters, acute
pancreatitis, and benign strictures. Bacteria most likely enter the biliary tract through the sphincter of Oddi, rather than by
the hematogenous route. Ascending cholangitis refers to the propensity of bacteria, once within the biliary tree, to infect
intrahepatic biliary ducts. The usual pathogens are:
1. E.coli, Klebsiella
2. Clostridium, Clonorchis sinensis
3. Opisthorchis viverrini, Klebsiella
4. Clostridium, Pseudomonas
Ans. 1. E.coli, Klebsiella
USMLE Case Scenario

A five-day-old, full-term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later
ballooned atrial septosomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is:
2. Transposition of great vessels
3. Truncus Arteriosus
4. Tricuspid Atresia
Ans. 2. Transposition of great vessels
Pediatrics 317
USMLE Case Scenario

A physician diagnoses a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which of the following signs is most consistent with
Duchenne muscular dystrophy:
1. Wrist drop
2. Foot drop
3. Gower’s sign
4. Festinant gait
5. Waddling gait
6. Positive Babinski sign
Ans. 3. Gower’s sign
The Gower’s sign is very characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It is considered positive if the patient uses his hands
to ‘walk’ up the legs when going from a prone to an upright sitting position because he does not have enough proximal muscle
power to get up in a normal fashion.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7½-year-old boy is brought by his parents because of bedwetting. He was born as a normal child, has been completely
healthy and has met all development milestones. The boy has been wetting every night but not during the daytime. He has no
incontinence. Appropriate next step in the evaluation of this boy would be:
1. Intravenous pyelogram
1. Ultrasound
2. 24-hour urine collection
3. Urinalysis
4. CT of pelvis
5. Immediate MRI skull
Ans. 4. Urinalysis
The initial evaluation will include a urinalysis to rule out infection or bleeding. No neurologic dysfunction exists in this case.
USMLE Case Scenario

In which of the following a ‘Coeur en sabot’ shape of the heart is seen:
1. Tricuspid atresia
2. Ventricular septal defect
3. Transposition of great arteries
Ans. 4. Tetralogy of Fallot
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-month-old presents with cholestasis. Biopsy shows inflammation and fibrosing stricture of the hepatic or common bile
ducts; inflammation of major intrahepatic bile ducts, with progressive destruction of the intrahepatic biliary tree, marked
bile ductular proliferation, portal tract edema and fibrosis, and parenchymal cholestasis; and periportal fibrosis and cirrhosis.
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Hepatitis
3. Biliary Atresia
4. Childhood Cirrhosis
Ans. 3. Biliary Atresia
USMLE Case Scenario

In a newborn, it is found that the main pancreatic duct (Wirsung) is very short and drains only a small portion of the head
of the gland, while the bulk of the pancreas (from the dorsal pancreatic primordium) drains through the minor sphincter.
The relative stenosis caused by the bulk of the pancreatic secretions passing through the minor sphincter predisposes such
individuals to chronic pancreatitis. The condition is:
1. Annular pancreas
2. Pancreas divisum
3. Agenesis of pancreas
4. Ectopic pancreas
Ans. 2. Pancreas divisum
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-month-old child presents with two weeks’ history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals
basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
3. Listera monocytogenes
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
5. Bordetella
6. Meningococcus
Ans. 1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on
the 1st day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion 1 year back. On vaginal swab culture,
growth of β-hemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram-positive cocci. Which of the
following is the most likely etiological agent?
1. Streptococcus pyogenes
2. Streptococcus agalactiae
3. Peptostreptococci
4. Enterococcus faecium
Ans. 2. Streptococcus agalactiae
USMLE Case Scenario

A 5-year-old boy is detected to be HBsAg positive on two separate occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B. He
is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given three doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of 1 year. His mother
was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time. The next relevant step for further investigating the child
would be to:
1. Obtain HBeAg and anti-HBe levels
2. Obtain anti-HBs levels
3. Repeat HBsAg
4. Repeat another course of Hepatitis B vaccine
Ans. 2. Obtain anti-HBs levels
USMLE Case Scenario

Hypophosphatemic rickets is a condition causing abnormal regulation of vitamin D3 metabolism and defects in renal tubular
phosphate transport. Symptoms include growth retardation, osteomalacia, and rickets. It is an:
1. X-linked recessive condition
2. X-linked dominant condition
3. Autosomal dominant condition
4. Autosomal codominant condition
Ans. 2. X-linked dominant condition
Pediatrics 319
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old boy was admitted to a pediatric hospital with a 7-day history of high fever, lymphadenopathy, conjunctivitis
and an erythematous exfoliative rash affecting his trunk and extremities. On the basis of the characteristic clinical picture, a
clinical diagnosis of Kawasaki’s disease (also known as acute mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome). It is best described as:
1. An acute vasculitic disorder of infants affecting medium-and large-sized blood vessels made
2. A chronic non vasculitic disorder of infants affecting small-and medium-sized blood vessels made
3. A chronic non vasculitic disorder of infants affecting medium-and large-sized blood vessels made
Ans. 1. An acute vasculitic disorder of infants affecting medium-and large-sized blood vessels made
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old boy was admitted to a pediatric hospital with a 7-day history of high fever, lymphadenopathy, conjunctivitis
and an erythematous exfoliative rash affecting his trunk and extremities. On the basis of the characteristic clinical picture, a
clinical diagnosis of Kawasaki’s disease was done. Since untreated or delayed treatment of Kawasaki’s disease is associated
with the development of coronary artery aneurysms, urgent treatment is:
1. With high-dose IVIg only
2. With high-dose IVIg in conjunction with paracetamol
3. With high-dose IVIg in conjunction with cyclosporine
4. With high-dose IVIg in conjunction with cycloserine
5. With high-dose IVIg in conjunction with aspirin
Ans. 5. With high-dose IVIg in conjunction with aspirin
USMLE Case Scenario

A child is born with a single functional allele of a tumor suppressor gene. At the age of five, the remaining normal allele is lost
through a point mutation. As a result, the ability to inhibit cell cycle progression until the cell is ready to divide is lost. Which
of the following neoplasms is most likely to arise via this mechanism?
1. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma of breast
2. Small cell anaplastic carcinoma of the lung
3. Retinoblastoma of eye
4. Cerebral astrocytoma
5. Chronic myeloid leukemia
Ans. 3. Retinoblastoma of eye
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-year-old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 100 cms and weight is 14.5 kg.
Stool culture was negative for known enteropathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period, child had an
episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The mantoux test was 5 x 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is:
3. Intestinal tuberculosis
4. Strongyloidosis
Ans. 2. Crohn’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with history of seizures and skin rashes. Investigations show metabolic acidosis, increased blood ketone
levels. This child is likely to be suffering from:
1. Propionic acidemia
2. Urea cyclic disorder
3. Phenylketonuria
4. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Ans. 4. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
USMLE Case Scenario

In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with
similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is the most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?
1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. X-linked dominant
4. X-linked recessive
Ans. 1. Autosomal dominant
USMLE Case Scenario

Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
1. Klinefelter syndrome
1. Turner syndrome
2. Cri du chat syndrome
3. Noonan syndrome
Ans. 2. Turner syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-year-old boy has a fractured neck of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hr. Serum
calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the
following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
1. Nutritional rickets
1. Renal rickets
2. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Skeletal dysplasia
4. Hypoparathyroidism
Ans. 3. Hyperparathyroidism
USMLE Case Scenario

A 5-year-old child from Ilinois presents with history of fever off and on for the past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the
body and increasing pallor for the past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most
1. Acute leukemia
1. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
2. Hypersplenism
3. Aplastic anemia
4. Lymphoma
Ans. A. Acute leukemia
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-year-old child suffering from recurrent attacks of polyurea since childhood presents to the pediatrics OPD. On
examination, the child is short-statured, vitals and BP are normal. Serum Creatinine – 6 mg%, HCO3 – 16 meq, Na –134, K+ 4.2.
On USG, bilateral small kidneys are seen. Diagnosis is:
1. Reflux Nephropathy
1. Nephronophthisis
2. Polycystic kidney disease
3. Medullary cystic kidney disease
Ans. 2. Nephronophthisis
Pediatrics 321
USMLE Case Scenario

A month-old HIV-positive child following URTI developed sudden onset of breathlessness. The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation.
The O2 saturation was greater than 90%. The treatment of choice is:
1. Cotrimoxazole
1. Ribavarin
2. IV ganciclovir
3. Nebulized acyclovir
Ans. 2. Ribavarin
USMLE Case Scenario

A four-month-old infant is brought to a physician because of increased lethargy and irritability. The father of the infant says
that the child rolled off the bed and fell on the cemented floor. According to the father, the child has been previously healthy
and is up-to-date on his vaccinations. He has been meeting his development milestones. While in the office, patient develops a
seizure. Initial examination shows tense fontanellae and bruises on limbs. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?
1. Give immediate antipyretic
2. Give per rectal diazepam
3. Give IV midazolam
4. Get a CT scan head done
5. Perform a retinoscopic examination
6. Perform a lumbar puncture
Ans. 5. Perform a retinoscopic examination
Perform a retinoscopic examination. The child’s history indicates shaken baby syndrome, in which the symptoms may not
correlate with the physical findings. The child’s fontanelles are full, indicative of increased intracranial pressure. A retinoscopic
examination with blurred fundi is suggestive of increased pressure.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-year-old female child following URTI developed maculopapular rash on the jaw spreading onto the trunk which cleared
on the 3rd day without desquamation and tender postauricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is:
1. Kawasaki disease
2. Erythema infectiosum
3. Rubella
4. Measles
Ans. 3. Rubella
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-year-old child presents with lethargy, multiple epiphyseal breaks, Wormian bones with growth retardation and mental
retardation Diagnosis is?
1. Rickets
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Scurvy
Ans. 2. Hypothyroidism
USMLE Case Scenario

A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly, abdominal distension, jaundice, anemia and adrenal calcification. Which of the
following is the diagnosis?
1. Adrenal hemorrhage
2. Wolman’s disease
3. Pheochromocytoma
Ans. 2. Wolman’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from:
1. Trisomy 21
2. Trisomy 18
3. Trisomy 13
4. Turner
Ans. 3. Trisomy 13
USMLE Case Scenario

Which vaccine is contraindicated in a child with history of convulsions?
1. DPT
2. Measles
3. Typhoid
4. BCG
Ans. 1. DPT
USMLE Case Scenario

A 16-month-old is taken to the emergency room after falling while learning to walk. The toddler has an enlarging, swollen
bruise on his forehead, which is now over 5 cm across. The parents say that the bruise is noticeably larger than it was when
they entered the emergency room an hour earlier. Clotting studies on the blood sample show a prolonged PTT and a normal
PT and low levels of factor VIII. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
2. Hemophilia A
3. Hemophilia B
4. Hyperhomocysteinemia
Ans. 2. Hemophilia A
Hemophilia is an X-linked clotting disorder that occurs in two forms: hemophilia A due to deficient factor VIII and hemophilia
B due to deficient factor IX. Some individuals with hemophilia have levels of these factors that are 5% of normal or even
higher, and have relatively mild disease, only requiring replacement therapy during surgical procedures or other situations in
which significant bleeding might occur. In contrast, individuals with factor levels less than 1% of normal have severe bleeding
problems throughout life that usually become apparent (as in this case) by 18 months of age. In these individuals, excessive
bleeding into joints and tissues may cause crippling musculoskeletal disorders.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3.5 kg term male baby, born of uncomplicated pregnancy, developed, respiratory distress at birth, not responding to
surfactant, ECHO finding revealed nothing abnormal, X-ray showed ground glass appearance and culture negative. Apgars 4
and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes. History of one-month female sibling died before. What is the diagnosis?
1. TAPVC
2. Meconium aspiration
3. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
4. Diffuse herpes simplex infection
Ans. 3. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old boy with normal developmental milestones has a problem of delayed speech and difficulty in communication
and concentration. He is not making friends. Most probable diagnosis is:
1. Autism
2. ADHD
3. Mental retardation
4. Specific learning disability
Ans. 1. Autism
Pediatrics 323
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-month-old child has moderate fever and nonproductive cough and mild dyspnea. After course of mild antibiotic, the
condition of the child improved transiently but he again develops high fever, productive cough and increased respiratory
distress. Chest X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive pattern. Most probable diagnosis is:
1. Alveolar microlithiasis
2. Postviral syndrome
3. Follicular bronchitis
4. Bronchiolitis obliterans
Ans. 4. Bronchiolitis obliterans
USMLE Case Scenario

Single gene defect causing multiple unrelated problems is:
1. Pleiotropism
2. Pseudodominance
3. Penetrance
4. Anticipation
Ans. 1. Pleiotropism
USMLE Case Scenario

An 8-day-old breastfed baby presents with vomiting, poor feeding and loose stools. On examination, the heart rate is
190/minute, blood pressure 50/30 mm Hg, respiratory rate 72 breaths/minute and capillary refill time of 4 seconds.
Investigations show hemoglobin level of 15 g/dl, Na 120 mEq/l, K 6.8 mEq/l, bicarbonate 15 mEq/l, urea 30 mg/dl and creatinine
0.6 mg/dl. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
2. Acute tubular necrosis
3. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
4. Renal tubular acidosis
Ans. 2. Acute tubular necrosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A neonate is being investigated for jaundice. A liver biopsy shows features of a ‘Giant cell/Neonatal hepatitis’. Which one of the
following conditions usually results in this case?
1. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
2. Hemochromatosis
3. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
4. Glycogen storage disease Type 1
Ans. 3. Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-month-old girl has failure to thrive, polyuria and medullary nephrocalcinosis affecting both the kidneys. Investigations
show blood pH 7.48, bicarbonate 25 mEq/l, potassium 2 mEq/l, sodium 126 mEq/l and chloride 88 mEq/l. The most likely
diagnosis is:
1. Distal renal tubular acidosis
2. Primary hyperaldosteronism
3. Bartter’s syndrome
4. Pseudohypoaldosteronism
Ans. 3. Bartter’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old child comes with discharge, seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis:
1. Leukemia
2. Lymphoma
3. Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis
4. Germ cell tumor
Ans. 3. Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-month-old male infant developed otitis media for which he was given a course of cotrimoxazole. A few days later, he
developed extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions and the baby was not toxic. The most likely diagnosis
is:
1. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
2. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
3. Stevens-johnson syndrome
4. Infantile pemphigus
Ans. 2. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A child with pyoderma becomes toxic and presents with respiratory distress. His chest radiograph shows patchy areas of
consolidation and multiple bilateral thin-walled air-containing cysts. The most likely etiological agent in this case is:
3. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
4. Pneumocystis carinii
Ans. 2. Staphylococcus aureus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 2-year-old girl-child is brought to the outpatient with features of handwringing stereotype movements, impaired language
and communication development, breath-holding spells, poor social skills and deceleration of head growth after 6 months of
age. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Asperger’s syndrome
2. Rett’s syndrome
4. Collard syndrome
Ans. 2. Rett’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Posterior iliac horns are seen in:
1. Fisher’s syndrome
2. Crouzon syndrome
3. Nail patella syndrome
4. Pierre Robin syndrome
Ans. 3. Nail patella syndrome
Pediatrics 325
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-year-old child presented with headache, vomiting, gait instability and diplopia. On examination, he had papilloedema
and gait ataxia. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Hydrocephalus
2. Brainstem tumor
3. Suprasellar tumor
4. Midline posterior fossa tumor
Ans. 4. Midline posterior fossa tumor
USMLE Case Scenario

The metabolic derangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is:
1. Hypochloremic alkalosis
2. Hyperchloremic alkalosis
3. Hyperchloremic acidosis
4. Hypochloremic acidosis
Ans. 1. Hypochloremic alkalosis
USMLE Case Scenario

Hair on end appearance is seen in:
1. Thalassemia
2. Scurvy
3. Rickets
4. Hemochromatosis
Ans. 1. Thalassemia
USMLE Case Scenario

Egg on side appearance is seen in:
1. TOF
2. TAPVC
3. Uncorrected TGA
4. Truncus arteriosus
Ans. 3. Uncorrected TGA
USMLE Case Scenario

Snowman appearance on X-ray is seen’s in which cardiac pathology:
1. Fallot’s tetrology
2. TAPVC
3. TGA
Ans. 2. TAPVC
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showd an extra-aixal, dural-based and enhancing
lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Meningioma
2. Glioma
3. Schwannoma
Ans. 1. Meningioma
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass seen on cranial MR scan of a
10-year-old child?
3. Optic chiasmal glioma
4. Germinoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-year-old boy from Kansas is brought to the emergency department. His parents assert that over the past 3 days, he has
become progressively ill with generalized fatigue and mid-abdominal pain that have become steadily worse. On examination,
he has a maculopapular rash on both of his thighs.
The rash does not blanch and some lesions near the ankles look petechial.
His temperature is (103.4°F). He has dark stool, which is positive for occult blood.
The physician determines that the boy is dehydrated.
1. Pancreatitis
2. Rocky mountain spotted fever
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Henöch-Schönlein purpura
Ans: 4. Henöch-Schönlein purpura
Henöch-Scholein Purpura (HSP) is the most likely diagnosis. This boy has abdominal pain with guaiac-positive stools, but also
has a prominent rash, mostly on his lower extremities. Other characteristic findings of HSP include hematuria and joint pains.
The illness may follow an upper respiratory infection or strep throat.
PSYCHIATRY
Psychiatry 3
Basics of Psychiatry
Father of ‘Modern’ Psychiatry: Johan Weyer
Frued: Freud was an Austrian: Born in 1856. (1856-1939)
Freuds Contributions Include

•• Founder of Psychoanalysis
•• Defense Mechanism
•• Free association
–– Concepts of
–– Libido
–– Repression
–– Transference
–– Regression
–– Sublimation
•• Concepts of
–– Id
–– Ego
–– Superego
•• Oedipus complex
•• Analysis of Properties of Cocaine
Basic Terminology Commonly Asked

•• Agnosia •• Inability to recognize a specific sensory stimuli
•• Apraxia •• Inability to perform purposive movement
•• Alexia •• Inability to read
•• Acalculia •• Inability to perform arithmetic calculation
•• Agraphia •• Inability to write
•• Anosmia •• Inability to smell
•• Prospaganosia •• Inability to identify a familiar face
•• Alexithymia •• Inability to recognize and describe feelings
•• Id: Drives instincts present at birth

•• Ego: Defense mechanisms, judgment, relation to reality, object relationships, developed after birth
•• Works on reality principle
•• Superego: Conscience formed during latency period
Psychiatric Terminology Commonly asked

•• Deja vu •• Sensation of feeling of familiarity
•• Seen in temporal lobe epilepsy
•• Normal person psychosis
•• Jamias vu •• Sensation of feeling of unfamiliarity
•• Neologisms •• Idiosyncratically formed new words which cannot be easily understood
•• Flight of ideas •• Rapid speech with rapid change in ideas
•• Verbigeration •• Senseless repetition of same words over and over again
Neurotransmitters and Their Imbalance Causes

•• ↑DA levels •• Schizophrenia
•• ↓Ach •• Dementia
•• ↑NA •• Mania, Anxiety
•• ↓5HT, NA •• OCD
•• ↓GABA •• Epilepsy
•• ↓Serotonin •• Depression
USMLE Case Scenario

A 41-year-old woman presented with a history of aches and pains all over the body and generalized weakness for four years.
She cannot sleep because of the illness and has lost her appetite as well. She has lack of interest in work and does not like to
meet friends and relatives. She denies feelings of sadness. Her most likely diagnosis is related to:
1. ↑Serotinin
2. ↓Serotonin
3. ↑Noradrenaline
4. ↓Acetylcholine
5. ↓GABA
Ans: 2. ↓Serotonin
Psychological and Neuropsychological Diagnostic Tests Used in Psychiatry

Category of Test Test
•• Intelligence •• Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-revised
•• Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-revised
•• Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
•• Achievement •• Wide-Range Achievement Test
•• Peabody Individual Achievement Test
•• Personality (used to identify personality characteristics •• Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
and psychopathology) •• Rorschach Test
•• Sentence Completion Test
•• Thematic Apperception Test
•• Neuropsychological •• Halstead-Reitan Battery
•• Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery
•• Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test
Psychiatry 331
COGNITIVE DISORDERS
Functions disturbed in ‘Organic Brain Syndrome’
•• Consciousness
•• Orientation
•• Abstract thinking
•• Recent memory
•• Intelligence
Delirium
•• Acute onset
•• Memory registration and retention impaired
•• Clouding of consciousness
•• Disorientation in time, place, person
•• Attention and concentration disturbed
•• Hallucinations common
•• Disturbed sleep wake pattern
•• Marked diurnal variation (IMP)
Dementia
•• Chronic onset usually
•• There is no disturbance of consciousness
•• There is cognitive impairment
•• Impaired judgment
•• Personality alteration
•• Impaired memory
•• Attention and concentration undisturbed
•• Hallucinations uncommon
•• Diurnal variation absent
•• Retrograde Amnesia is characterized by an inability to remember events prior to the onset of disease, with preservation of
the ability to form new memories
•• Anterograde Amnesia is characterized by an inability to register and form lasting memories of new or present events.
•• Proactive Inhibition is when something newly learned interferes with previously learned information.
New material inhibits old material
•• Retroactive Inhibition is when previously learned material interferes with the ability to acquire new information. Old
material inhibits new material
•• Transient Global Amnesia is characterized by confusion and impairment of recent memory. It often occurs in elderly people
and resolves without sequelaie
Causes of ‘Reversible’ Dementias

•• Hypoparathyroidism
•• Hyperparathyroidism
•• Thiamine deficiency (Wernicke’s encephalopathy)
•• Vitamin B12 deficiency

•• Drug intoxication
•• Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
Causes of ‘Irreversible’ Dementias

•• Alzheimers Dementia (MC CAUSE)
•• Picks disease
•• Huntingtons disease
•• Multi infarct dementia
•• Leucoencephalopathies
•• Vasculitis
Alzheimer’s Disease
•• Cortical Dementia not Subcortical Dementia
•• Causes brain atrophy in advanced cases
•• Progressive dementia
•• Atrophy usually involves frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
•• Nucleus Basalis of Meynert is effected
–– Aphasia
–– Amnesia
–– Agnosia
–– Acalculia
–– Alexia are features
There is reduction in acetylcholine concentration
Associations with
Down’s syndrome, APP (Amyloid precursor Protein gene on Chromosome 21)
APO E gene
•• Presinilin 1 on Chromosome 14
•• Presinilin 2 on chromosome 1
•• Treatment is by
•• Tacrine
•• Donepezil
•• Memantine
–– Neurofibrillary tangles are intracytoplasmic filamentous inclusions found in Alzheimer’s disease and, to alesser extent, in
normal aging brains
–– Granulovacuolar degeneration
–– Hirano Bodies: They are Specific protein deposits associated with AGE (Advance Glycosylation End products) localized within
soma of neurons
–– Amyloid Plaques: They represent fragmented accumulations of proteins which are normally broken down but accumulate
in Alzheimer’s disease
–– Alzheimer’s Cells (Special cells)
–– Neurofibrillary tangles are insoluble twisted fibrils composed of Tau proteins
Pseudodementia
•• It is seen in depression
•• Severely depressed individuals may appear demented, a phenomenon called pseudodementia
•• Unlike cortical dementias, memory and language are usually intact when carefully tested in depressed persons
Psychiatry 333
•• The patients may feel confused and are unable to accomplish routine tasks
•• Vegetative symptoms are common, such as insomnia, lack of energy, poor appetite and concern with bowel function
•• The psychosocial milieu may suggest prominent reasons for depression
•• The patients respond to antidepressant treatment
Cortical Dementia Subcortical Dementia

•• Site affected: Cortex •• Site affected: subcortex
•• Severe memory loss •• Mild – moderate memory loss
•• Aphasia, Amnesia, Agnosia, Acalculia, Dyslexia •• Dysarthia, dystonia, chorea, rigidity, tremor, ataxia
–– Alzheimer’s dementia –– Parkinsonism
–– Huntingtons chorea
–– Wilson’s disease
Pervasive Developmental Disorders

•• Pervasive developmental disorders are characterized by the ‘failure to acquire or the early loss of social skills and language’,
resulting in life long problems in social and occupational functioning
•• These disorders include:
–– Autistic disorder
–– Asperger disorder
–– Rett disorder
–– Childhood disintegrative disorder
Autism
•• Autism is characterized by onset of symptoms before 3 years of age
•• Difficulty in concentration and communication is typical
•• Lesion in frontal lobe, temporal lobe, cerebellum
•• Delayed speech and Language development (absence of babbling, presence of echolalia)
•• Problems in forming social relationships in early childhood. (Aloofness, absent social smile, lack of eye to eye contact)
•• Males are more affected in autism
•• Features:
–– Stereotyped movements
–– Poor speech
–– Lack of social interaction
Some autistic children develop well developed isolated skills atypically such as remote memory, calculating abilities and musical
abilities. This atypical presentation is called as ‘Idiot savant syndrome’
Children develop
–– Mental retardation
–– Epilepsy
–– EEG abnormalities
Differential Diagnosis
Asperger’s syndrome is a different entity
Characterized by autism without any delay in language or cognitive development
Better Prognosis
Retts Syndrome is mostly common in girls with deceleration of head growth between five months and 30 months
Stereotyped movements with hand clapping and head wringing are characteristic
Remember: Conduct Disorder

Conduct disorder is a childhood/adolescent disorder defined as a pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others are
violated with three or more of the following present in the past 12 months:
•• Destruction of property
•• Cruelty to animals and people
•• Deceitfulness or theft
•• Serious violations of rules
•• It causes clinically significant impairment in social functioning
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

•• Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
•• Requires the presence of six symptoms of inattention for at least 6 months to a degree that is maladaptive and six symptoms
of hyperactivity/impulsivity that cause social impairment
•• Symptoms are present in two or more settings (e.g. home and school) and some of the symptoms are present before age
•• The symptoms are not due to a general medical condition or other mental disorder
•• ADHD (Attention Deficient Hyperkinetic Disorder) occurs before seven years of age. It is characterized by
–– Poor attention span or Easy Distractibility
–– Hyperactivity
–– And Impulsivity ADHD is more common in males
•• ADHD is more common in school going children
•• Methyl phenidate is used in treatment
•• Atomoxetine is used for treatment
USMLE Case Scenario

A 7-year-old boy from California is referred by his Science teacher for psychiatric evaluation. The teachers has noticed that,
in the past year, he has been unable to sustain attention in class, and has been indulging in excessive talking to his friends
during class. He is forgetful and losses things easily. He is not attentitive to what is told to him. Most likely diagnosis is:
Ans. Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by impulsivity, hyperactivity, and inattention lasting at
least 6 months. To make the diagnosis, the disorder must have started before age 7 and six signs each of inattention and
impulsivity/hyperactivity need to be present.
In children, bipolar disorder often presents as extremely irritable and explosive mood, with poor psychosocial functioning,
decreased sleep, talkativeness, racing thoughts, and high energy.
Conduct disorder is diagnosed when the child has had symptoms of aggression toward people and animals, destruction of
property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violation of rules. One symptom needs to last at least 6 months, even though the
symptoms may have been present intermittently for a year.
Post-traumatic stress disorder develops following trauma, and the child usually has symptoms of hypervigilance, increased
arousal avoidance and autonomic reactivity.
Rett syndrome belongs to the pervasive developmental disorders mostly seen in girls. The child has normal development
through the first 5 months of life. During the second year, however, she develops multiple deficits, including decreased head
growth, decreased hand skills, social impairment and impaired gait and trunk movements.
Psychiatry 335
Intermittent Explosive Disorder

•• It is diagnosed in adults only after several episodes of failure to resist aggressive impulses that lead to assaults or destruction
of property
•• The degree of episodes is not proportionate to precipitating stressor
•• The disorder is not due to any other mental disorder or general medical condition
Oppositional Defiant Disorder

Oppositional defiant disorder is a pattern of negativistic and defiant behavior lasting at least 6 months with four or more of the
following:
•• Loss of temper
•• Arguments with adults
•• Defying rules
•• Deliberately annoying other people
•• Blaming others for own faults
•• Presence of vindictive behavior
•• Presence of anger and resentment
•• Conduct disorder is a childhood/adolescent disorder defined as a pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others are
violated with three or more of the following present in the past 12 months: destruction of property, cruelty to animals and people,
deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules. It causes clinically significant impairment in social functioning and it is
reserved for patients younger than 18
•• Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder requires the presence of six symptoms of inattention for at least 6 months to a degree
that is maladaptive and six symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity that cause social impairment. Symptoms are present in two or
more settings (e.g. home and school), and some of the symptoms are present before age 7. The symptoms are not due to a general
medical condition or other mental disorder
•• Intermittent explosive disorder is diagnosed in adults only after several episodes of failure to resist aggressive impulses that lead
to assaults or destruction of property. The degree of episodes is not proportionate to precipitating stressor. The disorder is not due
to any other mental disorder or general medical condition
•• Oppositional defiant disorder is a pattern of negativistic and defiant behavior lasting at least 6 months with four or more of the
following: loss of temper, arguments with adults, defying rules, deliberately annoying other people, blaming others for own faults,
presence of vindictive behavior, presence of anger and resentment
Never forget to differentiate between

Illusion Hallucination Delusion Depersonalization Derealization
Misinterpretation of Perception without False unshakable belief An alteration in An alteration in perception
stimuli arising from stimuli not amenable to perception to self to external world
external object reasoning
Delusion
Delusion is a false unshakable belief
Delusion is a disorder of thought
•• Capgras syndrome is delusion of doubles
•• Othello syndrome is delusion involving infidelity of spouse
•• Delusion of Dysmorphobia is body parts appearing ugly
•• Nihilistic delusion is seen in depression
•• ‘The female in a delusional state that the attractive person is in love with her. This is De Clerambaults Syndrome or erotomanic
delusion that a person of high status is in love with her.’
•• Delusion of Reference : Misinterpretation that events in the outside world are having direct personal relationship
Hallucination
Disorder Most Common Delusion
Depression •• Nihilistic delusion
Mania •• Delusions of grandeur
Schizophrenia •• Paranoid delusions
•• Delusions of reference
•• Hallucination is false perception without external stimulus

•• Disorder of perception
•• ‘Auditory’ hallucinations are a feature of nonorganic disorders
•• ‘Visual hallucinations’ are a feature of organic psychiatric disorders
•• Hallucinations are involuntary
•• It is viewed as sensory perception and occurs in inner subjective space
•• Not dependent on will of observer
•• ‘Tactile’ hallucinations are seen in cocaine abuse
•• ‘Hypnagogic’ hallucinations when one goes to sleep
•• ‘Hypnopompic’ hallucinations are ones when one wakes from sleep
•• Formed visual hallucinations are seen in temporal lobe lesion
Neurotic disorders
•• Insight present
•• Reality testing is intact
Psycotic disorder
•• Insight absent
•• Reality testing is not intact
•• Presence of delusions and hallucinations
SCHIZOPHRENIA
First Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia
Hallucinations
Delusional perception
Thought Alienation phenomenon
•• Thought withdrawal
•• Thought insertion
•• Thought broadcasting
Passivity phenomenon
•• Made feelings
•• Made impulses
•• Made acts
•• Somatic passivity
Bleuler’s Criterion for Schizophrenia

•• Ambivalence
•• Autism
•• Affect disturbance
•• Association disturbance
•• Commonest type: Paranoid Schizophrenia

•• Early onset and bad prognosis: Hebephrenic Schizophrenia
•• Late onset, best prognosis: Catatonic Schizophrenia
•• Worst prognosis: Simple Schizophrenia
Psychiatry 337
•• Most common hallucination in Schizophrenia is Auditory hallucination

•• Ist symptom to go with treatment is Auditory hallucination
•• Ist symptom to reappear after resistance to drugs is Auditory hallucination
•• Amphetamines cause paranoid Schizophrenia

–– Mutism
–– Rigidity
–– Waxy flexibility
–– Mannerism
–– Grimacing
–– Verbigeration are a feature of Catatonic schizophrenia
•• Senseless giggling and mirror gazing are seen in Hebephrenic schizophrenia
•• Dramatic self mutilation in schizophrenia is called von Gogh Syndrome
•• ‘Brief psycotic disorder’: one day to one month duration of psycosis

•• ‘Schizeniform disorder’< 6 months
•• ‘Schizophrenia’: > 6 months
•• Disorder of thought and perception
Schizophrenia is a heterogeneous syndrome characterized by perturbations of language, perception, thinking, social activity,
affect, and volition
Patients may present with
•• ‘Positive symptoms’ (such as conceptual disorganization, delusions, or hallucinations) or
•• ‘Negative symptoms’ (loss of function, anhedonia, decreased emotional expression, impaired concentration and diminished
social engagement) and must have ‘at least two of these for a 1-month period’ and continuous signs for ‘at least 6 months’ to
meet formal diagnostic criteria
•• ‘Negative’ symptoms predominate in one-third of the schizophrenic population and are associated with a poor long-term
outcome and a poor response to drug treatment
•• Catatonic-type describes patients whose clinical presentation is dominated by profound changes in motor activity, negativism
and echolalia or echopraxia
•• Paranoid-type describes patients who have a prominent preoccupation with a specific delusional system and who otherwise do
not qualify as having disorganized-type disease
•• Disorganized-type in which disorganized speech and behavior are accompanied by a superficial or silly affect
•• Residual-type disease, negative symptomatology exists in the absence of delusions, hallucinations, or motor disturbance
•• The diagnosis of ‘Schizophreniform disorder’ is reserved for patients who meet the symptom requirements but not the duration
requirements for schizophrenia
•• The diagnosis of ‘Schizoaffective disorder’ is used for those whose symptoms of schizophrenia are independent of associated
periods of mood disturbance
•• About 10% of schizophrenic patients commit suicide
Epidemiologic surveys identify three principal risk factors for schizophrenia:

•• Genetic susceptibility
•• Early developmental insults and
•• Winter birth
Neuroimaging Structural and Functional Abnormalities

•• Enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles with associated cortical atrophy and sulcal enlargement
•• Volumetric reductions in the amygdala, hippocampus, right prefrontal cortex, and thalamus
•• Altered asymmetry of the planum temporale
•• Decreases in neuronal metabolism in the thalamus and prefrontal cortex
•• ‘The Dopamine Hypothesis of Schizophrenia’ is based on the fact that agents that diminish dopaminergic activity have beneficial
effects in reducing the acute symptoms and signs of psychosis, specifically agitation, anxiety and hallucinations
•• TREATMENT: Antipsychotic agents remain the cornerstone of acute and maintenance treatment of schizophrenia and are
effective in the treatment of hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders, regardless of etiology
•• Older agents, such as chlorpromazine and thioridazine, are more sedating and anticholinergic and more likely to cause
orthostatic hypotension, while higher potency antipsychotics, such as haloperidol, perphenazine and thiothixene, carry a
higher risk of inducing extrapyramidal side effects
•• Acute onset
•• Late onset
•• Short duration
•• Female
•• Fatty physique
•• Family history of Mood disorder
•• Presence of stressor
•• Positive symptom predominance
•• Catatonic type
•• Good Social Support
•• Normal CT scan of head
‘Good Prognostic Factors’ of Schizophrenia are
Catatonic Schizophrenia
•• Mutism: Absence of speech
•• Rigidity seen
•• Waxy flexibility: Parts of body in uncomfortable position for a long period of time
•• Defect of conation
•• Stupor
•• Negativism
•• Echolalia: Repetition of phrases/words
•• Echopraxia
•• Mannerism and grimacing
•• Automatic obedience
•• Ambitendency
•• Verbigeration: Incomprehensible speech
•• Cataplexy not catalepsy
Psychiatry 339
Personality Disorders
•• Are pervasive, fixed, inappropriate patterns of relating to others that cause social and occupational impairment
•• Have limited insight
•• Do not have frank psychosis
The DSM-IV classifies Personality disorders into
•• Cluster A
•• Cluster B
•• Cluster C
Cluster A: Fear Social Relationships

•• Paranoid: Distrustful, Suspicious, attributes responsibility for own problems to others
•• Schizoid: Long standing pattern of social withdrawal without psychosis
•• Schizotypal: Magical thinking, odd thought patterns and odd behavior
Cluster B : Emotional, inconsistent or dramatic
•• Histrionic: Emotional, extrovert, sexually provocative
•• Narcissistic: Pompous, with sense of special entitlement, lacks empathy for others
•• Antisocial: Refuses to confirm to social norms shows no concern for others
•• Borderline: Erratic, unstable mood, feelings of aloneness
Cluster C : Fearful or anxious
•• Avoidant: Timid, sensitive to rejection, socially withdrawn
•• Obsessive Compulsive: Perfectionistic, orderly, stubborn, feelings of imperfection
•• Dependent: Allows other people to make descisions and poor self-confidence
USMLE Case Scenario

Personality Disorder Clinical Scenario
•• Paranoid •• A 42-year-old lecturer in history says that she was fired from her job because she worked too hard and
made her Head of Department look lazy. She says that when the same thing happened in a previous job,
she filed a lawsuit against that company
•• Schizoid •• On a OPD visit the parents of a 22-year-old man say that they are concerned about him because he has
no friends and spends most of his time hiking in the woods. You examine him and find that he is content
with his solitary life
•• Schizotypal •• An oddly dressed 30-year-old woman says that she likes to walk in the woods because the animals
communicate with her. She says that she never goes out after 6 PM however, because they are ‘dangerous
hours’. She has few friends
•• Histrionic •• A 23-year-old man comes to your office dressed in yellow color and a cap lined with red satin. He reports
that his mild sore throat felt like ‘a hot poker’ when he swallowed and says that he feels so warm that
he must have a fever of at least 106°
•• Narcissistic •• A 33-year-old man basically a student with poor economic and academic career asks you to that he is
the richest man on earth and that he is the most learnt person around. He says that he is ‘better’ than
your other patients
•• Antisocial •• A 30-year-old man says that he had set fire to the school he studied. He has often been unemployed and
has been arrested for stealing and robbery several times
•• Borderline •• A 20-year-old graduate tells you that because she was afraid to be alone again, she tried to commit
suicide after a man with whom she had two dates did not call her again. After your interview, she tells
you that all of the other doctors she has seen were horrible and that you are the only doctor who has ever
understood her problem
Personality Disorder Clinical Scenario

•• Avoidant •• A 30-year-old woman who works as a tutor lives with her elderly mother and rarely socializes. She reports
that when coworkers ask her to join them for dinner, she refuses because she is afraid that they will not
like her
•• Obsessive- •• A 33-year-old man reports that each night he washes his hands at least 6 times after dinner. He checks
compulsive his door at least 7 times before going to sleep and checks the night lamp frequently
•• Dependent •• A 28-year-old woman says that her brother accompanies her everytime she leaves her home and on her
marriage would take him along with her to her new house and she says that she cannot decide anything of
her own and everyday decisions her brother decides for her
USMLE Case Scenario

A 17-year-old girl was brought to the psychiatric emergency after she slashed her wrists in an attempt to commit suicide.
On enquiry her father revealed that she had made several such attempts of wrist slashing in the past, mostly in response to
trivial fights in her house. Further she had marked fluctuations in her mood with a pervasive pattern of unstable interpersonal
relationship. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Dependant disorder
2. Borderline personality disorder
3. Major depression
4. Histrionic personality disorder
5. Adjustment disorder
Ans: 2. Borderline personality disorder
Adjustment Disorders
Adjustment disorder Normal grief Acute stress disorder Post-traumatic stress disorder. (PTSD)
Emotional symptoms that Expected strong Pshycological symptoms Psycological symptoms lasting > 4 weeks
start within 3 months and emotional response lasting 2 days – 4 weeks/ after stressor
end within 6 months of usually sadness after within a month after
exposure to a stressor. a loss stressor
USMLE Case Scenario

Three years back a woman suffered during an earthquake and she was successfully saved. After recovery she has nightmares
about the episode and she also gets up in the night and feels terrified. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Major depression
2. Post-traumatic stress disorder
3. Mania
4. Schizophrenia
Ans: 2. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Comparison between Normal Grief (Bereavement) and Abnormal Grief (Depression)

Normal Grief Abnormal Grief
•• A 55-year-old woman whose husband died 3 months in a •• A 62-year-old woman whose husband died 4 months ago
major car accident ago appears well groomed and reports appears dirty, has lost 10 kg and refuses interact with
that although she often feels sad, she enjoys spending time friends and family
with her children
Kubler-Ross’s death and dying sequence is a stepwise process with 5 identified stages
The order in which these stages appear is the following
•• Denial
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•• Anger
•• Bargaining
•• Sadness
•• Acceptance
Somatoform Disorders
‘Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms without a sufficient organic cause. A person who has a somatoform
disorder is not malingering and not delusional but truly believes that he or she has a physical problem.’
The five major DSM-IV classifications of somatoform disorders are:
•• Somatization disorder
•• Conversion disorder
•• Hypochondriasis
•• Body dysmorphic features
•• Pain disorder
•• Undifferentiated somatoform disorders
Somatization Disorder
•• Patients with multiple somatic complaints that cannot be explained by a known medical condition. The somatoform disorders
include a variety of conditions that differ in terms of the specific symptoms that are present and in whether or not the symptoms
are intentionally produced
•• In somatization disorder the patient presents with multiple physical complaints referable to different organ systems
•• Onset is usually before age 30, and the disorder is persistent
•• Formal diagnostic criteria require the recording of
–– At least four pain
–– Two gastrointestinal
–– One sexual
–– One pseudoneurologic symptom
•• Patients with somatization disorder often present with dramatic complaints, but the complaints are inconsistent
•• Symptoms of comorbid anxiety and mood disorder are common and may be the result of drug interactions due to regimens
initiated independently by different physicians
•• Patients with somatization disorder may be impulsive and demanding and frequently qualify for a formal comorbid
psychiatric diagnosis
Conversion Disorder
•• Here symptoms focus on deficits that involve voluntary motor or sensory function and on psychological factors that initiate
or exacerbate the medical presentation
•• Like somatization disorder, the deficit is not intentionally produced or simulated, as is the case in factitious disorder (malingering)
•• Deficit is proceeded by conflicts/stressors
•• Deficit cannot be fully explained by medical condition or substance use
•• Deficit can cause significant distress/impairment
•• La Belle Indifference is noted
•• Primary and secondary gain are associated
Hypochondriasis
•• Here the essential feature is a belief of serious medical illness that persists despite reassurance and appropriate medical
evaluation
•• Abnormal preoccupation with normal body function
•• Belief is persistent even after normal reports

•• Patients with hypochondriasis have a history of poor relationships with physicians stemming from their sense that they have
been evaluated and treated inappropriately or inadequately
•• Fear or belief is not a delusion
Munchausen’s Syndrome
•• The patient consciously and voluntarily produces physical symptoms of illness
•• It is reserved for individuals with particularly dramatic, chronic, or severe factitious illness
•• A variety of signs, symptoms and diseases have been either simulated or caused by factitious behavior the most common including
chronic diarrhea, fever of unknown origin, intestinal bleeding or hematuria, seizures and hypoglycemia
•• Sole purpose is to obtain medical attention
•• Pseudologia fantastica is a feature
•• Grid abdomen with multiple scars is a feature
•• Patients are manipulative, convincing liars and have superficial knowledge of medical terminology
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old male from Texas is admitted with complaints of abdominal pain and headache. General physical examination
revealed six scars on the abdomen from previous surgeries. He seems to maintain a sick role and seeks attention from the
nurses. He demands multiple diagnostic tests including a liver biopsy. The treating team failed to diagnose any major physical
illness in the patient. His mental status examination did not reveal any major psychopathology. One of the treating staff
recognized him to have appeared in several other hospital with abdominal pain and some other vague complaints. He is most
likely suffering from:
1. Schizophrenia
2. Malingering
3. Somatization disorder
4. Factitious disorder
5. Conversion disorder
Ans. 4. Factitious disorder
Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy

Munchausen syndrome by proxy is also called fabricated, fictitious or falsified illness. This form of abuse results from the
production or presentation of false illness in the child by an adult, usually a parent. Related behaviors include mothering to
death, doctor shopping, overanxious parents
•• The syndrome requires a parent who exhibits the behavior (‘the perpetrator’) and assumes the sick role by proxy, a child who
is dependent and unable to prevent the deception and a doctor who is deceived into accepting the child as ill
•• The parent positively gains attention and care for themselves as the ‘good’ parent of a sick child, as well as status with friends
and family, and continual social, professional and most of all personal gratification. Other rewards may be financial, through
disability allowance, social through relationships with health care staff, but these are not essential parts of the syndrome.
Addiction to hospitals has been described. Additional gains may be acquired, e.g. through the media, active participation in parent
support groups and from the legal process if cases go to court. Harm results from the betrayal of trust by the adult of the Features:
–– Excessively heavy case notes are a characteristic feature
–– Frequent admission to hospital
–– Attendance at several clinics for a variety of complaints
–– Symptoms and signs are produced which do not resolve
–– There is constant production of new, varied symptoms and signs
–– The child’s clinical appearance is not consistent with the description of his symptoms
–– The parents’ response to the serious clinical picture, which they communicate of their child is inappropriate
–– There is ever-increasing pressure by the parents to discover what is wrong a plea for investigations, enthusiasm for
admission
–– Progress of the clinical condition is not as expected or diagnosis does not fit a typical pattern
Psychiatry 343
•• In somatoform disorders, the patient does not intentionally create symptoms (unconscious process)
•• In factitious disorders, patients intentionally create an illness or symptoms (e.g. they inject insulin to create hypoglycemia) and
subject themselves to procedures in order to assume the role of a patient (no financial or other secondary gain)
•• In malingering, patients intentionally create their illness for secondary gain (e.g. money, release from work or jail).
Chronic Fatigue Syndrome (CFS)

•• (CFS) is the current name for a disorder characterized by debilitating fatigue and several associated physical, constitutional,
and neuropsychological complaints
•• Chronic mononucleosis, chronic Epstein-Barr virus infection, and postviral fatigue syndrome may have had what is now
called chronic fatigue syndrome
•• Common in women
•• Mild to moderate depression is present in half to two-thirds of patients
•• Typically, CFS arises suddenly in a previously active individual. An otherwise unremarkable flulike illness or some other acute stress
leaves unbearable exhaustion in its wake. Other symptoms, such as headache, sore throat tender lymph nodes, muscle and joint
aches, and frequent feverishness, lead to the belief that an infection persists, and medical attention is sought. Over several weeks,
despite reassurances that nothing serious is wrong, the symptoms persist and other features of the syndrome become evident ¾
disturbed sleep, difficulty in concentration, and depression
•• Ultimately, isolation, frustration, and pathetic resignation can mark the protracted course of illness
•• Practical advice should be given regarding lifestyle
Disorder Clinical Scenario

Somatization Disorder •• A 36-year-old woman with a 16 years history of vague and chronic physical complaints. She says
that she has always been in pain and has pain in abdomen, chest, legs, etc. sick but that her doctors
have not been able to identify her problem
Conversion Disorder •• A 22-year-old female experiences a sudden loss of vision, after a fight with her husband but appears
unconcerned (‘la belle indifference’). She reports that the onset of her blindness, she saw her child
going to the street
Hypochondriasis •• A 48-year-old man says that he has been ‘ill’ for most of his life. He has attended multiple doctors but
is angry with most of them because they ultimately referred him to mental health clinicians. He now
fears that he has pancreatic cancer reports are normal. Many of his previous ‘illnesses’ also seem to
be amplified responses to normal physical sensations
Body dysmorphic disorder •• A 22-year-old woman seeks plastic surgery for her nose which is normal. She rarely meets her friends
EATING DISORDERS
Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa typically begins in mid to late adolescence
The disorder occasionally develops in early puberty, before menarche, but seldom begins after age 40
Despite being underweight, patients with anorexia nervosa rarely complain of hunger or fatigue and often exercise extensively
Further weight loss is viewed by the patient as a fulfilling accomplishment, while weight gain is seen as a personal failure
Physical Features
•• Amenorrhea is a feature
•• Patients with anorexia nervosa typically have few physical complaints but may note cold intolerance and constipation
•• Vital signs may reveal bradycardia, hypotension and hypothermia
•• Soft, downy hair growth (lanugo) sometimes occurs, especially on the back and alopecia may be seen
•• Salivary gland enlargement which is associated with starvation as well as with binge eating and vomiting may make the face
appear surprisingly full in contrast to the marked general wasting.
•• Acrocyanosis of the digits is common, and peripheral edema can be seen in the absence of hypoalbuminemia, particularly
when the patient begins to regain weight
•• Some patients who consume large amounts of vegetables containing vitamin A develop a yellow tint to the skin (hypercarotenemia),
which is especially notable on the palms
Laboratory Abnormalities
•• Mild normochromic, normocytic anemia is frequent, as is mild to moderate leukopenia, with a disproportionate reduction of
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
•• Dehydration may result in slightly increased levels of blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
•• Serum liver enzyme levels may increase, especially during the early phases of refeeding. The level of serum proteins is usually
normal
•• Hypokalemic alkalosis suggests self-induced vomiting or the use of diuretics
•• Hyponatremia is common and may result from excess fluid intake and disturbances in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone
Endocrine Abnormalities
Amenorrhea is hypothalamic in origin and reflects diminished production of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by

•• Low estrogen
•• Low FSH
•• Low LH
•• Low normal thyroxine
•• Low blood sugar
•• Increased cortisol
Cardiac output is reduced, and congestive heart failure occasionally occurs during rapid refeeding
The electrocardiogram usually shows:
•• Sinus bradycardia
•• Reduced QRS voltage
•• Nonspecific ST-T-wave abnormalities
•• Some patients develop a prolonged QTc interval, which may predispose to serious arrhythmias
Anorexia Bulimia
•• Binge eating is uncommon •• Common
•• Weight loss common •• Mostly normal
•• Amenorrhea in 100% •• In 50%
•• Skin changes common •• Rare
•• Antisocial behavior rare •• Common
•• Restrict food intake •• Self induced vomiting
Bulimia Nervosa
It is a condition characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by a compensatory behavior to prevent weight
gain (vomiting, exercise, laxative abuse). Other features include stealing (food), alcohol and drug abuse, self-mutilation and
depression. The individuals are usually at or slightly over the normal weight for their height, sexual activity is normal or
increased and they continue to menstruate. Clinical findings that are caused by recurrent vomiting include dental caries,
periodontal disease and pharyngeal lacerations and nail changes. Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia are also present.
Complications include aspiration and rupture of the esophagus or stomach
Psychiatry 345
USMLE Case Scenario

A young lady presented with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives, which is the most
appropriate diagnosis?
1. Bulimia nervosa
2. Anorexia
3. Binge eating disorder
4. Psychogenic vomiting
Ans.1. Bulimia nervosa
Postpartum Psychiatric Diseases

•• Postpartum blues •• Within 1st week •• Mood lability, Tearfulness, insomnias, anxiety
•• Postpartum depression •• Within 2–3 months •• Depressed mood, excess anxiety, insomnia
•• Postpartum phycosis •• Within 2–4 weeks •• Agitation, decreased mood, delusions, depression, disorganized behavior
Postpartum blues are self limited

Postpartum depression is moderate
Postpartum Psychosis is severe
•• Postpartum Psychosis (PPP) occurs within 2–4 weeks of child birth

•• However most cases occur within 3–4 weeks of child birth
•• PPP is the most severe of postpartum mood disorder
•• PPP is the rarest of mood disorder
•• Incidence 1–2 women/thousand women giving birth
•• PPP has 5% suicide rate and 4% Infanticide rate
Signs of PPP
•• Hallucinations
•• Delusions
•• Illogical thoughts
•• Insomnia
•• Refusal to eat
•• Anxiety
•• Agitation
Increased Risk In
•• Positive family history of pshychosis
•• Bipolar disorder
•• Schizophrenia
Treatment should be immediate: Antipsychotics, Antidepressants or Antianxiety drugs
Impulse Control Disorders

•• Kleptomania Irresistible desire to steal articles
•• Pyromania Irresistible desire to set things on fire
•• Multilomania Irresistible desire to mutilate animals
•• Dipsomania Irresistible desire for alcohol drinks
•• Trichotillomania Need to pull out hair

•• Pathological gambling Overwhelming need to gamble
•• Intermittent explosive Disorder Patient loses self contol and attacks other persons without adequate cause
Sleep Enuresis
•• It is another parasomnia that occurs during slow-wave sleep (stage IV) in the young
•• Before age 5 or 6, nocturnal enuresis should probably be considered a normal feature of development
•• The condition usually improves spontaneously at puberty
•• Persistence of enuresis into adolescence or adulthood may reflect a variety of underlying conditions
•• In older patients with enuresis a distinction must be made between primary and secondary enuresis, the latter being defined as
bedwetting in patients who have been fully continent for 6 to 12 months
•• Treatment of primary enuresis is reserved for patients of appropriate age (older than 5 or 6 years) and consists of bladder
training exercises and behavioral therapy. Urologic abnormalities are more common in primary enuresis and must be assessed
by urologic examination
•• Important causes of secondary enuresis include emotional disturbances
–– Urinary tract infections or malformations
–– Caudaequina lesions
–– Epilepsy
–– Sleep apnea
–– Certain medications
Symptomatic pharmacotherapy is usually accomplished with
•• Intranasal desmopressin
•• Oral oxybutynin chloride or
•• Imipramine
PHOBIA
Phobic Disorders
•• Marked and persistent fear of objects or situations, exposure to which results in an immediate anxiety reaction
•• The patient avoids the phobic stimulus, and this avoidance usually impairs occupational or social functioning
•• Panic attacks may be triggered by the phobic stimulus or may emerge spontaneously during the course of the illness
•• Unlike patients with other anxiety disorders, individuals with phobias experience anxiety only in specific situations
‘Extended Definition’ of Agoraphobia Includes

•• Fear of open spaces
•• Fear of public places
•• Fear of crowded places
•• Fear of any place from where there is no easy escape to a safe place
•• Agoraphobia is associated with panic disorders. Exposure therapy in the form of graded exposure and flooding is done along
with cognitive behavioral therapy as a form of treatment
Cognitive behavioral therapy is the best therapy for phobia
SSRI are effective in phobia
Drugs used:
•• Anxiolytic drugs
•• TCA
•• SSRI
•• MAO inhibitors
Psychiatry 347
•• Exposure therapy a type of behavior therapy is the most commonly used treatment of specific phobia. The therapist usually
desensitizes the patient by a gradual exposure to the phobic stimulus. Relaxation and breathing control are important parts of the
treatment
•• Hypnosis is used to enhance the therapist’s suggestions that the phobic object is not dangerous. At times, self-hypnosis can be
taught so that the patient uses it as a method of relaxation when confronted with the phobic stimulus
•• Insight-oriented psychotherapy was initially used to treat phobias, but analyzing unconscious conflicts did not resolve phobic
symptoms. It does help the patient understand the origins of the phobia and how to deal with anxiety-provoking stimuli
•• Medication is used in the treatment of a specific phobia only if it is associated with panic attacks and generalized anxiety. The
pharmacologic treatment is then directed toward the panic attacks
•• Supportive therapy may be used in helping the patient actively confront the phobic stimulus during treatment. It is usually used
in addition to an ongoing treatment
Remember Other Phobias

•• Acrophobia: Fear of heights
•• Claustrophobia: Fear of closed spaces
•• Sitophobia: Fear of eating
•• Alogophobia: Fear of pain
•• Xenophobia: Fear of strangers
•• Thanatophobia: Fear of strangers
•• Zoophobia: Fear of animals
Panic Disorder
It is defined by the ‘presence of recurrent and unpredictable panic attacks, which are distinct episodes of intense fear and
discomfort associated with a variety of physical symptoms’, including:
–– Palpitations
–– Sweating
–– Trembling
–– Shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness
–– A fear of impending doom or death
–– Paresthesias, gastrointestinal distress, and feelings of unreality are also common
Panic attacks have a sudden onset, developing within 10 min and usually resolving over the course of an hour and they occur in an
unexpected fashion
Insight present:
The frequency and severity of panic attacks varies, ranging from once a week to clusters of attacks separated by months of well-being
TREATMENT
•• Achievable goals of treatment are to decrease the frequency of panic attacks and to reduce their intensity. The cornerstone of drug
therapy is antidepressant medications
•• The tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) agents imipramine and clomipramine can benefit 75 to 90% of panic disorder patients
•• Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are equally effective and do not have the adverse effects of TCAs. SSRIs should be started
at one-third to one-half of their usual antidepressant dose (fluoxetine, sertraline, paroxetine)
•• Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are at least as effective as TCAs and may specifically benefit patients who have comorbid
features of atypical depression (i.e. hypersomnia and weight gain)
•• Because of anticipatory anxiety and the need for immediate relief of panic symptoms, benzodiazepines are useful early in the
course of treatment
•• Early psychotherapeutic intervention and psychoeducation aimed at symptom control enhances the effectiveness of drug
treatment
Panic Disorder Generalized Anxiety Disorder

•• Presence of recurrent and unpredictable panic attacks, •• Patients have persistent, excessive, and/or unrealistic worry
which are distinct episodes of intense fear and associated with other signs and symptoms, which commonly include
discomfort associated with a variety of physical muscle tension, impaired concentration, autonomic arousal, feeling
symptoms, including palpitations, sweating, trembling, ‘on edge’ or restless and insomnia
shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness and a fear of •• Onset is usually before age 20 and a history of childhood fears and
impending doom or death social inhibition may be present
•• Paresthesias, gastrointestinal distress, and feelings of •• Over 80% of patients with GAD also suffer from major depression,
unreality are also common dysthymia, or social phobia
•• Panic attacks have a sudden onset, developing •• Comorbid substance abuse is common in these patients,
within 10 min and usually resolving over the course particularly alcohol and/or sedative/hypnotic abuse
of an hour and they occur in an unexpected fashion •• Patients with GAD readily admit to worrying excessively over
•• The frequency and severity of panic attacks varies, minor matters, with life-disrupting effects
ranging from once a week to clusters of attacks •• Unlike in panic disorder, complaints of symptoms such as shortness
separated by months of well-being of breath, palpitations and tachycardia are relatively rare
•• The first attack is usually outside the home •• Treatment
•• Onset is usually in late adolescence to early adulthood. •• Paroxitine
•• Alprazolam
•• Venlafaxine
•• Buspirone
Illnesses that mimic Anxiety disorder

‘Differential Diagnosis’ to be considered:
•• Hyperthyroidism
•• Hypoglycemia
•• Paroxysmal arrhythmias
•• Alcohol withdrawal
•• Temporal lobe epilepsy
Psychiatry 349
USMLE Case Scenario

A 28-year-old apprehensive patient presented in casualty to a resident with a history of sudden palpitation, sensation of
impending doom and constriction in his chest. This lasted for about 10–15 minutes after which he become all right the
diagnosis is likely to be:
1. Phobia
2. Personality disorder
4. Panic attack
Ans. 4. Panic attack
Defense mechanisms
•• Are unconscious mental techniques used by ego to keep conflicts out of awareness, reduce anxiety and maintain persons
self-esteem and sense of safety and equilibrium
•• Although defense mechanisms protect the person, if used excessively, neurotic symptoms can occur
The defense mechanisms used are:
Isolation of effect
•• Does not experience or express emotions associated with stressful event, e.g. a man whose father dies in a road traffic accident
describes the circumstances of his death dispassionately
Rationalization
•• Gives reasonable explanation for unacceptable feelings, e.g. a candidate not passing MD/MS entrance examinations says that
passing was not good for me anyway
Undoing
•• Attempting to reverse past actions with present actions, e.g. a man diagnosed with lung cancer as a result of smoking buys
books on nutrition, stop smoking
Reaction formation
•• Denying unacceptable feelings and adopting opposite attitudes and behavior, e.g. a man who is angry with his friend
compliments his shirt
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old woman who was previously lethargic comes to a psychiatric unit with her husband who says that she ‘worries
too much.’ On questioning her she admits that, over the past 8 months, She has difficulties falling asleep, partly because of
worrisome thoughts. In the past month, she has had ten episodes of irritability, frequent episodes of shortness of breath, and
restlessness and has been unable to go to work or do anything at home. Her physical examination and laboratory tests, as well
as her electrocardiogram are unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis: Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Generalized Anxiety Disorder

It is defined as unrealistic worry about life events for a period longer than 6 months, during which time a person is worried
most days. It also includes at least six symptoms of the following types:
•• Easy fatigability
•• Difficulties falling asleep
•• Restlessness
•• Difficulties concentrating
•• Irritability
•• Muscle tension
The symptoms are not due to other psychiatric or medical conditions and they cause significant impairment in everyday functioning
Anhedonia is a Disorder of ‘Affect’

•• Affect is feeling or emotion
•• Conation is action or motor behavior
•• Cognition is thought
•• Cognitive dysfunctions are:
–– Overgeneralization
–– Selective abstraction
–– Catastophization
Major Depression
•• Major depression is defined as depressed mood on daily basis for a minimum duration of two weeks
•• Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all/almost all activities most of the day, nearly everyday
•• Significant weight loss/weight gain
•• Insomnia/hypersomnia nearly everyday
•• Psychomotor retardation/agitation nearly everyday
•• Fatigue/loss of energy nearly everyday
•• Feeling of worthlessness nearly everyday
•• Diminished ability to think, concentrate or indecisiveness nearly everyday
•• Recurrent thoughts of death, suicidal ideation
•• Anhedonia (Greek a without hedone, pleasure): It is an inability to experience pleasure from normally pleasurable life events such
as eating, exercise, and social or sexual interaction
•• Anhedonia is recognized as one of the key symptoms of the mood disorder depression according to both the Diagnostic and
Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders Fourth Edition (DSM IV) and the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and
Related Health Problems (ICD)
•• Anhedonia is also seen in schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder
Depression
•• Depression is the MC Pshyciatric disorder in India
•• Depression involves middle aged females mostly
•• Depression is associated with:
–– Post MI
–– Postpartum
–– AIDS
–– Myxedema
Neurotransmitter involved: serotonin and norepinephrine
MC cause for suicide is depression
MC type of post purpureal pshycosis is depression
In children anhedonia (loss of enthusiasm and interest in play, socializing, school activities, loss of pleasure and boredom are
manifestations of depression.)
•• Nihilistic ideas are seen in depression
•• Dysthymic disorder consists of a pattern of chronic (at least 2 years), ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that are less severe and
less disabling than those found in major depression; the two conditions are sometimes difficult to separate, however, and can
occur together (‘double depression’)
Psychiatry 351
•• A seasonal pattern of depression, called seasonal affective disorder, may manifest with onset and remission of episodes at
predictable times of the year
•• This disorder is more common in women, whose symptoms are anergy, fatigue, weight gain, hypersomnia, and episodic
carbohydrate craving. The prevalence increases with distance from the equator, and mood improvement may occur by altering
light exposure.
Dysthymia Involutional melanocholia

•• Persistent mood symptoms for > 2 years Usually in old age
•• Mild depression Delusions of sin, guilt, poverty
Intense nihilism (obsession with death) with
Agitation and dejection
Associations of suicide:
•• Depression
•• Substance abuse
Risk Features for Suicide in Depression

•• Male sex
•• 45 years of age
•• Single, unemployed, separated or divorced or widowed, recently bereaved, chronic illness
•• Conduct disorder in child
•• Substance abuse
•• Mood disorder, personality disorder, pshycosis, hypochondriasis
•• Endogeneous type of depression
•• Psycotic depression.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old bussiness woman with documented bipolar disorder is brought to the hospital because of extreme feelings of
guilt and worthlessness. She has a huge debt of 200, 000 dollars. On further questioning, she reveals that she bought a poison
earlier in the day because it would be easier for everyone if she ‘wasn’t here anymore. ‘She plans to poison herself ‘and do what
needs to be done.’ Next step in management would be: Admitted to the hospital.
Point to Remember
Any patient with serious suicidal thoughts, suicidal intent, and a plan, must be hospitalized, against her will, if necessary. The
patient expressed a desire to die, she bought a poison and developed a believable plan. She needs to be hospitalized for her own
safety. Patients with bipolar disorder have a lifetime suicide rate of 10–15%.
Bipolar Disorder Types

Bipolar I: Having one or more manic episodes with depression
Bipolar II: Having episodes of major depression and Hypomania rather than mania
Mania alone is a bipolar disorder but not depression alone
Bipolar Disorder
It is characterized by unpredictable swings in mood from mania (or hypomania) to depression
Some patients suffer only from recurrent attacks of mania, which in its pure form is associated with:
•• Increased psychomotor activity
•• Excessive social extroversion
•• Decreased need for sleep
•• Impulsivity and impairment in judgment
•• Expansive, grandiose
•• Sometimes irritable mood
In severe mania, patients may experience delusions and paranoid thinking indistinguishable from schizophrenia. Half of patients with
bipolar disorder present with a mixture of psychomotor agitation and activation with dysphoria, anxiety, and irritability. It may be
difficult to distinguish mixed mania from agitated depression
In bipolar II disorder the full criteria for mania are lacking and the requisite recurrent depressions are separated by periods of mild
activation and increased energy (hypomania)
Chromosome 18 is involved
Cyclothymic Disorder
•• There are numerous hypomanic periods, usually of relatively short duration, alternating with clusters of depressive
symptoms that fail, either in severity or duration, to meet the criteria of major depression
•• The mood fluctuations are chronic and should be present for at least 2 years before the diagnosis is made.
Mania
Abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood lasting for at least one week
•• Inflated self-esteem, grandiosity
•• Decreased sleep
•• Flight of ideas
•• Distractibility
•• Increase in goal directed activity
•• Excessive involvement in pleasurable activities
•• More talkative
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old male from Texas old male suffers from decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending
excessive money for last 8 days. The diagnosis is:
1.Confusion
2. Mania
3. Hyperactivity
4. Loss of memory
Ans. 2. Mania
Alcohol and Psychiatry

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy is Global confusion, Ophthalmoplegia and ataxia. Involves mammilary bodies
Korsakoff’s Psychosis (alcohol-induced persisting amnestic disorder)
Psychiatry 353
Korsakoff’s syndrome presents as profound and persistent anterograde amnesia (inability to learn new material) and a milder
retrograde amnesia. and confabulation (IMPAIRMENT) About 1% of alcoholics develop cerebellar degeneration, a syndrome of
progressive unsteady stance and gait often accompanied by mild nystagmus. Atrophy of the cerebellar vermis is seen on brain
computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging scans, but the cerebrospinal fluid is usually normal
Alcoholics can show severe cognitive problems and impairment in recent and remote memory for weeks to months after an
alcoholic binge. Increased size of the brain ventricles and cerebral sulci are seen in 50% or more of chronic alcoholics, but these
changes are often reversible, returning toward normal after a year or more of abstinence
Permanent CNS impairment (alcohol-induced persisting dementia) can develop and accounts for up to 20% of chronically
demented patients
IN ALCOHOLIC PARANOIA, hallucinations are seen
Finally, almost every psychiatric syndrome can be seen temporarily during heavy drinking or subsequent withdrawal. These include
intense sadness lasting for days to weeks in the midst of heavy drinking in 40% of alcoholics, which is classified as an alcohol-induced
mood disorder in the Fourth Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of the American Psychiatric Association (DSM-IV); severe anxiety in 10
to 30% of alcoholics, often beginning during alcohol withdrawal and which can persist for many months after cessation of drinking
(alcohol-induced anxiety disorder); and auditory hallucinations and/or paranoid delusions in the absence of any obvious signs of
withdrawal, a state now called alcohol-induced psychotic disorder and reported at sometime in 1 to 10% of alcoholics
CAGE questionare is used in alcoholism.
Marchiafava-Bignami Disease: A rare demyelination of the corpus callosum that occurs in chronic alcoholics, predominantly males.
Patients become agitated and confused and show progressive dementia with frontal release signs.
Alcoholic Withdrawal
•• Hangover
•• Visual or tactile hallucinations
•• Alcoholic hallucinosis: Hallucinations usually auditory
•• Alcoholic seizures (Rum Fits):
–– Multiple seizures occurring during absistence usually 12–48 hours after heavy drink
•• Delerium tremens:
–– Occurs within 5 days of abstinence
–– Clouding of consciousness
–– Disorientation, anxiety, perceptual defect
–– Hallucinations
–– Autonomic disturbance
–– Agitation, insomnia
–– Mc symptom of withdrawal
–– Chlordiazepoxide is used for treatment.
Chronic use Causes

•• Wernickes encephalopathy: Global confusion+ ophthalmoplegia+ Ataxia
•• Korsakoff’s Psychosis: Confabulations+ Amnesia
•• Marchiafava Bignami syndrome: Ataxia+Dysarthia+Epilepsy+Hallucinations+Disorientation
•• Alcoholic black out: Amnesia of events during drinking.
Differentiate Between
Alcohol withdrawal Opioid withdrawal Cocaine withdrawal
•• Hangover •• Yawning •• Hypersomnia/insomnia
•• Hallucinations/illusions •• Insomnia, dusphoric mood •• Vivid unpleasant dreams
Alcohol withdrawal Opioid withdrawal Cocaine withdrawal

•• Hyperactivity •• ↑BP, RR, Temp •• ↑appetite
•• Insomnia •• Pupillary dilation
•• Seizures
•• Symptoms appear commonly on 2nd day
Substance Feature
•• Alcohol •• Morbid Jealousy
•• Cocaine •• Magnus symptom
•• Cannabis (absent withdrawal symptoms) •• Amotivational syndrome, Run Amok
•• LSD (absent withdrawal symptoms) •• Flashbacks/Bad Trips (Loss of self-control)
•• Amphetamine •• Paranoid features
Specific Drug Abuses

•• LSD abuse:
•• Features:
–– Profuse perspiration
–– Blurred vision
–– Tachycardia
–– Dilated pupils
–– Bad trips
–– Flashbacks
•• Phencyclidine (Angel dust):
•• Features
–– Hypertension
–– Hyperthermia
–– Nystagmus
–– Euphoria
–– Amnesia
•• Marijuana:
•• Features
–– Alteration in memory
–– Sensory perception
–– Time perception
–– Psychotic symptoms
•• Tolerance does not develop with Cocaine

–– Magnus phenomenon or
–– Cocaine bugs or
–– Tactile hallucinations are a feature of cocaine intoxication
•• Treatment is not required in withdrawal of LSD

•• Flashbacks or bad trips are seen in LSD
•• Most common substance of abuse in India is cannabis

•• Physical dependence is not seen with cannabis.
Psychiatry 355
Drugs used
•• Methadone •• Used in opioid dependent for short-term and long-term detoxification.
•• Naloxone •• Used in opioid overdose treatment (DOC)
•• Naltrexone •• Used in opioid dependent for rapid detoxification and maintenance therapy to prevent
•• Toipromate relapse
•• Used to decrease craving and prevent relapse in heavy alcohol drinking
•• Alcohol dependence
•• Nalmifene (iv) •• Used in opioid dependent for rapid detoxification and maintenance therapy
•• Chlordiazepoxide and Diazepam •• Used in alcohol withdrawal
•• Methadone and clonidine •• Used in opium withdrawal
Sleep
REM sleep
NREM sleep
Neurotransmitters in Sleep
•• ↑Serotonin
•• ↑acetylcholine
•• ↑Dopamine
Beta waves: seen in active mental concentration.

Alpha waves: seen when person relaxes with eyes closed.
Stage 1: Theta waves Lightest phase
Stage 2: Sleep spindles and K complexes Largest percentage of sleep
Stage 3 and 4: Delta (slow wave sleep) Deepest phase
REM sleep:
•• Saw tooth
•• ↑BP
•• ↑RR
•• ↑PR
•• Absence of sk. Muscle movement
•• Alpha rhythm
Events in REM Sleep

Nightmares
Nocturnal penile trumescene
Events in NREM
•• Night terrors
•• Nocturnal enuresis
•• Bruxism
•• Sleepwalking (somnambulism)
•• Sleep talking (somniloquy)
Narcolepsy
Narcolepsy is both a disorder of the ability to sustain wakefulness voluntarily and a disorder of REM sleep regulation
The classic ‘narcolepsy tetrad’ consists of excessive daytime somnolence plus three specific symptoms related to an intrusion of
REM sleep characteristics (e.g. muscle atonia, vivid dream imagery) into the transition between wakefulness and sleep:
•• Sudden weakness or loss of muscle tone without loss of consciousness, often elicited by emotion (cataplexy)
•• Hallucinations at sleep onset (hypnogogic hallucinations) or upon awakening (hypnopompic hallucinations) and
•• Muscular paralysis upon awakening (sleep paralysis).
SLEEP APNEA SYNDROMES

Respiratory dysfunction during sleep is a common, serious cause of excessive daytime somnolence as well as of disturbed
nocturnal sleep
These episodes may be due to either an occlusion of the airway (obstructive sleep apnea), absence of respiratory effort (central
sleep apnea), or a combination of these factors (mixed sleep apnea)
SLEEPWALKING (SOMNAMBULISM)
Patients affected by this disorder carry-out automatic motor activities that range from simple to complex. Individuals may leave
the bed, walk, urinate inappropriately, eat, or exit from the house while remaining only partially aware. Full arousal may be
difficult, and some patients may respond to attempted awakening with agitation or even violence. Sleepwalking arises from stage 3
or 4 NREM sleep
SLEEP TERRORS
This disorder, also called pavornocturnus, occurs primarily in young children during the first several hours after sleep onset, in stages
3 and 4 of NREM sleep
The child suddenly screams, exhibiting autonomic arousal with sweating, tachycardia, and hyperventilation
The individual may be difficult to arouse and rarely recalls the episode on awakening in the morning
In contrast, nightmares (dream anxiety attacks) occur during REM sleep and cause full arousal, with intact memory for the
unpleasant episode
DOC is Diazepam
SLEEP BRUXISM
Bruxism is an involuntary, forceful grinding of teeth during sleep that affects 10 to 20% of the population. The patient is usually
unaware of the problem
SLEEP ENURESIS
Bedwetting, like sleepwalking and night terrors, is another parasomnia that occurs during slow-wave sleep in the young
Before age 5 or 6, nocturnal enuresis should probably be considered a normal feature of development.
Psychiatry 357
Miscellaneous Parasomnias
Other clinical entities fulfill the definition of a parasomnia in that they occur selectively during sleep and are associated with some
degree of sleep disruption. Examples include:
•• Jactatio capitis nocturna (nocturnal headbanging)
•• Sleep talking
•• Nocturnal paroxysmal dystonia
•• Nocturnal leg cramps
Rapid Time Zone Change (JET LAG) Syndrome
•• People experience transmeridian air travel annually, which is often associated with excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep
onset insomnia, and frequent arousals from sleep, particularly in the latter half of the night
•• Gastrointestinal discomfort is common
•• The syndrome is transient, typically lasting 2 to 14 depending on the number of time zones crossed, the direction of travel and the
traveler’s age and phase-shifting capacity.
Shift Work Sleep Disorder
People work at night, either on a permanent or rotating schedule. Leading to both sleep loss and misalignment of their
circadian rhythms with respect to their sleep wake cycle.
•• Chronic shift workers have higher rates of cardiac, gastrointestinal and reproductive disorders
•• Studies of regular night-shift workers indicate that the circadian timing system usually fails to adapt successfully to such inverted
schedules. This leads to a misalignment between the desired work-rest schedule and the output of the pacemaker and in disturbed
daytime sleep
•• Consequent sleep deprivation, increased length of time awake prior to work, and misalignment of circadian phase produce
decreased alertness and performance, increased reaction time, and increased risk of performance lapses, thereby resulting in
greater safety hazards among night workers and other sleep-deprived individuals.
Dissociative Disorders
•• Dissociative amnesia
•• Dissociative fugue
•• Dissociative identity disorder
•• Depersonalization disorder
Dissociative Amnesia
A navy officer cannot recall an unfortunate event of fire on his ship in which 45 sailors lost life
•• MC type
•• Sudden inability to recall important personal information
•• Patchy impairment of personal memory
•• Patient is aware of amnesia.
Dissociative Fugue
A doctor in California for 5 years has no memory of coming and living in California
•• Feature is wandering away from home
•• Purposeful new identity with complete amnesia for earlier life
•• Not aware of amnesia
Dissociative Identity Disorder
A female is shown her previous photograph and she has no recollection of same as to who’s photograph it is
•• Person is dominated by two or more personalities
•• One personality is not aware of existence of other
Depersonalization
A female says that she is outside of herself watching her life in a movie. She knows that she is really living her life
•• An alteration in perception or experience of self to the extent that persons sense of his/her own reality is lost
•• It is detachment from self, social situation or environment. (Derealization)
Ganser’s Syndrome
•• Hysterical Pseudodementia
•• Feature is ‘approximate answers’
•• Answer is wrong but person understands the nature of question asked
•• Hallucinations and apparent clouding of consciousness is a feature.
Newer Concepts
•• Holiday heart syndrome Atrial or ventricular arrhythmia after taking a binge of alcohol with no other evidence of heart
disease.
•• van Gogh syndrome Self mutilation in schizophrenia.
•• Othello syndrome A psychosis in which jealousy involving spouse is noticed.
•• Clerambault’s syndrome Erotomania in which usually a female has got a conviction that a person of higher status is in
love with her.
•• Capgras syndrome Patient sees a familiar person as a stranger. Delusion of doubles.
•• Cotard’s syndrome Delusion that one has lost everything (possessions, strength and even organ such as heart).
Thinks that his bowels are rotting and he will never pass tools again.
•• Gilles de la tourette syndrome Multiple motor ticks.
•• Kleine Levin syndrome Hypersomnia, Hyperphagia and Hyper sexuality
Amygdala involved
•• Pickwickian syndrome Sleep apnea seen in obese persons associated with Hypersomnia.
•• Gelineau’s syndrome Narcolepsy with Hypersomnia
•• Stockholm syndrome Feelings of captives towards capitor
Lithium
•• Lithium acts by interfering with cell membrane ion transport and excitability, adenylatecyclase activation, neurotransmitter
(norepinephrine) release and Na+, K+-ATPase activity
•• Lithium is not bound to plasma proteins
•• Therapeutic serum levels are 0.6 to 1.2 mmol/l
•• Liver is not affected in lithium toxicity.
Clinical Toxicity
Effects begin 1 to 4 hour after acute ingestion
Gastrointestinal effects include nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
Polyuria is the commonest symptom
Neuromuscular effects include weakness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, fasciculations, myoclonus, choreoathetosis, coma and seizures
Cardiovascular effects include arrhythmias and hypotension
Hyperthermia can occur
Leukocytosis, hyperglycemia, albuminuria, glycosuria, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and a falsely elevated serum chloride
level (due to interference by lithium with its assays) resulting in a low anion-gap may be present
ECG changes include sinus tachycardia or bradycardia, flattened or inverted T waves, AV block, and a prolonged QT interval
Hypothyroidism is seen
Prolonged or permanent encephalopathy and movement disorders can occur in patients with severe poisoning
Diagnosis: A serum level must be requested specifically
Contraindicated in pregnancy
Causes CVS defects
Psychiatry 359
•• Drugs used in MDP: Lithium, Valproate, Carbamezapine, Levothyroxine

•• DOC in Rapid Cycling MDP: Lithium + Levothyroxine
•• DOC for acute mania: Lithium
•• DOC for Prophylaxis of mania: Lithium
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient is brought to the casualty in the state of altered sensorium. He was on lithium for affective disorder and has suffered
through an attack of epileptic fits. On examination he has tremors increased DTR’s and incontinence of urine. He has also
undergone an episode of severe gastroenteritis 2 days ago. The serum lithium was found to be 1.95 m moles/l. The cause of
her conditon is:
Lithium Toxicity
Drugs Causing Depression

•• Oral Contraceptives
•• Methyldopa
•• Reserpine
•• Bromocriptine
List of TCA’S
•• Amitriptyline
•• Amoxapine
•• Cloimipramine
•• Desipramine
•• Doxepin
Tetracyclic Antidepressants (Second Generation)

•• Lofepramine
•• Maprotiline
•• Mianserin
SSRI’S are
•• Fluoxetine
•• Fluvoxamine
•• Paroxetine
•• Sertaline
•• Citalopram
Safest Antidepressants in Cardiac Disease are the SSRI

•• Less anticholinergic
•• Less sedation and
•• Less cardiovascular side effects
•• Sertaline is a SSRI and the antidepressant of choice in cardiac disease
Remember in any case (Serotonin Involving Drugs)

•• Buspirone: 5HT1A agonist
•• Sumitriptan: 5HT1D agonist
•• Olanzapine: 5HT2A antagonist
•• Ondansetron: 5HT3 antagonist
•• Cyproheptadine: 5HT2A antagonist
Azapirones
•• Buspirone
•• Gepirone
•• Ipsapirone
Buspirone: 5 HT1A receptor agonist
•• Nonsedating
•• No tolerance
•• No physical dependence
ECT
Used in:
•• Major severe depression
•• Delusional depression
•• Severe psychosis
•• Severe catatonia
•• Absolute contraindication is: Raised ICT
•• Mc side effect in Direct ECT is T4-T8 spine #
•• Mc side effect of Modified ECT is retrograde amnesia
•• Antegrade amnesia also occurs but with ↓ frequency
•• ECT ↓IOT (intraoccular pressure)
Disulfiram Inhibits
•• Aldehyde dehydrogenase
•• Alcohol dehydrogenase
•• Dopamine β hydroxylase
•• Cytochrome P450 enzymes
Drugs in Psychiatry Acting on

•• Bupropion inhibits dopamine and has modest effect on Norepinephrine
•• Buspirone affects serotonin pathway not Bupropion
•• Mirtazapine stimulates Serotonin and NE release
•• Duloxetine is a serotonin –NE reuptake inhibitor SNRI
•• Trazodone acts as a serotonin receptor antagonist and alpha 1 blocker
•• Amitriptyline inhibits serotonin and NE reuptake equally.
Psychiatry 361
Antipsychotics
Antipsychotics act as dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways.
Conventional antipsychotics are associated with problematic extrapyramidal side-effects which has led to the development of
atypical antipsychotics such as clozapine.
•• Extrapyramidal side-effects
•• Parkinsonism
•• Acute dystonia (e.g. torticollis, oculogyric crisis)
•• Akathisia (severe restlessness)
•• Tardive dyskinesia (late onset of choreoathetoid movements, abnormal, involuntary, may occur in 40% of patients, may be
irreversible, most common is chewing and pouting of jaw.
Other Side-effects
•• Antimuscarinic: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation
•• Sedation, weight gain
•• Raised prolactin: galactorrhea
•• Neuroleptic malignant syndrome: pyrexia, muscle stiffness
•• Reduced seizure threshold (greater with atypicals)
•• Antipsychotics are not addictive
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

•• Cognitive behavioral therapy (or cognitive behavior therapy, CBT) is a psychotherapeutic approach that aims to influence
dysfunctional emotions, behaviors and cognitions through a goal-oriented, systematic procedure
•• CBT can be seen as an umbrella term for a number of psychological techniques that share a theoretical basis in behavioristic
learning theory and cognitive psychology
•• Cognitive Behavioral therapy is based on learning theory/operant conditioning
•• Here patients symptoms are relieved by altering behavior and thinking pattern
•• Strategy: Weekly, for as long as 25 weeks, the patient is helped to identify distorted and negative thoughts about self and replace
them with positive and self assuring thoughts
•• Flooding is a type of Behavioral therapy
•• Proven concepts are:
–– Contemplation
–– Precontemplation
–– Consolidation
CBT is used for

•• Mild to moderate depression
•• Somatoform disorders
•• Eating disorders
•• Phobia
•• Systemic desensitization is done for phobia
USMLE Case Scenario

The drug which is used for long-term maintenance in opioid addiction:
1. Naloxone
2. Nalorphine
3. Butorphanol
4. Methadone
5. Propranolol
Ans. 4. Methadone
USMLE Case Scenario

Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction:
1. To treat withdrawal symptoms
2. To treat overdose of opioids
3. Prevent relapse
4. Has addiction potential
Ans. 3. Prevent relapse
USMLE Case Scenario

The following is a typical antipsychotic:
1. Thioridazine
2. Clozapine
3. Olanzapine
4. Resperidone
Ans. 1. Thioridazine
USMLE Case Scenario

A 19-year-old boy suffering from chronic schizophrenia is put on Haloperidol in the dose of 20 mg/day. A week after the
initiation of medication, the patient shows restlessness, fidgety, irritability and cannot sit at one place. The most appropriate
treatment strategy is:
1. Increase in the dose of Haloperidol
2. Addition of anticholinergic drug
3. Addition of beta blocker
4. Adding another antipsychotic drug
Ans. 3. Addition of beta blocker
USMLE Case Scenario

A 42-year-old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1-month duration characterized by
depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is
prescribing a combination of:
1. Antipsychotics and antidepressants
2. Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
3. Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers
4. Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
Ans. 2. Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
Cataplexy
•• Cataplexy is ‘sudden and transient episode of loss of muscle tone, often triggered by emotions’
•• It is a rare disease, but frequently affects people who have narcolepsy, a disorder whose principal signs are EDS (Excessive Daytime
Sleepiness), sleep attacks, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations and disturbed night-time sleep
•• The term cataplexy originates from the Greek ‘kata’, meaning down, and plexis, meaning a stroke or seizure
•• Cataplexy manifests itself as muscular weakness which may range from a barely perceptible slackening of the facial muscles to
the dropping of the jaw or head, weakness at the knees, or a total collapse
•• Usually the speech is slurred, vision is impaired (double vision, inability to focus), but hearing and awareness remain normal. These
attacks are triggered by strong emotions such as exhilaration, anger, fear, surprise, orgasm, awe, embarrassment and laughter.
Psychiatry 363
Cataplexy may be partial or complete, affecting a range of muscle groups, from those controlling facial features to (less commonly)
those controlling the entire body
Arm weakness
•• Sagging jaw
•• Drooping head
•• Slumping of the shoulders
•• Slurred speech
•• Generalized weakness
•• Knee buckling
Adjustment Disorder
•• It is the commonest group of psychiatric disorders as most patients do not fulfill the criterion for depression
•• Precipitants of Adjustment disorder are: Terminal illness, new marriage, separation, divorce, death of companion, natural disaster
•• Symptoms vary from anxiousness, depressive or mixed
•• It starts within 3 months. Depression is common in
–– AIDS
–– Postsurgery
–– Post MI
–– Postpartum
–– Myxedema
Cancer patients have highest fear for relapse of disease (Damocles syndrome)
Restless Legs Syndrome

‘Crawling or creeping dysthesia within calves, feet or upper extremities with irresistible urge to move limbs is Restless legs
syndrome.’(RLS)
RLS is aggravated by:
•• Sleep deprivation
•• Caffeine
•• Pregnancy
•• Iron deficiency
RLS responds to Levodopa, dopamine agonists (Bromocriptine, pergolide). Narcotics, benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants
are also useful
Neurolept malignant syndrome
Caused by Phenothiazines, Haloperidol, Prochloroperazine, Metoclopramide
Features: Lead pipe rigidity, Extrapyramidal effects, Hyperthermia
Treatment: Removal of offender, Levadopa, amantidine, Benzodiazepines
Serotonin syndrome
Causes: SSRI, MAO inhibitors, Serotogenic medications
Malignant Hyperthermia
Causes: Halothane, Succinylcholine
Features: ↑ Temperature,↑ Muscle metabolism,↑ Sr Pottasium
‘Obsessive-Compulsive’ Disorder
It is characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors that impair everyday functioning. Serotonin is implicated
Obsessive-compulsive disorder describes patients with recurrent thoughts or impulses
(Obsessions) and/or recurrent behaviors or actions (compulsions) that cause marked dysfunction in their occupational and/
or interpersonal lives. It is not the same as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Look for washing rituals (washing of
hands repeatedly in a day) and/or checking rituals (checking to see if the window is locked repeatedly per day).
•• Preoccupied with details, rules, list, order organization or schedules

•• Shows perfectionism
–– Repetitive thoughts or images
–– Rigidity
–– Stubbornness
•• Fears of contamination and germs are common, as are handwashing, counting behaviors and having to check and recheck
such actions as whether a door is locked
•• Patients often conceal their symptoms, usually because they are embarrassed by the content of their thoughts or the nature of
their actions
•• Obsession is ego alien (conscious about disorder)
•• OCD usually has a gradual onset, beginning in early adulthood
•• OCD has a prevalence of 2–3% worldwide
•• OCD is characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors that impair everyday function
•• ALL cases of OCD take-up greater than I hour
•• Group a streptococcal infections are associated with OCD
•• Childhood onset is not rare and the disorder has a waxing and wanning course
•• The Anatomy of OCD is thought to involve frontal subcortical neural circuit involving orbital frontal cortex, caudate nucleus
and globuspallidus
•• Defense mechanism used is: undoing, rationalization, displacement Clomimipramine,
•• Fluoxetine and (DOC)
•• Fluvoxamine are used for treatment of OCD
•• Behavioral therapy is effective in the treatment as well
•• Exposure and response prevention.
Remember the Terms

•• Confabulation is defined as the unconscious filling of gaps in memory by imagined or untrue experiences that the patient believes
are true, even though they are not based on facts. It is associated with organic pathology.
•• Magical thinking is a form of thinking in which thoughts, words, or actions assume power, such as causing or preventing events.
It is typical for the preoperational phase of thinking in children.
•• Ideas of influence constitute a type of delusion in which a person believes that he or she is being controlled by another person
or external force.
•• Ideas of reference are delusions in which a person has a false belief that others (including people on TV or radio) are talking about
him or her. In a broader sense the behavior of others refers to one self, other persons, or objects that have special significance and
meaning.
•• Clang associations are disorders of thought in which the associations of words are similar in sound but not in meaning. Words
have no logical connection, but there may be rhyming.
•• Noesis refers to the feeling of revelation in which a person experiences illumination associated with a sense of being chosen as a
leader.
•• Obsessions are pathologically persistent intrusive thoughts or impulses that cannot be eliminated from consciousness by logical
effort and thus cause anxiety. The person is aware that they are not imposed from the outside but are a product of his or her own
mind.
•• Concrete thinking is described as literal thinking that shows a lack of understanding of the nuances of meaning. These individuals
lack the ability to use metaphors.
•• Abstract thinking refers to the ability to appreciate nuances of meaning and the ability to use metaphors and hypotheses
appropriately.
•• Blocking is a disturbance in thought form, characterized by an abrupt interruption in the train of thought before the thought is
finished. After a pause, the person is unable to recall what was being said.
Psychiatry 365
USMLE Case Scenario

A 78-year-old woman who was a housewife previously is complaining to her doctor about her problems. She reports that her
neighbor from 33 years ago called her and is now harassing her by controlling her blood pressure, movements, and thoughts
by a remote control device. They have stolen that device from FBI an Intellegence agency. This patient most likely has
Ideas of influence constitute a type of delusion in which a person believes that he or she is being controlled by another person or
external force.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 88-year-old patient is seen in the psychiatry ward of New Yorks Main City Hospital by a medical student. To assess the
patient’s cognitive functions, the student asks the patient what the proverb ‘Honesty is the best policy’ means. The patient
answers that honest people are always rich. The type of thinking is this patient is exhibiting is:
Concrete thinking
It is described as literal thinking that shows a lack of understanding of the nuances of meaning. These individuals lack the
ability to use metaphors.
USMLE Case Scenario

An Intern is interviewing a 78-year-old man. He has been talking to him for last 45 minutes and got very little information.
Everytime the intern asks a question, the patient starts talking and goes into unnecessary details, eventually answering the
question but only after he had told his story to the medical student. This patient’s speech is an example of: Circumstantiality
Refers to speech that is delayed from reaching the point, characterized by overinclusion of details. Eventually, it does get to
the original goal.
Sexual Disorders and Psychiatry

Telephone Scatologia
Gaining sexual pleasure from making telephone calls to unsuspecting women and engaging them in sexual conversations
Sexual aversion disorder
Aversion to and Avoidance of sexual activity
Hypoactive sexual disorder
Decrease interest in sexual activity.
Sexual Perversions Include

•• Sadism Infliction of pain to partner is mode of pleasure
•• Machoism Infliction of pain to self is mode of pleasure
Associated with sexual asphyxia (autoerotic hanging)
•• Fetichism Sexual gratification by contact with clothes/parts of opposite sex
•• Exhibitionism Exhibition of genitalia
•• Transvestism Desire to be identified with opposite sex
•• Voyeurism Desire to watch sexual intercourse
•• Frotteurism Sexual gratification by rubbing genitals with others
•• Tribadism Women-women sex
•• Lesbianism
•• Female homosexuality
•• Sodomy Anal sex

•• Gerantophilia Anal sex with adult
•• Paedestry Anal sex with a child. If a boy (catamite)
•• Incest Sexual Intercourse with close relative
•• Bestality Sex with lower animal
Excessive sexual desire in male: Satyriasis

Excessive sexual desire in female: Nymphomania
Trans sexualism is change to opposite sex by surgery
Gilles De la Tourette’s Syndrome

•• Gilles de la Tourette’s syndrome consists of chronic multiple motor and phonic tics that have no known cause
•• There is an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance with variable penetrance that is gender related
•• Boys are affected much more commonly than girls
•• The first signs consist of single or multiple motor tics in 80% of cases and of phonic tics in 20%
•• Motor tics commonly affect the face and may consist of repetitive sniffing, winking, blinking, elevation of the eyelids, eye
closure, pursing of the lips, or facial twitching
–– Patients eventually develop several different motor and phonic tics, the latter frequently taking the form of grunts, barks,
hisses, sighs, throat-clearing, coughing, and verbal utterances that may involve
–– Coprolalia (involuntary and inappropriate swearing or obscene speech)
–– Echolalia (involuntary repetition of the phrases of others)
–– Palilalia (repetition of words or phrases)
–– The tics may change in location, severity, complexity and character with time; are worsened by emotional stress; and can
be suppressed voluntarily for short periods
–– In some cases, tics are complex (such as jumping up in the air) or involve repetitive self-mutilating activities (such as
nail-biting, hair-pulling, or lip-biting)
•• Tics that involve repetitive sensory phenomena, such as pressure, tickle, or thermal sensations, also occur
•• Many patients have associated behavioral abnormalities, especially obsessive-compulsive disorder and attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder
•• Clonidine alleviates motor and phonic tics in some children, possibly by reducing activity in noradrenergic neurons of the locus
coeruleus
•• Haloperidol has been used as DOC.
Erectile Dysfunction (ED)

Penile tumescence leading to erection depends on the increased flow of blood into the lacunar network after complete relaxation of
the arteries and corporal smooth muscle. Subsequent compression of the trabecular smooth muscle against the fibroelastic tunica
albuginea causes a passive closure of the emissary veins and accumulation of blood in the corpora. In the presence of a full erection
and a competent valve mechanism, the corpora become noncompressible cylinders from which blood does not escape
Nitric oxide, which induces vascular relaxation, promotes erection and is opposed by endothelin-1 (ET-1), which mediates vascular
contraction
Diabetic, atherosclerotic and drug-related causes account for > 80% of cases of ED in older men
Vasculogenic: The most frequent organic cause of ED is a disturbance of blood flow to and from the penis
Diabetic ED occurs in 35 to 75% of men with diabetes mellitus. Pathologic mechanisms are primarily related to diabetes-associated
vascular and neurologic complications
Psychogenic the most common causes of psychogenic ED
Performance anxiety, depression, relationship conflict, loss of attraction, sexual inhibition, conflicts over sexual preference, sexual
abuse in childhood and fear of pregnancy or sexually transmitted disease. Almost all patients with ED, even when it has a clear-cut
organic basis, develop a psychogenic component as a reaction to ED.
Psychiatry 367
Medication-Related
•• Thiazide diuretics and beta blockers
•• Calcium channel blockers and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are less frequently cited. Estrogens
•• GnRH agonists
•• H2 antagonists
•• Spironolactone
•• Antidepressant and antipsychotic agents particularly neuroleptics, tricyclics and SSRIs Digoxin
•• Sildenafil is the only approved and effective oral agent for the treatment of ED
•• Vacuum Constriction Devices are a reasonable treatment alternative for select patients who cannot take sildenafil or do not
desire other interventions
•• Intraurethral Alprostadil If a patient fails to respond to oral agents, a reasonable next choice is intraurethral or self-injection or
vasoactive substances. Intraurethral prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil)
•• Intracavernosal Self-Injection
•• Surgery A less frequently used form of therapy for ED involves the surgical implantation of a semi-rigid or inflatable penile
prosthesis
Important Points
Counsel patients about injury risk and prevention
•• All physicians, regardless of specialty, have the opportunity to intervene with the ‘host.’ It is standard practice during history taking
for physicians to inquire about tobacco and alcohol use, sexual practices, and exercise habits of adult patients, and to counsel
parents about specific risks at different stages of child development. There are known risks for injury and protective strategies that
patients can use to lower the risk of injury for themselves and their families
•• Identify and refer abused patients. Family violence is a serious and underdiagnosed problem in American society. Abused
patients include children, battered spouses and/or partners, elders, and those raped and sexually abused by those with whom
they have a personal or intimate relationship. Hospitals, clinics, and doctors’ offices may provide the first opportunity for abused
patients, particularly adult women, to acknowledge the abuse, receive support, find protection, and break the cycle of violence
•• Emphasize rehabilitation and community follow-up. Tertiary prevention involves minimizing functional disability, a
consequence of serious injury. Physicians can help their patients return to productive lives by ensuring that patients receive
appropriate physical and occupational therapy and that they have access to community services after discharge.
DERMATOLOGY
Dermatology 4
Primary Skin Lesions
•• Macule:
A flat, colored lesion, < 2 cm in diameter, not raised above the surface of the surrounding skin. A ‘freckle,’ or ephelid, is a prototype
pigmented macule.
•• Patch:
A large (> 2 cm), flat lesion with a color different from the surrounding skin. This differs from a macule only in size.
•• Papule:
A small, solid lesion, < 1 cm in diameter, raised above the surface of the surrounding skin and hence palpable (e.g. a closed comedone,
or whitehead, in acne).
•• Nodule:
A larger (1–5 cm), firm lesion raised above the surface of the surrounding skin.
•• Tumor: A solid, raised growth > 5 cm in diameter.
•• Plaque:
A large (> 1 cm), flat-topped, raised lesion; edges may either be distinct (e.g. in psoriasis) or gradually blend with surrounding skin (e.g.
in eczematous dermatitis)
•• Vesicle:
A small, fluid-filled lesion, <1 cm in diameter, raised above the plane of surrounding skin. Fluid is often visible, and the lesions are often
translucent.
•• Pustule:
A vesicle filled with leukocytes. Note: The presence of pustules does not necessarily signify the existence of an infection.
•• Bulla:
A fluid-filled, raised, often translucent lesion > 1 cm in diameter.
•• Cyst:
A soft, raised, encapsulated lesion filled with semisolid or liquid contents.
•• Wheal:
A raised, erythematous papule or plaque, usually representing short-lived dermal edema.
•• Telangiectasia:
Dilated, superficial blood vessels.
Basics of Dermatology
Important Questions asked as definition
•• Acanthosis: Increase in thickness of prickle cell layer.
•• Acantholysis: Loss of coherence between epidermal cells. Seen in Pemphigus
•• Corps Grains: Acantholytic, Dyskeratotic, Basophilic cells with rounded nuclei and perinuclear halo. Seen in Dariers disease
•• Dyskeratosis: Abnormal development of epidermal cells. (Feature of Premalignant lesions)
•• Hyperkeratosis: Increased thickness of Stratum Corneum
•• Para keratoses: Presence of immature nucleated cells in Stratum Corneum
Dermatological Conditions Effecting newborn/Infants (NEWER CONCEPTS)

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum
•• This is a transient condition of unknown etiology occurring in up to 70% of neonates
•• The onset is from birth to 14 days but most cases start between day 1 and day 4
•• The commonest lesions are erythematous macules and papules but in some cases pustules appear
•• Lesions occur anywhere on the body surface except palms and soles but with a predilection for face and trunk. In cases present
at birth, lesions are more acrally distributed and are often pustular
•• A peripheral blood eosinophilia is present and smears from pustules demonstrate sheets of eosinophils. The condition usually
resolves in 2 to 3 days but, rarely, may persist for several weeks
•• Recognition of this entity is important to avoid unnecessary investigations of serious neonatal infections
Transient Neonatal Pustular Dermatosis
•• This is a benign condition in which superficial pustules are present at birth
•• The pustules rupture within 24 hour, developing a brown crust that separates after a few days to leave normal skin or a
hyperpigmented macule in dark-skinned individuals
•• Lesions occur mainly on chin, upper anterior trunk, lower back and buttocks. They are asymptomatic and the infant is otherwise
well. Lesions are sterile on culture enabling differentiation from important neonatal infections. If hyperpigmented macules occur,
they resolve over 3 to 4 months
Acropustulosis of Infancy
•• This is a benign condition of unknown etiology occurring in otherwise healthy infants
•• The onset is usually in the neonatal period but may be delayed for some months
•• Recurrent crops of papules which quickly evolve into 2 to 4 mm vesicopustules occur, most commonly on the palms and soles
and dorsa of hands and feet
•• Initially each crop takes 1 to 2 weeks to settle and new crops occur every 2 to 3 weeks. As time goes on the crops occur less
frequently and the episodes are less severe and of shorter duration
•• Lesions are pruritic but are accompanied by no systemic symptoms. The condition finally resolves by 2 to 3 years.
MILIA
•• These represent retention cysts of the pilosebaceous follicles
•• They occur in approximately 50% of neonates as firm pearly white 1 to 2 mm papules particularly on the face
•• They usually disappear by 4 weeks of age
•• Epstein’s pearls are epidermal cysts on the palate present in the majority of newborns
•• Persistent milia maybe a marker for certain syndromes including
–– Bazex’s syndrome
–– Orofaciodigital syndrome type I and
–– Marie–Unna hypotrichosis
SCABIES IS A FREQUENTLY ASKED TOPIC

Remember
•• Causative agent: Sarcoptes scabiei
•• Type of disease: Water washed
•• IP: 4 Weeks
•• MC complaint: Itching, Itching is worst at night with other members of similar complaint.
•• Lesion: Papule, vesicle or burrow
•• Pathogonomic lesion: Burrow
•• Burrow lies in stratum Corneum
•• MC Site: Interdigital space
Dermatology 373
•• MC Site in infants: Scalp, face

•• Most severe form: Norwegian scabies
•• DOC: Permethrin followed by GBHC (gamma benzene hexa chloride)
•• DOC in Pregnancy: Permethrin cream
•• Drug used ‘orally’: Ivermectin
Scabies
An infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, and the treatment of choice is permethrin cream application overnight, repeated
once in 7 days.
All family members and caretakers of the child should be treated. Bedlinens and clothes should be laundered in hot water, or dry cleaned
if laundering is not feasible.
Ivermectin in a single oral dose is used to treat scabies in immunocompromised individuals who have overwhelming infestation that
would not respond to standard topical therapy. It is not recommended for use in ordinary scabies.
Lindane cream should not be used in small infants because of its potential for neurotoxicity. It is relatively safe for use in adults, but
permethrin cream has an established safety record that makes it the treatment of choice today.
It is very important to treat all family members and caretakers simultaneously for the same reason.
Precipitated sulfur in petroleum was often used to treat scabies in infants and pregnant women but has become rather obsolete, as
permethrin cream has proven.
Pediculosis
•• Caused by lice
•• Lays down eggs called nits
•• Pediculosis capitis head
•• Pediculosis corporis body (Vagabonds disease)
•• Pediculosis pubis pubic region
•• Maculae cerulea are a feature
•• Permethrin is drug of choice.
Scarlet fever
•• Caused by Group A β Hemolytic streptococci
•• Common in children
•• Balanchable erythema
•• Circumoral pallor with malar flush
–– Sand paper skin
–– Pastias lines
–– Red strawberry tongue.
Psoriasis
Most important topic in Dermatology * (DETAILED)
•• ‘Chronic inflammatory skin disorder’ clinically characterized by erythematous, sharply demarcated papules and rounded
plaques, covered by ‘silvery micaceous scale’
•• The skin lesions of psoriasis are variably pruritic
•• Traumatized areas often develop lesions of psoriasis (Koebner or isomorphic phenomenon)
•• Additionally, factors that may exacerbate psoriasis including infections, stress, and medications (lithium, beta blockers, and
antimalarials).
•• The most common variety of psoriasis is called ‘plaque type.’ Patients with plaque-type psoriasis will have stable, slowly
growing plaques, which remain basically unchanged for long periods of time
•• The most common areas for plaque psoriasis to occur are the ‘extensors’ elbows, knees, gluteal cleft, and the scalp. Involvement
tends to be symmetric
•• ‘Inverse psoriasis’ affects the intertriginous regions including the axilla, groin, submammary region, and navel, it also tends to
affect the scalp, palms, and soles
•• Eruptive psoriasis (Guttate psoriasis) is most common in children and young adults. It develops acutely in individuals without
psoriasis or in those with chronic plaque psoriasis. Patients present with many small erythematous, scaling papules, frequently
after upper respiratory tract infection with α-hemolytic streptococci
•• About half of all patients with psoriasis have fingernail involvement, appearing as punctuate pitting, nail thickening, or
subungual hyperkeratosis
•• About 5 to 10 % of patients with psoriasis have associated joint complaints and these are most often found in patients with
fingernail involvement
•• Although some have the coincident occurrence of classic rheumatoid arthritis many have joint disease that falls into one of three
types associated with psoriasis: (1) asymmetric inflammatory arthritis most commonly involving the distal and proximal
interphalangeal joints and less commonly the knees, hips, ankles and wrists; (2) a seronegative rheumatoid arthritis-like
disease; a significant portion of these patients go onto develop a severe destructive arthritis; or (3) disease limited to the
spine (psoriatic spondylitis)
•• Psoriasis has been linked to HLA-Cw6 and, to a lesser extent, to HLA-DR7.
In nut shell remember

Well demarcated, Erythematous, scaly lesions
More common on extensor aspect
Scalp involvement is common
Facial and mucosal involvement less common
Traumatized lesions develop Psoriatic lesion (Koebners Phenomenon)
Signs Positive:
–– Auspitz sign
–– Candle grease sign
–– Grattage test
Nail Changes
•• Thimble pitting
•• Nail plate thickening
•• Subungual hyperkeratosis
•• Oncholysis
•• Oil spots
•• Brownish discoloration
Histopathology
Hyperkeratoses
Parakeratosis
Orthokeratosis
Micro Munro abscesses in stratum Corneum
Suprapapillary thinning
Dermatology 375
Also Remember
•• Turnover time in Psoriasis is 4 days only instead of 28 days
•• Psoriatic involvement on flexor aspects is called Inverse Psoriasis
•• Burkleys Membrane is seen in Psoriasis
•• Arthritis mutilans is severe but rare form of Psoriatic arthritis
–– Treatment of choice for Psoriasis is PUVA therapy
–– Treatment of choice for Psoriatic arthopathy is Methotrexate
–– Retinoids are the drugs of choice for Psoriasis in AIDS, Pustular Psoriasis, Psoriatic Erythoderma
–– In pregnancy safest drug for pustular Psoriasis is Prednisolone
•• Lithium, NSAIDS, Beta blockers, Antimalarials cause deterioration of disease
•• Auspitz sign: Rubbing of skin leading to removal of scales leads to pinpoint bleeding is. It is seen in Psoriasis
•• Grattage sign is other sign in Psoriasis which is scratching of skin with glass slide accentuates scale formation. Seen in Psoriasis
•• On continuous scratching a glistening white membrane appears called Burkleys membrane. Seen in Psoriasis
•• von Zumbusch phenomenon: Combination of ‘Erythroderma plus sterile pustular psoriasis’.
USMLE Case Scenario

A Pathologist describes a lesion in which there is thinning of the epidermal cell layer overlying the tips of dermal papillae
(suprapapillary plates) and blood vessels within the papillae are dilated and tortuous. These vessels bleed readily when the
scale is removed, giving rise to multiple punctate bleeding points. This sign is called as:
1. Trousseas sign
2. Chovestks sign
3. Grey Turner sign
4. Auspitz sign
5. Troises sign
Ans. 4. Auspitz sign
Pemphigus
•• Uncommon autoimmune skin disorder characterized by blistering and erosions involving the mucous membranes and skin.
The autoimmune attack is on the junctions between epithelial cells in the epidermis. The blisters occur high in the epithelium and
can rupture easily, producing painful erosions. Nikolsky’s sign, in which rubbing of apparently unaffected skin causes a separation
of the outer layers, is a helpful diagnostic clue
•• Pemphigus tends to begin in the mouth, where rapid rupture of the blisters may lead to the impression that the initial lesion is an
ulcer rather than a blister
•• Biopsy with immunofluorescence studies can demonstrate blister formation high in the epithelium that is accompanied by IgG
deposition on epithelial cell surfaces.
There are three types of pemphigus which vary in severity: pemphigus vulgaris, pemphigus foliaceus, and paraneoplastic pemphigus.
•• It occurs when antibodies attack Desmoglein 3
•• Antibodies against intercellular substance
•• Autoimmune disease
•• Intradermal acantholytic bullae present
•• Intradermal acantholytic bullae present with oral mucosal lesions
•• Acantholysis is seen in epidermis
•• Mucus membrane lesions seen
•• Pemphigus Foliaceus is the least severe of the three varieties
•• Desmoglein 1, the protein that is destroyed by the autoantibody, is only found in the top dry layer of the skin
•• Pemphigus foliaceus (PF) is characterized by crusty sores that often begin on the scalp, and may move to the chest, back, and face
•• Mouth sores do not occur. It is not as painful as pemphigus vulgaris, and is often mis-diagnosed as dermatitis or eczema.
•• The least common and most severe type of pemphigus is Paraneoplastic pemphigus (PNP)
•• This disorder is a complication of cancer, usually lymphoma and Castleman’s disease. It may precede the diagnosis of the tumor
•• Painful sores appear on the mouth, lips, and the esophagus
•• In this variety of pemphigus, the disease process often involves the lungs, causing Bronchiolitis obliterans (constrictive
bronchiolitis)
•• Complete removal and/or cure of the tumor may improve the skin disease, but lung damage is generally irreversible.
Hailey-Hailey Disease
•• Also called Familial Benign Pemphigus
•• It is an inherited (genetic) skin disease
•• Not an autoimmune disease
•• No subepidermal blistering
•• It is therefore not considered part of the Pemphigus group of diseases
Definitive diagnosis requires examination of a skin biopsy.

•• The pathologist looks for an intraepidermal vesicle caused by the breaking apart of epidermal cells (acantholysis)
•• Thus, the superficial (upper) portion of the epidermis sloughs off, leaving the bottom layer of cells on the ‘floor’ of the blister. This
bottom layer of cells is said to have a ‘tombstone appearance’
•• Definitive diagnosis also requires the demonstration of anti-desmoglein autoantibodies by direct immunofluorescence on the
skin biopsy. These antibodies appear as IgG deposits along the desmosomes between epidermal cells, a pattern reminiscent of
chicken wire. Anti-desmoglein antibodies can also be detected in a blood sample using the ELISA technique
•• A high titre of c-ANCA (cellular Anti Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody) is an important feature of the disease.
Treatment
If not treated, pemphigus can be fatal due to overwhelming infection of the sores
The most common treatment is the administration of oral steroids, especially prednisone. The side effects of cortico-steroids may
require the use of so-called steroid-sparing or adjuvant drugs. The immuno-suppressant (Mycophenolic acid) is among those being
used:
Intravenous gamma globulin (IVIG) may be useful in severe cases, especially paraneoplastic pemphigus.
Mild cases sometimes respond to the application of topical steroids.
Recently, Rituximab, an anti-CD20 antibody, was found to improve otherwise untreatable severe cases of Pemphigus vulgaris.
If skin lesions do become infected, antibiotic may be prescribed.
Pemphigus Erythematosus
•• Also known as Senear-Usher syndrome
•• It is an overlap syndrome
•• It has erythematous, scaly plaques in a lupus-like butterfly distribution on the face as well as involving the scalp, back, chest, and
intertriginous areas
•• Sunlight may exacerbate the disease.
Pemphigus Pemphigoid
•• Common in age group 40–60 years •• Common greater 60 years
•• Nikolskys sign present •• Nikolskys sign absent
•• Intraepidermal bullae •• Subepidermal bullae
•• Flaccid bullae •• Tense bullae
•• Mucosal involvement common •• Mucosal involvement uncommon
•• Acantholysis present •• Acantholysis absent
Dermatology 377
A 46-year-old female presents to Dermatology clinic with painful oral ulcers. Physical examination demonstrates widespread
erosions of her mucous membranes. Dermatological examination reveals a friable mucosa. Biopsy of perilesional mucosa
demonstrates acantholysis; direct immunofluorescence demonstrates an intraepidermal band of IgG and C3. The most likely
diagnosis is: Pemphigus vulgaris.
An 88 year old elderly patient from Carolina complains to a dermatologist of sores in the oral cavity and on the skin. These
lesions have developed over about a month. Physical examination demonstrates three painful erosions on the oral mucosa
and tongue. Raw areas with crusting on the skin is seen on the face and trunk. The patient states that the skin lesions had
started as blisters that had quickly broken. While the involved areas were painful, no itchiness had been experienced. Careful
examination of the edge of the skin lesions demonstrates a few flaccid bullae. Rubbing of the skin near an affected area
easily detaches the superficial part of the epidermis from the underlying skin. No target-like lesions are seen. The most likely
diagnosis is:
PEMPHIGUS VULGARIS
USMLE Case Scenario
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease in which the characteristic finding is linear deposition of IgG antibodies and
complement in the basement membrane zone. Reactivity also occurs in the basal cell-basement membrane attachment plaques
(hemidesmosomes), where most of the bullous pemphigoid antigen (BPAG) is located. Early lesions show a perivascular infiltrate
of lymphocytes and variable numbers of eosinophils, occasional neutrophils, superficial dermal edema, and associated basal cell
layer vacuolization. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by a:
1. Epidermal, nonacantholytic blister
2. Epidermal, acantholytic blister
3. Subepidermal, acantholytic blister
4. Subepidermal, nonacantholytic blister
Ans. 4. Subepidermal, nonacantholytic blister
Lichen Planus
•• Flat toppled papules with white lacy markings on mucosa (Wickham’s striae)
•• Associated with Hepatitis C
•• ‘Civatte bodies’ seen
•• ‘Basal cell degeneration’ seen
•• ‘Max Josephs’ space seen
Pityriasis Rosacea (PR)

•• Pityriasis Rosacea (PR) is a papulosquamous eruption of unknown etiology
•• First feature invariably is development of annular or oval erythematous scaly lesion
•• (Herald patch) followed by appearance of smaller lesions in few weeks
Lesions are:
•• Oval with long axis parallel to skin folds. (Christmas tree appearance)
•• Usually on trunk and have Cigarette paper consistency
•• Collarette of scales
•• Pruritic
Multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with ‘collarette of scales’ predominantly on ‘trunks’ is diagnostic of Ptyriasis Rosacea.
Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

•• Oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL) is a disease of the mucosa.
•• The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a ubiquitous herpesvirus.
•• Many cases have been reported in heart, kidney, and bone marrow transplant recipients and patients with hematological
malignancies.
•• This pathology is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and occurs mostly in people with HIV, both immunocompromised
and immunocompetent, albeit it can affect patients who are HIV negative.
•• Unilateral or bilateral nonpainful white lesions can be seen on the margins, dorsal or ventral surfaces of the tongue, or on buccal
mucosa. The lesions may vary in appearance from smooth, flat, small lesions to irregular ‘hairy’ or ‘feathery’ lesions with prominent
folds or projections.
•• Lesions are adherent, and only the most superficial layers can be removed by scraping. There is no associated erythema or edema
of the surrounding tissue. Hairy leukoplakia may also involve dorsal and ventral tongue surfaces, the buccal mucosa, or the gingiva.
On the ventral tongue, buccal mucosa, or gingiva, the lesion may be flat and smooth, lacking the characteristic ‘hairy’ appearance.
TINEA
•• A dermatophyte is a parasitic fungus (mycosis) that infects the skin
•• The term embraces the imperfect fungi of the genera Epidermophyton, Microsporum and Trichophyton
•• Dermatophytes (name based on the Greek for ‘skin plants’) are a common label for a group of three types of Fungus that commonly
causes skin disease in animals and humans
•• They are anamorphic (asexual or imperfect)
•• Dermatophytes cause infections of the skin, hair and nails due to their ability to obtain nutrients from Keratinized material.
(Superficial)
•• The organisms colonize the keratin tissues and inflammation is caused by host response to metabolic by-products
•• They are usually restricted to the nonliving cornified layer of the epidermis because of their inability to Penetrate viable tissue
of an immunocompetent host. Invasion does elicit a host response ranging from mild to severe
•• Acid proteinases, elastase, keratinases, and other proteinases reportedly act as virulence factors.
Types of Dermatophyte Infections

Athlete’s foot or tinea pedis
•• Contrary to the name, it does not affect just athletes. Tinea pedis affect men more than women
•• Frequently affects the webs between the toes first, before spreading to the sole of the foot in a ‘moccasin’ pattern
Presents with severe itching and hyperhidrosis.
Jock itch or tinea cruris
•• Frequently, the feet are also involved. The theory is that the feet get infected first from contact with the ground
•• The fungus spores are carried to the groin from scratching, from putting on underclothing or pants
Frequently extend from the groin to the perianal skin and gluteal cleft.
Ringworm of the body or tinea corpora
Facial ringworm or tinea faciei
Can be misdiagnosed for other conditions like psoriasis, discoid lupus, etc. Can be aggravated by treatment with topical steroid or
immunosuppressive cream.
Blackdot ringworm or tinea capitis
•• Infected hair shafts are broken off just at the base, leaving a black dot just under the surface of the skin
Scraping these residual black dots will yield the best diagnostic scrapings for microscopic exam. Numerous green arthrospores will be
seen under the microscope inside the stubbles of broken hair shafts at 400x
Tinea capitis cannot be treated topically, and must be treated systemically with antifungals.
Ringworm of the hands or tinea manuum
•• In most cases of tinea manuum, only one hand is involved
Frequently both feet are involved concurrently, thus the saying ‘one hand, two feet’.
Ringworm of the nail, Onychomycosis, or tinea unguium Affects nail plate.
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Treatment
•• Tinea corpora (body), tinea manus (hands), tinea cruris (groin), tinea pedis (foot) and tinea facie (face) can be treated
topically
•• Tinea unguium (nails) usually will require oral treatment with terbinafine, itraconizole, or griseofulvin
•• Griseofulvin is usually not as effective as terbinafine or itraconizole
•• Tinea capitis (scalp) must be treated orally, as the medication must be present deep in the hair follicles toeradicate the fungus.
Usually griseofulvin is given orally for 2 to 3 months
•• Clinically dosage up to twice the recommended dose might be used due to relative resistance of some strains of dermatophytes
•• Tinea pedis is usually treated with topical medicines, like ketoconazole or terbinafine, and pills, or with medicines that contains
miconazole, clotrimazole, or tolnaftate. Antibiotics may be necessary to treat secondary bacterial infections that occur in addition
to the fungus (for example, from scratching)
Dermatophytes are filamentous fungi that infect only superficial keratinized tissue skin, hair and nail.
They are of three types

1. Trichophyton infect hair, skin and nail
2. Microsporum infect hair and skin
3. Epidermophyton infect skin and nails
Tinea Causes
•• Tinea capitis: Ringworm of scalp
•• Tinea circinata: Ringworm of glabrous skin
•• Tinea barbae: Ringworm of beard
•• Tinea pedis/Trichophyton rubrum: Athletes foot
•• Tinea cruris: Dhobi itch or Jock itch
•• Tinea unguium: Ringworm of nails
Remember: ‘Tinea In cognito’ is extensive ringworm infection with atypical appearance due to steroid misuse.
Malasezia Furfur
•• Causes Tinea Versicolor (Versatile colors)
•• Scaly, Hypopigmented macules appearing on trunk and shoulders
•• Head and lower limbs are spared usually
•• Short Hyphae and round spores (Sphagetti and meat balls) appearance on KOH is seen
•• Tinea versicolor is a common, benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection usually characterized by Hypopigmented or
hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and the back. In patients with a predisposition, the condition may chronically
recur
•• The fungal infection is localized to the stratum corneum
•• Ketocanozole and itracanazole as systemic therapy are useful
•• Griseofulvin is ineffective
•• Tinea versicolor is caused by the dimorphic, lipophilic organism, Malassezia furfur, M furfur is now the accepted name for the
organism. ‘Pityrosporon orbiculare, Pityrosporon ovale, and Malassezia ovalis’ are synonyms for M furfur.
•• M furfur is a member of normal human cutaneous flora.
•• The involved skin regions are usually the trunk, the back, the abdomen, and the proximal extremities. The face, the scalp, and the
genitalia are less commonly involved.
•• The color of each lesion varies from almost white to reddish brown or fawn colored.
•• Patients often complain that the involved skin lesions fail to tan in the summer.
•• Occasionally, a patient also complains of mild pruritus.
•• Greater than 20% of patients report a positive family history of the condition. This subset of patients records a higher rate of
recurrence and longer duration of disease.
Acne Vulgaris
•• Acne vulgaris affects the majority of adolescents and hormonal influences, abnormal keratinization of pilosebaceous units and
colonization by bacteria (Propionibacterium acnes) are important pathogenetic elements
•• Acne vulgaris is a self-limited disorder primarily of teenagers and young adults, Involves pilosebacious glands
•• The permissive factor for the expression of the disease in adolescence is the increase in sebum release by sebaceous glands after
puberty
•• Small cysts, called comedones, form in hair follicles due to blockage of the follicular orifice by retention of sebum and keratinous
material
•• The activity of lipophilic yeast (Pityrosporum orbiculare) and bacteria (Proprionobacterium acnes) within the comedones releases
free fatty acids from sebum, causes inflammation within the cyst, and results in rupture of the cyst wall. The clinical hallmark of
acne vulgaris is the comedone, which may be closed (whitehead) or open (blackhead).Comedones are usually accompanied by
inflammatory lesions: papules, pustules, or nodules
•• The most common location for acne is the face, but involvement of the chest and back is not uncommon
•• Systemic medications such as lithium, isoniazid, halogens, phenytoin, and phenobarbital may produce acneiform eruptions
Treatment
•• Minimal to moderate, pauci-inflammatory disease may respond adequately to local therapy alone
•• Topical agents such as retinoic acid, benzoyl peroxide, or salicylic acid may alter the pattern of epidermal desquamation,
preventing the formation of comedones and aiding in the resolution of preexisting cysts. Topical antibacterial agents such as
benzoyl peroxide, azelaic acid, topical erythromycin (with or without zinc), clindamycin, or tetracycline are also useful
adjuncts to therapy
•• Patients with moderate to severe acne with a prominent inflammatory component will benefit from the addition of systemic
therapy. Oral tetracyclines or erythromycin in doses of 250 to 1000 mg/d will decrease follicular colonization with some of the
lipophilic organisms
•• Severe nodulocystic acne not responsive to oral antibiotics, hormonal therapy, or topical therapy may be treated with the
synthetic retinoid isotretinoin.
Acne vulgaris affects the majority of adolescents. Hormonal influences, abnormal keratinization of pilosebaceous units and
colonization by bacteria (Propionibacterium acnes) are important pathogenetic elements
Treatment of acne depends on the severity of the condition
Topical application of comedolytic agents such as retinoids (tretinoin, adapalene, and the new yeast-derived agent azaleic acid)
is effective for mild to moderate forms of noninflammatory acne, characterized by open comedones. Daily application of these
compounds will result in improvement within several weeks after starting treatment. Mild skin irritation and scaling may be minimized
by starting with low-concentration creams and then progressively increasing the concentration. Another side effect of retinoids is
increased photosensitivity. The patient must be instructed to avoid prolonged exposure to the sun and to use a sunscreen.
Acne Rosacea
•• Acne rosacea is an inflammatory disorder predominantly affecting the central face
•• It is seen almost exclusively in adults,
•• Rosacea is seen more often in women, but those most severely affected are men
•• It is characterized by the presence of
–– Erythema,
–– Telangiectases, and
–– Superficial pustules
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Rosacea only rarely involves the chest or back

•• There is a relationship between the tendency for pronounced facial flushing and the subsequent development of acne rosacea.
Often, individuals with rosacea initially demonstrate a pronounced flushing reaction. This may be in response to heat, emotional
stimuli, alcohol, hot drinks, or spicy foods
•• Rosacea of ‘glandular form’ of very long standing may lead to connective tissue overgrowth, particularly of the nose (rhinophyma)
•• Rhinophyma is also called as Potato nose
TREATMENT
Acne rosacea can generally be treated effectively with oral tetracycline in doses ranging from 250 to 1000 mg/d. Topical
metronidazole or sodium sulfacetamide has also been shown to be effective. In addition, the use of low-potency, nonfluorinated
topical glucocorticoids, particularly after cool soaks, is helpful in alleviating facial erythema.
New Drugs for Acne

Adapalene: Tretinoin like drug binding directly to nuclear retinoic acid receptor and modulates keratinization and differentiation of
follicular epithelial cells.
Tazoretene is a synthetic retinoid used in psoriasis and acne vulgaris as well.
Nadifloxacin is used in inflamed acne and folliculitis
Dapsone gel is used as 5% aqeous gel base for acne vulgaris
Erythrasma
•• Erythrasma is a chronic superficial infection of intertriginous areas
•• Organism causing erythrasma is Corynebacterium Minutissimum
•• Erythrasma produces coral red fluorescence under wood light secondary to production of porphyrins
•• Erythrasma is more common in blacks
•• Typical lesion is well demarcated, reddish brown macule with wrinkled appearance of skin
•• Inner thighs, crural region, scrotum and toe webs are commonly involved.
Corynebacterium Minutissimum
It is a part of normal skin flora
•• It is lipophilic
•• Gram-positive
•• Aerobic
–– Catalase positive
–– Nonspore forming diphtheroid
It ferments
•• Glucose
•• Dextrose
•• Sucrose
•• Maltose and
•• Mannitol
Atopic Dermatitis
•• Atopic dermatitis (AD) is the cutaneous expression of the atopic state, characterized by a family history of asthma, hay fever,
or dermatitis
•• Also termed as ITCH DISEASE
•• The infantile pattern is characterized by weeping inflammatory patches and crusted plaques that occur on the face (MC), neck,
extensor surfaces, and groin
•• The childhood and adolescent pattern is marked by dermatitis of flexural skin, particularly in the antecubital and popliteal
fossae
•• Pruritus is a prominent characteristic of AD and many of the cutaneous findings in affected patients are secondary to rubbing and
scratching
•• Other cutaneous stigmata of AD are perioral pallor, an extra fold of skin beneath the lower eyelid (Dennie’s line), increased palmar
markings, and increased incidence of cutaneous infections, particularly with Staphylococcus aureus
•• Atopic individuals often have dry itchy skin, abnormalities in cutaneous vascular responses, and, in some instances, elevations
in serum IgE
•• Biopsy is the best test
•• ‘Berloque dermatitis’ is due to contact with Cosmetics
•• Excoriation, Lichenification, Hyperlinear palms are seen.
Contact Dermatitis
•• Contact dermatitis is an inflammatory process in skin caused by an exogenous agent or agents that directly or indirectly injure the skin
•• This injury may be caused by an inherent characteristic of a compound irritant contact dermatitis (ICD). An example of ICD would
be dermatitis induced by a concentrated acid or base. Agents that cause allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) induce an antigen-
specific immune response. The clinical lesions of contact dermatitis may be acute (wet and edematous) or chronic (dry, thickened
and scaly), depending on the persistence of the insult
•• The most common presentation of contact dermatitis is hand eczema and it is frequently related to occupational exposures
ICD
•• It is generally strictly demarcated and often localized to areas of thin skin (eyelids, intertriginous areas) or to areas where the
irritant was occluded
•• Lesions may range from minimal skin erythema to areas of marked edema, vesicles, and ulcers
•• Chronic low-grade irritant dermatitis is the most common type of ICD and
•• The most common area of involvement is the hands
•• The most common irritants encountered are chronic wet work, soaps, and detergents. Treatment should be directed to
avoidance of irritants and use of protective gloves or clothing
ACD
•• It is a manifestation of delayed type hypersensitivity mediated by memory T lymphocytes in the skin
•• The most common cause of ACD is exposure to plants, specifically to members of the family Anacardiaceae; including the
genera Toxicodendron, Anacardium, Gluta, Mangifera, and Semecarpus
•• Poison ivy, poison oak and poison sumac are members of the genus Toxicodendron and cause an allergic reaction marked by
erythema, vesiculation and severe pruritus
•• The eruption is often linear, corresponding to areas where plants have touched the skin.
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Patch Tests
Patch testing is used to validate a diagnosis of allergic contact sensitization and to identify the causative allergen. Because the
entire skin of sensitized humans is allergic, the test reproduces the dermatitis in one small area where the allergen is applied,
usually on the back. The suspected allergen is applied to the skin, occluded, and left in place 48 hours. A positive test reproduces an
eczematous response at the test site from 48 hours up to a week later. The latter is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Considerable
experience is required to accurately perform and interpret patch tests. Photopatch testing is performed to detect photocontact
allergy. Suspected photoallergens are placed on the skin in two sets. One set of allergens is irradiated with appropriate wavelengths
of light after the patches are in place on the skin 24 hours; the second set of the same photoallergens is kept covered to serve as
controls. Photoallergens cause an erythematous reaction that is evident 24 hours after exposure to light.
Nummular Eczema
•• Nummular eczema is characterized by circular or oval ‘coinlike’ lesions
•• Initially, this eruption consists of small edematous papules that become crusted and scaly. The most common locations are on the
trunk or the extensor surfaces of the extremities, particularly on the pretibial areas or dorsum of the hands
•• It occurs more frequently in men and is most commonly seen in middle age.
Hand Eczema
Hand eczema is a very common, chronic skin disorder
It represents a large proportion of occupation-associated skin disease
It may be associated with other cutaneous disorders such as atopic dermatitis or may occur by itself
It may present with dryness and cracking of the skin of the hands as well as with variable amounts of erythema and edema. Often,
the dermatitis will begin under rings where water and irritants are trapped
A variant of hand dermatitis, dyshidrotic eczema, presents with multiple, intensely pruritic, small papules and vesicles occurring on
the thenar and hypothenar eminences and the sides of the fingers.
Lichen Simplex Chronicus

•• Lichen simplex chronicus may represent the end stage of a variety of pruritic and eczematous disorders
•• It consists of a well-circumscribed plaque or plaques with lichenified or thickened skin due to chronic scratching or rubbing
•• Common areas involved include the posterior nuchal region, dorsum of the feet, or ankles
•• Treatment of lichen simplex chronicus centers around breaking the cycle of chronic itching and scratching, which often occur
during sleep
•• High-potency topical glucocorticoids are helpful in alleviating pruritus in most cases, but in recalcitrant cases, application of
topical glucocorticoids under occlusion or intralesional injection of glucocorticoids may be required.
Asteatotic Eczema
•• Asteatotic eczema, also known as xerotic eczema or ‘winter itch,’ is a mildly inflammatory variant of dermatitis that develops
most commonly on the lower legs of elderly individuals during dry times of year
•• Fine cracks, with or without erythema, characteristically develop on the anterior surface of the lower extremities. Pruritus is variable
•• Asteatotic eczema responds well to avoidance of irritants, rehydration of the skin, and application of topical emollients.
Stasis Dermatitis and Stasis Ulceration

•• Stasis dermatitis develops on the lower extremities secondary to venous incompetence and chronic edema
•• Early findings in stasis dermatitis consist of mild erythema and scaling associated with pruritus. The typical initial site of
involvement is the medial aspect of the ankle, often over a distended vein
•• As the disorder progresses, the dermatitis becomes progressively pigmented, due to chronic erythrocyte extravasation leading
to cutaneous hemosiderin deposition.
•• Chronic stasis dermatitis is often associated with dermal fibrosis that is recognized clinically as brawny edema of the skin
•• Stasis dermatitis is often complicated by secondary infection and contact dermatitis
•• Severe stasis dermatitis may precede the development of stasis ulcers.
Tumors Affecting Skin

Basal Cell Carcinoma BCC is a malignancy arising from epidermal basal cells
•• The most common type is noduloulcerative BCC, which begins as a small, pearly nodule, often with small telangiectatic vessels
on its surface
•• The nodule grows slowly and may undergo central ulceration
•• Lymphatic spread does not occur
•• Various amounts of melanin may be present in the tumor; tumors with a heavier accumulation are referred to as pigmented BCC.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma: Primary cutaneous SCC is a malignant neoplasm of keratinizing epidermal cells.
Unlike BCC, which has a very low metastatic potential, SCC can metastasize and grow rapidly. The clinical features of SCC vary widely.
Predisposition to SCC
–– Actinic keratosis
–– Bowens disease
–– Lichen planus
–– DLE
Commonly, SCC appears as an ulcerated nodule or superficial erosion on the skin or lower lip, but it may present as a verrucous
papule or plaque.
Unlike BCC, overlying telangiectasias are uncommon.
The margins of this tumor may be ill-defined, and fixation to underlying structures may occur. Cutaneous SCC may develop anywhere
on the body, but it usually arises on sun-damaged skin.
Keratoacanthoma
•• Typically appears as a dome-shaped papule with a central keratotic crater, Expands rapidly, and commonly regresses without
therapy
•• This lesion can be difficult to differentiate from SCC.
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Melanomas
Originate from melanocytes, pigment cells normally present in the epidermis and sometimes in the dermis.
The individuals most susceptible to development of melanoma are:
•• Those with fair complexions, red or blonde hair, blue eyes and freckles and who tan poorly and sunburn easily.
•• Family history of melanoma
•• The presence of a clinically atypical mole (dysplastic nevus)
•• A giant congenital melanocytic nevus, or a small to medium-sized congenital melanocytic nevus the presence of a higher than
average number of ordinary melanocytic nevi; and immunosuppression. Melanoma is relatively rare in heavily pigmented people
Melanomas often express cell-surface antigens that may be recognized by host immune cells, e.g. Melanoma antigens (MAGEs)
and Tyrosinase
The presence of ‘microscopic satellites’ is also predictive of microscopic metastases to the regional lymph nodes.
An alternative prognostic scheme for clinical stages I and II melanoma, proposed by Clark, is based on the anatomic level of invasion in
the skin. (Clarks Level)
•• Level I is intraepidermal (in situ)
•• Level II penetrates the papillary dermis
•• Level III spans the papillary dermis
•• Level IV penetrates the reticular dermis
•• Level V penetrates into the subcutaneous fat
•• Melanomas may spread by the lymphatic channels or the bloodstream

•• The earliest metastases are often to regional lymph nodes
•• Most common site for Malignant melanoma is skin (90%)
•• Cutaneous melanoma arises from epidermal melanocytes
•• Junctional melanoma predisposes to MM
•• Maybe familial
Early detection of melanoma may be facilitated by applying the ‘ABCD rules’:

•• A asymmetry, benign lesions are usually symmetric
•• B border irregularity, most nevi have clear-cut borders
•• C color variegation, benign lesions usually have uniform light or dark pigment
•• D diameter > 6 mm (the size of a pencil eraser).
•• Lentigo maligna is the least common type

•• It is also known as Hutchinson’s freckle
•• Face is the most common site involved by it
•• Superficial spreading is the most common type
•• It may occur at any site on body
•• Nodular Melanoma is the most malignant type
•• It is common in younger age group
•• Acral lentigous occurs on palms and soles especially
•• Amelanotic has the worst prognosis
•• ‘Clark’s level’ is classification based on level of ‘invasion into skin’

•• ‘Breslows staging’ is based on thickness of invasion
•• No’s of MM (Malignant Melanoma)
•• No incisional biopsy
•• No induration
•• No role of radiotherapy
•• Not known usually before puberty
Adnexal Tumors
Adnexal Or Appendageal tumors arise from cutaneous appendages
They may serve as markers for internal malignancies
They are mostly in the form of solitary or multiple nodules/papules
•• Eccrine porcoma is seen on p alms and soles
•• Cylindroma or turban tumor is seen on forehead and scalp
•• Syringomas are seen in vicinity of lower eyelids
•• Trichoepitheliomas and trichilemmoma arise from hair follicles and are seen on face, scalp, neck and upper trunk
•• Sebaceous adenoma arises from sebaceous glands
Pyogenic granuloma
•• Total misnomer
•• Neither’ infectious’ nor ‘Granulomatous.’
•• Also called as lobular capillary hemangioma
•• Usually occurs in children, young adults
•• Called as Pregnancy (pregnancy tumor) or Granuloma Gravidarum
•• This lesion most commonly develops at a site of previous injury, and is best considered a variation of granulation tissue formation.
The name is a misnomer, since the lesion is neither related to bacterial infection nor a true granuloma. Microscopically, proliferating
blood vessels in an immature fibrous stroma are seen. The lesions can occasionally be confused with dysplastic nevi or malignant
melanoma, but are completely benign. Treatment is with surgical excision, curettage, or electrodesiccation.
Cutaneous T cell Lymphoma: Mycosis Fungoides

•• It is an indolent lymphoma
•• Mc skin lymphoma
•• Erythroderma + circulating tumor cells with mycosis fungoides = Sezary syndrome
•• Presence of Sezary cells
•• Pautriers microabscesses seen
•• Presents with diffuse erythroderma
Actinic Keratosis
•• Actinic keratosis (AK)
•• It is a UV light–induced lesion of the skin that may progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma
•• Most common lesion with malignant potential to arise on the skin
•• Actinic keratoses arise on fair-skinned people in areas of long-term sun exposure, such as the face, ears, bald scalp, forearms,
and backs of the hands
•• They may occur on any area that is repeatedly exposed to the sun, such as the back, the chest, and the legs
•• Long-term UV light exposure is implicated as the cause from both epidemiologic observations and molecular analysis of tumor
cells
•• Clinically, actinic keratoses range from barely perceptible rough spots of skin to elevated, hyperkeratotic plaques several
centimeters in diameter.
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•• Most often, they appear as

•• Multiple discrete, flat or elevated, keratotic lesions
•• Lesions typically have an erythematous base covered by scale (hyperkeratosis)
•• They are usually 3 to 10 mm in diameter and gradually enlarge into broader, more elevated lesions
•• Overtime, actinic keratoses may develop into invasive squamous cell.
Medical Eponyms
•• Turban tumor: •• Cylindroma
•• Marjolins ulcer: •• Squamous cell cancer
•• Molluscum sebaceum: •• Keratocanthoma
•• Cocks Peculiar tumor: •• Infected sebaceous cyst
•• Brooks tumor: •• Tumor of hair follicles
Dermatitis Herpetiformis
•• (DH) is an
–– Intensely pruritic
–– Papulovesicular skin disease characterized by lesions symmetrically distributed
–– Over extensor surfaces (i.e. elbows, knees, buttocks, back, scalp, and posterior neck)
–– Pruritus is prominent, patients may present with excoriations and crusted papules
•• Patients have an associated, usually subclinical, gluten-sensitive enteropathy
•• More than 90% express the HLA-B8/DRw3 and HLA-DQw2 haplotypes
•• Biopsy of early lesional skin reveals neutrophil-rich infiltrates within dermal papillae. Neutrophils, fibrin, edema, and
microvesicle formation at these sites are characteristic of early disease. Older lesions may demonstrate nonspecific features of a
subepidermal bulla or an excoriated papule
•• Direct immunofluorescence microscopy of normal-appearing perilesional skin demonstrate granular deposits of IgA (with or
without complement components) in the papillary dermis and along the epidermal basement membrane zone
•• Drug of choice Dapsone (D for D).
Acanthosis Nigricans
1. Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition characterized by ‘dark, thick, velvety skin in body folds and creases’
2. Most often, acanthosis nigricans affects ‘armpits, groin and neck.’ Sometimes the lips, palms orsoles of the feet are affected as
well
3. ‘Slow progression’. The skin changes appear slowly, sometimes over months or years
4. Possible itching. ‘Rarely,’ the affected areas itch
5. Acanthosis nigricans is often associated with conditions that increase insulin level, such as type2 diabetes or being overweight.
If insulin level is too high, the extra insulin may trigger activity in skin cells. This may cause the characteristic skin changes
6. In some cases, acanthosis nigricans is inherited. Certain medications —such as ‘human growth hormone, oral contraceptives
and large doses of niacin’ — can contribute to the condition
Other hormone problems, endocrine disorders or tumors may play a role as well.
•• The posterior neck is the most commonly affected site in children

•• The vulva is the most commonly affected site in females who are hyperandrogenic and obese
•• ‘Acrochordons’ (skin tags) are often found in and around the affected areas
•• The most common cause of Acanthosis nigricans is insulin resistance, which leads to increased circulating insulin levels.
Insulin spillover into the skin results in its abnormal growth, and the stimulation of color producing cells (melanocytes).
•• The most common cause of Acanthosis nigricans is Type 2 diabetes mellitus followed by obesity or endocrinopathies, such as
hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, acromegaly, polycystic ovary disease, insulin-resistant diabetes, or Cushing’s disease
•• Other causes of Acanthosis nigricans are familial, drug-induced, and idiopathic as mentioned.
In the context of a malignant disease, Acanthosis nigricans is a paraneoplastic syndrome and is then commonly referred to as
‘Acanthosis nigricans maligna’
Involvement of mucous membranes is rare and suggests a coexisting malignant condition
When seen in individuals older than age 40, this disorder is commonly associated with an internal malignancy, usually:
•• Adenocarcinoma of lungs
•• Cancers of GI tract
•• Uterine cancers
•• Cancers of prostate
•• Cancers of breast
•• Cancers of ovary
Skin Disorders Associated with Thyroid Disease

Skin manifestations of hypothyroidism
•• Dry (anhydrosis), cold, yellowish skin
•• Non-pitting edema (e.g. hands, face)
•• Dry, coarse scalp hair, loss of lateral aspect of eyebrows
•• Eczema
•• Xanthomata
Skin manifestations of hyperthyroidism
•• Pretibial myxedema: erythematous, edematous lesions above the lateral malleoli
•• Thyroid acropachy: clubbing
•• Scalp hair thinning
•• Increased sweating
•• Pruritus can occur in both hyper- and hypothyroidism
Dermatologic Manifestations of HIV Infection

Dermatologic problems occur in about 90% of patients with HIV infection. From the macular, roseola-like rash seen with the acute
seroconversion syndrome to extensive end-stage KS, cutaneous manifestations of HIV disease can be seen throughout the course of
HIV infection
•• Seborrheic dermatitis. In HIV-infected patients, seborrheic dermatitis may be aggravated by concomitant infection with
Pityrosporum, a yeast like fungus
•• Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis. It presents as multiple, urticarial perifollicular papules that may coalesce into plaquelike
lesions. Patients with HIV infection have also been reported to develop a severe form of Norwegian scabies with hyperkeratotic
psoriasiform lesions
•• Psoriasis and ichthyosis, Preexisting psoriasis may become guttate in appearance and more refractory to treatment in the setting
of HIV infection
•• Reactivation herpes zoster (shingles). Acyclovir or famciclovir is the treatment of choice. Foscarnet is of value in patients with
acyclovir-resistant virus
•• Infection with herpes simplex virus in HIV-infected individuals is associated with recurrent oro labial, genital, and perianal
lesions as part of recurrent reactivation syndromes
•• Diffuse skin eruptions due to Molluscum contagiosum may be seen in patients with advanced HIV infection. These flesh-colored,
umbilicated lesions may be treated with local therapy
•• Condyloma acuminatum lesions may be more severe and more widely distributed in patients with low CD4+ T cell counts.
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•• The skin of patients with HIV infection is often a ‘Target Organ’ for drug reactions
•• Although most skin reactions are mild and not necessarily an indication to discontinue therapy, patients may have particularly
severe cutaneous reactions, including Erythroderma and Stevens-Johnson syndrome, as a reaction to drugs, particularly sulfa
drugs, the nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, abacavir, and amprenavir
•• Similarly, patients with HIV infection are often quite ‘photosensitive’ and ‘burn easily’ following exposure to sunlight or as a side
effect of radiation therapy.
Dermatological Changes in Diabetes

•• Protracted wound healing and skin ulcerations. Diabetic dermopathy, sometimes termed pigmented pretibial papules, or
‘diabetic skin spots,’ begins as an erythematous area and evolves into an area of circular hyperpigmentation. These lesions result
from minor mechanical trauma in the pretibial region and are more common in elderly men with DM. Bullous diseases (shallow
ulcerations or erosions in the pretibial region) are also seen
•• Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare disorder of DM that predominantly affects young women with type 1 DM, neuropathy, and
retinopathy. It usually begins in the pretibial region as an erythematous plaque or papules that gradually enlarge, darken, and develop
irregular margins, with atrophic centers and central ulceration. They may be painful
•• Acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmented velvety plaques seen on the neck or extensor surfaces) is sometimes a feature of severe
insulin resistance and accompanying diabetes
•• Generalized or localized Granuloma annulare (erythematous plaques on the extremities or trunk) and scleredema (areas of skin
thickening on the back or neck at the site of previous superficial infections) are more common in the diabetic population
•• Lipoatrophy and lipohypertrophy can occur at insulin injection sites but are unusual with the use of human insulin. Xerosis and
pruritus are common and are relieved by skin moisturizers.
Dermatological Changes in Syphilis

Early Congenital syphilis
•• Snuffles or rhinitis is the early feature
•• Vesico bullous lesions (not found in any other variety of syphilis)
•• Snail track ulcers on oral mucosa
Late Congenital Syphilis
•• Hutchinsons triad (Hutchinson’s teeth +8 th Cranial nerve deafness+ Interstitial Keratitis)
•• Moon’s molars and maldevelopment of the maxilla resulting in ‘bulldog’ facies
•• Saddle nose
•• Sabre Tibia
•• Mulberry Molars
•• Rhagades (The infant may fail to thrive and have a characteristic ‘old man’ look, with fissured lesions around the mouth (rhagades) and
a mucopurulent or blood-stained nasal discharge causing snuffles.)
•• Frontal bossing of Parrot
•• Periostitis Higoumenakis sign
Dermatological changes in secondary syphilis:
•• Cutaneous rashes usually appear within 6 to 12 weeks after infection. The lesions may be transitory or may persist for months. In
untreated patients they frequently heal, but fresh ones may appear within weeks or months. (MC Manifestation)
•• Over 80% of patients have mucocutaneous lesions
•• Generalized enlargement of the lymph nodes
•• Lesions of the eyes (uveitis)
•• Moth eaten alopecia
•• Bones (periostitis) and joints
•• Meninges
•• Kidney (glomerulitis)
•• Mild constitutional symptoms of malaise, headache, anorexia, nausea, aching pains in the bones and fatigability are often
present, as well as fever, anemia, jaundice, albuminuria, and neck stiffness.
DERMATOLOGICAL CHANGES IN LEPROSY

Tuberculoid Leprosy
•• The initial lesion of tuberculoid leprosy is often a hypopigmented macule that is sharply demarcated and hypoesthetic
•• Infective form
•• Fully developed lesions are densely anesthetic and devoid of the normal skin organs (sweat glands and hair follicles)
•• Patients eventually have one or more asymmetrically distributed, hypopigmented, anesthetic, nonpruritic, well defined
macules, often with an erythematous or raised border
•• Tuberculoid leprosy patients may also have asymmetric enlargement of one or a few peripheral nerves
•• Although any peripheral nerve may be enlarged (including small digital and supraclavicular nerves), those most commonly
affected are the ulnar, posterior auricular, peroneal and post tibial nerves, with associated hypesthesia and myopathy
•• At times, tuberculoid leprosy may present with only nerve-trunk involvement with no skin lesions; in such cases it is termed
neural leprosy
•• In TT leprosy the epidermis may be involved histologically
•• On hematoxylin and eosin staining, TT and BT lesions appear as well defined noncaseating granulomas with many lymphocytes
and Langhans’ giant cells
•• In tuberculoid leprosy, T cells breach the perineurium, and destruction of Schwann cells and axons may be evident, resulting in
fibrosis of the epineurium, replacement of the endoneurium with epithelial granulomas and occasionally caseous necrosis
•• AFB are generally absent or few in number
•• Invasion and destruction of nerves in the dermis by T cells are pathognomonic for leprosy.
Lepromatous Leprosy
•• Lepromatous Leprosy at the more severe end of the leprosy spectrum is lepromatous disease, which encompasses the LL and BL
forms
•• The initial skin lesions of lepromatous leprosy are skin-colored or slightly erythematous papules or nodules. In time, individual
lesions grow in diameter up to 2 cm; new papules and nodules then appear and may coalesce
•• Patients later present with symmetrically distributed skin nodules, raised plaques, or diffuse dermal infiltration which, when on
the face, results in leonine facies
•• Late manifestations include loss of eyebrows eyelashes, pendulous earlobes, and dry scaling skin, particularly on the feet
•• Gynacomastia, madriosis, collapse of nasal bridge
•• Dermatopathology in lepromatous leprosy is confined to the dermis and particularly affects the dermal appendages
•• Histologically, the dermis characteristically contains highly vacuolated cells (foam cells) and fewer or absent noncaseating
granuloma
•• The dermis in lepromatous leprosy contains few lymphocytes and giant cells, and granulomas are absent
•• In LL leprosy, bacilli are numerous in the skin (as many as 109/g), where they are often found in large clumps (globi), and in
peripheral nerves, where they initially invade Schwann cells, resulting in foamy degenerative myelination and axonal degeneration
and later in Wallerian degeneration.
•• Leprosy is also called as Hansen’s Disease

•• Virchow’s cells seen
•• The sensation to be lost earliest in Leprosy is Touch
•• Rifampicin is the drug most rapidly acting and most potent against Leprosy bacillus
•• Dapsone is the ‘drug of choice’. Dose is ‘1–2 mg/kg’. Half life is ‘24 hours’
•• Ist line drugs are: rifampicin, dapsone, clofazamine
•• DOC in neuritis is STEROIDS
•• Nerve abscess treated by incision and drainage
•• Leprosy bacillus is a gram-positive, acid fast bacillus

•• Lepra cells are also called as foamy cells are actually Histiocytes within which globi are found
•• Generation time of lepra bacillus is 12 days
•• Only source of infection is the patient.
Dermatology 391
•• Incubation period of leprosy is 2–5 years

•• Most common nerve involved is ulnar nerve followed by postauricular nerve
•• Schwann cells are involved first of all
•• CNS, ovaries, lungs are ‘not commonly’ involved in leprosy.
Lepra reactions
Type 1 reaction is also called as ‘Downgrading’ or ‘reversal’ reaction
•• It occurs in Borderline Leprosy
•• It is type ‘IV delayed Hypersensitivity reaction’
•• Signs of inflammation in previous lesions, Neuritis and fever are characteristic. (Ulnar nerve is most commonly affected)
Treatment:
•• Continue antileprotics
•• Use Analgesics
•• Corticosteroids are the ‘drug of choice’
•• Unresponsive to thalidomide
Type II reaction is also called as ‘Erythema Nodosum Leprosum‘
•• It occurs in Lepromatous Leprosy
•• It is type ‘III Hypersensitivity reaction’
Treatment:
•• Corticosteroids are the initially used drugs
•• Thalidomide is effective
Lepromin test is positive in patients having cell mediated immunity

•• Cell mediated immunity is present in Tuberculosis. Hence Lepromin test is positive. As the spectrum of leprosy passes from
tuberculoid to lepromatous type the Lepromin test gets weaker
•• Lepromin test is not a diagnostic test
•• Lepromin test is a prognostic test
•• Positive test suggests good prognosis
•• Negative test suggests poor prognosis
•• Lepromin test is negative in most children in first 6 months of life
•• BCG vaccination may convert Lepra reaction from negative to positive
Lepromin Test has Two Reactions

•• Early Fernandez in 24 to 48 hours with erythema and Induration
•• Late mitsuda in 4 weeks with indurated skin nodule
•• Indicates strong immunity
DERMATOLOGICAL CHANGES IN LUPUS

Cutaneous Lupus is an important topic nowadays. Important features are
•• Cutaneous lupus presents as a malar or butterfly rash
•• The rash is photosensitive, fixed and erythematous over cheeks and bridge of the nose
•• Scarring is absent
•• Loss of scalp hair (alopecia) can be present
•• Exposure to sunlight precipitates DLE
•• Discoid Lupus Erythematosus (DLE) occurs in 20% of cases of SLE
•• Lesions have central scarring and atrophy with loss of appendages
•• ‘Follicular plugging ‘and ‘Telengiactasis’ are characteristic of DLE. (Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) is characterized by discrete
lesions, most often on the face, scalp, or external ears. The lesions are erythematous papules or plaques with a thick, adherent
scale that occludes hair follicles (follicular plugging). When the scale is removed, its underside will show small excrescences that
correlate with the openings of hair follicles and is termed a ‘carpet tack’ appearance)
•• Lesions occur in face, scalp and sun exposed areas of the body
•• Only 5% patients with DLE develop SLE
•• When SLE lesions are in the form of urticaria, bullae, erythema multiformae, Lichen planus, the condition called ‘Lupus Profondus.’
Important Points about Subacute Lupus Erythomatosus

•• Subacute lupus is a distinct subset with ‘recurrent, Extensive ‘dermatitis’
•• Erythema of nasal and malar regions occurs
•• Arthritis and Fatigue being common manifestations
•• CNS and Renal involvement is rare
•• Deposits of Ig and C occur in ‘Dermoepidermal ‘junction in less than 50% patients and is ‘not specific’. Most patients have
antibodies to Ro (SS-A) or to (ss) DNA.
Skin Disease Due To NTM

Swimming-Pool and Fish-Tank Granuloma
Between 1 week and 2 months (usually 2 to 3 weeks) after contact with contaminated tropical fish tanks, swimming pools, or saltwater
fish, a small violet nodule or pustule may appear at a site of minor trauma
This lesion may evolve to form a crusted ulcer or small abscess or may remain warty. Lesions are multiple and disseminated on occasion
particularly, but not exclusively, in immunosuppressed patients
The causative organism is M marinum. The patient’s clinical history, combined with the isolation of M marinum after biopsy and
culture, establishes the diagnosis
Buruli Ulcer
In many tropical areas throughout the world, M ulcerans may cause an itching nodule on the arms or legs, which then breaks down
to form a shallow ulcer of variable.
Erythroderma
Erythroderma is the term used when the majority of the skin surface is erythematous (red in color)
There may be associated scale, erosions, or pustules as well as shedding of the hair and nails. Potential systemic manifestations include
fever, chills, hypothermia, reactive lymphadenopathy, peripheral edema, hypoalbuminemia and high-output cardiac failure. The major
etiologies of erythroderma are:
1. Cutaneous diseases such as psoriasis and dermatitis
2. Drugs
3. Systemic diseases and
4. Idiopathic.
Alopecia
•• The two major forms of alopecia are scarring and nonscarring
•• In scarring alopecia there is associated fibrosis, inflammation, and loss of hair follicles
•• In nonscarring alopecia the hair shafts are gone, but the hair follicles are preserved, explaining the reversible nature of nonscarring
alopecia
•• The most common causes of nonscarring alopecia include:
–– Telogen effluvium,
–– Androgenetic alopecia,
–– Alopecia areata,
Dermatology 393
–– Tinea capitis, and

–– Traumatic alopecia
•• Exposure to various drugs can also cause diffuse hair loss, usually by inducing a telogen effluvium. An exception is the anagen
effluvium observed with antimitotic agents such as daunorubicin. Alopecia is a side effect of the following drugs:
–– Warfarin
–– Heparin
–– Propylthiouracil
–– Carbimazole
–– Vitamin A, isotretinoin, acetretin
–– Lithium
–– Beta blockers
–– Colchicine and amphetamines
•• Less commonly, nonscarring alopecia is associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis
•• Scarring alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as
–– Lichen planus,
–– Folliculitis decalvans,
–– Cutaneous lupus, or
–– Linear scleroderma (morphea) than it is a sign of systemic disease
–– Less common causes of scarring alopecia include sarcoidosis
Alopecia aereta:
•• It is autoimmune
•• Exclamation hair mark present
Alopecia Aerata
•• Initial lesion is well circumscribed, totally bald, smooth patch
•• Autoimmune in origin
•• Scalp is the usual first site to be infected
•• Stumps in alopecia aerata form exclamation mark
•• It is the broken part of hair (Paler and narrower)
•• Pitting of nails is an associated feature
•• Testosterone is contraindicated
•• Minoxidil is used in treatment.
Scarring alopecia Nonscarring alopecia

•• Lichen planus •• Thyroid disorders (Hyper/ Hypo)
•• Leprosy •• Ectodermal dysplasia
•• Lupus vulgaris •• Mineral deficiencies
•• Linear scleroderma •• Drugs
•• Lupus erythematosus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old woman presents to a dermatology Clinic. She has lost most of the hair on her body, including scalp, eye brows,
eye lashes, axilla and groin hair and the fine hairs on her body and extremities. She most likely has a variant of which of the
following?
1. Alopecia areata
2. Androgenic alopecia
3. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
4. Lichen planus
5. Trichotillomania
Ans. 1. Alopecia areata
Pemphigoid Gestationis
•• Pemphigoid gestationis (PG), also known as herpes gestationis, is a rare, nonviral, subepidermal blistering disease of pregnancy
and the puerperium
•• PG may begin during any trimester of pregnancy or present shortly after delivery
•• Lesions are usually distributed over the abdomen, trunk, and extremities; mucous membrane lesions are rare
•• Skin lesions in these patients may be quite polymorphic and consist of erythematous urticarial papules and plaques, vesiculopapules,
and/or frank bullae
•• Lesions are almost always very pruritic. Severe exacerbations of PG frequently occur after delivery, typically within 24 to 48 h
•• PG tends to recur in subsequent pregnancies, often beginning earlier during such gestations. Occasionally, infants of affected
mothers demonstrate transient skin lesions.
Pyoderma Gangrenosum
The border of the ulcers has a characteristic appearance of an undermined necrotic bluish edge and a peripheral erythematous halo
Most commonly found on the lower extremities, they can arise anywhere on the surface of the body, including sites of trauma
(pathergy)
An estimated 30 to 50% of cases are idiopathic, and the most common associated disorders are:
•• Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
•• Chronic active hepatitis
•• Seropositive rheumatoid arthritis
•• Acute and chronic granulocytic leukemia
•• Polycythemia vera, and
•• Myeloma
Important Points about Dermatomyositis

•• Dermato + Myositis: Involves skin and muscles usually
•• Females are more commonly affected
•• Features are ‘rash and muscle weakness’.
•• Eyelids with edema (Helitrope rash)
•• Erythema of knuckles with scaly eruption (Gottron rash)
•• Neck and anterior chest (V sign)
•• Back and shoulder (Shawl sign)
‘Proximal’ muscle weakness with loss of fine motor movements is seen

Dermatomyositis can be associated with malignancy in 10–20% cases
Periungual telangiectasia may be prominent, and a lacy or reticulated erythema may be associated with fine scaling on the
extensor surfaces of the thighs and upper arms. Other patients, particularly those with long-standing disease, develop areas of
hypopigmentation, hyperpigmentation, mild atrophy, and telangiectasia known as poikiloderma vasculare atrophicans.
Note
•• MYCOSIS CELL: •• T lymphocyte
•• LE CELL: •• Neutrophil
•• LEPRA CELL: •• Plasma cell
•• TZANCK CELL: •• Modified keratinocyte
•• VIRCHOW’S CELL: •• Leprosy
•• MAJOCCHI’S GRANULOMA: •• Tinea rubrum
•• PALISADING GRANULOMA: •• Granuloma annulare
•• GRANULOMA INGUINALE: •• Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis
Dermatology 395
Associations never to be forgotten

•• Pseudomonas in ‘ Hot-tub folliculitis’
•• Pseudomonas in ‘Ecthyma gangrenosum’
•• HSV (Herpes simplex virus) on the head and neck of young wrestlers ‘Herpes gladiatorum’
•• HSV Eczema
•• HSV (Herpes simplex virus) on the digits of health care workers ‘Herpetic whitlow’
•• ‘Impetigo contagiosa’ is caused by Strep Pyogenes
•• ‘Bullous impetigo’ is due to S aureus
•• ‘Swimmer’s itch’ in skin surface is exposed to water infested with freshwater avian schistosomes.
•• ‘Bacillary angiomatosis’ by Bartonella henselae.
•• ‘Verruca peruana’ is caused by Bartonella bacilliformis
•• Human papillomavirus may cause singular warts ‘verruca vulgaris’
•• Human papillomavirus with warts in the anogenital area ‘condylomata acuminata’
•• Mycobacterium leprae may be associated with cutaneous ulcerations in patients with lepromatous leprosy related to ‘Lucio’s
phenomenon’
•• ‘Erysipelas is due to Strep Pyogenes
•• ‘Cellulitis’ may be caused by indigenous flora colonizing the skin and appendages by S aureus and S pyogenes
•• ‘Necrotizing fasciitis’, formerly called streptococcal gangrene, may be associated with group A Streptococcus or mixed aerobic-
anaerobic bacteria or may occur as part of gas gangrene caused by Clostridium perfringens.
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with a superficial cellulitis of the skin with marked lymphatic involvement, caused by beta-hemolytic group
A streptococci beginning with an area of redness and enlarges to form the typical tense, painful, bright red, shiny, brawny
infiltrated plaque with a well demarcated, distinct, and slightly raised border. Most likely the diagnosis is:
1. Botromycosis
2. Gangrene
3. Rodent ulcer
4. Varicose ulcer
5. SSSS
6. Erysipelas
Ans. 6. Erysipelas
Impetigo Contagiosa
A staphylococcal, streptococcal, or combined infection characterized by discrete, thin-walled vesicles that rapidly become pustular
and then rupture. Impetigo occurs more frequently on the exposed parts of the body-the face, hands, neck, and extremities-although
it may appear at sites of friction as well. Over 50% of cases are due to Staphylococcus aureus, with the remainder being due to
Streptococcus pyogenes or acombination of the two bacteria. Group B streptococci are associated with newborn impetigo. Impetigo
is most commonly seen in early childhood and during hot, humid summers in temperate climates.
Erysipelas
A superficial cellulitis of the skin with marked lymphatic involvement, caused by beta-hemolytic group A streptococci. Erysipelas
most commonly occurs in infants, very young children, and the elderly. In most cases, the organism gains access by direct inoculation
through a break in the skin, but infrequently, hematogenous infection may occur. It begins with an area of redness and enlarges to
form the typical tense, painful, bright red, shiny, brawny infiltrated plaque with a well demarcated, distinct, and slightly raised border
(as opposed to deepercellulitis, which has no distinct border and is flush with surrounding skin).
Bartonella Henselae
It is the pathogen of cat-scratch disease, which is a very common cause of chronic lymphadenitis in children. It typically presents as
an enlarging nontender lymph node, often located in the cervical, axillary, or inguinal regions. After being scratched by a kitten, a papule
develops at the scratch site. Affected lymph nodes draining the involved area become enlarged in 2 weeks. Other symptoms include
low-grade fever, malaise, fatigue and nonspecific body aches. The diagnosis of cat-scratch disease is best made by a serological test, such
as an indirect fluorescence antibody test for antibodies to B henselae. Usually, treatment is necessary only in severe systemic infection.
Collodion baby: Babies are borne with shiny, transparent membrane which peels off after a week or so, the peel looking like collodion
Harlequin fetus: Child is borne encased in a thick, abnormal fissured hyperkeratotic skin, abnormality of keratin synthesis
Café au lait spots:
•• Smooth (Coast of California): Neourofibromatosis
•• Irregular (Coast of Maine): Mc Cune Albright Syndrome
Cutaneous Manifestations of Medically Important Diseases

•• Tuberous sclerosis: The earliest cutaneous sign is an ash leaf spot plus adenoma sebaceum (multiple angiofibromas of the face),
ungual and gingival fibromas, fibrous plaques of the forehead, and connective tissue nevi (shagreen patches)
•• Sarcoidosis: Lupus pernio is a particular type of sarcoidosis that involves the tip of the nose and the earlobes, with lesions that
are violaceous in color rather than red-brown
•• Osler-Rendu-Weber disease: In Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia: The lesions (Telengeiectasis) usually appear during
adulthood and are most commonly seen on the mucous membranes, face, and distal extremities, including under the nails
•• Antiphospholipid syndrome: Livideo reticularis: The majority of cases are secondary to venous hypertension, and disorders of
hypercoagulability, e.g. the antiphospholipid syndrome
•• Disseminated gonococcal infection: (Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome), a small number of papules and vesicopustules
with central purpura or hemorrhagic necrosis are found over the joints of the distal extremities. Additional symptoms include
arthralgias, tenosynovitis, and fever
•• Urticaria pigmentosa: A generalized distribution of red-brown macules and papules is seen in the form of mastocytosis known as
urticaria pigmentosa Each lesion represents a collection of mast cells in the dermis, with hyperpigmentation of the overlying
epidermis. Stimuli such as rubbing cause these mast cells to degranulate, and this leads to the formation of localized urticaria
(Darier’s sign)
•• Amyloidosis: The cutaneous lesions associated with primary systemic amyloidosis are pink in color and translucent. As a result,
petechiae and purpura develop in clinically normal skin as well as in lesional skin following minor trauma, hence the term ‘pinch
purpura.’ Amyloid deposits are also seen in the striated muscle of the tongue and result in macroglossia. (Pinch purpura is
diagnostic of primary systemic amyloidosis)
•• Sweet’s syndrome is characterized by red to red-brown plaques and nodules that are frequently painful and occur primarily on
the head, neck, and upper extremities. The patients also have fever, neutrophilia, and a dense dermal infiltrate of neutrophils
in the lesions
•• Fabry’s disease: Multiple angiokeratomas are seen in Fabry’s disease, an X-linked recessive lysosomal storage disease that is due
to a deficiency of galactosidase A. The lesions are red to red-blue in color and can be quite small in size (1 to 3 mm), with the most
common location being the lower trunk.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 6-year-old male is brought to the pediatric unit with a recent onset of a rash, urticaria, and a fever of 102 degrees F. Physical
examination reveals mild lymphadenopathy. The patient’s past medical history is unremarkable except that he just finished a
6 day course of cefaclor suspension for treatment of URTI. The patient most likely has: Serum sickness
Serum Sickness
It is a condition commonly caused by hypersensitivity to drugs. It is suggested that the drug acts as a hapten, which binds to plasma
proteins. This drug-protein complex is recognized as being foreign to the body and induces the serum sickness. Common signs and
symptoms of serum sickness include fever, cutaneous eruptions (morbilliform and/or urticarial), lymphadenopathy, and arthralgias.
Erythema multiforme may also appear in severe cases. With respect to cefaclor, the incidence of serum sickness is much higher infants
and children than in adults.
Dermatology 397
Erythema Multiforme
It is a reaction pattern that clinically manifests with ‘target’ lesions on the palms and soles in milder cases, whereas more severe forms
have mucosal blisters and a widespread vesicular/bullous skin eruption. ‘Target’ lesions are characteristic for erythema multiforme
and consist of a dusky red center with or without a central vesicle surrounded by an erythematous halo. Erythema multiforme is most
commonly seen after herpes simplex infection, streptococcal pharyngitis, or Mycoplasma pneumonia.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old female working as a secretary abruptly develops an intensely itchy rash. Physical examination demonstrates
multiple erythematous patches of the distal arms and legs. Some of the patches show central clearing with surrounding
erythematous rings. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Erythema nodosum
3. Erythema migrans chronicum
Typical Lesions: Never FORGET

Lichen Planus
•• Papule
•• Plain topped
•• Polygonal
•• Purple
•• Papules
•• Wickhams Straie
•• Civatte Bodies
•• Pterygium of Nails
•• Hepatitis C association
Atopic dermatitis:
•• White Dermographism
•• Dennie Morgan Folds
•• Hertoghes sign
•• Cataract and Keratoconus
Dermatomyositis:
•• Helitrope rash
•• Gottrons papules
•• Poikiloderma
•• Dowlings lines
Ptyriasis Rosea:
•• Herald Patch
•• Christmas tree pattern
•• Annular collaratte of scales
•• Mother patch
•• Self limiting
Mycosis Fungoides/Cutaneous T cell Lymphoma:
•• Sezary Lutner cells
•• Pautrier Microabscesses
Tuberous sclerosis:
•• Ash leaf spot
•• Adenoma sebaceum
•• Shagreen patches
•• Infantile spasms
•• Delayed milestones
USMLE Case Scenario

The characteristic Nail finding in lichen planus is:
1. Pitting
2. Pterygium
3. Beau’s lines
4. Hyperpigmentation of the Nails
Ans.2. Pterygium
Nummular Dermatitis
It is a chronic inflammation of the skin, the etiology of which is still unknown. ‘coin-shaped’ or ‘discoid’ are seen. Microscopically, the
dominant feature is a localized spongiosis (corresponding to edema) of the epidermis, which may also contain minute fluid-filled
holes that correspond to the tiny vesicles seen clinically in early lesions. Treatment of these patients is problematic, and numerous
regimens involving corticosteroids or antibiotics have been recommended, each of which appears to work with some but not all
patients.
Diabetic Ulcers
A 76-year-old man has had an indolent, nonhealing ulcer at the heel of the right foot for several weeks. The patient began wearing
a new pair of shoes shortly before the ulcer started and noticed a blister as the first anomaly at the site where the ulcer eventually
developed. The ulcer is painless, 3.5 cm in diameter, the ulcer base looks dirty, and no granulation tissue. The skin around the
ulcer looks normal. The patient has no sensation to pin prick anywhere in that foot. Peripheral pulses are weak but palpable. He
is obese and has varicose veins, high cholesterol, and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is an example of diabetic ulcer.
Diabetic ulcers typically develop at pressure points, and the heel is a favorite location. The patient has evidence of neuropathy, and the
correlation with the trauma inflicted by the new shoes is classic.
Hypomelanosis
The differential diagnosis of localized hypomelanosis includes the following primary cutaneous disorders:
•• Idiopathic guttate hypomelanosis
•• Postinflammatory hypopigmentation
•• Tinea (pityriasis) versicolor
•• Vitiligo
•• Chemical leukoderma
•• Nevus depigmentosus
•• Piebaldism
Disorders of Hyperpigmentation
•• Seborrheic keratoses are common lesions, but in one clinical setting they are a sign of systemic disease, and that setting is the
sudden appearance of multiple lesions, often with an inflammatory base and in association with acrochordons (skin tags) and
acanthosis nigricans. This is termed the sign of Leser-Trelat and signifies an internal malignancy
•• Acanthosis nigricans can also be a reflection of an internal malignancy, most commonly of the gastrointestinal tract, and it
appears as velvety hyperpigmentation, primarily in flexural areas. In the majority of patients, acanthosis nigricans is associated
with obesity, but it may be a reflection of an endocrinopathy such as acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, the Stein-Leventhal
syndrome, or insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus (type A, type B, and lipoatrophic forms).
Dermatology 399
•• A proliferation of melanocytes results in the following pigmented lesions: Lentigo, melanocytic nevus, and melanoma
•• LEOPARD Syndrome: Lentigines; ECG abnormalities, ocular hypertelorism; pulmonary stenosis and subaortic valvular stenosis;
abnormal genitalia (cryptorchidism, hypospadias); retardation of growth; and deafness (sensorineural) syndromes
•• The lentigines in patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are located primarily around the nose and mouth, on the hands and feet,
and within the oral cavity. While the pigmented macules on the face may fade with age, the oral lesions persist
•• Lentigines are also seen in association with cardiac myxomas and have been described in two syndromes whose findings overlap
•• LAMB (lentigines, atrial myxomas, mucocutaneous myxomas, and blue nevi) syndrome and NAME [nevus, atrial myxoma,
myxoid neurofibroma and ephelides (freckles)] syndrome
•• The third type of localized hyperpigmentation is due to a local increase in pigment production, and it includes ephelides and
cafe au lait macules (CALM). The latter are most commonly associated with two disorders, neurofibromatosis (NF) and McCune-
Albright syndrome.
•• Localized hyperpigmentation is seen as a side effect of several other systemic medications, including those that produce fixed
drug reactions [phenolphthalein, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), sulfonamides, and barbiturates] and
those that can complex with melanin (antimalarials). Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
•• Estrogen in oral contraceptives can induce melasma, symmetric brown patches on the face, especially the cheeks, upper lip, and
forehead
•• The endocrinopathies that frequently have associated hyperpigmentation include Addison’s disease, Nelson syndrome, and
ectopic ACTH syndrome
•• The metabolic causes of hyperpigmentation include porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT), hemochromatosis, vitamin B12 deficiency,
folic acid deficiency, pellagra, malabsorption, and Whipple’s disease
•• Of the autoimmune diseases associated with diffuse hyperpigmentation, biliary cirrhosis and scleroderma (Calcinosis cutis)
•• Actual deposits of a particular drug or metal in the skin are seen with silver (argyria), where the skin appears blue-gray in color;
gold (chrysiasis), where the skin has a brown to blue-gray color.
NEWER CONCEPTS
Subcorneal Pustular Dermatosis
•• Subcorneal pustular dermatosis is a rare, benign, chronic, relapsing sterile pustular eruption involving the flexural aspect of
trunk and proximal extremities
•• Palmar, plantar and facial forms of disease are rare
•• It commonly affects females
•• It is a disease of elderly
•• IgA has been found to be associated with this condition
•• It is associated with:
–– Paraproteinemias
–– Inflammatory bowel diseases
–– SLE
–– Rheumatoid arthritis
–– Lymphoproliferative disorders
•• ‘Half- Half blister’ is the classic lesion in which purulent fluid accumulates in the lower half of the blister
•• Dapsone is most effective in the treatment of this disorder and the ‘treatment of choice’.
Barthelemy’s Disease or Acne Scrofulosum

•• No need to confuse it with Acne Vulgaris
•• It is a Cutaneous form of TB
•• Features are Papulonecrotic lesions of face (acinitis) trunk, and hand
•• Initially colorless, later bluish, suppuration, pustules, crusting excoriation
•• They are transient but recur
Reiter’s Syndrome
Mucocutaneous lesions: Small, painless superficial ulcers are commonly seen on the oral mucosa, tongue, and glans penis (balanitis
circinata).
Patients may also develop hyperkeratotic skin lesions of the palms and soles and around the nails (keratoderma blennorrhagica)
Cardiovascular involvement with aortitis, aortic insufficiency, and conduction defects occurs rarely.
PUVA Therapy
Methoxsalen is a psoralen derivative with photosensitizing activity. Exact mechanism of erythemogenic, melanogenic, and
cytotoxic response in the epidermis is unknown, involves increased tyrosinase activity in melanin-producing cells, as well as
inhibition of DNA synthesis, cell division, and epidermal turnover. Successful pigmentation requires the presence of functioning
melanocytes. Used in treatment of:
•• Mycosis fungoides: Photopheresis, using methoxsalen with ultraviolet radiation of white blood cells, is indicated for use with
the UVAR System in the palliative treatment of the skin manifestations of mycosis fungoides (also known as cutaneous T-cell
lymphoma) in persons who have not been responsive to other forms of treatment
•• Psoriasis: Indicated in the treatment of severe, refractory, disabling psoriasis that has not responded to other therapy
•• Vitiligo is indicated for repigmentation in the treatment of vitiligo
•• Lichen Planus
Isotretinoin and Pregnancy

Pregnancy: Isotretinoin is teratogenic in humans and is contraindicated during pregnancy
Although not every fetus exposed to isotretinoin has been affected, the risk is high that an infant will have a deformity or
abnormality if the pregnancy occurred while the mother was taking isotretinoin, even for a short period of time
Major human fetal deformities or abnormalities associated with the use of isotretinoin include:
•• Central nervous system (CNS) abnormalities, including hydrocephalus, microcephaly, and cranial nerve deficit;
•• Eye abnormalities, including microphthalmia;
•• Heart defects;
•• Parathyroid deficiency;
•• Skeletal or connective tissue abnormalities, including absence of terminal phalanges, alterations of the skull and cervical
vertebra, and malformations of hip, ankle, and forearm; facial dysmorphia; cleft or high palate; low-set ears, micropinna, and small
or absent external auditory canals; meningomyelocele; multiple synostoses; and syndactyly; and
•• Thymus gland abnormality.
Drugs Causing:
Toxic epidermal necrolysis Photodermatitis Hyperpigmentation Steven Johnson Syndrome
Barbiturates Sulfonamides Phenolphthalein, (NSAIDs), Barbiturates
Phenytoin OCP Sulfonamides and Barbiturates Phenytoin
Phenylbutazone Tetracyclines Chloroquine Hydroxychloroquine Phenylbutazone
Pencillins Phenothiazines Pencillins
Sulfonamides Thiazides Sulfonamides
NSAIDS Furosemide
Allopurinol Griseofulvin
Sulfonylureas
Dermatological Signs
Frequently asked Dermatological signs
•• Asboe Hansen Sign (Bulla Spread Sign): Pemphigus
•• Carpet Tack sign: DLE
Dermatology 401
•• Cerebiform Tongue sign: Pemphigus Vegitans

•• Coup D Lounge sign: Tinea Versicolor
•• Crowe sign: Axillary freckling in Neurofibromatosis
•• Fitzpatrick sign: Dermatofibrosarcoma Protuberans
•• Dubios sign: Congenital syphilis
•• Hertoghes sign: Loss of lateral 1/3 of eyebrow in Atopic Dermatitis
•• Leser Trelat sign: Appearance of large number of Seborrheic keratoses
•• Ollendroff sign: Tender papule in Secondary syphilis
•• Pillow sign: Patient sees hair on pillow on getting up at morning. (ALOPECIA)
•• Shawl sign: Erythema overback and shoulders in Dermatomyositis
Causative organisms of STD (Sexually Transmitted Diseases)

•• Donovaniosis •• Calymmatobacter granulomatosis
•• LGV (esthiomine) •• Chlamydia trachomatis
•• Chancroid •• H ducreyi, Herpes hominis
•• Condyloma acuminate •• HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
•• Yaws •• T pertune
•• Pinta •• T caratenum
Different Types of Erythema

•• Erythema chronicum migrans. Lymes Disease
•• Erythema Ab Agne: Reticulate pigmentation due to long-term heat exposure
•• Erythema Gyratum Repens: Internal malignancies
•• Erythema Nodosum: Multisystemic disorders, e.g. sarcoidosis
•• Erythema multiforme: Mucosal involvement with viral, bacterial, rickettsial diseases with target lesions
•• Erythema Induratum: Bazins Disease
•• Erythema elevatum diutinum (EED) chronic leukocytoclastic vasculitis, also presents with papules that are red-brown in color.
The papules coalesce into plaques on the extensor surfaces of knees, elbows, and the small joints of the hand. Flares of EED have
been associated with streptococcal infections.
Different types of Lupus

•• Lupus Vulgaris: Cutaneous form of Tuberculosis
•• Lupus Pernio: Indurated, shiny, swollen lesions seen in sarcoidosis
•• Lupus Profundus: Lymphocytic infiltration of subcutaneous fat in DLE.
Steroids
Low potency steroids •• Hydrocortisone
•• Betamethasone valerate
•• Clobetasol 17 butyrate
Medium potency •• Flucinonide
•• Triamcinolone acetonide 1
High potency •• Betamethasone dipropionate
•• Halcinonide
•• Triamiclinolone acetonide
Highest potency •• Clobetasol 17 propionate
Topical steroids are most potent in ointment form.
Different Types of Scales

•• Silvery scales Psoriasis
•• Cigarette scales Pityriasis Rosacea
•• Fish scales Ichthyoris
•• Sand paper Solar keratosis
•• Yellow greasy scales Seborrheic dermatitis
•• Furfareous scales Tinea versicolor
•• Limpet scaling Rieter’s disease
Eponyms
•• ‘Micro Munro’ abscesses: Degenerated polymorphonuclear leucocytes in horny layer (stratum corneum) seen in Psoriasis
•• Spongiform Pustules of Kagoj: Pustules of flattened keratinocytes. Seen in Psoriasis
•• Pautrier Microabscesses: Atypical mononuclear cell collection in epidermis in Mycosis Fungoides
•• Grenz Zone: Area of uninvolved dermis between epidermis and dermis in inflammatory neoplastic conditions
•• Max Joseph space is a feature of Lichen Planus
Nails in Dermatology
Important Points about nails
•• Half and half nails: White proximally, pink distally. Seen in CRF
•• Terrys nails: White nails with pink tip, seen in cirrhosis
•• Blue nails: Chloroquine, Wilsons disease
•• Mees lines: Arsenic poisoning
•• Onchyolysis: Psoriasis
•• Koilonychia: Iron deficiency anemia
•• Yellow nail syndrome: Seen with pleural effusions, edema
•• Nail Patella Syndrome: Hypoplastic nails and patella.
•• Muehrcke’s nails: Associated with hypoalbumenia
•• Koenens periungal fibroma: tuberous sclerosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 87-year-old man is undergoing a general physical examination. The patient was admitted recently with the diagnoses of
‘failure to thrive’ He has multiple chronic medical conditions, including a history of stroke, coronary artery disease, diabetes,
hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and hepatitis C-related cirrhosis. While demonstrating a thorough physical examination, the
attending physician points out that the patient’s finger nails appear abnormal. The proximal nail beds appear white and pale
but have a distal band that is darker and pink. It is an example of:
Terry Nails
Have a nail bed that is white or light pink with a distal band measuring 0.5 to 3.0 mm that is pink to brown in color
•• This finding is associated with advancing age and a variety of medical conditions, including type 2 diabetes mellitus,
congestive heart failure, chronic renal failure, and cirrhosis
•• In young patients, this finding should prompt one to think of serious underlying pathology
•• In elderly patients, the finding is usually incidental.
Dermatology 403
IMPORTANT DERMATOLOGICAL TESTS

KOH Preparation
A potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation is performed on scaling skin lesions when a fungal etiology is suspected. When the
preparation is viewed under the microscope, the refractile hyphae will be seen more easily when the light intensity is reduced. This
technique can be utilized to:
•• Identify ‘hyphae’ in dermatophyte infections,
•• ‘Pseudohyphae’ and ‘budding yeast’ in Candida infections,
•• ‘Fragmented hyphae and spores’ in tinea versicolor.
Diascopy
Diascopy is designed to assess whether a skin lesion will blanch with pressure as, for example, in determining whether a red lesion is
hemorrhagic or simply blood-filled. A hemangioma will blanch with pressure, whereas a purpuric lesion caused by necrotizing
vasculitis will not
Diascopy is performed by pressing a microscope slide or magnifying lens against a specified lesion and noting the amount of blanching
that occurs. Granulomas often have an ‘apple jelly’ appearance on diascopy.
Wood’s Light
A Wood’s lamp generates 360-nm ultraviolet (or ‘black’) light that can be used to aid the evaluation of certain skin disorders
Wood’s lamp filter is made of nickel and silica
Wood’s lamp will cause erythrasma (a superficial, intertriginous infection caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum) to show a
characteristic coral red color
Wounds colonized by Pseudomonas to appear pale blue
Tinea capitis caused by certain dermatophytes such as Microsporum canis or M audouinii exhibits a yellow fluorescence
Pigmented lesions of the epidermis such as freckles are accentuated, dermal pigment such as postinflammatory hyperpigmentation
fades under a Wood’s light
Vitiligo appears totally white under a Wood’s lamp, and previously unsuspected areas of involvement often become apparent
A Wood’s lamp may also aid in the demonstration of tinea versicolor and in recognition of ash leaf spots in patients with tuberous
sclerosis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old man from Chicag had multiple, small hypopigmented macules on the upper chest and back for the last three
months. The macules were circular, arranged around follicles and many had coalesced to form large sheets. The surface of
the macules showed fine scaling. He had similar lesions one year ago which subsided with treatment. The most appropriate
investigation to confirm the diagnosis is:
1. Potassium hydroxide preparation of scales
2. Slit skin smear from discrete macules
3. Tzanck test
4. Skin biopsy of coalesced macules
Ans. 1. Potassium hydroxide preparation of scales
USMLE Case Scenario

A 62-year-old female with severe bronchial asthma presents with white patches on the inside of the cheeks that can be easily
wiped off, leaving a red, bleeding, sore surface. He is currently using beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers for his Asthma:
The patient most likely has: Oral candidiasis
Candidiasis may be divided into the following types

•• Oral candidiasis
•• Perlèche (around mouth)
•• Candidal vulvovaginitis
•• Candidal intertrigo
•• Diaper candidiasis
•• Perianal candidiasis
•• Candidal paronychia
•• Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica
•• Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
•• Systemic candidiasis
Cutaneous Manifestations of SLE

•• The malar (‘butterfly’) rash is a photosensitive, fixed erythematous rash, flat or raised, over the cheeks and bridge of the nose,
often involving the chin and ears
•• Scarring is absent; telangiectases may develop
•• A more diffuse maculopapular rash, predominant in sun-exposed areas, is also common and usually indicates disease flare
•• Loss of scalp hair is usually patchy but can be extensive
•• Patients with SLE can develop vasculitic skin lesions. These include purpura, subcutaneous nodules, nail fold infarcts, ulcers,
vasculitic urticaria, panniculitis and gangrene of digits. Shallow, slightly painful ulcers in the mouth and nose are frequent in
patients with SLE
•• Steroids are used in pregnancy for erythematous rashes.
Tuberculosis of Skin
Lupus vulgaris:
•• It is skin TB with no underlying active focus
•• MC type of cutaneous TB
•• Form of cutaneous TB common in children and young adults
•• Feature is indurated plaque, annular in shape
•• Heals with scarring Blanching with glass slide (diascopy) reveals grey or green foci (Apple jelly nodules)
Scrofulodema:
It is skin TB secondary to involvement of underlying structure, e.g. joint, lymph node
Tuberculosis Verrucosa cutis
TB bacillus here is inoculated into skin and seen in TB patient, Pathologists, Veterinary surgeons
It is a form of post primary tuberculosis with good resistance
Tuberculosis cutis orifacialis
TB of orifices as oral cavity, anal canal, urogenital tract. Other lesions noted are:
–– Acne agminata
–– Erythema induratum
–– Erythema nodosum
–– Rosea like lesions
•• Tuberculids is hypersensitivity reaction to Mycobacterium. Tuberculosis where evidence of etiology is not definite but shows
tubercular granuloma in histology and positive response to antitubercular treatment. Seen in
•• Lichen scrofulosorum
•• Erythema nodosum
Dermatology 405
Dermatological Diseases Caused by Staph Aureus Causes

•• SSSS (Staphyloccocal scalded skin syndrome)
•• Reiter’s disease (SSSS in newborn)
•• Lyell’s disease or TEN (SSSS in older children)
•• Bullous Impetigo/Impetigo contagiosa
•• Osteomyelitis
•• Carbuncles
•• Furuncles or Boils
•• Sycosis barbae and Sycosis Nuchae (Nuchal region)
Basic Terms in Dermatological Pathology

•• Hyperkeratosis: Hyperplasia of the stratum corneum, often associated with a qualitative abnormality of the keratin Parakeratosis:
Mode(s) of keratinization characterized by retention of the nuclei in the stratum corneum; on mucosal membranes, parakeratosis
is normal
•• Acanthosis: Epidermal hyperplasia preferentially involving the stratum spinosum
•• Dyskeratosis: Abnormal keratinization occurring prematurely within individual cells or groups of cells below the stratum
granulosum
•• Acantholysis: Loss of intercellular connections resulting in lack of cohesion between keratinocytes
•• Papillomatosis: Hyperplasia of the papillary dermis with elongation and/or widening of the dermal papillae
•• Lentiginous: Refers to a linear pattern of melanocyte proliferation within the epidermal basal cell layer; lentiginous melanocytic
hyperplasia can occur as a reactive change or as part of a neoplasm of melanocytes
•• Spongiosis: Intercellular edema of the epidermis.
Remember: (Disease Associations)

•• Casals necklace Pellagra
•• Iris pearls Leprosy
•• Liver spots Senility
•• Crocodile skin Icthyosis
•• Caynee pepper stippling Plasma cell balanitis of Zoon
•• Calcinosis cutis Scleroderma
•• Berloque dermatitis Cosmetics
Repeated NAMES
•• Candida albicans — Yeast like fungi
•• Histoplasma capsulatum — Darling’s disease
•• Aspergillus — Fungus ball disease
•• Coccoides immitis — Desert rheumatism
•• Obstruction of pilosebaceous gland leads to: Acne vulgaris

•• Obstruction of sweat gland leads to: Crystalline miliaria
•• Obstruction of Apocrine gland leads to: Fox Fordyce disease
•• Obstruction of hair root leads to: Furuncle
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old man, presented with subcutaneous itchy nodules over the left iliac crest. On examination they are firm, non-
tender and mobile. Skin scrapping contains microfilaria and adults worms. Most likely cause is:
1. A duodenale
2. H nana
3. Onchocerca volvulus
4. Tinea
5. Trichomonas
6. Gardenella
Ans. 3. Onchocerca volvulus
USMLE Case Scenario

An adult presents with oval scaly hypopigmented macule over the chest and the back. The diagnosis is:
1. Atopic Eczema
2. Lichen planus
3. Acne
4. Psoriasis
5. Pemphigus
6. Tinea corporis
7. Tinea cruris
8. Pityriasis versicolor
Ans. 8. Pityriasis versicolor
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient presents with scarring Alopecia, thinned nails, hypopigmented macular lesions over trunk and oral mucosa. The
diagnosis is:
1. Oral submucosal fibrosis
2. Actinic keratosis
3. Cholinergic urticaria
4. Atopic Eczema
5. Lichen planus
6. Acne
7. Psoriasis
8. Pemphigus
10. Scabies
Ans. 5. Lichen Planus
USMLE Case Scenario

A child has multiple itchy papular lesions on the genitalia and fingers. Similar lesions are also seen in younger brother. Most
possible diagnosis is:
1. Atopic Eczema
2. Lichen planus
3. Acne
4. Psoriasis
5. Pemphigus
7. Scabies
Ans. 7. Scabies
Dermatology 407
USMLE Case Scenario

A 27-year-old male had burning micturition and urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both the
knees and ankles, redness of the eye and skin lesion. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
1. Vogt Harada Syndrome
2. Caplan’s Syndrome
3. Felty’s Syndrome
4. Sjögren’s Syndrome
5. Reiter’s Syndrome
6. Behçet’s Syndrome
Ans. 5. Reiter’s Syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A child with fever presents with multiple tender erythematous skin lesions. On microscopic examination the skin lesions are
seen to have neutrophilic and histiocytic infiltration in the dermis. The diagnosis is:
1. Sweet’s syndrome
2. Erythema nodosum
4. Cystic fibrosis
5. Lichen planus
7. Acne Rosacea
Ans.1. Sweet’s Syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old abruptly develops an intensely itchy rash. Physical examination demonstrates multiple erythematous patches
of the distal arms and legs. Some of the patches show central clearing with surrounding erythematous rings. Which of the
1. Erythema nodosum
USMLE Case Scenario

A 36-year-old mother of two children in Washington presented with a generalized, blistering rash of 4 weeks’ duration with
her trunk mainly affected. On fine examination, there was extensive blistering and large areas of denuded skin. Ulcers were
also present in her mouth. Direct immunofluorescent examination of a biopsy of normal skin taken from a site adjacent to one
bulla showed deposition of IgG around the keratinocytes. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pemphigoid
2. Lichen planus
3. Tinea versicolor
4. Psoriasis
5. Pemphigus
6. Hailey-Hailey disease
Ans. 5. Pemphigus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old boy, presented with a 6 month history of recurrent episodes of swelling of his lips, eyes and tongue. The swellings
came on suddenly, grew over a period of 15 to 25 min, and lasted from 10 to 48 hours. Urticaria was absent. Hereditary
angioedema is diagnosed. Blood samples taken for complement analysis would show:
1. Both the C3 concentration and C4 level extremely elevated
2. The C3 concentration decreased but the C4 level extremely elevated
3. The C3 concentration and the C4 level normal
4. The C3 concentration unchanged but the C4 level was extremely low
Ans. 4. The C3 concentration unchanged but the C4 level was extremely low
USMLE Case Scenario

A 42-year-old female presents to New York Central Hospital with painful oral ulcers. Physical examination demonstrates
widespread erosions of her mucous membranes. Dermatological examination reveals a friable mucosa. Biopsy of perilesional
mucosa demonstrates acantholysis; direct immunofluorescence demonstrates an intraepidermal band of IgG and C3. The
1. Bullous pemphigoid
2. Dermatitis herpetiformis
3. Herpes simplex I
4. Pemphigus vulgaris
Ans. 4. Pemphigus vulgaris
USMLE Case Scenario

Cells similar to fibroblasts are seen growing in a storiform (‘pinwheel’) pattern. This pattern of cells is characteristic of:
1. Leiomyosarcoma
3. Keratocanthoma
4. Dermatofibrosarcoma
Ans. 4. Dermatofibrosarcoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old male presents to the dermatologist with pain in the joints along with silvery, scaling plaques on his elbows and
knees. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acne vulgaris
3. Psoriasis vulgaris
4. Pemphigoid
Ans. 3. Psoriasis vulgaris
USMLE Case Scenario

Wickham’s striae is seen in:
1. Lichen nitidus
2. Psoriasis
3. Pityriasis rosea
4. Lichen planus
5. Psoriasis
6. SSSS
Ans. 4. Lichen planus
Dermatology 409
USMLE Case Scenario

A pathologist from Mexico reports the presence of koilocytes in a cervical biopsy from a 22-year-old woman. Which of the
following conditions does this patient most likely have?
3. Herpes simplex virus infection
4. Human papillomavirus infection
Ans. 4. Human papillomavirus infection
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old man had multiple, small hypopigmented macules on the upper chest and back for the last three months. The
macules were circular, arranged around follicles and many had coalesced to form large sheets. The surface of the macules
showed fine scaling. He had similar lesions one year ago which subsided with treatment. The most appropriate investigation
to confirm the diagnosis is:
3. Tzanck test
USMLE Case Scenario

A 88-year-old man on steroids for last 5 years comes to the physician because of a 5-day history of right-sided chest pain. He
denies any shortness of breath. Physical examination shows a unilateral, erythematous, maculopapular rash extending from
the anterior chest wall around to the back along the sixth intercostal spaces. Most likely presentation would resemble:
1. Dome-shaped papules with central umbilication
2. Expanding annular lesion without central clearing
3. Expanding annular lesion with central clearing
4. Denuded skin all over
5. ‘Slapped-cheek’ appearance and a lacy reticular rash
6. Vesicles at various stages of evolution
Ans. 6. Vesicles at various stages of evolution
This patient has herpes zoster, which is a reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) that was dormant in the dorsal root
ganglion.
USMLE Case Scenario

Patch test is done to document:
1. Type I hypersensitivity
2. Delayed type hypersensitivity
3. Autoimmune disease
4. Immunocomplex deposition
Ans. 2. Delayed type hypersensitivity
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following shows deposition of IgA in dermal papilla?
2. IgA papillomatosis of childhood
4. Gestational herpes
Ans. 1. Dermatitis herpetiformis
USMLE Case Scenario

Intraepidermal IgG deposition is seen in:
1. Pemphigus
3. Herpes genitalis
4. Psoriasis
Ans. 1. Pemphigus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old person suffers from B27 associated reactive arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis. Which is most likely organism
involved in this case?
1. Borrelia burgdorferi
2. Ureaplasma urealyticum
3. Betahemolytic streptococci
4. Streptococcus bovis
Ans. 2. Ureaplasma urealyticum
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man presented with decreasing vision and painful swollen knees. He had a six year history of relapsing and
remitting mouth ulcers and frequent episodes of genital ulceration. On examination he had retinal vasculitis, few mouth
ulcers and synovitis in both knees. Investigations show a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate at 99 mm/h but a normal
blood count and negative tests for rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibodies, cytomegalovirus and HIV infection. A clinical
diagnosis suggests:
1. Reiters syndrome
4. Pseudogout
6. Polymyalgia
Ans. 7. Behçet’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old woman after presented to a medical practitioner with a three and a half-week history of an acute rash which
started beneath her watch. Two weeks later, a further patch appeared at the umbilicus. She had previously noted that she
could not wear cheap earrings without triggering a rash on her ear lobes. There was no past medical history of note and no
personal or family history of atopy. On examination, two patches of dermatitis were seen over the presenting areas. The
appearances are suggestive of:
1. Atopic dermatitis
2. Urticaria
3. Angioedema
4. Nonspecific dermatitis
5. Photosensitivity
6. Hay fever
8. Idiosyncrasy
Ans. 7. Contact dermatitis
Dermatology 411
USMLE Case Scenario

Herald patch is seen in:
1. Pityriasis vesicolor
2. Pityriasis alba
3. Pityriasis rosea
4. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
5. Eczema
6. Sweet’s Syndrome
7. Psoriasis
Ans. 3. Pityriasis rosea
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old woman presented with a six month history of erythema and swelling of the periorbital region and papules and
plaques on the dorsolateral aspect of forearms and knuckles with ragged cuticles. There was no muscle weakness. The most
1. Dermatomyositis
2. Polymyositis
3. SLE
Ans. 1. Dermatomyositis
USMLE Case Scenario

Keratoderma blennorrhagicum is seen in:
1. Psoriasis
3. Syphilis
4. Disseminated gonococcal infection
Ans. 2. Reiter’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A pathologist describes a lesion where there is marked epidermal thickening (acanthosis), with regular downward elongation
of the rete ridges. Increased epidermal cell turnover and lack of maturation results in loss of the stratum granulosum with
extensive overlying parakeratotic scale. There is thinning of the epidermal cell layer. Neutrophils form small aggregates within
both the spongiotic superficial epidermis (pustules of Kogoj) and the parakeratotic stratum corneum (Munro microabscesses).
Most likely lesion is:
1. Lichen planus
2. Solar keratosis
3. Carcinoma in situ skin
4. Psoriasis
5. Pemphigus
6. Pemphigoid
Ans. 4. Psoriasis
USMLE Case Scenario

Erythema multiforme is mediated by:
1. IgE antibodies
2. Nonantigen specific T cells
3. Antigen nonspecific T cells

4. Antigen specific T cells
5. Nonantigen specific B cells
6. Antigen nonspecific B cells
7. Antigen specific B cells
Ans. 4. Antigen specific T cells
There are many specific inflammatory dermatoses; they may be mediated by IgE antibodies (urticaria), antigen specific T cells
(eczema, erythema multiforme, and psoriasis), and trauma (lichen simplex chronicus).
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of Bronchial asthma. Diagnosis
should be:
1. Atopic dermatitis
3. Seborrheic dermatitis
4. Infantile eczematous dermatitis
Ans. 1. Atopic dermatitis
USMLE Case Scenario

Pemphigus is a rare autoimmune blistering disorder resulting from loss of integrity of normal intercellular attachments within
the epidermis and mucosal epithelium. Most individuals who develop pemphigus are middle-aged and older. Pemphigus
vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus are caused by a:
1. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
2. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
3. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
4. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Ans. 2. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
USMLE Case Scenario

Max. Joseph’s space is a histopathological feature of:
2. Lichen planus
3. Pityriasis rosea
4. Parapsoriasis
USMLE Case Scenario

Ivermectin in indicated in the treatment of:
1. Syphilis
2. Scabies
3. Tuberculosis
4. Dermatophytosis
5. Psoriasis
Ans. 2. Scabies
USMLE Case Scenario

Darrier’s sign is seen in:
1. Darrier’s disease
2. Urticaria pigmentosa
Dermatology 413
4. Lichen planus
5. Eryhthema multiforme
Ans. 2. Urticaria pigmentosa
USMLE Case Scenario

Airborne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
1. Skin biopsy
2. Patch test
3. Prick test
4. Estimation of serum IgE levels
Ans. 2. Patch Test
USMLE Case Scenario

Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease in which the characteristic finding is linear deposition of IgG antibodies and
complement in the basement membrane zone. Reactivity also occurs in the basal cell-basement membrane attachment
plaques (hemidesmosomes), where most of the bullous pemphigoid antigen (BPAG) is located. Early lesions show a
perivascular infiltrate of lymphocytes and variable numbers of eosinophils, occasional neutrophils, superficial dermal edema,
and associated basal cell layer vacuolization. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by a:
Epidermal, nonacantholytic blister
1. Epidermal, acantholytic blister
2. Subepidermal, acantholytic blister
3. Subepidermal, nonacantholytic blister
Ans. 3. Subepidermal, nonacantholytic blister
USMLE Case Scenario

In an 8-day-old child with no history of consanguinity in the parents, the mother reports blisters and bleeding off of the skin
at the site of handling and pressure. There was a similar history in the previous child which proved to be fatal. The diagnosis is:
1. Pemphigoid
2. Pemphigus
3. Psoriasis
4. Congenital epidermolysis bullosa
5. Sweet’s syndrome
Ans. 4. Congenital epidermolysis bullosa
USMLE Case Scenario

Impetigo is primarily seen in children but can sometimes affect adults. The disease often begins as a single small macule that
rapidly evolves into a larger lesion with a ‘honey-colored crust’. The disease involves direct contact, usually with:
1. Staphylococcus epidermis, or less commonly Streptococcus pyogenes
2. Staphylococcus aureus, or less commonly Streptococcus pneumonaie
3. Staphylococcus aureus, or less commonly Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Streptococcus or less commonly pseudomonas
Ans. 3. Staphylococcus aureus, or less commonly Streptococcus pyogenes
USMLE Case Scenario

Pautrier’s micro-abscess is a histological feature of:
1. Sarcoidosis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Mycosis fungoides
4. Pityriasis lichenoides chronica
Ans. 3. Mycosis fungoides
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with a superficial cellulitis of the skin with marked lymphatic involvement, caused by beta-hemolytic group
A streptococci beginning with an area of redness and enlarges to form the typical tense, painful, bright red, shiny, brawny
infiltrated plaque with a well demarcated, distinct, and slightly raised border. Most likely the diagnosis is:
1. Botromycosis
2. Gangrene
3. Rodent ulcer
4. Varicose ulcer
5. SSSS
6. Erysipelas
Ans. 6. Erysipelas
USMLE Case Scenario

Lucio phenomenon is a widespread diffuse infiltration of the skin with secondary alopecia of the hair, eyebrows and eyelashes,
and generalized sensory loss. The patients are systemically ill with fever, chills, malaise, arthralgias, myalgias, and tender
cutaneous lesions that are responsive to steroids but not to thalidomide. Lucio phenomenon is usually associated with:
1. Mycoplasma
2. Chlamydia
3. Mycobacterium avium
4. Mycobacterium africanum
6. Mycobacterium leprae
Ans. 6. Mycobacterium leprae
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old presents with a painful ulcer in mouth. She presented to ophthamologist and gynecologist two days back for
uveitis and ulcer on genital respectively. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Herpe’s simplex infection
2. Rieter’s disease
4. Sjögren’s disease
Ans. 3. Behçet’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

Clear vesicles with red base developing into macules on palms and soles in a patient with Rieter’s syndrome are:
1. Pompholyx
2. Keratoderma
3. Circanate balanitis
4. Herpes Zoster
Ans. 2. Keratoderma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 27-year-old male had burning micturition and urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both the
knees and ankles, redness of the eye and skin lesion. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
Dermatology 415
4. Sarcoidosis
Ans. 2. Reiter’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 88-year-old man has an indolent, nonhealing ulcer at the heel of the right foot for several weeks. He is obese and has varicose
veins, high cholesterol, and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient began wearing a new pair of shoes shortly
before the ulcer started and noticed a blister as the first anomaly at the site where the ulcer eventually developed. The ulcer
is 2.6 cm in diameter, the ulcer base looks dirty, and there is hardly any granulation tissue. The skin around the ulcer looks
normal. The patient has no sensation to pin prick anywhere in that foot. Peripheral pulses are weak but palpable. Which of the
following most accurately characterizes the ulcer?
1. Ischemic ulcer due to arteriosclerosis
2. Ischemic ulcer due to embolization
5. Stasis ulcer due to venous insufficiency
6. Diabetic ulcer
Ans. 6. Diabetic ulcer
USMLE Case Scenario

Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for Dermatitis Herpetiformis?
1. Corticosteroids
2. Dapsone
3. Methotrexate
4. Retinoids
Ans. 2. Dapsone
USMLE Case Scenario

A dermatologist describes lesions which are very common in fair-skinned individuals, are usually less than 1 cm in diameter;
tan-brown, red, or skin colored; and have a rough, sandpaper-like consistency, there is a predilection for sun-exposed areas
(face, arms, dorsum of the hands), and the lesions accumulate with age and degree of sun exposure. They can infrequently
progress to carcinoma in situ as well. Most likely lesion is:
1. Lupus vulgaris
2. Scrofuloderma
3. Actinic keratosis
4. Scarlet fever
5. Hansen’s disease
Ans. 3. Actinic keratosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-year-old boy who visited India and returned to USA after one year had a gradually progressive plaque on a buttock
for the last 3 years. The plaque was 15 cm in diameter, annular in shape, with crusting and induration at the periphery and
scarring at the center. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Tinea corporis
2. Granuloma annulare
3. Lupus vulgaris
4. Borderline leprosy
Ans. 3. Lupus vulgaris
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old man from Chicago had multiple, small hypopigmented macules on the upper chest and back for the last three
months. The macules were circular, arranged around follicles and many had coalesced to form large sheets. The surface of
the macules showed fine scaling. He had similar lesions one-year-ago which subsided with treatment. The most appropriate
investigation to confirm the diagnosis is:
3. Tzanck test
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old male from Indian subcontinent had multiple hypoesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated
margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable
diagnosis is:
1. Leprosy
2. Polio
3. Tuberculosis
4. Brucellosis
5. Lichen planus
Ans. 1. Leprosy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 24-year-old female from New Texas seeks a dermatologists opinion. She has flaccid bullae in the skin and oral erosions.
Histopathology shows intraepidermal acantholytic blister. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pemphigoid
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old male with a 10-year history of treatment with steroids has developed multiple grouped vesicular lesions present
on the T10 segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Herpes zoster
3. Herpes simplex
4. Scabies
Ans. 1. Herpes zoster
Dermatology 417
USMLE Case Scenario

Lichen planus shows well developed changes of chronicity: epidermal hyperplasia, hypergranulosis, and hyperkeratosis.
Anucleate, necrotic basal cells are seen in the inflamed papillary dermis and are referred to as:
1. Micro munro abscesses
2. Pautrier’s abscesses
3. Civatte bodies
4. Torre’s bodies
Ans. 3. Civatte bodies
USMLE Case Scenario

Hyperplasia of the papillary dermis with elongation and/or widening of the dermal papillae is known as:
1. Acantholysis
2. Acanthosis
3. Hyperkeratosis
4. Papillomatosis
Ans. 4. Papillomatosis
•• Hyperkeratosis: Hyperplasia of the stratum corneum, often associated with a qualitative abnormality of the keratin
•• Parakeratosis: Mode (s) of keratinization characterized by retention of the nuclei in the stratum corneum; on mucosal membranes,
parakeratosis is normal
•• Acanthosis: Epidermal hyperplasia preferentially involving the stratum spinosum
•• Dyskeratosis: Abnormal keratinization occurring prematurely within individual cells or groups of cells below the stratum
granulosum
•• Acantholysis: Loss of intercellular connections resulting in lack of cohesion between keratinocytes
•• Papillomatosis: Hyperplasia of the papillary dermis with elongation and/or widening of the dermal papillae
•• Lentiginous: Refers to a linear pattern of melanocyte proliferation within the epidermal basal cell layer; lentiginous melanocytic
hyperplasia can occur as a reactive change or as part of a neoplasm of melanocytes
•• Spongiosis: Intercellular edema of the epidermis.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old abruptly develops an intensely itchy rash. Physical examination demonstrates multiple erythematous patches
of the distal arms and legs. Some of the patches show central clearing with surrounding erythematous rings. Which of the
1. Erythema nodosum
USMLE Case Scenario

A 42-year-old female presents to New York Central Hospital with painful oral ulcers. Physical examination demonstrates
widespread erosions of her mucous membranes. Dermatological examination reveals a friable mucosa. Biopsy of perilesional
mucosa demonstrates acantholysis; direct immunofluorescence demonstrates an intraepidermal band of IgG and C3. The
3. Herpes simplex I
USMLE Case Scenario

Cells similar to fibroblasts are seen growing in a storiform (‘pinwheel’) pattern. This pattern of cells is characteristic of:
1. Leiomyosarcoma
3. Keratocanthoma
4. Dermatofibrosarcoma
Ans. 4. Dermatofibrosarcoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old male presents to the dermatologist with pain in the joints along with silvery, scaling plaques on his elbows and
knees. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acne vulgaris
4. Pemphigoid
Ans. 3. Psoriasis vulgaris
USMLE Case Scenario

A pathologist from Mexico reports the presence of koilocytes in a cervical biopsy from a 22-year-old woman. Which of the
following conditions does this patient most likely have?
3. Herpes simplex virus infection
4. Human papillomavirus infection
Ans. 4. Human papillomavirus infection
USMLE Case Scenario

Some genetically predisposed individuals develop antibodies to dietary gluten (derived from the wheat protein gliadin). The
antibodies cross-react with reticulin, a component of the anchoring fibrils that tether the epidermal basement membrane to
the superficial dermis. The resultant injury and inflammation produce a subepidermal blister. The antibodies are:
1. IgG antibodies
2. IgA antibodies
3. IgM antibodies
4. IgD antibodies
5. IgE antibodies
Ans. 2. IgA antibodies
USMLE Case Scenario

A 53-year-old female has intense pruritis over bilaterally symmetrical lesions. Patient uses the terms ‘coin-shaped’ or ‘discoid’
are used to describe skin lesions. Microscopically, the dominant feature is a localized spongiosis of the epidermis, containing
minute fluid-filled holes that correspond to the tiny vesicles seen clinically in early lesions. Patient gets relief with high
potency steroids. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Psoriasis
2. Pompholyx
3. Pemphigus vegetans
4. Nummular Eczema
5. Seborrhea
Ans. 4. Nummular Eczema
Dermatology 419
USMLE Case Scenario

A pathologist describes a lesion in which there is thinning of the epidermal cell layer overlying the tips of dermal papillae
(suprapapillary plates) and blood vessels within the papillae are dilated and tortuous. These vessels bleed readily when the
scale is removed, giving rise to multiple punctate bleeding points. This sign is called as:
1. Trousseau’s sign
2. Chvosteks sign
3. Grey Turner’s sign
4. Auspitz sign
5. Troises sign
Ans. 4. Auspitz sign
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old man came to see an immunologist who has noted several 1 to 2 cm reddish purple, nodular lesions present on
the skin of his right arm which have increased in size and number over the past 3 months. The lesions do not itch and are not
painful. He has had a watery diarrhea for the past month. On physical examination, he has generalized lymphadenopathy and
oral thrush. Which of the following infections is most likely to be related to the appearance of these skin lesions?
1. Candida albicans
2. Human herpesvirus 8
5. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Ans. 2. Human herpesvirus 8
USMLE Case Scenario

Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, presents with a red macule or papule at the site of the tick bite. The initial
lesion slowly expands to form a large annular lesion with a red border and central clearing. The lesion is warm, but usually not
painful. This initial lesion is called as:
1. Erythema nodosum
2. Erythema gyrum repens
5. Erythema ab igne
Ans. 3. Erythema chronicum migrans
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old boy presents to a dermatology clinic with scarring Alopecia, thinned nails, hypopigmented macular lesions
over trunk and oral mucosa. The diagnosis is:
1. Psoriasis
2. Leprosy
3. Lichen planus
4. Pemphigus
5. Tuberculosis of skin
6. Lichen nitidus
USMLE Case Scenario

Celiac disease has association with:
1. Herpes simplex virus
2. Herpes zoster virus
3. Ramsay hunt syndrome

4. Dermatitis
Ans. 5. Dermatitis herpetiformis
USMLE Case Scenario

The characteristic Nail finding in lichen planus is:
1. Pitting
2. Pterygium
3. Beau’s lines
4. Hyperpigmentation of the Nails
Ans. 2. Pterygium
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old farmer from Rural America with a history of recurrent attacks of porphyria complains of itching when exposes
to the sun and maculopapular rash on sun exposed areas, his symptoms are exaggerated in the summer. The diagnosis is:
1. Seborrheic dermatitis
3. Psoriasis
4. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Ans. 4. Porphyria cutanea tarda
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old woman presents to a dermatology clinic. She has lost most of the hair on her body, including scalp, eyebrows,
eyelashes, axilla and groin hair, and the fine hairs on her body and extremities. She most likely has a variant of which of the
following?
1. Alopecia areata
2. Androgenic alopecia
3. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
4. Lichen planus
5. Trichotillomania
Ans. 1. Alopecia areata
It is caused by an autoimmune attack on hair follicles.
SURGERY
Surgery 5
Fluids
•• Water constitutes between 50% and 70% of total body weight
•• The water of the body is divided into three functional compartments
•• The intracellular water represents between 30% and 40% of body weight
•• The extracellular water represents approximately 20% of body weight and is divided between intravascular fluid, or plasma (5%
of body weight) and interstitial, or extravascular, extracellular fluid (15% of body weight)
•• Intracellular fluid. Measurement of intracellular fluid (ICF) is determined indirectly by subtraction of the measured extracellular
fluid (ECF) from the measured total body water. The intracellular water is between 30% and 40% of body weight, with the
largest proportion in the skeletal muscle mass. Because of the smaller muscle mass in the female, the percentage of intracellular
water is lower than in the male. The chemical composition of ICF with potassium and magnesium as the principal cations, and
phosphates and proteins as the principal anions
•• Extracellular fluid. The total ECF volume represents approximately 20% of body weight. The ECF compartment has two major
subdivisions. The plasma volume is approximately 5% of body weight in the normal adult. The interstitial, or extravascular,
ECF volume, obtained by subtracting the plasma volume from the measured total ECF volume, accounts for approximately 15%
of body weight
•• The interstitial fluid is further complicated by having a rapidly equilibrating or functional component as well as several more
slowly equilibrating, or relatively nonfunctioning, components. The nonfunctioning components include connective tissue water
as well as transcellular water, which includes cerebrospinal and joint fluids. This nonfunctional component normally represents
only 10% of interstitial fluid volume (1%–2% of body weight) and is not to be confused with the relatively nonfunctional ECF, often
called a third space, found in burns and soft tissue injuries
•• The normal constituents of ECF are with sodium as the principal cation and chloride and bicarbonate as the principal anions.
Congenital Vascular Malformations

Hemangioma: Malformation of the developing blood vessels. They commonly appear in the skin but may develop in any organ
Strawberry nevus
•• Usually appear at about a week of age and may rapidly enlarge in the first few months of life
•• Usually resolve spontaneously by intravascular thrombosis
•• This process is normally complete by 5 to 7 years of age leaving only a minor blemish or none at all.
Stork mark
•• It is a superficial capillary hemangioma which may be seen on the forehead, bridge of the nose and upper eyelids. The lesion is
often V-shaped pointing down to the nose and there is a corresponding mark on the nape of the neck
•• Capillary hemangiomas are bright red to blue and vary from a few millimeters to several centimeters in diameter; hemangiomas
can be level with the surface of the skin or slightly elevated and have an intact overlying epithelium.
Port-wine stain (Nevus flammeus)
•• Unlike a strawberry nevus, this is present at birth and may be very disfiguring, as it becomes darker and increasingly nodular with
age
•• Persists (P for P)
•• Port-wine stains are vascular malformations on the skin, and most commonly occur on the face. Over time, port-wine stains darken
and pose psychological stress to the affected person because of cosmetic reasons. Port-wine stains rarely disappear on their own,
and the most effective therapy is pulsed dye laser. Pulsed dye laser reduces the size of most port-wine stains, and in some cases,
can eradicate the stain completely. Factors affecting the response to pulsed dye laser include location, timing, and size. Smaller
port-wine stains respond better than the bigger ones. The earlier the treatment takes place, the better the response.
Sturge-Weber syndrome
•• It is a severe form of port-wine stain on the scalp and face, in the distribution of one of the branches of the trigeminal nerve,
associated with an underlying vascular anomaly of the arachnoid covering the cerebral hemisphere
•• This leads to epilepsy, hemiplegia and mental retardation.
Cavernous hemangioma
These may occur alone or in association with a capillary lesion in the overlying skin. They increase in size after birth but usually in
proportion to the growth of the infant. Most resolve spontaneously but some persist requiring excision
Grossly, cavernous hemangiomas appear as red-blue, soft, spongy masses 1 to 2 cm in diameter; rare giant forms can affect large
subcutaneous areas of the face, extremities, or other body regions. Histologically, the mass is sharply defined but not encapsulated,
and it is composed of large, cavernous blood-filled vascular spaces separated by a mild-to-moderate amount of connective tissue
stroma. Intravascular thrombosis with associated dystrophic calcification is common.
Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
Hemangiomas associated with a generalized bleeding disorder caused by the trapping of platelets within them which produces a
profound thrombocytopenia.
Lymphangioma
•• Lymphagioma are similar to hemangiomas but involve lymphatics. They may also occur anywhere in the body but, in particular,
they may present as a cystic hygroma
•• Most commonly arising in the cervical region.
Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome
•• Congenital AV fistulas
•• Hemangiomas
•• Varicose veins
•• Hypertrophy of limbs
Other Conditions Related to Vascular System

Vascular Ectasias
•• Vascular ectasias are common lesions characterized by local dilation of pre-existing vessels; they are not true neoplasms
Spider Telangiectasia
•• This non-neoplastic vascular lesion grossly resembles a spider; there is a radial, often pulsatile, array of dilated subcutaneous
arteries or arterioles (resembling legs) about a central core (resembling a body) that blanches when pressure is applied to its center
•• It is commonly seen on the face, neck, or upper chest and is most frequently associated with hyperestrogenic states, such as
pregnancy or cirrhosis.
Surgery 425
Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease)

•• In this autosomal dominant disorder, the telangiectasias are malformations composed of dilated capillaries and veins
•• Present from birth, they are widely distributed over the skin and oral mucous membranes, as well as in the respiratory, GI, and
urinary tracts. Occasionally, these lesions rupture, causing serious epistaxis (nosebleeds), GI bleeding, or hematuria
Hemangiopericytomas
•• These are rare tumors derived from pericytes-myofibroblast-like cells that are normally arranged around capillaries and venules
•• Hemangiopericytomas can occur as slowly enlarging, painless masses at any anatomic site, but they are most common on the
lower extremities (especially the thigh) and in the retroperitoneum
•• They consist of numerous branching capillary channels and gaping sinusoidal spaces enclosed within nests of spindle-shaped to
round cells. The tumors may recur after excision, and roughly half metastasize, usually hematogenously to lungs, bone, or liver.
Aneurysms
•• The most common type of true aneurysm is fusiform type
•• The most common site of arterial aneurysm is Infrarenal part of abdominal aorta
•• Popliteal aneurysms are the most common peripheral aneurysms
•• The most common site for dissecting aneurysms is ascending aorta
•• MC cause of AAA is A: Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm is atherosclerosis
•• ‘Cirsoid aneurysms’ are common in superficial temporal artery
Types of Aneurysms
•• Berry aneurysm occurs in circle of willis
•• Microaneurysms are seen in diabetes and hypertension
•• Mycotic aneurysms are seen in bacterial infections
•• Aortic dissecting aneurysms are due to degeneration of tunica media. Occur in Marfan’s syndrome and hypertension
•• Syphilitic aneurysms or luetic aneurysms involve ascending aorta
•• Pseudoaneurysm follows trauma usually.
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

•• It is imperative to recognize the potential presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
•• The combination of the history of hypertension and smoking, the new back pain, and a pulsatile mass on examination is
highly suggestive for abdominal aneurysm
•• The back pain occurs as the expanding mass compresses structures in the retroperitoneum
•• It is particularly important to make the diagnosis because large aneurysms (greater than 5 cm in diameter) are associated
with a very high risk of rupture and subsequent mortality.
ARTERIAL DISEASES
Buerger’s Disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans)
Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease) is a distinctive disease that often leads to vascular insufficiency; it is characterized by
segmental, thrombosing acute and chronic inflammation of medium-sized and small arteries, principally the tibial and radial arteries,
with occasional secondary extension into extremity veins and nerves. Buerger disease is a condition that occurs almost exclusively in
heavy smokers of cigarettes, usually beginning before age 35.
•• Affects small and medium-sized arteries
•• Affects young
•• Affects smokers
•• Ankle pressure index is low here
–– Coldness and numbness of toes are the first sign
–– Xanthiol nicotinate is used for treatment
–– Lumbar sympathetectomy is done

–– Martorell’s sign is positive.
Raynaud’s disease: Affects arterioles. Features are Blanching, Dusky cyanosis, Red engorgement
Raynaud’s phenomenon is vasospastic condition of diverse etiology
Leriche’s syndrome is due to aortoiliac occlusion
Butcher’s thigh is due to injury to femoral artery in femoral triangle.
Thrombotic Obliteration of the Abdominal Aorta and Iliac Arteries

(LERICHE’S SYNDROME)
Chronic occlusion of the aortic bifurcation by thrombosis: It typically affects men 35 to 60 years of age
Characteristic symptoms of thrombotic occlusion of the terminal aorta include:
•• Extreme liability to fatigue of both lower limbs, described as a weariness rather than the typical intermittent claudication;
•• Symmetrical atrophy of both lower limbs without trophic changes in the skin or nails;
•• Pallor of the legs and feet; and
•• Inability to maintain a stable erection due to inadequate arterial flow to the penis from hypogastric arterial obstruction, thus
reducing the blood flow through the internal pudendal artery and its blood flow to the corpora cavernosa
–– The physical findings include absence of pulses in the abdominal aorta and in the arteries distally. The occlusion may involve
any portion of the abdominal aorta from the renal arteries distally
–– Surgical management: Although thromboendarterectomy with direct reconstitution of flow is appropriate in a few patients,
the majority of patients with occlusion of the abdominal aorta are managed by bypass grafts from the aorta to the iliac or,
more often, the common femoral arteries
–– It may be necessary to perform a thromboendarterectomy distal to the renal arteries to permit a patent lumen for the proximal
anastomosis.
Deep Venous Thrombosis

•• Most important consequences of this disorder are ‘pulmonary embolism’ and the ‘syndrome of chronic venous insufficiency’
•• Deep venous thrombosis of the iliac, femoral, or popliteal veins is suggested by unilateral leg swelling warmth, and erythema,
pain
•• Earliest sign is rise in temperature
•• Occurs less frequently in the upper extremity than in the lower extremity
–– The noninvasive test used most often to diagnose deep venous thrombosis is duplex venous ultrasonography
–– Impedance plethysmography measures changes in venous capacitance during physiologic maneuvers
–– It is much less sensitive for diagnosing deep venous thrombosis of the calves
–– Heparin is used for DVT prophylaxis
–– Thrombolytic therapy, bandaging arre effective
–– Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is another noninvasive means to detect deep vein thrombosis. Its diagnostic accuracy
for assessing proximal deep vein thrombosis is similar to that of duplex ultrasonography. It is useful in patients with suspected
thrombosis of the superior and inferior venae cavae or pelvic veins.
Signs of DVT
•• Hoffmann’s sign •• Forced dorsiflexion of ankle causes pain in calf
•• Moses’ sign •• Pain in calf on squeezing calf muscles
•• Pratt’s sign •• Lateral squeezing of calf muscles causes pain
•• Phlegmasia alba dolens •• Swollen leg (whitish) with edema and blanching
•• Phlegmasia cerulea dolens •• Painful (blue) leg
Surgery 427
Varicose Veins
•• These are dilated, tortuous superficial veins that result from defective structure and function of the valves of the saphenous veins, from
intrinsic weakness of the vein wall, from high intraluminal pressure, or, rarely, from arteriovenous fistulas
•• Primary varicose veins originate in the superficial system and occur two to three times as frequently in women as in men.
Approximately half of patients have a family history of varicose veins
•• Secondary varicose veins result from deep venous insufficiency and incompetent perforating veins or from deep venous
occlusion causing enlargement of superficial veins that are serving as collaterals
•• Varicose dilation renders the venous valves incompetent and leads to stasis, congestion, edema, pain, and thrombosis.
The most disabling sequelae include persistent edema in the extremity and secondary ischemic skin changes including stasis
dermatitis and ulcerations; poor wound healing and superimposed infections can become chronic varicose ulcers. Notably,
embolism from these superficial veins is very rare
•• Duplex imaging is gold standard
•• Varicose veins can usually be treated with conservative measures
–– External compression stockings provide a counterbalance to the hydrostatic pressure in the veins
–– Small symptomatic varicose veins can be treated with sclerotherapy, in which a sclerosing solution is injected into the
involved varicose vein and a compression bandage is applied
–– Ethanolamine oleate is used as sclerosant
–– Surgical therapy usually involves extensive ligation and stripping of the greater and lesser saphenous veins
–– Brodie Trendelenburg test demonstrates saphenofemoral incompetence
–– Ecchymosis is the most common complication of stripping
–– Cockett and Dodd’s operation is subfascial ligation operation.
Lymphatic Diseases
•• Lymphedema congenita •• Present at birth
•• Lymphedemapraecox •• Starts at puberty
•• Lymphedema tarda •• Starts at adulthood
•• Milroy’s disease •• Congenital lymphedema of familial type
Wounds and Tissue Repair

The types of healing are customarily divided into repair by first, second, or third intention
•• Primary or first intention healing occurs in closed wounds in which the edges are approximated, such as a clean skin incision closed
with sutures. The incisional defect re-epithelializes rapidly, and matrix deposition seals the defect
•• Second intention healing occurs when the wound edges are not apposed, such as an open punch skin biopsy wound, a
deep burn and an infected wound left open to granulate. Granulation tissue fills the wound, and the wound contracts and re-
epithelializes
•• Delayed primary or third intention healing occurs when an open wound is secondarily closed several days after injury. Such
a wound is initially left open because of gross contamination. A classic example is wound management after removal of a ruptured
appendix. After the peritoneum and fascia are closed to prevent evisceration, the skin and subcutaneous tissue are left open and
the wound is packed loosely with sterile moist gauze. The wound is closed several days later after the wound contamination has
markedly diminished.
A scar is loosely defined as an abnormal, disorganized collection of collagen following wound repair. The collagens are a large group of
triple-helix structural matrix proteins
•• Type I collagen is the major structural component of bones, skin, and tendons
•• Type II is found predominantly in cartilage
•• Type III is found in association with Type I, although the ratio varies in different tissues
•• Type IV is found in basement membranes in association with mucopolysaccharides and laminin
•• Type V is found in the cornea in association with Type III and is important in maintaining transparency.
Clinical Factors that Affect Wound Healing

Nutrition
•• Protein depletion impairs wound healing
•• Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency causes scurvy. In patients with this deficiency, wound healing is arrested during fibroplasia
•• Vitamin A (retinoic acid) requirements increase during injury. Severely injured patients require supplemental vitamin A to maintain
normal serum levels. Vitamin A also partially reverses the impaired healing in chronically steroid-treated patients
•• Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency impairs collagen cross-linking
•• Vitamin B1 (thiamine) and vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiencies cause syndromes associated with poor wound repair
•• Vitamin E has inhibitory role in wound healing
•• Deficiencies of trace metals such as zinc, copper and oxygen
•• Anemia, and↓ perfusion
–– Oxygen is required for successful inflammation, angiogenesis, epithelialization, and matrix deposition
–– Anemia
–– Diabetes mellitus and obesity
–– Corticosteroids, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy
–– Infection
Keloids
•• Keloids are made of dense connective tissue
•• Keloids are best treated by intrakeloidal injection of triamiclonolone
Feature Hypertrophic scar Keloid

•• Hereditary Not familial May be familial
•• Race No predilection Common in blacks
•• Sex No predilection Common in females
•• Borders Confined to wound Outgrow wound
•• Course Subsides Rarely subsides
May turn malignant
•• Does not extend beyond wound margin Recurrence common
•• Red, raised, tender Sternum mc site
•• Remodelling phase ↑ Appears after surgery in a few days
•• Where tension of skin is more
•• Best scars seen in old people Best treated by intralesional steroidal application
Excision and repair are even better
Wounds
Clean wound •• No violation of mucosa
•• No inflammation
•• No drains
•• No need of any prophylactic antibiotic, e.g. Varicose Vein Surgery
Elective Herniotomy
•• Violation of mucosa but no spillage
Clean contaminated wound •• Need of prophylactic antibiotic, e.g. Elective cholecystectomy
Surgery 429
Contaminated wound •• Pre-existing infection

•• Spillage of viscus contents
•• Need of prophylactic antibiotic, e.g. Appendicectomy
Grafting-related Terms
•• Imbibition: refers to absorption of nutrients into the graft
•• Inosculation: donor and recipient capillaries become aligned
•• Revascularization is completed by connecting vessels into arterioles and venules.
Skin grafts
•• Skin grafts are harvested from a donor site and transferred to a recipient site on which they must survive, a process known as
take
•• All skin grafts initially adhere to the recipient bed by the formation of fibrin. Oxygen and nutrients diffuse by a process known as
plasmatic imbibition to keep the graft alive
•• New blood vessels then grow from the recipient site and link up with dermal capillaries to re-establish a blood supply, a process
known as inosculation
•• Thin skin grafts are more likely to survive by imbibition and will revascularize readily and are, therefore, more likely to take than
thicker grafts.
Partial-thickness skin grafts (Thiersch graft)
•• Consist of epidermis and a variable thickness of dermis
•• Partial-thickness grafts are used to resurface relatively large areas of skin defect and are particularly useful in burns
Full-thickness grafts (Wolfe’s graft)
•• Consist of epidermis and all of the dermis
•• The donor site will not epithelialize and must be closed, usually directly. Full-thickness grafts are most commonly used in repairing
defects on the face.
Composite grafts
•• Consist of skin and some underlying tissue such as fat and cartilage
•• Again, donor sites must be closed directly. Composite grafts carry the highest risk of failure
Biologic Dressings
Viable cutaneous allograft is the biologic dressing of choice, against which all other available materials must be evaluated. In
the operating room using sterile technique, allograft skin is harvested from cadavers free of jaundice, cutaneous malignancy or
infection, and viral disease. The harvested grafts are spread on fine-mesh gauze that is thinly impregnated with petrolatum, placed in
sterile containers, and then refrigerated for up to 2 weeks. Alternatively, the tissue can be frozen using cryoprotective techniques. If
refrigerated, such tissue performs better as a biologic dressing the sooner it is used after harvest.
Cutaneous Allograft
•• Prevents wound desiccation
•• Promotes maturation of granulation tissue
•• Limits bacterial proliferation in the burn wound
•• Prevents exudative protein and red blood cell loss
•• Decreases wound pain, thereby facilitating movement of involved joints
•• Diminishes evaporative water loss from the burn wound surface, thus decreasing heat loss; and serves to protect tendons, vessels,
and nerves.
Lyophilized Allograft Skin

•• It has an indefinite shelf life
•• It is easily reconstituted
•• It shows less adherence to the wound than viable allograft skin, and
•• If harvested at too great a thickness, undergoes dermal-epidermal separation after application to the wound with subsequent desiccation
of the exposed dermis.
Cutaneous Xenografts
•• These are less effective as physiologic dressings and allow survival of greater numbers of subgraft bacteria, presumably because such
tissue is not vascularized by the host
•• Such tissues are not rejected in the true sense of the word but slough following necrosis.
Amnion
•• It is a physiologic dressing that is readily available and inexpensive
•• Since the amniotic tissue will desiccate and spontaneously separate from the wound bed if left exposed, it must be covered with
occlusive dressings that preclude continuous observation of the dressing and underlying wound bed
•• Amnion, like cutaneous xenografts, is not vascularized by the host, and biologic union occurs by ingrowth of granulation tissue.
Swellings of Skin
•• Lipoma •• Universal tumor
•• Adiposis dolorosa (Dercum’s disease) •• Multiple lipomata
•• Cavernous hemangioma •• Arises from veins
•• Plexiform hemangioma •• Arises from arteries
•• Warts •• Human papilloma virus
•• Rhinophyma (Potato nose) •• Acne rosacea
•• Cavernous lymphangioma •• Cystic hygroma
•• Sebaceous cyst •• Wen
•• Buschke-Lownstein tumor •• Massive veneral wart
•• Marjolin’s growth •• Squamous cell carcinoma
•• Bedsore •• Trophic ulcer
•• Pilomatrixoma •• Calcifying epithelioma
•• Pott’s puffy tumor •• Skull osteomyelitis
•• Raspberry tumor •• Umbilical adenoma
Sebaceous Cyst
•• It is also called Wen
•• It usually lies in dermis
•• It is a retention cyst
•• Its contents are sebum and keratin
•• Common sites are face and scalp
•• They don’t occur on palm and scalp
•• Cock’s peculiar tumor is a complication
Surgery 431
Lipoma
•• Most common site: Trunk
•• ‘Slipping margin’ sign positive
•• Pedunculated lipoma is called: lipoma arborscens
•• Mc type: Subcutaneous
•• Painful: Neurofibroma
•• Vascular: Naevo lipoma
Dercum’s disease
–– Adiposis dolorosa
–– Fatty deposits on limbs/trunk with facial sparing
–– Rare disease
–– Multiple painful lipomas in adult life
Ulcers of Skin
Ulcers of skin
•• Rodent ulcer: Basal cell carcinoma
•• Martorell’s ulcer: Hypertensive/Atherosclerotic ulcer
•• Bazin’s ulcer: Erythrocyanoid ulcer
•• Snail-track ulcer: Syphilitic ulcer
Premalignant Skin Lesions

•• Bowen’s disease
•• Solar keratoses
•• Radiodermatitis
•• Marjolin’s ulcer
TUMORS AFFECTING SKIN

Basal Cell Carcinoma
•• Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) is a malignancy arising from epidermal basal cells
•• Also called rodent ulcer
•• Commonest site is face
•• The most common type is noduloulcerative BCC, which begins as a small, pearly nodule, often with small telangiectatic vessels
on its surface
•• The nodule grows slowly and may undergo central ulceration
•• Direct spread seen
•• Lymphatic spread does not occur
•• Mohs micrographic excision procedure is used for BCC.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Squamous Cell Carcinoma: Primary cutaneous SCC is a malignant neoplasm of keratinizing epidermal cells
•• Squamous cell carcinoma in situ is characterized by highly atypical cells at all levels of the epidermis, with nuclear crowding
and disorganization.
•• The squamous dyplasia is broad and occupies the full thickness of the epithelium
•• Invasive squamous cell carcinomas exhibit variable differentiation, ranging from tumors formed by atypical squamous
cells arranged in orderly lobules showing large zones of keratinization to neoplasms formed by highly anaplastic, rounded
cells with foci of necrosis and only abortive, single-cell keratinization (dyskeratosis)
•• While morphologic variation is wide, all squamous cell carcinomas share the feature of keratinization
Unlike BCC, which has a very low metastatic potential, SCC can metastasize and grow rapidly. The clinical features of SCC vary widely
–– Actinic keratosis predisposes to SCC
–– Bowen’s disease
–– Lichen planus
–– DLE
Marjolin’s Ulcer
•• Squamous cell carcinoma in scar/burn/long-standing ulcer
•• Slow-growing
•• Less malignant
•• Painless without lymphatic spread
•• Wide excision is the treatment of choice.
Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma typically appears as a dome-shaped papule with a central keratotic crater, expands rapidly, and commonly
regresses without therapy
This lesion can be difficult to differentiate from SCC
•• Benign
•• Self-limiting course
•• Affects elderly men usually
Melanomas
Melanomas originate from melanocytes, pigment cells normally present in the epidermis and sometimes in the dermis.
An alternative prognostic scheme for clinical stages I and II melanoma, proposed by Clark, is based on the anatomic level of invasion in
the skin (Clark’s level).
•• Melanomas may spread by the lymphatic channels or the bloodstream
•• The earliest metastases are often to regional lymph nodes
•• Most common site for malignant melanoma is skin (90%)
•• Cutaneous melanoma arises from epidermal melanocytes
•• Junctional melanoma predisposes to MM
•• It may be familial.
Melanomas can develop either de novo or in an existing mole. Sunlight exposure is a significant risk factor and fair-skinned persons are
at an increased risk of developing melanoma. The most significant factor for long-term prognosis is the depth of the lesion, since the
superficial dermis lies about 1 mm under the skin surface, and penetration to this depth is associated with a much higher incidence of
metastasis than is seen with a more superficial location.
Early detection of melanoma may be facilitated by applying the ‘ABCD rules’:
•• A–asymmetry, benign lesions are usually symmetric
•• B–border irregularity, most nevi have clear-cut borders
•• C–color variegation, benign lesions usually have uniform light or dark pigment
•• D–diameter > 6 mm (the size of a pencil eraser).
Surgery 433
•• Lentigo maligna is the least common type

•• It is also known as Hutchinson’s freckle
•• Face is the most common site involved by it
•• Superficial spreading is the most common type
•• It may occur at any site on the body
•• Nodular melanoma is the most malignant type

•• It is common in younger age group.
•• Acral lentiginous melanoma occurs on palms and soles especially
•• Amelanotic melanoma has the worst prognosis
•• ‘Clarks level’ is the classification based on the level of ‘invasion into skin’
•• ‘Breslow’s staging’ is based on thickness of invasion
Nos of MM (Malignant Melanoma)
•• No incisional biopsy
•• No induration
•• No role of radiotherapy
•• Not known usually before puberty
Soft Tissue Tumors

•• Mc soft tissue tumor in a child is Rhabdomyosarcoma
•• The gross appearance of rhabdomyosarcoma is variable. Some tumors, particularly those arising near the mucosal surfaces of the
bladder or vagina, can present as soft, gelatinous, grape like masses, designated sarcoma botryoides. In other cases, they are poorly
defined, infiltrating masses. Rhabdomyosarcoma is histologically subclassified into the embryonal, alveolar, and pleomorphic
variants
•• The rhabdomyoblast is the diagnostic cell in all types; it exhibits granular eosinophilic cytoplasm rich in thick and thin filaments.
The rhabdomyoblasts may be round or elongated; the latter are known as tadpole or strap cells and may contain cross-striations
visible by light microscopy. The diagnosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is based on the demonstration of skeletal muscle differentiation,
either in the form of sarcomeres under the electron microscope or by immunohistochemical demonstration of muscle-associated
antigens such as desmin and muscle-specific actin
–– Mc type: Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
–– Resection is the treatment of choice
–– Soft tissue sarcomas mostly spread hematogenously
–– But lymphatic metastasis is seen in embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
–– Grade of tumor detects prognosis
–– Liposarcoma is the mc retroperitoneal tumor
–– Lymphoma and retroperitoneal sarcoma are mc retroperitoneal malignant lesions.
SALIVARY GLANDS
Pleomorphic Adenoma
•• Mc benign salivary gland tumor
•• Most common site is superficial lobe
•• Malignant transformation is uncommon
•• Treatment is by superficial parotidectomy (Patey’s operation)
Warthin’s Tumor
•• Second most common benign tumor of parotid gland
•• Consists of epithelial+lymphoid elements (adenolymphoma)
•• Common in males in 5th-7th decade
•• Bilateral in about 10% cases
•• Encapsulated
•• Shows Hot Spot in Tc-Pertechnetate scan
•• Superficial parotidectomy is the treatment.
Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

•• Also called cylindroma/treacherous tumor
•• Mc cancer of minor salivary glands
•• Invades perineural space and lymphatics
•• Treatment is radical parotidectomy
Mucoepidermoid Cancer
•• Mc malignant salivary gland tumor
•• Arises from mucinsecreting cells and epidermal cells
•• Mc malignant tumor of parotid
•• Mc radiation-induced salivary tumor
Remember
•• Most tumors of major salivary glands are benign
•• Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign salivary gland tumor
•• Most of the minor salivary gland tumors are malignant
•• Most common site of minor salivary gland tumor is oral cavity
•• Most of salivary gland tumors are radioresistant
•• Godwin’s tumor is benign lymphoepithelial tumor of parotid
•• Calculi are most common in submandibular duct
•• Most common organism as a cause of acute parotitis is staph aureus
•• Most common cause of acute parotitis is mumps
•• Most of submandibular calculi are radiopaque
•• Sialolithiasis refers to stones in salivary ducts
•• Sialadenosis is noninflammatory swelling affecting salivary glands
•• Frey’s syndrome (gustatory sweating) occurs after parotid surgery due to involvement of auriculotemporal nerve
•• Sialography is not done in acute infection of salivary glands.
Breast
•• Modified sweat gland
•• ‘Axillary tail of Spence’ is prolongation of breast tissue into axilla
•• ‘Foramen of LANGER’ is the space through which axillary tail passes
•• ‘Ligaments of cooper attach breast to superficial fascia
•• ‘Mammary ridge’ is the embryonic precursor
•• ‘Subareolar plexus of Sappy’ is a lymphatic plexus
•• Peau d’orange is lymphatic permeation
•• Blood supply: Internal mammary artery, lateral thoracic, superior thoracic and acromiothoracic arteries
Surgery 435
Risk Factors for Breast Cancer

•• Race: White females
•• Age: Elderly
•• Relatives (true)
•• Nonbreastfeeding mothers
•• ↑Fatty food intake
•• Nulliparity
•• BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations
•• Cancer in other breast
•• Mammary dysplasia/Atypical hyperplasia/Sclerosing adenosis
•• Early menarche
•• Late menopause
•• Late first pregnancy
•• Mc disorder of breast: Fibroadenosis
•• Mc tumor of breast: Fibroadenoma
•• Mc carcinoma of breast: Ductal/Schirrous carcinoma
•• Mc bilateral tumor, Lobular carcinoma of breast
•• Mc inviolved lymph nodes are axillary group
•• Mc cause of breast discharge: Duct ectasia
•• Mc cause of bloody discharge: Duct papilloma
•• Mc site of metastasis of breast ca: Bone
•• Mc site of breast ca: Upper outer quadrant
•• FIRST INVESTIGATION FOR BREAST LUMP: FNAC
•• BEST INVESTIGATION FOR BREAST LUMP: BIOPSY
Clinical Scesnarios
•• A 16-year-old female has firm, rubbery mass in right breast moving with palpation Fibroadenoma
•• A 16-year-old female has firm, rubbery mass in right breast is 8 cms in diameter Giant fibroadenoma
•• A 30-year-old female has history of bilateral breast tenderness related to menstrual cycle with lumps Fibrocystic disease
coming and going
•• A 30-year-old female has bloody discharge from nipple. No other palpable masses are seen Intraductal papilloma
•• A 30-year-old lactating mother has red, hot, tender mass with fever and leukocytosis Breast abscess
•• A 55-year-old woman has 3.5 cms hard mass in her left breast with ill-defined borders and not mobile. Breast ca
The skin overlying has orange peel appearance
•• A 60-year-old has headaches not responding to medications. She had undergone modified radical Brain metastasis from
mastectomy 1 year back breast ca
Galactocele
•• It is a milk-filled cyst
•• Round, well-circumscribed, and easily movable within the breast
•• Usually occurs after the cessation of lactation or when feeding frequency has been curtailed significantly
•• Inspissated milk within a large lactiferous duct is responsible
•• The tumor is usually located in the central portion of the breast or under the nipple.
•• Needle aspiration produces thick, creamy material that may be tinged dark-green or brown. Although it appears purulent, the
fluid is sterile
•• The treatment is needle aspiration. Withdrawal of thick milky secretion confirms the diagnosis
•• Operation is reserved for those cysts that cannot be aspirated or that become superinfected.
Phyllodes Tumor
•• Serocystic disease of Brodie or Cystosarcoma Phyllodes
•• Name is misnomer as it is rarely cystic or rarely develops into sarcoma
•• Phyllodes: Leaf. It is a benign breast tumor. It is a stromal breast tumor
•• They present as a large, massive tumor with uneven bosselated surface
•• They are however mobile and resemble fibroadenoma
•• They account for less than 1% of all breast neoplasms
•• This is predominantly a tumor of adult women, with very few examples reported in adolescents
•• Patients typically present with a firm, palpable mass
•• These tumors are very fast growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks
•• Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause
•• The common treatment for phyllodes is wide local excision. Other than surgery, there is no cure for phyllodes, as chemotherapy
and radiation therapy are not effective.
Indicators of Poor Prognosis in Breast Cancer

•• ↑PCNA, Ki67 expression
•• ↑BCL2 expression
•• ↑bax expression
•• ↑HER2 expression
•• ↑EGFR expression
•• ↑p53 expression
Treatment of Breast Cancer

Stage I, II:
•• Breast conserving therapy
•• MRM + Systemic therapy
Stage III (operable)
•• MRM + chemotherapy + radiotherapy
Stage IV
•• Palliative
Surgeries Commonly Asked

•• QUART: (Quadrenectomy) + axillary block dissection + radiotherapy
•• Lumpectomy: Rremoval of tumor +2 cm rim of normal breast atleast
•• Simple mastectomy: Removal of breast + skin
•• MRM (Patey’s): Removal of breast + axillary block dissection
•• Radical mastectomy: MRM + removal of pectoral muscles + thoracodorsal nerve + artery to latissimus dorsi
•• Extended radical mastectomy: Radical mastectomy + removal of internal mammary lymph nodes
•• Had field operation: Cone excision of major duct
Surgery 437
Stage I: Breast conservative therapy/lumpectomy + axillary clearance + radiotherapy

Stage II: Breast conservative therapy/lumpectomy + axillary clearance + radiotherapy
Stage III: Neoadjuvant chemo + MRM + radiotherapy (operable)
Stage IV: Inoperable/IV: Palliative (radiotherapy)/hormonal ablation/chemotherapy
Male Breast Cancer

•• Breast cancer occurring in the mammary gland of males is infrequent, accounting for no more than 1% of the incidence in women
•• It generally occurs at an older age
•• The average age at diagnosis is 10 years older in men than in women
•• Probably because the breast tissue is scant in men, breast tumors in males involve the pectoralis major muscle more commonly
•• Delay in diagnosis also must play a role in the more advanced presentation of male breast cancer
•• Histologically, tumors of the male breast are most commonly infiltrating ductal carcinomas that are similar in appearance to their
counterparts in females
•• Male breast cancer very often contains steroid hormone receptors
•• The treatment of carcinoma in the male breast depends on the stage and local extent of the tumor. If the underlying pectoral
muscle is involved, radical mastectomy is the procedure of choice. Alternatively, modified radical mastectomy with excision of the
involved portion of muscle is adequate treatment
•• For smaller tumors, which are movable across the chest wall, modified radical mastectomy appears to be the procedure of choice.
Because of the local aggressiveness of these tumors, some authors have advocated the use of postoperative radiation therapy
•• The presence of nodal metastases appears to have at least the same prognostic power in men as in women.
Risk Factors
•• Conditions with hyperestrogenic and hypoandrogenic states
•• Cirrhosis of liver
•• Undescended testis
•• Mumps orchitis
•• Klinefelter’s syndrome
•• May accompany gynecomastia
•• Most common variety is infiltrating ductal cancer
•• Presents with unilateral lump with majority being Estrogen receptor positive.
Aortic Injury
•• Widening of superior mediastinum > 8 cms is considered a reliable sign of Aortic injury
•• ‘PA view’ is better than AP view in this type of injury
•• X-ray is used as a ‘screening tool’ here
•• ‘Acceleration or deceleration’ injuries are associated with aortic rupture.
Other Signs
•• Obscured aortic knob
•• Widened mediastinum
•• Deviation of left main stem bronchus
•• Obliteration of aorticopulmonary window
•• Deviation of nasogastric tube
•• Left apical cap
•• Opacification of aortopulmonary window
•• Left pulmonary Hilar hematoma
Zones in Neck Injury

•• Zone I: Sternal notch to cricoid cartilage
•• Zone II: Cricoid cartilage to angle of mandible
•• Zone III: Angle of mandible to base of skull
•• Whiplash injury is acute hyperflexion of spine. Especially cervical spine

•• Coup and contrecoup injuries are a feature of brain
•• Blast injuries cause damage to lungs and intestines
Blast Injury
•• Rupture of tympanic membrane, dislocation of ear ossicles
•• Injury to lungs
•• Perforation of stomach, gut
•• Conjuctival hemorrage in eyes
Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

•• Thoracic outlet syndrome, Scalenus anticus syndrome, Cervical rib syndrome, Paget-Schreutter syndrome, Costoclavicular syndrome,
Cervical band syndrome, Cervicobrachial myofascial pain syndrome, Brachial plexopathy
•• Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is due to compression/irritation of brachial plexus elements (Neurogenic TOS) and/or subclavian
vessels (Vascular TOS) in their passage from the cervical area toward the axilla. The usual site of entrapment is the interscalene
triangle
•• Provocation tests that can suggest the presence of thoracic outlet syndrome include:
–– Adson’s maneuver
–– Wright test
–– Roos’ stress test
NECK
Dermoid Cysts
•• These usually occur at sites of embryological fusion
•• These may be in the midline
•• A dermoid cyst in the neck may be mistaken for a thyroglossal cyst, although it will not move on swallowing or protrusion of
the tongue
•• A common site is the external angular dermoid cyst in the eyebrow area at the outer angle of the eye. Occasionally, there may
be a dumbbell extension intracranially
•• They occur if ectodermal cells become buried beneath the skin surface during development
•• An inclusion dermoid cyst may similarly arise secondary to trauma.
Cystic Hygroma
•• Commonly arising in the neck, these fluid-filled lesions of lymphatic origin, lymphangioma
•• MC site: Posterior triangle of neck
•• Seen in Turner’s syndrome, trisomies, fetal alcohol syndrome, multiple pterygium syndrome
•• Brilliantly translucent, positive cough impulse
•• They are either present at birth, sometimes being diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography, or may appear within the first 2 years
or sometimes later
•• Infection leads to difficulty with subsequent surgery, which is thus best performed soon after diagnosis.
Surgery 439
•• Excision is treatment of choice

•• Aspiration of the cysts and injection of a streptococcal derivative ‘OK432’, bleomycin, picibanil is a treatment that is proving to
be an effective alternative to surgery.
Sternomastoid Tumor
•• It is due to infarction of sternomastoid muscle
•• Usually during delivery
•• Infarcted muscle replaced by fibrosis
•• Present immediately after birth as a ‘swelling’ with the newborn keeping his/her neck to one side.
Branchial Cyst
•• Remanant of second branchial cleft
•• Mc site is upper part of neck at junction of upper anterior border of sternomastoid
•• Wall is made of lymphoid tissue
•• ‘NON’-translucent
•• Complete excision is treatment of choice.
Ranula (Latin rana = frog)

•• This is a sublingual cyst which may be small or may fill the floor of the mouth
•• Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands
•• It may be related to a salivary or mucous gland
•• It is thin-walled and contains clear viscid fluid. ↑
•• Care is required not to damage the submandibular duct during its excision and marsupialization is often safer.
Chemodectoma
•• ‘Potato tumor’ or carotid body tumor
•• ‘Benign tumor’ but rarely metastasizes (unusual combination)
•• Arises from ‘chemoreceptor zone’
•• Nonchromaffin paraganglioma
•• Origin from Schwann cells: Association with high altitude. Family history and pheochromocytoma
•• Biopsy is contraindicated
•• Usually unilateral
•• Firm, rubbery, mobile from side to side, slow-growing
•• Bruit may be present
•• Angiogram is diagnostic
•• Good prognosis, rarely metastasizes
•• Surgical excision is ‘treatment of choice’
•• Branchial Cyst
–– Arises from 2nd branchial cleft
–– Located usually at anterior border of upper 1/3 of sternomastoid
–– Contains cholesterol crystals
•• Branchial Fistula
–– Represents persisting in 2nd branchial cleft
–– Located usually at anterior border of lower 1/3 of sternomastoid
•• Cystic Hygroma
–– Represents lymphatic venous anastomotic failure
–– Located usually in the neck lower in posterior triangle
–– Brilliantly translucent
•• Cervical Rib
–– Mostly unilateral
–– Mostly on right side
Surgically Important Thyroid Conditions
Ectopic thyroid and anomalies of the thyroglossal tract

•• Some residual thyroid tissue along the course of the thyroglossal tract is not uncommon, and may be lingual, cervical or
intrathoracic
•• Very rarely the whole gland is ectopic.
Lingual thyroid
•• This forms a rounded swelling at the back of the tongue at the foramen cecum (and it may represent the only thyroid tissue
present
•• It may cause dysphagia, impairment of speech, respiratory obstruction or hemorrhage
•• It is best treated by full replacement with thyroxine when it should get smaller, but excision or ablation with radioiodine is
sometimes necessary.
Median (thyroglossal) ectopic thyroid
•• This forms a swelling in the upper part of the neck and is usually mistaken for a thyroglossal cyst.
Lateral aberrant thyroid
•• There is no evidence that aberrant thyroid tissue ever occurs
•• ‘Normal thyroid tissue’ found laterally, separate from the thyroid gland, must be considered and treated as a metastasis in a
cervical lymph node from an occult thyroid carcinoma, almost invariably of papillary type.
Struma ovarii
•• It is not ectopic thyroid tissue, but part of an ovarian teratoma
•• Very rarely, neoplastic change occurs or hyperthyroidism develops.
Thyroglossal Cyst
•• This may be present in any part of the thyroglossal tract
•• MC site is beneath the hyoid, in the region of the thyroid cartilage, and above the hyoid bone
•• Occupies the midline, except in the region of the thyroid cartilage, where the thyroglossal tract is pushed to one side, usually to
the left.
Surgery 441
•• The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue as well as on swallowing because of the attachment of the tract to
the foramen cecum
Never to be forgotten:
–– Subhyoid
–– Painless
–– Midline
–– Nontransluminant but fluctuant swelling
A thyroglossal cyst should be excised (Sistrunk’s operation) because infection is inevitable, owing to the fact that the wall contains
nodules of lymphatic tissue which communicate by lymphatics with the lymph nodes of the neck
Thyroglossal Fistula
•• Thyroglossal fistula is never congenital
•• It follows infection or inadequate removal of a thyroglossal cyst
•• The cutaneous opening of such a fistula is drawn upwards on protrusion of the tongue
•• A thyroglossal fistula is lined by columnar epithelium, discharges mucus, and is the seat of recurrent attacks of inflammation.
(Sistrunk’s Operation)
Because the thyroglossal tract is so closely related to the body of the hyoid bone, this central part must be excised, together with the
cyst or fistula, or recurrence is certain. When the thyroglossal tract can be traced upwards towards the foramen cecum, it must be
excised with the central section of the body of the hyoid bone, and a central core of lingual muscle
USMLE HIGH YIELD

Remember
Most common congenital, cystic, midline neck mass. Thyroglossal duct cysts are benign cysts that can arise anywhere along the
embryonic path of descent of the thyroid gland (from the foramen cecum to the level of the thyroid). Thyroglossal duct cysts can
become infected, demonstrating rapid enlargement and tenderness, but are otherwise generally nontender and asymptomatic.
Treatment is with surgical excision. The Sistrunk procedure, in which the cyst, the middle-third of the hyoid bone, and the
thyroglossal duct tract are all excised, is associated with the lowest rate of recurrence.
GRANULOMATOUS THYROIDITIS—SUBACUTE THYROIDITIS

De Quervain’s Thyroiditis
•• This is due to a virus infection
•• There is pain in the neck, fever, malaise and a firm, irregular enlargement of one or both thyroid lobes
•• There is a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate
•• Absent thyroid antibodies, uptake of Iodine in the gl and is low
•• The condition is self-limiting: Subsequent hypothyroidism is rare
•• In 10 percent of cases, the onset is acute, the goiter very painful and tender, and there may be symptoms of hyperthyroidism
•• The specific treatment for the acute case with severe pain is to give prednisone
Riedel’s Thyroiditis
•• Thyroid tissue is replaced by cellular fibrous tissue which infiltrates through the capsule into adjacent muscles, paratracheal
connective tissue and the carotid sheaths
•• It may occur in association with retroperitoneal and mediastinal fibrosis
•• The goiter may be unilateral or bilateral and is very hard and fixed
•• The differential diagnosis from anaplastic carcinoma can only be made with certainty by biopsy, when a wedge of the isthmus
should also be removed to free the trachea
•• If unilateral, the other lobe is usually involved later and subsequent hypothyroidism is common.
Solitary Thyroid Nodules

•• Nodules classified as cold, warm or hot
•• Most solitary thyroid nodules are cold
•• Most cancers arise in cold nodules
•• Risk of cancer in a cold nodule is 10-15%
•• Risk of tumor in a hot nodule is negligible
•• Scintigraphy of minimal use in evaluation of solitary thyroid nodules
•• FNAC is the investigation of choice
•• Thyroidectomy done (Hemithyroidectomy for solitary nodule)
MEN Syndromes
The multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are distinct genetic entities that are expressed in several specific patterns of
involvement.
MEN 1 is characterized by the concurrence of:
•• Parathyroid hyperplasia
•• Pancreatic islet cell neoplasms
•• Adenomas of the anterior pituitary gland
MEN 2A is characterized by the concurrence of:
•• Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)
•• Pheochromocytomas, and
•• Parathyroid hyperplasia
MEN 2B consists of:
•• MTC
•• Mucosal neuromas, and distinctive marfanoid habitus
These syndromes may occur de novo (especially MEN 2B) and are transmitted as ‘autosomal dominant’ traits.
Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid

•• MTC constitutes 5% to 10% of all thyroid malignancies
•• Approximately 80% of these represent sporadic cases of MTC
•• Twenty percent of MTC cases occur in a familial setting, either in association with MEN 2A or MEN 2B
•• MTC is usually the first abnormality expressed in both MEN 2A and MEN 2B and in most patients, MTC is diagnosed either
before or concurrently with pheochromocytoma
•• The peak incidence of MTC in the setting of MEN 2A or MEN 2B is in the second or third decade of life, compared with the fifth or
sixth decade in patients with sporadic MTC
•• A diffuse premalignant proliferation of C-cells in the thyroid gland of patients with familial MTC has been described and is
termed as C-cell hyperplasia. Parafollicular clusters of increased number of C-cells represent the early manifestation of hyperplasia or
microinvasive carcinoma that progresses to multifocal MTC
•• The presence of bilateral MTC or microscopic evidence of C-cell hyperplasia in the areas of thyroid adjacent to macroscopic foci of MTC
strongly suggests the presence of familial disease
•• MTC appears grossly as a circumscribed, gritty, whitish-tan nodule
•• Microscopically, it consists of nests or sheets of uniform round or polygonal cells separated by variable amounts of fibrovascular stroma
•• Material with the staining properties of amyloid is frequently present in the stroma of MTC
•• MTC can be diagnosed immunohistochemically by demonstrating calcitonin within the MTC cells.
Surgery 443
•• The most important product of MTC cells is calcitonin, which is a sensitive tumor marker for the presence of MTC whether in
preoperative screening or postoperative evaluation
•• Patients with clinically evident MTC most commonly present with a palpable thyroid nodule or multinodular thyroid gland.
Enlarged, firm cervical lymph nodes suggest metastatic disease. Patients with locally advanced disease may present with
hoarseness, dysphagia, respiratory difficulty, or signs of distant metastases (e.g. lung, liver and bone).
Papillary Carcinoma
•• Mc thyroid cancer
•• Encapsulated tumor
•• Psammoma bodies seen
•• It can be diagnosed by FNAC (contrast follicular type)
•• Usually multifocal.
•• Follicular type is a variety of papillary cancer

•• Hurthle cell is a variety of follicular type
•• Anaplastic is a rare type
•• Thyroid lymphoma presents as rapidly growing tumor
•• Thyroid tumor associated with MEN II: Medullary carcinoma

•• Thyroid tumor in thyroglossal cyst: Papillary carcinoma
•• Thyroid tumor in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: Papillary carcinoma
•• Thyroid tumor with best prognosis: Papillary carcinoma
•• Thyroid tumor least malignant: Papillary carcinoma
•• Thyroid tumor associated with worst prognosis: Anaplastic cancer
•• Thyroid tumor rarest: Anaplastic
Thyroid Lymphoma
•• Seen in Hashimoto’s disease
•• Diffuse large type is a variant
•• Radiosensitive
•• Rapidly growing
•• Radiotherapy + chemotherapy is used for treatment
Complications of Thyroidectomy
1. Hemorrhage
2. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
3. Superior laryngeal nerve palsy
5. Hypothyroidism
6. Tracheal collapse
7. Thyroid crisis
•• Hypocalcemia does not occur in hemithyroidectomy
•• Neck swelling immediately after thyroid operation is usually tension hematoma
•• In such cases: open immediately.
Cavernous Sinus Tumors

These are the most common cause of cavernous sinus syndrome. Tumors may be primary or may arise from either local spread or
as metastases. Examples of primary tumors include meningiomas or neurofibromas. Examples of locally spreading tumors are
nasopharyngeal carcinoma or pituitary tumors. Metastatic lesions are most often from the breast, prostate, or lung. Radiotherapy
may offer transient relief, particularly in nasopharyngeal cancer.
Cavernous Sinus Aneurysms
Unlike intracranial aneurysms in other anatomic locations, carotid-cavernous aneurysms do not involve a major risk of subarachnoid
hemorrhage. However, their rupture can result in direct C-C fistulas, which may lead to cerebral hemorrhage. These aneurysms, which
are more frequent in the elderly population, present with an indolent ophthalmoplegia.
Carotid-Cavernous Fistulas
C-C fistulas are of 2 types: direct and indirect. Direct fistulas occur if the carotid artery and cavernous sinus are in continuity. They
manifest with abrupt onset of proptosis, chemosis, visual loss, and ophthalmoplegia. Indirect fistulas occur with communication
between the cavernous sinus and the branches of the internal carotid artery, external carotid artery, or both. They have a more insidious
presentation than direct fistulas, often with spontaneous resolution. Trauma or aneurysm rupture is a common cause of carotid-
cavernous fistulas.
Masses in Mediastinum
Anterior Mediastinal Masses Middle Mediastinal Masses Posterior Mediastinal Masses
•• Thymoma •• Bronchogenic cysts •• Neurogenic tumors
•• Lymphoma •• Pleura pericardial cysts •• Lymphoma
•• Teratoma •• Aneurysms •• Metastatic germ cell tumor
•• Thyroid/parathyroid masses •• Myxoma
•• Lipoma •• Esophageal lesions
•• Hiatal hernia •• Lipoma
•• Retrosternal goiter
Mediastinal Emphysema
•• Air may enter the mediastinum from the esophagus, trachea, bronchi, lung, neck, or abdomen, producing mediastinal
emphysema or pneumomediastinum
•• Can occur from blunt or penetrating trauma, intraluminal injury, such as during endoscopy, as well as barotrauma. Positive-
pressure ventilation
•• Blunt trauma due to compressive forces on the thorax, especially when the glottis is closed and ventilation is being achieved
with high pressures (usually in the setting of decreased lung compliance), may cause sufficient pressures at the intra-alveolar
region to rupture alveoli
•• Dissection of air along vascular structures into the hilum and mediastinum creates a pneumomediastinum
•• Mediastinal emphysema may also be caused by intra-abdominal air dissecting through the diaphragmatic hiatus
•• Spontaneous pneumomediastinum is usually seen in patients with exacerbation of bronchospastic disease
•• The clinical manifestations of this include substernal chest pain, which may radiate into the back and crepitation in the region of
the suprasternal notch, chest wall and neck
•• With increasing pressure, the air can dissect into the neck, face, chest, arms, abdomen, and retroperitoneum
•• Frequently, pneumomediastinum and pneumothorax ‘occur simultaneously’
•• Auscultation over the pericardium demonstrates a characteristic crunching sound that is accentuated during systole and is termed as
‘Hamman’s sign.’
Mediastinitis
•• Infection of the mediastinal space
•• It is a serious and potentially fatal process
Surgery 445
•• These factors responsible include perforation of the esophagus due to instrumentation, foreign bodies, penetrating or, more rarely,
blunt trauma, spontaneous esophageal disruption (Boerhaave’s syndrome), leakage from an esophageal anastomosis, tracheobronchial
perforation, and mediastinal extension from an infectious process originating in the pulmonary parenchyma, pleura, chest wall,
vertebrae, great vessels, or neck
•• Mediastinitis is manifested clinically by fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis, and pain that may be localized to the chest, back, or neck,
although, in some patients, the clinical course remains indolent for long periods.
Mediastinal Hemorrhage
Mediastinal hemorrhage is most frequently caused by blunt or penetrating trauma, thoracic aortic dissection, rupture of aortic
aneurysm, or surgical procedures within the thorax
Spontaneous mediastinal hemorrhage is a recognized entity with predisposing factors related to the following:
(1) complication of a mediastinal mass, of which thymoma, malignant germ cell tumor, parathyroid adenoma, retrosternal
thyroid, and teratoma are the most common;
(2) sudden sustained hypertension;
(3) altered hemostasis due to anticoagulant therapy, thrombolytic therapy, uremia, hepatic insufficiency, or hemophilia; and
(4) transient, sharp increases in intrathoracic pressure, which occur during coughing or vomiting, an entity initially described by
Retrosternal pain radiating to the back or neck is common
‘Compression of mediastinal structures’ (primarily the great veins) develop, including dyspnea, venous distention, cyanosis, and
cervical ecchymosis due to blood dissecting into soft tissue planes
Sufficient accumulation of blood causes mediastinal tamponade manifested by tachycardia, hypotension, reduced urinary output,
equalization of right- and left-sided cardiac filling pressures, and diastolic collapse of the right ventricle
The development of mediastinal tamponade is more insidious than pericardial tamponade because of the larger volume of the mediastinum.
Diagnostic measures include chest films, which may indicate:

•• Superior mediastinal widening
•• Loss of the normal aortic contour and
•• Soft tissue density in the anterosuperior mediastinum
•• MC anterior mediastinal mass: Thymoma

•• MC middle mediastinal mass: Bronchogenic cyst
•• MC posterior mediastinal mass: Neurogenic tumor
•• MC malignant mass of mediastinum: Lymphoma
Cardiac Tumors
Primary cardiac tumors are rare and usually require an intensive work-up to pinpoint the diagnosis. Seventy-five percent of primary
cardiac tumors are benign and among these, myxoma is the most common. The tumors are usually single; the most common location is
the left atrium. They may cause syncopal episodes or even shock and death due to obstruction by a ‘ball valve’ mechanism.
Most Common Site

•• Cancer lip •• Vermillion border of lower lip
•• Cancer tongue •• Lateral border
•• Cancer cheek •• Angle of mouth
•• Nasopharyngeal carcinoma •• Fossa of Rosenmuller
•• Cancer larynx •• Glottis
•• Epulis •• Discrete swelling on gums (Mc fibrous epulis)
•• Radicular/Dental cyst •• Arises from normally erupted tooth
•• Dentigerous cyst •• Arises from nonerupted tooth
•• Adamantinoma •• Arises from dental lamina, MC site mandible
Esophagus
•• 25 cms long
•• Upper 1/3: Striated, middle 1/3 mixed. Lower 1/3: smooth muscle
•• Constrictions: 15 cms, 25 cms, 40 cms from incisor teeth
•• Most common site of impaction is below cricopharyngeus
•• No submucosal plexus, only Auerbach’s plexus present
•• No serosa present
•• Three parts: Cervical, thoracic, abdominal
•• Arterial supply: Inferior thyroid artery, branches of aorta and left gastric artery respectively
Esophagitis
Esophagitis
Most common causes are:
•• Reflux esophagitis (mc)
•• Infectious esophagitis
•• Eosinophilic esophagitis
•• Drug-induced esophagitis
•• Radiation esophagitis
•• Corrosive esophagitis
Monilial Esophagitis
•• Esophagitis due to Candida albicans is relatively common in patients taking steroids, including steroid inhalers for asthma
•• It may present with dysphagia or odynophagia
•• There may be visible thrush in the throat
•• Endoscopy shows numerous white plaques that cannot be moved, unlike food residues
•• Biopsies are diagnostic. In severe cases, a barium swallow may show dramatic mucosal ulceration and irregularity that is
surprisingly similar to the appearance of esophageal varices
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) and the Esophagus

•• Dysphagia and odynophagia may occur in immune deficiency due to infection with a variety of agents including Candida, herpes
simplex virus and cytomegalovirus
•• Similar infections may arise in immune suppression due to any other cause.
Crohn’s Disease
•• The esophagus is not commonly affected by Crohn’s disease.
Surgery 447
•• Rarely, it may be the only site of Crohn’s disease

•• Symptoms are severe
•• Endoscopy shows extensive esophagitis. Biopsies may show only nonspecific inflammation. In severe cases, a barium swallow
may show deep sinuses in the esophagus
•• Crohn’s esophagitis responds poorly to medical treatment and resection may be required.
Plummer–Vinson Syndrome
•• Also called the Brown Kelly–Patterson syndrome or sideropenic dysphagia
•• Describes young women with koilonychias, iron-deficiency anemia and dysphagia referred high in the neck
•• The dysphagia is caused by spasm or a web in the postcricoid area
•• The patients have an increased tendency to postcricoid cancer
Schatzki’s Ring
•• It is a circular submucosal ring in the distal esophagus usually at the squamocolumnar junction
•• Short segment of luminal stenosis.
•• The core of the ring consists of variable amounts of fibrous tissue and cellular infiltrate
•• Most rings are incidental findings on barium examination
•• Some are associated with dysphagia for solids which is intermittent and a single dilatation is curative.
Mallory–Weiss syndrome
•• Forceful vomiting may produce a mucosal/submucosal tear at the cardia rather than a full perforation of the esophagus
•• Vomiting occurs against an open glottis
•• Common in alcoholics
•• Cardia of stomach and not esophagus is the commonest site
•• Diagnosis is by esophagogastroscopy.
Boerhaave’s Syndrome
•• Forceful vomiting may produce full perforation of the esophagus (spontaneous perforation)
•• Presents with acute chest pain
•• Most serious type of perforation because of the volume of infected material that is released under pressure
•• Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis. The pressure in the esophagus rapidly increases and the esophagus bursts at its weakest
point in the lower third. Mostly follows heavy bout of drinking alcohol
•• Part above gastroesophagel junction is the commonest site
•• Pain in chest and upper abdomen is the mc manifestation. Surgical exploration in the form of primary repair is done.
Achalasia Cardia
•• Esophegal motility disorder
•• Increased difficulty in swallowing for both liquids/solids
•• Failure of relaxation of lower esophageal, increased pressure
•• Dysphagia is the presenting symptom
•• Loss of ganglion cells in Auerbach’s plexus
•• Bird-beak appearance
•• Cucumber esophagus
•• Heller’s myotomy is treatment of choice
•• Pseudoachalasia: Caused by adenocarcinoma of cardia, bronchogenic ca, pancreatic ca.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 46-year-old nonalcoholic presents to a gastroenterologist with multiple episodes of chest pain, regurgitation of saliva and
undigested food. The characteristic appearance of the esophagram shows a tapered ‘bird’s beak’ deformity at the level of the
esophagogastric junction. Further manometry yields high resting pressures of the lower esophageal sphincter, which fails to
relax. Most likely the disease is: Achalasia of the cardia
Diffuse Esophageal Spasm

•• Incoordinate contractions of esophagus
•• ‘Corkscrew’ appearance on barium swallow
•• Heller’s myotomy and partial fundoplication are used as treatment.
Motility Disorders of Esophagus

Also occur in:
•• Systemic sclerosis
•• Polymyositis
•• Dermatomyositis
•• Mixed CT disorders
Dysphagia Lusoria
It is dysphagia secondary to vascular anomalies:
•• Double aortic arch
•• Right aortic arch
•• Aberrant right subclavian artery
•• Abnormal innominate artery
•• So diagnosis is by arteriography
Zenker’s Diverticulum
•• Mc esophegeal diverticulum
•• In elderly age group usually
•• Weakness in the posterior hypopharyngeal wall (Killian’s triangle)
Surgery 449
•• Pulsion diverticulum
•• Intermittent dysphagia, regurgitation, gurgling sound in the neck
•• Causes halitosis, regurgitation of saliva and food, dysphagia or complete obstruction. Symptomatic Zenker’s diverticula are treated
by cricopharyngeal myotomy with or without diverticulectomy
•• Very large symptomatic esophageal diverticula are removed surgically by:
–– Excision of pouch or cricopharyngeal myotomy
–– Dohlman’s procedure
Esophageal Hernias
Type I
•• ‘Sliding’ hernia
•• It is dislocation of cardia of stomach into posterior mediastinum and presents with GERD
•• MC type
•• Lesser complications occur
•• Treatment is generally medical for uncomplicated cases
•• Treatment is surgical for all complicated cases
Type II
•• ‘Paraesophegal’ hernia
•• Cardia is normal but gastric fundus, colon or small gut is dislocated
•• Cardiorespiratory arrest, dysphagia are seen
•• Complications are more common and severe
•• Treatment is surgical even for uncomplicated cases
Barrett’s Esophagus
•• Metaplasia seen
•• Metaplasia of ‘squamous epithelium’ to columnar in esophagus at lower end
•• Because of prolonged GERD
•• Intestinal type metaplasia is the commonest
•• Progression to adenocarcinoma occurs
Complications:
–– Barrett’s ulcer
–– Stricture
–– Perforation
–– Progression to adenocarcinoma occurs
–– Diagnosis suggested by endoscopy
–– Diagnosis confirmed by biopsy
Barrett’s esophagus may occur in a small number of patients who have gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). This condition
is a metaplasia of the normal squamous mucosa of the esophagus to a columnar (glandular) type of epithelium, and is usually
seen as a response to repeated acid exposure to the distal esophagus. Tobacco and alcohol use are also thought to contribute
to the process. The significance of Barrett’s esophagus is that it may lead to the development of low-grade dysplasia, high-
grade dysplasia, or esophageal adenocarcinoma.
Esophageal Diverticula
These are epithelial-lined mucosal pouches that protrude from the esophageal lumen. Almost all of them are acquired and
occur predominantly in adults.
•• A true diverticulum: Contains all layers of the normal esophageal wall, including mucosa, submucosa, and muscle, whereas
a false diverticulum consists primarily of only mucosa and submucosa
•• Pulsion diverticula arise because elevated intraluminal pressure forces the mucosa and submucosa to herniate through
the esophageal musculature; therefore, they are false diverticula.
Traction diverticula are the result of external inflammatory reaction in adjacent mediastinal lymph nodes that adhere to the
esophagus and pull the entire wall toward them as they heal and contract; they are true diverticula.
Pharyngoesophageal Diverticula
•• The pharyngoesophageal diverticulum is the most common esophageal diverticulum, generally occurring in patients
between 30 and 50 years of age and, therefore, believed to be acquired
•• The diverticulum characteristically arises within the inferior pharyngeal constrictor, between the oblique fibers of the
thyropharyngeus muscle and the more horizontal fibers of the cricopharyngeus muscle, the upper esophageal sphincter
(UES).
•• The transition in the direction of these muscle fibers (Killian’s triangle) represents a point of potential weakness in the
posterior pharynx and is the site of formation of the pharyngoesophageal diverticulum
•• Pharyngoesophageal diverticula are usually associated with complaints of cervical dysphagia, effortless regurgitation of
undigested particles of food or pills sometimes consumed hours earlier, a gurgling sensation in the neck on swallowing,
choking, and recurrent aspiration
•• A barium esophagogram establishes the diagnosis
•• Surgical therapy in symptomatic patients is indicated in most cases, regardless of the size of the pouch and, it is hoped,
before complications occur.
Esophageal Varices
•• Important site for communication between the intra-abdominal splanchnic circulation and the systemic venous circulation is
through the esophagus
•• The increased pressure in the esophageal plexus produces dilated tortuous vessels called varices. Persons with cirrhosis develop
varices so that varices are present in approximately two-thirds of all cirrhotic patients
•• Varices appear as tortuous dilated veins lying primarily within the submucosa of the distal esophagus and proximal stomach.
Intramural Hematoma
•• Emetogenic injury, particularly in patients with bleeding abnormalities, can cause bleeding between the mucosal and muscle
layers of the esophagus
•• The patients develop sudden dysphagia
•• The diagnosis is made by barium swallow and computed tomography
•• Resolution is usually spontaneous.
Foreign Bodies
•• Foreign bodies may lodge in the cervical esophagus
•• Impaction of a bolus of food, particularly a piece of meat or bread, may occur when the esophageal lumen is narrowed due to
stricture, carcinoma, or a lower esophageal ring (nonprogressive dysphagia)
•• Acute impaction causes a complete inability to swallow and severe chest pain
•• Both foreign bodies and food boluses may be removed endoscopically.
Esophageal Cancer
Predisposing factors for esophageal cancer
•• Excess alcohol
Surgery 451
•• Cigarette smoking
•• Ingested (nitrates, fungal toxins in pickles)
•• Smoked opiates
•• Hot tea
•• Corrosives
•• Radiation strictures
•• Chronic achlasia
•• Caustic ingestion
•• External beam irradiation
•• Diverticulae
•• Plummer-Vinson syndrome
•• Tylosis
•• Molybdenum, Zinc and Vitamin A deficiency
•• Celiac sprue
•• Barrett’s esophagus
Features: Progressive dysphagia (mc) weight loss, weakness, anemia, hoarseness
Esophagoscopy is the diagnosis of choice.
•• Mc type of esophageal cancer: Squamous cell ca
•• Mc site of esophageal cancer: Lower end
•• Mc site of adenocarcinoma: Lower end
•• Mc site of squamous cell ca: Middle 1
•• Chemotherapy has limited role and cisplatin, bleomycin and 5 fluorouracil are used.
Esophagectomies
•• Cervical esophagus: Transhiatal esophagectomy
•• Upper thoraxic: Transincisional/Transhiatal esophagectomy
•• Mid thoraxic: Transincisional/Ivor Lewis surgery
•• Lower thoraxic: Ivor-lewis surgery
Abdomen
The abdominal wall is composed of nine layers.
From outward in, they are:
(1) Skin
(2) Subcutaneous tissue
(3) Superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
(4) External abdominal oblique muscle
(5) Internal abdominal oblique muscle
(6) Transversus abdominis muscle
(7) Transversalis fascia
(8) Extraperitoneal adipose and areolar tissue
(9) Peritoneum
Omphalitis
•• This is infection of the umbilicus
•• Results from poor hygiene and is treated with appropriate cleansing and local care to the umbilicus
•• However, in the neonatal period, omphalitis may result from bacterial infection and may potentially be associated with serious
sequelae, such as portal vein thrombosis.
Rectus Sheath Hematoma

•• Extravasation of blood into the rectus sheath.
•• It is usually the result of trauma.
•• Patients with rectus sheath hematomas most often give a history of receiving anticoagulant drugs for various conditions.
•• When the hematoma develops, it ordinarily occurs at the level of the semicircular line of Douglas, where the inferior epigastric artery
enters the rectus sheath.
•• Patients complain of an acute illness, with abdominal pain over the hematoma, nausea, and vomiting. Frequently, a tender mass is
palpable. Operation is indicated only if more serious conditions cannot otherwise be excluded.
Desmoid Tumors
•• These are benign fibrous tumors that arise from the musculoaponeurotic abdominal wall.
•• These tumors are histologically benign but frequently are locally invasive and are prone to recurrence after local excision.
•• They present as firm, subcutaneous masses that grow slowly. They should be widely excised to prevent local recurrence. They do not
have a propensity toward metastasis.
STOMACH: MOST DISTENSIBLE/DILATED PART OF DIGESTIVE TRACT

Arterial Supply
•• Left gastric artery •• Branch of celiac trunk
•• Right gastric artery •• Branch of common hepatic artery
•• Left gastroepiploic artery •• Branch of gastroduodenal artery
•• Right gastroepiploic artery •• Branch of splenic artery
Celiac Trunk
•• LEFT GASTRIC ARTERY→ esophageal branch, gastric branch
•• COMMON HEPATIC ARTERY→ right hepatic, left hepatic, gastroduodenal artery → supraduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior
pancreaticoduodenal artery
•• SPLENIC ARTERY→ short gastric, left gastroepiploic, pancreatic branches
‘Congenital’ Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis on USG

•• Common in males
•• Presents about 4 weeks after birth
•• Nonbilious vomiting is a feature
•• Weight loss with hypochloremic alkalosis is a feature
•• Halstead’s procedure is done
•• Isotonic normal saline is the fluid of choice
Pyloric Mass Best Felt During Feeding

•• Target sign: Hypoechoic ring and hypertrophied pyloric muscle
•• Pyloric muscle wall thickness 3 mm
•• Pyloric volume greater than 1.4 cm3
•• Pyloric length greater than 1.2 cm
•• Cervix sign: Indentation of muscle mass on fluid-filled antrum on long scan
•• Antral nipple sign: Redundant pyloric canal mucosa protruding into gastric antrum
Chronic Gastritis
It is defined as the presence of chronic inflammatory changes in the mucosa leading eventually to mucosal atrophy and epithelial
metaplasia.
Surgery 453
Classification of Gastritis
•• Type A: Autoimmune gastritis—Associated with pernicious anemia. Body of the stomach is usually affected
•• Type B: Environmental gastritis—Results from dietary or intraluminal factors, specially Helicobacter pylori. Usually localized in the
antrum. In severe cases, the inflammation spreads to the proximal part of the stomach
•• Type C: Chemical gastritis—Associated with ingestion of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or bile influx.
MC BENIGN NEOPLASM IS LEIOMYOMA

Gastric Cancer
•• More than 90% of gastric tumors are carcinomas
•• Lymphomas, carcinoids and stromal tumors are relatively infrequent
•• The two main types of gastric adenocarcinomas are the intestinal and diffuse types
•• Macroscopic patterns of both types may be exophytic, flat or depressed, or excavating
•• Intestinal type of adenocarcinoma is associated with chronic gastritis caused by H. pylori infection, with gastric atrophy and
intestinal metaplasia; composed of malignant cells forming intestinal glands
•• Diffuse type of adenocarcinoma is not associated with H. pylori infection; composed of gastric type of mucous cells (signet
ring cells) that permeate the mucosa without forming glands.
Adenocarcinoma Most Common

Antrum Most Common Site
•• Helicobacter seems to be principally associated with carcinoma of the body and distal stomach rather than the proximal
stomach
•• As Helicobacter is associated with gastritis, gastric atrophy and intestinal pernicious anemia and gastric atrophy are at increased
risk, as are those with gastric polyps metaplasia
•• Peptic ulcer surgery, particularly those who have had drainage procedures such as Billroth II or Polya gastrectomy,
gastroenterostomy or pyloroplasty
•• Excessive salt intake, deficiency of antioxidants
•• Exposure to N-nitroso compounds
•• Type A blood group
•• Li-Fraumeni syndrome, HNPCC, FAP, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Features
•• Earliest symptom is vague postprandial heaviness
•• Features: weight loss, (MC), ascites, jaundice
•• Enlarged It. Supraclavicular node (Virchow’s node) ‘Troisier’s’ sign
•• Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule around the umbilicus
•• Secondaries in ovary (Krukenberg’s tumor)
•• Peritoneal implants in pelvis (Blumer’s shelf)
•• ‘Trousseau’s’ sign and DVT (both Troiser’s and Trousseau’s sign)
•• Best diagnosis is by: ‘ENDOSCOPY WITH BIOPSY’
Complications After Gastric Surgeries

•• Duodenal fistula (blow-out)
•• Recurrent ulceration
•• Gastrojejunocolic fistula
•• Dumping syndromes
•• Osteomalacia/osteoporosis
•• Anemia
•• Intestinal obstruction
•• Carcinoma
‘Early’ gastric cancer

•• Primary lesion confined to mucosa and submucosa
•• Excellent prognosis
‘Advanced’ cancer
•• It is extension below submucosa into muscle (Muscularis)
Gastric Lymphoma
•• Most common in the sixth decade
•• The common symptoms being pain, weight loss and bleeding
•• Acute presentations of gastric lymphoma such as hematemesis, perforation or obstruction are not common
•• Primary gastric lymphomas are B-cell-derived, the tumor arising from the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
•• Primary gastric lymphoma remains in the stomach for a prolonged period before involving the lymph nodes
•• Diagnosis is by endoscopic biopsy
•• Infection with H. pylori, increases the risk for gastric lymphoma in general and MALT lymphomas in particular
•• Microscopically, the vast majority of gastric lymphoid tumors are non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas of B-cell origin; Hodgkin’s disease
involving the stomach is extremely uncommon
•• Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy is used for treatment
•• Bleeding, perforation and residual disease warrant surgery
•• MALT lymphomas are present at extranodal sites

•• MALT lymphomas are predisposed by H. pylori
•• MALT lymphomas are sensitive to chemotherapy.
Acute Gastric Dilatation

•• This condition usually occurs in association with some form of ileus which is not treated by nasogastric suction
•• The stomach, which may also be atonic, dilates enormously
•• Often the patient vomits, is also dehydrated and has electrolyte disturbances
•• Failure to treat this condition can result in a sudden massive vomit with aspiration into the lungs
•• The treatment is nasogastric suction, fluid replacement and treatment of the underlying condition.
•• Surgery is not advocated.
Trichobezoar and Phytobezoar
Trichobezoar (hair balls)
•• These are unusual and are virtually exclusively found in female psychiatric patients, often young
•• It is caused by the pathological ingestion of hair which remains undigested in the stomach
•• The hair ball can lead to ulceration and gastrointestinal bleeding, perforation or obstruction
•• The diagnosis is made easily at endoscopy or, indeed, from a plain radiograph
•• Treatment consists of removal of the bezoar which may require open surgical treatment
Phytobezoar
•• These are made of the ‘vegetable matter’ and found principally in patients who have gastric stasis.
Volvulus of the Stomach
•• Rotation of the stomach usually occurs around the axis and between its two fixed points, i.e. the cardia and the pylorus.
Surgery 455
•• Rotation can occur in the horizontal (organoaxial) ‘most common’or vertical (mesenterioaxial) direction
•• This condition is usually associated with paraesophageal herniation
•• The transverse colon moves upwards to lie under the left diaphragm, thus taking the stomach with it, and the stomach and
colon may both enter the chest through the eventration of the diaphragm
•• The condition is commonly chronic, the patient presenting with difficulty in eating. An acute presentation with ischemia may
occur.
Ulcers
These are defined as a break in the mucosal surface >5 mm in size, with depth to the submucosa.
Duodenal ulcer Gastric ulcer
•• More common •• Less common
•• More associated with H. pylori •• Associated with H. pylori
•• Early age of onset •• Later age of onset
•• Occurs most often in the first portion of duodenum, with •• Occurs most often in the lesser curvature
~90% located within 3 cm of the pylorus •• More chances of malignancy
•• Less chances of malignancy •• Loss of weight
•• No loss of weight •• Tenderness usually midline
•• Tenderness usually in R. Hypochondrium •• Night pain uncommon
•• Night pain common
•• Curling’s ulcer: GI ulcers in severe burns

•• Cushing’s ulcer: GI ulcers in head injury
•• MC site of gastric ulcer •• Lesser curvature

•• MC site of duodenal ulcer •• Duodenal cap
•• MC site of carcinoma stomach •• Antrum
•• MC site of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome •• Pancreas
Malignant Gastric Ulcer

•• Ulcer ≥ 2.5 cms
•• Ulcer within a mass
•• Folds that don’t radiate from ulcer margin
Perforated Peptic Ulcer

•• It is the second most common complication of peptic ulcer
•• Usually located anteriorly
•• Duodenal ulcer perforation is more common in younger
•• Gastric ulcer perforation is more common in older
•• Gastroduodenal artery bleeds in duodenal ulcer
•• Free gas under diaphragm is indicative
•• Treatment is by: Nasogastric suction, acid suppression, broad-spectrum antibiotics are used
•• Exploratory laparotomy
Surgical treatment of duodenal ulcers:
•• Highly selective vagotomy (Least chance of diarrhea/dumping syndrome)
•• Selective vagotomy and drainage
•• Truncal vagotomy and drainage

•• Truncal vagotomy and anterectomy (lowest chance of recurrence)
Surgical treatment of gastric ulcers:
•• Distal gastrectomy
•• Vagotomy, pyloroplasty and ulcer excision
Dumping Syndrome
Dumping syndrome consists of a series of vasomotor and gastrointestinal signs and symptoms and occurs in patients who
have undergone vagotomy and drainage (especially Billroth procedures)
Early Dumping
•• Takes place 15 to 30 min after meals
•• Consists of crampy abdominal discomfort, nausea, diarrhea, belching, tachycardia, palpitations, diaphoresis, light-headedness and,
rarely, syncope
•• Cause: Rapid emptying of hyperosmolar gastric contents into the small intestine
•• Fluid shift into the gut lumen with plasma volume contraction and acute intestinal distention
•• Release of vasoactive gastrointestinal hormones (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, neurotensin, motilin)
Late Dumping
•• Typically occurs 90 min to 3 h after meals
•• Vasomotor symptoms (light-headedness, diaphoresis, palpitations, tachycardia, and syncope) predominate during this phase
•• This component of dumping is thought to be secondary to hypoglycemia from excessive insulin release
•• Dumping syndrome is most noticeable after meals rich in simple carbohydrates (especially sucrose) and high osmolarity
•• Ingestion of large amounts of fluids may also contribute
•• Up to 50% of postvagotomy and drainage patients will experience dumping syndrome to some degree
•• Signs and symptoms often improve with time
•• Dietary modification is the cornerstone of therapy for patients with dumping syndrome
•• Small, multiple (six) meals devoid of simple carbohydrates coupled with elimination of liquids during meals is important
•• Antidiarrheals and anticholinergic agents are complimentary to diet
The somatostatin analogue octreotide has been successful in diet-refractory cases.
Short Bowel Syndrome

Clinical problems that often occur following resection of varying lengths of small intestine
Features
•• Diarrhea and/or steatorrhea
•• Increase in renal calcium oxalate calculi is observed in patients with a small intestinal resection with an intact colon and is due
to an increase in oxalate absorption by the large intestine, with subsequent hyperoxaluria
•• Gastric hypersecretion of acid
Treatment
•• Diet should be low-fat, high-carbohydrate to minimize the diarrhea proton pump inhibitor may be helpful
•• Fat-soluble vitamins, folate, cobalamin, calcium, iron, magnesium, and zinc are the most critical factors to monitor on a regular
basis
•• If these approaches are not successful, TPN represents an established therapy that can be maintained for many years
•• Intestinal transplantation is beginning to become established as a possible approach for individuals with extensive intestinal
resection who cannot be maintained without TPN.
Surgery 457
Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome or Stagnant Bowel Syndrome

•• Diarrhea, steatorrhea, and macrocytic anemia whose common feature is the proliferation of colon-type bacteria within the
small intestine
•• Due to stasis caused by:
–– Impaired peristalsis (i.e. functional stasis)
–– Changes in intestinal anatomy (i.e. anatomic stasis)
–– Direct communication between the small and large intestine
•• Presence of increased amounts of a colonic-type bacterial flora, such as E. coli or Bacteroides, in the small intestine
•• Macrocytic anemia is due to cobalamin, not folate, deficiency
•• Steatorrhea is due to impaired micelle formation as a consequence of a reduced intraduodenal concentration of bile acids and
the presence of unconjugated bile acids
•• Best established by a Schilling test which should be abnormal following the administration of 58 co-labeled cobalamin, with or
without the administration of intrinsic factor
•• Following the administration of tetracycline for 5 days, the Schilling test will become normal, confirming the diagnosis of
bacterial overgrowth.
Healthy Differences Between Two Unhealthy Diseases

Ulcerative Colitis Crohn’s disease
•• Involves rectum always •• Involves ileum mostly
•• May cause ‘pancolitis’ •• Nondiffuse involvement
•• Diffuse involvement •• Called ‘regional enteritis’
•• Retrograde spread to ileum is backwash ileitis
•• Disease of continuity •• Skip lesions
•• Pseudopolyps present •• Pseudopolyps absent
•• Limited to mucosa and submucosa •• Transmural inflammation
•• Noncaseasting granulomas not seen •• Noncaseating granulomas seen
•• Creeping fat not seen •• Creeping fat seen
•• Crypt abscess •• Crypt abcess also seen
•• Strictures, ulcerations, fistula less frequent •• Strictures, ulcerations, fistula frequent
•• Toxic megacolon occurs •• Rare
•• Malignant transformation +++ •• Malignant transformation +
•• Malignant transformation +
•• Malignant transformation from dysplastic sites
•• Takes 10 years to develop
•• Common in younger patients
•• Associations of UC:
–– Pyoderma gangreonosum
–– Erythema nodosum
‘Pseudomembranous’ Enterocolitis
A 14-year-old girl presents to the GI Clinic with the complain of watery diarrhea tinged with blood. Her medications are topical
benzoyl peroxide and oral clindamycin for acne vulgaris. Physical examination reveals a slightly distended abdomen that is diffusely
tender.
Surgery in UC
There are several well-identified complications that require urgent operation for survival. These include:
•• Massive, unrelenting hemorrhage
•• Toxic megacolon with impending or frank perforation
•• Fulminating acute ulcerative colitis that is unresponsive to steroid therapy
•• Obstruction from stricture
•• Suspicion or demonstration of colonic cancer
The largest number of colectomies for ulcerative colitis are performed for less dramatic indications, as the disease enters an intractable
chronic phase and becomes both a physical and a social burden to the patient
For Hemorrage/Bleeding: Prompt surgical intervention is indicated after hemodynamic stabilization. More than 50% of patients with
acute colonic bleeding have toxic megacolon. So one should be suspicious of the coexistence of the two complications. Uncontrollable
hemorrhage from the entire colorectal mucosa may be the one clear indication for emergency proctocolectomy. If possible, the rectum
should be spared for later mucosal proctectomy with ileoanal anastomosis.
Acute Toxic Megacolon

•• It can occur in both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
•• Its incidence is higher in ulcerative colitis
•• Patients usually present clinically with the onset of abdominal pain and severe diarrhea (greater than 10 stools per day),
followed by abdominal distention and generalized tenderness
•• Once megacolon and toxicity develop, fever, leukocytosis, tachycardia, pallor, lethargy, and shock ensue. It is important to note
that any of these manifestations can be masked by chronic steroid use and the generally poor nutritional condition of the patient
•• An abdominal radiograph usually shows dilation of the transverse and occasionally the sigmoid colon that is greater than 5 cm and
averages 9.2 cm. Thickening and nodularity of the bowel wall due to mucosal inflammation are also noted
•• Initial treatment for toxic megacolon includes intravenous fluid and electrolyte resuscitation, nasogastric suction, broad-
spectrum antibiotics to include anaerobic and aerobic gram-negative coverage, and total parenteral nutrition to improve
nutritional status. Proctoscopy may be helpful in determining the etiology of the attack, as may culture of the stool.
Adipose Tissue Changes of Crohn’s Disease

•• Fat Hypertrophy
•• Fat Wrapping (Creeping fat)
•• More than 50% of intestinal surface may be covered by fat, especially along the antimesenteric border and sometimes leading
to the obliteration of bowel mesentry angle
•• Creeping fat is well demonstrated by CT scan
Ulcers in GIT
•• Transverse ulcers: TB
•• Longitudinal ulcer: Crohn’s disease
•• ‘Flask’-shaped ulcer: Amebic ulcer
Tumors of Small Bowel

BENIGN:
•• Adenoma
•• Lipoma
•• Angioma
•• Hamartoma
Surgery 459
MALIGNANT:
•• Adenocarcinoma
•• Carcinoid
•• Lymphoma
•• Sarcoma
Small Intestine
•• Blood Supply: The small intestine receives its blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery, the second largest branch of
the abdominal aorta
•• Peyer’s patches are lymph nodules aggregated in the submucosa of the small intestine. These lymphatic nodules are most
abundant in the ileum, but the jejunum also contains them
•• Mucosa: The mucosal surface of the small intestine contains numerous circular mucosal folds called the plicae circulares
(valvulae conniventes, or valves of Kerckring). These folds are 3 to 10 mm in height; they are taller and more numerous in the
distal duodenum and proximal jejunum, becoming shorter and fewer distally
•• Intestinal villi barely visible to the naked eye resemble tiny finger-like processes projecting into the intestinal lumen.
Acute Mesenteric Ischemia and Infarction

•• Classified as occlusive or nonocclusive
•• Occlusion accounts for about 75% of acute intestinal ischemia
•• Result from an arterial thrombus (one-third of arterial occlusions) or embolus (two-thirds of arterial occlusions) of the celiac
or superior mesenteric arteries
•• Arterial embolus occurs most commonly in patients with chronic or recurrent atrial fibrillation, artificial heart valves, or
valvular heart disease
•• Arterial thrombosis is usually associated with extensive atherosclerosis or low cardiac output
•• Venous occlusion is rare; it is occasionally seen in women taking oral contraceptives
–– The major clinical feature of acute mesenteric ischemia is severe abdominal pain, often colicky and periumbilical at the
onset, later becoming diffuse and constant
–– Superior mesenteric arteries are commonly involved
–– Vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea, and constipation are also frequent
–– Examination of the abdomen may reveal tenderness and distention
–– Bowel sounds are often normal even in the face of severe infarction. Some patients have a surprisingly normal abdominal
examination in spite of severe pain
–– Mild gastrointestinal bleeding is often detected by examination of stool for occult blood; gross hemorrhage is unusual except
in ischemic colitis. Leukocytosis is often present
–– Later in the course of the disease (24 to 72 h), gangrene of the bowel occurs with diffuse peritonitis, sepsis, and shock
–– Abdominal plain films in patients with mesenteric ischemia may reveal air-fluid levels and distention
–– Barium study of the small intestine reveals nonspecific dilation, poor motility, and evidence of thick mucosal folds (thumb
printing)
–– Acute mesenteric ischemia is a grave condition with a high morbidity and mortality
–– Arteriography is diagnostic
–– Embolectomy is the treatment
Chronic Intestinal Ischemia

•• It is called abdominal angina
•• Occurs under conditions of increased demand for splanchnic blood flow
•• The patient complains of intermittent dull or cramping midabdominal pain 15 to 30 min after a meal, lasting for several hours
postprandially.
•• Significant weight loss due to decreased food intake (food fear) may be present
•• Arteriographic studies should be performed to confirm the diagnosis
•• The only definitive treatment is vascular surgery or balloon angioplasty to remove the thrombus or the construction of bypass
arterial grafts to the ischemic bowel
Appendix
•• MC position is retrocecal
•• Appendicular artery is an end artery
•• McBurney’s point is in relation to appendicitis
Acute Appendicitis
•• The peak incidence of acute appendicitis is in the second and third decades of life
•• It is relatively rare at the extremes of age
•• The most commonly accepted theory of the pathogenesis of appendicitis is that it results from obstruction followed by infection.
The lumen of the appendix becomes obstructed by hyperplasia of submucosal lymphoid follicles, a fecalith, tumor, or other
pathologic condition. Once the lumen of the appendix is obstructed, the sequence of events leading to acute appendicitis
•• Infection with Yersinia organisms cause the disease (PSEUDOAPPENDICITIS)
•• Left sided appendicitis is diverticulosis
•• Most commonly caused by a fecalith, which results from accumulation and inspissation of fecal matter around vegetable fibers
•• Enlarged lymphoid follicles associated with viral infections (e.g. measles), inspissated barium, worms (e.g. Oxy uris)
•• (Pinworms, Ascaris, and Taenia), and tumors (e.g. carcinoid or carcinoma) may also obstruct the lumen
•• Tenderness at Mcburney’s point
•• Retrocecal appendicitis: Rigidity absent
•• Pelvic and postileal appendicitis: Diarrhea (MISSED FREQUENTLY)
•• Gangrene and perforation occur. If the process evolves slowly, adjacent organs such as the terminal ileum, cecum, and omentum
may wall off the appendiceal area so that a localized abscess will develop, whereas rapid progression of vascular impairment may
cause perforation with free access to the peritoneal cavity
•• Signs:
–– Hamburger sign (significant anorexia)
–– Pointing sign
–– Rovsing’s sign
–– Psoas sign
–– Obturator test
•• Acute appendicitis may be the first manifestation of Crohn’s disease
•• Fever greater than 102 °F and leucocyte count greater than 18,000/mm3 suggests ruptured appendix
•• The history and sequence of symptoms are important diagnostic features of appendicitis
•• The initial symptom is almost invariably abdominal pain usually poorly localized in the periumbilical or epigastric region with an
accompanying urge to defecate or pass flatus, neither of which relieves the distress
•• Appendicitis is the most common extrauterine condition requiring abdominal operation
•• USG is helpful in diagnosis
•• USG and CT scan are confirmatory
•• The treatment is early operation and appendectomy as soon as the patient can be prepared
•• The only circumstance in which operation is not indicated is the presence of a palpable mass 3 to 5 days after the onset of symptoms.
Mucocele of Appendix:
•• It is a benign tumor/retention cyst
•• It can progress to malignancy.
Surgery 461
Appendicular Carcinoid:
•• Mc malignant tumor of appendix
•• Adenocarcinoma of appendix is rare
•• Treated by right hemicolectomy.
Peritoneal cavity
•• It is the largest cavity in the body
•• Mc causative organism of acute bacterial peritonitis is E. coli followed by Klebsiella
•• Peritoneal mesotheliomas are associated with asbestos exposure
•• Lymphoma and retroperitoneal sarcoma are the most common malignant lesions of retroperitoneum
•• ‘Ormond’s disease’ is idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis
•• ‘Peritoneal mice’ is Appendicis epiploicae
•• Commonest site of intraperitoneal abscess is ‘pelvic’.
Pneumococcal Peritonitis
There are two forms of this disease: (1) primary, and (2) secondary to pneumonia
•• Primary pneumococcal peritonitis is more common
•• The patient is often an undernourished girl between 3 and 6 years of age, and it is probable that the infection sometimes occurs
via the vagina and Fallopian tubes, for pneumococci have been cultured from patients’ vaginas
•• In males, the infection is blood-borne from the upper respiratory tract or the middle ear. After the age of 10, pneumococcal
peritonitis is most unusual
•• Associated with nephritic syndrome
•• Children with nephritis are more liable to this condition than others.
Familial Mediterranean fever (periodic peritonitis)
•• Characterized by abdominal pain and tenderness, mild pyrexia, polymorphonuclear leucocytosis and occasionally pain in
the thorax and joints
•• The duration of an attack is 24–72 hours, when it is followed by complete remission but exacerbations recur at regular intervals
•• Most of the patients have undergone appendicectomy in childhood
•• This disease, often familial, is limited principally to Arabs, Armenians and Jews; other races are occasionally affected
•• The peritoneum—particularly in the vicinity of the spleen and the Gallbladder is inflamed
•• There is no evidence that the interior of these organs is abnormal. Colchicine may prevent recurrent attacks.
Peritoneal bands and adhesions
•• Congenital bands and membranes. Intestinal obstruction is rarely seen except by an obliterated vitellointestinal duct
•• Peritoneal adhesions
•• Peritoneal adhesions are abnormal deposits of fibrous tissue that form after peritoneal injury
•• They follow operation or peritonitis and are the commonest cause of small bowel obstruction and secondary female infertility in
developed countries.
Talc granuloma
•• Talc (silicate of magnesium) should never be used as a lubricant for rubber gloves for it is a cause of peritoneal adhesions and
granulomas in the Fallopian tubes.
Starch peritonitis
•• Like talc, starch powder has found disfavor as a surgical glove lubricant
•• In a few starch-sensitive patients, it causes a painful ascites, fortunately of limited duration.
Frequently asked
Subphrenic abscess
Anatomy
The complicated arrangement of the peritoneum results in the formation of four peritoneal and three extraperitoneal spaces in which
pus may collect. Three of these spaces are on either side of the body, and one is approximately in the midline
Left superior (anterior) intraperitoneal (left subphrenic)
•• It is bounded above by the diaphragm, and behind by the left triangular ligament and the left lobe of the liver, the gastrohepatic
omentum and anterior surface of the stomach. To the right is the falciform ligament and to the left the spleen, gastrosplenic
omentum and diaphragm
•• Patient is toxic
•• The common cause of an abscess here is an operation on the stomach, the tail of the pancreas, the spleen or the splenic
flexure of the colon.
Left inferior (posterior) intraperitoneal (left subhepatic)
•• It is another name for the ‘lesser’ sac
•• The commonest cause of infection here is complicated acute pancreatitis. In practice, a perforated gastric ulcer rarely causes a
collection here because the potential space is obliterated by adhesions.
Right superior (anterior) intraperitoneal (right subphrenic)
•• Lies between the right lobe of the liver and the diaphragm. It is limited posteriorly by the anterior layer of the coronary and the
right triangular ligaments, and to the left by the falciform ligament
•• Common causes here are perforating cholecystitis, a perforated duodenal ulcer, a duodenal cap ‘blow-out’ following gastrectomy
and appendicitis.
Right inferior (posterior) intraperitoneal (right subhepatic)
•• It lies transversely beneath the right lobe of the liver in Rutherford Morison’s pouch
•• It is bounded on the right by the right lobe of the liver and the diaphragm. To the left is situated the foramen of Winslow and below
this lies the duodenum. In front are the liver and the gallbladder, and behind, the upper part of the right kidney and diaphragm
•• The space is bounded above by the liver and below by the transverse colon and hepatic flexure. It is the deepest space of the four
and the commonest site of a subphrenic abscess which usually arises from appendicitis, cholecystitis, a perforated duodenal ulcer
or following upper abdominal surgery.
Subphrenic spaces
Syndromes Associated with Small Intestinal Neoplasms

•• Bessauds-Hillmand-Augier Syndrome. Sexual infantilism associated with intestinal polyposis
•• Carter-Horsley-Hughes Syndrome. Diffuse polyposis of the small and large intestine
•• Cowden’s Disease or Multiple Hamartoma Syndrome. Hamartomatous, juvenile, lipomatous, or inflammatory polyps are
present mainly in the stomach and colon but are also present in the small intestine. Benign and malignant breast and thyroid
disease are also found in these patients, as well as mucocutaneous lesions, trichilemmoma, acral keratoses, and oral papillomas
•• Cronkhite-Canada Syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by generalized gastrointestinal polyposis and ectodermal defects
such as alopecia, excessive skin pigmentations, and nail atrophy. In the intestinal polyps, dilated cystic glands are found in an
edematous lamina propria. Loss of protein from the gut, along with calcium, magnesium, and potassium deficiencies, may occur
•• Familial Polyposis of the Colon. This syndrome is customarily associated with polyps of the colon, but cases of generalized
polyposis have been recorded, with associated malignancy.
Surgery 463
•• Gardner’s Syndrome. This syndrome is generally characterized by rectal and colonic polyposis, but generalized polyposis has
been recorded. These polyps are involved in the development of adenocarcinoma. The syndrome also includes cysts of the skin,
osteomas, fibrous and fatty tumors of the skin and mesentery, follicular odontomas, and dentigerous cysts and changes in
the bony structures of the jaws. This syndrome is familial and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait
•• Gordon’s Disease. This is a protein-losing gastroenteropathy, usually manifested as Ménétrier’s disease, which involves
mucosal hypertrophy, hyperplasia of the superficial epithelium, degeneration in the glandular layer, and hypoproteinemia due
to leakage of proteins through the mucous membranes. A diffuse gastrointestinal polyposis associated with protein loss has also
been reported
•• Juvenile Polyposis. Juvenile polyposis is most commonly found in the colon and rectum, but isolated examples of generalized
gastrointestinal polyposis have been reported with and without family history or other congenital abnormalities.
•• Muir-Torre Syndrome. This syndrome was described to include sebaceous adenomas, epidermoid cysts, fibromas, desmoids,
lipomas, fibrosarcomas and leiomyomas with visceral cancers
•• Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by hamartomatous polyps of the gastrointestinal tract (stomach,
small bowel, colon) that are associated with mucocutaneous pigmentation (lips, oral mucosa, fingers, forearm, toes, umbilical
area). The skin pigmentation may fade after puberty, but that of the mucous membrane is retained
•• Pseudoxanthoma elasticum. Benign vascular lesions of the intestinal tract have been reported in association with this disease
•• Rendu-Osler-Weber Disease. This disease is described as telangiectasia of the nasopharynx or gastrointestinal tract
•• Turcot’s Syndrome. Malignant brain tumors are associated with inherited intestinal adenomatous polyposis
•• von Recklinghausen’s Disease. Generalized neurofibromatosis with café au lait skin pigmentation may also include
neurofibromas of the gastrointestinal tract.
Non-neoplastic Polyps
•• Hyperplastic polyps
•• Hamartomatous polyp
•• Inflammatory polyp
•• Almost all other polyps are malignant
•• Juvenile polyp is most common in children
•• Villous adenoma has the highest malignant potential than other histological types.
Malignant polyps
Meckel’s Diverticulum
•• A true congenital diverticulum
•• It is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct (also called the vitelline duct), and is the most frequent malformation
of the gastrointestinal tract
•• Meckel’s diverticulum is located in the distal ileum, usually within about 60-100 cm of the ileocecal valve
•• It is typically 3–5 cm long, runs antimesenterically and has its own blood supply
•• It is a remnant of the connection from the umbilical cord to the small intestine present during embryonic development.
A Memory Aid is the Rule of 2s

•• 2% (of the population)
•• 2 feet (from the ileocecal valve)
•• 2 inches (in length)
•• 2% are symptomatic
•• 2 types of common ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic)
•• Most common age at clinical presentation is 2
•• Males are 2 times as likely to be affected.
•• It can also be present as an indirect hernia, where it is known as a ‘Hernia of Litter’

•• Furthermore, it can be attached to the umbilical region by the vitelline ligament, with the possibility of vitelline cysts, or even a
patent vitelline canal forming a vitelline fistula when the umbilical cord is cut
•• Torsions of intestine around the intestinal stalk may also occur, leading to obstruction, ischemia, and necrosis
•• Symptoms
–– The majority of people afflicted with Meckel’s diverticulum are asymptomatic. If symptoms do occur, they typically appear
before the age of two
–– The most common presenting symptom is painless rectal bleeding, followed by intestinal obstruction, volvulus and
intussusception. Occasionally, Meckel’s diverticulitis may present with all the features of acute appendicitis
–– A technetium-99m (99mTc) pertechnetate scan is the investigation of choice to diagnose Meckel’s diverticula
–– Other tests such as colonoscopy and screenings for bleeding disorders should be performed, and angiography can assist in
determining the location and severity of bleeding. Meckel’s diverticulitis occurs more often in males
–– Can be a leading point of intussusception.
Omphalomesenteric Duct Remnants

•• Remnants of the omphalomesenteric (vitelline) duct may present as abnormalities related to the abdominal wall
•• In the fetus, the omphalomesenteric duct connects the fetal midgut to the yolk sac. This normally obliterates and disappears
completely. However, any or all of the fetal ducts may persist.
•• An umbilical polyp is a small excrescence of omphalomesenteric duct mucosa that is retained in the umbilicus. Such polyps
resemble umbilical granulomas except that they do not disappear after silver nitrate cauterization.
•• Umbilical sinuses result from the continued presence of the umbilical end of the omphalomesenteric duct. These resemble
umbilical polyps, but close inspection reveals the presence of a sinus tract deep to the umbilicus.
•• Persistence of the entire omphalomesenteric duct is heralded by the passage of enteric contents from the umbilicus.
•• Cystic remnants of the omphalomesenteric duct may persist and be asymptomatic for long periods of time. The cysts may be
connected to the ileum with a fibrous band that is a remnant of the obliterated omphalomesenteric duct. Patients may present
with acute volvulus and intestinal obstruction or with acute abdomen because of cyst infection.
•• Meckel’s diverticulum results when the intestinal end of the omphalomesenteric duct persists. This is a true diverticulum of
the intestine with all layers of the intestinal wall represented.
Colonic Polyposis Syndromes

•• Gardner’s Syndrome •• Colonic cancer associated with soft tissue tumors (osteomas, lipomas, cysts,
fibrosarcomas).
•• Turcot’s Syndrome •• Colonic cancer associated with central nervous system malignancies.
•• Cronkhite-Canada Syndrome •• Intestinal polyps, hyperpigmentation with alopecia and absence of finger nails.
•• Hereditary Polyposis Coli Syndrome or •• Most important presenting with hundreds of polyps
•• APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli) •• 100% chances of malignant transformation
•• Autosomal dominant with involvement of chromosome 5.
Surgery 465
•• Hereditary Non-Polyposis Coli •• This consists of three family members having at leat two generations with colonic
Syndrome (Lynch Syndrome) cancer
•• There is a high risk of associated ovarian and endometrial cancer in this syndrome.
•• Cowden’s Syndrome •• Hamartomas with increased risk of bleeding especially in a child presenting with
rectal bleeding.
Colonic Diverticula
•• Herniations or sac-like protrusions of the mucosa through the muscularis, at the point where a nutrient artery penetrates the
muscularis
•• Most commonly in the sigmoid colon and decrease in frequency in the proximal colon
•• They increase with age
•• Related to an increase in intraluminal pressure
•• Diet, deficient in dietary fiber or roughage. Results in decreased fecal bulk, narrowing of the colon, and an increase in intraluminal
pressure in order to move the smaller fecal mass
•• Colonic diverticula are usually asymptomatic and are an incidental finding on barium enema or colonoscopy.
Diverticulitis
•• Inflammation can occur in diverticular sac
•• The cause is mechanical, related to retention in the diverticula of undigested food residue and bacteria, which may form a hard
mass called a fecalith
•• More often in the left as in the right colon
•• Acute colonic diverticulitis is a disease of variable severity characterized by fever, left lower quadrant abdominal pain, and
signs of peritoneal irritation—muscle spasm, guarding, rebound tenderness
•• Rectal bleeding, usually microscopic, is noted in 25% of cases; it is rarely massive. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis is common
•• Massive hemorrhage from colonic diverticula is one of the most common causes of hematochezia in patients over age 60
•• Complications include free perforation, which results in acute peritonitis, sepsis, and shock, particularly in the elderly
•• Abscess formation or fistulas then occur as the inflammatory mass burrows into other organs. Severe pericolitis may cause a
fibrous stricture around the bowel, which can be associated with colonic obstruction and may mimic a neoplasm
•• Diagnosis: During the acute phase of diverticulitis, barium enema and sigmoidoscopy may be hazardous, since contrast material
or air under pressure may lead to rupture of an inflamed diverticulum and convert a walled-off inflammatory lesion to a free
perforation
•• Colonoscopy or surgical excision may be required for accurate diagnosis. Abdominal computed tomography scan may demonstrate
the presence of a pericolic abscess.
Complications of diverticulitis
Aganglionic Megacolon (Hirschsprung’s Disease)

•• Congenital disorder due to absence of enteric neurons (ganglions) in the distal colon and rectum
•• Hirschsprung’s disease or congenital aganglionic megacolon is caused by a congenital absence of the ganglion cells of both the
Meissner and Auerbach plexuses
•• It is the most common cause of lower intestinal obstruction in the neonatal period. In early childhood, it may present as chronic
constipation with intermittent fecal soiling. It occurs predominantly in males and there is an increased family incidence
•• The biopsy would reveal an absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses
–– Some patients have an autosomal dominant form of the disease with mutations in the RET gene
–– The aganglionic and contracted segment of bowel is unable to relax to permit passage of stool, causing the normal proximal
colon to become greatly dilated
–– Barium enema reveals a narrowed segment in the rectosigmoid, with massive dilation above. (never forget)
–– Diagnosis is made by full-thickness surgical biopsy
–– The treatment of choice is a pull-through procedure in which normally innervated colon is anastomosed to the distal rectum
just above the internal sphincter, thus bypassing the contracted aganglionic segment and restoring normal defecation.
Acquired Megacolon
In Central and South America,
Infection with Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease)
Result in destruction of the ganglion cells of the colon
Onset is in adult life
•• Depression
•• Cerebral atrophy
Spinal cord injury and
•• Parkinsonism also may cause megacolon
•• Myxedema and primary systemic sclerosis also can reduce colonic motility and produce marked colonic distention.
Acute Intestinal Pseudo-obstruction

•• Referred to as Ogilvie’s syndrome
•• Involving primarily the colon but occasionally also the small intestine
Examination reveals a:
–– Distended, tympanitic abdomen
–– Reduced or absent bowel sounds
–– Localized tenderness over the distended colon is common
–– Abdominal films reveal massive dilation of the colon and small intestine, occasionally with the presence of air-fluid
levels
•• The cecum, being the most capacious part of the colon, is often massively dilated and tender
•• Management requires careful correction of fluid and electrolyte abnormalities, intubation of the stomach or small intestine for
decompression, and avoidance of drugs that depress intestinal motility
•• Barium enema may be hazardous because of the risk of perforating the already dilated bowel.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 79-year-old man with Pick’s disease undergoes surgery for a fractured femoral neck. On the 6th postoperative day, his
abdomen is grossly distended and tense, but not tender. He has occasional bowel sounds. The rectal vault is empty on digital
Surgery 467
examination, and there is no evidence of occult blood. X-ray films show a few distended loops of small bowel and a much
distended colon. The cecum measures 9.5 cm in diameter. The gas pattern of distention extends throughout the entire large
bowel, including the sigmoid and rectum. No stool is seen in the films. Vital signs are normal for his age.
Most likely diagnosis is: Ogilvie Syndrome
Intussusception
•• Outer tube: Intussuscipiens
•• Inner Tube: Intussusceptum
•• Stool Red currant jelly
•• Lump Sausage-shaped
•• Emptiness in Iliac Fossa Sign de dance
•• Barium enema Claw sign
USMLE Case Scenario

A 6-month-old brought by his mother presents with episodes of distress and crying interspersed with quiet periods of normal
behavior and playing. His mother says that he passes stool mixed with mucus and blood, the jelly stool. The abdomen is soft
and nontender. A sausage-like mass may be palpable in the upper abdomen. Most likely diagnosis is: Intussusception
•• Volvulus of gut is usually clockwise

•• Volvulus of sigmoid colon is usually anticlockwise
•• Intussusception is usually of type ileocolic
Ischemic Colitis
•• Most often affects the elderly
•• Ischemic colitis is almost always nonocclusive
•• In acute fulminant ischemic colitis, the major manifestations are severe lower abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, and
hypotension
•• Dilation of the colon and physical signs of peritonitis are seen in severe cases
•• Abdominal films may reveal thumb printing from submucosal hemorrhage and edema
•• Barium enema is hazardous in the acute situation because of the risk of perforation. Sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy may detect
ulcerations, friability, and bulging folds from submucosal hemorrhage
•• Surgical resection may be required in some patients with fulminant ischemic colitis to remove gangrenous bowel; others with
lesser degrees of ischemia may respond to conservative medical management
•• Subacute ischemic colitis is the most common clinical variant of ischemic colonic disease. It produces lesser degrees of pain and
bleeding, often occurring over several days or weeks.
Angiodysplasia of the Colon

•• Vascular ectasias or arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) that occur in the right colon of many older individuals and may cause
bleeding
•• Angiodysplasia is a degenerative lesion consisting of dilated, distorted, thin-walled vessels lined by vascular endothelium
•• Lesions are usually multiple and are found primarily in the cecum and ascending colon, but in some patients, they may be
distributed from the stomach to the rectum
•• Colonoscopy is diagnostic which allows treatment by laser photocoagulation, electrocautery, or injection with sclerosant
•• Some patients with massive uncontrolled bleeding or multiple sites of angiodysplasia may require right hemicolectomy
•• Angiodysplasias may also respond to chronic estrogen-progesterone therapy.
Colorectal Cancer
•• Most colorectal cancers, regardless of etiology, arise from adenomatous polyps
•• Probability of an adenomatous polyp becoming a cancer depends on the gross appearance of the lesion, its histologic features,
and its size
•• Adenomatous polyps may be pedunculated (stalked) or sessile (flat-based). Cancers develop more frequently in sessile polyps
•• Villous adenomas, most of which are sessile, become malignant more than three times as often as tubular adenomas
•• The likelihood that any polypoid lesion in the large bowel contains invasive cancer is related to the size of the polyp, being negligible
(< 2%) in lesions < 1.5 cm, intermediate (2 to 10%) in lesions 1.5 to 2.5 cm in size and substantial (10%) in lesions > 2.5 cm
–– Mc site: Rectum
–– Mc site in colon: Sigmoid colon
–– Mc type: Adenocarcinoma
–– Right-sided common in females
–– Right-sided presents as anemia
–– Left-sided presents as obstruction/pain.
Etiology and Risk Factors

Risk factors for the development of colorectal cancer
•• Upper socioeconomic populations
•• ↑meat protein
•• ↑dietary fat and oil as well as elevations in the serum cholesterol
•• ↑alcohol
•• Smoking
•• Sedentary habits
•• Obesity
•• Deficiency of antioxidants
•• Family history of the disease
•• Streptococcus bovis bacteremia
•• Ureterosigmoidostomy
•• UC
•• Crohn’s disease
•• FAP
Protective Factors
•• Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, which are thought to suppress cell proliferation by inhibiting
prostaglandin synthesis
•• Oral folic acid supplements and oral calcium supplements have been found to reduce the risk of adenomatous polyps and
colorectal cancers in case-control studies
•• Ascorbic acid, tocopherols, and b-carotene
•• Estrogen replacement therapy
Clinical Features
•• Lesions of the right colon commonly ulcerate, leading to chronic, insidious blood loss without a change in the appearance of the
stool. Patients with tumors of the ascending colon often present with symptoms, such as fatigue, palpitations, and even angina
pectoris and are found to have a hypochromic, microcytic anemia indicative of iron deficiency
•• Radiographs of the abdomen often reveal characteristic annular, constricting lesions (‘apple-core’ or ‘napkin-ring’)
Surgery 469
•• Cancers arising in the rectosigmoid are often associated with hematochezia, tenesmus, and narrowing of the caliber of
stool; anemia is an infrequent finding
•• Liver is the most common site of metastasis. 1/3rd patients show hepatic metastasis
•• Surgery is treatment of choice
–– Anterior resection: for tumors of upper 2/3rd of rectum
–– Combined abdominoperineal resection: for extensive tumors of lower 1/3rd of rectum
–– Immunotherapy: for disseminated carcinoma colon
Anal Canal Above Dentate Line Anal Canal Below Dentate Line
•• Endodermal •• Ectodermal
•• Cuboidal epithelium •• Stratified squamous
•• Superior rectal artery •• Inferior rectal artery
•• Superior rectal vein •• Inferior rectal vein
•• Internal iliac group of lymph nodes •• Superficial inguinal group of lymph nodes
•• Pain-insensitive •• Pain-sensitive
The Anal Valves of Ball
•• These are a series of transversely placed semilunar folds linking the columns of Morgagni. They lie along and actually constitute
the waviness of the dentate line.
The Crypts of Morgagni (syn. anal crypts)
•• These are small pockets between the inferior extremities of the columns of Morgagni. Into several of these crypts, mostly those
situated posteriorly, open one anal gland by a narrow duct
•• Infection of an anal gland can give rise to an abscess, and infection of an anal gland is the most common cause of anorectal
abscesses and fistulae.
The Anorectal Ring
•• Marks the junction between the rectum and the anal canal
•• It is formed by the joining of the puborectalis muscle, the deep external sphincter, conjoined longitudinal muscle and the
highest part of the internal sphincter
•• The anorectal ring can be clearly felt digitally, especially on its posterior and lateral aspects
•• Division of the anorectal ring results in permanent incontinence of feces
•• The position and length of the anal canal, as well as the angle of the anorectal junction, depend to a major extent on the integrity
and strength of the puborectalis muscle sling.
Fistula-in-Ano
•• A fistula-in-ano is a track, lined by granulation tissue, which connects deeply in the anal canal or rectum and superficially on the
skin around the anus
•• It usually results from an anorectal abscess which burst spontaneously or was opened inadequately
•• The fistula continues to discharge and, because of constant reinfection from the anal canal or rectum, seldom,
if ever, closes permanently without surgical aid
•• An anorectal abscess may produce a track, the orifice of which has the appearance of a fistula, but it does not communicate with
the anal canal or the rectum. By definition, this is not a fistula, but a sinus
Types of anal fistulae
•• Low-level fistulae open into the anal canal below the anorectal ring
•• High-level fistulae open into the anal canal at or above the anorectal ring.
Malignant Lesions of the Anus and Anal Canal

•• Squamous cell carcinoma (most common)
•• Basaloid carcinoma
•• Mucoepidermal carcinoma
•• Basal cell carcinoma
•• Malignant melanoma
•• Anal intraepithelial neoplasia (AIN)
Most Common Sites

•• Typhoid ulcer: Terminal ileum
•• Tuberculous ulcer: Terminal ileum
•• Crohn’s disease: Terminal ileum
•• Gallstone ileus: Terminal ileum
•• Ulcerative colitis: Rectum
•• Amebic colitis: Sigmoid colon
•• Volvolus: Sigmoid colon
•• Diverticulae: Sigmoid colon
Referred Abdominal Pains

•• Biliary colic to: Right shoulder
•• Renal colic to: Groin
•• Appendicitis to: Periumbilical to right iliac fossa
•• Pancreatitis to: Back
•• Ruptured aortic aneurysm to: Back
•• Hip pain to: Knee
Important Signs in Patients with Abdominal Pain

Sign Finding Association
Cullen’s sign Bluish periumbilical discoloration •• Retroperitoneal hemorrhage (hemorrhagic
pancreatitis, abdominal aortic aneurysm
rupture)
Kehr’s sign Severe left shoulder pain •• Splenic rupture ectopic pregnancy rupture
McBurney’s sign Tenderness located 2/3rd distance from anterior iliac spine •• Appendicitis
to umbilicus on the right side
Murphy’s sign Abrupt interruption of inspiration on palpation of right •• Acute cholecystitis
upper quadrant
Iliopsoas sign Hyperextension of right hip causing abdominal pain •• Appendicitis
Obturator’s sign Internal rotation of flexed right hip causing abdominal pain •• Appendicitis
Grey-Turner’s sign Discoloration of the flank •• Retroperitoneal hemorrhage (hemorrhagic
pancreatitis, abdominal aortic aneurysm
rupture)
Chandelier’s sign Manipulation of cervix causes patient to lift buttocks off •• Pelvic inflammatory disease
table
Rovsing’s sign Right lower quadrant pain with palpation of the left lower •• Appendicitis
quadrant
Surgery 471
Important Appearances
•• Corkscrew esophagus Diffuse esophageal spasm
•• Rosary esophagus Diffuse esophageal spasm
•• ‘Double Bubble sign in X-ray abdomen’ Annular pancreas, Duodenal atresia
•• ‘Scalloping of sigmoid colon’ Ulcerative colitis
•• ‘Microcolon on barium enema.’ Ileal atresia
•• ‘Bird of prey sign’ Sigmoid volvolus
•• ‘String sign’ Crohn’s disease
•• ‘Pipestem colon’ Ulcerative colitis
•• Saw tooth appearance of colon Diverticular disease
•• Apple core lesion/Napkin ring appearance Lt Colonic Ca
•• Coffee bean sign Volvulus
•• Claw sign/Signe de dance Intussusception
•• Thumb printing sign Ischemic colitis
USMLE Case Scenario

Physical examination of the newborn reveals an infant with facial features suggestive of Down’s Syndrome. The infant then
has bilious vomiting. An X-ray film showing the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) is performed, which shows a distended
and gas-filled stomach and proximal duodenum and the absence of gas in the distal bowel. Most likely diagnosis is: Duodenal
Atresia.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 88-year-old male who was bedridden for past few months as a result of stroke presents with nausea, vomiting, colicky
abdominal pain. X-rays show distended loops of bowel with large air shadow like parrot’s beak. He would be assumed to be
having volvilus
Burst Abdomen (syn. Abdominal Dehiscence)

•• A serosanguinous (pink) discharge from the wound is a forerunner of disruption
•• Most pathognomonic sign of impending wound disruption
•• Signifies that intraperitoneal contents are lying extraperitoneally
•• Patients often volunteer the information that they ‘felt something give way’
•• If skin sutures have been removed, omentum or coils of intestine may be forced through the wound and will be found lying on the
skin. Pain and shock are often absent
•• There may be symptoms and signs of intestinal obstruction
Saphena varix
•• A saccular enlargement of the termination of the long saphenous vein, usually accompanied by other signs of varicose veins
•• The swelling disappears completely when the patient lies flat, while a femoral hernia sac is usually still palpable
•• In both, there is an impulse on coughing
•• A saphena varix will, however, impart a fluid thrill to the examining fingers when the patient coughs or when the saphenous
vein below the varix is tapped with the fingers of the other hand. Sometimes a venous hum can be heard when a stethoscope is
applied over a saphena varix.
•• Composition of a hernia
As a rule, a hernia consists of three parts — the sac, the coverings of the sac and the contents of the sac.
•• The sac
The sac is a diverticulum of peritoneum consisting of mouth, neck, body and fundus. The neck is usually well-defined, but in some direct
inguinal hernias and in many incisional hernias, there is no actual neck. The diameter of the neck is important because strangulation of
bowel is a likely complication where the neck is narrow, as in femoral and paraumbilical hernias.
•• The body of the sac
The body of the sac varies greatly in size and is not necessarily occupied. In cases occurring in infancy and childhood, the sac is
gossamer-thin. In long-standing cases, the wall of the sac may be comparatively thick.
•• The covering
Coverings are derived from the layers of the abdominal wall through which the sac passes. In long-standing cases they become
atrophied from stretching and so amalgamated that they are indistinguishable from each other.
•• Contents
These can be:
–– Omentum = omentocele (syn. epiplocele)
–– Intestine = enterocele. More commonly small bowel, but may be large intestine or appendix
–– A portion of the circumference of the intestine Richter’s hernia
–– A portion of the bladder (or a diverticulum)
–– Ovary with or without the corresponding Fallopian tube
–– A Meckel’s diverticulum = a Littre’s hernia
–– Fluid — as part of ascites or as a residuum thereof.
Important Hernia to be remembered

•• Maydl’s hernia Strangulated loops of bowel like W in abdomen
•• Pantaloon/Saddle bag hernia Occurrence of both direct and indirect inguinal hernia in the same patient
•• Sliding hernia Hernia with sigmoid colon on left and cecum on right side
•• Laugier’s hernia Femoral hernia through lacunar ligament of Gimbernat
•• Narath’s hernia Hernia with congenital dislocation of hip
•• Spigelian hernia An interparietal usually subumbilical hernia
•• Obturator hernia Hernia through obturator canal
•• Epigastric hernia Hernia through linea alba
•• Littre’s hernia Hernia of Meckel’s diverticulum
•• Richter’s hernia Hernia of a portion of circumference of bowel
•• Morgagni’s hernia Hernia between coastal and sterna parts of diaphragm
Hernia-en-Glissade
•• Hernia-en-Glissade is also called sliding hernia
•• The contents of hernia on left side are sigmoid colon and mesentery
•• Most common content is sigmoid colon
•• The contents of hernia on right side are the cecum
•• Sliding hernia occurs mostly in males
•• Five out of every six cases occur on left side
•• The incidence of hernia increases with increasing age
Surgery 473
Spigelian Hernia
•• Spigelian hernia is an interparietal hernia
•• It lies at the level of arcuate line mostly
•• The arcuate line lies below umbilicus. Hence, it is a subumbilical hernia
•• Lies lateral to rectus abdominis
•• The spigelian fascia is present only below the umbilicus and most of the spigelian hernias are present subumbilically
•• In addition to this, the fibrous bands of spigelian fascia run transversely with small defects in between which are the sites of
spigelian hernia
•• The spigelian hernia may contain loops of bowel, colon, omentum or a part of circumference of bowel only.
Other Hernias
•• Beclard’s hernia: Hernia through opening for saphenous vein
•• Treitz’s hernia: Duodenojujenal hernia
•• Rokintansky hernia: Mucous membrane herniation through muscular layer of bowel
•• Mc type of hernia in men: •• Indirect inguinal
•• Mc type of hernia in women: •• Indirect inguinal
•• Femoral herna is more common in: •• Women
•• Femoral hernia is common on: •• Right side
•• Inguinal hernia is common on: •• Right side
•• Femoral hernia strangulates: •• Commonly
•• Reducible hernia: Contents can be replaced back

•• Irreducible hernia: Contents cannot be replaced back
•• Strangulated hernia: Compromised blood supply
•• External hernia: Protrudes through all layers of abdominal wall
•• Interparietal hernia: Hernia sac contained within musculoaponeurotic layer of abdominal wall
Pancreas
•• The pancreas occupies a retroperitoneal position in the abdomen, lying posterior to the stomach and lesser omentum
•• It extends obliquely from the duodenal C loop to a more cephalad position in the hilum of the spleen
•• The gland is divided into four portions: the head (which includes the uncinate process), the neck, the body, and the tail
•• It includes the posteroinferior extension arising from the ventral primordium, designated the uncinate process
•• Pancreatic agenesis
Very rarely, the pancreas may be totally absent, a condition usually (but not invariably) associated with additional severe malformations
that are incompatible with life. IPF1 gene mutations on chromosome 13q12.1 have been associated with pancreatic agenesis
•• Pancreas divisum
It is the most common clinically significant congenital pancreatic anomaly, with an incidence of 3% to 10%. It occurs when the fetal
duct systems of the pancreatic primordia fail to fuse. As a result, the main pancreatic duct (Wirsung) is very short and drains only a
small portion of the head of the gland, while the bulk of the pancreas (from the dorsal pancreatic primordium) drains through the
minor sphincter. The relative stenosis caused by the bulk of the pancreatic secretions passing through the minor sphincter predisposes
such individuals to chronic pancreatitis
•• Annular pancreas
A ring of pancreatic tissue that completely encircles the duodenum. It can present with signs and symptoms of duodenal obstruction
such as gastric distention and vomiting
•• Ectopic pancreas
Aberrantly situated, or ectopic, pancreatic tissue occurs in about 2% of the population; favored sites are the stomach and duodenum,
followed by the jejunum, Meckel’s diverticulum, and ileum.
Causes of Pancreatic Injury

•• During splenectomy
•• During Billroth II gastrectomy
•• During islet cell tumor surgeries
•• During sphincterotomy
Heterotopic Pancreas
•• The development of pancreatic tissue outside the confines of the main gland is a congenital abnormality referred to as
heterotopic pancreas
•• Most commonly, heterotopic pancreatic tissue is found in the stomach (MC)
•• Duodenum, small bowel, or Meckel’s diverticulum
•• In most locations, heterotopic pancreatic tissue resides in a submucosal location, presenting as firm, yellow, irregular nodules
that vary in size from millimeters to several centimeters
•• The clinical significance of heterotopic pancreas is dependent on resultant complications. Intestinal obstruction may ensue,
rarely as a result of the size of the mass, and more commonly following intussusception, with the ectopic pancreatic tissue serving
as the intussusceptum. Other complications of heterotopic pancreas include ulceration and hemorrhage.
Pancreas Divisum
•• Follows failure of fusion of the two primordial ductal systems
•• The major portion of the pancreas is drained via the duct of Santorini via the minor duodenal papilla
•• The major duodenal papilla usually communicates with a small duct of Wirsung, which drains the ventral pancreas,
consisting of the inferior head and uncinate process
•• The significance of pancreas divisum remains controversial. It is unknown whether the ductal anomaly has any causal relationship
to the pancreatitis
•• Normal pancreatic tissue completely or partially encircles the second portion of the duodenum
•• Annular pancreas is thought to arise from failure of normal clockwise rotation of the ventral pancreatic bud
•• Varying degrees of duodenal obstructive symptoms may be observed in this condition
•• There is a common association with other serious congenital anomalies, such as intracardiac defects, Down’s syndrome, and
intestinal malrotation
•• In adults, symptoms may appear to be those of upper gastrointestinal obstruction, chronic pancreatitis, or peptic ulcer
•• Obstructive symptoms are an indication for operation
•• Retrocolic duodenojejunostomy is treatment of choice
Acute pancreatitis: Causes: The vast majority of cases in the UK are caused by gallstones and alcohol. Popular mnemonic is GET
SMASHED
–– Gallstones (Mc cause)
–– Ethanol
–– Trauma
–– Steroids
–– Mumps (other viruses include Coxsackie B)
–– Autoimmune (e.g. polyarteritis nodosa), Ascaris infection
–– Scorpion venom
–– Hypertriglyceridemia, Hyperchylomicronemia, Hypercalcemia, Hypothermia
–– ERCP
–– Drugs (azathioprine, sulfasalazine, didanosine, bendroflumethiazide, frusemide, pentamidine, steroids, sodium valproate)
Pain in a band form radiating to back with relief on sitting is a feature

A pancreatic pseudocyst may be palpable in the upper abdomen
•• Grey turner’s sign (flanks)
•• Cullen’s sign (umbilicus)
Surgery 475
A faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus (Cullen’s sign) may occur as the result of hemoperitoneum, and a blue-red-purple or
green-brown discoloration of the flanks (Turner’s sign) reflects tissue catabolism of hemoglobin
The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis
•• ↑level of serum amylase. Values threefold or more above normal virtually clinch the diagnosis if overt salivary gland disease and
gut perforation or infarction are excluded
•• There is no definite correlation between the severity of pancreatitis and the degree of serum amylase elevation. After 48 to 72 h,
even with continuing evidence of pancreatitis, total serum amylase values tend to return to normal
•• However, pancreatic isoamylase and lipase levels may remain elevated for 7 to 14 days
•• Fetal fat estimation diagnoses insufficiency
•• Gallstone pancreatitis has best prognosis.
Plain abdominal X-ray shows:
–– Sentinel loop
–– Colon cut-off sign
–– Renal halo sign
Purtscher’s Retinopathy, a relatively unusual complication, is manifested by a sudden and severe loss of vision in a patient with acute
pancreatitis. It is characterized by a peculiar funduscopic appearance with cotton-wool spots and hemorrhages confined to an area
limited by the optic disk and macula; it is believed to be due to occlusion of the posterior retinal artery with aggregated granulocytes.
Pancreatitis in patients with AIDS The incidence of acute pancreatitis is increased in patients with AIDS for two reasons: (1) the high
incidence of infections involving the pancreas, such as infections with cytomegalovirus, cryptosporidium, and the mycobacterium
avium complex; and (2) the frequent use by patients with AIDS of medications, such as didanosine, pentamidine, and trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole
Chronic Pancreatitis
•• The classic triad of ‘Pancreatic calcification, Steatorrhea, and Diabetes mellitus’ usually establishes the diagnosis of chronic
pancreatitis and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency but is found in less than one-third of chronic pancreatitis patients
•• The secretin stimulation test, which usually gives abnormal results when 60% or more of pancreatic exocrine function has been
lost. The radiographic hallmark of chronic pancreatitis is the presence of scattered calcification throughout the pancreas
Hereditary Pancreatitis
Hereditary pancreatitis is a rare disease that is similar to chronic pancreatitis except for an early age of onset and evidence of
hereditary factors (involving an autosomal dominant gene with incomplete penetrance). Genetic linkage analysis identified the
hereditary pancreatitis gene on chromosome 7.
Macroamylasemia
•• In macroamylasemia, amylase circulates in the blood in a polymer form too large to be easily excreted by the kidney
•• Patients with this condition demonstrate an elevated serum amylase value, a low urinary amylase value, and a Cam/Ccr ratio of
less than 1%
•• Usually macroamylasemia is an incidental finding and is not related to disease of the pancreas or other organs
•• Macrolipasemia has been documented in a few patients with cirrhosis or non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
REURRENT PANCREATITIS OCCURS IN METHYL MALONIC ACADEMIA

Serum Amylase ↑ in:
•• Pancreatitis
•• Ca lung
•• Ruptured ectopic
•• Blocked salivary ducts
Pancreatic Pseudocyst
•• Pancreatic pseudocysts are localized collections of pancreatic secretions in a cystic structure that lack an epithelial lining
–– These are usually solitary
–– They are commonly attached to the surface of the gland and involve peripancreatic tissues such as the lesser omental sac or
the retroperitoneum between the stomach and transverse colon or liver
–– They can range from 2 to 30 cm in diameter
–– Since pseudocysts form by walling off areas of hemorrhagic fat necrosis, they are typically composed of necrotic debris
encased by fibrous walls of granulation tissue lacking an epithelial lining
•• Mc site body or tail
•• Mc cause: pancreatitis (adults)
•• Mc cause: trauma (children)
•• Pseudocysts contain high concentrations of pancreatic enzymes, including amylase, lipase, and trypsin
•• Pancreatic pseudocysts develop in up to patients after an attack of acute alcoholic pancreatitis
•• Pseudocysts are also associated with acute pancreatitis with other causes, as well as with chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic
trauma, and pancreatic neoplasm
•• Most often present with upper abdominal pain
•• Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness in the majority of patients
•• A CT scan of the abdomen is the favored study in an initial assessment for determining the presence of a pancreatic pseudocyst
Pancreatic pseudocyst
Complications:
•• Infection (MC)
•• Rupture
•• Hemorrhage
•• < 5 cm managed conservatively
•• > 5 cm, cyst > 6 weeks, infection, complication: Surgery
•• Treatment of choice is internal drainage (Cystojejunostomy).
Surgery 477
Pancreatic Carcinoma
•• More common in males than in females and in blacks than in whites
•• Cigarette smoking is the most consistent risk factor
•• Chronic pancreatitis
•• Alcohol abuse or cholelithiasis are not risk factors for pancreatic cancer
•• Hereditary pancreatitis, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, VHL, Ataxia telangiectasia, Gardner’s syndrome and Lynch syndrome II
•• Mutations in K-ras genes
Clinical Features
•• Most common is: Ductal adenocarcinomas
•• Most common in: Pancreatic head (70% of cases)
•• Most common symptom is: Pain and weight loss
•• Most common physical sign is: Jaundice
–– Although the gallbladder is usually enlarged in patients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, it is palpable in 50%
(Courvoisier’s sign)
–– Other initial manifestations include venous thrombosis and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s sign),
gastrointestinal hemorrhage from varices due to compression of the portal venous system by tumor, and splenomegaly
caused by cancerous encasement of the splenic vein
–– CECT is the most effective technique for diagnosis
–– Whipple’s operation is indicated for periampullary cancer or cancer head of pancreas
–– ‘Gemcitabine’, a deoxycytidine analogue, produces improvement in the quality of life for patients with advanced pancreatic
cancer.
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome/Gastrinoma
•• Mc site is duodenum followed by pancreas
•• Mc malignant pancreatic endocrine tumor
•• More common in males
•• Nonbeta cell tumor
•• Tumor of delta cells
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a NET (Neuroendocrine tumor) secreting gastrin

•• In ZES, characteristically gastric acid hypersecretion is present
•• This gastric acid hypersecretion causes peptic ulcer disease often refractory and severe, associated with diarrhea
•• The most common presenting symptom is abdominal pain (70–100%). Peptic ulcer can occur anywhere but the commonest
location is the duodenum (50–70%) followed by pancreas (20–40%)
•• ZES occurs in association with MEN 1 (Hyperparathyroidism, Peptic ulcer disease and Pituitary tumors). About 20–25% patients
have associated MEN1 and in most cases, Hyperparathyroidism is present before Hypergastrinemia
•• Diagnosis is based on fasting hypergastrinemia and increased basal acid output (BAO)
•• Secretin injection test is used as most important investigation
•• Proton pump inhibitors are the drugs of choice
•• Surgical cure is possible in only 30% of patients
•• SOMATOSTATIN and Omperazole used
•• Hepatic metastasis occurs in one-third of patients.
Gastrinoma Triangle
90% of extrapancreatic gastrinomas lie here
Formed by:
•• 3rd part of duodenum
•• Cystic duct
•• Pancreatic neck
Ulcers in ZES
•• Unusual location
•• Ulcers in absence of predisposing factors
•• Ulcers in presence of hypercalcemia or family history of MEN 1
•• Multiple ulcers
•• Ulcers refractory to treatment
•• Recurrence of ulcers
•• Giant ulcers
•• Ulcers with complications
Insulinomas
•• Insulinomas are MC endocrine tumors of the pancreas thought to be derived from beta cells that autonomously secrete insulin, which
results in hypoglycemia
•• The most common clinical symptoms are due to the effect of the hypoglycemia on the central nervous system (neuroglycemic symptoms)
and include confusion, headache, disorientation, visual difficulties, irrational behavior, or even coma
•• Also, most patients have symptoms due to excess catecholamine release secondary to the hypoglycemia, including sweating,
tremor, and palpitations. Characteristically these attacks are associated with fasting
•• Usually single
•• Whipple’s triad is a feature
•• Weight gain occurs
•• Insulinomas are generally, usually solitary (90%), and only 5 to 15% are malignant
•• They almost invariably occur only in the pancreas, distributed equally in the pancreatic head, body and tail
•• Insulinomas should be suspected in all patients with hypoglycemia, especially with a history suggesting attacks provoked by
fasting or with a family history of MEN-1
•• In insulinomas, in addition to elevated plasma insulin levels, elevated plasma proinsulin levels are found and C-peptide
levels can be elevated.
Glucagonomas
•• Glucagonomas are endocrine tumors of the pancreas that secrete excessive amounts of glucagon that causes a distinct
syndrome characterized by dermatitis, glucose intolerance or diabetes, and weight loss
•• Glucagonomas mainly occur in persons between 45 and 70 years old. They are heralded clinically by a characteristic dermatitis
(migratory necrolytic erythema; accompanied by glucose intolerance weight loss, anemia, diarrhea and thromboembolism
•• The characteristic rash usually starts as an annular erythema at intertriginous and periorificial sites, especially in the groin or
buttock. It subsequently becomes raised and bullae form; when the bullae rupture, eroded areas form. The lesions can wax and
wane
•• A characteristic laboratory finding is hypoaminoacidemia
•• Glucagonomas are generally large tumors at diagnosis, with an average size of 5 to 10 cm. Between 50 and 80% occur in the
pancreatic tail and 50 to 82% have evidence of metastatic spread at presentation, usually to the liver. Glucagonomas are rarely
extrapancreatic and usually occur singly.
Surgery 479
Somatostatinoma Syndrome
Somatostatinomas are endocrine tumors that secrete excessive amounts of somatostatin, which causes a syndrome characterized
by:
•• Gallbladder disease
•• Diarrhea
•• Steatorrhea
Somatostatinomas occur primarily in the pancreas and small intestine, and the frequency of the symptoms differs in each.
Somatostatinomas occur in the pancreas in 56 to 74% of the cases, with the primary location being in the pancreatic head.
VIPomas
Are endocrine tumors that secrete excessive amounts of VIP, which causes a distinct syndrome characterized by large-volume
diarrhea, hypokalemia, and dehydration. This syndrome is also called Verner-Morrison syndrome, pancreatic cholera, or WDHA
syndrome
•• Watery diarrhea
•• Hypokalemia
•• Achlorhydria/hypochloridia
Spleen
•• The gastrosplenic ligament contains the short gastric arteries and veins
•• The splenorenal ligament contains the splenic artery and vein, lymphatic structures, and often the tail of the pancreas
•• The arterial supply to the spleen is derived from the celiac artery from both the splenic artery and the short gastric arteries,
which usually arise as branches of the gastroepiploic or the splenic arteries
•• The splenic vein is formed by a coalescence of polar veins in the splenic hilum and courses with the splenic artery along the dorsal
surface of the pancreas to enter the portal system
•• The normal adult spleen is a slightly concave, solid, dark red organ that measures approximately 3 × 8 × 14 cm
•• MC cyst of spleen is pseudocyst
Wandering (Ectopic) Spleen/Splenosis

•• Congenital deficiency or acquired laxity of the suspensory ligaments of the spleen may cause extreme splenic mobility
•• Palpable in the lower abdomen or in the pelvis
•• The majority of cases occur in young and middle-aged women in whom multiparity and laxity of the abdominal wall and splenic
ligaments due to the hormonal effects
•• An elongated splenic pedicle predisposes a wandering spleen to torsion, leading either to development of acute symptoms due
to splenic volvulus and infarction or to chronic and intermittent abdominal discomfort due to spontaneous torsion and detorsion
•• Splenic volvulus with infarction requires emergency splenectomy
Splenic Artery Aneurysm

•• Occurs more frequently in females
•• Medial dysplasia of the arterial wall. Atherosclerosis, pancreatitis, trauma or arteritis due to septic emboli, portal hypertension with
splenomegaly
•• Most splenic artery aneurysms are asymptomatic and characteristic eggshell calcification of an arteriosclerotic aneurysm may be
an incidental finding on an abdominal radiograph.
•• Aneurysmal rupture may occur and the rupture initially may be contained within the lesser sac
•• Initial aneurysmal rupture into the peritoneal cavity or delayed rupture from the lesser sac are associated with findings of
hemoperitoneum and exsanguinating hemorrhage. Rarely, a splenic artery aneurysm ruptures into the gastrointestinal tract,
pancreatic duct, or splenic vein.
Splenic Abscess
Usually results from
•• Bacteremia associated with a primary septic focus, such as bacterial endocarditis or lung abscess
•• Secondary infection in an area of the spleen damaged by infarction (sickle cell anemia or leukemia), trauma, or parasitic infestation
•• Clinical features of splenic abscess are those of left subphrenic suppuration and include fever, chills, left upper quadrant
tenderness, and often splenomegaly
•• Ultrasonography and radionuclide and CT scans are useful
•• CT is the most direct way of evaluating the spleen.
Littoral Cell Angioma

•• Littoral cell angioma is a benign, vascular tumor of spleen presenting as splenomegaly
•• It may be associated with other malignancies and has malignant potential itself
•• The tumor arises from the littoral cells in the splenic red pulp sinuses. Littoral cell angioma affects both men and women equally
with no specific age predilection
•• It is usually asymptomatic and is discovered incidentally
•• Some of the patients with this entity may present with symptoms of hypersplenism, such as anemia, thrombocytopenia and
splenomegaly, the latter seen in almost all patients with littoral cell angioma.
Splenunculi
These are single or multiple accessory spleens which are found
•• Near the hilum of the spleen
•• Splenic vessels
•• Behind the tail of the pancreas in 30 percent
•• In the splenic ligaments (gastrocolic, greater omentum, splenocolic)
•• Mesocolon in the remainder
•• Up to 20 percent of people have such splenunculi and most are no larger than 2 cm in diameter
Their importance lies in the fact that if not removed at the time of splenectomy, they will undergo hyperplasia and may well be the
site of persistent disease.
Splenic Trauma
•• Kehr’s sign is occurrence of pain in the tip of shoulder due to presence of blood/irritant in peritoneal cavity
•• Kehr’s sign in left shoulder is considered a characteristic sign of splenic rupture
•• Kehr’s sign is a classic example of referred pain (phrenic nerve)
Other important conditions causing Kehr’s sign are:
–– Diaphragmatic lesions
–– Ectopic pregnancy
–– Renal calculi
–– Hemoperitonium
Surgery 481
The signs and symptoms of splenic trauma are those of hemoperitoneum. Generalized and nonspecific abdominal pain in the left
upper quadrant occurs in approximately one-third of patients with splenic injury. Pain referred to the tip of the left shoulder (Kehr’s
sign) is inconstant, varying in incidence from 15 to 75%, and is unreliable for excluding splenic injury but is useful for enhancing the
diagnostic probability if present. Kehr’s sign is elicited by bimanual compression of the left upper quadrant after the patient has
been in Trendelenburg’s position for several minutes preceding the maneuver. On rare occasions, patients with splenic injury have a
palpable tender mass in the left upper quadrant (Ballance’s sign), caused by an extracapsular or subcapsular hematoma with omentum
adherent to the injured spleen.
•• Spleen is the most common organ injured in blunt abdominal injury

•• Contrast-enhanced CT Scan is the investigation of choice for splenic injuries
•• Features on X-ray suggestive of splenic injury are:
Obliteration of splenic shadow
Obliteration of psoas shadow
Fracture of lower left ribs
Elevation of left diaphragm
Indentation of stomach
Presence of fluid between coils of intestine
Spleen
•• Felty’s Syndrome: Rheumatoid arthritis with Hypersplenism
•• Banti’s Syndrome: Congestive splenomegaly with Hypersplenism
•• Egyptian Splenomegaly: Schistosomiasis
•• Angiosarcoma: MC malignant tumor of spleen
•• Splenosis: Rupture of spleen with dissemination into peritonium
•• Spontaneous rupture is seen in Infectious mononucleosis typhoid, leukemia
Splenectomy
•• Mc indication for elective splenectomy: ITP
•• HS
•• G6PD
•• Portal hypertension
•• Hypersplenism
•• Autosplenectomy is seen in sickle-cell anemia
•• Pneumococcal vaccine and N. meningitidis vaccine given
•• Splenorrhaphy is done in stable patient with lacerated spleen.
Not Done For

•• Asymptomatic
•• Splenomegaly with infection
•• Splenomegaly with ↑ igm
•• Hereditary hemolytic anemia
•• Acute leukemia
•• Agranulocytosis
•• Porphyria
Complications
•• Hemmorage
•• Hematemesis
•• Left basal atelectasis
•• Pancreatitis, pancreatic abscess
•• Risk of infections
Splenectomy Increases Risk for

•• Pneumococcal infections
•• H. influenzae
•• Gram-negative enteric organisms
•• Meningococcemia
•• Babesia
•• Malaria
An Overwhelming Postsplenectomy Infection (OPSI)

•• An overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) is a rare but rapidly fatal infection occurring in individuals following
removal of the spleen. The infections are typically characterized by either meningitis or sepsis, and are caused by Streptococcus
pneumoniae mostly
•• The spleen contains many macrophages (part of the reticuloendothelial system), immune cells which phagocytose (eat) and
destroy bacteria. In particular, these macrophages are activated when bacteria are bound by IgG antibodies (IgG1 or IgG3) or
complement component C3b. These types of antibodies and complement are immune substances called opsonizers, molecules
which bind to the surface of bacteria to make them easier for macrophages to phagocytose and destroy the bacteria
•• When the spleen is gone, IgG and complement component C3b are still bound to bacteria, but they cannot be removed from
the blood circulation because the spleen, which contained the macrophages, is gone. The bacteria, therefore, are free to cause
infection
•• Patients without spleens often need immunizations against pathogens that normally require opsonization and phagocytosis by
macrophages in the spleen. These include common human pathogens with capsules
•• Streptococcus pneumoniae
•• Salmonella typhi, Neisseria meningitidis, E. coli, Hemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus agalactiae, Klebsiella pneumoniae
•• MC complication is left lower lobe atelectasis.
Remember in Nutshell: About Overwhelming Postsplenectomy Infection

•• Infection due to encapsulated bacteria
•• Almost 50% due to Streptococcus. pneumoniae
•• Other organisms include: hemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis
•• Occurs postsplenectomy in 4% patients without prophylaxis
•• Mortality of OPSI is approximately 50%
•• Greatest risk in first 2 years postop.
•• Acute hematological effects of splenectomy •• Chronic hematological effects of splenectomy

–– Leukocytosis –– Anisocytosis
–– Thrombocytosis –– Poikilocytosis
–– Heinz bodies –– Howell-Jolly bodies
–– Basophilic stippling –– Nucleated erythrocytes
Surgery 483
Liver
•• 80% blood supply is from portal vein. 20% is from hepatic artery
•• Liver is divided into surgical right and left lobes by a line between Gallbladder and middle hepatic vein. Cantlie line
•• Portal venous system lacks valves
‘Caterpillar Turn’ or ‘Moynihan’s Hump’

•• Normally the arterial supply of Gallbladder is from cystic artery which is a branch of right hepatic artery
•• Sometimes an accessory cystic artery is also seen to arise from either Gastroduodenal or right hepatic artery
•• The right hepatic artery takes a tortuous course called ‘caterpillar turn’ or ‘Moynihan’s hump’. This can be a source of profuse
bleeding.
•• Orthoptic liver transplant is replacement of patient liver with donor liver

•• Auxillary liver transplant is transplanted alongside of part of patient’s own liver.
Couinaud’s segments of liver:

•• Segment I: Caudate lobe. Rest of segments are clockwise
•• Segment II: Lateral segment: left superior lobe
•• Segment III: Lateral segment: left inferior lobe
•• Segment IV: Quadrate lobe
•• Segment V: Anterior segment: right inferior lobe
•• Segment VI: Posterior segment: right superior lobe
•• Segment VII: Posterior segment: right superior lobe
•• Segment VIII: Anterior segment: right superior lobe
•• Segment I has independent vascular supply
Portal Vein and Portal Hypertension

•• Portal vein is an important vein formed behind the neck of pancreas by union of splenic vein and superior mesentric vein. Have
a look at the figure below:
•• Drains blood from GIT AND SPLEEN
•• It is 8 cms in length
•• It is the major source of blood supply to liver
•• It is devoid of valves.
Portal vein
Portal Hypertension
•• (> 10 mm Hg) most commonly results from increased resistance to portal blood flow
•• Increased resistance can occur at three levels relative to the hepatic sinusoids:
–– Presinusoidal
–– Sinusoidal
–– Postsinusoidal
•• ‘Cirrhosis’ is the most common cause of portal hypertension in the United States
•• Portal venous pressure may be measured directly by percutaneous transhepatic ‘skinny needle’ catheterization or indirectly
through transjugular cannulation of the hepatic veins
Sites of portosystemic anastomosis involved in portal hypertension:
–– Umbilicus: Caput medusae
–– Lower end of esophagus: Esophageal varices
–– Rectum and anal canal: Hemorrhoids
–– Bare area of liver
–– Posterior abdominal wall
•• Bleeding varices: Propranolol is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of bleeding
•• Octreotide is the drug of choice for bleeding varices
•• Barium swallow shows string of beads in esophagus.
Sites of portosystemic anastomosis
Management of variceal bleed

Amebic Liver Abscess
E. histolytica most often involves the liver
•• Mc in right lobe (posterosuperior surface)
•• Liquefaction necrosis is characteristic
Surgery 485
•• Anchovy sauce pus: Chocolate-colored pus due to RBC Lysis

•• Scant inflammatory response at margins
•• Some patients are febrile and have right upper-quadrant pain, which may be dull or pleuritic in nature and radiate to the shoulder
•• Point tenderness over the liver and right-sided pleural effusion are common
•• Jaundice is rare
•• About one-third of patients with chronic presentations are febrile. Thus, the clinical diagnosis of an amebic liver abscess may be
difficult to establish because the symptoms and signs are often nonspecific
•• Complications of Amebic Liver Abscess
–– Pleuropulmonary involvement manifestations include sterile effusions, contiguous spread from the liver and rupture into the
pleural space
–– Rupture into the pleural space
–– Rupture into the peritoneum
–– Rupture into the pericardium, usually from abscesses of the left lobe of the liver
•• DOC: Metronadizole
Hydatid Disease
•• Echinococcosis is also known as hydatid disease
•• Hydatid cyst is a parasitic infection of humans by the tapeworm of genus echinococcus
•• It is a zoonosis
–– Echinococcus granulosus causes Cystic Echinococcosis
–– Echinococcus multilocularis causing Alveolar Echinococcosis
–– Echinococcus vogeli causes Polycystic disease
Echinococcus granulosus:
The liver is the most common organ affected followed by lungs, muscles, bones and kidneys
Passage of hydatid membrane in emesis is called hydatid emesia
Passage of hydatid membrane in stools is called hydatid enterica
Flushing and urticaria occur in rupture of hydatid cyst
1. Abdominal tenderness is the most common sign
2. Tender hepatomegaly signifies secondary infection of the cyst
3. Ascites is rare
4. Splenomegaly can be the result of portal hypertension or splenic echinococcosis
•• Brain involvement depends on site of brain involved and may present as coma or herniation
•• Bone and muscle involvement presents as visible masses
•• Echinococcosis is caused by larval stages of parasite
•• Man is an accidental intermediate host. Other intermediate hosts are sheep and cattle
•• The dog is the definitive host
•• Serological assay (Weinberg reaction) is a specific example of complement fixation test used in detection
•• ELISA is also sensitive, blood culture not useful
•• Eosinophilia is seen only in case of rupture of cysts
•• Detachment of cysts and their collapse lead to characteristic water Lily sign or floating membrane sign or camellotte sign
•• Other X-ray signs of echinococcus are:
–– Serpent sign/Rising sun sign
–– Crumbled egg appearance
–– Anaphylaxis, intrapleural rupture, intraperitoneal rupture are secondary complications
•• PAIR Technique (Percutaneous aspiration, injection of scolicidal agents and reaspiration of cyst contents) has also been used for
treatment
•• Albendazole is the most effective drug most commonly used.
Hydatid Cyst of Lung

•• Second most common site
•• Less often seen in association with liver cyst
•• Usually in lower lobes
•• Calcification uncommon
Pyogenic Liver Abscess

•• Has an increased incidence in the elderly, diabetics and the immunosuppressed, who usually present with anorexia, fevers and
malaise accompanied by right upper quadrant discomfort
•• The diagnosis is suggested by the finding of a multiloculated cystic mass on ultrasound or CT scan and is confirmed by aspiration
for culture and sensitivity
•• Usually single and large.
•• The most common organisms are Escherichia coil and Streptococcus milleri but other enteric organisms such as Streptococcus
faecalis, Klebsiella and Proteus vulgaris also occur and mixed growths are common. Opportunistic pathogens include Staphylococci.
Treatment is with antibiotics and ultrasound-guided aspiration. Percutaneous drainage without ultrasound guidance should be
avoided as an empyema may follow drainage through the pleural space
•• Infection through bile duct is the commonest route followed by hematogenous route.
Hepatic Adenoma
•• Benign neoplasm
•• Derived from hepatocytes
•• Seen in women taking OCPS
•• Usually asymptomatic but may bleed intraabdominally
•• Seen as cold defects in hepatic scintigraphy
•• Core biopsy contraindication
•• Aspiration biopsy can be done
•• > 6 cm tumor should be excised
Focal nodular hyperplasia presents similarly but without bleeding features.
HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA
Predisposing Factors
•• Hepatitis B
•• Hepatitis C
•• Alcoholic liver disease
•• Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
•• Hemachromatosis
•• Tyrosinemia
•• Aflatoxin B1
•• Vinyl chloride, Thorium and Androgenic hormones are also implicated
•• AFP levels are raised. AFP is used as a marker for HCC

•• Other markers are: Neurotensin, PIVKA 2
•• Early stage tumors are successfully treated. If untreated, most patients die within 3–6 months of diagnosis. Early resection helps in
survival for 1–2 years and, in selected cases, may even prolong life
•• Surgical resection offers the only chance for cure
Surgery 487
ULTRASOUND EXAMINATION IS FREQUENTLY USED TO SCREEN PATIENTS FOR HCC

Remember
•• Mc abdominal tumor. Mc solid tumor
•• Mc in right lobe
•• Mc symptom is abdominal pain
Hepatocellular Carcinoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma: The principal reason for the high incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma in parts of Asia and Africa is the
frequency of chronic infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV).
‘Chronic liver disease’ of any type is a risk factor and predisposes to the development of liver cell carcinoma. These conditions include
alcoholic liver disease, a1-antitrypsin deficiency, hemochromatosis and tyrosinemia.
A small percentage of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma have a paraneoplastic syndrome
Erythrocytosis may result from erythropoietin-like activity produced by the tumor.
Hypercalcemia may result from secretion of a parathyroid-like hormone. Other manifestations may include hypercholesterolemia,
hypoglycemia, acquired porphyria, dysfibrinogenemia and cryofibrinogenemia.
Imaging procedures to detect liver tumors include ultrasound, CT, MRI, hepatic artery angiography and technetium scans.
Ultrasound is frequently used to screen high-risk populations and should be the first test if hepatocellular carcinoma is suspected; it is
less costly than scans, is relatively sensitive, and can detect most tumors > 3 cm.
Helical CT and MRI scans are being used with increasing frequency and have higher sensitivities.
AFP levels > 500 ug/L are found in about 70 to 80% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. Lower levels may be found in patients
with large metastases from gastric or colonic tumors and in some patients with acute or chronic hepatitis.
High levels of serum AFP (> 500 to 1000 ug/L) in an adult with liver disease and without an obvious gastrointestinal tumor strongly
suggest hepatocellular carcinoma.
Percutaneous liver biopsy can be diagnostic if the sample is taken from an area localized by ultrasound or CT. Because these tumors
tend to be vascular, percutaneous biopsies should be done with caution.
Staging of hepatocellular carcinoma is based on tumor size (< or > 50% of the liver), ascites (absent or present), bilirubin (< or
> 3), and albumin (< or >3) to establish Okuda stages I, II, and III. The natural history of each stage without treatment is: stage I, 8
months; stage II, 2 months; stage III, less than 1 month.
Fibrolamellar Carcinoma
Fibrolamellar carcinoma differs from the typical hepatocellular carcinoma in that it tends to occur in young adults without
underlying cirrhosis
NOT associated with cirrhosis
This tumor is nonencapsulated but well circumscribed and contains fibrous lamellae
It grows slowly and is associated with a longer survival if treated
Surgical resection has resulted in 5-year survivals >50%; if the lesion is nonresectable, liver transplantation is an option, and the
outcome far exceeds that observed in the nonfibrolamellar variety of liver cancer.
Hepatoblastoma is a tumor of infancy that typically is associated with very high-serum AFP levels
The lesions are usually solitary, may be resectable, and have a better 5-year survival than that of hepatocellular carcinoma.
Angiosarcoma consists of vascular spaces lined by malignant endothelial cells. Etiologic factors include prior exposure to thorium
dioxide (Thorotrast), polyvinyl chloride, arsenic, and androgenic anabolic steroids.
Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma is of borderline malignancy

Most cases are benign, but bone and lung metastases occur.
This tumor occurs in early adulthood, presents with right upper quadrant pain, is heterogenous on sonography, hypodense on CT, and
without neovascularity on angiography
Immunohistochemical staining reveals expression of factor VIII antigen. In the absence of extrahepatic metastases, these lesions can
be treated by surgical resection or liver transplantation.
Indications for Liver Transplantation

Children Adults
•• Biliary atresia •• Primary biliary cirrhosis
•• Neonatal hepatitis •• Secondary biliary cirrhosis
•• Congenital hepatic fibrosis •• Primary sclerosing cholangitis
•• Alagille’s disease •• Caroli’s disease
•• Byler’s disease •• Cryptogenic cirrhosis
•• α 1-Antitrypsin deficiency •• Chronic hepatitis with cirrhosis
•• Inherited disorders of metabolism •• Hepatic vein thrombosis
•• Wilson’s disease •• Fulminant hepatitis
•• Tyrosinemia •• Alcoholic cirrhosis
•• Glycogen storage diseases •• Chronic viral hepatitis
•• Lysosomal storage diseases •• Primary hepatocellular malignancies
•• Protoporphyria •• Hepatic adenomas
•• Crigler-Najjar disease type I
•• Hereditary oxalosis
•• Hemophilia
Hepatic Dysfunction after Liver Transplantation

•• Primary graft failure
•• Vascular compromise
•• Failure or obstruction of the biliary anastomoses, and rejection
•• Postoperative jaundice may result from prehepatic, intrahepatic and posthepatic sources. Prehepatic sources represent the massive
hemoglobin pigment load from transfusions, hemolysis, hematomas, ecchymoses and other collections of blood
•• Vascular compromise associated with thrombosis or stenosis of the portal vein or hepatic artery anastomoses; vascular anastomotic
leak; stenosis, obstruction, or leakage of the anastomosed common bile duct.
MELD
•• The ‘Model for End-Stage Liver Disease’ (MELD) system was implemented on February 27, 2002 to prioritize patients waiting
for a liver transplant
•• MELD is a numerical scale used for adult liver transplant candidates.
•• The range is from 6 (less ill) to 40 (gravely ill). The individual score determines how urgently a patient needs a liver transplant
within the next three months. The number is calculated using the most recent laboratory tests
•• Within the MELD continuous disease severity scale, there are four levels. As the MELD score increases, and the patient moves up to
a new level, a new waiting time clock starts
•• Waiting time is carried backwards but not forward. If a patient moves to a lower MELD score, the waiting time accumulated at the
higher score remains. When a patient moves to a higher MELD score, the waiting time at the lower level is not carried to the new
level.
Surgery 489
‘Carcinoid Syndrome’
•• Occurs in less than 10% of patients with carcinoid tumors
•• The carcinoid syndrome is encountered when venous drainage from the tumor gains access to the systemic circulation so
that vasoactive secretory substances escape hepatic degradation
•• This situation obtains in three circumstances:
–– When hepatic metastases are present,
–– When venous blood from extensive retroperitoneal metastases drains into paravertebral veins, and
–– When the primary carcinoid tumor is outside the gastrointestinal tract, e.g. a bronchial, ovarian, or testicular tumor.
•• The principal features of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, sweating, wheezing, diarrhea, abdominal pain, cardiac valvular
fibrosis, and pellagra dermatosis
•• Diarrhea is found in 83% of patients, flushing in 49%, dyspnea in 20%, and bronchospasm in 6%
•• Many patients develop right-sided cardiac valvular disease with congestive heart failure. Serotonin and possibly other
neurohumors produced by the tumor cause fibrosis, as well as eventual incompetence of the tricuspid and pulmonic valves
•• The lungs metabolize serotonin and the other mediators and protect the left heart from fibrosis. If one can establish that the tumor
is slow-growing, patients with carcinoid-induced cardiac lesions are candidates for valve replacement
•• Biochemical mediators
•• The specific etiologic agents for each of the protean manifestations of carcinoid tumors are not known. Serotonin, prostaglandins,
5-hydroxytryptophan, substance P, kallikrein, histamine, dopamine, and neuropeptide K are thought to be involved in the
clinical manifestations of carcinoid tumors
•• Serotonin is thought to be largely responsible for both the diarrhea and the fibrosis. The cardiac lesions, and tricuspid and
pulmonic insufficiency are components of this fibrosing phenomenon
•• Other substances, such as histamine, VIP, and prostaglandins, may also contribute to the systemic manifestations in the
carcinoid syndrome
Diagnosis
•• Urinary 5-HIAA or whole blood and platelet-poor plasma 5-HT is the most reliable test to confirm the diagnosis of carcinoid
syndrome
•• Occasionally, measurement of plasma levels of substance P and neurotensin by radioimmunoassay may also be helpful
•• Measurements of neuron-specific enolase and chromogranins, when available, provide nonspecific evidence of the presence
of a neuroendocrine tumor
•• A useful diagnostic aid is the pentagastrin provocative test, which induces facial flushing, gastrointestinal symptoms, elevation
in circulating 5-HT
Appendicular Carcinoids
–– Not the commonest site
–– Mc site: tip
–– Presents as recurrent appendicitis
–– It has good prognosis
•• Carcinoid tumors occur in ileum and appendix
•• Rectum is rarely involved
•• 5-year survival is more than 60%
•• Females are affected less
Congenital Abnormalities of the Gallbladder and Bile Ducts

Absence of the gallbladder
Occasionally the gallbladder is absent. Failure to visualize the gallbladder is not necessarily a pathological problem.
The Phrygian cap
The Phrygian cap is present in 2–6 percent of cholecystograms and may be mistaken for a pathological deformity of the organ.
‘Phrygian cap’ refers to hats worn by people of Phrygia, an ancient country of Asia Minor; it was rather like a Liberté cap of the French
Revolution
Floating gallbladder
The organ may hang on a mesentery which makes it liable to undergo torsion.
Double gallbladder
Rarely, the gallbladder is twinned. One of the twins may be intrahepatic.
Absence of the cystic duct
This is usually pathological, as opposed to an anatomical anomaly and indicates the recent passage of a stone or the presence of a
stone at the lower end of the cystic duct which is ulcerating into the common bile duct. The main danger at surgery is damage to the
bile duct, and particular care to identify the correct anatomy is essential before division of any duct.
Low insertion of the cystic duct
The cystic duct opens into the common bile duct near the ampulla. All variations of this anomaly can occur. At operation, they are
not important. Dissection of a cystic duct which is inserted low in the bile duct should be avoided as removal will damage the blood
supply to the common bile duct and can lead to stricture formation.
An accessory cholecystohepatic duct
Ducts passing directly into the gallbladder from the liver do occur and are probably not uncommon. Nevertheless, larger ducts should
be closed but before doing so, the precise anatomy should be carefully ascertained.
Extrahepatic biliary atresia
Etiology and pathology
Atresia is present in one per 14,000 live births, and affects males and females equally. The extrahepatic bile ducts are progressively
destroyed by an inflammatory process which starts around the time of birth. Intrahepatic changes also occur and eventually result in
biliary cirrhosis and portal hypertension. The untreated child dies before the age of 3 years of liver failure or hemorrhage.
The inflammatory destruction of the bile ducts has been classified into three main types:
–– Type I — atresia restricted to the common bile duct
–– Type II — atresia of the common hepatic duct
–– Type III — atresia of the right and left hepatic ducts
Parasitic Infestation of the Biliary Tract

Biliary ascariasis
•• The round worm, A. lumbricoides, commonly infests the intestine of inhabitants of Asia, Africa and Central America
•• It may enter the biliary tree through the ampulla of Vater and cause biliary pain
•• Complications include strictures, suppurative cholangitis, liver abscesses and empyema of the Gallbladder.
In the uncomplicated case, antispasmodics can be given to relax the sphincter of Oddi and the worm will return to the small
intestine to be dealt with by antihelminthic drugs
•• Operation may be necessary to remove the worm or deal with complications. Worms can be extracted via the ampulla of Vater by
ERCP.
Clonorchiasis (Asiatic cholangiohepatis)
•• The disease is endemic in the Far East
•• Fluke, up to 25 mm long and 5 mm wide, inhabits the bile ducts, including the intrahepatic ducts
•• Fibrous thickening of the duct walls occur. Many cases are asymptomatic. Complications include biliary pain, stones,
cholangitis, cirrhosis and bile-duct carcinoma
•• Choledochotomy and T-tube drainage and, in some cases, choledochoduodenostomy are required. Because a process of
recurrent stone formation is set up, a choledochojejunostomy with Roux loop affixed to the abdominal parietes is performed in
some centers to allow easy subsequent access to the duct system
Hydatid disease
•• A large hydatid cyst may obstruct the hepatic ducts. Sometimes a cyst will rupture into the biliary tree and its contents cause
obstructive jaundice or cholangitis, requiring appropriate surgery.
Surgery 491
PREDISPOSING FACTORS
Cholelithiasis
Cholesterol and Mixed Stones
1. Familial disposition
2. Hereditary aspects
3. Obesity
4. Weight loss
5. Female sex hormones
6. Ileal disease or resection
7. Increasing age
8. Gallbladder hypomotility leading to stasis and formation of sludge:
–– Prolonged parenteral nutrition
–– Fasting
–– Pregnancy
–– Drugs such as octreotide
9. Clofibrate therapy
10. Decreased bile acid secretion
–– Primary biliary cirrhosis
–– Chronic intrahepatic cholestasis
–– Remember fat, flatulent, female, fertile, forty/fifty
Pigment Stones
1. Demographic/genetic factors: Asia, rural setting
2. Chronic hemolysis
3. Alcoholic cirrhosis
4. Chronic biliary tract infection, parasite infestation
5. Increasing age
Effects and Complications of Gallstones

In the gallbladder:
•• Silent stones
•• Chronic cholecystitis
•• Acute cholecystitis
•• Gangrene
•• Perforation
•• Empyema
•• Mucocele
•• Carcinoma
In the bile ducts:
•• Obstructive jaundice
•• Cholangitis
•• Acute pancreatitis
In the intestine:
•• Acute intestinal obstruction (gallstone ileus)
CBD Stone
•• Seen in 15% patients with gallstones
•• Develop in gallbladder
•• Obstructive pattern seen
•• Mc cause of obstructive jaundice
•• It can present with cholangitis
•• Bile duct diameter > 6 mm on USG is suggestive
•• ERCP, Sphincterotomy, with ballon clearance is standard treatment used
•• In cholangiography appears as meniscus sign.
Indications of cholecystectomy
Gallstone Ileus
•• Gallstone ileus refers to mechanical intestinal obstruction resulting from passage of a large gallstone into bowel lumen
•• This particular complication follows internal fistulas in which a gallstone or common duct stone gains entrance into the
intestinal tract through an internal biliary fistula
•• The usual potential complication is ascending cholangitis
•• A typical presentation of gallstone ileus is a history of frequent previous episodes of partial bowel obstruction that exacerbate
and abate as the stone negotiates its way into a narrower region of the intestinal tract. This phenomenon is called a tumbling
obstruction
•• Three-fourths of the spontaneous fistulas underlying gallstone ileus occur between the gallbladder and the duodenum
•• Most gallstones that enter the gastrointestinal tract are either passed or vomited, but 10% to 15% may lead to gallstone ileus
•• The common site of obstruction, found in two-thirds of patients, is the ileum
•• The diagnosis is easily made if a large mass lesion is found at the site of bowel obstruction; this mass is readily identified if the
gallstone is opaque. Sometimes, even if it is nonopaque, it can be observed because of the surrounding intestinal air
•• In addition, the finding of air in the biliary tree makes the diagnosis almost certain
•• The proper treatment of gallstone ileus is relief of the intestinal obstruction, usually by the performance of an enterotomy and
removal of the stone
•• Concomitant definitive correction of the internal fistula is advocated if the patient is in good condition and has sustained no
prolonged desease.
ACUTE AND CHRONIC CHOLECYSTITIS

Acute Cholecystitis
•• Usually follows obstruction of the cystic duct by a stone
•• Mc agent: Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., group D Streptococcus, Staphylococcus spp., and Clostridium spp
•• Deep inspiration or cough during subcostal palpation of the RUQ usually produces increased pain and inspiratory arrest (Murphy’s
sign)
Surgery 493
•• The triad of sudden onset of RUQ tenderness, fever, and leukocytosis is highly suggestive. Typically, leukocytosis in the range
of 10,000 to 15,000 cells per microliter with a left shift on differential count is found
•• The radionuclide (e.g. HIDA) biliary scan is IOC
•• Ultrasound will demonstrate calculi in 90 to 95% of cases.
Acalculous Cholecystitis
Especially associated with:
•• Serious trauma or
•• Burns
•• Diabetes
•• TPN
•• With the postpartum period following prolonged labor, and orthopedic and other nonbiliary major surgical operations in
the postoperative period vasculitis, obstructing adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder, diabetes mellitus, torsion of the gallbladder,
‘unusual’ bacterial infections of the gallbladder (e.g. Leptospira, Streptococcus, Salmonella, or Vibrio cholerae), and parasitic
infestation of the gallbladder
•• Acalculous cholecystitis may also be seen with a variety of other systemic disease processes (sarcoidosis, cardiovascular disease,
tuberculosis, syphilis, actinomycosis, etc.) and may possibly complicate periods of prolonged parenteral hyperalimentation
•• USG is IOC.
Enzyme elevation
Emphysematous Cholecystitis
•• Begin with acute cholecystitis (calculous or acalculous) followed by ischemia or gangrene of the gallbladder wall and infection by
gas-producing organisms
•• Bacteria most frequently cultured in this setting include anaerobes, such as C. welchii or C. perfringens, and aerobes, such as
E. coli
•• This condition occurs most frequently in elderly men and in patients with diabetes mellitus
•• The diagnosis is usually made on plain abdominal film by the finding of gas within the gallbladder lumen, dissecting within the
gallbladder wall to form a gaseous ring, or in the pericholecystic tissues. The morbidity and mortality rates with emphysematous
cholecystitis are considerable. Prompt surgical intervention coupled with appropriate antibiotics is mandatory.
Chronic Cholecystitis
Chronic inflammation of the gallbladder wall is almost always associated with the presence of gallstones and is thought to result from
repeated bouts of subacute or acute cholecystitis or from persistent mechanical irritation of the gallbladder wall. The presence of bacteria
in the bile occurs in more than one-quarter of patients with chronic cholecystitis.
Cholangiocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma of the extrahepatic ducts is more common. There is a slight male preponderance (60%), and the incidence peaks in
the fifth to seventh decades.
Apparent predisposing factors include:

•• Some chronic hepatobiliary parasitic infestations
•• Congenital anomalies with ectatic ducts
•• Sclerosing cholangitis, chronic ulcerative colitis
•• Occupational exposure to possible biliary tract carcinogens (employment in rubber or automotive plants)
•• Perihilar mc location
Nodular lesions often arise at the bifurcation of the common bile duct (Klatskin tumors) and are usually associated with a collapsed
gallbladder
Patients with cholangiocarcinoma usually present with biliary obstruction, painless jaundice, pruritus, weight loss, and acholic stools
The diagnosis is most frequently made by cholangiography following ultrasound demonstration of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts.
Klatskin Tumor
Tumor of CBD between cystic duct and common hepatic duct
•• ↓metastasis
•• Slow growth
•• Shows sclerosing features
Carcinoma of the Papilla of Vater

•• The ampulla of Vater may be involved by extension of tumor arising elsewhere in the duodenum or may itself be the site of origin
of a sarcoma, carcinoid tumor, or adenocarcinoma
•• Papillary adenocarcinomas are associated with slow growth and a more favorable clinical prognosis than diffuse, infiltrative cancers
of the ampulla, which are more frequently widely invasive
•• The presenting clinical manifestation is usually obstructive jaundice
•• Endoscopic retrograde cannulation of the pancreatic duct is the preferred diagnostic technique when ampullary carcinoma
is suspected, because it allows for direct endoscopic inspection and biopsy of the ampulla and for pancreatography to exclude a
pancreatic malignancy
•• Cancer of the papilla is usually treated by wide surgical excision
•• Lymph node or other metastases are present at the time of surgery in approximately 20% of the cases.
Cancer of the Gallbladder

•• Female/Male ratio is 4:1
•• The clinical presentation is most often one of unremitting right upper quadrant pain associated with weight loss, jaundice,
and a palpable right upper quadrant mass
•• Adenocarcinoma most common type
•• Fundus is the most common site
•• Biliary colic is the most common presentation
•• Gallstones are the most common predisposition.
Risk Factors for GB Cancer

•• The association between cancer of the gallbladder and gallstones is well established.
•• A parallel exists between the epidemiology of cancer of the gallbladder and that of gallstones. There is no predilection for the
development of carcinoma in a gallbladder containing single or multiple stones.
•• It has been suggested that there may be some relationship between carcinoma and the size of a stone.
•• A patient with a 3 cm gallstone is reportedly 10 times more likely to develop carcinoma than someone with a stone less than 1 cm.
•• There are several other pathologic conditions of the gallbladder in addition to gallstones that are associated with the development
of carcinoma.
Surgery 495
•• There is believed to be a 15% incidence of carcinoma of the gallbladder in patients who have or have had a cholecystoenteric
fistula and the tumor may develop as much as 16 years later.
•• There is believed to be a 15% incidence of carcinoma of the gallbladder in patients who have or have had a cholecystoenteric
fistula and the tumor may develop as much as 16 years later.
•• The incidence of carcinoma in a calcified or porcelain gallbladder is reported to range from 12.5 to 61%.
•• It is now generally accepted that adenoma of the gallbladder is a precancerous lesion. Adenomas present as polypoid lesions
which are best detected by ultrasonography.
•• It has been suggested that xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis, a rare form of chronic cholecystitis that may grossly mimic
cancer of the gallbladder, is also associated with a higher than expected incidence of carcinoma.
•• Cancer of the gallbladder is more frequent in the presence of congenital biliary dilatation in which case there appears to be a
lower incidence of associated gallstones.
•• Ulcerative colitis has a well-known association with biliary tract malignancy.
•• Although the majority of such malignancies involve the bile ducts, as many as 13% originate in the gallbladder.
•• Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses: Outpouching of Gallbladder Mucosa

•• Mucosal Folds of Cystic Duct: Valves of Heister
•• Lymph node of GB Cystic LN of Lund
•• Moynihans Hump Tortuous course of Right Hepatic Artery in front of Cystic Duct. Also called Caterpillar Turn
•• Callot’s Triangle: Triangle bounded above by Liver, Medially by Common Hepatic Duct, Below by Cystic Duct
•• ‘Straw berry’ Gallbladder Cholesterosis
•• ‘Seagull or Mercedes Benz Sign’ Radiolucent gall shadow in cholelithiasis
•• Murphy’s sign/Boas Sign Acute Cholecystitis
Acute Cholangitis
•• MC organisms: E. coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Enterococcus
•• Obstruction of CBD leading to bacterial stasis, bacterial overgrowth, suppuration, biliary sepsis
•• Charcots triad: Fever + RUQ pain + Jaundice
•• Reynolds pentad: Fever + RUQ pain + Jaundice + Shock + Confusion
•• Suppurative cholangitis has a high mortality rate
Sclerosing Cholangitis
•• Progressive, inflammatory, sclerosing, and obliterative process affecting the ‘extrahepatic and/or the intrahepatic bile
ducts’
•• The disorder occurs in about 70% in association with inflammatory bowel disease, especially ulcerative colitis
•• Also associated (albeit rarely) with multifocal Fibrosclerosis Syndromes such as:
–– Retroperitoneal, mediastinal, and/or periureteral fibrosis
–– Riedel’s struma
–– Pseudotumor of the orbit
Cholangiopancreatography may demonstrate a broad range of biliary tract changes as well as pancreatic duct obstruction and
occasionally pancreatitis
•• Often present with signs and symptoms of chronic or intermittent biliary obstruction: jaundice, pruritus, RUQ abdominal pain,
or acute cholangitis
•• Late in the course, complete biliary obstruction, secondary biliary cirrhosis, hepatic failure, or portal hypertension with bleeding
varices may occur
•• The diagnosis is established beaded appearance on cholangiography
Complications
–– Adenocarcinoma colon
–– Adenocarcinoma bile ducts
–– Cirrhosis
Hemobilia
•• Triad of:
–– Obstructive jaundice
–– Melana
•• Occurs as a result of bleeding into biliary tract
•• Causes:
–– Trauma
–– Gallstones
–– Cholangiohepatitis
–– Neoplasms of hepatobiliary system
–– Hepatic artery trauma
Kidney
Renal tuberculosis
•• Tuberculosis of the urinary tract arises from hematogenous infection from a distant focus which is often impossible to identify.
The lesions are usually confined to one kidney
•• A group of tuberculous granulomas in a renal pyramid coalesces and forms an ulcer. Mycobacteria and pus cells are discharged
into the urine
•• Sterile pyuria is a consistent feature
•• Untreated, the lesions enlarge and a tuberculous abscess may form in the parenchyma
•• The necks of the calyces and the renal pelvis stenosed by fibrosis confine the infection so that there is tuberculous pyonephrosis,
which is sometimes localized to one pole of the kidney
•• Extension of pyonephrosis or tuberculous renal abscess leads to perinephric abscess and the kidney is progressively replaced by
caseous material (putty kidney) which may be calcified (cement kidney)
•• At any stage, the plain radiograph may show areas of calcification (pseudocalculi)
•• Less commonly the kidneys may be bilaterally affected as part of the generalized process of miliary tuberculosis
•• Renal tuberculosis is often associated with tuberculosis of the bladder and typical tuberculous granulomas may be visible in the
bladder wall. In the male, tuberculous epididymo-orchitis may occur without apparent infection of the bladder
•• IVU is the most sensitive technique for detecting early renal TB.
Renal carbuncle
•• An abscess in the renal parenchyma as the result of blood-borne spread of organisms, especially coliforms or Staphylococcus
aureus, from a focus elsewhere in the body
•• Occasionally the condition results from infection of a hematoma following a blow to the kidney
•• Renal carbuncle is most commonly seen in diabetic patients, intravenous drug abusers, those debilitated by chronic disease
and patients with acquired immunodeficiency.
Pathology: the renal parenchyma contains an encapsulated necrotic mass
Clinical features: There is an ill-defined tender swelling in the loin, persistent pyrexia and leucocytosis, signs that closely simulate
those of perinephric abscess. In early cases, there is no pus or bacteria in the urine but they appear after a day or so. Urography shows
a space-occupying lesion in the kidney which may be confused with a renal adenocarcinoma on ultrasonography and CT
Treatment: Resolution by antibiotic treatment alone is unusual. Formal open incision of the abscess may be necessary if the pus is too
thick to be drained by percutaneous aspiration.
Surgery 497
Idiopathic Retroperitoneal Fibrosis

•• Rare condition in which one or both ureters become bound up in a progressive fibrosis of the retroperitoneal tissues
•• The cause is unknown, although some cases may be drug-related
•• The patient complains of backache, which is unremitting for several months
•• The onset of anuria and renal failure prompts investigation of the renal tract which reveals hydronephrosis
•• The excretion urogram typically shows displacement of the obstructed ureters towards the midline and the appearances on CT
are diagnostic
•• The sedimentation rate is markedly raised.
Randall’s plaque and microliths

•• Initial lesion in some cases of kidney stone was an erosion at the tip of a renal papilla
•• Deposition of calcium on this erosion produced a lesion which has been called Randall’s plaque
•• Minute concretions (microliths) regularly occur in the renal parenchyma. These particles are carried by lymphatics to the
subendothelial region where they may accumulate
•• Ulceration of the epithelium exposes the potential calculus to the urine with the result that a stone forms. The importance of
Randall’s plaques and Carr’s microliths is the pathogenesis for calculi
•• Renal calculi overlie spine on lateral view
•• Renal colic + swelling in loin + disappearance of swelling with micturition = Dietl’s crisis
•• Pain in ureteric colic is due to ureteric peristalsis
•• Noncontrast CT is the most sensitive diagnostic method for acute ureteric colic.
‘Renal Calculi’
•• Calcium stones: Calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones make up 75 to 85% of the total renal calculi
•• Most common
•• Calcium stones are more common in men; the average age of onset is the third decade. Approximately, 60% of people who form
a single calcium stone eventually form another within the next 10 years
•• In the urine, calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals (whewellite) usually grow as biconcave ovals that resemble red blood cells in
shape and size but may occur in a larger, ‘dumbbell’ form.
•• Uric acid stones are radiolucent and are also more common in men
•• Half of patients with uric acid stones have gout; uric acid lithiasis is usually familial whether or not gout is present. In urine, uric
acid crystals are red-orange in color because they absorb the pigment uricine
•• Uric acid gravel appears like red dust, and the stones are also orange or red on some occasions.
•• Cystine stones are uncommon, lemon yellow, and sparkle

•• Radiopacity is due to the sulfur content
•• Cystine crystals appear in the urine as flat, hexagonal plates.
•• Struvite stones are common and potentially dangerous

•• These stones occur mainly in women or patients who require chronic bladder catheterization and result from urinary tract infection
with urease-producing bacteria, usually Proteus species
•• Grow in alkaline urine
•• Grow in infected urine
•• The stones can grow to a large size and fill the renal pelvis and calyces to produce a ‘staghorn’ appearance
•• They are radiopaque and have a variable internal density. In urine, struvite crystals are rectangular prisms said to resemble coffin
lids.
•• On X-ray lateral view, renal stone is superimposed on shadow of vertebral column

•• CT scan is the invstigation of choice for emergency.
•• Most of ureteric calculi originate in kidney

•• Sites of impaction of ureteric calculi:
–– Pelviuretreric junction
–– At the crossing of iliac artery
–– Entering the bladder wall
–– Ureteric orifice
•• Small (< 2.5 cms) stone in proximal ureter: ESWL
•• (> 2.5 cms) stone in proximal ureter: Nephrolithotomy
•• Small stone in distal ureter: Ureteroscopic removal
•• Large/long-standing stone in distal ureter: Ureterolithotomy
•• Stones hard to break in ESWL: Cysteine stones
Stones (Calculi)
•• Whewellite: (Calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals)
•• Weddilite: (Calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals)
•• Staghorn/Coffin lid: Struvite
•• Radiolucent: Uric acid
•• Radio-opaque: Calcium, Struvite, Cysteine
Acute Pyelonephritis
It is an infectious disease involving the kidney parenchyma and the renal pelvis. Gram-negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli,
Proteus, Klebsiella, and Enterobacter, are the most common causative organisms in acute pyelonephritis. Laboratory evaluation will
often reveal leukocytosis with a left shift, and urinalysis typically shows pyuria, varying degrees of hematuria, and white cell casts.
Since bacteremia is present, the patient should be hospitalized and empirically started on IV ampicillin and gentamicin.
Perinephric and Renal Abscesses

•• The presentation of perinephric and renal abscesses is quite nonspecific
•• Flank pain and abdominal pain are common
•• At least 50% of patients are febrile
•• Pain may be referred to the groin or leg, particularly with extension of infection.
•• Perinephric or renal abscess should be most seriously considered when a patient presents with symptoms and signs of
pyelonephritis and remains febrile after 4 or 5 days, by which time the fever should have resolved
•• Renal ultrasonography and abdominal CT are the most useful diagnostic modalities
•• Treatment for perinephric or renal abscesses includes drainage of pus and antibiotic therapy directed at the organism(s) recovered
•• For perinephric abscesses, percutaneous drainage is usually successful.
Renal Cell Carcinoma

SYNONYM: Hypernephroma, Grawitz tumor
•• Accounts for 90 to 95% of malignant neoplasms arising from the kidney
Unusual features:
•• Refractoriness to cytotoxic agents
•• Infrequent but reproducible responses to biologic response modifiers such as interferon and interleukin (IL) 2
•• Spontaneous regression
Surgery 499
Epidemiology and Etiology

•• von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome. Tuberous sclerosis and polycystic kidney disease
•• Abnormalities on chromosome 3 are most frequent
•• Most of the cancers arise from the epithelial cells of the proximal tubules
•• Categories include:
–– Clear cell carcinoma (60% of cases)
–– Papillary (5 to 15%), chromophobic tumors (5 to 10%)
–– Oncocytomas (5 to 10%)
–– Collecting or Bellini duct tumors (RARER)
•• The presenting signs and symptoms include hematuria, abdominal pain, and a flank or abdominal mass. This ‘classic triad’
occurs in 10 to 20% of patients. Other symptoms are fever, weight loss, anemia, and a varicocele
•• Causes expansile osteolytic lesions
•• A spectrum of paraneoplastic syndromes has been associated with these malignancies, including:
–– Erythrocytosis
–– Hypercalcemia
–– Nonmetastatic hepatic dysfunction (Stauffers’ syndrome)
–– Acquired dysfibrinogenemia
Erythrocytosis is present at presentation in only about 3% of patients
–– More frequently anemia, a sign of advanced disease
–– Cushing’s syndrome
–– Galactorrhea
–– Amyloidosis
–– Hypertension
–– PUO
Staging by ‘Robson’ staging

•• Mc site of metastasis is lung, soft tissue, bone, liver
•• Secondaries are ‘expansile, osteolytic’
–– The standard management for stage I or II tumors and selected cases of stage III disease is radical nephrectomy
–– There is no proven role for adjuvant chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiation therapy following successful surgical removal
of the tumor, even in cases with a poor prognosis
–– Surgery in the setting of metastases: Nephrectomy may be indicated in highly selected cases for the alleviation of symptoms,
including pain or recurrent urinary hemorrhage, and particularly if the latter is severe or associated with obstruction.
Pheochromocytoma
•• Tumor of chromaffin cells
•• (Headache) Hypertension is a common symptom but not a reliable symptom of pheochromocytoma
•• Pheochromocytoma is a cause of ‘Episodic/Paroxysmal’ Hypertension and not persistent hypertension
•• Pheochromocytoma is also a cause of ‘Orthostatic Hypotension.’
•• This rare tumor is most often found in the adrenal medulla, although it can also be found in other tissues derived from neural
crest cells. The tumor cells secrete catecholamine hormones or their precursors, which can cause either paroxysmal or persistent
hypertension. Urinary metabolites of epinephrine and norepinephrine are:
–– Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid
–– So screening 24-hour urine collections for these substances can be helpful in establishing or excluding these diagnoses even
in cases in which a physician does not observe one of the paroxysms and thus blood cannot be drawn for serum catecholamine
levels at that time.
•• NA production is ↑↑
–– Bilateral in 10% cases
–– Extra-adrenal in 10% cases
–– Familial in 10% cases
–– Malignant in 10% cases
–– Multiple in 10% cases
•• ↑urinary VMA levels seen
•• ↑urinary metanephrine
•• MIBG scan is most specific and sensitive for diagnosis
Associated with:
•• MEN 2 syndromes
•• von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome
•• Sturge-Weber syndrome
Renal Artery Stenosis/Ischemic Renal Disease

•• Accounts for 2 to 5% of hypertension
•• Commonest cause in the middle-aged and elderly is an atheromatous plaque at the origin of the renal artery
•• In younger women, fibromuscular dysplasia is the commonest cause
Renal artery stenosis should be suspected when hypertension develops in a previously normotensive individual over 50 years of
age or in the young (under 30 years) with suggestive features: symptoms of vascular insufficiency to other organs, high-pitched
epigastric bruit on physical examination, symptoms of hypokalemia secondary to hyperaldosteronism (muscle weakness, tetany,
polyuria), and metabolic alkalosis
Understand the difference:
•• The ‘best initial screening test’ is a renal ultrasound
•• A positive captopril test, which has a sensitivity and specificity of greater than 95%, constitutes an ‘excellent follow-up procedure’
to assess the need for more invasive radiographic evaluation
•• Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) is the ‘most sensitive (100%) and specific’ (95%) test for the diagnosis of renal arterial
stenosis
•• The ‘most definitive diagnostic procedure’ is bilateral arteriography with repeated bilateral renal vein and systemic renin
determinations
Treatment
Interventional therapy (i.e. surgery or angioplasty) is superior to medical therapy, which, while controlling blood pressure, does
little to salvage renal mass lost to ischemic injury.
Nutcracker phenomenon
•• It is seen in varicocele
•• It refers to nut-inside-a-cracker-like image
•• The left renal vein is distended in varicocele on the left side
•• As a result, ‘Left renal vein gets compressed’ in between superior mesenteric artery and the aorta leading to renal vein
hypertension
•• The remedy is surgical transposition of left renal vein
The two diseases most commonly leading to renal failure and treatable by kidney transplantation are glomerulonephritis and
insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
Other important causes include:
•• Polycystic kidney disease
•• Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
Surgery 501
•• Alport’s disease
•• IgA nephropathy
•• Systemic lupus erythematosus
•• Nephrosclerosis
•• Interstitial nephritis
•• Pyelonephritis
•• Obstructive uropathy
•• Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
The left kidney is chosen, if possible, since its longer renal vein facilitates the recipient operation
However, if the arteriogram shows multiple renal arteries on one side, the kidney with a single artery is usually selected to facilitate
the anastomosis
A flank incision is used. After Gerota’s fascia is incised, the greater curvature of the kidney and the upper pole are mobilized, and the
hilar structures are exposed
On the left side, the adrenal and gonadal veins are ligated so that the full length of the renal vein can be utilized
Traction on the renal artery should be avoided, since it causes spasm and decreased kidney perfusion, possibly compromising early
function
The ureter should be mobilized, along with its blood supply and a generous amount of periureteric tissue. It is divided close to the
bladder after ligating the distal end.
Carcinoma of the Bladder

Carcinoma arising within the bladder may be of three cell types: transitional, squamous and adenocarcinoma [or mixed owing to
metaplasia in a transitional cell carcinoma (TCC)]
•• Over 90 percent are transitional cells in origin
•• Pure squamous carcinoma is uncommon (Schistosomiasis, stones, irradiation, smoking)
•• Primary adenocarcinoma, which arises either from the urachal remnant or from areas of glandular metaplasia, accounts for
1–2 percent of cases
•• Mc site: Trigone and posterior wall
•• Mc symptom: Painless hematuria.
Transitional cell carcinoma

Following compounds may be carcinogenic:
•• 2-naphthylamine
•• 4-aminobiphenyl
•• Benzidine
•• Chlornaphazine
•• 4-chloro-o-toluidine
•• o-toluidine
•• 4,4-methylenebis (2-choloraniline)
•• Methylene dianiline
•• Benzidine-derived azo dyes
Occupations: Significantly excess risk of bladder cancer
•• Textile workers
•• Dye workers
•• Tyre rubber and cable workers
•• Petrol workers
•• Leather workers
•• Shoe manufacturers and cleaners

•• Painters
•• Hairdressers
•• Lorry drivers
•• Drill press operators
•• Chemical workers
•• Rodent exterminators and sewage workers
•• Cystoscopy is the mainstay for evaluation

•• Antigenic tests utilizing NMP-22, MCM proteins are used
•• Filling defect on IVU is the most common sign
•• Much said about intravesical BCG is advised for initial stage (Ta)
–– Kiss cancer is benign tumor of bladder
–– Tear drop bladder is pelvic hematoma
–– Secondary vesical calculus is stone in bladder after infection.
Schistosomiasis
•• S. Haematobonium is causative agent
•• Resides in vesical venous plexus
•• Urticaria at the site of penetration occurs (Swimmers’ itch)
•• Calcifications with small contracted bladder.
Intermittent Painless Terminal Hematuria
•• Praziquantel is the DOC
Surgery is done in case of:
•• Secondary bacterial cystitis
•• Urinary calculi
•• Ureteric stricture
•• Seminal vesiculitis
•• Fibrosis of bladder and bladder neck
•• Cancer
Cystoscopic Features
•• ‘Pseudotubercles’ on cystoscopy are the earliest specific features. The pseudotubercles are larger, more prominent, more
numerous, more yellow and more distinctly grouped.
•• ‘Nodules’ are due to fusion of tubercles.
•• ‘Sandy patches’ are a result of calcified dead ova.
•• ‘Ulceration’ is the result of sloughing of mucous membrane containing dead ova. Ulcers are shallow, bleed readily.
•• ‘Carcinoma’ is the end result of neglected bilharziasis.
•• Carcinoma commences in ulcer and not papilloma.
•• It is usually well advanced and requires radical cystectomy.
Special Forms of Lower Urinary Tract Infection

Acute abacterial cystitis (acute hemorrhagic cystitis)
•• The patient presents with symptoms of severe UTI
•• Pus is present in the urine, but no organism can be cultured.
Surgery 503
•• It is sometimes associated with abacterial urethritis and is commonly sexually acquired. Tuberculous infection and carcinoma in
situ must be ruled out
•• The underlying causative organism may be mycoplasma or herpes.
Frequency dysuria syndrome (urethral syndrome)
•• This is common in women
•• It consists of symptoms suggestive of urinary infection, but with negative urine cultures and absent pus cells
•• Carcinoma in situ, tuberculosis and interstitial cystitis should be excluded
•• Adopt general measures such as wearing cotton underwear, using simple soaps, general perineal hygiene and voiding after
intercourse
•• Other treatments include cystoscopy and urethral dilatation, although the benefits remain doubtful.
Tuberculous urinary infection
•• Tuberculous urinary infection is secondary to renal tuberculosis
•• Cystoscopy shows that early tuberculosis of the bladder commences around the ureteric orifice or trigone, the earliest evidence
being pallor of the mucosa due to submucous edema
•• Subsequently tubercles may be seen cobble-stone appearance
•• Long-standing cases: There is much fibrosis and the capacity of the bladder is greatly reduced, scarred, fibrosed, small capacity
(thimble bladder)
•• Rigid wide-mouthed ureter (golf hole ureter)
Reiter’s Syndrome
Patients typically present with the acute onset of arthritis (usually asymmetric and additive), with involvement of new joints occurring
over a period of a few days to 2 weeks. Joints of the lower extremities are the most commonly involved, but wrists and fingers can
also be affected. Dactylitis (sausage digit), a diffuse swelling of a solitary finger or toe, is a distinctive feature of Reiter’s arthritis and
psoriatic arthritis. Tendonitis and fasciitis are common. Spinal pain and low back pain are common. Conjunctivitis, urethritis, diarrhea,
and skin lesions are also associated with Reiter’s syndrome. Up to 75% of patients are HLA-B27 positive. Micro-organisms which can
trigger Reiter’s syndrome include Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Yersinia spp., Campylobacter jejuni, and Chlamydia trachomatis.
Most patients are younger males.
Incontinence
Genuine stress incontinence is defined as urinary leakage occurring during increased bladder pressure when this is solely due to
increased abdominal pressure and not due to increased true detrusor pressure. It is caused by sphincter weakness. The commonest
cause of leakage of urine in women is genuine stress incontinence (GSI), although in some parts of the world, vesicourethral fistulae
owing to neglected labor are very common. GSI occurs secondary to weakness of the distal sphincter mechanism associated with
laxity of the pelvic floor. It is usually found in multiparous women with a history of difficult labor often accompanied by the use of
forceps.
Chronic urinary retention with overflow incontinence. This is recognized by a large residual volume of urine and is usually associated
with high pressures during bladder filling.
Neurogenic incontinence. The common causes include:
•• Myelodysplasia
•• Multiple sclerosis
•• Spinal cord injuries
•• Cerebral dysfunction [cerebrovascular accident (CVA), dementia]
•• Parkinson’s disease (paralysis agitans)
These conditions lead to a combination of neurogenic vesical dysfunction often associated with loss of mobility. Careful investigation
of the whole urinary tract is always required, and the treatment needs to strike a fine balance between preventing hydronephrosis
from abnormally high bladder pressures, yet at the same time maintaining continence.
The mainstay of management is accurate urodynamic assessment to assess bladder emptying, incontinence and the risks to the upper
tract. The upper tracts should be assessed with regular ultrasound scanning, and assessment of the patient’s mobility, intelligence and
motivation is vital. The important factors to assess urodynamically are:
•• Bladder emptying
•• Bladder capacity and bladder pressure during filling
•• Continence
Small bladder capacity. The capacity of the bladder may be considerably diminished in several conditions. This can cause crippling
urinary frequency and incontinence. It may follow tuberculosis, radiotherapy or interstitial cystitis. Radiotherapy for pelvic cancer can
also cause this problem.
Drug-induced incontinence. The detrusor muscle is basically under postganglionic parasympathetic control and the main
neurotransmitter system is cholinergic. A number of drugs can induce urinary retention (anticholinergic agents, tricyclic
antidepressants, lithium and some antihypertensives).
Constant dribbling of urine coupled with normal micturition. This occurs when there is a ureteric fistula or an ectopic ureter
associated with a duplex system opening into the urethra beyond the urethral sphincter in females, or into the vagina. The history
is diagnostic, and intravenous pyelography or ultrasound scanning may reveal the upper pole segment which is often poorly
functioning. These segments are very liable to infection. Treatment is by excision of the aberrant ureter and portion of kidney which
needs it. A ureteric fistula can be difficult to diagnose and may require retrograde ureterography and a high degree of suspicion to
demonstrate.
Rupture of the Bladder

This may be intraperitoneal (20 percent) or extraperitoneal (80 percent)
Intraperitoneal rupture may be secondary to a blow, kick or fall on a fully distended bladder and it is more common in the male than
in the female, and usually follows a bout of beer drinking. More rarely, it is due to surgical damage. Extraperitoneal rupture is usually
caused by a fractured pelvis or is secondary to major trauma or surgical damage.
•• Sudden, agonizing pain in the hypogastrium, often accompanied by syncope
•• The shock later subsides and the abdomen commences to distend
•• No desire to micturate
•• Varying degrees of abdominal rigidity and abdominal distension are present on examination
•• No suprapubic dullness, but there is tenderness
•• There may be shifting dullness
•• If the urine is sterile, symptoms and signs of peritonitis are delayed
Extraperitoneal rupture
In many cases of pelvic trauma, this is difficult to distinguish from rupture of the membranous urethra.
Confirming a suspected diagnosis of intraperitoneal rupture
•• Plain X-ray in the erect position may show the ground-glass appearance of fluid in the lower abdomen
•• Intravenous urography (IVU) may confirm a leak from the bladder
•• A peritoneal ‘tap’ may be of value if facilities for radiological examination are not available
•• If doubt still exists and if there is no sign of fracture, then retrograde cystography can be performed safely. With careful asepsis,
a small [14 French gauge (FG)] catheter is passed. Usually some blood-stained urine will drain. A solution made from 60 ml of 35
percent Hypaque® or Conray® with 120 ml of sterile isotonic saline is injected into the bladder and radiographs are taken.
Ectopia vesicae (syn. exstrophy of the bladder)

Caused by the incomplete development of the infraumbilical part of the anterior abdominal wall, associated with incomplete
development of the anterior wall of the bladder owing to delayed rupture of the cloacal membrane.
Clinical features of ectopia vesicae:
•• One in 50,000 births (four male: one female)
•• Characteristic appearance because of the pressure of the viscera behind it
•• Edges of abdominal wall can be felt
•• Umbilicus is absent
Surgery 505
Urethral Stricture
The causes of urethral stricture are:
•• Congenital
•• Traumatic; MC Cause
•• Inflammatory:
–– Postgonorrheal
–– Posturethral chancre
–– Tuberculous
•• Instrumental:
–– Indwelling catheter
–– Urethral endoscopy
•• Postoperative:
–– Open prostatectomy
–– Amputation of penis
Extravasation of Urine
Superficial extravasation is likely with complete rupture of the bulbar urethra and in ruptured urethral abscess.
•• The extravasated urine is confined in front of the midperineal point by the attachment of Colles fascia to the triangular ligament,
and by the attachment of Scarpa’s fascia just below the inguinal ligament. The external spermatic fascia stops it getting into the
inguinal canals
•• Extravasated urine collects in the scrotum and penis and beneath the deep layer of superficial fascia in the abdominal wall.
Treatment is by urgent operation to drain the bladder by suprapubic cystostomy. This prevents further extravasation.
Deep extravasation occurs with extraperitoneal rupture of the bladder or intrapelvic rupture of the urethra
•• It can also occur if the ureter is damaged or if there is perforation of the prostatic capsule or bladder during transurethral resection
•• Urine extravasates in the layers of the pelvic fascia and the retroperitoneal tissues.
Treatment is by suprapubic cytostomy and drainage of the retropubic space.
•• Urethral injury associated with pelvis: Membranous urethral injury

•• Urethral injury associated with high-flying prostate: Membranous urethral injury
•• Bladder injury associated with pelvis: Extraperitoneal rupture.
Injuries to the Male Urethra

Rupture of the bulbar urethra
Rupture of the bulbar urethra is the most common urethral injury
There is a history of a blow to the perineum usually due to a fall astride a projecting object. Cycling accidents, loose manhole covers
and gymnasium accidents astride the beam account for a number of cases
Clinical features:
The triad of signs of a ruptured bulbar urethra is:
•• Retention of urine
•• Perineal hematoma
•• Bleeding from the external urinary meatus
Rupture of the membranous urethra
Extraperitoneal rupture of the urethra
Intrapelvic rupture of the membranous urethra occurs near the apex of the prostate. Like extraperitoneal rupture of the bladder,
it may be due to penetrating wounds but in civilian life, it is usually a result of pelvic fracture.
Fracture of the pubic and ischial rami is most likely to result when sudden force is applied to one lower limb in a car accident or in
landing on one leg after falling from a height. There is an associated disruption of the sacroiliac joint so that one half of the pelvis and
ischiopubic ramus is pushed up above the other. This applies a traction force on the prostate which is firmly bound by ligaments to the
back of the symphysis pubis. The torn ends of the urethra may be widely displaced by this type of injury
Catheterization is best avoided.
Congenital Valves of the Posterior Urethra

•• These are symmetrical folds of urothelium which can cause obstruction to the urethra of boys
•• They are usually found just distal to the verumontanum but they may be within the prostatic urethra. They behave as flap
valves. So, although urine does not flow normally, a urethral catheter can be passed without difficulty.
•• In some instances, the valves are incomplete and the patient remains without symptoms until adolescence or adulthood
•• In such cases, the prostatic urethra is grossly dilated and saccules and diverticula are present within it.
Other Important Points about Posterior Urethral Valves

•• Symmetrical folds of urothelium
•• Common distal to verumontanum
•• Occur in males only
•• MC cause of urinary obstruction in male infant
•• Cause obstruction to passage of urine and catheter
•• Diagnosis is by VCUG and endoscopy
•• Associated with VURD syndrome (urethral valves, unilateral reflux, renal dysplasia)
Hypospadias
•• Hypospadias occurs in one in 350 male births
•• It is the most common congenital malformation of the urethra
•• The external meatus opens on the underside of the penis or the perineum and the inferior aspect of the prepuce is poorly developed
(‘hooded prepuce’)
•• Meatal stenosis also occurs
•• Bifid scrotum.
Hypospadias is classified according to position of the meatus.
Glandular hypospadias — this is the most common type and does not usually require treatment. The normal site of the external
meatus is marked by a blind pit, although it occasionally connects by a channel to the ectopic opening on the underside of the glans.
Coronal hypospadias — the meatus is placed at the junction of the underside of the glans and the body of the penis.
Penile and penoscrotal hypospadias — the opening is on the underside of the penile shaft.
Perineal hypospadias — this is the most severe abnormality. The scrotum is split and the urethra opens between its two halves.
There may be testicular maldescent which may make it difficult to determine the sex of the child.
The more severe varieties of hypospadias represent an absence of the urethra and corpus spongiosum distal to the ectopic opening.
The absent structures are represented by a fibrous cord which deforms the penis in a downward direction (chordee). The more distant
the opening from its normal position, the more pronounced the bowing
6-10 months of age is the best time for surgery.
Cryptorchidism
The term ‘cryptorchidism’ (Greek cryptos = hidden, orchis = testis) should be reserved for impalpable, usually abdominal,
testes
•• There is a higher incidence of undescended testes in premature than in full-term babies.
Surgery 507
•• Two-thirds of undescended testes in newborn infants will descend, usually by 6 weeks in term and 3 months in preterm babies
•• There is an increased incidence of cryptorchidism in anencephalics and other cerebral anomalies
Ectopic testes
These have descended as far as the external inguinal ring and then become deviated into the:
•• Superficial inguinal pouch
•• Perineal
•• Suprapubic or
•• Femoral ectopic sites
•• The commonest by far is the superficial inguinal pouch, above and lateral to the external inguinal ring.
Retractile testes
The cremasteric reflex in young children will draw the testes into the region of the superficial inguinal pouch very readily but they can
be manipulated back down to the bottom of the scrotum. The testis would normally reside in the scrotum if such a child is in a warm
bath or is relaxed in bed.
Ascending testis
Some boys with recorded testicular descent at routine clinic checks in infancy may be found later at preschool or school medicals to
have an undescended testis. This phenomenon of the ‘ascending testis’ was noted first by Atwell. It has been suggested that this is
caused by failure of elongation of the spermatic cord during differential body growth, so that the testis is drawn up by absorption of
the processus vaginalis.
Anorchia
Anorchia may be on one or both sides. If on one side alone, there may be ipsilateral renal agenesis. If the baby is fully masculinized but
both testes are absent, it must be assumed that they have atrophied subsequent to torsion or infarction during development. Absence
of testicular tissue and, therefore, lack of Müllerian inhibitory hormone during early gestation can lead to Müllerian development
along the female lines. The lack of androgenic stimulation (testosterone) from the testes leads to failure of Wolffian duct development.
Predisposing Factors for Torsion of Testis are

•• Inversion of testis
•• Long mesorchium
•• Undescended/ectopic testis
•• High investment of tunica vaginalis
•• Initiating factors: Spasm of cremaster
•• Torsion of spinal cord involves twisting of spermatic cord along its long axis. Left testis rotates anticlockwise and right
testis rotates clockwise i.e. away from midline
•• ‘De torsion’ is the initial treatment.
•• Torsion of the testicle should be corrected as soon as possible after the diagnosis is entertained
•• Incomplete torsion can cause partial strangulation, the effects of which may be overcome if surgical intervention is accomplished
within 12 hours, whereas severe torsion with complete compromise of the blood supply results in loss of the testis unless surgical
intervention occurs within approximately 4 hours
•• The contralateral scrotum should also be explored at the time of the operation, since the primary anatomic defect—insufficient
attachment of the testicle to the scrotal sidewall—most often is a bilateral phenomenon
•• If the contralateral scrotum is not explored, the patient runs a very high risk of undergoing torsion on the other side and the
possible complication of loss of both testes.
Hazards of Incomplete Descent are

•• Sterility in bilateral cases
•• Pain due to trauma
•• An associated indirect inguinal hernia that is often present and, in older patients, it is frequently the hernia which causes symptoms
•• Torsion
•• Epididymo-orchitis that, in an incompletely descended testis, is extremely rare but of interest because, on the right side, it mimics
appendicitis
•• Atrophy of an inguinal testis that can occur even before puberty, possibly due to recurrent minor trauma
•• Increased liability to malignant disease. All types of malignant testicular tumor are more common in incompletely descended
testes even if they have been brought down surgically
•• Operate at between 9 and15 months of age.
Testicular torsion Epididymitis

•• Usually < 30 yrs of age •• Usually > 30 yrs of age
•• Pain stays same/worsens with testicular elevation (Prehn’s test) •• Pain ↓ with testicular elevation
•• Immediate exploration needed •• Immediate exploration NOT needed
Remember
•• Aspermia: No ejaculate
•• Oligospermia: Sperm count less than 20 million/ml
•• Polyzoospermia: Count >350 million/ml
•• Azoospermia: No spermatozoa in semen
•• Asthenozoospermia: Reduced sperm motility
•• Necrozoospermia: Spermatozoa are dead
•• Teratozoospermia: >70% Spermatozoa with abnormal morphology
Oligospermia, by definition, indicates a sperm count of less than 20 million per ml. and under such circumstances, fertility is difficult
The principal causes of defective spermatogenesis include:
•• Congenital inadequacy of the seminiferous tubules;
•• Testicular damage as a consequence of infection, trauma, or infarction;
•• Klinefelter’s syndrome;
•• Hypopituitarism;
•• Varicocele; and
•• Cryptorchidism
•• Other causes of oligospermia may relate to the transport of spermatozoa. Chronic prostatitis and seminal vesiculitis may result in
fibrosis and impede transport and delivery of sperm. Infection spreading into the vas deferens may induce fibrosis and stricture
even to the point of total occlusion.
Azoospermia, complete absence of spermatozoa in the ejaculate, may be caused by:
•• Total occlusion of the sperm transport system, vasa, seminal vesicles, or ejaculatory ducts. Congenital absence of the vasa and
seminal vesicles may occur as an isolated anatomic defect, and congenital absence of the vasa is the rule in males with cystic
fibrosis
•• Gonococcal epididymitis and vasitis may cause complete stenosis and azoospermia
•• Complete nonresponsiveness of the germinal epithelium as in primary gonadal failure may also produce a picture of azoospermia
despite elevated follicle-stimulating hormone levels
•• Trauma to the vasa in the course of an inguinal hernia operation or orchidopexy
Surgery 509
Testicular Cancer
•• Primary germ cell tumors (GCTs) of the testis constitute 95% of all testicular neoplasms. Infrequently, GCTs arise from an
extragonadal site, including the mediastinum, retroperitoneum and, very rarely, the pineal gland
•• Bilateral in 10% cases
•• Cryptorchidism is associated with a several fold higher risk of GCT
•• Abdominal cryptorchid testes are at a higher risk than inguinal cryptorchid testes
•• Orchiopexy should be performed before puberty, if possible
•• Testicular feminization syndromes increase the risk of testicular GCT
•• Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with mediastinal GCT
•• An isochromosome of the short arm of chromosome 12 is pathognomonic for GCT
•• A painless testicular mass is pathognomonic for a testicular malignancy
Mc tumor of testis: Seminoma
Mc histological subtype: Mixed
Mc tumor in infants: Yolk sac tumor
Mc tumor in aged elderly: Lymphoma
Commonest testicular malignancy is: Seminoma

Most malignant testicular cancer is: Choriocarcinoma
Seminoma
•• It has a median age in the fourth decade
•• Generally follows a more indolent clinical course
•• Seminomas are radiosensitive
•• But surgery is the TOC
•• Seminomas metastasize by lymphatics
•• Seminomas correspond to dysgerminomas of ovary.
Spermatocele
•• Spermatocele is a unilocular retention cyst
•• It almost always lies in relation to the head of the epididymis
•• The fluid contains spermatozoa and resembles ‘barley fluid’
•• Treatment for small spermatoceles is conservative follow-up while larger ones should be aspirated or excised
•• A spermatocele is a diverticulum of the epididymis that contains cloudy fluid with spermatozoa. It is unilocular or multilocular
and often confused with hydrocele because both a spermatocele and a hydrocele can be transilluminated. Differential diagnosis
of spermatocele and hydrocele is aided by the localization of the mass: hydrocele generally surrounds the testis, while the
spermatocele is more eccentric, can often be palpated in direct conjunction with the epididymis, and is often tender.
Cysts Connected with the Epididymis

Epididymal cysts
These are filled with a crystal-clear fluid (as opposed to the barley-water fluid of a spermatocele or the amber fluid of a hydrocele).
They are very common, usually multiple and vary greatly in size at presentation. They represent cystic degeneration of the epididymis
Cyst of a testicular appendage
Cyst of a testicular appendage is usually unilateral and is felt as a small globular swelling at the superior pole. Such cysts are liable to
torsion and should be removed if they cause symptoms.
Spermatocele
•• This is a unilocular retention cyst derived from some portion of the sperm-conducting mechanism of the epididymis. A spermatocele
nearly always lies in the head of the epididymis above and behind the upper pole of the testis
•• It is usually softer and laxer than other cystic lesions in the scrotum but like them it transilluminates
•• The fluid contains spermatozoa and resembles barley water in appearance
•• Spermatoceles are usually small and unobtrusive. Less frequently they are large enough to make the patient think that he has
three testicles.
Infantile hydrocele
Infantile hydrocele does not necessarily appear in infants. The tunica and processus vaginalis are distended to the inguinal ring but
there is no connection with the peritoneal cavity.
Congenital hydrocele
The processus vaginalis is patent and connects with the general peritoneal cavity. The communication is usually too small to allow
herniation of intra-abdominal contents. Digital pressure on the hydrocele does not usually empty it but the hydrocele fluid may drain
into the peritoneal cavity when the child is lying down. Ascites or even ascitic tuberculous peritonitis should be considered if the
swellings are bilateral.
Encysted hydrocele of the cord
There is a smooth oval swelling near the spermatic cord which is liable to be mistaken for an inguinal hernia. The swelling moves
downwards and becomes less mobile if the testis is pulled gently downwards
Hydrocele of the canal of Nuck is a similar condition. It occurs in females and the cyst lies in relation to the round ligament. Unlike a
hydrocele of the cord, a hydrocele of the canal of Nuck is always at least partially within the inguinal canal.
Postherniorrhaphy hydrocele
Postherniorrhaphy hydrocele is a relatively rare complication of inguinal hernia repair. It is possibly due to interruption to the
lymphatics draining the scrotal contents.
Hydrocele of a hernial sac
Hydrocele of a hernial sac occurs when the neck is plugged with omentum or occluded by adhesions.
Filarial hydroceles and chyloceles
Filarial hydroceles and chyloceles account for up to 80 percent of hydroceles in some tropical countries where the parasite is endemic.
Filarial hydroceles follow repeated attacks of filarial epididymo-orchitis. They vary in size and may develop slowly or very rapidly.
Occasionally the fluid contains liquid fat which is rich in cholesterol. This is due to rupture of a lymphatic varix with discharge of chyle
into the hydrocele. Adult worms of the Wuchereria bancrofti have been found in the epididymis removed at operation or at necropsy.
In long-standing chyloceles, there are dense adhesions between the scrotum and its contents. Filarial elephantiasis supervenes in a
small number of cases.
Acute tuberculous epididymitis should come to mind when the vas is thickened and there is little response to the usual antibiotics
Acute epididymo-orchitis of mumps
•• Develops in about 18 percent of males suffering from mumps, usually as the parotid swelling is waning
•• The main complication is testicular atrophy which may cause infertility if the condition is bilateral (which is not usual). Partial
atrophy is associated with persistent testicular pain. The epididymitis of mumps sometimes occurs in the absence of parotitis,
especially in infants. The epididymis and testis may be involved by infection with other enteroviruses and in brucellosis and
lymphogranuloma venereum.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 3-day history of severe left-sided scrotal pain and swelling. He is sexually active
and has multiple sexual partners. He has no history of sexually transmitted diseases. His temperature is 38.7°C, blood pressure
is 126/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. Examination shows unilateral intrascrotal tenderness and swelling. Testicular support
makes the pain less intense. Most likely diagnosis would be: Epididymitis.
Surgery 511
Idiopathic Scrotal Gangrene

Idiopathic scrotal gangrene (syn. Fournier’s gangrene) is an uncommon and nasty condition. It is a vascular disaster of infective
origin which is characterized by:
•• Sudden appearance of scrotal inflammation;
•• Rapid onset of gangrene leading to exposure of the scrotal contents;
•• Absence of any obvious cause in over half the cases.
It has been known to follow minor injuries or procedures in the perineal area, such as a bruise, scratch, urethral dilatation, injection of
hemorrhoids or opening of a periurethral abscess.
The hemolytic streptococcus (sometimes microaerophilic) is associated with other organisms (staphylococcus, E. coli, Clostridium
welchii) in a fulminating inflammation of the subcutaneous tissues which results in an obliterative arteritis of the arterioles to the
scrotal skin
Varicocele
•• Dilatation and tortuosity of the veins of the pampiniform plexus
•• Most commonly observed on the left
•• Development of a varicocele may be an indicator of left renal tumor because the left spermatic vein system drains into the renal
vein and obstruction at that point could produce dilatation of the veins of the left cord
•• There may be a heavy, dragging, aching sensation in the scrotal compartment
•• Bag of Worms
•• May be a feature of renal cancer
•• Negative transillumination test
•• Reducible
•• Cough impulse +
•• MC cause of surgically treated male infertility.
Hydrocele
The tunica vaginalis, derived from the peritoneum as the processus vaginalis at the time of testicular descent, is a secretory membrane.
Fluid is generated by the serous surface of the tunica vaginalis
•• Congenital hydrocele may follow failure of obliteration of the processus vaginalis, and fluid formed within the peritoneal cavity
may gravitate into the tunica vaginalis
•• There may sometimes be an associated palpable inguinal hernia
•• In older persons, hydrocele is frequently the result of epididymo-orchitis or trauma
•• Lord’s plication is used for hydrocele.
Prostate Gland
•• Shape: Chest-nut-shaped
•• Type: Fibromusculoglangular organ
•• Corresponding female organ: Paraurethral glands of Skene
•• Volume: 8-12 ml
•• Carcinoma arises from: Peripheral zone
•• BHP arises from: Periurethral zone
•• Fracture of the bony pelvis may often result in laceration and transection of the membranous urethra just distal to the prostate and
urinary extravasation as well as bleeding may displace the prostate and bladder superiorly
•• MC site of urethral cancer is also membranous urethra.
Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH, BHP)

Fibromusculoglandular hyperplasia (All 3 elements involved in varying proportion)
It is the most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in men older than 50 years of age
Mechanical pressure phenomena cause:
•• Upward displacement of the base of the bladder
•• Fish-hooking of the lower ureters due to trigonal displacement
•• Hypertrophy of the bladder wall with trabeculation
•• Cellule formation
•• Diverticula of the bladder
•• Complete bladder outlet obstruction may result in decompensation of the detrusor muscle and total urinary retention
–– In the early stages, the patient complains of diminished size and force of the urinary stream
–– Hematuria may be caused by prostatic enlargement with engorgement of the small mucosal vessels covering the adenomatous
gland, ruptured as a consequence of straining to urinate
–– Rectal examination shows most often symmetric enlarged prostate and rubbery
–– As enlargement progresses, the gland protrudes posteriorly, compressing the anterior rectal wall and sometimes producing
symptoms of constipation
–– The size of the gland bears little relationship to the degree of symptomatic difficulty
–– Anticholinergic drugs and antihistamines should be avoided because they may precipitate urinary retention
Indications for a surgical procedure include:
•• Residual urine of more than 100 ml, particularly when there is associated azotemia of any degree
•• Persistent or recurrent urinary infection refractory to usual therapeutic methods; gross hematuria on more than one occasion
•• Acute urinary retention
•• Chronic urinary retention with overflow dribbling
•• Conservative therapy is by drugs
Surgical procedures are:
•• TURP
•• Transvesical prostatectomy
•• Retropubic prostatectomy
•• Perineal prostatectomy
Ho: YAG laser is used
•• MC complication of TURP: Retrograde ejaculation
•• Irrigation fluid used now in TURP: 1.5% Glycine
•• Altered sensorium with drowsiness after TURP might indicate: Hyponatremia
Complications of Prostatectomy
•• Hemorrhage
•• Bladder perforation
•• Retrograde ejaculation/Impotence
•• Incontinence
•• Urethral stricture
•• Hyponatremia
•• Sepsis
•• Osteitis pubis
Minimally Invasive Procedures

•• Transurethral needle ablation of prostate (TUNA)
•• Transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT)
Surgery 513
•• Transurethral US-guided laser-induced prostatectomy (TULIP)

•• Transurethral vapourization of prostate (TUVP)
•• Transurethral incision of prostate (TUIP)
Carcinoma of the Prostate

•• Adenocarcinoma of the prostate is the most common
•• Most often has its origin in glandular acini of the peripheral group of glands located in the posterior and posterolateral
regions of the prostate
•• Mc Neals Zone is referred to as cancer zone
•• Peripheral zone is the commonest site
•• PSA is the initial screening test/marker
•• Unique qualities of prostatic carcinoma are that many tumors produce an enzyme, acid phosphatase, which can be detected in
the serum of patients with metastatic disease or at least a very large local lesion
•• Prostate-specific antigen density (PSAD) is calculated by dividing the serum PSA level by the estimated prostate weight
calculated from transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS). Values > 0.15 suggest the presence of cancer. PSAD levels also increase with
age
•• PSA velocity is derived from calculations of the rate of change in PSA before the diagnosis of cancer was established. Increases of
> 0.75 ng/mL per year are suggestive of cancer
•• The noninvasive proliferation of epithelial cells within ducts is termed ‘Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia’ (PIN). It is considered
the precursor of cancer, but not all PIN lesions develop into invasive cancers
•• Histologic grade is based most commonly on the ‘Gleason system’
•• Direct spread is most common to seminal vesicles
•• Blood-borne metastasis is most common to bones
•• Lymphatic spread is most common to obturator nodes
•• Secondaries are osteoblastic
•• Metastasis to vertebrae is through Batson’s vertebral venous plexus
•• Carcinoma characteristically is hard, nodular and irregular
•• Digital rectal examination plus PSA levels are used for screening
•• Gleason’s staging is used for Ca prostate.
Phimosis
Adhesions between the foreskin and the glans penis may persist until the boy is 6 years of age or more, giving the false impression that
the prepuce will not retract. Rolling back the prepuce causes its inner lining to pout and the meatus comes into view. This condition
should not be confused with true phimosis in small boys where there is scarring of the prepuce which will not retract without fissuring.
In these cases, the aperture in the prepuce may be so tight as to cause urinary obstruction.
Paraphimosis
•• When the tight foreskin is retracted, it may sometimes be difficult to return and a paraphimosis results
•• In this condition, the venous and lymphatic return from the glans and distal foreskin is obstructed and these structures swell
alarmingly causing even more pressure within the obstructing ring of prepuce. Gangrene may occur
•• Ice bags, gentle manual compression and injection of a solution of hyaluronidase in normal saline may help to reduce the swelling
•• Such patients can be treated by circumcision if careful manipulation fails
•• A dorsal slit of the prepuce under local anesthetic may be enough in an emergency.
Balanoposthitis: Inflammation of the prepuce is known as posthitis; inflammation of the glans is balanitis. The opposing surfaces of
the two structures are often involved — hence the term balanoposthitis.
Chordee. Chordee (French = corded) is a fixed bowing of the penis due to hypospadias or, more rarely, chronic urethritis. Erection is
deformed and sexual intercourse may be impossible. Treatment is usually surgical.
Peyronie’s Disease
•• Peyronie’s disease is a relatively common cause of deformity of the erect penis
•• On examination, hard plaques of fibrosis can be palpated in the tunica of one or both corpora cavernosa. The plaques may be
calcified. The presence of the unyielding plaque tissue within the normally elastic wall of the corpus cavernosum causes the erect
penis to bend, often dramatically, towards the side of the plaque
•• The etiology is uncertain, but it may be a result of past trauma — there is an association with Dupuytren’s contracture
•• Usually self-limiting.
Paget’s disease of the penis (syn. erythroplasia of Quérat) is ‘a persistent rawness of the glans like a long-standing balanitis
followed by cancer of the substance of the penis’ (Sir James Pager). Treatment is by circumcision, observation and excision if the lesion
does not resolve.
Buschke–Lowenstein tumor is uncommon. It has the histological pattern of a verrucous carcinoma. It is locally destructive and
invasive, but appears not to spread to lymph nodes or to metastasize. Treatment is by surgical excision.
Cancer of the Penis

•• It is a rare tumor
•• It has a much higher proportion in populations where circumcision and personal hygiene are not well established
•• The most common form of cancer of the penis is squamous cell carcinoma
•• It is seen associated with chronic balanoposthitis from lack of circumcision
•• Lymphadenopathy is common
Premalignant lesions
•• Buschke-Lowenstein tumor
•• Erythroplasia of Quérat/ Paget’s disease of penis
•• Bowen’s disease
•• Leukoplakia
•• Balanitis xerotica obliterans
–– Diagnosis is established by biopsy
–– Treatment consists of partial or total penectomy; a proximal margin-free tumor of at least 1.5 cm is desirable
–– Inguinal node dissection with excision of both superficial and deep inguinal nodes is advocated when clinically palpable
nodes persist after amputation
–– Lymphadenopathy may occur from secondary infection seen in most cases of advanced penile carcinoma.
Peyronie’s Disease
•• A localized induration of the fibrous investments of the penile shaft, first described by the French surgeon Peyronie
•• After age of 40 years usually
•• Penile fibromatosis
•• A firm fibrotic thickening of the ‘Fascia of the Corpora Cavernosa’ is observed, usually involving the dorsolateral aspects of the
penile shaft or the intracavernous septum between the corpora cavernosa
•• Histologically similar to Keloid or Dupuytren’s contracture
•• The fibrous plaques themselves may be painless
•• Often compromise of erectile capacity of the penis with ‘deviation of the penis on erection’ and pain as a consequence of
this derangement
•• Deviation of the penis that interferes with intromission and coitus
•• Progression is slow, and spontaneous remissions are observed
•• Nesbitt’s operation is done
Surgery 515
Priapism
•• Prolonged
•• Pathologic
•• Painful erection of the penis
•• In recognition of the Greek god of sexual excess, Priapus
•• Pelvic venous thrombosis predisposes to priapism, metastatic malignant diseases, leukemia, pelvic trauma, sickle-cell disease
or trait, trauma to the corpora, or spinal cord injury
•• Prompt recognition and therapy are essential because prolonged unrelieved priapism almost inevitably leads to subsequent
Permanent impotence from fibrosis of the corpora cavernosa.
CTs scan of cancer pancreas
Neurosurgery
Glioblastoma
•• Most common primary bone tumor
•• Prognosis : grave
•• Pseudopalisading pattern of tumor cells
Meningioma
•• Psammoma bodies
•• Arises from arachnoid cells
•• Second most common brain tumor in adults
Oligodendroglioma
•• Most common in frontal lobes
•• Fried egg appearance of tumor cells
Schwannomas
•• Origin from Schwann cells
•• Bilateral schwannomas found in NF2
•• Two patterns: Antoni A and Antoni B
Pituitary tumors
•• Secrete prolactin
•• Derived from Rathke’s Pouch
CNS Tumors
•• MC site of CNS Lipoma Corpus Callosum
•• MC site of Germinoma Pineal Gland
•• MC site of Chordoma Clivus
•• MC source of Metastasis to Brain (females) Breast
•• MC source of Metastasis to Brain (males) Lung
•• Imaging of choice is: Contrast-enhanced MRI
•• Most specific test: Stereotactic needle biopsy
•• Bleeding brain tumors: Glioblastoma multiforme
•• Calcification of cerebral cortex (Railroad calcification) •• Sturge-weber syndrome

•• Diffuse nodular calcification •• Toxoplasmosis
•• Amorphous supracellular calcification •• Craniopharyngioma
•• Basal ganglia calcification •• Hypoparathyroidism (commonest)
•• Rice grain calcification •• Cysticercosis
•• Periventricular calcification •• CMV infection
•• Sunray calcification with spicules of brain •• Meningioma
•• Bone thickening at the site of brain tumor •• Meningioma
•• Punched out rarefication •• Multiple myeloma, sarcoidosis, Gout
•• Pepper pot or Salt and pepper app •• Hyperparathyroidism
•• Beaten silver app •• Raised intracranial pressure
•• Postclenoid erosion •• Raised intracranial pressure
•• Candle grease dripping or trouser leg appearance •• Intramedullary tumors in myelography
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
•• Massive bilateral adrenal cortical hemorrhage occurs in cases of fulminating meningococcal septicemia and in some cases of
streptococcal, staphylococcal or pneumococcal septicemia
•• Most cases occur in infants and young children, but it can happen in adults with severe hemorrhage or burns. The onset is
catastrophic, with rigors, hyperpyrexia, cyanosis and vomiting
•• Petechial hemorrhages into the skin which coalesce rapidly into purpuric blotches are a constant feature. Profound shock follows,
and before long the patient passes into coma
•• The condition is one of overwhelming sepsis that pursues a galloping course, death occurring in most cases within 48 hours of the
onset of symptoms unless correct treatment is given without delay.
Conditions Involving Pituitary Gland

Craniopharyngioma
Craniopharyngiomas represent 3 to 5% of intracranial neoplasms and arise from either sellar or extrasellar remnants of Rathke’s
pouch
Surgery 517
These tumors usually affect children and produce symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (headache, vomiting, somnolence)
as well as visual disturbances
Calcification within the tumor is readily seen on CT
Transfrontal resection is the treatment of choice for craniopharyngioma
Craniopharyngiomas are generally resistant to radiation therapy.
Pituitary Apoplexy
Pituitary apoplexy follows sudden hemorrhage into or infarction of a pituitary tumor. Symptoms occur suddenly due to expansion of
blood within the sella and include severe headache, stiff neck, loss of vision, and extraocular nerve palsies
Secondary adrenal insufficiency may lead to hypotension and shock
Pituitary apoplexy most often occurs in an undiagnosed pituitary tumor but can appear during radiation therapy for pituitary tumors,
during anticoagulation, or after closed-head trauma
Acute pituitary apoplexy is a neurosurgical emergency that requires acute transsphenoidal decompression of the sella.
Sheehan’s Syndrome
Pituitary necrosis may occur rarely after postpartum hemorrhage and hypovolemia. The degree of subsequent hypopituitarism
reflects the extent of pituitary necrosis and may include adrenal insufficiency, hypothyroidism and amenorrhea. An inability to
breastfeed postpartum due to destruction of oxytocin containing neurons of the posterior pituitary is an early clue to this diagnosis.
Empty Sella Syndrome
Results from arachnoid herniation through an incomplete diaphragma sellae. This syndrome may occur in the absence of a
recognized pituitary tumor and is either primary due to a congenital diaphragmatic defect or secondary due to an injury to the
diaphragm by pituitary surgery, radiation, or infarction.
Primary empty sella syndrome occurs in obese, multiparous, hypertensive women who experience headaches but have no
underlying neurologic disorders. Pituitary function is usually normal, but occasionally PRL is increased and GH reserve is reduced.
Secondary empty sella syndrome is observed in patients with otherwise benign CSF hypertension and in patients with a loss of
pituitary function due to apoplexy or surgical therapy.
ICU Management: A to J
A : Asepsis/Airway
B : Bed sore/encourage Breathing/Blood pressure
C : Circulation/encourage Coughing/Consciousness
D : Drains
E : ECG
F : Fluid status
G : GI losses/Gag reflex
H : Head positioning/Height
I : Insensible losses
J : Jugular venous pulse
Postoperative Respiratory Complications

Several factors militate against normal respiratory function in the early postoperative period:
•• Effects of general anesthesia, mechanical ventilation and postoperative analgesia, which depress the respiratory system
and suppress reflexes such as coughing, which clears secretions and periodic deep breathing and yawning, which expand
collapsed alveoli
•• Depression of the immune system by trauma or sepsis
•• Progressive reduction in vital capacity by 50 to 70% during the initial 12 to 18 hours after thoracotomy and laparotomy.
Atelectasis and Pneumonia

1. Atelectasis is the most common complication of operations performed under general anesthesia, with radiologic evidence in up to
70% of patients after thoracotomy and laparotomy
2. If air passages are occluded by secretions, perhaps in association with bronchospasm, alveolar air is absorbed and the alveoli
collapse. This is the most likely explanation for collapse that involves the entire segment or lobe of a lung, especially if the patient
has thick, tenacious secretions. However, atelectasis is often patchy and diffuse, appearing as plates of collapsed tissue on chest films
3. First clinical signs of atelectasis are rales, diminished breath sounds, and bronchial breathing, often accompanied by fever,
tachycardia, and radiologic evidence of consolidation due to the associated pneumonia.
Pulmonary Aspiration
Aspiration of material from the alimentary tract into the airway can lead to two distinct complications: aspiration pneumonitis, which
is due to the chemical composition of the aspirate; and aspiration pneumonia, which is due to its bacterial content. The two can
coexist, with aspiration pneumonia as a complication of aspiration pneumonitis.
Aspiration Pneumonitis
Aspiration pneumonitis is caused by the aspiration of gastric contents, which are normally sterile. The consequences depend on the
nature of the aspirated material. If the pH of the aspirate is less than 2.5, it can cause a chemical burn to the airways. The syndrome was
first described by Mendelson.
The clinical features of dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia usually appear within half-an-hour of aspiration, with rales and expiratory
wheezes on auscultation. Chest films reveal interstitial pulmonary edema. Arterial blood gases demonstrate hypoxia and hypercapnia.
The condition may rapidly deteriorate into respiratory failure and is associated with high mortality.
Aspiration Pneumonia
Aspiration pneumonia is usually due to inhalation of contents from the oropharynx that are normally at physiologic pH but contain
bacteria, particularly anaerobes. It is a common cause of postoperative pneumonia and is particularly associated with poor oral
hygiene and the prolonged use of nasogastric and endotracheal tubes.
Pulmonary Edema
Pulmonary edema in a postoperative patient may be due to left ventricular failure following cardiac complications or to injury to the
alveolar membrane as a result of sepsis, oxygen toxicity, and so forth, but it is generally the result of circulatory overload following
excessive administration of intravenous fluids. Circulatory overload may also follow absorption of fluids used for irrigation of the
peritoneum or hollow viscera, such as the bladder, or it may occur during mechanical bowel preparation, especially in those with a
history of cardiac disease.
Immediate Postoperative Respiratory Depression

Respiratory depression immediately following operation is usually due to the persistent effects of narcotic analgesia used during
anesthesia, or to the sustained action of muscle relaxants. Narcotics depress the respiratory center in the brainstem and can usually be
reversed by antagonists such as naloxone.
Acute Respiratory Failure

Acute respiratory failure is defined as a direct, life-threatening inability to maintain adequate gas exchange in the lungs. Although criteria
for instituting mechanical ventilation require an assessment of arterial blood gases, ventilation, dead space, and muscle strength, in
practice, respiratory failure is considered to be imminent if arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) is less than 60 mm Hg when one is
breathing room air, or the arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) is greater than 60 mm Hg in the absence of metabolic alkalosis.
Postoperative respiratory failure can be caused by one or a combination of pulmonary defects: hypoventilation, imbalance between
ventilation and perfusion and diminished alveolar oxygen diffusion.
Surgery 519
Important Surgical Points in Diabetes

The most common site of infection in diabetics is the urinary tract
•• Pyelonephritis
•• Papillary necrosis
•• Emphysematous pyelonephritis
•• Perinephric abscesses are all more common in diabetics
Unusual infections are also seen, including:
•• Rhinocerebral mucormycosis, an invasive fungal infection of the nose and sinuses
•• Malignant external otitis, an invasive bacterial infection of the auditory canal usually caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
•• Necrotizing cellulitis and especially in the perineal region of male diabetics who have recently had urethral catheterization
known as Fournier’s gangrene
•• Impaired Wound Healing
•• Cholelithiasis
•• Gangrene of the gallbladder
–– A peripheral, symmetric sensorimotor neuropathy with the most common manifestation is peripheral neuropathy of the
feet and distal lower extremity, with loss of protective sensation in the foot
–– Minor trauma may develop into a serious necrotizing infection with tissue loss
–– Normal adjustments of the foot in weight bearing do not occur, and heavy calluses form over pressure points, adding to the
pressure and causing necrosis under the callus
–– Foot problems are the most common indication for hospital admission in diabetics. Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Gas Gangrene
Results from the following clostridial species:
•• Clostridium welchii
•• Clostridium oedematiens
•• Clostridium septicum
•• Microscopy of wound exudate shows gram-positive bacilli
•• Anaerobic culture on blood agar shows hemolytic colonies (Clostridium welchii)
•• ‘Stormy’ clot reaction with litmus milk
•• Clostridium welchii also shows positive Nagler’s reaction, due to lecithinase reaction of alpha exotoxin
Clinical features
•• Patients are generally toxic and unwell
•• Often have features of shock, jaundice, haemolysis or acute renal failure
Local signs of gas gangrene include:
•• Myositis or myonecrosis
•• Gas formation with palpable crepitus
•• Mottled discoloration of the overlying skin
•• Plain X-ray often shows gas in the subcutaneous tissue and fascial plains
Interesting Facts in Relation to Fruits and Vegetables, etc.

•• Potato nodes •• Sarcoidosis
•• Potato tumor •• Chemodectoma
•• Potato/oyster ovary •• PCOD
•• Strawberry Gallbladder •• Cholesterosis
•• Strawberry tongue •• Scarlet fever

•• Strawberry cervix •• Trichomonas vaginalis
•• Strawberry hemangioma •• Nevus vasculosus
•• Barley colored fluid cyst •• Spermatocele
•• Apple jelly nodules •• Lupus vulgaris
•• Apple core lesion •• Ca colon
•• Raspberry tumor •• Umbilical adenoma
•• Raspberry thorn sign •• Crohn’s disease
SURGICAL ONCOLOGY
Latest Tumor Markers
•• Alphafetoprotein •• Hepatocellular carcinoma
•• CEA •• Adenocarcinoma colon, pancreas, lung, ovary
•• PSA •• Prostate cancer
•• Neuron-specific enolase •• Small cell lung cancer, Neuroblastoma
•• LDH •• Lymphoma
•• Catoecolamines •• Pheochromocytoma
•• Beta 2 microglobulin •• Multiple myeloma
•• Lymphoma
•• Bladder tumor antigen •• Bladder tumor, UTI, Renal calculi
•• CA 27.29 •• Breast cancer
•• CA 72.4 •• Ovarian and pancreatic cancer
•• LASA–P (Lipid Associated Sialic Acid) •• Ovarian cancer
•• NMP 2 •• Bladder cancer
•• HCG •• Gestational trophoblastic disorders
•• CA 125 •• Ovarian cancer
•• Placental Alkaline Phosphatase •• Seminoma
•• S100 •• Melanoma, neural tumors
Also Remember
•• Intermediate filament •• Tumor
•• Keratin •• Carcinoma
•• Vimentin •• Sarcoma
•• Desmin •• Muscle
•• Neurofilaments •• Phechromocytoma, Neuroblastoma
•• Glial Fibrillary Acidic Protein (GFAP) •• Astrocytomas, Ependymomas
Types of Secondaries
Osteolytic Secondaries Osteoblastic Secondaries
•• Kidney •• Prostate, Seminoma
•• Lung •• Breast, Uterus, Ovary
•• Thyroid •• Carcinoid
•• GIT •• Osteosarcoma
Surgery 521
Spontaneous Regression is seen in

•• Renal cell carcinoma
•• Retinoblastoma
•• Choriocarcinoma
•• Neuroblastoma
•• Malignant melanoma
Pulsating Tumors
•• RCC secondaries
•• Osteosarcoma
•• Osteoclastoma
•• Sec from follicular Ca thyroid
Screening and Tumors

•• Breast cancer: Self-examination + mammography
•• Cervical cancer: Pap smear examination
•• Colorectal cancer: Fecal occult blood test, digital rectal examination, sigmoidoscopy and colonoscopy in high-risk group
particularly
•• Prostate: Digital rectal examination and PSA level
‘Important Surgeries’ (Frequently asked)

Nissen’s Fundoplication Hiatus Hernia
Ramstedt’s Pyloromyotomy Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
Whipple’s Pancreaticoduodenectomy
Heller’s Operation Achalasia Cardia
Prolapse Rectum
•• Thiersch’s Surgery
•• Ripstein’s Surgery
•• Delorme’s Surgery
•• Wells Surgery
•• Lauhats Surgery
Hydronephrosis
•• Anderson-Hynes Pyeloplasty
Inguinal Hernia Repair
•• Bassini Repair
•• Shouldice Repair
•• Lytle Plication
Femoral Hernia
•• Mc Eveddy
•• Losenthein
•• Lockwood
Varicose veins
•• Trendelenburg
•• Cockett and Dodd
Hirschsprung’s Disease
•• Modified Duhamel
•• Swenson’s
•• Soave’s
USMLE and ENT

Congenital Disorders of Ear
•• Bat ear/Lop ear: Abnormally long protruding ear
•• Microtia: Small pinna
•• Macrotia: Abnormally large pinna
•• Anotia: Absent pinna
•• Preauricular sinus: Incomplete fusion of tubercles
•• Preauricular appendages: Skin-covered tags containing cartilage.
Subperichondrial Hematoma
Blunt trauma to the pinna causes a subperichondrial hematoma
When bleeding occurs between the cartilage and the perichondrium, the pinna becomes a reddish purple shapeless mass
Because the perichondrium carries the blood supply to the cartilage, the cartilage undergoes avascular necrosis if the hematoma is
present on both sides of the cartilage, and with time, the pinna becomes shriveled.
Hematoma may become organized and calcify, which produces the cauliflower ear characteristic of wrestlers and boxers
Cauliflower ear is Perichondritis in wrestlers.
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
External Otitis
External Otitis. Infection of the ear canal occurs in a:
•• Diffuse form involving the entire canal, termed otitis externa diffusa
•• A localized form due to furunculosis, termed otitis externa circumscripta.
Malignant External Otitis
•• An unusually virulent form of external otitis due to infection with P. aeruginosa occurs in immunosuppressed diabetics,
particularly elderly diabetics with poor metabolic control
•• It produces pain, purulent otorrhea, and hearing loss
•• Facial nerve is most common cranial nerve involved
•• Granulation tissue found
Acute Suppurative Otitis Media (ASOM)

Mc organism in children: Strepae pneumonia
Mc organism in neonates: Group B streptococci
A myringotomy is indicated when bulging of the tympanic membrane persists despite antibiotic therapy or when the pain and
systemic symptoms and signs, such as fever, vomiting and diarrhea are severe
Complications of acute otitis media are:
•• Acute mastoiditis
Surgery 523
•• Petrositis
•• Labyrinthitis
•• Facial paralysis
•• Conductive and sensorineural hearing loss
•• Epidural abscess
•• Meningitis
•• Brain abscess
•• Lateral sinus thrombosis
•• Subdural empyema, and
•• Otitic hydrocephalus
•• Mastoid reservoir phenomenon seen
Serous/Secretory Otitis Media/Glue Ear

Manifested as effusions in the middle ear
↓Mobility of tympanic membrane
•• Air bubbles behind TM
•• Marginal perforation seen:
–– Straw/amber-colored TM
–– Blue tympanic membrane
–– B-shaped tympanogram
–– Medical treatment not effective much here
–– Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion is used as treatment.
Cholesteatoma/Epidermosis/Keratoma
•• A cholesteatoma occurs when the middle ear is lined with stratified squamous epithelium (white, amorphous debris in the
middle ear)
•• The stratified squamous epithelium desquamates in this closed space
•• Basically a bone erosion.
•• The desquamated epithelial debris cannot be cleared and accumulates in ever-enlarging concentric layers. This debris serves as a
culture medium for microorganisms.
•• Cholesteatomas have the ability to destroy bone, including the tympanic ossicles, probably because of the elaboration of
collagenase
•• Usually found in apex of petrous temporal bone
•• Attic/posterior superior marginal region is usually involved.
•• Pars flaccida and marginal perforations are frequently associated with cholesteatomas
•• Lateral semicircular canal is the commonest to perforate.
•• The presence of a cholesteatoma greatly increases the probability of the development of a serious complication, such as
purulent labyrinthitis, facial paralysis, or intracranial suppurations. Intracranial infections include meningitis, brain abscess, lateral
sinus thrombosis, subdural empyema, and epidural abscess
•• Modified radical mastoidectomy is used for treatment
Complications of CSOM
•• Commonest complication is Mastoiditis
•• Commonest cause of brain abscess is CSOM
–– Luc’s abscess (Root of Zygomatic Process)
–– Bezold’s abscess (Sternomastoid)

–– Citelli’s abscess (Digastric triangle)
•• Labrynthitis
•• Petrositis
•• Gradenigo’s syndrome (Photophobia, Lacrimation, V and VI Cranial Nerve Involvement)
•• Septicemia
•• Lateral sinus thrombosis
Lateral sinus thrombosis (LST)

(Griesinger’s sign) Tenderness and edema over mastoid are path gnomonic of lateral sinus thrombosis (LST)
Classic symptoms of LST include a ‘picket fence’ fever pattern; chills; progressive anemia (especially with beta-hemolytic strep); and,
symptoms of septic emboli, headache and papilledema may indicate extension to involve the cavernous sinus
The Tobey-Ayer test is measured by monitoring the CSF pressure during a lumbar puncture. No increase in CSF pressure during
external compression of the internal jugular vein on the affected side, and an exaggerated response on the patent side, is suggestive
of LST.
•• Radical mastoidectomy: Here the middle ear, including the attic and the antrum, and the mastoid air cell area are converted
into one cavity that communicates with the exterior through the ear canal
•• Modified radical mastoidectomy: If the cholesteatoma lies superficial to the remnants of the tympanic membrane and ossicles,
a modified radical mastoidectomy can be performed. The modified radical mastoidectomy spares the tympanic membrane
remnants and ossicles and preserves the remaining hearing
•• It is the commonest operation done for CSOM.
•• Schwartz operation is simple or cortical mastoidectomy

•• Radical mastoidectomy is done for: Atticoantral cholesteatoma.
Most Common Organisms

•• Otomycosis Aspergillus niger > candida
•• Furuncle Staph. aureus
•• Ramsay Hunt Syndrome Herpes Zoster virus
•• Malignant otitis externa Pseudomonas aureginosa
•• Bullous myringitis Viral (Influenza virus)
•• Hemorrhagic otitis externa Influenza
•• Perichondritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

It is also called herpes zoster oticus: It is an infection of facial nerve that is accompanied by a painful rash and facial muscle weakness,
among other signs and symptoms. The cause of Ramsay Hunt syndrome is varicella-zoster virus. Signs and symptoms of Ramsay Hunt
syndrome include:
•• A painful red rash with fluid-filled blisters on your eardrum, external ear canal, the outside of your ear, the roof of your mouth (palate)
or your tongue
•• Facial weakness (palsy) on the same side as the affected ear
•• Difficulty closing one eye
•• Ear pain
•• Hearing loss
•• Ringing in ears (tinnitus)
•• A sensation of spinning or moving (vertigo)
•• A change in taste perception or loss of taste
Surgery 525
•• H. influenzae used to be the most common cause of bacterial meningitis under 5 years
•• Since the introduction of vaccine, its occurrence has greatly decreased
•• Risk factors for H. influenzae include Otitis media, Sinusitis, Pharyngitis and other URTI
•• As such, its occurrence also is associated with significant sensorineural hearing loss in up to 20 percent of cases
•• It is recommended to give steroids immediately along with antibacterials to decrease hearing loss.
Otosclerosis
•• Autosomal dominant
•• Begins in ‘fissula ante fenestram.’
•• Common in females
•• Family history positive
–– The most common cause of a progressive conductive hearing loss usually bilateral in an adult with a normal eardrum
–– Reversible conductive deafness seen
–– Otosclerosis is a disease of the bone of the otic capsule, with a predilection for the anterior part of the oval window
–– Flamingo pink tympanic membrane seen
–– But in majority, TM is normal (kindly remember)
–– Paracusis willisii (ability to hear better in noisy environment)
–– Positive Schwartz test
–– Carhart’s notch at 2000 Hz present
–– Gelle’s test is done for otosclerosis
–– Stapedectomy is surgery of choice
–– Sodium fluoride is of benefit
–– Used in pinkish tympanic membrane
–– Other operations done are: Fenestration and stapedectomy.
•• Commonest site of Otosclerosis: Oval window

•• Commonest bone affected in otosclerosis: Stapes
Meniere’s Disease/Endolymphatic Hydrops/Ear Glaucoma

Meniere’s disease is characterized by triad of:
•• Hearing loss
•• Tinnitus
•• Recurrent prostrating vertigo
Tinnitus is nonpulsatile
Low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss is seen
The pathologic change in the inner ear is generalized dilation of the membranous labyrinth, or endolymphatic hydrops.
Only one ear is involved in 85% of patients with Meniere’s disease
•• Females are more commonly affected
•• Diplacusis (Same sound perceived as two different pitch has in two ears)
•• Hennebert’s sign: Vertigo and Nystagmus induced by pressure to stapedial footplate
•• Tulio’s phenomenon: Vertigo and Nystagmus induced by loud noise
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo and Nystagmus

•• Vertigo that occurs with changes in position may follow lesions in the inner ear, eighth nerve, brainstem, or cerebellum
•• Positional vertigo and nystagmus arising from the inner ear are termed benign paroxysmal positional vertigo and nystagmus.
•• The patient experiences vertigo when lying on or rolling over onto the affected ear or when tilting the head back to look up.
There is a latency of a few seconds after assuming the provocative position before the vertigo and nystagmus begin
•• The vertigo is characterized by an intense sensation of spinning, and the nystagmus is rotary and counterclockwise when the
affected right ear is placed under and clockwise when the affected left ear is placed under
•• The quick component of the nystagmus is always toward the affected ear
•• The finding of basophilic calcium-containing concretions in the ampulla of the posterior semicircular canal has led some to refer
to this condition as cupulolithiasis.
Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a unilateral facial paralysis that develops suddenly and is accompanied by pain in the postauricular area (LMNL).
It is thought to be of viral etiology.
All divisions of the nerve are paralyzed; this distinguishes the disease from a supranuclear lesion. The lesion is in the internal auditory meatus
or the intratemporal course of the nerve. The initial pathologic changes are hyperemia and edema
•• Acute onset
•• Spontaneous remission
•• Increased predisposition in diabetes mellitus
The edema compresses the blood supply to the nerve because of the bony confines of the fallopian canal. A conduction block
develops without death or degeneration of the axons. Release of the pressure on the nerve produces rapid recovery of function. This
type of paralysis is termed neurapraxia.
Corticosteroid therapy is initiated as soon as possible after the onset of the paralysis and is continued for 10 days to minimize the
inflammatory reaction.
It is an indication for decompression of the facial nerve by removing the bone of the fallopian canal. Approximately 85% of all
patients with idiopathic facial nerve paralysis recover spontaneously.
Chemodectomas
These nonchromaffin paragangliomas are termed glomus jugulare or glomus tympanicus tumors, depending on their site of origin.
The glomus tympanicus tumor arises from the area of Jacobson’s nerve in the tympanic plexus on the promontory of the
middle ear.
The glomus jugulare tumor arises from the glomus jugulare body in the jugular bulb. Both tumors consist of rich networks of vascular
spaces surrounded by epithelioid cells
Usually the neoplasms grow slowly, and symptoms may not be evident until the neoplasm is quite large
•• Pulsatile tinnitus
•• Facial nerve paralysis
•• Otorrhea
•• Hemorrhage
•• Vertigo
•• Paralysis of cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII are often the presenting symptoms and signs.
Characteristically, a ‘red mass’ that pulsates and blanches with compression with a pneumatic otoscope can be seen in the ear
canal or middle ear (Brown sign).
The pulsation can also be demonstrated with tympanometry. There may be evidence of bone erosion in the mastoid process, middle
ear, or petrous pyramid on CT. The extent of the lesion is best demonstrated with MRI with enhancement with gadolinium. Angiography
is a necessary part of the preoperative evaluation.
Glomus Tumor (Continued)

•• One of the most common benign tumors of middle ear
•• Squamous cell carcinoma is the commonest.
Surgery 527
•• Arises from glomus bodies in the jugular bulb of internal jugular vein
–– Red reflex
–– Rising sun appearance
–– Bluish reflex through tympanic membrane is a feature
•• Earliest symptom is deafness and tinnitus
•• Deafness is of conductive type
•• Vertigo and cranial nerves IX and XII may get involved
•• Multicentric with lymphatic metastasis
•• Modified radical mastoidectomy and excision of petrous temporal bone are standard procedures.
Acoustic Neurinomas/Vestibular Schwannoma

They arise more often from the vestibular division of the eighth nerve.
Superior vestibular nerve is most commonly involved.
These neoplasms are derived from Schwann cells.
Compromise most of CP angle tumors
•• Cranial nerve V is involved first
•• Loss of corneal reflex
•• Deafness is the earliest symptom
•• Deafness is retrocochlear type.
The NF2 gene (Schwannomerlin, Schwannomin, MERL_HUMAN, MERLIN—Moesin-Ezrin-Radixin-Like Protein) is located on the long
(q) arm of chromosome 22.
Upon microscopic examination, the acoustic neurinoma presents two distinctive architectural patterns, designated Antoni A and
Antoni B. Both are created by spindle cells with elongated nuclei and fibrillated cytoplasm, predominantly those of Schwann cells. The
two tissue patterns differ in cellular weave and density.
•• Antoni A tissue is compact, with a prominence of interwoven fascicles
•• Antoni B tissue is porous and less structured.
In Neurofibromatosis type II, bilateral acoustic neuromas are the hallmark
There is public concern that use of mobile phones could increase the risk of brain tumors. If such an effect exists, acoustic neuroma
would be of particular concern because of the proximity of the acoustic nerve to the handset.
Hitselberger’s Sign: In acoustic neuroma, loss of sensation in the ear canal supplied by Arnold’s nerve (branch of vagus nerve to ear)
The most useful (i.e. sensitive and specific) test to identify acoustic neuromas is a Gadolinium-enhanced MRI of the head
Surgical removal is the treatment of choice
However, stereotactic radiotherapy by using gamma knife or X knife may be used.
Memorize
•• AC > BC Normal
•• AC < BC (Negative Rinne) Conductive deafness
•• Sound lateralized to deaf ear (Weber)
•• Absolute bone conduction (ABC) normal
•• AC > BC Sensorineural deafness
•• Sound lateralized to better ear
•• Absolute bone conduction
•• (ABC) Shortened
FOR FEIGNED HEARING LOSS, STENGER’S TEST IS DONE

Ototoxic Drugs
•• Salicylates
•• Quinine and its synthetic analogues
•• Aminoglycoside antibiotics (Gentamycin, kanamycin)
•• Loop diuretics such as furosemide and ethacrynic acid
•• Cancer chemotherapeutic agents such as cisplatin
Hereditary Prenatal Causes of Deafness

There are a large number of syndromes in which deafness is a recognized factor:
•• Leopard syndrome
•• Lentigines
•• ECG abnormalities
•• Ocular hypertelorism
•• Pulmonary stenosis
•• Abnormal genitalia
•• Growth retardation
•• Sensorineural deafness
•• Pendred syndrome: Deafness + goiter
•• Usher’s syndrome: Deafness + mental retardation + seizures + retinitis pigmentosa + cataracts
•• Waardenburg’s Syndrome: White Forelock + hyperpigmented patches + deafness + displacement of inner canthi
•• Klippel-Feil syndrome: A short neck limits head movements, the hairline is low at the back, there may be paralysis of the external
rectus muscle in one or both eyes and there is sensorineural hearing loss which may be severe
•• Alport’s syndrome: It is X-linked dominant and affects boys more severely than girls. There is severe progressive glomerulonephritis
and a progressive sensorineural loss which does not show itself until the boy is about 10 years old
•• Refsum’s syndrome consists of ichthyosis, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, night blindness, mental retardation and a
sensorineural deafness
•• Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome is autosomal recessive with a cardiac arrhythmia and a profound sensorineural deafness.
These children may present with syncopal attacks and, if untreated, these attacks can be fatal.
Other Syndromes
•• Crouzon
•• Apert
•• Klippel-Feil
•• Down
•• Goldenhar
•• Pierre Robinson
•• van der Hoeve
•• Stickler
•• Wilder Ranch Syndrome
Presbycusis
•• Presbycusis (age-associated hearing loss) is the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in adults
•• In the early stages, it is characterized by symmetric, gentle to sharply sloping high-frequency hearing loss
•• With progression, the hearing loss involves all frequencies.
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•• More importantly, the hearing impairment is associated with significant loss in clarity
•• There is a loss of discrimination for phonemes, recruitment (abnormal growth of loudness), and particular difficulty in
understanding speech in noisy environments
•• Hearing aids may provide limited rehabilitation once the word recognition score deteriorates below 50
•• Significant advancements and improvements in cochlear implants have made them the treatment of choice.
Important Questions Asked

Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome is caused by herpes zoster virus
•• It is characterized by a facial palsy and is often associated with facial pain and the appearance of vesicles on the eardrum, ear
canal and pinna
•• Vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss (VIII nerve) accompany it
•• Treatment with aciclovir is effective if given early.
Ear Signs
•• Brown Sign—blanching of redness on increasing pressure more than systemic pressure seen in Glomus jugulare
•• Hitselberger’s sign: In Acoustic neuroma—loss of sensation in the ear canal supplied by Arnold’s nerve (branch of vagus nerve
to ear)
•• Light house Sign—seeping out of secretions in acute otitis media
•• Lyre’s Sign—splaying of carotid vessels in carotid body tumor
•• Milian’s Ear Sign—Erysipelas can spread to pinna (cuticular affection), whereas cellulitis cannot
•• Tragus Sign—External otitis, Pain on pressing tragus
•• Waquino’s Sign is the blanching of the tympanic mass with gentle pressure on the carotid artery. Seen in Glomus tumors.
•• Bezold’s Sign: Inflammatory edema at the tip of the mastoid process in Mastoiditis.
Anatomy of the Nose and Paranasal Sinuses

•• The skeleton of the nose consists of the nasal bones, the ascending processes of the maxilla, the upper lateral cartilages, the
lower lateral cartilages, and the septal cartilage. The nasal septum is the medial wall of each nasal cavity
•• The lateral wall of each nasal cavity provides the attachment for the three turbinates.
•• Nasal mucosa is largely supplied by branches of external carotid artery
•• Pale, edematous nasal mucosa indicates nasal allergy
•• Warming, moistening and filtration are functions of nasal cavity
•• Deviated dorsum and septum are crooked nose
•• Depressed nasal bridge is seen in trauma, abscess and syphilis
–– The nasolacrimal duct opens into the inferior meatus. The middle meatus lies between the middle turbinate and the inferior
turbinate
–– The ostia of the maxillary and anterior ethmoid cells and the nasofrontal duct are in the middle meatus. The superior
meatus lies between the superior turbinate and the middle turbinate
–– The ostia of the posterior ethmoid cells are in the superior meatus
–– The ostium of the sphenoid sinus is in the posterior part of the superior meatus, the sphenoethmoid recess.
•• Terms relating to disorders of smell include:
–– Anosmia, an absence of the ability to smell
–– Hyposmia, a decreased ability to smell; hyperosmia (an increased sensitivity to an odorant); dysosmia (distortion in the
perception of an odor); phantosmia, perception of an odorant where none is present; and agnosia, inability to classify,
contrast, or identify odor sensations verbally, even though the ability to distinguish between odorants or to recognize them
may be normal
–– Parosmia is the perception of bad smell.
Ozena, or atrophic rhinitis

•• It is characterized by atrophied mucosa overlaid by foul-smelling dry crusts (Greek ozein, ‘stench’)
•• Klebsiella ozaenae is often isolated from nasal cultures
•• Young’s operation done in atrophic rhinitis.
Rhinoscleroma: Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
•• It is a chronic granulomatous disease of the upper respiratory tract mucosa
•• Mikulicz cells (foamy histiocytes) are seen in the submucosa of biopsy specimens
•• Russell bodies are also a feature
•• Rhinoscleroma can be treated with streptomycin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, a quinolone, or tetracycline for 2 months.
Glanders: Pseudomonas mallei
•• A respiratory disease of horses. Infection is rare in humans; nasal inoculation may produce a purulent nasal discharge followed by
granulomatous intranasal lesions that ulcerate
•• Treatment is with sulfadiazine.
Neonatal congenital syphilis
•• It may present as rhinitis (snuffles), and the generalized osteochondritis that follows may result in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity.
Rhinosporidiosis
•• Rhinosporidium seeberi is a fungus-like organism, not yet cultured, that causes Rhinosporidiosis
•• ‘Pedunculated nasal masses’ that grow over months or years cause obstruction and a foul odor and must be surgically excised.
Blastomyces dermatitidis
•• A fungus prevalent in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys, usually causes pulmonary disease but may cause chronic ulcerative
lesions of the skin and nasal mucosa.
Mucormycosis
•• A life-threatening fungal illness that occurs primarily in diabetic patients, may present as black eschars in the nasal cavity
Important Points Related to Nose

Oblique # of nasal septum: Jarjavay #
Horizontal # of nasal septum: Chaevellet #
Rhinophyma: Sebaceous gland hypertrophy.
CSF Rhinorrhea
•• # Cribriform plate of ethmoid, Nasoethmoid #
•• Beta 2 transferrin levels high
•• Contains glucose
•• Less proteins.
Apple jelly nodules on nasal septum. Lupus vulgaris
Mucormycosis
•• Rhizopus and Rhizomucor species are ubiquitous, appearing on decaying vegetation, dung, and foods of high sugar content
•• Mucormycosis is uncommon and is largely confined to patients with serious pre-existing diseases
•• Mucormycosis originating in the paranasal sinuses and nose predominantly affects patients with poorly controlled diabetes
mellitus, organ transplantation, who have a hematologic malignancy, or who are receiving long-term deferoxamine
therapy
•• Vascular invasion by hyphae is a prominent feature
•• Ischemic or hemorrhagic necrosis is the foremost histologic finding.
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•• Mucormycosis originating in the nose and paranasal sinuses produces a characteristic clinical picture. Low-grade fever, dull
sinus pain, and sometimes nasal congestion or a thin, bloody nasal discharge are followed in a few days by double vision,
increasing fever and obtundation
•• Examination reveals a unilateral generalized reduction of ocular motion, chemosis, and proptosis. The nasal turbinates on the
involved side may be dusky red or necrotic
•• A sharply delineated area of necrosis, strictly respecting the midline, may appear in the hard palate. The skin of the cheek may
become inflamed. Fungal invasion of the globe or ophthalmic artery leads to blindness
•• Opacification of one or more sinuses is detected by computed tomography (CT) or by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
•• Carotid arteriography may show invasion or obstruction of the carotid siphon. Coma is due to direct invasion of the frontal lobe.
Trauma and Foreign Bodies

Nasal Fracture. The nose is a vulnerable leading part. Fractures of the nasal bones are the most common fractures of the facial
bones. Fractures of the nose may involve the ascending processes of the maxillae and the nasal processes of the frontal bones as well
as the nasal bones. A fracture of the nose is usually an open fracture
The most common deformity is a deviation of the nasal bones to the right, with depression of the nasal bones on the left, characteristically
occurring with a right hook. Fractures of the nose may be associated with septal fractures and hematomas
Trauma to the facial bones is often associated with a cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea.
Septal hematomas lie between the quadrangular cartilage and the perichondrium. When the perichondrium has been elevated from
both sides of the septal cartilage, the cartilage undergoes avascular necrosis. Septal hematomas frequently become infected and abscess
formation produces avascular and septic necrosis of the septal cartilage, which causes a saddle deformity of the nose. Septal
hematomas are incised and drained as soon as the diagnosis is made
Septal abscesses are located between the cartilage and the perichondrium. They may involve both sides of the cartilage. Septal
abscesses are incised and drained under general anesthesia as soon as the diagnosis is established. Incisions are made bilaterally if
there is pus on both sides of the septum.
ACUTE BACTERIAL SINUSITIS

Pains of Sinusitis
Symptoms of acute sinusitis include purulent nasal or postnasal drainage, nasal congestion, and sinus pain or pressure whose location
depends on the sinus involved.
•• Maxillary sinus pain is often perceived as being located in the cheek or upper teeth;
•• Ethmoid sinus pain, between the eyes or retro-orbital;
•• Frontal sinus pain, above the eyebrow;
•• Sphenoid sinus pain, in the upper half of the face or retro-orbital with radiation to the occiput. Sinus pain is frequently worse
when the patient bends over or is supine.
Important Points About Sinusitis

•• Maxillary sinus is the commonest sinus involved followed by frontal, ethmoid and sphenoid
•• Mucopus in middle meatus is a feature of maxillary sinusitis
•• Periodicity is seen in frontal sinusitis
•• Frontal sinusitis doesn’t occur at birth
•• Definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is done by Sinoscopy.
In children and adults, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae (not type b), the most common pathogens
respectively.
Chronic sinusitis is characterized by symptoms of sinus inflammation lasting 3 months.

Orbital complications of sinusitis, such as orbital cellulitis and orbital abscess, usually arise from ethmoid sinusitis, since the ethmoid
is separated from the orbit by only a very thin bone (the lamina papyracea). Patients present with fever, unilateral periorbital edema
and erythema, conjunctival injection and chemosis, and proptosis.
Another extracranial complication of sinusitis is frontal subperiosteal abscess (Pott’s puffy tumor) from frontal sinusitis.
Intracranial complications such as:
•• Epidural abscess
•• Subdural empyema
•• Meningitis
•• Cerebral abscess
•• Dural-vein thrombophlebitis may result from sinusitis, particularly from frontal or sphenoid infections. Because the sphenoid
sinus sits between the two cavernous sinuses, sphenoid sinusitis is a major cause of cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis.
Epistaxis
Ninety percent of the time, epistaxis occurs from a plexus of vessels (Kiesselbach’s plexus) in the anteroinferior part of the septum
(Little’s area)
Which is an area of anastomosis between ICA and ECA
Arteries contributing to Little’s area:
•• Sphenopalatine
•• Anterior ethmoidal
•• Superior labial
•• Greater palatine artery
Recurrent epistaxis is seen in:

–– DNS
–– Atrophic rhinitis
–– Maxillary carcinoma
•• In the other 10% of cases, nasal bleeding occurs from the posterior part of the nose, particularly from far posterior in the inferior
meatus at the junction of the inferior meatus and the nasopharynx
•• Woodruff’s area under the posterior end of inferior turbinate where sphenopalatine artery anastomoses with posterior
pharyngeal artery may be the source of posterior epistaxis
•• It is from this area that individuals with arteriosclerosis and hypertension are likely to bleed
•• This type of bleeding may be difficult to control
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Silver nitrate is preferred as the cauterizing agent, since it produces satisfactory intravascular coagulation without a severe burn of
the mucous membrane.
Nose pricking is the commonest cause of epistaxis in children
Hypertension is the commonest cause of epistaxis in adults
Mc cause of epistaxis in pubescent male: Angiofibroma
Mc cause of epistaxis in pubescent female: Bleeding disorder
Mc cause of epistaxis in children: Trauma
A particularly debilitating form of epistaxis occurs in hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Rendu-Osler-Weber disease).
Patients with this disease have frequent bleeding from the nose and gastrointestinal tract.
Congenital Malformations
Choanal Atresia. Choanal atresia is a malformation in which the opening of the nasal cavity into the nasopharynx is obstructed
by a partition of mucous membrane and bone
The malformation may occur unilaterally or bilaterally
If it occurs bilaterally, it produces respiratory distress in the neonate
Newborn infants are obligatory nasal breathers. If there is obstruction to the nasal airway, asphyxia occurs
The newborn presses his tongue against the roof of his mouth during the inspiratory effort. Fortunately, crying, with its attendant
mouth breathing, often allows some ventilatory exchange
This diagnosis should be made in the delivery room
Choanal atresia should be considered in an infant who makes respiratory effort but fails to accomplish ventilatory exchange
The immediate solution to the problem is the insertion of an oral airway
ORAL CAVITY
Ludwig’s Angina
•• Edema of floor of mouth
•• Involves submandibular, sublingual spaces
•• Bilateral usually is a rapidly spreading, life-threatening cellulitis of the sublingual and submandibular spaces that usually starts in an
infected lower molar. Patients are febrile and may drool the secretions they cannot swallow
•• A brawny, board-like edema in the sublingual area pushes the tongue up and back
•• Airway obstruction may result as the infection spreads to the supraglottic tissues
Vincent’s Angina
•• Vincent’s angina, also called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or trench mouth
•• These have halitosis and ulcerations of the interdental papillae
•• Oral anaerobes are the cause
•• Therapy with oral penicillin plus metronidazole or with clindamycin alone is effective in both this condition and gingivitis.
Ranula
•• Sublingual
•• Thin-walled, retention cyst
•• Due to obstruction of mucous glands
•• Lined by columnar epithelium

•• Complete excision is the ideal treatment
Cancrum oris
•• Rapidly developing gangrene in oral cavity
•• Postmeasles usually
•• Does not involve jaw
•• Noma, or cancrum oris, is a fulminant gangrenous infection of the oral and facial tissues that occurs in severely malnourished and
debilitated patients and is especially common among children. Beginning as a necrotic ulcer in the gingiva of the mandible,
noma is caused by oral anaerobes, especially fusospirochetal organisms (e.g. Fusobacterium nucleatum)
•• It is treated with high-dose penicillin, debridement, and correction of the underlying malnutrition.
Oral Cancer Predispositions for Oral Cancer

MC malignant tumor of adult males
•• Smoking
•• Spirits (alcohol)
•• Sharp jagged tooth
•• Sepsis
•• Syndrome (Plummer-Vinson)
•• Syphilis
•• Betel nut
Premalignant Conditions
•• Leukoplakia
•• Erythroplakia
•• Chronic candidiasis
•• Papillomas tongue/cheek
•• OSMF (oral submucous fibrosis)
•• Surgery treatment of choice
•• Radiosensitive.
Anatomy of the Pharynx

For descriptive purposes, the pharynx can be divided into the:
•• Nasopharynx
–– Oval-shaped
–– Eustachian tube opens into it
•• Oropharynx
•• Hypopharynx
However, from a functional point of view, the pharynx remains united by the constrictors of the pharynx. They have a common
insertion in the median pharyngeal raphe and form a musculomembranous tubular passage from the base of the skull to the opening
of the esophagus.
Waldeyer’s ring: The lymphoid structures of the pharynx include the pharyngeal tonsil or adenoid the palatine tonsils, the Tubal
bands and the lingual tonsils.
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Foreign Bodies
Foreign bodies of the pharynx are likely to be found in four locations: the palatine tonsils, the lingual tonsils, the valleculae, and the
pyriform sinuses
•• Foreign bodies in the palatine tonsil are removed by grasping the foreign body with a hemostat
•• Foreign bodies in the nasopharynx require general anesthesia for their removal
•• Foreign bodies of the hypopharynx are removed during direct laryngoscopy under local anesthesia.
Nasopharynx
Adenoids
•• Nasopharyngeal tonsil
•• No crypts and no capsule
•• Adenoid hypertrophy in childhood often leads to obstruction of the eustachian tubes and the choanae. Nasal obstruction, nasal
discharge, sinusitis, epistaxis and voice change
•• Adenoid facies:
–– Elongated face with dull expression
–– Open mouth
–– Prominent crowded upper teeth
–– Hitched up upper lip
•• This lymphoid hyperplasia may be physiologic or secondary to infectious and allergic manifestations
•• Obstruction of the eustachian tubes leads to serous or secretory otitis media, recurrent acute otitis media, and exacerbations of
chronic otitis media
Tornwaldt’s Cyst
•• Cysts occasionally form in the region of the medial recess of the nasopharynx. These cysts become symptomatic when they
become infected
•• There may be persistent purulent drainage that has a foul taste and odor
•• Symptoms of eustachian tube obstruction and sore throat may be prominent
•• Excision or marsupialization of the cyst with an adenotome is the treatment of choice.
BENIGN NEOPLASMS OF THE NASOPHARYNX

Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
Juvenile angiofibromas are benign, vascular neoplasms
They are commonin pubescent males
They cause recurrent epistaxis
Mc site is the posterior part of nasal cavity close to sphenopalatine foramen
Biopsy is contraindicated in nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
They may encroach upon the paranasal sinuses, the orbit, and the intracranial cavity. Histologically, these neoplasms are composed of
fibrous tissue and numerous thin-walled vessels without contractile elements
Miller’s sign seen
The extent of the neoplasm can be determined with CT and angiography
Contrast-enhanced CT is DOC
The pterygomaxillary fissure is often widened on the sagittal plane of the CT of the lateral part of the nasopharynx by the extension of
the neoplasm into the infratemporal fossa. These neoplasms have a characteristic vascular pattern on angiography
Treatment with estrogens and embolization of the internal maxillary artery at angiography have been used to reduce the
operative blood loss
These neoplasms are responsive to radiation therapy
Surgery is the TOC.
Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Lymphoepithelioma or squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type.
Carcinoma of the nasopharynx occurs at relatively young ages, and there is an unusually high incidence among the Chinese
Bimodal age distribution seen
Mc site is lateral wall of nasopharynx (Fossa of Rosenmuller)
Mc cranial nerve involved is VII CN.
Epstein-Barr virus is implicated.
Cervical lympadenopathy is the commonest presentation
Others present with nasal or eustachian tube obstruction
Obstruction of the eustachian tube may cause a middle-ear effusion
Serous otitis media seen.
The nasal obstruction may be associated with purulent, bloody rhinorrhea and frank epistaxis. The more dramatic symptoms
caused by cranial nerve paralysis and cervical lymph node metastasis are, unfortunately, common presenting complaints.
The diagnosis is made by biopsy of the primary tumor
Trotter’s Triad
•• Conductive deafness
•• Palatal paralysis
•• Temporoparietal neuralgia is seen.
The treatment of choice for carcinoma of the nasopharynx is irradiation with a supervoltage source. The radiation should be
delivered to the primary tumor-bearing area of the nasopharynx and to both sides of the neck, whether or not there is clinically
demonstrated metastasis. Operations have no role in the initial therapy of carcinoma of the nasopharynx. Those cervical metastases
that remain clinically palpable following radiation therapy or that subsequently become apparent should be eradicated by radical
neck dissection.
Peritonsillar Abscess/Quinsy
Peritonsillar abscess called Quinsy
MC organism: Streptococcus.
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Peritonsillar cellulitis and abscess are complications of acute tonsillitis in which the infection has spread deep to the tonsillar capsule
Pus forms between the tonsillar capsule and the superior constrictor of the pharynx
The tonsil is displaced medially
The uvula becomes tremendously edematous and is displaced to the opposite side
The soft palate is very red and displaced forward
•• There is marked trismus due to irritation of the pterygoid muscles, and the head is held tilted toward the side of the abscess. It is
painful for the patient to talk and to swallow
•• Odynophagia
•• Hot potato voice
•• Referred otalgia via IX cranial nerve are a feature
Swallowing is so painful that the patient drools. The breath is foul-smelling
Peritonsillar cellulitis or abscess is rare in children under the age of 10 to 12 years and is usually caused by a group A beta-hemolytic
streptococcus or anaerobe
Tonsillectomy done usually 6 weeks after appearance.
Parapharyngeal Abscess
Parapharyngeal abscess may occur in infants and young children as well as in adults
•• The abscess is usually secondary to streptococcal pharyngitis or tonsillitis
•• Pus forms in the parapharyngeal space secondarily from the breakdown of lymphadenitis
•• The pus is located lateral to the superior constrictor of the pharynx and adjacent to the carotid sheath
•• The tonsil and soft palate may be displaced medially but there may be no inflammatory reaction in the pharynx
•• There is marked swelling in the anterior cervical triangle.
Retropharyngeal Abscess
Retropharyngeal abscess occurs in infants and young children and is rare after the age of 10 years
These infections are located between the constrictors of the pharynx and the prevertebral fascia
Dysphagia fever torticollis bulge in posterior pharyngeal wall are a feature.
Anatomy of the Larynx

The skeleton of the larynx consists of the thyroid cartilage, the cricoid cartilage, the arytenoid cartilages with corniculate and
cuneiform cartilages, and the epiglottis.
The primary function of the larynx is protection of lower respiratory tract that of a sphincter
During deglutition, both the true vocal cord sphincter and the false vocal cord sphincter are closed, and the epiglottis is drawn posteriorly
over the closed sphincter and serves as a watershed, deflecting food and fluid into the pyriform sinuses.
The larynx serves as the sounding source for speech. A fundamental tone is produced by the movement of the vocal cords, which is
brought about by the flow of exhaled air past lightly approximated vocal cords
Abductor of vocal cord is posterior cricoarytenoid
Adductors of vocal cord: Lateral crocoarytenoid, transverse arytenoid
Vocal cords in larynx are lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
•• The internal laryngeal nerve is sensory to larynx above vocal cords.
•• The recurrent laryngeal nerve is sensory to larynx below vocal cords.
•• All muscles of larynx except cricothyroid are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve.
•• Cricothyroid is supplied by external laryngeal nerve.
Laryngomalacia
•• Mc cause of stridor in a newborn
•• Inspiratory stridor seen
•• Omega-shaped epiglottis
•• Reassurance is the treatment modality
Vocal Nodules. Vocal nodules are caused by using a fundamental frequency that is unnaturally low and using the voice too
loudly and too long
Vocal nodules are condensations of hyaline connective tissue in the lamina propria at the junction of the anterior one-third and the
posterior two-thirds of the true vocal cord. These nodules produce hoarseness and give the voice a breathy quality. In adults, these le-
sions are removed during direct laryngoscopy to restore the voice. However, it is necessary to begin voice therapy prior to surgical therapy,
because if the underlying misuse of the voice is not corrected, the nodules recur. In children, surgical removal is not usually necessary,
because the vocal nodules regress with voice therapy, which consists of voice rest, reduction in intensity and duration of voice production,
and elevation of the pitch.
Vocal Cord Paralysis

Vocal cord paralysis follows traumatic, infectious, and neoplastic involvement of the vagus and recurrent laryngeal nerves and
degenerative neurologic disorders.
Unilateral vocal cord paralysis produces hoarseness and aspiration
Bilateral vocal cord paralysis causes upper airway obstruction with little adverse effect on the voice
•• Bilateral INCOMPLETE vocal cord paralysis causes maximum stridor
•• Most dangeous is bilateral abductor paralysis
•• Total thyroidectomy is the mc cause of vocal cord palsy
•• Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy occurs in thyroid malignancy.
Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust). In this maneuver, the operator places his arms around the choking individual from behind,
grasps the fist of one hand in the other hand, and brings both hands up in the subxiphoid area briskly to apply pressure to the
diaphragm. The pressure increases the intrathoracic pressure and may expel the foreign body. This should maneuver fail, an alternative
airway must be established by the prompt performance of a tracheostomy.
Laryngotracheobronchitis
Laryngotracheobronchitis is Croup
MC causative agent: Parainfluenza
Haemophilus influenzae is the most frequently isolated agent in bacterial croup, but Staphylococcus and Streptococcus may also cause
croup.
Painful croupy cough, hoarseness and stridor.
Narrowing of subglottic region on X-ray (Steeple sign)
Epiglottitis
H. influenzae type b is the predominant microorganism in epiglottitis
Epiglottitis or supraglottic laryngitis is more likely to cause abrupt and complete airway obstruction
MC cause of death is also complete airway obstruction
•• Child prefers sitting position (Tripod sign)
•• Lateral X-ray shows swollen epiglottis (Thumb sign)
•• Hospitalization with IV antibiotics, steroids, humidification and intubation are a sequence.
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•• Hot potato voice: Quinsy

•• Median rhomboid glossitis: Candidiasis
•• Thumb sign: Epiglottitis
•• Hour glass sign: Subglottic edema
•• Seals bark cough: Croup
•• Steeple sign: Croup
•• Trench mouth: Vincent’s angina
Laryngoceles
Laryngoceles are epithelium-lined diverticula of the laryngeal ventricle and may be located internal or external to the
laryngeal skeleton
An internal laryngocele may displace and enlarge the false vocal cord and may cause hoarseness and airway obstruction
External laryngoceles pass through the thyrohyoid membrane and present as a mass in the neck over the thyrohyoid membrane
The mass rises with the larynx on swallowing. Internal and external laryngoceles may co-exist
Laryngoceles are more common in glassblowers, wind instrument musicians, and others who develop high intraluminal pressures.
Initially, laryngoceles are filled with air and expand and collapse with changes in the intraluminal pressure
They are expanded during the Valsalva maneuver. They appear as smooth, ovoid, air-filled masses on CT scans of the neck.
Papilomas of Larynx
•• HPV-implicated
•• Common in children and infants
•• Multiple
•• Recurrent
•• Treated by removal/Surgical excision
Premalignant Lesions
•• Leukoplakia
•• Keratosis
•• Smoking
•• Papilloma
•• Chronic laryngitis
Malignant Neoplasms of the Larynx

The majority of malignant neoplasms of the larynx are squamous cell carcinomas
Carcinoma may arise from the mucous membrane of any part of the larynx; however, there is a predilection for the true vocal cords,
particularly the anterior portions of the true vocal cords. For purposes of clinical staging and end-result reporting, carcinomas of the
larynx can be divided into:
•• Supraglottic lesions involve the epiglottis, aryepiglottic fold, and false vocal cords
•• Glottic lesions are limited to the area of the true vocal cords
•• Subglottic lesions include the glottic area as well as the subglottic area
•• Hypopharyngeal lesions may be divided into lesions of the pyriform sinus, area, and posterior pharyngeal wall.
Supraglottic carcinomas
Smoking is a common factor
Pain is the mc manifestation.
Second mc laryngeal tumor

Early lymphatic spread seen
They may produce hoarseness by secondary involvement of the vocal cords, or they may produce pain on swallowing as the first
symptom. Often the pain radiates to the ears
Not infrequently, a patient with a supraglottic carcinoma presents with the chief complaint of a swelling in the neck that represents a
metastasis
Early supraglottic carcinoma is successfully treated with radiation therapy to the primary lesion and both sides of the neck, but in
advanced lesions, better survival rates are obtained with a combination of radiation therapy and surgical therapy.
Glottic cancers
Mc cancers
Hoarseness is the mc manifestation
Hoarseness is the earliest manifestation
Best prognosis
No lymphadenopathy usually
Subglottic lesions
•• Represent more advanced glottic carcinomas in which the neoplasm has secondarily invaded the subglottic area as well as the
supraglottic area
•• Metastasis to the same side is present in 50% of patients
•• Subglottic extension of the carcinoma requires a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection
•• With thyroid lobectomy on the same side.
Pyriform sinus carcinomas

•• Tend to remain asymptomatic for long periods of time
•• Often the patient presents with dysphagia and pain on swallowing that may radiate to the ear on the same side
•• A combination of preoperative or postoperative radiation therapy and operation yields better survival rates than operation alone
Postcricoid carcinoma
•• The presenting complaint is usually pain on swallowing and dysphagia
•• Metastasis to both sides of the neck is common
•• A combination of preoperative or postoperative radiation and surgical therapy is usually employed, and the operation required is
pharyngectomy, total laryngectomy, and, if there are palpable metastases, radical neck dissection on one side followed by radical
neck dissection on the other side in approximately 6 weeks
•• Verrucous carcinoma larynx is treated by endoscopic surgery.
Some Important Signs

•• BOCCA’S SIGN — Absence of postcricoid crackle (MUIR’s crackle) in carcinoma postcricoid
•• BOYCE SIGN—Laryngocele—Gurgling sound on compression of external laryngocele with reduction of swelling
•• DODD’S SIGN/CRESCENT SIGN—X-ray finding—Crescent of air between the mass and posterior pharyngeal wall
•• Positive in AC polyp. Negative in angiofibroma
•• FURSTENBERGER’S SIGN—This is seen when nasopharyngeal cyst is communicating intracranially, there is enlargement of the
cyst on crying and upon compression of jugular vein
•• HITSELBERGER’S SIGN—In acoustic neuroma—Loss of sensation in the ear canal suppllied by Arnold’s nerve (branch of Vagus
nerve to ear)
•• HONDOUSA SIGN—X-ray finding in angiofibroma indicating infratemporal fossa involvement characterized by widening of gap
between ramus of mandible and maxillary body
•• HENNEBERT SIGN—False fistula sign (cong. Syphilis, Meniere’s)
•• IRWIN MOORE’S SIGN—Positive sueeze test in chronic tonsillitis
•• RACCOON SIGN—Indicates subgaleal hemorrhage and not necessarily base of skull #
Surgery 541
•• STEEPLE SIGN—X-ray finding in Acute laryngotracheobronchitis

•• STANKIEWICZ’S SIGN—Indicates orbital injury during FESS. Fat protrudes into nasal cavity on compression of eyeball from
ouside
•• THUMB SIGN—X-ray finding A/c epiglottitis
•• TRAGUS SIGN—EXTERNAL OTITIS, Pain on pressing tragus
•• TEAPOT SIGN is seen in CSF rhinorrhoea
•• BATTLE SIGN—Bruising behind ear at mastoid region, due to petrous temporal bone fracture (middle fossa #)
•• OODS SIGN—Palpable jugulodigastric lymph nodes
Orthopedics and USMLE

Biochemical Markers in Bone Metabolism (USMLE Favorite)
Markers in ‘Bone mineralization’
Role in ‘Bone mineralization’
•• Bone-specific Alkaline Phosphatase
•• Osteocalcin (bone-GLA protein)
•• Propeptide of Type I Collagen
•• Osteonectin
•• Osteopontin
Urinary Markers for ‘Bone resorption’

•• Urinary and serum cross-linked N telopeptide
•• Urinary and serum cross-linked C telopeptide
•• Urine hydroxyproline
•• Serum bone sialoprotein
•• Serum Tartrate Acid Phosphatase (TRAP)
Classification of Fractures (USMLE Favorite)

•• A single fracture line is referred to as a ‘simple’ fracture.
•• When multiple fracture lines and bone fragments exist, the fracture is said to be ‘comminuted’ fracture
•• Penetrating injury producing a fracture, or fracture fragments protruding through the skin, constitutes an ‘open’ fracture.
•• When no such wound is present, the fracture is classified as ‘closed’ fracture.
•• More subtle trauma such as the activities of daily living may also produce fractures in elderly patients with osteoporosis, in patients with
metabolic bone-wasting disease, or in patients with tumor of the bone. Such injuries are referred to as pathologic fractures. The most
common causes of pathologic fracture are osteoporosis and metastatic carcinoma.
•• Healthy bone may fracture with the repetitive application of minor trauma, as in ‘Fatigue’ or ‘Stress’ fractures. These fractures are
seen in the metatarsals after a long hike or in the tibia, fibula, femur, or other skeletal locations in individuals involved in regular athletic
activities.
Fractures in Children
The periosteum is extremely strong in children.
Children’s bones are much more resilient and less brittle than those of adults.
Bending moments applied to the bone of a child may cause a Greenstick fracture, in which there is distraction of the cortex on the
convex side and compression of bone on the concave side. (Cortex intact)
Commonly Asked Terminology

•• Dislocation means that the articular surfaces are not opposed or congruous and that the restraining ligaments and probably the
capsule have been partially or completely torn.
•• Subluxation means a partial displacement of one side of the joint on the other, but with less severe distortion than a dislocation.
Soft tissue interposition may prevent complete reduction in either instance.
•• Reduction refers to the action required to obtain anatomic alignment.
•• Arthoplasty: Joint is excised and bones are so kept to avoid fusion.
Commonly Asked Fractures (USMLE Favorite)

•• Aviators # •• Neck of talus
•• BOXERS # •• Neck of fifth metacarpal
•• Bennett’s # •• (Intra-articular) Base of 1st metacarpal
•• Rolando’s # •• (Extra-articular) Base of 1st metacarpal
•• Chauffer’s # •• Radius above styloid process
•• Chance # •• Horizontal # through vertebrae due to sudden deceleration
•• Clay shoveler’s # •• Spinous process of T1
•• Cotton’s # •• Trimalleolar #
•• Galeazi # •• Distal radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint
•• Jefferson’s # •• Burst fracture of Atlas (C1)
•• Jones # •• Base of 5th metatarsal
•• Hangman’s # •• Axis
•• Monteggia’s # •• Proximal ulna with dislocation head of radius
•• March # •• Stress # shaft of second or third metatarsal
•• Maisonneuver # •• Neck of fibula
•• Pott’s # •• Bimalleolar ankle
•• Smith’s# •• Reverse of colles
•• Pond # •• Depressed skull # in infants
•• Toddler’s # •• Spiral # of tibia
•• Crescent # •• Iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption
Factors effecting Fracture Healing

1. Degree of immobilization is the ‘most important factor’. Repeated disruptions of repaired tissue significantly impairs healing
2. Age: Young patients heal rapidly
3. Nutrition: Good nutrition plays a vital role
4. Diseases like Diabetes mellitus, Osteoporosis, Immunocompromised states, Marfan’s syndrome, Ehler-Danlos syndrome cause
delayed healing
5. Hormones: Growth hormone, Calcitonin promote growth healing. Corticosteroids delay healing of fractures
6. Type of bone: Cancellous bones heal quickly due to increased vascularity
7. Severe degree of trauma and secondary infection cause delayed fracture healing
8. Inadequate blood supply near talus, NOF cause delayed fracture healing
9. Intra-articular fractures communicate with synovial fluid which contains collagenases and retards fracture healing
10. Separation of bone ends: Normal apposition is also important, inadequate reduction, excessive traction or interposition of soft
tissue prevents healing
11. Infection: Infections cause necrosis and edema, impair healing and increase mobility of fracture site.
Surgery 543
Important Bursitis (USMLE Favorite)

1. Prepatellar Bursitis •• Housemaid’s Knee
2. Infrapatellar Bursitis •• Clergyman’s Knee/Vicar’s Knee
3. Olecranon Bursitis •• Student’s elbow
4. Ischial Bursitis •• Weaver’s bottom
5. Lateral Malleolus Bursitis •• Tailor’s ankle
6. Great Toe Bursitis •• Bunion
Important Casts used in Orthopedics

1. Minerva cast •• Cervical spine disease
2. Turnbuckle cast •• Scoliosis
3. Risser’s cast •• Scoliosis
4. Milwaukee’s brace •• Scoliosis
5. Boston brace •• Scoliosis
6. Frog leg cast •• CDH
7. Cylinder cast •• # Patella
8. Hip spica •• # Femur
9. Hanging cast •• # Humerus
10. Tube cast •• Knee
Nerve Injuries of Upper Limb (USMLE Favorite)

Ulnar Nerve ‘Musicians Nerve’
•• Injured especially at the level of medial condyle of Humerus (Lower end)
•• Ulnar nerve supplies medial 1/3 of palm (Hypothenar area)
•• Ulnar nerve in hand supplies:
–– (3, 4 Lumbricals)
–– Palmar and dorsal interossei
–– Adductor pollicis
–– Hypothenar muscles
•• Ulnar nerve in hand supplies
–– Flexor carpi ulnaris
–– Medial half of flexor digitorum profundus
•• Lesion of ulnar nerve causes:
–– Weakness of ulnar deviation
–– Weakness of wrist flexion
–– Adductor pollicis paralysis with loss of thumb adduction
In Ulnar Nerve Palsy, there is

1. Positive card test
2. Positive book test/Froment sign
3. Positive Egawa’s test
4. Ulnar claw hand
Median Nerve: ‘Laborers Nerve’

•• Does not supply arm
•• Supplies all flexors except flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of flexor digitorum profundus in forearm
•• Supplies:
–– Lumbrical 1 and 2,
–– Opponens pollicis,
–– Abductor pollicis brevis,
–– Flexor pollicis brevis in hand (LOAF).
Implicated in:
•• Ape thumb deformity
•• Carpal tunnel syndrome
•• Pointing index
•• Loss of opposition and abduction of thumb
•• Pen test is positive in median nerve injury
Radial Nerve
•• Supplies Extensor Compartment of Arm and Forearm
•• Commonly involved in ‘Spiral groove/Radial groove’
•• Accompanied by Profunda Brachii vessels
•• Supplies:
–– BEAST Muscles (Brachioradialis, Extensors of wrist and fingers, Anconeus, Supinator, Triceps)
•• Implicated in ‘Crutch Palsy’

•• Implicated in ‘Saturday Night Palsy’
•• Implicated in ‘Wrist Drop’
Important ‘Sites’ of Injury

1. Injury to Upper End of Humerus •• Axillary nerve damage
2. Injury (Anterior Dislocation of Shoulder) •• Axillary nerve damage
3. Injury to Mid Humerus •• Radial nerve
4. Injury to Lower end (Medial) of Humerus •• Ulnar nerve
5. Injury to Supracondylar area of Humerus •• Median nerve
6. Injury to Upper Trunk of Brachial Plexus •• Erb palsy
7. Injury to Lower Trunk of Brachial Plexus •• Klumpke’s palsy
IMPORTANT CONDITIONS AFFECTING UPPER LIMB

Ganglion cysts
•• These cystic swellings occur on the hands, particularly on the dorsal aspect of the wrists, and are usually near or attached to tendon
sheaths and joint capsules
•• Most common sites:
–– Scapholunate joint on the back of the wrist
–– Distal volar aspect of the radius
–– Flexor tendon sheaths.
Surgery 545
•• The lesions appear to be degenerative and the gelatinous material found in the center has a high hyaluronic acid content
•• Many ganglion cysts regres spontaneously or after needle aspiration of the contents. Recurrent ganglia or ganglia that are
cosmetically unacceptable to the patient can be surgically excised, but may recur after excision.
1. Infections from thumb and index finger spread to thenar spaces

2. Infections from middle and ring fingers spread to mid palmar spaces
3. Infections from little finger spread to ulnar bursa and forearm space of Parona
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

•• Entrapment of Median Nerve in Carpal Tunnel leading to tingling, parasthesias, weakness in hand
•• Painful
•• Associated with:
–– Trauma
–– Pregnancy
–– Acromegaly
–– Rheumatoid arthritis
–– Amyloidosis
–– Multiple myeloma
–– Hypothyroidism
•• Tinnel’s sign +
•• Phalen’s sign +
•• Electrodiagnostic tests, USG imaging and MRI are useful adjuncts
Dupuytren’s Contracture
•• Progressive
•• Painless
•• Puckering of skin of Palmar Fascia
•• Flexion of MCP joints of ring and little fingers
Colles’ Fracture
•• Fall on outstretched hands
•• Common in elderly women
•• Distal fragment displaced dorsally, angulated dorsally, supinated
•• ‘Dinner Fork’ Deformity
•• Commonest complication is ‘Stiffness of fingers’
Scaphoid Fracture
•• Scaphoid is one of the carpal bones which undergo fracture commonly as well as avascular necrosis
•• Avascular necrosis of ‘proximal’ fragment is seen
•• Injury occurs by fall on outstretched hands
•• MC site of injury is ‘waist’
•• Tenderness in ‘Anatomical snuff box’ may be seen
•• Best radiological view is Oblique view
•• In absence of radiological findings, suspect scaphoid fracture
•• Most common site is between proximal 1/3 and distal 2/3
Nerve Injuries
•• Neurapraxia: Complete recovery possible
•• Axonotmesis: Rupture of nerve fiber with intact sheath
•• Neurotmesis: Rupture of nerve fiber and sheath
–– Best recovery is seen in pure motor nerve (radial nerve)
–– In mixed nerve, recovery is poor because sensory and motor fibers may unite with each other.
Volkmann’s Ischemic Contracture (Features) (P)

•• Pallor
•• Pain (most important sign)
•• Paralysis
•• Paresthesias
•• Pulselessness
–– Median nerve mostly involved
–– Deformity: Flexion of wrist, extension of fingers at MCP, flexion at IP, pronation of forearm
–– Seddons area of Affection is infarct of muscles in the form of an ellipsoid where the axis is in the line of anterior interosseous
artery and central line in middle of forearm called Seddons area
–– Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus are muscles damaged.
Important Nerves Involved in

•• Wrist drop •• Radial nerve palsy
•• Foot drop •• Common peroneal nerve palsy
•• Meralgia paresthetica •• Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
•• Winging of scapula •• Long thoracic nerve of Bell
•• Erb’s Palsy •• Upper trunk of brachial plexus
•• Klumpke’s palsy •• Lower trunk of brachial plexus
Dislocation of Shoulder Joint

•• Shoulder is the ‘most common’ joint to dislocate in human body
•• ‘Subcoracoid’ dislocation/inferior dislocation is the commonest type
•• Posterior dislocation of shoulder is rare and associated with epileptic convulsions
•• Bankart’s (Glenoid Labrum) and Hill-Sachs lesion (Humeral Head) are seen.
–– Hamilton Ruler Test
–– Dugas’ Test
–– Callaway’s Test are used
•• Reduction is by Kocher’s maneuver
•• Recurrent dislocation is treated by Putti-Platt and Bankart’s Operation
Congenital Dislocation of Hip

•• It is a developmental anomaly
•• Associated with ‘oligohydramnios’
•• Females are more prone
•• Most common in western race.
Surgery 547
•• Shallow acetabulum is predisposing factor

•• Common in first born baby
•• Incidence is common in Frank breech
Tests used:
–– Ortolani’s Test (Click of entrance)
–– Von Rosen’s sign
–– Barlow’s sign are useful in Diagnosis
Remember:
•• Lurching gait (Unilateral CDH)
•• Waddling gait (Bilateral CDH)
•• Ultrasonography is used for Diagnosis
•• Shenton’s line is broken
•• von Rosen Splint is used in Treatment
USMLE Case Scenario

A physician delivers a healthy-looking baby girl, who had a breech presentation. He is taken to an orthopedician because his
father notices that the baby cannot abduct the thighs when the hips and knees are flexed, but a click cannot be elicited when
the physician tries to manually dislocate or reduce the femoral heads. Both the legs are of same length and gluteal folds are
symmetrical.
Remember
•• Commonest type of hip dislocation: posterior
•• Flexion, adduction and internal rotation are a feature
•• Posterior dislocation can be seen on per rectal examination
LOWER LIMB ORTHOPEDICS

Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome
•• It is entrapment of ‘Posterior Tibial Nerve’ in the Tarsal tunnel
•• Occurs in association with:
–– ‘Rheumatoid arthritis’
–– Ankylosing spondylitis
–– Neural tumors or perineural fibrosis
•• Pain and sensory disturbances over plantar aspect of foot is seen
Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)

•• Also called Clubfoot
•• IE deformity:
–– Inversion deformity
–– Equinus deformity
–– Idiopathic causes
–– Neurological disorders
–– Spina bifida
–– Arthrogyrophosis multiplex
•• Foot in Equines, Varus and Adduction

•• Usually bilateral
•• Manipulation should begin ‘immediately after birth by mother’
•• At 2 years’ treatment is ‘posteromedial soft tissue release’
•• Treatment of chronic cases is ‘Triple Arthodesis’
Options for Treatment of CTEV

•• < 3 years: Soft tissue release
•• 4–8 years: Evans surgery
•• 8–11 years: Wedge tarsectomy
•• > 12 years: Triple arthrodesis
•• Already operated: Ilizarov technique.
Important Terms
•• Tennis Elbow is Medial Epicondylitis (Affects Common Flexor Origin)
•• Golfer’s Elbow is Lateral Epincondylitis (Affects Common Extensor Origin)
•• Student’s elbow is Olecranon bursitis
•• Painful arc syndrome is Supraspinatus Tendinitis in which patient can’t abduct his arm beyond 30° without pain
•• Frozen shoulder: Active movement at shoulder is not possible at all.
Remember ‘new’Important points in Orthopedics

•• Guyon’s Canal: Fibro-osseous canal bound by hamate and pisiform bone through which ulnar artery and nerve pass.
•• Bowler’s Thumb: Traumatic neuropathy of ulnar digital nerve to thumb.
•• Pronator Syndrome: High carpal tunnel syndrome: Entrapment of Median nervenerve at elbow.
•• Anterior interosseous syndrome: Compression of AIN (Anterior Interosseous Nerve) 4-6 cms below elbow causing weakness
of FPL, FDP and pronator quadrates
•• Cubital Tunnel Syndrome: Compression ofulnar nerve during its passage around medial aspect of elbow.
•• Radial Tunnel Syndrome: Resistant Tennis Elbow due to entrapment of Posterior Interosseous nerve in the lateral aspect of
Proximal forearm.
•• Wartenberg’s Syndrome: Entrapment of Sensory branch of Radial nerve as it emerges beneath Brachioradialisproximal to
Radial Styloid process.
•• Meralgia Paresthetica: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
•• Anterior Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome: Deep peroneal nerve
•• Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome: Posterior tibial nerve
•• Jogger’s Foot: Medial plantar nerve
•• Hip Pointer: Iliac crest
•• Tennis Leg: Gastrocnemius Soleus strain
Prolapse of Intervertebral Disk

•• Most common site L4-L5
•• Burst # occurs due to compression
•• Most common cause is trauma
•• Extrusion of nucleus pulposus into body of vertebrae is Schmorl’s node
Surgery 549
Spondylosis
•• It is degeneration of Intervertebral disk
•• Spondylolysis is a bony defect in the pars interarticularis (a segment near the junction of the pedicle with the lamina) of the
vertebra
Spondylolisthesis
•• It is the anterior slippage of the vertebral body, pedicles, and superior articular facets, leaving the posterior elements behind
•• Spondylolisthesis is associated with spondylolysis and degenerative spine disease and occurs more frequently in women
•• The slippage may be asymptomatic but may also cause low back pain, nerve root injury (the L5 root most frequently), or
symptomatic spinal stenosis
•• A ‘step’ may be present on deep palpation of the posterior elements of the segment above the spondylolisthetic joint
•• The trunk may be shortened and the abdomen protuberant as a result of extreme forward displacement of L4 on L5 in severe
degrees of spondylolisthesis
•• Spondylolisthesis is slipping of one vertebrae over other
•• Beheaded Scottish Terrier sign is seen
•• Beheaded Scottish Terrier sign is seen in oblique view.
Tests Suggesting Disk Prolapse

•• Naffezier’s test
•• Milgram’s test
•• Sitting root test
Vertebrae and Corresponding Spinal Level

•• Cervical Region C1-C7 Add 1
•• Upper Thoracic Lesion T1 –T6 Add 2
•• Lower Thoracic Lesion T7-T9 Add 3
•• T10 Corresponds to L1-L2
•• T12-L1 Corresponds to L5-S1
Remember Eponyms
•• Marble bone disease •• Osteopetrosis
•• Spotted bone disease •• Osteopoikilosis
•• Stripped bone disease •• Osteopathia striata
•• Candle bone disease •• Melorheostosis
•• Normal carrying angle: males: 10-15 degrees, Females: 15-18 degrees

•• Cubitus varus: Reduction in normal carrying angle
•• Cubitus valgus: Increase in carrying angle
•• Cubitus rectus: No valgus or varus angulation
Slipped FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS (SCFE)

•• It is displacement of ‘Proximal Femoral Epiphysis’
•• Common in children (obese) in 2nd decade
•• ‘Epiphysis’ slips ‘downwards and posteriorly’

•• Flexion, Abduction and Medial Rotation are limited
•• Diagnosis is by:
–– Trethowan’s sign
–– Capener’s sign
–– Trendelenburg’s sign may be positive
Perthes Disease
•• Is chronic disease with ischemia of upper end of femur causing ‘avascular necrosis’
•• Osteochondritis of femoral head
•• Boys are affected more
•• Adduction of limb is unaffected
•• Not obese
•• MRI is the investigation of choice
Coxa vara
Term used to describe a hip in which angle between neck and shaft of femur is less than 125°
Osteochondritis
1. Perthes disease •• Osteochondritis of Femoral head
2. Panner’s disease •• Osteochondritis of Capitulum
3. Kienbock’s disease •• Osteochondritis of Lunate
4. Osgood-Schlatter disease •• Osteochondritis of Tibial tubercle
5. Sever’s disease •• Osteochondritis of Calcaneum
6. Kohler’s disease •• Osteochondritis of Navicular
7. Frieberg’s disease •• Osteochondritis of Metatarsal head
8. Scheuermann’s disease •• Osteochondritis of vertebrae
Different Vertebral Types in Different Diseases

1. Picture frame vertebrae •• Paget’s disease (P-P)
2. Square-shaped vertebrae •• Ankylosing spondylitis
3. Hamburger vertebrae •• Osteopetrosis
4. Beak-shaped vertebrae •• Mucopolysaccharidosis
5. Wedge-shaped vertebrae •• Osteoporosis
6. Fish head vertebrae •• Osteoporosis
7. Fish mouth vertebrae •• Osteogenesis imperfecta
•• Ehler-Danlos syndrome
•• Homocystinuria
•• Marfan’s syndrome
8. Vertebrae plana •• Eosinophilic granuloma
Surgery 551
Commonly asked Limb Deformities in USMLE

•• Limb abducted and externally rotated in •• Anterior dislocation Hip
•• Limbflexed, adducted and internally rotated in •• Posterior dislocation Hip
•• Cubitus varus (Gunstock deformity) •• Supracondylar # of humerus
•• Cubitus valgus •• # Lateral condyle humerus
Differentiae Limb Deformities

•• Flexion, adduction, internal rotation: Posterior dislocation of hip (FADIR)
•• Flexion, abduction, external rotation: Anterior dislocation of hip (FABER)
•• Flexion, adduction, external rotation: #NOF (FADER)
USMLE Case scenario

A 44-year-old passenger in a lorry accident hits the dashboard with his knees and complains of severe pain in his right knee.
He has right lower extremity shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. The likely diagnosis is:
Posterior dislocation of the knee
BONE TUMORS (HIGH YIELD FACTS COMMONLY ASKED)

Benign Tumors
The common benign bone tumors include:
•• Enchondroma, osteochondroma, chondroblastoma, and Chondromyxoid fibroma, of cartilage origin
•• Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma of bone origin
•• Fibroma and desmoplastic fibroma of fibrous tissue origin
•• Hemangioma of vascular origin
•• Giant cell tumor of unknown origin
•• Malignant Tumors: The most common malignant tumors of bone are plasma cell tumors. The four most common malignant
nonhematopoietic bone tumors are:
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
Rare malignant tumors include:
•• Chordoma (of notochordal origin)
•• Malignant giant cell tumor
•• Adamantinoma (of unknown origin)
•• Hemangioendothelioma (of vascular origin)
Tumors According to Location

Epiphyseal Metaphyseal Diaphyseal
•• Chondroblastoma •• Chondrosarcoma •• Round cell tumors
•• Osteoclastoma •• Enchondroma •• Ewing’s sarcoma
•• Osteochondroma •• Multiple myeloma
•• Osteoblastoma •• Adamantinoma
•• Osteosarcoma •• Osteoid osteoma
•• Bone cyst
Diaphyseal Metaphyseal
•• Fibrous dysplasia and other fibrous tumors of Bone
•• Fibrosarcoma
•• Fibroxanthoma
•• Chondromyxoid fibroma
•• Fibrous cortical defect
•• Nonossifying fibroma
Different Appearances of Bony Tumors

•• Onion skin appearance •• Ewing’s sarcoma
•• Honey comb appearance •• Adamantinoma
•• Breech of Cortex •• Osteoclastoma, Aneurysmal bone cyst
•• Soap bubble appearance •• Osteoclastoma
•• Codman’s triangle •• Osteosarcoma
•• Sun ray appearance •• Osteosarcoma
•• Chicken wire pattern •• Chondroblastoma
•• Linear Striations •• Vertebral Hemangioma
•• Physaliphorous cells •• Chordoma
•• Cotton wool/Ground Glass Appearance •• Fibrous Dysplasia
Ewing’s Sarcoma
•• Affects children < 15 years usually
•• Diaphysial Tumor
•• Common in second decade
•• Onion skin lesions on X-ray
•• Translocation (t; 11:22)
•• Mimics Osteomyelitis
•• PAS Positive material (Glycogen) found
•• Most radiosensitive bone tumor
Osteosarcoma
•• Second most common primary malignant bone marrow
•• Metaphyseal tumor
•• Affects knee joint
•• MC site lower end of femur
•• Sunburst appearance
•• Codman’s triangle
•• Presents with secondaries in lungs with pneumothorax
•• Pulsating bone tumor
•• Chemotherapy + limb salvage surgery used for treatment
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old has a lesion in the metaphyseal end of his distal femur. Areas of lytic bone destruction mixed with areas of reactive
and tumor bone formations are seen. This tumor rapidly permeates through the overlying cortex into the subperiosteal space
and produces a characteristic appearance of trabecular bone oriented at right angles to the underlying cortical surface. Likely
diagnosis is: Sarcoma
Surgery 553
Osteoclastoma
•• Epiphyseal tumor
•• Soap bubble appearance
•• Breech of cortex
•• Lower end of Femur is most common site
Chondrosarcoma
•• Metaphyseal Tumor
•• Dense Punctate Calcifications
•• Associated with endosteal scalloping
Multiple Myeloma
•• This malignant neoplasm of marrow cell origin is the ‘most common primary malignant neoplasm’ of bone.
•• Myeloma is often encountered in the late decades of life and is seen more frequently in males than in females.
•• The symptoms vary from local pain and discomfort to systemic symptoms of
–– Anemia
–– Fever
–– Hypercalcemia
–– Renal failure related to extensive skeletal involvement
–– Abnormal production of immunoglobulins
•• Myeloma characteristically produces lytic destruction of bone with little if any reactive bone formation
•• These lesions are described as ‘geographic or punched out’ in appearance.
•• The absence of reactive bone formation is borne out by the observation that myeloma lesions are often silent on radionuclide
scanning
•• Pathologic fracture is often the presenting symptom.
•• The diagnosis of myeloma is made by marrow aspiration or the demonstration of abnormal plasma cells at the site of bony
destruction.
•• Fifty percent of patients with disseminated disease have Bence Jones protein in their urine
•• Serum electrophoresis demonstrates an abnormal amount of immunoglobulins.
•• Urine electrophoresis is also helpful when the diagnosis is in doubt and may demonstrate abnormal proteins in patients with a
normal serum electrophoretic pattern.
•• Microscopically, myeloma produces sheets of plasma cells. Usually these are well-differentiated cells in which the characteristic
arrangements of nuclear chromatin can be recognized with ‘Russel Bodies’.
Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

•• Aneurysmal bone cyst is metaphyseal lesion
•• It has blood filled spaces
•• Pulsatile in elderly
•• Aneurysmal bone cyst is expansile radiolucent lesion
•• Aneurysmal bone cyst may show ‘focal cortical destruction, cortical breech’.
•• Aneurysmal bone cyst most commonly occurs in Lower end of HUMERUS
Unicameral Bone Cyst

•• Usually a single cavity with connective tissue lining
•• Gaint cells seen
•• Lytic lesion usually in children
Chondroblastoma
•• Chondroblastoma is a benign cartilaginous tumor
•• Chondroblastoma is epiphyseal tumor
Chondroblastoma is characterized by
•• Multi nucleate giant cells
•• PAS positive reaction
•• ‘Dense punctuate/stippled or mottled calcification with sclerotic rim’
Most common site is proximal humerus
Adamantinoma
•• Epithelial tumor from dental epithelium
•• Mc sites: Mandible, Tibia
•• Diaphyseal tumor
•• Slowly growing, locally invasive benign, cystic lesion
•• Occurs in late adolescence/middle age
•• ‘Bubble defect’ in anterior tibial cortex is a feature
Osteoid Osteoma
•• One of the commonest benign bone tumor
•• Severe Pain at night responding to NSAIDS
•• Mc site: Femur and tibia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-year-old has a solitary lesion in his left femur which is exquisitely painful. Pain is described as a persistent discomfort
unrelated to activity or rest and is often worse at night. Curiously, pain is relieved for several hours by the use of Nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs. The lesion is composed of a central nidus of closely packed trabeculae of woven bone. Most likely
lesion is: Osteoid Osteoma
Most Common Sites

1. Bone secondaries Vertebrae
2. Multiple myeloma Vertebrae
3. Adamantinoma Mandible
4. Paget’s disease Pelvis
5. Ivory osteoma Frontal sinus
6. Simple bone cyst Upper end of Humerus
7. Aneurysmal bone cyst Lower end of Humerus
8. Osteoclastoma Lower end of Femur
9. Rhabdomyosarcoma Head and neck region
Paget’s Disease
Paget’s disease is a focal disorder of bone remodeling that results in increased bone turnover and abnormal bone architecture.
Patients are often asymptomatic but may present with gross skeletal abnormalities (bowing, long-bone fractures, increased skull
circumference), deafness, nerve compression syndromes, or simply an abnormally elevated alkaline phosphatase. Serum calcium and
phosphorus levels are usually normal
•• Paget’s Disease is also called Osteitis Deformans.
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•• It is because of extensive osteoclastic activity and disorganized new bone formation.

•• Commonly involved bones are: Pelvis, tibia, skull, spine
•• Pelvis being the commonest site
•• Serum calcium and phosphate levels are normal
•• Alkaline phosphatase and Osteocalcin levels are increased
Pain is the most common presenting feature
Complications include:
•• High output cardiac failure
•• Fractures
•• Cranial nerve palsies and spinal stenosis
•• Deafness due to otosclerosis
•• Steal Syndrome
•• Osteosarcoma (dangerous)
Bisphosphonates are the ‘drug of choice’.
USMLE Case Scenario

A bony disease is characterized increased generation and overactivity of osteoclasts and the calcification rate is
characteristically increased with increased urinary excretion of small peptides containing hydroxyproline reflects: Paget’s
Disease
Differentiate
•• Paget’s disease of nipple: Which is associated with underlying ductal malignancy of breast
•• Paget’s disease of vulva: Which is not associated with underlying malignancy but can cause vulval cancer
•• Paget’s recurrent fibroid: A spindle cell sarcoma of low potential occurring in abdominal wall or thighs
•• Paget’s cells: Upward spread of breast cancer cells into epidermis which are mucin positive.
Fibrous Dysplasia
•• Fibrous dysplasia is a tumor like lesion
•• It is benign
•• It is developmental in origin and hormone dependent
•• Pathology is replacement of bone by fibrous tissue
•• X-ray shows ‘Ground glass’ appearance and ‘Chinese lettering of bone’
•• Rarely osteosarcoma can occur in fibrous dysplasia
•• Sexual precocity in girls with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and cutaneous pigmentation constitutes ‘McCune Albright Syndrome’
•• Fibrous dysplasia and McCune-Albright syndrome represent a phenotypic spectrum of disorders caused by activating mutations
in the GNAS1 gene
Radiologic Changes
The roentgenographic appearance of the lesions is that of a radiolucent area with a well-delineated, smooth or scalloped border,
typically associated with focal thinning of the cortex of the bone
Fibrous dysplasia can cause bones to become larger than normal, a feature characteristic of Paget’s disease as well.
The ‘ground-glass’ appearance is due to the thin spicules of calcified woven bone.
Deformities can include:

•• Coxa vara
•• Shepherd’s-crook deformity of the femur
•• Bowing of the tibia
•• Harrison’s grooves
•• Protrusio acetabuli
•• Involvement of facial bones, may create a leonine appearance (leontiasis ossea).
•• Fibrous dysplasia of the temporal bones can cause progressive loss of hearing and obliteration of the external ear canal
•• Advanced skeletal age in girls is correlated with sexual precocity but can occur in boys without sexual precocity
•• Occasionally, a focus of fibrous dysplasia may undergo cystic degeneration, with an enormous distortion of the shape of the bone,
and mimic the so-called aneurysmal bone cyst.
Acute Pyogenic Arthritis (SEPTIC)

•• Joint infection with pyogenic organisms occurs as a result of hematogenous seeding of the joint, extension of adjacent
osteomyelitis, or penetrating wounds of the joint
•• Hematogenous pyarthrosis is most commonly observed in children under the age of 5 years
•• S. aureus is the most common etiologic agent, followed by Hemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus, Gonococcus, and
Pneumococcus
•• Acute pyarthrosis is almost always monoarticular
•• Patients with immune deficiency may present with multiple joint involvement
•• The hip joint is the most frequently involved.
Clinical Considerations
•• The onset of pyogenic arthritis is acute, with fever, irritability and pain
•• In the early stages of infection, a limp may develop, which rapidly progresses to severe pain, preventing ambulation
•• On examination, one observes swelling, overlying erythema, and exquisite tenderness to direct palpation. Any attempt at joint
motion produces paroxysms of pain.
Laboratory studies demonstrate:
•• Elevated white blood cell count and an
•• Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
•• Aspiration of the involved joint under sterile conditions reveals a cloudy, turbid synovial fluid, with a cell count ranging from
50,000 to 200,000 polymorphonuclear neutrophils per cu cm
•• A Gram’s stain of the involved joint fluid shows organisms in 50% of cases. The joint fluid is sent for aerobic and anaerobic culture
•• Blood cultures are frequently positive.
Radiographs in the early stages of septic arthritis reveal no bony change
•• There is distention in the joint capsule secondary to increased pressure within the joint, and the joint may appear abnormally
widened
•• In severe cases, there may be pathologic dislocation of the joint or pathologic separation of the epiphysis. In untreated or inadequately
treated cases, destruction of articular cartilage eventually produces joint narrowing.
Treatment
Pyogenic arthritis is an emergency
When the diagnosis has been established, intravenous antibiotics are administered without awaiting the results of culture.
Septic Arthritis
It is microbial invasion of the synovial space. Pathogens enter the synovial space by either hematogenous spread, local spread from
contiguous infection, or a traumatic or surgical infection of the joint space. Accumulating fluid and pus rapidly raise the intra-articular
Pressure and permanently injure vessels and articular cartilage. More than 90% of cases of septic arthritis affect the joints of the lower
extremity, with the knee most commonly involved. Acute septic arthritis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus.
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Septic Arthritis Transient Synovitis

•• Less common •• Mc cause of hip pain and limpin children
•• Patient is sick •• Patient is not sick
•• High grade fever usual •• High grade feverun usual
•• Pain is severe •• Pain is not severe
•• ESR, CRP, WBC↑ •• ESR, CRP, WBC usually normal
Osteomyelitis
•• Osteomyelitis is the term used to denote infection of bone
•• Earliest site of bone involvement is in Metaphysis
•• The majority of bone infections are the result of Staphylococcus aureus
•• The isolated necrotic bone within the abscess cavity is called a sequestrum
•• New bone formation occurring about the periphery of the abscess represents the body’s attempt to wall off the infection. This new
bone is called involucrum
•• In some instances, a static abscess cavity remains without further enlargement. This equilibrium between host and organism is
known as a Brodie’s abscess in long bones
•• Young children may demonstrate the phenomenon known as pseudoparalysis. These children refuse to move the involved limb,
mimicking a neurologic deficit
•• Radiographs: It takes some time for osteomyelitic lesions to appear on radiographs
•• The lesion of osteomyelitis appears on radiograph in not less than two weeks
•• As a result alternative diagnostic modalities are used to pick-up osteomyelitis in the form of MRI and Bone scans
•• Most cases of acute osteomyelitis are due to Staph Aureus and MRSA strains are common nowadays
•• It is not advisible to wait for radiological changes to appear in case of acute osteomyelitis and then to start treatment.
Diagnosis
1. ESR Increased
2. CRP Increased
3. TLC Increased
4. MRI (90% sensitive 95% specific)
5. Bone scans 60% sensitive and 33% specific)
6. Blood cultures positive in 65% cases (Confirmatory)
Radiographic Changes in Osteomyelitis

1. Hazziness
2. Loss of density of effected bones
3. Subperiosteal reaction
4. Bone death and appearance of (sequestrum)
5. Periosteal new bone formation (involucrum)
Time Related Changes in Acute Osteomyelitis

•• Soft tissue swelling: Less than a week
•• Periosteal reaction: After ten days
•• Lytic changes: After two weeks
•• Early diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis is critical because prompt antibiotic therapy may prevent the necrosis of bone
•• The evaluation usually begins with plain radiographs because of their ready availability, although they frequently show no
abnormalities during early infection
•• In 95% of cases, the technetium radionuclide scan using 99mTc diphosphonate is positive within 24 h of the onset of
symptoms. Falsely negative scans usually indicate obstruction of blood flow to the bone. Because the uptake of technetium
reflects osteoblastic activity and skeletal vascularity, the bone scan cannot differentiate osteomyelitis from fractures, tumors,
infarction, or neuropathic osteopathy
•• Ga citrate- and 111In-labeled leukocyte or immunoglobulin scans, which have greater specificity for inflammation, may help
distinguish infectious from noninfectious processes and indicate inflammatory changes within bones that for other reasons are
already abnormal on radiography and technetium scanning
•• Ultrasound can be used to diagnose osteomyelitis by the detection of subperiosteal fluid collections, soft tissue abscesses
adjacent to bone, and periosteal thickening and elevation
•• MRI is as sensitive as the bone scan for the diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis because it is able to detect changes in the water
content of marrow. MRI yields better anatomic resolution of epidural abscesses and other soft tissue processes than CT and is
currently the imaging technique of choice for vertebral osteomyelitis.
Remember Most Commons of USMLE

•• Most common organism of acute osteomyelitis: Staph aureus
•• Most common organism of acute osteomyelitis in drug addicts: Pseudomonas
•• Most common mode of infection: Hematogeneous
•• Most common site in bone: Metaphysis
•• Most common site of acute osteomyelitis in Infants: Hip
•• Most common site of acute osteomyelitis in children: Femur
•• Most common site in adults: Thoracolumbar spine
•• Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease: Salmonella

•• Osteomyelitis after foot wound: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
•• Osteomyelitis involving prosthetic joints: S. aureus
•• Osteomyelitis involving IV drug abusers: S. aureus
Types of Sequestrum
•• Ring Sequestrum •• Amputation stumps
•• Tubular Sequestrum •• Osteomyelitis (Hematogeneous)
•• Rice grain Sequestrum •• Tuberculosis
Skeletal Tuberculosis
•• In bone and joint disease, pathogenesis is related to reactivation of hematogenous foci or to spread from adjacent paravertebral
lymph nodes
•• Weight-bearing joints (spine, hips, and knees ¾ in that order) are affected most commonly
•• Spinal tuberculosis (Pott’s disease or tuberculous spondylitis) often involves two or more adjacent vertebral bodies
•• Upper thoracic spine is the most common site of spinal tuberculosis in children
•• The lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae are usually affected in adults. From the anterior superior or inferior angle of the
vertebral body, the lesion reaches the adjacent body, also destroying the intervertebral disk
•• With advanced disease, collapse of vertebral bodies results in kyphosis (gibbus)
•• A paravertebral ‘cold’ abscess may also form
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•• In the upper spine, this abscess may track to the chest wall as a mass; in the lower spine, it may reach the inguinal ligaments or
present as a psoas abscess
•• Pathologic Considerations
•• The histologic appearance of the tuberculous lesion in bone resembles that observed in visceral tuberculosis. Histiocytes, Langhans
giant cells, and fibroblastic proliferation are all present
•• Caseous necrosis is less frequently seen in joint lesions than in pulmonary lesions
•• The destruction produced by granulomatous inflammation is characteristically slow
•• Within the joint, invasion of bone tends to occur at the margins where synovium is attached to bone, producing a characteristic
marginal defect
•• As destruction proceeds, the joint becomes filled with necrotic products and fragments of articular cartilage, material called rice
bodies because of its resemblance to grains of rice
•• Computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals the characteristic lesion and suggests its etiology,
although the differential diagnosis includes other infections and tumors
•• Aspiration of the abscess or bone biopsy confirms the tuberculous etiology, as cultures are usually positive and histologic
findings highly typical
•• Skeletal tuberculosis responds to chemotherapy, but severe cases may require surgery
Skeletal Actinomycosis
•• Actinomyces Israelii is the MC organism
•• Orocervicofacial form is the MC type of skeletal actinomycosis
•• ‘Lower jaw’ (Mandible ) is the commonest site
•• Induration and Sinus Formation are a feature
•• Pencillin G is the DOC
Rickets
•• Rickets is characterized by defective mineralization of bones and cartilage
•• Osteomalacia is defective mineralization of bones
•• Rickets is seen before closure of growth plates
Causes
•• Nutritional rickets: vit D deficiency, Malabsorption
•• Accelerated loss of vit D: Phenytoin, Rifampicin, Barbiturates
•• Impaired hydroxylation in liver and Kidney
•• Liver disease, Hypoparathyroidism, Renal failure, Renal Tubular Acidosis
•• Vit D Resistant rickets, Fanconi’s syndrome, Wilson’s disease.
Clinical Features
Failure of calcification of cartilage and osteoid.
Epiphyseal enlargement occurs (thickening of knees, ankles, wrists)
•• Craniotabes
•• Genu valgum
•• Coxa vara
•• Short stature
•• Protrubent abdomen
•• Wide open fontanelle

•• Enlargement of costochondral junction. (Ricketic rosary)
•• Lateral indentation of chest due to pull of diaphragm on ribs. (Harrison’s groove)
•• Triradiate pelvis
•• Forward projection of sternum. (Pectus Carinatum)
•• Kyphoscoliosis
Radiographic Features
•• Thickening and widening of epiphysis
•• Cupping and fraying of metaphysis
•• Irregular metaphyseal margins
•• Flaring of anterior ends of ribs
•• Bowing of diaphysis
Biochemical
•• Serum calcium: normal or low
•• Serum phosphate: low
•• Alkaline phosphatase: high
•• PTH: high
Fracture NOF (Neck of Femur)

•• Fracture NOF is the most common site of fracture in elderly
•• Velocity of trauma in most cases is trivial. (low velocity trauma)
•• Most common patients are elderly females with predisposing causes like
–– Osteoporosis
–– Osteomalacia
–– Diabetes
–– Stroke patients
–– Alcoholics
–– Caisson’s disease
–– Steroid therapy
•• Limb is shortened, adducted and externally rotated
•• Pain around hip with flexion, adduction and external rotation is suggestive of Intracapsular Fracture NOF
•• (Telescopic Test is done)
•• Tenderness of hip on palpation with painful movements at hip joint is a feature.
Classification of Fracture Neck of Femur (# NOF)

•• Intracapsular: Subcapital, Transcervical
•• Extracapsular: Basal, Pertrochanteric
Avascular necrosis is seen in

•• Head of femur
•• Scaphoid
•• Talus
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Disease Association of Avascular Necrosis

•• Gaucher’s disease
•• Sickle cell disease
•• Chronic steroid use
•• HIV Infection
[99mTc] pertechnetate or [99mTc] diphosphonate scintigraphy may be useful in avascular necrosis
SICKLE CELL DISEASE

Sickle cell disease is associated with several musculoskeletal abnormalities
•• Children under the age of 5 may develop diffuse swelling, tenderness, and warmth of the hands and feet lasting from 1 to 3 weeks.
The condition, referred to as sickle cell dactylitis or hand-foot syndrome has also been observed in sickle cell disease and sickle
cell thalassemia. Dactylitis is believed to result from infarction of the bone marrow and cortical bone leading to periostitis and soft
tissue swelling. Radiographs show periosteal elevation, subperiosteal new bone formation, and areas of radiolucency and
increased density involving the metacarpals, metatarsals, and proximal phalanges
•• Sickle cell crisis is often associated with periarticular pain and joint effusions
•• Patients with sickle cell disease may also develop osteomyelitis, which commonly involves the long tubular bones. These
patients are particularly susceptible to bacterial infections, especially Salmonella infections, which are found in more than half of
cases. Radiographs of the involved site show periosteal elevation initially, followed by disruption of the cortex
•• Sickle cell disease is also associated with bone infarction resulting from thrombosis secondary to the sickling of red cells
•• Avascular necrosis of the head of the femur is seen
•• It also occurs in the humeral head and less commonly in the distal femur, tibial condyles, distal radius, vertebral bodies, and other
juxta articular sites
•• Septic arthritis is occasionally encountered in sickle cell disease. Multiple joints may be infected. Joint infection may result
from hematogenous spread or from spread of contiguous osteomyelitis
•• Microorganisms identified include Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella
•• The latter is not seen as frequently in septic arthritis as it is in osteomyelitis
•• The bone marrow hyperplasia in sickle cell disease results in widening of the medullary cavities, thinning of the cortices
and coarse trabeculations and central cupping of the vertebral bodies.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)

OI is also called Brittle bone disease or ‘Lobstein syndrome’
•• Basic defect is in Collagen Type 1
•• It is transmitted either as AD or AR Inheritance
•• Type 1 OI is THE MOST COMMON TYPE
•• OI is inherited as autosomal dominant trait mostly
•• ‘Blue sclera’ is present in several types of OI But not all
•• Grey sclera is a feature as well. Other ocular features of OI are:
–– Saturn ring, Arcus juvenilis, Hypermetropia and Retinal Detachment are seen
–– The sclera is normal in some types of OI
–– Feature of OI is generalized osteopenia with recurrent fractures and skeletal deformity. Fracture healing however is normal.
Fracture in utero may be seen. Laxity of joint ligaments leads to hypermobility
•• Some people have associated ‘dentogenesis imperfecta’: small fragile and discolored teeth
•• Dermis may be abnormally thin and skin is susceptible to easy bruising
•• Hearing loss due to involvement of inner and middle ear bones may produce deafness
•• Wormian bones are a feature
•• ‘Popcorn calcification’and ‘whorls of radiodensities’ are a radiographic feature
•• Treatment is largely supportive
Osteopetrosis
Osteopetrosis is also called:
•• Albers Schonberg disease or
•• Marble bone disease
•• It is characterized by
–– Anemia
–– Hepatoslpenomegaly
–– Infections
–– Pathological fractures
•• There is osteoclast dysfunction
•• Radiographically there is increased opacity of bones
•• Endobones (bone within a bone) is seen
Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is defined as a reduction of bone mass (or density) or the presence of a fragility fracture. This reduction in bone tissue
is accompanied by deterioration in the architecture of the skeleton, leading to a markedly increased risk of fracture
Several noninvasive techniques are now available for estimating skeletal mass or density
These include:
•• Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
•• Single-energy X-ray absorptiometry (SXA)
•• Quantitative computed tomography (CT)
•• Ultrasound
The diagnosis of Osteoporosis is made when a patient has characteristic osteoporotic fracture. In absence of such a fracture, evaluation
of osteoporosis is done by T score measurement based on bone mass.
•• T score > – 1 Normal

•• T score Between – 1 and – 2.5 Osteopenia
•• T Score < – 2.5 Osteoporosis
Major factors for osteoporosis

•• Low cacium intake
•• Sedentary lifestyle
•• Excessive alcohol
•• Excessive caffeine
•• Medications (corticosteroids, thyroxine)
•• Female gender
•• Early menopause
•• Slender build
•• Positive family history
Glucocorticoid-Induced Osteoporosis is by
•• Inhibition of osteoblast function and potential increase in osteoblast apoptosis, resulting in impaired synthesis of new bone
•• Stimulation of bone resorption, probably as a secondary effect
•• Impairment of the absorption of calcium across the intestine, probably by a vitamin D-independent effect
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•• Increase of urinary calcium loss and induction of some degree of secondary hyperparathyroidism
•• Reduction of adrenal androgens and suppression of ovarian and testicular secretion of estrogens and androgens
•• Potential induction of glucocorticoid myopathy, which may exacerbate effects on skeletal and calcium homeostasis, as well as
Increase the risk of falls.
Remember Electrolyte Disturbances in Related Disorders

•• Pr. Hyperparathyroidism ↑Ca ↓PO4 ↑PTH
•• Sec Hyperparathyroidism ↓Ca ↓PO4 ↑PTH
•• Malabsorption ↓Ca ↓PO4 ↑PTH
•• Renal Failure ↓Ca ↑PO4 ↑PTH
•• Paget’s Disease Ca (N) PO4 (N)
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

I provide this topic in detail as lots of questions are asked from here.
•• Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic multisystem disease of unknown cause

•• Disease of synovium (synovial membrane)
•• Disease starts in synovium
•• Synoviumis the part affected most
–– The characteristic feature of RA is persistent inflammatory synovitis, usually involving peripheral joints in a symmetric
distribution
–– Familial, immunological and infective causes are implicated.
–– Women are affected approximately three times more often than men.
–– The class II major histocompatibility complex allele HLA-DR4 and related alleles are known to be major genetic risk factors
for RA.
–– Microvascular injury and an increase in the number of synovial lining cells appear to be the earliest lesions in rheumatoid
synovitis.
–– RA most often causes symmetric arthritis with characteristic involvement of certain specific joints such as the proximal
interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints
–– The distal interphalangeal joints are rarely involved. Synovitis of the wrist joints is a nearly uniform feature of RA and may lead
to limitation of motion, deformity, and median nerve entrapment (carpal tunnel syndrome).
–– Synovitis of the elbow joint often leads to flexion contractures that may develop early in the disease. The knee joint is
commonly involved with synovial hypertrophy, chronic effusion, and frequently ligamentous laxity. Pain and swelling behind
the knee may be caused by extension of inflamed synovium into the popliteal space (Baker’s cyst).
–– On occasion, inflammation from the synovial joints and bursae of the upper cervical spine leads to atlantoaxial subluxation.
This usually presents as pain in the occiput but on rare occasions may lead to compression of the spinal cord.
Characteristic changes of the hand include:
•• Radial deviation at the wrist with ulnar deviation of the digits, often with palmar subluxation of the proximal phalanges (‘Z’
deformity)
•• Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joints, with compensatory flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints (swan-neck
deformity)
•• Flexion contracture of the proximal interphalangeal joints and extension of the distal interphalangeal joints (boutonniere
deformity)
•• Hyperextension of the first interphalangeal joint and flexion of the first metacarpophalangeal joint with a consequent loss of
thumb mobility and pinch
•• Trigger finger also occurs.
Criteria for Classification of Rheumatoid Arthritis

Any 4 criteria must be present to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis; criteria 1 through 4 must have been present for > = 6 wk.
•• Morning stiffness for > = 1 h
•• Arthritis of > = 3 joint areas
•• Arthritis of hand joints (wrist, metacarpophalangeal or proximal interphalangeal joints)
•• Symmetric arthritis
•• Rheumatoid nodules (PATHOGONOMIC)
•• Serum rheumatoid factor, by a method positive in < 5% of normal control subjects
•• Radiographic changes (hand X-ray changes typical of rheumatoid arthritis that must include erosions or unequivocal bony
decalcification)
•• Extra-articular Manifestations As a rule, these manifestations occur in individuals with high titers of autoantibodies to the Fc
component of immunoglobulin G (rheumatoid factors).
•• Rheumatoid nodules develop in 20 to 30% of persons with RA.
•• Clinical weakness and atrophy of skeletal muscle are common. Muscle atrophy may be evident within weeks of the onset of RA.
•• Rheumatoid vasculitis Neurovascular disease presenting either as a mild distal sensory neuropathy or as mononeuritis
multiplex may be the only sign of vasculitis. Cutaneous vasculitis usually presents as crops of small brown spots in the nail
beds, nail folds, and digital pulp. Larger ischemic ulcers, especially in the lower extremity, may also develop. Myocardial infarction
secondary to rheumatoid vasculitis has been reported, as has vasculitic involvement of lungs, bowel, liver, spleen, pancreas, lymph
nodes testes. Renal vasculitis is rare.
•• Pleuropulmonary manifestations, which are more commonly observed in men, include pleural disease, interstitial fibrosis,
pleuropulmonary nodules, pneumonitis, and arteritis
•• Clinically apparent heart disease attributed to the rheumatoid process is rare, but evidence of asymptomatic pericarditis is found
at autopsy in 50% of cases.
•• RA tends to spare the central nervous system directly, although vasculitis can cause peripheral neuropathy. Neurologic
manifestations may also result from atlantoaxial or midcervical spine subluxations. Nerve entrapment secondary to proliferative
synovitis or joint deformities may produce neuropathies of median, ulnar, radial (interosseous branch), or anterior tibial
nerves.
•• The rheumatoid process involves the eye in fewer than 1% of patients. Affected individuals usually have long-standing disease and
nodules. The two principal manifestations are episcleritis, which is usually mild and transient, and scleritis, which involves the
deeper layers of the eye and is a more serious inflammatory condition. Histologically, the lesion is similar to a rheumatoid nodule
and may result in thinning and perforation of the globe (scleromalacia perforans).
•• Felty’s syndrome consists of chronic RA, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and on occasion, anemia and thrombocytopenia.
•• Osteoporosis secondary to rheumatoid involvement is common and may be aggravated by glucocorticoid therapy.
•• RA in the Elderly Aggressive disease is largely restricted to those patients with high titers of rheumatoid factor. By contrast,
elderly patients who develop RA without elevated titers of rheumatoid factor (seronegative disease) generally have less severe,
often self-limited disease
•• The presence of rheumatoid factor does not establish the diagnosis of RA as the predictive value of the presence of rheumatoid
factor in determining a diagnosis of RA is poor. Thus fewer than one-third of unselected patients with a positive test for
rheumatoid factor will be found to have RA. Therefore, the rheumatoid factor test is not useful as a screening procedure
A number of additional autoantibodies may be found in patients with RA, including:
•• Antibodies to filaggrin
•• Antibodies to citrulline
•• Antibodies to calpastatin
•• Antibodies to components of the spliceosome (RA-33), and an unknown antigen, Sa.
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Goals of therapy of RA
•• Relief of pain
•• Reduction of inflammation
•• Protection of articular surfaces
•• Maintenance of function
•• Control of systemic involvement
•• First Aspirin and NSAIDS are used

•• Second line involves use of low dose glucocorticoids
•• Third line involves use of DMARDS (Disease modifying anti rheumatic drugs) Methotrexate, Gold Compounds, Pencillamine,
Hydroxychloroquine and Sulfasalazine
•• Fourth line is use of TNF alpha blockers (Infliximab and Etanercept)
•• Fifth line is use of Immunosupressants and Cytotoxic drugs
CPPD Deposition Disease

Clinical manifestations of CPPD deposition include:
•• The knee is the joint most frequently affected in CPPD arthropathy. Other sites include the wrist, shoulder, ankle, elbow, and hands.
Rarely, the temporomandibular joint and ligamentum flavum of the spinal canal are involved
•• Clinical and radiographic evidence indicates that CPPD deposition is polyarticular in at least two-thirds of patients
•• If radiographs reveal punctate and/or linear radiodense deposits in fibrocartilaginous joint menisci or articular hyaline cartilage
(chondrocalcinosis), the diagnostic certainty of CPPD is further enhanced
•• Definitive diagnosis requires demonstration of typical crystals in synovial fluid or articular tissue
•• Acute attacks of CPPD arthritis may be precipitated by trauma, arthroscopy, or hyaluronate injections. Rapid diminution of
serum calcium concentration, as may occur in severe medical illness or after surgery (especially parathyroidectomy), can also lead
to pseudogout attacks
•• Polarization microscopy usually reveals rhomboid crystals with weak positive birefringence
TREATMENT
Treatment by joint aspiration and NSAIDs, or colchicine, or intra-articular glucocorticoid injection may result in return to prior status
in 10 days or less
Uncontrolled studies suggest that radioactive synovectomy (with yttrium 90)
Patients with progressive destructive large-joint arthropathy usually require joint replacement
•• Deposition of Calcium Pyrophosphate crystals
•• Crystals are Rhomboid in shape
•• Thery are positively Birefringent
•• Usually Large joints affected
Gout
•• Metatarsopharyngeal joints involved
•• Usually great Toe. (Podagra)
•• Assymetric joint involvement usually
•• Negatively birefringent crystals seen
•• NSAIDS, colchicines, Allopurinol used in treatment
Psoriatic Arthritis
•• Distal Interphalangeal Joints usually involved
•• Rheumatoid-like polyarthritis
•• Asymmetrical oligoarthritis: typically affects hands and feet
•• Sacroilitis
•• DIP joint disease
•• Arthritis mutilans (severe deformity fingers/hand, ‘telescoping fingers’)
Joint Involvement
•• PIP joint involvement •• RA, OA, Psoriatic arthritis
•• PIP and DIP •• OA, Psoriatic arthritis
•• PIP and DIP and MCP and wrist •• Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
•• Typically a young man who presents with lower back pain and stiffness
•• HLA 27 association
–– Stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with activity
–– Enthesopathy is characteristic
–– Bamboo spine
–– Squaring of vertebrae
–– Pain improves with exercise
–– Peripheral arthritis (25%, more common if female)
Other features – the ‘A’s
•• Apical fibrosis
•• Anterior uveitis
•• Aortic regurgitation
•• Achilles tendonitis
•• AV node block
•• Amyloidosis and cauda equina syndrome
X-rays are often normal early in disease, later changes include:
•• Sacroilitis: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis
•• Squaring of lumbar vertebrae
•• ‘Bamboo spine’ (late and uncommon)
Association of HLA-B27
Osteoarthritis/OA
•• Involves hip, knee usually
•• Disease of elderly and obese usually
Surgery 567
•• Does not affect MCP joints

•• The earliest structural changes in osteoarthritis include enlargement, proliferation, and disorganization of the chondrocytes in the
superficial part of the articular cartilage. This process is accompanied by increasing water content of the matrix with decreasing
concentration of the proteoglycans
•• Gross examination at this stage reveals a soft granular articular cartilage surface. Eventually, full-thickness portions of the cartilage
are lost, and the subchondral bone plate is exposed. Friction smoothens and burnishes the exposed bone, giving it the appearance
of polished ivory (bone eburnation). The underlying cancellous bone becomes sclerotic and thickened. Small fractures can
dislodge pieces of cartilage and subchondral bone into the joint, forming loose bodies (joint mice)
•• The fracture gaps allow synovial fluid to be forced into the subchondral regions to form fibrous walled cysts. Mushroom-shaped
osteophytes (bony outgrowths) develop at the margins of the articular surface
•• Herberden’s nodes (DIP) involved
•• Bouchard’s nodes seen (PIP) involved
•• Ankylosis occurs
•• Radiological features:
–– Osteophyte formation
–– Subchondral sclerosis
–– Cyst formation occurs
Remember
•• Epiphyseal widening is a feature of Rickets
•• Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a feature of Hypothyroidism
•• Epiphyseal enlargement is a feature of Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
Hemophilic Arthropathy
•• Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive genetic disorder characterized by the absence or deficiency of factor VIII (hemophilia A,
or classic hemophilia) or factor IX (hemophilia B, or Christmas disease)
•• Hemophilia A is more common type
•• Spontaneous hemarthrosis is a common problem with both types of hemophilia and can lead to a chronic deforming arthritis
•• The frequency and severity of hemarthrosis are related to the degree of clotting factor deficiency
•• Hemarthrosis becomes evident after 1 year of age, when the child begins to walk and run
•• In order of frequency, the joints most commonly affected are the knees, ankles, elbows, shoulders, and hips. Small joints of the
hands and feet are occasionally involved.
•• Squaring of patella is a feature
•• In the initial stage of arthropathy, hemarthrosis produces a warm, tensely swollen, and painful joint. Widening of the femoral
intercondylar notch, enlargement of the proximal radius, and squaring of the distal end of the patella are seen
•• The patient holds the affected joint in flexion and guards against any movement
•• Blood in the joint remains liquid because of the absence of intrinsic clotting factors and the absence of tissue thromboplastin in
the synovium
•• The blood in the joint space is resorbed over a period of a week or longer, depending on the size of the hemarthrosis
•• Recurrent hemarthrosis leads to the development of a chronic arthritis
•• Bleeding into muscle and soft tissue also causes musculoskeletal disorders
•• When bleeding involves periosteum or bone, a pseudotumor forms. These occur distal to the elbows or knees in children and
improve with treatment of the hemophilia.
Orthopedic Importance of Knee Joint

•• Most common site of Septic arthritis
•• Most common site of Syphilitic arthritis
•• Most common site of Gonococcal arthritis

•• Most common site of Pseudogout
•• Most common site of Hemophilic arthritis
•• Most common site of Osteochondritis dessicans
X-ray Examinations of Different Types of Arthritis

1. Osteophytes •• Osteoarthritis
2. Syndesmophytes •• Ankylosing spondylitis
3. Bamboo spine •• Ankylosing spondylitis
4. Pencil-in-cup deformity •• Psoriatic arthritis
5. Calcification of Articular cartilage •• Pseudogout
6. Erosions with ↓Joint space •• Rheumatoid Arthritis
7. Arthritis mutilans •• Psoriatic arthritis
8. Piano key sign •• Rhematoid arthritis
9. Sausage digits •• Psoriasis
The Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy Syndrome (RSDS)

•• The reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome (RSDS) is now referred to as complex regional pain syndrome, type 1, by the new
Classification of the International Association for the Study of Pain
•• It is characterized by:
–– Pain and swelling
–– Usually of a distal extremity, accompanied by vasomotor instability
–– Trophic skin changes
–– The rapid development of bony demineralization
•• A precipitating event can be identified in at least two-thirds of cases. These events include:
–– Trauma, such as fractures and crush injuries
–– Myocardial infarction
–– Strokes
–– Peripheral nerve injury
–– Use of certain drugs, including barbiturates, anti-tuberculous drugs and, more recently, cyclosporine administered to
patients undergoing renal transplantation
–– The pathogenesis of RSDS is thought to involve abnormal activity of the sympathetic nervous system following a
precipitating event.
Remember
•• Iliotibial tract syndrome: Synovium deep to iliotibial tract is inflamed where it rubs on lateral femoral condyle. Common in
marathon runners
•• Medial shelf syndrome: Synovial fold above medial meniscus is inflamed
•• Fat pad syndrome: Tenderness deep to patellar tendon may be caused by fat caught in tibiofemoral joint.
Scoliosis
Associations
•• Hemivertebrae
•• Wedge vertebrae
•• Block vertebrae
Surgery 569
•• Unsegmented bar
–– Turnbuckle cast scoliosis
–– Risser’s cast scoliosis
–– Milwaukee’s brace scoliosis
–– Boston brace scoliosis
•• Cobb’s angle is measured in scoliosis
X-ray enchondroma X-ray demonstrating rheumatoid hand
X-ray demonstrating osteolytic metastasis of femur from a primary cancer in breast
Identify bone tumors by

1. Clues by appearance of lesion
2. Clues by location of lesion
3. Clues by type of periosteal reaction

4. Clues by matrix of lesion
5. Clues by density of lesion
6. Clues by number of lesion
Sclerotic cortical lesions

•• Osteoid osteoma
•• Brodie’s abscess
•• Stress fracture
Lytic lesions in children

•• Eosinophilic granuloma
•• Neuroblastoma
•• Leukemia
Lytic lesions in adult

•• Metastatic lesions (lung, kidney, thyroid)
•• Multiple myeloma
•• Primary bone tumor
Blastic lesion in children

•• Medulloblastoma
•• Lymphoma
Blastic lesion in adult

•• Metastatic disease (breast, prostate)
•• Lymphoma
•• Paget’s disease
Fracture proximal tibia X-ray demonstrating osteosarcoma

osteochondroma femur
Surgery 571
Bamboo spine of ankylosing spondylitis X-ray demonstrating osteosarcoma
Sacroilitis of left side
Important Diseases
•• Burton’s Disease Combination of scurvy and rickets
•• Engelmann Disease Progressive diaphyseal dysplasia
•• Trevor’s Disease Dysplasia epiphysis hemimelica
•• Caffey’s Disease Osteomyelitis of Jaw
•• De Quervain’s Disease Tenovaginitis of APL and EPB (tendon)
•• Blount’s Disease Tibia vara
Important Tests Frequently Asked

•• Barlow’s test CDH
•• Ortolani’s test CDH
•• Galeazzi test CDH
•• Alli’s test CDH
•• Hart’s test CDH
•• Thomas test fixed flexion deformity
•• Allen’s test palmar arch integrity
•• Gaenslen’s test sciatica
•• McMurray’s test menisci
•• Anterior drawer test–Anterior cruciate ligament
•• Lachman’s test–Anterior cruciate ligament
•• Pivot shift test–Anterior cruciate ligament
Posterior drawer test–post cruciate ligament
•• Apprehension test/sign •• Anterior shoulder joint dislocation
•• Gaenslen’s test •• Sacroiliac joint pain
•• Phalen’s test •• Carpal tunnel syndrome
•• Finkelstein’s test •• De Quervain’s disease
•• Adson’s test •• Thoracic outlet syndrome
•• Wringing test •• Lateral epicondylitis
•• Cozen’s test •• Lateral epicondylitis
•• Lift-off test •• Subscapularis
NEWER TOPICS
Pycnodysostosis
•• Pycnodysostosis is an autosomal recessive form of osteosclerosis that superficially resembles osteopetrosis
•• It is a form of short-limbed dwarfism associated with bone fragility and a tendency to fracture with minimal trauma
•• Life span is usually normal
•• In addition to a generalized increase in bone density, features include:
–– Short stature
–– Separated cranial sutures
–– Hypoplasia of the mandible
–– Kyphoscoliosis and deformities of the trunk
–– Persistence of deciduous teeth
–– Progressive acro-osteolysis of the terminal phalanges
–– High, arched palate
–– Proptosis
–– Blue sclerae
–– A pointed, beaked nose
•• Patients usually present because of frequent fractures
•• (Remember the clinical presentation)
Osteomyelosclerosis
•• In osteomyelosclerosis, the marrow cells are replaced by diffuse fibroplasia, occasionally accompanied by osseous metaplasia
and increased skeletal density on roentgenograms
Surgery 573
•• It is a myeloproliferative disorder and is characteristically accompanied by extramedullary hematopoiesis

•• Hyperostosis corticalis generalisata (van Buchem’s disease) is characterized by osteosclerosis of the skull (base and calvaria),
lower jaw, clavicles and ribs and thickening of the diaphyseal cortices of the long and short bones. Alkaline phosphatase
levels in the serum are elevated, and the disorder may be due to increased formation of bone of normal structure. The major
manifestations are due to neural compression and consist of optic atrophy, facial paralysis, and perception deafness
•• In hyperostosis generalisata with pachydermia, the sclerosis is due to increased formation of subperiosteal spongy bone
and involves the epiphyses, metaphyses and diaphyses. Pain, swelling of joints, and thickening of the skin of the lower arms are
common.
Progressive Diaphyseal Dysplasia

•• CAMURATI-ENGELMANN DISEASE
•• This is an autosomal dominant disorder:
•• Symmetric thickening and increased diameter of the diaphyses of long bones occur, particularly in the femur, tibia, fibula,
radius, and ulna
•• Pain over affected areas, fatigue, abnormal gait, and muscle wasting are the major manifestations
•• Serum alkaline phosphatase levels may be elevated, and, on occasions, hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia may be found
•• Other abnormalities include anemia, leukopenia, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
Melorheostosis
•• This rare, sporadic condition usually begins in childhood and is characterized by a slowly progressive linear hyperostosis in one
or more bones of one limb
•• Usually in a lower extremity
•• All segments of the bone may be involved, with sclerotic areas that have a ‘Candle Dripping Wax’ or ‘flowing’ distribution
•• The involved limb is often extremely painful.
Osteopoikilosis
Osteopoikilosis is characterized by dense spots of trabecular bone <1 cm in diameter, usually of uniform density, located in the
epiphyses and adjacent parts of the metaphyses
All bones may be involved except the skull, ribs, and vertebrae.
Stress Fractures
•• Stress fractures are undisplaced fatigue fractures, which develop as a result of repeated loading. The lower limbs are most
frequently affected
•• The metatarsals (march fractures) and the tibia being the most frequently involved bones
•• March fracture involves 2, 3 metatarsals most commonly
•• Younger children and even toddlers can present with stress fractures but they are more common in adolescents where the proximal
third of the tibia is the most frequent site
•• Symptoms of localized pain develop insidiously and are usually relieved by rest
•• Treatment involves protection from further trauma, which sometimes involves immobilization and always involves
abstinence from the causative stress, usually running. Once symptoms have resolved, a gradual return to activity can be begun.
Adolescent Hallus Valgus

•• Hallux valgus or ‘bunions’ in adolescents is usually familial rather than the result of poor footwear
•• There is often an associated bunionette of the fifth toe and patients often have a characteristically broad forefoot with varus of the
first metatarsal (metatarsus primus varus)
•• Surgery is best deferred until skeletal maturity is reached

•• Surgical treatment gives good results for symptomatic feet with a painful bunion but caution should be exercised in the pain-free
patient who may be disappointed if surgery leaves a better looking but painful foot.
Enthesitis-related Arthritis
Enthesitis is defined as inflammation of the insertion of tendons into bones. This new diagnostic group is intended to define those
with disease related to the HLA antigen B27, and avoids the term ‘juvenile spondyloarthropathy’; inaccurate because of the rarity of
spinal involvement in children
Enthesitis-related arthritis is defined as arthritis and enthesitis; or arthritis; or enthesitis with at least two of the following features:
1. Sacroiliac joint tenderness and/or inflammatory spinal pain
2. Presence of HLA B27
3. Family history in at least one first- or second-degree relative of medically confirmed HLA B27-associated disease
4. Anterior uveitis that is usually associated with pain, redness, or photophobia
5. Onset of arthritis in a boy after 8 years of age
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
•• Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) consists of a group of disorders of connective tissue characterized by:
•• Joint hypermobility plus fragility and laxity of the skin
•• These conditions are characterized by abnormalities in collagen genes resulting in the production of abnormal collagen and
consequent tissue fragility
•• EDS has soft, hyperextensible skin, ‘cigarette paper’ scars, easy bruising and marked hypermobility. EDS type II is similar to
type I but less severe
•• Also seen is serious involvement with a high incidence of rupture of the arteries, the colon or the pregnant uterus. Management
of EDS consists of patient education and support, with genetic counseling for the more severe forms.
Synovial chondromatosis
•• It is a disorder characterized by multiple focal metaplastic growths of normal-appearing cartilage in the synovium or tendon
sheath. Segments of cartilage break loose and continue to grow as loose bodies
•• When calcification and ossification of loose bodies occur, the disorder is referred to as synovial osteochondromatosis
•• The disorder is usually monoarticular and affects young to middle-aged individuals. The knee is most often involved, followed
by hip, elbow and shoulder
•• Symptoms are pain, swelling, and decreased motion of the joint
•• Radiographs may show several rounded calcifications within the joint cavity.
•• Treatment is synovectomy; however, the tumor may recur.
Causes of ‘Loose’ Bodies

•• Trauma
•• Osteochondritis dissecans
•• Synovial chondromatosis
•• Osteoarthritis
•• An infant presents with failure to thrive, Pancytopenia. Bones are brittle and fracture •• Infantile osteopetrosis
easily. Defect is found in osteoclasts
•• A two-year-old presents with multiple fractures in different stages of healing brought by •• Battered baby syndrome
overconcerned parents
Surgery 575
•• A six-year-old with b/l symmetrical fractures and blue sclera. Bones are osteopenic and •• Osteogenesis imperfecta
brittle
•• An athelete after trauma and hematoma formation at elbowcomes to you with hard •• Myositis ossificans
calcific mass found in the muscle Belly
•• A patient with multiple injuries on day 2 develops Tachycardia, Tachypnea, ↓Po2 and •• Fat embolism
rash.
•• A patient after hip replacementdevelops chest pain and cvs collapse •• Pulmonary thromboembolism
Clinical Scenarios
•• An itching, squeezing pain sensation after amputation that an amputated limb is still •• Phantom limb pain
attached and functioning with intensly painful sensations
•• Complex and progressive disease with pain swelling and changes in skin without •• Reflex sympathetic dystrophy/
demonstrable nerve lesions after injury Sudeck’s atrophy
•• Complex and progressive disease with pain swelling and changes in skin with •• Causalgia
demonstrable nerve lesions after injury
•• A 13-year-old boy with a hot, tender swelling arising from diaphysis of bone with •• Ewing’s sarcoma
characteristic feature of onion skinning
•• An obese boy in 2nd decade presents with pain and with limited flexion, abduction and •• Slippped femoral epiphysis
femoral head seen downwards and posteriorly
•• A 10-year-old boy with pain and limp. X-ray shows distorted femoral neck and head •• Perthes’ disease
•• An elderly boy after trauma presents with expansile osteolytic and cystic bony lesion with •• Aneurysmal bone cyst
thin wall
•• An elderly man presents to orthopedic clinic with pain in bones. On X-ray, cortical •• Melorheostosis
widening of bones. ‘Molten wax’ or ‘Candle Dripping Wax’ appearance of bones is
noted
•• A male presents with triad of lytic bony lesions on skull, diabetes Insipidus and exomphalos •• Hand-schuller-christian disease
USMLE Case Scenario

and nontender. A sausage-like mass may be palpable in the upper abdomen. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Sigmoid volvulus
2. Cecal volvulus
3. Colonic atresia
5. Ladd’s bands
6. Annular pancreas
7. Intussusception
9. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Ans. 7. Intussusception
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old patient has tumor in the adrenal medulla, who has paroxysmal hypertension. Urinary metabolites of:
1. 17-ketosteroids in 24-hour urine collections can be helpful in establishing diagnoses
2. 5 HIAA in 24-hour urine collections can be helpful in establishing diagnoses
3. DHEA in 24-hour urine collections can be helpful in establishing diagnoses
4. VMA in 24-hour urine collections can be helpful in establishing diagnoses
Ans. 4. VMA in 24-hour urine collections can be helpful in establishing diagnoses
USMLE Case Scenario

Hirschsprung’s disease is one of the most common causes of lower intestinal obstruction in the neonatal period. In early
childhood, it may present as chronic constipation with intermittent fecal soiling. It occurs predominantly in males and there
is an increased family incidence. It is due to:
1. Congenital absence of the aganglionic cells of Auerbach’s plexus
2. Acquired absence of the ganglion cells of Auerbach’s plexus
3. Acquired absence of the ganglion cells of Meissner’s plexus
4. Congenital absence of the aganglionic cells of both the Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexuses
5. Congenital absence of the ganglion cells of both the Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexuses
Ans. 5. Congenital absence of the ganglion cells of both the Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexuses
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient (44 years old) from New York presents with fatigue, weight loss, and muscle aches. Laboratory abnormalities present
as hypoglycemia, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are seen. This patient has:
1. Cushing’s disease
2. SIADH
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Adrenal hyperfunction
5. Adrenal insufficiency
Ans. 5. Adrenal insufficiency
USMLE Case Scenario

A syndrome is associated with the rare occurrence of malignant infiltration of the colonic sympathetic nerve supply in
the region of the celiac plexus in which sometimes massive cecal and colonic dilation is seen in the absence of mechanical
obstruction. Such an entity is described as:
1. Maffucci syndrome
Surgery 577
2. Ortner’s syndrome
3. Ollier’s syndrome
4. Holt-Oram syndrome
5. Ogilvie’s syndrome
Ans. 5. Ogilvie’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

Whipple’s triad summarizes the clinical findings in patients with insulinomas: (1) attacks precipitated by fasting or exertion;
(2) fasting blood glucose concentrations below 50 mg/dL; (3) symptoms relieved by oral or intravenous glucose administration.
These tumors are treated surgically and simple excision of an adenoma is curative in the majority of cases. The cell of origin
of such tumors is:
1. Alpha cells
2. Beta cells
3. Delta cells
4. Argentaffin cells
Ans. 2. Beta cells
USMLE Case Scenario

A nonsuppurative inflammatory process of the retroperitoneum that causes problems by extrinsic compression of
retroperitoneal structures, such as the ureters, aorta, and inferior vena with ureteral obstruction as one of the most common
presentations of this disease process is:
1. Retroperitoneal hematoma
2. Retroperitoneal sarcoma
3. Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis
Ans. 3. Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old female after receiving trauma from a vehicular accident notices pain of sudden onset, sharp in nature with a
swelling in the right lower quadrant of abdomen. Later, she also has fever, leukocytosis, anorexia, and nausea. CT scan shows
a mass within the rectus sheath.
1. Pancreatic pseudocyst
2. Epigastric hernia
3. Divarication of recti
4. Rectus sheath hematoma
5. Umbilical adenoma
Ans. 4. Rectus sheath hematoma
USMLE Case Scenario

In children, usually surgical intervention is not needed in:
1. Omphalocele
2. Gastroschisis
3. Patent urachal duct
4. Patent omphalomesenteric duct
5. Umbilical hernias
Ans. 5. Umbilical hernias
•• Omphalocele and gastroschisis result in evisceration of bowel and require emergency surgical treatment to effect immediate or
staged reduction and abdominal wall closure.
•• Patent urachal or omphalomesenteric ducts result from incomplete enclosure of embryonic connections from the bladder and
ileum, respectively, to the abdominal wall. They are appropriately treated by excision of the tracts and closure of the bladder or
ileum. In most children, umbilical hernias close spontaneously by the age of 4 and need not be repaired.
USMLE Case Scenario

esophagogastric junction. Further manometry yields high resting pressures of the lower esophageal sphincter, which fails to
relax. Most likely the disease is:
1. Carcinoma esophagus
2. GE junction growth
3. Diffuse esophageal spasm
4. Nutcracker esophagus
5. Achalasia
Ans. 5. Achalasia
USMLE Case Scenario

True about somatostatin are all except:
1. Somatostatin is produced by D cells in the pancreatic islets
2. It is an inhibitor of secretion of growth hormone
3. It inhibits the secretion of insulin
4. It stimulates the secretion of glucagon
5. It inhibits the secretion of gastrin
6. It inhibits the secretion of secretin
7. It inhibits the secretion of VIP
8. It inhibits intestinal, biliary, and gastric motility
Ans. 4. It stimulates the secretion of glucagon
USMLE Case Scenario

A 46-year-old woman presents with chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and frequent headaches. She states
that her musculoskeletal pain improves slightly with exercise. On examination, painful trigger points are produced by
palpitation of the trapezius and lateral epicondyle of the elbow. Signs of inflammation are absent and laboratory studies are
within normal. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. CFS
2. Fibromyalgia
3. Encephalitis
4. Osteoarthritis
The patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of fibrositis (fibromyalgia). Examination typically reveals painful trigger
points produced by palpation of the trapezius and the lateral epicondyle of the elbow.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 80-year-old woman complains of a 4-month history of worsening gait and low back pain that is worse on walking. She
denies any trauma and is not incontinent. She has been fairly healthy and only takes iron supplements. On examination, she
has hypoactive muscle stretch reflexes in the legs. The plain X-rays of the lumbosacral region show degenerative changes that
seem age-appropriate. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Acute lumbar disc herniation
2. Cervical stenosis
Surgery 579
3. Lumbar stenosis
4. Myopathy
5. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)
Ans. 3. Lumbar stenosis
It is caused by degenerative changes in the lumbosacral spine. The history is that of vague low back pain with subtle physical
examination findings referable to impingement on motor and sensory roots.
USMLE Case Scenario

The most common malignancy found in Marjolin’s ulcer is:
3. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
4. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma
Ans. 2. Squamous cell carcinoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old from New Jersy on his sixth postoperative day has salmon-colored fluid on dressing. Most appropriate diagnosis
would be:
1. Wound dehiscence
2. Wound infection only
3. Wound healing
4. Granulation
Ans. 2. Wound dehiscence
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old man presenting in GI clinic with dysphagia for liquids more than solids and regurgitating undigested food
would most likely be having:
1. Achalasia cardia
2. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
3. GI malignancy
4. Gastritis
Ans. 1. Achalasia cardia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 60-year-old elderly man, who is a smoker and drinks as well, has progressive dysphagia and loses weight.
He would most likely be having:
1. Achalasia cardia
3. GI malignancy
4. Gastritis
Ans. 3. GI malignancy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old male engineer complains of burning retrosternal pain aggravated by bending, lying flat. He has no dysphagia,
weight loss. He most likely is having:
1. Achalasia cardia
3. GI malignancy
4. Gastritis
6. GERD
Ans. 6. GERD
USMLE Case Scenario

There is metaplasia of the normal squamous mucosa of the esophagus to a columnar (glandular) type of epithelium, and it is
usually seen as a response to repeated acid exposure to the distal esophagus. This leads to:
1. Adenocarcinoma
3. Papilloma
4. Transitional cell carcinoma
Ans. 1. Adenocarcinoma
Barrett’s esophagus may occur in a small number of patients who have gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). This condition
is a metaplasia of the normal squamous mucosa of the esophagus to a columnar (glandular) type of epithelium and is usually
seen as a response to repeated acid exposure to the distal esophagus. Tobacco and alcohol use are also thought to contribute
to the process. The significance of Barrett’s esophagus is that it may lead to the development of low-grade dysplasia, high-
grade dysplasia, or esophageal adenocarcinoma.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old marine worker, after a heavy drink and violent episode of vomiting, feels severe epigastric pain and is
diaphoretic. Among the below given options, most likely diagnosis would suggest:
1. Achalasia cardia
2. Boerhaave’s rupture
4. GI malignancy
5. Gastritis
7. GERD
Ans. 2. Boerhaave’s rupture
USMLE Case Scenario

esophagogastric junction. Further manometry yields high-resting pressures of the lower esophageal sphincter, which fails to
relax. Most likely the disease is:
1. Achalasia cardia
4. GI malignancy
5. Gastritis
7. GERD
Ans. 1. Achalasia cardia
USMLE Case Scenario

An elderly man, who is a heavy drinker, faints during his job. His examination shows occult blood in stools. He has altered
bowel habbits, is pale and fatigues easily. He should be investigated for:
1. Achalasia cardia
Surgery 581
4. GI malignancy
5. Gastritis
7. GERD
Ans. 4. GI malignancy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old patient of ulcerative colitis presents to a gatro clinic in New Orleans with severe abdominal pain, leukocytosis
and high temperature with massively distended colon on X-ray. Most likely diagnosis would be:
1. Toxic megacolon
5. GI malignancy
6. Gastritis
Ans. 1. Toxic megacolon
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient postoperatively on clindamycin complains of watery diarrhea and, crampy abdominal pain. This clinical scenario
would be suggestive of:
1. Toxic megacolon
2. Ischemic colitis
6. GI malignancy
7. Gastritis
Ans. 3. Pseudomembranous colitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 77-year-old woman reports that she had an operation 35 years earlier for intractable ulcer symptoms. She recalls of
gastrectomy surgery of some kind.
Review of her prior medical records indicates that she underwent an antrectomy and a gastrojejunostomy.
Which of the following is she most at risk for developing?
1. Bacterial overgrowth
2. Bleeding from the lower gastrointestinal tract
3. Chronic pancreatitis
4. Constipation
5. Pancreatic insufficiency
Ans. 1. Bacterial overgrowth
USMLE Case Scenario

A 48-year-old patient with perianal pain cannot sit down with fever and chills with tender, fluctuant mass between anus and
ischial tuberosity. This would be suggestive of:
1. Psoas abscess
2. Subphrenic abscess
3. Ischiorectal abscess
4. Pelvic abscess
5. Ischemic colitis
Ans. 3. Ischiorectal abscess
USMLE Case Scenario

A six-year-old boy passes a bloody bowel movement. This would most likely suggest:
1. Psoas abscess
4. Pelvic abscess
5. Ischemic colitis
6. Meckel’s diverticulitis
Ans. 6. Meckel’s diverticulitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A young boy complains of right flank colicky pain radiating to inner thigh or scrotum. Microscopy of urine shows hematuria.
This suggests most likely:
1. Psoas abscess
2. Ureteric colic
3. Renal cancer
4. BHP
5. Prostate cancer
8. Pelvic abscess
9. Ischemic colitis
Ans. 2. Ureteric colic
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old medical student has enlarged hair follicles in otherwise normal skin in the anal region. The follicle holds a
single hair shaft surrounded by rings of keratin. The cavity contains pus under pressure and a wall of edematous fat;
polymorphonuclear cells predominate. The cavity has a wall of fibrous tissue lined by granulation tissue of lymphocytes, and
giant cells. The cavity is laden with Staphylococcus aureus and other organisms, including anaerobes. Most likely diagnosis is:
3. Pelvic abscess
4. Ischemic colitis
5. Pilonidal sinus
6. Anal abscess
Ans. 5. Pilonidal sinus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old young man presents to ask for advice regarding the future management of his ulcerative colitis. He has had
pancolitis for the past 15 years and has been told by his physician that he is at an increased risk for developing colorectal
cancer. He asks for the physician’s recommendation regarding appropriate surveillance. Which of the following is the most
appropriate response?
Surgery 583
1. Annual stool guaiac testing

2. Barium meal
3. Barium enema
4. Colonoscopy
5. Colonoscopy with multiple biopsies
6. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
7. Flexible sigmoidoscopy with multiple biopsies
8. Laparoscopy
Ans. 5. Colonoscopy with multiple biopsies
Patients with longstanding extensive ulcerative colitis for a long duration are at an increased colon cancer risk. Appropriate
surveillance involves annual or biannual colonoscopy with multiple biopsies at regular intervals, even of normal-appearing
mucosa, to check for dysplasia.
USMLE Case Scenario

A prematurely born infant fails to tolerate attempted feeding. Bilious vomiting is observed and initiates a diagnostic
evaluation. Plain X-ray of the abdomen demonstrates one air bubble in the stomach and the second in the duodenum proximal
to the obstruction. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Esophageal atresia
2. Duodenal atresia
3. Annular pancreas
4. Pyloric stenosis
Ans. 2. Duodenal atresia
USMLE Case Scenario

An 85-year-old man with Pick’s disease undergoes surgery for a fractured femoral neck. On the 6th postoperative day, his
abdomen is grossly distended and tense, but not tender. He has occasional bowel sounds. The rectal vault is empty on digital
examination, and there is no evidence of occult blood. X-ray films show a few distended loops of small bowel and a much
distended colon. The cecum measures 9.5 cm in diameter. The gas pattern of distention extends throughout the entire large
bowel, including the sigmoid and rectum. No stool is seen in the films. Vital signs are normal for his age. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Fecal impaction
2. Mechanical intestinal obstruction
3. Ogilvie syndrome
4. Paralytic ileus
5. Volvulus of the sigmoid colon
Ans. 3. Ogilvie syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

and nontender. A sausage-like mass may be palpable in the upper abdomen.
1. Diverticulitis
2. Appendicitis
3. Mesenteric adenitis
4. Volvulus
5. Duodenal atresia
6. Annular pancreas
7. Intussusception
Ans. 7. Intussusception
USMLE Case Scenario

A 27-year-old baseball player goes to the team physician 2 hours before game time, complaining of abdominal pain. The
symptoms began approximately 7 hours earlier in a diffuse fashion. Two hours later, he began feeling nauseated and vomited
twice. Over the past 4 hours, the abdominal pain has become more severe and well localized in the right lower quadrant. His
examination now reveals well-localized pain in the right lower quadrant inferolateral to the umbilicus. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Acute obstruction of the appendiceal lumen by a fecalith
2. Acute onset of ileocolitis
3. Acute onset of ischemic colitis
4. Acute Yersinia infection
5. Obstruction of the ileocecal valve by a mass
Ans. 1. Acute obstruction of the appendiceal lumen by a fecalith
USMLE Case Scenario

A 77-year-old presents with acute abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. Examination reveals fever, leukocytosis, physical
findings of peritoneal irritation in the left lower quadrant and sometimes a palpable mass. Among the options given below,
most likekly diagnosis would be:
1. Renal colic
2. Cholecystitis
3. Pancreatitis
4. Diverticulitis
5. Hepatitis
6. Cholangitis
7. Pseudo-obstruction
Ans. 4. Diverticulitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old female complains of colicky right hypochondriac pain with radiation to right scapula. She is obese and has GERD as
well. LFT and KFT are within normal limits. Urine examination is normal. The scenario should be suggesting:
1. Acute cholecystitis
2. Acute nephritis
3. Acute pyelonephritis
4. Acute hepatitis
Ans. 1. Acute cholecystitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient is brought to the hospital with history of RTA 8 hours back. A few drops of blood were noted at the external urethral
meatus. He has not passed urine and his bladder is palpable per abdomen. What is the probable diagnosis?
1. Ureteral injury with extravasations of urine in the retroperitoneum
2. Urethral injury
3. Rupture bladder
4. Anuria due to hypovolemia
Ans. 2. Urethral injury
USMLE Case Scenario

An 88-year-old male, who was bedridden for the past few months as a result of stroke, presents with nausea, vomiting, colicky
abdominal pain. X-rays show distended loops of bowel with large air shadow like parrot’s beak. He would be assumed to be
having:
1. Ischemic colitis
Surgery 585
4. Volvulus
5. Intussusception
6. Colonic atresia
7. Annular pancreas
Ans. 4. Volvulus
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following polyps is not premalignant:
1. Juvenile polyposis syndrome
2. Familial polyposis syndrome
3. Juvenile polyp
4. HNPCC
Ans. 3. Juvenile polyp
USMLE Case Scenario

A cirrhotic develops malaise, right hypochondriac pain with weight loss and AFP levels which are elevated. This suggests a
diagnostic work-up for:
1. Endodermal sinus tumor
2. Yolk sac tumor
3. Renal cell carcinoma
4. Metastatis from GIT
5. Wilms’ tumor
6. Hepatoma
Ans. 6. Hepatoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A person with colonic cancer shows nodularities in liver with CEA levels elevated. Most likely cause would be:
1. Endodermal sinus tumor
2. Yolk sac tumor
3. Renal cell carcinoma
4. Metastatis
5. Wilms’ tumor
6. Hepatoma
Ans. 4. Metastatis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old female on OCPS develops sudden onset abdominal pain with tachycardia and hypotension. No history of
trauma. Blood coagulation profile is within normal limits. Most likely cause would be:
1. Lower GI bleed
3. Variceal bleed
4. Hemophilia
5. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
6. Bleeding from ruptured hepatic adenoma
Ans. 6. Bleeding from ruptured hepatic adenoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old has progressive jaundice with weight loss, increased alkaline phosphatase, nagging epigastric and back pain
USG reveals dilated intra- and extrahepatic ducts with thin-walled GB. Most likely cause is:
1. Pancreatitis
2. Cholecystitis
3. Hepatitis
4. Pancreatic cancer
5. Hepatic cancer
6. Bladder cancer
Ans. 4. Pancreatic cancer
USMLE Case Scenario

After treatment of acute pancreatitis, the patient comes after 7 weeks with ill-defined epigastric mass. This would suggest:
1. Solitary renal cyst
2. Pancreatic cyst
3. Hepatic cyst
4. Splenic cyst
5. Polycystic kidney
Ans. 2. Pancreatic cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

After an automobile accident, the patient comes after 7 weeks with ill-defined epigastric mass. This would suggest:
1. GI perforation
2. Splenic trauma
3. Solitary renal cyst
5. Hepatic cyst
6. Splenic cyst
Ans. 4. Pancreatic pseudocyst
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old female presents with abdominal mass accompanied by pain, nausea, and vomiting. The mass is diagnosed on
physical examination. It displays a characteristic lateral mobility and is associated with the bowel mesentery. The most likely
diagnosis is:
2. Mesenteric cyst
3. Hepatic cyst
4. Splenic cyst
Ans. 2. Mesenteric cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old patient presents with intermittent pain and moves around a lot because he cannot get comfortable. He has
costovertebral angle tenderness, urinary frequency and urgency. Most likely diagnosis would be:
1. Renal colic
2. Cholecystitis
3. Pancreatitis
Surgery 587
4. Diverticulitis
5. Hepatitis
6. Cholangitis
7. Pseudoobstruction
Ans. 1. Renal colic
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient with recurrent peptic ulcer disease H. pylori was not detected. There are multiple ulcers on first and second portions
of duodenum. This would make a medical student think about:
1. Glucagonoma
2. Carcinoid
3. Gastrinoma
4. Insulinoma
5. Pheochromocytoma
Ans. 3. Gastrinoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal pain. She has had burning, midepigastric
pain for the past 2 years. The pain has been relieved by antacids, but it seems to have become progressively worse. Today, she
vomited from the pain and noticed dark, ‘coffee-ground’ material. She has no past medical history of any significance. When
asked specifically, she denies any use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or alcohol. In emergency department,
her blood pressure was recorded as 110/70 mm Hg and pulse was 104/min. Upon gastric lavage, brown particulate matter is
aspirated. She is admitted to the hospital for further work up. The next morning, she undergoes upper endoscopy, which
reveals multiple small ulcers in the antrum, duodenum, and proximal jejunum.
Biopsies for the presence of Helicobacter pylori are negative. A lesion in which of the following locations would most likely
explain these findings?
1. Liver
2. Endocrine pancreas
3. Exocrine pancreas
4. Pituitary
5. Small intestine
Ans. 3. Endocrine pancreas
This patient has a gastrinoma, a classic cause of multiple severe ulcers in odd locations.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old woman from Alaska comes to a physician after four months of intermittent abdominal cramps and diarrhea
accompanied by skin flushing that is most pronounced in the head and neck area. Physical examination reveals a murmur heard
over the tricuspid valve. Urine-special studies for 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid show excretion of 99 mg/day, which indicates a great
increase in levels. CT scan of the liver demonstrates a 2 cm small lesion. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Carcinoid tumor, metastatic
2. Cholangiocarcinoma, primary
3. Hepatocellular carcinoma, primary
4. Mucinous adenocarcinoma of the colon, metastatic
5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus, metastatic
Ans. 1. Carcinoid syndrome is the term used for the cluster of cutaneous flushing, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea that is seen
in patients who have excess amounts of circulating vasoactive substances, including serotonin.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old female has migratory necrolytic dermatitis. She is diabetic and thin. She might be having an underlying:
1. Glucagonoma
2. Carcinoid
3. Gastrinoma
4. Insulionma
5. Pheochromocytoma
Ans. 1. Glucagonoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old male with pounding headache, palpitations, perspirations and increased VMA levels is suffering from:
1. Glucagonoma
2. Carcinoid
3. Gastrinoma
4. Insulinoma
5. Pheochromocytoma
Ans. 5. Pheochromocytoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old female with flushing, non healing diahorreas and bronchospasm with increased 5HIAA levels:
1. Glucagonoma
2. Carcinoid
3. Gastrinoma
4. Insulinoma
5. Pheochromocytoma
Ans. 2. Carcinoid
USMLE Case Scenario

A 40-year-old woman comes to a physician after 4 months of intermittent abdominal cramps and diarrhea accompanied by
skin flushing that is most pronounced in the head and neck area. Physical examination reveals a murmur heard over the
tricuspid valve. Urine-special studies for 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid show excretion of 99 mg/day [reference range 0.5–9.0
mg/day]. CT scan of the liver demonstrates a 2 cm lesion. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Glucagonoma
2. Carcinoid
3. Gastrinoma
4. Insulinoma
5. Pheochromocytoma
Ans. 2. Carcinoid
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old female with hypertension not responding to antihypertensives with bruit over renal area suggests:
1. Renal artery duplication
2. Fibromuscular dysplasia
3. Benign hypertension
4. Malignant hypertension
Ans. 2. Fibromuscular dysplasia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 75-year-old with hypertension not responding to antihypertensives with bruit over renal area is suffering from:
1. Renal artery stenosis
2. Fibromuscular aplasia
3. Benign hypertension
4. Malignant hypertension
Ans. 1. Renal artery stenosis
Surgery 589
USMLE Case Scenario

A nonsuppurative inflammatory process of the retroperitoneum that causes problems by extrinsic compression of
retroperitoneal structures such as the ureters, aorta and inferior vena with ureteral obstruction as one of the most common
presentations of this disease process is:
1. Pseudomyxoma
2. Renal artery stenosis
3. Retroperitoneal tumor
4. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
Ans. 4. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
USMLE Case Scenario

True statement is:
1. BPH is a risk factor for prostatic cancer and after simple prostatectomy, patients are still at risk of developing prostate cancer
2. BPH is a risk factor for prostatic cancer and after simple prostatectomy, patients are not at risk of developing prostate cancer
3. BPH is not a risk factor for prostatic cancer and after simple prostatectomy, patients are still at risk of developing prostate cancer
4. BPH is not a risk factor for prostatic cancer and after simple prostatectomy, patients are not at risk of developing prostate cancer
Ans. 3. BPH is not a risk factor for prostatic cancer and after simple prostatectomy, patients are still at risk of developing
prostate cancer. Simple prostatectomy involves shelling out the prostate adenoma and leaving the pseudocapsule (true
prostate) behind. Therefore, these patients are still at risk of developing prostate cancer, although BPH in and of itself is not
a risk factor for prostatic cancer.
USMLE Case Scenario

The most common source of arterial emboli is/are:
1. Superficial veins of lower limb
2. Deep veins of lower limb
3. Veins of pelvis
4. Heart
5. Lungs
Ans. 4. Heart
The heart is the most common source of arterial emboli and accounts for 90% of cases. Within the heart, sources include
diseased valves, endocarditis, the left atrium in patients with unstable atrial arrhythmias, and mural thrombus on the wall of
the left ventricle in patients with a myocardial infarction.
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient is evaluated for subclavian steal syndrome. On being subjected to exercise, left arm of a carpenter develops relative
ischemia. Atherosclerotic occlusion of the subclavian artery proximal to the vertebral artery is seen. The dynamics of blood
flow suggest that in this syndrome:
1. Reversal of blood occurs through carotid artery with decreased flow to brain
2. Reversal of blood occurs through carotid artery with increased flow to brain
3. Reversal of blood occurs through vertebral artery with decreased flow to brain
4. Reversal of blood occurs through vertebral artery with increased flow to brain
Ans. 3. Reversal of blood occurs through vertebral artery with decreased flow to brain
USMLE Case Scenario

The presence of air in the mediastinum after an episode of vomiting and retching is virtually pathognomonic of:
1. Spontaneous rupture of lung bullae
2. Spontaneous rupture of trachea
3. Spontaneous rupture of the esophagus (Boerhaave’s syndrome)

4. Spontaneous rupture of the esophagus (Mallory-Weis Tear)
Ans. 3. Spontaneous rupture of the esophagus (Boerhaave’s syndrome)
Patients with Mallory-Weiss syndrome typically present with a massive, painless hematemesis after severe vomiting or
retching. The majority of tears occur just below the gastroesophageal junction.
USMLE Case Scenario

An elderly 88-year-old man from Kansas presents with nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, colicky abdominal pain, and
obstipation. A lesion radiographically on plain film of the abdomen appears as an upside-down U or ‘bent inner tube’. Most
1. Intussusception
2. Sigmoid volvulus
3. Acute mesenteric ischemia
4. Chronic mesenteric ischemia
5. Annular pancreas
6. Strangulated intestinal hernia
Ans. 2. Sigmoid volvulus
USMLE Case Scenario

Pancreatectomy is a highly skilled procedure. The metabolic consequences of total pancreatectomy are manifold. They
include all except:
1. Weight loss
2. Malabsorption
3. Hypocalcemia
4. Hypophosphatemia
6. Diarrhea
7. Iron deficiency
9. Megaloblastic anemia
Ans. 9. Megaloblastic anemia
USMLE Case Scenario

A lesion has been identified as a source of gastrointestinal bleeding. It is characteristically located within 6 cm distal to the
gastroesophageal junction. It typically consists of an abnormally large submucosal artery that protrudes through a small,
solitary mucosal defect. Most likely the lesion is:
1. Marginal artery lesion
2. Sudeck artery lesion
3. Arc of Rion
4. Brodel’s line
5. Prepyloric vein of Myo
6. Moynihan’s hump
7. Dieulafoy’s lesion
Ans. 7. Dieulafoy’s lesion
USMLE Case Scenario

Most specific statement about carcinoid tumor is that is:
1. Carcinoid tumors arise from the ectoderm, are a type of apudoma and the most common site is the small bowel.
2. Carcinoid tumors arise from the neuroectoderm, are a type of apudoma and the most common site is the small bowel.
3. Carcinoid tumors arise from the neuroectoderm, are a type of apudoma and the most common site is the appendix.
Surgery 591
4. Carcinoid tumors arise from the ectoderm, are a type of apudoma and the most common site is the large bowel.
5. Carcinoid tumors arise from the neuroectoderm, are a type of apudoma and the most common site is the large bowel.
Ans. 2. Carcinoid tumors arise from the neuroectoderm, are a type of apudoma and the most common site is the small bowel.
USMLE Case Scenario

In a 44-year-old man, it is found that the entire colon, from cecum to rectum, is involved with a grossly continuous inflammatory
process microscopically confined to the mucosa and submucosa of the colon. With crypt abscesses and superficial ulcerations,
disease is suggestive of:
1. Ischemic bowel disease
2. Irritable bowel disease
Ans. 4. Ulcerative colitis
USMLE Case Scenario

The classic Quincke triad of abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant, jaundice and gastrointestinal bleeding is present in
patients with:
1. Peutz-jeghers syndrome
2. Gardner’s syndrome
4. Hemobilia
5. Angiodysplasia
Ans. 4. Hemobilia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old has findings of bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter proximal to the site of extrinsic compression of the
ureters. The ureters are seen to be fibrosed over a substantial distance, starting inferiorly and progressing superiorly. The
ureters are deviated medially toward the midline. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Ormond’s disease
2. Caffey’s disease
3. Ollier’s disease
4. Trevor’s disease
Ans. 1. Ormond’s Disease
USMLE Case Scenario

An 81-year-old man with Alzheimer disease, who lives in a nursing home, undergoes surgery for a fractured femoral neck.
On the 5th postoperative day, it is noted that his abdomen is grossly distended and tense, but not tender. He has occasional
bowel sounds. The rectal vault is empty on digital examination and there is no evidence of occult blood. X-ray films show a
few distended loops of small bowel and a very distended colon. The cecum measures 9 cm in diameter and the gas pattern of
distention extends throughout the entire large bowel, including the sigmoid and rectum. No stool is seen in the films. Other
than the abdominal distention and the ravages of his mental disease, he does not appear to be ill. Vital signs are normal for
his age. The most likely diagnosis is:
5. FAP
6. HNPCC
7. Muir-Torre syndrome
Ans. 1. Ogilvie’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

An 85-year-old male presents with adenomatous polyposis; osteomas of the mandible, skull, and long bones; and a sebaceous
cyst. Most likely diagnosis is:
3. FAP
4. HNPCC
5. Muire-Torre syndrome
Ans. 2. Gardner’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 16-year-old female has firm, rubbery mass in right breast moving with palpation. It suggests of:
1. Fibroadenoma
2. Giant fibroadenoma
3. Fibrocystic disease
4. Intraductal papilloma
5. Breast abscess
Ans. 1. Fibroadenoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 16-year-old female has firm, rubbery mass in right breast, which is 8 cms in diameter. It suggests of:
1. Fibroadenoma
5. Breast abscess
Ans. 2. Giant fibroadenoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A bloodstained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following:
1. Breast abscess
2. Fibroadenoma
3. Duct papilloma
4. Fat necrosis of breast
Ans. 3. Duct papilloma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 42-year-old woman hit her breast with a broom handle while doing housework. She noticed a lump in that area at the time,
and 1 week later, the lump was still present. She then sought medical advice. On physical examination, she had a 3 cm hard
mass deep inside the affected breast, and some superficial ecchymosis over the area.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step, or steps, in management?
1. Reassess in about 2 months, with no specific therapy
2. Hot packs, analgesics, and surgical evacuation of the hematoma
3. Mammogram, and no further therapy if the report does not identify cancer
4. Mammogram and biopsy of the mass
5. Mastectomy
Ans. 4. Mammogram and biopsy of the mass
Surgery 593
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old female has bloody discharge from nipple. No other palpable masses are seen.
1. Fibroadenoma
5. Breast abscess
Ans. 4. Intraductal papilloma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old woman has 3.5 cm hard mass in her left breast with ill-defined borders and not mobile. The skin overlying has
orange peel appearance:
1. Fibroadenoma
5. Breast abscess
6. Breast Ca
Ans. 6. Breast Ca
USMLE Case Scenario

A 65-year-old male from Australia has an indolent, pale, raised, waxy, 1.0 cm skin mass over the bridge of the nose. The mass
has been slowly growing over the past 4 years. There are no enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
1. Lipoma
2. Sebaceous cyst
4. Invasive melanoma
5. Keratoacanthoma
Ans. 3. Basal cell carcinoma
It affects sun-exposed areas, particularly the mid and upper face, in patients lacking protective pigmentation. One of its
morphologic forms is that of a raised, waxy, pale lesion that grows very slowly and doesn’t metastasize to lymph nodes.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 65-year-old has sudden onset, tearing chest pain radiating to back with BP 220/120 with unequal arm pressures and normal
cardiac enzymes:
1. Subclavian steal syndrome
2. AAA (Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm)
3. Dissecting aneurysm of thoracic aorta
Ans. 3. Dissecting aneurysm of thoracic aorta
USMLE Case Scenario

A 20-year-old with BP 195/120 in upper limb with normal BP in lower limbs and rib-notching might be considred to be having:
2. AAA (Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm)
3. Dissecting aneurysm of thoracic aorta
Ans. 4. Coarctation of aorta
USMLE Case Scenario

The Sistrunk procedure is done for:
1. Thyroglossal cyst
2. Branchial cyst
3. Sublingual cyst
4. Ectopic thyroid
Ans. 1. Thyroglossal cyst
Most common congenital, cystic, midline neck mass. Thyroglossal duct cysts are benign cysts that can arise anywhere along
the embryonic path of descent of the thyroid gland (from the foramen cecum to the level of the thyroid).
•• Thyroglossal duct cysts can become infected, demonstrating rapid enlargement and tenderness, but are otherwise
generally nontender and asymptomatic.
•• Treatment is with surgical excision.
•• The Sistrunk procedure, in which the cyst, the middle third of the hyoid bone, and the thyroglossal duct tract are all
excised, is associated with the lowest rate of recurrence.
USMLE Case Scenario

An 11-year-old girl is brought by her parents to Washington with round 1 cm mass in midline of neck moving with movement
of tongue. There is no history suggesting night sweats, weight loss, and pruritus. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Thyroglossal duct cyst
2. Branchial cyst
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Lymphoma
Ans. 1. Thyroglossal duct cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old girl from Ohio has a round 1 cm mass on side of neck beneath and in front of sternocleidomastoid. It is said to
be a remnant of 2nd cleft. The diagnosis would be:
2. Branchial cyst
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Lymphoma
Ans. 2. Branchial cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

A 6-year-old presents with a swelling which seems to be fluid-filled translucent mass in supraclavicular area.
It most likely represents:
2. Branchial cyst
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Lymphoma
Ans. 3. Cystic hygroma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old present with enlarged lymph nodes in cervical region with night sweats and pruritus plus axillary
lymphadenopathy. The swelling seen by a surgeon is non translucent, solid. Most likely the diagnosis suggests:
2. Branchial cyst
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Lymphoma
Ans. 4. Lymphoma
Surgery 595
USMLE Case Scenario

A well-differentiated follicular carcinoma of thyroid can be best differentiated from a follicular adenoma by:
1. Hurthle cell change
2. Lining of tall columnar and cuboidal cells
3. Vascular invasion
4. Nuclear features
Ans. 3. Vascular invasion
USMLE Case Scenario

A pathologist is observing a slide. He Treports seeing perineural invasion. In which one of the following is perineural invasion
most commonly seen?
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
3. Basal cell adenoma
Ans. 2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
USMLE Case Scenario

Three days after catheterization, a young patient presents with skin findings in the distal extremities of livedo reticularis,
ischemic ulcerations, cyanosis, gangrene. This would suggest a likely diagnosis of:
1. Cholesterol emboli syndrome
2. Pseudoaneurysm
3. Inguinal hernia
4. Pneumothorax
Ans. 1. Cholesterol emboli syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of steady, dull back pain over the past 3 weeks. He states that he has
recently moved after retiring from a career in banking and is searching for a new primary care physician. He denies trauma to
his back and otherwise feels well. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 170/93 mm Hg with a pulse of 88/min. He has
no tenderness over the spinal processes or paraspinal areas. His abdomen is obese but there is a suggestion of a nontender,
pulsatile mass in the epigastric region. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following diagnoses
should be considered at this time?
1. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
2. Acute aortic dissection
3. Cauda equina syndrome
4. Lumbosacral disk herniation
5. Pancreatitis
Ans. 1. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
It is imperative to recognize the potential presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The combination of the history
of hypertension and smoking, the new back pain, and a pulsatile mass on examination is highly suggestive of abdominal
aneurysm. The back pain occurs as the expanding mass compresses structures in the retroperitoneum. It is particularly
important to make the diagnosis because large aneurysms (greater than 5 cm in diameter) are associated with a very high risk
of rupture and subsequent mortality.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old obese female presents with fatty deposits on limbs/trunk with facial sparing and multiple painful lipomas. This
would suggest a likely diagnosis of:
1. Gardner’s disease
2. Turcot’s disease
3. Dercum’s disease
4. De Quervain’s disease
Ans. 3. Dercum’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 58-year-old woman had a mitral valve replacement, and was placed on anticoagulants and prophylactic antibiotics following
her surgery. Five days after her surgery, she developed a sharply demarcated, erythematous rash on her left thigh. Two days
after the rash appeared, large hemorrhagic bullae began to form in the area of the rash. Which of the following medications
most likely caused the patient’s rash?
1. Aspirin
2. Cefazolin
3. Heparin
4. Vancomycin
5. Warfarin
Ans. 5. Warfarin
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old man comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of severe left-sided scrotal pain and swelling. He is sexually active
and has multiple sexual partners. He has no history of sexually transmitted diseases. His temperature is 38.7 °C, blood pressure
is 126/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. Examination shows unilateral intrascrotal tenderness and swelling. Testicular support
makes the pain less intense. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Epididymitis
2. Prostatitis
3. Testicular torsion
4. Urethritis
5. Varicocele
Ans. 1. Epididymitis
This patient has epididymitis, most likely due to Chlamydia trachomatis. Epididymitis refers to inflammation of the
epididymitis, which leads to unilateral intrascrotal pain, swelling, and fever. Testicular support usually relieves the pain to
some extent.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old drug addict from Downtown Mexico, who is homosexual, presents complaining of pain with defecation. He
denies any symptoms of diarrhea, abdominal pain, or fevers. On physical examination, he is afebrile and has an unremarkable
abdominal examination. On examination of the perianal area, there is a group of clustered ulcers adjacent to the anal orifice
and extending into the anal canal. A sigmoidoscopy reveals normal rectosigmoid mucosa. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
2. Cytomegalovirus infection
3. Herpes infection
4. Neisseria gonorrhea
5. Shigella dysenteriae
Ans. 5. Herpes infection
The grouped ulcers are characteristic of a herpetic infection. The ulcers begin as vesicular lesions and then painfully ulcerate.
USMLE Case Scenario

The midcervical region from 2 cm above the clavicle to the angle of the mandible is:
1. Zone I
2. Zone II
Surgery 597
3. Zone III
4. Zone IV
Ans. 2. Zone II
Zone I is the base of the neck from 2 cm above the clavicles to the level of the clavicles.
Zone II is the midcervical region from 2 cm above the clavicle to the angle of the mandible.
Zone III is the top of the neck from the angle of the mandible to the base of the skull.
USMLE Case Scenario

A widened mediastinum on chest radiograph with hypotension after history of trauma is most likely to be diagnostic of:
1. Syphilis
2. Esophageal rupture
3. Bronchial injury
4. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
5. Thoracic aortic rupture
Ans. 4. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old consults a surgeon as he has been having periods of Headache. He also has frequent episodes of rapid heartbeat
accompanied by sweating, flushing, and a sense of impending doom. Physical examination is unrevealing, with no evidence
of arrhythmia at the time of the exam. Urinary measurement of which of the following would most likely be diagnostic in this
case?
1. 5 HIAA
2. Acetylcholine
3. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
5. 17-ketosteroids
6. Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Ans. 6. Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Pheochromocytoma↑Urinary metabolites of epinephrine and norepinephrine are seen. Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and
homovanillic acid.
USMLE Case Scenario

Truth about Indirect hernias is:
1. Indirect hernias are the most common type in males only
2. Indirect hernias are the most common type in females only
3. Indirect hernias are the most common type in both sexes and all age groups
4. Direct hernias are the most common type in both sexes and all age groups
Ans. 3. Indirect hernias are the most common type in both sexes and all age groups
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old alcoholic male presents to emergency OPD half-an-hour after onset of pain around umbilicus which radiates to
the back. His USG done one year back had demonstrated gallstones. Serum amylase is not elevated. He has nausea, vomiting
and anorexia. Most likely cause is:
1. Acute gastritis
2. Acute pancreatitis
3. Acute mesenteric adenitis
5. Acute appendicitis
Ans. 2. Acute pancreatitis
USMLE Case Scenario

It is said that a patient, who is hungry and asking for food, does not have appendicitis. This is called:
1. Coffee-bean sign
2. Hamburger sign
3. Psoas sign
4. Obturator sign
5. Rovsing sign
Ans. 2. Hamburger sign
USMLE Case Scenario

A biliary fistula is an established and abnormal connection between any portion of the biliary tree and some other area. If this
abnormal connection is between the biliary tree and the exterior, it is termed as external fistula; a connection between the
biliary tree and an internal structure constitutes an internal fistula. There are four important complications of biliary fistula.
They are:
1. Hyponatremia, Weight loss, Infection, Gallstone Ileus
2. Hyponatremia, Weight gain, Infection, Gallstone Ileus
3. Hypernatremia, Weight loss, Infection, Gallstone Ileus
4. Hypernatremia, Weight gain, Infection, Gallstone Ileus
Ans. 1. Hyponatremia, Weight loss, Infection, Gallstone Ileus
USMLE Case Scenario

Seminomas are characterized by features of:
1. Most common testicular malignant lesions, are nonuniform in gross and histologic appearance, characterized by slow growth
and late invasion
2. Most common testicular malignant lesions, are nonuniform in gross and histologic appearance, characterized by rapid growth
and early invasion
3. Most common testicular malignant lesions, are uniform in gross and histologic appearance, characterized by slow growth and
late invasion
4. Most common testicular malignant lesions, are uniform in gross and histologic appearance, characterized by rapid growth
and early invasion
Ans. 3. Most common testicular malignant lesions, are uniform in gross and histologic appearance, characterized by slow
growth and late invasion.
USMLE Case Scenario

Fluid within the tunica is resorbed at a constant rate through the extensive venous and lymphatic systems of the spermatic
cord. Hydrocele, the excessive accumulation of this serous fluid, results when there is increased production or decreased
resorption. The fluid accumulates in:
1. The tunica albuginea derived from the testis
2. The tunica vasculosa derived from the testis
3. The tunica albuginea derived from the peritoneum
4. The tunica vasculosa derived from the peritoneum
5. The tunica vaginalis derived from the peritoneum
6. The tunica vaginalis derived from the testis
Ans. 5. The tunica vaginalis derived from the peritoneum
USMLE Case Scenario

Congenital hydrocele may follow:
1. Success of obliteration of the tunica vaginalis
2. Failure of obliteration of the tunica vaginalis
Surgery 599
3. Success of obliteration of the processus vaginalis

4. Failure of obliteration of the processus vaginalis
Ans. 4. Failure of obliteration of the processus vaginalis
Congenital hydrocele may follow failure of obliteration of the processus vaginalis, and fluid formed within the peritoneal
cavity may gravitate into the tunica vaginalis.
USMLE Case Scenario

In a 55-year-old, a painless firm fibrotic thickening of the fascia of the corpora cavernosa is observed involving the dorsolateral
aspects of the penile shaft or the intracavernous septum between the corpora cavernosa. These lesions are histologically
similar to:
1. Rodent ulcer
2. Papilloma
3. Melanoma
4. Keloid
5. Ear
6. Thyroid cartilage
7. Tendon
8. Ligament
Ans. 4. Keloid
Peyronie’s disease. A firm fibrotic thickening of the fascia of the corpora cavernosa is observed, usually involving the
dorsolateral aspects of the penile shaft or the intracavernous septum between the corpora cavernosa, histologically similar
to keloid or Dupuytren’s contracture.
USMLE Case Scenario

Impotence may be one of the earliest signs of Leriche’s syndrome, which is thrombotic obstruction of the:
1. Varicose veins
2. Iliac veins
3. Iliac arteries
4. Femoral arteries
5. Femoral veins
6. Testicular arteries
7. Testicular veins
Ans. 3. Iliac arteries
USMLE Case Scenario

A 54-year-old after a trauma has hypoxia, confusion. Petechiae are found over the chest, conjunctivae, and uvula. Neurological
examination shows confusion, agitation, stupor. Respiratory abnormalities include tachypnea, profound hypoxia. Blood
examination shows thrombocytopenia, hypofibrinogenemia, and prolongation of the partial thromboplastin time.
Electrocardiogram shows prominent S waves in lead 1, prominent Q waves in lead 3, ST segment depression and right axis
strain.
Arterial PO2 is 50 mm Hg on room air.
2. Air embolism
3. Fat embolism
4. Pulmonary infarct
5. ARDS
6. DIC
Ans. 3. Fat embolism
USMLE Case Scenario

The type of lymphedema most commonly involving the dorsum of the foot and lower extremity up to the level of the knee
with a familial history is:
1. Lymphedema congenita
2. Lymphedema praecox
3. Lymphedema tarda
4. Milroy’s disease
Ans. 4. Milroy’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

The type of lymphedema most commonly involving the dorsum of the foot and lower extremity up to the level of the knee
with a familial history is:
1. Anterior commissure in the midline
2. Posterior commissure in the midline
3. Anterior commissure away from the midline
4. Posterior commissure away from the midline
Ans. 2. Posterior commissure in the midline
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old has frontal osteomyelitis with marked overlying soft tissue swelling that is secondary to frontal sinusitis. It is
referred to as:
1. Sebaceous cyst
2. Cylindroma
3. Keratoacanthoma
4. Pott’s puffy tumor
Ans. 4. Pott’s puffy tumor
USMLE Case Scenario

A 56-year-old man from Australia has a skin cancer. Diagnosis of melanoma is made. These are seen to most melanomas
occurring in patients with:
1. Fair, nonfreckled skin that does not burn easily, blond hair, blue eyes
2. Fair, freckled skin that burns easily, blond hair, nonblue eyes
3. Fair, nonfreckled skin that burns easily, blond hair, blue eyes
4. Fair, freckled skin that burns easily, blond hair, blue eyes
Ans. 4. Fair, freckled skin that burns easily, blond hair, blue eyes
USMLE Case Scenario

The ligament which attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall from the diaphragm to umbilicus and incorporates the
ligamentum teres hepaticus in its dorsal border is:
1. Falciform ligament
2. Coronary ligament
3. Gastrohepatic ligament
4. Hepatoduodenal ligament
Ans. 1. Falciform ligament
1. The falciform ligament, which attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall from the diaphragm to umbilicus and
incorporates the ligamentum teres hepaticus in its dorsal border. In persons with portal hypertension, the umbilical vein
recanalizes and connects the periumbilical superficial venous system with the portal system.
2. The anterior and posterior right and left coronary ligaments, which in continuity with the falciform ligament connect the
diaphragm to the liver.
Surgery 601
3. The gastrohepatic and hepatoduodenal ligaments, which consist of the anterior layer of lesser omentum and are
continuous with the left triangular ligament. The hepatoduodenal ligament contains the hepatic arteries, portal vein,
and extrahepatic bile ducts. It forms the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen of Winslow and the communication
between the greater and lesser peritoneal cavities.
USMLE Case Scenario

After a dissection by an anatomist, a tongue-like projection of liver tissue is seen extending inferiorly from the right lobe.
The condition is more frequently encountered in the female and in living, this condition usually causes no symptoms. The
projection is:
1. Caudate lobe
2. Quadrate lobe
3. Riedel’s lobe
4. Azygos lobe
5. Uncinate process
6. Omental tuberosity
Ans. 3. Riedel’s lobe
USMLE Case Scenario

A pathologist reports that a disease is confined to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the colonic wall, with superficial
ulcers, increased cellular infiltration of the lamina propria, and cyst abscesses beginning in the rectum and advancing
proximally to involve the entire colon. On gross inspection, the colonic mucosa demonstrates healed granular superficial
ulcers superimposed on a friable and thickened mucosa with increased vascularity. The most likely cause is:
1. Crohn’s disese
3. Diverticulosis
4. Colonic cancer
Ans. 2. Ulcerative colitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old presents with profound nausea and vomiting, abdominal distention, postprandial epigastric pain, and weight
loss. Vascular compression of the duodenum is believed to produce this constellation of symptoms. It is commonly known as
Wilkie’s syndrome. The artery involved is:
1. Celiac trunk
2. Superior mesenteric artery
3. Inferior mesenteric artery
4. Short gastric artery
5. Gastroepiploic artery
Ans. 2. Superior mesenteric artery
USMLE Case Scenario

An elderly patient who usually takes high-fiber diet presents with acute onset of severe colicky pain, nausea, vomiting, and
obstipation. On abdominal examination, a compressible mass extending from the right lower quadrant to the midabdominal
region is felt. Plain abdominal roentgenogram reveals marked distention of the cecum as well as small bowel dilatation.
Barium enema classically reveals the narrowing accompanying the twisting of the colon (so-called bird’s neck deformity).
2. Pseudo-obstruction
3. Intussusception
4. Cecal volvulus
5. Sigmoid cancer
6. Right colonic cancer
Ans. 4. Cecal volvulus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 65-year-old male presents with pulsatile tinnitus, hemorrhage, vertigo, and paralysis of cranial nerves IX, X, XI as presenting
symptoms and signs. A red mass that pulsates and blanches with compression with a pneumatic otoscope can be seen in the ear
canal. These were found to be nonchromaffin paragangliomas. Most likely tumor is:
1. Cholesteatoma
2. Angiofibroma
3. Glomus jugulare
4. Glomus tympanicum
Ans. 4. Glomus tympanicum
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old medical student from New York has enlarged hair follicles in an otherwise normal skin. The follicle holds a
single hair shaft surrounded by rings of keratin. The cavity contains pus under pressure and a wall of edematous fat;
polymorphonuclear cells predominate. The cavity has a wall of fibrous tissue lined by granulation tissue of capillaries,
lymphocytes and giant cells. The cavity is laden with Staphylococcus aureus and other organisms, including anerobes. Most
1. Posterior midline crypt
2. Hidradenitis suppurativa
3. Carbuncle
4. Pilonidal abscess
Ans. 4. Pilonidal abscess
USMLE Case Scenario

A prematurely born infant fails to tolerate attempted feeding. Bilious vomiting is observed and initiates a diagnostic
evaluation. Plain X-ray of the abdomen demonstrates one air bubble in the stomach and the second in the duodenum proximal
to the obstruction. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Tracheoesophageal atresia
3. Cecal volvulus
4. Sigmoid volvulus
5. Duodenal atresia
Ans. 4. Sigmoid volvulus
USMLE Case Scenario

Neuhauser’s sign is seen in:
1. Paralytic ileus
2. Meconium ileus
3. Pyloric stenosis
4. Annular pancreas
5. Duodenal atresia
6. Jejunal atresia
7. Ileal atresia
8. Imperforate anus
Surgery 603
Ans. 2. Meconium ileus

A ground-glass appearance in the right lower quadrant (Neuhauser’s sign or the soap-bubble sign) may be observed and
represents viscid meconium mixed with air.
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with abdominal distention and failure to pass meconium in the first 24 hours of life. Plain abdominal
radiographs demonstrate loops of distended bowel with air-fluid levels. Barium enema shows a microcolon extending up
to the descending at which point the colon becomes dilated and copious intraluminal material (thick meconium plug) is
observed. Following instillation of the contrast material, large pieces of inspissated meconium is passed and the obstruction
is completely relieved. Most likely cause is:
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Aganglionic megacolon
3. Meconium plug syndrome
4. Colonic atresia
5. Rectal atresia
Ans. 3. Meconium plug syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A combination of omphalocele, anterior diaphragmatic hernia, sternal cleft, ectopia cordis and intracardiac defects is called
pentalogy named as:
1. Pentalogy of Fallot
2. Pentalogy of Cantrell
3. Pentalogy of Charcot
4. Pentalogy of Alport
5. Pentalogy of St. Mary Joseph
Ans. 2. Pentalogy of Cantrell
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant appears dyspneic, tachypneic, and cyanotic and has severe retractions with an increased chest diameter. Bowel
sounds are heard on auscultation of the affected chest. An anteroposterior chest X-ray demonstrates air-filled viscera in the
chest. Compression of ipsilateral lung, which is hypoplastic, is also noted. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Choanal atresia
3. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
4. Acquired diaphragmatic hernia
5. Congenital cystic lung
Ans. 3. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
USMLE Case Scenario

A severe force is exerted laterally on the ring of C1, and the arches fracture at the thinnest and weakest points with sparing of
the spinal cord. The fracture fragments spread outward. The fracture is diagnosed on lateral cervical spine roentgenograms.
It is a description of:
1. Jefferson’s fracture
2. Hangman’s fracture
3. Boxer’s fracture
4. Bennett fracture
5. Monteggia fracture
Ans. 1. Jefferson’s fracture
USMLE Case Scenario

An 86-year-old woman from a nursing care center presents complaining of very severe abdominal pain, which began abruptly
7 hours ago. She describes the pain as severe. She has had episodes of atrial fibrillation in the past. On physical examination,
she appears extremely uncomfortable. Her temperature is 102.9 °F, blood pressure is 180/110 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min
and irregular. An abdominal examination reveals mild distention and no hepatosplenomegaly. The abdomen is soft but very
tender to palpation. A rectal examination reveals brown, guaiac positive stool. She has no audible bowel sounds. Which of the
1. Diverticulitis
4. Ischemic colitis
5. Mesenteric ischemia
6. Pancreatitis
7. Small bowel obstruction
Ans. 5. Mesenteric ischemia
Embolic occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery. These patients will present with severe pain out of proportion to their
objective physical findings. The diagnosis should be suspected clinically and immediate superior mesenteric arteriogram
should be performed.
USMLE Case Scenario

Polyploidy conditions can affect the alimentary tract of children. Not a Polypoid condition is:
1. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
2. Cronkhite-Canada syndrome
3. Familial polyposis
4. Fanconi’s syndrome
7. Juvenile polyposis coli
Ans. 4. Fanconi’s syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old male is suspected to have torsion of testis. It is confirmed that torsion of testis is the final diagnosis.
Management:
1. Can be delayed and limited to the affected side
2. Can be delayed but should include the asymptomatic side
3. Should be immediate and limited to the affected side
4. Should be immediate and include the asymptomatic side
Ans. 4. Should be immediate and include the asymptomatic side
Torsion of the testicle should be corrected as soon as possible after the diagnosis is entertained. The opposite scrotum should
also be explored at the time of the operation, since the primary anatomic defect is most often a bilateral phenomenon.
USMLE Case Scenario

Congenital berry aneurysms are especially common at a few specific locations. Most of these aneurysms are located at:
1. The junction of the posterior communicating artery and the internal carotid artery
2. Vertebral arteries
3. The first major branches of the middle cerebral artery
4. Bifurcation of the basilar artery
Ans. 1. The junction of the posterior communicating artery and the internal carotid artery
Surgery 605
USMLE Case Scenario

Congenital anomalies of the female genital system consist of those derived from remnants of the mesonephric duct or the
Wolffian duct. The most common of these is the parovarian cyst which represents:
1. The lower Wolffian duct and may grow to be as large as 20 cm
2. The upper Wolffian duct and may grow to be as large as 20 cm
3. The upper mesonephric duct and may grow to be as large as 20 cm
4. The lower mesonephric duct and may grow to be as large as 20 cm
Ans. 2. The upper Wolffian duct and may grow to be as large as 20 cm
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-year-old man shot once in the left chest has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg, a heart rate of 130 beats per minute and
distended neck veins. Immediate treatment might include:
1. Administration of one liter of Ringer’s lactate solution
2. Subxiphoid pericardiotomy
3. Needle decompression of the left chest in the second intercostal space
4. Emergency thoracotomy to cross-clamp the aorta
Ans. 3. Needle decompression of the left chest in the second intercostal space
USMLE Case Scenario

Of the visceral aneurysms, which is the most common?
1. Celiac
2. Superior mesenteric
3. Hepatic
4. Splenic
Ans. 4. Splenic aneurysms are the most common visceral type
USMLE Case Scenario

Features of tumor lysis syndrome are:
2. Hyperuricemia, hypophosphatemia, hypocalcemia
3. Hypouricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypercalcemia
4. Hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
Ans. 4. Hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia
USMLE Case Scenario

Whenever antibiotics are used, they exert a selective pressure on the endogenous flora of the patient and on exogenous
bacteria that colonize sites at risk. Bacteria that remain are resistant to the antibiotics being used and become the pathogens.
It is seen that a new infection develops during antibiotic treatment for the original infection. Such infections are called:
1. Super infections
2. Restricted infections
3. Anti-infections
4. Neoinfections
Ans. 1. Super infections
USMLE Case Scenario

The most life-threatening conditions, requiring instantaneous intervention as in laryngeal fracture with complete upper
airway obstruction, is referred to as:
1. Exigent
2. Emergency
3. Urgent
4. Deferrable
Ans. 1. Exigent
1. Exigent—the most life-threatening conditions, requiring instantaneous intervention (e.g. laryngeal fracture with
complete upper airway obstruction and tension pneumothorax).
2. Emergency—those conditions requiring immediate intervention, certainly within the first hour (e.g. ongoing hemorrhage
and intracranial mass lesions).
3. Urgent—those conditions requiring intervention within the first few hours (e.g. open contaminated fractures, ischemic
extremity and hollow viscous injuries).
4. Deferrable—those conditions that may or may not be immediately apparent but will subsequently require treatment (e.g.
urethral disruption and facial fractures).
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old female presents with abdominal mass accompanied by pain, nausea, and vomiting. The mass is diagnosed on
physical examination. It displays a characteristic lateral mobility and is associated with the bowel mesentery. The most likely
diagnosis is:
1. Ovarian cyst
2. Umbilical cyst
3. Liver cyst
4. Splenic cyst
5. Mesenteric cyst
Ans. 5. Mesenteric cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old has findings of bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter proximal to the site of extrinsic compression of the
ureters. The ureters are seen to be fibrosed over a substantial distance, starting inferiorly and progressing superiorly. The
ureters are deviated medially toward the midline. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Ortner’s disease
2. Ollier’s disease
3. Ogilvie’s disease
Ans. 4. Ormond’s disease
USMLE Case Scenario

During an abdominal examination, a 45-year-old patient from New Jersey is seen to lie quietly in the medical emergency. He
appears acutely ill with tachypnea and tachycardia. Hypotension is present, respirations are shallow, and deep breathing or
coughing produces severe abdominal pain. The patient is febrile. Percussion reveals the abdomen to be extremely tender,
especially in the epigastric region. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a firm board-like appearance, with rigidity of the rectus
muscles.
Rebound tenderness is seen, present in all four quadrants, and is worse in the epigastric region. Auscultation of the abdomen
reveals hypoactive bowel sounds that progress to absent bowel sounds.
These findings confirm:
2. Acute hepatitis
3. Acute cholangitis
4. Acute mesenteric adenitis
5. Generalized peritonitis
6. Small bowel obstruction
7. Large bowel obstruction
Ans. 5. Generalized peritonitis
Surgery 607
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old female presents with peritoneal infection, cirrhosis and poor hepatic function. A diagnosis of spontaneous
bacterial peritonitis is made. The clinical features include ascites, fever, abdominal pain, and encephalopathy. Rebound
tenderness is also seen. The diagnosis was established by peritoneal fluid aspiration with Gram stain and assessment of
polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Most likely causative agent is:
1. Streptococcus
2. Pneumococcus
3. Meningococcus
4. Listeria
5. Escherichia coli
6. Proteus
7. Pseudomonas
8. Klebsiella
Ans. 5. Escherichia coli
USMLE Case Scenario

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome consists of triad of:
1. Giant fibroadenoma, Thrombocytosis, Coagulopathy
2. Giant fibroadenoma, Thrombocytopenia, Coagulopathy
3. Giant hemangioma, Thrombocytopenia, Coagulopathy
4. Giant hemangioma, Thrombophilia, Coagulopathy
Ans. 3. Giant hemangioma, Thrombocytopenia, Coagulopathy
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with macrocephaly and hydrocephalus. Further cerebral ischemia but high-output cardiac failure due to
the tremendous arteriovenous shunting is seen on evaluation. Most likely cause is:
1. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
2. Vein of Galen aneurysm
3. Arnold-Chiari malformation
4. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Ans. 2. Vein of Galen aneurysm
It is a vascular malformations of the brain are common causes of intracerebral hemorrhage in the pediatric age group.
The classic arteriovenous malformation (AVM) is the most common, with cavernous angiomas and venous angiomas less
commonly associated with hemorrhage.
USMLE Case Scenario

A bacterium is the cause of nonclostridial necrotizing soft tissue infections. The most common pathogen recovered when no
prior injury or operation is the cause of the infection is:
1. Clostridium perfringens
3. Shigella
4. Yersinia
5. Pseudomonas
6. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcal pyogenes
Ans. 6. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcal pyogenes
•• The only bacterium commonly reported as the sole cause of nonclostridial necrotizing soft tissue infections is beta-hemolytic
S. pyogenes.
•• This happens to be the most common pathogen recovered when no prior injury or operation is the cause of the infection.
•• Postoperative and postinjury cases of necrotizing soft tissue infection are most often caused by mixed bacterial species, including
aerobic and anaerobic pathogens, both gram-positive and gram-negative, a very similar spectrum to that seen in intra-abdominal
infections.
USMLE Case Scenario

Palpating left iliac fossa and then quickly releasing your hand, the patient feels pain at a point two-thirds of the way from the
umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine. This is diagnostic of:
1. Cholecystitis and called Boas’ sign
2. Mesenteric adenitis and called McBurney’s sign
3. Pancreatitis and called Cullen’s sign
4. Appendicitis and called McBurney’s sign
5. Appendicitis and called Rovsing’s sign
Ans. 5. Appendicitis and called Rovsing’s sign
USMLE Case Scenario

In a 66-year-old female in Wales, subtotal thyroidectomy is performed, but following the surgery, the woman is extremely
hoarse and can barely speak above a whisper. This hoarseness is most probably related to damage to a branch of which of the
following cranial nerves?
1. Facial
2. Glossopharyngeal
3. Hypoglossal
4. Trigeminal
5. Vagus
Ans. 5. Vagus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 43-year-old man from Toledo develops a mass on the back of his left hand. He is reluctant to get it checked but on persistent
pressure from his wife, he consults a dermatologist. On consulting a dermatologist after a few days it is seen that the lesion
on his left hand consists of a round, firm, flesh-colored, 1.2 cm nodule with sharply rising edges and a central crater. Keratotic
debris can be expressed from the central crater. The lesion has developed very rapidly over about a two-month period. Which
1. Wart
2. Solar keratosis
3. Sebaceous cyst
4. Keratoacanthoma
5. Lipoma
6. Malignant melanoma
8. Seborrheic keratosis
Ans. 4. Keratoacanthoma
ORTHOPEDICS
Orthopedics 6
USMLE Case Scenario
The Neural structure most commonly injured as a result of an anterior dislocation of the shoulder is the:
1. Musculocutaneous nerve
2. Axillary nerve
3. Axillary artery
4. Median nerve
Ans. 2. Axillary Nerve
The axillary nerve is at greatest risk for injury. Occasionally a more severe neurologic deficit can occur as a result of injury to
the brachial plexus.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old carpenter describes a fall on the outstretched hand during routine activities. Multiple radiographic views show
no distinct fracture. He is tender to palpation in the anatomic snuffbox. The most suitable method of management is:
1. Diagnose sprained wrist and apply an elastic bandage
2. Diagnose suspected scaphoid fracture and apply a short-arm cast to include the thumb
3. Immobilize the wrist
4. Prescribe NSAIDS/Salicylates and permit continued activity
5. Do an open reduction
6. Wait and watch till any complication occurs
Ans. 2. Diagnose suspected scaphoid fracture and apply a short-arm cast to include the thumb
A short-arm cast to include the thumb is the most appropriate treatment. Salicylates and continued activity would not treat
scaphoid fracture. Fracture scaphoid is a tricky thing to diagnose.
If no fracture is noted initially, the cast is applied and films are taken at 10 days to 2 weeks since nondisplaced scaphoid
fractures are often more easily visualized at that time.
USMLE Case Scenario

Dislocation of the Radial head with a fracture of the Proximal Third of the ulna is known as:
1. Monteggia’s deformity
2. Galezzi deformity
3. Colles deformity
4. Subluxation
5. Nursemaids elbow
Ans. 1. Monteggia’s deformity
USMLE Case Scenario

Compartment Syndrome results from increasing pressures in the fascial compartments of the arm or leg. Pulselessness,
Extreme, pallor of the extremity, motor paralysis and paresthesias are all components of the syndrome. Pain is usually seen as:
1. Pain on active flexion of the fingers or toes
2. Pain on passive flexion of the fingers or toes
3. Pain on lateral movements of the fingers or toes

4. Pain on passive extension of the fingers or toes
Ans. 4. Pain on passive extension of the fingers or toes
The patient will usually hold the injured part in a position of flexion to maximally relax the fascia and reduce the pain; passive
extension will usually produce severe pain.
USMLE Case Scenario

Osteitis fibrosa cystic or Recklinghausen disease of the bone:
1. Is bone mineralization due to rapid mobilization of mineral salts
2. Is bone mineralization due to nonmobilization of mineral salts
3. Is bone demineralization due to rapid mobilization of mineral salts
4. Is bone demineralization due to nonmobilization of mineral salts
Ans. 3. Is bone demineralization due to rapid mobilization of mineral salts
USMLE Case Scenario

In Erb (Erb-Duchenne) palsy, the upper roots of the brachial plexus are injured (C5–6). A deformity resulting in paralysis of the
shoulder and arm muscles; the arm hangs limply to the side and is extended and internally rotated is usually due to:
1. C5 –C6 injury
2. C7 –C8 injury
3. C2 –C3 injury
4. C8 –T1 injury
Ans. 1. C5–C6 injury
In Erb (or Erb-Duchenne) palsy, the upper roots of the brachial plexus are injured (C5–6). Lower trunk is involved in Klumpkes
Palsy
USMLE Case Scenario

Podagra is usually seen as:
1. Pain in the thoracic vertebrae
2. Pain in the lumbar vertebrae
3. Pain in the metacarpal phalangeal joint
4. Pain in the metatarsal phalangeal joint
5. Pain in the Hip joint
6. Pain in the knee joint
Ans. 4. Pain in the metatarsal phalangeal joint
USMLE Case Scenario

A 32-year-old construction worker working in a high rise building arrives in the emergency department of New York after an
accident on the job. The tendon of the biceps brachi in the arm at the elbow has been severed by a laceration due to a sharp
instrument that extends 2.1 cm medially from the tendon. Which of the following structures is likely to have been injured by
medial extension of the laceration?
1. Brachial artery
2. Ulnar nerve
4. Profunda brachii artery
5. Radial nerve
6. Axillary nerve
Ans. 1. Brachial artery
The brachial artery is immediately medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii at the elbow. As the artery enters the forearm, it
is covered by the bicipit alaponeurosis, a broadening of the biceps tendon.
Orthopedics 613
USMLE Case Scenario

An 80-year-old woman residing in South Texas complains of nearly 4 month history of worsening gait and low back pain that
is worse on walking. She has been fairly healthy and only takes iron supplements. On examination, she has hypoactive muscle
stretch reflexes in the legs. The plain X-rays of the lumbosacral region show degenerative changes that seem age-appropriate.
1. Acute lumbar disk herniation
2. Cervical stenosis
3. Lumbar stenosis
4. Myeloma
5. Myopathy
6. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)
Ans. 3. Lumbar stenosis
It is caused by degenerative changes in the lumbosacral spine. The points in favor are of history of low back pain with subtle
physical examination findings referable to impingement on motor and sensory roots in the lumbar canal.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old boy was treated for retinoblastoma at the age of 1 year presented with pain and swelling around the knee, X-ray
showed some typical appearance. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Osteoclastoma
3. Osteoid osteoma
4. Bone cyst
5. Chondroma
6. Chondrosarcoma
Ans. 1. Osteosarcoma
Association of Retinoblastoma and Osteosarcoma is well established.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 46-year-old woman presents with chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, and frequent headaches. She states
that her musculoskeletal pain improves slightly with exercise. On examination, painful trigger points are produced by
palpitation of the trapezius and lateral epicondyle of the elbow. Signs of inflammation are absent and laboratory studies are
within normal. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Chronic Fatigue
2. Malignancy
3. Myositis
4. Neuropathy
5. Fibromyalgia
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old woman consults a physician because of a small but painless, pea-like lesion on the extensor aspect of her right
wrist. She finds the lesion causing cosmetic disfigurement. Grossly the lesion is white and translucent and oozes gelatinous
material when cut. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Osteoclastoma
3. Osteoid Osteoma
4. Bone cyst
5. Chondroma
6. Chondrosarcoma
7. Ganglion cyst
Ans. 7. Ganglion cyst
USMLE Case Scenario

A 72-year-old man, a farmer by occupation from comes for a follow-up visit. The man was a farmer and has been healthy
for most of his life. Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase level and total calcium level are within normal limits. Upon further
questioning, the man denies any abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, or other gastrointestinal symptoms. His Serum levels
show:
I. Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 15 U/L
II. Serum alkaline phosphatase 770 U/L
III. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 26 U/L
IV. Total serum bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
But his systemic examination shows slightly diminished hearing and a mild, chronic bilateral tinnitus. The most likely diagnosis
is:
1. Osteoclastoma
2. Osteoid osteoma
3. Bone cyst
4. Chondroma
5. Chondrosarcoma
6. Marble bone disease
7. Ganglion cyst
8. Osteitis deformans
Ans. 8. Osteitis deformans
Pagets Disease itself has high Serum Alkaline phosphatase levels
USMLE Case Scenario

A 13-year-old boy has a solitary lesion in his left femur which is exquisitely painful. Pain is described as a persistent discomfort
unrelated to activity or rest and is often worse at night. Curiously, pain is relieved for several hours by the use of Nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs. The lesion is composed of a central nidus of closely packed trabeculae of woven bone. Most likely
lesion is:
1. Bone cyst
2. Chondroma
3. Chondrosarcoma
4. Osteoid osteoma
5. Enchondromas
7. Ganglion cyst
Ans. 4. Osteoid osteoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A benign growth of hyaline cartilage lying in the medullary cavity of a bone arising from ectopic cartilaginous rests in the
phalanges and metacarpals was noticed by an orthopedician. Radiographically it is seen to be producing a lucent defect with
well defined margins and surrounding sclerotic reactive bone is most likely:
1. Osteoclastoma
2. Osteoid osteoma
3. Bone cyst
4. Chondroma
5. Chondrosarcoma
6. Enchondroma
8. Ganglion cyst
9. Osteitis deformans
Ans. 6. Enchondroma
Orthopedics 615
USMLE Case Scenario

A 15-year-old has a lesion in the metaphyseal end of his distal femur. Areas of lytic bone destruction mixed with areas of
reactive and tumor bone formations are seen. This tumor is seen to be rapidly permeating through the overlying cortex into
the subperiosteal space. It produces a characteristic appearance of trabecular bone oriented at right angles to the underlying
cortical surface.
Most likely tumor diagnosis is:
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Osteoid osteoma
3. Bone cyst
4. Chondroma
5. Chondrosarcoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A young girl presents with complaints of local pain and swelling in her femur. There is fever, leukocytosis, and an increased
erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The radiographic appearance shows the lesion to be occurring in the diaphysis with periosteal
elevation. Varying degrees of bone destruction and varying degrees of reactive new bone formation create a wide range of
radiographic appearances. Microscopically, the tumor is composed of uniform round cells gathered in nests or cords and
separated by thin fibrous septa. The Tumor is positive for glycogen on periodic acid–Schiff.
1. Osteoid osteoma
2. Bone cyst
3. Chondroma
4. Chondrosarcoma
5. Sarcoma
Ans. 5. Sarcoma
I mean Ewings Sarcoma. Sometimes questions are put like this
USMLE Case Scenario

15-year-old boy presented with a mass in the distal femur. X-ray from the lesion showed features of Codman’s Triangle and
Sun ray appearance. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Ewing’s sarcoma
3. Osteoclastoma
4. Chondroblastoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 72-year-old engineer from Colarado has pain and discomfort in addition to fever, anemia hypercalcemia and renal
failure related to extensive skeletal involvement and the abnormal production of immunoglobulins. The lesions would be
characteristic of:
1. Myeloma
2. Osteoid Osteoma
3. Bone cyst
4. Chondroma
5. Chondrosarcoma
6. Sarcoma
Ans. 1. Myeloma
USMLE Case Scenario

An obese boy in 2nd decade presents with Pain and with limited Flexion, Abduction of femoral head seen downwards and
Posteriorly has:
1. Perthes disease
2. Keinbocks disease
3. SCFE
4. Os good Schalters Disease
Ans. 3. SCFE
USMLE Case Scenario

A 13-year-old boy with a hot, tender swelling arising from diaphysis of bone with characteristic feature of onion skinning has:
1. Myeloma
2. Osteoid osteoma
3. Bone cyst
4. Chondroma
5. Chondrosarcoma
6. Sarcoma
Ans. 6. Ewings Sarcoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-year-old boy with Pain and limp. X-ray shows distorted femoral neck and Head:
1. Perthes disease
2. Keinbocks disease
3. SCFE
4. Os good Schalters disease
Ans. 1. Perthes disease
USMLE Case Scenario

An itching, squeezing pain sensation after amputation that an amputated limb is still attached and functioning with intensly
painful sensations is called as:
1. Phantom Limb
2. RDS
3. Myositis Ossificans
4. Sudecks Atrophy
5. Causalgia
6. Allodynia
Ans. 1. Phantom Limb
USMLE Case Scenario

Complex and progressive disease with pain swelling and changes in skin without demonstrable nerve lesions after injury:
1. Phantom Limb
2. Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
3. Myositis Ossificans
4. Causalgia
5. Allodynia
Ans. 2. Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
Orthopedics 617
USMLE Case Scenario

A boy presents with triad of Lytic bony lesions on skull, diabetes Insipidus and Exomphalos has:
1. Dercums Disease
2. Diidmoad Syndrome
3. Multiple Myeloma
4. Metastasis
5. Hand Schuller Christian Disease
Ans. 5. Hand Schuller Christian Disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old female who is a typist presents to her physician with mild complaints of burning and tingling sensations in the
left hand for several months. She is frequently awakened at night by pain in the same hand. The pain is elicited by extreme
dorsiflexion of the wrist. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Angina pectoris
2. Ainhum
3. Colles fracture
4. Cubital tunnel syndrome
6. Dupuytren contracture
7. Sudecks dystrophy
8. Fibrositis
Ans. 5. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of compression of the median nerve. Pain, tingling sensations and hypoesthesia in the
distribution of the median nerve are the main manifestations. Pain upon percussion on the volar aspect of the wrist (Tinel
sign) is characteristic. Carpal tunnel syndrome is most often idiopathic, but may represent a manifestation of underlying
disorders such as:
•• Rheumatoid arthritis
•• Sarcoidosis
•• Amyloidosis
•• Acromegaly
•• Leukemia
USMLE Case Scenario

An infant presents with failure to thrive, Pancytopenia. Bones are brittle and fracture easily. Infantile Osteopetrosis is the
diagnosis. Defect is found in:
1. Osteocytes
2. Osteoblasts
3. Osteoclasts
4. Blood vessels
Ans. 3. Osteoclasts
USMLE Case Scenario

A two-year-old presents with multiple fractures in different stages of healing brought by over concerned parents. Most likely
cause is:
2. Sexual abuse
3. Myositis ossificans
4. Battered baby syndrome
Ans. 4. Battered baby syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A six-year-old with bilateral and symmetrical fractures and blue sclera. Bones are osteopenic and brittle. Likely cause is:
2. Sexual abuse
3. Myositis ossificans
4. Battered baby syndrome
Ans. 1. Osteogenesis imperfecta
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient with multiple injuries on day 2 detiorates and develops Tachycardia, Tachypnea, ↓PO2 and rash. Most likely cause is:
1. Hemorrhage
2. Embolism
3. Thrombosis
4. Neurogenic shock
Ans. 2. Embolism
USMLE Case Scenario

Meralgia parasthetica is due to the involvement of:
1. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
2. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
3. Sural nerve
4. Femoral nerve
5. Obturator nerve
6. Saphenous nerve
7. Iliohypogastric nerve
8. Ilioinguinal nerve
Ans. 2. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
USMLE Case Scenario

Claw hand is caused by lesion involving:
1. Ulnar nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Radial nerve
4. Posterior interosseous nerve
Ans. 1. Ulnar nerve
USMLE Case Scenario

Disorder of the growth plate in which the hypertrophic cartilage is not resorbed and ossified normally resulting in masses
of cartilage with disorderly arrangement of the chondrocytes showing variable proliferative and hypertrophic changes and
masses located in the metaphyses in close association with the growth plate in children with common sites of involvement are
the ends of long bones is a feature of:
1. Myeloma
2. Osteoid osteoma
3. Bone cyst
4. Enchondroma
5. Chondrosarcoma
6. Sarcoma
Ans. 4. Enchondroma
Orthopedics 619
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old Scandinavian has a family history has a fixed flexion contracture of the hand where the fingers bend towards the
palm and cannot be fully extended. Pathology is underlying contractures of the palmar aponeurosis. Most likely condition is:
1. Tenosynovitis
3. Volkmans contracture
4. Ape hand
5. Dupuytren’s contracture
Ans. 5. Dupuytren’s contracture
USMLE Case Scenario

A drug which is an Activator of calcium sensing receptor in the parathyroid gland (augments feedback inhibition of PTH by
Ca++) is:
1. Etidronate
2. Cinacalcet
3. Pamidronate
4. Plicamycin
5. Gallium nitrate
Ans. 2. Cinacalcet
USMLE Case Scenario

In Paget’s Disease:
1. Calcium levels ↑, Phosphate levels ↑
2. Calcium levels ↑, Phosphate levels ↓
3. Calcium level ↓, Phosphate levels ↓
4. Calcium levels N, Phosphate levels ↑
5. Calcium levels ↑, Phosphate levels N
6. Calcium levels N, Phosphate levels N
Ans. 6. Calcium levels N, Phosphate levels N
USMLE Case Scenario

A disease is characterized by Deposition of Pyrophosphate crystals with Crystals Rhomboid in shape, positively Birefrigent
and Usually large joints affected. Most likely cause is:
2. Gouty arthritis
3. Alkaptonuria
Ans. 4. CPPD deposition disease
USMLE Case Scenario

Indicator of bone formation is:
1. AFP
2. C-telopeptide
3. Deoxypyridinoline (DPD)
4. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

5. Osteocalcin
6. Pyridinium Crosslinks
7. GGT
Ans. 5. Osteocalcin
USMLE Case Scenario

Increased bone density is seen in:
1. Hypervitaminosis B and Hypervitaminosis D
2. Hypervitaminosis C and Hypervitaminosis D
3. Hypervitaminosis E and Hypervitaminosis D
4. Hypervitaminosis A and Hypervitaminosis D
5. Hypervitaminosis B and Hypervitaminosis C
6. Hypervitaminosis A and Hypervitaminosis C
Ans. 4. Hypervitaminosis A and Hypervitaminosis D
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echo-
cardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis:
1. Acute MI
3. Hypotensive shock
4. Cardiac tamponade
Ans. 2. Pulmonary embolism
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old man had road traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden
breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:
1. Pneumonia
2. Congestive heart failure
3. Bronchial asthma
4. Fat Embolism
Ans. 4. Fat Embolism
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old young boy presents to a Rheumatology clinic with chief complaints of low back pain for the past 6 months
which was accompanied by stiffness of the lower spine. He denies any gastrointestinal or genital infections. Detailed Physical
Examination reveals moderate limitation of back motion and tenderness of the lower spine. X-ray films of the vertebral
column and pelvic region show flattening of the lumbar curve and subchondral bone erosion involving the sacroiliac joints.
2. Gout
3. Caplans syndrome
5. Degenerative joint disease
6. Reiter syndrome
Orthopedics 621

8. Still disease
9. Caplans syndrome
Ans. 4. Ankylosing spondylitis
It should be suspected in any young person complaining of chronic lower back pain and confirmed by radiographs or CT scans
of sacroiliac joints.
USMLE Case Scenario

Brown Tumor is seen in:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
4. Hyperparathyroidism
Ans. 4. Hyperparathyroidism
USMLE Case Scenario

Feature of a bony disease is generalized osteopenia with recurrent fractures and skeletal deformity. Fracture healing
however is normal. Fracture in utero may be seen. Laxity of joint ligaments leads to hypermobility. The disease is Identified as
Osteogenesis imperfecta. Defect lies in:
1. Elastin
2. Chondroblasts
3. Chondrocutes
4. Osteoblasts
5. Osteocytes
6. Osteoclasts
7. Collagen
8. Fibrillin
Ans. 7. Collagen
USMLE Case Scenario

A nerve of upper limb Supplies Extensor Compartment of Arm and Forearm, traverses Spiral groove and is accompanied by
Profunda Brachii vessels is:
1. Ulnar nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Radial nerve
5. Posterior interosseous nerve
6. Axillary nerve
7. Suprascapular nerve
Ans. 3. Radial nerve
USMLE Case Scenario

The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of the:
1. Subclavius, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres major muscles
2. Subclavius, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor muscles
3. Supraspinatus, latismusdorsi, subscapularis and teres minor muscles
4. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor muscles
Ans. 4. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and teres minor muscles
USMLE Case Scenario

Wartenburgs Syndrome is:
1. Entrapment of Sensory branch of Radial nerve as it emerges beneath Brachioradialis proximal to Radial Styloid process
2. Entrapment of motor branch of ulnar nerve as it emerges beneath Brachioradialis proximal to Radial Styloid process
3. Entrapment of Sensory branch of median nerve as it emerges beneath Brachioradialis proximal to Radial Styloid process
4. Entrapment of motor branch of Radial nerve as it emerges beneath Brachioradialis proximal to Radial Styloid process
Ans. 1. Entrapment of Sensory branch of Radial nerve as it emerges beneath Brachioradialis proximal to Radial Styloid process
USMLE Case Scenario

Osteopathia striata is:
2. Spotted bone disease
3. Stripped bone disease
4. Candle bone disease
Ans. 3. Stripped bone disease
USMLE Case Scenario

Panners disease is:
1. Osteochondritis of lunate
2. Osteochondritis of Metatarsal head
3. Osteochondritis of capitulum
4. Osteochondritis of vertebrae
5. Osteochondritis of patella
Ans. 3. Osteochondritis of capitulum
USMLE Case Scenario

A bony disease is characterized Increased generation and overactivity of osteoclasts and the calcification rate is
characteristically increased with increased urinary excretion of small peptides containing hydroxyproline reflects:
1. Myeloma
3. Pagets disease
4. Eosinophilic granuloma
5. Caffeys disease
Ans. 3. Pagets Disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A tumor like lesion which is developmental in origin and hormone dependent. Pathology is replacement of bone by fibrous
tissue. X-ray shows ‘Ground glass’ appearance and ‘Chinese lettering of bone. Most likely disease is:
1. Pagets disease
3. Osteoma
4. Osteoclastoma
5. Dysplasia of fibrous type
Ans. 5. Dysplasia of fibrous type
Orthopedics 623
USMLE Case Scenario

A bony disease is characterized Increased generation and overactivity of osteoclasts and the calcification rate is
characteristically increased with increased urinary excretion of small peptides containing hydroxyproline reflects:
1. Myeloma
3. Pagets disease
4. Eosinophilic granuloma
5. Caffeys disease
Ans. 3. Pagets Disease
Pagets disease
OPHTHALMOLOGY
Ophthalmology 7
Anatomy of Eye
Muscles of eye and their innervations
•• The ‘Extorter’ of Eye Ball is Inferior Oblique and Inferior Rectus
•• The ‘Intorter’ of Eye ball is Superior Oblique and Superior Rectus
•• Action of Superior oblique is Abduction, Intorsion and depression
•• Dilator Pupillae dilates pupil and is supplied by Sympathetics
•• Sphincter Pupillae constricts pupil and is supplied by Parasympathetics
LR6S04
•• Lateral Rectus is supplied by 6th Cranial Nerve (Abducent)
•• Superior Oblique is supplied by 4th Cranial Nerve (Trochlear)
•• Rest other ocular muscles are supplied by 3rd Cranial Nerve (Occulomotor)
•• Levator palpabrae superior is supplied by 3rd caranial nerve
•• Muscle attached to posterior tarsal margin: Mullers muscle
•• Third nerve gets affected in a variety of syndromes of Midbrain such as:
–– Benedict’s Syndrome
–– Claude’s Syndrome
–– Weber’s Syndrome
–– Nothnagel’s Syndrome
Trigeminal nerve (Fifth Cranial nerve) is involved in afferent pathway of corneal reflex
Gems about Pupil

•• Sphincter pupillae is a circular ‘constrictor muscle’ innervated by Parasympathetic Nervous system
•• Dilator Pupillae is a ‘radial dilator’ innervated by Sympathetic Nervous system
•• Pupillary inequality is called ‘Anisocoria’
•• III Nerve lesion causes dilated pupil, Ptosis
•• Horners’ syndrome causes constricted pupil
•• Argyl Robertson Pupil: Small pupils, irregular in shapes which do not react to light but react to accommodation. (ARP:
Accomdation Reflex present)
•• Marcus Gunn Pupil (Pupillary Escape): Illumination of one eye normally produces constriction. In case light source is swung
from eye to eye, affected pupil may ‘paradoxically’ dilate. (Marcus Gunn Pupil) (Defect anterior to optic chiasma)
•• Aides Pupil: It is dysfunction of constrictor muscle and hence does not respond to light or to accommodation
(Tonic pupil)
Cornea
•• The cornea is quite unlike most tissues in that it is perfectly transparent
•• The epithelium consists of a thin layer of nonkeratinized stratified squamous
•• Corneal epithelium is very thin (only a few cells thick)

•• Corneal epithelium lies flat against the underlying substantia propria.
•• There is absence of connective tissue papillae
•• The Basement membrane between corneal epithelium and substantia propria is exceptionally thick and is called Bowman’s
membrane
•• The substantia propria of the cornea is mostly collagen and ground substance, with fibroblasts as the most common cell type
•• Collagen of the cornea is organized into extremely regular layers. All the collagen fibers in one layer arranged in parallel, and
alternating layers run in different directions
•• Corneal connective tissue has no blood vessels
•• Even though cells of the cornea are not very active metabolically, they still need oxygen and nutrients
•• As long as the cornea is in direct contact with air, oxygen can be absorbed directly
•• Nutrients can diffuse into cornea from aqueous humor. (avascular coat)
•• Cells of corneal connective tissue are limited to fibroblasts
•• There is no immune-system component; hence the relative ease with which corneal tissue can be transplanted without need for
careful tissue typing
•• Descemet’s membrane is a thick basal lamina made of elastic fibers over endothelium
•• Corneal endothelium is simple squamous epithelium present below Descemet’s membrane. Corneal epithelium contains free
nerve endings. Since pain seems to be the only sensation of cornea.
Layers of Retina
•• Retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)
•• Layer of rod and cone cells outer segments
•• Outer limiting membrane
•• Outer nuclear layer
•• Outer plexiform layer
•• Inner nuclear layer
•• Inner plexiform layer
•• Ganglion cell layer
•• Nerve fiber layer
•• Internal limiting membrane
The ‘Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus’

The Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) connects the
•• Oculomotor (III)
•• Trochlear (IV)
•• Abducens (VI) nuclei
It is essential for conjugate gaze
‘Alesion in the MLF will result in the inability to medially rotate (adduct) the ipsilateral eye on attempted lateral gaze.’
(Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia INO)
However, a lesion of the motor fibers of the right oculomotor nerve would also leads to the same symptoms. The way to truly distinguish
between an INO from a lesion of the medial rectus muscle or a lesion of the motor fibers of CN III is to determine whether the patient
can converge her eyes. If the innervation of the medial rectus muscle is interrupted the patient will not be able to move the ipsilateral
eye medially for either conjugate or dysconjugate (convergence) movements. However, if the lesion is in the MLF this would only
affect conjugate movement and not convergence.
Ophthalmology 629
Important Membranes in Ophthalmology

Bowman’s Membrane ‘Anterior’ limiting membrane of Cornea
Descemet’s Membrane ‘Posterior’ limiting membrane of Cornea
Bruch’s Membrane Pigment membrane in Retina
Elsching’s Membrane Astroglial membrane covering Optic Disk
Important Glands in Ophthalmology

•• Glands of Zeis •• Sebaceous glands
•• Glands of Moll •• Modified sweat glands
•• Glands of Krause and Wolfring •• Accessory Lacrimal glands
Structures Passing Through ‘Inferior Orbital Fissure’

•• Maxillary division of Trigeminal nerve
•• Infraorbital artery
•• Zygomatic nerve
•• Branches of inferior ophthalmic vein
‘The Annulus of Zinn’, also known as the ‘Annular tendon’ or ‘Common Tendinous Ring’
It is a ring of fibrous tissue surrounding the optic nerve at its entrance at the apex of the orbit? It is the origin for five of the six
extraocular muscles
Annulus of Zinn (Annulus communis tendinis) is seen to transmit: (NAO)
•• Occulomotor nerve
•• Nasociliary nerve
•• Abducent nerve
Structures Passing Through ‘Superior Orbital Fissure’ are

Live Free To See No Insult At All
•• Lacrimal Nerve
•• Frontal Nerve
•• Trochlear Nerve
•• Superior Ophthalmic Vein
•• Nasociliary Nerve
•• Inferior Ophthlamic vein
•• Abducent Nerve
Structures Passing Through ‘Optic Canal’

Structures passing through ‘Optic Canal’
•• Optic nerve and ophthalmic artery
‘Optic Nerve Glioma’

•• Causes gradual, painless loss of vision
•• A tumor of first decade of life
Associated with
•• Optic atrophy
•• Papilledema
Embryology of Eye (Very Important Topic for PG examinations)

Mesoderm Surface ectoderm Neuroectoderm
Sclera Corneal epithelium Epithelium of iris and ciliary body
Choroid Conjunctival epithelium Muscles of iris (constrictor pupillae and dilator pupillae)
Corneal stroma and endothelium Lens Retinal pigment epithelium
Iris stroma and endothelium Lacrimal and tarsal glands Optic vesicle
Blood vessels Optic nerve
Muscles except iris muscles L2 C2 Part of vitreous
But only smooth muscles of iris are
derived from mesoderm
Part of vitreous
Important Milestones in development of Eye

•• Eye of newborn is ‘Hypermetropic’ by 2 – 3D
•• Myelination of optic nerve is complete at birth
•• Orbit is divergent
•• At 6 weeks Fixation reflex is apparent
•• At 2 – 4 months is critical period for development of fixation reflex
•• During Ist 6 months binocular single vision develops
•• Binocular vision has important role in-depth perception
•• At 6 – 8 months depth perception develops
Angles of Eye
•• Alpha angle: Between visual axis and optical axis
•• Kappa angle: Between puppilary axis and visual axis
•• Visual angle: Angle subtended by object at nodal point of lens
Ophthalmological Tests
Direct Ophthalmoscopy Indirect Ophthalmoscopy
Condensing lens not required Condensing lens required
Examination close to patient Examination at a distance
Image is virtual and erect Image is real and inverted
Magnification is 15 times Magnification is 5 times
Stereopsis absent Stereopsis present
Area of field in focus is 2 disk diopters Area of field in focus is 8 disk diopters
Examination through hazy media not possible Examination through hazy media possible
Illumination not so bright Illumination bright is done for examination of periphery of retina up to orra seratta.
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Various other Important Tests

•• Keratometry: Measures Curvature of Cornea
•• Pachymetry: Thickness of cornea
•• Campimetry: Measures field of vision
•• Electronystatogram: Graph of movement of eye
•• Anomoloscope detects color blindness
•• Retinoscopy: Objective assessment of refractive state of eye
Tonometry measures IOP

Tonography measures rate of fall in IOP from which facility of aqeous outflow is measured
•• Gonioscopy measures angle of anterior chamber
•• Best type tonometry is applanation tonometry
•• Arden ratio is seen in EOG
Macular Function is tested by

•• Indirect slit lamp biomicroscopy
•• Photo stress test
•• Two point discrimination test (card board test)
•• Amsler grid test
•• Maddox rod test
•• Entopic view test
•• LASER interferometry
Visual Tests Done in Infants

•• Visual evoked potentials
•• Teller acuity tests
•• Cardiff acuity tests
•• Visual acuity by Landolts rings
•• Swinging flash light test tests: Pupil

•• Snellens chart tests: Vision
•• Retinoscopy detects errors of refraction
Important Points about Lids

•• Internal hordeolum: acute inflammation of ‘Zeis glands.’
•• Chalazion is chronic inflammation of ‘Meibomian gland’
•• ‘Recurrent’chlazion is predisposed to sebaceous cell carcinoma
•• ‘Basal cell carcinoma’ is the most common type of lid carcinoma
•• Adhesion of margins of two lids is called Ankyloblepharon.
Congenital Chronic Dacrocystitis

•• Failure of nasolacrimal duct to open into inferior meatus of noseleads to dacrocystitis
•• Presents with
•• Epiphora (abnormal tear overflow)
•• Regurgitation of pus
•• Treated by: Massage over Lacrimal sac, Lacrimal syringing, Probing, Intubation with silicone tube, Dacrosystorhinostomy
•• Dacrocystectomy
•• Conjunctivocystorhinostomy
Field Defects
‘Visual Field Defects’
The main points for the exam are:
•• Left homonymous hemianopia means visual field defect to the left, i.e. lesion of right optic tract
•• Homonymous quadrantanopias: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)
•• Incongruous defects = optic tract lesion; congruous defects= optic radiation lesion or occipital cortex
Homonymous Hemianopia
•• Incongruous defects: Lesion of optic tract
•• Congruous defects: Lesion of optic radiation or occipital cortex
•• Macula sparing: Lesion of occipital cortex
Homonymous Quadrantanopia
•• Superior: Lesion of temporal lobe
•• Inferior: Lesion of parietal lobe
•• Mnemonic = PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)
Bitemporal Hemianopia
•• Lesion of optic chiasm
•• Upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect = inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumor
•• Lower quadrant defect > upper quadrant defect = superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma.
Cranial Nerve II (OPTIC Nerve)

•• It is the nerve of Vision
•• It is not a true nerve but basically a diverticulum of the brain or a tract of the C N S
•• It is covered by the meninges and hence any infection can spread directly to the brain
•• The optic nerve has no neurilemma sheath and once damaged it cannot regenerate
•• It leaves the orbit through the Optic Canal.
The complete optic pathway has:

1. A receptor
2. A pathway to the Thalamus
3. A nucleus in the Thalamus
4. A radiation from the thalamus to the Cortex
5. A sensory area in the Cortex
The receptors are the rods and cones of the retina and the thalamic nucleus for vision is the lateral geniculate body.
Functionally, the retina is composed of 3 elements, i.e. three neurones carry the impulses in the retina ‘Itself’, these are:
1. The receptor cells (The rods and cones)
2. The bipolar nerve cells
3. The ganglion cells
•• The rods and cones synapse with the bipolar cells (in the retina)
•• The bipolar cells synapse with the ganglion cells (in the retina also)
•• The axons of the ganglion cells from the optic nerve which contains nasal and temporal fibers.
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•• The optic nerves pass to the optic chiasma (which lies immediately in front of the pituitary gland)
•• The nasal fibers of the optic nerve cross to the opposite side while the temporal fibers remain on the same side
•• The part of the visual pathway which passes backwards from the chiasma is called the optic tract
•• Each optic tract carries «temporal» fibers of its «own» side and «nasal» fibers from the «opposite» side
•• Most of the fibers of the optic tract end in the lateral geniculate body while some fibers leave the optic tract to end in the superior
colliculus of the midbrain and in the pretectal nucleus.
The fibers of the optic tract which reach the superior Colliculus and the pretectal nucleus are concerned with the light reflex (i.e.
narrowing of the pupil in response to excess light) while those fibers of the optic tract which reach the lateral geniculate body from
part of the visual pathway which will reach the visual cortex
The optic radiation (or the geniculo-calcarine tract) [The pathway from the lateral geniculate body to the visual area of the cortex]
The lateral geniculate body (LGB) is the thalamic center for vision
The axons of the cells of the LGB form the «optic radiation» which passes in the internal capsule to reach to the «striate area» or the
Area 17 or the Visual Area in the occipital lobe
The optic radiation has fibers running downwards and forwards
The visual area
The «Visual Area» surrounds the calcarine fissure on the medial surface of the occipital lobe. It is formed of the cuneus and the lingual
gyrus.
Lesions of optic pathway

•• Destruction to one optic nerve → blindness in the corresponding eye

•• Lesion to the middle part of the optic chiasma is produced usually from a rumor of the pituitary gland (which lies very close to
the optic chiasma). The nasal fibers of the optic nerve which decussate in the chiasma are destroyed and visual impulses from
the nasal halves of each retina cannot pass to the optic tract; this means that there will be a defect in the temporal field of each
eye (a condition called Bitemporal hemianopia); in this case the left eye does not see images in the left ½ if its field and the right
eye does not see images in the right ½ of its field
•• A lesion of the optic tract interrupts fibers from one half of each retina. If the left tract is destroyed, visual function will be lost
in the left halves of both retinas. In this case there is blindness for objects in the right ½ of each field of vision; this condition is
called right homonymous hemianopia. In spite of the fact that one optic tract may be completely interrupted, vision is sometimes
preserved in small area (the area of the macula) which is the center of fixation of the eye
•• A lesion which destroys the left optic radiation Ú right homonymous hemianopia (as in case of lesion of the left optic tract).
•• Destruction of area 17 causes blindness.

•• Destruction of area 18: Patient can see but cannot recognize what he sees. This is called as ‘Mind blindness’
•• Destruction of area 19: Patient may be able to recognize objects but cannot recall their meaning. This is called ‘Word
Blindness’.
The Pituitary Tumor Compressing the Optic Chiasma
Pituitary tumor
VISION
Color Vision is tested by
•• Ishihara plates
•• Hardy rand Rittler plates
•• Edridge green lantern test
•• City university test
•• Farnsworth Munsell 199 hue test
•• Nagels anamoloscope
•• Holmgrens wool test
Important Basic Terminology

•• Amaurosis is complete loss of sight
•• Amblyopia is partial loss of sight
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•• Nyctalopia is night blindness

•• Hamarlopia is day blindness
•• Achromatopsia is color blindness
•• Protanomalous is defective red color appreciation
•• Dueteranomalous is defective green color appreciation
•• Tritanomalous is defective blue color appreciation
•• Protanopia is complete red color blindness
•• Deuteronopia is complete green color blindness
•• Tritanopia is complete blue color blindness
Amaurosis
This term refers to a ‘transient ischemic attack of the retina.’
•• Because neural tissue has a high rate of metabolism, interruption of blood flow to the retina for more than a few seconds results
in transient monocular blindness, a term used interchangeably with amaurosis fugax
•• Patients describe a rapid fading of vision like a curtain descending, sometimes affecting only a portion of the visual field
•• Amaurosis fugax usually occurs from an embolus that becomes stuck within a retinal arteriole
•• Ophthalmoscopy reveals zones of whitened, edematous retina following the distribution of branch retinal arterioles
•• Complete occlusion of the central retinal artery produces arrest of blood flow and a milky retina with a cherry-red fovea
•• Emboli are composed of either cholesterol (Hollenhorst plaque), calcium, or platelet-fibrin debris
•• The most common source is an atherosclerotic plaque in the carotid artery or aorta, although emboli can also arise from the
heart, especially in patients with diseased valves, atrial fibrillation, or wall motion abnormalities
•• Retinal arterial occlusion also occurs rarely in association with retinal migraine, lupus erythematosus, anticardiolipin
antibodies, anticoagulant deficiency states (protein S, protein C, and antithrombin III deficiency), pregnancy, intravenous
drug abuse, blood dyscrasias, dysproteinemias, and temporal arteritis
•• Amaurosis fugax warns of a patient at high-risk for stroke
•• Marked systemic hypertension causes sclerosis of retinal arterioles, splinter hemorrhages, focal infarcts of the nerve fiber layer
(cotton-wool spots) and leakage of lipid and fluid (hard exudate) into the macula. In hypertensive crisis, sudden visual loss can
result from vasospasm of retinal arterioles and consequent retinal ischemia. In addition, acute hypertension may produce visual
loss from ischemic swelling of the optic disk.
OPTIC REFLEXES
The Light Reflex
(Constriction of the pupil in response to excess light)
This is a ‘protective’ reflex: the pupil becomes narrow to prevent excess light from injuring the rods and cones in the retina
Types: There are 2 types of light reflex — Direct and Indirect
Direct Pupillary Reflex:
Light falls on the right eye → constriction of the right pupil
indirect Pupillary Reflex: (Consensual light reflex)
Light falls on the right eye → constriction of the left pupil.
Pathway of the Light Reflex

•• Excess light → RETINA → optic nerve → optic chiasma → optic tract
•• Some fibers leave the optic tract to reach the PRETECTAL NUCLEUS (which is part of the superior colliculus in Man). Each pretectal
nucleus sends fibers to the Edinger-Westphal (EW) part of the oculomotor nucleus of the two sides.
•• Edinger-Westphal parts of the oculomotor [III] nucleus of the Rt and Lt sides → (preganglionic fibers) in the oculomotor [III] nerves
(of both sides) → the ciliary ganglia (on both sides)
•• Each ciliary ganglion → (postganglionic fibers) in the short ciliary nerves → sphincter pupillae muscle → constriction of the pupil.
Light reflex
Accommodation Reflex
•• An object placed 6 meters or more from the eye considered a ‘far’ object and light rays falling on the eye from it are parallel and are
brought to focus on the retina. This is vision ‘at rest’
•• A ‘near’ object is placed nearer than 6 meters from the eye (e.g. a book). Light rays falling on the eye from a near object are
divergent. In order to bring them to focus on the retina the LENS MUST INCREASE ITS THICKNESS to have a stronger refractive
power. This is called accommodation. In order for the lens to increase its thickness, the ciliary muscle must contract; contraction of
the ciliary muscle → relaxation of the suspensory ligament of the lens → thicker and more powerful lens.
Pathway of Accommodation
•• Light from a near object → RETINA → optic nerve → optic chiasma → optic tract → Lateral geniculate body
(LGB) → optic radiation → AREA 17 of the occipital cortex
•• The first picture which falls on the eye does not fall in focus on the retina so the first picture which reaches the visual cortex is
blurred (not seen clearly). Area 17 now sends signal to area 19
•• In order to make the picture fall on the retina area 19 sends signal to the superior colliculus (in the midbrain) (by way of the
occipitotectal tract). The superior colliculus then sends orders to Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the third nerve → contractions
of the ciliary muscle → relaxation of the suspensory ligament → thicker and more powerful lens → picture NOW falls in
focus on the retina can be seen clearly when it reaches the visual area.
Why does a student who studies for a long-time become tired?
This is because he is contracting three sets of his muscles:

1. Contracting the ciliary muscle of both eyes (i.e. accommodation)
2. Contracting the medial rectus of both eyes at the same time (i.e. convergence)
3. Contracting the constrictor pupillae of both eyes (to prevent spherical aberration) and to see clearly
Corneal Reflex
Light touching of the cornea or conjunctiva results in blinking of the eyelids
On touching the cornea afferent impulses from the cornea or conjunctiva travel through the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal
nerve to the sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve. Internuncial neurons connect with the motor nucleus of the facial nerve on both
sides through the medial longitudinal fasciculus. The facial nerve which carries the efferent impulses supplies the orbicularis oculi
muscle, which causes closure of the eyelids.
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•• Rods are more sensitive to light

•• Cones, on the other hand, are sensitive to specific wavelengths of light allowing you to discern colors
The Fovea is a small shallow depression in the central region of the eye located such that:
•• Most of the incident light collected by the cornea and lens is focused onto this region
•• Most of the inner layers of the retina are markedly reduced or absent and what dominates is a layer of photoreceptors
•• Composed entirely of cone cells for very fine discrimination of colors and details
•• Retinal vessels are also absent in the region of the fovea. It is most sensitive part of eye.
Disorders of Cranial Nerves Related to Eye

The Third (Oculomotor) Nerve Palsy
It supplies all extraocular muscles except the superior oblique and the lateral rectus
Complete paralysis results in:
•• External ophthalmoplegia in a complete lesion inability to move the eye upward, inward and downward
•• External Squint: The eye is deviated laterally and downwards due to the unopposed action of the lateral rectus and superior
oblique
•• Diplopia: A person sees double
•• Ptosis: Drooping of the upper eyelids due to paralysis of levator palpabrea superioris
•• Dilated nonreactive pupil due to paralysis of the sphincter pupillae
•• The pupil also shows no reaction to light (direct or consensual), or to accommodation
•• Puppilary sparing is seen in diabetes mellitus.
The Fourth (Trochlear) Nerve Palsy

•• There is weakness or paralysis of the superior oblique muscle which normally moves the eye downwards and inwards
•• Result: Defective depression of the adducted eye. The patient is unable to look at his shoulder
•• Symptom presentation: DIPLOPIA (double vision), when looking downwards, e.g. when reading or descending the stairs. The
head may tilt to the opposite side to minimize the diplopia.
The Sixth (Abducent) Nerve Palsy

The sixth nerve supplies the lateral rectus which normally rotates the eye laterally
Its paralysis causes:
•• Internal Squint: The eyeball is turned inwards due to unopposed adduction of the medial rectus
•• Diplopia, which is maximum on looking outwards
•• Limitation of abduction of the corresponding eye.
•• Arygyll Robertson Pupil

This consists of:
•• Constriction of the pupil (meiosis), which fails to dilate completely with mydriatics
•• Irregularity of the pupil
•• Absence of light reflex, but normal accommodation reflex. This combination is diagnostic of the condition
•• It is especially seen in Syphilis of the Nervous System (NEURO SYPHILIS).
Adie’s Tonic Pupil

•• The pupil is dilated in one eye
•• Loss of light reflex (direct and consensual)
•• The condition is benign and is seen in healthy individuals (mostly females)
Horner’s Syndrome
This results from paralysis of the sympathetic fibers at any site along its long course in the head, in the neck or mediastium as a result,
e.g. of neoplasm or trauma. It consists of:
•• Ptosis, which is partial: The lid may be slightly raised voluntarily
•• Enophthalmos
•• Miosis: Fixed construction, i.e. does not dilate on shading the eye
•• Anhydrosis: Loss of sweating on ipsilateral half of head and face when the lesion is proximal to sympathetic fiber separation along
the external carotid
•• Loss of the ciliospinal reflex
Causes:
•• Brainstem (vascular-syringobulbia)
•• Cervical cord (glioma- syringobulbia)
•• Damage to C8, T1
•• Cervical sympathetic chain damage by: pancoast tumor of lung.
Remember Important Points about Nerves Supplying Eye

•• The sixth cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle
•• Palsy of Abducens nerve produces horizontal diplopia, worse on gaze to the side of the lesion
•• Foville’s syndrome following ‘Dorsal pontine injury’(VI, VII) CN
•• Includes lateral gaze palsy VI
•• Ipsilateral facial palsy and VII
•• Contralateral hemiparesis incurred by damage to descending corticospinal fibers
•• Millard-Gubler syndrome following ‘Ventral pontine injury’ is similar, except for the eye findings. There is lateral rectus weakness
only, instead of gaze palsy, because the abducens fascicle is injured rather than the nucleus
•• Infarct, tumor, hemorrhage, vascular malformation, and multiple sclerosis are the most common etiologies of brainstem
abducens palsy
•• In the cavernous sinus, the nerve can be affected by carotid aneurysm, carotid cavernous fistula, tumor (Pituitary adenoma,
meningioma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma), herpes infection and Tolosa-Hunt syndrome
•• Unilateral or bilateral abducens palsy is a classic sign of raised intracranial pressure
Oculomotor Nerve: The third cranial nerve innervates the medial, inferior, and superior recti; inferior oblique; levator palpebrae
superioris; and the iris sphincter
Total palsy of the oculomotor nerve causes ptosis, a dilated pupil, and leaves the eye ‘down and out’ because of the unopposed
action of the lateral rectus and superior oblique
Injury to structures surrounding fascicles of the oculomotor nerve descending through the midbrain has given rise to a number of
classic eponymic designations
•• Nothnagel’s syndrome, injury to the superior cerebellar peduncle causes ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral
cerebellar ataxia
•• Syndrome, injury to the red nucleus results in ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral tremor, chorea and athetosis
•• Claude’s syndrome incorporates features of both the aforementioned syndromes, by injury to both the red nucleus and the
superior cerebellar peduncle
•• Weber’s syndrome, injury to the cerebral peduncle causes ipsilateral oculomotor palsy with contralateral hemiparesis
Trochlear Nerve: The fourth cranial nerve originates in the midbrain, just caudal to the oculomotor nerve complex
•• Fibers exit the brainstem dorsally and cross to innervate the contralateral superior oblique
•• The principal actions of this muscle are to depress and to intort the globe
•• Supplies superior oblique muscle
•• A palsy therefore results in hypertropia and excyclotorsion
•• The ‘head tilt test’ is a cardinal diagnostic feature
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•• Blepharitis: This refers to inflammation of the eyelids. The most common form occurs in association with acne rosacea or
seborrheic dermatitis.
•• A chalazion is a painless, ‘granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland that produces a pealike nodule within the
eyelid. It can be incised and drained, or injected with glucocorticoids
•• Recurrent chalazion might indicate malignant transformation. (sebaceous cell carcinoma)
•• Basal cell, squamous cell, or meibomian gland carcinoma should be suspected for any ‘nonhealing, ulcerative lesion’ of the
eyelids
•• Basal cell carcinoma:
–– It is the most common tumor of eyelid
–– Lower lid is the most common site
Found in association with
–– Xeroderma pigmentosa
–– Gorlin Goltz syndrome
Ptosis
‘Ptosis’: Drooping of upper eyelids
Tylosis: hypertrophy and drooping of eyelids
•• Blepharoptosis: This is an abnormal drooping of the eyelid. Unilateral or bilateral ptosis can be congenital, from dysgenesis of the
levator palpebrae superioris, or from abnormal insertion of its aponeurosis into the eyelid
•• Mechanical Ptosis: This occurs in many elderly patients from stretching and redundancy of eyelid skin and subcutaneous
fat (dermatochalasis). The extra weight of these sagging tissues causes the lid to droop. Enlargement or deformation of the eyelid
from infection, tumor, trauma or inflammation also results in ptosis on a purely mechanical basis
•• Aponeurotic Ptosis: This is an acquired dehiscence or stretching of the aponeurotic tendon, which connects the levator
muscle to the tarsal plate of the eyelid. It occurs commonly in older patients, presumably from loss of connective tissue
elasticity. Aponeurotic ptosis is also a frequent sequela of eyelid swelling from infection or blunt trauma to the orbit, cataract
surgery, or hard contact lens usage
•• Myogenic Ptosis: The causes of myogenic ptosis include myasthenia gravis and a number of rare myopathies that manifest with
ptosis
•• In the Kearns-Sayre variant, retinal pigmentary changes and abnormalities of cardiac conduction develop. Peripheral muscle
biopsy shows characteristic ‘ragged-red fibers.’
•• Oculopharyngeal dystrophy is a distinct autosomal dominant disease with onset in middle age, characterized by ptosis, limited
eye movements, and trouble swallowing
•• Myotonic dystrophy, another autosomal dominant disorder, causes ptosis, ophthalmoparesis, cataract, and pigmentary
retinopathy. Patients have muscle wasting, myotonia and frontal balding and cardiac abnormalities
•• Neurogenic Ptosis: This results from a lesion affecting the innervation to either of the two muscles that open the eyelid: Muller’s
muscle or the levator palpebrae superioris
•• In Horner’s syndrome, the eye with ptosis has a smaller pupil and the eye movements are full
•• Patient with nonretractable ptosis gets corrected due to action like mimicking, chewingin marcus gunn jaw winking
syndrome
•• In oculomotor nerve palsy, the eye with the ptosis has a larger, or a normal, pupil. If the pupil is normal but there is limitation of
adduction, elevation, and depression, a pupil-sparing oculomotor nerve palsy is likely
•• Corrected by Blaskowicks operation.
Horner’s Syndrome
•• Ptosis
•• Miosis
•• Anhydrosis
•• Loss of ciliospinal reflex

•• Treated by Fasanella-Servat operation
Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Features

Infection from nose, sinuses, orbits or pharynx with high fever, chills and
•• Ptosis
•• Proptosis
•• Chemosis
•• Loss of accommodation and loss of puppilary reflex
•• Dilated pupil
•• Diplopia
•• Engorged retinal veins
Swellings in Relation to Eye

•• Dermoid cyst •• Located subcutaneously a long embryonic lines of closure
•• Capillary hemangioma •• Most common tumor of orbit and periorbital areas in childhood
•• Orbital pseudotumor •• Enlargement of extraoccular muscles
•• Cavernous hemangioma •• Most common benign orbital tumor. Most common in second to fifth decade.
REFRACTIVE ERRORS
Myopia
•• Myopia is short sightedness
•• Rays of light focused in front of retina
•• Big eyeball is seen
•• Corrected by concave lens
•• Deep anterior chamber
•• Patient squeezes eyes to see distant things clearly
•• Myopic crescents (on temporal side)
•• Foster Fuchs spots
•• Cystoid Degeneration
•• Lattice and Snail track degeneration
•• Peripheral retinal degeneration
•• Posterior staphyloma
Surgeries for Myopia

•• Radial keratotomy (SMALL DEGREE)
•• Photorefractive keratotomy
•• Automated lamellar keratectomy
•• Soft contact lens
•• LASIK
•• LASEK
•• Intracorneal rings
•• Clear lens extraction
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Hypermetropia
•• It is long sightedness
•• Rays of light focused behind retina
•• Corrected by convex Lens
•• Shallow anterior chamber
•• Eyeball and cornea are small
Presbyopia
•• Not an error of refraction
•• Weakness of ciliary muscles, ligaments
•• Loss of elasticity of lens capsule
•• Condition of physiological insufficiency of accommodation
•• Loss of power of accommodation is seen
•• Physiological change appropriate for age
•• Treatment is convex lens
Astigmatism
•• It is spherical aberration
•• Due to irregular curvature of cornea
•• Corrected by convex lens
Aphakia
It is absence of crystalline lens
•• Eye becomes hypermetropic
•• Accommodation is lost
–– Deep anterior chamber
–– Jet black pupil
•• Iridodenesis
•• Purkinje image test show only two test images
•• Post chamber IOL is the treatment of choice
•• Spectacles are prescribed to patient of aphakia after 6 weeks of surgery
Important Facts
–– ↑ inter pupillary distance: Hypertelorism
–– ↓ inter pupillary distance: Hypotelorism
–– ↑ inter canthal distance: Telecanthus
•• Convergent squint (esotropia) is due to 6th nerve palsy
•• Divergent squint (exotropia) is due to 3rd nerve palsy
•• In paralytic squint primary deviation < secondary deviation
•• Inconcomitant squint primary deviation = secondary deviation
Nystagmus
•• Down beat Nystagmus is seen in cerebellar/brainstem lesions, multiple sclerosis, alcohol, anticonvulsants and lithium intoxication
•• Upbeat Nystagmus is seen in pontine lesions
•• Vestibular Nystagmus is seen in Menier’s disease, Vestibular lesions
•• Rotatory Nystagmus: Miners Nystagmus
Anisokenia: Difference in image size. (USE CONTACT LENS)

Anisometropia: Difference in refraction of two eyes
Anisocoria: Difference in pupil size of two eyes
Conjunctiva
Conjunctivitis and most frequently asked questions
•• Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis: Enterovirus adenovirus coxsackie virus

•• Acute purulent conjunctivitis Staph, aureus
•• Phylenticular conjunctivitis: Tuberculosis, staph aureus
•• Giant papillary conjunctivitis: Contact lens
•• Acute membranous conjunctivitis: Cornyebacterium diphtheriae, streptococcus hemolyticus
•• Acute follicular conjunctivitis:Chlamydia trachomatis
•• Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis Pharyngo Conjunctival fever: Adenovirus
•• Granulomatous conjunctivitis: Granulomatous diseases
•• Angular conjunctivitis: Moraxella
Phylenticular Conjunctivitis
•• Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
•• Due to staph aureus (MC) and tuberculous protein
•• Koeppes nodule
•• Busaca nodules are manifestations
•• MC allergic manifestation is Koppes nodule
•• Phylycten is hence due to endogeneous causes
•• Doc : Topical steroids
Spring Catarrh
•• Recurrent, bilateral conjunctivitis
•• Horner Trantas spots on bulbar conjunctiva
•• More common in summer not spring
•• Burning and itching are common
•• Cobble stone appearance of palpebral conjunctiva
•• Pseudogerentoxon with cuspid bow appearance
•• Papillary hypertrophy
•• Type 1 Hypersensitivity
•• Maxwell lyon sign (stringy, ropy discharge)
•• Shield ulcer
•• DOC: steroids
Trachoma
•• Trachoma is a chronic Keratoconjunctivitis affecting conjunctiva and cornea simultaneously
•• It is caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis11 Serotypes (A-K)
•• It is one of the leading causes of preventable blindness.
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•• Unhygienic conditions predispose

•• Incubation period of trachoma varies from 5–21 days
•• Trachoma is characterized by presence of follicles which contain Histiocytes, lymphocytes and large multinucleated cells called
‘Leber cells’
•• Trachoma is characterized by presence of Limbal follicles or ‘Herberts Pits’ formed on the cornea near the limbus
•• Conjunctival scarring may be present in the form of irregular or stellate present in sulcus subtarsalis called ‘Art is line.’
•• ‘Pannus’: Infiltration of cornea with vascularization is a feature
•• SAFE strategy (Surgery, antibiotics, facial cleanliness, environmental improvement
•• DOC: Tetracycline.
Pinguecula:
•• It is a small, raised conjunctival nodule at the temporal or nasal limbus. In adults such lesions are extremely common and have
little significance, unless they become inflamed (pingueculitis)
•• It is hyaline infiltration and elastotic degeneration
Pterygium:
•• Resembles a pinguecula but has crossed the limbus to encroach upon the corneal surface. Removal is justified when symptoms
of irritation or blurring develop, but recurrence is a common problem
•• It is elastotic degeneration with proliferation of vascularized granulation tissue
•• Stocker’s line is seen
•• Mitomycin, thiotepa and β irradiation are used for treatment.
Glaucoma
•• Aqueous humor is produced by ciliary processes. At the rate of 2 µl/min
•• Aqueous humor has less protein than plasma
•• It maintains IOP. (Intraocular pressure)
•• It provides substrates and removes metabolites from cornea
•• It flows from posterior chamber to anterior chamber
•• Carbonic anhydrase is important in aqueous humor production
•• Conventional outflow is main pathway and uveoscleral outflow is minor pathway
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of nausea, vomiting, and a severe headache. Last night
he awoke with severe pain, and his family brought him to the nearest emergency room. He has never suffered symptoms
like this in the past. His headache is mainly retro-orbital, and much of his pain actually seems to originate in his left eye. On
examination, the man shields his left eye with his hand. The eye is markedly red and infected and the cornea appears hazy. The
pupil is mid-dilated and minimally reactive to light. The right eye appears normal. Visual acuity tested with a Snellen chart is
20/40 OD and 20/200 OS. Which of the following is the most likely location of this patient’s lesion?
1. Conjunctiva
2. Cornea
3. Iris
4. Lens
5. Retina
Ans. 3. Iris
This patient has a classic presentation of acute angle closure glaucoma.
‘Congenital Glaucoma’
•• Boys effected more
•• Bilateral
•• Blepharospasm
•• Big, (Buphthalmos) ‘ox eyes’, Large cornea
•• Blue eyes
•• Presents as photophobia
•• Hazy frosted glass cornea due to edema with Habbs striae. ‘Habbs striae are due to breaks in descemet’s membrane where
corneal opacities appear as lines with double contours’
•• Lens flattened anteroposteriorly
•• Deep anterior chamber.
•• Goniotomy or Trabeculotomy is used for treatment.
•• Trabeculectomy is considered in case of failure of above procedures
•• Trabeculotomy and trabeculectomy (Combined) is preferential method of choice
•• ‘Hereditary glaucoma’ is due to optineurin abnormality.
‘Secondary’ Congenital Glaucoma is associated with

•• Aniridia
•• Sturge Weber syndrome
•• Rubella
•• Mesodermal dysgenesis
Megalocornea:
•• Defined as diameter of cornea > 11.7 mm at birth or > 13 mm at age 2 years
•• Cornea usually clear with normal thickness and vision
•• Usually bilateral and nonprogressive
•• Associated with Marfan’s syndrome
Primary Open Angle Glaucoma

•• Mostly asymptomatic or progressive painless loss of vision
•• Difficulty in near work and frequent change of presbyopic glasses
•• Mild headache or eye ache
•• Optineurin gene and MYOC gene are implicated in pathogenesis
•• Classical Triad is ↑IOP, classic Field defects, Cupping of optic disk
Visual Field Defects in Glaucoma are

•• Barring of blind spot. (early)
•• Paracentral scotoma in Bjerrum’s area or arcuate area
•• Seidels scotoma
•• Arcuate or bjerrums scotoma
•• Roenne’s nasal step
•• Tubular vision
•• Total blindness
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Optic Disk Changes in Glaucoma are

•• Oval cup, Asymmetric cup or Large cup
•• Splinter hemorrhages
•• Pallor of cup
•• Atrophy of retinal nerve fiber layer
•• Pallor of disk
•• Bayoneting sign, Lamellar dot sign
Ist line treatment is: Timolol

Argon LASER Trabeculoplasty is done in open angle glaucoma
ANGLE CLOSURE GLAUCOMA

Predisposing Factors
•• Shallow anterior chamber
•• Anterior dislocation of iris-lens diaphragm
•• Small corneal diameter
•• Hypermetropia

•• Dilatation of pupil in dimlight
•• Atropine, mydriatics worsen the condition
•• May present as painful red eye with headache, nausea vomiting
Features (In Increasing Order of Severity and Progression)

•• Narrow angle, shallow anterior chamber
•• IOP ↑with pupil dilated
•• Sudden onset severe pain in eye with nausea, vomiting, progressive loss of vision, photophobia, lacrimation
•• Pupilis semi dilated, vertically oval and fixed
•• It is nonreactive to light and accommodation
•• Eye becomes painful, irritable and completely blind
•• In acute congestive stage of PACG pilocarpine is the ‘initial DOC’
•• Laser iridotomy and surgical iridectomy are procedures of choice
•• The fellow eye requires prophylactic peripheral iridotomy and surgical iridectomy
•• PPP (Painful, Pilocarpine, Peripheral iridotomy)
Neovascular Glaucoma
Usually associated with neovascularization of Iris (Rubeosis iridis). Seen in association with:
•• Diabetic retinopathy
•• Eales disease
•• CRVO
•• Sickle cell retinopathy
•• CRAO
•• Intraocular tumors
•• Intraocular inflammation
•• Treated by Pan Retinal Photocoagulation
Steroid Induced Glaucoma:

The steroid most likely among the choices to cause steroid induced glaucoma on topical application is Betamethasone
Five to Six percent of people on Betamethasone develop increased IOP after 4 to 6 weeks
This condition is more in people with:
•• Primary open angle glaucoma
•• Ist degree relative
•• Diabetes Mellitus
•• High Myopes
Drugs used in treatment of glaucoma:
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in treating glaucoma
Mannitol is also used as an IV Solution used in treating glaucoma
Other drugs used in glaucoma are:
•• Topical Pilocarpine 2%
•• Topical Timolol
•• Topical Dorzolamide
•• Topical Brinzolamide
•• Atropine is contraindicated in glaucoma
Pigmentary glaucoma
•• It is a form of open angle glaucoma with AD pattern of inheritance with pigment disruption of iris and deposition in anterior
chamber
•• Corneal pigmentation (Krukenbergs spindle) is a feature.
•• Medical therapy (Topical beta blockers are the drugs of choice.) Timolol, betaxolol, cartelol
•• Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolomide, dorzolamide)
•• Acetazolomide is used orally not topically
•• Prostaglandin analogues (latanoprost)
•• Pilocarpine and adrenergic agents. (Epinephrine and Dipivefrine)
•• Atropine is contraindicated
•• Timolol is a beta blocker
•• Argon or diode laser trabeculoplasty and trabeculectomy are surgical options
Dorzolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

•• It is an anti-glaucoma agent and topically applied in the form of eye drops
•• Side effects: Ocular burning, stinging, or discomfort immediately following ocular administration
Superficial punctate keratitis, signs and symptoms of ocular allergic reaction, conjunctivitis and lid reactions blurred vision, eye
redness, tearing, dryness, and photophobia. Other ocular events and systemic events were reported infrequently, including headache,
nausea, asthenia/fatigue; and, rarely, skin rashes, urolithiasis and iridocyclitis
It is a sulfonamide and, although administered topically, is absorbed systemically. Therefore, the same types of adverse reactions that
are attributable to sulfonamides may occur with topical administration
•• Fatalities have occurred, although rarely, due to severe reactions to sulfonamides including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic
epidermal necrolysis, fulminant hepatic necrosis, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia and other blood dyscrasias
•• Sensitization may recur when a sulfonamide is readministered irrespective of the route of administration. If signs of serious
reactions or hypersensitivity occur, discontinue the use of this preparation. Dorzolamide hydrochloride is an inhibitor of human
carbonic anhydrase II.
Brinzolamide Ophthalmic Suspension

One percent, the most frequently used
Reported adverse events associated with were
•• Blurred vision and bitter
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•• Sour or unusual taste

•• Blepharitis, dermatitis, dry eye, foreign body sensation
•• Headache, hyperemia, ocular discharge, ocular discomfort, ocular keratitis, ocular pain, ocular pruritus and rhinitis were reported.
•• Carbonic anhydrase (CA) is an enzyme found in many tissues of the body including the eye. It catalyzes the reversible reaction
involving the hydration of carbon dioxide and the dehydration of carbonic acid.
•• In humans, carbonic anhydrase exists as a number of isoenzymes, the most active being carbonic anhydrase II (CA-II), found
primarily in red blood cells (RBCs), but also in other tissues.
•• Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase in the ciliary processes of the eye decreases aqueous humor secretion, presumably by slowing
the formation of bicarbonate ions with subsequent reduction in sodium and fluid transport. The result is a reduction in intraocular
pressure (IOP).
•• Latanoprost is a prostaglandin F2 analog that is believed to reduce IOP by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor. It is
indicated for lowering
•• IOP in patients with open-angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension who are intolerant to other agents.
Lens Associated Glaucoma

•• Phacomorphic glaucoma: Lens swells and obliterates the angle
•• Phacolytic glaucoma: Lens dissolution escapes into aqueous
•• Phactopic glaucoma: Iris becomes firmly contracted over posterior surface of lens.
Eponym Glaucoma’s
•• Hundred day glaucoma: Neovascular glaucoma
•• Hypersecretory glaucoma: Epidemic Dropsy
•• Ghost cell glaucoma: Vitreous Hemorrhage
•• Angle recession glaucoma: Blunt trauma
•• Glaucoma Fleckens: After Acute congestive glaucoma
•• Malignant glaucoma: Ciliary block glaucoma
Cornea
•• Dendritic ulcers are pathogonomic of herpes simplex virus
•• Acanthameba causes pseudodendritic corneal ulcers
•• Decreased corneal sensation is a feature
Band shaped keratopathy in cornea is due to deposition of calcerous salts after hyaline infiltration
Seen in:
•• Chronic uveitis
•• Hyperparathyroidism
•• Vitamin D toxicity
•• Sarcoidosis
Keratoconus
Keratoconus is protrusion of central part of cornea with thinning
Corneal nerves visible
Seen in association with
•• Downs
•• Turner’s
•• Ehler-Danlos
•• Marfan’s
•• Mitral valve prolapsed
•• Features:
–– Munson’s sign
–– Fleischer ring
–– Vogt lines
–– Oil droplet reflex are seen
Vitamin A deficiency affects cornea: Causes

•• Night blindness
•• Bitots spots
•• Conjunctival xerosis
•• Corneal ulceration/Keratomalacia
•• Corneal scar
•• Xerophthalmic fundus
Kindly Know the Clinical Associations

•• Satellite lesions, dry corneal ulcer Fungal corneal ulcer
•• Dalen Fuchs nodules Sympathetic ophthalmitis
•• Dendritic ulcer Herpes simplex
•• Snow ball opacities in vitreous Pars planitis, sarcoid, Amyloidosis, candidiasis, lyme disease
•• Fleischer ring, Munson’s sign, Vogt line Keratoconus
•• Habbs straie Buphthalmos
Epiretinal Membrane
•• This is a fibrocellular tissue that grows across the inner surface of the retina, causing metamorphopsia and reduced visual
acuity from distortion of the macula
•• With the ophthalmoscope one can see a crinkled, cellophane-like membrane on the retina. Epiretinal membrane is most
common in patients over 50 years of age and is usually unilateral
•• Most cases are idiopathic, but some occur as a result of hypertensive retinopathy, diabetes, retinal detachment, or trauma
•• When visual acuity is reduced to the level of about 6/24 (20/80), vitrectomy and surgical peeling of the membrane to relieve
macular puckering are recommended. Contraction of an epiretinal membrane sometimes gives rise to a macular hole.
•• Vitrectomy may improve visual acuity in some patients with macular hole. Fortunately, fewer than 10% of patients with a macular
hole develop a hole in their other eye.
Important Indices
•• Power of lens: +16 D
•• Power of cornea: + 44 D cornea is the most important refractive surface of eye
•• Power of eye: + 60 D
•• Refractive index of air: 1
•• Refractive index of aqueous humor: 1.33
•• Refractive index of vitreous humor: 1.33
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•• Refractive index of cornea: 1.37

•• Refractive index of lens: 1.39
•• Respiratory coefficient of lens: 1
•• Equatorial diameter of lens: 9 mm
•• Maximum refractive power is in center of lens
Lens
•• Lens is avascular
•• Lens has no nerve supply
•• Lens derives nutrition from aqueous humor, perilimbal capillaries and oxygen in air
•• Lens thicker anteriorly than posteriorly
•• Oldest cells are present in center and youngest cells in periphery
•• Crystallins and Major intrinsic protein MIP 26 enhance lens transparency
•• Glutathione, peroxidase, catalase, ascorbic acid, α tocopherol and β carotene are protective against free radicals.
Cataracts
Majority are age related and due to UV light
Systemic causes:
•• DM, Hypoglycemia, Hypocalcemia, Galactosemia, Hypothyroidism, Hypoparathyroidism, Alport’s, Down’s Syndrome, Dystrophia
myotonica, Lowe’s syndrome, Wilson’s Disease
•• Steroids, Chloroquin, Amidarone, Busulfan, Chlorambucil, Copper, Gold, Iron
•• Infection (Congenital rubella, CMV, Toxoplasmosis)
•• Smoking, HTN, Diabetes mellitus
Ocular causes:
•• Trauma
•• Radiation
•• High myopia
•• Atopic dermatitis, Icthyosis, Rothmund’s Syndrome, Wener’s syndrome (Dermatological causes)
•• Cataract is the most common cause of blindness in India.
Typical Features of Various Cataracts are

•• Diabetes Snow flake cataract
•• Galactosemia Oil drop cataract
•• Wilson’s disease Sunflower cataract
•• Infrared Glass workers cataract
•• Atopic Diseases Syndermatotic cataract
•• Myotonic Dystrophy Christmas tree pattern
•• Trauma Rossette cataract
•• Shield cataract Atopic dermatitis
•• MC congenital cataract Punctate/Blue Dot cataract

•• MC cataract in adults Cortical cataract
•• MC visually significant congenital cataract Zonular/Lamellar cataract
•• Nuclear cataract Associated with Rubella infection
•• Coronary cataract Develops at puberty
Complicated Cataract
•• Complicated Cataract: Refers to opacification of the lens secondary to other intraocular disease
•• The opacity in complicated cataract is irregular in outline and variable in density
•• A slit lamp examination shows ‘Bread Crumb appearance’
•• A characteristic sign is the appearance of iridescent colored particles so called ‘Polychromatic lusture’ of reds, greens and blues
•• Posterior subcapsular cataract is visually handicapping and presents as marked diminution of vision
•• Here patient sees better in dark.
Posterior Hyperplastic Primary Vitreous Cataract:

•• It is due to embryological persistence of Vitreous and Hyaloid
•• Almost always unilateral
•• Associated with glaucoma, cataract, microphthalmos
•• Does not calcify
•• It is a feature of Patau syndrome
•• It is associated with a poor visual prognosis
Lamellar cataract is also called as zonular or perinuclear cataract

Bilateral lamellar cataracts account for 50% of visually significant cataracts
They are associated with Malnutrition and hypoparathyroidism
•• Linear opacities like spokes of wheel called riders are a feature.
Cataract Surgeries
•• ICCE: (Intracapsular cataract extraction): Whole lens removed with intact capsule
•• ECCE: (Extracapsular cataract extraction): Lens removed, capsule left behind
•• Phecoemulsification: Whole lens removed with intact capsule
•• Phecoemulsification: Emulsifies lens nucleus and cortex by ultrasonic vibration
After cataract is opacity persisting or developing after ECCE

•• Sommering’s Ring is a feature
•• Elschnig’s Pearls are a feature
•• Nd-Yag LASER capsulotomy is done
Lens Dislocation:
•• Inferior: Homocystinuria
•• Superior: Marfans
•• (Superotemporal)
•• Forward: Marchesani Weil Syndrome, Trauma, Hypermature cataract, Ehler-Danlos syndrome also cause lens Dislocation
•• Anterior lenticonus: Anterior conical projection of center of lens. (Alport’s Syndrome)

•• Posterior lenticonus: Posterior conical projection of center of lens. (Lowe Syndrome)
•• Microspherophakia: Instead of normal biconvex shape, lens is spherical. (Marfan’s Syndrome)
•• Ectopia Lens: Subluxation of Lens, (Marfan’s, Familial, Ehler-Danlos Syndrome, Trauma)
•• Hard lens is made of PMMA (Polymethyl methacrylate)

•• Soft lens is made of HEMA (Hydroxy methyl methacrylate)
•• Modern IOL are made of silicon, acrylic acid
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Contact Lens
•• MC infection is pseudomonas infection
•• Most common predisposing factor for acanthameba is use of contact lens
•• Other complications related to use of contact lens:
–– Over wear syndrome
–– Giant papillary conjunctivitis
–– Allergic conjunctivitis
Papilledema
Causes: Raised ICT:
•• ICSOLS (Intracranial space occupying lesions), Postcranial fossa tumors
•• Intracranial infections (Cavernous sinus Thrombosis, cerebral abscess)
•• Malignant Hypertension, Toxemia of pregnancy
•• Pseudotumor cerebri (Tetracycline, Nalidixic acid, OCP, Vitamin A.)
•• Foster Kennedy Syndrome (Optic atrophy on same side and papilledema on other side)
•• Clinical features:
•• Headache, nausea, Projectile vomiting
–– Painless, Progressive loss of vision
–– Amourosis fugax
–– Enlargement of blind spot
–– Progressive contraction of visual field
–– Visual acuity and puppilary reaction remain normal until optic atrophy occurs
–– Leads to postneuritic ophthalmopathy
•• Axonal swelling
•• Stasis of axoplasmic flow
•• Extracellular edema are a feature
•• Blurring of margins of optic disk

•• Hyperemia of disk
•• ↓Physiological cup
•• Venous pulsations absent. Flame shaped and punctuate hemorrhages
•• Elevated disk (mushroom/dome shaped)
•• Cotton wool spots
•• Macular fan
Papillitis/Optic Neuritis
Causes: Idiopathic plus:
•• Multiple sclerosis, Devices disease, Leucodystrophies, Postviral infections, Vitamin B complex deficiency
•• Diabetes
•• Syphilis
•• Drugs: Quinine, Chloroquine, Ethambutol, digitalis, INH, NSAIDS, Tobbaco, alcohol, arsenic
•• Pseudopapillitis is seen in hypermetropia.
Features:
•• (Monocular) unilateral decrease in visual acuity over hours or days
•• Poor discrimination of colors, ‘Red Desaturation’
•• Inflammation of optic nerve
•• Pain worse on eye movement
•• Relative afferent pupillary defect/Marcus Gun pupil (EARLY)
•• Full afferent puppilary defect is seen in optic nerve lesion.
Defects:
•• Defective contrast sensitivity
•• Decreased color vision
•• Defective depth perception of moving objects (Pulfrich phenomenon)
•• Worsening of symptoms with exercise (Uhthoff Phenomenon)
•• Visual evoked potentials show latency and delay in amplitude
Toxic Optic Neuropathy

This can result in acute visual loss with bilateral optic disk swelling and central or cecocentral scotomas. Such cases have been reported
to result from exposure to ethambutol, methyl alcohol (moonshine), ethylene glycol (antifreeze), or carbon monoxide
Many agents have been implicated as a cause of toxic optic neuropathy, but the evidence supporting the association for many is weak.
The following is a partial list of potential offending drugs or toxins:
•• Disulfiram, ethchlorvynol
•• Chloramphenicol
•• Amiodarone
•• Monoclonal anti-CD3 antibody
•• Ciprofloxacin
•• Digitalis
•• Streptomycin
•• Lead, arsenic, thallium
•• D-penicillamine
•• Isoniazid, emetine
•• Sulfonamides
Deficiency states, induced either by starvation, malabsorption, or alcoholism, can lead to insidious visual loss.
Remember: Clinical Ophthalmology

•• Optic neuritis is inflammation of optic nerve
•• Pappilitis is inflammation affecting optic nerve head
•• Neororetinitis is pappilitis+ inflammation of retinal nerve fiber layer
•• Optic atrophy is degeneration of optic nerve fibers
•• Primary optic atrophy is characterized by chalky white disk with sharp clearly defined margins and deep cup
•• Secondary optic atrophy is characterized by dirty/grey disk with blurred margins and obliterated cup
•• Wolfram syndrome is Hereditary optic atrophy
•• DIDMOAD syndrome is diabetes mellitus, diabetes Insipidus, optic atrophy and deafness
•• Foster Kennedy syndrome is optic atrophy on side of lesion and papilledema on opposite side
•• Pseudo Foster Kennedy syndrome is unilateral papilledema associated with ↑ICT
•• Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON) is bilateral optic neuritis transmitted as mitochondriopathy
•• Morning glory syndrome is malformation of optic disk, absence of lamina cribrosa
•• De Morsier syndrome is optic nerve hypoplasia+absence of corpus callosum +absence of septum pellucidium.
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Macular Degeneration
•• This is a major cause of gradual, painless, bilateral central visual loss in the elderly
•• It occurs in a nonexudative (dry) form and an exudative (wet) form
•• The nonexudative process begins with the accumulation of extracellular deposits, called drusen, underneath the retinal pigment
epithelium
•• Exudative macular degeneration, which develops in only a minority of patients, occurs when neovascular vessels from the
choroid grow through defects in Bruch’s membrane into the potential space beneath the retinal pigment epithelium
•• Leakage from these vessels produces elevation of the retina and pigment epithelium, with distortion (metamorphopsia)
and blurring of vision
•• Verteporfin
•• Verteporfin is indicated for treatment of age-related macular degeneration in patients with predominantly classic subfoveal
choroidal neovascularization
•• Verteporfin is a photosensitizing agent composed of two isomers
•• It accumulates preferentially in neovasculature, including choroidal neovasculature
•• Activation of verteporfin by nonthermal light (689 nanometers wavelength) in the presence of oxygen generates highly reactive,
short-lived singlet oxygen and reactive oxygen radicals
•• The activated particles cause local damage to neovascular endothelium and subsequent vessel occlusion
•• Damaged endothelium releases procoagulant and vasoactive factors causing platelet aggregation, fibrin clot formation, and
vasoconstriction
•• These factors contribute to the temporary occlusion of choroidal neovascularization
•• Distribution: Verteporfin is transported in the plasma primarily by lipoproteins.
Cherry Red Spot

•• CRAO
•• Berlin’s edema
•• Metachromatic dystrophy
•• Niemann Pick disease
•• Taysachs disease
•• Sandhoffs disease
•• Quinidine toxicity
•• Sarcoidosis
•• Fleischer’s ring: Keratoconus

•• Pterygium: Stockers line
•• Ferry’s line: Filtering Bleb
•• Kayser Fleischer Ring: Wilson’s Disease
•• Krukenberg’s Spindle: Pigment dispersion syndrome
Lish nodules
•• Are melanocytic hamartomas of Iris
•• They are not seen on naked eye examination
•• They are seen on slit lamp examination
•• They are seen in Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen’s disease)
Fundoscopy:
•• Chloroquine toxicity: Bulls Eye Maculopathy
•• CMV Retinitis: Pizza fundus, Tomato Ketchup Retinopathy
•• CRAO: Cattle trucking appearance
•• CRVO: Blood and Thunder fundus

•• Morning glory appearance: Optic disk coloboma
•• Bony spicule pigmentation: Retinitis Pigmentosa
•• Salt and pepper fundus: Congenital syphilis, Rubella
•• Tesselated fundus: Myopia, Retinitis pigmentosa
•• Mulberry appearance: Tuberous sclerosis
Uveal Tract
Episcleritis
•• It is an inflammation of the episclera, a thin layer of connective tissue between the conjunctiva and sclera
•• Episcleritis resembles conjunctivitis but is a more localized process and discharge is absent
•• Most cases of episcleritis are idiopathic, but some occur in the setting of an autoimmune disease
Scleritis
•• Refers to a deeper, more severe inflammatory process, frequently associated with a connective tissue disease such as
•• Rheumatoid arthritis, (MC)
•• Lupus erythematosus, polyarteritis nodosa, Wegener’s granulomatosis, or relapsing polychondritis
•• The inflammation and thickening of the sclera can be diffuse or nodular
•• In anterior forms of scleritis, the globe assumes a violet hue and the patient complains of severe ocular tenderness and pain
•• With posterior scleritis the pain and redness may be less marked, but there is often proptosis, choroidal effusion, reduced motility
and visual loss
•• Episcleritis and scleritis should be treated with NSAIDs
•• If these agents fail, topical or even systemic glucocorticoid therapy may be necessary, especially if an underlying autoimmune
process is active.
Uveitis
Involving the anterior structures of the eye, this is called iritis or iridocyclitis
The diagnosis requires slit-lamp examination to identify inflammatory cells floating in the aqueous humor or deposited upon the
corneal endothelium (keratic precipitates)
Circum ciliary congestion
Cells and flare in aqueos are a feature.
Acute Anterior Uveitis

Presents with
•• Deep anterior chamber with
•• Miotic
•• Sluggishly reacting pupil and
•• Hazy cornea due to keratitic precipitates
•• Occlusio pupillae due to organization of exudates across pupillary area, ectropion and festooned pupil
Anterior uveitis develops in

•• Sarcoidosis
•• Ankylosing spondylitis
•• Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
•• Inflammatory bowel disease
•• Psoriasis
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•• Reiter’s syndrome
•• Behcet’s disease
It is also associated with herpes infections, syphilis, Lyme disease, onchocerciasis, tuberculosis and leprosy.
•• Treatment is aimed at reducing inflammation and scarring by judicious use of topical glucocorticoids. Dilation of the pupil by
atropinereduces pain and prevents the formation of synechiae
•• ‘Secondary glaucoma’ is the most common complication of recurrent anterior uveitis
•• ‘Pilocarpine’ and other cholinergics are contraindicated
•• ‘Steroids’ are the drug of choice followed by mydriatics
Posterior Uveitis
This is diagnosed by observing inflammation of the vitreous, retina, or choroid on fundus examination. It is more likely than anterior
uveitis to be associated with an identifiable systemic disease
Posterior uveitis is a manifestation of autoimmune diseases such as:
•• Sarcoidosis
•• Behçet’s disease
•• Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
•• Inflammatory bowel disease
It also accompanies diseases such as toxoplasmosis, onchocerciasis, cysticercosis, coccidioidomycosis, toxocariasis and
histoplasmosis; infections caused by organisms such as Candida, Pneumocystis carinii, Cryptococcus, Aspergillus, herpes, and
cytomegalovirus; and other diseases such as syphilis, Lyme disease, tuberculosis, cat-scratch disease, Whipple’s disease, and brucellosis
In multiple sclerosis, chronic inflammatory changes can develop in the extreme periphery of the retina (pars planitis or intermediate
uveitis).
‘Hypopyon associated with uveitis’ is seen in

•• Ankylosing spondylitis
•• Behçet’s syndrome
•• Reiter syndrome
•• Inflammatory Bowel diseases
•• Sarcoidosis
•• Trauma
Features of Pauci articular JRA:

•• It is the most common type and accounts for 60% cases
•• Involves < 4 joints
•• Rheumatoid factor is negative
•• Risk of developing chronic uveitis is highest. Especially with ANA positivity, early onset and HLA DR 5 positivity
•• In poly articular JRA Uveitis occurs in only 5% cases
•• In systemic JRA, Uveitis is rare.
Vogt-Koyangi-Harada Syndrome
A disease of melanocyte containing tissue. (Soon)
•• Skin Changes: Vitiligo, Alopecia, Poliosis
•• Occular Changes: Uveitis, Retinal detatchment, Depigmented fundus, Dalen fuchs nodules
•• Otological Changes: Deafness, Vertigo, Tinitus
•• Neurological Changes: Meningitis, Encephalitis
Sympathetic Ophthalmitis
•• Bilateral granulomatous panuveitis
•• Ciliary body is injured
•• After penetrating trauma in ciliary region. (Dangerous zone)
•• Keratatic precipitates or retrolental flares are IST signs
•• Traumatized eye is ‘Exciting eye’
•• Fellow eye is ‘Sympathizing eye’
•• Keratitic precipitates are seen early
•• ‘Dalen Fuchs nodule’ are characteristic
•• Early excision of injured eye is the best prophylactic measure
•• Steroids (Systemic) followed by topical steroids and cycloplegics are used for treatment
•• Example: Difficulty in reading in one eye after sustaining an injury in other eye after 3 to 4 weeks.
EYE Tumors
•• MC intraocular malignancy in children: Retinoblastoma
•• MC tumor of orbit/periorbitin children: Capillary hemangioma
•• MC primary orbital malignancy in children Rhabdomyosarcoma
•• MC cause of orbital metastasis in children: Neuroblastoma
•• MC benign orbital tumor in adults: Cavernous hemangioma
•• MC eyelid tumor is: BCC
•• MC tumor of lacrimal glands: Benign mixed tumor
Retinoblastoma
•• Retinoblastoma develops from ‘Neuroectoderm’ from ‘Photoreceptor cells’ of Retina. (Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor)
•• There is mutation of Rb gene which is a tumor suppressor gene
•• Retinoblastoma metastasizes to brain via optic nerve
•• Retinoblastoma is bilateral in 30–40 % of cases
•• Majority of cases of Retinoblastoma are sporadic (85–95%)
•• Only a minor are familial
•• Familial ones are usually bilateral
•• The gene for Retinoblastoma is located on chromosome 13
•• Knudson Hypothesis applies to Retinoblastoma
•• Pathological features of Retinoblastoma are:
–– Flexner Wintersteiner Rosettes
–– Homer Wright Rosettes
–– Pseudorosettes
–– Flurettes
•• The most common manifestation of Retinoblastoma is Amauratic cats eye reflex or ‘Leukocoria’ (Do not confuse with
Leukorrhea)
•• Metastasis in the form of Orbital invasion, Invasion of regional Lymph nodes, Invasion of Brain, Meninges, bone marrow, is common
•• Treatment of Retinoblastoma depends on size
•• Diffuse Retinoblastoma is treated with Ennucleation
•• Ennucleation Removal of eye ball with portion of Optic Nerve from Orbit
•• Small tumors are removed by Brachytherapy
•• Enlargement of Orbit and Orbital canal is a feature
•• Treatment of metastatic disease is chemotherapy
Ophthalmology 657
•• Treatment of bilateral disease is chemotherapy

•• Malignancies associated with Retinoblastoma are:
–– Pinealoblastoma (MC)
–– Osteosarcoma
–– Malignant Melanoma
–– Soft tissue tumors
–– Brain tumors
Malignant Melanoma
•• It is commonest intraocular primary malignant tumor in adults
•• It involves vortex veins.
Orbital Pseudotumor
•• This is an idiopathic, inflammatory orbital syndrome
•• Symptoms are pain, limited eye movements, proptosis and congestion
•• Imaging often shows swollen eye muscles (orbital myositis) with enlarged tendons
•• The Tolosa-Hunt syndrome may be regarded as an extension of orbital pseudotumor through the superior orbital fissure into the
cavernous sinus
•• Biopsy of the orbit frequently yields nonspecific evidence of fat infiltration by lymphocytes, plasma cells and eosinophils
•• A dramatic response to a therapeutic trial of systemic glucocorticoids indirectly provides the best confirmation of the diagnosis.
Retinal Detachment
•• It is separation of neurosensory retina from retinary pigment epithelium
•• RD is of three types:
a. Rhegmatogenous: Formation of hole in retina
b. Exudative: Retina pushed from bed by fluid accumulation
c. Tractional: Mechanical detachment
Causes:
–– Myopia
–– Trauma, cataract surgery
–– Hypertension
–– Malignant neoplasms of eye
–– Penetrating trauma
–– Diabetes
–– Eales disease
–– Toxemia of pregnancy predispose to RD
–– Photopsia, floaters (muscae volitantes) are present
–– Vitreous shows Tobacco dusting which is also called as ‘Shafer’s Sign’
–– Indirect ophthalmoscopy is the investigation of choice
–– Primary aim of RD surgery is closure of break.
Retinitis Pigmentosa
This is a general term for a disparate group of rod and cone dystrophies characterized by progressive night blindness (nyctalopia)
•• Visual field constriction with a ring scotoma
•• Loss of acuity
•• An abnormal electroretinogram (ERG)

•• It occurs sporadically or in an autosomal recessive, dominant, or X-linked pattern
•• Irregular black deposits of clumped pigment in the peripheral retina, called bone spicules
•• Most cases are due to a mutation in the gene for rhodopsin, the rod photopigment, or in the gene for peripherin, a glycoprotein
located in photoreceptor outer segments
•• There is no effective treatment for retinitis pigmentosa. Vitamin A (15,000 IU/day) slightly retards the deterioration of the ERG but
has no beneficial effect upon visual acuity or visual fields
–– Some forms of retinitis pigmentosa occur in association with rare, hereditary systemic diseases (olivopontocerebellar
degeneration)
–– Bassen-Kornzweig disease
–– Kearns-Sayre syndrome
–– Refsum’s disease
Central Serous Retinochoriodopathy

•• It is a disease which may have short course and recover spontaneously
•• It is spontaneous detachment of neurosensory retina in macular region with or without retinal pigment epithelium detachment
•• Typically affects younger 20–40 years age group with type a personality
•• Presents with sudden painless loss of vision, scotomas, micropsia and metamorphosia
•• Ophthalmoscopy reveals:
Mild elevation of macular area
Absent or distorted foveal reflex
•• Fluorescein Angiography Shows
–– Inkblot or enlarging dot pattern
–– Smoke stack pattern
–– Mushroom or umbrella configuration
•• Treatment is reassurance for spontaneous recovery or Argon Laser photocoagulation
Parinaud’s Syndrome
It is a distinct supranuclear vertical gaze disorder from damage to the posterior commissure
It is a classic sign of hydrocephalus from aqueductal stenosis
Pineal region tumors (germinoma, pineoblastoma), cysticercosis, and stroke also cause Parinaud’s syndrome
Features Include:
•• Loss of upgaze (and sometimes downgaze)
•• Convergence-retraction nystagmus on attempted upgaze
•• Downwards ocular deviation (‘setting sun’ sign)
•• Lid retraction (Collier’s sign)
•• Skew deviation
•• Pseudoabducens palsy
•• Light-near dissociation of the pupils
Disorders of vertical gaze, especially downwards saccades, are an early feature of progressive supranuclear palsy, Parkinson’s disease,
Huntington’s chorea, and olivopontocerebellar degeneration.
Herpes Zoster
•• Herpes zoster from reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox) virus causes a dermatomal pattern of painful vesicular
dermatitis
•• Ocular symptoms can occur after zoster eruption in any branch of the trigeminal nerve but are particularly common when vesicles
form on the nose, reflecting nasociliary (V1) nerve involvement (Hutchinson’s sign).
Ophthalmology 659
•• Herpes zoster ophthalmicus produces corneal dendrites, which can be difficult to distinguish from those seen in herpes simplex
•• Stromal keratitis, anterior uveitis, raised intraocular pressure, ocular motor nerve palsies, acute retinal necrosis, and postherpetic
scarring and neuralgia are other common sequelae
•• Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is treated with antiviral agents and cycloplegics. In severe cases, glucocorticoids may be added to
prevent permanent visual loss from corneal scarring.
Tunnel Vision
Tunnel vision is the concentric diminution of the visual fields
Causes:
•• Papilledema
•• Glaucoma
•• Retinitis pigmentosa
•• Choroidoretinitis
•• Optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis
•• Hysteria
Factitious (Functional, Nonorganic) Visual Loss

•• Claimed by hysterics or malingerers
•• Malingerers comprise the vast majority, seeking sympathy, special treatment, or financial gain by feigning loss of sight
•• The diagnosis is suspected when the
–– History is atypical
–– Physical findings are lacking or contradictory
–– Inconsistencies emerge on testing
–– Secondary motive can be identified
Optic Disk Drusen

•• These are refractile deposits within the substance of the optic nerve head
•• They are unrelated to drusen of the retina, which occur in age-related macular degeneration. Their diagnosis is obvious when they
are visible as glittering particles upon the surface of the optic disk
•• However, in many patients they are hidden beneath the surface, producing an elevated optic disk with blurred margins that is
easily mistaken for papilledema
•• Ultrasound or CT scanning are sensitive for detection of buried optic disk drusen because they contain calcium
•• In most patients, optic disk drusen are an incidental, innocuous finding, but they can produce visual obscurations
•• On perimetry they give rise to enlarged blind spots and arcuate scotomas from damage to the optic disk
•• With increasing age, drusen tend to become more exposed on the disk surface as optic atrophy develops. Hemorrhage, choroidal
neovascular membrane, and AION are more likely to occur in patients with optic disk drusen.
Anterior Ischemic Optic Neuropathy (AION)

•• AION is segmental infarction of anterior part of optic nerve. (Fragment the word AION)
•• It results from infarction of short posterior ciliary arteries
•• It may occur as a result of atherosclerosis. In association with giant cell arteritis, anemia, collagen vascular disorders, migrane,
malignant Hypertension
•• There is sudden visual loss
•• Visual fields show altitudnal hemianopia usually inferior or superior
•• Treatment is by high dose corticosteroids.
Diabetic Retinopathy
•• Diabetic retinopathy is the most common cause of blindness in adults aged 35–65 years old. Hyperglycemia is thought to cause
increased retinal blood flow and abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls. This precipitates damage to endothelial cells and
pericytes
•• Endothelial dysfunction leads to increased vascular permeability which causes the characteristic exudates seen on fundoscopy
•• Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms
•• Neovascularization is thought to be caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia
•• Person with NIDDM should have ophthalmic examination as early as possible
•• Person with IDDM should have fundus examination five years after diagnosis definitely
•• INCIDENCE increases with disease duration.
Background retinopathy:
•• Microaneurysms (dots)
•• Blot hemorrhages (< = 3)
•• Hard exudates
Preproliferative retinopathy:
•• Cotton wool spots (soft exudates; ischemic nerve fibers)
•• Blot hemorrhages
•• Venous beading/looping
•• Deep/dark cluster hemorrhages
•• More common in Type I DM, treat with laser photocoagulation
Proliferative retinopathy:
•• Retinal neovascularization may lead to vitrous hemorrhage
•• Fibrous tissue forming anterior to retinal disk
•• More common in Type I DM, 50% blind in 5 years
Maculopathy:
•• Based on location rather than severity, anything is potentially serious
•• Hard exudates and other ‘background’ changes on macula
•• More common in Type II DM
Ophthalmologic Disease in HIV infections

•• Ophthalmologic problems occur in approximately half of patients with advanced HIV infection
•• The most common abnormal findings on funduscopic examination are cotton-wool spots. (Hard white spots that appear on the
surface of the retina and often have an irregular edge.)
•• They represent areas of retinal ischemia secondary to microvascular disease
•• One of the most devastating consequences of HIV infection is CMV retinitis
•• The majority of cases of CMV retinitis occur in patients with a CD4 + T cell count < 50/µL
•• Therapy for CMV retinitis consists of intravenous ganciclovir or foscarnet, with cidofovir as an alternative
•• Both HSV and varicella zoster virus can cause a rapidly progressing, bilateral necrotizing retinitis referred to as the ‘Acute
Retinal Necrosis Syndrome’.
EYE in Thyroid Diseases

Hyperthyroidism is blessed with lots of eye signs. Important ones are:
Lid retraction: Dalrymple sign
Lid lag: von Grafes sign
Infrequent blinking: Stellwag sign
Poor convergence: Mobius sign
Ophthalmology 661
Tremor of closed lids: Rosenbach sign

Extraocular muscle palsy: Ballet’s sign
Audible bruit over closed eye: Riesman’s sign
Unequal puppilary dilatation: Knie sign
Increased lid pigmentation: Jellinek sign
•• Other features:
•• External ophthalmoplegia
•• Proptosis
•• Exophthalmos
•• Large extraocular muscles
•• Myopathy
•• Inferior rectus is the muscle mc involved
Guanetidine is used in treatment of thyroid ophthalmopathy.
Pupil in Various Conditions

•• Acute Conjunctivitis: Normal
•• Acute Iridocyclitis: Miotic (small) and sluggishly reacting
•• Acute Glaucoma: Dilated and Fixed.
Sjögren’s Syndrome
Dry eye or Keratitis Sicca or Aqueous deficiency dry eye occurs in ‘Sjögren’s syndrome’. Mucosal involvement is widespread and
clinical manifestations include
•• Dry mouth
•• Dry nose
•• Dry eyes
•• Dry skin
•• Dry throat
•• Dry sex (vaginal involvement)
•• Both dry eye and dry mouth is a feature of Sjögren’s syndrome
•• This occurs as a result of decreased function of lacrimal glands
•• Cornea will be thickened and there will decrease visual acuity
•• Most common cause includes Sjögren’s syndrome and sometimes Rheumatoid arthritis and SLE Produce similar conditions.
Other Important Causes of ‘Aqueous Deficiency Dry Eye’ are

•• Aplasia, Injury of Lacrimal glands
•• Aplasia of Trigeminal Nerve
•• Medications: Antihistaminics, anticholinergics, beta blockers
•• Sjögren’s syndrome, Riley Day syndrome
•• Mucin deficiency: Steven Johnson’s Syndrome, Trachoma, Burns, Pemphigoid, Vitamin A deficiency
•• Remember:
•• Tears are produced in newborn after 4 weeks
•• Tear film has 3 layers
Test used for detection of Dry eye syndrome is Schirmer’s test

Hypertensive Retinopathy
Characteristic changes seen with hypertensive retinopathy include:
•• Narrowing of the aterioles due to smooth muscle contraction, hyperplasia, or fibrosis

•• Abnormalities (apparent ‘nicking’) where the arterioles and venules cross; called ‘A-V nicking’
•• Increased tortuosity of blood vessels as they spread out over the retina.
The Keith-Wagner and Barker (KWB) classification system evaluates the retinal changes seen with hypertension.
•• Group 1 changes: Increased light reflex from the arterioles; moderate arteriolar narrowing; focal narrowing.
•• Group 2 changes: To the above changes, add A-V crossing changes; arterioles are reduced to about half size.
•• Group 3 changes: To the above changes, add cotton wood spots; hemorrhages.
•• Group 4 changes: To the above changes, add papilledema.
Important Signs
•• Gunn’s sign: Crossing of artery over vein with compression of underlying vein
•• Gvist’s sign: Increased tortuosity of small venules surrounding maculae
•• Siegrist sign: Hyperpigmented flecks and choridal vessels arranged in radial fashion in Hypertension and Temporal arteritis
•• Salus Sign: Venous deflection
•• Bonnet’s sign: It is right angled deflection of vein under artery
Leber’s Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)
•• LHON typically presents with painless, subacute, bilateral visual loss with central scotomas and dyschromatopsia
•• Mitochondrial disease
•• Males are affected three to four times more commonly than females.
River blindness is due to:

•• Oncerchiasis volvolus
•• Transmitted by black fly
•• Mazotti test is helpful in diagnosis
•• Ivermectin is drug of choice.
Evisceration
It is removal of contents of eyeball leaving behind the sclera
Indications are:
•• Panophthalmitis
•• ‘Frills excision’ is done for pan ophthalmitis
•• Bleeding anterior staphyloma
Expulsive Choroidal hemmorhage
Enucleation:
It is removal of eye ball with a part of optic nerve from the orbit
Indications are:
•• Retinoblastoma in children
•• Malignant melanoma in adults
•• Sympathetic ophthalmitis
•• Endophthalmitis (DOES NOT INVOLVE SCLERA)
•• Pthisis bulbi
•• Blind and disfigured eye
•• Blind eye
•• Contraindicated in panophthalmitis
Ophthalmology 663
Trauma to Orbit
•• Blowout #: isolated comminuted # of orbital floor and medial wall. ‘Hanging drop’ or ‘Tear drop’ sign on Waters view
•• Orbital hematoma, caroticocavernous fistula
•• Iridodialysis
•• Subluxation/dislocation of lens
•• Rosette cataract
•• Vossius ring (Lens concussion)
•• Macular edema/hole
•• Commotio retinae (Berlin’s edema) milky white cloudiness involving posterior pole with cherry red spot in foveal region.
(concussion injury)
•• Optic nerve evulsion
•• Globe rupture
•• Bilateral black eye (Panda eye/Raccoon eye)
•• Unilateral Black eye
•• Berlins edema
•• D shaped pupil is seen in IRIDODIALYSIS
Chloroquine and Eye Ocular Manifestations

•• Keratopathy
•• Retinal toxicity
•• Blurred vision
•• Corneal deposits
•• Optic atrophy
Important Questions asked in Previous Examinations (Repeated Multiple Times)

•• Retinopathy of Prematurity Oxygen
•• Bulls Eye Maculopathy Chloroquine
•• Nystagmus Phenytoin
•• Optic Neuritis Ethambutol
•• Posterior Subcapsular Cataracts Steroids
•• Corneal deposits Amiodarone
•• Blue Vision (Cyanopsia) sildenafil
•• Yellow Vision (Xanthopsia) Digitalis
•• Whorled keratopathy Amidarone
Mydriatics
•• Tropicamide: Quickest and shortest
•• Phenylephrine: No cycloplegia
•• Atropine: Used as an ointment in children
•• Commonest complication of topical steroids: Glaucoma
•• Drug used for blepharospasm: Botulinium toxin
Associations Asked
•• Candle wax spots: Sarcoidosis
•• Fleischer ring: Keratoconus
•• Arlt’s line: Trachoma
•• Sago grains: Trachoma

•• Roth’s spots: Bacterial endocarditis
•• Epibulbar dermoids: Goldenhars syndrome
•• Dalen Fuchs nodules: Sympathetic ophthalmitis
•• Scintillating scotoma: Migraine
•• Ring scotoma: Retinitis pigmentosa
•• Angioid streaks: Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
•• KF ring: Wilson’s disease
•• Schwalbe’s ring: Descemet’s membrane
•• Arcus senilis: Old Age
Ophthalmology 665
USMLE Case Scenario

Ophthalmoscopic examination of a 7-year-old child from Washington DC demonstrates a retinal angioma. This finding should
raise the possibility of which of the following syndromes?
1. Neurofibromatosis type I
2. Neurofibromatosis type II
4. von Hippel-Lindau disease
Ans. 4. von Hippel-Lindau disease
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old male from New York presents with adenoma sebaceum of the skin and cortical tubers. The person is most
probably having:
1. Neurofibromatosis type I
2. Neurofibromatosis type II
4. von Hippel-Lindau disease
Ans. 3. Tuberous sclerosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 3-year-old child with mental retardation, seizures and facial angiofibromas develops repeated episodes of syncope.
Echocardiogram reveals a mass in the left ventricle producing intermittent obstruction. Pathologic examination of the
resected mass demonstrates a cardiac rhabdomyoma. Which of the following lesions would this patient most likely also have?
1. Acoustic neuromas
2. Berry aneurysm
3. Cortical tubers
4. Neurofibromas
Ans. 3. Cortical Tubers
The disease is Tuberous Sclerosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching
and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
1. Trachoma
2. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
3. Mucopurulent conunctivitis
4. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Ans. 4. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
USMLE Case Scenario

In von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome the retinal vascular tumors are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which
one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?
1. Optic radiation
2. Optic tract
3. Cerebellum
4. Pulvinar
Ans. 3. Cerebellum
USMLE Case Scenario

The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed
tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Congenital cataract
2. Retinoblastoma
3. Endophthalmitis
4. Coats disease
Ans. 2. Retinoblastoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient complains of pain both eyes with congestion. Blurring of vision, photophobia and mucopurulent discharge since
one day. Many cases have been reported from the same community. The causative agent is probably:
1. Adenovirus
2. Enterovirus 70
3. Herpes simplex
4. ECHO virus
Ans. 2. Enterovirus 70
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old female comes to the eye casualty with history of severe eyes pain, redness and diminution of vision. On
examination the visual acuity is 6/60, there is circumcorneal congestion, corneal edema and a shallow anterior chamber.
Which of the following is the best drug:
1. Atropine ointment
2. IV Mannitol
3. Ciprofloxacin eyes drops
4. Betamethasone eyes drops
5. Moxifloxacin drops
6. Timolol
Ans. 2. IV Mannitol
USMLE Case Scenario

Pterygium is:
1. A vascular anomaly
2. A connective tissue degeneration
3. An inflammatory condition
4. Associated with vitamin A deficiency
Ans. 2. A connective tissue degeneration
USMLE Case Scenario

Chalazion of lid is:
1. Caseous necrosis
2. Chronic nonspecific inflammation
3. Chronic lipogranulomatous inflammation
4. Liposarcoma
Ans. 3. Chronic lipogranulomatous inflammation
Ophthalmology 667
USMLE Case Scenario

The afferent pathway for light pupillary reflex is:
1. Trigeminal nerve
2. Optic nerve
3. Abducent nerve
4. Ciliary nerve
5. Trochlear nerve
6. Facial nerve
Ans. 2. Optic nerve
USMLE Case Scenario

A 56-year-old man has painful weeping rashes over the upper eyelid and forehead for the last 2 days along with ipsilateral
acute punctate keratopathy. About a year back, he had chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. There is no other
abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Impetigo
2. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
3. Herpes Zoster
4. Pyoderma gangrenosum
5. Pox virus infection
Ans. 3. Herpes Zoster
USMLE Case Scenario

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with history of sulfa allergy presenting with an acute attack of
angle closure glaucoma:
1. Glycerol
2. Acetazolamide
3. Mannitol
4. Latanoprost
Ans. 2. Acetazolamide
USMLE Case Scenario

An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye; examination reveals cherry red spot;
diagnosis is:
1. Central retinal vein occlusion
2. Central retinal artery occlusion
3. Amaurosis fugax
4. Acute ischemic optic neuritis
Ans. 2. Central retinal artery occlusion
USMLE Case Scenario

Eye is deviated laterally and downwards; patient is unable to look up or medially; likely nerve involved is:
1. Trochlear
2. Trigeminal
3. Oculomotor
4. Abducent
Ans. 3. Oculomotor
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP = 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye.
Diagnosis is:
1. Acute anterior uveitis
2. Acute angle closure glaucoma
3. Acute open angle glaucoma
4. Senile cataract
Ans. 1. Acute anterior uveitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 55-year-old diabetic presents with sudden loss of vision and onset of floaters. Fundus is difficult to visualize. Most likely
diagnosis is:
1. CRAO
2. CRVO
3. Viterous hemmorhage
4. ARMD
Ans. 3. Viterous Hemmorhage
USMLE Case Scenario

A 45-year-old presents with pain, photophobia and blurred vision. There are Dendritic ulcers on the cornea. Most likely
diagnosis is:
1. Herpes simplex keratitis
2. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
3. Fungal keratitis
4. Bacterial retinitis
Ans. 1. Herpes simplex keratitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma.
On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely
cause?
1. Vitreous hemorrhage
2. Optic atrophy
3. Developmental cataract
4. Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma
Ans. 1. Vitreous hemorrhage
USMLE Case Scenario

A 44-year-old has intermittent episodes of Bladder incontinence and leg weakness. He presently complains of painful eye
movements and blurry vision optic disk is swollen. The most likely diagnosis can be:
2. Parkinsonism
4. Lewy body disease
5. Pick’s disease
6. Coat’s disease
7. Eale’s disease
8. TIA
Ophthalmology 669
USMLE Case Scenario

Dangerous zone of eye refers to:
1. Sclera
2. Retina
3. Optic nerve
4. Ciliary body
5. Limbus
Ans. 4. Ciliary body
USMLE Case Scenario

Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxations of the lens are seen in:
2. Homocystinuria
3. Hyperinsulinemia
4. Alkaptonuria
5. Cystinosis
6. Ocular trauma
Ans. 2. Homocystinuria
USMLE Case Scenario

Spontaneous subconjunctival hemorrhage is a:
1. Benign condition
2. Malignant condition
3. Medical emergency
4. Surgical emergency
Ans. 1. Benign condition
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old presents to emergency with sudden onset severe pain, blurring vision in right eye. Examination reveals
decreased visual acuity with shallow cornea, hazy cornea in the same eye. Eye has a stony hard consistency. Likely diagnosis is:
1. Keratitis
2. Uveitis
3. Conjunctivitis
4. Glaucoma
Ans. 4. Glaucoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A 10-year-old boy presents with severe itching of the eye and a ropy discharge. His symptoms aggravate in summer season.
Most likely diagnosis is?
1. Trachoma
2. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
3. Acute conjunctivitis
4. Blepharitis
Ans. 2. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old diabetic and hypertensive presents with cupping of optic disk and constricted peripheral vision on visual
examination. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Cataract
2. Glaucoma
3. Macular degeneration
4. Diabetic retinopathy
Ans. 2. Glaucoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A young man aged 30 years, presents with difficulty in vision in the left eye for the last 10 days. He is immunocompetent, a
farmer by occupation, comes from a rural community and gives history of trauma to his left eye with vegetative matter 10–15
days back. On examination, there is an ulcerative lesion in the cornea, whose base has raised soft creamy infiltrate. Ulcer
margin is feathery and hyphate. There are a few satellite lesions also. The most probable etiological agent is:
1. Acanthameba
2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3. Fusarium
4. Streptococcus pneumonia
Ans. 3. Fusarium
USMLE Case Scenario

A 4-year-old boy comes for ophthamological examination. He presents with bilateral white reflex retina is not visualized
properly. Most likely cause is:
1. Congenital cataract
2. Congenital glaucoma
3. Retinoblastoma
4. Optic glioma
Ans. 1. Congenital cataract
USMLE Case Scenario

A 33-year-old hypertensive presents with sudden loss of vision describing as curtain falling down. Fundoscopy reveals
edematous whitened retina along retinal arterioles. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. CRAO
2. CRVO
3. Amaurosis fugax
4. Viterous hemorrhage
Ans. 3. Amaurosis fugax
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old female has a clinical presentation of central scotoma, afferent puppilary defect and altered color perception and
decreased visual acuity. The most likely diagnosis can be:
1. Orbital cellulitis
2. Optic neuritis
3. Open angle glaucoma
4. Keratitis
Ans. 2. Optic neuritis
Ophthalmology 671
USMLE Case Scenario

Visual loss with Pale retinal lesions with central retinal necrosis in an immunocompromised patient having eye pain is most
likely due to:
1. HSV Virus
2. CMV Virus
3. EBV Virus
4. CMV Virus
Ans. 1. HSV Virus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old female from New Orleans presents with dendriform ulcers, rash on tip of nose and forehead and chemosis of
conjunctiva. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. HSV Keratitis
3. Bacterial keratitis
4. Trigeminal neuralgia
Ans. 2. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it
was found that his right eye when at rest was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are:
1. Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve
2. Inferior oblique and inferior division of oculomotor nerve
3. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve
4. Superior rectus and trochlear nerve
Ans. 3. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve
USMLE Case Scenario

An immunocompromised hypertensive patient with diminished vision presents with yellowish white patches of retinal
opacification with hemorrhages on retinal surface. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Ocular toxoplasmosis
2. Retinal hemorrhage
3. CMV retinitis
Ans. 3. CMV retinitis
USMLE Case Scenario

In a case of hypertensive uveitis, most useful drug to reduce intraocular pressure is:
1. Pilocarpine
2. Latanosprost
3. Physostigmine
4. Dipivefrine
Ans. 2. Latanosprost
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient having glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following
drug can me responsible for it:
1. Timolol
2. Latanoprost
3. Dipiverine
4. Pilocarpine
Ans. 1. Timolol
USMLE Case Scenario

You have been referred a midle-aged patient to rule out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings will help in the
diagnosis:
1. Cupping of the disk
2. Depth of anterior chamber
3. Visual acuity and refractive error
4. Angle of the anterior chamber
Ans. 1. Cupping of the disk
USMLE Case Scenario

A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2-day history of ciliary congestion, photophobia,
blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is:
1. Phakomorphic glaucoma
2. Phakolytic glaucoma
3. Phakotoxic glaucoma
4. Phakoanaphylactic uveitis
Ans. 4. Phakoanaphylactic uveitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 60-year-old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The
diagnosis is:
1. Vitreous hemorrhage
2. Retinal detachment
4. Cystoid macular edema
Ans. 2. Retinal detachment
USMLE Case Scenario

A 12-year-old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2-years with intense itching and ropy discharge.
The diagnosis is:
1. Vernal conjunctivitis
2. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
3. Trachoma
4. Viral conjunctivitis
Ans. 1. Vernal conjunctivitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 25-year-old lady presents with severe sudden onset of pain, corneal congestion, photophobia and deep anterior chamber
in the right eye. The left eye is normal. X-ray pelvis shows sacroiliitis. The diagnosis is:
1. Anterior uveitis
2. Posterior uveitis
3. Intermediate uveitis
4. Scleritis
Ans. 1. Anterior uveitis
Ophthalmology 673
USMLE Case Scenario

A neonate, 30 days old, presented with excessive lacrimation and photophobia. He has a large and hazy cornea. His both
lacrimal duct systems are normal. The diagnosis is:
1. Megalocornea
2. Keratoconus
3. Congenital glaucoma
4. Hunter’s syndrome
Ans. 3. Congenital glaucoma
USMLE Case Scenario

A patient has normal anterior chamber and hazy cornea in one eye and shallow anterior chamber and miotic pupil in fellow
eye. The diagnosis is:
1. Endophthalmitis
2. Acute congestive glaucoma
3. Chronic simple glaucoma
4. Acute anterior uveitis
Ans. 4. Acute anterior uveitis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old patient with history of recurrent headache was sent for fundus evaluation. He was found to be having generalized
arterial attenuation with multiple cotton wool spots and flame shaped hemorrhages in both eyes. The most likely cause is:
1. Diabetic retinopathy
2. Hypertensive retinopathy
4. Temporal arteritis
Ans. 2. Hypertensive retinopathy
OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY
Obstetrics and
Gynecology 8
Remember Basic Facts
•• Fertilization occurs in ‘Ampulla’ of fallopian tubes
•• Sperm binds with ‘Secondary’ oocyte
•• ‘Zona pellucida’ must degenerate before implantation occurs
•• ‘Implantation’ occurs in posterosuperior wall of uterus
•• Endometrium of pregnant uterus is called ‘Decidua’
•• Deciduas basalis is part of deciduas in contact with blastocyst
•• Deciduas capsularis is part of deciduas covering the ovum
•• Deciduas parietalis is the rest of deciduas outside the implantation area
Important Events Following Fertilization

•• 0 hour •• Fertilization
•• 30 hours •• 2 cell stage (Blastomeres)
•• 40–50 hours •• 4 cell stage
•• 72 hours •• 12 cell stage
•• 96 hours •• 16 cell stage. (Morula) enters the uterine cavity
•• 5th day •• Blastocyst
•• 6–7th day •• Zona pellucida disappears, Interstitial implantation occurs
•• 9th day •• Lacunar period; Endometrial vessels tapped
•• 10–11th day •• Implantation completed
•• 13th day •• ‘Primary’ villi
•• 16th day •• ‘Secondary’ villi
•• 21st day •• ‘Tertiary’ villi
•• 21–22nd day •• Fetal heart. Fetoplacental circulation
Placenta: Frequently asked Questions

•• Biscoidal placenta •• Placenta has two disks
•• Lobed placenta •• Placenta divides into lobes
•• Diffuse placenta •• Chorionic villi persist all around the blastocyst
•• Placenta succenturaita •• Small part of placenta separated from the rest
•• Fenestrated •• Placenta has hole in center
•• Circumvallate •• Edge of placenta is covered by circular fold of deciduas
According to ‘Umbilical Cord’ Attachment

•• Marginal: Marginal as well as battle dore placenta refers to placenta with cord attached to margins
•• Furcate: Blood vessels divide before reaching the placenta
•• Velemantous insertion: Blood vessels are attached to amnion where they ramify before reaching the placenta
Placentation in Humans is an Important PG Topic

•• In humans implantation is Interstitial
•• Human placenta is Hemochorial
•• Human placenta is 6 to 8 inches in diameter
•• Human placenta weighs about 500 gms
•• Human placenta has a surface area of 14 m2
•• Human placenta has 60 to 100 fetal cotlydens
•• Human placenta has 15 to 20 maternal Cotyledons
•• Zone of fibrinoid degeneration where trophoblast and decidua meet is called Nitbauchs layer
•• Oogonia are derived from: yolk sac

•• Zygote reaches uterine cavity as 16 celled stage
•• Commonest site of fertilization is: ampulla
•• Placental circulation is established on 17th day of fertilization
•• Placenta has 2 arteries, onze vein
•• Folds of Hoboken are a feature of umblical cord
•• Placenta accerta: Placenta directly anchored to Myometrium without intervening deciduas

•• Placenta incerta: Placenta invades muscle bundle
•• Placenta percerta: Placenta invades serosa. Treated by hysterectomy
•• Absence of deciduas basalis is seen
•• Absence of nitbauchs fibrinoid layer is seen
Hormones of Placenta
Protein Hormones:
•• Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
•• Human Placental Lactogen (HPL)
•• Human Chorionic Thyrotrophin (HCT)
•• Human Chorionic Corticotrophin (HCC)
•• Pregnancy specific Beta-1 Glycoprotein
Steroid hormones:
•• Estrogens: Estriol, Estradiol and Estrone
•• Progesterone
Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)

•• ‘Glycoprotein’
•• 2 subunits
•• Alpha Subunit____’Hormone nonspecific’
•• Beta Subunit______Hormone ‘specific’
•• Alpha Subunit is chemically similar to LH, FSH and TSH
Obstetrics and Gynecology 679
•• Beta Subunit is relatively unique to HCG

•• Synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblast
•• Secreted into the blood of both mother and fetus
•• Half-life is about 1.5 day
•• By RIA, it can be detected in the maternal serum or urine as early as 8 to 9 days following Ovulation
•• The doubling time of HCG in plasma is about 2 days
•• The blood and urine levels reach maximum ranging 100 IU and 200 IU/ml
•• HCG disappears from the circulation within 2 weeks following delivery
Human Placental Lactogen (HPL)

•• Also known as human chorionic somatotrophin
•• Synthesized by Syncytiotrophoblast Promotes growth hormone (GH) release and insulin Secretion but decreases insulins
peripheral effects, Liberates maternal fatty acids so sparing maternal glucose use i.e. Insulin resistance (Seen during pregnancy)
•• Stimulates mammary growth and maternal casein, lactalbumin and lactoglobulin production
•• Values of HPL < 5 mg/ml after the 35 weeks indicate the possibility of fetal distress
Pregnancy Specific ß-1 Glycoprotein

•• Produced by the trophoblast
•• Detected in maternal serum as early as 7 day after ovulation
•• Used as a specific test of pregnancy
Estrogen
•• Produced by the Syncytiotrophoblast
•• Its synthesis depends much on the precursor derived mainly from the fetus
•• In late pregnancy, estriol is the most important estrogen
•• Estrogen increases the secretion and ciliary beating in fallopian tubes
•• Estrogen changes the cuboidal lining of vagina to stratified
•• Estrogen changes the breakdown of glycogen into lactate in vagina
•• Estrogen initiates breast development
•• Estrogen causes early epiphyseal closure
•• Estrogen causes water retention
Progesterone
•• Produced by Syncytiotrophoblast
•• Chief hormone of Corpus luteum
•• After delivery, its level decreases rapidly and is not detectable after 24 hours
Amniotic Fluid
•• Green colored •• Fetal distress
•• Golden colored •• Rh Incompatibility
•• Saffron colored •• Postmaturity
•• Dark brown •• IUD
Amnoicentesis
•• Done in:
•• Pregnancy above the age of 35 years (Chance of Downs Syndrome)
•• A previous child with chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. Autosomal Trisomy)
•• X-linked genetic recessive disorders
•• To detect inborn errors of metabolism
Investigation to be done:
•• Culture of the desquamated fetal cells in the amniotic fluid
•• Chromosomal study of the desquamated fetal cells in the amniotic fluid
•• Fetal sex is determined by karyotyping of cultured amniotic cells
•• Other related points to be remembered
•• Fetal serum also contains AFP in a concentration 150 times that of maternal serum
•• Acetyl cholinesterase levels in amniotic fluid is more specific than AFP in predicting Neural tube defects
Therapeutic Indications
First Half of Pregnancy:
•• Induction of abortion (Instillation of chemicals, e.g. hypertonic saline, urea, prostaglandin)
•• Repeated decompression of the uterus in acute hydramnios
Second Half of Pregnancy:
•• Decompression of uterus in unresponsive cases of chronic hydramnios
•• To give intrauterine fetal transfusion in severe hemolysis following Rh-isoimmunization
Preferred Sites for Amniocentesis

Early Months:1/3rd of the way up the uterus from symphysis pubis
Later Months:
•• Trans-isthmic suprapubic approach after lifting the presenting part OR
•• Through the flanks in between the fetal limbs OR
•• Below the umbilicus behind the neck of the fetus
Other points to be remembered
•• A 20–22 gauze spinal needle is used
•• Length of needle is 4'' (inches or 10 cm)
•• Amount to be collected for diagnostic purposes is 10 ml
Precautions for amniocentesis
•• Prior USG localization of placenta to prevent fetomaternal bleeding
•• Prophylactic administration of 100 microgram of anti-D Ig in Rh-negative nonimmunized mother
Hazards of Amniocentesis
Maternal Complications
•• Infection
•• Hemorrhage (placental or uterine injury)
•• Premature rupture of the membranes
•• Premature labor
Fetal Complications
•• Trauma
•• Fetomaternal hemorrhage
•• Triple test was devised to increase sensitivity for pick-up rates of down’s syndrome
↑Maternal Serum Alpha Fetoprotein Levels

Maternal Conditions Fetal Conditions
•• Neural tube defects •• Low weight

•• Gastrochisis, Exomphalos •• Hepatocellular Ca
•• Renal agenesis, Posterior urethral valves •• SLE
•• Amniotic band disruption
•• IUGR
•• Placental tumors
•• Umbilical cord tumors
•• Sacrococcygeal teratoma
•• Cystic hygroma
•• Twins
↓Maternal Serum Alpha Fetoprotein Levels

•• Hydrocephalus
•• Increased maternal weight
•• Overestimated gestational age
Triple Test
•• It includes:
•• HCG
•• Estriol
•• Alpha fetoprotein (Maternal)
In Down’s Syndrome:
HCG↑ AFP↓ Estriol ↓
In Edward’s syndrome:
HCG↓ AFP↓ Estriol ↓
Quadruple Test is done for Down’s Syndrome

It involves Triple Test Plus Inhibin
•• Alpha fetoprotein
•• HCG
•• Estriol
•• Inhibin
Chorionic Villus Sampling

•• 10–12 weeks preferebally
•• Done transcervically: 10–12 weeks
•• Done transabdominally: 10 weeks to term
•• Done before 10 weeks results in oromandibular limb defects
•• Slightly higher risk of fetal loss
•• Chorionic villus sampling: 10–12 weeks

Done before 10 weeks results in oromandibular limb defects
•• Amniocentesis: 14–16 weeks
•• Percutaneous umblical blood sampling: 18 weeks
•• Fetoscopy: 16–20 weeks
USMLE Case Scenario

A 46-year-old woman from New Texas, gravida 4, para 3, at 8 weeks’ gestation comes to the physician for her first prenatal
visit. She has mild nausea and vomiting but no other complaints. Her obstetric history is significant for three full-term, normal
vaginal deliveries of normal infants. She has no medical or surgical history and takes no medications. Physical examination
reveals an 8-week-sized uterus, but is otherwise unremarkable. She wishes to have chromosomal testing of the fetus and
wants to have chorionic villus sampling performed. Compared with amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling may place the
patient at greater risk for which of the following?
1. Fetal Down’s syndrome
2. Fetal open neural tube defects
3. Maternal sepsis
4. Mid-second-trimester abortion
5. Fetal limb defects
6. Diabetes
7. Hypertension
Ans. 5. Fetal limb defects
Associations of Oligohydramnios and Polyhydramnios

Oligohydramnios Polyhydramnios
•• Renal agenesis •• Esophageal atresia
•• Multicystic dysplastic kidneys •• Duodenal atresia
•• Amnion nodosum •• Diabetes mellitus not Insipidus
•• IUGR •• Multiple pregnancy
•• Postmaturity •• Open neural tube defects
•• Premature rupture of membranes •• Chorioangioma placenta
•• Posturethral valves
•• AF index < 5
Doppler Flow
•• Peak velocity of blood flow occurs during systole
•• Small amount of blood flow occurs in diastole
•• S/D ratio assessments are used
Abnormal flows:
•• Absence of blood flow
•• Reverse flow
•• Notching of wave form at end of systole
Abnormal flows cause:
•• IUGR
•• Fetal distress
Remember
•• Cardiac activity of fetus seen by USG at: 6 weeks
•• Anencephaly is the earliest fetal anomaly detected by USG
•• External genitalia earliest diagnosed by USG at: 10 weeks
•• Fetal respiratory movements occur at: 12 weeks
•• Fetal bradycardias less than 120 bpm for 15 minutes period of continuous monitoring
•• Fetal scalp pH <7.2 is abnormal.
Fetal Scalp Sampling (FSS)

•• It is a method of fetal assessment that is used during labor and delivery to obtain fetal blood for pH assessment
•• Normal labor and delivery is characterized by a lowering of the fetal pH as the labor progresses
•• However, most fetuses tolerate labor and delivery without a dangerous drop in pH (i.e. an acidosis that will result in organ damage)
•• When the fetal heart rate tracing is not reassuring, FSS can be used to determine the acid-base status of the fetus, which will help
with management of the labor
•• If the pH is > 7.25 then the patient may be managed expectantly with continued observation of the labor and the fetal heart rate
•• If the pH is between 7.20 and 7.25 the FSS should be repeated in 15 to 30 minutes
•• If the pH is < 7.20, steps should be taken to bring about delivery. Acidemia likely to cause damage to the fetus appears to occur at
values < 7.00. However, by using a cutoff of 7.20, there is a margin for error to protect the fetus. This fetus has fetal scalp blood pHs
of 7.04, 7.05, and 7.06. This level of acidemia is considered an indication for immediate delivery.
Crown Rump Length

•• Crown Rump Length is an accurate parameter used to calculate gestational age in the first trimester especially during 5–15 weeks
•• CRL is linear measure of longest axis
•• Usually three images are taken on USG and maximum length is used as the final CRL
•• Other parameters such as BPD, Femur length, Abdominal or head circumference are less accurate initially
–– CRL at 1 month: 5 mm
–– CRL at 2 month: 30 mm
–– CRL at full term: 300 mm
NORMAL PREGNANCY
Total Duration: 280 days
•• Gravidity •• Total number of previous pregnancies (normal or abnormal)
•• Parity •• State of having given birth to an infant or infant weighing 500 gms or more dead or alive
•• Immature infant •• Weighing <1000 gms and completed < 28 weeks
•• Premature infant •• Weighing >1000 gms and completed > 28 weeks
•• Low birth weight •• Live born infant weighing 2500 gms or less
•• Mature infant •• Live born infant completed 38 weeks of gestation and weighing more than 2500 gms
•• Postmature infant •• Live born infant completed 42 weeks of gestation or more
‘Presumptive’ Manifestations of Pregnancy

•• Amenorrhea
•• Nausea and vomiting
•• Breast tenderness
•• Quickening (first Perception of fetal movements) at 18 to 20 weeks in primi, 14 to 16 weeks in multigravida
•• Bladder irritability, frequency and nocturia
‘Changes’ in Pregnancy are

Hemodynamic changes
•• Increased cardiac output
•• Increased blood volume
•• Increased plasma volume
•• Increased pulse rate
•• Compression of superior vena cava (supine hypotension syndrome) in 3rd trimester
•• Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
•• Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
•• Decreased arterial BP
Integumentary System
•• ↑Pigmentation of aerola
•• Chloasma
•• Linea Nigra (On Abdomen in mIdline)
•• Spider angioma
•• Palmar erythema
•• Stria gravidarum
Respiratory System
•• ↓TLC, FRC, RV
•• ↑Tidal volume
•• ↑Minute ventilation
•• ↑O2 requirements
Genitourinary System
•• ↑Urinary frequency
•• ↑UTI, Pyelonephiritis
•• Glycosuria
Other Changes
•• ↑Incidence of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
•• ↑Total Thyroxine and ↑Thyroxine binding globulin levels. Normal TSH
•• ↑Incidence of Gallstones, GERD (Reflux)
•• ↑Renal blood flow, ↑GFR
Pregnancy Causes Increase in Concentrations of

•• ↑Globulin
•• ↑Fibrinogen
•• ↑Transferrin
•• ↑Leukotrienes
Fetal Growth is predominantly by

•• IGF 1
•• Insulin
•• Growth factors
‘Signs’of Pregnancy
•• Chadwick’s sign: Congestion of pelvis causes bluish/purplish hue of vagina/cervix
•• Leukorrhea: Non fern pattern of cervical mucus
•• Goodells sign: Cyanosis and softening of cervix
•• Ladin’s sign: Softening of uterus in anterior midline
•• Hegar’s sign: Compressibility of isthmus on bimanual examination
•• Mc Donald’s sign: Uterus becomes flexible at uterocervical junction
•• von Frendwal’s sign: Irregular softening of fundus at site of implantation
•• Piskacek’s sign: Softening of cervix with lateral implantation
•• Osianderr’s sign: Pulsations in lateral vaginal fornix
•• Palmer’s sign: Rythmic contractions of uterus
•• Weinberg sign: Abdominal pregnancy
Probable Manifestations of Pregnancy

•• Abdominal enlargement
•• Uterine contractions (painless uterine contractions: Braxton Hicks contractions)
•• Uterine ballotment
•• Uterine souffle
Pseudocyesis
•• Patient having an intense desire for pregnancy and develops symptoms of pregnancy
•• No FHS
•• No USG documentation of gestational sac
•• Refer to pshyciatrist
X-ray Evidence of Fetal Death

•• Overlapping of skull bones–Spadling sign
•• Gas in Aorta-Roberts sign
•• ↑Curvature of fetal spine
•• Angulation of spine
True labor False labor

•• Regular uterine contractions •• Irregular uterine contractions
•• Effacement and dilatation of cervix occur •• Effacement and dilatation of cervix do not occur
•• Ideal number of antenatal visits: 12–14

•• Minimum number of antenatal visits: 3
•• Total duration: 280 days

•• Quickening occurs at 20 weeks in primi, 18 weeks in multi
•• Earliest detection of pregnancy by USG is by: gestational sac
•• Pregnancy is confirmed by:
–– FHR
–– FM
–– Fetal sac on USG
•• TVS detects gestational sac at 14 days after ovulation
•• Fetal parts can be detected by X-ray at: 16 weeks
Important Terms Frequently asked

•• Fetal presentation: Designates fetal parts which lie over the inlet
•• Fetal lie: Refers to relation of long axis of fetus to long axis of mother
•• Fetal position: Relationship of point of direction of presenting part to one of the four quadrants of maternal pelvis
Pelvis
•• Normal female pelvis is Gynecoid pelvis
•• Most common type of pelvis is Gynecoid pelvis
•• Transverse diameter is more than AP Diameter in Gynecoid pelvis
•• Transverse diameter is more than AP Diameter in Platypelloid pelvis

•• Flat type of pelvis is Platypelloid pelvis
•• Least common type of pelvis is Platypelloid pelvis
•• Engagement occurs by asyncitilism in Platypelloid pelvis
•• Male type/Wedge shaped pelvis is Android pelvis

•• All diameters are reduced in Android pelvis
•• Engagement is delayed in Android pelvis
•• Deep transverse arrest/Persistent occipitoposterior position is common in Android pelvis
•• Dystocia dystrophia syndrome is seen in Android pelvis
•• Ape like pelvis is Anthropoid pelvis

•• Non rotation/Face to pubis delvery is common in Anthropoid pelvis
•• Only pelvis with AP diameter > transverse diameter is Anthropoid pelvis
•• Face to pubis delivery is common in Anthropoid pelvis
•• Shortest diameter of pelvic inlet is obstretic conjugate

•• Most important diameter during labor is interspinal diameter of outlet
•• Shortest diameter of fetal skull is Bitemporal
•• Largest diameter of fetal skull is submentovertical
•• Engaging Diameter •• Presentation

•• Suboccipitobregmatic •• Vertex
•• Suboccipitofrontal •• Vertex
•• Occipitofrontal •• Vertex
•• Mentovertical •• Brow
•• Submentovertical •• Face
•• Submentobregmatic •• Face
•• Inlet contraction •• If AP diameter is 10 cms or less
•• Mid pelvic contraction •• If inter ischial diameter is < 9.5 cms
•• Mid pelvic contraction •• Prominent ischial spines, converging pelvic walls
•• Outlet contraction •• Intertuberous diameter is 8 cms or less
•• When saggital suture is midway between pubic and sacrum: Synclitism

•• When saggital suture deviates from midline: A synclitism
•• Commonest type of vertex presentation: LOA (left occipito anterior)
•• Commonest presentation: Cephalic
•• Commonest presenting part: Vertex
Bishops Scoring
It is used for labor
Bishops scoring includes:
•• Dilatation of cervix
•• Effacement of cervix
•• Consistency of cervix
•• Position of cervix
•• Station of head
Bishops score > 6 indicates beginning of labor.
Labor
•• Graphical representation of stages of labor is partogram
•• Assessment of labor is best done by Partogram
•• Graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation and labor is cervicograph
•• Cervical ripening is mainly due to PGE2
•• Sensitivity of uterine musculature is ↑ by: estrogen
•• Cervical ripening is done by PGE2, oxytocin, misoprostol
Ist stage labor Primi Multi

•• Onset of labor-dilatation of cervix •• 6–20 hours •• 2–10 hours
•• 8–10 hours in primi
•• 6–8 hours in multi gravid
2nd stage labor •• 30 minutes–3 hours •• 5–30 minutes
•• From full dilatation of cervix–complete birth of baby
•• Not more than 2 hours usually
3rd stage labor •• 0–30 minutes •• 0–30 minutes
•• Birth of infant to delivery of placenta
Signs of Placental Separation

•• Gush of blood
•• Lengthening of cord
•• Uterus becomes globular
•• Fundal height increases
Cardinal Movements of Labor

•• Engagement (In relation to BPD)
•• Descent
•• Flexion
•• Internal rotation
•• Extension
•• Restitution
•• External rotation
•• Expulsion
Trial of Labor
Indications: Minor CPD
Contraindications:
•• Elderly primi
•• Major CPD (disproportion)
•• Severe PET
•• Previous cesarean
•• Malpresentation
•• Outlet contraction
Postdecidual Secretions: Lochia

•• Lochia rubra •• 1–4 days usually •• Reddish
•• Lochia serosa •• 5–9 days •• Yellowish
•• Lochia alba •• 10–15 days •• Pale white
•• Puerperium is 6 weeks period after delivery

•• Uterus becomes a pelvic organ 2 weeks after delivery
•• Involution of uterus is complete by: 6 weeks
•• Mc site of puerpereal infection •• Placental site

•• Mc manifestation of purpureal infection •• Endometritis
•• Mc cause of puerpereal infection •• Streptocococcus
•• Mc route of puerpereal infection spread •• Direct spread
Bandl’s Ring
•• Retraction ring
•• Seen in CPD, malpresentation
•• Average pressure of uterine contractions during first stage of labor: 30 mm Hg immediately following delivery, height of uterus
corresponds to 20 weeks
•• Graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation and duration of labor is called cervicograph
•• Assessment of labor is best done by Partogram
•• Pressure inside uterus during second stage of labor is 100–120 mm Hg
•• Precipitate labor is labor occurring in less than 2 hours
‘Preterm Labor’
It is defined as labor occurring before 37 completed weeks of gestation
Differentiate from premature baby: < 38 weeks
Prediction of preterm labor:
•• Symptoms of preterm labor
•• Uterine contraction greater than 4 per hour
•• Cervical length less than 2.5 cm
•• U shaped cervix is indicative
•• Presence of fibronectin in vaginal discharge between 24 and 36 weeks
•• Bishops score greater than 4
•• Cervical dilatation greater than 2 cm and effacement 80%
•• Vaginal bleeding
•• Prior preterm
Causes of preterm labor are:
•• Chorioamnionitis
•• Bacterial vaginosis
•• Previous history
•• Recurrent UTI
•• Smoking
•• Low socioeconomic and nutritional status
•• Uterine anomalies
•• Medical and surgical illnesses
•• Cervical incompetence
•• Increased amniotic fluid IL-6 levels and Neoptrin are considered as markers of preterm labor
Tocolytics
These are drugs used to arrest premature labor
Important Tocolytics are:
•• Beta mimetics: Ritodrine, Salbutamol, Isoxsuprine
•• Oxytocin antagonists: Atosiban
•• Magnesium Sulfate
•• Nifedepine
•• Glyceryl Trinitrate
•• Progesterone
•• Diazoxide
•• Ethyl Alchohol
•• Atropine
•• PG inhibitors: Indomethacin, Sulindac
Abortion
•• Threatened abortion Os closed
•• Inevitable abortion Os open
•• Incomplete abortion Patulous os
•• Complete abortion Os closed with expulsion of gestational sac
Septic Abortion
•• Any abortion with clinical evidence of infection of uterus or its contents
•• Rise of temp at least 100 °F for at least 24 hours
•• Presence of offensive/purulent vaginal discharge
•• Presence of evidence of pelvic infection
•• Most commonly follows illegal abortion
•• Infection is polymicrobial
Tests Done for Recurrent Abortions

•• Complete blood counts
•• Lupus anticoagulant
•• Anticardiolipin antibody level
•• TSH level
•• Luteal phase endometrial biopsy
•• Hysterosalpingography
•• Karyotyping (most important)
•• Not TORCH Infections
•• Abortion is expulsion of fetus less than 500 gms/before 20 weeks

•• MTP is legal up to 20 weeks
•• First trimester abortions are mainly due to (SAME)
–– Chromosomal aberrations
–– Embryonic defect
–– Germ cell defect
–– Ovofetal factor
•• Commonest cause of first trimester abortions is trisomy
•• Among trisomies commonest to cause abortion is Trisomy 16
•• Blighted ovum is avascular villi
•• Second trimester abortions are mainly due to incompetent cervix
•• Cervical incompetence is treated by: Shirodkars procedure, Mc Donalds procedure, Wurms procedure
•• Induction of mid trimester abortions is usually done by: intra-amniotic saline, intra-amniotic prostaglandins, hysterotomy
•• Best method of Induction of mid trimester abortions is by: intra-amniotic prostaglandins
•• Female with recurrent abortions and ↑APTT is most likely having: antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
•• Dose of anti D following first trimester abortion is: 50 µg
Ectopic Pregnancy
•• A young girl with 8 weeks ammenorrhea comes in shock. Likely diagnosis is: ectopic
•• A young girl with 6 weeks ammenorrhea presents with mass abdomen, USG shows empty uterus. Likely diagnosis is:
ectopic
•• A young girl with 6 weeks ammenorrhea comes with pain abdomen USG shows fluid in pouch of douglas Aspiration yields
dark colored fluid failing to clot. Likely diagnosis is: ruptured ectopic
It is associated with:
•• Tubal diseases (commonest)
•• Endometriosis
•• PID
•• Tuberculosis
•• IUCD
•• Following Tubal procedures Congenital tubal anomalies
•• Progastasert
•• Most common feature of ectopic is abdominal pain
•• Most reliable indicator of ectopic gestation is no gestational sac in USG
•• Expelled products in ectopic originate from: decidua vera
•• Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is by: methotrexate, actinomycin-D, mifeprestone, prostaglandins
•• STUDOFORD CRITERION is for primary abdominal pregnancy
•• Laproscopy is the best investigation for diagnosis
•• Commonest type which ruptures is: Isthmic
•• Transvaginal USG and HCG levels are also used
Bagel sign: It is a sign of ectopic pregnancy in Ultrasonography
It is a hyperechoic ring around gestational sac in adenexal region
Blob sign is in homogenous mass adjacent to ovary or moving separate from ovary. It is a gestational sac without cardiac activity
SALPINGOSTOMY FOR unruptured tubal pregnancy (Tubes to be preserved)
SALPINGECTOMY FOR ruptured tubal pregnancy with no desire for future pregnancy
Indications of Medical Management of ECTOPIC PREGNANCY

•• Hemodynamic stability
•• Gestational sac not more than 4 cms
•• Serum HCG level not more than 10000 ml
•• Willing for follow-up
•• No evidence for acute intra-abdominal hemorrhage
•• Preferably absent fetal cardiac activity
Arias Stella Reaction

It is typical adenomatous change of endometrial glands
•• Loss of polarity of cells
•• Hyperchromatic nuclei
•• Vacuolated cytoplasm
•• Occasional mitosis
•• It occurs in 10–15% cases of ectopic pregnancy
•• It is because of progesterone influence
Post-term Pregnancy
•• Post-term pregnancy is characterized by:
•• Wrinkled skin appearance
•• Overgrown nails
•• Absence of Vernix caseosa
•• ‘Scanty saffron colored meconium and subsequent oligohydramnios’
•• Placental calcification
•• Hypoxia and RDS
•• Polycythemia
•• Hypoglycemia
–– Golden colored meconium: Rh incompatibility
–– Saffron colored meconium: Postmaturity
–– Dark brown meconium: IUD
Hydatid Mole
•• Molar pregnancy is an abnormal form of pregnancy, characterized by the presence of a hydatidiform mole (or hydatid mole, mola
hytadidosa)
•• Molar pregnancy comprises two distinct entities, partial and complete moles
•• Complete moles have no identifiable embryonic or fetal tissues and arise when an empty egg with no nucleus is fertilized by a
normal sperm
•• Partial mole occurs when a normal egg is fertilized by two spermatozoa. Hydatidiform moles may develop into choriocarcinoma
•• Caused by triploidy
Causes persistent GTD
•• A hydatidiform mole is a pregnancy/conceptus in which the placenta contains grapelike vesicles that are usually visible with the
naked eye. The vesicles arise by distention of the chorionic villi by fluid. When inspected in the microscope, hyperplasia of the
trophoblastic tissue is noted. If left untreated, a hydatidiform mole will almost always end as a spontaneous abortion
•• H
ydatidiform moles are a common complication of pregnancy, occurring once in every 1000 pregnancies in the US, with much
higher rates in Asia
•• Blood tests will show very high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
•• T he diagnosis is strongly suggested by ultrasound (sonogram), but definitive diagnosis requires histopathological examination.
The mole grossly resembles a bunch of grapes (‘cluster of grapes’ or ‘honeycombed uterus’ or ‘snow-storm’)
•• There is increased trophoblast proliferation and enlarging of the chorionic villi. Angiogenesis in the trophoblasts is impared as
well
•• S
ometimes symptoms of hyperthyroidism are seen, due to the extremely high levels of hCG, which can mimic the normal
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
ydatidiform moles should be treated by evacuating the uterus by uterine suction or by surgical curettage as soon as
•• H
possible after diagnosis, in order to avoid the risks of choriocarcinoma. Patients are followed up until their serum human chorionic
gonadotrophin (hCG) level has fallen to an undetectable level
•• Invasive or metastatic moles (cancer) may require chemotherapy and often respond well to methotrexate. The response to
treatment is nearly 100%.
Complications of H. Mole
•• Hemorrhage and shock due to separation of vesicles from its attachment to deciduas
•• Massive intraperitoneal hemorrhage
•• Sepsis
•• Perforation of uterus
•• Preeclampsia with convulsions
•• Acute pulmonary insufficiency due to pulmonary embolism
•• Thyroid storm
•• Development of choriocarcinoma
Nut Shell
•• Large for date uterus
•• Chromosome configuration is: 46XX
•• Excessive nausea/vomiting
•• Early onset PET
•• Absent fetal heart
•• Grape like vesicles per vaginum
•• Bilateral theca leutin cysts associated
•• High HCG
•• Snow storm appearance on USG
•• Investigation of choice to diagnose H mole is USG
•• Confirmation of diagnosis is by vaginal examination
•• Evacuate by suction evacuation
•• Immediate complication of evacuation of H mole is bleeding
Associations:
•• PIH
•• Thyrotoxicosis
•• Hyperemesis
•• Commonest complication of H mole is sepsis

•• Imaging technique of choice for diagnosing H. mole is USG
•• Chromosomal configuration in H. mole is 46 XX
•• Treatment of choice in H. mole is suction evacuation
•• In a female of age 40 and above with h. mole and completed family treatment of choice is total hysterectomy
•• Immediate complication of H. mole is bleeding
•• Hydropic degeneration of villi is histological characteristic of H. mole
•• Most common gestational trophoblastic disease following H. mole is: invasive mole
•• Molar pregnancy is usually diagnosed in First trimester
Sarcoma Botyrides
•• Sarcoma botyrides is anembryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
•• Mesenchymal in origin
•• Readily bleeds on touching
•• Tumor cells resemble Tennis racket
•• Presents as grape like mass buldging through vaginal orifice
•• Locally invasive
•• Chemoradiation is treatment of choice
Twinning
•• Negroes have the highest rate of twinning
•• Hellin’s law indicates chances of twinning
•• Most common types of twins are both vertex
•• Superfecundation is fertilization of two ova released at same time by sperms released at two different occasions of sexual
intercourse
•• Siamese twins have highest mortality
•• Thoracophagus is the most common type of conjoined twins
•• A double headed monoster is called dicephalous
•• Twin peak sign is seen in diamniiotic dichorionic twins
•• In multiple fetal pregnancy fetal reduction is done by: Potassium chloride
•• Most common cause of perinatal mortality in twins is prematurity
•• Twin pick sign is seen in dichorionicity
•• Siamese/conjoined twins: Twins fused to each other

–– Thoracophagus: Fused in region of thorax
–– Ischiophagus: Fused in region of pelvis
–– Pyophagus: Fused in region of back
–– Craniophagus: Fused in region of head
•• Superfecundation: Fertilization of two different ova released in same cycle
•• Superfetation: Fertilization of two ova released in two different cycles
Anencephaly
–– Face presentation
–– Hydramnios
–– Postmaturity
–– Prematurity
•• Best diagnosed by USG at 10 to 12 weeks
MALPRESENTATIONS
Breech
•• Most common cause of breech is prematurity
•• Most common type of breech is frank breech
•• Engagement occurs earliest in frank breech
•• Mortality in breech is mainly due to intracranial hemorrhage
•• Commonest position is left sacroanterior
•• Engaging diameter is bitrochanteric
•• Head is borne by flexion
Delivery of head is by:

•• Burns Marshall Method
•• Maureciau-smeille-veit method
•• Pipers forceps
Extended legs: Pinards Maneuver

Extended arm: Lovests Maneuver
Prematurity, congenital anomalies and birth asphyxia are the main causes of perinatal mortality
Most unfavorable presentation is Mentoposterior
USMLE Case Scenario

A 35-year-old woman from Washington, gravida 4, para 3, at 38 weeks’ gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward after
noticing a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. After the gush of fluid, she has had increasing contractions. Speculum
examination shows clear fluid in the vagina that is nitrazine positive. Cervical examination by O/G Specialist shows that the
patient is 5 cm dilated, with the fetal face presenting in a mentum anterior position. External uterine monitoring shows that
the patient is contracting every 2 minutes and external fetal monitoring shows that the fetal heart rate 146/ s and reactive.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
1. Expectant management
2. Adminster oxytocin
3. Adminster ergometrine
4. Forceps delivery
5. Vacuum delivery
6. Cesarean section
7. Wait for complications
Ans. 1. Expectant management
This patient has a face presentation. It is a case of a fetus in labor is as an occiput presentation. A vaginal delivery is possible
when the fetus is in a mentum anterior position
Shoulder Dystocia
•• Impaction of anterior shoulder of fetus against symphysis pubis after fetal head has been delivered
•• Occurs when breadth of shoulders is greater than BPD
•• Risk factors are:
–– Diabetes
–– Obesity
–– Post-term baby
–– Excessive weight gain in pregnancy Approach is:
•• Apply suprapubic pressure
•• Legs in flexion (Mc Robert’s maneuver)
•• Woods procedure
•• Release posterior shoulder
•• Manual corckscrew
•• Episiotomy
•• Rollover
Turtle sign positive: Head delivers but retracts against symphisis pubis
Complications: Erbs palsy, klumpkes palsy#clavicle, humerus, spine, PPH (injury to perineum), Fetal hypoxia
Treatment
•• Cleidotomy
•• Zanavelli maneuver: Replacement of fetus to uterine cavity and cesarean section
•• Symphisiotomy
Rh Incompatibility
•• Immune hydrops
•• Father Rh+, mother Rh-, fetus Rh+
•• Ist child escapes usually
Can have adverse effects on baby as well as mother such as:

•• Preeclampsia
•• Polyhydramnios
•• Big baby
•• Hypofibrinogenemia
•• PPH
•• Maternal syndrome: Generalized edema, proteinuria, pruritis
•• Immune Hydrops in fetus

–– Pericardial effusion
–– Large placentas
–– Skin edema Earliest sign on USG
–– Ascites
•• Icterus neonatorum gravis in fetus
•• Hemolytic anemias in fetus
•• Anti D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours of delivery

•• 300 µg following delivery
•• 50 µg following abortion
•• Prognosis depends on serum bilirubin
•• Immediate cord ligation is done
•• Fetomaternal transfusion is detected by: Kleihauer Betke test
Diabetes and Pregnancy

•• T he metabolic changes are accompanied by maternal insulin resistance, caused in part by placental production of steroids, a
growth hormone variant and placental lactogen
•• Pregnancy complicated by diabetes mellitus is associated with higher maternal and perinatal morbidity and mortality rates
•• F
olate supplementation reduces the incidence of fetal neural tube defects, which occur with greater frequency in fetuses
of diabetic mothers
•• In addition, optimizing glucose control during key periods of organogenesis reduces other congenital anomalies including
sacral agenesis, caudal dysplasia, renal agenesis, and ventricular septal defect
•• Once pregnancy is established, glucose control should be managed more aggressively than in the nonpregnant state
•• F
etal macrosomia is associated with an increased risk of maternal and fetal birth trauma. Pregnant women with diabetes
have an increased risk of developing preeclampsia, and those with vascular disease are at greater risk for developing
intrauterine growth restriction, which is associated with an increased risk of fetal and neonatal death
ecause of delayed pulmonary maturation of the fetuses of diabetic mothers, early delivery should be avoided unless there is
•• B
biochemical evidence of fetal lung maturity
•• All pregnant women should be screened for gestational diabetes unless they are in a low-risk group
regnant women with gestational diabetes are at increased risk of preeclampsia, delivering infants who are large for their
•• P
gestational age, and birth lacerations.
Their fetuses are at risk of hypoglycemia and birth trauma (Brachial Plexus) injury
•• Maternal Complications •• Fetal Complications
•• Abortion •• Fetal macrosomia
•• Infections •• Neonatal malformations (CVS and Neural Tube defects)
•• Preeclampsia •• Renal Agenesis
•• Hydramnios •• Hypoglycemia
•• Hypocalcemia
•• Maternal Distress •• RDS
•• Increased complications of labor •• Hyperviscosity Syndrome
•• Shoulder Dystocia •• Hyperbilirubinemia
•• PPH •• Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
•• Perineal Injuries •• Polycythemia
•• Erbs, Klumpkes palsy
Heart Disease and Pregnancy

MS: (Mitral Stenosis and Pregnancy)
•• Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy
•• This is the valvular disease most likely to cause death during pregnancy
•• The pregnancy-induced increase in blood volume and cardiac output can cause pulmonary edema in women with mitral stenosis
•• Pregnancy associated with long-standing mitral stenosis may result in pulmonary hypertension. Sudden death has been
reported when hypovolemia has been allowed to occur in this condition
•• Pregnant women with mitral stenosis are at increased risk for the development of atrial fibrillation and other tachyarrythmias
•• Medical management of severe mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation with digoxin and beta blockers is recommended
•• Balloon valvulotomy can be carried out during pregnancy.
Mitral Regurgitation and Aortic Regurgitation. These are both generally well tolerated during pregnancy
•• The pregnancy-induced decrease in systemic vascular resistance reduces the risk of cardiac failure with these conditions
•• As a rule, mitral valve prolapse does not present problems for the pregnant patient and aortic stenosis, unless very severe, is also
well tolerated. In the most severe cases of aortic stenosis, limitation of activity or balloon valvuloplasty may be indicated
•• For women with artificial valves contemplating pregnancy, it is important that warfarin be stopped and heparin initiated prior
to conception
•• Warfarin therapy during the first trimester of pregnancy has been associated with fetal chondrodysplasia punctata. In the
second and third trimester of pregnancy, warfarin may cause fetal optic atrophy and mental retardation.
•• Aortic stenosis carries worst prognosis in pregnancy

•• Highest mortality in pregnancy is seen in Eisenmengers complex
•• Maximum strain on heart during parturition occurs in immediate postpartum period
•• Diastolic murmur is a feature of heart disease in pregnancy
•• Absolute indications for termination:
–– Primary pulmonary hypertension
–– Eisenmengers syndrome
–– Pulmonary venoocclusive disease
HIV and Pregnancy

HIV can be transmitted in pregnancy:
•• During delivery (most common)
•• In utero
•• During breastfeeding
Highest risk is associated with:
•• High maternal viral load
•• Low CD 4 T cell count
•• Chorioamnionitis
•• Vitamin A deficiency
Lower risk is associated with
•• LSCS
•• Antiretroviral prophylaxis (Zidovudine)
•• Avoiding breastfeeding
•• Vitamin A prophylaxis
•• Intrapartum nevirapine
Hypertension in Pregnancy
Pregnancy induced HTN:
Predicted by:
•• Rolling over test done at 20 weeks
•• Serum uric acid ↑
•• Weight gain > 2 kg/month
•• Earliest sign is ↑ BP
•• Preeclampsia: Hypertension+proteinuria+edema
•• Hypertension with proteinuria in a previously normotensive and nonproteinuric patient.
•• Mild preeclampsia: Systolic BP > 140 or Diastolic BP > 90 mm Hg on two or more occasions and proteinuria > 300 mg/24
hours.
•• Severe preeclampsia: Systolic BP >160 or Diastolic BP >110 mm Hg on two or more occasions and proteinuria > 5 gms/24
hours
•• Eclampsia is preeclampsia+convulsions
•• Imminent eclampsis is heralded by:
–– Headache
–– Blurring of vision
–– Epigastric pain
–– Brisk deep tendon reflexes
–– Diminished urinary output
•• Delivery of fetus is the definitive treatment
•• Control of hypertension is the most important factor in management of preeclampsia

•• Eclampsia is preeclampsia+convulsions
•• Eclampsia is mostly seen antepartum
•• Causes of convulsions in eclampsia are cerebral anoxia
•• PIH is hypertension developing after 20 weeks of pregnancy
•• Giants roll over test is done in PIH at 28 to 32 weeks
•• Rapid gain in weight is the earliest sign of PIH
•• In pregnancy induced hypertension, sudden loss of vision is due to Retinal detachment

•• Magnesium sulfate is effective in eclampsia
•• Mg sulfate toxicity is monitored by: Urinary output, knee jerk, respiratory rate
Complications of preeclampsia are:

•• Cerebral hemorrhage
•• Pulmonary edema
•• ARF
Drugs considered safe in pregnancy are:

•• Hydralazine and Methyldopa
•• The drug of choice for ‘Hypertension’ in pregnancy is Methyldopa
•• The drug of choice for ‘Hypertensive crisis’ in Pregnancy is Hydralazine
•• The drug of choice for ‘SEVERE preeclampsia’ in Pregnancy is Labetelol
•• The drug of choice to control ‘seizures’ in pregnancy is Magnesium sulfate
•• ACE inhibitors are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
HELLP Syndrome
•• The HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) syndrome
•• Microangiopathic hemolysis occurs
•• AST↑
•• LDH↑
•• Acute fatty liver of pregnancy, cholestasis of pregnancy, eclampsia, and the HELLP syndrome (can be confused with viral hepatitis
during pregnancy)
ANTEPARTUM HEMORRHAGE
Placenta Previa
Abnormal implantation of placenta usually near cervical os
Risk factors:
•• Prior cesarean
•• Grand multipara
•• Multiple gestations
•• Prior placenta previa
•• Painless
•• No tenderness
•• Soft uterus
•• No uterine irritability
•• Malpresentation
•• FHR normal usually
•• Coagulopathy uncommon
Abruptio Placenta
Premature separation of a normally placed placenta
Risk factors:
•• Hypertension
•• Trauma to abdomen
•• Smoking
•• Cocaine use
•• Painful
•• Tenderness
•• Increased uterine tone
•• Uterine irritability
•• Malpresentation none usually
•• FHR abnormal usually
•• Coagulopathy common
Vasa Previa
•• Fetal vessels crossing cervical os
•• Associated with velemantous cord insertion
•• Higher incidence in twins
•• Painless vaginal bleeding + fetal distress
•• APT test + look for nucleated cells in cord blood by wrights stain
•• Emergency cesarean is TOC
PPH
•• ‘Any amount of bleeding from or into the genital tract following birth of baby until the end of puerperium which adversely
affects the general condition of the patient evidenced by rise in pulse rate and falling BP is called PPH.’
•• Commonest cause of PPH is: Atonic uterus
Due to Atonic Uterus:

•• Grand multipara
•• Overdistension of Uterus
•• Malnutrition and Anemia
•• APH
•• Prolonged labor
•• Uterine malformation
•• Mismanaged third stage
•• Constriction ring
Due to Trauma:
•• Instrumental delivery, (cervical lacerations)
•• Face to pubis delivery
•• Precipitate labor
•• Macrosomia
Due to Blood coagulopathies:
•• Abruption
•• Sepsis
•• IUD
•• HELLP Syndrome
•• PPH occurs when blood loss is > 500 cc

•• Atonic uterus is more common in multipara
•• Drugs used for PPH are: Misoprostol, carboprost, methergine, ergometrine
•• B-lynch suture is applied on uterus
•• Placenta accerta: Chorionic villi attached to superficial myometrium

•• Placenta incerta: Villi invade myometrium
•• Placenta percerta: Villi penetrate full thickness of myometrium up to serosa
Heterotopic or Heterotopic Pregnancy

•• Heterotopic or heterotopic pregnancy is rare, but the incidents of it are on the rise
•• Heterotopic pregnancy is a multiple pregnancy with one embryo viably implanted in the uterus and the other implanted
elsewhere as an ectopic pregnancy
•• This type of pregnancy does occur very rarely in natural conception, at the rate of 1 in 30,000
•• However, in pregnancies conceived through assisted reproduction (ART, GIFT, IVF), the rate of heterotopic pregnancies jumps
to as many as 1 in 100 pregnancies
•• Today’s rate of heterotopic pregnancies has increased dramatically partly due to a rise in pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and
partly due to a number of other issues. Previous pelvic surgery, congenital or acquired abnormalities of the uterine cavity
and fallopian tubes may contribute to the condition, as does tubal microsurgery, drug ovulation stimulation, and ART
•• When it comes to women who have undergone IVF (in vitro fertilization), the rise in occurrence is largely due to the transfer of
multiple embryos to the uterus
•• When more than five embryos are implanted, the risk of heterotopic pregnancy increases from 1 in 100 to 1 in 45.
Uterine Inversion
•• Inside out turning of uterus
•• Results from mismanaged third stage of labor
•• Patient presents with intense shock
•• On examination of abdomen, fundus of uterus cant be felt
•• Hemorrhage (mc), neurogenic shock, pulmonary embolism, uterine sepsis and subinvolution are complications
Idiopathic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

•• Usually in last (3rd) trimester
•• Slight jaundice
•• Generalized pruritis is the commonest symptom, often severe
•• Disease recurs in next pregnancies
•• Marked
–– ↑In alkaline phosphatase
–– ↑ALT
–– ↑AST
–– ↑Bile acids
–– ↑Bilirubin
–– ↑GTT Liver biopsy is the test of choice
–– Uresodoxycholic acid is used in treatment
–– UROSIDOL is used for treatment
Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome

•• Autoimmune disorder
•• Due to lupus anticoagulant/anticardiolipin antibody
•• Predominantly venous thrombosis
•• Associated with recurrent fetal loss
–– ↑ PT
–– ↑ PTT
–– ↑ Kaolin clotting time
–– ↑ Dilute Russell viper venom time
Monitoring of Growth Restricted Fetus

The tests useful for monitoring of Growth restricted fetus are:
•• Biophysical profile
•• Cardiotocography
•• Umbilical artery Doppler
NST: Nonstress Test

•• It is determination of fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing using Doppler to assess FHR and its relationship to fetal movements
•• It is indicated in uteroplacental insufficiency/fetal distress
•• Normal result is called reassuring NST: at least 2 accelerations of FHR >15 beats per minute lasting >15 seconds in 20 minutes
•• Abnormal result is called non reassuring NST: < 2 accelerations of FHR >15 beats per minute lasting >15 seconds in 40 minutes
•• In case of non reassuring NST do BPP
FHR
Normal Pattern
•• Base line heart rate: 120–160 bpm
•• Base line variability: 5–25 bpm
•• Two accelerations in 20 minutes
•• No deceleration
Abnormal Pattern
•• Unexplained tachycardia
•• Unexplained bradycardia
•• Base line variability < 5 bpm
•• Repetitive early or variable decelerations
•• Repetitive late decelerations
•• Sinusoidal pattern
Deceleration
•• Early deceleration: Head compression
•• Late deceleration: Placental insufficiency
•• Variable deceleration: Cord compression
Treatment of deceleration
The biophysical profile (BPP) is a noninvasive test that predicts the presence or absence of fetal asphyxia and, ultimately, the
risk of fetal death in the antenatal period. When the BPP identifies a compromised fetus, measures can be taken to intervene before
progressive metabolic acidosis leads to fetal death.
The BPP combines data from 2 sources (i.e. ultrasound imaging and fetal heart rate [FHR] monitoring). Dynamic realtime B-mode
ultrasound is used to measure the amniotic fluid volume (AFV) and to observe several types of fetal movement. The FHR is obtained
using a pulsed Doppler transducer integrated with a high-speed microprocessor, which provides a continuously updated reading
Originally described by Manning and colleagues, the BPP has become a standard tool for providing antepartum fetal surveillance.
The BPP integrates 5 parameters to yield a biophysical profile score (BPS) and includes:
•• The nonstress test (NST)
•• Ultrasound measurement of the AFV, (Amniotic fluid volume)
•• Fetal breathing movements
•• Fetal body movements and
•• Tone
The BPP allows 2 points for each parameter that is present, yielding a maximum score of 10
•• Reassuring score is 8–10
•• < 6 is fetal distress.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22 -year-old primigravida at 31 weeks of gestation has a blood pressure of 162/112 mm Hg, serum total bilirubin level (2.8
mg/dL), serum alanine aminotransferase level of 155U/L and platelet count of 72,000/mm3. She is hospitalized for observation
and electronic fetal heart rate monitoring of the following, the Most ominous sign of fetal distress during monitoring would
be: Late decelerations
Cardiotocography
•• Monitoring the baby’s heartbeat is one way of checking babies’ well-being in labor. By listening to, or recording the baby’s
heartbeat, it is hoped to identify babies who are hypoxic and who may benefit from cesarean section or instrumental vaginal birth
•• The heartbeat can also be checked continuously by using a CTG machine
•• This method is sometimes known as electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate
and their mother’s labor contractions.
Risk Factors for Neural Tube Defects (NTD)

•• Family history of NTD
•• Insufficient folate
•• Maternal diabetes
•• Maternal use of antiepileptics
Chorioamnionitis
•• Fever+maternal tachycardia
•• Uterine tenderness
•• Foul odor of amniotic fluid
•• Leukocytosis
Complications are: Premature rupture of membranes
•• Premature labor
•• Endometritis
•• Parametritis
•• Abruptio placenta
Vaginal delivery is the mainstay of treatment
Neonatal Sepsis
Sepsis is asystemic response to infection. In newborns it can be classified as early onset, occurring in the first week of life, and late
onset, occurring between 8 and 28 days. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include:
•• Maternal infection during pregnancy (urinary tract infection, chorioamnionitis), prematurity and prolonged rupture of membranes
•• Common organisms causing sepsis in the newborn are:
–– Group B streptococci
–– Escherichia coli
–– Listeria
•• Viral causes can be herpes simplex virus and enteroviruses
•• Signs and symptoms of neonatal sepsis are nonspecific, such as grunting, tachypnea, cyanosis, poor feeding, irritability, apnea,
bradycardia, jitters, tremors, and seizures
•• Newborns do not always develop fever, and hypothermia may be a presenting sign
•• A bulging fontanelle may be palpated on physical exam, but there is rarely nuchal rigidity
•• Laboratory studies should include a complete blood count, lumbar puncture, and blood and urine cultures, as well as cultures of
any visible lesions or drainage.
Remember
•• ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy
•• Yellow fever vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy
•• Propyl thiouracil is drug of choice among antithyroid drugs in pregnancy

•• INH is safe in pregnancy
•• Streptomycin is not given in pregnancy
•• Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy
•• Valproic acid in pregnancy causes Neural tube defects
•• Alcohol: Fetal alcohol syndrome

•• Warfarin: Fetal warfarin syndrome
•• Phenytoin: Fetal hydantoin syndrome
•• Tetracycline: Discoloration of teeth
•• Methotrexate is unsafe in pregnancy

•• Propothiouracil is safe in pregnancy
•• Varicella can cause focal skin lesions and hypoplastic limbs
•• Couvelaire uterus seen in: Abruptio placenta

•• Rule of Hasse: Determines age of fetus
•• Banana and lemon sign: Seen in neural tube defects
•• Hartmans sign is implantation bleeding
•• Chemical pregnancy means positive beta HCG, Negative gestational sac
Causes of Symmetrical Enlargement of Uterus

•• Pregnancy
•• Submucous or Intramural (Solitary) fibroid
•• Adenomyosis
•• Myohyperplasia
•• Pyometra
•• Hematometra
•• Lochiometra
•• Malignancy
•• CA of uterine body
•• Choriocarcinoma
•• Mons pubis •• Pad of subcutaneous adipose connective tissue

•• Labia majora •• Are homologous to scrotum and have hair follicles, sweat glands and sebaceous glands
•• Labia minora •• Do not contain hair follicles
•• Clitoris •• Is analogous to penis in males
•• Anterior perineal triangle is •• Urogenital triangle
•• Posterior perineal triangle is •• Anal triangle
•• Central point of perineum is •• Perineal body
•• Rectouterine pouch is •• Pouch of douglas
•• Embryonic structure •• Female

•• Genital ridge •• Ovary
•• Genital swelling •• L. majora
•• Genital fold •• L. minora
•• Genital tubercle •• Clitoris
Fallopian Tube
•• Has 4 parts
•• Lined by ciliated columnar epithelium
•• Has peg cells
•• Measures 10 cms
Female Urethra
•• 4 cms in length
•• 6 mm in diameter
•• Posterior urethrovesical angle is 100°
•• Has transitional epithelium
•• Uterine artery arises from internal iliac artery

•• Vaginal artery arises from uterine artery
•• Ovarian artery arises from aorta
The larche, pubarche and menarche is the order of sexual development in girls.
Estrogen
•• Produced by the Syncytiotrophoblast
•• Its synthesis depends much on the precursor derived mainly from the fetus
•• In late pregnancy, estriol is the most important estrogen
•• Estrogen increases the secretion and ciliary beating in fallopian tubes
•• Estrogen changes the cuboidal lining of vagina to stratified
•• Estrogen changes the breakdown of glycogen into lactate in vagina
•• Estrogen initiates breast development
•• Estrogen causes early epiphyseal closure
•• Estrogen causes water retention
Progesterone
•• Produced by Syncytiotrophoblast
•• Chief hormone of Corpus luteum
•• Precursors from fetal origin are not necessary
•• After delivery, its level decreases rapidly and is not detectable after 24 hours
Corpus Luteum Secretes

•• Progesterone
•• Estrogen
•• Inhibin
•• Relaxin
Ovulation
•• Best predictor of ovulation is preovulatory rise in progesterone
•• Source of progesterone in normal menstrual cycle is: Corpus luteum
•• Inhibin is secreted by Graffian follicle

•• Ovulation coincides with LH surge
•• LH surge proceeds ovulation by 24 hours
•• Ovulatory period corresponds to 14 days before menstruation
•• Proliferative phase •• Estrogen stimulation

•• Secretory phase •• Progesterone stimulation
•• Estrogen •• Produced by granulosa cells
•• Progesterone •• Produced by corpus luteum
•• FSH •• Stimulates growth of granulosa cells. Measure of ovarian reserve
•• LH •• Stimulates follicle rupture and ovulation
Supports of Uterus
•• Perineal body
•• Pelvic diaphragm
•• Transcervical ligament
•• Pubocervical ligament
•• Uterosacral ligament
•• Uterine axis
•• Round ligament of uterus
•• Broad ligament is not a support of uterus
Anomalies of Uterus
•• Uterus bicornis bicollis: Two uterine cavities, double cervix
•• Uterus bicornis unicollis: Two uterine cavities, single cervix
•• Septate uterus: Septum between two fused mullerian ducts
•• Retroverted uterus: Long axis of body of uterus and cervix are in line instead of normal anteverted and anteflexed uterus
Supports of Vagina
•• Perineal body
•• Pelvic diaphragm
•• Levator ani muscle
Important Points about Vagina

•• Vagina lacks mucus secreting glands
•• pH of normal adult vagina: 4.5-5.5
•• pH of pregnant vagina: 3.5-4.5
•• Epithelium of vagina: stratified squamous
Lymphatic Drainage of Uterus

•• From fundus and upper part of body→Preaortic and Lateral aortic group of nodes
•• Cornu of uterus→Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
•• Lower part of body →Internal iliac group of lymph nodes
•• Lymphatic Drainage of Cervix

•• External iliac nodes and obturator lymph nodes either directly or through para-cervical lymph nodes
•• Internal iliac group of lymph nodes
•• Sacral group
Lymphatic drainage of fallopian tube
•• Para–aortic group along the ovarian vessels.
Lymphatic drainage of vagina
•• Upper 1/3→Iliac group
•• Middle 1/3 up to hymen→Internal iliac group
•• Below hymen→superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lymphatics of clitoris: Superficial inguinal, deep inguinal, Cloquets node
Bartholin’s Gland
•• Correspondes to bulbourethral glands of male (B-B)
•• Situated in the superficial perineal pouch
•• Lies close to the posterior end of vestibular bulb
•• Are pea sized
•• Lie near the junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of labium majus
•• It is a Compound Racemose Gland and its duct measures about 2 cm, lined with columnar Epithelium
•• Its duct passes forward and inward to open external to the hymen on inner side of Labium minus
•• Infection of these glands or their ducts results in Bartholinitis
Acute bartholinitis
•• Although Gonococcus is always in mind but more commonly E.coli, Staphylococcus
Streptococcus or Chlamydia trachomatis are involved
•• The end results of acute bartholinitis are:
–– Complete resolution
–– Recurrence
–– Abscess formation
–– Cyst formation
Recurrent Bartholinitis
•• Periodic painful attacks cause annoyance to the patient
•• Treatment: Active Phase: Hot compress, Analgesics and Antibiotics after proper culture
•• Quiescent Phase: Excision of the gland along with its duct.
Bartholins Abscess
•• It is the end result of acute bartholinitis
•• Duct is blocked by fibrosis, exudates pent up inside to produce abscess
•• Treatment: Same as for bartholinitis. Abscess should be drained at the earliest before. It bursts
•• Marsupialization not only helps in drainage of pus but prevents recurrence of abscess and future cyst formation
•• It should be done under General Anesthesia
•• Reccurrent Bartholin’s abscess Rx _____Excision in Quiescent Stage
Bartholin’s Cyst
•• It commonly involves the duct and not the gland
•• Cyst of the duct or the gland can be differentiated by the lining epithelium
•• Sometimes the cyst becomes large up to the size of Hens egg

•• The shape of vulval cleft changes to S-shaped
•• Rx: Marsupialization
Advantages of Marsupialization over traditional excision
•• Simple
•• Can be done even under local Anesthesia
•• Shorter hospital stay
•• Postoperative complications almost nil
•• Gland functions remain intact
Gartners Duct
•• Remnant of wolfian duct
•• Runs below but parallel to the fallopian tube in the mesosalpinx
•• The tubules of the gartners duct may be cystic
•• The outer ones are Kobelts tubules
•• The Middle set, the Epoophoron
•• The proximal set, the Paroopohoron
•• Small cyst may arise from any of the tubules
•• A cystic swelling from the Gartners duct may appear in the anterolateral wall of the vagina confusing with cystocele. Cystic
swelling is present at the junction of lower 1/3 and upper 2/3 of vaginal wall
Gartners Cyst Cystocele

•• Situated anteriorly or anterolateral •• Situated anteriorly
•• Size is variable •• Size increases on straining
•• Rugosities of the overlying vaginal. Mucosa is lost. Vaginal •• Mucosa over the bulge has Transverse rugosity
mucosa over it becomes Tense and shiny •• No such thing is seen
•• Margins are well defined •• Margins are diffuse
•• Not reducible •• Reducible
•• No impulse on coughing •• Impulse on coughing is present
•• Length of female urethra: 40 mm

•• Uterine cervix ratio up to 10 years: 1:2
•• Uterine cervix ratio in adult: 3:1
•• Normal Urethrovesical angle: 100°
•• Size of Graffian follicle: 2 mm
Important Facts about Vulva

•• Leukoplakia of vulva is treated by simple vulvectomy
•• Lymphatics of vulva go to inguinal lymph nodes
•• Vulval carcinoma metastasizes to superficial inguinal lymph nodes
•• Sentinel biopsy is used in vulval cancer
Important Facts about Vagina

•• Strawberry vagina: Trichomoniasis vaginalis
•• Clue cells in vagina, fishy odoue, positive whiff test: hemophilus vaginalis
•• pH of vagina is lowest in pregnancy
•• Senile vaginitis is due to estrogen deficiency

•• Vagina has no mucus secreting glands
•• Lactobacillus is the protective bacterium in normal vagina
Kartagener’s Syndrome
Infertility is common, due to defective ciliary action in the fallopian tube in affected females or diminished sperm motility in
affected males
In Kartagener’s syndrome (KS), primary defects of the ciliary axoneme cause dyskinetic ciliary motion. Because ciliary motion is an
important factor in normal ovum transport, ciliary dyskinesia may cause infertility. In active regions, beat frequency ranged from
5 to 10 Hz, approximately 30% of normal
•• Electron microscopy shows morphological defects in tubal mucosa
•• The number of cilia per cell is ↓
•• The major ultrastructural abnormality was an absence of the central microtubules
•• Electron microscopy demonstrated that the majority of cilia lack dynein arms and radial spokes and that various defects of
microorgans existed in the sperm
PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASES (PID)

Vaginal Discharge
•• Yellow, pH > 5, clue cells, amine odor •• Bacterial vaginosis
•• Cottage cheese discharge, pruritis •• Candida
•• Frothy, Foamy discharge and motile trophozites seen •• Trichomonas vaginalis
PID
•• Gram-negative diplococcic in PMNs in urethral Exudate •• Nisseria gonorrhea
•• Culture negative specimen with inclusion bodies •• Chlamydiae trachomatis
•• Organisms without cell wall and urease positive •• Ureaplasma urealyticum
•• Flagellate protozoa with motility •• Trichomonas vaginalis
Chancroid
•• Hemophilus ducreyi
–– Painful ulcer, genital ulceration and inguinal adenitis
–– Painful lymphadenopathy seen
–– Associated with infection with HIV
•• School of fish appearance
•• H. ducreyi is a highly fastidious coccobacillary gram-negative bacterium whose growth requires X factor (hemin)
•• Chancroid can be treated effectively with several regimens, including (1) ceftriaxone, 250 mg intramuscularly as a single dose;
(2) azithromycin, 1 g orally as a single dose; (3) erythromycin, 500 mg orally four times daily for 7 days; and (4) ciprofloxacin, 500
mg orally twice daily for 3 days.
Candida
•• Caused by candida albicans
•• Recurrent vulvovaginalis: 4 or more episodes per year
•• It is a gram-positive fungus
•• Common in pregnancy, diabetes mellitus
•• Commonly seen in pregnancy, diabetes, antibiotics, OCP use, Corticosteroids
–– Profuse curdy white curdy discharge or cottage cheese appearance

–– Dyspareunia
–– Burning sensation
–– Intense pruritis
Trichomoniasis
•• Most common vaginal infection
•• Caused by flagellate parasite ‘trichomonas vaginalis’
–– Profuse, thin, greeny discharge which is malodorous
–– Strawberry vagina/colpitis macularis appearance
•• Best test: Culture
•• Metronidazole is DOC
•• Treat sexual partener concurrently
Bacterial Vaginosis
Poly microbial caused by:
–– Gardenella vaginalis
–– Hemophilus vaginalis
–– Mobilincus
–– Ureaplasma urealyticum
–– Mycoplasma hominis
•• ↓Lactobacilli
•• ↓Leucocytes
•• ALKALINE pH
•• ‘Clue cells’ are epithelial cells with bacteria adhering to their surface and sometimes obscuring their borders. Clue cells indicate
bacterial vaginosis
•• Clue cells were first described by Gardner and Dukes in 1955 and were so named as these cells give an important ‘clue’ to the
diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis (BV)
•• Clue cells are vaginal squamous epithelial cells coated with anaerobic Gram-variable coccobacilli Gardnerella vaginalis.
Pathogenesis:
The detection of clue cells is the most useful single procedure for the diagnosis of BV. Presence of more than 20% clue cells in vaginal
discharge is included in Amsel’s criteria for the diagnosis of BV. Other criteria for the diagnosis of BV include:
Milky, homogeneous, adherent discharge
vaginal pH greater than 4.5
Positive Whiff test, i.e. typical fishy odor on addition of one or two drops of 10% KOH to vaginal discharge and
Few or no lactobacilli
Metronidazole (DOC) or clindamycin is used in treatment
Metronidazole is used in pregnancy.
LGV
•• Chlamydia trachomatis L type
–– Painless ulcer
–– Esthiomine seen in LGV
–– Groove sign. (Double genitocrural fold)
–– Genital elephantiasis is seen
•• Incubation period = 3 days to 3 weeks. Painless, vesicle, often transient, followed by suppurative LAP
•• Sign of Groove + (LAP present both above and below inguinal ligament)
•• Elephantiasis of vulva + Vaginal and rectal strictures seen
•• Frei’s intadermal test +
•• Doxycycline is DOC
Donovaniosis (Granuloma inguinale)

•• Calymatobacterium granulomaosis
•• Painless ulcer
•• Painless beffy red ulcer with fresh granulation tissue
Herpes Genitalis
•• HSV II virus usual
•• Painful vesicular lesions
Condyloma Acuminata
•• Most common viral STD
•• Caused by HPV: 6, 16, 18
•• Immunosuppression, diabetes, pregnancy are predisposing factors
•• Cauliflower like masses, pedunculated
Treated by:
•• Podophyllin, podophox
•• Trichloroacetic acid
•• Imiquimoid
•• Cryo
•• LASER
•• Surgical excision
Condyloma lata are seen in secondary syphilis
Chlamydia
•• Purulent discharge, urethritis, arthritis, conjuctivitis
•• Infertility associated with fallopian-tube scarring. It appears that subclinical tubal infection (‘silent salpingitis’) may produce
scarring
•• Ectopic pregnancy
•• Perihepatitis, or the Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome, this syndrome should be suspected whenever a young, sexually active woman
presents with an illness resembling cholecystitis (fever and right-upper-quadrant pain of subacute or acute onset). Symptoms and
signs of salpingitis may be minimal. High titers of antibodies to C. trachomatis are generally present
•• PCR is gold standard for diagnosis
•• Azithromycin is DOC for uncomplicated chlamydiae
•• Azithromycin is DOC for chlamydiae in pregnancy
•• Erythromycin is safe in pregnancy
•• Azithromycin and contact tracing is the most effective for chlamydiae infections
Genital Tuberculosis
•• Genital TB is almost always secondary to focus elsewhere
•• Primary focus is in lungs (50%), lymph nodes (40%) cases
•• Hematogeneous spread is the commonest mode followed by direct spread and ascending route
•• Major forms:
–– Tuberculous endosalpingitis
–– Tuberculous exosalpingitis
–– Interstitial salpingitis
•• Only about 10% of genital TB cases have children
•• First site of affection are the fallopian tubes
•• Commonest site of affection are the fallopian tubes
•• ‘Tobacco pouch appearance’ of fallopian tubes is a feature
•• ‘Salpingitis isthmica nodosa’ is nodular thickening of tubes in genital TB
•• Endometrium of uterus is involved in 60% cases
•• Cervix is involved in 10–15% of cases
•• Infertility is due to blockage of fallopian tubes. In the form of TB endosalpingitis
•• The first line of treatment is ATT (Antitubercular therapy)
USMLE Case Scenario

An 18-year-old girl complains of malodorous vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses condoms for sexual intercourse.
On examination, a thin, grayish-white discharge is seen. A musty odor is produced when KOH is added to the discharge. The
vaginal fluid has a pH of 5. Which of the following is the most likely finding on a microscopic examination of the vaginal fluid?
1. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
2. Viral inclusions
3. Gram-negative diplococci
4. Lactobacilli
5. Pseudohyphae
6. Motile, flagellated organisms
Ans. 1. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
Endometriosis
•• Commonest site: ovary
•• Followed by: pouch of Douglas, uterosacral ligaments, rectovaginal septum
•• Peak age: 30–40 years
•• Common innullipara
•• Chocolate cysts
•• Tenderness and nodularity of uterosacral ligaments
•• Sampson’s theory of retrograde menstruation. (Most accepted)
•• Meyer and ivanoffs coelomic metaplasia theory
•• Direct implantation theory
•• Halbans lymphatic theory
•• Rare in negroes
•• Pelvic pain (commonest manifestation)
•• Painful periods Dysmenorrhea
•• Painful intercourse Dyspareunia
•• Painful bowel movements Dyschezia
•• Menorrhagia
•• Polymenorrhea
•• Infertility
Treatment:
–– Progesterone
–– OCP
–– CLOMIPHENE (in infertile women)
–– Danazol
–– GnRH analogues (leuprolide)
–– Ovarian cystectomy/oopherectomy/Wedge resection
–– Paratubal lysis by laproscopy
–– Total hysterectomy: For diffuse endometriosis interna
Endometriosis: Atypical Sites

•• Abdominal scars
•• Bladder/ureter
•• Cervix/vagina
•• Umbilicus
•• Gut
•• Lungs
Naked Eye Appearances

•• Powder burns
•• Red flame shaped areas
•• Yellow brown patches
•• White areas and circular peritoneal defects
Pseudoxanthoma cells: Adjacent to lining of endometriosis, presence of polyhedral, phagocytic, pigmented cells with hemosiderin
A female of 34 years complain of dysmenorrheal, dyspareunia and dyschezia with fixed retroverted uterus and nodularity of
uterosacral ligaments
Adenomyosis
•• Endometrial glands without Myometrium of uterine wall
•• Secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia are common
•• Uterus is enlarged and tender
•• Treatment: Hysterectomy
A female 36-year-old with dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, chronic pelvic pain and symmetrically, enlarged smooth uterus tender
to palpation
CONTRACEPTION
Gossypol
•• Male contraceptive
•• Direct suppression of semineferous tubules causing azoospermia
•• Suppresses LH
IUCD
Act by ovulation inhibition, causing aseptic endometritis
Act by prevention of fertilization
Act by interfering with implantation
Contraindications:
•• PID
•• Congenital uterine anomalies
•• Heart disease
•• Pelvic TB
•• HIV Positives
•• Suspected pregnancy
•• Previous ectopic
•• Menorrhagia
Commonest side effect is bleeding
Nova T has a silver core but contains both copper and silver
•• In CuT200, 200 mean 200 mm2 of copper
•• CuT200 is inserted postnatally after 8 weeks
•• If CuT200 is implanted in Myometrium treatment is hysteroscopic removal
•• CuT200 should be replaced after every 10 years
Contraceptive TODAY
Contraceptive TODAY
•• Contains 9 NON OXYNOL
•• It is a barrier contraceptive
•• Effective for 24 hours after insertion
•• Spermicidal in nature
•• NORPLANT contains levonorgesterol

•• Centrochroman is antiestrogenic, antiprogestogenic nonteratogenic, long acting pill
•• Mifeprestone is an antiprogestogen
•• MINERA is Progesterone IUCD
Uses of OCP
•• Contraception, emergency postcoital (prophylaxis) A combination of levonorgestrel 50 or norgestrel with ethinyl estradiolis
used as emergency contraception (also called intraception, morning-after treatment, or postcoital contraception) for postcoital
birth control, after pregnancy has been ruled out. The dosing method using high doses of estrogen-progestin hormones is
commonly called the Yuzpe method
•• Acne vulgaris
•• Amenorrhea
•• Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
•• Dysmenorrhea
–– Hypermenorrhea
–– Endometriosis (Prophylaxis and Treatment)
–– Hirsutism, female
–– Hyper and rogenism, ovarian
–– Polycystic ovary syndrome
WHO Categories Contraindications for Estrogens/OCPS

•• Age > 40 years
•• Smoker < 35 years
•• History of Jaundice
•• Mild Hypertension
•• Gallbladder disease
•• Diabetes
•• Sickle Cell anemia
•• Headache
•• CINor Ca Cervix
•• Unexplained Vaginal bleeding

•• Hyperlipidemia
•• Past Breast Cancer
•• Benign Liver tumors
•• Heavy smoker
•• Breastfeeding
•• OCPS protect against endometrial cancer, Ovarian cancer

•• OCP of choice in Lactating females is Mini Pill
•• Fertility returns 6 months after OCP use
Drugs Decreasing Effectiveness of OCP

•• Barbiturates
•• Carbamazepine
•• Phenytoin
•• Rifampicin
Levonorgestrel
•• Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestogen used as an active ingredient in hormonal contraception
•• Makes endometrium unreceptive
•• Makes cervical mucus thick
•• It is used effectively in emergency contraception both in combined form with estrogens as well as levonorgestrel only method
•• Levonorgestrel only method uses ‘1500 µgm single dose’ or ‘750 µgm’ doses twelve hours apart within 3 days of unprotected
sexual activity
Progestasert
•• Third generation IUCD containing progesterone
•• Decreases blood loss
•• Decreases dysmenorrhea
•• BUT ↑ risk of ectopics
Third Generation OCP

Contain 3rd generation progesterone
•• Desogestrel
•• Norgestimate
•• Gestodene
–– Lower risk of arterial thrombosis
–– Higher risk of venous thrombosis
–– Lipid friendly
Infertility
•• Failure to conceive within one or more years of regular unprotected sex
•• Male responsible for 30% cases
•• Female responsible for 30% cases
INTRAUTERINE INSEMINATION
Indications
•• Hostile cervical mucus
•• Cervical stenosis
•• Oligospermia
•• Immune factors
•• Unexplained fertility
INTRACERVICAL INSEMINATION
Indications
•• Hypospadias
•• Retrograde ejaculation
•• Impotence
•• Third degree retroversion of uterus
IN VITRO FERTILIZATION
Indications
•• Tubal disease
•• Unexplained infertility
•• Cervical hostility
•• Failed ovulation induction
•• Male factor infertility
Other Assisted Reproduction Techniques

GIFT: Gamete intrafallopian transfer
ZIFT: Zygote intrafallopian transfer
MIST: Microinsemination sperm transfer
•• Aspiration of sperms is done in TESA

•• In Post-testicular azospermia technique used is PESA/MESA
•• Ferning pattern of cervical mucus is because of: Estrogen

•• Palm leaf pattern cervix is due to estrogen
•• Spinbarkiet phenomenon is maximum in ovulatory phase
•• Postcoital test determines cervical factor
Prolapse
•• Cystocele: Prolapse of upper 2/3 of anterior vaginal wall. Formed by base of bladder
•• Urethrocele: Prolapse of lower 1/3 of anterior vaginal wall
•• Enterocele: Prolapse of upper 1/3 of posterior vaginal wall
•• Rectocele: Prolapse of lower 2/3 of posterior vaginal wall
•• Uterine prolapse: Abnormal descent of uterus through vagina
•• Procedentia: Complete uterine prolapse outside vulva
•• Prolapse in pregnant women in 1st Trimester: Pessary

•• Prolapse in pregnant women in 2nd Trimester: Resolves itself
•• Prolapse in young women: Sling operation, Perineal exercise
•• Prolapse in Women < 40 years with family complete wanting to retain menstrual function: Fother gills operation
•• Prolapse in Women > 40 years with family complete
Not wanting to retain menstrual function: Vaginal Hysterectomy
•• Prolapse in old Women who cannot sustain surgery: Le Fortes surgery
Complications
•• Elongation of cervix
•• Cystocele
•• Decubitus ulcer
•• Decubitus ulcer is because of venous congestion
Fistula
•• MC urinary fistula: Vesicovaginal
•• MC cause of VVF in India: obstructed labor (DOC cystoscopy)
•• MC cause of Uretrovaginal fistula: injury to ureter in Hysterectomy
•• MC cause of vesicouterine fistula: cesarean section
•• MC cause of Rectovaginal fistula: complete perineal tear
Menstrual Disorders
•• ‘Menarche’ (First Menstruation) occurs between 11 and 15 years
•• Normal duration of menstrual period is 4–5 days
•• Peak Secretory activity is seen on Day 22 of menstrual cycle
•• Amount of blood loss is 20–80 ml
•• AVERAGE blood loss in normal periods is 50 ml
•• Precocious menstruation occurs in females aged less than 10 years
•• ‘Menopause’ means permanent cessation of menstruation at an average age of 50 years

•• ‘Premature menopause’ is when menstruation stops at or below 40 years of age
•• ‘Delayed Menopause’ is when menopause fails to occur even beyond 55 years
•• Polymenorrhea is cyclic bleeding where cycle length is reduced to less than 21 days and remains constant at that frequency
•• Metorrhagia is irregular, acyclic bleeding
•• Menometorrhagia is irregular and excessive bleeding to the extent that menstrual period is not recognized at all
•• Hypomenorrhea is scant bleeding lasting for less than 2 days
•• Most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding in India is ca cervix

•• Most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in India is: endometrial tuberculosis
Amenorrhea means absence of periods for 6 months or more

Causes of cryptomenorrhea:
•• Imperforate hymen
•• Transverse septum in vagina
•• Noncanalization of cervix
•• Cervical canal stenosis
Primary Amenorrhea
Failure of onset of menses in a girl by 16 years of age
Causes:
•• Aplasia/hypoplasia of uterus
•• Pseudohermaphroditism
•• Cretinism
Syndromes Causing Amenorrhea

•• Kallaman’s syndrome
•• Prader willi syndrome
•• Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
•• Frohlich’s syndrome
•• Sheehan’s syndrome
•• Sweyer’s syndrome
•• Asherman’s syndrome
Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding

Menorrhagia without extragenital cause and normal pelvic examination
Associated with metropathia hemorrhagica
Endometrium can be:
•• Normal
•• Hyperplastic (commonest)
•• Irregular shedding, irregular ripening
•• Tubercular endometritis
•• Chronic endometritis
•• Progesterone is usually deficient. ↑Estrogen
•• Estrogen, OCP, progesterone, danazol are used for treatment
Premenstrual Syndrome: PMS

•• Depression
•• Irritability
•• Anxiety
•• Breast tenderness
•• Lethargy
•• Insomnia/Hypersomnia, swelling, weight gains on monthly basis and disappearing with menses
•• More severe form is premenstrual dysmorphic disorder
•• Symptoms should occur for 3 consecutive cycles
•• Must interfere with normal functioning
•• Must resolve with onset of menses
Mittelschmerz
•• Lower abdominal pain cyclically 2 weeks before menstruation
•• In mid menstrual period
•• Nausea and constipation invariably absent
•• May be associated with mucoid discharge
PCOD (Polycystic Ovarian Disease)

Associations:
•• Hirusitism
•• Obesity
•• Acne
•• Acanthosis Nigricans
•• Infertility
•• Associated with endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer
•• ↑Testosterone
•• ↑LH/FSH
Bilaterally enlarged ovaries
•• OCPS
•• Metformin
•• Clomiphene citrate
•• Spironolactones are used in treatment
A 20-year-old obese female with irregular menstrual periods, acne, insulin resistance and elevated LH: FSH ratio
Meyer Rokintansky Hauser Syndrome Testicular Feminization Syndrome
•• 46 XX •• 46 XY
•• Phenotype: Female •• Phenotype: Female
•• Aplasia/hypoplasia of vagina •• Blind vaginal pouch with absent uterus
•• Ovary present
•• Female Secondary sexual characters normally developed
Mullerian Agenesis
•• Mullerian agenesis (The Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome) second in frequency only to gonadal dysgenesis as a
cause of primary amenorrhea
•• Caused by mutations in the genes encoding anti-mullerian hormone (AMH) or its receptor (AMHR)
•• Women with this syndrome have a
–– 46, XX karyotype
–– Female secondary sex characteristics
–– Normal ovarian function, including cyclic ovulation
–– Absence or hypoplasia of the vagina
•• The uterus usually consists of only rudimentary bicornuate cords, but if the uterus contains endometrium, cyclic abdominal pain
and accumulation of blood may occur, as in other forms of outlet obstruction
•• One-third of women with this syndrome have abnormalities of the urogenital tract and one-tenth has skeletal anomalies,
usually involving the spine
•• Demonstration of a 46, XX karyotype the biphasic basal body temperature curve characteristic of ovulation and elevated
levels of progesterone during the luteal phase establish the diagnosis of mullerian agenesis
Testicular Feminization Syndrome

•• The major diagnostic problem is distinguishing mullerian agenesis from complete testicular feminization
•• 46, XY genetic males with testes differentiate as phenotypic women but with a blind vaginal pouch and no uterus
•• Women with testicular feminization have feminized breasts but a paucity of pubic and axillary hair. The disorder is X-linked and
is caused by mutations in the androgen receptor that result in profound resistance to the action of testosterone
•• Testicular feminization can be diagnosed by demonstrating a
–– Male level of serum testosterone
–– 46, XY Karyotype
•• Doderleins bacillus is protective bacterium in normal vagina

•• Nabothian follicles are seen in cervical erosion
•• Lipshutz ulcer effects: Vagina
Cancer Cervix
Predisposing factors:
•• Early age of coitus
•• Multiple sex partners
•• Multiparity
•• Poor hygiene
•• Poor socioeconomic status
•• Smoking, alcohol, drug abuse
•• Associated STDS
•• Immunosupression
•• Most common virus associated with squamous cell carcinoma: HPV 16

•• Most common virus associated with Adenocarcinoma: HPV 18
•• Most common virus associated with Verrucous carcinoma: HPV 6
•• Commonest Presenting symptom: Bleeding pv

•• Arises from squamo columnar junction
•• Earliest symptom is postcoital bleeding
•• MC site is ectocervix
•• Caused By HPV Virus
•• Mc agent HPV 16
•• Types associated with cervical carcinoma are 16, 18, 31, 45 and 51 to 53
•• Predisposing factors are: HSV, HIV, HPV infections
•• Obturator, hypogastric and external iliac lymph nodes are affected
Time taken for conversion of CINTO INVASIVE CANCER: 10 YEARS
•• Uncomplicated HPV lower genital tract infection and condylomatous atypia of the cervix can progress to CIN. This lesion precedes
invasive cervical carcinoma and is classified as low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (SIL), high-grade SIL and carcinoma in
situ
•• Approximately 80% of invasive cervix carcinomas are squamous cell tumors
•• 10 to 15% are adenocarcinomas, 2 to 5% are adenosquamous with epithelial and glandular structures, and 1 to 2% is clear cell
mesonephric tumors
•• Patients with cervix cancer generally present with abnormal bleeding or postcoital spotting that may increase to intermenstrual
or prominent menstrual bleeding. Yellowish vaginal discharge, lumbosacral back pain and urinary symptoms can also be seen
The staging of cervical carcinoma is clinical and generally completed with a pelvic examination under anesthesia with cystoscopy
and proctoscopy. Chest X-rays, intravenous pyelograms and computed tomography are generally required and magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI) may be used to assess extracervical extension
•• Stage 0 is carcinoma in situ
•• Stage I is disease confined to the cervix
•• Stage II disease invades beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina
•• Stage III disease extends to the pelvic wall or lower third of the vagina or causes hydronephrosis
•• Stage IV is present when the tumor invades the mucosa of bladder or rectum or extends beyond the true pelvis
•• Cervical biopsy is the best method of diagnosing cervical cancer

•• Pap smear is the best method of screening
•• Renal failure is the commonest cause of death
•• 100% cure rates are seen in carcinoma situ
•• Treatment of stage II is: Extended hysterectomy, chemotherapy and intracavitary brachytherapy

•• Treatment of stage III B is: Radiotherapy and chemotherapy
Cone Biopsy
Indications:
•• Cervical lesion cannot be visualized by coloposcope
•• Squamo columnar junction is not seen by coloposcope
•• Endocervical curettage demonstrates findings positive for CIN II,CIN III
•• Lack of correlation between biopsy and coloposcopy
•• Microinvasive carcinoma or adenocarcinoma in situ on coloposcopy
•• Therapeutic in case of CIN III (Best approach in elderly is hysterectomy)
•• Done under general anesthesia ideally
Complications:
•• Hemorrhage
•• Infection
•• Cervical stenosis
•• In case of visible mass: Punch biopsy
•• In case of no mass: Coloposcopic directed biopsy
Fibroid (Uterine Leiomyoma)

•• They are proliferative, well-circumscribed, pseudoencapsulated, benign Tumors composed of smooth muscle and fibrous
connective tissue
•• They are the most common uterine mass found in the female pelvis
•• Most common neoplasm found in the female pelvis
•• Most common benign solid tumor in females
•• They are present in 15–20% of women especially after 30–35 years of age
•• They vary in diameter from 1 mm to more than 20 cm
•• They are more common in nulliparous
•• The prevalence is highest between 35 and 45 years
Etiology
•• Fibroids are monoclonal Tumors resulting from somatic mutation. They arise from
•• Single neoplastic smooth muscle cell
•• Abnormalities in chromosomes 6, 7, 12 and 14 have been identified
•• Disruption or Dysregulation of the high mobility group genes on chromosome 12 contribute to fibroid development
Role of Hormones:
•• Estrogen is a promoter of fibroid growth and not its causal factor
•• Fibroids rarely found before puberty
•• They stop growing after menopause
•• New fibroids rarely appear after menopause
•• They often grow rapidly during pregnancy and amongst Pill Users
•• GnRH agonists create a hypoestrogenic environment that results in a reduction of the size of fibroid
•• Some Peptide growth factors play a role in etiology
•• Epidermal Growth Factor (EGF) induces DNA synthesis in fibroids and myometrial cells
•• Estrogen exerts its effect through EGF
PIRFENIDONE, an antifibrotic agent suppresses fibroid growth as it inhibits fibrogenic cytokines including basic FGF, PDGF, TGF-beta
and EGF.
Intramural or Interstitial Fibroid:

•• Most common variety
•• Occur within the walls of uterus as isolated, encapsulated nodules of varying size
•• When they grow they distort uterine cavity or external surface and are pushed inwards or outwards
•• They cause symmetrical enlargement of the uterus when they occur singly (Solitary)
Submucous Fibroid
•• Located beneath the endometrium and can grow into the uterine cavity
•• Least common (about 5%) BUT maximum symptoms
Fate of Submucous fibroid
–– Surface necrosis (abnormal bleeding and anemia)
–– Polypoid change following pedicle formation
–– Infection
–– Degenerations including Sarcomatous change
Subserous Fibroid (Subperitoneal)
•• Located just beneath the serosal surface and grow out towards the peritoneal cavity, causing bulging of the peritoneal surface
of the uterus
•• They may develop a pedicle, become pedunculated and reach a large size within the peritoneal cavity without producing symptoms
Other Types of Fibroid

•• Wandering fibroid: In Subserous variety, on rare occasion, the pedicle may be torn through; the fibroid gets its nourishment
from the omentum, mesentery or bowel and develop a secondary blood supply. The resulting structure is known as Wandering
fibroid or Parasitic fibroid
•• Intraligamentary fibroid (false or pseudofibroid): The Intramural fibroid may be pushed out in between the layers of Broad
Ligament and is called Intraligamentary fibroid or Broad ligament fibroid
Cervical Fibroid:
•• Rare (1–2%)
•• SITE: Supravaginal part of cervix
•• INTERSTITIAL variety may displace the cervix or expand it so much that external os is difficult to recognize
•• All these disturb the pelvic anatomy, specially the ureter. In the vaginal cervix, the fibroid is usually pedunculated and rarely sessile
Pseudocervical fibroid: A Fibroid polyp arising from the uterine body when occupies and distends the cervical canal, it is called
Pseudocervical Fibroid
Pathological Changes
1. Fibroids are pseudoencapsulated solid Tumors
2. Well demarcated from surrounding myometrium
3. The false capsule has more parallel arrangement while the tumor has whorled appearance
4. The capsule is pinkish in color in contrast to whitish appearance of the tumor
5. The capsule is separated from the tumor by A THIN LOOSE AREOLAR TISSUE
6. The blood vessels run through this plane to supply the tumor
7. The tumor is shelled out during Myomectomy through this plane
8. The periphery of tumor is more vascular and has more growth potentiality
9. The center of the tumor is least vascular and likely to degenerate
CELLULAR LEIOMYOMAS: Are Tumors with mitotic counts of five to ten per 10 consecutive high power fields that lack cytological
atypia
LEIOMYOSARCOMAS: Previously diagnosed on the basis of mitotic count of 10 mitotic figures per 10 high-power fields. The new
factors recently recognized are CELLULAR ATYPIA and COAGULATIVE NECROSIS of tumor cells.
Secondary Changes in Fibroids

1. Degeneration
2. Atrophy
3. Necrosis
4. Infection
5. Vascular changes
6. Sarcomatous changes
Red Degeneration of Fibroid

•• Occurs mainly in large fibroids
–– Tumor is red/purple in color
–– It is due to thrombosis of large veins in the tumor
–– It has apeculiar fishy odor
•• Occurs during Second half of pregnancy or puerperium
•• Most frequent complication of myoma during pregnancy
•• The tumor assumes a peculiar purple-red color

•• Cause is vascular in nature (Thrombosis of large veins in the tumor)
•• Infection has no role and the process is an aseptic one
•• Presentation as a case of an acute abdomen
•• It produces pain and tenderness (hyaline degeneration does not)
•• Clinical features include fever, moderate leucocytosis and increased ESR
•• It has a peculiar fishy odor
•• Management is conservative and include:
–– Bedrest
–– Analgesics and Sedatives
–– The symptoms usually clear off within 10 days
–– Laparotomy if done with mistaken diagnosis, the abdomen is to be closed immediately
Sarcomatous Change in Fibroid

•• Rarest among all other secondary changes in the fibroid (0.5% of all myomas)
•• Seen in women > 40 years age
•• Postmenopausal
•• Intramural and submucous fibroid > Subserous (least common)
•• Treatment is total hysterectomy and bilateral salping oophorectomy followed by radiotherapy
Guidelines for the Management of Myomas

•• ASYMPTOMATIC: No treatment required
•• Symptomatic
–– Young
–– Old And Family Complete
•• Medical Treatment
•• Hysterectomy
–– Ru 486 (Mifepristone)
–– GnRH analogues
Surgical (Myomectomy)
Myomectomy
•• Indications
–– Infertile Women in her reproductive period desirous of having a baby
–– Recurrent pregnancy wastage due to fibroid
•• Prerequisites Prior to Myomectomy
–– Examination of Husband (From fertility point of view)
–– Hysterosalpingography (to detect a fibroid encroaching the uterine cavity OR polyp OR tube)
–– Diagnostic D+C (in cases of irregular cycles to exclude endometrial carcinoma)
•• Facts to be in Mind Prior to Consideration of Myomectomy
•• It should be done mainly to preserve the reproductive function
•• The wish to preserve the menstrual function in parous women should be judiciously complied
•• More risky operation when the fibroid is too big and too many
•• Chance of recurrence (5–10%)
•• Chance of persistence of menorrhagia (1–5%)
•• Increased rate of relaparotomy to the extent of 20–25%
•• Pregnancy rate is about 40–50%
•• Pregnancy following myomectomy should have a mandatory hospital delivery, although the chance of scar rupture is rare.
Contraindications
•• Husband proved infertile. In the face of advent of ART, counseling is imperative
•• Associated bilateral infective tubo-ovarian mass
•• Infected fibroid
Technically Difficult Cases with Poor Reproductive Outcome
•• Big broad ligament fibroid
•• Too many fibroids
Advantages of Hysterectomy Over Myomectomy
•• There is no chance of recurrence
•• Adnexal pathology and the unhealthy cervix can also be removed
Role of Vaginal Hysterectomy in Fibroid Surgery
•• Fibroids with size of 10-12 weeks of pregnancy and associated with uterine prolapse are better dealt by Vaginal Hysterectomy
with repair of pelvic floor
Indications of Surgery in Asymptomatic Fibroid

•• Size > 12 weeks of pregnancy
•• Diagnosis is not certain
•• Fibroid grows during follow-up
•• Subserous pedunculated fibroid
•• Unexplained infertility with distortion of the uterine cavity
•• Unexplained recurrent abortion
•• Situated in the lower part of uterus and likely to complicate delivery
Indications of Emergency Surgery in Fibroid
•• Torsion of subserous pedunculated fibroid
•• Massive intraperitoneal hemorrhage following rupture of veins over subserous fibroid
•• Uncontrolled infected fibroid
•• Uncontrolled bleeding fibroid
•• Fibroids are the commonest benign solid tumors in females

•• Most common variety of fibroid is intramural/interstitial
•• They are estrogen dependent
•• Most common type of degeneration is the ‘Hyaline Type’ which starts from the center
•• Red degeneration of fibroid is seen with pregnancy
•• Sarcomatous change or malignant change is rare (0.5%)
•• Malignant potential is most in intramural fibroids
•• Calcerous degeneration is most with sub serous fibroid
•• Most fibroids start as Interstitial fibroids
•• Uterine fibroids are associated with endometriosis
•• Wandering or parasitic fibroid issue serious fibroid
•• MC symptom is menorrhagia
Fibroids are associated with

•• Follicular ovarian cysts
•• Endometrial Hyperplasia
•• Endometrial Ca
Endometrial Carcinoma
Occurs most often in the sixth and seventh decades of life
Symptoms often include
•• Abnormal vaginal discharge
•• Abnormal bleeding which is usually postmenopausal
•• Leukorrhea
Between 75 and 80% of all endometrial carcinomas are adenocarcinomas
Adenocarcinoma with squamous differentiation is seen in 10% of patients; the most differentiated form is known as adenoacanthoma
and the poorly differentiated form is called adenosquamous carcinoma
Most Malignant: Clear Cell carcinoma
Other less common pathologies include:
•• Carcinoma (5%) and papillary serous carcinoma
•• Secretory (2%)
•• Ciliated, clear cell
•• Undifferentiated carcinomas
Lymph nodes involved are:
•• Para-aortic
•• Presacral
•• Inguinal
Predisposing Factors for Endometrial Cancer

•• Family History
•• Hypertension
•• Obesity
•• Late Menopause
•• Diabetes
•• Atypical Endometrial Hyperplasia
•• Unopposed Estrogen
•• Nulliparity
•• Tamoxifen therapy
•• PCOD
The prognosis of endometrial ca depends on:

•• Age at diagnosis (old age: worse prognosis)
•• Stage of disease
•• Histological subtype
Histological Grade
•• Myometrial invasion
•• Lymph node metastasis
•• Cervical extension (Cervical involvement is associated with increased risk of extrauterine disease and Lymph node metastasis)
•• Tumor size
•• Hormone receptor status (Receptor positive-better prognosis)
•• Ploidy status (Aneuploid tumors have better prognosis than diploid tumors)
•• Oncogene expression/mutation (HER 2/neu, k ras: poor prognosis)
Risk factors for endometrial Hyperplasia are:

•• Obesity
•• Anovulation
•• Low fertility index
‘The Lynch syndrome’ occurs in families with an autosomal dominant mutation of mismatch repair genes MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, and
PMS2, which predispose to nonpolyposis colon cancer as well as endometrial and ovarian cancer
Abdominal Hysterectomy (Indications)

Total abdominal hysterectomy
•• DUB
•• Uterine fibroid
•• Tubo-ovarian mass (T.O. MASS)
Subtotal hysterectomy
•• Difficult TO mass
•• Endometriosis (Rectovaginal septum)
•• Obstetric causes
Panhysterectomy
•• Indications for total hysterectomy in perimenopausal age
Extended hysterectomy
•• Carcinoma Endometrium
Radical hysterectomy
•• Carcinoma cervix I and II
Adjuvant Radiotherapy in Cancer Endometrium is given in Case of

•• Cervical enlargement
•• Lymph node involvement
•• Carcinoma in situ
•• Poor differentiation
•• Deep myometrial involvement
•• Commonest cause of Ca endometrium: Unopposed estrogen

•• Ca endometrium is associated with PCOD
•• Most malignant endometrial cancer is: clear cell cancer
•• Atypical endometrial hyperplasia is treated by hysterectomy
•• Treatment of choice in elderly female with endometrial hyperplasia is Pan hysterectomy
Important Points about Endometrial Ca

•• Combination of Hypertension, Diabetes and Obesity in association with endometrial Ca is called ‘Corpus Cancer Syndrome.’
•• Most common type of endometrial Ca is ‘Adenocarcinoma/Endometroid’ Ca
•• ‘Postmenopausal bleeding’ is the most common clinical feature
•• ‘Simpsons sign’ in endometrial Ca is Referred pain in Hypogastrium or iliac fossa
•• Endometrial aspiration biopsy is the investigation of choice for ‘screening’ ‘endometrial Ca
OVARIAN TUMORS
Benign Ovarian Tumors

Serous Cystadenoma
•• Most common benign tumor of ovary
•• Most common benign ovarian tumor which turns into malignancy
•• Psammoma body is present in fast growing tumor
•• Intracystic hemorrhage and Malignancy (ADENOCARCINOMA) are highest in papillary variety of serous cystadenoma
•• Epithelium resembles Epithelium of Endosalpinx (Fallopian tube)
REMEMBER 30%
•• Accounts for 30% of ovarian tumor
•• Bilateral in 30% of cases
•• Chance of malignancy is 30%
Mucinous Cystadenoma
•• Largest benign ovarian tumor
•• Most common ovarian tumor which can lead to Pseudomyxoma peritoni
•• Usually unilateral
•• Epithelium resembles Epithelium of Endocervix
•• Occasionally, associated with dermoid cysts or Brenner’s tumor
•• Torsion is most frequently seen with this tumor
Dermoid Cysts (Benign Cystic Teratoma)

•• Most common Germ cell tumor of Ovary
•• Most common ovarian tumor found during pregnancy
•• Chance of malignancy is lowest in this type of Benign ovarian tumor (Usually Squamous cell carcinoma)
•• Rokitansky’s Protruberance is seen
•• Most common type of cyst lying anterior to uterus
•• Most common complication is Torsion
•• Frequently in association with Mucinous Cystadenoma to form a combined tumor
•• The inner surface of the cyst is always irregular and contains Embryonic Node from which the hairs project and in which the teeth
and bone are usually found
•• Malignancy which may develop in Dermoid cyst are:
–– Squamous cell carcinoma
–– Mammary cancer
–– Malignant thyroid Tumors
USMLE Case Scenario

A 42-year-old female on account of abdominal discomfort of 6 months duration reports to her obs/gyne physician. On pelvic
examination, there is a right adnexal mass. An abdominal USG Followed by a CT scan demonstrates a 5.5 cm cystic mass
involving the right ovary. Grossly, the mass on sectioning is filled with abundant hair and sebum. Microscopically, the mass
has glandular spaces lined by columnar epithelium, Teeth, squamous epithelium with hair follicles, cartilage and dense
connective tissue.
Fibroma
•• Most common benign ovarian tumor of connective tissue origin
•• Most common ovarian tumor associated with Meigs’ Syndrome
•• They resemble histologically with Brenner Tumor
Meigs’ Syndrome
•• Ascites
•• Hydrothorax (Right Sided)
•• Benign tumor of ovary (FIBROMA)
Pseudo-Meigs Syndrome
•• Ascites
•• Hydrothorax (Right Sided)
•• Malignant ovarian tumor of ovary
Remember other Points about Benign Ovarian Tumors

•• Struma Ovarii is a highly specialized, containing Thyroid tissue, which often leads to Thyrotoxicosis
•• Thecomas (Pure The Ca Cell Tumors) are benign but those with Granulosa cell element may be malignant
MALIGNANT OVARIAN TUMORS
Remember
•• Among Gynecological cancers it Ranks 3rd
•• Among all Gynecological cancers in India it accounts for 5%
•• Among all deaths due to Gynecologic cancers, most common cause is due to ovarian cancer
•• Most common Ovarian cancer is Papillary Serous Cystadenocarcinoma
•• Second most common ovarian cancer is Endometroid Carcinoma
•• Most common in women < 20 years of age is Dysgerminoma
•• Most common hormonally active ovarian tumor is Granulosa-Theca cell Tumors
Epithelial Cancers
Remember
•• Constitute about 80% of all Primary ovarian Carcinomas
•• Bilateral 50% cases
•• Cystic type is more common than Solid type
•• Most common histological type is Papillary Serous Cystadenocarcinoma
•• Median age 60 years
•• The single most important risk factor for Epithelial ovarian cancer is Age > 40 years
Ovarian Functional and Neoplastic Tumors

Tumor Features
Follicle Cysts •• Rare in childhood
•• Frequent in menstrual years
•• Never in postmenopausal years
•• Size < 6 cm, often bilateral
•• Occasional anovulation with persistently proliferative endometrium
Corpus luteum cysts •• Occur in menstrual years
•• Size: 4-6 cm, unilateral
Theca luteincysts •• Occurs with H.mole, Chorio Carcinoma, Gonado-Trophin or clomiphene therapy
•• 4-5 cm, multiple, bilaterally
•• (Ovaries may be >20 cm in diameter)
•• Tense consistency, amenorrhea
•• HCG elevated as a result of Trophoblastic proliferation
Krukenbergs Tumor
•• Are Secondary tumor of the ovary
•• They are invariably bilateral solid Tumors
•• The primary of these Tumors are: Carcinoma of stomach (70%) (Most Common Site), Carcinoma of large bowel (15%), Carcinoma
breast (6%)
Gross Features
•• SURFACE: Smooth with no tendency to form adhesions; No infiltration of capsule
•• SHAPE: Retains the shape of normal ovary
•• CONSISTANCY: Solid waxy; Cystic spaces may be seen due to degeneration.
•• MOBILITY: Freely movable in the pelvis
Microscopy
•• Cellular or myxomatous stroma with Scattered SIGNET RING CELLS. (Mucin Secreting cells)
•• Involvement of Ovary is by Retrograde Lymphatics
•• The first halt of tumor cells between Stomach and Ovary is Superior Gastric Lymph Nodes
Primary Ovarian Cancers

•• Epithelial ovarian cancer (80%)
•• Nonepithelial ovarian (10%)
–– Epithelial Ovarian Cancer: arise from the epithelial surface of the ovary
–– Nonepithelial Ovarian Cancer: arise from
•• Ovarian germ cells
•• Sex cord cells
•• Stromal cells
Malignant Ovarian Tumors

•• In Menopausal, Postmenopausal woman (> 50 yrs) the chance of malignancy > 50% (In premenopausal it is 15%)
•• Tumors in childhood are usually malignant
•• In Nulliparous, more commonly seen. Multiparity, to some extent, protects a woman against ovarian malignancy
•• Pain (pressure pain can occur with any tumor; but referred pain suggests malignant involvement of N.root
•• Abnormal uterine bleeding
•• Rapidly growing tumor
•• Unilateral edema
•• Cachexia, loss of apetite and loss of weight (late stage)
Clinical Findings of Malignant Ovarian Tumor

•• Bilateral (About 50%) Solid tumor except Fibroma, Brenner tumor and few Feminizing Tumors like Thecoma and Granulosa cell
tumor
•• Fixed tumor
•• Presence of Ascites (Meigs’ Syndrome)
•• Hepatomegaly due to metastasis
•• Unilateral nonpitting edema of leg or vulva. (characteristic of malignancy)
•• The nodules in Pouch of Douglas associated to a pelvic mass is highly suggestive of ovarian malignancy
Primary Epithelial Tumors 80% Nonepithelial Tumors Hormone-Producing Tumors

•• Mucinous Cystadenoma or •• Fibroma Dysgerminoma •• Estrogen-producing
Cystadenocarcinoma –– Granulosa cell tumor
•• Serous Cystadenoma or •• Teratoma –– Thecoma
Cystadenocarcinoma
•• Endometrioma or Endometrioid •• Gonadoblastoma •• Androgen-producing
Carcinoma •• Yolk-sac tumor –– Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
•• Clear cell carcinoma –– (Arrhenoblastoma)
•• Brenner Tumor –– Hilar cell tumor
–– Lipoid cell tumor (Ovoblastoma

Musculinovoblastoma)
–– Adrenal-like tumor
•• OTHERS
–– Carcinoid (Seratonin-producing)
–– Thyroid tumor (Struma Ovarii)
–– Choriocarcinoma of the ovary
Complications of Ovarian Tumor

•• Torsion of Pedicle
•• Intracysic hemorrhage
•• Infection
•• Rupture
•• Psedomyxoma peritonei
•• Malignancy
TORSION: Torsion of the Pedicle (Axial Rotation) is very common during pregnancy (12%) cases.
Structures Forming the Ovarian Pedicle

Laterally: Infundibulopelvic ligament containing structures there in, i.e. Ovarian vessels, nerves and lymphatics
Medially:
•• Ovarian ligament
•• Medial end of fallopian tube
•• Mesosalpinx containing utero-ovarian anastomotic vessels
Middle:-Broad ligament
Torsion is common in tumors having:

•• Moderate Size, preferably with round contor
•• Free mobility
•• Long pedicle
Predisposing factors for torsion
•• Trauma
•• Violent physical movement
•• Contractions of pregnant uterus
Summary of Torsion of Ovarian Pedicle

•• Common in Dermoid or Simple Serous Cystadenoma
•• Partial axial rotation followed by complete torsion is explained by hemodynamic theory
•• Symptoms of acute pain lower abdomen with a lump
•• General condition remains unaffected
•• Abdominal examination reveals a tense cystic tender mass in the hypogastrium arising from the pelvis
•• Pelvic examination reveals the mass separated from the uterus
•• Treatment is Laparotomy and Ovariotomy
Staging of Ovarian Tumor

STAGE I Lesion confined to Ovaries
•• Ia____________(One Ovary; No Ascites)
•• Ib____________(Both Ovary; No Ascites)
•• Ic____________ (One or two Ovaries with Ascites)
•• STAGE II One or two ovaries with extension to Pelvis
•• STAGE III Widespread intraperitoneal metastases (Omentum commonly involved)
•• STAGE IV Distant Metastases
Treatment
•• Surgically Debulk all Stages of Tumor that involves:
Total Abdominal Hysterectomy (TAH) + BSO+ Omentectomy + any other tumor > 2 cm diameter size
•• In Stage III and Stage IV Debulking Surgery is done or at least biopsy of the tumor is obtained
ADJUVANT THERAPY
•• Radiotherapy _________STAGE Ib and Ic
•• Chemotherapy ________STAGE II, III, IV
Other Facts about Ovarian Cancer

•• Accounts for 5% of all Gynecological cancers in India
•• Most common cause of death due to Gynecological cancers is Ovarian Carcinoma
•• Most common Cancer is Papillary Serous Cystadenocarcinoma
•• Second most common Ovarian cancer is Endometrioid Carcinoma
Clinical Associations of Malignant Ovarian Tumors

•• Nulliparity
•• Infertility
•• Most common ovarian cancer in women under the age of 20 is Dysgerminoma
•• Most common hormonally active ovarian tumor is Granulosa-Theca cell Tumors
•• Incidence is higher amongst women from the affluent classes (due to high fat content in their diet)
•• An enlargement of the ovary in women of menopausal or postmenopausal age should be regarded as malignant until proved
Otherwise
Masculinizing Ovarian Tumors

•• Arrhenoblastoma/Androblastoma
•• Sertoli Leyding cell tumor
•• Sertoli cell tumor
•• Leyding cell tumor
•• Hilus cell tumor
•• Adrenocortical tumor
•• Gynandroblastoma
Feminizing Tumors
•• Granulosa cell tumor
•• Theca cell tumor
•• Fibromas
•• Call Exner Bodies •• Granulosa cell tumor

•• Renkies Crystals •• Hilus cell tumor
•• Signet ring cells •• Krukenberg’s tumor
•• Schiller Duval bodies •• Endodermal sinus tumor
•• Psommoma bodies •• Serous tumors
•• Meigs’ syndrome •• Fibroma ovary
•• Pseudomeigs syndrome •• Brenner cell tumor
•• Walthard cell nest •• Brenner tumor
•• Rokintansky bodies •• Teratoma
Increased Risk Associated Decreased Risk Associated

•• Early menarche •• Pregnancy
•• Nulliparity •• Lactation
•• Late menopause •• OCPs
Guideline for the management of ovarian tumor in pregnancy
During Pregnancy
Uncomplicated Complicated
Principle: To remove the tumor as soon as the diagnosis is made The tumor is removed irrespective of the period of Gestation
Best Time: For Elective Operation is 14-18th week
•• If the diagnosis is made before this time the patient should be
kept under observation
•• If the diagnosis is made in 3rd trimester
Immediate removal is done
•• If the diagnosis is made beyond 36 weeks
The operation is withheld till delivery and the tumor is removed
as early in puerperium as possible
During Labor
•• If the tumor is well above the presenting part •• If the tumor is impacted in the pelvis causing obstruction
A Watchful Expectancy hoping for Vaginal delivery Cesarean Section followed by removal of tumor in the same sitting
During Puerperium
On Occasion, the diagnosis is made following delivery. The tumor should be removals early in puerperium as possible.
Remember Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI)

RMI = U × M × CA125
U = USG Score determined by:
•• Multilocular cyst
•• Solid area
•• Metastasis
•• Ascites
•• b/l lesions
1 point for each
•• M = 3 for postmenopausal women
•• CA125 level in units/ml
–– Low risk: RMI < 25
–– Moderate risk: RMI 25–250
–– High-risk: RMI > 250
Regarding Ovarian Tumors

•• Most common (overall) ovarian tumor •• Epithelial cell tumor
•• Most common in less than 20 years of age •• Dysgerminoma
•• Most common Benign tumor of ovary •• Dermoid Cyst
•• Most common tumor in young women •• Germ cell tumor
•• Most common Malignant tumor •• Serous Cystadenoma
•• Most common tumor diagnosed in pregnancy •• Dermoid Cyst
•• Most common tumor to undergo torsion •• Dermoid Cyst
•• Most radio sensitive ovarian tumor •• Dysgerminoma
•• Marker for ovarian cancer: CA 125

•• Marker for granulosa cell tumor: Inhibin
•• Marker for dysgerminoma: Serum LDH
•• Marker for dysgerminoma: Placental alkaline phosphatase
Pseudomyxoma Peritonei
This is a rare condition resulting from
•• Rupture of a mucocele of the appendix
•• A mucinous ovarian cyst or
•• Mucin-secreting intestinal or ovarian adenocarcinoma
–– The abdomen becomes filled with masses of jelly-like mucus
–– Colloid carcinoma arising from the stomach or colon with peritoneal implants may resemble pseudomyxoma at laparotomy
–– The course of this type of highly malignant tumor is one of rapid cachexia and early death
–– The diagnosis usually can be made by the appearance of many highly malignant cells in the peritoneal implants
OHSS (Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome)

It is enlargement of ovary with multiple follicles after stimulation
‘Necklace sign’ of ovaries is seen on USG
•• Common with FSH/LH therapy
•• Clomiphene therapy
•• Pulsatile Gn RH therapy
–– Ascites, hydrothorax
–– Cerebrovascular events, DVT, thromboembolism
–– Renal failure
–– Torsion of ovarian cysts
–– Liver dysfunction
–– Coagulopathy
Ovarian Remanent Syndrome

Persistence of ovarian function even after B/L Oopherectomy presenting with Chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia due to
remaining ovarian tissue.
Trapped Residual Ovarian Syndrome

Presenting with Chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia due to tension within developing follicles with periovarian adhesions or
because of perioophritis.
•• MC Type of vulval carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma

•• MC Type of vaginal carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma
•• MC Type of cervical carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma
•• MC Type of endometrial carcinoma Adenocarcinoma
Differentiate
Vaginismus Dyspareunia Desire Disorder Arousal Disorder Anorgasmia
Painful reflex spasm of Pain related to sexual Apathy for and Failure of vaginal Women never has had
paravaginal thigh adductors intercourse lack of enjoyment lubrication and organism by any means
Diagnosed by physical of sex lack of pelvic
examination engorgement
Almost always psychogenic
Vaginal dilators useful as
therapy
Remember
•• Hirsutism: Male pattern hair growth in females
•• Virilization: Male pattern hair growth in females + Clitoromegaly/Baldness/Loss of female body contours/Lowering of
voice/↑Muscle mass
•• ↑DHEA: Adrenal tumor
•• ↑Testosterone: PCOD
•• ↑↑↑Testosterone: Ovarian Tumor (Sertoli leyding, Hilus cell tumor)
•• ↑Serum 17 OH Progesterone levels: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
•• Maternal virilizing tumor of pregnancy is called luteoma of pregnancy can result in masculinization of female fetus
Clomiphene
•• Antiestrogen with weak agonistic activity as well
•• Enclomiphene has antiestrogenic effect
•• It is indicated in the treatment of anovulation or oligo-ovulation in patients desiring pregnancy, whose sexual partners have
adequate sperm, and who have potentially functional hypothalamic-hypophyseal-ovarian systems and adequate endogenous
estrogen
•• Chances of pregnancy are 3 fold as compared to placebo
•• Risk of multiple pregnancy is 6-10 fold
•• It may be used to treat corpus luteum dysfunction
•• It is used to detect abnormalities of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in males
•• Used in Stein Levinthal syndrome
•• It is used to treat infertility in males with oligospermia
•• It is sometimes given as a test dose to aid in predicting whether an ovulatory response might occur
Tamoxifen
•• Nonsteroidal antiestrogenic
•• It is indicated for adjuvant treatment of axillary node-negative breast cancer in women following total mastectomy or segmental
mastectomy, axillary dissection, and breast irradiation
•• Indicated for adjuvant treatment of axillary node-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women following total
mastectomy or segmental mastectomy, axillary dissection, and breast irradiation
•• That women whose tumors are estrogen receptor-positive are more likely to benefit from tamoxifen therapy
•• It is indicated to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in women who have been determined to be at high-risk for
developing this cancer
Danazol
•• Androgen derivative
•• Gonadotropin inhibitor
Indications
•• Endometriosis treatment
•• Fibrocystic Breast disease
•• Cyclic mastalgia, noncyclic mastalgia
•• Angioedema, hereditary (prophylaxis)
•• Menorrhagia, primary
•• Gynecomastia
•• Puberty precocious
GnRH Analogues
•• Goserelin
•• Buserelin
•• Nafarelin
•• Histrelin
•• Triptorelin
Used for
•• Precocious puberty
•• Infertility
•• Ca breast
•• DUB
•• Fibromyoma uterus
•• Hirsutism
Important Syndromes
•• Sheehan’s syndrome •• Postpartum pituitary necrosis
•• Asherman’s syndrome •• Overzealous curettage resulting in endometrial synechia
•• Stein levinthal syndrome •• PCOD
•• Kallaman’s syndrome •• Primary amenorrhea, hyposmia, failure of secondary sexual features
Sheehan Syndrome
•• It is a condition affecting women who experience life-threatening blood loss during or after childbirth
In Sheehan’s syndrome, the damage occurs to the pituitary gland
•• The result is the permanent underproduction of essential pituitary hormones (hypopituitarism)
•• For some women, Sheehan’s syndrome seems to cause few, if any, symptoms. For others, Sheehan’s syndrome can lead to an adrenal
crisis—a life-threatening shortage of the hormone cortisol. Treatment of Sheehan’s syndrome involves hormone replacement
therapy.
Symptoms:
In most cases, the signs and symptoms of Sheehan’s syndrome appear slowly, after a period of months or even years
Signs and symptoms of Sheehan’s syndrome include:
•• Slowed mental function, weight gain and difficulty staying warm, as a result of an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism)
•• Difficulty breastfeeding or an inability to breastfeed
•• No menstrual periods (amenorrhea) or infrequent menstruation (oligomenorrhea)
•• Loss of pubic or underarm hair
•• Low blood pressure
•• Fatigue
•• Weight loss
Remember
•• Donovaniosis •• Calymmatobacter granulomatosis
•• LGV •• Chlamydia trachomatis
•• Chancroid •• H. ducreyi, Herpes hominis
•• Condyloma acuminate •• HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
•• Yaws •• T. pertune
•• Pinta •• T. carateum
‘Clinical Scenarios’ of USMLE

•• A 20-year-old obese female with irregular menstrual periods, acne, insulin resistance and •• PCOD
elevated LH: FSH ratio
•• A 30-year-old female with foul smelling, frothy, light green colored vaginal discharge •• Trichomonas vaginalis
with vaginal erythema and strawberry cervix
•• A female of 25 years with paresthesias, burning pain in perineal area and vesicles showing •• Herpes Simplex II (Herpes
Cowdry inclusions. Painful inguinal Lymphadenopathy is also noticed Genitalis)
•• A 30-year-old female with profuse watery, dirty grey discharge giving positive whiff test •• Bacterial vaginosis
•• A 55-year-old female with constipation, abdominal and pelvic swelling increased CA 125 •• Ovarian Ca
levels
•• A 22-year-old female with irritability, breast tenderness, fatigue, headache and bloating •• Premenstrual dysmorphic
week before menstrual cycles disorder
•• A female of 35 years complain of dysmenorrheal, dyspareunia and dyschezia with fixed •• Endometriosis
retroverted uterus and nodularity of uterosacral ligaments.
•• A female 36 years old with dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, chronic pelvic pain and •• Adenomyosis
symmetrically, enlarged smooth uterus tender to palpation
•• A 16-year-old girl with missing periods, failure to gain weight, emaciated with low LH, •• Anorexia Nervosa
FSH and Estrogens.
•• A female with fever, diarrhea, skin rash, headache with hypotension and altered mental •• Toxic shock syndrome
status who used vaginal tampon.
•• A 30-year-old female with soft, pinkish, cauliflower like lesions with multiple sex partners •• HPV (Condyloma acuminata)
responding to Imiquimod
•• A 25-years female 2 weeks after normal delivery inability to breastfeed her child, nausea, •• Sheehans syndrome
weakness and fatigue with low ACTH, LH, FSH
•• A 33-year-old who is 38 weeks pregnant with rupture membranes comes in emergency •• Amniotic fluid embolism
with respiratory distress, hypotension with ↓platelets and ↑FDD with fetal cells in
maternal blood sample
•• A 57-year-old obese, hypertensive and diabetic female with vaginal bleeding •• Endometrial cancer
•• A 16-year-old female with amnorrhea, webbed neck, low hair line and widely spaced •• Turner’s Syndrome
nipples. USG shows streak ovaries
•• A 24-year-old female with abdominal pain and adnexal mass. Pelvic USG showing •• Teratoma
heterogenous well circumscribed mass with solid and cystic components with dense
calcification.
USMLE Case Scenario

A woman presents with leakage of fluid per vaginum and meconium stained liquor at 34 weeks of gestation.
The most likely organism causing infection would be:
1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. Toxoplasmosis
3. CMV
4. Herpes
5. Trichomonas
6. Candida
Ans. 1. Listeria monocytogenes
USMLE Case Scenario

A painless, discrete, sharply circumscribed, unilateral, rubbery, mobile. Mass:
1. It is the most common benign tumor of the female breast
2. It is the most common malignant tumor of the female breast
3. It is the least common benign tumor of the female breast
4. It is the least common malignant tumor of the female breast
Ans. 1. It is the most common benign tumor of the female breast
USMLE Case Scenario

PCOS is an endocrine imbalance characterized by:
1. Estrogen excess and a ratio of leutinizing hormone (LH) to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) greater than 2:1
2. Androgen excess and a ratio of leutinizing hormone (LH) to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) greater than 2:1
3. Estrogen excess and a ratio of leutinizing hormone (LH) to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) equal to 1:1
4. Androgen deficiency and a ratio of leutinizing hormone (LH) to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) greater than 2:1
Ans. 2. Androgen excess and a ratio of leutinizing hormone (LH) to follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) greater than 2:1
USMLE Case Scenario

An episiotomy tear involving rectal sphincter but not rectal mucosa is:
1. A first-degree tear
2. A second-degree tear
3. A third-degree tear
4. A fourth-degree tear
Ans. 3. A third-degree tear
•• A first-degree tear involves the vaginal mucosa or perineal skin, but not the underlying tissue.
•• In a second-degree episiotomy, the underlying subcutaneous tissue is also involved, but not the rectal sphincter or rectal mucosa.
•• In a third-degree tear, the rectal sphincter is affected.
•• A fourth-degree episiotomy involves a tear that extends into the rectal mucosa.
USMLE Case Scenario

Epidemics of puerperal sepsis may be caused by:
1. HSV
2. Cytomegalovirus
3. Group A BETA hemolytic streptococci
4. Group B BETA hemolytic streptococci
5. Toxoplasma gondii
Ans. 3. Group A BETA hemolytic streptococci
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old primigravida at 31 weeks of gestation has a blood pressure of 162/112 mm Hg, serum total bilirubin level
(2.8 mg/dL), serum alanine amino transferase level of 155U/L and platelet count of 72,000/mm3. All other investigations are
normal. She is hospitalized for observation and electronic fetal heart rate monitoring of the following the MOST ominous sign
of fetal distress during monitoring would be:
1. Early decelerations
2. Increased beat-to-beat variability
3. Late decelerations
4. Spontaneous accelerations
5. Variable decelerations
Ans. 3. Late decelerations
USMLE Case Scenario

A 17-year-old college student presents in emergency with acute onset right-sided abdominal pain. Her last menstrual period
was 2 weeks ago. Her temperature is 38.7 °C blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min and respirations are 17/min.
Examination of the throat reveals mild pharyngitis. Her abdomen is diffusely tender, especially the lower abdomen. Rectal
examination reveals tenderness anteriorly on the right side. Stool guaiac is negative. A pelvic examination is performed and
there is evidence of cervical tenderness. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Cholecystitis
2. Ovarian cyst
3. Pyelonephritis
4. Pelvic inflammatory disease
5. Endometriosis
6. Peritonitis
Ans. 4. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Most patients with PID have signs of abdominal pain, lower abdominal tenderness, and the pelvic examination reveals
cervical motion tenderness. In addition, the pelvic examination may reveal purulent cervical discharge and an adnexal mass
or tenderness may be present.
USMLE Case Scenario

Relation of the long-axis of the fetus to that of the mother is called:
1. Lie
2. Maternal attitude
3. Fetal attitude
4. Presentation
Ans. 1. Lie
Lie of the fetus refers to the relation of the long-axis of the fetus to that of the mother and is classified as longitudinal,
transverse, or oblique. Fetal attitude refers to the fetal posture—either flexed or extended. Presentation refers to the portion
of the baby that is foremost in the birth canal.
USMLE Case Scenario

The Bishop score is a way to determine the favor ability of the cervix to Induction. The elements of the Bishop score include:
1. Effacement, contraction, station, consistency and position of the cervix
2. Enhancement, dilation, station, consistency and position of the cervix
3. Effacement, dilation, station, consistency and portion of the cervix
4. Effacement, dilation, station, consistency and position of the cervix
Ans. 4. Effacement, dilation, station, consistency and position of the cervix
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old female present with white lesions, pruritus in her vulval region which have well defined borders. The histological
appearance includes loss of the rete pegs within the dermis, chronic inflammatory infiltrate below the dermis, the development
of a homogenous subepithelial layer in the dermis, a decrease in the number of cellular layers. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Lichen planus
2. Lichen sclerosus
3. Vulval carcinoma
4. Leukoplakia
Ans. 2. Lichen sclerosus
USMLE Case Scenario

A female presents with pseudoprecocious puberty, bleeding or menorrhagia. Most likely diagnosis of a tumor that can be the
cause is:
1. Granulosa cell tumor
2. Leydig cell tumor
3. Choriocarcinoma
4. Krukenberg’s tumor
Ans. 1. Granulosa Cell Tumor
USMLE Case Scenario

Diethylstilbestrol exposure has been associated with an increased incidence of:
1. Clear cell carcinoma of kidney and endometrial carcinomas
2. Endometrial carcinoma and uterine clear cell carcinoma
3. Vaginal and cervical clear cell carcinomas
4. Uterine Sarcoma and endometrial carcinoma
Ans. 3. Vaginal and cervical clear cell carcinomas
USMLE Case Scenario

Factor believed NOT to decrease the risk of developing ovarian cancer:
1. Oral contraceptive use
2. Multiparity
3. Breastfeeding
4. Late menopause
Ans. 4. Late menopause
USMLE Case Scenario

A 60-year-old woman from South Texas comes to the physician 2 months after her husband died in a vehicular accident. She
gets easily fatigued. She has had frequent crying spells at night especially when she is alone associated with thoughts of her
husband and feels uninvolved in daily activities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Conversion disorder
3. Major depressive disorder
4. Normal grief
5. Pathologic grief
Ans. 4. Normal grief
USMLE Case Scenario

A 34-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation presents to a maternity clinic with chief complaints of complaining of a four day
history of generalized malaise, anorexia and vomiting. She has also complains of abdominal discomfort, a poor appetite. On
physical exam, she has mild jaundice. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 101 °F, pulse of 74, and BP of 100/70. She has
no significant edema, and in fact appears very dehydrated.
Blood results are obtained:
•• WBC : 22,000
•• HCT : 41.0
•• Platelets: 45,000
•• SGOT/PT: 292/334
•• Glucose: 45
•• Creatinine: 2.0
•• Fibrinogen : 125
•• PT/PTT : 12/50s
•• Serum ammonia level: 80 mol/L (n 11–35)
• Urinalysis is positive for 3++protein and ketones
The patient’s most likely diagnosis is:
1. Hepatitis A
2. Hepatitis B
3. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
4. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
5. Severe preeclampsia
6. Hyperemesis gravidarum
7. Eclampsia
Ans. 3. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
USMLE Case Scenario

A 66-year-old woman reports to a physician because of troublesome aches and stiffness in her neck, shoulders, and hips for 2
and half months. Her symptoms are more in the morning hours. She has had chronic fatigue and low-grade fevers during this
period. On examination:
•• Range of motion of the neck, shoulders, and hips is normal
•• The muscles are minimally tender to palpation
•• Muscle strength, sensation, and deep tendon reflexes are normal
•• Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 88 mm/h
Serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. SLE
3. Fibromyositis
4. Osteoarthritis
6. Polymyositis
7. Polyarteritis Nodosa
8. Wegner’s granulomatosis
Ans. 5. Polymyalgia Rheumatica
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician because of vaginal discharge and vulvar pruritus for 8 days.
She is allergic to penicillin. Her last menstrual period was 1 week ago. There is a thin, bubbly, pale green discharge. A wet
mount preparation shows a mobile, pear-shaped, flagellated organism. Most effective treatment is by:
1. Miconazole
2. Penicillin
3. Spectinomycin
4. Spiramycin
5. Tetracycline
6. Metronidazole
Ans. 6. Metronidazole
USMLE Case Scenario

A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician because of vaginal discharge, vulvar pruritus and burning
and dyspareunia for 2 days. She has no drug allergies. The vagina is tender and erythematous. A KOH wet mount preparation
shows spores and hyphae. Most effective treatment is by:
1. Cefazolin
2. Ceftriaxone
3. Erythromycin
4. Gentamicin
5. Griseofulvin
6. Metronidazole
7. Miconazole
8. Penicillin
Ans. 7. Miconazole
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old young mother comes to the emergency department with her 5-day-old son. She explains that he has been
feeding poorly over the last 2 days and has been very irritable, crying all the time and jittery during the day. She has also
noticed that his breathing had become irregular over the last few hours and his hands and feet have turned blue in between.
On physical examination, the infant has a temperature of 35.6 °C pulse is 99/min and respirations are 38/min. He is irritable
and restless during the exam. The pregnancy was uneventful but labor was prolonged and the membranes had ruptured
12 hours before the baby was delivered. The anterior fontanelle is bulging and there is peripheral cyanosis. Which of the
1. Congenital rubella
2. Congenital syphilis
3. Congenital toxoplasmosis
4. Neonatal herpes simplex virus infection
5. Neonatal sepsis
Ans. 5. Neonatal sepsis
USMLE Case Scenario

A female has amenorrhea with absence of a vagina. Most likely cause is:
1. Wolfian agenesis
2. Mesonephric duct agenesis
3. Hypothyroidism
5. Mullerian agenesis
Ans. 5. Mullerian agenesis
Also known as Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, presents as amenorrhea with absence of a vagina. The incidence
is approximately 1 in 10,000 female births. The karyotype is 46, XX. There is normal development of breasts, sexual hair,
ovaries, tubes and external genitalia. There are associated skeletal (12%) and urinary tract (33%) anomalies.
USMLE Case Scenario

During pregnancy:
1. There is an increase in the glomerular filtration rate and a increase in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose
2. There is an decrease in the glomerular filtration rate and a decrease in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose
3. There is an decrease in the glomerular filtration rate and a increase in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose
4. There is an increase in the glomerular filtration rate and a decrease in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose
Ans. 4. There is an increase in the glomerular filtration rate and a decrease in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose
The finding of glucosuria is common during pregnancy and usually is not indicative of any pathology. During pregnancy,
there is an increase in the glomerular filtration rate and a decrease in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose. In fact, one of
six women will spill glucose in the urine during pregnancy.
USMLE Case Scenario

A female presents with amenorrhea, infantile sexual development, low gonadotropins, normal female karyotype, and inability
to perceive odors. Most likely cause is:
1. Mullerian agenesis
2. PCOD
4. McCune-Albright syndrome
5. Kallmann’s syndrome
Ans. 5. Kallmann’s Syndrome
USMLE Case Scenario

A 38-year-old female from Ilinos complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, examination findings include a tender,
symmetrically enlarged uterus without adnexal tenderness. Most likely cause is:
1. Endometriosis
2. Adenomyosis
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Prolactinoma
5. Uterine sarcoma
Ans. 2. Adenomyosis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 28-year-old patient with five months of secondary amenorrhea, A doctor orders serum prolactin. The pregnancy test is
positive and the prolactin comes back at 110 ng/mL (normal: 25 ng/mL in this assay). This patient requires
1. No active intervention
2. Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin
3. Evaluation for possible hypothyroidism
4. MRI scan of her sella turcica to rule out pituitary adenoma
5. Repeat measurements of serum prolactin to ensure that values do not increase over 300 ng/mL
Ans. 1. No active intervention
Serum prolactin levels can be elevated in pregnancy
USMLE Case Scenario

A female in her third trimester comes to maternity clinic with pustular eruption along the margins of erythematous patches
at points of flexure and extend peripherally with involvement of mucous membrane of oral cavity. Patients has only mild
pruritus, but had nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, chills and fever. Most likely cause is:
1. Impetigo by streptococcus
2. Impetigo by staphylococcus
3. Impetigo herpetiformis
4. Herpes gestationis
5. Intrahepatic cholestasis
Ans. 3. Impetigo herpetiformis
USMLE Case Scenario

A CT Scan of a 44-year-old female reveals bilateral, solid masses of the ovary that represent metastases from stomach. They
contain large numbers of signet ring adenocarcinoma cells within a cellular hyperplastic but non-neoplastic ovarian stroma.
Most likely tumor is:
1. Dermoid cyst
2. Liposarcoma
3. Krukenberg’s tumor
4. Gynandroblastoma
Ans. 3. Krukenberg’s tumor
USMLE Case Scenario

A 22-year-old female from ilinos G1P0 presents to maternity unit for a routine return visit at 30 weeks. The patient has a
number of bruises on the abdomen and chest. After being asked by the doctor what happened and she tells him that the
bruises are due to fall from stairs in her apartment. The patient comes again to the clinic twelve days after later for another
routine visit, and the doctor notes that she has a black eye. All investigations and psychiatric check-up are normal. Most likely
cause is:
1. Sexual abuse
2. Machunsen’s syndrome by proxy
3. Domestic violence
4. Coagulopathy
Ans. 3. Domestic violence
USMLE Case Scenario

A 54-year-old postmenopausal female attends to her Gynecologist. She is gravida 3, para 3 and is having trouble some urinary
leakage 4–5 weeks in duration. The first step in her evaluation would be:
1. Ultrasound
2. Urinalysis
3. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
4. Cystourethrogram
5. Urethrocystoscopy
6. Hysteriosalpingogram
Ans. 2. Urinalysis
USMLE Case Scenario

A 43-year-old female from New Orleans had a baby with Down syndrome 10 years ago. She is Anxious to know the chromosome
status of her fetus in a current pregnancy. The test that has the fastest lab processing time for karyotype is:
1. Amniocentesis
2. Cordocentesis
3. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
4. Doppler flow ultrasound
5. Cystic hygroma aspiration
Ans. 3. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) has many theoretical and practical advantages over amniocentesis, including its earlier
performance and quicker results.
USMLE Case Scenario

Vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy, even following maternal exposure, for which of the following diseases?
1. Rabies
2. Tetanus
3. Typhoid
4. Hepatitis B
5. Measles
Ans. 5. Measles
USMLE Case Scenario

A syndrome of multiple congenital anomalies including microcephaly, cardiac anomalies and growth retardation has been
described in children of women who are heavy users of:
1. Amphetamines
2. Barbiturates
3. Heroin
4. Methadone
5. Ethyl alcohol
Ans. 5. Ethyl alcohol
Which can cause liver disease, folate deficiency, and many other disorders in a pregnant woman, also can lead to the
development of congenital abnormalities in the child.
The chief abnormalities associated with the fetal alcohol syndrome are microcephaly, growth retardation and cardiac
anomalies. Chronic abuse of alcohol may also be associated with an increased incidence of mental retardation in the children
of affected women.
USMLE Case Scenario

True statement is:
1. Down syndrome is associated with increased levels of maternal serum AFP levels and an elevated maternal serum AFP is
associated with abdominal wall defect
2. Down syndrome is associated with decreased levels of maternal serum AFP levels and a decreased maternal serum AFP is
3. Down syndrome is associated with increased levels of maternal serum AFP levels and a decreased maternal serum AFP is
4. Down syndrome is associated with decreased levels of maternal serum AFP levels and an elevated maternal serum AFP is
Ans. 4. Down syndrome is associated with decreased levels of maternal serum AFP levels and an elevated maternal serum AFP
is associated with abdominal wall defect.
USMLE Case Scenario

Alcohol is a potent teratogen. Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most common cause of mental retardation in the United States
and consists of a constellation of fetal defects including all except:
1. Craniofacial anomalies
2. Growth restriction
3. Behavioral disturbances
4. Brain defects
5. Cardiac defects
6. Spinal defects
7. Aneurysms
Ans. 7. Aneurysms
USMLE Case Scenario

Smoking has been shown to cause Fetal Growth Restriction and is not related to:
1. Increased incidences of subfertility
2. Spontaneous abortions
3. Placenta previa
4. Abruption
5. Post-term delivery
6. Reduced uteroplacental blood flow
7. Fetal hypoxia
Ans. 5. Post-term delivery
USMLE Case Scenario

A 14-year-old girl with amenorrhea, short stature, neck webbing and sexual infantilism is found to have coarctation of the
aorta. A chromosomal analysis likely would demonstrate which of the following?
1. Mutation at 21
2. Trisomy 21
3. XO karyotype
4. XXY karyotype
Ans. 3. XO karyotype
Short stature, neck webbing, sexual infantilism and a shield like chest with widely spaced nipples are Features of Turner
syndrome, which is usually associated with an XO karyotype.
USMLE Case Scenario

A female in her first trimester meets a doctor and asks for herbal medications. She is taking good diet and examination is
normal. In addition to taking her own diet she persistently feels need for something else as a supplement. Recently from her
friend she has come to know about herbal medications. She is pretty much impressed about these medications without side
effects and says she wants to have them for the well-being of her baby. As a doctor in Maternity unit you would:
1. Recommend to her the use of herbal remedies because such products are classified as dietary supplements and are FDA-
regulated for purity, safety, and efficacy and there is no significant data regarding the teratogenic potential of herbal
medications in humans
2. Recommend to her the use of herbal remedies because such products are not classified as dietary supplements and are not
FDA-regulated for purity, safety and efficacy and there is no significant data regarding the teratogenic potential of herbal
3. Not recommend to her the use of herbal remedies because such products are classified as dietary supplements and are not
FDA-regulated for purity, safety, and efficacy and there is significant data regarding then on teratogenic potential of herbal
4. Not recommend to her the use of herbal remedies because such products are classified as dietary supplements and are not
FDA-regulated for purity, safety, and efficacy and there is no significant data regarding the teratogenic potential of herbal
Ans. 4. Not recommend to her the use of herbal remedies because such products are classified as dietary supplements and are
not FDA-regulated for purity, safety and efficacy and there is no significant data regarding the teratogenic potential of herbal
medications in humans.
USMLE Case Scenario

Use of the following drug has been associated with an increased incidence of placental abruption and skull defects, disruptions
in urinary tract development, limb defects and cardiac anomalies:
1. LSD
2. Marijuana
3. Prilocaine
4. Cocaine
Ans. 4. Cocaine
USMLE Case Scenario

Amniocentesis performed in the second trimester has been associated with:
1. 1 to 2% risk of amniotic fluid leakage, a fetal loss rate of less than 0.5%
2. 3 to 4% risk of amniotic fluid leakage, a fetal loss rate of less than 5 but more than 2
3. 4 to 5% risk of amniotic fluid leakage, a fetal loss rate of less than 0.5%
4. 1 to 2% risk of amniotic fluid leakage, a fetal loss rate of less than 5 but more than 2
Ans. 1. 1 to 2% risk of amniotic fluid leakage, a fetal loss rate of less than 0.5%
USMLE Case Scenario

A 28-year-old G2P1 is undergoing an elective repeat cesarean section at term. The infant is delivered without any difficulties,
but the placenta cannot be removed easily because a clear plane between the placenta and uterine wall cannot be identified.
The placenta is removed in pieces. This is followed by uterine atony and hemorrhage. Most likely she is having:
1. Fenestrated placenta
2. Succenturiate placenta
3. Vasa previa
4. Placenta previa
5. Membranaceous placenta
6. Placenta accreta
Ans. 6. Placenta accreta
USMLE Case Scenario

A 30-year-old female from Washington G2P1 presents at 28 weeks gestational age complaining of the sudden onset of profuse
red vaginal bleeding. The patient denies any abdominal pain or uterine contractions. Her history is significant for a previous
cesarean section at term for fetal breech presentation. She admits to smoking several cigarettes a day, but denies any drug or
alcohol use. Most likely she is having:
1. Fenestrated placenta
2. Succenturiate placenta
3. Vasa previa
4. Placenta previa
5. Membranaceous placenta
6. Placenta accreta
Ans. 4. Placenta previa
USMLE Case Scenario

A 39-year-old female on account of abdominal discomfort of 6 months duration reports to her obs/gyne physician. On pelvic
examination, there is a right adnexal mass. An abdominal CT scan demonstrates a 5.5 cm cystic mass involving the right ovary.
Grossly, the mass on sectioning is filled with abundant, teeth, hair and sebum. Microscopically, the mass has glandular spaces
lined by columnar epithelium, squamous epithelium with hair follicles, cartilage and dense connective tissue. True statement
about this mass would be:
1. It indicates highly malignant neoplasm
2. It lies within the uterus mostly
3. It is a derived from all three germ layers
4. It is derived from Neural crest
Ans. 3. It is a derived from all three germ layers
The cystic nature and circumscribed appearance of the mass are consistent with a mature cystic teratoma, which contains
tissues representing all germ layers of the embryo.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 32-year-old female Late in pregnancy complains of dizziness, light-headedness and syncope after she assumes the supine
position. The doctor recommended to her that she should not remain in the supine position for any prolonged period of time
in the latter part of pregnancy. It is because:
1. The gravid uterus compresses the aorta and decreases venous return to the heart which results in decreased cardiac output
2. The gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and decreases venous return to the heart which results in decreased
cardiac output
3. The gravid uterus compresses the superior vena cava and decreases venous return to the heart which results in decreased
cardiac output
4. The gravid uterus compresses the celiac ganglion and decreases venous return to the heart which results in decreased
cardiac output
Ans. 2. The gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and decreases venous return to the heart which results in
decreased cardiac output
USMLE Case Scenario

True statement is:
1. Bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter is a normal finding during pregnancy and does not require any additional workup
or concern
2. Bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter is an abnormal finding during pregnancy and does require additional workup or
concern
3. Bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter is a surgical emergency during pregnancy and does require immediate additional
workup
4. Bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter is a surgical emergency finding during pregnancy and does not require any
additional workup or concern
Ans. 1. Bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter is a normal finding during pregnancy and does not require any additional
workup or concern
USMLE Case Scenario

A 36-year-old female has abdominal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. She also has a fever, a
mucopurulent cervical discharge and an elevated white blood cell count. Most likely diagnosis is:
1. Adenomyosis
2. Endometriosis
3. PCOD
4. PID
Ans. 4. PID
USMLE Case Scenario

The expected date of delivery can be estimated by using Naegele’s rule. To do this, a doctor has to:
1. Count back 3 months and then add 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period
Ans. 1. Count back 3 months and then add 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period
USMLE Case Scenario

A 23-year-old pregnant female from Chicago has a history of the onset of an involuntary movement disorder from three
weeks that involves rapid and fluid, but not rhythmic, limb and trunk movements. She has no drooling of saliva or intention
tremor. There is no family history suggestive of any neurological disorder. She does not suffer from any other disease. Which
1. Parkinsonism
2. Lewy Body disease
3. Prion disease
4. Chorea gravidarum
6. Alzheimer’s disease
8. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Ans. 4. Chorea gravidarum
USMLE Case Scenario

In the Twin-to-Twin transfusion syndrome
1. Hydramnios does not occur
2. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is more frequent in the recipient because of circulatory overload
3. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is more frequent in the donor because of circulatory overload
4. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is equally frequent in both twins
Ans. 2. Hydramnios can develop in either twin but is more frequent in the recipient because of circulatory overload
USMLE Case Scenario

A woman over 45 years of age from North America has hypertension, proteinuria and features suggestive of hyperthyroidism.
She hasan enlarged-for-dates uterus and has had intermittent bleeding in the first two trimesters. Grossly her lesions appear
as small, clear clusters of grape like vesicles, the passage of which confirms the diagnosis of H. mole A tissue sample would
show:
1. No villi
2. Villi without hydropic changes and no vessels
3. Villi with hydropic changes and no vessels

4. Villi with hydropic changes and plenty of vessels
Ans. 3. Villi with hydropic changes and no vessels
USMLE Case Scenario

Fetal hydrops occurs as a result of excessive and prolonged hemolysis due to isoimmunization. Characteristics of fetal hydrops
include abnormal fluid in two or more sites such as the thorax, abdomen and skin. The placenta in fetal hydropsis:
1. Pale, enlarged and boggy
2. Pale, smaller and shrunken
3. Erythematous, enlarged and boggy
4. Erythematous, small and shrunken
Ans. 3. Erythematous, enlarged and boggy
USMLE Case Scenario

The therapeutic range of serum magnesium to prevent seizures is:
1. 4 to 7 mg/dL
2. 10 to 12 mg/dL
3. 15 to 20 mg/dL
4. 25-30 mg/Dl
Ans. 1. 4 to 7 mg/dL
At levels between 8 and 12 mg/dL, patellar reflexes are lost. At 10 to 12 mg/dL, somnolence and slurred speech commonly
occur. Muscle paralysis and respiratory difficulty occur at 15 to 17 mg/dL and cardiac arrest occurs at levels greater than 30
mg/dL.
USMLE Case Scenario

True statement about appendicitis in pregnancy is:
1. Appendicitis in pregnancy is easy to diagnose and has lesser mortality
2. Appendicitis in pregnancy is easy to diagnose but has more mortality
3. Appendicitis in pregnancy is difficult to diagnose but has lesser mortality
4. Appendicitis in pregnancy is difficult to diagnose and has more mortality
Ans. 4. Appendicitis in pregnancy is difficult to diagnose and has more mortality
The diagnosis is very difficult in pregnancy because leukocytosis, nausea and vomiting are common in pregnancy and the
upward displacement of the appendix by the uterus may cause appendicitis to simulate cholecystitis, pyelonephritis and
gastritis. Surgery is necessary even if the diagnosis is not certain. Delays in surgery due to difficulty in diagnosis as the
appendix moves up are probably the cause of increasing maternal mortality with increasing gestational age.
USMLE Case Scenario

A 26-year-old previously healthy primigravida from New York City is in the first trimester of pregnancy. During two successive
prenatal visits, she has fasting serum glucose levels of 129 and 135 mg/dL. Prior to this pregnancy, her fasting serum glucose
was 81 mg/dL. A hemoglobin A1C level is 8.1% at the last visit, at 18 weeks gestation. She feels well and has no major health
problems. In the latter part of her pregnancy she is likely to have?
1. Agenesis of corpus callosum
2. Ketoacidosis
3. Chondrodysplasia
4. Hyperosmolar coma
5. Teratology of Fallot
6. Placental insufficiency
Ans. 6. Placental Insufficiency
The problem in gestational diabetes is eventual placental malfunction in the third trimester with potential fetal demise.
USMLE Case Scenario

HELLP syndrome is:
1. Hepatitis, elevated liver enzymes, low plasma albumin
2. Hepatitis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
3. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
4. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low plasma albumin
Ans. 3. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
USMLE Case Scenario

A placenta is seen to be located at the edge of the cervical. It signifies:
1. Complete placenta previa
2. Partial placenta previa
3. Marginal placenta previa
4. Placenta accrete
Ans. 3. Marginal placenta previa
Complete previa describes a placenta that completely covers the cervical os. Partial previa is a placenta that covers some of the
cervical os, with the remainder of the os uncovered by the placenta
USMLE Case Scenario

Eyrthroplasia of Querat is:
1. Carcinoma in situ on vulva
2. Carcinoma in situ on lip
3. Carcinoma in situ on scrotum
4. Carcinoma in situ on glans penis
Ans. 4. Carcinoma in situ on glans penis

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What is HELLP syndrome?

What is HELLP syndrome?

What does a marginal placenta previa signify?

What does a marginal placenta previa signify?

USMLE STEP 2 CK

The Health Sciences Publisher

Prof. Showkat A Zargar

Prof. Naseer Mir

Dr Sheikh Manzoor Ahamed

AF Atrial fibrillation CABG Coronary artery bypass graft

CXR Chest X-ray FTT Failure to thrive

JVP Jugular venous pressure PT Prothrombin time, or physical therapy

UMN Upper motor neuron V/s Vessel

8. Obstetrics and Gynecology 675

•• Signs and symptoms of copper deficiency include:

USMLE Case Scenario

Symptoms and Signs: The clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia are primarily

Endocrine causes of hypercalcemia (e.g. Thyrotoxicosis, Addison’s disease)

Simplest Explanation of Metabolic Disorders

USMLE Case Scenario

USMLE Case Scenario

Anion Gap (AG)

Conditions with decreased anion gap

Brain activities are slowed at temperatures below 35 °C.

Hypothermia is used in:

‘Hyper Thermic’ Syndromes

Consequences of Heat-induced Cell Damage are:

•• Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

•• Paradoxical breathing: Diaphragmatic palsy

Differentiate between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Disease

Obstructive lung disease Restrictive lung disease

Carbon Monoxide Diffusion Capacity DLCO

Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia

Cystic Fibrosis (CF)

Interstitial Lung Diseases

Restrictive Lung Disease

USMLE Case Scenario

‘Community-acquired ‘Atypical Pneumonia’

High-yield Points in Pneumonia

•• Gastrointestinal: Hepatitis, pancreatitis

Aspiration Pneumonia and Anaerobic Lung Abscess

In contrast to these syndromes, bacterial aspiration pneumonia:

Paroxysmal (Nocturnal) Dyspnea

Drug-induced eosinophilic pneumonias

Allergic Angiitis and Granulomatosis of Churg and Strauss

The Hypereosinophilic Syndrome

Remember: Hypersensitive Pneumonitis

ABPA (Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis)

Primary Pulmonary Tuberculosis

Cryptic Miliary Tuberculosis

Tuberculocidal drugs Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin

Important Points about TB in HIV-Positive Individuals

–– Lack of classic granulomas

MAC Mycobacterium Avium Complex

•• ‘Pneumocystis carinii or Pneumocystis jerovici’ is an opportunistic pathogen

Several Antimicrobials are Effective for PCP Infection

Two syndromes have been identified in the acute group:

Typical USMLE Case Scenario