CE3160 Mid-Term

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. TCP/IP and IPX/SPX protocols span the Network layer and the _____ layer of the OSI reference model.
a. Physical c. Data Link
b. Transport d. Network
____ 2. The _____ network configuration is the most popular physical topology.
a. bus c. star
b. matrix d. ring
____ 3. The IEEE _____ standard defines the access method used by most Ethernet networks.
a. 802.2 c. 802.4
b. 802.3 d. 802.5
____ 4. The IEEE _____ standard covers the Logical Link Control.
a. 802.2 c. 802.4
b. 802.3 d. 802.5
____ 5. What type of frames are not forwarded by a router?
a. IPX c. Broadcast
b. IP d. Storm
____ 6. _____ switching represents an effort to provide more error-reducing benefits than cut-through switching.
a. Dynamic c. Fragment-free
b. Store-and-forward d. Static
____ 7. When machines must share the wire and compete for available bandwidth with other machines, they
experience _____.
a. convections c. contraction
b. contention d. collisions
____ 8. A collision _____ is the physical area in which a packet collision might occur.
a. unit c. area
b. domain d. block
____ 9. The EIA/TIA- _____ standard defines and describes operational parameters for various grades of unshielded
twisted-pair cabling.
a. 564 c. 569
b. 568 d. 584
____ 10. Which of the following devices is/are used to segment a network?
a. Switches c. Bridges
b. Routers d. all of the above
____ 11. The physical topology of a thinnet network is a _____.
a. matrix c. bus
b. star d. ring
____ 12. If you are at the router(config-router)# prompt and you type exit, which prompt will you see next?
a. router(config-line)# c. router#
b. router> d. router(config)#
____ 13. In _____ communications, devices can send and receive signals, but not at the same time.
a. full-duplex c. simplex
b. half-duplex d. simple
____ 14. If you are in global configuration mode, which router prompt will you see?
 a. router(config)# c. router(config-if)#
b. router> d. global#
____ 15. _____ hubs usually amplify or repeat signals that pass through them.
a. Dynamic c. Powered
b. Passive d. Active
____ 16. Which access method specifies that each node must first listen to the network medium to determine if the
medium is currently free of packets?
a. CSMA/CA c. CSMA/CD
b. Token Passing d. Direct
____ 17. Which of the following are types of fiber that are used by optical repeaters?
a. Split mode d. Tri mode
b. Multimode e. both a and b
c. Dual mode
____ 18. Using a repeater on a network provides which of the following benefits?
a. An increase in the number of collision domains
b. An increase in the effective bandwidth per segment
c. A decrease in the size of collision domains
d. An increase in the size of collision domains
e. none of the above
____ 19. What are broadcast domains created with?
a. Routers c. Switches
b. Hubs d. Bridges
____ 20. A bridge segments the network by filtering traffic at the _____ layer.
a. Data Link c. Transport
b. Network d. Session
____ 21. On which of the following states do digital signals communicate?
a. zero d. both a and b
b. one e. both a and c
c. five
____ 22. The first six hexadecimal digits of a MAC address assigned to NIC manufacturers is sometimes called a(n)
_____.
a. Organizational Unit Identifier c. Organizational ID Number
b. Unit Block Number d. Serial Number
____ 23. Which of the following is/are benefits of Ethernet LAN segmentation with switches?
a. Decreased collisions d. both a and b
b. Increased bandwidth e. both a and c
c. Eliminated broadcasts
____ 24. A router that has four ports will require how many IP addresses?
a. 1 c. 6
b. 4 d. 8
____ 25. How many layers is the OSI model comprised of?
a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7
____ 26. In addition to configuration by direct access via the AUX, console, or virtual terminals, the router can obtain
configuration information from a _____ server.
a. TFTP c. TPTF
b. TTPF d. TPFT
____ 27. The addressing mechanism at the _____ layer allows data packets to move between segmented networks.
 a. Physical c. Transport
b. Data Link d. Network
____ 28. _____ describes an Ethernet network connected by twisted-pair cable that can support 100-Mbps
transmissions using baseband digital signals.
a. 10Base5 c. 10BaseT
b. 10Base2 d. 100BaseT
____ 29. _____ switches read the entire frame, no matter how large, into their buffers before forwarding.
a. Fragment-free c. Adaptive cut-through
b. Cut-through d. Store-and-forward
____ 30. _____ switching is better for client/server environments when the server is configured with a network card
that is faster than the network cards of the clients.
a. Synchronous c. Symmetric
b. Asymmetric d. Asynchronous
____ 31. Networks connected by multiple routers are called _____.
a. intranetworks c. Internets
b. internetworks d. intranets
____ 32. What type of addresses do bridges use?
a. MAC c. TCP
b. IP d. Logical
____ 33. Switches that interconnect network interfaces of different speeds use _____ switching and, typically, a shared
memory buffer.
a. synchronous c. symmetric
b. asymmetric d. asynchronous
____ 34. A _____ is a defined method for communicating between systems.
a. protocol c. language
b. datagram d. protocol data unit
____ 35. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers identifies the maximum number of repeaters that can be
used on any given Ethernet network as _____.
a. five c. three
b. six d. four
____ 36. A _____ topology often has a hub at its center.
a. star c. hybrid
b. matrix d. linear bus
____ 37. Coaxial cable supports data transmission rates of _____ Mbps.
a. 10 c. 50
b. 20 d. 100
____ 38. A packet sent by a connectionless transport is also called a _____.
a. data module c. UDP
b. frame d. datagram
____ 39. The CSMA/CD access method uses a logical _____ topology.
a. matrix c. bus
b. star d. ring
____ 40. _____ configuration mode permits you to enable routing protocols such as RIP and IGRP.
a. Virtual c. Base
b. Router d. Interface
____ 41. In a _____ configuration, all computers or stations are wired directly to a central location.
a. ring c. matrix
b. bus d. star
____ 42. _____ describes a coaxial cable network that has a 10-Mbps baseband transmission rate over a maximum
segment length of 185 meters.
a. 100BaseT c. 10BaseT
b. 10Base2 d. 10Base5
____ 43. _____ usually refers to the physical layout of network cable and devices.
a. Network diagram c. Topology
b. Structure d. Architecture
____ 44. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers identifies the maximum number of populated segments
that can appear on any given Ethernet network as _____.
a. six c. five
b. four d. three
____ 45. _____ describes a coaxial cable network that has 10-Mbps baseband transmission over a maximum segment
length of 500 meters.
a. 10BaseT c. 10Base5
b. 100BaseT d. 10Base2
____ 46. What are the three methods used for LAN switching?
a. Store-and-forward, cut-through, fragmenting
b. Frame-through, store-and-discard, byte-free
c. Forward-and-store, through-cut, collision-free
d. Store-and-forward, cut-through, fragment-free
____ 47. The _____ layer routes data and provides connectivity.
a. Transport c. Network
b. Physical d. Data Link
____ 48. The _____ layer enables two applications on the network to have an ongoing conversation or dialog.
a. Network c. Session
b. Data Link d. Transport
____ 49. Data is sent from one computer to another in a data _____.
a. module c. packet
b. pack d. file
____ 50. An Ethernet packet sent between two stations should be between 64 bytes and _____ bytes.
a. 1514 c. 1522
b. 1518 d. 1526
____ 51. A _____ is contained within a company or department and located in a single geographical area.
a. MAN c. WAN
b. LAN d. SAN
____ 52. Switches operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model.
a. Data Link c. Transport
b. Network d. Physical
____ 53. Which OSI model layer is commonly referred to as layer 3?
a. Session c. Internetwork
b. Network d. Data Link
____ 54. If a broadcast from one computer causes multiple stations to respond with additional broadcast traffic, it could
result in a broadcast _____.
a. storm c. flood
b. saturation d. hurricane
____ 55. A(n) _____ switch reads the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins forwarding it to the
appropriate port or ports.
a. store-and-forward c. adaptive cut-through
 b. cut-through d. fragment-free
____ 56. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers identifies the maximum number of segments of cable
that can be used on any given Ethernet network as _____.
a. five c. three
b. four d. six
____ 57. Routers operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model.
a. Data Link c. Network
b. Transport d. Physical
____ 58. What protocol is used to prevent logical loops in a bridged network?
a. Loop Protocol c. Bridge Group Protocol
b. Address Resolution Protocol d. Spanning Tree Protocol
____ 59. What frame tagging method(s) is/are supported on a Cisco 1900 switch?
a. LANE d. both a and b
b. 802.1q e. both b and c
c. ISL
____ 60. If a bridge receives a frame that has a destination MAC address located on the same segment from which it
came, what will happen to the frame at the bridge?
a. It will be dropped.
b. The source signal will be repeated on all segments.
c. The destination address will be repeated on all segments.
d. It will be forwarded.
____ 61. After you enter the enable password or the enable secret password, the > symbol changes to a _____ to
indicate you are in privileged EXEC.
a. & c. #
b. $ d. @
____ 62. Which of the following layers is/are aware of the activities that are taking place at the Network layer on the
opposite side of the communication process?
a. Network c. Network, Transport
b. Data Link, Network, Transport d. Data Link, Network
____ 63. The _____ layer allows the transfer of a large set of data across the network.
a. Network c. Session
b. Presentation d. Transport
____ 64. Switches that require all attached network interface devices to use the same transmit/receive speed are using
_____ switching.
a. asymmetric c. symmetric
b. asynchronous d. synchronous
____ 65. _____ bridges are also called learning bridges because they build a table of MAC addresses as they receive
frames.
a. Dynamic c. Source-routing
b. Transparent d. Static
____ 66. The Network layer contains a _____ address for the computer.
a. physical c. location
b. MAC d. logical
____ 67. A _____ spans multiple geographic areas and is usually connected by common telecommunication carriers.
a. SAN c. WAN
b. LAN d. MAN
____ 68. Typically, which device is the “device of choice” for increasing performance on your network?
a. Switch c. Bridge
 b. Router d. Hub
____ 69. Multimode fiber cable can support transmissions up to _____ Mbps over segments up to 2 km.
a. 10 c. 100
b. 20 d. 1000
____ 70. In _____ communications, devices can send and receive signals simultaneously.
a. simple c. half-duplex
b. full-duplex d. simplex
____ 71. The _____ layer provides the encryption services when data encryption is used in network communications.
a. Network c. Session
b. Transport d. Presentation
____ 72. The _____ layer prepares the data from the Application layer for transmission over the network.
a. Network c. Transport
b. Presentation d. Session
____ 73. Each layer in the protocol stack adds a _____ to the data as it is passed down the layers.
a. protocol data frame c. protocol data unit
b. protocol data module d. protocol data pack
____ 74. Switches that utilize _____ forwarding start sending the frame immediately after reading the destination MAC
address into their buffer.
a. adaptive cut-through c. cut-through
b. fragment-free d. store-and-forward
____ 75. A broadcast _____ is a group of network devices that will receive LAN broadcast traffic from each other.
a. class c. area
b. block d. domain
____ 76. The _____ specification defines a wiring system for data-grade cable.
a. 568A c. 586A
b. 568B d. 586B
____ 77. What does the Data Link layer use to provide error control?
a. CRC c. Parity
b. none of the above d. Check Sum
____ 78. With VLANs, the microsegmentation of _____ traffic makes it even more difficult to intercept useful data
passed between two hosts.
a. unicast c. minicast
b. all d. microcast
____ 79. The IEEE _____ standard covers Token Ring.
a. 802.2 c. 802.4
b. 802.3 d. 802.5
____ 80. The degradation of signal clarity is called _____.
a. weakening c. interference
b. signal loss d. attenuation
____ 81. A _____ topology connects all stations in a linear fashion.
a. star c. bus
b. matrix d. ring
____ 82. Ethernet networks are characterized by which IEEE standard?
a. 802.1 c. 802.5
b. 802.3 d. 802.11
____ 83. If you are in interface configuration mode, which router prompt will you see?
a. router(config-if)# c. router(config)#
b. router# d. router(config-int)#
____ 84. To enter privileged EXEC, you can type the command _____ at the user mode prompt.
a. activate c. enable
b. open d. enter
____ 85. What device is required to move traffic between VLANs?
a. Symmetric-Switch d. Bridge
b. Router e. Switch
c. VLAN-Gateway
____ 86. _____ use the IP address to route packets to the correct network segment.
a. Bridges c. Repeaters
b. Routers d. Switches
____ 87. _____ can segment the network at the Data Link layer.
a. Hubs c. Routers
b. Bridges d. Switches
____ 88. _____ operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model.
a. Repeaters c. Hubs
b. Bridges d. Brouters
____ 89. The _____ sublayer defines how data is packaged for the network.
a. Transport c. LLC
b. MAC d. Physical
____ 90. _____ configuration mode allows you to configure the Ethernet and serial interfaces on your router.
a. Interface c. Base
b. Virtual d. Line
 CE3160 Mid-Term
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B REF: 41
2. ANS: C REF: 117
3. ANS: B REF: 122
4. ANS: A REF: 121
5. ANS: C REF: 41
6. ANS: C REF: 456
7. ANS: B REF: 38
8. ANS: B REF: 440
9. ANS: B REF: 165
10. ANS: D REF: 40
11. ANS: C REF: 123
12. ANS: D REF: 209
13. ANS: B REF: 446
14. ANS: A REF: 209
15. ANS: D REF: 31
16. ANS: C REF: 34
17. ANS: B REF: 30
18. ANS: E REF: 32
19. ANS: A REF: 41
20. ANS: A REF: 448
21. ANS: D REF: 30
22. ANS: A REF: 11
23. ANS: D REF: 39
24. ANS: B REF: 41
25. ANS: D REF: 5
26. ANS: A REF: 203
27. ANS: D REF: 12
28. ANS: D REF: 123
29. ANS: D REF: 456
30. ANS: B REF: 453
31. ANS: B REF: 40
32. ANS: A REF: 35
33. ANS: B REF: 452, 453
34. ANS: A REF: 7
35. ANS: D REF: 118
36. ANS: A REF: 31
37. ANS: A REF: 128
38. ANS: D REF: 13
39. ANS: C REF: 122
40. ANS: B REF: 208
41. ANS: D REF: 117
42. ANS: B REF: 123
43. ANS: C REF: 31
44. ANS: D REF: 119
45. ANS: C REF: 123
46. ANS: D REF: 454
47. ANS: C REF: 12
48. ANS: C REF: 13
49. ANS: C REF: 15
50. ANS: B REF: 442
51. ANS: B REF: 4
52. ANS: A REF: 38
53. ANS: B REF: 6
54. ANS: A REF: 444
55. ANS: D REF: 456
56. ANS: A REF: 118
57. ANS: C REF: 40
58. ANS: D REF: 480
59. ANS: C REF: 465
60. ANS: A REF: 35
61. ANS: C REF: 208
62. ANS: A REF: 8
63. ANS: C REF: 14
64. ANS: C REF: 453
65. ANS: B REF: 36
66. ANS: D REF: 12
67. ANS: C REF: 4
68. ANS: A REF: 40
69. ANS: C REF: 131
70. ANS: B REF: 446
71. ANS: D REF: 14
72. ANS: B REF: 14
73. ANS: C REF: 15
74. ANS: C REF: 455
75. ANS: D REF: 461
76. ANS: B REF: 9
77. ANS: A

REF: 8
78. ANS: A REF: 476
79. ANS: D REF: 124
80. ANS: D REF: 30
81. ANS: C REF: 116
82. ANS: B REF: 34
83. ANS: A REF: 209
84. ANS: C REF: 208
85. ANS: B REF: 473
86. ANS: B REF: 41
87. ANS: B REF: 202
88. ANS: B REF: 35
89. ANS: C REF: 10
90. ANS: A REF: 208