MATHEMATICS REVIEWER

1. For a given function, it is found that f(t)=f(-t). What type of symmetry does f(t) have?
a. Odd symmetry
b. Even symmetry
c. Rotational symmetry
d. Quarter – wave symmetry
Answer: B
2. Which number has four significant figures?
a. 0.0014
b. 0.01414
c. 0.141
d. 1.4140
Answer: B
3. Naperianlogarithm have a base closest to which number?
a. 2.17
b. 2.72
c. 3.14
d. 10
Answer: B
4. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is equal to the negative of the equation of
that same curve, the curve is
a. An exponential
b. A sinusoid
c. A tangent
d. A parabola
Answer: B
5. To find the angle of a triangle, given only the lengths of the sides, one would use
a. The law of cosines
b. The law of sines
c. The law of tangents
d. The inverse – square law
Answer: A
6. Which is true regarding the signs of the natural functions for angles between 90o and 180o?
a. The tangent is positive
b. The cotangent is positive
c. The cosine is negative
d. The sine is negative
Answer: C
7. What is the inverse natural function of the cosecant?
a. Secant
b. Sine
c. Cosine
d. Cotangent
Answer: B
8. Which of the following is the definition of the Joule?
a. A unit of power
b. A Newton meter
 c. A kg m/s2
d. A rate of change of energy
Answer: B
9. What is the equivalent expression for sin2x?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: C
10. The series expansion for cos x contains which powers of x?
a. 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, …
b. 1, 3, 5, 9, …
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
d. ½, 3/2, 5/2, 7/2, …
Answer: A
11. All of the following statements about photons are correct, EXCEPT:
a. Photons are small quanta of electromagnetic energy.
b. Energy of photons varies according to E = hf, where h is Planck’s
c. Photons energy varies with source intensity, i.e. a bright light source emits photons of
higher energy than a dim source.
d. Velocity of photons in vacuum is c, the speed of light, 3 x 1010 cm/sec.
Answer: C
12. A one – candle power light source radiates luminous flux at the rate of
a. 1 lumen
b. 2 lumens
c. lumens
d. lumens
Answer: D
13. A principal sum P is invested at a nominal interest rate r, compounded m times a year, for n
years. The accumulated amount at the end of this period will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: D
14. In the formula is called the
a. Sinking fund factor
b. Single payment present worth factor
c. Single payment compound amount factor
d. Capital recovery factor
Answer: B
15. A fund established to produced a desired amount at the end or a given period by means of
series of payments throughout the period is called a sinking fund, and is represented by the
formula:
a.
b.
 c.
d.
Answer: A
16. Which of the following relationships between compound interest factors is NOT correct?
a. Single payment compound amount factor and single payment present worth factor are
reciprocals.
b. Sinking fund factor and uniform series compound amount factor are reciprocals.
c. Capital recovery factor and sinking fund factor are reciprocals.
d. Capitals recovery factor equals sinking fund factor plus the interest rate.
Answer: C
17. In determining the average annual cost of a project, the formula
represents the economic method of
a. Sinking fund depreciation plus interest on first cost.
b. Straight line depreciation plus interest on first cost.
c. Straight line depreciation plus average interest.
d. Capital recovery with a return.
Answer: C
18. An “annuity” is defined as
a. Earned interest due at the end of each interest period.
b. Cost of producing a product or rendering a service.
c. A series of equal payments occurring at equal periods of time.
d. Total annual overhead assigned to a unit of production.
Answer: C
19. If the sine of angle A is given as K, what would be the tangent of angle A?
a. aK/h
b. hK/a
c. ha/K
d. oK/a
Answer: B
20. In finding the distance, d, between two points, which equation is the appropriate one to use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: D
21. The equation is an algebraic expression for which the following choices?
a. A cosine expansion series
b. Projectile motion
c. Projectile energy
d. A straight line
Answer: D
22. What is the name for the vector that represents the sum of two vectors?
a. Scalar
b. Resultant
c. Tensor
d. Moment
 Answer: B
23. What type of curve is generated by a point which moves in uniform circular motion about an
axis, while travelling with a constant speed, v, parallel to the axis?
a. A cycloid
b. An epicycloid
c. A hypocycloid
d. A helix
Answer: D
24. All of the following statements about the electron structure of atom are correct, EXCEPT:
a. Electrons of highest energy are located in the outer orbitals.
b. Each orbital can contain one electron.
c. K, L, M, etc. shells are designation representing the principal quantum number n=1, 2, 3
etc.
d. Each she’ll may contain up to orbitals, but not exceeding 16
Answer: B
25. All of the following are characteristic of waves, EXCEPT:
a. Energy of a wave varies with the square of its amplitude.
b. Interference in interaction of waves. The observed effect is based on the principle of
superposition.
c. Wave frequency changes on entering a medium where the velocity of propagation is
changed.
d. Diffraction, or bending of a wave, occurs around the edges of obstacles.
Answer: C
26. All of the statements about electromagnetic waves are correct, EXCEPT:
a. Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves that consist of mutually coupled, changing
electric and magnetic fields.
b. Directions of the electric field, of the magnetic field, and of propagation are mutually
perpendicular.
c. Field intensity changes take place, but no displacement of mass occurs in the path of
electromagnetic waves.
d. Electric field maxima and minima occur out of phase with those of the associated
magnetic field.
Answer: D
27. All of the following statements about sound are correct, EXCEPT:
a. Sound is propagated by longitudinal compressional waves.
b. Velocity of sound in solids may be calculated from their elastic modulus and density.
c. Velocity of sound in gases is independent of pressure.
d. Sound waves do not exhibit refraction in passing between media.
Answer: D
28. Frequency f of monochromatic yellow light which as wavelength of 589 nm(nanometers) in
vacuum is nearest to:
a. 295 000 Ghz
b. 510 000 Ghz
c. 589 000 Ghz
d. 1 020 000 Ghz
Answer: B
29. The graphical presentation of a cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical data is
called _____.
 a. Histogram
b. Kurtosis
c. Lepticurtic
d. Ogive
Answer: D
30. A statement of truth of which follows with little or no proof from a theorem.
a. Axiom
b. Hypothesis
c. Corollary
d. Conclusion
Answer: C
31. It is a sequence of numbers such that the successive term differ by a constant.
a. Arithmetic progression
b. Infinite progression
c. Geometric progression
d. Harmonic progression
Answer: A
32. A frequency curve which is composed of series of rectangles constructed with the steps as the
base and the frequency as the height.
a. Histogram
b. Ogive
c. Frequency distribution
d. Bar graph
Answer: A
33. If the roots of an equation are zero then they are classified as
a. Hyperbolic solution
b. Zeros of function
c. Extraneous roots
d. Trivial solution
Answer: D
34. Convergent series is a sequence of decreasing number or when the succeeding term is____the
preceding term
a. Greater than
b. Equal to
c. Lesser than
d. None of the above
Answer: C
35. If a=b and b=a. This illustration what axiom in algebra?
a. Symmetric axiom
b. Reflexive axiom
c. Transitive axiom
d. Replacement axiom
Answer: A
36. A and B are independent events. The probability that event A will occur is Pa and the probability
that A and B will occur is Pab. From these two statements, what is the probability that event B
will occur.
a. Pa- Pab
b. Pb- Pab
 c. Pa x Pb
d. Pab /pa
Answer: D
37. Two or more equations are equal if and only if they have the same
a. Solution set
b. Degree
c. Order
d. Variable set
Answer: A
38. In any square matrix, when the elements of any two rows are exactly the same, the determinant
is
a. Zero
b. Positive integer
c. Negative integer
d. Unity
Answer: A
39. The ratio or product of two expressions in direct or inverse relation with each other is called
a. Ratio and proportion
b. Means
c. Extremes
d. Constant of variation
Answer: C
40. What is the possible outcome of an experiment called?
a. A sample space
b. A random points
c. An event
d. A finite set
Answer: C
41. In probability theory, what is the set of all possible outcomes of an experiment called?
a. A set of random events
b. A fuzzy set
c. A cumulative distributive
d. A sample space
Answer: D
42. How can the values of a random variable defined, what is their relationship?
a. Always continuous
b. Always numerical
c. Strictly nonzero
d. Defined only over a finite horizon
Answer: B
43. If two random variables are independently distributed, what is the relationship?
a. They are identically distributed
b. They mutually exclusive
c. They are uncorrelated
d. (A) or B
Answer: C
44. Which of the following probability is not valid?
a. The probability of an event is always positive and less than or equal to one
 b. If E0 is an event which cannot occur in the sample space, the probability of E0 is zero.
c. If events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive, then the probability of both events occurring
is zero.
d. If events E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive, there P(E1 + E2) = P(E1) + P(E2) – P(E1E2)
Answer: D
45. If y = cosx, what is ?
a. Sec x
b. –sec x
c. Csc x
d. –sin x
Answer: D
46. Which of the following does not illustrate the effect of temperature or pressure on gas
solubility?
a. Air bubbles form on the side of a warm glass of water.
b. Soda pop in bottled under pressure.
c. Boiling frees water of gases.
d. Air is more humid on rainy days.
Answer: D
47. The chemical process which occurs when water is added to cement is
a. Oxidation
b. Brownian movement
c. Plastic flow
d. Hydration
Answer: D
48. An amphoteric hydroxide is one which:
a. Has a valence of -2
b. Has been craed by bombardment with high energy protons
c. Reacts violently with water
d. May act as either a base or an acid in chemical reactions
Answer: D
49. The element tin has ten different stable isotopes. The atomic nuclei of all isotopes have the
same:
a. Number neutrons
b. Number of protons
c. Radius
d. Mass
Answer: B
50. Is a sequence of terms whose reciprocals form an arithmetic progression?
a. Geometric progression
b. Harmonic progression
c. Algebraic progression
d. Ration and proportion
Answer: B
51. An array of m x n quantities which present a single number system composed of elements in
rows and columns is known as
a. Transposed matrix
b. Cofactor of a matrix
 c. Matrix
d. Determinant
Answer: C
52. Binary number system is a system of notation for real numbers that uses the place value
method with 2 as the base, what is another name of the binary number system?
a. Binary digits
b. Binumbersystemc
c. Dyadic number system
d. Bits
Answer: C
53. The number 0.123123123… is a/an
a. Irrational number
b. Surd
c. Rational number
d. Transcendental
Answer: C
54. MCMXCIV is the Roman numeral equivalent to
a. 1974
b. 1984
c. 1994
d. 2994
Answer: C
55. A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term is greater than the preceding term is called.
a. Dissonant series
b. Convergent series
c. Divergent series
d. Isometric series
Answer: C
56. Terms that differs only in numeric coefficients are known as
a. Unlike terms
b. Unequal terms
c. Like terms
d. Similar equations
Answer: C
57. In complex algebra, we use diagram to represent complex plane commonly called
a. Argand diagram
b. Venn diagram
c. Maxwell diagram
d. Cartesian diagram
Answer: A
58. 7 + 0 is
a. An irrational number
b. Real number
c. Imaginary number
d. A variable
Answer: B
59. The number of successful outcomes divided by the number of possible outcomes is
a. Odd
 b. Combination
c. Permutation
d. Probability
Answer: D
60. If a two digit number has x for its unit digit and y for its tens, the number is represented as
a. x + y
b. y – x
c. 10y + x
d. 10x + y
Answer: C
61. A statement of truth which is admitted without proof.
a. Axiom
b. Theorem
c. Postulate
d. Corollary
Answer: A
62. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is proportional to the negative of the
equation of the same curve, what is the curve?
a. A hyperbola
b. A square wave
c. A sinusoid
d. A cycloid
Answer: C
63. Consider a strictly convex function of one variable, x, with a lower bound and upper bound on x.
for what value(s) of x will the function be minimized?
a. At the upper bound of x
b. At the lower bound of x
c. Strictly between the upper and the lower bound of x
d. (a) or (b) or (c)
Answer: D
64. Consider a strictly concave function in one variable, x, with a lower bound and an upper bound
on x. for what value(s) of x with the function be minimized?
a. At the upper bound of x
b. At the lower bound of x
c. Strictly between the upper and the lower bound of x
d. (a) or (b)
Answer: D
65. Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity at 100°C
a. Aluminum
b. Bismuth
c. Copper
d. Iron
Answer: A
66. Which of the following is a member of halogen family?
a. Sodium
b. Fluorine
c. Hydrogen chloride
d. Phosphorus
 Answer: B
67. A sample of a substance , to which a chemical formula can be assigned, whose weight is equal to
its formula weight is termed:
a. Molecule
b. Mole
c. Gram equivalent weight
d. One normal solution
Answer: B
68. Hydrogen is common to all
a. Acids
b. Salts
c. Oxides
d. Metals
Answer: A
69. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference is abscissas between
those limits gives ____ of the function.
a. Average
b. Middle
c. Intercept
d. Asymptote
Answer: A
70. How can the differential equation a + B(t) + C=D(t) best described?
a. Linear, homogenous, and first order
b. Homogeneous and first order
c. Linear, second order, and nonhomogeneous
d. Linear, homogeneous and second order
Answer: C
71. The part of theorem which is assumed to be true.
a. Corollary
b. Hypothesis
c. Postulate
d. Conclusion
Answer: B
72. A statement of truth which follows with little or no proof from the theorem.
a. Corollary
b. Axiom
c. Postulate
d. Conclusion
Answer: A
73. Refers to the construction of drawings or lines and figures the possibility of which is admitted
without proof.
a. Corollary
b. Theorem
c. Postulate
d. Hypothesis
Answer: C
74. A mathematical statement which has neither been proved nor denied by counterexamples.
 a. Fallacy
b. Conjecture
c. Theorem
d. Paradox
Answer: B
75. A proved proposition which is useful mainly as a preliminary to the proof of a theorem.
a. Lemma
b. Hypothesis
c. Postulate
d. Corollary
Answer: A
76. Axioms are propositions of a general logical nature (about equal or unequal) while ___ are
propositions concerning objects and constructions.
a. Theorems
b. Corollaries
c. Conclusions
d. Postulates
Answer: D
77. A ____ is an ancillary theorem whose result is not target for the proof.
a. Postulate
b. Lemma
c. Hypothesis
d. Conclusion
Answer: B
78. Statements that are accepted without discussion or proof are called axioms. The word “axioms”
comes from the Greek “axioma” which means
a. Worth
b. Correct
c. True
d. Perfect
Answer: A
79. In mathematical and other fields of logical reasoning, axioms are use as basis for the formulation
of statements called
a. Lemma
b. Hypothesis
c. Postulate
d. Theorem
Answer: B
80. “The product of two or more numbers is the same in whatever order they are multiplied.” This
refers to
a. Associative law of addition
b. Commutative law of multiplication
c. Associative law of multiplication
d. Distributive law of multiplication
Answer: B
81. If a = b, then b can replace a in any equation. This illustrates what law of identity?
a. Reflexive law
b. Law of symmetry
 c. Transitive law
d. Substitution law
Answer: D
82. If a = a, then it illustrate what law of identity?
a. Reflexive law
b. Law of symmetry
c. Transitive law
d. Substitution law
Answer: A
83. The differential equation given is correctly described by which one of the following choices?

a. Linear, second order, homogeneous

b. Nonlinear, second order, homogeneous
c. Linear, second order, non-homogeneous
d. Nonlinear, second order, non-homogeneous
Answer: D
84. How is the capital recovery factor (A/P, i, n) related to the uniform series sinking fund factor
(A/F, i, n)?
a. (A/P, i, n) = (A/F, i, n) + i
b. (A/P, i, n) = (A/F, i, n) - i
c. (A/P, i, n) =
d. (A/P, i, n) =
Answer: A
85. To determine the chemical formula of a compound, we need to know all of the following EXECPT
the
a. Elements that compose the compound
b. Density of the compound
c. Molecular weight of the compound
d. Atomic weights of the elements in the compound
Answer: B
86. The number of molecules in 22.4 litters (under standard conditions) of a substance in its gaseous
state is called
a. Dulong’s number
b. Petit’s number
c. Avogadro’s number
d. Gay-Lussac’s number
Answer: C
87. Which of the following metal is the best heat conductor?
a. Aluminium
b. Copper
c. Gold
d. Silver
Answer: D
88. When exposed to the atmosphere, which of the following liquids is coldest?
a. Oxygen
b. Argon
 c. Nitrogen
d. Helium
Answer: D
89. Hard water is water which contains soluble salts of which of the following elements?
a. Sodium
b. Sulfur
c. Calcium
d. Chlorine
Answer: C
90. What is an annuity?
a. The future worth of a present amount
b. A series of uniform amounts over a period of time
c. An annual repayment of a loan
d. A lump sum at the end of the year
Answer: B
91. If a = b, and b = c, then a = c. this illustrates
a. Reflexive law
b. Law of symmetry
c. Transitive law
d. Substitution law
Answer: C
92. The axiom which relates addition and multiplication is the ____ law
a. Commutative
b. Associative
c. Distributive
d. None of the above
Answer: C
93. Any combination of symbols and numbers related by the fundamental operation of algebra is
called a/an
a. Equation
b. Algebraic expression
c. Term
d. Algebraic sum
Answer: B
94. The algebraic expression consisting a sum of any number of terms is called a
a. Multinomial
b. Summation
c. Binomial
d. Monomial
Answer: A
95. An equation which is satisfied by all values of the variable for which the members of the
equation defined is known as
a. Linear equation
b. Rational equation
c. Conditional equation
d. Irrational equation
Answer: B
96. An equation in which some or all of the known quantities are represented by letters is called
 a. Redundant equation
b. Literal equation
c. Linear equation
d. Defective equation
Answer: B
97. An equation in which the variable appear under the radical symbol
a. Irradical equation
b. Irrational equation
c. Quadratic equation
d. Linear equation
Answer: B
98. An equation which, because of some mathematical process, has required an extra root is
sometimes called as
a. Redundant equation
b. Literal equation
c. Linear equation
d. Defective equation
Answer: A
99. Any equation which, because of some mathematical process, has fewer roots than its original is
sometimes called as
a. Redundant equation
b. Literal equation
c. Linear equation
d. Defective equation
Answer: D
100. An algebraic expression which can be presented as a quotient of two polynomials.
a. Irrational algebraic expression
b. Rational algebraic expression
c. Reduce algebraic expression
d. Complex algebraic expression
Answer: B
101. A statement containing one or more variables and having the property that it becomes
either true or false when the variables are given specific values from their domains.
a. Solution
b. Problem
c. Open sentence
d. Worded problem
Answer: C
102. Any algebraic term is a/an _____ term in certain representing numbers if it consists of
the product of possible integral powers of these numbers and a factor not containing them.
a. Integral
b. Rational
c. Irrational
d. Integral rational
Answer: D
103. Which of the following expression is incorrect?
a. The future worth of a present amount, (F/P, i, n)=
 b. The future worth of an annuity,(F/A, i, n)=
c. The present worth of an annuity, =
d. (A/F, i, n) – i =(A/P, i, n)
Answer: D
104. When using net present worth calculations to compare two projects, which of the
following could invalidate the calculation?
a. Difference in the magnitude of the projects
b. Evaluating over different time periods
c. Mutually exclusive projects
d. Nonconventional cash flows
Answer: B
105. Assuming i = annual rate of return, n number of years, F = future worth, and P = present
worth, what is the future worth of a present amount P (F/P,i, n)?
a. P(1 + i
b. P(1 + i
c. P(1 + i
d. P(1 + i
Answer: A
106. What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
a. Identical salvage values
b. Different salvage values
c. Identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
d. Different equivalent uniform annual cash flows
Answer: D
107. What is the formula of the straight – line depreciation rate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: A
108. Which of the following statements about stagnation properties is least correct?
a. For a compressible fluid, KE change is converted to stagnation temperature rise, and
pressure rise is isentropically calculated.
b. Stagnation temperature is related to aerodynamic heating of leading edges of aircraft
wings.
c. In a fluid at Mach number greater than 1, an isentropic calculation of stagnation
properties is valid.
d. For an incompressible fluid impacting a pitot tube, KE change may be converted to
pressure rise.
Answer: C
109. Which of the following statements about Mach number (M) is FALSE?
a. Mach number is the ratio of velocity to sonic velocity.
b. Mach number has the dimensions of velocity.
c. Mach 1 is the maximum attainable velocity in a nozzle throat.
 d. Mach angle , or angle the shock front makes with the velocity vector of a moving
source, and Mach number are related by Msin
Answer: B
110. An equation in x and y which is not easily solved for y in terms of x is called
a. Explicit
b. Implicit function
c. Discontinuity
d. Quadratic
Answer: B
111. The numbers which are presented with letters.
a. Variables
b. Unknowns
c. Literal numbers
d. Terms
Answer: C
112. Equation whose numbers are equal only for certain or possibly no value of the
unknown.
a. Conditional equations
b. Inequalities
c. Unconditional equations
d. Temporary equations
Answer: A
113. An algebraic expression consisting of one term.
a. Monomial
b. Binomial
c. Linear
d. Monomode
Answer: A
114. In algebra, this consists of products and quotients of ordinary numbers and letters
which represent numbers.
a. Expression
b. Term
c. Equation
d. Coefficient
Answer: B
115. An expression of two terms is called
a. Polynomial
b. Duomial
c. Binomial
d. All of the above
Answer: C
116. The degree of a polynomial or equation is the
a. Maximum exponent
b. Maximum sum of exponents
c. Exponent of the first variable
d. Maximum exponent of x
Answer: B
117. What is the degree of the polynomial ?
 a. 6th
b. 5th
c. 4th
d. 3rd
Answer: A
118. Any fraction which contains one or more fractions in either numerator or denominator,
or both is called
a. Compound fraction
b. Composite fraction
c. Complex fraction
d. All of the above
Answer: C
119. A compound fraction with unity for numerator and a positive integer as denominator
(i.e.1/n)
a. Ordinary fraction
b. Unit fraction
c. Common fraction
d. Improper fraction
Answer: B
120. If the absolute value of the numerator of a fraction is smaller than the denominator, it is
called
a. Proper fraction
b. Improper fraction
c. Decimal fraction
d. Mixed number
Answer: A
121. A number that consist of an integer part (which may be zero) and a decimal part less
than unity that follows the decimal maker, which may be a point or a comma.
a. Proper fraction
b. Improper fraction
c. Decimal fraction
d. Mixed number
Answer: C
122. One gram of ice at 0°C is place on a container containing 2,000,000 cubic meters of
water at 0°C. Assuming no heat loss, what will happen?
a. Ice will become water
b. Some parts of ice will not change
c. The volume of ice will not change
d. All of the above
Answer: C
123. Melting point of ice is
a. 373K
b. 273K
c. 100°C
d. 4°C
Answer: B
124. The standard meter is defined as ______ wavelength is vacuum of the orange-red line of
the spectrum of Krypton 86
 a. 1,560,763. 73
b. 1, 650, 763. 73
c. 1, 750, 763. 73
d. 1, 850,763. 73
Answer: B
125. Originally defined as the fraction 1/86400 of the mean solar day and now defined as the
duration of 9, 192,631,770 periods of the radiation of a certain state of the cesium-133 atom.
a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
d. Day
Answer: A
126. The ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.
a. Specific weight
b. Relative weight
c. Specific gravity
d. Mass
Answer: C
127. The ______ of a substance is its density relative to that of pure water.
a. Density
b. Specific weight
c. Specific gravity
d. Pressure
Answer: C
128. What is another name of specific gravity?
a. Density
b. Relative density
c. Specific weight
d. Mass
Answer: B
129. What is the specific gravity of water?
a. 1.0
b. 1000
c. 62.4
d. 0.8
Answer: A
130. What is another term for density?
a. Specific gravity
b. Specific weight
c. Inertia
d. Malleability
Answer: B
131. Which of the following is NOT a density of water?
a. 1000 kg/m3
b. 9.81 kN/m3
c. 1 gram/cc
d. 64.2 lb/ft3
Answer: D
132. What is the specific gravity of mercury?
a. 1.0
b. 0.8
c. 7.5
d. 13.6
Answer: D
133. Absolute zero temperature is
a. 32 °F
b. 0 °C
c. 4 ° C
d. 0 ° K
Answer: D
134. Which of the following constitutes a group of parameters with the dimensions of
power?
a. AV
DV
b.

c. PAv
v 2
d.
P
Answer: C
135. At or below critical velocity in small pipes or at very low velocities, the loss of head due
to friction
a. Varies directly as velocity.
b. Can be ignored.
c. Is infinitely large.
d. Varies as the velocity squared.
Answer: A
136. At constant pressure P all of the following statements about low rate, q in turbulent
flow in a pipe are true, EXCEPT:
a. q varies approximately as (diameter, D)2
b. q decrease as pipe surface roughness ration,
c. q varies as velocity ,V 
2

d. q decreases inversely as  fluid density ,  2

1

Answer: C
137. What is the atomic packing factor for a simple cubic crystal?
a. 0.48
b. 0.52
c. 1.00
d. 1.05
Answer: B
138. Which of the following statement is false?
a. Both copper and aluminum have a face-centered crystal structure .
b. Both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal close-packed crystal structure.
c. Iron can have either a face-centered or a body-centered cubic crystal structure.
 d. Both lead and cadmium have a hexagon closed-packed crystal structure.
Answer: D
139. Which of the following statements is false?
a. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a boy – centered cubic unit cell are: 0, 0,
1 1 1
0 and , , .
2 2 2
b. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a face – centered cubic unit cell are: 0, 0,
1 1 1 1 1 1
0; , ,0, ,0, ; and 0, , .
2 2 2 2 2 2
c. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a simple cubic unit cell are: 0, 0, 0.
1 1 1
d. The coordinates of the unique lattice points for a rhombohedral unit cell are , , .
2 2 2
Answer: D
140. Which crystal structure possesses a highest number of close-packed planes and close-
packed direction?
a. Simple cubic
b. Body-centered cubic
c. Face-centered cubic
d. Close-packed hexagon
Answer: C
141. What are most common slip planes for face-centered cubic and body-centered cubic
structure, respectively?
a. Face-centered: (111), body-centered: (110)
b. Face-centered: (100), body-centered: (110)
c. Face-centered: (110), body-centered: (111)
d. Face-centered: (111), body-centered: (100)
Answer: A
142. At what temperature readings do the Fahrenheit and Celsius have the same value?
a. -30°
b. -35°
c. -40°
d. -45°
Answer: C
143. Densed condition of water is at what temperature?
a. 0 °C
b. 2 °C
c. 4 °C
d. 100 °C
Answer: C
144. Indicate the FALSE statement about temperature.
a. Boiling point of centigrade scale is 100°
b. Fahrenheit scale was invented by a German
c. Absolute temperature scale is expressed in °K.
d. Absolute zero in Fahrenheit scale is -273°
Answer: D
145. Standard atmospheric pressure.
a. 9810 N/m2
 b. 13.7 psi
c. 0.5 bar
d. 760 mm of Hg
Answer: D
146. Absolute pressure equals
a. Gauge pressure
b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
d. Barometric pressure
Answer: C
147. The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called
a. Gauge pressure
b. Barometric pressure
c. 1 torr
d. All of the above
Answer: A
148. Under normal condition, the gauge pressure at water surface is
a. Less than zero
b. Equal to zero
c. Greater than zero
d. Half the atmospheric pressure
Answer: B
149. An instrument used to measure air pressure is the
a. Thermometer
b. Barometer
c. Wind vane
d. Pitot tube
Answer: B
150. The atmospheric pressure at mean sea level is known as the standard atmospheric
pressure and is equal to how many psi?
a. 13.7
b. 14.7
c. 15.7
d. 16.7
Answer: B
151. “At constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to temperature.” This is
known as
a. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Gay-Lussac law
d. Ideal Gas law
Answer: B
152. “At constant temperature, the volume is inversely proportional to the pressure.” This is
known as
a. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Gay-Lussac law
d. Ideal Gas law
 Answer: A
153. All are scalar quantities EXCEPT
a. Acceleration
b. Speed
c. Energy
d. Temperature
Answer: A
154. Entrance losses between tank and pipe, or losses through elbows, fittings and valves are
generally expressed as functions of
a. Kinetic energy
b. Pipe diameter
c. Friction factor
d. Volume flow rate
Answer: A
155. The vena contracta of a sharp hydraulic orifice usually occurs:
a. At the geometric center of the orifice.
b. At a distance of about 10% of the orifice diameter upstream from the plane of the
orifice.
c. At a distance equal to about two orifice diameter downstream from the plane of the
orifice.
d. At a distance equal to about one-half the orifice diameter downstream from the plane
of the orifice.
Answer: D
156. Mode of extinguishing obligations when auditor abandons his right to collect:
a. Condonation
b. Forfeiture
c. Debt cancellation
d. Liquidated damages
Answer: A
157. With regard to corrosion of metals, passivation is the process that:
a. Intensifies deterioration temporarily
b. Inhibits further deterioration
c. Changes the composition of the metal
d. Alter the grain size of the metal
Answer: B
158. Cavitation is the result of
a. Static pressure in a fluid becoming less than fluid vapor pressure.
b. Rivets under impact load.
c. Exposure of concrete to salt water.
d. Heat treatment of low carbon steel.
Answer: A
159. On doubling the speed, N, of a centrifugal pump, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:
a. Head, H is increased by a factor of 4.
b. Horsepower, P is increased by a factor of 8.
c. Head, horsepower and volume flow rate are independently variable.
d. Volume flow rate, Q is increased by a factor of 2.
Answer: C
160. The first law of thermodynamic states that:
 a. Heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work.
b. Internal energy is due to molecular motion.
c. Heat can only be transferred from a body of higher temperature to one of lower
temperature.
d. Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
Answer: D
161. In any non- quasistatic thermodynamics process, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will:
a. Increase and then decrease
b. Decrease and then increase
c. Stay the same
d. Increase only
Answer: D
162. Comparing the face-centered cubic lattice with the same hexagonal closed-packed
lattice, which of the following features describes the hexagonal closed-packed structure only?
a. It has the closest packed lattice structure.
b. Its coordination number is 2.
c. Its deformation properties are more directional.
d. Its stacking order is ABCABC
Answer: C
163. All are vector quantities EXCEPT
a. Displacement
b. Electric field intensity
c. Torque
d. Mass
Answer: D
164. A vector is a straight line segment that has definite
a. Length and direction
b. Direction and sense
c. Length and sense
d. Length, direction and sense
Answer: D
165. The scalar product of two vectors are sometimes known as
a. Dot product
b. Resultant
c. Cross product
d. Magnitude
Answer: A
166. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. All vector quantities have magnitudes
b. All scalar quantities have directions
c. All scalar quantities have magnitudes.
d. All vector quantities have directions
Answer: B
167. The _____ of two vectors is obtained by adding one vector to the negative of the other.
a. Magnitude
b. Sum
c. Product
 d. Difference
Answer: D
168. The distance per unit time.
a. Speed
b. Velocity
c. Acceleration
d. Motion
Answer: A
169. The displacement per unit time.
a. Speed
b. Velocity
c. Acceleration
d. Motion
Answer: B
170. Defined as the gravitational force exerted on an object because of its attraction to some
other masses such as the earth.
a. Weight
b. Mass
c. Inertia
d. Either mass or weight
Answer: A
171. Defined quantitatively as the amount of mater of which the object is made. It also refer
to the measure of the objects inertia
a. Weight
b. Mass
c. Relative density
d. Specific weight
Answer: B
172. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. The weight and mass of the body depends on its location.
b. The mass of the body depends on its location.
c. The weight of a body id independent on its location.
d. The weight of the body depends on its location while the mass is independent of its
location.
Answer: D
173. Which of the following is true about weight of an object?
a. It is the force with which it is attracted to the earth.
b. It is the same as the mass of the object.
c. It is equivalent to the mass of the object divided by the gravitational acceleration.
d. It is constant anywhere in the universe.
Answer: A
174. A plane intercepts the coordinate axis at x = 1, y=1, and z= 2. What are the Miler indices
of the plane?
a. (132)
b. (123)
c. (623)
d. (326)
Answer: C
175. Given thata is a lattice constant that h, k, and l are the Miller indices, which of the
following equations describes the interplanar distance d in a cubic crystal?
2a
a. d
2 2 2
 1   1  1
     
h k  l 
 1 1 1
b. d  a   
h k l
a
c. d    h 2  k 2  l 2
2
a
d. d 
h  k2  l2
2

Answer: D
176. Entropy is the measure of
a. The change in enthalpy of a system
b. The internal energy of gas
c. The heat capacity of a substance
d. Randomness or disorder
Answer: D
177. Which of the following statement is not true regarding X-ray diffraction?
a. The geometrical structure factor F(hkl) is the ratio of the amplitude of the X-ray
reflected from a plane in a crystal to the amplitude of the X-ray scattered from a single
electron.
b. X-ray diffraction is only useful for studying simpler crystal such as the body –
centeredcubic structure, rather than more complex crystal like the hexagon closed-
packed structure.
c. X-ray diffraction can be used to determine the grain size of a specimen.
d. X-ray diffraction can be used to detect micro-stresses in a crystal.
Answer: B
178. In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?
a. An extra atom, sitting at a non-lattice point
b. A different element at a lattice point
c. An atom missing at a lattice point
d. A line defect
Answer: A
179. Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal structure?
a. Tilt boundary
b. Screw dislocation
c. Vacancy
d. Schottky imperfection
Answer: B
180. It is often desired to know the number of atoms, n, in a crystal structures that possess
more than a specified amount of energy, E. Which of the following equations gives n, given that
N is the total number of atoms present, M is a constant, k is the Boltzmann constant, and 0 is
the temperature of the specimen?
 M kE / T
a. n e
N
EM kT
b. n  e
N
c. n  MNe  E / kT
d. n  MNe  kT / E
Answer: C
181. Which of the following describes diffusion in a crystal structure?
a. It is not possible.
b. It occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystal.
c. It often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism.
d. It occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work.
Answer: C
182. A measure of inertia of a body, which it is resistance to a change in velocity.
a. Force
b. Mass
c. Acceleration
d. Moment of Inertia
Answer: B
183. A quantitative measure of inertia.
a. Weight
b. Mass
c. Force
d. Acceleration
Answer: B
184. Indicate the FALSE statement.
a. Weight of body is a gravitational force.
b. Mass is the measure of the response of the body to an applied force.
c. Weight of the body varies of its location.
d. Weight of the body is always equal to its mass.
Answer: D
185. A cart loaded with gravel is hard to get started rolling because of its large
a. Mass
b. Weight
c. Density
d. Volume
Answer: A
186. The mass to which a force of one pound will give an acceleration of one foot per second
per second.
a. Slug
b. Dyne
c. Erg
d. Joule
Answer: A
187. The tendency of any object to remain at rest or to continue in motion is called
a. Equilibrium
b. Mass
 c. Inertia
d. Static
Answer: C
188. Any influence capable of producing change in the motion of an object is called
a. Force
b. Velocity
c. Acceleration
d. Vector
Answer: A
189. Which of the following is NOT a unit of force?
a. Pound
b. Erg
c. Dyne
d. Newton
Answer: B
190. The unit of force which is equivalent to 1 gram-cm/sec2
a. Joule
b. Slug
c. Dyne
d. Newton
Answer: C
191. The product of force and displacement is called
a. Energy
b. Power
c. Work
d. Momentum
Answer: C
192. Which of the following is NOT a unit of work?
a. Joules
b. Kilowatt-hour
c. Erg
d. Slug
Answer: D
193. What is the SI unit of work?
a. Joule
b. Kg-m
c. N-cm
d. Foot-pound
Answer: A
194. What is Fick’s first law for one – dimensional, steady state diffusion? C is the volume
concentration of atoms, x is the distance along which diffusion occurs, D, is the diffusion coefficient,
and J is the flux or current density.
C
a. J  D
x
D
b. J  C
x
 1 C
c. J 
D x
C
d. J  2 D
x
Answer: A
195. Which of the following are true about Fick’s first law of diffusion?
I. It is only applicable to liquids, not solids.
II. The law states that the flux moves from high to low concentration.
III. J, the flux, may be in units of cm3/cm2s.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. II and III
Answer: D
196. What is the Arrhenius equation for the rate of a thermally activated process? (A=
reaction constant, T=absolute temperature, R=gas constant, Q= activated energy)
a. Rate = Ae-Q/RT
b. Rate = Ae-QRT
c. Rate =AeQ/RT
d. Rate =AeQRT
Answer: A
197. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. The surface energy of a liquid tends toward a minimum.
b. The surface energy is the work required to create a unit area of additional space.
c. The energy of an interior atom is greater than the energy of an atom on the surface of a
liquid.
d. Total surface energy is directly proportional to the surface area.
Answer: C
198. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset yield stress?
a. It is the elastic limit after which a measurable plastic strain has occurred.
b. It is the stress at which the materials plastically strains 0.2%.
c. It is the stress at which the material elastically strains 0.2%.
d. It is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material.
Answer: B
199. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the ductile to brittle transition temperature?
I. It is important for structures used in cold environments.
II. It is the point at which the size of the shear lip or tearing rim goes to zero.
III. It is the temperature at which 20 Joules of energy cause failure in Charpy v-
notch specimen of standard dimensions.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I and III
Answer: D
200. Which of the following are TRUE regarding creep?
I. It is causedby the diffusion of vacancies to edge dislocations, permitting
dislocation climb.
 II. It involves the plastic deformation of materials at loads below the yield stress.
III. It may involve whole grain sliding.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III
Answer: D
201. As the amount of slip increase additional deformation becomes more difficult and
decreases until the plastic flow finally stops. Slip may be again if a larger stress is applied. What
is this phenomenon known as?
a. Cooling
b. Crowding
c. Strain hardening
d. Twinning
Answer: C
202. Low density polyethylene undergoes extensive elongation, (over 100%) prior to rupture,
while polystyrene undergoes only 1 to 2% elongation. What is the main reason for this
difference?
a. The polyethylene is less dense.
b. The large styrene groups in the polystyrene prevent slippage.
c. More cross linking occurs in the polystyrene.
d. Polyethylene is less crystalline.
Answer: B
203. Which of the following describe the modulus of elasticity of an elastomer?
I. It is directly proportional to the number of cross links in the elastomer.
II. Its value increases with temperature.
III. It is directly proportional to the number of double bonds in the chemical
structure.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
Answer: D
204. Of the following inorganic glasses, which have tetrahedral lattice structures?
SiO2 , B2O3 , BeF2 , GeO2
a. SiO2 and B2O3
b. SiO2 and BeF2
c. SiO2 , B2O3 , and BeF2
d. SiO2 , BeF2 , and GeO2
Answer: D
205. Which of these statements describe the glass transition temperature?
I. It is the temperature at which the rate of volume contraction increases abruptly.
II. It is the temperature at which residual stresses in the glass can be relieved.
III. It is the point where the material behaves more like a solid than viscous liquid.
a. I only
b. I and II
 c. II and III
d. I and III
Answer: D
206. Which of the following is not an important criterion for formatting a complete binary
solid solution?
a. The difference is radii should be less than 15%.
b. The constituent elements must have the same crystal structure.
c. The atoms should be close to one another in the periodic table.
d. The difference in atomic numbers should be small.
Answer: D
207. How can an ordered solid solution be distinguished from a compound?
a. In an ordered solution, the solute atoms occupy interstitial positions within the lattice.
b. The solute atoms in an ordered solid solution substitute for atoms in the parent lattice.
c. The atoms in an ordered solid solution form layers in the lattice structure.
d. When heated, an ordered solid solution becomes disordered before melting.
Answer: D
208. What is transformed in a eutectoid reaction?
a. One solid is transformed into two solids of different composition.
b. A solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic temperature.
c. A liquid becomes solid at the solidus temperature.
d. A solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus temperature.
Answer: A
209. Which of the following is in correct representation of a eutectic cooling reaction? (The
subscripts denote composition.)
a. liquid   solid 1  solid 2
b. solid 1  solid 2  solid 3
c. solid 1  liquid   solid 2
d. solid 1  solid 2  solid 3
Answer: A
210. A vector quantity which is a product of mass and velocity of the body.
a. Momentum
b. Impulse
c. Energy
d. Displacement
Answer: A
211. The product of a force and the time during which it acts is known as
a. Momentum
b. Impulse
c. Coefficient of restitution
d. Impact
Answer: B
212. Momentum is the product of mass and
a. Acceleration
b. Velocity
c. Force
d. Time
 Answer: B
213. Change of momentum is equal to
a. Displacement
b. Impulse
c. Power
d. Kinetic energy
Answer: B
214. What is the SI unit of impulse?
a. N-s
b. Kg-m/s
c. Slugs/s
d. N-m/s
Answer: A
215. What is the SI unit of momentum?
a. N-s
b. Kg-m/s
c. Slugs/s
d. N-m/s
Answer: A
216. If the velocity of the body doubled in value, its ____ will also double.
a. Acceleration
b. Impulse
c. Momentum
d. Kinetic energy
Answer: C
217. The negative ration of the relative velocity after a collision to a relative velocity before a
collision.
a. Coefficient of friction
b. Coefficient of sliding
c. Coefficient of kinetic friction
d. Coefficient of restitution
Answer: D
218. A collision in which the total kinetic energy after collision is less than that before
collision.
a. Elastic collision
b. Inelastic collision
c. Straight line collision
d. Off center collision
Answer: B
219. When the colliding bodies stick together on impact which results in the maximum
possible loss in kinetic energy, it is said to be _____ collision.
a. Elastic
b. Inelastic
c. Completely inelastic
d. None of the above
Answer: C
220. Which of the following is true about collision?
a. In elastic collision, no kinetic energy is lost.
 b. In elastic collision, the two colliding bodies stick together after impact.
c. In completely inelastic collision, no kinetic energy is lost.
d. Kinetic energy is not conserved in an elastic collision.
Answer: A
221. At what situation when the colliding objects stops and the target moves off with the
same speed after collision?
a. When their masses are equal to the target is stationary.
b. When the target is stationary even if their masses are not equal.
c. When their masses are equal and the target is moving with a speed less than that of the
colliding body.
d. When their masses are equal and the target is moving with a speed greater than that of
the colliding body.
Answer: A
222. Two pieces of copper are brazed together using a eutectic alloy of copper and silver. The
brazed material melts at 780 °C. If the second braze is attempted in order to attach another
piece of copper, which of the following is true?
a. The first braze will melt if the braze temperature is again 780 °C.
b. The braze temperature must be lowered below 780°C.
c. The first braze will partially melt, causing the parts to slide.
d. The first braze will not melt at 780°C but the second braze will.
Answer: D
223. On an alloy phase diagram, what is the solidus temperature?
a. The point at which all solids completely reach the liquid stage.
b. The temperature of the liquid phase at which the first solid forms for a given overall
composition.
c. The temperature of the solid phase at which the first liquid forms for a given overall
composition.
d. The temperature at which the solid is at equilibrium.
Answer: C
224. Which of the following is not a structural class of steels?
a. Carbon
b. High-strength, low-alloy
c. Low-alloy
d. Tool and die
Answer: D
225. Which of the following phases of steel has a face-centered cubic structure?
a. Ferrite
b. Cementite
c. Pearlite
d. Austenite
Answer: D
226. Low carbon steels are generally used in the “as rolled” or “fabricated” state. What is the
reason for this?
a. They come in many different shapes and thicknesses.
b. Their strength generally cannot be increased by heat treatment.
c. They degrade severely under heat treatment.
d. Their chromium content is low.
Answer: B
227. The equilibrium cooling of a steel containing 0.8% carbon results in a product with little
use because it is extremely brittle. Which of the following is the primary reason for this poor
characteristics?
a. The material has not been cold-worked.
b. The austenite grains are too small, and the carbide grains are too large.
c. Thick layers of iron carbide surround the coarse ferrite grains.
d. The carbide forms thin plates that are brittle.
Answer: D
228. Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both contain 4% carbon. Ductile cast iron, however,
has a higher tensile strength and is considerably more ductile. Which of the following is the
major difference that accounts for the superior properties of the ductile iron?
a. The gray cast iron contains iron carbide, whereas the ductile iron contains graphite.
b. The gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite, whereas the ductile iron contains
spheroids of graphite.
c. The ductile iron is tempered to give better properties.
d. The ferrite grains in the gray cast iron are excessively large.
Answer: B
229. In preparing a metallographic iron specimen, the grain boundaries are made most
visible by which of the following steps?
a. Grinding the sample with silicon carbide abrasive
b. Polishing the sample with AI2O3
c. Mounting the sample in an epoxy resin mold
d. Etching the sample in a 2% solution of nitric acid in alcohol
Answer: D
230. If the colliding object has a mass less than that of the stationary target, after impact, the
a. Colliding object stops
b. The colliding object continues its motion in the same direction with reduced speed
c. The colliding object continues its motion in the same direction with the same speed
d. The lighter object bounces off the heavier one
Answer: D
231. If the colliding object has a mass greater than that of the stationary target, after impact,
the
a. Colliding object stops
b. The colliding object continue its motion in the same direction with reduce speed
c. The colliding objects continues its motion in the same direction with the same speed
d. The lighter the object bounces off the heavier one
Answer: B
232. For perfect elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution, e, is equal to
a. 0
b. 1
c. Negative value
d. Infinity
Answer: B
233. For perfect inelastic collision, the coefficient of restitution, is equal to
a. 0
b. 1
c. Negative value
d. Infinity
 Answer: A
234. In an elastic collision
a. The kinetic energy is conserved
b. The kinetic energy is not conserved
c. The objects sticks together after impact
d. The loss of kinetic energy is maximum
Answer: A
235. “For every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction,” this is known as
a. Newton’s first law
b. Newton’s second law
c. Newton’s third law
d. Law of inertia
Answer: C
236. “Every body continues in its state of rest or at constant speed in a straight line motion, it
is compelled to change that state because of forces acting on it.” This is known as
a. Newton’s first law
b. Newton’s second law
c. Newton’s third law
d. Kepler’s law
Answer: A
237. “An unbalanced force acting on an object will cause the object to accelerate in the
direction of the force,” this is known as
a. Newton’s first law
b. Newton’s second law
c. Newton’s third law
d. Kepler’s law
Answer: B
238. Newton’s second law of motion states that the rate of change of momentum with
respect to time is
a. Force
b. Energy
c. Power
d. Work
Answer: A
239. The accurate formulation of the laws of motions, as well as of gravitational was made by
a. Galelio
b. Kepler
c. Varignon
d. Newton
Answer: D
240. The law which describes the motion of the stars, planets and comets.
a. Law of universal gravitation
b. Newton’s law of motion
c. Kepler’s law
d. Big bang and black hole theory
Answer: C
241. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Low-alloy steels are a minor are a minor group and are rarely used.
 b. Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated condition.
c. Low-alloy steels contain small amount of nickel and chromium.
d. In the AISI and the SAE steel specification, the last two digits define the carbon content
of the steel in weight.
Answer: A
242. A concrete highway curve with a radius of 500 ft is banked to give lateral pressure
equivalent to f=0.15. For what coefficient of friction will skidding impend for a speed of 60mph?
a. <0.360
b. >0.360
c. >0.310
d. <0.310
Answer: D
243. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. High-strength low-alloy steels are not as strong as non-alloy low carbon steels.
b. Small amounts of copper increase the tensile strength of steels.
c. Small amounts of silicon 1 steel have little influence on toughness and fabric ability.
d. Additions of small amounts of silicon to steel can cause a marked decreased in yield
strength of the steel.
Answer: D
244. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Stainless steel contains large amount of chromium.
b. There are three basic types of stainless steel: martensitic, austenitic, and ferritic.
c. The non-magnetic stainless steels contain large amounts of nickel.
d. Stabilization of the face-centered cubic crystal structure of stainless steels imparts a non
– magnetic characteristic to the alloy.
Answer: B
245. Which of the following would most likely require a steel containing 0.6% carbon that has
been spheroidized, cold-drawn, and slightly tempered?
a. A bridge beam
b. A water pipe
c. A cutting tool
d. A ball bearing
Answer: C
246. A circuit draws 5000 kVA with a power factor of 0.72. What size capacitor is require to
increase the power factor to 0.86? the 60-Hz line voltage is 220V (rms)
a. 0.07F
b. 14F
c. 0.04F
d. 160F
Answer: A
247. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what minimum percentage of
chromium is the alloy is required?
a. 1.1%
b. 3.2%
c. 8.3%
d. 11%
Answer: D
248. Where do stress concentrations occur?
 I. Near the points of application of concentrated loads
II. Along the entire length of high distributed loads
III. At discontinuities
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I, II, and III
Answer: B
249. Which of the following does not describe the object as observed from earth?
a. Apogee
b. Perigee
c. Eccentricity
d. Focus
Answer: D
250. If an external pressure is applied in a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of external pressure. This is known as
a. Archimedes principle
b. Pascal’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Bernoulli’s theorem
Answer: B
251. According to this law: “The force between the two charges varies directly as the
magnitude of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.”
a. Law of universal gravitation
b. Coulomb’s law
c. Newton’s law
d. Inverse-square law
Answer: B
252. “At any two points along a streamline in an ideal fluid in a steady flow, the sum of the
pressure, the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the
same value.” This concept is known as
a. Pascal’s theorem
b. Bernoulli’s theorem
c. Hydraulic theorem
d. Ideal fluid theorem
Answer: B
253. “Whenever the net force acts on a body, it produces an acceleration in the direction of
the resultant force, an acceleration that is directly proportional to the mass of the body. This
theory is popularly known as
a. Faraday’s law of forces
b. Newton’s second law of motion
c. Newton’s first law of motion
d. Hooke’s law of equilibrium
Answer: B
254. A measure of the resistance of a body it offers to any changes in its angular velocity,
determined by its mass and distribution of its mass about the axis of rotation is known as
a. Moment of inertia
b. Friction
 c. Torsion
d. Angular acceleration
Answer: D
255. In the equation E = mc2 ,c is
a. The distance between the neutral axis to the outermost fiber
b. Einstein constant
c. Speed of light
d. Speed of sound
Answer: C
256. The range of a projectile depends on
a. Initial velocity only
b. Initial velocity and weight of the body
c. Initial velocity and angle of projection
d. Initial velocity, weight of the body and angle of projection
Answer: C
257. In a trajectory air resistance decreases
a. The speed
b. The maximum height
c. The range of projectile
d. All of the above
Answer: D
258. In the absence of air resistance, a projectile sent off at an angle of  above the
horizontal with an initial velocity of V has a horizontal range of
V 2 
a. R    sin 2
 g 
b. R 
2V sin  
g
V 
c. R    sin 2
g
d. R 
2V sin  
g
Answer: A
259. What is the definition of normal
strain?  is elongation , and L is the length of the specimen.
L 
a. 
L
L 
b.  


c. 
L 

d.  
L
Answer: D
260. In a stress-strain diagram, what is the correct term for the stress level at  =0.2% offset?
 a. The elastic limit
b. The plastic limit
c. The offset rupture stress
d. The offset yield stress
Answer: D
261. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
a. Static bond
b. Plane bond
c. High bond
d. Repeated load
Answer: D
262. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears.
From this information, which of the following can be deduced about this material?
a. It is elastic
b. It is plastic
c. It has a high modulus of elasticity
d. It does not obey Hooke’s law
Answer: A
263. Which of the following may be Poisson ratio of a material?
a. 0.45
b. 0.50
c. 0.55
d. 0.60
Answer: A
264. The shear strain,  , along a shaft is:
d
 r
dx
d
r is the shaft radius, and is the change of the angle of twist with respect to the axis
dx
of the shaft. Which condition is not necessary for the above equation to be a valid?
a. The area of interest must be free of connections and other load applications.
b. The material must be isotropic and homogeneous.
c. The loading must result in the stress being a couple acting along the axis.
d. r must be the full radius of the shaft.
Answer: D
265. In bending of a rectangular beam under axial loading, where is the location of maximum
shear stress?
a. At the top edge
b. At the bottom edge
c. At the neutral axis
d. At a location between the top edge and the neutral axis
Answer: C
266. How many degrees of freedom does a coin rolling on the ground have?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
 Answer: C
267. What is the definition of instantaneous velocity?
a. v  dxdt
b. v   xdt
dx
c. v
dt
t
d. v  lim
t 0 x
Answer: C
268. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. The time rate of change of the angular momentum about a fixed point is equal to the
moment of the external forces acting on the system about the point.
b. The coefficient of restitution can be less than zero
c. The frictional force always acts to resist motion
d. Momentum is conserved during the elastic collision
Answer: B
269. In the preceding questions, the time of flight is

a. t
2V sin   2

b. t 
V 2
sin 2  
g
V 2 
c. t    sin 2
 g 
d. t 
2V sin  
g
Answer: D
270. The trajectory of a projectile is a graph of
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: B
271. If an object is thrown vertically upward, its acceleration
a. Is smaller than that of the object thrown vertically downward
b. Is equal to that of an object thrown vertically downward
c. Greater than that of the object thrown vertically downward
d. Zero until the object reaches maximum point
Answer: B
272. The acceleration is _______ the resultant force on the object.
a. Directly proportional to
b. Inversely proportional to
c. Directly proportional to the square of
d. Inversely proportional to the square of
Answer: B
273. The acceleration is ______ the mass of the object
a. Directly proportional to
b. Inversely proportional to
c. Directly proportional to the square of
d. Inversely proportional to the square of
Answer: B
274. Refers to the vertical speed at which the force of air resistance is just sufficient to
balance the body’s weight.
a. Gravitational acceleration
b. Terminal speed
c. Drag
d. Lift
Answer: B
275. Objects falling in air from the same height will not reach the ground at the same time
because
a. Air resistance increase with velocity
b. Falling body will eventually reaches terminal velocity
c. It if reaches terminal velocity, it cannot fall any faster than that
d. All of the above
Answer: D
276. A point on the object from which it can be suspended in any orientation without tending
to rotate
a. Center of gravity
b. Barycenter
c. Centroid
d. All of the above
Answer: D
277. What is another term for centroid?
a. Center of gravity
b. Center of mass
c. Barycenter
d. All of the above
Answer: D
278. Centrifugal force is directly proportional to
a. The square of the tangential velocity
b. The tangential velocity
c. Radius of curvature
d. The weight of the object
Answer: A
279. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Kinematics is the study of the effects of motion, while kinetics is the study of the causes
of motion
b. The radius of gyration for a mass of uniform thickness is identical to that for a planar are
of the same shape
c. Angular momentum for rigid body may be regarded as the product of angular velocity
and inertia
d. The acceleration of a body rotating with a constant angular velocity is zero
Answer: D
280. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Wavelength of visible light > wavelength of microwaves
b. Frequency of radio waves < frequency of infrared waves
c. Wave length of x-rays > wave length of gamma ray
d. Frequency of ultraviolet > frequency of infrared
Answer: A
281. What type of materials usually has a higher index of reflection?
a. Lighter materials
b. Heavier materials
c. Denser materials
d. Less dense materials
Answer: C
282. According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, which of the following statements
are true?
I. As the electron orbits the proton, it constantly radiates light with a frequency
equal to its frequency of revolution
II. The electron orbits the proton in certain orbits that can be found by assuming
that its angular momentum is quantized
III. Because of the quantization of angular momentum, calculations using the Bohr
model and those based on classical physics can never give the same results.
IV. When an electron orbiting a proton changes state to a lower energy level, the
frequency of the radiation given off is proportional to the change in energy. This
accounts for the hydrogen spectrum.
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. II, III, and IV
Answer: B
283. Consider the binding energy of an electron in the K – shell EK  and L – shell EL  of the
same metal. Which of the following statements is true?
EL
a. EK 
4
E
b. EK  L
2
c. EK  EL
d. EK  4EL
Answer: D
284. Which of the following statements concerning quantum theory and the shell model of
the atom are false?
I. The energy of an atom is dependent upon all four of the quantum number (n, l,
m, m8) associated with it, except for hydrogen, which only depends on n
II. According to the Pauli exclusion principle, two electrons is an atoms may have
the same values for quantum number n, l, and m only
III. The three quantum numbers n, l, and m arise from boundary conditions is the
solution of Schrodinger’s equation
 IV. There is a forth quantum number associated with the spin of the electron, m8
which can only have values + and -
V. If an atom in the group state has its last electron in the M-shell ( n = 3), there
must be at least tem electrons in that atom.
a. I only
b. IV only
c. II and III
d. II and V
Answer: D
285. In an atom such as sodium, there is one electron in the outermost shell (in this case n =
3). Which of the following statements is true regarding the energy required to excite an electron
in the n = 1 shell compared to that required to excite an electron in the n = 2 shell?
a. It is greater because the electron is closer than the proton, and thus the Coulomb
attractive force is much stronger
b. It is greater because the shell next to it is full. Thus, by the Pauli exclusion principle, it
must jump to the first shell which is not full, in this case, the n = 3 shell
c. It is greater because an electron must first jump to the n = 3 shell form the n = 2. Then
the electron form the n = 1 shell can jumps to the n=2 shell
d. It is equal to the energy required to excite an electron in the n = 2 shell because in both
cases the electron makes a jump to the next shell.
Answer: B
286. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 pound of water 1°F
a. Calorie
b. Thermal energy
c. Specific heat
d. British Thermal Unit (BTU)
Answer: D
287. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise a temperature of _____ to
water 1°C
a. 1 gram
b. 1 kilogram
c. 1 pound
d. 1 ton
Answer: A
288. The amount of heat needed to change the temperature of a unit quantity of it by 1°
a. BTU
b. Heat transfer
c. Temperature
d. Specific heat capacity
Answer: D
289. What is specific heat?
a. A temperature of 1 kg reported in 1 °C
b. The heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1 °F
c. The energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance 1 °C
d. Any of the above
Answer: B
290. What is the specific heat capacity of water in kJ/kg °C
 a. 4.19
b. 3.89
c. 2.19
d. 1.49
Answer: A
291. The amount of heat must be supplied to change 1 kg of the substance at its boiling point
from the liquid state to the gaseous state
a. Heat fusion
b. Heat of evaporation
c. Specific heat
d. BTU
Answer: B
292. The amount of heat that must be supplied to change 1 kg of the substance at its melting
point from the solid to the liquid state
a. Heat fusion
b. Heat evaporation
c. Specific heat
d. BTU
Answer: A
293. “Any body immersed in a fluid is subjected to a buoyant force which is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced.” This is known as
a. Pascal’s law
b. Bernoulli’s law
c. Archimedes principle
d. Venturi’s principle
Answer: C
294. The total hydrostatic force on plane area is directly proportional to
a. Density of fluid
b. Square of the pressure head
c. Square of the area
d. Cube of the area
Answer: A
295. Buoyant force is equal to
a. Density of fluid x total volume
b. Density of fluid x volume above the surface
c. Density of fluid x volume of submerge
d. Specific gravity of fluid x volume submerge
Answer: C
296. Refers to the tendency of the liquid surface to contact to the minimum possible area in
any situation.
a. Ductility
b. Viscosity
c. Surface tension
d. Capillarity
Answer: C
297. During combustion of hydrocarbon fuels with less than stoichiometric air, the products
depend on the amount of air supplied and could be all of the following EXCEPT:
 a. Unburned fuel, C, CO2 andH 2O
b. Unburned fuel, C, CO andH 2O
c. C, CO, CO2 andH 2O
d. C, CO, andH 2O
Answer: A
298. The rate of heat transfer through a given section of a uniform wall for a given
temperature difference is:
a. Directly proportional to the thermal conductivity and to the thickness of the wall
b. Inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity and directly proportional to the
thickness of the wall
c. Directly proportional to the thermal conductivity and inversely proportional to the
thickness of the wall
d. Inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity and to the thickness of the wall
Answer: C
299. Which of the following is true regarding the minimum attractive rate of return used in
judging proposed investments?
a. It is the same for every investment
b. It is larger than the interest rate to discount expected cash flow from investment
c. It is frequently a policy decision made by an organization’s management
d. It is not relevant in engineering economy studies
Answer: C
300. Which of the following situation has a conventional cash flow so that an interest rate of
return can be safely calculated and used?
a. You purchased a house and pay the bank in monthly installment
b. You lease a car and pay by the month
c. Your company undertakes a mining project in which the land must be reclaimed at the
end of the project
d. You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive dividends each year
Answer: D
301. The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is defined as the order quantity which minimizes
the inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic EOQ
model with no shortages?
a. The demand rate is uniform and constant
b. There is a positive cost on each unit inventoried
c. The entire reorder quantity is delivered instantaneously
d. There is an upper bound on the quantity ordered
Answer: D
302. Which of the following events will cause the optimal lot size , given by the classic EOQ
model with no shortage, to increase?
a. A decrease inventory carrying cost
b. A decrease in demand
c. An increase in demand
d. (A) or (C)
Answer: D
303. Which of the following stamen is FALSE concerning the deviation of real gases from ideal
gas behavior?
a. Molecular attraction interaction are compensated for in the ideal gas law
 b. Deviation from ideal gas behavior are large near the saturation curve
c. Deviation from ideal gas behavior become significant at pressure above the critical point
d. Molecular volume becomes significant as specific volume is decrease
Answer: A
304. Considered as the “counting numbers”
a. Integers
b. Rational numbers
c. Irrational numbers
d. Natural numbers
Answer: D
305. A number represented by a non-terminating, non- repeating decimal
a. Irrational numbers
b. Rational numbers
c. Natural numbers
d. Integer
Answer: A
306. The completeness axiom proved that the real number system has numbers other than
a. Integer
b. Rational numbers
c. Natural numbers
d. Irrational numbers
Answer: B
307. The concept of spread of a random variable or a set of observations
a. Variance
b. Standard deviation
c. Dispersion
d. Range
Answer: C
308. A number containing a non-terminating but repeating decimal is a/an
a. Integer
b. Rational number
c. Natural number
d. Irrational number
Answer: B
309. A positive integer which has no perfect square factor greater than one
a. Radical expression
b. Square integer
c. Square integer
d. Square-free integer
Answer: D
310. Numbers are used to describe a
a. Magnitude
b. Position
c. Magnitude and position
d. None of the above
Answer: C
311. Are symbols or combinations of symbols which describe a number
a. Numerals
 b. Digits
c. Terms
d. Notations
Answer: A
312. Which of the following is not classified as an integer?
a. Negative numbers
b. Positive number
c. Zero
d. Imaginary number
Answer: D
313. When an imaginary number is raised to an even exponent, it
a. Becomes infinite
b. Become negative imaginary numbers
c. Becomes relatively small numbers
d. Becomes real numbers
Answer: D
314. The complex number is in the form of a+bi. If a=0, what do you call the resulting
number?
a. Absolute value of the complex number
b. Pure imaginary number
c. Argument
d. Irrational number
Answer: B
315. For a complex number a+bi, the real number is ______ of the complex
number.
a. Absolute value
b. Magnitude
c. Modulus
d. All of the above
Answer: D
316. Two chords of a circle with joins a point on the circle to the end points of a diameter and
forms a right angle
a. Complementary chords
b. Supplementary chords
c. Focal chords
d. Chords of contrast
Answer: B
317. The center of the inscribed circle of a triangle is known as _____ of the triangle
a. Circumcenter
b. Incenter
c. Excenter
d. Orthocenter
Answer: C
318. Supplementary chords are two chords which join appoint on the circle to the endpoints
of a diameter. The supplementary chords subtend a/an _____angle
a. Acute
b. Right
c. Obtuse
 d. Reflex
Answer: B
319. A circle or a radius R has a curvature of
a. R2
b. 1/R
c. 2R
d.
Answer: B
320. A polygon is ____ when no side, when extended, will pass through the interior of the
polygon
a. Convex
b. Equilateral
c. Isoperimetric
d. Similar
Answer: A
321. A polygon is said to be a regular polygon if it is
a. Convex
b. All sides are congruent
c. All angles are congruent
d. All of the above
Answer: D
322. Polygon inscribed in the same circle called
a. Concentric polygons
b. Ocentric polygons
c. Concyclic polygon
d. Orthocentricpolygons
Answer: C
323. If n is the number of the sides of a polygon, then the sum of all interior angles of a
polygon is expresses as
a. (n + 2) 180°
b. (n/2) 180°
c. (n-2) 180°
d. (n/2) (n-3)
Answer: C
324. If n is the number of sides of a polygon, then the numbers of diagonals of a polygon is
expressed as
a. n!
b. (n-1)!
c. (n/2)(n-3)
d. (n/3)(n-2)
Answer: C
325. What do you call a polygon with 11 sides?
a. Heptagon
b. Unogon
c. Undecagon
d. Dodecagon
Answer: C
326. Pentagon is to 5 sides as ______ is to 11 sides
 a. Heptagon
b. Septagon
c. Unidecagon
d. Hendecagon
Answer: D
327. A polygon having 12 sides is called
a. Bidecagon
b. Dodecagon
c. Nonagon
d. Pentedecagon
Answer: B
328. Which of the following is not true regarding the Blasius boundary layer solution?
a. It permits one to calculate the skin friction on the flat plate
b. It is an approximate solution
c. It is valid for laminar flow
d. It is valid only for potential flow
Answer: D
329. A chemical method of feed water treatment wherein water is passes through a bed of
sodium zeolite nasub2Z which reacts with calcium and magnesium salts:
a. Thermal treatment
b. Lime soda treatment
c. Ion exchange treatment
d. Demineralization process
Answer: C
330. The hardness of water is given in ppm (parts per million, i.e. , pounds per million pound
of water) this hardness is
a. The total number of pounds of calcium and magnesium bicarbonate in the water
b. The total number of pounds of sodium carbonate in the water per million pounds of
water
c. The total number of pounds of salt (sodium chloride) in the water per million pounds of
water
d. The total number of pounds of dissolved solids in the water per million pounds of water
Answer: A
331. Heat transmission carried by the movement of heated fluids away from a hot body, as in
the heating of water by a hot surface
a. Radiation
b. Absorption
c. Convection
d. Conduction
Answer: C
332. For comfort cooling, at an air movement of 4.57 m/min to 7.62m/min with the loving
zone and 55 to 60% relative humidity. The effective temperature to be maintained shall be:
a. 18°- 20.5°C
b. 24° - 26°C
c. 200° - 25 °C
d. 20° - 23.3°C
Answer: D
333. The type of cooler extensively used for medium and large size diesel engines:
 a. Radiator cooler
b. Shell and tube cooler
c. Plate cooler
d. Disk cooler
Answer: A
334. An instrument for measuring high temperature gases:
a. Manometer
b. Pyrometer
c. Plenometer
d. Anemometer
Answer: B
335. In energy transformation process in which the resultant condition lacks the driving
potential need to reverse the process, the measure of this loss is expressed as:
a. Entropy decrease of the system
b. Entropy increase of the system
c. Specific heat ratio of the system
d. Enthalpy increase of the system
Answer: D
336. The system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium:
a. Where there is no tendency towards spontaneous change
b. When all its parts are at the same temperature
c. If it has no tendency to undergo further chemical reaction
d. When the system is not accelerating
Answer: A
337. The equilibrium temperature that a regular thermometer measure if exposed to
atmospheric air is:
a. Wet bulb temp
b. Dry bulb temp
c. Dew point
d. °C
Answer: B
338. All of the following statements about wet bulb temperature are true EXCEPT
a. Wet bulb temperature equals adiabatic saturation temperature
b. Wet bulb temperature lies numerically between dew point and dry bulb temperature
for unsaturated system
c. Wet bulb temperature equals both dry bulb and dewpoint temperature at 100% relative
humidity
d. Wet bulb temperature is the only temperature necessary to determine grains of water
per lb. of dry air
Answer: D
339. A small plastic bat is filled with moist air at 50% relative humidity, sealed and placed in
an environmental chamber whose temperature and pressure may be independently varied. The
relative humidity in the bag will be lowered under which of the following conditions?
a. Pressure is increased
b. Pressure is decreased
c. Temperature is decreased
d. Temperature is decreased and pressure is increased
Answer: B
340. What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required to do during repayment?
a. Pay exactly the same amount of interest each payment
b. Repay the loan over an agreed – upon amount of time
c. Pay exactly the same amount of principal each payment
d. (A) or (C)
Answer: B
341. What work-in-process classified as?
a. An asset
b. A liability
c. An expense
d. A revenue
Answer: A
342. What is the indirect product cost (IPC) spending variance?
a. The difference between the actual IPC and IPC absorbed
b. The difference between the actual IPC and IPC volume adjusted budget
c. The IPC volume adjusted budget (fixed + volume ( variable IPC rate)
d. The IPC volume adjusted minus the total IPC absorbed
Answer: B
343. Firm A uses full absorption costing while B uses variable product costing. How will the
financial statement of these companies differ?
a. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold and therefore a smaller profit
b. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, higher retained earnings
c. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a larger profit
d. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold, no change in inventory value, and no change in
retained earnings.
Answer: B
344. Power may be expressed in units of
a. Ft – lbs
b. BTU/hr
c. HP – hours
d. Kw – hours
Answer: B
345. Which of the following thermodynamics cycles is the most efficient?
a. Carnot
b. Brayton
c. Otto
d. Diesel
Answer: A
346. Which air-standard power cycle do the P – V and T – S diagram on the next page
represent?
a. Otto cycle
b. Reheat cycle
c. Carnot cycle
d. Brayton cycle
Answer: D
347. The _____ of two complex number is found by multiplying each term of the one by
every term of the other
a. Sum
 b. Difference
c. Product
d. Quotient
Answer: C
348. A number which can be expressed as a quotient of two integers (division of zero
excluded) is called
a. Irrational number
b. Rational number
c. Imaginary number
d. Real number
Answer: B
349. A prime number has exactly how many divisors?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: B
350. A prime number is an integer greater than 1 which has
a. 1 as its only positive divisor
b. Itself as its only positive divisor
c. 1 and itself as its only positive divisor
d. 1 and its additive inverse as its only positive divisor
Answer: C
351. An integer which is the product of two integers, both defferent from 1 and -1 is called
a. Prime numbers
b. Composite number
c. Rational number
d. Compound number
Answer: B
352. A composite number has a least _____ divisor
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: C
353. Two natural numbers A and B are ______. If their greatest common divisor is 1.
a. Relative prime
b. Relative composite
c. Equal
d. Reciprocal
Answer: A
354. Numbers used to count the objects or ideas in a given collection
a. Cardinal numbers
b. Irrational numbers
c. Ordinal numbers
d. Numeral numbers
Answer: A
355. Numbers which is used to state the position of individual objects in a sequence
 a. Cardinal numbers
b. Irrational numbers
c. Ordinal numbers
d. Numerals
Answer: C
356. An integer number that is equal to the sum of all its positive divisor except the number
itself is called
a. Amicable number
b. Perfect number
c. Defective number
d. Redundant number
Answer: B
357. An integer the sum of all its possible divisor except the number itself is greater than the
integer is called
a. Abundant number
b. Perfect number
c. Defective number
d. Amicable number
Answer: A
358. An integer the sum of all its possible divisor except the number itself is less than the
integer is called
a. Abundant number
b. Amicable number
c. Friendly number
d. Defective number
Answer: D
359. Equilibrium conditions exist in all EXCEPT which of the following?
a. In reversible process
b. In processes where driving forces are infinitesimals
c. Along ideal frictionless, no dissipative paths where forward and reverse process occur at
equal rates
d. In a steady state flow process
Answer: D
360. Name the process that has no heat transfer.
a. Isentropic
b. Isothermal
c. Quasistatic
d. Reversible
Answer: A
361. Enthalpy of ideal gas is function only of:
a. Internal energy
b. Entropy
c. The product of pressure and specific volume
d. Temperature
Answer: D
362. How the material is purchased price variance defined?
a. (quantity purchased x actual price) – ( quantity purchased x standard price)
b. (quantity issued – standard quantity) (standard price)
 c. (actual price – standard price) (quantity used)
d. (quantity purchased – standard quantity) (actual price)
Answer: A
363. Which of the following does not affect owner’s equity?
a. Dividends paid
b. License to start business
c. Invested capital
d. Expensive to get licensed to start business
Answer: B
364. Companies A and B are identical except for their inventory accounting system. Company
A uses the last-in first-out convention, while company B uses the first-in first-out convention.
How till their financial state differs in an inflationary environment?
a. Company A’s profits will be higher and the book value of their inventory will be higher
than for company B
b. Company A’s profit will be higher and the book value of their inventory will be higher
than for company B
c. Company B’s profits and inventory book value will be higher than for company A
d. Company B’ profits will be higher than A’s, but inventory book value will be lower
Answer: C
365. What is the acid test ration?
a. The ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities
b. The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
c. The ratio of current assets ( exclusive of inventory) to total current liabilities
d. The ratio of gross margin to operating, sales, and administrative expenses
Answer: C
366. Which of the following is not unit of work?
a. N.m
b. Erg
c. Kg.m2/s2
d. Dyne
Answer: D
367. If heat transfer of the previous problem were reversible, and if the turbine operated
isentropically, what is the entropy gained or lost by the low temperature reservoir?
a. Indeterminate
b. 0
c. +0.240 BTU/°R
d. +0.250 BTU/ °R
Answer: C
368. What is the smallest perfect number possible?
a. 1
b. 6
c. 12
d. 8
Answer: B
369. All perfect numbers are
a. even numbers
b. odd numbers
c. prime numbers
 d. composite numbers
Answer: A
370. Two integer numbers are said to be____ if each is the sum of all possible divisors of the
other
a. Perfect numbers
b. Defective numbers
c. Amicable numbers
d. Fermat’s numbers
Answer: C
371. What is the other name for amicable numbers?
a. Compatible numbers
b. Friendly numbers
c. Fermat’s numbers
d. Inconsistent numbers
Answer: B
372. What is the smallest pair of friendly number?
a. 180 and 190
b. 200 and 120
c. 220 and 184
d. 220 and 264
Answer: C
373. Prime numbers that appear in pair and differ by 2 ( eg. 3 and 5, 11 and 13 etc.) are
called
a. Mersenne primes
b. Prime number theorem
c. Twin primes
d. Pseudo primes
Answer: C
374. “Every even integer greater than 2 can be written as the sum of two primes.” This is
known as
a. Fermat’s last theorem
b. Goldbach conjecture
c. Prime number theorem
d. Mersenne primes
Answer: B
375. “Every positive integer greater than 1 is a prime or can be expresses as a unique product
of primes and powers.” this is known as
a. Fundamental theorem of arithmetic
b. Prime number theorem
c. Pseudo prime theorem
d. Mersenne’s theorem
Answer: A
376. “Every sufficient large off number can be expressed as a sum of three prime numbers.”
This is known as
a. Goldbach conjecture
b. Vinogradov’s theorem
c. Pascal’s law
d. Mersenne’s theorem
 Answer: B
377. The term “ratio” comes from Latin verb “ratus” means
a. To divide
b. To estimate
c. To get the mean
d. To make a proportion
Answer: B
378. In the proportion of four quantities, the first and fourth term are referred to as the
a. Means
b. Extremes
c. Denominators
d. Numerators
Answer: B
379. The first term ratio is called
a. Antecedent
b. Consequent
c. Mean
d. Extreme
Answer: A
380. For spontaneously occurring natural process in an isolated system which expression best
express dS?
a. dS =
b. dS = 0
c. dS> 0
d. dS<0
Answer: C
381. Which of the following statements about entropy is FALSE?
a. Entropy of a mixture is greater than that of its components under the same conditions.
b. An irreversible process increase entropy of the universe
c. Entropy has the units of heat capacity
d. Entropy of a crystal at 0°F is zero
Answer: D
382. Work or energy can be a function of all of the following EXCEPT
a. Force and distance
b. Torque and angular rotation
c. Power and time
d. Force and time
Answer: D
383. Energy changes are represented by all EXCEPT which one of the following?
a.   VdP
b. Tds  PdV
c. Tds  VdP
dQrev
d.
T
Answer: D
384. (U + PV) is a quantity called
a. Flow energy
 b. Shaft work
c. Entropy
d. Enthalpy
Answer: D
385. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes,   VdP represents which item?
a. Heat transfer
b. Shaft work
c. Closed system work
d. Flow energy
Answer: B
386. The hydraulic formula CA is used to find the
a. Quantity of discharge through an orifice
b. Velocity of flow in a closed conduit
c. Length of pipe in a closed network
d. Friction factor or a pipe
Answer: A
387. The hydraulic radius of an open-channel section is defined as:
a. The wetted perimeter divided by the cross sectional area
b. The cross sectional area divided by the total perimeter
c. The cross sectional area divided by the wetted perimeter
d. One-fourth the radius of a circle with the same area
Answer: C
388. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for a fluid?
a. It cannot sustain a shear force
b. It cannot sustain a shear force of rest
c. It is a liquid only
d. It has a very regular molecular structure
Answer: B
389. Which of the following is not a basic component of motion of a fluid element?
a. Twist
b. Rotation
c. Angular distortion
d. Volume distortion
Answer: A
390. The second term for ratio is called
a. Antecedent
b. Man
c. Consequent
d. Extreme
Answer: C
391. The ______ is the square root of the product of the extremes
a. Antecedent
b. Consequent
c. Mean proportional
d. Mean
Answer: C
392. If the means of a proportion are equal, their common value is called
 a. Mean
b. Extreme
c. Mean proportional
d. Extreme proportional
Answer: C
393. The theorem that in every arithmetic progression a, a+d, a= 2d,…, where a and d are
relatively prime
a. Fibonacci theorem
b. Gauss theorem
c. Lejeune theorem
d. Dirichlet theorem
Answer: D
394. A statement that one mathematical expression is greater than or less than another is
called
a. Absolute condition
b. Non-absolute condition
c. Inequality
d. Conditional expression
Answer: C
395. In an equality is true for all value of the variable, it is a/an
a. Conditional inequality
b. Equivalent inequality
c. Absolute inequality
d. Non-conditional inequality
Answer: C
396. If the same number is added to both sides of an inequality, the inequality
a. Becomes negative
b. Becomes positive
c. Is reversed
d. Is preserved
Answer: D
397. An inequality is preserved if both sides are multiplied by
a. Zero
b. -1
c. A positive number
d. A negative number
Answer: C
398. An inequality is reversed if both sides are multiplied by
a. Zero
b. -1
c. A positive number
d. A negative number
Answer: D
399. Division of a population or same into two groups based either on measurable variables
(e.g. age under 18, age over 180) or on attributes (e.g. male, female).
a. Decomposition
b. Denomination
c. Deviance
 d. Dichotomy
Answer: D
400. A 3x2 matrix can be multiplied to a
a. 3 x 2 matrix
b. 3 x 3 matrix
c. 2 x 5 matrix
d. Row matrix
Answer: C
401. If there are as many equations as unknowns, the matrix of the coefficient is as
a. Row matrix
b. Column matrix
c. Square matrix
d. Rectangular matrix
Answer: C
402. Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any liquid, real or ideal?
I. Newton’s second law of motion
II. The continuity equation
III. The requirement of uniform velocity distribution
IV. Newton’s law of viscosity
V. The principle of the conservation energy
a. I,II and III
b. I,II and IV
c. I,II and V
d. I,II,III and IV
Answer: C
403. What is the definition of pressure?
area
a.
force
force
b. lim
force0 area

force
c. lim
area0 area

area
d. lim
force0 force

Answer: C
404. For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of proportionality between shear stress
and what other variable?
a. The time derivate of pressure
b. The time derivate of density
c. The spatial derivate of velocity
d. The spatial derivate density
Answer: C
405. In the design of waterways, the “hydraulic jump” is sometimes used for
a. Energy dissipation
b. Elimination of turbulence
c. Prevention of sedimentation
 d. Measurement of flow
Answer: A
406. The rate of laminar water flow in saturated soil can be calculated using:
a. A Moody diagram
b. The Bernoulli equation
c. Darcy’s law
d. The Hazen-Williams formula
Answer: C
407. Surface tension has which of the following properties?
I. It has unit of force per unit length
II. It exist whenever there is a density discontinuity
III. It is strongly affected by pressure
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
Answer: D
408. A leak from faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomenon?
a. Gravity
b. Air resistance
c. Viscosity of fluid
d. Surface tension
Answer: D
409. Equation of state for a single component can be any of the following, EXCEPT:
a. The ideal gas law, Pv=RT
b. The ideal gas law modified by insertion of a compressibility factor, Pv=ZRT
c. Any relationship interrelating 3 or more states
d. A mathematical expression defining a path between states
Answer: D
410. A method of solving, linear equation, with several unknowns, simultaneously using
determinants.
a. Simpson’s rule
b. Cramer’s rule
c. Trapezoidal rule
d. Chain rule
Answer: B
411. Using the Cramer’s rule, the determinant of the coefficient is always the
a. Numerator of a quotient
b. Denominator of a quotient
c. The quotient itself
d. None of the above
Answer: B
412. In any square matrix, when the elements of any two rows are exactly the same (i.e. row
1 = row 2 or row 1 = row 3, or row 2 = row 3…) the determinant is
a. Zero
b. Positive integer
c. Negative integer
 d. Unity
Answer: A
413. When the corresponding elements of two rows of a determinant are proportional, then
the value of the determinants is
a. One
b. Indeterminate
c. Infinite
d. Zero
Answer: D
414. An array of mxn quantities which represent a single number and is composed of
elements in rows and columns is known as
a. Transpose of a matrix
b. Determinant
c. Co-factor of a matrix
d. Matrix
Answer: D
415. When two rows are interchanged in position, the value of determinant will
a. Remain unchanged
b. Be multiplied by -1
c. Become zero
d. Become infinite value
Answer: B
416. If every elements of row (or column) are multiplied by a constant, k, then the value of
determinant is
a. Multiplied by –k
b. Zero
c. One
d. Multiplied by k
Answer: A
417. If two rows of determinant are interchange, the determinant
a. Changes sign
b. Changes sign and value
c. Remain unchanged
d. Becomes the inverse of the former
Answer: A
418. Which of the following cannot be an operation of matrices?
a. Addition
b. Subtraction
c. Multiplication
d. Division
Answer: D
419. An irrational number which is a root of a positive integer of fraction is called
a. Radical
b. Radix
c. Surd
d. Radicand
Answer: C
420. The symbol n b means the principal nth root “n” is called the
a. Radicand
b. Radical
c. Radix
d. Index
Answer: D
421. In the preceding item, “b” is called the
a. Radicand
b. Radical
c. Radix
d. Index
Answer: A
422. The work done by the external force on particle is equal to the _____ of the particle
a. Change in momentum
b. Impulse
c. Change in kinetic energy
d. Change in potential energy
Answer: C
423. The work done by all force except the gravitational force is always equal to the _____ of
the system
a. Total potential energy
b. Total impulse
c. Total mechanical energy
d. Total momentum
Answer: C
424. There is no work done when
a. The force is parallel to the displacement
b. The force is perpendicular to the displacement
c. There is an angle between the force and the displacement
d. All of the above
Answer: B
425. The work done by a force of 1 newton acting through the distance of 1 m is known as
a. Watt
b. Erg
c. Joule
d. Btu
Answer: C
426. The work done in lifting an object of mass “m” to a height “h” is
a. mh
b. mgh
c. mh/g
d. mgh/2
Answer: B
427. Indicate the false statement about work
a. work= force x distance
b. work is a scalar quantity
c. the unit of work in the SI system is joules and erg in the English system
 d. work = power x time
Answer: C
428. The force through gravity does not work on objects that
a. fall to the ground
b. is moved vertically upward
c. is moved parallel to the surface of the earth
d. all of the above
Answer: C
429. The rate of doing work
a. force
b. energy
c. power
d. momentum
Answer: C
430. What is the SI unit of power?
a. Joule
b. Kilowatt-hour
c. Horsepower
d. Watt
Answer: D
431. All are units of power EXCEPT
a. Watt
b. Horsepower
c. Newton-meter/second
d. Joules
Answer: D
432. Joules is an SI unit of
a. Work
b. Inertia
c. Power
d. Momentum
Answer: A
433. Why is it that the power delivered by any machines is always less than the power
supplies to it?
a. Due to its efficiency
b. Due to its speed
c. Due to the presence of the potential energy
d. Due to the presence of friction
Answer: D
434. Which word combination best completes the following sentence?
“Plastic deformation of a single crystal occurs either by ___ or by ___, but ___ is the
more common method.”
a. High pressure; high temperature; high pressure
b. High temperature; high pressure; high temperature
c. Slip; twinning; slip
d. Twinning; slip; twinning
Answer: C
435. Which one of this statement is true and for twinning?
 a. It occurs at a lower shear stress than slip
b. It is the most significant form of plastic deformation
c. It cannot caused by impact of thermal treatment
d. It frequently occurs in hexagonal close-packed structures
Answer: D
436. Which of the following does not produce vacancies, interstitial defects, or impurity
defects in a material?
a. Plastic deformation
b. Slow equilibrium cooling
c. Quenching
d. Irradiation with high energy particles
Answer: B
437. Which of the following are TRUE statements about the modulus of elasticity, E?
a. It is the same as the rapture modulus
b. It is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the linearly elastic region
c. It is the ratio of stress to volumetric strain
d. Its value depends only on the temperature of the material
Answer: B
438. What is the proper relationship between the modulus of elasticity, E, the Poisson ratio,
v, and the bulk modulus of elasticity, K?
a. E  K 1 2v 
b. E  K 1  v 
3K
c. E 
1  2v
d. E  3K 1  2v 
Answer: D
439. If G is the shear modulus, b is the Burgers vectors, and r is half the distance between
particles, what is the local stress, r, required to bend dislocations around a particle?
Gb
a. r
r
b. r  Gbr
br
c. r 
G
Gr
d. r 
b
Answer: A
440. Given that d is the distance between dislocations, and b is the Burgers vector, what is
the expression for the misorientation angle  of a tilt boundary?
d
a. sin  
b
b
b. tan  
d
b
c.  
d
 d
d.  
b
Answer: B
441. In general, what are the effects of cold-working in metal?
a. Increase strength and ductility
b. Increase strength, decrease ductility
c. Decrease strength and ductility
d. Decrease strength, increase ductility
Answer: B
442. The ration between the average and load and total available capacity
a. Load factor
b. Power factor
c. Demand factor
d. Capacity factor
Answer: D
443. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value is
a. Sunk cost
b. Salvage value
c. Fixed cost
d. Resale value
Answer: A
444. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and
entry of all other possible suppliers prevented:
a. Inventory
b. Monopoly
c. Competition
d. Profitability
Answer: B
445. Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the included side of one are equal
respectively to two angles and the included side of the other
a. Theorem
b. Corollary
c. Axiom
d. Postulate
Answer: D
446. The side opposite the right angle of the right triangle
a. Median
b. Apothem
c. Quadrilateral
d. Hypotenuse
Answer: D
447. An instrument for measuring specific density of fluids
a. Hygrometer
b. Flow meter
c. Clinometer
d. Hydrometer
Answer: D
448. Output over input
a. Annuity
b. Efficiency
c. Rate of return
d. Bond
Answer: B
449. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of its base and altitude
a. Corollary
b. Postulate
c. Axiom
d. Theorem
Answer: D
450. A statement of equality between two ratios:
a. Theorem
b. Proportion
c. Valuation
d. Power factor
Answer: B
451. A plane closed curve all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center is
a. Radius
b. Circle
c. Arc
d. Chord
Answer: B
452. Which of the following does cold-working cause?
a. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, an increase in dislocation density, and overall
increase in energy of the metal
b. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in dislocation density, and an
overall decrease in energy of the metal
c. Elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in dislocation density, and an
overall increase in energy of the metal
d. Shortening of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in dislocation density, and an
overall decrease in the energy of the metal
Answer: A
453. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. The amount or percentage of cold work cannot be obtained from information about
change in the area of thickness of a metal
b. The process of applying force to metal at temperature below the temperature of
crystallization in order to plastically deform the metal is called cold-working.
c. Annealing eliminates most of the defects cause by the cold-working of a metal
d. Annealing reduce the hardness of the metal
Answer: A
454. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. There is considerable increase in the hardiness and the strength of cold-worked metal
b. Cold-working a metal significantly reduce its ductility
c. Cold-working cause a slight decrease in the density of electrical conductivity of a metal
d. Cold work decrease the yield point as well as the strength and hardiness of the metal
455. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Hot-working can be regarded as the simultaneous combination of cold-working and
annealing
b. Hot-working increase the density of the metal
c. One of the primary goals of hot-working is to produce a fine-grained product
d. Hot-working causes much strain hardening of the metal
Answer: D
456. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Grain size is of minor importance in considering the properties of polycrystalline
materials
b. Fine-grained materials usually exhibit greater yield stresses than coarse-grained
materials at low temperature
c. At high temperature, grain boundaries become weak and sliding occurs
d. Grain sliding can cause the formation of voids along the boundary
Answer: A
457. Which of the following correctly describes atoms located at grain boundaries?
a. They are subjected to the same type of interatomic force that are presented in the
interior atoms of the crystal
b. They are located primarily in highly strained and distorted position
c. They have a higher free energy than atoms in the undisturbed part of the crystal lattice
d. All of the above are correct
Answer: D
458. What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to crack when subjected to prolonged
sunlight?
a. The vitalization evaporation of plasticizers
b. Repetitive expansion and contraction of the plastic
c. Additional polymerization
d. All of the above
Answer: D
459. The capacity to do a work is called
a. Power
b. Energy
c. Momentum
d. Impulse
Answer: B
460. Kinetic energy equals
a. ½ mass x velocity
b. Mass x velocity
c. Mass x acceleration
d. ½ mass x velocity
Answer: D
461. An energy by virtue of the object’s motion is called
a. Rest energy
b. Potential energy
c. Thermal energy
d. Kinetic energy
Answer: D
462. An energy by the virtue of the object’s position of elevation is called
 a. Rest energy
b. Potential energy
c. Thermal energy
d. Kinetic energy
Answer: B
463. An energy by the virtue of the objects mass is called
a. Rest energy
b. Potential energy
c. Thermal energy
d. Kinetic energy
Answer: A
464. The energy of an object due to its vertical separation from the earths surface
a. Thermal energy
b. Rest energy
c. Gravitational potential energy
d. Elastic potential energy
Answer: C
465. The energy stored in a stretched or compressed elastic material such as a spring is called
a. Thermal energy
b. Elastic potential energy
c. Kinetic energy
d. Elastic kinetic energy
Answer: B
466. The kinetic energy of the atoms and molecules due to their random motion is called
a. Thermal energy
b. Elastic potential energy
c. Rest energy
d. Heat energy
Answer: A
467. The change in gravitational potential energy depends on the _____ of the object
a. Initial and final vertical position
b. Initial and final velocity
c. Path followed in moving between two position
d. All of the above
Answer: A
468. Kinetic means that it is
a. In motion
b. Subjected to a force
c. Is in equilibrium
d. Is subjected to friction
Answer: A
469. What happen to the kinetic energy of the body if its velocity doubled?
a. Doubled
b. Quadruped
c. Tripled
d. Remains the same
Answer: B
470. Thermal energy refers to the random kinetic energy of all _____ in a substance
 a. Atoms
b. Molecules
c. Masses
d. Atoms and molecules
Answer: D
471. The state of thermodynamic systems is always defined by its
a. Absolute temperature
b. Process
c. Properties
d. Temperature and pressure
Answer: C
472. Which of the following describes shear stress and moving fluid?
a. It is proportional to the absolute viscosity
b. It is professional to the viscosity gradient at the point of interest
c. It is no-existent
d. Both A and B
Answer: D
473. If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the
following describes the fluid?
a. It is in viscid
b. it is a Newtonian gas
c. it is perfect gas
d. it is a constant temperature
Answer: B
474. How are lines of constant pressure in a fluid related to the force field?
a. They are parallel to the force field
b. They are perpendicular to the force field
c. They are at 45° angles to the force field
d. They are perpendicular only to the force of gravity
Answer: B
475. Which of the following is the most accurate about the steam line?
a. It is the path of the fluid particle
b. It is a line normal to the velocity vector anywhere
c. It is fixed in space in steady flow
d. It is defined for non-uniform flow only
Answer: C
476. Which of the following describes a steam line?
I. It is a mathematical concept
II. It cannot crossed by the flow
III. It is a line of constant entropy
a. I. only
b. I and II
c. II only
d. I and III
Answer: B
477. Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which og the following?
a. A point function
b. A path function
 c. An inexact function
d. Discontinuous
Answer: A
478. In finding the distance between two points P1 (x1 y1) and P2 (x2 y2), the most direct
procedure is to use:
a. The translation of the axes
b. The slope of the line
c. The Pythagorean Theorem
d. The derivate
Answer: C
479. To cut a right circular cone in such a way as to reveal a parabola, it must be cut
a. Perpendicular to the axis of symmetry
b. At any acute angle to the axis of symmetry
c. At any obtuse angle to the axis of symmetry
d. None of these
Answer: D
480. The symbol is called
a. Radical
b. Radical symbol
c. Index
d. A or B
Answer: D
481. The rules of combining radicals follow the rule for
a. Signed numbers
b. Logarithms
c. Fractional exponents
d. Factoring
Answer: C
482. When a number has a both a positive and negative nth root, the principal nth root is
a. The positive root
b. The negative root
c. Both the positive and negative root
d. None of the above
Answer: A
483. Every positive number has ____ nth root
a. Zero
b. Two
c. Two
d. Three
Answer: B
484. The principal nth root of a negative number is the negative roof if n is
a. Even
b. Odd
c. Positive
d. Negative
Answer: B
485. To eliminate a surd. Multiply it by its
a. Square
 b. Cube
c. Reciprocal
d. Conjugate
Answer: D
486. A radical which is equivalent to a non-terminating and non-repeating decimal.
a. Irrational number
b. Natural number
c. Surd
d. Transcendental number
Answer: C
487. A radical expressing an irrational number is called a
a. Surd
b. Radix
c. Index
d. Complex number
Answer: A
488. A surd which contains at least one rational term
a. Pure surd
b. Mixed surd
c. Binomial surd
d. Conjugate surd
Answer: B
489. A surd that contains no rational number, that is, all its factors or terms are surd,
example:
a. Mixed surd
b. Pure surd
c. Binomial surd
d. Conjugate surd
Answer: B
490. The process of removing surd from a denominator is to
a. Rationalize the denominator
b. Get its multiplicative inverse
c. Invert the divisor to proceed to multiplication
d. Multiply it why its additive inverse
Answer: A
491. A quadratic equation of the form ax2 + c = 0, without the coefficient of the first degree
term is a/an
a. General quadratic equation
b. Pure quadratic equation
c. Quadratic polynomial
d. Incomplete quadratic equation
Answer: B
492. Naperian logarithm have a base of:
a. 3.1416
b. 10
c. 2.171828
d. 2.71828
Answer: D
493. For a give curve f(x,y) = f(x, -y) this means that
a. The curve is unsymmetrical
b. The curve is symmetrical to both axes
c. The curve is symmetrical to the x – axis
d. The curve is symmetrical to the y – axis
Answer: C
494. The expression Is equal to
a.
b. 2!
c. 120
d. 0
Answer: C
495. Under what condition is mass conserved in fluid flow?
a. The fluid is baratropic
b. It is always conserved
c. The flow is isentropic
d. The flow is adiabatic
Answer: B
496. What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?
a. The same as the bulk fluid velocity
b. The velocity of the surface
c. Zero
d. Proportional to the smoothness of the surface
Answer: B
497. Which of the statement is true concerning the following continuity equation?
 u  v   
   0
t x y z
Where:   density
  velocity in xdirection
v  velocity in y direction
  velocity in z direction
a. It is valid only for incompressible flow
b. It is valid only for steady flow
c. It is derived from the principle of conservation of mass
d. It is derived from the principle of conservation of energy
Answer: C
498. What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow system
a. Newton’s first law of motion
b. Newton’s second law of motion
c. The first law of thermodynamics
d. The second law of thermodynamics
Answer: C
499. Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
a. The principle of conservation of mass
b. The principle of conservation of energy
c. The continuity equation
 d. Fourier’s law
Answer: B
500. Which of the following conditions is Bernoulli’s equation valid?
a. The fluid must be incompressible
b. The fluid must be inviscid
c. All points evaluated must be on the same streamline
d. All of the above
Answer: D
501. In the quadratic equation Ax2 Bx+C = 0 when the two roots are multiplied, the result is
a. C/A
b. –B/A
c. –C/A
d. A/C
Answer: A
502. In the quadratic equation Ax2 + Bx + c = 0, when the two roots are added, the result is
a. C/A
b. –B/A
c. –C/A
d. A/C
Answer: B
503. If the discriminant of the quadratic equation is less than zero, the equation has
a. No real root
b. One root only
c. Two real roots
d. None of the above
Answer: A
504. When can we say that the two roots of quadratic equation are equal?
a. The discriminant is greater than 1
b. The discriminant is zero
c. When the coefficient of the second degree term is equal to the coefficient of the first
degree term
d. None of the above
Answer: B
505. What is the discriminant of the quadratic equation Ax2 +Bx +C = 0
a. AC
b. AC
c. AC
d. AC
Answer: B
506. What determines is the nature of the roots of a quadratic equation?
a. Coefficient
b. Discriminant
c. factors
d. all of the above
Answer: B
507. the real roots of the cubic equation are the
a. points of infliction of the graph of the equation
 b. points of intersection on the graph of the equation with x-axis
c. points of intersection of the graph of the equation with the y-axis
d. obtained by using the quadratic formula
Answer: B
508. For a cubic equation if the discriminant is equal to zero, we produce
a. Three equal real roots
b. Three distinct real roots
c. One real root dn two conjugate complex roots
d. Three real roots, which two are equal
Answer: D
509. For a cubic equation, we produce three distinct real roots only if the discriminant is
a. Equal to zero
b. Less than zero
c. Greater than zero
d. Either less than or greater than zero
Answer: B
510. For cubic equation, the discriminant is found to be greater than zero. The roots are
a. One real and two conjugate complex roots
b. Three distinct roots
c. Three real roots, which two are equal
d. None of these
Answer: A
511. A succession of numbers in which one number is designated as first, another as second,
another as third and so on is called
a. Series
b. Arrangement
c. Arrangement
d. Sequence
Answer: D
512. Under certain flow conditions, the expression for the first law of thermodynamics for a
control volume reduces to Bernoulli’s equation:
v12 p1 v2 p
gz1    gz2  2  2
2 p 2 p
Where combination of the following conditions is necessary and sufficient to reduce the first law
for a control volume to Bernoulli’s equation?
I. Steady flow
II. Incompressible
III. No frictional losses of energy
IV. No heat transfer or change in internal energy
a. I and II
b. I,III and IV
c. I and IV
d. I,II,III and IV
Answer: D
513. In statistic, the standard deviation measures
a. A standard distance
b. Central tendency
 c. A normal distance
d. Dispersion
Answer: D
514. If a right circular cone is cute parallel with the axis of symmetry, you would reveal
a. Circle
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
Answer: C
515. If the first derivative of the equation of a curve is a constant, the curve is a
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Hyperbola
d. Straight line
Answer: D
516. What are the units of Reynolds number for pipe flow?
a. m/s
b. ft2 /sec
c. lbm/ft-sec2
d. none of the above
Answer: D
517. Which of the following ratios is correct in providing a physical meaning for the Reynolds
number, RE?
a. Re =
b.
c. Re =
d. Re=
Answer: D
518. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. The Reynolds number is the ration of the viscous force to the inertial force
b. Steady flows do not change with time at any point
c. The Navier-Stroke equation is the equation of motion for viscous Newtonian fluid
d. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same streamline
Answer: A
519. An angle between 90° and 180° has
a. A positive sine and cosine
b. A negative cotangent and cosecant
c. A negative secant and tangent
d. All its trigonometric functions negative
Answer: C
520. What is the latent heat fusion required to turn ice to liquid?
a. 50256 kJ/kg
b. 970 BTU/lbm
c. 334 kJ/kg
d. 168 BTU/Ibm
Answer: C
521. What is the value of the work done for a closed reversible, isometric system?
a. Positive or negative
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. Zero
Answer: D
522. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head and the velocity head remains constant.
This is known as
a. Boyle’s law
b. Torrecellos’ theorem
c. Archimedes principle
d. Bernoulli’s theorem
Answer: D
523. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomenon?
a. Surface tension
b. Air resistance
c. Gravity
d. Viscosity of the fluid
Answer: A
524. Absolute viscosity is essentially endependent of pressure and its primarily dependent on
a. Temperature
b. Density
c. Specific gravity
d. Velocity
Answer: A
525. In describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
a. Illuminance
b. Luminance
c. Luminous intensity
d. Radiance
Answer: A
526. When two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
direction are superimposed
a. Standing waves are produce
b. Constructive interference always result
c. The phase difference is always zero
d. Destructive interference always results
Answer: D
527. Linear momentum, is the product of mass and velocity and this can be expressed also as
a function of
a. Force, acceleration, time
b. Force, velocity, time
c. Force, time
d. Force, displacement
Answer: C
528. The transmission of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation between the
spots of different temperature is called
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Conservation
Answer: A
529. It is the measure of randomness of the molecules of the substance
a. Entropy
b. Enthalpy
c. Internal energy
d. Kinetic energy
Answer: A
530. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound of that substance
one degree Fahrenheit is
a. Specific heat
b. BTU
c. Latent heat
d. Calorie
Answer: B
531. In the design of a reinforce concrete structure tensile strength of the concrete is
normally
a. Assumed to be 1/10 of the 28-day compressive strength
b. Determined by the beam test
c. Neglected
d. Assumed to be 200 psi
Answer: C
532. All of the following groups of plastics are thermoplastic. EXCEPT
a. Polyninylchloride (PVC) and polyvinyl acetate
b. Polyethylene, polypropylene, and polysterene
c. Tetrafluoroethylene (Teflon) and other fluorocarbons
d. Phenolics, melamine and epoxy
Answer: D
533. Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions Fe3+ . Which has the smallest
radius? (assumed all are the same temperature)
a. Fe
b. Fe2+
c. Fe3+
d. They have the same radii
Answer: C
534. Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence (+1), yet with chlorine (CI)
cesium has a coordination number of 8 in CsCI, while sodium has the coordination number of
only 6 in NaCI. What is the main reason for this difference?
a. The atomic weight of Cs is larger than the weight of Na
b. Cs forms covalent bonds in CsCI
c. Cs contains more electrons than Na
d. Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6 chloride ions
Answer: D
535. Which of the following statement is False?
a. Ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that are processed or used at high
temperature
b. Metals are chemical elements that form substance that are opaque, lustrous,and good
conductors of heat and electricity
c. Oxides, carbides, and nitrides are considered to be within the class of materials known
as glasses
d. Most metals are strong, ductile, and malleable, in general they are most heavier than
most other metals
Answer: C
536. Kinematic viscosity may be expressed as:
ft 2
a.
sec
sec 2
b.
ft
slug sec 2
c.
ft
slugs
d.
sec
Answer: A
537. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with pressure and temperature and is defined as a
function of
a. Density and angular deformation rate
b. Density, shear stress and angular deformation rate
c. Density and shear stress
d. Shear stress and angular deformation rate
Answer: D
538. Total energy of a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in a
pipeline is a function of:
a. Pressure and velocity
b. Pressure, density, and velocity
c. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum, and internal energy
d. Pressure density, velocity and height above datum
Answer: C
539. What is the gage use to measure 0.001 to 1 atm pressure?
a. Bourdon
b. Water manometer
c. Mercury manometer
d. Metallic diaphragm
Answer: C
540. One of the types on non-material nuclear radiation is
a. Transmission radiation
b. Walton radiation
c. Gamma radiation
d. Betatron radiation
Answer: C
541. A flower pot falls of a ledge of a 5th floor window, just as it passes the third floor
window; someone accidentally drops a glass of water from the window. Which of the following
is true?
a. The flower pot hits the ground as the same time as the glass
b. The glass hits the ground before the flower pot
c. The flower pot hits the ground first and with a higher speed that the glass
d. The flower pot and the glass hits the ground as the same time
Answer: C
542. Whenever the net force act on a body, it produce an acceleration in the direction of the
resultant force, an acceleration which is directly proportional to the resultant force and
inversely proportional to the mass of the body. This theory is popularly known as
a. Newton’s first law of motion
b. Faraday’s law of force
c. Newton’s second law of motion
d. Hooke’s law
Answer: C
543. Any two points along a streamline in an ideal fluid in a steady state flow, the sum of
pressure, the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume has the
same value. The concept is known as the
a. Pascal’s Theorem
b. Bernoulli’s Energy Theorem
c. Fluid Theorem
d. Hydraulic Theorem
Answer: B
544. Inelastic collision is a collision in which the total kinetic energy after the collision is
_____ before collision
a. Equal to zero
b. Equal
c. Less than
d. Greater than
Answer: C
545. The property by virtue of which a body tends to return to its original size of shape after
deformation and when the deformation forces have been removed.
a. Elasticity
b. Malleability
c. Ductility
d. Plasticity
Answer: A
546. When two waves of the same frequency, speed and the aplitude traveling in opposite
directions superimposed
a. Destructive interference always result
b. Standing waves are produce
c. Constructive interference always result
d. A phase difference is always zero
Answer: A
547. What is the name of the vector that represent the sum of two vectors?
a. Scalar
b. Tensor
 c. Resultant
d. Reaction
Answer: C
548. The standard acceleration due to gravity is
a. 32.2 ft/s2
b. 980 ft/s2
c. 9.81 ft/s2
d. 23.3 ft/s2
Answer: A
549. Ivory soap floats in water because
a. All matter has mass
b. The density of ivory soap is unity
c. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than of water
d. The specific gravity of ivory soap is less than that of water
Answer: D
550. Which of the following is not a viscoelastic material?
a. Plastic
b. Metal
c. Rubber
d. Glass
Answer: B
551. In molecules of the same composition, what is the variations of atomic arrangements
known as?
a. Polymers
b. Isomers
c. Monomers
d. Crystal system
Answer: B
552. Which of the following accurately describes differences between crystalline polymers
and simple crystals?
I. Crystalline polymers are made up of folded chains of atoms unlike simple
crystals
II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the crystallization temperature only in
polymers
III. While a simple crystal may be totally crystallized, a polymer can only reach
partial crystallization
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and III
Answer: D
553. Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have which of the following?
a. Small side groups
b. Only one repeating unit
c. An atactic configuration of side groups
d. Small chain lengths
Answer: C
554. The locus of the elevation to which water will rise in a piezometer tube is termed:
 a. Stagnation pressure
b. The energy gradient
c. The hydraulic gradient
d. Friction head
Answer: C
555. Which of the following statements most nearly approximates conditions in turbulent
flow?
a. Fluid particles move along smooth, straight paths
b. Energy loss varies linearly with velocity
c. Energy loss varies as the square of the velocity
d. Newton’s law of viscosity governs the flow
Answer: C
556. The turbulent flow of a fluid in a pipe, all of the following are true EXCEPT
a. The average velocity will be nearly the same as the pipe center
b. Energy lost due to turbulence and friction varies with kinetic energy
c. Pipe toughness affects the friction factor
d. Reynolds number will be less than 2000
Answer: D
557. In fluid flow, if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual
particles do not cross, the flow is said to be:
a. Laminar
b. Turbulent
c. Critical
d. Dynamic
Answer: A
558. Flow nets are drawn to show all of the following EXCEPT
a. Streamlines space to bound stream tubes of equal volume flow rate
b. Flow are pressure drops in distribution system
c. Paths of particles in 2-and-3dimension flow
d. Equipotential lines perpendicular to streamlines
Answer: B
559. An indicated sum a1 + a2 + a3 + … is called
a. Series
b. Sequence
c. Arrangement
d. Partial sum
Answer: A
560. The repeating decimal 0.333… is a geometric series of a1 = 0.3 and r=
a. 3/10
b. 1/10
c. 10
d. 5
Answer: B
561. A progression whose reciprocal forms an arithmetic progression
a. Arithmetic means
b. Harmonic means
c. Geometric progression
d. Harmonic progression
 Answer: D
562. The number between two geometric forms
a. Means
b. Arithmetic means
c. Geometric means
d. Media
Answer: C
563. The sum of the first n terms of a series is called the nth _____.
a. Sum
b. Sequence
c. Arrangement
d. Partial sum
Answer: D
564. The sum of the terms of an arithmetic progression
a. Arithmetic means
b. Arithmetic sequence
c. Arithmetic series
d. All of the above
Answer: C
565. The harmonic mean between a and b
a. (a + b)/2
b. 2ab/ (a+b)
c. (a+b)/ab
d. ab/(a + b)
Answer: B
566. the arithmetic mean of a and b is
a. (a + b)/2
b. 2ab/ (a+b)
c. (a+b)/ab
d. ab/(a + b)
Answer: A
567. the geometric mean of a and b is
a. (a+b)/2
b. 2(a+b)
c. Ab/(a+b)
d.
Answer: D
568. Are numbers which can be drawn as dots and arranged in square shape (i.e.
1,3,6,10,15,21)
a. Triangular number
b. Square numbers
c. Pentagonal numbers
d. Tetrahedral numbers
Answer: A
569. A figure numbers which can be drawn as dots and arranged in square (i.e. 1,4,9,16,25)
a. Cubic numbers
b. Square numbers
c. Pyramid numbers
 d. Pentagon numbers
Answer: B
570. A sequence 1,5,12,22,35… is known as
a. Oblong numbers
b. Pentagonal numbers
c. Cubic numbers
d. Pyramid numbers
Answer: B
571. The following is a characteristic of all trigonometric fuctions
a. The values of all functions repeat themselves every 45 degrees
b. All functions are units of length or angular measure
c. The graph of all functions are continuous
d. All function are dimensionless units
Answer: D
572. Where does the moody diagram for friction factors for pipe flow come from?
a. Calculations based on potential flow
b. Applying the principle of conservation of mass
c. Experimental results for in viscid fluids
d. Experimental results for viscous fluids
Answer: D
573. What is the friction factor for fully developed flow in a circular pipe where Reynolds
number is 1000?
a. 0.008
b. 0.064
c. 0.08
d. 0.10
Answer: B
574. For pipe flow in laminar flow region, how is the friction factor related to the Reynolds
number?
64
a. f
Re
1
b. f
Re
c. f Re
d. f Re 2
Answer: A
575. Which of the following flow meters measure the average fluid velocity in a pipe rather
than a point of local velocity?
I. Venturi meter
II. Pitot tube
III. Impact tube
IV. Orifice meter
V. Hot wire anemometer
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and IV
d. II and IV
 Answer: C
576. For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through pipes, the average velocity is what
fraction of the maximum velocity in the pipe?
a. 1/8
b. ¼
c. ½
d. ¾
Answer: C
577. Which of the following is not true regarding the Blasius boundary layer solution?
a. It is valid only for potential flow
b. It is valid for laminar flow
c. It is approximately solution
d. It permits one to calculate the skin friction on a flat plate
Answer: A
578. For a system to be equilibrium, the sum of the external force acting on the system must
be
a. Equal to unity
b. Indeterminate
c. A maximum
d. Zero
Answer: D
579. The mass moment of inertia of a cylinder about its central axis perpendicular to circular
cross section is
a. Directly proportional to its radius
b. Independent of its radius
c. Directly proportional to its length
d. Independent of its length
Answer: C
580. A sequence 1,8,27,64,125,216… is known as
a. Pyramid numbers
b. Cubic numbers
c. Tetrahedral numbers
d. Square numbers
Answer: C
581. A sequence 1,4,10,20,35,56… is known as
a. Pyramid numbers
b. Cubic numbers
c. Tetrahedral numbers
d. Square numbers
Answer: C
582. A sequence of number where every term is obtained by adding all the preceeding terms
a square number series such as 1,5,14,30,55,91…
a. Pyramid numbers
b. Tetrahedral numbers
c. Euler’s numbers
d. Triangular numbers
Answer: A
583. A sequence of numbers where the number is equal to the sum of the two preceeding
numbers such as 1,1,2,3,5,8,,13,21… is called
a. Fermat’s number
b. Fibonacci numbers
c. Gaussean numbers
d. Archimedian numbers
Answer: B
584. What is the multiplicative inverse of the integer 5?
a. 1
b. 5
c. -5
d. 1/5
Answer: D
585. What is the additive identity element?
a. 0
b. 1
c. -1
d. Infinity
Answer: A
586. What is the multiplicative identity element?
a. 0
b. 1
c. -1
d. Infinity
Answer: B
587. The number 0 such that 0 + a = a for all a is called the
a. Additive inverse
b. Additive identity
c. Commutative law of addition
d. Associate law of addition
Answer: B
588. The additive inverse of a complex number a+bi is
a. a – bi
b. a + bi
c. –a- bi
d. –a +bi
Answer: C
589. All real numbers have additive inverse, commonly called
a. Reciprocals
b. Opposites
c. Addends
d. Equivalent
Answer: B
590. All numbers except zero have multiplicative ineverse commonly called
a. Equivalents
b. Factors
c. Opposites
d. Reciprocals
 Answer: D
591. The number zero has no
a. Multiplicative inverse
b. Additive inverse
c. Multiplicative identity
d. Additive identity
Answer: A
592. Which of the following properties are intensive properties?
I. Temperature
II. Pressure
III. Composition
IV. Mass
a. I only
b. IV only
c. I and II
d. I,II and III
Answer: D
593. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state
of pure gaseous compound?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Answer: C
594. Which of the following thermodynamic relation is incorrect?
a. TdS = dU- pdV
b. TdS = dH – Vdp
c. U= Q – W
d. H = U –Pv
Answer: D
595. The moment of inertia of a plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the
a. First power
b. Third power
c. Second power
d. Fourth power
Answer:D
596. The vector which represents the sum of a group of force vectors is called
a. Magnitude
b. Sum
c. Resultant
d. Phase angle
Answer: C
597. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Speed
d. Displacement
Answer: C
598. The stress in an elastic material is
a. Inversely proportional to the material’s yield strength
b. Inversely proportional to the force acting
c. Proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon by the force
d. Inversely proportional to the strain
Answer: C
599. The “SLENDERNESS RATIO” of a column is generally defined as the ratio of its
a. Length to its minimum width
b. Unsupported weight to its maximum radius of gyration
c. Length to its moment of inertia
d. Unsupported length to its least radius of gyration
Answer: D
600. The relationship between the extension of a spring and the force required to produce
the extension is
a. F  ma
mv2
b. F
R
c. F  N
d. F  kx
Answer: D
601. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the
a. Modulus of elongation
b. Irreversible range
c. Plastic range
d. Elastic range
Answer: D
602. What is the additive inverse of a +bi?
a. bi
b. –a – bi
c. 1/(a + bi)
d. A – bi
Answer: B
603. What is the multiplicative inverse of a + bi?
a. 0
b. 1
c. –a – bi
d. a/(a2 + b2) – bi/ (a2 + b2)
Answer: D
604. Which of the following is NOT a property of a binomial expansion of ( x + y)n?
a. Power of x is decreasing
b. Power of y is increasing
c. Sum of exponents in each term = n
d. Numbers of terms = n – 1
Answer: D
605. A triangular array numbers forming the coefficient of the expansion of a binomial is
called
a. Egyptian triangle
 b. Golden triangle
c. Pascal’s triangle
d. Bermuda’s triangle
Answer: C
606. The coefficient of the second term of the expansion of (x +y)n is always equal to
a. n
b. n – 1
c. n + 1
d. n/2
Answer: A
607. How is the number in the Pascal’s triangle obtained?
a. By getting the product of two numbers directly above it
b. By getting the sum of the two numbers directly above it
c. By getting the difference of two numbers directly above it
d. By getting the mean of the two numbers directly above it
Answer: B
608. If the sign between the terms of the binomial is negative, its expansion will have sign
which are
a. All positive
b. All negative
c. Alternate starting with positive
d. Alternate starting with negative
Answer: C
609. In the absence of the Pascal’s triangle the coefficient of any term of the binomial
expansion can be obtained by dividing the product of coefficient of the preceding term and
exponent of x of the preceding term by _____ of the preceding term
a. The exponent of y
b. The exponent of y + 1
c. The exponent of y – 1
d. The square root of y
Answer: B
610. The fundamental principle of counting states that id one thing can be done in “m”
different ways and another thing can be done in “n” different ways, then the two things can be
done in _____ different ways
a. m + n
b. m x n
c. m! + n!
d. mn
Answer: B
611. Is the arrangement of the object in the specific order
a. Permutation
b. Combination
c. Probability
d. Any two of the above
Answer: A
612. Is the arrangement of objects regardless of the order they are arranged
a. Permutation
b. Combination
 c. Probability
d. Any two of the above
Answer: B
613. Principal stresses occurs on those planes
a. Where the shearing stress is zero
b. Which are 45 degrees apart
c. Which are shearing stress is a maximum
d. Which are subjected only to tension
Answer: A
614. The ratio of the moment inertia of the cross section of a beam to the section modulus is
a. Equal to the radius gyration
b. Equal to the area of the cross section
c. A measure of distance
d. Multiplied by the bending moment to determine the stress
Answer: C
615. When an air entertainment agent is introduced into a concrete mix
a. The strength will increase
b. The strength will decrease
c. The strength will not be affected
d. The water/ cement ratio must be reduced from 10 – 15%
Answer: B
616. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
a. Tensile stress
b. Shearing stress
c. Comprehensive stress
d. Bending stress
Answer: B
617. Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?
a. h = u +
b. h = u+pV
c. h = u+
d. h = pV+T
Answer: B
618. The deflection of a beam is
a. directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
b. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and length of the beam cube
c. inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
d. inversely proportional to the weight and length
Answer: C
619. The differential of the shear equation is which of the following?
a. Load on the beam
b. Bending moment of the beam
c. Tensile strength of beam
d. Slope of elastic curve
Answer: A
620. A homogeneous round bar of diameter D, length L, and total weight W is hung vertically
from one end. If E is the modulus of elasticity, what is the total elongation of the bar?
 WL
a.
D 2 E
WL
b.
2D 2 E
2WL
c.
D 2 E
2WLE
d.
D 2
Answer: C
621. Which of the following is true for water at reference temperature where enthalpy is
zero?
a. Internal energy is negative
b. Entropy is non-zero
c. Specific volume is zero
d. Vapor pressure is zero
Answer: A
622. The shifting of the entire sequence of elements one or more steps forward to backward
– the first element taking the position of the last, or vice versa whithout changing the order of
the elements in the sequence is called
a. Inversion
b. Cyclic permutation
c. transposition
d. Identical elements
Answer: B
623. The number of elements in the collection being permuted is the _____ of the
permutation
a. Degree
b. Sum
c. Index
d. All of the above
Answer: A
624. The ratio of the successful outcomes over the total possible outcomes is called
a. Combination
b. Permutation
c. Probability
d. Speculation
Answer: C
625. The value of the probability of any outcome will never be equal to nor exceed
a. 0.1
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 1
Answer: D
626. If two events A and B are mutually exclusive events and the probability that A will
happen is Pa and the probability that B will happen is Pb, then the probability that A or B
happen is
a. Pa + Pb
 b. Pa x Pb
c. Pa/Pb
d. Pb/Pa
Answer: A
627. A and B are two independent events. The probability that A can occur is p and that for
both A and B to occur is q. the probability that event B can occur is
a. p + q
b. p – q
c. p/q
d. q/p
Answer: D
628. If the probability of occurrence of a Pa, what is the probability that will nor occur?
a. 1/Pa
b. 1-Pa
c. 1+Pa
d. Pa
Answer: B
629. In statistics, a pictorial description of the probability concepts of independent and
dependent events is called
a. Venn diagram
b. Histogram
c. Frequency polygon
d. Ogive
Answer: A
630. The difference between the highest score and the lowest score in the distribution
a. Deviation
b. Range
c. Median
d. Mode
Answer: B
631. The second power of the standard deviation is called
a. Mode
b. Central tendency
c. Variance
d. Dispersion
Answer: C
632. A graph of cumulative frequency distribution plotted at class marks and connected by
straight lines
a. Histogram
b. Venn diagram
c. Ogive
d. Scattergram
Answer: B
633. A point in the distribution of scores at which 50 percent of the scores fall below and 50
percent of the scores fall above
a. Mode
b. Mean
 c. Median
d. Range
Answer: C
634. In an ideal gas mixture of constituents i and j, what is the mole factor x, equal to?
Ti
a.
Ti  T j
Zj
b.
Zi  Z j
pi
c.
pi  p j
piVi
d.
RT
Answer: C
635. The compressibility factor, z, is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases. How
is the compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (Subscript “c” refers to critical
value)
p
a. z
po
pV
b. z 
RT
T
c. z 
Tc
 T  p 
d. z    c 
 Tc  p 
Answer: B
636. On what plane is the Moillier diagram plotted?
a. P-V
b. P-T
c. H-s
d. S-u
Answer: C
637. How is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?
a. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor
b. The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
c. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor
d. The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid
Answer: C
638. What is the expression for the heat of vaporization?
hg =enthalpy of the saturated vapor
h f =enthalpy of saturated liquid
a. hg
b. hf
 c. hg  h f
hg  h f
2 2
d.
Answer: C
639. A vertically loaded beam, fixed at one end and simply supported at the other is
indeterminate to what degree?
a. First
b. Third
c. Second
d. Fourth
Answer: A
640. A thin walled pressurized vessel consists of a right circular cylinder with flat ends.
Midway between the ends the stress is greatest in what direction?
a. Longitudinal
b. Circumferential
c. Radial
d. At an angle 45° to the longitudinal and circumferential direction
Answer: B
641. During the adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in
entropy?
a. It is always zero
b. It is always less than zero
c. It is always greater than zero
d. It is temperature-dependent
Answer: A
642. A number that occurs most frequent in a group of numbers
a. Median
b. Mode
c. Means
d. Standard deviation
Answer: B
643. The difference between an approximate value of a quantity and its exact value or true
value
a. Relative error
b. Absolute error
c. Mistake
d. Relative error
Answer: B
644. It is the quotient of the absolute error divided by the true value
a. Relative error
b. Relative change
c. Absolute error
d. Mistake
Answer: A
645. Refers to the value which is not exact but might be accurate enough for some specific
considerations
a. Approximate value
b. Absolute value
 c. Relative value
d. Accurate value
Answer: A
646. If the absolute error does not exceed a half unit in the last digit, this digit is usually
referred to as the
a. Significant digit
b. Leading digit
c. Reliable digit
d. Relative digit
Answer: C
647. The most significant digit of the number 0.2015 is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 5
Answer: C
648. The ______ is stated in the magnitude of the absolute or relative error of the
approximated value
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Mistake
d. Error
Answer: B
649. The first non-zero digit from the left of the number
a. Whole number
b. Leading digit
c. Tens digit
d. Units digit
Answer: B
650. It is any one of the digit from 1 to 9 inclusive, and 0 except when it is used to place a
decimal
a. Leading digit
b. Significant digit
c. Decimal number
d. Numerals
Answer: B
651. In algebra, the operation of the root extraction is called
a. Evolution
b. Involution
c. Revolution
d. Indexing
Answer: A
652. The operation of rising the integral power known as
a. Evolution
b. Involution
c. Revolution
d. Indexing
Answer: B
653. Each of two or more numbers which is multiplied together to form a product are called
a. Terms
b. Expressions
c. Dividends
d. Factors
Answer: D
654. For irreversible process, what is true about the total change in entropy of the system or
surroundings
a. dS =
b. dS = 0
c. dS> 0
d. dS< 0
Answer: C
655. For which type of process does the equation dQ = TdS hold?
a. Irreversible
b. Isothermal
c. Reversible
d. Isobaric
Answer: C
656. Which of the following is true for any process?
a. S surroundings  S system  0

b. S surroundings  S system  0

c. S surroundings  S system  0
d. S surroundings  S system  0
Answer: A
657. The bending moment at a section of a beam is derived from the
a. Sum of the moments of all external forces on one side of the section
b. Difference between the moments on one side of the section and the opposite side
c. Sum of the moments of all external forces on both sides of the section
d. Sum of the moments of all external forces between supports
Answer: A
658. The stress concentration factor
a. Is a ratio of the average stress on a section of the allowable stress
b. Cannot be evaluated for brittle materials
c. Is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden change of cross section
d. Is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a cross section to the average stress over
the section
Answer: D
659. Poisson’s Ration is the ratio of the
a. Unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation
b. Unit stress to unit strain
c. Shear strain to comprehensive strain
d. Elastic limit to proportional limit
Answer: A
660. Hooke’s Law for an isotropic homogeneous medium experiencing on-dimensional stress
is
a. Stress = E (strain)
b. Strain = E (stress)
c. (force)(area) =
d.
Answer: A
661. Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most efficient?
a. Carnot
b. Rankine
c. Brayton
d. Combine Brayton-Rankine
Answer: A
662. The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes
are they?
a. All isothermal
b. All adiabatic
c. Two isothermal and two isentropic
d. Two adiabatic and two isentropic
Answer: C
663. What is the temperature difference of the cycle if the entropy difference is S, and the
work done is W?
a. W-
b.
c.
d.
Answer: B
664. When the factor of a product are equal, the product is called a ______ of the repeated
factor
a. Coefficient
b. Identity
c. Power
d. Algebraic sum
Answer: C
665. The relation in which every ordered pair (x,y) has one and only one value of y that
corresponds to the value of x is called
a. Term
b. Coordinated
c. Function
d. Domain
Answer: C
666. Indicate the FALSE statement
a. The objects in a set are called its element
b. Every number is either rational or irrational
c. The additive inverse of number “a” is 1/a
d. The negative of zero is zero
 Answer: C
667. A symbol holding a place for an unspecified constant is called
a. Arbitrary constant
b. Parameter
c. Variable
d. All of the above
Answer: D
668. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about significant figures?
a. All non-zero digits are significant
b. Any zero between non-zero digits are significant
c. Any zero are not needed for placing a decimal point is not significant
d. zeros used for the purpose of placing a decimal point are not significant
Answer: C
669. The sum of any point number and its reciprocal is
a. Always less than two
b. Always equal to two
c. Always greater than two
d. Always equal to the numbers additive inverse
Answer: C
670. What is the absolute value of a number less than one but greater than negative one
rose to exponent infinity?
a. Infinity
b. Zero
c. One
d. Indeterminate
Answer: B
671. If a is an odd number and b is an even number, which of the following expression must
be even?
a. a + b
b. a – b
c. ab
d. a/b
Answer: C
672. In the equation n x m = q, n is called
a. Multiplier
b. Minuend
c. Multiplicand
d. Product
Answer: C
673. Any one of the individual constants of an expressed sum of constant is called
a. Addend
b. Multiple
c. Factor
d. Summation
Answer: A
674. In the equation 5 + 2 = 7, 5 is known as
a. Augend
b. Minuend
 c. Dividend
d. Addend
Answer: A
675. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
a. The function of the length and depth
b. Defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear deformation
c. Equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio
d. Defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia
Answer: B
676. A thin homogeneous metallic plate containing a hole is heated sufficiently to cause
expansion. If the coefficient of surface expansion is linear, the area of the hole will:
a. Increase at twice the rate the area of the metal increase
b. Increase at the same rate as the area of the metal increase
c. Decrease at twice the rate as the area of the metal increase
d. Decrease at the same rate as the area of the metal increase
Answer: B
677. The linear portion of the stress – train diagram of steel is known as the
a. Modulus elasticity
b. Plastic range
c. Irreversible range
d. Elastic range
Answer: D
678. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply supported at both ends and subjected
to a total load W uniformly distributed over its length L is expressed by the formula
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: A
679. In a long column (slenderness ratio > 160) which of the following has the greatest
influence on its tendency to buckle under a compressive load
a. The modulus of elasticity of the material
b. The compressive strength of the material
c. The radius of gyration of the column
d. The length of the column
Answer: D
680. The area of the shear diagram of the beam between any two points on the beam is
equal to the
a. Change in shear between two points
b. Total shear beyond the two points
c. Average moment between the two point
d. Change in moment between the two points
Answer: D
681. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
a. The determination of the capability of a material for being shaped
b. The determination of capacity of material
 c. Stress – strain relationships where stresses are applied in more than one direction
d. The determination of the modulus of toughness
Answer: C
682. Young’s modulus of elasticity for a material can be calculated indirectly from which of
the following properties of the material?
a. Temperature coefficient of expansion and dielectric constant
b. Temperature coefficient of expansion and specific heat
c. Density and velocity of sound in the material
d. Density and inter – atomic spacing in the material
Answer: C
683. A number of the form a + bi with a and b real constant and I is the square root of -1
a. Imaginary number
b. Complex number
c. Radical
d. Compound number
Answer: B
684. The absolute value of a non-zero number is
a. Always zero
b. Always negative
c. Always positive
d. Sometimes zero and sometimes negative
Answer: C
685. A polynomial which is exactly divisible by two or more polynomials is called
a. Least common denominator
b. Common multiple
c. Factors
d. Binomial
Answer: B
686. A polynomial with real coefficient can be factored into real linear factors and irreducible
______ factors.
a. Linear
b. Quadratic
c. Cubic
d. Repeated
Answer: B
687. If the degree of the numerator is one more than the degree of the denominator, the
quotient is a ______ polynomial
a. Linear
b. Quadratic
c. Cubic
d. Quartic
Answer: A
688. Which of the following statement is not true?
a. The sum of even number is even
b. The difference of even number is even
c. The product of even number is even
d. The quotient of even number is even
Answer: D
689. For every law of addition and subtraction, there is a parallel law for multiplication and
division, except division by
a. Negative zero
b. Zero
c. One
d. Positive values
Answer: B
690. Indicate the FALSE statement:
a. The multiplicative identity is 1
b. The product of a positive number and a negative number is negative
c. ab= ba is the associative law form multiplication
d. x2 – y2 = (x + y) (x – y)
Answer: C
691. For any two rational number a/b and c/d, which of the following relations is true?
a. a/b + c/d = ab/cd
b. a/b + cd = (ab + cd)/ ad
c. a/b + c/d = (ad + bc)/ bd
d. ab + cd = ac/bd
Answer: C
692. Two rational numbers a/b and c/d are said to be equal if
a. ad = bc
b. ac = bd
c. ab = cd
d. a + b = c + d
Answer: A
693. Any number divided by infinity equals
a. 0
b. 1
c. Infinity
d. Indeterminate
Answer: A
694. The difference between the starting and the ending inventory valuations , a term that
represent an inventory account adjust is called:
a. Cost of goods sold
b. Perpetual inventory system
c. Physical inventory system
d. Periodic inventory system
Answer: A
695. How the material is purchased price variance defined?
a. (quality issued – std. quantity) (std. price)
b. (actual price – std. price) ( quantity used)
c. (quantity purchased – quantity used) (actual price)
d. (quantity purchased x actual price) – (quantity purchased x std. price)
Answer: D
696. How many significant digits do 10.097 have?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
 d. 5
Answer: D
697. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4th quadrant?
a. Sin B > 0 and cos B < 0
b. Sin B < 0 and cos< 0
c. Sin B > 0 and cos B > 0
d. Sin B < and cos B > 0
Answer: D
698. Modulus of resilience is
a. The same as the modulus of elasticity
b. A measure of a material ability to store strain energy
c. The reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
d. A measure of the deflection of a member
Answer: B
699. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all of the following, except
a. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial atoms
b. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystal (shotky imperfections)
c. Displacement to form mirror images along a low energy boundary or crystal plane
d. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations caused by shear
Answer: B
700. All of the following statements about strain energy are correct, except
a. It is cause by generation and movement of dislocation through shear or plastic
deformation
b. It results from trapped vacancies in the crystal lattice
c. It is proportional length of dislocation, shear modulus, and shortest distance between
equivalent lattice sites (points)
d. It is less for sites at grain boundaries than for internal sites within the crystal structure
Answer: D
701. For a heat engine operating between two temperatures (T2>T1), what is the maximum
efficiency attainable?
T2
a. 1 
T1
T
b. 1  1
T2
T1
c.
T2

T 
d. 1   1 
 T2 
Answer: B
702. The study of the properties of positive integers is known as
a. Number of theory
b. Theory of equation
c. Set theory
d. Arithmetic
 Answer: A
703. Indicate the FALSE statement
a. The quotient of two polynomials is called as rational algebraic expression
b. A3 – b3 = (a + b) (a2- ab + b2)
c. The equation ax + b = 0 has exactly one root
d. The equation 3x2 + 2y2 -3x + 2y = 10
Answer: B
704. A number is said to be in _____ when it is written as the product of a number having the
decimal point just after the leading digit and a power of 10
a. Specific notation
b. Exponential
c. Irrational
d. Logarithm
Answer: A
705. A number which cannot be a root of an integral rational equation is called
a. Transcendental number
b. Euler’s number
c. Irrational number
d. Natural number
Answer: A
706. Refers to the numbers which are not the roots of any algebraic equation
a. Irrational numbers
b. Transcendental numbers
c. Imaginary numbers
d. Composite
Answer: B
707. All numbers multiplied by _____ equals unity
a. Negative of the number
b. One
c. Conjugate
d. Its reciprocal
Answer: D
708. The number denoted as “e” and equal to 2.718… is called the
a. Einstein constant
b. Euler’s number
c. Fibonacci number
d. Fermat’s number
Answer: B
709. A notation that represent the product of all positive integers from 1 to a number, n,
inclusive
a. Factorial
b. Exponent
c. Summation
d. All of the above
Answer: A
710. Simplify
a. n + 1
 b. n – 1
c. (n + 1)!
d. N
Answer: D
711. the factorial symbol (!) was introduced in 1808 by
a. Christian Goldbach
b. Christian Kramp
c. Christian Leatner
d. Robert Hooke
Answer: B
712. The conjuncture that every even ( except 2) equals the sum of two tprime numbers.
a. Golbach conjecture
b. Fibonacci series
c. Number conjecture
d. Fermat’s last theorem
Answer: A
713. Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle, over
an open Rankine cycle?
a. Lower equipment costs
b. Increase efficiency
c. Increase turbine work output
d. Increase boiler life
Answer: D
714. Which of the following statement regarding Rankine cycle is not true?
a. Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle
b. The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid are less
separated than in a Carnot cycle
c. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle
d. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key
limitation on the operating efficiency
Answer: D
715. Which of the following set of reversible process describes an ideal Otto cycle?
I. Adiabatic compression, isometric heat addition, adiabatic expansion, isometric
heat rejection
II. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric
heat rejection
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II in succession
d. II and I in succession
Answer: A
716. All of the following statement about diffusion and grain growth are correct, EXCEPT
a. Vacancies and interstitial atoms affect diffusion, whose net result is movement of atoms
to produce a structure of less strain and of uniform composition
b. Diffusion is irreversible and requires an activation energy; its rate increase exponentially
with temperature. It allows the diffusion equation where flux equals diffusivity times
concentration gradient
 c. Activation energy for diffusion through structures in inversely proportional to atomic
packing factor in the lattice
d. Atoms can diffuse both within crystal and across grain (crystal) boundaries
Answer: C
717. All the following statement about slip is correct, EXCEPT;
a. Slip or shear along crystal planes, results in an irreversible plastic deformation or
permanent set
b. It involves only a few atoms at a time in a series of small dislocation movements
c. Slip planes lie in the direction of the longest distance between neighboring sites in the
crystal lattice
d. Ease of slippage is directly related to number of low energy slip planes existent in the
lattice structure
Answer: C
718. When a metal is cold worked all of the following generally occur; except
a. Recrystallization temperature decrease
b. Ductility decrease
c. Grains become equi-axed
d. Tensile strength increases
Answer: C
719. All of the following statement about strain hardening are correct, EXCEPT
a. Strain hardening strengthen metals, resistance to deformation increase with the
amount of strain present
b. Strain hardening is relieved during softening, annealing above the recrystallization
temperature
c. Strain hardening is produced by cold working (deformation below the recrystallization
temperature)
d. More strain hardening requires more time-temperature exposure for relief
Answer: D
720. A Carnot operates between two reservoirs. One reservoir is at a higher temperature, TH,
and the other is a cooler temperature, Tc. What is the coefficient of performance, COP of the
temperature?
TH
a.
Tc
TC
b. TH 
TH
TC
c. 1
TH
TC
d.
TH  TC
Answer: D
721. All of the following processes strengthen metals, EXCEPT
a. Annealing above the recrystallization temperature
b. Work hardening by mechanical deformation below the recrystallization temperature (
cold working)
c. Heat treatment such as quenching and tempering, for production of a finer
microstructure
 d. Precipitation processes, such as age hardening, which produce high strength by
formation of sub microscopic phases during low temperature heat treatment
Answer: A
722. The valence band model used to explained metallic conduction is based on all of the
following statements, EXCEPT
a. Each valence band may contain up to 2n electrons/n atom, each electron lies at a
discretely different level
b. Fermi energy level, Ef, is essentially temperature independent and is the energy at which
50% of available energy states are supplied
c. A conduction band lies at the next higher set of electronic energy levels above those
occupied at the ground state
d. Conduction occurs when an electron remains in its existent valence band
Answer: D
723. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conducive, with electrons as majority carriers,
when doped with which of the following?
a. Nothing
b. Antimony
c. Boron
d. Germanium
Answer: B
724. Which of the following is the standard temperature and pressure (STP)
a. 0 K and one atmosphere pressure
b. 0 °F and zero pressure
c. 32 °F and zero pressure
d. 0 °C and one atmosphere pressure
Answer: D
725. When the emitter to base of an npn transistor is forward biased, and base to collector is
reverse biased, all of the following are correct EXCEPT
a. Electrons are majority carriers in the n – emitter and n – collector regions
b. Electrons are minority carriers in the p – base region
c. Holes are majority carriers in the p – base region
d. The emitter is positive with respect to the collector
Answer: D
726. All of the following statement about solid solution are correct, EXCEPT
a. Solid solution can result when basic structure of the solvent can accommodate solute
additions
b. In solid solution larger solute atoms occupy the interstitial space between solvent atoms
that are located at the lattice sites
c. Solid solutions may result by substitution of one atomic species for another , provided
radii and electronic structure are compatible
d. Order – disorder transitions that occur at elevated temperature in solid solutions involve
changes due to thermal agitation from preferred orientation to random occupancy of
lattice sites
Answer: B
727. The unending sequence of integers formed according to the rule that each integer is the
sum of the preceding two
a. Fermat’s last theorem
b. Fibonacci numbers
 c. Goldbach conjecture
d. Triangular numbers
Answer: B
728. It was conjecture that the number in the form, Fp= 22+1 will always result to a prime
number, however, provided wrong. What do you call the numbers obtained using the said
formula?
a. Mersene numbers
b. Fermat’s number
c. Euler numbers
d. Pseudo prime
Answer: B
729. A theorem which states that if n > 2, the equation x2 +y2 = zncannot be solved in positive
integers x, y and z
a. Pythagorean theorem
b. Mersenne theorem
c. Goldbach conjecture
d. Fermat’s theorem
Answer: D
730. The number = 3.141592563 … if only four decimal required, it becomes 3.1415. this
process is called
a. Rounding off
b. Truncation
c. Rounding up
d. Rounding down
Answer: B
731. A set of all subsets of a given set, containing the empty set and the original set
a. Empty
b. Null
c. Power set
d. Union
Answer: C
732. A set containing the elements that is common to the original sets.
a. Union
b. Intersection
c. Normal set
d. Subset
Answer: B
733. If an infinite series has a finite sum, it is referred to as a
a. Convergent series
b. Divergent series
c. Geometric series
d. None of the above
Answer: A
734. If an infinite series has no sum, it is referred to as a
a. Convergent series
b. Divergent series
c. Geometric series
d. None of the above
 Answer: B
735. The sum of the factorial infinite 1+1/1!+1/2!+1/3!+1/4!+……..is
a. 
b. e
c. 2
d. 3
Answer: B
736. Refers exclusively to equation with integer solutions.
a. Determinate equations
b. Indeterminate equations
c. Diophantine equations
d. L’hospital’s equations
Answer: C
737. “My Dear Aunt Sally” is the basic rule used in operation of algebra. Which is used in
determining the signs of trigonometric functions in all quadrants?
a. All chemists thick solution
b. All students can think
c. All students take chemistry
d. All teacher can sing
Answer: C
738. The investigation of numbers, space and many generalizations of these concepts
created by the intellectual genius of man
a. Science
b. Arts
c. Mathematics
d. Astronomy
Answer: C
739. QED is often written at the end of the proof to indicate that its conclusion has been
reached. This means
a. Quod eratdaciendum
b. Duos eratdemonstradum
c. Quod eratdecientrandum
d. None of the above
Answer: B
740. A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term is greater than the preceding term
a. Isometric series
b. Divergent series
c. Dissonant series
d. Convergent series
Answer: B
741. The process of reasoning wherein a final conclusion is obtained by experimental method
a. Mathematical deduction
b. Mathematical opposition
c. Mathematical conversion
d. Mathematical induction
Answer: A
742. The set of all subsets of a given set, containing the empty set and the original set
 a. Intersection
b. Power set
c. Proper subset
d. Improper subset
Answer: B
743. A sequence having a defined first and last term is called
a. Infinite sequence
b. Convergent sequence
c. Divergent sequence
d. Finite sequence
Answer: D
744. A series is said to be _____ if it converges when the terms are replaced by their absolute
value
a. Absolute convergent
b. Conditional convergent
c. Infinite convergent
d. Finite convergent
Answer: A
745. A convergent series is said to be _____ if it diverges when the trems are replaces by
their absolute values
a. Absolute convergent
b. Conditional convergent
c. Infinite convergent
d. Finite convergent
Answer: B
746. Refers to the product of the several prime numbers occurring in the denominations,
each taken with its greater multiplicity
a. Least common denominator
b. Least common multiple
c. Least square
d. A or B
Answer: A
747. The sum of the exponents of the several variables of the term is referred to as the ____
of the term
a. Power
b. Degree
c. Partial product
d. Absolute power
Answer: B
748. Venn diagram is a pictorial representation which help us visualize the relation and
operation with sets. This was introduce by
a. John Venn
b. Jan Michael Venn
c. James Venn
d. Stephen Venn
Answer: A
749. A symbol of equality (=) was introduced in 1557 by
a. Bhaskara
 b. Bhramagupta
c. Leonard Euler
d. Robert Recorde
Answer: D
750. In physics, if Lf and Lv are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, repectively, which
of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid?
a. Q = - mLf
b. Q = mlV
c. Q = mLv
d. Q = mLf
Answer: A
751. All of the following statements about ferromagnetism are correct, EXCEPT;
a. Magnetic domains are small volumes existent within a single crystal where atomic
magnetic moments are unidirectional aligned
b. Domains are randomly oriented when unmagnetized. On magtization, domains oriented
with the external field grow at the expense of unaligned domains
c. Impurities, inclusions and strain hardening interfere with change of domain boundaries,
and add to the permanency of a magnet
d. High magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials disappear below the Curie
temperature
Answer: D
752. All of the following statement about steel are correct, EXCEPT
a. Yield strength of commercially available heat treated alloy steel does not exceed 200,
000 psi
b. High temperature alloys used in jet engine turbine blades can withstand 2000
continuously over extended periods
c. Intergranular corrosion of chromium – nickel stainless steel is reduced when stabilized
by addition of columbium (niobium), titanium or tantalum to preferentially form
carbides and prevent chromium depletion and chromium carbide precipitation of
boundaries areas
d. Abrasion resistance of extra strength steels may be obtained by increasing hardiness to
225 – 400 Brinell at the expense of some ductility and toughness
Answer: A
753. Steel can be strengthened by all of the following, EXCEPT
a. Annealing
b. Work hardening
c. Quenching and tempering
d. Grain refinement
Answer: A
754. All of the following statement about the austenite – nartensite – bainite transformation
in steel are correct, EXCEPT;
a. Martensite is a fine grained ferrite, supersaturated with carbon, in a metastable body
centered tetragonal structure. It forms by shear (slippage) during the rapid quench of
face centered cubic austenite ( )
b. Martensite is strong and hard, but brittle, tampering toughens it and reduce brittleness
c. Tempering of maternsite is done by judicious reheating to produce, by diffusion, a fine –
grained tough, strong microstructures
d. Bainite and tempering martensite have distinctively different microstructures
 Answer: D
755. All of the following statements about mechanical failure are true, EXCEPT
a. Brittle fracture occurs with little plastic deformation and relatively small energy
absorption
b. Ductile fracture is characterized by significant amount of energy absorption and plastic
deformation (evidence by elongation and reduction of cross-sectional area)
c. Ductile- brittle transitions in failure mode occur at reduced temperature for most
materials, because fracture strength remains constant with temperature while yield
strength increase as temperature is reduced. At high temperatures yield strength is
least; at low temperatures fracture strength is least
d. Fatigue failure due to cyclic stress frequency dependent.
Answer: D
756. All of the following statement about rusting of iron are correct, EXCEPT;
a. Contact with water, and oxygen are necessary for rusting to occur
b. Contact with a more electropositive metal reduces rusting
c. Halides aggravate rusting, a process which involves electrochemical oxidation- reduction
reactions
d. Pitting occurs in oxygen – rich anodic areas, and the rust is deposited
Answer: D
757. ___ is the quality of being physically elongated
a. Flexible
b. Ductility
c. Malleability
d. Plasticity
Answer: D
758. When the total kinetic energy of system is the same as before and after collision of two
bodies, it is called
a. Plastic collision
b. Inelastic collision
c. Elastic collision
d. Static collision
Answer: C
759. Momentum is a property related to the object’s
a. Motion and mass
b. Mass and acceleration
c. Motion and weight
d. Weight and velocity
Answer: A
760. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
a. Condensation
b. Cold fusion
c. Latent heat of fusion
d. Solid fusion
Answer: C
761. The energy stored in a stretch elastic material such as spring is
a. Mechanical energy
b. Elastic potential energy
c. Internal energy
 d. Kinetic energy
Answer: B
762. According to this law, “the force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them. “
a. Law of universal gravitation
b. Coulomb’s law
c. Newton’s law
d. Inverse square law
Answer: B
763. A free falling body is a body in rectilinear motion with constant _____.
a. Acceleration
b. Speed
c. Deceleration
d. Velocity
Answer: A
764. Centrifugal force _________
a. Directly proportional to the radius of the curvature
b. Directly proportional to the square of the tangential velocity
c. Inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity
d. Directly proportional to the square of the weight of the object
Answer: B
765. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
a. Pascal’s principle
b. Bernoulli’s theorem
c. Ideal fluid principle
d. Archimedes principle
Answer: A
766. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of mass and
a. Acceleration
b. Compressibility
c. Shape elasticity
d. Volume train
Answer: D
767. Momentum is the product of mass and
a. Acceleration
b. Velocity
c. Force
d. Time
Answer: B
768. One horse power is equivalent to
a. 746 watts
b. 7460 watts
c. 74.6 watts
d. 7. 46 watts
Answer: A
769. Which statement about area moments of inertia is FALSE?
2
a. I = (dA)
 b. The area moment of inertia arises whenever the magnitude of the surface force varies
linearly with distance
c. The moment of inertia of a large area is equal to the summation of the inertia of the
smaller areas within the large area
d. The area closest to the axis of the interest are the most significant
Answer: D
770. Which of the following affects most of the electrical and thermal properties of
materials?
a. The atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom
b. The electrons, particularly the outermost ones
c. The magnitude of electrical charge of the protons
d. The weight of the atoms
Answer: B
771. Which of the following is NOT a method of non-distructive testing of steel casting and
forgings?
a. Radiography
b. Magnetic particle
c. Ultrasonic
d. Chemical analysis
Answer: D
772. Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is most directly related to:
a. Sand-gravel
b. Water-cement ratio
c. Aggregate gradation
d. Absolute volume of cement
Answer: B
773. According to the ACI code, the modular ratio, n, of structural concrete with a 28 – day
ultimate compressive strength ,f’c of 3000 is nearest to:
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
Answer: C
774. What are valence electrons?
a. The outer shell electrons
b. Electrons with positive charge
c. The electrons of the complete quantum shells
d. The K- quantum shell electrons
Answer: A
775. What is the strong bond between hydrogen atoms known as?
a. The ionic bond
b. Ionic and metallic bond
c. The metallic bond
d. The covalent bond
Answer: D
776. What are Van der Waals forces?
a. Weak secondary bonds between atoms
b. Forces between electrons and protons
 c. Primary bonds between atoms
d. Forces not present in liquids
Answer: A
777. All of the following statements about air entrained concrete are correct, EXCEPT:
a. Air entrained is recommended when concrete is exposed to severe frost action
b. With air entrainment, the quantity of water to produce a given consistency (slump) is
reduced
c. With air entrainment , the quantity of water to produce a specified 28 day compressive
strength is reduced
d. Air entrainment reduces resistance to the freeze – thaw that occurs when salt is used to
melt ice or snow.
Answer: D
778. A particle is in one – dimensional box of length 2L. What is the energy level of the
ground state?
h2
a.
32mL2
h2
b.
16mL2
h2
c.
8mL2
h2
d.
4mL2
Answer: A
779. Electrons are in a one –dimensional box of length 2L. What is the relationship between
__
EF, the Fermi energy, and E , the average energy?
__
EF
a. E
4
__
EF
b. E 
3
__
EF
c. E 
2
__
d. E  EF
Answer: B
780. A state of energy E1 with a lifetime of  1 decays into the state of energy E2. The state of
E2 when decays with a lifetime if  2 into the state of E3. It is known that  1  2 2 . Initially, all of
the atoms (quantity No)are in the E1 state. Calculate the number of atoms N2 which are in the
state E2 at any constant in time, t.

a. N 0 et /1   e2t /1  
b. N e0
t /1 
e 2t /1 

c. 2 N e 0
t /1 
 e2t /1  
d. 2 N e 0
t /1 
 e2t /1 

 Answer: A
781. Which of the following statement about nuclear fusion is FALSE?
a. A typical fusion reactor releases less energy than a typical fusion reacton
b. Because of the energy required to produce nuclear fusion, it cannot be used by man
c. A typical fusion reaction releases more energy per unit mass than a typican fission
reaction
d. Fusion has advantages over fission because of a greater availability of fuel and a lack of
some of the dangers fission
Answer: B
782. What is the total relativistic energy of a particle if its mass is equal to 1 slug when it is
travelling with a certain speed, v?
a. 1
b. c2-1
c. c2
d. c2 + 1
Answer: C
783. A sequence denotes _____
a. sum
b. permutation
c. combination
d. series
Answer: A
784. A series is defined as the _____
a. sum
b. quotient
c. difference
d. product
Answer: A
785. If the series has an infinite number of terms, then it is ______
a. an infinite
b. a series
c. a finite series
d. a function
Answer: A
786. if the sequence has n terms, then it is _____
a. a finite sequence
b. an infinite sequence
c. a series
d. a function
Answer: A
787. the terms of an arithmetic sequence has a common _____
a. factor
b. difference
c. product
d. quotient
Answer: B
788. The lessening of the value of an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coil, oil, etc.)
 a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Inflation
d. Incremental cost
Answer: B
789. Is the simplest form of a business organization
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Enterprise
d. Corporation
Answer: A
790. An association or two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Enterprise
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer: C
791. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do
a. Sole of proprietorship
b. Enterprise
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer: D
792. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Partner
c. Corporation
d. Enterprise
Answer: C
793. Which is NOT a type of business organization?
a. Sole of proprietorship
b. Corporation
c. Enterprise
d. Partnership
Answer: C
794. What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be
organized?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 7
Answer: B
795. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership
a. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
b. The partnership assets excluding the partners personal assets only will be used to pay
the liabilities
c. The partners personal assets are attached to the dept of the partnership
 d. The partners may sell stock to general additional capital
Answer: C
796. Which is TRUE about partnership?
a. It has a perpetual life
b. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership
c. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another
d. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner
Answer: B
797. Which is true about corporation?
a. It is not a best form of business organization
b. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three
c. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators
d. The stockholders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments
Answer: D
798. Represent ownership, and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. Authorization capital stock
b. Preferred stock
c. Common stock
d. Incorporators stock
Answer: B
799. The center of gravity of an isosceles triagle whose hight is H on the median line
a. 2/3 H from the base
b. 1/3 H from the vertex
c. ¾ H from the vertex
d. 2/3 H from the vertex
Answer: D
800. The standard equation of a straight line y – y1 = m (x – x1)
a. Point-slope form
b. Slope form
c. Slope-intercept form
d. Two-point form
Answer: A
801. Which of the following is most suited in evaluation and comparing alternative with
different lives?
a. ROR method
b. ROI method
c. Present worth method
d. Uniform annual cost method
Answer: D
802. Share of participation in a corporation
a. Partnership
b. Stock
c. Franchise
d. Monopoly
Answer: B
803. A provision in the contracts that indicates the possible adjustment in material cost and
labor cost
Answer: escalatory clause
804. To be responsible and in-charge of the preparation of the plans, design and estimates of
a mechanical plant
a. PME
b. CPM
c. ME
d. CPM, ME, or PME
Answer: A
805. What is the unit of force in SI?
a. Joule
b. Newton
c. Watt
d. Hp
Answer: B
806. Any influence capable of producing a change in the motion of an object
a. Force
b. Vector
c. Velocity
d. Acceleration
Answer: A
807. If the impeller is held constant and the speed varied, the following ratio can be
maintained.
2
H 2  N2 
a.  
H1  N1 
Q1 N 2
b. 
Q2 N1
2
N 2  Q2 
c.  
N1  Q1 
H 2 N2
d. 
H1 N1
Answer: A
808. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called
a. Composition of force
b. Concurrent of force
c. Resolution of force
d. Collinear force
Answer: A
809. An oblique equilateral parallelogram:
a. Square
b. Rectangle
c. Rhombus
d. Trapezoid
Answer: C
810. The locus of elevations to which water will rise in the piezometer tube is termed
Answer: hydraulic gradient
811. Is one whose pressure s higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature
Answer: compressed liquid
812. An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately
a. 4 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 7 years
Answer: C
813. The 72 rule of thumb is used to determine
a. How many year money will triple
b. How many year money will be double
c. How many year to amass 1 million
d. How many years to quadruple the money
Answer: B
814. To triple the principal, one must use
a. Integration
b. Derivatives
c. Logarithms
d. Implicit functions
Answer: C
815. A Currency traded in a foreign exchanges market for which the demand is consistently
high in relation to its supply
a. Money market
b. Hard currency
c. Treasury bill
d. Certificate of deposit
Answer: B
816. Everything a company owns and which has a money value is classified as an asset.
Which of the following is classified as an asset?
a. Intangible assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Trade investments
d. All of these
Answer: D
817. Which an example of an intangible asset?
a. Cash
b. Investment in subsidiary companies
c. Furniture
d. Patents
Answer: D
818. Land, building, plant and machinery are examples of
a. Current assets
b. Trade investment
c. Fixed assets
d. Intangible assets
Answer: C
819. An increase in value of a capital assets is called
 a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock
Answer: B
820. The reduction of money value of a capital assets is called
a. Capital expenditure
b. Capital loss
c. Loss
d. Deficit
Answer: B
821. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. Time deposit
b. Bond
c. Capital gain
d. Certificate of deposit
Answer: D
822. Any particular raw material or primary product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee..) is called
a. Utility
b. Necessity
c. Commodity
d. Stock
Answer: C
823. It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of others. The term
usually applies to floating exchange rates.
a. Currency appreciation
b. Currency devaluation
c. Currency float
d. Currency depreciation
Answer: D
824. Represent the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all other claims have been settled
a. Authorized capital stock
b. Preferred stock
c. Incorporators stock
d. Common stock
Answer: C
825. The amount of the company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation
decided to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. Dividend
b. Return
c. Share stock
d. Par value
Answer: A
826. A certificate of indeptness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years
and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation
a. Bond
b. T – bill
 c. Preferred stock
d. Common stock
Answer: A
827. A form of fixed – interest security issued by central or local government, companies,
banks or other institution. They are usually a form of long-term security, but may irredeemable,
secured or unsecured.
a. Bond
b. T – bills
c. Certificate of deposit
d. All of these
Answer: A
828. A type of bind where the corporation pledges securities which it owns (l,e, stocks, bonds
of its subsidiaries).
a. Mortgage
b. Registered bond
c. Coupon bond
d. Collateral trust bond
Answer: D
829. A type of bond which does not have security except a promise to play by the issuing
corporation
a. Mortgage bond
b. Registered bond
c. Collateral trust bond
d. Debenture bond
Answer: D
830. A type of bond issued jointly by two or more corporations
a. Joint bond
b. Debenture bond
c. Registered bond
d. Collateral bond
Answer: A
831. A type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipments.
a. Equipment’s obligation bond
b. Debenture bond
c. Registered bond
d. Infrastructure bond
Answer: A
832. If the security of the bond is mortgage on certain specified asset of a corporation, this
bond is classified as
a. Registered bond
b. Mortgage bond
c. Coupon bond
d. Joint bond
Answer: B
833. A type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is
paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it
a. Registered bond
b. Preferred bond
 c. Incorporators bond
d. All of these
Answer: A
834. Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such
interest is to be paid
a. Registered bond
b. Coupon bond
c. Mortgage bond
d. Collateral trust bond
Answer: B
835. If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do
not cross, the fluid is said to be
Answer: laminar
836. The temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the
liquid
Answer: boiling point
837. The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in
several complex form is the
Answer: internal energy
838. The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in
a pipeline is a function of
Answer: flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy
839. The volume of fluid passing across-section in steam in unit time is called
Answer: discharge
840. What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible
open steady-state system?
Answer: Q  PdV  H 2  H1
841. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at very instant of its state, it is
undergoing
Answer: quasi-static process
842. What is the process that has no heat transfer?
Answer: adiabatic
843. The critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is
Answer: zero
844. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time is called:
Answer: load factor
845. The hydraulic formula CA is used to find
Answer: quantity of discharge through an orifice
846. A statement of equality between two ratios:
Answer: proportion
847. The side opposite the right angle of the right triangle
Answer: hypotenuse
848. A plane closed curve all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center is
Answer: circle
849. Two triangle are congruent if two angles and the included side of one are equal
respectively to two angles and the included side of the other
 Answer: theorem
850. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of its base and altitude
Answer: theorem
851. The dimension of “acceleration x mass” is the same as that of
Answer: weight
852. Refers to the measure of the fluids internal friction
a. Capillarity
b. Viscosity
c. Surface tension
d. Laminar flow
Answer: B
853. The _____ of a machine equals to the ration between its actual and its theoretical
mechanical advantage.
a. Output
b. Input
c. Efficiency
d. Power
Answer: C
854. Actual mechanical advantage is the ratio between
a. Output force to input force
b. Input distance to output distance
c. Output work to input work
d. Power output to power input
Answer: A
855. Sin A and cos B – cos A and sin B is equivalent to
a. Cos (A - B)
b. Sin (A - B)
c. Tan ( A - B)
d. Cos2 (A - B)
Answer: B
856. The angular distance of a point on the terrestrial sphere from the north pole is called
a. Colatitude
b. Latitude
c. Altitude
d. Codeclination
Answer: A
857. Csc 520 is equal to
a. Cos 20
b. Csc 20
c. Tan 45
d. Sin 20
Answer: B
858. What is the sine of 820 ?
a. 0.984
b. 0.866
c. -0.866
d. -0.5
Answer: A
859. The logarithm of the negative number is
a. Imaginary
b. Irrational
c. Real
d. Rational
Answer: A
860. The sum of the squares in the sine and cosine of an angle
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
Answer: B
861. The logarithm of a number to the base e (2.7182…) is called
a. Napierian logarithm
b. Characteristic
c. Mantissa
d. Briggsian logarithm
Answer: A
862. The characteristic is equal to the exponent of 10, when the number is written in
a. Exponential
b. Scientific notation
c. Logarithmic form
d. Irrational number
Answer: C
863. Napierian logarithms have a base closest to which number?
a. 2.72
b. 2.82
c. 2.92
d. 10
Answer: A
864. The logarithm of 1 to any base is
a. Indeterminate
b. Zero
c. Infinity
d. One
Answer: B
865. Sin (270 ) is equal to
a. – cos
b. Sin
c. – sin
d. Cos
Answer: A
866. The sum of the angles in an octant spheric triangle is
a. 180
b. 270
c. 360
d. 540
Answer: B
867. The median of a triangle is the line connecting the vertex and the midpoint of the
opposite side. For a given triangle, these medians intersects at a point which is called the
a. Orthocenter
b. Circumcenter
c. Centroid
d. Incenter
Answer: C
868. The altitudes of the sides of the triangle intersects at the point known as
a. Orthocenter
b. Circumcenter
c. Incenter
d. Centroid
Answer: A
869. The angle which the line of the sight to the object makes with the horizontal which is
above the eye of the observer is called
a. Angle of depression
b. Angle of elevation
c. Acute angle
d. Bearing
Answer: B
870. Log M – log N is equal to
a. Log MN
b. Log (m - N)
c. Log
d. Log (N - M)
Answer: C
871. The other form of logaN = b is
a. N = ba
b. N = ab
c. N = ab
d. N
Answer: B
872. The pint of concurrency of the altitude of the triangle.
a. Orthocenter
b. Centroid
c. Metacenter
d. Incenter
Answer: A
873. The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of the triangle
a. Orthocenter
b. Circumcenter
c. Centroid
d. Incenter
Answer: B
874. The point of concurrency of the angle bisector of the triangle is called
a. Orthocenter
b. Circumcenter
 c. Centroid
d. Incenter
Answer: D
875. The logarithm of the reciprocal of N is called the _____ of N
a. Antilogarithm
b. Cologarithm
c. Natural logarithm
d. Briggsian logarithm
Answer: B
876. Form of business/ company ownership
a. Partnership
b. Corporation
c. Single proprietor
d. A, b, and c
Answer: D
877. Form of summary of assets and liabilities and net worth
a. Balance method
b. Break-even point
c. Balance sheet
d. Production
Answer: C
878. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the tree end the moment is
a. Constant along the beam
b. Maximum at the wall
c. ¼ maximum halfway out on the beam
d. Maximum at the free end
Answer: B
879. The ideal reversible Carnot cycles involves four basic process. What type of process are
they?
a. All isentropic
b. Two adiabatic and two isentropic
c. All isothermal
d. Two isothermal and two isentropic
Answer: D
880. What is the expression for the heat of vaporization?
hsubg = enthalphy for saturated vapor
hsubf = enthalphy of the saturated liquid
a. hsubf
b. hsubg
c. h2 subg
d. hsubg – hsubf
Answer: D
881. What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow system?
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Newton’s second law of motion
d. Newton’s first law of motion
Answer: A
882. What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors
a. Scalar
b. Tensor
c. Resultant
d. Tangent
Answer: C
883. The worth of a property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation
a. Earning value
b. Scarp value
c. Book value
d. Face value
Answer: C
884. A situation whereby payment is made for work not done. The term also applies to the
case where more workers are used than are a reasonable requirement for efficient operation
a. Check-in-pay
b. Feather bedding
c. Downtime pay
d. Moon lightning
Answer: B
885. Locus on pints on a side which rolls along a fixed line:
a. Cardioid
b. Epicycloid
c. Cycloid
d. Hypocycloid
Answer: C
886. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation:
a. Authorized capital
b. Investment
c. Earning value
d. Money market
Answer: A
887. The inverse function of a logarithm is known as
a. Antilogarithm
b. Cologarithm
c. Antidevarative
d. Antecedent
Answer: A
888. The cologarithm of a number is the _____ of the logarithm of a number
a. Positive
b. Absolute value
c. Negative
d. Reciprocal
Answer: C
889. The first table logarithm with 10 as base was developed in 1615 by
a. James Naismith
b. Henry Briggs
c. John Napier
d. John Walls
 Answer: B
890. Who invented logarithm in 1614
a. John Wallis
b. Henry Briggs
c. John Napier
d. L’Hospital
Answer: C
891. The number logab is called the ______ of the system of a base a with respect to the
system of base b
a. Coefficient
b. Logarithm
c. Modulus
d. Exponent
Answer: B
892. Napierian logarithm has a base of
a.
b. 10
c. 1
d. e
Answer: D
893. log x = _____ in x
a. 0.434
b. 10
c. 2.303
d. e
Answer: A
894. In x = ____ log x
a. 0.434
b. 10
c. 2.303
d. e
Answer: C
895. Which of the following cannot be as base for a logarithm?
a. 10
b.
c. 1
d. e
Answer: C
896. The integral part of a common logarithm is
a. 10
b. e
c. Mantissa
d. Characteristics
Answer: D
897. The mantissa of a logarithm is a
a. Positive value only
b. Negative value only
c. Positive value, negative value or zero
 d. Positive value or zero
Answer: D
898. For 0<x<1, in x is
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Between 0 and 1
Answer: C
899. If 1 < N 10, then
a. 1 < log N < 2
b. 0 < log N<1
c. 2 < log N< 3
d. -1 < log N< 0
Answer: A
900. The economic order quantity (EOQ) is defind as the order quantity which minimize the
inventory cost per unit time. Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic (EOQ) with
no shortages?
a. The demand rate is uniform and constant
b. There is positive cost on each unit inventoried
c. There is an upper bound in the quantity ordered
d. The entire reorder quantity is delivered instantaneously
Answer: C
Note: there is no upper bound on the quantity ordered
EOQ = where: a = constant depletion rate (items per unit)
K = the fixed cost per order, P
H = the inventory storage cost (P per item per unit time)
901. Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both contains 4% carbon. Ductile cast iron, however,
has the higher tensile strength and is considerably more ductile. Which of the following is the
major difference that accounts for the superior properties of the ductile iron?
a. The gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite, whereas the ductile cast iron contains
spheroids of graphite
b. The gray cast iron contains iron carbide whereas the ductile iron contains graphite
c. The graphite particles of the gray cast iron are excessively large
d. The ductile iron is tampered to give better properties
Answer: A
902. When using net present forth calculations to compare two projects, which of the
following could invalidate the calculations?
a. Mutually exclusive projects
b. Evaluation over different time periods
c. Nonconventional cash flows
d. Difference in the magnitude of the projects
Answer: B
903. The loss of weight of a body submerge in a fluid is
a. Proportional to the weight
b. Proportional to the depth of submergence
c. Equal to the weight of the fluid displace
d. Independent of the volume of the body
 Answer: C
904. Two basic classification of pumps are:
a. Reciprocating & rotary
b. Positive displacement & kinetic pumps
c. Centrifugal & turbine pumps
d. Gear pump and ram
Answer: B
905. Hydraulic power is expressed in whp in English unit, in SI it is expressed in
a. Kilowatt hour
b. wkw
c. Water hp
d. 1hp
Answer: B
906. In the design of grit chambers
a. There should be a 5 to 1 ratio of length to depth
b. Baffles are essential
c. The maximum velocity of flow is 1 ft/sec
d. Temperature is an important factor
Answer: C
907. The difference between the starting and the ending inventory valuations, a term that
represent an inventory account adjust is called
a. Cost of goods sold
b. Perpetual inventory system
c. Physical inventory system
d. Periodic inventory system
Answer: A
908. How the material is purchased price variances defined?
a. (quantity issued – std. quantity) (std. price)
b. (actual price – std. price) (quantity used)
c. (quantity purchased – quantity used) (actual price)
d. (quantity purchased x actual price) - (quantity purchased x std. price)
Answer: D
909. To change loga to logbN, multiplied logaN by
a. Logab
b. Logba
c. LogNa
d. LogN b
Answer: B
910. The numbers logab and log b a are
a. Equal
b. Equal but different in signs
c. Reciprocal to each other
d. Negative reciprocal to each other
Answer: C
911. Logarithm using 10 as base
a. Decimal logarithm
b. Scientific logarithm
c. Common logarithm
 d. Natural logarithm
Answer: C
912. The logarithm of a product is the _____ of the logarithms, and the logarithm of a
quotient is the _____ of the logarithms.
a. Sum, difference
b. Difference , sum
c. Quotient, product
d. Product, quotient
Answer: A
913. When a logarithm is expressed as an integer plus a decimal (between 0 and 1), the
integer is called
a. Briggsian logarithm
b. Napierian logarithm
c. Mantissa
d. Characteristics
Answer: D
914. When a characteristic of a logarithm is 3. The number between
a. 1 and 10
b. 10 and 100
c. 100 and 1000
d. 1000 and 10000
Answer: D
915. The characteristic of the common logarithm of a number greater than 1 is
a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. Zero or positive
Answer: D
916. The characteristic is ______ the exponent of 10, when the number is written in scientific
notation
a. Equal to
b. Greater than
c. Less than
d. None of the above
Answer: A
917. If the logarithm to the base 10 (denoted as log10) is called common logarithm is called
natural logarithm, what do you call the logarithm of base 2 (denotes as lb)?
a. Binary logarithm
b. Bit logarithm
c. Bilogarithm
d. All of the above
Answer: A
918. If the unknown is a conditional equation occurs as an exponent, the best way to solve
the unknown is by
a. Raising the power of both sides
b. Extracting the root of both sides
c. Taking the logarithm of both sides
d. Applying the Newton’s method
 Answer: C
919. Angles of rotation with the same initial side and terminal side
a. Terminal angles
b. Conjugate angles
c. Conterminal angle
d. Supplementary angles
Answer: C
920. An angle equal to one revolution is 360
a. Perigon
b. Explement angle
c. Reflex angle
d. Supplement angle
Answer: A
921. Additional information to prospective bidder on contract documents issued prior to
bidding date:
a. Delicts
b. Escalatory clause
c. Technological assessments
d. Bid bulletin
Answer: D
922. Gross profit, sales less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of sales is called
a. ROI ratio
b. Profit margin
c. Gross margin
d. Price earnings
Answer: C
923. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered/ intelligent:
a. Dead person
b. Senior citizens
c. Demented person
d. Minors
Answer: C
924. An index of short term paying ability is called:
a. Receivable turn-over
b. Profit margin rate
c. Current ratio
d. Acid-test ratio
Answer: D
925. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withsand:
a. Yield point
b. Bearing strength
c. Ultimate strength
d. Point of rupture
Answer: B
926. Cost of things that are neither labor or materials:
a. Labor cost
b. Construction cost
c. Investment
 d. Expenses
Answer: D
927. Which of the following statement is false?
a. The addition of small amounts of molybdenum to low-alloy steels makes it possible to
harden and strengthen thick pieces of the metal by the heat treatment
b. Low-alloy steels are a minor group and are rarely used
c. Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated condition
d. Low-alloy steels contain small amount of nickel and chromium
Answer: B
928. 10 to the 12th power is the value of the prefex
a. Micro
b. Femto
c. Tera
d. Atto
Answer: C
929. How many significant digits do 10.097 have?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: D
930. The arithmetic mean of a and b is _____
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: B
931. What expression is equivalent to log [ x/ (y + z) ]
a. Log(x) + log (y) + log (z)
b. Log (x) – log (y + z)
c. Log (y) + log (x + z)
d. Log (x) – log (y) – log (z)
Answer: B
932. The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the horizontal is above the
eye of the observer
a. Angle of depression
b. Angle of elevation
c. Acute angle
d. Bearing
Answer: B
933. The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the horizontal is below the ye
of an observer
a. Angle of depression
b. Angle of elevation
c. Acute angle
d. Bearing
Answer: A
934. A triangle inscribed in a given triangle whose vertices are the feet of the three
perpendiculars to the sides from same point inside, the given triangle.
a. Inscribe triangle
b. Primitive triangle
c. Pedal triangle
d. Obtuse triangle
Answer: C
935. The triangle with minimum perimeter but maximum area inscribed in another is known
as
a. Pedal triangle
b. Euclid’s triangle
c. Primitive triangle
d. None of the above
Answer: A
936. A right triangle whose length of sides may be expressed as ratio of integral units
a. Pedal triangle
b. Isosceles triangle
c. Scalene triangle
d. Primitive triangle
Answer: D
937. A triangle with no equal sides is known as
a. Acute triangle
b. Oblique triangle
c. Equilateral triangle
d. Scalene triangle
Answer: D
938. It two triangles have congruent bases, then the ratio of their areas equals the ratio of
a. Their perimeter’s
b. The length and their altitudes
c. Their sides
d. None of the above
Answer: B
939. In an isosceles right triangle, the hypotenuse is _____ times as long as each of the legs
a.
b.
c. 2
d. 3
Answer: A
940. Which of the following is not a secondary part of a triangle?
a. Altitudes
b. Medians
c. Exterior angles
d. Sides
Answer: D
941. Which of the following is not a property of a triangle?
a. The sum of the three angles is always equal to two right angles
b. The sum of two sides is less than the third side
c. If the two sides are equal, the angles opposite are unequal
 d. The altitudes of the triangle meet in a point
Answer: B
942. Given the sides of a triangle as 3 m and 5 m. the third side is
a. Between 3 m and 8 m
b. Greater than 8 m
c. From 3 m to 7 m
d. From 2 m to 8 m
Answer: C
943. A straight from the vertex of a triangle to the midpoint of the opposite side as
a. Altitude
b. Median
c. Height
d. A or B
Answer: A
944. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4th quadrant?
a. Sin B> 0 and cos B < 0
b. Sin B < 0 and cos B < 0
c. Sin B > 0 and cos B >0
d. Sin B <0 and cos B > 0
Answer: D
945. What conic section is described by the following equation?
4x2 – y2 + 8x + 4y = 15
a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Circle
Answer: C
946. One Joule of work is done by a force of one Newton acting through a distance of
a. One meter
b. One inch
c. A foot
d. One cm
Answer: A
947. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect of times:
a. Power
b. Work
c. Momentum
d. Force
Answer: A
948. In a centrifugal pump, if the impeller is kept the same and the speed varied, the pump
output shall change in accordance to the equation:
a. Q1/Q2 = N2/N1
b. Q1 = Q2
c. Q1 + N1 = Q2 +N2
d. Q2/Q1 = N2/N1
Answer: D
949. In an Imhoff tank:
 a. The effluent contain very little dissolve oxygen
b. There are no settling compartments
c. The sludge and the raw sewage are not mixed
d. The sludge and the fresh sewage are well mixed to give complete digestion
Answer: C
950. What is the acid test ration?
a. The ratio of the owner’s equity to total current liabilities
b. The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
c. The ration of gross margin to operating sales and administrative expenses
d. The ratio of current assets (exclusive inventory) to the total current liabilities
Answer: D
951. What is the formula for a straight – line depreciation rate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: A
952. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets can be converted quickly into cash, such as
accounts receivable and merchandise is called
a. Current assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Total assets
d. Land and buildings
Answer: A
953. A term used to described payment of an employee for time spent on the property of the
employer though not actually working at the job, e.g. time spent changing cloths to get ready for
work or time spent for traveling from the plant entrance to the place of work
a. Portal-to-portal pay
b. Downtime pay
c. Call-in pay
d. Lost time pay
Answer: A
954. Indicate the false statement
a. An altitude of a triangle is a perpendicular drop from any vertex to the opposite side
b. Three or more lines which have one point in common are said to be coplanar
c. The altitude of the triangle meet at the point
d. The locus is a figure containing all the points and only those which fulfill a given
requirement
Answer: B
955. The case of solution of the triangle in the plane where the given data lead to two
solutions
a. Axiom of Euclid
b. Absurb case
c. Ambiguous case
d. All of the above
Answer: C
956. The most proved theorem in mathematics
a. Gauss lemma
b. Fermat’s theorem
c. Ptolemy’s theorem
d. Pythagorean theorem
Answer: D
957. The least proved theorem in mathematics
a. Goldbach conjecture
b. Fermat’s last theorem
c. Mersennes’s proportion
d. Pappus proportions
Answer: B
958. Equation used for checking the solutions to a plane triangle using law of sine’s are as
follows:
= and =
a. Diophantine equations
b. Mohr equations
c. Mollweide’s equations
d. Gauss equations
Answer: C
959. Napier’s rule states that the sine of any middle part is equal to the product of the ____
of the opposite parts
a. Sine
b. Cosine
c. Tangent
d. Secant
Answer: B
960. Napier’s rule states that the sine of any middle part is equal to the product of the ____
of the adjacent parts
a. Sine
b. Cosine
c. Tangent
d. Cotangent
Answer: C
961. How many formulas may be derived from using the Napier’s Rules?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
Answer: D
962. The sum of all interior angles in a spherical triangle is always
a. Greater than 180 but less than 270
b. Greater than 180 but less than 360
c. Greater than 180 but less than 540
d. Greater than 270 but less than 540
Answer: C
963. The maximum value of longitude is
 a. 90
b. 180
c. 45
d. 360
Answer: B
964. The maximum value for a latitude is
a. 90
b. 45
c. 180
d. 360
Answer: A
965. Which of the following method is most suited in evaluating/ comparing alternatives with
different (finite) lives?
a. Rate of return method
b. Present worth method
c. Urgency rating method
d. Uniform annual cost method
Answer: D
966. Those funds that are required to make the enterprise on project a going concern
a. Working capital
b. Accumulated amount
c. Banking
d. Principal or present worth
Answer: A
967. A diagram drawn to help visualize and simplify problem having diverse receipts and
disbursements
a. Budget
b. Investment
c. Year-end-convention
d. Cash-flow
Answer: D
968. The peso amount as earned from investment or project is called
a. ROI
b. Surplus
c. Interest
d. ROR
Answer: A
969. The length of time usually in years, for the cumulative net annual profit to equal the
initial investment is called
a. Receivable turnover
b. Return on investment
c. Price earnings ratio
d. Payback period
Answer: D
970. Modes of extinguishing obligations when auditor abandons his right to collect:
a. Condonation
b. Forfeiture
c. Dept cancellation
 d. Liquidated damages
Answer: A
971. Instead of the profits being paid out to the stockholders or owners as dividends, they
are retained in the business and used to finance expansion. This is called
a. Retained earnings
b. Flow rate
c. Bonds
d. Deposits
Answer: A
972. A thermodynamics system which undergoes a cyclic process during a positive amount of
work is done by the system:
a. Reverse Rankine cycle
b. Heat pump
c. Reversible- irreversible
d. Heat engine
Answer: D
973. The transmission of heat from hot body to cold body by electromagnetic waves is called
a. Conduction
b. Absorption
c. Convection
d. Radiation
Answer: D
974. With regard to corrosion of metals passivation is the process that:
a. Intensifies deterioration temporarily
b. Changes the composition of the metal
c. Inhibits further deterioration
d. Alter the grain size of the metal
Answer: C
975. (u + pv) is quantity called
a. Flow energy
b. Shaft work
c. Enthalpy
d. Internal energy
Answer: C
976. An adiabatic process with no work done is
a. Isometric
b. Throttling
c. Isobaric
d. Polytrophic
Answer: B
977. Another term for gon.
a. Grad
b. Mil
c. Centesimal degree
d. A and C
Answer: D
978. An angle whose vertex is a point on the circle and whose sides are chords is known as
a. Interior angle
 b. Vertical angle
c. Acute angle
d. Inscribed angle
Answer: D
979. An angle greater than the right angle but less than a straight angle
a. Acute angle
b. Obtuse angle
c. Reflex angle
d. Oblique angle
Answer: B
980. Any angle greater than a straight angle but less than two straight angles is known as
_____ angle
a. Complement
b. Supplement
c. Complex
d. Reflex
Answer: D
981. The angle formed by the promulgation of one side and the adjacent side of the polygon
a. Interior angle
b. Acute angle
c. Exterior angle
d. Elementary angle
Answer: C
982. Two angles which have the same vertex and the sides of one are form by extending the
sides one are form by extending the sides of the other
a. Adjacent angles
b. Vertical angles
c. Vertical angles
d. Deflection angles
Answer: C
983. Another term for exterior angle
a. Vertical angle
b. Inscribed angle
c. Reflex angle
d. Deflection angle
Answer: D
984. What is the sum of all deflection angles in given polygon?
a. Always less than 360
b. Always equal to 360
c. Always greater than 360
d. Always equal to 180
Answer: B
985. The conterminal angle is 120
a. 240
b. -240
c. 480
d. -480
Answer: B
986. Two planes intersect each other. What is the term for the angle formed perpendicular
to the intersection of two planes?
a. Solid planes
b. Plane angle
c. Base angle
d. Dihedral angle
Answer: D
987. When a terminal side of an angle coincides with an axis, the angle is a
a. Co-terminal angle
b. Plane angle
c. Quadrantal angle
d. Reflex angle
Answer: C
988. If the exterior angle of a polygon is obtuse, its corresponding interior angle is
a. An acute angle
b. Also an obtuse angle
c. A reflex angle
d. Always greater than 180
Answer: A
989. The measure of 2.25 revolutions counterclockwise is
a. 835
b. 805
c. 810
d. 815
Answer: D
990. Solid angles are measure in
a. Mil
b. Radians
c. Steradians
d. Circular mils
Answer: C
991. What is the largest measure (in steradians) of a solid angle
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d.
Answer: B
992. Steradians measure in space in analog of ____ measure in the plane
a. Radians
b. Degrees
c. Mils
d. Grand’s
Answer: A
993. A part of a circle is called
a. Sector
b. Segment
c. Chord
d. Arc
 Answer: D
994. It is a union of the chord in a circle and the intercepted arc
a. Sector
b. Segment
c. Lune
d. Zone
Answer: B
995. A ____ of a circle in the figure bounded by two radii and the intercepted arc
a. Major arc
b. Minor arc
c. Segment
d. Sector
Answer: D
996. The apothem of a polygon is the _____ of its inscribed circle
a. Radius
b. Circumference
c. Diameter
d. Length
Answer: A
997. As the area of the circle increase, the rato of its circumference to its diameter
a. Increase
b. Remains constant
c. Decrease
d. Will equal to 1
Answer: B
998. A circle is said to be _____ to a polygon having the same perimeter with that of the
circle
a. Congruent
b. Isoperimetric
c. Proportional
d. Convex
Answer: B
999. Which of the following is NOT a property of a circle?
a. Through 3 points not in a straight line, only one circle can be drawn
b. A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of tangency and
conversely
c. An inscribed angle is measure by one half of the intercepted arc.
d. The arcs of two circles subtended by equal central angles are always equal
Answer: D
1000. All circles having the same center but of unequal radii are called
a. Concentric circles
b. Eccentric circles
c. Inner circles
d. Pythagorean circles
Answer: A
1001. The source of power which acts as the prime mover for the generator, with horsepower
ranging from 100 to 5000
a. Steam engine
 b. Motor
c. Gasoline engine
d. Diesel engine
Answer: D
1002. The property of a circuit element to impede current flow
a. Inductance
b. Conductivity
c. Capacitance
d. Resistance
Answer: D
1003. The logarithm of negative number is:
a. Irrational number
b. Imaginary number
c. Real number
d. Complex number
Answer: D
1004. The general second degree equation has the form
Ax2 + Bxy + Cy2 + Dx + Ey + AF = 0 and describes an ellipse if :
2
a. B - 4AC = 0
b. B2 – 4AC = 1
c. B2 – 4AC > 0
d. B2 – 4AC < 0
Answer: D
1005. In general triangles the expression (sinA)/ a = (sin B)/ b = (sin C)/c is called
a. The law of sines
b. Euler’s formula
c. Law of cosines
d. Pythagorean Theorem
Answer: A
1006. An angle more than radian but less than 2 radians is
a. Straight angle
b. Obtuse angle
c. Reflex angle
d. Related angle
Answer: C
1007. What type of curve is generated by a point which moves in uniform circular motion
about an axis while travelling at a constant speed v, parallel to the axis?
a. Spiral of Archimedes
b. Helix
c. Cycloid
d. Hypocycloid
Answer: B
1008. The balance sheet is a statement showing the financial status of the company at any
given time. Which of the statement is not a part of the balance sheet?
a. Liabilities
b. Cost of goods and sold
c. Asset
d. Net worth
 Answer: B
1009. Cash money credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise:
a. Funds
b. Assets
c. Capital
d. Liabilities
Answer: C
1010. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depression:
a. Scrap value
b. Book value
c. Earning value
d. Face value
Answer: B
1011. Intangible assets of a corporation or company
a. Investment
b. Dacion-en-pago
c. Equity
d. Patents
Answer: D
1012. Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes freight and insurance
a. Freight on board
b. Deventures
c. Sunk cost
d. Book value
Answer: D
1013. A polygon with 1000 sides is called
a. Chiliagon
b. Ennagon
c. Perigon
d. Milliagon
Answer: A
1014. The highest point of figure relative to the baeline or plane is called
a. Summit
b. Apex
c. Highest ordinate
d. Terminal point
Answer: A
1015. Indicate the false statement
a. The trapezoid is a quadrilateral two and only two of whose sides are parallel
b. The sum of two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side and their difference is
less than the third side
c. A diagonal of a polygon is a line joining any-non-consecutive vertices
d. Two angles are complementary if their sum is equal to 180
Answer: D
1016. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. All right-angled triangles are similar
b. All isosceles triangles are similar
c. All equilateral triangles are similar
 d. All rectangles are similar
Answer: C
1017. A quadrilateral with no sides parallel
a. Trapezoid
b. Rhombus
c. Rhomboid
d. Trapezium
Answer: D
1018. Which of the following BEST describes Ptolemy’s theorem?
a. It is used only for quadrilaterals
b. It is just a modification of Brahmagupta’s theorem
c. It is used only for cyclic quadrilaterals
d. The sum of the square of the sides is equals to the square of the diagonals of a given
quadrilateral
Answer: C
1019. The five-pointed star described by the diagonals of a regular pentagon
a. Perigon
b. Pentagram
c. Penacle
d. Pentagram or penacle
Answer: D
1020. The geometric figure remaining after the parallelogram has been removed from one
corner of a larger similar polygon
a. Google
b. Gnomon
c. Gaussian plane
d. Lozenge
Answer: B
1021. An oblique- angled parallelogram with four sides equal is called
a. Rhombus
b. Diamond
c. Lozenge
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1022. A non-convex quadrilateral with two pairs of adjacent equal sides is called
a. Trapezium
b. Kite
c. Deltroid
d. Diamond
Answer: C
1023. What is another term for a parallelogram?
a. Rectangle
b. Quadrangle
c. Diamond
d. Rhomboid
Answer: B
1024. This form of ownership is a legal entity possessing many of the legal powers of
individuals. It can hold title to the property, sue and be sued in its own name. it is called
 a. Corporation
b. General partnership
c. company
d. Individual proprietorship
Answer: A
1025. Additional information to prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to
bidding date
a. Technological assessment
b. Delicts
c. Bid bulletin
d. Escalatory clause
Answer: C
1026. A fund into which annual deposits of A are made in order to accumulate fund F at N
years in the future
a. Amortization
b. Depreciation
c. Annuity
d. Sinking fund
Answer: D
1027. A civil wrong committee by one person causing damage to another person or his
property or reputation
a. Tort
b. Material breach
c. Negligence
d. Fraud
Answer: A
1028. Formation of bubbles in law pressure area in a centrifugal pump and later their sudden
collapse is called
a. Corrosion
b. Cavitation
c. Compression
d. Explosion
Answer: B
1029. Momentum = force x _____
a. Velocity2
b. Velocity
c. ½ velocity
d. Time
Answer: D
1030. The impulse and momentum principle is mostly useful for solving problems involving
a. Velocity, acceleration and time
b. Force, acceleration and time
c. Force, velocity and time
d. Force, velocity, and acceleration
Answer: C
1031. The greatest unit pressure the soil continuously withstand
a. Yield point
b. Point of rapture
 c. Bearing strength
d. Ultimate strength
Answer: C
1032. The hardness of steel may be increased by heating to approximately 1500 F and
quenching in oil or water if
a. The carbon content is above 3.0%
b. The carbon content is 0.2% to 2.0%
c. The carbon is below is 0.2%
d. The steel has been not rolled instead of cast
Answer: B
1033. A process of welding materials in a molten or in vaporous state without application of
mechanical pressure or blow, such welding may be accomplished by the oxy-acetylene or by
hydrogen flame or electro arc. It is called
a. Cold welding
b. MIG welding
c. TIG welding
d. Fusion welding
Answer: D
1034. Used as a guide to selecting the most efficient centrifugal pump
a. Specific speed
b. Bernoulli’s equation
c. Impeller type
d. Overall efficiency
Answer: A
1035. For a simple beam supported at each end and which is uniformly loaded
a. The shear at the center of the beam is zero
b. The moment diagram is a straight line
c. The shear at the reaction is a minimum
d. The maximum moment occurs at the reaction
Answer: A
1036. Point A in an irregular shaped rotating body is 3.05m from an instantaneous axis. At the
same instant a point B in the body is to have twice the velocity of A. the distance to B from the
axis is
a. 1.52 cm
b. 6.1 m
c. 305 cm
d. 6.2 m
Answer: B
1037. A jet of water with a velocity of 36.6 m/s strikes a flat plate perpendicular ot its surface.
The force exerted on the plate is 9.1 kg per minute of water are following is
a. 0.568 kg
b. 5.45kg
c. 2.73 kg
d. 9.1 kg
Answer: A
1038. A 45.45 kg block resting on a horizontal plane has a static coefficient of friction of 0.30
and is acted on by a horizontal force of 9.1 kg. frictional resistance under the above condition is
a. 36.36 kg
 b. 2.73 kg
c. 13.64 kg
d. 9.1 kg
Answer: C
1039. A center loaded simple beam 3.05 m long has a reaction at once support of 22.73 kg. the
maximum bending moment is
a. 250 lb.ft
b. 500 lb.ft
c. 2400 lb.ft
d. 1000 lb.ft
Answer: A
1040. The use of carbon in steel
a. Increase the hardness
b. Increase the resistance to shock
c. Increase the ductility
d. Decrease the resistance to fatigue
Answer: A
1041. The loss of weight of the body submerge in a fluid is
a. Proportional to the depth of submergence
b. Equal to the weight of the fluid displacement
c. Independent of the specific gravity of the liquid
d. Proportional to the weight of the body
Answer: B
1042. To comply with the requirement of the Mechanical Engineering Law on the minimum
complement of mechanical engineers, the mechanical plant with a combine prime movers rating
of 373 KW must have in its employ the following:
a. 1PME, 1 RME, and 1CPM
b. 1 PME, 2 RME
c. 1 RME, 2 CPM
d. 1 RME is charge of every shift
Answer: C
1043. Mechanical Plant Engineers (MPE) may be allowed to take the licensure examination
PME if
a. Has 4 years practice as a MPE
b. If he graduated with a BSME degree and has a 4 years of practice as a RME
c. If he has a BSME degree, passed the examinations for RME and has 4 years practice as
RME
d. None of these
Answer: A
1044. The only country that recognizes the mechanical engineering licensure of Filipinos
issued by the Professional Regulation Commission and allowed to use the practice as RME
a. America
b. Canada
c. Japan
d. None of these
Answer: D
1045. If R is the radius of a sphere and E is the spherical excess (in radians), then the area of a
spherical triangle is
 a. R2E
2
b. R E
c. ½ R2E
d. R2/E
Answer: B
1046. One minute of a great circle arc on the surface of the earth is equivalent to
a. 1 statute mile
b. 1 nautical mile
c. 60 statute mile
d. 60 nautical mile
Answer: B
1047. A spherical triangle with all angles equal to the right triangle is called ___ spherical
triangle
a. Birectangular
b. Quandrantal
c. Trirectangular
d. Right
Answer: C
1048. A spherical triangle with at least one side is a quarter of a great circle is called _____
spherical triangle
a. Octant
b. Quadrantal
c. Trirectangular
d. Birectangular
Answer: B
1049. One of the two great circles intersecting at the right angle at the piles and dividing
equinoctial points and ecliptic into 4 parts
a. Nadir
b. Zenith
c. Declination
d. Colure
Answer: D
1050. The radius of the earth used in spherical trigonometry is
a. 3989 statute miles
b. 3979 statute miles
c. 3969 statute miles
d. 3959 statute miles
Answer: D
1051. The difference between a nautical mile and a statute mile
a. 800 feet
b. 900 feet
c. 100 feet
d. 500 feet
Answer: A
1052. Manila has a longitude of 121 05’E. What is the time difference between Manila and
Greenwhich, England which is at prime meridian?
a. 8 hours and 40 minutes
b. 8 hours and 34 minutes
 c. 8 hours and 14 minutes
d. 8 hours and 4 minutes
Answer: D
1053. The earth is divided into how many time zone?
a. 24
b. 18
c. 16
d. 12
Answer: A
1054. In a spherical triangle, two angles (or sides) are on the same species if they are both
a. Between 0 and 180
b. Between 0
c. Between 90 and 180
d. Between 0 and 90 or both between 90
Answer: D
1055. A spherical degree is a unit of a spherical area taken as 1/720 of the surface of the
sphere. How many spherical degrees hemispheres have?
a. 360
b. 720
c. 180
d. 270
Answer: A
1056. Which of the following statement is False about spherical trigonometry?
a. If two angles of a spherical triangle are equal. The sides opposite are equal and
conversely
b. If two angles of a spherical triangle are unequal, and the greater side lies opposite the
greater angle, and conversely
c. The sum of two sides of a spherical triangle is greater than the third sides
d. The sum of all interior angles of a spherical triangles is 360
Answer: D
1057. The sum of the sides of a spherical triangles is always less than
a. 270
b. 360
c. 540
d. 180
Answer: B
1058. The age limit of a horizontal return tubular flue or cylinder boiler having a longitudinal
lap joint and operating at a pressure in excess of 0.345 MPa or 3.45 bar gage shall be
a. 18 years
b. 35 years
c. 30 years
d. 20 years
Answer: C
1059. Which of the process where work done is zero?
a. Isentropic
b. Polytrophic
c. Isometric
d. Isobaric
 Answer: C
1060. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears.
From this information, which of the following can be deduced about this material?
a. It is elastic
b. It has a high modulus of elasticity
c. It is plastic
d. It is ductile
Answer: A
1061. The parabola y = -x2 + x + 1 opens
a. To the right
b. To the left
c. Downward
d. Upward
Answer: C
1062. The equation Ax2 + Bx + Cy2 +Dy + E = 0 is
a. Circle
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Ellipse
Answer: D
1063. One radian is equivalent to
a. 52
b. 45
c. 90
d. 57.3
Answer: D
1064. In a quadratic equation, if the quantity under the radical is equal to “0” the roots are
a. Imaginary
b. Real and unequal
c. Complex and unequal
d. Real and equal
Answer: D
1065. Log to the base 10 of 32 =
a. Log to the base 19 of 8
b. Log to the base 10 of 9
c. Log to the base 10 of 6
d. 2 log to the base 10 of 3
Answer: D
1066. Which of the statements below is not correct?
a. d(en) = en du
b. d(u/v)= (vdu - udv) / v2
c. d(cos u) = sin u du
d. d(sin u) = -cos u du
Answer: D
1067. Tge equation of a straight line is y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the intercept.
If two straight line are perpendicular their slopes are:
a. Negative
b. Negative reciprocals
 c. Positive
d. Equal
Answer: B
1068. The difference between the sum of the absolute dynamic head at the outlet of the
pump and the sum of the absolute dynamic head at the inlet, corrected to the centerline of the
pump is
a. Total dynamic suction lift
b. Net positive suction head
c. Total dynamic head
d. Developed head
Answer: C
1069. The measure of the fluid’s resistance when acted upon by an external force called:
a. Tackiness
b. Density
c. Flash point
d. Viscosity
Answer: D
1070. The sum of any two angles of the spherical triangle is
a. Greater than 180
b. Less than 180o
c. Less than 180 + the third angle
d. Greater than 180 + the third angle
Answer: C
1071. Refers to the angular distance from the equator measured along a meridian
a. Longitude
b. Latitude
c. Meridian
d. Declination
Answer: B
1072. Refers to the angle at either pole between the meridian passing through a point and
some fixed meridian known as the prime meridian
a. Longitude
b. Latitude
c. Declination
d. Equinox
Answer: A
1073. Is half of the great circle terminated by the North Pole and South Pole
a. Longitude
b. Latitude
c. Declination
d. Meridian
Answer: D
1074. when the hypotenuse of the right spherical triangle is less than 90
a. the two angles are on the same quadrant
b. the two legs are on the same quadrant
c. one leg is one the first quadrant and the other on the second quadrant
d. none of the above
Answer: A
1075. when the hypotenuse of the right spherical triangle is greater than 90
a. the two legs are on the same quadrant
b. the two legs are on the different quadrant
c. one leg is one the first quadrant and on the other on the second quadrant
d. none of the above
Answer: C
1076. the point where a ray from the center of the earth through an observers position on it
intersects the celestial sphere is call the observers
a. zenith
b. nadir
c. pole
d. equinox
Answer: A
1077. the point that is diametrically opposite the zenith is called
a. pole
b. equinox
c. nadir
d. celestial meridian
Answer: C
1078. the great circles through the north and south celestial poles are called
a. hour circles
b. celestial meridians
c. elevated poles
d. A and B
Answer: D
1079. An annulus is a plane figure which is composes of two concentric circles. The area of the
annulus can be calculated by getting the difference between the area of the larger circle and the
area of the smaller circle. Also its area can be calculated by removing the hole. This method is
called
a. Law of extremities
b. Law of reduction
c. Law of deduction
d. Sharp theorem
Answer: A
1080. Each of the faces of a regular hexahedron is a
a. Square
b. Triangle
c. Rectangle
d. Hexagon
Answer: A
1081. If an initial of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and to twice its
original temperature, the pressure
a. Doubles
b. Quadruples
c. Remains constant
d. Halves
Answer: B
1082. The increase of enthalpy of a substance when it undergoes some phase change at
constant pressure and temperature
a. Heat of fusion
b. Heat of vaporization
c. Heat of transformation
d. Heat of crystallization
Answer: B
1083. If the anti-freeze at a certain temperature has a concentration of a known value, what
will be its behavior as it progressively cools?
a. It remains a liquid until the temperature drops at a certain point
b. Cooling the solution below the limit liquefies the entire mixture
c. It freezes out most water into ice
d. Its stoppage in cooling will result in water and ice mixture
Answer: A
1084. Dew point is which of the following?
a. Adiabatic saturation temperature
b. Temperature of grains of moisture per lb of bone dry air
c. Temperature of 50% RH
d. Wet bulb temperature
Answer: A
1085. Air used for comfort cooling shall maintain a movement of from
a. 4570 to 7620 mm/ min
b. 7800 to 9200 mm/ min
c. 8500 to 10, 000 mm/min
d. 8.00 to 10.0 m/min
Answer: A
1086. A type of boiler which incorporates furnace water cooling in a circulatory system is
otherwise known as:
a. Integral-grate boiler
b. None of the above
c. Integral-furnace boiler
d. Integral-cogeneration boiler
Answer: C
1087. One of the best known safety practices in industrial plant is:
a. To provide alert security guards
b. To provide machines with appropriate guards
c. To maintain a fire brigade
d. To train delivery personnel
Answer: B
1088. Which of the four does not belong to the group?
a. Class D Fire – fire caused by LPG
b. Class B Fire – fire caused by oil and other hydrocarbons
c. Class C Fire – electrical fire
d. Class A Fire – fire caused by lightning combustible materials like paper and wood
Answer: A
1089. All heavy machinery should be supported on soil foundations of sufficient mass and
base area to prevent or minimize transmission of
a. Objectionable vibration to the building and occupied space
 b. Objectionable vibration of forces from nearby machine
c. Better control of the drainage system
d. Objectionable sound coming from exhaust
Answer: A
1090. On the existing installation boiler, the lowest factor of safety permissible shall be
a. 7
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4.5
Answer: D
1091. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops, which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomenon?
a. Surface tension
b. Viscosity of the fluid
c. Air resistance
d. Gravity
Answer: A
1092. A concrete mixture of 1:3:5 means a mixture of
a. 6 measures of gravel; 1 measure of sand and 3 of cement
b. 1 measure of Portland cement; 3 measure of gravel; 5 of sand
c. 1 measure of cement; 3 measure of sand; 5 measure of gravel
d. 1 measure of cement; 3.5 measure of sand and 5 of gravel
Answer: C
1093. The heat transfer possess in a cooling tower consist of a transfer of heat from water to
a. None of the above
b. Ice
c. Unsaturated air
d. Vapor
Answer: C
1094. A process has a pressure range of 0.001-1 atmosphere. A pressure measuring
instrument to register the pressure at all times, the instrument needed for the jobs is
a. Mercury manometer
b. Metallic diaphragm
c. Water manometer
d. Bourdon pressure gauge
Answer: A
1095. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature one lb of that substance one
degree Fahrenheit
a. BTU
b. Specific heat
c. Latent heat
d. Relative heat
Answer: A
1096. The system refrigeration which uses heat energy to change the condition required in the
refrigeration cycle
a. Absorption refrigeration
b. ICE refrigeration
c. Steam-jet refrigeration
 d. Vapor compression
Answer: A
1097. The temperature of the air that has gone through an adiabatic saturation process
a. Kelvin temperature
b. Boiling temperature
c. Dew point temperature
d. Wet bulb temperature
Answer: D
1098. The study of the properties and behavior of atmospheric air is known as
a. Gas dynamic
b. Thermodynamics
c. Psychometrics
d. Atmospherics
Answer: C
1099. One of the two types of nonmaterial nuclear radiation is
a. Rutherford radiation
b. Betatron radiation
c. Transmutation radiation
d. Gamma radiation
Answer: D
1100. A ton of refrigeration is the amount of cooling produced by one ton of ice (2000 lbs)
melting over a period of 24 hrs. it is equivalent to:
a. 4.76 kW
b. 0.746 kW
c. 3.516 kW
d. 1.341 kW
Answer: C
1101. The stroke whereby burned gases are discharged through the upward movement of the
piston in a valve of an ICE which is open
a. Intake stroke
b. Exhaust stroke
c. Power stroke
d. Compression stroke
Answer: B
1102. In plane geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full circle are called
a. Conterminal arc
b. Conjugate arcs
c. Congruent arcs
d. Half arcs
Answer: B
1103. Polygon are classified according to the number of _____
a. Vertices
b. Sides
c. Diagonals
d. Angles
Answer: B
1104. When to planes intersects with each other, the amount of divergence between the two
planes is expressed by measuring the
 a. Dihedral angles
b. Plane angles
c. Polyhedral angle
d. Reflex angle
Answer: A
1105. An angular unit equivalent to 1/4000 of the circumference of a circle is called
a. Mil
b. Degree
c. Radian
d. Grad
Answer: D
1106. Express 45 in mils
a. 80
b. 800
c. 1600
d. 2700
Answer: B
1107. The arc length equal to the radius of a circle is called
a. Radian
b. Quarter sector
c. Sector
d. Semicircle
Answer: A
1108. A five-pointed star is also known as
a. Pentagon
b. Pentatron
c. Pentagram
d. Quintagram
Answer: C
1109. If two or more lines have a single point which lies on all of them, then they are
a. Collinear
b. Coplanar
c. Concurrent
d. Conjugate
Answer: C
1110. The action of bringing one geometric figure into coincidence with another is called
a. Transposition
b. Translation
c. Superposition
d. Projection
Answer: C
1111. A line that intersect two or more lines at distinct points
a. Tangent line
b. Transversal
c. Bisector
d. Median
Answer: B
1112. An arc length equal to the radius of a circle
 a. Grad
b. Radian
c. Degree
d. Mil
Answer: B
1113. An angle which is 1/400th of full revolution
a. Gon
b. Mil
c. Degree
d. Radian
Answer: A
1114. In the flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes –V dp represent which item below?
a. Enthalpy change
b. Flow energy
c. Shaft work
d. Heat transfer
Answer: C
1115. Worth of property as shown on the accounting records of an enterprise
a. Use value
b. Fair value
c. Market value
d. Book value
Answer: D
1116. Form of business/company ownership
a. Corporation
b. A,b, and c
c. Partnership
d. Single proprietor
Answer: B
1117. Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso of sales that is net income and the
profit margin is equal to
a. ROR
b. Price earnings
c. Net income before taxes/ net sales
d. Net income owner’s equity
Answer: C
1118. Financial statement which compare the revenues of the period with the expense
incurred to gain those revenues
a. Liquidate damages
b. Statements of assets and liabilities
c. Book value
d. Profit and los
Answer: D
1119. Cost of things that are neither labor or material
a. Investment
b. Construction cost
c. Expense
d. Labor cost
 Answer: C
1120. A series of equal payments occurring at equal periods of time
a. Installment
b. Perpetuity
c. Amortization
d. Annuity
Answer: D
1121. Decrease in value of a physical property with passage of time
a. Valuation
b. Depreciation
c. Depletion
d. Interest
Answer: B
1122. When vane control is used for mechanical draft fans and where a wide load range is
required, it is advisable to use a
a. Two-speed-drive motor
b. Four-speed-drive motor
c. Single-speed-drive motor
d. Triple-speed-drive motor
Answer: A
1123. Association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co-
owners or profit
a. Organization
b. Company
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer: C
1124. What is the work-in-process classified as
a. An asset
b. A revenue
c. A liability
d. An expense
Answer: A
1125. If a cost is a function of the independent variable the cost is said to be a
a. Incremental cost
b. Fixed cost
c. Direct cost
d. Variable cost
Answer: D
1126. Which of the following five situation are examples of making mutually exclusive
decisions
I. The maintenance department has requested a new air compressor an either a
large paint booth or additional air compressor
II. The machine shop needs new inspection and locating equipment
III. The steno pool needs either a new, faster word processor or an additional office
assistant
IV. The budget committee must decide among building an employee’s convenience
store, an on-site cafeteria, an enclosed pool, or an in-house exercise room
 V. The newly elected union representative must resign due to a conflict of interest
a. I,II and IV
b. II, III and V
c. I, III, and V
d. I, II and V
Answer: A
1127. A type of ownership in the business where individuals exercise and enjoy rights in their
own interest
a. Equitable
b. Public
c. Private
d. Pure
Answer: C
1128. All proposed installation, additions and alterations involving machinery, mechanical
equipment or processes shall be covered by plans and specifications prepared by or under the
supervision of a
a. Mechanical plant engineer (MPE)
b. Professional mechanical engineer (PME)
c. Registered mechanical engineer (RME)
d. Certified plant mechanic (CPM)
Answer: B
1129. Penal provision of a contact to compensate for the losses incurred by one party due to
the failure to comply with the contract provisions
a. Dacion-en-pago
b. Force majeure
c. Liquidated damages
d. Quasi-delicts
Answer: C
1130. The highest place in the organizational chart of the corporation is always occupied by:
a. Board of directors
b. President
c. Chairman
d. Stock holders
Answer: A
1131. In a business environment, balancing the books means reconciling checkbook and bank
statements and posting all accounting entries is such a way as to maintain the equality of the
basic accounting equation
a. Plant, property and equipment and other assets
b. Assets= current liabilities + owner’s equity
c. Owner’s and stockholders equity and liability
d. Assets = liabilities + owner’s equity
Answer: D
1132. To be binding and enforceable, written contract documents must satisfy the basic
requirements, thus, there must be clear, specific and definite offer with no room, for
misunderstanding; there must be some form of conditional future consideration (i.e. payments);
and
a. There must be a third party
b. There must be an acceptance of the offer
 c. There must be a bond
d. There must be an arbitrator
Answer: B
1133. Which of the following is the basis of Bernoulli’s law of fluid flow?
a. The principle of conservation of energy
b. The principle of conservation of mass
c. The continuity equation
d. Fourier’s law
Answer: A
1134. A straight line where the curve approaches more and more closely but never touches. It
except at a limiting point of infinity
a. Asymptotes
b. Axis of symmetry
c. Tangent
d. Normal
Answer: A
1135. Who coined the word “asymptote”
a. John Venn
b. John Navier
c. Thomas Hobbes
d. John Walls
Answer: C
1136. The path of a point which moves according to a given law of equation
a. Cycloid
b. Asymptote
c. Locus
d. Directrix
Answer: C
1137. The curve traced by a point moving in a plane is showing as the _____ of the point
a. Parameter
b. Pattern
c. Formula
d. Locus
Answer: D
1138. A conic section is curve which is the intersection o
a. two cones
b. a cone and a line
c. a cone and a plane
d. a cone and an axis
Answer: C
1139. When the eclipse approaches a circle as a limiting shape, its eccentricity approaches
a. 0
b. 1
c. -1
d. Infinity
Answer: A
1140. The set of points in a plane, the sum of whose distances form a fixed points is a
constant is
 a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Hyperbola
d. Ellipse
Answer: A
1141. If a right circular cone is cut by a plane parallel to its bas, it would reveal a/an
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: A
1142. A ______to a circle is a line that has exactly one point in common with the circle.
a. Diameter
b. Secant
c. Normal
d. Tangent
Answer: D
1143. A conic section whose eccentricity is always less than 1.
a. Parabola
b. Circle
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: C
1144. A locus of appoint which moves so that the sum of the distances from two fixed points
(foci) is constant and is equal to the length of the major axis.
a. Parabola
b. Circle
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: C
1145. If the distance from the center to the focus of an ellipse is c, from the center to the
vertex is a and from the center to the directrix is D, its eccentricity is
a. D/c
b. D/a
c. c/D
d. c/a
Answer: D
1146. A plane with closed broken line is a
a. Sector
b. Arc
c. Polygon
d. Circle
Answer: C
1147. Provisions in a contract for construction to allow cost adjustments due to changes in
cost of materials and statutory minimum wage:
a. Escalatory clause
b. Specifications
c. General condition
 d. Quasi – delicts
Answer: A
1148. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
a. Depletion cost
b. Discount
c. Interest
d. Overhead cost
Answer: C
1149. Minimum grade of Mechanical Engineer required to supervise operation of a 500 kW
diesel engine
a. RME
b. PME
c. CPM
d. MPE
Answer: A
1150. What is the work process classified as:
a. A revenue
b. A liability
c. An expense
d. An asset
Answer: D
1151. Damages that are specified in the contract to insure that if the contract becomes
disputed the amount of damages are agreed upon in advance.
a. Liquidated damages
b. Nominal damages
c. General damages
d. Special damages
Answer: A
1152. Represents the loss due to mechanical function of the moving parts of the engine
expressed in hp as:
a. Combined
b. Indicated
c. Brake
d. Friction
Answer: D
1153. The study of the properties and behavior of atmospheric air is known as:
a. Gas dynamics
b. Psychrometrics
c. Thermodynamics
d. Atmospheric
Answer: B
1154. The energy that changes the phase of a substance
a. Specific
b. Fusion
c. Latent
d. Sensible
Answer: C
1155. The velocity of an object divided by the velocity of sound called:
 a. Micreslson’s number
b. Planck’s number
c. Velocity factor
d. Mach number
Answer: D
1156. Acid will react with fly – ash in cooler areas of the boiler to form hygroscopic salts.
Which of the following belongs to the group of hygroscopic salts?
a. Hydrogen disulfide
b. Sodium bisulfate
c. Ammonium trisulfate
d. All of these
Answer: B
1157. The purpose of the multi – stage compression is to;
a. Prevent its ignition should the temperature becomes too high
b. Reduce compression work and thus save power
c. Prevent vaporization of the lube oil
d. All of these
Answer: B
1158. A locus of a point which move so that it is always equidistant from a fixed point (focus)
and from a fixed straight line (directrix).
a. Circle
b. Ellipse
c. Parabola
d. Hyperbola
Answer: C
1159. The angle between the tangents at the end points of the latus rectum of a parabola is
a. 45o
b. 75o
c. 75o
d. 90o
Answer: D
1160. The tangents to the parabola at the end points of its latus rectum intersect
a. At a distance equal to the length of the latus rectum from the focus
b. At the vertex
c. At the directrix
d. None of the above
Answer: C
1161. In general equation of a conic section Ax2+Bxy+Cy2+Dx+Ey+F=0, if A and C have different
signs, then the curve is a/an
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: D
1162. If the discriminant of a quadratic equation is greater than zero, the graph is a/an
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
 d. Hyperbola
Answer: D
1163. A chord passing through the focus of a parabola and perpendicular to the axis of
symmetry.
a. Directrix
b. Translated axis
c. Latus rectum
d. Axis
Answer: C
1164. The latus rectum of the parabola x2 = 4ay is
a. a
b. 4a
c. 2
d. 16a2
Answer: B
1165. If a and b are lengths of semi – major and semi – minor axis of an ellipse respectively,
then what is the length of its latus rectum?
a. 2 ab
b. 4 ab
c. 2b2/a
d. 2a2/b
Answer: C
1166. The eccentricity of a regular hyperbola is
a.
b.
c. 2
d. 1.5
Answer: A
1167. A parabola has an eccentricity
a. Equal to 1
b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1
d. Of infinity
Answer: A
1168. The axis of the parabola that passes through the foci, vertices and center is called
a. Conjugate axis
b. Transverse axis
c. Major axis
d. Minor axis
Answer: B
1169. The locus of a moving point in a plane so that the difference of its distance of its
distance from two fixed points (foci) is constant.
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: D
1170. What is the term given to a circle with radius equal to half the transverse axis of the
hyperbola or major axis of an ellipse and its center is the center of the conics?
a. Auxiliary circle
b. Unit circle
c. Inscribed circle
d. Concentric circle
Answer: A
1171. Which of the following is NOT a central conic?
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: B
1172. Confocal conics are conics
a. Having the same foci
b. Whose foci coincide with the origin
c. Having no foci
d. Whose foci coincides with the vertices
Answer: A
1173. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. A confocal ellipse and hyperbola always intersect at right angle.
b. A prime number is not a composite number.
c. A cosecant curve is a periodic function of period 360o
d. A conjecture is an axiom.
Answer: D
1174. If an ellipse and a hyperbola have the same foci, they are said to be
a. Central conics
b. Quartic conics
c. Confocal conics
d. Congruent conics
Answer: C
1175. The parabola y = -x2+x+1 opens
a. To the right
b. To the left
c. Upward
d. Downward
Answer: D
1176. A line segment joining two of its points and passing through a focus of a conic.
a. Latus rectum
b. Focal radius
c. Focal chord
d. Chord contrast
Answer: C
1177. Given the polar equation r = 3/(1+cos ). This is a graph of a/an
a. Ellipse
b. Parabola
c. Circle
d. Hyperbola
 Answer: D
1178. The equation r = 4 cos is a/an
a. Ellipse
b. Circle
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
Answer: B
1179. In polar coordinates system, the distance of any point P from the origin is called
a. Distance
b. Polar angle
c. Polar distance
d. Radius vector
Answer: D
1180. The plane curve traced out by a fixed point on the circle as the circle rolls along a line.
a. Envelope
b. Epicycloid
c. Lemniscate
d. Cycloid
Answer: D
1181. What is the temperature at which water freezes using the Kelvin scale?
a. 373
b. 273
c. 237
d. 406
Answer: B
1182. Following the ASA code for the pressure piping, which pipe is used in power plants for
small control lines, condenser tubes and for tubular water heaters?
a. Copper alloy
b. Cast iron
c. Carbon steel
d. Wrought iron
Answer: C
1183. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of:
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrogen
c. Methane
d. Hydrogen sulfide
Answer: C
1184. Vickers, Knoop and Brinell are all:
a. Hardness test
b. Magnetic const
c. Nobel winners in metallurgy
d. Thermo const
Answer: A
1185. Dichlorodifluoromethane is
a. Freon 22
b. Freon 21
c. Butane
 d. Freon 12
Answer: D
1186. SI system for power:
a. Joule
b. Pascal
c. Newton
d. Watt
Answer: D
1187. In electrical circuits, the potential difference across terminal of circuit elements is called:
a. Voltage
b. Resistance measured in ohms
c. Current measured in amperes
d. Power in watts
Answer: A
1188. A zener diode can be used in a circuit to provide a stable reference for
a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Impedance
d. Resistnce
Answer: B
1189. Basic unit of length of the SI system
a. Meter
b. Decimeter
c. Millimeter
d. Centimeter
Answer: A
1190. In mounting a machine, it should be leveled by driving wedges between the machine
base and concrete foundation and with aid of:
a. A hose and water
b. A tri – square
c. A steel rule
d. A spirit level
Answer: D
1191. Any influence capable of producing a change in the motion of an object is called:
a. Force
b. Vector
c. Acceleration
d. Velocity
Answer: A
1192. In an AC circuit, the opposition to current flow due to combination of resistance and
reactance is called
a. Capacitance
b. Impedance
c. Resistance
d. Inductive reactance
Answer: B
1193. A plane curve traced by a fixed point on a circle as it rolls along outside of a fixed circle.
a. Epicycloid
 b. Hypocycloid
c. Cycloid
d. Envelope
Answer: A
1194. A plane curve traced by a fixed point on a circle as it rolls along inside of a fixed circle.
a. Epicycloid
b. Hypocycloid
c. Cycloid
d. Envelope
Answer: B
1195. The equation x3+y3-3axy = 0 represents a
a. Cardioid
b. Leminiscate
c. Folium of Descartes
d. Strophoid
Answer: C
1196. Continuous curve traced by a point moving around fixed point in same plane are steadily
increasing or decreasing distance.
a. Spiral
b. Helix
c. Leminiscate
d. Limacon
Answer: A
1197. Curve which is locus of centers of curvature of another curve envelope of all its normal.
a. Helix
b. Evolute
c. Spiral
d. Cardioid
Answer: B
1198. Locus of the ultimate intersections or curves in a system of curves.
a. Evolute
b. Pencil
c. Envelope
d. Helix
Answer: C
1199. Curve formed by uniform chain hanging freely from two points.
a. Trisectrix
b. Parabola
c. Hyperbola
d. Catenary
Answer: D
1200. The locus of a point such that its radius vector is proportional to its vectorial angle.
a. Folium of Descartes
b. Spiral of Archimedes
c. Spiral of Pythagoras
d. Helix
Answer: B
1201. The graph of the equation r = a cos2 is a
 a. Limacon
b. Lemniscate
c. Rosette
d. Spiral
Answer: C
1202. The locus of a point which rolls on a straight line (x-axis).
a. Cycloid
b. Epicycloid
c. Astroid
d. Trochoid
Answer: D
1203. The equation r = a(1+cos ) is a polar equation of
a. hypocycloid
b. cycloid
c. cardioid
d. spiral
Answer: C
1204. The equation r2 = a2cos is a
a. Rosette
b. Limacon
c. Lemniscate
d. Spiral
Answer: C
1205. The equation r = acos is a
a. Rosette
b. Limacon
c. Lemniscate
d. Spiral
Answer: A
1206. The equation r  a is a
a. Rosette
b. Limacon
c. Lemniscate
d. Spiral
Answer: D
1207. The equation r  a cos   b is a
a. Rosetter
b. Limacon
c. Lemniscate
d. Spiral
Answer: B
1208. The equation r  a(sec  tan ) is a
a. Rosetter
b. Strophoid
c. Trisectrix
d. Lemniscate
Answer: B
1209. The equation r  a(4 cos   sec ) is a
a. Cardioid
b. Trisectrix
c. Strophoid
d. Fishmouth
Answer: B
1210.  
2
The equation x 2  2ay  a 2  y 2 a 2  x 2 is a  
a. Rosette
b. Cocked hat
c. Fishmouth
d. Spiral
Answer: B
1211. The equation x 2  y 2  a 2 is a
a. Cocked hat
b. Fishmouth
c. Trisectrix
d. Lames quartic
Answer: D
1212. The equation ax 2  y 2 2a  y  is the equation of
a. The top
b. Cocked hat
c. Fishmouth
d. Lames quartic
Answer: A

1213. The equation

x 2
 y2 
2
 ax 2 y
is an equation of

a. Bifolium
b. Cocked hat
c. Spiral
d. Limacon
Answer: A
1214.  
2
3
The equation y 2  x 2  1 2  x 2 is an equation of
a. Cocked hat
b. Fishmouth
c. Spiral
d. Lemniscate
Answer: C
1215. A curve or surface that is tangential to each of the family of curves or surfaces.
a. Envelope
b. Pencil
c. Family
d. Cusp
Answer: A
1216. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are equal polygons in parallel planes and the other
faces are parallelograms.
 a. Tetrahedron
b. Prism
c. Frustum
d. Prismatoid
Answer: B
1217. The apothem of a polygon is ____of its inscribed circle.
a. Radius
b. Circumference
c. Diameter
d. Length
Answer: A
1218. Each angle of regular dodecagon is equal to
a. 135
b. 150
c. 125
d. 105
Answer: B
1219. The area bounded by two concentric circles is called
a. Ring
b. Disk
c. Annulus
d. Sector
Answer: C
1220. One – fourth of a great circle is called
a. Cone
b. Sector
c. Quadrant
d. Arc
Answer: C
1221. Points that lie on the same plane are called
a. Coplanar
b. Parallel
c. Collinear
d. Oblique
Answer: A
1222. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of its base and altitude.
a. Axiom
b. Postulate
c. Theorem
d. Corollary
Answer: C
1223. The study of properties of figures in three dimensions
a. Physics
b. Plane trigonometry
c. Solid geometry
d. Trigonometry
Answer: C
1224. A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center.
a. Polyhedron
b. Polygon
c. Circle
d. Ellipse
Answer: C
1225. What is the angle of and less than 2 ?
a. Straight line
b. Obtuse angle
c. Oblique angle
d. Acute angle
Answer: C
1226. What is the value in degrees of 1 radian?
a. 90
b. 57.3
c. 60
d. 33
Answer: B
1227. Prisms are named according to their _____.
a. Diagonals
b. Sides
c. Vertices
d. Bases
Answer: D
1228. The unit prefix nano is opposite to:
a. Mega
b. Giga
c. Tera
d. Exa
Answer: B
1229. A statement the truth of which follows with little or no proof from a theorem
a. Axiom
b. Hypothesis
c. Conclusion
d. Corollary
Answer: D
1230. It is the series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time.
a. Annuity
b. Debt
c. Amortization
d. Deposit
Answer: A
1231. The quantity of the certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a
given place and time
a. Demand
b. Supply
 c. Stocks
d. Goods
Answer: B
1232. The place where buyers and sellers come together
a. Market
b. Business
c. Recreation center
d. Buy and sell section
Answer: A
1233. 1 torr is equivalent to a pressure of _____
a. 1 atmosphere
b. 2 mm Hg
c. 14.7 psi
d. 1/760 atmosphere
Answer: D
1234. Part of diesel plant that supplies sufficient diesel fuel during operation.
a. Fuel storage tank
b. Lub oil tank
c. Surge tank
d. Compressed air tank
Answer: A
1235. The machine should be placed on new foundation until ____ days have elapsed
depending upon the volume of the foundation
a. 4 to 7
b. 7 to 10
c. 5 to 6
d. 3 to 6
Answer: B
ft
1236. 32.2 in SI is equivalent to
sec 2
m
a. 9.81
sec 2
m
b. 9.18
sec 2
m
c. 9.88
sec 2
m
d. 9.82
sec 2
Answer: A
1237. 1 calorie is equivalent to
a. 4.187 J
b. 252 BTU
c. 4.187 kJ
d. 778 ft – lb
Answer: A
1238. The rate of heat conduction in a certain direction is proportional to the temperature
gradient in that direction. This law is known as:
a. Zeroth’s law
b. Kirchoff’s law
c. Fourier’s law
d. Joules – Thompson law
Answer: C
1239. What is the standard temperature in the US?
a. Fahrenheit
b. Rankine
c. Celsius
d. Kelvin
Answer: A
1240. A curve that describes the locus of the centers of curvatures of another curve to which
its tangents are normal.
a. Involute
b. Evolute
c. Cusp
d. Lemniscate
Answer: B
1241. ______ is formed by intersection of rays from the point reflected or refracted from a
curve surface.
a. Envelope
b. Evolute
c. Caustic
d. Parabola
Answer: C
1242. When f”(x) is negative the curve of y = f(x) is concave _____.
a. Downward
b. To the right
c. Upward
d. To the left
Answer: A
1243. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is equal to the negative of the
equation of that same curve, the curve is
a. A paraboloid
b. A sinusoid
c. A cissoids
d. An exponential
Answer: B
1244. A function F(x) is called _____ of f(x) if F’(x) = f(x)
a. Explicit function
b. Derivative
c. Implicit function
d. Antiderivative
Answer: D
1245. Points of derivatives which do not exist (and so equals zero) are called ____.
a. Stationary points
 b. Minimum points
c. Maximum points
d. Minimum and maximum points
Answer: D
1246. At the point of inflection where x = a
a. f”(a)
b. f”(a) = 0
c. f”(a) > 0
d. f”(a) < 0
Answer: B
1247. At the minimum point the slope of the tangent line is
a. Negative
b. Infinity
c. Positive
d. Zero
Answer: D
1248. What is the point where the second derivative is zero?
a. Maxima
b. Minima
c. Inflection point
d. Point of intersection
Answer: C
1249. The point on the curve where the first derivative of a function is equal to zero is called
a. Maxima
b. Minima
c. Point of inflection
d. Critical point
Answer: C
1250. The point of the curve where the first derivative of a function is zero and the second
derivative is positive is called
a. Maxima
b. Minima
c. Point of inflection
d. Critical point
Answer: B
1251. Evaluate the integral oftanh u du.
a. ln sinh u  c
b. ln cosh u  c
c. cosh u  c
d. coth u  c
Answer: B
u
1252. The derivative of a with respect to x is
du
a. a u ln a
dx
u du
b. a ln u
dx
 du
c. u a ln a
dx
du
d. u a ln u
dx
Answer: A

1253. If y  tanh x , find dy .

dx
2
a. sec h x
b.  sec h 2 x
c. sec hx tanh x
d.  sec hx tanh x
Answer: A
1254. The field of mathematics which rest on upon the fundaments concept of limits and was
created by Newton and Leibniz.
a. Physics
b. Calculus
c. Boolean Algebra
d. Quantum Mechanics
Answer: B
1255. The ____ of a relation is the set of second elements of the pair in the relation.
a. Domain
b. Range
c. Graph
d. Function
Answer: B
1256. A relation in which there is exactly one range element associated with each domain
element.
a. Graph
b. Set
c. Formula
d. Function
Answer: D
1257. The _____ of a relation is the set of first elements of pairs in the relation.
a. Domain
b. Range
c. Graph
d. Function
Answer: A
1258. Any set of ordered pairs is called a
a. Relation
b. Range
c. Domain
d. Graph
Answer: A
1259. Any pair of elements (x,y) having a first element x and a second element y is called
 a. Range
b. Domain
c. Coordinates
d. Ordered pair
Answer: D
1260. The operation of finding the derivative of a function.
a. Differentiating
b. Differentiation
c. Differential
d. Integrating
Answer: B
1261. The derivative of a function is identical to the _____ of the graph of the function.
a. Tangent
b. Secant
c. Slope
d. Normal
Answer: C
1262. The _____ derivative of the function is the rate of change of the slope of the graph.
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
Answer: B
1263. A point on the graph where the tangent line is either horizontal or vertical is known as
a. Point of inflection
b. Critical point
c. Stationary point
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1264. What is an annuity?
a. A series of equal payments at equal time periods
b. The cost of manufacturing the product
c. The overhead cost per unit of production
d. An investment that yields an equal amount of interest each year
Answer: A
1265. An adiabatic process
a. Allows heat transfer into the system but not out of the system
b. Allows heat transfer out of the system but not into the system
c. May be reversible
d. Is one in which enthalpy remains unchanged
Answer: C
1266. Which of the statement is TRUE?
a. Entropy always decreases
b. Entropy increases up to the critical temperature, then it decreases
c. Theoretically, entropy may be zero at a less enough temperature
d. Entropy does not change in a throttling process
Answer: C
1267. One of the main differences between cast iron and steel is that:
 a. Steel has higher silicon content
b. Steel has lower carbon content
c. Steel always contains alloying metals such nickel, chromium, manganese, and vanadium
d. Steel cannot be annealed whereas cast iron can
Answer: B
1268. Firm A use full absorption costing while firm B was variable product costing. How will
the finance statements of these companies differ?
a. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold and therefore, smaller profit
b. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher inventory value, and higher retained
earnings
c. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a larger profit
d. There are no difference
Answer: B
1269. What property in real number is A  B  C    A  B   C
a. Associative
b. Distributive
c. Commulative
d. Derivative
Answer: A
1270. A place closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within called
the center is:
a. Hyperbola
b. Circle
c. Ellipse
d. Parabola
Answer: B
1271. What conic section is represented by
x 2  4 y 2  8x  4 y  15
a. Circle
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Parabola
Answer: C
1272. Tera is opposite to
a. Nano
b. Pico
c. Giga
d. Deca
Answer: B
1273. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is:
a. Momentum
b. Power
c. Energy
d. Work
Answer: B
1274. The critical of a graph occur when the derivative of a function is
a. Zero
 b. Approaches infinity
c. Zero or approaches infinity
d. Either 1 or -1
Answer: C
1275. At point of inflection
a. y’=0
b. y”=0
c. y” is negative
d. y” is positive
Answer: B
1276. At a point where y’=0, if y changes from positive to negative as x increases,
a. y is minimum
b. x is minimum
c. y is maximum
d. x is maximum
Answer: C
1277. The point where the second derivative of a function is zero.
a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of intersection
d. Point of inflection
Answer: D
1278. The point where the first derivative of a function is zero and the second derivative is
positive.
a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of inflection
d. Critical point
Answer: B
1279. A point at which the curve changes from concave upward to concave downward and
vice versa is known as
a. Point of intersection
b. Point of deflection
c. Point of inflection
d. Yield point
Answer: C
1280. At a point where y’=0, if y changes from positive to negative as x increases
a. Y is maximum
b. Y is minimum
c. X is maximum
d. Y is minimum
Answer: A
1281. At maximum point,
a. The curve is concave downward
b. Y’=0
c. Y” is negative
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1282. ____is also known as the composite function rule.’
a. L’ Hospital rule
b. Trapezoidal rule
c. Simpson’s rule
d. Chain rule
Answer: D
1283. The L’ Hospital rule was formulated by
a. Marquis de I’ Hospital
b. Marrione de I’ Hospital
c. J. Bernoulli
d. I. Newton
Answer: C
1284. A collective term for maxima or minima, whether absolute of relative is called
a. Infinitium
b. Extrema
c. Domain
d. None of the above
Answer: B
1285. Which of the following is not determinate form?
a. .
b.   
c.    

d.

Answer: D
1286. Which of the following is determinate?
0
a.
0
b. 0.
c. .
d.  0
Answer: C
1287. The derivative of csc is
a. sec tan
b.  csc 
2

c.  csc cot 
d.  csc tan
Answer: C
1288. Catenary is the shape assumed by perfectly flexible uniform cable hanging between
supports. It is a graph of
a. Parabola
b. y  sinh x
c. y  cosh x
d. x  cosh y
Answer: C
 2
1289. The quantity

e  e 

is equal to

a. Cosh x
b. Tanh x
c. Csch x
d. Sech x
Answer: C
1290. What is 1 tanh 2 x equal to
a. sec h 2 x
b. cosh 2 x
c. coth 2 x
d. csc h 2 x
Answer: A
1291. In calculus, all functions are classified as either algebraic or transcendental. Which of the
following is NOT an algebraic function?
a. Rational integral function
b. Rational fractional function
c. Irrational function
d. Exponential logarithmic function
Answer: D
1292. The integral of sin m  cos n d can easily be determined by using Wallis formula
provided the limits are form
a. 0to

b. 0to
2

c. 0to
4
d. 0to 2
Answer: B
1293. The integral of any quotient whose numerator is the difference of the denominator is
the ____ of the denominator.
a. Reciprocal
b. Product
c. Logarithmic
d. Derivative
Answer: C
1294. Many integrals may be evaluated by introducing a new variable of integration in place of
the original variable, the two variables being connected by some suitable formulas. This process
is called
a. Integration by parts
b. Integration by substitution
c. Partial derivative
d. The chain rule
Answer: B
1295. The variable inside the integral is called variable of integration variable. It is sometimes
referred to as
a. Calculus variable
b. Dummy variable
c. Limits variable
d. Limits range
Answer: B
1296.  
The value of x in trigonometric substitution with an integrand involving a 2  x 3 is
a. A sec 
b. A tan 
c. A cos 
d. A sin 
Answer: D
1297. Maintenance shop and machine room shall be at least ____ mm in height from the floor
to the ceiling
a. 3000
b. 2500
c. 2000
d. 1500
Answer: A
1298. What is acid test ratio?
a. The ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities
b. The ratio of all assets to total liabilities
c. The ratio of current assets, exclusive of inventory, to total current liabilities
d. The ratio of profit after taxes of equity
Answer: C
1299. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation
a. Investment
b. Assets
c. Capital
d. Total capital
Answer: A
1300. Which of the following methods is most suited in evaluating/comparing with difference
finite lives?
a. ROR
b. ROI
c. Distributive annual cost method
d. Uniform annual cost method
Answer: D
1301. The new Mechanical Engineering Law which has signed last February 12, 1998 is known
as
a. RA 8945
b. RA 8954
c. RA 8495
d. RA 8549
Answer: C
1302. Maximum plant capacity in which a licensed ME is allowed to operate, tend or maintain
 a. 300 kW
b. 1000 kW
c. 2000 kW
d. 6000 kW
Answer: C
1303. For a mechanical plant with capacity of 100 kW or over but not more than 300 kW, the
personnel required must be at least one
a. CPM
b. ME
c. CPM, ME, PME
d. PME
Answer: A
1304. A legally binding agreement between two persons having an agreement
a. Sign – up
b. Agreement
c. Contract
d. Deal
Answer: C
1305. A tax on import is called
a. Export tax
b. Import tax
c. Export tariff
d. Import tariff
Answer: D
1306. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. Deal
b. Agreement
c. Gratuitous
d. Favor
Answer: C
1307. Time rate of doing work
a. Power
b. Heat
c. Energy
d. Momentum
Answer: A
1308. Adding gallium to pure germanium is an example of the process
a. P – type doping
b. N – type doping
c. Blassing
d. Seeding
Answer: A
1309. The area of the surface generated by rotating any plane curve about a certain axis in its
plane is equal to the product of the length of the arc and the distance traveled by its centroid.
a. Varignon’s theorem
b. Method of section
c. First proposition of Pappus
d. Second proposition of Pappus
 Answer: C
1310. The volume of any solid revolution is equal to the generating are times the
circumference of the circle described by the centroid of the area. This is known as
a. First proposition of Pappus
b. Second proposition of Pappus
c. Cavalieri’s theorem
d. Simpson’s rule
Answer: B
1311. Newton was inspired by an apple. Pappus proposition were inspired by what fruits?
a. Apple and pear
b. Apple and lemon
c. Lemon and orange
d. Apple and banana
Answer: B
1312. When the ellipse is rotated about is shorter axis, the ellipsoid is
a. Paraboloid
b. Prolate
c. Spheroid
d. Oblate
Answer: D
1313. When the ellipse rotated about is longer axis, the ellipsoid is
a. Paraboloid
b. Prolate
c. Spheroid
d. Oblate
Answer: B
1314. When a catenary  y  cosh x  is rotated about its axis of symmetry, it generates a solid
called
a. Paraboloid
b. Conoid
c. Catenoid
d. Hyperboloid
Answer: C
1315. A solid of revolution of a parabola is known as
a. Paraboloid
b. Hyperboloid
c. Catenoid
d. Conoid
Answer: A
1316. A ____ section of a surface of revolution is the section containing the axis of revolution.
a. Right
b. Central
c. Median
d. Meridian
Answer: D
1317. An infinite series in which successive terms are of the form of constant times successive
integral power of the variable. It takes the form of a0  a1 x  a2 x 2  a3 x3  ...
 a. Fourier series
b. Taylor’s series
c. McClaurin series
d. Power series
Answer: D
1318. Who invented the symbol or infinity?
a. John Stockton
b. Jonn Venn
c. John Wallis
d. John Napier
Answer: C
1319. Calculus was invented by
a. Newton
b. Leibniz
c. Gauss
d. Newton and Leibniz
Answer: D
1320. Varignon’s theorem is used to determine _____.
a. Location of centroid
b. Moment of inertia
c. Mass moment of inertia
d. Moment of area
Answer: A
1321. Study of motion with reference to the force which causes the motion is
a. Statics
b. Dynamics
c. Kinetics
d. Kinematics
Answer: D
1322. An impulse causes
a. The object’s momentum to change
b. The object’s momentum to decrease
c. The object’s momentum to increase
d. The object’s momentum to remain constant or be conserved
Answer: A
1323. Momentum is a property related to the objects _____.
a. Motion and mass
b. Mass and acceleration
c. Motion and velocity
d. Weight and velocity
Answer: A
1324. Centrifugal force is ______.
a. Directly proportional to the radius of the curvature
b. Directly proportional to the square of the tangential velocity
c. Inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity
d. Directly proportional to the square of the weight of the object
Answer: B
1325. A measure of the resistance of a body it offers to any change in its angular velocity,
determined by the mass and distribution of its mass about the axis of rotation is known as
a. Moment of inertia
b. Torsion
c. Friction
d. Angular acceleration
Answer: A
1326. Momentum is the product of mass and
a. Acceleration
b. Velocity
c. Force
d. Time
Answer: B
1327. The moment of inertia of a plane figure _____.
a. Increases as distance of the axis moves farther from the centroid
b. Is maximum at the centroidal axis
c. Is zero at the centroidal axis
d. Decreases as the distance of the axis moves farther from the centroid
Answer: A
1328. To minimize the horizontal range of the projectile, which of the following applies?
a. Maximize velocity
b. Maximize the angle of elevation and velocity
c. Maximize the angle of elevation
d. The tangent function of the angle of trajectory must be equal to 1
Answer: D
1329. Moment of inertia of any plane figure is expressed in units of length of the
a. First power
b. Second power
c. Third power
d. Fourth power
Answer: D
1330. A branch of physical science which deals with state of rest or motion of bodies under
the action of forces.
a. Mechanics
b. Kinematics
c. Kinematics
d. Statics
Answer: A
1331. A branch of mechanics which deals with bodies at rest.
a. Statics
b. Dynamics
c. Kinetics
d. Kinematics
Answer: A
1332. Which is true about water as a reference temperature when/if enthalpy is zero.
a. Vapor pressure is zero
b. Internal energy is negative
c. Entropy in non – zero
 d. Specific volume is zero
Answer: B
1333. Which of the following is the correct formula for specific speed of pump?
N Q
a. Ns  3
H4
N H
b. Ns  3
Q4
Q N
c. Ns  3
H4
Q H
d. Ns  3
4
N
Answer: A
1334. The standard acceleration due to gravity in English unit:
ft
a. 35.2
sec 2
ft
b. 32.2
sec 2
ft
c. 45.2
sec 2
ft
d. 23.2
sec 2
Answer: B
1335. Nickel – molybdenum alloys are:
a. Hastelloys
b. Hastalloys
c. Invars
d. Martensites
Answer: A
1336. Which is a family of halogen?
Answer: fluorine
1337. PV = constant us what law?
a. Charle’s law
b. Pascal’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Zeroth’s law
Answer: C
1338. The topmost ring in a piston
a. Compression ring
b. Oil ring
c. Scraper ring
d. O ring
Answer: A
1339. The study of motion with reference to the forces which causes the motion is called
a. Kinetics
b. Acceleration
c. Kinematics
d. Motion
Answer: C
1340. What is the gauge used to measure 0.001 to 1 atm pressure?
a. Barometer
b. Mercury manometer
c. Psychometer
d. Hydrometer
Answer: B
1341. What is the latent heat of fusion required to turn ice to liquid?
a. 2545 kJ/kg
b. 334 kJ/kg
c. 433 kJ/kg
d. 343 kJ/kg
Answer: B
1342. Which of the statements is not true? In a simple parallel circuit with only one active
source and three resistive loads, R1, R2, R3.
a. The equivalent resistance is equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the
individual resistances
b. The equivalent resistance is not equal to the sum of the individual resistances
c. The equivalent resistance is not equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
resistances
d. The equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances
Answer: D
1343. Branch of mechanics which deals with bodies in motion.
a. Statics
b. Dynamics
c. Kinetics
d. Kinematics
Answer: B
1344. The action of the force is characterized by
a. Its magnitude
b. The direction of its action
c. Point of application
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1345. For a system to be in equilibrium,
a. The force polygon must close
b. All forces must be concurrent, if not acting parallel
c. It must satisfy the three static equations
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1346. A pair of forces equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and not in the same line is
called
a. Moment
 b. Torque
c. Couple
d. All of the above
Answer: C
1347. The _____ exerted by a force on a body is the measure of its effectiveness in turning the
body above a certain pivot.
a. Couple
b. Torque
c. Moment arm
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1348. A body is said to be in “rotational equilibrium” when
a. No net torque acts on it
b. No net force acts on it
c. Its vector sum of the forces is zero
d. The forces acting on the body are non-concurrent
Answer: A
1349. A couple consists of two forces, _____ in magnitude, parallel an oppositely directed
a. Directly proportional
b. Equal
c. Unequal
d. Inversely proportional
Answer: B
1350. The ______ of the body or system is the point about with the product of the mass and
moment arm sums up to zero.
a. Center of gravity
b. Center of mass
c. Centroid
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1351. The point through which the resultant of the distributed gravity force passes regardless
of the orientation of the body is space.
a. Center of inertia
b. Center of mass
c. Center point
d. Center of gravity
Answer: D
1352. If an object exerts a normal force on a surface, then its normal force is
a. Equal to the weight of the object
b. Less than the frictional force
c. Parallel to the surface
d. Perpendicular to the surface
Answer: D
1353. Whenever the surfaces of two bodies are in contact, there will be a limiting amount of
resistance to sliding between them. This known as
a. Friction
b. Coefficient of friction
c. Angle of friction
 d. Coefficient of sliding
Answer: A
1354. The lessening of the value on an asset due to the decrease in the quantity available
(referring to the natural resources, coal, oil, etc.)
a. Depreciation
b. Depletion
c. Inflation
d. Incremental cost
Answer: B
1355. Is the simplest form a business organization.
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Enterprise
d. Corporation
Answer: A
1356. An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable
business.
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Enterprise
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer: C
1357. A distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transactions which a
real person could do.
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Enterprise
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer: D
1358. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
a. Sole partnership
b. Partner
c. Corporation
d. Enterprise
Answer: C
1359. Which is NOT a type of business organization?
a. Sole of proprietor
b. Corporation
c. Enterprise
d. Partnership
Answer: C
1360. What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be
organized?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 7
Answer: B
1361. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,
a. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
b. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay
the liabilities
c. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
d. The partners may sell stock to general additional capital
Answer: C
1362. Which is TRUE about partnership?
a. It has a perpetual life
b. It will dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership
c. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another
d. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner
Answer: B
1363. Which is TRUE about corporation?
a. It is not the best form of business organization
b. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is 3
c. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators
d. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments
Answer: D
1364. Represent ownership, and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock.
a. Authorization capital stock
b. Preferred stock
c. Common stock
d. Incorporator’s stock
Answer: B
1365. The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle whose height is H on the median line
a. 2/3 H from the base
b. 1/3 H from the vertex
c. ¾ H from the vertex
d. 2/3 H from the vertex
Answer: D
1366. The standard equation of a straight line y  y1  m( x  x1 ) is called:
a. Point-slope form
b. Slope form
c. Slope-intercept form
d. Two-point form
Answer: A
1367. Which of the following is most suited in evaluating and comparing alternatives with
different lives?
a. ROR method
b. ROI method
c. Present worth method
d. Uniform annual cost method
Answer: D
1368. Share of participation in corporation
a. Partnership
b. Stock
 c. Franchise
d. Monopoly
Answer: B
1369. A provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment in material cost and
labor cost
Answer: Escalatory clause
1370. To be responsible and in-charge of the preparation of the plans, design and estimates of
mechanical plant.
a. PME
b. CPM
c. ME
d. CPM, ME, or PME
Answer: A
1371. What is the unit of force in SI?
a. Joule
b. Newton
c. Watt
d. Hp
Answer: B
1372. Any influence capable of producing a change in the motion of an object
a. Force
b. Vector
c. Velocity
d. Acceleration
Answer: A
1373. If the impeller is held constant and the speed varied, the following ratio can be
maintained.
H2 N
a.  ( 2 )2
H1 N1
Q1 N 2
b. 
Q2 N1
N2 Q
c.  ( 2 )2
N1 Q1
H 2 N2
d. 
H1 N1
Answer: A
1374. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called
a. Composition of forces
b. Concurrent forces
c. Resolution of forces
d. Collinear forces
Answer: A
1375. An oblique equilateral parallelogram:
a. Square
b. Rectangle
 c. Rhombus
d. Trapezoid
Answer: C
1376. The locus of elevations to which water will rise in the piezometer tube is termed
Answer: hydraulic gradient
1377. Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature.
Answer: compressed liquid
1378. An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately
a. 4 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 7 years
Answer: C
1379. The 72 rule of thumb is used to determined
a. How many years money will triple
b. How many years money will be double
c. How many years to amass 1 million
d. How many years to quadruple the money
Answer: B
1380. The triple the principal, one must use
a. Integration
b. Derivatives
c. Logarithms
d. Implicit functions
Answer: C
1381. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is consistently
high in relation to its supply.
a. Money market
b. Hard currency
c. Treasury bill
d. Certificate of deposit
Answer: B
1382. Everything a company owns and which has a money value is classified as an asset.
Which of the following is classified as an asset?
a. Intangible assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Trade investments
d. All of these
Answer: D
1383. Which an example of an intangible asset?
a. Cash
b. Investment in subsidiary companies
c. Furniture
d. Patents
Answer: D
1384. Land, building, plant, and machinery are examples of
a. Current assets
 b. Trade investments
c. Fixed assets
d. Intangible assets
Answer: C
1385. An increase in the value of a capital asset is called
a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock
Answer: B
1386. The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called
a. Capital expenditure
b. Capital loss
c. Loss
d. Deficit
Answer: B
1387. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. Time deposit
b. Bond
c. Capital gain
d. Certificate of deposit
Answer: D
1388. Any particular raw material or primary product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee..) is called
a. Utility
b. Necessity
c. Commodity
d. Stock
Answer: C
1389. It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of others. The term
usually applies to floating exchange rates.
a. Currency appreciation
b. Currency devaluation
c. Currency float
d. Currency depreciation
Answer: D
1390. Represent the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all other claims have been settled.
a. Authorized capital stock
b. Preferred stock
c. Incorporators stock
d. Common stock
Answer: D
1391. The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides
to distribute to ordinary shareholders.
a. Dividend
b. Return
c. Share stock
d. Par value
 Answer: A
1392. A certificate of indebtness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years
and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation.
a. Bond
b. T – bill
c. Preferred stock
d. Common stock
Answer: A
1393. A form of fixed – interest security issued by central or local government, companies,
banks or other institutions. They are usually a form of long – term security, buy may be
irredeemable, secured or unsecured.
a. Bond
b. T – bill
c. Certificate of deposit
d. All of these
Answer: A
1394. A type bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns (I,e, stocks, bonds
of its subsidiaries).
a. Mortgage
b. Registered bond
c. Coupon bond
d. Collateral trust bond
Answer: D
1395. A type of bond which does not have security except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation.
a. Mortgage bond
b. Registered bond
c. Collateral trust bond
d. Debenture bond
Answer: D
1396. A type of bond issued jointly by two or more corporations.
a. Joint bond
b. Debenture bond
c. Registered bond
d. Collateral trust bond
Answer: A
1397. A type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipments.
a. Equipments obligations bond
b. Debenture bond
c. Registered bond
d. Infrastructure bond
Answer: A
1398. If the security of the bond is a mortgage on certain specified asset of a corporation, this
bond is classified as
a. Registered bond
b. Mortgage bond
c. Coupon bond
d. Joint bond
 Answer: B
1399. A type of bond where the corporation’s owner name are recorded and the interest is
paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it.
a. Registered bond
b. Preferred bond
c. Incorporators bond
d. All of these
Answer: A
1400. Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such
interest is to be paid.
a. Registered bond
b. Coupon bond
c. Mortgage bond
d. Collateral trust bond
Answer: B
1401. If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do
not cross, the fluid is said to be
Answer: laminar
1402. The temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the
liquid
Answer: boiling point
1403. The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in
several complex form is the
Answer: internal energy
1404. The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in
a pipeline is a function of
Answer: flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy
1405. The volume of fluid passing a cross – section of steam in unit time is called
Answer: discharge
1406. What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible
open steady – state system?
Answer: Q  PdV  H 2  H1
1407. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing
Answer: quasi – static process
1408. What is the process that has no heat transfer?
Answer: adiabatic
1409. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is
Answer: zero
1410. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time is called:
Answer: load factor
1411. The hydraulic formula CA 2 gh is used to find
Answer: quantity of discharge through an orifice
1412. A statement of equality between two ratios:
Answer: proportion
1413. The side opposite the right angle of a right triangle.
Answer: hypotenuse
1414. A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center is
Answer: circle
1415. Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the included side of one are equal
respectively to two angles and the included side of the other.
Answer: theorem
1416. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of its base and altitude.
Answer: theorem
1417. The dimension of “acceleration x mass” is the same as that of
Answer: weight
1418. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted
standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound)
a. Currency appreciation
b. Currency devaluation
c. Currency float
d. Currency depreciation
Answer: C
1419. The residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders
excluded) has been allowed for
a. Dividend
b. Equity
c. Return
d. Per value
Answer: B
1420. A saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than
the consumer really want to save.
a. Compulsory saving
b. Consumer saving
c. Forced saving
d. All of these
Answer: C
1421. A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security.
a. Bond
b. Bank notes
c. Coupon
d. Check
Answer: C
1422. Defined as the capacity of commodity to satisfy human want
a. Discount
b. Necessity
c. Luxuries
d. Utility
Answer: C
1423. It is the profit obtained by selling stocks at a higher price than its original purchase price.
a. Debenture
b. Goodwill
c. Capital gain
d. Internal rate of return
 Answer: C
1424. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
time and place.
a. Demand
b. Supply
c. Utility
d. Market
Answer: B
1425. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and
place.
a. Demand
b. Supply
c. Market
d. Utility
Answer: A
1426. “When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply is
equal to the demand”.
a. Law of diminishing return
b. Law of supply
c. Law of demand
d. Law of supply and demand
Answer: D
1427. “When one of the factors or production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in
output”.
a. Law of diminishing return
b. Law of supply
c. Law of demand
d. Law of supply and demand
Answer: A
1428. The place where sellers and buyers come together.
a. Department store
b. Market
c. Mall
d. Shopping center
Answer: B
1429. GATT stands for
a. General Agreement of Tariff and Trade
b. General Arrangement of Tariff and Trade
c. Global Agreement of Tariff and Trade
d. Global Arrangement of Tariff and Trade
Answer: A
1430. The letter D in the Roman numerals is
a. 50
b. 100
c. 500
d. 1000
Answer: C
1431. In Roman numerals, the doorframe written with the letter indicates that the number
equivalent to the letter is to be multiplied by
a. 100
b. 1000
c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000
Answer: C
1432. In Roman numerals, the bar written above the letter indicates that number equivalent
to the letter is to be multiplied by
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 100,000
Answer: C
1433. Indicate the false statement about rules of divisibility
a. The number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.
b. The number is divisible by 12 if it is divisible by 4 and 3.
c. The number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by last 2 digits is divisible by 3.
d. The number is divisible by 5 if it ends with 5 or 0.
Answer: C
1434. Mil is a unit of
a. Angle
b. Length
c. Angle and length
d. Weight
Answer: C
1435. The base number of the number system.
a. Index
b. Radix
c. Cologarithm
d. Logarithm
Answer: B
1436. What is another name of octal number system?
a. Octonary number system
b. Octenary number system
c. Octonumber system
d. Octonumerals
Answer: B
1437. A number system using a plane value or base of 20.
a. Sexagesimal number system
b. Duodecimal number system
c. Bidecimal number system
d. Vigesimal number system
Answer: D
1438. A number system using a place value (or base) of 6.
a. Sexagesimal number system
b. Duodecimal number system
c. Bidecimal number system
 d. Sexadecimal number system
Answer: A
1439. A number system using a place value (or base) of 10.
a. Decimal number system
b. Denary number system
c. Denary number system
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1440. What is the radix of the binary number system?
a. 10
b. 16
c. 8
d. 2
Answer: D
1441. A number system which needs sixteen symbols, the 10 numerals and the letters A, B, C,
D, E and F is called
a. Octal number system
b. Duodecimal number system
c. Vigesimal number system
d. Hexadecimal number system
Answer: D
1442. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces
Answer: depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surface
1443. An instrument for measuring specific gravity of fluids.
Answer: hydrometer
1444. The ratio between the average load and the total available capacity.
Answer: capacity factor
1445. The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value.
Answer: sunk cost
1446. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and
entry of all other possible suppliers prevented.
Answer: monopoly
1447. A beam supported at both ends and carrying a uniformly distributed load.
Answer: has its maximum shear at the supports
1448. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing load toward the fixed end.
Answer: has a reaction equal to the load
1449. The ratio of the annual revenues to the annual expenses
Answer: benefit – cost ratio
1450. An instrument for measuring high temperature gases
Answer: pyrometer
1451. A tax on imports
Answer: import tariff
1452. A line that meets a plane but is not perpendicular to it, in relation to the plane.
Answer: oblique
1453. In the SI system of measurement, the base unit for mass is
Answer: kilogram
1454. The maximum horsepower rating of a mechanical works or plant that can be tended or
operated by a Certified Plant Mechanic.
 Answer: 300 hp
1455. Which is not a qualification of an applicant for ME board examination?
a. He must be a holder of BSME degree
b. He must be a citizen of the Philippines
c. He must be at least 18 years old
d. He must be a Certified Plant Mechanic
Answer: D
1456. The terms “dozen” and “gross” used what number system?
a. Decimal number system
b. Duodecimal number decimal
c. Bidecimal number system
d. Vigesimal number system
Answer: B
1457. 1 gross is equivalent to
a. 10 dozens
b. 144 dozens
c. 5 dozens
d. 100 pieces
Answer: B
1458. The number 1 followed by 100 zeroz or 10100 is called
a. Centillion
b. Chiliagon
c. Milliagon
d. Google
Answer: D
1459. The speed of 10 exponent google or 10 google is called
a. Miligoogle
b. Centigoogle
c. Googleplex
d. Myriad
Answer: C
1460. The speed of light is nearly
a. 3 105 km/ s
b. 3 106 km/ s
c. 3 104 km/ s
d. 30,000,000 m / s
Answer: A
1461. If deka means 101 and kilo means 103 , then 10 2 is
a. Deci
b. Tera
c. Hector
d. Atto
Answer: C
1462. 1 cubic meter is equivalent to 1 ____.
a. Span
b. Section
 c. Scruple
d. Stere
Answer: D
1463. The number 1 followed by 15 zeros is known as
a. One billion
b. One trillion
c. One quadrillion
d. One quintillion
Answer: C
1464. 100 kilograms is equivalent to 1
a. Ton
b. Quintal
c. Section
d. Stere
Answer: B
1465. One section is equivalent to 1 _____.
a. Square foot
b. Square meter
c. Square nautical mile
d. Square statute mile
Answer: D
1466. One foot is equivalent to how many hands?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: B
1467. The radius of the Earth’s orbit around the sun (the average distance between the Sun
and Earth) is known as
a. Lightyear
b. Astronomical orbit
c. Astronomical unit
d. Steradian
Answer: C
1468. Basic unit of length SI system.
Answer: meter
1469. A device used to determine whether the part has been made to the tolerance required
and does not usually indicate a specific dimension.
Answer: gage
1470. Grade of mechanical engineer required to be in charged of the operation of a marble
processing plant of total installed machinery of 1000 kW.
Answer: RME
1471. The national association for mechanical engineers accredited by the Professional
Regulator Commission.
Answer: PSME
1472. The ratio between the average load and the total availability capacity.
Answer: capacity of plant factor
1473. The ratio of the output of power in watts and the products of volts and amperes.
 Answer: power factor
1474. The ratio between the maximum power demand and the sum of the connected loads of
the system.
Answer: demand factor
1475. The decrease in value of a property due to gradual extraction of its content.
Answer: depletion
1476. A method of repaying a debt the principal and interest included, usually by a series of
equal payments at equal intervals of time.
Answer: amortization
1477. The decrease in value of physical property due to the passage of time.
Answer: depreciation
1478. The ratio of capital invested over the net annual cash flow.
Answer: payout period
1479. The ratio of annual net profit over the capital invested.
Answer: rate of return
1480. The sum of the sides of a polygon.
Answer: perimeter
1481. The part of a theorem which is assumed to be true.
Answer: hypothesis
1482. A statement the truth of which must be established by proof.
Answer: theorem
1483. The space between two lines meeting at a point called vertex.
Answer: angle
1484. A statement of equality between two ratios.
Answer: proportion
1485. A series of equal payments occurring at the equal period of time
Answer: annuity
1486. The condition exist I structures where the reactive forces exceed the number of
independent equations for equilibrium. Such case is called
a. Statically determine
b. Statically indeterminate
c. Static equilibrium
d. None of the above
Answer: B
1487. Two lengths of a steel wire are used to support a chandelier of weight A. The tension in
the wire must
a. Each be W/2
b. Each be W
c. Have a vector sum of magnitude W
d. Have a vector sum of magnitude >W
Answer: C
1488. The built – in or fixed support is capable of supporting
a. An axial load
b. A transverse load
c. A bending moment
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1489. Which of the following BEST describes d’ Alembert’s principle?
 a. F = ma
b. Stress is directly proportional to strain
c. First law of motion
d. F = kx
Answer: A
1490. The theorem which is closely related to d’ Alembert’s theorem is the
a. Newton’s first law of motion
b. Newton’s second law of motion
c. Newton’s third law of motion
d. Bernoulli’s theorem
Answer: B
1491. _____ is the quality of being plastically elongated.
a. Flexibility
b. Plasticity
c. Malleability
d. Ductility
Answer: B
1492. It is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress.
a. Proportionality constant
b. Strain
c. Factor of safety
d. Modulus
Answer: C
1493. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously stand is called
a. Bearing strength
b. Yield strength
c. Ultimate strength
d. Fatigue strength
Answer: A
1494. The distance that the top surface is displaced in the direction of the force divided by the
thickness of the body is known as
a. Longitudinal strain
b. Linear strain
c. Shear strain
d. Volume strain
Answer: C
1495. The ratio of the tensile stress to tensile strain
a. Shear modulus
b. Modulus of elasticity
c. Bulk modulus
d. Hooke’s law
Answer: B
1496. Another term for modulus of elasticity
a. Bulk modulus
b. Shear modulus
c. Young’s modulus
d. Moment of inertia
Answer: C
1497. What is the value of the modulus of elasticity of steel?
a. 200 GPa
b. 200 MPa
c. 150 Mpa
d. 150 GPa
Answer: A
1498. The slope of the stress – strain diagram in the linearly elastic region is called
a. Yield strength
b. Proportional limit
c. Elastic limit
d. Modulus of elasticity
Answer: D
1499. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly called as
a. Modulus of rigidity
b. Young’s modulus
c. Bulk modulus
d. Deformation
Answer: A
1500. A kind of stress caused by forces acting along a parallel to the area resisting the forces.
a. Tangential
b. Compressive mass
c. Shearing stress
d. Tensile stress
Answer: C
1501. A kind of stress caused by forces acting perpendicular to the area resisting the forces.
a. Tangential stress
b. Shearing stress
c. Diagonal stress
d. Bearing stress
Answer: D
1502. Refers to the highest ordinate on the stress – strain diagram.
a. Rapture strength
b. Ultimate strength
c. Yield strength
d. Allowable strength
Answer: B
1503. At highest or lowest point on the moment diagram.
a. Shear is maximum
b. Shear is zero
c. Shear is half the maximum moment
d. Shear is negative
Answer: B
1504. For symmetrically loaded simple bam the maximum shear occurs at
a. The midspan
b. The support
c. 1/3 from the support
d. ¼ from the support
Answer: B
1505. For symmetrically loaded simple beam, the maximum moment occurs at
a. The midspan
b. The support
c. 1/3 from the support
d. ¼ from the support
Answer: A
1506. Poisson ratio is
a. The ratio of the stress to strain
b. The other term for slenderness ratio
c. The other term for factor of safety
d. The ratio of the unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation
Answer: D
1507. Which of the following is NOT a method of determining the bar force of a truss member.
a. Method of joints
b. Method of section
c. Method of virtual work
d. Maxwell diagram
Answer: D
1508. The actual stress the material ahs when under load.
a. Allowable stress
b. Ultimate stress
c. Working stress
d. Factor of safety
Answer: C
1509. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain is called
a. Young’s modulus
b. Shear modulus
c. Bulk modulus
d. Hooke’s law
Answer: C
1510. The difference between the estimated income and the estimated expenses.
Answer: net profit
1511. The ratio of capital invested over the net annual cash flow
Answer: payout period
1512. The amount of money paid for the used of borrowed capital of the income produced by
money which had been loaned.
Answer: interest
1513. The ratio between the average demand and the maximum demand.
Answer: load factor
1514. Minimum grade of mechanical engineer required in the design and preparation of plans
of a 200 kW diesel power plant.
Answer: PME
1515. Minimum grade of mechanical engineer required in operation of a 500 kW diesel power
plant.
Answer: RME
1516. It exists where there are few suppliers of a product or service that action by one will
almost inevitable result in similar action by the others.
Answer: oligopoly
1517. The original cost of an asset less the accumulated depreciation.
Answer: book value
1518. When one or more of the input factors of production is limited either by absolute
quantity or increasing cost, adding more of the variable input factors will result in an output’s
being reached beyond which such additions will result in a less – than – proportionate increase
in output.
Answer: law of diminishing return
1519. Decline in value of a capitalized asset.
Answer: Depreciation
1520. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that subsequent
interest is based on the cumulative amount.
Answer: compound interest
1521. The actual amounts passing into and out of the treasury of a financial venture.
Answer: cash flow
1522. The ratio of the interest payment to the capital for a given product will be supplied and
purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
Answer: interest rate
1523. Periodic compensation for the lending of money.
Answer: interest
1524. The capital tied up in the enterprise or project.
Answer: investment
1525. The application of mathematical analysis and synthesis to economic decisions.
Answer: Engineering Economy
1526. Output of sales at which income is sufficient to equal operating cost.
Answer: break – even point
1527. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along or parallel to the area resisting the
force.
a. Tensile stress
b. Bearing stress
c. Shearing stress
d. Tangential stress
Answer: C
1528. Stress is proportional to strain. The constant of proportionality is called as Young’s
modulus. Who introduced this in 1807?
a. Sean Young
b. Neil Young
c. James Young
d. Thomas Young
Answer: D
1529. Obtained by dividing the differential load dP by the differential area dA over which it
acts.
a. Stress
b. Strain
c. Elongation
d. Elasticity
Answer: A
1530. What is the SI unit for stress?
a. Pascal
 b. Joules
c. Psi
d. Kg/cm2
Answer: A
1531. Unit strain is
a. Inversely proportional to the unit stress
b. Expressed in pascals
c. Unitless
d. Directly proportional to the length of the object
Answer: C
1532. The ratio of the unit deformation or strains in a transverse direction is constant for
stresses within the proportional limit. This is known as
a. Hooke’s law
b. Mohr’s circle
c. Poisson ratio
d. Slenderness ratio
Answer: C
1533. The stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when
unloaded but will retain a permanent deformation.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield limit
d. Yield strength
Answer: B
1534. A simple beam carrying a uniform load of w throughout it entire length L has maximum
moment of
wL
a.
2
wL2
b.
2
wL2
c.
4
wL2
d.
8
Answer: D
1535. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by the fall in
the general price level.
a. Devaluation
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Depreciation
Answer: B
1536. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time.
a. Annuity
b. Debt
c. Amortization
 d. Deposit
Answer: A
1537. The place where buyers and sellers come together.
a. Market
b. Business
c. Recreation center
d. Buy and sell section
Answer: A
1538. The accumulation of money by making periodic deposits (usually equal) at compound
interest in order to accumulate a given future for some specific purpose.
Answer: sinking fund
1539. An estimate of an asset’s net market value at the end of its estimated life.
Answer: salvage value
1540. A loss of value occasioned by new development which place the older property at a
competitive disadvantage.
Answer: Law of Supply and Demand
1541. Things that can be quantitatively measured or valued, such as items of cost and physical
assets.
Answer: tangibles
1542. Conditions or economy factors that cannot readily evaluated in quantitative terms as in
money.
Answer: intangibles
1543. The capital tied up in the enterprise or project.
Answer: investment
1544. An estimate of an asset’s net market value at the end of its estimated life.
Answer: salvage value
1545. A lessening of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity available, as in coal, oil, and
timber in forests.
Answer: depletion
1546. The interest charges under the condition that interest in any time is only charged on the
principal.
Answer: simple interest
1547. A decrease in the value of an asset brought about by the development of new and more
economical methods, processes and/or machinery.
Answer: obsolescence
1548. A plan to pay off a financial obligation according to some pre-arranged program.
Answer: amortization
1549. Periodic compensation for the lending or use of money.
Answer: interest
1550. The financial resources involved in establishment.
Answer: capital
1551. Fund that is required to make an enterprise or project a going concern.
Answer: working capital
1552. That period of time after which a machine or facility should be discarded or replaced
because of its excessive maintenance costs or reduced and profitability.
Answer: life
1553. The ratio of return on profit over the associated investment, expressed as a percentage
or decimal usually on an annual basis.
 Answer: yield
1554. Used to produce consumer goods.
Answer: producer good
1555. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no good
substitute.
a. Monopsony
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Oligopsony
Answer: A
1556. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.
a. Perpetuity
b. Ordinary annuity
c. Annuity due
d. Deferred annuity
Answer: D
1557. The total income equals the total operation cost.
a. Balanced sheet
b. In – place value
c. Check and balance
d. Break even – no gain no loss
Answer: D
1558. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.
a. Analytic
b. Pure
c. Gratuitous
d. Private
Answer: C
1559. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct materials cost are the cost of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs is known as
a. GS and A expenses
b. Operating and maintenance cost
c. Prime cost
d. O and M costs
Answer: C
1560. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. Receivable turn – over
b. Profit margin ratio
c. Current ratio
d. Acid – test ratio
Answer: D
1561. An artificial expenses that spreads the purchase price of an asset or another property
over a number of years.
a. Depreciation
b. Sinking fund
c. Amnesty
d. Bond
 Answer: A
1562. Estimated value at the end of the useful life.
a. Market value
b. Fair value
c. Salvage value
d. Book value
Answer: C
1563. Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hand as of a given date.
a. Physical inventory
b. Material update
c. Technological assessment
d. Material count
Answer: A
1564. Additional information of prospective bidders on contract documents issued prior to
bidding date.
a. Delict
b. Escalatory
c. Technological assessment
d. Bid bulletin
Answer: D
1565. An evil wrong committed by a person damaged another person’s property or reputation
is
a. Tort
b. Material breach
c. Negligence
d. Fraud
Answer: A
1566. A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.
a. Depreciation
b. Annuity
c. Perpetuity
d. Inflation
Answer: C
1567. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.
a. Demand
b. Supply
c. Stocks
d. Goods
Answer: B
1568. Work – in process is classified as
a. An asset
b. A liability
c. An expenses
d. An owner’s equity
Answer: A
1569. What is the highest position in the corporation?
 a. President
b. Board of directors
c. Chairman of the board
d. Stockholders
Answer: C
1570. Type of ownership in business where individuals exercise and enjoy the right in their
own interest.
a. Equitable
b. Public
c. Private
d. Pure
Answer: C
1571. Decrease in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.
a. Inflation
b. Depletion
c. Recession
d. Depreciation
Answer: D
1572. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as co –
owners for profit.
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Company
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
Answer: C
1573. We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year as
a. Nominal rate
b. Rate of return
c. Exact interest rate
d. Effective rate
Answer: D
1574. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.
a. Dead persons
b. Senior citizens
c. Demented person
d. Minors
Answer: C
1575. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
a. Discount
b. Luxury
c. Necessity
d. Utility
Answer: B
1576. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
a. Fair value
b. Market value
 c. Book value
d. Salvage value
Answer: B
1577. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of
vendors entering the market.
a. Perfect competition
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Elastic demand
Answer: A
1578. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.
a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
Answer: C
1579. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity even though the price varies
considerably.
a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
Answer: B
1580. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of
one will lead to almost the same action of the others.
a. Oligopoly
b. Semi – monopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Perfect competition
Answer: A
1581. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
a. Authorized capital
b. Investment
c. Subscribed capital
d. Money market
Answer: A
1582. The worth of the property equals to the original cost less depreciation.
a. Scrap value
b. Face value
c. Market value
d. Book value
Answer: D
1583. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
a. Discount
b. Credit
c. Interest
 d. Profit
Answer: C
1584. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such
as accounts receivable and merchandise are called
a. Total assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Current assets
d. None of the above
Answer: C
1585. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.
a. Physical life
b. Economic life
c. Operating life
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1586. The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and
labor cost.
a. Secondary clause
b. Escalatory clause
c. Contingency clause
d. Main clause
Answer: B
1587. The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of the item is called
a. Book value
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Sinking fund
Answer: C
1588. Gross profit, sales less cost of good sold, as a percentage of a sales is called
a. Profit margin
b. Gross margin
c. Net income
d. Rate of return
Answer: B
1589. Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.
a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Salvage value
d. Book value
Answer: D
1590. Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project a going concern.
a. Initial investment
b. Current accounts
c. Working capital
d. Subscribed capital
Answer: C
1591. The moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to the base b is
 bh 3
a.
12
bh 3
b.
6
bh 3
c.
36
bh 3
d.
3
Answer: A
1592. The moment of inertia f a triangle with respect to the base is ______ time its moment of
inertia with respect to its centroidal axis?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: B
1593. What is the moment of inertia of a circle of
r 4
a.
16
r 4
b.
2
r 4
c.
24
r 4
d.
4
Answer: D
1594. The moment of inertia of the circle with respect to its tangent is _____ times its
centroidal moment of inertia.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: D
1595. The moment of inertia of a rectangle with respect to the base is ______ times its
moment of inertia with respect to the centroid.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: C
1596. What is the mass moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m and radius r?
1 2
a. mr
2
 1 2
b. mr
4
1 2
c. mr
3
2 2
d. mr
5
Answer: D
1597. Given a cylinder of radius r, altitude h and mass m. What is its mass of inertia?
1 2
a. mr
2
1 2
b. mr
4
1 2
c. mr
3
2 2
d. mr
5
Answer: A
1598. A structure is called _______ if at least one of its individual members is a multiforce
member.
a. Truss
b. Frame
c. Three – hinged arch
d. Bridge
Answer: B
1599. Another term of moment of inertia.
a. Moment of area
b. Second moment of area
c. Moment of mass
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1600. The diagram of an isolated body with the representation of all external forces acting on
it is called
a. Maxwell diagram
b. Stress – strain diagram
c. Free body diagram
d. Shear and moment diagram
Answer: C
1601. A framework composed of members joined at their ends to form a rigid structure.
a. Machine
b. Truss
c. Joist
d. Purlin
Answer: B
1602. The moment of the resultant of two concurrent forces with respect to a center of their
planes is equal to the algebraic sum of the moments of the components with respect to the
same center.
 a. Law of reaction
b. Varignon’s theorem
c. Mass moment of inertia
d. Law of inertia
Answer: B
1603. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.
a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
Answer: A
1604. A market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.
a. Oligopoly
b. Oligopsony
c. Bilateral oligopoly
d. Bilateral oligopsony
Answer: C
1605. A market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Bilateral monopoly
d. Bilateral monopsony
Answer: C
1606. A market situation where there are only two buyers with many sellers.
a. Duopoly
b. Oligopoly
c. Doupsony
d. Oligopsony
Answer: C
1607. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the
earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn.
a. Present worth factor
b. Interest rate
c. Time value of money
d. Yield
Answer: C
1608. Defined as the future value minus the preset value
a. Interest
b. Discount
c. Discount
d. Capital
Answer: C
1609. The flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project is called
a. Capital recovery
b. Cash flow
c. Economic return
d. Earning value
Answer: B
1610. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributions or claims of other based on profit.
a. Economic return
b. Yield
c. Earning value
d. Expected yield
Answer: A
1611. The payment for the use of borrowed money is called
a. Loan
b. Maturity value
c. Interest
d. Principal
Answer: C
1612. The interest rate at which the present work of the cash on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.
a. Effective rate
b. Nominal rate
c. Rate of return
d. Yield
Answer: C
1613. The ratio of the interest payment to be principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
a. Interest
b. Interest rate
c. Investment
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1614. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1
year period is known as
a. Expected return
b. Interest
c. Nominal interest
d. Effective interest
Answer: D
1615. The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of a company in a stated region of
the country.
a. Market value
b. Book value
c. Goodwill value
d. Franchise value
Answer: D
1616. The recorded current value of an asset is known as
a. Scrap value
b. Salvage value
c. Book value
d. Present worth
Answer: C
1617. Scrap value of an asset is sometimes known as
 a. Book value
b. Salvage value
c. Replacement value
d. Future value
Answer: B
1618. Sometimes called second hand value
a. Scrap value
b. Salvage value
c. Book value
d. Going value
Answer: B
1619. An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation
a. Book value
b. Fair value
c. Goodwill value
d. Going value
Answer: D
1620. The value which has a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will
determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.
a. Market value
b. Goodwill value
c. Fair value
d. Franchise value
Answer: C
1621. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period.
a. Ordinary annuity
b. Annuity due
c. Deferred annuity
d. Perpetuity
Answer: A
1622. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.
a. Deferred annuity
b. Delayed annuity
c. Progressive annuity
d. Simple annuity
Answer: A
1623. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning
from the first period.
a. Ordinary annuity
b. Annuity due
c. Deferred annuity
d. Perpetuity
Answer: B
1624. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?
a. The amount of all payments are equal
b. The payments are made at equal interval of time
 c. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period
d. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity
Answer: C
1625. A is a periodic payment and I is the interest rate, then present worth of a perpetuity =
a. Ai
b. Ai n
An
c.
i
A
d.
i
Answer: D
1626. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of a annuity of one called
a. Load factor
b. Demand factor
c. Sinking fund
d. Present worth factor
Answer: D
1627. An astronomical unit is approximately equal to
a. 100 million km
b. 125 million km
c. 150 million km
d. 175 million km
Answer: C
1628. Absolute zero is
a. 0C
b. 0F
c. 0 R
d. 0 K
Answer: D
1629. The gravitational constant G is equivalent to _____ N .m2 / kg 2
a. 6.67 109
b. 6.67 1010
c. 6.67 1011
d. 6.67 1012
Answer: C
1630. 1 Btu is equivalent to how many Joules?
a. 1054
b. 1045
c. 1036
d. 1064
Answer: A
1631. The pressure of 1 torr is equivalent to how many Pascals?
a. 100.0
b. 133.3
c. 166.7
 d. 200.0
Answer: B
1632. 1 horsepower is equivalent to how many Watts?
a. 764
b. 476
c. 674
d. 746
Answer: D
1633. 1 electron volt is equivalent to how many Joules?
a. 1.603 1019
b. 1.602 1016
c. 1.602 1014
d. 1.602 1012
Answer: A
1634. Which is not equivalent to 1 atm?
a. 1.013 105 Pa
b. 1.013 bar
c. 14.7 psi
d. 1000 kg/cm 2
Answer: D
1635. The amount of money or its equivalent which is given in exchange for goods or
commodity.
Answer: price
1636. The process of determining the value of certain reasons.
Answer: valuation
1637. The amount of the machine or equipment would sell for if disposed off as junked.
Answer: scrap value
1638. The international system of units
Answer: S.I.
1639. A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of
the depreciation book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies.
a. Straight line method
b. Sinking fund method
c. SYD method
d. Declining balance method
Answer: D
1640. A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.
a. Straight line method
b. Sinking fund method
c. Declining balance method
d. SYD method
Answer: A
1641. Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?
a. Straight line method
b. Sinking fund method
 c. Declining balance method
d. SYD method
Answer: C
1642. A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at
compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the
total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.
a. Straight line method
b. Sinking fund method
c. Declining balance method
d. SYD method
Answer: B
1643. The function of interest rate and time that determines the cumulative amount of a
sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.
a. Sinking fund factor
b. Present worth factor
c. Capacity factor
d. Demand factor
Answer: A
1644. The first cost of any property includes
a. The original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
b. Installation expenses
c. Initial taxes and permits fee
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1645. In SYD method the sum of years digit is calculated using the formula with n=number of
useful years of the equipment.
nn  1
a.
2
nn  1
b.
2
c. nn  1
d. nn  1
Answer: B
1646. Capitalized cost of any property is equal to the
a. Annual cost
b. First cost + interest of the first cost
c. First cost + interest of perpetual maintenance
d. First cost + salvage value
Answer: C
1647. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be
repaid at a specific time.
Answer: borrowed capital
1648. On negotiable paper is the difference between the present worth and the worth of the
paper at some time in the future.
Answer: discount
1649. The analysis and evaluation of the factors that will affect the economic success of
engineering projects to the end that a recommendation can be made which will ensure the best
use of capital.
Answer: Engineering Economy
1650. The decrease in the value of property due to the gradual extraction of its content.
Answer: depletion
1651. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons.
Answer: appraisal
1652. The length of time during which the property may be operated at a profit.
Answer: economic life
1653. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it was
designed.
Answer: physical life
1654. Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.
Answer: customer goods
1655. The value which is usually determined by a disinterested third party in order to establish
a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
Answer: fair value
1656. The value of the variable for which the costs for the alternative will be equal.
Answer: break – even point
1657.  
The value of 33 is
2

a. 54
b. 81
c. 243
d. 729
Answer: D
1658. The number of board feet in a plank 3 inches thick, 1 foot wide and 20 foot length is
a. 60
b. 120
c. 360
d. 720
Answer: A
1659. The moment of inertia of a rectangular whose bases is B and height H, about its base is
BH 3
a.
12
BH 2
b.
4
BH 3
c.
3
BH 3
d.
36
Answer: C
1660. In general design, stress and factor of safety are related as follows:
a. design stress  ultimate stress x factor of safety
 design stress
b. factor of safety 
ultimate stress
ultimate stress
c. design stress 
factor of safety
factor of safety
d. ultimate stress 
design stress
Answer: C
1661. The dimensions of “Acceleration x Mass” is the same as that to
a. Power
b. Length
c. Work
d. Weight
Answer: D
1662. Which one of the following contains only items which are considered fixed charges?
a. Interest, taxes, amortization, insurance, rent
b. Amortization, insurance, steam cost, painting, cleaning
c. Interest, taxes, replacements, labor for repairs
d. Interest, taxes, rent, power cost, oil cost
Answer: A
1663. An economic study is made of the total amount cost (C) for a series of alternative
investment (P) for a given project. If C is plotted as the ordinate versus P, the most desirable
occurs when
a. dC/dP=1
b. dC/dP=CO
c. dC/dP=0
d. dC/dP=+1
Answer: C
1664. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with
a. aluminum
b. magnesium
c. tin
d. zinc
Answer: D
1665. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free end, the moment is
a. Maximum at the wall
b. ¼ maximum half way out on the beam
c. Constant along the beam
d. Maximum at the free end
Answer: A
1666. The power output of the engine is increased through:
a. All
b. Super – charging
c. Scavenging
d. Turbo – charging
Answer: B
1667. A closed vessel intended for use in heating water or for application of heat to generate
or other vapor to be used externally to itself is called:
 a. Unfired pressure vessel
b. Steam generator
c. Boiler or steam vessel
d. Boiler
Answer: C
1668. The sum of the three types of energy at any point in the system is called
a. Pressure head
b. Bernoulli’s theorem
c. Enthalpy
d. 25-28 C
Answer: B
1669. The temperature of the air with humidity of 55-60% to be used for comfort cooling shall
maintained at:
a. 24-27 C
b. 16-19 C
c. 20-23 C
d. 25-28 C
Answer: C
1670. Entropy is the measure of
a. The change in enthalpy of a system
b. Randomness or disorder
c. The heat capacity of a substance
d. The internal energy of gas
Answer: B
1671. On the hoist or load block or some equality visible space of every hoist designed to lift
its load vertically shall be legibly marked:
a. Its brand and model
b. Its electrical voltage
c. Its motor horsepower of kW
d. Its rated load capacity
Answer: D
1672. The percent of total solids in most domestic sewage is approximately:
a. 1.0
b. 0.1
c. 0.01
d. 10
Answer: B
1673. The sum of the sides of a polygon
a. Perimeter
b. Hexagon
c. Square
d. Circumference
Answer: A
1674. A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center:
a. Arc
b. Radius
c. Circle
 d. Chord
Answer: C
1675. One – fourth of a great circle:
a. Cone
b. Circle
c. Quadrant
d. Sphere
Answer: C
1676. Points that lie on the same plane:
a. Coplanar
b. Parallel
c. Oblique
d. Collinear
Answer: A
1677. Prisms are classified according to their
a. Bases
b. Prism
c. Truncated prism
d. Prismatoid
Answer: A
1678. A solid cut of a given solid by two non parallel planes is called
a. Frustum
b. Prism
c. Truncated prism
d. Prismatoid
Answer: C
1679. A polyhedron having bases two polygons in parallel planes and for lateral faces triangles
for trapezoids with one side lying on the other base of the polyhedron.
a. Pyramid
b. Cone
c. Prismatoid
d. Truncated prism
Answer: C
1680. Portion of regular solid left after cutting off the upper part by a plane parallel to the
base.
a. Frustum
b. Ungula
c. Truncated solid
d. Prismatoid
Answer: A
1681. Body or space bounded by surface every point of which is equidistant from a point
within.
a. Circle
b. Sphere
c. Spheroid
d. Ellipsoid
Answer: B
1682. A solid bounded by a zone and the planes of the zone’s base
 a. Spherical sector
b. Spherical segment
c. Lune
d. Spherical excess
Answer: B
1683. The intersection of the sphere and the plane through the center is called
a. Great circle
b. Small circle
c. Poles
d. Polar distance
Answer: A
1684. The portion of a sphere enclosed between two great semi – circles having common end
points, including the semi – circle
a. Spherical excess
b. Spherical segment
c. Zone
d. Lune
Answer: D
1685. A portion of the surface of a sphere included between two parallel planes.
a. Spherical excess
b. Spherical segment
c. Zone
d. Lune
Answer: C
1686. If R is the radius of the sphere and h is the distance between two parallel plane, the area
of the zone is
a. 2Rh
b. 4Rh
c. h 2 3R  h / 3
d. 4 ( R  h)
Answer: A
1687. The solid bounded by two great circles and the surface of a sphere is known as
a. Spherical zone
b. Spherical segment
c. Spherical cone
d. Spherical wedge
Answer: D
1688. A cone or cylinder with its top cut off by plane oblique to the base
a. Frustum
b. Prismoid
c. Prismatoid
d. Ungula
Answer: D
1689. A term given to cylinder with elliptical cross – section
a. Cylindroid
b. Cylindoid
c. Ovaloid
 d. Deltroid
Answer: A
1690. A doughnut – like surface of revolution generated by rotating the circle through 3600 in
space about a line in its plane but now passing through the circle
a. Torus
b. Annulus
c. Anchor
d. All of the above
Answer: A
1691. A regular solid star in a shape that is radiating from center like rays of star
a. Pentagram
b. Pentagon
c. Stellated solid
d. Archimedean solid
Answer: C
1692. Formed by intersection of rays from one point reflected or refracted from a curvature
surface
a. Envelop
b. Caustic
c. Evolute
d. Pencil
Answer: B
1693. The regular polyhedron is a soild with all its faces identical regular polygons. The regular
polyhedron are also known as
a. Euclidean solids
b. Pythagorean solids
c. Platonic solids
d. Newtonian solids
Answer: C
1694. There are how many regular polyhedral known to man?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 7
d. 10
Answer: A
1695. An icosahedron is a regular polyhedron of _____ faces
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 20
Answer: D
1696. A regular polyhedron with 6 sides is called
a. Dodecahedron
b. Hexahedron
c. Tetrahedron
d. Octahedron
Answer: B
1697. The face of a regular tetrahedron is a
 a. Square
b. Pentagon
c. Hexagon
d. Triangle
Answer: D
1698. The face of a regular octahedron is a
a. Square
b. Pentagon
c. Hexagon
d. Triangle
Answer: D
1699. The face of a regular dodecahedron is a
a. Square
b. Pentagon
c. Hexagon
d. Triangle
Answer: B
1700. The face of a regular icosahedron is a
a. Square
b. Pentagon
c. Hexagon
d. Triangle
Answer: D
1701. The study of properties of figure in three dimensions.
a. Physics
b. Plane geometry
c. Solid geometry
d. Trigonometry
Answer: C
1702. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of its base and altitude
a. Axiom
b. Postulate
c. Theorem
d. Corollary
Answer: C
1703. What is an annuity?
a. A series of equal payments at equal time periods
b. The cost of manufacturing a product
c. An investment that yields an equal amount of interest each year
d. The overhead cost per unit of production
Answer: A
1704. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. Receivable turn – over
b. Profit margin ratio
c. Current ratio
d. Acid – ratio test
Answer: D
1705. Direct labor cost incurred in the factory and direct materials cost are the costs of all
materials that go into production. The sum of these two direct costs are known as
a. GS and A expenses
b. Prime cost
c. Operation and maintenance cost
d. O & M costs
Answer: A
1706. An artificial expense that spreads the purchase price of an asset or other property over a
number of years
a. Depreciation
b. Sinking fund
c. Amnesty
d. Bond
Answer: A
1707. Estimated value at the end of the useful life
a. Salvage value
b. Compounded annually
c. Economic life
d. Balance sheet
Answer: A
1708. Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hands as of a given date
a. Physical inventory
b. Material update
c. Technological assessment
d. Material count
Answer: A
1709. The total income equals the total operating cost
a. Balance sheet
b. In – place value
c. Check and balance
d. Break – even – no – gain – no – loss
Answer: D
1710. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. Analytic
b. Pure
c. Gratuitous
d. Private
Answer: C
1711. Mechanically and electrically operated brakes shall be inspected
a. Every time there is complaint
b. Periodically
c. Every month
d. As often as necessary
Answer: B
1712. Which regular polyhedron does not have a triangle?
a. Tetrahedron
b. Octahedron
 c. Icosahedron
d. Dodecahedron
Answer: D
1713. How many edges are there in a dodecagon?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 30
d. 8
Answer: B
1714. A tetrahedron has _____vertices
a. 4
b. 3
c. 6
d. 5
Answer: A
1715. Given two solids and a plane. Supposed that every plane parallel to the given plane
intersecting one of the two solids, also intersects the other and gives cross – sections with the
same area then the two solids have the same volume. This is known as the
a. Unit postulate
b. Plane postulate
c. Parallel postulate
d. Cavalieri’s postulate
Answer: D
1716. Who formulated the Cavalieri’s principle?
a. Harold Cavalieri
b. Buenaventura Cavalieri
c. Joefry Cavalieri
d. Carl Cavalieri
Answer: B
1717. A line segment that is divided into two segments a greater a and a smaller b such that
the length of a+b is to a and a is to b. Such division is known as
a. Golden segment
b. Golden ratio
c. Golden proportion
d. All of the above
Answer: B
1718. The volume of a paraboloid is equal to ______ the volume of circumscribing cylinder
a. 1/3
b. ½
c. ¼
d. 2/3
Answer: B
1719. In general quadratic equation, if the discriminant is zero. The curve is a figure that
represents a/an
a. Parabola
b. Circle
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
 Answer: A
1720. Equations relating x and y that cannot readily be solved explicitly for y as a function of x
or for x as a function of y. such equations may nonetheless determine y as a function of x or vice
versa, such function is called
a. Logarithmic function
b. Implicit function
c. Explicit function
d. Continuous function
Answer: B
1721. In polar coordinates system, the length of the ray segment from a fixed origin is known
as _______.
a. Amplitude
b. Radius vector
c. Hypotenuse
d. Minimum point
Answer: B
1722. Given the equation 3x 2  2 x  5 y  7  0 . Determine the curve
a. Ellipse
b. Parabola
c. Hyperbola
d. Circle
Answer: B
1723. If eccentricity is less than one then the curve is
a. Parabola
b. Ellipse
c. Hyperbola
d. Circle
Answer: B
1724. Of what quadrant is A, if sec A is positive and csc S is negative?
a. IV
b. I
c. III
d. II
Answer: A
1725. If the general equation of the conic is Ax 2  2Bxy  Cy 2  Ey  F  0 , and
B 2  4 AC  0 , then the conic is a/an
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Hyperbola
d. Ellipse
Answer: C
1726. What type of conic has equation of Ax 2  Cy 2  Dx  Ey  F  0 ?
a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola
Answer: C
1727. 4 x 2  256  0 is the equation of a/an
a. Parabola
b. Parallel lines
c. Circle
d. Ellipse
Answer: A
1728. The graph of r  a  b cos  is a
a. Lemniscate
b. Lituus
c. Limacon
d. Cardioid
Answer: C
1729. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus and is in line perpendicular to the major
axis is called
a. Focal width
b. Conjugate axis
c. Focal chord
d. Latus rectum
Answer: D
1730. If all the y – terms have even exponents the curve is symmetric with respect to the
_____
a. X-axis
b. Origin
c. Y-axis
d. Line 45 with the x-axis
Answer: A
1731. It can be defined as the set of all points in the plane the sum of whose distances from
two fixed points is a constant
a. Circle
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Ellipse
Answer: D
1732. If the equation is unchanged by the substitution of –x to x, its curve is symmetric with
respect to the
a. X-axis
b. Y-axis
c. Origin
d. Line 45 with the axes
Answer: B
1733. What type of curve is generated by a point which moves in uniform circular motion
about an axis, while traveling with a constant speed parallel to the axis?
a. Cardioid
b. Epicycloid
c. Cycloid
d. Helix
Answer: D
1734. What is the graph of the equation Ax 2  Bx  Cy 2  Dy  Ex  F  0 ?
a. Circle
b. Ellipse
c. Parabola
d. Hyperbola
Answer: B
1735. It represents the distance of a point from the y-axis
a. Ordinate
b. Abscissa
c. Coordinates
d. Polar distance
Answer: B
1736. For a fixed curing time, the ultimate strength of concrete
a. Is independent of water content if cured for a sufficiently long time
b. Increases with a decrease in water content
c. Decreases with a decrease in water content
d. In independent of curing pressure
Answer: B
1737. Reynolds number maybe calculated from:
a. Diameter, density and absolute viscosity
b. Diameter, velocity, and absolute viscosity
c. Characteristics length, mass flow rate per unit area, and absolute viscosity
d. Diameter, velocity and surface tension
Answer: C
1738. When the thin – bore, hollow glass tube is inserted into a container of mercury the
surface of the mercury in the tube
a. Is below the container surface due to adhesion
b. Is below the container surface due to cohesion
c. Is level with the surface of the mercury in the container
d. Is above the container surface due to cohesion
Answer: B
1739. Absolute viscosity is essential independent of pressure and is primarily dependent on:
a. Temperature
b. Density
c. Specific gravity
d. Velocity
Answer: A
1740. The sum of the pressure head and the velocity head remains constant, this is known as
a. Boyle’s law
b. Torrecelli’s theorem
c. Archimedes principle
d. Bernoulli’s theorem
Answer: D
1741. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomenon?
a. Surface tension
b. Hydrometer
 c. Gravity
d. Viscosity of fluid
Answer: A
1742. An instrument for measuring specific gravity of fluids
a. Hygrometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Flowmeter
d. Psycrometer
Answer: B
1743. A type of compressor which is often used for supercharging diesel engines.
a. Centrifugal compressor
b. Axial compressor
c. Roots blower
d. Rotative compressor
Answer: A
1744. The ratio of the weight of the water vapor mixed with a –kg of dry air to the weight of
saturated vapor at the same temperature mixed with a kg of dry air.
a. Relative humidity
b. Saturation ratio
c. Humidity ratio
d. Specific gravity
Answer: B
1745. What is the latent heat of fusion required to turn ice to liquid?
a. 2256 kJ/kg
b. 970 Btu/lbm
c. 334 kJ/kg
d. 166 Btu.lbm
Answer: C
1746. The ratio between average demand and the maximum demand
a. Load factor
b. Demand factor
c. Power factor
d. Capacity factor
Answer: A
1747. A line passing through the focus and perpendicular to the directrix of a parabola is called
a. Axis of parabola
b. Tangent line
c. Secant line
d. Latus rectum
Answer: A
1748. Locus of points on a side which rolls along a fixed line.
a. Cardioid
b. Epicycloid
c. Cycloid
d. Hypocycloid
Answer: C
1749. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x2=20y?
a. 5
 b. 20
c. 20
d. 5
Answer: B
1750. If the product of the slopes of any two straight lines is negative 1, one of these is said to
be _____to the other.
a. Parallel
b. Skew
c. Non-intersecting
d. Perpendicular
Answer: D
1751. What is the curve represented by the equation r  a ?
a. Spiral of Archimedes
b. Rosette
c. Cardioid
d. Lemniscate
Answer: A
1752. Is the locus of a point that moves in a plane so that the difference of the distances from
two fixed points of the locus is constant.
a. Ellipse
b. Circle
c. Parabola
d. Hyperbola
Answer: D
x2 y2
1753. The semi – conjugate axis of the hyperbola  1
9 4
a. 3
b. –3
c. -2
d. 2
Answer: D
1754. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola y  4 px 2 is
a. 4p
b. 2p
1
c.
4p
d. -4p
Answer: C
1755. The tangent function is negative in what quadrants?
a. I and III
b. IV
c. II and IV
d. III
Answer: C
1756. The Cartesian or rectangular coordinates system was first introduced by
a. Newton
 b. Galileo
c. Descartes
d. Euclid
Answer: C
1757. Also known as the x-coordinate
a. Abscissa
b. Ordinate
c. Polar distance
d. Radius vector
Answer: A
1758. The x-coordinate of a point is positive in quadrants?
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I and IV
d. II and III
Answer: C
1759. The y-coordinate of a point is positive in what quadrants?
a. II and III
b. I and II
c. III and IV
d. II and IV
Answer: B
1760. State the quadrants in which the coordinates (15,-2) lies.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Answer: D
1761. The rectangular coordinates system used to represent a complex number.
a. Argand diagram
b. Venn diagram
c. Complex diagram
d. Maxwell’s diagram
Answer: A
1762. A Cartesian coordinate system in which the axes are not perpendicular.
a. Parallelogram coordinates system
b. Oblique coordinates system
c. Polar coordinates system
d. Argand diagram
Answer: B
1763. The angle of rotation about the origin of the positive x-axis into the point with
rectangular coordinates (a,b), representing the complex number a+bi is called _____ of the
complex number.
a. Amplitude
b. Argument
c. Phase angle
d. All of the above
Answer: D
1764. The rectangular coordinates system in space is divided into eight compartments called
a. Quadrants
b. Octants
c. Cubicles
d. Octodrants
Answer: B
1765. The angle of inclination of a straight line is the angle it makes with the
a. Positive x-axis
b. Negative x-axis
c. Positive y-axis
d. Negative y-axis
Answer: A
1766. The points where the curve crossed the coordinate axes are called as the _____ with the
axes.
a. Asymptotes
b. Intercepts
c. Intersections
d. Tangent and normal
Answer: C
1767. A line which is perpendicular to the x-axis has slope equal to
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinity
d. Either zero or infinity
Answer: C
1768. A horizontal line has a slope of
a. Zero
b. Negative
c. Infinity
d. Positive
Answer: A
1769. A line parallel to the y-axis at a directed distance x1 has the equation
a. y  y1
b. x  x1
c. y  x1
d. x  y1
Answer: B
1770. If an initial volume of saturated steam is expanded isothermally to twice the initial
volume, the pressure
a. Halves
b. Remains the same
c. Increases
d. Decreases
Answer: D
1771. Each miniature boiler shall be provided with a blow – off connection, not less than 12.7
mm iron size, in direct connection with the:
a. Side of the lowest water space
 b. None
c. Lowest water space
d. 5mm above the lowest water space
Answer: C
1772. Where ground water or surface water are used for feedwater, water hardness of 0-10
ppm shall be considered and alkalinity of:
a. pH 8 to pH 9
b. pH 9 to pH 10
c. pH 8 to pH 10
d. pH 10 to pH 11
Answer: D
1773. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
a. positive or negative
b. negative
c. positive
d. zero
Answer: D
1774. Turboject engine thrust is produced by:
a. The thrust reaction of the turbine blading
b. The additional weight of the injected fuel
c. The “ram” effect of the intake air
d. The acceleration of the gases through the engine
Answer: D
1775. The second law of thermodynamics stats that:
a. Energy cannot be neither created nor destroyed
b. Heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work
c. There is no tendency towards the spontaneous change
d. Mass is indestructible
Answer: B
1776. How much must the valve raise from its seat to obtain a full opening to the size of the
valve?
a. ½ of diameter
b. ¼ of diameter
c. ¾ of diameter
d. 3/8 of diameter
Answer: B
1777. Which of the statements is not true? In a simple parallel circuit with only one active
source and three resisting loads. Rsub2 and Rsub3.
a. The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual
resistance.
b. The total current is the sum of the leg current.
c. The equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
d. The voltage drop is the same across all legs.
Answer: C
1778. A polygon having five sides;
a. square
b. hexagon
c. triangle
 d. pentagon
Answer: D
1779. To the m/n th power equals
a. nth root of b to the m power
b. b to the m + n power
c. 1/n square root of b to the m power
d. b to the m power over n
Answer: A
1780. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are called:
a. tangent circles
b. unequal circles
c. eccentric circles
d. concentric circles
Answer: D
1781. Let m1 and m2 be the respective slopes of two perpendicular lines. Then
a. m1 + m2 = 1
b. m1 + m2 = 0
c. m1m2 = 1
d. m1m2 = -1
Answer: D
1782. If all the y-terms have even exponents, the curve is symmetric with respect to the
a. Line 450 with the axis
b. x-axis
c. y-axis
d. origin
Answer: B
1783. If the equation is unchanged by the substitution of –x for x an –y for y simultaneously,
its curve is symmetric with respect to the
a. x-axis
b. y-axis
c. line 450 with the axis
d. origin
Answer: D
1784. If all of the terms of an equation have even exponents of if all of the terms have odd
exponents, the curve is symmetric with respect to the
a. x-axis
b. y-axis
c. line 450 with the axis
d. origin
Answer: D
1785. If two linear equations, the x-coefficient of the first is equal to the y-coefficient of the
send and the y-coefficient of the first if numerically equal but of opposite sign to the x-
coefficient of the second, or vice versa, the lines represented are
a. parallel to each other
b. perpendicular to each other
c. at 450 with each other
d. none of the above
Answer: B
1786. A cubic equation has either three real roots or one real root and two conjugate
imaginary roots. The real roots are the points of intersection with
a. the x-axis
b. the y-axis
c. the z-axis
d. the line 450 with the x-axis
Answer: B
1787. If two equations have the same line as their graph, the equations are said to be
a. dependent
b. consistent
c. independent
d. linear
Answer: A
1788. The points (a, 1), (b,2), (c,3) are collinear. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. c-b = c-a
b. c-b = b-a
c. c-a = a-b
d. c-a = b-a
Answer: B
1789. In a linear equation Ax + By + C = 0, if B = 0, then the equation has the form of x = -C/A.
This line is
a. 450 with the axis
b. intersecting the origin
c. parallel to the x-axis
d. parallel to the y-axis
Answer: D
1790. The straight lines 4x – y + 3 = 0 and 8x - 2y + 6 = 0 are
a. perpendicular to each other
b. parallel to each other
c. intersecting but not perpendicular
d. are coincident
Answer: D
1791. Which of the following is the intercept form if an equation for straight lines
a. y = mx + b
b. (x/a) + (y/b) = 1
c. y - y1 = m(x – x1)
d. (x - a) + (y - b) = 1
Answer: B
1792. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces
a. Depends on the composition of the materials only
b. Depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surfaces
c. Depends only on the finish condition of the surfaces
d. Does not depend on the materials
Answer: B
1793. The following type item, which is common to both the fixed and operating cost of an
enterprise is
a. Interest
b. Depreciation
 c. Taxes
d. Supplies
Answer: C
1794. The center of gravity of an isosceles triangle whose height H is on the median line
a. 2/3 from the vertex
b. 2/3 H form the vertex
c. 1/3 H from the vertex
d. ¾ H from the vertex
Answer: B
1795. The number of the board feet in a plank 2 inches thick, one foot wide and 20 feet long is
a. 400
b. 20
c. 40
d. power
Answer: C
1796. The nearest whole number to the value of 2/3 (700)2/3 is:
a. 312
b. 1,243
c. 12,433
d. 54
Answer: D
1797. Ninety degrees is equal to
a. 1500 radians
b. 3.142 rad
c. 1.57 rad
d. 1000 rad
Answer: C
1798. The standard acceleration due to gravity, g is equal to:
a. 64.34 ft/sec2
b. 32.2 ft2/sec
c. 980 ft/sec
d. 35.30 km/hr/sec
Answer: D
1799. Point “A” is an irregular shaped rotating body is 10 feet from an instantaneous axis. At
the same instant a point “B” in the body is to have twice the velocity
a. 5 ft
b. 240 inches
c. 305 cm
d. 6.2 meters
Answer: B
1800. Circular pitch times diametral pitch equals
a. π
b. 1/π
c. 1.0
d. π2
Answer: A
1801. A general principle in the motion of a body can be stated as follows (F = force, M = mass,
V = velocity, Δ = change, T = time)
 a. FT = MV
b. FΔT = MV2
c. FT = MΔV
d. FΔV = MΔT
Answer: C
1802. In mechanics, if mass (M), length (L), and time (T) are selected as primary units , force
(F) will have the following equation
a. F = MLT
b. F = MT2L-1
c. F = MLT2
d. F = ML-1T2
Answer: C