5 6251301191108526215

REASONING-II
MISCELLANEOUS-I
Q. 1. In a certain code DOWN is written as 5139 and NEAR is written as 9486. How is RODE written in
that code ?
(1) 6514 (2) 6154 (3) 9154 (4) 3154 (5) None of these
Q. 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BOARDING each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q. 3. How many such digits are there in the number 284371 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when they are arranged in descending order ?
Q. 4. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters AREN using each letter only
once in each word ?
Q. 5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group ?
(1) Table (2) Chair (3) Bench (4) Desk (5) Wood
(1) 27 (2) 64 (3) 125 (4) 216 (5) 384
Q. 7. If ‘Q’ means ‘+’; T means ‘-’; ‘R’ means ‘÷’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’ then
24 R 4 Q 8 K 6 T 10 = ?
2
(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 44 (4) (5) None of these
3
Q. 8. In a certain code ORGANISE is written as BHSPDRHM. How is DOUBTFUL written in that code?
(1) CVPEKTES (2) CVPIMVGU (3) ATNCKTES (4) ATNCMVGU (5) None of these
Q. 9. What should come next in the following letter series ?
AABABCABCDABCDEABCDEFABCDEF
(1) A (2) G (3) H (4) B (5) None of these
Q. 10. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the second, the fourth
and the tenth letters of the word M A J E S T I CA L, which of the following will be the second
letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such
word can be made, give ‘Y’ is the answer.
(1) M (2) E (3) L (4) X (5) Y
Q. 11-13:
(i) ‘P × Q; means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(ii) ‘P - Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iii)‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
Q. 11. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of N’ ?
(1) M × R - N (2) N ÷ J + M ÷ D (3) N ÷ J + M (4) N × J - M (5) None of these
Q. 12. Which of the following means “B is grandfather of F” ?
(1) B + J - F (2) B - J + F (3) B × T - F (4) B ÷ T + F (5) None of these
Q. 13. How is M related to K in the expression ‘B + K ÷ T × M’ ?
(1) Son (2) Daughter (3) Son or daughter (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q. 14. In a certain code language ‘ pit ne’ means ‘come here’; ‘ne ta ja’ means ‘come and go’ and ‘ja sa re’
means ‘you and me’. What does ‘ta’ mean in that code language ?
(1) come (2) and (3) here (4) go (5) Cannot be determined
Q. 15. ‘RT’ is related to ‘VX’ and ‘BD’ is related to ‘FH’, in the same way as ‘KM’ is related to———-
200 CLASS TEST REASONING - II

(1) NP (2) OR (3) OQ (4) PR (5) None of these
Q. 16. In a certain code BOARD is written as 53169 and NEAR is written as 2416. How is NODE written
in that code?
(1) 2394 (2) 2894 (3) 2934 (4) 2694 (5) None of these
Q. 17. What should come next in the following sequence of letters ?
BBCBCDBCDEBCDEFBCDEFGBCDEF
(l) B (2) G (3) H (4) D (5) None of these
Q. 18. In a certain code SPORADIC is written as QNORDJEB. How is TROUBLES written in that code?
(1) SQTNTFMC (2) TNQSRDKA (3) TNQSTFMC (4) TFQSCMFT (5) None of these
does not belong to that group?
(1) Mica (2) Zinc (3) Iron (4) Chlorine (5) Aluminium
Q. 20. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the third, the fifth and the eighth
letters of the word SHAREHOLDING, which of the following will be the second letter of that word?
If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made,
give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(1) L (2) E (3) S (4) X (5) Y
Q.21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
(1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 34 (5) 26
Q.22. If ‘green’ means ‘yellow’ ‘yellow’ means ‘white’; ‘white’ means ‘red’; ‘red’ means ‘violet’; ‘violet’
means ‘black’; then which of the following will be the colour of human blood?
(1) Red (2) Black (3) Green (4) White (5) None of these
Q.23. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GLIMPSE each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
Q.24. EARN is related to RANE and BOND is related to NODB in the same way as TEAR is related to
(1) AERT (1) ATRE (3) ARET (4) REAT (5) None of these
Q.25. How many such digits are there in the number 5831649 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?
Q. 26. If ‘×’ means ‘added to’; ‘÷’ means ‘multiplied by’; ‘+’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘-’ means ‘divided
by’ then
24 + 36 - 12 × 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(1) 36 (2) 53 (3) 5 (4) -20 (5) None of these
Q 27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
(1) Coconut (2) Lotus (3) Lilly (4) Rose (5) Marigold
Q. 28-30: (i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’
(ii) ‘P - Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
Q. 28 Which of the following represents ‘M is nephew of N’ ?
(1) N - K + M (2) N × K ÷ M (3) N ÷ K × M (4) N - K + M × T (5) None of these
Q. 29. How is T related to D in the expression : H + T ÷ R - D ?
(1) Nephew (2) Niece (3) Nephew or Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q. 30. Which of the following represents F is daughter of W ?
(1) W ÷ R + F (2) W × R × F (3) W + R × F - T (4) W + R - F + T (5) None of these
Q. 31. ‘34’ is related to ‘12’ in the same way as ‘64’ is related to 24. Similarly 59 is related to
(1) 45 (2) 14 (3) 42 (4) 38 (5) 47
CLASS TEST REASONING - II 201

Q. 32. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 3 (5) None of these
Q. 33. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each
of them has a different height, who among them will be the third from top when they are arranged
in descending order of their height ?
(1) R (2) P (3) S (4) Q (5) None of these
Q.34. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a
left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when
he stopped walking ?
(1) South (2) South-West (3) South-East
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
(1) BD (2) CE (3) Gl (4) FH (5) NL
Q. 36. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately
preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?
235789345761935748325788925
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.37. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits of the number
4671358, which is the perfect square of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the
digit in the tenth place of that two-digit odd number ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’
as the answer and if more than one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
(1) 2 (2) 9 (3) 3 (4) O (5) X
Q.38. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Who among them is the
oldest ?
(1) S (2) R (3) P (4) Can’t say (5) None of these
Q.39. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as $AD%F and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’
written in that code ?
(1) HAF$ (2) AFH$ (3) ADF$ (4) BHF$ (5) None of these
Q. 40. If ‘M’ denotes ‘  ’; ‘K’ denotes ‘-’; T denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then —
20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?
(1) 18 (2) -6 (3) -12 (4) -18 (5) None of these
Q.41. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather. How is the boy related
to Meena ?
(1) Brother (2) Cousin (3) Uncle (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q. 42. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N is sister of M. How is B related to N ?
(1) Sister (2) Aunt (3) Niece (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
(1) Fruit (2) Flower (3) Leaf (4) Petal (5) Tree
(1) 26 (2) 34 (3) 72 (4) 46 (5) 38
(1) Cuckoo (2) Crow (3) Bat (4) Parrot (5) Sparrow

REASONING-II
MISCELLANEOUS-II
Q. 1. In row of forty children, R is eleventh from the right end and there are fifteen children between R
and M. What is M’s position from the left end of the row?
(1) Fourteenth (2) Fifteenth (3) Thirteenth
Q. 2. In a certain code language 'how many are there' is written as *ka na ta da' and 'many are welcome
here' is written as 'na pi ni ka'. How is 'how' written in that code language?
(1) ta (2) da (3) ta or da (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q. 3. If the positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 83591427 are interchanged, similarly
the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on then which of the
following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 2 (5) None of these
Q. 4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ADJUSTING each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
Q. 5. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LBAE using each letter only
once in each word?
Q. 6. In a certain code BUILDER is written as JVCKSFE. How is SEALING written in that code?
(1) BTFKHOJ (2) DOHKBFT (3) TFBKHOJ (4) JBFTKJOH (5) None of these
Q. 7. If 'R' denotes ‘÷’; T denotes '–'; ‘M’, denotes '+' and ‘W’ denotes '×', then —
27 T 15 R 3 W 4 M 6 = ?
(1) 7 (2) 13 (3) –23 (4) 1 (5) None of these
Q. 8. In a certain code WAVE is written as ‘5%3’ and WINS is written as ‘59@©’. How is SANE written
in that code?
(1) ©9@ (2) %©@ (3) ©@% (4) ©%@ (5) None of these
Q. 9. Which of the following is the middle digit of the third highest among the five three-digit numbers
given below?
368 931 472 715 647
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 1 (5) 4
Q. 10. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is shorter than only T and S is shorter
than P and R. Who among them is the shortest?
(1) R (2) S (3) P (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q. 11. In a certain code GONE is written as ‘5%2#’ and MEDAL is written as ‘4#3$@’. How is GOLD
written in that code?
(1) 5@%3 (2) 5% @3 (3) 5#@3 (4) 5% #3 (5) None of these
Q. 12. The positions of how many digits in the number 89154326 will remain unchanged after the digits
within the number are rearranged in descending order?
(l) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q. 13. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different marks, B has scored more marks than E
and D. B has not scored the highest marks among them. Who among them scored the second-
highest marks?
(1) B (2) C (3) E (4) D (5) Data inadequate
Q. 14. In a certain code language ‘how old are you’ is written as ‘9 7 3 4’ and ‘he is old’ is written as ‘2
7 5’. How is ‘he’ written in that code language?
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 2 or 5 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q. 15. W walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 50 metres, again he took a left
turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(1) 80 metres (2) 100 metres (3)130 metres (4) 50 metres (5) None of these
Q. 16. In a certain code BLACK is written as ‘ALBKC and SMART is written as ‘AMSTR’. How is CLOCK
(1) CLOKE (2) CLOCK (3) OLCKC (4) OLCCK (5) None of these
Q. 17. What should come next in the following number series?
975311864229753186422975318642975
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 5 (5) None of these

Q.18. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 83416759 are interchanged. Similarly,
the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged, and so on. Which of the
following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6 (5) None of these
Q.19. M is brother of K. T is sister of K. R is father of M. J is wife of R. How many sons does J have?
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.20. In a certain code ‘GONE’ is written as ‘NOEGG’ and ‘LOAD’ is written as’ AODLL’. How is’ SORT’
(1) ROSTT (2) ROTSS (3) RSTOO (4) OTRSS (5) None of these
Q.21. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONTRAST each of which has as many
Q.22. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DREO using each letter only
once in each word?
Q.23. Pointing to a boy, Urmila said, “He is the son of my paternal grandfather’s only daughter.” How
is Urmila related to the boy?
(1) Mother (2) Maternal Aunt (3) Paternal Aunt
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.24. In a row of forty boys facing North, R is twelfth from the left end and T is eighteenth from the
right end. How many boys are between R and T in the row?
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12
Q.25. Mohit correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is not after eighteenth of April. His sister
correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twentieth but after seventeenth of
April. On which day in April was definitely their father’s birthday?
(1) Seventeenth (2) Nineteenth (3) Eighteenth
(4) Seventeenth or Eighteenth (5) None of these
Q. 26-28: Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
528 739 846 492 375
Q.26. Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the highest number?
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 13 (5) None of these
Q.27. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each number are interchanged, which of the
following will be the third digit of the second lowest number?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 2 (5) 5
Q.28. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each number are interchanged, which of the
following will be the middle digit of the third highest number?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 9 (5) 7
Q. 29-30: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) ‘P  Q’ means’ P is sister of Q’
(ii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iii) ‘P - Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
(iv) ‘P  Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
Q.29. Which of the following represents’ W is grandfather of H’?
(1) W + T - H (2) W  T - H (3) W  T + H (4) W  T + H (5) None of these
Q.30. Which of the following represents ‘M is nephew of R’?
(1) M  T - R (2) R  T - M (3) R  T + M  J (4) R  T - M  J (5) None of these
Q.31. If ‘R’ denotes ‘–’; ‘Q’ denotes ‘×’; ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, then ______
42 W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 = ?
(1) –22 (2) –168 (3) 22 (4) 28 (5) None of these
Q.32. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a
right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he
from the starting point ?
(1) 95 metres (2) 50 metres (3) 70 metres

Q.33. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet ?
CEA IKG OQM ?
(1) STW (2) WUS (3) SWU (4) UWS (5) None of these
Q.34. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits
are rearranged in descending order within the number ?
Q.35. What should come next in the following letter series ?
P Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A B C D E P Q R S A B C D P Q
(1) R (2) T (3) A (4) B (5) None of these
Q.36. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’, ‘can you come here’ is
written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that
code language ?
(1) ja (2) na (3) pa (4) Data inadequate(5) None of these
Q.37. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
Q.38. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘S@9#’ and NAME is written as ‘W6% 3’. How is MODE
written in that code ?
(1) %653 (2) %@63 (3) %5@3 (4) %@53 (5) None of these
Q. 39. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only
once in each word ?
Q.40. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that code ?
(1) VPTKKTE (2) VPTKETK (3) TPVKKTE (4) TNRKMVG (5) None of these
Q.41. In a certain code language 'how many goals scored' is written as '5 3 9 7'; 'many more matches' is
written as '9 8 2'; and 'he scored five' is written as '1 6 3'. How is 'goals' written in that code
language?
1) 5 2) 7 3) 5 or 7 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
Q.42. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?
1) RMNBSFEJ 2) BNMRSFEJ 3) RMNBJEFS 4) TOPDQDCH 5) None of these
Q.43. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only
once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
Q.44. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter
than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest?
1) B 2) E 3) C 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
Q.45. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit
is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending
order, which of the following will be the third digit from the left end afterthe rearrangement?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6 5) None of these
Q.46. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is before twentythird April but after
nineteenth April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is not on
or after twentysecond April. On which day in April is definitely their mother's birthday?
1) Twentieth 2) Twentyfirst
3) Twentieth or twentyfirst 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
Q.47. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 metres he took a right turn and walked 30
metres. He then took a right turn and walked 100 metres. He again took a right turn and walked
30 metres and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point?

1) 50 metres South 2) 150 metres North 3) 180 metres East
4) 50 metres North 5) None of these
Q.48. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’, ‘–’ means '×'; '×' means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘–’; then 15 – 8 × 6 ÷ 12 + 4 = ?
1) 20 2) 28 3) 8 4) 2 5) None of these
Q.49. Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards South
of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F?
1) East 2) South-East 3) North-East 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
Q.50. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
Q.51. The positions of how many digits in the number 53269718 will remain unchanged if the digits
within the number are rearranged in ascending order ?
Q.52. What should come next in the following letter series ?
I H G F E D C B A I H G F E D C I H G F E
(1) I (2) D (3) B (4) A (5) None of these
Q.53. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TSFI using each letter only
once in each word ?
Q.54. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHRONICLE each of which has as many
Q.55. Pointing to a boy, Sunita said "He is the son of my paternal grandfather's only son". How is the
boy related to Sunita ?
(1) Son (2) Nephew (3) Uncle
Q.56. If 'R' denotes 'divided by'; T denotes 'added to'; W denotes 'subtracted' from and 'B' denotes
'multiplied by', then_____
15 W 12 T 8 R 2 B 6 = ?
11 2
(1) (2) 3 (3) 27 (4) 3 (5) None of these
12 3
Q.57. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 89123654 are interchanged. Similarly
the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the
following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 1 (4) 2 (5) None of these
Q.58. In a certain code ARCHIVE is written as DSBGFWJ. How is SYSTEMS written in that code?
(1) TZTSTNF (2) TZTUTNF (3) TZTSFNT (4) RXRSTNF (5) None of these
Q.59. 'MP' is related to 'HK' in the same way as 'WZ' is related to_____?
(1) QS (2) RU (3) PS (4) QU (5) None of these
Q.60. In a certain code BASKET is written as '5%3#42' and ARM is written as '$% @9'. How is TERM
(1) 23@9 (2) 249@ (3) 42@9 (4) 24@9 (5) None of these

EXPLANATION
1. 1; R’s position = 11th from right 12. 5;
:. M’s position = (11 + 15 + 1 = ) 27th The given number : 8 9 1 5 4 3 2 6
from right In descending order : 9 8 6 5 4 3 2 1
= (40 - 27 + 1 = ) 14th from left
13. 5; A, B or C
2. 3; how many are there = ka na ta da ... (i)
14. 3; 2 or 5
many are welcome here = na pi ni ka
...(ii) From (i) and (ii), many are = ka na 15. 4
... (iii) Using (iii) in (i), we get: how = ta 16. 3; First write the first three letters in
or da reverse order and then the next two in
3. 1; 14278359 reverse order.
4. 4; 17. 3; 975311/86422/97531/86422/97531/
8642/9753/8642/
18. 2; The fourth digit from the right end is
A D J U S T I N G
the fifth digit from the left. But the first
digit becomes the fifth.
5. 3; ABLE and BALE 19. 4:
6. 5;
R(+) J(–)
BUI L DER
M(+) K T(–)
IUB L RED We don’t know the sex of K.
20. 2; The first letter becomes the fourth and
+1 -1 +1 fifth; the second remains as it is; the
third becomes the first; and the fourth
JVC K SFE becomes the third.
similarly, 21. 4;
SEA L ING CONTRAST
22. 2; RODE
AES L GNI
23. 5; Son of Urmila’s paternal grandfather’s
+1 -1 +1 only daughter
= son of Urmila’s paternal aunt
BFT K HOJ = Urmila’s cousin
Hence, Urmila is cousin of the boy.
7. 2; 27  15  3  4  6 24. 1; R = 12th from left
= 27 - 20 + 6 = 13 T = 18th from right = (40 - 18 + 1 = )
8. 4; 23rd from left
W A V E 1 N S :. No. of boys between R and T = 23 -12 -
1 = 10
5 % 3 * 9 @ ©
25. 3; According to Mohit: Apr 18 or earlier
:. SANE  © % @ • ....(i)
9. 5; 931 > 715 > 647 > 472 > 368 According to his sister; Apr 18 or 19 ...
10. 2; T > Q > (P,R) > S. (ii)
There is no information about R. From (i) and (ii), we get Apr 18.
11. 2; 26. 3; 8 + 4= 12
G O N E M D A L 27. 2; After interchange, the numbers become
5 % 2 # 4 3 $ @
258, 379, 486, 942 and 735. Among
these, the second lowest is 379 and its
:. GOLD  5% @3 third digit 9.
28. 3; The third highest number after the
interchange will be the one which now
has the third highest third digit, viz 846.

29. 5; 2, 3 and 4 are rejected because in them
W is only one generation away from H. THR I VES
1 is rejected because W is a female.
30. 4; 2 is rejected because we don’t know the
RHT I SEV
sex of M.
3 is rejected because M is a female. +1 -1 -1
Check 1 and 4.
(1)  M(+)-T(+) SIU H RDU
|
R Similarly,
Hence M is uncle of R.
(4)  R(+) - T(+) SOU L FUL
|
M(+)-J UOS L LUF
Hence M is nephew of R.
31. 3; 42  7  8  6  4  6  8  24  22 +1 -1 -1
32. 2;
VPT K KTE
O 41. 3; How many goals scored = 5 3 9 7 ... (i)
many more matches = 9 8 2 ... (ii)
30 m
he scored five = 163 ... (iii)

From (i) and (ii), many = 9 ... (iv)
15m From (i) and (iii), scored = 3 ... (v)
Using (iv) and (v) in (i), we get
goals = 5 or 7
20 m
42. 1; T E M P O R A L
P M E T L A R O
P
15 m -1 +1
O L D S M B S P
OP = 30m + 20m = 50 m
33. 4; Move six letters forward respectively.
34. 3; 4 and 2 Similarly,
C O N S I D E R
35. 1; PQRST/ABCDE/PQRS/ABCDE/PQRS/
ABCD/PQR
36. 2; how can you go = ja da ka pa ... (I) can S N O C R E D I
you come here = na ka sa ja ... (ii) come
–1 +1
and go = ra pa sa ... (iii)
From (i) and (ii), can you = ja ka .... (v)
From (ii) and (iii), come = sa ... (vi) R M N B S F E J
Using (v) and (vi) in (ii), we get here - na. 43. 3; L I E D and I D L E
37. 5; There are four such pairs. 44. 4; B, E > C > D > A
38. 4; 45. 2; 5 2 6 3 1 8 7  6 1 5 4 2 7 8  1 2 4 5 6 7
8
D O W N A M E 46. 3; According to Pratap: 20, 21 or 22 ... (i)
5 @ 9 # 6 % 3 According to his sister: not before 22
:. MODE  % @ 5 3 ... (ii)
39. 2; GLUE From (i) and (ii), the birthday falls on Apr
20 or 21.
40. 1; 3 1225043  ? 47. 4
48. 2; 15 × 8 ÷ 6 + 12 – 4 = 20 + 12 – 4 = 28

49. 4; 57. 3; 2nd digit from right = 7th digit from left
B N Now, 7th digit after rearrangement = 3rd
digit in the given number = 1
58. 1;
W E
F D ARC H IVE
S
CRA H EVI
+1 -1 +1
Now, H may lie anywhere on the dotted
line. DSB G FWJ
50. 4; S E A R C H E S Similarly,
51. 2; The given number: 5 3 2 6 9 7 1 8 SYS T EMS

In ascending order: 1 2 3 5 6 7 8 9
52. 1; IHGFEDCBA/IHGFEDC/IHGFE/I H G
SYS T SME
53. 3; FIST, FITS
54. 4 +1 -1 +1
55. 5; Son of Sunita’s paternal grandfather’s
only son T ZT S TNF
= Son of Sunita’s father
59. 2; Move five letters backward.
= Sunita’s brother
60. 4;
56. 3; 15 W 12 T 8 R 2 B 6 B A S K E T R M
= 15 - 12 + 8  2  6 5 % 3 # 4 2 @ 9
= 15 - 12 + 24
= 27 :. TERM  2 4 @ 9

REASONING-II
ODD ONE OUT-WORD
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) Teacher 2) Engineer 3) Architect 4) Doctor 5) Scientist
belong to the group?
1) Listen 2) Feel 3) Think 4) Sing 5) Hear
1) Anxiety 2) Anger 3) Sorrow 4) Joy 5) Feeling
4. Four of the following five words are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) Nine
1) Anxiety 2) Worry 3) Inhibition 4) Curiosity 5) Weariness
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one which is
different from the other four.
1) Rice 2) Wheat 3) Barley 4) Mustard 5) Bajra
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Find the one which is
different from the other four.
1) Arrow 2) Sword 3) Knife 4) Axe 5) Pistol
1) Pear 2) Jackfruit 3) Watermelon 4) Papaya 5) Mango
1) Pencil 2) Sharpener 3) Blackboard 4) Chalk 5) Pen
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not
1) Tortoise 2) Frog 3) Rat 4) Mongoose 5) Snake
1) Swan 2) Crocodile 3) Frog 4) Snake 5) Chicken
1) Coriander 2) Potato 3) Beetroot 4) Onion 5) Ginger
1) Crow 2) Vulture 3) Bat 4) Ostrich 5) Eagle
1) Volume 2) Size 3) Large 4) Shape 5) Weight
1) August 2) December 3) July 4) January 5) May
1) Jackal 2) Cheetah 3) Tiger 4) Lion 5) Dog
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the that does not
1) Cheese 2) Butter 3) Milk 4) Curd 5) Ghee
1) Sultry 2) Hot 3) Humid 4) Warm 5) Cool
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
1) Now 2) After 3) Then 4) Before 5) Again

REASONING-II
ODD ONE OUT-NUMBER
1) 64 2) 343 3) 144 4) 256 5) 36
1)216 2) 729 3) 2744 4) 2197 5) 3374
3. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
1) 13 2) 17 3) 19 4) 23 5) 27
1) 91 2) 93 3) 96 4) 95 5) 99
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following
1) 46 2) 52 3) 57 4) 68 5) 74
1) 170 2) 224 3) 325 4) 485 5) 530
is different from the group?
1)257 2) 575 3) 675 4) 143 5) 323
1) 46 2) 74 3) 58 4) 68 5) 62
1) 16 2) 81 3) 624 4) 1296 5)2401
1) 91 2) 117 3) 143 4) 193 5) 221
1) 46 2) 91 3) 37 4) 74 5) 19
1)737 2) 1067 3)1177 4) 1397 5) 1627
13. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
1)1349 2) 1728 3) 2197 4) 2744 5) 4913
1)69 2) 489 3)149 4) 229 5) 201
1) 58 2) 48 3) 74 4) 33 5) 65
16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
1) 169 2) 441 3) 361 4) 529 5) 289
1) 115 2) 85 3) 95 4) 75 5) 155
1) 196 2) 256 3) 529 4)576 5) 324
1) 93 2) 57 3) 69 4) 65 5) 87
1) 115 2)161 3) 253 4) 391 5) 345

REASONING-II
PAIR FORMATION
1. How many pairs of letters are there in the word DIPLOMACY which have the same number of letters
between them as in English alphabet?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these
2. How many pairs of letters are there in the word POPULATION, which have the same number of letters
1) Five 2) Six 3) Seven 4) More than seven 5) None of these
3. How many pairs of letters are there in the word PROBATIONARY which have as many letters
between them as in the English alphabet?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) None of these
4. How many pairs of letters are there in the word MEDITATION, which have the same number of
letters between them as in English alphabet?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these
5. How many pairs of letters are there in the word GUIDELINES, which have the same number of letters
1) Three 2) Five 3) Six 4) Four 5) Eight
6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SECRETARIES, which have the same number of
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) None of these
7. How many pairs of letters are there in the word WASTEBASKET which have the same number of
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Seven 5) None of these
8. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ROMANTICISM which have the same number of
9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word TECHNOCRATIC which have the same number of
10. How many pairs of letters are there in the word COMMERCIAL which have as many letters between
them as in the alphabet?
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8 5) None of these
11. How many pairs of letters are there in the word PRAKASHAN which have the same number of letters
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Nil 5) One
12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SUPPOSITION which have the same number of
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Seven 5) Eight
13. How many pairs of letters are there in the word STATIONMASTER, which have the same number of
1) Four 2) Five 3) Six 4) Seven 5) Nine
14. How many pairs of letters are there in the word PHARMACEUTICALS which have as many letters
15. How many pairs of letters are there in the word INTEGRATION which have the same number of

REASONING-II
WORD FORMATION
1. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 1st, 3rd, 4th and 7th letters of the word
HYPOTHESIS, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word
can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer.
1) M 2) X 3) E 4) P 5) None of these
2. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 2nd, 3rd, 5th and 8th letters of the word
PARAGRAPH, which of the following will be second letter of that word? If more than one such word
1) X 2) M 3) G 4) P 5) None of these
3. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, sixth, ninth and tenth letters of the word
DIRECTIONS using each letter only once, second letter of the word would be your answer. If more
than one such word can be formed, your answer would be ‘P’ and if no such word can be formed,
answer is ‘Q’.
1) E 2) N 3) P 4) Q 5) T
4. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the fourth and the last two letters of the
word PARTICULARS, using each letter only once, the second letter of the word would be your answer.
If more than one such word can be formed, your answer would be ‘D’ and if no such word can be
formed, answer is ‘E’.
1) E 2) D 3) A 4) R 5) None of these
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the first, second, third, seventh and ninth letters of the word
SECLUDEDNESS using each letter only once, third letter of the word would be your answer. If more than one
such word can be formed, your answer would be ‘P’ and if no such word can be formed, answer is ‘Q’.
1) P 2) E 3) Q 4) N 5) None of these
6. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 3rd, 5th, 9th and the last letters of the word
RESTATEMENT, which of the following will be first letter of that word? If more than one such word
1) E 2) X 3) S 4) M 5) None of these
7. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 3rd, 7th, 11th and the 13th letters of the word
STRANGULATION, which of the following will be first letter of that word? If more than one such word
1) M 2) X 3) I 4) R 5) None of these
8. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the 3rd, 5th, 6th, 8th, 10th and 12th letters of the
word QUADROPHONIC using each letter only once, third letter of the word would be your answer. If
more than one such word can be formed, your answer would be S and if no such word can be formed,
answer is M.
1) M 2) S 3) C 4) H 5) None of these
9. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the first, second, third and eleventh letters of the
word POSTGRADUATE, using each letter only once, write the second letter of that word as your
answer. If no such word can be formed, write X as your answer and if more than one such word can be
formed, write M as your answer.
1) P 2) O 3) T 4) M 5) X
10. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, third, fourth and fifth letters of the word
SECURITY, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If more than one such word
can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer, If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
1) E 2) U 3) X 4) M 5) None of these
11. If it is possible to make a meaningful English word with the fourth, the seventh and the tenth letters
of the word ‘ARISTOPATHOLOGY’ and the only vowel from the word ‘TOP’, the third letter of that word
is your answer. If more than one English word can be formed, ‘M’ is your answer. If no such word can
be formed, your answer is ‘N’.
1) O 2) P 3) S 4) M 5) N
12. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the 1st, 4th, 6th, and 7th letters of the word
SUPREMACIST, using each letter only once, third letter of the word would be your answer. If more than
one such word can be formed, your answer would be X and if no such word can be formed, answer is Y.
1) X 2) Y 3) A 4) R 5) None of these
13. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the 3rd, 5th, 6th, 8th, and 10th letters of the word
PAROCHIALISM, using each letter only once, third letter of the word would be your answer. If more
than one such word can be formed, your answer would be Y and if no such word can be formed, answer
is G.
1) Y 2) A 3) G 4) C 5) None of these

REASONING-II
CODING DECODING
TYPE - 1
1. In a certain code language NATIONALISM is written as OINTANMSAIL. How is DEPARTMENTS written
in that code?
(1) RADEPTSTMNE (2) RADPETSTMNE (3) RADPESTMTNE
(4) RADPETSTNME (5) None of these
2. In a certain code language OUTCOME is written as OQWWEQOE. How is REFRACT written in that
code?
(1) RTGITCET (2) RTGTICET (3) RTGITECT (4) RTGICTET (5) None of these
3. In a certain code language GEOPHYSICS is written as IOPDHZRJBT. How is ALTIMETERS written in
that code?
(1) NHULBFSDQT (2) NIUKBFSDQT (3) NHUKCFSDQT (4) NHUKBFSEQT (5) None of these
4. In a certain code BREAK is written as 2185111. How is SOLAR written in that code?
(1) 191512718 (2) 191512178 (3) 197512118 (4) 191512118 (5) 291512118
5. In a certain code language EMPHASIS is written as NDIOBRJR. How will CREATURE be written in
that code language?
(1) SBBDUTSD (2) QBBDTUSD (3) DSDBSTSF (4) SBDBUTDS (5) None of these
6. In a certain code language BORN is written as APQON and LACK is written as KBBLK. How will the
word GRID be written in that code language?
(1) FQHCD (2) FSHED (3) HSJED (4) FSHCD (5) None of these
7. In a certain code language STREAMLING is written as CGTVUHOJMN. How will the word PERIODICAL
be written in that language?
(1) PJSFQMNBJE (2) QKTGRMBDJE (3) QKTGRMCEKF (4) PJSFQMBDJE (5) None of these
8. In a certain code OVER is written as ‘48’ and BARE is written as ‘82’. How is OPEN written in that
code?
(1) 50 (2) 54 (3) 58 (4) 62 (5) 66
9. In a certain code language ‘OMNIPRESENT’ is written as ‘QJONPTSMDRD’. How is ‘CREDIBILITY’
(1) JEFSDCXSHKH (2) JEFSDDXSHKH (3) DSFEJDDXSHKH
(4) JEFSDXDSHKH (5) None of these
10. In a certain code language ‘POETRY’ is written as ‘99-99-99’ and ‘OVER’ is written as ‘60-60-60’. How
is ‘MORE’ written in that code?
(1) 50-50-50 (2) 51-51-51 (3) 52-52-52 (4) 53-53-53 (5) 54-54-54
11. In a certain code language ‘MOTHERS’ is written as ‘OMVGGPU’. How is ‘BROUGHT’ written in that
code?
(1) CPRTIEV (2) DPQSIFV (3) DPRTIDV (4) DPQTIFV (5) None of these
12. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in
that code?
(1) SUOPDNXRQDU (2) SUOPDNZTSFW (3) QSMNBPXRQDU
(4) QSMNBPZTSFW (5) None of these
13. In a certain code ‘CLOUD’ is written as ‘GTRKF’. How is SIGHT written in that code?
(1) WGJHV (2) UGHHT (3) UHJFW (4) WFJGV (5) None of these

14. In a certain code BREAKTHROUGH is written as EAOUHRBRGHKT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in
that code?
(1) STTIBUDIONRI (2) STTIBUONRIDI (3) TISTBUONDRI
(4) RISTTIBUDION (5) None of these
15. In a certain code BROUGHT is written as SGFVAQN. How is SUPREME written in that code?
(1) FNFSRTO (2) RTOSDLD (3) DLDSRTO (4) DLDSTVQ (5) None of these
16. In a certain code AROMATIC is written as BQPLBSJB. How is BRAIN written in that code?
(1) CQBJO (2) CSBJO (3) CQBHO (4) CSBHO (5) None of these
17. In a certain code language ‘SHORT’ is written as ‘ITOUS’ and ‘DWARF’ is written as ‘XEAGS’. How is
‘MANGO’ written in that code language?
(1) NBNHP (2) BNNPH (3) BNNHP (4) LBNPF (5) None of these
18. In a certain code language PROBLEM is written as MPERLOB. How will NUMBERS be written in that
code?
(1) SNUREMB (2) SNRUBME (3) SNRUEMB (4) SNRUMEB (5) None of these
19. In a certain code language the word DISTURB is written as DTWVUKF. How will the word FRANTIC be
written in that code language?
(1) EKUPDTH (2) FKCPVTH (3) EKVPCTH (4) FLVPCTH (5) None of these
20. In a certain code language ‘ROUTINE’ is written as ‘VMRGFLI’. How will ‘CRUELTY’ be written in that
code language?
(1) VPVCZRL (2) BGOVFIX (3) WPCVZRL (4) VOCVZRL (5) BGOVEIX
TYPE - 2
21. In a certain code ‘FEAR’ is written as ‘+×÷*’ and ‘READ’ is written as ‘*×÷$’. How is ‘FADE’ written in
that code?
(1) +÷$× (2) ×÷+$ (3) $÷+* (4) ÷$+× (5) None of these
22. In a certain code language GAME is written as ‘$ ÷ ¬ %’ and BEAD is written as ‘# % ÷ ×’. How will the
word MADE be written in that code language?
(1) $ ÷ × % (2) ¬ ÷ $ % (3) ¬ ÷ × % (4) # ÷ × % (5) None of these
23. In a certain code language ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘$£¬@’ and ‘SAFE’ is written as ‘l¬+£’. How is ‘FAME’
written in that code language?
(1) +¬$£ (2) ¬+$@ (3) +¬@$ (4) £@¬+ (5) None of these
24. In a certain code language BEAM is written as 5% * K and COME is written as $7K%. How is BOMB
(1) 5% K5 (2) 57K5 (3) $7K$ (4) 5$%5 (5) None of these
25. In a certain code CHAIR is written as # ¬l÷% and HIDE is written as ¬÷+$. How is DEAR written in
that code?
(1) $+l% (2) +$÷% (3) $+%÷ (4) +#l% (5) None of these
TYPE - 3
26. If red is called yellow, yellow is called blue, blue is called white, white is called green, green is called
pink and pink is called purple, then what is the colour of clear sky?
(1) Blue (2) Yellow (3) Pink (4) White (5) Purple
27. If bright is called dark, dark is called green, green is called blue, blue is called red, red is called white
and white is called yellow, then what is the colour of blood?
(1) Red (2) Dark (3) White (4) Yellow (5) None of these
28. If black means white, white means red, red means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means green, green
means purple and purple means orange, then what is the colour of clear sky?
(1) Green (2) Purple (3) Orange (4) Yellow (5) Blue

29. If home means sky, sky means bright, bright means rain, rain means green, green means air, air means
blue and blue means water, then where does a bird fly?
(1) Air (2) Sky (3) Bright (4) Rain (5) Home
30. If orange is called ghee, ghee is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey, honey is called orange,
then which of the following is used for washing clothes?
(1) Honey (2) Ghee (3) Orange (4) Soap (5) Ink
TYPE - 4
31. If in a certain code language ‘pen pencil’ is written as ‘$ £’, ‘eraser sharpener’ is written as @ #’, and
‘pencil eraser’ is written as ‘$ @’, then what is the code for ‘pen’?
(1) £ (2) @ (3) $ (4) # (5) None of these
Q. 32 - 35. Study the following information to anser the given questions:
In a certain code, ‘ze lo ka gi’ is a code for ‘must save some money’, ‘fe ka so ni’ is a code for
‘he made good money’, ‘ni lo da so’ is a code for ‘he must be good’ and ‘we so ze da’ is a code for
‘be good save grace’.
32. Which of the following is the code of ‘must’?.
(1) so (2) da (3) lo (4) ni (5) Can’t say
33. What does the code ‘ze’ stand for?
(1) some (2) must (3) be (4) grace (5) save
34. Which of the following is the code of ‘good’?
(1) so (2) we (3) ze (4) lo (5) fe
35. ‘grace of money’, may be coded as
(1) ka da fe (2) we ka so (3) ja da we (4) ka we yo (5) ja ka ze
Q.36-40. Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘mine lots of metal’ is written as
‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.
36. What is the code for ‘piece’?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 7 (5) Can’t say
37. What does ‘9’ stand for?
(1) of (2) mine (3) friend (4) lots (5) metal
38. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine’?
(1) 6 3 0 9 (2) 5 2 1 6 (3) 9 2 1 6 (4) 3 6 9 4 (5) 5 0 4 1
39. What does ‘0’ stand for ?
(1) mine (2) metal (3) of (4) lots (5) metal
40. ‘8 7 3’ would mean—-
(1) a metal piece (2) metal for friend (3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine (5) large metal piece
TYPE - 5
Directions (Q. 41-45): These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in
the English alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letter, with one
letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in capital letters. That

code is denoted by either 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 not in the same order. You have to find out the exact
code for the underlined letter in the word. The number of that code is the answer. Please
note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.
41. F L I E S
(1) N (2) G (3) P (4) F (5) C
42. S H O R E
(1) Q (2) G (3) J (4) U (5) T
43. F I G H T
(1) Q (2) F (3) G (4) C (5) D
44. S H I R T
(1) SU (2) HJ (3) GI (4) QS (5) RT
45. S C E N T
(1) I (2) G (3) R (4) W (5) X
TYPE - 6
Directions (Q.46-50): Each of the following questions has a word. The letters of the words
follow a code system. You have to find out the correct code for the underlined letters. Note
that same letters used in different words have the same code.
46. S T A I R
I. a II. c III. s IV. n V. z
(1) Either c or n (2) Either c or z (3) Can’t say (4) n (5) None of these
47. E N J O Y
I. e II. l III. f IV. w V d
(1) Either l or f (2) Either e or f (3) w (4) d (5) None of these
48. N O I S E
(1) l (2) c (3) z (4) f (5) d
49. O C E A N
(1) d (2) m (3) l (4) n (5) f
50. A F T E R
(1) n (2) u (3) s (4) d (5) a
TYPE - 7
Directions (Q. 51-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions based on it.
In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are coded on the basis of the structure of the word.
Numeric codes denoted for the letters of the word are in the same order as the letters of the word.
Study the code represented for a particular structure of the word. Find out the logic and answer the
questions that follow in two sets (I and II):
Word Code Word Code

OGRE [12] [24] [24] [12] ODE [30] [24] [30]
GOAT [24] [6] [6] [26] SUN [24] [36] [24]
EYE [30] [24] [30] RAIN [24] [6] [6] [24]
HOW [24] [36] [24] EDIT [18] [24] [18] [24]
HOPE [24] [42] [24] [42] DIRE [24] [42] [24] [42]
UPON [18] [24] [18] [24] ACME [12] [24] [24] [12]

Set I
Find out the code of the given word in capital letters
51. HOUR
(1) [24] [12] [12] [24] (2) [24] [6] [6] [24] (3) [24] [6] [12] [24]
(4) [6] [24] [24] [6] (5) None of these
52. ONCE
(1) [12] [6] [6] [12] (2) [6] [24] [24] [6] (3) [12] [24] [24] [12]
(4) [24] [12] [12] [24] (5) None of these
53. ICON
(1) [12] [6] [6] [12] (2) [6] [24] [24] [6] (3) [12] [24] [24] [12]
(4) [24] [18] [24] [18] (5) None of these
54. TEN
(1) [24] [36] [24] (2) [30] [24] [30] (3) [12] [36] [12]
(4) [6] [36] [6] (5) None of these
55. NI NE
(1) [42] [24] [42] [24] (2) [42] [24] [24] [42] (3) [24] [42] [42] [24]
(4) [24] [42] [24] [42] (5) None of these
Set II
Directions (Q. 56-60): For each question a code is followed by three words written in capital
letters. You have to decide which of the given three words can be denoted by the respective
code given in A, B and C. Choose appropriate answer from given answer choices.
56. [12] [24] [24] [12]
A. IRIS B. ANTE C. INCA
(1) Only A and B (2) Only B and C (3) Only A and C
(4) All of the above (5) None of these
57. [24] [6] [6] [24]
A. FEET B. DOES C. ACME
58. [30] [24] [30]
A. ATE B. ONE C. ERA
59. [24] [36] [24]
A. HUB B. SKY C. APE
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
(4) None of the above (5) None of these
60. [18] [24] [18] [24
A. VETO B. LATE C. DIME
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
(4) None of the above (5) None of these

TYPE - 8
Directions (Q. 61-70): The English alphabet is categorised into 5 groups, each starting with a
vowel and encompassing the immediately following consonants in the group. Thus, the first
group would have letters A, B, C and D; the second E, F, G and H; and so on. These groups are
assigned values as 10 for the first, 20 for the second, and so on, up to 50 for the last. Every
letter in a particular group will have the same value of the group when used to form words.
The value of each letter should add up to compute the value of the word. If the word has
letters only from the same group, the value of the word would be the value of the letter
multiplied by the number of letters in the word. However, if the letters in a word are from
different groups, the value of the first letter of the word and any other letter of that group
will be the same as that of its group, but that of the subsequent letter will be ‘double’ as much
as the value of its group.
For example: The value of ‘CAB’ will be 30 (i.e., 10 + 10 + 10) as all the three letters are from the first
group, each one having a value of 10.
The value of ‘BUT’ will be 10 + (50 × (2) + (40 × (2) = 190.
The value of ‘JUNK’ will be 30 + (50 × (2) + 30 + 30 = 190.
Now, find out the value of each word in the following questions:
61. AGE
(1) 50 (2) 90 (3) 60 (4) 70 (5) None of these
62. QUEUE
(1) 140 (2) 280 (3) 320 (4) 360 (5) None of these
63. SPORT
(1) 200 (2) 360 (3) 380 (4) 250 (5) None of these
64. HIGH
(1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 70 (4) 80 (5) None of these
65. SHOP
(1) 70 (2) 120 (3) 130 (4) 140 (5) None of these
Directions (Q. 66-70): Considering the information given for questions (Q. 61-65), find out
which one or two or three of the words denoted by A, B, C correspond to the given value?
66. 80
A) HEAD B) AHEAD C) ODD
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) B and C only (4) All the three (5) None of these
67. 200
A) HOW B) SKY C) BEGAY
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only (3) A and C only (4) A only (5) All the three
68. 230
A) PAWN B) WOLF C) DOWN
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A and C only (5) B and C only
69. 50
A) DAM B) MAD C) BAD
(1) A only (2) A and B only (3) B and C only (4) B only (5) None of these
70. 90
A) BEG B) WAD C) NOD
(1) A only (2) B only (3) C only (4) A and B only (5) All the three

TYPE - 9
Directions (Q. 71-75): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it:
Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows:
Digit 7 3 5 0 2 1 6 4 9 8
Code N H L T F D R Q G P
Following conditions are to be observed:

i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd they are to be coded as $ and @ respectively.
ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even they are to be coded as # and £ respectively.
iii) If 0 is preceded as well as followed by an odd digit then 0 is to be coded as *.
iv) If 0 is preceded as well as followed by even digit then 0 is to be coded as  .
v) 0 is not considered as either even or odd.
71. What will be the code for 1375490?
(1) DHNLQGT (2) #HNLQG£ (3) DHNLQG*
(4) £HNLQG# (5) None of these
72. $ Q R L * H @ is the code for which of the following numbers?
(1) 8456037 (2) 8465032 (3) 6475031
(4) 6460539 (5) None of these
73. Q L P  R N T is the code for which of the following numbers?
(1) 4570680 (2) 4780650 (3) 6580470
(1) £RF  QP# (2) #RF  QP£ (3) #RF*QP£
(4) £RF*QP# (5) None of these
(1) #RFL**G£ (2) $RFLTTG@ (3) #RFLTTG£
(4) $RFL**G@ (5) None of these
given below:
The consonants of English alphabet have been coded by using digits 1 to 8 and the vowels have
been coded by using different symbols.
Letters G B K H Z M F
R V C S D Q X
J N T L W Y P
Digit 5 4 1 3 2 8 7
If any vowel is neither in the beginning nor at the end, it is coded as ‘6’. If any vowel is at the
beginning or at the end, it is coded as ‘9’. However, if the same vowel is placed at both beginning and
the end, it is coded as ‘$’ at both the places.
How will the following letter-groups be coded?
76. PKDEJHI
(1) 712653$ (2) 7129539 (3) 7126539 (4) 712$53$ (5) None of these
77. AFDQENI
(1) 9728649 (2) $72864$ (3) 9728949 (4) 6728949 (5) None of these

78. OPTIONAL
(1) $7166463 (2) $7199493 (3) 67199493 (4) 97166463 (5) None of these
79. EGTARLQE
(1) 95165389 (2) 65195386 (3) $519538$ (4) $51$538$ (5) None of these
80. ENIANGE
(1) $4$$45$ (2) 9466459 (3) $46645$ (4) 6499456 (5) None of these
TYPE - 10
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is @ and for 1 is $. There are no other symbols for all other
numbers greater than one. The numbers greater than 1 are to be written only by using the two
symbols given above. The value of the symbol for 1, doubles itself every time it shifts one place to the
left. Study the following example:
‘0’ is written as @
‘1’ is written as $
‘2’ is written as $@
‘3’ is written as $$
‘4’ is written as $@@ and so on
81. Which of the following will represent 11?
(1) $@$$ (2) @$$@ (3) $$@@ (4) $@$@@ (5) None of these
82. Which of the following will represent 8?
(1) $$@@ (2) @$$@ (3) $$@@ (4) @@$$ (5) None of these
83. Which of the following numbers will be represented by $$@$?
(1) 8 (2) 11 (3) 13 (4) 12 (5) None of these
84. Which of the following will represent the value of the product 3 × 3 + 1?
(1) $$@$ (2) $@$@ (3) $@@$$ (4) $$$ (5) None of these
85. Which of the following numbers will be represented by $@@@$?
(1) 22 (2) 31 (3) 14 (4) 17 (5) None of these
given below.
In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is  and for 1 is $. There is no other symbol for all other
numbers greater than 1. The numbers greater than 1 are to be written using only the two symbols
given above. The value of symbol for 1 doubles itself everytime it shifts one place to the left. Study the
following example.
‘0’ is written as  ‘1’ is written as $
‘2’ is written as $  ‘3’ is written as $$
‘4’ is written as $   and so on.
86. Which of the following will represent 7 × (1 + 4 ÷ (2)?
(1) $  $  $ (2) $$  $  (3) $   $$ (4) $   $  (5) None of these
87. Which of the following symbol arrangement will represent ‘9’?
(1)  $$$ (2) $  $  (3) $   $ (4) $$   (5) None of these
88. The symbol arrangement $   $$ represents which of the following numbers?
(1) 18 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 16 (5) None of these
89. The symbol arrangment $$   $  represents which of the following?
(1) 28 (2) 48 (3) 26 (4) 50 (5) None of these
90. Which of the following represents the number 24?
(1) $   $  (2) $$    (3) $$$   (4) $   $$ (5) None of these

TYPE - 11
Directions (Q. 91-95): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions based on it.
In each of the following questions two keywords have been written in a code language. The
letters in the code equivalent are not necessarily in the same order as letters in the keyword for
which they stand. Under them a third word has been given which has been written in five different
code languages including the one in which the keywords have been written. Find the alternative
which may be the code equivalent in the code of the keywords. That is your answer.
91. POSTMAN bf glrvz
OMEN d f r z
NORTH
(1) d f r v z (2) d f g r z (3) b c l r z
(4) b c f o z (5) g l r v z
92. STEAL fjkps
EARN fnpt
BLEAK
(1) g n k p t (2) f g j k p (3) f g j m p
(4) f j n p s (5) f j k n t
93. RAISE n pr t u
CLASH bruxy
SLATE
(1) n r u x y (2) n p r u y (3) n p r t y
(4) m n r u y (5) u x n p r
94. COLUMN a i o q r w
BIRTH gmtvx
LENGTH
(1) m r s t w x (2) g r t u v w (3) k m n r v w
(4) a i m v w y (5) m t v i o q
95. MASTER bnpqvx
SECOND a b j n o w
NORTH
(1) a m v w x (2) a b n v x (3) b n q v x
(4) a b n w x (5) a b j n p

REASONING-II
CODED EQUATION
1. If R means × , D means ÷, A means + and S means -, then what is the value of
95 D 19 R 11 S 28 A 17 ?
1) 34 2) 46 3) 35 4) 48 5) 44
2. If ‘P’ means ‘×’, R means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘÷’ and S means ‘-’, then 18T3P9S8R6 = ?
1 2
1)  1 2) 46 3) 58 4) 5) 52
3 3
3. If ‘<’ means ‘minus’, ‘>’ means ‘plus’, ‘=’ means ‘multiplied by’, and ‘$’ means ‘divided by’, then what
would be the value of 27 > 81 $ 9 < 8 = 2
1) 20 2) -4 3) 8 4) 56 5) None of these
4. If ‘P’ means ‘division’, ‘T’ means ‘addition’, ‘M’ means ‘subtraction’, and ‘D’ means ‘multiplication’,
then what will be the value of the expression: 12 M 12 D 28 P 7 T 15 = ?
1) -15 2) 45 3) –30 4) 15 5) -21
5. If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’; ‘-’ means ‘added to’; ‘×’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘÷’ means ‘multiplied by’,
then what is the value of 24 ÷ 12 – 18 + 9?
1) 15.30 2) 290 3) -25 4) 0.72 5) None of these
6. If $ means ‘plus (+)’, # means ‘minus (–)’, @ means ‘multiplied (×)’, and  means ‘divided (  )’, then
what is the value of ‘16 $ 4 @ 5 # 72  8’ ?
1) 29 2) 27 3) 25 4) 36 5) None of these
7. If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’, means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’ in the given equation, then
217  310  190  114190  100  50  ?
1) 40 2) 60 3) 80 4) 100 5) 10 (approx)
8. If ‘L’ means ‘×’, ‘M’ means ‘+’, ‘N’ means ‘÷’ and ‘P’ means ‘-’, then 14N2L7P25M1 = ?
1) -25 2) -23 3) 25 4) 24 5) None of these
9. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’ and ‘×’ means ‘+’ then what is the value of
6×3÷2–2+5
1 3 2
1) 8 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5
5 5 7
10. If P denotes ÷; Q denotes ×; R denotes +; and S denotes –; then
18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?
1) 51 2) 57 3) 53 4) 95 5) 0
11. If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then find the value of 14 × 3 ÷ 11 – 3 + 101
1) 63.3 2)  63.3 3) 63.48 4) 63.3 5) –63
12. If ‘’ means ‘×’, ‘#’ means ‘–’, ‘@’ means ‘÷’ and ‘$’ means ‘+’ then
25 # 5 $ 3  4 @ 6 = ?
1) 12 2) 15.3 3) 22 4) 8 5) None of these
13. If ‘–’ means ‘÷’, ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, then which of the following equations is
correct?
1) 36 – 12 × 6 ÷ 3 + 4 = 60 2) 43 × 7 ÷ 5 + 4 – 8 = 25 3) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5 ÷ 3 = 420
4) 52 ÷ 4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 5) None of these
14. If ‘+’ is written as ‘×’, ‘–’ is written as ‘÷’, ‘×’ is written as ‘–’ and ‘÷’ is written as ‘+’, than what is the
actual value of 72 + 9 × 45 - 5 ÷ 42 - 6?
1) 648 2) 646 3) 656 4) 636 5) -19
15. If ‘P’ means ‘–’, ‘Q’ means ‘×’, ‘R’ means ‘÷’ and ‘S’ means ‘+’, then what will be the value of the
following expression? 8Q7S30R15P10
1) 33 2) 39 3) 48 4) 49 5) 42
16. If ‘P’ means ‘+’, ‘Q’ means ‘×’, ‘R’ means ‘÷’ and ‘T’ means ‘–’ then what will be the value of
120 R 15 Q 5 P 16 T 22
1) –34 2) 16 3) –35 4) 35 5) 34
17. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘–’ means ‘×’ and ‘÷’ means ‘–’ then what will be the value of
800 + 20 – 4 × 40 ÷ 10 ?
1) 3984 2) 984 3) 3264 4) 190 5) 200
18. If ‘A’ means ‘×’, ‘B’ means ‘÷’, ‘C’ means ‘+’ and ‘D’ means ‘–’ then what is the value of
180 B 15 D 11 C 8 A 10?
1) –79 2) 102 3) 83 4) 92 5) 81
19. If ‘+’ stands for ‘–’, ‘÷’ stands for ‘+’, ‘–’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘×’ stands for ‘÷’, then which one of the
following equations is correct?
1) 265 + 11 – 2 × 14 = 22 2) 2 – 14 × 4 ÷ 11 = 16 3) 46 – 10 + 10 × 5 = 92
4) 66 × 3 – 11 + 12 = 230 5) None of these
20. If ‘P’ means ‘×’, ‘Q’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’ and ‘S’ means ‘–’, then what is value of
154 Q 14 S 7 P 3 R 25 ?
1) 35 2) 57 3) 42 4) 25 5) 15

REASONING-II
MATHEMATICAL INPUT
Q.1-5: In each of the following question, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each
row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows
of numbers are to be answered. The operation of numbers progress from left to right
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be multiplied,
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to
be subtracted from the perfect square,
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number,
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the
first one.
Q. 1. 58 17 5
85 5 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 255 (2) 32 (3) 49 (4) 34 (5) None of these
Q. 2. 24 64 15
m 11 15
If m is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 165 (2) 75 (3) 20 (4) 3 (5) None of these
Q. 3. 7 21 3
d 7 33
If d is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 40 (2) 138 (3) 231 (4) 80 (5) None of these
Q. 4. 73 34 13
32 p 15
If p is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 713 (2) 50 (3) 20 (4) 525 (5) None of these
Q.5. 14 5 9
24 w 88
if w is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(1) 171 (2) 283 (3) 195 (4) 165 (5) None of these
Q.6-10: In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each
of numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be divided by
the second one.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied,
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are be added,
(iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square, the
second number is to be subtracted from the first number,
(v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect square, the
first number is to be divided by the second number.
Q. 6. 16 7 25
m 23 22
If 'm' is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 132 (2) 88 (3) 122 (4) 78 (5) 5
Q. 7. 97 45 71
48 8 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(1) 68 (2) 19 (3) 147 (4) 64 (5) None of these
Q. 8. 125 64 33
282 x 39
If 'x' is resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 45 (2) 42 (3) 39 (4) 36 (5) None of these
Q.9. 84 14 13
360 24 17
What is the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row ?
(1) 100 (2) 46 (3) 56 (4) 90 (5) None of these

Q.10. 24 7 81
x 27 19
If 'x' is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 87 (2) 114 (3) 4 (4) 6 (5) None of these
Q. 11-15: In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each
row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows
of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a two digit odd number they are to be added.
(ii) If a two digit even number is followed by a two digit odd number which is the perfect square,
the even number is to be subtracted from the odd number,
(iii) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number the first number is to be divided by
the second number.
(iv) If a prime number is followed by an even number the two are to be added.
(v) If an even number is followed by another even number the two are to be multiplied.
Q. 11. 23 15 12
X 24 49
If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 22 (5) None of these
Q. 12. 37 12 21
38 81 14
What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows ?
(1) 23 (2) 32 (3) 13 (4) 18 (5) None of these
Q. 13. 16 8 32
132 11 X2
If X is the resultant of first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 192 (2) 128 (3) 132 (4) 144 (5) None of these
Q. 14. 345 23 X
45 17 81
If X is the resultant of the second row, what is the resultant of the first row ?
(1) 285 (2) 33 (3) 135 (4) 34 (5) None of these
Q. 15. 12 28 84
37 22 18
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(1) 77 (2) 87 (3) 84 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q. 16-20: In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each
is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules:
(i) If an even number is followed by another even number they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, they are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the even number is to be subtracted from
the odd number.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by another odd number, the first number is to be added to the
square of the second number.
(v) If an even number is followed by a composite odd number, the even number is to be divided by
the odd number.
Q. 16. I. 84 21 13
II. 15 11 44
What is half of the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
(1) 116 (2) 132 (3) 232 (4) 236 (5) None of these
Q. 17. I. 45 18 12
II. 22 14 9
What is the product of the resultants of the two rows ?
(1) 75 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 64 (5) None of these
Q. 18. I. 12 7 16
II. 79 28 15
What is the difference between the resultants of the second row and the first row?
(1) 276 (2) 176 (3) 100 (4) 156 (5) None of these
Q. 19. I. 36 13 39
II. 77 30 7
What will be the outcome if the resultant of the second row is divided by the resultant of the first
row?
(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 6 (5) None of these

Q. 20. I. 65 11 12
II. 15 3 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
(1) 366 (2) 66 (3) 264 (4) 462 (5) None of these
Q. 21-25: In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant of each row is
to be worked out separately based on the following rules, and the question below the row of
numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers in each row progress from left to right.
Rules:
(i) If an odd number is followed by another odd number, they are to be multiplied.
(ii) If an even number is followed by another even number, the first number is to be divided by
the second even number.
(iii) If an even number is followed by the perfect square of an odd number, the first number is to
be subtracted from the second number.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by an even number the two are to be added.
(v) If an even number is followed by an odd number which is not a perfect square, the square of
the odd number is to be added to the even number.
Q. 21. 96 16 81 = x
11 15 18 = y
What is the value of y - 2x?
(1) 108 (2) 33 (3) 105 (4) 36 (5) None of these
Q. 22. 28 49 13 = x
37 12 22 = y
What will be the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
(1) 108 (2) 244 (3) 102 (4) 344 (5) None of these
Q. 23. 18 5 17 = x
64 8 11 = y
What will be the value of x + y?
(1) 189 (2) 129 (3) 69 (4) 169 (5) None of these
Q. 24. 9 15 50 = x
12 25 24 = y
What will be the value of x ÷ y?
(1) 18 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) None of these
Q. 25. 56 14 9
36 12 7
What will be the difference between the resultants of the two rows?
(1) 14 (2) 21 (3) 5 (4) 26 (5) None of these
Q. 26-30: In a certain instruction system, the different computation processes are written as follows:
(a) x$y%z means x is added to the product of y and z.
(b) x#y@z means x is multiplied by y and the resultant is subtracted from z.
(c) x©ykz means x is added to y and the resultant is divided by z.
(d) x!ylz means y is multiplied by z and the resultant is divided by x.
26. 22 $ 15 % 8 = n
n©2k6=?
(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 22 (5) None of these
27. 24 # 5 @ 150 = m
m © 18 k 16 = ?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 12 (5) None of these
28. 60 ! 36 l 15 = g
2#3@g=?
(1) 12 (2) 3 (3) 15 (4) 8 (5) None of these
29. 17 # 4 @ 88 = p
5 ! p l4 = ?
(1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 85 (4) 68 (5) None of these
30. 32 $ 8 % 5 = t
t © 12 k 7 = ?
(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 12 (5) None of these

EXPLANATION
1-5: R1 = Resultant of the first row 6. 5; 5
R2 = Resultant of the second row 16 7 25
 112 25 [Used rule (ii)]
1. 1; 58 17 5
 87 [Used rule (iv)]
 75 5 [Used rule (ii)]
 m = 87
 15 [Used rule (iv)]
Now, let us find R 2 .
 n = 15
Now, let us find R 2 87 23 22
85 5 15  110 22 [Used rule (iii)]
 5 [Used rule (v)]
 17 15 [Used rule (iv)]
7. 1; 97 45 71
 255 [Used rule (i)]
 142 71 [Used rule (iii)]
 R 2 = 255
 2 [Used rule (v)]
2. 2; 24 64 15
 (64 - 24) 15 [Used rule (iii)]  R1 = 2
 40 15 [Used rule (ii)] Now, let us find R 2 .
 55 48 8 11
 m = 55  6 11 [Used rule (i)]
Now, let us find R 2 .  66 [Used rule (ii)]
55 11 15
 R 2 = 66
 5 15 [Used rule (iv)]
Hence, the required sum
 75 [Used rule (i)]
 R 2 = 75 = R1  R 2 = 2 + 66 = 68
3. 3; 7 21 3 8. 2; 125 64 33
 147 3 [Used rule (i)]  61 33 [Used rule (v)]
 49 [Used rule (iv)]  94 [Used rule (iii)]
 d = 49  x = 94
Now, let us find R 2 . Now, let us find R 2 .
49 7 33 282 x 39
 7 33 [Used rule (iv)] 282 94 39
 231 [Used rule (i)]  3 39 [Used rule (v)]
 R 2 = 231  42 [Used rule (iii)]
4. 4; 73 34 13  R 2 = 42
 39 13 [Used rule (v)] 9. 2; 84 14 13
 3 [Used rule (iv)]  6 13 [Used rule (i)]
 p=3  78 [Used rule (ii)]
 R1 = 78
32 3 15
 35 15 [Used rule (ii)] Let us find R 2 .
 525 [Used rule (i)] 360 24 17
 R 2 = 525  15 17 [Used rule (v)]
 32 [Used rule (iii)]
5. 5; 107
14 5 9  R 2 = 32
 19 9 [Used rule (ii)] Now, the required difference
 171 [Used rule (i)] = R1  R2 = 78 - 32 = 46
 w = 171 10. 4; 24 7 81
Now, let us find R 2 .  168 81 [Used rule (ii)]
27 171 88  87 [Used rule (iv)]
 195 88 [Used rule (ii)]  x = 87
 107 [Used rule (v)] Now, let us find R 2 .
87 27 19

 114 19 [Used rule (iii)] 16. 1; R1 = 84 21 13
 6 [Used rule (iv)] = (84 ÷ 21) 13 [Use rule (v)]
= 4 13
 R2 = 6
= 4 × 13 [Use rule (ii)]
11. 5; Let us find the value of X R1  .
= 52
23 15 12
R2 = 15 11 44
 38 12 [Used rule (i)]
2
= (15 + 11 ) 44 [Use rule (iv)]
 456 R1  [Used rule (v)]
= 136 44
= 180 [Use rule (i)]
456 24 49 [Used rule (iii)]
Now the required value
 19 49 [Used rule (i)]
 68  R 2 = 68 R1  R 2 52  180
=  = 116
12. 3; Let us find R1 and R 2 2 2
R1 = 37 12 21 17. 5; R1 = 45 18 12
= 49 21 [Used rule (iv)] = 27 12 [Use rule (iii)]
= 70 [Used rule (i)] = 15 [Use rule (iii)]
Now, R2 = 22 14 9
R 2 = 38 81 14 = 36 9 [Use rule (i)]
= 43 14 [Used rule (iii)] =4 [Use rule (v)]
= 57 [Used rule (iv)]
Now, the required value of R1 × R2 = 15 × 4 =
Thus, the reqired difference = 70 - 57 = 13 60
13. 1; Let us find R1 . 18. 2; R1 = 12 7 16
R1 = 16 8 32 = 84 16 [Use rule (ii)]
= 128 32 [Used rule (v)] = 100 [Use rule (i)]
= 4 [Used rule (iii)] R2 = 79 28 15
Now,
= 51 15 [Use rule (iii)]
R 2 = 132 11 42 2
= 51 + 15 [Use rule (iv)]
= 12 16 [Used rule (iii)]
= 276
= 192 [Used rule (v)]
Hence the required difference
14. 4; Let us find R 2 .
= R2 - R1 = 276 - 100 = 176
R 2 = 45 17 81
19. 3; R1 = 36 13 39
= 62 81 [Used rule (i)]
= 468 39 [Use rule (ii)]
= 19 [Used rule (ii)]
= 12 [Use rule (v)]
Now,
R1 = 345 23 19 R2 = 77 30 7
= 15 19 [Used rule (iii)] = 47 7 [Use rule (iii)]
= 34 [Used rule (i)] = 96 [Use rule (iv)]

15. 5; Here, Now the required value of R2 ÷ R1 = 8
R1 = 12 28 84 20. 4; R1 = 65 11 12
= 336 84 [Used rule (v)] = 186 12 [Use rule (iv)]
= 4 [Used rule (iii)] = 198 [Use rule (i)]
Now, R2 = 15 3 11
R 2 = 37 22 18 = 24 11 [Use rule (iv)]
= 59 18 [Used rule (iv)] = 264 [Use rule (ii)]
= 77 [Used rule (iv)] Hence the required value of R1 + R2
Now, the reqired sum = 4 + 77 = 81 = 198 + 264 = 462

21-25: Read the rules carefully before reading the 25. 5; 56 14 9
explanations.  (56 ÷ 14) 9 [Use rule (ii)]
21. 2; 96 16 81  4 9
 6 81 [Use rule (ii)]  (9 - 4) = 5 [Use rule (iii)]
 81 - 6 = 75 [Use rule (iii)]  x=5
 x = 75 Again,
Again, 36 12 7
11 15 18  (36 ÷ 12) 7 [Use rule (ii)]
 165 18 [Use rule (i)]  3 7 [Use rule (i)]
 183 [Use rule (iv)]  3 × 7 = 21
 y = 183  y = 21
Now, y - 2x 26. 5; Here; 22 $ 15 % 8
= 183 - 2 × 75 = 33 = 22 + 15 × 8 [Use (a)]
22. 4; 28 49 13 = 22 + 120
 (49 - 28) 13 = 142 = n
 21 13 [Use rule (iii)] Now, n © 2 k 6
= 273 [Use rule (i)] = 142 © 2 k 6
 x = 273
142  2
Again, = 6
[Use (c)]
37 12 22 = 24
 49 22 [Use rule (iv)] 27. 3; Here, 24 # 5 @ 150
= 71 [Use rule (iv)]
= 150 - 24 × 5 [Use (b)]
 y = 71
= 30 = m
Now x + y = 273 + 71 = 344
Now, 30 © 18 k 16
23. 5; 18 5 17
2
 5 8 17 [Use rule (v)] 30  18
= 16 [Use (c)]
 33 17
=3
= 561 [Use rule (i)]
28. 2; Here, 60 ! 36 l 15
 x = 561
Again, 3615
= [Use (d)]
64 8 11 60
 64 ÷ 8 11 [Use rule (ii)] =9=g
 8 11 Now, 2 # 3 @ 9
= 129 [Use rule (v)] = 9 - (2 × (3)
 y = 129 =9-6
Now, =3
x + y = 561 + 129 = 690 29. 1; Here, 17 # 4 @ 88
24. 3; 9 15 50 = 88 - (17 × (4) [Used (b)]
 9 × 15 50 [Use rule (i)] = 20 = p
 135 50 Now, 5 ! 20 l 4
 135 + 50 [Use rule (iv)]
20 4
= 185 = = 16 [Use (d)]
5
 x = 185
30. 4; Here, 32 $ 8 % 5
Again,
= 32 + (8 × (5) [Use (a)]
12 25 24
= 32 + 40
 (25 - 12) 24 [Use rule (iii)]
 13 24 = 72 = t
 (13 + 24) [Use rule (iv)] Now, t © 12 k 7

= 37 = 72 © 12 k 7 [Use (c)]
 y = 37 72  12 84
=  = 12
Now, x ÷ y = 185 ÷ 37 = 5 7 7

REASONING-II
RANKING AND SEQUENCE
1. Out of the five car manufacturing companies A, B, C, D and E, the production of company B is more
than that of company A but not more than that of company E. Production of company C is more than
the production of company B but not as much as the production of company D. Considering the
information to be true, which of the following is definitely true?
1) Production of company D is highest of all the five companies.
2) Company C produces more number of cars than Company E.
3) The numbers of cars manufactured by companies E and C are equal.
4) Company A produces the lowest number of cars.

5) None of these
2. Rajnish is older than Rajesh and Raman. Ramesh is older than Rajesh but younger than Rajeev.
Raman is older than Rajeev. Who among them is oldest?
1) Rajeev 2) Rajesh 3) Rajnish 4) Ramesh 5) None of these
3. A, B, C, D and E, when arranged in descending order of their weight from top, A becomes third, E is
between D and A, C and D are not at the top. Who among them is the second?
1) C 2) B 3) E 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
4. If Anju is taller than Rohini but shorter than Manju and Rohini is as tall as Sarayu but taller than
Shubhangi, then Sarayu is
1) taller than Manju 2) shorter than Anju 3) as tall as Anju
4) shorter than Shubhangi 5) is shorter than Rohini
5. Mohan and Suresh study in the same class. Mohan has secured more marks than Suresh in the
terminal examination. Suresh’s rank is seventh from top among all the students in the class. Which
of the following is definitely true?
1) Mohan stood first in the terminal examination.
2) There is at least one student between Mohan and Suresh in the rank list.
3) There are at most five students between Mohan and Suresh in the rank list.
4) Suresh is five ranks lower than Mohan in the rank list
5) None of these
6. Among four persons, B is taller than C. A is taller than D, but not as tall as C. Who among them is the
tallest?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
7. In a unit test Suman’s marks in Mathematics is more than her marks in History but not more than
Geography. Her marks in Science is more than that in History but not as much as in Mathematics
and her marks in English is not as much as in Geography. In which of the given subjects did she score
the lowest?
1) History 2) English 3) Science 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
8. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are standing in a row facing South but not necessarily in the same order.
Only B is between A and E, C is immediate right to E, and D is immediate left to A. On the basis of
above information, which of the following statements is definitely true?
1) B is to the right of E 2) A is second to the left of C
3) D is third to the left of E 4) B is to the left of A 5) None of these
9. Ten boys are standing in a row facing the same direction. Abhijit, who is seventh from the left end of
the row, is to the immediate right of Sushant, who is fifth from the right end of the row. Sushant is
third to the right of Rupin. How many children are there between Abhijit and Rupin?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

10. In a row of children standing facing South, Nidhi is seventh from the left end and Rajan is fourth from
the right. When Nidhi is shifted two places towards right and Rajan three places left, then there are
five children between them. How many children are standing in the row?
1) 25 2) 21 3) 19 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
11. Fifteen children are standing in a row facing north. Ravi is to the immediate left of Prabha and is
eighth from the left end. Arjun is second from the right end. Which of the following statements is not
true?
1) Prabha is 7th from right end.
2) There are four children between Prabha and Arjun.
3) There are five children between Ravi and Arjun.
4) Arjun is 13th from the left end.
5) Ravi is exactly in the middle.
12. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table. R is to the right of P and is second to the left of S.
T is not between P and S. Who is second to the left of R?
1) S 2) T 3) Q 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
13. In a row of boys Akash is fifth from the left and Nikhil is eleventh from the right. If Akash is twenty-
fifth from the right then how many boys are there between Akash and Nikhil?
1) 14 2) 13 3) 15 4) 12 5) None of these
14. Haresh is 27th from the left end of a row of 49 boys and Mahesh is 27th from the right end in the same
row. How many boys are there between them in the row?
15. Anup is fifteenth from the front in a column of boys. There are thrice as many behind him as there are
in front. How many boys are there between Anup and the seventh boy from the end of the column?
16. Arun is fifth from the left end and Navin is twelfth from the right end in a row of children. If Navin
shifts by three places towards Arun he becomes tenth from the left end. How many children are there
in the row?
1) 21 2) 22 3) 23 4) 24 5) None of these
17. If Nikhil is eleventh from the left in a row of boys, Rehaman is fourteenth from the right, how many
boys are there in the row?
18. In a row of girls, Ravina is 15th from the left and Mohini is 18th from the right. If they interchange
their places, Mohini becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
19. In a row of boys facing north, Sudhanshu is twelfth from the left. When shifted to his right by four
places, he becomes eighteenth from the right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row?
20. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row ?
1) 8 2) 9 3) 10 4) 11 5) None of these
21. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from behind and Mamta is just in the
middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue, what position does Mamta occupy from the
front ?
1) 20th 2) 19th 3) 18th 4) 17th 5) None of these
22. Rita ranks sixteenth from the top and forty ninth from the bottom in a class. How many students are
there in the class ?
1) 64 2) 65 3) 66 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

23. Sanjeev ranks seventh from the top and twenty eighth from the bottom in a class. How many students
are there in the class ?
1) 37 2) 36 3) 35 4) 34 5) None of these
24. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys
should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line ?
1) 12 2) 13 3) 14 4) 20 5) None of these
25. Manisha ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those who passed
an examination. Six students did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How many
students were there in the class?
1) 40 2) 44 3) 50 4) 55 5) None of these
26. Aruna ranks twelfth in a class of forty-six. What will be her rank from the last ?
1) 33 2) 34 3) 35 4) 37 5) None of these
27. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is seventeenth from the last, what is
Ravi’s rank from the start ?
1) 14th 2) 15th 3) 16th 4) 17th 5) None of these
28. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there
are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank ?
1) 3 2) 7 3) 12 4) 23 5) None of these
29. In a row of ten boys, when Rohit was shifted by two places towards the left, he became seventh from
the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?
1) First 2) Second 3) Fourth 4) Sixth 5) None of these
30. In a queue, Vijay is fourteenth from the front and Jack is seventeenth from the end, while Mary is
exactly mid way between Vijay and Jack. If Vijay be ahead of Jack and there be 48 persons in the
queue, how many persons are there between Vijay and Mary?
1) 8 2) 7 3) 6 4) 5 5) None of these

REASONING-II
BLOOD RELATION
1. A said to B that B’s mother was the mother-in-law of A’s mother. How is A’s mother related to B’s
mother?
1) Daughter-in-law 2) Mother-in-law 3) Sister 4) Aunt 5) Sister-in-law
2. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says: “she is the only daughter of my only son’s mother-
in-law.” How is the woman related to the man?
1) daughter 2) wife 3) daughter-in-law
4) mother 5) mother-in-law
3. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says, “She is the only daughter of my father’s only
daughter-in-law.” How is the woman related to the man?
1) wife 2) daughter 3) daughter-in-law
4) sister 5) sister-in-law
4. Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman says: “He is the father of my only daughter-in-law’s
father-in-law”. What is the man to the woman?
1) Father 2) Brother 3) Husband 4) Brother-in-law 5) Father-in-law
5. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says: “She is the only daughter of my wife’s mother-in-
law”. How is the woman related to the man?
1) Daughter 2) Wife 3) Sister 4) Sister-in-law 5) Mother-in-law
6. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says: “She is the only daughter of my father’s mother-in-
law”. How is the woman related to the man?
1) daughter 2) mother 3) daughter-in-law 4) mother-in-law 5) None of these
7. Pointing to a photograph a woman says: “He is the brother of the daughter of my mother-in-law’s only
son”. How is the man related to the woman?
1) Son 2) Brother 3) Brother-in-law
4) Nephew 5) Can’t be exactly determined
8. Pointing to a photograph a woman says: “He is the only son of the wife of my husband’s father”. How
is the man related to the woman?
1) son 2) son-in-law 3) brother-in-law
4) brother 5) None of these
9. Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman says: “He is the father-in-law of the wife of the only
paternal grandson of my own father-in-law”. How is the man related to the woman?
1) son 2) husband 3) cousin 4) nephew 5) son-in-law
10. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says “She is the mother-in-law of the wife of the father
of my only son”. How is the woman related to the man?
1) daughter 2) wife 3) daughter-in-law 4) sister-in-law 5) mother
11. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says: “She is the paternal grandmother of the son of my
daughter-in-law’s mother-in-law.” How is the woman related to the man?
1) mother 2) mother-in-law 3) sister 4) wife 5) sister-in-law
12. Pointing to a woman in the photograph a man says. “This woman is the wife of the father of my
brother-in-law.” How is the woman related to the man?
1) mother 2) mother-in-law 3) sister 4) sister-in-law 5) daughter
13. Pointing to a woman a man says, “She is the sister-in-law of the only daughter of my mother-in-law’s
husband”. How is the woman related to the man?
1) daughter 2) mother 3) Aunt
4) daughter-in-law 5) sister
14. Pointing to a man in the photograph a woman says: “He is the son of my sister’s mother’s husband.”
How is the man related to the woman?
1) Brother 2) Father 3) Uncle 4) Brother-in-law 5) Father-in-law
15. Pointing to a man in the photograph a woman says: “He is the father of my daughter-in-law’s brother-
in-law.” How is the man related to the woman?
1) husband 2) brother 3) brother-in-law 4) father 5) father-in-law
16. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says, “She is the mother of my daughter-in-law’s husband’s
only sister.” How is the woman related to the man?
1) wife 2) mother 3) sister 4) daughter 5) sister-in-law
17. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His sister’s father is the only son of my mother’s
father-in-law.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
1) sister-in-law 2) wife 3) mother
4) sister 5) granddaughter

EXPLANATION
1. 1; If B’s mother is mother-in-law of A’s mother, so, A’s mother is daughter-in-law of B’s mother.
2. 3
3. 2; Father’s daughter-in-law = wife

daughter of wife = daughter
4. 5; daughter-in-law’s father-in-law = husband

husband’s father = father-in-law
5. 3; wife’s mother-in-law = mother

daughter of mother = sister
6. 2; father’s mother-in-law = grandmother

daughter of grandmother = mother
7. 1; Mother-in-law’s only son = husband.

Daughter of husband = daughter.
Brother of daughter = son.
8. 5; Husband’s father = father-in-law

wife of father-in-law = mother-in-law
son of mother-in-law = husband.
9. 2; “Only grandson of my father-in-law” = husband’s son or nephew

“Wife of my son” = “my daughter-in-law”.
“Father-in-law of my daughter-in-law” = “husband”.
10. 5; She is the mother.
11. 1; daughter-in-law’s mother-in-law = wife. Son of wife = son. Grandmother of son = mother.
12. 2; Father of my brother-in-law = My father-in-law.

Wife of my father-in-law = My mother-in-law.
13. 5; My mother-in-law’s husband = My father-in-law.

Only daughter of my father-in-law = Wife.
Sister-in-law of wife = Sister.
14. 1; mother’s husband = father,

sister’s mother’s husband = sister’s father = father,
son of father = brother.
15. 1; Daughter-in-law’s brother-in-law = son.

Father of son = husband.
16. 1; Husband’s only sister = sister in law,

daughter-in-law’s sister in law = daughter,
mother of daughter = wife
17.4

REASONING-II
CLASSIFICATION
Directions (Q. 1-20) : Each of the questions below contains three elements. These three
elements may or may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into one of the
diagrams at (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to indicate groups of elements in each of the questions
fit into which of the diagrams given below. The number of the diagram is the answer.
Q.1-5:
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
1. Teacher, College, Student
2. Nitrogen, Ice, Air
3. Brass, Steel, Metal
4. Tehsil, District, Village
5. Rice, Mustard, Beetroot
6. Table, Chair, Furniture
Q.7-11:
1) 2) 3)
4) 5)
7. Vegetable, Potato, Cabbage
8. Metal, Iron, Chlorine
9. Classroom, College, Student
10. Anxiety, Intelligence, Strength
11. Hydrogen, Oxygen, Water

Q.12-16:
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
12. Scheduled Banks, Public Sector Banks, State Bank of India.
13. Root vegetables, Carrot, Parsnip.
14. Rodents, Squirrel, Chimpanzee.
15. Father, Grandfather, Great-grandfather.
16. Police Station, PCR Van, Police Post.
Q.17-20:
1) 2) 3) (4) 5)
17. Boys, Athlete, Singer
18. Proofreaders, Copy editors, Editorial team
19. Literate persons, Rickshawpullers, Rickshaws
20. Cricketers, Footballers, Tennis players

REASONING-II
DIRECTION
1. Rahul started cycling straight towards North. He cycled a distance of 8 km and then took a right turn
and cycled a distance of 3 km. Then he took a right turn and cycled a distance of 1 km again. Rahul is
facing which direction now?
1) South-West 2) North 3) South 4) North-West 5) None of these
2. Manoj starts from his house and moves towards North. After walking a distance of 4 km he turns left.
After walking a particular distance he reaches Sunita’s house. Sunita’s house is at a distance of 5 km
from Manoj’s house. Then Manoj walked a total distance of
1) 1 km 2) 5 km 3) 7 km 4) 3 km 5) 9 km
3. Ravi starts from his house and moves towards South. He walks 100m, then turns left and walks
200m, turns right and walks 500m. How far is he from his house?
1) 400 5 m 2) 800 m 3) 200 10 m 4) 200 2 m 5) None of these
4. Z started walking straight towards South. He walked a distance of 15 metres and then took a left turn
and walked a distance of 30 metres. Then he took a right turn and walked a distance of 15 metres
again.Z is facing which direction?
1) North East 2) South 3) North 4) South-West 5) None of these
5. Vinay moves towards South-East a distance of 14m, then he moves towards West and travels a
distance of 28m. From here, he moves towards North-West a distance of 14m, and finally he moves a
distance of 8m towards East and comes to a halt. How far is the starting point where he stood?
1) 20m 2) 22m 3) 6m 4) 8m 5) None of these
6. Jai Prakash started walking towards south from the point A, walked 20 m and reached a point B. Again,
he turned left and walked 20 m and reached a point C. Now he turned 45° anticlockwise, walked a
distance of 20 2 m and reached a point D. What is the shortest distance between the points A and D?
1) Can’t say 2) 30 m 3) 40 m 4) 40 2 m 5) None of these
7. Rishu started walking towards East from a point ‘X’, walked 250 metres and reached the point ‘P’.
Again, he turned towards South, walked 50 metres and reached point Q. Again, he turned towards
East, walked 250 metres and reached point ‘R’. He again turned South, walked 50 metres and reached
point S. What is the shortest distance between X and S?
1) 509.9 metres 2) 1100 metres 3) 561.2 metres 4) 590.9 metres 5) None
8. A is to the south of R and to the west of T. If P is to the south of A, then in which direction is it with
respect to T?
1)South 2) South-east 3) South-west 4) Can’t be determined 5) None
9. One day Dipti was coming from college. Her brother Ramesh, who was coming towards her from
opposite direction, saw that Dipti’s shadow fell neither to his right nor to his left nor to the back of
Dipti. From which diection was Ramesh coming?
1) North 2) South 3) West 4) East 5) Can’t say
10. ‘R’ is to the west of ‘D’, which is to the west of ‘L’. If ‘D’ lies between ‘J’ and ‘M’ then ‘R’ is in which
direction with respect to ‘K’ if ‘J’ and ‘M’ are on a straight line?
1) South-West 2) North-West 3) North-East 4) Data inadequate 5) None
11. Two ladies and two men are playing cards and are seated at North, East, South and West of a table.
No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing
south. Which directions are the ladies facing?
1) South and East 2) North and East 3) North and West 4) East and West 5)None
12. Boys and girls are made to sit in 7 rows and 7 columns all of them facing West. P is at the centre of
the arrangement, Q is just behind P, R is on the immediate left of Q, and S is to the West of P. Then
R is in which direction with respect to S?
1) Data inadequate 2) North-West 3) South-East 4) South-West 5) None

13. A and B are standing at a distance of 20 km from each other on a straight East-West road. A and B
start walking simultaneously, eastwards and westwards respectively, and both cover a distance of 5
km. Then A turns to his left and walks 10 km. ‘B’ turns to his right and walks 10 km. at the same
speed. Then both turn to their left and cover a distance of 5 km at the same speed. What will be the
distance between them?
1) 10 km 2) 5 km 3) 20 km 4) 25 km 5) Data inadequate
14. Alok walked 30 metres towards east and took a right turn and walked 40 metres. He again took a right
turn and walked 50 metres. Towards which direction is he from his starting point?
1) South 2) West 3) South-West 4) South-East 5) None of these
15. Q travels towards East. M travels towards North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels
towards right of Q. Which of the following is definitely true?
1) M and S travel in the opposite directions.
2) S travels towards West.
3) T travels towards North.
4) M and S travel in the same direction.
5) None of these
16. One afternoon, Manisha and Madhuri were talking to each other face to face in Bhopal on MG Road.
If Manisha’s shadow was exactly to the left of Madhuri, which direction was Manisha facing?
1) North 2) South 3) East 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
17. Y is to the East of X, which is to the North of Z. If P is to the South of Z, then P is in which direction
with respect to Y?
1) North 2) South 3) South-East 4) North-East 5) None of these
18. Boys and girls are made to sit in 5 rows and 5 columns all of them facing North. A is at the centre of
the arrangement, P is to the immediate right of A, Q is just behind P and R is to the North of A. Q is
in which direction with respect to R?
1) South 2) South-West 3) North-East 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
19. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are staying in the same locality. B’s house is to the east of A’s house and
to the north of C’s house. C’s house is to the west of D’s house. D’s house is in which direction with
respect to A’s house?
1) South-East 2) North-East 3) East 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
20. Of the five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other, P is to west of Q, R is to the south
of P, T is to the north of Q, and S is to the east of T. Then R is in which direction with respect to S?
1) North-West 2) South-East 3) South-West 4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these
21. M is to the East of D, F is to the South of D and K is to the East of F. M is in which direction with
respect to K?
1) South-West 2) North-West 3) North-East 4) South-East 5) Can’t say
22. After 4 pm on a sunny day when Ramesh was returning from his school, he saw his uncle coming in
the opposite direction. His uncle talked to him for some time. Ramesh saw that the shadow of his
uncle was to his right side. Which direction was his uncle facing during their talk?
1) North 2) South 3) East 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
23. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90º in the clockwise direction and then 135º in the anticlockwise
direction. Which direction is he facing now?
1) East 2) West 3) North 4) South 5) None of these
24. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90º in the clockwise direction, then 180º in the anticlockwise
direction and then another 90º in the same direction. Which direction is he facing now?
1) South 2) South-west 3) West 4) South-east 5) None of these
25. I am facing east. I turn 100º in the clockwise direction and then 145º in the anticlockwise direction.
Which direction am I facing now?
1) East 2) North-east 3) North 4) South-west 5) None of these

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REASONING-II

200 CLASS TEST REASONING - II

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SEA L ING CONTRAST

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he scored five = 163 ... (iii)

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51. 2; The given number: 5 3 2 6 9 7 1 8 SYS T EMS

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32. Which of the following is the code of ‘must’?.

(1) so (2) da (3) lo (4) ni (5) Can’t say

33. What does the code ‘ze’ stand for?

(1) some (2) must (3) be (4) grace (5) save

34. Which of the following is the code of ‘good’?

(1) so (2) we (3) ze (4) lo (5) fe

35. ‘grace of money’, may be coded as

(1) ka da fe (2) we ka so (3) ja da we (4) ka we yo (5) ja ka ze

Q.36-40. Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘mine lots of metal’ is written as

‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.

36. What is the code for ‘piece’?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 7 (5) Can’t say

37. What does ‘9’ stand for?

(1) of (2) mine (3) friend (4) lots (5) metal

38. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine’?

(1) 6 3 0 9 (2) 5 2 1 6 (3) 9 2 1 6 (4) 3 6 9 4 (5) 5 0 4 1

39. What does ‘0’ stand for ?

(1) mine (2) metal (3) of (4) lots (5) metal

40. ‘8 7 3’ would mean—-

216 CLASS TEST REASONING - II

Word Code Word Code

GOAT [24] [6] [6] [26] SUN [24] [36] [24]

EYE [30] [24] [30] RAIN [24] [6] [6] [24]

HOW [24] [36] [24] EDIT [18] [24] [18] [24]

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Following conditions are to be observed:

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= 15 19 [Used rule (iii)] = 47 7 [Use rule (iii)]