SamplingDistribution Notes
SamplingDistribution Notes
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Copyright
2015
c by Sujay K Mukhoti All rights reserved.
No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any
form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, or otherwise,
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preparing this book, they make no representations or warranties with respect to the completeness
of the contents of this book and specifically disclaim any implied warranties of merchantability
or fitness for a particular purpose. The advice and strategies contained herin may not be suitable
for your situation. You should consult with a professional where appropriate. Not the author
shall be liable for any loss of profit or any other commercial damages, including but not limited
to special, incidental, consequential, or other damages.
For general information on our other products and services please contact: Sujay K Mukhoti
OM& QT Area, IIM Indore, Rau-Pithampur Road, Indore-453556, Tel.: 0731-2439-487.
CHAPTER 1
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JOINT DISTRIBUTION OF RANDOM
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VARIABLES
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two random variables, IBM daily stock return X and Microsoft daily stock
return Y , values of which are shown in the following table:
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Y
X 0.5 0 -0.5 Total
-0.4 0.02 0.07 0.03 0.12
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Further, given that both the stocks are priced at $ 100 and you are endowed
with $ 200, what portfolio would you construct? The choices are 2 IBM stocks,
2 Microsoft stocks and 1 of each IBM and Microsoft. To solve this problem,
we first note the following properties of joint distributions of X and Y .
1. The cell values are joint probabilities P [X = x, Y = y]. For example, cell
(1,2) value is P [X = −0.4, Y = 0].
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X P [X = x]
-0.4 0.12
0 0.68
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0.4 0.2
expectation of X is E[X] =
X
x
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xP [X = x] = 0.032 and marginal variance
of X is V (X) =
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3. The column totals provide the marginal distributions of Y . Thus, Marginal
Y P [Y = y]
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0.5 0.11
0 0.8
-0.5 0.09
X
expectation of Y is E[Y ] = yP [Y = y] = 0.1 and marginal variance
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of Y is V (Y ) =
Consider the above joint distribution between X and Y. From this table,
distribution of a function of (X, Y ), say H(X, Y ), can be obtained as follows:
P [H(x, y) = k] is computed by adding the probabilities of all the pairs which
generates H(x, y) = k.
EXAMPLE 1.1
max(X, Y ) P [max(X, Y ) = k]
-0.4 0.03
0 0.73
0.4 0.13
0.5 0.11
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with E[X] = µx E[Y ] = µy . Then the following results hold:
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E[X + Y ] = µx + µy (X + Y resembles a portfolio return with two stocks)
Pn Pn
a2 X2 + . . . + an Xn ] = a1 µ1 + a2 µ2 + . . . an µn = i=1 ai µi ( i=1 ai Xi ,
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X P [X = x | Y = 0.5]
-0.4 0.02/0.11= 0.18
0 0.02/0.11= 0.18
0.4 0.02/0.11= 0.64
EXAMPLE 1.2
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A road builder company claimed that the road surface is made “skid
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free” and they would compensate every major skid-accident leading to
hospitalization Rs. 500000. If the monthly number of skid-accidents on
that road is Poisson(5) and 25% of them usually results in hospitalization,
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how much would be the average compensation paid by the company in a
month? Further, the company runs a toll tax on this road. If the traffic
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of cars on this road is Poisson(100) per day, how much they must charge
so that the company does not expect a loss even after paying for the
compensation?
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Thus
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E[XY ] = E[X]E[Y ]
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identcally distributed (iid) if they have same distribution and are independent.
Similarly a set of random variables are said to iid if they are (mutually)
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independent and identically distributed. In this case, E[X] = E[Y ] = µ and
V (X) = V (Y ) = σ 2 .
Covariance
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Covariance The covariance between X and Y is defined as Cov(X, Y ) =
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E[{X − E[X]}{Y − E[Y ]}] = E[XY ] − E[X]E[Y ], where
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E[XY ] = xyP [X = x, Y = y]
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x y
Notice, with origin(0,0), if data on X and Y are on 1st and 3rd quadrants,
then X × Y is positive. The product is negative otherwise. If (A) Y increases
with X, then most of the (x, y) pairs would frequent 1st and 3rd quadrants
compared to 2nd and 4th quadrants (as in the 2nd figure), (B) the opposite
when Y decreases with X (as in the 3rd figure) and (C) if there is no such
relationship, then all quadrants will be equally frequented by the data pairs.
Thus in case (A), the expected product XY (E[XY]) would be greater than
zero, in case (B) it will be negative and in case (C) it would be close to zero.
Since the center of X is E[X] and that of Y is E[Y ] (not necessarily zero-
zero), shifting the center we get the measure of degree of linearity as E[{X −
E(X)}{Y − E(Y )}] = Cov(X, Y ) = E[XY ] − µx µy . Cov(X, Y ) is maximum
when X and Y are perfect (linear) match, i.e X = Y and it is minimum
when there is a perfect (linear) mismatch, i.e X = −Y . Thus, −V (Y ) ≤
Cov(X, Y ) ≤ V (Y ) and hence is unbounded. Also it is unit dependent.
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Cov(X, X) = V (X)
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−V (Y ) ≤ Cov(X, Y ) ≤ V (Y ) and −V (X) ≤ Cov(X, Y ) ≤ V (X)
σxy
Correlation The correlation coefficient is given by ρ = √Cov(X,Y ) =
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V (X)V (Y ) σx σy
and is a scaled measure of degree of linear relationship between X and Y .
Properties of ρ:
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1. −1 ≤ ρ ≤ 1
bd
3. If U = a + bX and V = c + dY , then ρU V = |b||d| ρXY
a2i σi2 +
P P P
5. V ( ai Xi ) = i6=j ai aj ρσi σj
Consider two random variables, viz. stock price of Reliance in BSE with that
of CITI in NYSE. Directly comparing the monthly prices would not be right
as they are in two different risk groups (risk is measured by standard deviation
of it). Also the units (here INR and DOLLAR) are different. To make them
comparable, a technique often used is division by standard deviation of the
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corresponding variable. Thus the ratio becomes (i) independent of monetary
unit and hence all related complications, (ii) independent of risk and hence
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Pt −Pt−1
comparable. To compare the returns of two risky assets (defined as Pt )
William Sharpe defined the following measure:
S=E
X − rf
σ
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called Sharpe ratio, where rf is the risk-free rate of return. If a two-asset
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(risky) portfolio contains a number of shares of with return X and b number
of shares of with return Y , then portfolio return is aX + bY . Portfolio Sharpe
ratio is
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E[aX + bY ] − rf (a + b)
Sp = p
V (aX + bY )
, where rf = risk-free rate (constant).
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Sharpe ratio simply describes what is expected return over the risk-free rate
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per unit risk or expected excess return over risk. An anticipated increase in
risk (volatility) would expect to see higher return over risk-free rate and hence
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one investor will invest with increased σ if E[X] ≥ rf . Notice, even if two
stocks have same σ value, the one with higher E[X − rf ] (or higher Sharpe
Ratio) would draw more investment. Similarly if two assets expect same
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amount of return, the one with lesser risk (σ) (equivalently higher Sharpe
Ratio) will attract more investment. Hence the rule is
Invest in the stock which has higher Sharpe ratio
EXAMPLE 1.3
Suppose one investor wants to decide on choices she has in investing her
current cash. The two stocks available are Apple (µA = 2.48% and volatil-
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Since the Sharpe ratio of apple is higher, she should prefer Apple stock for
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investment.
For 2 units of IBM shares, a = 2, b = 0. The Sharpe ratio of this portfolio is
2E[X]−2rf E[X]−rf
S2IBM = √ = √ . For 2 units of Microsoft shares, a = 0, b = 2.
V (2x) V (X)
Let us go back to the problem of computing Sharpe ratio for the portfolio
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with 1 of each IBM and Microsoft stock. In this case the expected portfolio
return is E[X] + E[Y ] = 0.042 and portfolio variance V (X + Y ) = σx2 + σy2 +
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2σxy = 0.1234 and hence Sharpe ratio is 0.09962. Since the Sharpe ratio is
more in the portfolio of 2 IBM stocks, it is advised to purchase 2 IBM shares.
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B×ωi
gain on the ith stock is − Pi,0 ) = B × ωi Ri , where Ri is the return
Pi,0 (Pi,1 " n #
Pi,1 −Pi,0
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(Ri = Pi,0 ). Thus the total expected gain is BE ωi Ri and portfolio
i=1
risk is
n
! n n X
n
X X X
B2V = B2 ωi2 V (Ri ) +
ωi R i ωi ωj Cov(Ri , Rj )
i=1 i=1 i=1 j=1
i6=j
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The aim of the investor is to minimize portfolio risk by selecting the propor-
tions ω1 , ω2 . . . ωn . Since the constant B does not influence the optimization
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problem, we ignore it while stating portfolio optimization problem. However,
this optimization problem is subject to the condition that expected return at-
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tains a pre-determined value, i.e.
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ωi E[Ri ] = r0 and i=1 ωi = 1. Notice
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here we don’t make ωi > 0. In this case ωi < 0 implies shorting is allowed.
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Thus the problem is stated as
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X X n
n X n
X n
X
argmin ωi2 V (Ri )+ ωi ωj Cov(Ri , Rj ) s.t. ωi E[Ri ] = r0 and ωi = 1
ω1 ,...ωn
i=1 i=1 j=1 i=1 i=1
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i6=j
strategy. Two popular measures of risks are Value at Risk and Conditional
Value at Risk or Expected Shortfall.
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Value at Risk (VaR): The value at risk (VaR) at confidence level α within
time T is a value V such that the loss on the investment by time T would not
exceed V with probability α.
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Here we are 100α% sure that the loss will not be more than V dollars in time
T . Another way to state VaR is ”leaving bottom 100(1-α)% cases, P − V is
the worst value a portfolio (worth P dollars initially) can arrive at after T
time”. The value at risk works as a ”stop loss condition”.
Notice, gain is defined as negative loss and hence VaR can be defined in
terms of gain as well. We explain VaR using the following example.
Suppose gain from a portfolio worth $50 million during six months is
normally distributed with $2 million and a standard deviation of $10
million. Let us find the VaR (in terms of total loss/gain) at 99%.
Let G denote the $-gain from the portfolio and G ∼ N (2, 102 ). Then
the loss L = −G ∼ N (−2, 102 ). If V is the 99% VaR, then
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P [L ≤ V ] = 0.99
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V +2
⇒Φ = Φ(2.326)
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⇒ V = −2 + 10 × 2.326 = 21.26
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Hence, loss will not exceed $21.26 in next six months with probability 99%
and hence the worst value the portfolio can attain is (50-21.26)=28.74
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(barring bottom 1% cases) during next 6 months.
Find the VaR for an investment of $500000 at 99% over the next year.
That is, find out how low the value of this investment could be if we
rule out the lowest 1% outcomes. The investment is expected to grow
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during the year by 10% with sd 35%. Assume normality. What about
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next month if the growth rate is same across months? How small the risk
should be if the VaR needs to be reduced to $200000.
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Let G denote the %-growth rate of the portfolio and G ∼ N (0.1, 0.352 ).
Then the loss rate L = −G ∼ N (−0.1, 0.352 ). If V is the 99% VaR, then
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P [L ≤ V ] = 0.99
V +2
⇒Φ = Φ(2.326)
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⇒ V = −0.1 + 0.35 × 2.326 = 0.7141
Hence, loss will not exceed $500000 × 0.7141= $357050 in next year with
probability 99% and hence the worst value the portfolio can attain is
$142950 (barring bottom 1% cases) during next year.
Notice that 100(1-α)% VaR (e.g. 99%) is essentially 100αth (for 99% VaR,
1st ) upper quantile or critical value or zα of the loss distribution.
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If the loss distribution is N (µ, σ 2 ), then CVaR at 100(1 − α)% confidence
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is given by
σ
CV aR = µ + φ(zα )
α
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Ex. 1 — A normal random variable X has mean 35 and standard deviation
10. Find a value X that has area 0.01 to its right.
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Ex. 2 — For X ∼ N (32, 49), Find x such that P(−x < X < x) = 0.99
wholesale market) and standard deviation of $0.15. Find a price such that
the probability in the next 15 days that the price will go below it will be 0.90.
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Ex. 4 — The outcomes for a one-year long project are equally likely between
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$50 million loss to $50 million gain. Find the 99% VaR.
Ex. 7 — X denotes the salary of a new employee, and Y denotes the cost of
the benefits, such as health insurance, that come with the position. Benefits
cost is a given percentage of the salary, so the cost of benefit is X Y.
Salary(X)
Benefits (Y) 80000 100000 150000
0.3 0.3 0.3 0.15
0.2 0.1 0.1 0.05
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b. What is the expected percentage of total salary allocated to benefits?
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c. What is the expected total cost of hiring a new employee?
Ex. 11 — Let X denote the number of Canon digital cameras sold during
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c. Determine the joint probability table of X and Y and then the marginal
distribution of Y.
Harder Problem
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