1.

Which of the following pairings between the subdiscipline of genetics and the
phenomenon is INCORRECT?

A) Evolution—Population genetics
B) Gene regulation—Molecular genetics
C) Allelic frequency alteration—Population genetics
D) Arrangement of genes on chromosome—Transmission genetics
E) Chemical nature of the gene—Transmission genetics
E
2. Which of the following topics of research belongs to the discipline of transmission
genetics?

A) Inheritance pattern of gene alleles

B) Mechanism of DNA replication
C) Gene expression patterns
D) Evolution
E) Chemical modification of nucleic acids
A
3. The complete genetic makeup of an organism is referred to as its:
A) chromosome.
B) alleles.
C) locus.
D) genome. E)
phenotype.
D
4. Identify a TRUE statement from the descriptions concerning genetics.

A) The theory of pangenesis states that all living organisms are composed of cells.
B) Bacteria are not useful in studying genes and inheritance because they are
structurally and metabolically different from
eukaryotic cells.
C) Charles Darwin accurately described the laws of inheritance in his landmark book,
On the Origin of Species.
D) Many human traits, such as skin and hair color, are determined by more than a
single gene.
E) Evolution can occur without genetic changes in the population.
D
5. Identify a FALSE statement from the descriptions of genetics.

A) Humans first applied genetics to the domestication of plants and animals between
approximately 10,000 and 12,000
years ago.
B) Many of the model organisms used in genetic research are useful because they have
short generation times.
C) Albinism results from a mutation in the genes that control the synthesis and storage
of melanin.
D) All human traits that display blending inheritance are affected by a single gene.
E) The process by which genetic information is copied and decoded is similar for all
forms of life.
D
6. Which of the following species is considered a model genetic organism?

A) The plant, Linaria vulgaris

B) The deer mouse, Peromyscus maniculatus
C) The worm, Caenorhabditis elegans
D) The frog, Hyla chrysoscelis
E) The chimpanzee, Pan troglodytes
C
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7. Which of the following would be LEAST useful as a model for analyzing the
mechanisms of inheritance?

A) Fruit flies
B) Humans
C) Yeast
D) Mice
E) Zebrafish
B
8. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Each subdiscipline of genetics is very specific as to what is explored and does not
overlap with the other subdisciplines.
B) All phenotypes or traits are always determined by multiple genes.
C) Albinism rises from the overexpression of the gene that controls the synthesis and
storage of melanin.
D) Humans make excellent model organisms because they have long life spans.
E) None of the statements above are true.
E
9. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A) All genomes are encoded in DNA only.

B) All genomes are encoded in nucleic acids.
C) All genomes are encoded in proteins only.
D) The genetic instructions are decoded completely differently in each organism.
E) The molecular mechanism suggests life evolved from multiple primordial ancestors.
B
10. Which of the following theories of inheritance is currently considered TRUE?

A) Germ-plasm theory
B) Pangenesis
C) Blending inheritance
D) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
E) None of the above is considered true based on new evidence.
A
11. Which one of the following topics belongs to a different subdiscipline of genetics
when compared to the rest?

A) Mechanism of gene regulation

B) Allele frequencies of certain genes differ in different environments
C) Transcription
D) Replication of chromosomes
E) Translation
B
12. Which of the following theories of inheritance is no longer accepted as TRUE?

A) Pangenesis
B) Blending inheritance
C) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) Preformationism
E) None of the above is currently considered true.
E
13. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes the cell theory?

A) Genetic information from different parts of the body travels to the reproductive
organs.
B) The cell is the compositional and functional unit of all life.
C) Inside the germ cells, there exists a fully formed miniature adult that enlarges in the
course of development.
D) The genetic material itself blends, which cannot be separated out in future
generations.
E) Traits acquired in a person's lifetime become incorporated into the person's
hereditary information, which will be passed
onto the person's offspring.
B
14. Which of the following examples of scientist and their contribution is matched
INCORRECTLY?

A) Watson and Crick—Chemical structure of DNA

B) Mendel—Principles of heredity using pea plants
C) Flemming—An accurate description of mitosis
D) Morgan—Polymerase chain reaction
E) Sutton—Genes on chromosomes as units of inheritance
D
15. Choose the CORRECT match between the scientist and the field of genetics that
they made a contribution to.

A) Watson and Crick—Transmission genetics

B) Mendel—Molecular genetics
C) Flemming—Population genetics
D) Darwin—Molecular genetics
E) Morgan—Transmission genetics
E
16. The first complete DNA sequence of a nonviral, free-living organism was obtained
for:

A) a bacterium in 1900.
B) a bacterium in 1945.
C) a bacterium in 1995.
D) humans in 1990.
E) humans in 2000.
C
17. The three-dimensional structure of DNA was first deciphered based on the work of:

A) James Watson.
B) Francis Crick.
C) Maurice Wilkins.
D) Rosalind Franklin.
E) All of the above answers are correct.
E
18. Which of the following scientists contributed significantly to the foundations of
molecular genetics?

A) James Watson
B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
C) Walther Flemming
D) Charles Darwin
E) Walter Sutton
A
19. Which of the following scientists contributed significantly to the foundations of
transmission genetics?

A) James Watson
B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
C) Francis Crick
D) Charles Darwin
E) Kary Mullis
B
20. The contribution Charles Darwin made to biology was to:

A) demonstrate the connection between Mendel's principles of inheritance and

evolution.
B) propose that evolution occurs by natural selection.
C) develop the theory of evolution, based on earlier theories of population genetics.
D) connect the fields of evolution and molecular genetics.
E) demonstrate that genes were located on chromosomes.
B
21. _____ combines molecular biology and computer science.

A) Single-nucleotide polymorphism
B) MicroRNAs
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) Bioinformatics
E) Eukaryotics
D
22. A measurable or observable trait or characteristic is called a:

A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) single-nucleotide polymorphism.
D) small interfering RNA.
E) gene bank.
A
23. A change in the frequencies of genetic variants within a population over time leads
to:

A) a genome.
B) a phenotype.
C) a genotype.
D) mutations.
E) evolution.
E
24. Genetic information can be carried in which of the following biomolecules?

A) Proteins
B) DNA and not RNA
C) RNA and not DNA
D) Either DNA or RNA
E) Proteins and not RNA
D
25. Which CORRECTLY shows the flow of genetic information during gene expression?

A) RNA → DNA → protein

B) Protein → DNA → RNA
C) DNA → RNA → protein
D) DNA → protein → DNA
E) None of the above answers is correct.
C
26. Which of the following is NOT a part of a single nucleotide?
A) Nitrogenous base
B) Sugar
C) Hydrogen bond
D) Phosphate
E) Nitrogenous base and sugar are both correct.
C
27. A form of a gene that has a slightly different sequence than other forms of the same
gene but encodes the same type of an RNA or protein, is called a(n):

A) locus.
B) allele.
C) homologous chromosome.
D) heterozygote.
E) homozygote.
B
28. _____ is a change in genetic variant frequencies of a population over time.

A) Blending inheritance
B) Preformation
C) Genome
D) Evolution
E) Phenotype
D
29. Permanent, heritable changes in genetic information (DNA) are called:

A) evolution.
B) defects.
C) phenotypes.
D) alleles.
E) mutations.
E
30. Within cells, genes are located on structures called:

A) genomes.
B) chromosomes.
C) phenotypes.
D) genotypes.
E) alleles.
B
31. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found in RNA but not in DNA?

A) Guanine
B) Cytosine
C) Uracil
D) Adenine
E) Thymine
B
32. Which of the following model organisms was initially used to discover a human gene
SLC24A5 that helps to determine level of skin pigmentation?

A) Nematode (Caenorhabditis elegans)

B) Zebrafish (Danio rerio)
C) Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster)
D) Clawed frog (Xenopus laevis)
E) Corn (Zea mays)
B
33. Who developed polymerase chain reaction (PCR), a technique that quickly amplifies
samples of DNA?

A) Kary Mullis
B) James Watson
C) Walter Sutton
D) Thomas Hunt Morgan
E) Maurice Wilkins
A
34. Which of the following model organisms is a prokaryote?

A) Drosophila melanogaster
B) Mus musculus
C) Saccharomycetes cerevisiae
D) Escherichia coli
E) Arabidopsis thaliana
D
35. A giraffe reaches for food from the high branches of trees. Over a period of
generations of this type of activity, the necks of giraffes increase in length. Which
incorrect notion of inheritance would this example BEST represent?

A) Blending inheritance
B) Pangenesis
C) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) Preformationism
E) Cell theory
C
36. Albinism in humans is sometimes caused by a mutation in the OCA2 gene. Albinism
is a _____ while the mutant DNA sequence in the OCA2 gene that causes albinism is a
_____.

A) genome; allele
B) allele; chromosome mutation
C) allele; genome
D) mutation; trait
E) phenotype; genotype
E
59. In addition to eukaryotic, what is the other main type of cell?

A) Animal
B) Plant
C) Viral
D) Prokaryotic
E) Yeast
D
64. Changes to genes or to chromosome structure that can affect gene expression but
do not change the nucleotide sequence of the gene are called:

A) gene mutations.
B) chromosome mutations.
C) epigenetic changes.
D) single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
E) blending.
C
71. What is the field of study called that involves the storage, retrieval, and analysis of
large amounts of gene information using sophisticated computer programs?

A) Polymerase chain reaction

B) Proteomics
C) Population genetics
D) Bioinformatics
E) Transmission genetics
D
72. _____ are alternative forms of a gene, and they arise through the process of _____.

A) Genomes; evolution
B) Chromosomes; mitosis
C) Alleles; mutation
D) Genomes; meiosis
E) Genotypes; evolution
C

Which phase of the cell cycle is the longest?

a.) Telophase - when the cytoplasm begins to separate.
b.) Metaphase - when the chromatids line up in the center of the cell.
c.) Interphase - when the chromosomes duplicate.
c
Cells reproduce by dividing in half and multiplying.
a.) True
b.) False
a
A new potato can grow from another potato. This is an example of..
a.) sexual reproduction.
b.) good gardening.
c.) asexual reproduction
c
A cycle in science is..
a.) step by step instructions to follow.
b.) a two wheeled machine that you can ride.
c.) a continuous process that has no clear beginning or end.
c
Cells in the body are healed by cell division.
a.) True
b.) False
a
Asexual Reproduction is:
a.) when a new organism is produced from one organism.
b.) when a new organism is produced from two organisms
c.) when the chromosomes are copied
a
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The cells in the liver perform the same job as the cells in the muscles.
a.) True
b.) False
b
In mitosis, one cell becomes:
a.) two
b.) four
c.) fourty-six
a
Mitosis and meiosis have this in common:
a.) both are only done in animal cells.
b.) all organisms do both mitosis and meiosis.
c.) they are both involved in cell division.
c
Mitosis is a process that:
a.) makes exact copies of the original cell.
b.) transports waste.
c.) acts as a cell wall.
a
The cell cycle:
a.) is the same length of time for all cells.
b.) is when a cell dies.
c.) is different lengths of time for different types of cells.
c
Organisms are made of cells.
a.) True
b.) False
a
Meiosis:
a.) has more steps than mitosis.
b.) is just backwards compared to mitosis.
c.) is a shorter version of mitosis
a
The 5 phases of mitosis are:
a.) interphase, analogyphase, packphase, metaphase, propanephase
b.) anaphase, plowphase, musicphase, interestingphase, pizzaphase
c.) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telephase
c
Cell division is important because:
a.) dead or injured cells need to be replaced
b.) you need more cells to grow
c.) all of the above
c
Mitosis is a procedure that has a beginning and an end (meaning it stops).
a.) True
b.) False
b
Most cells in the body have only half the amount of chromosomes required.
a.) True
b.) False
b
Every plant and animal cell reproduce using mitosis.
a.) True
b.) False
b
In meiosis, one cell becomes:
a.) two
b.) four
c.) twenty-three
b
Meiosis helps reproduction of cells by:
a.) dividing the spindle fibers.
b.) producing sex cells with half the amount of chromosomes required.
c.) keeping the chromosomes in a line.
b
The number of chromosomes in most human cells is:
a.) 23
b.) 46
c.) 26
b
Terms in this set (25)

What stage of meiosis separates bivalents?

a. Telophase II
b. Anaphase II
c. Metaphase I
d. Anaphase I
d. Anaphase I
The cell cycle can be divided into which two main parts:
a. G and Mitosis
b. Interphase and Cell Division
c. Growth and Mitosis
d. Mitosis and Cytokinesis
b. Interphase and Cell Division
Which cyclin signals for the start of DNA replication?
a. Cyclin Dependent Kinase
b. Cyclin Duplicating Kinase
c. Mitotic Phase Promoting Factor
d. None of the above
a. Cyclin Dependent Kinase
Proteins that control the progress of the cell cycle are called:
a. Histones
b. Chromosomes
c. Cyclins
d. Bivalents
c. Cyclins
Metastasis occurs in which state of cancer?
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
d. Stage IV
At what stage does DNA condense and chromosomes become visible
a. Prophase
b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
a. Prophase
At what stage of meiosis do bivalents line up along the metaphase plate?
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Metaphase I
d. Metaphase II
c. Metaphase I
At what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur?
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Metaphase I
d. Metaphase II
a. Prophase I
At what stage do the spindle fibers shorten in length?
a. Prophase
b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
b. Anaphase
What is the difference between Anaphase I and Anaphase II
a. Anaphase II is shorter than Anaphase I
b. Anaphase II results in homologues chromosomes. Anaphase I results in sister
chromatids
c. Anaphase I uses the kinetochore. Anaphase II uses the centromere
d. All of the above
e. none of the above
b. Anaphase II results in homologues chromosomes. Anaphase I results in sister
chromatids
Which stage of meiosis creates daughter cells that have two chromatids per
chromosome?
a. Propase I
b. Telophase II
c. Prophase II
d. Telophase I
d. Telophase I
At which stage of meiosis do sister chromatids line up along the equator?
a. Prophase I
b. Metaphase I
c. Prophase II
d. Metaphase II
d. Metaphase II
How do eukaryotic gametes divide?
a. Meiosis
b. Binary fission
c. Mitosis
d. Budding
a. Meiosis
Which part of the genome controls the cell cycle?
a. G1 cyclin
b. G2 cyclin
c. Mutagene
d. Oncogene
d. Oncogene
What allows the DNA to Supercoil?
a. Microtubules
b. Histones
c. Kinetochores
d. Centromeres
b. Histones
What is another word for carcinogen?
a. Mutagen
b. Metastasis
c. Oncogene
d. Bivalent
a. Mutagen
At which stage of mitosis do spindle fibers split the homologous chromosomes?
a. Metaphase I
b. Anaphase I
c. Metaphase II
d. Anaphase II
d. Anaphase II
When do chiasmata form in meiosis?
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Metaphase I
d. Metaphase II
a. Prophase I
In what stage of the cell cycle does the DNA condense?
a. G1
b. Prophase
c. S Phase
d. Telophase
b. Prophase
What signal allows the cell to begin replicating DNA?
a. G1 checkpoint
b. S checkpoint
c. G2 checkpoint
d. Cytokinesis
a. G1 checkpoint
In what stage of the cell cycle is the cell the smallest?
a. G1
b. G2
c. S Phase
d. Prophase
a. G1
Which step is considered the shortest step of mitosis?
a. Prophase
b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Telophase
b. Anaphase
What is the result of meiosis in men?
a. One haploid gamete
b. One diploid gamete
c. Four haploid gametes
d. Four diploid gametes
c. Four haploid gametes
What processes are responsible for genetic variation in meiosis?

i. Synapses
ii. Crossing over
iii. Independent assortment
iv. Non-disjunction

a. i and ii
b. i and iii
c. ii and iii
d. ii and iv
c. ii and iii
An error in the __________ step of meiosis can cause _____________.
a. Anaphase II; Non-disjunction
b. Anaphase I; Trisomy 21
c. Telophase I; Trisomy 21
d. Telophase II; Non-disjunction
a. Anaphase II; Non-disjunction

Terms in this set (40)

A human being has _____ autosomes and ______ sex chromosomes

23, 1
22 pairs, 1 pair
23, 23
2, 2
22 pairs, 1 pair
A section of chromosomes that codes for a trait can be called a(n):

nucleotide
base-pair
gene
nucleus
gene
Somatic cells of a human have ____ chromosomes and are called ____

10, haploid
92, diploid
23, haploid
46, diploid
46, diploid
A person who receives an extra chromosome, could have:

Heightened intelligence
Down Syndrome
Red eyes
Polygenic traits
Down Syndrome
Each chromosome consists of two identical:

genes
nuclei
chromatids
bases
chromatids
If a person receives an X and a Y chromosome, that person is:
female
male
red eyed
mentally challenged
male
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Two alleles for pea plant height are designated T (tall) and t (dwarf). These alleles are
found on:

genes
sex chromosomes
ribosomes
homologous chromosomes
homologous chromosomes
An animal has 40 chromosomes in its gametes, how many chromosomes would you
expect to find in this animal's brain cells?

1
20
40
80
80
A picture of a person's chromosomes is called a(n):

karyotype
syndrome
chromatin
fingerprint
karyotype
During which phase of mitosis is DNA replicated?

interphase
prophase
anaphase
telophase
interphase
During which phase do chromosome first become visible?

interphase
telophase
metaphase
prophase
prophase
A cell with 10 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How many daughter cells are created?
___ Each daughter cell has ___ chromosomes.

2, 10
10, 2
1, 10
2, 20
2, 10
What structure is responsible for moving the chromosomes during mitosis?

nucleolus
nuclear membrane
spindle
cytoplasm
spindle
Cytokinesis begins in which phase?

metaphase
telophase
prophase
anaphase
telophase
Cells will generally divide when?

they are 10 hours old

they become infected
they become too large
they have no food
they become too large
Which phase occurs directly after metaphase?

anaphase
telophase
metaphase
prophase
anaphase
During which phase does the DNA make a copy of itself?

prophase
metaphase
interphase
anaphase
interphase
Each chromosome consists of 2 _____.

centrofibers
chromatids
daughter cells
centrioles
chromatids
Crossing-over occurs during:

anaphase 1
metaphase 1
prophase 1
prophase 2
prophase 1
Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces:

zygotes
chromosomes
DNA
gametes
gametes
Which of the following distinguishes prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?

homologous chromosomes pair up

spindle forms
nuclear membrane breaks down
chromosomes become visible
homologous chromosomes pair up
A cell with a diploid number of 24 undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are in
each daughter cell?

6
12
24
48
12
Meiosis results in _____

2 haploid daughter cells

4 haploid daughter cells
2 diploid daughter cells
4 diploid daughter cells
4 haploid daughter cells
Which of the following cells undergo meiosis?

sperm cells
liver cells
unicellular organisms
all of these
sperm cells
Which of the following is NOT part of mitosis

prophase
metaphase
telophase
interphase
interphase
Which of the following is NOT part of the chromosome?

kinetochore
chromatid
centromere
spindle
spindle
A cell that has 20 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. Which of the following is true?

two daughter cells will be created, each have 20 chromosomes

two daughter cells will be created, each have 40 chromosomes
4 daughter cells will be created, each having 10 chromosomes
2 daughter cells will be created, each having 10 chromosomes
two daughter cells will be created, each have 20 chromosomes
A spindle forms during which phase?

G2
interphase
prophase
metaphase
prophase
Compared to the X chromosome, the Y chromosome is:

much larger
much smaller
more twisted
inherited more often
much smaller
Which of the following can be determined from a karyotype?

the sex of the individual

whether the individual has Down Syndrome
The number of chromosomes present
all of these
all of these
Most cells spend their lives in:

prophase
metaphase
interphase
telophase
interphase
Cytokinesis begins during which phase?

telophase
synthesis phase
anaphase
metaphase
telophase
The process of mitosis ensures that:

each new cell is genetically different from its parent

each new cell receives the proper number of chromosomes
cells will divide at the appropriate time
DNA is replicated without errors
each new cell receives the proper number of chromosomes
What is the name of the structures responsible for generating the spindle fibers?

Centromeres
Membranes
The funky hot chocolates
Centrioles
Centrioles
What is the name of the microtubule fibers that pull the sister chromatids apart?

Centromeres
Membranes
Ligands
Spindles
Spindles
The pinching off of the cell membrane that creates two new cells (after mitosis) is called

Interphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Cytokinesis
Cytokinesis
Wha is the name of the attachment point between sister chromatids in a chromosome?

Centrioles
Centromeres
Spindles
Membranes
Centromeres
What would happen if the G2 phase didn't function properly?

No cellular proteins could be made.

The DNA would not be replicated.
The spindle apparatus would not form.
The spindle apparatus would not form
The purpose of mitosis is to produce:

Four daughter cells, each with one set of chromosomes

two daughter cells, each with one set of chromosomes
two daughter cells, each with two sets of chromosomes
two daughter cells, each with two sets of chromosomes
Which descriptions of mitosis is INCORRECT?

Centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell during prophase.

In anaphase, the chromosomes arrive at the opposite poles of the cell.
Metaphase is the stage in which pairs of chromatids line up on the equatorial plate.
In anaphase, the chromosomes arrive at the opposite poles of the cell.
Oo;

Terms in this set (25)

The appearance of an organism is its
Phenotype
An allele is
an alternate form of a gene
Which of the following is due to polygenic inheritance?
A. Hemophilia
B. ABO Blood Type
C. Human skin color
D. PKU in Humans
C. Human Skin Color
What would be the phenotypic ratio of a Punnett square for the cross Ww x ww?
1:1
In dihybrid crosses, the ratio 9:3:3:1 indicates that the parents were
Both Heterozygous
When Mendel crossed a strain of tall pea plants with a strain of short pea plants, he observed that
all of the plants in the F1 generation were tall. This suggests that
The tall trait was controlled by a dominant factor
In monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents, one would expect the offspring to be:
1 PP: 2Pp: 1 pp
Mendel studied the inheritance of traits of the garden pea. A pea plant with green peas peas and
white flowers is crossed with a plant with yellow peas and purple flowers. All of the offspring
resulting from this cross produced yellow peas and purple flowers. What is the genotype of the
pea plant with the green peas and white flowers?
Homozygous recessive for green peas and white flowers
In a cross of a round hybrid pea with a true breeding round parent (Ww x WW), what genotypic
proportions would be observed in the offspring?
Half heterozygous, half homozygous dominant
To determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant phenotype, you would cross
that individual with one that is
Homozygous recessive
In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant. A black guinea pig is crossed with a white guinea pig. If
the litter contains white offspring, the genotype of the black- haired parents is probably
Heterozygous
Since the ABO blood group alleles are codominant, an individual with the genotype I^a I^b will
have which blood type?
Type AB
Suppose you have found a new species of plant. Some of the plants have yellow flowers and
some have red flowers. You cross a red-flowering plant with a yellow flowering plant. All of the
offspring have orange flowers. Suggest a possible phenotype for the offspring:
A. RR
B. Rr
C. RrRr
D. rr
D. rr
In the above question, the phenotype of the offspring would be an example of:
A. Polygenic inheritance
B. Complete dominance
C. Co-dominance
D. Incomplete dominance
D. Incomplete dominance
What process is used to create Genetically Modified Organisms(GMOs)?
Gene Transfer
If the parents of a child have the ABO blood group genotypes IAIB and ii, what blood types
would the child have?
Type A or Type B
Which of the following is an inherited disease that is due to a base substitution mutation in a
gene?
A. Type II Diabetes
B. Trisomy 21
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. HIV
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
Ebony bodied flies with scarlet eyes crossed with wild type flies that are homozygous for both
traits produce offspring that are wild type for eye color and body color. These F2 offspring
produce a mix of:
i. wild type eye/wild type body
ii. scarlet eye/ebony body
iii. wild type eye/ebony body
iv. scarlet eye/wild type body

Which of these offspring are considered to be recombinants?

A. i and ii only
B. iii and iv only
C. i and iv only
D. i,ii, and iv
B. iii and iv only
Which scientist discovered that traits can be inherited together(linked)?
Morgan
Starting with a P generation with the following genotypes (AABB x aabb). Based on classical
Mendelian inheritance, what is the expected phenotypic ratio observed among the F2 generation?
9:3:3:1
In the previous question, if A = plain fur and a = spotted fur and B = Long ears and b = short
ears, what phenotypic class would be observed in the highest proportion in the F2 generation?
plain - long ears
A species of mice can have gray or black fur and long or short tails. A cross between black-
furred, long-tailed mice and gray-furred, short-tailed mic produce all black-furred, long-tailed
offspring. Using the gene symbols G for black, g for gray, S for long and s for short, what would
be the genotype of a gray-furred, short-tailed mouse?
ggss
Referring to the question above, how many different gametes will the black-furred, long-tailed
P1 mice produce?
4
Use the gel electrophoresis results below to answer the following question. (Find picture on test)
Which of the following statements are true?
Nick and Rob may be related
What does the karyotype below correspond to?
A normal male
Two alleles for pea plant height are designated T (tall) and t (dwarf). These alleles are
found on:

genes
sex chromosomes
ribosomes
homologous chromosomes
homologous chromosomes
An animal has 40 chromosomes in its gametes, how many chromosomes would you
expect to find in this animal's brain cells?

1
20
40
80
80
A picture of a person's chromosomes is called a(n):

karyotype
syndrome
chromatin
fingerprint
karyotype
During which phase of mitosis is DNA replicated?

interphase
prophase
anaphase
telophase
interphase
During which phase do chromosome first become visible?

interphase
telophase
metaphase
prophase
prophase
A cell with 10 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How many daughter cells are created?
___ Each daughter cell has ___ chromosomes.

2, 10
10, 2
1, 10
2, 20
2, 10
What structure is responsible for moving the chromosomes during mitosis?

nucleolus
nuclear membrane
spindle
cytoplasm
spindle
Cytokinesis begins in which phase?

metaphase
telophase
prophase
anaphase
telophase
Cells will generally divide when?

they are 10 hours old

they become infected
they become too large
they have no food
they become too large
Which phase occurs directly after metaphase?

anaphase
telophase
metaphase
prophase
anaphase
During which phase does the DNA make a copy of itself?

prophase
metaphase
interphase
anaphase
interphase
Each chromosome consists of 2 _____.

centrofibers
chromatids
daughter cells
centrioles
chromatids
Crossing-over occurs during:

anaphase 1
metaphase 1
prophase 1
prophase 2
prophase 1
Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces:

zygotes
chromosomes
DNA
gametes
gametes
Which of the following distinguishes prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of mitosis?

homologous chromosomes pair up

spindle forms
nuclear membrane breaks down
chromosomes become visible
homologous chromosomes pair up
A cell with a diploid number of 24 undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are in
each daughter cell?

6
12
24
48
12
Meiosis results in _____

2 haploid daughter cells

4 haploid daughter cells
2 diploid daughter cells
4 diploid daughter cells
4 haploid daughter cells
Which of the following cells undergo meiosis?

sperm cells
liver cells
unicellular organisms
all of these
sperm cells
Which of the following is NOT part of mitosis

prophase
metaphase
telophase
interphase
interphase
Which of the following is NOT part of the chromosome?

kinetochore
chromatid
centromere
spindle
spindle
A cell that has 20 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. Which of the following is true?

two daughter cells will be created, each have 20 chromosomes

two daughter cells will be created, each have 40 chromosomes
4 daughter cells will be created, each having 10 chromosomes
2 daughter cells will be created, each having 10 chromosomes
two daughter cells will be created, each have 20 chromosomes
A spindle forms during which phase?

G2
interphase
prophase
metaphase
prophase
Compared to the X chromosome, the Y chromosome is:

much larger
much smaller
more twisted
inherited more often
much smaller
Which of the following can be determined from a karyotype?

the sex of the individual

whether the individual has Down Syndrome
The number of chromosomes present
all of these
all of these
Most cells spend their lives in:

prophase
metaphase
interphase
telophase
interphase
Cytokinesis begins during which phase?

telophase
synthesis phase
anaphase
metaphase
telophase
The process of mitosis ensures that:

each new cell is genetically different from its parent

each new cell receives the proper number of chromosomes
cells will divide at the appropriate time
DNA is replicated without errors
each new cell receives the proper number of chromosomes
What is the name of the structures responsible for generating the spindle fibers?

Centromeres
Membranes
The funky hot chocolates
Centrioles
Centrioles
What is the name of the microtubule fibers that pull the sister chromatids apart?

Centromeres
Membranes
Ligands
Spindles
Spindles
The pinching off of the cell membrane that creates two new cells (after mitosis) is called

Interphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Cytokinesis
Cytokinesis
Wha is the name of the attachment point between sister chromatids in a chromosome?

Centrioles
Centromeres
Spindles
Membranes
Centromeres
What would happen if the G2 phase didn't function properly?

No cellular proteins could be made.

The DNA would not be replicated.
The spindle apparatus would not form.
The spindle apparatus would not form
The purpose of mitosis is to produce:

Four daughter cells, each with one set of chromosomes

two daughter cells, each with one set of chromosomes
two daughter cells, each with two sets of chromosomes
two daughter cells, each with two sets of chromosomes
Which descriptions of mitosis is INCORRECT?

Centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell during prophase.

In anaphase, the chromosomes arrive at the opposite poles of the cell.
Metaphase is the stage in which pairs of chromatids line up on the equatorial plate.
In anaphase, the chromosomes arrive at the opposite poles of the cell.