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Chemistry & Mathematics
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On Wednesday 09th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 2 : 30 PM To 05 : 30 PM
PHYSICS
1. Two plane mirrors arc inclined to each other Hence total no. of maximas observed in angular
such that a ray of light incident on the first range –30°    30° is
mirror (M1) and parallel to the second mirror maximas = 320 + 1 + 320 = 641
(M2) is finally reflected from the second mirror 3. At a given instant, say t = 0, two radioactive
(M2) parallel to the first mirror (M1). The angle substances A and B have equal activities. The
between the two mirrors will be :
RB
(1) 90° (2) 45° (3) 75° (4) 60° ratio R of their activities after time t itself
Ans. (4) A

M1 decays with time t as e–3t. [f the half-life of A

is m2, the half-life of B is :

ln2 ln2
 (1) (2) 2ln2 (3) (4) 4ln2
2 4
Ans. (3)
Sol. Half life of A = n2
n2
t1/2 =
Sol.    
M2 A = 1
Assuming angles between two mirrors be  at t = 0 RA = RB
as per geometry, NAe–AT = NBe–BT
sum of anlges of  NA = NB at t = 0
3 = 180°
 = 60° R B N 0 e Bt
at t = t 
2. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are R A N 0 e A t
placed 0.320 mm apart. Light of wavelength  e  B A   e t
   t

= 500 nm is incident on the slits. The total B – A = 3

number of bright fringes that are observed in B = 3 + A = 4
the angular range –30°30°is: n2 n2
(1) 320 (2) 641 (3) 321 (4) 640 t1/2 =   4
B
Ans. (2) 4. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3 V and
0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge
diode connection are reversed, the value of Vo
changes by : (assume that the Ge diode has
large breakdown voltage)
Sol. d  CM Ge

Vo

Pam difference Si
dsin = n 12V 5K
where d = seperation of slits
 = wave length
n = no. of maximas
(1) 0.6 V (2) 0.8 V (3) 0.4 V (4) 0.2 V
0.32 × 10–3 sin 30 = n × 500 × 10–9
Ans. (3)
n = 320
1
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Sol. Initially Ge & Si are both forward biased so
1 2
current will effectivily pass through Ge diode Sol. Potential energy (U) = kx
2
with a drop of 0.3 V
if "Ge" is revesed then current will flow through 1 2 1 2
Kinetic energy (K) = kA  kx
"Si" diode hence an effective drop of (0.7 – 0.3) 2 2
= 0.4 V is observed. According to the question, U = k
5. A rod of mass 'M' and length '2L' is suspended
1 2 1 2 1 2
at its middle by a wire. It exhibits torsional  kx  kA  kx
2 2 2
oscillations; If two masses each of 'm' are
attached at distance 'L/2' from its centre on both A
sides, it reduces the oscillation frequency by x= 
2
20%. The value of ratio m/M is close to :
 Correct answer is (3)
(1) 0.17 (2) 0.37 (3) 0.57 (4) 0.77
8. A musician using an open flute of length 50 cm
Ans. (2)
produces second harmonic sound waves. A
Sol. Frequency of torsonal oscillations is given by
person runs towards the musician from another
k end of a hall at a speed of 10 km/h. If the wave
f=
I speed is 330 m/s, the frequency heard by the
k running person shall be close to :
f1 
M  2L 
2 (1) 753 Hz (2) 500 Hz
(3) 333 Hz (4) 666 Hz
12 Ans. (4)
k Sol. Frequency of the sound produced by flute,
f2 
2 2
M  2L  L
 2m    v  2  330
12 2 f = 2    660Hz
 2  2  0.5
f2 = 0.8 f1
m 5 25
 0.375 Velocity of observer, v0 = 10 
= m/s
M 18 9
6. A 15 g mass of nitrogen gas is enclosed in a  frequency detected by observer, f' =
vessel at a temperature 27°C. Amount of heat  v  v0 
transferred to the gas, so that rms velocity of  v  f
molecules is doubled, is about :
[Take R = 8.3 J/ K mole]  25 
 9  330 
(1) 10 kJ (2) 0.9 kJ (3) 6 kJ (4) 14 kJ 660
Ans. (1)  f' =  330 
 
Sol. Q = nCvT as gas in closed vessel  
= 335.56 × 2 = 671.12
15 5  R
Q=    4T  T   closest answer is (4)
28 2
9. In a communication system operating at
Q = 10000 J = 10 kJ
wavelength 800 nm, only one percent of source
7. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion
(SHM) of amplitude A, along the x-axis, about frequency is available as signal bandwidth. The
x = 0. When its potential Energy (PE) equals number of channels accomodated for transmitting
kinetic energy (KE), the position of the particle TV signals of band width 6 MHz are (Take velocity
will be :
of light c = 3 × 108m/s,h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
A A A (1) 3.75 × 106 (2) 4.87 × 105
(1) (2) (3) (4) A
2 2 2 2 (3) 3.86 × 106 (4) 6.25 × 105
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
2
 
Sol. f =
3  10 8
30
 1014 Hz

 E 2  9  10 3 cos 2 ˆi  sin 2 ˆj 
8 107 8 3
 tan 2 
= 3.75 × 1014
Hz 4
1% of f = 0.0375 × 1014 Hz  4 3 
= 3.75 × 1012 Hz = 3.75 × 106 MHz 5 5 

 E 2  9  10 3  ˆi  ˆj   72iˆ  54 ˆj  10 2 
3.75  106 1 10  10 6
E 
Magnitude of 1 4  12  32
number of channels = = 6.25 × 105
6 0  
 correct answer is (4)  
 9  10 9  10  10 7
10. Two point charges q1( 10 C) and q2(–25 C)  9 10  10 2

are placed on the x-axis at x = l m and x = 4 m
  
 E1  9 10  10 2  cos 1 ˆi  sin 1ˆj 

respectively. The electric field (in V/m) at a  tan1 = 3
point y = 3 m on y-axis is, 10
 1 3
9 2 2  1
 take 4   9  10 Nm C 
 0  1
(1) ( 63iˆ  27ˆj)  10 2 (2) (81iˆ  81j)
ˆ  10 2  1 3 ˆ
E1  9  10  10 2 
 10
 ˆi  j
10 
 
(3) (63iˆ  27ˆj)  10 2 (4) ( 81iˆ  81j)
ˆ  10 2
E1  9  10 2  ˆi  3ˆj  9iˆ  27jˆ  10 2
Ans. (3)
  
E1

 E  E  E  63iˆ  27jˆ  10 V / m
1 2
2

 correct answer is (3)
y=3 11. A parallel plate capacitor with square plates is
2
filled with four dielectrics of dielectric constants
E2
y=2 K1, K2, K3, K4 arranged as shown in the figure.
The effective dielectric constant K will be :
Sol.
y=3
K1 K2 L/2
1 q1 2 q2
(0,0) x=1 x=2 x=3 x=4m x K3 K4 L/2
 
Let E1 & E 2 are the vaues of electric field due d/2 d/2
to q 1 & q 2 respectively magnitude of (K1  K 2 )(K 3  K 4 )
(1) K 
2(K1  K 2  K 3  K 4 )
1 q2
E2  (K1  K 2 )(K 3  K 4 )
4 0 r 2 (2) K 
(K1  K 2  K 3  K 4 )
(K1  K 4 )(K 2  K 3 )
9  10 9   25   10 6 (3) K 
E2  V/m 2(K1  K 2  K 3  K 4 )
4 2
 32  (K1  K 3 )(K 2  K 4 )
(4) K 
E2 = 9 × 103 V/m K1  K 2  K 3  K 4
Ans. (Bonus)

3
 k1 k2
C13C 24  k1  k 3  k 2  k 4  0 L2
k1 k2 L/2 C1 C2 Ceq = C C  k  k  k  k
Sol.  13 24  1 2 3 4 d
k3 k4 L/2 k3 k4

C3 C4 k 0 L2
=
C12 d

  k1  k 3  k 2  k 4 
k = k k k k
Ceq  1 2 3 4
C34
However this is one of the four options.
L  L 
k1 0  L k 2 0  L  It must be a "Bonus" logically but of the given
2
C1C2
2 .   options probably they might go with (4)
d/2 d/2
C12 = C C = L 12. A rod of length 50cm is pivoted at one end. It
1 2  
0 . 2  L  is raised such that if makes an angle of 30° from
 k1  k 2    the horizontal as shown and released from rest.
 d/2 
  Its angular speed when it passes through the
k1k 2 0 L2 horizontal (in rad s–1) will be (g = 10ms–2)
C12 =
k1  k 2 d
k 3 k 4 0 L2
in the same way we get, C34 
k3  k 4 d
30°
 k1k 2 k 3k 4  0 L2
 Ceq = C12 + C34 =  k  k  k  k  d ..(i) 30
 1 2 3 4 30 20
(1) 30 (2) (3) (4)
2 2 3
k 0 L2
Now if keq = k, C eq  .....(ii) Ans. (1)
d
on comparing equation (i) to equation (ii), we initial position
get 

k1k 2  k 3  k 4   k 3k 4  k1  k 2  Sol.
keq = 30°
 k1  k 2  k 3  k 4 
final position
This does not match with any of the options Work done by gravity from initial to final
so probably they have assumed the wrong position is,
combination

L L W  mg sin 30
k1 0 L L. 2
C13 = 2 k  2
3 0
d/2 d/2 mg

0 L2 4
= (k1 + k3) According to work energy theorem
d
 L2 1
C24 = (k2 + k4) 0 W  I2
d 2

4
 GM e m GM em
1 m 2 2 mg   E1  
   Re  Re h 
2 3 4

3g 3  10  1 1 
  E1 = GMem  R  R  h 
2 2  0.5  e e 

  30 rad / sec GM e m h
 correct answer is (1) E1 =  R  h   R
e e
13. One of the two identical conducting wires of
length L is bent in the form of a circular loop mv2
and the other one into a circular coil of N Gravitational attraction FG = maC = R  h
 e 
identical turns. If the same current is passed in
both, the ratio of the magnetic field at the mv2 GM e m
central of the loop (BL) to that at the centre of E2   R  h   2
e Re  h 
BL
the coil (BC), i.e. R B will be :
C GM e m
1 1 mv2 = Re  h 
(1) (2) N2 (3) 2 (4) N
N N
Ans. (3)
mv2 GM e m
E2 = 2  2 R  h
 e 
r E1 = E2
Sol. R
Loop Coil
h 1 Re
  3200km
L = 2R L = N × 2r R e 2 h = 2
R = Nr 15. The energy associated with electric field is (UE)
and with magnetic field is (U B ) for an
 0i  0 Ni
BL = BC = electromagnetic wave in free space. Then :
2R 2r
UB
(1) UE = (2) UE < UB
0 N 2i 2
BC = (3) UE = UB (4) UE > UB
2R
Ans. (3)
BL 1 Sol. Average energy density of magnetic field,
 2
BC N
B02
14. The energy required to take a satellite to a uB = 2 , B0 is maximum value of magnetic
0
height 'h' above Earth surface (radius of Earth
= 6.4 × 10 3 km) is E 1 and kinetic energy field.
Average energy density of electric field,
required for the satellite to be in a circular orbit
at this height is E2. The value of h for which 0 20
E1 and E2 are equal, is: uE =
2
(1) 1.28 × 104 km (2) 6.4 × 103 km
(3) 3.2 × 103 km (4) 1.6 × 103 km 1
now, 0 = CB0 , C2 =  
Ans. (3) 0 0

Sol. Usurface + E1 = Uh
KE of satelite is zero at earth surface & at 0
uE =  C2 B02
height h 2

5
 0 1 2 B02 GM 2

= 2    B 0   uB Sol. F = G = [M–1L3T–2]
0 0 2 0 R2
uE = uB E = h h = [ML2T–1]
since energy density of electric & magnetic C = [LT–1]
field is same, energy associated with equal t GxhyCz
volume will be equal. [T] = [M–1L3T–2]x[ML2T–1]y[LT–1]z
uE = uB [M0L0T1] = [M–x + yL3x + 2y + zT–2x – y – z]
16. A series AC circuit containing an inductor (20 on comparing the powers of M, L, T
mH), a capacitor (120 F) and a resistor (60) – x + y = 0  x = y
is driven by an AC source of 24 V/50 Hz. The 3x + 2y + z = 0  5x + z = 0 ....(i)
energy dissipated in the circuit in 60 s is : –2x – y – z = 1  3x + z = –1 ...(ii)
(1) 2.26 × 103 J (2) 3.39 × 103 J 1 5
2
(3) 5.65 × 10 J (4) 5.17 × 102 J on solving (i) & (ii) x = y = ,z= 
2 2
Ans. (4)
Gh
Sol. R = 60 f = 50Hz,  = 2f = 100  t
C5
1 1 18. The magnetic field associated with a light wave
xC = 
C 100120  106 is given, at the origin, by
B = B0 [sin(3.14 × 107)ct + sin(6.28 × 107)ct]. If
xC = 26.52 
this light falls on a silver plate having a work
xL = L = 100 × 20 × 10–3 = 2
function of 4.7 eV, what will be the maximum
xC – xL = 20.24  20 kinetic energy of the photo electrons ?
 R = 60 (c = 3 × l08ms–1, h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
(1) 7.72 eV (2) 8.52 eV
(3) 12.5 eV (4) 6.82 eV
Z Ans. (1)
xC – xL = 20
2 Sol. B = B0sin ( × 107C)t + B0sin (2 × 107C)t
z= R 2  xC  xL  since there are two EM waves with different
z = 20 10 frequency, to get maximum kinetic energy we
R 3 take the photon with higher frequency
cos = 
z 10
107
v B1 = B0sin( × 107C)t 1 = C
Pavg = VI cos , I = 2
z
B2 = B0sin( × 107C)t 2 = 107C
v2
= cos  where C is speed of light C = 3 × 108 m/s
z
= 8.64 watt 2 > 1
Q = P.t = 8.64 × 60 = 5.18 × 102 so KE of photoelectron will be maximum for
17. Expression for time in terms of G (universal photon of higher energy.
gravitational constant), h (Planck constant) and 2 = 107C Hz
c (speed of light) is proportional to : h =  + KEmax
energy of photon
Gh hc 5 Eph = h = 6.6 × 10–34 × 107 × 3 × 109
(1) (2)
c3 G Eph = 6.6 × 3 × 10–19J
6.6  3  1019
= eV  12.375eV
c3 Gh 1.6  1019
(3) (4)
Gh c5 KEmax = Eph – 
= 12.375 – 4.7 = 7.675 eV  7.7 eV
Ans. (4)
6
19. Charge is distributed within a sphere of radius R
A 2r / a T1
with a volume charge density (r)  2 e ,
r
where A and a are constants. If Q is the total charge
of this charge distribution, the radius R is : H1 w1
a  Q   Q 
(1) log  1   (2) a log  1  
2  2 aA   2 aA 
T2
 1  a  1 
(3) a log  (4) log 
Q  2 Q 
1  1  Sol.
 2 aA   2 aA  H1 w2
Ans. (4)

dr T3

r
Sol. w1 = w2
u1 = u2
T3 – T2 = T2 – T1
2T2 = T1 + T3
Q=  dv T2 = 500 K
R
A 21. A carbon resistance has a following colour
= r 2
e 2 r / a  4r 2 dr 
0 code. What is the value of the resistance ?
R
A
= r 2
e 2 r / a  4r 2 dr  G OY Golden
0
(1) 1.64 M  5% (2) 530 k  5%
R
(3) 64 k  10% (4) 5.3 M  5%
= 4A  e2r / a dr
0
Ans. (2)
R
 
 e 2 r / a  Sol.
= 4A   G O Y4 Golden
2 5 3 10 ±5%
  
 a 0 R = 53 × 104 ± 5% = 530 k ± 5%
22. A force acts on a 2 kg object so that its position
 a  2R / a
= 4A     e  1 is given as a function of time as x = 3t2 + 5. What
 2
Q = 2aA(1 – e–2R/a) is the work done by this force in first 5 seconds ?
(1) 850 J (2) 900 J
 
a  1  (3) 950 J (4) 875 J
R = log  Q  Ans. (2)
2
 1  
 2aA  Sol. x = 3t2 + 5
20. Two Carrnot engines A and B are operated in dx
series. The first one, A, receives heat at T1(= 600 v
dt
K) and rejects to a reservoir at temperature T2. The
v = 6t + 0
second engine B receives heat rejected by the first
at t = 0 v=0
engine and, in turn, rejects to a heat reservoir at
t = 5 sec v = 30 m/s
T3(= 400 K). Calculate the temperature T2 if the
W.D. = KE
work outputs of the two engines are equal :
(1) 400 K (2) 600 K (3) 500 K (4) 300 K 1 1 2
W.D. = mv 2  0   2  30   900J
Ans. (3) 2 2

7
23. The position co-ordinates of a particle moving 25. A mass of 10 kg is suspended vertically by a rope
in a 3-D coordinate system is given by from the roof. When a horizontal force is applied
x = a cost
on the rope at some point, the rope deviated at
y = a sint
and z = at an angle of 45° at the roof point. If the suspended
The speed of the particle is : mass is at equilibrium, the magnitude of the force
(1) a (2) 3 a applied is (g = 10 ms –2)
(3) 2 a (4) 2a (1) 200 N (2) 100 N (3) 140 N (4) 70 N
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
Sol. vx = –asint  vy = acost

vz = a  v  v 2x  v 2y  v 2z 45°

v  2a Sol. 45° F

24. In the given circuit the internal resistance of the
18 V cell is negligible. If R1 = 400 , R3 = 100  100N
and R4 = 500  and the reading of an ideal voltmeter at equation
across R4 is 5V, then the value R2 will be :
R3 R4 100
tan45° =
F
F = 100 N
R1
26. In a car race on straight road, car A takes a time t
R2 less than car B at the finish and passes finishing
point with a speed 'v' more than that of car B. Both
18V the cars start from rest and travel with constant
(1) 300  (2) 230  acceleration a1 and a2 respectively. Then 'v' is equal
(3) 450  (4) 550  to
Ans. (1)
a1  a 2
R3=100 R4=500 (1) t (2) 2a1a 2 t
2
i i1 2a1a 2
(3) t (4) a1a 2 t
R1=400 a1  a 2
i2 R2 Ans. (4)
Sol.
Sol. For A & B let time taken by A is t0

18V
x
V4 = 5V
V4 u=0 vA = a1t0
i1   0.01 A vB = a2(t0 + t)
R4
V3 = i1R3 = 1V from ques.
V3 + V4 = 6V = V2 vA – vB = v = (a1 – a2)t0 – a2t ....(i)
V1 + V3 + V4 = 18V 1 2 1 2
V1 = 12 V xB = x A = a 1t 0  a 2  t 0  t 
2 2
V
i  1  0.03Amp.  a1 t 0  a 2  t 0  t 
R1
i2 = 0.02 Amp V2 = 6V
R2 
V2

6
 300 
  
a2  a 2 t0  a2 t ....(ii)
i2 0.02
8
 putting t0 in equation 29. The pitch and the number of divisions, on
the circular scale, for a given screw gauge
a2 t are 0.5 mm and 100 respectively. When the
v = (a1 – a2)  a 2t
a1  a 2 screw gauge is fully tightened without any
object, the zero of its circular scale lies 3
=  a1  a 2  a 2 t  a 2t  v = a1a 2 t divisions below the mean line.
The readings of the main scale and the circular
 a1a 2 t  a 2 t  a 2 t scale, for a thin sheet, are 5.5 mm and 48
27. A power transmission line feeds input power respectively, the thickness of this sheet is :
at 2300 V to a step down transformer with its (1) 5.755 m (2) 5.725 mm
primary windings having 4000 turns. The (3) 5.740 m (4) 5.950 mm
output power is delivered at 230 V by the Ans. (2)

transformer. If the current in the primary of the Pitch

Sol. LC = No. of division
transformer is 5A and its efficiency is 90%, the
output current would be : LC = 0.5 × 10–2 mm
(1) 25 A (2) 50 A +ve error = 3 × 0.5 × 10–2 mm
(3) 35 A (4) 45 A = 1.5 × 10–2 mm = 0.015 mm
Ans. (4) Reading = MSR + CSR – (+ve error)
= 5.5 mm + (48 × 0.5 × 10–2) – 0.015
Pout VS I S
Sol.   = 5.5 + 0.24 – 0.015 = 5.725 mm
Pin VP I P
30. A particle having the same charge as of electron
23  I S moves in a circular path of radius 0.5 cm under
 0.9 
230  5 the influence of a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If an
 I S  45A electric field of 100 V/m makes it to move in
28. The top of a water tank is open to air and its water a straight path, then the mass of the particle is
(Given charge of electron =1.6 × 10–19C)
level is maintained. It is giving out 0.74 m3 water
(1) 2.0 × 10–24 kg
per minute through a circular opening of 2 cm radius
(2) 1.6 × 10–19 kg
in its wall. The depth of the centre of the opening
(3) 1.6 × 10–27 kg
from the level of water in the tank is close to : (4) 9.1 × 10–31 kg
(1) 9.6 m (2) 4.8 m (3) 2.9 m (4) 6.0 m Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Sol. In flow volume = outflow volume mv 2
Sol.  qvB
R
0.74

60

  4  10 4  2gh  mv = qBR ....(i)
Path is straight line
74  100 it qE = qvB
 2gh 
240  E = vB ....(ii)
740 From equation (i) & (ii)
 2gh 
24 qB2 R
m=
740  740 2 E
 2gh 
24  24  10
  10  
m = 2.0 × 10–24 kg
74  74
h
2  24  24
 h  4.8m
9
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On Wednesday 09th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 2 : 30 PM To 05 : 30 PM
CHEMISTRY
1. lood reducing nature of H3PO2 ttributed to the 5. The major product of the following reaction is:
presence of: O OH
(1) One P-OH bond (2) One P-H bond CH3
(3) Two P-H bonds (4) Two P-OH bonds O
+ AlCl3,D
Ans. (3)
Sol. H3PO2 is good reducing agent due to presence OH
H 3C

of two P–H bonds. (1) O

2. The complex thai has highest cry splitting

energy (D), is : OH
(1) K3[Co(CN)6] CH3
(2) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]Cl3
(3) K2[CoCl4] (2)
(4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl 2 O
Ans. (1)
Sol. As complex K 3[Co(CN) 6 ] have CN – ligand OH
which is strongfield ligand amongst the given CH3
ligands in other complexes.
3. The metal that forms nitride by reacting directly (3)
with N2 of air, is : O
(1) K (2) Cs (3) Li (4) Rb
Ans. (3) OH
Sol. Only Li react directly with N 2 out of alkali HC3
metals
6Li + N2 ® 2Li3N
(4)
4. In which of the following processes, the bond
order has increased and paramagnetic character O
has changed to diamagnetic ? Ans. (4)
(1) N2 ® N2+ (2) NO ® NO+ Sol.
(3) O2 ® O2 2– (4) O2 ® O2+ OH
Ans. (2) CH3 OH
O O
CH3
Sol. O AlCl3 O–AlCl3
Change in
Bond Order OH
Pr ocess magnetic
Change O
nature
N 2 ® N2+ Dia ® para 3 ® 2.5
+ OH
NO ® NO Para ® Dia 2.5 ® 3 CH3
O 2 ® O 2-2 Para ® Dia 2 ®1
O2 ® O2+ Para ® Para 2 ® 2.5
O

1
6. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy Compound 'X' is:
of atomisation, is :
NH2 OH
(1) Zn
(2) Cu CH3
(3) V (1)
(4) Fc
Ans. (2)
Sol. Since Zn is not a transition element so transition H3C CH3
element having lowest atomisation energy out N
of Cu, V, Fe is Cu. COCH3
(2)
7. Which of the following combination of
statements is true regarding the interpretation
of the atomic orbitals ?
(a) An electron in an orbital of high angular NH2
momentum stays away from the nucleus
than an electron in the orbital of lower CHO
(3)
angular momentum.
(b) For a given value of the principal quantum
number, the size of the orbit is inversely
H 3C CH3
proportional to the azimuthal quantum N
number.
(c) According to wave mechanics, the ground (4) CHO
h
state angular momentum is h equal to .
2p
(d) The plot of y Vs r for various azimuthal Ans. (2)
quantum numbers, shows peak shifting Sol. ® 2,4 – DNP test is given by aldehyde on
towards higher r value. ketone
(1) (b), (c) (2) (a), (d) (3) (a), (b) (4) (a), (c) ® Iodoform test is given by compound having
Ans. (4) CH3 – C – group.
Sol. Refer Theory
O
8. The tests performed on compound X and their
inferences are: 9. The major product formed in the following
Test Inference reaction is:
(a) 2,4 - DNP test Coloured precipitate O CH2
(b) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate O
(c) Azo-dye test No dye formation dil.NaOH
H3C H+

2
 x y
OH Sol. r = K[A] [B]
O
Þ8=2 =2
3 x+y

(1) HC
3 Þ x + y = 3 ...(1)
Þ2=2
x

Þ x = 1, y = 2
O OH Order w.r.t. A = 1
Order w.r.t. B = 2
(2) H3 C
11. The correct sequence of amino acids present
in the tripeptide given below is :

OH O Me Me
H
O Me OH
H3 C N
(3) H2N N OH
C
O OH H
O
O OH (1) Leu - Ser - Thr (2) Thr - Ser- Leu
H (3) Thr - Ser - Val (4) Val - Ser - Thr
(4) H3C
Ans. (1)

Ans. (1) Sol. Leusine CH–COOH

Sol. Aldehyde reacts at a faster rate than keton NH 2
during aldol and stericall less hindered anion
will be a better nucleophile so sefl aldol at NO– CH2– CH – COOH
Serine
O NH2
CH 3 – C – H will be the major product. H 3C–CH – CH–COOH
Thrconine
10. For the reaction, 2A + B ® products, when the OH NH 2
concentrations of A and B both wrere doubled, 12. The correct statement regarding the given
the rate of the reaction increased from 0.3 mol Ellingham diagram is:
L–1s–1 to 2.4 mol L–l s–1. When the concentration
of A alone is doubled, the rate increased from
2 Cu 2O
0.3 mol L–1s–1 to0.6 mol L–1s–1 O2 ®
4 Cu+
Which one of the following statements is
correct ?
–300
(1) Order of the reaction with respect to Bis2
DG°(kJ/mol)

(2) Order of the reaction with respect to Ais2 2C

+ O®
nO 2
2CO
(3) Total order of the reaction is 4 –600 +O ®2Z
2Zn
2

(4) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 1

2 O3
Ans. (1) — Al 2
4 Al+ O 2® 3
–1050 —
3

500°C Temp.(°C) 2000°C

3
 (1) At 800°C, Cu can be used for the extraction 15. The increasing basicity order of the following
of Zn from ZnO compounds is :
(2) At 500 C, coke can be used for the extraction (A) CH 3CH2NH2
of Zn from ZnO CH2CH3
(3) Coke cannot be used for the extraction of (B)
CH3CH2NH
Cu from Ca2O.
CH3
(4) At 1400°C, Al can be used for the extraction (C)
of Zn from ZnO H3C–N–CH3
Ans. (4) CH3
(D)
Sol. According to the given diagram Al can reduce Ph–N–H
ZnO. (1) (D)<(C)<(A)<(B) (2) (A)<(B)<(D)<(C)
3ZnO+2Al®3Zn+Al2O3 (3) (A)<(B)<(C)< (D) (4) (D)<(C)<(B)<(A)
13. For the following reaction, the mass of water Ans. (1)
produced from 445 g of C 57H110O6 is : Sol.
2C57H110O6(s) + 163O2(g) ® 114CO2(g) + 110 H2OP(1)
CH3 CH3 CH2–CH3
(1) 495 g (2) 490 g (3) 890 g (4) 445 g
Ph – N – H < CH3 – N – CH3 < CH3–CH2–NH < CH3–CH2 –NH2
Ans. (1)
lone pair more steric
445 delocalized hinderence
Sol. moles of C57H110O6(s) = = 0.5 moles
890 less solutions
energy
2C57H110O6(s) + 163 O2(g) ® 114 CO2(g) + 110 H2O(l)
16. For coagulation of arscnious sulphide sol,
110 55
n H2 O = = which one of the following salt solution will be
4 2
most effective ?
55 (1) AlCl3 (2) NaCl
m H2 O = ´ 18 (3) BaCl2 (4) Na3PO4
2
Ans. (1)
= 495gm
Sol. Sulphide is –ve charged colloid so cation with
14. The correct match between Item I and Item II
maximum charge will be most effective for
is :
coagulation.
Item I Item II
Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+ coagulating power.
(A) Benzaldehyde (P) Mobile phase
17. At 100°C, copper (Cu) has FCC unit cell
(B) Alumina (Q) Adsorbent
structure with cell edge length of x Å. What is
(C) Acetonitrile (R) Adsorbate
the approximate density of Cu (in g cm–3) at this
(1) (A) ® (Q);(B) ® (R);(C) ® (P)
temperature ?
(2) (A) ® (P); (B) ® (R); (C) ® (Q)
[Atomic Mass of Cu = 63.55u]
(3) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (R)
(4) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (Q); (C) ® (P) 105 211 205 422
(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 3 (4)
Ans. (4) x x x x3
Sol. Ans. (4)

4
Sol. FCC unit cell Z = 4 19. Which of the following conditions in drinking
water causes methemoglobinemia ?
63.5 ´ 4
d= g/cm3 (1) > 50ppm of load
6 ´ 1023 ´ x 3 ´ 10-24
(2) > 100 ppm of sulphate
63.5 ´ 4 ´ 10 (3) > 50 ppm of chloride
d= g/cm3 (4) > 50 ppm of nitrate
6
Ans. (4)
423.33 æ 422 ö Sol. Concentration of nitrate >50 ppm in drinking
d= ;ç 3 ÷
x3 è x ø water causes methemoglobinemia
18. The major product obtained in the following 20. Homoleptic octahedral complexes of a metal
reaction is : ion 'M3+' with three monodentate ligands and
L 1, L2, L3 absorb wavelengths in the region of
OH green, blue and red respectively. The increasing
(CH 3CO)2O/pyridine(1eqv.)
order of the ligand strength is :
room temp (1) L2 < L1 < L3 (2) L3 < L2 < L1
NH2
(3) L3 < L1 <L2 (4) L1 < L2 < L3
Ans. (3)
COCH3 Sol. Order of labs - L3>L1>L2
OH
1
So DO order will be L2 > L1 > L3 (as D O µ l )
(1) abs
NH2 So order of ligand strength will be L 2>L1>L3
21. The product formed in the reaction of cumene with
O2 followed by treatment with dil. HCl are :
OCOCH3
OH
OH
(2)
NH2 (1)
and
H3C CH3
O CH3
OH
(2)
(3) and CH3 – OH
NHCOCH3
OH
O
(3)
and
H3 C CH3
(4)
NHCOCH3 O
(4) and
Ans. (3) H3 C CH3
OH Ans. (3)

Sol. CH3 – C – O – C – CH3

NH 2 O O

OH

NH–C–CH 3
O
5
Sol. Cummene hydroperoxide reaction 24. The pH of rain water, is approximately :
(1) 6.5 (2) 7.5 (3) 5.6 (4) 7.0
O – OH Ans. (3)
O2
Sol. pH of rain water is approximate 5.6
25. If the standard electrode potential for a cell is
HCl 2 V at 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for
the reaction
OH
ˆˆ† Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) ‡ˆˆ
+ CH3–C–CH3 at 300 K is approximately.
(R = 8 JK–1 mol–1 , F = 96000 C mol–1)
O
(1) e160 (2) e320
22. The temporary hardness of water is due to :-
(3) e–160 (4) e–80
(1) Ca(HCO3)2 (2) NaCl
Ans. (1)
(3) Na2SO4 (4) CaCl2
Sol. DG° = – RT lnk = – nFE°cell
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ca(HCO 3 ) 2 is reponsible for temporary n ´ F ´ Eo 2 ´ 96000 ´ 2
lnk = =
hardness of water R ´T 8 ´ 300
23. The entropy change associated with the lnk = 160
conversion of 1 kg of ice at 273 K to water k = e160
vapours at 383 K is : 26. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in
(Specific heat of water liquid and water vapour are 250 g water is cooled to –10°C. If Kf for water
4.2 kJ K–1 kg–1 and 2.0 kJ K–1 kg–1 ; heat of liquid is 1.86 K kg mol–1, the amount of water (in g)
fusion and vapourisation of water are separated as ice is :
344 kJ kg–1 and 2491 kJ kg –1, respectively). (1) 32 (2) 48 (3) 16 (4) 64
(log 273 = 2.436, log 373 = 2.572, log 383 = 2.583) Ans. (4)
(1) 7.90 kJ kg–1 K–1 (2) 2.64 kJ kg–1 K–1 Sol. DTf = Kf . m
(3) 8.49 kJ kg–1 K–1 (4) 4.26 kJ kg–1 K–1 62 / 62
Ans. (4) 10 = 1.86 × Wkg
Sol. H2O(s) H2O(l) H2O(l) W = 0.186 kg
DS1 DS2
273K 273K 373K DW = (250 – 186) = 64 gm
DS3 27. When the first electron gain enthalpy (DegH) of
oxygen is –141 kJ/mol, its second electron gain
H2O(g) H2O(g) enthalpy is :
DS4 (1) almost the same as that of the first
373K 383K
(2) negative , but less negative than the first
DH fusion 334 (3) a positive value
DS1 = = = 1.22
273 273 (4) a more negative value than the first
æ 363 ö Ans. (3)
DS2 = 4.2 lN ç ÷ = 1.31 Sol. Second electron gain enthalpy is always
è 273 ø
DH vap positive for every element.
2491
DS3 = = = 6.67 O–(g)+ e– ®O¯2(g) ; DH = positive
373 373

æ 383 ö
DS4 = 2.0 ln ç ÷ = 0.05
è 373 ø
DStotal = 9.26 kJ kg–1 K–1

6
28. The major product of the following reaction is :
O Sol.
Å
C Do not have (4n + 2) p electron It has 4n p
NH2 (i) Br 2/hn
electrons
CH2–CH3 (ii) KOH (dil)
So it is Anti aromatic.
NH NH 30. Consider the following reversible chemical
(1) (2) reactions :
CH3
ˆˆˆ †
K
O A2(g) + Br2(g) ‡ˆˆ
1
ˆ 2AB(g) .....(1)
O
ˆˆˆ †
K2
NH NH 6AB(g) ‡ˆˆ ˆ 3A2(g) + 3B2(g) .....(2)
(3) (4)
The relation between K1 and K2 is :
CH3 (1) K2 = K13 (2) K2 = K1–3
Ans. (3) 1
O (3) K1K2 = 3 (4) K1K2 =
O 3
C
NH2
Ans. (2)
Sol. (i) Br2/hn
NH k
(ii) KOH (dil)
CH2–CH3 ˆˆˆ
1†
Sol. A2(g) + B2(g) ‡ˆˆˆ 2AB ...(1)
CH3
Þ eq. (1) × 3
O O
C – NH2 C – NH
ˆˆ† 3A2(g) + 3B2(g)
6 AB(g) ‡ˆˆ
KOH 3
æ 1ö
CH–CH 3 CH–CH3 Þ ç ÷ = k 2 Þ k2 = (k1)–3
Br Br
è k1 ø
29. Which of the following compounds is not
aromatic ?

(1) (2) (3) (4) N

1 N Å H
Ans. (3)

7
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On Wednesday 09th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 02 : 30 PM To 05 : 30 PM
MATHEMATICS
1. Let f be a differentiable function from R to R such 3. The coefficient of t4 in the expansion of
3
3 1 t6
that f x f y 2 x y , for all x, y
2 R. If is
1 t
1 (1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 10 (4) 14
f(0) = 1 then f 2 x dx is equal to Ans. (2)
0
Sol. (1 – t6)3 (1 – t)–3
(1 – t18 – 3t6 + 3t12) (1 – t)–3
1 cofficient of t4 in (1 – t)–3 is
(1) 0 (2) (3) 2 (4) 1
2 3+4–1C = 6C = 15
4 2

Ans. (4) 4. For each x R, let [x] be the greatest integer less
than or equal to x. Then
Sol. |ƒ(x) – ƒ(y)| < 2|x – y|3/2
x x x sin x
divide both sides by |x – y| lim is equal to
x 0 x
(1) – sin1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) sin1
ƒ x ƒ y 1/2
Ans. (1)
2. x y
x y
x x x sin x
Sol. lim
apply limit x y
x 0 x

|ƒ'(y)| < 0 ƒ'(y) = 0 ƒ(y) = c ƒ(x) = 1

x 0
x x 1 sin 1
1
x 1 lim sin1
x 0 x
1.dx 1
0
x x
5. If both the roots of the quadratic equation
x2 – mx + 4 = 0 are real and distinct and they lie
3
tan 1 in the interval [1,5], then m lies in the interval:
2. If d 1 , k 0 , then the
0 2k sec 2 (1) (4,5) (2) (3,4) (3) (5,6) (4) (–5,–4)
Ans. (Bonus/1)
value of k is :
Sol. x2 – mx + 4 = 0
[1,5]
1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 4 (4) 1 (1) D > 0 m2 – 16 > 0 1 5
2
m (– ,–4) (4, )
Ans. (1) (2) ƒ(1) > 0 5–m>0 m ,5

1
/3
tan 1
/3
sin 29
d d (3) ƒ(5) > 0 29 – 5m > 0 m ,
Sol. 5
2k 0 sec 2k 0 cos
b m
(4) 1 5 1 5 m 2,10
1 /3 2 1 2a 2
2 cos 1
2k 0 k 2 m 4,5
No option correct : Bonus
1
given it is 1 k 2 * If we consider (1,5) then option (1) is
2 correct.

1
6. If 8. Let z 0 be a root of the quadratic equation,
x2 + x + 1 = 0. If z 3 6iz 81 3iz 93 , then arg z
et e t cos t e t sin t 0 0

A et e cos t e t sin t
t
e sin t e t cos t
t
is equal to:
et 2e t sin t 2e t cos t
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4)
Then A is-
4 3 6
Ans. (1)
Sol. z0 = or 2 (where is a non-real cube root of
(1) Invertible only if t
2 unity)
(2) not invertible for any t R z = 3 + 6i( )81 – 3i( )93
(3) invertible for all t R z = 3 + 3i
(4) invertible only if t=
Ans. (3) arg z
4
1 cos t sin t 9. Let a ˆi ˆj ˆ b
2k, b1ˆi b 2 ˆj 2kˆ and
t
A e 1 cos t sin t sin t cos t
Sol. c 5iˆ ˆj 2kˆ be three vectors such that the
1 2sin t 2cos t
projection vector of b on a is a . If a b is
= e–t[5cos2 t + 5sin2t] t R
= 5e–t 0 t R perpendicular to c , then b is equal to:
7. The area of the region
(1) 22 (2) 4 (3) 32 (4) 6
A x,y : 0 y x x 1 and 1 x 1
Ans. (4)
in sq. units, is :
a.b
2 1 4 Sol. Projection of b on a a
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) a
3 3 3
Ans. (3) b1 + b 2 = 2 ...(1)
Sol. The graph is a follows and a b c a b .c 0

y 5b1 + b2 = – 10 ...(2)
2
y=x +1 from (1) and (2) b1 = –3 and b2 = 5

then b b12 b 22 2 6

10. Let A(4,–4) and B(9,6) be points on the parabola,

y=–x2+1 –1 1
y2 + 4x. Let C be chosen on the arc AOB of the
parabola, where O is the origin, such that the area
of ACB is maximum. Then, the area (in sq. units)
of ACB, is:
0 1
3 1 1
x 2 1 dx x 2 1 dx 2 (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 30 (4) 31
1 0
4 2 4
Ans. (4)

2
 B(9,6) Sol. E1 : Event of drawing a Red ball and placing a
2 2 t) green ball in the bag
c (t ,
E2 : Event of drawing a green ball and placing a
Sol. red ball in the bag
E : Event of drawing a red ball in second draw

A(4,
–4) E E
P E P E1 P P E2 P
E1 E2
2
1 25
Area = 5|t2 – t – 6| = 5 t
2 4 5 4 2 6 32
7 7 7 7 49
1
is maximum if t
2 13. If 0 x , then the number of values of x for
2
11. The logical statement which sin x-sin2x+sin3x = 0, is
(1) 2 (2) 1
~ ~p q p r ~q r is equivalent to:
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (p ^ r) ^ ~q (2) (~p ^ ~q) ^ r
Ans. (1)
(3) ~p r (4) (p ^ ~q) r
Sol. sinx – sin2x + sin3x = 0
Ans. (1)
(sinx + sin3x) – sin2x = 0
Sol. s ~ ~ p q p r ~q r 2sinx. cosx – sin2x = 0
sin2x(2 cosx – 1) = 0
p ~q p r ~q r
1
p ~q r ~q r sin2x = 0 or cosx
2

p ~q r
x 0,
3
p r ~q
14. The equation of the plane containing the straight
12. An urn contains 5 red and 2 green balls. A ball is
drawn at random from the urn. If the drawn ball x y z
line and perpendicular to the plane
is green, then a red ball is added to the urn and if 2 3 4
the drawn ball is red, then a green ball is added containing the straight lines
to the urn; the original ball is not returned to the
urn. Now, a second ball is drawn at random from x y z x y z
and is:
it. The probability that the second ball is red, is : 3 4 2 4 2 3
(1) x + 2y – 2z = 0 (2) x – 2y + z = 0
26 32 27 21
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 5x + 2y – 4z = 0 (4) 3x + 2y – 3z = 0
49 49 49 49
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)

3
Sol. Vector along the normal to the plane containing the 17. If x = sin–1(sin10) and y=cos –1(cos10), then
lines y–x is equal to:
x y z x y z (1) (2) 7 (3) 0 (4) 10
and
3 4 2 4 2 3 Ans. (1)
ˆ ˆ
is 8i j 10kˆ

vector perpendicular to the vectors 2iˆ 3ˆj 4kˆ Sol.

and 8iˆ ˆj 10kˆ is 26iˆ 52ˆj 26kˆ
x = sin–1(sin 10) = 3 – 10
so, required plane is
26x – 52y + 26z = 0
x – 2y + z = 0
15. Let the equations of two sides of a triangle be 3x
– 2y + 6 = 0 and 4x + 5y – 20 = 0. If the orthocentre
of this triangle is at (1,1), then the equation of its y = cos–1(cos10) = 4 – 10
third side is : y–x=
(1) 122y – 26x – 1675 = 0 18. If the lines x = ay+b, z = cy + d and x=a'z + b',
(2) 26x + 61y + 1675 = 0 y = c'z + d' are perpendicular, then:
(3) 122y + 26x + 1675 = 0 (1) cc' + a + a' = 0
(4) 26x – 122y – 1675 = 0 (2) aa' + c + c' = 0
Ans. (4) (3) ab' + bc' + 1 = 0
Sol. Equation of AB is A (4) bb' + cc' + 1 = 0
3x – 2y + 6 = 0 Ans. (2)
F E
equation of AC is x b y z d
(1,1)
4x + 5y – 20 = 0 Sol. Line x = ay + b, z = cy + d
a 1 c
Equation of BE is
B D C Line x = a'z + b', y = c'z + d'
2x + 3y – 5 = 0
Equation of CF is 5x – 4y – 1 = 0 x b' y d' z
Equation of BC is 26x – 122y = 1675 a' c' 1
16. If x = 3 tan t and y = 3 sec t, then the value of Given both the lines are perpendicular
d 2y aa' + c' + c = 0
at t , is: 19. The number of all possible positive integral values
dx 2 4
of for which the roots of the quadratic equation,
3 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 6x2–11x+ = 0 are rational numbers is :
2 2 3 2 6 6 2
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
dx Sol. 6x2 – 11x + = 0
Sol. 3sec 2 t
dt given roots are rational
dy D must be perfect square
3sec t tan t
dt 121 – 24 = 2
dy tan t maximum value of is 5
sin t
dx sec t =1 I
d2y dt =2 I
cos t
dx2 dx =3 I 3 integral values
cos t cos3 t 1 1 =4 I
3sec 2 t 3 3.2 2 6 2 =5 I

4
20. A hyperbola has its centre at the origin, passes
through the point (4,2) and has transverse axis of
length 4 along the x-axis. Then the eccentricity of 5x8 7x 6
2
dx
Sol. x 2 1 2x 7
the hyperbola is :
2 3
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4) 2 5x 6
7x 8
1
3 2 dx C
2
1 1 1 1
Ans. (1) 2 2
x7 x5 x5 x7
(4,2)
x7
As ƒ(0) = 0, ƒ x
2x 7 x 2 1
Sol.
1
ƒ 1
4
23. If the circles x2 + y2 – 16x–20y + 164 = r2 and
x2 y2 (x–4)2 + (y – 7)2 = 36 intersect at two distinct
1
a2 b2 points, then:
2a = 4 a=2 (1) 0 < r < 1 (2) 1 < r < 11
(3) r > 11 (4) r = 11
x2 y2
1 Ans. (2)
4 b2
Sol. x2 + y2 – 16x – 20y + 164 = r2
Passes through (4,2) A(8,10), R1 = r
4 4 2 (x – 4)2 + (y – 7)2 = 36
4 1 b2 e
b2 3 3 B(4,7), R2 = 6
|R1 – R2| < AB < R1 + R2
21. Let A={x R:x is not a positive integer}
1 < r < 11
2x
Define a function f :A R as f(x) then f 24. Let S be the set of all triangles in the xy-plane,
x 1
is each having one vertex at the origin and the other
(1) injective but not surjective two vertices lie on coordinate axes with integral
(2) not injective coordinates. If each triangle in S has area 50sq.
(3) surjective but not injective units, then the number of elements in the set S is:
(4) neither injective nor surjective (1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 32 (4) 36
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
Sol. Let A( ,0) and B(0, )
1 be the vectors of the given triangle AOB
Sol. ƒ x 2 1
x 1 | | = 100
Number of triangles
2
ƒ' x 2
= 4 × (number of divisors of 100)
x 1 = 4 × 9 = 36
ƒ is one-one but not onto 25. The sum of the follwing series

5x8 7x 6 9 12 22 32 12 12 22 32 42
22. If f x 2
dx, x 0 and 1 6
x 2 1 2x 7 7 9
f(0) = 0, then the value of f(1) is : 15 12 22 .... 52
.... up to 15 terms, is:
1 1 1 1 11
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 7820 (2) 7830 (3) 7520 (4) 7510
2 2 4 4
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
5
 27. If the system of linear equations
3 n 1 3 12 22 .... n 2
Tn x–4y+7z = g
Sol.
2n 1 3y – 5z = h
–2x + 5y – 9z = k
n n 1 2n 1 is consistent, then :
3. 2
n n 1
6 (1) g + h + k = 0
Tn
2n 1 2 (2) 2g + h + k = 0
(3) g + h + 2k = 0
1 15 3 1 15 15 1
2
15 16 31 (4) g + 2h + k = 0
S15 n n2
2n1 2 2 6 Ans. (2)
Sol. P1 x – 4y + 7z – g = 0
= 7820 P2 3x – 5y – h = 0
P3 –2x + 5y – 9z – k = 0
26. Let a, b and c be the 7th, 11th and 13th terms Here = 0
respectively of a non-constant A.P. If these are 2P1 + P2 + P3 = 0 when 2g + h + k = 0
a 28. Let f:[0,1] R be such that f(xy) = f(x).f(y) for all
also the three consecutive terms of a G.P., then x,y, [0,1], and f(0) 0. If y = y(x) satisfies the
c
is equal to: dy
differential equation, f x with
dx
1
(1) (2) 4 1 3
2 y(0) = 1, then y y is equal to
4 4
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2
7 Ans. (2)
(3) 2 (4)
13 Sol. ƒ(xy) = ƒ(x). ƒ(y)
Ans. (2) ƒ(0) = 1 as ƒ(0) 0
ƒ(x) = 1
Sol. a = A + 6d
dy
ƒ x 1
b = A + 10d dx
c = A + 12d y x c
At, x = 0, y = 1 c=1
a,b,c are in G.P.
y=x+1
(A + 10d)2 = (A + 6d) (a + 12d) 1 3 1 3
y y 1 1 3
4 4 4 4
A
14 29. A data consists of n observations:
d
n
2
x 1 , x 2 , ....., x n. If xi 1 9n and
i 1
A
6
a A 6d d 6 14 n
4 xi 1
2
5n , then the standard deviation of
c A 12d A 12 14
12 i 1
d
this data is :
(1) 5 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 2
Ans. (2)

6
 2
Sol. xi 1 9n ...(1)
2
xi 1 5n ...(2)

(1) + (2) x12 1 7n

x 2i
6
n
(1) - (2) 4 xi 4n
xi n

xi
1
n
variance = 6 – 1 = 5
Standard diviation 5
30. The number of natural numbers less than 7,000
which can be formed by using the digits 0,1,3,7,9
(repitition of digits allowed) is equal to :
(1) 250 (2) 374 (3) 372 (4) 375
Ans. (2)

Sol. a1 a2 a3

Number of numbers = 53 – 1

a4 a1 a2 a3

2 ways for a4
Number of numbers = 2 × 53
Required number = 53 + 2 × 53 – 1
= 374

7
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