Biology

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T |VOL.I|Unit 1
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The Living World

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1.1
CHAPTER 1
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THE LIVING WORLD
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Living: As soon as the name strikes we have a
INTRODUCTION number of organisms floating in our imagination.
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WHAT IS ‘LIVING’? How wonderful the nature is to show such a huge

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diversity on one planet! The variety in living world

CHARACTERISTIC OF LIVING BEINGS is unique and interesting to study. Living organisms
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DIVERSITY IN THE LIVING WORLD are present all over the earth in oceans, forests, sea,
river, mountains, underground soil, damp places etc.
TAXONOMY AND SYSTEMATICS some of the areas where they live is common and
NOMENCLATURE obvious habitat, however we find them in extreme
conditions also ranging from high temperatures, hot
TAXONOMIC CATEGORIES springs and volcanos to ice and glaciers.
TAXONOMICAL AIDS
Figure 1.1: Jelly fish in ocean

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A B
Figure 1.2: Microorganisms on volcano and inside the ocean. A - Volcano and B - Ocean
All these organisms together contribute to make the world a beautiful and active place to dwell for e.g., in a
garden the herbs, plants, shrubs and trees along with butterflies, honey bees, birds make a best relaxing place.
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The ecological conflict and understanding between the members of one society and members of different
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society or even the molecular world in a cell indicate the unique creation – what the actual life is? This
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question further arises two questions. The first is a technical one which seeks answer to what is living
against the non-living, and the second is a philosophical one, which seeks answer to what is the purpose or
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reasonfor that life. Our major concern will be on what is living and least on why is one living?
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Figure 1.3: Honey bee on a flower collecting nectar in a garden

The world of organisms is so very big that some of the places are termed as over populated with high number
and kind of organisms. These organisms include plants, animals, insects, birds, shrubs and microbes. We
have thousands of plants and animals that we are dependent on and we use them very often. All these plants
and animals are not of the same structure and shape. Even their internal body structure is different. As we are
dependent on almost all of the organisms directly or indirectly, we need to group them together so that just a
bunch includes several similar organisms. This will make easy for the study of all the organisms in short.
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Objectives of this Chapter

At the end of this chapter, you will be able to:
y Evaluate the reason behind classification.
y Identify the taxonomical systematics.
y Describe the hierarchy.
y Explore taxonomical aids.
2. What is ‘Living’?
Living has many definitions depending on the organism’s use and body structure. We have some check list
for classifying the organism as living. Some of the most important are Growth, reproduction, sense ability
towards environment and response production ability in regards to that environment factor. All these features
strike our thought immediately as these are the unique features of almost all the living organisms. Some
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important characteristics in respect to the living world are metabolism, replication or cloning, well managed
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and organised, respond towards environment and habitat and act accordingly. We will understand all of this.
3. Characteristic of Living Beings

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What do you mean by characteristic of the living beings? There is a line between living and non-living which
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includes special features for each of them. Living organisms as a whole have certain unique and basic
characteristic that sets them apart from non-living world.
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Flowchart 1.1: Characteristics of Living Figure 1.4: Various Living organisms

organisms
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3.1. Growth
This is a common and unique feature of all the living organisms.Growth is observed in twin characters of
increase in mass and increase in number of individuals.
Growth: A twin
Character
Increase
In mass In number of cells
Flowchart 1.2: Growth and its features
Any multicellular organism will grow by cell division of

parent cell. Plants grow continuously throughout their
life by cell division. Even animals grow with cell division
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till a certain age, then cell division is just to repair the
wear and tear of the body. Cell division is growth as
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well as multiplication factor in unicellular organisms.
culturing of tissues. Higher multicellular organisms

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This cell division as growth factor is visible in in-vitro
grow and multiply mutually. Growth of an organism is

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clearly visible from its body mass. Mountains, boulders

and sand mounds do grow which indicates that non- Figure 1.5: Growth of a plant in terms of its size
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living world also increase in mass. However, this kind

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of growth which is exhibited by non-living objects does not classify them in living and this is by accumulation
of similar material on their surface. Living organisms grow from inside their body. Growth property alone
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cannot define living organisms. To understand growth as a feature of living organisms the conditions under
which growth is observed has to be clear.Then we understand that growth is a characteristic of living world.
Simply, an organism which is now dead does not grow.
Growth in cells occurs due to synthetic property of cell to produce protoplasmic and non-protoplasmic or
apoplasmic substances. Protoplasmic substances are living components used by the cell like – cytoplasm,
nucleus, organelles, etc. while apoplasmic substances are non-living parts like chemicals, gases which are
used by cell and then thrown out of the cell.
3.2 Reproduction
Reproduction is a major distinguishing characteristic of living organisms. Multicellular organisms reproduce
to generate progeny having similar features of parents. Specifically and implicitly we are discussing about
sexual reproduction though organisms reproduce by asexual methods also. Fungi produce asexual spores
which spread nearby and give rise to new fungi. Yeast and Hydra multiply by separation of their new bud
from themselves which grows into new organism called as budding. Planaria (flat worms) have special
characteristics of regenerating lost parts of the body by fragmentation and the process is called as true
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regeneration. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses, use fragmentation as reproductive
feature. Unicellular organisms like bacteria, algae or Amoeba reproduce and grow synonymously, i.e.,
increase in number of cells is indication of growth as well as reproduction. Hence, single-celled organisms
have growth and reproduction at the same time and is a combined feature.
Reproduction is not the fixed feature of organisms as there are organisms that do not multiply (mules, sterile
worker bees, infertile human couples, etc.). Non-living things do not reproduce though reproduction alone
cannot be used to define an organism as living.
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Flowchart 1.3: Various modes of reproduction
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3.3 Metabolism
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Life shows metabolism inside the organism’s body.

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All living organisms are made of organic components

called as biomolecules. These chemicals, can be
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small or big, classified in various classes, sizes,

functions, etc. These chemicals are constantly
produced and modified in the cell. The modification is
due to number of reasons and help of other chemicals
resulting in a metabolic reaction or biochemical
reaction. There are several metabolic reactions which
occur simultaneously in a cell in all living organisms,
including all unicellular and multicellular ones. The sum Flowchart 1.4: Types of Cell metabolism
total of all the chemical reactions that occur in our body
is called as metabolism. Metabolism is not observed in non-living world. This does not mean that metabolism
is observed in body of the organisms. This metabolic reactions can be forced to take place in systems similar
to body but outside the body in cell-free systems. Such a forced metabolic reaction(s) outside the body of
an organism, is carried in a test tube which creates body environments and is neither living nor non-living.
Hence, while metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms without exception, isolated metabolic
reactions in vitro are not living things but surely living reactions.
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3.4 Cellular Structure

Cellular organisation of the body is the characteristic which can be defining feature of life forms. Conceivably,
the most obvious and scientifically complicated feature of all the living organisms is the presence of cell in
their body. Unicellular body is made of single cell that performs all the functions of the organism. Multicellular
organisms are made of many cells which are differentiated into specific group performing their defined
functions. Cells as a whole are made of simple common organelles and chemicals. These cells unite to form
and perform organism and its functions respectively.
3.5 Consciousness
The ability of living organisms to sense their surroundings or environment and respond to these environmental
stimuli (physical, chemical or biological) is called consciousness. The sense of our environment is through
our sense organs in the body and response type changes from organism to organism. Plants respond
through their growth pattern and locomotory movements to external factors like light, water, temperature,
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other organisms, pollutants, etc. All organisms on the planet, be it prokaryotes or the most complex
eukaryotes, sense and respond to environmental stimuli. All organisms have their body structure in a
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way to deal with the chemicals that enter their bodies. Living organisms therefore, are ‘aware’ of their
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surroundings. Consciousness thus is the defining property of living organisms. Human beings have more
difficultly to define the living state. For e.g., there are patients in coma lying in hospitals which are supported
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by machines that replace heart and lungs as the patient is brain-dead. Thus he lacks no self-consciousness
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and response to stimuli. There are patients who never turn up to lead a normal life.
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
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Misconception
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Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals.

Human being is the only organism who is aware of himself, i.e., has self-consciousness.
Later in the education, you will learn about underlying interactions between all living phenomena. Tissue
properties are a result of the interactions among the constituent cells and not present in the individual cell.
Similarly, cellular organelles work together due to the interactions between them and are not present in the
molecular constituents of the organelle. These interactions give rise to emergent properties at a level higher
than tissues and cells. This phenomenon is true and valid in all the hierarchy of organisational complexity of
the organism. Therefore, we can say that living organisms are self-replicating, evolving and self-regulating
interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli from the environment. All living organisms –
present, past and future, are linked to one another by the sharing of the common genetic material, but with
varying degrees.
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4. Diversity in the Living World

We find a huge degree of variety in living organisms around ourselves, ranging from potted plants to
insects, birds, the pets or other animals and plants, huge trees. There is a world of organism which is left
unseen with naked eyes but are omnipresent. As we increase the area of our study, the range and variety
of organisms that you observe will also increase. The dense forest will have a much greater amount and
variety of living organisms in it. Every organism that we observe in the surrounding belongs to a particular
species and genus. The number of species that are studied and described range anywhere between 1.7-
1.8 million. This indicates the biodiversity or the variety of organisms that are present on earth. Every time
a new area is explored, new and even old organisms are being identified and studied.
4.1 Need for Classification of Organisms

We know that there are millions of plants and animals around us out of which we only know the plants and
animals in our own area and call them by their local names. As the language changes so does these local
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names vary from place to place also within a country and state. This creates chaos when scientist or doctors
or any biologist talks or studies about a particular organism in one area of the world and collects information
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from another area. Also the scientist when took any random organism to study, the difficulty that arose in the
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study was the ungrouping part of the organism. They had to find the organisms feature in a crowd of more
than 1.7 million documents of the organisms studied till then. Thus scientist then decided to make a fixed
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universal solution for the same and then started working on the grouping and naming task of the organism.
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This was done to make it easier for the study of organism’s possible scientist have divided organisms
into different levels and groups. The basis for differentiation was similarities and differences. This made it
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possible to bring all organisms in one single table or ground to study. The similarity is common in species
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placed in one group and decreases as it goes up. For e.g. the book in a library if arranged randomly makes
it difficult for one to find his book of interest similarly organisms arranging in a system makes it simpler for
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the study.
Why the need to classify?
It will help to learn:
y Importance to estimate the inter-relationship between the organisms.
y The basics of the development of organisms and thus develop base for other science streams.
y Variety of biological studies are dependent on the identification and classification of the organism.
Three Domains of Life

Woese is a famous microbiologist and biophysicist who became more famous for introducing Archae
kingdom to already existing five kingdom classification. He introduced Archae on the basis of the sequence
of 16 S ribosomal RNA genes.This basis of 16 S ribosome sequence helped microbiology science to achieve
many new heights.Woese found that the six kingdoms naturally join into three major domains of Archae,
Bacteria and Eukarya. The domains belong to the common ancestor called Progenate is still a belief among
scientist. Domain is a category which is level up from kingdom.
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5. Taxonomy and Systematics

Taxonomy: The branch of science dealing with the study of principles and procedures of classification is
called taxonomy. The term taxonomy was coined by A.P. de Candolle. Father of taxonomy is Linnaeus as
he classified organisms on a broader perspective. Santapau is called as father of Indian Taxonomy. The
fundamental sections of taxonomy are as follows:
y Characterisation and identification: It deals with the determination of the similarities of a new organism
with an already known organism, based upon specific characters.
y Nomenclature: It involves naming of the organism with binomial criteria according to established
universal rules.
y Classification: It is arranging organisms into convenient categories on the basis of visible and easy to
study character.
The classical taxonomy is based on clearly visible morphological characters, however the modern taxonomy
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deals with several characters for the classification of organisms like:
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y External and internal structure of the organism along with the structure of cell in it.
y Development process of the organism.
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y Ecological information of all the organisms.
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Systematics: The word “systematics” is systema meaning systematic arrangement of organisms according
to Latin language. The word was first used by Carolus Linnaeus. He stated that, “systematics is the
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relationships amongst the organisms”.

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Generally, the terms like classification, systematics and taxonomy are interchangeably used by taxonomist,
but some exceptions like taxonomist Simpson (1961) relate all of them to a separate field. He defined
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systematics as “The study of diversity of organisms and all their comparative and evolutionary relationships
based on comparative anatomy, comparative ecology, comparative physiology and comparative
biochemistry”.
The main uses of systematics are as given below:
y It helps in providing knowledge of great diversity of animals and plants. It provides information regarding
evolution which took place among plants and animals by knowing the distinction, relationship, habitat
and habits. It thus, a vivid picture of entire organic diversity.
y It makes easy for identification which gives useful information about the phylogeny of organisms.
y It helps to identify newly discovered organisms through systematics.
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y There are large scale of biodiversity amongst all the living beings and it has few reasons
which are as follows:
O Adaptations of the organisms to diverse habitat in order to reduce competition among
the species of same habitat.
O Change in genetic constitution of the organism that helps them to survive.
O Isolation of a species from the identical species and thus avoiding competition.
y Ontogeny is the life of organisms which involves the origination and development right
from the fertilisation of the egg and zygote formation till the end of its life. The term
ontogeny is common to study the life and its development of the organism. Phylogeny is
the evolutionary history of organisms and this is specifically in regards with the evolution
of a species from the descendant and their relationship with other groups.
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y Systematics is taxonomy of that organism along with phylogeny of the species.
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y Classical / old / descriptive systematics is based on the morphological characters of the
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organism. According to it, basic unit of classification is species and not genus. Pioneer
workers in classification of organisms are Aristotle and Linnaeus.
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y New systematics / Biosystematics / Neosystematics is based upon all characters,
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i.e., morphological, cytological, biochemical, genetical etc. The term Biosystematics

or neosystematics was coined by Julian Huxley in 1940. Basic unit of classification is
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population or sub-species for the new systematics unlike old or classical systematics
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where it was species.

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DID YOU KNOW

y Taxonomy is the world of naming, identifying, classifying, describing an organism
and also linking it with the earlier known organisms.
y Linnaean taxonomy is based on ranking of the organism based on scientific classification.
y Evolutionary taxonomy is the traditional taxonomy that came into existence after
Darwin’s hierarchical taxonomy.
? y Founder of taxonomy / father of biology / Zoology - Aristotle
y Father of Botany – Theophrastus
y Father of Indian Botany/India herbaria – William Rouxburgh.
y Around 5-30 million species in the world of living organisms exist in present day.
y Taxonomically or scientifically only 1.7 million or 13 percent number of species is
known and studied by us.
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TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Reproduction is synonymous with growth for which group of organisms? (Choose correct
option)
(A) Multicellular filamentous organisms
(B) Colonial organisms
(C) Unicellular organisms
(D) All of these
2. Find correct match from Column – I and Column – II
Column - I Column – II
(A) Protonema of moss (i) Consciousness
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(B) Metabolic reactions in vitro (ii) Living reactions
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(C) Defining property of living beings (iii) Fragmentation
(D)
(E)
Taxonomy term
Father of taxonomy
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(v)
C. Linnaeus
A.P. de. Candolle
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3.Choose the correct statement

(A) A multicellular organism grows by increase in mass only
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(B) Extrinsic growth is characteristics of non-living objects

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(C) Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated in a cell-free system

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(D) First step of taxonomy is classification
6. Nomenclature
Nomenclature means the method of naming the organism scientifically and universally.
The point arises for the need of nomenclature. There is a common name of the organism in its local language
and this name keeps changing with change in language. Thus there is a need to standardise the names
of all the living organisms, such that a particular organism has the same name all over the world. A list of
nomenclature methods necessary for assigning a name to the organism are described below:
y Vernacular name: Names in local or regional language are called vernacular names. There are many
vernacular names that exist in the world for an organism. These names vary from place to place in a
country and even in a state.
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y Scientific names: These names are assigned to the organism from scientist based on definite rules
and criteria. These are of following types:
O Polynomial nomenclature
O Trinomial nomenclature
O Binomial system of nomenclature: Swedish botanist Carolus Linnaeus established binomial
nomenclature, which was first proposed by Caper Bauhin expressed in his book PINAX. In binomial
nomenclature, the first word is a generic name having first letter capital and second word is a
specific epithet having first letter small like Mangifera indica Linn. After end of biological name, the
name of author is written in abbreviated form who gave the name to that organism.
Scientific names are in Latin, as Latin was the language known to all the scholars and also called as
Language of scholars. Linnaeus was among several scientist who used Latin words and no change can be
made in the language. This is because the Latin language lacks synonyms. Linnaeus gave some principles
of the binomial nomenclature for around 5900 species of plants with their descriptive briefing in the book
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“Species Plantarum” (1753). Later he also a book for animals including 4326 species with their respective
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detailed studyand published the book as “Systema Naturae” (1758).
6.1 International Code of Nomenclature

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Scientific names have been standardised through some international agencies, viz., International Code of
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Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN, 1961) and International Code of Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN, 1964),
International Code for Nomenclature of Bacteria (ICBN), International Code of Nomenclature for Cultivated
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Plants (ICNCP) and currently being developed is International Committee for the Taxonomy of Viruses (ICTV).
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6.2 Rules for Binomial Nomenclature

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ICBN and ICZN formulated certain rules and regulations for giving scientific names to all organism. These
rules are as follows:
y The scientific and universal name of an organism contains two components, a generic name and a
specific epithet. The generic name should begin with a capital letter and species name should begin
with a small letter.
y Both the words of a biological name when handwritten are separately underlined and when printed are
typed in italics to indicate their Latin origin and also give respect to the name.
y The name of the author is also to be mentioned post scientific name in Roman type with capital letter
without any comma in between and is written in an abbreviated form, e.g., Homo sapiens Linn is the
complete scientific name for modern man. This shows that Linnaeus was the first scientist who named
man as Homo sapiens.
y Scientific names should not be as small as three letters or as long as twelve letters.
y Principle of priority: It is the most important of all the rules of ICBN. If initial name given to the organism
is valid and right (in terms of rules), that name will be considered as the name of that organism. Any
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other valid and right name given later than the initial name will be considered as a synonym. No names
are recognised before the namesthat were used by Linnaeus in 1758 in the 10th edition of Systema
Naturae for animals and 1753 for the plants.
y All the three words (generic name, species epithet and author citation) together form binomial epithet
or name of the organism.
y If a species name has two or more words in its name, a hyphen is put between these words to separate
them and yet link them as a single name of that organism. Such names are compound specific names
(e.g., Hibiscus rosa – sinensis for shoe flower)
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Other scientific Methods of Nomenclature and additional Rules:
y Polynomial nomenclature: This system is an old system used before 1750. The names of
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the plants in this system are based upon morphological characters, e.g., Caryophyllum. The
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name given was “Caryophyllum saxatils foils gramineus umbellatis corymbis” meeting it is
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caryophyllum growing on rocks having grass like leaves and umbellate corymb arrangement
of flowers. Though these names were completely descriptive in regards to the organism, the
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problem with these names were their length which made it difficult to remember.
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y Trinomial nomenclature: This naming system was proposed by Lamarck which involves
the use of three words for a name so that the names of subspecies (animals) or varieties
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(plants) can also be incorporated avoiding all the confusion related to that organism.
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y For example names of subspecies and varieties are given below:

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ο Corvus splendens splendens - Indian crow

ο Gorilla gorilla gorilla - Gorilla (animal)
ο Brassica oleracea var. capitata - Cabbage
ο Acacia nilotica var. indica - Indian Babul
y Synonyms: In case two or more names are given, the oldest given first is recognised as
valid name and all other names are called synonyms for the same organism. E.g., Albugo
candida (= Cystopus candidus) for Candida fungus.
y Tautonyms: This system gives names to the organism involving generic and specific name
are same, e.g., Rattus rattus. Tautonyms are not recognised by botanists.
y Autonyms: This system involves species and subspecies or variety names for the same
organism which are same names, e.g., Corvus splendens splendens, Acacia nilotica nilotica.
y Homonyms: This system assigns same name to two different plants. E.g., Prunus dulsi,
(For both almond and plum)
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7. Taxonomic Categories
Classification involves hierarchy of steps and levels in which every step represents a rank or a category.
Classification of the organism is not a simple process of one step.The category is a part of overall taxonomic
arrangement and it is called the taxonomic category and all categories together constitute the taxonomic
hierarchy. Each category is referred as a unit of classification that represents a rank, commonly termed as
the taxon (pl.: taxa). Taxonomic categories and hierarchy is well illustrated with the help of an example.
Insects have three pairs of jointed legs as common which represents a group of organisms that share
common features. This indicates that insects are recognisable separate creatures which can be classified
into a different group, and thus were assigned a special rank or category. Is there anymore similar organisms
that can be grouped together? Remember, group simple means a category and even a rank. Each rank or
taxon, in turn, represents a unit or level of classification. These taxonomic groups or categories are distinct
biological entities and not just the morphological aggregates. Taxonomical studies of all known organisms
have led to the development of grouping the taxons on the larger scale with common categories such as
kingdom, phylum or division (for plants), class, order, family, genus and species. All organisms, including
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those in the plant and animal kingdoms end in species which is the lowest category of classification.
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The question arising here is that how and where can one place an organism in the classification? The
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basic necessity in classifying the organism is the knowledge of the characters of an individual or group of
organisms. This knowledge helps to identify the similarities and dissimilarities among the individuals of the
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similar kind and dissimilar organisms.
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7.1 Species
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Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as a species.
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One should be able to distinguish one species from the other closely related species based on the distinct
morphological differences. Let us consider Mangifera indica (mango), Solanum tuberosum (potato) and
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Panthera leo (lion). All the three names, indica, tuberosum and leo, represent the specific epithets, while
the first words Mangifera, Solanum and Panthera are genera and represents another higher level of taxon
or category. Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets representing different organisms,
but having morphological similarities. For example, Panthera has another specific epithet called tigris and
Solanum includes species like nigrum and melongena. Human beings belong to the species sapiens which
is grouped in genus Homo. The scientific name thus, for human being, is written as Homo sapiens.
7.2 Genus
Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera. We can say that genera are aggregates of closely related species. For example,
potato, tomato and brinjal are three different species but all belong to the genus
Solanum. Lion (Panthera leo), leopard (P. pardus) and tiger (P. tigris) with several common features, are all
species of the genus Panthera. This genus differs from another genus Felis which includes cats.
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7.3 Family
The next category, Family, has a group of related genera with still less number of similarities as compared
to genus and species. Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features
of plant species. Among plants for example, three different genera Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed
in the family Solanaceae. Among animals for example, genus Panthera, comprising lion, tiger, and leopard
is put along with genus, Felis (cats) in the family Felidae. Similarly, if you observe the features of a cat and
a dog, you will find some similarities and some differences as well. They are separated into two different
families – Felidae and Cancidae, respectively.
7.4 Order
You have seen earlier that categories like species, genus and families are based on a number of similar
characters. Generally, order and other higher taxonomic categories are identified based on the aggregates
of characters. Order being a higher category, is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar
characters. The similar characters are less in number as compared to different genera included in a family.
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Plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the order Polymoniales mainly based on the
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floral characters. The animal order, Carnivora, includes families like Felidae and Cancidae.
7.5 Class
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This category includes related orders. For example, order Primata comprising monkey, gorilla and gibbon
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is placed in class Mammalia along with order Carnivora that includes animals like tiger, cat and dog. Class
Mammalia has other orders also.
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7.6 Phylum
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Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds along with mammals constitute the next
higher category called Phylum. All these, based on the common features like presence of notochord and
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dorsal hollow neural system, are included in phylum Chordata. In case of plants, classes with a few similar
characters are assigned to a higher category called Division.
7.7 Kingdom
All animals belonging to various phyla are assigned to the highest category called Kingdom Animalia in the
classification system of animals. The Kingdom Plantae, on the other hand, is distinct, and comprises all
plants from various divisions. Henceforth, we will refer to these two groups as animal and plant kingdoms.
The taxonomic categories from species to kingdom have been shown in ascending order starting with
species. These are broad categories. However, taxonomists have also developed sub-categories in this
hierarchy to facilitate more sound and scientific placement of various taxa. Look at the hierarchy, can you
recall the basis of arrangement? Say, for example, as we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of
common characteristics goes on decreasing. Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members
within the taxon share. Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at the same level. Hence, the problem of classification becomes more complex.
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Q.8 First life on earth was (AIPMT 2001)

(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Chemoheterotrophs
(C) Autotrophs (D) Photoautotrophs
Q.9 Reason for diversity among living beings is (AIPMT 2001)

(A) Mutation (B) Gradual change
(C) Long term evolutionary change (D) Short term evolutionary change
Q.10 The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from non-living things on basis of their
ability for (AIPMT 2007)
(A) Responsiveness to touch
(B) Interaction with environment and progressive evolution
(C) Reproduction
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(D) Growth and movement
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ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 C Q.2 D Q.3 B Q.4 C Q.5 B Q.6 B
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 C Q.12 D
Q.13 B Q.4 D Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 D
Q.19 A Q.20 D Q.21 B Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 D
Q.25 B Q.26 A Q.27 B Q.28 D Q.29 D Q.30 B
n
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 B Q.36 A
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Q.37 C Q.38 B Q.39 A Q.40 B Q.41 B Q.42 B
Q.43 B Q.44 C Q.45 A
al
Q.46 D
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Q.47 A Q.48 A
Q.49 C Q.50 B Q.51 B Q.52 C Q.53 A Q.54 D
ur
Q.55 A Q.56 C Q.57 B Q.58 D Q.59 B Q.60 C

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Q.61 A Q.62 D Q.63 D Q.64 D Q.65 D

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Previous Years’ Questions

Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 A Q.6 C
Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 C Q.10 C
B
|VOL.I|Unit 1
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Biological Classification -
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Part 1
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2.1
CHAPTER 2
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION -
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PART 1
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nal
1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
The scientist than realized the importance and
INTRODUCTION purpose of the classification. Though there were
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many approaches for classification all were in vain

SYSTEMS OF CLASSIFICATION
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and no results came out. The reason being that

KINGDOM SYSTEMS OF CLASSIFICATION the basis for classification was random and not
Ed
KINGDOM: MONERA universal without linking it to the scientific logic.

Aristotle was the initiator for scientific classification
of organisms. The criteria he chose for classification
were morphological characters for plants and blood
colour for animals.
2.2
Biological Classification - Part 1
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Objective for this Chapter
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y Describe the reasons for classification.

y Relate earlier taxonomy to present taxonomy methods.
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y Realize the emergence of the present classification system.

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y Evaluate the work of major scientist with respect to their classification systems.
y Evaluate the organisms as per their characters.
y Categorise various organisms under Monera Kingdom.
y Model several features of classified organisms easily.
2. Systems of Classification
Earlier at the dawn of the classification systems, the basis for classification was only the habitat and external
morphological characters of the organisms. However later with development in science, taxonomist used
various other basis of classification like natural affinity, and even phylogeny (evolutionary tendencies).
The systems were divided into three major categories. They are as follows:
2.3
2.1 Artificial System of Classification

The classification system used one / few external or morphological characters of the organisms for
differentiating with few exceptions in classification by using even habitats of the organisms.
Artificial classification system use habitat as the basis e.g., Theophrastus system for classification.
Mechanical systems for classification are dependent on selected characters that are morphological type
e.g. Linnaeus system.
Practical classification are the ones involving both plants and animals on the basis of their importance and
use in man’s life.
Setback points
y The characters of organisms considered here were limited and led to few divisions for classification.
y Classification system failed to consider the phylogenetic relationships between the organisms.
y The genetic traits used here were not the constant, but the variable one that changed according to the
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environment.
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
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y Pliny and Elder classified animals as flighted and non flighted ones giving first ever artificial
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classification system.
y Manu used the same basis for plants.
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y Theophrastus used habitat, form and texture as the basis to classify 480 plant species into
uj
four group herbs, undershrub, shrubs and trees.

Ed
y Aristotle classified animals as anaima (vertebrates having no RBC) and enaima (vertebrates
having RBC).
y Linnaeus classified another artificial system of classification that was called as sexual
system of classification and divided plants into 24 classes.
2.2 Natural Systems for Classification

These classification systems were based on the taxonomic characters and on natural affinities of the
organisms. The usual characters used for classification of organisms are reproductive, morphological and
anatomical in nature. The branch dealing with the classification based on the biochemicals in the cell of an
organism for taxonomy is called as chemotaxonomy. This system reveals the origin of the organism and
their evolutionary relationship.
Artificial and natural system of classification were dependent on fixed number of organisms and no new
species were included. Thus, they are the static classification systems with no change in them.
2.4
2.3 Phylogenetic Systems for Classification

The system classifies organisms on evolutionary and genetic relationship between them. The system here
changes with time and thus, is called as dynamic system for classification.
y Endlicher and Eichler were botanist who first proposed a phylogenetic classification system.
y Engler and Prantl modified their work and published in a book which was first fully developed phylogenetic
system.
The phylogeny system is the most important one for classification that is used by many scientist.
2.4 Phenetic System for Classification

Recently, few additional criteria and methodologies are used efficiently in classifying organisms. This
ensures that the difficulties are avoided in establishing evolutionary relationships that are difficult and
controversial, particularly when the fossil evidences are not in place.
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2.4.1 Numerical Taxonomy or Phonetics
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y The numerical technique for evolution that included both similarities and differences between the species
y
are the basis. al
Calculators and computers are used for this technique. All possible characters known are used for
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comparison.
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y All characters have equal importance and weightage for the analysis purpose.
Here data for many characteristics are defined statistically and objectively, then taken into consideration.
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y
Then codes are assigned to each data on computers, then denoted with plus (+) and minus (-) or data
uj
y
not available (θ).
Ed
2.4.2 Cladistic (Phylogenetic) Taxonomy

y It classifies living being into evolutionary historical order in which the branches of organism arose.
y Here the taxonomy affinity for the organisms is based on evolutionary as well as genetic relationships
among them apart from their morphology.
y From this system, origin of new systematics (Sir Julian Huxley 1940) or biosystematics occurred.
y Similar characters in the organisms that arose from common ancestor of an entire group or species are
called as the ancestral characters.
y The similar character that arose from different group are termed as derived characters.
y In Cladistic method only shared derived characters are considered for the study.
2.4.3 Cytotaxonomy
y It provides cytological information of cell, the chromosome number, the structure etc. It also involves the
behaviour and expression of chromosomes during classification.
2.5
y Very few species have constant number of chromosomes. Man has the diploid 46 chromosome number
and potato has 48 chromosome.
y Size of different chromosome in different herbaceous plants have been found to be larger than woody
plants.
y Relationship among different species has become clear with the help of the method of pairing of
chromosomes during meiosis.
2.4.4 Chemotaxonomy
y This type of taxonomy utilizes the chemical constituents of plants.
y Such characters like fragrance and taste are stable i.e.do not change easily.
y Other characters of taxonomic value that have importance are presence of calcium oxalate crystals
(raphides) and sulphur containing compounds in organisms of family Cruciferae.
y Many similarities and relationships among organisms have been put forth by studies and research on
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DNA sequencing and chemical nature of proteins.
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y Study of chemical characters have greatly further helped the taxonomists in gathering possible
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relationships and statistical evolution of taxonomic value.
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3. Kingdom Systems of Classification
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3.1 Two Kingdom Classification

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There was a huge list of organisms present without any grouping. Linnaeus was the first naturalist to classify
uj
organisms on the basis of their cell structure. The major difference in the organisms was presence and
absence of cell wall in the cell. Thus all the organisms of the world were divided into two main kingdoms-the
Ed
animal kingdom (Animalia) and the plant kingdom (Plantae). Other basis for classification were presence or
absence of locomotion, mode of nutrition, response to external stimuli etc. in the organisms.
Drawbacks: This was the first classification that gave many naturalist a hint for further classification of
organisms. The problems associated with the two-kingdom system of classification were that:
y Two-kingdom system of classification failed to distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes,
unicellular and multicellular organisms and photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms which
made them all come into one single kingdom.
y There are few microorganisms like Chlamydomonas, Euglena and the slime moulds which belong to
both zoology and botany world (organisms which share characteristics of both animals and plants).
y There are few set of organisms that are neither plants nor animals, which made scientist to propose a
new kingdom that will include such organisms and their characters.
2.6
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Flowchart 2.1: Two Kingdom classification
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3.2 Three Kingdom Classification
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To overcome the two kingdom classification problems, Heackel, a German zoologist (1866), suggested
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that a third kingdom Protista should be created. This kingdom will include all unicellular microorganisms
separating multicellular and unicellular organisms.
o
Drawbacks: The problems faced by three kingdom classification were:

uj
y The organisms with both the characters of animals and plants were in same kingdom.
Ed
y The organisms with prokaryotic and eukaryotic nature were in the same kingdom.
y Then also the organisms that were plants and animals but had few different characteristics from the
traditional characteristics of plants and animals were placed in same kingdom.
2.7
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Flowchart 2.2: Three Kingdom classification
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3.3 Four Kingdom Classification

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Copeland (1956) gave four kingdom of classification to answer all the questions raised from the three
Ed
kingdom. He included Monera as fourth kingdom that included all the prokaryotes. The kingdom was
originally named ‘Mychota’ then called as ‘Monera’ by Daugherty and Allen.
Problems faced by Copeland after publishing his classification were:
Though he distinguished the cells on their nature type, there were organisms still as exceptions to the usual
organism characters in that particular kingdom. The organisms thus had to be given a separate kingdom.
2.8
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Flowchart 2.3: Four Kingdom classification

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Ed
3.4 Five Kingdom Classification

A new concept for classification proposed by R. H. Whittaker (1969), the organisms were divided on the
basis of several distinguishing characters. The organisms were divided into five kingdoms namely Monera,
Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
The basis of classification for the organisms as per Whittaker are:
y Complexity and organisation of cell structure: prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
y Complexity of body organisation of the organism: unicellular and multicellular - simple multicellular forms
and complex multicellular forms.
y Mode of nutrition for all the organisms: Autotrophic and heterotrophic (parasitic or saprobic or ingestive
organisms). It was the major criteria of this classification system.
y Reproduction type: asexual and sexual.
y Phylogenetic or evolutionary interrelations between the organisms.
2.9
Drawbacks: This system of classification had overcome all the problems faced by the two, three and four
classification systems.
y The only problem that exists is the bacteria species in Monera kingdom. The bacteria have various
types and classes different from each other that were grouped in single kingdom. Hence microbiologist
insisted to place them separately.
y There was no kingdom or even class for viruses in the system.
y Algae was separated into plantae, Protista and Monera kingdoms.
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Flowchart 2.4: Five Kingdom classification
Animals
Plants Fungi
eukaryotic
eukaryotic multicellular eukaryotic
multicellular ingest motile multicellular
photosynthesise sexual absorb non-motile
non-motile sexual
sexual
Protists
eukaryotic unicellular or multicellular absorb,
ingest, or photosynthesise sexual and asexual
Monera
Prokaryotic unicellular absorb or
photosynthesise motile or nonmotile asexual
Figure 2.1: Five Kingdom classification with their major differences

2.10
3.5 Six Kingdom Classification

Gray and Doolite proposed six kingdom for classification of organisms. These six kingdoms included
kingdom-Archaebacteria, Kingdom-Eubacteria, Kingdom-Protista, Kingdom-fungi, Kingdom-Plantae and
kingdom-Animalia. The classification was based on the gene sequences of the organisms. The major change
from Whittaker classification to this classification was that Gray and Doolite separated the archaebacteria
from eubacteria. The separation of bacteria was on the basis of absence of peptidoglycan in the cell walls
of the archaea and the presence of branched chain lipids (a monolayer instead of a phospholipid bilayer)
in its membrane.
DID YOU KNOW

There was a new proposal of classification based on the genetic sequencing of the organisms.
? Carl Woese specifically studied the sequences of 16S ribosomal RNA genes, and he found
that the six kingdoms naturally cluster into three main categories. He called these categories
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as domains of life. These domains are Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya. He believed that the
.i
organisms in the domains have originated from common ancestor called progenote.
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Tips to Memorize the Classification Sequence
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y Keep Pots Clean Or Father Gets Sick

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y Kids Put Cats On Fine Grass Soil

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y The Kingdom of Phylum attended a Class of the Order of Families that had last name of Genus to protect
and respect the Species.
Ed
y King Phillip Came Over For Great Spaghetti
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Two Kingdom Classification was given by
(A) Linnaeus (B) John Ray (C) Copeland (D) Whittaker
2. Which kingdom was introduced in four kingdom classification and who proposed it?
(A) Protista and Copeland (B) Plantae and Linnaeus
(C) Monera and Whittaker (D) Monera and Copeland
3. Five kingdom classification is based on
(A) Complexity of cell structure (B) Mode of nutrition
(C) Complexity of body organization (D) Ecological role
2.11
4. Kingdom: Monera
The Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotic organisms. Monerans as a whole represent the most primitive
forms of life on earth during evolution. These organisms originated from more ancient living stock or a unit called
as progenote present in the oceans. The kingdom Monera includes eubacteria and archaebacteria. Eubacteria
includes Cyanobacteria, Actinomycetes, Mycoplasma, Rickettsiae, Chlamydiae and Spirochaetes etc.
4.1 Classification of Monerans

y 4 kingdom system had a new kingdom made that included all prokaryotic organisms i.e., eubacteria and
archaebacteria together.
y However, archaebacteria are not similar to eubacteria where eubacteria are similar to eukaryotes in few
ways and archaebacteria similar to prokaryotes.
y Carl Woese hence separated the archaebacteria from eubacteria on the basis of absence of cell wall
and presence of lipid branched chains in archaebacteria.
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y 6 kingdoms proposed by Carl Woese are
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Kingdom-1 - Archaebacteria
Kingdom-2 - Eubacteria
Kingdom-3 - Protista
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Kingdom-4 - Fungi
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Kingdom-5 - Plantae
Kingdom-6 - Animalia
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Ed
• Anton von Leeuwenhoek discovered bacteria in stagnant rain water and tartar scrapped from
human teeth.
• A.V. Leeuwenhoek called these microorganisms as dierkens that was then termed as
animalcules by the Royal society. Se’ dillot termed these animalcules as microbes, later
termed as microorganisms by Pasteur.
• Ehrenberg was the first microbiologist to introduce the word ‘bacteria’
• Louis Pasteur is called as the ‘father of modern microbiology’. He also introduced the term
aerobic and anaerobic i.e. presence or absence of oxygen respectively for the type of
organisms habitat.
• Robert Koch, a German doctor had studied anthrax disease of sheep and concluded the
causative agent to be a bacteria. Koch followed four experimental steps (Koch’s postulates)
for the research that helped to reveal the relationship between a microorganism and a
disease.
• Smallest bacteria: Dialister penumosintes.
• Largest filamentous bacterium: Beggiatoa mirabilis
2.12
Kingdom Monera has the Following Special Factors

y Unicellular, colony forming, multicellular prokaryotic organisms lacking eukaryotic nucleus and having
nucleoid instead.
y Nucleoid or genophore or incipient nucleus or prochromosome is composed of naked DNA, RNA and
non-histone proteins.
y Cell wall consists of peptidoglycan (exceptions are Archaebacteria and Mycoplasma).
y Lack membrane bound organelles.
y Cyclosis is absent in the cells and ribosomes have 70 S molecular structure.
y Respiratory enzymes are present in the cell in association with plasma membrane.
y Mode of reproduction is asexual.
y Cell division is not by mitosis and has no spindle fibres formed.
After having a detailed reasoning of the classification we will move on the description of the organisms in
the Kingdom.
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4.2 Eubacteria
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Bacteria are omnipresent that is found almost in every habitat whether it is living or dead organic matter.
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4.2.1 Shapes of Bacteria
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As the types of bacteria changes so does its shape changes. Bacteria are found in four basic forms or
shapes. They are – spherical (Cocci), rod (Bacilli), Vibrio (comma) and Spiral (spring). Though most bacterial
o
species are made of shapes that are constant and characteristic feature of that particular cell, some species
uj
have pleomorphic cell type (i.e., these can exhibit a variety of shapes), e.g., Rhizobium leguminosarum.
The types of cell shapes are described below:
Ed
(i) Coccus
Spherical or nearly spherical, aflagellate. They are sub-divided into six groups on the basis of cell
arrangement:
y Monococcus: Only single cell represents the bacterium, e.g., Micrococcus luteus, M. roseus.
y Diplococcus: Cocci divide in one plane and remain attached in pairs, e.g., Meningococcus,
Gonococcus, Diplococcus pneumonia.
y Streptococcus: Cocci remain attached to form chains of different lengths, e.g., Streptococcus lactis.
y Tetracoccus: Cocci divide in two planes at right angles to one another and form groups of four,
e.g., Tetracoccus, Neisseria.
y Staphylococcus: Cocci divide in several planes resulting in formation of irregular bunches of cells,
sometimes resembling a cluster of grapes, e.g., Staphylococcus aureus.
y Sarcinae: Cocci divide in 3 planes at right angles to one another and resemble cubical packets of 8
or more cells forming three dimensional geometrical figures, e.g., Sarcina lutae.
2.13
(ii) Bacillus
Rod-like forms, either singly or may be arranged differently. They are generally flagellate. It is the most
common of all the shapes. They are of following types:
y Monobacillus –The bacteria occur singly, e.g., Bacillus anthracis, Lactobacillus.
y Diplobacillus –Bacteria are arranged in pairs.
y Streptobacillus –Bacteria form a chain of rods, e.g., Streptobacillus.
y Palisade-like –If the cells are lined side by side like match sticks and at angles to one another.
E.g., Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
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Figure 2.2: Diagram showing various types of Bacterial shapes
(iii) Spiral bacteria

Coiled forms of bacteria exhibiting twists with one or more turns are called spirillum, e.g., Spirillum volutans.
(iv) Stalked bacteria
The body of bacterium possesses a stalk, e.g., Caulobacter.
(v) Budding bacteria
The body is swollen at places, e.g., Rhodomicrobium.
2.14
4.2.2 Bacterial Cell Structure

Bacteria has prokaryotic origin in nature with the addition of very complex functions. Their cell structure
exhibits the most expanded and extensive metabolic diversity in the cell organisation. Electron microscope
is the instrument that reveals the detailed structure of a bacterial cell.
The cell includes following structures:
.i n
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Figure 2.3: Diagrammatic image of a Bacterial cell or Prokaryotic cell
n
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(i) Surface Appendages
Flagella and fimbriae (or pili) are the organelles that are present on the surface extending outwards of
o
bacteria.
uj
(a) Flagella are long, thin, filamentous appendages made of globular protein protruding out of the cell
through the cell wall. These appendages are present to take care of the bacterial motility. These are thinner
Ed
than the eukaryotic flagella or cilia.

Structure of Flagella: The flagella consists of three distinct regions: a basal body, the hook and filament.
y Basal body: This is the most complex portion of flagella that is present in the cell wall of the bacteria.
Flagellum has four rings (L,
P, S and M), out of which
S and M rings are present
in gram positive bacteria
whereas all the four rings are
found in the gram negative
bacteria. L and P rings in cell
wall constitute the distal set,
while S and M rings formthe
proximal set and are present
in plasma membrane of
the cell. Figure 2.4: A sectional view of a bacterial cell showing the
detailed structure of the flagellum and attachment of flagellum
to the bacterial cell.
2.15
y Hook: It consists of different protein subunits making the attachment area for the filament.
y Filament: These contain identical spherical subunits of a protein called as flagellin which are molecular
chains that run longitudinally across each other to form a wavy helical or rope-like structure. A cross-
section of the flagellum clearly shows the number of flagellin molecules around a central space present
in the filament.
(b) Pili and fimbriae are small plasma extending structures that are hollow, non-helical, filamentous
appendages. These are projection from the cell walls of Gram-negative bacteria. These are shorter, thinner
and higher in number than the flagella in the cell. These are made up of specific protein molecules called pilin.
There are different types of pili which serve different functions. One type, known as type I pili, (somatic pili)
play a major role in infection by facilitating the attachment of bacterial cell to the host cell. Another type.
Termed sex pili, serve as portals of genetic material from donor to recipient cell during conjugation.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
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Flagella may or may not be present in the cell, and if present its number and position changes
in every bacterial cell. Bacteria with or without flagella are divided as follows:
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y Atrichous: Bacteria lacking flagella, e.g., Pasteurella, Lactobacillus.
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y Monotrichous: Bacteria with only one flagellum that is attached at one pole of the cell,
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e.g., Thiobacillus, Vibrio.
y Amphitrichous: Bacteria having two flagella attached at both the ends, e.g., Nitrosomonas.
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y Cephalotrichous: Bacteria whose cell has two or more flagella present at one end only,
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e.g., Pseudomonas fluorescence.

y Lophotrichous: Bacteria with two or more flagella present at both the ends of the cell,
Ed
e.g., Spirillum volutans.

y Peritrichous: Bacteria have flagella present all over the surface of the cell,
e.g., Escherichia coli, Clostridium tetani.
Figure 2.5: Diagrammatic image of some Bacterial cells having flagella in various positions
2.16
(ii) Glycocalyx
The outermost part of cell structure forming an envelope made of three layers: Glycocalyx, cell wall, plasma
membrane present from outer most part to the inner part of a cell.
The main function of the glycocalyx is to protect the cell from external world and help the bacteria to adhere
to the surface. Glycocalyx is made of either slime layer or capsule.
(a) Slime layer is made from dextran, dextrin and levan sugars and the main function is to protect the cell
against desiccation and loss of nutritients.
(b) Capsule is made up of polysaccharides and D-glutamic acid. The main funtion is to provide gummy or
sticky character and add virulent property to the bacterial cell.
(iii) Cell wall
The outer covering of the cell membrane is cell wall that is a rigid in nature.
Functions
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y This rigidity protects the cells internal structures
.i
y Provides shape to the cell.
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y However, the main function remains to prevent the cell from expanding too much to burst. This bursting
of cell may loose the cell organelles as most bacteria are in hypotonic habitat, that forces bacteria to take
n
in much more water to eventually burst itself.
ur
Structure: The cell walls are made up of peptidogylycan which is also called as murein or mucopeptide,are
common to all the eubacteria (true bacteria) of prokaryotic nature.
o
y The peptidoglycan is a combination of two components- a peptide portion made up of amino acids
uj
connected by peptide linkage, and a glycan or sugar portion.

Ed
Figure 2.6: Molecular arrangement of biomolecules in a cell membrane

y The glycan portion is the backbone of peptidoglycan. It consists the alternating units of amino sugars
N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) joined together by β -1, 4 linkage.
2.17
y The peptidoglycan chains are linked laterally by short chains of four amino acids which are attached to
N-acetylmuramic acid residues.
y The four amino acids of this tetrapeptide are D-alanine, L-alanine, D-Glumatic acid and L-lysine (in Gram
positive bacteria) or diaminopimelic acid (in Gram negative bacteria).
y The tetrapeptide chains are also connected by a peptide bridge that is in between the caboxyl group of
an amino acid in one tetrapeptide chain and amino group of an amino acid in another tetrapeptide chain.
As a result, peptidoglycan forms a rigid, multilayered sheet.
Bacteria have separate cell wall structures depending on the thickness of peptidoglycan layer.
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Figure 2.7: Molecular arrangement of lipids and proteins in a cell membrane

Ed
y Teichoic acid, another component which is an acidic polymer containing a carbohydrate (e.g., glucose),
phosphate and an alcohol.
y It is found in cell walls of Gram positive bacteria.
y Teichoic acid has several roles to play in a cell like acting as receptor sites for some viruses, binding
metals and maintaining cells pH in order to prevent its degradation by self-produced enzymes.
y The walls Gram positive bacteria contain very little amount of lipids.
y The Gram negative bacteria have cell walls that are more complex than gram positivie bacteria.
y The peptidoglycan layer is very thin constituting only 10% or less of the total cell wall. There exists an
outer membrane that covers the thin underlying layer of peptidoglycan.
y The outer membrane consists of phospholipid bilayer structure made chiefly of phospholipids, proteins
and lipopolysaccharides (LPS).
y The outer membrane serves as a gate to preserve the important enzymes from leaving the periplasmic
space between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane.
y It also monitors the entry of various chemicals that are harmful in nature to the cell.
2.18
y It gives the bacteria its main surface antigenin the cell wall. However, outer membrane is permeable to
the external nutrients which is regulated by proteins called as porins. These porins form channels across
the membrane through which substances are able to enter the cell.
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Figure 2.8: Molecular arrangement of lipids and proteins in a cell membrane of a gram positive cell
o
uj
Ed
Figure 2.9: Molecular arrangement of lipids and proteins in a cell membrane of a

gram negative cell
2.19
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Christian Gram (1884) a microbiologist, developed a staining technique for bacteria, using
Gram stain (crystal violet). The basis of Gram Stain was that the bacteria are classified into two
groups; Gram positive and Gram negative.
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Flowchart 2.5: Gram staining technique for bacteria.

2.20
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 2.1: Difference between Gram positive and Gram negative Bacteria
Gram Positive Bacteria Gram Negative Bacteria
They take the blue colour of Gram stain even They get the colour blue with Gram stain
after destaining with alcohol. initially, however lose it after destaining with
alcohol.
Cell wall
The cell wall has 150-200 Å thickness. The Cell wall has 75-120 Å thickness consisting a
cell wall lacks the cover lipopolysaccharide layer of lipopolysaccharide, which is a double
layer and has a single layer. layer.
Cell wall is more rigid due to high percentage Cell wall is less rigid due to low percentage
(80%) of peptidoglycan. (3-12%) of peptidoglycan.
n
Muramic acid content is 70-95%. Muramic acid content is 5-20%.
.i
Lipid content is low (2-4%). Lipid content is high (20-30%).
Phospholipid is absent in cell wall. al Phospholipid is present in cell wall.
Teichoic acid is present. Teichoic acid is absent.
n
Fewer types of amino acids are present in Several types of amino acids are present in
cell wall. cell wall
ur
Diaminopimelic acid (DAPA) is absent in the DAPA present in cell wall in the place of
cell wall and L-lysine is present. L-lysine.
o
Bacteria is more sensitive to antibiotics such Bacteria is resistant to antibiotics like

uj
as penicillin. penicillin
Cell is resistant to alkalis and insoluble in Cell is sensitive to alkalis and soluble in 1%
Ed
1% KOH solution. KOH solution.

Mostly cells are non-capsulated. Mostly cells are capsulated.
Protoplast is produced by the reaction with Sphaeroplast is formed by the reaction with
lysozyme. lysozyme (LPS remains unaffected).
Other Structures
Mesosomes are very common in the cell. Mesosomes are rarely present in the cell.
Pili are usually absent. Pili are very common
Flagella are less common. Flagella are very common.
Basal body of flagellum has 2 rings It has four rings (L, P, S and M).
(S, M) only.
Only few forms are pathogenic and may More forms are pathogenic and may
produce exotoxins produce endotoxins
e.g. Bacillus, Clostridium, Lactobacillus, e.g. E coli, Salmonella, Acetobacter,
Streptococcus, Leuconostoc, Azotobacter, Vibrio, Agrobacterium,
Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium Shigella, Xanthomonas
2.21
(iv) Protoplast: Cell wall contains the protoplast which is the living matter in the cell. It includes
cell membrane, cytoplasm and nucleoid and may or may not have plasmid and episome.
.i n
Figure 2.10: Bacterial cell with all its internal molecules
al
(a) Cell membrane: The layer inner to the cell wall that is the outermost layer of the protoplast. It is the living
n
part semipermeable in nature that controls the movements of manyaqueous substances in and out of the cells.
ur
Functionally, the cell membrane of bacteria acts as respiratory ETS enzymes and succinate dehydrogenase
(Krebs cycle) found in the cell membrane. These are similar to the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells. The cell
o
membrane gets folded inwards to form a structure called mesosome (chondroid) present in some Gram positive
bacteria. These structures may be in centre or periphery of the cell. They have a function in the replication
uj
of DNA when the cell divides, as these are often attached to the nuclear body. Besides, these mesosomes
Ed
increase the surface area of absorption by the cell and help in septa formation during binary fission.
(b) Cytoplasm: It is jelly like homogeneous mass containing carbohydrates, fats, proteins, lipid, nucleic
acids, minerals and water. It lacks streaming movements, sap vacuoles and gas vacuoles with few
exceptions. Typical membrane bound organelles of eukaryotic cells are absent. The cytoplasm contains
70S ribosomes due to which it appears granular. Ribosomes are scattered all over in the cytoplasm and
sometimes may form a small chain of 4-6 ribosomes attached to mRNA making polyribosome or polysome.
Various non-living inclusions like glycogen particles, fats, volutin granules (poly metaphosphate – source
of energy) and lipid molecules lie freely in the cytoplasm. The cytoplasm is typically colourless. However,
the photosynthetic bacteria have pigments like bacteriochlorophyll and bacterioviridin giving the cell green
colour in the cytoplasm. The pigments may be dispersed in the cytoplasm or be membrane bound spherical
vesicles that are called as chromatophores.
(c) Nucleoid (Pro chromosome, Genophore, incipient nucleus): Bacterial cell lacks a membrane bound
well-organized nucleus. It consists of a long double standard DNA molecule supercoiled to form a sphere.
DNA does not has free ends and associated histone proteins which is termed as bacterial chromosome.
2.22
Plasmid (Mini chromosome): Lederberg and Hays coined the term plasmid. These are small, extra
chromosomal, non-essential, circular, and double stranded, free naked DNA molecules. The genes present
on them incorporate extra characters in the bacteria. These replicate autonomously. When plasmids
temporarily integrate in the bacterial chromosome, then they are called as episomes.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Type of Plasmids:
F-Plasmid: It is responsible for process of conjugation or fertility factor transfer by forming sex
pilus.
R-Plasmid: These plasmids incorporate resistance in the bacteria (Resistance Transfer Factor,
RTF) for antibiotics like penicillin, tetracycline.
Col-Plasmid: Genes of this plasmid help in the production of colicins (bacteriocin) that kill other
n
bacteria.
.i
Ti Plasmid: Agrobacterium tumefaciens, has the plasmid that is used in genetic engineering.
hydrocarbons of petroleum in oil spills.

n al
Degradative plasmid:Pseudomonas putida (superbag) has the plasmid that decomposes
ur
4.2.3 Bacterial Life Processes

o
Bacterial life processes will deal with the prominent metabolic activities like respiration and nutrition.
uj
(i) Respiration: On the type of respiration, all the bacteria are divided into two main groups i.e., aerobes
and anaerobes. Each group is further divided into two types i.e. strict or obligate and facultative.
Ed
Table 2.2: Different types of Aerobes and Anaerobes

Types of Aerobes Types of Anaerobes
Obligate or strict aerobes: These bacteria survive Obligate or strict anaerobes: These bacteria
only in presence of oxygen as they have the always respire anaerobically. This respiration
enzyme system for aerobic respiration only. In the liberates much less amount of energy as
absence of oxygen, they fail to respire and thus, compared to aerobic respiration. They lack
die, e.g., Bacillus subtilis. enzymes thatcarry out aerobic respiration
e.g., Clostridium botulinum.
Facultative aerobes: They normally respire Facultative anaerobes: They normally respire
anaerobically, howeverin presence of oxygen are aerobically. But are capable of switching over
capable of respiring aerobically as well. Most of the to anaerobic mode in order to survive, during
photosynthetic bacteria are facultative aerobes insufficient oxygen e.g., Pseudomonas.
e.g., photosynthetic bacteria Chlorobium.
2.23
DID YOU KNOW

y Aerotolerant anaerobes: There are bacteria that perform anaerobic respiration even
?
when the oxygen is available to them are called Aerotolerant anaerobes, e.g., Lactic acid
bacteria.
y Anaerotolerant aerobes: The aerobic bacteria that continue to perform aerobic respiration
whenfree oxygen is absent by using oxygen from oxidised salts are called Anaerotolerant
aerobes, e.g., Denitrifying bacteria.
(ii) Nutrition in Bacteria
.i n
n al
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Flow Chart 2.6: Nutrition ways of various organisms

uj
(a) Autotrophic Bacteria

Ed
Photoautotrophic or autotrophic bacteria: are capable of entrapping solar energy and utilizing it for the
synthesis of complex food materials due to presence of pigments like bacteriochlorophyll (bacteriopurpurin)
and bacterioviridin.
2.24
Most of the photosynthesis bacteria are anaerobes (facultative aerobes)
.i n
n al
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Ed
Flow Chart 2.7: Autotrophic bacteria showing various types of

photosynthetic bacteria
(b) Chemoautotrophic Bacteria

Bacteria belonging to this category obtain energy for the synthesis of food oxidising certain inorganic
substances like ammonia, nitrates, ferrous ions etc. Thus, they do not utilise light as energy source. The
chemical energy thus obtained, is trapped in ATP molecules. This energy is then used in carbon assimilation
with the help of hydrogen from some source other than water, e.g., hydrogen bacteria, nitrifying bacteria,
sulphur bacteria, etc. They play a great role in recycling nutrients like hydrogen, phosphorus, iron, sulphur.
2.25
n
Flow Chart 2.8: Autotrophic methods of food production without light as
.i
energy. It shows various types of this class of bacteria
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(c) Heterotrophic bacteria
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Ed
Flow Chart 2.9: Heterotrophic bacteria showing various methods of

food consumption
2.26
4.2.4 Reproduction in Bacteria

Bacteria as a whole reproduce by asexual method while some bacteria also show sexual reproduction (True
sexual reproduction is absent).
(i) Asexual Reproduction
Bacteria reproduce with the help of several types of asexual spores such as sporangiospores, oidia, conidia
and endospores. The most common mode of asexual reproduction is binary fission.
(a) Binary Fission: This process of cell division is amitotic type i.e., not involving the spindle formation.
Since at one stage, the replicating chromosome appears like the Greek letter θ, this mode of replication is
called theta model.
.i n
n al
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uj
Ed
Figure 2.11: Various stages (A - E) of cell division in a Bacteria
(b) Endospores: Cells of certain bacteria, e.g., Bacillus, Clostridium etc. from thick-walled, highly resistant
bodies within the cell, called endospores. One bacterial cell normally produces only a single endospore.
The endospores may be spherical or oval in shape and are terminal or central in position. Anticoagulant
nature of endospore is due to the presence of Ca-dipicolinic acid in cortex layer of wall.
2.27
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Structure of Endospore: The endospore
consists of a central core made up of nuclear
material and spore cytoplasm. The central
core is surrounded by a delicate membrane
called core wall. Around the core wall is
another layer, which is much thicker and is
of relatively low density. The cortex, it turn,
is enclosed in spore coat which may be
smooth, grooved, or raised into ridges. Figure 2.12: Endospores: (A) Structure of an
The endospores are formed when nutrients get endospore, (B) Germination of endospore
exhausted (unfavourable conditions). During
endospore formation, a part of the protoplast containing nuclear body undergoes dehydration, stores
n
food material and gets separated from rest of the protoplast to form endospore. The endospores
.i
have tough layering that can withstand temperature ranging from 1000 C to- 1000 C, thus remain
al
unharmed in pasteurisation. The remarkable resistance shown by endospores is due to: thick and
impermeable spore coat, low water content, low metabolic activity and Ca-DPA complex.
n
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uj
Ed
Figure 2.13: Various steps involved in an endospore formation in a cell is shown

When these endospores come under favourable conditions. Endospores are the perennation and
not reproduction cells as only one endospore is formed per cell.
2.28
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Outermost part of bacterial cell envelope is _____, which is made of ____, _____ and
____ sugars. It protect the cell against ___ and loss of nutrient.
2. Give one word for bacteria which are able to synthesis their food using light energy and
organic compound as the source of electron and proton.
3. Bacterial ____ is very simple, but they are very complex in _____.
4. Which substance give anticoagulant nature to endospore?
5. Most common mode of bacterial reproduction is by ______.
(ii) Sexual Recombination (Genetic Recombination):

The bacteria exhibit a primitive form a sexual reproduction which differs from eukaryotic sexual reproduction
n
because there is no gamete formation and fusion. However, the essential feature of sexual reproduction,
i.e., exchange of genetic material does take place and is called genetic recombination. Three methods are
.i
known by which genetic recombination is achieved by bacteria. In the order of their bacteria, these are
transformation, conjugation and transduction.
n al
(a) Transformation
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Ed
Figure 2.14: DNA intake through transformation in a bacteria
Figure 2.15: DNA intake through natural transformation process in a bacteria

2.29
DID YOU KNOW

Griffith (1928) worked on the effect of Diplococcus or Streptococcus pneumonia bacteria
on mice and discovered the process of transformation.
In transformation, the donor and recipient do not come in contact. The donor cell releases
a piece of DNA which is actively taken up by the recipient cell from the solution. The
ability to pick up DNA from the solution is called competence.
? Two strains of D. pneumonia are:

Capsulated or S-III (Virulent strain) and Non-capsulated or R-II (non-virulent strain).
Griffith concluded that something passed from heat killed S-III to R-II bacteria, so that
non virulent strain changed or transformed into virulent bacterial strain.
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (1948) repeated this experiment using various enzymes
and proved that the transformation principle is DNA of heat killed S-III strain. They proved
n
that DNA is a genetic material.
.i
(b) Conjugation
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Figure 2.16: Schematic diagram of the conjugation experiment of Lederberg

Ed
showing conjugation between F+ and F- cells
DID YOU KNOW

Lederberg and Tatum (1946) demonstrated in E. coli that during conjugation, one cell
containing F− plasmid acts as donor (F+ or male) cell and the other lacking F− plasmid
as recipient (F− or female) cell. The plasmid contains fertility factor or F gene which
produces protrusions termed sex pili. These help the donor F+ cell in attaching to the
recipient cell. The plasmid replicates and a replica is transferred to recipient cell, changing
? it into F+. Often the plasmid integrates with bacterial chromosome, converting it into Hfr
(High frequency of recombination) cell or super male and a part or whole of bacterial
chromosome is transferred to recipient cell through conjugation tube. Such association of
episome with the endogenote increases the efficiency of genetic transfer. The number of
genes transferred depends upon the time for which the two remain joined together. When
F- conjugates with super male, the frequency of recombination increases by 1000 times,
that is why it is called as Hfr (super male)
2.30
Schematic diagram of the conjugation experiment of Lederberg showing conjugation between F+ and F− cells
(c) Transduction
Figure 2.17: Recombination of cells through transduction
n
4.2.5 Economic Importance of Bacteria
.i
Bacteria play significant role in day to day activities of human beings.
(i) Beneficial activities
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(a) Role in agriculture
ur
y Decay and decomposition of organic matter: They cause decay and decomposition of dead plants and
animals, which is important for mineral cycling.
o
y Sewage disposal: The bacteria decomposes the sewage organic matter, converting into simpler inorganic
uj
substances that pass out through filter. This liquid is useful for irrigation purposes, e.g., Clostridium,
E. coli.
Ed
y Nitrogen cycle: The proteins in the dead bodies of living organisms are converted into amino acids then
into ammonia by ammonifying bacteria (Bacillus vulgaris, B. ramosus). Further Nitrifying bacteria convertit
first into nitrates (Nitrosomonas, Nitrococcus) which are finally converted into nitrates (Nitrobacter). In
presence of denitrifying bacteria (Pseudomonas denitrificans), nitrates and nitrites in soil are converted
to gaseous nitrogen.
y Nitrogen fixation: The biological process of nitrogen gas getting converted into nitrogenous compounds
in presence of nitrogen fixing bacteria is called as nitrogen fixing bacteria. For e.g., free living bacteria
are Azotobacter and Beijerinckia (aerobic) and Clostridium (anaerobic).Common symbiotic bacteria are
Rhizobium leguminosarum and Xanthomonas.
y Manure preparation: Saprophytic bacteria prepare farmyard manure by converting farm wastes, dung
and other organic wastes into humus.
(b) Role in Industry

y Man has utilized the metabolic activities of bacteria in various industrial products like:
y Butter milk and sour cream
2.31
y Yoghurt
y Cheese
y Vinegar
y Retting of fibres: Retting is process where a microbial population decompose fibers in order to separate
them. The tissues are dipped in water tanks full of anaerobic butyric acid bacteria that dissolve the pectin
of cells, thus, separating the fibres. Clostridium perfringens and Pseudomonas fluorescence are bacteria
used.
y Curing of leaves: The tastes and flavour in tea is improved using Micrococcus candidans and in tobacco
leaves by Bacillus megatherium.
y Single cell proteins (SCP): These are protein supplements used for treatment. Examples: Methylophilus
methylotropus and Rhodopseudomonas capsulate.
(c) Role in Medicine
n
Bacteria have a major role in preparation of medicinal products like antibiotics, vaccines, serums and
.i
vitamins.
al
y Antibiotics: The organic substances produced by microorganisms that does not allow other organisms
(mostly pathogens) to grow are called antibiotics. Some antibiotics produced by bacteria are:
n
Bacitracin Bacillus lichenifomis
ur
Polymixin Bacillus polymyxa

Gramicidin B. brevis
o
Subtilin B. subtilis
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y Vaccine production: Vaccine and serums are prepared from the whole or part of bacteria or their toxins.
Ed
They are against typhoid, cholera TB, pertussis, tetanus and diphtheria e.g., DPT (against diphtheria,
pertussis and tetanus), TT (against tetanus), BCG (Bacille of Calmette-Gurein against TB), DT (against
diphtheria and tetanus).
y Vitamins: Several bacteria are used in industrial production of a various vitamins.
Riboflavin Clostridium butylicum
Bacillus magnatherium and Pseudomonas
Cobalamine (B12)
denitrificans
B-complex vitamins and vitamin K Escherichia coli from the human intestine
Pollution control: Pseudomonas putida degrades petroleum wastes. Flavobacterium can decompose 2,
4-D.DDT can be decomposed by Acetobacter aerogens. Gange’s water contains Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus
that maintains purity of its water.
Poly-hydroxybutyrate is used to produce biodegradable plastic.
2.32
DID YOU KNOW

Antibiotics: The term antibiotic was given by Waksman, who discovered streptomycin.
?
The first commercial antibiotic penicillin was discovered by Flemming (1959) from a
fungus called Penicillium.
Vaccine: BCG was the first vaccine prepared that used whole bacteria after destroying
its pathogenicity. It is the first vaccine given to the infant.
Table 2.3: Organisms causing Human Diseases

Name of casual organism Name of the human disease
Shigella dysenteriae , S. sonnei, S. boydis Bacillary dysentery
n
Chlostridium botulinum Botulism
.i
Vibrio cholerae Cholera
Leptotrichia buccalis
Corynebacterium diptheriae
n al Dental plaque
Diptheria
Salmonella typhimurium Typhoid
Staphylococcus aureus Food poisoning
ur
Clostridium perfringens Gangrene

Escherichia coli, Salmonella Gastroenteritis
o
Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Salmonella schottmulleri Gonorrhoea

uj
Mycobacterium leprae (Hensen’s bacillus) Leprosy

Neisseria meningitides Meningitis
Ed
Heliobacter pylori Peptic ulcer

Staphylococcus aureus Pimples
Yersinia pestis Plague
Diplococcus pneumonia Pneumonia
Streponema pallidum Rheumatic fever
Treponema pallidum Syphilis
Clostridium pallidum Tetanus
Streptococcus pyrogenes Tonsilitis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Tuberculosis
Salmonella typhosa / typhi Typhoid
Gardinerella vaginalis Vaginitis
Bordetella pertussis / Hemophilous pertussis Whooping cough
Salmonella typhimurium Enteric fever (paratyphoid)
Mycoplasma hominis Male sterility and female abortion in humans
2.33
Table 2.4:Organisms causing Animal Diseases

Name of casual organism Name of the animal disease
Brucella sui Brucellosis
Clostridium chanvei Black leg
Bacillis anthracis Anthrax
Salmonella abortusovis Abortion
Table 2.5: Organisms causing Plant Diseases
Name of casual organism Name of the animal disease
Pseudomonas solanaecearum Potato wilt
Xanthomonas citri Citrus canker
Agrobacterium tumefaciens Crown gall
Erwinia amylovora Fire blight of apple
n
Xanthomonas oryzae Bacterial blight of apple
.i
Xanthomonas malvacearum Angular leaf spot of Gossypium
Xanthomonas phaseoli
Pseudomonas rubrilineans
n al Bean blight of Phaseolus
Red stripe of sugarcane
Erwinia cartovora Soft rot of carrot
ur
Corynebacterium tritci Tundu (bacterial rot) of wheat
Corynebacterium campestris Back rot of cannage
o
Streptomyces scabies Potato scab

Pseudomonas tobaci Wild fire of tobacco
uj
Ed
4.3 Cyanobacteria
Cyanobacteria are the only moneran Gram negative photosynthetic bacteria that have prokaryotic cell structure.
These are the most primitive organisms that have the ability of oxygenic photosynthesis. They played major
role in adding oxygen to the atmosphere, which made the existence of aerobic forms of living organisms. They
are also called as BGA (Blue green algae) and are classified as cyanophyceae or myxophyceae.
4.3.1 Occurrence
y They are mainly fresh water forms, and a few are marine habit. Red sea has abundant population of a
cyanobacterium Trichodesemium erythodesmium, which gives red colour to water.
y They occur in symbiosis with several group of eukaryotes i.e. green algae, fungi, bryophytes like mosses
and Anthoceros, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms, sponge, shrimps, mammals etc.
y Anabaena azollae is associated with Azolla, which is an aquatic fern. Anabaena cycadeae is associated
with coralloid roots of Cycas.
y In many lichens which are symbiotic association of algae and fungi, where in the algae may be a
cyanobacterium. When they live endozoically in protozoans they are called cyanelle.
2.34
4.3.2 Structural Organization

These are unicellular or multicellular forms in filamentous or colonial type. Filamentous form consists
of one or more cellular strands that is called as trichomes and is surrounded by mucilaginous sheath.
Cyanobacteria are lacking flagellum throughout life cycle.
(i) Cell Structure
y The cell structure in cyanobacteria is typically prokaryotic.
y The cell does not have a well-defined nucleus instead have centrally located chromatin material similar
to that of the bacterial chromosome.
y The cell wall has 4 layers with the cover mucilaginous sheath made from the mucopeptides.
y Protoplasm is distinctly divided into two parts: the centroplasm and chromoplasm.
y The chromatin material is present in the central colourless centroplasm.
n
y The peripheral protoplasm contains thylakoids that imparts colour or pigment to the cell is called as
chromoplasm.
.i
al
y The thylakoids contain pigments chlorophyll a and phycobilins i.e. phycocyanin (blue coloured),
phycoerythrin (red coloured) and allophycocyanin (light blue coloured).
n
y The protoplastis prokaryotic and thus does not have membrane-bound organelles like endoplasmic
ur
reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, lysosomes, plastids and contains 70S ribosomes.
y The cyanobacterial cell produces distinct reserve food material in the forms of granules that store
o
biomolecules.
uj
Ed
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Gaidukov’s phenomenon: Cyanobacteria or blue green algae have the special ability of
adaptively changing their colour depending on the wavelengths of light falling on them, e.g.,
Trichodesmium erythraeum changes from usual green to red colour and thus is also known
as “red sea” causing alga. This phenomenon is also called as or Complementary Chromatic
adaption.
2.50
Q.41 In bacteria, the respiratory enzymes are situated

(A) Cytoplasm (B) Cell membrane
(C) Ribosomes (D) Mitochondria
Q.42 Cell wall in Gram positive bacteria is composed of

(A) Lipid and protein (B) Murein
(C) Proteins only (D) Cellulose and pectin
Q.43 One of the following is a filamentous bacteria

(A) Pseudomonas (B) Clostridium
(C) Actinomyces (D) Azotobacter
Q.44 Pili represent
n
(A) Extra chromosomal genetic elements (B) Protoplasmic outgrowths of donor cells
.i
(C) Small flagella (D) Special bacterial cilia
Q.45 Plasmids represent

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(A) A group of monerans (B) Small parasitic organisms
ur
(C) Genetic elements (D) Extra chromosomal elements

o
Q.46 The resting spores produced by bacteria in unfavourable conditions are called
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(A) Oidia (B) Endospores (C) Exospores (D) Chlmydospores

Ed
Q.47 Conjugation in bacteria was discovered by

(A) Beadle and Tatum (B) Zinder and Lederberg
(C) Griffith (D) Lederberg and Tatum
Q.48 Genophore is the name of

(A) DNA of eukaryotes (B) DNA of bacteria
(C) Genes of Drosophila (D) Genes of Neurospora
Q.49 There is no alternation of generation in Escherichia coli because of the absence of

(A) Syngamy (B) Reduction division
(C) Conjugation (D) Both (A) and (B)
2.51
Q.50 The part of the bacterial chromosome that is homolgous to a genome fragment transferred from the
donor to the recipient cell in the formation of a merozygote is known as
(A) Exogenote (B) Endogenote (C) Dysgenic (D) Eugenic
Q.51 The following bacterium is associated with denitrification

(A) Azotobacter (B) Rhodosprillum
(C) Pseudomonas (D) Rhizobium
Q.52 Broad spectrum antibiotic is that which

(A) Acts on both pathogens and hosts
(B) Acts on ball bacteria and viruses
(C) Acts on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms
(D) Is effective in very small amounts
.i n
Q.53 Bacteria which can survive in the absence of oxygen are known as
(A) Obligate anaerobes
(C) Obligate aerobes
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(B) Facultative anaerobes
(D) Facultative aerobes
ur
Q.54 Streptomycin is produced by

(A) Streptomyces venezuleae (B) Streptomyces griseus
o
(C) Streptomyces erythreus (D) Streptomyces aureofaciens

uj
Q.55 Food poisoning is caused by

Ed
(A) Clostridium tetani (B) Clostridium botulinum

(C) Salmonella typhi (D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.56 Rhizobium is
(A) Symbiotic and Gram negative bacterium
(B) Symbiotic and Gram positive bacterium
(C) Free living nitrogen fixing bacterium
(D) Parasitic and nitrogen fixing bacteria
Q.57 Syphilis is caused by

(A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B) Treponema pallidum
(C) Hemophilous pertusis (D) Pasteurella pestis
2.52
Q.58 Jacob and Wollman coined the term

(A) Plasmid (B) Episome (C) Circular DNA (D) Chromosome
Q.59 Branched chain lipids occur in the cell membranes of

(A) Archaebacteria (B) Mycoplasma
(C) Actinomycetes (D) Streptomyces
Q.60 Monerans producing conidia for reproduction belong to

(A) Eubacteria (B) Archaebacteria
(C) Actinomycetes (D) Mycoplasma
Q.61 Smallest known moneran lacking cell wall are

(A) Spirochaete (B) Mycoplasma
n
(C) Cyanobacteria (D) Archaebacteria
.i
Q.62 Cyanobacteria do not possess
(A) Genere combination
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(B) Flagella
(C) Plasmids (D) Lamellasomes
ur
Q.63 Heterocyst present in Nostoc is specialised for

o
(A) Fragmentation (B) Nitrogen fixation

uj
(C) Storage (D) Photosynthesis

Ed
Q.64 A cyanelle is
(A) A BGA associated with human intestine
(B) A BGA associated with protists
(C) A free living BGA
(D) Any symbiotic BGA
Q.65 ‘Contagium vivum fluidum’ (i.e., living fluid infectant) term has given by
(A) Mayer (B) Ivanowsky
(C) Beijerinck (D) Bawden and Pirie
2.53
Q.66 Bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes 15 minutes a cup to be one-fourth full. How much time
will it take to fill the cup?
(A) 30 minutes (B) 45 minutes (C) 60 minutes (D) 17 minutes
Q.67 Anaerobic monerans which are endosymbiotically associated with cattlels rumen are
(A) Bacillus (B) Methanobacterium
(C) Halococcus (D) Thermoacidophiles
Q.68 Highly resistance nature of endospore is due to the presence of

(A) Dipicolinic acid and peptidoglycan in spore coat
(B) Peptidogylycan in exosporium
(C) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex
(D) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cell membrane
.i n
Q.69 Gange’s water purity is maintained by
(A) B. dellovibrio
(C) Ferrobacillus
n al
(B) Clostridium
(D) Tolypothrix
ur
Q.70 Find the correct match

o
S. No. Column – I S. No. Column - II

uj
(a) Streptomycin (i) Streptomyces griseus

(b) Terramycin (ii) S. venezuelae
Ed
(c) Chloramphenicol (iii) S. rimosus

(d) Bacitracin (iv) Bacillus licheniformis
(A) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (B) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(C) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (D) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Q.71 Select correct match w.r.t. Whittaker’ system of classification

(A) Monera : Unicellular and multicellular, osmotrophs, producers and decomposers, true cellulosic cell wall
(B) Protista : Unicellular, eukaryotic, photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs
(C) Fungi : Multicellular/loose tissue, eukaryotic, osmotrophs, chitinous wall
(D) Animalia : Multicellular, eukaryotic, organ or organ system, holozoic, no saprobic
2.54
Q.72 Read the given features carefully and select incorrect set of features for a respective member.
a. LPS layer present b. Diazotroph c. Peritrichous
d. Sewage disposal e. Obligate anaerobes f. Chemoautotrophs
g. L-Lysine absent h. Aerobic
(A) Clostridium – a, c, d, e (B) Rhizobium – a, b, g
(C) Azotobacter – a, b, g, h (D) Methanogens – e, f, a, g
Q.73 Endospores formed by certain bacteria ate actually the means for
(A) Reproduction (B) Perennation
(C) Bioluminescence (D) Red show formation
n
Previous Years' Questions
.i
(A) Hutchinson
n al
Q.1 First phylogenetic system of classification was given by
(B) Whittaker
(DPMT 2007)
(C) Takhtajan (D) Engler and Prantl

ur
Q.2 Engler and Prantl proposed their phylogenetic system in (Kerala 2005)
o
(A) Species plantarum (B) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen familien

uj
(C) Origin of species (D) Phylogeny of flowering aplants

Ed
Q.3 In which year, Robert H. Whittaker an Americon taxonomist, proposed his five kingdom system of
classification ? (MPPMT 2000)
(A) 1965 (B) 1969 (C) 1972 (D) 1989
Q.4 What is true in the latest classification of biological kingdoms proposed by Whittaker ?
(MPPMT 1994, 97, Kerala 1997)
(A) Eukaryotes are assigned to four of the five kingdoms
(B) Fungi are multicellular eukaryotic osmotrophs
(C) Viruses are not assigned to any kingdoms
(D) All of the above
2.55
Q.5 New systematics based on genetic interrelationship is (PbPMT 1999, JIPMER 1997)
(A) Chemotaxonomy (B) Cytotaxonomy
(C) Numerical Taxonomy (D) Experimental Taxonomy
Q.6 What is the name of the book written by Aristotle ? (MPPMT 1999)
(A) Historia Animalium (B) Systema Naturae
(C) Philosophie Zoologique (D) Historia Naturelle
Q.7 On the basis of nucleoid/karyon, viruses should be included in (Rajasthan 1998)

(A) Prokaryotes (B) Progenote
(C) Protovirus (D) None of these
Q.8 The book Genera plantarum was written by (CBSE 1999)
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(A) Bessey (B) Engler and Prantl
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(C) Bentham and Hooker (D) Hutchinson
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Q.9 The outlook of classical systematics is embodied in (JIPMER 1997)
(A) Typological concept (B) Biological concept
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(C) Species concept (D) None of above

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Q.10 Thallophyta includes (JIPMER 2000)

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(A) Algae, Fungi, Bacteria and Lichens (B) Algae and Fungi
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(C) Fungi and Bacteria (D) Algae, Fungi and Lichens
Q.11 In five kingdom system, which one is the main basis of classification is (CBSE 2002)
(A) Structure of nucleus (B) Mode of nutrition
(C) Structure of cell wall (D) Asexual reproduction
Q.12 Which one of the following is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? (Kerala PMT 2005)
(A) Mitotic apparatus (B) Histones (C) Mitochondria (D) Genetic code
Q.13 Scientific study of diversity of organisms and their evolutionary relationship is called
(J & K CET 2011)
(A) Morphology (B) Anatomy (C) Taxonomy (D) Systematics
2.56
Q.14 Inter-breeding animals belong to the same (AMU Medical 2011)

(A) Genus (B) Family (C) Species (D) Order
Q.15 Which of the following is the wall less and smallest living cell? (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Algae (B) Bacteriophage (C) Cyanobacteria (D) Mycoplasma
Q.16 When bacteria are rod like, they are called (Orissa 2007)
(A) Bacilli (B) Cocci (C) Spirilla (D) Vibrios
Q.17 Which one of the following has the potential to be an important source of protein because it has
10 times higher yield than wheat ? (Chandigarh CET 2010)
(A) Spirogyra (B) Nostoc (C) Rhodospirillum (D) Spirulina
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Q.18 Which one of the following parts is wrongly matched ? (CBSE 2007)
(A) Streptomycetes
(B) Methanogens
Antibiotic
Gobar gas
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(C) Yeast Ethanol
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(D) Coliforms Vinegar

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Q.19 In September 2001, which of the following was used as a bioweapon agent in America in bioterroism
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(MP PMT 07)

(A) Botulinium (Clostridium botylinum) (B) Polio virus
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(C) AIDS virus (D) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

Q.20 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is (CBSE 2006)
(A) A facultative aerobe (B) An obligate aerobe
(C) A facultative anaerobe (D) An obligate anaerobe
Q.21 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two
groups (CBSE PMT Prelims 2010)
(A) Liverworts and yeasts (B) Eubacteria and archaea
(C) Cyanobacteria and diatoms (D) Protists and mosses
2.57
Q.22 In biogas plant, which group of bacteria is found ? (Chandigarh CET 2010)
(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Myxobacteria
(C) Mycobacteria (D) Archaebacteria
Q.23 In the Five kingdom classification, bacteria are included in kingdom (HP PMT 2010)
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Animalia
Q.24 The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic call are (Karnataka CET 2011)
(A) 100 S (B) 80 S (C) 60 S (D) 70 S
Q.25 What is a genophore ? (WB JEE 2011)

(A) DNA in prokaryotes (B) DNA and histones in prokaryotes
(C) DNA and protein in prokaryotes (D) RNA in prokaryotes
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Q.26 In the 5-kingdom classification, the kingdom that includes the blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria
and methanogenic archaebacteria is
(A) Protista (B) Monera
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(C) Plantae
(AMU Medical 2011; J & K CET 2011)
(D) Fungi
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Q.27 Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(CBSE PMT Prelims 2011)
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(A) Paramoecium caudatum (B) Escherichia coli

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(C) Euglena viridis (D) Amoeba proteus

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Q.28 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is (CBSE PMT Prelims 2011)
(A) Plasma membrane (B) Nucleus
(C) Ribosomes (D) Cell wall
Q.29 Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group (CBSE PMT Prelims 2013)
(A) Animalia (B) Monera (C) Plantae (D) Fungi
Q.30 Which of the following is not a free living nitrogen fixing bacterium ? (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Azotabacter (B) Rhizobium (C) Bacillus (D) Rhodospirillum
Q.31 Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water ? (NEET 2013)
(A) Blue-green algae (B) Saprophytic fungi
(C) Archaebacteria (D) Eubacteria
2.58
Q.32 Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in (AIPMT 2014)

(A) Mode of reproduction (B) Cell membrane structure
(C) Mode of nutrition (D) Cell shape
Q.33 Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of (AIPMT 2014)

(A) Ulva (B) Rhodospirillum
(C) Spirogyra (D) Chlamydomonas
Q.34 Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria ? (AIPMT 2014)
(A) Mesosomes (B) Nucleoid (C) Ribosomes (D) Cell wall
Q.35 The unicellular eukaryotic organism were placed in (HP PMT 2012)
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(A) Protista (B) Monera (C) Fungi (D) Animalia
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Q.36 A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the
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time when (CBSE-PMT Mains 2010)
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(A) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
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(B) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
(C) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RCBs ruptures them releasing more parasites
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(D) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs
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Q.37 Isogamy is found in (Chandigarh CET 2010)

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(A) Hydra (B) Monocystis (C) Planaria (D) Plasmodium
Q.38 Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man ? (Karnataka CET 2011)
(A) Gametocyte (B) Merozoite (C) Cryptomerozoite (D) Sporozoite
Q.39 Which of the following does not belong to the kingdom Protista ? (Kerala PMT 2011)
(A) Chrysophytes (B) Euglenoids (C) Ascomycetes (D) Dinoflagellates
2.59
Q.40 Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below.
(CBSE PMT (Prelims) 2011)
Column I (Kingdom) Column II (Class)
a. Plantae 1. Archaebacteria
b. Fungi 2. Euglenoids
c. Protista 3. Phycomycetes
d. Monera 4. Algae
(A) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d - 1 (B) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
(C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1 (D) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1
Q.41 Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite ? (CBSE PMT (Prelims) 2011)
(A) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
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(B) Red blood corpuscles of human suffering from malaria
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(C) Spleen of infected humans
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(D) Salivary glands of freshy moulted female Anopheles mosquito
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Q.42 Which one of the following organisms is not an eukaryote ? (CBSE PMT (Prelims) 2011)
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(A) Paramecium caudatum (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Euglena viridis (D) Amoeba proteus
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Q.43 The mode of asexual reproduction in Euglena is (Chandigarh CET 2011)

(A) Transverse binary fission (B) Longitudinal binary fission
Ed
(C) Multiple fission (D) Irregular binary fission
Q.44 In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
(CBSE Main PMT 2012)
(A) Protista (B) Algae (C) Plantae (D) Monera
Q.45 The beautiful diatoms and desmids are placed under (AMU 2012)
(A) Chrysophytes (B) Dinoflagellates (C) Euglenoids (D) Slims moulds
2.60
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 C Q.2 C Q.3 A Q.4 D Q.5 B Q.6 D
Q.7 C Q.8 D Q.9 A Q.10 B Q.11 C Q.12 D
Q.13 B Q.14 D Q.15 C Q.16 A Q.17 D Q.18 B
Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 A Q.22 B Q.23 A Q.24 A
Q.25 C Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 B Q.30 B
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Q.31 B Q.32 A Q.33 D Q.34 B Q.35 A Q.36 A
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Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 C Q.40 B Q.41 B Q.42 B
Q.43 C
Q.49 D
Q.44 B
Q.50 B
Q.45 D
Q.51 C
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Q.46 B
Q.52 C
n Q.47 D
Q.53 B
Q.48 B
Q.54 B
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Q.55 B Q.56 A Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 A Q.60 C
Q.61 B Q.62 B Q.63 B Q.64 B Q.65 C Q.66 D
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Q.67 B Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 A Q.71 C Q.72 A

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Q.73 B
Ed

Q.1 D Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 D Q.5 D Q.6 A
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 A Q.11 B Q.12 D
Q.13 D Q.14 C Q.15 D Q.16 A Q.17 D Q.18 D
Q.19 D Q.20 D Q.21 B Q.22 C Q.23 D Q.24 A
Q.25 A Q.26 B Q.27 B Q.28 A Q.29 B Q.30 B
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 A Q.35 A Q.36 C
Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 C Q.40 A Q.41 A Q.42 B
Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 A
B
|VOL.I|Unit 1
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Biological Classification -
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Part 2
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3.1
CHAPTER 3
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION -
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PART 2
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
There are several organisms surviving and growing
INTRODUCTION on this planet. All these organisms are classified
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for the ease of their study and knowledge. Bacteria

KINGDOM PROTISTA
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and prokaryotes are the most primitive organisms

KINGDOM FUNGI (MYCOTA) and are thus not completely developed. They are
Ed
LICHENS made of cells which are different from eukaryotes.

They are included in Protista.
VIRUSES Similarly there are fungi and fungal spores. These
organisms are little advanced than the Protists
and thus need another classification kingdom.
The fungi world has various organisms differing in
size, form, colour and even different reproductive
methods.
There are fungi and algae growing together as
symbiont. They are helpful to each other and thus
are growing together.
Viruses are still left without grouped under
any kingdom. Scientist are still working on its
classification as it is non-living as well as living.
3.2

y Relate the different types of fungi to the kingdom Fungi.
y Describe various types of organisms under the Kingdom Protista.
y Distinguish virus as a different class altogether.
2. Kingdom Protista
y Unicellular
y Eukaryotes
y Free living. Exception with few organisms found in colonies
y Intermediate between Monera, plants and animals.
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2.1 General Characteristic of Kingdom Protista
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y Some Protists are colonial and lack higher cellular differentiation. Hence, there is no tissue organization
y
in the members of this kingdom.
Many protists are aquatic organisms in nature.
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y Cell structure is eukaryotic in nature having membrane bound organelles of all the types along with the
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80S cytoplasmic ribosomes.

y Some organisms have cellulosic cell wall.
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y All the protists possess well-defined nucleus with varying number i.e. uninucleate, binucleate,
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multinucleate.
Ed
y Flagella and cilia have microtubule organization consisting of tubulin protein arranged in (9 + 2) pattern.
y Movement of the organisms are by pseudopodia, flagella and cilia where ciliary mode is the fastest
among them giving speed of 2mm/s.
y Mode of nutrition among all the Protists range from photosynthetic (holophytic), holozoic (ingestive),
saprobic to parasitic (absorptive). Some have mixed type of nutrition (photosynthetic and saprobic) like
the one in Euglena.
y Reproduction takes place by both: asexual and sexual methods.
y Life cycle in Protists is of 2 types –major one showing zygotic meiosis and the minor one showing
gametic meiosis.
y The Protists are decomposers, photosynthetic or parasitic in nature. Parasitic protists may cause
diseases like dysentery, malaria, sleeping sickness etc. when encounter a host.
2.2 Photosynthetic Protists

They are also known by the name protistan algae, making the major portion of the phytoplankton.
3.3
2.2.1 Diatoms
Diatoms are photosynthetic Protists that are also called as Chrysophytes (including both diatoms and
desmids). They grow in both aquatic and terrestrial environments.
Their important characters are:
y These are organisms that show diversity in colour having size in micrometers hence called as
microscopic Protists.
y They are generally unicellular, however some diatoms may form pseudo filament and colonies. They
lack flagella in their life except when in the reproductive stage.
y They may be free floating in underwater (phytoplanktonic) or floating on the surface of water when they
have light weight lipids.
y The cells have the covering of cellulosic cell wall that is impregnated with silica to form transparent
siliceous shell, known as frustule. Depending upon the symmetry, diatoms may be pennate type,
having bilateral symmetry (e.g., Navicula) and centric type, having radial symmetry (e.g., Melosira).
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y The cell wall is characteristic, made up of two halves; one half covering the other (epitheca over
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hypotheca) resembling a soap box.
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y The cell wall enclose the peripheral layer of cytoplasm (primordial utricle) surrounding a large central
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vacuole.
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y Nucleus lies in the central vacuole, suspended with the help of cytoplasmic strands.
y Mode of nutrition is holophytic (photoautotrophic), photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll a,
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chlorophyll c, β carotene and special carotenoids containing fucoxanthin; xanthophylls like diatoxanthin,
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diadinoxanthin.
y The reserve food material is in the form of oil and a polysaccharide called leucosin (chrysolaminarin),
Ed
even the cell shows presence of volutin granules.

y As the cells produce oils as food material they contribute almost 50% of the total organic matter and
oils synthesized in the biosphere.
y Movement of diatoms is with the mucilage propulsion.
y The reproduction of diatoms is by asexual method, binary fission being most common mode.
y They reproduce sexually varying from isogamy to oogamy. Diatoms are diploid thus involving gametic
meiosis (diplontic life cycle).
y During binary fission, the parent cell takes the first half of the cell wall and other is secreted afresh.
y Resting spores that have thick covering is formed within the diatoms are called statospores (centric
diatoms).
3.4
DID YOU KNOW

y Silica shells of dead diatoms are so strong that it is indestructible. These shells get
accumulated at the sea bed after their death. After a period of time, large deposits of
hard shells of diatoms resemble huge rock. This rock constitutes the diatomaceous
earth which is whitish powder called diatomite or kieselghur or diatomaceous earth
after the mining of rock. Diatomite is rough and gritty which is the reason it is used
in filtering industry, sugarcane refineries, for making insulating bricks, in polishes
for metals, tooth pastes, houses and for making the latter sound proof, in insulation
of refrigerators, in the manufacture of dynamite, water glass or sodium silicate and
?
strong acids. This is added to paint to increase their night visibility.
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Figure 3.1: Diatoms in microscope
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y They are very good indicators of water pollution. Common examples of diatoms are
Triceratium, Melosira, Navicula, and Cymbella.
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2.2.2 Dinoflagellates
Dinoflagellates are photosynthetic Protists having golden brown colour that belong to the class Dinophyceae
Ed
(Pyrrophyta). They are mainly marine dwellers with few organisms growing in fresh water forms. They show
red yellow, green, brown or blue appearance that occurs due to the pigment present in the cell.
Figure 3.2: Diagrammatic view of Various Dinoflagellates

3.5
General characters of dinoflagellates are as follows

y They are motile, biflagellate showing golden brown photosynthetic Protists (some are non-motile,
amoeboid, palmelloid or filamentous).
y They are mostly marine, and some of them are found in fresh water.
y The body has the rigid coating called the theca or lorica that consists of 2 and above articulated or
sculptured plates of cellulose and pectin, hence are also called armoured dinoflagellates.
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Figure 3.3: Microscopic view of various Dinoflagellates showing their body and shape
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y Theca shows two grooves,the longitudinal one called as sulcus and the other transverse called as
cingulum or annulus or girdle. Each of the grooves contain respective flagellum.
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y There are two flagella in heterokont (different) position, one is longitudinal and the other is transverse
outwards the cell. The flagella are across the pores in the lorica, lying in the grooves of the cell. The
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longitudinal flagellum is narrow, smooth directed posteriorly and the transverse flagellum is ribbon like.
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y Both are oriented at right angle to each other producing spinning movements for the cell. Thus, Protists
are also called as ‘whirling whips’.
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y Most of the species show brown, green or yellow colour as they have chromatophores with chlorophyll a, c,
-carotene, xanthophyll (e.g., Peridinin). Plastids have a 3-membrane envelope that contain 3-thylakoid
lamellae. The species are photosynthetic (Ceratium) while few of them are saprobic or parasitic.
Figure 3.4: Diagrammatic view of Dinoflagellate with the flagella and base
3.6
y Reserve food is in the form of carbohydrate and oils.

y Nucleus is relatively larger in size with condensed chromosomes that lack histone. Nucleus envelop
along with nucleus remain in the cell at all the stages of cell division.
y A non-contractile vacuole called as the pusule occur at the flagellar base. It may contain one or more
vesicle and is involved in flotation and osmoregulation.
y Some dinoflagellates show presence of trichocysts and cnidoblasts similar to the coelenterates.
y Reproduction is asexual taking place through the usual cell division.
y Isogamous and anisogamous sexual reproduction is also observed in some dinoflagellates,
e.g., Ceratium.
y Life cycle of dinoflagellates show zygotic meiosis (Ceratium, Gymnodinium). Gametic meiosis takes
place in Noctiluca.
DID YOU KNOW
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y Some marine dinoflagellates have bioluminescent property i.e., they emit light in
y
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darkness that glows the sea, e.g., Noctiluca, Pyrodinium, Pyrocystis.
Some dinoflagellates like Gonyaulax catenella have the ability to produce a toxin.
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This toxin is called as saxitoxin released into the sea water which is highly poisonous
?
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to aquatic vertebrates. This toxin when enters the food chain, it affects all the levels
from marine shell fish to man causing paralytic shell fish poisoning (PSP) that can
be fatal.
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y Some dinoflagellates proliferate extensively causing red tide of the sea, e.g.,
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Gonyaufax, Gymnodinium.
Ed
y The organization of nucleus being always intact in the cell of the Dinoflagellates is
called as Mesokaryon (Dodge, 1966).
2.2.3 Euglenoid (Euglena-Like)

The group of chlorophyllous and achlorophyllous flagellate Protists. Largest genera being Euglena amongst
them.
General characteristics of Euglenoid
y Flagellate Protists found in aquatic region (fresh water organisms found in stagnant water) or damp soil.
y Body has spindle shape, blunt at the anterior part and pointed at the posterior end
y Cell wall is absent however the cell is covered by proteinaceous periplast or pellicle.
y Flagella causes locomotion.
3.7
y The cell bears pair of flagella arising at the anterior end. One of these is long tinsel type flagellum
(stichonematic) and the other is reduced. The longer flagellum branches at the base in two that its own
basal granule. The union of two flagella contains a photosensitive paraflagellar body.
y Euglenoids carry out creeping movement of contraction and expansion with the help of myonemes
(strips in pellicle) which is called metaboly or Euglenoid movement.
y The apical end consists of an invagination having three distinct parts, i.e., mouth (cytostome), canal
(gullet or cytopharynx) and reservoir. These help to take up the solid food particles.
y Stigma or an eye spot is present at the base of paraflagellar body attached to the membrane. The eye
is assumed to be perceptive for light stimulus. It has photosensitive red-orange pigment which is called
as the astaxanthin.
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Figure 3.5: Diagrammatic view of Euglenoid viridis
y A contractive vacuole occurs in the anterior end of the cell just below the reservoir, meant for
osmoregulation and exception.
y Single large nucleus is approximately at the center of the protoplast.
y Nutrition in Euglena viridis is photoautotrophic. However, when light is insufficient, it takes nourishment
from dead and decaying organic matter present in the substrate as it can secrete digestive enzymes
(saprophytic nutrition). This nutrition dual mode is termed as mixotrophic. Holozoic nutrition is absent
in Euglena however some forms are holozoic (Paranema) or saprobic (Rhabdomonas).
y Photosynthetic pigments in the cell are chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, xanthophyll and β-carotene giving
it the colour.
3.8
y Reserve food material is called as paramylon. These paramylum granules are stored in cytoplasm.
They are chemically β -1, 3-glucans.
y Longitudinal binary fission is the reproduction mode under favourable conditions. During unfavourable
conditions, palmella stage cysts are produced by the cells for perennation. e.g., Euglena and Paranema.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Euglena is protist that is producer and decomposer.
y It is has characters of both plant and animal, thus is called as plant-animal.
y Characters of Euglena similar to plant:
Presence of chloroplast, the photosynthetic pigment.
Holophytic nutrition.
y Animal character of Euglena:
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Absence of cell wall.
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Presence of proteinaceous pellicle.
Has contractile vacuole.

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Contains stigma and paraflagellar body.
Reproduces by longitudinal binary fission.

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2.3 Slime Molds or Consumer-Decomposer Protists

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They were initially included in the class myxomycetes in the class fungi in the two-kingdom classification
system of Plantae and Animalia. They were called as mycetozoa as they closely resemble animals, by
Ed
DeBary. Slime molds are included in gymnomycota by Mycologists. As they are similar to fungi, they are
called as Protistan fungi.
y They are free-living, similar to creeping over debris on fallen leaves and rotting woody logs.
y They lack cell wall and have a naked protoplast in vegetative stage of life cycle.
y They lack chlorophyll, thus have saprobic or phagotrophic nutrition mode.
y They are amoeboid and lack cellulosic wall during the life cycle, but spores show cellulosic wall. Their
vegetative phase is similar with animals while reproductive phase is similar with plants.
y They have protozoa like amoeboid plasmodial stage and fungi like in spore formation.
y Spores are extremely strong and resistant to adverse conditions. They survive for many years and get
dispersed by air currents.
y Reproduction is by both asexual and sexual methods.
3.9
y This group is represented by two separate types of organisms i.e. acellular and cellular.
2.3.1 Acellular or Plasmodial Slime Molds
General Characters
y Slimy mass that are found on decaying leaves and lumber are the acellular molds.
y Somatic body of the mold is free living, multinucleate, naked (no cell wall), diploid chromosome called
as the Plasmodium.
y Pseudopodia causes movement.
y Plasmodium forms several fructifications or fruiting bodies called as the sporocarp.It contains a stalk
which has a sporangium at the end. The wall of sporangium is called peridium.
y Sporangium shows an intricate network of cytoplasmic threads called capillitium.
y Diploid protoplast on meiotic division forms haploid spores.
y Spore wall is double layered, with spiny and sculptured outer wall.
y Spores produce biflagellate swarm cells called as non-motile myxamoebae on germination, which acts
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as gametes.
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y The sexual reproduction is in the isogamous type.
divisions of the diploid cellular nucleus.

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y Diploid zygote directly produces the plasmodium that becomes multinucleate after repeated mitotic
y Saprotrophic is the mode of nutrition.

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y Vegetative reproduction is common by fission.

For e.g., Physarum, Physarella, Fuligo, Dictydium, Lycogala are the acellular slime molds.
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Figure 3.6: Sequential phases of reproduction of acellular slime mold

3.10
2.3.2 Cellular Slime Molds or Communal Slime Molds

General Character
y They lack cell wall, however spores show presence of cellulosic wall, are uninucleate and myxamoebae
is present. They do not have flagellated cells during whole life cycle.
y The chemotactic movement of myxamoebae after the formation of pseudoplasmodium stage is due to
the secretion of cAMP and acrasin.
y Sporangia are naked.
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Figure 3.7: Sequential phases of reproduction of cellular slime mold
y Dictyostelium, is a common cellular slime mold, colonial in form which have hundreds of uninucleate,
haploid amoeboid cells in aggregated form in a colony. The colonial mass of protoplasm shows the
presence of single multinucleate called as the pseudoplasmodium.
y When the food supply is exhaustive and cells get stimulated by cAMP and chemical acrasin, they come
close by chemotactic movement during the formation of pseudoplasmodium. Pseudoplasmodium has
primitive multicellularity form and division of labour. Hence the name given communal slime molds. On
these basis cellular slime moulds are considered as advanced Protists and primitive fungi.
y The myxamoebae form a cyst called microcyst for perennation and dispersal under unfavourable
conditions.
3.11
y Pseudoplasmodium produces stalked sporocarp under dry conditions, which can be branched or
unbranched. Each branch bears a single sporangium at the terminalend (monocentric). Sporangium
does not have any cell wall.
y Within the sporangium, amoeboid cells acquire roundshape in order to secrete a spore wall around
itself. When it encounters favourable conditions, spores are liberated free.
y Each spore germinates after the rupture of cellulosic wall to form myxamoebae. This myxamoebae is able
to live independently, multiply with repeated mitotic divisions or aggregate to form pseudoplasmodium.
y Sexual reproduction is anisogamous type. A clump is formed from number of myxamoebae during
sexual reproduction. One of the myxamoebae formed becomes larger enough to engulf the surrounding
smaller myxamoebae.
y Then plasmogamy occurs.The fused protoplast produces a thick wall that forms a macrocyst. In the
macrocyst, zygote is formed after karyogamy. It is followed by meiosis and several mitotic divisions to
form a large number of haploid myxamoebae, which are released by rupture of macrocyst wall.
e.g., Dictyostelium, Polysphondylium
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TRY IT YOURSELF
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1. Select correct statement
(A) Some Protists are colonial without much cellular differentiation.
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(B) Pyrrophytes are exclusively marine forms.

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(C) Lorica or theca is absent in endozoic dinoflagellates.

(D) Primordial utricle is present around a large central vacuole in diatoms.
Ed
(E) In Euglena, paramylon as reserve food material is stored in chloroplast.

2. Fill in the blanks
(A) Pennate diatoms have ______ symmetry.
(B) Resting spores in centric diatoms are called ______.
(C) A non-contractile vacuole called ____ is present neat flagellar base in
dinoflagellates.
(D) Vegetative stage of slime moulds resembles with ____ due to absence of cell wall.
(E) Euglena does show ___ nutrition.
3. What is the type of meiosis in acellular slime molds respectively?
3.12
3. Kingdom Fungi (Mycota)

y Multicellular(except Yeast and Synchytrium).
y Decomposers (absorptive)
y Spore forming
y Eukaryotes
The study of fungi and its characteristics are called as mycology.
DID YOU KNOW

? Pier Antonio Michele is considered as “father or mycology”. Mycologist H.A. DeBary is
the “father of modern mycology”. The father of Indian mycology is E. J. Butler.
.i n
3.1 General Characters of Fungi
y
y
Found in air, water, soil, on animals and plants.
Omnipresent in various conditions.
n al
y Mostly terrestrial.
ur
y Love to grow in warm and humid places. Also they may grow on wood, burnt wood, tree bark, and
keratinous material (e.g., hair, horns), are thus called as corticolous (bark), coprophilous (cow dung),
o
epixylic (wood), xylophilous (burnt wood) and keratinophilous (keratin) respectively.

uj
y The body is haploid (n) and thalloid, lacking proper root, stem and leaves. The fungal body shows
thread like elongated tubular structures which is called as hyphae. These hyphae are in cris-cross
Ed
pattern forming a network called as a mycelium.

y The hyphae show aseptate and multinucleate pattern termed as the coenocytic. The mycelium is septate
in maximum species. The septum shows presence of a pore which is continuous to the cytoplasm of
the adjacent cells.
y The septum either has a simple central pore as in ascomycetes ordolipore septum in higher fungi (class
basidiomycetes). Also presence of a single nucleus (monokaryotic-feature of primary mycelium) or an
intermediate phase of two nuclei (dikaryotic-feature of secondary mycelium) in the cell.
y The cell wall is made up of chitin or fungal cellulose (acetyl glucosamine) in the hyphae. Some fungi
have the cellulosic cell wall (e.g., Phytophthora, Pythia and other oomycetes).
y Oil and glycogen is the reserve food material.
y Cells contain unicisternal Golgi bodies and not the usual one.
y Mitosis in somatic cells is Karyochorisis type (mitosis with intranuclear spindle formation).
y Heterotrophic and absorptive nutrition mode which involves saprophytes, parasites and symbionts
pattern.
3.13
y The fungi have two distinct phases in their life cycle: the vegetative or assimilative phase and the
reductive phase.
y During vegetative phase, the fungus acquires microscopic size attached to the substratum. The fungus
in the vegetative phase attains maturity then enters the reproductive phase.
y In unicellular yeasts, the cell functions in both the assimilative and reproductive phases.
y The fungal bodies gets transformed into reproductive cells, they are then known as holocarpic.
y Fungal body is known as eucarpic when a part of the mycelium is involved in the developing process
of reproductive structures.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Modification of Mycelium
y Plectenchyma: Hyphae of a mycelium develop together in the form of plates and intertwine
n
one another to assemble a thick woven thread, it is called plectenchyma. Plectenchyma
has:
.i
Prosenchyma: Hyphae are loosely interwoven, are parallel to each other and are
al
recognizable.
n
Pseudoparenchyma: Hyphae have compact arrangement, have lost their usual appearance
and gained isodiametric shape, is continuous. This is similar to the parenchyma of higher
ur
plants.
y Sclerotia (Singular Sclerotium): Claviceps have the mycelium that may be in dormant
o
or resting stage with the formation of hard resting bodies that is resistant to unfavorable
uj
conditions. Each sclerotium is made up of central prosenchymatous from a pigmented

hyphae ring.
Ed
y Rhizomorph: Hyphae aggregate together under the surface and form an organized unit
similar to a root like strand having thick hard cortex. It shows a tip similar to a root tip,
e.g., Agaricus.
y Appresorium: Hyphae show terminal swollen structure similar to that of a germ tube to
help in the attachment and penetration.
y Haustoria: Hyphae have terminal swollen structure to absorb the food, e.g., Albugo.
y Snares/hyphal traps: Hyphae helps to catch nematodes in predaceous fungi,
e.g., Arthrobotrys and Dactylaria.
3.14
3.2 Reproduction in Fungi

Fungi can reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.
3.2.1 Vegetative Reproduction
O Fragmentation: The mycelium gets an injury or decay and the cell is broken into two or more
fragments. Each fragment has the ability to develop into independent mycelium.
O Fission: Vegetative cells simply split by simple constriction into two daughter.
O Budding: Yeast have small outgrowths emerging from their vegetative body, called as buds. These
buds mature into new individuals after they are separated from parent cell.
3.2.2 Asexual Reproduction
Spores bring about the reproduction. Spores have single cell that are specialized structures, get detached from
the cell, disperse and germinate under favourable conditions to produce new mycelium. The spores are a result
of mitotic division, thus termed as mitospores. The various means of asexual reproduction are as follows:
n
(i) Zoospore: Aquatic fungi produce such spores.
.i
O It can be uniflagellate, e.g., Synchytrium or biflagellate, e.g., Saprolegnia, Pythium
O They germinate to give rise to new mycelium.

n al
O Naked uninucleate structures are formed in zoosporangia.
O Biflagellate zoospores are of two kinds (e.g., Saprolegnia) pear shaped or pyriform with 2 flagella placed
ur
at anterior end (primary zoospore) and kidney shaped or bean shaped, bearing two laterally inserted
flagella (secondary zoospore). This phenomenon of having two types of zoospores is called diplanetism.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 3.8: Diagrammatic view of various spores. A. Zoospore,

B. Sporangium, C. Sporangiospore, D. Oidia, E. Chlamydospore and F. Condia
3.15
(ii) Sporangiospores: Sporangiospores are thin walled non-motile

O Endogenous spores formed in a sporangium during unfavourable conditions liberate and give rise to
a new mycelium, e.g., Rhizopus, Mucor.
.i n
Figure 3.9: Diagrammatic view of: Sporangium, and Sporangiospore
n al
(iii) Conidia: Non motile, thin walled exogenous spores.
ur
O It is produced in the erect hyphae tips called conidiophore.

O Spores have chain arrangement upon the conidiophore, e.g., Aspergillus and Penicillium.
o
(iv) Chlamydospore: Thick walled resistant spores getting separated from each other.
uj
O Terminal or intercalary spores in a cell.

Ed
O They have viability for several years.

O In favourable conditions new individuals germinate out.
O Thus, chlamydospores are structures for perennation also, e.g., Rhizopus.
(v) Oidia: Non-motile, thin walled spores.
O Develop when in excessive sugar in the medium. Their budding conditions is termed as the torula stage.
3.2.3 Sexual reproduction

Sexual reproduction takes place with the help of two fusing gametes. It includes 3 stages:
(i) Plasmogamy: Union of the two haploid protoplasts.
O The fusing nuclei of different parents thus comes close.
O In some fungi, karyogamy occurs just after plasmogamy.
O However, Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes have an intermediate step where dikaryotic (n + n)
condition takes place, the phase is called as dikaryophase.
3.16
(ii) Karyogamy: Two haploid nuclei fuse to form diploid zygote after their fusion.
y Meiosis: Zygote involves reduction division to divide the number of chromosomes to half.
Plasmogamy occurs by the following methods:
y Planogametic copulation/Gametic fusion: The simplest form in sexual reproduction.
ο Fusion of two opposite sex or strains gamete occurs.
ο Fusing gamete or both of them are motile.
ο Production of a diploid zygote, e.g., Allomyces.
ο Different modes of plasmogamy in fungi
ο This process is usually of three types: Isogamy, Anisogamy, and Oogamy.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.10: Diagrammatic view of various phases in mating in Plasmogamy.

A. Planogametic copulation, B. Gametangial contact, C. Gametangial copulation
y Gametangial contact: Two gametangia come close in contact.
ο The migration of complete male gametangium into the female gametangium is facilitated on
development of a fertilisation tube.
ο Both the gametangia remain intact with their identity, e.g., Pythium, Albugo (Oomycetes).
3.17
y Gametangial copulation: Direct fusion of the two gametangia completely occurs.

ο It is due to the dissolution of their common walls forming a single cell.
ο The protoplasts of two gametangia fuse in the cell, e.g., Mucor, Rhizopus (Zygomycetes).
y Spermatisation:
ο Minute, spore like, single-celled structures are formed by few fungi called as the spermatia
(non-motile male gametes) on spermatiophores (hyphae).
ο These spores are transferred through vectors to special female receptive hyphae (Basidiomycetes).
ο The contents enter into the receptive structure causing a dikaryotic condition, e.g., Puccinia.
(iii) Somatogamy: Most of the higher true fungi have this step.
y The formation of gametes does not occur.
y In such fungi, direct fusion of somatic hyphal cells occur to establish dikaryophase, e.g., Agaricus.
n
3.3 Classification of Fungi
.i
al
There are various classifying systems for fungi. The major reasons for separation in this kingdom are
Morphology of mycelium, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies. The detailed description of the
n
classes is as follows:
ur
y Oomycetes
y Zygomycetes
o
y Ascomycetes
uj
y Basidiomycetes
y Deuteromycetes
Ed
3.3.1 Class Oomycetes

Table 3.1: Characteristics of Class Oomycetes
Common name Algal fungi
Mycelium type Coenocytic (multinucleate and aseptate)
Cell wall made of Cellulose and other glucans
Habitat Aquatic, on decaying wood, moist and damp areas.
Asexual reproduction Sporangia produce zoospores in water.
Sexual reproduction planogametic fusion or gametangial contact oospore
Examples Albugo candida, Pythium debaryanum
y Zoospores contain a pair of lateral flagella in the heterokont condition. One flagellum is smooth
(whiplash) while the other is of tinsel type (having fine surface outgrowths called mastigonemes).
3.18
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 3.2: List of Diseases Caused by the Fungi
Organism Name Disease Caused
Late blight of potato and even sometimes of tomato.
Phytophthora infestens Late blight of potato was the reason for Great Irish
famine of 1845-1847.
Damping off disease in the seedlings of tomato,
Pythium debaryanum
chilies, castor, and mustard.
White rust of crucifers (have appearance of white
Albugo candida (Cystopus candidus) blisters in irregular shape on the surface of leaves and
stems).
Downy mildew in cereals. Pennisetum typhoides
n
Sclerospora graminicola
(Bajra) gets the green ear disease.
.i
Downy mildew among a range of plants, such as pea,
Peronospora parasitica
Saprolegnia
n al
mustard, spinach, onion etc.
Salmon disease of gills in fishes
ur
3.3.2 Class Zygomycetes

o
Table 3.3: Characteristics of class Zygomycetes

uj
Common name Conjugation fungi

Ed
Mycelium type Coenocytic (multinucleate and aseptate)

Cell wall made of Cellulose and chitin
Habitat Terrestrial
Sexual reproduction Gametangial copulation or conjugation coenogametes
Examples Albugo candida, Pythium debaryanum
y Mostly saprotrophic and rarely parasitic.

y Motile cells (zoospores or planogametes) are absent.
y Mitospores are also non-motile. The spores are formed inside the sporangia present at the tips of
special hyphae called sporangiophores. Spores are called sporangiospores.
y Zygospore, a diploid spore is formed in the sexual reproduction. Thus the class is called as zygomycetes.
y Zygospore is the meiosis site and does not give rise to new mycelium directly. Instead it produces a
new sporangium called germ sporangium. Germ sporangium forms meiospores called germ spores.
3.19
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Some of the common diseases caused by the class
y Rhizopus stolonifer (= R. nigricans) is popularly commonly called as black bread mould as
it decays the bread.
y M. mucedo is called as the dung mold or pin mold.
y Rhizopus and Mucor species are the common saprotrophic fungi which attack many food
stuffs. Rhizopus causes soft rot or leek disease of strawberry, apple, jack fruit, sweet
potato etc. Mucor pusillus causes infection of internal organs in human beings.
y Absidia corymbifera causes bronchomycosis.
Ramysin (antibiotic) is produced by the fungi Mucor ramannianus.
.i n
Life cycle of Rhizopus
Rhizopus is a al
y Saprophytic fungus feeding on dead organic matter to absorb carbohydrates.
n
y Mycelium consists of white narrow thread like hyphae spread on the surface of substratum.
ur
y Four types of hyphae: Two vegetative hypha: Rhizoidal and Stoloniferous arises from hold fast/apparent
nodes. Third is asexual in nature, called as the Sporangiophores and fourth type is sexual hypha called
o
as the zygophore.
uj
y The absorptive hyphae penetrate the substratum to take up nutrients, are called as the rhizoidal hyphae.
The hyphae are in the stolon form that have appeared on the surface of substratum. Branched rhizoidal
Ed
hyphae arise from stolon nodes that are under the surface. A group of aerial structures arise from
hyphae that are called as sporangiophore (asexual hypha). The apical portion of each sporangiophore
has a swollen structure having spores at the end which is called as sporangium.
ο The hyphae in Rhizopus are coenocytic, aseptate and branched having several nuclei, oil drops,
glycogen bodies and vacuoles in its cytoplasm.
ο The reproduction mode in Rhizopus are vegetative, asexual and sexual.
Vegetative reproduction: Fragmentation of hyphae takes place.
Asexual reproduction: Asexual reproduction takes place after the formation of non-motile spores inside
the sporangium.
ο The tip of aerial hypha has cytoplasm that migrates with nuclei swells.
ο The swollen tip contains nuclei that divide repeatedly.
ο The contents of the young swollen tip differentiate into a central zone called columellaplasm mainly
filled with vacuolated cytoplasm surrounded by a peripheral zone called sporangioplasm containing
dense cytoplasm and many nuclei.
3.20
y Vacuoles ultimately form a continuous vacuolated layer by fusing laterally one after the other and
ultimately develop into a dome shaped septum known as columella (sterile part).
y In the meantime, cleavage of sporangioplasm take place resulting into innumerable, small 2-10 nucleate
portions which round up, become invested with spore membranes, and develop into nonflagellate
spores, the sporangiospores.
y These are formed under most favourable conditions.
y Thus, the sporangium is large, globose and contains many spores. Spores are dispersed by bursting
of the thin wall of the sporangium due to pressure that is set up in the columella.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.11: Diagrammatic view of various phases in mating in Sporangiospore formation
y Other two asexual spores are Oidia and chlamydospores (formed under unfavourable conditions). The
spores on germination produce a germ tube giving rise to new mycelium.
Sexual Reproduction: Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus takes place by the formation of two multinucleate
gametangia.
y Both the gametangia have differences in physiological factors i.e., they are of (+) and (-) type. This
gametangia difference is called heterothallism (This was discovered by Blakesies in Rhizopus stolonifer).
Another species of Rhizopus has similar gametangia sexually and thus is a homothallic species.
y The (+) gametangia is behaving as male and (-) gametangia is behaving as female. Both of them
come close in presence of a chemical called trisporic acid. This chemical stimulates the formation of
special sub-aerial hypha called zygophores. This hypha produces small outgrowths which is called as
progametangia.
3.21
y Their apical ends are filled with multinucleate protoplasm and are thus swollen.
y The apical portion of these progametangia come closer and form gametangium.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 3.12: Diagrammatic view of various phases in spore formation in Rhizopus

o
uj
y The progametangia is now left with small part and is called as the suspensor.
Ed
y The multinucleate undifferentiated protoplast present in the gametangium is termed as coenogamete.

y Gametangia mature, the separating wall dissolves in outward way from the middle.
y Two gametangia share their contents (Gametangial copulation).
y Nuclear pairs and fusion of one (+) and another (-) nuclei takes place. This fusion produces several
diploid nuclei.
y The young zygospore present in the parent gametangial wall enlarges.
y It then secretes numerous thick wall layers (5 layered, 2 layered exosporium and 3 layered endosporium)
around it.
y Zygospore breaks up the gametangial wall into small pieces on maturation. These small pieces then
fall apart and expose the outer thick, spiny and black exosporium.
3.22
Figure 3.13: Diagrammatic view of various phases in formation of zygospore.

A. Zygophore, B. Progametangia, C. Conjugation, D. Zygospore formed,
n
E. Zygospore and F. Mature zygospore
.i
y
y
al
Meiosis occurs at the time of germination of zygospore. The zygote after resting phase germinate.
The exosporium cracks and endosporium produce a germ sporangiophore (promycelium) that terminally
n
develops a germ sporangium (zygosporangium) which bears large number of spores.
ur
y The meiosis produce 4 haploid nuclei where only one remain functional. This divides repeatedly to
produce coenocytic mycelium with many haploid nuclei.
o
y Occasionally, failure of gametangial copulation results is parthenogenetic development of zygospore,

uj
which are called azygospores (parthenospores).

Ed
3.3.3 Ascomycetes: The Sac Fungi

Table 3.4: Characteristics of Class Ascomycetes
Common name Sac fungi
Mycelium type Septate hyphae
Cell wall made of Chitin
Habitat Terrestrial
Sexual reproduction Gametangial copulation or conjugation coenogametes
Examples Pyronema, Peziza
y The nutrition mode is saprophytic, decomposing, parasitic or coprophilous (growing on dung).

y The septa have central pores to communicate and transport nutrients among nearby cells called as the
septal pores.
3.23
y Motile structures are not present in the life cycle.

y In majority of the ascomycetes, conidia is the common mode of asexual reproduction. Conidia are
produced and stored on branched or unbranched hyphae called conidophores, e.g., Penicillium,
Aspergillus.
y Female sex organ is present which is called as ascogonium.
y Plasmogamy occurs by means of-
ο Gametangial contact (e.g., Pyronema), Conjugation (e.g., Yeast), Spermatisation
(e.g., Ascobolus), Somatogamy (e.g., Peziza) and Autogamy (e.g., Morchella).
y Karyogamy and plasmogamy have an intermediate phase of dikaryophase. The cells of dikaryophase
are called as dikaryotic cells that have two different nuclei. This is a shorter phase of the life cycle as
compared to others.
y A dikaryotic cell transfers the nucleus to other cells with the crozier method (method of dikaryotisation)
in order to make them dikaryotic.
n
y Some dikaryotic cells function as ascus mother cells to convert them into asci (singular - ascus). Ascus
.i
is a sporangial sac which is specific to Ascomycetes. Ascus is where karyogamy and meiosis occurs.
4 to 8 haploid ascospores are endogenously produced in the ascus. The ascospores produced belong
al
to both the mating type equally: 50% to one mating type (+) and 50% to the second mating type (-).
n
y Ascospores may have linear or improper arrangement.
ur
y The asci may occur freely or get aggregated into specific fructifications called ascocarps. Ascocarps
are: cup like (apothecium, e.g, Peziza), flask-shaped (perithecium, e.g., Neurospora, Claviceps),
o
elongated with a slit (hysterothecium), closed (cleistothecium, e.g., Penicillium) cushion, like chambered
(ascostroma, e.g., Pleospora). The fructification of some ascomycetes is used as food, e.g., morels,
uj
truffles.
Ed
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Give one word for aggregated mass of fungal hyphae into root like strand with thick
hard cortex.
2. Which of the following members are related with Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes or
Basidiomycetes?
(a) Penicillium (b) Synchytrium (c) Mucor
(d) Albugo (e) Agaricus (f) Saccharomyces
(g) Phytophthora (h) Saprolegnia (i) Rhizopus
3.24
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Economic importance of the Fungi:
y Morels: Ascomycete member having edible ascocarps. They are fleshy sponge-
like conical cap called as pileus held with a stalk like stipe, e.g., Morchella esculenta
(verm. Guchhi). M. Deliciosia.
y Truffles: Subterranean ascocarps are tuber like edible fungi, e.g. Tuber aestivum.
y Claviceps purpurea infects mustard causing ergot of rye and C. microcephalais
responsible for ergot in Bajra. The ears are filled with Sclerotia of the fungus. Consuming
the infected cereals initiates the production of ergotism in the body. (It produces an alkaloid
called as the ergotine that results in abortion. This is used as a drug to promote expulsion
of foetus).
y Neurospora crassa (Pink bread mould), is common in experimental genetics, thus it is
n
called as the Drosophila of plant kingdom.
.i
y Erysiphe: The fungus produces powdery mildew (fungal disease in which pathogen results
al
in a powdery coating of spores on the surface of the host), e.g., Erysiphe graminicola.
y Penicillium chrysogenum is used in commercial production of the antibiotic penicillin.
n
The later was the first commercial antibiotic. It was discovered from P. notatum. The
ur
fungus is employed in ripening of cheese, e.g., P. roqueforti and P. comemberti.
y Aspergillus: The common green smoky mould affecting all the laboratory work by
o
contaminating other laboratory cultures (hence called weed of laboratory) and also infecting
uj
various food stuffs including bread, butter etc. Aspergillus flavus is highly poisonous as it
produces aflatoxins. A. oryzae produces diastase enzyme causing ear and lung diseases
Ed
in humans.
y Brewing Industry: Yeasts use sugar as their energy source and convert it into ethanol
which is edible alcohol. Under anaerobic conditions, sugary solution are inoculated with
specific strains of yeasts e.g., beer, wine, cider, toddy. The two common yeasts used for
alcohol production in brewing industry are Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Beer or Baker’s
yeast) and S. ellipsoidens (Wine yeast)
y Gibberellins: The natural plant growth hormone first discovered in the extracts of fungi
Gibberella fujikuroi that grew on rice (bakanae disease of rice).
Life Cycle events of Yeast and Penicillium are described below:

(i) Yeast
y Non-mycelial or else pseudomycelial ascomycetes.
y Reproduce asexually
3.25
y Asci are not developed into ascocarps.

y Facultative aerobes.
y Yeasts are classified on their mode of asexual reproduction, as follows – budding yeast
(e.g. Saccharomyces), fission yeast (e.g., Schizosaccharomyces) and helobial yeast (both budding
and fission, e.g. Saccharomycoides).
y Yeasts having ascus formation are named as true yeasts.
y Yeasts that lack ascus formation are called as false yeasts, e.g., Candida, Mycoderma, Geotrichum,
and Cryptococcus (false yeasts belong to Deuteromycetes).
Life Cycle of Yeasts

A saprophytic fungus growing on substratum which has high sugar amounts, e.g. sugarcane juice, fruits
(banana, plum, grapes), milk etc.
Structure
n
y Circular or elliptical, colourless fungi, unicellular, lacks typical mycelium.
.i
y Cell wall is made of mannans, glucans, lipids, proteins and chitin.
al
y Protoplasm has two distinct regions. Outer region is called as ectoplasm in the form of a thin layer and
n
inner region is called as endoplasm which is granular.
ur
y The protoplasm contains stored food as glycogen bodies, volutin granules and fats.
y Mitochondria and ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 3.14: Diagrammatic view of Yeast cell

3.26
Vegetative Reproduction: Yeast reproduces vegetatively either by fission or by budding. Depending on this
character, they are grouped as fission yeast (Schizosaccharomyces) and budding yeast (Saccharomyces)
a. By Fission
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 3.15: Phases of yeast cell reproduction

o
uj
b. By Budding: Commonly Found in Yeasts

Ed
Figure 3.16: Phases of bud formation in yeast reproduction

3.27
When yeasts multiply rapidly, the daughter cell starts budding even when it is attached to the mother cell.
This can be a continuous process producing several chains of yeast cells. Branched or unbranched pseudo
mycelium is produced. The cells are in loose contact in chains of pseudo mycelium. The chains break to
form individual cells.
Sexual Reproduction: Union of two similar sized chromosome occurs. The pair of cells involved may be
vegetative or ascospores. Yeasts can be homothallic or heterothallic. The fusing stages are different.
a. Haplontic Life Cycle: This is exhibited by homothallic Schizosaccharomyces octosporus (fission
yeast). In this type of life cycle, haploid stage (haplophase) is larger than the diploid stage
(diplophase).
Events at sexual reproduction:
y Two cells come close to make a contact.
y The point of contact in conjugating cell shows a beak-like protuberance developing.
y Nuclei migrate through a continuous passage which is developed from the intervening walls of cells at
n
the point of contact.
.i
y Karyogamy occurs to form the zygote.
y The ascus is a result of zygote development.
n al
y The diploid zygotic nucleus divides several times. It forms eight haploid nuclei from the first meiotic
division and then mitotic division.
ur
y Ascospore develops from each nucleus with cytoplasm, giving eight ascospores.
o
y The ascospores break down to liberate ascus that are somatic cells.
uj
Ed
Figure 3.17: Phases of yeast cell reproduction asexual and sexual

3.28
Diplontic Life Cycle: This is observed in Saccharomycoides ludwigii (Helobial yeast).

y The diploid somatic stage is longer than the shorter haploid stage.
y The diploid somatic cells produce buds that enlarge to form asci.
y The diploid nucleus forms two diploid cells after meiotic division.
y Each diploid cell is germinated from a germ tube and forms a tube.
y This is pushed out through the ascus wall.
y This tubular structure forms bud from the diploid cells.
y Thus, ascospores represent the haploid stage
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.18: Phases of yeast cell reproduction in diplointic cycle
Diplohaplontic Life Cycle – Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Budding yeast) reproduces by this method.
y Both haploid and diploid phases occur and alter the generations.
y A diploid cell is formed from two haploid cells by copulation.
y The diploid cells enlarge the population by budding.
y Each diploid cell acts as an ascus that has four ascospores.
y The ascospores from ascus are liberated free and multiply by budding to produce haploid cells.
3.29
y The diploid stage and the haploid stage occur in the yeasts in alternate cyclic order.
y The haploid or diploid vegetative cells reproduce asexually with budding.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.19: Phases of Yeast cell reproduction in haplodiplontic cycle
DID YOU KNOW

Yeasts also multiply
?
a. Adephogamy: The two adjoining daughter cells copulate (mate sexually). This is
an isogamous process. The fusion cells remain united and form short chains.
b. Pedogamy: The copulation between mother and the daughter cell formed after
budding. The daughter is in contact with the mother while the nucleus of the bud
travels into the mother cell.
3.30
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 3.5: Uses of Yeasts in Industries
Saccharomyces cerevisiae Brewer’s/Beer or Baker’s yeast
S.ellipsoidens Wine yeast
Torulopsis utilis and Endomyces vermalis Proteins content is higher
Rhodotorula High vitamin
Ashbya gossypii Rich in vitamin B2
Yeasts Curing cocoa beans
Table 3.6: Some Diseases caused by Yeasts

Candidiasis/moniliasis Candida albicans
Blastomycosis Blastomyces dermamtidis
n
Histoplasmosis Histoplasma capsulatus
.i
Cryptococcosis Cryptococcus neoformans
al
Some yeasts reduce the yield of silk industry by attacking silkworms.
n
Species of Nematospora attack cotton, tomato and beans
ur
Penicillium
o
Specific to this fungi

uj
y Facultative parasite and saprophytic fungi.

y Branched septate myceliumhaving simple septal pore.
Ed
y Cell can be uninucleate or multinucleate in the species.

y Conidia forms to reproduce asexually. Conidiophores produced are branched. Rami is the first branch
level and metulae is the second or ultimate branch possessing bottle shaped sterigmata. Sterigmata
produce chain of conidia which have basipetal order. Conidium is uninucleate, non-motile, double
layered, spread by air that germinates to produce new mycelium.
y Sexual reproduction: Fungi consists of dikaryophase and forms ascocarp. The ascocarp has cleistothecium
pattern. Each ascus produces eight ascospores that germinates and produces new mycelium.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Penicillium is multicellular and saprophytic fungi (True/False)
2. Select the correct sequence of sexual reproduction events in sac fungi w.r.t. Penicillium.
(A) Meiosis (B) Dikaryophase (C) Development of sex organs
(D) Plasmogamy (E) Karyogamy (F) Ascospore.
3.31
3.3.4 Basidiomycetes
Table 3.7: Characteristics of Class Basidiomycetes
Common name Club fungi
Mycelium type Primary with oidia and secondary with septate hyphae
Cell wall made of Chitin
Habitat Terrestrial
Sexual reproduction Basidiospores and monokaryotic spores
Examples Mushrooms, toadstools, puff balls, bracket fungi etc.
y Basidiomycetes have the best decomposing ability and enzymes for wood (cellulose and lignin).
y Lignin is a sugar that is undigested by many fungi and even bacteria. Ganoderma species decay wood
n
when it is on standing trees.
y Motile structures or cells are lacking. Mycelia are primary and secondary. Primary mycelium is made
.i
of monokaryotic cells which has short life. Secondary mycelium is dominant phase with long life, called
y
as dikaryophase. It contains branched septate hyphae. al
Monokaryotic phase divide oidia, conidia-like spores and pycniospores.
n
y Septa possess dolipores or central pores that has outgrowths in barrel-shape (except rusts and smuts).
ur
y Secondary mycelium is sclerotia or rhizomorph that has penetrating ability in the soil or wood.
y Dikaryophase or secondary mycelium form different types of spores for their division– Chlamydospore,
o
aeciospores, uredospores, teleutospores etc.

uj
y There are two mating types (+) and (-) in thallus. Sexual reproduction is without sex organs. Fusion
occurs either between basidiospores and other monokaryotic spores, between a spore or spermatium
Ed
and a hypha or between two hyphal cells of primary mycelia. Karyogamy and meiosis takes place in a
club-shaped structure called as basidia (singular – basidium) which gives the class its name.
y A basidium contains four exogenous meiospores or basidiospores located at the tips of fine outgrowths
called sterigmata or directly on the surface of basidium.
y The fungi may contain fructifications called basidiocarps which may vary from microscopic size to large
macroscopic structures. Some fungi may have 50 cm diameter of the fruit body.
Figure 3.20: Phases of fungus reproduction and hyphae growth

3.32
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Examples of Fungi
Smuts: Smut spores are resting thick-walled, black-colored spores unique to smuts. Smuts
are covered and loose. The sorus contains the spore mass in the membrane of the covered
smuts, e.g., Ustilago hordei (covered smut of barley), Ustilago maydis (smut of corn). The
spores are exposed while remain attached to the host in loose smut, e.g., Ustilago nuda tritici
(loose smut of wheat), U. avenae (loose smut of oat).
Mushrooms: Around 30 000 species of mushrooms are found that are edible and non-edible
Agaricales. They have umbrella like basidiocarps. Edible mushrooms are Agaricus campestris,
A. bisporous, Volvariella volvacea (Paddy straw mushroom), Pleurotus ostreatus etc.
Toadstools: The poisonous mushrooms producing white spores. Amanita caesarea (Caeser’s
mushroom) poisoned Roman emperor Caesar. The other toadstools examples are Amanita
n
phalloides (Death cup), A muscaria (Fly agaric) and Gynomitra esculenta (heat labile
.i
carcinogenic toxin).
of diseases that they cause:

n al
Rusts: They form rusty pustules that have the spores and is a special feature of rusts. Examples
Puccinia graminis tritici – Black rust of wheat.

ur
Puccinia glumarum or P. striformis – Yellow rust of wheat.

o
P. recondite – Brown rust of wheat.

Hallucinogens: Psilocybe Mexicana (Sacred mushroom) is similar to LSD in hallucinating
uj
properties. Mexican Indians use it in certain religious ceremonies.

Ed
Armillariella (Largest Fungi): A. mellea (Honey mushroom) is edible mushroom growing on

both hardwoods and conifers which makes it a serious root parasite. The fungus develop
rhizomorph into the phloem cells which blocks its food supply in the host.
Puffballs: The basidiocarp has a stalked round structure that releases puffs of spores on
ripening. The fructification has growth above or below the substratum, e.g., Lycoperdon
oblongisporum, L. giganteum.
Bracket fungi (Shelf Fungi): The basidiocarps or fructifications grow on tree trunks, logs,
lumber etc. similar to brackets or shelves, e.g. Fomes applanatus. Polyporus sulphurous,
Ganoderma.
Predator fungi: e.g. Dactylaria, Arthrobotrys.
Stinkhorn: e.g. Phallus impudicus (Dead man’s finger). Spore creates a stinking odour that
attract flies.
3.33
Life Story of a Mushroom

Agaricus campestris is the common edible basidiocarp used for farming.
y Saprotrophic nutrition.
y The subterranean is vegetative or assimilative part of mycelium.
y Moist humus rich soil of open fields, grassland, piles of straw or wooden rotting logs are common
places for mushroom.
y Fragmentation is mode of mycelium multiplication. Occasionally, spores like oidia and chlamydospores
are also formed.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.21: Different phases of mushroom

y Mushroom contains two types of mycelia, primary and secondary.
y Sex organs are the same.
y Primary mycelium has septate hyphae with monokaryotic cells with short life. It consists of septate
hyphae having monokaryotic cells.
y The mycelia have heterothallic type with two mating types (+) and (-).
y The hyphae of two mating types come in contact and show Somatogamy.
y However, only plasmogamy is functional at this time. A dikaryotic cell is produced that grows, divides
and forms a long-lived, extensive dikaryotic or secondary mycelium.
y The secondary mycelium hyphae form clamp connections and dolipore septa. The cells possess two
haploid nuclei and not the usual single diploid nucleus.
3.34
y Hyphae of secondary mycelium gets collected at a place giving rise to round or pyriform compact
hyphae called buttons.
y The buttons enlarge to produce aerial bodies called as fructifications or basidiocarps. Common name
is mushroom. Spawn is a different mushroom which develops from secondary mycelium.
y The basidiocarps or mushrooms have ring arrangement.
y Each basidiocarps or mushroom has cream to pinkish brown colour.
y The mushroom has two parts, stipe and pileus where the stipe or stalk is fleshy and swollen at the base.
Pileus is umbrella-like capon the stipe of the mushroom.
y The pileus and stipe are connected with a membrane called veil or velum.
y It ruptures when pileus grows and has scar on the upper part of stipe as annulus. The pileus has
circular outline.
y Pileus has convex upper surface and flat or concave lower surface. Lower surface has 300-600 radiating
rows of vertical plates named gills (lamellae)
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 3.22: Mushroom a fruiting body of a fungus

Ed
y The two sides of vertically placed gills contain thousands of club-shaped basidia and sterile paraphyses.
y They together make up the fertile layer or hymenium of the gill in mushroom.
y Hymenium is subtended by compactly arranged sub hymenium.
y The centre includes interwoven hyphae called trama.
y Each basidium is the site for karyogamy as well as meiosis.
y The two nuclei then fuse to form a short-lived diploid synkaryon.
y The synkaryon then divides meiotically to form four haploid nuclei, two of (+) strain and two of (-) strain.
y Sterigmata is a four peg-like outgrowths formed from the free end of the basidium.
y Each sterigmata contains ovoid pinkish-purple meiospores that is called as basidiospores.
y A droplet is made at the sterigmata tip creating tension and air currents carry hanging basidiospores
away.
y The basidiospores are produced and set free for many days successively. On contact with suitable
substratum, basidiospores germinate and produce monokaryotic primary mycelium.
3.35
3.3.6 Life Cycle of Puccinia graminis tritici

P. graminis tritici is a
y Macrocyclic (producing many dikaryotic spores at a time),
y Heteroecious (need for more than one host i.e. primary host – e.g. wheat, secondary or alternate
host – barberry) fungi.
y It induces growth of uredospores and teliospores on the wheat plant, Basidiospores in the soil and,
pucniospores and aeciospores on barberry.
y It infects wheat causing black or stem rust.
Details of various life cycle phases of Puccinia is:
Stage of Life Cycle on Wheat (Primary Host)
Uredia and Uredospores – The dikaryotic aeciospores form dikaryotic mycelium and germinate on the
leaves and stem surfaces.
n
The germ tube protrudes out which swells up to form an elongated Appresorium near the stomata. A
peg like outgrowth now arises from the Appresorium and penetrates the stomata. It ramifies repeatedly to
.i
form a mass of mycelium this mycelium forms the uredospore. As a result, some pressure is exerted on
al
the epidermis which bursts exposing the uredospore. These clusters of uredospores have been variously
referred to as uredosori or urediopustules. A uredospore is reddish-brown, unicelled. Oval or globose,
n
stalked, dikaryotic spore. Its wall is three layered, the outer being somewhat spiny. The uredial stage
ur
multiplies through the uredospores which germinate on fresh wheat plants (due to the red colour of spores
this stage is called red rust stage).
o
uj
Ed
Figure 3.23: Puccinia showing: infected wheat leaf showing uredia, Dikaryotic mycelium,
V.S. through uredosorus and germination of uredospores and aeciospores on wheat leaf
along with passage of germtube
3.36
Telia and teliospores (Black Rust Stage) – Towards the end of the season, the dikaryotic mycelium of
the uredosorus begins to produce teliospores (or teleutospores) in the same sorus. They are dark brown or
black, stalked, thick walled, bi-celled spores. The upper cell is pointed, both the cells are binucleate. The
pustules containing telispores are called as telia or teleutosori. The teliospores also exert pressure on the
epidermis which bursts open, exposing the spores. It is at this stage the symptoms develop in stem also, so
the disease in named black stem rust of wheat. Karyogamy occurs inside each cell of teliospore and as a
result they become diploid. The teliospores cannot infect fresh wheat plants. They germinate in soil to form
the basidiospores.
.
.i n
al
Figure 3.24: Puccinia showing: Teleutosorus on wheat stem and T.S of host through teleutosorus.
n
Basidia and basidiospores – The two cells of the teliospores now act as hypobasidium. They germinate in
ur
soil and form a tube called promycelium. The diploid nucleus migrates into epibasidium and then undergoes
meiosis to form four haploid nuclei each of them develops as a basidiospore on the stengmata. Of these,
o
two basidiospores belong to +ve strain and two to –ve strain. These spores are not capable to infect a wheat
uj
plant. Each spore is unicelled, monokaryotic and unstalked. These can infect the barberry plant (Berbens
vulgaris) which is the secondary or alternate host occurring on the hills in India.
Ed
Stage of Life Cycle on Barberry

Spermatia or pycniospores – The basidiospores of both the
strain (+ and -) can germinate on upper surface of barberry leaf.
They produce haplophase or primary mycelium of the respective
strain which grows ghrough the intercellular spaces. Soon the
mycelium forms a palisade like mat which organises like a flask
shaped structure near the upper epidermis called as spermogonia
or pycnidium. They open by a single pore called ostiole. The
spermatiophores are pinched off a large number of uninucleate
cells called pycniospores or spermatia. Besides, some sterile
hyphae also arises which grow out through the ostiole. They
are called as periphyses. In addition to these, some thin walled
hyphae are also given out which become more elongated. They Figure 3.23: Basidia showing
are called as flexuous hypae or receptive hyphae. basidiospores
3.37
While the spermatia function as the male cells, the flexuous hyphae behave as the female hypha. The
pycniospores or spermatia protrude out of the ostiole in a nectar. The insects feeding on this nectar transfer
the spermatia from one spermogonium to the other. Spermatisation is brought about when spermatia of one
strain come in contact with the trichogyne of flexuous hyphae of the other strain.
The nucleus of pycniospore or spermatium passes into the flexuous hyphae, thus bringing about
dikaryotisation.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.25: Puccinia infecting Barberry leaf (A - D) showing pycnial cups, T.S. through
spermogonium.
3.38
Aecia and aeciospore – An aecium or aeciosorus is produced on the lower surface of barberry leaves. It
arises just beneath pycnium. The dikaryotized mycelium aggregates sub-epidermally. This gives rise to a
group of elongated dikaryotized cells which function as aecial mother cell. The mother cells differentiate a
row of binucleate cells. The alternate binucleate cells enlarge and they are identified as aeciospores. The
alternate cell remaining small is disjunctor or sterile cell. The sterile wall of the aecial cup called peridium
or pseudoperianth presses the lower epidermis which eventually bursts open. Thus, the aeciospores are
set free.
The aeciospores are polyhedral or ovate, binucleate, unicelled and double layered. The outer thick wall is
called exine and the inner as intine. They are set free in spring. They cannot infect the barberry bushes.
These are carried from hills to the plants where they infect wheat plants. They germinate on the leaf surface
from a germ tube which enters the host through stomata.
3.3.5 Deuteromycetes
n
Table 3.8: Characteristics of Class Deuteromycetes
.i
Common name The Fungi Imperfecti
Mycelium type
Cell wall made of
n al
Septate and branched hyphae
Chitin
Habitat Terrestrial
ur
Asexual reproduction Conidia

o
Sexual reproduction Gametangial copulation or conjugation Coenogametes

uj
Examples Pyronema, Peziza

Ed
y Deuteromycetes lacks actual forms of fungus and is an artificial class (form class) of fungi. This is to
accumulate all the fungi where sexual stage (or perfect stage) is not known yet (absent or not reported).
y As the members included in this class are in research, as and when the perfect (sexual) stages of
members of Deuteromycetes are known they are moved to Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
y They are decomposers of litter and thus help in recycling mineral while some members are saprophytes
or parasites.
3.39
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 3.9: Diseases Caused by Some Fungi with their Effects
Organisms Name Disease Caused Effects / Comments
Helminthosporium oryzae Leaf spot disease of rice Bengal famine in 1942-43
Small oval brown spots with
Alternaria solani Early blight of potato
concentric rings on leaves
Circular necrotic dark brown
Cercospora personata Tikka disease or blackish leaf spots develop
in groundnut
Colletotrichum falcatum Red rot of sugarcane Sour alcoholic odour
Fusarium especially Wilting economically important Blockage of tracheary
n
F. oxysporum, F. udum plants elements by growth of fungus
.i
Trichophytoninterdigitate. Ringworm of foot/Athlete’s foot
al
Table 3.10: Common names in fungi
n
ur
Fungus/Group Common names
Rhizopus Black/Bread mould
o
Morchella Morels (sponge mushroom)

uj
Saccharomyces Yeasts (Sugar fungus)

Ed
Phallus Stink horns

Hydrum Tooth fungi (Hedge hog fungi)
Agaricus Gill fungi (Mushroom)
Ganoderma, Polyporus Wood/Bracket/shelf fungi
Aspergillus and Penicillium Pigmented moulds
Aspergillus Laboratory mould
Aspergillus flavus Guinea pig of plant kingdom
Mucor mucedo Dung mould
Penicillium Blue/green mould
Peziza Cup fungi
Lycoperdon, Clavatia Puff balls
Cyathus Bird’s nest fungus
3.40
Clavaria Coral fungi

Amanita Toad stool
Tremella Jelly fungi/Trembling fungi
Pleurotus ostreatus Oyster mushroom
Agaricus bisporus Button mushroom
Neurospora crassa Drosophila of plant kingdom
DID YOU KNOW
n
Annual Recurrence of Rust in India
.i
Prof. K.C. Mehta studied the rusts and concluded the annual recurrence of the rust on
? al
wheat occurs through uredospores in India. The alternate host Berberis vulgaris does
not have enough role in our country. According to Mehta, if wheat cropping is avoided
n
on hills, the intensity of this infection in the plains can be effectively reduced.
ur
He also suggested that even when the wheat is not grown, the fungus doesn’t
disappear and is on certain collateral hosts like Briza minor, Bromus and Thalictrum for
o
multiplication of uredospores.
uj
Ed
DID YOU KNOW

Common Fungicides and their composition
Bordeaux mixture
y (CuSO4 : Ca(OH)2 : H2O). First fungicide discovered by RMA Millardet
? y Commonly known as holy water of plant pathology

Burgandy mixture (Soda Bordeaux)
y Mixture of CuSO4 + Na2CO3 + H2O
Chestnut mixture
y Ammonium carbonate + copper sulphate
3.41
3.4 Mycorrhiza (Fungal Roots)

y There are associations of fungus with several hosts where in it takes the food and in return helps the
hosts in some or other way. This is called as Mutualistic Symbiotic Association.
y Mycorrhizal association is symbiotic, beneficial to both the partners.
y The mutually beneficial set of a fungus and the roots of higher plants are termed as mycorrhiza.
y Mycorrhizal roots have shape diversity, with no root hairs and root cap, however with a woolly covering
on them.
y The association gives nourishment and shelter to the fungal partner from the cortical cells of the root.
y The root cells excrete sugars along with other soluble gradients useful for growth of fungal hyphae that
spread in intercellular spaces.
y The nourishment from the cells can also be taken by sending small projections from hyphae into root
cortical cells.
y The fungus plays essential role for the plant growth.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 3.26: Mycorrhizal relationship between roots and fungus.
y The fungal hyphae spread in soil that increases the surface area of absorption by roots that enhances
the supply of water, nitrogen, phosphorus and other minerals to the plant from the soil.
y The association of a fungus can be with many plant roots and that plant may have several fungi growing
on it.
y The mycorrhiza is of two types: ectomycorrhiza (outside root) and endomycorrhiza (inside roots).
y Ectomycorrhizal association, the fungus forms network of mycelium known as Hartig net, on the
external surface of roots. Mycelium network is in the intercellular cortex spaces. Fungal partner in this
group is commonly basidiomycetes. e.g., Pinus roots.
3.42
y In endomycorrhiza, the fungal hyphae spread in intercellular and intracellular spaces after they enter
the tissue of the root system. The fungus breaks the cell wall of root cells to an extent of the cortical
region of the root. Some hyphae in fungi let small projections enter into cortical cells keeping the cells
safe. Such fungi are termed VAM (Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza), e.g. Orchid roots.
4. Lichens
y Lichens are a permanent association of a fungal partner or mycobiont and an algal partner or phycobiont.
y Mycobiont is dominant partner belonging to ascomycetes (Ascolichens -, e.g., Graphis, Cladonia,
Parmelia, Usnea, etc.) or basidiomycetes (Basidolichens – e.g., Corella, Cora etc.).
y Phycobiont is mostly a member of Chlorophyceae (e.g., Chlorella, Trebouxia, Protococcus, Palmella,
etc.) or can be a BGA (e.g., Nostoc, Chlorococcus, Scytonema, etc.)
y Lichens are found in uninhabited or inhospitable places like barren rocks (sexicolous), soil (terricolous),
tundra ice or alpines, sand dunes, roots, walls, wood (lignicolous), tree bark (corticolous) leaves, etc.
n
y Humid and exposed conditions are common however the lichens can tolerate extreme desiccation.
.i
Lichens do not grow in air pollution, and in high sulphur dioxide content (so are considered indicators
y
of SO2 pollution). al
Lichens are greyish, yellowish greenish, orange, and dark brown or blackish in colour growing
n
throughout the year.
ur
y The fungal partner called mycobiont makes the bulk of lichen body. It includes the surface, medulla
(or interior) and rhizines (attaching devices) in lichens.
o
y The algal partner or phycobiont contributes only 5% of the lichens body and is restricted only to a
uj
narrow zone (algal zone) that is below the surface.

Ed
Structure: Lichens have different morphology, the major ones are of three types:
y Crustose: They form crust like shape that is attached to the substratum at several places, e.g., Graphis,
Lecanora, and Rhizocarpon.
y Foliose: The lichen is flat, broad, lobed and leaf-like, attached at one or few places of substratum. The
attachment is with a rhizoid like structure called rhizine, e.g., Parmelia, Peltigera.
y Fruticose: The lichen remains attached to the substratum with the disc while it is branched like a bush.
e.g. Cladonia, Usnea, Evernia, Bryonia.
Relationship: The fungus in lichen helps in following functions:
y Body structure and covering
y Anchoring
y Absorption of water and minerals.
y Water is absorbed from wet air (atmosphere), dew and rain and minerals are taken from substratum
and atmosphere. Minerals from substratum are absorbed after they are dissolved with chemicals from
fungi.
3.43
y Fungal sex organs and fructifications are dominant.

y Food is produced by photosynthesis in algae.
y The cyanobacterial alga also fixes nitrogen.
y The algae takes water and mineral salts from the fungus and gives food to the fungus. Therefore,
mutual benefit (mutualism) popularly called as symbiosis is assigned to lichens.
y Fungus at times is found to
O Send Haustoria into algal cells
O Induce alga cells that secrete organic substances and
O Prevent alga to develop pectic covering.
Reproduction: Lichens multiply by four methods:
y Progressive death and decay resulting in the separation of a lichen thallus into two or more parts.
y Fragmentation caused by mechanical injury, due to wind or animal bites.
n
y Isidia are superficial outgrowths of the lichens which are primarily meant for increasing surface area
.i
and photosynthetic activity. At time, they are broken off. Each isidium is capable of forming a new lichen
al
because it has a core of a few algal cells surrounded by a sheath of fungal hyphae.
y Soredia: These are most efficient means of asexual reproduction. They are microscopic lichen
n
propagules which are produced in large numbers inside sori called pustules. Soredia are dispersed by
ur
air currents. After falling on a suitable substratum each soredium gives rise to a lichen, because it has
a few algal cells surrounded incompletely by a weft of fungus.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 3.27: Image of various fungal bodies

3.44
Figure 3.28: Algal and fungal relationship in sorediai
.i n
DID YOU KNOW
al
The term lichen was coined by Theophrastus (370 – 285 B.C), also called as the Father
n
of Botany.
?
ur
Special structures in the thallus of lichen:

Cyphellae: Present in lower cortex and help in exchange of gases.
o
Cephalodia: It help to retain moisture while the algal partner fixes nitrogen.
uj
Breathing pores : Present in upper cortex of thallus to respire.

Ed
3.45
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Uses of Lichens
y Early colonizers: Lichens have shown early or pioneer life as colonizers of barren rocks,
cliffs, mountains and new terrains. Lichens secrete acids that help them to adhere the
rocks and cliffs. It produces minute crevices where organic matter accumulates. It paves
the way for growth of mosses.
y Food: lichens are high in sugar and thus in tundra, Cladonia rangifera (Reindeer Moss)
is used as the staple food of reindeer, Caribou, musk ox, etc. Cetraria islandica (Iceland
moss) is eaten by man in Iceland.
y Dyes: Orchil is obtained from Rocella tinctoria, the organism which was used as a litmus
paper earlier till the invention of synthetic litmus. Litmus is a pH indicator.
y Perfumes: Species of ramalina and evernia give scented incense.
n
y Medicines: Usnea (Old Man’s Beard) and Cladonia produce usnic acid that has antibiotic
.i
properties and hence used in ointment for burns and wounds.
al
y Air pollution: Lichen population decrease as SO2 pollution increase indicating air pollution.
y Fires: Usnea may produce forest fires in high temperatures.
n
o ur
TRY IT YOURSELF
uj
Fill in the blanks:

Ed
a. In ectomycorrhiza, fungal partner commonly belongs to _________

b. ________ are mutually useful association between algae and __________
c. ________ are superficial outgrowths of the lichens which are primarily meant for
increasing surface area and photosynthetic activity.
d. In tundra_______ constitutes the staple food of reindeer, caribou etc.
e. ________ are most efficient means of asexual reproduction in lichens.
5. Viruses
Pasteur coined the virus term.
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The main reason of their kingdom or class not decided is that
the viruses are both living and non-living entities.
3.46
5.1 Viruses Show Non-Living Nature

y Lacking protoplast.
y Capability to crystallize, e.g., TMV poliomyelitis virus.
y Lack functional autonomy and cannot live independently outside.
y High specific gravity common in non-living objects.
y Absence of respiration.
y Energy storing system is not there at all.
y Growth and division is not observed.
5.2 Living Nature of Viruses

y Organic macromolecules make the structure.
y Presence of genetic material.
n
y Genes that give ability to multiply.
.i
y Have mutating properties.
y
viruses.
n al
Include certain enzymes like, neuraminidase (first discovered), transcriptase and lysozyme in body of
y Infectivity and host specificity.

ur
y Viruses can be ‘’killed’’ by autoclaving and ultraviolet rays.

The multiplication is through biosynthetic machinery of the host cell that produce chemicals required
o
y
for viruses.
uj
y Viruses cause a number of infectious diseases like common cold, epidemic influenza, chicken pox,
Ed
mumps, poliomyelitis, rabies, herpes, AIDS, SARS etc.
5.3 Structural Components of Viruses

y Viruses are ultramicroscopic structures having size in nanometres smaller than smallest bacteria.
y The outer covering of virus is a thin layer of protein (virus), lipids and carbohydrates (both from host)
called as envelope. It includes smaller subunits that are called as peplomers, e.g., Herpes virus, HIV,
vaccine virus etc.When the envelope is not present the virus is said to be naked.
y Capsid:The outer protein coat is made up of subunits that is called as capsomeres, and their number
is virus specific. These protein possess antigenic properties for the virus.
y Nucleoid: Viruses contain either DNA or RNA. There is yet no virus with both DNA and RNA as genetic
material.
y Viruses that have DNA as their genetic materials are called as the deoxyviruses. These are of two types:
O Double stranded DNA (dsDNA) virus, e.g., Pox virus, Cauliflower mosaic virus.
O Single stranded DNA (ssDNA) virus, e.g., Coli phage φ x 174, M 13 phage.
3.47
y RNA is the genetic material then viruses are known as riboviruses. They are of two types:
O Double stranded RNA (ds RNA) virus, e.g., Reo virus, Would Tumour virus.
O Single stranded RNA (ssRNA) virus, e.g., TMV, influenza virus, Foot and Mouth disease virus,
Retroviruses (HIV).
DID YOU KNOW

y Mayer gave details of Tobacco mosaic disease in 1886.
y Iwanowsky discovered viruses in 1892. TMV was the first virus discovered.
y Beijerinck called virus as ‘’Contagium vivum fluidum’’ meaning living infectious fluid.
y In 1935, Stanley crystallised TMV.
y Twart and d’Herelle discovered bacteriophage.
?
y L’woff and Wolman discovered temperature viruses.
n
y Shafferman and Morris discovered cyanophage, e.g. LPP-1.
.i
y Bawd+en and Pirie studied the chemical nature (nucleoproteins) of TMV
al
y Sinshelmer discovered single stranded DNA in bacteriophage θ x 174
n
y Isaac and Lindeman discovered interferon which is like antibiotic for viruses.
ur
y Delbruck (1938), found that viruses undergo mutations.
y Reverse transcription in Retroviruses was discovered by Temin and Baltimore, so
o
the phenomenon is called teminism. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is RNA

uj
dependent DNA polymerase

Ed
5.4 Classification of Virus

Holmes (1948) has divided viruses into three groups on the basis of specific hosts.
y Phytophagineae viruses specific for plant infections. They have ssRNA, e.g., TMV, Potato mosaic
virus, Yellow vein mosaic virus, cauliflower mosaic virus.
y Zoophagineae viruses are animal specific. They have ssRNA or dsRNA or dsDNA. e.g., Poliomyelitis
virus, influenza viruses, Small pox virus, Mumps virus, Rabies virus.
y Phagineae attack lower organisms.
ο Bacteriophages are bacterial viruses and they usually possess dsDNA, e.g. T2, T4, lambda (λ)
phage.
ο Coliphages are viruses of E.coli, e.g., Coliphages fd.
ο Cyanophage attack blue green algae, e.g., LPP-1, SM – 1
3.48
ο Phycophages attack algae.

ο Mycophages attack fungi
ο Zymophages attack yeast.
5.5 Reproduction
Viruses reproduce mainly by two types: Phagic and Pinocytic
y Phagic Reproduction: It is further of two types:
ο Lytic cycle: Occurs in virulent phages, e.g., T4 bacteriophages.
ο Lysogenic cycle: Occurs in temperate viruses such as phage.
y Pinocytic Reproduction: It is found in viruses like TMV, HIV, Hepatitis B etc., in which whole of virus
particle enters host cell except envelope (if present).
n
5.6 Structural Details of Some Viruses
.i
y Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) al
ο Elongated rod like with 3000 Å length, 180 Å diameter,and 39.4 x 106 Dalton molecular weight.
n
ο 2130 capsomeres form capsid with helical arrangement.
ur
ο RNA strand is helically shaped.

ο RNA contains 6400 nucleotides.
o
ο Thus, the ratio of nucleotides: capsomeres = 3: 1

uj
Ed
Figure 3.29: TMV virus in diagrammatic way

3.49
y Pox virus/Variola is the causal agent of small pox.

ο Largest animal viruses
ο Rectangular (brick) shaped 300 x 230 nm in size.
ο Genome is dumbbell shaped with central core of dsDNA.
ο The core shows two enzymes RNA polymerase and ATP phosphohydrolase.
y AIDS virus
ο It has 2 copies of ssRNA.
ο Outer envelope has 5 layers, 1- outer most glycoprotein, 2, 3 - lipid layer and 4, 5 - the innermost
protein layers.
ο It has reverse transcriptase enzyme.
y T4 Bacteriophage
n
ο Tadpole like structure that has polyhedral head connected to helical tail (binal).
.i
ο The head hasprotein coat or capsid on the nucleic acid.
ο Nucleic acid is dsDNA. al
ο Proteinaceous tube-like core with sheath cover is the tail.
n
ο Tube is joined to the head by thin collar and then connected to the hexagonal base plate with six
ur
small tail pins and six fibres.The fibresattach the phage to the host cell.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 3.30: Bacteriophage diagram

3.50
5.7 Special Characters Who are Similar Yet Different from Viruses
y Viroids (L. virus – poison, eidos – diminutive)
Diener (1971) was working on viruses when he found some organisms smaller than them which could
pass the filter for virus. They are the smallest self-replicating particles which were discovered by Viroids
are infectious RNA particles which are devoid of protein coat. They are obligate parasites. Molecular
weight of a viroid is low. The RNA is tightly folded to form circular or linear structures. Viroids are known
to cause diseases (some 20) in plants only, e.g., Potato spindle tuber disease (PSTD), Chrysanthemum
stunt and Citrus exocortis.
y Prions (Discovered by Alper et al.)
Proteinaceous infectious particles, causing certain diseases like
ο Kuru disease (laughing death disease in humans)
ο Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE or Mad cow disease)
ο Scrapie disease in sheep
n
ο Creutz Feldt Jakob disease
.i
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
n al
Table 3.11: Common Diseases caused by Viruses in Plants and Animals
ur
Disease Causal agent

o
Tobacco mosaic Tobacco Mosaic virus

uj
Cucumber mosaic Cucumber mosaic virus

Ed
Potato mild mosaic Potato virus X

Potato rugose mosaic Potato virus Y
Potato leaf roll Potato leaf roll virus
Rosette of groundnut Groundnut mosaic virus
Bunchy top of Banana Banana bunchy top virus
Sugarcane mosaic Sugarcane (or Saccharin) Virus I
Common cold Rhinoviruses
Influenza Influenza virus
German measles (Rubella) Rubella virus
Measles Measles virus
Poliomyelitis Polio virus
Small pox Variola virus
Yellow fever Arbovirus
3.51
DID YOU KNOW

Nomenclature of viruses:
International committee of virus nomenclature has given a system of naming the virus.
The system consists of two parts. First part is common name of the virus and second
part has the coded information about the virus. This is called as Cryptogram.
In a cryptogram
y First pair → Represents type of nucleic acid / no. of strands in nucleic acid.
y Second pair → Represents molecular weight of nucleic acid / amount
of nucleic acid expressed as percentage.
y Third pair → Denotes shape of virus / shape of nucleoprotein.
y Fourth pair → Denotes type of host / carrier used in the transmission of virus.
n
Cryptogram of TMV Tobacco mosaic Virus
?
.i
R/1 : 2/5 : E/E : S/A
It can be explained as
n al
y First pair → Nucleic acid RNA ® is single stranded (1)
ur
y Second pair → Mol. Wt. of nucleic acid is two (2) hundred thousand / amount
of nucleic acid (5%).
o
y Third pair → Shape of virus – elongated € / shape of nucleoprotein

enlongated (E)
uj
y Fourth pair → Host is seed plants or spermatophytes (S) / carrier of

Ed
transmission air (A) or sap (S)

Cryptogram of Polio virus
R/1, 2.5 / 30, S/S, V/O [O means no vector is needed]
Cryptogram of T4 bacteriophage
D/2, 130 / 40, X/X, B/O [X means complex shape and B for bacteria]
3.52
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. What type of nucleic acid is present in most of the plant viruses?
2. Fill in the blanks
i. Reproduction in temperate viruses occurs by ……………. Cycle
ii. Number of capsomeres and nucleotides in TMV is respectively ……….. and
…………..
iii. Nucleic acid in Reo virus is ………………
iv. Shape of virus is represented in ……………… pair of cryptogram.
v. The chemical nature of infectious particle causing kuru disease is …………….
3. Bunchy top of banana is a viral disease (true/false)
.i n
Summary al
n
y Biological classification of plants and animals was first proposed by Aristotle on the basis of simple
ur
morphological characters.
y Linnaeus later classified all living organisms into two kingdoms – Plantae and Animalia
o
y Whittaker proposed an elaborate five kingdom classification – Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and
Animalia. The main criteria of the five kingdom classification were cell structure. Body organization,
uj
mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship out of which mode of nutrition was
Ed
most important.
y In the five kingdom classification, bacteria are included in Kingdom Monera.
y Bacteria are cosmopolitan in distribution.
y These organisms show the most extensive metabolic diversity. Although they have a simple
structure.
y Bacteria may be autotrophic or heterotrophic in their nutrition.
y Kingdom Protista includes all single-celled eukaryotes such as Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates.
Euglenoids, Slime moulds and Protozoans.
y Protists have defined nucleus and other membrane bound organelles. They reproduce both
asexually and sexually.
y Members of Kingdom Fungi show a great diversity in structures and habitat.
y Most fungi are saprophytic in their mode of nutrition.
y They show asexual and sexual reproduction.
3.53
y Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes are the four classes under this
kingdom.
y The plantae includes all eukaryotic chlorophyll containing organisms Algae, Bryophytes,
Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms are included in this group.
y The life cycle of plants exhibit alternation of generations-gametophytic and sporophytic generations.
y The heterotrophic eukaryotic, multicellular organisms lacking a cell wall are included in the Kingdom
Animalia. The mode of nutrition of these organisms is holozoic.
y They reproduce mostly by the sexual mode.
y Some acellular organisms like viruses and viroids as well as the lichens are not included in the five
kingdom system of classification.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
3.54
EXERCISE
.
Objective Questions
Q.1 Chrysophytes are
(A) Diatoms and desmids (B) Diatoms and dinoflagellates
(C) Slime moulds and desmids (D) Slime moulds and diatoms
Q.2 Red tide is caused by rapid multiplication of

(A) BGA (B) Desmids (C) Diatoms (D) Dinoflagellates
n
Q.3 Which of the following option for diatoms is correct?
.i
(A) Pecto-cellulosic cell wall (B) Silicified cell wall
al
(C) Multicellular eukaryotes (D) Produce saxitioxin
n
ur
Q.4 Acellular slime moulds show
(A) Haploid uninucleate (B) Naked sporangia
o
(C) Autotrophic nutrition (D) Isogamous type reproduction

uj
Q.5 Mark the odd one (w.r.t. fungi)

Ed
(A) Unicisternal Golgi bodies

(B) Show a great diversity in morphology and habitat
(C) Most of the members are aquatic
(D) Reserve food material is stored in the form of oil and glycogen
Q.6 Fungi with cellulosic wall belong to the class

(A) Oomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Ascomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes
Q.7 Select incorrectly matched pair

(A) Rhizopus - Sporangiospore
(B) Penicillium - Ascocarp
(C) Mucor - Dikaryophase
(D) Aspergilus - Conidia
3.55
Q.8 Which one of the following organism performs plasmogamy by gametangial contact?
(A) Puccinia (B) Albugo (C) Rhizopus (D) Agaricus
Q.9 Coenocytic dimorphic vegetative mycelium is found in
(A) Neurospora (B) Rhizopus (C) Pencillium (D) Ustilago
Q.10 Choose incorrect match w.r.t. different classes of fungi
(A) Oomycetes-zoospore-gametic copulation
(B) Zygomycetes-sporangiospore-zygophore
(C) Ascomycetes-conidia-monokaryotic aseptate-coenocytic mycelium
(D) Phycomycetes-algal and conjugation fungi-coenocytic mycelium
Q.11 Fungi often employed in experimental genetics is the member of
n
(A) Egg fungi (B) Conjugation fungi (C) Sac fungi (D) Club fungi
.i
Q.12 Select correct match
S. No. Column – I
n al
S. No. Column - II
(a) Soft rot of apple (i) Absidia
ur
(b) Bronchomycosis (ii) Rhizopus

(c) White rust disease (iii) Pythium
o
(d) Damping off disease (iv) Albugo

uj
(A) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (B) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
Ed
(C) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (D) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
Q.13 In which of the following yeast ascus contains eight ascospores?

(A) Saccharomyces (B) Saccharomycoides
(C) Schizosaccharomyces (D) Morels
Q.14 Acsci are not organised into ascocarps in
(A) True yeast (B) Drosophila of plant kingdom
(C) Pigmented mould (D) Morels
Q.15 Mark the odd one (w.r.t. Penicillium)

(A) Asexual reproduction by conidia (B) Obligate parasite
(C) Sac fungi (D) 8 ascospores is each ascus
3.56
Q.16 Ultimate branches of conidiophore in Penicillium is

(A) Rami (B) Phialide (C) Sterigmata (D) Metulae
Q.17 Ascospore in sac fungi is a ______ that is formed _____.

(A) Meiospore, exogenously (B) Meiospore, endogenously
(C) Mitospore, endogenously (D) Mitospore, exogenously
Q.18 The common type of asexual spore in sac fungi is

(A) Uninucleate and motile (B) Unilayered and non-motile
(C) Two layered and non-motile (D) Multinucleate, two layered and motile
Q.19 Fungi which is best decomposers of wood are

(A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes
.i n
(C) Deutromycetes (D) Zygomycetes
al
Q.20 Secondary mycelium is long lived and dominant phase of life cycle in
n
(A) Club fungi (B) Sac fungi
ur
(C) Ray fungi (D) More than one option is correct

o
Q.21 The name of the class is based on sexual structure as the site of karyogamy and meiosis in
uj
(A) Phycomycetes and Actinomycetes (B) Deuteromycetes and Zygomycetes

(C) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes (D) Basidiomycetes and Actinomycytes
Ed
Q.22 In Agaricus, clamp connections and dolipore septa are shown by the hyphae of
(A) primary mycelium (B) Secondary mycelium
(C) Monokaryotic mycelium (D) Coenocytic mycelium
Q.23 In the life cycle of wheat rust fungi, spermatisation occurs on the
(A) Upper surface of leaf of primary host (B) Lower surface of leaf of alternate host
(C) Upper surface of leaf of secondary host (D) Lower surface of leaf of primary host
Q.24 Bengal famine disease was caused by a pathogen which belongs to the class
(A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes
(C) Deuteromycetes (D) Phyocomycetes
3.57
Q.25 Lichens growing on tree bark are called

(A) Lignicolous (B) Terricolous (C) Corticolous (D) Saxicolous
Q.26 Common mycobionts and phycobionts of lichen body are respectively

(A) Ascomycetes, Chlorophyceae (B) Ascomycetes, Cynophyceae
(C) Basidiomycetes, Chlorophyceae (D) Basidiomycetes, Cyanophyceae
Q.27 Foliose lichens are attached to the substratum at one or few places with the help of
(A) Branched, multicellular rhizoids (B) Holdfast
(C) Rhizines (D) Rhizomorph
Q.28 Specialised structure in the thallus of lichen for nitrogen fixation and retaining moisture is
(A) Cyphellae (B) lsidia (C) Cephalodia (D) Soredia
.i n
Q.29 Select the statement w.r.t. mycorrhizal roots
(A) They do not in shape from normal roots
(C) Possess root cap but lack root hairs
n al
(B) Often show a wooly covering
(D) fungal partner is commonly a member of Ascomycetes
ur
Q.30 Which of the following feature is not related with virus?

(A) Infectively and host specificity (B) Presence of genetic material
o
(C) Occurrence of certain enzymes (D) Presence of respiration

uj
Q.31 Most of the viruses are/have

Ed
(A) Enveloped nucleo-protein structure (B) Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure

(C) Infectious protein particles (D) Double standard DNA as well as dsRNA
Q.32 Infectious RNA particles without protein coat

(A) have high molecular weight (B) were discovered by Apler
(C) known to cause disease in plants only (D) more than one option is correct
Q.33 Select incorrect statement w.r.t. T4 bacteriophages

(A) Have polygonal prismatic head (B) Contractile tail without tail-sheath
(C) Six tail fibres (D) ds-DNA as the genetic material
3.58
Q.34 TMV is
(A) ds Ribovirus (B) ds Deoxyvirus
(C) ss Ribovirrus (D) Ribovirus with 6400 capsomeres
Q.35 The photosynthetic protists are

(A) Diatoms, euglenoids and slime moulds
(B) Sacrodines, dinoflagellates and diatoms
(C) Euglenoids, diatoms and dinoflagellates
(D) Ciliates, zooflagellates and dinoflagellates
Q.36 Sea water glows during night mainly due to occurrence of

(A) Gonyaulax (B) Noctiluca (C) Euglena (D) Cyclotella
n
Q.37 Bivalved siliceous shell or frustule occur in
.i
(A) Diatoms (B) Radiolarians
(C) Zooflagellates
n al
(D) Archaebacteria
Q.38 Rejuvenescent spore of diatom is

ur
(A) Haploid and exospore (B) Diploid and statospore

(C) Haploid and statospore (D) Diploid and auxospore
o
uj
Q.39 Diatomaceous earth is due to

Ed
(A) Silicon (B) Zinc (C) Phosphorus (D) Calcium
Q.40 Leucosin (Chrysolaminarin) is a carbohydrate which is stored as reserve food in case of

(A) Diatom (B) Euglena (C) Dinoflagellates (D) Paramecium
Q.41 Reserve food in Euglena is
(A) Paramylum (B) Starch (C) Glycogen (D) Mannitol
Q.42 Flagellation in Euglena is

(A) Uniflagellation and stichonematic (B) Isokont and whiplash type
(C) Heterokont and whiplash type (D) Heterokont and stichonematic
3.59
Q.43 Special type of red pigment present in the eye-spot Euglena and Crustacea is called
(A) Phycoerythrin (B) Astaxanthin (C) Carotene (D) Xanthorphyll
Q.44 Mixotrophic nutrition occurs in
(A) Paramecium (B) Euglena (C) Plasmodium (D) Amoeba
Q.45 Paraflagellar body of Euglena helps in
(A) Locomotion (B) Photoreception
(C) Reproduction (D) Osmoregulation
Q.46 The structure formed in the life cycle of cellular slime-mould due to chemotactic movement is
(A) Pseudoplasmodium (B) Swarm cells
(C) Macrocyst (D) Capillitia
.i n
Q.47 Myxamoeba are formed in the life cycle of
(A) Physarum (B) Amoeba
n al (C) Entamoeba (D) Diatoms
Q.48 De Bary considered slime moulds to be closely related to animals and called them
ur
(A) Protozoa (B) Metazoa (C) Mycetozoa (D) Mycotina
Q.49 Difference between a red sea and red tide is
o
(A) Red tide takes place in red sea

uj
(B) Associated with a cyanobacteria and protest respectively

Ed
(C) One is by virus and other by bacteria

(D) Associated with Rhodophyceae and diatoms respectively
Q.50 De Bary was a leading

(A) Phycologist (B) Mycologist (C) Meiospores (D) Pteridologist
Q.51 Asexual spores of fungi (thillophytes) are commonly known as

(A) Oospores (B) Mitospores (C) Meiospores (D) Zygospores
Q.52 Oidia resemble yeasts in

(A) Fermentation (B) Budding
(C) Unicellular nature (D) All of these
3.60
Q.53 Which one of the following shows haplodiplontic life cycle with four ascospores in the ascus?
(A) Budding yeast (B) Fission yeast
(C) Helobial yeast (D) False yeast
Q.54 Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in

(A) Ascomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Basidio (D) Deuteromycetes
Q.55 Motile sperms (or motile sperm cells) are absent in

(A) Rhizopus (B) Funaria (C) Fem (D) Cycas
Q.56 If the thallus of an organism like a fungus is entirely converted into one or more reproductive structures
it is called as
(A) Eucarpic (B) Holocarpic (C) Holozoic (D) Homothallic
.i n
Q.57 Subterranean masses of hyphae which pass the unfavourable periods in dormant stage are known as
(A) Sclerotia (B) Mycelium (C) Rhizomorph
n al (D) Puff balls
Q.58 Asexual reproduction by aplanospore formation is the feature of

ur
(A) Sac fungi (B) Fungi imperfecti

(C) Conjugating fungi (D) Club fungi
o
uj

S. No. Column – I S. No. Column - II
Ed
(a) Gill fungi (i) Salmon disease

(b) Cup fungi (ii) Trama
(c) Black mould (iii) Penicillin
(d) Blue/green mould (iv) Zygophore
(v) Apothecium
(A) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (B) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i)
(C) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii) (D) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Q.60 Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is

(A) Ascospore (B) Oospore (C) Basidiospore (D) Zygospore
3.61
Q.61 Select incorrectly matched pair

(A) Mucor mucedo - Coprophilous
(B) Albugo candida - Facultative parasite
(C) Agaricus bisporus - Edible basidiocarp
(D) Puccinia graminis - Heteroecious fungi
Q.62 White rust of crucifers is caused by

(A) Albugo candida (B) Sclerospora
(C) Phytophthora infestans (D) Pythium debaryanum
Q.63 Coenocytic mycelium occurs in

(A) Zygomycetes (B) Phycomycetes
n
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Deuteromycetes
.i
Q.64 Ascomycetes are known as
(A) Club fungi (B) Sac fungi
n al
(C) Fungi imperfecti (D) Fission fungi
ur
Q.65 One of the following is helobial yeast

(A) Saccharomyces (B) Schizosaccharomyces
o
(C) Saccharomycoides (D) Schizomycetes

uj
Ed
Q.66 One of the following is a true yeast

(A) Candida (B) Mycodema (C) Cryptococcus (D) Saccharomyces
Q.67 Fungi differs from bacteria in

(A) Mode of nutrition (B) Having NAG in cell wall
(C) Flagella structure (D) Reserve food material as glycogen
Q.68 Penicillin is obtained from

(A) Penicillium griseofulvum (B) Penicillium chrysogenum
(C) Penicillium camemberti (D) Penicillium roqueforti
Q.69 Branched conidophores are found in

(A) Penicillium (B) Rhizopus (C) Ustilago (D) Saccharomyces
3.62
Q.70 Fruiting body in Aspergillus (or Penicillium) is known as

(A) Cleistothecium (B) Apothecium (C) Perithecium (D) Hysterothecium
Q.71 A mushroom having hallucinating properties similar to L.S.D. is
(A) Morchella (B) Psaliota (C) Psilocybe (D) Armillaria
Q.72 Powdery mildew of cereals is due to

(A) Puccinia graminis (B) Claviceps purpurea
(C) Ustilago tritici (D) Erysiphe graminicola
Q.73 Ergot is a product of
(A) Rhizopus (B) Claviceps purpurea
n
(C) Aspergillus (D) Sclerospora
.i
Q.74 The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as
(A) Late blight of potato
al
(B) Early blight of potato
n
(C) Dry rot of potato (D) Potato scab
ur
Q.75 A fungus, which grows on rotting wood, is

o
(A) Rhizopus (B) Pythium (C) Peziza (D) Aspergillus

uj
Q.76 A dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of

Ed
(A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes

(C) Basidiomycetes (D) Zygomycetes
Q.77 Fertile layer of gill fungi is known as

(A) Hymenium (B) Trama (C) Paraphyses (D) Basidia
Q.78 An edible part of mushroom is

(A) Primary mycelium (B) Secondary mycelium
(C) Rhizomorph (D) Basidocarp
Q.79 When two host species are required for completion of a parasitic fungus life cycle, this condition is
described as
(A) Autoecious (B) Heteroecious (C) Autotrophic (D) Heterokaryotic
3.63
Q.80 Pioneer work on wheat rust was done by

(A) Mundkur (B) Tulsane (C) K.C. Mehta (D) Subramaniam
Q.81 The soredium is reproductive structure of

(A) Ascomycetes (B) Zygomycetes (C) Basidomycetes (D) Lichens
Q.82 The most common chlorophycobiont in a lichen is

(A) Chlorella (B) Trebouxia (C) Gonium (D) Chlamydomonas
Q.83 Symptom not seen in plants due to viruses is

(A) Mosaic formation (B) Leaf rolling and curling
(C) Yellowing, vein clearing (D) Root knot
n
Q.84 Viroids were discovered by
.i
(A) Alper (B) Randle (C) Diener (D) Ivanowsky
al
Q.85 Viruses possess all the following properties, except
n
(A) They are non-cellular organisms (B) Possess both DNA and RNA
ur
(C) Capsid protects nuclei acid (D) Have inert crystalline structure outside living cells
o
Q.86 Consider the following statements and select set of features w.r.t. the life cycle of Physarum
uj
a. Haploid vegetative stage as myxamoebae

Ed
b. Diploid vegetative stage as plasmodium

c. Holocarpic and polycentric
d. Holocarpic and monocentric
e. Sporeic meiosis
g. Isogamous sexual reproduction
g. Anisogamous sexual reproduction with zygotic meiosis
(A) a, c, g (B) b, c, g (C) b, d, e, f (D) b, c, e, f
Q.87 Mycelium with compact mass of hyphae as pseudoparenchymatous structure can be observed in the
(A) Fructification stage of slime moulds (B) Gill of mushroom
(C) Asexual stage of bread mould (D) Uredia stage of rust fungi
3.64
Q.88 Which one of the following combination of characters is correct for the given fungal group?
(A) Algal fungi : Coenocytic, cellulosic wall, zoospore, zygospore, dikaryophase present
(B) Conjugating fungi : Septate mycelium, chintinous wall, sporangiospore, shorter (n + n) phase
(C) Sac fungi : Septate mycelium, Ascogonium, Crozier stage, meiospores as ascospores, shorter
dikaryophase
(D) Club fungi: Shorter primary mycelium stage, No sex organs, dominant dikaryophase, zygosporic meiosis.
Q.89 Read the statements carefully

a. Hartig net is the network of intracellular mycelium of boletus
b. Ectomycorrhiza forms ten percent of total mycorrhiza
c. Fungal partner of VAM belongs to zygomycetes or ohycomycetes
(A) Only a & c are correct
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(B) Only b & c are correct
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(C) Only c is correct
(D) All are correct
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Q.90 Identify A, B and C given below
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A B C
(A) (B)
A - DNA virus – Cauliflower mosaic virus A – RNA virus – T.M.V
B – RNA virus – Pox virus B – DNA virus – T4 bacteriophage
C – Reterovirus – HIV C – Retro virus – HIV
(C) (D)
A – RNA virus – Hepatitis B virus A – Retrovirus – Hepatitis B virus
B – Reterovirus – T.M.V B – RNA virus - T4 bacteriophage
C – DNA virus - φ 174 C – DNA virus – Pox virus
3.65
Q. 91. Read the following statements carefully and identify correct statements w.r.t. Lichens
a. The association cannot tolerate air pollution, especially due to sulphur dioxide
b. Lichens are annuals and their growth is slow
c. The fungal partner shows controlled parasitism
d. Soredia are most efficient means of asexual reproduction
e. Orchids seldom occur without this association
f. Foliose lichen are pioneers of succession on bare rock
(A) c, d, f (B) a, c, d, f (C) a, b, e (D) a, c, d
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Q.1 Tikka disease occurs in (Orissa 2006)
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(A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Ground nut (D) Sugarcane
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Q.2 Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece
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of bread ? (CBSE 2006)
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i. Temperature of about 25°C

ii. Temperature of about 5°C
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iii. Relative humidity of about 5%

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iv. Relative humidity of about 95%

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v. A shady place
vi. A brightly illuminated place
Choose the answer from following option
(A) B, D and E only (B) B, C and F only
(C) A, C and E only (D) A, D and E only
Q.3 Ergot of Rye is caused by a species of (CBSE 2007)

(A) Ustilago (B) Claviceps (C) Erysiphe (D) Phytophithora
Q.4 Mycorrhiza is found in (DPMT 2007)

(A) Oligotrophic soil (B) Eutrophic soil
(C) Both A and B (D) None
3.66
Q.5 Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?
(A) Loose smut of wheat – Ustilago nuda
(B) Root – knot of vegetables – Meloidogyne sp.
(C) Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani
(D) Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis
Q.6 Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by (CBSE Main PMT 2010)
(A) Alternaria solani (B) Ustilago nuda
(C) Puccinia graminis (D) Xanthomonas oryzae
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Q.7 A plant disease in which the pathogen is seen as a cottony growth on the surface of the host is called
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(AMU Medical 2011)
(A) Downy mildew
(C) Smut
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(B) Damping off
(D) Rust
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Q.8 Match column I and Column II and select the correct option. (Kerala PMT 2011)
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Column I (Kingdom) Column II (Class)

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a. Morels 1. Deuteromycetes
b. Smut 2. Ascomycetes
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c. Bread mould 3. Basidiomycetes

d. Imperfect fungi 4. Zygomycetes
(A) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d - 2 (B) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1
(C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1 (D) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3
Q.9 Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their ganisms is
correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group ? (CBSE PMT Prelims 2012)
(A) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan
(B) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
(C) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of Protista
(D) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicililum
3.67
Q.10 Sexual reproductive structures in lichens are produced by (Chandigarh CET 2012)
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Both algae and fungi (D) Lichens remain vegetative and do not reproduce
Q.11 Wonder drug is extracted from (HP PMT 2012)

(A) Aspergillus (B) Claviceps (C) Penicillium (D) Albugo
Q.12 Coenocytic mycelium is a characteristic feature of (HP PMT 2012)

(A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes
Q.13 Which of the organism is used as food ? (HP PMT 2012)
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(A) Bracket fungi (B) Agaricus
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(C) Claviceps
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(D) Moulds
Q.14 Lichens are composite organisms consisting of an alga and …… (HP PMT 2012)
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(A) Mosses (B) Fungus (C) Protozoa (D) Bacterium

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Q.15 Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ? (AIPMT 2014)
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(A) Ustilago sp. (B) Morchella esculenta

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(C) Amanita muscaria (D) Neurospora sp.
Q.16 Bacteriophage release lysozyme during (UP CPMT 2007)

(A) Penetration phase (B) Eclipse phase
(C) Absorption phase (D) Maturation phase
Q.17 Dog distemper is a disease carried by a (Karnataka CET 2011)

(A) Bacterium (B) Viroid (C) Prion (D) Virus
Q.18 A virus differs from a bacterium as it contains (J & K CET 2011)

(A) A cell wall (B) Cytosol
(C) DNA as genetic material (D) DNA or RNA as genetic material with no ribosome
3.68
ANSWER KEY
Objectives Questions
Q.1. A Q.2. D Q.3. B Q.4. D Q.5. C Q.6. A
Q.7. C Q.8. B Q.9. B Q.10. C Q.11. C Q.12. A
Q.13. C Q.14. A Q.15. B Q.16. D Q.17. B Q.18. C
Q.19. B Q.20. A Q.21. C Q.22. B Q.23. C Q.24. C
Q.25. C Q.26. A Q.27. C Q.28. C Q.29. B Q.30. D
Q.31. B Q.32. C Q.33. B Q.34. C Q.35 C Q.36. B
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Q.37. A Q.38. D Q.39. A Q.40. A Q.41. A Q.42. D
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Q.43. B Q.44. B Q.45. B Q.46. A
al Q.47. A Q.48. C
Q.49. B Q.50. B Q.51. B Q.52. D Q.53. A Q.54. B
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Q.55. A Q.56. A Q.57. C Q.58. C Q.59. C Q.60. C
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Q.61. B Q.62. A Q.63. C Q.64. C Q.65. B Q.66. C

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Q.67. D Q.68. C Q.69. B Q.70. A Q.71. A Q.72. C

uj
Q.73. D Q.74. B Q.75. A Q.76. C Q.77. C Q.78. A

Q.79. D Q.80. B Q.81. C Q.82. D Q.83. B Q.84. D
Ed
Q.85. C Q.86. B Q.87. B Q.88. D Q.89. B Q.90. C

Q.91. B

Q.1. C Q.2. D Q.3. B Q.4. A Q.5. C Q.6. C
Q.7. A Q.8. B Q.9. B Q.10. B Q.11. C Q.12. A
Q.13. B Q.14. B Q.15. C Q.16. A Q.17. D Q.18. D
|VOL.I|Unit 1
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Plant Kingdom
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4.1
CHAPTER 4
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PLANT KINGDOM
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
The food that we eat comes from the plants and
INTRODUCTION trees. Basically all the green creatures on earth
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PLANT CLASSIFICATION SYSTEM produce food that can be used by consumers.

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This green world is too big to study and discover.

BRANCHES OF TAXONOMY Thus the need for classification of this green
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creatures to understand them, know their use for

ALGAE human welfare. The organisms were classified
in many kingdoms by various naturalist. The
BRYOPHYTA classification basis also changed each time. Plant
kingdom is the kingdom of organisms that have
PTERIDOPHYTA chlorophyll pigment in the leaves. This kingdom
includes class algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes,
GYMNOSPERMS gymnosperms and angiosperms. All the class
will have detailed characteristics and specific
ANGIOSPERMS (FLOWERING PLANTS OR features being described in detail.The life cycle
ANTHOPHYTES) changes in the group and also individuals which
is also discussed.
PLANT LIFE CYCLES AND ALTERNATION OF
GENERATIONS
4.2
Plant Kingdom
All the classification systems from Aristotle to present are broadly divided in two classifications:
y Historical classification: The systems from Aristotle to Candolle.
y Modern classifications: The classification pattern from Bentham to present time.
y Establish the interrelation between plant species.
y Evaluate each phylum with their common features and characteristics.
y Review the plants clearly with better knowledge of the kingdom.
2. Plant Classification System

Traditionally, all the organisms in plant kingdom were divided into two sub-kingdoms named as phanerogames
and cryptogames.
(i) Cryptogamae (kryptos-concealed, gamos-marriage): This kingdom includes all non-flowering plants e.g.
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algae, fungi lichen, mosses and ferns. There are three divisions of cryptogams namely thallophyta,
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bryophyte and pteridophyta.
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(ii) Phanerogamae (phaneros-visible, gamos-marriage): This kingdom accumulates all flowering and seed
bearing plants. The kingdom is also known as spermatophytes (sperma-seed, phyton-plant), since they
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produce seeds. These seed bearing plants are further divided into two divisions’ gymnospermae and
angiospermae. The division basis is the seed or ovule covering which is present in angiosperm as fruit
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or ovary and absent in gymnosperms.

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2.1 Early Attempts for Classification

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Aristotle with his Greek philosophers divided all the living organisms into two main groups: plants and
animals. Aristotle further divided plants into 3 classes-herbs, shrubs and trees. Charaka also called the
Ed
father of Ayurveda, in 1st century A.D., included 200 kinds of animals and 340 kinds of plants in his writings
‘Charaka Samhita’.
Flowchart 4.1: Branches of Plant Kingdom

4.3
Plant Kingdom
2.2 Artificial System of Classification

The basis of classification was on the few morphological characters in the vegetative nature, e.g., early
systems of classifications by Aristotle, Theophrastus, Pliny, Bauhin, Linnaeus etc. Artificial classification
was first given by Theophrastus for plants.The basis of grouping was habitat and the class were herbs,
shrubs, undershrubs and trees.
Carolos Linnaeus (1707-1997) proposed the Sexual System of classification which was an artificial system.
The basis of classification was the nature and number of stamens and carpels in a plant.
Classification by Linnaeus consisted of 24 classes, in which 23 classes included flowering plants
(Phanerogamae) and 24th class had non-flowering plants (Cryptogamae). Details of this classification were
published in Genera Plantarum (1737).
Total 24 classes given by Linnaeus were: Monandria, Diandria, Triandria, Tetrandria, Pentandria, Hexandria,
Heptandria, Octandria, Enneandria, Decandria, Dodecandria, Icosandria, Polyandria, Didynamia,
Tetradynamia, Monadelphia, Diadelphia, Polyadelohia, Syngenesia, Gynandria, Mcnoecia, Dioecia,
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Polygamia and Cryptogamia.
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Drawbacks
together in few groups.

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y This system was based on less number of characters, hence the diverse animals or plants were grouped
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y Natural affinities and phylogenetic relationships did not make place in the classification.
y The artificial system rated vegetative and sexual characters of plants with equal weightage which was
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not acceptable. The reason being the vegetative characters more prone to environmental changes.
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2.3 Natural System of Classification

Ed
This is horizontal system of classification or 2 D system. The basis for classification is natural affinities.
There are several taxonomic characters used as possible to classify organisms. This classification is mainly
based on organism forms, relationship realising all information available at the time of collection of plants,
internal features like ultrastructure, anatomy, embryology and phytochemistry.
The natural systems were proposed with several basis, major ones was from John Ray, de Jussiaeu, de
Candolle, Bentham and Hooker etc. George Bentham and J.D. Hooker classified plants specifically angiosperms
and published it in three volumes of ‘Genera Plantarum’. They described 202 families on the basis of their
detailed studies and dissections. This system is followed in all British Commonwealth countries including India.
2.4 Phylogenetic System of Classification

Lamarck coined phylogeny and the concept of phylogeny came from E. Haeckel. Phylogeny is the evolutionary
history of the organism. This system is named as ‘3D’ or vertical system also. In this system, plants are classified
according to their evolutionary and genetic affinities. There is a common ancestor for the organisms that belong
to same taxa which is easily represented in the form of family tree called Cladogram.
4.4
Plant Kingdom
A.W. Eichler modified Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification and placed gymnosperms in the
beginning of chart. He is also called as the pioneer of phylogenetic system of classification.
Adolph Engler and Karl A.E. Prantl, two german botanists, adopted their system in “Die Naturalichen
Pflanzen Familien” (1887-1915). The work was in 23 volumes in german language later being translated in
English.
Merits: In this system families are arranged in increasing complexity of flowers.
Demerits: Monocots were considered primitive to dicots.
According to this system, primitive forms that had naked flowers were kept initially. The more advanced
families have distinct perianth.
Hutchinson, Oswald Tippo, also proposed phylogenetic systems of classification.
John Hutchinson, an English botanist, proposed phylogenetic classification and published in a famous book
‘Families of Flowering plants’ in 1959.
In Hutchinson’s classification:
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(i) Trees and shrubs were believed to be more primitive than herbs.
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(ii) Dicots were thought as more primitive than monocots.
zygomorphic and inflorescences respectively.

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(iii) Polypetalous, actinomorphic and solitary flowers are considered more primitive than gamopetalous,
The divisions include orders that include families. Division does not include classes.
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3. Branches of Taxonomy
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3.1 Classical Taxonomy

The basis of classification was natural affinities. These affinities or relationships indicate all information
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available at the time the plant sample was collected, e.g., natural systems of classification.
3.2 NumericalTaxonomy/Phenetics/Taximetrics/Adansonian Taxonomy
The numerical methods was used to evaluate the similarities and differences between the species. For this,
all characters are assigned number and codes. Then, all possible characters are compared by sophisticated
calculating machines and computers without giving emphasis on a particular character. All characters that
were analysed are equally important. The organization and analysis of data forms the core of this taxonomy.
The family tree prepared of the phenetics basis is called dendrogram.
3.3 Cytotaxonomy/Karyotaxonomy
Cytological information of the cell, chromosome number, structure and behaviour of chromosomes during
meiosis is the basis for classification.
4.5
Plant Kingdom
3.4 Biochemical (Chemotaxonomy)

It is related with the plant chemical properties, for example, aromatic compound giving fragrance, specific
crystal structures of calcium oxalate (raphides) or calcium carbonate (cystolith) being present. The
sequencing of DNA and chemical nature of proteins have also been used in this taxonomy.
Taxonomy is divided into three types by Turril.
y α (Alpha) Taxonomy: The collection and identification of organism is the basis of gross morphology.
y β (Beta) Taxonomy: The collection and identification of organism on the basis of morphology as well as
all the possible evidences from cytology, anatomy, physiology and genetics.
y ω (Omega) Taxonomy: The basis is microscopic observation and biochemical evidences.
TRY IT YOURSELF
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Provide one word for the taxonomic study that uses chemical constituent of the plants to
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resolve confusion.
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1. _______ is based upon natural affinities among the organisms.
2. _______ system of plant classification was based on androecium structure.
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3. The book “Families of Flowering Plants” was written by ______
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The Classification System of Plant Kingdom

y Thallophyta
Ed
y Bryophyta
y Pteridophyta
y Gymnosperms
y Angiosperms.
4. Class Thallophyta or Algae

The branch of science that deals with algae is called algology or phycology.
The main characteristics of algae are:
y Usually aquatic, found in marine and fresh water, even on moist stones, soil and wood.
y Starch is the reserve food.
4.6
Plant Kingdom
y Vascular tissues are absent. As they live in water, its conduction is a waste even for giant forms.
y Nutrition mode is autotrophic.
y Vegetative reproduction by means of fragmentation.
y Reproduction is with asexual mode by means of Mitospores like – Zoospores, Aplanospores,
Hypnospores, Akinetes, and Palmella stage.
y Sex organs are non-jacketed, unicellular or multicellular (e.g., Chara) and each reproductive cell is
fertile.
y Sexual reproduction is through the gametic fusion which can be isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy in
different groups.
y Life cycle may be-haplontic, diplontic or diplohaplontic.
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
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Flowchart 4.1: Division of Algae

F.E.Fritsch (1935) in his book Structure and Reproduction of the Algae proposed a partial and
sound classification of algae. Algae were divided in 11 classes on the basis of pigmentation,
reserve food, flagellation, thallus structure and mode of reproduction.
4.7
Plant Kingdom
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Kingdom Plantae of Whittaker (1969) includes mainly these types of algae- red algae, brown
algae and green algae.
Table 4.1: Characteristics of some algae
Name of algae Photosynthetic pigments Cell wall Type of Flagella
reserve food
Chlorophyll Other
Red algae a+d Phycobilins Cellulose Floridean Absent
(Rhodophyceae) (Phycoerythrin and agar starch
and
Phycocyanin)
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Brown algae a+c Fucoxanthin Cellulose Laminarian 2,
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(Phaeophyceae) and algin starch, Heterokont
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inserted
Green algae a+b Beta-carotene Cellulose Starch 2-8,
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(Chlorophyceae) and other lsokont &

carotenoids anterior
position
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4.1 Red Algae – Rhodophyceae

y Marine (in warmer areas) water growing in deep waters and surface waters.
y Autotrophic.
y Non-motile and hence no flagellate stage.
y The plant body varies from unicellular (e.g., Porphyridium), filamentous (e.g., Asterocystis),
parenchymatous sheets (e.g., Porphyra), ribbons (e.g, Chondrus) to graceful lace-like sea weeds
(e.g., Gelidium).
y Cell wall is made of cellulose, pectic compounds and sulphated polysaccharides that is called as
phycocolloids. The important phycocolloids of Rhodophytes are agar and carrageenan.
4.8
Plant Kingdom
(A) (B)
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Figure 4.1: Red algae growing A. In clusters and B. A part showing main axis and branches
y
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The photosynthetic organelles unstacked or free thylakoids that are called as chromatophores.
y Photosynthetic pigments in red algae are chlorophyll a, d, carotenoids and phycobilins. Phycobilins are
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water soluble pigments like, red coloured phycoerythrin, blue coloured phycocyanin and allophycocyanin
(similar pigmentsalso occur in blue green algae).
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y Reserve food is in the form of floridean starch (in constitution, it is very much similar to glycogen).
uj
Soluble galactoside glycerol - fluoridoside is also found.

y The algae has its colour due to presence of phycoerythrin. It absorbs blue green wavelengths of light.
Ed
These light are found in deep water because of their shorter wavelengths. Therefore, red algae are found
to be growing in deep sea where photosynthetic organisms are unable to grow. However, rhodophytes
are living in shallower water also where they have presence of normal light hence they do not synthesize
much phycoerythrin that causes the red colour. They are greenish, violet or purplish on the surface water
(e.g., Batrachosperum is bluish green in colour).
y Fragmentation constitutes vegetative reproduction.
y Asexual reproduction occurs with many non-motile spores like neutral spores, monospores, tetraspores,
carpospores etc.
y Sexual reproduction is through oogamous formation which is highly advanced mode. Once the zygote is
formed there is complex post fertilization changes that occur. The male sex organ is called spermatangium
or antheridium which produces spermatium (non-flagellate male gamete). The female sex organ is
called as carpogonium which is flask-shaped. Carpogonium possesses an elongated neck like receptor
trichogyne. Spermatia are carried by water currents to trichogyne tips for affecting fertilization.
4.9
Plant Kingdom
y Alternation of haploid and diploid multicellular generations occur in many algae.
Economic importance
y Phycocolloids: They include agar, carrageenan and funori. Agar is extracted from Gelidium and
Gracilaria. Agar forms the solidifying laboratory culture media that is used for microbes. Also it is added
as stabiliser or thickener in the industrial preparation of jellies, puddings, creams, cheese, bakery, etc.
Carrageenan has clearing properties and thus is used in liquors, leather finishing and as emulsifier in
chocolates, ice-creams, toothpastes, paints etc. It is extracted from Chondrus. Funori is a glue, used as
adhesive and is sizing textiles, paper etc. It is obtained from Gloiopeltis.
y Food: Many red algae are edible, e.g., Porphyra (Laver), Rhodymenia (Dulse), Chondrus (Irish moss).
Rhodymenia (also called sheep’s weed) is also used in feeding animals.
DID YOU KNOW
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Batrachosperum is a fresh water red algae.
?
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contribute to coral reef formation.
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Some red algae have deposits of CaCO3 on their body surface, like Corallina, these
Harveyella is a parasitic, colourless red algae.

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4.2 Brown Algae - Phaeophyceae

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y Marine habitat.
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y The body has great variation in size and form. All of them are multicellular. The body may have a
branched filamentous structure in lower forms (e.g., Ectocarpus) while parenchymatous structure in
higher forms (e.g., Saragassum, Laminaria, Fucus, and Macrocystis).
y Brown algae have the largest algae among all. The large brown algae are called kelps having a height
of 100 m. Macrocystis and Nereocystis are largest kelps.
Figure 4.2: Brown algae showing differences among them.

4.10
Plant Kingdom
Table 4.2: Characteristics of Brown Algae

Number 2000 species of multicellular organisms. Largest species are
kelps, having size of 60-100 meters. Unicellular forms are absent.
Habitat Marine water, on rocks in tidal zone
Appearance Prominent brownish sea weeds with green touch.
Size 60-100 meters long
Pigment Chlorophyll a and c, fucoxanthin (brown colour)
Colour Brownish green
Storage product Laminarin starch and mannitol
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Flagella Normal
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Cell wall Inner cellulose layer and outer mucilaginous layer, phycocolloid
Reproduction
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like algin forming gelatinous layer
Fragmentation, Sporulation, Isogamy, Anisogamy, and oogamy
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Examples Sargassum, Dictyota, Ectocarpus
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y The plant body shows hold fast (for attachment), stipe (stalk) and lamina (frond leaf like photosynthetic
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organ). Saragassum and Fucus species are free floating. Free floating forms get attached to the bottom
part of ships thus causing problem. The large forms have air vesicles or bladders on the surface for
Ed
providing buoyancy.
y Phycocolloids prevents desiccation in low tide, freezing when temperature is low and injury against
rock clashing. The brown colour of algae is due to the presence of large amount of xanthophyll called
fucoxanthin.
y Cells contain refractile vesicles called as the fucosan vesicles. The vesicles contain a phenolic chemical
named fucosan. Fucosan is colourless inside water but becomes brown or black on exposure to air.
y Conducting tubes or trumpet hyphae to transfer food from lamina to holdfast are present in larger brown
algae or kelps.
y Vegetative reproduction occurs through fragmentation (e. g., Sargassum), adventitious branches,
stolons (e.g., Dictyota) etc.
y Asexual reproduction occurs with the help of both motile and non-motile spores. The motile spores
are zoospores having pear shaped heterokont flagellation with one smooth whiplash flagellum and the
other similar to tinsel type (hairy). These are laterally inserted. Spores in Phaeophyceae are produced
in different types of sporangia:
4.11
Plant Kingdom
y Unicellular sporangia- Biflagellate zoospores are produced meiotically. These zoospores (n) then
produce haploid plant or gametophyte after germination.
y Plurilocular or neutral sporangia- Diploid plants are the surfaces on which these multicellular sporangia
are produced. Zoospores (2n) are formed by mitosis in large number and on germination gives rise to
diploid plants.
y Sexual reproduction includes isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy.
y Gametes are non-motile in isogamy and anisogamy.
y Some brown algae show isomorphic alternation of generations, e.g., Ectocarpus, Dictyota. Haploid
and diploid generations have similar structure. Dominant phase is diploid generation or phase. The
haploid generation or phase is either microscopic or represented by gametes only (e.g., Fucus and
Sargassum). Heteromorphic alternation of generation is found in Laminaria.
DID YOU KNOW
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? Saragassum species (gulf weed) in North Atlantic ocean are floating on the sea surface
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that cover a large area. This area is popularly called as Sargasso sea.
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Economic importance
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y Iodine: Fucus and Laminaria contain rich amounts of iodine while Macrocystis and Nereocystis contain
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abundant potash.
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y Medicines: Sodium laminarin sulphate produced from Laminaria is used as blood anticoagulant. Durvilea
has worm expelling properties.
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y Food: A number of brown algae are food supplements in some countries, e.g., Laminaria (Kombu),
Macrocystis, Sargassum and Alaria (Sarumen). The edible brown algae are also used as fodder.
y Alginic acid: It is phycocolloid which is obtained commercially from a number of brown algae including
the giant ones (e.g., Laminaria, Macrocystis, Nereocystis, Fucus, Sargassum). Alginic acid and its salts
are used in forming emulsions (ice creams, ointments, tooth pastes, Cosmetics, creams, shampoos,
etc.), sizing textiles, flame proof plastics and sound proofing.
4.12
Plant Kingdom
4.3 Green Algae – Chlorophyceae

Table 4.3: Characteristics of Green Algae
Number 7000 species of green algae live in this world. Largest are kelps
having size of 60-100 meters. Unicellular forms are absent.
Habitat Marine water, fresh water.
Appearance Variety of shapes are there with greenish shade.
Size Varying sizes from unicellular ones to large kelps.
Pigment Chlorophyll a and b, carotene and xanthophylls
Colour Green
Storage product Pyrenoid: central protein and outer starch
Flagella Present in motile species
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Cell wall Cellulose in microfibril is inner layer while pectone is outer layer
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Reproduction Isogamy, Anisogamy, and Oogamy
Examples al
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Volvox
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A B C
Figure 4.3: Image showing green algae. A. A colony of growing algae,
B. Algal cell with flagella and C. Its branches and axis
y Chloroplast include variety of shapes like: Spiral in Spirogyra, Star shaped in Zygnema, Cup shaped in
Chlamydomonas, Girdle / Horse shoe shaped in Ulothrix and Discoid in Chlorella.
y Fragmentation forms vegetative reproduction.
y Asexual reproduction occurs with formation of flagellated spores. The common asexual organs are
zoospores, aplanospores, hypnospores, akinetes, autospores, etc.
y Life cycle has three phases in green algae –Haplontic, Diplontic and Diplohaplontic.
O In haplontic life cycle, haploid condition of the chromosome is dominant phase. Zygotic meiosis
occurs, e.g., Ulothrix, Spirogyra, and Chlamydomonas.
4.13
Plant Kingdom
O In diplontic life cycle, the chromosome has diploid condition as the dominant phase in the alga.
Haploid gametes are formed through meiosis (gametic meiosis, e.g., Caulerpa).
O In haplodiplontic life cycle, fully developed multicellular haploid and diploid thallus occurs. Sporic
meiosis is the specific characteristic here, e.g., Ulva, Cladophora.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Based upon habitat green algae may be:
Table 4.4: Characteristics of Green Algae based on Habitat
General name Specific name Habitat
Cryophyte Chlamydomonas nivalis Snow
Endozoic (inside body of
Zoochlorella Inside Hydra
animals)
n
Epizoic (on the surface of Crustaceans, Cladophora on
Characium
.i
animals) molluscan shells
Symbiotic
Parasitic Cephaleuros sps
n al
Trebouxia and Trentepohlia Lichen
Causing red rust of tea and coffee
ur
Green algae have various forms of Thallus:
Table 4.5: Examples of Green Algae
o
Flagella Organisms
uj
Unicellular flagellate Chlamydomonas

Unicellular nonflagellate Chlorella, Acetabularia
Ed
Flagellate colonies Volvox

Nonflagellate colonies Hydrodictyon
Unbranched filament Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Oedogonium
Simple branched Cladophora
Heterotrichous Draparnaldia, Stigeoclonium, Coleochaete, Fritschiella
Parenchymatous Ulva
Scientist believe that Green algae are ancestors of terrestrial plants. There are various
evidences to support this belief of the Chlorophyceae origin of land plants:
y Cell wall structure is similar with cellulose and pectic compounds present in both the groups.
y Chlorophyll a and b are reaction centres in photosynthesis for green algae and land plants.
The carotenoid pigments are also similar.
y Storage compound is starch, a carbohydrate in both the groups.
4.14
Plant Kingdom
Economic importance
y Codium and Ulva (Sea lettuce) are dried and salted then used as salad or vegetable in European countries.
y Chlorella pyrenoidosa (called space alga) is used in best and various ways by exobiologists. The main uses
include for food, disposal of CO2 making O2 available to them and organic waste in prolonged space flight.
y Cephaleuros virescence – a parasitic green alga which cause red rust of tea disease.
Positive Importance
(i) Algae as Food
Constitutes an important food source for the fishes and aquatic animals, even mammals and other animals
along with man directly or indirectly. Miller (1972) suggested that algae can be used in the production of
protein rich human food. People in some countries like China and Japan have started using algae as a
source of food. Algae food are, Chlorella, Porphyra, Ulva, Chondrus, Laminaria, Alaria, Nostoc, Codium,
Rhodymenia and Monostroma.
n
(ii) Algae as Fodder
.i
Many sea weeds such as Ascophyllum, Fucus, Laminaria, Sargassum and Rhodymenia are used to feed
al
animals (sheep, goats, cattle and poultry) as fodder in many countries. The chopped kelps are given to
sheep and chickens.
n
ur
Planktonic algae constitute the major food for several fresh water and marine animals such as protozoans,
crustaceans and fishes. Fishes form an important protein source for humans, which is why algae is an indirect food.
o
(iii) Algae in the Industry

uj
Commercial products are obtained from algae. Some of them are as follows:
Ed
(a) Agar agar: Jelly like non-nitrogenous product, which is extracted in water from a number of red algae
like Gelidium, Gracilaria, and Chondrus. A complex polysaccharide made up of agarose and agaropectin
produced and stored in the cell walls along with the usual cellulose. It is soluble in hot water, and
solidifies when the water cools. Agar is used as a stabilizer or emulsifier in industries like food stuffs,
cosmetics, leather, medicines and paper. It is also used in textiles, baking, meat industry, preservation
and canning of fish. Medicinally in lotions it is used as a laxative. Agar is used widely in the culture media
preparation in several pathological and tissue culture laboratories.
(b) Carrageenin: Similar to agar with a complex polysaccharide that has esterified sulphate. Extracted from
the cell walls of Chondrus crispus and Gigartina. It is widely used as a stabilizer in the emulsions present
in paints and cosmetics. Also used in textiles, leather, breweries, food and pharmaceutical industry.
(c) Alginates: Salts of alginic acid are called as alginates. These are extracted from the cell walls of many
brown algae like Laminaria, Macrocystis, Ascophyllum, Facus, Lessonia, and Sargassum etc. The
polysaccharide is made up of glucuronic acid and manuronic acid. Alginates are used as stabilizers,
4.15
Plant Kingdom
emulsifiers, gelling agents and filters. They have thickening properties and thus used in the preparation
of soup, sauce, jelly’s, creams, printing ink etc. Also used in the preparation of dental impression powder,
ointments, dressing materials and to stop bleeding.
(d) Diatomite: The diatoms after death get fossilized and deposited in the sedimentary rocks called as
known as diatomite. Big deposits of Diatomite are found at Lompoc in California. Diatomite is white, soft
and porous substance which is insoluble, chemically inert and heat resistant. Its uses are common as
filter, absorbent and insulator in oil and chemical industries, furnaces, refrigerators, sound proof rooms,
tooth powder etc.
(e) Mucilage: Extracted from Carrageenan and Chondrus etc., used as stiffening agent in cosmetics, shaving
creams, shoe polish, shampoos etc.
(f) Minerals and elements: Brown seaweeds like kelps are rich in some minerals. Soda and iodine are
extracted from Laminaria, Fucus and Macrocystis etc. Bromine is obtained from Rhodomella and
n
Polyschiphonia. Other important minerals such as copper, cobalt, iron, zinc, manganese, vanadium,
.i
potash, boron and chromium are also obtained from many seaweeds.
(iv) Algae in agriculture

n al
(a) Nitrogen fixation: Many blue green algae fix atmospheric nitrogen into soil and enrich the nitrogen content
ur
of soil. E.g. Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatoria and many others.
(b) Soil reclamation: The barren and alkaline soils is made fertile with the help of the growth of blue green
o
algae. They decrease the pH and increase the nitrogen, phosphorus, organic matter and water holding
uj
capacity of the soil.

(c) Soil formation and conservation: Some algae grow symbiotically in the thallus of lichens. The lichens
Ed
are the pioneers of plant succession on barren rocks forming primary soil. Some algae like Anabaena,
Tolypothrix and Lyngbya help in soil conservation by preventing soil erosion.
(d) Fertilizers and manures: Seaweeds are widely utilized as manures around the coast as they are rich in
potassium, phosphorus, microelements and some growth substance. The blue green algae have higher
nitrogen and phosphorus amounts. Hence a mixture made from seaweeds and blue green algae can
be a good fertilizer source. In India, Turbinaria, Anabaenopsis and Spirulina are used as fertilizers and
green manure.
(v) Algae in sewage disposal
Direct sewage disposal affects the water bodies and environments badly. Sewage includes organic
and inorganic materials while less oxygen. It can be decomposed in presence of oxygen with the help
of unicellular algae like Euglena, Chlorella, and Scenedesmus etc. The sewage is rich in sulphur,
phosphorus, nitrogen, potassium and other mineral nutrients and free from harmful substances. The
algae perform photosynthesis that produce oxygen which can be utilized by the bacteria for further
sewage decomposition. The treated sewage water can be used in irrigation and as fertilizer.
4.16
Plant Kingdom
(vi) Algae in medicine

(a) Algae produce antibacterial substances which are effective against a number of Gram-positive and Gram
negative bacteria. Chlorellin is the first antibiotic extracted from Chlorella in 1944. Some other algae like
Ascophyllum, Halidrys, Laminaria, Cladophora, Lyngbya and Polysiphonia can also yield antibiotics.
(b) Many seaweeds have high content of iodine which makes its uses in the preparation of various goitre
medicine.
(c) The members of Chorales can kill larvae and thus prove as helpful in checking the mosquitoes.
(d) Agar agar is also used in medicines in pills and ointments as a laxative in a number of medicines.
(e) Carrageenan is used as a blood coagulant.
(f) Many algae like Corallina and Codium are used in the preparation that are commonly used in the
treatment of kidney, bladder and lung diseases.
(vii) Algae in space research
Recently, unicellular green algae Chlorella and Scenedesmus have made a place which is useful in the
n
space research programme. Carbon dioxide and other body wastes like urine and faces of astronauts
are produced in the space which can be decomposed by these algae and produce oxygen and food.
.i
(viii) Algae in natural fuel resources al
The petroleum and natural gas resources are organic substances which are also contributed from the
n
marine algae. The planktons feed upon the marine animals and the dead remains of marine animals and
ur
plants and then, get accumulated at sea bottom lastly buried in the sedimentary rocks. These molecules
were decomposed anaerobically which were converted into oil and gas.
o
Negative
uj
(i) Toxicity
Many algae produce toxins which can affect aquatic animals to an extent of even death. Toxins produced
Ed
by Pymmensium parvum, Gymnodinium veneficum, Microcystis and Gonyaulax are poison for fishes and
other aquatic animals. Some toxin producing planktonic algae can also be consumed by human beings
through drinking water and affect health with diseases. Anabaena and Microcystis cause gastric troubles,
Gymnodinium brevis cause respiratory disorders and Lyngbya and Chlorella cause skin infections.
(ii) Parasitism
Cephaleuros which is a green algae, is parasitic in nature and cause red rust of tea. Polysiphonia
fastigata is a parasite on a brown alga-Ascophyllum nodosum.
(iii) Damage
Some seaweeds have ability to grow on metallic and wood-work in the ships and boats causing fouling,
corroding and destruction. Some algae also grow on the walls of historical buildings and monuments and
affect the appearance thus spoil them. Some algae destroy textiles and also reduce the quality of water
through contamination. Anacystis and Chaetophora corrode the concrete and metallic walls commonly
found in pipes and boilers as they secrete carbonic acid, oxalic acid and silicic acid on them during their
growth.
4.17
Plant Kingdom
(iv) Other effects

Algal growth in water reservoirs (ponds, pools and lake) causes the loss of aesthetic and fishing values.
Oscillatoria, Spirogyra and Diatoms grow in water changing its taste and colour, foul odour and clog
the water filters. Some excrete toxins in water to make it unfit for drinking. Algae contamination cause
changes in pH, concentration of CO2, bicarbonate and oxygen in water.
4.4 Life Cycle Patterns of Chlamydomonas, Ulothrix and Spirogyra

4.4.1 Life Cycle of Chlamydomonas
Chlamydomonas has these special characteristics: eukaryotic, unicellular, micrometres size, pyriform,
biflagellate green algae. The common habitats are stationary fresh water and marine water that is rich in
ammonium salts. The alga shows presence of: apical papilla, two contractile vacuoles used in osmoregulation
and excretion, a basin-shaped or cup-like chloroplast that performs photosynthesis, it has a red eye spot that
has photosensitivity. Cell wall is made up of glycoproteins with hydroxyproline and not the usual cellulose.
n
Neuromotor apparatus causes the cells locomotion, and the structure has – Rhizoplast, Paradesmos,
.i
Basal granule and Centrosome. Both the flagella are whiplash type. The chloroplasts is cup shaped which
has a single Pyrenoid.
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.4: Cell structure of Chlamydomonas

(i) Asexual Reproduction
Asexual reproduction involves four methods:
y Zoospores:
O Formed under favourable conditions.
O A mature algae after losing its flagella comes to rest.
4.18
Plant Kingdom
O The protoplasm contracts and then forms 2 – 16 daughter protoplasts after longitudinal division.
O Then daughter protoplasts have flagella developed and get transformed into zoospores.
.i n
n al
Figure 4.5: Zoospore formation in Chlamydomonas.
ur
A. Vegetative cell, B – E. Zoospore formation. F. Zoospore liberation

o
uj
y Palmella stage: It is formed when there is water insufficient,the cells lose their flagella.
O Their cell walls undergo gelatinisation to form mucilage.
Ed
O The cells now become almost naked and grow, divide repeatedly to form large number of cells inside
the mucilage.
O When they get enough water, the mucilage then gets dissolved and release the cells that transform
into new flagellate individuals.
Figure 4.6: Cell division in Palmella stage in a Chlamydomonas

4.19
Plant Kingdom
y Aplanospores and hypnospores: They are formed when encounter drought conditions.
O The protoplasts of each cell contracts, separates from the cell wall, circulates itself and secretes a
thin (aplanospores) or thick (hypnospores) wall around itself which is then called as a spore.
DID YOU KNOW

? Red snow is sometimes visible in cold regions. This is the colour given by abundant
occurrence of hypnospores produced from C. nivalis. Hypnospores contain a red
pigment called as the haematochrome.
(ii) Sexual Reproduction

The last stage of growing season.
n
Various types of fusion occurs – isogamy (similar gametes fusion, e.g., C, debaryana), hologamy (young
cells fusion, e.g., C. media), anisogamy (gametes of different sizes fusion, e.g., C. braunii) and oogamy
.i
(fusion involving a small motile gamete and a non-motile larger female gamete or egg, e.g., C. coccifera).
n al
The gametes that are compatible undergo fusion and form a diploid zygote. This zygote secretes a thick
wall around itself to form a resting diploid spore called as the zygospore. Under favourable conditions,
haploid zoospores are formed in the zygospore after meiosis (meiospores or meiozoospores).
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.7: Sexual reproduction in Chlamydomonas showing various phases

4.20
Plant Kingdom
4.4.2 Life Cycle of Ulothrix (Winter Alga)

Ulothrix is a green algae with an unbranched filament,algae
grows in aerated fresh water of rain puddles, lakes and slow
moving streams. The filament consists of a large number of
rectangular cells arranged in a single row. The lowermost cell
in the arrangement is non-green, non-dividing, rhizoidal cell that
takes care in attachment of the cell to substratum. The cells above
this layer are green in colour as they have single girdle-shaped
chloroplast at parietal position in the cellthat has a few pyrenoids.
The somatic cells lack an eye spot. Cell wall have inner cellulosic
layer and outer protopectin layer which is insoluble in water and
hence their filaments appear like wet threads. Figure 4.8: Cell structure of Ulothrix
Reproduction
n
The algae multiplies by several means i.e., vegetatively, asexually and sexually.
.i
(i) Vegetative reproduction
Fragmentation.
n al
(ii) Asexual reproduction
ur
Zoospores, aplanospores, hypnospores, akinetes and palmella stage.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 4.9: Asexual reproduction in Ulothrix

4.21
Plant Kingdom
Zoospores are produced only when the cell is in favourable conditions. Any green cell is able to function
as zoosporangium. The protoplasts contracts and moves away from the cell wall. It undergoes bipartition
division and forms 2-32 similar daughter protoplasts. The protoplasts may transform into quadriflagellate
macro, quadriflagellate micro or biflagellate micro zoospores. Zoospores contain eye spot and contractile
vacuoles. Zoospores are liberated through a lateral pore in the wall. Each zoos pore gives rise to a new
filament after its germination.
(iii) Sexual reproduction

The end phase of growing season. Each green cell behaves like a gametangium and produces 8 – 64
biflagellate gametes that is similar to zoospore formation. There is diploid zygote formation with compatible
isogametes that fuse in pairs. The zygote then circularizes and secretes a thick wall around itself to produce
diploid resting spores called as the zygospore. Under favourable conditions, each zygospore produces 4
meiospores (meiozoospores or meioaplanospores) which on germination give rise to new filaments.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.10: reproduction phases of Ulothrix

4.22
Plant Kingdom
4.4.3 Life Cycle of Spirogyra (Summer Algae)

Spirogyra:It has common names as pond scum, summer algae,
princess hairs or water silk. Unbranched green filamentous algae,
which is freely floating on the fresh water ponds. The algae has
mucilage layer covering. The filament consists of a large number of
green cells that are cylindrical in shape attached at the ends in a
single row. All the cells are similar in size and shape, autotrophic
mode, and capable of growth and division. A non-green holdfast or
hapteron occurs for attachment with the substratum in species
such as S. jogensis, S. adnata. A cell contains 1 – 16 chloroplasts
which is spirally coiled (left handed) and ribbon shaped. Each
chloroplast contains a row of pyrenoids arranged linearly. The
nucleus is present attached with the cytoplasmic strands in the
central vacuole. Cell wall is double layered which consists of inner
n
cellulose and outer pectin layers. This pectin forms a slimy sheath
.i
in water as it dissolves to make the filament slippery when touched.
Reproduction
n al Figure 4.11: Cell structure of
Spirogyra
(i) Vegetative reproduction
ur
Reproduces vegetatively through fragmentation.

o
(ii) Asexual reproduction

uj
Generally absent, except following means –

y Parthenospores / Azygospores formation in S. varians (if placed in sugar solution).
Ed
y Akinetes formation in S. fariowi
(iii) Sexual reproduction

Reproduce through conjugation i.e. fusion of gametangia. Conjugation of two main types takes place –
Scalariform and Lateral.
4.23
Plant Kingdom
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Scalariform Conjugation: This is more familiar type in both homo and heterothallic species.
At least two opposite filaments are involved. The two young cells of the opposite filaments
develop a tube that is purely for conjugation processes. The common cell wall between the
two conjugating cells dissolves to form a transverse conjugation tube between both the cells.
The two protoplasts of the cells function as non-motile gametes. From the two gametes, one
gamete is more active which is called as the male gamete, while the other gamete is less active
called as female gamete. The male gamete travels in the conjugation tube, reaches and fuses
with the female gamete in the cell. The fusion product is the diploid zygote that develops a wall
around itself and attains a resting zygospore, e.g., Spirogyra tuwensis.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 4.12: Reproduction and exchange of gametes in Spirogyra

o
uj
Lateral Conjugation: Less common and primitive method. Two adjacent cells that have the
same filament function as gametangia. A lateral passage can be developed between the two
Ed
cells (indirect lateral conjugation) or the common septum may create a pore in it (direct lateral
conjugation). The protoplasts along with the gamete of male cell migrate into the female cell
through the tube. They fuse into one cell to form diploid zygote and then zygospore.
4.24
Plant Kingdom
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
When this zygospore meets the favourable conditions it germinates. The diploid nucleus
forms four haploid nuclei after the meiosis division of the spore. From all the haploid nuclei,
threedegenerate and one is intact. The protoplast and the haploid nucleus enlarges with
growth, breaks the wall around it and emerges outwards as a germ tube. The germ tube
formed then develops into a new filament.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 4.13: Reproduction and exchange of gametes in Spirogyra
through lateral conjugation
o
uj
TRY IT YOURSELF
Ed
1. __________ apparatus regulates the locomotion in Chlamydomonas.

2. Pond scum is the common name for ______.
3. Eye spot is present in the somatic cells of Ulothrix. True or false
4. _______ conjugation is primitive type and quite uncommon in Spirogyra.
5. Class Bryophyta
Small group of plants that have multicellular diploid sporophyte.
The evolutionary evidences indicate that Class bryophytes are intermediate to Class algae and pteridophyta.
They constitute the first amphibians in the plant kingdom. The oldest fossils of bryophyte found are about
350 million years old.
4.25
Plant Kingdom
General Characters of Bryophyta

y Damp, humid and shaded habitats are favourite for bryophytes.
y They grow over the surface of damp soil, rocks, walls, tree trunks in rainy seasons and form green
carpets or mats on them.
y The dominant phase is the plant body which is a free living gametophyte (haploid). The plant body has
thallus like structure which can be prostrate or erect.
y They lack well developed vascular tissues (xylem and phloem).
y They contain simple thin walled parenchymatous cells in the body.
y Rhizoids are present for the attachment to the surface instead of true stem, leaf and roots.The rhizoids
may be unicellular (e.g., Riccia and Anthoceros) or multicellular (e.g., mosses).
y Vegetative reproduction occurs through fragmentation, tubers, gamete formation, budding, adventitious
branches etc.
n
y Asexual reproduction with mitospores does not takes place.
.i
al
y Sex reproduction is oogamous type. The organs are different, covered and multicellular. Antheridium is
the male organ and archegonium the female one. The jacket / covered cells are sterile (Bryophytes are
n
first archegoniate).
ur
y Antherozoid is the male gamete produced from antheridium. It has twisted and comma shape and two
flagella for motion.
o
y The male gamete require an external layer of water for it to swim and reach the archegonia. Hence, the
uj
class is called as amphibians of plant kingdom.

y Zygote undergo reduction division after a while following fusion. Zygote divides by mitosis after the
Ed
development inside the archegonia to produce embryo (so these are considered as first bryophytes).
The embryo then develops into a sporophyte and transforms into parasite over the gametophyte (may
be partial parasite as in mosses).
y The sporophyte in the bryophytes is also called as the sporangium. It consists the following three parts:
capsule, seta and foot. It remains attached to the gametophyte and produces meiospores or haploid
spores while being inside the capsule part (after meiosis in spore mother cells).
y All bryophytes produce similar / one type of spores (homospores).
y Each spore produces a gametophyte when it germinates. This is either directly or indirectly through
formation of a juvenile filamentous stage that is called as protonema, e.g., in mosses).
y The life cycle of bryophytes have heteromorphic or heterologous alternation in the new generations
which is called as the haplodiplontic life cycle.
4.26
Plant Kingdom
.i n
Figure 4.14: Diagram of a Bryophyte
al
n
DID YOU KNOW
ur
Robert Braun coined the term Bryophyta. The scientific study of bryophytes is called as
bryology.
o
? Hedwig is called the “Father of bryology”. Prof. Shiv Ram Kashyap is called as the
uj
“Father of Indian Bryology”.

Ed
Examples of Aquatic bryophytes are:Riccia fluitans, Ricciocarpus, Fontinails and Riella.

Examples of Saprophytic bryophytes are Buxabaumia and Cryptothallus, while Frullania
is an epiphytic form.
Economic Importance of Bryophytes

y Peat: Sphagnum is a bryophyte grows in acidic marshy areas. The dead parts of mosses and other
marshy plants decay slowly and get carbonised, compressed and finally fossilised over a long period.
This produces a dark spongy carbon mass called as peat. This Peat is extracted from ores and then
dried, compressed and cut to form small blocks. The peat blocks are then used as fuel and good manure.
It helps to overcome soil alkalinity and also increases its water retention and aeration capacity.
y Water retention: Dry Sphagnum can absorb and retain good amounts of water. This characteristic is
best used by gardeners during transportation and propagation in order to keep seedlings and cut plants
moist. Sphagnum moss replaced absorbent cotton and hence is also called as the cotton moss.
4.27
Plant Kingdom
y Prevention of soil erosion: Bryophytes specifically mosses, form dense matt layer on the soil surface.
This layer of mosses prevent soil erosion in rains, flowing water.
y Soil Formation: In rocky areas, Mosses create an important link in plant succession. They also take part
in building soil as they enter rock crevices which is formed by lichens. Growth of Sphagnum (Bog moss)
ultimately releases rocks particles and fills ponds and lakes with soil.
5.1 Classification of Bryophyta

Some characteristic features of these classes are given below:
5.1.1 Hepaticopsida or Liverworts
(e.g., Riccia, Marchantia)
Structure
y The plant body shows thalloid structure and dorsiventral symmetry.
n
y The ventral side of the thallus contains multicellular scales and unicellular rhizoids.
.i
y The dorsal side of thallus has rhomboidal or polygonal mass.
al
y Thallus has two distinct zones: assimilatory and storage.
n
y Leafy members like Porella show leaf like tiny outgrowths in two rows on the stem like structures.
ur
Asexual reproduction
y Fragmentation or by gametes (e.g., Marchantia).
o
y The gametes have shape similar to number ‘8’. The gametes are stalked, green and multicellular asexual
uj
buds developing in small receptacles called as gemma cups present on dorsal surface of thallus.
Ed
y Each gemma germinates to produce two thallus in Marchantia.

y Antheridia and archegonia are scattered in the thallus and found embedded in the dorsal side of thallus
(e.g., Riccia). It may be projected from the thallus as stalked receptacles,called as the antheridiophore
and archegoniophore respectively (e.g., Marchantia).
A B
Figure 4.15: Bryophytes: A liverwort – Marchantia A. Female thallus B. Male thallus
4.28
Plant Kingdom
y Sporophyte can be capsules only (e.g., Riccia) or have differentiation of foot, seta and capsule
(e.g., Marchantia).
y Capsule show presence of only spores (e.g., Riccia) or spores along with elaters (e.g., Marchantia).
Elaters are diploid, hygroscopic structures that have spiral thickenings to help spores in dispersal.
y Sporophyte does not have assimilatory tissue and thus is a complete parasite over the gametophyte.
y Spores (n haploid) germinate and the thalloid gametophyte is formed.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Anthoceropsida or Hornworts (Members of family Anthocerotae)
Anthoceros, Notothylas possess elongated horn like sporophytes, which are called as
hornworts.The capsules of these members contain spores and pseudo elaters (elater like
structures without spiral thickenings). Anthoceros cells have one chloroplast and one pyrenoid
structure and thus, it resembles algal thallus.
.i n
5.1.2 Bryopsida – Musci or True Mosses
y
al
Gametophytic phase includes two stages – the first one is protonema (juvenile stage), and second one
n
is gametophore or leafy stage (mature).
ur
y Protonema develops through the spore germination. It is filamentous, green coloured, creeping and
branched structure.
o
y Gametophore has erect stem with one branch in axillary way that contains leaves and sex organs
uj
arranged spirally.
Ed
y Rhizoids are branched multicellular structures with oblique septa present at the base of stem.
y Leaf has green colour and ovate shape with acute apex. It shows a mid-rib and margin is slightly serrated.
y Fragmentation and secondary protonema are vegetative reproductive methods (the filament emerging
from structure other than the spore).
y Sex organs develop in the leave axis.
y Male is the main branch in young gametophore while female is the side branch.
y The mosses have an elaborate mechanism for spore dispersal from the capsule.
y Mosses are common with different names: Cord moss (Funaria), Maiden hair moss (Pogonatum),
Peat / Bog moss (Sphagnum) and hair cap moss (Polytrichum).
Life Cycle of Moss
Funaria hygrometrica
y A moss similar to plant.
y In the rainy season, it forms a dense carpet on surfaces of soils, rocks, tree trunks, etc.
4.29
Plant Kingdom
y Usually grows under shade and moist places.

y The body has radial symmetry which is differentiated into 3 parts namely stem or axis, leaves or phylloids
and rhizoids (multicellular). Vegetative reproduction is common in Moss plants.
.i n
al
Figure 4.16: Labelled diagram of a Funaria
n
Reproduction in Funaria
ur
(i) Vegetative Reproduction: There is two ways of it as:

o
y Apospory –The process of formation of gametophytes or the plant body without meiosis from sporophyte.
uj
y Protonema buds –The spore germinates and a short tube like structure called as the primary protonema
is formed. It divides to gives rise to filamentous multicellular septate structures called as buds. These
Ed
buds get separated from the parent moss and give rise to new plants.
(ii) Sexual reproduction:
y Funaria is monoecious and autoicous plant. This means that one plant bears both male and female sex
organs however they are on different branches. The male branch is called as antheridial and the female
branch is called as archegonial branch.
y Antheridium: Male sex organ is cluster of antheridia, which has many closely arranged perigonial
leaves around itself. It is a club-shaped structure. Along with antheridia, a multicellular green filament
called as paraphyses are inter mingled. A small multicellular stalk bears the terminal cell of paraphyses
which is a capitate. The sperm mother cell mass is enclosed in a single layered jacket. In the jacket cell
there is a cell present at the top which produces sperms. Androcyte produces two biflagellate sperms
that are differentiated by curved body.
y Archegonium: Archegonia are intermingled with paraphyses that have surrounding of a cluster of
perichaetial leaves. It has a flask-shaped structure (tubular neck and swollen base) with multicellular
4.30
Plant Kingdom
stalk. The base venter includes a venter canal cell and an egg or oosphere enclosed in double layer.
The tubular neck is single layered wall which is made of 6-spirally twisted rows of cells. The cells in neck
canal (NCC) gelantinises at maturity and the lid cells separate. The archegonia open, its mucilage has
sucrose and K+ ions which attracts sperms. The sperm enters archegonium and then fuses with the
oosphere to form a diploid zygote or oospore.
.i n
A
n al B
ur
Figure 4.17: Labelled diagram of reproductive organs in a Funaria. A. Antheridium and B. Archegonium
o
Development of Sporophyte
uj
The venter cells in archegonia arrange to make a cover on the zygote called as the calyptra (haploid-
Ed
gametophytic tissue). The diploid oospore then develops into a sporophyte which consists of– foot, seta
and capsules. The foot is embedded in the plant tip. It fixes sporophyte and absorbs water and mineral salts
from the gametophyte. Seta, a narrow stalk lifts the capsules above it in air.
The capsule has 3 parts-apophysis, theca and operculum. Apophysis has assimilatory tissue and stomata
(having a single circular guard cell). Theca has a central sterile column, assimilatory tissue, two spore sacs
and air cavity. Operculum is linked with thin walled cells called as annulus to the theca. Peristome consists
of two rows of triangular teeth and each row includes 16 teeth. The teeth in outer row (exostome) have
transverse bands of cellulose, are dark brown and hygroscopic. On contrary, inner row teeth (endostome)
are thin, light brown and hrygrophilic. Diploid spore mother cells are formed inside the spore sac. They
produce haploid spores followed by meiosis. The operculum is removed from the capsule and haploid
spores are liberated and hygroscopic movement of peristomial teeth.
4.31
Plant Kingdom
.i n
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ur
Figure 4.18: Sporophyte in a Funaria

o
Funaria like mosses contain chloroplasts in some assimilatory tissue or cells in their sporophyte, unlike liver
uj
worts (parasites), they are often called as semiparasite over the gametophyte. Such cells are present in the
Ed
apophysis, capsule wall and in the spores.

Each haploid spore germinates and produces a filamentous juvenile gametophyte called as the protonema.
Protonema has two branches, green (chloronema are epiterranean) and non-green (rhizonema are
subterranean). The protonema works like rhizoids. Protonema can multiply vegetatively by budding where
buds present on its green branches. The buds grow, mature and separate to form moss plants.
6. Class Pteridophyta (Ferns)

E. Haeckel termed these plants with feather like leaves as pteridophytes.
The study of Pteridophytes, their structure and life cycle is called as Pteridology.
Pteridophytes are known as reptiles of plant kingdom or vascular amphibians or botanical snakes.
The plants then moved on the land and survived successfully from outside water and had water absorbing
capacity from soil. The first plants to have well-defined vascular system. They are most primitive plants
which do not produce flowers, seeds, and spores.They are cryptogamic (no flower seed) terrestrial plants.
They need water for fertilisation and hence are not complete terrestrial plants.
4.32
Plant Kingdom
General Characters of Pteridophyta

y These plants are found growing on land which has soil surface and ground water.
y The dominant phase of the plant body is the sporophyte.
y Plant body shows presence of true stem, leaves and roots.
y The Vascular tissues present are of two types: xylem and phloem. True vessels are absent in xylem.
In phloem, companion cells and sieve tubes are absent whereas sieve cells are present. Secondary
growth is unusual as they lack cambium cells and found exceptionally in Isoetes and Botrychium.
y There are leaves size variation among pteridophytes and they are of two types. When the leaves that
are larger than the stem and leaf gaps break the leaf trace then plant is called as megaphyllous plants
e.g., ferns. When the leaves are shorter with a single leaf trace that is intact then plant is called as
microphyllous forms, e.g., club moss and horsetails.
y Plants have dorsiventral or radial symmetry and dichotomously / laterally branched stem. The roots
n
are adventitious in nature. The stem when underground is called as rhizome and can be aerial erect
like in tree ferns e.g. Cyathea, Alsophyla.
.i
al
y The leaves are long and large called as fronds. They can be pinnate or simple. The leaves that
produce sporangia are called as the sporophylls. The usual photosynthetic leaves are called as
n
trophophylls. Meiospores are produced inside the sporangia. Sporophytes may also form distinct
compact structures called as the strobili or cones (Selaginella, Equisetum). Sporangia are present in
ur
groups is called as sorus. Many sorus are found on sporophylls. They are called sori.
o
y Young leaves have circinate ptyxis, and are coiled like a watch spring. This coiling brings growing
point in centre and protects it.
uj
y Younger parts of stem, young leaves, petiole and rachis of mature leaves contain brown stiff hairs
Ed
called as the ramenta. It protects these parts from mechanical injury and desiccation.
y Sporesgerminate and produce small, reduced, independent, multicellular, non-vascular, haploid
gametophytic structures. The thalloid gametophyte is called as the prothallus. The prothallus requires
cool, damp shady places for growth. This is the reason they fertilize in water. The gametophyte may
develop in endosporic (inside the spore wall) or exosporic (outside the spore wall) way.
y Sex organs are multicellular and in a jacket. Number of NCC (neck canal cells) in archegonia is
variable: one uninucleate (Selaginella) or one binucleate (ferns).
y Sperms are flagellated, which helps them to swim and reach archegonia with the help of water. The
malic acid provides chemical stimulus.
y Formation of Embryo occurs.
y Alteration of generations between heteromorphic and heterologous takes place in the life cycle.
4.33
Plant Kingdom
y Pteridophytes have four distinct groups, viz, Psilophyta (Psilotum), Lycophyta (Lycopodium, Selaginella),
Sphenophyta (Equisetum) and Pterophyta/Filicophyta (Dryopteris, Adiantum, and Salvinia).
y True ferns are leptosporangiate members of filicophyta and are most conspicuous of the
pteridophytes.
.i n
n al
Figure 4.19: Parts of a branch in Pteridophyta
o ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
uj
y Sporangium develops in two ways in pteridophytes:

O Leptosporangiate: The development of sporangium from a single superficial cell, e.g.,
Ed
Pteris, Dryopteris, Adiantum.

O Eusporangiate: The sporangium development occurs from a group of cells, e.g.,
Selaginella, Equisetum.
y Spores:
O Homosporous: Pteridophytes that produce similar spores e.g., ferns Adiantum, Pteris,
Dryopteris.
O Heterosporous: Only few pteridophytes produce different spores, namely megaspores
and microspores e.g., Selaginella, Marsilea, Salvinia, Azolla etc.
y Embryogeny in pteridophytes is of two types:
O Exoscopic embryogeny: Axis of embryo is directed towards the archegonial neck, e.g.,
Equisetum.
O Endoscopic: Axis of embryo is directed inward towards the swollen venter, e.g.,
Selaginella.
4.34
Plant Kingdom
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Development of embryo may be:
O Holoblastic- When the entire zygote itself develops the embryo, e.g., Ferns.
O Meroblastic- When some part of zygote helps in embryonic development,
e.g., Selaginella.
Stelar System
The central vascular cylindrical axis in the pteridophytes is called as the stele. It is a primary vascular tissue
that includes pith, xylem, phloem and pericycle. It first appeared in pteridophytes like Rhynia. Van Teigham
and Douliot proposed the theory of various stele systems.
n
Types of Stele
.i
(i) Protostele: Simplest type, without pith
y Haplostele: e.g., Rhynia
n al • Actinostele: e.g., Lycopodium serratum
o ur
uj
Ed
A B
Figure 4.20: Stelar arrangement in A. Rhynia and B. Lycopodium serratum
y Plectostele: e.g., Lycopodium clavatum • Mixed protostele: e.g., Lycopodium cernum
A B
Figure 4.21: Stelar arrangement in A. Lycopodium clavatum and B. Lycopodium cernum
4.35
Plant Kingdom
(ii) Siphonostele: With pith

y Ectophloic siphonostele: Phloem on one side of xylem only, e.g., Osmunda, Equisetum
y Amphiphloic siphonostele: Xylem is having phloem on its both sides, e.g., Marsilea
A B
Figure 4.22: Stelar arrangement in A. Osmuda and B. Marsilea
n
(iii) Solenostele: Stele with one or few non overlapping leaf gap, e.g., Adiantum caudatum
.i
n al
o ur
uj
A B
Ed
Figure 4.23: Stelar arrangement in A. Adiantum caudatum and B. Dryopteris

(iv) Dictyostele: Stele with large number of overlapping leaf gaps, e.g., Dryopteris, Pteris etc.
6.1 Life Cycle of a Fern (Dryopteris)

y A perennial, independently living evergreen sporophyte.
y Plant is divided into stem, leaves and roots.
y Roots are adventitious.
y Stem is in rhizome form having dark brown colour.
y The large aerial leaves or fronds are found originating acropetally in spiral way from the upper surface
of the rhizome.
y The young leaves are circinate ptyxis.
y Older parts of rhizome show persistent leaf bases of the dead leaves.
4.36
Plant Kingdom
y Venation is upon furcate in leaflets.

y Ramenta or paleae present.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 4.24: Diagram of a fern

o
6.1.1 Reproduction
uj
The fern reproduces by fragmentation of rhizome and then development of adventitious buds. In Dryopteris,
Ed
the adventitious buds that are at the base of leaf separate to grow in a new plant. In Adiantum caudatum
and a few other species, adventitious buds start their development at leaf tips without separation. The buds
with leaf tips when touch the soil, they produce new plants. This way the fern spreads over a large area.
A B C
Figure 4.25: Parts of a fern: A. Fern leaflet (Sporophyll) showing sori,
B. V.S. Sporophyll, C. A. Sporangium
4.37
Plant Kingdom
Thus A. caudatum is also called a walking fern.

Ventral surface of a mature leaf have clusters of sporangia yellowish brown in colour called as sori. Each
sorus has membranous sheath covering called as true indusium. The covered sori are kidney shaped in
Dryopteris. This has given the name of male shield fern to Dryopteris.
A sorus has a parenchymatous cushion of placenta. The placenta has a number of stalked biconvex
sporangia. There is a single layered jacket with 12-16 diploid spore mother cells in each placenta.
A marginal row of jacket cells are thicken enough to make up the annulus. The rest of the marginal cells
make the stomium. The diploid spore mother cells grow after they divide meiotically to produce haploid
spores that shrivel indusium after maturity. The exposed sporangia spread in the stomium region due to
annulus contraction. The spores are thrown away and get dispersed by air currents.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
A B C
Ed
Figure 4.26: Dryopteris diagram: A. Structure of Prothallus (Ventral view), B. One archegonium and
C. One antherozoid
After falling on a suitable soil, each spore germinates. The spores form a flat, heart like structure, green
coloured, thalloid gametophyte called as the prothallus. The prothallus is monoecious or bears both the
types of sex organs, male antheridia and female archegonia on same branch. They are ventrally placed.
Antheridia occur in the rhizoids, while archegonia occur behind the apical notch in an area called as the
apical cushion. Antheridium consists of 3 celled jacket and around 32 sperm mother cells. The sperms are
multiflagellate and spirally twisted.
6.2 Life Cycle of Selaginella

Salient features
y Evergreen sporophyte, differentiated into stem, leaves and roots. The roots often develop at the tips of
special structures called as the rhizophores.
4.38
Plant Kingdom
A B C
Figure 4.27: Selaginella kraussiana – A. General habit, B. A part of the plant C. Arrangement of leaves
.i n
y Plant body is erect for Selaginella chrysocaulos and S. selaginoides. The leaves are arranged in two rows
that are arranged in four rows.

n al
and are isophyllous. S. kraussiana has prostrate plant body with the leaves anisophyllous or dimorphic
y Bower and Goebel called rhizophore of Selaginella as an organ sui-generis, i.e., an organ having roots
ur
and stem characters that are in independent origin.

y The stem is distelic can be rarely monostelic.
o
y The plant body has ability to reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation, bulbils and tubers. Bulbil and
uj
tubers also help in perennation.

Ed
y In the axil of fertile leaves sporangia develops or at the tips of small branches sporophylls develop
called as spikes. The plant is heterosporous as there are two types of sporangia, microsporangia and
megasporangia present in it.
y Each microsporangium generates large number of small haploid microspores. A megasporangium
produces only four haploid megaspores. Growth of these gametophytes is precocious.
y Microspore produces an endosporic 13-celled male gametophyte which has one prothallial cell, eight
jacket cells and four adrogonial cells. The androgonial cells further produce 128-256 androcytes or
sperm mother cells. A sperm mother cell produces a sperm that is biflagellate.
y Megaspore produces a partially exosporic female gametophyte. The female gametophyte is made of an
exposed generative apical cushion and a storage tissue. Both of them have a partition of a diaphragm.
The apical cushion produces archegonia and rhizoids. Each archeogonium contains a single female
gamete or oosphere. In Selaginella the mucilage oozes out from the neck of archegonium and it has
malic acid. There is only one NCC in the neck of archegonium in Selaginella and the fern. Water is
required for the fertilisation of sperm and then it produces diploid oospore.
4.39
Plant Kingdom
y Oospore produces a suspensor and embryo after division. The development of embryo is meroblastic.
Suspensor pushes the embryo into food laden storage tissue. Embryo shows presence of a foot for
absorption of nourishment, a shoot tip and a root tip. The root and shoot elongate and produce an
independent sporophytic plant body.
y Selaginella shows two distinct generations, sporophytic and gametophytic, one producing the other.
They are morphologically different. The phenomenon is called heteromorphic alteration of generations.
DID YOU KNOW

y Common names
O Spike moss (Selaginella)
O Bird’s nest moss (Selaginella rupestris)
O Club moss (Lycopodium)
n
y Smallest pteridophyte = Azolla pinnata (an aquatic fern) commonly used as a biofertilizer.
.i
y Largest pteridophyte = Cyathea (tree fern)
al
y Apogamy: The development of haploid sporophyte from gametophyte without
n
fertilisation. It was reported by Farlow in Pteris cretica.
?
ur
y Apospory: The development of diploid gametophyte from sporophyte without meiotic

division. It was published by Druery in Athyrium. Due to apospory, polyploidy is
o
common in ferns.
uj
y Psilotales like Rhynia (fossil) were first tracheophytes.

Ed
y Psilotales has rhizoids and dichotomous branching of stem.

y The xerophytic species of Selaginella in dry conditions roll into brown balls which is
called as the cespitose habit. It may be uprooted. The brown balls turn green and
unroll again when they are in moist conditions. Because of this characteristic, these
plants are known as resurrection plants, e.g., S. lepidophylla, S. bryopteris.
y Selaginella rupestris shows a near approach to seed habit.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Salvinia and Selaginella both are _____ genera.
2. In Selaginella, the apical cushion of female gametophyte produces ____________ only.
4.40
Plant Kingdom
7. Class Gymnosperms (Naked Seed Bearing Plants)

Theophrastus (300 BC) in his book Enquiry into plants was the first to use the term gymnosperm. They
are popular for their property of naked seed bearing vascular plants. Goebel called gymnosperms as
phanerogams lacking ovary.
The class makes up the smallest group of plant kingdom.
Gymnosperm and angiosperms are included in the division spermatophyte i.e. seed producing plants..
General characters of gymnosperms
y There are 900 living species of gymnosperms, including ancient forms of plants.
y Many gymnosperm plants are perennial woody plants making up either shrubs or trees. Ephedra is a
climber, an exception. Some of the plants are very large and can grow and survive for thousands of
years, e.g., Sequoia.
y Gymnosperms do not have the male and female gametophytes living freely as independent structures.
n
y Roots are in tap root system. Cycas shows presence of azeotropic N2 fixing coralloid roots which are in
.i
association with Anabaena cycadae (BGA) for nitrogen fixation. Pinus roots are in symbiotic relation with
ectomycorrhiza.
n al
y Stem is perennial, woody can be branched (Pinus, Cedrus) or unbranched (Cycas).
ur
y The leaves are varied in size and arrangement, ranging from small (Ephedra), needle like (Pinus) to
pinnately compound (Cycas) pattern, scale like (Cupressaceae). The leaves arrangement are well
o
adapted so that the plant can withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind, e.g., Needle leaf
of Pinus.
uj
Ed
Figure 4.28: Leaf arrangement on a shoot in Gymnosperms
y These are heterosporous i.e. sex organs are different in size and form. The sporophylls are of two types;
microsporophylls and megasporophylls. These sporophylls usually aggregate and form lax or compact
cones (strobili) i.e., pollen cones (male cones) and seed cones (female cones).
4.41
Plant Kingdom
y Microsporophylls lack the difference between the filament and anther.

y The microspores are produced in the microsporangium that make up a male gametophyte. It is highly
compressed and confined to form a few number of cells. The male gametophyte is called as the pollen
grain. The pollen grains develop inside the microsporangium.
y Megasporophylls (nucellus) are not similar to carpels i.e. are not rolled.It lacks the distinction between
the ovary, style and stigma.
y Ovules (integumented megasporangium) are naked and present on the megasporophyll. Each ovule
has a 3-layer single integument covering (Bitegmic in Gnetum).
y Female gametophyte has archegonia (not found in few plants of order Gnetales)
y Pollination of ovary by pollen grains is a direct process, as stigma is absent and thus pollen grains
directly attach to the microplyar end of ovules. Pollination is due to wind (anemophily).
y Male gametophyte produces two male gamete or sperms out of which one is functional.
n
y External water for fertilization is not essential. Instead, the male gametophyte produces a pollen tube
.i
that makes fertilization to take place (siponogamy).
y al
Seeds contain a tissue or endosperm that has nourishment that can be used by embryo for into seedling.
This tissue is haploid as it is similar to female gametophyte.
n
y Xylem lacks vessels, except in some Gnetales.
ur
y Phloem lacks companion cells however, albuminous cells function like companion cells. Sieve cells are
o
not arranged end to end in rows and thus sieve tubes are not formed.
uj
y Vascular bundles have vascular tissues with xylem having trachieds and wood parenchyma, phloem
lacks companion cells, the fibres in wood are absent and thus gymnosperms are called as soft woods.
Ed
y Foliage leaves lack the lateral veins. Internal transfusion tissue (hydrostereom) is present to transport
laterally.
y Types of wood:
ο Manoxylic: Soft wood having vascular tissues showing medullary rays, which is commercially less
important, e.g., Cycas.
ο Pycnoxylic: Compact wood whose tissues may show narrow medullary rays, commercially more
important, e.g., Pinus.
ο Monoxylic: Wood with tissues having single persistent cambium ring and bundles, e.g., Pinus
ο Polyxylic: Tissues with many persistent cambium rings and bundles, e.g., Cycas
ο Gymnosperms are seed bearing plants where the ovule remains exposed / naked over the surface of
the megasporophylls in pre and post fertilisation events.
4.42
Plant Kingdom
DID YOU KNOW

y Smallest gymnosperm = Zamia
y Largest gymnosperm = Sequoia
y The three generations in the seed are: Testa, tegmen and perisperm that represent the
parental sporophyte, Endosperm is originated from female gametophyte; and plumule,
radicle, suspensor and cotyledons (embryo) represent the future sporophyte.
y Polyembryony: The process where the seed has production of more than one embryo
inside itself is polyembryony. Leeuwenhoek discovered it in oranges. Fertilisation
of many eggs leads to simple polyembryony, e.g., Pinus where the ovule has 2 – 8
archegonia. Cleavage polyembryony is splitting of embryo tissue and thus is true
polyembryony which is very common. Adventive polyembryony occurs due to the
formation of extra embryos directly from diploid cells (e.g., rosette cells) that are other
n
than embryonal cells.
.i
y Order Gnetales consists of Gnetum, Ephedra and Welwitschia. These plants are
? al
similar to flowering plants as they have arrangement of sporophyll like a flower and the
xylem has primitive vessels thus wood is called heteroxylous. Plants of Cycadales and
n
Coniferales are commonly called Cycads and Conifers respectively.
ur
y Cycas, Ginkgo and Metasequoia are living fossils.

y Ginkgo biloba (Pagoda tree or Maiden hair tree) is the oldest living fossil and it is
o
intermediate link between cycades and conifers.

uj
y Largest ovule (in Cycas revoluta)

Ed
y Largest male cone (in C. circinalis)

y Largest male gamete (sperm) in Cycas
y Largest female gamete (egg) in Cycas
y Independent free living, photosynthetic gametophyte is not found in gymnosperms and
angiospersm.
y Gymnosperms are divided into four orders-Ginkgoales, Gnetales, (e.g., Ephedra,
Gnetum, Welwitschia), Cycadales and Coniferales. Ginkgoales is represented by
maiden hair tree (Ginkgo biloba) where Ginkgo biloba happens to be only living member,
rest all are extinct. So it is also called as living fossil.
4.43
Plant Kingdom
Economic Importance
y Edible Seeds: The seeds of Pinus gerardiana are called as chilgoza which are edible.
y Timber: Gymnosperms possess soft wood which is used to prepare light furniture, plywood, packing
cases, match sticks, railway sleepers, etc, e.g., Cedrus deodara.
y Resin: Resin is a semifluid which solidifies when contacts air, is secreted from special resin canals.
Therefore it seals the injured areas which seals the female cones after pollination. Resin is commercially
extracted from the plants and distilled to obtain turpentine and resin. Resin is commercially used in water
proofing, sealing joints and in writing paper preparation. Turpentine is used as solvent in paints, polishes
and wax, e.g., Pinus.
y Ephedrine: Drug ephedrine has curing respiratory abilities and thus used in ailments even for asthma. It
is obtained from Ephedra.
y Sago: Cycas revolute has a starchy food sago in its stem and this is why plant is also called as sago
n
palm.
.i
y Canada balsam: A mounting agent that is used in the preparation of permanent slides of samples is
obtained from Abies blasmaea. al
y Cedar wood oil: Used on the slide samples for microscopy is obtained from Juniperus virginiana.
n
y Taxol: Anticancerous chemical obtained from Taxus.
ur
Classification of Gymnosperms:
o
Division – Pinophyta
uj
Division - Cycadophyta
Division - Ginkophyta
Ed
Division - Gnetophyta
7.1 Life Cycle of Pinus

y A coniferous gymnosperm.
y A large tree that has pyramidal or excurrent shape similar to a “Christmas tree”.
y The plant body is sporophytic showing stem, leaves and roots.
y The main stem is straight and erect.
y Stem branches are dimorphic (of two types) long and dwarf.
y Long stem have unlimited growth with only scale leaves.
y The dwarf branches have 1 – 5 needle-like foliage leaves that have a cover of sheath of scale leaves at
the base.
4.44
Plant Kingdom
y It has a horizontally growing tap root system that has peg-like downward roots present at small intervals.
Finer roots are of two types – usual (with root and root cap) and mycorrhizal (roots without root cap,
hairs and with fungus). The mycorrhizal roots spread near the soil surface. Mostly Boletus (fungus)
forms an ectomycorrhiza with roots of Pinus.The sporophytic plant body is a monocecious tree. It has
microsporophylls and megasporophylls in two types of cones, one a male and other a female.
.i n
n al
Figure 4.29: Reproductive organs of a Pinus
o ur
7.1.1 Reproduction of Pinus

uj
(i) Male or Pollen Cones

y Non-woody structures that are sub-terminal in clusters on the lower long branches.
Ed
y Cones are homologous with dwarf shoots.

y A short stalk, a central axis and a number of spirally arranged microsporophylls is present.
y A microsporopyll has two long and parallel microsporangia at lower surface.
y The diploid microspore mother cells grows by meiosis to form haploid microspores or pollen grains.
y The pollen grains released from the male cones are 4 celled, having two prothallial cells, one generative
cell and one vegetative cell that get dispersed with air currents.
y The pollens form yellow clouds in the pine forests that are called as ‘sulphur shower’.
y A pollen grain includes two air sacs or wings made from its exine for making it light.
4.45
Plant Kingdom
C
A
B
Figure 4.30: Pinus: A. A young male cone, B. Male cone in radial longitudinal section;
n
C. Microsporophyll ventral view
.i
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.31: Pinus: A. First year female cone, B. Second year female cone,
C. Third year female cone
(ii) Female or Seed cones

y Initially green at younger age later at maturity become woody and brown.
y They develop in groups of 2 – 6 on upper long branches of the tree.
y These are homologous with long shoot.
4.46
Plant Kingdom
y A long stalk and a central axis is present in the cone where are a number of spirally arranged paired
scales.
y The lower pair is called as bract scale and the upper scale is called as ovuliferous scale.
y The ovuliferous scale bears two ovules towards the basal region on the upper side.
y Each ovule shows 3-layered integument which has a terminal wide, oblique pore or micropyle and
nucellus (= megasporangium).
y A megaspore mother cell differentiates and forms four haploid megaspores from meiotic division from
which only one survives.
y The functional megaspore produces female gametophyte called as the endosperm.
y The female gametophyte has 1 – 8 archegonia.
y An archegonium shows a short neck and a large venter in its structure.
n
y It lacks neck canal cell and venter canal is ephemeral with a large egg or oosphere in it.
.i
n al
ur
B
o
uj
Ed
C
A
Figure 4.33: Pinus: A. L.S. female cone, B. A megasporophyll, C. A winged seed
Pollination
y Anemophilous (by air) and direct process.
y The male gamete forms after pollination.
y The pollen grains travel through the opened micropyle and stop on the tip of nucellus.
y Terminal part of nucellus oozes out mucilaginous pollination drop where pollens are caught.
y The pollen grain forms a pollen tube after germination (siphonogamy). However further growth is
restricted due to arrival of winter in the first year.
4.47
Plant Kingdom
y Fertilization of egg occurs after 13 months in spring of next year from the time of pollination.
y Pollen tube grows further to pierce an archegonium.
y One male gamete (male nucleus) and oospore fuse and forms diploid zygote or oospore.
y The oospore forms an embryo while the ovule matures into a seed.
y Part of the upper surface of the ovuliferous scale is peeled off along with the seed to form its wing. A
female cone matures in about 26 months and then opens to release seeds with wings that get dispersed
with air.
y After coming in contact with suitable soil and environment, each seed grows to a new plant.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Development of embryo is meroblastic in Pinus.
n
y There are 3 - 18 cotyledons in Pinus.
.i
y The proembryo has 4 tiers, namely basal embryo tier, suspensor tier, rosette tier and upper
y
tier. al
Development of polyembryony is by three methods as – simple, cleavage and adventive.
n
ur
7.2 Cycas (Sago Palm)

o
y Cycas is called Palm-fern.

uj
y The leaves are crown like on unbranched stem called as the caudex like palms. Also it has circinate
Ed
ptyxis and ramenta like ferns.

y Roots are normal tap root and ageotropic coralloid roots which are in the form of coralline masses
that have blue green algae in their cortical cells, e.g., Anabaena, etc as in symbiotic association to fix
nitrogen.
y Leaves are scale and foliage, arising in whorls and every year one new is added. Old leaves fall with
characteristic leaf scars on the stem. Foliage leaves appear like leather and pinnately compound whereas
scale leaves are brown, and membranous.
y Cycas stem has manoxylic and polyxylic wood.
y Rachis have diploxylic vascular bundles that are arranged in shape of inverted omega.
y Transfusion tissue is present for lateral veins in the leaves that laterally transport food.
y Plants are dioecious with presence of male cones and no female cones (loose megasporophylls).
y Largest egg, sperm and ovule are found in Cycas. Ovules are orthotropous.
y Cycas sperms are multiflagellate (= multiciliate). Pollen tube is formed in Cycas, but is haustorial in
nature. Thus, Cycas shows both siphonogamy and zooidogamy for sexual reproduction.
4.48
Plant Kingdom
Economic Importance of Gymnosperms

(i) Ornamentals: Many gymnosperms are native to foreign countries, and are cultivated in Indian gardens
called as ornamental plants. E.g. Cycas revolute, Cupressus sempervirens, Cupressus funiberus, Thuja
occidentalis, Araucaria species etc.
(ii) Food Articles: Some gymnosperms have products which are used as food directly or indirectly. Cycas
circinalis has starch in its stem and seeds, which is called as “Sago”. The seeds of Pinus gerardiana
(Chilgoza) are edible and very nutritious. Seeds of Gnetum ulva are also consumed. Young leaves and
inflorescences of Gnetales are common as a vegetable. The seed kernel of Ginkgo is highly nutritious
and is eaten as food in China and Japan.
(iii) Wood: Many gymnosperms are famous as they have valuable woods. Many species of Abies provide a
light weight useful wood utilized in making slippers. Cedrus deodara yields the strongest Indian timber
which is resistant to white ants and fungal attacks. The twigs of Juniperus are used as incense in
n
temples. The wood of Picea smithiana is used in railway trains as sleepers. The wood of Pinus roxburgii
.i
is used as timber. The wood of P. wallichiana is superior to that of P. roxburgii. Taxus baccata yields a
al
durable wood. Cryptomeria japonica yields a valuable light wood.
(iv) Medical Value: The resin obtained from Cycas rumphii cures ulcers. The wood of Cerdus deodara
n
possess diuretic and carminative properties which is used in pulmonary and urinary disorders, piles and
ur
rheumatism. Cupressus sempervirens leaves produce an essential oil which have vermifuge properties.
The resin obtained from Pinus eoxburgii is used internally as stomachic and as a remedy for gonorrhoea.
o
It is used externally for buboes and abscess. The seeds of Pinus geradiana yield an oil which is applied
uj
in the dressing of wounds and ulcers. The species of Ephedra yield a drug called as Ephedrine which
Ed
is effective against asthma and bronchial troubles. The seed oil of Gnetum ulva is used in rheumatism.
(v) Resin and Oils: The wood of Pinus roxburgii is tapped for turpentine which is distilled to obtain resin
and turpentine oil. Resin is also obtained from Pinus wallichinana. P. insularis leaves and wood give an
essential oil. Some gymnosperms yield important oils.
(vi) Other Uses: The leaves and wood of Pinus insularis are used as fuel. Gnetum gnemon is utilized for
making ropes. The seeds and stems of Cycas revoluta are often used in the preparation of wine in
Japan. Fossil gymnosperms which were common and widely distributed during carboniferous period
have contributed to the coal deposits. The wood of Juniperus verginima (red cedar) is used for pencil
making. The bark of Tsuga canadensis yields tannin which is used in tanning hides. Abies balsamea
yields Canada balsam.
4.49
Plant Kingdom
8. Class Angiosperms (Flowering Plants or Anthophytes)

8.1 Classification History of Angiosperms
After Linnaeus classified plants, other taxonomists also realised the necessity to gather the information on
natural history of vegetative world and their affinities at various hierarchy levels. George Bentham and J.D.
Hooker proposed the most important natural system of angiosperm classification with 202 families being
described and that was published in three volumes of “Genera Plantarum”. In this system, detailed studies
and dissections described plants here. British Common wealth countries including India follow this system.
The system is handy and easy thus preferred to be used by the students in their practical classes. This
system covered about 97000 species of seed bearing plants.
Bentham and Hooker classification system, classifies on the basis of morphological characters such as
leaf arrangement and venation pattern, number of members in floral whorls like calyx, corolla, androecium
and gynoecium, number of members in floral like calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium, number of
cotyledons in the seed and seeds with or without cover phanerogams were divided into three classes.
n
In this classification, Class = division, series = class, cohort = order and order = family.
.i
An outline of the Bentham and Hooker classification of phanerogamia:
Class 1: Dicotyledonae
Class 2: Gymnospermae
n al
Class 3: Monocotyledonae
ur
Class 1: Dicotyledonae
o
General characters
uj
y Pentamerous flower,
y Reticulate venation in leaves,
Ed
y Two cotyledons in seed,

y Open vascular bundles (with cambium), and
y Secondary growth present along with wood formation.
It is divided into 3 sub-classes
Table 4.6: Sub- division of Class Dicotyledonae
Sub-class 1: Polypetalae –
Petals free.
It includes three series.
Series Characters Order
Series 1: Thalamiflorae Flower hypogynous, stamens and 6 orders, e.g., Ranales,
pistils many (indefinite), petals free, Parietales, and Malvales etc.
distinct sepals are free from ovary
4.50
Plant Kingdom
Series 2: Disciflorae Flower hypogynous, Calyx consists 4 orders, e.g., Sapindales,

of free or united sepals, Petals Gerniales etc
free, a prominent cushion shaped
disc is present below ovary
Series 3: Calyciflorae Flower perigynous or epigynous, 5 orders, e.g., Rosales,
calyx contains united sepals (rarely Umbellates etc.
free), ovary inferior
Sub-class 2: Gamopetalae –
Petals united or fused.
It includes 3 series:
Series 1: Inferae Flower epigynous, ovary inferior, 3 orders, e.g., Asterales,
stamens as many as corolla lobes Campanulates etc.
or fewer
n
Series 2: Heteromerae Ovary usually superior, carpels 3 orders, e.g., Ericales,
.i
more than two Primulales, and Ebenales
Series 3: Bicarpellatae al
Ovary usually superior, two carpels
(rarely one or three).
n 4 orders, e.g., Lamiales,
Polemoniales etc
Sub-class 3: Monochlamydeae –
ur
Flower incomplete, no distinction between calyx and corolla, perianth present which is usually
sepaloid and may be absent.
o
It includes 8 series:
uj
Series 1: Curvembryeae – Embryo curved, generally one ovule.

Series 2: Multiovulatae Plants are aquatic, submerged herbs, syncarpous ovary.
Ed
aquaticae
Series 3: Multiovulatae terrestris Plants are terrestrial, syncarpous ovary.
Series 4: Microembryae Very minute or small embryo.
Series 5: Daphnales Ovary with one carpel and one ovule.
Series 6: Achlamydosporae Ovary unilocular with 13 ovules
Series 7: Unisexuales Flower unisexual.
Series 8: Ordines anomali Families having plants with anomalous (abnormal) characters.
Class 2: Gymnospermae
Sex organs are male and female cones, perianth is absent, ovule and seeds are naked (not found inside
ovary), haploid endosperm.
It has three families – Gnetaceae, Coniferae and Cycadaceae.
4.51
Plant Kingdom
Class 3: Monocotyledonae
Parallel venation in leaves, embryo with one cotyledon, flower usually trimerous, wood absent, no secondary
growth.
It includes 7 series
Table 4.7: Sub- division of Class Monocotyledonae
Series Features
Series 1: Microspermae Ovary inferior, seed minute.
Series 2: Epigynae Ovary inferior, seeds larger.
Series 3: Coronarieae Ovary superior, perianth coloured.
Series 4: Calycineae Ovary superior, perianth green.
Series 5: Nudiflorae Perianth absent, ovary superior.
n
Series 6: Apocarpae Carpels free (apocarpous).
.i
Series 7: Glumaceae Flowers arranged in spikelets with bracts, perianth reduced, bracts large
and scaly. al
Merits of this System
n
y Useful in practical uses.
ur
y Ranales were given most primitive position in the dicots

o
y Giumaceae was believed to be most advanced species in monocots.

uj
Demerits of Bentham and Hooker’s System

Ed
y Gymnosperms had a place between dicots and monocots.

y Many important floral characters were not considered.
y It believes in fixity of species and not a phylogenetic system.
y Some closely related families were separately placed in different cohorts (order) and unrelated families
were placed in same cohorts.
y Advanced family like Orchidaceae (Microspermae) was considered to be primitive.
Angiosperms as per Whittaker

Angiosperms are the plants that have ovules and seeds covered inside the fruits and the sporophylls are
present in the flowers. These plants grow and thus seen in all the possible habitats. Tillandsia (Spanish
moss) is an epiphytic angiosperm.
4.52
Plant Kingdom
n
Figure 4.33: Reproduction and alteration of generations in Angiosperms
.i
General Characters of Angiosperms
y The most recent thus highly evolved plants.
n al
y Sporophylls are aggregated in flowers, the most specific feature of angiosperms. Thus, angiosperms are
ur
also called as flowering plants.
y Stamen (male sex organ) is made up of a filament and an anther. Carpel (female sex organ) is rolled,
o
partly sterilised so that it forms a stigma, style and ovary, which is made of ovules.
uj
y Pollination is indirect through several agencies, most common is through animals, especially insects.
y Pollen grains or microspores travel to reach the stigmatic surface at the tip of carpel or megasporophyll.
Ed
y Female gametophyte or embryo sac is highly shortened, multiplies upto 8-nucleate stage before
fertilisation.
y Archegonia are replaced by one egg surrounded by two specialised synergid cells to attract the pollen
tube in fertilisation. The synergid cells attract two naked non-flagellate male gametes.
y Double fertilisation takes place: One male gamete with one egg produces zygote that is embryo. The
other male gamete with synergid cell and forms primary endosperm cell.
y Endosperm is formed through triple fusion (male gamete and two synergid cells) thus it is triploid.
y Ovules then fertilize into embryo which ripen into seeds. The seeds have a cover of ovary wall. A fruit is
thus a ripened ovary. Fruits protect the seeds, help in their dispersal and nourish it till the dispersion.
y Xylem contains vessels.
y Phloem has sieve tubes and companion cells.
y Angiosperms have two sub-groups on the basis of number of embryonic leaves or cotyledons:
dicotyledons and monocotyledons. The two are commonly termed as dicots and monocots respectively.
4.53
Plant Kingdom
Table 4.8: Difference between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae

Dicots Monocots
Seeds have two cotyledons. Seeds have one cotyledon.
Flowers are pentamerous or tetramerous (floral Flowers are trimerous (floral parts in sets of
parts in sets of 5 and 4 or their multiples) three or its multiples).
Leaves are net-veined with reticulate venation with The leaves possess parallel venation with a few
a few exceptions. exceptions.
Primary root is long lived, forming tap root system Primary root is short-lived and thus adventitious
and adventitious roots are uncommon. roots are common.
Vascular bundles of the stem are arranged in a ring. Vascular bundles are found scattered.
Vascular bundles of the stem possess cambium Cambium is absent (vascular bundle closed),
n
(vascular bundles open), and hence secondary thus no secondary growth.
.i
growth is possible.
al
Table 4.9: Difference Between Various Plant Groups Having Embryo
n
Features Bryophyta Pteriodophyta Gymnosperms Angiospersms
ur
Dominant phase Gametophyte Sporophyte Sporophyte Sporophyte

Ploidy of main Haploid Diploid Diploid Diploid
o
plant body
uj
Differentiation of Thallus or foliose Roots, stem and Roots, stem and Roots, stem
body structures and rhizoids leaves leaves and leaves
Ed
Vascular bundles Absent Present Present Present

Nature of spores Homospores Homospores and Heterospores Heterospores
Heterospores
Seed and its Seed absent Seed absent Seed naked Seed with
covering (without covering) covering
Flower and fruit Absent Absent Absent Present
9. Plant Life Cycles and Alternation of Generations

Life cycle of a plant shows spore formation and seed formation which is called alternation of generations.
y In plants, both haploid and diploid cells can divide by mitosis.
This ability leads produces different plant bodies: halpoid gamete producing plant (gametophyte) and
diploid spore producing plant (sporophyte).
4.54
Plant Kingdom
y The haploid plant body produces gametes with mitosis.

Following fertilization, the zygote may divide mitotically to produce sporophyte or may divide meiotically
to produce haploid spores.
y Haploid spores divide mitotically and produce gametophyte.
Thus, in the life cycle of a sexually reproducing plant, an alternation of generations occur between the
haploid and diploid phases of the plant.
Syngamy and meiosis seems to be instrumental for this event.
There are three phases in the life cycle. They are fundamentally different in the duration of the haploid
and diploid phases.
9.1 Haplontic
Haplophase is the most dominant phase. The plant body is gamete producer and independent. The
sporophyte phase is dependent on gametophyte phase, and thus does not exist as a free living body. The
n
major part of life is dominated by gametophyte, e.g., majority of green algae viz. Chlamydomonas, Ulothrix,
.i
Spirogyra etc. n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.34: Haplontic life cycle in Ulothrix
9.2 Diplo-Haplontic or Haplo Diplontic

There exists both sporophyte as well as gametophyte. Both perform photosynthesis and are multicellular
bodies, free living with almost two equal phases: the diplophase and haplophase. When morphologically
different sporophytes and gametophytes occur, then the cycle is called as Diplo-Haplontic-heteromorphic,
e.g., all pteridophytes; all bryophytes, some brown algae viz., Laminaria and other Kelps. When the two
phases are morphologically identical, then the life cycle is called as Diplo-Haplontic-isomorphic, e.g., green
algae viz., Ulva and Cladophora; brown algae, such as Ectocarpus.
4.55
Plant Kingdom
Figure 4.35: Haplo Diplontic life cycle in Ulva
9.3 Diplontic
n
The dominant phase is diplophase. The plant body is sporophyte which is independent and free living. The
.i
gametophytes are extremely reduced, dependent physically and nutritionally on the sporophyte. The major
al
part in life cycleis the sporophyte, e.g., all gymnosperms and angiosperms; Diatoms; some brown algae,
viz., Fucus and Sargassum.
n
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.36: Diplontic life cycle in Fucus
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Fucus and Sargassum show ______ life cycle pattern.
2. Both pollen grains and seeds are winged in Cycas (True/False).
3. Polyxylic and manoxylic wood is present in Cycas (True/False).
4. Endosperm is triploid, nutritive tissue in _____.
4.56
Plant Kingdom
Summary
y Plant kingdom is divided into algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
y Algae are chlorophyll-bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms.
y Depending on the type of pigment possessed and the type of stored food, algae are classified into
three classes, namely Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae.
y Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types
of spores and sexually by formation of gametes which may show isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy.
y Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
Their plant body is more differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect and
attached to the substratum by rhizoids. They possess root-like, leaf like and stem-like structures.
y The bryophytes are divided into liverworts, hornworts and mosses.
y The plant body of liverworts is thalloid and dorsiventral whereas mosses have upright, slender axis
n
bearing spirally arranged leaves.
.i
y The main plant body of a bryophyte is gamete-producing and is called gametophyte. It bears the
al
male sex organs called antheridia and female sex organs called archegonia. The male and female
gametes fuse to form zygote which produces a multicellular body called sporophyte. It produces
n
haploid spores. The spores germinate to form gametophytes.
ur
y In pteridophytes the main plant is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and
leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues.
o
y The sporophytes in pteridophytes bear sporangia which produce spores. The spores germinate to
uj
form gametophyte which require cool, damp places to grow.

Ed
y The gametophyte in pteridophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and
archegonia, respectively.
y Water is required for transfer of male gametes to archegonium in both bryophytes and pteridophytes
where zygote is formed after fertilisation. The zygote produces a sporophyte by dividing mitotically.
y The gymnosperms are the plants in which ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall. After fertilization
the seeds remain exposed and therefore these plants are called naked-seeded plants.
y The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia
and megasporangia borne on the sporophylls.
y The sporophylls-microsporophylls and megasporophylls are arranged spirally on axis to form male
and female cones, respectively.
y The pollen grain germinates and pollen tube releases the male gamete into the ovule, where it
fuses with the egg cell in archegonia. Following fertilisation, the zygote develops into embryo and
the ovules into seeds.
4.57
Plant Kingdom
y In angiosperms, the male sex organs (stamen) and female sex organs (pistil) are born in a flower.
Each stamen consists of a filament and an anther. The anther produces pollen grains (male
gametophyte) after meiosis. The pistil consists of an ovary enclosing one to many ovules.
y Within the ovule is the female gametophyte or embryo sac which contains the egg cell. The pollen
tube enters the embryo-sac where two male gametes are discharged. One male gamete fuses with
egg cell (syngamy) and other fuses with diploid secondary nucleus (triple fusion). This phenomenon
of two fusion is called double fertilisation and is unique to angiosperms.
y The angiosperms are divided into two classes-the dicotyledons and the monocotyledons.
y During the life cycle of any sexually reproducing plant, there is alternation of generations between
gamete producing haploid gametophyte and spore producing diploid sporophyte. However, different
plant groups as well as individuals may show different patterns of life cycles-haplontic or intermediate,
i.e., haplodiplontic or diplohaplontic.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
4.58
Plant Kingdom
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Which of the following are parasitic algae?
(A) Cephaleuros (B) Harveyella
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Q.2 Red algae is red due to the presence of

(A) R-Phycocyanin (B) R-Phycoerythrin
(C) C-Phycocyanin (D) C-Phycoerythrin
.i n
Q.3 Sea Lettuce is the name given to
(A) Laminaria (B) Fucus
n al
(C) Sargassum (D) Ulva
Q.4 Sea weeds belong to
ur
(A) Red algae (B) Brown algae

(C) Green algae (D) Blue green algae
o
uj
Q.5 Chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘d’ are found in

(A) Rhodophyta (B) Phaeophyta
Ed
(C) Xanthophyta (D) Myxophyta
Q.6 Which pigment is found in phaeophyceae

(A) Chl. ‘a’ and ‘c’ (B) Chl. ‘a’ and ‘d’
(C) Chl. ‘a’ and ‘e’ (D) None of these
Q.7 Reserve food in Rhodophyta is
(A) Floridean starch (B) Mannitol
(C) Leucosin (D) All of the above
Q.8 Photosynthetic pigments common with all algae are

(A) Chlorophyll ‘b’ and carotene (B) Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’
(C) Chlorophyll ‘a’ and carotene (D) Chlorophyll and xanthophyll
4.59
Plant Kingdom
Q.9 Acetabularia, belongs to

(A) Chlorophyta (B) Rhodophyta
(C) Pyroophyta (D) Phaeophyta
Q.10 Deepest algae in sea is

(A) Red algae (B) Brown Algae
(C) Green Algae (D) Golden Algae
Q.11 Which of the following plant groups have similar pigment composition
(A) Rhodophyta and Phaeophyta (B) Chlorophyta and Phaeophyta
(C) Rhodophyta and Cyanophyta (D) Xanthophyta and Euglenophyta
Q.12 Harveyella belong to which group
n
(A) Brown algae (B) Red algae
.i
(C) Dinoflagellates (D) Diatoms
al
Q.13 Which of the following are colour less parasitic red algae?
n
(A) Cephaleuros (B) Harveyella
ur
(C) Polysiphonia (D) Ectocarpus

o
Q.14 Green algae are considered as the ancestors of higher plants due to their resemblance with higher
uj
plants in
Ed
(A) Pigments (B) Cell wall

(C) Stored food (D) All the above
Q.15 The name ‘‘Thallophyta’’ was coined by

(A) Endlicher (B) Linnaeus
(C) Christenson (D) Haeckel
Q.16 Unique character of Thallophyta is

(A) Thalloid body (B) Absence of vascular tissue
(C) Zygotic meiosis (D) All the above
Q.17 The characters of thallophyta is / are

(A) Plant body thallus (B) Non vascular plant
(C) Sex organ are unicellular (D) All the above
4.60
Plant Kingdom
Q.18 Most advanced group of algae is

(A) Myxophyta (B) Chlorophyta
(C) Xanthophyta (D) Phaeophyta
Q.19 ‘‘Agar-agar’’ is obtained from

(A) Green Algae (B) Red Algae
(C) Brown Algae (D) Yellow green Algae
Q.20 Cephaleuros, which causes ‘‘Red rust of tea’’ is a

(A) Red Algae (B) Brown Algae
(C) Dinoflagellate (D) Green Algae
Q.21 Classification of algae is mainly based upon
n
(A) Reproductive organs (B) Structure of spores
.i
(C) Pigments (D) Stored food
al
Q.22 ‘‘Carageenin’’ is obtained from
n
ur
(A) Chondrus (B) Laminaria
(C) Gelidium (D) Macrocystis
o
Q.23 Female sex organ of algae is called

uj
(A) Carpel (B) Oogonium

Ed
(C) Archegonia (D) Oospore
Q.24 Reserve food of algae and fungi are

(A) Starch and soluble floridoside (B) Oil droplet and fats
(C) Starch and glycogen (D) Starch and Glycerol
Q.25 Chlorophyll ‘c’, ‘d’ and ‘e’ are characteristic pigments of respectively
(A) Red algae, brown algae and yellow green algae
(B) Brown algae, Red algae and yellow green algae
(C) Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, Euglena
(D) Higher plants, Red algae, Diatoms
4.61
Plant Kingdom
Q.26 Vascular cryptogams or seed less vascular plants belong to

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta
(C) Thallophyta (D) Spermatophyta
Q.27 Most conspicuous alternation of generation occurs in

(A) Thallophyta (B) Bryophyta
(C) Pteriodophyta (D) Spermatophyta
Q.28 Which of the following is called resurrection pteridophyte

(A) Lycopodium (B) Selaginella
(C) Pteridium (D) Dryopteris
Q.29 Pteridophytes which produce cones, can be classified in
n
(A) Psilopsida and Lycopsida (B) Lycopsida and Filicinae
.i
(C) Sphenopsida and Filicinae (D) Sphenopsida and Filicinae
Q.30 Which of the following is called ‘‘Tree Fern’’?

n al
(A) Cyathea (B) Marsilea
ur
(C) Sphenopsida and Lycopsida (D) Sphenopsida and Filicinae

o
Q.31 The main plant body of Pteridophytes is

uj
(A) Sporophyte (B) Gametophyte

Ed
(C) Haploid (D) None of the above
Q.32 Which one of the following is called as ‘‘Walking fern”?

(A) Adiantum (B) Selaginella (C) Pteridium (D) Marsilea
Q.33 Among the folowing fern, which is an excellent biofertilizer?
(A) Salvinia (B) Azolla (C) Pteridium (D) Marsilea
Q.34 Which of the following is an aquatic fern?

(A) Azolla (B) Selaginella (C) Isoetes (D) Equisetum
Q.35 The botanical name of ‘’Sanjeevani’’ is
(A) Selaginella utricularia (B) Selaginella bryopteris
(C) Selaginella crotalaria (D) Selaginella botardia
4.62
Plant Kingdom
Q.36 The aquatic fern which support the growth of the blue green algae, Anabaena, and is used to increase
the yield of paddy crop is
(A) Salvinia (B) Marsilea (C) Isoetes (D) Azolla
Q.37 In ferns, the permanent roots are

(A) Tap root (B) Adventitious roots
(C) Tuberious roots (D) Rhizome
Q.38 Stem is distinctly differentiated into node and inter node in

(A) Psilopsida (B) Lycopsida
(C) Sphenopsida (D) None
Q.39 Cone is absent in
n
(A) Sphenopsida (B) Filicinae
.i
(C) Lycopsida (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.40 In pteridophytes the spores germinate to form

n al
(A) Ptotonema (B) Prothallus
ur
(C) Sporophyte (D) Archegonium

o
Q.41 In heterosporous pteridophyta, the gametophytes are

uj
(A) Monoecious (B) Dioecious

Ed
(C) Sterile (D) Inter sex
Q.42 The charasterstic feature of pteridophytes is

(A) Seeds are naked (B) Seeds are covered with fruit
(C) No seed formation (D) Vessels are present
Q.43 Green leaves are totally absent in

(A) Psilopsida (B) Lycopsida
(C) Sphenopsida (D) Ferns
Q.44 Seedless vascular plants are

(A) Ferns (B) Lower gymnosperm
(C) Dicots (D) Ferns and lower gymnosperm
4.63
Plant Kingdom
Q.45 Pteridophytes plants are more successful to terrestrial life as compared to bryophytes in having
(A) Roots and nonmotile gamets (B) Roots and independend gametophyte
(C) Leaves (D) Roots and vascular tissue
Q.46 Ressurection plant is

(A) Selaginella (B) Azolla
(C) Marsilea (D) Isoetes
Q.47 In pteridophyta, reproductive leaves are called:

(A) Cataphylls (B) Trophophylls
(C) Gametangia (D) Sporophylls
Q.48 Most advanced Gymnosperm belongs to –
n
(A) Cycadales (B) Coniferales (C) Gnetales (D) Cycadofilicales
.i
al
Q.49 Which of the following is called father of forest –
n
(A) Pinus (B) Banyan (C) Sequoia (D) Cedrus
ur
Q.50 All Gymnosperms are-

o
(A) Heterosporus (B) Vascular

(C) Seed plants (D) All the above
uj
Ed
Q.51 Gymnosperm plants lack –

(A) Vessels (B) Fruits (C) Companion cells (D) All the above
Q.52 Resin turpentine is obtained from

(A) Pinus (B) Adiantum (C) Club mosses (D) Sequoia
Q.53 Which group is largest in gymnosperms

(A) Cycadales (B) Gnetales (C) Coniferales (D) Cordaitales
Q.54 Gnetum belongs to

(A) Pteridophyta (B) Bryophyta (C) Angiosperms (D) Gymnosperm
Q.55 Living fossils

(A) Cycas (B) Ginkgo (C) Psilotum (D) All the above
4.64
Plant Kingdom
Q.56 Which of the following order of gymnosperae is totally extinct –

(A) Cycadales (B) Ginkgoales (C) Gnetales (D) Cycadofilicales
Q.57 Which of the following is commonly known as ‘’Yew tree’’

(A) Pinus roxburghli (B) P. strobus (C) Taxus (D) P. sylvestris
Q.58 Gymnosperms differ from pteridophytes in having
(A) Presence of vessels (B) Presence of embryo
(C) Presence of seed (D) Companion cell
Q.59 Fossils of Williamsonia were first discovered by

(A) Williamson (B) Seward (C) Birbal Sahani (D) Kashyap
n
Q.60 Professor Birbal sahani discovered a fossil plant from 100 million years old fossil forest at Rajmahal
Hills, Bihar. This plant is –
.i
(A) Rhynia (B) Homeophyton al
(C) Williamsonia
Q.61 The characteristic feature of gymnosperm is –
n (D) Red algae
ur
(A) Seeds are naked (B) Fruits are absent
(C) Heterosporus (D) All
o
Q.62 In nature the largest ovules are found in –

uj
(A) Sequoia (B) Ginkgo (C) Pinus (D) Cycas

Ed
Q.63 The plants of gymnosperms are –

(A) Homo and heterosporous (B) Homosporous
(C) Heterosporous (D) Monoecious
Q.64 Taxus belongs to –

(A) Ephedrales (B) Cycadales (C) Coniferales (D) Gnetales
Q.65 Vessels are found in –

(A) Coniferales (B) Gnetales (C) Cycadales (D) Ginkgoales
Q.66 In heterosporous plants like some ferns, gymnosperms and angiosperms, the gametophytes are
(A) Monoecious (B) Dioecicus (C) Heteroecious (D) Autoecious
4.65
Plant Kingdom
Q.67 If pollen tube bursts in mid way, the male gametes will not be anle to fertilize the egg in.
(A) Lower gymnosperms (B) High gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperm (D) (B) and (C) both
Q.68 Cedar wood oil is obtained from

(A) Cedrus (B) Ables balsemia (C) Pinus (D) Junipenus virginiana
Q.69 The megasporophyll of gymnosperms is equivalent to

(A) Stem (B) Carpels (C) Female cone (D) stamens
Q.70 Which in the most logical sequence with reference to the life cycle of angiosperm
(A) Germination, endosperm formation, seed dispessal, double fertilization
(B) Endosperm formation, seed formation, fertilization, seed germination
n
(C) Pollination, fertilization, seed formation, seed germination
.i
(D) Fertilization, seed dispersal, edosperm formation, seed germination
Q.71 Only angiosperms have –

n al
(A) Seed (B) Vascular tissue
ur
(B) Fruit (D) Endosperm

o
Q.72 Most reduced size gametophyte is of –

uj
(A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Gymnosperm (D) Angiosperm

Ed
Q.73 Microsporophyll of angiosperms is known is –

(A) Androecium (B) Anther (C) Filament (D) Stamen
Q.74 Which one is female gametophyte –

(A) Embryo (B) Embryosac (C) Endosperm (D) Pistil
Q.75 Ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to –

(A) A megasporangium (B) A microsporangium
(C) A micro spore (D) A megaspore
Q.76 In angiosperm megasporophyll is equal to –

(A) Gynoecium (B) Carpel (C) Ovary (D) Stigma
4.66
Plant Kingdom
Q.77 Which of the following nuclei participate in double fertilization –

(A) The egg (B) The secondary nucleus
(C) The two male nuclei (D) All of the above
Q.78 After fertilization which structure produces seed –

(A) Ovule (B) Ovary (C) Embryo (D) Endosperm
Q.79 Normal embryo is developed by the activity of

(A) Two polar nuclei of embryosac
(B) Secondary nucleus and male gamete
(C) Egg cell and male gamete
(D) Synergids
n
Q.80 The fusion product of polar nuclei and male gametes is
.i
(A) Nucellus al
(B) Zygote
n
(C) Primary endosperm nucleus
ur
(D) Secondary nucleus
o
Q.81 Haploid diploid and triploid conditions can be traced respectively in –

uj
(A) Egg, Nucellus, Endosperm

(B) Antipodal, Egg, Endosperm
Ed
(C) Nucellus, Endosperm, Synergids

(D) Antipodal, Synergids, Endosperm
Q.82 The number of nucleus taking part in double fertilization are

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
Q.83 Endosperm of maximum angiosperm is

(A) 2n (B) 3n (C) n (D) n + 1
Q.84 Embryosac is
(A) 7 celled 7 nucleated (B) 8 celled 8 nucleated
(C) 7 Celled 8 nucleated (D) 8 celled 7 nucleated
Q.85 Subkingdom Cryptogamia in classification system given by Linnaeus includes

4.67
Plant Kingdom
(A) Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Gymnosperms

(B) Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta
(C) Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
(D) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
Q.86 Find odd one out w.r.t. natural classification systems

(A) Bentham and Hooker’s system (B) De Candolle system
(C) John Ray’s system (D) Eichler’s system
Q.87 1. Number and codes are assigned to few of the selected characters in numerical taxonomy
2. Phylogenetic classification system are based on evolutionary relationships between the various organisms
3. Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological information like chromosome number, structure & behaviour
n
(A) 1 and 2 are incorrect (B) Only 3 is correct
.i
(C) Only 1 is incorrect (D) 2 and 3 are incorrect
al
Q.88 Each character is given equal important and at the same time hundreds of characters can be
n
considered in
ur
(A) Cladistics (B) Phenetics (C) Chemotaxonomy (D) Cytotaxonomy

o
Q.89 Which of the following type of taxonomy deals with the collection and identification of organism on the
basis of gross morphology?
uj
(A) Alpha taxonomy (B) Beta taxonomy

Ed
(C) Omega taxonomy (D) Karyotaxonomy
Q.90 Coenobium is the name given to the colony of

(A) Chlamydomonas (B) Fritshiella
(C) Volvox (D) Voucheria
Q.91 All given algal members possess unicelled sex organs, except
(A) Chara (B) Ulothrix (C) Spirogyra (D) Chlamydomonas
Q.92 Anteriorly placed, equal, 2-8, flagella are characteristic to

(A) Blue green algae (B) Green algae
(C) Brown algae (D) Red algae
4.68
Plant Kingdom
Q.93 Which set of characters is specific to red algae?

(A) Phycobilins, Chlorophyll a and c (B) Chlorophyll a and d, Floridean starch
(C) Flagella absent, Mannitol (D) Fucoxanthin, Floridean starch
Q.94 Find odd one w.r.t. fresh water algae

(A) Batrachlospermum (B) Spirogyra
(C) Volvox (D) Chondrus
Q.95 Select an incorrect match

(A) Porphyra – Edible red algae (B) Gracilaria – Agar
(C) Alaria – Surumen (D) Cephaleuros – lodine
Q.96 Plant body is differentiated in hold fast, stipe and frond in
n
(A) Ulva (B) Laminaria
.i
(C) Oedogonium (D) Acetabularia
Q.97 Chloroplast is star shaped in

n al
(A) Oedogonium (B) Zygnema (C) Chlorella (D) Ulothrix
ur
Q.98 Chlorella pyrenoidosa is commonly called as

o
(A) lrish moss (B) Laver

uj
(C) Space alga (D) Frog spawn alga

Ed
Q.99 Thin walled, non-motile, asexual, endogenous spores in some algal members are called
(A) Zoospores (B) Aplanospores
(C) Hyponspores (D) Cyst
Q.100 Select incorrect statement w.r.t. Chlamydomonas

(A) Cell is pyriform (B) Presence of contractile vacuoles
(C) Cell wall having polysulphate esters (D) Cup shaped chloroplast
Q.101 Flagella in a Chlamydomonas cell are

(A) 2; both tinsel type (B) 2; one tinsel and other whiplash
(C) Cell wall having polysulphate esters (D) Cup shaped chloroplast
4.69
Plant Kingdom
Q.102 Red snow is associated with of Chlamydomonas.

(A) Zoospore (B) Hypnospore (C) Aplanospore (D) Tetraspore
Q.103 The cell of Ulothrix attached to substratum
(A) Is non dividing and photosynthetic (B) Is green and dome shaped
(C) Is non green and non dividing (D) Has an eye spot
Q.104 Quadriflagellated zoospores are characteristically found in

(A) Spirogyra (B) Chlamydomonas
(C) Ulothrix (D) Volvox
Q.105 All given statements are correct for Ulothrix, except

(A) Unbranched filamentous algae (B) Parenchymatous sheet like body
n
(C) Occurrence of palmella stage (D) Girdle shaped chloroplast
.i
(A) Number of zygospores
al
Q.106 Number of new filaments produced by means of sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is equivalent to
(B) Number of melosis
n
(C) Number of gametes (D) More than one option is correct
ur
Q.107 Mark the correct option (w.r.t. Spirogyra)

o
(A) Chloroplast is spiral (B) Many pyrenoids are present in chloroplast

uj
(C) Cytoplasmic strands hold the nucleus (D) All of these

Ed
Q.108 Select a correct match

(A) Cryptothallus – Epiphytic bryophyte (B) Buxbaumia – Parastic bryophyte
(C) Bryophyta – First archegoniate (D) Riccia fluitans – Saprophytic bryophyte
Q.109 Ecologically the most important moss is

(A) Sphagnum (B) Funaria (C) Polytrichum (D) Pogonatum
Q.110 Thallus of which bryophyte resembles algae in structure?

(A) Porella (B) Riccia (C) Anthoceros (D) Marchantia
Q.111 All given members are monoecious, except

(A) Marchantia (B) Funaria (C) Anthoceros (D) Sphagnum
4.70
Plant Kingdom
Q.112 Hygroscopic structure present in Marchantia for spore dispersal is called

(A) Elater (B) Pseudoeiater (C) Nurse cell (D) Annulus
Q.113 Select incorrect statement w.r.t. characters of true moss

(A) Multicelled branched rhizoids (B) Multicelled asexual buds
(C) Diploid sporophytic structures (D) Haploid sexual structures
Q.114 Gemmae are

(A) Unicelled structures (B) Multicelled asexual buds
(C) Diploid sporophytic structures (D) Haploid sexual structures
Q.115 Number of neck canel cells in true mosses is

(A) 4 (B) 4 – 6 (C) 1 (D) 6 – 10
.i n
Q.116 Find odd one out w.r.t. ploidy level in bryophytes
(A) NCC (B) VCC
n al
(C) spore (D) Theca
Q.117 Sporophyte is a partial parasite on gametophyte in
ur
(A) Marchantia (B) Porella (C) Pogonatum (D) Riccia

o
Q.118 Photosynthetic tissue is present in region of Funaria capsule.

uj
(A) Apophysis (B) Theca

(C) Operculum (D) More than one option is correct
Ed
Q.119 Central sterile tissue of capsule in sporophyte of Funaria is called as

(A) Apophysis (B) Annulus (C) Columella (D) Operculum
Q.120 Pteridophytes are also called

(A) Vascular amphibians of plant kingdom (B) First tracheophytes
(C) Botanical snakes (D) All of these
Q.121 Find the correct option w.r.t. Filicophyta

(A) Seleginella (B) Equisetum (C) Dryopteris (D) Lycopodium
Q.122 Select a set of heterosporous genera

(A) Marsilea, Azolla (B) Salvinia, Pteridium
(C) Adiantum, Azolla (D) Pteris, Lycopodium
4.71
Plant Kingdom
Q.123 True ferns are associated with all, except

(A) Circinate ptyxis (B) Presence of rementa
(C) Presence of frond (D) Biflagellated male gametes
Q.124 Select the correct match

(A) Psilopsida – Dryopteris (B) Lycopsida – Selaginella
(C) Sphenopsida – Pteris (D) Pteropsida – Equisetum
Q.125 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in

(A) Equisetum (B) Adiantum (C) Marsilea (D) Rhynia
Q.126 In life Cycle of Dryopteris

(A) Main plant body is gametophyte (B) True indusium covers the sorus
n
(C) Sucrose attracts the male gametes (D) Two NCC are found in archegonium
.i
al
Q.127 (i) Companion cells and sieve tubes are absent in pteridophytes
(ii) Eusporangiate development is characteristic of true ferns
n
ur
(iii) Cordate prothallus is found in Dryopteris
(A) Only (iii) is incorrect (B) Only (i) is incorrect
o
(C) (i) and (ii) are correct (D) Only (ii) is incorrect
uj
Q.128 Stele with large number of overlapping leaf gaps is called as

Ed
(A) Protostele (B) Actinostele (C) Dictyostele (D) Plectostele
Q.129 Antheridium of Dryopteris has called jacket and about

sperm mother cells.
(A) 3, 16 (B) 2, 32 (C) 2, 16 (D) 3, 32
Q.130 ‘‘Organ sui generis’’ is also called

(A) Rhizoid (B) Rhizomorph (C) Rhizophore (D) Rhizine
4.72
Plant Kingdom
Q.131 Consider the given features

(i) Resurrection habit, (ii) Meroblastic embryo development
(iii) Endosporic and diploid female gametophyte, (iv) Precocious germination of spores
Find correct w.r.t. Selaginella
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (i), (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iv)
Q.132 Endosperm in gymnosperms is

(A) n (B) 2n (C) 3n (D) 4n
Q.133 Select a correct match

(A) Chilgoza – Pinus gerardiana (B) Canada balsum – Ephedra
(C) Cedar wood oil – Cedrus (D) Taxol – Ginkgo
n
Q.134 (i) Siphonogamy is found in Pinus, (ii) Stem branches are monomorphic in Pinus
.i
(iii) Wood is monoxylic and manoxylic in Pinus
(A) (i) and (iii) are incorrect
(C) Only (iii) is correct
n al
(B) Only (i) is correct
(D) (i) and (ii) are correct
ur
Q.135 How many ovules are present on each megasporophyll of Pinus?

(A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Eight or more
o
uj
Q.136 Mark the odd one (w.r.t. Ginkgo biloba)

Ed
(A) Presence of naked seeds (B) Absence of flowers

(C) Presence of heterospory (D) Absence of long shoot
Q.137 Transfusion tissue is found in the leaves of

(A) Gymnosperms (B) Ferns (C) Monocols (D) Dicots
Q.138 Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II
(P) Largest gymnosperm (i) Zamia
(Q) Pagoda tree (ii) Ephedra
(R) Smallest gymnosperm (iii) Ginkgo biloba
(S) Ephedrine (iv) Sequoia
(A) P(i), Q(iv), R(iii), S(ii) (B) P(iv), Q(iii), R(i), S(ii)
(C) P(iv), Q(iii), R(ii), S(i) (D) P(ii), Q(iii), R(iv), S(i)
4.73
Plant Kingdom
Q.139 Mark the incorrect option (w.r.t. Gnetales)

(A) Ephedra (B) Ginkgo (C) Welwitschia (D) Gnetum
Q.140 Features like coralloid root and circinate ptyxis are present in
(A) Pinus (B) Cycas (C) Ginkgo (D) Cedrus
Q.141 Independent free living, photosyntheric gametophyte is not found in

(A) Funaria (B) Marchantia (C) Cycas (D) Riccia
Q.142 Female gametophyte in angiosperms is called

(A) Endosperm (B) Carpel (C) Ovule (D) Embryo sac
n
Q.143 Find odd one out w.r.t. haplontic life cycle
.i
(A) Ectocarpus (B) Ulothrix (C) Spirogyra (D) Chlamydomonas
Q.144 Select correct w.r.t. diplohaplontic life cycle

n al
(A) Found in Polysiphonia and Gnetum
ur
(B) Both gametophyte and sporophyte phases are present

(C) Common in green algae
o
(D) Gametic meiosis occurs

uj
Q.145 Details of sexual system of classification were published in

Ed
(A) Historia Plantarum (B) Historia Naturalis

(C) Historia Generalis Plantarum (D) Genera Plantarum
Q.146 Basis of dendrogram is

(A) Phenetics (B) Taximetrics (C) Numerical taxonomy (D) All of these
Q.147 Huxley is considered to be the founder of

(A) Classical systematics (B) New systematics
(C) Phylogenetic system of classification (D) Artificial system of classification
Q.148 The classification of plants and animals on the basis of chromosome number if called
(A) Cytotaxonomy (B) Biochemical systematics
(C) Taxonomy (D) Numerical taxonomy
4.74
Plant Kingdom
Q.149 The sequencing in DNA and chemical nature of proteins have been used as the basis of
classification by
(A) Cytotaxonomist (B) Karyotaxonomist
(C) Chemotaxonomist (D) Natutal taxonomist
Q.150 Term Alpha-taxonomy was introduced by

(A) John Ray (B) Hutchinson (C) Bassey (D) Turril
Q.151 Sexual system of classification is

(A) Artificial system (B) Based on stamens characters
(C) Based on corolla and carpels characters (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.152 The Linnaeus system of classification contains
n
(A) 4 classes of plants (B) 8 classes of plants
.i
(C) 16 Classes of plants (D) 24 classes of plants
Q.153 Classification based on several characters is

n al
(A) Natural (B) Artificial (C) Classical (D) Phylogenetic
ur
Q.154 The natural system of classification was proposed by

o
(A) Engler and Prantl (B) Bentham and Hooker

uj
(C) Carolus Linnaeus (D) Julian Huxley

Ed
Q.155 The Bentham and Hooker’s classification is

(A) Classification of taxa based on actual examination
(B) Artificial system of classification
(C) Phylogenetic system of classification
(D) Based on evolution
Q.156 In Bentham and Hooker’s system the term cohort have been used. It is same as which rank in today’s
classification?
(A) Class (B) Family (C) Order (D) Sub-Family
Q.157 Which one of the following classification is best suited for identification of seed plants?
(A) Bentham and Hooker’s classification (B) Engler and Prantl’s classification
(C) Hutchinson’s classification (D) Takhtajan’s classification
4.75
Plant Kingdom
Q.158 Which is most advanced among the following?

(A) Cycadaceae (B) Gnetaceae (C) Coniferae (D) Cryptogamae
Q.159 Which is not true about the series Heteromerae in Bentham and Hooker’s system?
(A) Always bicarpellary condition (B) Ovary usually superior
(C) Stamens are as many as corolla lobe (D) It includes 3 cohorts
Q.160 Who is not associated with the artificial system of classification?
(A) Pliny (B) Theophrastus (C) Hutchinson (D) Engler and prantl
Q.161 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as

(A) Candolle (B) Ontogeny (C) Phycology (D) Mycology
n
Q.162 Angiosperms (Dicotyledons) were distinguished into archichlamydeae and metachlamydeae by
.i
(A) Candolle (B) Cronquist (C) Hutchinson (D) Engler and Prantl
al
Q.163 ‘’Taxonomy without phylogeny may be like a body without flesh’’ is a statement supported by
n
(A) Oswald (B) Bentham and Hooker
ur
(C) Takhtajan (D) John Hutchinson

o
Q.164 Select the cladistics system of classification in which dicots are primitive than monocots
uj
(A) Horizontal system (B) Hutchinson system

(C) Bentham and Hooker’s system (D) Engler and Prantl’s system
Ed
Q.165 Seedless tracheophytes are

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms
Q.166 Algae were grouped into kingdoms according to Whittaker.

(A) Two (B) Three (C) One (D) Four
Q.167 Heterotrichous nature of thallus is found in

(A) Funaria (B) Fritschiella and Ectocarpus
(C) Stigeoclonium and Coleochaete (D) All of these
Q.168 Thick walled perennation sexual spore is

(A) Zygote (B) Zoospore (C) Hyponspore (D) Zygospore
4.76
Plant Kingdom
Q.169 Gulf weed belongs to the class

(A) Chlorophyceae (B) Dinophyceae (C) Phaeophyceae (D) Rhodophyceae
Q.170 The thallus organisation of Volvox is

(A) Multicellular and coccoid (B) Colonial and nonflagellate
(C) Unicellular (D) Colonial and motile
Q.171 Hydroxyproline nature of cell wall is found in

(A) Chlamydomonas (B) Ulothrix (C) Spirogyra (D) Chlorella
Q.172 Gametophytic plant body is nonvascular in

(A) Algae and liverworts (B) Mosses and ferns
(C) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (D) All of these
.i n
Q.173 Brown algae are quit common in
(A) Fresh water habitats
(C) Temperate sea water
n al
(B) Mosses and ferns
(D) Both (B) and (C)
ur
Q.174 Chloroplast with many pyrenoids is the feature of

(A) Chlamydomonas (B) Sargassum
o
(C) Batrachospermum (D) Spirogyra

uj
Q.175 Algae with floridean starch as reserve food material is also characterised by
Ed
(A) Presence of chlorophyll b (B) Stacked thylakoids

(C) Nonsulphated phycocolloids (D) Nonflagellate nature
Q.176 Number of species of marine algae used as food is

(A) 20 (B) 70 (C) 50 (D) 120
Q.177 Red snow is caused by

(A) Zoospores of Chlamydomonas nivalis (B) Hypnospores of C. braunii
(C) Aplanospores of C. media (D) Hypnospores of C. nivalis
Q.178 Thallus is flattened, leaf like and anchors to the rocks with the help of holdfast in
(A) Laminaria (B) Polysiphonia (C) Batrachosperum (D) Ectocarpus
4.77
Plant Kingdom
Q.179 100 zygospores, alternate with empty cells in spirogyra are under Conjugation
and the total number of daughter filaments formed will be
(A) Scalariform, 400 (B) Lateral, 100
(C) Lateral, 400 (D) Scalariform, 100
Q.180 Algin is a phycocolloid, obtained from the cell wall of

(A) Macrocystis and Porphyridium (B) Mastigocladus and Laminaria
(C) Microcystis and Nereocystis (D) Macrocystis and Fucus
Q.181 Which of the given is a parasitic algae?

(A) Porphyra (B) Sargassum (C) Laminaria (D) Cephaleuros
Q.182 An edible red algae is
n
(A) Fucus (B) Sargassum (C) Acetabularia (D) Porphyra
.i
(B) Nereocystis
al
Q.183 A floating brown algae that covers thousands of hectares of sea in atlantic ocean is
(A) Fucus (C) Sargassum
n
(D) Dicyota
ur
Q.184 Motile, flagellated asexual spore is
(A) Zygote (B) Zygospore (C) Aplanospore (D) Zoospore
o
uj
Q.185 Laminarin starch is a reserve product and is a characteristic of

(A) Green algae (B) Blue green algae (C) Red algae (D) Brown algae
Ed
Q.186 Which of the following is a red alga that is not red?

(A) Nemalion (B) Polysiphonia (C) Gelidium (D) Batrachospermum
Q.187 The colour of brown algae is due to

(A) Carotene (B) Fucoxanthin (C) Phycoerythrin (D) Phycocyanin
Q.188 The alga Chara is called ‘Stonewort’ because its plant body is encrusted with
(A) Calcium bicarbonate (B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Calcium chloride (D) Calcium oxalate
4.78
Plant Kingdom
Q.189 In chlorophyceae, the flagella are

(A) Tinsel type (B) Whiplash type
(C) Whiplash and tinsel type (D) Basal tinsel, apical whiplash type
Q.190 lrish moss belongs to

(A) Mosses (B) Bryophytes (C) Red algae (D) Lichens
Q.191 Which of the following are useful for curing goitre?

(A) Sea kelps (B) Diatoms (C) Red algae (D) Porphyra
Q.192 Of all algae, the property of nitrogen fixation is restricted to the members of
(A) Cyanophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C) Rhodophyta (D) Phaeophyta
n
Q.193 Find the site of meiosis in green algae
.i
(A) Gametangia (B) Zygote (C) Sporangia (D) Zygospore
al
Q.194 Non-motile gametes are characteristically found in
n
(A) Cyanophyta (B) Rhodophyta (C) Phaeophyta (D) Chlorophyta
ur
Q.195 Flagella are of equal length and smooth in Chlamydomonas. This condition can be referred to as
o
(A) lsokont and pleuronematic (B) Heterokont and acronematic

uj
(C) lsokont and acronematic (D) Heterokont and pleuronematic

Ed
Q.196 The female sex organ in red aglae is flask shaped and is known as
(A) Trichogyne (B) Carpogonium (C) Spermatium (D) Archegonium
Q.197 Non-vascular archegoniates are

(A) Thallophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Bryophyta (D) Gymnosperms
Q.198 Protonema represents photosynthetic, filamentous, juvenile gametophyte of

(A) lrish moss (B) Club moss (C) Cord moss (D) Spanish moss
Q.199 What is the chromosomes number in calyptra, perichaetial cells, columella and protonema if
endothecium cell contains 20 chromosomes?
(A) 10, 10, 20 and 10 respectively (B) 10, 20, 20 and 10 respectively
(C) 20, 10, 20 and 10 respectively (D) 10, 10, 20 and 0 respectively
4.79
Plant Kingdom
Q.200 Which one of the following is homosporous with exoscopic embryogeny?

(A) All pteridophytes (B) Bryophytes and gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperms (D) All bryophytes
Q.201 Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes resemble with each other in which one of the following feature?
(A) Gametophytic plant body (B) Dependence on water for fertilisation
(C) Heteromorphic alteration of generation (D) Presence of embryo

Column I Column II
P Cord moss (i) Rhizophore
Q Spike moss (ii) Agar
R Irish moss (iii) Peristome
n
S Ceylon moss (iv) Carrageenin
.i
(A) P(i), Q(ii), R(iii), S(iv)
(C) P(iii), Q(i), R(ii), R(iv)
n al (B) P(iii), Q(ii), R(iv), R(i)
(D) P(iii), Q(i), R(iv), S(ii)
Q.203 Bryophytes are not characterised by

ur
(A) Sporophyte parasitic over gametophyte (B) Independent gametophyte

o
(C) Absence of vascular tissues (D) Independent sporophyte

uj
Q.204 One of the following is a heterotrophic bryophyte

Ed
(A) Cryptothallus (B) Riccia (C) Dawsonia (D) Sphaerocarpus
Q.205 In Funaria, the number of peristome teeth in exostome is

(A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 16 (D) 8
Q.206 Rhizoids of mosses are

(A) Unicellular and pigmented (B) Multicellular and nonpigmented
(C) Unicellular and nonpigmented (D) Multicellular and nonpigmented
Q.207 In Funaria, calyptra is derived from

(A) Antheridium (B) Columella (C) Capsule (D) Archegonium
Q.208 Which of the following is not connected with spore dispersal in Funaria?
(A) Seta (B) Perisome (C) Annulus (D) Foot
4.80
Plant Kingdom
Q.209 Chloroplasts are present in the spores of

(A) Rhizopus (B) Funaria (C) Yeast (D) Dryopteris
Q.210 Stomata having pores bounded by a single ring shaped guard cell are found in
(A) Capsule of Funaria (B) Leaf of fern
(C) Pinnule of Cycas (D) All of these
Q.211 Conducting tissue is not found in

(A) Mosses (B) Liverworts (C) Cycas (D) Ferns
Q.212 Stems and leaves of bryophytes are

(A) Analogous to vascular plants (B) Homologous to vascular plants
(C) Analogous to algae thallus (D) None of these
.i n
Q.213 Non-vascular embryophyte with leaves is
(A) Riccia (B) Porella
n al
(C) Selaginella (D) Macrocystis
Q.214 The hygroscopic structures in moss capsule is/are

ur
(A) Stomium cells (B) Annulus (C) Operculum (D) Peristome teeth
o
Q.215 Mitospores are totally absent in life cycle of

uj
(A) Chlorophyceae (B) Phaeophyceae

Ed
(C) Fungi (D) Bryophytes
Q.216 Which is a member of bryopsida?

(A) maiden hair moss (B) lrish moss
(C) Reindeer moss (D) All of these
Q.217 Which group of plantae represents gametrophytic plant body with dependent sporophyte?
(A) Algae and bryophytes (B) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
(C) Liverworts and mosses (D) Ferns and cycades
Q.218 Life cycle of cord moss is

(A) Haplontic (B) Haplodiplontic (C) Diplontic (D) Haplohaplontic
4.81
Plant Kingdom
Q.219 Heterosporous pteridophyte with eusporangiate type of sporangium is

(A) Pteris and Adiantum (B) lsoetes and Selaginella
(C) Dryopteris and Azolla (D) Marsilea and Pteris
Q.220 In little club moss, embryo develops from the part of zygote and rest is used to form suspensor. This
mode of development is called
(A) Exoscopic (B) Endoscopic (C) Meroblastic (D) Holoblastic
Q.221 Shedding of male gametophyte in Selaginella occurs at 13-celled stage which consists of
(A) 8 jacket cells, 1 generative cell and 4 androgonial cells
(B) 9 jacket cells and 4 androgonial cells
(C) 12 jacket cells and 1 male gamete
(D) 8 jacket cells, 1 prothalial cell and 4 androgonial cells
.i n
Q.222 Find correct statement for the prothallus of fern
n
(B) Monocious, protandrous with unicellular rhizoides
al
(A) Monoecious, protandrous with multicellular rhizoides
(C) Dioecious, with unicellular rhizoides

ur
(D) Monoecious, protandrous with apical antheridia and basal archegonia on ventral surface
o
Q.223 Pteridophytes are divided into classes.

uj
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Six

Ed
Q.224 Rootless pteridophytes with rhizoides are included into

(A) Sphenopsida (B) Psilopsida (C) Pteropsida (D) Lycopsida
Q.225 The dominant photosynthetic phase in the life cycle of pteridophyta is equivalent to the
(A) Gametophytic phase of bryophyte
(B) Sporophytic phase of bryophyte
(C) Gametophytic phase of pteridophytes
(D) Gametophytic phase of gymnosperm
Q.226 In Pteridophytes, reduction division occurs when

(A) Prothallus is formed (B) Sex organs are formed
(C) Spores are formed (D) Gametes are formed
4.82
Plant Kingdom
Q.227 Fern sperms (antherozoids) are

(A) Multiflagellated (B) Uniflagellated
(C) Biflagellated (D) Non flagellated
Q.228 The evolutionary advanced features of Selaginella are

(1) Heterospory
(2) Endosporic development of gametophyte
(3) Reduced gametophyte
(4) Localization of sporangium bearing appendages in strobili
(5) Unisexual gametophytes
(6) Fertilization with the help of water
(A) All are correct (B) All except (6) is correct
n
(C) All except (5) and (6) are correct (D) All except (3) is correct
.i
Q.229 When the gametophyte development occurs within spore it is known as
al
(A) Exosporic (B) Endosporic (C) Episporic (D) None of these
n
ur
Q.230 In Selaginella life cycle, generative tissue of female gametophyte makes
(A) Androgonial cells (B) Endosporic
o
(C) Episporic (D) None of these

uj
Q.231 In the fern rhizome, the meristele is

Ed
(A) Amphicribal (B) Collateral (C) Conjoint (D) Radial
Q.232 Venation in fern leaves is

(A) Unicostate (B) Reticulate (C) Furcate (D) Parallel
Q.233 If the number of chromosome in the foot of an embyo is 8, what should be the number in its spore?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 23
Q.234 Select the type of stele without pith

(A) Solenostele (B) Siphonostele (C) Protostele (D) Dictyostele
4.83
Plant Kingdom
Q.235 The sporangia of eusporangiate ferns

(A) Possess a single layer of wall cells (B) Produce very few spores
(C) Originate from a group of initial cells (D) Dehisce at the region of a well defined stomium.
Q.236 Spore having their wall modified to elater is characteristic of

(A) Lycopodium (B) Equisetum (C) Adiantum (D) Marchantia
Q.237 In the archegonium of Dryopteris, the number of neck canal cells is/are
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 6-10
Q.238 Vascular cryptogames are

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Gymnosperm (D) Angiosperm
n
Q.239 Maiden hair fern is
.i
(A) Adiantum (B) Dryopteris (C) Cyathea (D) Alsophila
al
Q.240 Endosperm of gymnosperm is ontogenetically similar to angiospermic
n
(A) Endosperm (B) Embryo sac (C) Archegonium (D) Megasporangia
ur
Q.241 Which group of plantae represents smallest group with perennial plants only?
o
(A) Pteridophyta (B) Angiosperms (C) Bryophyta (D) Gymnosperms

uj
Q.242 Living fossils of gymnosperms are

Ed
(A) Araucaria embricata (B) Cycas revoluta

(C) Pinus longifolia (D) Gnetum gnemone
Q.243 Identify the oldest gymnosperm

(A) Cycas (B) Metasequoia (C) Ginkgo biloba (D) All of these
Q.244 Member of plantae having endospermic, perispermic, polycotyledonous and winged seeds is also
related to
(A) Sulphur shower (B) Largest ovule
(C) Double fertilization (D) Placentation
Q.245 The ovuliferous scale of Pinus bears ovules

(A) One (B) Three (C) Two (D) Four
4.84
Plant Kingdom
Q.246 Pollination occurs in Pinus at

(A) 2 celled stages (B) 3 celled stages
(C) 4 celled stages (D) 5 celled stages
Q.247 Polyxylic and manoxylic wood is present in

(A) Pinus (B) Cycas (C) Ginkgo (D) Gnetum
Q.248 Which one of the following group acts as connecting link between gymnosperms and angiosperms?
(A) Ginkgoales (B) Cycadales (D) Coniferales (D) Gnetales
Q.249 Phanerogams without womb are

(A) Angiosperms (B) Bryophytes (C) Ferms (D) Gymnosperms
n
Q.250 Fruits are not produced in gymnosperms because they are
.i
(A) Without pollination (B) Without fertilization
(C) Seedless plants
n al
(D) Without any ovary
Q.251 Which one constitutes the dominant vegetation in colder regions?

ur
(A) Monocots (B) Dicots (C) Legumes (D) Gymnosperms

o
Q.252 In gymnosperms, pollination takes place through

uj
(A) Insects (B) Wind (C) Bats (D) Birds

Ed
Q.253 Of the following, the false character with respect to Pinus is

(A) Resin canals in needles (B) Tracheids with bordered pits
(C) Bracts and ovuliferous scales (D) Embryo with two cotyledons
Q.254 Maiden hair tree is

(A) Ginkgo biloba (B) Gnetum
(C) Ephedra (D) Welwitschia
Q.255 Edible seeds are obtained from

(A) Mangifera indica (B) Pinus gerardiana
(C) P.roxburghii (D) Dalbergia sisso
4.85
Plant Kingdom
Q.256 Diploxylic vascular bundles are found in

(A) Pteris (B) Selaginella (C) Funaria (D) Cycas
Q.257 Circinate ptyxis is found in

(A) Pteris (B) Dryopteris (C) Cycas (D) All of these
Q.258 Transfusion tissue replaces the veins in

(A) Cycas (B) Ferns (C) Pinus (D) Pinus and Cycas

Column I Column II
a Cedar wood oil (i) Juniperus virginiana
n
b Canada Balsam (ii) Pinus girardiana
c Chilgoza seeds (iii) Cycas revolute
.i
d Sago grains (iv)
(v)
Cedrus deodara
Abies species
n al
(A) a(i), b(v), c(ii), d(iii) (B) a(i), b(v), c(iii), d(ii)
ur
(C) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii) (D) a(i), b(v), c(ii), d(iv)
o
Q.260 Carpels are equivalent to the

uj
(A) Microsporophylls (B) Megasporophylls

Ed
(C) Megasporangia (D) Embryo sac
Q.261 Vessels are present in the xylem of which group of tracheophytes?

(A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.262 A marine angiosperm is

(A) Hydrilla (B) Utricularia (C) Potamogeton (D) Zostera
Q.263 Biennials are characterised by

(A) Bearing flowers for two seasons
(B) Forming aerial stem and flowering in second year
(C) Flowering in first year and forming fruits in second year
(D) Forming storage organs in the first year and reproductive organ or flowers in the second year.
4.86
Plant Kingdom
Q.264 Flowering plants are more successful than other members of the plant world because
(A) They are large and have a good vascular tissue system
(B) They carry out variety of pollination mechanism
(C) The protected plant embryo can servive in the period of unfavourable conditions
(D) All of these
Q.265 Some characters of algae are given below

(1) Floridean starch
(2) Sulphated phycocolloids in cell wall
(3) Alginic acid
(4) Trumpet hypha
(5) Haplodiplontic life cycle
n
(6) Isomorphic alternation of generation
(7) Fucoxanthin
.i
(8) Phycoerythrin al
(9) Zygotic meiosis
n
(10) Two anterior flagella.
ur
Which of the given set of characters belongs to Laminaria?

(A) (1), (2), (5), (6), (8) (B) (3), (4), (5), (7)
o
(C) (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7) (8) (D) (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8)
uj
Q.266 Anthoceros resembles green algae in all, except

Ed
(A) Agal filament like gametophyte that develops after spore germination
(B) Single pyrenoid per cell
(C) Single chloroplast per cell
(D) Presence of starch storing bodies
Q.267 (1) Leptosporangiate development of sporangium is found in all members of Pteropsida.

(2) Selaginella is advance among pteridophytes as it produces seeds
(3) Pinus leaves are monomorphic, pinnate compound and have sunken stomata as adaptation against
transpiration
(4) Sporic meiosis is characteristic of life cycle in many organisms like Volvox, Chlamydomonas and Ulothrix.
(A) All are incorrect (B) Both 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 is correct (D) Only 4 is incorrect.
4.87
Plant Kingdom
Q.268 Wood of Pinus is

(A) Soft, nonporous, homoxylous, manoxylic, polyxylic
(B) Hard, nonporous, heteroxylous, polyxylic, monoxylic
(C) Soft, porous, homoxylous, pycnoxylic, monoxylic.
(D) Soft, nonporous, homoxylous, pyconxylic, monoxylic.
Q.269 How many structures listed below are diploid for typical fern member?
(1) Indusium cell (2) Stomium cell (3) NCC
(4) Root stock cell (5) Sporophyll cell (6) Prothallus cell
(7) SMC (8) Spore (9) Antherozoid mother cell
(A) Nine (B) Six (C) Five (D) Seven
n
Q.270 (i) Ranales is considered most advanced among the dicots by Bentham and Hooker.
(ii) Engler and Prnatl system is transition between natural and artificial systems
.i
(iii) Numerical taxonomy uses all observable characters and employs computers for establishing correlation
al
between the plants
n
(iv) Chemical constituents of the plants can be used to resolve taxonomic problems
ur
(A) All are correct (B) All are incorrect
(C) C and D are correct (D) A, C and D are correct
o
uj
Q.271 Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the figure given below

(A) A – Sporophyte; B - Meiosis
Ed
C – Gametogenesis; D – Endosperm
(B) A – Sporophyte; B – Mitosis
C – Gametogenesis; D – Zygote
(C) A – Gametophyte; B – Meiosis
(D) A – Sporophyte; B – Meiosis
4.88
Plant Kingdom
Q.272 Find set of features related to Funaria

(1) Protonema (2) Prothallus (3) Gametophore (4) Thallus body(5) 4 NCC
(6) Haplodiplontic (7) True plant organs in sporophyte (8) Fragmentation
(A) (2), (4), (5), (7) (B) (1), (4), (6), (7)
(C) (1), (3), (6), (7), (8) (D) (1), (3), (6), (8)
Q.273 Mark the correct statement for the organism given below in figure.
(A) The structure labelled A is male cone (B) It is member of sphenopsida
(C) Nodes are hollow while internodes are solid (D) This is commonly called as stonewort
Q.274 Which of the given sets are matched correctly?
(1) Chondrus - Algin
(2) Gracilaria - Agar
n
(3) Cycas - Coralloid root
.i
(4) Pinus - Canada balsum
(5) Adiantum - Maiden hair fern
n al
(6) Lycopodium - Little club moss
ur
(7) Cedrus - Independent gametophyte
(8) Sequoia - Tallest gymnosperm
o
(A) (2), (3), (5), (8) (B) (1), (2), (3), (5), (6)
uj
(C) (2), (3), (5), (7), (8) (D) (2), (3), (4), (5), (7), (8)
Ed

Q.1 Young leaves of Cycas show (Chandigarh CET 2009)
(A) Simple venation (B) Circinate venation
(C) Alternate arrangement (D) Opposite arrangement
Q.2 The seed of Pinus is (Chandigarh CET 2009)

(A) Covered and non-endospermic (B) Naked and non –endospermic
(C) Abaxially placed and covered (D) Adaxially placed naked and endospermic
4.89
Plant Kingdom
Q.3 Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in (CBSE PMT prelims 2010)
(A) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins (B) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(C) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (D) Pectins, cellulose and proteins
Q.4 Algae have cell wall made up of (CBSE PMT Prelims 2010)
(A) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins (B) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(C) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins (D) Pectins, cellulose and proteins.
Q.5 The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are (CBSE PMT Prelims 2010)
(A) Tracheids (B) Vessels (C) Fibres (D) Transfusion tissue
Q.6 Which among the following group of plants is known as vascular cryptogams? (Chandigarh CET 2010)
n
(A) Mosses (B) Liverworts (C) Ferns (D) Conifers
.i
n al
Q.7 Which of the following algal groups has no motile stage ? (Chandigarh CET 2010)
(A) Brown (B) Yellow (C) Red (D) Green
ur
Q.8 Sphagnum is an example of (HP PMT 2010)

o
(A) Moss (B) Pteridophyte (C) Algae (D) Gymnosperm

uj
Ed
Q.9 Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong (CBSE Main PMT 2011)
(1) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(2) Salvinia is heterosporous
(3) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
(4) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees
The two wrong statements together are
(A) Statements (1) and (3) (B) Statements (1) and (4)
(C) Statements (2) and (3) (D) Statements (1) and (2)
4.90
Plant Kingdom
Q.10 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit
because (CBSE Main PMT 2011)
(A) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds
(B) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
(C) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat
(D) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte
Q.11 Archegoniophore is present in (CBSE PMT Prelims 2011)

(A) Marchantia (B) Chara (C) Adiantum (D) Funaria
Q.12 Compared with gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be
n
(A) Smaller but to have larger sex organs (B) Larger but to have smaller sex organs
.i
(C) Larger and to have larger sex organs (D) Smaller and to have smaller sex organs
n al
Q.13 The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in (CBSE PMT Prelims 2011)
(A) Polytrichum (B) Adiantum (C) Marchantia (D) Pinus
ur
Q.14 Asexual reproduction in Liverworts takes place by the formation of specialized structures called
o
(HP PMT 2011)

uj
(A) Gemmae (B) Zoospores (C) Sporangia (D) Microspores

Ed
Q.15 Pinus belongs to the class (Karnataka CET 2011)

(A) Gnetopsida (B) Cycadopsida (C) Coniferopsida (D) Sphenopsida
Q.16 Read the following five statements (1 – 5) and answer as asked next to them (CBSE Main PMT 2012)
(1) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
(2) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent.
(3) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in polytrichum
(4) Sexual reproduction in – Volvox is isogamous.
(5) The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(A) Four (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
4.91
Plant Kingdom
Q.17 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ? (CBSE Main PMT 2012)
(A) Viroids – RNA (B) Mustard – Synergids
(C) Ginkgo – Archegonia (D) Salvinia – Prothallus
Q.18 How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs ? (CBSE Main PMT 2012)
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, Trypanosoma,
Porphyra, Wolfia
(A) Six (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
Q.19 Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having (CBSE PMT Prelims 2012)
(A) Motile sperms (B) Cambium (C) Vessels (D) Seeds
n
Q.20 Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
.i
mosses ? (CBSE PMT Pre 2012)
(A) Members of kingdom plantae
al
(B) Mode of Nutrition
n
(C) Multiplication by Fragmentation (D) Diplontic life cycle
ur
Q.21 Which one of the following is a correct statement ? (CBSE PMT Pre 2012)
o
(A) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living

uj
(B) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes

(C) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
Ed
(D) Pteridiophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
Q.22 Fucoxanthin is a characteristic pigment of (Chandigarh CET 2012)

(A) Phaeophyta (B) Chlorophyta (C) Rhodophyta (D) Cyanophyta
Q.23 First amphibian plants of the plant kingdom are (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Thallophytes (B) Bryophytes (C) Pteridophytes (D) Gymnosperms
Q.24 The leaves of fern plants are called (HP PMT 2013)
(A) Macrophylls (B) Microphylls (C) Sporophylls (D) Megasporophylls
4.92
Plant Kingdom
Q.25 The tallest tree species of the gymnosperms is (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Cycas (B) Pinus (C) Sequola (D) Cedrus
Q.26 Select the wrong statement (NEET 2013)

(A) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile
(B) Chlamydomona exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and focus shows oogamy
(C) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour
(D) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
Q.27 Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
(NEET 2013)
(A) Fungi (B) Mosses and Ferns (C) Algae (D) Lichens
.i n
Q.28 Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in (AIPMT 2014)
(A) Pinus (B) Pteris
n al(C) Funaria (D) Lillum
Q.29 Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gamets ? (AIPMT 2014)
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(A) Spirogyra (B) Sargassum (C) Ectocarpus (D) Ulothrix

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Q.30 An alga which can be employed as food for human being is (AIPMT 2014)
(A) Polysiphonia (B) Ulothrix (C) Chlorella (D) Spirogyra
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Q.31 Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ? (AIPMT 2014)
(A) Sphagnum (B) Marchantia (C) Riccia (D) Funaria
4.93
Plant Kingdom
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 D Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 A
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 A Q.11 C Q.12 B
Q.13 B Q.14 D Q.15 A Q.16 C Q.17 D Q.18 B
Q.19 B Q.20 D Q.21 C Q.22 A Q.23 B Q.24 C
Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 C Q.30 C
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Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 B Q.34 A Q.35 B Q.36 D
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Q.37 B Q.38 C Q.39 B Q.40 B
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Q.43 A Q.44 A Q.45 D Q.46 A Q.47 D Q.48 C
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Q.49 C Q.50 D Q.51 D Q.52 A Q.53 C Q.54 D
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Q.55 D Q.56 D Q.57 C Q.58 C Q.59 C Q.60 C

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Q.61 D Q.62 D Q.63 C Q.64 C Q.65 B Q.66 B

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Q.67 D Q.68 D Q.69 B Q.70 C Q.71 C Q.72 D

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Q.73 D Q.74 B Q.75 A Q.76 B Q.77 D Q.78 A

Q.79 C Q.80 C Q.81 A Q.82 D Q.83 B Q.84 C
Q.85 B Q.86 D Q.87 C Q.88 B Q.89 A Q.90 C
Q.91 A Q.92 B Q.93 B Q.94 D Q.95 D Q.96 B
Q.97 B Q.98 C Q.99 B Q.100 C Q.101 C Q.102 B
Q.103 C Q.104 C Q.105 B Q.106 D Q.107 D Q.108 C
Q.109 A Q.110 C Q.111 A Q.112 A Q.113 B Q.114 B
Q.115 D Q.116 D Q.117 C Q.118 D Q.119 C Q.120 D
Q.121 C Q.122 A Q.123 D Q.124 B Q.125 A Q.126 B
4.94
Plant Kingdom
Q.127 D Q.128 C Q.129 D Q.130 C Q.131 D Q.132 A

Q.133 A Q.134 B Q.135 B Q.136 D Q.137 A Q.138 B
Q.139 B Q.140 B Q.141 C Q.142 D Q.143 A Q.144 B
Q.145 D Q.146 D Q.147 B Q.148 A Q.149 C Q.150 D
Q.151 D Q.152 D Q.153 A Q.154 B Q.155 A Q.156 C
Q.157 A Q.158 B Q.159 A Q.160 C Q.161 A Q.162 D
Q.163 C Q.164 B Q.165 B Q.166 B Q.167 D Q.168 D
Q.169 C Q.170 D Q.171 A Q.172 D Q.173 C Q.174 D
Q.175 D Q.176 B Q.177 D Q.178 A Q.179 B Q.180 D
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Q.181 D Q.182 D Q.183 C Q.184 D Q.185 D Q.186 D
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Q.187 B Q.188 B Q.189 B Q.190 C Q.191 A Q.192 A
Q.193 D Q.194 B Q.195 C
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Q.196 B
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Q.197 C Q.198 C
Q.199 A Q.200 D Q.201 B Q.202 D Q.203 D Q.204 A
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Q.205 C Q.206 D Q.207 D Q.208 D Q.209 B Q.210 A

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Q.211 B Q.212 A Q.213 B Q.214 D Q.215 D Q.216 A

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Q.217 C Q.218 B Q.219 B Q.220 C Q.221 D Q.222 B

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Q.223 C Q.224 B Q.225 A Q.226 C Q.227 A Q.228 B

Q.229 B Q.230 D Q.231 A Q.232 C Q.233 A Q.234 C
Q.235 C Q.236 B Q.237 C Q.238 B Q.239 A Q.240 B
Q.241 D Q.242 A Q.243 D Q.244 A Q.245 C Q.246 C
Q.247 B Q.248 D Q.249 D Q.250 D Q.251 D Q.252 B
Q.253 D Q.254 A Q.255 B Q.256 D Q.257 D Q.258 D
Q.259 A Q.260 B Q.261 A Q.262 D Q.263 D Q.264 D
Q.265 B Q.266 A Q.267 A Q.268 D Q.269 C Q.270 C
Q.271 D Q.272 D Q.273 B Q.274 A
4.95
Plant Kingdom
Previous Years’ Quetions

Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 C
Q.7 C Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 D Q.11 A Q.12 D
Q.13 D Q.14 A Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 A
Q.19 A Q.20 C Q.21 C Q.22 A Q.23 B Q.24 A
Q.25 C Q.26 A Q.27 A Q.28 D Q.29 A Q.30 C
Q.31 A
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BIOLOGY
XI STD |VOL.I|Unit 1
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Animal Kingdom
(Nonchordates)
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5.1
CHAPTER 5
ANIMAL KINGDOM
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(NONCHORDATES)
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Animals as we hear this word we have an image
Introduction of several creatures in the nearby areas like dogs,
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Metazoa cats, cows, goats, horses, etc. the list goes on.
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When we look around in our environment, we

Basis for Classification observe different animals that are different in their
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Classification of Animal Kingdom structures and forms. There are a million species
of animals that have been known and studied
till now, the need for classification is thus all the
more important to understand all of them well. The
classification not only includes existing species but
also creates a systematic position for the newly
described species. The basis for classification
includes the fundamental features of the animals
such as level of organisation, symmetry, cell
organisation, coelom, segmentation, notochord
etc. that allows us to broadly classify the animal
kingdom completely. There are many other
distinctive characters, specific for each phylum or
class which are considered in the classification and
this will be discussed in this chapter.
5.2
Animal Kingdom (Nonchordates)
To understand the classification system in Animal Kingdom, we will first discuss the basis for their
classification, understand them and then classify organisms. Metazoans are included in Animal Kingdom.
Animal Kingdom includes Phylum Protozoa, where some animals are included which is classified in fact in
Kingdom Protista, whereas, rest of protists will be discussed in Botany classes. Then the following classes
are studied. Let’s have a look in history of classification:
Objectives of the chapter
yy Categorize all the animals ranging from unicellular ones to largest ones.
yy Describe each of them in terms of their characteristics and importance.
yy Evaluate the classification system.
yy Understand basis of classification systems and terms related to it.
yy Distinguish the animals as per their body structure and system.
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yy Describe each phylum (total 12) with relevant examples.
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yy Classify chordates and non-chordates. al
Historical Background of Taxonomy
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Aristotle – the “father of zoology”. (Book: Historia Animalium)
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He is also known as the father of ancient animal classification.

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Carolos Linnaeus – in 1735 gave a detailed information of the Binomial system of Nomenclature which was
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earlier devised by Gaspard –Bauhin. In 1758 in the 10th edition of his book “Systema Naturae” 4236 known
animals were classified and presented the Binomial system of nomenclature of animal. Thus he is also
Ed
known as “Father of Modern-Taxonomy”.

Sequence of Classification
Smallest unit of classification is “Species”.
Genus includes various types of species.
Family is made up of various similar genera.
Many families are clubbed to form an order.
Many orders join together to form a class.
Many classes combine to form a Phylum.
Largest unit is made from all the phyla i.e. Kingdom.
Various grouping levels or ranks in classification known as obligate categories.
E.g. Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species
5.3
Based on this, all animals are included in the animal kingdom-groups and written in the following hierarchical
manner. For example obligate category of man can be written as
Taxons Categories
Kingdom - Animalia
Phylum - Chordata
Class - Mammalia
Order - Primates
Family - Hominidae
Genus - Homo
Species - Sapiens
Important Phyla
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Storer and Usinger compiled the whole animal kingdom into large groups of 31 phyla. Among them, 10 are
major and 21 are minor phyla. Main phyla are:
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Protozoa
Porifera
-
- Sponges etc
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Amoeba, Paramecium etc
Coelenterate - Hydra, jellyfish

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Clenophora - Pleurobrachia
Platyhelminthes - Tape worm
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Nemathelminthes-Nematoda - Ascaris
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Annelid - Earthworm, Leech

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Arthropoda - Insects, Scorpion, Fly

Mollusca - Snail, Pila, Octopus
Echinodermata - Star fishes
Hemichordata - Balanoglossus
Chordata - Fish, Frog, Snake, Birds, Monkey
2. Metazoa
Animals are motile and thus this motility forms a characteristic features for this kingdom and also have a
sensory or a nervous system. The sensory systems respond to the received stimuli from the environment
by exhibiting actionable behaviour. Poriferans (pore-bearers) or the sponges lack any cell that can form
a nervous system. Animals similar to plant life, have originated from the sea and later grew on land. The
animals living on the sea floor are called as Benthonic (e.g., echinoderms, corals and deep and sea fishes),
whereas the animals swimming in the sea are called as Nektons.
5.4
The multicellular eukaryotic organisms that have holozoic nutrition mode are called as metazoans.
Metazoans are further classified into two sub-kingdoms, based on the complexity of organisation of the
organism namely, Parazoa and Eumetazoa.
yy Parazoa: Parazoa include the sponges which lacks tissues or organs and the cells are loosely arranged.
yy Eumetazoa: Eumetazoa includes the remaining animals which has the cells in an organised structural
and functional units called as the tissues, organs and organ systems.
3. Basis for Classification

3.1 Levels of organisation
3.1.1 Cellular Level
Animals are multicellular yet there is a difference in the pattern of organisation of cells. For example, sponges
have loosely arranged cell aggregates, i.e., they lack cellular level of organisation. There is division of
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labour (activities) among the cells to some extent.
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3.1.2 Tissue Level
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As we move to higher organisms like, coelenterates and ctenophores, the arrangement of cells becomes
more complex. The cells that have the same function are arranged into tissues, hence it is called as the
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tissue level of organisation.
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3.1.3 Organ Level

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Platyhelminthes and other higher phyla have higher level of cell organisation, i.e., organ level is present.
The tissues having similar function are grouped together into organs. In animals of phylum Annelids,
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Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms and Chordates, the organs have associated to form a functional
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system. The systems are concerned with a specific physiological function. This pattern is called as organ
system in the level of organisation. For example, the digestive system in Platyhelminthes has only a single
outward opening of the body which is common to both mouth and anus, and is hence called as incomplete.
A complete digestive system has two separate openings, each for mouth and anus.
3.2 Body Plan

Animals have various organs in their body that function together. Though these organs are diverse in shape
and size, all the animals have body type that fall into the three basic plans:
3.2.1 Cell Aggregate
Cell aggregate are clusters of cells that have a rudimentary type of labour division among them. The cells
have less or no coordination among them. There are no tissues, or organs. This type of body plan is present
in sponges.
3.2.2 Blind Sac
Blind sac type of body plan has only one opening in the alimentary canal common for both mouth and anus. There
is tissue or organ system organisation in the animals. E.g. Coelenterates and Platyhelminthes.
5.5
3.2.3. Tube within Tube

Tube-within tube type of body has the digestive system as a continuous tube that opens at both the ends. It
is present in Nemathelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata and Chordata.
Knowledge Builder
Tube-within-a-tube body plan has two different ways along with the two evolutionary lines.
yy Protostomous: The mouth is the first opening developed in the embryonic digestive tube
while the anus develops later. This is observed in the annelid, mollusc and arthropod
phylum.
yy Deuterostomous: The anus is developed first then the mouth is developed. This occurs in
the echinoderms and chordates (including the vertebrates).
We are thus evolutionarily closer to the echinoderms (starfish) then to insects or molluscs.
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3.3 Symmetry al
The animals can be categorised on the basis of their body symmetry:
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3.3.1 Radial Symmetry

When the organism’s body is divided in any plane and it passes across the central
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axis of the body dividing the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial
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symmetry. The animals with radial symmetry are present in the group Radiata. For
example, cnidarians (hydra and jelly fish). Biradial symmetry is also present in sea
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anemone, ctenophores. A
3.3.2 Bilateral symmetry
The animals with bilateral symmetry are put in group Bilateria. The organism’s body
has a central axis which can cross by one plane and divide it into identical right and
left halves in only one plane. For example, Platyhelminthes, annelids, arthropods
etc. (Platyhelminthes to chordates). B
3.3.3 Asymmetry
Asymmetric organisms have a body that cannot be divided by any plane and thus
there are no two equivalent halves. Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
C
Figure 5.1: Body symmetry A. Biradial symmetry in a sea; B. Bilateral
symmetry in a crab; C. Asymmetrical (fish) has none of the sides similar.
5.6
Knowledge Builder
yy The sessile animals have radial symmetry which is helpful, as it allows food to be taken
in from all sides. They may develop pseudopodia all-round the mouth to capture the prey
and take into it. Their sensory and nerve coordination areas surround the mouth. E.g. in
coelenterates.
yy Bilateral symmetry in animals started when animals became mobile on the ocean floor.
A crawling animal has more chances to encounter food from the open end that goes
ahead which is the mouth. Along with mouth, all sensory organs and a controlling brain
also develops at the front end of the body. These organs together approach the food by
sensing it. Hence the head, which has the brain, is associated with the mouth end which
is called as cephalization.
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3.4 Body Cavity or Coelom
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An important factor for classification is presence or absence of cavity between body wall and gut wall.
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3.4.1 Acoelomate
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The animals which do not have the coelom are called as acoelomates, for example poriferans, coelenterates,
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ctenophores, flatworms. Flatworms have the spaces between various organs that are filled with special
tissue termed as parenchyma.
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3.4.2 Pseudocoelomate
The body cavity has incomplete lining of mesoderm. Instead, the mesoderm is like scattered pouches
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present in between the ectoderm and endoderm layers. Such a body cavity is called as pseudocoelom e.g.
in roundworm.
3.4.3 Eucoelomate
The true coelom in a body cavity arises as a cavity in embryonic mesoderm of the embryo that provides a
cellular lining i.e. coelomic epithelium or peritoneum around the cavity. The coelom has coelomic fluid which
is secreted by the peritoneum. True coelom is found in annelids, echinoderms and chordates. True coelom
is of two types:
(i) Schizocoelom: Developing through the splitting of mesoderm. It is found in annelids, arthropods and
molluscs. Body cavity in arthropods and non-cephalopod molluscs is thus called as heamocoel.
(ii) Entericoelom: The mesoderm arises from the embryonic gut wall or enteron like hollow outgrowths or
enterocoelomic pouches. It is found in echinoderms and chordates.
5.7
A B C
Figure 5.2: Body cavity with their details. A. Acoelomate,

B. Pseudocoelomate, C. Eucoelomate
3.5 Germ Layers
Germ layers are the first formed layers in the body which give rise to all the tissues/organs of the individual.
Animals can be classified on the basis of number of germ layers in the body
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3.5.1 Diploblastic
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The body cells are arranged in two layers - an outer ectoderm and an inner endoderm with an intervening
undifferentiated mesoglea. E.g., Coelenterates.
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3.5.2 Triploblastic
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The animals in which body cells are arranged in three germ layers, namely ectoderm, mesoderm and
endoderm are called as triploblastic animals. E.g., Platyhelminthes to chordates.
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3.6 Respiratory System

uj
The animals in sponges and coelenterates have each cell in the body in direct contact with the surrounding
Ed
water and thus exchange the gases through their body surface. Higher animals have a thicker body wall and
so they have organs that are dedicated to the respiratory work for the body.
Table 5.1: Various Respiratory Modes in Animals
Mode of respiration Respiratory organ Examples
Body-surface respiration Body-surface Sponges Ctenophores and coelenterates (Hydra)
Branchial respiration Gills Crustaceans (Prawn), Cartilage and bony fishes.
Cutaneus respiration Skin Annelids (earthworm) and amphibians (frog)
Tracheal respiration Tracheae Insects (cockroach). Centipedes, millipedes.
(ectodermal tubes)
Pulmonary respiration Lungs. Most of tetrapods.
Book-lung respiration Book-lungs. Arachnids (spiders and scorpions).
Book-gill respiration Book-gills. Limulus (King-crab)
Cloacal respiration Cloaca Some turtles.
5.8
3.7 Blood Vascular System

Blood vascular system is basically of two types: open and closed.
Table 5.2: Difference among Open and Closed Systems of Circulation
Open Systems Closed Systems
These are usually low pressure systems These are usually high pressure systems.
Blood returns to the heart slowly. Blood returns to the heart rapidly.
Found in leeches, most arthropods, non-cephalopod In annelids (except leeches), cephalopods (octopus,
molluscs and tunicates. squids) and vertebrates.
The blood is pumped out from the heart to directly Blood flows around the body through blood vessels
reach the cells and tissues. of various diameters (arteries, veins and capillaries).
The blood moves slowly between the tissues, then, The blood in high pressure is regularly circulated in
returns to the heart through the open-ended blood the body and it returns to the heart without moving
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vessel. out of the vessels.
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The blood from the heart is pumped into the blood The heart pumps the blood into the aorta, branching
vessels which open into blood spaces (body cavity
called as haemocoel).
n al
into the arteries, near the tissues into the arterioles
that finally form the capillary network.
They lack a capillary system (e.g., in most The capillary network venules carry the blood back
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arthropods, non-cephalopod molluscs and tunicates). to the heart via veins and vena cava.
The pigments carrying oxygen, is dissolved in the The pigment that carry the blood are in the blood
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blood plasma. and blood vessels.

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Body tissues and visceral organs exchange This helps in supplying the nutrients and oxygen to
respiratory gases, nutrients and waste products the tissues and in removing waste materials and
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directly with the blood. carbon dioxide from it.
A B
Figure 5.3: Circulatory systems in A. Cockroach having open system and
B. Earthworm having closed circulatory system
5.9
3.8 Segmentation
Some animals have the body externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of at least
some organs. For example, earthworm’s body shows this pattern called as the metameric segmentation
and the phenomenon is known as metamerism. Metameric segmentation is also present in arthropods,
annelids and chordates.
Pseudo metameric – e.g. Tapeworms
Metameric – In Annelids, arthropods and chordates.
3.9 Notochord
Some animals have a Notochord, developed during the embryonic growth, is a mesodermal rod-like
structure formed on the dorsal side. Animals that possess notochord are called as chordates and those
animals which lack notochord are called as non-chordates, e.g., Porifera to echinoderms.
Levels of
Body Cavity
n
Kingdom Organisation Symmetry Phylum
or Coelom
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Cellular level Porifera
Animalia
(multicellular) Radial
n al Coelenterata (Cnidaria)
Ctenophora
Tissue/Organ/ Without body cavity
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Organ system (acoelomates) Platyhelminthes

Aschelminthes
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With false coelom

Bilateral Annelida
(pseudocoelomates)
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Arthropoda
With true coelom
Mollusca
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(coelomates)
Eschinodermata
Hemichordata
Chordata
Flowchart 5.1: Division of animal kingdom on basis of their body structure and type.
3.10 Excretory System

Nitrogenous wastes is excreted out from the body which if not excreted out regularly can imbalance the
homoeostasis inside the body.
The system who takes care of the excretion is called as excretory system.
The excretory organs are dedicated for excretion and osmoregulation (to maintain the water level in the
body).
On the basis of nature of main nitrogenous waste, excretion is of three types:
5.10
3.10.1 Ammonotelism
The major nitrogenous waste excreted is NH3 in the animals which are called as ammonotelic animals.
Aquatic animals excrete ammonia e.g. sponges, coelenterates, ctenophores, crustaceans, echinoderms
and bony fishes.
3.10.2 Ureotelism
The major nitrogenous waste excreted out is urea from the animals which are called as ureotelic animals.
E.g. amphibians, mammals and cartilage fishes.
3.10.3 Uricotelism
The major nitrogenous waste excreted is uric acid from animals which are called as uricotelic animals.
E.g. reptiles, birds and insects.
Table 5.3: Various Phylum of Animals with their Excretory Organs
n
Animal Groups Excretory Organs
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Porifera and Coelenterata ………………….. By diffusion through body surface
Platyhelminthes (Flatworms) ……………….
Aschelminthes (Round worms) ……………
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Protonephridia (flame cells)
Excretory canals (Renett cell)
Annelids (Segmented worms) …………….. Nephridia
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Crustaceans (e.g. Prawn) …………………….. Antennary or green glands

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Arachnids (e.g. Scorpion) …………………… Coxal glands and Malpighian tubules (in some
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spiders)
Insects, centipedes and millipedes ……..
Malpighian tubules and urate cells.
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Molluscs ……………………………………….
Metanephridia
Vertebrates ………………………………..
Kidneys
3.11 Nervous System

The body functions are in control and coordination with the organs in the body to maintain homeostasis
inside the body. Some organisms lack this system like sponges. There are different types of nervous system
in different groups of animals
Type of nervous system found in different animal groups.
Table 5.4: Animal Phylum that have Specific Nervous System
Animals Group Type of Nervous System
Coelenterates Diffused type (nerve fibres not differentiated into Dendron and axon).
Flatworms and Ladder type (formed of a nerve ring and many nerve cords which are
roundworms interconnected by connectives).
5.11
Annelids Central nervous system (CNS) that has a circumpharyngeal nerve ring and
ventral solid and ganglionated nerve cord.
Arthropods CNS formed of a circum-oesophageal nerve ring and a double, ventral solid and
ganglionated nerve cord.
Molluscs Formed of a few ganglia interconnected by some commissures and connectives.
Echinoderms Two nerve rings (oral and away from oral) and radial nerves.
Vertebrates CNS formed of anterior broader brain and posterior long narrow spinal cord.
CNS is dorsal, hollow and non-ganglionated.
3.12 Reproduction
The ultimate function is reproduction in all the living organisms and is essential for the species to exist
in the world. Reproduction is sexual and asexual. Several species use asexual methods to reproduce
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e.g. Binary fission (parent divides in two daughters in favourable conditions e.g. Amoeba); Multiple fission
(parent divides in many daughter cells in unfavourable conditions e.g. Amoeba); Budding (parent develops
.i
an external or internal outgrowth called as buds that grows in new organism e.g. Hydra) and fragmentation.
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The other common method is sexual reproduction (which involves formation and fusion of gametes).
Gametes are the sex cells formed in the sex organs called as the gonads. Gonads are different, male has
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testes and female has ovaries while sex cells are called as sperms and ova respectively. The two types of
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gonads can be present in different animals which are called as unisexual or dioecious e.g. human beings,
frog, cockroach etc. The two sexes have extremely different structure called as sexual dimorphism e.g.,
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peacock and peahen, human beings etc. However some animals have both the types of gonads (tests and
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ovaries) in the same animal, called as bisexual or monoecious or hermaphrodite e.g., earthworm, leech,
Taenia etc. Sperm and ovum fuse to form zygote called as fertilisation. Fertilisation can be external (e.g.
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echinoderms, bony fishes and amphibians) or internal (e.g. land vertebrates and cartilage fishes) if fusion
is outside or inside the female.
The sperms and ova are derived from different animals which is called as cross-fertilization. In some of
the bisexual animals, sperm and ovum from the same animal fuse and form zygote, which is called as
self-fertilization e.g., in Taenia. Cross-fertilization occurs in two ways: protandrous and protogynous. In
protandrous condition (proto = first, androus = male), testes mature first followed by the ovaries e.g., leech,
earthworm etc. In protogynous condition (proto = first, gynae = female), ovaries mature first than the testes
e.g., Scypha, Herdmania (Sea squirt).
Table 5.5: Difference between Oviparity and Viviparity
Oviparity Viviparity
Female lays eggs. Give birth to young-ones
Fertilisation may be external or internal Always internal
Egg has yolk thus has large size. Egg is small sized without yolk.
5.12
Development occurs outside female. Always inside female.

Placenta is not formed. E.g., All birds, amphibians, Placenta is formed e.g., Most of mammals.
most of fishes and insects.
3.13 Body Temperature

The body temperature varies in animals, thus they are divided, into two categories:
yy Homeothermal (Warm-blooded or endothermic animals): the body temperature is constant throughout
in any environmental temperature e.g., birds and mammals.
yy Poikilothermal (Cold-blooded or ectothermic animals): the body temperature changes as the
environmental temperature changes. E.g. amphibians and lizards.
Table 5.6: Difference between Poikilothermal and Homeothermal animals
Characters Poikilothermal (Cold-Blooded) Homeothermal (Warm-Blooded)
.i n
Body temperature Comparatively low and changes with High and constant so does not change
changes in environmental temperature al with change in environmental temperature.
Metabolic rate Low High.
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Hibernation Undergo hibernation during winter months. Donot undergo hibernation.
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Examples Fishes, amphibians and reptiles. Birds and mammals.

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3.14 Skeleton
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The structure of the body which gives it the shape, support and protection is called as skeleton. The skeleton
is of two types:
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yy Endoskeleton: It is formed of living structure and is present inside the body e.g., cartilages and bones
e.g., vertebrates.
yy Exoskeleton: It is formed of dead structures always covering the outside body. e.g., chitinous plates
called sclerites in arthropods; calcareous shell in molluscs; epidermal scales in reptiles; epidermal
feathers in birds; epidermal hair, nails, claws, horns and hoofs in mammals.
Table 5.7: Difference between Endoskeleton and Exoskeleton
Characters Endoskeleton Exoskeleton
Position Inside the body. Outside the body.
Nature of elements Living structures Dead structures.
Type of elements Cartilages and bones. Sclerites of arthropods
Shell of molluscs;
Epidermal scales in reptiles;
Feathers in birds;
Hair, nails, horns, hoofs in mammals.
5.13
4. Classification of Animal Kingdom

4.1 Phylum - Protoza (Unicellular Protists)
4.1.1 General characteristics of Protozoans
yy Around 15,000 species of protozoans are known and described that exist in the world.
yy The organisms are microscopic heterotrophs where a single cell has the ability to perform all the vital
activities. For this reason, protozoans are also called as acellular organisms.
yy They are aquatic (both fresh water and marine) and omnipresent. Some are predators and some
parasites.
yy The protozoan body can be naked, like, Amoeba, or surrounded by a non-rigid non-cellulosic pellicle.
yy Some protozoan body secrets various inorganic shells as external covers (foraminiferans).
n
yy Different types of locomotory organs are found in protozoans like flagella (flagellates), cilia (ciliates) or
.i
pseudopodia (sarcodines).
yy
yy
Parasites lack locomotory structures (Sporozoa). al
Neurofibrils and contractile myofibrils are under the cell surface.
n
yy Many protozoans are free-living and aquatic in nature.
ur
yy The nutrition is holozoic and depend on bacteria, microscopic algae and minute animals like rotifers or
o
on other members of protozoa, even members of their own species for nutrition.
uj
yy Respiration and excretion in protozoans occurs through the exchange of gases from the body surface.
Nitrogenous waste is ammonia.
Ed
yy Some protozoans contain chlorophyll and thus can prepare their own food from photosynthesis
(e.g., Euglena).
yy The protozoans having parasitic mode, feed on compounds that is obtained from the living hosts
(e.g., Monocystis).
yy All the fresh water protozoans contain contractile vacuole that helps in the maintenance of osmotic
concentration and excretion of wastes in the cellular body. This phenomenon is known as osmoregulation.
Sporozoan parasites are usually harmless, however some can be harmful as well. E.g., Plasmodium
vivax and Plasmodium falciparum cause malaria in humans.
yy Protozoans have one nucleus, however those with cilia and many amoeboid types have many nucleus.
yy Reproduction methods are specialised for different types of protozoans. Many sarcodines, flagellates
and ciliates reproduce via asexual methods like binary fission, multiple fission or budding. Some
ciliates, like, Paramecium reproduce sexually where two individuals come closer to interchange genetic
information with a process called as conjugation. Gamete formation is absent in this process. Sporozoa
has gamete formation in some stages of life cycle, which are morphologically different.
5.14
Examples:
Free living – Euglena, Amoeba, Paramecium, Elphidium etc.
Parasitic – Monocystis, Entamoeba, Plasmodium, Trypanosoma, Giardia etc.
Some examples of protozoans with different types of locomotory structures:
a. Trypanosoma having flagellum (flagellate);
b. Heliozoan having axopodia;
c. Tetraymena having cilia.
4.1.2 Classification of Protozoans

Phylum protozoa is divided into 4 groups
Group I: Rhizopoda or Sarcodina
yy Locomotion: pseudopodia,
n
yy Body shape flexible and can change.
.i
yy E.g., Amoeba (free-living), Entamoeba (Parasitic or commensal).
al
Table 5.8: Various Locomotory Organs in Protozoans
n
ur
Lobopodia (Amoeba)
Filopodia (Euglypha)
o
Reticulopodia (Globigerina)
uj
Axopodia (Actinophrys sol)

Ed
Figure 5.4: Cell structure of Amoeba

5.15
Figure 5.5: Pseudopodia of a protozoan showing the changes in plasma during its movement
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 5.6: Reproduction phases in Amoeba

5.16
Group II: Mastigophora or Flagellata

Locomotion can be through one or more thread-like flagella. They are free living or parasitic.
Euglena - Connecting link between plants and animals
Trypanosoma - Parasite causing sleeping sickness
Leishmania - Parasite causing kala-azar
Giardia - Parasite causing diarrhoea
Trichomonas - Parasite causing vaginitis in human female
Trichonumpha - Symbiont found in gut of terminate helping in cellulose digestion
Proterospongia - Colonial with collar cells, a connecting link between Protozoa and Porifera.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 5.7: Structure of Trypanosoma gambiense

Ed
Two types of flagellates are:

Phytomastigina – with chloroplast, that are plant-like e.g., Euglena, Chlamydomonas etc.
Zoomastiginia – without chloroplast, that are animal-like e.g., Trypanosoma, Leishmania, etc.
Group III: Sporozoa
All members are parasites that have spore forming stage, and lack special locomotory organelles, contractile
vacuole (associated with parasitism), and complex life history.
e.g., Plasmodium – causes malaria, spread by vector female Anopheles

Monocystis – a parasite in the seminal vesicles of earthworm
Eimeria – causes coccidiosis in rabbit and chicken.
Babesia – causes hemoglobinuric fever/tick fever in cattle.
Babesia is a protozoan parasite that is spread through ticks which causes tick fever in India.
The parasite enters into red blood cells (RBCs) and destroys them in humans.
5.17
Group IV: Ciliata

Locomotory organelles are cilia, nuclei are two or more in a cell.
e.g., Paramecium – free-living, slipper animalcule
Balantidium – causes balantidial dysentery in man
Nyctotherus – rectal ciliate and endocommensal in frog
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 5.8: Structure of a Paramecium
Try It Yourself
1. Animal which have a well-marked digestive cavity are put under-
(A) Parazoa (B) Neterozoa
(C) Metazoan (D) Bryzoa
2. The cell anus is some protozoans is known as
(A) Cytopharynx (B) Cytosome
(C) Cytoproct (D) Peristome
5.18
Try It Yourself
3. In which of the following the nuclear dimorphism is seen –
(A) Entamoeba (B) Leishmania
(C) Trypanosoma (D) Paramecium
4. Class sporozoa of phylum protozoa is characterized by
(A) Flagella (B) Cilia
(C) Parasitism (D) None
5. The vector for causing sleeping sickness in man is
(A) House fly (B) Mosquito
n
(C) Tse-tse fly (D) Butter fly
.i
6. Which of the protozoan is considered as connecting link between plants and animals
(A) Entamoeba (B) Paramecium
n al
(C) Euglena (D) Monocystis
ur
7. In which of the following classes locomotory organs are absent

o
(A) Rhizopoda (B) Sporozoa

uj
(C) Suctoria (D) Mastigophora

Ed
8. Pick the odd pair out

(A) Monera : eukaryote (B) Porifera : choanocytes
(C) Coelenterate : nematocyst (D) Annelid : metamerism
9. Who divided animals into Enaima and Anaima
(A) Aristotle (B) Linnaeus
(C) Cuvier (D) Lamarck
10. Proterospongia is a connecting link between
(A) Protozoa and porifera (B) Porifera and coelenterate
(C) Protozoa and annelid (D) Porifera and annelid
5.19
4.2 Phylum – Porifera (Common Name-Sponge)

yy Robert Grant named the animals in this group as Porifera.
yy The science that deals with the Study of sponges is known as Parazoology.
yy Phylogenetically sponges are evolved from choanoflagellates (Proterospongia).
yy Sponges are multicellular primitive forms.
yy All sponges are aquatic, mainly marine however few of them are in fresh water also.
yy The body is sessile, solitary or colonial.
yy Entire body has pores on its surface i.e. numerous small mouth lets called as Ostia and one main
opening for exit called as Osculum.
4.2.1 General Characters of Poriferans
Sponges show diversity in the body forms and shapes that have irregular shape usually asymmetrical.
n
yy
(Radial symmetry in Leucosolenia).
.i
yy Sponges show cellular level of organization in the body with two germ layers i.e. Diploblastic.
yy They lack head and appendages in their structure.
n al
yy Body wall in adults have
ur
ο Outer ectoderm or dermal layer or pinacoderm in pinacocytes (Flat cells), porocytes (oval cells)
o
ο Inner endoderm (Choanocytic layer) or choanoderm collar cell or choanocytes (Flagellated)

uj
ο Between the two germinal layers, gelatinous non-cellular material mesenchyme is present in the
sponge. It has fine dispersed spongy fibres and many spicules.
Ed
Consist of Amoebocytes that are Modified in the Following Types:

Scleroblast – Secrete spicules, they are called as calcoblsats and in silicious sponges that may be
called as silicoblasts. Helps is formation of skeleton
Spongioblast – Secrete sponging fibres.
Thesocytes – For food storage in granules (Glycogen)
Phagocytes – To engulf food with pseudopodia by phagocytosis, even engulf excreta and damages
tissues.
Trophocytes – Help in distribution of food to growing cells hence also called as nurse cells.
Archaeocytes – They can form ova and spermatozoa, even convert into other types of cells (Totipotent
cells).
Collencytes – Secrete connective tissue cell and collagen fibres.
Chromocytes – Have pigment granules and excretory substances.
Myocytes – Are highly contractile regulating the opening and closing of osculum.
5.20
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 5.9: Structure of Leucosolenia (most primitive Sponge)

o
ο The body wall encloses a large central cavity of a sponge that is called as the spongocoel or
uj
paragastric cavity.
Ed
ο Choanocytes contain flagella that forms the outer lining in Spongocoel and also in some canals.
ο Choanocytes beating of flagella causes water currents which is very important for sponge to
survive. Water that enters in the sponge through ostia perforating porocytes and several canals
and then enters in spongocoel and finally exit out through the large aperture osculum.
ο Canal system or water transport system: Canal system in poriferans help in grasping food (nutrition),
respiration and excretion processes.
5.21
.i n
ο
al
Figure 5.10: Structure of Leucosolenia (most primitive Sponge)
Skeleton is located internally (endoskeleton), made up of tiny calcarious spicules called as
n
calcoblast or siliceous spicules called as silicoblast or fine spongy fibre called as spongioblast,
ur
which is located in mesenchyme.

ο Spicules are secreted by scleroblast and spongy fibres are secreted by spongioblast.
o
ο Sponges lack digestive cavity and opening for mouth. Nutrition method is holozoic. Digestion
uj
occurs in food vacuoles of choanocytes intracellularly.

Ed
yy The movable amoeboid cell (Trophocytes) help in food distribution from collar cells to other cells.
ο Respiration and excretion occurs through diffusion of gases from the body surface. Excretory
matter produced by sponges is ammonia.
ο Reproduction occurs through
(i) Asexual means – By budding and fragmentation. Budding can be of two types:
a. Exogenous budding – occurs during favourable conditions.
b. E ndogenous budding – gemmules formation takes place during adverse conditions.
They contain Archaeocyte cells and covered by thick protective coat.
(ii) Sexual means – Sponges are Hermaphrodite or monoceious, fertilisation is internal and cross
(Protogynous condition). Development is indirect with larvae formation.
Names of larva and the organism in which it is formed:
Amphiblastula (Scypha)
Parenchymula (Leucosolenia)
Stereogastrula (Euplectella)
5.22
Classification of Porifera based on the skeleton

Table 5.10: Classification of Porifera based on the skeleton
Calcarea or Hexactinellida or
Demospongia
Calcispongiae Hylaspongiae
Skeleton Spicules are 6 rayed siliceous spicules 1 or 4 rayed siliceous spicules or
(endo) Calcareous (Glass sponge) sponging fibre
(monoaxon, triaxons)
Inhabit All are marine, in All are marine in deep water Marine or fresh, deep or shallow
shallow water water.
e.g. Leucosolenia Euplectella – (Venus flower Spongia (Euspongia) – (Bathing
(smallest) Scypha basket, Bridal gift in Japan) sponge)
(Sycon) – Urn Ref. Spongilla – (Fresh water sponge)
n
sponge
Hyalonema – (Glass rope Cliona – (Boring sponge) harmful
.i
sponge) to Oyster (marine)
al
Pheronema – (Bowl sponge)
n
Chalina – Marmaid’s gloves
Ref.
ur
Poterion – Neptun’s Cup
Oscarella – Skeleton absent
o
Chondrosina – Skeleton absent

uj
Halichondria – Bread sponge

Ed
Haliclona – Finger sponge

Ephydatia – Sulphur sponge
Freshwater
Hippospongia – Horse – sponge
or Horny sponge
Unique Features of Porifera

yy Pores all over the body.
yy Cellular body organization.
yy A canal system for water currents that are intercommunicating cavities through which the water current
pass.
yy Lack of mouth and digestive cavity.
yy Choanocytes that cover the main cavity (spongocoel) or certain canals (radial canals).
yy Presence of sponging fibres.
5.23
Knowledge Builder
yy Using sponges: For centuries, people around the world have natural sponges with
sponging skeletons for cleaning, bathing by taking advantage of soft flexible and highly
porous bodies of these sponges.
yy An example is Euspongia. The ancient Greeks also used sponges as padding inside
helmets.
yy Spongin fibers are elongated protein fibers which form a fibrous network.
yy Digestion in sponges is intracellular.
yy Sponge cells, separated by straining pieces of sponge through a fine net, can seggregate
and grow into a sponge. So, a sponge is a republic of cells which identify one another,
aggregate, and grow together.
yy Sponge reproduce asexually by fragmentation. During sexual reproduction, some cells
n
become egg or sperm cell. After fertilization, the zygote develops into a flagellated larva
.i
which swims, settles in a new place, and grows into a sponge.
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 5.11: Structure of a Gemmule
yy Proterospongia is a connecting link between protozoa and porifera.

yy In Hyalonema, the root tuft consists of a bundle of long anchoring spicules. These may
pass through the columbella (body axis) as gastral cone. It is commonly known as glass
rope sponge.
yy Euspongia is commonly known as bath sponge.
yy Amphiblastula is the hollow larva of Sycon, etc., whereas parenchymula is the solid larva
of most of the sponges, e.g., Leucosolenia.
5.24
Try It Yourself
1. Sponges are characterized by –
(A) Amoeboid cells (B) Choanocytes cells
(C) Pigmented cells (D) Gland cells
2. In sponges the food is stored in
(A) Trophocytes (B) Desmocytes
(C) Archeocytes (D) Thesocytes
3. Which one of the sponge part corresponds to the mouth of other animals
(A) Osculum (B) Incurrent canal
n
(C) Ostia (D) Excurrent canal
.i
4. Bath sponge is common name of –
(A) Spongilla (B) Euspongia
n al
(C) Euplectella (D) Leucosolenia
ur
5. Classification of porifera is based up on

o
(A) Spicules (B) Canal system

uj
(C) Amoebocytes cells (D) Nutrition

Ed
6. Which of the following animals is marine

(A) Amoeba (B) Hydra
(C) Sycon (D) Pheretima
7. Cellular grade organization is found in
(A) Helminthes (B) Coelenterate
(C) Porifera (D) All of these
8. Porifera has
(A) Water vascular system (B) Canal system
(C) Haemo coelomic system (D) None
5.25
Try It Yourself
9. Paragastric cavity is related with
(A) Sponge (B) Coelenterate
(C) Nematodes (D) All
10. Asexual reproductive structures of most porifera are called
(A) Fragmentation / Budding (B) Paren chymula
(C) Amphiblastula (D) Sterogastrula
4.3 Phylum – Coelenterata
n
yy Coelenterata was given its name by Leuckart. Hatschek gave another name Cnidaria which was based
.i
on the capability of stinging cells.
yy
n al
Around 9000 species, many of the organisms are marine, however few of them are freshwater (Hydra)
carnivorous members. Some are fixed to substratum or can be free floating also.
ur
yy Body forms are basic (Dimorphic)
o
uj
Ed
Figure 5.12: Longitudinal section of a body wall in Hydra

5.26
Table 5.11: Difference between Polyp and Medusa

Polyp Medusa
Body is Cylindrical in shape like Hydra, Body is umbrella shaped like Aurelia or jelly fish
Adamsia etc.
Many of them are sessile, but sometimes can be Freely swimming in water
motile
May be free living or Colonial Always solitary or can be free living also
The mouth and tentacles are directed in upward The mouth and tentacles are directed in
way downward way
Asexual reproduction form Adamsia (Polyp) Sexual reproduction form Aurelia (Medusa)
yy Either or both zooids may occur in a species. If both zooids are found in a species, the two forms are
n
in alternate ways in life cycle. Polyps form medusa asexually and medusa develop the polyps sexually
(Alternation of generation or Metagenesis) e.g. – Obelia. Group of different types of zooids in polyp or
.i
medusa shows polymorphism in pattern.
yy Coelenterates usually have radial symmetry.
n al
yy Coelenterates consists of two germs layers ectoderm and endoderm i.e. They are diploblastic
ur
(mesogloea between two layers)
yy Interstitial cells are totipotent cells of coelenterates that are present in both the layers of the body wall.
o
yy Coelenterates have higher level of organization from cell i.e. tissue.

uj
yy Cnidoblast or Cnidocyte (have the stinging capsule called as Nematocyst) present on the tentacles and
Ed
body of the organism, are used for anchorage on the substratum, defence and for the prey capture.
yy Horny or calcareous exoskeleton can be present to support the body of coelenterates. E.g. – Corals
yy There is just a central cavity called as coelenteron that has a single aperture, mouth and thus the body
has incomplete digestion tract (Blind sac).
yy Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular i.e. digestion takes place in coelenteron as well as in
food vacuole of gastrodermal cells.
yy Coelenterons distribute the food that is partly digested by it. This dual role in the coelenterons was
named as gastrovascular cavity.
yy Respiration and excretion occurs through diffusion of gases from the body surface.
yy Excretory matter is ammonia.
yy Nervous system is of the diffused type and consist of non-polar neurons. These are the first phylum that
have nerve cells that conduct impulses in all directions.
5.27
yy Colenterates have epidermis which consist of epithelia-muscular cells of which the muscular part drives
inward while the epithelial part drives out of the body. They also have glandulo muscular cells which
secrete sticky substance that attaches the body to the substratum.
yy Larva of obelia – Planula (free living).
yy Larva of aurelia – Ephyra.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 5.13: Hydra nematocyst where upper one is discharged and lower one is undischarged
Ed
nematocysts. A. Penetrant, B. Streptoline glutinant, C. Stereoline glutinant and D. Volvent

yy Coelenterate is classified into three classes is based on the dominant medusoid or polypoid phase in
the life cycle.
Figure 5.14: A. Undischarged and B. Discharged Cnidoblast

5.28
Classification of Phylum Cnidaria

yy Chiefly on the basis of the dominance of medusoid or polypoid phase in the life cycle, phylum
Classification of Phylum Coelenterata.
Table 5.12: Classification of Phylum Coelenterata
Hydrozoa Scyphozoa Anthozoa (Actinozoa)
Fresh water as well as marine Exclusively marine Exclusively marine
Polyp and medusa often show Medusa for is more common Only polyp form
polymorphism and metagenesis
Mesogloea is acellular Mesogloea is thick, gelantinous, Mesogloea contains cells and
and contains cells fibers
Gastrovascular cavity undivided Gastrovascular cavity undivided Gastrovascular cavity has
compartments, i.e., mesenteries
n
Gonads are ectodermal and Gonads are endodermal and Gonads are endodermal and shed
.i
shed gametes directly in to the shed the gametes into the gametes into the digestive tract
surrounding water
through the mouth
n al
digestive tract when escape escape via mouth
Cnidoblast is present only in Cnidoblast is present in Cnidoblast is present in epidermis

ur
epidermis epidermis and gastrodermis and gastrodermis
Examples, Hydra (fresh water Examples, Aurelia (jelly fish, This class has two types of
o
polyp), Physalia (Portuguese moon jelly), larva: Ephyra animals: Anemones (skeleton
man of war; neurotoxic, gas absent) – Adamisa (sea
uj
gland present) anemone) and Corals (CaCO3

Ed
skeleton) – Pennautula (sea pen),

Gorgonia (sea fan)
A B C
Figure 5.15: A. Hydra, B. Aurelia and C. Anemones

5.29
Knowledge Builder
yy The green color of Chlorohydra viridissima comes from alga Chlorella vulgaris
?
(Zoochlorella) that lives inside the gastrodermal cells of Hydra in symbiotic
relationship.
yy Corallium rubrum (red coral) has been used widely in jewellery and known as red
moonga.
Unique Features
yy Tissue level of organization is found in the body.
yy Special stinging properties in the cells of the cnidoblasts that helps for defence and food adherence.
yy Incomplete digestive tract with one mouth opening is present in the body wall.
yy A simple nervous system with nerve cells in the network arrangement and fibres.
n
yy Simple gonads that lack the gonoducts.
.i
Try It Yourself
n al
1. Hydra is a coelenterate because it has
ur
(A) Tentacles (B) Mesogloea

o
(C) Coelenterons and cnidoblast (D) Hypostome

uj
2. Phylum Coelenterata has remained at which level of body organization

Ed
(A) Cellular level (B) Cell-tissue grade

(C) Tissue organ level (D) Tissue organ and system level
3. True jelly fishes belongs to the class
(A) Both anthozoa and scyphozoan (B) Hydrozoa
(C) Anthozoa (D) Scyphozoan
4. Which one of the following is diploblastic
(A) Pennatula (B) Paramecium
(C) Polystomella (D) Entamoeba
5. Term “Cnidaria” is given by
(A) Hatscheck (B) Lamarck
(C) Cuvier (D) Linnaeus
5.29
Knowledge Builder
yy The green color of Chlorohydra viridissima comes from alga Chlorella vulgaris
?
(Zoochlorella) that lives inside the gastrodermal cells of Hydra in symbiotic
relationship.
yy Corallium rubrum (red coral) has been used widely in jewellery and known as red
moonga.
Unique Features
yy Tissue level of organization is found in the body.
yy Special stinging properties in the cells of the cnidoblasts that helps for defence and food adherence.
yy Incomplete digestive tract with one mouth opening is present in the body wall.
yy A simple nervous system with nerve cells in the network arrangement and fibres.
n
yy Simple gonads that lack the gonoducts.
.i
Try It Yourself
n al
1. Hydra is a coelenterate because it has
ur
(A) Tentacles (B) Mesogloea

o
(C) Coelenterons and cnidoblast (D) Hypostome

uj
2. Phylum Coelenterata has remained at which level of body organization

Ed
(A) Cellular level (B) Cell-tissue grade

(C) Tissue organ level (D) Tissue organ and system level
3. True jelly fishes belongs to the class
(A) Both anthozoa and scyphozoan (B) Hydrozoa
(C) Anthozoa (D) Scyphozoan
4. Which one of the following is diploblastic
(A) Pennatula (B) Paramecium
(C) Polystomella (D) Entamoeba
5. Term “Cnidaria” is given by
(A) Hatscheck (B) Lamarck
(C) Cuvier (D) Linnaeus
5.30
4.4 Phylum – Ctenophora

yy Eschescboltz named the phylum as Ctenophore. These animals
have a beautiful structure and delicate body and are also famous for
the same. The body has a comb plate that glows in sunlight and
gives the effect of a rainbow. The Ctenophorans are known as “Sea-
gooseberries” or “Comb-jellies” or “Sea-walnuts”. They lack
nematoblasts, hence are also called as “acnidarians”.
yy All the animals of this phylum are marine and pelagic (floating on
sea surface) and have Bioluminescence (Property of emitting light
in the dark) in the cell.
4.4.1 General Characters of Ctenophora
yy Body can be spherical, cylindrical or pear-shaped in structure.
n
yy Body has soft, transparent, jelly like appearance that has radial
.i
symmetry (biradial symmetry) with tissue level of body organization.
n al
yy Animals are diploblastic with two germ layers present.
Figure 5.16: Structure of
yy They lack skeleton, circulators, respiratory and excretory systems.
Ctenophora
ur
yy The body surface has cilia that join together to form 8 ciliary comb
plates that helps in the locomotion of the organism.
o
yy Digestion occurs through extracellular and intracellular methods.

uj
yy Animals are carnivorous.

Ed
yy Tentacles may be present in a pair, are long solid structures that have colloblasts (lassocells) instead
of nematablasts on the tentacles which help in prey catching.
yy All animals are bisexual and reproduce sexually. Fertilisation is an external process taking place in
water.
yy Development of the zygote is of indirect type. Life cycle involves a free living immature ciliated cydippid
larva stage, found in some organisms.
E.g.: Pleurobrachia
Hormiphora – sea walnut
Ctenoplana – Commensal with Alcyonium
Cestum – Swimming eye of Cat.
Euchlora rubra – Ctenophore with cnidoblast. (Exception)
5.31
Did You Know

yy Sponges are considered as the most primitive multicellular animals.
yy Canal system is either ascon type (e.g., Leucosolenia) or sycon type (e.g., Scypha)
or leucon type (e.g., Euspongia).
yy Parenchyma is a layer in flatworms that acts as hydraulic skeleton and circulation.
yy Ascaris is an endoparasite nematode growing in children causing ascariasis. It has
sexual dimorphism. Life cycle is monogenetic. Male Ascaris is smaller in size, has
curved posterior end, cloacal aperture (anus in female) and two spicules.
? yy Male Ascaris is monarchic (with single set of male reproductive system).
yy Female Ascaris is didelphic (with double set of female reproductive system).
yy Ancylostoma (commonly called hook worm) is an endoparasite growing in the
duodenum of small intestine of man.
n
yy Amphids are olfactory chemoreceptors of nematodes, while phasmids are
.i
glandulosecretory structures of nematodes.
yy
yy
al
Recently discovered new phylum is Lorcifera.
Nematodes show axenic growth (the increase in size of cells).
n
o ur
uj
Try It Yourself
Ed
1. A mature proglottid of Taenia is one which has

(A) Only female reproductive organs
(B) Both female and male reproductive organs
(C) Only eggs and degenerated reproductive organs
(D) Hexacanth embryos
2. The gravid proglottids having fertilised eggs in uterus of Tape worm are regularly
detached, this process is known as
(A) Apolysis (B) Proliferation (C) Strobilation (D) Topolysis
3. Filaria worm is
(A) Trichuris (B) Wauchereria bancrofti
(C) Ascaris lumbricoides (D) Ancylostoma
5.32
Try It Yourself
3. Annelids are
(A) Radially symmetrical (B) Externally segmented
(C) Triploblastic (D) Pseudocoelomate
4. Animals showing metameric segmentation are
(A) Porifera (B) Annelids
(C) Tape-worms (D) Nemathelminthes
5. Elephantiasis is caused by
(A) Trichinella (B) Desmoscolex
n
(C) Enterobius (D) Wuchereria
.i
6. Which of the following, endoparasite of man is viviparous
(A) Ascaris (B) Wuchereria
n al
(C) Taenia (D) Dracunculus
ur
7. Body cavity in members of Annelids are

o
(A) Schizocoel (B) Pseudocoel

uj
(C) Enterocoel (D) Body cavity absent

Ed
8. Animals of which phylum exhibit “tube within tube” structure

(A) Coelenterate (B) Platyhelminthes
(C) Cestoda (D) Annelid
11. Aphrodite, commonly known as “sea mouse” is an
(A) Annelid (B) Mollusc
(C) Insect (D) Mammals
4.5 Phylum – Platyhelminthes

yy Gagenbaur was a naturalist to name the Platyhelminthes. This phylum includes flat worms that are
dorsoventrally flattened structures, most primitive bilateral symmetrical animals, can be free living
(terrestrial, fresh water or marine) or as a parasite on a hosts.
5.33
yy The Study of worms that cause parasitic infestation in the human is called as helminthology. Most of the
members in this phylum are the endoparasite having hosts as vertebrates. Some organisms are found
growing in aquatic habitat as well.
4.5.1 General characteristics of Platyhelminthes
n
A B
.i
al
Figure 5.16: A. Excretory and B. Nervous system of a Sucker
n
ur
yy Body organization has organ grading of the tissues.

yy Body is triploblastic i.e. body has originated from all the three
o
germinal layers called as ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.

uj
yy Body has bilateral symmetry.

Ed
yy The body lacks locomotory organs instead have adhesive

organs like suckers, hook, etc. in the parasitic forms that helps in
attachment and also to take in the food.
yy Epidermis is syncytial that may have cilia on the surface. The body
wall of parasitic animals contain a thick cuticle which is called as
tegument which protects the parasite from the hosts digestive-
enzymes secreted by the body surfaces (Epidermis).
yy Digestive tract if present has mouth and lacks anus or completely
absent like in Tapeworm. Food enters through mouth or through
body surface. Figure 5.17: External structure
yy These are acoelomate i.e. lack body cavity. of Sucker
yy The body lacks skeleton and circulatory systems. The body form is maintained by the turgid fluid
present in the parenchymal meshes (Hydroskeleton).
yy The respiration occurs through the body surface. Anaerobic respiration is also found, in internal parasite
like Taenia.
5.34
yy Excretion takes place with the organs protonephridia or flame-cells (Solenocytes). Also they perform
osmoregulation.
yy Nervous system is made up of the nerve ring, nerve cord and peripheral nerves (ladder like)
yy Platyhelminthes are bisexual animals who have complex and well-developed reproductive system.
yy Fertilization is internal which is either self or cross. Development of the zygote may be direct or indirect.
4.5.2 Classification of Phylum Platyhelminthes
Phylum Platyhelminthes is divided into three classes as given in Table
Table 5.13: Phylum Platyhelminthes divided into Three Classes
Turbellaria Trematoda Cestoda
Free living fresh water or marine Endoparasite, known as Endoparasite, intenstinal parasite,
known as planarian or Eddy flukes, or flat worms. known as tape worm
worm.
n
Body is unsegmented and Body unsegmented and leaf Body ribbon like, covered by tegument.
.i
leaf like covered by delicate like, covered by tegument (fine No epidermis in adults.
ciliated epidermis. Rod-shaped
rhabdites in epidermis.
n al
spines), no epidermis in adult.
Mouth is often ventral and anus Mouth on anterior side and Mouth and anus absent (food from
absent. Alimentary canal is anus is absent. Alimentary body surface). Alimentary canal absent
ur
present (branched). canal is branched.

Reproduction is asexual as Life history includes larval Life history includes larval stage and
o
well as sexual and shows good stage and involves more than involves more than one host. Each
uj
power of regeneration; no larva. one host. proglottid has one or two sets of male
and female reproductive organs.
Ed
Suckers absent Suckers are present for Scolex has suckers and hooks for
attachment in the host. attachment, Body divided into scolex,
neck, and strobilla of few to numerous
proglottids. No true segments.
Example, Dugesia (Planaria). Example, Fasciola (sheep Example, Taenia solium (pork
liver flukes) Causes liver rot tapeworm)
disease. Primary host = Man (cysticercus in the
Primary host: Sheep and goat infective stage).
Secondary host: Snail Secondary host = Pig (concosphere is
(Planorbis, Lymnaea, Bulinus) the infective stage).
Shows polyembryony, life- Shows multiplication in larva
cycle involves miracidium Stage, namely, oncosphere, hexacanth,
(free-swimming larva), bladder –worm, and cysticercus.
sporocyst, redia, cercaria, and Cause disease taemiasis or cysticercosis.
metacercaria larval form.
5.35
Figure 5.18: Structure of Liver fluke

Unique Features
n
yy Bilateral symmetry
.i
yy Organ level of body organization.
yy Body made from three germ layers,

n al
yy Head is present that has sense organs located at the front end,
yy Muscle layers are found in the body wall and gut.

ur
yy Nervous system with brain ring and nerve cords,

yy Organized excretory system with flame cells, and Gonoducts and copulatory organs
o
uj
Try It Yourself
Ed
1. Tapeworm gets nutrition in the alimantery canal of vertebrates :

(A) By absorbing liquid food through general body surface
(B) By suckers
(C) Both
(D) None
2. Flat worms are at
(A) Organs grade
(B) Tissue grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) None
5.36
Try It Yourself
3. Whose body remains segmented?
(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterate
(C) Mollusca (D) None
4. Which animal do not possess larval stage in its life cycle?
(A) Ascaris (B) Frog (C) Taenia (D) Pheritema
5. Tape worm with only two or three proglottids
(A) Taenia solium (B) Moniezia
(C) Taenia saginata (D) Echinococus
n
6. Blood fluke is
.i
(A) Opisthorchis (B) Schistosomaal
(C) Fasciola (D) None
n
7. Ascaris is
ur
(A) Radially symmetrical (B) Bilaterally symmetrical

o
(C) Asymmetrical (D) None

uj
8. One to the following is not hermaphrodite

Ed
(A) Earthworm (B) Leech (C) Taenia (D) Ascaris

9. One of the following is commonly known as “whipworm”
(A) Oxyuris (B) Trichuris (C) Wuchereria (D) None
10. One of the following is not Annelid
(A) Pheretima (B) Hirudinaria (C) Ureotyphlus (D) Aphrodite
11. Parapodia are locomotary in function in
(A) Scolopendra (B) Nereis (C) Centipede (D) Earth worm
12. Planaria, liver fluke and Taenia are
(A) Flat worms (B) Parasites (C) Segmented (D) None
5.37
4.6 Phylum – Aschelminthes or Nemathelminthes

yy Gegenbaur named the Phylum as Nemathelminthes. The phylum includes round worms (Circular in
cross section).
yy Nematods are omnipresent, growing in fresh water, sea water, soil, humus-rich soil. Many of them are
as a parasite in plants and animals.
4.6.1 General characters of Nemathelminthes
yy Animals have cylindrical body, tapering at both the ends, are without any segmentation.
yy Body has Bilateral symmetry with organ Level of organization and having tube within a tube body plan.
.i n
n al
C
o ur
uj
Ed
B
A D
Figure 5.19: Ascaris, A. Male Ascaris and B. Female Ascaris, C. Mouth and lips of Ascaris and
D. Posterior end of male showing its papillae
yy Body has been originated from triploblastic germ layers.
yy Body wall includes cuticle, epidermis (Syncytial) and muscle layer (only Longitudinal).
yy Body cavity is pseudocoel, and lacks a mesoderm lining (developed from embryonic blastocoel) and it
contains pseudo coelomic fluid.
yy Skeleton is not mineralized, instead a pseudocoelom with high fluid pressure maintains the body shape
which is called hydro skeleton.
5.38
yy Digestive tract has both the openings of mouth and anus along with differentiated, muscular pharynx
and intestine and thus is a complete system.
yy Respiration occurs via the body surface through diffusion.
yy The body lacks circulatory system.
yy Nervous system is made up of nerve ring (Brain) and longitudinal nerve cords.
yy Excretory system has H-shape excretory tube (intracellular canal) or Protonephridia – (Renette cell).
yy Excretory matter produced by the body is ammonia.
yy Reproduction system is developed and sexes are in separate organisms (Dioecious).
yy Sexual dimorphism is present (sexes differ in size and structure).
yy Male is shorter than the female with a curved caudal end, while female is straight.
yy Male contains penial spicules for copulation. Genital tract and digestive track are connected and form
cloaca.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 5.20: A. Ascaris mammilated egg and B. its section

Ed
ο Genital tract opens independently. (Cloaca absent).

ο Fertilisation occurs internally and development can be either direct or indirect.
ο Number of cells in the body are fixed from larva to adult and this phenomenon is called as Eutely.
Table 5.14: Various examples of Nemathelminthes with their common names

Organism Common name
Ascaris Intestinal round worm
Enterobius Pin worm or seat worm
Ancylostoma Hookworm
Wuchereria Filarial worm (Causes elephantiasis)
Loa-loa Eye worm
Trichuris Rhabditis
Trichinella Dracunculus
5.39
Unique Features
yy Syncytial epidermis lining all over.
yy Body wall muscular of longitudinal fibres only.
yy Pseudocoel, a body cavity that lacks mesodermal coelomic epithelium lining.
yy Complete digestive tract with mouth and anus
yy Fluid- filled body cavity,
yy Separate sexes.
Try It Yourself
1. True Coelom has evolved for the first time in
(A) Arthopoda
n
(B) Mollusca
.i
(C) Annelid
(D) Platyhelminthes
n al
2. Platyhelminthes are
ur
(A) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical and coelomate

o
(B) Diploblastic, radially, symmetrical and acoelomate

uj
(C) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate

(D) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and Pseudocoelomate
Ed
3. Which of the following is miss-matched

(A) Trichuris-whip worm
(B) Loa-loa-eye worm
(C) Ancylostoma – pin worm
(D) Ascaris – round worm
4. Largest Earth worm is
(A) Pheretima
(B) Lumbricus
(C) Megascolex
(D) Dravida
5.40
4.7 Phylum – Annelida

yy Lamarck termed the phylum as Annelida.
yy Free living found in moist soil, fresh water, sea or few are parasite.
yy Body has soft touch, elongated, cylindrical or flattened shape.
yy Body is divided into segments or metameres with ring like groves called as Annuli.
4.7.1 General Characters in Annelids
yy Body has Bilateral symmetry.
yy Triploblastic germ layers present.
yy Level of organization is organ system which has tube within tube body plan.
yy A distinct head is present at the anterior end of the body with sense organ in some of the annelids.
n
(Cephalisation)
.i
yy Locomotion takes place with chitinous setae on fleshy parapodia, or with muscular contraction.
n al
o ur
uj
A B
Ed
Figure 5.21: A. Nereis, B. Hirudinaria

yy Body wall consist of Cuticle, epidermis and
Muscle layer (both circular and longitudinal)
yy First animals that have Protostomi eucoelomate
i.e. the body has coelom divided into
compartments with septae.
yy Body cavity has true coelom which is lined with
mesodermal coelomic epithelium. (Schizocoel).
yy Skeleton is absent however fluid filled coelom
functions like a hydrostatic skeleton.
yy Digestive tract is with mouth and anus, straight, A
(a) B(b)
extending through the entire body. The gut is made Figure 5.21: Morphology of A. Nereis
B. Hirudinaria
5.41
up of circular as well as longitudinal muscles. Digestive gland are present and developed in Annelida
which are the first organisms to have one.
yy Respiration is through skin i.e. cutaneous respiration. Some annelids though have gills (branchial
respiration).
yy Circulatory system is of closed type. Some blood vessels get enlarged and function instead of pumping
heart. (Heart appears first time in annelids). Blood is red in colour due to haemoglobin which is dissolved
in plasma (Erythrocruorin).
yy Nephridia is excretory organ which helps in osmoregulation along with Coiled tubules in it.
yy Excretory matter Ammonia for aquatic forms while it is Urea for terrestrial forms
yy A pharyngeal nerve ring, double and mid ventral, nerve cord along with the paired ganglia make up the
Nervous system in annelids.
yy Sexes are either separate like Dioecious, e.g. Nereis or united like Monoecious, e.g. – Earthworm and
n
leeches. Sexual reproduction is dominant.
.i
yy Development is either direct or indirect. If indirect it is through trochophore larva.
Unique Features
n al
yy Leech feeds itself with haemoglobin containing blood and thus it is used to suck impure blood which is
ur
called as Phlebotomy.
yy Metameric segmentation throughout the body.
o
yy Nephridia is present for excretion and osmoregulation.

uj
yy The circulatory system is closed with respiratory pigment being dissolved in the plasma.
Ed
yy Setae for locomotion is present in the body wall in many forms.

yy Head, appendages and respiratory organs are found in some cases,
yy Circular and longitudinal muscles are found in both the body wall and the gut wall.
“Annelida” is classified into 4 classes on the basis of presence or absence of series organ and position of
setae
5.42
Table 5.15: “Annelida” classified into 4 classes on the basis of presence or absence of series organ
and position of setae
Polychaeta Oligochaeta Hirudinea Archiannelida
yy Marine water yy Terrestrial animals yy Aquatic, terrestrial, yy Marine water
dwellers. with some ectoparasite and dwellers.
yy Cephalisation is organisms in sanguivorous. yy Cephalisation is
more distinct. aquatic world. yy Cephalisation is absent.
yy Setae are yy Cephalisation is absent. yy Parapodia and
numerous absent. yy Parapodia and setae are absent.
and present in yy Setae for setae are absent. yy Clitellum absent.
parapodia helps locomotion. Number Suckers are yy Animals are
in locomotion and of setae is limited present at both the unisexual and
also in respiration. and situated in ends. development is
n
yy Clitellum is absent micro bags present yy Clitellum (9- indirect through
.i
yy Unisexual and in body wall. 11 segments) larval stage which
development is
indirect through
yy Clitellum is present
throughout life for
n al developed only in
breeding season.
is called as the
Trochophore.
larval stage which cocoon formation. yy Bisexual and
ur
is called as the yy Bisexual or development is
trochophore. hermaphrodite and direct (No larva).
o
development is
direct. (No larva).
uj
Ed
5.43
Polychaeta Oligochaeta Hirudinea Archiannelida

yy e.g. Nereis – Sand yy e.g. yy Number of yy External
worm Pheretima eutyphaeus segments are fixed segmentation is
Aphrodite – Sea mouse i.e. 33 segments. not very distinct.
N. Indian earthworms
yy Anticoagulant yy e.g. Polygordius
Chaetopterus – paddle Pheretima lumbricus –
worm shows bio- hirudin is present – Connecting Link
European earthworm in the saliva. between Annelida
florescence, great
power of regeneration Pheretima megascolex – yy Haemocoelomic and Mollusca
Largest earth worm. system is (living fossil)
Ref. present. A special Larva known as
Dravida (S. India)
Arenicola – Lug worm mesodermal tissue Loven’s Larva
Dero – Fresh watered called as botryoidal
Seballa – Peacock
worm Nais – Fresh watered tissue made up
n
Tubifex – Blood worm of adipose tissue
for fat storage is
.i
(Fresh water) indicator
present.
of organic loading
n al
yy e.g. Hirudinaria –
Fresh water leech
ur
Bonellia – Sea
leech – male is
undeveloped and
o
survives permanently
uj
in the uterus of female.

(unisexual)
Ed
Pontobdella – Skate
sucker.
Hirudo – Medicinal
leech (Highly modified)
Glossiphonia – Fresh
water leech
Haemadipsa –
Terrestrial leech
Haemopis – Horse
leech
yy The sense organs, nervous control, etc getting concentrated, at the anterior end of the body, that
makes a head and brain, both during evolution and in the course of an embryo’s development
5.44
Did You Know

yy Cephalisation is the name given to organisms where the differentiation of head is
at the anterior end of body.
yy Schizocoelic coelom: Body cavity is formed by splitting of the mesoderm germ
? yy
layer e.g., annelids, arthropods and molluscs.
Enterocoelic coelom: Body cavity is formed from the enteron of gastrula
e.g., echinoderms and chordates.
yy Alimentary canal is absent in sponges and tapeworms.
yy Pseudocoel is developed from blastocoel.
n
Try It Yourself
.i
1. Which of the following is an Annelid?
(A) Sea horse
n al
(B) Sea mouse
(C) Sea cow (D) Sea pen
ur
2. An example of blood fluke is

o
(A) Polystomum (B) Paramphistomum

uj
(C) Schistosoma (D) Paragonimus

Ed
3. Excretion in most Annelids take place by

(A) Kidneys (B) Flame cells
(C) Nephridia (D) Ciliated funnel
4. In Annelids formation of larva is usually absent but when present the larva is called
(A) Tadpole (B) Planula
(C) Trochophora (D) Ephyra
5. Lasso cells are present in
(A) Coelenterate (B) Ctenophore
(C) Porifera (D) Protozoa
5.45
4.8 Phylum – Arthropoda

yy Arthropoda has maximum organisms making this the biggest phylum. Two-third of the named species
on earth are Arthropods. Around 900,000 species are present among which 750,000 are only insects.
yy Some or all segments in the organism have paired locomotory appendages. Hence, the name of the
phylum where arthro is joints and poda is foot.
yy Arthropods are omnipresent, found in water, land, sea, inside the plant and animal. They are colonial,
gregarious, shows parental care.
yy Sometime organisms reproduce through “Parthenogenesis Phenomenon” which means development
of an unfertilised egg into an offspring. (E.g. Honey bee)
yy Earlier arthropoda exists as Fossil marine arthropoda now which are called as Trilobites.
4.8.1 General Characteristics of Arthropoda
n
yy Body has Bilateral symmetry.
.i
yy Triploblastic (three germ layers) and have organ systems in the level of organization.
yy
al
The body shows presence of distinct head [High degree of cephalisation], well-developed sensory
organs like simple eyes, compound eyes, antennae, and statocyst or balance organ.
n
They have compound eyes which has many similar units called as ommatidia, having lens that has the
ur
yy
ability of forming image (mosaic).
o
yy Arthropoda show diversity in shapes of the body and is externally segmented. Body has three regions:
head, thorax and abdomen. In some organisms head is fused with body called as cephalothorax.
uj
yy There is a chitinous exoskeleton that is a cover on the body for the protection. This chitin is excreted
Ed
by the underlying epidermis.

yy Muscles are striated, arranged in bundles to form muscles, and are voluntary (first time appeared in
the Arthropods).
yy Body cavity contains blood which is haemolymph and is called as the haemocoel.
yy Digestive tract is complete with mouth and anus. Mouth has modifications which helps in
Biting and chewing type – Grasshopper, Cockroach, Termites, Caterpillars.

Piercing, Sucking type – Mosquitoes, Bugs, and Fleas.
Chewing, Lapping type – Honey Bee
Sponging type – Housefly, fruit fly.
5.46
A B D
C
Figure 5.23: A. Locust; B. Butterfly; C. Scorpion; D. Prawn
yy Respiration occurs through the body surface. Some organisms also have special structures like gills
(e.g. Prawn), Trachea (e.g. Insects), Book-lungs (e.g. Scorpion), Book-gills (e.g. King crabs). Trachea
transport oxygen directly to the cells.
n
yy The heart is located in dorsal position with a circulatory system of open type.
.i
yy Blood is usually colourless called – Haemolymph. (e.g. Insect).
yy
yy
n al
Copper containing pigment called as haemocyanin is found in some organisms (e.g. Prawn)
Heart is a dorsal, tubular pulsatile, which shows one or many chambered tubular structure.
ur
yy Excretory organs are – antennary / green glands / maxillary gland (e.g. Crustaceans) which opens
directly into the exterior end or anus, coxal gland (e.g. Arachnids) and malpighian tubules which opens
o
into the gut (e.g. Insects).

uj
yy Excretory matter is ammonia excreted by aquatic species and uric acid by terrestrial species
yy Nervous system is developed and is made up of a ring (Brain) and a double, solid, mid ventral nerve
Ed
cord which has a pair of ganglia connected through commissures to central nerve cord (Ganglia).
yy Sexes are separate, with sexual dimorphism among the organs is also common. Fertilisation is
internal however some aquatic species have external fertilisation as well. Gonads have ducts. Larva
stage undergoes degree of metamorphosis getting converted to the organism. Most organisms show
oviparous reproduction while few show viviparous methods also. Development is direct or indirect.
5.47
C
B
.i n
Figure 5.24: A. Queen in a bee hive; B. Drone in a hive and C. Worker in a hive
yy
n al
The animals have endocrine system with some of them secreting pheromones to attract opposite sex.
yy Arthropoda are most successful terrestrial environment invaders under the group of invertebrates as
these animals include presence of (1) cuticle (2) appendages and (3) wings that help them survive
ur
better.
o
yy Examples:
uj
yy Economically important insects – Apis (Honey bee), Bombyx (Silk worm), Laccifer (Lac insect).
ο Vectors – Anopheles, Culex, Aedes (mosquitoes)
Ed
ο Gregarious pest – Locusta (Locust)
ο Living Fossil – Limulus (King crab)
ο Others – Butterfly, Scorpion, Prawn, Spider, Cyclops, Centipede, Millipede, Peripatus etc.
The evolution from annelid to arthropod is:

yy Head is differentiated in all the organisms.
yy Endocrine glands.
yy Striped muscles,
yy Sense organs
yy Well-developed respiratory organs
5.48
Table 5.16: Classification of Arthodpoda on the Basis of Differences among their Body Structure
Class 1 Crustacea Class 2 Class 3 Class 4 Insecta Class 5
Chilopoda Diplopoda Arachnida
Two pairs of antennae Single pair of Single pair of Pair of antennae Simple eyes
and one pair of antennae and antennae and and compound
compound eyes. ocelli. ocelli. eyes.
Segments of legs Each trunk Each thoracic Three segments Six pairs of
called as pereiopods. segment has a segment has with legs and two appendages.
pair of legs. a pair of legs, pairs of wings.
except first one.
Respiration is through Respiration is Respiration is Respiration is Respiration is
gills, or body surface through trachae through trachae through trachae through lungs or
trachea or both.
n
Sexes are separate Sexes are Sexes are Sexes are Sexes are
.i
and have dimorphism. separate. separate separate separate.
Excretion occurs
through antennary
Excretion
occurs through
al
Excretion
occurs through
n Excretion
occurs through
Excretion
occurs through
glands malpighian malpighian malpighian malpighian
ur
tubules. tubules. tubules. tubules.

Development is Development is Development is Development is Development is
o
indirect direct direct either direct or generally direct

uj
indirect.
Ed
Knowledge Builder
yy Peripatus is considered as connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda as it
has unjoined legs and breaths by trachea.
yy Larvae of different arthropods:
Bombyx (silkworm) – Caterpillar / silkworm.
Beetles – honey bee grub
Musca (housefly) – Maggot
Culex, Anopheles – Wriggler
Pennaeus (marine prawn), Mysis, Nauplius – protozoa
Cancer (crab) – Megalopa
yy Terga are dorsal plates whereas sterna are ventral plates of exoskeleton.
yy Arthrodial membranes join different sclerites.
5.49
Knowledge Builder
yy Halters are drumstick-shaped, second pair of reduced wings of housefly and
mosquito which help in balancing.
yy The eggs of culex are cigar shaped; they are laid vertically on the surface of water
in clusters; airfloats are absent; whereas in Anopheles, eggs are boat-shaped, laid
singly and horizontally; they have airfloat.
yy The larva of Culex is bottom feeder whereas the larva Anopheles is surface feeder.
yy The adult of Culex lies parallel to the surface and both ends of body deflected
whereas in Anopheles, the body is inclined at an angle of 450 to the surface. So,
they can be distinguished with the help of sitting posture.
yy In spider, spinnerets are present anterior to the terminal anus. They produce silken
thread.
n
yy Von Frisch described the process of communication of food source in honey bees.
.i
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 5.25: Various organisms in Arthropod

yy Insecticides sprayed over the mosquitoes desensitise their nervous system as well
as chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors of the antennae.
yy Johnston’s organs are present on the antennae of mosquitoes.
yy The life cycle is generally accompanied with metamorphosis. Larvae and adults
may show different feeding habits and occupy different habitats.
yy Insects such as bees, wasps, beetles, moths and butterflies are good pollination
for important crops.
yy Ants, termites, and locusts are eaten by Chinese and Indians; the eggs of aquatic
bugs are used as food by Mexicans; ox-warbles are eaten by Red Indians.
yy Dragon files feed on the larvae of mosquitoes.
5.50
Knowledge Builder
yy Glow wombrm (firefly) shows bioluminescence.
yy Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the help of sitting posture.
yy The insects may be divided into five groups on the basis of their mode of
development.
ο Ametabola insects: Metamorphosis absent. The young resemble adult.
Eggs  Young  Adult

Example: Lepisma (silver fish)
ο Paurometabola insects: Gradual metamorphosis.
Eggs  Nymph  Adult
n
Example: Cockroach, grasshopper, locusts, etc.
.i
ο Hemimetabola insects: Incomplete metamorphoisis. Habitat of young ones is
different from adults.
Eggs  Naiads  Adult
n al
Example: Dragon flies (naiads aquatic but adults aerial)
ur
ο Holometabola insects: Complete metamorphosis.

o
Eggs  Larva  Pupa  Adult

uj
Examples: House flies, butterflies, mosquitoes, etc.

ο Hypermetabola insects: Various forms of larvae.
Ed
Eggs  Larva (1)  Larva (2)  Pupa  Adult

Example: Blister beetle.
Unique Features
yy Jointed appendages that were modified to function in various ways.
yy Tough exoskeleton made up of chitinous plates secreted by epidermis.
yy Tracheae is for respiration in majority of the members, gills, lungs are found in some of them.
yy Compound eyes with lens.
yy Malpighian tubules for excretion with nephridia.
yy Power of flight in most insects with the wings.
yy Movement through striped muscles arranged in bundles.
5.51
Did You Know

yy Metamorphosis: The sum of all the changes that is responsible for transforming
a larva into the adult.
yy Progressive metamorphosis: Simple larva changes that cause maturity into a
complex adult e.g., frog.
yy Retrogressive metamorphosis: Advanced larva that changes into a degenerate
(less developed) adult e.g., Herdmania
? yy Hibernation: Period of inactivity of the organism in winter months is also called as
winter sleep e.g. amphibians (frog) and lizards.
yy Aestivation: Period of inactivity of the organism in summer months is also called
as summer sleep e.g. frog.
n
yy Cold blooded animals cannot survive in cold alpine and arctic areas. These are
.i
active in hot deserts for limited period only.
yy
cucumber, Unio, etc.
n al
Aminotelism: Main nitrogenous wastes are amino acids. It is found in star fish, sea
o ur
Try It Yourself
uj
1. Which of the following animal is not an Insect-

(A) Ticks (B) Honey bee (C) Beetle (D) Wasp
Ed
2. Example of living fossil in Arthropoda is –

(A) Cimex (B) Triarthus (C) Peripatus (D) Eupagurus
3. Excretion in animals Arthropoda take place by
(A) Malpighian tubules (B) Green glands
(C) Coxal glands (D) All of the above
4. Book – lungs are found in
(A) Myriapoda (B) Crustacean (C) Arachnida (D) Insect
5. Millipede and centipede belongs to
(A) Myriapoda (B) Crustacean (C) Insect (D) Arachnida
5.52
4.9 Phylum – Mollusca

yy It is second largest Phylum having
60,000 species in it.
yy Mollusca survive in marine waters
and have soft body. Some are also
found in fresh water or terrestrial.
yy Johnston termed the organisms as
Mollusca.
yy The study of the organisms in
Mollusca phylum is called as
malacology and the study of
molluscan shells is known as
conchology. Figure 5.26: Process of pearl secretion from oyster
n
4.9.1 General characters of the phylum Mollusca
.i
yy
body.
n al
Body is segmented and has variety of shapes. Neopilina is an exception that bears segment on the
yy Molluscs have bilateral symmetry. Few organisms have secondary structures like twist (Torsion) and
ur
coils which are asymmetrical (snail). These are triploblastic organisms and the organ system is present
as the level of organization.
o
yy Body has calcareous shell covering with distinct head, visceral mass and muscular foot.
uj
yy The body has thin, soft and spongy skin layer that forms mantle or pallium.
Ed
yy The visceral skin mass secretes a glandular hump and the mantle which is called as the mantle cavity.
yy The mantle secretes an external shell which is made up of calcium carbonate and conchiolin or conchin
protein.
yy Coelom is reduced. The space between the viscera contain blood and form haemocoel.
yy Digestive tract has mouth and anus. There is a rasping or feeding organ in the buccal cavity called as
the radula. The mantle cavity ends into anus. Digestive glands are also present to secrete digestive
juices into the body which is known as hepatopancreas.
Figure 5.27: Molluscs body plan

5.53
yy Respiration occurs through feather like gills called as Ctenidia which are present in the mantle cavity.
yy Circulatory system is made up of dorsal pulsatile heart that transports blood through arteries which
open into sinuses. The system is of open type. Blood is blue or green in colour as it has respiratory
transport molecule made of copper called as Haemocyanin.
yy Excretory system includes 1 - 2 pairs of sac like kidneys that secrete their wastes into the mantle cavity.
The kidney has Meta nephridia called as Keber’s organs or Organ of Bojanus in Unio. Excretory matter
is ammonia in aquatic forms or uric acid in terrestrial forms.
yy Nervous system includes three pairs of ganglia. It includes
Cerebral (above the mouth)
Pedal (in the foot)
Visceral (in visceral mass)
yy Sense organ includes
n
Eye- present over a stalk called ommatophore (Gastropoda).
.i
Statocyst/Lithocyst – For equilibrium in foot al
Osphradia – Chemoreceptor / Olfactory as well as for testing chemical and physical nature of water.
n
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 5.28: A. Unio and B. Pila
yy Sexes are dioecious and organisms are oviparous. Fertilisation may be external or internal.
yy Development is indirect through larva. Trochophore is very common larva, however Larva Glochidium
(Fresh water mussel) and Veliger (Pila) are also found.
5.54
Classification of Molluscs:
Monoplacophora
yy Marine animals that share characters with both Annelida and Mollusca.
yy Shell has Dome shape with mantle covering.
yy Broad and flat foot is found.
e.g. Neopilina - Living fossils - Connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca.
Polyplacophora/Amphineura*
yy Marine,
yy Shell can be present with 8 dorsal plates or absent.
yy Flat foot is present at the ventral surface.
e.g. Chiton- The coat of mail shell (Sea – mica)
Scaphopoda
n
yy Marine.
.i
yy Shell is Tubular and open at both the ends It has tusk like shell.
yy Foot is in conical shape to help in digging.
e.g. Dentalium –Tusk shell - Respire by mantle
n al
ur
Gastropoda
yy Marine or fresh water or moist soil are common habitats.
o
yy Shell is spirally coiled (Univalvia).

yy The foot is attached into the stomach
uj
e.g. Pila – Apple – snail (Shell used in buttons), Aplysia – Sea hare, Cypraea – Old currency, Limex –
Slug (Shell less), Turbinella – Shankh, Turbo- Cat’s eye, Doris – Sea lemon, Planorbis – Land snail.
Ed
Pelecypoda
yy Marine / fresh water.
yy Shell is made of two valves that can move by dorsal hinge.
yy Foot has wedge shape.
e.g. Unio- Mussel (fresh water), Mytilus – Mussel (marine), Lamellidens – Mussel, Teredo – Ship worm.
Pinctada- Pearl oysters.
Cephalopoda
yy Marine
yy Shell is either Internal (sepia) or external (Nautilus) or absent (Octopus).
yy Foot is flat and muscular.
yy Exhalant siphon present and closed blood circulation.
yy Ink gland produces ink used for offence and defence mechanism and larva is absent.
e.g. Octopus – Devil fish with 8 arms
5.55
Unique Features
yy Body has three regions: head, visceral mass and foot.
yy A glandular fold, the mantle over the body.
yy Mantle cavity is connected directly to anal, excretory and genital apertures in it.
yy Calcareous shell is secreted by the epidermal shells that covers the body in most forms.
yy A rasping / feeding organ called the radula is present in the buccal cavity.
yy Sense organs are advanced, eyes, statocysts, osphradia, etc., are common.
yy Precious pearl with tennis ball size is produced in a molluscs – Tridekna
yy “Nacre layer” is called “Mother of Pearl”: This layer is made up of CaCO3 and conchiolin protein.
yy Father of pearl industry – Kokichi Mikimoto as he was the first one to start the pearl industry and
cultured them.
n
yy Molluscs include a large number of organisms that are classified on the basis of shell, Foot, Nervous
.i
system and gills into seven classes. n al
Try It Yourself
ur
1. Organ of bojanus found in –

o
(A) Chordate (B) Echinodermata

uj
(C) Annelid (D) Mollusca

Ed
2. Molluscan which form hole in wood –

(A) Doris (B) Chiton (C) Taredo (D) Limax
3. Second largest phylum of animal kingdom is –
(A) Arthropoda (B) Protozoa
(C) Mollusca (D) Pisces
4. Secretion of shell take place by
(A) Foot (B) Ink gland (C) Radula (D) Mantle
5. Cephalopod with exoskeleton-
(A) Pila (B) Chiton (C) Unio (D) Nautilus
5.56
4.10 Phylum – Echinodermata

yy Jacob Klein named the organisms in this phylum as Echinodermata.
yy All animals are marine, love to grow and live at bottom, have slow locomotory movements. The phylum
lacks any parasitic forms.
4.10.1 General Characters of Echinodermata
yy Body shape is variable ranging from star-like, cylindrical-like, melon-like disc-like, flower-like and the
body lacks head.
yy Body lacks segments on the surface, has bilateral symmetry in larva stage and radial pentamerous
(arranged in five or multiple) symmetry after the larva mature into an adult.
yy Echinoderms have triploblastic germ layer that show organ system in level of organization.
yy Skin has spines (tubercles), between which there are pincer like structures called as pedicellariae and
n
endoskeletor made of calcareous plate (ossicle).
.i
yy Minute pedicellariae keeps the body surface free from debris.
yy
n al
Echinoderms have true coelom in the body and are enterocoelic.
yy Water vascular system is unique to echinoderms which is a water filled ambulacral or water vascular
system with tube feet in which the water enters through a perforated plate called as madreporite. It
ur
helps in locomotion of body, capture and transport of food and also in respiration.
o
yy Respiration is through the body surface called as dermal branchiae (gills) or papulae in most of the
echinoderms like Star fish.
uj
yy Digestive tract is made of mouth digestive system ending in anus (incomplete – brittle star). Mouth here
Ed
is on lower side and anus is on the upper side.

yy Circulation system is open type and reduced with no heart or any pumping vessel.
yy There is no specific excretory system and the nitrogenous waste produced by cells are (ammonia)
diffused out through the body surface.
yy Nervous system is simple, with less developed organs like a nerve ring and radial nerves that have
simple sensory organs. They lack brain.
5.57
A B
.i n
n al
ur
C D
o
Figure 5.29: A. Dorsal view and B. Ventral view of Star fish, C. Brittle star and D. Feather star
uj
yy Echinoderms have male and female sexes separately.

Ed
yy Fertilisation is external after sexual mating. Ciliated, free swimming larva that has bilateral symmetry is
formed which later undergoes metamorphosis to develop into an adult.
yy Similarities echinoderms share with the chordates.
yy Early embryonic development in both the phylum includes deuterostmus and enterocoelomic condition.
yy Few echinoderms (star fish) are able to regenerate into new organisms. They use their arms for defence
purposes which is known as autotomy.
yy Evisceration is a phenomenon where angry or frightened echinoderms vomit out viscera from the
internal organ.
5.58
Table 5. 17: Classification of Echinodermata

Holothuroidea Echinoidea Crinoidea Asteroidea Ophiuroidea
yy Body form yy Body form is yy Body form is yy Body form is flat yy Body form is
is long and Globular or Plant like fixed and star like. flat and star
cylindrical disc like. with cirri. like.
yy Arms are yy Arms are yy Arms are yy Arms are five, yy Arms are five,
absent absent numerous and thick, short and thin, long and
branched. lack central disc brittle
yy Larva is called yy Larva is yy Larva is called yy Larva is called yy Larva-
as auricularia called as as doliolaria as bipinnaria, ophiopluteus
yy Respiration
Echinopluteus e.g. Antedon- Sea dipleura etc.
by cloacal yy Respiration lily (most primitive) yy Respiration by yy Respiration
respiratory by peristomial without spine and dermal branchie by genital
n
tree. gills. pedicellaria e.g. Asterias - bursae
.i
e.g. Cucumaria – yy Mouth has Starfish e.g. Ophiura –
Sea cucumber
Holothuria synapta-
biting and
chewing teeth
n al Brittle star
Ophiothrix
Only fresh water apparatus
ur
echinoderm Aristotle’s
lantern
o
(Masticating
apparatus with
uj
5 teeth)
Ed
e.g. Echinus – sea

urchin
Knowledge Builder
1. The starfish uses the suction-cup-like ends of the tube feet of one arm to hold on to
rocks, as it moves the other arms. It can open bivalves (molluscs) by attaching two
arms to either sides of a bivalve and pulling them apart. The bivalve opens out; the
stomach of starfish is then everted through its mouth and introduced into the open
molluscs which is partly digested before being ingested.
2. Echinoderms predate on coral polyps also.
5.59
Unique Features
yy Larva has Bilateral symmetry which matures into adult that has radial symmetry.
yy Mesodermal endoskeleton made from the calcareous spiny plates (1-8).
yy A water vascular system which is modified part of the coelom to help in locomotion.
yy Characteristic tube feet is present that helps in locomotion.
yy Peculiar pedicellariae cleans the body surface.
Try It Yourself
1. Member of Echinodermata has a specific system, which is not found in other phylum,
it is –
(A) Canal system (B) Water vascular system
(C) Respiratory system (D) Reproductive system
.i n
2. Presence of pedicellariae is the characteristic feature of class –
(A) Hydrozoa
(C) Crustacean
n al
(B) Asteroidean
(D) Cephaopoda
ur
3. Which of the following is found in both coelenterates and echinoderms in adult stage –
(A) Coelenterons (B) Radial symmetry
o
(C) Tube-feet (D) Bilateral symmetry

uj
4. The animal with tube-feet is

Ed
(A) Star-fish (B) Jelly-fish

(C) Silver-fish (D) Cray-fish
5. The system of vessels conveying water for the purpose of feeding respiration and
locomotion in Echinoderms is called
(A) Canal system (B) Water vascular system
(C) Vascular system (D) None of the above
4.11. Phylum – Hemichordata

yy Hemichordate was thought to be a sub-phylum of the phylum chordate. However, presently it is placed
under non-chordate which is separate phylum.
yy Animals of this phylum are all fossorial.
5.60
yy Body of the organisms are worm-like, brittle and soft. Body shows three parts-
OO Proboscis
OO Collar
OO Trunk
4.11.1 General Characters of Hemichordate

yy Body has enterocoelus cavity that is differentiated as protocoel, mesocoel and metacoel.
yy Mostly organisms are ciliary feeders. Alimentary canal is complete in the digestive system.
yy Pigment vanadium is colourless in the blood which is responsible for respiration and the organ is gill or
the body surface.
yy Circulatory system is of the open type. Blood has amoeboid corpuscles. Heart is in dorsal side.
n
yy Buccal cavity has a notochord like structure that is called as the “Buccal diverticulum” or “Stomochord”
(outgrowth structure of gut).
.i
yy True notochord and post anal tail is absent. al
yy Central nervous system is similar to non-chordates. Brain is like nerve ring.
n
yy A single glomerulus situated in the proboscis takes care of excretion which is called as proboscis gland.
ur
yy Mostly, unisexual animals that reproduce sexually.

o
yy External fertilisation.
uj
yy Development is indirect, tornaria larva (freely swimming) just like bipinnaria larva of echinodermata in
their developmental stages.
Ed
e.g. Balanoglossus – Tongue worm or Acorn worm, Saccoglossus, Protoglossus, Rhabdopleura,

Cephalodiscus
yy Hemichordata acts as a connecting link between non-chordata and chordata.
5.61
Summary
yy The basic fundamental features that are common in almost all the animals are used to classify
organisms. The basis for classification are level of organisation, symmetry, cell organisation,
coelom, segmentation, notochord, etc. Along with these fundamental features, several distinctive
characters specialised to which are specific for each phyla or class.
yy Phylum Porifera: includes animals that are multicellular i.e. exhibit cellular level of organisation. It
has characteristic flagellated choanocytes. Ostia is present all over the body, with only an opening
as osculum on the top. Members are hermaphrodite. Skeleton is made up of calcareous or siliceous
spicules or spongin fibres.
yy Phylum Coelentera: have tentacles and cnidoblasts in the body. The organisms are aquatic, sessile
or free-floating. The body has radial symmetry, are typical acoelomates, diploblastic and have
gastrovascular cavity. Few of the cnidarians show metagenesis also.
n
yy Phylum Ctenophora: exclusively marine animals, diploblastic acoelomate with radial symmetry.
They are without cnidoblasts however have colloblasts. Locomotion is with comb plates.
.i
yy Phylum Platyhelminthes: first triploblastic animals. The body is acoelomate, has bilateral symmetry
al
and also has blind sac body plan. They are hermaphrodite. They are common parasites and have
n
various types of suckers and hooks that helps in attachment.
ur
yy Phylum Aschelminthes: triploblastic, unsegmented animals that have bilateral symmetry. The
animals are pseudocoelomate that have complete alimentary canal and are dioecious.
o
yy Phylum Annelida: first to have the metameric segmentation on the body and have true coelom.
uj
Body includes the appendages for locomotion made up of chitinous setae or parapodia.
yy Phylum Arthropoda: are the most abundant group of animals that are characterised to have jointed
Ed
appendages. They are triploblastic, coelomates with metamerically segmented body and have open
circulatory system. Exoskeleton is made up of Chitin.
yy Phylum Mollusca: have soft unsegmented body which has hard calcareous shell as covering
secreted by a fold of skin mantle that covers the visceral mass.
yy Phylum Echinodermata: marine animals that possess spiny skin. Their body has most distinctive
feature the water vascular system. Symmetry changes in life cycle as larva has bilateral symmetry
and adult has radial symmetry.
yy Phylum Hemichordata: small group of worm like animals found in marine waters. The body is
cylindrical with proboscis, collar and trunk.
5.62
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 The animals in which the cells are organised into structural and functional units called as tissues,
organs and organ systems are grouped under which sub-kingdom?
(A) Parazoa (B) Eumetazoa (C) Metazoa (D) Bilateria
Q.2 When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical
halves it is radial symmetry. Which of the following set of animals have radial symmetry?
(A) Housefly, fish, human beings
n
(B) Sponges, hydra, crabs
.i
(C) Coelenterates, ctenophores, echinoderms
(D) Annelids, arthropods, housefly
n al
Q.3 Closed circulatory system is found in
ur
(A) Earthworm (B) Arthropoda (C) Unio (D) Leech

o
Q.4 Sponges are most primitive multicellular organisms with which of the following levels of organisation?
uj
(A) Acellular (B) Cellular (C) Tissue (D) Organ system

Ed
Q.5 Incomplete alimentary canal with blind sac type of body plan is present in
(A) Annelids (B) Arthropods (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Sponges
Q.6 Select correct matching of animals, their body symmetry and coelom.
S. No. Animals Symmetry Coelom
1. Ctenophores Radial Acoelomate
2. Platyhelminthes Bilateral Acoelomate
3. Aschelminthes Bilateral Pseudocoelomate
4. Annelids Radial Coelomate
Q.7 Acoelomate diploblastic animal phylum is

(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Cnidaria (C) Aschelminthes (D) Hemichordate
5.63
Q.8 Which of the following animal/s has tube within tube type of body plan evolved along deuterostomic
evolutionary line?
(A) Annelids (B) Arthropods (C) Aschelminthes (D) Molluscs
Q.9 In the course of evolution true coelom appeared for the first time in
(A) Annelida (B) Chordata (C) Aschelminthes (D) Echinodermata
Q.10 Which of the following is incorrect matching of the phylum, their alimentary canal and metameric
segmentation?
S. No. Animals Symmetry Coelom
(1) Annelida Complete Present
(2) Arthropoda Complete Present
n
(3) Mollusca Complete Absent
.i
(4) Platyhelminthes Incomplete Present
al
Q.11 If Amoeba is kept in distilled water, its contractile vacuole
n
(A) Works slowly (B) Works faster (C) Remains unaffected (D) Disappears
ur
Q.12 Paramecium feeds through

o
uj
(A) Undulating membrane (B) General body surface

(C) Oral groove (D) Cytopyge
Ed
Q.13 Total parasites belong to protozoan group

(A) Sporozoa (B) Ciliata (C) Sarcodina (D) Zoooflagellata
Q.14 Common trait between Amoeba and leucocyte is

(A) Encystment (B) Pseudopodia (C) Sporulation (D) Contractile vacuoles
Q.15 Sporozoites of malaria parasite enter

(A) Stomach of mosquito (B) Salivary glands of human
(C) Liver cells of humans (D) Erythrocytes of human
5.64
Q.16 Exflagellation in Plasmodium occurs in

(A) Merozoites (B) Megagametocytes
(C) Microgametocytes (D) Metacryptomerozoites
Q.17 Which one is non pathogenic?

(A) Entamoeba coli (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Entamoeba gingivalis (D) Plasmodium ovale
Q.18 The trophic form in Entamoeba histolytica is

(A) Magna form (B) Minuta form (C) Monogenetic form (D) Digenetic form
Q.19 Cellulose digestion in termites is carried out by
n
(A) Lophomonas (B) Trichomonas (C) Trichonympha (D) Monocystis
.i
Q.20 Which phase of Plasmodium is resistant to drugs?
(A) Golgi cycle
n al
(B) Erythrocytic phase
(C) Posterythrocytic phase (D) Gamogonic phase
ur
Q.21 Sycon belongs to a group of animals which are best described as

o
(A) Unicellular or cellular

uj
(B) Multicellular with cellular level of organisation, without any tissue organisation
Ed
(C) Multicellular with a gastrovascular cavity

(D) Multicellular having tissue level of organisation
Q.22. Canal system of porifera is not connected with

(A) Food gathering (B) Respiratory gas exchange
(C) Removal of waste (D) Locomotion
Q.23. Digestion of food in sponges is

(A) Intracellular in choanocytes
(B) Intracellular in choanocytes and extracellular in paragastric cavity
(C) Extracellular occurs in spongocoel
(D) Intracellular
5.65
Q.24 The characteristic cells of sponges are

(A) Nerve cells (B) Choanocytes / Collar cells
(C) Amoebocytes (D) Chromocytes
Q.25 Which of the following is not a character of phylum porifera?

(A) Sexes are not separate
(B) Fertilization is internal
(C) Development is indirect
(D) They are exclusively present in marine water and are mostly asymmetrical
Q.26 Which of the following is incorrect matching?

(A) Sycon - Scypta (B) Spongilia - Freshwater sponge
n
(C) Euspongia - Bath sponge (D) Chalina - Boring sponge
.i
Q.27 Parenchymula is the larva of
(A) Hydra (B) Leucosolenia
n al
(C) Most sponges (D) Both (B) and (C)
ur
Q.28 The simplest type of canal system in phylum porifea is

(A) Ascon type (B) Leucon type (C) Rhagon type (D) Sycon type
o
uj
Q.29 Sponges have evolved from

Ed
(A) Ciliates (B) Flagellates (C) Protozoans (D) Choanoflagellates
Q.30 Carmine particle put above osculum of a sponge would be

(A) Left there (B) Ingested and digested
(C) Thrown away (D) Ingested and thrown away by ostia
Q.31 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cnidarians?

(A) They are aquatic, marine, diploblastic animals
(B) They exhibit tissue level organisation
(C) They have central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening.
(D) Digestion is only extracellular
5.66
Q.32 Which is the most appropriate term used for the life cycle of Obelia?
(A) Alternation of generation
(B) Metagenesis
(C) Alternation of generation
(D) Neoteny
Q.33 The free swimming level of coelenterates is
(A) Planula (B) Cydippid (C) Parenchymula (D) Amphiblastula
Q.34 The characteristic cells of coelenaterates are

(A) Colloblasts present in epidermis only
(B) Cnidoblasts present in epidermis only
(C) Cnidoblasts present in both epidermis and gastrodermis
n
(D) Flame cells
.i
Q.35 Which of the following is incorrect match?
(A) Physalia – Portuguese man of war
n al
(B) Meandrina – Staghorn coral
(C) Gorgonia – Sea fan (D) Pennatula – Sea pen
ur
Q.36 Sea walnuts or comb jellies belong to phylum

o
(A) Cnidaria (B) Mollusca (C) Ctenophora (D) Porifera

uj
Q.37 Which of the following is not character of phylum ctenophore?

Ed
(A) Exclusively marine and radially symmetrical (B) Diploblastic with tissue level organisation
(C) Monoecious and exhibit bioluminescence (D) Reproduction is internal with indirect development
Q.38 Tentacles of ctenophores contain

(A) Cnidoblasts (B) Colloblasts (C) Comb plates (D) Statocysts
Q.39 Which of the following is incorrect match regarding the phylum and its two examples?
(A) Ctenophora – Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana (B) Cnidaria – Adamsia, Obelia
(C) Porifera – Euspongia, Hormiphora (D) Platyhelminthes – Taenia, Fasciola
5.67
Q.40 Hydra is
(A) Fresh water form, radially symmetrical and diploblastic
(B) Marine, radially symmetrical and diploblastic
(C) Fresh water form, bilaterally symmetrical and diploblastic
(D) Marine, radially symmetrical and triploblastic
Q.41 In Taenia (tape worm) alimentary canal is absent because
(A) It is endoparasite
(B) It does not require food
(C) They absorb the nutrients from the host directly through the body surface
(D) It does not require solid food
Q.42 Which of the following is not a characteristic features of the phylum-platyhelminthes?
n
(A) Sexes are not separate (hermaphrodite)
.i
(B) Fertilization is internal and is cross fertilization
(C) Development is indirect through many larval stages
(D) Lives in intestine of sheep
n al
ur
Q.43. Specialised cells called as flame cells which help in osmoregulation and excretion are characteristic
feature of
o
(A) Ctenoplana (B) Tubipora (C) Fasciola (D) Spongilla

uj
Q.44 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Fasciola hepatica?

Ed
(A) Sexes are not separate (hermaphrodite)

(B) Fertilization is internal and is cross fertilization
(C) Development is indirect through many larval stages
(D) Lives in intestine of sheep
Q.45 In the life, history of liver fluke are present, A-Cercaria, B-Metacercaria, C-Sporocyst, D-Redia,
E- Miracidium. What is their proper sequence?
(A) B, E, C, D, A (B) B, C, E, D, A (C) E, C, D, A, B (D) A, B, C, D, E
Q.46 Taenia solium is attached to the intestinal mucosa by

(A) Rostellum (B) Scolex (C) Proglottids (D) Acetabulum
5.68
Q.47 Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs through

(A) Oncosphere (B) Cysticercus (C) Egg (D) Miracidium
Q.48 Blood fluke is

(A) Hymenolepis nana (B) Paragonimus
(C) Schistosoma haematobium (D) Echinococcus granulosus
Q.49 Cysticercus larva of Taenia develops in

(A) Man (B) Goat (C) Sheep (D) Pig
Q.50 Free swimming ciliated larva of liver fluke is

(A) Redia (B) Miracidium (C) Metacercaria (D) Cercaria
.i n
Q.51 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum aschelminthes?
(A) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic animals
(B) Pseudocoelomate animals and unsegmented animals
n al
(C) Incomplete alimentary canal
ur
(D) They are dioecious

o
Q.52 Syncytical epidermis occurs in

uj
(A) Ascaris (B) Hydra (C) Taenia (D) Pheretima

Ed
Q.53 An intermediate host is present in

(A) Ascaris (B) Wuchereria (C) Ancyclostoma (D) Enterobius
Q.54 Female Ascaris can be differentiated from male by

(A) Presence of cloaca (B) Presence of penial setae
(C) Shorter size (D) Longer than male and straight posterior end
Q.55 The disease filariasis transmitted through the secondary host of Wuchereria
(A) Anopheles (B) Sand fly (C) Tse tse fly (D) Culex
5.69
Q.56 Which of the following enters the body through the skin of feet in man if, he walks bare footed in
contaminated soil?
(A) Ancylostoma (B) Ascaris (C) Schistosoma (D) Enterobius
Q.57 Which of the following statement is incorrect about Annelida?

(A) They are triploblastic, metamerically segmented coelomate animals
(B) They possess both longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion
(C) A closed circulatory system is present
(D) All are monoecious and reproduction is sexual
Q.58 Which of the following is dioecious?

(A) Pheretima (B) Hirudinaria (C) Nereis (D) Lumbricus
n
Q.59 Nereis possesses lateral appendages called as parapodia which help in
.i
(A) Locomotion (B) Swimming
n al
(C) Respiration (D) All of these
Q.60 Which of the following is incorrect?

ur
(A) Oligochaeta – Pheretima (B) Hirudinea – Hirudo

(C) Polychaeta – Lumbricus (D) Nematoda – Ascaris
o
uj
Q.61 Which of the following is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia?

Ed
(A) Mollusca (B) Annelida (C) Arthropoda (D) Echinodermata
Q.62 Which of the following is not an exclusive trait of arthropoda?

(A) Presence of wings (B) Jointed appendages
(C) Heamocoel (D) Chitinous exoskeleton
Q.63 Arthropda is characterised by

(A) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry and abdominal appendages
(B) Bilateral symmetry and pair of wings
(C) Acoelomate and radial symmetry
(D) Exoskeleton, metameric segmentation and jointed appendages
5.70
Q.64 Choose the incorrect match

(A) Gregarious pest – Locusta (B) Living fossil – Limulus
(C) Vector – Lucifer (D) Economically important insect - Apis
Q.65 Body of insect is divisible into

(A) head, thorax and abdomen (B) Head, trunk abdomen
(C) Cephalothorax, head and abdomen (D) Trunk, thorax and abdomen
Q.66 In insects, repiratory gas exchange occurs through

(A) Gills (B) Tracheae (C) Skin (D) Lungs
Q.67 What is common between earthworm and cockroach?
n
(A) Nephridia (B) Solid ventral nerve cord
.i
(C) Cuticle (D) Malphighian tubule
Q.68 Open blood circulation is found in

n al
(A) Earthworm (B) Human (C) Cockroach (D) Reptiles
ur
Q.69 Blood colour of arthropods is

o
uj
(A) Colourless (B) Red (C) Blue (D) Yellow

Ed
Q.70 Excretory organs of arthropods are

(A) Green glands (B) Green gland and malpighian tubules
(C) Nephridia (D) Malpighian tubules
Q.71 Which of the following is not a characteristic features of phylum Mollusca?

(A) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals
(B) Unsegmented animals
(C) They are usually dioecious and oviparous with indirect development
(D) Respiratory organs are feather like gills which are present in the visceral hump, help in respiration and
excretion
5.71
Q.72 File-like rasping organ for feeding called as radula is present in all molluscs, except
(A) Pila (Apple snail) (B) Sepia (Cuttle fish)
(C) Aplysia (Sea hare) (D) Pinctada (Pearl oyster)
Q.73 Mollusca is differentiated form other by

(A) Bilateral symmetry and external skeleton
(B) Mantle and gills
(C) Shell and unsegmented body
(D) Mantle and unsegmented body
Q.74 Osphradium of Pila is meant for

(A) Excretion (B) Nutrition
n
(C) Grinding of food (D) Selection and rejection of food
.i
al
Q.75 In which of the following class of phylum Mollusca, torsion occurs?
n
(A) Gastropoda (B) Pelecypoda
ur
(C) Cephalopoda (D) Monoplacophora
o
Q.76 lnk glands for protection and locomotion by jet propulsion mechanism is a characteristic feature of
uj
(A) Pila (Apple snail) (B) Loligo (Squid)

(C) Dentalium (Tusk shell) (D) Chaetopleura (Chiton)
Ed
Q.77 Trochophore larva occurs in

(A) Annelida and Porifera (B) Coelenterata and Annelida
(C) Mollusca and Echinodermata (D) Annelida and Mollusca
Q.78 Pearls are obtained from

(A) Sepia (B) Pinctada (C) Dentalium (D) Octopus
Q.79 Which of the following statement is incorrect about circulatory of molluscs?

(A) Blood contains a respiratory pigment heamocyanin
(B) Non-cephalopod molluscs have open circulatory system
(C) Cephalopod molluscs have closed circulatory system
(D) Respiratory pigment is haemoglobin dissolved in plasma
5.72
Q.80 Eye of which molluscan group resembles vertebrate eye?

(A) Bivalvia (B) Gastropoda (C) Pelecypoda (D) Cephalopoda
Q.81 In which of the following phylum larvae are bilaterally symmetrical and adult are radially symmetrical?
(A) Mollusca (B) Echinodermata (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda
Q.82 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum Echinodermata?

(A) Excretory system is absent
(B) Presence of water vascular system which helps in locomotion
(C) Sexes are separate
(D) Fertilization is internal development is indirect with free swimming larva
n
Q.83 Aristotle’s lantern which helps in mastication is a characteristic feature of
.i
(A) Asterias (Star fish) (B) Echinus (Sea urchin) (C) Antedon (Sea lily) (D) Ophiura (Brittle star)
Q.84 Ambulacral grooves are absent in

n al
(A) Asteroidea (B) Crinoidea (C) Ophiuroidea (D) Star fish
ur
Q.85 In which of the following phylum all the animals are exclusively marine with organ system level of
o
organisation?
uj
(A) Coelenterata (B) Porifera (C) Echinodermata (D) Mollusca

Ed
Q.86 Bipinnaria is the larval stage of

(A) Asterias (B) Echinus (C) Antedon (D) Cucumaria
Q.87 Which one of the following occurs in Molluscs but not Echinoderms?
(A) Aristotle’s lantern (B) Kidneys
(C) Organ system level of organisation (D) Dioecious condition
Q.88 In Echinodermata, the members of which class have mouth and anus on the same surface of body?
(A) Holothuroidea (B) Crinoidea (C) Ophiuroidea (D) Echinoidea
Q.89 The structures which help in respiration as well as excretion are

(A) Dermal branchiae (B) Pedicellariae (C) Calcareous spines (D) Tubercles
5.73
Q.90 Which of the following is mismatched?

(A) Clypeaster - Cake urchin (B) Pentaceros – Star fish
(C) Ophiocoma – Sand dollar (D) Echinocordium – Heart urchin
Q.91 Excretory organ is hemichordates is

(A) Neural gland (B) Solenocyte (C) Coxal gland (D) Proboscis gland
Q.92 Stomochord is present in

(A) Amphioxus (B) Herdmania (C) Balanoglossus (D) Proboscis gland
Q.93 Which is correct about Acorn worm?

(A) Sexes are united and fertilisation is internal (B) Sexes are separate and fertilisation is internal
n
(C) Sexes are separate but fertilisation is external (D) Sexes are united but fertilisation is external
.i
Q.94 Find the correct match w.r.t. hemichordate phylum.
(A) Circulatory system – Open
n al
(B) Body cavity – Schizocoelom
(C) Respiratory pigment – Haemocyanin (D) Gill slits – Absent
ur
Q.95 The anterior most part of body of Balanoglossus is

o
(A) Collar (B) Proboscis (C) Head (D) Branchia region

uj
Ed
Q.96 Which is not true?

(A) Acorn worm is worm like but not parasitic in nature
(B) Tongue worm is also known as acorn worm
(C) Stomochord, also known as ‘buccal diverticulum’ is present in the collar
(D) Tornaria is the larva of Balanoglossus
Q.97 Which feature of hemichordate shows its affinity with chordate?

(A) Presence of dorsal heart (B) Presence of pharyngeal gill slits
(C) Presence of marine habitat (D) Absence of respiratory pigment
5.74
Q.98 Which of the following statement is incorrect about the phylum hemichordate?
(A) They are bilaterally symmetrical triploblastic and coelomate animals
(B) Circulatory system is closed
(C) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(D) Fertilisation is external and development is indirect
Q.99 Which of the following set of animals belong to phylum hemichordate?

(A) Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus (B) Salpa, Doliolum
(C) Petromyzon, Myxine (D) Dentalium, Chaetopleura
Q.100 Acorn worms are included in which of the following phylum?

(A) Echinodermata (B) Hemichordata (C) Mollusca (D) Annelida
.i n
Q.101 Sponges in which the cells are loosely aggregated and do not form tissues or organs are grouped
under which sub-kingdom? al
(A) Metazoa (B) Eumetazoa (C) Parazoa (D) Bilateria
n
ur
Q.102 Level of organization in coelenterates is
(A) Acellular (B) Cellular (C) Tissue (D) Organ system
o
uj
Q.103 Blind sac body plan is found in

Ed
(A) Sponges (B) Annelids (C) Coelentrates (D) Round worms
Q.104 Annelids possess

(A) Cell aggregate plan (B) Blind sac plan
(C) Tube within a tube plan (D) Hollow sac plan
Q.105 ‘Tube in a tube’ plan is not exhibited by one of the following phyla
(A) Coelenterata (B) Aschelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda
Q.106 An animal having triploblastic acoelomic condition is

(A) Ascaris (B) Periplanata (C) Planaria (D) Sycon
5.75
Q.107 Animals which are triploblastic with tube within tube type of body plan and embryonic blastopore
forms anus (deuterostomia) are
(A) Annelids (B) Molluscs (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Echinoderms
Q.108 Echinoderms and chordates have

(A) Pseudocoel (B) Shizocoelom (C) Enterocoelom (D) Haemocoel
Q.109 Body cavity of arthropods is called

(A) Coelom (B) Haemocoel (C) Pseudocoel (D) Gastrovascular cavity
Q.110 A deuterostomic animal is

(A) Star fish (B) Sea Anemone (C) Pearl oyster (D) Octopus
n
Q.111 True segmentation (metameric) occurred for the first time in
.i
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes
n al
(C) Annelids (D) Arthropods
Q.112 Animals processing pseudocoelom are

ur
(A) Flatworms (B) Round worms (C) Annelids (D) Molluscs

o
Q.113 True coelom appeared first in the course of evolution in

uj
(A) Echinodermata (B) Annelida (C) Chordata (D) Aschelminthes

Ed
Q.114 Biradial symmetry is found in

(A) Obelia (B) Sea Anemone (C) Hydra (D) Aurelia
Q.115 Which is the only phylum in the animal kingdom without any nerve cell?
(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Annelida (D) Eumetazoa
Q.116 The basis of classification of protozoa is

(A) Mode of nutrition (B) Mode of reproduction
(C) Mode of locomotion (D) Mode of respiration
5.76
Q.117 Dum-dum fever is caused by

(A) Leishmania donovani (B) Glossina palpalis
(C) Giardia intestinalis (D) Trypanosoma gambiens
Q.118 The relationship between Lophomonas and wood cockroach is of

(A) Parasitism (B) Commensalism (C) Symbiosis (D) Ammensalism
Q.119 Oriental sore disease in man is caused by which one of the following?
(A) Leishmania tropica (B) L. donovani
(C) L. brasiliensis (D) Phlebotomus intermedius
Q.120 Trypanosoma gambiense causes
n
(A) Sleeping sickness (B) Yellow fever (C) Kala-azar (D) Oriental sore
.i
Q.121 The vector of Trypanosoma gambiense is
(A) Sand fly (B) Fruit fly
n al
(C) Tse-Tse fly (D) House fly
ur
Q.122 A sarcodine dysentery is

o
(A) Giardia (B) Entamoeba (C) Amoeba (D) Trypanosoma

uj
Q.123 Silica shells may or may not occur in one of the following
Ed
(A) Amoeboids (B) Heliozoans (C) Radiolarians (D) Foraminiferans
Q.124 Time period from the initial infection to first appearance of symptoms is known as
(A) Pre-patent period (B) Incubation period
(C) Pre-erythrocytic period (D) Exo-erythrocytic period
Q.125 Tetranucleated cyst stage is found in

(A) Entamoeba coli (B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Leishmania (D) Trypanosoma
Q.126 Which of the following organisms is known to form abscesses in human liver, lungs, brain etc.?
(A) Entamoeba histolytica (B) Monocystis
(C) Plasmodium (D) Fasciola hepatica
5.77
Q.127 Which one of the following constitute the reserve food material in the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica?
(A) Volutin granules (B) Starch granules (C) Glycogen granules (D) Fat droplets
Q.128 Slipper animalcule is the name of

(A) Pelomyxa (B) Actinophrys (C) Euglena (D) Paramecium
Q.129 Organelle concerned with offence and defence in Paramecium is

(A) Trichocyst (B) Radial canals (C) Kappa particles (D) Peristome
Q.130 Conjugation in Paramecium is by

(A) Exchange of micronucleus (B) Exchange of macronucleus
(C) Exchange of + and – nuclei (D) Exchange of nuclei
.i n
Q.131 The function of cytopyge in Paramecium is to
(A) Filter food particles
(C) Segregate debris from useful food material
n al
(B) Form the bolus of the food material
(D) Egest the indigestible waste
ur
Q.132 Contractile vacuoles of Paramecium are analogous to

o
(A) Sweat glands of mammals (B) Uriniferous tubules

uj
(C) Gastrovascular cavity of Hydra (D) Typhlosole of Earthworm

Ed
Q.133 Removal of micronucleus in Paramecium will impair the function of

(A) Reproduction (B) Excretion (C) Osmoregulation (D) Locomotion
Q.134 Locomotion in sporozoans occur by

(A) Flagella (B) Cilia (C) Pseudopodia (D) Wriggling movement
Q.135 Aestivo-autumnal fever is due to

(A) Plasmodium malariae (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Plasmodium vivax (D) Plasmodium falciparum
Q.136 In Plasmodium, gametocytes are formed in man, but do not develop fully in the R.B.C. because of
(A) Antibodies present in blood (B) Antigens present in blood
(C) Higher temperature of blood (D) Lower temperature of blood
5.78
Q.137 The poisonous substance released as a result of rupturing of schizont in R.B.C. of malaria patient is
(A) Haematin (B) Haemoglobin (C) Haemozoin (D) Haem
Q.138 In patient suffering from malaria, the cells having schuffner’s granules are
(A) Gametocytes (B) Signet ring trophozoites
(C) Infected eryrhrocytes (D) Infected liver cells
Q.139 Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C. of human beings?

(A) Ronald Ross (B) Mendel (C) Laveran (D) Stephens
Q.140 In malaria, shivering occurs when

(A) Schizonts enter R.B.C.
n
(B) Sporozoites enter hman body
.i
(C) Merozoites are liberated from R.B.C. along with toxin
(D) Signet-ring stage is attained
n al
Q.141 The most important characteristic of phylum porifera is
ur
(A) They are acellular

(B) They possess blind sac type of body plan
o
(C) They possess canal system and choanocytes

uj
(D) They possess water vascular system

Ed
Q.142 Most of the sponges are marine and remain attached to rocks (sessile). The fresh water sponge is
(A) Sycon (B) Spongilla (C) Cliona (D) Euplectella
Q.143 Path of water in a sponge is

(A) Dermal ostia  gastral ostia  osculum
(B) Dermal ostia  gastral ostia  spongocoeal  osculum
(C) Osculum  spongocoel  choanocytes  ostia
(D) Pinacocytes  choanocytes  enteron  osculum
5.79
Q.144 The movement of water in syconoid type of canal system is

(A) Dermal ostia  canal  spongocoel  osculum
(B) Dermal ostia  incurrent canal Prosopyle radial canal Apopyle spongocoel  osculum
(C) Dermal ostia  incurrent canal Prosopyle flagellated chamber Apopyle excurrent canal 
spongocoel  osculum
(D) Pinacocytes  choanocytes  enteron  osculum
Q.145 Which one of the following cells are totipotent and are responsible for regenerative capacity in
sponges?
(A) Pinacocytes (B) Thesocytes (C) Archaeocytes (D) Scleroblast
Q.146 The skeleton of bath sponge, Euspongia, is made of
n
(A) Spongin fibres (B) Siliceous spicules
(C) Calcareous spicules (D) Spongin fibres and siliceous spicules
.i
Q.147 A sponge harmful to oyster industry is
nal
(A) Spongilla (B) Euspongia (C) Hyalonema (D) Cliona
ur
Q.148 Which of the following lives in commensal relationship with Shrimps and is called as ‘Venus Flower
o
Basket’?
uj
(A) Leucosolenia (B) Euplectella (C) Euspongia (D) Sycon

Ed
Q.149 Larva of Leucosolenia is

(A) Parenchymula (B) Amphiblastula (C) Planula (D) Trochophore
Q.150 Mode of digestion in sponges is

(A) Intracellular (B) Intercellular
(C) Intracellular and Intercellular (D) None of these
Q.151 The spongocoel of sponges is homologous to the

(A) True coelom of earthworm (B) Haemocoel of cockroach
(C) Pseudocoelom of Ascaris (D) None of these
5.80
Q.152 In the absence of a closed vascular system, how do sponges manage to distribute the nutritive
substances from choanocytes to rest of the cells?
(A) Through cell to cell diffusion
(B) Through mesoglea which acts as the food reservoir and distribution system
(C) Through the wandering cells, amoebocytes
(D) Through cell to cell diffusion and amoebocytes
Q.153 Hydra and Obelia are

(E) Diploblastic, blind sac body plan, radial symmetry, acoelomate
(F) Diploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
(G) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical and coelomate
(A) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate
n
Q.154 The most important characteristic of phylum Cnidaris is
.i
(A) Cnidoblasts (B) Choanocytes (C) Thesocytes
al (D) Archaeocytes
n
Q.155 Digestion is Hydra is
ur
(A) Extracellular (B) Intracellular
(C) Extracellular and intracellular (D) Holozoic
o
uj
Q.156 Metagenesis is found in

(A) Physalia (Portuguese man of war) (B) Hydra
Ed
(C) Obelia (D) Both (A) and (C)
Q.157 Which of the following statement is incorrect about metagenesis?

(A) Alternation of asexual and sexual phases in the life cycle of Obelia is called metagenesis
(B) Metagenesis is similar to alteration of generations as found in plants
(C) Both the medusa and polyp are diploid
(D) Medusa is the sexual phase and polyp is the asexual phase
Q.158 Jelly fish belongs to class

(A) Hydrozoa (B) Scyphozoa (C) Anthozoa (D) None of these
5.81
Q.159 Sea anemone belong to

(A) Anthozoa (B) Hydrazoa (C) Scyphozoa (D) Coelenterata
Q.160 Which one of the following is coelenterate?

(A) Sea pen (B) Sea horse (C) Sea urchin (D) Sea cucumber
Q.161 Tick mark the incorrect match

(A) Obelia – Planula larva (B) Aurelia – Ephyra larva
(C) Nereis – trochophore (D) Hydra – Hydrula larva
Q.162 The hypnotoxin is produced by

(A) Penetrant (B) Volvent (C) Large glutinant (D) Small glutiant
.i n
Q.163 During discharge of nematocyst the function of lasso is to
(A) Press and squeeze out the thread tube
(B) Trigger the stimulus
n al
(C) Prevent the detachment of nematocyst from nematoblast
ur
(D) None of these

o
Q.164 A piece of Hydra will regenerate into a full Hydra if it contains a part of
uj
(A) Epidermis (B) Epidermis, gastrodermis and interstitial cells

Ed
(C) Basal disc (D) Epidermis, gastrodermis and tentacles
Q.165 Which one of the following (cell types) contains the symbiotic zoochlorellae in Hydra?
(A) Epithelio muscular cells of epidermis (B) Endothelio muscular cells of gastrodermis
(C) Interstitial cells (D) Algae embedded in the mesoglea
Q.166 If the body stalk of Hydra is cut transversely into several segments, then in these fragments, tentacles
would regenerate
(A) At the end that was close to the hypostome
(B) At the end that was close to the basal disc
(C) Randomly at either ends of the cut segments
(D) In none of the segments
5.82
Q.167 Main function of interstitial cells is

(A) Replacement of lost cells (B) Excretion
(C) Digestion (D) Defence
Q.168 Organ pipe coral is

(A) Tubipora (B) Gorgonia (C) Pennatula (D) Meandrina
Q.169 Which animal has been placed in wrong habitat?

(A) Hydra vulgaris – sea water (B) Hydra gangetica – fresh water
(C) Obelia – Sea water (D) Physalia – sea water
Q.170 Which of the following belong to phylum ctenophore?
n
(A) Hormiphora (B) Cestum (C) Beroe (D) All of these
.i
al
Q.171 Which of the following are triploblastic, acoelomate with blind sac type of body plan and parenchyma
cells originating from mesoderm fill up the cavities of the body?
n
(A) Cnidarians (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelids (D) Arthropoda
ur
Q.172 In platyhelminthes, the excretory organs are

o
(A) Nephridia (B) Nephrons (C) Flame cells (D) Archeocytes

uj
Ed
Q.173 Tapeworm is placed in a class

(A) Cestoda (B) Trematoda (C) Sporozoa (D) Turbellaria
Q.174 Which one of the following stages in the life history of liver fluke infects the sheep?
(A) Miracidium (B) Redia (C) Cercaria (D) Metacercaria
Q.175 The correct sequence of various larvae in liver fluke is

(A) Miracidium, sporocyst, cercaria, redia, metacercaria.
(B) Miracidium, sporocyst, redia, cercaria, metacercaria
(C) Sporocyst, redia, miracidium, cercaria, metacercaria
(D) Cercaria, sporocyst, redia, miracidium, metacercaria
5.83
Q.176 Branched uterus containing fertilized capsules can be seen in tapeworm in

(A) Lammture proglottid (B) Mature proglottid
(C) Gravid proglottid (D) Lammediately below neck
Q.177 The mature proglottids having fertilized eggs in uterus of tapeworm are regularly detached. This
process is known as
(A) Apolysis (B) Proliferation (C) Strobilation (D) Topolysis
Q.178 Taenia saginata from Taenia solium in

(A) Absence of scolex hooks
(B) Scolex devoid of hooks and difference in secondary host
(C) Absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female reproductive organs
n
(D) Presence of scolex hooks
.i
Q.179 Fluke occurring in human beings is al
(A) Fasciolopsis (B) Fasciola (C) Dugesia (D) Male Ascaris
n
ur
Q.180 Schistosoma is known as
(A) Blood fluke (B) Chinese liver fluke (C) Dog tapeworm (D) Lung fluke
o
uj
Q.181 Ladder like nervous system, with ventral nerve chord is present in
Ed
(A) Cnidaria (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Arthropoda
Q.182 The larva of Taenia solium is

(A) Cysticerus (B) Megascolex (C) Planula (D) Ephyra
Q.183 Alimentary canal is absent in

(A) Planaria (B) Tapeworm (C) Blood fluke (D) Liver fluke
Q.184 Male Ascaris differs from female in having

(A) Lips (B) Amphids (C) Pineal spicules (D) Tail
Q.185 The epidermis of Ascaris is

(A) Multicellular (B) Syncytical (C) Columnar (D) Cuboidal
5.84
Q.186 A free living roundworm is

(A) Enterobius (B) Rhabditis (C) Dracunuclus (D) Trichinella
Q.187 The commonest worm in children is

(A) Ascaris lumbricoides (B) Enterobius vermicularis
(C) Ancylostoma duodenale (D) Trichinella sprialis
Q.188 Which is the infective stage of Ascaris for man?

(A) First larval stage (B) Second larval stage (Rhaditiform larva)
(C) Encysted egg (D) Adult
Q.189 What name is given to the condition of testis in Ascaris?
n
(A) Monodelphic (B) Didelphic (C) Monorchic (D) Alarchic
.i
Q.190 Filariasis is caused by
(A) Wuchereria (B) Ancylostoma
n al
(C) Trichinella (D) Enterobius
ur
Q.191 Anal itching is caused by

o
(A) Female Ancylostoma (B) Male Ancylostoma

uj
(C) Female Enterobius (D) Male Enterobius

Ed
Q.192 The alternate / intermediate host of Guinea worm is

(A) Fish (B) Dog (C) Cyclop (D) Domesticated animals
Q.193 Blisters are produced on the body due to infection of worm called
(A) Trichinella (B) Dracunculus (C) Wuchereria (D) Echinococcus
Q.194 Leech belongs to the class

(A) Polychaeta (B) Oligochaeta (C) Hirudinea (D) Archiannelida
Q.195 Aphrodite (sea mouse) belongs to glass

(A) Hirudinea (B) Oligochaeta (C) Archiannelida (D) Polychaeta
5.85
Q.196 Parapodia for locomotion are found in one of the following

(A) Earthworm (B) Hirudinaria (C) Nereis (D) Polygordius
Q.197 In earthworm, the function of chloragogen cells is

(A) Excretion (B) Reproduction (C) Digestion (D) Regeneration
Q.198 A temporary clitellum occurs during the breeding season in

(A) Pheretima (B) Heteronereis (C) Hirudinaria (D) Aphrodite
Q.199 The septal and pharyngeal nephridia open into alimentary canal and are of enteronephric type. It is
an adaption for
(A) Conservation of water (osmoregulation) (B) Conservation of heat
n
(C) Regulation of temperature (D) Regulation of amino acids
.i
Q.200 Blood of Pheretima is
(A) Blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles
n al
(B) Blue with haemocyanin in plasma
(C) Red with haemocyanin in corpuscles (D) Red with haemocyanin in plasma
ur
Q.201 Hirudinaria shows locomotion by

o
(A) Looping (B) Swimming (C) Both (1) and (2) (D) Creeping
uj
Ed
Q.202 In earthworm, fertilisation occurs in

(A) Oviduct (B) Spermathecae (C) Clitellum (D) Cocoon
Q.203 One of the following is considered as a connecting link between annelida and arthropoda
(A) Peripatus (B) Limulus (C) Balanoglossus (D) Sphenodon
Q.204 Peripatus breathes by

(A) Skin (B) Gills (C) Trachea (D) Book lung
Q.205 Respiration in mollusca takes place by

(A) Body surface (B) Gills or ctenidia (C) Pulmonary sac (D) All of these
5.86
Q.206 A fold of dorsal body wall which covers the visceral mass in molluscs, is called as
(A) Operculum (B) Mantle (C) Shell (D) None of these
Q.207 The only segmented mollusca is

(A) Neopilina (B) Teredo (C) Nautilus (D) Chiton
Q.208 Which of the following is terrestrial gastropod?

(A) Limax (B) Unio (C) Sepia (D) Octopus
Q.209 Pearls are produced by

(A) Mytilus (B) Doris (C) Pecten (D) Ostrea
n
Q.210 The larva which is characteristic of gastropoda is
.i
(A) Glochidium (B) Auricularia
(C) Trochophore and veliger
n al
(D) None of these
Q.211 Octopus is commonly called

ur
(A) Cuttle fish (B) Devil fish (C) Hag fish (D) Silver fish
o
Q.212 Buccal cavity of gastropods contains a special rasping organ called

uj
(A) Dental plate (B) Tongue (C) Radula (D) Osphradium

Ed
Q.213 When chased by an enemy, a cloud of black ink is emitted by

(A) Nautilus (B) Pila (C) Loligo (D) Patella
Q.214 The colour change in cephalopods occurs due to

(A) Internal secretions (B) Chromatophores (C) Ink sac (D) Mantle
Q.215 Sepia and octopus are marine animals and their swift locomotion in water is effected by
(A) Adhering with the help of suckers to another moving animals
(B) Characteristic undulation of their lateral fins
(C) Lashing movement of their cephalic arms
(D) Expelling water in a jet through siphon
5.87
Q.216 Haemocyanin is a respiratory pigment found in

(A) Echinoderm (B) Annelida (C) Insects (D) Architeuthis
Q.217 The pearls are formed of

(A) Calcium phosphate (B) Calcium carbonate (C) Magnesium trisilicate (D) Calcium sulphate
Q.218 A slightly curved tubular shell open at both the ends is found in
(A) Nautilus (B) Teredo (C) Dentallum (D) Cypraea
Q.219 Respiratory organs of arthropods are

(A) Gills (B) Book gills
(C) Book lungs, tracheal system (D) All of these
.i n
Q.220 Respiratory pigment in insects is
(A) Haemocyanin (B) Haemoglobin
n al
(C) Haemoerythrin (D) None of these
Q.221 Charter common in spider, cockroach and centipede

ur
(A) Compound eyes (B) Book lungs (C) Green glands (D) Jointed legs
o
Q.222 Which of the following is represented by the largest number of species?

uj
(A) Insecta (B) Protozoa (C) Mammalia (D) Aves

Ed
Q.223 The respiratory organs are book lungs in

(A) Arachnida (B) Diplopoda (C) Chilopoda (D) Insecta
Q.224 Glow warm is a

(A) Annelid (B) Helminth (C) Insect (D) Mollusc
Q.225 Which one is not an insect?

(A) Locust (B) Tick (C) Ant (D) Beetle
Q.226 Head and thorax are fused to form cephalothorax in the members of class
(A) Arachnida (B) Diplopoda (C) Chilopoda (D) Insecta
5.88
Q.227 A spider spins the web by means of a secretion of

(A) Abdominal glands (B) Salivary glands (C) Thoracic glands (D) Mouth
Q.228 Class Arachnida is characterised by

(A) A pair each of pedipalpi and chelicerae (B) Four pairs of legs
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Three pairs of legs
Q.229 Diplopods (e.g. millipeda) differ from Chilopods (eg. centipede) in

(A) Occurrence of two pairs of legs on each abdominal segment
(B) Presence of pedipalpi
(C) Presence of chelicerae
(D) Tracheal system of respiration
n
Q.230 Mouth parts of cockroach are of
.i
(A) Cutting type
(C) Siphoning type
n al
(B) Biting and chewing type
(D) Lapping type
ur
Q.231 An insect without mandibles is

(A) Musca (B) Apis (C) Anopheles (D) Blatta
o
uj
Q.232 Which if the following is Holometabolous?

Ed
(A) Silver fish (B) Gypsy moth (C) Bed Bug (D) Grasshopper
Q.233 Tick mark the wrong match

(A) Housefly – Grub (B) Mosquito – Wriggler (C) Beetle – Grub (D) Butterfly – Caterpillar
Q.234 Maggot is
(A) Larva of Anopheles/Culex (B) Pupa of Housefly
(C) Larva of Housefly (D) Larva of Dragonfly
Q.235 Pasteruella pestis (casual agent of Bubonic Plague) is transmitted by

(A) Bed bug (B) Rat flea (C) Louse (D) Mosquito
5.89
Q.236 Which of the following is ametabolous?

(A) Silver fish (B) Gypsy moth (C) Bed Bug (D) Grasshopper
Q.237 Life history of cockroach belongs to

(A) Ametabola (B) Hemimetabola (C) Paurometabola (D) Holometabola
Q.238 An insect without pupa stage is

(A) Mosqiuto (B) Silk moth (C) Bed bug (D) Butterfly
Q.239 Silk thread is obtained from silk moth during

(A) Cocoon stage (B) Larval state (C) Nymph state (D) Adult state
n
Q.240 In housefly, the mouth parts are specialised for
.i
(A) Sponging liquid food (B) Blood sucking (C) Chewing (D) Sucking flower juice
Q.241 Housefly feeds on sugar by

n al
(A) Crushing its crystals and then sucking the powder
ur
(B) Crushing and eating

o
(C) Sucking
uj
(D) Dissolving in saliva and sucking

Ed
Q.242 Metamorphosis of insects is regulated through

(A) Haemolymph (B) Thyroxine (C) Ecdysone (D) All of these
Q.243 Kala-azar and Oriental sore are spread by

(A) Housefly (B) Bed bug (C) Sand fly (D) Fruit fly
Q.244 Yellow fever and dengue haemorrhagic fever is transmitted by

(A) Culex (B) Aedes (C) Anopheles (D) Bed bug
Q.245 Adult Culex and Anopheles can be distinguished with the help of
(A) Mouth parts/ colour (B) Sitting posture (C) Antennae/wings (D) Feeding habits
5.90
Q.246 In which of the following group of animals larvae are bilaterally symmetrical and the adult are radially
symmetrical?
(A) Molluscs (B) Cnidarians (C) Echinoderms (D) Platyhelminthes
Q.247 Which of the following statement is incorrect for echinoderms?

(A) The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water vascular system, which is a part
of the coelom
(B) The main function of water vascular system is locomotion and the capture of food
(C) Echinoderms have no proper excretory system
(D) They have well developed circulatory system
Q.248 Echinoderms are closely related to chordates due to following characters

(A) Tube within tube type of body plan, developed along deuterostomic evolutionary line
n
(B) They have enterocoelom
.i
(C) They have mesodermal endoskeleton
(D) All of these
n al
Q.249 Tick mark the wrong match
ur
(A) Sea lily – Crinoidea (B) Brittle star – Ophiuroidea

o
(C) Sea urchin – Echinoidea (D) Sea cucumber – Asteroidea

uj
Q.250 Which of the following is incorrect match?

Ed
(A) Asterias – Bipinnaria larva (B) Holothuria – Auricularia larva

(C) Antedon – Doliolaria (D) Echinoidea – Trochophore
Q.251 Which of the following is the common ancestral larva of chinoderms, hemichordates and chordates?
(A) Trochophore (B) Dipleura (C) Pluteus (D) Nauplius
Q.252 Aristotle’s lantem (masticatory apparatus) is found in

(A) Sea urchin (B) Asterias (C) Ophiothrix (D) Sea anemone
Q.253 Which phylum includes exclusively marine no parasitic forms of animals?

(A) Porifera (B) Cnidaria (C) Molluscs (D) Echinodems
5.91
Q.254 Feather star is the common name of

(A) Pentaceros (B) Echinus (C) Ophiothrix (D) Antedon
Q.255 Respiration in Asterias is brought about by

(A) Ctenidia (B) Lungs
(C) Respiratory siphons (D) Dermal branchiae and tube feet
Q.256 Sea cucumber belongs to the class

(A) Ophiuroidea (B) Echinoidea (C) Crinoidea (D) Holothuroidea
Q.257 Which of the following is not an echinoderm?

(A) Sea cucumber (B) Sea lemon (C) Sea lily (D) Sea cake
.i n
Q.258 The ability of star fish to break off a part of its body is called
(A) Autogamy (B) Autophagy
n al
(C) Autotomy (D) Autolysis
Q.259 One of the following is believed to be connecting link between non-chordates and chordates
ur
(A) Urochordata (B) Cephalochordata (C) Hemichordata (D) None of these

o
Q.260 Tornaria is the larva of

uj
(A) Balanoglossus (B) Salpa (C) Doliolum (D) Herdmania

Ed
Q.261 Observe the animal pictured below and choose the option which is correct for all
the following questions
(1) Which kind of symmetry does the animal display?
(2) Does this animal have nervous?
(3) How many germ layers does this animal have?
(4) How many openings does this animal’s digestive system have?
1 2 3 4
(A) Bilateral No Two Two
(B) Asymmetrical Yes Two Two
(C) Biradia Yes Two One
(D) Radial No Two Two
5.92
Q.262 The illustration below shows four animals. Use the illustration to answer the question that follows:
What type of respiratory organ and number of antennae do they possess? Choose the correct options:
n
Butterfly Locusta Prawn Scorpion
.i
(A) Tracheal system, one Tracheal system one Book gills, two pairs of Book lungs antennae
pair of antennae. pair of antennae. al antennae. absent.
(B) Tracheal system one Tracheal system one Gills, two pairs of Book lungs antennae
n
pair of antennae. pair of antennae. antennae. absent.
ur
(C) Tracheal system one Tracheal system two Book lungs, two pairs Book gills antennae
pair of antennae. pairs of antennae. of antennae. absent.
o
(D) Tracheal system two Tracheal system one Gills, one pair of Book lungs one pair of
uj
pairs of antennae. pair of antennae. antennae. antennae.

Ed
Q.263 Millipedes and centipedes differ in that millipedes

(A) Are terrestrial and segmented (B) Have one pair of legs on each segment
(C) Have poisonous fangs (D) Are herbivores
Q.264 A Portuguese man of war (Physalia) and a Hydra are similar in that both
(A) Are colonial (B) Contain medusas and polyps
(C) Are hydrozoans (D) Produce planulae
5.93
Q.265 Base your answer to question on the dichotomous key below:

Key of simple animal phyla
(i) Cells are not organised into tissues cells are organised to form tissues Phylum W
90 to 2
(ii) Tissues are not organised into organs. Tissues are organised into organs. Phylum X
90 to 3
(iii) The body does not have a body cavity. The body has a body cavity Phylum Y
90 to 4
(iv) The body cavity is not true coelom. Phylum Z
What is the name of phylum W, X, Y and Z?
W X Y Z
n
(A) Protozoa Cnidaria Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
.i
(B) Coelenterata Ctenophora Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
(C) Porifera Cnidaria
n al Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
(D) Porifera Ctenophora Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes
o ur
uj

Ed
Q.1 Which one of the following animals lack tissue or organ level of organization ?
(Orissa JEE 2007, UPCPMT 2009)
(A) Sponges (B) Nematodes (C) Trematodes (D) Annelids
Q.2 Fresh water sponge is (HP PMT 2007)

(A) Euplectella (B) Spongilla (C) Euspongia (D) Cliona
Q.3 Sponges are mostly (Orissa 2007)

(A) Biradial (B) Bilateral (C) Radial (D) Asymmetrical
Q.4 Flagellated choanacytes is the characteristic of the phylum (HP PMT 2010)
(A) Porifera (B) Cnidaria (C) Ctenophora (D) Platyhelminthes
5.94
Q.5 Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is
correct ? (CBSE PMT Prelims 2010)
(A) Penguin is homoeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
(B) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
(C) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
(D) All are bilaterally symmetrical
Q.6 Which is the only phylum in the kingdom Animalia without any nerve cell ? (AMU 2012)
(A) Porifera (B) Coelentarata (C) Annelida (D) Nematoda
Q.7 Which of the following is concerned with asexual reproduction ? (Chandigarh CET 2012)
(A) Gemmules (B) Gametes (C) Gonads (D) Genitalia
.i n
Q.8 Gemmule formation is a characteristic feature of (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Euglena (B) Hydra (C) Amoeba
n al (D) Water sponges.
ur
Q.9 Ephyra is the larva and a stage in the life cycle of (AFMC 2009)
(A) Sea anemone (B) Obelia (C) Aurelia (D) Physalia
o
uj
Q.10 Find the odd example (Karnataka CEET 2007; UP CPMT 2008)
Ed
(A) Sea lily (B) Sea fan (C) Sea cucumber (D) Sea urchin
Q.11 Absence of circulatory system in Hydra is compensated by (UPCPMT 2007)

(A) Pseudocoelomic fluid (B) Gastrovascular cavity
(C) Presence of tentacles (D) None of these
Q.12 Polyp phase is absent in (UPCPMT 2008)

(A) Hydra (B) Aurelia (C) Physalia (D) Obelia
Q.13 Highest degree of polymorphism is found in (J&K CET 2008)

(A) Protozoa (B) Cnidaria (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Arthropoda
5.95
Q.14 Digestion in Hydra is (AK CET 2008)

(A) Intercellular (B) Intracellular (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
Q.15 “Primitive nervous system” is formed in (UPCPMT 2009)

(A) Sponge (B) Cnidarian (C) Echinodermata (D) Annelida
Q.16 Which of the following animals belongs to phylum Coelenterata? (HP PMT 2011)
(A) Spa horse (B) Sea hare (C) Sea pen (D) Sea cucumber
Q.17 Asexual reproductive structure of Hydra is (HP PMT 2011)

(A) Gemmules (B) Buds (C) Conidia (D) None of the above
n
Q.18 Match the following and choose the correct option. (Kerala PMT 2012)
.i
1. Physalia i Sea anemone al
2. Meandrina ii Brain coral
n
3. Gorgonia iii Sea fan
ur
4. Adamsia iv Portuguese man-of-war

(A) 1 - iii, 2 - ii, 4 - iv (B) 1 - iv, 2 - iii, 3 - ii, 4 - i (C) 1 - iv, 3 - iii, 4 - i
o
(D) 1 - ii, 2 - iii, 4 - iv (E) 1 - i, 2 - ii, 4 - iv

uj
Ed
Q.19 Comb plates are found in (J&K CET 2008)

(A) Adamsia (B) Aurelia (C) Neries (D) Pleurobrachia
Q.20 Bioluminescence is well marked in (AFMC 2009)

(A) Flatworms (B) Ctenophores (C) Cnidarians (D) Aschelminthes
Q.21 Which of the following is not the character of Taenia solium ? (UPCPMT 2007)
(A) Apolysis (B) Proglottid (C) Metamerism (D) Strobila
Q.22 In which of the following organisms, self-fertilisation is seen? (KCET 2007)

(A) Fish (B) Roundworm (C) Earthworm (D) Liver fluke
5.96
Q.23 The intermediate host of Schistosoma is (UP CPMT 2008)

(A) Snail (B) Mosquito (C) Housefly (D) Sheep
Q.24 Fasciola hepatica is (AFMC 2008)

(A) Hermaphrodite, self fertilizing (B) Hermaphrodite, cross fertilising
(C) Unisexual (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.25 Excretory structures of Platyhelminths are (BHU 2008)

(A) Gills (B) Flame cells (C) Nephridia (D) Tracheae
Q.26 Circulatory system is absent in (Chandigarh CET 2010)

(A) Annelids (B) Flatworms (C) Arthropods (D) Cephalopods
n
Q.27 One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as Mouth as well as
.i
anus is (CBSE PMT Prelims 2010)
al
(A) Octopus (B) Asterias (C) Ascidia (D) Fasciola
n
Q.28 Ascaris is characterized by the (CBSE 2008)
ur
(A) presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism

(B) presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
o
(C) presence of true coelom amd metamerism (metamerisation)

uj
(D) absence of true coelom by presence of metamerism

Ed
Q.29 Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic? (CBSE PMT Prelims 2010)
(A) Flat worms (B) Sponges (C) Ctenophores (D) Corals
Q.30 Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
(A) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(B) Molluscs are acoelomates
(C) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(D) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
Q.31 Filarial worm is transmitted by (Chandigarh CET 2012)

(A) Mosquito (B) Tsetse fly (C) Sand fly (D) Kissing bug
5.97
Q.32 An example of animals in which mesoderm exists as scattered pouches between ectoderm and
endoderm is (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Filaria worm (B) Tapeworm (C) Earthworm (D) Lancelet
Q.33 Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possissing it?
(CBSE PMT 2007)
(A) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo - - Chamaeleon
(B) Ventral heart -- Scorpion
(C) Post-anal tail -- Octopus
(D) Ventral central nervous system – Leech
Q.34 Which one of the following is not characteristic of phylum Annelida? (CBSE 2008)
n
(A) Segmentation (B) Pseudocoelom
.i
(C) Ventral nerve cord (D) Closed circulatory system
n al
Q.35 An annelid in which internal fertilization occurs is (EAMCET 2008)
(A) Eunice (B) Neanthes (C) Conglobate (D) Polygordius
o ur
Q.36 Triploblastic, undegmented, acoelomate exhibitint bilateral symmetry and reproducing both asexually
and sexually, with some parasitic forms. The above description is characteristic of the phylum
uj
(CMC Ve/lore 2008)

Ed
(A) Cnidaria (B) Porifera (C) Annelida (D) Ctenophore

(E) Platyhelminthes
Q.37 Which one is incorrect? (Orissa 2008)

(A) Hirudinea - Hirudo (B) Nematode - Ascaris
(C) Polychaeta - Lumbricus (D) Oligochaeta - Pheretima
Q.38 Schizocoelomates and enterocoelomates are (AFMC 2006; JCECE 2008)

(A) Acoelomates (B) Invertebrates
(C) True coelomates (D) Echinoderma only
Q.39 External segmentation is absent but internal segmentation is present in (AMU 2008)
(A) Hirudinea (B) Polychaeta (C) Oligochaeta (D) Archiannelida
5.98
Q.40 Which is not correctly matched? (Pb. PMT 2008)

(A) Annelida - Enterocoelomate (B) Arthropoda - Schizocoelomate
(C) Platyhelminthes - Acoelomate (D) Nemathelminthes - Pseudocoelomate
Q.41 (A) It is fresh water metamerically segmented protostome (EAMCET (AP) 2009)
(1) The clitellum is absent (2) It is unisexual
(3) Its larval form is Trochophore (4) The nervous system is found in the epidermis
Which of the above is true of ‘Paddle worm’?
(A) 1, 2 and 5 (B) 2, 3 and 5 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3, 4 and 5
Q.42 A pair of male genital pores in earthworm are present on the ventro-lateral sides of the
(Chandigarh CET 2009)
.i n
(A) 14th segment (B) 18th segment (C) 10th segment (D) 15th segment
Q.43 Which of the these statements are wrong?

n al (Kerala CEE 2011)
I. Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthopods used for swimming.
ur
II. Radula in molluscs are structures involved in excretion.

Ill. Aschelminthes are dioecious.
o
IV. Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry.

uj
V. Ctenophorans are diploblastic.

Ed
(A) I and II (B) I and III

(C) I, IV and V (D) III and V (E) II, Ill and IV
Q.44 Specialized chemoreceptors located on the anterior part of earthworms are (Kerala PMT 2012)
(A) Heat receptors (B) Photo receptors
(C) Taste receptors (D) Pressure receptors (E) Auditory receptors

Q.45 Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their characteristic
morphological feature? (CBSE 2008)
Animals Morphological feature
5.99
Animals Morphological feature

(A) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin Jointed appendages
(B) Scorpion, Spider Cockroach Ventral solid central nervous system
(C) Cockroach, Locust Taenia Metameric segmentation
(D) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber Bilateral symmetry
Q.46 Name one disease of mulberry silk worm caused by Protozoa an (Nosema bombycis)
(Karnataka 2009)
(A) Pebrine (B) Graseri (C) Flacheri (D) Mascardine
Q.47 In which of these animals antenna gland functions as excretory organ? (Kerala PMT 2008)
(A) Human being (B) Cockroach (C) Planaria (D) Prawn
n
(E) Earthworm
.i
n al
Q.48 A dorsal horn is present on the of mulberry silk worm (caterpillar). (Kamataka CET 2009)
(A) 5th abdominal segment (B) 2nd thoracic segment
ur
(C) Head (D) 8th abdominal segment

o
Q.49 Book lungs are repiratory organs of (AFMC 2009)

uj
(A) Mollusca (B) Mammals (C) Arachnida (D) Earthworm

Ed
Q.50 Worker bees are (UPCPMT 2009)

(A) Sterile females
(B) Fertile females
(C) When queen is absent then act as fertile females
(D) Sterile drones
Q.51 Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature? (CBSE AIPMT 2011)
(A) Insects (B) Birds (C) Angiosperms (D) Fungi
Q.52 Which one of the following species of bees is used for the commercial production of honey?
(AMU 2012)
(A) Apis dorsata (B) Apis indica (C) Apis florea (D) Apis mellifera
5.100
Q.53 In cockroaches, digestive juice is secreted by the (Kerala PMT 2012)

(A) Gizzard (B) Malpighian tubules (C) Hepatic caeca (D) Oesophagus
Q.54 Excretion in prawn is performed by (HP PMT 2012)

(A) Protonephridia (B) Malphigian tubules (C) Mushroom gland (D) Green gland
Q.55 Which group of animals belong to the same phylum? (NEET 2013)
(A) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
(B) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
(C) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
(D) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
n
Q.56 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
.i
(NEET 2013)
al
(A) House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta
(B) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber – Echinoderinaia
n
(C) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – Pisces
ur
(D) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta

o
Q.57 One of the representatives of Phylum Arthro poda is (NEET 2013)

uj
(A) Pufferfish (B) Flying fish (C) Cuttlefish (D) Silverfish

Ed
Q.58 Which of the following•animal belongs to the phylum molluscs? (AMU 2012)
(A) Devil fish (B) Dog fish (C) Silver fish (D) Jelly fish
5.101
Q.59 In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not’ correctly
matched, whereas the remaining three are correct? (CBSE PMT Prelims 2012)
Genus Two characters Phylum
(A) Asterias (I) Spiny skinned Echinodermata
(ii) Water vascular system
(B) Sycon (i) Pore bearing Porifera
(ii) Canal system
(C) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendages Arthropods
(iii) Chitinous exoskeleton
(D) Pila (i) Body segmented Molluscs
(ii) Mouth with Radula
n
Q.60 It can regenerate entire alimentary canal. (Gujarat CET 2007)
.i
(A) Fish (B) Bird (C) Amphibians (D) Sea cucumber
n al
Q.61 Find the odd example. (Karnataka CET 2007)
ur
(A) Sea fan (B) Sea lily (C) Sea urchin (D) Sea cucumber
o
Q.62 The radial symmetry is’ observed in (Kerala PMT 2007)

uj
I. Platyhelminthes II. Coelenterates III. Aschelminthes’

Ed
IV. Annelids V. Echinoderms

The correct statements are
(A) II, Ill and V only (B) I, II, Ill and V only (C) II, Ill and I only
(D) I, III and V only (E) II and V only
Q.63 In which of these following phyla, the adult shows radial symmetry, while the larva shows bilateral
symmetry? (Kerala PMT 2008)
(A) Annelids (B) Arthropods (C) Molluscs
(D) Echinoderms (E) Porifera
Q.64 Water vascular system is characteristic of (Chhatisgarh PMT 2009)

(1) Protozoa (2) Porifera (3) Annelida (4) Echinodermata
5.102
ANSWER KEY
Qbjective Questions
Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 C Q.6 D
Q.7 B Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 C
Q.13 A Q.14 B Q.15 C Q.16 C Q.17 A Q.18 A
Q.19 C Q.20 C Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 B
Q.25 D Q.26 D Q.27 D Q.28 A Q.29 D Q.30 C
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 A Q.34 B Q.35 B Q.36 C
n
Q.37 D Q.38 B Q.39 C Q.40 A Q.41 C Q.42 D
.i
Q.43 C Q.44 D Q.45 C Q.46 B Q.47 A Q.48 C
Q.49 D Q.50 B Q.51 C
n al
Q.52 A Q.53 B Q.54 D
Q.55 D Q.56 A Q.57 D Q.58 C Q.59 D Q.60 C
ur
Q.61 C Q.62 A Q.63 D Q.64 C Q.65 A Q.66 B
Q.67 B Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 B Q.71 D Q.72 D
o
Q.73 D Q.74 D Q.75 A Q.76 B Q.77 D Q.78 B

uj
Q.79 D Q.80 D Q.81 B Q.82 D Q.83 B Q.84 C

Ed
Q.85 C Q.86 A Q.87 B Q.88 B Q.89 A Q.90 C

Q.91 D Q.92 C Q.93 C Q.94 A Q.95 B Q.96 C
Q.97 B Q.98 B Q.99 A Q.100 B Q.101 C Q.102 C
Q.103 C Q.104 C Q.105 A Q.106 C Q.107 D Q.108 C
Q.109 B Q.110 A Q.111 C Q.112 B Q.113 B Q.114 B
Q.115 A Q.116 C Q.117 A Q.118 C Q.119 A Q.120 A
Q.121 C Q.122 B Q.123 B Q.124 B Q.125 B Q.126 A
Q.127 C Q.128 D Q.129 A Q.130 A Q.131 D Q.132 D
Q.133 A Q.134 D Q.135 D Q.136 C Q.137 C Q.138 C
Q.139 C Q.140 C Q.141 C Q.142 B Q.143 B Q.144 B
Q.145 C Q.146 A Q.147 D Q.148 B Q.149 A Q.150 A
5.103
Q.151 D Q.152 D Q.153 A Q.154 A Q.155 C Q.156 D

Q.157 B Q.158 B Q.159 A Q.160 A Q.161 D Q.162 A
Q.163 C Q.164 B Q.165 B Q.166 A Q.167 A Q.168 A
Q.169 A Q.170 D Q.171 B Q.172 C Q.173 A Q.174 D
Q.175 B Q.176 C Q.177 A Q.178 B Q.179 A Q.180 A
Q.181 B Q.182 A Q.183 B Q.184 C Q.185 B Q.186 B
Q.187 B Q.188 B Q.189 C Q.190 A Q.191 C Q.192 C
Q.193 B Q.194 C Q.195 D Q.196 C Q.197 A Q.198 C
Q.199 A Q.200 D Q.201 C Q.202 D Q.203 A Q.204 C
Q.205 D Q.206 B Q.207 A Q.208 A Q.209 D Q.210 C
Q.211 B Q.212 C Q.213 C Q.214 B Q.215 D Q.216 D
n
Q.217 B Q.218 C Q.219 D Q.220 D Q.221 D Q.222 A
.i
Q.223
Q.229
A
A
Q.224
Q.230
C
B
Q.225
Q.231
B
A
n al
Q.226
Q.232
A
B
Q.227
Q.233
A
A
Q.228
Q.234
C
C
Q.235 B Q.236 A Q.237 C Q.238 C Q.239 A Q.240 A
ur
Q.241 D Q.242 C Q.243 C Q.244 B Q.245 B Q.246 C

o
Q.247 D Q.248 D Q.249 D Q.250 D Q.251 B Q.252 A

uj
Q.253 D Q.254 D Q.255 D Q.256 D Q.257 B Q.258 C

Q.259 C Q.260 A Q.261 C Q.262 B Q.263 D Q.264 C
Ed
Q.265 C
5.104

Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 D Q.4 C Q.5 A Q.6 A
Q.7 D Q.8 C Q.9 B Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 C
Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 C Q.18 D
Q.19 B Q.20 C Q.21 D Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 B
Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 A Q.29 A Q.30 A
Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 B Q.34 C Q.35 C Q.36 E
Q.37 C Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 C Q.41 B Q.42 A
Q.43 C Q.44 B Q.45 A Q.46 D Q.47 D Q.48 C
Q.49 A Q.50 D Q.51 C Q.52 D Q.53 A Q.54 A
n
Q.55 D Q.56 A Q.57 D Q.58 D Q.59 A Q.60 D
.i
Q.61 D Q.62 D Q.63 D Q.64 D
nal
o ur
uj
Ed
BIOLOGY
XII STD |VOL.I|Unit 1
.in
al
n
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Animal Kingdom
(Chordates)
o
uj
Ed
6.1
CHAPTER 6
ANIMAL KINGDOM
n
(CHORDATES)
.i
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1. Introduction
Topics Discussed
ur
The organisms are classified in five kingdoms.

Introduction Animal kingdom is the biggest one in terms of class
o
and sub class. Echinodermata and Hemichordata

Phylum Chordata
uj
are studied in previous chapter, now Chordata are

Acraniata or Protochordata discussed in details here. Chordates are largest
Ed
Craniata or Vertebrata existing animals now and are most successful in

terms of ecology in this kingdom. The organisms
show diversity in habitat, physiology, and form.
The name of this phylum is a Greek word.
This chapter is detailed discussion of this phylum
with its class, sub class and super class.
Objectives of this chapter
• Evaluate the phylum class and sub class.
• Locate the mammals in the kingdom
• Realise the extent of diversity in once thought to
be similar animals.
6.2
Animal Kingdom (Chordates)
2. Phylum Chordata
yy Chordate is two words of Greek language as ‘Chorda’ - ‘a thick string’ and the ‘Ata’ - ‘to have’ and thus
chordate animals have notochord.
yy Notochord is the support for the body structure of these animals which is present in the organisms at
all the stage in the life.
.i n
n al
Figure 6.1: Amphioxus structure
ur
yy Animals that lack notochord, are called as non-chordates.

yy According to taxonomists, from the total number of organisms present on earth, 90-95% animals are
o
non-chordates and 3-5% animals are chordates.

uj
yy In chordates, Pisces group includes maximum species while minimum animals is in the Amphibia
group.
Ed
Three Fundamental Characters of Chordates

Chordate animals have some specific characters in life span, called as the fundamental chordate characters.
These are as follows:
(i) Presence of notochord / Chorda dorsalis – Embryonal chordate animals have a solid stick-like structure
(located below the CNS, above alimentary canal), called as the notochord.
yy Notochord is located at the dorsal surface in the body and extends between anterior ends and posterior
ends.
yy Notochord has mesodermal origin and forms a primary endoskeleton supporting the central nervous
system (CNS) and the muscles.
yy Protochordata has notochord throughout the life span. Vertebrata has modified notochord in the form of
back bone or vertebral column, which surrounds spinal cord and cranium around the brain.
6.3
(ii) Presence of dorsal tubular nerve cord

yy Nervous system is present at the dorsal surface of the body in chordate animals.
yy A hollow tubular structure is present just beneath the body wall and just above the notochord.
yy Nerve cord has ectodermal origin (formed from the ectoderm in the embryo).
yy Non-chordates have solid and double nerve cord which is situated at mid ventral side of the body
E.g. in Annelids and Arthropods.
yy Chordates lack Ganglia in the nerve cord.
(iii) Presence of pharyngeal gill – clefts
yy Chordate animal have paired, lateral gill clefts present in the pharynx walls that are used for respiration
throughout life.
yy Chordate animals have pharyngeal gill clefts which are only in the embryonal stages, disappear in
adults.
.i n
yy Aquatic chordates (Pisces) have pharyngea gill clefts that is used for respiration throughout their life
span. al
yy Terrestrial chordates have lungs as the main respiratory organ.
n
(iv) Post anal tail – It is the post anal part of the body. Tail is reduced or absent in many adult chordates. It
ur
is considered as fourth character of chordates.

o
2.1 General Characters of Chordate

uj
yy Aquatic, terrestrial or aerial habitats are common and are free living.
Ed
yy Bilateral symmetry of the organisms.

yy Triploblastic i.e. made from the three germinal layers - ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
yy Arrangement of muscles in embryonic stages and in adults, vertebrae and ribs is due to metamerism.
yy True coelom of enterocoelous type is present. (Deuterostomous animals)
yy Alimentary canal is complete. Digestive system, digestive glands are present which complete the
digestion extracellularly.
yy Heart is located below the alimentary canal at the ventral side of the body, and the blood flows from the
anterior to the posterior side in dorsal blood vessel.
yy Blood vascular system is of the closed type. Respiratory pigment is haemoglobin in the RBCs
yy Hepatic portal system is common among all. Also renal portal system is present in the chordates (not
in birds and mammals).
yy Exoskeleton is highly developed among the vertebrates.
6.4
yy In chordates, endoskeleton is found which is made up of cartilage and bones.

yy Embryonic stages show presence of a muscular tail called as post anal tail which gets reduced later in
some of the chordates E.g. man, apes.
yy Proto, meso and metanephric kidneys constitute the excretory organs.
yy Sexual reproduction is most dominant. Sexes are separate.
yy Metamorphosis or development of embryo is direct i.e. without any larval stage (few exceptions).
yy Chordates may be cold blooded (Poikilothermous) E.g. – Amphibians, Reptiles and fishes or warm
blooded (homeothermous) E.g. Birds and Mammals.
2.2 Classification of Chordata

Phylum chordate has diversity in the cranium, vertebral column and paired appendages. This is the basis
for division into two groups– Acraniata or Protochordata and Craniata or Vertebrata
.i n
3. Acraniata or Protochordata
yy Small, marine animals.
n al
yy Respiration is by gills.
ur
yy Pharyngeal gill clefts are present in embryonic as well as adult stages.
yy Notochord stays throughout the life, and completely lack skull, brain and vertebral column.
o
yy Notochord does not replaces vertebral column.

uj
yy Also they lack exoskeleton, head and paired appendages.

Ed
yy Acrania group is divided into two sub-phylum:

OO Subphylum – 1- Urochordata
OO Subphylum – 2- Cephalochordata
3.1 Sub-Phylum – Urochordata or Tunicate

yy Marine, freely swimming larva while adults remain attached to the rocks.
yy Notochord exists in the tadpole larva tail which reduces during metamorphosis. Chordate characters
exists in the tadpole larva tail, which gives the name Urochordata to this subphylum.
yy Adults have leathery test all over their body which is tunicin made of the tunic (like cellulose) naming
the group as tunicate.
yy Food is taken with the ciliary help.
yy A ciliary glandular slit around the ventral surface of pharynx is called as endostyle. The main work is to
absorb iodine from marine water.
6.5
yy Endostyle is similar to the mammalian thyroid gland.

yy Blood vascular system is of the open type. Heart is at ventral side of
the body. Respiratory pigment is vanadium in the blood stored in the
purple blood corpuscles which is called as vanadocytes.
yy Excretion occurs through supra neural gland, pyloric gland and
nephrocytes.
yy Dorsal tubular nerve cord exists only in larval stage in the nervous
system. Adults when matured the nerve cord gets modified into a
neural ganglion.
yy Sexes are separate in animals (bisexual). Figure 6.2: Structure of
Herdmania
yy External cross fertilisation.
yy A free swimming larval stage, like tadpole of the frog, is present called as tadpole larva.
yy “Retrogressive metamorphosis” is common in animals where a well-developed free swimming larva
n
develops into under developed, fixed adult. The larval stage is more developed than the adults.
.i
yy Only pharyngeal gill clefts (chordate charcter) is found in adults.
E.g. Herdmania – Sea – potato or sea- squirts.
n al
Ascidia
ur
Ciona
Botryllus
o
Pyrosoma – Biolumniscence is found. (Strongest light among marine organism)

uj
Doliolum – Barrel shaped.

Ed
Salpa
Oikopleura – Shows pseudomorphism – A gelatinous sheet envelops the animal. Which has emergency
back door to escapes.
3.2 Sub-Phylum – Cephalochordata

yy Shallow sea water dwellers.
yy Burrows in sand are made in which they grow coming out only in night (nocturnal).
yy Body is laterally compressed like fish, and is segmented.
yy Body is divided into trunk and tail without head.
yy Paired appendages is replaced by unpaired fins.
yy Alimentary canal is complete. Buccal cavity has cover on all four sides of oral
hood. “Wheel organ” or “Ciliated organ of Muller” is present below it. This organ
ingests food after producing circular currents in water. Figure 6.3: Ascidia
6.6
yy Ciliary feeders feeding on the diatoms and microbes.

yy Circulation system is of closed type without heart and respiratory pigment.
yy Hepatic portal system is present for excretion.
yy Protonephredia are present as flame cells or solenocytes. Hatschecks nepheridium (single) helps in
the excretion.
yy Nervous system is in dorsal position, is tubular and hollow nerve cord.
yy Notochord and nerve cord extend from one end to the other end in the body.
yy Fundamental chordate characters persists throughout life.
yy Unisexual animals. External fertilisation.
yy Development is indirect via. Larval stage.
yy Members of this group have developed to be the first complete chordate animals.
n
yy E.g. Branchiostoma or Amphioxus (Lancelet). Also called a typical chordate.
.i
4. Craniata or Vertebrata
n al
yy These animals are known as higher chordates due to the presence of highly developed/ advance
characters.
ur
yy These characters include prominent head, vertebral column, jaws and cranium.
o
yy Only one subphylum – Vertebrata is included in this phylum chordate.

uj
4.1 Sub-Phylum - Vertebrata

Ed
yy In these animals, notochord is completely or partially replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column.
yy Brain is covered by a protective covering. It is made up of bones or cartilage, it is called cranium.
yy There is a prominent head and a well-developed and complicated brain. Nerve cord remains enclosed
within the vertebral column.
6.7
4.1.1 Agatha
yy Group Agnatha is divided into two classes
Ostracodermi
Cyclostomata
Class (A) - Ostracodermi

yy All the members are extinct which belonged to this class. The animals were freshwater fishes which
were the first complete vertebrates.
yy Their body had a protective covering of hard scales.
E.g. – Cephalaspis. (Premitive vertebrate of Ordovician period)
.i n
n al
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Figure 6.4: Structure of Petromyzon (Lamprey)

Ed
Figure 6.5: Myxine (Hag fish) structure

6.8
Try It Yourself
1. Which of the following is not a character of chordates?
(A) Notochord is present
(B) A post-anal metamerically segmented tail
(C) Pharynx perforated by gill slits
(D) Heart is dorsal in position
2. In which of the following animal the notochord is replaced by bony vertebral column in
the adult?
(A) Ascidia (B) Branchiostoma
(C) Petromyzon (D) Labeo
n
3. In the sub-phylum (i) notochord is present only in the larval tail, while in (ii), it extends
.i
from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life. In (iii) class of vertebrata
notochord is replaced by cartilaginous vertebral column and (iv) class of vertebrata
al
the notochord is replaced by bony vertebral column. Select the option is correct for all
n
(i) – (iv) blanks
ur
(A) (i) – Cephalochordata (ii) – Urochordata
(iii) – Agnatha (iv) – Osteichthyes
o
(B) (i) – Protochordata (ii) – Urochordata

uj
(iii) – Agnatha (iv) – Osteichthyes

Ed
(C) (i) – Urochordata (ii) - Cephalochordata

(iii) – Chondrichthyes (iv) – Osteichthyes
(D) (i) - Urochordata (ii) –Cephalochordata
(iii) - Agnatha (iv) –Gnathostomata
4. Pancreas is absent in
(A) Cyclostomata (B) Chondrichthyes
(C) Osteichthyes (D) Gnathostomata
6.9
Class – (B) Cyclostomata

yy The fishes are parasites and scavengers (feeding on plant and animal dead bodies).
yy Jaws were absent in the fishes (flase-fishes).
yy Body is long, thin, and tubular in shape with a flat tail.
yy Skin is soft, smooth and without scales.
yy Mouth is round, sucker-like and capable of biting or eating.
yy Three eyes: on the head, one median pineal eye along with two lateral eyes.
yy Gill clefts range from 6 to 15 pairs.
yy Digestive system lacks stomach.
yy Notochord as well as vertebral column are present. Cartilage forms the basis of vertebral column and
cranium. They lack bones.
n
yy Heart is two chambered, called as venous heart.
.i
yy Protonephric or mesonephric kidneys.
al
yy Paired fins are absent. Instead dorsal median and tail fin is present.
n
yy Protocercal tail with extended notochord at the last end and the tail fin has two equal dorsal and ventral
ur
lobes.
yy Unisexual animal, external fertilization, no larval stage. Larva is present in the development of
o
Petromyzon except Ammocoete.

uj
yy Marine animals, some migrate in fresh water for spawning. After spawning they die within few days.
After metamorphosis larva returns to the ocean.
Ed
E.g.
yy Petromyzon or Lamprey – It is a living fossil. It is an ectoparasite (Sanguivorous) on true fishes. Many
teeth are found in mouth and it shows anadromous migration. Larva Ammocoete is considered as
connecting link between Cephalochordata and Cyclostomata.
yy Myxine or Hag fish- It has wrinkled lips just like an old woman. It usually remain attached with the gills
of host.
6.10
4.2 Gnathostomata
Table 6.1: Difference between Agnatha and Gnathostomata
Agnatha Gnathostomata
yy Lacks Jaws around mouth. yy Jaws circle the Mouth.
yy Notochord is in cartilaginous vertebrae. yy Vertebral column is completely developed.
yy Paired appendages are present (fins or limbs) yy Paired limbs are absent.
yy Only one nostril is present (monorhynous) yy Paired nostrils are present (Dirhynous)
yy Two semi – circular canals are found in internal yy 3 Semi-circular canals are found in internal
ear. ear.
yy Two lateral eyes on head along with one pineal yy Pineal eye is absent and only pair of lenses
eye in middle is present. are present.
n
yy It is classified into two super classes on the basis of locomotory organs, respiratory organs, and heart
.i
and blood vascular system. Super Class – Pisces and Tetrapoda
4.2.1 Super Class – Pisces
n al
yy “Devonian period” is called as the “Golden period of fishes”
ur
yy True fishes constitute this super class.

o
yy Aquatic habitats found both in fresh water or marine water.

uj
yy Body is long, boat shaped, stream lined, with well differentiated head, trunk and tail and without neck.
There are slime glands in the skin.
Ed
yy Body has dermal scales as cover. Exceptions: Cat fish, Torpedo and Wallagonia fish are without scales.
yy Paired fins is used for swimming. E.g. Pectoral and pelvic fins. There are unpaired fins present on the
body E.g. mid dorsal fin and caudal fin.
yy Teeth are Acrodont type.
yy Presence of internal ear (no ossicle or tympanum).
yy Respiration is with gills, which are 4 to 7 pairs which can be naked or have a cover operculum.
yy Unidirectional blood flow with two chambered heart, called as “venous heart”, as it has impure blood,
yy Circulatory system also has sinus venosus, renal and hepatic portal systems.
yy Bones or cartilage make the endoskeleton.
yy Vertebrae in fishes are amphicoelous, which has concave centrum at both the surfaces.
yy One occipital condyle is present in the skull of fishes, thus the skull is called as monocondylar type.
6.11
yy Cranial nerves are in pairs of 10.

yy Body has lateral line receptor system, with many receptor organs to detect vibrations (Rheoreceptor)
and electric field.
yy Kidneys are mesonephric type.
yy Excretion is without urinary bladder.
yy Cartilaginous fishes - urea, marine bony fishes - trimethylamine oxide and fresh water fishes - ammonia.
yy Fishes are unisexual.

yy Fertilisation can be either internal or external. Metamorphosis is direct without larval stage.
yy These are cold blooded or poikilothermic vertebrates (Exception – Tuna fish, Sword fish which they are
endothermic).
yy Small fishes (Bony fishes) are called as Fry or Hatchling.
n
yy Fishes migrate in a particular season.
.i
OO Catadromous migration : from fresh water to marine water, E.g. Anguila
al
OO Anadromous migration : from marine water to fresh water, E.g. Salmon, Sturgeon and Hilsa
n
Knowledge Builder
ur
yy Petromyzon, though marine, goes to fresh water for spawning, i.e., anadromous. After
o
spawing within a few days, they die.

uj
yy Larva Ammocoete is hatched out from the eggs in about 14-21 days. The larval period
may prolong from three to seven years.
Ed
yy Ammocoete is the connecting link between Amphioxus and the cyclostomes.

yy Lingual cartilage in the tongue is also a part of skeleton, that supports it (lingual = related
to tongue.)
yy Typhlosole is a fold of epithelium in the intestine. It prevents the rapid flow of food in the
intestine and increases the absorptive surface area.
yy Super class pisces is classified into three classes – Placodermi, Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes.
Class A – Placodermi
yy Extinct fishes (Fossil fish) are included that were the first fresh water true fishes which lived from
Devonian period to Permian period. Their body had bony plates cover called as “Armoured fishes”
yy E.g. Climatius – First jawed fish, - Dinichthyes
6.12
Knowledge Builder
yy Types of caudal fin
OO Diphycercal or protocercal: Most primitive kind of tail fin. The tail is symmetrical, both
externally and internally as in protocercal, but it is secondary symmetrical.
OO Heterocercal/hypocercal tail: Epicaudal and hypocaudal lobes are of unequal sizes.
OO Homocercal: Identical lobes. Externally symmetrical and internally asymmetrical.
yy Endothermic fishes: Although most fishes are ectothermic, a few species such as blue fish
tuna and swordfish are able to maintain a body temperature higher than the temperature
of the water that surrounds them. Genetic studies of these endotherms have revealed that
the ability to maintain high body temperature gives these fishes an adaptive advantage by
allowing them to hunt in much colder waters than their competitors.
.i n
yy Fish taken out of water dies of suffocation due to the lack of oxygen. This is because the
gill filaments stick together when taken out of water, thereby reducing the surface area.
al
Table 6.2: Examples of Fresh Water and Marine Water Species.
n
Freshwater Species Marine Species
ur
Labeorohita (Rohu) Harrpodon (Bombay duck)

Labeocalbasu (calbasu) Anguilla (Eel)
o
Catla catla (Catla/cat fish) Sardinella (Salmon)

uj
Gyprinus carpio (Carp) Hilsa (Hilsa)

Some air-breathing fishes used their paired fins to move on land and gave rise to the first land
Ed
vertebrates. A living fossil of this group is Latimeria, a lobe-finned fish.
Class B – Chondrichthyes or Elasmobranchi

yy Cartilaginous marine fishes which had cartilage endoskeleton.
yy Notochord is present throughout life.
yy Exoskeleton has placoid scales originated from skin dermis are like denticle. Teeth are in backward
direction modified placoid scales.
yy 5-7 pairs of gills open outside the body through gillslits. Operculum is normally absent in these fishes.
yy Mouth with jaws and teeth are at the ventral surface of head. Jaw suspensorium is of the hyalostylic
type. Jaws are very powerful which makes the animals predaceous.
yy Intestine has a spiral valve or scroll valve to increase surface area for absorption.
yy Cloacal aperture is present in which the genital ducts open.
6.13
yy “Ampulla of Lorenzini” is at the dorsal head which works as thermoreceptor.

yy Liver is bilobed.
yy Tail is heterocercal type.
yy Internal Fertilisation. Male fishes have inner edges of pelvic fins that develop the copulatory organs
“Claspers”.
.i n
Figure 6.6: Structure of Electric ray Torpedo
yy Many of them are Viviparous.
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 6.7: Structure of Pristis (saw fish)

Ed
yy Scoliodon – Dog fish –sense of smell is like a dog. It is also known as Indian shark – viviparous
yy Carcharodon – Great white shark
yy Pristis – Saw – fish
yy Trygon – Sting ray – dorsal fin has poisonous spines.
yy Torpedo- Electric ray –electric organ is a modified muscle that gives a shock of about 100 volts. It lacks
exoskeleton.
yy Sphyrna/zygaena – Hammer headed shark
yy Stegostoma – Tiger Fish/ Zebra shark
yy Rhinobatus – Guitar Fish.
yy Rhineodon – Whale shark – It is the largest true fish. Its length is 13-14 meters.
yy Chimaera – “Rat fish” or “King of herrings” or Ghost fish. Connecting link between bony and cartilaginous
fish. Operculum present. Cartilage fish with operculum is placed under holocephali group.
6.14
Knowledge Builder
yy Stone fish is the most poisonous fish
yy Gambusia fish (larvivorous) was introduced into several tropical regions to control malaria.
yy Catadromous fishes live in fresh water and go down to sea for breeding, E.g., Anguilla
(European eel). When fishes migrate from rivers to sea, it is called catadromous migration.
yy Hilsa is the only Indian fish that migrate from sea to rivers for breeding.
yy Most primitive fish (fossil) is Climatius (placodermi).
yy Anabas (climbing perch). It has accessory respiratory organs for breathing atmospheric air
which enables the fish to take long overland excursions in search of earthworms.
yy Pomfret is the most widely eaten fish in India.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 6.8: Various types of vertebrae in animals

yy Dipnoi has incompletely divided three-chambered heart.
yy Urinary bladder is absent in fishes.
yy Some elasmobranches retain urea in blood to maintain hypertonicity.
yy Ampulla of Lorenzini is a thermoreceptor.
yy Electric organs of electric ray are modified muscles.
yy Bioluminescent fishes: Anamalops, Porichthyes, etc.; sound-producing fishes: Mola,
Batistes.
6.15
Knowledge Builder
yy Poisonous glands are found in sting ray, eagle ray, Chimaera, Diodon, and Tetrodon.
yy Fish byproducts are fish meals and fertilisers; fish flour, fish proteins, fish oil, steaming,
fish glue, leather, artificial pearls, etc.
yy Weberian ossicles were discovered by Waber (1820). These connect air bladder with
internal ear.
yy The commercial name of integument of Scoliodon “shagreen”.
yy Typical trunk vertebrate of fish are amphicoelous, centrum peculiar as is supported by four
wedge-shaped calcified fibrocartilages forming a “Maltese cross” and leaving uncalcified
area.
yy The study of fish is called ichthyology.
n
yy The study of skates, rays, and sharks is called torpedology.
.i
yy Crossopterygians (Rhipidistia, Osteolepis genus) gave rise to amphibia.
yy
n al
Parental care is well developed in Hippocampus.
yy Isinglass is a gelantinous product obtained from the air bladder of certain fishes such as
ur
carps, salmons, cat fishes, etc. It is used for making cements, jellies, and for clarification
of wines and beers.
o
uj
Class C – Osteichthyes or Teleostomi

yy Bony fish found in fresh water as well as marine water.
Ed
yy Endoskeleton is made up of bones, hence the name

“bony -fishes”.
yy Their exoskeleton is made up of scales, which maybe
cycloid or ctenoid or ganoid type. Placoid scales are
absent.
Figure 6.9: Structure of Exocoetus
yy Respiration by 4-pairs of gills. These are covered by
operculum at each side of body.
yy Mouth, jaws with teeth can be terminal or subterminal, Supensorium of jaw is autostylic.
yy Helping respiratory organs “air bladders” are present. Lung fishes respire through air bladders. In other
fishes these air bladders are hydrostatic i.e. help in maintaining balance of body and provide buyoncy.
yy Cloacal aperture is replaced by anus.
yy Liver is trilobbed
6.16
yy Tail is normally homocercal type, rarely diphycercal type.

yy Genital ducts via separate apertures open outside the body.
yy External fertilisation, male fishes lack claspers.
yy Fishes are oviparous however some may be oviparous or viviparous.
Figure 6.11: Structure of
n
Figure 6.10: Structure of Labe Hippocampus
.i
Examples – al
yy Hippocampus – “Sea horse” or “Pregnant male” – It swims in sea water in its vertical position. Abdomen
n
of male fishes is pouch like known as “Brood-pouch” to collect the eggs. Secondary vivipary and
ur
parental care is found in hippocampus.
yy Exocoetus – Flying fish- long dorsal fin that can glide over 400 metres in sea water.
o
yy Labeo – “Rohu” or “Indian carp” – It is a fresh water fish.

uj
yy Clarias – “Cat fish” or Magur (Fresh water)

Ed
Figure 6.12: Diagram of Mystus (Cat fish)

yy Catla – Katla (Fresh water)
yy Betta – Fighting Fish (Aguarium fish)
yy Pterophyllum – Angel fish (Aguarium fish)
6.17
yy Wallagonia – Lachi (scale less)

yy Heteropneustis – Singhi
yy Channa – Lata Fish
yy Lophius – Angler Fish
yy Anabas – Climbing perch.
.i n
al
Figure 6.13: Structure of Anabas testudineus (Climbing perch)
n
yy Sardinella – Salmon
ur
yy Acipensor – Sturgeon – Endoskeleton is cartilaginous

o
yy Anguila – Eel – Snake like, migrate to sea for spawing. Young eel (Ever) migrate back to fresh water.
uj
yy Solea – Flat fish

Harpodon – Bombay Duck
Ed
yy
yy Amia- Bow fish
yy Echeneis (Remora) - Suker fish. Shows commensalism with shark and whales. Dorsal fin modified into
sucker.
yy Mystus – Sanghara
yy Sirrhina – Mrigal
yy Latimeria or coelacanth – Living fossil fish –the oldest living vertebrate that belongs to group
Crossopterygii.
6.18
Figure 6.14: Latimeria structure
yy Chenocephalus – Ice fish – Only vertebrate without haemoglobin.

yy Opsanus – Toad fish
yy Synancejahorrida- Stone fish- the most poisonous fish.
n
yy Gambusia (Top minnow) – Larvivorous fish.
.i
Lung fishes – Fishes of dipnol group are called as “uncle of amphibia” as they have air bladder which help
in respiration. They have:
yy Three chamberd heart.
n al
yy Both external and internal nares (nostrils).
ur
yy Their tail is heterocercal type. Scale is placoid type.

yy These all are freshwater bony fishes.
o
uj
E.g. Protopterus – African lung fish- living fossil fish.

Lepidosiren – South American lung fish. Figure 6.15: Neoceratodus structure
Ed
Neoceratodus – Australian lung fish.
Figure 6.16: Various types of scale on fishes

6.19
Knowledge Builder
Shagreen is dried skin of Cartilaginous fish.
Cod liver oil is rich in Vitamin D, Shark liver oil is rich in Vitamin A
Maltase sugar is found in vertebra of Shark for supporting the vertebrae.
Mermaid’s purse refers to egg capsule of Shark.
Smallest fish Mystichthyes – Goby fish – Pandaka (8-10mm)
Did You Know

Ichthyology: the science that deals with the study of fishes.
n
Pisciculture: the rearing of fishes in different waters: artificial or natural water bodies.
.i
al
Marine Bony fishes: E.g. Exocoetus (Flying fish) and Hippocampus (Sea horse).
Other fresh-water bony fishes: E.g. Cyprinus, Ophiocephalus (Channa), and Anguilla
n
(Eel).
ur
? Gold fish has variety of shapes, size and colours and thus is maintained in aquaria for
decorative purposes.
o
Hippocampus (Sea horse fish) shows sexual dimorphism. Male has a brood pouch to carry
uj
fertilised eggs deposited by female hence it is commonly called as pregnant male.

Ed
Carcharodon (Great white shark): Most aggressive shark with white belly and is commonly
called as man-eating shark.
Protopterus (Lung fish): A connecting link between bony fishes (presence of fins, lateral line
an operculum) and amphibians (has lungs and 3-chambered heart).
4.2.2 Superclass – Tetrapoda

yy Members are aquatic and terrestrial.
yy 2 pairs of pentadactylous limbs are locomotory organs.
yy Embryonic stage have gills while adults have lungs.
yy Heart is three or four chambered with double circulation.
yy Kidneys are either mesonephric or metanephric type.
6.20
yy Middle ear is present even in birds and mammals.

yy Superclass – Tetrapoda is divided into four classes
ο Class [A] – Amphibia
ο Class [B] – Reptilia
ο Class [C] – Aves
ο Class [D] – Mammalia
Class A – Amphibia
yy Devonian Origin and carboniferous period is the phase of amphibians
yy Animals which can live in water and on land are called amphibious animals.
yy The first chordate animals to come out of the water however they found difficulties to live on land
permanently as they required water for their reproduction. Their eggs lack protective covering.
n
yy Body has head and trunk with tail in some.
.i
yy Skin is smooth without scales, if scales are present are embeded in the skin E.g. Ichthyophis.
al
yy Numerous glands in the skin that moisturise the skin.
yy Pigment cells that colour the skin are called as chromatophore. Few amphibians contract and expand
n
which changes the colour of pigment cells. This phenomenon is known as metachrosis.
o ur
A B
uj
Ed
E
D
Figure 6.17: Common Amphibians: A. Salamander, B. Ichthyophis, C. Leopard frog,

D. Tropical tree toad and E. Mudpuppy
6.21
yy Swimming or travelling is with two pairs of limbs. Forelimbs have four fingers and hindlimbs have five
fingers.
yy Their digits do not have nails or claws at all.
yy Mouth is bigger in size with different teeth on upper or both the jaws. Suspensorium of jaws is autostylic.
These are pleurodont, homodont and polyphyodont. (Frog- Acrodont)
yy Digestive system has a well-developed and complete alimentary canal with digestive glands that
secrete enzymes and acids for digestion (Salivary glands are absent in frog).
yy Cloaca have openings of alimentary canal, urinary bladder and genital ducts.
yy Respiration is through gills, skin, lungs and buccopharyngeal cavity.
yy Heart is three chambered into two auricles and one ventricle (arteriovenous). Sinus venosus and
truncus arteriosus is present to give electric currents to it.
yy RBCs are respiratory pigment that are biconvex, oval and nucleated.
n
yy Renal portal system and hepatic portal system are present in the kidneys.
.i
yy Bones are the endoskeleton, however cranium is cartilaginous.
yy al
Skull has two occipital condyles, with which it is connected by first vertebra of vertebral column i.e.
Atlas. This skull is called as the dicondylic skull.
n
yy Ribs are absent, except in some animals where it is not attached to sternum.
ur
yy Vertebrae are procoelus type, where anterior of the centrum is concave while posterior is convex.
yy Middle and internal ear make the ear where middle has ear-ossicle called as columella (stapes).
o
Tympanum is on the surface of ear. Eyelids cover the eyes.

uj
yy Cranial nerves are 10 pairs.

Excretory organ is a pair of kidneys which are mesonephric or opisthonephric type. These animals are
Ed
yy
ureotelic however some tailed animals and larvas are ammoniotellic.
yy Cold blooded or poikilothermal animals.
yy Hibernation or aestivation is a process used by animals to prevent themselves from extreme
temperatures and overcome unfavourable conditions.
yy Unisexual animals where rarely males have copulatory organs. Animals go back in water from land for
their reproduction.
yy External fertilisation inside the water, some animals fertilise internally.
yy These are oviparous, eggs are laid in water.
yy Indirect Development i.e. tadpole larva – In Frog, Axolotle larva – In Salamander
yy This class is divided into three orders.
Gymnophiona or Apoda
Caudate or Urodela
Anura or salientia
6.22
(a) Order – Gymnophiona or Apoda

yy Their body is worm like. These are primitive amphibians burrowing in nature.
yy Their body is limbless.
E.g.
OO Ichthyophis (Caecilian) – Limbless blind worm without tongue.
OO Scales on body.
(b) Order – Caudata or Urodela

yy Body is distinctly divided into head trunk and tail. Tail may have caudal fin.
E.g.
OO Salamandra – It is viviparous. Its larva is called Axolotl larva. It sometimes show neoteny. (Longest
gestation period -36 months)
n
OO Proteus – Cave – salamander (Blind)
.i
OO Ambystoma – Tiger salamander (Axolotl larva)
OO Triton – Newt
n al
OO Necturus – Water dog or mud puppy – Gills in adult also. It shows permanent neoteny.
ur
OO Amphiuma – Congo- eel – Largest RBC is present.
OO Siren – Mud – eel
o
OO Cryptobranches – Hell Bender – Largest Amphibian, Fully aquatic.

uj
(c) Order – Anura or salientia

Ed
yy These are specific animals, where tail is absent in adult stage.

yy All the forgs and toads are included in this order.
yy Vertebral column small, in which only 5-9 vertebrae are found. Last vertebra is stick like urostyle.
yy Eyes with lids, tear glands present. (Lower lid movable and upper immovable).
yy Maxillary teeth are present in the upper jaw (absent in toad).
yy Middle ear and tympanic membrane present.
E.g.
OO Bufo –Common toad (Poision glands are modification of parotid gland.
OO Hyla – Tree – Frog
OO Ranatigrina – Indian bull frog. Mentomechanial bone is found (Tip of the lower jaw).
OO Rhacophorus – Flying frog
OO Alytes – Midwife toad- Parental care is well developed in them. Male toads carry eggs in their
6.23
limbs.
OO Pipa americana – Surinam toad – carries eggs, Secondary vivipary. (Tongue absent)
OO Ranagoliath – Largest frog
OO Phyllobates – Smallest frog (found in Cuba)
OO Discoglossus or Bombinator – Fire bellied toad, Xenopus – African toad.
Knowledge Builder
yy Amphibian (amphibians): first land vertebrates,
OO Evolved from lobe – which have fins and bones,
OO Skin nakes and moist that helps in respiration,
OO Have four limbs, where digits are without claws,
n
OO Sac- like lungs, 3-chambered heart,
.i
OO Undergoes metamorphosis,
yy
al
OO Embryonic membranes are not formed.
Some frogs develop in amazing ways which does not allow their eggs from dying out. The
n
female Surinam toad of South America carries her eggs in the back skin pits/pockets. 60
ur
young ones grow from the tadpole stage still embedded in the back and then emerge as
small frogs.
o
yy External ears are absent, only tympanum present. Frogs have a tympanic membrane on
uj
the surface of both sides of their head. The tympanic membrane of a human are called
eardrums and each is protected inside ear canal.
Ed
yy Word roots and origins

OO Caudata: From Latin, Caudata meaning “tail”.
OO Nictitating: From Latin, nictate meaning to “wink”.
yy Seymouria is a connecting link between amphibia and reptiles.

yy Paedogenesis: Development of gonads and/or production of young ones by immature or
larval forms, E.g., salamander (Ambyostoma).
yy Total neoteny is shown by Necturus, Siren, and Proteus.
yy Toads are used in Chinese medicines. The skin of toad secretes a substance that increases
the blood pressure when injected into humans.
yy The skin of tadpole also secretes an enzyme, diastase.
6.24
Knowledge Builder
yy The upper jaw of frog is derived from quadrate cartilage, whereas the lower jaw is derived
from meckel’s cartilage.
yy First toe is called as hallux.
yy Jaw suspension is autostylic; urostyle is the last component of vertebral column.
yy The shape of second to seventh vertebrae is procoelocus (typical); eighth vertebra:
amphicoelous; ninth vertebra: acoelous.
yy Amphiuma has the largest RBCs among vertebrates.
yy At the time of metamorphosis, tadpole does not feed.
yy Blind worms (limbless amphibians) are unusual amphibians as only one species lives in
water. All the other burrow underground and are rarely seen on the surface. Many do not
n
even need water to breed.
.i
yy Carboniferous period is known as the age of amphibians.
yy
n al
Arrow poison frogs secrete a powerful poison from the skin which can cause instant death.
yy The most poisonous frog-Golden dart poison frog-is from South America. One adult frog
ur
contains enough poison to kill 200 people.
o
uj
Try It Yourself
Ed
1. In which of the following fish the skin is tough containing minute placoid scales?
(A) Exocoetus (B) Hippocampus (C) Scoliodon (D) Labeo
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic features of cartilaginous fish?
(A) Internal fertilisation
(B) Viviparous
(C) Pelvic fins males bear claspers
(D) Gills are covered by an operculum on each side
3. A teleost fish can be differentiated externally from an elasmobranch by
(A) Endoskeleton (B) Exoskeleton
(C) Operculum (D) Stream line body
6.25
Try It Yourself
4. Body fishes can stay at a particular depth in water without beating their pectoral and
pelvic fins due to the presence of
(A) Pneumatic bones
(B) Lateral line sense organs (Neuromast organs)
(C) Air bladder
(D) Streamlined body
5. Which of the following is mismatching?
(A) Torpedo : Electric organs, modified muscles supplied with nerves
(B) Trygon: Dorsal fin is modified into a poison string
n
(C) Exocoetus : Pectoral fin becomes large by which it can leap into air
.i
(D) Hippocampus : Female bears a brood pouch
al
6. Ampulla of Lorenzini in Scoliodon act as
n
(A) Neuromast organs (B) Thermoreceptors
ur
(C) Electric organs (D) Rheoreceptors

o
uj
Class B − Reptilia
Ed
yy Mesozoic era is the Golden age of Reptile.

yy The branch of biology which deals with the study of reptiles is known as “Herpetology”.
yy Class reptilla’s animals are the first successful terrestrial animals.
yy First reptiles are called Stem reptiles or Cotylosaurs.
yy Class name refer to creeping or crawling mode of Locomotion.
General Characters
yy There are, mostly, terrestrial animals, but some animals are aquatic in nature also.
yy Body is divided into head, neck, trunk and tail.
yy Their skin is dry, cornified, rough, non-glandular (femoral gland in male lizard). Snakes and Lizard shed
their scales as skin cast.
yy In these animals, each limb has five digits. Each digit has incurved nails.
6.26
yy Their exoskeleton is made up of horny epidermal scales or bony scutes or bony plates.
yy A complete alimentary canal is found in these animals, which opens into cloaca.
yy Teeth are homodont, polyphyodont and mostly pleurodant.
yy Respiration in these animals is by lungs, throughout the life.
yy In these animals, heart is incompletely four chambered (NCERT-3 chambered) but it is four chambered
in Crocodiles. Right and left both systemic arches are present.
yy Sinus venosus is ill developed and trunkus arterious is absent.
yy Skull is monocondylic (one condyl).
yy Ribs are present in neck and thorax Ribs of thoracic region make true sternum.
yy Centrum of vertebrae are procoelous type.
yy A chevron bone is found in caudal vertebrae of these animals.
n
yy They do not have external ear opening. Tympanum represents the ear.
.i
yy One pair of metanephric kidneys help in excretion.
yy
n al
These animals are uricotelic for water conservation.
yy There are 12- pairs of cranial nerves in these animals.
ur
yy At the roof/ceiling of buccal cavity Jacobson’s organ (olfactory) is present.

Genital aperture is not separate from anus. Ureters, genital ducts and alimentary canal open into a
o
yy
single cloacal aperture.
uj
yy These are unisexual animals. Fertilization is internal.

Ed
yy One or two penis (Hemipenis) is found in male animals as copulatory organ

yy These are mostly oviparous, but some animals are viviparous also.
yy Eggs are Megalecitheat (with large amount of yolk) and cleidoic, i.e. eggs are covered by a shell made
up of CaCO3
yy leidoic eggs is an adaptation for terrestrial habitat. Eggs are leathery.
yy Embryonic membranes like amnion, chorion, allantois and yolk sac are present in the embryo. So this
class is grouped under Amniota group. (Fishes and amphibians were anamniotes)
yy Development direct i.e. larva stage is absent.
yy Parental care is often marked.
yy These are Cold blooded, Poikilothermal animals. Their body temperature varies according to climate.
yy Class Reptilia is classified on the basis of presence or absence of temporal fossae in the temporal
region of skull and on their number.
6.27
(i) Subclass – Anapsida

yy Temporal fossae are absent in the temporal region of the skull i.e. roof of skull is complete.
yy Limbs are strong.
(a) Order – Cotylosauria

E.g. Seymouria: Connecting link between Amphibia and Reptilia (Extincted).
(b) Order – Chelonia
yy Body is broad and oval.
yy They are terrestrial, marine and fresh water animals.
yy Whole body is covered by firm bony shell. Exoskeleton of dorsal region of body is called carapace and
skeleton of ventral region of body is called plastron.
n
yy Jaws are horny and teeth less, beak like jaws are found.
.i
yy Scales are found on neck, limbs and tail.
al
yy All these three organs can be pushed into the carapace.
n
yy Thoracic vertebrae and ribs are attached with carapace.
ur
yy Cloacal aperture is vertical and it helps in respiration.

E.g.
o
yy Testudo – Land tortoise

uj
yy Trionyx – Fresh water (Terrapins (Edible))

Ed
yy Chelone – Marine tortoises (Turtles)

yy Kachhugatactum
Figure 6.18: Image of A. Tortoise and B. Turtle

6.28
Did You Know

yy Snakes and some lizards lack the secondary limbs.
yy Reptile and birds, cloaca is three chambered that is for conservation of water.
yy Aquatic reptiles E.g., Turtles are ureotelic in excretion.
yy Tortoise when disturbed withdraws all the body parts in a tortoise shell.
Tortoise is the symbol of long life span (200 years).
?
yy
yy Crocodile is the largest amphibious reptile. It has certain mammalian characters.
yy Eudynamis (Koel): commonly called as Indian Nightingale.
yy Tyto (Owl) is nocturnal bird of prey. It has keenest eyesight at night and has
binocular vision. It is important in biological control of rats in the fields.
yy In hedgehog, hair of dorsal side of trunk are modified into spines for defence.
n
yy Insectivores are simplest true placental mammals.
.i
(ii) Sub – Class – Diapsida
n al
yy One pair superior and one pair inferior temporal fossae are found in the temporal region of skull.
ur
(a) Order – Rhynchocephalia

yy Most of the species are extinct and found as fossils. Long living with 100 years of age possible.
o
yy Only Sphenodonpunctatum species is alive in New Zealand.

uj
yy A functional third eye or pineal eye is present in the head region.

Ed
yy Teeth are of the acrodont type.

E.g. Sphenodonpunctatum – Tuatara (living fossil) it is found only in New Zealand.
(b) Order – Squamation
yy Limbs if present are clawed, snakes and some lizards lack limbs.
yy Skin has horny scales.
yy Copulatory organs are paired in males (Hemipenis).
A B C D
Figure 6.19: Reptiles: A. Chameleon B. Crocodiles C. Chelone D. Naja
6.29
Suborder Lacertilian
yy Members are “Lizards”
yy The science that deals with the Study of lizards is called “Saurology”
yy Limbs and girdles are well developed.
yy Eyelids are movable with nictitating membrane in the eye.
yy Auditory aperture or auditory opening (ears) and tympanum is present.
yy Urinary bladder is present.
yy Foramen of Piazza is present in the heart of lizard.
yy Pair of lungs are equally well-developed.
E.g.
yy Hemidactylus – Common lizard, wall lizard. It can shed its own tail at the time of emergency. It is called
n
autotomy. Power of regeneration is well marked.
.i
yy Calotes – Blood sucker, Garden lizard (Girgit). It can change its colour according to environment.
al
yy Draco – Flying lizard. Its body skin expands in the form of 2 wings or patagia. With the help of these
n
patagia, it can glide from one tree to another tree or its branches. It cannot fly.
ur
yy Chameleon – Arborial lizard (Viviparous) (Girgit)
yy Varanus – Goh, Monitor lizard. Varanus komodoensis – Ferocious Dragon – Largest living lizard.
o
yy Ophiosaurus – It is limbless lizard. It is also called glass – snake.

uj
yy Burkudia – limbless lizard found in south India.

Ed
yy Heloderma – Gila- monster, Hela monster. It is the only poisonous lizard. Its poison glands are modified
sublingual glands.
yy Mobuya – Viviparous lizard.
yy Phrynosoma – Horned toad (viviparous)
yy Uromastix – Sand lizard or Sanda
Knowledge Builder
Architeuthis (the giant Atlantic squid) is the largest and heaviest animal in all the inverte-
brates, with 55 feet long body.
Nautilus is the only Cephalopod that has external shell and no ink glands.
The colour change in Cephalopods occurs due to chromatophores.
6.30
Suborder Ophidia
yy Members of this suborder are normally called “Snakes”.
yy The study of snakes is called ophiology or serpentology.
yy Body long, thin, smooth and limbeless.
yy Eyelids are immovable and nictitating membrane in eyes are absent.
yy Girdles, sternum and urinary bladder absent.
yy Auditory opening and tympanum absent. No middle ear.
yy Tongue thin, long and bifid and sensitive to odour and vibration.
yy Left lung is ill developed.
yy Leathery shell is found on egg of Snakes.
n
Non-Poisonous Snakes
.i
yy Python mourus – Azgar. It is the largest snake, its length is about 25 feet. Rudiments of hind limbs are
found on the body. al
yy Ptyas mucosus, Zamenis mucosus or Rat snake. It is commonly called Dhaman. It feeds on rats, so it
n
is also called “Friend of farmers”.
ur
yy Eryx johni – Sand boa. It is also called Dumuhi snake.

o
yy Typhlops – Blind snake.

uj
Poisonous Snakes
Ed
yy Hydrophis – Marine. Deadly poisonous. Tail is laterally compressed. It is viviparous.

yy Naja – Indian corbra. Poisonous snake. Its poison is neurotoxic.
yy Naja bungarus or N. hannah – King cobra, poisonous snake. It is the largest snake among poisonous
snakes (Head with one or two circular mark).
yy Bangarus – Krait : Poisonous (neurotoxic) snake
yy Vipera – Viper snake: Head is differentiated from body. Poisonous snake (viviparous). Its venom
is haemotoxic / Cardiotoxic. Loreal pit is found is a thermoreceptor. Largest viper is Russel viper
(V mark on head).
yy Micrurus – Coral snake.
yy Crotalus – Rattle snake: It produces a characteristic rattling sound of “Rate – rate - rate”, so it is called
snake. It is poisonous and ovoviviparous snake.
6.31
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 6.20: Differences among tail and head of poisonous and non-poisonous snakes
Characteristic features of poisonous snakes

yy Hood or head have small scales.
yy Marine snakes have laterally compressed tail.
yy Ventral scales present in the body are broad.
6.32
yy Two teeth marks the snake to be poisonous. (V-shaped – Non-poisonous)

yy Poisonous snakes have poison glands which are modified labial glands. Probably these glands are
homologous to parotid salivary glands of mammals.
yy Poisonous teeth (fangs) are modified maxillary teeth.
yy Antivenom dose treats the poisonous snake bite. Antivenom is produced in India at Central Research
Institute Kausalya – Shimla and Offline Institute, Mumbai.
yy Biggest serpentorium is located in India in Chennai.
Knowledge Builder
Snake Charming
yy Contrary to general belief, the snake charmer’s cobra does not dance the tune of the flute.
n
yy Rather it follows the movement of the tip of the flute and the swaying body of its master,
.i
who really moves with the rhythm of the music.
al
yy Raising its head and spreading its blood, the cobra gets ready to strike the moving flute
tip. The charmer knows the striking distance and adjusts himself so that the snake orients
n
towards the waving flute but keeps beyond the strike distance.
ur
Rattle Snake Muscles

o
yy Rattle snakes have the quickest moving skeletal muscles in the animal world.
uj
yy Their tail muscle allows them to shake their rattle 90 times each second.
yy Most muscles would quickly tire from this kind of energetic activity, but the rattle snake can
Ed
shake its tail for long periods of time.

yy The muscle’s ability to use ATP in an efficient manner allows it to sustain a high level of
activity.
(c) Order – Crocodilia or Loricata

yy Crocodiles, alligator etc. are common examples of the order.
yy Amphibious animals that live in lakes or rivers and on land.
yy Largest modern reptiles.
yy Bony scutes are covering the skin.
yy Body is solid with massive long snout with external nares are situated at the distal end of snout and
nares have cover also.
yy Urinary bladder is absent.
6.33
yy Special features are –

OO Heart is four chambered, where ventricle has two chambers and auricle has two chambers.
OO Teeth are of the thecodont type.
OO Diaphragm is present.
E.g.
OO Crocodilus / Crocodilus (Crocodile) – It is only found in Indian subcontinent.
OO Gavialis – Gharial. Snouth very long.
OO Alligator – Maxican crocodile.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 6.21: Differences among mouth of A. Crocodile, B. Alligator and C. Gavalis
o
(d) Order – Saurischia

uj
yy Dinosours were the most dangerous or terrible lizards (Fossils).

yy Origin of Dinosours began in the Triassic period and they got extinct in Cretaceous period in the
Ed
Mesozoic era.
E.g.
Brontosaurus – Thunder lizard. Largest Dinosaurs (Herbivorous)
Stegosaurus
Tyrannosaurus – Tyrant lizard. King of Dinosours.
6.34
Knowledge Builder
yy Reptilian (reptiles): Dry scaled waterproof skin,
yy Digits of all the four limbs have the claws,
yy Well-developed lungs for respiration,
yy Incomplete 4-chambered heart is common,
yy Males have copulatory organs,
yy Eggs have amniotic fluid and are laid on the land,
yy Fertilisation is internal without the larval stage.
Class C – Aves
n
yy End of Jurassic period in the Mesozoic era was a start for the birds along with the modernisation in
.i
cretaceous factor.
al
yy The science which has study of birds is termed as “Ornithology”
n
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 6.22: Shape of Furcula

yy Dr. Salim Ali was the great ornithologist of India and thus called as “Birdman of India”
yy Study of eggs laid by bird are known as Oology.
yy Study of the nest that bird builds is known as Nidology.
yy Huxley called birds as glorified reptiles.
yy Birds have wings arranged on the body which is known as Pterylosis.
Main Characters –
yy This class accommodates all the types of birds.
yy Body has shape similar to a boat which has head, neck, trunk and tail. Neck is long and flexible to lift
and move the mouth or beak for food.
6.35
y Soft feathers (derivative of stratum corneum) cover the body of all the birds, called as “plumage”
y Birds are warm blooded or homeothermic or endothermic animals.
.i n
n al
Figure 6.23: Various types of beaks in birds
ur
y Hind limbs have scales.

o
y Skin is dry as it lacks glands that secrete oil and softens it. However oil glands or preen glands are
present on the base of tail or uropygium.
uj
y Birds are feathered bipeds. Exoskeleton is the soft feathery covering all over the body (except on the
Ed
hind limbs).
y Forelimbs (have three digits) are developed into wings, which are used in flying and in conserving the
heat. Four claws have digits are found on hind limbs. The limbs are best suited so that the bird can sit
on branches of trees, perch, walk on land, or swim in water.
y Crop, an oesophagus modification that quickly ingests and stores food and gizzard crush the food
which is then swallowed unmastigated. Pigeon milk is produced and secreted from males and females
(Crop product). Gall bladder is absent.
y Cloaca is three chambered.
y Jaws lack teeth and are modified into horny beak. Beak has an epidermal horny sheath, which is called
as Ramphotheca.
6.36
.i n
n al
o ur
Figure 6.24: Various types of claws in birds

uj
y Respiration is through spongy lungs which have air sacs. Air sac is connected to the lungs for
Ed
supplement respiration.
y Sound producing (vocal) organ is at the junction of trachea and bronchi of birds called as syrinx.
y Heart is four chambered, which has only right aortic arch.
y Hepatic portal system is well developed in birds, but renal portal system is ill developed. Sinus venosus
is absent.
y Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony). Long bones are hollow, in which air is filled having air cavity these
bones are called pneumatic bones. These make the body light in weight and help in flying.
y Skull has a single occipital condyl.
y Centrum of the vertebra is heterocoelous.
y Some vertebrae of the posterior body join together to form synsacrum.
y Last 4 or 5 caudal vertebrae are fused together to form pygostyle.
6.37
y Sternum is large which has a swollen basal part called as “Keel”. This keel creates a joint plane for the
flight muscles present in the flying birds.
y Ribs of birds are bifid with uncinate processes.
y Exoskeleton is in the form of soft feathers all over the body (except hind limbs)
y Pectoral girdle has foramen of triosseus.
y Two bones: clavicle and interclavicle are fused to form a V – shaped furcula or wish bone or merry
thought bone. It acts as a spring between the two girdles.
y Kidneys are metanephric (Trilobbed). Ureters are connected to the cloaca.
y Aves are always uricotelic (uric acid producing).
y Uric acid is a semisolid substance. Excreta of marine birds is known as guano.
y Most of the birds do not have urinary bladder and copulatory organ.
n
y Brain is large, smooth, highly developed. Cerebellum is well developed for aerial mode of life.
.i
y Cranial nerves are 12- pairs.
y
n al
The skin around the nostrils is sensory in birds that is called “Cere”.
y Eyes are large and well developed which are surrounded by rings made up of bony plates known as
Sclerotic ossicles.
ur
y Eyes are large and nictitating membrane is present in eye. Vision is monocular.
o
y A specific comb like structure pecten is found in the eyes of all birds except kiwi’s eyes. Pecten helps in
uj
accommodation of eye and provides nutrition to eye balls. It also controls the pressure of liquid present
in eye. Acute vision and telescopic vision of birds is due to pecten.
Ed
y External ears are preent but ear pinnae are absent. Columella bone (Stapes) (one ossicle) is found in
middle ear. Cochlea (not coiled) is present in internal ear.
y Olfactory organs are less- developed.
y Birds are monodelphic i.e. only left ovary and left oviduct is functional in females. Birds are oviparous
vertebrates.
y Birds are unisexual. Sexual dimorphism is well marked. Copulatory organ usually absent in males.
y Fertilisation is internal.
y They are egg lying i.e. oviparous.
y Eggs are large, megalecithal and cleidoic. Shell is perforated.
y Embryonic development is direct. Embryonic membranes are present, so birds are included under
group amniota.
6.38
y All the birds form nests. Parental care is well marked.
A B C D
Figure 6.25: Aves: A. Neophron, B. Struthio, C. Psittacula and D. Pavo
.i n
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
n al
Table 6.3: List of flightless birds
ur
Common Name Genus Distribution

African ostrich Struthio Africa and Arabia
o
South American ostrich Rhea South America

uj
Cassowary Casuarius Australia and New Guinea

Ed
Emu Dromaius Australia

Tinamou Tinamus South America
Kiwi Apteryx New Zealand
6.39
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 6.4: Difference between Super orders Ratite and Carinatae
Super order III Super order IV

Character
(Palaeognathae or Ratitae) (Neognathae or Carinatae)
Restricted, discontinuous. Not Cosmopolitan, found all over
Distribution
found in India the world
Arboreal, terrestrial, or
Habitat Terrestrial
aquatic
Locomotion Flightless running birds Flying birds
Wings Vestigial or absent Well developed
Legs Large cursorial Variously adapted
n
Without interlocking Barbs interlocked due to
.i
Feathers
mechanism, brab-free brabules and barbicels
Downfeathers Absent
n al Present
Horny sheath of break
Divided in several pieces Undivided
or marnphotheca
ur
Oil gland Usually absent Present

o
Plat, raft-like due to vestigial Well-developed mid-ventral

Sternum
or no keel keel
uj
Both clavicles and

Ed
Clavicles Small or absent, no furcula interclavicle fused to form a

V-shaped furcula
Pectoral muscles Poorly developed Well developed
Syrinx Usually absent Present
Air sacs Poorly developed Well developed
Thick and hard shell. Pore Shell thin, fragile; pore canal
Eggs
canal branched unbranched
Corvus (crow), Columba
Struthio (ostrich), Aptenodytes (pigeon), Psittacula (parrot),
Examples
(penguin) Pavo (peacock), Neophron
(vulture)
6.40
.i n
A B C D E F
al
Figure 6.26: Different types of feathers: A. and B. Quill, C. Contour, D. Filoplume,
E. Down, F. Rictal bristle
n
ur
Class Aves is divided into 2 subclasses –
Subclass (a) Archaeornithes and Subclass (b) Neornithes.
o
(i) Subclass – Archaeornithes

uj
y Primitive “Lizard like birds”, which belong to Jurassic period. All the members have become extinct.
Ed
y Wings are ill developed, i.e. capacity of flying was very less.
y Pygostyle and keel in sternum were absent.
y 3-3 clawed digits in the forelimb were at the free edges of wings.
y Lacked uncinate processes on ribs.
y Teeth are attached to the jaws of the skull.
y Subclass is the connecting link between the reptiles and the birds.
E.g.
y Archaeopteryz – Lizard bird. (Extinct in Cretaceous period) Its fossil was discovered by Andrea Wagner
in 1861 from Bavaria (Germany).
y Archaeornis
6.41
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Largest bird: Struthiocamelus – 8 feet height, 300 lbs weight.
y Smallest bird: Mellisuga helenae – 5.5 cm long.
y Smallest egg of bird: Mellisuga (humming bird)
y The humming bird is the only bird which can fly backward as well as forward.
y Largest egg of bird: Struthio – 1.5- L capacity.
y Largest sea bird: Diomedea epomorphora (royal albatross); wing stretch 200 – 375 cm.
y Deepest diver bird: Aptenody testorsteri (emperor penguin)
y Fastest swimmer bird: Pygoscelis papua (penguin)
y Fastest runner bird: Struthio – 60 km/h speed.
n
y Heaviest bird of prey: Vulture gryphus.
.i
y Fastest flying bird: Swift – rarely touches the earth.
y
n al
Second largest bird is Emu (Dromaeus) as is the most primitive living bird.
y Recently extinct bird is Dodo (passenger birds) of Mauritius.
ur
y The incubation period of a hen’s egg at 102° F (38.8° C) is 21 days.

y Though polygamy is common in birds, emu is strictly monogamous.
o
y Penguins are flightless birds found in Antarctica; wings are paddle-like; act as flippers
uj
during swimming; and are covered by scale-like feathers.

Ed
y T.H. Huxley said “birds are glorified reptiles”. The feathers are highly modified reptilian
scales. Birds have scales on their legs. Their eggs resemble reptilian eggs in general but
have a calcareous shell.
y Among the Indian birds, the smallest are sun birds.
y The bursa fabrici is a blind sac which has much lymphoid tissue in the cloaca of some
young birds. It produces lymphocytes (a type of white blood corpuscles). It is also called
“cloacal thymus”.
y Columbia has the world’s richest diversity of birds.
y Uropygium (tail): The projecting terminal portion of a bird’s from which the tail feathers
arise.
y Swifts use saliva for binding nest materials.
y Kiwi lays the largest egg in proportion to its own size.
6.42
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Himalayan bearded vulture is the largest Indian bird. Previously, the Sarus was considered
the largest Indian bird.
y Ostrich has the largest eyes of any land animal.
y Kiwi is the only bird known to use the sense of smell for finding food on the ground.
y Indonesia has the most bird species facing extinction.
y Red-billed Quelea (Quelea quelea) of Africa are the most abundant birds. Previously, the
house sparrow was considered the most abundant species of birds.
y Jatinga is a village in Assam where a mass suicide of birds occurs.
y The owl rotates its head through an angle of 270° as its eyes do not rotate in their sockets.
Each eye is fixed like a car headlight.
n
y Copulatory organ (true penis) is present in ostrich duck, swan, and gose.
.i
y Dr Salim Ali is a famous Indian ornithologist.
y
n al
The national bird of India is Pavo cristatus (peacock).
ur
(ii) Sub Class – Neornithes

y Live animals and extinct animals that were present after the Jurassic period.
o
y Birds fly with the wings that are well developed (except in some birds)
uj
y Last few vertebrae in the birds fuse to form pygostyle.

Ed
y Sternum is bigger and also has keel.

y Thoracic ribs end up in the uncinate processes.
y Lack teeth except some species (extinct ones).
This subclass is classified under four superorders.
Super order – Odontognathae
y These are extinct animals that had teeth.
y Lack pygostyle and keel in the sternum.
E.g. - Hesperornis
Super order – Impennae
y Aquatic birds which have modified fore limbs into flippers.
y Limbs are webbed.
6.43
y Teeth are absent.

y Sternum is without keel.
E.g.
y - Spheniscus – Penguin – It is also called “sea bird of Antarctica”
y - Aptenodytes – Penguin
Super order – Palaeognathae or Ratitae
y Large massive birds lack the flight ability in nature, however running ability is enhanced.
y Wings as are not used are usually reduced, rudimentary, can be either vestigial or absent.
y Caudal vertebrae are free and lacks pygostyle.
y Sternum does not have a keel and is similar to raft.
y The ribs are without uncinate processes.
n
y Lack the oil glands or preen glands.
.i
y Sound producing organ syrinx is absent.
y Usually urinary bladder and penis are present.
E.g.
n al
y Struthio – African ostrich or Camel-bird – It is the largest living bird of modern period. It is almost 8 feet
ur
in height. Polygamous, male incubate the eggs (Largest egg).

o
y Rhea – American ostrich

uj
y Apteryx – Kiwi – It is National bird of New Zealand. It has hair like feathers all over its body. It is smallest
flightless bird.
Ed
y Dromaeus – Emu – It is a monogamous bird in which only males look after their young ones and eggs.
y Aepyornis – Elephant bird.
y Casuarius – Casswary (found in new Guina)/ Austrails
Super order – Neognathae or Carinatae
y Small sized flight birds which are present in this time. Wings are light weight which help in the flying of
birds.
y Pygostyle is present.
y Keel present in the sternum is well developed and have crop glands that secrete pigeon milk.
y Uncinate processes are present in the ribs which are well marked.
y Oil glands or preen glands are found in the back near end of the tail.
y Beak lacks the teeth.
y Sound producing vocal organ is called as syrinx are located in the base of trachea.
6.44
E.g.
y Pavo – cristatus – Peacock – It is the national bird of India.
y Psittacula krameri – Indian parrot. (Upper jaw movable - Psittaciformes)
y Columbalivia – Blue rock pigeon – Its crop glands secrete pigeon milk (Columbiformes)
y Streptopelia – Dove
y Passerdomesticus – Sparrow – It shows commonsalism with man.
y Corvus splendens – Crow
y Molpaster – Bulbul
y Anas – Duck
y Cygnus – Swan Aquatic bird having webbed limbs
y Bobo – Bubo or owl or “Ill of oman”
n
y Cuckoo – It lays its eggs in the nest of other birds (Crow)
.i
y
y
Eudynmis – Indian Koel
Phoenicopterus – Flemingo
n al
y Alcedo – King fisher
ur
y Raphusdidus – Dodo (Mauritian extinct bird in 17th centuary)

o
y Dinopium – Wood pecker – Kathphorva

uj
y Diomedea – Albatross – Marine bird with largest wings in flying birds.

Milvus – Kite (Predatory birds)
Ed
y
y Flaco – Falcon (Predatory birds)
y Neophron – Vulture (Scavenger bird)
y Choriotis nigriceps – Great Indian bustard. It is also called Gondavan. It is the state bird of Rajasthan.
y Helena – Humming bird. It is also called sunbird. It feeds on nector of flowers. It is the smallest bird. It
is found in Cuba. It can fly in forward and backward both the directions. It can fly like helicopter. Its size
is about 3 to 4 cm.
y Ploceous – Weaver bird (Baya)
y Micropodus – Pitohui/pathua- It is the only one poisonous bird, which is found in Newguinea.
y Swift spine tailed – Fastest flying bird, it is found in Japan.
y Poor bill – Bird which shows sleeping stage and undergoes hibernation.
6.45
DID YOU KNOW

Migratory Birds
? y Pluvialis dominica – It is an American bird which migrates from south to north

and from north and from.
y Scolopax rusticola – It migrates from hill area to planes.
y Himalyan partridge – It can fly over 6000 miles.
Stera paradisaea – Champion bird – Arctic to Antarctic and back.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
n
Types of feathers
.i
y Quills: large feathers found in wings and tail. It has a central axis called as the shaft. Small
proximal part of the shaft is hollow, translucent, and cylindrical and is termed as calamus.
al
The long-distal, solid, and opaque part of the stem is known as rachis. An umbilical groove
n
extends all along the ventral side of rachis. A small hole on the proximal end of calamus
is known as inferior umbilicus; the hole on the distal end of calamus is known as superior
ur
umbilicus. Each vane is composed of parallel filaments, the barbs. Each barb bears many
barbules. The distal barbule have small hook lets. Emu birds have an after shaft as long
o
as the main shaft.

uj
y Coverts: small feathers in the wings and tail. They fill the gaps between the bases of the
quills. Short calamus in comparison to quills.
Ed
y Contours: cover the body and give its shape. They resemble the quills, but their barbs are
weakly joined which can be separated easily.
y Filoplums: Occur beneath contour feathers; very small in size made of the long rachis that
bear few weak free barbs with barbules at the tip.
y Down feathers/ nestling downs: They cover the newly hatched bird. They consist of
short calamus, reduced rachis bearing flexible barbs with short barbules. They are found
beneath contours.
y Bristles: Short calamus, a long rachis bearing a few vestigial barbs at its base. Bristles
occur near the mouth in fly catchers. The first digit of the hand (thumb or pollex) bears a
tuft of small feathers known as bastard wing or ala spuria or false wing.
6.46
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Aves (birds) have thin dry skin convered with the feathers that do not allow body heat to be
lost, forelimbs are modified into wings, fingers lack claws, toes are armed with the claws,
spongy little elastic lungs have air – sacs opening into them, the bifurcation of trachea into
bronchi has a voice box called as syrinx, heart has 4-chambers, eggs are amniotic, fertilisation
is internal without larval stage, endothermic which generate the body heat through rapid
metabolism, Nest building where parental care is common and migratory behaviour.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Which of the following set of animals are amniotes?
n
(A) Pisces and amphibian
.i
(B) Amphibians and reptiles
(C) Reptiles, birds and mammals
n al
(D) Amphibians, reptiles and birds
ur
2. Which of the following is not a character of reptiles?

o
(A) Body covered by dry and cornified skin

uj
(B) They are poikilotherms

(C) Fertilisation is external
Ed
(D) Heart is three chambered but four chambered in crocodiles

3. Which of the following lizard shows camouflaging and has prehensile tail?
(A) Hemidactylus (B) Calotes (C) Chameleon (D) Heloderma
4. Which of the following in non-poisonous snake?
(A) Naja (B) Bunganus (C) Vipera (D) Python
5. Carapace is present in
(A) Toad (B) Birds
(C) Testudo (tortoise) (D) Alligator
6.47
Class D – Mammalia
y Mammals evolved in the Triassic period of Mesozoic era. Coenozoic era is golden era for the
development of mammals.
y The science that deals with the Study of mammals is called as Mammology.
Main Characters –
y The members of this class are omnipresent and found in a numerous areas – polar ice cap, deserts,
mountains, forest, and grasslands and even in dark caves. Some of them have ability to fly or swim
and survive in air or water.
y Body has well differentiated head, neck, trunk and tail.
y A horizontal, diaphragm between the thorax and abdomen in the body cavity is commonly found in all
the members of this class.
y Diaphragm plays active role in respiration, defaecation, micturition and parturition.
n
y The body of almost all the mammals is covered with a coat of hair (made of α Keratin), called pelage.
.i
Some may have many hair like monkey while some may have less like a man.
al
y The mammals have skin which is thick, water proof, glandular. There are many types of glands in the
n
skin like sweat glands, oil glands or sebaceous glands and mammary glands.
ur
y Mammary glands (Modified sweat glands) are common in females which takes care for baby feeding,
which gives the class mammalian its name.
o
y If present, horns are located at the head, nails at the end of fingers and toes, claws or hoof are found,
uj
which provide protection.

y Two pairs of limbs are attached in the trunk. Limbs are pentadactyle that aids swimming, walking
Ed
running etc. Hind limbs are absent in Cetacea and Sirenia.

y Alimentary canal is complete, with its proximal end as mouth and sital end as anus. Anus and urinogenital
openings are different. Cloaca is absent (Exception – members of Prototheria have cloaca)
y Teeth are fixed in sockets called as gums in the buccal cavity, hence the teeth are called as thecodont.
y Teeth are of four different types and such different types of teeth are called as heterodont teeth.
y Teeth comes twice for most of the animals in a life span and thus animals are also called as diphyodont
teeth.
y The jaws suspensorium is of the craniostylic type.
y Lower jaw consists of dentary bone.
y Respiration is through a pair of lungs which is enclosed in the pleural cavity.
y Larynx or sound creating organ is present in the neck region which produces sound.
y Heart is four chambered which has double circulatory system is present in the thoracic cavity. Only left
side has aortic (systemic) vessel.
6.48
y RBCs are small, circular and non-nucleated when they mature, except: Family Camilidae – Lama and
Camel which contain nucleus in RBCs.
y Endoskeleton is bony, skull is dicondylic.
y Vertebrae are acoelous or amphiplatyan type i.e. centrum is flat at both the sides. Cartilagenous pads
are found at the edges of centrum that are called epiphysis.
y Neck is made up of 7 cervical vertebrae except: Bradypus / Sloth which has 9 or 10 cervical vertebrae
and Sea – cow/ Mantees which has 6 cervical vertebrae.
y Ribs are bifid and joined to sternum.
y Excretion is through one pair of metanephric kidneys situated in the abdominal cavity.
y Excretory product is mainly urea and hence these animals are ureotelic.
y Brain is larger with a skull covering it and is highly developed.
y Cerebrum and Cerebellum are the brain parts that are very complex in structure and are highly
developed.
n
y A special structure connects both the right and left cerebral hemispheres of brain that is called as
.i
corpus callosum. (Absent in Monotermes and Marsupial)
y
y Cranial nerves are 12 pairs.
n al
There are four optic lobes which are solid and collectively called as corpora quadrigemina.
y External ear called as ear pinna is present.

ur
y Middle ear has three ear ossicles called as Malleus, Incus and stapes.
High spiral coiling of cochlea of internal ear.
o
y
y Mammals are unisexual animals. Testes in males are outside the body present in the scrotal sacs.
uj
Copulation is through the distinct penis.

Ed
y Ovaries and a reduced penis called as clitoris are found in females.

y Fertilisation is in the fallopian tubes.
y Eggs are developed into zygote in the uterus. Embryonic membranes are amnion, chorion and allantois
and yolk sac present in the embryo and hence these animals are classified under group Amniota.
y Embryo gets the nourishment from the mother through the uterus by placenta, which is why these
animals are also called as placental animals.
y Mostly mammals are viviparous.
y Parental care specificity of the mammals. Mother feeds the child through the milk which is secreted by
her mammary glands and looks after her child.
y Mammals are warm blooded with homeothermic or endothermic nature.
y Livings mammals are classified into two subclasses.
6.49
(i) Subclass – Prototheria

y In this subclass primitive egg laying mammals are included.
y Eggs are large, yolky and shelled.(Megalecithal)
y Mammary glands are without nipples
y Gynaecomastism is found in these animals i.e. male and female both feed their child. Mammary glands
are functional in males and females both.
y Cloaca is present.
y Testes in males are situated inside the body (Abdominal cavity)
y Pinnae are absent and cochlea is less coiled.
y Corpus callosum is absent in the brain.
y A toothless horn like beak is found in adult animals, however child has teeth.
n
y Partially homeothermic animals.
.i
y Animals are found in Australia, Newguine and Tasmania.
y This subclass has only one order.
n al
A
o ur
uj
Ed
B C
Figure 6.27: Mammals: A. Ornithorhynchus anatinus, B. Tachyglossus, C. Macropus
(a) Order – Monotremata

Connecting links between the reptiles and mammals.
E.g.
- Ornithorhynchus or Duck billed platypus – poison secreting glands in male platypus.
- Tachyglossus or Echidna or spiny ant eater.
6.50
(ii) Subclass – Theria

y Viviparous animals.
y Embryo is attached with uterus of mother through placenta to nourish it.
y Mammary glands with developed Nipple.
y Cloaca is absent.
y Testes are situated in the scrotal sacs.
y Pinnae are present and cochlea are much coiled
y Teeth are present.
y Teeth are found in adults as well as children.
y Subclass Theria is further subdivided into two infra classes:
n
Infraclass – Metatheria or Marsupials
.i
y An abdominal pouch where young immature offspring are developed until their maturity is called as
marsupium is found. al
y Mammary glands along with nipples are found, situated in the marsupium.
n
y Two vagina with two clitoris and two different uteri each for a vagina are present in a female animal and
ur
bifid (two openings) penis present in a male.

o
y Yolk sac and placenta are found.

uj
y Cochlea is more coiled in the internal ear.

y Adults have teeth, which are monophyodont and heterodont type.
Ed
y Corpus callosum is absent.

y Infraclass is divided in one order:
(a) Order – Marsupialia

y Characters are like metatheria
y Animals are oviparous
E.g.
- Macropus – Kangaroo- Found in Australia only. Saltatorial locomotion (tail to use as body balance
- Didelphys – Opossum – Found in North America. Shortest gestation period (12-13 days).
- Dasyurus – Tiger cat.
6.51
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Benadryl is used as an antidote to counteract the effect of hemotoxins.
y Seymouria is considered as the connecting link between amphibians and reptiles.
y Mesozoic era is known as “age of reptiles”.
y Loreal pit of pit viper is a thermoreceptor organ.
y Reptiles without urinary bladder are snakes, crocodiles and alligators.
y Many sea snakes are viviparous. Pit vipers are also mostly viviparous.
y The oldest living animal in any Indian zoo is the Algebra giant tortoise.
y Rattle snake’s tail emits a frightening sound which scares away the enemy.
y The king cobra of India is the only snake in the world that builds a nest.
n
y Largest snake is python; smallest snake is thread snake.
.i
y Largest lizard is Komodo dragon; smallest lizard is two species of dwarf gecko.
al
y Longest dinosaur is Diplodocus; smallest dinosaur is Compsognathus.
n
y Heaviest dinosaur is Brontosaurus.
ur
y Largest living reptiles are python, crocodile, and Komodo dragon.

o
y Hemidactylus or wall lizard (gecko) is swift runner on smooth vertical surface due to the
presence of vaccum pads.
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y Draco is a flying lizard but it actually does not fly.

Ed
y Heloderma is a poisonous lizard (gila moster).

y Ophiosaurus is known as “glass snake”. “Blind worm”. Or “slow worm”, limbless lizard.
y Anguis is also known as blind worm and is limbless.
y Most poisonous snake of the world is peninsular tiger snake.
y Poisonous sea snake: Hydrophis.
y Biggest flesh eater dinosaur is Tyrannosaurus.
y Horned dinosaur: Stegosaurus.
y Monitor lizard (Varanus) is the largest living lizard. Varanus is commonly called “Goye” or
“monitor”; semi-aquatic; slightly laterally compressed tail.
y Carapace is hard shield like structure present on the dorsal surface of tortoise and turtle.
y Reptiles arose in the lower carboniferous time, from labyrinthodont amphibia.
6.52
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Phrynosoma is found in deserts; called “horned toad”, skin hygroscopic; takes water in the
form of dew; exudes red blood like stream from eyes, whenever, terrified.
y Iguana is 5-6 feet long; body and tail laterally compressed; arboreal in habit; herbivorous
found in tropical America.
y Sphenodon is the only living genus of Rhynchocephalia. It is commonly called Tuatara. It
is found only in New Zealand. It is called living fossil as it resembles with Hanaesaurus of
Jurassic age.
y Largest living carnivorous reptile is Crocodilus.
y Thermomorpha is a group of reptiles which are considered to be the ancestors of mammals.
y Hedonic glands present in males secret a sticky substance which hardens structures such
as spine and helps to hold the mate firmly.
n
y In Uromastyx, cloaca possesses a pair of copulatory organs called hemipenes.
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y Russel’s viper is the largest Indian viper.
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y Hafkine Institute of Bombay is the main center where antivenom is produced.
n
y The limbs of Chameleon show syndactyly (fusion of digits) as an adaption to arboreal life
ur
to form opposable finger to hold the twigs.

o
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Infra Class – Eutheria

y True mammals who give birth to a mature child. A true placenta is found, which is of the Allanto –
Ed
chorionic type.
y Mammary glands have well developed and marked Nipples.
y Only one uterus and only one vagina are present in a female. Penis is single present in male.
y Cochlea is highly coiled in shape to fit in the body.
y Corpus callosum is present in brain.
y Entirely endothermic animals.
y Infraclass Eutheria is further divided into 16 orders as follows:
(a) Order 1: Insectivora
y These are burrowing nocturnal and insectivorous animals.
E.g.
- Erinaceous - Jhau – Chuha / Hedge Hog
6.53
- Sorex – Shrews: smallest mammal’s size is about 3 – inches: Chhachhunder

- Talpa – Mole
(b) Order 2: Chiroptera

y Bats which can fly in air. These are true flying mammals.
y Skin between the forelimbs and hindlimbs are expanded in a way to form patagium, which helps in
flying.
y Testes are inside abdomen.
y Echolocation (Radar system) is the sensory system.
E.g.
- Pteropus – Flying fox, a fruit eater animal.
- Vespertilo – Insectivorous bat, also called filtter mice.
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- Desmodus – Vampire bat, a sanguivorous animal
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DID YOU KNOW
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y Small bats have claw on first digit of the fore limb and have a tail. Bats hang
downward from tree branches because they are unable to stand erect.
o
y Lion in India is found in Gir forests of Gujrat. Male is polygamous with a mane, the
uj
digits have retractile claws.

Ed
y Monkeys are quadrupedal, tailed, with equal sized limbs and ischia callosities,
while apes are bipedal, tailless, with longer force limbs but without ischia callosities.
? y African elephant is larger in size, has depressed back, large sized pinnae and large
sized tusk only in males.
y Elephant is largest terrestrial animal. Indian elephant has tusks in both the sexes.
y Turkish camel is a two-humped camel found in Gobi desert of Central Asia, while
Arabian camel is one-humped camel found in North Africa to India.
y Camels are characterized by hump (store house of fat), water cells in stomach (to
store metabolic water), pads beneath two digits, dense hair growth near eyes and
nostrils, and nucleated RBCs. It is called ship of desert.
y Baleen is a set of hanging plates in the buccal cavity of blue whale.
6.54
(c) Order 3: Rodentia

y The biggest order in mammals
y These are small, terrestrial, can be either herbivore or omnivore.
y Incisor teeth grow continuously, canines are absent, which leaves empty space between teeth called
as diastema
E.g.
- Funambulus – Squirrel
- Rattus – Rat
- Hystrix – Porcupine =Sehi = Body hair are modified into quills.
- Cavia – Guinea Pig.
- Dipodomys – Kangaroo rat – Desert rat (Never drink water)
- Beavers – Aquatic Rodents
n
(d) Order 4: Edentata (Ant- eaters)
.i
E.g.
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y The only mammal which has bony plates and horn like scales as exoskeleton.
- Myrmecophaga – Giant anteater.

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- Dasypus or Armadillo – It shows polyembryony (4-8 embryoes)

o
- Bradypus – Slowest animal

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Figure 6.28: Pteropus (Indian flying fox)

(e) Order 5: Pholidota – (Scaly anteater)
Ed
y Two pairs of incisors teeth are present in the upper jaws and one pair in lower jaw.
y Are similar to rodents except the teeth
y Fore limbs are shorter than hind limbs.
E.g
- Manis/ pangolin – Scaly anteater.
(f) Order 6: Lagomorpha

y Similar to rodents
y Complete herbivore mammals
y Canines are absent and diastema is present
E.g.
- Oryctolagus – Rabbit
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- Lepus – Hare
- Ochotona – Pika (Tail less)
(g) Order 7: Carnivora

y Canines are well developed.
y Smart, strong, carnivorous animals.
y Upper last premolar and lower first molar teeth tear the flesh of prey and these teeth are called as
carnassials teeth.
y Digitigrades locomotion.
y Terrestrial carnivorous animals are called as Fissipedia and Marine carnivores are called as Pinnipedia.
E.g.
n
O Canisfamiliaris – Domestic dog.
.i
O Felisdomesticus – Domestic cat.
O
O Panther pardus – Tendua – Panther.

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Panther leopersica – Lion – Lions in India are found only in Gir forests of Kathiawar of Gujrat state.
ur
O Panther tigris – Tiger – It is the National animal of India.
O Acinonyx – Cheetah – It is the extinct animal of India.
o
O Vulpes bengalnesis – Fox.

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O Zalopus – Sea lion.

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O Phoca – Seal.
O Odobenus – Walrus.
O Herpestes – Mangoose.
O Ursus – Bear.
O Canis lupus – Wolf.
(h) Order 8: Cetacea

y Fish like marine mammals
y Hind limbs are absent.
y Hairs and pinnae are absent.
y Testes are found inside abdomen.
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y A thick heat resistant layer of adipose tissue just beneath the skin is called as blubber.
E.g.
O Balaenopteramusculus – Blue whale – Found in Antarctic Ocean. A Horny sheed called as the
Baleen plate (for filtration) is found in upper jaw and not in teeth. Milk is squirited to the baby by
the muscle contraction of the mother. Retea mirabile helps in underwater respiration is found in
thoracic region.
O Phocaena porpoise – Small whale
O Orcinus – Killer whale
O Caparea – Pigmy whale.
O Physeter – Sperm whale –stomach secretes Ambergris which is used in making perfumes.
O Platanistagangatica – Dolphin –in Ganga River.
Delphinus – Common Dolphin.
n
O
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(i) Order 9: Sirenia
y Herbivorous aqatic animals.
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y Hind limbs are absent.
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y Pinnae are absent.

y A transverse fin on the tail.
o
y Big tusk is present in male.

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E.g.
Ed
O Rhytina – Sea cow.

O Trichechus – Manatee
O Halicore – Dugong
(j) Order 10: Proboscidia

y Largest and heaviest present day terrestrial animals.
y Upper incisors are long, tubular form as tusks. Canine teeth are absent.
y Molar teeth are lophodont type.
y Hair less, Testis is found in the abdomen.
E.g.
O Elephas – Indian elephant
O Loxodonta – African elephant, it is largest living land animal
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(k) Order 11: Artiodactyla

y Stomach is divided in four chambers, which helps these animals in rumination (Cud-chewing). All
animals are ruminent except Sus and Hippopotamus (Nonruminent). Even toed ungulate animals.
E.g.
O Bos indicus – Cow
O Bubalus – Buffalow
O Camelus – Camel (RBC nucleated)
O Sus – Pig.
O Capra – Goat
O Ovis – Sheep
O Bos mutus /Poephagus – Yak
Cervus – Dear
n
O
Cameloparadelis – Girrafe
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O
O Moschus moschiferus – Musk dear (Smallest RBC)

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ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
How many vertebrae do giraffes have in their neck? Most of the vertebrates, including giraffes
o
and camel, have seen cervical (neck) vertebrates. At almost 6 m (20 ft) tall, the giraffe is the
uj
tallest of all vertebrates and its seven cervical vertebrae are greatly elongated
Exception: three-toed sloth (Bradypus) with nine cervical vertebrae and Manatee is with six
Ed
neck vertebrae.
Armadillos: The nine-banded armadillo (Dasypus) is one of the few mammalian species
whose range is expanding. In late 1800s, they lived only as far north as central Texas. Leprosy
bacteria is cultured in the armadillos (Dasypus).
Humans remain plantigrade at rest or during locomotion; use only the toes for running. Thus,
is called sub-plantigrade.
The color of human skin is yellow to orange due to carotene pigment in the cells of stratum
corneum and subdermal fat cells. Melanin is found in melanocytes.
In humans, sweat glands are absent at lip borders, clitoris, glans penis, nail beds, under
surface of prepuce.
Sweat or sudoriferous glands secrete sweat. Sweat comprises 95% water and 5% metabolic waste.
Spiny ant eater, scaly ant eaters, moles, cetaceans, sirenians, and some edentates do not
possess sweat glands.
6.58
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Tusks of elephants are two incisors of upper jaw which constantly grow throughout life.
y Primates such as monkeys, man, apes, etc., acquired three-dimensional vision due to
their most evolved motor understanding of visual sensation.
y Deer, amongst vertebrates, proportionately to their body size, possess largest eyes.
y Carnassial teeth: Special shearing teeth in carnivores for cracking bones – fourth premolar
of upper jaw and first molar of lower jaw.
y Milk-producing male mammal: Spiny ant eater/Echidna.
y Monotreme: With a single aperture of cloaca for urinogenital and digestive tracts.
y Largest land animal: Loxodonta africana (African elephant). Height 3.5 m and weight 7
tonnes.
Tallest land mammal: Giraffe, up to 6 m.
n
y
y Mouse and Rat have first molar bigger than combined second and third molars.
.i
y Stripes of no two zebras are alike. al
y Fastest mammal: Acinonyx jubatus (Cheetah) (extinct from India present in Africa). Speed
n
up to 100 km/h.
ur
y Slowest terrestrial mammal: three-toed sloth (Bradypus), Tridactylus, 100-150 m/h.
y Slowest aquatic mammal: Sea otter, 10 km/h.
o
y Longest gestation period in mammal: 609 days/20 months in Elephas maximus.

uj
y Shortest gestation period in mammal: Opossum, 12-13 days.

y Panthera tigris is the national animal of India (declared in 1973).
Ed
y Today marsupials are found mainly in Australia except a few marsupials such as the
American opossum are found outside that continent.
y Plantigrade mammals are those whose palm and sole touch the ground when moving from
one place to another, E.g., bears and certain insectivores
y Rabbit is digitigrade because it moves on digits.
A B C
Figure 6.29: A. Plantigrade, B. Digitigrade, and C. Unguligrade feet of mammals.
6.59
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Unguligrade mammals are those whose only the tips of one or two fingers and toes remain
in contact with the ground both at rest and locomotion. These are fastest running terrestrial
mammals, E.g., horses, deers, cows, donkeys, etc.
y Hides are prepared from the dermis of animals skin.
y Seals and wheals have scanty hairs because heat insulation is done by blubber.
y The horns of rhinoceros, scales of scaly ant-eater, and spines of porcupine are derivatives
of hairs.
y The retina of owls contains only rods (suitable for nocturnal habit). Also, the same occurs
in shrews, hedgehog, rodents, bats, etc.
y The retina of fowls contains only cones (suitable for diurnal habit). Squirrels also have only
cones.
n
y Wheals, mice, shrews, and also some other mammals, but not rabbit and man, possess
.i
Harderian gland like that of the frog.
y
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The scrotum of mammals contains testes in most of the mammals; it acts as a thermostatic
chamber. Testes lie outside the abdominal cavity because sperms cannot develop in body
temperature. Thus, these become close, if the temperature falls more than C or come
ur
apart from the body, if temperature rises more than C of the body temperature.
o
y In insectivores, chiroptera, and rodentia, scrotum is formed only during breeding season.
It later moves to abdominal cavity, E.g., bat, otter.
uj
y Insectivores, edentates, proboscidians (elephants), cetaceans (wheals) always have their

Ed
testes inside the body cavity.
(l) Order 12: Perissodactyla

y Limbs are long with 1 or 3 digits with hooves. These are fast running animals.
y Odd toed animals.
E.g.
O Equus caballus – Horse
O Equus asinus – Donkey
O Equus hemionus – Indian Donkey
O Equus zebra – Zebra
O Rhinoceros unicornis – Rhino – Single horn Genda. It is found in Kaziranga National Park Jorhat,
6.60
Assam. Rhino possess keratin horn over snout.
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Ed
6.61
(m) Order 13: Primates

y Most developed mammals. It includes wise or most intelligence animals E.g. man, monkeys, lemur,
apes, gibbons, gorilla chimpangi etc.
y Cerebrum highly advanced.
y Prosimians
E.g.
y Nycticebus – Lemur
y Loris – Loris (tail less)
y Tarsius – Tarsier
y Simians
y Macaca mulalta Rhesus monkey (Monkey of old world catarrhint)
y Semnopithecus – Baboon (Langur)
n
y Atles - Spider monkey Monkey of modern world. (Platrrhini)
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y (Prehensile tail)
al
y Hylobates – Gibbon – Smallest ape. (found in India)
n
y Only ape found in India – Hoolock gibben
ur
y Gorilla – Largest ape.
y Pan Chimpanze – Most intelligent in apes.
o
y Orangutan – Man of forest (found in Indonesia)

uj
y Homo Sapiens – Man

Ed
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Mammalian (mammals):
y Skin with sweat and milk glands,
y Hairy coat that conserves body heat,
y Four limbs that have digits along with claws, nails or hoofs,
y Buccal cavity is with thecodont, heterodont, diphyodont teeth,
y Spongy elastic lungs,
y Heart is 4 chamered,
y Cerebral hemispheres are connected together with the corpus callosum,
y Optic lobes are divided into four corpora quadrigemina,
6.62
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y External ear is often accompanied with pinna,
y Males have copulatory organ,
y Eggs are amniotic, fertilization is internal, without larval stage,
y Viviparous animals
y Diaphragm between thorax and abdomen, endothermic.
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Ed
6.63
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6.64
EXERCISE
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Which of the following is most unique character of mammals and is without any exception?
(A) They are viviparous
(B) Presence of external ears or pinnae
(C) Presence of mammary glands
(D) Presence of seven cervical vertebrae
n
2. Which of the following mammal is oviparous?
.i
(A) Macropus (B) Pteropus
(C) Ornithorthynchus al
(D) Delphinus
n
3. All mammals, without any exception, are characterised by
ur
(A) Biconcave red blood cells

(B) Extra-abdominal testes and four chambered heart
o
(C) Heterodont teeth and twelve pairs of cranial nerves

uj
(D) A muscular diaphragm

Ed
4. Besides bats, echolocation sonar mechanism also occurs in

(A) Primates
(B) Felis (cat)
(C) Wheals and dolphins
(D) Macropus (Kangaroo)
6.65
Summary
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Ed
Flowchart 6.1: Animal Kingdom and its Division

y Phylum Chordata: all animals with a notochord in their body in either some of the life part or throughout
the life. There are common features in all the chordates which are the dorsal, hollow nerve cord and
also the paired pharyngeal gill slits.
y Some of the vertebrates lack jaws (Agnatha) while most of the vertebrates have jaws (Gnathostomata).
Agnatha includes the class Cyclostomata. They are the most primitive chordates and are ectoparasite
on fishes.
y Gnathostomata is further divided into two super classes: Pisces and Tetrapoda. Class Chondrichthyes
and Osteichthyes are parts of pisces that bear fins for locomotion. The Chondrichthyes include marine
fishes that have cartilaginous endoskeleton and Osteichthyes class includes all the bony fishes.
y Super class Tetrapoda has Classes Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia. They share lists of
similarities major one is two pairs of limbs. The amphibians have ability to survive and grow on land
6.66
and in water. Reptiles have dry and cornified skin. Snakes lack limbs. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles
all are Poikilothermous (cold-blooded). While Aves are warm-blooded animals that have feathers as
covering on their bodies and forelimbs are modified into wings used in flying. Hind limbs have the ability
to walk, swim, perch or clasp. The unique features among all the mammals are their mammary glands
and hairs on the skin. They commonly exhibit viviparity with few exceptions.
Objective Type Questions
Q.1 Notochord persists in the adult of
(A) Protochordates (B) Agnatha
(C) Chondrichthyes (D) Osteichthyes
Q.2 In which of the phylum stomochord is present instead of true notochord?

(A) Chordates (B) Hemichordates
n
(C) Protochordata (D) Urochordata
.i
Q.3 Which of the following group of characters is present in all chordates in some or other stage in their life?
al
(A) Mammary glands, hairs and gill slits
n
(B) Notochord, gill slits and dorsal tubular nervous system
ur
(C) Notochord. Scales and dorsal tubular nervous system

o
(D) Gill slits, vertebral column and notochord

uj
Q.4 Retrogressive metamorphosis occurs in

(A) Balanoglossus (Tornaria larvae)
Ed
(B) Amphioxus
(C) Ascidian tadpole larva of Herdmania
(D) Glossobalanus
Q.5 Vertebral column is a modified
(A) Nerve cord (B) Notochord
(C) Umbilical cord (D) Urochordata
Q.6 In chordates, basically the pharynx

(A) Perforated (B) Non-perforated
(C) Present in the gut of the larva (D) A source of thyroxin which controls metamorphosis
6.67
Q.7 Which of the following larvae after metamorphosis migrates from river to ocean?
(A) Ammocoete larvae of lampreys (cyclostoma)
(B) Trochophore larvae of molluscs
(C) Ascidician tadpole larva of Herdmania
(D) Dipleura larva
Q.8 Petromyzon belongs to the class

(A) Chondrichythes (B) Cyclostomata
(C) Osteichthyes (D) None of these
Q.9 Which of the following is ectoparasite vertebrate in which stomach is absent and a functional pineal eye
is present?
n
(A) Agnatha (Petromyzon) (B) Shark
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(C) Torpedo (D) Remora
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Q.10 In which of the following fish electric organs are present which are modified musculature between eye
n
and nostrils?
ur
(A) Torpedo (electric ray) (B) Scoliodon (dog fish)

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(C) Trygon (sting ray) (D) Pristis (saw fish)

uj
Q.11 Gill slits in chondrichthyes are

Ed
(A) Uncovered (B) Covered by operculum

(C) Absent (D) Only sometimes covered
Q.12 Scales in cartilaginous fishes are

(A) Cycloid (B) Ctenoid (C) Placoid (D) Leptoid
Q.13 Which of the following is viviparous and bring forth their young alive?
(A) Hippocampus (B) Shark (C) Anabas (D) Trygon
Q.14 Air bladder is present in

(A) Cartilaginous fishes (B) Bony fishes (C) Star fish (D) Electric Ray
Q.15 Lateral line organs do not occur in

(A) Cartilaginous fishes (B) Bony fishes (C) Amphibian larvae (D) Reptiles
6.68
Q.16 In fishes, the neuromast organs are

(A) Chemoreceptors (B) Gustatoreceptors
(C) Olfactoreceptors (D) Rheroceptors
Q.17 Peculiarity of fish heart is that it has

(A) All venous blood (B) All arterial blood
(C) Partly venous and partly blood (D) No blood at all
Q.18 Heterocercal tail, placoid scales are found in one of the following
(A) Rohu (B) Neoceratodus (C) Scoliodon (D) Anguilla
Q.19 Mermaid purse is

(A) A colony of skates and rays (B) A lovely fish
n
(C) Egg case of skate fishes (D) A brood pouch of male sea horse for carrying eggs
.i
Q.20 Gambusia is a
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(A) Pest on fishes (B) Pathogenic fish
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(C) Parasitic fish (D) Fish predator of mosquito larvae
Q.21 One of the following fish does not belong to class osteichthyes
o
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(A) Hippocampus (B) Labeo (C) Torpedo (D) Exocoetus

Ed
Q.22 In which of the following fish the pectoral fin is large and modified to use for gliding several meters in
the air, as the fish leaps out?
(A) Exocoetus (B) Anabas (C) Echeneis (D) Labeo
Q.23 In which fish male shows parental care and has a brood pouch?
(A) Anabas (B) Labeo (C) Hippocampus (D) Synaptura
Q.24 In fishes, the locomotion is due to

(A) Caudal fins (B) Fins without fin rays
(C) Paired fins (D) Paired and unpaired fins
6.69
Q.25 The intestine of dogfish is characterized by the presence of

(A) Scroll valve (B) Typhlosole (C) Maltase cross (D) Cartilage
Q.26 The oldest living fish is

(A) Anabas (B) Coelacanth (C) Diodon (D) Sturgeon
Q.27 Which one of the following is most venomous fish?

(A) Electric fish (B) Saw fish (C) Stone fish (D) King of Herrings
Q.28 Fishes have kidney of

(A) Pronephric type (B) Mesonerphic type
(C) Metanephric type (D) Nephridial type
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Q.29 Which one of the following is a true fish?
.i
(A) Cray fish (B) Cuttlle fish (C) Flying fish (D) Jelly fish
Q.30 An anadromous fish migrates from

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(A) Rivers to sea eg. Anguilla (B) Rivers to estuary
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(C) Sea to rivers eg. Hilsa, Salmon (D) Deep sea to surface waters
o
Q.31 A catadromous fish migrates from

uj
(A) Rivers to sea (B) Rivers to estuary

Ed
(C) Sea to rivers (D) Deep sea to surface waters
Q.32 Which one of the following is a catadromous fish?

(A) Anguilla (B) Hilsa (C) Salmon (D) Yellow eel
Q.33 One of the following is a limbless amphibian

(A) Salamandra (Urodela) (B) Lchthyophis (Apoda)
(C) Necturus (Urodela) (D) Hyla (Anura)
Q.34 Which of the following match is incorrect

(A) Alytes – Male midwife toad (B) Necturus – Mud puppy or water dog
6.70
(C) Bombinator – Fire-bellied toad (D) Hyla arborea – Flying frog
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6.71
Q.35 Which is the largest amphibian?

(A) Amphiuma (B) Crytobranchus (C) Necturus (D) Proteus
Q.36 Fire bellied toad is

(A) Salamandra (B) Discoglossus (C) Rhinoderma (D) Amphiuma
Q.37 Salamandra is
(A) Tailed amphibian (B) Tail-less amphibian
(C) Limbless amphibian (D) Reptile
Q.38 The excretory product of newly hatched tadpole of frog is

(A) NH3 (B) Uric acid
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(C) NH3 and urea (D) Urea, amino acids and NH3
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Q.39 Which one of the following, is a poisonous amphibian?
(A) Bufo marinus
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(B) Hyla verscicolour
(C) lchthyothis (D) Rana tirina
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Q.40 A frog lives in water or near water because

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(A) It can get its food easily in water

uj
(B) Its hind limbs are webbed and help in swimming

(C) It lays eggs in water
Ed
(D) It can see through its transparent eye lids while swimming
Q.41 The larva of Ambyostoma is

(A) Ascidian (B) Axolotl (C) Tadpole (D) Trochophore
Q.42 Male frogs can crock louder than females because being/having
(A) Larger in size (B) Larger sound box
(C) Stronger (D) Vocal sacs
Q.43 The success of reptiles as truly land animals was due to
6.72
(A) Development of internal fertilisation

(B) Presence of amino, embryonic membrane which encloses the embryo and provides watery
environment for development
(C) Respiration only through lungs, which is improved by the development of ribs
(D) All of these
Q.44 Which of the following are poikilothermal animals with single occipital condyle and twelve pairs of
cranial nerves?
(A) Aves (B) Reptiles (C) Mammals (D) Amphibia
Q.45 Which is the only poisonous lizard of the world?

(A) Ophiosaurus (B) Varanus (C) Heloderma (D) Draco
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Q.46 The largest sized lizard is
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(A) Chameleon (B) Heloderma (C) Ophiosaurus (D) Varanus
Q.47 Which one is a viviparous lizard?

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(A) Chameleon (B) Hemidactylus (C) Mabuya (D) Uromastix
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Q.48 The urinary bladder is absent in

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(A) Chameleon (B) Snake

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(C) Snake and crocodile (D) Wall lizard

Ed
Q.49 Study of snakes is called

(A) lchthyology (B) Serpentology (C) Herpatology (D) Entomology
Q.50 The reptiles without teeth is

(A) Lizards (B) Heloderma (C) Chelonia (D) Alligators
Q.51 Which one of the following is non-poisonous snake?

(A) Cobra (Naja naja) (B) Ajgar (Python)
(C) Krait (Bungarus) (D) Viper (Viper russelli)
Q.52 Which of the following is not a true snake?

(A) Tree snake (B) Glass snake
6.73
(C) Blind snake (D) Sea snake

Q.53 The cobra (Naja naja) can be distinguished by the presence of
(A) Agile habit (B) Black colour
(C) Hood (D) Hood and III largest supra labials
Q.54 Which one of the following pair of snakes is viviparous?

(A) Krait and Viper (B) Cobra and Krait
(C) Hydrophis and Vipera russelli (D) Matrix and Python
Q.55 Benadryl and antisera are used to

(A) Control malaria (B) Counteract the effect haemotoxins
(C) Cure sleeping sickness (D) Counteract the bite of mad dog
.i n
Q.56 The largest Indian poisonous snake is
(A) Blue Krait (B) Cobra
n al (C) King cobra (D) Python
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Q.57 Which one is the longest snake?
(A) Cobra (B) Krait (C) Python (D) Rat snake
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Q.58 Krait (Bungarus) can be differentiated from other snakes by its

(A) Hairy body (B) Size
Ed
(C) Shield like scales on the head (D) Vertebralscales
Q.59 Crocodile, fish and frog, on one hand and squirrel and crows on the other differ in the following
(A) The former have four appendages, the latter have only two
(B) The body temperature of the former changes with environmental temperature, the temperature of
the latter remains more or less constant.
(C) The former undergo metamorphosis, the latter do not
(D) The former are oviparous the latter are viviparous
Q.60 Which of the following group of animals are homeothermal, single occipital condyle, twelvepairs of
cranial nerves, pneumatic bones and found chambered heart?
6.74
(A) Amphibia (B) Aves (C) Reptilia (D) Mammalia
Q.61 Feathers of the birds are waterproof due to the only secretion of
(A) Cutaneous gland (B) Preen gland (C) Sudorific gland (D) None of these
Q.62 Pneumatic bones occur in

(A) Amphibians (B) Reptiles (C) Birds (D) Mammals
Q.63 Right ovary, right oviduct and urinary bladder have atrophied in one of the following
(A) Kiwi (B) Pigeon (C) Kingfisher (D) All of these
Q.64 Air sacs are found only in

(A) Aquatic birds (B) Ground birds (C) All birds (D) No bird
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Q.65 A pigeon in the absence of down feathers will not be able to
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(A) Fly for long distance
(B) Protect against ectoparasite
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(C) Exhibit secondary sexual dimorphism
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(D) Keep the body warm

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Q.66 Which of the following bones in present only in birds?

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(A) Axis vertebra (B) Atlas vertebra

Ed
(C) Ear ossicles (D) Furcula
Q.67 The beak in birds is toothed in

(A) Ostrich (B) Kiwi (C) Archaeopteryx (D) Pelican
Q.68 Which one of the following birds, has recently become extinct?
(A) Archaeopteryx (B) Archaeornis
(C) Dodo (D) Great Indian Bustard
Q.69 The largest living bird is

(A) Struthio (Ostrich) (B) Aptenodytes (Penguin)
(C) Phoenicopterus (Flamingo) (D) Aepyornis (Giant elephant bird)
Q.70 Which of the following statement is incorrect about birds?

6.75
(A) The two clavicles and one interclavicle forms a ‘V’-shaped bone called as furcula
(B) The eyes of birds are peculiar due to the presence of Pecten
(C) Carinatae or flying birds have sternum with keel
(D) In birds the left ovary and oviduct is atrophied
Q.71 Which one of the following is a metatheria mammal?

(A) Echidna (B) Kangaroo (C) Shrew (D) Pangolin
1
Q.72 Ungulates or odd-toed mammals (Horse, Ass and Zebra) belong
2
to the order
(A) Artiodactyla (B) Perissodactyla (C) Lagomorpha
3 (D) Edentata
4
Q.73 Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?
(A) Thecodont dentition (B) Alveolar lungs 5
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(C) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (D) Seven cervical vertebrae
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(B) Lizard
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Q.74 Which of the following animals has a diaphragm between the thorax and abdomen?
(A) Frog (C) Pigeon (D) Whale
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Q.75 In one of the following orders of class mammilla, the animals can fly
(A) Lagomorpha (B) Chiroptera (C) Rodentia (D) Cetacea
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Q.76 The tusks of elephant are

(A) lncisors (B) Canines (C) Molars (D) Premolars
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Q.77 Testes are internal, canines and premolars are absent in which one of the following?
(A) Rabbit (B) Elephant (C) Whale (D) Goat
Q.78 Which is the most intelligent ape among the following?

(A) Gibbon (Hylobates) (B) Gorilla
(C) Pongo (D) Chimpanzee (Pan)
Q.79 Sea cow (Halicore) is a member of order
(A) Cetacea (B) Lagomorpha (C) Carnivora (D) Sirenia
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Q.80 Which one of the following is a tailless primate?

(A) Tarsier (B) Lemur (C) Rhesus monkey (D) Gorilla
Q.81 The largest spiny mammal out of the following is

(A) Hedge hog (Erinaceus) (B) Opossum (Didelphis)
(C) Porcupine (Hystrix) (D) Spiny ant eater (Tachyglossus)
Q.82 Elephant is an inhabitant of hot climate. This is suggested by

(A) Huge size (B) Fleshy feet
(C) Almost hairless skin (D) Small eyes
Q.83 Gynaecomastism condition (males have functional mammary glands to feed young ones) is best seen in
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(A) Duck-billed Platypus (B) Didelphys
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(C) Scaly ant eater (D) Hedge hog
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Q.84 In one of the following, stomach is complicated with several chambers in which bacteria digest
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cellulose.
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(A) Flying fox (B) Goat (C) Porcupine (D) Hedge hog
Q.85 Monotreme is a group of animals which includes

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(A) Fishes with single gill aperture (B) Insects with a single pair of cloaca
(C) Mammals with a single cloaca (D) Protozoa with a single flagellum
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Q.86 Milk glands are found in

(A) All vertebrates (B) All mammals
(C) All placental mammals (D) All prototherians only
Q.87 The largest life span in animals is of

(A) Tortoise (B) Snake (C) Parrot (D) Gorilla
Q.88 Whale is a mammal because

6.77
(A) Heart has four chambers

(B) It is aquatic with stream lined body
(C) It lays egg and produces milk
(D) Diaphragm is found between thorax and abdomen
Q.89 Very large with a single nostril is

(A) Blue whale (B) Physeter (C) Python (D) Tortoise
Q.90 Eggs of egg laying mammals are

(A) Macrolecithal (B) Alecithal (C) Mesolecithal (D) Telolecithal
Q.91 Within the lamellae of gills, the blood circulation is arranged so that blood is carried in the opposite
direction to the movement of water. The functional significance of this arrangement is that
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(A) It helps to maintain the temperature of the organism equal to the water temperature, thus enhancing
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diffusion.
diffusion continues all along the gill.

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(B) It ensures a continuous gradient concentration difference between the blood and the water, so that
(C) It increases the surface area for diffusion.

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(D) It allows some kinds of fishes to continue to get oxygen even if they are not moving.
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Q.92 The graph below shows changes in air temperature and changes in the body temperature of a lizard.
uj
Use the graph below to answer the question that follows graph.
Ed
6.78
In order to raise its internal temperature, it must do which of the following?

(A) Rest in shade
(B) Bask in sunrise
(C) Increase its internal temperature through metabolism
(D) Decrease its internal temperature through activity.
Q.93 The following diagrams show five parts of the amniotic egg indicated by latters, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Choose the correct option for the name and function of each part.
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1 2 3 4 5
Amnion, prevents Allantois respiration Embryo forms Chorion, Yolk sac,
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(A)
desiccation and excretion new individual protection encloses food
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Allantois,
Amnion, prevents Embryo, forms new Chorion, Yolk sac,
(B) respiration
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desiccation individual protection encloses food

excretion
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Allantois respiration Amnion, prevents Embryo forms Chorion, Yolk sac,

(C)
and excretion desiccation new individual protection encloses food
Amnion provides Chorion, Embryo forms Yolk sac,
(D) Allantois respiration
watery environment protection new individual encloses food
Q.94 Study the two skulls. Which is more like a mammal skull? Choose correct answer for A and (B)
(A) A is like a mammalian skull and B is like an avian skull
(B) A is like an avian skull and B is like a reptilian skull
(C) A is like a reptilian skull and B is like a mammalian skull
(D) A is like a mammalian skull and B is like a reptilian skull
6.79

Q.1 In which sub-phylum notochord extends from head to tail region and persistent throughout their life?
(HP PMT 2011)
(A) Cephalochordata (B) Urochordata
Q.2 The three fundamental characters of all chordates are (Manipur 2006)
(A) Dorsal tubular nerve cord, diaphragm, notochord
(B) Notochord, diaphragm, gill slits
(C) Gill slits, diaphragm, dorsal tubular nerve cord
(D) Notochord, gill slits, dorsal tubular nerve cord
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Q.3 The postanal tail is present in (Karnataka CET 2007)
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(A) Chordates (B) Vertebrates
(C) Invertebrates al
(D) In all of them
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Q.4 In which of the following animals notochord is not present (Orissa JEE 2007)
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(A) Adult tunicate (B) Herdmania

(C) Myxine (D) Balanoglossus
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Q.5 Paired appendages are not found in (AFMC 2008)

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(A) Hemichordates (B) Urochordates

(C) Cephalochordates (D) All of these
Q.6 Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the
other three are correct? (CBSE PMT Mains 2011)
(A) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(B) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(C) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(D) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
Q.7 In some chordates, the notochord is modified as the vertebral column. Such animals are called
vertebrates. Which one of the following statements make sense? (Karnataka CET 2011)
(A) All chordates are vertebrates but all vertebrates are not chordates
(B) All vertebrates are chordates and all chordates are vertebrates
(C) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
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(D) Chordates are not vertebrates and vertebrates are not chordates
Q.8 Match the items in column I with column II and choose the correct alternatives. (Kerala PMT 2007)
Column I (Animal) Column II (Maximum life span)
I. Carp (a) 102 years
II. Cobra (b) 47 years
III. Turtle (c) 152 years
IV. Giant Tortoise (d) 28 years
V. Swan (e) 123 years
(A) I - b, II - d, III - e, IV - c, V - a
(B) I - a, II - d, Ill - c, IV - e, V - b
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(C) I - b, II - c, Ill - d, IV - e, V - a
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(D) I - a, II - c, Ill - b, IV - e, V - d
(E) I - c, II - d, III - e, IV - b, V - a
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Q.9 Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of the sub-phylum vertebrata?
(Kerala PMT 2007)
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(A) Dorsal tubular nerve cord

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(B) Ventral muscular heart

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(C) Presence of notochord in the adult

(D) Presence of kidneys
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(E) Two pairs of lateral appendages fins or limbs
Q.10 Which one of the following is correctly matched? (Kerala PMT 2007)
(A) Trygon - Monitor
(B) Ichthyopis - Crow
(C) Varanus - Stingray
(D) Corvus - Limbless amphibian
(E) Pristis - Sawfish
Q.11 Placoid (tooth-shaped) scales are found in (BHU 2008)

(A) Reptiles (B) Bony fishes (C) Cartilaginous fishes (D) Amphibians
6.81
Q.12 In Sharks, which one of the following is absent? (J&K CET 2008)
(A) Claspers (B) Placoid scales
(C) Cartilaginous endoskeleton (D) Air bladder
Q.13 Which of the following fish injures its prey? (AFMC 2008)
(A) Clarius (B) Gambusia (C) Heterpneustes (D) Salsa
Q.14 Which of the following has exoskeleton of scales and paired copulatory organs or penes?
(UPCPMT 2008)
(A) Sharks (B) Lizards (C) Urochordates (D) Urodela
Q.15 Sea horse is (Chhatisgarh PMT 2009)

(A) A bird (B) A mammal (C) An amphibian (D) A fish
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Q.16 Ampullae of Lorenzini are present in (DUMET 2009)
(A) Fish (B) Lizard
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(C) Frog (D) Rabbit
Q.17 Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises jawless fishes? (CBSE 2009)
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(A) Guppies and hag fishes (B) Mackerals and rohu

(C) Lampreys and eels (D) Lampreys and hag fishes
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Q.18 Connecting link between cartilaginous and bony fishes is (BHU 2009)
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(A) Catla (B) Chimaera (C) Protopterus (D) Torpedo
Q.19 Sharks and Rays belong to class (Chandigarh CET 2009)

(A) Osteichthyes (B) Chondrichthyes (C) Cyclostomata (D) Amphibian
Q.20 Which one is commonly known as flying fish? (HP PMT 2010)
(A) Betta (B) Exocoetus (C) Hippocampus (D) Pterophyllum
Q.21 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its characteristic feature without
any exception? (AIPMT (Prelims) 2011)
(A) Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with an incompletely divided ventricle
(B) Chordata : possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw
(C) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
(D) Mammalia : give birth to young ones
6.82
Q.22 What will you look for to identify the sex of the following? (AIPMT (Prelims) 2011)
(A) Male Frog — a copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb.
(B) Female cockroach — anal cesci
(C) Male Shark — Claspers born on pelvic fins
(D) Female Ascaris — Sharply curved posterior end
Q.23 Match list I with list II and choose the correct option. (Kerala PMT 2011)
List I List II
a. Pacific salmon fish 1. Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth
b. Nt = Noe rt
2. Breeds only once in lifetime
c. Oyster 3. Exponential growth
K —N
d. dN / dt = rN  4. A large number of small sized offspring
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
 K 
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(A) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2
(C) a - 3, b - 1, c - 4, d - 2
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(B) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
(D) a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1
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(E) a - 2, b - 4, c - 3, d - 1
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Q.24 Which of the following animals sows discontinuous distribution? (DUMET 2011)
(A) Green muscle (B) Bats (C) Lung fish (D) Pacific salmon
o
uj
Q.25 Consider the following four statements about certain desert animals such as Kangaroo rat;
I. They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
Ed
II. They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with
thick hairs
III. They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
IV. They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body tem perature
Which two of the above statements for such animals are true ? (DUMET 2011)
(A) II and III (B) III and I (C) I and II (D) II and IV
Q.26 Which one is commonly known as Saw fish? (HP PMT 2011)
(A) Bette (B) Exocoetus (C) Pristis (D) Trygon
Q.27 Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception
in it? (CBSE Mains PMT 2012)
(A) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
6.83
(B) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side
(C) All sponges are marine and have collared cells
(D) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing
Q.28 Jaw of shark contains (AMU 2012)

(A) Thecodont teeth (B) Aacrodont teeth
(C) Pleurodont teeth (D) None of these
Q.29 Pin rot of fish is caused by (West Bengal JEE 2012)

(A) Aeromonas (B) Pseudomonas (C) Branchiomyces (D) Xenoplylla
Q.30 Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated
against them? (CBSE Main PMT 2012)
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(A) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus — viviparity
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(B) Garden lizard and crocodile — three chambered heart
(C) Ascaris and Ancylostoma — metameric segmentation al
(D) Sea horse and flying fish — cold blooded (poikilothermal)
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ur
Q.31 In fish, Catla catla the specific name is identical with the generic name, thus it is an example of
(AMU 2012)
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(A) Antonym (B) Tautonym (C) Synonym (D) Homonym

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Q.32 In chondrichthyes, claspers are seen on (HP PMT 2012)

Ed
(A) Pelvic fins of male

(B) Pelvic fins of females
(C) Operculum of both sexes
(D) Around jaws
Q.33 Match the following (Kerala PMT 2007)

Column I Column II
I. Euplectella (a) Sea pen
II. Physalia (b) Pinworm
III. Pennatula (c) Venus flower basket
IV. Enterobius (d) Midwife toad
V. Alytes (e) Portuguese man of war
6.84
Choose the correct choice

(A) I - e, II - d, Ill - c, IV - b, V - a (B) I - e, II - c, Ill - d, IV - b, V - a
(C) I - d,.II - e, III - a, IV - b, V - c (D) I - c, II - e, III - a, IV - b, V - d
(E) I - b, II - a, III - c, IV - d, V – e
Q.34 The largest RBC’s have been seen in (Karnataka CET 2007)
(A) Elephant (B) Whale (C) Amphibia (D) Man
Q.35 Which of the following features is not common between newt and Hemidactylus? (UPCPMT 2009)
(A) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail
(B) Head with pair of eyes and tympanic membrane
(C) Trunk has 2 pairs of limbs for locomotion
(D) Heart is 3-chambered
.i n
Q.36 Which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly
matched?
n al (CBSE AIPMT 2011)
Genus Two characters Class/phylum

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(I) A tympanum represents ear

(A) Salamandra Amphibia
(ii) Fertilisation is external
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(i) Skin possesses hair

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(B) Pteropus Mammalia

(ii) Oviparous
Ed
(i) Cnidoblast
(C) Aurelia Coelenterata
(iii) Organ level of organization
(i) Body segmented
(D) Ascaris Annelida
(ii) Males and females distinct
Q.37 The number of cranial nerves in frog are (HP PMT 2012)
(A) Ten (B) Twelve (C) Twelve pairs (D) Ten pairs
Q.38 If the scales on the belly of a snake are small, but the tail is laterally compressed, then it is a
(Chhatisgarh 2009)
(A) Cobra (B) Viper (C) Sea snake (D) Krait
Q.39 Which one of the following indicates the reptilian ancestry of the birds? (CBSE PMT 2008)
(A) Four chambered heart
(B) Two special chambers, crop and giz zard in their digestive tract
6.85
(C) Eggs with a calcareous shell

(D) Scales on their hind limbs
Q.40 An animal which has both exoskeletal and endoskeletal structures is (Karnataka PMT 2009)
(A) Frog (B) Jelly fish (C) Fresh water mussel (D) Tortoise
Q.41 The sea snakes have (Haryana PMT 2009)

(A) Cylindrical tail (B) Dry horny scale at tail end
(C) Laterally compressed tail (D) Dorso-ventrally flattened tail
Q.42 The snake eating snake is (J&K CET 2009)

(A) Black cobra (B) King cobra (C) Rattle snake (D) Anaconda
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Q.43 Venom of viper affects (Manipal 2009)
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(A) Nervous system (B) Circulatory system
(C) Respiratory system
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(D) None of these
Q.44 Animals of which class are mostly terrestrial and their body is covered by dry and comified skin,
ur
epidermal scales or scutes? (HP PMT 2010)

(A) Ayes (B) Amphibia (C) Reptilia (D) Mammalia
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Q.45 Four chambered heart is characteristic of this poilkilotherm (HP PMT 2012)
Ed
(A) Psittacula (B) Hemidactylus (C) Pteropus (D) Crocodilus
Q.46 Renal portal system is absent in (BHU 2008)

(A) Reptiles (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles and Amphibians (D) Birds
Q.47 Which one of the following in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry? (CBSE 2008)
(A) Two special chambered crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
(B) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(C) Scales on their hind limbs
(D) Four chambered heart
Q.48 Which of the following is a flightless bird? (UP CPMT 2011)

(A) Ostrich (B) Emu (C) Kiwi (D) All of these
6.86
Q.49 Which one of the following is not Poikilother mous? (HP PMT 2011)
(A) Fishes (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles (D) Aves
Q.50 If a water body is contaminated with a toxicant, its biomagnification will be more marked in (AMU 2012)
(A) Water (B) Planktons (C) Small fishes (D) Birds
Q.51 What is common between Parrot, Platypus and Kangaroo? (CBSE PMT 2007)
(A) Functional post anal tail (B) Oviparity
(C) Homoiothermy (D) Toothless jaws
Q.52 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned. (CBSE PMT 2007)
(A) Periyar - Elephant
(B) Rann of Kutch - Wild Ass
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(C) Dachigam - National Park
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(D) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger al
Q.53 Species going to extinct due to low reproductive rate is (MP PMT 2007)
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(A) Lion (B) Bald eagle (C) Giant panda (D) Island species
Q.54 Indian rhinoceros are protected in (MP PMT 2007)

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(A) Gir Forest (B) Kaziranga National Park

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(C) Bandipur National Park (D) Ranthambore National Park

Ed
Q.55 Statement A : All Metatherian are placental mammals. (Karnataka CET 2007)
Statement B : All placental mammals have menstrual cycle.
(A) Statement A is true and statement B is false
(B) Statement B is true and statement A is false
(C) Both the statements A & B are true
(D) Both the statements A & B are false
Q.56 Longest loop of Henle is found in (UPCPMT 2007)

(A) Kangaroo rat (B) Opposum (C) Rhesus monkey (D) all of these
6.87
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 C Q.5 B Q.6 A
Q.7 A Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 A Q.11 A Q.12 C
Q.13 B Q.14 B Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 A Q.18 C
Q.19 C Q.20 D Q.21 C Q.22 A Q.23 C Q.24 D
Q.25 A Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 C Q.30 C
Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 B
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Q.37 A Q.38 A Q.39 B Q.40 C Q.41 B Q.42 D
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Q.43 D Q.44 B Q.45 C Q.46 D
al Q.47 A Q.48 C
Q.49 B Q.50 C Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 D Q.54 C
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Q.55 B Q.56 C Q.57 C Q.58 D Q.59 B Q.60 B
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Q.61 B Q.62 C Q.63 D Q.64 C Q.65 D Q.66 D

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Q.67 C Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 D Q.71 B Q.72 B

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Q.73 C Q.74 D Q.75 B Q.76 A Q.77 B Q.78 D

Q.79 D Q.80 D Q.81 C Q.82 C Q.83 A Q.84 B
Ed
Q.85 C Q.86 B Q.87 A Q.88 D Q.89 B Q.90 A

Q.91 B Q.92 B Q.93 C Q.94 C

Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 A Q.4 A Q.5 D Q.6 C
Q.7 C Q.8 A Q.9 C Q.10 E Q.11 C Q.12 D
Q.13 C Q.14 D Q.15 A Q.16 D Q.17 A Q.18 D
Q.19 B Q.20 A Q.21 B Q.22 B Q.23 C Q.24 C
6.88
Q.25 B Q.26 C Q.27 D Q.28 D Q.29 C Q.30 B

Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 D Q.34 B Q.35 A Q.36 D
Q.37 C Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 D Q.41 C Q.42 D
Q.43 D Q.44 D Q.45 C Q.46 B Q.47 B Q.48 C
Q.49 D Q.50 D Q.51 D Q.52 D Q.53 C Q.54 C
Q.55 C Q.56 B
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BIOLOGY
XI STD |VOL.III|Unit 3
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Cell: The Unit of Life

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Ed
10.1
CHAPTER 10
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CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
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Topics Discussed
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INTRODUCTION PLASTIDS
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A CELL RIBOSOMES
HISTORY RELATED TO CELL CYTOSKELETON
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CELL THEORIES CENTRIOLE

CELL SIZES CILIA AND FLAGELLA
CELL TYPES NUCLEUS
CELL WALL CHROMOSOME
CELL MEMBRANE
ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM
GOLGI COMPLEX
LYSOSOME
MICROBODIES
MITOCHONDRIA
10.2
1. Introduction
There is a huge diversity in all the organisms on the earth as studied in previous unit. Four million organisms
are present on earth including all the phylum and divisions. All these organisms have biological diversity in
terms of size, shape, structure and even functions.
Yet there are similarity among them in few of the basic functions. All living organisms are made up of a
common basic unit. After various research and study in this concept, scientist concluded that the basic
unit is the cell. The cell is a unit which makes, performs and activates several functions and activities of the
organism. Thus, they are termed as the basic functional and structural unit of the cell.
The cell is separated from the surrounding environment through a membrane. The cell has several functions,
abilities and organelles in it. This function and ability changes as the position or the organism changes.
Also the cell number changes per organism which is why some organisms are unicellular and some
multicellular. In unicellular organisms the cell performs all the functions and work of the organisms while in
multicellular one it is well developed and divided among the organisms body.
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Objectives of the chapter
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At the end of this chapter you will be able to:
y Elaborate a cell and its uniqueness.
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y Differentiate a cell as prokaryote or eukaryote.
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y Explain different cell organelles.
2. A Cell – What is it all about?

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A cell is a structure made up of several small units called organelles,

chemicals, molecules and liquids. These all constituents are present in
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it and work in a way to complete a particular function. The cell shape,

size and the constituents vary as per its position and function.
Cell defines an organism’s existence and its functions. Hence it is
called structural and functional unit of all the living organisms.
Lowey and Sikewitz defined a cell as “the unit of biological activity
container and nucleus that has the ability to reproduce or divide in a
medium free from other living organisms.
Figure 10.1: Diagram of a cell

Cytology ⇒ The science dedicated to the Study of Cell Structure.
Cell biology ⇒ The Study of all the structures and functions along with the reproduction of
the cell.
10.3
3. History of Cell Study

Various scientist all over the world discovered the cell along with its structure and functions. The major
highlights of the work as per the scientist is as follows:
y Robert Hook (1665) was an English botanist, first to name the term “Cell” in his book “Micrographia”.
He observed thin sections of cork (dead cells) under a compound microscope and found compartment
like divisions in a honey comb. Cells is a Latin word cellula which means a hollow space. Greek
word is cella = Small hollow space or Chamber.
y A. van Leeuwenhoek (1674) called as Animalculist as he was first to study a living cell (bacteria, RBC)
and called them as “Animalcule”.
y N. Grew (1682) proposed a concept for the cell. It explains how a cell is unit of structure for several
organisms.
y Robert Brown (1831) observed and reported the presence of nucleus in the root cells of orchids.
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y Dujardin (1836) observed a semifluid substance surrounding the nucleus in muscle cells and called
it as sarcode.
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y A cell has a nucleus which has living substance around it called as protoplasm. Purkinje (1839) found it
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in animal cell while Von Mohl in plant cell. Huxley called Protoplasm as physical basis of life.
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y Hammerling called nucleus as the brain of the cell or master or controlling centre of cell.
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4. Cell Theory
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The scientist who formulated and laid the cell theory are
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M. J. Schleiden (1838) - German Botanist

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T. Schwann (1839) - British Zoologist

y Matthias Schleiden studied and tested a large number of plants and observed that all plants are
composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant.
y Schwann studied several animal cells and marked a conclusion that all cells have a thin outer layer as
their limit or boundary which is presently known as the ‘plasma membrane’. He also studied plant tissues
and concluded that the cell wall is a unique character found in all the plant cells. Schwann proposed the
hypothesis from all his study that the cell, its products and its constituents form the bodies of animals
and plants.
y Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory. This theory, however, was incomplete
as it failed to explain the process of new cells formation. Rudolf Virchow (1855) first explained that the
cells are divided so as to form new cells from pre-existing cells (Omnis cellula-e cellula). He modified
Schleiden and Schwann theory and completed the cell theory.
Conclusions of the theory:
y All living organisms are made from cells.
10.4
y The cell thus is the unit of structure and function of cells.

y All cells have similar basic structure and function.
y Each cell has a membrane which separates it from the surrounding.
y An organism’s function are a result of cellular activities and interactions.
Exceptions of cell theory – As all theories have few left outs even this one has:
y Viruses are not included in the theory because viruses lack typical cell properties and organization.
y Bacteria and cyanobacteria lack an organized nucleus.
y There are cells that lack nucleus like RBC and sieve tubes.
y According to modern scientists, organisms that lack cellular basis like Monera and Protista,
Xanthophytes (Vaucheria) Phycomycetes (Rhizopus) are the exceptions of cell theory.
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Figure 10.2: Microscope used to view cork cells or any other cells
5. Diversity among the Cells

5.1 Cell Size
A cell has its limit for the size expansion. It has growing properties which can allow it to grow and
increase as much as it can. However there are limits to it. Thus each cell has its prior defined size limits.
The factors which set the limit of cell size or volume are:
y Nucleocytoplasmic or kemplasma ratio is the determining property for the area of control of metabolic
activities by nucleus.
y Metabolism rate.
y Ratio of surface area to the volume of the cell.
10.5
High Metabolic activities in cells give them smaller size as their higher nucleocytoplasmic ratio and higher
surface area to volume ratio does not allows to expand much. The nucleus has bigger size which allows
better control of metabolic activities. The high surface area to volume ratio allows quicker exchange of
materials that occur in the cell and its outside environment. Surface area to volume ratio decreases as the
cell size increases.
Cells show diversity in size, shape and their activities.
Following are few examples of cell sizes variations:
Longest cell : Nerve cells
Longest plant cell : Fibers of Ramie (Boehmeria nivea)
Largest isolated single cell : Ostrich egg
Smallest cell : Mycoplasma gallicepticum- 0.3 mm
Human RBC : 7.0 mm
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A B C
Figure 10.3: Cell sizes differ with types of cells. A. WBC, B. Egg and C. RBC
5.2. Cell Shape

Cells vary greatly in their shape as well. The cell can have shapes that are disc like, polygonal,
columnar cuboid, thread like or even irregular. The shape of the cell changes as per the function they
are destined to perform.
10.6
Figure 10.4: Various shapes of bacterial cell
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Insight of a cell
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Cells are like compartments. It is surrounded with a distinct plasma membrane or plasma lemma. It
forms a boundary around the cell protoplasm and thus prevent it from getting mixed and lost within the
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extracellular material (surrounding). The cell has an exhaustive different world in it which has certain
internal compartments called the organelles limited by membrane such as mitochondria, Golgi bodies,
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plastids, lysosomes, nucleus, etc. These membrane bound organelles help the cell to maintain the
separation among all the different chemical reactions occurring within the cell all the time. There are
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organelles which lack membrane around it like centrioles and ribosomes. The cells of bacteria and
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blue green algae (prokaryotes) do not have membrane bound organelles (one envelope system) hence, no
compartments. Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles.
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Type of Cells
There are differences among the cells as some have organelles while others lack them. They are: prokaryotic
cells and eukaryotic cells. This division is made on basis of the differences among major features: Cell
organelles (Compartmentalisation), Cytoskeletal structures and Organisation of nuclear material.
Table 10.1: Difference between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
Prokaryotic Cells Eukaryotic Cells
Cell wall is without cellulose (bacteria) or absent Cellulosic cell wall is present (Plants) or absent
(Mycoplasma). (Animals).
A prokaryotic cell has single membrane system. A eukaryotic cell has double membrane system.
Cell membrane does not has respiratory
Cell membrane includes respiratory enzymes.
enzymes.
Mesosomes are formed by inward folding of the cell
Lack Mesosomes.
membrane.
10.7
Cytoplasm shows many membrane-bound

Cytoplasm does not show presence of any membrane organelles like endoplasmic reticulum,
bound organelles. mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes,
glyoxysomes, peroxisome, etc.
Ribosomes are 80 S, can be free or bound to E.
Ribosomes are often free floating organelles with 70 S. R. and nuclear envelop. (70 S ribosomes are also
present within the mitochondria and chloroplast)
Streaming movements are absent of the cytoplasm. Cytoplasm has streaming movements (Cyclosis)
Photosynthetic lamellae i.e. thylakoids occur freely in Photosynthetic lamellae occur inside the
the cytoplasm (cyanobacteria) chloroplasts in plants.
Sap vacuoles are absent instead gas vacuoles may
Sap vacuoles are commonly present.
be present.
Transcription occurs in nucleus while translation
Transcription and translation occur in cytoplasm only.
occur in cytoplasm.
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Protein synthesis are often in the cytoplasm,
Protein synthesis occur in cytoplasm only.
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mitochondria and plastids.
al Cytoskeleton (microtubules, microfilaments and
Cytoskeleton is absent.
intermediate filaments) is present.
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Nuclear material is enclosed in the nuclear
Nuclear material lies directly in the cytoplasm called
envelop which creates nucleus a distinct
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as nucleoid.
organelle in the cytoplasm.
One or more nucleoli can occur within the
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There is no nucleolus.
nucleus.
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DNA is circular closed in the cytoplasm and without Nuclear DNA is in linear arrangement along with
histone core (Polyamines may be present instead) histone protein core.
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DNA occurs in the nucleus as well as in the

DNA occurs in the cytoplasm and plasmid.
mitochondria and chloroplasts.
The ratio of A + T / G + C in DNA is low, < 1 The ratio of A + T / G + C in DNA is high, > 1
The plasmids and pili are not present in eukaryotic
Plasmids and pili are common in prokaryotic cells.
cells.
Flagella (if present), are complex, have 9 + 2
Flagella are singlet fibers made up of a protein flagellin. pattern of microtubules which are made from
tubulin protein.
Mitotic spindle fibers are not formed in cell division Mitotic spindle fibers are formed during cell
(Amitotic). division.
Sexual reproduction is absent (recombination is
Sexual reproduction is common.
present in bacteria).
e.g., Algae other than blue-green algae, protists,
E.g., bacteria, blue-green algae and Mycoplasma.
fungi, plants and animals.
10.8
Table 10.2: Difference between Animal and Plant cell

Animal Cell Plant Cell
Cell wall is absent. Cells are enclosed in a thin Cells are covered by thick rigid, cellulosic cell
flexible living cell membrane. wall in addition to the cell membrane.
Chloroplasts and other plastids are generally
Chloroplasts and other plastids are present.
absent.
Golgi complex is present near nucleus and is Golgi complex is not free and present in the form
distinct, and well developed. of unconnected units called as dictyosomes.
Glyoxysomes are absent in all animal cells. Glyoxysomes may be present in plant seeds.
The large sap vacuole is present which pushes
Nucleus is centrally located in the cytoplasm.
the nucleus to the peripheral position.
Vacuoles are larger more which has a large
Some small sized food vacuoles and contractile
central sap vacuole. Lack Food vacuoles and
vacuoles may be present in cytoplasm.
contractile vacuoles.
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Centrioles and centrosome are absent.
Animal cell include centroids and centrosome in
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Centrosomes and contractile vacuoles are
cytoplasm.
Cell division has amphiastral spindle.
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however present in lower plants.
Cell division has anastral spindle.
Cytokinesis occurs through constriction or
Cytokinesis occurs through cell plate method.
furrowing.
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Figure 10.5: Structure of an animal cell

10.9
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Figure 10.6: Structure of a plant cell

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6. Prokaryotic Cells − Bacterium

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Antony Von Leeuwenhoek was first to discover bacteria from the teeth scum and stored rain water which
was called as wild animalcules. He called them as Dierkens. Later, Ehrenberg named it as Bacteria.
Se’Dillot called animalcules as microbes.
6.1 Occurrence
Prokaryotes are included in Kingdom Monera and thus are commonly called as Monerans.
The common ones are bacteria, cyanobacteria (Blue-green algae), mycoplasma or PPLO
(Pleuro-pneumonia like organisms), Spirochaetes and Rickettsiae.
Bacteria is the simplest and commonest type of organisms occurring all over in almost all habitats.
The habitat are diverse and varied, even found in the hot springs, beneath the icebergs, in intestine of
man, deep in the soil, deep in sea water, etc.
10.10
6.2 Size
y Bacteria have range of cell sizes.
y Smallest bacterium is Dialister (0.15 to0.3 µm in diameter).
y Largest bacterium is Spirochaetes (about 500 µm).
y Normally the size of Bacillus lies from 0.3 µm to 15 µm.
6.3 Shape
E. J. Cohn studied bacteria and identified the following four basic shapes of bacteria:
y Coccus: Spherical shaped bacteria. The cells can be Monococcus (single rounded) or diplococcus
(two rounded) or Tetracoccus (four rounded) or streptococcus (chain of cocci) or staphylococcus
(bunch of cocci) or Sarcina (eight-celled cubical mass).
y Bacillus: Rod shaped bacteria. The bacteria cells may be Monobacillus or Diplobacillus or
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Streptobacillus or Palisade (bacteria lying parallel to each other).
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y Spirillum: Spirally coiled and flagellated.
y Vibrio: Comma shaped and flagellated.
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Figure 10.7: Various cell shapes in bacteria

10.11
6.4 Basic Structure of a Bacterial Cell wall

6.4.1 Cell Envelop
The outermost covering of the cell which provides shape and rigidity.
It also protects the cell from major mechanical injuries and bursting or collapsing completely. Electron
microscope studies revealed that the cell envelop has three basic layers. Each layer has its own composition
and is specialized to carry out specific functions.
(i) Glycocalyx: It is the outermost layer. It has its chemical composition and thickness differing in
different bacteria. In most of bacteria e.g., Escherichia coli, the layer is in the form of a loose mucilaginous
covering called as the slimy layer. It protects the bacterium against desiccation, action of phagocytes and
helps in adhesion. However some bacteria have hard and tough covering which is called as capsule. It
resists phagocytosis and also incorporates virulence to them.
(ii) Cell wall: Middle layer below Glycocalyx is rigid, protective and supportive in function. E. coli and
other Gram negative bacteria have two layered cell wall: inner layer made up of murein or peptidoglycan
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which consists of polysaccharides (like acetyl glucosamine - NAG and acetyl muramic acid - NAM) and a
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tetra peptide. The outer layer consists of glycolipids. Gram positive bacteria have single layered cell
categories Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.

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wall which is made up of mainly murein. The difference of cell wall composition divides bacteria into two
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Figure 10.8: Cell wall arrangement in plants

10.12
Table 10.3: Difference between Gram Positive and Gram Negative bacteria
Characters Gram Positive Gram Negative
Staining ability Absorb Gram stain and appear Do not absorb Gram stain.
purple colored.
Cell wall Monolayer (mainly of murein) Two layered - Outer of glycolipids
and inner of murein.
Thickness of cell wall 100–200 Å so is thicker. 70–120 Å so is thinner.
Murein percentage 70%–80% 10%–20% only.
Lipids quantity Less. More
Mesosomes Present Absent.
Pili Absent. Present.
Examples Diplococcus pneumoniae. E coli.
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Figure 10.9 (A): Structure of cell membrane in Gram positive bacteria

10.13
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Figure 10.9 (B): Structure of cell membrane in Gram negative bacteria
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(iii) Plasma membrane: The innermost layer is made up of cell envelop. It is thin, transparent layer which
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is a semipermeable membrane. It has lipoproteins and trilaminar layer (3-layers) similar to eukaryotes.
It has components and enzymes that are involved in respiration and thus the layer is called as respiratory
membrane. It regulates the movement through the membrane of specific materials between the cytoplasm
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and extracellular medium. The membrane has certain receptor molecules that detect and respond to the
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chemicals helping the bacteria to survive.

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Figure 10.10: Structure of cell membrane

10.14
Mesosomes and Chromatophores

Mesosomes: Characteristic features of prokaryotes. The plasma membrane infolds itself in only Gram
positive and may be in the form of vesicles or tubules or lamellae. The membrane is helpful to bacteria in.
In DNA replication and its separation during cell division into daughter cells; increase the surface area
for respiration; in cellular secretion which perform like the Golgi body in eukaryotes and in cell wall
construction.
Chromatophores: Internal membrane systems that help in increasing the surface area for efficient
enzymatic activity and metabolic rate. In cyanobacterial cells, the chromatophores have pigments for
photosynthesis.
6.4.2 Flagellation
The bacterial cell surface show one or more thread-like structures extending outwards from the cell
membrane which are called as flagella. Each flagellum is made up of single strand i.e. monofibrillar. The
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strand consists of flagellin protein. Flagella has a shaft or basal body, hook and longest part a filament.
The major function is locomotion of the bacteria.
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Flagella number changes in each bacteria and thus the bacteria are of following types:
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Figure 10.11: Structure of a flagella
i. Atrichous: Flagellum is absent.

ii. Monotrichous: Presence of single flagellum at one end.
iii. Amphitrichous: Presence of two flagella, one at each end.
iv. Cephalotrichous: Two groups of flagella, one at each end.
v. Peritrichous: Several flagella distributed throughout the membrane of the bacterium.
10.15
6.4.3 Pili / Fimbriae

Certain bacteria e.g., Escherichia coli, also have minute hair-like, small and thin structures called as
fimbriae or long tubular structures called as pili. Pili is made from pilin protein. In male E. coli these pili are
called as sex pili as the pili helps in the attachment with the female bacterium during sexual reproduction
(conjugation). Fimbriae help in adhesion of the bacteria to the rocky substratum or to the host’s tissues.
Table 10.4: Difference between Fimbriae and Pili
Characters Fimbriae Pili
Occurrence Both Gram negative and Gram positive Only in Gram negative bacteria
bacteria
Number More, 300-400 per cell Less, 1-4 per cell
Size Shorter and narrow Longer and broader
Function In adhesion In conjugation
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6.5 Cytoplasm
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Colourless, translucent and viscous (jelly) ground substance which is present inside the cell envelop all
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over. There are reserve food materials (glycogen and lipids) along with 70 S ribosomes. The ribosomes
can be free flowing or arranged as helical series on the signal mRNA (active) strand majorly during
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protein synthesis, which is called as polyribosomes or polysome. There are membrane bounded cell
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organelles like the mitochondria, E R, Golgi apparatus, plastids, lysosomes, etc. are altogether absent in
prokaryotes completely. Cytoplasm has few non-living structures which are called as inclusion bodies
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e.g., reserve food, phosphate granules, etc. The inclusion bodies of cyanobacteria have cyanophycean
granules, glycogen granules and gas vacuoles.
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Figure 10.12: Bacterial cell structure

10.16
6.5.1 Nucleoid
Representative of the incipient nucleus in the prokaryotes. The single and circular chromosome that have no
free ends and is a double-stranded DNA without histone proteins. Also termed as genophore or prokaryon.
This circular DNA is super looped and coiled in presence of nucleoid proteins. However, it does not have
nucleoplasm, nucleolus and nuclear membrane.
Some bacteria e.g., Escherichia coli, there are extra chromosomal circular DNA molecules, called as
plasmids. Each plasmid is made up of few thousand genes, which are not required for the cells basic
functions and thus act as extra-nuclear genetic material. The plasmid DNA incorporates peculiar
phenotypic characters e.g., Fertility or sexuality factor, antibiotic resistance, virulence, etc.
DID YOU KNOW

y There are prokaryotes which lack cell wall e.g., Mycoplasma.
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y Gas vacuoles: The gas-filled structures in the cytoplasm of cyanobacteria, purple
and green photosynthetic bacteria. These structures provide buoyancy and help the
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bacteria for floating on water surface.
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? y Plasmid of male bacterium e.g. E. coli has fertility factor gene which is called
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as F-positive bacteria. This cell acts as donor cell during sexual reproduction
(conjugation) with the F factor.
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y Episome: When plasmid associates with the nucleoid of bacterium.

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y Gram stain is crystal violet which gives it violet colour. Iodine treatment acts as
mordant on Gram negative turning it pink.
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y Tetrapeptide of murein is composed of four amino acids: D-Alanine, L-Alanine,

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D-Glutamic acid and L-Lysine.
7. Eukaryotic Cells
7.1 Occurrence
The cells make up the protists, plants, animals and fungi. The structure have eukaryotic cellular
organisation different from the prokaryotic cellular organisation with respect to several factors.
7.2 Protoplasm
The cell has cell wall or membrane which encloses living substance inside it. The protoplasm makes it
possible for life to exist. All living cell has protoplasm which performs all vital functions of the cell.
J. Huxley defined it as ‘physical basis of life’.
Max Schultz (1861) established a protoplasmic theory which explains the protoplasm present in all the
cells which play crucial role in cell’s functioning and existence.
10.17
7.3 Cell Wall

y Robert Hook discovered Cell wall.
y Plant cell has outer most layer dead and permeable boundary called as cell wall.
y Plant cell wall consists of cellulose, hemicelluloses, pectins and proteins.
y Algae cell wall is made up of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate.
Table 10.5: Various Layers in a Cell wall

Cell wall
Primary wall Secondary wall Tertiary wall Middle lamella
Outermost layer is thin Rigid and thick (absent Thin and elastic Common layer
and elastic in meristematic cells) Present only in trachieds of between two cells
Disintegrates as cell Formation is called as Gymnosperms Cementing layer
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matures and is capable accretion or apposition Hemi cellulose and xylan is formed during
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of growth Matrix is present present in cell wall cytokinesis
Permanent in
parenchyma and
Suberin and lignin are
deposited
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Mg pectates
meristem
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y Cellulose, microfibril and macrofibrils are arranged in layers so that they form skeleton of cell wall. There
are pectin and hemicellulose in between these layers that form matrix of the cell wall.
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35-100 cellulose chain = 1 micelle/elementary fibril

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O 20 micelle= 1 Microfibril
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O 250 micro fibril = 1 Microfibril in cell wall (rarely form)

y Cell wall substances (cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, and lignin) are synthesized in the cell of plant
Golgi bodies or dictyosomes.
y Lipids (cutin and suberin) are synthesized in the sphaerosome.
y Martinez and Paloma (1970) discovered the cell coat in animal cells, which is now called as Glycocalyx.
[Made by sialic acid, mucin and hyaluronic acid (animal cement)].
10.18
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Ultrastructure of cell wall
Cell wall has three main parts:
y Matrix
y Microfibrils and
y Depositions
Matrix: Matrix consists of:
O Water: forms the dispersion or fluid medium.
O Pectin: forms the colloidal complex and determines the cell wall hydration.
O Hemicellulose: binds microfibrils to the matrix.
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O Glycoproteins: control the orientation or location of microfibrils.
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O Lipid and Protein: are also present in the matrix.
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Microfibrils: These are structural or skeleton elements of cell wall made of cellulose (plants)
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or chitin (fungi).
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y Deposition on cell wall:

O Lignin: special hydrophobic substance which gets deposited mainly in xylem cells
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and sclerenchyma, and makes them hard. However, the lignified wall allows the water
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exchange.
Suberin: complicated mixture of fatty acids that are deposited on cork cells and
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O
endodermis cells in plants (casparian strips)
O Cutin: wax-like fatty substance in the form of cuticle gets deposited on the epidermal
cells and reduces the loss of water. Cuticle amount changes with environment as: is
very thick in xerophytes, thin in mesophytes and absent in hydrophytes.
O Silica: In some cases of plants, sand or silica particles gets deposited on the cell wall
and gives it a rough touch e.g., Equisetum and grasses.
O Non-siliceous minerals: Iron and calcium found in Chara.
10.19
Intracellular spaces: Young cells are closely or compactly packed with no intracellular spaces.
However, mature cells have certain spaces (cavities) produced among them, which are of
3 types:
O Schizogenous cavities: the cell walls separate from each other in mature adjacent
cells, and form a cavity in the tissue, E.g., resin canal in Pinus.
O Lysigenous cavities: formed from the breakdown (dissolution) of the cell walls,
E.g., oil cavities in Citrus fruit rind.
O Schizo-lysigenous cavities: Both the above types are compiled here together,
E.g., protoxylem water canals of maize stem.
y Cell wall formation takes place by two methods:
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O Intussusceptions – The deposition of cell wall material in the form of fine grains.
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O Apposition – Deposition of layers and not grains.
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Primary wall is formed with intussusceptions. The secondary wall is formed from both the
methods. Cell wall which is already constructed grows only by intussusceptions.
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O A Special protein called as expansin helps in growth of cell wall. Growth occurs by losing the
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cellulose microfibril and addition of the new cell wall material. Thus, expansin is also called as
“cell wall loosening factor”.
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y Plasmodesmata – Strasburger proposed the name (1901). The cytoplasmic connections between
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the two adjacent plant cells. Plasmodesmata are characteristic feature of multi-cellular plants and
also maintain the continuity of cytoplasm among the adjacent cells. E.R. tubules (Desmotubules)
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helps in the formation of continuity.

Specializations of cell wall –
y Lignification – Lignin is a cellulose derivative carbohydrate which deposits on walls of sclerenchyma,
vessels and tracheids. Lignin is impermeable to water which is the reason for cell death during lignification.
y Pits – The lignified cell wall has pits. There are deposition of lignin which is throughout the cell
wall. There are areas left without pits that are small thin walled called as the pits. Pits form in pairs
on the adjacent cell walls. The two pits in a pair have a thin membrane for separation called as pit
membrane (completely permeable) (initially composed of middle lamella and primary wall). However,
after a while the primary wall may dissolve. There are two types of pit pairs –
O Simple pits – When the pit cavity diameter is uniform throughout its length the pits are called
as simple pits.
O Bordered pits – When the pit cavity diameter increases from inside to outside then such pits are
called as Bordered pits. The pit membrane has a thickening, which is made of suberin called as
Torus.
10.20
y Suberisation – Suberin is strictly impermeable to water and air. Thus Suberisation leads to death of
the cell. Suberisation is common in middle lamella. e.g. Cork
y Cutinisation – Cutin is also hydrophobic and is a waxy substance. Cutinisation is the process of deposition
of cutin on cell walls. It reduces the transpiration rate in plants as it occurs on leaf epidermis.
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Figure 10.13: Structure of Pits

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Table 10.6: Difference between Primary and Secondary wall of pits

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Primary wall Secondary wall

Cellulose microfibrils are arranged in a dispersed Microfibrils are well arranged (Compact)
manner Hemicelluloses are less
Hemicelluloses are more Proteins and lipids either absent or present in less
Primary wall have lipids and proteins amounts
Forms by intussusceptions only By both the methods
Primary cell wall is the universal layer Absent in meristem cells
y Functions of cell wall
O Cell wall gives the cell its shape
O Protective against mechanical damage and infection
O Allows cell-to-cell interaction
O Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
10.21
7.4 Biomembranes or Cell Membranes

y Living cells have thin, delicate, elastic, selectively permeable and living boundary or cover called as the
cell membrane (by Nageli and Cramer) or plasma lemma (By J. Q. Plower) or bio membrane or plasma
membrane.
7.4.1 Structure of Biomembranes

Sandwich or Trilamellar model – proposed by Davson and Danielli (1935).
y The plasma membrane includes three layers: a bimolecular layer of lipid is sandwiched between two
layers of proteins.
y Each protein layer is 20 Å while phospholipid bilayer is 35 Å. Thus the total thickness of the membrane
is 75Å (PLLP- structure, 75-100 Å average)
y Phospholipid molecule is also called as amphipathic molecule as it has two different parts: hydrophilic
n
(polar head) and hydrophobic (nonpolar tail).
.i
y Hydrophilic head binds with the protein layer through hydrogen and ionic bonds.
al
y Hydrophobic tail are attached with the Vander wall forces.
n
Unit membrane model – proposed by Robertson -1959
ur
y All the cellular and organelle membranes have similar structure and function (difference in chemical
and size). All the above models fail to explain the cell wall Fluidity and selective permeability which is
o
why they are not accepted all over.

uj
Fluid mosaic model: Singer and Nicolson (1972)

Ed
y Chemical studies in human red blood cell membrane (RBCs), revealed the possible structure of the
plasma membrane.
y The most widely accepted model as the structure of plasmalemma is well explained.
y Proteins are present in the phospholipid layer in the mosaic pattern.
y Thus, membrane is termed as protein iceberg in a sea of phospholipid.
(i) Phospholipids
O Phospholipid is the main component as it gives continuous structural frame to the cell membrane.
O Phospholipid layer allows plasma membrane to be flexible or elastic because phospholipids

have high unsaturated fatty acid content which are liquid in nature.
O The lipids have polar heads facing outer sides and the hydrophobic tails facing inner parts. The
aqueous environment does not affect the cell membrane.
10.22
O Cholesterol (type of lipid) is found in plasma membrane. Cholesterol are more rigid in nature
than phospholipids which helps in the membrane stability (quasifluid nature)
O The fluid nature of the membrane is important as it helps in various functions like cell growth,
formation of intercellular junctions, secretion, endocytosis, cell division etc.
O Hopanoids instead of cholesterol provide stability to prokaryotic cell membrane.
(ii) Proteins
O The proteins are of two types depending on the process of extraction.
a. Integral or intrinsic protein:
O Tightly binds with phospholipid and are not released easily from the membrane.
O Intrinsic proteins are completely embedded, partially embedded
O Completely embedded intrinsic proteins are also termed as transmembrane proteins that act like
n
porins, tunnel or channel proteins and pump proteins.
.i
b. Peripheral or extrinsic protein:
O
O
n al
Superficially arranged on the surface thus leave the membrane easily.
Spectrin are helical extrinsic protein found on membrane cytosolic face and attached to intrinsic
protein. Spectrins are part of cytoskeleton.
o ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
uj
Chemical composition of plasma membrane: The plasma membrane chiefly consists

Ed
of proteins and lipids. The percentage such components varies in different cells
(E.g., human erythrocyte has approximately 52% protein and 40% lipids.), yet an average
value is:
y Proteins: 20% −70%
y Lipids: 20% −78%
y Carbohydrates: 1% −5%
y Enzymes: About 30 enzymes are present
y Water: 20% of its total weight
10.23
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Proteins: 20%−70%, these can be classified on extraction processes as integral and
peripheral. Peripheral proteins are present on the outer surface, while integral proteins are
partially or totally buried in the membrane from inner membrane to outside. On the basis of
functions the proteins can be of three types:
O Structural proteins: Form the cell membrane back bone.
O Carrier proteins: Help in exchange of substances across the membrane.
O Enzymes: Are catalytic proteins.
y Lipids: 20%−79%, the common types of lipids are lecithin and cephalin (phospholipid),
cholesterol and galactolipids in the membrane. Lipids have the flip-flop movements.
y Carbohydrates: 1%−5%, the most ones are the hexose, hexosamine and fructose. The
n
sialic acid are like glycolipids.
.i
(iii) Transport through plasma membrane
O
al
Most important functions are the transport of the molecules across it. The membrane is selectively
n
permeable to molecules which the cell requires and are present on inner as well as outer sides of
ur
the membrane. Thus, it is called as semipermeable membrane.

There are molecules that can move across the membrane without any requirement of energy by
o
O
the process called as the passive transport.
uj
O Neutral solutes travel across the membrane through simple diffusion dependent on the
concentration gradient, i.e., from higher concentration to the lower. The process called as
Ed
diffusion.
O Water moves with same process across this membrane (from higher to lower concentration).
Movement of water is called as osmosis.
O Apart from these non-polar molecules, there are polar molecules as well which, fail to pass
through the non-polar lipid bilayer, there are carrier proteins in the membrane to facilitate the
transport across the membrane.
O A few molecules move across the membrane against concentration gradient, i.e., from lower to the
higher concentration. The transport is facilitated with an energy dependent process, where ATP is
utilized. The process is called as active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ Pump.
(iv) Endocytosis
O Pinocytosis or Cell Drinking: Plasma membrane intakes liquid material in the form of vesicles
or alike bag structures i.e. Pinosome is called as pinocytosis.
O Phagocytosis or Cell eating: Plasma membrane ingests solid complex materials in the form
of vesicles i.e. Phagosome is called as Phagocytosis.
10.24
(v) Exocytosis / Emeiocytosis / Cell vomiting / Reverse pinocytosis

O Plasma membrane excretes waste materials from the cell to outside.
7.5 Cytoplasm
y Strasburger termed “Cytoplasm”, for the cell portion which includes the nucleus and cell organelles.
Cytoplasm has two parts:
O Ground plasm / Hyaloplasm / Cytosol: Only the Liquid matrix of cytoplasm
O Trophoplasm: All the organelles along with the non-living inclusions (Deutoplasm).
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
A B
Figure 10.14: Comparison of A. Animal cell and B. Plant cell
7.6 Cell Organelles

y The Metabolically active permanent and the living structures present in the cytoplasm are called as
organelles.
Endomembrane System
y The membranous organelles in a cell are different in its structure and function. Yet they are considered
similar called as an endomembrane system as their functions are inter related and coordinated.
y The endomembrane system in a cell have endoplasmic reticulum (ER), Golgi complex, lysosomes
and vacuoles. However, the functions of mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes are not in
relation with the above components, they are not part of the endomembrane system.
10.25
7.6.1 Endoplasmic Reticulum

y Grainer discovered ER, however, the details were described by Porter, Claude and Fullam. It is absent
in prokaryotes while present in eukaryotes.
y It includes followin`g parts:
O Cisternae – Narrow, long, flattened, double layered and unbranched units which are arranged in
stacks. They lie close to nucleus, interconnected, have 40−50 µm.
O Vesicles – Oval, scattered in cytoplasm, are membrane bound structures with 25−500 µm.
O Tubules – Irregular, tubular, membrane bounded, present near the cell membrane. Tubules may
be free or in association with cisternae.
y ER is termed as “System of Membranes” and attached with nuclear membrane and plasma membrane.
y ER divides the intracellular space into the two distinct compartments namely luminal (inside ER) and
extra luminal (outside ER in the Cytoplasm) compartments. This division is essential for cellular life
n
which ensures proper functioning of it.
.i
Table 10.7: Difference between Rough and Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
Rough ER (Granular)
n al Smooth ER (Agranular)
80s ribosomes are present on the surface. Ribosomes are completely absent.
ur
Mainly made up of cisternae. Mainly made up of tubules.
Abundantly in actively growing cells that are Abundantly present in cells with lipid synthesis in
o
engaged in protein synthesis and secretion. animal cell steroid hormones are synthesized in SER.
uj
y Microsomes – Fragmentation and high speed centrifugation of the cell yields E.R. part that are associated
Ed
ribosomal particles. Living cell otherwise does not has this parts. Scientists use microsome for the
study of in vitro protein synthesis.
y Functions of ER are as follows:
O Protein and lipid synthesis.
O Mechanical support ER along with microfilaments, microtubules are the endoskeleton of a cell.
O Intracellular exchange ER makes a conducting system inside the cell. Also transports materials
from one place to another.
O ER is attached at some places to plasma membrane thus ER can secrete materials outside the cell.
O Smooth ER plays a role in the glycogen synthesis.
O Detoxification smooth ER concerned with detoxification of drugs and steroids.
O Cytochrome P450 present in ER function like an enzyme in detoxification of cell.
O Cellular metabolism ER membranes in a cytoplasm provide an increased surface for metabolic
activities.
10.26
O Nuclear membrane development in telophase while the cell is dividing.

O Golgi-body and micro-bodies formation.
.i n
n al
Figure 10.15: Structure of endoplasmic reticulum and nuclear envelope
ur
7.6.2 Golgi Apparatus

o
y Camilla Golgi observed Golgi (1898) in the nerve cells of barn owl. He called it as “internal reticular
uj
apparatus”.
Golgi apparatus is also named as Golgi body / Golgi complex, Lipochondria (rich in lipids) and Idiosome
Ed
y
(plant Golgi body)
y Number of Golgi body - absent in prokaryotes; several in eukaryotes, located near the nucleus.
y The cytoplasm around the Golgi body lacks any other organelles. It is called as Golgi ground
substance or Zone of Exclusion.
y Golgi bodies are pleomorphic organelles as the components of Golgi body change in structure and
shape in different cells.
Structure of Golgi Body is:
y Cisternae – Unbranched, flat disc like saccules. 4–8 saccules arranged in a stack like structure that are
elongated two layered flat and curved in middle with swollen ends. The diameter is 0.5 µm to 1.0 µm. the
dense opaque material inside the cisternae is called as Nodes.
O Cisternae has a convex surface facing towards the nucleus called as cis face or forming face.
O Cisternae has a concave surface facing towards the cell membrane called as trans face or maturing
face.
O Cis and trans faces are entirely different, but interconnected.
10.27
y Tubules – Branched and irregular tubules that are associated with the cisternae.
y Vesicles – Spherical structures from the tubules that have originated through budding. Vesicles have
secretory materials.
Functions of Golgi bodies:
y Packaging and Secretion of materials – Major function is secretion (export) of macromolecules post
packaging. It involves:
O ER transports materials to Golgi body through the cis face (Golgi apparatus is in close association
with the ER).
O Chemically modified as glycoproteins and glycolipids.
O Materials are packed in the vesicles. Then the vesicles from the Trans face are pinched off, and
then delivered either in the cell or secreted outside the cell.
O All the macromolecules that is secreted outside the cell, have to move through the Golgi body. So
n
Golgi body is termed as “principal director of macromolecular traffic in cell” or middle men
of cell.
.i
al
y Formation of Lysosome – Collective function of Golgi body and ER
y Cell wall material synthesis (polysaccharide synthesis).
n
y Cell plate formation (Phragmoplast) in the new cell formation.
ur
y Formation of acrosome during spermiogenesis in male gametes.

y Formation of Vitelline membrane of egg
o
y Endocrine glands that secrete hormones is mediated through the Golgi bodies.
uj
Ed
Figure 10.16: Structure of Golgi body

10.28
7.6.3 Lysosome
y Spherical bag like structures that has a single unit membrane.
y Lysosomes have different type of digestive hydrolytic enzymes are termed as acid hydrolases.
(lipases, proteases, carbohydrases, nucleases)
y This acid hydrolyses its function in acidic medium (pH 5). Lysosome membrane has an active H+ pump
mechanism. This mechanism produces acidic pH in lumen or stomach of lysosome.
y Lysosomes have polymorphic structures.
Different forms of Lysosomes:
y Primary lysosomes or storage granules – lysosomes store inactive Acid Hydrolases. These are the
new lysosomes.
y Digestive vacuoles or heterophagosomes – The fusion of primary lysosomes and phagosomes
n
produces secondary Lysosomes called as digestive vacuoles.
.i
y Residual bodies – Lysosomes with the undigested material are called as residual bodies. These bodies
are eliminated through exocytosis and are called as Telo lysosomes. (Tertiary lysosomes)
al
y Autophagic lysosomes or Cyto lysosomes or auto phagosomes – Lysosomes with the dead cell
n
organelles that are to be digested in the cell are called as Auto phagosomes.
ur
Functions:
o
y Intracellular digestion
uj
O Heterophagy – Foreign materials that enter the cell are digested through a process called as
phagocytosis and pinocytosis
Ed
O Autophagy – Old or dead cell organelles are digested in the cell. Autophagy also takes place
during starvation of cell.
y Extracellular digestion
O Lysosomes of osteoclast called as bone eating cells, dissolve the unwanted part of bones.
y Autolysis – The cell has its life like all living organisms which are destined to death. All lysosomes of a
cell sometimes burst such that the cell is dissolved completely. Old cells, unwanted organs of embryo
in the body die through autolysis. Cathepsin of lysosome dissolves the tadpole tail of frog during its
metamorphosis. Thus, lysosomes are called as suicidal bags of cell.
O Stabilizers are chemicals, which stabilize the membrane of the lysosome to stop its rupture. This
process prevents Autolysis and cell death. E.g. cholesterol, chloroquine etc.
O Labilizers are chemicals which increase the fragile nature of lysosome membrane and increase
the autolysis possibility, E.g. Progesterone, testosterone, Vitamin A, D, E, K, U, V. radiations, bile
salts etc.
10.29
O Biogenesis of lysosome – Lysosomes originates from GERL – (Golgi associated Endoplasmic

Reticulum: the area for Lysosomes to arise).
ER → Golgi body → Lysosome
y Vacuoles are the single membrane bound organelles called as tonoplast.
y Vacuoles are absent in animal cells and in plants the meristematic cells lack it while permanent tissue
have well developed vacuoles. The vacuoles can increase in size of upto 90 percent volume of the cell
in plants.
y The vacuole has a non-living fluid called as the Cell Sap. It can have few water soluble pigments like
Anthocyanin (blue or violet), Anthoclor (yellow) etc. Best known is β cyanin in beet root cells.
y Water and excretory material storage are major functions.
y Amoeba has the contractile vacuole which is important for excretion. In many cells, as in protists, food
vacuoles engulf the food particles which initiates their formation.
n
7.6.4 Mitochondria (Singular: Mitochondrion)
.i
y Mitochondria: Kolliker discovered it in the voluntary muscles.
al
y These are present in all eukaryotes and absent in mammalian RBC and prokaryotes.
n
y The shape is not constant and is variable, can be granular, fibrillary, spherical, cylindrical as sausage or
ur
discoidal.
The size is dependent on the metabolic activeness of the cell. Diameter ranges from 0.2–1.0 µm
o
y
(average 0.5 µm) and Length 1.0–4.1 µm.
uj
y The number ranges from 1000–1600 per cell which is variable and dependent on the physiological
Ed
activity of the cells.
Figure 10.17: Structure of mitochondria

10.30
DID YOU KNOW

Mitochondria is also called as
?
y Power house of cell or ATP-mill in a cell
y Cell furnaces or storage batteries
y Cell within a cell
y Most busy and active organelle in a cell
y Double membranous covering. The phospholipids and cholesterol are high in outer membrane and
low in inner membrane. Protein content is high in the inner membrane and porins are present in outer
membrane for the exchange.
y The membranes have 60–75 Å thickness and are separated with 80−100 Å space called as the peri
n
mitochondrial space (outer compartment). The space has good amount of enzymes that are required
.i
for the oxidation of fats.
y
n al
The outer membrane of mitochondria when removed, then the structure left is called as mitoplast.
y Inner membrane shows several folded finger like structures facing inwards called as cristae. This
cristae increases the surface area. Fungal cristae are plate like while Euglenal cristae are vesicle
ur
shaped. There is intra-cistral space which is continuous outer membrane.

o
y Inner membrane has studded pin head particles which are called as oxysomes or elementary particles
or F1 – F0 particles or ATPase or ATP synthase. The main function is Oxidative phosphorylation in
uj
respiration which produces ATP. (104 to 106 in number per mitochondria). These particles were first
Ed
described by Fernandez Moran (1962).

y Space enclosed by inner membrane is called as Matrix. Mitochondrial matrix are energy produces as
they have all the enzymes essential for Krebs cycle (Aerobic respiration). Also the matrix have its own
complete protein synthesis apparatus (70s Ribosome, DNA and RNA). Thus mitochondria are called
as semi-autonomous cell organelles. Some proteins required by the mitochondria are self-synthesized,
while others are synthesized from nuclear DNA.
10.31
.i n
al
Figure 10.18: Structure of inner membrane of Mitochondria and F particle on it
n
ur
y DNA is double stranded circular and naked in mitochondrial matrix.

Function of mitochondria: ATP production in Aerobic respiration and in Krebs cycle. Thus produce heat
o
required by the cell for its survival (thermogenesis).

uj
y Biogenesis of mitochondria – New cells arise from existing ones.

Ed
y Endosymbiosis origin from Purple Sulphur bacteria or any prokaryotic cells, as the eukaryotic
mitochondria are similar to prokaryotic cell in ways-
O Structure of DNA and DNA sequences.
O Type of ribosome (70s).
O Divide by amitosis or fission.
10.32
DID YOU KNOW

y The number of mitochondria is variable in the cell depending on the physiological
activity.
O A single mitochondria is present in the primitive eukaryotes (e.g., Chlorella,
Microasterias).
O 25 in sperms
300–400 in kidneys cells
?
O
O 500–1000 in liver cells

O 50,000 in giant Amoeba Chaos chaos.
O 140,000–150,000 in eggs of Sea urchin
n
O 5,00,000 in fight muscles cells.
.i
y Green plant cells having chloroplasts often contain lesser number of mitochondria
al
as compared to non-green plant cells and animals cells. Dormant and inactive
cells possess fewer mitochondria. All mitochondria of a cell are collectively called
n
chondriome.
ur
7.6.5 Plastids
o
y Plastids are called by this name by Haeckel.

uj
y They are present in all the plant cells and Euglenoids.

Ed
Types of Plastids
The major basis are its presence and types of pigments in it.
y Chromoplasts: They contain different fat soluble pigment types (carotenes, Xanthophylls etc.).
Chlorophylls are either absent or few present.
O Chromoplasts are mainly present in the pericarp and petals of flowers, fruits. E.g. Red colour
of chillies and red tomatoes have red pigment “Lycopene” of chromoplasts. Lycopene is a
pigment included in carotene. Yellowish orange colour of fruits are incorporated as they have
α-carotene, β-carotene and γ-carotene. Richest source of β-carotene are carrot which is a
precursor of vitamin-A.
y Chloroplasts: Green coloured plastids that have chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments.
y Leucoplasts (Colourless plastids): Food storing organelles in different forms. E.g. starch (Amyloplasts),
fat and oil (Elaioplasts) and protein (Aleuroplasts). Pigments and lamellar structure is absent. Non green
plant cells contain it.
10.33
O Different types of plastids can interchange their forms from one form to another as the genetic
material in all the leucoplasts are similar. However, chromoplasts are never transformed to
chloroplasts. E.g. Tomato, Chilly etc.
.i n
Figure 10.19: Structure of chloroplasts
Structure of Chloroplast
n al
y Double membranous cell organelle.
ur
y 20–40 chloroplast in mesophyll cell of higher plants. Chlamydomonas have one Chloroplast per cell.
y Outer membrane is more permeable than inner membrane as it has porins.
o
y It contains stroma and grana (thylakoids or lamellae). Stroma is similar to cytoplasm part and it contains
uj
circular DNA, RNA, 70-s Ribosomes, and starch grains, enzymes of Calvin cycle or dark reaction of
Ed
photosynthesis. Stroma also has enzymes to synthesize proteins and carbohydrates.

y Thylakoids are membranous flattened sacs placed one above the other like stacks called as granum
(Plural grana). 40–60 granum is present in a chloroplasts.
y Fret channel or stromal thylakoids or stroma lamellae is the linking of the two granum. The photosynthetic
functional unit, with 230 to 400 various pigment molecules is called as Quantasomes.
y Quantasomes or photosystem are present in the thylakoid membranes that bear Photosynthetic
pigments (chlorophylls).
y Thylakoid membrane encloses a space called as Lumen.
y Chloroplasts have their own genetic system along with the complete protein synthetic set (ds-DNA, RNA,
Ribosomes, enzymes, Amino Acids). The chloroplasts are called as semiautonomous organelle of the
cell as Photosynthetic enzymes are synthesized on both the genes of the chloroplast and the nucleus.
Biogenesis or new plastid formation is from proplastid and division by amitosis.
Origin – From endosymbiotic origin by a cyanobacterium.
10.34
7.6.6 Cytoskeleton
y The minute, fibrous tubules that form an elaborate network made of filamentous proteinaceous structures
collectively called as the cytoskeleton. Its main functions are mechanical support, motility, maintenance
of the cell shape.
y Microtubules
O Made up of contractile unbranched hollow protein, Tubulin.
O Microtubules during cell division form spindle fibres. Also, it develops centrioles, Cilia and Flagella.
O It is present in eukaryotes, and not in slime moulds and amoeba.
y Microfilaments
O Made up of contractile protein, Actin.
O They are concerned with muscle contraction,
n
O Microtubules and microfilament provides cytoskeleton-base of cell.
.i
7.6.7 Centrosome and Centrioles al
y Centrosome have a pair of centrioles that lie at right angle (900) outside the nucleus to each other.
n
Centrioles are surrounded by amorphous, protoplasmic plaques called sa peri centriolar materials
ur
or massules.
y Centrioles are elongated membranous structure that show cart wheel like structure in transverse section.
o
y There are 9 microtubules on periphery which is composed of three tubules namely A-tubule, B-tubule
uj
and C-tubule. Central part of the centriole is proteinaceous called as “Central Hub”. The arrangement is
9+0 as centre does not have a tubule.
Ed
y Protein fibres called as primary fibres or spokes connect microtubules to the central hub. Secondary
fibres connect microtubules with each other.
y Primary fibre are thick with layers called as X-thickening. Y-thickenings, lie between X-thickenings and
both of them are inter connected.
y Centrioles are self-duplicating units without the DNA and covering.
y Centrioles replicate in S phase when the cilia and flagella basal bodies are formed.
10.35
n
Figure 10.20: Structure of centriole
.i
Function al
y Centrioles play an important role in cell division as they form spindle fibres that separate two poles in a
n
nucleus. Centrioles are also termed as “cell centres”.
ur
y Transformation is possible which give rise to the basal body of cilia and flagella.
o
y In a spermatozoan the two centrioles gives rise to axial filament or tail.

uj
7.6.8 Cilia and Flagella

Ed
y Cilia (Sing – Cilium) and Flagella (Sing- Flagellum) are microscopic hair or thread like outgrowths
which are locomotory structures. These extend from inner cell membrane layer to outside the cell.
y Cilia are present in all protozoans,
y Flagellum or Cilium is covered with protective sheath which is connected with the plasma membrane.
The central part or core which is contractile is composed of 11 microtubules (9 doublet + 2 singlet) called
as Axoneme.
y Peripherally nine microtubules are present, composed of pair of small tubules: A-tubule and B-tubule.
y Arms of A tubules have an enzymatic protein dynein (like myosin of muscle cells). Dynein hydrolyses
ATP such that energy is liberated for movement.
y The central tubules are bundled together which are enclosed in a central sheath. This sheath is connected
to one of the tubules present in each peripheral doublets with the radial spoke. Nine radial spokes in all
are present. The peripheral doublets are further interconnected by linkers.
y Both the cilium and flagellum in the cell membrane emerge from centriole like structure which is called
as the basal bodies.
10.36
.i n
n al
o ur
Figure 10.21: Structure of cilia T.S.

uj
Ed
Figure 10.22: Structure of Flagella T.S.

10.37
Table 10.8: Differences between Cilia and Flagella

Cilia Flagella
The cilia are small in size Flagella are long
Number of cilia per cell is very high Few in number
Cilia beat in a coordinated maner like oars Flagella beats independently (Non-coordinated
(sweeping or pendular movement) manners) undulating movement
They take part in locomotion, attachment, Flagella involved only in locomotion
feeding and sensation.
7.6.9 Ribosomes (Engine of Cell)

y Observed by George Palade (1953).
n
y All living cells have ribosomes both prokaryotes and eukaryotes however not in RBC.
.i
y Smallest cell organelles without outer membranes.
y
y
al
Also called as “organelle with in an organelle” and “Protein factory of cell”.
Ribosomes are different in eukaryotes and prokaryotes:
n
Eukaryotic ribosomes – 80S = freely floating in cytoplasm or are attached to ER in eukaryotic cells.
ur
Prokaryotic ribosomes – 70S (15nm x 20 nm) = free floating in cytoplasm or remain associated with
o
the plasma membrane in prokaryotes. Also found in mitochondria and Chloroplast of eukaryotes.
uj
O S is Svedberg unit or Sedimentation rate: The measure of density and size of ribosomes.
Each ribosome has two subunits: Larger and smaller subunits.
Ed
O 80S = 60S (larger) + 40S (smaller)

O 70S = 50S (larger) + 30S (smaller)
O Ribosomal subunits are bound together by Magnesium ion. 0.001 M Mg+2 concentration is essential
for ribosomes to be formed and remain active. Mg+2 concentration increases by 10 times and
ribosome dimers are formed.
O 80S+80S =120S (Dimer)
O 70S+70S=100S (Dimer)
O In prokaryotes, several ribosomes get attached to m-RNA during the protein synthesis called as
polyribosome or polysome or Ergosome
O There are fixed and free ribosomes with different protein synthesis: Secretory and lytic proteins -
fixed ribosomes; non-secretory proteins - free ribosome.
10.38
y Chemical composition of ribosomes

O 70S – 60% R-RNA + 40% proteins
O 80S – 40% R-RNA +60% proteins
O 60S – R-RNA 28S, 5.8S, 5S
O 40S – R- RNA 18S
O 50S – R-RNA 23S, 5S
O 30S – R-RNA 16S
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Matrix of mitochondria occupies a larger area in _______ state.
2. Colourless plastids in endosperm cells of castor seeds are ________.
n
3. Select correct match
.i
Column I al Column II
a. Conversion of fats into carbohydrates (i) Thylakoid
n
b. 23 S, 5 S rRNA and 34 proteins (ii) 40 S ribosomal unit
c. 18 S rRNA and 33 proteins (iii) 50 S ribosomal unit
ur
d. Quatasomes (iv) Glyoxysomes

o
uj
7.6.10 Microbodies
Ed
y Small, Spherical, Single membrane bound cell organelles that have enzymes in it are called as
“Microbodies”. These are present in both plants and animals.
y Microbodies are divided on the basis of their enzyme content and function as:
Sphaerosome
O Found in plant cells. The major function is lipid storage and synthesis. High amounts in fatty seeds
like groundnut, castor etc.
O Sphaerosome have additional ability similar to lysosome, hence they are also called as plant
lysosomes.
Peroxisomes
Present in both the plants and animals and its functions are as follows:
O Photorespiration or Glycolate cycle (along with chloroplast in plants and mitochondria in animals)
O β-oxidation of fatty acids.
O Breakdown of H2O2 with catalase enzyme.
10.39
Glyoxysomes
O Found only in plants, mainly in fatty seeds.
O Glyoxylate cycle is the Conversion of fat into carbohydrates.
7.6.11 Nucleus
y Robert Brown studied in detail the orchid root cells and named the nucleus in 1831
y Nucleus is called as controller or director of cell. It controls heredity, growth and metabolism in a cell as
experimentally proved by Hammerling. (Experiment was on Acetabularia a single cell largest alga).
y Eukaryotic cell has at least one nucleus. However it is absent in prokaryotes, mature phloem sieve
tube elements and mature RBCs or erythrocytes of mammals.
Structure of nucleus shows presence of:
y Nuclear membrane or nuclear envelope or karyotheca.
y Nucleoplasm / Karyoplasm / Karyolymph
n
y Chromatin net
.i
y Nucleolus / Little nucleus / Ribosome factory
al
i. Nuclear membrane: Two unit membranes cover the nucleus, thus it is double membranous
component of cell. Space between two membranes of nucleus is known as perinuclear space (10
n
to 50nm). Outer membrane of nucleus is connected with ER at several places and ribosomes also
ur
found on it. Nuclear membrane has minute nuclear pores which are result of the two membrane
fusion. The nuclear pores have octagonal discoid structure as guard for them which is made of
o
nucleoplasmin protein. This pore with protein structure is called as annulus or Bleb (Annulus
uj
+ Pore = Nuclear Pore complex). Pore complex is connection for nucleoplasm and cytoplasm,
and nucleoplasmin is responsible for nucleocytoplasmic traffic (movement of RNA and proteins).
Ed
Nuclear membrane is continuous with ER in the telophase of the cell division.

ii. Nucleoplasm or Karyolymph: Nucleoplasm (Nuclear sap) is a ground substance or matrix of the
nucleus which includes complex colloidal form of many chemicals like nucleotides, RNA and DNA
polymerase, endonucleases, minerals (Ca++, Mg++) etc. Chromatin net and nucleolus are a part
of nucleoplasm.
iii. Chromatin net (Term given by Flemming): These are intranuclear, long, thread like thin fibres,
embedded in the nucleoplasm. Chromatin net is made up of DNA, histone protein, non-histone
protein and RNA. Chromatin fibres condense in cell division to collect all the genetic information
and form fixed number of chromosomes. Chemically chromatin has DNA (31%), RNA (2%–5%),
Histone protein (36%) and non-histone (28%). 20% to 30% histone includes arginine and lysine
amino acids. Relative amount of arginine and lysine change in histones which is basis for its
classification into five types of Histone protein. (H2A, H2B, H3, H4, H1). Acetocarmine (basic dye)
staining reveals two type of regions in chromatin net-
10.40
a. Euchromatin – Lightly stained and diffused part which is transcriptionally or genetically more
active.
b. Heterochromatin – Dark stained, thick and condensed part of chromatin, having more histone
and less acidic protein. This part is genetically less active.
Table 10.9: Difference between Euchromatin and Heterochromatin
Euchromatin Heterochromatin
Consist of thin, extended, light stained part of Consist of thick, coiled, dark stained condensed part
chromatin. of chromatin
Genetically more active part in chromatin Less active or inert part in chromatin
Less histone protein More histone protein
iv. Nucleolus: Nucleolus is one per nucleus. Human cell has five nucleoli. Nucleolus is naked or without
any membrane, round or slightly irregular part present in nucleus. It is attached to chromatin (or
n
chromosomes) at specific site called as nucleolar organizer region (NOR). Nucleolus, is called as
.i
ribosome factory of cell, as it has the proteins for ribosomes synthesis. r-RNA (synthesized by
nucleolus) and ribosomal proteins are assembled in nucleolus to form ribosomes. Active cells for
al
protein synthesis have larger and more numerous nucleoli. r-RNA and protein are synthesized in the
n
cytoplasm for all prokaryotes.
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 10.23: Structure of a nucleus in eukaryotes

10.41
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Nucleolus includes these parts:
y Granular region: Made of ribonucleoprotein granules.
y Fibrillary region: Consists of long proteinaceous fibrils, called as nucleolonema.
y Amorphous matrix: Less dense region.
y Nucleolus associated chromatin: Two types of fibrils i.e. perinucleolar chromatin fibres
which are along the periphery of nucleolus and intranucleolar chromatin fibers which are
able to penetrate into Nucleolar matrix. The DNA in chromatin is called as rDNA (ribosomal
DNA) and helps in the rRNA and ribosomal unit synthesis.
7.6.12 Chromosomes
n
General introduction
.i
y The chromatin material gets condensed into chromosomes during a cell division, thus chromosome is a
highly condensed form of the chromatin fibers. al
y Chromosome number are different in different organisms.
n
Structure of chromosome
ur
y Pellicle is outermost, thin proteinaceous sheath as a cover of the chromosome.

o
y Matrix is ground substance in the chromosome which has different type of enzymes, minerals, water,
uj
and Proteins. It is liquid that has no genetic or chromatic substance.

y Chromatid: Each chromosome consist of two cylindrical structures during metaphase called as
Ed
chromatids. Both sister chromatids or longitudinal hands of chromosome are attached to a common
centromere. A chromosome, is a single chromatid in Anaphase and two chromatids in prophase and
metaphase. Each chromatid has a single long DNA associated with histones.
10.42
n
Figure 10.24: Structure of a DNA with its details
.i
y al
Centromere / Kinetochore: Each chromosome during metaphase has two half chromosome or two
chromatids. Both the chromatids of a chromosome are joined or connected by a structure called as
n
Centromere. At this junction or the centromere there are two protein discs which are called as Kinetochore.
ur
Kinetochores are the actual site of attachment of spindles to chromosomes during cell division. At the
region of centromere there is less chromosome comparatively than the remaining part of chromosome,
o
thus it is termed as Primary constriction.

uj
Ed
Figure 10.25: Structure of nucleus and chromosome

y Secondary constriction: Along with primary constriction, one or two other constrictions are also occurs
possible on some chromosomes, called as secondary constriction. Secondary constriction I is also
known as NOR (Nucleolar organizer region). Secondary constriction I: found on chromosome number
13, 14, 15, 21, 22 of Human. Secondary constriction II: found on chromosome number 1,10,13,16 and
Y-chromosome of Human.
10.43
y Satellite: The left out part of chromosome that remains after the NOR is called as chromosome satellite/
Trabent. Chromosomes with satellite part are called as SAT chromosome (SAT= Sine Acid Thymidine)
y Telomere: Chromosomes are polar with polar ends known as Telomere. Telomere prevents fusion of
two chromosomes. Human Telomeres are rich in Guanine bases (5’-TTAGGG-3’). According to Richard
Kathan (2003) chromosome telomeres are getting shorter with the ageing process.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Number of Chromosomes: Chromosomes number changes from species to species. Yet it is
fixed for a particular species.
y Least chromosome number is in plants which is 2n = 4 (n = 2) in Haplopappus gracillis
(Compositae) and highest one is 2n = 1260 in Ophioglossum (a pteridophyte called Adder’s
tongue).
n
y In a protozoan (radiolarian) Aulacentha, the diploid number is 2n = 1600
.i
y ‘n’ represents the gametic or haploid chromosome number.
y ‘2n’ is the diploid or somatic number.
n al
ur
Packaging of DNA (Nucleosome Model)
y A single human cell is 2.2 meters long DNA thread distributed in the 46 (23 pairs) chromosomes.
o
y This model shows the DNA packaging.

uj
y Nucleosome is a unit measure of chromatin (chromosome). It is composed of about 200 DNA base pairs
and an Octamer (Core particle) of four histone protein types (H2A, H2B, H3, H4,).
Ed
y 6 Nucleosome units together (or super coiling) forms Solenoid structure.

y H1 histone protein (the sealing histone) attaches the turns of the binding DNA in a nucleosome.
y In nucleosome unit, the Binding DNA have 1.75 or 1¾ turns on the octamer part.
Types of Chromosomes on the Basis of Position of Centromere

y Telocentric – When centromere is terminal or located at the tip of chromosome.
y Acrocentric – When the centromere is sub-terminal or located near the tip.
y Metacentric – When the centromere is located at mid of the chromosome.
y Sub metacentric – When the centromere located near centre or midpoint of chromosome.
Function of Nucleus
y Controls the synthesis of structural proteins.
y Controls the enzymes and proteins synthesis and thus controls cellular functions.
10.44
y Has the genetic material intact and protects it.

y Translation of DNA into ribosomes occur.
y Genetic variation essential for the evolution is initiated.
y Cellular differentiation as per its destined function is a result of nucleus.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Fill in the blanks:
a. _______ maintain continuity between nucleo-cytoplasmic regions.
b. _______ region gets dark stain interphase and has condensed region with _____
packed DNA.
n
c. Acrocentric chromosomes appear_______.
.i
d. Disc-shaped protein structure attached to the centromeric portion is called _______.
n al
Summary
ur
y All organisms are made of cell or its aggregates. Cells have different shape, size and activities / functions
depending upon the location.
o
y The presence or absence of membrane bound nucleus and organelles, the cells and even the organisms
uj
are divided as eukaryotic and prokaryotic.

y A typical eukaryotic cell is a cell that has a cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm with membrane bound
Ed
organelles.
y Plants have cells that have a cell wall outside the usual cell membrane.
y The plasma membrane is selectively permeable to several important molecules and facilitates their
transport in and out of the cell.
y The endomembrane system is the assembly of membrane bound organelles that are interconnected in
terms of their functions. It includes ER, golgi complex, lysosome and vacuoles.
y All the cell organelles in a cell perform different and specific assigned functions. Centrosome and
centriole are able to form the basal body of cilia and flagella which are used in locomotion of the cell of
prokaryotes.
y In animal cell, centrioles also initiate the spindle apparatus formation during the cell division.
y Nucleus contains nucleoli and chromatin network. It controls the activity of all the cellular organelles and
also plays a major role in heredity of genetic information.
10.45
y ER has tubules or cisternae. The ER is of two types: rough and smooth. ER helps in the transport of
substances, synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen.
y Golgi body is a membranous organelle which is composed of flattened sacs. The secretions of cells are
packed inside and transported from the cell to outside.
y Lysosomes are single membranous structures consisting of enzymes for the macromolecules digestion
of all types.
y Ribosomes carry out protein synthesis. They occur freely in the cytoplasm or are on the surface of ER.
y Mitochondria perform oxidative phosphorylation and generation of adenosine triphosphate during
respiration. They are double membranous structures where the outer membrane is smooth while the
inner one folds into several inward folding called as cristae.
y Plastids are organelles that have pigment found in plant cells only.
y Chloroplasts a plastid, help in photosynthesis by trapping light energy essential for it. The grana, is the
site of light reactions while the stroma is for the dark reactions. The green coloured plastids, called as
n
chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, whereas the other coloured plastids are called as chromoplasts which
.i
contain pigments like carotene and xanthophyll.
y al
The nucleus is a double membranous organelle called as nuclear envelop that has enclosed DNA and
RNA. The inner membrane enclosed the nucleoplasm and the chromatin material.
n
y Thus, cell is called as the structural and functional unit of life.
o ur
uj
Ed
10.46
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Which cell wall component present in all three cell wall
(A) Pectin (B) Cellulose (C) Hemicellulose (D) Lignin
Q.2 Growth of cell wall during cell elongation takes place by

(A) Apposition (B) Intussusception
(C) Both A and B (D) Super position
n
Q.3 Plasmodesmata are
.i
(A) Pores in cell wall (B) Pores in cell membrane
(C) Protoplasmic connection
al
(D) A and B both
n
ur
Q.4 Which element mainly occurs in middle lamella
(A) Ca (B) Mg (C) Na (D) K
o
uj
Q.5 Lignified cell wall is characteristic feature of

Ed
(A) Vessels (B) Sieve cells

(C) Sieve tubes (D) All of the above
Q.6 Cell membrane have how many enzymes

(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) More than 50
Q.7 Cell membrane is composed of

(A) Proteins and cellulose (B) Proteins and phospholipids
(C) Proteins and carbohydrates (D) Proteins, phospholipids and some carbohydrates
Q.8 Which of the following is main enzyme of plasma membrane

(A) TPPase (B) ATPase (C) Peptidyl transferase (D) Catalases
10.47
Q.9 Cell wall is

(A) Dead and impermeable (B) Dead and permeable
(C) Living and impermeable (D) Living and selective
Q.10 Carbohydrates are present in the plasmalemma in the form of

(A) Hemicellulose (B) Cellulose
(C) Starch (D) Glycoprotein
Q.11 Synthesis of cell wall material takes place in

(A) Dictyosome (B) Mitochondria (C) Lysosome (D) E.R
Q.12 Tondifibrils are characteristic of which junction
.i n
(A) Desmosomes (B) Plasmodesmata
(C) Gap junction
n al
(D) Tight junction
Q.13 According to fluid mosaic model (proposed by Singer and Nicholson) plasm membrane is
ur
composed of
(A) Cellulose, hemicellulose
o
(B) Phospholipid and integrated protein

uj
(C) Phospholipid, extrinsic protein, intrinsic protein

Ed
(D) Phospholipid and hemicellulose
Q.14 Torus is composed of

(A) Suberin (B) Chitin (C) Cutin (D) Lignin
Q.15 Carbohydrates which present in the cell membrane take part in

(A) Transport of substance (B) Cell recognition
(C) Attachment to microfilament (D) Attachment to microtubules
Q.16 Plasma membrane is fluid structure due to presence of

(A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid
(C) Glycoprotein (D) Poly saccharide
10.48
Q.17 The most abundant lipid in cell membrane is

(A) Cutin (B) Cholesterol (C) Steroid (D) Phospolipids
Q.18 Cell wall of lignified cell is

(A) Semipermeable and dead (B) Permeable and living
(C) Impermeable and dead (D) Impermeable and living
Q.19 Which type of cell surface junction abundantly occur in epithelial tissues
(A) Nexus (B) Desmosomes
(C) Zona occludense (D) Plasmodesmata
Q.20 Cell wall is present in
.i n
(A) Plant cell (B) Prokaryotic cell
(C) Algal cell
n al
Q.21 Plasma membrane is

ur
(A) Selectively permeable (B) Permeable

o
(C) Impermeable (D) Semipermeable

uj
Q.22 Amphipathic molecule in plasma membrane is

Ed
(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrates

(C) Phspholipids (D) All of the above
Q.23 Primary cell wall formed by

(A) Intussusception (B) Apposition
(C) Intussusception and lignification (D) Minearalization
Q.24 The singer’s Model of Plasma membrane differs from the Robertson’s model in the
(A) Number of lipid layers (B) Arrangement of proteins
(C) Arrangement of lipid layers (D) Absence of protein layers
10.49
Q.25 Ingestion of solid food by plasma membranes is called

(A) Endoosmosis (B) Pinocytosis (C) Cytokinesis (D) Phagocytosis
Q.26 Ingestion of large molecules by animal cell is called

(A) Diffusion (B) Osmosis (C) Exocytosis (D) Endocytosis
Q.27 Endocytosis Includes

(A) Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.28 Rough ER mainly responsible for

(A) Protein synthesis (B) Cell wall formation
(C) Lipid synthesis (D) Cholesterol synthesis
.i n
Q.29 Besides producing secretory vesicles, the function of golgibody is
al
(A) Lysosome formation (B) Formation of spindle fibers
n
(C) Formation of ER (D) All of the above
ur
Q.30 Mitochondrial DNA is

o
(A) Naked (B) Circular

uj
(C) Double stranded (D) All of the above

Ed
Q.31 Golgibody orginates from

(A) ER (B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus (D) Proplastid
Q.32 Lysosomes are not help-full in

(A) Osteogenesis (B) Cellular digestion
(C) Metamorphosis in frog (D) Lipogenesis
Q.33 Acrosome of sperm is derived from

(A) Golgi vesicle (B) Lysosome
(C) Golgi tubule (D) Cisternae
10.50
Q.34 Which of the cell organelle synthesizes steroids

(A) ER (B) Golgi body (C) Peroxisomes (D) Lysosomes
Q.35 In mammals, the mitochondrial ribosomes are

(A) 55s (B) 70s (C) 80s (D) 100s
Q.36 True statement for golgibody is all except

(A) Convex surface of cisterne is towards nucleus
(B) Concave surface of cisternae is towards plasma membrane
(C) Golgi body are filled with digestive enzyme
(D) Carbohydrate form in golgi body
n
Q.37 Power house of cell is
.i
(A) Nucleus (B) DNA (C) Mitochondria (D) ATP
n al
Q.38 Mitochondria are site of respiration first reported by Kingsbury and supported by Hogeboom.
Mitochondria are related with the oxidation of
ur
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Fats (C) Proteins (D) All of the above
o
uj
Q.39 Elementary particle of mitochondria are

(A) F1 particles (B) Ribosomes (C) DNA (D) Lysosomes
Ed
Q.40 Hydrolytic enzymes are abundantly found in which cell organelles

(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome
(C) Oxysome (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.41 Which of the following sets of cell organelles contain DNA

(A) Mitochondria, peroxysome (B) Plasma membrane, ribosome
(C) Mitochondria, chloroplast (D) Chloroplast, dictyosome
Q.42 Semiautonomous cell organelle is

(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosome
(C) Plasma membrane (D) Peroxysome
10.51
Q.43 Golgi body is absent in

(A) Prokaryotes (B) Mature mammalian RBC
(C) Alkaryotes (D) All of the above
Q.44 In which types of cell lysosomes are abundantly found

(A) Storage cell (B) Glandular cell
(C) Phagocytic cell (D) Vascular cell
Q.45 One of the following is present outside the plasma membrane but inside the cell-wall
(A) Spherosome (B) Peroxisome
(C) Lomasome (D) Golgi body
n
Q.46 Chemical modification of substance like glycosidation of protein and lipid occur in
.i
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi body
(C) Lysosome (D) Ribosome
n al
ur
Q.47 At which pH lysosomal enzymes remain active

(A) pH-5 (B) pH-7 (C) pH-8 (D) pH-10
o
uj
Q.48 Synthesis of cellulose and hemicelluloses take place in

Ed
(A) Micro bodies (B) Smooth ER (C) Golgi complex (D) Lysosome
Q.49 The cell organelles having abundance of oxidizing enzymes is

(A) Golgi body (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Centrioles (D) Mitochondria
Q.50 Main function of golgi-compelx is

(A) Fermentation (B) Phosphorylation
(C) Respiration (D) Packaging of materials for secretion
Q.51 Polymorphic cell organelles is

(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome (C) Chloroplast (D) Nucleus
10.52
Q.52 Due to presence of cristae in mitochondria

(A) Surface area increase of outer membrane
(B) Surface area increase of inner membrane
(C) Surface area decrease of outer membrane
(D) Surface area decrease of inner membrane
Q.53 ATP ase activity occur in

(A) Head of F1- particle (B) Stalk of F1- particle
(C) Base of F1- particle (D) All of the above
Q.54 Mark the lysosomal stabilizer

(A) Vitamin–K (B) Vitamin–A
n
(C) Cortisone (D) Progesterone
.i
al
Q.55 RER is well developed in cell engaged in the synthesis of
n
(A) Steroids (B) Fats (C) Vitamin (D) Proteins
ur
Q.56 Which of the following prevents the rupturing of lysosomal membrane

o
(A) Cholesterol (B) Vit. A

uj
(C) Testosterone (D) UV-rays

Ed
Q.57 Aerobic respiration is performed by

(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast (C) Ribosome (D) Golgi body
Q.58 Mitochondria originated from

(A) Purple sulphur bacteria (B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Mycoplasma (D) Virus
Q.59 GERL concerned with the biogenesis of

(A) Golgi body (B) ER
(C) Mitochondria (D) Lysosomes
10.53
Q.60 Occurrence of DNA in chloroplast and mitochondria support the hypothesis that
(A) Glycolysis takes place in both chloroplast and mitochondria
(B) Both the organelles produce ATP
(C) Both of them can produce Amino acid
(D) They were independent organism which become symbiotic of eukaryotic cells
Q.61 Suicide bags of cells are

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Lysosome
(C) Golgi bodies (D) Vacuoles
Q.62 Three morphological forms of golgi complex are

(A) Lamellae, tubules, and vesicles (B) Cisternae, tubules, and vesicles
n
(C) Cisternae, tubules and lamellae (D) Granum, thalykoids and vesicles
.i
al
Q.63 The stored food and secretory substances found in the cytoplasm makes
n
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Hyaloplasm (C) Protoplasm (D) Deutoplasm
ur
Q.64 Labilisers found on membrane of lysosome are

o
(A) Cortisone and cortisol (B) Cholesterol and heparin

uj
(C) Testosterone and progesterone (D) Cholesterol and progesterone

Ed
Q.65 Autodissolution and osteogenesis are function of

(A) Golgi bodies (B) Ribosome (C) Lysosomes (D) Mitochondria
Q.66 A single unit membrane organelle is

(A) Ribosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Chloroplast (D) Lysosomes
Q.67 Double layered organelle are

(A) Ribosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Lysosomes (D) Centriole
Q.68 Cistern is found in

(A) Only mitochondria (B) Only endoplasmic Reticulum
(C) Endoplasmic Reticulum and Golgi body (D) Only Golgi body
10.54
Q.69 Which enzyme performs detoxification of hydrogen peroxide in peroxisome

(A) Urate acid oxidase (B) Peroxidase
(C) Catalase (D) Ascorbic acid synthetase
Q.70 Cilia and flagella have

(A) Dissimilar internal structure and are of unequal size
(B) Similar internal structure and are of equal size
(C) Similar internal structure and are of dissimilar size
(D) Dissimilar internal structure and are of similar size
Q.71 DNA is not found in

(A) Nucleus (B) Mitochondria (C) Chloroplast (D) Ribosome
.i n
Q.72 Mitochondria and chloroplast are considered to be endosymbionts of cell because they
(A) Possess their own nucleic acid
n al
(B) Have capacity of ATP synthesis
(C) Do not reproduce (D) All of the above
ur
Q.73 Spherosome are involved in

o
(A) Synthesis and storage of lipid (B) Synthesis of protein

uj
(C) β-oxidation of fatty acids (D) Synthesis and storage of carbohydrate

Ed
Q.74 Factory of ribosome in a cell is

(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Nucleolus
(C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi body
Q.75 What is the angle between two centriole of a centrosome

(A) 300 (B) 450 (C) 600 (D) 900
Q.76 Self duplication does not occur in

(A) Mitochondria (B) Centrioles
(C) Chloroplast (D) Ribosome
10.55
Q.77 In which tubulin protein is not present

(A) Plasma membrane (B) Cilia
(C) Flagella (D) Microtubules
Q.78 Sphaerosomes are formed from

(A) Lipidochondria (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Ribosome (D) Mitochondria
Q.79 The peroxisomes are associated with the phenomenon of

(A) Oxidative anabolism (B) Degradation of H2O
(C) Anaerobic respiration (D) Photorespiration and degradation of H2O2
n
Q.80 Factory for synthesis of sugars in autotrophic eukaryotes is
.i
(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosome
(C) Chloroplast
al
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
n
Q.81 Plastids which store fats and oils are called
ur
(A) Aleuroplast (B) Amyloplast

o
(C) Etioplast (D) Elaioplast

uj
Q.82 Cell organelle associated with conversion of light energy to chemical energy is
Ed
(A) Chloroplast (B) Mitochondria

(C) Ribosome (D) Endoplasmic reticulam
Q.83 Biogenesis of eukaryotic Ribosomes takes place in

(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast
(C) Both A and B (D) Nucleolus
Q.84 “Palade particles” are

(A) Ribosomes (B) Golgivesicles
(C) Lysosomes (D) Sphaerosomes
10.56
Q.85 Ribosomes are center of

(A) Lipid synthesis (B) Carbohydrate synthesis
(C) Protein synthesis (D) All of the above
Q.86 Red colour of tomato and chilly is due to

(A) Lycopene in chloroplast (B) Xanthophylls in chromoplast
(C) Lycopene in chromoplast (D) Anthocyanin in leucoplast
Q.87 Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing

(A) Glogi body (B) Centrosome (C) Vacuole (D) Plastid
Q.88 Which of the cilia protein is analogous to myosin of muscles
n
(A) Tubulin (B) Dynien (C) Flagellin (D) None of these
.i
Q.89 Function of centrosome is
n al
(A) Initiation of cell div (B) Inhibition of cell div
ur
(C) Termination of cell div (D) Cytokinesis
o
Q.90 Blepheroplast is a type of

uj
(A) Centriole (B) Plastid (C) Cilia (D) Mitochondria

Ed
Q.91 Which of the following lacks unit membrane

(A) Cilia (B) Flagella (C) Basal granule (D) Sphaerosome
Q.92 Prokaryotic Ribosomes are 70 s, s refers to

(A) Svedberg unit (B) Smallest unit (C) Smooth (D) Speed
Q.93 Glyoxylate pathway takes place in

(A) Peroxisomes (B) Sphaerosomes (C) Lysosomes (D) Glyoxysomes
Q.94 Pericarp and petals contain

(A) Chloroplast (B) Chromoplast (C) Leucoplast (D) Etioplast
10.57
Q.95 Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is

(A) 9+2 (B) 2+9 (C) 11+0 (D) 9+0
Q.96 Non pigmented part of chloroplast is called

(A) Thalakoids (B) Grana (C) Stroma (D) Lamella
Q.97 Which of the following plastids are helpful in starch formation and storage
(A) Chromoplast (B) Leucoplasts (C) Chloroplast (D) Lycopen
Q.98 Lamellae of chloroplast are known as

(A) Granum (B) Frets (C) Thylakoids (D) Stroma lamellae
n
Q.99 70s type of ribosomes found in
.i
(A) Prokaryotic cells (B) Prokaryotic cells, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(C) Mitochondria
n al
(D) Nucleus, mitochondria
Q.100 Mitoplast is
ur
(A) Outer membrane less chloroplast

o
(B) Outer membrane less mitochondria

uj
(C) Granum less chloroplast

(D) Well developed nucleus
Ed
Q.101 Which of the following substances are sotred in Aleuroplast

(A) Starch (B) Oil and Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Water and oil
Q.102 Smallest cell organelle which called cell engine is

(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome
(C) Vacuoles (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.103 The ribosomes are made up of

(A) DNA + Protein (B) RNA + Protein
(C) DNA + RNA (D) None of these
10.58
Q.104 Functional unit of Chloroplast is

(A) Stroma (B) Quantasoma
(C) Oxysomes (D) Peroxysomes
Q.105 Which of the following pair lack the unit membrane

(A) Nucleus and ER (B) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(C) Ribosome and nucleolus (D) Golgi body and lysosome
Q.106 Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which
one is wrong?
(A) Lysomes are double membrane vesicles budded off form golgi apparatus and contain digestive en-
zymes
n
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport, synthesis
.i
and secretion.
thesizing machinery
n al
(C) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein syn-
(D) Spharosomes are single membrane bound and are associated with synthesis and storage of
ur
lipids.
o
Q.107 Nuclear organizer is a

uj
(A) Primary constriction (B) Secondary constriction

Ed
(C) Tertiary constriction (D) Centriole
Q.108 True chromosomes absent in prokaryotes due to the absence of

(A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (C) Histone (D) All of the above
Q.109 Chromosomes composed of

(A) DNA, RNA, Histones, Non histones (B) DNA and Histones
(C) DNA and RNA (D) DNA, RNA and Histones
Q.110 Which of the following character is not taken into consideration while preparing a kayotype
(A) Chromosomal length (B) Arm ratio
(C) Position of sec. constriction (D) Length of DNA
10.59
Q.111 The non-sticky chromosomal ends are known as

(A) Chromatids (B) Centromere (C) Chromomere (D) Telomere
Q.112 Highest arm ratio occur in which chromosome

(A) Telocentric (B) Metacentric (C) Submetacentric (D) Acrocentric
Q.113 The nucleolar chromatin contains gene for

(A) B-DNA (B) Z-DNA (C) r-RNA (D) Satellite-DNA
Q.114 One solenoid composed of

(A) 8-nucleosome (B) 6-nucleosome
(C) 10-nucleosome (D) 16-nucleosome
.i n
Q.115 Histone which links the nucleosomes together is called
(A) H1 (B) H2A
al
(C) H2B
n
(D) H4
ur
Q.116 The protein nucleoplasmin occurs in
(A) Nuclear pore complex (B) Sieve cells
o
(C) Nucleolus (D) Hetero chromatin

uj
Q.117 Function of centrosome is

Ed
(A) Secretion (B) Respiration

(C) Water regulation (D) Arrangement of spindle fibres
Q.118 The chromatin material which takes darker stain in interphase is called
(A) Euchromatin (B) Heterochromatin
(C) Primary constriction (D) Satellite body
Q.119 Nucleus is
(A) Single layered structure (B) Three layered structure
(C) Four layered structure (D) Two layered structure
10.60
Q.120 Nucleolus are rich in

(A) Deoxy Ribonucleoprotein (B) Lipoprotein
(C) Ribonucleoprotein (D) m-RNA and r-RNA
Q.121 Part of chromosome after secondary constriction is called

(A) Chromomere (B) Telomere
(C) Satellite (D) Nucleolar organizer
Q.122 Nucleosome is made up of

(A) Nonhistone protein +RNA (B) Histone protein and DNA
(C) Non-histone and histone protein (D) Phospholipid and protein
.i n
Q.123 Linker DNA present in between
(A) Two nucleosome
(C) Two solenoid
n al
(B) Two chromatid
(D) Chromomere
ur
Q.124 Who is the controller of cell

o
(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus

uj
(C) Golgi bodies (D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Ed
Q.125 If the centromere is sub-median the two arms are unequal then the chromosome is called as
(A) Metacentric (B) Submetacentric
(C) Acrocentric (D) Telocentric
Q.126 Structure which provide shape to chromosome is called

(A) Telomere (B) Satellite (C) Centromere (D) Chromomere
Q.127 Nucleolus is formed by

(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus and Ribosome
(C) Primary constriction (D) Secondary constriction
10.61
Q.128 Chromosome with centromere at one End

(A) Metacentric (B) Submetacentric
(C) Telocentric (D) Acrocentric
Q.129 Part of Chromosome which joins with spindle fibres is

(A) Chromatid (B) Chromonema
(C) Chromomere (D) Centromere
Q.130 If a karyotype having fewer metacentric chromosomes is called

(A) Symmetric karyotype (B) Asymmetric karyotype
(C) Ideogram (D) Cryptogram
.i n
Q.131 Who among the following scientist is credited with the discovery of cell was published in ‘Micrographia’
(A) Robert Brown
al
(B) Robert Hooke
n
(C) Schleiden (D) Schwann
ur
Q.132 Who was first to observe living substance in the cells?

o
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (B) Alfonso Corti

uj
(C) Robert Brown (D) Johannes Purkinje

Ed
Q.133 Nucleus was first observed in the cells of orchid roots in 1837 by
(A) Robert Brown (B) Hugo Von Mohl
(C) Fontana (D) Malpighi
Q.134 Protoplasm is physical basis of life was stated by

(A) Purkinje (B) Huxley (C) Rudolf Vichow (D) Schwann
Q.135 Which of the following does not show a circular DNA?

(A) Bacterial cell (B) Nucleus (C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast
10.62
Q.136 The saccules and utricles were names used for the cells by one of the following
(A) Robert Brown (B) Malpighi (C) Purkinje (D) Swanson
Q.137 Which of the following structures form a basket around the nucleus?
(A) Microfibril (B) Microfilament
(C) Microtubule (D) Intermediate filament
Q.138 Most of the water found in the cell occurs in

(A) Cell wall (B) Nucleus (C) Cytoplasm (D) Nucleolus
Q.139 Which of the following is described as “energy currency of the cell”?

(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) ATP (D) Vitamins
.i n
Q.140 Cell theory was put forward by al
(A) Schleiden and Schwann in 1838–1839
n
(B) Sutton and Boveri
ur
(C) Watson and Crick

o
(D) Darwin and Wallace

uj
Q.141 The cell envelop in gram positive bacteria consists of tightly bond
Ed
(A) One-layered structure (B) Three-layered structure

(C) Two-layered structure (D) Four-layered structure
Q.142 Who was the first to explain that the cells divide and new cells are formed from the pre-existing cells
(Omnis cellula-e-cellula) in 1855?
(A) Louis Pasteur (B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Nagali (D) Robert Brown
Q.143 The longest cell in the human body is

(A) Liver cell (B) Muscle cell
(C) Neruoglia cell (D) Nerve cell
10.63
Q.144 What is absent in mammalian erythrocytes?

(A) Aerobic respiration (B) Nucleus
(C) DNA (D) All of these
Q.145 A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane in some prokaryotes is

(A) Sphaerosome (B) Lomasome
(C) Plasmid (D) Mesosome
Q.146 The membrane covering the vacuole is known as

(A) Desmosomes (B) Tonoplast
(C) Plasmodesmata (D) Tyloses
.i n
Q.147 Which is non-membranous (not covered by membrane) organelle?
(A) Ribosome
(C) Mitochondria
al
(B) Lysosome
(D) Chloroplast
n
ur
Q.148 One of the following is absent in plant cell

o
(A) Vacuole (B) Cell wall (C) Centrosome (D) Plastids

uj
Q.149 Find the cell type which do not have ability to divide
Ed
(A) Nerve cells (B) Liver cells

(C) Muscle cells (D) Bone marrow cells
Q.150 The prokaryotic cells are characterised by

(A) Distinct chromosome (B) Absence of chromatin material
(C) Absence of nuclear membrane (D) Distinct nuclear membrane
Q.151 Cell originate

(A) From pre-existing cells (B) Absence of chromatin material
(C) Absence of nuclear membrane (D) Distinct nuclear membrane
10.64
Q.152 Which of the following is present in both plant and animal cells?
(A) Primary wall (B) Secondary wall
(C) Plasma membrane (D) Plastids
Q.153 Which of the following has one-envelope system?

(A) Pseudomonas (B) Chlamydomonas
(C) Acetabularia (D) Saccharomyces
Q.154 Small cells are metabolically active as they have

(A) Higher surface area to volume ratio
(B) Higher nucleocytoplasmic ratio
n
(C) Lower nucleocytoplasmic ratio
.i
(D) Both (A) and (B)
n al
Q.155 Which of the following cells do not show DNA duplication or RNA synthesis?
ur
(A) Liver cells (B) Muscle cells
(C) Meristem (D) Mature RBCs
o
uj
Q.156 The function of polysome in bacterial cell is to

Ed
(A) Translate the mRNA into protein

(B) Store reserve food materials
(C) Synthesize pigments
(D) Help in buoyancy
Q.157 Select the organelle which divides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments, i.e., luminal
and extra-luminal cytoplasm
(A) GBs (B) ER (C) Vacuole (D) Cytoskeletons
Q.158 Eukaryotic cell differs from a prokaryotic cell in having

(A) No cytoskeleton (B) Circular DNA
(C) Mesosomes (D) Sap vacuoles
10.65
Q.159 Trilamellar model of membrane structure was proposed by

(A) J.D. Robertson (B) Danieli and Davson
(C) Gorter and Grendel (D) Singer and Nicolson
Q.160 Animals cells differs from plant cells in not having

(A) Plastids (B) Cell wall (C) Glyoxisome (D) All of these
Q.161 The first structure formed from cell plate between newly daughter cell is called.
(A) Primary wall (B) Secondary wall (C) Tertiary wall (D) Middle lamella
Q.162 Which of the following is present in the prokaryotes

(A) Nuclear envelop (B) Golgi apparatus
.i n
(C) Mitochondria (D) Ribosomes
al
Q.163 Gram negative bacteria differ from gram positive bacteria in having
n
(A) Thick cell wall and is primarily made up of peptidoglycan
ur
(B) Complex cell envelope made up of three layers

o
(C) The cell wall is 20–80 nm in thickness and also contains tightly bound techoic acids
uj
(D) Absence of cell wall lipids

Ed
Q.164 The organelle which is concerned with O2 evolution, is

(A) Peroxisome (B) Mitochondria (C) Glyoxysome (D) Chloroplast
Q.165 Pigment responsible for colour of petals is found in

(A) Gas vacuoles (B) Sap vacuoles
(C) Contractile vacuoles (D) Food vacuoles
Q.166 Glycocalyx or cell coat which functions as cell recognition is made up of

(A) Proteins (B) Lipids
(C) Proteins and lipids (D) Glycoproteins and glycolipids
10.66
Q.167 Plasma membrane is asymmetric because

(A) Lipids present in the outer and inner side of the bilayer are different
(B) Extrinsic proteins are more abundant on the inner surface than on the outer surface
(C) Oligosaccharides are attached only to the external surface of lipids and proteins of a biomembrane
(D) All of these
Q.168 The membrane of the erythrocyte has approximately

(A) 40% carbohydrates (B) 80% protein
(C) 52% protein (D) 48% lipids
Q.169 Unit membrane concept was proposed by
.i n
(A) Danielli (B) Davson (C) Robertson (D) Singer
al
Q.170 The universally accepted model of plasma membrane is
n
(A) Lamellar model (B) Unit membrane model
ur
(C) Fluid mosaic model (D) Overton model

o
Q.171 According to Fluid Mosaic Model of plasma membrane, extrinsic proteins are
uj
(A) Superficially arranged and cannot be separated easily

Ed
(B) Peripheral proteins and are loosely connected to membranes and therefore, can be easily removed in
aqueous medium
(C) Integral proteins which object beyond the lipid layer on both sides of the membrane and are considered
as channel proteins
(D) Tightly attached to lipids and cannot be separated
Q.172 According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and
integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In
this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer
(B) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer
(C) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membranes
(D) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer.
10.67
Q.173 Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane proposes that

(A) A lipid bilayer with embedded proteins only
(B) A lipid bilayer with proteins on the outer surface only
(C) A lipid bilayer coated with proteins on both the surfaces.
(D) A lipid bilayer with proteins of two types, embedded (intrinsic) and superficial (extrinsic).
Q.174 Out of proteins lipids and carbohydrates present in a cell membrane, what is true?
(A) Carbohydrates are minimum (B) Carbohydrates are maximum
(C) Lipid is minimum (D) All the three are in equal proportion.
Q.175 Carrier molecules facilitating transport across cell membrane are
n
(A) Proteinaceous (B) fatty acids (C) Starch (D) Alkaloids
.i
Q.176 “Protein icebergs in a sea of lipid” means
(A) Unit membrane concept
n al
(B) Sandwich model
(C) Fluid mosaic model (D) None of these
o ur
Q.177 Extrinsic and intrinsic proteins found in plasma membrane are in the following ratio
uj
(A) 70 : 30 (B) 30 : 70 (C) 40 : 60 (D) 60 : 40

Ed
Q.178 The main function of plasma membrane is to

(A) Store cell material
(B) Control of all cellular activity
(C) Maintain the cell shape and size
(D) Regulate the flow of material into and outside the cell
Q.179 The plasma membrane is more permeable to

(A) Polysaccharides (B) Proteins (C) Glycoproteins (D) Phospholipids
Q.180 Plasma membrane particularly in animal cells is elastic due to

(A) Lipids (B) Proteins (C) Carbohydrates (D) None of these
10.68
Q.181 Which of the following cytoskeletal element plays an important role in movement of chromosomes?
(A) Microfilaments (B) Microtubules
(C) Intermediate filaments (D) All of these
Q.182 Bacterial genome or nucleoid is made up of

(A) A single double stranded chromosome with histone
(B) RNA and histone
(C) A single double strands DNA, not complexed with histone proteins, nor is it packed in the chromosome.
(D) A single strands circular DNA
Q.183 A bacterial cell DNA is extensively looped and coiled with the help of
n
(A) Acid proteins
.i
(B) Histones
(C) Basic nucleoid protein called as polyamines
n al
(D) Actin
ur
Q.184 The Golgi cistemae are concentrically arranged near the

o
(A) Plasma membrane (B) ER (C) Nucleus (D) Vacuole

uj
Q.185 Type of growth shown by primary cell wall is

Ed
(A) Accretionary (B) Istussuceptionary

(C) Protoplasmic (D) None, as it can’t expand or grow
Q.186 Plasmodesmata often has ER (endoplasmic reticulum) tubule called as

(A) Symplasm (B) Desmotubule
(C) Apoplasm (D) Intermediate filaments
Q.187 Which of the following is associate with detoxification of drugs and muscle contraction by the release
and uptake of CA2+ ions?
(A) Golgi complex (B) RER
(C) SER (D) Free ribosomes
10.69
Q.188 The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their
destination is
(C) Lysosome (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.189 The term endoplasmic reticulum was used by

(A) Keith Poter (B) Thompson
(C) Robertson (D) Keith Poter and Thompson
Q.190 Ribosomes when associated with ER, are attached with their
(A) Small subunit (B) Large subunit (60 S)
(C) 80 S subunit (D) Either by smaller subunits or by the larger subunits
.i n
Q.191 Ribosomes are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum through
al
(A) Ribophorins (B) r-RNA
n
(C) t-RNA (D) Hydrophobic interaction
ur
Q.192 RER is well developed in cells engaged in the synthesis of

o
(A) Nucleotides (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Secretory products

uj
Ed
Q.193 SER is mainly found in cells actively engaged in/SER is site of

(A) Secretion activity (B) Protein metabolism
(C) Lipid metabolism (D) Catabolic activity
Q.194 Golgi apparatus / apparato reticulare is specialised for all except

(A) Glycosidation and glycosylation of lipids and proteins
(B) Recycling of the plasma membrane pinched off by pinocytosis and phagocytosis
(C) Secretion
(D) Intracellular digestion
10.70
Q.195 Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Golgi apparatus?
(A) The sacs on the forming face (cis-faces) are associated with ER
(B) Golgi apparatus was studied by Camillo Golgi in the nerve cells of owl metallic impregnation technique
(C) Golgi apparatus in plants is called as dictyosome and secrets mucilage in root cap cells
(D) Golgi apparatus has no role in modification of Proinsulin
Q.196 Lysosomes are formed by budding off vesicles from golgi apparatus and contain
(A) Oxidising enzymes (B) 40 different acid hydrolases
(C) Respiratory enzymes (D) Basic hydrolases
Q.197 Which of the following is likely to show the absence of lysosomes?
n
(A) Cyanophyceae (B) Protozoa
.i
(C) Anther tapetum (D) Mammalian leucocytes
n al
Q.198 Lysosomes were first discovered by
ur
(A) Rohdin (B) Pemer
(C) Christian de Duve (D) None of these
o
uj
Q.199 Which of the following organelles show polymorphism?

Ed
(A) Golgi apparatus (B) Lysosome

(C) Mitochondria (D) Chloroplast
Q.200 Autolysis is associated with

(A) Ribosome (B) Kinetosome
(C) Lysosome (D) Golgi apparatus
Q.201 Which of the following organelle possess oxidases and are associated with oxidation reaction other
than those of respiration?
(A) Sphaerosomes (B) Peroxisomes
(C) Lysosomes (D) Golgi
10.71
Q.202 Which of the following organelle takes part in photorespiration?

(A) Glyoxisome (B) Peroxisome (C) Dictyosome (D) ER
Q.203 Peroxisomes contain peroxide producing enzymes. These are found in

(A) Plant cells (B) Animal cells
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Bacteria and blue green algae
Q.204 Which of the following is peroxide destroying enzyme present in Peroxisome?

(A) Urate oxidase (B) Catalase
(C) Amino acid oxidase (D) Peroxidase
n
Q.205 Non-secretory proteins are synthesized by
.i
(A) ER-bound ribosomes (B) Free ribosomes
(C) Polysomes (D) Endosomes
n al
Q.206 Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. Glyoxysomes
ur
(A) It is reported from endosperm of germinating seeds

o
(B) Usually occurs in fat rich plant cells

uj
(C) Associated with glyoxylate cycle

Ed
(D) It is formed from mitochondria
Q.207 The proper folding of proteins following synthesis is assisted by

(A) Polyribosomes (B) Specific proteins called chaperons
(C) Polysomes (D) Free ribosomes
Q.208 Protein synthesis in an animals cell occurs

(A) Only on the ribosomes present in the cytosol
(B) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear enveloped and ER
(C) On ribosomes present in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(D) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
10.72

Column I Column II
a. Centre of hydrolytic enzymes (i) Mitochondria
b. Oxidative phosphorylation (ii) Elaioplast
c. Glycolate oxidation (iii) Lysosome
d. Oils and fats storage (iv) Peroxisome
(A) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (B) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(C) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (D) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
Q.210 Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous as they possess

(A) DNA (B) DNA + RNA
(C) DNA + RNA + ribosomes (D) Proteins
.i n
Q.211 Which of the following organelle is concerned with generation of ATP through electron transport and
oxidative phosphorylation?
n al
(C) Glyoxysome (D) Both (A) and (B)
ur
Q.212 F0 – F1 particles are also called as

o
(A) Quantasomes (B) Glyoxysome (C) Palade particles (D) Oxysomes

uj
Q.213 Organelle lacking DNA, but is capable of duplication is

Ed
(A) Ribosomes (B) Centriole (C) Chloroplast (D) Nucleus
Q.214 The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
(A) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplast
(B) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free living organisms
(C) ATP is produced in mitochondria as well as in chloroplast
(D) Mitochondria and chloroplast undergo meiosis and mitosis independent of nucleus
Q.215 Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria takes place

(A) In the matrix (B) In the intracristal space
(C) At the cristae (D) At the outer membrane
10.73
Q.216 Oxysomes are submicroscopic particles present on the

(A) Surface of the inner membrane of mitochondria
(B) Thylakoid membrane of chloroplast
(C) Outer membrane of mitochondrion
(D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q.217 Find odd one out w.r.t. endomembrane system

(A) ER (B) Peroxisome (C) Golgi complex (D) Vacuole
Q.218 The mitochondria DNA differs from the nuclear DNA in

(A) Lacking association with histone (B) Being circular in nature
n
(C) Having higher C-G ratio (D) All of these
.i
(A) Mitochondrial genome
n al
Q.219 Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in
(B) Chloroplast genome
(C) Nuclear genome (D) Cytosol
o ur
Q.220 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

uj
(A) Grana (B) Pyrenoid

(C) Stroma (D) Both grana and stroma
Ed
Q.221 Which of the following organelle stores proteins?

(A) Amyloplasts (B) Aleuroplasts
(C) Plastids (D) Elaioplasts (oleosomes)
Q.222 Grana in chloroplast is formed by the pilling of

(A) Cristae (B) Thylakoids (C) Oxysomes (D) Dictyosomes
10.74
Q.223 The symbiont hypothesis suggests that there are similarities between prokaryotes, mitochondria and
chloroplasts like
(A) Presence of circular DNA associated with histone and 70 S ribosomes
(B) Presence of circular DNA not associated with histone and 70 S ribosomes present
(C) 50 S ribosomes and DNA
(D) 30 S ribosomes and DNA
Q.224 Quantasomes are found in

(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplast (C) Nucleus (D) Lysosome
Q.225 Each quantasome contains

(A) 100 chlorophyll molecules (B) 200 chlorophyll molecules
.i n
(C) 300 chlorophyll molecules (D) 230 chlorophyll molecules
al
Q.226 Hammerling’s experiment on Acetabularia proved the role of
n
(A) Chromosomes in heredity (B) Nucleus in heredity
ur
(C) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio (D) Cytoplasm in controlling differentiation

o
Q.227 At certain places, the nuclear envelope is interrupted by presence of nuclear pores which are
uj
enclosed by circular structures called as

Ed
(A) Perinuclear (B) Annuli (C) Pore complex (D) Nucleolus
Q.228 The main site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is

(A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Golgi apparatus
Q.229 Telomeres
(A) lnitiate RNA synthesis (B) Seal ends of chromosomes
(C) Have guanine rich repeats (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.230 The term nucleolus was coined by

(A) Browman (B) Fontana (C) Flemming (D) Leeuwenhoek
10.75
Q.231 Telomerase is
(A) Simple protein (B) dsRNA
(C) Ribonucleoprotein (D) Repetitive DNA
Q.232 Nucleolus is produced from

(A) Primary constriction
(B) Nuclear organizing region of certain chromosomes
(C) Nuclear envelope
(D) ER
Q.233 A cystolith is a deposit of
n
(A) Calcium citrate (B) Calcium carbonate
.i
(C) Silica (D) Calcium oxalate
Q.234 The membrane-bound space found in the cytoplasm

n al
(A) Is food vacuole in bacteria
ur
(B) Is contractile vacuole in plants

o
(C) Is sap vacuole in cyanobacteria

uj
(D) Can occupy 90 percent volume in plant cell

Ed
Q.235 Tolbert is associated with which one of the following cell structures?
(A) Peroxisomes (B) Sphaerosomes
(C) Quantasomes (D) Glyoxysomes
Q.236 A single mitochondria is found in

(A) Flight muscles of insects (B) Human sperm
(C) Microsterias (D) Chaos chaos
Q.237 The smallest cell structure is

(A) Peroxisome (B) Sphaerosome
(C) Ribosome (D) laysosome
10.76
Q.238 The complex formed of centriole and kinoplasm is called as

(A) Diplosome (B) Centrosphere
(C) Centrosome (D) Kinetosome
Q.239 The site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis is

(A) Primary constriction (B) Telomere
(C) Satellite (D) Nucleolus
Q.240 Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) powers the movement of cilia and flagella, adenosine triphosphate
activity is present in
(A) Nexin protein (B) Dynein protein
(C) Massule (D) Both (A) and (B)
.i n
Q.241 The r-RNAs of 80 S ribosomes of larger sub-unit are
al
(A) 18 S (B) 23 S + 5 S (C) 18 S + 5.8 S + 5 S (D) 16 S
n
ur
Q.242 A component of cytoskeleton is

(A) Microtubules (B) Bone (C) Chitin (D) Cartilage
o
uj
Q.243 Kinetochore is
Ed
(A) Fibrous granular structure on the surface of centromere

(B) Surface of centromere
(C) Constriction near chromosome end
(D) End of chromosome
Q.244 Cell wall of algae is made of

(A) Cellulose (B) Galactans and mannans
(C) Minerals like CaCO3 (D) All of these
10.77
Q.245 In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other materials
(A) Against concentration gradient into vacuole
(B) Along concentration gradient into vacuole
(C) Along concentration gradient into gas vacuole
(D) Against concentration gradient in contractile vacuole
Q.246 Select the correct combination of the statements regarding the characteristic of middle lamella
a. It holds the different neighboring cells together.
b. It is composed of Mg pectate only.
c. It gets dissolved during ripening of fruits.
Correct statements is/are
n
(A) a and c (B) b and c (C) Only a (D) a, b and c
.i
responsible for this is found in
n al
Q.247 Triglyceride metabolism to convert fats into carbohydrate is helped by glyoxylate cycle. The organelle
(A) Rice seeds (B) Castor seeds

ur
(C) Wheat seeds (D) More than one option is correct

o
Q.248 Cathepsin is an enzyme that helps to digest the tail of tadpole is secreted by the organelle.
uj
(A) Called apparato reticolare

Ed
(B) Surrounded by half unit membrane and showing polarity of structure

(C) Having polymorphic nature
(D) Having P450 activity
Q.249 Each centriole has a cart wheel organisation having a whorl tubulin fibrils at periphery. These
peripheral fibrils are composed of how many microtubules?
(A) 11 (B) 18 (C) 9 (D) 27
Q.250 Catalase and urate oxidase enzymes are associated to the organelle which is also involved in
(A) Gluconeogenesis (B) Photorespiration
(C) Glycolate oxidation (D) More than option is correct
10.78
Q.251 Find out all the proteins that make eukaryotic flagellum.
(A) Nexin, tubulin and flagellin
(B) Tubulin, nexin, dynein, and flagellin
(C) Actin, myosin, dynein and tubulin
(D) Dynein, tubulin and nexin
Q.252 How many organelles of an eukaryotic cell are considered to have an independent existence during
early events of evolution?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.253 Identify the correct statements w.r.t. the given cell

i. Connected with lipid and steroidal hormone synthesis
.i n
ii. Outer non-living rigid structure which gives shape to the cell and protects from mechanical damage and
infection. al
iii. Both lie perpendicular to each other and each has an organisation like the cart wheet.
n
iv. Responsible for trapping light for the synthesis of sugar.
ur
v. Present in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion.

o
vi. Spherical structures, rich in hydrolytic enzymes.

uj
Ed
(A) i, iv and v (B) ii, iii and iv (C) i, iii and vi (D) i, ii, iii and vi
10.79
Q.254 Consider the following five statements (A to E) w.r.t. chloroplast shown below. Select the correct
option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are False (F).
b c
a
e
d
1. It is impermeable and lack porins.
2. It is selectively permeable, having carrier proteins for transport.
3. Staked thylkaoids one over other which is the site of production of assimilatory power.
.i n
4. Present between two grana and contains enzymes of dark reaction
a b c d e
n al
5. It contains enzymes for the synthesis of sugar and proteins.
(A) F T T T T
ur
(B) F T T F T
(C) T F T T T
o
(D) T F F T T
uj
Q.255 Find out the correct option on the basis of following diagrams
Ed
(A) A- Satellite, B-Secondary constriction C-Short arm, D-Long arm

(B) A-Satellite, B-centromere C-Short arm, D-Long arm
(C) A-Secondary constriction, B-Satellite C-Long arm, D-Short arm
(D) A-NOR, B-Secondary constriction C-Short arm, D-Long arm
10.80

Q.1 In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
(B) Polar layer is hydrophobic
(C) Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part
(D) Proteins form a middle layer
Q.2 Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane [AIPMT 2007]
(A) Cholesterol (B) Glycolipids
(C) Proline (D) Phospholipids
n
Q.3 Keeping in view the ‘’Fluid mosaic model’’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following
.i
statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the
other (described as flipflop movement
(A) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
n al [AIPMT 2008]
(B) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop

ur
(C) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop

o
(D) While lipids can rarely flip-flop proteins can not

uj
Q.4 Plasmodesmata are [AIPMT 2009]

Ed
(A) Connections between adjacent cells

(B) Lignefied cemented layers between cells
(C) Locomotary structures
(D) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma.
Q.5 Middle lamella is composed mainly of [AIPMT 2009]

(A) Phosphoglycerides (B) Hemicellulose
(C) Muramic acid (D) Calcium pectate
10.81
Q.6 The plasma membrane consists mainly of [AIPMT Pre. 2010]

(A) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
(B) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(C) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
(D) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
Q.7 Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cell is an effective transport parhway
[AIPMT Pre. 2010]
(A) Plasmalemma (B) Plasmodesmata
(C) Plastoquinones (D) Endoplasmeic refleculum
Q.8 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
n
[AIPMT Pre. 2011]
.i
(A) Plasma membrane (B) Nucleus
(C) Ribosomes (D) Cell wall
n al
Q.9 Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane [AIPMT Pre. 2012]
ur
(A) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
o
(B) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
uj
(C) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
(D) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane
Ed
Q.10 Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydononas? [AIPMT Pre. 2012]
(A) Cell wall (B) Cell membrane
(C) Ribosomes (D) Chromosomal organization
Q.11 Which of the following is the site of lipid synthesis [RPMT 2002]
(A) Rough ER (B) Smooth ER (C) Golgi bodies (D) Ribosome
Q.12 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct? [RPMT 2006]
(A) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
(B) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
(C) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
(D) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
10.82
Q.13 The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is [RPMT 2010]
(A) Nucleus (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Mitochondrian (D) Cytoplasm
Q.14 Important site for formation fo glycoproteins and glycolipids is [AIPMT Pre. 2011]
(A) Vacuole (B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Plastid (D) Lysosome
Q.15 Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?
[AIPMT Mains 2011]
(A) Lysosome (B) Golgi complex
(C) Peroxisome (D) Vacuole
Q.16 A major site for synthesis of lipids is [NEET 2013]
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(A) Symplast (B) Nucleoplasm
.i
(C) RER (D) SER
Q.17 Golgibody is concerned with

n al [RPMT 2004]
(A) Respiration (B) Secretion
ur
(C) Excretion (D) Degradation

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Q.18 In which one of the following would you except to find glyxysomes ? [AIIMS 2005]
uj
(A) Endosperm of wheat (B) Endosperm of castor

Ed
(C) Palisade cells in leaf (D) Root hairs
Q.19 Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct [AIPMT 2006]
(A) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane
(B) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
(C) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
(D) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules
10.83
Q.20 Select the wrong statement from the following [AIPMT 2007]
(A) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an inner and outer membrane
(B) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by
the thylakoid membrane
(C) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
(D) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria
Q.21 The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Magnesium (B) Calcium (C) Copper (D) Manganese
Q.22 Polysome is formed by [AIPMT 2008]

(A) A ribosome with several subunits
n
(B) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
.i
(C) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
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(D) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
n
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Q.23 Vacuole in a plant cell [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Lacks membrane and contain air
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(B) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances

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(C) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids

Ed
(D) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
Q.24 Cytoskeleton is made up of [AIPMT 2009]

(A) Proteinaceous filaments
(B) Calcium carbonate granules
(C) Callose deposits
(D) Cellulosic microfibrils
Q.25 An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in
the maintenance of cell shape is called [AIPMT Mains 2010]
(A) Endosplasmic Reticulum (B) Plasmalemma
(C) Cytoskeleton (D) Thylakoid
10.84
Q.26 Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in [AIPMT Pre. 2011]
(A) Chloroplast (B) Mitochondria (C) Chromoplast (D) Ribosomes
Q.27 The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespirations is [AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) Chloroplast-mitochondria-peroxisome
(B) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
(C) Chloroplast-Golgibodies-mitochondria
(D) Chloroplast-Rough endoplasmic reticulum-Dictyosomes
Q.28 Which one of the following structures is in organelle within an organelle? [AIPMT Mains 2012]
(A) ER (B) Mesosome (C) Ribosome (D) Peroxisome
n
Q.29 Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described? [AIPMT Mains 2012]
.i
(A) Ribosomes: those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)
(B) Lysosomes: optimally active at a pH of about 8.5 al
(C) Thylakoids: flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
n
(D) Centrioles: sites for active RNA synthesis
ur
Q.30 Which of the following occurs more than one and less than five in a chromosome [CPMT-2002]
o
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(A) Chromatid (B) Nuclesome (C) Centromere (D) Telomere

Ed
Q.31 The cells without nuclei are present in [RPMT-2002]

(A) Vascular hair (B) Root hair (C) Companion cell (D) Members of sieve tube
Q.32 Which protein regulate the nucleocytoplasmic traffic

(A) Desmin (B) Vimentin (C) Nucleoplasmin (D) Synemin
Q.33 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which
of the following stages can you most conveniently look into [AIPMT-2004]
(A) Telophase (B) Anaphase (C) Prophase (D) Metaphase
Q.34 Plant with minimum number of chromosomes is [RPMT-2004]

(A) Haplopoppus gracilis (B) Solix tetrasperma
(C) Poa (D) Cynodon
10.85
Q.35 Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs [AIPMT-2005]

(A) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(B) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
(C) Ony on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope ad endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
Q.36 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How
is the DNA accommodated ? [AIPMT-2007]
(A) Deletion of non-esential genes
(B) Supper-coiling in nucleosomes.
(C) DNase digestion
(D) Through elimination of reptetitive DNA
.i n
Q.37 Nuclear membrane is absent in [AIPMT Pre-2012]
(A) Volvox (B) Nostoc
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(C) Penicillium (D) Agaricus
Q.38 Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in [AIPMT Pre-2012]

ur
(A) Nucleoplasm (B) Ribosomes (C) Lysosomes (D) Nucleolus

o
uj
Q.39 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria’ membrane is not correct? [CBSE 2006]
(A) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
Ed
(B) The outer membrane resembles a sieve

(C) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
(D) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane.
Q.40 Which of the following organelles is common between plants and animal? [Orissa 2007]
(A) Chloroplast (B) Centriole (C) Cell wall (D) Mitochondria
Q.41 Which one of the following is not a part of cell membrane? [CBSE 2007]
(A) Proline (B) Phospholipids (C) Cholesterol (D) Glycolipids
10.86
Q.42 Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains [CBSE Prelims 2009]
(A) Ribosomes (B) Chlorophyll
(C) Light-independent reaction enzymes (D) Light-dependent reaction enzymes
Q.43 There is no DNA in [CBSE Prelims 2009]

(A) A mature spermatozoan (B) Hair root
(C) An enucleated ovum (D) Mature RBCs
Q.44 Which one of the following has its own DNA? [CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) Peroxisome (B) Mitochondria (C) Dictyosome (D) Lysosome
Q.45 The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is [CBSE Prelims 2010]
.i n
(A) Nucleus (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Mitochondrian
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(D) Cytoplasm
Q.46 Recent researches suggest that peroxi-somes have origin. [Chandigarh CET 2010]
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(A) Cyanobacterial (B) Fusobacterial (C) Actinobacterial (D) Proteobacterial

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Q.47 Who first saw and described-a live cell? [HP PMT 2010]
uj
(A) Anton von Leeuwenhoek (B) Matthias Schleiden

Ed
(C) Theodore Schwan (D) Rudolf Virchow
Q.48 In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in [HP PMT 2010]
(A) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) (B) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
(C) Golgi apparatus (D) Lysosomes
Q.49 New cells generate from [HP PMT 2010]

(A) Bacterial fermentation (B) Regeneration of old cells
(C) Pre-existing cells (D) Abiotic materials
Q.50 Which of the following is not a true organelle? [AMU Medical 2011]
(A) Lysosome (B) Ribosome (C) Chloroplast (D) Mitochondrion
10.87
Q.51 Plant cell differs from animal cell by Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) Presence of vacuoles (B) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast
(C) Absence of cell wall (D) Absence of chloroplast
Q.52 Chromosomes are concerned with [Chandigarh CET 2012]

(A) Respiration (B) Growth
(C) Transmission of heredity characters (D) Assimilation
Q.53 Which of the following structures is not bounded by cell membrane? [Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) Spherosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Ribosomes (D) Lysosomes
Q.54 The colour of flower petals is due to [Chandigarh CET 2012]
.i n
(A) Xanthophyll (B) Carotenes (C) Anthocyanin (D) Phycoerythrin
Q.55 Site of protein synthesis is

n al [Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) Ribosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Nucleus (D) DNA
ur
Q.56 Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell? [HP PMT 2012]
o
(A) Plasma membrane (B) Nuclear membrane

uj
(C) Cell wall (D) Ribosomes

Ed
Q.57 Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is mostly concerned with [HP PMT 2012]
(A) Protein synthesis (B) Carbohydrate synthesis
(C) Peptide bond formation (D) Lipid synthesis
Q.58 The membrane around the vacuoles of the plant cell is known as [HP PMT 2012]
(A) Cell envelope (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Nuclear membrane (D) Tonoplast
Q.59 The prokaryotic ribosomes are [HP PMT 2012]

(A) 50S (B) 60S (C) 70S (D) 80S
10.88
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 C Q.4 A Q.5 A Q.6 B
Q.7 D Q.8 B Q.9 B Q.10 D Q.11 A Q.12 A
Q.13 C Q.14 A Q.15 B Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 C
Q.19 B Q.20 D Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 B
Q.25 D Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 A Q.29 A Q.30 D
n
Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 A Q.34 A Q.35 A Q.36 C
.i
Q.37 C Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 B Q.41 C Q.42 A
Q.43 D Q.44 C Q.45 C
al
Q.46 B
n
Q.47 A Q.48 C
Q.49 D Q.50 D Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 A Q.54 C
ur
Q.55 D Q.56 A Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 D Q.60 D

o
Q.61 B Q.62 B Q.63 D Q.64 C Q.65 C Q.66 D

uj
Q.67 B Q.68 C Q.69 C Q.70 C Q.71 D Q.72 A

Ed
Q.73 A Q.74 B Q.75 D Q.76 D Q.77 A Q.78 B

Q.79 D Q.80 C Q.81 D Q.82 A Q.83 D Q.84 A
Q.85 C Q.86 C Q.87 B Q.88 B Q.89 A Q.90 A
Q.91 C Q.92 A Q.93 D Q.94 B Q.95 D Q.96 C
Q.97 B Q.98 C Q.99 B Q.100 B Q.101 C Q.102 A
Q.103 B Q.104 B Q.105 C Q.106 A Q.107 B Q.108 C
Q.109 A Q.110 D Q.111 D Q.112 D Q.113 C Q.114 B
Q.115 A Q.116 A Q.117 D Q.118 B Q.119 D Q.120 C
Q.121 C Q.122 B Q.123 A Q.124 B Q.125 B Q.126 C
Q.127 D Q.128 C Q.129 D Q.130 B Q.131 B Q.132 B
10.89
Q.133 A Q.134 B Q.135 B Q.136 B Q.137 D Q.138 C

Q.139 C Q.140 A Q.141 D Q.142 B Q.143 D Q.144 D
Q.145 D Q.146 B Q.147 A Q.148 C Q.149 A Q.150 C
Q.151 A Q.152 C Q.153 A Q.154 D Q.155 D Q.156 A
Q.157 B Q.158 D Q.159 B Q.160 D Q.161 D Q.162 D
Q.163 B Q.164 D Q.165 B Q.166 D Q.167 D Q.168 C
Q.169 C Q.170 C Q.171 B Q.172 B Q.173 D Q.174 A
Q.175 A Q.176 C Q.177 B Q.178 D Q.179 D Q.180 A
Q.181 B Q.182 C Q.183 C Q.184 C Q.185 B Q.186 B
n
Q.187 C Q.188 D Q.189 A Q.190 B Q.191 A Q.192 B
.i
Q.193 C Q.194 D Q.195 D Q.196 B Q.197 A Q.198 C
Q.199 B Q.200 C Q.201 B
al
Q.202 B
n
Q.203 C Q.204 B
Q.205 B Q.206 D Q.207 B Q.208 C Q.209 C Q.210 C
ur
Q.211 B Q.212 D Q.213 B Q.214 B Q.215 C Q.216 A

o
Q.217 B Q.218 D Q.219 A Q.220 A Q.221 B Q.222 B

uj
Q.223 B Q.224 B Q.225 D Q.226 B Q.227 B Q.228 B

Ed
Q.229 D Q.230 A Q.231 C Q.232 B Q.233 B Q.234 D

Q.235 A Q.236 C Q.237 C Q.238 C Q.239 D Q.240 B
Q.241 C Q.242 A Q.243 A Q.244 D Q.245 A Q.246 A
Q.247 B Q.248 C Q.249 D Q.250 D Q.251 D Q.252 B
Q.253 C Q.254 B Q.255 B
10.90

Q.1 C Q.2 C Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 D Q.6 C
Q.7 B Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 B
Q.13 D Q.14 D Q.15 B Q.16 D Q.17 B Q.18 B
Q.19 A Q.20 B Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 D Q.24 A
Q.25 C Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 C Q.29 C Q.30 D
Q.31 D Q.32 C Q.33 D Q.34 A Q.35 A Q.36 B
Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 D Q.40 D Q.41 A Q.42 C
Q.43 D Q.44 B Q.45 D Q.46 C Q.47 A Q.48 B
Q.49 C Q.50 B Q.51 B Q.52 C Q.53 C Q.54 C
Q.55 A Q.56 B Q.57 D Q.58 D Q.59 C
.in
n al
o ur
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Ed
B
|VOL.III|Unit 3
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Biomolecules
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Ed
11.1
CHAPTER 11
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BIOMOLECULES
.i
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
The cells form the basis of each organism. Thus,
INTRODUCTION the cell and its constituents play a major role in
o
any organism’s life. We know the cell is made

ANALYSING METHOD OF THE CHEMICAL
uj
up of a membrane and several organelles that

COMPOSITION IN A CELL are with or even without membrane, in details.
Ed
STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION OF: PROTEINS, The cell has living and non-living materials or
chemicals in it. All the matter in an organism at
CARBOHYDRATES, LIPIDS, NUCLEIC ACIDS, molecular level looks similar which means that
ENZYMES AND ITS TYPES, THEIR PROPERTIES the organisms share the molecular characters
AND ENZYME ACTION also. The molecular composition in a cell and
around it in a tissue is similar for all living organisms
and also for the earth’s crust as found in a study.
However, the hydrogen and carbon contents are
more in a living tissue or a cell.
11.2
Biomolecules

y Distinguish between several molecules.
y Realize their importance in a cells life.
y Learn all the compounds that are present in the cell.
The science which deals with the study of chemical constituents and the reactions between them in
any living organism is called as Biochemistry. Neuberg used biochemistry term for first time and is also
known as the “Father of Biochemistry”. The cells protoplasm has organic as well as inorganic matter
which is together called as biomolecules as these chemicals make life possible in a cell.
Table 11.1: Various elements present in Earth's crust and human body with their weight
Element Earth’s crust value in % weight Human body value in % weight
n
Hydrogen 0.14 0.5
.i
Carbon 0.03 18.5
Oxygen
Nitrogen
46.6
Very little
n al 65.0
3.3
Sulphur 0.03 0.3
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Sodium 2.8 0.2

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Calcium 3.6 1.5

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Magnesium 2.1 0.1

Ed
Silicon 27.7 Negligible

The cellular biomolecules together are also called as cellular pool which includes water, inorganic
materials and organic materials. There are various types of divisions of the biomolecules:
y Micromolecules and macromolecules: The concentrations, weight, structure and solubilities of
molecules in a cell differ for all the types present. The molecules which have low molecular weight,
simple structures and higher solubilities are called as micromolecules, E.g. minerals, water, sugars
(simple and complex), amino acids. The chemicals that have higher molecular weight, lower solubilities,
and complex structures are called as macromolecules, e.g. nucleic acids, proteins.
y Organic and inorganic compounds: The molecules that have C, H, O together in their composition
is called as organic compounds. E.g. carbohydrates, proteins, fats, nucleic acids. Enzymes, hormones,
etc. the molecules that do not have C, H, O as a group in their composition is called as inorganic
compounds. E.g. minerals, water.
11.3
Biomolecules
y Major elements and minor elements: The elements that are in higher amounts in a cell is called as
major elements. E.g. carbon (C), hydrogen (H), nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), phosphorus (P), sulphur
(S). They in all make the 98% of protoplasmic weight, thus also termed as protoplasmic elements.
Minor elements are the chemicals that are in less amounts in the cell. E.g. calcium (Ca), magnesium
(Mg), potassium (K), chlorine (Cl), iodine (I), iron (Fe), sodium (Na). They make the 2% weight of the
protoplasm.
2. How did Scientist Analysed the Chemical Components of the Cell?

y The cell usually is of micrometre size which is enclosed in a membrane or a wall. Thus, to study its
constituents we need to open the cell and expose or reveal its compounds.
y The cell is hence extracted from a source (plant stem, animal liver, microbial colony, etc.) and then
mixed with trichloroacetic acid (Cl3CCOOH). This mixture is ground with pestle and mortar which is
further strained through cheese cloth or cotton.
n
y The resultant has two fractions: filtrate is called as acid soluble pool, while the residue is called as acid
.i
insoluble fraction.
y al
The acid pool includes cytoplasmic composition. The cytoplasm and organelles have macromolecules
which are insoluble in acid and thus are present in the residue.
n
y The fractions obtained are further separated to identify and study the components of the cell by various
ur
analytical techniques.
y The conclusions from the methods used are that the cell has both small and large molecules present in
o
it. The filtrate is found to have small molecular weight chemicals called as biomicromolecules and large
uj
molecular weight chemicals are called as biomacromolecules.

Ed
DID YOU KNOW

The cell has fluid with all the structures of a cell within the limits of the cell membrane, called
as protoplasm. Thus protoplasm is plasma membrane, cytoplasm, cell organelles and
nucleus. Protoplasm of a single cell which has no cell wall is called as Protoplast.
? y Protoplasm is a Greek word (Prots = first, Plasma = organization).

y Corti in 1772 first observed Protoplasm.
y Felix Dujardin called it as ‘Sarcode’ in 1835 who observed animal cells have jelly like
substance (protozoa).
y J.E. Purkinje in 1840 studied plant cells and found similar substance. He also coined the
term ‘Protoplasm’.
11.4
Biomolecules
DID YOU KNOW

y Hugo Van Mohl in 1846 studied the nature of embryonic cell protoplasm of plants and
also explained the protoplasm importance in the cell division.
?
y Max Schultze in 1861 studied the sarcode and protoplasm and laid their similarities.
Schultze proposed protoplasm theory (name given by O. Hertwig). Max Schultze called
protoplasm as “physical basis of life”.
y J.S. Huxley in 1868 wrote and published book named “Protoplasm is physical basis
of life”
y Rinke and Roderwald in 1881 first of all performed the chemical analysis of protoplasm.
n
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
.i
Physical Nature of Protoplasm al
Theories that are proposed which explain the physical nature of protoplasm.
n
y Alveolar theory: “Butschli”.
ur
y Granular theory: “Altman”.

o
y Fibrillar theory: “Flemming”.

uj
y Reticular theory: “Hanstein, Klein and Carnoy”,

Ed
y The above listed theories were not accepted.

y Colloidal theory: “Fisher Hardy” and “Wilson”
○ This is the most acceptable theory for protoplasm in a cell. According to this theory, the
protoplasm is a Polyphasic Colloidal System.
Compounds of Protoplasm
y The chemicals in a cytoplasm are present as free ions or as combined form where two
three different elements form compounds.
y Inorganic compounds in a protoplasm are:
○ Water = 70%–90%
○ Salts, acids, bases, gases = 1%–3%

11.5
Biomolecules
–
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Organic compounds present in the cytoplasm are:
○ Proteins = 7%–14%
○ Lipids = 1%–3%
○ Carbohydrates = 1%–2%
○ Nucleic acids, enzymes and other = 1%–3%
y The dry weight of an animal cell have 60%–70% part of protein forms.
y The dry weight of a plant cell have 80% part of carbohydrate forms as plant cells have
walls which are made up of cellulose (complex carbohydrate).
The acid insoluble pallet includes polysaccharides (carbohydrates) which is a
n
macromolecule. Polysaccharides have monosaccharides in long chains, called as
.i
polymers. They are threads or fibers (literally a cotton thread) which are made up of
al
different monosaccharides, called as building blocks. For example, cellulose which is a
polymeric polysaccharide made from only one type of monosaccharide - glucose. Thus,
n
cellulose is a homopolymer. Starch is different from a homopolymer and is as a store for
energy source in all the plant tissues. Animals have glycogen which is again a different
ur
homopolymer, a storage compound of energy. Inulin is a polymer made up of fructose.

A polysaccharide chain has two different ends, the right end is called as the reducing
o
point while the left end is called as the non-reducing point. Starch is a homopolymer which
uj
has helical secondary structures. Starch has the ability to capture iodine molecules in the
helical portion and turns the solution in blue colour. Cellulose on other hand lack the ability
Ed
to hold the iodine molecules and thus do not turn the iodine solution blue.
Cellulose is a major constituent of cell wall in almost all the plants. Paper which is made
from plant pulp contains mainly cellulose. Cotton fiber also is majorly cellulose only. Not
only these polysaccharides, but several more complex structures exist for polysaccharides
in nature. They exist as building blocks, amino sugars and chemically modified sugars
combined with several other compounds (e.g., glucosamine, N-acetyl galactosamine etc.).
Exoskeletons of arthropods, is made up of complex polysaccharide called as chitin which
is a heteropolymer.
11.6
Biomolecules
3. Carbohydrates
y First respiratory substrate for the oxidation are carbohydrate which produce maximum energy in the body.
y They have Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen in a 2:1ratio of the H : O, thus also called as hydrates
of carbon.
y Generalized formula of carbohydrates is Cx(H2O)y where x and y are real natural numbers from 1, 2, 3…
y There are simple carbohydrates and complex carbohydrates. The simple ones are soluble in
water and taste sweet which are called as “Sugar”. The complex ones are insoluble in water and
have no taste at all.
y The structure of simple carbohydrates has an aldehyde group and complex carbohydrates has
ketone group.
Classification of Carbohydrates
n
The saccharide number changes in carbohydrates which forms the basis of classification. Major
.i
classes are Monosaccharides, Oligosaccharides and Polysaccharides.
3.1 Monosaccharides
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3.1.1 General Characteristics
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y They are the simplest sugars which cannot be further hydrolysed.

o
y The formula is Cn(H2O)n for monosaccharides.

uj
y Monosaccharides occur in D and L conformation with the exception of Dihydroxy acetone which
does not has chiral carbon in its structure. Chiral carbon is the central carbon which has all its four
Ed
valences satisfied by different functional groups
Open chain Ring form Open chain Ring form

Figure 11.1: Structure of glucose Figure 11.2: Structure of ribose
11.7
Biomolecules
Deoxyribose in ring form

Open chain (Occurs in DNA)
.in
Figure 11.3: Structure of L-Fructose Figure 11.4: Deoxyribose structure
y
n al
The saccharides have either ring or straight chain structure.
Epimer: Isomer formed after there is interchange in the functional group – OH and – H groups on 2,
ur
3 and 4 carbon atom in glucose structure, are known as Epimer. Example: Epimer of Glucose are
Mannose (Difference on C2 carbon) and Galactose (Difference on C4 carbon)
o
uj
Ed
Table 11.2: Classification of monosaccharides on the basis of number of carbons
Class Number of carbon atoms Common formulae Examples

Trioses 3 C 3 H6 O3 Glyceraldehyde, dihydroxyacetone
Tetroses 4 C 4 H8 O4 Erythrose, erythrulose
Xylose, xylulose, deoxyribose,
Pentoses 5 C5H10O5
ribose ribulose
Rhamnose, mannose, galactose,
Hexoses 6 C6H12O6
gucose, fructose,
Heptoses 7 C7H14O7 Seduheptulose
11.8
Biomolecules
y Ribulose: Found in nucleoplasm.

y Arabinose: Found in Gum Arabic which is obtained from organisms like Acassia Arabia, Acassianilotica,
Acassia Senegal. Common use is in cold drinks.
y Xylose: Found in cell wall of plants.
y Xylusose: Is a component of hemicelluloses in the woods of plants.
y Glucose: High amounts in grapes, thus is known as grape sugar. High levels in blood and thus called
as blood sugar. Forms main energy source and is respiratory substrate in the cell. The mirror image is
also called as dextrose.
y Fructose: Has sweetest taste. Present in high amounts in honey and sweet fruits and thus termed
as fruit sugar. Thaumatin is sweetest carbohydrate which is extracted from Thaumatococcus danielli
bacteria. Aspartame/Aspartin is commonly used as an artificial sweetener in most of the foods.
It is non carcinogenic.
n
y Galactose: Brain sugar is it’s another name as it is in high amounts in brain and nervous tissue. This
.i
sugar is always a part of some compound (never present in free form). E.g. Hemicellulose, lactose,
pectin, glycolipid. al
y Mannose: Even this sugar is accompanied with some other component and not available in free form.
n
e.g. Albumin - Egg, Hemicellulose – Wood.
ur
y Rhamnose: The second carbon atom in the structure lacks one oxygen atom and the molecular formula
is C6H12O5. The sugar is present in phloem.
o
uj
3.1.2 Derivatives of Monosaccharides

y Amino sugars: The hydroxyl group in the second carbon atom is displaced with the amino group.
Ed
E.g. Glucosamine, Galactosamine.

y Sugar alcohol: The aldehyde group (-CHO) in the sugar is displaced with the primary alcohol (-CH2OH).
E.g. Sorbitol and Mannitol are formed from glucose and mannose, respectively.
y Sugar acids: The terminal –CHO or – CH2OH group of the sugar gets oxidised to produce a carboxyl
functional group –COOH. E.g. Glucoronic acid, galacturonic acid.
11.9
Biomolecules
3.2 Oligosaccharides
y The carbohydrates on hydrolysis give 2 to 10 monosaccharide units (monomers) are called
as oligosaccharides.
y The monosaccharides have glycosidic bonds that bind them together. The glycosidic bond is formed
when the aldehyde or ketone group of one monosaccharide reacts with the alcoholic group of another
monosaccharide. The structure loses one molecule of H2O during the glycosidic bond formation
(dehydration synthesis).
3.2.2 Types of Oligosaccharides

Disaccharide: Has two monosaccharide units in the structure. E.g. Maltose, Sucrose, Lactose, Trehalose.
y All the disaccharides are water soluble and taste sweet, thus are called as sugar.
n
y Maltose, commonly known as malt sugar which is an intermediate compound in the starch digestion
.i
by enzymes. Maltose has 1- 4 glycosidic linkage between α – D glucose and α – D glucose so
maltose is reducing sugar. al
y Lactose is milk sugar with β-1-4 glycosidic linkage between β-D-glucose and β-D-galactose so
n
lactose is reducing sugar.
ur
y Lactose is almost tasteless or very less sweet.

y Human milk contains maximum lactose which is 7%.
o
y The sugar in plants is transported in the form of sucrose.

uj
y Sucrose is called by many names: invert sugar, Cane Sugar or Table Sugar or common sugar or
commercial sugar.
Ed
y Sucrose is made up of α – D-glucose and β – D-fructose units.

y The haemolymph of insects has trehalose. There is glycosidic linkage between the two anomeric
carbon atoms ( -Glucose and -Glucose) or 1-1 linkage. Thus, trehalose is a non-reducing sugar.
11.10
Biomolecules
(α-1, 4-glycosidic)
.i n
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(β-1, 4-glycosidic linkage)

Ed
(α-1, 2-glycosidic linkage)

Figure 11.5: Structural formulae of some disaccharides
11.11
Biomolecules
Trisaccharide: Has three monosaccharide units in the structure. e.g. Raffinose (Galactose + Glucose +
Fructose)
Tetrasaccharide: Has four monosaccharide units in the structure. e.g. Stachyose (Galactose + Galactose
+ Glucose +Fructose)
Pentasaccharide: Has five monosaccharide units in the structure. e.g. Barbascose (Galactose +
Galactose + Glucose + Fructose)
Raffinose and Stachyose are present in phloem cells in plants and can also be used for translocation
of carbohydrates in phloem.
3.3 Polysaccharides
y Polysaccharides are made up of large number of monosaccharide units.
n
y The names end in or suffixed with ‘-an’ so that they are called as glycans.
.i
y Pentose polysaccharides are commonly termed as pentosans for e.g. Araban (from L-arabinose),
al
xylan (from D-xylose), present in cell wall.
n
y Hexose polysaccharides are called as “hexans” for e.g. mannans (from mannose) cellulose, starch
ur
etc. present in plants and animals.
y Polysaccharides are non-soluble in water, non-reducing and taste sweet less.
o
y They are classified as nutritive and structural polysaccharides on the basis of their functional group.
uj
3.3.2 Types of Polysaccharides

Ed
(i) Homopolysaccharides: They have same monomers in their structures. The important ones in terms of
biology are as follows:
a. Cellulose: is a linear polymer of β-D-glucose units (6000 to 10,000 Dal) which have β 1-4 linkage
among the glucose molecules. When the cellulose is partially digested it gives a cellobiose unit
(Disaccharide).
y Cellulose forms major component in a plant cell
y Cellulose are 50% in wood and is 90% in cotton.
y It is the most abundant molecule for its organic matter on earth.
y Urochordates have cellulose like material called as “Tunicin” which is also called as Animal cellulose.
y It is used in manufacture of the Rayon fibre (Artificial silk).
11.12
Biomolecules
.i n
n al
Figure 11.6: Structure of starch grains in various food
ur
b. Starch: Storage food or carbohydrates in the plants. Starch is a polymer of α –D-glucose

o
units. Starch consist of two types of chains.

uj
i. Amylose is an unbranched polymer with 250–300 glucose units joined with α–1,4 linkage
Ed
bonds.
ii. Amylopectin is a branched chain of 30 glucose units that are linked with α–1,4 and
α–1,6 linkage bonds.
Figure 11.7: Structure of Amylopectin

11.13
Biomolecules
○ Amylose with iodine give blue colour while Amylopectin gives red colour.
○ Starch contains 20% amylose and 80% amylopectin which is present in potato.
○ Potato starch turns purple or violet in colour when mixed with iodine.
Figure 11.8: Structure of amylose
c. Glycogen: The storage carbohydrate present in animals, maximum amounts are present in liver and
muscles. Glycogen is thus also called as animal starch. Glycogen is a highly branched polymer
n
which is made up of α –D-glucose.
.i
○ This carbohydrate has the 1-4 bond linkage at long unbranched chain and 1-6 bond
○
al
linkage at the branching points in the polymer.
Glycogen turns red colour with iodine solution.
n
Glycogen is a storage food of many fungi.
ur
○
o
uj
Ed
Figure 11.9: Diagram of glycogen molecule
d. Chitin: Linear polymer which consists of N-acetyl- D-glucosamine which is an amino acyl
derivative of glucose bonding with β-1-4-linkage.
○ Chitin forms exoskeleton of animals in Arthropoda phylum and cell walls present in fungi.
○ It is the second most abundant molecule for organic matter on earth.
○ It is also called as fungal cellulose as it is in their cell wall.
11.14
Biomolecules
e. Inulin: Linear polymer that consist of 25-35 fructose units linked together with β-1-2 bonds.
Inulin is present in Dahlia and Artichoke roots. It is water soluble polysaccharide and it is used
to know the glomerular filtration rate.
○ It is smallest storage polysaccharide.
f. Dextrin: Dextrin is formed as an intermediate matter during the digestion of glycogen and
starch. The hydrolysis of dextrin give glucose and maltose are formed. This is a storage food
in yeast and bacteria.
(ii) Heteropolysaccharides: It has different monosaccharide units in the structure.
a. Hyaluronic acid: Commonly observed in vitreous humour, umbilical cord, joints and connective
tissue of the animals in the form of a lubricating agent. It is also present in animal cell coat which
acts as a binding material (animal cement).
○ It is made up of D-Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl – D-glucosamine amyl group arranged in
n
alternate orders in the chain. These different monosaccharides have β-1-3 linkage bonds
while the disaccharides have β-1-4 linkage bonds.
.i
○
al
b. Chondriotin: D- glucuronic acid and N-acetyl galactosamine polymer.
Chondriotin is present in the connective tissue of animals.
n
○ Sulphate ester of the chondriotin is a main structural component which is present in the
ur
cartilages, tendons and bones of animals.

c. Heparin: It is an anticoagulant of blood. Heparin has D-glucuronic acid and N-sulphate glucosamine
o
molecules arranged in an alternate order in the polymer.

uj
d. Pectins: Methylated galacturonic acid, galactose and arabinose constitute the polymer.
Ed
○ Pectin is found in the plant cell walls where it binds the cellulose fibrils in bundles.
○ Salts of pectin which is pectates of Ca and Mg form the middle lamella in plants.
○ Thus, it is also called as plant cement.
e. Hemicellulose: Mannose, Galactose, Arabinose and Xylulose form the structure of the polymer.
○ Phytalophus have hemicellulose as storage material which is an Ivory palm. This carbohydrate
when extracted from this plant, has white, hard and shiny appearance. This is used in
manufacture of billiard ball and artificial ivory.
3.4 Mucopolysaccharides
The slimy polysaccharides which have the capacity to bind proteins with the water molecules are called as
mucopolysaccharides. Mucilage is a common mucopolysaccharide present in plants which are made up of
galactose and mannose units.
Similarly hyaluronic acid (in streptococcus, animals sperm), chondriotin, heparin (in blood as anticoagulant)
are other common examples.
11.15
Biomolecules
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
There are several other polysaccharides which are complex and made of three or more
different compounds.
y Cerebrosides: They include amino alcohol named as sphingosine, a fatty acid and a
sugar molecule in their structure. The polar head group in this structure is neutral as it is
made up of sugar unit. Glucocerebrosides have D-glucose in their head region and are
present in all the cell membranes. Galactocerebrosides have D-galactose in their head
region and are present in all cell membrane of brain cells.
y Gangliosides: They include sphingosine or dihydro sphingosine, fatty acid, glucose,
galactose, N-acetyl galactosamine and sialic acid in their structure. Gangliosides take
part during the ion transport and are the receptor for many viral particles and toxins like
cholera toxin. They are commonly found in grey matter of the CNS and vertebral cord.
n
y Sphingomyelins: These are lipids which lack glycerol however have a complex
.i
amino alcohol sphingosine. It is an esterified molecule, having one fatty acid and a
al
phosphocholine or phosphor ethanolamine in the polar head region. Sphingomyelins are
lipids present in many animals as a part of the cell membrane. They are also a major part
n
in the myelin sheath or covering of nerve fibers.
ur
4. Lipids
o
The fats along with its derivatives are called as lipids.

uj
y
y The term Lipid was coined by Bloor.
Ed
y C, H, O are present in all the lipids and the ratio of Hydrogen to Oxygen is never 2:1 like carbohydrates.
The oxygen in lipids is very less.
y Lipids solubilize in organic solvents like acetones, benzene, chloroform, ether, hot alcohol, etc.
y Lipids are found in protoplasm as small globules.
y Lipids do not form polymer.
y Lipids when oxidized provide double amount of the energy as compared to that of carbohydrates.
y The fats or lipids present in the subcutaneous layer is a food reservoir and also a shock-absorber.
y Lipid occupies less space during its storage unlike carbohydrate as lipid molecules are hydrophobic
and condense in the cell.
y Animals store maximum food part in the form of lipids.
y Lipid on oxidation are also a source of maximum amount of metabolic water as compared with
carbohydrate and protein.
11.16
Biomolecules
Figure 11.10: A phospholipid molecule showing polar head group and non-polar tails
n
4.1 Simple Lipid or Neutral Fats
.i
n al
y These are long chain fatty acids and alcohol esters. In majority of simple lipids, the alcohol is a
ur
trihydroxy sugar alcohol i.e. glycerol.
y Three molecules of fatty acids are combined with one molecule of glycerol. The bond is called as
o
“ester bond” and the lipids that have such bonds are called as Triglycerides. Three molecules of
uj
water are released when triglycerides are formed (dehydration synthesis)

y Similar or different fatty acids are present in the composition of a fat molecule. Simple lipids include
Ed
two fatty acid types.
4.1.2. Types of Lipids or Fats

i. Saturated fatty acids – All the carbon atoms in the hydro-carbon chain are saturated or bonded
with hydrogen atoms.
○ Palmitic acid – CH3(CH2)14-COOH
○ Stearic acid - CH3(CH2)16-COOH
ii. Unsaturated fatty acids – Some carbon atoms are not valenced with hydrogen atoms or remain
unsaturated.
○ Oleic acid
○ Linoleic acid
○ Linolenic acid
11.17
Biomolecules
Figure 11.11: Lipid bilayer in aqueous solution

Polyunsaturated fatty acids have more than one double bond in their molecule e.g. Arachidonic acid,
Linoleic acid, Linolenic acid, Prostaglandins (derivation of arachidonic acid)
y Unsaturated fatty acids are also called as essential fatty acids because these cannot be synthesized
n
in the body.
.i
y Simple lipids that have saturated fatty acids are present in solid state at normal room temperature e.g.
fats. al
y Simple lipids that have unsaturated fatty acids in the structure are liquid at room temperatures
n
e.g. oils.
ur
y Saturated fatty acids are almost inert or less reactive which tend to get stored in the body and cause
obesity.
o
y Unsaturated fatty acids are more reactive and thus are metabolised in the body and provide energy.
uj
y Oils with poly unsaturated lipids are best recommendation by physicians to patients suffering from high
blood cholesterol or cardio-vascular diseases. This acts in increasing the poly unsaturated fatty
Ed
acids amounts to saturated fatty acids, without increasing the total fats in the diet. This in all lowers
the cholesterol level in blood.
iii. Waxes: are mono glycerides that have one molecule of fatty acid linked with a mono hydroxy alcohol.
Waxes are an important molecule that protect the cell or tissue in which they are present. They form
covering of hair and skin in animals and plants stem, leaves and fruits where waxes do not allow the
water to stay on them or solubilize in water.
E.g. Bees Wax (Hexacosyl palmitate)
Carnauba (Myricylcerotate) present on leaves, stem and fruits.
Maximum amount of carnauba covers the leaf surface of the xerophytic plants preventing water loss.
Spermaceti present in the whale and Dolphin skull.
Cerumen or ear wax present in external auditory meatus or opening of ears.
Lanoline or cholesterol ester present in blood, sebum and gonadal ducts where it acts as a lubricating
agent.
11.18
Biomolecules
4.2 Conjugated or Compound Lipids

4.2.1 Phospholipids or Phosphatide or Phospholipins
y Two fatty acid molecules, glycerol, phosphoric acid (H3PO4) along with nitrogenous compound.
Phospholipids are most common and abundant lipid present in the protoplasm.
y They have hydrophilic polar end (H3PO4 with nitrogenous compound) as well as hydrophobic non
polar end (fatty acids). Such molecules are called as amphipathic. Phospholipids can thus form
bimolecular layer in the cell membrane.
y Some biologically important phospholipids are as following:
a. Lecithin or Phosphatidyl choline
○ Nitrogenous compound is choline in the lecithin.
○ Lecithin is present in the egg yolk, oil seeds and blood.
n
○ The lecithin in blood acts as a carrier molecule to transport other lipids.
.i
b. Cephalin - The nitrogenous compound is ethanolamine and it is similar to lecithin, present in
nervous tissue, egg yolk and blood platelets.al
c. Sphingolipids or sphingomyelins are similar to lecithin however the glycerol is replaced with an
n
amino alcohol sphingosine.
ur
4.2.2 Sphingolipids
o
y They are present in the myelin sheath of nerves, other examples of phospholipid are Phosphatidyl
uj
serine, Phosphatidyl inositol, and plasmalogens.

Ed
y Glycolipid – 2 fatty acid molecules, sphingosine along with the galactose constitute the lipid.
y Cerebrosides are present in the white matter of human brain
y Gangliosides are present in the nerve ganglia and also spleen. These lipids have N-acetyl
neuraminic acid and glucose along with the other compounds.
y Glycolipids that are found on the cell surface are helpful in recognition of the cell.
4.3 Derived Lipids

These are derived from the simple or conjugated ones and usually have complex structure. These lipids are
insoluble in water however solubilize in organic solvents.
4.3.1 Steroids
The molecule has a tetracyclic structure termed as “Cyclopentane perhydrophenanthrene nucleus”. Steroids
are divided in two types on the basis of structure:
11.19
Biomolecules
y Sterols: Alcoholic steroids like cholesterol which are abundantly present in the adrenal gland, brain,
nervous tissue and also in skin. Cholesterol is a parent steroid from which other biologically important
steroids are derived. 7 – Dihydro cholesterol present in the skin is a pro vitamin. When the skin gets
exposed to ultraviolet radiation, cholesterol transforms into cholecalciferol commonly called as vitamin
D. Cholesterol is also called as the “most decorated micro molecule in biology”. Ergosterol: present in
oil seeds, fungi like ergot and yeast. Ergosterol is the precursor for another Vitamin D-Ergocalciferol.
Coprosterol: present in faecal matter produced from the decomposition of cholesterol carried by colon
bacteria in intestine. Bile acid- Bile Juice has different steroid acids which help in fat emulsification.
E.g. cholic acid, Lithocholic acid etc.
y Sterones are Ketonic steroids for E.g. sex hormones in animals. Male → Testosterone and
Female → Progesterone.
y Adreno corticoids: The hormones secreted by adrenal cortex in total are known as adreno
corticoid hormone.
n
y Ecdysone hormone is present in insects secreted by prothoracic glands.
.i
y Diosgenin is extracted from yam plant (Dioscorea), which is used in the manufacture of antifertility or
contraceptive pills.
n al
4.3.2 Chromolipid
ur
y It is also called as terpene.

y Most complex lipid which is present in the protoplasm.
o
y Chromolipids are made up of repeated isoprene units

uj
y E.g.: Carotenoids; vitamin A, E, K; Natural Rubber (Polyterpene)

Ed
5. Proteins
Protein is derived from a Greek word that means “holding first place” (by Berzelius and Mulder)
5.1 General Characters of Proteins
y C, H, O, N are the essential elements present in the proteins. Many proteins also have sulphur.
y In some proteins iodine, iron and phosphorus are also present.
y Proteins are second most abundant compounds present in protoplasm. 7%–14% amount of
proteins approximately.
y Proteins are a polymer of amino acid (Fisher and Hofmeister). There are around 300 amino acids that
exist however only 20 types of amino acids are used in making of proteins
y All the amino acids are amphoteric in nature as it contains one acidic (–COOH) and an alkaline
group (–NH2).
11.20
Biomolecules
y There are free amino acids present in the protoplasm as ions (at isoelectric point).
y Isoelectric point is the pH point at which the amino acids are stable in the electric field.
y 10 amino acids from total 20 are not synthesized and hence they are obtained from the diet or food.
These depending amino acids are called as essential amino acids. E.g. Threonine, Valine, Lysine,
Phenylalanine Tryptophan, Leucine, Isoleucine, Methionine, Arginine and Histidine where Arginine and
Histidine are semi essential.
y 10 amino acids are synthesized in animal body which are called as non-essential amino acids.
For e.g. Glycine, Proline, Alanine, Aspartic acid, Glutamine, Serine, Glutamic acid, Cysteine,
Asparagine, Tyrosine.
y Eukaryotic proteins have L conformation amino acid while bacteria and antibodies have D-conformation
amino acid.
y Amino acids are linked with peptide bond to form protein.
n
y Peptidyl transferase enzyme catalyses the synthesis of peptide bond.
.i
y Property of protein depends on sequence of amino acid and configuration of protein molecules.
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
11.21
Biomolecules
.i n
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Ed
Figure 11.12: Structures of all 20 essential amino acids

11.22
Biomolecules
Special Amino acids

y Tryptophan: The most complex amino acid which is helpful in the synthesis of I.A.A. (Indole-3-
Acetic Acid) a plant growth hormone.
y Tyrosine: This helps in the synthesis of the melanin pigment in the skin, Thyroxine hormone, Adrenaline
(epinephrine) hormone, and even nor adrenaline (nor epinephrine) hormone.
y Proline and hydroxyl proline amino acids have imino group (-NH) is present in place of usual amino
(-NH2) group so these two amino acids are also known as imino acid.
y Cysteine and methionine have sulphur in their amino acid.
y Tyrosine has a polar side group in the amino acid.
Classification of the amino acids on the basis of carboxylic groups and amino groups number.
y Acidic amino acid (mono amino di carboxylic amino acid)
n
○ There are one amino and two carboxylic groups present in their structure. Net charge is -ve, thus
.i
they move towards the anode in electric field. E.g. Glutamic acid, Aspartic acid.
al
y Alkaline amino acid (Di amino mono carboxylic amino acid)
n
○ There are two amino and one carboxylic group present in the structure.Net charge = -ve, so they
move towards the cathode in electric field. E.g. Histidine, Arginine, Lysine.
ur
y Neutral AA (Mono amino mono carboxylic AA)

o
○ There are one amino and one carboxylic group present in the structure.
uj
○ The amino acid as whole has no charge, present in the form of zwitter ions and thus do not move in
the electric field. E.g. Remaining all 15 AA
Ed
5.2 Configuration of Protein Molecule

5.2.1 Primary Configuration or Structure
The amino acids that are linked by the peptide bonds are arranged in a straight chain form the primary
structure of proteins. The protein structure is newly produced on the ribosomes are primary structure and
are highly unstable.
11.23
Biomolecules
n
Figure 11.13: Primary structure of a peptide
.i
y Secondary configuration – The protein molecules are spirally coiled in the secondary structure. Now
al
the amino acids are also linked by hydrogen bonds which are formed between the oxygen of one amide
n
group and the hydrogen of another amide group. Proteins are insoluble in water and have fibrous
appearance. This structure is of two types:
ur
α-Helix: Right hand rotation of the spirally coiled chain with approximately 3 12 amino acids
present in each turn. There are intramolecular hydrogen bonds between two amino acids of same
o
chain present in the structure e.g. Keratin, Myosin, Tropomyosin.

uj
○ Keratin is a sclera protein which is fibrous, tough, and resistant in terms of digestion. There is
Ed
abundance of cysteine amino acid in the structure which gives the hardness to keratin.
β-Helix or β pleated sheath: Protein structure here has zig – zag arrangement. The protein
molecules are held together by the intermolecular hydrogen bonding. E.g. Fibroin (in silk).
Figure 11.14: β pleated sheets

11.24
Biomolecules
y Tertiary Structure: Proteins in the tertiary structure are highly folded and form a globular appearance.
They are water soluble (form colloid solution). This structure has following bonds:
○ Peptide bonds are the strongest bond present in proteins.
○ Hydrogen bonds between H and O of the amino acid.
○ Disulphide bonds: The bond is between S and H group of amino acid (Cysteine) which are the
second strongest bond in the protein and stabilize the tertiary structure.
○ Hydrophobic bonds: The bond between the amino acids that contain the hydrophobic side chains
e.g. Aromatic amino acid.
○ Ionic bond: The formation of the ionic bonds between the two opposite ends of a protein molecule is
due to the electrostatic attraction between them.
○ Majority of the proteins and enzymes present in the protoplasm exhibit tertiary structure.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 11.15: Tertiary structure of peptide showing various bonds. and collagen fibres
11.25
Biomolecules
y Quaternary structure: The polypeptide chains that have tertiary structure are linked by different
bonds to form the quaternary structure of a protein. There are different polypeptide chains with similar
(lactic – dehydrogenase) or dissimilar types (Haemoglobin, insulin).
○ Quaternary structure is the most stable structure of a protein.
.i n
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Ed
Figure 11.16: Structures in a peptide and protein

11.26
Biomolecules
5.3 Types of Proteins
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Ed
Flowchart 11.1: Classification of Proteins
y Elasticity in wheat flour is due to Glutelline.
5.3.1 Compound Protein
Flowchart 11.2: Parts of a compound protein

11.27
Biomolecules
Types of compound protein on the basis of prosthetic group.

(i) Nucleoprotein – Prosthetic group is nucleic acid.
y Eg. Chromosome = DNA + RNA + Protein
y Ribosome = rRNA + Protein
y Virus
(ii) Chromoprotein – Prosthetic group is Porphyrin pigment (metal + porphyrin ring)
y Eg. Metal Colour
y Haemoglobin Fe Red
y Cytochrome Fe Red
y Chlorophyll Mg Green
y Haemocyanin Cu Blue
n
(iii) Lipoprotein – Prosthetic group is lipid
.i
y Eg. Plasma membrane
y Lipovitelline membrane on egg surface.
n al
(iv) Phosphoprotein – Prosthetic group is phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
ur
y Caseinogen – Milk
y Pepsin – Protein digesting emzyme.
o
y Phosvitin Egg
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y Ovovitelline
Ed
(v) Lecithoprotein – Prosthetic group is Lecithin

y E.g. Fibrinogen – Blood
(vi) Metalloprotein – Prothetic group is metal
y E.g. Enzyme with its co-factor
(vii) Glycoprotein – Prosthetic group is carbohydrate (less than 4% carbohydrate)
y Mucin – Saliva
y Erythropoietin hormone – Kidney.
y A and B antigen of blood.
y α, β, globulin of blood.
y FSH – Follicular stimulating hormne
y LH – Leutinizing hormone
11.28
Biomolecules
Glycoproteins which are present on cell surface are helpful in cell recognition.
Human = Egg surface – Fertilizin – Glycoprotein
Sperm surface – Antifertilizin – Simple protein.
(viii) Mucoprotein prosthetic group is carbohydrate (more than 4% carbohydrate)
○ E.g. Mucoids of synovial fluid, Osteomucoprotein of bones,
○ Tendomucoprotein of tendons, Chondromucoprotein of cartilage.
5.3.2 Derived Protein
.i n
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Flowchart 11.3: Derived protein
ur
Special points of Protein

o
y Monomeric protein: Protein composed of one polypeptide chain.

uj
y Oligomeric / Polymeric / Multimericprotein: Protein composed of more then one polypeptide chains.
y Peptide: A molecule of a short chain of Amino acid like dipeptide, Tripeptide, Tetrapeptide.
Ed
y Polypeptide: It usually has more than 20 Amino acids.

y Protein: It contains minimum 50 Amino acids or more than 50 Amino acids.
6. Nucleic acids
y F. Meischer discovered nucleic acid in the nucleus of a pus cell and named the acid as “nuclein”.
“Altman” later termed nucleic acid.
y Nucleic acids are made up of nucleotides polymer.
y They contain nitrogen base, pentose sugar and phosphate in their structure.
There are different types of nitrogen bases which form the basis of classification. They are broadly of these
two types:
Pyrimidines: the structure has one pyrimidine ring which has a skeleton composed of four carbon atoms
and two nitrogen. E.g. Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil.
11.29
Biomolecules
Purines: The structure has two rings – one pyrimidine ring (2N+4C) and the other one imidazole ring
(2N+3C). e.g. Adenine and Guanine.
Pentose Sugar
Nitrogen base forms the bond with the first carbon atom of the pentose sugar which forms a nucleoside.
Nitrogen atom in the third place (N3) forms bond with the sugar in pyrimidines while nitrogen of the ninth
place (N9) forms bond with sugar in purines.
Phosphate part forms ester bond (covalent bond) with the fifth carbon atom of the sugar to form a complete
nucleotide in purines.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 11.17: Structure of Deoxyribose
o
6.1 Types of Nucleosides and Nucleotides

uj
Ed
Figure 11.18: Structure of purines and pyrimidine

11.30
Biomolecules
y Adenine + Ribose = Adenosine

○ Adenosine + Phosphate = Adenylicacid (AMP)
y Adenine + Deoxyribose = Deoxy adenosine
○ Deoxy adenosine + P = Deoxyadenylic acid (dAMP)
y Guanine + Ribose = Guanosine
○ Guanosine + P = Guanylicacid (GMP)
y Guanine + Deoxyribose = Deoxyguanosine
○ Deoxyguanosine + P= Deoxyguanylic acid (dGMP)
y Cytosine + Ribose = Cytidine
○ Cytidine + P= Cytidylic acid (CMP)
y Cytosine + Deoxyribose = Deoxycytidine
○ Deoxycytidine + P = Deoxycytidylic acid (dCMP)
n
y Uracil + Ribose = Uridine
.i
○ Uridine + P = Uridylicacid (UMP)
y Thymine + Deoxyribose = Deoxy thymidine
n al
○ Deoxythymidine + P = Deoxythymidylic acid (dTMP)
ur
6.2 Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid (DNA)

o
y Meischer discovered the DNA while the term was given by Zacharis.
uj
y The pentose sugar is deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogen bases are of four types A, T, G, and C.
y Wilkins and Franklin studied the DNA molecule with the X-Ray crystallography technique.
Ed
y Watson and Crick (in 1953) proposed a double helix model for DNA with the help of same technique.
Watson, Crick and Wilkins were awarded for the same with a Noble Prize in 1962.
y DNA is made up of two polynucleotide antiparallel chains as per the model.
y The polynucleotide chains are complementary as well as antiparallel to each other.
y The word antiparallel means that the strands of the DNA are in the opposite direction of
phosphodiester bond. If the direction of a phosphodiester bond is 3’- 5’ in one strand then it is
5’-3’ in another strand while the nitrogen bases remain complementary to each other.
y The DNA strands are held together by the hydrogen bonds which are present between the nitrogen
bases of both the strand.
y Adenine binds to thymine with the two hydrogen bonds while cytosine binds to guanine with the
three hydrogen bonds. (A=T) (G C).
y Chargaff’s equivalency rule for DNA: In a double stranded DNA, the amount of purine nucleotides is
equal to the amount of pyrimidine nucleotides.
○ Purine = Pyrimidine
11.31
Biomolecules
○ [A]+[G]=[T]+[C]
○
[A]+[G] =1
[T]+[C]
A +T
○ Base ratio = G + T = constant for a given species.
.i n
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uj
Ed
Figure 11.19: A polynucleotide structure of DNA and DNA double helix structure
11.32
Biomolecules
y In a DNA, when A+T> G+C, the DNA is A-T type. Base ratio of A-T DNA type is more than one. e.g.
Eukaryotic DNA
y In a DNA, when G+C> A+T, the DNA is G-C type. Base ratio of G-C DNA type is less than one. e.g.
Prokaryotic DNA
y Melting point of DNA depends on its G-C contents as it has three hydrogen bonds which require
comparatively more energy for its breakage than A-T content.
y Tm = Temperature of melting.
○ Tm of prokaryotic DNA > Tm of Eukaryotic DNA
○ More the G-C content more the temperature requirement to break the DNA.
y The strand of DNA that participates in transcription among the two strands, is called as Antisense
strand or non-coding strand or template strand.
y Another strand of DNA which remains silent during transcription and does not participate in it is called
n
as sense strand or coding strand.
.i
y Denaturation of DNA: When the normal DNA molecule is placed at high temperature (80°-90°C),
strands break, called as DNA-denaturation.

n al
then both the strands of DNA get separated from each other as the hydrogen bonds between the two
○ Renaturation of DNA: When this denatured DNA molecule is cooled or brought down to
ur
normal temperature, then both the DNA strands is attached after the hydrogen bonds are
formed between both the strands, called as renaturation of DNA.
o
y Hyperchromicity: When a double stranded DNA is exposed to heat that causes its denaturation,
uj
then the denatured DNA molecule absorbs more amount of light, this phenomenon is called as
Hyperchromicity.
Ed
y Hypochromicity: When this double stranded denatured DNA molecule cools down slowly, then
returns back to the double stranded form and it absorbs less amount of light. This phenomenon is
called Hypochromicity.
6.2.1 Configuration of DNA Molecule

y The two strands of DNA are helically coiled similar to a revolving ladder. Back bone of DNA is made
up of phosphates and sugars while the steps (bars) are the pairs of nitrogen bases.
y The two successive steps have a distance of 3.4 Å. The single complete turn of DNA molecule
have 10 steps or 10 pairs of nitrogen bases. Hence one complete turn is 34 Å long which is called as
helix length.
y Diameter of DNA molecule or the distance between two strands phosphates is 20 Å.
y Distance between the two strands is 11.1 Å.
11.33
Biomolecules
y The hydrogen bonds that are between the nitrogen bases are 2.8-3.0Å long. Angle between the
nitrogen base and the first carbon atom of pentose is 510.
y DNA have a molecular weight of 106 to 109 dalton.
y The eukaryotic nucleus have the DNA associated with histone protein which forms nucleoprotein.
The protein Histone occupies major groove of the DNA at an angle of 300.
y The DNA and Histone have salt linkage or bond (Mg+2).
y Chromosomal DNA is linear while prokaryotic, mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA is circular.
y Sinsheimer isolated the DNA in ∮×174 bacteriophage and found that it is single stranded.
○ G-4, S-13, M-13, F1 and Fd are all bacteriophages that have ss-circular DNA.
.i n
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Ed
Figure 11.20: Secondary structure of DNA
6.2.2 Types of DNA

There are two types of DNA depending upon the direction of twisting.
1. Right Handed DNA:
○ Clockwise twisting of the helix e.g. Watson and Crick model of DNA was ‘B’ DNA.
○ Left handed DNA –
○ Anticlockwise twisting of the helix e.g. Rich discovered Z-DNA model. Phosphate and sugar
backbone has zig-zag arrangement.
11.34
Biomolecules
DID YOU KNOW

? DNA molecule is Dextrorotatory while RNA molecule is Laevorotatory.
6.2.3 DNA Replication

y DNA is the only molecule which has the capability of self-duplication and thus is also called as a
“Living molecule”
y All the living beings are capable enough to reproduce because the DNA is replicating, thus the cell
also replicates.
y D.N.A. gets replicated in the “S Phase” of the cell cycle. During cell division, the DNA divides to
n
give double equal DNA amount, each set in both the daughter cells. Delbruck put forward the three
theoretical methods of DNA replication i.e.
.i
○ Dispersive
○ Conservative
n al
○ Semi – conservative
ur
The semi conservative method of D.N.A. replication is most accepted method as it also proves that the DNA
and genes get transferred in all the generations with minor variations and crossing over.
o
uj
6.3 Ribo Nucleic Acid (RNA)

Ed
6.3.1 Configuration of RNA

The RNA is fundamentally the same as DNA in the structure, however there exist some differences also as
follows:
y Deoxyribose sugar in DNA is replaced by Ribose sugar in RNA.
y Thymine in DNA is replaced by Uracil in RNA.
y RNA is single stranded with some loops which are also made up of only one polynucleotide chain.
Exception
RNA found in Reo viruses are double stranded (two polynucleotide chains).
6.3.2 Types of RNA

y Genetic RNA or genomic RNA: When the DNA is not available in the cell, RNA works as genetic
material and even as gene for protein synthesis both. E.g. Reo virus, TMV, QB bacteriophage.
11.35
Biomolecules
y Non-genetic RNA or Non genomic RNA:

(A) r-RNA (B) tRNA (C) mRNA
(i) Ribosomal RNA (r-RNA)
y 80% of the total RNA in a cell.
y Kuntz discovered rRNA.
y Present in ribosomes and produced in the nucleolus of a cell.
y The most stable form of RNA.
y Eukaryotic cells have 80S ribosome who have 60S and 40S subunits. This type is made with four
different units of rRNA.
y Prokaryotic cells have 70S ribosome who have 50S and 30S subunits. There are three different types
of units of rRNA.
n
Function:
.i
y During protein synthesis, rRNA provides the attachment site for tRNA and mRNA which remain in the
ribosome.
n al
y Salt linkages are bonds that attach tRNA to the larger subunit of ribosome while mRNA to smaller
subunit of ribosome.
ur
(ii) Transfer – RNA (tRNA)

o
y 10%-15% of total RNA.

uj
y Synthesized in the nucleus on DNA.

Ed
y Also called as soluble RNA (sRNA) or Adapter RNA.

y Hogland, Zemecknike and Stephenson discovered tRNA.
y The smallest RNA (4S).
y Single stranded RNA however the strand loops out to form a hair pin like or a clover like structure.
Function:
y During protein synthesis, it carries the amino-acid to the ribosome where it is made
in polypeptide.
(iii) Messenger RNA (mRNA)
y The mRNA is 1%–5% of the cell’s total RNA.
y Huxley, Volkin and Astrachan discovered messenger RNA while it was named by Jacob and Monad.
y The mRNA is produced by genetic DNA in the nucleus. This process is known as Transcription.
11.36
Biomolecules
y It is least stable RNA.

y Also known as template RNA for protein synthesis.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Wilkins, Franklin and Ashbury studied X-ray diffraction patterns of DNA that
were isolated from various organisms. It revealed that DNA is a right handed
helical structure.
y James Watson and F. C. Crick used all the available chemical and physical information,
concluded and gave DNA’s double helix model and were awarded the Nobel prize for
the same in 1962.
y The two back bones have width equal to that of a base pair and the number remains
constant (i.e., width of a purine + a pyrimidine).
n
y The base pairs along the molecule axis have intervals of 3.4 nm among them. Therefore,
.i
one complete turn of the double helix comprises 34nm (10 base pairs).
y al
The sequences of bases in one chain have no restriction. However, the sequence of
one chain as per rules for pairing,determines the sequence of the other chain. The two
n
chains are complementary.
ur
y The double helix has a diameter of 20Å which is the distance between the two strands.
y The DNA has right handed helical structure. This type of DNA exists in 4 forms-
o
B form: The DNA that has 10 base pairs per turn and the length is 34nm.
uj
○ A form: The DNA that has 11 base pairs the base pairs are not perpendicular to the
Ed
axis, but are titled.

○ C form: Similar to the B form, however, it has 9 bases pairs per turn.
○ D form: Similar to B form, however, theyhave 8 base pairs per turn.
y The DNA with left handed coiling is named as Z-DNA where the repeating unit is
dinucleotide instead of usual nucleotide.
7. Enzymes
y An enzyme is a protein that functions as a catalyst to SPEED up a chemical reaction in the body.
It is NOT used in the chemical reaction, rather it is recycled and used over and over again. All
enzymes are proteins.
y Enzymes are biological catalysts. A catalyst is responsible to speed up the reactions. The
reactions in which enzymes are involved would take place anyway (in absence of enzymes also),
the enzymes just speed them up.
11.37
Biomolecules
y Kuhne termed the enzyme name.
7.1 General Features

y Enzymes are proteinaceous in nature. The exception is the recently discovered RNA enzymes. The
tertiary level structure of the proteins make them functional as enzymes. The two RNA enzymes
are, Ribozyme (Cech et al, 1981, for removing introns) the ribozyme isolated from a protozoan named
Tetrahymena thermophila, and Ribonuclease-P (Altman et al, 1983, for separating t-RNAs from
hnRNA) which was isolated from a bacteria. Cech and Altman were honoured Noble prize (1989) for
their “discovery of catalytic properties of RNA”.
y Simple enzymes constitute only protein (tertiary structure) e.g., pepsin, trypsin, steapsin.
y Conjugate enzymes have two parts:
a. A protein part: the apoenzyme
n
b. (A non-protein part: the co-factor.
.i
The set made with these two parts is called as holo-enzyme.
y Cofactor may be either organic or inorganic. al
a. Organic cofactors are of the two types namely co-enzymes and prosthetic groups. Co-enzymes
n
are easily separable non-protein organic cofactors like NAD, FAD, FMN.
ur
b. Inorganic cofactors are metal activators (essential elements) which are loosely connected to the
apoenzyme part e.g., Mn++, Fe++, Zn++, Mg++, K+, Ca++. However, in some enzymes, like Fe
o
(iron) in cytochromes are firmly held. Enzymes requiring metal ions are called as metalloenzymes.
uj
y Mitochondrion contain maximum amounts of enzymes in a cell.

Ed
y Enzymes vary in size and structure: Smallest enzyme is peroxides while the largest enzyme is
catalase (found in peroxisomes).
y Summer in 1926 crystallized the enzyme urease that was isolated from Jack bean Canavalia and
proved the protein nature of enzymes.
y Enzymes like proteins have three dimensional structure.
y The chemical reaction proceeds and reaches half its maximum velocity at a particular substrate
concentration Km (Michaelis Menten Constant). The value is the same as that of an inverse value
of the enzyme affinity towards its substrate. Km decreases while the substrate affinity increases.
Allosteric enzymes are exceptions to the Km constant.
y Around 2000 enzymes have been known to exist which are synthesized in or on the living cells.
The enzymes many times remain and function inside the cells which are called as endoenzymes
or intracellular enzymes. The enzymes that get excreted from the cells and function outside
them are called as exoenzymes or extracellular enzymes. These enzymes retain their catalytic
11.38
Biomolecules
ability after they are extracted from the cells. Rennet tablets which have the enzyme rennin
extracted from the calf’s stomach are used to coagulate the milk protein and convert it in casein
(cheese from milk).
y Enzymes have their own optimum pH for maximum efficiency. The pH shift from that range towards
alkaline or acidic range, affects the efficiency, mostly decreases the activity. The reason for the
decrease is the denaturing of the enzyme molecule (change in shape). Pepsin of gastric juice has pH
2.0 as optimum, while trypsin has pH 8.0.
y Enzymes similarly have a specific optimum temperature in which they work best. The activity of
enzyme almost doubles when the temperature rises by 10°C in a range of 0–40°C. Thus, the temperature
coefficient is (Q10 = 2).
Temperature range of 25oC is optimum for several enzymes.
7.2 Classification of Enzymes
n
Thousands of enzymes have been discovered, isolated and studied. Most of these enzymes have been
.i
classified into different groups based on the type of reactions they catalyze. Enzymes are divided into 6
al
classes each with 4-13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number.
y Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases: Enzymes which catalyze oxidoreduction between two substrates
n
For example, S and S’ S reduced + S’ oxidised → S oxidised + S’ reduced
ur
y Transferases: Enzymes that catalyze a transfer of a group. For example, G (other than hydrogen)
between a pair of substrate S and S’ S - G + S’ → S + S’ – G
o
y Hydrolases: Enzymes that catalyze hydrolysis of ester. For example, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C-C,
uj
C-halide or P-N bonds.

Ed
y Lyases: Enzymes that catalyze removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
leaving double bonds.
For example: X Y
| |
C − C → X − Y + C = C
y Isomerases: All enzymes that catalyze inter-conversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers.
y Ligases: Enzymes that catalyze the linking together of 2 compounds. For example, enzymes which
catalyze joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O etc. bonds.
11.39
Biomolecules
Mind Map
Hydrolases
Transferase
Enzyme classification
Lyases
Isomerase
Ligases
n
Oxydoreductase
.i
al
Figure 11.4: Classification of enzyme
n
7.3. Factors Affecting Enzyme Function
ur
y Temperature: Enzyme functions optimally at certain temperature. As the temperature increases

the kinetic energy also increases, molecules move faster and it increases the chance of substrate
o
colliding the enzyme’s active site and binding followed by reaction. But if the temperature is too high,
uj
the enzyme protein denatures (cools), thereby destroying the shape of active binding site (cannot bind
to the substrate anymore) and decreasing the enzyme reaction rate.
Ed
Figure 11.21: Graph of rate of reaction vs temperature

11.40
Biomolecules
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Optimal temperature: It is the temperature at which enzyme works the best and the rate
of chemical reaction is the highest. The optimal temperature for most of the enzymes in the
human body is 37° C.
At cold temperature, the enzyme works slowly or not at all. It works best at normal temperature
and denatures at high temperatures.
y pH (measure of acidity): Enzymes function optimally at certain pH and are certainly sensitive to the
changes in the pH. Changes in the pH can make or break chemical bonds in the active binding site and
thereby decreasing its effectiveness. If the pH is too high (acidic) or low (basic), the enzyme denatures.
However there are exceptions, digestive enzymes in the stomach function at pH of 3-4.
.i n
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Optimal pH of the digestive enzyymes

uj
Optimal pH for most of enzyymes

in our body is pH 8
Ed
Figure 11.22: Graph of enzyme Figure 11.23: Graph of rate of

activity vs pH of medium reaction vs pH of medium
y Concentration of the substrate: As the enzyme concentration increases, the rate of reaction also
increases until a point when the amount of substrate available becomes limited. Similarly, when the
substrate concentration is low, the rate of reaction is also slow.
11.41
Biomolecules
Figure 11.24: Graph of rate of reaction vs enzyme concentration and rate of
n
reaction vs substrate concentration
.i
7.4 Enzymes Speed Up Reactions al
The chemical reactions require a certain amount of energy to initiate which is called as activation energy
n
or free energy for the activation. A cell has several substrates, which have average kinetic energy, in
ur
which some have higher and some lower than the average energy. In normal temperature, the molecules
with relatively high energy probably react to form the product. This is a slow process.
o
The increase in the reaction rate is due to the raise in the mixture temperature. The heat increases the
uj
molecular kinetic energy that causes collisions and reaction between them.
Enzyme fastens the reaction as it lowers the required activation energy and allows several number of
Ed
molecules to react at time. It is a known fact that the enzymes have substrate slot where it combines and
bring several similar ones closer which collide in the most suitable location and directions where the reaction
occurs. The inorganic catalysts work in the same manner. When the substrate binds to the enzymes, there
is a comformational change in the enzyme active sites that actually “push” or let a substrate molecule to
start an interaction.
Starch hydrolysis which gives glucose is an organic chemical reaction. The physical or chemical process
rate is equal to the amount of product formed per unit time.
11.42
Biomolecules
Figure 11.25: Graph of potential and progress of reaction
Requirement of Activation energy uncatalysed and enzyme-catalysed reactions.
.i n
Reactants take energy from their surroundings to climb the hill or raise their activation energy (EA) so that
they reach the short-lived, unstable and transitional state.
al
Enzymes reduce the uphill climb activation energy required to reach the transition state. Here the reactants
n
are in an unstable condition and reaction can occur.
ur
7.5 Mode of Enzyme Action

o
y Emil Fischer in 1894 proposed Lock and key hypothesis.

uj
y Koshland in 1959 proposed the Induced Fit Theory of the enzymes. According to this theory the
active site of the enzyme contains two groups, buttressing and catalytic. The buttressing group is
Ed
meant for supporting the substrate.
7.5.1 Mechanism of Enzyme Action

Two hypothesis have been put forward to explain the mode of enzyme action.
Substrate: It is the reactant in the chemical reaction that is catalyzed by the enzyme. Active site: It is the
part of the enzymes that bind to the substrate. The shape of the active site determines which substrate
binds with that particular enzyme.
ES-Complex: When the enzyme binds temporarily to the substrate, enzyme–substrate complex
is formed.
Activation energy is required for the chemical process to occur. At the end of the chemical process, the
activation energy is reduced. New product or products are formed after the completion of the reaction and
the enzyme is released to be reused.
11.43
Biomolecules
y Lock and Key model: Enzyme specificity is often described using lock and key model. The shape of
the active site (lock) determines which substrate (key) will fit into the enzyme. If the substrate cannot
fit into the active site, the enzyme cannot catalyze the chemical reaction.
.i n
n al
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uj
Ed
Figure 11.26: Diagram of enzyme action on substrate to produce product

The active sites have special molecules with –NH2, -COOH, -SH that ensure the enzyme contact with the
substrate molecules. Like a lock which can be opened with its specific key, a substrate molecule can only
bind to a particular enzyme. Once substrate comes in contact with the enzyme active site, the substrate
molecules or reactants form a complex enzyme-substrate complex. In the enzyme substrate complex, the
substrate molecules undergo chemical changes to form products. The product now leaves the enzyme
as it no longer fits into the active site. Thus it leaves the enzyme unchanged which can participate in the
other reactions.
11.44
Biomolecules
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 11.27: Lock and key hypothesis in enzymes

o
Enzyme + Substrate Enzyme – Substrate Complex

uj
Enzyme – Substrate Complex Enzyme + End Products

Ed
y Induced Fit Hypothesis: The enzymes do not have active site in shape initially which is complementary
to the substrate however it is induced so that enzyme has the complementary shape as the substrate binds
the enzyme. Enzymes active site is a crevice or a pocket into which the substrate fits. Thus, enzymes
through their active site, catalyse reaction at a high rate. The enzyme active site have two groups-(a)
Buttressing group that supports the substrate. (b) Catalytic group that catalyses the reaction. As soon
as the substrate is in contact with the buttressing group, the active site changes such that bring the catalytic
group opposite the substrate bonds that are to be broken.
Iso-enzymes
Enzyme has multiple molecular forms and similar substrate activity (synthesized on different genes) that are
present in the same cell which are called as iso-enzymes. 100 enzymes are known to have iso-enzyme
such as
α -amylase of wheat endosperm has 16 iso-enzymes.
Lactic acid dehydrogenase has 5 iso-enzymes
Alcohol dehydrogenase has 4-iso-enzymes
11.45
Biomolecules
7.5.2 Site of Enzyme Action

y Intracellular Enzymes: The endoenzymes are dissolved in the cytoplasmic matrix. The liver cells are
ground in water and the contents have all the eleven enzymes that are necessary to change glucose
into lactic acid. Similarly several enzymes are bound to particles, such as ribosomes, mitochondria
and chloroplast.
y Extracellular Enzymes: The exoenzymes are secreted from the cells and function outside them. The
mainly include the digestive enzymes, e.g., salivary amylase, gastric pepsin, pancreatic lipase; which
are secreted from the salivary glands, gastric glands and pancreas, respectively. Tears have lysozyme
and the nasal seccretion work outside the cell in which they are produced.
7.5.3 Inhibition of Enzyme Action

The enzyme activity is sensitive to specific chemicals that bind to the enzyme. When the chemical binding
closes the substrate site then the enzyme activity stops, the process is called as inhibition and the
n
chemical responsible is called an inhibitor.
.i
Following types of enzyme inhibition can occur al
y Competitive Inhibition
n
The enzyme action may be reduced or inhibited in the presence of chemical that is similar to the substrate
ur
in molecular structure, called as a Competitive Inhibitor of that enzyme. The inhibitor competes with the
substrate as both can attach to the enzyme for the substrate-binding site. Consequently, the substrate
o
product reaction does not occur. e.g., the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by molecule malonate, which
uj
is similar to the substrate succinate in structure.

y Non-competitive Inhibition
Ed
For example Cyanide kills an animal as it inhibits the cytochrome oxidase, which is a mitochondrial enzyme
required in cellular respiration. Here the inhibitor (cyanide) is different from the substrate (cytochromec)
and thus does not bind the enzyme at the substrate-binding site. However, the inhibitor binds at some other
site of the enzyme. Thus, substrate binding does occur, however, reaction for product formation does not
take place.
y Allosteric Modulation or Feedback Inhibition
The activities of some enzymes, (which form a part of a chain of reactions like in metabolic pathway), are
regulated in the cell. There are specific low molecular weight chemicals that are the product(s) of another
enzyme further on in the chain, acts as the inhibitor. Such a modulator substance binds with a specific site
of the enzyme which is different from its substrate-binding site. This binding increases or decreases the
enzyme action. Such enzymes are called Allosteric Enzymes.
11.46
Biomolecules
n
Figure 11.28: Induced fit enzyme theory: A. Active site of enzyme, B. Substrate molecule and
.i
C. Enzyme substrate complex
Examples:
n al
y Hexokinase which changes glucose to glucose – 6 – phosphate in glycolysis. Decline in enzyme
ur
activity by the allosteric effect of the product is called Feedback Inhibition, e.g., allosteric inhibition of
hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate.
o
y Enzyme phosphofructokinase is activated by ADP and inhibited by ATP.

uj
y Another example is inhibition of threonine deaminase by isoleucine. Amino acid isoleucine. Amino acid
Ed
isoleucine is formed in bacterium Escherichia coli in a 5-step reaction from threonine. When isoleucine
accumulates beyond a threshold value, its further production stops.
Figure 11.29: Competitive inhibition of enzyme

11.47
Biomolecules
Inhibitors of Enzyme Activity

Any substances than can diminish the velocity of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is called an inhibitor. Reversible
inhibitors bind to enzymes through non-covalent bonds. Dilution of the enzyme-inhibitor complex results in
dissociation of the reversibly-bound inhibitor and recovery of enzyme activity. Irreversible inhibition occurs when
an inhibited enzyme does not regain activity upon dilution of the enzyme-inhibitor complex. Some irreversible
inhibitors act by forming covalent bonds with specific groups of enzymes; for example, the neurotoxic effects of
certain insecticides are due to their irreversible binding at the catalytic site of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
The two most commonly encountered types of inhibition are competitive and noncompetitive.
y Competitive inhibition: This type of inhibition occurs when the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same
site that the substrate would normally occupy, therefore, competes with the substrate for that site.
○ Effect on V : The effect of a competitive occurs when the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same site
max
that the substrate would normally occupy, therefore, competes with the substrate for that site.
○ Effect on K : A competitive inhibitor increases the apparent Km for a given substrate. This means
n
m
that in the presence of a competitive inhibitor more substrate is needed to achieve ½ Vmax. E.g., sulpha
.i
drugs for folic acid synthesis in bacteria and inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by Malonate.
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 11.30: Competitive inhibitor affecting reaction velocity is plotted against substrate
y Non-competitive inhibition: This type of inhibition is recognized by its characteristic effect on Vmax.
Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites in the enzyme.
The non-competitive inhibitor can bind wither free enzyme or the ES complex, thereby preventing the
reaction from occurring.
○ Effect on V : Non-competitive inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing the concentration of
max
substrate. Thus, non-competitive inhibitors decrease the Vmax of the reaction.
○ Effect on K : Non-competitive inhibitors do not interfere with the binding of substrate to enzyme.
m
Thus, the enzyme shows the same Km in the presence or absence of the non-competitive inhibitor.
E.g., cyanide kills an animal by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase.
11.48
Biomolecules
.i n
al
Figure 11.31: Non-competitive inhibitor binding to free enzyme forming a complex
n
ur
7.6 How Do Enzymes Catalyze Chemical Reaction?

Enzyme speed up the chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy (the amount of energy required
o
to start a reaction). A strain is applied on the 3-D shape of the substrate upon binding of the substrate to the
uj
active site of the enzyme and thus specific chemical bond in the substrate is weakened. Once the chemical
bond is weakened, it takes less energy to break the bond.
Ed
Figure 11.32: Graph of energy and reaction coordinate

11.49
Biomolecules
7.7 Cofactors
The catalytic activity of an enzyme depends on the presence of small molecules called as cofactors which
activate enzyme. An enzyme without its cofactor is termed as Apo enzyme.
Apo enzyme + Cofactor = Holoenzyme
There are three kinds of cofactors - prosthetic groups, co-enzymes and metal ions.
y Prosthetic group: These compounds are tightly integrated into the enzyme structure by covalent
or non-covalent forces. For example, in peroxidase, the catalyze breakdown hydrogen peroxide to
water and oxygen. Haem in haemoglobin is the prosthetic group and it is a part of the active site of
the enzyme. It can be organic or inorganic (metal ions). Example: Organic: Flavin mononucleotide
(FMN), Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), Biotin Inorganic: metals are most common prosthetic group:
Co, Cu, Mg, Mn, Zn, Fe
y Co-enzymes: Co-enzymes are organic compounds and their association with the apo enzyme is only
during the course of catalysis. Furthermore, co-enzymes serve as co-factors in a number of different
n
enzyme catalyzed reactions. The essential chemical components of many co-enzymes are vitamins,
.i
e.g., coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contain the vitamin niacin. A
al
number of enzymes require metal ions for their activity. This activity forms coordination bonds with side
chains at the active site and at the same time, forms one or more coordination bonds with the substrate.
n
For example, zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme – carboxypeptidase. Catalytic activity is lost
ur
when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme which testifies that co-factors play a crucial role in the
catalytic activity of the enzym
o
uj
DID YOU KNOW

y The Chargaff’s rule is not valid (true) for RNA. It is valid only for double helical DNA.
Ed
i.e. for RNA it is A = U and G C.

y The duplication of DNA was first of all proved in E.coli bacterium.
y E.coli bacterium is mostly used for the study of DNA duplication.
y Hargovind Singh Khurana first of all recognized the triplet codon for cysteine and valine
?
amino acids.
y Cytoplasmic DNA is 1%–5% of total cell DNA.
y Three lady scientists named Avery, Mc-Leod and Mc Carty (by their transformation
experiments on bacteria) proved that DNA is a genetic material.
y Hershey and Chase first of all proved that DNA is genetic material in bacteriophages.
y Frankel and Cornet proved, RNA as a genetic material in viruses (g-RNA).
y AUC
○ ACU These anticodons do not exist.
○ AUU
11.50
Biomolecules
DID YOU KNOW

y The structure formed by the combination of mRNA and Ribosomes is known as
polyribosomes/Polysomes/Ergosomes
y The formation of tRNA takes place from the heterochromatin part of DNA.
y The formation of mRNA takes place from the Euchromatin part of DNA.
y mRNA is least stable. It is continuously formed and finished.
y In cytoplasm, tRNA is present in the form of soluble colloid.
y Nucleases – Nucleases are the breaking enzymes of nucleic acids. These are of
two types –
○ Endo-nucleases – These break down the nucleic acids from the inside.
○ Exo-nucleases – These break down the nucleic acids from the ends (terminal ends).
n
○ These separate each nucleotide.
Tay-Sachs- disease-
.i
y
○ This disease takes place due to excess storage of glycolipids.
al
y Excess storage of cerebrosides leads to Guacher’s disease.
n
y Some Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis :
?
ur
Antibiotic Effect
o
Tetracycline Inhibits binding of amino-acyl tRNA to ribosome

uj
Streptomycin Inhibits initiation of translation and causes misreading

Ed
Chloramphenicol Inhibits peptidyl transferase and so formation of peptide bonds

Erythromycin Inhibits translocation of ribosome along mRNA
Neomycin Inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA.
y Higher Nucleotide: Nucleotides which contain more than one phosphate i.e. ATP, ADP.
ATP: Discover – Karl Lohmann. It is made up by Adenine, D-Ribose and three phosphate.
It is a high energy compound that release energy when the bond between the phosphate
is broken. In ATP two high energy bonds are present. ATP is also called energy currency
of cell.
y ∮×174 bacteriophage has 5386 nucleotides. bacteriophage has 48502 base pairs,
Escherichia coli has 4.6×106 base pairs and 6.6×109 base pairs in human (2n)
11.51
Biomolecules
Summary
y There are diversity among living organisms, yet their chemical composition and metabolic reactions are
similar. The living tissues and non-living matter when tested for the elements are found to be similar
qualitatively and qualitatively. Finer details of the relative abundance of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
is higher in living systems as compared to the inanimate matter. The most abundant chemical in living
organisms is water.
y There are thousands of small molecular weight (<1000Da) biomolecules. Amino acids,
monosaccharide and disaccharide sugars, fatty acids, glycerol, nucleotides, nucleosides
and nitrogen bases are major organic compounds present in all the living organisms. There
are 21 types of amino acids and 5 types of nucleotides. Fats and oils are glycerides in which
fatty acids are esterified to glycerol. Phospholipids have a phosphorylated nitrogenous
compound. They are found in cell membrane. Lecithin is one example of a phospholipid.
Living organisms have a numbers of carbon compounds in which heterocyclic rings can be found.
Some of these are nitrogenous bases- adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil and thymine, Which are
n
attached to sugar, then called as nucleosides. When a phosphate group also gets esterified with the
.i
sugar, then they are called as nucleotides. DNA and RNA are nucleic acids in the cell which serve as
genetic material.
n al
Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uracil and cytidine are nucleosides. Adenyclic acid, thymidylic acid,
guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid and cytidylic acid are nucleotides.
ur
y Three types of macromolecules: Proteins, nucleic acids and polysaccharides are found
o
in living systems. Lipids are associated with the membranes get separated in the
macromolecular fraction. Biomacromolecules are mostly polymers which are made up
uj
of different building blocks. Biomacromolecules have a hierarchy in their structural organization

– primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary. Proteins are heteropolymers made of
Ed
amino acids. Proteins have several cellular functions. Many proteins are enzymes, some
are antibodies, some are receptors, some are hormones and some others are structural
proteins. Most abundant protein is collagen in animal world and Ribulose bisphosphate
carboxylase-oxygenase (RubisCO) is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
Polysaccharides are present in plant, fungi cell wall, and also in the exoskeleton of arthropods. They
also make the storage forms of energy (e.g. starch and glycogen).
y Enzymes are protein in nature which catalyze several biochemical reactions in the cells. Ribozymes
are nucleic acids which can also catalyze. Proteinaceous enzymes are substrate specific, work best
at optimum temperature and pH for maximal activity. They are denatured at high temperatures.
Enzymes lower activation energy of reactions and enhance the rate of the reactions greatly. Nucleic
acids carry hereditary information and are passed on from parental on from parental generation
to progeny.
11.52
Biomolecules
y Cofactors are non-protein parts which are bound to the enzyme so that it is catalytically active.
The protein portion of such enzymes is called as the apoenzyme. Cofactors are prosthetic groups,
coenzymes and metal ions.
y Prosthetic groups are organic compounds which are different from other cofactors. They have strong
bonds with the apoenzyme. Peroxidase and catalase are enzymes that catalyze the hydrogen peroxide
hydrolysis to water and oxygen, now in hemoglobin haem is the prosthetic group which is a part of the
active site of the enzyme.
y Co-enzymes are organic compounds and their association with apoenzyme is temporary, during the
catalysis. NAD, NADP are co-enzymes that contain niacin vitamin.
y Several enzymes require metal ions which form coordination bonds and side chains at the active site
e.g. zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
11.53
Biomolecules
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Both in cells and extracellular fluids diabasic phosphate (HPO42–) monobasic phosphate (H2PO4–) act
as acid base buffers to maintain
(A) K concentration of extracellular fluid
(B) Na+ concentration of extracellular fluid
(C) Na+ concentration of cellular fluid
(D) H+ concentration of cellular fluid
n
Q.2 All the following statements are correct except
.i
(A) Mitochondria are rich in manganese
al
(B) Molybdenum is necessary for fixation of nitrogen catalysed by the enzyme nitrogenase
(C) Magnesium is essential for a large number of enzymes, particularly those utilizing ATP
n
(D) Calcuium and magnesium have no effect on the excitability of nerves and muscles
ur
Q.3 The most abundant element in cell/living matter is

o
(A) C (B) H (C) O (D) N

uj
Q.4 Which element is/are found in cytochromes?

Ed
(A) Fe++ and Cu++ (B) Fe+++ and Mg++ (C) Mg++ (D) Cu++
Q.5. He concentration of Na, K, and Ca in a cell in decreasing order is

(A) K – Na – Ca (B) K – Ca – Na (C) Na – K – Ca (D) Ca – K – Na
Q.6. All the macromolecules are the result of the process of polymerization, a process which repeating
subunits termed monomers are bound into chains of different lengths except
(A) Nucleic acids (B) Carbohydrates
(C) Lipids (D) Proteins
Q.7. Raffinose has three monosaccharide units. Those are

(A) Glucose, pentose and maltose (B) Glucose, levulose and sucrose
(C) Glucose, fructose and sucrose (D) Fructose, fructose and galactose
11.54
Biomolecules
Q.8. A monosaccharide is a simple poly hydroxy aldehyde or ketone molecules, which cannot be further
hydrolysed into smaller units. The number of carbon atoms in monosaccharide vary from of carbon atoms
in monosaccharide vary from
(A) 2-8 carbons (B) 2-7 carbons (C) 3-6 carbons (D) 3-7 carbons
Q.9. The sweetest amongst all naturally occurring sugars is

(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Mannose (D) Galactose
Q.10. Glucose is
(A) Aldose hexose sugar (B) Ketose hexose sugar
(C) Pyranose pentose sugar (D) Furanose pentose sugar
Q.11. Glucose is also called
n
(A) Dextrose (B) Corn sugar (C) Grapes sugar (D) All of these
.i
Q.12. Why sucrose and not glucose is used to preserve fruits products?
al
(A) Glucose is reactive as it has a CHO group
n
(B) Sucrose is move common in nature
ur
(C) Sucrose is easily available and has both glucose and fructose
(D) None of these
o
Q.13. Honey has two sugars. They are

uj
(A) Glucose and mannose (B) Glucose and galactose

Ed
(C) Dextrose and levulose (D) Dextrose and lactose
Q.14. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?

(A) Glucose (B) Lactose (C) Maltose (D) Sucrose
Q.15. Which of the following will yield only glucose on Hydrolysis?

(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose (C) Maltose (D) Raffinose
Q.16. Storing carbohydrates in the form of polysaccharides has following advantages

(A) During their formation many molecules of water are removed from monosaccharide (dehydration
synthesis), condensing the bulk to be store
(B) When necessary polysaccharides are broken down by enzymes for the release of energy
(C) Unlike small carbohydrates polysaccharide are relatively easy to store
(D) All of these
11.55
Biomolecules
Q.17. The most abundant organic compound in biosphere is

(A) Lignin (B) Cellulose (C) Pectin (D) Hemi-cellulose
Q.18. The largest amount (90%) of cellulose amongst the Natural materials is present in
(A) Wood (B) Cotton fibres (C) Rayon (D) Roughage
Q.19. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

(A) Some bacteria, algae and green plants cells
(B) Fungi, algae and green plant cells
(C) All bacteria, fungi and algae
(D) Viruses, fungi and algae
Q.20. Cellulose is
n
(A) Heptopolysaccharide
.i
(B) Heteropolysaccharise, branched
(C) Hexan polysaccharide, unbranched
(D) Pentosan polysaccharide, branched
n al
ur
Q.21. Which of the following is added to ice creams, cosmetics and medicines to emulsify and give a
smooth texture?
o
(A) Cellulose acetate (B) Cellulose nitrate

uj
(C) Carboxy methyl cellulose (D) Cellulose

Ed
Q.22. Chitin is the second most abundant organic substance present in the exoskeleton of insects and
crustaceans. It is a
(A) Protein
(B) Polysaccharide and the basic unit is N-acetyl glucosamine
(C) Protein and CaCO3 deposits in it
(D) Lipid
Q.23. One of the following is correct sequence of carbohydrates in the order of increasing complexity of
chemical structure
(A) Sucrose, starch, oligosaccharide, maltose, triose
(B) Triose, maltose, sucrose, oligosaccharide, starch
(C) Triose, glucose, maltose, oligosaccharide, starch
(D) Oligosaccharide, triose, starch, sucrose, maltose
11.56
Biomolecules
Q.24. Which one is a carbohydrate?

(A) Inulin (B) Raphide (C) Aleurone (D) Cystolith
Q.25. The centre of the starch grains is called hilum. It is made up of

(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) Fat (D) Nitrogen
Q.26. Which one is a fibrous polysaccharide?

(A) Starch (B) Glycogen (C) Cellulose (D) Mucilage
Q.27. Glucose is stored as glycogen in

(A) Pancreas (B) Bone (C) Kidney (D) Liver
Q.28. Which of the following yield purgative?
n
(A) Hibiscus asculentus (B) Plantago ovate
.i
(C) Aloe barbadensis (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.29. Choose the odd one out

n al
(A) Keratin phosphate (B) Plantago ovate (C) Chondriotin sulphate (D) Alginic acid
ur
Q.30. A cellulose molecule is formed by the polymerisation of glucose. The number of glucose molecules
o
present in a cellulose is
uj
(A) 600 (B) 6000 (C) 60,000 (D) 60

Ed
Q.31. Mucilages are polysaccharides formed from galactose and mannose. They are slimy substances. one
of the following is not a mucilage
(A) Agar (B) Alginic acid (C) Rayon (D) Carrageenan
Q.32. Starch grains of rice are
(A) Dumb-bell shaped (B) Simple eccentric
(C) Simple concentric (D) Compound
Q.33. Cellulose form a major portion of food of grazing cattle. It is

(A) Digested by the gut bacteria
(B) Digested by the animal itself
(C) Digested partly by animal and partly by the bacteria
(D) Passed out undigested
11.57
Biomolecules
Q.34 The number of monosaccharide units in a polysaccharide is

(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) More than 10
Q.35. A bond which is formed between aldehyde or ketone group of monosaccharide and alcoholic group
of another organic compound is known as
(A) Peptide bond (B) Glycosidic bond
(C) Phosphodiester bond (D) Ester bond
Q.36. Which one of the following is saturated fatty acid?

(A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic acid
(C) Linolenic acid (D) Stearic acid
Q.37. Which of the following is the most essential fatty acid?
n
(A) Linoleic (B) Linolenic (C) Arachidonic (D) Stearic
.i
Q.38. Lecithin is
(A) Fatty acid
n al
(B) Phospholipid with choline attached to phosphate group
ur
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Fat
o
uj
Q.39. Bee wax is secreted by

(A) Drones (B) Workers (C) Queen (D) Honey
Ed
Q.40. Which of the following is a phospholipid?

(A) Lecithin (B) Glycerol (C) Oleic acid (D) Prostaglandin
Q.41. Keratin is a protein having larder amount of
(A) Sulphur (B) Calcium (C) Magnesium (D) Phosphorous
Q.42. Waxes are simple lipids formed by the combination of long chain fatty acid with long chain monohydric
alcohol. Bee was is made up of
(A) Palmitic and mericyl alcohol (B) Hexacosyl palmitate
(C) Ergosterol (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.43. Which is not a lipid?

(A) Lecithin (B) B-keratin (C) Sterol (D) Wax
11.58
Biomolecules
Q.44. An antifertility steroid is

(A) Diosgenin (B) Cortisol (C) Estradiol (D) Progesterone
Q.45. In brain, most common types of lipids are

(A) Glycolipids (B) Lipoproteins (C) Phospholipids (D) Steroids
Q.46. Find the odd one out

(A) Palmitic acid, stearic acid (B) Oleic acid, linoleic acid
(C) Linoleic acid, oleic acid (D) Tripalmitin, linoenic acid
Q.47. Which of the following are basic amino acids?

(A) Glycine and Alanine (B) Lysine and Arginine
(C) Glutamic acid and Aspartic acid (D) Histidine and Proline
n
Q.48. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
.i
(A) Alanine (B) Asparagine (C) Glycine (D) Tyrosine
al
Q.49. The hormone adrenaline (epinephrine) is formed from which of the following amino acids?
n
(A) Glycine (B) Tyrosine (C) Tryptophan (D) Alanine
ur
Q.50. Which of the following amino acids is involved in the formation of heme?
o
(A) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine (C) Glycine (D) Histidine

uj
Q.51. Vitamin nicotinamide as well as the plant hormone indole-3-acetic acid are formed from
Ed
(A) Tryptophan (B) Alanine (C) Glutamic acid (D) Serine

Q.52. On losing the carboxyl group as carbon dioxide amino acids form biologically active
(A) Glucose (B) Amine such as histamine
(C) Alcohol (D) N-base
Q.53. Skin pigment melanin is formed from

(A) Tyrosine (B) Adrenaline
(C) Indole-3-acetic acid (D) Tryptophan
Q.54. Which one of the following is alcoholic amino acid pair

(A) Tyrosine and serine (B) Threonine and serine
(C) Phenylalanine and tyrosine (D) Tryptophan and phenylalanine
11.59
Biomolecules
Q.55. One of the following is not an essential amino acid

(A) Tryptophan and valine (B) Lysine and methionine
(C) Leucine and isoleucine (D) None of these
Q.56. One of the following amino acids does not contain sulphur
(A) Tryptophan (B) Methionine (C) Cystine (D) Cysteine
Q.57. One of the following is heterocyclic amino acid

(A) Proline (B) Histidine (C) Hydroxyproline (D) All of these
Q.58. One of the following is a neutral amino acid

(A) Arginine (B) Glycine (C) Glutamic acid (D) Aspartic acid
Q.59. Which of the following is a non-polar amino acid?
n
(A) Alanine (B) Glutamic acid (C) Serine (D) None of these
.i
(B) Collagen
n al
Q.60. B-pleated structure of protein is present in silk fibres, the protein is
(A) Fibroin (C) Rayon (D) Keratin
ur
Q.61. Keratin of hair has

(A) Secondary structure (B) Helical structure
o
(C) B-pleated structure (D) Primary structure

uj
Q.62. Most of the blood proteins in our body are

Ed
(A) Basic (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Basic and Neutral
Q.63. Casein of milk is
(A) Glycoprotein (B) Phosphoprotein
(C) Chromoprotein (D) Metalloprotein
Q.64. Prolamines are
(A) Associated with nucleic acids (B) Storage proteins
(C) Structural protein (D) Structural protein
Q.65. Which of the protein is involved in the transport of organic compounds through phloem?
(A) Protamine (B) P-Protein (C) Myosin (D) Glutelin
11.60
Biomolecules
Q.66 Cheese is a
(A) Protamine (B) P-Protein (C) Myosin (D) Glutelin
Q.67 The storage protein of wheat is

(A) Glutelin (B) Oryzin (C) Hordein (D) Zein
Q.68 The type of prolamines and glutelins found in wheat are

(A) Zein and gladin (B) Glutelin and hordein
(C) Gliadin and glutenin (D) Hordein and zein
Q.69 Which of the following is a contractile protein?

(A) P-protein (B) Myosin (C) Albumin (D) Permeases
n
Q.70 The storage protein found in castor oil seeds is
.i
(A) Legumin (B) Tuberin (C) Ricin (D) Leucosin
Q.71 A fibrous protein is

n al
(A) Keratin (B) Histone (C) Albumin (D) Glutelin
ur
Q.72 Lysine is an essential amino acid because

(A) It is very rare
o
(B) It has a high nutritive value

uj
(C) It is an important constituent of all proteins

Ed
(D) It is not formed in the body and has to be provided through diet
Q.73 The backbone of a nucleic acid strand in made up of
(A) Base and phosphate (B) Sugar and phosphate
(C) Sugar and base (D) Sugar, base and phosphate
Q.74 Which of the following is not present in DNA?

(A) Cytosine (B) Adenine (C) Guanine (D) Thiamine
Q.75 Nucleotides take part in

(A) Information transfer system
(B) Energy transfer system
(C) Formation of NAD and FAD which act as coenzymes of oxidising enzymes
(D) All of these
11.61
Biomolecules
Q.76 A nucleotide is made up of

(A) (Base-Sugar-Phosphate)n
(B) Nitrogenous base and sugar
(C) Nitrogenous base, sugar and phosphate
(D) Phosphate and N-base
Q.77 Nucleoside on hydrolysis will not yield
(A) Sugar (B) Phosphoric acid
(C) Nitrogenous base (D) Sugar and nitrogenous base
Q.78 Most abundant RNA of the cell is

(A) t-RNA (B) r-RNA (C) m-RNA (D) t-RNA-threonine
n
Q.79 Which of the following RNA is a carrier that delivers the correct amino acid for protein synthesis?
.i
(A) m-RNA (B) r-RNA (C) hn-RNA (D) t-RNA
Q.80 Anticodon occurs in

n al
(A) DNA (B) t-RNA (C) m-RNA (D) r-RNA
ur
Q.81 Nucleic acids were first discovered by

o
(A) Altmann (B) Flemming (C) Meischer (D) Koch

uj
Q.82 Which nitrogenous base is not found in RNA?

Ed
(A) Adenine (B) Uracil (C) Thymine (D) Cytosine

Q.83 RNA is a polymer of
(A) Ribonucleotides (B) Deoxyribonucleotides
(C) Deoxyribonucleosides (D) Ribonucleosides
Q.84 t-RNA constitutes about

(A) 70% – 80% of the total RNA (B) 15% of the total RNA
(C) 5% of the total RNA (D) 1% – 3% of the total RNA
Q.85 The two strands of DNA are coiled around

(A) Each other (B) Differently
(C) A common axis (D) Different axis
11.62
Biomolecules
Q.86 In DNA, adenine pairs with

(A) Guanine (B) Thymine (C) Cytosine (D) Uracil
Q.87 Distance between two strands of DNA is

(A) 34 Å (B) 20 Å (C) 3.4 Å (D) 340 Å
Q.88 The denaturation of DNA can take place due to

(A) High pH (B) High temperature
(C) Low pH (D) All of theses
Q.89 The two strands of DNA are held together by bonds of

(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon
.i n
Q.90 The low melting area of DNA is
(A) A-T base pairs
(C) G-C base pairs
n al
(B) A-U base pairs
ur
Q.91 Single stranded DNA is found in
(A) Rao virus (B) Bacteriophage
o
(C) Wound tumour virus (D) Retro virus

uj
Q.92 The term enzyme was coined by

Ed
(A) Kuhne (B) Buchner (C) De Duve (D) Boveri

Q.93 All enzymes are proteins except
(A) Trypsin (B) Pepsin
(C) Steapsin (D) Ribozyme and Ribonuclease – P
Q.94 The non-protein organic factor firmly attached to apoenzyme is called

(A) Co-factor (B) Co-enzyme (C) Prosthetic group (D) Activator
Q.95 Enzymes are different from inorganic catatlysts in

(A) Not being used up in reaction (B) Being proteinaceous in nature
(C) Having a high diffusion rate (D) Working at high temperature
11.63
Biomolecules
Q.96 Identify the correct statement

(A) Enzymes are not proteinaceous
(B) All enzymes participate in metabolic reaction
(C) All enzymes are exhausted in chemical reaction
(D) They are specific in their function
Q.97 The ‘turnover number’ of an enzyme depends upon
(A) Size of enzyme molecule
(B) Active sites of enzymes molecule
(C) Concentration of substrate molecule
(D) Molecular weight of enzyme
Q.98 What structural level enables the proteins to function as enzymes?
n
(A) Primary level (B) Secondary level
.i
(C) Tertiary level (D) Quaternary level
al
Q.99 Enzymes, vitamins, hormones have one thing in common
n
(A) All are synthesized in organism (B) All enhance oxidative metabolism
ur
(C) All are proteins (D) All aid in regulation metabolism

o
Q.100 Out of the total enzymes present in cell, mitochondrion alone has
uj
(A) 95% (B) 64% (C) 70% (D) 20%

Ed
Q.101 Enzymes are proteins was shown by

(A) Summer (B) Miller (C) Leeuwenhoek (D) Pasteur
Q.102 Protein part of a conjugate enzyme is known as
(A) Apoenzyme (B) Coenzyme
(C) Prosthetic group (D) Cofactor
Q.103 Destructive effect of high temperature on enzyme action is due to
(A) Destruction of tertiary and quaternary structure of enzymes
(B) Formation of linkage between apoenzyme and its cofactor
(C) Acceleration of reverse reaction
(D) All of these
11.64
Biomolecules
Q.104 Enzymes are

(A) Colloidal in nature (B) Amphoteric in nature
(C) Highly sensitive (D) All of these
Q.105 Which statement about enzyme action is wrong?
(A) Their molecular weight is high
(B) They are proteins with complex three dimensional structures
(C) Their rate of diffusion is very high
(D) They act as catalysts and are required in small concentration
Q.106 Enzymes have
(A) Same pH and temperature optima
(B) Same pH but different temperature optima
n
(C) Different pH but same temperature optima
.i
(D) Different pH and different temperature optima
al
Q.107 The relationship between ‘Turnover number’ and Km is
n
(A) Direct (B) Inverse (C) Linear (D) None of these
ur
Q.108 A specific low molecular weight substance such as the product of another enzyme in the chain
reaction which binds with a specific site of the enzyme different its specific site of the enzyme different from
o
its substrate binding site is called

uj
(A) Competitive inhibitor (B) Non-competitive inhibitor

Ed
(C) Irreversible inhibitor (D) Allosteric modulator

Q.109 Sulpha drugs control bacterial pathogens by
(A) Non-competitive inhibition
(B) Allosteric modulation
(C) They are competitive inhibitors of folic acid synthesis in bacteria
(D) They control the bacterial pathogens by feedback inhibitions
Q.110 Cyanide kills an animals by
(A) Killing the brain cells
(B) Competitive inhibitor of enzyme cytochrome oxidise
(C) Inhibiting cytochrome oxidase, a mitochondrial enzyme essential for cellular respiration by non-
competitive inhibition
(D) Killing the cells of cardiac muscles
11.65
Biomolecules
Q.111 All are the examples of feedback inhibition except

(A) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(B) Inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
(C) Inhibition of phosphofructokinase by ATP
(D) Inhibition of threonine deaminase by isoleucine
Q.112 One of the following is not a non-competitive inhibitor

(A) HCO–3 (B) Malonic acid (C) Cyanides (D) H2S
Q.113 In non-competitive inhibition

(A) The tertiary structure of enzyme is destroyed
(B) The enzyme gets hydrolysed completely
n
(C) The enzyme gets activated
.i
(D) The inhibitor gets absorbed on the active site of the enzyme
Q.114 In enzyme pepsin
n al
(A) The whole surface of enzyme is active
ur
(B) Two third of amino acids are working actively as enzyme
(C) One third of amino acids are working actively as enzyme
o
(D) Only one amino acid tyrosine of this enzyme is active and rest amino acids are inactive
uj
Q.115 The term feedback refers to

Ed
(A) The effect of substrate on the rate of enzyme action

(B) The effect of end products on the rate of enzymatic action
(C) The effect of enzyme concentration on its rate of action
(D) The effect of an external compound on the rate of enzymatic action
Q.116 Which of the following groups of enzymes catalyses the cleavage of specific covalent bonds and
removal or groups without hydrolysis?
(A) Oxidoreductases (B) Hydrolases (C) Lysases (D) Isomerases
Q.117 Lock and key hypothesis was put forward by

(A) Emi fischer (B) Koshland (C) Buchner (D) Kuhne
11.66
Biomolecules
Q.118 The best evidence for template theory of enzyme action is

(A) Enzymes speed up reactions by definite amounts
(B) Enzymes determine the direction of reaction
(C) Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit the reaction
(D) Compounds dissimilar in structure to the substrate inhibit the eraction
Q.119 Alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme also exists as isoenzyme. The number of isoenzyme forms of
alcohol dehydrogenose in maize are
(A) 16 (B) 4 (C) 100 (D) 5
Q.120 According to IUB system of nomenclature the enzymes are divided into
(A) 4 classes (B) 8 classes (C) 10 classes (D) 6 classes
Q.121 The pH required for action of trypsin is
n
(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 4.5
.i
Q.122 Enzyme bromelain is found in
(A) Papaya (B) Pineapple
n al (C) Guava (D) Cucurbita
ur
Q.123 Extra cellular enzymes are not found in

(A) Bacteria (B) Fungi
o
(C) Insectivorous plants (D) Green algae

uj
Q.124 Electron transferring enzymes belong to

Ed
(A) Transferases (B) Oxidoreductases

(C) Lyases (D) Isomerases
Q.125 A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme will

(A) Increase Km without affecting Vmax (B) Decrease Km without affecting Vmax
(C) Increase Vmax without affecting Km (D) Decrease both Vmax and Km
Q.126 Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is due to inadequate secretion of which of the
following lipids?
(A) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (B) Sphingomyelin
(C) Cholestrol (D) Phosphatidyl inositol
11.67
Biomolecules
Q.127 The lipoprotein particles that have the highest percentage of concentration in terms of cholesterol are
A and in terms of liproprotein are B. Which one of the following is correct option for A and B?
(A) A-Chylomicrons and B-VLDLs (B) A-HDLs and B-Chylomicron
(C) A-LDLs and B-Chylomicrons (D) A-LDLs and B-HDLs
Q.128 Which of the following factor/s does not affect enzyme activity?
a. Temperature
b. pH
c. Enzyme concentration
d. Product concentration
e. Substrate concentration
f. Activation energy
n
(A) c only (B) c and d (C) d only (D) f only
.i
Q.129 The structures of five amino acids are listed below:
al
n
o ur
uj
Ed
Which of these amino acids are both polar and essential?

(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and D (D) E only
11.68
Biomolecules

Q.1 Kwashiorkor disease develops to [MP-PMT-1979]
(A) Malnutrition (B) Over eating (C) Catalysis (D) Mutation
Q.2 Glycogen is stored in [MPPMT, AIPMT-1979]

(A) Liver and muscles (B) Liver only
(C) Muscles only (D) Pancreas
Q.3 Cholesterol is synthesized in [MPPMT-1994]

(A) Pancreas (B) Brunners gland (C) Spleen (D) Dextrin
Q.4 Which is a disaccharide [MPPMT-1994]
(A) Galactose (B) Fructose (C) Maltose (D) Dextrin
.i n
Q.5 Which element is normally absent in proteins [RPMT-1995]
(A) C (B) N
n (C) S al (D) P
Q.6 Which substance is not carbohydrate [RPMT-1994]
ur
(A) Starch (B) Clycogen (C) Wax (D) Glucose
o
Q.7 To get quick energy one should use [RPMT-1994]

(A) Carbohydrate (B) Fats (C) Vitamins (D) Proteins
uj
Ed
Q.8 Protein most abundant in human body is [RPMT-1994]

(A) Collagen (B) Myosin (C) Actin (D) Albumin
Q.9 Which is not polysaccharide [RPMT-1994]

(A) Sucrose (B) Starch (C) Glycogen (D) Cellulose
Q.10 Decreasing order of amount of organic compound in animal body [RPMT-1994]

(A) Carbohydrate, Protein, fat, and nucleic acid
(B) Protein, fats, nucleic acid and carbohydrate
(C) Protein, fats, carbohydrates and nucleic acid
(D) Carbohydrate, fats , Proteins and nucleic acid
Q.11 Protoplasm in skin cells, is mostly present in which stage? [RPMT-1994]
(A) Gel (B) Sol (C) Emulsion (D) Aerosol
11.69
Biomolecules
Q.12 External Coat composed of cellulose like material occurs in [RPMT-1994]

(A) Hemichordate (B) Urochordata
(C) Cephalochordate (D) Cyclostomata
Q.13 Common in feather and silk is [RPMT-1994]

(A) Carbohydrate (B) Fats
(C) Protein (D) Nucleic acid
Q.14 Monosaccharide is [RPMT-1993]

(A) Pentose sugar (B) Hexose sugar
(C) Only glucose (D) All of the above
Q.15 Sugar which found in heamolymph of insects is called [RPMT-1993]
n
(A) Maltose (B) Lactose (C) Trehalose (D) Galactose
.i
Q.16 Which substance is most abundant in cell
(A) Carbohydrates
n al
(B) Protein
[RPMT-1993]
(C) Water (D) Fats

ur
Q.17 Proteins which present in protoplasm are very important because [RPMT-1993]
o
(A) They provide definite shape to cell

uj
(B) They function as biocatalyst

Ed
(C) They yield energy

(D) They are stored food
Q.18 Dipeptide is [RPMT-1993]
(A) Structure of two peptide bonds
(B) Two amino acids linked by one peptide bond
(C) Bond between one amino acid and one peptide
(D) None of these
Q.19 Which amino acids is non-essential for human body [RPMT-1992]
(A) Glycine (B) Phenyl alanine
(C) Arginine (D) Methionine
11.70
Biomolecules
Q.20 In which form the extra sugars stored in the body [RPMT-1991]
(A) Glucose monosaccharide (B) Sucrose disaccharide
(C) Glycogen polysaccharide (D) Fatty acid and glycerol
Q.21 Unit of protein is [RPMT-1989]

(A) Amino acid (B) Monosaccharide
(C) NH2 (D) Nucleotide
Q.22 Galactosemia disease in children can be prevented if they are provided [RPMT-1989]
(A) Milk less food (B) Proteinaceous milk
(C) More milk (D) Vitamin less milk
Q.23 Glycogen is [RPMT-1988]
n
(A) Polymer of fatty acid (B) Polymer of amino acids
.i
(C) Poly hydroxyl aldehyde or ketone (D) None of these
Q.24 Carbohydrate is
n al [RPMT-1988]
(A) Polymers of fatty acid (B) Polymer of amino acids
ur
(C) Poly hydroxyl aldehyde or ketone (D) None of these

o
Q.25 In which form, food stored in animal body [RPMT-1988]

uj
(A) Glucose (B) Glycogen (C) Cellulose (D) ATP

Ed
Q.26 Which compound produces more than twice the amount of energy as [AIPMT-1975, BHU78]
compared to carbohydrates
(A) Protein (B) Fats (C) Vitamins (D) Glucose
Q.27 What is the normal ratio of sugar in human blood. [BHU’1980’1981]

(A) 0.01% (B) 0.1% (C) 1% (D) 0.18%
Q.28 Carbohydrates are stored in mammals as [AIPMT-1981]

(A) Glucose in liver (B) Glycogen in muscles and spleen
(C) Lactic acid in muscles (D) Glycogen in liver and muscles
Q.29 Carbohydrate metabolism is controlled by [AIPMT-1978]

(A) Parathormone (B) Insulin (C) Glucose (D) Vitamin B12
11.71
Biomolecules
Q.30 Fattiness is due to the excess of [AIPMT-1986]

(A) Connective tissue (B) Blood
(C) Muscular tissue (D) Adipose tissue
Q.31 Which one of the following is polysaccharide [AIPMT-1986]

(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose (C) Glycogen (D) Glucose
Q.32 Starving person will first use [AIPMT-1988]

(A) Fats (B) Glycogen
(C) Blood protein (D) Muscle protein
Q.33 Units of proteins which unite in long chains to form proteins, are called
[NCERT,1972 AIPMT-74,76 BHU 77,78]
n
(A) Sugar (B) Purines (C) Pyrimidines (D) Amino acids
.i
Q.34 Milk protein is
(A) Lactogen (B) Myosin
n al
(C) Casein (D) Pepsin
[BHU-1981]
ur
Q.35 Chemically enzymes are [NCERT-1977, AIPMT-78]
(A) Fats (B) Carbhohydrates
o
(C) Hydrocarbons (D) Proteins

uj
Q.36 Long chain molecules of fatty acids are formed by [NCERT-1976]

Ed
(A) Polymerization of 2 carbon compounds (B) Decomposition of fats

(C) Polymerization of glycogen (D) Conversion of glycogen
Q.37 Most simple amino acid is [BHU-1986]
(A) Tyrosine (B) Lysine (C) Glycine (D) Aspartic acids
Q.38 Fats in the body are formed when [NCERT-1976]

(A) Glycogen is formed from glucose
(B) Sugar level becomes stable in blood
(C) Extra glycogen storage in liver and muscles is stopped
(D) All of them
11.72
Biomolecules
Q.39 For body growth and repair one needs [AIPMT-1988]

(A) Carbohydrates (B) Fats (C) Proteins (D) Vitamins
Q.40 In india the best source for proteins in herbivorous persons is [NCERT-1976]
(A) Pulses (B) Potato (C) Egg (D) Meat
Q.41 Proteins are conducted in the body in the form of [NCERT-1976]

(A) Amino acdis (B) Natural proteins
(C) Enzymes (D) Nucleic acids
Q.42 Which is sweet in taste, but is not sugar [AIPMT-1983]
(A) Starch (B) Saccharine (C) Lactose (D) Protein
n
Q.43 The formation of protein can be considered as [AIPMT-1986]
.i
(A) Dehydration synthesis (B) Dehydration analysis
(C) Hydration synthesis al
(D) Hydration analysis
n
Q.44 Translocation of sugars in flowering plants occurs in the form of
ur
[AIPMT-1977-84 , DPMT 1983, RPMT 1998]
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose (C) Fructose (D) Maltose
o
Q.45 Sucrose is composed of [RPMT-1989]

uj
(A) Glucose and fructose (B) Glucose and glycogen

Ed
(C) Two molecules of glucose (D) Glycogen and fructose
Q.46 Which of the following amino acid is essential [RPMT-1997]

(A) Alanine (B) Glycine (C) Tryptophan (D) Tyrosine
Q.47 Which of the following disaccharides will give tow molecules of glucose on hydrolysationk
[RPMT-1997]
(A) Maltose (B) Sucrose (C) Lactose (D) None of these
Q.48 Which is very most structural part of the body [RPMT-1997]

(A) Protein (B) Carbohydrates (C) Lipid (D) Nucleic acid
Q.49 Which of the following sugar is found in ATP [RPMT-1997]

(A) Deoxyribose (B) Ribose (C) Trehalose (D) Glucose
11.73
Biomolecules
Q.50 Deficiency of protein leads to [AIPMT-1998]

(A) Rickets (B) Scurvy (C) Kwashiorkor (D) Carotenemia
Q.51 Lactose is composed of [RPMT-1998, AIPMT 1998]

(A) Glucose + galactose (B) Glucose + fructose
(C) Glucose + glucose (D) Glucose + mannose
Q.52 True statement for cellulose molecule [AIPMT-1998]
(A) β- 1’-4” linkage, unbranched (B) β- 1’-4” linkage, branched
(C) α- 1’-4” linkage, branched (D) β- 1’-6” linkage, unbranched
Q.53 Contractile protein is [AIPMT-1998]

(A) Actin (B) Myosin (C) Troponin (D) Ropomyosin
.i n
Q.54 Variations in proteins are due to [AIPMT-1998]
(A) Sequence of amino acids
(C) R-group
n al
(B) Number of amino acids
(D) None of these
ur
Q.55 The antibodies are [MP PMT-1998]

(A) (Gamma)- globulins (B) Albumins
o
(C) Vitamins (D) Sugar

uj
Q.56 Which of the following does not contain metal [AIPMT-1999]

Ed
(A) Glycoproteins (B) Ferritin

(C) Cytochromes (D) Chromoproteins
Q.57 Which protein found in maximum amout [AIPMT-1999]

(A) Catalase (B) Zinc carbonic anhydrase
(C) Transferase (D) RUBISCO
Q.58 Proteoglycan in cartilages which is part of polysaccharide [AIPMT-2000]

(A) Condriotin (B) Ossein (C) Casein (D) Cartilegen
Q.59 Which of the following may be true of RNA [RPMT-1996]

(A) A=U G=C (B) A=U G=C (C) A=U=G=C (D) Purines = Pyrimidines
11.74
Biomolecules
Q.60 In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids
[AIPMT-2003]
(A) 20 (B) 64 (C) 61 (D) 60
Q.61 The enzyme which can cut molecules of DNA in to segments is known as [MP-PMT-2003]
(A) DNA Polymerase (B) DNA Ligase
(C) Endonuclease (D) DNA Gyrase
Q.62 The genes concerned with the production of cancer are called [MP-PMT-1995]
(A) Cancer genes (B) Carcino genes
(C) Carcinomas (D) Onco genes
Q.63 Quantity of nucleic acids in animal cells is [RPMT-1995]
n
(A) 2% (B) 5% (C) 10% (D) 15%
.i
Q.64 Nucleic acids are made up of al [RPMT-1995]
(A) Amino acids (B) Pentose sugars
n
(C) Nucleosides (D) Nucleotides
ur
Q.65 Nucleic acids are polymer of [RPMT-1994, 85 AIPMT 78,81]

o
(A) Nucleotides (B) Nucleosides (C) Amino acids (D) Nitrogen bases
uj
Q.66 Who proved DNA as genetic material [RPMT-1994]

Ed
(A) Griffith (B) Bacteria (C) PPLO (D) Hershey and chase
Q.67 Circular and double stranded DNA occurs in [RPMT-1994]

(A) Golgibody (B) Mitochondria (C) Nucleus (D) Cytoplasm
Q.68 If there are 10,000 base pairs in DNA, then its length [RPMT-1994]
(A) 340 nm (B) 3400 nm (C) 34000 nm (D) 340000 nm
Q.69 Code in RNA corresponding to AGCT in DNA [RPMT-1994]

(A) TACA (B) UCGA (C) TCGA (D) AGUC
11.75
Biomolecules
Q.70 Double helix model of DNA which was proposed by Watson and crick was of [RPMT-1993]
(A) C-DNA (B) B-DNA (C) D-DNA (D) Z-DNA
Q.71 Mitochondrial DNA is [RPMT-1993]

(A) Naked (B) Circular
(C) Double stranded (D) All of the above
Q.72 If there are 10,000 nitrogenous base pairs in a DNA than how many nucleotides are there
[RPMT-1993]
(A) 500 (B) 10,000 (C) 20,000 (D) 40,000
Q.73 The process of m RNA synthesis on a DNA is known as [RPMT-1992]
(A) Translation (B) Transcription
n
(C) Transduction (D) Transformation
.i
Q.74 Double helix model of DNA is proposed by
(A) Watson and Crick
n al
[RPMT-1992, AIPMT-79, BHU-80, DELHI PMT-92]
(B) Schleiden Schwann
(C) Singer and Nicholson (D) Komberg and Khurana
ur
Q.74 Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in DNA [AIPMT’S; RPMT-1992]
o
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine (C) Guanine (D) Uracil

uj
Q.75 Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of [RPMT-1991]

Ed
(A) Pentose sugar and phosphate (B) Hexose sugar and phosphate
(C) Purine and pyrimidine (D) Sugar and phosphate
Q.76 Which of the following is called adaptor molecule [RPMT-1991]

(A) DNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) RNA
Q.77 Substance common in DNA and RNA [RPMT-1990]

(A) Hexose sugar (B) Histamine (C) Thymine (D) Phosphate groups
Q.78 Which of following base pair is wrong [RPMT-1988]

(A) A-T (B) G-C (C) A-C (D) A-U
11.76
Biomolecules
Q.79 Which may be attached with adenine base in RNA [RPMT-1988]

(A) Guanine (B) Cytosine (C) Uracil (D) Thymine
Q.80 Nucleotide is [RPMT-1988]

(A) N2 base, pentose sugar and phosphoric acid
(B) Nitrogen, hexose sugar and phosphoric acid
(C) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar
(D) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric acid
Q.81 DNA differs from RNA in [RPMT-1988]
(A) Only sugar (B) Nitrogen base only
(C) Nitrogen base and sugar (D) None of these
n
Q.82 Who propounded the theory one gen one enzyme one chemical reaction [BHU-1982,83]
.i
(A) Watson and Crick (B) George Beadle and Edward Tatum
(C) Abraham Trembley al
(D) T.H. Morgan
n
Q.83 A codon in m-RNA has [BHU-1983]
ur
(A) 3-bases (B) 2-bases

(C) 1-base (D) Number of bases vary
o
uj
Q.84 Unit of nucleic acids are [NCERT-1976]

Ed
(A) Phosphoric acid (B) Nitrogenous bases

(C) Pentose sugar (D) Nucleotides
Q.85 Which element is not found in nitrogenous base [NCERT-1976]

(A) Nitrogen (B) Hydrogen (C) Carbon (D) Phosphorus
Q.86 The link between successive generation is provided by [AIPMT-1981, 84]

(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Chromosomes (D) Nucleic acid
Q.87 DNA was first discovered by [AIPMT-1976, 85]

(A) Meischer (B) Robert Brown (C) Flemming (D) Watson and Crick
Q.88 Nucleic acids are found in [AIPMT-1980]

(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm
11.77
Biomolecules
(C) Both nucleus and Cytoplasm (D) Nucleus and ribosomes
Q.89 DNA is found in [AIPMT-1978, 80, M.P. PMT-86]

(A) ER and ribosomes (B) Mitochondria, plastid and nucleolus
(C) Spherosome and peroxysome (D) Plasma membrane and lysosome
Q.90 Nucleic acid (DNA) is not found in [RPMT-1990, M.P. PMT-90]

(A) Nucleus and nucleolus (B) Peroxysome and ribosome
(C) Mitochondria and plastid (D) Chloroplast and nucleosome
Q.91 The contribution fo cytoplasmic DNA is the total DNA of a cell [DELHI PMT-1986]
(A) 90% – 99% (B) 65% – 75% (C) 5% – 15% (D) 1% – 5%
.i n
Q.92 DNA is not present in [DELHI PMT-1983, RPMT-89]
(A) Mitochondria
(C) Bacteriophage
n al
(B) Chloroplast
(D) TMV
ur
Q.93 A nucleic acid contains thymine or methylated uracil then it should be [BHU-1981]
(A) DNA (B) RNA
o
(C) Either DNA or RNA (D) RNA of bacteria

uj
Q.94 Prokaryotic genetic system contains [RPMT-1985]

Ed
(A) DNA and histones (B) RNA and histones

(C) Either DNA or histones (D) DNA but no histones
Q.95 Which protein is attached to major groove of DNA in Eukaryotes? [JIPMER-1985]

(A) Fibrinogen (B) Histone (C) Albumin (D) All
Q.96 Genetic information is carried by the long chain molecules which are made up of
[BANGALORE PMT-1981]
(A) Amino acids (B) Nucleotides
(C) Chromosomes (D) Enzymes
11.78
Biomolecules
Q.97 A N2 base together with pentose sugar and phosphate forms (or) building –block unit of nucleic acid is
[DELHI PMT-1984, RPMT 84, AIPMT-84, MPPMT-85, ALIGARH PMT-86]
(A) Nucleoside (B) Polypeptide
(C) Nucleotide (D) Aminoacid
Q.98 One of the characteristics of DNA is [DELHI PMT-1984]

(A) Uracil (B) Deoxyribose sugar
(C) Single strandedness (D) Ability of protein synthesis
Q.99 What replaces thymine in RNA [AIPMT-1981, ALLMS-82, BHU-85]

(A) Guanine (B) Adenine (C) Uracil (D) Water
Q.100 Purine bases of DNA are [MPPMT-1986, BHU-85 AIPMT-83, 89, RPMT-92]
n
(A) U and G (B) A and G (C) A and C (D) None of these
.i
Q.101 Which of the following N2 bases are pyrimidines
n al [RPMT-1989]
(A) T and C (B) T and A (C) A and C (D) G and T
ur
Q.102 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine N2 base [JIPMER-1985]

o
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine (C) Guanine (D) Uracil

uj
Ed
11.79
Biomolecules
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1. D Q.2. D Q.3. C Q.4. A Q.5. A Q.6. C
Q.7. B Q.8. D Q.9. B Q.10. A Q.11. D Q.12. A
Q.13. C Q.14. D Q.15. C Q.16. D Q.17. B Q.18. B
Q.19. A Q.20. C Q.21. C Q.22. B Q.23. C Q.24. A
Q.25. A Q.26. C Q.27. D Q.28. D Q.29. D Q.30. B
Q.31. C Q.32. D Q.33. A Q.34. D Q.35. B Q.36. D
n
Q.37. A Q.38. B Q.39. B Q.40. A Q.41. A Q.42. D
.i
Q.43. B Q.44. A Q.45. A Q.46. D Q.47. B Q.48. C
Q.49. B Q.50. C Q.51. A
al
Q.52. B
n
Q.53. A Q.54. B
Q.55. D Q.56. A Q.57. D Q.58. B Q.59. A Q.60. A
ur
Q.61. B Q.62. B Q.63. B Q.64. B Q.65. B Q.66. C

Q.67. A Q.68. C Q.69. B Q.70. C Q.71. A Q.72. D
o
Q.73. B Q.74. D Q.75. D Q.76. C Q.77. B Q.78. B

uj
Q.79. D Q.80. B Q.81. C Q.82. C Q.83. A Q.84. B

Ed
Q.85. C Q.86. B Q.87. B Q.88. D Q.89. C Q.90. A

Q.91. B Q.92. A Q.93. D Q.94. C Q.95. B Q.96. B
Q.97. B Q.98. C Q.99. D Q.100. C Q.101. A Q.102. A
Q.103. A Q.104. D Q.105. C Q106. C Q.107. B Q.108. D
Q.109. C Q.110. C Q.111. A Q.112. B Q.113. A Q.114. D
Q.115. B Q.116. C Q.117. A Q.118. C Q.119. B Q.120. D
Q.121. C Q.122. B Q.123. D Q.124. B Q.125. A Q.126. A
Q.127. C Q.128. D Q.129. D
11.80
Biomolecules

Q.1 A Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 C Q.5 D Q.6 C
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 A Q.12 B
Q.13 C Q.14 D Q.15 C Q.16 C Q.17 B Q.18 B
Q.19 A Q.20 C Q.21 A Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 C
Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 B Q.28 D Q.29 B Q.30 D
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 D Q.34 C Q.35 D Q.36 A
Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 C Q.40 A Q.41 A Q.42 B
Q.43 A Q.44 B Q.45 A Q.46 C Q.47 A Q.48 A
Q.49 B Q.50 C Q.51 A Q.52 A Q.53 A Q.54 A
n
Q.55 A Q.56 A Q.57 D Q.58 A Q.59 B Q.60 C
.i
Q.61 C Q.62 D Q.63 D Q.64 A Q.65 D Q.66 B
Q.67 B Q.68 B Q.69 B
al
Q.70 D
n
Q.71 C Q.72 B
Q.73 A Q.74 D Q.75 A Q.76 C Q.77 D Q.78 C
ur
Q.79 C Q.80 A Q.81 C Q.82 B Q.83 A Q.84 D

Q.85 D Q.86 D Q.87 A Q.88 C Q.89 B Q.90 B
o
Q.91 D Q.92 D Q.93 A Q.94 A Q.95 B Q.96 B

uj
Q.97 C Q.98 B Q.99 C Q.100 B Q.101 A Q.102 C

Ed
D |VOL.III|Unit 3
n
.i
al
n
ur
Cell Cycle and Cell Division

o
uj
Ed
12.1
CHAPTER 12
CELL CYCLE AND
n
CELL DIVISION
.i
al
1. Introduction
n
Topics Discussed
ur
The cell is the skeleton and engine for all the

organisms. There are unicellular and multicellular
INTRODUCTION
o
organisms who have cells in their body. The life

CELL CYCLE to exist and continue the cell needs to divide like
uj
MITOSIS any other organism. Thus, the cell division is also a

Ed
fundamental and essential function. Cell division is

MEIOSIS a long and complex process which involves several
AMITOSIS steps, common in all the organisms. As unicellular
organisms have a single cell which divides in order
to increase the population and also continue the
species on the planet. Multicellular organisms have
several cells in their body which are specialised to
perform several functions. Thus, the cell division
here ensures that the body is growing, developing,
its repair, maintenance and also in the reproduction
of the organism. There are various methods for a
cell to divide namely Mitosis, Meiosis and Amitosis.
There are several processes occurring before the
actual cell divides into two. In this chapter we will
discuss the processes of the division.
12.2

At the end of this chapter you will be able to:
y Write about the phases that occur in a cell.
y Arrange the phases of a cell division in order.
y Distinguish between mitosis and meiosis.
2. Cell Reproduction or Cell Cycle

y The cell cycle involves three major processes – Cell growth (time required by a cell for synthesis and
duplication of various components of the cell), DNA replication (time when the DNA replicates) and cell
division (an adult mature cell finally divides into two daughter cells).
y A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is represented with a human cell in various culture methods. These cells
divide once in approximately every 24 hours.
n
y Yeast cell has ability to finish the cell cycle in about 90 minutes.
.i
2.1 Cell Cycle and Its Phase
n al
The cell cycle is divided into two basic phases. Howard and Pelc classified interphase into three
sub stages.
ur
y Interphase
o
y M-phase (Mitosis phase)

uj
2.1.1 Interphase
Ed
y The preparatory phase, resting phase, beginning phase and also a phase involving great metabolic
activity. The intermediate stage between the two consecutive cell divisions where no cell division or
even chromosomes division takes place. However, the nucleus and cytoplasm are metabolically and
synthetically very active in order to get prepared for the division. The length of this phase is 90% - 95%
of the total cell cycle. The series of events occurring in the cell in this particular phase are: replication
of DNA, synthesis of nuclear histones, division of centrioles to form a new pair of centrioles, synthesis
of energy rich compounds, RNA and proteins. The nuclear envelope remains intact, however, the
nucleolus show genetic DNA as long, coiled, indistinctly visible chromatin fibres in the chromosomes.
Also, there are rRNA and ribosomal proteins accumulated in nucleolus which greatly increases its size.
Interphase is further divided into three phases:
(i) G1-phase
(ii) S or Synthesis Phase
(iii) G2-Phase
12.3
.i n
al
Figure 12.1: Cell cycle involved in cell growth and division
n
ur
(i) G1-Phase
It occurs at the end of a mitotic division (pro-mitotic gap phase). The initiation of DNA replication is major
o
function. Following biochemical changes are common during this sub-stage.

uj
y The cell grows until its maximum size as the normal metabolic activity occurs for the DNA replication
preparation, and DNA contents of the cell remains unchanged.
Ed
y The new proteins are translation and RNA: rRNA, tRNA and mRNA transcription occurs during this
phase.
y Also Nucleotides, amino acids and ATPs are formed.
y The most variable phase which differs in time affecting the cell division duration for each cell. G1
under certain stimuli can be terminated. Once G1 is completed in a cell and ‘S’ phase has started with
the replication of DNA, it cannot be terminated.
y There are cells which do not exhibit division usually in animal adults (e.g., heart cells) and also some
which divide occasionally, as and when required to replace the lost or injured cells. Once replacement is
complete, these cells stop further division and exit G1 phase. Then they enter an inactive stage called as
the quiescent stage (G0) in the cell cycle. The cells are metabolically active, however, do not proliferate
till the requirement. Hence, this phase of G0 can be temporary or permanent in the organism.
Antephase, the end of G1 phase where the cell will divide in all the conditions even under stress conditions.
12.4
(ii) S or Synthesis Phase

y The synthesis or replication of DNA on the template or the existing DNA takes place.
y The amount of DNA in a cell doubles (means the cell has twice the normal set of genes). However, the
chromosome number remains the same (Ploidy level remains same). Assume: the initial amount of DNA
as 2C, then the DNA amount increases to 4C, and the cell has 2n number of chromosomes at G1, which
remains the same even after S-phase.
y The replication occurs inside the nucleus along with centriole doubling in the cytoplasm.
y Histone proteins are also synthesised in S-phase. This phase is called as invisible phase of the cell cycle
as the replicated chromosomes are invisible.
(iii) G2 Phase
The phase just before the mitosis (pre-mitotic gap phase).
y The cytoplasmic organelles multiply like mitochondria, chloroplast and Golgi complex.
.i n
y Transcription of RNA and then translation protein continues. Spindle tubulin synthesis and aster formation
starts. al
y A cell contains double the number (4C) of DNA present in the original diploid (2N) cell.
n
y The cell is now prepared to enter into “M” or Mitotic phase.
ur
y The main part is the synthesis of some protein kinases used in the regulation of cell division. Kinases
regulating the cell cycle are called as Cdks (cyclin dependant kinases) because they get activated after
o
combination with the key protein called as cyclin.

uj
y The kinase enzyme along with cyclin moves the cell cycle in forward direction. S-kinase is capable of
Ed
the DNA replication initiation after it combines with S-cyclin. After some time S-cyclin gets destroyed and
S-kinase loses its activeness.
Cell cycle in the meristem cells are with a special protein “Cyclin and Cdks” (discovered by Nurse, T. Hunt
& Hartmann 2001 during the experiment on yeast cell). The cyclin protein triggers the DNA replication.
2.1.2 M-Phase
The phase when the actual cell division or mitosis is initiated. The steps involve nuclear division, the
separation of daughter chromosomes (Karyokinesis) and ends in the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis).
The 24 hour is the average duration of cell cycle in a human cell, where the cell division, i.e., M-phase lasts
for about an hour.
12.5
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Regulation of Cell Cycle:
y Decision of a cell to divide occurs in G1-phase. If a cell is not to divide it will enter into G0-
phase or Quiescent phase. When the conditions change, the cell can enter back into G1-
phase. G1 → S transition in the cell cycle is called as Restriction point or check point. This
is the major check point. Once the cell crosses the restriction point rest of the cell cycle is
completed. Another minor check point is G2 → M transition.
y Cell cycle is regulated by cyclin-dependent protein kinase.
y Cyclins are proteins that activate protein kinases to regulate eukaryotic cell cycle.
y G1 to S transition is triggered by maturation promoting factor (MPF) formed by mitotic cyclin
+ cdc 2 kinase. Nucleus attains the maximum size.
.i n
3. Mitosis
y
n al
Mitosis produce genetically identical cells. The chromosomes undergo division and replicate to form
duplicates which are similar to mother cell chromosome number (equational division).
ur
y The division is also called as somatic cell division or equational division or indirect division.
y Mitosis was coined by Fleming in 1882.
o
y Establishment: Strasburger observed mitosis in plants. While Boveri and Fleming observed the
uj
same in animals.
y Duration: Dependent on the type of the cell involved and its species. It takes 30 minutes to 3 hours.
Ed
The various factors affecting the duration are type of the tissue, its location, temperature and species of
the organism. The actual cell division is for one hour from the 24 hour average duration.
y Occurrence: A common division method for both the somatic or body cells and the germ cells in
the sex organs. There are phases and specific location where it is common and a regular method.
Plant meristematic tissues (root and shoot tips) and animal skin, bone marrow, even the embryonic
developmental stages have the mitotic division.
y Cause of mitosis: Kern plasm theory: Hertwig proposed kern plasm theory. According to this theory
mitosis occur due to disturbance in Karyoplasmic index (KI) or nucleocytoplasmic ratio of cell.
Vn = Volume of nucleus
Vc = Volume of cell
Vc-Vn = Volume of cytoplasm
Karyoplasmic Index (KI) of small cell is high as they have less cytoplasm. Nucleus efficiently controls the
activity of cytoplasm in small cells, so these cells are metabolically more active
12.6
During cell growth, cytoplasm increases, thus K.I. decreases. In a large cell, nucleus fail to control the
activity of cytoplasm. To attain the control of nucleus on metabolism a large cell divides into two cells.
○ Surface-volume Ratio: A cell draws all the materials needed for its maintenance and growth from
its surface. When a cell grows in size its volumes increases more than its surface. So a stage
will reach when the surface area becomes insufficient to draw the material. At such critical stage,
division of cell started.
3.1 Phases of Mitosis

The phases of mitosis are as follows:
Interphase (as described earlier).
DID YOU KNOW
n
y The factors responsible for the cell division to occur or not occur are as:
.i
○ Surface area to the volume ratio: in order to undergo division a cell should
○
al
have low surface area to volume ratio.
Karyoplasmic index: Also a cell should have low karyoplasmic index
n
(explained later in the chapter).
ur
y Ideal examples for the mitosis study is onion root tips or other meristematic tissues.
o
y Mitogens are mitosis inducing substances. E.g., Auxin, Cytokinin, Gibberellin,

Insulin etc.
uj
? y Mitosis in animal cell is called as Amphiastral division as it has the spindle formation
Ed
associated with 2 asters at each pole.

y Mitosis in plant cells is called as Anastral division where there are no aster and no
centriole.
y The mitosis when occurs in a cell which has lost its nuclear membrane and is extra
nuclear, it is called as Eumitosis.
y The mitosis is intranuclear where it occurs in the nuclear membrane while it is still in
the cell, it is called as Premitosis.
y The centrioles when form the spindle complex in the cell it is called as centric division.
Division phase or M-phase or mitotic phase (duration 1hr) is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle.
Karyokinesis – Division of nucleus; and Cytokinesis – Division of cytoplasm.
12.7
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 12.2: Different stages of mitosis

12.8
Figure 12.3: Chromosome showing spindle formation
.i n
3.1.1 Karyokinesis
al
Division of nucleus occurs by sequential changes (Indirect division) Karyokinesis has 4 stages:
n
(i) Prophase (longest stage)
ur
y Chromatin threads get condensed to form the chromosomes.

y Centrioles get aligned towards the opposite poles.
o
y Astral ray formation from the proteins gelatinised around the centrioles (initiation of the assembly of
uj
mitotic spindle).
Ed
y Cells do not show Golgi complexes, ER, Nucleolus and nuclear membrane at the end of the prophase.
(ii) Metaphase
y The nuclear envelope is completely disintegrated which highlights the start of the second phase in
mitosis. The chromosomes spread throughout the cytoplasm. Spindle fibres attach to the chromosomes
at their kinetochores.
y The condensation of chromosomes is complete. This is the stage where morphology of chromosomes
is easily visible.
y The chromosome is compiled in two sister chromatids, held together with the centromere.
y Each chromosome splits as per length upto the centromere (division of matrix of chromosome). Thus,
replicated chromatids are clearly visible at metaphase stage.
y Chromosomes spilt up and arrange themselves on the equator to form metaphase plate (equatorial plate).
12.9
y Spindle fibres are microtubules. Chromosomal fibres, (discontinuous and run from pole to centromere)
and supporting fibres, (continuous and run from pole to pole), arrange in a cell.
y The centromere lies at the equator with arms facing the poles.
Figure 12.4: Metaphase stage

(iii) Anaphase (smallest stage)
n
y The early anaphase have inter zonal fibres appearing at the equator.
.i
y Chromosome centromere splits lengthwise (division of centromere).
al
y Chromosomes double inside a cell during mitotic anaphase. Every chromosome has one chromatid.
y Expansion of Inter zonal fibres and the chromosomes are pushed towards the opposite poles (pushing)
n
ur
y Contraction of chromosomal fibres such that they pull them towards opposite poles (pulling)
o
uj
Ed
Figure 12.5: Anaphase stage
(iv) Telophase (reverse of prophase)

y Nuclear membrane, Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER now surround each of the chromosomal pole.
y The chromatin net is formed after the chromosomes decondense. Chromosomes lose their individuality
which means the individual chromosomes are not present.
12.10
n
Figure 12.6: A. Early telophase and B. Late telophase stage
.i
3.1.2 Cytokinesis
y
al
Cytokinesis is initiated in late the anaphase. It is different for plants and animals.
n
ur
(i) Cytokinesis in animals
y It occurs through constriction and furrow formation in the cell membrane.
o
y A mid-body equator is formed when the microtubules arrange in the middle while the microfilaments
uj
arrange in the peripheral ring just below the plasma membrane.

Ed
y The cell organelles arrange themselves at either side of the equator.

y The contraction occurs as the attraction occurs between mid-body and peripheral ring, forming a furrow
from the outside of the cell to inside.
Figure 12.7: Cell membrane division in animals

y The furrow formed deepens continuously and finally the cell divides into two daughter cells.
y The cytokinesis in animal cell occurs in the centripetal order.
12.11
(ii) Cytokinesis in plants

y The cell plate formation takes place because the constriction or even furrow is not possible as the cell
wall is rigid.
Figure 12.8: Cell division in plants
y Many Golgi vesicles and spindle microtubules arrange themselves on equator and the cell has a
Phragmoplast. It may also have the deposits of fragments of ER. Golgi vesicles membranes fuse and
n
form a plate like structure which is called as the cell plate. Golgi vesicles then secret pectates of calcium
.i
and magnesium. The cell plate modifies into the middle lamella. The cytokinesis of plant cells occur in
the centrifugal order (cell plate formation is from centre to periphery).
al
n
3.2 Significance of Mitosis
ur
y Mitosis: The equational division is a common division method for the diploid cells only. However,
some lower plants and social insects which have haploid cells, also use mitosis for division. The
o
significance of this division is essential to understand in the life of an organism.

Mitosis results in the production of diploid daughter cells which have identical genetic chromosome
uj
y
number. The multicellular organisms grow due to the mitosis.
Ed
y Cell growth often results in disturbing the usual ratio of the nucleus and the cytoplasm. Thus, the cell
divides and restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
y A very significant contribution is that a cell is repaired. Best examples are the cells of the upper epidermis
layer, cells of the gut lining, and blood cells being replaced constantly.
TRY IT YOURSELF
a. __________ are proteins that activate kinases to regulate eukaryotic cell cycle.
b. The morphology of chromosome is best studied in ___________
c. Cell plate is first laid down in _________ and then proceeds towards __________
2. Which one of the following is not a mitotic poison?
(A) Chalones (B) Cytokinin (C) Ribonuclease (D) Mustard gas
12.12
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Mitotic Poisons:
All the substances or chemicals which affect the mitotic process in a cell or prevent the cells
completely from dividing normally are called as mitotic poisons. The various mitotic poisons
are:
y Enzyme ribonuclease, Azide and cyanide acts as a poison during prophase.
y Mustard gas reaching a cell results in the agglutination of the chromosomes.
y Chalones are small peptides or glycoproteins present in the extracellular fluid also inhibit
mitosis.
y The alkaloid colchicine targets and inhibits the formation of mitotic spindle (inhibits
polymerization of microtubules) and freezes the cell in the metaphase. Though chromosomes
and DNA replicate they remain intact in the same cell. The nucleus division dies not occur.
n
This increases the chromosome sets in a cell. This process leads to endopolyploidy or
.i
endomitosis in which nucleus contains multiple sets of chromosomes, more than the
n al
normal two sets in a normal diploid cell. Such cells are called as polyploidy cells.
y X-rays induce uncontrolled mitosis as they energize the cells and thus cause breakage of
chromosomes.
ur
Abnormal Mitosis:
o
y Intranuclear mitosis (pre-mitosis): In Amoeba, Yeast, fungi and many algae, during the
mitotic division, the nuclear envelope fails to degenerate. Spindle formation is intranuclear.
uj
y Dino mitosis: Dinoflagellates possess condensed chromosomes even in non-dividing

Ed
nuclei. Nuclear envelope does not degenerate. Division of chromosomes occur when the
nucleus develop special channels.
y Free Nuclear Division: Sometimes, there are repeated mitosis without the subsequent
cytokinesis in a cell which results in multinucleated conditions, e.g., Rhizopus, Vaucheria,
Slime moulds, etc.
4. Meiosis
y Meiosis is a method where the division produces genetically different type of cells. All the four
daughter cells produced with meiosis have genetic differences among each other and also are different
from the mother cell. Gametogenesis the formation of gametes is a common factor for meiosis to occur.
12.13
4.1 Phases of Meiosis

There are two different phases in the division of cell:
y Meiosis I: Heterotypic division or reduction division. It leads to reduction in chromosome number
to half in daughter cells. Division of chromosome does not occurs in meiosis-I, only segregation of
homologous chromosomes takes place.
y Meiosis II: Homotypic division or equational division. It does not lead to any change in chromosome
number. Division of nucleus occurs twice, however, the DNA replication and chromosome division
occurs only once.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Flowchart 12.1: Phases of Meiosis
4.1.1 Stages of Meiosis I

(i) Prophase - I: The longest and most complex stage of the meiosis. Prophase I is further divided in five
sub stages as:
(a) Leptotene – Chromatin threads are condensed so that they form chromosomes which are longest
and thinnest fibers. There are bead like structures present on it called as chromomeres. All
the chromosomes move towards centrioles in nucleus, so group of chromosomes in nucleus
appears like a bouquet in animal cell. (Bouquet stage).
12.14
Figure 12.9: Leptotene stage
(b) Zygotene or Synaptotene – There is pairing of homologous chromosomes (Synapsis). The pairs of
homologous chromosomes which are formed here, are called as Bivalents or Tetrads, and are clearly
identified in the next stage. A structure is developed in between the homologous chromosomes, is called
as synaptonemal complex. It has three thick lines made up of DNA and proteins. The complete set helps
in pairing of the DNA.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 12.10: Zygotene stage

Ed
(c) Pachytene (thick thread) – There is increased attraction which causes homologous chromosomes
to coil tightly around each other. Both the chromatids in the chromosome are clear and distinct and now the
pair or bivalent is found as a tetrad. Both the chromosome chromatids are called as sister chromatids.
Non-sister chromatids present in the bivalent develop into recombination nodules and exchange their
parts called as the crossing over. This is an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme is recombinase.
Figure 12.11: Pachytene stage

12.15
(d) Diplotene – The diplotene starts with the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex. There is also the
tendency in the bivalent recombined homologous chromosomes to separate from each other while still
joint at the cross-overs. These X-shaped structures formed are called as chiasmata. The diplotene can last
for months or years, in some vertebral oocytes which is called as dictyotene.
Figure 12.12: Diplotene stage
n
(e) Diakinesis – The meiotic prophase I ends in diakinesis. There is markable terminalisation of the
.i
chiasmata. The chromosomes gets fully condensed and then the meiotic spindle assembles to prepare the
al
homologous chromosomes which separate. When diakinesis ends, the nucleolus disappears and the
nuclear envelope breaks down. Diakinesis ends and metaphase starts.
n
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 12.13: Diakinesis stage

(ii) Metaphase I:
y Bivalents form metaphase plate after arranging on the equator of cell such that the centromeres face
the poles while arms face the equator.
y Spindle fibres now attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes.
y There are in all 3 types of spindle fibres in the cell:
○ Chromosomal / Kinetochore Spindle fibres
○ Supporting / Continuous Spindle fibres
○ Inter zonal Spindle fibres.
12.16
Figure 12.14: Metaphase I stage
n
(iii) Anaphase I:
.i
y There is contraction of chromosomal fibres and expansion of inter zonal fibres. The homologous
al
chromosomes move towards the opposite poles after they segregate from each other.
n
y Anaphase I has segregation or disjunction of the homologous chromosomes. There is no division of
ur
centromere.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 12.15: Anaphase I stage

(iv) Telophase I:
y The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear.
y This is followed by the cytoplasm division or the cytokinesis and two daughter cells together are called
as diad of cells. The chromosomes in some situations undergo some dispersion, and are thus fail to
reach the extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus.
12.17
Figure 12.16: Telophase I stage A. and B. are daughter cells
y The connecting stage of the two
n
meiotic divisions is called as
.i
interkinesis which is short in
duration. DNA does not replicate in
this stage. Interkinesis ends with
n al
the start of prophase II, which is
simpler than prophase I.
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 12.17: All stages involved in Meiosis

12.18
4.1.2 Stages of Meiosis – II

(i) Prophase II:
y Meiosis II is an intermediate step which starts immediately after cytokinesis, and before the chromosomes
have elongated fully. Meiosis II is similar to a normal mitosis, in contrast to meiosis I. The nuclear
membrane disappears and chromosomes are compact again in the end of this stage.
(ii) Metaphase II:
y The chromosomes get aligned at the equator while at the opposite poles the spindle microtubules are in
close contact with the kinetochores of the sister chromatids.
(iii) Anaphase II:
y The simultaneous splitting of the chromosome centromere occurs (which was holding the sister
chromatids together), which moves the chromosomes toward the opposite poles of the cell.
(iv) Telophase II:
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 12.15: Different stages in Meiosis II

y The two sets of chromosomes are again enclosed in a nuclear envelope and cytokinesis begins. There
is formation of tetrads (four haploid daughter cells).
4.2 Significance of Meiosis

y Meiosis is the division in which specific chromosome number in each species is conserved. This is
achieved in sexually reproducing organisms across several generations, even though there is reduction
of chromosome number by half in the whole process.
12.19
y The genetic variation increases in the population of organisms over various generations. Evolution is
due to variations which is a very important factor that is progressive with time.
DID YOU KNOW

y Onion buds (Sambhar onions) are common Meiotic study cells.
y Van Beneden first demonstrated Meiosis and Winiwarter described it.
y Gametic meiosis in the gametic cells is also called as terminal meiosis.
y Zygotic meiosis when the zygote formation is initiated is also called as initial meiosis.
? y
y
Sporogenic meiosis is also called as intermediate meiosis.
Cytokinesis: Cytokinesis can be of two types, successive and simultaneous.
Cytokinesis occurs after every nuclear division in successive division. The four cells
n
formed after the successive cytokinesis can be arranged linearly or isobilateral in
.i
tetrads.
al
When cytokinesis occurs at the end of both the divisions it is the simultaneous
division. The nuclei arrangement is in the form of a tetrahedron.
n
o ur
uj
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
The best theory to explain crossing over is Darlington’s theory of breakage and union:
Ed
y The enzyme endonuclease develops breaks called as nicking.

y The gap formation in the nicks is due to exonuclease.
y The chromatid segments separate in the gaps due to the U-protein or helicase enzyme.
y Re-annealing (rejoining) is a result from the R-protein or Re-annealing protein.
The newly formed chromosomes, are different from the parent cell chromosomes. The
formation of new characters (recombinants) and ultimately variations are the obvious results in
the population which result in the evolution.
12.20
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. If a pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and 50 Pg DNA, then what will be the number
of chromosomes and DNA amount in microspore mother cell in G2-phase, meiosis-I products
and meiosis II products respectively?
a. Darkly stained bead like structures called ______ appear along the entire length of
chromatin fibre in __________stage of meiosis.
b. Number of bivalents formed in Ophioglossum (Adder’s tongue fern) meiocyte is ______.
c. Desynapsis phase is ________.
3. Intrameiotic interphase is characterised by
(A) Genes duplication
n
(B) replication of DNA
.i
(C) Centrioles duplication in animals
(D) Disappearance of nucleolus
n al
ur
5. Amitosis
y The most primitive type of cell division. Condensation of chromosomes not occurs in amitosis.
o
Chromosomes are not visible during division. The process of division does not have any recognizable
uj
chromosomes in the cell.

y Amitosis is without the spindle formation. Nucleus division is direct i.e. without sequential changes
Ed
(prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase).

y The division of cytoplasm and nucleus is simultaneously through the constriction.
y The division may be equal or unequal in the chromosome number.
y Amitosis is the fastest cell division method which can be completed in just 20 to 30 minutes. Amitosis
is the cell division method of prokaryotes. However, exceptionally it also occurs in some eukaryotes,
e.g. in budding Yeast.
Table 12.1: Some formulae related to cell division
Formulae Chart
1. Number of mitotic divisions for the formation of n number of cells. n–1
Example: For getting 100 cells 99 mitotic divisions are required
2. Number of generations (n) of mitosis for producing ‘x’ cells. x = 2n
3. Number of meiosis for the formation of ‘n’ seeds/grains/fruits. n
n+
4
12.21
Summary
y According to the cell theory, all the cells arise from the pre-existing cells. The process which involves cell
to continue existing is called as the cell division.
y Any sexually reproducing organisms starts the life cycle from a single celled zygote to the whole new
organism.
y Cell division is a continuous process from the formation of the mature or adult organism to the death of
the organism.
y The stages a cell passes in the life from one division to the next is called as the cell cycle.
y Cell cycle is divided in two phases called (i) Interphase – A period of preparation for cell division, and
(ii) Mitosis (M phase) – The actual period of cell division
y Interphase has subdivisions: G1, S and G2. .
y G1 phase is the period of the cell growth and its normal metabolism. The organelles get duplicated during
n
this phase.
.i
y S-phase is the period of the DNA replication and chromosome duplication.
y
n al
G2-phase is the period of cytoplasmic growth and also the cell size growth.
y Mitosis is also divide into four stages namely prophases, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
ur
y Chromosome gets condense during prophase.
y Simultaneously, the centrioles occupy the opposite poles.
o
y The nuclear envelop and nucleus disappear and the spindle fibers start appearing.
uj
y Metaphase has chromosomes aligned at the equatorial plate.

Ed
y The chromatids after the centromere division starts moving towards the two opposite poles.
y The chromosomal elongation starts after the chromatids reach the two pole, the nucleolus and the
nuclear membrane reappear. This stage is called the telophase.
y Nuclear division ends and the cytoplasmic division begins called as cytokinesis.
y Mitosis is the equational division in which the chromosome number is conserved through various
generations of the cell.
y Meiosis takes place in the diploid cell, majorly cells which form gametes.
y Meiosis is divided into two phases: meiosis-I and meiosis- II.
y Meiosis I has a long prophase, including the phases: Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene and
diakinesis. The homologous chromosomes form pairs and bivalents, and undergo crossing over which
causes changes in the new cell different from the parent cell.
y Meiosis-II is similar to mitotic division. Thus, meiosis yield four haploid cells at the end of the division.
12.22
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 DNA synthesis takes place in
(A) S phase (B) G1 phase (C) G2 phase (D) None
Q.2 When pairing occurs in chromosomes (meiosis)

(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Dikinesis
Q.3 Most active stage of cell cycle is
n
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Telophase (D) Interphase
.i
Q.4 What happens in interkinesis
(A) DNA-replication
n al
(B) Chromosome duplication
(C) Preparation of second meiotic div (D) Resting stage
ur
Q.5 Which can be observed in an interphase nucleus under the light microscope
o
(A) Chromosomes (B) Nucleosomes (C) Centromere (D) Heterochromatin

uj
Q.6 How much part of cell cycle formed by interphase

Ed
(A) 50% (B) 70% (C) 10% (D) 95%
Q.7 In cell cycle, changes of which stage are not visible under microscope
(A) Interphase (B) Prophase (C) Metaphase (D) Anaphase
Q.8 Which type of division leads to polyploidy

(A) Cryptomitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Endomitosis (D) Amitosis
Q.9 Which of the following not occurs in Anaphase – I but occurs in Anaphase- II
(A) Condensation of chromosomes (B) Poleward movement of chromosome
(C) Contraction of spindle fibers (D) Splitting of centromere
12.23
Q.10 During G2 –phase a diploid cell contains the amount of DNA equal to a
(A) Diploid cell (B) Tetraploid cell (C) Haploid cell (D) Nothing can be said
Q.11 Crossing over takes place in

(A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene (C) Diplotene (D) Diakinesis
Q.12 Which type of chromosome will appear ‘L’-shaped during anaphase

(A) Telocentric (B) Acrocentric (C) Metacentric (D) Submetacentric
Q.13 In which order, cytokinesis occurs in plants

(A) Centripetal (B) Centrifugal (C) Oblique (D) Equatorial
n
Q.14 Meiosis not occurs in
.i
(A) Ovule (B) Anther (C) Microsporangia (D) Shoot tip
al
Q.15 Which of the two events restore the normal number of chromosomes in life cycle
n
(A) Mitosis and meiosis (B) Meiosis and fertilization
ur
(C) Fertilization and mitosis (D) Only meiosis

o
Q.16 Division of nucleus is indirect in

uj
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Amitosis (D) A and B both

Ed
Q.17 Which protein is key regulator of cell cycle

(A) Histone (B) Interleukine (C) Intereferone (D) Cycline
Q.18 Which part of plant is suitable for the study of meiosis

(A) Root apex (B) Ovary (C) Anther (D) Shoot apex
Q.19 Colchicines, a mitotic poison, arrests the cell division in

(A) G1 phase (B) G2 phase (C) Anaphase (D) Metaphase
Q.20 Nuclear envelope reappears at

(A) Metaphase (B) Prophase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
12.24
Q.21 Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of bivalent is called

(A) Terminalisation (B) Diakinesis (C) Interkinesis (D) Heteropycnosis
Q.22 The cellular structure which disappear during mitosis is

(A) Plasma membrane (B) Nuclear membrane
(C) Mitochondria (D) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus
Q.23 Meiosis takes place in

(A) Apical meristem (B) Inter calary meristem
(C) Reproductive cells (D) Vegetative cells
Q.24 How many chromosome shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has ten
n
chromosome
.i
(A) 10(Ten) (B) 20(Twenty) (C) 30(Thirty) (D) 40(Forty)
al
Q.25 Chromosome exhibit high level of coiling at which phase of karyokinesis
n
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Telophase (D) Interphase
ur
Q.26 “Bouquet-stage” occur in which sub stages of prophase –I

o
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diplotene

uj
Q.27 The synaptonemal complex appears

Ed
(A) Between homologous chromosomes (B) In zygotene stage

(C) Composed of DNA + protein (D) All the above
Q.28 At anaphase – II of meiosis each chromosome contains

(A) 4-DNA (B) 3-DNA (C) 2-DNA (D) 1-DNA
Q.29 In human cell how many chromosome present in mitotic metaphase plate
(A) 23 (B) 46 (C) 22 (D) 44
12.25
Q.30 Which one of the following statements is not true for meiosis
(A) It occur in reproductive tissue only
(B) Chromosome undergo pairing in early prophase –I
(C) Chromosome do not exchange part
(D) Centromere do not divide during anaphase-I
Q.31 In which stage of mitosis, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids
(A) Prophase and metaphase (B) Anaphase and telophase
(C) Prophase and telophase (D) Metaphase and anaphase
Q.32 In Anaphase–I each chromosome composed of

(A) One chromatid (B) Two chromatid
n
(C) Four chromatid (D) Many chromatid
.i
(B) G2-phase
n al
Q.33 Gap between division phase and start of DNA – replication is called
(A) G1-phase (C) M-phase (D) Interkinesis
ur
Q.34 In meiosis, division of centromere occurs during

(A) Interphase (B) Anaphase-I (C) Anaphase –II (D) Metaphase-I
o
uj
Q.35 In animals , active mitosis can be observed

Ed
(A) At the base of nails (B) At the apex of hairs

(C) Dermis of skin (D) Glans
Q.36 In meiosis, nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear during

(A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene (C) Diakinesis (D) Metaphase-I
Q.37 Cell cycle can remain arrested at

(A) G1 (B) S (C) G2 (D) M
Q.38 Which of the following are mitotic poisons

(A) Colchicines (B) Mustard gas and Azides
(C) Cyanides (D) All the above
12.26
Q.39 Spindle fibers which extend from pole to kinetochores are

(A) Chromosomal or tractile fibers (B) Interzonal fibers
(C) Supporting fibers (D) Astral rays
Q.40 The longest phase in meiotic division is

(A) Prophase – I (B)Metaphase –I (C) Prophase –II (D) Anaphase –I
Q.41 In tetrad, the number of non cross over chromatids is normally

(A) Four (B) Two (C) One (D) None
Q.42 In mitosis, splitting of chromatids upto the centromere takes place in

(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
.i n
Q.43 In which stage of cell division the chromosomes are most condensed
(A) Prophase (B) Meta phase
n al
(C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
Q.44 Karyoplasmic index (K.I.) is

ur
(A) Vn/Vn-Vc (B) Vn/Vc-Vn (C) Vc/Vn (D) Vn/Vc+Vn

o
Q.45 What happens during growth of a cell

uj
(A) K.I. decreases (B) K.I. increases

Ed
(C) K.I. fluctuates (D) K.I. remaine constant
Q.46 Synthesis of proteins occurs during

(A) G1 (B) G2 (C) S (D) All the above
Q.47 During which stage a diploid cell becomes tetraploid in mitosis

(A) G2 (B) Prophase (C) Metaphase (D) Anaphase
Q.48 Each chromosome composed of one chromatid in

(A) Anaphase –I (B) Anaphase –II (C) Metaphase –I (D) Metaphase –II
Q.49 Phase of shortest duration is

(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C)Anaphase (D) S-phase
12.27
Q.50 Which of the following not occurs in Anaphase – I

(A) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(B) Contraction in spindle
(C) Poleward movement of chromosomes
(D) Division of centromere
Q.51 In meiosis
(A) Division of nucleus twice but replication of DNA only once
(B) Division of nucleus twice and replication of DNA twice
(C) Division of nucleus once and replication of DNA is also once
(D) Division of nucleus once and DNA–replication is twice
n
Q.52 After meiosis-I the two chromatids of a chromosome are
.i
(A) Genetically similar (B) Genetically different
(C) Only one chromatid in each chromosome
n al
(D) None of the above
Q.53 Chiasmata appears during

ur
(A) Diakinesis (B) Synaptotene (C) Diplotene (D) Leptotene

o
Q.54 Meiosis can take place in

uj
(A) Prokaryotic cell (B) Haploid cell (C) Dikaryotic cell (D) Diploid cell
Ed
Q.55 Reappearance of nuclear membrane and nucleolus along with thining and elongation in chromosomes
are diagnostic characters for the phase
(A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase (C) Interphase (D) Telophase
Q.56 What happens in crossing over

(A) Duplication of chromosomes (B) Linkage in chromosomes
(C) Minimization in genetic material (D) Exchange of genetic material
Q.57 In mitosis, the spindle is

(A) Bipolar (B) Multipolar (C) Apolar (D) Random
12.28
Q.58 Condensation of chromosomes and appearance of astral rays occur during

Q.59 During telophase

(A) Nuclear membrane is formed (B) Nucleolus appears
(C) Astral rays disappear (D) All the above
Q.60 Chromosoma morphology (structure) is best observed at

(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Interphase (D) Anaphase
Q.61 Which stage of cell cycle is characterized by DNA replication, synthesis of Histones and formation of
new nucleosomes
n
(A) S-phase (B) G1-phase (C) G2-phase (D) M-phase
.i
Q.62 In anaphase, a metacentric chromosome appears al
(A) I shaped (B) J –shaped (C) V –shaped (D) L –shaped
n
ur
Q.63 The correct sequence of prophase –I of meiosis is
(A) Leptotene, pachytene, zygotene, diplotene, diakinesis
o
(B) Leptotene, diplotene, pachytene, zygotene, diakinesis

uj
(C) Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

Ed
(D) Leptotene, zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene, pachytene
Q.64 M-pahse of cell cycle consist

(A) G1, S and G2 phase
(B) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(C) Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(D) Only prophase
Q.65 Longest phase of mitosis is

Q.66 Crossing over takes place on

12.29
(A) Two stranded stage (B) Three stranded stage

(C) One stranded stage (D) Four stranded stage
Q.67 Pre-DNA synthesis phase is

(A) G1-phase (B) G2-phase (C) S-phase (D) Prophase
Q.68 Which of the following is called heterotypic division

(A) Meiosis-I (B) Meiosis-II (C) Mitosis (D) Amitosis
Q.69 DNA replication is found in

(A) Mitosis and meiosis-I
(B) Mitosis and meiosis –I and meiosis –II
n
(C) Meiosis only
.i
(D) Mitosis ony
Q.70 Thick–thread stage occured in

n al
ur
Q.71 Smallest phase of mitosis is

o

uj
Q.72 Synthesis of proteins for formation of spindle fibres takes place in

Ed
(A) G1-phase (B) S-phase (C) G2-phase (D) M-phase
Q.73 Which type of cell division heals the wound

(A) Amitosis (B) Mitotic (C) Meiosis (D) Free nuclear
Q.74 The significance of meiosis is that it

(A) Produce four cells having chromosomal number equal to mother cell
(B) Occurs in all types of cells
(C) Maintains the constant Chromosomes number to a particular species
(D) Growth of animal body organs
12.30
Q.75 Cell cycle of an ordinary animal cell

(A) Has cytokinesis only
(B) Has karyokinesis only
(C) Has karyoinesis followed by cytokinesis
(D) Has cytokinesis followed by karyoniesis
Q.76 Mitosis is not found in

(A) Cartilage cells (B) Bone cells (C) Nerve cells (D) All of the above
Q.77 Which one of the following statement in incorrect for interphase stage?
(A) Period of great metabolic activity
(B) Also called as preparatory phase
n
(C) Absence of replication of DNA
.i
(D) It covers over 95% of the total duration of cell cycle
al
Q.78 Post-mitotic gap phase is characterised by all, except.
n
(A) Synthesis of histone proteins (B) Synthesis of RNA and nucleotides
ur
(C) Most-variable in length (D) No change in DNA contents

o
Q.79 Duplication of DNA occurs in

uj

Ed
Q.80 In plant cells, mitosis was first observed by

(A) Flemming (B) Strasburger (C) Farmer and Moore (D) Darlington
Q.81 Which of the following is correctly matched?

(A) Spireme stage - late prophase
(B) Congression stage - Metaphase
(C) Interzonal fibres formation - Telophase
(D) Reaooearance of ER and golgi bodies - Anaphase
12.31
Q.82 Cebtrifugal cytokinesis

(A) Occurs in animals (B) Occurs by cell furrowing
(C) Occurs by cell plate formation (D) Is characteristics of bacteria and lower plants only
Q.83 What will be the total number of mitotic divisions in the formation of 64 daughter cells?
(A) 6 (B) 32 (C) 63 (D) 16
Q.84 Which one of the following is not a diploid cell?

(A) Zygote (B) Microspore mother cell
(C) Primary oocyte (D) Ovum
n
Q.85 Ends of chromosomes are attached with nuclear envelope at attachment plate in
.i
al
Q.86 If there are 30 chromosomes in G1-phase, then what will be number of bivalents in zygotene stage?
n
(A) 30 (B) 15 (C) 45 (D) 60
ur
Q.87 Synaptonemal complex formation stage is

o
(A) Pachytene (B) Zygotene (C) Diplotene (D) Leptotene

uj
Ed

Column I Column II
a. Appearance of recombination nodules (i) Diplotene
b. Desynapsis (ii) Pachytene
c. Disjunction of homologous chromosomes (iii) Anaphase – I
d. Centromere division (iv) Anaphase – II
(A) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv) (B) a (ii), b (i), c(iv), d(iii)
(C) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) (D) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
Q.89 Bivalent chromosomes clearly appears as tetrad in

(A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene
(C) Diplotene (D) Diakinesis
12.32
Q.90 Chromatids separation and centromere division occur in

(A) Anaphase (B) Anaphase – I
(C) Anaphase – II (D) More than one option is correct
Q.91 What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis-II products if meiocyte contains 30 pg DNA in G1 – phase?
(A) 30 Pg (B) 60 Pg (C) 15 Pg (D) 120 Pg
Q.92 Interkinesis or intrameiotic interphase shows

(A) Centriole duplication (B) DNA synthesis
(C) Generally short lived (D) More than one option is correct
n
Q.93 Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 1000 pollen grains in Cyperus is
.i
(A) 250 (B) 500 (C) 1000 (D) 1250
n al
Q.94 The cell cycle of a somatic cell usually consists of all the following except
ur
(A) The first part of interphase is called as G1 phase. During this, there is maximum increase in cell size and
there is active synthesis of RNA and proteins.
o
(B) In synthesis phase ‘S’ phase, the DNA molecule of each chromosome replicated by synthesis of a new
uj
DNA molecule.
(C) During G2 phase, a cell contains double the amount (4n) of DNA present in the original diploid cell (2n).
Ed
(D) The cell cycle consists of a short interphase and long M-phase
Q.95 Which of the following is most important point in the regulation of cell cycle during which it must decide
whether the cell will start a new cycle or will become arrested in G0 phase?
(A) S-phase (B) G1-phase (C) G2-phase (D) Interphase
Q.96 Histone protein synthesis occurs during

(A) G0-phase (B) G2-phase (C) S-phase (D) Prophase
Q.97 The sequence of cell cycle is

(A) S, M, G1 and G2 (B) G1, G2, S and M
(C) M, G1, G2 and S (D) G1, S, G2 and M
12.33
Q.98 During cell cycle, DNA replicates

(A) One (B) Twice (C) Many times (D) Not at all
Q.99 The synthesis of spindle proteins occur during

Q.100 If mitotic division is restricted in G1 phase of cell, the condition is known as

Q.101 Condensation of chromosomes with visible centromere occurs during

.i n
Q.102 The stage of cell cycle when cell has undergone differentiation is
(A) G0 (B) G1
n
(C) G2
al (D) S
ur
Q.103 Phase of cell cycle when DNA polymerase is active
(A) G1 (B) S (C) G2 (D) M
o
uj
Q.104 G0-phase of cell denotes

Ed
(A) Exit of cell from cell type

(B) Check point before entering the next phase
(C) Death of cell
(D) Temporary pause
Q.105 During cell cycle, two molecules of DNA are present in chromosome during
(A) G1-phase (B) Beginning of S-phase
(C) G2-phase (D) End of M-Phase
Q.106 Antephase is the phase in which ATP is synthesised during cell division. It refers to
(A) G0-phase (B) G1-phase (C) S-phase (D) G2-phase
12.34
Q.107 Which of the following materials you will select to study mitosis?
(A) Anthers (B) Onion root tips (C) Flower bud (D) Pollen
Q.108 Mitosis in animal cell is

(A) Anastral (B) Amphiastral
(C) Pre-mitosis, acentric (D) Eumitosis, acentric
Q.109 Mitosis is found in

(A) Lower animals (B) Higher animals
(C) All plants (D) All living organisms
n
Q.110 Which of the following is proper sequence of stages in mitosis?
.i
(A) Metaphase, telophase, prophase and anaphase
(B) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
n al
(C) Anaphase, metaphase, telophase and prophase
ur
(D) Telophase, anaphase, metaphase and prophase

o
Q.111 The chromosomes morphology is best studied during

uj
(A) Prophase
Ed
(B) Metaphase, as the chromosomes are most condensed

(C) Anaphase, as the chromosomes are most condensed
(D) Telophase
Q.112 The two daughter cells formed during mitosis contains

(A) The same amount of DNA but a set of chromosomes different from those of parental cells
(B) The same amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell
(C) Half the amount of DNA and the same set of chromosomes as those of the parent cell
(D) Double the amount of DNA and a set of chromosome different from those of the parent cell
12.35
Q.113 Colchicine is a mitotic poison because it

(A) Causes splitting up of chromosomes (B) Inhibits the formation of mitotic spindle
(C) Causes non-pairing of chromosomes (D) Agglutinates the chromosomes
Q.114 Higher plants differ from animals in having

(A) Spindle microtubule (B) Anastral mitosis
(C) Kinetochores (D) Disappearance of nucleolus during prophase
Q.115 During which phase the centromere splits and chromatids move towards the opposite poles by
shortening of spindle fibres attached to centromeres
n
Q.116 The region of the attachment of chromosome to spindle fibres is called
.i
(A) Centromere (B) Centriole (C) Chromonemata
al (D) Centrosome
Q.117 Which of the following phases are longest and shortest in mitosis?
n
(A) Metaphase, Anaphase (B) Prophase, Anaphase
ur
(C) Telophase, Anaphase (D) Prophase, Telophase

o
Q.118 Nuclear envelope disappears at

uj
(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase (C) Early prophase (D) Late prophase
Ed
Q.119 When nuclear division takes place without cytoplasmic division it results in the formation of
(A) Polyteny (B) Coenocyte (C) Polyploidy (D) Amitosis
Q.120 The cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption

(A) When it has entered S phase (B) Once it has entered G2 phase
(C) At any time during cell activity (D) Irrespective of any phase
Q.121 Term ‘meiosis’ was coined by

(A) Flemming (B) Farmer and Moore
(C) Strasburger (D) Hofmeister
12.36
Q.122 Meiosis is evolutionarily significant, because it results in

(A) Recombinations (B) Eggs and sperms
(C) Four daughter cells (D) Genetically similar daughter cells
Q.123 All are the essential stages that take place during meiosis, except
(A) Two successive divisions without any DNA replication occurring between them
(B) Formation of chiasmata and crossing over
(C) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(D) Number of chromosomes in daughter cells after meiosis II is reduced to half but the amount of DNA
remains the same
Q.124 Stages in proper of prophase-I are
n
(A) Zygotene, Leptotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis and Diplotene
.i
(B) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis
al
(C) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis and Diplotene
n
(D) Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene, Diakinesis and Diplotene
ur
Q.125 Intimate pairing between the two members of each homologous chromosome par is initiated by the
process called as synapsis, leading to bivalent formation, occurs in
o

uj
Ed
Q.126 Mitosis differs from meiosis in not having

(A) Duplication of DNA (B) Long prophase
(C) Interphase (D) Synapsis and crossing over
Q.127 Recombination nodules which mediate for chromosome recombination appear during
(A) Zygotene (B) Diplotene (C) Diakinesis (D) Pachytene
Q.128 Crossing over occurs during

(A) Pachytene (B) Diplotene (C) Diakinesis (D) Zygotene
Q.129 In oocytes, which of the following phase can last for month or years, since it is at this stage the
chromosomes decondense and engage in RNA synthesis?
(A) Diakinesis (B) Diplotene (C) Pachytene (D) Leptolene
12.37
Q.130 Nuclear membrane and nucleoli can be distinctly seen in

(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Interphase
Q.131 In the meiotic cell division, 56 daughter cells are produced by two successive divisions in which
(A) First division is equational, and second is reductional
(B) First division is reductional, and second is equational
(C) Both divisions are reductional
(D) Both divisions are equational
Q.132 Number of chromosomes in primary oocyte is

(A) Same as that of secondary oocyte (B) Half as that of secondary oocyte
n
(C) Double as that of secondary oocyte (D) Same as that of ovum
.i
Q.133 Terminalization is completed in
(A) Diakinesis (B) Leptotene
n al
(C) Zygotene (D) Diplotene
Q.134 Meiosis involves
ur
(A) One nuclear division and one chromosome division

o
(B) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division

uj
(C) One nuclear division and two chromosome divisions

(D) Two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions
Ed
Q.135 In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as among themselves due to
(A) Segregation and crossing over
(B) Independent assortment and crossing over
(C) Independent assortment, segregation and crossing over
(D) Segregation and independent assortment
Q.136 The movement of homologous chromosomes towards opposite poles occur by contraction of spindle
fibres during
(A) Anaphase (B) Anaphase –I (C) Anaphase – II (D) Metaphase
Q.137 In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by

(A) Cell plate formation (B) Invagination (C) Cleavage (D) Furrowing
12.38
Q.138 If egg on an organism has 10 Pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would a diploid cell of same
organism have G2 phase of meiosis?
(A) 10 Pg (B) 5 Pg (C) 20 Pg (D) 40 Pg
Q.139 Minimum number of meiotic divisions required to produce 100 wheat grains are
(A) 400 (B) 125 (C) 200 (D) 25
Q.140 Amitosis
(A) Division involving forming of chromosome bridges
(B) Division involving spindle formation
(C) Division in which the chromosomes are unequally distributed
(D) Cleavage of nucleus without recognisable chromosomes distribution
.i n
Q.141 Nuclear membrane is formed around the groups of daughter chromosomes during telophase by
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
n al
(B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Lysosomes (D) Microbodies
ur
Q.142 How many generations are required by a cell of meristem to produce 128 cells?
(A) 127 (B) 64 (C) 32 (D) 7
o
uj
Q.143 To produce 102 pollen grains, how many meiotic divisions are required?
Ed
(A) 25 (B) 25.5 (C) 26 (D) 27
Q.144 Find out the wrong statement

(A) Each metaphasic plate in heterotypic division of meiosis contains half the number of diploid set of
chromosomes.
(B) Interkinesis is generally short lived
(C) Synaptonemal complex and nuclear membrane completely disappear in diplotene.
(D) Homologous chromosomes move to respective poles in anaphase – I
Q.144 What will be the content of DNA in a somatic cell at G2 if its meiotic products have 20 picogram
of DNA?
(A) 40 Pg (B) 20 Pg (C) 80 Pg (D) 160 Pg
12.39

(A) Reformation of ER and golgi complex – Telophase
(B) Invisible movement of cell cycle – Metaphase
(C) Polar movement of chromatids – S-phase
(D) Recombination nodules formation - Zygotene
Q.146 All chromosomes of a cell are directed towards one side and are attached to the nuclear membrane,
can be observed in
Q.147 Phragmoplast is formed by golgi complex and grows
n
(A) Centripetally to form cell plate
.i
(B) Centrifugally to form cell plate
(C) Centripetally to produce a cleavage furrow
n al
(D) Centrifugally to form a cleavage furrow
ur
Q.148 Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. cell cycle
(A) Duplication of genes occurs twice in meiosis
o
(B) Karyokinesis occurs twice during meiotic division

uj
(C) Cyclins are proteins that activate protein kinases to regulate the cell cycle.
Ed
(D) At the end of telophase-I, chromosome number is reduced to half.
Q.149 Diplotene phase of meiosis is also characterised by

a. Desynapsis
b. Complete terminalisation of chiasmata
c. Dictyotene stage
d. Complete disappearance of nuclear membrane and nucleoli
e. Complete development of astral rays and aster
f. Longest phase of prophase – I
(A) a, b, c and e (B) b, d, e and f (C) a, c and f (D) b, d and f
12.40
Q.150 Spireme stage of chromosomes is associated with

(A) Early prophase (B) Late prophase (C) Metaphase (D) Telophase
Q.151 Which of the following is correct for mitosis in most of the plants member?
(A) Amphiastral, anastral and eumitosis
(B) Anastral, acentric and premitosis
(C) Anastral, acentric and eumitosis
(D) Astral, centric and eumitosis
Q.152 Maturation promoting factor formation triggers the cell to cross

(A) G1 → S (B) S → G2 (C) G2 → M (D) M → G1
.i n
n al
ur

o
Q.1 Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory [CPMT-2002]

uj
(A) Anther (B) Root tip (C) Leaf tip (D) Ovary
Ed
Q.2 Mitosis occurs in [RPMT-2002]

(A) Haploid individuals (B) Diploid individuals
(C) Both A and B (D) In bacteria only
Q.3 The number of DNA in chromosome at G2 state of cell cycle [RPMT-2002]

(A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Eight
Q.4 Which is correct for meiotic metaphase – I [RPMT-2002]

(A) Bivalents are arranged at equator
(B) Univalents are arranged at equator
(C) Non–homologous chromosomes forms pair
(D) Spindle fibers are attached at chromomere
12.41
Q.5 Crossing over that results in genetic recombination inhigher organisms occurs between
[AIPMT-2004]
(A) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
(B) Two daughter nuclei
(C) Two different bivalents
(D) Sister chromatids of a bivalents
Q.6 Is the somatic cell cycle [AIPMT-2004]

(A) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(B) A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
(C) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
(D) In G2 phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell
.i n
Q.7 In which stage of meiosis the chromosome number reduces to half [RPMT-2004]
(A) Anaphase –I
n al
(B) Anaphase –II
(C) Telophase – I (D) Telophase –II
Q.8 Chiasmata are formed as a result of [RPMT-2004]
ur
(A) Exchange of parts of paired homologus chromosome

o
(B) Exchange of part of unpaired non-homologus chromosome

uj
(C) Duplication of parts of paired homologus chromosome

(D) Loss of parts of unpaired non-homologus chromosome
Ed
Q.9 When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage called
[AIIMS-2005]
Q.10 Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even through they do not have [AIIMS-2005]
(A) Plasma membrane (B) Cytoskeleton
(C) Mitochondria (D) Plastids
12.42
Q.11 Centromere is required for [AIPMT-2005]

(A) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
(B) Cytoplasmic cleavage
(C) Crossing over
(D) Transcription
Q.12 At what stage of the cell cycle histone proteins are synthesized in a eukaryotic cell [AIPMT-2005]
(A) During telophase (B) During S-phase
(C) During G-2 stage of prophase (D) During entire prophase
Q.13 Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle.

Which one of the following is the correct indication? [AIPMT-2009]
.i n
(A) A-Cytokinesis (B) B-Metaphase
(C) C-Karyokinesis
n al
(D) D-Synthetic phase
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Q.14 During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at [AIPMT Pre.-2010]
(A) Early prophase (B) Late prophase
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(C) Early metaphase (D) Late metaphase

uj
Q.15 Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B

Ed
represent, respectively? [AIPMT Pre.-2010]

(A) Prophase - Anaphase
(B) Metaphase - Telophase
(C) Telophase - Metaphase
(D) Late Anaphase- Prophase
Q.16 Select the correct option with respect to mitosis [AIPMT Pre.-2011]
(A) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(B) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(C) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
(D) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase
12.43
Q.17 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres y their [AIPMT Pre.-2011]
(A) Centromere (B) Satellites
(C) Secondary constrictions (D) Kinetochores
Q.18 During gamete formation , the enzyme recombinase participates during [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
(A) Prophase –I (B) Prophase –II
(C) Metaphase-I (D) Anaphase-II
Q.19 Give below is the representation of a certain events at particular stage of a type of cell division. Which
is this stage? [AIPMT Pre.-2010=12]
(A) Prophase of Mitosis
(B) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
n
(C) Prophase I during meiosis
.i
(D) Prophase II during meiosis
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Q.20 Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids
n
remain associated at their centromeres [AIPMT Pre.-2012]
ur
(A) Anaphase I (B) Anaphase II

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(C) Metaphase I (D) Metaphase II

uj
Ed
Q.21 Extra nuclear DNA. (genes) are located in [AIPMT 2000]

(A) Lysosomes and chloroplasts (B) Golgi complex and ribosomes
(C) Chloroplasts and mitochondria (D) Ribosomes and mitochondria
Q.22 In an animal cell, protein synthesis takes place [AIPMT 2001]

(A) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(B) Only on ribosomes attached to nuclear envelope and ER
(C) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
(D) On ribosomes present in the cytosol as well as in the mitochondria
Q.23 Microtubules absent in [AIPMT 2001]

(A) Mitochondria (B) Centriole (C) Flagella (D) Spindle fibres
12.44
Q.24 Extra nuclear chromosomes occur in [AIPMT 2001]

(A) Peroxisome, ribosome (B) Chloroplast, mitochondria
(C) Mitochondria, ribosome (D) Chioroplast, lysosome
Q.25 Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which protein? [AIPMT 2002]

(A) Actin (B) Myosin (C) Actomyosin (D) Myoglobin
Q.26 Ribosomes are produced in [AIPMT 2002]

(A) Nucleolus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi body
Q.27 In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane [AIPMT 2002]

(A) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
(B) Upper layer is polar and hydrophobic
n
(C) Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part
.i
(D) Proteins form a middle layer al
Q.28 Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory is [AIPMT 2002]
n
(A) Anther (B) Root tip (C) Leaf tip (D) Ovary
ur
Q.29 Which of the following occurs more than one and less than five in a chromosome? [AIPMT 2002]
o
(A) Chromatid (B) Chromosome (C) Centromere (D) Telomere

uj
Ed
Q.30 If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Triploid (B) Tetraploid (C) Diploid (D) Monoploid
Q.31 In which one of the following is nitrogen not a constituent? [AIPMT 2003]
(A) Pepsin (B) Idioblast (C) Bacteriochlorophyll (D) Invertase
Q.32 Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in [AIPMT 2004]

(A) Type of movement and placement in cell
(B) Location in cell and mode of functioning
(C) Microtubular organization and type of movement
(D) Microtubular organization and function
12.45
Q.33 If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes,
which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into? [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Metaphase (B) Telophase (C) Anaphase (D) Prophase
Q.34 In chloroplasts, chlorophyll, is present in the [AIPMT 2004]

(A) Outer membrane (B) Inner membrane (C) Thylakoids (D) Stroma
Q.35 Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell
cycle? [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(B) Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(C) Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast
n
(D) Formation of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosomes
.i
Q.36 In the somatic cell cycle al [AIPMT 2004]
(A) In G1-phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the originarcell
n
(B) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
ur
(C) A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase

(D) G2-phase follows mitotic phase
o
uj
Q.37 Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in higher organisms occur between
[AIPMT 2004]
Ed
(A) Sister chromatids of bivalent (B) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent

(C) Two daughter nuclei (D) Two different bivalents
Q.38 Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of ‘presence of genes in [AIPMT 2004]

(A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes and chioroplast
(D) Lysosomes and ribosomes
Q.39 A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X
objective: He should illuminate the object by which one ot the following colours 0 light so as to get the best
possible resolution?
(A) Blue (B) Green (C) Yellow (D) Red
12.46
Q.40 The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to
their destinations is [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Chloroplast (B) Mitochondria (C) Lysosome (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.41 Centromere is required for [AIPMT 2005]

(A) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
(B) Cytoplasmic cleavage
(C) Crossing over
(D) Transcription
Q.42 According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and
integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In
this regard, which of the following statements is incorrect? [AIPMT 2005]
n
(A) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the lipid bilayer
.i
(B) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in the lipid bilayer
al
(C) Proteins can remain confined within certain domains of the membrane
n
(D) Many proteins remain completely embedded within the lipid bilayer
ur
Q.43 ”Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs [AIPMT 2005]

o
(A) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol

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(B) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(C) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
Ed
(D) On.ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

Q.44 At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell? [AIPMT 2005]
(A) Dtiring G2-siage of prophase (B) During S-phase
(C) During entire prophase (D) During telophase
Q.45 Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in [AIPMT 2005]
(A) Mitochondrial genome (B) Cytosol
(C) Chloroplast genome (D) Nuclear genome
Q.46 Chlorophyll in chloroplast is located in [AIPMT 2005]

(A) Grana (B) Pyrenoid (C) Stroma (D) Both (A) and (C)
12.47
Q.47 The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larvae are useful in gene mapping
because [AIPMT 2005]
(A) These are much longer in size (B) These are easy to stain
(C) These are fused (D) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes
Q.48 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct? [AIPMT 2006]
(A) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
(B) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
(C) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(D) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
Q.49 During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction occurs in [AIPMT 2006]
n
(A) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
.i
(B) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(C) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(D) Stroma of chloroplasts
n al
ur
Q.50 A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This
is because [AIPMT 2006]
o
(A) The resolving power of the electron microscope is 200nm to 350nm as compared to 0.1-0.2 for the light
uj
microscope
(B) Electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy required thin sections
Ed
(C) The electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons
which has wavelength much longer than that of photons
(D) The resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope
Q.51 Select the wrong statement from the following [AIPMT 2007]
(A) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
(B) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the
thylakoid membrane
(C) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
(D) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria
12.48
Q.52 Keeping itiview the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following
statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one
lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)? [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(B) While lipids can rarely. flip-flop, proteins cannot
(C) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot
(D) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
Q.53 The two subunits of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Copper (B) Manganese (C) Magnesium (D) Calcium
Q.54 Vacuole in a plant cell [AIPMT 2008]

(A) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
n
(B) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
.i
(C) Lacks membrane and contains air al
(D) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
n
Q.55 In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the [AIPMT 2008]
ur
(A) Proplastids (B) Glyoxysomes (C) Peroxisomes (D) Mitochondria

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Q.56 There is no DNA in [AIPMT 2009]

uj
(A) An enucleated ovum (B) Mature RBCs

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(C) A mature spermatozoan (D) Hair root
Q.57 Middle lamella is mainly composed of [AIPMT 2009]

(A) Hemicellulose (B) Muramic acid
(C) Calcium pectate (D) Phosphoglycerides
Q.58 Plasmodesmata are [AIPMT 2009]
(A) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(B) Locomotory structures
(C) Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma
(D) Connections between adjacent cells
12.49
Q.59 Cytoskeleton is made up of [AIPMT 2009]

(A) Calcium carbonate granules (B) Callose deposits
(C) Cellulosic microfibrils (D) Proteinaceous filaments
Q.60 Synapsis occurs between [AIPMT 2009]

(A) A male and a female gamete (B) mRNA and ribosomes
(C) Spindle fibres and centromere (D) Two homologous chromosomes
Q.61 Semiconsenrative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in [AIPMT 2009]

(A) Drosophila melanogaster (B) Escherichia coli
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia (D) Salmonella typhimurium
.i n
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Ed
12.50
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 D Q.4 C Q.5 D Q.6 D
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 D Q.10 B Q.11 B Q.12 D
Q.13 B Q.14 D Q.15 B Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 C
Q.19 D Q.20 D Q.21 A Q.22 D Q.23 C Q.24 D
Q.25 B Q.26 A Q.27 D Q.28 D Q.29 B Q.30 C
Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 A Q.34 C Q.35 A Q.36 C
n
Q.37 A Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 A Q.41 B Q.42 B
.i
Q.43 B Q.44 B Q.45 A Q.46 D Q.47 D Q.48 B
Q.49 C Q.50 D Q.51 A al
Q.52 B
n
Q.53 C Q.54 D
Q.55 D Q.56 D Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 D Q.60 B
ur
Q.61 A Q.62 C Q.63 C Q.64 B Q.65 A Q.66 D
Q.67 A Q.68 A Q.69 A Q.70 C Q.71 C Q.72 C
o
Q.73 B Q.74 C Q.75 C Q.76 C Q.77 C Q.78 A

uj
Q.79 B Q.80 B Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 C Q.84 D

Ed
Q.85 A Q.86 B Q.87 B Q.88 A Q.89 B Q.90 D

Q.91 C Q.92 D Q.93 C Q.94 D Q.95 B Q.96 C
Q.97 D Q.98 A Q.99 C Q.100 C Q.101 D Q.102 A
Q.103 B Q.104 A Q.105 C Q.106 B Q.107 B Q.108 B
Q.109 D Q.110 B Q.111 B Q.112 B Q.113 B Q.114 B
Q.115 C Q.116 A Q.117 B Q.118 D Q.119 B Q.120 A
Q.121 B Q.122 A Q.123 D Q.124 B Q.125 A Q.126 D
Q.127 D Q.128 A Q.129 B Q.130 D Q.131 B Q.132 C
12.51
Q.133 A Q.134 B Q.135 C Q.136 B Q.137 A Q.138 D

Q.139 B Q.140 D Q.141 A Q.142 D Q.143 C Q.144 C
Q.145 C Q.146 A Q.147 A Q.148 B Q.149 A Q.150 C
Q.151 A Q.152 C Q.153 C

Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 B Q.4 A Q.5 A Q.6 A
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 D Q.11 A Q.12 B
Q.13 D Q.14 B Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 A
Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 C Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 B
n
Q.25 A Q.26 A Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 D Q.30 B
.i
Q.31 B Q.32 C Q.33 A Q.34 C
al Q.35 A Q.36 B
Q.37 B Q.38 A Q.39 A Q.40 D Q.41 A Q.42 B
n
Q.43 D Q.44 B Q.45 A Q.46 A Q.47 D Q.48 A
ur
Q.49 B Q.50 D Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 C Q.54 B

o
Q.55 B Q.56 A Q.57 C Q.58 D Q.59 D Q.60 D

uj
Q.61 B
Ed
O O
|VOL.I|Unit 1
.in
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Reproduction in Organisms
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1.1
CHAPTER 1
REPRODUCTION IN
n
ORGANISMS
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Every living organism remains alive for a limited
INTRODUCTION period of time. Inspite of this harsh reality, a vast
o
number of plant and animal species have existed

LIFE SPANS
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on earth for several thousand years. It means

REPRODUCTION-INTRODUCTION AND DEFINITION that, there must be some processes that ensures
Ed
SEXUAL AND ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION the continuity as well as the production of new
organisms. The ‘‘biological process’’ which allows
TYPES OF ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION the continuation and production of new organism
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION from the existing organism is called “reproduction’’.
Reproduction is one of the most fundamental
attributes of all living organisms as it is essential for
the survival of a species. It helps them to produce
their own kind to maintain then life of their species
on earth since new life cannot be produced
de-novo.
It is clear from the above discussion that for a
species of a plant or animal to continue living on
this earth, it must reproduce itself.
1.2
Objectives
y Know how reproduction occurs.
y Understand processes involved in reproduction.
y Learn about the different modes of reproduction
2. Importance of Reproduction
y It is required by an organism to maintain its survival, continuity and group immortality.
y The other main attribute of reproduction is in the increase of population. Hence, reproduction is essential
for organisms to perpetuate its kind on earth.
y Reproduction is a vehicle of organic evolution that transmits important variations to the offspring.
n
3. Life Span
.i
The period from birth to the natural death of an organism represents its life span. Life span is a specific trait
al
of each organism. Life span varies from few days to several thousand years. Life spans are not necessarily
correlated with size or complexity of organisms. Crow and parrot are of almost equal size, but crow has a life
n
span of only 15 years while parrots can live for 40 to more than a 100 years (depending on species). Similarly
ur
mango tree lives for 200 years while Peepal tree (Ficus religiosa) has a life span of about 2500 years.
o
DID YOU KNOW

?
uj
Plants have a greater lifespan as compared to animals. Sequoia tree lives for about
3,000 – 4,000 years.
Ed
Life span depends on the following four stages:

1. Juvenility - Stage before the reproduction capacity of an organism.
2. Maturity - Reproduction stage.
3. Ageing - Gradual deterioration in the body of a living being is called ageing.
4. Senescence - Final irreversible stage of ageing is called as senescence.
5. Death - Permanent end to all vital systems.
No matter what the life span of an organism, death of every organism is sure, which means no individual
lives forever. So we can say living organisms are mortal. Now a question arises. Is this true for single-called
organisms also? No, when single-celled organisms grow up they undergo division i.e. a mother cell divides into
two daughter cells. No body part is left to die. So they simply get larger and then divide which is not considered
as death. Such organisms are immortal. The figure below shows the life span of different organisms. However
it should be noted that these organisms can be permanently inactivated by use of heat or antibiotics etc.
1.3
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Figure 1.1: Lifespan of certain animals

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TRY IT YOURSELF
Ed
1. Arrange the following organisms w.r.t increasing lifespan: Parrot, Banyan tree, rose
plant, human.
2. Lifespan depends on the complexity of the organism. (True/False).
3. ___________ maintains the existence of a species.
4. Basic Features of Reproduction

4.1 Cell Division
A key event which occurs during reproduction is cell division. In the previous classes you have studied
two types of cell division i.e., mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis is a division in which replicated chromosomes
are equally distributed into two daughter nuclei so that the daughter cells have same number and type of
chromosomes as present in the parent cell. It is therefore called equational division. However, in meiosis
1.4
daughter cells formed have half the number of chromosomes as compared to the parent cell. So it is a
reductional division. Crossing over occurs during this division. It introduces new combinations of genes
or recombination which result in variations i.e. degree of differences amongst the progeny and between the
progeny and the parent.
4.2 Duplication of Cellular Apparatus

Before a cell divides, all the cellular apparatus must be duplicated so that cellular material present in parent
cell can be equally distributed amongst two daughter cells. It involves replication of chromosomes in the
nucleus of a cell which contain information for inheritance of features from parents to next generation in the
form of DNA and involves formation of RNA, proteins and other biochemical molecules.
4.3 Formation of Reproductive Units

Reproductive units are specialized or non-specialized parts of an organism which after separation or
n
modification results in the formation of new individuals/offspring.
.i
5. Types of Reproduction al
There is a large diversity in the biological world. Each organism has evolved its own mechanism to multiply
n
and produce offspring. Both external (habitat) as well as internal (physiology) factors are collectively
ur
responsible. Broadly speaking there are two types of reproduction, asexual and sexual.
o
5.1 Asexual Reproduction

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It is a mode of reproduction/multiplication in which new individuals develop from a single parent.

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Features of asexual reproduction:

1. As there is involvement of only one parent so it is uniparental.
2. It can occur with or without gamete formation but gametic fusion is absent.
3. The individuals produced are exact copies of each other and their parents because the new organisms
produced inherit all of its chromosomes from one parent. Moreover, it involves only mitotic division.
Such morphologically and genetically similar individuals are called clones. Ramets is used to define
members of a clone.
4. The propagule is formed from somatic cells of a parent and hence this kind of asexual reproduction is
called as somatogenic reproduction.
5. It can occur through unspecialized or specialized parts of parent.
6. It is widespread among different groups of organisms. It is common method of reproduction in organisms
that have a relatively simple organization like single celled organisms belonging to group Monera,
1.5
Protista as well as plants and animals with relatively simple organization like algae, fungi, sponges.
Though it is a common mode of reproduction in lower organisms, but it should be very much clear that
higher plants also exhibit this type of reproduction where it is known as vegetative reproduction.
7. Simple and quick method of reproduction.
5.1.1 Binary Fission

Occurrence: It occurs in many single celled organisms belonging to Kingdom Monera (Bacteria), and
Protista (Amoeba and Paramecium).
Types of Binary Fission:
1. Binary Fission
2. Multiple Fission
n
Types of Fission based on the plane of Cytokinesis:
.i
a. Irregular or simple binary fission
b. Longitudinal binary fission

n al
The cytokinesis takes place along the plane and the plane is perpendicular to karyokinesis.
Cytokinesis occurs along the longitudinal axis.

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c. Transverse binary fission

Cytokinesis occurs along the transverse axis.
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1. Binary Fission
Mechanism: In binary fission, the parent organism divides into two halves, each half forming an
Ed
independent daughter organism. It means, the parent body as a whole forms the reproductive unit and
the parent continues living as two daughter individuals. Therefore these organisms can also be called
as immortal. Cell division is mitotic.
Occurrence: Division of nucleus i.e., karyokinesis is followed by division of cytoplasm i.e. cytokinesis
resulting in formation of daughter cells.
2. Multiple Fission
The type of fission in which the parental body divides itself into many daughter cells during unfavorable
conditions to increase the chances of survival of daughter cells.
Occurrence: Found in number of organism e.g. algae in plants, Plasmodium, Amoeba.
Mechanism: In multiple fission, the parent divides itself into repeatedly by means of amitosis into many
nuclei that takes a part of the cytoplasm and forms a daughter cell. Instances when the cytoplasm
remains unused is called as residual body.
1.6
In the life cycle of P. vivax, at the erythrocytic schizogony stage, the cryptomerozoite enters RBC and
feeds on the hemoglobin and cellular components and grows fully. This is called as schizont. This is
followed by multiple fission and 12-24 merozoites are formed. This causes the RBCs to rupture and
hence the merozoites are released and the process is repeated.
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Figure 1.2: Binary fission in Amoeba

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TRY IT YOURSELF
Ed
1. Multiple fission in the female Anopheles host stomach wall is called as __________,
where the encysted oocyte called __________ is present forming many __________.
2. The process called __________ is used to define the encystation in the daughter cells
of an Amoeba.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
In Amoeba during certain unfavorable conditions it withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes
a three-layered wall called as chitinous cyst wall. While during favorable conditions Amoeba
undergoes multiple fission to produce amoebulae or pseudopodiospores.
1.7
5.1.2 Budding (Torulation)

The type of asexual reproduction in which small outgrowths are formed either on or inside the body of the
parent called as buds.
It is commonly observed in a yeast called Torula. Therefore, this sort of stage is known as torula and the
process is called as torulation.
Occurrence: Found in sponges (Scypha), coelenterates (Hydra), annelids (Syllis), tunicates (Salpa) among
animals. Among fungi, it is generally found in yeasts.
Mechanism: A bud arising from the parent body called as the daughter organism can be formed in either
of the ways:
1. Exogenous/External Budding - An outgrowth or bud grows externally on the surface of the body and
splits from the parent. Thus, taking an independent existence (as seen in Hydra) or remain attach and
become more or less independent member of the colony (as seen in Sycon). Exogenous budding is
n
also found in tunicates, annelids and yeast.
.i
2. Endogenous/Internal Budding (Gemmule formation) - Occurs in marine sponges or fresh water
sponges (Spongilla) that form buds internally called as Gemmules. These contain small group of cells
al
called as archaeocytes enclosed within a protective coat. During favorable condition these archaeocytes
n
come out through the micropyle and form new colonies.
ur
3. Strobilation - The formation of similar segments repeatedly by a process of budding is called strobilation.
Strobila is the segmented body and takes place during the formation of Ephyra larvae of Aurelia
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(a coelenterate). Also occurs in Taenia (Tapeworm) in the neck.

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Ed
Figure 1.3: Budding in yeast
Table 1.1: Difference between Binary fission and Budding

Binary fission Budding
Division equal Division unequal
Protuberance absent Protuberance present
Parent cell disappears Parent cell remains intact
1.8
DID YOU KNOW

Water hyacinth was introduced in Bengal because of its beautiful flowers and shape of
leaves. However, it turned out to be highly invasive aquatic weed that not only spread
to all water bodies of Bengal but also throughout India? It drains oxygen from the water,
?
which leads to death of fishes and other animals. Fish is supplement food of people
in Bengal. Due to Eichhornia, fishes died, causing a food scarcity. It is called ‘‘Terror
of Bengal’’.
Water hyacinth was introduced in India, where its natural predator is absent. Moreover,
it propagates vegetatively by offset at a phenomenal rate and spread all over the water
body in a short period of time.
n
TRY IT YOURSELF
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1. Complete the sequence involved in binary fission in Amoeba.
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Nucleus enlarges A Cytokinesis B
n
2. Cell division itself is a mode of reproduction in single – celled organisms. (True/False)
o ur
5.1.3 Sporulation
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Asexual reproduction can also occur through formation of specialized reproductive structures like spores.
These spores are minute, single-celled thin wall cells, that can produce new individuals.
Ed
Occurrence: These are formed by members of the kingdom fungi and simple plants such as algae,
monerans, protists.
Types: The most commonly produced spores are zoospores, conidia, chlamydospores, oidia and
sporangiospores.
a. Zoospores
These are microscopic motile spores that move by means of flagella formed under favorable conditions
consisting of naked protoplasmic bodies. Origin of zoospores is endogenous because its formation
occurs inside zoosporangia. They are most common asexual structures formed in algae and fungi in
aquatic medium. In unicellular green alga, Chlamydomonas zoospore is pyramid shaped, anteriorly
flagellated, resembling parent cell. During zoospore formation parent cell starts behaving like sporangia.
The protoplast shows division forming 4 or 8 daughter protoplasts generally.
1.9
Zoospore formation in alga

The new protoplasts acquire characters of mother cell and transformed into motile spores. The
parent cell wall breaks and zoospores are liberated in water. They enlarge and behave as an adult
individuals. Biflagellate zoospore (e.g. Chlamydomonas), quadriflagellate (e.g. Ulothrix), multiflagellate
(e.g. Oedogonium). Uninucleate (e.g., Ulothrix), multinucleate called synzoospores (e.g. Vaucheria).
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 1.4: Lifecycle of Chlamydia (Zoospores formation)

Ed
b. Conidia
These are non-motile spores produced by special hyphal branches that constrict at the tips called
conidiophores. They are most common asexual spores produced by fungi. The conidiophores maybe
branched or unbranched. In Penicillium conidiophore may show branching and over these branches there
is formation of flask shaped structures called sterigmata (phialides). Each sterigmata produces/cuts a
chain of conidia. Conidiophores are capable of producing conidia singly (e.g., Phytophthora) or in chains
(e.g., Aspergillus and Penicillium). Conidia maybe unicellular (e.g., Penicillium) or multicellular
(e.g., Cercospora). Conidia has the ability of germinating directly by producing mycelium or zoospores
which upon germination produce mycelium. This latter type of conidia are called as conidiosporangia
(e.g. Albugo).
1.10
Figure 1.5: Conidia of Penicillium
Table 1.2: Difference between Zoospore and Conidia
n
Zoospore Conidia
.i
Flagellated Non-flagellated
Motile
n al
Non-motile
Formed inside sporangia e.g. Chlamydomonas Formed outside over conidiophore e.g. Penicillium
ur
c. Chlamydospores
o
They are thick-walled spores and have the ability to produce directly from hyphal cells. They are capable
of withstanding unfavorable conditions.
uj
d. Oidia
Ed
These spores are thin-walled, do not store reserve food material and are produced when the hypha
breaks up into its components cells or small pieces. Oidia cannot survive under unfavorable conditions
and germinate with immediate liberation. They are formed in conditions such as excess water, sugar
and certain salts.
e. Sporangiospores
They are on-motile spores that are produced inside the sporangia and are called as endospores.
These germinate to produce new mycelium by being generally dispersed by wind.
5.1.4 Fragmentation
The parent body breaks itself into pieces and each piece has the ability of developing into a whole new
organism found in certain flatworms, sponges, Spirogyra, Rhizopus etc.
1.11
5.1.5 Vegetative Reproduction/Propagation

It is method of multiplication in which a somatic part of the plant detaches from the body of the mother and
develops into a new independent plant under suitable environmental conditions. The detachable somatic
part involved in vegetative propagation is called vegetative propagule. Large number of clones are
produced in a short duration and the purity, resistance, good qualities of the variety are preserved. These
somatic parts carry buds. Bud is a compact immature shoot protected by immature leaves. Bud is generally
present on node and when part of plant having node is placed in contact with damp soil, the bud sprout
produces new plant.
a. Natural Vegetative Propagation
Seen commonly among seeded plants. The formation of new plants is brought about by means of
adventitious buds that are normally found in the vegetative organs like roots, stem and leaves. Vegetative
reproduction is a type of asexual reproduction as it does not involve two parents as well as sex cells.
These vegetative organs can be further divided as follows:
n
1. Stem
.i
i. Underground stem
ii. Subaerial stem
n al
iii. Aerial stem
ur
iv. Bulbils
o
2. Leaves
3. Root
uj
1. Vegetative Propagation by Stems

Ed
a. Underground stem: It is non-green, food storing, perennating structure present below the surface
of the soil. It is of several types like tuber, rhizome and bulb.
i. Tuber: It is terminal portion of underground stem branch which is swollen on account of
accumulation of food. They possess buds over their nodes. The buds sprout to produce new
plantlets, when a stem tuber or a part of it having a node is placed in the soil.
These kind of crops are grown by tubers and not by seeds. E.g. Potato.
Figure 1.6: Eyes of a potato

1.12
ii. Rhizome: It is mainly an underground perennial stem. Buds present on the node take part for
formation of new aerial shoot during favorable season of growth. Rhizomes are also called creeping
rootstalks or rootstocks. One of its ability is to allow new shoot to grow upwards. A plant makes
use of the rhizome in order to store food such as starch, proteins and other nutrients. E.g. Banana,
Ginger.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 1.7: Rhizome of ginger

o
iii. Bulb: It is underground unbranched reduced disc shaped stem. Terminal bud is surrounded
uj
by several leaves. Bulbs have one or more buds present inside the bulbs and form new plants.
Ed
E.g. Onion, Garlic.
Figure 1.8: Bulb of onion

1.13
iv. Corms: When the features of a true bulb are missing these are called as corms and are
characterized by presence of tunics that are fibrous with annulate (distinct rings), basal plate at
the bottom with one or more growing points at the top. E.g. Colocasia.
v. Sucker: They are short underground stem branches that arise at the base of the aerial shoot.
These then grow into aerial branches which then develop into adventitious roots and new suckers
at their bases. When these suckers separate a number of individual plants are developed.
E.g. Mint.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 1.9: Sucker in mint plant
b. Subaerial stem: It is a weak stem which takes support of the ground for spreading. In this category
o
we will study offset, runner, stolons.

uj
1. Offset: Short horizontal branch producing a cluster of leaves above and a cluster of roots
below is called offset. It occurs in some aquatic plants. Breaking of offsets helps in propagation.
Ed
E.g. Eichhornia (Water hyacinth), Pistia (Water lettuce).
Figure 1.10: Offset of water hyacinth

1.14
2. Stolon: These grow horizontal to the ground and give rise to roots and aerial branches at points
called nodes. Stolons may or may not have long internodes, while the leaves are very small
except in few cases. E.g. Strawberry, Vallisneria.
3. Runner: It is an elongated and subaerial branch with long internodes and roots at nodes. From
these nodes buds are formed and this gives rise to the new plant. E.g. Grasses, Centella.
.i n
al
Figure 1.11: Runner
c. Aerial shoots: Each segment of stem has at least one node, enough water and stored food.
n
Therefore, when detached and planted they give rise to new plants. E.g. Sugarcane, Opuntia.
ur
d. Bulbils: These are large sized fleshy buds which are specialized for vegetative reproduction. For
this bulbil must fall from the plant and reach the soil. They can be present at variable positions
o
on plant. In Agave bulbils are modified floral buds that develop on the floral axis. E.g. Agave
uj
(century plant), Oxalis, Ananas, Dioscorea, Lily.

Ed
Figure 1.12: Bulbils of Agave

2. Vegetative Propagation by Leaves
Leaves of several plants having adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction. These buds remain
dormant when the leaf is attached with the plant but when they come in contact with moist soil new plantlets
develop along the margins. In Bryophyllum adventitious buds arise the notches at margins of leaves.
E.g. Adiantum (walking term), Begonia, Kalanchoe.
1.15
3. Vegetative Propagation by Roots

It was discussed that one of the prerequisites for vegetative reproduction is presence of buds. Though
bud is mainly the feature of stem but in some plants roots may also bear buds. These adventitious
buds sprout to form new plants. Some tuberous adventitious roots besides buds also contain sufficient
quantity of food. E.g. Dahlia.
.i n
al
Figure 1.13: Vegetative propagation by leaf – Bryophyllum leaf
n
ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
o
uj
The term clone is very much applicable for the offspring produced through vegetative
reproduction because for the formation of new individuals there is involvement of single parent,
Ed
moreover formation of sex cells/gametes is absent.
Table 1.3: Types and Examples of Vegetative propagation

Vegetative propagules Example
Rhizome Ginger
Tuber Potato
Offset Eichhornia
Bulbil Agave
Leaf buds Bryophyllum
1.16
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. From the given below organisms, how many can show vegetative propagule formation?
Ginger, potato, Chlamydomonas, Water hyacinth, Agave.
2. Fill in the blanks.
i. In potato tuber new plantlet arises from ___________.
ii. Bryophyllum shows formation of __________ buds from leaf notches.
5.1.6 Artificial Vegetative Propagation

1. Cuttings
Cut pieces of root, stem and leaves that are planted along with root promote chemicals such as IBA
n
(Indole Butyric Acid), NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid).
.i
The different types of cuttings include:
al
a. Root Cuttings: These are used in the propagation of Lemon, Orange, Blackberry, Raspberry.
n
b. Stem Cuttings: One of the common methods of plant propagation used in Rose, Sugarcane,
ur
Coffee, and Citrus.
c. Leaf Cuttings: The type of vegetative propagation that are used in Sansevieria (Snake plant),
o
Begonia, Bryophyllum.
uj
2. Layering (Soil Layering)

Ed
A soft basal part of the plant is defoliated in the middle where a small cut is given. This defoliated part
is pegged in the soil. Adventitious roots start to develop. This pegged down part of the plant is called
as layer. Once the adventitious roots develop the layer is separated and planted.
Layering is of different types namely:
a. Mound Layering: The shoot is pruned down and the lower part is covered by soil and sawdust.
Once roots develop they are separated and planted. This technique is used in Apple, Pear,
Gooseberry, Strawberry etc.
b. Air Layering or Gootee: During early monsoon rains, 3-5 cm long ring of bark is removed from
the basal region of a healthy and woody branch and covered with thick plaster of grafting clay
(composition is 1 part of cow-dung, 1 part of cut hay or moss and 1 part of clay) followed by the
addition of water and a small amount of growth hormones such as IAA, IBA or NAA. This is then
wrapped in polythene. After 2-3 months, as the roots start developing, the shoot part below the
bandage is cut and planted. This technique is used mainly in Litchi, Guava, Orange, Lemon etc.
c. Simple Layering: Small basal part is injured and pegged at one place. Used mainly in Cherry,
Grape Vine, Jasmine etc.
1.17
d. Serpentine Layering: The branch in pegged at several places to produce many plants, seen in
Clematis.
e. Trench Layering: The branch is pegged in a horizontal position in a trench and this develops into
a number of vertical shoots such as Walnut, Mulberry.
f. Drop Layering: A plant capable of developing into a number of branches is grown deep in the
soil and once the adventitious roots develop, they are separated and planted. Such as Dwarf
Rhododendron.
g. Tip Layering: A shoot is bent in the soil in such a way that the basal end is slanting while the upper
end is upright. Basal end is covered with soil and this results in the development of adventitious
roots growth of shoot tip. Used in Blackberry, Raspberry.
3. Grafting
Most common method of vegetative propagation done mainly between two closely related dicotyledonous
plants consisting of a vascular cambia. The rooted portion of one plant is called as the stock which is
n
joined to the twig of another plant called as the scion. This together forms a composite plant. The
.i
scion is a short piece of a detached shoot and is taken from a plant with superior characters.
The different types of grafting methods are: al
a. Tongue grafting: The stock and scion are of the same diameter. An oblique cut is given on both
n
the scion and the stock in such a way that they two fit perfectly with each other.
ur
b. Crown grafting: Scions and stocks are selected and shaped at the base to form a wedge. On the
side of the stock many slits are formed and the scions are inserted into these slits and bandaged.
o
Stocks have a larger diameter than scions.

uj
c. Wedge grafting: Both scion and stock are of the same diameter. A V-shaped notch is given to the
Ed
stock while a wedge like cut is given to the stock.

d. Side grafting: To the stock at one side a V-shaped notch is given while one end of the scion is
sharpened. It is then inserted into the stock and this stock has a larger diameter.
e. Approach grafting: Two independent plants are brought together. The scion is cut below the graft
while the stock is cut above the graft after the union is established.
4. Micropropagation (Propagation by Plant Tissue Culture)
Tissue culture is defined as a method of propagation of plants by culturing cells, tissues and organs.
The culturing of these cells or tissues gives rise to an undifferentiated mass of cells called as callus.
This callus then later differentiates to give rise to plantlets. Plantlets are then later transferred to pots
or nursery to obtain larger plants.
Advantages of tissue culture:
1.18
y Virus free plants

y Disease free plants.
y Homozygous diploids.
y Commercial propagation of Orchids, Carnation, Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum and other
ornamental plants.
y Quick multiplication of plants.
5.2 Sexual Reproduction

Sexual reproduction involves the formation of male and female gametes either by single parent (uniparental) or by
different parents (biparental). The gametes fuse to form the zygote which divides to form a multicellular organism.
Reproduction can be a seasonal phenomenon in some animals. The cyclic changes that occur in the bodies
of the female animals are called oestrus cycles.
n
Humans however are not seasonal breeders. Human females undergo menstrual cycles. There are three
phases during the life span of humans – Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase and Post reproductive phase.
.i
There are 3 main events- al
1. Pre-fertilization events
n
2. Fertilization
ur
3. Post-fertilization events
o
5.2.1 Pre-Fertilization Events

uj
1. Gametogenesis: This involves the formation of the male and female gametes. In some organisms like
Ed
Cladophora, male and female gametes are not distinguishable. These gametes are called isogametes.
A B C
Figure 1.14: A. Isogametes of Cladophora; B. Heterogametes of Fucus;

C. Heterogametes of Homo sapiens
2. Gamete transfer: Generally the male gametes travel towards the female gametes.
1.19
DID YOU KNOW
? Protandry: In hermaphrodite animals, if the male gonad matures before the female gonad.
Protagyny: In hermaphrodite animals, if the female gonad matures before the male gonad.
Table 1.4: Chromosome numbers in meiocyte and gamete of different organisms

Chromosome number in Chromosome number in
Name of organisms
meiocyte (2n) gamete (n)
Human beings 46 23
House fly 12 6
Rat 42 21
n
Dog 78 39
.i
Cat 38 al 19
Fruit fly 8 4
n
Ophioglossum (a fern) 1260 630
ur
Apple 34 17
Rice 24 12
o
Maize 20 10
uj
Potato 48 24
Ed
Butterfly 380 190
5.2.2 Fertilization
The fusion of the gametes is called syngamy. This leads to the formation of the zygote. Fertilization can be
internal (inside the body of the female) or external (outside the body of the female).
Figure 1.15: Fusion of gametes forming a zygote

1.15
3. Vegetative Propagation by Roots

It was discussed that one of the prerequisites for vegetative reproduction is presence of buds. Though
bud is mainly the feature of stem but in some plants roots may also bear buds. These adventitious
buds sprout to form new plants. Some tuberous adventitious roots besides buds also contain sufficient
quantity of food. E.g. Dahlia.
.i n
al
Figure 1.13: Vegetative propagation by leaf – Bryophyllum leaf
n
ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
o
uj
The term clone is very much applicable for the offspring produced through vegetative
reproduction because for the formation of new individuals there is involvement of single parent,
Ed
moreover formation of sex cells/gametes is absent.
Table 1.3: Types and Examples of Vegetative propagation

Vegetative propagules Example
Rhizome Ginger
Tuber Potato
Offset Eichhornia
Bulbil Agave
Leaf buds Bryophyllum
1.16
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. From the given below organisms, how many can show vegetative propagule formation?
Ginger, potato, Chlamydomonas, Water hyacinth, Agave.
2. Fill in the blanks.
i. In potato tuber new plantlet arises from ___________.
ii. Bryophyllum shows formation of __________ buds from leaf notches.
5.1.6 Artificial Vegetative Propagation

1. Cuttings
Cut pieces of root, stem and leaves that are planted along with root promote chemicals such as IBA
n
(Indole Butyric Acid), NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid).
.i
The different types of cuttings include:
al
a. Root Cuttings: These are used in the propagation of Lemon, Orange, Blackberry, Raspberry.
n
b. Stem Cuttings: One of the common methods of plant propagation used in Rose, Sugarcane,
ur
Coffee, and Citrus.
c. Leaf Cuttings: The type of vegetative propagation that are used in Sansevieria (Snake plant),
o
Begonia, Bryophyllum.
uj
2. Layering (Soil Layering)

Ed
A soft basal part of the plant is defoliated in the middle where a small cut is given. This defoliated part
is pegged in the soil. Adventitious roots start to develop. This pegged down part of the plant is called
as layer. Once the adventitious roots develop the layer is separated and planted.
Layering is of different types namely:
a. Mound Layering: The shoot is pruned down and the lower part is covered by soil and sawdust.
Once roots develop they are separated and planted. This technique is used in Apple, Pear,
Gooseberry, Strawberry etc.
b. Air Layering or Gootee: During early monsoon rains, 3-5 cm long ring of bark is removed from
the basal region of a healthy and woody branch and covered with thick plaster of grafting clay
(composition is 1 part of cow-dung, 1 part of cut hay or moss and 1 part of clay) followed by the
addition of water and a small amount of growth hormones such as IAA, IBA or NAA. This is then
wrapped in polythene. After 2-3 months, as the roots start developing, the shoot part below the
bandage is cut and planted. This technique is used mainly in Litchi, Guava, Orange, Lemon etc.
c. Simple Layering: Small basal part is injured and pegged at one place. Used mainly in Cherry,
Grape Vine, Jasmine etc.
1.17
d. Serpentine Layering: The branch in pegged at several places to produce many plants, seen in
Clematis.
e. Trench Layering: The branch is pegged in a horizontal position in a trench and this develops into
a number of vertical shoots such as Walnut, Mulberry.
f. Drop Layering: A plant capable of developing into a number of branches is grown deep in the
soil and once the adventitious roots develop, they are separated and planted. Such as Dwarf
Rhododendron.
g. Tip Layering: A shoot is bent in the soil in such a way that the basal end is slanting while the upper
end is upright. Basal end is covered with soil and this results in the development of adventitious
roots growth of shoot tip. Used in Blackberry, Raspberry.
3. Grafting
Most common method of vegetative propagation done mainly between two closely related dicotyledonous
plants consisting of a vascular cambia. The rooted portion of one plant is called as the stock which is
n
joined to the twig of another plant called as the scion. This together forms a composite plant. The
.i
scion is a short piece of a detached shoot and is taken from a plant with superior characters.
The different types of grafting methods are: al
a. Tongue grafting: The stock and scion are of the same diameter. An oblique cut is given on both
n
the scion and the stock in such a way that they two fit perfectly with each other.
ur
b. Crown grafting: Scions and stocks are selected and shaped at the base to form a wedge. On the
side of the stock many slits are formed and the scions are inserted into these slits and bandaged.
o
Stocks have a larger diameter than scions.

uj
c. Wedge grafting: Both scion and stock are of the same diameter. A V-shaped notch is given to the
Ed
stock while a wedge like cut is given to the stock.

d. Side grafting: To the stock at one side a V-shaped notch is given while one end of the scion is
sharpened. It is then inserted into the stock and this stock has a larger diameter.
e. Approach grafting: Two independent plants are brought together. The scion is cut below the graft
while the stock is cut above the graft after the union is established.
4. Micropropagation (Propagation by Plant Tissue Culture)
Tissue culture is defined as a method of propagation of plants by culturing cells, tissues and organs.
The culturing of these cells or tissues gives rise to an undifferentiated mass of cells called as callus.
This callus then later differentiates to give rise to plantlets. Plantlets are then later transferred to pots
or nursery to obtain larger plants.
Advantages of tissue culture:
1.18
y Virus free plants

y Disease free plants.
y Homozygous diploids.
y Commercial propagation of Orchids, Carnation, Gladiolus, Chrysanthemum and other
ornamental plants.
y Quick multiplication of plants.
5.2 Sexual Reproduction

Sexual reproduction involves the formation of male and female gametes either by single parent (uniparental) or by
different parents (biparental). The gametes fuse to form the zygote which divides to form a multicellular organism.
Reproduction can be a seasonal phenomenon in some animals. The cyclic changes that occur in the bodies
of the female animals are called oestrus cycles.
n
Humans however are not seasonal breeders. Human females undergo menstrual cycles. There are three
phases during the life span of humans – Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase and Post reproductive phase.
.i
There are 3 main events- al
1. Pre-fertilization events
n
2. Fertilization
ur
3. Post-fertilization events
o
5.2.1 Pre-Fertilization Events

uj
1. Gametogenesis: This involves the formation of the male and female gametes. In some organisms like
Ed
Cladophora, male and female gametes are not distinguishable. These gametes are called isogametes.
A B C
Figure 1.14: A. Isogametes of Cladophora; B. Heterogametes of Fucus;

C. Heterogametes of Homo sapiens
2. Gamete transfer: Generally the male gametes travel towards the female gametes.
1.19
DID YOU KNOW
? Protandry: In hermaphrodite animals, if the male gonad matures before the female gonad.
Protagyny: In hermaphrodite animals, if the female gonad matures before the male gonad.
Table 1.4: Chromosome numbers in meiocyte and gamete of different organisms

Chromosome number in Chromosome number in
Name of organisms
meiocyte (2n) gamete (n)
Human beings 46 23
House fly 12 6
Rat 42 21
n
Dog 78 39
.i
Cat 38 al 19
Fruit fly 8 4
n
Ophioglossum (a fern) 1260 630
ur
Apple 34 17
Rice 24 12
o
Maize 20 10
uj
Potato 48 24
Ed
Butterfly 380 190
5.2.2 Fertilization
The fusion of the gametes is called syngamy. This leads to the formation of the zygote. Fertilization can be
internal (inside the body of the female) or external (outside the body of the female).
Figure 1.15: Fusion of gametes forming a zygote

1.20
5.2.3 Post-Fertilization
In viviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the body of the female. In oviparous animals, it develops
inside eggs.
Parthenogenesis:
When the female gamete undergoes division without fertilization and develops into complete new organism,
the phenomenon is called parthenogenesis. E.g. honeybees, some lizards etc.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Arrhenotoky: If only males develop by parthenogenesis e.g. drones in honeybee.
n
y Thelytoky: If only females develop through parthenogenesis e.g. Lacerta saxicola (lizard).
.i
y Amphitoky: If male and female both develop by parthenogenesis e.g. some aphids.
y Bud types-
n
1. Nodal bud (present at nodes)
al
ur
O Axillary bud – axil of leaf
O Extra – axillary bud – away from axil

o
2. Adventitious bud (Present other than nodes)

uj
O Follar bud – over leaf

Ed
O Cauline bud – over stem
O Radical bud – over root
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. What term is used to describe the condition when two gametes are similar and it is not
possible to categorize them into male or female gametes?
2. What is parthenogenesis?
3. Name the 3 phases of life with respect to reproduction.
1.21
Summary
y Reproduction is an essential process required to maintain the survival, continuity and group immortality
of any living organism on Earth.
y Lifespan is defined as the entire time period from birth to the natural death of an organism.
y Lifespan is a specific trait of each organism. Different organisms have different life span. For any living
organism, its life span is characterised by five stages namely juvenile stage, maturity stage, ageing
stage, senescence stage and finally natural death stage.
y At cellular level, cells reproduce through cell division by generating new daughter cells from the main
mother cell. Each of these new cells are capable of generating newer cells through cellular division and
thus, aids the organism to move through different stages of its life cycle.
y Reproduction can be of two types – asexual and sexual.
n
y Asexual reproduction is the mode of multiplication in which new individuals develop from a single parent.
.i
This generally occurs without the fusion of gametes.
y
n al
Budding, binary fission, sporulation, fragmentation and vegetative reproduction are the various types of
asexual reproduction.
ur
y Formation and fusion of gametes is a characteristic of sexual reproduction. This mode of reproduction
favors recombination and variation.
o
y Sexual reproduction involves pre-fertilization events (gametogenesis and gamete transfer), fertilization
uj
events (syngamy) and post-fertilization events (formation of the embryo and its birth).
Ed
1.22
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Arrange the following w.r.t increasing lifespan: Rose, Fruit fly, Rice
(A) Fruit fly, Rice, Rose (B) Rose, Rice, Fruit fly
(C) Rice, Rose, Fruit fly (D) Fruit Fly, Rose, Rice
Q.2 Which of the following factor is/are responsible for how organism reproduces?
(A) Organisms habitat (B) Internal physiology
(C) Environmental factors (D) More than one option is correct
n
Q.3 Process of reproduction which results in production of identical offspring is
.i
(A) Complex, fast (B) Simple, slow
(C) Fast, simple al
(D) Fast, costlier
n
Q.4 Asexual reproduction is common in
ur
(A) Single celled organisms

(B) Organisms having simple organization
o
(C) Aquatic plants

uj
(D) More than one option is correct

Ed
Q.5 Asexual reproduction is seen in

(A) Organisms having simple organization only
(B) Unicellular organisms only
(C) Higher plants
(D) All of these
Q.6 For which of the following organisms there is no natural death?
(A) Bacteria (B) Amoeba
(C) Unicellular organisms (D) More than one option is correct
Q.7 Cell division itself is a mode of reproduction in
(A) Amoeba, Penicillium (B) Chara, Bacteria
(C) Chlamydomonas, Penicillium (D) Amoeba, Bacteria
1.23
Q.8 In yeast during budding

(A) Cytokinesis is unequal (B) Identity of parent is lost
(C) Clones are produced (D) More than one option is correct
Q.9 Members of which of the following groups reproduced through special asexual reproductive structures?
(A) Algae, Bryophytes (B) Fungi, Algae
(C) Pteridophytes, Angiosperms (D) Fungi, pteridophytes
Q.10 Most common asexual structure produced in algae is

(A) Thick walled (B) Multicellular
(C) Flagellated (D) Produced in chains
Q.11 Zoospore, Conidia, Tuber, Offset, Pollen, Zygote.
n
From the words mentioned above, how many are not associated with asexual reproduction?
.i
(A) Three (B) Two (C) Four (D) One
al
Q.12 In vegetative propagule of potato and Bryophyllum new plants arise from respectively
n
(A) Axillary bud, Adventitious bud
ur
(B) Adventitious bud, Axillary bud
(C) Axillary bud, Axillary bud
o
(D) Leaf bud, Axillary bud

uj
Q.13 In which of the following plants root bud is involved in vegetative propagation?
Ed
(A) Sugarcane (B) Banana (C) Ginger (D) Dahlia
Q.14 Which of the following is not a part of reproduction?

(A) Gametogenesis (B) Fertilization (C) Detoxification (D) Syngamy
Q.15 For commercial propagation of banana and ginger which of the following parts are utilized respectively?
(A) Rhizome, Sucker (B) Rhizome, Tuber
(C) Tuber, Bulb (D) Rhizome, Rhizome
Q.16 Which of the following vegetative propagule represents large size fleshy bud?
(A) Bulbil (B) Bulb (C) Sucker (D) Rhizome
1.24
Q.17 Choose correct option w.r.t following structures

Cellular structure Flagella Wall
1 Zoospore Unicellular Absent Thick
2 Conidia Unicellular Absent Thin
3 Gamete Unicellular Can be present Thick
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 only
Q.18 Offspring produced through which of the following processes/structures represents clone?
(A) Gametic fusion (B) Syngamy
(C) Vegetative propagule (D) More than one option is correct
Q.19 ‘‘Vegetative reproduction is also a type of asexual reproduction,’’ Which of the following statements
n
justify this?
.i
(A) Involvement of one parent (B) Gametes are not involved
(C) Does not involve meiosis al
(D) More than one option is correct
n
Q.20 Choose incorrect match
ur
(A) Bulbil – Agave (B) Rhizome – Ginger
(C) Tuber – Bryophyllum (D) Runner – Grasses
o
Q.21 Choose correct option for asexual and sexual reproduction in organisms that have a relatively simple
uj
organization
Ed
Feature Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction

1 Condition Favorable Unfavorable
2 Occurrence More Less
3 Structures Spore Gamete
4 Division Meiosis Mitosis
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4
Q.22 Choose correct sequence for different stages in the life cycle of Rice.
(A) Juvenile phase, Flowering phase, Recovery phase, Senescence
(B) Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase, Interflowering phase
(C) Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase, Senescence
(D) Juvenile phase, Interflowering phase, Senescence
1.25
Q.23 Choose odd one w.r.t flowering and fruiting pattern

(A) Rice, Wheat (B) Marigold, Maize
(C) Pea, Rice (D) Mango, Apple
Q.24 In all the sexually reproducing organisms events involved are

(A) Same, sequential (B) Same, non-sequential
(C) Different, sequential (D) Different, non-sequential
Q.25 Clear cut distinction between vegetative reproductive and senescent phase is shown by
(A) All annuals and perennials (B) All biennial and perennials
(C) All annuals and biennials (D) All perennials
Q.26 Choose odd one w.r.t sexuality
n
(A) Coconut (B) Cucurbita (C) Chara (D) Papaya
.i
Q.27 In few fungi and algae
(A) ♂ gamete – motile, ♀ gamete – motile
n al
(B) ♂ gamete – non-motile, ♀ gamete – non-motile
ur
(C) ♂ gamete – non motile, ♀ gamete – motile
(D) ♂ gamete – motile, ♀ gamete – non-motile
o
Q.28 What would be the number of chromosomes in the meiocyte and gamete of onion respectively?
uj
(A) 24, 12 (B) 14, 17 (C) 32, 16 (D) 14, 17

Ed
Q.29 Choose odd one w.r.t medium through which male gametes are transferred?
(A) Algae, Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes, Algae
(C) Simple plant, Bryophytes (D) Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
Q.30 Choose correct option w.r.t division during gamete formation and division in zygote for haploid life
cycle respectively
(A) Mitosis, mitosis (B) Meiosis, meiosis
(C) Mitosis, meiosis (D) Meiosis, mitosis
Q.31 Majority of sexually reproducing organisms form
(A) Isogametes (B) Homogametes
(C) Heterogametes (D) More than one option is correct
1.26
Q.32 Which of the following plant groups shows internal fertilization only?
(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Fungi
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
Q.33 Which of the following features cannot be shown by structure which is vital link between two generations
ensuring continuity of species?
(1) Thick walled
(2) Multicelled
(3) One set of chromosomes
(4) Meiocyte
n
(5) Resting structure
.i
(A) 1, 2 and 5 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2 and 3
al (D) 4 and 5
n
Q.34 Organisms showing internal fertilization shows reduction in number of ……………. Gamete and
increase in number of …………… gamete
ur
(A) ♂ ,♀
o
(B) Sperm, eggs

uj
(C) ♀ , ♂
(D) Male, female
Ed
Q.35 Choose correct option, w.r.t features of different plant groups

Group Embryo Gametes Asexual spore
(A) Bryophytes Present Homogamete Absent
(B) Pteridophytes Present Homogamete Present
(C) Ulothrix Absent Homogamete Present
(D) Gymnosperms Absent Heterogamete Present
Q.36 Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?

(A) Binary fission (B) Fragmentation
(C) Syngamy (D) Budding
1.27
Q.37 Give ploidy of following words in angiospermic plant.

Zygote, Pollen, Ovum
(A) n, n, 2n (B) 2n, 2n, n (C) 2n, n, n (D) 2n, n, 2n
Q.38 From the given below processes how many are associated with post-fertilization event?
(A) Syngamy, gamete transfer
(B) Gametogenesis, cell division
(C) Cell differentiation, gametic fusion
(D) Embryogenesis, cell differentiation
Q.39 Monoecious condition is seen in
(A) Marchantia (B) Maize (C) Papaya (D) Date palm
n
Q.40 Synchrony between the maturity of sexes and release of large number of gametes is shown by
.i
(A) All spermatophytes (B) All bryophytes
(C) Most of algae al
(D) Most land plants
n
Q.41 Which of the following feature is universal in all sexually reproducing organisms?
ur
(A) Embryo formation (B) Gametic meiosis
(C) Zygote formation (D) Pollen grain transfer
o
Q.42 Arrange the following plants w.r.t increasing number of chromosome

uj
Apple, Onion, Rice, Maize

Ed
(A) Maize, Rice, Onion, Apple (B) Apple, Onion, Rice, Maize
(C) Apple, rice, Onion, Maize (D) Rice, Maize, Apple, Onion
Q.43 Choose Incorrect option w.r.t transition after fertilization in angiosperms

(A) Zygote Embryo (B) Fruit wall Pericarp
(C) Ovary Fruit (D) Seed Ovule
Q.44 Strobilanthus kunthiana

(A) Shows flowering once in 12 months
(B) Transformed hilly tracks of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu into blue stretches
(C) Showed flowering during November-December 2006
(D) Is an annual plant
1.28
Q.45 In fungi homothallic term is used to represent

(A) Dioecious condition (B) Unisexual condition
(C) Bisexual condition (D) More than one option is correct
Q.46 Thick walled resistance zygote can be produced in the life cycle of
(A) Algae, fungi (B) Bryophytes, pteridophytes
(C) Gymnosperms, algae (D) Angiosperms, fungi
Q.47 Choose odd one w.r.t vegetative propagule involved in cultivation in following plants
(A) Banana (B) Ginger (C) Bryophyllum (D) Potato
Q.48 Self-fertilization is seen in
(A) Unisexual flower of maize (B) Bisexual flower of pea
n
(C) Unisexual flower of date palm (D) Bisexual flower of coconut
.i
Q.49 A few statements describing certain features of reproduction are given below :
(i) Genetic fusion takes place
(ii) Transfer of genetic material takes place
n al
(iii) Reduction division takes place
ur
(iv) Progeny have some resemblance with parents

o
Select the options that are true for both asexual and sexual reproduction from the options given below.
uj
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)
Ed
Q.50 The term clone cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because :
(A) Offspring do no possess exact copies of parental DNA
(B) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
(C) Offspring are formed at different times
(D) DNA of parent and offspring are completely different
Q.51 Amoeba and Yeast reproduce asexually by fission and budding respectively, because they are :
(A) Microscopic organisms (B) Heterotrophic organisms
(C) Unicellular organisms (D) Uninucleate organisms
1.29
Q.52 A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below :
(i) Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals
(ii) Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion
(iii) Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
(iv) External fertilization is a rule during sexual reproduction.
Choose the correct statements from the options below :
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (iv)
Q.53 A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic diversion
occurs after the formation of zygote. The adult filament of this alga has :
(A) Haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(B) Diploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(C) Diploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
n
(D) Haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia
.i
al
Q.54 The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in
the female gamete, zygote had the cells of the seedling will be, respectively;
n
(A) 12, 24, 12 (B) 24, 12, 12 (C) 12, 24, 24 (D) 24, 12, 24
ur
Q.55 Given below are a few statements related to external fertilization. Choose the correct statements.
o
(1) The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously.
uj
(2) Only a few gametes are released into the medium

(3) Water is the medium in a majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization
Ed
(4) Offspring formed as a result external fertilization have better chance of survival than those formed inside
an organism
(A) (3) and (4) (B) (1) and (3) (C) (2) and (4) (D) (1) and (4)
Q.56 The statements given below describe certain features that are observed in the pistil of flowers.
(1) Pistil may have many carpels
(2) Each carpel may have more than one ovule
(3) Each carpel has only one ovule
(4) Pistil have only one carpel
Choose the statements that are true from the options below :
1.30
Q.57 Which of the following situations correctly describe the similarity between an angiosperm egg and a
human egg ?
(1) Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime
(2) Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are stationary
(3) Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are motile transported
(4) Syngamy in both results in the formation of zygote
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (2) and (4) (B) (4) only (C) (3) and (4) (D) (1) and (4)
Q.58 Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as a sugarcane and ginger is
mainly because.
(A) Nodes are shorter than internodes
(B) Nodes have meristematic cells
n
(C) Nodes are located near the soil
.i
(D) Nodes have non-photosynthetic cells
al
Q.59 Which of the following statements, support the view that elaborate sexual reproductive process
n
appeared much later in the organic evolution?
ur
(1) Lower groups of organisms have simpler body design
(2) Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups
o
(3) Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups of organisms

uj
(4) The high incidence of sexual reproduction in angiosperms and vertebrates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Ed
Q.60 Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than those formed by Asexual
reproduction because :
(A) Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
(B) Gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition
(C) Genetic material comes from parents of two different species
(D) Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction.
Q.61 Choose the correct statement from amongst the following :
(A) Dioecious (hermaphrodite) organisms are seen only in animals
(B) Dioecious organisms are seen only in plants
(C) Dioecious organisms are seen in both plant and animals
(D) Dioecious organisms are seen only in vertebrates.
1.31
Q.62 There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because :
(A) They cannot reproduce sexually
(B) They reproduce by binary fission
(C) Parental body is distributed among the offspring
(D) They are microscopic
Q.63 There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism
depends on:
(A) The habitat and morphology of the organism
(B) Morphology of the organism
(C) Morphology and physiology of the organism
(D) The organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic make up
n
Q.64 Identify the incorrect statement :
(A) In asexual reproduction, the offspring produced are morphologically and genetically identical to the
.i
parent
(B) Zoospores are sexual reproductive structures
n al
(C) In asexual reproduction, a single parent produces offspring with or without the formation of gametes
ur
(D) Conidia are asexual structures in Penicillium
Q.65 Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants ?
o
(A) Transfer of pollen grains (B) Embryo development

uj
(C) Formation of flower (D) Formation of pollen grains

Ed
Q.66 The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes
in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be :
(A) 20 (B) 10 (C) 40 (D) 15
Q.67 Which of the following is not an artificial method of vegetative reproduction?

(A) Cutting (B) Grafting (C) Layering (D) Bulbils
Q.68 The plant propagated through roots is

(A) Sweet potato (B) Asparagus (C) Dahlia (D) All of these
1.32
Q.69 In grafting, scion belongs to

(A) Plant having superior or desirable characters
(B) Plant having well-developed root system
(C) Plant resistant to diseases
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.70 Gootee (air layering) is common in
(A) Bryophyllum (B) Lemon (C) Eichhornia (D) Tapioca
Q.71 Stem cuttings are commonly used in the propagation of

(A) Mango (B) Cotton (C) Rose (D) Banana
Q.72 Ginger is multiplied vegetatively by means of
n
(A) Bud (B) Tuber (C) Corn (D) Rhizome
.i
Q.73 The piece of plant part used in tissue culture is called
(A) Explant (B) Inoculant
n al
(C) Somaclone (D) Clone
Q.74 Secondary nucleus present in the middle of embryo sac is

ur
(A) Tetraploid (B) Triploid (C) Diploid (D) Haploid

o
Q.75 In angiosperms, syngamy is required for

uj
(A) Endosperm (B) Embryo (C) Fruit wall (D) Suspensor

Ed
Q.76 A piece of potato tuber will form a new plant if it possesses.

(A) Roots (B) Eyes (C) Stored food (D) Branches
Q.77 Layering is used in the vegetative’ propagation of

(A) Jasmine (B) Rose (C) Mango (D) All the above
Q.78 Which is not involved in embryogenesis?

(A) Cell multiplication (B) Cell differentiation
(C) Equational division (D) Reduction division
Q.79 A method in which roots are induced on the stem branch, while it is still attached to the parent plant,
is called
(A) Cutting (B) Grafting (C) Layering (D) Vivipary
1.33
Q.80 If a plant fails to develop viable seeds, it could best be grown by

(A) Cutting (B) Grafting (C) Layering (D) Micropropagation
Q.81 The study of formation, growth, and development of a new individual from an egg is known as
(A) Cytology (B) Embryology (C) Histology (D) Genetics
Q.82 A leaf cell of a flowering plant has 22 chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes would be
(A) 11 in gametes (B) 22 in gametes (C) 44 in embryo (D) 11 in a cell of stem
Q.83 The tegmen of a seed develops from

(A) Perisperm (B) Funicle (C) Inner integument (D) Outer integument
Q.84 In angiosperm, the female gametophyte is the

(A) Egg apparatus (B) Embryo (C) Synergids (D) Embryo sac
.i n
Q.85 The nucleus of the sperm and the egg fuse as a result of
(A) Base pair relation of DNA and RNA.
(B) Formation of hydrogen bonds
n al
(C) Mutual attraction caused by differences in electrical charges
ur
(D) Attraction of protoplasts of the egg and the sperm

o
Q.86 Parthenogenesis is defined as the development of organism directly from

uj
(A) Egg without fertilization (B) Synergids without fertilization

(C) Fruits without fertilization (D) Fruit without pollination
Ed
Q.87 How many meiotic divisions are necessary for the formation of 100 grains of wheat?
(A) 100 (B) 125 (D) 25 (D) 50
Q.88 The most significant property of vegetative propagation is that

(A) It enables the rapid production of genetic variation.
(B) It is a means of production of genetic individuals genetically identical to the parent.
(C) It ensures that the progeny are safe from the attack of diseases and pests.
(D) It is an ancient practice.
Q.89 The zygospore of Chlamydomonas gives rise to
(A) Zoospore (B) Aplanospore (C) Hypnospore (D) Parthenospore
1.34
Q.90 The antherozoids of Chara are

(A) Non-motile (B) Uniflagellate (C) Biflagellate (D) Multiflagellate
Q.91 Find the odd one with respect to sexuality.

(A) Papaya (B) Date palm (C) Tree of heaven (D) Sago palm
Q.92 In Marchantia, the meiosis is

(A) Zygotic (B) Gametic (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Sporic
Q.93 The star-shaped bodies meant for the vegetative reproduction of Chara are rich in
(A) Starch (B) Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Mannitol
Q.94 The nucleus of Chara is capped by

(A) Nodal cells (B) Internodal cells (C) Tube cells (D) Coronary cells
.i n
Q.95 External fertilization is not observed in
(A) Yeast (B) Spirogyra
n al
(C) Chlamydomonas (D) Ulothrix
Q.96 The conidia of Penicillium are

ur
(A) Thick walled, uninucleate

(B) Thin walled, uni - or multinucleate
o
(C) Thick walled, multinucleate

uj
(D) Thin or thick walled, multinucleate

Ed
Q.97 The sequence of structures in a penicillus of Penicillium digitatum shall be

(A) Conidiophore Rami Phialides Metulae Conidia
(B) Conidiophore Rami Metulae Phialides Conidia
(C) Ramus Conidiophore Metulae Phialides Conidia
(D) Metulae Rami Conidiophore Phialides Conidia
Q.98 The type of gamete found in Humans is
(A) Isogamete (B) Coenogamete (C) Heterogamete (D) Multicellular gamete
Q.99 In bryophytes, the diploid number of chromosomes occurs in

(A) Gametes (B) Spores (C) Nuclei of gametophyte (D) Spore mother cells
1.35
Q.100 Gametophytic generation is dominant in

(A) Pteridophytes (B) Gymnosperms
(C) Angiosperms (D) Bryophytes
Q.101 Riccia fluitans multiplies vegetatively by
(A) Rhizoids (B) Tubers
(C) Adventitious branches (D) Gemmae
Q.102 The number of thallus formed by a gemma of Marchantia upon successful germination is
(A) One only (B) Two only (C) Four only (D) Several
.i n
Q.1 Two species that are morphologically almost identical but do not interbreed are called
(A) Evolutionary species

n al
(B) Sibling species
[Kerala PMT 2005]
(C) Polytypic species (D) Evolutionary trend

ur
Q.2 A taxon is [DPMT 2005]

o
uj
(A) A hierarchical unit of taxonomy (B) An animal

(C) A plant (D) A virus
Ed
Q.3 Class is present between [HP PMT 2005]

(A) Kingdom and phylum (B) Phylum and order
(C) Order and family (D) Family and genus
Q.4 Order is placed between [AICEE BVSE 2005]

(A) Kingdom and phyla (B) Kingdom and class
(C) Class and family (D) Genus and species
Q.5 Those species which can interbreed among themselves but cannot do so with other species are
known as [DPMT 2005]
(A) Morphological species (B) Biological species
(C) Ecological species (D) Interbreeding species
1.36
Q.6 Which of the following is the highest in hierarchy? [Pb. PMT 2005]
(A) Order (B) Species (C) Class (D) Genus
Q.7 The word “hierarchy” was given by [Maharashtra CET 2005]

(A) Carolus Linnacus (B) John Ray (C) Lamarck (D) Bersey
Q.8 Two species occupying the same or overlapping area are called [Orissa JEE 2005]
(A) Sympatric (B) Allopatric (C) Parapatric (D) Ring species
Q.9 Binomial nomenclature was first mentioned in the book [Orissa JEE 2005]
(A) Systema Naturae (B) Historiae Animalium
(C) Historia Plantarum (D) Philosophic Zoologique
.i n
Q.10 Which of the following is not included under in situ conservation? [AIPMT 2006]
(A) National park (B) Sanctuary
n al
(C) Botanical garden (D) Biosphere reserve
ur
Q.11 Select the false statement: [Kerala PMT 2006]

o
(A) Scientists who study and contribute to the classification of organisms are known as systematists.
uj
(B) C. Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species.

Ed
(C) A five-kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by R.H. Whittaker.

(D) Genus is a group of species which are related and have fewer characters in common as compared to
species.
(E) Phycomycetes are called club fungi because of club-shaped basidium as end of mycelium.
Q.12 Darwin is the author of [CET Chandigarh 2006]

(A) Genera Plantarum (B) Origin of species
(C) Natural Selection (D) Theory of Evolution
Q.13 Who proposed the term “alpha”, “beta” and “gamma” in taxonomy? [CET Chd. 2006]
(A) de Candolle (B) Turill (C) Huxley (D) Lamarck
1.37
Q.14 Two plants are taxonomically related if [CMC Vellore 2007]

(A) They store carbohydrate in the same type of molecule
(B) Both obtain energy from the hydrolysis
(C) Both have similarly – lobed palmate leaves
(D) Both have pinnately veined leaves
Q.15 Which of the following pairs is not related? [CMC Vellore 2007]
(A) Mendel – Pisum sativum
(B) Morgan – Drosophila
(C) Bentham and Hooker – Binomial nomenclature
(D) Hugo de Vries – Oenothera lamarckiana
.i n
Q.16 In which of the following are organisms very much similar to each other? [BHU 2007]
(A) Order (B) Class
n al
(C) Genus (D) Species
Q.17 Bionomical nomenclature was given by [Hr. PMT 2006; BHU 2007]
ur
(A) Linnaeus (B) Whittaker (C) Huxley (D) Darwin

o
uj
Q.18 ICBN stands for [AIPMT 2007]

(A) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Ed
(B) International Congress of Biological Names

(C) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(D) Indian Congress of Biological Names
Q.19 Living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from non-living things on the basis of their
ability for [AIPMT 2007]
(A) Interaction with the environmental and progressive evolution
(B) Reproduction
(C) Growth and movement
(D) Responsiveness to touch
1.38
Q.20 Genera Plantarum was written by [CMC Vellore 2007]

(A) Engler and Prantl (B) Benthum and Hooker
(C) Carolus Linnaeus (D) Arthur Cronquist
Q.21 The standard size of herbarium sheet is [HP PMT 2006]

(A) 29 × 41 cm (B) 50 × 10 cm (C) 41 × 29 cm (D) Variable size
Q.22 New systematics and the concept of life was given by [Chd. CET 2008]
(A) Clementia (B) Elton (C) Odum (D) Huxley
Q.23 In which book Benthum and Hooker proposed their classification? [WB JEE 2008]
(A) Genera Plantarum (B) Species Plantarum
n
(C) Historia Plantarum (D) Historia nature
.i
n al
Q.24 New systematics introduced by Sir Julian Huxley is also called [Kerala PMT 2008]
(A) Phenetics (B) Cladistics
ur
(C) Biosystematics (D) Numerical Taxonomy (E) Chemotaxonomy

o
Q.25 Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term “homonym”? [WB JEE 2008]
uj
(A) Identical name of two different taxa

Ed
(B) Two or more names belonging to the same taxon

(C) When species name repeats the generic name
(D) Other name of taxon given in a language other than the language of zoological / botanical nomenclature
Q.26 Linnaeus is associated with [HP PMT 2008]

(A) Historia Plantarum (B) Origin of species
(C) Systema Naturae (D) Origin of Life
Q.27 Oryza sativa is a binomial name of rice plant. The “sativa” stands for [WB JEE 2008]
(A) Specific name (B) Specific epithet
(C) Specific name (D) Specific nomenclature
1.39
Q.28 External fertilization occurs in majority of [DPMT 2009]

(A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Liverworts (D) Mosses
Q.29 The largest number of species is traced in [Chd. CET 2009]

(A) Arthropoda (B) Echinodermata (C) Bacteria (D) Fungi
Q.30 Taxonomic hierarchy refers to [DPMT 2009]

(A) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for the classification of plants and animals
(B) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals
(C) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(D) Classification of a species based on fossil record
n
Q.31 In five kingdom of classification on R.H. Whitaker, how many kingdom contain eukaryotes?
.i
[Orissa Jee 2005]
(A) Four (B) One
n al
(C) Two (D) Three
ur
Q.32 In five-kingdom classification, unicellular eukaryotic organisms are included in
[DY PATIL Pune, 2006]
o
(A) Virus (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Monera

uj
Q.33 The five kingdom classification was given by [BVP Pune 2002; HP PMT 2006]
Ed
(A) Whitaker (1969) (B) Linnaeus (1758)

(C) Copeland (1966) (D) Haeckel (1866)
Q.34 Protozoans are kept under kingdom [Manipal PMT 2007]

(A) Monera (B) Plantae (C) Animalia (D) Protista
Q.35 Actinomycetes are being put under which of the following kingdom? [AMU 2007]
(A) Kingdom Fungi (B) Kingdom Monera
(C) Kingdom Plantae (D) Kingdom Protista
1.40
Q.36 In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, Archaea, and
Eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea? [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Archaea resemble Eukarya in all respects
(B) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(C) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(D) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
Q.37 A phylum common to unicellular animals and plants is [DPMT 2009]

(A) Monera (B) Plantae (C) Fungi (D) Protista
Q.38 The most widespread group of organisms of the earth belongs to kingdom? [AMU 2009]
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Plantae
.i n
Q.39 Classification that consider several character of ancestors is [CET Chd. 2009]
(A) Phylogenetic (B) Artificial
n al
(C) Natural (D) Phylotaxy
Q.40 According to Whittaker’s five-kingdom classification, the unicellular, non-nucleated organisms are
ur
placed in [COMEDK UGET 2009]

o
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Plantae (D) Animalia

uj
Q.41 The highest number of species in the world’s is represented by [AIPMT Pre 2012]
Ed
(A) Mosses (B) Algae (C) Lichens (D) Fungi
Q.42 Which one single organisms or the organism is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic
group? [AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan
(B) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
(C) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of Protista
(D) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
Q.43 Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae, and protonema of
mosses? [AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) Member of kingdom Plantae (B) Mode of nutrition
(C) Multiplication of fragmentation (D) Diplontic lifecycle
1.41
Q.44 The type of pollination involving transfer of pollen from anther of the stigma of the same is known as
[DUMET 2010]
(A) Geitonogamy (B) Xenogamy (C) Autogamy (D) Apogamy
Q.45 The stage between two meiotic divisions is called [Kerala PMT 2011]
(A) Interphase (B) Cytokinesis (C) Interkinesis (D) Karyokinesis
(E) Diakinesis
Q.46 Match list I with list II and select the correct option. [Kerala PMT 2011]
List I List II
a. Gemmules 1. Agave
b. Leaf – buds 2. Penicillium
n
c. Bulbil 3. Water hyacinth
.i
d. Offset 4. Sponges
e. Conidia 5. Bryophyllum
n al
(A) a – 4, b- 5, c – 1, d – 3, e – 2 (B) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1, e – 5
ur
(C) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 2, e – 1 (D) a – 4, b – 1, c – 5, d – 3, e – 2
(E) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 1, e – 2
o
uj
Q.47 The chromosomal number in the meiocytes of housefly is [Kerala PMT 2011]
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 21 (D) 23 (E) 34
Ed
Q.48 The “eyes” of the potato tuber are [AIPMT (Prelims)2011]

(A) Root buds (B) Flower buds (C) Shoot buds (D) Axillary buds
Q.49 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of [AIPMT (Prelims) 2011]

(A) Citrus (B) Gossypium (C) Triticum (D) Brassica
Q.50 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents [AIPMT (Mains) 2011]

(A) Endangered species found in the region
(B) The diversity in the organisms living in the region
(C) Genetic diversity in the dominant species of the region
(D) None of these
1.42
Q.51 A clone is [Karnataka CET 2011]

(A) A group of genetically similar organisms produced through asexual reproduction
(B) A group of genetically similar organisms produced through sexual reproduction
(C) A group of genetically dissimilar organisms produced as a result of sexual reproduction
(D) A group of genetically dissimilar organisms produced as a result of sexual reproduction
Q.52 Testa of a seed is produced from [J & K CET 2011]

(A) Ovary wall (B) Hilum
(C) Outer integument of ovule (D) Funicle
Q.53 The ovule in which the funicle, chalaza and micropyle lie in one vertical plane, is called
[J & K CET 2011]
.i n
(A) Campylotropous (B) Amphitropous
(C) Orthotropous
n al
(D) Anatropous
Q.54 In porogamy, pollen tube enters the ovule through the [J & K CET 2011]
ur
(A) Chalazal end (B) Integument (C) Micropyle (D) Ovary wall
o
Q.55 Ovule integument gets transformed into [West Bengal JEE 2011]
uj
(A) Seed (B) Fruit wall (C) Seed coat (D) Cotyledons
Ed
Q.56 Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in [CBSE PMT (Prelims)2012]
(A) Papaya (B) Cucumber (C) Castor (D) Maize
Q.57 Dentrification is carried out by [J & K CET 2012]

(A) Pseudomonas (B) Nitrobacter (C) Nitrosomonas (D) Nitrococcus
Q.58 In general, pollen tube enters the ovule through [J & K CET 2012]
(A) Micropyle (B) Chalaza (C) Hilum (D) Funicle
1.43
Q.59 Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of another flower of the same plant is called as
[J & K CET 2012]
(A) Geitonogamy (B) Xenogamy (C) Cleistogamy (D) Chasmogamy
Q.60 The endosperm cells in angiosperms are [J & K CET 2012]

(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
Q.61 The fleshy edible part of an apple is [J & K CET 2012]

(A) Thalamus (B) Nucellus (C) Ovary (D) Endosperm
Q.62 Why asexual reproduction is sometimes disadvantageous? [J & K CET 2012]

(A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates
n
(B) It follows an animal to produce many offspring quickly
.i
(C) It saves the time and energy of gamete production
(D) It produces genetically uniform populations
n al
ur
Q.63 Meiosis takes place in [NEET 2013]
(A) Gemmule (B) Megaspore (C) Meiocyte (D) Conidia
o
uj
Q.64 Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of [NEET 2013]

Ed
(A) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

(B) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
(C) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
(D) Stamen and carpel on the same plant
Q.65 Which one of the following is wrong about Chara? [AIPMT 2014]
(A) Globule is male reproductive structure
(B) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(C) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(D) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
1.44
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 C Q.6 D
Q.7 D Q.8 D Q.9 B Q.10 C Q.11 B Q.12 A
Q.13 D Q.14 C Q.15 D Q.16 A Q.17 D Q.18 C
Q.19 D Q.20 C Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 D Q.24 A
Q.25 C Q.26 D Q.27 A Q.28 C Q.29 D Q.30 C
n
Q.31 C Q.32 A Q.33 C Q.34 C Q.35 C Q.36 C
.i
Q.37 C
Q.43 D
Q.38 D
Q.44 B
Q.39 B
Q.45 C
n al
Q.40 C
Q.46 A
Q.41 C
Q.47 C
Q.42 A
Q.48 B
ur
Q.49 C Q.50 A Q.51 C Q.52 B Q.53 D Q.54 C
Q.55 B Q.56 A Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 C Q.60 B
o
Q.61 C Q.62 C Q.63 D Q.64 B Q.65 B Q.66 A

uj
Q.67 D Q.68 D Q.69 A Q.70 B Q.71 C Q.72 D

Ed
Q.73 A Q.74 C Q.75 C Q.76 B Q.77 A Q.78 D

Q.79 D Q.80 D Q.81 B Q.82 A Q.83 C Q.84 D
Q.85 D Q.86 A Q.87 B Q.88 B Q.89 A Q.90 C
Q.91 C Q.92 D Q.93 A Q.94 D Q.95 B Q.96 B
Q.97 B Q.98 C Q.99 D Q.100 D Q.101 C Q.102 B
1.45

Q.1 B Q.2 A Q.3 B Q.4 C Q.5 B Q.6 C
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 E Q.12 B
Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 C Q.16 D Q.17 A Q.18 A
Q.19 B Q.20 C Q.21 A Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 A
Q.25 A Q.26 C Q.27 A Q.28 A Q.29 D Q.30 A
Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 A Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 B
Q.37 D Q.38 B Q.39 A Q.40 A Q.41 D Q.42 B
Q.43. C Q.44 C Q.45 D Q.46 A Q.47 B Q.48 D
n
Q.49 A Q.50 B Q.51 A Q.52 C Q.53 C Q.54 C
.i
Q.55. C Q.56 A Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 A Q.60 C
Q.61 A Q.62 D Q.63 C
al
Q.64 B
n
Q.65 D
o ur
uj
Ed
|VOL.I|Unit 1
.in
S al
rn
Sexual Reproduction in
ou
Flowering Plants
uj
Ed
2.1
CHAPTER 2
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
n
FLOWERING PLANTS
.i
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1. Introduction
Topics Discussed
ur
Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental,

INTRODUCTION social, religious and cultural values. Sexual
o
reproduction can be defined as the process of

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
uj
formation and fusion of male and female gametes,

STRUCTURE OF A FLOWER produced by the same individual or by different
Ed
DEVELOPMENT OF MALE AND FEMALE individuals of the opposite sex.

GAMETOPHYTES How is asexual reproduction different from sexual
reproduction? As described in the definition the
POLLINATION AND ITS TYPES fusion of gametes is necessary for production
OUTBREEDING DEVICES of offspring that are not identical to the parent.
What are the events during sexual reproduction?
POLLEN-PISTIL INTERACTIONS Meiosis and fertilization are two important
DOUBLE FERTILIZATION steps for sexual reproduction. Do all organisms
reproduce sexually at all stages of life? No,
POST FERTILIZATION EVENTS sexual reproduction is favored only at certain
DEVELOPMENT OF SEED AND FRUIT FORMATION stages of growth and maturity in their life called as
juvenile stage.
SPECIAL MODES
SIGNIFICANCE OF SEED AND FRUIT FORMATION
2.2
Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plants
Objectives
y Learn about the structure of a typical flower.
y Study the development of male and female gametophytes.
y Know more about the pollination of flowers and its type.
y Learn about outbreeding devices.
y Study the pollen-pistil interactions.
y Study the double fertilization process.
y Learn about the events occurring post fertilization process.
y Know more about the development and significance of seed and fruit formation.
n
2. Sexual Reproduction
.i
Sexual reproduction is also known as amphimixis or syngenesis or amphigony.
The stages in sexual reproduction include
n al
i. Gametogenesis (formation of haploid gametes).
ur
ii. Fertilization (fusion of two gametes and formation of zygote).

o
iii. Embryogenesis (formation of embryo).

uj
There is a noticeable difference between annual plants, biennial plants with perennial plants where the
vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases are visible in annual and biennial plants but are variable in
Ed
perennial plants.
Characteristics of Sexual Reproduction

i. Biparental reproduction – Involves two parents namely male and female.
ii. Involves fusion of gametes or gamete nuclei.
iii. Meiosis process occurs during gametogenesis and mitosis during zygotic development.
iv. Germinal reproduction – New organisms are produced from germinal cells of parents.
v. Key role in evolution – Daughters are genetically different from parents due to variations that occur
during new combinations at the time of crossing over and fusion of gametes.
vi. Slow multiplication and the units involved are haploid gametes.
vii. Demonstrated in higher plants and animals as well as few protists. E.g.: Monocytes, Plasmodium,
Paramecium etc.
2.3
DID YOU KNOW

y Flowers of Bamboo species flower only once in their lifetime basically after
?
50-100 years.
y Neelakuranji (Strobilanthus kunthiana) flowers once in 12 years.
y Biparental reproduction is a characteristic feature of all plants except for plants from
genus Taenia, Fasciola.
3. Structure of a Flower
Flowers are reproductive organs of plants. Flower is the modified vegetative shoot and is meant for sexual
reproduction. Bract is the part of a modified leaf from which the flower arises. A very short axis is present,
from which the whorls of different parts of the plant arises.
.i n
n al
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uj
Ed
Figure 2.1: Diagrammatic representation of parts of a typical flower

2.4
3.1 Parts of a Flower

i. Peduncle – The stalk of the flower.
ii. Receptacle – Stem portion of the flower found at the base in the center. The internodes are short with
less number of leaves. Hence, the receptacle is usually not the largest part of the flower.
iii. Sepals – The outermost whorl of the floral structure that are usually but not always green and have
leaf-like in appearance. They are called as the calyx and are similar to the foliage leaves of the plant.
The major advantage of the calyx is its ability to protect the flower parts during the early development
of the flower or the bud.
iv. Petals – These are larger than sepals and found to be present above the sepals whorl. Petals are
usually called as corolla which is the attractive part of the flower that provides protection against
insects while attracting specific insects to facilitate the pollination process. The leaf-like organs, sepals
and petals are together known as the perianth of the flower.
v. Carpels – They are located in the upper center of a flower and are usually one or more in number.
n
Carpels are also known as the gynoecium. They consist of three parts: ovary, style and stigma. Ovary
.i
is the structure present at the base of the carpel and is a region which is enlarged at the bottom and
al
narrow at the top, bearing one or more ovules. Style is the slender, neck-like portion of the carpel that
leads to the ovary. Stigma is present at the tip of the carpel and is sticky to capture pollen grains and
n
are generally of varying sizes and shapes.
ur
vi. Stamens – These are located inside the corolla with leaf-like appearance. Stamens are the male part
of the flower and produce pollen. They consist of a filament and an anther. Stamens are known as the
o
androecium. Anther is the sac located at the tip of the filament that contains pollen. Filament is the
stalk that connects and holds up the anther.
uj
vii. Bract – Flower consists of a stalk called as the pedicle. The flower is described as sessile if the
Ed
pedicle is not present. Bract are green colored structures present on the predicle and are called as the
bracteoles. In the absence of bracts, the flowers are called as ebracteate.
Figure 2.2: Diagrammatic representation of LS of a typical flower

2.5
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Difference between pedicle and peduncle.
? 2.
3.
Does a flower have both calyx and corolla?
Flowers without bracts are called as ________________________.
4. Other name for petals is anther. True/False.
4. Development of Male and Female Gametophytes

4.1 Male Reporoductive Organ – Androecium
The male reproductive organ is called as androecium and their functional unit is called as stamen. Stamen
n
is also known as microsporophyll. A typical stamen is differentiated into two parts namely, a long, thin
structure termed as filament which joins the stamen to the thalamus. The free end of the filament possess
.i
a swollen spore bearing structure which is called as the anther. Anther and filament are attached together
main parts of the stamen is the anther.

n al
with help of small region called as the connective. This connective region contains vascular tissues. The
A young anther consist of a homogeneous mass of meristematic cells called as primary sporogenous
ur
cells which are surrounded by an anther wall. These cells form the microspore mother cells (2n) inside the
microsporangium.
o
uj
The anther wall mainly consists of the following layers:

1. Epidermis – It is the outermost layer of the anther. It is single, thick and continuous layer whose origin
Ed
is not archesporial though. It forms the outermost protective layer.

2. Endothecium – This layer is present below the epidermis. It is also a single, thick layer. During the
maturation of anther, various changes takes place within the different walls of the cells of endothecium.
The outer wall of these cells remain thin walled, but the inner and radial walls become thick due to
thickening of α-cellulose fibers. Callose bands are also present along the radial walls. At some places, the
callose bands and fibrous thickening are absent. These places are termed as stomium. The dehiscence
of anther takes place only from these places. Endothecium becomes hygrosopic due to presence of
fibrous thickening which helps in the dehiscence of anther.
3. Middle layer – The cells are ephemeral, three-layered and are mainly parenchymatous cells. However,
they are absent in mature anther. Food is mainly stored by these cells.
4. Tapetum – It is the inner most layer of the anther wall that surrounds the sporogeneous tissue. Tapetal
cells are nutritive in nature and are multinucleate while displaying polyploidy. Tapetum absorbs food
from the middle layer and provide nutrition to the microspore mother cells or microspores. The cells of
tapetum secrete hormones and enzymes. The tapetum layer disappears in the mature anther.
2.6
Anther
Pollen grains
Pollen
sacs
Line of dehiscence
Filament
(stalk)
.i n
Figure 2.3: Diagrammatic representation of A. Typical Stamen and B. Section of an anther
al
n
Tapetum has two types of cells
ur
a. Secretory or glandular cells – These cells secrete substances such as sporopollenin, pollenkit, and
compatibility proteins. Ubisch bodies are present in these secretory cells. These bodies secrete a
o
chemical called as sporopollen which is responsible for the ornamentation of exine.

uj
b. Amoeboid or plasmodial or invasive cells – The cells undergo breakdown and the entire protoplast
moves into the center and nourishes microspores.
Ed
5. Pollen sacs – Four pollen sacs are present in the anther. Pollen sacs are also known as microsporangia.
Inside the pollen sacs, microspores are formed by the meiotic division of microspore mother cells.
Middle layers
A B
Figure 2.4: Diagrammatic representation of A. TS of a typical anther and
B. Expanded view of a single microsporangium
2.7
Sporogenesis is the formation spores and is of basically two types

a. Microsporogenesis – Formation of microspore/pollen grains within the pollen sac of anthers.
b. Megasporogenesis – Development of megaspores within the nucellus of the ovule.
4.1.1 Microsporogenesis
The process and differentiation of pollen grains or microspores is called as microsporogenesis. Within the
cavity of microsporangium, the microspore mother cell divides meiotically to produce microspore tetrads or
pollen tetrads.
Cytokinesis may occur either after each meiotic division leading to the formation of isobilateral tetrad of
microspores or after meiotic (I and II) divisions leading to the formation of tetrahedral tetrad of microspores.
.i n
al
Figure 2.5: Diagrammatic representation displaying various stages (A-D) of cytokinesis leading to
n
isobilateral tetrad during microsporogenesis. A. and B. Dividing microspore mother cell;
ur
C. Dividing dyad and D. Tetrad

o
uj
Ed
Figure 2.6: Diagrammatic representation displaying various stages (A-F) of cytokinesis leading to
tetrahedal tetrad during microsporogensis
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y After formation, the microspores are separated from the tetrad except in Elodea, Drosera
and therefore compound pollen grains are formed.
y Pollinium is a single mass where all microspores are adhered together in a sporangium
as seen in plants from genus Calotropis and family Orchidaceae.
y In Calotropis, corpus culum is a sticky disc to which thread like caudicles are attached
and connected to the pollina of adjacent anthers of different stamens. The whole
structure is called as a translator.
2.8
4.1.2 Development of Pollen Grain Within the Pollen Sac of an Anther

The cell wall of a microspore is made up of two layers, the outer layer is called as the exine and the inner
layer as the intine. Exine is composed of sporopollenin while the intine is made up of pecto-cellulosic
material. Pollen-kitt are sticky substances mainly found on the outside of mature pollen grains of several
insect pollinated species. The material in the pollen-kitt is provided by tapetal cells and acts as an insect
attractant. On the exine there are few pores present which are called as germ pores.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 2.7: Diagrammatic representation of development of male gametophyte

Cross-section of the developing anther displays the presence of four chambers. These four chambers are
known as the pollen sacs. Each pollen sac is filled with cells containing nuclei that are quite large. Each of
these cells goes through two meiotic divisions, forming a tetrad and they are known as microspores. Each of
these microspores gradually turns out into a pollen grain. The pollen sac is enclosed by a protective epidermis
and fibrous layer. Inside the fibrous layer is the tapetum. Microspore is the first cell of male gametophyte and
is defined as the partially developed male gametophyte. Microspore divides mitotically into large tube cell and
small generative cell. Pollination occurs once this two celled stage (sometimes seen as three-celled stage) is
reached. The further development of male gametophyte takes place on the stigma.
2.9
Figure 2.8: Diagrammatic representation of a mature dehisced anther
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Why are pollen grains well preserved as fossils?
? 2. Where does microsporogenesis occur in angiosperms?
n
3. Exine is composed of pecto-cellulosic substances. True/False.
.i
4. The cells of ______________ are capable of secreting hormones and enzymes.
n al
4.2 Female Reproductive Organ – Gynoecium
ur
The free unit of gynoecium is called as pistil or carpel. Carpel is also known as megasporophyll. The carpel
is differentiated into three distinct regions namely, style, stigma and ovary. The free end of the carpel which
o
serves as landing platform pollen grains is called as the stigma. A long, narrow tubular structure is present
uj
in between the stigma and ovary which is termed as the style. The basal, swollen/bulged part of the carpel is
called as the ovary. The ovarian cavity, termed as the locule, is located inside the ovary. The ovules are also
Ed
known as megasporongia which are borne on a cushion-like tissue called as the placenta in the ovarian cavity.
Post fertilization, the ovule develops into the seed while the gynoecium forms the pericarp of the fruit.
A B C
Figure 2.9: Diagrammatic representation of A. Pistil of Hibiscus; B. Multicarpellary, syncarpous
pistil of Papaver; C. Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia
2.10
4.2.1 Structure of an Ovule

Ovule is an outgrowth of a placenta and attached to the placental by means of a stalk called as the funicle.
The point of attachment of the funicle with the main body of the ovule is called as the hilum. Sometimes
the funicle gets fused with the body of the ovule along one side and forms a ridge known as the raphe. The
basal region of the ovule is called as the chalaza.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
TYPES OF OVULE
a. Based on the integuments, ovules are classified as
1. Unitegmic ovule – Presence of a single integumented ovule. Eg: Members of
Gamopetalae and Gymnosperm.
2. Bitegmic ovule – Presence of two integumanted ovule. Eg: Most of Angiosperm
n
[Polypetalae – Capsella and Monocots].
.i
3. Ategmic ovule – Ovule which are devoid of integuments. Eg: Olax, Liriosma, Loranthus,
Santalum.
n al
b. Based on nucellus, ovules are classified as
ur
1. Tenuinucellate – Less developed nucellus or present in the form of single layer.
Eg: Gamopetalae group.
o
2. Crassinucellate – Presence of massive nucellus and composed of many layers.

uj
Eg: Polypetalae group and Monocots

c. Based on the relationship of the micropyle, chalaza, and hilum with the body of the
Ed
ovule and orientation of the funiculus, there are six different types of ovules found in
angiosperms
1. Atropous/Orthotropous/Staright/Upright ovule – The main ovule body is in upright
position. The micropyle, chalaza and hilum are placed in a straight line. Eg: Betel, Piper,
Polygonum and Gymnosperms. It is the most primitive and most simple type of ovule in
angiosperms.
2. Hemitropous/Hemianatropous ovule – The main ovule body is bent on funiculus
at right/90o angle. This is intermediate type between ortho and anatropous ovules.
This ovule is also called as horizontal ovule because the ovule body is present in the
horizontal position on the funiculus. Arrangement of micropyle and chalaza in the same
line but micropyle is located away from hilum. Eg: Ranunculus, Primula, Golphimia.
3. Anatropous/Resupinate ovule – The main ovule body is completely turned at 180o
angle, due to unilateral growth of funiculus. This ovule is also termed as inverted or
downward oriented ovule. The chalaza and micropyle are arranged in straight line.
2.11
The hilum and micropyle are located side by side in close proximity to each other. This type
of ovule is found in several angiosperm families (nearly 80%) but not in Capsella. This is the
most common type of ovule and hence is considered as a ‘typical ovule’ of Angiosperms.
Eg: Members of family Malvaceae, Cucurbitaceae, Solanaceae, Compositae.
4. Campylotropous ovule – The main ovule body is curved so that micropyle and chalaza
are not arranged in a straight line. The nucellus is present in curved position but the
embryo sac remains straight. Micropyle is in close proximity to the hilum. Eg: Members
of the family Leguminosae, Capparidaceae, Cruciferae (Capsella).
5. Amphitropous/Transverse ovule – The curvature of the main ovule body is more
effective in the nucellus area such that the embryo sac becomes horse shoe shaped.
Micropyle is placed in close proximity to the hilum. Eg: Mirabilis, Lemna, Poppy, Alisma,
Members of the family Butomaceae.
n
6. Circinotropous/Coiled ovule – The main ovule body is inverted and turned again into
.i
straight position due to the growth of funiculus. The body of ovule present on the funicle
is arranged in 3600 orientation. The entire body of ovule is surrounded by funiculus.
al
The micropyle is located away from hilum. Eg: Members of the family Cactaceae
n
family – Opuntia.
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 2.10: Diagrammatic representation of a typical anatropous ovule before fertilization

The main body of the ovule consisting of the nucellus is called as megasporangium which mainly consists of
mass of parenchymatous cells. The nucellus is invested all around by one or two ring like coverings called
as integuments except the apex where a small opening called the micropyle is seen.
2.12
DID YOU KNOW

? A third integument in the form of an aril develops at the base of an ovule or funicle many
plants such as litchi and Ingadulce. In these plants the aril is fleshy and edible.
4.2.2 Megasporogenesis
The process of formation of megaspores from megaspore mother cell is called megasporogenesis. During
the development of ovule, initially (beginning phases) the nucellus develops from the placenta in the form
of a small rounded out growth like structure. At this stage, all the cells of nucellus are undifferentiated,
homogenous and meristematic. This mass of cells is surrounded by single celled thick layer of epidermis.
One of the hypodermal cell of nucellus is differentiated and increases in size. It becomes different from rest
of the cells due to presence of distinct nucleus. It is called as the archesporial cell. Archesporium divides
n
periclinally to form an outer primary parietal cell and inner primary sporogenous cell. Activity of primary
parietal cell depends on type of plants. The primary sporogenous cell directly act as megaspore mother cell
.i
(MMC) in the micropylar region. These differentiated cells of nucellus further divides meiotically to form four
haploid megaspores.
n al
The four haploid megaspores are generally arranged in linear tetrad. Generally the lower most cell of the
tetrad of megaspores, also termed as the chalazal megaspores, remains functional while the other three cells
ur
which lie towards the micropyle degenerate. This functional megaspore produces the female gametophyte.
o
uj
Ed
A B C
Figure 2.11: Diagrammatic representation of A. Megaspore mother cell; B. Dyad of megaspore and
C. Tetrad of megaspore
4.2.3 Development of Embryosac or Female Gametophyte

Megagametogenesis – Megaspore is the first cell of the female gametophyte. This megaspore grows in size
and obtains nutrition from the nucellus. The nucleus of megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei. Each
nucleus moves towards their respective opposite poles and these two nuclei undergo two mitotic division each.
This results in the formation of four-four nuclei at each pole to form a total of eight nuclei.
2.13
Out of the four, one-one nucleus migrates from the both poles [one nucleus from chalazal side and one
nucleus from micropylar side] towards the center. They are known as the polar nuclei. Both polar nuclei
are present in the center.
The remaining three nuclei at each pole are surrounded by cytoplasm to form cells as a result of
cytokinesis. Of the three cells formed towards the micropyle, one of the cell is large and more distinct.
This is called as the egg cell and the remaining two smaller cells are known as synergids. These three
micropylar cells collectively known as egg-apparatus which is thus composed of one Egg cell + two
Synergids.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
A B
Ed
Figure 2.12: Diagrammatic representation of A. Two-, four- and eight-nucleate stages of embryo sac and
B. Completely mature embryo sac
The three cells are formed toward the chalaza and are called antipodal cells. Both the polar nuclei are
present in the central cell. But just before the process of fertilization they unite or fuse together in the center
to form secondary nucleus. It is diploid in nature [2n] and one in number.
Overall, seven cells and eight nucleated structure are formed which is termed as female gametophyte
or embryosac of angiosperms. This type of embryosac is known as ‘polygonum type’ because it was
discovered by Strasburger in plants of the genus Polygonum plant. Polygonum type embryosac is the most
common type found in angiosperms especially of genus Capsella.
Finger-like processes are produced from the outer wall of the synergids which are known as filiform
apparatus. With the help of these structures, synergids absorb food from the nuclellus and transfer to the
embryosac. Filiform apparatus is less developed in antipodal cells. Filiform cells also secrete chemicals
which attract/guide the pollen tube.
2.14
Table 2.1: Difference between Male gametophyte and Female gametophyte

Male gametophyte Female gametophyte
Developed from microspore or pollen grain. Developed from megaspore.
Remains permanently embedded within
Not permanently embedded within microsporangium.
megasporangium.
Male gametes comes out of the pollen grain due to Female gamete always remains inside, covered
the formation of pollen tube. by membrane of megasporangium.
There are two phases of growth namely pre
Only single phase of growth is seen.
pollination and post pollination.
Three cells in mature stage. Seven cells in mature stage.
Two new structures, namely endosperm and
Disintegrates after fertilization.
oospore are formed after fertilization.
n
5. Pollination
.i
Pollination is defined as the process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of either the same
al
flower or of different flower of the same species. Pollination is of different types.
n
5.1 Self Pollination or Autogamy
ur
When the pollen grain are transferred from an anther

to the stigma of the same flower, it is called as self
o
pollination or autogamy. Self pollination is subdivided

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into several types.

a. Bisexuality – Flower should be bisexual or
Ed
hermaphrodite. Eg: Cartharanthus.

b. Homogamy – Male and female bisexual flower
mature at the same time. Eg: Mirabilis.
c. Cleistogamy – Sometimes bisexual flowers remain
closed and never open to ensure self pollination.
Such type of flowers are called cleistogamy.
Eg: Arachis, Oxalis, Commelina benghalensis.
d. Bud Pollination – Self pollination occurs in
the bud stage before the opening of the flower. Figure 2.13: Diagrammatic representation
Eg: Pea, Wheat. of Commelina benghalensis demonstrating
Cleistogamous and Chasmogamous flowers
2.15
5.2 Cross Pollination or Allogamy

When pollen grains are transferred from anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of another plant
of same species or different species, it is termed as cross pollination or allogamy. This is real or true cross
pollination, genetically as well as economically. The types of cross pollination are
a. Geitonogamy – When, pollination takes place in between two different flowers located on the same
plant then it is called geitonogamy. From the genetical point of view, geitonogamy is self pollination
because all flowers of the same plant are genetically identical. But ecologically, it is considered as
cross pollination. Eg: Castor, Maize.
b. Xenogamy – Pollination takes place between two flowers located on different plants. Genetically and
ecologically it is cross pollination. Eg: Papaya.
5.3 Agents of Cross Polination

Plants use two types of abiotic agents namely, wind and water and one biotic agent namely, animals to
n
achieve pollination process.
.i
n al
ur
Flowchart 2.1: Types of pollination agents

o
1. Anemophily (Pollination by wind) – When the pollen grains are transferred from one flower to
uj
another flower through the air or wind. The flowers involved are known as anemophilous flowers. It is
Ed
non-directional and is considered a wasteful process since anemophillous plants produce enormous
amount of pollen grains. The pollen grains are very small, lightweight and dry and their stigma is hairy
or brushy and mucilaginous (sticky). These flowers are neither attractive nor possess fragrance. They
do not have nectar glands and are generally unisexual. Eg: Sugar cane, Bamboo, Coconut, Grasses,
Maize.
Figure 2.14: Diagrammatic representation of a wind-pollinated plant displaying compact

inflorescence and well-exposed stamens
2.16
2. Hydrophily (Pollination by water) – When the pollination is brought about by water. All aquatic plants
are not hydrophilous in nature. Some hydrophytes are anemophilous, such as Potamogeton and
Myriophyllum or entomophilous, such as Lotus, Alisma. Hydrophilous plants may pollinate inside water
(hypohydrophily) as seen in Zostera or outside the water (epihydrophily) as seen in Vallisneria.
.i n
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Figure 2.15: Diagrammatic representation displaying the female and male Vallisneria flowers
n
ur
3. Zoophily (Pollination by animals) – When the pollination is brought about by animals. Generally in
zoophillous plants, the flowers are very large in size and attractive with maximum number of nectar
o
glands being present. Eg: Brassica napus flowers

uj
4. Entomophily (Pollination by insects) – This pollination takes place with the help of insects. Most of
insect pollination (nearly 80%) is brought about only by honey bees. Nearly all of the entomophilous
Ed
plants are ornamental plants. Ornamental plants utilize their maximum energy to ensure success of
this type of pollination and develop different types of adaptation for attraction of insects.The flowers are
attractive in colour and possess special fragrance. Nectar glands are also present. E.g.: Rose, Lemon,
Coriander, Onion, Lobia. The surface of the stigma of these flowers is rough. These type of flowers
produce small amount of pollen which has a spinous and sticky exine due to the presence of pollen-
kitt. Salvia is an example of insect pollination which occurs by lever or turn-pipe mechanism. Calotropis
exhibits translator mechanism.
5. Ornithophily (Pollination by birds) – This process of pollination takes place using birds. The flowers
are brightly colored but are odorless and produce plenty of nectar. E.g.: Sun bird and humming bird in
Bignonia plant.
6. Chiropterophily (Pollination by bats) – When the pollination process occurs using bats. These
flowers are huge in size. E.g.: Anthocephalus, Kigelia plants.
7. Malcophily or Malmacophily (Pollination by snails) – This pollination is brought about by snails.
Eg: Chrysanthemum plants.
2.17
Table 2.2: Difference between Self pollination and Cross pollination

Self pollination Cross pollination
Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma of same or Transfer of pollen grains to stigma of genetically
genetically similar flower. different flower.
Maturation of anthers and stigma at different time
Simultaneous maturation of anthers and stigma.
intervals i.e. protandry and protogyny is seen.
Occurs in open as well as closed flower. Occurs majorly in only open flower.
It is not economical as the plant has to invest and
It is very economical process for plants. produce large number of pollen grains, nectar,
scent and coloration.
External agencies are not required. It is completely dependent on external agencies.
n
Young plant progenies are homozygous. Young plant progenies are heterozygous.
.i
Production of pure lines because of the non- Results in introduction of variations due to genetic
occurrence of genetic recombination events.
n al
recombination events.
Cannot eliminate harmful traits. Can potentially eliminate harmful traits.
ur
Useful characteristics may be preserved. Useful characteristics may not be preserved.

o
Can provide adaptability to changing

No adaptability to the changing environments.
environments.
uj
Generally does not introduce new traits/ Probability of introducing new traits/characters is
Ed
characters. very high.

Low disease resistance. High disease resistance.
Reduction in yield is observed. Increase in the yield may be observed.
Does not help in the process of development of
Helps in the development of new species.
new species.
2.18
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y The lever mechanism or turn pipe mechanism is found in Salvia or Sage plant for
pollination. The flowers of Salvia have bilabiate corollate tube. The connective of stamen
is long. The anterior anther lobe of connective is fertile while the posterior lobe is sterile
which is automatically brought down to touch the hack of insect and this deposits the
pollen grains on the back of insect.
y Moth pollinated plants are white flowered and fragrant.
y Pollination in Orchids is dependent on wasps and uses pseudocopulation mechanism.
y Yucca plant has developed an obligate symbiotic relationship with an insect –
Pronuba moth.
y Trap door mechanism is found in species of Ficus (Peepal) for pollination using wasps
n
from the genus Blastophaga insect because of presence of hypanthodium type of
inflorescence.
.i
n al
TRY IT YOURSELF
ur
1. What are sulphur showers?

? 2. Pollination occurs using bats is termed as ____________________________.
o
uj
3. Salvia is an example of water pollination which occurs by lever or turn-pipe mechanism.

True/False.
Ed
6. Outbreeding Devices
Majority of the flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers and pollen grains are likely to come in
contact with the stigma of the same flower. Continued self pollination results in inbreeding depression.
Flowering plants have hence developed many devices to discourage self pollination and to encourage cross
pollination. One of the strategy which is adopted by some plant species includes pollen release and stigma
receptivity are not synchronized. Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or the
stigma becomes receptive much before the release of pollen. Another strategy is to ensure that the anther
and stigma are placed at different positions so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the
same flower. Both these strategies/devices prevent autogamy (self fertilization or self pollination).
The third device to prevent inbreeding is self-incompatibility. This is a genetic mechanism which ensures
prevention of self pollination from the same flower or flowers of the same plant from fertilizing the ovules by
inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
2.19
Another device to prevent self pollination is the production of unisexual flowers. If both male and
female flowers are present on the same plant such as castor and maize, it prevents autogamy but
not geitonogamy.
In several species such as papaya, the male and female flowers are located on different plants such that
each plant is either a male or a female plant. This condition prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
In many plants, rapid germination of pollen grains from a flower on the stigma of another genetically different
flower is favored as compared to the germination of pollen grains from the same flower. This promotes cross
pollination and is called as prepotency. Eg: Grape, Pear, Apple.
In certain bisexual flowers, one of the sex organ, either stamen or carpel, is completely suppressed and
becomes sterile. Another device is that either the stamen does not produce pollen grains or the carpel does
not produce ovule, thus facilitating cross pollination. This is called as suppression of one sex.
The occurrence of two or more types of flowers having different length of styles and stamens. In Primrose,
there are two types of flowers while in Oxalis, three types of flowers based on the length of the style and
n
stamen are seen. This feature is called as heterostyly.
.i
In some flowers there maybe physical barrier present between the anther and stigma of the same flower
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such that the pollination between them becomes difficult or even impossible.
Eg: In Calotropis the pollens are present in a sac-like structure called as pollinium which is combined mass
n
of pollen grains produced from a single anther. This ensures that the pollination process due to insects only
ur
is favored.
o
7. Pollen-Pistil Interaction
uj
Sexual reproduction in angiosperms is the interaction between the relatively small pollen grain and massive
Ed
sporophytic tissue of pistil (stigma and style) before discharging the male gametes near the egg. It is
essential to understand the pollen-pistil interactions in the light of self incompatibility. In flowering plants,
the female gamete is present deep inside the flowering plant in an embryo sac in the ovule which is covered
with pistil to form ovary, style and stigma. Hence, pollen grains do not have direct access to the female
gamete. After being deposited on the stigma, pollen grains absorb liquid from the wet surface of the stigma
thus expanding in size while the intine protrudes through the germ pore. The stigma secretes fluids such as
resins, liquid, gums, sugar that prevents dessication of both pollen as well as stigma.
The pollen tube appears from the germ pore present on the pollen grains so that all contents of the pollen
grain migrate into the pollen tube. Pollen grains have the ability to germinate either in the anther sac or placed
on the petals and even within the style. Viability of pollen grains depends on temperature and humidity.
Viable pollen germinates on the stigma irrespective of the position of the germ tube. Pollen gets hydrated on
the stigma, swells up and produces pollen tube. Hydrated pollen shows high r-RNA/t-RNA ratio. The pollen
tube always grows in the direction of the ovary and is guided by the secretion of the ovule. Usually only one
pollen tube is formed from a pollen grain but there are instances where many pollen tube arises. In such
cases, only one pollen tube makes its way for further growth.
2.20
Figure 2.16: Diagrammatic representation of a pollen grain with pollen tube containing gametes
Pollen-stigma interaction is determined by the germination of the pollen grain on the stigma since stigma is
the primary source for the interaction. During self incompatibility process, certain factors on the exine may
produce rejection responses on the stigmatic surface. Due to pollen-pistil interaction massive amount of
competition develops even in the compatible gametes. Only pollen grains which are vigorous in nature can
reach the female gamete. Once the pollen grains reach the female gamete the next stage is fertilization.
n
TRY IT YOURSELF
.i
al
1. What are pollen banks? What are they used for?
? 2. In papaya, the male and female flowers are located on same plant. True/False.
n
3. In Calotropis, the pollens are present in a sac like structure termed as
ur
____________________.
o
uj
8. Double Fertilization
Ed
In 1884, fertilization was discovered by Polish-German botanist Eduard Adolf Strasburger. The process
of double fertilization was discovered by S. G. Nawaschin (1897) in Lilium and Fritillaria species. After the
pollination process, the intrine of the pollen grain forms a pollen tube through the germ pore. The pollen
tube containing two male gametes [haploid (n) each] that enter through the micropylar end of the ovule into
the cavity of the ovary. When the pollen tube enters through the micropylar end of the ovule for fertilization
it is called as porogamy which is the most commonly observed mode of entry into ovule. If the pollen tube
enters the ovule through the chalazal end for fertilization, it is called as chalazogamy.
Flowchart 2.2: Different pathways of entrance of pollen tube into ovule

2.21
Figure 2.17: Diagrammatic representation of the different modes of entrance of pollen tube into ovule.
A. Porogamy; B. Chalazogamy and C. Mesogamy
On piercing through the nucellus, the pollen tube penetrates in the embryo sac. The tip penetrates the embryo
sac and reaches the egg apparatus. Pollen tube enters one of the synergids and bursts in it releasing the two
n
gametes. One of these haploid male gametes (n) fuses with the haploid egg cell (n) which results in the formation
.i
of diploid zygote (2n). This is termed as syngamy or generative fertilization. The other haploid male gamete (n)
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fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (2n) resulting in triple fusion or vegetative fertilization forming triploid
primary endosperm nucleus (3n) also termed as PEN which on maturation gives rise to endosperm. Therefore,
n
the process of fertilization that occurs twice in the same embryo sac at the same time by the two male gametes
is called as double fertilization.
o ur
uj
Ed
A B
Figure 2.18: Diagrammatic representation showing path of release of pollen tube contents into synergid:
A. Two male gametes and a degenerating vegetative nucleus near the filiform apparatus;
B. Release of male gametes inside the synergid
2.22
.i n
Figure 2.19: Diagrammatic representation showing movement of male gametes towards the egg
al
nucleus and into central cell
n
Male Gamete (n) + Egg (n) --------> Zygote (2n) (Syngamy)
ur
Male Gamete (n) + Secondary Nuclei (2n) ----------> Primary Endosperm Nucleus (3n) (Triple fertilization)
o
9. Post Fertilization Events

uj
9.1 Development of Endosperm

Ed
Endosperm is a product of triple fusion since it is developed from the mitotic division of primary endosperm
(PEN) and develops from the central cell of embryo sac. It is generally a triploid tissue and serves as a
source of nutrition for the developing embryo.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Characteristics of Endosperm
y Endospermic cells are isodiametric and show polyploidy.
y Starchy endosperm is observed in cereals.
y Aluerone layer i.e. proteinaceous layer is seen in cereals.
y Oily endosperm is present in castor and coconut.
y The endosperm is composed of hemicellulose in date palm.
2.23
Types of Endosperm
a. Nuclear Endosperm – Primary endosperm nucleus of the central cell divides without formation of cell
wall (free nuclear division) such that the nuclei produced are free in the cytoplasm of the embryosac
and they remain free indefinitely or wall formation takes place later. Eg: Cotton, Maize, Capsella.
Figure 2.20: Diagrammatic representation of development of nuclear endosperm

b. Cellular Endosperm – Primary endosperm nucleus undergoes several cell divisions and each division
is followed by cell wall formation; therefore the endosperm has cellular appearance. Eg: Petunia,
Utricularia, coconut (copra).
.i n
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ur
Figure 2.21: Diagrammatic representation of development of cellular endosperm

o
c. Helobial Endosperm – It is an intermediate stage between nuclear and cellular types. The first division
uj
is accompanied by cytokinesis but the subsequent divisions are nuclear free. The chamber towards the
Ed
micropylar end is larger than the one at the chalaza end and a large number of free nuclei are formed at
the micropylar chamber by free nuclear divisions while the nucleus at the chazal end generates relatively
fewer free nuclei or does not undergo cell division at all. Eg: Members of monocot order Helobiales.
Figure 2.22: Fertilized embryosac showing diploid zygote and triploid PEN
2.24
DID YOU KNOW

y After the occurrence of the first two divisions of primary endosperm nucleus, categorization
of the endosperm into nuclear or cellular endosperm can be easily identified.
y Endosperm is absent in some of angiosperms as seen in families Orchidaceae,
Podostemaceae and Trapaceae.
? y
y
Some of the plants have diploid endosperm instead of triploid such as in Oenothera.
Maize and Tomato have mosaic endosperm in which patches of different colours are
seen.
y The endosperm in Betalnut or Arecanut (Arecaceae) and Annonaceae families is
roughly surfaced. It is known as “ruminate endosperm”.
y In Coconut, the drinking portion is nuclear endosperm while the edible portion is cellular
n
endosperm.
.i
9.2 Development of an Embryo
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After fertilization, the fertilized egg becomes the zygote. An embryo following the process of embryony gives
rise to a complete plant. After fertilization the zygote rests and stays dormant for a period that greatly varies
ur
between different taxa, ranging from few hours to several weeks. There are no initial fundamental differences
between dicot and monocot embryos. But at later stages, the mature embryos of both begin to differ.
o
uj
9.2.1 Development of Embryo in a Typical Dicot Plant

Ed
Development of embryo in Capsella was established by German botanist Johannes von Hanstein. In
angiosperms, zygote initially remains in the resting phase. When the endosperm is formed, development
of zygote begins. In the beginning the zygote absorbs food from the endosperm and increases in size
with a secretory layer surrounding it. The zygote is termed as ospore. The first division of oospore is
transverse and results in the formation of two cells. One cell moving towards micropyle is called as basal
cell or suspensor cell. The other cell formed towards the chalaza is called as apical cell or terminal cell
or embryonal cell.
The basal cell and embryonal cell divide simultaneously. The basal cell divides transversely while the apical
cell divides vertically resulting in the formation of two suspensor cells and two embryonal cells. This stage
is composed of four cells which are arranged in ‘T’ shaped structure. Vertical division of embryonal cells
results in the formation of four embryonal cells. This is termed as the quadrant stage of embryo. The two
suspensor cells divided by transverse divisions forming a 6-10 celled long filament like structure which is
termed as the suspensor. The main function of the suspensor is to push the developing embryo into the
endosperm to provide nutrition.
2.25
Vesicular Cell
Radicle
Suspensor
Suspensor
Plumule
Cotyledone
Zygote Radicle
Hypophysis Heart - Shaped
Procambium Mature Embryo
Embryo
Embryo
Cell Ground Meristem h i
Dermatogen
a b c d e f g
Figure 2.23: Diagrammatic representation of stages (a-i) in the development of dicot embryo
n
The cell located at the micropyle end of the suspensor swells up
and expands. This cell of suspensor is known as haustorial cell.
.i
The cell of suspensor which is located near the embryonal cells is
called as hypophysis. This cell combines with the radicle to form
the apex of root (root cap). These four cells quadrant embryo further
n al
divide transversely to produce eight cells. This eight-celled stage
ur
of embryo is called as octant stage. The eight cells of octant are

arranged in two tiers. The four cells of the octant embryo which lie
o
near the hypophysis are known as hypobasal cells while the four
uj
cells located towards the chalaza are termed as epibasal cells. The
hypobasal cells gives rise to radical and hypocotyls while epibasal
Ed
cells give rise to the two cotyledons and plumule of the embryo. All
the cells of octant divide by periclinal division so that a 16-celled
globular embryo is formed. Figure 2.24: Diagrammatic
Due to fast division of the embryonal cells of globular embryo, a representation of horse-shoe
heart-shaped embryo is formed. All the cells of this embryo are shaped mature embryo of dicot
meristematic. The vigorous and fast growth within the two lobes of plants
the heart-shaped embryo results in the development of two cotyledons. Both the growing cotyledons move
in the downward direction due to the curved position of the body of the Capsella ovule. Tissues present
above the joining region of both the cotyledons are responsible for the formation of plumule and behind
it, the epicotyls are formed. The tissues present opposite to the plumule give rise to radical. On further
development, the ovule becomes curved like a horse shoe containing the mature embryo.
9.2.2 Development of Embryo in a Typical Monocot

In monocots, great variations are seen in the stages of development. However, there is no essential difference
between monocots and dicots in terms of the early cell divisions of the proembryo. In the embryogeny of
2.26
monocot, Sagittaria, all the zygotes initially enlarge and expand in size while undergoing transverse division
to give rise to a three-celled proembryo. These are known as the basal cell, the middle cell and the terminal
cell. Larger basal cell which lies towards the micropylar end does not divide further and is transformed
directly into the suspensor cell. The terminal cell undergoes further division in various planes and gives rise
to a single cotyledon termed as the scutellum. The middle cell undergoes repeated transverse and vertical
divisions and differentiates into suspensor cell, radicle, plumule and hypocotyl. In this type of cotyledon, a
terminal structure and plumule are located laterally in the depression.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 2.25: Diagrammatic representation of L.S. of embryo of monocot plant
o
Table 2.3: Difference between Embryo and Endosperm

uj
Embryo Endosperm
Formed by fertilized egg (syngamy). Formed by fusion of secondary nucleus (triple fusion).
Ed
Always diploid. Generally triploid structure.

Gives rise to new plant. Provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
Cotyledons, plumule and radical are Formation of cotyledons, plumule and radical not
formed in embryo. formed.
Endosperm is only located in endospermic seeds. It
Embryo is present in seed.
otherwise degenerates with the formation of seed.
Embryo dies in the absence of
Endosperm does not die in the absence of embryo.
endosperm.
Germination of seed occurs. No germination is found in endosperm.
2.27
A B
Pericarp
Endosperm
Coleoptile
n
Scutellum Plumule
.i
Radicle
C
n al D Maize
Coleorhiza
ur
Figure 2.26: Diagrammatic representation showing the structural organization of seeds of
A. Bean; B. Castor; C. Onion and D. Maize
o
10. Development of Seed and Fruit Formation

uj
After fertilization, ovule develops into seed and the ovary gets converted into the fruit. Infact, fruit is the
Ed
ripened part of the ovary. Integuments of the ovule composed of the outer testa and inner tegmen form the
seed coat. On complete maturation of the embryo, growth inhibitors are synthesized in the seed to stop the
growth of embryo and initiate the dormant stage. Pollination provides the first stimulus to the ovary to form
the fruit. The germinating pollen grains contain auxins which stimulate ovary to form the fruit.
If auxins (NAA) are applied on the stigma, the ovary develops into fruit without fertilization and this is called
as parthenocarpic fruits and the process is called as parthenocarpy.
Second stimulus is provided by the developing seeds which also induces synthesis of auxins and cytokines
to stimulate the conversion of ovary into fruit. Nitsch (1952) reported the growth of receptacle around seeds
in strawberry.
The third stimulus is provided by nutrients. The plants show thinning in the number of their developing
seeds as observed in grapes and mango.
2.28
Table 2.4: Fate of different parts of flower Before fertilization and Transformation after fertilization
Before fertilization Transformations after fertilization
Calyx, Corolla, Stamens, Style, Stigma Breaks off
Ovule Seeds
Ovary Fruit
Ovary wall Pericarp
Integuments Testa and Tegmen of seed coat
Funicle Seed stalk
Egg cell Zygote
Nucellus Periplasm
n
Synergids Disintegrate
.i
Antipodals Degenerate
Secondary nucleus
n al
Endosperm (PEN)
10.1 Germination of Seed

ur
The process by which the dormant embryo wakes up, becomes active and begins to grow is known as the
o
germination of seed. Following seed germination, the embryo of seed grows into a sporophyte plant. The
uj
radical produces the primary root while the plumule develops into the shoot and the cotyledons degenerates.
Types of Seed Germination
Ed
Germination is basically of two types which are dependent upon the behavior of cotyledons but viviparous
germination are also seen.
1. Epigeal germination – Due to the growth or elongation of hypocotyls, the cotyledons are pushed out
of the soil. This is called as epigeal germination. This type of germination occurs in Cotton, Papaya,
Castor, Onion, Cucurbits, Tamarind, French bean, Mustard, etc. In some cases, these seed cotyledons
above the ground become green leaf like, termed as cotyledonary leaves and perform photosynthetic
function till the seedling thrives independently. E.g. Castor, cotton, onion, papaya, etc. In other plants,
cotyledons do not assume leaf like shape, fall off and degenerate. E.g. French bean, Tamarind.
2. Hypogeal germination – Due to growth in epicotyls, the plumule comes out of the ground while the
cotyledons remain underground. This is called as hypogeal germination. This type of germination
occurs in most of the monocotyledons and few dicotyledons. E.g. Maize, Rice, Wheat, Coconut, Gram,
Pea, Peanut, Mango, etc.
3. Vivipary – It is a special type of seed germination which is characteristic of mangrove vegetation which
are abundant in muddy, saline conditions. E.g. Members of the Genus Rhizophora, Avicennia, Ceriops,
2.29
Sonneratia, etc. No resting period of the embryo is seen and germination occurs inside the fruit, while
it is still attached to the parent plant which is also termed as in-situ germination. The seedling is
separated in the mud with the help of lateral roots developing from the basal end of the radical. This is
called as viviparous germination or vivipary.
Table 2.5: Difference between Monocotyledonous seeds and Dicotyledonous seeds
Monocotyledonous seeds Dicotyledonous seeds
Only single cotyledon located with embryo. Two cotyledons located with embryo
Generally endospermic seeds Generally non-endospermic seeds but may
be endospermic
Generally cotyledon is thin or papery Cotyledons are thick
Plumule is covered by coleoptile and radical is Coleoptile and coleorhizae are not formed
n
covered by coleorhiza
.i
Cotyledon is also termed as scutellum No such name for dicot cotyledons
Radicle degenerates after sometimes and
adventitious roots are formed at that place
n al
Radicle is responsible in formation of
primary root
In some of the seeds, seed coats and cotyledon Such types of seed are not found
ur
fused together E.g: Wheat etc.

o
11. Special Modes

uj
11.1 Apomixis
Ed
Apomixis is the formation of new individuals through asexual reproduction without the involvement of fusion
of gametes. It is of two types: (a) agamospermy (b) vegetative propagation.
a. Agamospermy – It is the type of asexual reproduction where the embryo is formed by a process in
which normal meiosis and syngamy are eliminated. This type of apomixes occurs in seeds. Three types
of agamospermy includes
i. Adventitive embryony (Sporophytic budding) – The embryo arises from the diploid sporophytic
cells such as nucellus or integuments other than egg. E.g. Citrus, Opuntia.
ii. Recurrent agamospermy – The diploid embryo sac is formed from the MMC which has a diploid
egg or oosphere. The diploid egg grows parthenogenetically into diploid embryo. E.g. Apple, Allium.
iii. Non-recurrent agamospermy – The embryo develops parthenogenetically from the haploid egg.
E.g. Banana.
2.30
A B
Figure 2.27: Diagrammatic representation of section of A. Apple and B. Strawberry
n
b. Vegetative propagation – Other parts of the plant body such as roots, stems, branches and leaves
.i
apart from the seed are used for propagation of new plant. Vegetative propagation is subdivided into
two types al
i. Natural vegetative propagation – Vegetative propagation occurring in nature without assistance
n
from humans. Eg: Onion and Garlic bulbs; Ginger and Turmeric rhizomes; Potato tubers; Asparagus
ur
and Tapioca roots; Bryophyllum and Begonia leaves etc.
ii. Artificial propagation – Vegetative propagation carried out using artificial means and assistance
o
from humans. This technique is mostly employed by botanists, horticulturists and gardeners. It is
uj
of several types such as cutting, grafting, layering etc. Eg: Artificial propagation using cutting of
Rose, Sugar cane, Lemon, Tamarind (Root cutting), China rose (Stem cutting); Grafting of Mango,
Ed
Orange, Seedless Grapes, Apple; Layering of Litchee, Pomegranante, Guava etc.
11.2 Polyembryony
Generation of several embryos inside a single seed is called as polyembryony. It was first observed by
Leeuwenhoek in Citrus (Orange) seeds. Polyembryony is commonly found in gymnospermic plants but it is
also found in some of angiospermic plants such as Orange, Lemon, Nicotine etc. If polyembryony develops
naturally then it is called as spontaneous/self polymbryony. When polyembryony is developed artificially
then it is called as induced polyembryony. When many embryos are formed from more than one separate
embryosacs inside the ovule it is called as false or pseudo polyembryony. When many embryos are formed
inside the single embryo sac of the seed it is called as ‘true poly embryony’. It is developed from
(i) Clevage of Zygote or budding – Eg: Cymbidium, Exocarpus, Nymphaea, Nicotiana, Orchids etc.
(ii) By the fertilization of synergids – Eg: Anemone, Aristolochia, Sagittaria etc.
(iii) Fertilization of antipodal cells – Eg: Paspalum, Ulmus etc.
2.31
In Lilium, all three types of polyembryony are observed.

Adventive embryony is also an example of polyembryony in which additional number of embryo are formed
from nucellus or integuments.
.i n
Figure 2.28: Diagrammatic representation of polyembryony in Citrus
11.3 Parthenocarpy
n al
ur
The fruit is normally formed by the stimulus of fertilization. Sometimes, fruits maybe formed without the act
of fertilization. This is called as parthenocarpy. It may be due two reasons
o
i. Stimulus of pollination.
uj
ii. Induced by hormones.

Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless. Parthenocarpy has practical usage as seedless fruits like banana,
Ed
pineapple, grapes are always in demand for human consumption.
12. Significance of Seed and Fruit Formation

Seed and fruit formation are stimulated by the act of fertilization. In angiosperms, double fertilization
produces two structures – a diploid zygote and a triploid primary endosperm nucleus.
12.1 Significance of Seeds

1. Dependable method – Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, pollination and fertilization of seed plants
are free from the requirement of water. Seed formation is therefore, more dependable.
2. Perennation – Seeds are dry with a water content of 10-15% with a dormant embryo and thick protective
seed coat. It is most suitable for perennation through unfavorable conditions.
3. Dispersal – Seeds have developed new strategies to get dispered into different habitats and colonize
the environment.
2.32
4. Reserve food – Seeds have reserve food for the nourishment of young seedlings till they become
nutritionally independent.
5. Variations – As seeds are formed through sexual reproduction they carry a number of genetic
and phenotypic variations. These variations are necessary for the adaptability to adverse
climatic conditions.
6. Storage – Seeds serve as storage organs for later usage. This ensures unlimited supply of food
throughout the year even under draught and famine conditions.
7. Agriculture – Seed is the basis for agriculture. Agriculture originated when humans learnt to eat,
store and sow seeds. Agriculture proved to be the turning point of human civilization, industrialization,
science and technology.
12.2 Significance of Fruits

1. Protection – Developing fruits protect the developing seeds from mechanical injury, insects and
n
unfavourable conditions.
.i
2. Dispersal – Fruits help in the dispersal of seeds to distant places.
al
3. Food to animals – Fleshy fruits act as food to animals who inturn also help in dispersal of the seed.
n
Fleshy fruits bears hard seeds such as Guava. On the other hand, hard shelled fruits have soft seeds
such as Almonds.
ur
4. Nutrition to germinating seeds – Some fruits provide nutrition to germinating seeds and developing
o
seedlings.
uj
5. Importance to humans – Fruits are a source of food, protein, oil, organic acids, vitamins, minerals and
sugars.
Ed
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. The four cells of the octant embryo which lie near __________________are known as
__________________ while the four cells located towards ___________________are
termed as _________________________.
? 2. Apomixis is the formation of new individuals through asexual reproduction. True/False.

3. In ______________________ germination the cotyledons are pushed out of the soil due
to the elongation of hypocotyls.
4. When polyembryony develops artifically then it is called as spontaneous/self polymbryony.
True/False.
2.33
Summary
y Sexual reproduction is defined as the process of formation and fusion of male and female gametes,
produced by the same individual or by different individuals of the opposite sex.
y Sexual reproduction is also known as amphimixis or syngenesis or amphigony.
y Flowers are the reproductive organs of plants.
y Flower is the modified vegetative shoot and is meant for sexual reproduction.
y Parts of a flower – peduncle, receptacle, sepals, petals, carpels, stamens, bract.
y Male reproductive organ is called as androecium and their unit is called as stamen.
y A typical stamen is differentiated into two parts a long, thin structure is called filament which joins the
stamen to the thalamus.
y The free end of the filament, a swollen spore bearing structure is called as anther.
n
y The primary sporogenous cells form microspore mother cells (2n) inside the microsporangium.
.i
y The anther wall mainly consists of epidermis, endothecium, middle layer, tapetum, pollen sac.
y
n al
The process and differentiation of pollen grains or microspores is called as microsporogenesis.
y Exine is the outer layer while intine is the inner layer of a microspore.
ur
y On the exine are located few pores which are called as germ pores.
y The free unit of gynoecium is called as pistil or carpel. Carpel is also known as megasporophyll.
o
y The free end of the carpel which serves as landing platform pollen grains is called stigma.
uj
y A long, narrow tubular structure is present in between the stigma and ovary called style.
Ed
y The basal swollen [bulged] part of the carpel is called ovary.

y The ovules is also known as megasporongia.
y The process of formation of megaspores from megaspore mother cell is called megasporogenesis.
y Any cell of nucellus towards the micropylar end is differentiated from other cells and is called as the
megaspore mother cell (MMC).
y Megaspore is the first cell of the female gametophyte.
y Pollination is defined as the process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of the same
flower or of different flower of the same species.
y Pollination is of two types self pollination and cross pollination.
y Continued self pollination results in inbreeding depression.
y Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self pollination and to encourage cross
pollination which are termed as outbreeding device.
2.34
y Pollen-pistil interactions between the pollen grain and massive sporophytic tissue of pistil (stigma and
style) before discharging the male gametes near the egg.
y The process of fertilization that occurs twice in the same embryo sac at a time by the two male gametes
is called as double fertilization (sygamy and triple fusion).
y Endosperm is a product of triple fusion since it is developed from the mitotic divison of primary
endosperm and develops from the central cell of embryo sac.
y Following the process of embryony, zygote gives rise to an embryo which can form a complete plant.
y After fertilization, ovule develops into seed and ovary matures into fruit.
y The process by which the dormant embryo wakes up, becomes active and begins to grow is known as
germination of seed.
y Special modes – Apomixis, parthenocary, polyembryony.
y Seed and fruit formation are stimulated by the act of fertilization.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
2.35
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Androphore structure is formed by
(A) Internode (B) Node (C) Sepals (D) Petals
Q.2 When embryo develops from a haploid cell of embryosac, other than egg cell the process is
known as
(A) Apogamy (B) Anospory
(C) Adventive Embryony (D) Diplospory
n
Q.3 Androgenic haploid plants are produced from
.i
(A) Pollen grains (B) Connective tissues
(C) Tapetum
n al
(D) Wall of the anther
Q.4 Apomixis was discovered by

ur
(A) Leeuwenhoek (B) Winkler Hans

o
(C) Juel and Murbeck (D) Navaschin and Grignard

uj
Q.5 Which of the following is monocarpic plant?

Ed
(A) Shisham (B) Mango (C) Pinus (D) Bomboo
Q.6 Which is the most logical sequence with reference to the life cycle of angiosperm?
(A) Germination, endosperm formation, seed dispersal, double fertilization
(B) Cleavage, fertilization, grafting, fruit formation
(C) Pollination fertilization, seed formation and germination
(D) Maturation, mitosis, differentiation
Q.7 After culturing the anther of a plants few diploid plant were got along with haploid plant. Which of the
following part might have given rise to diploid plant?
(A) Vegetative cell of pollen (B) Exine of pollen wall
(C) Cells of anther wall (D) Generative cell of pollen
2.36
Q.8 Capsella is angiosperm because it possess

(A) Seed (B) Pollen grain
(C) Vascular tissue (D) Fruit
Q.9 Which part of the productive structure produces both enzyme and hormones?
(A) Archesporium (B) Middle layer
(C) Tapetum (D) Endothecium
Q.10 Ubisch bodies are produced in

(A) Embryosac (B) Endothecium
(C) Pollen grain (D) Tapetum
Q.11 Tapetum is
n
(A) Parietal in origin usually the inner most layer of anther wall
.i
(B) Modified endothecium of another wall
al
(C) Outer most layer of sporogeneous tissue modification
n
(D) Parietal in origin and is the inner most layer of ovule wall
ur
Q.12 Example of polyploidy tissue present in an angiosperm plant is

o
(A) Perisperm (B) Embryo (C) Tapetum (D) Placenta

uj
Q.13 A microspore is a first cell of

Ed
(A) Female gametophyte (B) Male gametophyte

(C) Sporophyte (D) Anther
Q.14 Anther is generally composed of

(A) One sporangium (B) Two sporangium
(C) Thee sporangium (D) Four sporangium
Q.15 Occurrence of more than four spores from spore mother cells is called
(A) Polysiphony (B) Polyspermy
(C) Polyspory (D) Polyembryony
Q.16 How many cells or nuclei are present in male gametophyte of Capsella?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Many
2.37
Q.17 How many and what type of male gametes are produced by the male gametophyte of Capsella?
(A) One, multiciliated (B) Two, biciliated
(C) Two, multiciliated (D) Two, non-motile
Q.18 Ubisch bodies are associated with the development of

(A) Embryo (B) Pollen grains
(C) Endosperm (D) Embryo sac
Q.19 Most reduced size gametophyte is of

(A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophyte
(C) Gymnosperm (D) Angiosperm
Q.20 Pollen grain of Capsella is
n
(A) Monocolpate (B) Bicolpate
.i
(C) Tricolpate (D) Polycolpate
Q.21 Essential Whorls of flowers are

n al
(A) Calyx and Corolla (B) Corolla and Gynoecium
ur
(C) Androecium and Gynoecium (D) All of the above

o
Q.22 Which statement is false?

uj
(A) Unisexuality of flower induces cross pollination

Ed
(B) Androgenic plants were developed by Guha and Maheshwari

(C) Morphological barriers are absent in Gloriosa flower
Q.23 Isobilateral tetrad is common in

(A) Monocots (B) Dicots (C) Halophila (D) None of the above
Q.24 Sporopllenin is found in

(A) Exine (B) Intine (C) Cytoplasm (D) Nucleus
Q.25 Microsporophyll of Angiosperms is known as

(A) Androecium (B) Anther (C) Filament (D) Stamen
Q.26 Main function of endothecium (in anther) is

(A) Mechanical (B) Nutritive (C) Dehiscence (D) None of the above
2.38
Q.27 Which of the following is the wrong statement?

(A) Monothecous anthers are found in Malvaceae family
(B) Middle layer is ephemeral
(C) Amoeboid tapetum releases Ubisch bodies
(D) Banana is a monocarpic plant
Q.28 Development of male gametophyte is

(A) In vivo (B) In situ (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Q.29 Endothecium, middle layer and tapetum is anther are derived from
(A) Primary sporogenous layer (B) Primary parietal layer
(C) Both (D) None of the above
n
Q.30 Which one is female gametophyte?
.i
(A) Embryo (B) Embryosac (C) Endosperm (D) Pistil
Q.31 What type of ovule is found in Capsella?

n al
(A) Orthotropus (B) Camylotropus (C) Anatropus (D) Hemitropus
ur
Q.32 The embryo sac of Capsella derives it’s nutrition from

o
(A) Sporogenous (B) Tapetum (C) Epithecium (D) Nucellus

uj
Q.33 The functional megaspore in Capsella is always

Ed
(A) Micropylar (B) Chalazal

(C) All of the above (D) Any of the above
Q.34 Crassinucellate ovule shows

(A) Absence of nucellus (B) Well developed nucellus
(C) Partially developed nucellus (D) Modified nucellus
Q.35 Proliferation of integumentary cells at the micropylar region of the ovule in caster develops
(A) Aril (B) Funicle (C) Caruncle (D) Apophysis
Q.36 Caruncle is formed by

(A) Peduncle (B) Cotyledons (C) Integument (D) Perisperm
2.39
Q.37 Obturators which helps in fertilization are out growth of

(A) Pollen tube (B) Stigma
(C) Placenta or funiculus (D) Pollen grain
Q.38 Just before fertilization the diploid structure in the ovule of Capsella is
(A) Pollen tube (B) Nucellus/Secondary nucleus
(C) Synergids (D) Antipodals
Q.39 Filiform apparatus are found in

(A) Antipodal cell (B) Egg cell
(C) Secondary nucleus (D) Synergids
Q.40 Which type of gametes are present in Capsella?
n
(A) Flagellated (B) Motile (C) Non-motile (D) None of these
.i
Q.41 Perisperm is
(A) Persistent nucellus in seed
n al
(B) Ovule wall
(C) Ovule coat (D) Fossil of haustoria
ur
Q.42 Free nuclear division in an angiosperm takes place during

o
(A) Gamete formation (B) Endosperm formation

uj
(C) Embryo formation (D) Flower formation

Ed
Q.43 Raphe and hilum in seed is present

(A) Nucellus (B) Funiculus (C) Integument (D) Micropyle
Q.44 Micropyle in seed helps in the entry of

(A) Male gamete (B) Pollen tube (C) Water and air (D) All of the above
Q.45 The plant in which G. B. Amici discovered pollen tube is

(A) Capsella (B) Parthenium (C) Portulaca (D) None of the above
Q.46 Megasporophyll is called

(A) Gynoecium (B) Carpel (C) Ovary (D) Stigma
Q.47 How many pollen sacs are present in a mature anther?

(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
2.40
Q.48 The ovule is present in which single layer nucellar tissue

(A) Crassinucellate (B) Tenuinucellate
(C) Amphinucellate (D) Circinotropous
Q.49 When outer integument becomes fleshy then it is known as

(A) Aril (B) Sarcotesta (C) Operculum (D) Caruncle
Q.50 Resupinate type of ovule are

(A) Straight (B) Inverted (C) Transverse (D) Coiled
Q.51 Horizontally oriented ovule in Angiosperm is called

(A) Amphitropous (B) Hemitropous
(C) Campylotropous (D) Circinotropous
.i n
Q.52 The structure formed by outer integument which helps is germination is called
(A) Aril (B) Sarcotesta
Q.53 In anatropous ovule, the micropyle is present
n al
(C) Caruncle (D) Operculum
(A) In straight line with funiculum

ur
(B) At right angles with funiculum

o
(C) At 450 with funiculum

uj
(D) Side by side with funiculum

Ed
Q.54 Which structure of the ovule will change in the end?

(A) Embryosac (B) Integuments (C) Funiculum (D) All of the above
Q.55 The special features of the endothecium of anther of Capsella

(A) Radially elongated (B) Thickening of cellulose
(C) Hygroscopic (D) All of the above
Q.56 The type of cells undergoing meiosis in the flowers are

(A) Micro spore mother cell and mega spore mother cell
(B) Ovule and stamen
(C) Tapetal cells
(D) Placental cell
2.41
Q.57 Which of the following types of embryosac is mostly found in Angiosperm?

(A) Bisporic polygonum type (B) Tetra sporic type
(C) Monosporic – orange type (D) Monosporic – polygonum type
Q.58 In many plants, the sexual reproduction replaced by asexual reproduction is called
(A) Semigamy (B) Apospory (C) Apomixes (D) Amphimixis
Q.59 “Endostome” and “Exostome” are part of
(A) Nucellus (B) Chalaza (C) Pollen wall (D) Micropyle
Q.60 Female gametophyte like pollen are found in

(A) Sorghum (B) Hyacinthus (C) Vinca (D) None of these
Q.61 Which type of growth is found in pollen tube?
n
(A) Lateral growth (B) Apical growth (C) Middle growth (D) No growth
.i
(A) Amphitropous
n al
Q.62 When hilum, chalaza, and micropyle lie in one straight line then ovule is called
(B) Orthotropous
(C) Campylotropous (D) Anatropous
ur
Q.63 Chasmogamy refers to the condition where

o
(A) Flowers remain closed (B) Flowers are absent

uj
(C) Flowers open (D) Flowers are gamopetalous

Ed
Q.64 When pollen grains of a flower are transferred to stigma of another flower on a different plant, the
process is called
(A) Geitonogamy (B) Xenogamy
(C) Autogamy (D) Homogamy
Q.65 When anther and stigma mature at the same time it is called as
(A) Dichogamy (B) Allogamy (C) Xenogamy (D) Homogamy
Q.66 Self pollination means

(A) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma in the same flowers
(B) Transfer of pollen from one flower to another on the different plant
(C) Occurrence of male and female sex organ in the same flowers
(D) Germination of pollen
2.42
Q.67 “Lever mechanism” or “turn pipe mechanism” for pollination is characteristic feature of
(A) Antirrhinum (B) Ocimum
(C) Salvia (Sage plant) (D) Ficus
Q.68 Maize is best example of

(A) Anemophily (B) Ornithophily
(C) Entomophily (D) Hydrophily
Q.69 Translator apparatus is found in

(A) Mustard (B) Pea (C) Calotropis (D) Mango
Q.70 Which type of pollination occurs in Capsella

(A) Entromophily (B) Anemophily (C) Hydrophily (D) None of the above
.i n
Q.71 Insect pollination flowers usually possess
(A) Brightly colored pollens in large quantity
(B) Dry pollens with smooth surface
n al
(C) Sticky pollen and rough surface stigma
ur
(D) Light coloured scented pollen covered with nectar

o
Q.72 A close relation between a flower and a pollinating agent is best exemplified by
uj
(A) Cocos (B) Salvia (C) Yucca (D) Avena

Ed
Q.73 Polysiphonous pollen grains occur in

(A) Malvaceae (B) Cucurbitaceae (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.74 Pollen tube was discovered by

(A) Strasburger (B) Hofmeister (C) Amici (D) Winkler
Q.75 Which of the following promote pollen germination and tube growth?
(A) Sucrose (B) Boron (C) Calcium (D) Potassium
Q.76 Pollen tube develops from
(A) Generative cell (B) Male gametes
(C) Vegetative cell (D) Vegetative nucleus
2.43
Q.77 Movement of pollen tube is

(A) Tactic (B) Tropic (C) Nastic (D) Autonomous
Q.78 Polyembryony was first discovered by

(A) Rosenberg (B) Hofmeister (C) Leeuwenhoek (D) Guha
Q.79 Longest pollen tube is found in

(A) Wheat (B) Maize (C) Barley (D) Rice
Q.80 Tegmen of the seed develops from

(A) Perisperm (B) Funiculum
(C) Inner integument (D) Outer integument
Q.81 The most simple and most common type of embryo sac was discovered by
n
(A) Nawaschin (B) Strasburger (C) Schleiden (D) Amici
.i
provided by
n al
Q.82 ‘Callase’ enzyme which dissolves callose of tetrad of microspores to separate four microspores is
(A) Pollen grains (B) Middle layer (C) Tapetum (D) Endothecium
ur
Q.83 Example of Epithydrophily is

o
(A) Zostera (B) Vallisneria (C) Ceratophyllum (D) Nymphea

uj
Q.84 Pollination in Yucca plant takes place by

Ed
(A) Honey bee (B) Butterfly (C) Pronuba (D) Bird
Q.85 The primary Endosperm nucleus in Polygonum type of embryo sac is

(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
Q.86 Protandry is the situation when

(A) Anther matures later than the stigma of flower
(B) Anther matures earlier than the stigma of flower
(C) Anther and stigma mature at the same time
Q.87 The anterior end of pollen tube bursts by the process of _____ in embryosac.
(A) Imbibitions (B) Exo-osmosis
(C) Enzymatic action (D) Endo-osomosis
2.44
Q.88 Which of the following nuclei participate in double fertilization?

(A) The egg (B) The secondary nucleus
(C) The two male nuclei (D) All of the above
Q.89 Perisperm is
(A) Degenerate secondary nucleus
(B) Remnant of nucellus
(C) Peripheral part of endosperm
(D) Degenerate synergids
Q.90 The main embryo developed from the structure is formed as a result of
(A) Double fertilization (B) Triple fusion
n
(C) Syngamy (D) Fusion of two polar nuclei an embryosac
.i
Q.91 After fertilization the outer integument of ovule changes into
al
(A) Testa (B) Tegmen (C) Fruit (D) Seed
n
Q.92 In Capsella the pollen tube enters through the micropyle, therefore fertilization is
ur
(A) Porogamous (B) Chalazogamous

o
(C) Mesogamous (D) Basigamous

uj
Q.93 The process of double fertilization was discovered by

Ed
(A) Hofmeister (B) Strasburger (C) Nawaschin (D) Amici

Q.94 After fertilization of the seed is developed from
(A) Ovule (B) Ovary (C) Embryo (D) Endosperm
Q.95 “The tip of pollen tube after entering into embryo sac swells and burst" due to
(A) Endosmosis (B) Exosmosis
(C) Diffusion (D) None of the above
Q.96 Double fertilization means

(A) Fusion of male gametes and ovum
(B) Fusion of two polar bodies
(C) A male gamete fused with egg and second male gamete fused with secondary nucleus
(D) All the above
2.45
Q.97 After fertilization seed coat is formed by

(A) Chalaza (B) Ovule (C) Integument (D) Embryo sac
Q.98 Pollen tube enters into embryosac of Angiosperm through the

(A) Egg cell
(B) Any one of the synergids
(C) Any one of the antipodal cells
(D) None of these
Q.99 Development of embryo occurs from

(A) Two polar nuclei of embryosac
(B) Secondary nucleus and male gametes
n
(C) Egg cell and male gamete
(D) Synergids
.i
(A) Nucellus
n al
Q.100 The fusion product of polar nuclei and male gamete is
ur
(B) Primary endosperm nucleus
(C) Zygote
o
(D) Secondary nucleus

uj
Q.101 When a diploid ♀ plant is crossed with a tetraploid ♂ plant, the endosperm will be
Ed
(A) Diploid (B) Triploid (C) Tetraploid (D) Pentaploid
Q.102 Stigma of the entomophilous flower is

(A) Sticky (B) Rough (C) Hairy (D) Smooth
Q.103 In pollination “Trap door mechanism” is found in

(A) Salvia (B) Aristolochia (C) Ficus (D) Yucca
Q.104 Synergids helps in

(A) Pollen entry into embryosac
(B) Endosperm formation
(C) Embryosac nutrition
2.46
Q.105 Embryogeny is Capsella was first of all studied by

(A) Hanstein (B) Famintzin (C) Souges (D) All of the above
Q.106 The term xenia denotes the effect of pollen on the
(A) Somatic tissue (B) Root (C) Flowers (D) Endosperm
Q.107 The function of suspensor is

(A) To provide water
(B) To provide oxygen
(C) To trust the embryo towards endosperm to provide more food
(D) To suck food
Q.108 What are x-bodies in ovules?
n
(A) Two polar nuclei
.i
(B) Disintegrating tube nucleus and synergids nucleus
(C) Filiform apparatus
n al
(D) Two male nuclei
ur
Q.109 Water of coconut is

o
(A) Endosperm (B) Nucellus (C) Endocarp (D) Mesocarp

uj
Q.110 Embryonal development in Capsella is

Ed
(A) Asteroid type (B) Caryophylloid type

(C) Crucifer type (D) Solanum type
Q.111 The suspensor in Capsella develops from

(A) Apical cell (B) Basal cell
(C) Micropylar cell (D) Apical and basal cell both
Q.112 Mosaic endosperm is characteristic of

(A) Wheat (B) Plumbago (C) Maize (D) Coconut
Q.113 Tigellum is known as

(A) Testa (B) Tegmen
(C) Both of the above (D) Main axis of the embryo
2.47
Q.114 Apex of radical is formed with help of

(A) Epibasal cells (B) Hypobasal cells
(C) Cotyledon (D) Hypophysis
Q.115 Haploid, diploid and triploid conditions respectively can be raced in

(A) Egg, Nucellus, Endosperm
(B) Antipodal, Egg, Endosperm
(C) Endosperm, Nucellus, Synergids
(D) Antipodal, Synergids, Integuments
Q.116 If the leaf of Capsella has 46 number of chromosomes then how many chromosomes number will
be there in endosperm?
n
(A) 46 (B) 23 (C) 69 (D) 138
.i
Q.117 If the nucellus cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes then the number of chromosomes
(B) 12, 36, 24

n al
present in pollen grain, endosperm and embryo will be
(A) 24, 36, 24 (C) 12, 24, 36 (D) 24, 12, 12
ur
Q.118 How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 40 seeds in the Capsella plant?
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 80 (D) 20
o
uj
Q.119 The number of nuclei taking part in double fertilization are

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
Ed
Q.120 In an angiosperm, if haploid number of chromosome is 12, then what will be the number of
chromosomes in integuments and synergids?
(A) 12, 12 (B) 24, 12 (C) 24, 24 (D) 12, 24
Q.121 How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 200 seeds of Capsella?
(A) 200 (B) 400 (C) 250 (D) 300
Q.122 In Angiosperm, if number of chromosomes in endosperm is 30, what will be the number of
chromosomes in nucellus?
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) 40
Q.123 How any meiotic divisions are essential in formation of 100 seeds in Cyperaceae family?
(A) 100 (B) 125 (C) 150 (D) 200
2.48
Q.124 How many meiotic divisions are necessary for formation of 100 functional megaspores?
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 200
Q.125 What type of germination is found in Capsella?

(A) Hypogeal (B) Epigeal (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
Q.126 In albuminous seed, the food is stored in

(A) Testa (B) Plumule (C) Cotyledon (D) Endosperm
Q.127 Helobial endosperm is restricted usually to

(A) Gymnosperm (B) Dicotyledons
(C) Order Helobiales (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.128 “Ruminate endosperm” is commonly found in seed of
n
(A) Euphorbiaceae (B) Cruciferae
.i
(C) Palmae or Arecaceae al
(D) Compositae
n
Q.129 The seeds of which type of plant have no dormancy
ur
(A) Xerophytes (B) Mesophytes
(C) Halophytes and hydrophyte (D) Mangroves
o
Q.130 What is the cause of long-dormancy in seeds?

uj
(A) Impermeable seed coat

Ed
(B) Undeveloped embryo

(C) Presence of ABA/Ferulic acid
Q.131 Low temperature induction of germination is called

(A) Vernalization (B) Stratification
(C) Scarification (D) Chilling
Q.132 The first requirement for germination of seed is

(A) Light (B) H2O
(C) Low temperature (D) Mineral salts
Q.133 Which light is more effective in inducing germination of seeds?

(A) Red (B) Blue (C) Green (D) Infra red
2.49
Q.134 Mechanical cracking of hard seed coat can induce germination of certain seeds; this phenomenon
is termed as
(A) Cracking (B) Stratification (C) Scarification (D) Chilling
Q.135 During seed germination
(A) Heat is liberated (B) Starch is synthesized
(C) Light is a absorbed (D) Fat is synthesized
Q.136 What type of pattern of endosperm development occurs in Capsella?

(A) Cellular type (B) Nuclear type
(C) Helobial type (D) None of the above
Q.137 Cotyledons are absent in seed of

(A) Capsella (B) Cuscuta (C) Santalum (D) Both (B) and (C)
.i n
Q.138 The viability of seeds can be ascertained with the help of
(A) I.A.A. (B) A.B.A.
n al (C) T.T.C. (D) N.A.D.P.
Q.139 Which hormone can break dormancy of seed?

ur
(A) ABA (B) Auxin (C) GA (D) Coumarin

o
Q.140 The most common natural inhibitor of seed germination is

uj
(A) Ferulic acid (B) Abscisic acid (C) Citric acid (D) Phytochrome
Ed
Q.141 Which of the following is not essential for the germination of seeds?
(A) Light (B) Temperature (C) O2 (D) H2O
Q.142 In which of the following plants cotyledons remains under ground during germination?
(A) Rhizophora (B) Gram (C) Bean (D) Castor
Q.143 In which part of the Embryo maximum growth takes place?

(A) Radicle (B) Plumule (C) Epicotyls (D) Hypocotyls
Q.144 The chemical which can break bud dormancy by its spray is
(A) IAA (B) 2, 4 – D (C) Zeatin (D) Thiourea
Q.145 Seeds of Gram are

(A) Exalbuminous and epigeal (B) Exalbuminous and hypogeal
(C) Albuminous and epigeal (D) Albuminous and hypogeal
2.50
Q.146 In which part of embryo maximum growth takes place in hypogeal germination?
(A) Plumule (B) Radical (C) Epicotyls (D) Hypocotyls
Q.147 At which temperature, germination of seed is not possible in most of the plants?
(A) 10° – 15°C (B) 5° – 10°C (C) 0° – 5°C (D) 20° – 25°C
Q.148 The bud dormancy is Potato is due to
(A) ABA (B) Ethylene (C) Inhibitor-β (D) Phenolics
Q.149 Important “Aerollergens” in India is

(A) Serjania (B) Amaranthus (C) Borassus (D) Holoptelia
Q.150 In seeds, characterized by hypogeal germination, cotyledons generally do not become

green because
n
(A) They lack chloroplast
.i
(B) They developed very early
(C) Contains inhibitor
n al
(D) They remains below the soil
ur
Q.151 Which statement is false?

o
(A) Pollens are received by stigma

uj
(B) Pollen tube discovered by Amici

(C) Pollen-kitt isabsent on pollen grains of Capsella
Ed
(D) Tigellum is the main axis of embryo
Q.152 Each sporogenous tissue is potential pollen or microspore mother cell; division taking place in
sporogenous cell is
(A) Meiosis (B) Mitosis (C) Endomitosis (D) Amitosis
Q.153 In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at

(A) One celled state (B) Three nuclei stage
(C) Two celled stage (D) Three celled stage
Q.154 Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people often
leading to chronic respiratory disorder such as
(A) Asthma (B) Bronchitis (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Emphysema
2.51
Q.155 In a pollen grain the small cell which is spindle shaped, with dense cytoplasm is
(A) Vegetative cell (B) Generative cell
(C) Tube cell (D) None of these
Q.156 A typical angiosperm embryosac at maturity has
(A) 7 celled – 8 nucleate (B) 9 celled – 7 nucleate
(C) 3 celled – 3 nucleate (D) 2 celled – 2 nucleate
Q.157 Arising from placenta is megasporangium which is commonly known as
(A) Ovule (B) Ovary (C) Ovarian cavity (D) Stamen
Q.158 Single shield shape cotyledon of grass is known as

(A) Tigellum (B) Scutellum (C) Coleptile (D) None of these
n
Q.159 Epicotyl has a shoot apex and few leaf primordial enclosed in a hollow foliar structure known as
.i
(A) Coleoptile (B) Coleorhizae (C) Scutellum (D) Tigellum
Q.160 Chasmocliestogamous flowers are present in

n al
(A) Viola (Common pansy) (B) Oxalis
ur
(C) Commelina (D) All of the above

o
Q.161 Although in most species fruits are result of fertilization, there are a few species in which fruit
uj
develops without fertilization – this process is known as

(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Parthenogenesis
Ed
(C) Amphimixis (D) Apomixes
Q.162 Non-albuminous seeds are present in

(A) Pisum (Pea) (B) Arachis (Ground nut)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.163 Remnant of nucellus is known as

(A) Scutellum (B) Pericarp (C) Tigellum (D) Perisperm
Q.164 The coconut water from tender coconut that you are familiar with is
(A) Nuclear endosperm (B) Cellular endosperm
(C) Helobial endosperm (D) None of these
2.52
Q.165 One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus; the process is
known as
(A) Syngamy (B) Triple fusion
(C) Double fertilization (D) None of these
Q.166 Endosperm development precedes embryo development; the endosperm of angiospermic plant is
(A) Triploid (B) Diploid (C) Haploid (D) Tetraploid
Q.167 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of same plant is called
(A) Xenogamy (B) Autogamy (C) Geitonogamy (D) Allogamy
Q.168 Perisperm is present in

(A) Beet (B) Black pepper
n
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) All angiosperms
.i
Q.169 The part of pistil which acts as landing platform for pollen grain is
al
(A) Stigma (B) Style (C) Ovule (D) Ovary
n
Q.170 The inner most wall layer of anther is tapetum; the main function of tapetum is
ur
(A) Division (B) Support (C) Nutrition (D) None of these

o
Q.171 Two non-motile male gametes in angiosperm are produced by

uj
(A) Generative cell

Ed
(B) Microspore mother cell

(C) Vegetative cell
(D) Tube cell
Q.172 The part of castor seed that yields oil is

(A) Cotyledon (B) Caruncle (C) Endosperm (D) Nucellus
Q.173 Which one of the following is false fruit?

(A) Apple (B) Strawberry (C) Cashew (D) All of the above
Q.174 Alerone layer that is protein rich found in some cereals is a part of
(A) Endosperm (B) Embryo (C) Tegmen (D) Testa
2.53
Q.175 In angiosperms functional megaspore generally develops into

(A) Micropylar end (B) Chalazal end
Q.176 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

(A) Citrus (B) Mango (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Capsella

Q.1 Embryo of Sunflower has [AIPMT 1998]
n
(A) Two cotyledons (B) One cotyledons
.i
(C) Eight cotyledons (D) Cotyledon absent
Q.2 Ornithophily takes place in

n al [AIPMT 1999]
(A) Yellow flower having nectarines (B) Scented flower
ur
(C) Flower with charming colour (D) Modified corolla

o
Q.3 The plant having largest flower is [AIPMT 1999]

uj
(A) Total stem parasite (B) Epithyte

(C) Total root parasite (D) Partial stem parasite
Ed
Q.4 Eight nucleated embryosac is [AIPMT 2000]

(A) Only monosporic (B) Only bisporic
(C) Only tetrasporic (D) Any of the above
Q.5 Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by [AIPMT 2000]

(A) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete
(B) One polar nuclei and one male gamete
(C) Ovum and male gamete
(D) Two polar nuclei and two male gametes
2.54
Q.6 By which action a seed coat becomes permeable to water? [AIPMT 2000]
(A) Scarification (B) Stratification
(C) Vernalization (D) All of the above
Q.7 Anemophily type of pollination is found in [AIPMT 2001]

(A) Salvia (B) Bottle brush (C) Vallisneria (D) Coconut
Q.8 What is the eyes of Potato? [AIPMT 2001]

(A) Axillary bud (B) Accessory bud
(C) Adventitious bud (D) Apical bud
Q.9 Which one breaks the dormancy of Potato tuber? [AIPMT 2010]
(A) Gibberellins (B) IAA
n
(C) ABA (D) Zeatin
.i
mature pollen grains?
n al
Q.10 In grass what happens in microspore mother cell for the formation of
[AIPMT 2001]
(A) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
ur
(B) One meiotic and one mitotic division

(C) One meiotic division
o
(D) One mitotic division

uj
Q.11 Adventive embryony is Citrus is due to [AIPMT 2001]

Ed
(A) Nucellus (B) Integuments

(C) Zygotic embryo (D) Fertilized egg
Q.12 In Angiosperms pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Central cell (B) Antipodal cells
(C) Egg cell (D) Synergids
Q.13 What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule? [AIPMT 2002]

(A) Upward (B) Downward
(C) Right (D) Left
2.55
Q.14 In Angiosperms all the four microspores of tetrad are covered by a layer which
is formed by [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Pectocellulose (B) Callose
(C) Cellulose (D) Sporopollenin
Q.15 Seed dormancy is due to the presence of [AIPMT 2002]

(A) Ethylene (B) Abscisic acid (C) I.A.A. (D) Starch
Q.16 In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to [AIPMT 2003]

(A) Only the wall of the sporangium
(B) Both wall and the sporogenous cells
(C) Wall and the tapetum
n
(D) Only tapetum and sporogenous cells
.i
Q.17 The aleurone layer in Maize grain is specially rich in [AIPMT 2003]
(A) Proteins (B) Starch
n al (C) Lipids (D) Auxins
Q.18 Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to [AIPMT 2004]

ur
(A) Formation of pollen

(B) Development of anther
o
(C) Opening of flower bud

uj
(D) Reception of pollen by stigma

Ed
Q.19 An ovule which becomes curved so the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles
to the funicle is [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Campylotropous (B) Anatropous
(C) Orthotropous (D) Hemitropous
Q.20 When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetrapoloid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the
resulting seed is [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Pentaploidy (B) Diploidy (C) Triploidy (D) Tetraploidy
Q.21 Monothecous anther is found in which family [RPMT 2000]

(A) Malvaceae (B) Liliaceae (C) Brassicaceae (D) Asteraceae
2.56
Q.22 Onagrad type of embryo development is found in [RPMT 2000]

(A) Solanum (B) Capsella (C) Lillium (D) Hibiscus
Q.23 In Capsella which type of embryosac is found? [RPMT 2000]

(A) Bisporic (B) Monosporic (C) Tetrasporic (D) Trisporic
Q.24 All the cells in Polygonum type of embryo sac are [RPMT 2000]
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid
(C) Haploid and diploid (D) Haploid and polyploid
Q.25 In which family pollinia are found? [RPMT 2000]

(A) Papilionaceae (B) Asteraceae
(C) Asclepiadaceae (D) Apocyanaceae
.i n
Q.26 When the pollens of one flower fall on the stigma of another flower of the same plant then it is known
as al [RPMT 2001]
(A) Cliestogamy (B) Allogamy
n
(C) Autogamy (D) Dichogamy
ur
Q.27 What is the liquid part of green Coconut? [RPMT 2001]

o
(A) Endosperm (B) Female gametophyte

uj
(C) Nucellus (D) Embryo

Ed
Q.28 Parthenogenesis occurs [RPMT 2001]

(A) When embryo is formed without the fusion of egg and the sperm
(B) When embryo is formed by the fusion of egg and sperm
(C) When embryo is formed from another cells
(D) When sperm produces the embryo directly
Q.29 Nucellus is found in [RPMT 2001]

(A) Cell (B) Pollen (C) Ovule (D) Leaf
Q.30 The nutritive layer of microsporangia of Capsella is [RPMT 2002]

(A) Endothecium (B) Exothecium
(C) Sporogenous tissue (D) Tapetum
2.57
Q.31 The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form embryo sac is [RPMT 2002]
(A) Megaspore mother cell (B) Microspore mother cell
(C) Functional megaspore (D) Nonfunctional megaspore
Q.32 Seed coat is derived from [RPMT 2002]

(A) Pericarp (B) Epicarp
(C) Integument of ovule (D) Nucellus
Q.33 What is pollen grain? [RPMT 2002]

(A) Microspore mother cell (B) Male gamete
(C) Male gametophyte (D) Partially developed embryo
Q.34 Anther culture yields some haploid and diploid plants. Diploid plants are produced from
n
[RPMT 2003]
.i
(A) Zygote (B) Seed coat
(C) Anther wall
n al
(D) Wall of pollen grains
Q.35 Endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of [RPMT 2003]

ur
(A) 2 nuclei (B) 3 nuclei (C) 4 nuclei (D) 5 nuclei

o
Q.36 Embryo sac is represented by [RPMT 2004]

uj
(A) Megagametophyte (B) Megasporophyll

(C) Megagametes (D) Megaspore
Ed
Q.37 Double fertilization is essential for formation of [RPMT 2004]

(A) Cotyledons (B) Seed coat (C) Endosperm (D) Nucellus
Q.38 Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is called [RPMT 2004]

(A) Porogamy (B) Synagamy (C) Chalazogamy (D) Misogamy
Q.39 Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine is
composed of [AIIMS 2003]
(A) Cutting (B) Suberin (C) Sporopollenin (D) Callose
2.58
Q.40 The pollen tube usually enters the embryosac [AIIMS 2004]
(A) Through one of the synergids
(B) By directly penetrating the egg
(C) Between one synergid and central cell
(D) By knocking of the antipodal cells
Q.41 In which one pair both the plants can be vegatatively propagated by
leaf pieces? [AIPMT 2005]
(A) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(B) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(C) Agave and Kalanchoe
(D) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
.i n
Q.42 In a type of apomixes known as adventives embryony, embryos develop directly
from the
(A) Nucellus or integuments
n al [AIPMT 2005]
(B) Synergids or antipodal in an embryosac

ur
(C) Accessory embryosac in the ovule

o
(D) Zygote
uj
Q.43 Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tubeenter the embryo sac? [AIPMT 2005]
Ed
(A) Egg cell (B) Central cell

(C) Persistant synergid (D) Degenerated synergid
Q.44 Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe shaped
and the funiculus and micropyle are close to each other? [AIPMT 2005]
(A) Circinotropous (B) Anatropous
(C) Amphitropous (D) Atropous
Q.45 What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with
8 chromosomes in its synergids? [AIPMT 2006]
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) 8
2.59
Q.46 Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist condition to break its dormancy is called
[AIPMT 2006]
(A) Scarification (B) Vernalization
(C) Chelation (D) Stratification
Q.47 The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is [AIPMT 2006]
(A) 2 + 4 + 2 (B) 3 + 2 + 3 (C) 2 + 3 + 3 (D) 3 + 3 + 2
Q.48 In a Cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by [AIPMT 2006]
(A) Coleorhiza (B) Scutellum (C) Prophyll (D) Coleoptile
Q.49 Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are [AIPMT 2006]
(A) Hairs (B) Anthers (C) Styles (D) Ovaries
n
Q.50 In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril? [AIPMT 2006]
.i
(A) Litchi (B) Custard apple
(C) Pomegranate
n al
(D) Orange
Q.51 Embryo sac represents [RPMT 2006]

ur
(A) Macrogamete (B) Macrospore

o
(C) Macrosprophyll (D) Macrogametophyte

uj
Q.52 Double fertilization involves [AIIMS 2005]

Ed
(A) Fertilization of the egg by two male gametes

(B) Fertilization of two eggs in the same embryo sac by two sperms brought by one pollen tube
(C) Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two sperms brought by different pollen tubes
(D) Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two sperms brought by the same pollen tube
Q.53 A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of
[AIIMS 2006]
(A) Stock (B) Scion
(C) Both stock and scion (D) Neither stock nor scion
Q.54 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of [AIPMT 2007]
(A) Microspore mother cell (B) Microspore
(C) Generative cell (D) Vegetative cell
2.60
Q.55 Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall? [AIPMT 2007]
(A) Pollen grain (B) Microspore mother cell
(C) Male gamete (D) Egg
Q.56 Unisexuality of flowers prevents [AIPMT 2008]

(A) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
(B) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(C) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(D) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
Q.57 Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of [AIPMT 2008]

(A) Pea (B) Maize (C) Coconut (D) Castor
n
Q.58 Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action? [AIPMT 2008]
.i
(A) Pollen exine (B) Leaf cuticle
(C) Cork
n al
(D) Wood fibre
Q.59 What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into vacoule? [AIPMT 2008]
ur
(A) It brings about opening of the pollen tube

(B) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
o
(C) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid

uj
(D) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac
Ed
Q.60 Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of
chromosomes? [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(B) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
(C) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(D) Egg cell and antipodal cells
Q.61 An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is [AIPMT 2009]
(A) Castor (B) Cotton (C) Coffee (D) Lily
Q.62 What does Angiosperm mean? [RPMT 2007]

(A) Naked seed (B) Covered seed
(C) Leaf fall (D) Seed bud
2.61
Q.63 How many times flowering takes place in biennial plants? [RPMT 2007]
(A) Once (B) Twice (C) Many (D) None of these
Q.64 Endosperm of Angiosperm is [RPMT 2007]

(A) 2n (B) 3n (C) n (D) 2n + 1
Q.65 The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other
monocotyledons? [AIPMT (Pre.) 2010]
(A) Plumule (B) Cotyledon (C) Endosperm (D) Aleurone layer
Q.66 Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from [AIPMT (Pre.) 2010]

(A) Diploid egg (B) Synergids
(C) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (D) Antipodal cells
n
Q.67 Wind pollinated flowers are [AIPMT (Pre.) 2010]
.i
(A) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen
al
(B) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
n
(C) Small, producing large number dry pollen grains
ur
(D) Large producing abundant nectar and pollen

o
Q.68 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
uj
[AIPMT (Pre.) 2010]

(A) Autogamy (B) Xenogamy
Ed
(C) Geitonogamy (D) Karyogamy
Q.69 What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis? [AIPMT (M) 2011]
(A) Both produces progency identical to the parent.
(B) Both are applicable to only dicot plants.
(C) Both bypass the flowering phase.
(D) Both occur round the year.
Q.70 In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into [AIPMT (M) 2011]
(A) Pollen sac (B) Embryo sac
(C) Ovule (D) Endosperm
2.62
Q.71 Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of [AIPMT (Pre.) 2011]

(A) Suspensor (B) Egg (C) Synergid (D) Zygote
Q.72 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of [AIPMT (Pre.) 2011]

(A) Citrus (B) Gossypium
(C) Triticum (D) Brassica
Q.73 In which one of the following pollination is autogamous? [AIPMT (Pre.) 2011]
(A) Geitonogamy (B) Xenogamy
(C) Chasmogamy (D) Clestogamy
Q.74 What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in
its root tip cells? [AIPMT (Pre.) 2011]
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(A) 42 (B) 63 (C) 84 (D) 21
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2.63
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 A Q.2 A Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 D Q.6 C
Q.7 C Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 A Q.12 C
Q.13 B Q.14 D Q.15 C Q.16 C Q.17 D Q.18 B
Q.19 D Q.20 C Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 A
Q.25 D Q.26 C Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 B Q.30 B
Q.31 B Q.32 D Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 C Q.36 C
n
Q.37 C Q.38 B Q.39 D Q.40 C Q.41 A Q.42 B
.i
Q.43 B Q.44 C Q.45 C Q.46 B Q.47 D Q.48 B
Q.49 B Q.50 B Q.51 B
n al
Q.52 C Q.53 D Q.54 D
Q.55 D Q.56 A Q.57 D Q.58 C Q.59 D Q.60 B
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Q.61 B Q.62 B Q.63 C Q.64 B Q.65 D Q.66 A
Q.67 C Q.68 A Q.69 C Q.70 A Q.71 C Q.72 C
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Q.73 C Q.74 C Q.75 B Q.76 C Q.77 B Q.78 C

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Q.79 B Q.80 C Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 C

Ed
Q.85 C Q.86 B Q.87 D Q.88 D Q.89 B Q.90 C

Q.91 A Q.92 A Q.93 C Q.94 A Q.95 A Q.96 C
Q.97 C Q.98 B Q.99 C Q.100 B Q.101 C Q.102 B
Q.103 C Q.104 D Q.105 A Q.106 D Q.107 C Q.108 B
Q.109 A Q.110 C Q.111 B Q.112 C Q.113 D Q.114 D
Q.115 A Q.116 C Q.117 B Q.118 A Q.119 D Q.120 B
Q.121 C Q.122 C Q.123 D Q.124 C Q.125 B Q.126 D
Q.127 C Q.128 C Q.129 D Q.130 D Q.131 B Q.132 B
Q.133 A Q.134 A Q.135 A Q.136 B Q.137 D Q.138 C
Q.140 B Q.141 A Q.142 B Q.143 D Q.144 D Q.145 B
Q.146 C Q.147 C Q.148 C Q.149 B Q.150 D Q.151 C
2.64
Q.152 A Q.153 C Q.154 C Q155 B Q.156 A Q157 A

Q.158 B Q.159 A Q.160 D Q.161 A Q.162 C Q.163 D
Q.164 A Q.165 A Q.166 A Q.167 C Q.168 C Q.169 A
Q. 170 C Q.171 A Q.172 C Q.173 D Q.174 A Q.175 B
Q.176 C

Q.1 A Q.2 A Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 A Q.6 A
Q.7 D Q.8 A Q.9 A Q.10 B Q.11 A Q.12 D
.i n
Q.13 B Q.14 B Q.15 B Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 C
Q.19 D
Q.25 C
Q.20 D
Q.26 C
Q.21 A
Q.27 A
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Q.22 B
Q.28 A
Q.23 B
Q.29 C
Q.24 A
Q.30 D
Q.31 C Q.32 C Q.33 C Q.34 C Q.35 B Q.36 A
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Q.37 C Q.38 A Q.39 C Q.40 A Q.41 A Q.42 A

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Q.43 D Q.44 C Q.45 B Q.46 D Q.47 B Q.48 B

uj
Q.49 C Q.50 A Q.51 D Q.52 D Q.53 B Q.54 C

Ed
Q.55 B Q.56 C Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 C Q.60 D

Q.61 A Q.62 B Q.63 A Q.64 B Q.65 B Q.66 C
Q.67 C Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 B Q.71 C Q.72 A
Q.73 D Q.74 B
|VOL.I|Unit 1
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Human Reproduction
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3.1
CHAPTER 3
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HUMAN REPRODUCTION
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Sexual reproduction is a process by which
INTRODUCTION organisms produce offspring through the union of
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male and female germ cells which are also known

MALE AND FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEMS
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as gametes.
MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY OF THE TESTIS AND The union of the male and female gamete is called
Ed
OVARY fertilization. The cell resulting from this union will

have one set of chromosomes from each parent.
GAMETOGENESIS MENSTRUAL CYCLE
Males and females generally have anatomically
FERTILIZATION distinct reproductive organs that are adapted for
EMBRYO DEVELOPMENT producing gametes, facilitating fertilization, and
in females it will also sustain the growth and the
IMPLANTATION development of the growing fetus.
PREGNANCY AND PLACENTA FORMATION We can group the male and female reproductive
PARTURITION (ELEMENTARY IDEA) organs according to their function:
LACTATION (ELEMENTARY IDEA) y The gonads: The testes in males and ovaries
in females produce gametes and secrete sex
hormones.
y Ducts: There is a ductal system which then
stores and transports the gametes.
3.2
Human Reproduction
1. Accessory sex glands: They produce the substances that protect the gametes and facilitate their
movements.
2. Supporting structures: Such as the penis in males and the vagina in females, assist the delivery of
gametes, and the uterus in females assist in growth of the embryo in and fetus during pregnancy.
Objectives
At the end of this chapter, you will able to:
y Understanding of sexual reproduction in human.
y Structural and physiological anatomy of male and female sexual organs
y Gametogenesis
y Role of menstrual cycle in reproduction
y Fertilization and further consecutive events leading to conception
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y Overall idea of pregnancy, role of placenta and parturition
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
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y Gynecology is the specialized branch of medicine which deals with the diagnosis of
treatment of diseases of the reproductive system
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y The branch of medicine that deals with male disorders, especially infertility and sexual
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dysfunction is called Andrology.

Ed
2. Male Reproductive System

The functions of the male reproductive system can be divided into these major subdivisions:
y Spermatogenesis – meaning the formation of sperms
y Regulation of male reproductive function by various hormones.
y Transfer of sperms
Organs of the male reproductive system:
y Testes – Male gonads
y System of ducts – Epididymis, ductus deferens or the vasa deferentia, ejaculatory ducts, and the
urethra.
y Accessory sex glands – Seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbourethral or Cowper’s glands
y Several external supporting structures like scrotum and penis.
3.3
Human Reproduction
Human Male Reproductive System

It consists of the following parts:
y Scrotum: Externally it looks like a pouch of
pigmented skin separated into lateral portions
by a median ridge called raphe. Internally,
scrotal septum divides it into two separate sacs.
Each sacs has one testis. Normal temperature
of testes in the scrotum is about 2-3°C lower
than the internal body temperature. This
temperature is ideal for developing sperms. The
scrotum remains connected with the abdomen
or pelvic cavity by the inguinal canals. The Figure 3.1: Side view of the male reproductive
spermatic cord which is formed from the anatomy
spermatic artery, vein and nerves bound
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together with the connective tissue passes into the testis through the inguinal canal.
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y Testes: They are the primary sex organs in man or the male gonads. They develop during the early
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fetal life in the abdominal cavity but during the 7th month of development they descend into the scrotum
through the inguinal canals. This event is called as descent of testis. Therefore, a pair of testis is
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suspended in the scrotum by the spermatic cords. A fibrous cord that extends the caudal end of the
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scrotal wall is called gubernaculum.

Features of the testis: Each testis is oval in shape with a length of 4 - 5 cm and a width of 2 - 3
o
०
cm. A peritoneal covering called mesorchium supports the testis.
uj
० Protective coverings of the testis or the tunicae: The testis is covered by serous membrane
Ed
called tunica vaginalis derived from the peritoneum and forms during the descent of the testis.
Internal to the visceral layer, the testis is surrounded by a white fibrous capsule composed of
dense irregular connective tissue, the tunica albuginea. It extends inwards forming the septa that
divides each testes into internal compartments called as lobules. The tunica vasculosa consists of
a network of capillaries supported by delicate connective tissue which lines the tunica albuginea.
० Testicular lobules: There are around 200 - 300 lobules in each testis, each lobule contains 1 to
3 tightly coiled tubules, the seminiferous tubules. Seminiferous tubules are where the sperms are
actually produced. The process by which the seminiferous tubules of the testes produce sperms is
called spermatogenesis. The walls of the seminiferous tubules contain two types of cells:
i. Spermatogenic cells: The sperm forming cells
ii. Sustentacular cells or the cells of Sertoli: They have several functions in supporting
spermatogenesis.
० Cells of Sertoli: They support developing germ cells and provide them with nutrition especially
3.4
Human Reproduction
spermatids. Sertoli cells secrete androgen binding protein (ABP) that concentrates testosterone
in the seminiferous tubules. Sertoli cells secrete another protein called inhibin which suppresses
FSH synthesis.The cuboidal cells undergo mitosis to produce spermatogonia. Spermatogonia
grow into primary spermatocytes which undergo meiosis, producing haploid cells, first secondary
spermatocytes and then the spermatids. The latter convert into spermatozoa (sperms). Sertoli
cells provide nutrition to the developing sperms.
० Interstitial cells or the Leydig’s cells: This is the endocrine portion of the testes. In the spaces
between adjacent seminiferous tubules are a cluster of cells called the interstitial cells or
Leydig’s cells. They secrete testosterone, the most important Androgen. Androgen is a hormone
that promotes the development of masculine characteristics. Testosterone also promotes a man’s
libido (sex drive).
० Rete testis: Also known as vasa efferentia they are a part of the testis as well. The seminiferous
tubules are closed at one end but on the other side they join to a form a network the rete testis from
whose ciliated ductules, the vasa efferentia arise.
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Thus the functions of the testis are basically I) production of sperms; II) secretion of male sex hormones.
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DID YOU KNOW
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In response to cold temperature the dartos muscle (or the smooth muscles present
? in the septum) along with the cremaster muscle (which is a series of band of small
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skeletal muscles which are associated with the testis in the scrotum), contract which
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brings the testes closer to the where they can absorb body heat. Thus temperature
regulation of the testes is maintained by the scrotum.
Ed
Figure 3.2: Diagram of a section of a seminiferous tubule

3.5
Human Reproduction
y Reproductive System Ducts in Males:

० Epididymis: The epididymis is a comma shaped organ about 4 cm which is a mass of long narrow
closely coiled tubule which lies along the posterior border of each testis. At the anterior end of
the testis it is called caput epididymis (caput means head), the middle part is called the corpus
epididymis (corpus means the body) and posterior end part is called as cauda epididymis (cauda
means tail).
Functions: The epididymis stores the sperms and also secretes a fluid which is considered to
nourish the sperms.
० Vasa deferentia: At its distal end the cauda epididymis continues as the ductus epididymis which
is measured about 6 mt. or 20 ft. in length when straightened out. In the tail or cauda epididymis
the ductus becomes less convoluted and its diameter increases. Beyond this point the duct is
referred to as the ductus deferens or vas deferens. The vas deferens leaves the scrotal sac and
enters the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal.The vas deferens loops around the urinary
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bladder where it is joined by a duct from the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct.
.i
Function: Vasa deferentia carry sperms.
० al
Ejaculatory ducts: The ejaculatory ducts are two short tubes each formed by the union of a duct
from a seminal vesicle and a vas deferens. They pass through the prostatic part of the urethra.The
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ejaculatory ducts are composed of the fibrous, muscular and columnar epithelial tissue.
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Function: Ejaculatory ducts carry sperms and secretions of the seminal vesicles.
y Urethra: In male, the urethra is the common duct of the reproductive and urinary systems, it serves as
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a passageway for both semen and urine. It is about 20 cm or 8 inch. It passes through the prostate,
uj
deep muscles of the perineum and its divided into three parts. i) The prostatic urethra: It’s about
2 - 3 cm long and passes through the prostate. ii) The membranous urethra: Further the prostatic
Ed
urethra through the deep muscles of the perineum where it is known as intermediate or membranous
urethra. This is about 1cm in length. iii) Penile urethra: As this duct further passes through the corpus
spongiosum of the penis, it is known as the penile or spongy urethra which is about 15 to 20 cm long.
The spongy urethra ends at the external urethral orifice also known as the urinary meatus.
There are two urethral sphincters – the internal sphincter consists mainly of smooth muscle fibres situated
at the neck of the prostate gland and the external sphincter consists of the striated muscle fibres surrounding
membranous part of the urethra.
y Penis: The penis is male genitalia (male copulatory organ). At the tip of the glans penis (the end part
or the penis) is a slit like opening called the external urethral orifice or urinogenital aperture. The
penis performs two main functions i.e. conducting urine from the body and transferring semen into the
reproductive tract of the female during sexual intercourse. The penis contains three cylindrical masses
of erectile tissue: two dorsal which are called corpora cavernosa and one ventral one called corpus
spongiosum. A fibrous tissue surrounds these bodies. The corpus spongiosum which contains the
penile urethra, get enlarged at the end of the penis and forms the glans penis.This is the most sensitive
3.6
Human Reproduction
part of the penis.The glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin, the prepuce or foreskin. During
sexual arousal the three bundles of tissues in the penis become engorged with blood and cause an
erection.
Functions: The penis carries both urine and semen. The penis helps in copulation.
y Male Accessory glands:
० Seminal vesicle: They are a pair of convoluted, loculated tube like structures which are located
near the base of the bladder. Their ducts join the vasa deferentia to form the ejaculatory ducts. They
secrete a mucoid material containing fructose, citric acid and other nutrient substances as well as
large quantities of prostaglandins and fibrinogen (clotting protein). During the process of emission
and ejaculation, each seminal vesicles empties its contents into the ejaculatory duct shortly after
the vas deferens empties the sperm. The seminal secretions forms the bulk that is around 60%
of the volume of semen. The fructose is a source of energy to the sperm. Prostaglandins help in
two ways- They react with the female cervical mucus and make it more receptive to the sperm
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movement and second they stimulate uterine contractions and thus may help the sperm to be
moved towards the female’s oviduct, where the fertilization takes place. The clotting proteins help
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the semen coagulate after ejaculation.
०
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Prostate gland: The prostate gland is simple chestnut shaped gland surrounding the urethra.
The prostate gland secretes a thin milky fluid that contains calcium, citrate ion, phosphate ion,
a clotting enzyme and profibrinolysin. The secretion of prostatic gland adds about 25% to the
ur
volume of semen. This secretion is slightly towards alkaline which is quite important because the
fluid from vas deferens is slightly acidic due to presence of citric acid in the seminal vesicles and
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the metabolic end products of the sperms. Also the vaginal secretions of the female are acidic
uj
pH 3.5 – 4.0. Sperms do not become motile until the pH rises upto 6.0 – 6.5. Therefore, the alkaline
prostatic secretions help in counteracting the acidity and helping the sperms regain motility.
Ed
० Bulbourethral or Cowper’s glands: The bulbourethral glands are two small pea shaped
structures located on the membranous urethra however their ducts open into the spongy urethra.
During sexual arousal the Cowper’s glands secrete an alkaline secretion which protects the
sperms by neutralizing the acids in the urine in the urethra. At the same time they secrete mucus
which lubricates the end of the penis and the lining of the urethra thereby decreasing the number
of sperms damaged during ejaculation.
y Semen: Semen is a mixture of sperm and secretions of seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbourethral
glands.The volume of semen in an ejaculation is 2.5 to 5 ml. with a sperm count concentration of
50 - 150 million per ml. This large number of sperm is required because only a tiny fraction of this
number ever reaches the secondary oocyte. Semen has a slightly acidic pH of 7.2 to 7.7. The prostatic
secretion gives semen a white colour and milky appearance while the secretions from seminal vesicles
and bulbourethral glands give it a sticky consistency. Seminal fluid provides sperms with transportation
medium, nutrients and protection from the acidic environment of the male’s urethra and the female’s
vagina.
3.7
Human Reproduction
DID YOU KNOW

Once ejaculated semen coagulates within 5 mins due to presence of clotting proteins of
the seminal vesicles. After 10 – 20 minutes semen reliquefies because PSA (prostate
specific antigen) and proteolytic enzymes produced by the prostate break down the
clot. Abnormal or delayed liquefaction of clotted sperm may cause complete or partial
immobilization thereby inhibiting their movement through the cervix of the uterus.
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A. B.
A. Sectional view of male pelvis

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Figure 3.3: Section through male pelvis
B. Sectional view of male pelvis with Testis open
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Figure 3.4: Path of the sperm in the male reproductive system
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. ________________ is a sugar found in semen and is never produced in the female
body.
2. The pH of the semen from a healthy man is (higher than/lower than/equal to) 7.0.
3. In the scrotal sac the testes remain (warmer/cooler) than the core body.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Since fructose is not produced only by seminal vesicles and not produced anywhere in the
female body, it provides a great forensic test for rape. The presence of fructose in the female
genital tract confirms sexual intercourse.
3.8
Human Reproduction
3. Female Reproductive System

The functions of the female reproductive system can be divided into major parts as follows:
y Preparation of the female body for conception and pregnancy
y The period of pregnancy itself
y Parturition
Organs of the female reproductive system:
y Ovaries ( female gonads)
y Uterine tubes
y Uterus
y Vagina
y External genitalia
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Figure 3.5: Diagrammatic view of a section of the human

female pelvis
Human Female Reproductive System
It consists of the following parts:
y Ovaries: Ovaries are a pair of glands that are of the shape of unshelled almonds in both size and
shape (2 - 4 cm). They are the female gonads. The ovaries one on each side of the uterus descend
on the upper part of the superior portion of the pelvic cavity during the third month of development.
There are a series of ligaments which hold them in position. The broad ligament of the uterus which is
a part of peritoneum attaches to the ovary by a fold of the same which is called the mesovarium. The
ovarium ligament anchors the ovaries to the uterus and the suspensory ligament attaches them to the
pelvic wall.
The ovary produces female sex hormones and ova.
The ovary is covered by a layer of cuboidal epithelium called the germinal epithelium.
3.9
Human Reproduction
The germinal epithelium is covered by visceral peritoneum. Under the epithelium is the tunica albuginea –
layer of connective tissue and underlying it is the ovarian stroma. The ovarian stroma consists of a dense
outer layer called the cortex and a less dense inner portion called the medulla. The ovarian cortex is a
region just beneath the tunica albuginea. It consists of ovarian follicles and surrounded by dense irregular
connective tissue. The ovarian medulla is deep to the cortex, the border between the two is indistinct but
the medulla has more loosely arranged connective tissue and contains blood vessels, lymphatic vessels
and nerves. Ovarian follicles are located in the cortex and they are in various stages of development. The
mature (Graafian) follicle is a large fluid filled follicle ready to rupture and release the secondary oocyte.
Corpus luteum contains the remnants of the follicle after rupture. In case of no fertilization the corpus
luteum degenerates into a fibrous scar called as Corpus albicans.
At birth approximately 200,000 – 2,000,000 primary oocyte still remain in each of the ovary. Of these
about 40,000 are still present during puberty and around 400 will mature and ovulate during a woman’s
reproductive period .The remainder of them will undergo atresia (Atresia is a process by which the
follicles degenerate). Every month after puberty until menopause under the influence of FSH and LH
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secreted by the anterior pituitary several primordial follicles develop. Of these only a single reach
maturity. The release of secondary oocyte from the ovary is called as ovulation. It occurs due to
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rupturing of ovarian follicle and the wall of the ovary. Generally one oocyte is released every menstrual
40 - 50 years around 400 - 450 ova are produced.

n al
cycle alternatively from each ovary. In an average reproductive life of a woman which lasts around
As a follicle starts to grow it becomes the primary follicle. Each primary follicle consists of a primary
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oocyte surrounded by series of cuboidal and low columnar cells called granulosa cells.The outermost
granulose cells rest on a basement membrane.
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As the follicle grows it develops a clear glycoprotein layer between the granulosa cells and primary
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oocyte. And the stromal cells surrounding the basement membrane begin to form an organized layer
called theca folliculi. Further as the primary follicle matures to form a secondary follicle. In a secondary
Ed
follicle the theca differentiates into two layers:

i. Theca interna – which is highly vascularized internal layer of cuboidal secretory cells that secrete
estrogens.
ii. Theca externa – an external layer of stromal cells and collagen fibres.
Further the granulose cells begin to secrete a follicular fluid which builds up in the cavity called an antrum in
the centre of the follicle. The innermost layer of granulosa cells become firmly attached to the zona pellucida
and are now called as the corona radiata.
While maturing some of the follicle cells produce estrogens, mainly estradiol, after ovulation may cells
remain collapsed on the surface of the ovary? The antrum is filled with a partially clotted fluid. The follicular
cells then enlarge and filled with yellowish granules called lutein. Such a follicle is called corpus luteum
meaning a yellow body.
3.10
Human Reproduction
The lutein cells secrete a significantly large amount of progesterone hormone and a small amount of
estradiol. Corpus luteum also secretes relaxin hormone which relaxes the ligaments in the pelvis and
softens and widens the cervix in preparation for the childbirth.
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Figure 3.6: Section of the human ovary showing its parts and various stages
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of follicular developments
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y Fallopian tubules or the oviducts: Females have a pair of uterine tubes or fallopian tubes or also
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known as oviducts which extend laterally from the uterus. They are around 10 - 12 cm long. They
lie within the folds of the broad ligaments. They transport secondary oocyte and fertilized ova to the
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uterus. The fallopian tubes have the following parts:

uj
० Infundibulum: It is the funnel or trumpet shaped part of the oviduct. It opens into the peritoneal
cavity. The end of the funnel has finger like projections which are called fimbriae whose movements
Ed
help to collect the ovum after ovulation.

० Ampulla: It is the widest and the longest part of the oviduct which makes up almost two thirds of
its length. The ova is fertilized in the ampulla.
० Isthmus: It is the short narrow, thick portion which joins the uterus.
० The uterine part passes through the uterine wall and opens into the uterine cavity.
Functions of the fallopian tubes: It transports the ovum to the uterus through movements called
peristalsis. Fertilization generally takes place in the ampulla.
y Uterus: Also called as Metra or Hystera or the womb: Uterus is a muscular, pear shaped bag like
structure. It is about 7.5 cm long, 5 cm wide and 2.5 cm thick in non-pregnant females. It is situated
in the pelvic cavity in between the urinary bladder and rectum. It is divided into following three parts:
i) Fundus: The upper dome shaped part above the openings of the uterine parts of the fallopian tubes.
ii) Cornua: The upper corners where the oviducts enter the uterus. iii) Corpus: The body which is
the main part and it tapers downwards. The narrowest part of the corpus continues with the cervix.
iv) Cervix: The part which joins the anterior part of the vagina and opens into it. The cavity of the cervix
3.11
Human Reproduction
is called the cervical canal. It is ring shaped. It communicates with the uterus by an aperture called the
internal os and with the vagina below by an aperture called the external os.
The walls of the uterus are composed of three layers of tissues:
० Perimetrium: It is part of the peritoneum and composed of squamous epithelium and thin layer of
areolar connective tissue.
० Myometrium: It is composed of three layers of smooth muscle fibres that are thickest in the fundus
and thinnest in the cervix. During childbirth coordinated contractions in this part help expel the
fetus.
० Endometrium: It’s the inner most vascular and glandular layer lining the uterine cavity. The
endometrium is made up of two layers: i) Stratum functionalis (functional layer) lines the uterine
cavity and sloughs off during menstruation as a result of declining progesterone levels. ii) Stratum
basalis which is the basal layer and give rise to a new stratum functionalis after each menstruation.
Functions of the uterus: After puberty the uterus undergo through the menstrual cycle. If fertilization
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takes place then the embryo gets attached to the uterine wall where it is nourished and protected till the
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end of the gestation period which is concluded when the child is born.
y
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Vagina: Vagina is a tubular canal which is lined by mucous membrane which extends from the exterior
of the body to the uterine cervix. It is about 10 cm long (4 inch). It is highly distensible. Its opening at
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the exterior of the body is called the vaginal orifice which is partially covered by a membrane called the
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hymen. It performs various functions. It serves as a receptacle for the penis during sexual intercourse,
the outlet for menstrual flow and the passageway for childbirth.
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uj
Ed
Figure 3.7: Female reproductive system

y External Genitalia (Vulva): The female external genitalia are collectively called as vulva. It consists of
the following structures.
० Mons pubis: It is an elevation of fatty adipose tissue covered by skin and coarse hair which
cushions the pubic symphysis.
3.12
Human Reproduction
० Labia majora: These are two thick fleshy folds which form the external boundary of vulva. They
are covered partially with pubic hair and they contain a large number of sebaceous glands and
apocrine sudoriferous glands (they secrete with a peculiar odor). They are homologous with the
scrotum of the male.
० Labia minora: These are two smaller folds of skin which lie under the labia majora. They are
homologous to penile urethra of the male. At the posterior end the labia minor unite together to
form the fourchette. They also have numerous sebaceous glands. They cover area called the
vestibule. The vestibule is homologous with intermediate urethra of the males.
० Clitoris: Posterior to the mons pubis is the clitoris which is a small cylindrical mass of nerves and
erectile tissue. It is homologous to glans penis in males. It is different from penis is a way that it
quite reduced in size and it doesn’t have any passageway, or in other words it is solid in structure.
० Vestibule: The vaginal orifice occupies major portion of the vestibule and is bordered by the
hymen. Anterior to the vaginal orifice and posterior to the clitoris is the external urethral orifice or
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the opening of the urethra to the exterior of the body. On the either side of the external urethral
orifice there are opening of the paraurethral glands or Skene’s Glands. These mucus secreting
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glands are located in the walls of the urethra. They are homologous to the prostate. On the either
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side of the vaginal orifice itself are the greater vestibular glands or Bartholin’s glands. They are
homologous to the Cowper’s glands. They secrete viscous mucoid fluid which supplements the
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vaginal mucous during intercourse.
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० Perineum: it is the diamond shaped area medial to the thighs and buttocks in both males and
females. It contains the external genitals and anus. A transverse line drawn divides it into two
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triangles, one anterior urinogenital triangle and posterior anal triangle.

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y Breasts: Since breasts are very important for lactation and they undergo several changes as per
Ed
the menstrual and pregnancy they are also considered as a part of the reproductive system. It is
hemispheric projection of variable size lying on thepectoralis major muscles in front of the thorax. They
are also present in males but in the rudimentary form. They begin to develop under the influence of
estrogen and progesterone hormones. Each breast has a projection the nipple which has a series of
openings of lactiferous ducts very closely spaced to each other. This is from where the milk emerges in
lactating females. There is a circular area of pigmented skin surrounding the nipple which is called the
areola. On its surface there are numerous sebaceous glands called the areolar glands. From inside
the breast consists of glandular tissue, a mammary glands which is nothing but a modified sweat gland.
Its structure is comprises of 15 - 20 lobes spaced from each other by adipose tissue. In each lobe are
smaller compartments called lobules composed of grape like clusters of milk secreting called alveoli.
When milk is produced it passes through a series of secondary tubules and then into mammary ducts.
Near the nipple, the mammary ducts expand to form mammary ampullae or lactiferous sinuses where
some milk maybe stored before draining into lactiferous ducts which carry the milk to the exterior of
the body.
3.13
Human Reproduction
Functions: The functions of mammary glands are typically synthesis, secretion and ejection of milk which
are collectively called as lactation. Lactation is associated with child birth. Milk production is stimulated by
the hormone prolactin (produced by anterior lobe of pituitary) with the contribution from progesterone and
estrogens. The ejection is stimulated by oxytocin (produced by posterior lobe of the pituitary).
Constituents of Milk: Human milk consists of mainly fat (fat droplets), casein (milk protein), lactose
(milk sugar), mineral salts (sodium,calcium, potassium, phosphorus etc.) and a very small amount of
vitamins. A normal nursing woman secretes 1-2 litres of milk per day.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Endometrium, myometrium and ______________ are the three layers of the wall of the
uterus. (mesometrium/exometrium/perimetrium)
2. ___________ most suitably corresponds to the male penis. (vagina/clitoris/uterus).
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3. What is the internal os? Does any entity called external os exist?
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4. Gametogenesis
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Gametogenesis is a process by which male and female sex cells or gametes i.e. sperms and ova are
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formed in the male and female gonads namely testis and ovaries, respectively. Since sexual reproduction
requires fusion of two haploid gametes to form diploid individual, these haploid gametes are formed through
o
gametogenesis. As there are two morphologically different kinds of gametes and the process of their
uj
generation is also different hence they can be studied under two different headings namely Spermatogenesis
and Oogenesis.
Ed
Spermatogenesis – Formation of sperms

Oogenesis – Formation of ova
4.1 Spermatogenesis
The process of formation starts in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.
In humans the process of spermatogenesis takes about 65 to 75 days. During birth the primordial cells
migrate into the testes and become immature germ cells called spermatogonia which lie in two or three
layers in inner surfaces of seminiferous tubules. The spermatogonia begin to undergo mitosis at puberty
and continually proliferate and differentiate through different stages of development to form the sperm
Step 1: Formation of spermatids
y Multiplication phase: At sexual maturity, the undifferentiated germ cells divide several times by
mitosis to produce a large number of spermatogonia. Spermatogonia (2N) are of two types viz. type A
and B resp. Type A spermatogonia form the stem cells which form additional spermatogonia whereas
Type B spermatogonia become the precursors of sperms.
3.14
Human Reproduction
y Growth phase: Each type B spermatogonium actively grows to a larger primary spermatocyte by
obtaining nourishment from the nursing cells (Sertoli).
y Maturation phase: Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two successive divisions, called maturation
divisions. The first maturation division is reductional or meiotic. Thus the primary spermatocyte divides
into two haploid daughter cells called as spermatocytes. Both secondary spermatocytes now undergo
second maturation division which is an ordinary mitotic division and form four haploid spermatids. Thus
each primary spermatocyte forms four haploid spermatids.
Step 2: Formation of Spermatozoa from spermatids or spermiogenesis
The formation of spermatozoa from spermatids is called spermiogenesis. These spermatozoa are later
known as sperms. Thus, four sperms are formed from one spermatogonium. After spermiogenesis sperm
head become embedded into the cells of Sertoli later they are finally released from the seminiferous
tubules by the process called spermiation.
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Ed
Figure 3.8: Human sperm

Hormonal control of spermatogenesis: The gonadotropin – releasing hormone (GnRH) by the
hypothalamus initiates the process of spermatogenesis. GnRH acts on the anterior lobe of pituitary gland
to secrete luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). LH acts on the Leydig’s
cells of the testis to secrete testosterone. FSH acts on the cells of Sertoli to secrete an androgen binding
protein (ABP) and inhibin. ABP concentrates testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. Inhibin suppresses
FSH synthesis. FSH acts on spermatogonia to stimulate sperm production.
Significance of Spermatogenesis:
y During this process one spermatogonium produces four sperms.
y Sperms have exactly half the number of chromosomes so that the diploid chromosome number can be
restored after fertilization.
3.15
Human Reproduction
y During meiosis I crossing over takes place which brings about the genetic variation.
y Spermatogenesis occurs in many organisms hence it can be used to establish the phylogenetic link
between the organisms.
Figure 3.9: Sectional view of a seminiferous tubule

Sperm: Spermatogenesis produces around 300 million sperms daily. Sperms are microscopic, motile cells.
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They remain alive for about 24 to 48 hrs in the female reproductive tract and up till then they retain their
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ability to fertilize an ovum which has been released. A typical human sperm is about 60 µm long. It has
several structures which are adapted specially for reaching and penetrating the secondary oocyte. The
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major parts of the sperm are head, neck, middle piece and the tail.
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० Head: The flattened pointed head of the sperm is 4 - 5 µm long. It has an anterior acrosome a cap
like vesicle filled enzymes (mostly hyaluronidases and proteases) that help the sperm to penetrate
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the secondary oocyte to bring about fertilization and a large nucleus containing highly condensed
haploid chromosomes.
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० Neck: It’s a short constricted region behind the head which contains many centrioles. The proximal
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centriole towards the nucleus which plays a role in the first cleavage of the zygote and the distal
centriole which gives rise to the axial filament of the sperm.
Ed
० Middle piece: The middle piece contains the mitochondria arranged in spiral. They provide the
energy in the form of ATP for the movement of the sperm and also for sperm metabolism.
० Tail: The tail is made up of two pieces the principal piece or the longest part called also as the axial
filament surrounded by a thin layer of cytoplasm. Behind the main piece is the terminal tapering
portion called the end piece which is the naked filament alone.
Figure 3.10: Hormonal control of the testes

3.16
Human Reproduction
4.2 Oogenesis
The process of oogenesis starts in the ovaries. Unlike males where spermatogenesis begins at puberty,
oogenesis begins in females even before they are born. This also has three phases:
y Multiplication: During early fetal development primordial germ cells migrate from the yolk sac to the
ovaries. These germ cells differentiate into the ovaries to form oogonia. These cells divide by mitosis,
producing a couple of million egg mother cells or oogonia in each ovary of the foetus. No more oogonia
are formed or added after birth.
y Growth phase: This is a very long phase. It may extend many years. The oogonium grows into a
large primary oocytes. Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layer of granulose cells to form
primary follicle. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the period from birth to puberty. At
puberty only 40,000 or so remain in each ovary.
y Maturation phase: Each primary oocyte undergoes two maturation divisions, i.e. the first meiotic and
the second meiotic. The results of the maturation divisions in oogenesis are different from those in
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spermatogenesis. In the first meiotic division the primary oocyte divides into two unequal haploid daughter
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cells – a large secondary oocyte and very small first polar body also called the polocyte. In the second
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maturation division, the first polar body may divide to form two second polar bodies and the secondary
oocyte again divides into unequal daughter cells, an ootid and a second polar body. The ootid grows into
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a functional haploid ovum. Thus from one oogonium,one ovum and three polar bodies are formed. The
ovum is actual female gamete. The polar bodies soon degenerate and take no part in reproduction.
ur
In human beings, ovum is generally released in the secondary oocyte stage. The maturation of secondary
o
oocyte is completed in the mother’s oviduct usually after the sperm has entered the secondary oocyte for
fertilization. In humans, the first polar body does not undergo meiosis II, whereas the secondary oocyte
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proceeds as far as the metaphase stage of meiosis II. However it stops advancing any further, it awaits
Ed
the arrival of sperm for completing of meiosis II. Entry of sperm restarts the cell cycle breaking down MPF
(M-phase promoting factor) and turning on APC (Anaphase promoting complex). Completion of meiosis
II converts the secondary oocyte into a fertilized ovum egg or zygote and also a second polar body.
Hormonal Control of Oogenesis
GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to secrete LH and
FSH. FSH stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles and also the development of the oocyte within the
follicle to complete the meiosis I to form secondary oocyte. FSH also stimulates the formation of estrogens.
LH induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle and thereby the release of secondary oocyte. Thus
LH causes ovulation.The remaining part of the Graafian follicle is stimulated by LH to develop into corpus
luteum (yellow body). The rising levels of progesterone inhibits the release of GnRH, which in turn inhibits
production of FSH, LH and progesterone.
Significance of Oogenesis
y One oogonium produces one ovum and three polar bodies.
y Polar bodies have very small amount of cytoplasm. More cytoplasm is retained in the ovum which is
important for the development of the early embryo. Formation of polar bodies maintains half number of
3.17
Human Reproduction
chromosomes in the ovum.

y During meiosis first crossing over takes place which brings that variation.
y Oogenesis occurs in various organisms. Therefore, it supports the evidence of basic relationship
among the organisms.
Ovulation
y The release of the ovum from the ovary in the
secondary oocyte stage is called ovulation.
y In humans ovulation occurs about 14 days
before the onset of next menstruation.
y Ovulation is induced by LH.
y The maturation of the ovum is completed in
the mother’s fallopian tube usually after the
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sperm has entered the secondary oocyte
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during fertilization. n al
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Figure 3.11: Human oocyte development
Ovum
The mature ovum or a female gamete is spherical in shape. The human ovum is said to be alecithal which
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means almost free of yolk. The cytoplasm is called ooplasm containing large nucleus, termed the germinal
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vesicle. The nucleus contains a prominent nucleolus. There are no centrioles in the ovum. The cytoplasm is
enveloped by the plasma membrane or cell membrane. Very small vesicles called cortical granules are present
Ed
under the plasma membrane. A narrow perivitelline space is present outside the plasma membrane. Outside
the perivitelline space is the thick non-cellular zona pellucida, probably secreted by the follicular cells. Outer to
the zona pellucida there is a very thick cellular corona radiata. The latter is formed of radially elongated follicular
cells. The side of the ovum which extrudes polar bodies is termed as animal pole. The side exactly opposite to
this is called vegetal pole. Human egg loses its ability to be fertilized about 24 hrs after ovulation.
Figure 3.12: Gametogenesis in Humans

3.18
Human Reproduction
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Write the function of- Sertoli cells, inhibin.
2. Distinguish between spermatogonia and spermatozoa.
3. Write a short note on the role of hormones in oogenesis.
5. Female Reproductive Cycle

The general term female reproductive cycle encompasses the ovarian and uterine cycles and the hormonal
changes that regulate them and the related cyclical changes that occur in the breast and the cervix.
Menstrual Cycle:
Menstrual cycle also known as monthly endometrial cycle is a periodic and cyclic changes in the human
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endometrium which is marked by the periodic shedding of the progestational endometrium accompanied
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by blood loss. It occurs in women and higher apes. In humans, menstruation starts from the time puberty
is reached. The first menstruation marks the beginning of the menstrual cycle and is called as menarche.
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This is around 12 - 15 years of age in most of the women. It continues until 45 - 50 years of age or until
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menopause. This is continuous and regular cycle which is never interrupted unless there is pregnancy or
any other serious disorder. The normal human menstrual cycle consists of two segments: The ovarian
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cycle and the uterine cycle. The ovarian cycle maybe further divided into two stages: i) Follicular stage
and ii) Luteal stage whereas the uterine cycle is divided into i) Proliferation of the uterine endometrium
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ii) Development of the secretory changes in the endometrium and iii) Desquamation or shedding of the
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endometrium also known as menstruation.

The significant event of this cycle is the menstruation or bleeding from the uterus which lasts for about 4 - 5
Ed
days which are also known as menses.

Ovarian Cycle: The ovarian cycle is a series of events in the ovaries that occur during and after maturation
of an oocyte. Steroid hormones released by the ovaries control the uterine cycle or the menstrual cycle,
which is a concurrent series of changes in the endometrium of the uterus to prepare it for the arrival and
development of a fertilized ovum. If fertilization doesn’t occur the levels of ovarian hormones decrease
which cause the stratum functionalis of the endometrium to slough off.
Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by the hypothalamus controls the events of the female
reproductive cycle. GnRH stimulates the release of follicle stimulating hormone FSH and luteinizing hormone
LH from the anterior pituitary. The released FSH initiates the follicular growth and the secretion of estrogen
by growing ovarian follicles. LH stimulates the further development of the follicles and their full secretion
of estrogens. At mid-cycle LH triggers ovulation and also promotes the formation of ovulation hence the
name Luteinizing hormone. Stimulated by LH the, the corpus luteum produces and secretes estrogens,
progesterones, relaxin and inhibin. The duration of the female reproductive cycle generally varies from
24 - 35 days. We assume an average of 28 days for the following discussion.
3.19
Human Reproduction
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Figure 3.13: Representation of the hormonal regulation in female menstrual cycle

Ed
Uterine Cycle:
y Proliferative phase
At the beginning of the menstrual cycle most of the endometrium is shed off (also known as desquamation)
by menstruation. After menstruation only a thin layer of stroma remains and only epithelial cells left are
those left in the deeper layers of the glands or the crypts of the endometrium. The proliferative phase
includes around 6 - 13 or 14 in a 28 day cycle. The FSH secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary
gland stimulates the ovarian follicle to secrete estrogens in large amounts. These estrogens stimulates
the endometrial cells to proliferate. The endometrium becomes thicker by rapid cell multiplication. Also
there is an increase in number of uterine glands and blood vessels.
y Ovulatory phase: At the middle of the cycle i.e. 14 day both FSH and LH reach a peak level. Rapid
secretion of LH induces rupturing of Graafian follicle and thereby release of the ovum (in human beings
secondary oocyte is released). This event is called ovulation. In other words LH causes ovulation.
y Luteal phase: The cycle includes the days 15 to 28 in a 28 day cycle. LH secreted by the anterior lobe
of the pituitary causes ovulation.The remaining cells of the ovarian follicles are stimulated by the LH
to develop into corpus luteum. Large amounts of progesterone are secreted by the corpus luteum.
3.20
Human Reproduction
Progesterone stimulates the uterine glands to produce increased amounts of watery mucus. This is
also known as secretory phase. During this secretory phase large amounts of watery mucus are also
secreted by the vaginal glands and by the glands of the fallopian tubes. Progesterone is essential for
maintenance of the endothelium (the inner most lining of the endometrium). Such an endothelium is
necessary of implantation of the fertilized ovum and the other events of the pregnancy.
y Menstrual phase: In absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates. The degeneration of
corpus luteum causes the endothelium to disintegrate since enough amounts of progesterone are not
present to maintain it. This disintegration also leads to menstruation marking a new cycle. Menstruation
is also described as the weeping of the uterus for the lost ovum.
The major events in the menstrual cycle are as follows:
० Menstrual phase is cause by the reduction of progesterone and estrogen both.
० Proliferative phase is caused by the increased production of estrogens.
LH causes ovulation.
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०
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० Secretory phase is caused by increasing levels of progesterone.
Menopause al
At around 50 years or something the sexual cycle becomes irregular and ovulation fails to occur. After a few
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months or in some cases a few years the sexual cycle ceases altogether. This period when the sexual cycle
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ceases and female sex hormones just reduce to almost none is called as the Menopause. The causes
of the menopause have many theories but the most important reason is the burning out of the ovaries or
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the reducing numbers of the primordial follicles. Since about only 400 primordial follicles are remaining,
uj
at around 45 they are almost over, with only a few remaining. Thus the levels of estrogens produced is
also reduced and hence they can no longer inhibit the production of gondaotropins LH and FSH. These
Ed
gonadotropins are produced in large and continuous quantities but the remaining follicles have already
become atretic and hence there is no estrogen produced in the ovaries. The loss of estrogen causes
marked physiological changes in the function of the body including hot flushes characterized by extreme
flushing of the skin (redness in skin caused by increased blood flow), psychic sensation of dyspnea (labored
breathing), irritability, fatigue, anxiety, decreased strength or calcification of bones throughout the body.
DID YOU KNOW

At around 40 - 55 years of age men experience a phase with phenomenon similar to
the female menopause. This is called as the male andropause. This is caused due
? to gradually decreasing levels of testosterone in males, it maybe urinary and sexual
changes and more generalized changes – i) the urinary sexual changes may be
reduced sexual desire or libido ii) reduced sexual potency for maintaining erections iii)
ejaculation problems iv) reduced fertility v) urinary problems like weak stream, urinary
incontinence etc.
3.21
Human Reproduction
6. Fertilization
Definition: The fusion of the haploid male gamete (the sperm) and the haploid female gamete (the ovum) to
form a diploid zygote is called fertilization.
In human beings fertilization takes place mostly in the ampulla of the oviduct. After insemination
(i.e. discharge of semen in the female vagina close to the cervix) the sperms travel all the way up towards
the uterus but only a few thousand find their way into the openings of the fallopian tubes. Primarily the
contractions of the uterus and the fallopian tubes assist the sperm in movement but later on they move by
their own motility. Sperms swim in the fluid medium at the rate of 1.5 to 3 mm per min to reach the site. In
the meantime the leucocytes of the vaginal epithelium also engulf millions of the sperms.
Capacitation of sperms: It is the phenomena of physiological maturation of sperms inside the female
genital tract. It occurs in the presence of viscous fluid secreted by the secretory cells of the lining of the
oviducal mucosa. It takes about 5 - 6 hours. It also involves a variety of other changes:
y Loss of decapacitation factors
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y Influx of calcium into the sperms
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y Sperm flagellar movements change from undulatory to whiplash type
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y Removal of the cholesterol vesicles adhering to the acrosome.
Arrival of the secondary oocyte: The secondary oocyte is released from the mature Graafian follicle on the
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14 day of the 28 day cycle and this process is called ovulation. The oocyte is received by the fallopian tube
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through the fallopian funnel which has fimbriae or the finger like processes which has cilia the movements
of both together guide the sperm into the fallopian tube. The secondary oocyte can be fertilized only upto
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24 hours after being released from the ovary. The secondary oocyte is surrounded by numerous sperms but
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only one sperm succeeds in fertilizing the oocyte. The second meiotic division is completed by the entry of
the sperm into the secondary oocyte. After this secondary oocyte is called the ovum or the egg.
Ed
Fertilizin and Antifertilizin reaction: So that number of sperms reduces the ovum secretes a chemical
called the fertilizin which has a number of spermophilic sites where sperms can bind by their antifertilizin
site. This fertilizin - antifertilizin reaction is highly species specific i.e. only the sperms of a particular species
can recognize their binding site on the chemicals which are specific for their species. It is a complete lock
and key type of mechanism. This adhesion of the sperms to the egg of the same species is through chemical
recognition is called as agglutination, and this reaction is also known as agglutination reaction. The function
of this is to avoid chances of polyspermy and thus ensure that only one sperm penetrates the ovum.
Penetration of the sperm: Finally the only sperm reaches the ovum and penetrates it by a series of
mechanisms as given below:
Physical and chemical events in fertilization: i) Acrosomal reaction: After ovulation, the secondary
oocyte reaches the Fallopian tube. The capacitated sperms undergo a reaction called the acrosomal
reaction. They release various chemicals which are contained in the acrosome. These chemicals are
together called as the sperm lysins. The important chemicals of the sperms lysins are: a) Hyaluronidase:
It acts on the ground substances of follicle cells, b) Corona penetrating enzyme: It dissolves the corona
radiata and c) Zona acrosin: It helps dissolve the zona pellucida.
3.22
Human Reproduction
The factors which play an important role in this reaction are the optimum pH, Ca++, Mg++ ions and concentration
and temperature. Ca++ especially plays a very important role in the acrosomal reaction, in its absence the
reaction does not occur.
y Effects of the acrosomal reaction: Due to this reaction the plasma membrane of the sperm fuse
with the plasma membrane of the secondary oocyte so that the sperm contents can enter the oocyte.
Only the sperm nucleus and middle piece enter the oocyte, the tail is lost. Binding of the sperm and the
oocyte induces depolarization of the oocyte plasma membrane. Depolarization prevents polyspermy
(entry of more than one sperm into the oocyte ensures monospermy i.e. entry of only a single sperm
into the oocyte).
y Cortical Reaction: Just after the fusion of sperm and plasma membranes of the oocyte, the ovum
shows a cortical reaction which is marked by the development of cortical granules beneath the plasma
membrane of the oocyte. These granules fuse with the plasma membrane of the oocyte and release
their enzymes known as the cortical enzymes between the plasma membrane and the zona pellucida.
These enzymes harden the zona pellucida which also prevents entry of additional sperms or polyspermy.
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y Sperm Entry: At the point of contact with the sperm, the secondary oocyte forms a projection called
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the cone of reception or the fertilization cone which receives the sperm. The distal centriole of the
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sperm divides and forms two centrioles to generate the mitotic spindle formation for cell division, since
the mammalian secondary oocyte doesnot have any centrioles of its own.
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y Fusion of Gametic Nuclei or Amphimixis or Karyogamy: Sperm entry stimulates the secondary
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oocyte to complete the suspended or paused second meiotic division. This produces a haploid mature
ovum and a second polar body. The head of the sperm which contains the nucleus separates from the
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body and the tail. This head becomes the male pronucleus. The second polar body and the sperm tail
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degenerate. The nucleus of the ovum is called the female pronucleus. The male and female pronuclei
move towards each other. Their nuclear membranes disintegrate and they fuse together. Mixing of the
Ed
chromosomes of the sperm and the ovum is also known as karyogamy or amphimixis. The fertilized
ovum or egg is now called a zygote. The zygote is diploid unicellular cell that has 46 chromosomes in
humans. The woman is now said to be pregnant.
y Activation of the egg: The metabolism in the zygote is stimulated by the entry of the sperm. This
causes the rates of cellular respiration and protein synthesis to increase greatly. Besides activating the
egg another role of the sperm is also to carry DNA to the egg.
y Significance of Fertilization: Fertilization also has the following significances
० It restores the diploid number of chromosomes, which is an important characteristic of our species
i.e. 46 chromosomes.
० It also initiates cleavage.
० It introduces the centrioles which are lacking in the ovum, since without the centrioles the spindle
fibres can’t form.
० It combines the characters of both the parents. This also introduces variations.
० The sperm nucleus brings in the Y chromosome which determines the sex of the embryo.
3.23
Human Reproduction
० Fertilization membrane developed after the entry of the sperm prevents the entry of other sperms
into the ovum.
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Figure 3.14: Process of fertilization
.i
TRY IT YOURSELF
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1. Which is the longest part of the sperm?
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2. __________ induces ovulation. (LH/GH)

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3. Level of _______ is high during pregnancy. (progesterone/fsh)

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4. what are sperm lysins?

5. changes occur in the __________ after one sperm penetrates the ovum. (sertoli cells/
Ed
zona pellucida)
7. Embryonic Development upto Blastocyst Formation

Cleavage:
The most important event after fertilization is called cleavage. Cleavage is defined as the series of mitotic
divisions of the zygote which converts the single celled zygote into a multicellular structure called as
blastula or blastocyst.
Process: After fertilization in about thirty hours, the newly formed zygote divides into two cells, the
blastomeres, in the upper portion of the fallopian tube. This division of the zygote into two cells is called
as the first cleavage (cleavage means cutting into two).This cleavage is meridional (vertical) and along
animal- vegetal pole axis. The next division occurs within forty hours after fertilization. This is also meridional
but perpendicular to the first one and takes place first in the larger blastomere. And the third division occurs
after about three days after fertilization. During these early cleavages, the young embryo is moves slowly
3.24
Human Reproduction
down towards the uterus. At around the fourth day the embryo reaches the uterus. It has 8 -16 blastomeres
and this solid mass of cells is called morula or the little mulberry since it looks like a mulberry. It reaches
the uterus 72 hours after fertilization that’s on the fourth day. It is still surrounded by the zona pellucida.
When the blastomeres divide completely the cleavage is said to be holoblastic. Due to unequal cleavage
the blastomere are of two types:
y Micromeres: These are peripheral, smaller and transparent.
y Macromeres: These are central and larger.
Formation of blastocyst:
It involves the rearrangement of blastomeres. The outer layer of cells become flat and form the trophoblast
or the trophoectoderm. This trophoectoderm draws nutritive materials secreted by the uterine endometrial
glands. The fluid secreted by the trophoblast collects in a new central cavity called the blastocoel or
segmentation cavity or blastocystic vesicle. As the amount of nutritive fluid increases in blastocoel, morula
enlarges and takes the form or cyst and is called as the blastocyst or blastodermic vesicle. The cells
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of the trophoblast never participate in formation of embryo proper. These cells form only protective and
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nutritive extra- embryonic membranes which later form the fetal part of the placenta e.g.chorion for placenta
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formation, amnion for protection from injury and desiccation of the embryo. The cells of trophoblast which
are in contact with the inner cell mass are called cells of Rauber. Inner mass of cells or macromere form a
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knob at one side of trophoblast also known as embryonal knob and is primarily determined to form the body
of the developing embryo so is called the precursor of the embryo. The embryo also has stem cells which
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are predetermined to form all types of tissues and organs. The side of the blastocysts to which embryonal
knob is attached is called as embryonic pole while the opposite side is called as abembryonic pole. Zona
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pellucida disappears at the time of blastocyst formation.

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Characteristics of cleavage
Ed
y Cleavage involves a series of mitotic division so that the daughter cells are genetically similar to the
parent cells.
y Mitotic divisions continue until the average cell size characteristic to the parent organism is achieved.
Number of divisions depend upon the volume of the egg and the typical somatic egg. The resultant cells
are called blastomeres.
y During cleavage as there is no growth of the cells during the interphase period, the size of the cells
becomes smaller and smaller. Hence the cleavage is also called as fractionating process. As the
blastomeres do not move the general size, shape and volume remain the same throughout the cleavage.
y The nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio goes on increasing as the cleavage progresses. It is so that the DNA
synthesis occurs very rapidly during the cleavage but there is no cytoplasmic synthesis. The cytoplasmic
materials are rapidly used in DNA replication.
y Oxygen consumption is also very rapid during cleavage. In the early stages blastomeres show
synchronous division but later this synchrony is lost. The pattern and speed of cleavage is mostly
decided by the cytoplasm and not the nucleus. The yolk tends to suppress the cleavage.
3.25
Human Reproduction
8. Implantation
Definition: The process of attachment of the blastocyst on the endometrium of the uterus is called as
implantation.
It may occur anywhere from 6th and 10th day after fertilization but generally it occurs at 7th day after
fertilization. About 8 days after fertilization the trophoblast develops in two layers in the region of contact
between the blastocyst and endometrium. These layers are a) syncytiotrophoblast which contains non-
distinct cell boundaries and b) cytotrophoblast between the inner cell mass and syncytiotrophoblast that is
composed of distinct cells. The portion of the blastocyst where the inner cell mass is located lies against
the endometrium of the uterus. The blastocyst sinks into a pit or depression formed in the endometrium and
gets completely buried in the endometrium. This embedded blastocyst forms villi (finger like projections) to
get nourishment and to get fixed in the endometrium. Implantation causes nutrient enrichment, enlargement
of cells and formation of the decidua. The decidua is the uterine part of the placenta.
The role of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG): The trophoblastic cells secrete human chorionic
n
gonadotropin hormone which has properties similar to LH from the pituitary gland. In pregnancy however
.i
HCG takes over from LH. The HCG maintains the corpus luteum and stimulates it to secrete progesterone.
This progesterone maintains the endometrium of the uterus and causes it grow throughout pregnancy. This
al
also prevents menstruation. Progesterone also causes the cervix to secrete mucus which forms a protective
n
plug during pregnancy in the cervix.
ur
Thus implantation leads to pregnancy. If HCG is found in a woman’s urine then it indicates her pregnant
status.
o
uj
Ed
Figure 3.15: Diagram showing implantation of Figure 3.16: An embryo developing into a
blastocyst in human uterus Fetus
3.26
Human Reproduction
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Difference between embryo and foetus
y Embryo is an organism in the early stages of development. In human beings the
development organism from conception to approximately the eight week is called as the
embryo (i.e. second month of pregnancy).
y Foetus is the unborn young one after it has taken form in the uterus. In human beings, an
embryo is called a foetus from eight week onwards till the birth.
9. Gastrulation
Gastrulation is the movement of cells in small sheets or masses so as to get primary germinal layers. There
are three primary germinal layers: a) endoderm b) ectoderm and c) mesoderm.
n
The cell movements that occur during gastrulation are called morphogenetic movements since they lead to
.i
initiation of morphogenesis and the product of gastrulation is called gastrula.
Formation of primary germinal layers:
n al
y The cells of the inner cell mass also differentiate into two layers: a) a layer of small, cuboidal cells
known as the hypoblast layer, b) a layer of columnar cells, the epiblast layer. Both the hypoblast and
ur
the epiblast layer form a flat disc called the embryonic disc.
o
y Gastrulation begins with the formation of primitive streak on the surface of the epiblast.
uj
y The first cells to move inward displace the hypoblast to create a definitive endoderm.
y Once the definitive endoderm is established, inwardly moving epiblast forms the mesoderm.
Ed
y Cells remaining in the epiblast form the ectoderm. Thus epiblast is the source of all the cells in the
embryo.
Placenta:
Definition: The chorionic villi (finger like projections on the surface of the trophoblast) and the uterine
tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between
developing embryo (fetus) and maternal body is called placenta.
Because chorion takes part in the formation of the placenta, the human placenta is also called chorionic
placenta. It consists of two parts: the fetal part – the chorion and the maternal part – the decidua basalis.
The fetal part of placenta grows into the uterine mucosa with its chorionic villi. The degree of intimacy
is so strong that the blood vessels of the chorionic villi are bathed in the mother’s blood. This type of
placenta which is based on the intimacy between fetal and maternal parts of the placenta, is referred to as
hemochorial placenta. The placenta is connected to embryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the
transport of substances to and from the embryo.
The placenta performs the following functions:
3.27
Human Reproduction
y Nutrition – The placenta functions as the passage for passing the nutritive elements from the maternal
blood to the foetus.
y Respiration – Oxygen is carried from maternal blood to the fetal blood through placenta and carbon
dioxide is carried exactly in the opposite direction i.e. from foetus to maternal blood.
y Excretion – The fetal excretory products diffuse into the maternal blood through placenta and are
excreted by the mother.
y Storage – Placenta stores glycogen, fat etc.
y As a barrier – Placenta serves as an efficient barrier and allows those materials to pass into fetal blood
that are necessary.
y Endocrine function – Placenta secretes some hormones such as estrogens, progesterone, human
chorionic gonadotropins HCG’s and human chorionic somatomammotropin HCS’s (it was formerly
known as human placental lactogen HPL), chorionic thyrotropin, chorionic corticotropin and relaxin.
n
The HCS’s stimulates the growth of mammary glands during pregnancy. Relaxin facilitates parturition (act
.i
of birth) by softening the connective tissue of the pubic symphysis.
10. Parturition
n al
The duration of pregnancy in human beings is about 9 months ± 7 days .This period is called as gestational
ur
period. In other words the gestational period is the time from conception till the birth. At the end of the
pregnancy term, vigorous contraction of uterus cause the expulsion of the foetus from the body. This act of
o
expelling the young one after completion of full term of gestational period is called as parturition.
uj
The mechanism of parturition is induced by both nervous system and hormones secreted by the endocrine
glands of the mother. The signals for child birth (parturition) originate from the fully matured foetus and
Ed
placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called fetal ejection reflex.
This reflex causes oxytocin to be released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The amount of
oxytocin is increased just before and during labor pains (pains of child birth). Oxytocin promotes contractions
of the uterine muscles which produce a long series of involuntary contractions of the uterus. Relaxin
increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis and the ligaments of the sacroiliac and sacrococcygeal joints
and helps dilate the uterine cervix of the baby. Both these actions give way to the smooth passage of the
foetus during childbirth.
Stages of childbirth:
y Stage of dilation: The onset of labor pain to complete dilation of the cervix is called the stage of
dilation. This stage lasts 6 - 12 hours. During this stage there are events like the regular contraction of
the uterus, rupturing of the amniotic sac and the complete dilation of the cervix occur. The first effect of
the pains is the opening of the cervix. The amniotic fluid starts flowing out through the vagina.
y Stage of expulsion: The time from the complete dilation of the cervix to the delivery of the baby is
called the stage of expulsion. It lasts from about 10 mins to several hours. The baby passes through
the cervix and the vagina and is born or delivered.
3.28
Human Reproduction
y Placental Stage: After the delivery of the child, powerful contractions of uterus expel the placenta
from the uterus along with the umbilical cord. This is also known as after birth. These contraction also
constrict blood vessels that were torn during the delivery and hence prevent hemorrhage. It takes about
28 to 35 days for the uterus to return back to its non- pregnant stage by reduction in size and restoration
of the endometrium of the uterus.
DID YOU KNOW
?
Labor pains are the highest intensity of pains ever tolerable to human beings. It is said
to be a pain which can be compared to the breaking of all the bones in the body at once
or even to the pain of end stage cancer patients. Still the women survive this pain and
give birth to the child.
n
11. Lactation
.i
Definition: The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and start producing
al
milk towards the end of pregnancy, this process is called lactation.
Hormonal regulation of lactation: Around puberty the mammary glands begin developing in human females
n
under the influence of estrogen and progesterone. Secretion and storage of milk generally begins after the
ur
birth of a young one, usually within 24 hours under the influence of hormone prolactin - PRL secreted by the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
o
The ejection of milk is however stimulated by the hormone oxytocin situated by the posterior lobe of the
uj
pituitary gland.
Colostrum: The milk secretion for the first few days just after child birth is called as colostrum.
Ed
This is yellowish fluid that contains cells from the alveoli and is rich in protein (lactalbumin and lactoprotein)
but low in fat. Colostrum contain antibodies and help in building up the immunity of the new born infant.
Composition of milk: Human milk
contains water and organic and inorganic
substances. Its main constituents are fat
droplets, casein, lactose, mineral salts, and
small quantity of vitamins. It is poor in iron
content. Vitamin C is present in small
quantity in milk. The process of secretion is
regulated by the nervous system. The
process of milk secretion is influenced by
hormones of the pituitary as well as the
other endocrine glands. There is
contribution by the psychic state of the
woman. A nursing woman produces about Figure 3.17: Sectional view of a mammary gland
1 to 2 litres of milk per day.
3.29
Human Reproduction
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. What is colostrum?
2. What is decidua?
3. Write about the role of HCG
4. Write about the role of oxytocin.
Summary
y Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous organisms.
y The male reproductive system comprises of a pair of testes, the male sex accessory ducts, the
accessory glands and external genitalia (the penis).
n
y Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules
.i
y 1 to 3 seminiferous tubules are present in each lobule.
y
n al
Seminiferous tubules are lined by spermatogonia and Sertoli cells on the inside.
y The spermatogonia undergo meiotic divisions leading to spermatogenesis.
ur
y Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the dividing germ cells.
y Androgens are synthesized by the Leydig cells
o
y The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, a uterus, a vagina, and
uj
a pair of mammary glands.

y The ovum (female gamete) and steroid hormones are produced by the ovaries.
Ed
y The uterus has three layers namely perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium.
y Mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and clitoris are the female external genitalia.
y The mammary glands (located in the breasts) are one of the female secondary sexual characteristics.
y The reproductive cycle of female primates is called menstrual cycle.
y Usually one ovum is released per menstrual cycle.
y After entry into the female reproductive system, sperms are transported to the junction of the isthmus
and ampulla, where the sperm may fertilize the ovum (if present) leading to formation of a diploid cell
called zygote.
y The zygote divided and form a blastocyst, which is implanted in the uterus.
y After 8 weeks an embryo may be called a fetus.
y Parturition is the process of childbirth.
y Cortisol, estrogens and oxytocin are some of the hormones involved in parturition.
y Mammary glands secrete milk after child-birth. This process is called lactation.
3.30
Human Reproduction
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Which represents Mullerian duct in male rabbit
(A) Prostatic utricle (B) Seminal vesicle
(C) Cowper’s gland (D) Urethra
Q.2 Testes are permanently retained in abdominal cavity in
(A) Elephant (B) Whale
(C) Armadillo (D) All the above
.i n
Q.3 Temp. of scrotum as compared to abdominal cavity is less by
(A) 1oC (B) 5oC (C) 3oC
n al (D) 10oC
Q.4 Outer coat of seminiferous tubules is composed of fibrous connective tissue called
ur
(A) Tunica propria (B) Lamina propria
(C) Plica semilunaris (D) Tunica albuginea
o
uj
Q.5 Vasa deferens is cut for

(A) Female sterilization (B) Male sterilization
Ed
(C) Both of the above (D) Temporary sterilization

Q.6 At the time of sexual excitation, muscles in penis
(A) Relaxed (B) Contracted (C) Collapsed (D) None
Q.7 Which acid occurs in semen
(A) Citric acid (B) Malic acid
(C) Oxalo acetic acid (D) Succinic acid
Q.8 If testes of a male rabbit are not transferred from abdominal cavity to testes sac then
(A) Rabbit dies
(B) Absence of male characters
(C) Development of male reproductive system will not occur
(D) Sperms will not form
3.31
Human Reproduction
Q.9 Function of seminal fluid is

(A) Sexual attraction
(B) To provide stability to egg
(C) To provide a medium for movement of sperms
(D) To provide acidic medium
Q.10 Vasa-efferentia connect the

(A) Testes with epididymis (B) Kidneys with cloaca
(C) Testes with urinogenital duct (D) None
Q.11 In mammals, failure of testes to descend into scrotum is known as

(A) Paedogenesis (B) Castration
n
(C) Cryptorchidism (D) Impotency
.i
Q.12 Partitions of testis develop from
(A) Tunica albuginea
n al
(B) Tunica vasculosa
ur
(C) Tunica vaginalis (D) Rete testis
Q.13 Vasa-efferentia posses

o
(A) Peristalsis (B) Secretory cells

uj
(C) Ciliated cells (D) Opening for seminal vesicle

Ed
Q.14 Vas-deferens arises from

(A) Cauda-epididymis (B) Caput epididymis
(C) Corpus – epididymis (D) Rete testis
Q.15 Common duct formed by union of vas-deferens and duct from seminal vesicle is
(A) Urethra (B) Tunica-vasculosa
(C) Ejaculatory duct (D) Spermatic duct
Q.16 Mesorchium is peritoneal covering of

(A) Ovary (B) Testis
(C) Kidney (D) Liver
3.32
Human Reproduction
Q.17 Scrotum communicates with abdominal cavity through

(A) Urethra (B) Inguinal canal
(C) Vas-deferens (D) Epididymis
Q.18 Tunica albuginea is the covering around

(A) Oviduct (B) Testis (C) Kidney (D) Heart
Q.19 The functional unit of testis of man is

(A) Uriniferous tubules (B) Malpighian tubules
(C) Seminiferous tubules (D) Acini or lobules
Q.20 Testosterone is secreted by
n
(A) Leydig’s cells (B) Sertoli cells
.i
(C) Pituitary (D) Testis
Q.21 Penile urethra traverses through

n al
(A) Corpora cavernosa (B) Corpus spongiosum
ur
(C) Corpus collosum (D) Corpus striatum

o
Q.22 Seminiferous tubules are composed of

uj
(A) Spermatogonia (B) Glandular epithelium

Ed
(C) Sensory epithelium (D) Germinal epithelium
Q.23 In mammals, the testes are located in

(A) Abdominal cavity (B) Thoracic cavity
(C) Extra-abdominal cavity (D) Pericardial cavity
Q.24 Sustentacular cells are found in

(A) Testis of mammal (B) Ovary of mammal
(C) Testis of Ascaris (D) Pancreas of frog
Q.25 Bundles of muscles in penis are

(A) Corpus cavernosa (B) Corpus spongiosum
3.33
Human Reproduction
Q.26 Glans penis is covered by

(A) Areomembrana (B) Prepuce
(C) Metrium (D) None
Q.27 Greater development of sperms in rabbit takes place in

(A) Testes (B) Vasa-efferentia
(C) Epididymis (D) Spermatic cord
Q.28 Scrotal sacs of man and rabbit are connected with the abdominal cavity by
(A) Inguinal canal (B) Haversian canal
(C) Vagina cavity (D) Spermatic canal
n
Q.29 In mammals, the testes occur in scrotal sacs, outside the viscera because of the
.i
(A) Presence of urinary bladder
(B) Presence of rectum
(C) Long vas-deferens
n al
ur
(D) Requirement of low temperature for spermatogenesis
Q.30 Sertoli cells are found in

o
(A) Testis of cockroach (B) Liver of mammals

uj
(C) Testis of mammals (D) Testis of frog

Ed
Q.31 Seminal vesicle is present at the junction of

(A) Prostate and urethra
(B) Prostate and vas-deferens
(C) Prostate and Cowper’s gland
(D) Vas-deferens and testis
Q.32 Seminal plasma has sperms and secretions of

(A) Prostate, Cowper’s & Bartholin glands
(B) Seminal vesicle, Prostate & Cowper’s glands
(C) Seminal vesicle , ureter & Prostate gland
(D) Follicles, ureters and prostate gland
3.34
Human Reproduction
Q.33 If the epididymis is not presented then what will happen

(A) Sperm life cycle is short
(B) Early cross the pathway
(C) Functional maturation is early
(D) Sperm will be incapable for fertilization
Q.34 In majority of pre mature babies testis is situated in

(A) Scrotal sac (B) Abdominal cavity
(C) Descending pathway (D) Come into scrotal sac but not attached property
Q.35 After vasectomy what happens

(A) Absence of semen
n
(B) Sperm are dead or inactive
.i
(C) Sperm immediately disappear in semen al
(D) Sperm gradually disappear in semen
n
ur
Q.36 Sertoli cells occur in
(A) Human testis (B) Frog testis
o
(C) Human ovary (D) Frog ovary

uj
Q.37 In aged person inguinal canal becomes loose, and some part of intestine is pushed into scrotal sac,
Ed
the disease is called

(A) Myctlopia (B) Hernia
(C) Achondroplasia (D) None
Q.38 Leydig cells are found in

(A) Seminiferous tubules (B) Testis
(C) Ovary (D) Epididymis
Q.39 Testosterone is secreted by

(A) Sertoli cells (B) Sustentacular cells
(C) Leydig cell or interstitial cells (D) Both (A) and (B)
3.35
Human Reproduction
Q.40 Which of the following is not the part of intratesticular genital duct system?
(A) Rete testis (B) Tubuli recti
(C) Vas deferens (D) Vas efferens
Q.41 Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes?
(A) Salivary glands (B) Female accessory glands
(C) Male accessory glands (D) Liver
Q.42 Which is unpaired gland in male reproductive system of human?

(A) Bartholin gland (B) Seminal vesicle
(C) Prostate gland (D) Cowper’s gland
n
Q.43 A gland associated with the male reproductive organs of mammals is?
.i
(A) Phallic gland (B) Prostate gland
(C) Bartholin gland al
(D) Mushroom gland
n
Q.44 Glans penis is formed by
ur
(A) Corpus spongiosum only

(B) Corpus cavernosa only
o
(C) Corpus spongium & corpus cavernosa both

uj
(D) Corpus spongiosum forms major part & minor part is formed by corpus cavernosa
Ed
Q.45 Which is not correct about sustentacular cells

(A) It is situated in between the germinal epithelial cells
(B) It is related with nutrition of sperm
(C) It forms blood testis barrier
(D) It forms testosterone from oestrogen
Q.46 What is the oligospermia condition

(A) If sperm count is 40 to 120 million / ml
(B) If sperm count is <20 million/ml
(C) If sperm count is <60million /Ejaculation
(D) If sperm count is 20 million to 40 million/ ml
3.36
Human Reproduction
Q.47 Circumcision is the procedure of

(A) Cutting the glans penis
(B) Removal of whole skin of penis
(C) Removal of movable skin (prepuce) of glans penis
(D) Reduce the body part of penis
Q.48 An accessory genital gland is?

(A) Seminal vesicle (B) Cowper’s gland
(C) Prostate gland (D) All of the above
Q.49 Vaginal cavity of tunica vaginalis is found in

(A) Ovaries of female (B) Testis of male
n
(C) Vagina of female (D) None of these
.i
Q.50 Meaning of oligospermia is
n al
(A) Eggs are fertilized in less number (B) Less number of sperms in semen
ur
(C) More number of sperms formed (D) Inactive sperm are formed
o
Q.51 Sperms and ova are

uj
(A) Ectodermal in origin (B) Mesodermal in origin

Ed
(C) Endodermal in origin (D) All of the above
Q.52 If Cowper’s gland is removed which of the following will be affected

(A) Sexual attraction (B) Fertilization
(C) Hardness of penis (D) Copulation
Q.53 Capacitation of sperm is provided by

(A) Urethra (B) Vas deferens
(C) Vagina (D) Seminal vesicle
Q.54 Vagina of the female reproductive system is

(A) Primary sex organs (B) Essential sex organs
(C) Secondary sex organs (D) None of these
3.37
Human Reproduction
Q.55 Puberty occur in females at the age of

(A) 8-10 years (B) 11-14 years (C) 15-17 years (D) 18-20 years
Q.56 Mesovarium is peritoneal covering of

(A) Ovary (B) Testis (C) Kidney (D) Liver
Q.57 At puberty woman start producing

(A) Sperms (B) Urine (C) Young ones (D) Ova
Q.58 Ostium is the aperture present in

(A) Oviduct (B) Fallopian funnel
(C) Ovisac (D) Cloaca
.i n
Q.59 Eggs from ovary are released in
(A) Oviduct (B) Kidney
n al
(C) Ureter (D) Coelom
ur
Q.60 Development of foetus takes place in
(A) Vagina (B) Uterus (C) Ovary (D) Oviduct
o
uj
Q.61 Lower narrow end of uterus is called

Ed
(A) Urethra (B) Cervix (C) Clitoris (D) Vulva
Q.62 Germinal epithelial cells are cuboidal and these are found in
(A) Testes (B) Ovary (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.63 Degenerative process of follicles or eggs in ovary is called

(A) Metagenesis (B) Atresia (C) Regression (D) None of these
Q.64 Central stroma of ovary is made up of

(A) Fibrous connective tissue
(B) Reticular tissue
(C) Adipose connective tissue
(D) None of these
3.38
Human Reproduction
Q.65 Which is not a secondary sex organs

(A) Vagina (B) Penis (C) Prostate (D) Mammary gland
Q.66 What is the arborvitae uteri?

(A) Inner most layer of uterus (B) White matter of cerebellum
(C) Mucosal fold of cervix (D) Wall of vagina
Q.67 Which of the following is not related to vulva?

(A) Mons-veneris (B) Clitoris (C) Related perineum (D) Epididymis
Q.68 Arborvitae are located at

(A) Body part of uterus (B) Cylindrical part of uterus
n
(C) Fundus part of uterus (D) Vagina
.i
Q.69 Germ hill is present in
n al
(A) Sperm (B) Ovum (C) Graafian follicle (D) All of these
ur
Q.70 Clupein protein occurs in

o
(A) Human sperms (B) Avian sperms

uj
(C) Human ova (D) All of the above

Ed
Q.71 Which of the following releases inhibin to control spermatogenesis?

(A) Rete testis (B) Follicular cells
(C) Leydig’s cells (D) Sustentacular cells
Q.72 Spermatogenesis process occur in

(A) Rete testis (B) Seminiferous Tubules
(C) Septula testis (D) Mediastenum testis
Q.73 Which cell inclusion of the spermatid forms the acrosome of the sperm
(A) Centriole (B) Golgi body
(C) Mitochondria (D) Nucleus
3.39
Human Reproduction
Q.74 Which of the following part of spermatozoon arises from centriole

(A) Apical cap (B) Head (C) Middle piece (D) Tail
Q.75 Which piece of a sperm is called power house

(A) Head piece (B) Neck piece (C) Middle piece (D) Tail piece
Q.76 The sperm producing substance of enzymatic nature of sperm lysine. In mammals it is called
(A) Hyaluronidase (B) Hyaluronic acid (C) Androgamone (D) Gyanogamone
Q.77 The human sperm was first discovered by

(A) Von Baer (B) Leeuwenhoek (C) Robert hook (D) Darwin
n
Q.78 “Spermiogenesis” is a process in which
.i
(A) Spermatids change into spermatozoa
(B) Spermatogonia produce a spermatid
n al
(C) Spermatocytes give rise to spermatozoa
ur
(D) Dormant spermatozoa become active just before ejaculation

o
Q.79 In gameto genesis, reduction division take place during

uj
(A) Multiplication phase (B) Growth phase

Ed
(C) First maturation division (D) Second maturation
Q.80 Which types of division take place during second maturation division
(A) Reduction division (B) Equational division
(C) Amitosis (D) None of these
Q.81 Mammals sperm head is

(A) Spherical (B) Spiral (C) Spoon like (D) Hook like
Q.82 Which part of sperm enters in egg in human

(A) Complete sperm (B) Only head
(C) Only head and middle piece (D) Heat+ acrosome
3.40
Human Reproduction
Q.83 Release of sperm from testes is called

(A) Spermiation (B) Semination (C) Insemination (D) Ejaculation
Q.84 Space between acrosome and nucleus is called

(A) Nebenkern (B) Perforatorium
(C) Nucleus of Pander (D) Perivitelline space
Q.85 Longest phase of spermatogenesis is

(A) Multiplication phase (B) Growth phase
(C) Maturation phase (D) Germinal phase
Q.86 Correct order of spermatogenesis is
n
(A) Spermatocytes, Spermatogonia, Spermatid, Sperm
.i
(B) Spermatogonia Spermatid Spermatocytes, Sperm
(C) Spermatid Spermatogonia Spermatocytes Sperm
n al
(D) Spermatogonia, Primary Spermatocytes, Sec. Spermatocytes, Spermatid, Sperm
ur
Q.87 Hyaluronic acid which binds corona radiate cells is a

o
uj
(A) Homo polysaccharide (B) Amino acid

(C) Mucopolysaccharide (D) Glycol protein
Ed
Q.88 During spermatogenesis how many spermatozoa are formed from a single primary spermatocyte
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.89 How many secondary spermatocyte will form 400 spermatozoa

(A) 100 (B) 400 (C) 40 (D) 200
Q.90 Normally in the head of a mature sperm cytoplasm is

(A) Present in large amount
(B) Present in very moderate amount
(C) Present in very little amount
(D) Absent
3.41
Human Reproduction
Q.91 The cells of germinal epithelium which give rise to spermatozoa are called
(A) Sperms mother cells (B) Primordial germ cells
(C) Spermatocytes (D) Spermatogonia
Q.92 Acrosome and it’s membrane is called

(A) Nebenkern (B) Galea capatis
(C) Germinal vesicle (D) Menchate
Q.93 The acrosome plays a role in

(A) Fusion of nuclei of gametes
(B) Motility of sperm
n
(C) Penetration of sperm in to ovum
.i
Q.94 Smallest sperm occurs in

n al
(A) Rabbit (B) Crocodiles (C) Balanoglossus (D) Ascaris
ur
Q.95 Acrosome formation in spermatogenesis occurs in which stage

o
uj
(A) First meiotic division (B) Second meiotic division

(C) Growth phase (D) Spermiogenesis
Ed
Q.96 In which of the following animals the sperm can survive for a longer period in the body of female
(A) Mammals (B) Aves (C) Reptiles (D) Amphibian
Q.97 The head of a mature sperm is mainly composed of

(A) Elongated nucleus and acrosomal material
(B) Mitochondria, cytoplasm & nucleus
(C) Two centriole & the axial filament
Q.98 Thin cytoplasmic layer is present in middle part of sperm is called

(A) Nebenkern (B) Machete (C) Axial filament (D) Zensen ring
3.42
Human Reproduction
Q.99 At the time of birth, ovum is the form of

(A) Oogonia (B) Primary oocyte (C) Sec. oocytes (D) Egg
Q.100 An egg of bird was coated with varnish and then incubated. The egg did not hatch because the
developing embryo
(A) Could not excrete and died
(B) Could not utilize yolk in the pressure of excess amount of nitrogenous wastes
(C) Died because of depleted O2 supply
(D) Died because of toxic effect of varnish
Q.101 A human female has the maximum number of primary oocytes in her ovaries
(A) At menopause (B) At Puberty
.i n
(C) At Birth (D) Early in her fertile years
Q.102 Eggs liberated from ovary in human in

n al
(A) Secondary oocyte stage (B) Primary oocyte stage
ur
(C) Oogonial stage (D) Mature ovum stage

o
Q.103 Based on distribution of yolk, the egg of from is

uj
(A) Teloecithal (B) Centrolecithal (C) Microlecithal (D) Alecithal

Ed
Q.104 Mammalian eggs have

(A) No yolk at all (B) Small amount of yolk
(C) Large amount of yolk (D) Large amount of yolk concentrated at one pole
Q.105 Cleidoci egg found in

(A) Birds (B) Reptiles (C) Insects (D) All the above
Q.106 First meiotic division during Oogenesis occurs in

(A) First polar body (B) Second polar body
(C) Primary oocytes (D) Secondary polar body
3.43
Human Reproduction
Q.107 Human egg are

(A) Microlecithal (B) Alecithal (C) Macrolecithal (D) Mesolecithal
Q.108 The minute cells which separate from the developing ova during their maturation are called
(A) Primary Oogonia (B) Secondary Oogonia
(C) Polar bodies (D) Primary spermatogonia
Q.109 The egg of cockroach is

(A) Isolecithal (B) Telolecithal (C) Microlecithal (D) Centrolecithal
Q.110 Which of the following is haploid

(A) Primary spermatocytes & primary Oocytes
n
(B) Secondary spermatocytes & sec. oocytes
.i
(C) Spermatogonia and Oogonia
(D) Germinal cells
n al
ur
Q.111 “Oligolecithal” egg are these which have

o
(A) No yolk (B) Small yolk (C) More yolk (D) Moderate yolk
uj
Q.112 Haploid number of chromosomes are found in

Ed
(A) Zygote (B) Amoeba (C) Queen honeybee (D) Ovum
Q.113 How many sperm and ova will be formed from 50 secondary oocytes and 50 secondary spermatocytes
frog
(A) 50 ova & 200 sperm (B) 50 ova & 100 sperm
(C) 100 ova & 200 sperm (D) 100 ova & 400 sperm
Q.114 Isolecithal eggs are found in

(A) Birds (B) Frogs (C) Insects (D) Humans
Q.115 The eggs of birds is called

(A) Polylecithal (B) Megalecithal (C) Macrolecithal (D) All of the above
3.44
Human Reproduction
Q.116 The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in most vertebrates are under the influence of which
hormone
(A) Oxytocin (B) FSH (C) ACTH (D) I C SH
Q.117 Sperm differ from egg in having

(A) Power of motility (B) No stored food
(C) More number (D) All of the above
Q.118 Germ cells in vertebrate gonads are produced by

(A) Only meiosis (B) Only mitosis
(C) Meiosis & mitosis both (D) Maturation without cell division
n
Q.119 Poly lecithal egg of reptiles, bird and monotremes are also called “cleiodic” egg because these
.i
(A) Have calcareous shell and other membrane
(B) Are an adaptation to terrestrial life
n al
(C) Have self-sufficient fool, water and salt
ur
(D) None
o
Q.120 During which stage of gametogenesis meiosis occurs

uj
(A) Growth phase (B) Multi placation phase

Ed
(C) Maturation phase (D) None of the above
Q.121 Which of the following is correct match

(A) Centrolecithal egg – insect (B) Megalecithal egg - eutherian mammals
(C) Microlecithal egg – reptiles (D) Alecithal egg – birds
Q.122 The primary egg membrane of mammalians egg is termed

(A) Chorion (B) Corona radiata
(C) Zona pellucida (D) Vitelline membrane
Q.123 How many polar bodies are produced during the entire process of oogenesis in unmarried human
female
(A) Three (B) Two (C) One (D) Four
3.45
Human Reproduction
Q.124 Which of the following is diploid

(A) Secondary spermatocytes
(B) Spermatozoa & ova
(C) Spermatogonia, Oogonia, Primary spermatocyte
(D) Secondary oocytes
Q.125 Which structure show first meiosis division

(A) Oogonia & spermatogonia (B) Secondary spermatocyte & Sec. Oocyte
(C) Primary spermatocyte & primary oocytes (D) None of the above
Q.126 Stored food of oocytes is
n
(A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Cortical granules (D) Yolk
.i
Q.127 Megalecithal egg are found in
(A) Reptiles, & birds
n al
(B) Tunicates, Amphibia, monotremes
(C) Annelida, echinoderm, coelentrata (D) Sponge, reptiles, monotremes
ur
Q.128 “Homo lecithal” egg are found in

o
uj
(A) Petromyzon, tunicates & chondrichythes (B) Amphioxus, fish & amphibian
(C) Amphioxus , tunicates & mammals (D) Birds, Reptiles & monotremes
Ed
Q.129 The process of yolk synthesis is called

(A) Lipogenesis (B) Glycogenesis (C) Vitellogenesis (D) Oogenesis
Q.130 The process of gametogenesis is the formation of

(A) Sperm (B) Ova (C) Haploid gamete (D) Diploid gamete
Q.131 Butterflies, moth & honey bees & beetle lay eggs of which type
(A) Microlecithal (B) Mesolecithal (C) Telolecithal (D) Centrolecithal
Q.132 Antrum is filled with fluid and is found in

(A) Bone-marrow of bone (B) Cavity of brain
(C) Graafian follicle of ovary (D) Pericardium of heart
3.46
Human Reproduction
Q.133 One of the following is fibrous layer of follicle

(A) Theca externa (B) Zona pellucid
(C) Membrane granulosa (D) Vitelline membrane
Q.134 In a 30 year old lady, eggs are released in form os

(A) Oogonia (B) Primary oocyte (C) Secondary oocyte (D) Atretic follicle
Q.135 Lutein cells are found in

(A) Primary follicle (B) Corpus albicans (C) Corpus luteum (D) All
Q.136 Process by which Graafian follicle are formed in the ovary is knows as
(A) Oogenesis (B) Luteirisation (C) Folliculogenesis (D) All
.i n
Q.137 Mammalian follicle was first described by
(A) Leeuwenhoek (B) R. D. Graaf
n al
(C) Spallanzini (D) Von Baer
ur
Q.138 for ovulation in reflex ovulation
(A) Coitus in necessary (B) Coitus is not necessary
o
(C) Plenty of food is necessary (D) None

uj
Ed
Q.139 First menstrual cycle starts at

(A) Parturition (B) Menopause (C) Puberty (D) Implantation
Q.140 Menstrual cycle is generally of

(A) 21 days (B) 28 days (C) 39 days (D) 40 days
Q.141 In menstrual cycle ovum is released during

(A) Beginning (B) Midway (C) End (D) Any time
Q.142 Menstrual cycle is controlled by

(A) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary (B) FSH and LH of pituitary
(C) Both A and B (D) FSH of pituitary
3.47
Human Reproduction
Q.143 Stages in menstrual cycle are

(A) Recovery and proliferative phase
(B) Proliferative and secretory phase
(C) Proliferative, secretory and menstrual phase
(D) Recovery phase, secretory phase and phase of menstrual flow
Q.144 Luteal phase is the other name of

(A) Follicular phase (B) Proliferative phase
(C) Menstrual flow phase (D) Secretory phase
Q.145 Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is the other name of
n
(A) Proliferative phase (B) Secretory phase
.i
(C) Luteal phase (D) Menstruation
al
Q.146 If the menstrual cycle is of 35 days then what is risk period (cycle start on 1st day)
n
(A) 9th to 17th days (B) 11th to 18th days
ur
(C) 16th to 24th days (D) 18th to 35th days

o
uj
Q.147 The process of releasing the ripe female gamete from the ovary is called?
(A) Ovulation (B) Parturition
Ed
(C) Implantation (D) Fertilization
Q.148 Ovulation hormone is

(A) FSH (B) ICSH (C) LH (D) Testosterone
Q.149 If menstrual cycle is 30 days & bleeding start on 1st day then ovulation occur in
(A) 14th day (B) 18th day (C) 30th day (D) 16th day
Q.150 If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely in this cycle
(A) Estrogen secretion further decreases (B) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(C) Corpus luteum will disintegrate (D) Primary follicle starts developing
3.48
Human Reproduction
Q.151 Pregnancy hormone is

(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone (C) LH (D) FSH
Q.152 Relase of egg from ovary is called

(A) Ovipary (B) Ovulation (C) Hatching (D) All of the above
Q.153 Pseudopregnancy is due to

(A) Polyembryony (B) Absence of fertilization after ovulation
(C) Hormonal disturbance (D) All the above
Q.154 A polyestrous mammalian example is

(A) Man (B) Cat (C) New age monkey (D) All the above
.i n
Q.155 In mammals except primates, heat condition develops in
(A) Late stage of pre estrus phase
al
(B) Estrus phase
n
(C) Early stage of meta estrus phase (D) Dietsrus phase
ur
Q.156 Polyspermy is common in

o
(A) Frog (B) Man (C) Birds (D) Sea-urchin

uj
Ed
Q.157 In which external fertilization is seen

(A) Reptile (B) Birds (C) Chondrichthyes (D) None
Q.158 Type of fertilization (external or internal) depends on

(A) Structure of egg (B) Site of embryo development
(C) Type of sperm (D) A and B both
Q.159 Adaptation for approach of sperm of egg in mammals

(A) Sperm kept inactive till ejaculation (B) Very high number of sperm
(C) Peristalsis of oviduct (D) All the above
Q.160 Motion of sperm is

(A) Chemotaxis (B) Rheotaxis (C) Hydrotropism (D) Random
3.49
Human Reproduction
Q.161 Internal fertilization in animals is mainly concerned

(A) With presence of copulatory organ (B) To ensure fertilization
(C) With an adaption to the terrestrial life (D) With conservation of semen
Q.162 The chemical substance called fertilizing performs which of the following function
(A) It activates the sperm (B) It attracts the sperm by positive chemotaxis
(C) It agglutinates sperm (D) None
Q.163 The process of fertilization in sea urchin was originally noticed by

(A) O-Hertwing (B) Fleming (C) Waldyer (D) Wilson
Q.164 The most important significance of fertilizing & antifertilizin reaction is to
n
(A) Preserve the sperm
.i
(C) Mutually attract the gametes of opposite sexes
n al
(B) Ensure that at least few spermatozoa encounter the egg
(D) Ensure fusion of gamete of same species

ur
Q.165 In which of the following fertilization occurs externally in water?

o
uj
(A) Hydra (B) Frog (C) Both (D) None

Ed
Q.166 Antifertilizin is
(A) Glycoprotein (B) Simple acidic protein
(C) Carbohydrate (D) None
Q.167 Fertilization can be correctly defined as fusion of

(A) Male and female pronuclei
(B) Cytoplasm of male & female gametes
(C) Two gametes
(D) Male and female gametes of the same species
Q.168 Polyspermy is normally prevented by

(A) The fertilizing and antifertilizin reaction (B) Repulsion of excess number of sperm by ova
(C) In ability of some sperms to penetrate ova (D) Formation of fertilization membrane
3.50
Human Reproduction
Q.169 External fertilization mostly occurs in those animal which

(A) Lay eggs in soil (B) Lay egg in water (C) Are viviparous (D) Are oviparous
Q.170 The enzyme hyaluronidase helps in penetration of sperm in to egg. It is

(A) Present in sperm (B) Present in ovum
(C) Present in sperm & ovum both (D) Derived from the external medium
Q.171 Natural parthenogenesis occurs in

(A) Dog (B) Honey-bee (C) Frog (D) House – fly
Q.172 Process of formation of an individual without contribution of father is called as

(A) Epigenesis (B) Pangenesis (C) Induction (D) Parthenogenesis
.i n
Q.173 Development of an unfertilized egg is called
(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Metamorphosis
n al
(C) Gametogenesis (D) Paedogenesis
ur
Q.174 Haploid parthenogenesis is called
(A) Amphitoky (B) Deuterotoky (C) Thelytoky (D) Arrhenotoky
o
uj
Q.175 Cleavage starts in zygote

Ed
(A) In uterus (B) In Fallopian tube (C) In Vagina (D) In Cervix
Q.176 After which stage cleavage stopped

(A) After Morula (B) After Blastula (C) After Gastrula (D) Any time it stops
Q.177 How many cleavages are required for formation of 16 Blastomeres

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.178 The Blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called __________A__________.,
and inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the _______B_______
(A) A is trophoblast and B are inner cell mass (B) A are inner cell mass and B is trophoblast
(C) Both are trophoblast (D) Both are inner cells mass
3.51
Human Reproduction
Q.179 Cells formed as a result of cleavage are called

(A) Megameres (B) Micromeres (C) Blastoderm (D) Blastomeres
Q.180 Cleavage in human is

(A) Equal (B) Unequal (C) Superficial (D) Not possible
Q.181 Types of cleavage in centrolecithal eggs

(A) Spiral (B) Superficial (C) Discoidal (D) Unequal holoblastic
Q.182 Cell-division in zygote is called

(A) Cleavage (B) Segmentation (C) Cellulation (D) All the above
n
Q.183 What happens in cells of embryo during cleavage?
.i
(A) Decrease in cytoplasm (B) Increase in cytoplasm and decrease in nuclear material
(C) Decrease in both
al
(D) Both remains constant
n
Q.184 Cleavage start in man in
ur
(A) Fallopian tube (B) Uterus (C) Vagina (D) None

o
uj
Q.185 Which of the following characteristics does not belong to cleavage

(A) Decrease in size of blastomeres (B) Rapid mitotic cell division
Ed
(C) Interphase of very short duration (D) Differentiation of blastomeres
Q.186 When a zygote divides completely into blastomeres, the type of cleavage is called
(A) Holoblastic (B) Meroblastic (C) Fertilization (D) Metamorphosis
Q.187 Cleavage start in man in

(A) Fallopian tube (B) Uterus (C) Vagina (D) None
Q.188 Three germ layers are formed during which stage of embryonic development
(A) Morula (B) Blastula (C) Gastrula (D) In any two stages
Q.189 Movement of blastomeres usually seen in which embryonic stage

(A) Morula (B) Blastula (C) Gastrula (D) In all embryonic stages
3.52
Human Reproduction
Q.190 The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during
the
(A) 3rd month (B) 4th month (C) 5th month (D) 8th month
Q.191 Late gastrula has

(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm (C) Endoderm (D) All
Q.192 In rabbit at the time of fertilization zygote is formed in

(A) Coelom (B) Fallopian tube (C) Uterus (D) Vagina
Q.193 In which stage rate of cell-division decrease?

(A) Morula (B) Gastrula (C) Blastula (D) Zygote
n
Q.194 Fate map of embryo is prepared in which stage?
.i
(A) Morula (B) Blastula (C) Gastrula
al (D) Nerula
n
Q.195 Solid ball of cell produced by repeated cleavage is called
ur
(A) Gastrula (B) Blastula (C) Morula (D) Nerula
o
Q.196 Archenteron is cavity in

uj
(A) Blastula (B) Gastrula (C) Nerula (D) Morula

Ed
Q.197 Which statement is not correct for gastrulation

(A) Formation of archenteron (B) Cell division stops
(C) Oxidation reaction increase (D) Elongation of embryo starts
Q.198 Blastopore normally develops into frog

(A) Anus (B) Mouth (C) Anus or mouth (D) None of these
Q.199 Cavity formed during gastrulation and found in mature gastrula is

(A) Blastocoels (B) Archenteron (C) Neurocoel (D) Pseudocoel
Q.200 Gastrulation is a process

(A) Which begins the segregation of germ layers (B) That occurs just after morulation
(C) That occur just after cleavage (D) Of rapid growth in blastomeres
3.53
Human Reproduction
Q.201 The first indication of division of labor in the blastomeres appear at

(A) Morula stage (B) Blastula stage
(C) Gastrula stage (D) Nerula stage
Q.202 In which stage of development the embryonic cells form the germinal layers by the movement
(A) Morula (B) Blastula (C) Gastrula (D) Nerula
Q.203 Gastrulation is a process of

(A) Formation of archenteron
(B) Migration of prospective endomesodermal cells
(C) Differentiation of three primary germ layers
n
.i
(B) Blastula
n al
Q.204 Preparation of cell differentiation are completed in
(A) Morula (C) Gastrula (D) Nerula
ur
Q.205 Stage of embryonic development in which differentiation of cell occurs

o
(A) Blastula (B) Morula (C) Gastrula (D) Nerula

uj
Q.206 Sexually reproducing multicellular animals start their development from

Ed
(A) Gastrula (B) Morula (C) Unicellular zygote (D) Ova
Q.207 In human embryo the extra embryonic membrane are formed by

(A) Inner cell mass (B) Trophoblast
(C) Formative cells (D) Follicles cells
Q.208 The expulsion of completely developed foetus from the uterus is known as
(A) Ovulation (B) Oviposition (C) Gestation (D) Parturition
3.54
Human Reproduction
Q.209 In parturition process, which of the following does not happen

(A) Oxytocin hormone is secreted by posterior pituitary
(B) Relaxin hormone responsible for narrowing of pelvic cavity
(C) Progesterone hormone secretion is stopped
(D) General position of foetus is occipito-anterior
Q.210 Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

(A) Differentiation of mammary glands
(B) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(C) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
(D) Fully developed foetus and placenta
.i n
Q.211 Oxytocin is mainly help in
(A) Milk production al
(B) Child birth
n
(C) Urine formation (D) gametogenesis
ur
Q.212 External/accessory sexual characters first appear in

o
(A) Childhood (B) Puberty

uj
(C) Foetus (D) Adulthood

Ed
Q.213 Voice is high pitched in

(A) Aged persons (B) Adult males
(C) Boys (D) Females
Q.214 Abnormal conditioning when the mammary glands of man become female like is called
(A) Feminization (B) Gonochorism
(C) Gynacomastism (D) Gynoecism
Q.215 In prototherians mammary glands are

(A) Absent (B) Present in male only
(C) Present in female only (D) Present in male and female both
3.55
Human Reproduction
Q.216 Which following homologous structures are mismatched

(A) Clitoris and penis (B) Vagina and prostatic utricle
(C) Uterus and seminal vesicle (D) Fallopian tube and prostate
Q.217 Which is not correct about secondary sexual characters of female

(A) Development of mammary gland (B) Presence of pubic hair
(C) Low pitched voice (D) Menarche
Q.218 Frog is
(A) Reflex ovulator (B) Spontaneous ovulator
(C) Non ovulator (D) None of these
n
Q.219 Testicular degeneration and other disorders of reproductive system in mammals are due to the
.i
deficiency of
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin B
n al
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E
ur
Q.220 Father of modern embryology
(A) Von Baer (B) Haeckel (C) Aristotle (D) Robert Hook
o
uj
Q.221 “Father of embryology” is

Ed
(A) Spemann (B) Von Baer (C) Aristotle (D) Bonnet
Q.222 Development of animal by asexual reproduction is called

(A) Ontogenesis (B) Embryogenesis
(C) Blastogenesis (D) Morphalloaxis
Q.223 In the following which vitamin essential for gametogenesis?

(A) Vit A and E (B) Vit C and D
(C) Vit E and K (D) Vit E and B complex
3.56
Human Reproduction
Q.224 What will happen to spermatozoa at 0°C temperature

(A) All sperm will die
(B) There will be no change
(C) They will become inactive temporarily
(D) Tails will be lost
Q.225 Which of the following embryonic layer formed gametes

(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm (D) Mesoderm and Endoderm
Q.226 Each testis has how many testicular tubules
n
(A) About 100 (B) About 50 (C) About 250 (D) Infinite
.i
Q.227 The male accessory glands include
(A) Prostate gland
al
(B) Bulbourethral gland
n
(C) Seminal vesicles (D) All of the above
ur
Q.228 In male penis is covered by a loose fold of skin is called

o
uj
(A) Foreskin (B) Urethral meatus

(C) External genitalia (D) Fimbriae
Ed
Q.229 The function of fimbriae

(A) Collection of the ovum after ovulation
(B) Maintain the shape of ovary
(C) Provide the path to sperm during fertilization
(D) None of these
Q.230 Which statement is wrong

(A) Mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli
(B) Uterus is also called womb
(C) The last part of the oviduct is called Ampulla
(D) Stroma of ovary divided into two zone
3.57
Human Reproduction
Q.231 Spermatogenesis started then increase the secretion of

(A) GnRH (B) LTH (C) Oxytocin (D) Relaxin
Q.232 Antrum is
(A) Fluid filled follicle cavity (B) An Inner theca interna
(C) The mature follicle (D) Fluids less follicle cavity
Q.233 Ovulation is
(A) Releasing of secondary oocyte from ovary
(B) Releasing of primary oocyte from ovary
(C) Releasing of polar body
n
(D) Releasing of Graafian follicle
.i
(B) 25%
n al
Q.234 For normal fertility, how many percentage of sperm must have normal shape and size
(A) 50% (C) 40% (D) 60%
ur
Q.235 In which duration menstrual cycle both LH & FSH attain a peak level
o
(A) In last week (B) Middle of cycle

uj
(C) Initial days of cycle (D) 4th day of cycle

Ed
Q.236 Which statement is not correct

(A) In the absence of fertilization , the corpus luteum degenerates
(B) During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop
(C) The secretion of LH &FSH decreases gradually during the follicular phase
(D) The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of endometrial lining
Q.237 In which phase of menstrual cycle Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum
(A) Luteal (B) Proliferation (C) Follicular (D) Growth
Q.238 Which hormones is essential for maintenance of the endometrium

(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Progesterone (D) Testosterone
3.58
Human Reproduction
Q.239 Which of the following is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche
and menopause
(A) Menstruation cycle (B) Estrous cycle
(C) Ovulation (D) Implantation
Q.240 Fertilization takes place at

(A) Cervix (B) Ampullary – isthmic junction
(C) Isthmus (D) Vagina
Q.241 The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called

(A) Morula (B) Blastula (C) Gastrula (D) Foetus
n
Q.242 During implantation, the blastocyst becomes embedded in the which layer of uterus
.i
(A) Trophoblast (B) Endometrium (C) Myometrium (D) Perimetrium
n al
Q.243 The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the _______of the oviduct called cleavage
ur
(A) Ampulla (B) Isthmus (C) Fimbria (D) Infundibulum
o
Q.244 During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the which layer of the ovum
uj
(A) Jelly coat (B) Zona pellucid

Ed
(C) Vitelline membrane (D) Perivitelline space
Q.245 Function of placenta is

(A) Supply of O2 to embryo
(B) Removal of CO2 produced by the embryo
(C) Produces several hormones
Q.246 Stem cells are found in

(A) Inner cell mass (B) Ectoderm
(C) Endoderm (D) Mesoderm
3.59
Human Reproduction
Q.247 The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by

(A) Listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope
(B) Appearance of hair
(C) Appearance of head
(D) Appearance of eye lids
Q.248 During pregnancy only which hormones are secreted in women

(A) Progesterone (B) hPL (C) Estrogen (D) Thyroxin
Q.249 Placenta contains

(A) Only chorionic villi
n
(B) Only uterine tissue
.i
(C) Chorionic villi + uterine tissue
(D) Trophoblast + chorionic villi
n al
Q.250 The average duration of human pregnancy is about nine months which is called
ur
(A) Gestation period (B) Parturition (C) Lactation (D) Implantation

o
uj
Q.251 Parturition is induced by

(A) A complex neuroendocrine mechanism
Ed
(B) A simple neuroendocrine mechanism

(C) A neuro exocrine mechanism
(D) A physio- chemical mechanism
Q.252 The signals for parturition originate from

(A) Fully developed foetus
(B) Placenta
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Uterus
3.60
Human Reproduction
Q.253 Which hormone acts on the uterine during parturition

(A) Oxytocin (B) LH (C) Estrogen (D) Relaxin
Q.254 Which gland of female undergo differentiation during pregnancy

(A) Thyroid (B) Mammary (C) Pituitary (D) Thymus
Q.255 Which is correct for colostrum

(A) It contains several antibodies
(B) It produced during the last days of lactation
(C) It is a pheromone
(D) It is white in colour
.i n
n al
Q.1 Cryptorchidism is a condition of testes [AIIMS 83, WARDHA 2000, 02]
ur
(A) Unable to descend in scrotal sacs

o
(B) Unable to produce sperms

uj
(C) Having been surgically removed

(D) Having remained undeveloped
Ed
Q.2 In between spermatogonia are found [CPMT 87]

(A) Germinal cells (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Epithelial cells (D) Lymph space
Q.3 Cells of Leydig occur in [MANIPAL 95]

(A) Liver (B) Ovary (C) Testis (D) Spleen
Q.4 Location and secretion of Leydig cells are [CBSE 91]

(A) Liver- cholesterol (B) Ovary-oestrogen
(C) Testis- Testosterone (D) Pancreas- Glucagon
3.61
Human Reproduction
Q.5 Which accessory genital gland occurs only in male mammal [CPMT 91]
(A) Bartholin’s gland (B) Perineal gland
(C) Prostate gland (D) All of the above
Q.6 Seminiferous tubules occur in [MP PMT 87]

(A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Ovary (D) Testis
Q.7 Sugar fructose is present in the secretion of [ORRISA JEE 95]

(A) Seminal vesicle (B) Perineal gland
(C) Cowper’s gland (D) Bartholin’s gland
Q.8 What would happen if vasa deferentia of man are cut [MP PMT 93]
n
(A) Sperms are non-nucleate (B) Spermatogenesis does not occur
.i
(C) Semen is without sperms (D) Sperm are non-motile
Q.9 Which one is primary sex organ

n al [ROHTAK PMT 93]
(A) Scrotum (B) Penis (C) Testis (D) Prostrate
ur
Q.10 Cowper’s gland are found in [MP 94, 95]

o
(A) Male mammals (B) Female birds

uj
(C) Male amphibians (D) Female amphibians

Ed
Q.11 A female gland corresponding to prostate of males is [MP PMT 93]

(A) Bartholin’s’ gland (B) Bulbourethral gland
(C) Clitoris (D) None of these
Q.12 Secondary sex organ is [MP 93]

(A) Testis (B) Ovary (C) Beard (D) Vasa deferens
Q.13 Which gland secretes odorous secretion in mammals [CBSE 2000]

(A) Bartholin’s (B) Prostate (C) Anal gland (D) Liver-bile
3.62
Human Reproduction
Q.14 In mammals, maturation of sperms take place at a temperature [MP PMT 1991]
(A) Equal to that of body (B) Higher than that of body
(C) Lower than that of body (D) At any piece of mammalian sperm
Q.15 What would happen if vasa deferentia of man are cut? [MP PMT 1993]
(A) Sperms are non-nucleate (B) Spermatogenesis does not occur
(C) Semen is without sperms (D) Sperms are non-motile
Q.16 Prostate gland produces a secretion for [BHU 1996]

(A) Stimulating Attract (B) Stimulating sperm activity
(C) Attractive egg (D) None of the above
n
Q.17 Seminal vesicles are located in [MANIPAL 1999]
.i
(A) Caput epididymis (B) Uterus
(C) Above Cowper’s glands
n al
(D) Glans penis
Q.18 Head of epididymis present at head of testis is [CPMT 2000]

ur
(A) Caput epididymis (B) Cauda epididymis

(C) Vas deferens (D) Gubernaculums
o
uj
Q.19 Glands secreting male sex hormone are [PB PMT 2000]
Ed
(A) Leydig cells (B) Seminiferous tubules

(C) Vasa deferentia (D) Testes
Q.20 Testes descent into scrotum in mammals for [AFMC 2001]

(A) Spermatogenesis (B) Fertilization
(C) Development of sex organs (D) Development of visceral organs
Q.21 Nutritive cells of seminiferous tubules are [KERAL 2003]

(A) Leydig cells (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Atretic follicular cells (D) Spermatogonial cells
Q.22 The animal in which testes descent into scrotum only during breeding season [AFMC 2004]
(A) Frog (B) Kangaroo (C) Shrew (D) Bat
3.63
Human Reproduction
Q.23 Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as [CBSE 2006]
(A) FSH (B) GH (C) Prolactin (D) LH
Q.24 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in [CBSE 2009]

(A) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(B) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(C) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(D) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
Q.25 Which of the following is not a long term contraception method? [CBSE 2009]
(A) Sub cutaneous implants (B) Vasectomy
(C) Use of a condom (D) Tubectomy
.i n
Q.26 Spermatozoa are nourished during their development by [ORRISA JEE 95]
(A) Sertoli cells
n al
(B) Interstitial cells
(C) Connective tissue cells (D) None of these
ur
Q.27 If somatic chromosomes number is 40. What shall be chromosomal number in the cell of seminiferous
o
tubules [AFMC 94]

uj
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 10 (D) 40 and 20

Ed
Q.28 In the female Rabbit which structure is homologous to penis of male [RPMT 2001]
(A) Cervix (B) Vagina (C) Uterus (D) Clitoris
Q.29 Endometrium is lining of [CPMT 88]

(A) Testis (B) Urinary bladder (C) Uterus (D) Ureter
Q.30 A secondary sexual character is [DPMT 82]

(A) Breast (B) Ovary (C) Thyroid (D) Thyroid
Q.31 Expanded proximal part of oviduct in female is [DPMT 85]

(A) Uterus (B) Fallopian tube
(C) Fimbriated funnel (D) Vestibule
3.64
Human Reproduction
Q.33 Bartholin’s glands are situated [CBSE 2003]

(A) On the sides of the head of some amphibians (B) At the reduced tail end of birds
(C) On either side of vagina in humans (D) On either side of vas deferens in humans
Q.34 Bartholin’s glands occurs in [MP PMT 1992]

(A) Females and help in vestibular lubrication
(B) Females and produce oestrogen for regulating secondary sexual characters
(C) Males and form liquid part of spermatic fluid
(D) Males and produce alkaline fluid for neutralizing urethral acidity
Q.35 A female gland corresponding to prostate of males is? [MP PMT 1993]
(A) Bartholin’s gland (B) Bulbourethral gland
n
(C) Clitoris (D) None of the above
.i
Q.36 Mullerian duct is
(A) Ureter (B) Urethra
n al
(C) Sperm duct (D) Oviduct
[MP PMT 2000]
ur
Q.37 Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation are under the control of [CPMT 87]
o
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Progesterone (D) Parathyroid Hormone

uj
Q.38 Human sperm was discovered by [DPMT 1996]

Ed
(A) Leeuwenhoek (B) Aristotle (C) Graaf (D) Pander
Q.39 At the end of first meiotic division, male germ cell differentiates into [C.B.S.E.1994; M.P.P.M.T.96]
(A) Secondary spermatocyte (B) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Spermatogonium (D) Spermatid
Q.40 A mature sperm has [AFMC 1994]

(A) A pair of flagella
(B) A nucleus, an acrosome ad a centriole
(C) A nucleus, an acrosome , a pair of centrioles
(D) A nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles and a tail
3.65
Human Reproduction
Q.41 Middle piece of mammalian sperm contains [AIIMS 1998, CBSE 99]
(A) Nucleus (B) Vacuoles (C) Mitochondria (D) Centriole
Q.42 The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of [AIIMS 1999]

(A) An acrosome
(B) Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome
(C) Two centrioles and an axial filament
(D) Nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm and mitochondrial sheath
Q.43 Which part of sperm provides energy it to fertilize, the egg [RPMT 2001]
(A) Sperm head (B) Acrosome (C) Sperm tail (D) Middle piece
n
Q.44 At which stage of spermatogenesis sperm acquire their whole structural maturity and they contain a
.i
haploid nucleus and other organs [RPMT 2002]
(A) Spermiogenesis
al
(B) Growth phase
n
(C) Multiplication phase (D) Maturation phase
ur
Q.45 Which part of the spermatid forms acrosome of sperm? [RPMT 2004]
o
(A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi body (C) Nucleus (D) Lysosome

uj
Q.46 How many sperms are formed by one primary spermatocyte? [RPMT 2005]
Ed
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1
Q.47 In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the
[CBSE 2008]
(A) Spermatids (B) Spermatogonia
(C) Primary spermatocytes (D) Secondary spermatocytes
Q.48 The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature
human testis is [CBSE 20089]
(A) Spermatogonia – Spermatid – Spermatocyte – Sperms
(B) Spermatocyte – Spermatogonia – Spermatid – Sperms
(C) Spermatogonia – Spermatocyte – Spermatid – Sperms
(D) Spermatid – Spermatocyte – Spermatogonia – Sperms
3.66
Human Reproduction
Q.49 10 oogonia yield 10 primary oocytes, then how many ova are produced on completion of oogenesis
[RPMT 2001]
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 40
Q.50 Human eggs are [C.B.S.E.1991, 97; M.P.P.M.T. 2000]

(A) Alecithal (B) Microlecithal
(C) Mesolecithal (D) Macrolecithal
Q.51 Human egg has [C.B.S.E. 1991; MANIPAL 95; M.P.P.M.T.2000]

(A) One Y –chromosome (B) One X-chromosome
(C) Two Y-chromosome (D) One X-chromosome and one Y –chromosome
n
Q.52 In telolecithal egg the yolk is found [C.B.S.E.1993]
.i
(A) All over the egg (B) On one side
(C) Both the sides al
(D) Centre
n
Q.53 Reptile and birds eggs are [AIIMS 1996]
ur
(A) Macrolecithal (B) Oligoleithal

(C) Mesolecithal (D) Alecithal
o
uj
Q.54 Egg with peripheral cytoplasm around the yolk is [AIIMS 1998]
Ed
(A) Isolecithal (B) Microlecithal

(C) Telolecithal (D) Centrolecithal
Q.55 Polar body is produced during the formation of [PB PMT 1999]
(A) Sperm (B) Secondary oocyte
(C) Oogonium (D) Spermatocytes
Q.56 Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the influence of LH, after completing [AIIMS 2001]
(A) Mitosis and before liberating polar bodies
(B) Meiosis I and before liberating second polar bodies
(C) Meiosis
(D) Meiosis II after release of first polar body
3.67
Human Reproduction
Q.57 Noncleiodic eggs occur in [BHU 2001]

(A) Birds (B) Fish (C) Reptiles (D) Platypus
Q.58 Microlecithal eggs are found in [RPMT 2001]

(A) Reptilia + Aves (B) Amphibia + Aves + Reptilia
(C) Reptilia + Aves + Chiroptera (D) Eutheria
Q.59 Which have macrolecithal eggs? [RPMT 2001]

(A) Aves , Reptilia (B) Aves, Reptilia, Amphibia
(C) Aves, Reptilia, Chiroptera (D) Aves, Eutheria
Q.60 Cleidoic egg is an adaptation for [RPMT 2001]
n
(A) Aquatic life (B) Marine life
.i
(C) Terrestrial life (D) Aerial life
n al
Q.61 In mammals egg are microlecithal and isolecithal because these are [RPMT 2001]
(A) Oviparous (B) Viviparous
ur
(C) Ovoviviparous (D) None of them

o
Q.62 Eggs of birds are [RPMT 2001]

uj
(A) Microlecithal (B) Centrolecithal

Ed
(C) Megalecithal (D) Alecithal
Q.63 Insects’s eggs are [RPMT 2002]

(A) Microlecithal and centrolecithal (B) Megalecithal and isolecithal
(C) Megalecithal and centrolecithal (D) Megalecithal and telocithal
Q.64 Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs [C.B.S.E. 1993]
(A) After entry of sperm before completion of fertilization
(B) After completion of fertilization
(C) Before entry of sperm
(D) Without any relation of sperm entry.
3.68
Human Reproduction
Q.65 Estrogen is secreted by [HR. PMT 2000]

(A) Corpus luteum (B) Membranous granulosa of Graafian follicle
(C) Germinal epithelium of ovary (D) Pituitary
Q.66 Mammalian placenta originates from [MP PMT 2002]

(A) Allantois and chorion (B) Yolk sack
(C) Allantois (D) Amnion
Q.67 Number of eggs released in the life time of a woman is approximately [KARNATAKA 1999]
(A) 40 (B) 400 (C) 4000 (D) 20000
Q.68 Graffian follicle are found in [DPMT 82, BHU 85]
n
(A) Testis of mammal (B) Ovary of frog
.i
(C) Ovary of cockroach (D) Ovary of mammals
n al
Q.69 In mammals, corpus luteum is found in which organ [RPMT 2002]
ur
(A) Brain (B) Ovary (C) Liver (D) Eyes
o
Q.70 Which temporary endocrine gland forms in ovary after ovulation [RPMT 2003]
uj
(A) Corpus collosum (B) Corpus albicans

Ed
(C) Corpus luteum (D) Corpus striata
Q.71 Which set is similar [CBSE 2001]

(A) Corpus luteum – Graafian follicles (B) Sebum –sweet
(C) Bundle of his –Pacemaker (D) Vita B7- Niacin
Q.72 When both ovary are removed from rat then which hormone is decreased in blood [CBSE 2002]
(A) Oxytocin (B) Prolactin
(C) Estrogen (D) Gonadotrophic releasing factor
Q.73 Corpus luteum develops from [BHU 1993, KERALA 2001]

(A) Oocyte (B) Nephrostome
(C) Graafian follicle (D) None of the above
3.69
Human Reproduction
Q.74 Corpus luteum secretes [PB. PMT 1997, AMU 2001]

(A) LH (B) Estrogen (C) Progesterone (D) FSH
Q.75 In case of nonfertilization, corpus luteum [CPMT 1997]

(A) Stops secreting progesterone (B) Changes to corpus albicans
(C) Starts producing progesterone (D) None of the above
Q.76 Antrum is cavity for [KARNATAKA 2001]

(A) Ovary (B) Graafian follicle (C) Blastula (D) Gastrula
Q.77 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as in endocrine gland after ovulation? [CBSE 2007]
(A) Vitelline membrane (B) Graafian follicle
n
(C) Stroma (D) Germinal epithelium
.i
al
Q.78 Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
n
[CBSE 2009]
ur
(A) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized
(B) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
o
(C) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
uj
(D) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
Ed
Q.79 Graafian follicles contain [MP PMT 1992]

(A) Corpus luteum (B) Corpus albicans
(C) Theca externa and theca interna (D) Oogonial cells
Q.80 After ovulation, Graafian follicle forms [CBSE 1999]

(C) Corpus artesia (D) Corpus callosum
Q.81 Graafian follicle contains [MP PMT 2000]

(A) Many oocytes (B) Many sperms
(C) A single oocyte (D) Site for egg fertilization
3.70
Human Reproduction
Q.82 Microlecithal eggs with very small amount of food reserve are found in [MP PMT 2002]
(A) Frog (B) Insects (C) Man (D) Fish
Q.83 the endocrinal structure formed after ovulation (release of ovum from Graafian follicle) is [CPMP 83]
(A) Corpus albicans (B) Corpus callosum
(C) Corpus luteum (D) Corpus striatum
Q.84 corpus luteum is [CPMT 91]

(A) Excretory (B) Endocrine (C) Digestive (D) Reproductive
Q.85 Loss of reproductive capacity in women after age of 45 years is [JK CEE 92]
(A) Menstruation (B) Ageing (C) Menopause (D) Menarche
.i n
Q.86 Ovulation occurs under the influence of [CBSE 94]
(A) LH (B) FSH
n al
(C) Estrogen (D) Progesterone
ur
Q.87 In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on [CBSE 94]
(A) Day 2 (B) Day 5 (C) Day 14 (D) Day 28
o
uj
Q.88 Cessation of menstrual cycle is called [JEE 81]

Ed
(A) Ovulation (B) Menopause (C) Puberty (D) Implantation
Q.89 In the absence of pregnancy, corpus luteum [MP PMT 1989]

(A) Becomes active, secretes FSH and LH
(B) Produces lot of oxytocin and relaxin
(C) Degenerates after some time
(D) Is maintained by progesterone
Q.90 Which induces the development of corpus luteum [CBSE 1999]

(A) LH (B) Oestrogen (C) FSH (D) LTH
3.71
Human Reproduction
Q.91 After ovulation follicles converted into [CBSE 1999]

(C) Corpus cavernosa (D) Corpus calosum
Q.92 Mainly which type of hormones control the menstrual cycle in human beings [CBSE 2002]
(A) FSH (B) LH
(C) FSH, LH, Estrogen (D) Progesterone only
Q.93 Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle [CBSE 2004]
(A) At the end of the proliferative phase
(B) At the mid secretory phase
n
(C) Just before the end of the secretory phase
.i
(D) At the beginning of the proliferative phase
Q.94 Onset of pregnancy

n al [MP PMT 1991]
(A) Stimulates testosterone secretion
ur
(B) Inhibits further ovulation

o
(C) Leads to degeneration of ovary

uj
(D) Inhibits fusion of egg and sperm nuclei

Ed
Q.95 Loss of reproductive capacity in women after age of 45 years is [JK CEE 1992]
(A) Menstruation (B) Ageing (C) Menopause (D) Menarche
Q.96 Which is correct? [MP PMT 1993]

(A) Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals
(B) Menstrual cycle is present in all primates
(C) Estrous cycle occurs in all mammals
(D) Most mammals are ovoviparous
3.72
Human Reproduction
Q.97 Yellow corpus luteum occurs in a mammals in [MP PMT 1993, 98 CBSE 95]
(A) Heart to initiate heart beat
(B) Skin to function as pain receptor
(C) Brain and connects cerebral hemispheres
(D) Ovary for secretion of progesterone
Q.98 Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is [AIIMS 1999, ORISSA 04]
(A) FSH, progesterone, estrogen
(B) Estrogen, FSH, progesterone
(C) FSH, estrogen, progesterone
(D) Estrogen, progesterone, FSH
.i n
Q.99 Progesterone level falls leading to [MP PMT 2000]
(A) Gestation (B) Menopause
n al
(C) Lactation (D) Menstruation
Q.100 Human female reaches menopause at the age of about [AFMC 2000]
ur
(A) 25 years (B) 35 years (C) 50 years (D) 70years

o
uj
Q.101 Phase of menstrual cycle when ovulation occurs in [WARDHA 2001]

(A) Luteal (B) Menstrual (C) Proliferative (D) Secretory
Ed
Q.102 Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteum is [JIMPER 2002]
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) LTH (D) ICSH
Q.103 Hormone controlling human menstrual cycle [CBSE 2002]

(A) Estrogen (B) FSH (C) LH (D) All of the above
Q.104 Phase of menstrual cycle in human that lasts for 7-8days is [AIIMS 2003]
(A) Follicular phase (B) Ovulatory phase
(C) Luteal phase (D) Menstruation
3.73
Human Reproduction
Q.105 Menstruation is caused by [D. PMT 2003]

(A) Increase in FSH level (B) Fall in oxytocin level
(C) Fall in progesterone level (D) Increase in oestrogen level
Q.106 In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of [CBSE 2007]
(A) FSH only
(B) LH only
(C) Combination of FSH and LH
(D) Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Q.107 Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation? [CBSE 2008]
n
(A) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones
.i
(B) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
al
(C) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
n
(D) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
ur
Q.108 In uterus, endometrium proliferates in response to [KERALA 2004]

o
(A) Relaxin (B) Oxytocin (C) Progesterone

uj
(D) Oestrogen (E) LH

Ed
Q.109 Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane called [AIIMS 1998]
(A) Chorion (B) Zona pellucid
(C) Corona radiata (D) 2 and 3
Q.110 Ovulation occurs under the influence of [KARNATAKA 1994, CBSE 94, and AIIMS 96]
(A) LH (B) FSH (C) Estrogen (D) Progesterone
Q.111 Ovulation or release of ovum occurs on the day of menstrual cycle [MANIPAL2000]
(A) 8-10 (B) 12-14
(C) 4-14 (D) Last two day of menstrual cycle
3.74
Human Reproduction
Q.112 Monoestrous cycle animals may have [MP 95]

(A) One ovulation each month (B) One egg
(C) One breeding season in a year (D) One menses each month
Q.113 Estrous cycle is characteristic of [CBSE 95]

(A) Human females (B) Mammalian females
(C) Mammalian females other than primates (D) Mammals
Q.114 Estrous cycle is indication of? [MP PMT 1993]

(A) Breeding period (B) Estrogen secretion
(C) Pregnancy (D) Menopause
n
Q.115 Site of fertilization in mammal is [MP PMT 88, 95, BHU 89]
.i
(A) Ovary (B) Uterus
n al
(C) Vagina (D) Fallopian tube
Q.116 In mammals, egg is fertilized in [RPMT 2003]

ur
(A) Ovary (B) Fallopian tube (C) Uterus (D) Vagina

o
Q.117 Fertilizinis are emitted by [CBSE 1991, 91; BHU 85; CPMT 97, JLPMER 2000]
uj
(A) Immature eggs (B) Mature eggs

Ed
(C) Sperms (D) Polar bodies
Q.118 Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by [C.B.S.E.1993]

(A) Capacitation (B) Release of lysine
(C) Influx of Na+ (D) Release of fertilizin
Q.119 Fertilization is [KARNATAKA 1994]

(A) Union of diploid spermatozoon with diploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(B) Union haploid sperm with haploid ovum to form haploid zygote
(C) Union of haploid sperm with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(D) Union of diploid sperm with haploid ovum to from triploid zygote
3.75
Human Reproduction
Q.120 Part of sperm involved in penetrating egg membrane is [KARNATAKA 1995, MP PMT 99, 2000]
(A) Tail (B) Acrosome (C) Allosome (D) Autosome
Q.121 Fertilization is fusion of [AIIMS 1996]

(A) Diploid spermatozoon diploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(B) Haploid spermatozoon with diploid ovum to from diploid zygote
(C) Diploid spermatozoon with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
(D) Haploid spermatozoon with haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
Q.122 Sperms produce an enzymatic substance for dissolving egg coverings. It is called
[KARNATAKA 2001]
(A) Hyaluronic acid (B) Hyaluronidase
.i n
(C) Androgamone (D) Diastase
n al
Q.123 At the time of fertilization sperm head enters in the egg from [RPMT 2001]
(A) Any where (B) Animal pole
ur
(C) Vegetal pole (D) Lateral side of egg

o
Q.124 Sperm enters from which part of egg [RPMT 2002]

uj
(A) Anywhere in unfertilized egg from vegetal pole

Ed
(B) From animal pole in unfertilized egg

(C) In unfertilized egg from vegetal pole
(D) None of these
Q.125 The chemical in ovum which attracts sperms [RPMT 2005]

(A) Fertilizing (B) Antifertilizin (C) Agglutinin (D) Thrombin
Q.126 Meroblastic cleavage takes place in [M.P.P.M.T.1991]

(A) Hydra (B) Amphioxus (C) Frog (D) Chick
3.76
Human Reproduction
Q.127 During cleavage, what is true about embryo? [C.B.S.E.1991. C.P.M.T.99]

(A) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchanged
(B) Size does not increase
(C) There is less consumption of oxygen
(D) The division is like meiosis
Q.128 Meroblastic cleavage is division [C.B.S.E. 1992; M.P.P.M.T. 97; KARN. 98]
(A) Horizontal (B) Partial / parietal (C) Total (D) Spiral
Q.129 Amount of yolk and its distribution are changed in the egg. Which one is affected? [C.B.S.E 1993]
(A) Pattern of cleavage (B) Formation of zygote
n
(C) Number of blastomeres (D) Fertilization
.i
(A) Meroblastic
n al
Q.130 What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of humans? [C.B.S.E. 1994]
(B) Starts when egg reaches uterus

ur
(C) Starts in fallopian tubes

o
(D) It is identical to normal mitosis

uj
Q.131 Type of cleavage in an egg is determined by [CBSE 1995, RPMT 99]

Ed
(A) Amount and distribution of yolk (B) Number of egg membranes

(C) Size and location of nucleus (D) Shape and size of sperm
Q.132 Cleavage in the fertilized egg of humans [AFMC 1999]

(A) Starts in uterus (B) Is meroblastic
(C) Starts when egg is in fallopian tube (D) Is discoidal
Q.133 Division of human egg is [CBSE 2000]

(A) Equal holoblastic (B) Unequal holoblastic
(C) Superficial meroblastic (D) Discoidal meroblastic
3.77
Human Reproduction
Q.134 In which one meroblastic cleavage is found [RPMT 2000]

(A) Dog (B) Owl (C) Monkey (D) Rhinoceros
Q.135 Which cell div. is found during cleavage? [RPMT 2001]

(A) Amitosis (B) Mitosis (C) Closed mitosis (D) Meiosis
Q.136 In which of the following animal cleavage divisions are restricted to a small part of cytoplasm and
nucleus in animal pole of egg? [RPMT 2002]
(A) Cockroach (B) Frog (C) Chick (D) Rabbit
Q.137 In mesolecithal eggs, the cleavage is [RPMT 2004]

(A) Equal , holoblastic (B) Unequal holoblastic
n
(C) Meroblastic (D) Discoidal
.i
Q.138 What is true for cleavage
n al [CBSE 2002]
(A) Size of embryo increases (B) Size of cells decrease
ur
(C) Size of cells increase (D) Size of embryo decreases
o
Q.139 Termination of gastrulation is indicated by [C.B.S.E 1993]

uj
(A) Obliteration of blastocoels (B) Obliteration of archenteron

Ed
(C) Closure of blastopore (D) Closure of neural tube
Q.140 Which of the following is not the correct for gastrulation? [RPMT 2002]
(A) Archenteron is formed
(B) All germinal layers are formed
(C) Morphogenetic movements
(D) Some blastomeres & blastocoels degenerate
Q.141 Completion of gastrulation is indicated by [RPMT 2003]

(A) Obliteration of archenteron (B) Obliteration of blastocoels
(C) Closing of blastopore (D) Closing of neural tube
3.78
Human Reproduction
Q.142 What is formed at the time of gastrulation? [RPMT 2004]

(A) Gills (B) Heart (C) Myotome (D) Archenteron
Q.143 Blastopore is the pore of [CBSE 2000]

(A) Archenteron (B) Blastocoels (C) Coelom (D) A.C.
Q.144 Correct sequence in development is [CPMT 1998]

(A) Fertilization → Zygote → Cleavage → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
(B) Fertilization → Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Cleavage → Gastrula
(C) Fertilization → Cleavage → Morula → Zygote → Blastula → Gastrula
(D) Cleavage → Zygote → Fertilization → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
n
Q.145 Placenta is the region where [AFMC 1983]
.i
(A)
(B)
Foetus is attached to mother by spermatic cord
Foetus is provided with mother’s blood
n al
(C) Foetus receives nourishment from mother’s blood
ur
(D) Foetus is covered by membranes

o
uj
Q.146 Parturition duct in female is called [RPMT 2001]

(A) Uterus (B) Oviduct (C) Vagina (D) Cervix
Ed
Q.147 Human beings are [MP PMT 1993, 96]

(A) Ovoviviparous (B) Oviparous
(C) Parthenogenetic (D) Viviparous
Q.148 During pregnancy, the urine of female would contain [CPMT 93]
(A) LH (B) Progesterone (C) FSH (D) HCG
Q.149 The lytic enzyme present in semen is [UTTARANCHAL PMT 2004]

(A) Ligase (B) Estrogenase (C) Androgenase (D) Hyaluronidase
3.79
Human Reproduction
Q.150 Progesterone hormone is secreted by [JHARKHAND 2004]

(A) Corpus albicans (B) Corpus collosum
(C) Corpus luteum in ovaries (D) Corpus uteri
Q.151 Sertoli cell are involved in [JHARKHAND 2004]

(A) Respiration (B) Nutrition of sperms
(C) Excretion (D) Development of sex organs
Q.152 In mammals corpus luteum is found in which organ [JHARKHAND 2004]

(A) Brain (B) Ovary (C) Liver (D) Eyes
Q.153 Testosterone is secreted by [BIHAR 2004]
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(A) Leydig cells (B) Sertoli cells
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(C) Seminiferous tubule
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(D) None of these
Q.154 Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent [BIHAR 2004]

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(A) Fertilization (B) Coitus

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(C) Egg formation (D) Embryonic development

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Q.155 Progesterone is secreted by [UP CPMT 2001]

Ed
(A) Corpus aorta (B) Corpus albicans

(C) Corpus luteum (D) Corpus callosum
Q.156 In the urinogenital organs of rabbit which one of following part is present in male but not in female
[UP CPMT 2005]
(A) Urethra (B) Fallopian tube
(C) Vagina (D) Vasa deferens
Q.157 Bidder’s canal is present in [UP CPMT 2006]

(A) Female frog (B) Male frog
(C) Female rabbit (D) Male rabbit
3.80
Human Reproduction
Q.158 Which of the following causes abortion in ladies [MP PMT 2007]
(A) Viruses (B) Bacteria
(C) Mycoplasma (D) None of these
Q.159 Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by [MP PMT 2007]

(A) Androgen (B) Progesterone
(C) Estrogen (D) Testosterone
Q.160 Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are [MP PMT 2007]
(A) Nurse cell (B) Reproductive cell
(C) Receptor cell (D) None of these
n
Q.161 Cryptorchidism is a condition in which [MP PMT 2007]
.i
(A) Testis does not descend into scrotal sac
(B) Sperm in not found
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(C) Male hormones are not reactive
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(D) Ovaries are removed

o
uj
Q.162 The cellular layer that disintegrates and regenerates again and again in human is [MP PMT 2004]
(A) Endometrium of uterus (B) Cornea of eye
Ed
(C) Dermis of skin (D) Endothelium of blood vessels
Q.163 The functional maturation of sperms takes place in [MP PMT 2005]
(A) Oviduct (B) Epididymis (C) Vagina (D) All of these
Q.164 Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the ends of oviduct is known as [MP PMT 2006]
(A) Tubectomy (B) Oviductomy (C) Castration (D) Vasectomy
Q.165 The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming [MP PMT 2001]
(A) Corpus haemorhagicum (B) Corpus luteum
(C) Corpus albicans (D) Corpus callosum
3.81
Human Reproduction
Q.166 In mammals the estrogens are secreted by the Graafian follicle from its [MP PMT 2001]
(A) External theca (B) Internal theca
(C) Zona pellucida (D) Corona radiate
Q.167 Orchidectomy is the surgical removal of [MP PMT 2001]

(A) Liver (B) Kidney (C) Ovary (D) Testes
Q.168 Supporting cells found in the germinal epithelium of testis are called [MP PMT 2002]
(A) Interstitial cells of Leydig (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Granular cells (D) Phagocytes
Q.169 Atretic follicles are found in the [MP PMT 2002]
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(A) Fallopian tube (B) Uterus
.i
(C) Labia majora (D) Oara
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Q.170 In mammals the female secondary sexual characters are developed mainly by the hormone
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[MP PMT 2002]
(A) Relaxin (B) Estrogens
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(C) Progesterone (D) Gonadotropins

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Ed
Q.171 The egg of frog is [UTTARANCHAL 2004]

(A) Telolecithal (B) Microlecithal
(C) Alecithal (D) Centrolecithal
Q.172 Which of the following undergoes spermiogenesis [UTTARANCHAL 2004]

(A) Spermatids (B) Spermatogonia
(C) Primary spermatocytes (D) Secondary spermatocytes
Q.173 Antifertilizin is present on [UTTARANCHAL 2004]

(A) Egg (B) Tail (C) Ovum (D) Spermatozoa
3.82
Human Reproduction
Q.174 Various changes in mammalian sperm which prepare it to fertilize the ovum are called
[UTTARANCHAL 2004]
(A) Capacitation (B) Regeneration
(C) Growth (D) None of these
Q.175 In gastrulation, which is (are) formed [JHARKHAND 2005]

(A) Endoderm (B) Mesoderm
(C) Ectoderm, endoderm (D) Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
Q.176 During oogenesis, the small structure separated from egg is [JHARKHAND 2006]
(A) Polar bodies (B) Secondary endosperm
(C) Herring bodies (D) Hela cells
.i n
Q.177 Foetal sex is determined by examining cells from amniotic fluid looking for [JHARKHAND 2004]
(A) Chiasmata (B) Autosomes
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(C) Sex-chromosomes (D) Nucleus
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Q.178 Which of the following is not correct for gastrulation [JHARKHAND 2003]
o
(A) Archenteron is formed

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(B) All germinal layers are formed

Ed
(C) Morphogenetic movements

(D) Blastomeres and Gastrocoel degenerate
Q.179 In human foetus, the heart begins to beat at developmental age of [JHARKHAND 2002]
(A) 4th week (B) 3rd week (C) 6th week (D) 8th week
Q.180 Development of animal embryo from egg without fertilization is called [BIHAR 2004]
(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Parthenocarpy
(C) Apospory (D) Apomixes
Q.181 During embryonic development, endoskeleton and muscle develop from which germinal layer
[BIHAR 2006]
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm (C) Mesoderm (D) Blastopore
3.83
Human Reproduction
Q.182 Polar bodies are produced during the formation of [UP CPMT 2001]
(A) Sperm (B) Oogonium
(C) Spermatocytes (D) Secondary oocyte
Q.183 The part where fertilization of ovum occurs in placental mammals is [UP CPMT 2001]
(A) Ovary (B) Uterus (C) Vagina (D) Fallopian tube
Q.184 In a vertebrate which germ layer forms the skeletal muscles [UP CPMT 2004]
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.185 Liver and pancreas of frog and rabbit are derived from [UP CPMT 2006]
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(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesentery (C) Endoderm (D) Both (A) and (C)
.i
n al
Q.186 Which layer develops first during embryonic development [UP CPMT 2006]
(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm (C) Endoderm (D) Bothe (A) and (C)
ur
Q.187 Acrosome of spermatozoa is formed from [MP PMT 2004]

o
(A) Lysosomes (B) Golgi bodies (C) Ribosome (D) Mitochondria

uj
Ed
Q.188 The whole nervous system including neuron in frog and other vertebrates is derived from
[MP PMT 2006]
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm (C) Mesoderm (D) All of these
Q.189 The cavity, which formed during gastrulation is named [MP PMT 2007]
(A) Blastocoel (B) Archenteron (C) Coelom (D) Pseudocoel
Q.190 In a sperm, the mitochondria occur [MP PMT 2001]

(A) In tail (B) In acrosome (C) In middle piece (D) In head
3.84
Human Reproduction
Q.191 Identical twins will be produced when [MP PMT 2001]

(A) One spermatozoon fertilizes two ova
(B) One ovum is fertilized by two spermatozoa
(C) Two eggs are fertilized
(D) One fertilized egg divides into two blastomeres and hey become separate
Q.192 Which set of enzymes is found in the acrosome of mammalian spermatozoa [MP PMT 2001]
(A) Hyaluronidase, Corona Penetrating Enzyme (CPE)
(B) Hyaluronidase, CPE, Zona lysine
(C) Hyaluronidase, CPE, Peptidase
(D) Hyaluronidase only
n
Q.193 Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the uterus is known as [MP PMT 2002]
.i
(A) Fertilization (B) Implantation (C) Impregnation (D) Placentation
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Q.194 The type of placenta fund in human beings is of type [MP PMT 2002]
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(A) Diffuse (B) Zonary (C) Cotyledonary (D) Discoidal
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Q.195 Placenta in human beings is formed by [MP PMT 2002]

uj
(A) Amnion (B) Chorion

(C) Allantois (D) Allantois, chorion and uterine wall
Ed
Q.196 The phenomenon of nuclear fusion of sperm and egg is known as [MP PMT 2002]
(A) Karyogamy (B) Parthenogenesis
(C) Vitellogenesis (D) Oogenesis
Q.197 Cleidoic eggs are characteristic of [MP PMT 2002]

(A) Mammals (B) Reptiles, Birds and Insects
(C) Insects only (D) Fishes
Q.198 Archenteron cavity is found in [MP PMT 2002]

(A) In Blastula (B) In Gastrula
(C) In Morula (D) In Plantula
3.85
Human Reproduction
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 A Q.5 B Q.6 A
Q.7 A Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 A Q.11 C Q.12 A
Q.13 C Q.14 A Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 B Q.18 B
Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 C Q.24 A
Q.25 C Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 A Q.29 D Q.30 C
Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 D Q.34 C Q.35 D Q.36 A
n
Q.37 B Q.38 B Q.39 C Q.40 C Q.41 C Q.42 C
.i
Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 D Q.46 B
al Q.47 C Q.48 D
Q.49 B Q.50 B Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 C Q.54 C
n
Q.55 B Q.56 A Q.57 D Q.58 B Q.59 D Q.60 B
ur
Q.61 B Q.62 C Q.63 B Q.64 A Q.65 D Q.66 C

o
Q.67 D Q.68 B Q.69 C Q.70 A Q.71 D Q.72 B

uj
Q.73 B Q.74 D Q.75 C Q.76 A Q.77 B Q.78 A

Q.79 C Q.80 B Q.81 C Q.82 A Q.83 B Q.84 B
Ed
Q.85 B Q.86 D Q.87 C Q.88 C Q.89 D Q.90 C

Q.91 B Q.92 B Q.93 C Q.94 B Q.95 D Q.96 A
Q.97 A Q.98 B Q.99 B Q.100 C Q.101 C Q.102 A
Q.103 A Q.104 B Q.105 D Q.106 C Q.107 B Q.108 C
Q.109 D Q.110 B Q.111 B Q.112 D Q.113 B Q.114 D
Q.115 D Q.116 B Q.117 B Q.118 C Q.119 B Q.120 C
Q.121 A Q.122 C Q.123 C Q.124 C Q.125 C Q.126 D
Q.127 A Q.128 C Q.129 C Q.130 C Q.131 D Q.132 C
Q.133 A Q.134 C Q.135 C Q.136 C Q.137 B Q.138 A
Q.139 C Q.140 B Q.141 B Q.142 C Q.143 C Q.144 D
Q.145 A Q.146 C Q.147 A Q.148 C Q.149 D Q.150 D
3.86
Human Reproduction
Q.151 B Q.152 B Q.153 C Q.154 B Q.155 B Q.156 C

Q.157 D Q.158 D Q.159 D Q.160 D Q.161 C Q.162 C
Q.163 A Q.164 D Q.165 C Q.166 B Q.167 D Q.168 D
Q.169 B Q.170 A Q.171 B Q.172 D Q.173 A Q.174 D
Q.175 B Q.176 C Q.177 B Q.178 A Q.179 D Q.180 B
Q.181 B Q.182 D Q.183 A Q.184 A Q.185 D Q.186 A
Q.187 A Q.188 C Q.189 C Q.190 C Q.191 D Q.192 B
Q.193 B Q.194 B Q.195 C Q.196 B Q.197 B Q.198 A
Q.199 B Q.200 A Q.201 C Q.202 C Q.203 D Q.204 B
Q.205 C Q.206 C Q.207 B Q.208 D Q.209 B Q.210 D
Q.211 B Q.212 B Q.213 D Q.214 C Q.215 D Q.216 D
n
Q.217 C Q.218 A Q.219 D Q.220 A Q.221 C Q.222 C
.i
Q.223
Q.229
A
A
Q.224 C
Q.230 C
Q.225
Q.231
C
A
al
Q.226
Q.232
n C
A
Q.227
Q.233
D
A
Q.228
Q.234
A
D
Q.235 B Q.236 C Q.237 A Q.238 C Q.239 A Q.240 B
ur
Q.241 A Q.242 B Q.243 B Q.244 B Q.245 D Q.246 A

o
Q.247 A Q.248 B Q.249 C Q.250 A Q.251 A Q.252 C

uj
Q.253 A Q.254 B Q.255 A

Ed

Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 C Q.4 C Q.5 C Q.6 D
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 A Q.11 D Q.12 D
Q.13 C Q.14 C Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 C Q.18 A
Q.19 D Q.20 A Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 B
Q.25 C Q.26 A Q.27 D Q.28 D Q.29 C Q.30 A
Q.31 C Q.32 C Q.33 A Q.34 D Q.35 D Q.36 D
Q.37 A Q.38 A Q.39 A Q.40 D Q.41 C Q.42 B
Q.43 D Q.44 A Q.45 B Q.46 A Q.47 D Q.48 C
Q.49 B Q.50 A Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 A Q.54 D
3.87
Human Reproduction
Q.55 B Q.56 B Q.57 B Q.58 D Q.59 A Q.60 C

Q.61 B Q.62 C Q.63 C Q.64 A Q.65 B Q.66 A
Q.67 B Q.68 D Q.69 B Q.70 C Q.71 A Q.72 C
Q.73 C Q.74 C Q.75 B Q.76 B Q.77 B Q.78 D
Q.79 C Q.80 A Q.81 C Q.82 C Q.83 C Q.84 B
Q.85 C Q.86 A Q.87 C Q.88 B Q.89 C Q.90 A
Q.91 A Q.92 C Q.93 A Q.94 B Q.95 C Q.96 B
Q.97 D Q.98 C Q.99 D Q.100 C Q.101 C Q.102 B
Q.103 D Q.104 A Q.105 C Q.106 D Q.107 D Q.108 D
Q.109 D Q.110 A Q.111 B Q.112 C Q.113 C Q.114 A
Q.115 D Q.116 B Q.117 A Q.118 B Q.119 C Q.120 B
n
Q.121 D Q.122 B Q.123 B Q.124 B Q.125 A Q.126 D
.i
Q.127 B
Q.133 B
Q.128 B
Q.134 B
Q.129 A
Q.135 C
al
Q.130 C
Q.136 B
n Q.131 A
Q.137 B
Q.132 C
Q.138 B
Q.139 A Q.140 D Q.141 A Q.142 D Q.143 A Q.144 A
ur
Q.145 C Q.146 C Q.147 D Q.148 D Q.149 D Q.150 C

o
Q.151 B Q.152 B Q.153 A Q.154 A Q.155 C Q.156 D

uj
Q.157 B Q.158 B Q.159 C Q.160 A Q.161 A Q.162 A

Q.163 B Q.164 A Q.165 A Q.166 B Q.167 D Q.168 B
Ed
Q.169 D Q.170 B Q.171 A Q.172 A Q.173 D Q.174 A

Q.175 D Q.176 A Q.177 C Q.178 D Q.179 A Q.180 A
Q.181 C Q.182 D Q.183 D Q.184 C Q.185 C Q.186 C
Q.187 B Q.188 A Q.189 B Q.190 C Q.191 D Q.192 B
Q.193 B Q.194 D Q.195 D Q.196 A Q.197 B Q.198 B
|VOL.I|Unit 1
.in
al
rn
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Reproductive Health
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Ed
4.1
CHAPTER 4
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REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
.i
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Definition of Reproductive Health: According to
INTRODUCTION World Health Organisation (WHO) reproductive
o
health means total well being in all aspects of

NEED FOR REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
uj
reproduction – physical, emotional, social and

PREVENTION OF SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED behavioural. In other words reproductively healthy
Ed
DISEASES (STD) men and women have physically and functionally

healthy and normal reproductive organs and normal
AMNIOCENTESIS behavioural and emotional interactions among them
BIRTH CONTROL: NEEDS AND METHODS in all sex related aspects.
CONTRACEPTION AND MEDICAL TERMINATION Objectives
OF PREGNANCY (MTP) At the end of this chapter, you will be able to:
INFERTILITY AND ASSISTED REPRODUCTIVE y Understand the general importance of
reproductive health.
TECHNOLOGIES – IVF, GIFT, ZIFT
y Understand the population problems.
y Learn how reproductive awareness can provide
a solution to population problems.
y Study the different kinds of birth control and
family planning measures.
4.2
Reproductive Health
y Learn about STDs (Sexually Transmitted Diseases) and importance of their awareness.
y Study the modes of transmission, symptoms,treatment options available for different STDs.
y Understand conditions of infertility and different technologies developed to overcome the issues.
y Learn about Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART).
2. Reproductive Health
2.1 Problems Associated with Reproductive Health
y Over Population: India’s main problem in every aspect is its population issues which is the excess
population which we have.
y Early Marriages: In some places marriage age is really low, children are married as soon as they
reach puberty. People pay no heed to the government policy norms of strict marriage age.
n
y Compromise in health of Mothers and Pregnant women: Early marriage leads to undeveloped
female undergoing pregnancy.
.i
y
y
al
Deformities: Deformities are common in children being born out of early marriage couples.
Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) and Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): These are very high in early
n
marriage.
ur
y Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD’s): These is complete lack of awareness about the reproductive
organs, contraception, and other devices meant for safe sexual practices and hence this causes high
o
incidences of STD’s among people.

uj
y Sexual Abuse and Sex related crimes: This is one main issue caused due to lack of awareness of
sexual issues and health.
Ed
y Amniocentesis: Or also known as fetal sex determination is commonly practiced by people even
though it is banned by law.
2.2 Strategies Employed for Solving the Problems

y Over population is the main problem of India and it is directly connected with reproductive health. To
solve this problem some plans and programs were started, one of this programs was Family Planning
Programme. It was initiated in 1951-52.
y There were other programs also, they were generally called Reproductive and Child health care.
y Awareness about reproduction: Audio-visual and print media, governmental and non–governmental
agencies are doing good job to create awareness among people about reproduction in humans.
Parents, close relatives, friends,teachers also have a major role in giving the above information.
y Sex Education: Most of the times students reaching puberty try to find out about the reproductive
organs through unapproved sources which may misguide them. Hence sex education should be
4.3
Reproductive Health
introduced in schools and encouraged to provide right information through a proper channel and clear
the common misconceptions and myths about sex-related aspects.
y Knowledge of growth of reproductive organs and STD’s: Proper information about reproductive
organs, adolescence (period of rapid growth between childhood and adulthood), safe and hygienic
sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases (STD’s) such as AIDS, Gonorrhea, Herpes etc. , would
help to lead a reproductively healthy life.
y Birth control devices and care of mother and child: Fertile couples and people of marriageable
age group should know about the different kinds of birth control devices available. There should also
be awareness about the care of pregnant mothers (prenatal care), care to be taken during delivery
especially in areas where medical facilities etc. are not easily reachable and post-natal care that is after
the child is delivered. Special awareness should also be done for stressing on the importance of breast
feeding and the importance of female child and equality between male and female child.
y Prevention of sex abuse and sex related crime: Awareness of problems like sex abuse and sex
n
related crimes etc. need to be created so that people should think and take up necessary steps to
prevent them and thereby build up a reproductively healthy society.
.i
y al
Information of reproduction related problems: For successful action plans to attain, reproductive
health requires good infra structural facilities, professional expert knowledge and even material support.
n
These are all necessary to provide medical help and care for reproductive problems like menstrual
problems, infertility, pregnancy, delivery, contraception, abortions, sexually transmitted diseases STDs.
ur
Implementation of better techniques and new strategies with changing times are necessary to provide
better care and help to people for reproductive health.
o
y Research in reproductive health area: Research in this areas should be supported to find out new
uj
techniques and methods. Eg: Saheli was a contraceptive drug developed by Central Drug Research
Ed
Institute (CDRI), Lucknow, India.

y Medical facilities: Better awareness about sex related problems, pre-natal care of the mothers,
medically assisted deliveries, and post-natal care of mother and infant decrease maternal and infant
mortality. Small families, better detection and cure of STDs and increased medical facilities for sex
related problems etc. indicate improved reproductive health of male and female adults and children.
2.3 Amniocentesis
Amniocentesis is a fetal sex determination and disorder test based on the chromosomal pattern in the cells
in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo.
Procedure: Amniotic fluid surrounding the embryo contains the cells shed from the skin or other parts of
the fetus. The sample of amniotic fluid is removed by the means of a fine needle inserted into the uterus
through the abdomen under the guidance of ultrasound system.This fluid is later send to the laboratory for
analysis. Different tests can be performed on the sample of amniotic fluid depending on the genetic risk and
the indication for the test. Generally this test is used to detect chromosomal anomalies by determining the
4.4
Reproductive Health
number of chromosomes in the cells collected and also certain biochemical and enzymatic abnormalities.
Thus if it is established that the child is likely to suffer from a serious and incurable congenital defect, the
mother has the choice to get the fetus aborted.
Misuse: In India, however, it is mainly used to detect the sex of the fetus and find out whether the unborn
child is a male or female. The female fetus if found out are then aborted. Hence these tests are legally
banned for the purpose of determination of sex to avoid female feticide.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. _____________________ Programme was initiated in 1951-52.
2. The contraceptive drug developed by CDRI is ________________________.
n
2.4 Population Explosion
.i
What is population? al
Population is defined as the total number of individuals of a species present in a particular area at a given
n
time. A species has many populations living in different regions.
ur
The scientific study of population is called demography.

Demography deals with three different aspects:
o
y Changes in population size in terms of growth or decline

uj
y Composition of population
Ed
y Distribution of population in space

Demography is composed of five demographic processes namely fertility, mortality, marriage, migration and
social mobility. These five processes continually work within a population determining size, composition and
distribution.
2.5 Population Growth

Rapid increase in the population over a relatively short period of time is called as population explosion.
The increase or decrease in population size is dependent on four basic processes.
y Natality – Refers to the birth rate.
y Mortality – Refers to the death rate.
y Immigration – The number of individuals that have come into the habitat.
y Emigration – The number of individuals of population who left the habitat.
4.5
Reproductive Health
Natality and immigration contribute to an increase in population. Mortality and emigration on the other hand
contributes to a decrease in population.
The population density is the number of individuals of a species per unit area / space at a given time.
Population Density (D) = Number of individuals (N)
Space (S)
Population growth is generally of two types
a. Exponential growth: Shows the J-shaped growth curve.
b. Logistic growth: Shows the S-shaped or Sigmoid growth curve. This type of population growth is
called Verhulst – Pearl Logistic Growth as explained by the following equation
dN/dT = rN (K –N/K)
Where N – Population density at a time t
n
r – Intrinsic rate of natural increase
.i
K – Carrying capacity.
and others are thinly populated.

n al
The distribution of human population is not uniform throughout the world. Some areas are thickly populated
2.5.1 Population Growth Rate

ur
It is indicated by
o
y The annual average growth rate

uj
y Doubling time
Ed
Growth rate depends on birth (fertility) rate, death rate (mortality), migration and age-sex ratio.
y Fertility (Natality): Fertility is the ability of the reproductively active individuals to produce babies. Birth
rate is the number of babies produced per thousand individuals. It differs from the population growth
rate as it is never negative while the growth rate can be negative. Total fertility rate (TFR) is the average
number of children that would be born to a woman during her lifetime. The total fertility rate varies from
region to region. The more developed countries have lower fertility rates than developed countries.
Fertility is mainly controlled by economics and human aspirations.
Replacement level (RL) is the number of children a couple must produce to replace themselves so as
to maintain the population zero growth level. RL is slightly higher than 2.0 because some children die
before reaching reproductive age. RL is 2.1 in developed countries and 2.7 in developing countries due
to a higher death rate at the immature age.
y Mortality: Mortality is the death rate per thousand individuals. Death rate has fallen in most countries.
It is due to improved personal hygiene, sanitation and modern medicines.
Demographers generally use crude birth rate and crude death rate.
4.6
Reproductive Health
Crude birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in the middle of a given year. Mostly
counted in July 2011 etc.
Crude death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in the middle of a given year. Mostly
counted in July 2011 etc.
Rate of natural increase: The difference between the number of births and that of deaths is called the
rate of natural increase.
Demographic transition: If the birth and death rates were equal, a zero population growth rate would
result, which is known as demographic transition. It has occurred in most of the developed countries.
y Migration: Migration is the movement of individuals in and out of a place or country. Thus migration is
of two types
० Immigration: It is the movement of individuals into an area.
० Emigration: It is the movement of individuals out of an area. Migration may occur within a country
as well as between different countries. But population of a country is influenced by net immigration.
n
Net immigration: The net immigration is immigration number minus the emigration number. The
.i
net immigration may be positive, zero or even negative. Some developed countries allow selective
al
immigration to keep its working force at optimum level.
n
y Age and Sex structures: Bodonheimer (1958) proposed three age groups in a population namely,
ur
pre-reproductive, reproductive and post reproductive. Infants and older people have higher mortality
rate than individuals of other ages. The proportion of reproductively active males and females in a
population also influences the population growth. The birth rate is influenced by the number of female
o
individuals who are in active reproductive age, which are generally 15 - 44 years.
uj
Ed
DID YOU KNOW

? Fecundity is the potential capability of an organism to produce reproductive units such
as eggs, sperms or asexual structures.
Reasons for high population growth

The two main reasons for increase in human population are
y Decrease in death rate mainly maternal mortality rate (MMR) and Infant mortality rate (IMR)
y Increase in life span
Other reasons for growth in population are
y Spread of education – People of the country are now being educated about health and diseases.
y Control of diseases – Due to government efforts many of the epidemics etc. are now successfully
controlled and managed, vaccines help survive from an infectious disease, general improvement in the
4.7
Reproductive Health
health care sector gives timely treatment and helps survival rate which in turn reduce mortality rate.
Control of communicable diseases has also caused an increasing trend of population.
y Advancement in agriculture – Advancement in agricultural sector has solved the main problem of
food and hunger. Even better nutrition in turn improves life span.
y Storage Facility and transport facilities – Better storage facility can be used to store food grains and
transport makes them easier to be distributed in the country preventing famines.
y Protection from natural calamity – It decreases death rate.
y Government Efforts – Government provides better facilities and infrastructure as well as health and
hygiene promotion facilities which improves life span in general and hence there is an increase in
population.
2.5.2 Consequences of Over Population
Over population cause a number of problems. The problems caused are not only of individual but of national
n
consequence. Some of them are really grave and hamper social and economic development.
.i
y Poverty: If there are more persons in a family and the per capita income is less, then naturally they
al
become poor. With the addition of every new child the family becomes poorer and poorer.
y Food supply: If the population increases and the production of food doesn’t increase in varying
n
proportions with the population increase then it will lead to food shortage eventually.
ur
y Over crowding and poor hygienic condition: More number of people in small area cause
overcrowding in that small area leading to lack of infrastructure and formation of slums, also there is
o
more accumulation of waste in the area leading to unhygienic conditions.

uj
y Unemployment: More number of people need more number of jobs, which generally doesn’t happen
and when sufficient jobs are unavailable it leads to unemployment.
Ed
y Housing problems: More number of people require more housing space and that also leads to lack
of homes and overcrowding
y Pollution: With rising number or people the amount of waste generated increases and that causes
pollution problems.
y Lack of education: Since government lacks the infrastructure to provide education for the increasing
number of people, many of the underprivileged ones don’t get quality education and thus illiteracy
becomes rampant.
2.5.3 Measures to Control Population Expansion
y Education: People, particularly who are in the reproductive age groups, should be educated about
the advantage of the small family. Mass media and educational as well social institutions can play an
important role in this campaign. Posters showing happy couple with a slogan “Hum do humare do”
should be displayed. Later it was converted to “one child” policy which became more or less a norm.
4.8
Reproductive Health
y Marriageable age: Raising the age of marriage is also a very effective means of controlling the
population since higher marriage age means more maturity and awareness about different methods of
birthcontrol. At present the marriage age is 18 for girls and 21 for boys.
y Incentives: Couples having small families should be given more incentives. For couples having only
a single girl child should be given social and educational incentives which will promote the message
across the masses.
y Family Planning: There are many birth control measures available which can check birth rate.
2.6 Census
Census is an official counting of population and preparing data about age groups, births, deaths, sex ratios,
education etc. In India, the first census was carried out in 1872. Since 1881 it has been conducted regularly
at an interval of 10 years, the last being in 2011. Census is conducted as per the provision made under the
Census Act 1948.
n
Census gives information about the number of individuals present in a given region at a given time.The time
.i
required for a population to double itself is called doubling time.
Some Statistics of India’s Census 2011:
n al
India’s census 2011 was conducted from February 9 to 28 and provisional figures of India’s 15th census
were released in New Delhi on 31st March 2011.
ur
i. India accounts for 17.5%of the world’s population.

o
ii. India’s Population as on March 1, 2011 : 1,210,193,422

uj
iii. Males : 623,724,248

Ed
iv. Females : 586,469,174

v. Sex ratio (females per 1000 males) : 940
vi. Population Density (persons per sq km): 382
vii. Decadal (Period of ten years) growth rate of population between 2001-2011:17.64
viii. Most populous state: Uttar Pradesh
ix. Least populous state : Sikkim
x. Among states, Kerala has the highest sex ratio (1084) and among Union territories (UT’s), Daman, Diu
the lowest (618).
xi. Least populous UT: Lakshadweep
xii. Literacy rate: 74.04% (82.14% for males and 65.46% for females)
xiii. Highest literacy rate: Kerala with 93.91% literacy rate
xiv. Lowest literacy rate: Bihar with 63.82% literacy rate
4.9
Reproductive Health
xv. State with highest density of population – Bihar with 1102 persons per sq.km
xvi. State with lowest density of population – Arunachal Pradesh with 17 persons per sq km.
xvii. Maximum density among union territories – Delhi – National Capital Territory (NCT) with 11297 persons
per sq.km.It is also most thickly populated city in India.
xviii. Lowest density among union territories – Andaman and Nicobar with 46 persons per sq.km
xix. Biggest state as per area – Rajasthan
xx. Smallest state as per area – Goa
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Define the terms: a. Natality and b. Mortality
n
2. Explain Census.
.i
3. Explain what is population growth and its different types.
n al
3. Birth Control
ur
Birth control refers to restricting the number of children by various methods designed to control fertility and
o
prevent conception.
uj
No single ideal method of birth control exists. The only method of preventing pregnancy which is 100
percent reliable is complete abstinence or complete avoidance of sexual intercourse. Several other
Ed
methods available including surgical sterilization, hormonal methods, intrauterine devices, spermicides,
barrier methods and periodic abstinence.
Most of the birth control methods acts by preventing any one or more of the three major steps in the
reproductive processes.
y Preventing sperm transport to the ovum;
y Preventing ovulation and/or
y Preventing implantation of early embryo in the uterus.
Various contraceptive methods are broadly classified as two main types
y Concept of spacing which is commonly used to space births at longer interval times between pregnancies.
y Temporary, terminal or permanent methods.
4.10
Reproductive Health
3.1 Temporary Methods of Birth Control

Temporary methods are commonly used to postpone or to space births.
3.1.1 Natural Methods
These methods avoid the sperm and ovum to meet and interact, ultimately avoiding fertilization of the ovum.
These methods can be followed as stated below
y Periodic abstinence or Rhythm method (Temporary avoidance of sex):
A couple can use the knowledge of the physiological changes that occur in the female reproductive
cycle to decide whether to abstain from intercourse on those days when pregnancy is likely to result or
plan their intercourse on those days if they wish to conceive a child. It’s a physiologically based method
which was first developed in 1930’s and is called as the rhythm method. It involves abstaining from
sexual intercourse on those days when ovulation is likely to occur in each reproductive cycle. So three
days before the cycle and three days after the cycle the couple abstains from coitus. For instance, if an
n
average woman’s cycle is of 28 days , then ovulation occurs at around 14th day of menstruation, ovum
.i
remains alive for about 1-2 days and sperms survive for about 3 days. So pregnancy can be avoided
if the couple doesn’t have intercourse on these days. The effectiveness of the rhythm method for birth
al
control is very poor in many women because of irregularities of menstrual cycle.
n
y Sympto – Thermal method (STM): This is another natural, fertility based method of family planning
ur
that is used to avoid or achieve pregnancy. STM utilizes normally fluctuating physiological markers
like increased body temperature and increased production of abundant, clear, stretchy cervical mucus
that resembles uncooked egg white which indicate ovulation. These indicators provide a kind of double
o
check system by which a female is made aware whether she is fertile or not. Sexual intercourse is
uj
abstained during the period to avoid pregnancy. STM users chart these changes and interpret them
according to precise rules.
Ed
y Coitus interruptus (Withdrawal method): Male withdraws his penis from the vagina just before
ejaculation to avoid insemination so that semen is carried outside the vagina. This method is moderately
effective because controlling ejaculation outside the vagina is difficult since its requires a lot of self-
control and before ejaculation the male passes a pre-ejaculation fluid which may contains some sperms
at times which may cause the pregnancy even though the male has ejaculated outside the vagina.
y Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM or absence of menstruation): There is no menstrual cycle
and therefore ovulation doesnot occur during intense lactation following parturition. However this
method is effective only upto maximum period of six months after child birth.
3.1.2 Barrier Methods
In this method the ovum and the sperm are physically prevented from meeting and interacting due to
presence of mainly physical barriers which prevent fertilization. There are different methods available both
for males and females and they are as follows
4.11
Reproductive Health
y Condoms: A male condom is non-porous latex covering placed over the penis which prevents the
deposition of sperm in the female reproductive tract. Nirodh (Hindi name for condom) was the most
popular brand of condom for male promoted by government. Condom also provides protection from
STD’s and AIDS. A female condom is called a vaginal pouch or femidom is designed to prevent the
sperm from reaching the uterus. It is composed of two flexible rings connected by polyurethane sheath,
one ring inside the sheath and is inserted to fit over the cervix and the other ring remains outside
the vagina and protects the external genitalia. A diaphragm is a rubber, dome shaped structure that
fits over the cervix and is used in conjunction with a spermicide. It can be inserted by the female
upto 6 hrs before intercourse. The diaphragm prevents the entry of the sperm through cervix whereas
the spermicide kills all other sperm which get around it. Even though the diaphragm provides some
protection against a few STD’s, it does not provide any protection against HIV because the vagina
is still exposed. A cervical cap is same as the diaphragm but is smaller in size and more rigid. It fits
snugly over the cervix. It should be fitted by a health care professional. Both diaphragm and cervical
cap should be used with spermicidal jellies. There are others such as the vault cap which is a thick
n
hemisphere. These are modifications of the standard diaphragm and have different shapes, sizes,
functions and abilities. This is meant to fit on the vaginal vault over the cervix.
.i
n al
o ur
uj
A B
Ed
Figure 4.1: Diagrammatic representation of A. Male condom and B. Female condom

y Spermicides: Different kinds of foams, creams, jellies, suppositories, douches etc. that contain sperm
killing agents or spermicides make the vagina and cervix unfavourable for sperm survival. These are
available without prescription. The common spermicides used in these are the lactic acid, citric acid,
boric acid, zinc sulphate and potassium permanganate. Sponge (Today) is a foam suppository or
tablets containing nonoxynol as spermicide. Delfin is also available in the form of cream. They can be
used by anyone who is not allergic to these spermicides. These are relatively unreliable though and
should be used with a barrier method like a condom, cervical cap, femidom or vault cap.
y Intrauterine devices (IUD’s): An intrauterine device is a small object made up of plastic, copper,
stainless steel that is inserted by a health care professional into the cavity of the uterus. These devices
are presently very popular. These are presently available as non-medicated IUD’s such as Lippe’s
loop, copper releasing IUD’s Eg: Cu T, Cu 7, Multiload 375 and some of the hormone releasing IUD’s
Eg: Progestasert, LNG-20. IUD’s increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions
4.12
Reproductive Health
which are released, suppress sperm motility as well as the fertilizing capacity of sperms. The hormone
releasing IUD’s make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms. IUD’s
are ideal methods of methods used by females.
Drawbacks of IUCD’s or IUD’s (Intrauterine devices) include
० Their spontaneous expulsion, sometimes without the woman’s knowledge.
० They cause excessive menstrual bleeding and pain.
० Their presence may act a minor irritant and makes the egg move down the oviducts and the uterus
before fertilization or implantation.
० Risk of perforation of the uterus.
० Tubal pregnancy in plantation of the embryo in the oviduct (Fallopian tube).
० Risk of infection.
n
This method is not for those who eventually intend to conceive.
.i
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 4.2: Diagrammatic representation of intrauterine device

(IUD) for birth control
3.1.3 Hormonal Methods

Aside from complete abstinence or surgical sterilization, hormonal methods are the most effective means
of birth control. Oral contraceptives in the form of pill contain the hormones designed to prevent pregnancy.
Two types of the pills include combined oral contraceptives and progestin only pill.
y Combined oral contraceptives – They are the most widely used oral contraceptive pill. They contain
a dose of synthetic progesterone and estrogen to check ovulation. The primary action of COC’s is to
inhibit ovulation by suppressing the gonadotropins, Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing
4.13
Reproductive Health
hormone (LH). The low levels of FSH and LH prevent the development of dominant follicle in the ovary,
as a result ovulation does not occur, even if it does in some cases there is no surge of LH midcycle and
hence it prevents pregnancy.
y Progestin only pill – Proegstins thicken the cervical mucus and make it more difficult for the sperm
to enter the uterus. Progestin pills thus thicken the cervical mucus and may block implantation in
the uterus and inhibit the transport of ova as well as sperm in the uterine tubes. They do not inhibit
ovulation.
There are several, different kindsof pills with varying usage
० Combined pill – Contains both progestin and estrogens and is taken once a day for 3 weeks
to prevent pregnancy and regulate menstrual cycle. The pills taken during the fourth week are
inactive (do not contain hormones) and allow menstruation to occur.
० Extended cycle birth control pill – Contains both progestin and estrogens and is taken once a
day in 3 months cycles of 12 weeks of hormone containing pills followed by 1 week of inactive pills.
n
Menstruation occurs during the thirteenth week.
.i
० Minipill – Contains progestin only and is taken every day of the month.
०
al
Emergency contraceptive pill (ECP or morning after pill) – Consists of estrogens and progestins
or progestins alone to prevent pregnancy following unprotected sexual intercourse. The high
n
levels of progestin and estrogen in the EC pills provide inhibition of FSH and LH secretion. Loss
ur
of stimulating effects of these gonadotropic hormones cause the ovaries to cease secretions of
their own estrogens and progesterone. In turn declining levels estrogen and progesterone induce
o
shedding uterine lining, thereby blocking implantation. One pill is taken as soon as possible but
uj
within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The second pill must be taken 12 hours after the
first. The pills work in the same way as regular birth pills but as the name suggest these pills are
Ed
only to be taken in case of instances when the condom breaks or in the case of rape etc. The brands
available are i-pill, PILL 72 and UNWANTED 72.They are effective in the first 24 hours. Their side
effects include menstrual irregularities breakthrough bleeding from the uterus, vomiting etc. They
have a high dose of the hormones and hence should not be used in place of regular contraception.
Other methods for non–oral methods of hormonal contraception include
० Contraceptive skin patch (Ortho Evra): Contains both progestins and estrogens delivered in a
skin patch placed on the skin (upper outer arm, back, lower abdomen, or buttocks) once a week for
3 weeks. After 3 weeks the patch is removed and new one is placed elsewhere. During the fourth
week no patch is used.
० Vaginal Contraceptive ring (Nuva Ring): A flexible doughnut shaped ring of about 5 cm (2
inches) in diameter that contains estrogens and progesterone is inserted by the user into the
vagina. It is left into the vagina for 3 weeks to prevent conception and then removed for 1 week to
permit menstruation.
4.14
Reproductive Health
० Subcutaneous implants (Norplant): A new method

of contraception is subcutaneous (under the skin)
implantation of synthetic progesterone. It acts similarly
to oral contraceptives by blocking ovulation and
thickening the cervical mucus to prevent sperm
transport. These implants are effective for upto five
years. Six matchstick sized capsules containing the
steroid are inserted under the skin of the inner arm
above the elbow. The capsules slowly release the
synthetic progesterone for about 5 years. It is very
convenient and effective plus long lasting for upto five
years. The woman has irregular periods or periods Figure 4.3: Diagrammatic representation
maybe absent. Minor surgical procedure is needed for of subcutaneous implants
insertion and removal.
n
० Hormone Injections (Depo–Provera): These are progestin injections given intramuscularly by a
.i
health care practioner every three months. It releases very slowly and prevents ovulation. They are
convenient and highly effective with no serious effects with no serious side effects. There may be
al
occasional heavy menstrual bleeding.
n
ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
o
Table 4.1: Temporary methods of contraception

uj
Natural Barrier Hormonal

Periodic abstinence/ Condoms – Male
Ed
Oral Non-oral
Rhythm method and Female
COC – Combined Contraceptive skin
oral contraceptive patch (Ortho-evra)
Spermicides – pills Vaginal
Sympto-Thermal Creams, jellies,
Contraceptive ring
(STM method) foams, suppositories, Types : Combined
pills, extended (Nuva ring)
gels etc.
cycle birth control Subcutaneous
pill, mini pill implants (Norplant)
Coitus interruptus/
IUD’s or IUCD’s Emergency
Withdrawal method Intrauterine contraceptive pills. Hormone injections
contraceptive
Lactational (I-pill, Unwanted (Depo Provera)
devices like Copper
Amenorrhoea (LAM) T , Lippe’s loop etc. 72,Pill 72)
4.15
Reproductive Health
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. What are the different kinds of temporary methods of contraception?
2. Write a note on the hormonal method of contraception?
3. What are the different barrier methods of contraception and how do they work?
3.2 Permanent Methods of Birth Control

These methods prevent pregnancy by blocking gamete transport and hence prevent fertilization. These
are mostly done with the help of a major or minor surgery and in many cases are not easily reversible.
Permanent methods of birth control are preferred by those couples who already have children and do
not wish to have more but at the same time want to enjoy sexual intercourse without the hassles of using
temporary birth control measures.
.i n
3.2.1 Surgical Sterilization n al
Sterilization is a procedure which renders the individual incapable for further reproduction. Sterilization
procedure in males is called vasectomy. In this a small portion of the each ductus deferens or vas deferens
is removed. In order to gain access to the ductus deferens, an incision is made with a scalpel (scalpel/
ur
conventional procedure of vasectomy) or puncture is made through a special forceps (non scalpel
vasectomy). After this the ducts are located and cut and tied (ligated) in two places with stitches and the
o
portion between the two ties in removed. Although sperms be produced in the testes, they cannot reach the
uj
exterior of the body. The sperm produced then degenerate or are removed by phagocytosis. Because the
blood vessels are not cut, the testosterone levels in the blood remain normal, so vasectomy has no effect on
Ed
sexual desire and performance. If the procedure is done correctly, it is 100 percent effective. The procedure
can be reversed if needed but the chances of regaining fertility is only 30-40 percent. Sterilization in females
is mostly done by a procedure called as tubal ligation. In tubal ligation a small portion of the fallopian tube is
tied closed and cut. This can be achieved in different ways. “Clips” or “clamps” can be placed on the uterine
tubes, the tubes then tied and or cut and sometimes the tubes are cauterized. In any case the secondary
oocyte cannot pass through the uterine tubes and hence the sperm cannot reach the oocyte and hence
fertilization does not occur.
Please note that the selection of a suitable contraceptive method should be practiced in consultation with the
qualified doctors. It must also be remembered that contraceptives are not needed as regular requirements
for keeping good reproductive health because they are against the natural conception/pregnancy. Even
though they are useful to keep population in check they have their own set of ill effects ranging from mild
nausea, abdominal pain, bleeding, menstrual cycle changes and problems, irregular bleeding or heavy
bleeding from the uterus and even an increased risk of breast cancer.
4.16
Reproductive Health
A B
Figure 4.4: Diagrammatic representation of A. vasectomy (male sterilization) and
B. tubectomy (female sterilization)
.i n
3.3 Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) n al
Also known as abortions in common terms , there is a difference between spontaneously occurring abortions
caused by reasons unknown which are also known as miscarriages and those which are caused out by
human interventions in pregnancies are mostly called as MTP or medically terminated pregnancies.
ur
The definition of MTP or medical termination of pregnancy or abortion is the termination of pregnancy
o
before the fetus viable. Government of India legalized abortion or MTP in 1971.
uj
Period: MTP is generally considered safe upto 12 weeks (the first trimester) of pregnancy. It becomes
more risky after the first trimester period of pregnancy as the fetus becomes intimately associated with the
Ed
maternal tissues.
Status or Incidences: Around 45 to 50 million MTP’s are done in a year all over the world which is about
1/5th of the total number pregnancies occurring in a year.
Types of MTP
y Spontaneous MTP: One third of the total pregnancies abort spontaneously within four weeks of
conception. In most of the cases the woman does not realize that she has been pregnant and the
abortion passes unrecognized as menses.
y Therapeutic MTP: A pregnancy can be legally terminated in its early stage if the doctor advises that
its continuation would seriously affect the health of the mother. At present, the law allows termination
uptill the 28th week of pregnancy if the family physician and the gynecologist consider there is a need
for abortion.
What is the need of MTP or what are the general reasons women undergo MTP?
4.17
Reproductive Health
The answer to this question is based made up of different physical, psychological, medical, and psychosocial
aspects.
y Physical: In case a woman does not use contraceptives during sexual intercourse and accidentally got
pregnant without having any intention to do so or failure of used contraceptive.
y Psychological: A woman is mentally unprepared for the pregnancy.
y Medical : The pregnancy is harmful or in some cases to the mother of the child. The mother is not
physically and mentally fit enough for child birth and an impending pregnancy can kill either of the two
or both. Second case is when the fetus is detected with severe congenital defects and chromosomal
abnormalities, in such cases the mother has the right to decide upon a MTP and it is mostly prescribed
by the consulting physician.
y Psychosocial: Sometimes the pregnancy arises from a sexual assault or rape, the woman can decide
to abort the pregnancy if she did not intend to have it and if it could have some psychological as well
as social repercussions on her.
n
Significance
.i
y MTP helps in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies and such pregnancies which may be harmful or even
fatal either to the mother or to the fetus of both.
n al
y MTP plays a significant role in decreasing human population.
ur
Drawbacks/Misuse
y MTP is being misused to abort even the normal female fetuses.
o
y Majority of MTPs are performed illegally by unqualified persons and has resulted in several fatalities.
uj
y MTPs generally raise many emotional, ethical, religious as well as social issues.
Ed
DID YOU KNOW

y Govt. of India enforced the Pre-natal diagnostic techniques (Regulation and
? Prevention of Misuse) Act , 1994 ,since January 1, 1994 under which all the genetic
counseling centres and laboratories are required to apply for registration.
y Destruction of fetus in the uterus is called as foeticide.
4.18
Reproductive Health
4. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)

Definition: Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse with infected persons
are collectively called as Sexually transmitted diseases or STD’s or Veneral diseases or Reproductive tract
infections (RTI’s).
Causative Agents: STD’s are usually caused by the following agents
y Bacteria
y Viruses
y Chlamydia
y Protozoa
y Nematodes
y Ectoparasites
y Fungi
n
Modes of transmission : STD’s are transmitted by various modes
.i
y Sexual intercourse with infected persons.
y Sharing of infected needles and surgical instruments.
n al
y Transfusion of blood from an infected mother to the fetus.
ur
However in this chapter only the mode of transmission through sexual contact and those which are
transmitted through using common, shared utilitarian items like items used for maintaing personal hygiene
o
items and sharing of common toilets etc. will be considered and explained.
uj
Cure: All STD’s are completely curable if detected early and treated properly with the exception of HIV
infections, Hepatitis B and genital herpes or warts.
Ed
Consequences of delayed treatment: STD’s may lead to many complications if proper and timely treatment
is not given. The main complications include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), abortions, still birth, ectopic
pregnancies, infertility and cancer of the reproductive tract.
Awareness and government efforts: Since STDs are a major threat to the society since most of the patients
hesitate to undergo treatment since they fear that they will judged for their moral behavior. According to the
statistics incidence of STD’s is very high in the age groups of 15-24 years of age. Government of India has
initiated special reproductive health care programs to prevent the early occurrence, early detection and cure
of these diseases.
Prevention: Prevention is comparatively simple than cure. Simple principles should be followed such as
y Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners
y One should always use condoms during intercourse
y If a person is in doubt he/she must consult a qualified doctor
y If STD’s are detected one should complete the full course of treatment till treated and healthy again.
4.19
Reproductive Health
Confirmatory tests for detection and conformation of STD’s

y Culture and microscopic observation with specific staining of causative agent.
y Detection of specific antigen/antibody using Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) like
technique.
y DNA hybridization.
y Polymerase chain reaction.
4.1 STDs Caused by Bacteria

4.1.1 Syphilis
Causative agent/pathogen –Treponema pallidum
Symptoms: This disease occurs in different stages: In the first stage there is hard infectious and painless
n
ulcer on the genitals accompanied by swelling of local lymph glands. This sore is also known as chancre.
.i
Chancre is the initial lesion of syphilis which is more or less like a distinct hard base ulcer or a sore. In the
second stage, chancre is healed and there are skin lesions, rashes, hair loss, swollen joints and flu like
al
illness occasionally. In the third or the tertiary stage chronic ulcers appear on the palate, nose and lower
leg. There can be paralysis, brain damage, blindness, heart and aortic impairment. In latent syphilis there
n
is no evidence of the disease.
ur
Diagnosis: It is diagnosed by clinical symptoms, microscopic examination and antibody detection, ELISA test.
o
Incubation period: 10-90 days

uj
Treatment: Antibiotics such as Penicillin, Tetracycline

Ed
4.1.2 Gonorrhoea
Causative agent/pathogen – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Symptoms: The infection mainly occurs in the genital tubes and produces a pus like discharge, along with
pain around the genitalia and burning sensation during urination. It may lead to arthritis and eye infection in
children of mothers afflicted by gonorrhea.
Diagnosis: Mostly diagnosed by clinical symptoms, gram staining of discharge and culture.
Treatment: Antibiotics like Penicillin and ampicillin
4.1.3 Chancroid
Causative agent/pathogen – Haemophilus ducreyi
Symptoms: There is an appearance of an ulcer at the site of infection mostly on the external genitalia. It is
painful and bleeds easily. The nearby lymph nodes swell up and become tender.
4.20
Reproductive Health
Diagnosis: Mostly clinical symptoms, staining of discharge from the sore and cell culture.
Treatment: Antibiotics like ceftriaxone,erythromycin,ciprofloxacin and trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole.
4.2 STDs Caused By Viruses

4.2.1 Acquired Immuno Deficiency Symptoms (Aids)
Causative agent/pathogen – Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Symptoms: Many symptoms but the most common ones include fever, lethargy, pharyngitis,
Weight loss, nausea, headaches, rashes etc. HIV attacks the T-helper cells and hence the person’s immunity
is unable to protect the body against any infections. The person succumbs to any disease or secondary
infections which normally would not have proved so fatal and death is not due to AIDS.
Diagnosis: ELISA test and Western Blotting tests are commonly used. Western blotting is mostly used to
confirm the results obtained in ELISA. PCR can also be used for diagnosis.
n
Treatment: Although there is no known cure for AIDS, there are certain drugs which can prolong the life of
.i
the infected person. This therapy is known as ART or antiretroviral therapy. Zidovudine or Azidothymidine
al
(AZT) is the drug of choice for the treatment of AIDS. Didanosine is another drug employed to treat AIDS.
n
4.2.2 Hepatitis B
ur
Causative agent/pathogen Hepatitis B Virus HBV

o
Symptoms: Symptoms mostly include fatigue, jaundice (yellowing of skin), persistent low grade fever, rash
uj
and abdominal pain. It can cause cirrhosis and in liver cancer the later stages.
Diagnosis: Australian antigen test which is now also called the Hepatitis B surface antigen test (HBSAg).
Ed
ELISA can also be used.

Treatment : Not curable. However, prevention vaccines are widely available .
Hepatitis C is a secondary infection which occurs in Hepatitis B patients is also detected by ELISA.
4.2.3 Genital Herpes

Causative agent/pathogen–Herpes Simplex virus
Symptoms: There are many lesions which resemble vesicles or pustules , which are later followed by
clusters of painful erythematous ulcers over genitalia and peri-anal regions. Symptoms are more severe in
females. Infections of neonates can occur in case of infected females. Accompanied by this there is fever,
headache, pain, itching, vaginal and urethral discharge along with swelling of lymph nodes. Infections of the
urethra and cervix may also occur.
4.21
Reproductive Health
Diagnosis: Mostly by clinical symptoms, antigen detection, PCR and nucleic acid hybridization.
Treatment: Incurable. Once the virus enters the body, it remains there forever.
4.2.4 Genital Warts

Causative agent/pathogen– Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
Symptoms: Warts which resemble small benign tumors with hard outgrowth and horny surface develop all
over skin and mucosal surface of the external genitalia and perianal area. In women the infection may enter
vagina and cervix. May result in cervical and vaginal cancer if left untreated.
Diagnosis: Mostly by clinical symptoms, antibody detection, culturing and DNA hybridisation.
Treatment: Removal of warts requires special surgical skills especially for removal of internal warts.
Cryosurgery is used to remove the warts. Podophyllum preparations are used for removal of the warts. The
preparation is made from the dried rhizome and roots of Podophyllum peltatum.
n
4.3 STDs Caused by Chlamydia
.i
Causative agent/pathogen – Chlamydia trachomatis al
Symptoms: Chlamydia trachomatis is a human pathogen that causes trachoma, sexually transmitted and
n
perinatal infection. It is an obligate intracellular pathogen. It causes urethritis epididymitis (inflammation of
ur
the urethra and the epididymis) with unilateral scrotal pain, tenderness and swelling, mucopurulent with
yellowish mucus and pus, cervicitis inflammation of the cervix, inflammation of the fallopian tubes, proctitis
o
(rectal pain with mucus and occasional bleeding).

uj
Diagnosis: Clinical symptoms, Gram-staining of discharge, antigen detection and nucleic acid hybridization.
Incubation period: About one week.
Ed
Treatment: Antibiotics like tetracycline, erythromycin and rifampicin are effective but penicillin is not much
effective in treating chlamydiasis.
4.4 STDs Caused by Protozoans

4.4.1 Trichomoniasis
Causative agent/pathogen – Trichomonas vaginalis
Symptoms: The symptoms differ in males and females. In females it causes vaginitis which is characterized
by foul smelling, yellow vaginal discharge and burning sensation. In males it causes urethritis, epididymitis
and prostatitis resulting in pain and burning sensation.
Diagnosis: By clinical symptoms, microscopic examination, culture and immunofluorescent antibody
staining.
Treatment: Metronidazole to be given to both partners simultaneously.
4.22
Reproductive Health
4.4.2 Amoebiasis
Causative agent/pathogen – Entamoeba histolytica
Symptoms: Presence of blood in stools and feces. Transmission of this disease is mostly through oral
route but sometimes it maybe through sexual contact also.
Diagnosis: Clinical symptoms, stool tests.
Treatment: Antiamoebic tablets are given to the patient.
4.4.3 Giardiasis
Causative agent/pathogen – Giardia lamblia
Symptoms: It lives in the human intestine. Interferes with digestion and absorption of food.
Epigastric pain, abdominal discomfort, diarrhoea, headache and sometimes fever.
Diagnosis: Normally the disease is caused through contaminated food and sometimes through sexual
n
contact. Clinical symptoms and stool tests.
.i
Treatment: Antiamoebic tablets are given to the patient.
4.5 STDs Caused by Nematode

n al
4.5.1 Enterobiasis
ur
Causative agent/pathogen – Enterobius vermicularis (commonly known as pinworm)

o
Symptoms: Intense itching at the anus, and the external genitalia, inflammation of the membrane of colon
uj
and appendix, nausea, abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

Ed
Diagnosis: Generally the infection is through the faeco-oral route, where the patients scratches the area
and the eggs are under the person’s nails which may infect others. Transmission sometimes also occurs
during sexual contact.
Treatment: Antihelminthic tablets are recommended.
4.6 STDs Caused by Arthropods (Ectoparasites)

4.6.1 Scabies
Causative agent/pathogen – Sarcoptes scabiei
Symptoms: Intense itching and crusty patches on the skin which increases and spreads as the mites
burrow deeper into the skin.
Treatment: Scabicides are used for treatment. They are available in the form of creams and lotions.
4.23
Reproductive Health
4.6.2 Pediculosis
Causative agent/pathogen – Phthirus pubis (commonly known as Pubic lice)
Symptoms: Painful itching and red patches in the skin of the pubic region are found. The lice lays eggs
near the base of the pubic hair and young hatch within a few days to expand the infestation. The infection
spreads by sexual contact or by sharing bedsheets, clothes, towels etc.
Treatment: Medicated shampoos are recommended.
4.7 STDs Caused by Yeast (Fungus)

4.7.1 Candidiasis
Causative agent/pathogen – Candida albicans (commonly known as vaginal yeast)
Symptoms: Infection sites include most commonly the mouth, colon and vagina. Women with yeast
n
infections experience painful inflammation of the vagina often with a thick, cheesy discharge. Man may
.i
develop a painful inflammation of the urethra through sexual contact with an infected woman.
al
Treatment: Antibiotics such as clotrimazole, miconazole and nystatin.
n
ur
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
o
STD’s
uj
Bacteria Viurses Chlamydia Protozoa Nematode Arthropods Yeasts

Scabies Candidiasis
Ed
Syphilis Chlamydiasis Trichomoniasis Enterobiasis

(Treponema AIDS (HIV) (Chlamydia (Trichomonas (Enterobius (Sarcoptes (Candida
pallxidum) trachomatis) vaginalis) vermicularis) scabiei) albicans)
Gonorrhoea Hepatitis B Amoebiasis Pediculosis
(Neisseria (Entamoeba (Phthirus
gonorrhoeae) (HBV) histolytica) pubis)
Chancroid Genital Herpes
Giardiasis
(Hameophilus (Herpes
(Giardia lamblia)
ducreyi) simplex virus)
Genital Warts
(HPV)
4.24
Reproductive Health
5. Infertility
Definition: Infertility is said to be the failure to conceive within one or more years of regular unprotected
coitus (copulation). Infertility can occur both in males as well as females.
DID YOU KNOW

y Implications of infertility: Since the beginning of the time infertility has been a
source of personal misery and even of national crises. It was once and still in some
communities regarded as disgrace, as a mark of divine displeasure, as grounds
? for divorce and compulsory suicide (on the part of woman only). The Egyptians,
Greeks and earlier civilizations all had their treatments like love potions, amulets,
prayers, sacrifices and the like. Most of the times the female partner was blamed
for the infertility. Atleast, the Greeks were aware of the male infertility.
n
y Sterility is the absolute state of inability to conceive.
.i
There exist two main types of infertility
n al
y Primary infertility: Primary infertility is present in those patients who have never conceived.
ur
y Secondary infertility: These patients have previously conceived but fail to conceive subsequently.
What is described as fertility?
o
The semen of a fertile male is 2.5 – 5 mL per ejaculation with a sperm count of about 200 – 300 million
uj
mostly motile, having a high fructose content and fluidity which is deposited high in vagina.
Ed
Any defect in the sperm count, sperm structure and sperm motility in the seminal fluid leads to infertility. Low
sperm count is called as oligospermia, while the near absence of sperms is called as azoospermia. Low
sperm motility is asthenospermia while defective sperm morphology is called as teratospermia.
5.1 Infertility in Males

Different health and other conditions may cause infertility in males. The reasons could be
y Cryptorchidism: This is the natural condition in which the testes are unable to descend in scrotal sacs
so that sperms are not produced azospermia.
y Thyroid dysfunction
y Gonadotrophin deficiency (LH, FSH deficiency)
y Presence of anti-sperm antibodies like IgG, IgM and IgA. IgG maybe found in cervical mucous serum
and semen.
y Absence or blockage of vasa deferentia and vasa efferentia.
4.25
Reproductive Health
y Y-chromosome deletions.
y Immotile cilia – Sperms are unable to move from vagina to the upper portion of the genital tract of the
female.
y Varicocoela – The scrotal temperature fluctuates due to collection of dilated veins causing oligospermia.
y Impotency – The male is unable to erect and penetrate the penis into the vagina of the female.
y Coital problems in which there is failure to deposit sperm high in vagina.
y ADAM Androgen deficiency in ageing males, also called as male menopause.
y Low fructose content and more prostaglandin content in the seminal fluid.
Other reasons include
० Alcoholism, since it causes defective spermatogenesis.
० Use of hypertensive and antipsychotic drugs for a long time.
n
० Vasectomy.
.i
5.2 Infertility in Females al
Reasons of infertility in females are mostly of the natural origin and not generally due to health conditions.
n
y Anovulation: It means no ovulation at all. There are also conditions like oligo-ovulation or deficient
ur
ovulation. There is no corpus luteum formation.

y Luteal phase defect (LPD), drug induced ovulation, decreased level of FSH and LH.
o
y Defective growth of the uterus and the vagina: There maybe some congenital defects in the uterus
uj
and vagina.
Ed
y Unfavourable endometrial or uterine factors like chronic endometritis, or fibroids in the uterus also
prevent pregnancy.
y Unfavourable cervical factors include ineffective sperm penetration, chronic cervicitis, presence of anti-
sperm antibody in the vagina, or elongation of the cervix.
y Fimbriae of the fallopian tube may not pick up the secondary oocyte from the ovary.
y Dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse).
y Increased sperm phagocytosis by the macrophages.
y Fertilization and implantation failure.
y Early miscarriage.
y Ectopic pregnancy.
y Tubectomy.
y Lack of knowledge of the timing of coitus to utilize the fertile period by both the male and female is also
important cause of infertility.
4.26
Reproductive Health
5.3 Treatment of Infertility

For couples who do not have children, some treatment at the clinic level have been known to solve the
problem of infertility. In males, use of Vitamin E, C, folic acid and Vitamin B12 have known to be helpful in
case of oligospermia to improve the sperm count.
Intake of Clomiphene citrate (25-50 mg daily for 25 days a month for three months) improves the secretions
of gonadotropins and stimulates the secretion of testosterone.
Testosterone may also be taken orally (100-160 mg daily for 3-4 months).
Dexamethasone is used to correct the presence of antisperm antibodies in the semen.
Incase of obstruction of vasa efferentia and vasa deferentia as well as varicocoele and non-descent of
testes, a type of surgery is used to bring these systems to normal or corrective measures.
Sometimes very simple techniques like avoidance of alcohol and wearing light and cool undergarments
instead of warm ones can solve the problem of fertility in men.
n
In females too dexamethasone is used to correct anti-sperm antibodies in cervical mucus.
.i
Clomiphene citrate is used to induce ovulation and ovarian cysts, uterine defects and fallopian tube
blockages can be corrected by surgery.
n al
ur
DID YOU KNOW

?
o
Vitamin E maintains normal functioning of the reproductive organs hence vitamin E is

uj
also called as antisterility vitamin.

Ed
6. Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)

However when all the above said techniques also fail then the couples can be assisted by ART or Assisted
Reproductive Technologies.
Different techniques have been developed over a period of time to assist those couples who fertility problems
cannot be solved over the clinic level. These range from the much simpler artificial insemination to test tube
baby.
Some of these ART techniques will be discussed in this section.
6.1 IVF (In Vitro Fertilization)/ET (Embryo Transfer)/Test Tube Baby

As this was successful in the veterinary world it was also developed as an alternative treatment for women
whose fallopian tubes were severely damaged or occluded. Now it is used for many other conditions like
long standing unexplained infertility, treated endomteriosis, male factor infertility, cervical hostility, and
sometimes or rarely after therapy to female cancers. Though the numbers of IVF centres across the world
4.27
Reproductive Health
keep on increasing, it still remains a very limited service since it is expensive, very specialized technique
and requires good laboratory facilities with a good team of skilled workers.
Technique: Superovulation is stimulated by use of clomiphene and or gonadotropins so that several ova
can be harvested at once. The oocytes retrieval can be laparscopically and percutaneously. Now a days it
is done transvaginally under ultrasound guidance of the transvaginal transducer. A single puncture is made
in the vagina and the ovary and several oocytes are aspirated one after another. The oocytes are then
inseminated in vitro by fresh or cryopreserved semen. After 16-18 hrs they are examined for presence of
two pronuclei which confirms fertilization. The zygote is returned to the incubator to allow cleavage till the
2-4 cell stage when they are ready to transfer to the uterus. In another terms this is called the test-tube baby
however the test tube is rarely used as the procedure is generally done in the petridish.
Since the ova from the wife /donor female and sperms from the husband/donor male are induced to form the
zygote or eight-celled blastometere outside the body under sterile laboratory conditions, it is also known as
ZIFT or Zygote Intrafallopian transfer when it is transferred to the fallopian tube of the female.
n
However if the embryo is more than eight-celled blastomeres then it is directly transferred to the uterus
which is termed as IUT (Intra uterine transfer) to complete its further development. Thus, this is IVF since
.i
the fertilization occurs outside the body in the lab petridish, followed by embryo transfer (ET). Embryo
al
formed by in vivo fertilization (fusion of gametes within the female) can also be used for such transfer. The
implantation of the embryo takes place in the uterus where it develops into a fetus which forms a child. After
n
the completion of gestation period the mother gives birth to a normal child. The term test tube baby doesn’t
ur
mean the child was reared in the test tube.

Success rate: The success rate of this technique is less than 20 percent.
o
uj
DID YOU KNOW

Ed
1. The first test tube baby born was Louise Joy Brown, born to the parents Lesley
and Gilbert Brown on July 25, 1978 , in Oldham, Lancashire, England with the help
of Dr. Patrick Steptoe and Dr. Robert Edwards. Dr. Edwards got a Nobel Prize in
2010 for developing a technique for production of test tube baby. Later on test tube
babies were born at other hospitals too in different countries.
? 2. On 6th August, 1986 at K.E.M Hospital, Mumbai ,India’s first test tube baby was
born. Her name was Kum. Harsha. The credit for India’s first test tube baby goes
to Dr. Indra Hinduja. Some persons also claim that Asia’s first and world’s second
test tube baby was born in Kolkata on 3 October 1978. The child’s name was Durga
previously now changed to Kanupriya. However the efforts of the doctor were not
recognized timely and caused his death, creating a great controversy around this.
In 2003 however ICMR recognized his efforts posthumously giving him the credit
for being the pioneer of IVF in India. The doctor’s name is Dr. Subas Mukherjee.
4.28
Reproductive Health
6.2 Artificial Insemination Technique (AIT)

Artificial insemination is used in cases where there is inability of the male partner to ejaculate or has very low
sperm count. In this cases the sperm collected from the male or any other donor are artificially introduced
into the vagina or uterus of the female. If the sperm are introduced into the uterus then it is known as
IUI – Intra uterine insemination of the female. First the ovulation period of the female in concern is noted
and recorded for a period of time to confirm and then just near the ovulation, about 0.3 ml of washed and
concentrated semen having atleast 1 million sperms from husband is introduced artificially through a flexible
polyethylene catheter into the vagina or into the uterus. Washing in culture media removes the proteins
and prostaglandins from the semen. Best results are obtained when the motile sperm count is more than
10 millions. The fertilization capacity of the spermatozoa (sperms) is 24-48 hours. The same procedure
maybe repeated 2-3 times over a period of 2-3 days. Success: The result varies, ranging from 20-40 per
cent. IUI along with superovulation gives a better success rate than plain artificial insemination. In case, the
husbands sperms are defective, then the semen is taken from semen bank.
n
6.3 Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT)
.i
This method was first discovered by Asch and colleagues in 1984. It was more expensive and invasive
al
procedure than IVF but had better results than it. In this technique both the sperm and unfertilized oocytes
are transferred into the fallopian tubes. Fertilization then takes place in vitro in the female body as it does
n
generally in natural fertilization. But for GIFT normal fallopian tubes is a must criteria. The indications are
ur
the same as in those for IVF except the tubal factor. Best results are obtained in unexplained fertility but
results may be poor in case of male factor abnormality. The female is superovulated as in the case of IVF
o
and then oocytes are collected. Two collected oocytes along with about 200,000-500,000 motile sperms
uj
for each fallopian tubes are transferred through laparoscope and inserted 4 cm into the distal end of the
fallopian tube where the combination is injected.
Ed
Success: Rate of success is 27-30 percent.
6.4 Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

It was first developed by Steirteghem and colleagues in 1992 in Belgium. The common indications for this
procedure were the following conditions: Severe oligospermia, obstruction of the efferent duct system in
male, presence of sperm antibodies, congenital absence of both vasa efferentia and vasa deferentia in
male, failure of fertilization in IVF, hardened zona pellucida, unexplained infertility etc.
In this procedure first sperms are collected through ejaculation. Sperms can be recovered by TESE
(Testicular sperm extraction) or by MESA (Microsurgical epididymis sperm aspiration) techniques.
In this technique, one single spermatozoan or sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of the oocyte
by micropuncture of the zona pellucida. This procedure is done under a high quality inverted operating
microscope. Micropipette suction is used to hold the oocyte in place while the spermatozoan is injected
inside the cytoplasm of the oocyte (ooplasm) by an injecting pipette.
ICSI is very effective as compared to other micromanipulation techniques like SUZI (subzonal insemination).
4.29
Reproductive Health
Success: The fertilization rate through ICSI is about 60-70percent. However pregnancy rate through ICSI
is 20-40 percent.
Summary
y Learning reproductive health helps us deal with the ever growing population problems as well as many
social problems faced by the country like population growth, early marriages, child marriages, health of
mother and child, common fetal abnormalities and reasons.
y Sexually transmitted diseases are on a rampant because of lack of knowledge of health of reproductive
organs. An overview of these diseases helps us solve these issues and take precautionary measures
when needed and also take treatment as and per needs.
y Amniocentesis is a very controversial issue which is banned in our country because of its wide and
illegal use in causing female feticide which is responsible for the lowering sex ratio in our country.
.i n
y The misuse of amniocentesis will be stopped only if general awareness is made about the bad effects
of the declining sex ratio. al
y Infertility is another major issue amongst modern couples, which is increasing day by day, so a general
n
idea is necessary for them to know what are the options present and which to choose from. The assisted
ur
reproductive techniques are the part of the chapter which solves the bigger problem of infertility.
o
uj
Ed
4.30
Reproductive Health
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 What is correct about test tube baby?
(A) Fertilization inside female genital tract and growth in test tube
(B) Rearing of prematurely born baby in incubator
(C) Fertilization outside and gestation inside womb of mother
(D) Both fertilization and development are effected outside the female genital tract
n
Q.2 Study of abnormalities by taken out the amniotic fluid of embryo is called
.i
(A) Endoscopy (B) Amniocentesis
(C) Laparoscopy al
(D) Natal endoscopy
n
Q.3 Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent
ur
(A) Egg formation (B) Embryonic development

o
(C) Fertilization (D) Coitus

uj
Q.4 Vasectomy is
Ed
(A) Cutting of fallopian tube (B) Cutting of vasa deferens

(C) Factor of population growth (D) None of these
Q.5 An IUCD is
(A) Vasectomy (B) Copper T (C) Condom (D) All of the above
Q.6 A contraceptive is
(A) Condom, cervical cap and diaphragm
(B) Intrauterine device
(C) Pill
4.31
Reproductive Health
Q.7 A contraceptive pill contains

(A) Progesterone and estrogen
(B) Spermicidal salts
(C) Chemicals that cause automatic abortion
(D) Chemicals that prevent fertilization of ovum
Q.8 The partner responsible for sex of the child is

(A) Male (B) Female
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) At times male or at times female
Q.9 MTP is
n
(A) Multi trade practices
.i
(B) Malthusian treatise on population
(C) Multiple temporary frequency
n al
(D) Medical termination of pregnancy
ur
Q.10 A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by

o
(A) Blocking fallopian tube

uj
(B) Inhibiting release of FSH and LH

(C) Stimulating release of FSH and LH
Ed
(D) Causing immediate degeneration of released ovum
Q.11 First country of world which adopted family planning programme

(A) Japan (B) USA (C) India (D) Bangladesh
Q.12 Govt. sponsored “family planning programme“ was started in

(A) 1947 (B) 1952 (C) 1977 (D) 1956
Q.13 Saheli, a female antifertility pill is used

(A) Daily (B) Weekly (C) Quarterly (D) Monthly
4.32
Reproductive Health
Q.14 Which of the following is a nonsteroidal pill?

(A) Mala – D (B) Mala – N (C) Saheli (D) Quinesterol
Q.15 Which of the following contraceptive method make uterus unsuitable for implantation?
(A) Diaphragm (B) Condom (C) IUD (D) Natural method
Q.16 Which of the following is natural method of contraceptive?

(A) Sterilization (B) IUD (C) Diaphragm (D) Periodic abstinence
Q.17 Which method of contraception has high failure rate?

(A) Barrier method (B) IUD (C) Sterilization (D) Natural method
n
Q.18 Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptives?
.i
(A) Mala –D (B) Saheli (C) i-Pills (D) Condom
n al
Q.19 MTP is relatively safe during
ur
(A) 12 week (B) 18 week (C) First trimester (D) Both (A) and (C)
o
Q.20 Which of the following method of contraceptive has least side effect?
uj
(A) IUD (B) Pills (C) Coitus interruptus (D) Cervical cap
Ed
Q.21 Which of the following methods of contraception prevents ovulation?

(A) Pills (B) Depo-provera (C) Norplant (D) All of the above
Q.22 Which of the following is not a reproductive technique?

(A) ZIFT (B) GIFT (C) ELISA (D) IVF
Q.23 In which of the following methods zygote upto 32 blastomere is transferred into the uterus?
(A) IUT (B) ZIFT (C) GIFT (D) ICSI
Q.24 A contraceptive pill developed by the scientists of CDRI, Lucknow is?

(A) Mala – D (B) Mala – N (C) Saheli (D) Quinestrol
4.33
Reproductive Health
Q.25 Which of the following is banned in India?

(A) USG (B) Sterilization (C) Amniocentesis (D) IVF
Q.26 If male is impotent and female is normal then which of the following technique can be used?
(A) ICSI (B) ZIFT (C) GIFT (D) AI
Q.27 IVF technique includes

(A) GIFT (B) AI (C) IUT (D) All of the above
Q.28 Which contraceptive method provides some protection against HIV?

(A) IUD (B) Pills (C) Condoms (D) Periodic abstince
n
Q.29 Which of the following cannot be considered as an advantage of amniocentesis?
.i
(A) Prenatal diagnostics
(B) Detection of biochemical abnormalities
n al
(C) Detection of congenital defects
ur
(D) Determination of sex to abort female fetus

o
Q.30 Population growth rate depends upon

uj
(A) Birth rate (B) Death rate (C) Age-sex ratio (D) All of these
Ed
Q.31 Replacement level is the number of children a couple must produce to replace themselves so as to
maintain population at zero growth level. The value of replacement level for developed countries is
(A) 2.7 (B) 2.1 (C) 1.9 (D) 1.2
Q.32 Which of the following defines the stage of demographic transition?

(A) Birth rate is higher than death rate
(B) Death rate is higher than birth rate
(C) Birth rate and death rate are equal
4.34
Reproductive Health
Q.33 The average number of children that would be borne by a female during her lifetime is called
(A) Natality (B) Birth rate (C) Population growth rate (D) Total fertility rate
Q.34 Which of the following can be included under natural methods of birth control?
(A) Rhythm method (B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhea (D) All of these
Q.35 Which of the following contraceptive devices also protect against sexually transmitted diseases?
(A) Fern shield (B) Sponge (C) IUDs (D) LNG-20
Q.36 Which of the following chemicals can be used under chemical methods for contraception?
(A) Lactic acid (B) Boric acid (C) Citric acid (D) All of these
.i n
Q.37 Which of the following is/are hormone-releasing IUDs?
(A) Progestasert
n al
(B) Levonorgestrel
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Lippe’s loop
ur
Q.38 Which of the following can be included under emergency contraception?

o
(A) An antiprogesterone pill

uj
(B) Insertion of IUD within 72 h of unprotected sexual contact

Ed

(D) Vasectomy
Q.39 “Norplant” is the new form of birth control and it

(A) Allows ovulation but does not allow fertilization
(B) Makes the cervical mucus thin making sperm entry into the uterus difficult
(C) Has progestin as the active ingredient
(D) Is effective for a maximum of 1 year
Q.40 Which of the following is not included under barrier methods of birth control?
(A) Vaginal pouch (B) Diaphragm (C) Cervical cap (D) Implant
4.35
Reproductive Health
Q.41 Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily during the use of
(A) Diaphragm (B) Cervical cap
(C) Birth control pills (D) All of these
Q.42 The diaphragm is rubber-dome-shaped structure that stops the sperms from entering into
(A) Vestibule (B) Vagina
(C) Cervix (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.43 Among the following methods, which one has the highest failure rate?
(A) Diaphragm with spermicide (B) Condom
(C) Intra-uterine device (D) Rhythm method
n
Q.44 In case of a person suffering from syphilis, chancre formation occurs during
.i
(A) Primary stage
(C) Tertiary stage
al
(B) Secondary stage
(D) Neurosyphilis stage
n
ur
Q.45 The “symptomless” period or latent period in case of syphilis may last for
o
(A) 1-5 weeks (B) 6-24 weeks (C) 4-12 weeks (D) 20 years
uj
Q.46 Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?
Ed
(A) Genital warts : Haemophilus ducrei

(B) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
(C) Genital herpes : Type II Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
(D) Trichomoniasis : Trichomonas vaginalis
Q.47 India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programs at a national
level to attain reproductive health. These programs called “family planning” were initiated in____________
in India.
(A) 1951 (B) 1976 (C) 1901 (D) 1987
4.36
Reproductive Health
Q.48 All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is a misuse. Which one is it?
(A) The centers for genetic counseling offer amniocentesis on request to women for chromosome analysis.
(B) This technique has been developed for detecting fetal abnormalities by analyzing chromosomal defects.
(C) It is used to study the metabolic defects of fetus, e.g., PKU (phenyl ketonuria).
(D) It is done to examine the sex of the fetus leading to increasing female feticides.
Q.49 Which of the following is world’s first non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill for females, developed by
scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?
(A) Mala-D (B) Saheli (C) MORNING (D) PoP
Q.50 Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

(A) Cu-T (B) LNG-20 (C) Multiload 375 (D) Implant
.i n
Q.51 Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side-effects and are well accepted by the females.
They work by
n al
(A) Inhibiting ovulation
ur
(B) Inhibiting implantation

(C) Altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/ retard the entry of sperms
o
(D) All of these

uj
Ed
Q.52 Which of the following is a once-a-week pill with very few side-effects and high contraceptive value?
(A) Mala-D (B) Saheli (C) Depo-Provera (D) Norplant
Q.53 A sterilization technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception is
(A) Vasectomy (B) Copper-T (C) Condom (D) Tubectomy
Q.54 Surrogate mother is

(A) Mother without lactation
(B) Future mother with embryo implanted from another
(C) Carrying several embryos
(D) Artificially inseminated female
4.37
Reproductive Health
Q.55 The latest technique to produce a child is “GIFT.” The full form is
(A) Gametic internal fertilization and transfer
(B) Gametic intra-fallopian transfer
(C) Gametic inter-fallopian transfer
(D) General internal fallopian transfer
Q.56 Test-tube baby is the one

(A) Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb.
(B) In which growth of human baby takes place inside the fallopian tube instead of uterus.
(C) In which the ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form
zygote by IVF and then implanted in female.
n
(D) In which baby is born after artificial insemination.
.i
al
Q.57 Which of the following is the most appropriate statement of infertility?
(A) Couple is unable to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation.
n
(B) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to defects/ abnormalities
ur
in the female partner.

o
(C) Infertility is due to immature sex organs.

uj
(D) Infertility cannot be helped by ART.

Ed
Q.58 Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with antibiotics?

1. Gonorrhea 2. Syphilis 3. Chlamydia 4. Genital herpes
(A) (4) only (B) (2) and (4) (C) (3) and (4) (D) (3) only
Q.59 At which stage of the ovarian cycle are mammalian eggs most likely to become fertilized?
(A) At the beginning of proliferative phase
(B) Immediately after ovulation
(C) During the middle of the secretory phase
(D) During the menstrual phase
4.38
Reproductive Health
Q.60 World Population Day is

(A) 11th July (B) 21st September (C) 7th April (D) 1st July
Q.61 MTPs are considered relatively safe up to__________of pregnancy.

(A) 12 weeks (B) 20 weeks (C) 25 weeks (D) 18 weeks
Q.62 Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly,
except
(A) Hepatitis-B (B) Genital herpes (C) HIV infections (D) All of these
Q.63 Which of the following causative agents of STDs can cross the placenta?
(A) Hepatitis-B (B) HIV (C) Syphilis (D) All of these
.i n
Q.64 Which of the following methods of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleeding and pain?
(A) Condom
n al(B) Cervical cap
(C) Oral contraceptive (D) Intra-uterine device
ur
Q.65 Which of the following is one of the safest method of birth control?
o
(A) The rhythm method (B) Sterilization techniques

uj
(C) Use of physical barriers (D) Termination of unwanted pregnancy

Ed
Q.66 Tubectomy is to prevent

(A) Coitus (B) Fertilization
(C) Egg formation (D) Embryonic development
Q.67 Preventive birth control measure is

(A) MTP
(B) Test-tube babies
(C) Preventing union of sperm and ovum
(D) Preventing sperms from entering uterus
4.39
Reproductive Health
Q.68 Which of the following method of birth control is effective, easy to use, and less-expensive?
(A) IUD (B) Condom (C) Implant (D) Diaphragm
Q.69 Which of the following method of contraception is effective only up to a maximum period of 6 months
following parturition?
(A) Cortus interruptus (B) Lactational amenorrhea
(C) Periodic abstinance (D) Condoms
Q.70 Which of the following are included in barrier method?

(A) Condoms (B) Diaphrams
(C) Cervical caps and vault (D) All of these
n
Q.71 In oogenesis, haploid egg is fertilized by sperm at which stage?
.i
(A) Ovum (B) Oogonium (C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte
n al
Q.72 The first polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis?
ur
(A) 1st meiosis (B) 2nd mitosis (C) 1st mitosis (D) Differentiation
o
Q.73 Vitallogenesis occurs during the formation of

uj
(A) Ootid in the fallopian tube (B) Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
Ed
(C) Secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube (D) Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle
Q.74 Fetal ejection reflex in human females is induced by

(A) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (B) Fully developed fetus and placenta
(C) Differentiation of mammary glands (D) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
Q.75 Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Hormone releasing IUD make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(B) IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy
(C) IUD is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India
(D) All the above
4.40
Reproductive Health
Q.76 Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptive to avoid possible pregnancy?
(A) Progestogens (B) IUD, within 72 h
(C) Diaphrams (D) (A) and (B)

(A) MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population
(B) Government of India legalized MTP in 1977 with some strict conditions
(C) MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester
(D) All the above
Q.78 Infertility cases due to the inability of male partner to inseminate the female are corrected by
n
(A) ZIFT (B) GIFT (C) Artificial insemination (D) ICSI
.i
fallopian tube?
n al
Q.79 In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the
(A) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage

ur
(B) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage

o
(C) Embryo of 32 cell stage

uj
(D) Zygote only

Ed
Q.80 Which of the following statement is not true with respect to tubectomy or tubal ligation?
(A) It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse.
(B) No ovulation occurs; hence, no fertilization is possible.
(C) It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes.
(D) The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent.
Q.81 Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of birth
control?
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Progesterone (D) Both (A) and (B)
4.41
Reproductive Health
Q.82 Injectable form of hormone-based contraceptive is

(A) Norplant (B) Depo-Provera (C) Mala-D (D) Saheli
Q.83 In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains from intercourse
(A) One day before and after ovulation (B) Two days before and after ovulation
(C) Three days before and after ovulation (D) One week before and after ovulation
Q.84 Which of the following method is used during abortion?

(A) Vacuum aspiration (B) Infusion of a saline solution
(C) Scraping (D) All of these
Q.85 The action of which of the following hormone is blocked during the use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?
n
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Progesterone (D) hCG
.i
al
Q.86 Which of the following STD is not caused by a bacterium?
n
(A) Chlamydia (B) Gonorrhea (C) Syphilis (D) Genital herpes
ur
Q.87 Which of the following cannot be taken as the symptom of a female suffering from gonorrhea?
o
(A) Inflammation of urethra with painful urination

uj
(B) Discharge of pus from vagina

(C) Inflammation of uterine tubes
Ed
(D) Peritonitis or inflammation of the peritoneum
Q.88 Which of the following stage of syphilis is characterized by skin rash, fever, and aches in joints and
muscles?
(A) Primary stage (B) Secondary stage
(C) Tertiary stage (D) Neurosyphiiis stage
Q.89 The use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its
additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(A) Coitus interruptus (B) IUDs (intra-uterine-devices)
(C) Condoms (D) Vasectomy
4.42
Reproductive Health
Q.90 Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives as they can
be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours?
1. Administration of progestogens
2. Progestogen-estrogen combination
3. IUDs
4. Condoms
(A) (4) only (B) (1) and (2) (C) (1), (2), and (3) (D) (1), (2), (3), and (4)
Q.91 All the following statements about ZIFT are correct, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(A) It is zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(B) Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube after IVF
n
(C) Early embryos up to 8 blastomeres can also be transferred into the fallopian tubes
.i
(D) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes
al
Q.92 If a person is suffering from severe male infertility, in which the ejaculate contains very few sperms
n
(oligozoo- spermia) or even no live sperm (azoospermia), it can be overcome by_________. This should
ur
offer couples an alternative to using donor sperm.

(A) GIFT (B) ZIFT (C) ICSI (D) IVF
o
uj
Q.93 Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a protozoan?

Ed
(A) Gonorrhoea (B) Trichomoniasis

(C) Chlamydiasis (D) Syphilis
Q.94 Which of the following contraceptive is an injectable form of the “birth control pill hormones” that
prevent ovulation?
(A) Norplant (B) Depo-Provera (C) Saheli (D) Mala-D
Q.95 Which of the following STDs is caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV) and is transmitted through
intimate contact with infected person?
(A) Genital herpes (B) Genital warts (C) AIDS (D) Chlamydia
4.43
Reproductive Health
Q.96 Norplant is
(A) A kind of plant (B) A fertilizer factory
(C) A contraceptive (D) A power generation plant
Q.97 Which of the following is an important detection technique for syphilis?

(A) Gram staining of the discharge (B) Nucleic acid hybridization, PCR
(C) Antibody detection, e.g., VDRL (D) Microscopic examination of culture
Q.98 Which of the following virus has dsDNA as the genetic material and is transmitted mainly by sexual
contact?
(A) Hepatitis-A (B) Hepatitis-B (C) Hepatitis-C (D) All of these
n
Q.99 Which of the following drug is progesterone antagonist and acts as an abortion drug?
.i
(A) Saheli (B) Mifepristone (C) Mala-N (D) Depo-Provera
n al
Q.100 An important function of progesterone is
ur
1. To prepare uterus for pregnancy 2. Implantation of embryo
3. Maintenance of pregnancy 4. To stimulate ADH
o
Codes:
uj
(A) (1) and (2) are correct (B) (2) and (4) are correct
Ed
(C) (1) and (3) are correct (D) (1), (2), and (3) are correct
Q.101 Menstrual cycle is controlled by

1. Estrogen and progesterone of ovary 2. FSH of pituitary
3. FSH and LH of pituitary 4. Oxytocin hormone
Codes:
(A) (1) and (2) are correct (B) (2) and (4) are correct
(C) (1) and (3) are correct (D) (1), (2), and (3) are correct
Q.102 Which hormone level reaches its peak during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) Follicle stimulating hormone
4.44
Reproductive Health
Q.103 The 32-cells stage of the human embryo is

(A) Smaller than the fertilized egg (B) Of the same size as the fertilized egg
(C) Two times the size of the fertilized egg (D) Four times the size of the fertilized egg
Q.104 Which one of the following is the correct matching of events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(A) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized
(B) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
(C) Proliferative : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian phase follicle
(D) Corpus luteum : Development of secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
Q.105 RCH stands for
n
(A) Routine check-up of health (B) Reproduction cum hygiene
.i
(C) Reversible contraceptive hazards (D) Reproduction and child healthcare
Q.106 What is true about “Saheli”?

n al
(i) Developed at CDRL, Lucknow
ur
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation

o
(iii) “Once-a-week” pill

uj
(iv) Many side-effects

Ed
(v) High contraceptive value

(vi) Very few side-effects
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) (B) (i), (iii), (v), (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (D) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
4.45
Reproductive Health

Q.1 Aminocentesis is [CPMT 94]
(A) Analysis of chemical composition of fluids of pregnant woman
(B) Withdrawal of allantoic fluid from pregnant women
(C) An in vitro diagnosis
(D) Culturing of cells and study of metaphase chromosomes from amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal
abnormality
Q.2 Which one is not legitimate for reducing birth rate? [MP PMT 95]
(A) Ban on marriages (B) MTP
(C) Use of contraceptives (D) Late marriages
n
Q.3 Oral contraceptives contain [CBSE 1998]
.i
(A) Progesterone (B) LH
al
(C) Oxytocin (D) Sterols
n
ur
Q.4 Amniocentesis is used for determining [CBSE 1997]
(A) Heart diseases (B) Brain disease
o
(C) Hereditary disease of embryo (D) All the above

uj
Q.5 Most important component of oral contraceptive is [CBSE 1995]

Ed
(A) Thyroxine (B) LH

(C) Progesterone (D) AH
Q.6 Tubectomy, a method of population control is performed on [JK CMEE 2000]

(A) Both males and females (B) Males only
(C) Females only (D) Only pregnant females
Q.7 Which is related to males? [MANIPAL 2001]

(A) I.U.C.D. (B) Tubectomy (C) Vasectomy (D) None of the above
Q.8 Copper T [MANIPAL 2001]

(A) Suppresses fertilization of coercing ovum (B) Acts as barrier
(C) Prevents implantation of Blastocyst (D) Prevents cleavage
4.46
Reproductive Health
Q.9 Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter
[CBSE 2008]
(1) Medical Termination of Pregnancy MTP during first trimester is generally safe
(2) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast – feeds the infant upto two years
(3) Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective contraceptives
(4) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statement are correct?
(A) 1,3 (B) 1,2 (C) 2,3 (D) 3,4
Q.10 Given below are four methods (1-4) and their modes of action (a-d) inachieving contraception. Select
their correct matching from the four options that follow [CBSE 2008]
n
Method Mode of Action
.i
1. The pill (a) prevents sperms reaching cervix
2. Condom
3. Vasectomy
(b) Prevents implantation
(c) Prevents ovulation
n al
4. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms
ur
Matching
o
(A) 1-(c), 2-(d), 3-(a), 4-(b) (B) 1-(b), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(d)
uj
(C) 1-(c), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(b) (D) 1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c)
Ed
Q.11 Test tube baby means a baby born when [CBSE 2003]
(A) It is developed in a test tube
(B) It is developed through tissue culture method
(C) The ovum is fertilized externally and later implanted in the uterus
(D) It develops from a non-fertilized egg
Q.12 What is the work of copper T? [CBSE 2000]

(A) To inhibit ovulation (B) To inhibit fertilization
(C) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (D) To inhibit gametogenesis
4.47
Reproductive Health
Q.13 Which substance can be used as male contraceptive in future? [CBSE 1999]
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Testosterone (D) Progesterone
Q.14 Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test-tube baby? [AIPMT 1994]
(A) Fertilization of egg is completed outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the
mother where gestation is completed.
(B) Fertilization of egg is completed in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a large test
tube.
(C) A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator.
(D) Fertilization of egg and growth of embryo is completed in a large test tube.
Q.15 A test-tube baby means [AIPMT 1996]

(A) Fertilization and development both in uterus
n
(B) Fertilization in vitro and then transplantation in uterus
.i
(C) A baby grown in test tube
(D) Fertilized and developed embryo in test tube
n al
Q.16 What is the work of copper-T? [AIPMT 2000]
ur
(A) To inhibit ovulation

o
(B) To inhibit fertilization

uj
(C) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst

(D) To inhibit gametogenesis
Ed
Q.17 What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills? [AIPMT 2000]
(A) To inhibit ovulation
(B) To check oogenesis
(C) To check entry of sperms into cervix and to make them inactive
(D) To check sexual behavior
Q.18 Which is showing accurate pairing? [AIPMT 2000]

(A) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
(B) AIDS – Bacillus conjugalis
(C) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani
(D) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae
4.48
Reproductive Health
Q.19 Copper releasing IUD is [HP PMT 2012]

(A) Diaphragm (B) Multiload 375 (C) LNG - 20 (D) Saheli
Q.20 Given below are four methods (1)-(4) and their modes of action (i)-(iv) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four options that follow: [AIPMT 2008]
Method Mode of action
1. The pill (i) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
2. Condom (ii) Prevents implantation
3. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents ovulation
4. Copper-T (iv) Semen contains nosperms
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
n
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
.i
n al
Q.21 Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter.
[AIPMT 2008]
1. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
ur
2. Generally, the chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant up to two years.
o
3. Intra-uterine devices such as copper-T are effective contraceptives.

uj
4. Contraception pills may be taken up to 1 week after coitus to prevent conception.

Which two of the above statements are correct?
Ed
(A) (1), (3) (B) (1), (2) (C) (2), (3) (D) (3), (4)
Q.22 Amniocentesis is [AIIMS 2000]

(A) Digestion of amino acid
(B) Conversion of glucose to amino acids
(C) Taking out of cells near the fetus
(D) Killing of child before birth
Q.23 What is the function of copper-T? [BHU 2002]

(A) Checks mutation (B) Stops zygote formation
(C) Stops fertilization (D) Stops obliteration of blastocoel
4.49
Reproductive Health
Q.24 AIDS disease was first reported in [DPMT 1993]

(A) Russia (B) USA (C) Germany (D) France
Q.25 Tubectomy prevents pregnancy by [DPMT 2000]

(A) Preventing fertilization
(B) Preventing ovulation
(C) Altering FSH levels in ovary
(D) Altering LH level in ovary
Q.26 Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing [DPMT 2003]
(A) Ova formation (B) Fertilization (C) Implantation (D) None of these
Q.27 Oral contraceptive pills function by [DPMT 2008]
n
(A) Inhibiting ovulation
.i
(B) Stimulating ovulation al
(C) Stimulating the motility and secretory activity ofoviduct
n
ur
Q.28 The most important component of oral contraceptive pillsis [UPCPMT 1999]
o
(A) Progesterone-estrogen (B) Growth hormone

uj
(C) Thyroxine (D) Luteinizing hormone

Ed
Q.29 Amniocentesis is a technique to [UPCPMT 2009]

(A) Determine any disease in heart
(B) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(C) Know about the disease of brain
(D) Grow cell on culture medium
Q.30 Which of the following is a technique of direct introduction of gametes into the oviduct? [Manipal 2004]
(A) MTS (2) ET (C) IVF (D) POST
Q.31 Syphilis is caused by [Manipal 2004]

(A) Treponema pallidum (B) Plasmodium
(C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) Entamoeba histolytica
4.50
Reproductive Health
Q.32 Gonorrhoea is caused by [Manipal 2005]

(A) Treponema pallidum (B) Entamoeba gingivalis
(C) Mycobacterium leprae (D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q.33 Which is non-invasive technique of genetic counseling? [AMU 1996]

(A) Amniocentesis (B) Chorionic biopsy
(C) Fetal blood sampling (D) Ultrasonography
Q.34 Which one of the following organisms cause syphilis? [AMU 1999]
(A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B) Treponema pallidum
(C) Pasteurella pestis (D) Clostridium botulinum
n
Q.35 The common means of transmission of AIDS is [AMU 2001]
.i
(A) Sexual intercourse (B) Blood transfusion
(C) Placental transfer
al
(D) All of these
n
Q.36 AIDS is transmitted [AMU 2003]
ur
(A) Sexually (B) Parenterally (C) Vertically (D) All of these

o
Q.37 Which is the causal agent for syphilis? [AMU 2004]

uj
(A) Haemophilus durei (B) Treponema pallidum

Ed
(C) Chlamydia trachomatis (D) All of the above
Q.38 Component of oral pills is [AFMC 2009]

(A) Progesterone (B) Oxytocin
(C) Relaxin (D) None of these
Q.39 Contraceptive oral pills help birth control by [Karnataka 1997]

(A) Preventing ovulation
(B) Killing the sperms
(C) Forming barriers between sperms-ova
(D) Killing the ova
4.51
Reproductive Health
Q.40 GIFT involves transfer of [Karnataka 1997]

(A) A mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus
(B) Embryo into the uterus
(C) A mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube
(D) Zygote into the fallopian tube
Q.41 In the production of test-tube babies [Karnataka 2002]

(A) Fertilization and fetus formation is external
(B) Fertilization and fetus formation is internal
(C) Fertilization is internal and fetus formation is external
(D) Fertilization is external and fetus formation is internal
n
Q.42 The first case of IVF-ET technique success was reportedby [Karnataka 2003]
.i
(A) Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best al
(B) Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards
n
(C) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
ur
(D) Baylis and Starling Taylor

o
Q.43 Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used inbirth control? [Karnataka 2004]
uj
(A) Loop (B) Daikon shield (C) Copper-T (D) Diaphragm

Ed
Q.44 Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the safest? [Karnataka 2006]
(A) The rhythm method (B) The use of physical barriers
(C) Termination of unwanted pregnancy (D) Sterilization techniques
Q.45 A sexually transmitted disease symptomized by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused
by the infection of [Karnataka 2008]
(A) Treponema pallidum (B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(C) Human immune deficiency virus (D) Hepatitis B virus
Q.46 Surgical removal of vas deferens is called [J & K 2001]

(A) Tubectomy (B) Vasectomy
(C) Vasectolysis (D) None of these
4.52
Reproductive Health
Q.47 Amniocentesis is a technique used to [J & K 2003]

(A) Determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(B) Pinpoint specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(C) Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
Q.48 Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females to check [J & K 2004]

(A) Entry of sperms in vagina (B) Implantation
(C) Ovulation (D) Fertilization
Q.49 Which one of the following is a sexually transmitted disease? [J & K 2004]
(A) Cancer (B) Syphilis
n
(C) Diphtheria (D) Myocarditis
.i
(A) Amniocentesis
n al
Q.50 The status of the fetus for genetic counseling can be determined by
(B) Microscopy
[J & K 2006]
ur
(C) Aminoacidopathy (D) Fetocentesis
o
Q.51 The test which is misused for the identification of an unborn baby is [J & K 2007]
uj
(A) Clotting test (B) Amniocentesis

(C) Erythroblastosis (D) Angiogram
Ed
Q.52 Amniocentesis detects [Punjab 2000]

(A) Deformity in brain (B) Deformity in heart
(C) Hereditary disease (D) All of these
Q.53 Which of the following is a method of birth control? [Punjab 2007]

(A) IUD (B) GIFT (C) HTF (D) IVF-ET
Q.54 Tubectomy [AMU 1994]

(A) Prevents implantation (B) Prevents fetal development
(C) Prevents fertilization (D) All of the above
4.53
Reproductive Health
Q.55 The present population of the world is about [CBSE 1997]

(A) 500 million (B) 100 million (C) 15 billion (D) 6 billion
Q.56 GIFT is [MAHE 2002]

(A) Embryo implantation after in vivo fertilization
(B) Sperm injection for in vivo fertilization
(C) Embryo implantation after in vitro fertilization
(D) Egg implantation for in vitro fertilization
Q.57 Copper-T acts by [Kerala 2001]

(A) Suppression of fertilization by fanning a membrane
(B) Disturbing the site of implantation of blastocyst
n
(C) Acting as a barrier
.i
(D) None of these n al
Q.58 Each couple should produce only two children which will help in [AMU 1998]
(A) Checking pollution (B) Stabilizing the ecosystem
ur
(C) Fertility of soil (D) Improving food-web

o
Q.59 Amniocentesis has helped [Haryana 1998]

uj
(A) The childless couples

Ed
(B) In establishment of biological superiority of females

(C) In waste of money
(D) None of these
Q.60 The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for thedetection of prenatal disorder is called
[MP 1993]
(A) Laparoscopy (B) Amniocentesis (C) Endoscopy (D) Ultrasound
Q.61 In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube? [CBSE 2010]
(A) Zygote only
(B) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
(C) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
(D) Embryo of 32 cell stage
4.54
Reproductive Health
Q.62 The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for [AIPMT Pre 2010]
(A) Detecting any genetic abnormality
(B) Detecting sex of the unborn fetus
(C) Artificial insemination
(D) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
Q.63 Cu ions released from copper-releasing intra-uterine devices (lUDs) [CBSE 2010]
(A) Prevent ovulation
(B) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(C) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
(D) Suppress sperm motility
n
Q.64 Which of the following cannot be considered as assisted reproductive technology? [HPPMT 2010]
.i
(A) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
(B) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)
n al
(C) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT)
ur
(D) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
o
Q.65 The population limited to a particular geographic area is called as [J and K CET 2012]
uj
(A) Pandemic (B) Endemic (C) Alien (D) Natural

Ed
Q.66 The Test-Tube Baby Program employs which one of thefollowing techniques? [AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) Intra-uterine insemination (IUI)
(B) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(C) Zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(D) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
Q.67 One of the legal methods of birth control is [NEET 2013]

(A) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(B) By having coitus at the time of day break
(C) By premature ejaculation during-coitus
(D) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
4.55
Reproductive Health
Q.68 Artificial insemination means [NEET 2013]

(A) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(B) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(C) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(D) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
.i n
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Ed
4.56
Reproductive Health
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 C Q.4 B Q.5 B Q.6 D
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 D Q.10 B Q.11 C Q.12 B
Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 C Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 C
Q.19 C Q.20 C Q.21 D Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 C
Q.25 C Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 D Q.30 D
n
Q.31 B Q.32 C Q.33 D Q.34 D Q.35 A Q.36 D
.i
Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 C Q.40 D Q.41 D Q.42 C
Q.43 D Q.44 A Q.45 D al
Q.46 A
n
Q.47 A Q.48 D
Q.49 B Q.50 B Q.51 D Q.52 B Q.53 D Q.54 B
ur
Q.55 B Q.56 C Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 B Q.60 A

o
Q.61 A Q.62 D Q.63 D Q.64 D Q.65 B Q.66 B

uj
Q.67 C Q.68 B Q.69 B Q.70 D Q.71 D Q.72 A

Ed
Q.73 D Q.74 B Q.75 D Q.76 D Q.77 D Q.78 C

Q.79 A Q.80 B Q.81 C Q.82 B Q.83 C Q.84 D
Q.85 C Q.86 D Q.87 A Q.88 B Q.89 C Q.90 C
Q.91 D Q.92 C Q.93 B Q.94 B Q.95 B Q.96 C
Q.97 C Q.98 B Q.99 B Q.100 D Q.101 D Q.102 B
Q.103 B Q.104 D Q.105 D Q.106 B
4.57
Reproductive Health

Q.1 D Q.2 A Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 C Q.6 C
Q.7 C Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 C Q.12 C
Q.13 D Q.14 A Q.15 B Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 A
Q.19 B Q.20 C Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 C Q.24 B
Q.25 A Q.26 A Q.27 A Q.28 A Q.29 B Q.30 C
Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 D Q.34 B Q.35 D Q.36 D
Q.37 B Q.38 A Q.39 A Q.40 C Q.41 D Q.42 B
Q.43 D Q.44 D Q.45 A Q.46 B Q.47 C Q.48 C
n
Q.49 B Q.50 A Q.51 B Q.52 D Q.53 A Q.54 C
.i
Q.55 D Q.56 B Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 B Q.60 B
Q.61 C Q.62 A Q.63 D
al
Q.64 B
n
Q.65 B Q.66 C
Q.67 D Q.68 B
o ur
uj
Ed
D |VOL.III|Unit 3
.in
al
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Human Health and Disease

o
uj
Ed
8.1
CHAPTER 8
HUMAN HEALTH AND
n
DISEASE
.i
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1. Introduction
Topics Discussed
ur
1.1 Health
INTRODUCTION
o
y Health is a state of complete physical, mental

DEFINITIONS OF DISEASE, HEALTH ETC.
uj
and social well-being, and not merely an

THE IMMUNE SYSTEM AND ITS DISORDERS absence of disease or infirmity (W.H.O – 1948).
Ed
VACCINATION y Being in a healthy condition is of great

importance in the life of very individual.
TISSUE GRAFTING
y A healthy person will always be in a position
DISORDERS OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM to exhibit optimum performance in whatever
IMMUNOTHERAPY activities he/she does.
ACQUIRED AND CONGENITAL DISEASES y Balanced diet, exercise and some appropriate
precautions are essential for maintaining good
SPECIAL FOCUS ON CANCER AND AIDS health.
GENERAL PREVENTIVE MEASURES
ADOLESCENCE, MENTAL HEALTH, ADDICTIONS ETC.
8.2
Objectives
At the end of the chapter, you will be able to:
y Learn about the definitions of health and disease.
y Learn about the immune system, its working and disorders.
y Understand the principles of vaccination.
y Know more about diseases.
y Understand the problem of addictions and discuss remedies related to the same.
1.2 Disease
y It is a structural or functional abnormality in an organism which impairs the normal functioning of its
mind and/or body.
y Diseases can be caused due to various factors like infection by harmful micro-organisms, injury, drug
n
abuse or genetic effects.
.i
y Diseases may be communicable or non-communicable.
y Study of diseases is called epidemiology.
n al
1.3 Pathogens
ur
y Pathogens are disease causing organisms. E.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis which causes TB.
y Their ability to cause disease is called pathogenicity.
o
y Virulence is the degree of pathogenicity of an organism.

uj
y Parasite is an organism that leaves in or on an organism (the host) and derives nutrition at the expense
Ed
of the host. E.g. Plasmodium which causes malaria.

y Infection is the invasion of an organism by the pathogen, the multiplication of the pathogen in the
organism and the resultant reactions of the organism’s cell/s.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y A physical or psychological trait exhibited by an organism which can indicate the presence
of diseases is called a symptom.
y Incubation period is the time interval between the entry of pathogen and appearance of
symptoms.
y Window period is the time between infection to the point of time when it can be detected.
y Chemotherapy is treatment with chemicals.
y Antibiotics are substances which are produced by organisms that inhibit the growth of or
destroy some other organisms. E.g. Penicillin.
8.3
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Analgesic is a substance that relieves pain (Pain killer). E.g. Morphine.
y Antipyretics are substances that help to reduce the body temperature/fever.E.g. Aspirin
(Acetyl salicylic acid).
y Disinfectant is an agent that inhibits or kills microbes on contact. Agents used on living
surfaces may be called antiseptics while those used for inanimate objects may be called
disinfectants.
DID YOU KNOW

y Arthro - Joint (Arthritis)
y Aesthesia - Sensation
n
y Anesthesia - Lack of sensation)
.i
y Bracy - Short
y Brady -
n al
Slow
y Coronary or Cardia - Heart
ur
y Encephalon - Brain
y Enteron - Intestine
o
……emia - Related to blood (Anemia, Protenemia,

uj
y
Hyperglycemia)
?
Ed
y Gastric - Stomach
y Hepatic - Liver
y ……itis - Infection or inflammation
y Myo - Muscles
y Metastasis - Cancer cells or tissue spread from one part to
another
y Nephric/Renal - Kidney
y Pulmonary - Lungs
y Patho - Disease
y ……Penia - Decrease (Neutropenia, Leucopenia)
y ……Philia or Cytosis - Increase (Neutrophilia, Lymphocytosis)
8.4
DID YOU KNOW

y Phobia - Fear Acrophobia, Hydrophobia, Agoraphobia
y Plegia - Paralysis, (Hemiplegia, Paraplegia, Quadriplegia)
? y
y
Phrenic
Rhine
-
-
Diaphragm
Nose
y Tachy - Fast (Tachycardia-fast heart rate)
y ……uria - Concerning urine (Haematuria)
Important persons-
Father of Medicine – Hippocrates.
n
Father of Surgery – Susruta.
.i
Father of Ayurveda – Charaka.
Father of Modern Pathology – Rudolf Virchow.
n al
Father of Immunity – Edward Jenner (Small pox vaccine)
ur
Father of Blood grouping – C. Landstainer.

o
Father of Modern Bacteriology – Robert Koch (Koch Postulates, TB).

uj
Important dates-
Ed
30 January - Leprosy day

24 March - Tuberculosis day
07 April - World Health day
26 June - International day against drug abuse and illicit trafficting
01 July - Doctor’s day
11 July - World population day
01 Dec - AIDS day
2. The Immune System

y Humans are constantly exposed to disease causing agents. Yet the occurrence of diseases is relatively
vey very low. This is because we possess a very complex and evolved ‘immune system’.
y Immunity is the ability of an organism to fight disease causing agents.
8.5
y Immunology is the study of the immune system.

y The immune system involves tissues like the bone marrow and thymus, cells like T-lymphocytes and B
lymphocytes, proteins like immunoglobulins and also many other compounds.
y Vaccination is a method that harnesses the immune system in a specific manner to protect an organism
from a disease.
Some terms related to immunity
y Antigen/Agglutinogen - A substance which stimulates the production of antibodies.
y Antibody/Agglutinin - It is a complex glycoprotein secreted by B-lymphocytes in response to an
antigen.
y Antiserum - Serum of any animal which contains the antibody for a specific antigen.
y Agglutination - The reaction of antigen and antibody.
y Toxoid - A chemically modified toxin incapable of harming but capable of stimulating an immune
n
response is a toxoid.
.i
y Interleukin (IL) - They are protein based signals that stimulate the growth of and activate certain WBCs.
al
There are two types of immunity
n
y Innate Immunity/Non-specific immunity/Congenital immunity
ur
y Acquired immunity/Specific/Adaptive immunity

o
2.1 Innate immunity

uj
y It is present since birth.

Ed
y It is first line of defense of body.

y Its response is not specific to the pathogen.
y It plays an important role in preventing the entry of pathogens.
y It is very important from the point of view of containing the infection till the adaptive immune system
responds. Otherwise the pathogen load in the body would be extremely high till an adaptive immune
response occurs. This may at time be fatal.
It consists of the following-
Anatomical/Physical Barriers
y Skin-
○ Outermost layer of skin prevents the entry of organisms in the body.
○ Sebum and sweat, the secretions of the skin also have some antibacterial properties. Secretions
of the sebaceous glands create an acidic environment on the skin.
8.6
y Mucosal surface-
○ Food and air passages lined by mucosa.
○ Mucosa contains mucus secreting cells and cilia. Mucus entraps the micro-organism and the cilia
‘sweep’ the trapped organism out.
y Physiological Barrier-
Many physiological aspects of the body make the environment unfavourable for the growth of microbes-
○ Fever- High temperature inhibits/slows down the growth of microbes.
○ pH- Acidic pH of the stomach, vagina etc. inhibits the growth of microbes.
○ Secretions- Secretions of body like tears, saliva, and sebum contain lysozyme. It is an enzyme that
destroys the cell wall of the microbes (its target is peptidoglycan).
○ Interferons-They are proteins secreted by virus infected cells which stimulate the neighboring cells
n
heighten anti-viral defenses.
.i
Types of interferons- INF α, INF β and INF .
y Phagocytosis-
n al
○ In response infection, the total count of WBCs in the blood increases. Some of them are phagocytic.
ur
○ Most important phagocytes are the Macrophages and Neutrophils.
○ Monocytes are liberated at the site of infection. They are later converted into macrophages.
o
○ Macrophages are large irregular shaped cells that engulf microbes, virus, cellular debris etc.
uj
There are 5 stages of extravasation (coming out from blood vessels) and subsequent phagocytosis-
Ed
1. Vasodilation-
Increased diameter of blood vessels at the affected site.
2. Adhesion-
The leucocytes localise at the site of infection.
3. Migration (Diapedesis)-
The leucocytes migrate out of the blood vessels.
4. Chemotaxis-
The leucocytes move towards the pathogens following chemical signals.
5. Phagocytosis-
The pathogen is ingested by the phagocytic cell.
8.7
Steps in phagocytosis-
y Attachment of the target to the phagocyte.
y Ingestion by engulfment and formation of a vacuole called phagosome.
y Lysis by the merging of the phagosome with a lysosome. The lytic enzymes in the lysosome are
responsible for the destruction of the microbe.
y A residual body is formed and later disposed off as wastes by the cell.
Inflammation-
y It is a defense mechanism in the body that helps to reduce the spread/multiplication of infectious agents.
y Inflammation peculiarly includes pain, swelling, redness, and increased temperature in the local area.
y The redness and increase in temperature is due to increased metabolism and vasodilation in the
affected area.
n
y Histamine and prostaglandin secretion from mast cells is chiefly responsible for the pain.
.i
NK-Cells (Natural killer cells)-
al
y They are large granular lymphocytes. It should be noted that they are different from the Killer T cells.
n
y They kill virus infected cells and tumor cells of body.
ur
y They use a protein called perforin to create pores in the plasma membrane of their target cells. Excess
water enters through these pores causing swelling and bursting of the target cells.
o
Complement system-
uj
y It is a part of the innate immune system which can be activated by the adaptive immune system. It
consists of complement proteins.
Ed
y They are proteins synthesized by the liver.

y They can serve as opsonins for phagocytosis. The literal meaning of ‘opsonein’ is ‘to make tasty reading
for eating’.
y They also lead to the formation of a MAC or membrane attack complex.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Why are infants more prone to gastric infections?
2. Can interferons be used in medicine?
2.2 Acquired immunity

y This type of immunity is founds only in vertebrates.
y Its response varies on the basis of the pathogen/challenge.
8.8
y This immunity recognizes the specific pathogen and works on eliminating it.
Special features of adaptive immune system-
y Specificity-
This response is specific for different pathogens.
y Diversity-
This system can recognize a very vast variety of micro-organisms.
y Self and non-self distinction-
It can distinguish self-tissues from non-self cells. In normal cases no immune response is mounted
against the self cells.
y Memory-
In case of the first time a specific pathogen enters the body the adaptive immune system takes a
longer times to recognise and respond to it. This is called primary immune response. Some memory
n
cells are formed during such pathogenic challenges. If and when a second time the same pathogen
.i
enters the body, the adaptive immune system responds very quickly. This type of response is called a
secondary immune response.
n al
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Ed
Figure 8.1: Lymphatic system

The cells of the adaptive immune system -
y T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes are the major cells of the adaptive immune system.
y They are subsets of the leukocytes.
y They perform different roles in the adaptive immune response.
Based on these two type of lymphocytes involved the responses can be of two types-
y Cell mediated immunity
y Antibody mediated/ humoral immunity
8.9
2.2.1 Cell mediated immunity

y It is based on T-cells.
y There are four type of T-cells-
○ Helper T-cells
○ Killer/Cytotoxic T-cells
○ Suppressor T-cells
○ Memory T-cells
y In the initial stages macrophage interact with pathogens and activates TH (T helper) cell by releasing
cytokines or ILs or monokines.
y The activated helper T-cells stimulate the killer T-cells and the B-cells which start dividing.
y Helper T cells produce lymphokines (a type of messenger molecules). Immune system cells can detect
n
the lymphokines and follow a path to the location of their production which is the site where there
presence is required. The lymphokines also aid B-cells to produce antibodies.
.i
al
y Killer T-cells/TCcells destroy the virus infected/tumor cells.
Suppressor Cells (Ts cells) suppress the functions of TC and TH cells. B-cells are also affected by TS cells.
n
y Memory T-cells are not involved in killing the pathogen but are involved in retaining the memory and
ur
aiding the secondary immune response.

Antigen Presenting Cells-
o
y Antigen molecules are processed by antigen presenting cells like macrophages, B-lymphocytes etc.
uj
y These processed antigens are presented on surface of these cells. A T-helper cell may recognize the
Ed
antigen and become activated. T-helper cells activate the B-cells and Killer T cells. These cells in turn
develop clones by frequent divisions in themselves.
2.2.2 Antibody mediated/humoral immunity

It is based on B-lymphocytes which secret the antibodies.
Antibody-
y An antibody (Ab) is a large, Y-shape protein produced by B-cells. It is used by the immune system to
identify and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses.
y Antibodies have 2 heavy and 2 light chains (based on the number of amino acids present in the chain).
y Each chain has some ‘constant region’. The amino acid sequence of this region is the same for a
particular type of antibody.
y Each chain has a ‘variable region’ at one end. This region is responsible for the antigen recognition
diversity.
8.10
y Each tip of the upper tips of the “Y” of an antibody contains a paratope (analogous to a lock) that is
specific for a particular epitope (analogous to a key) on an antigen, allowing these two structures to
bind together with precision.
y This binding mechanism, is used to tag a microbe or an infected cell for attack by other parts of the
immune system.
y Alternatively, this can also neutralize its target directly by blocking a part of a microbe that is essential
for its invasion and/or survival.
y The antibody also has an Fc receptor at the ends opposite to the variable region (located at the base of
the “Y”). It contains a glycosylated site. This region is involved in interaction of the antibody with other
components of the immune system.
.i n
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uj
Figure 8.2: Structure of antibody

Ed
Gist of actions of an antibody-

y Agglutination- Antibodies attach with the antigen which is present on the surface of pathogen.
y Opsonisation- Attachment of bacteria (Ag) with opsonins (IgG and IgM) promotes phagocytosis.
y Neutralization- Antibodies neutralize the toxin of bacteria by attaching with them.
Types of Antibodies-
Type Main characters and occurrence Functions
y Present in mucus membranes, gut, urogenital tract Protection of mucous membranes

and colostrum (breast milk during the initial stages and outer surface of body.
IgA of feeding). Protection from inhaled or ingested
y M.W. 1,70,000 Daltons. pathogens.
8.11
y Present on the surface of naive (or unexposed) B

cells. Activation of B-lymphocytes.
IgD y They are known to activate mast cells and Development and maturation of
basophils. immune reactions.
y M.W. 1,85,000 Daltons.
y Present in very small quantities.
y Binds to allergens. Stimulation of mast cells, related to
IgE allergic reactions and protection from
y Involved in tackling parasite infections. parasites.
y M.W. 1,88,000 Daltons.
y Most abundantly found.
To stimulate the complementary
y Main immunoglobulin of the blood and intestinal system.
n
fluid.
IgG To provide protection to embryo.
.i
y Can cross the placental barrier and thereby provide
Linkage with phagocytic cells for
y
protection to the fetus.
M.W 1,46,000 Daltons (lightest).
n al phagocytosis.
y First antibody secreted in response to antigens.

ur
y Largest sized immunoglobulin. Strong agglutination

IgM
o
y Pentameric form. Related to complement system

uj
y M.W. 9,60,000 Daltons (heaviest).

Ed
(One may also remember the types as- MADGE)
2.2.3 Active and Passive Immunity

y When an organism is exposed to antigens which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or
proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity is called active immunity.
y Active immunity takes time to mount a response.
y Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunization or infectious agents gaining access to the body
during natural infection induces active immunity.
y When ready made antibodies are directly provided to protect the body against foreign agents, the type
is called passive immunity.
y The yellowish fluid termed as ‘colostrum’ secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation is
abundant in antibodies (IgA). They serve to protect the infant. The fetus also receives some antibodies
from the mother, through the placenta during pregnancy. If a person is infected with some deadly
microbes to which quick immune response is required example tetanus, the performed antibodies,
8.12
or antitoxin is directly injected. Even in cases of snakebites, preformed antibodies against the snake
venom are administered. This type of immunization is called passive immunization.
Table 8.2: Difference between Active and Passive immunity

Active immunity Passive immunity
Produced actively by the immune system of host. Received passively by the host and the host’s
immune system does not participate.
Induced by infection or by contact with Conferred by introduction of ready-made antibodies.
immunogen, e.g. vaccines.
Immune response is not short-lived and is Immune response-short lived and less effective.
effective.
Immunity develops only after a lag period. Immunity effective immediately.
Immunological memory present. Subsequent NO immunological memory. Subsequent
n
challenge with booster dose more effective. administration of antibody less effective due to
.i
immune elimination**.
Serves no purpose in immunodeficient host. al
Applicable in immunodeficient host.
Used for prophylaxis to increase body resistance. Used for treatment of acute infection.
n
** If a certain type of non self antibodies are administered in the body, they themselves serve as antigens
ur
and elicit an immune response (may be very weak). The next time these antibodies are administered, they
are promptly neutralised as a result of ‘secondary immune response’.
o
uj
TRY IT YOURSELF
Ed
1. Describe the structure of an antibody.

2. IgG is pentameric. (True/False)
3. B cells secrete antibodies. (True/False)
4. Write a short note on the innate immune system.
3. Vaccination
A vaccine is a biological preparation which provided active acquired immunity to individual upon administration.
3.1 Scientists
y It is said that ‘inoculation’ a practice corresponding to vaccination was performed in ancient China.
y Edward Jenner’s work with small pox is regarded as a pioneering work in the field of vaccination.
8.13
y Louis Pasteur introduced the process of heat inactivating the pathogens and prepared vaccines for
anthrax, rabies etc.
y Emil Von Behring discovered the process of passive immunization. He is known as father of passive
immunization.
3.2 Principle of Vaccination

y When an antigen is introduced in a healthy person, it induces production of antibodies and memory
cells as a primary immune response. When the actual active pathogen enters the body of a vaccinated
person,due to the presence of memory cells it is rapidly recognized and eliminated.
y Thus the person does not suffer from the disease and becomes resistant to infection by the particular
type of pathogen.
3.3 Types of Vaccines
n
First generation vaccines-
.i
These vaccines are prepared by inactivating the whole pathogen. They may have side effects.
y Live attenuated (E.g. BCG, Small pox, Influenza etc.)
n al
The pathogen is grown under conditions that make it lose its pathogenicity but not its antigenic identity
ur
which is of importance pertaining to the immune system.
y Inactivated (E.g. Typhoid, Salk polio, Cholera, Rabies, Plague etc.)
o
As the name suggests, a killed pathogen is used for administration.

uj
y Toxoid (E.g. Diphtheria, Tetanus)

Ed
The inactivated form of a pathogen’s toxin is administered. They are very effective.
Combinations of various pathogens can be integrated into a single vaccine and used to generate immunity
against them. Such vaccines are called combination vaccines.
Second generation vaccines-
y Antigenic polypeptides of pathogens are produced (or isolated) and administered. These are incapable
of causing disease but elicit immune response. E.g. plague.
y Polysaccharides (which are poorly immunogenic) of the pathogens conjugated with proteins (which
are fairly immunogenic) may also be used in place of protein subunits. E.g. Pneumococcal vaccines.
Third generation vaccines-
E.g. DNA vaccines, Dendritic cell vaccines etc. They are in experimental stages.
8.14
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Which of the following disease is not transmitted through contaminated water?
(A) Typhoid (B) Diphtheria (C) Hepatitis A (D) Amoeblesis
2. Manton test is for
(A) Scarlet fever (B) Diphtheria (C) Rheumatoid fever (D) Tuberculosis
4. Tissue Grafting
4.1 HLA
y The human leukocyte antigens are proteins on the surface of cells that are responsible for regulation
of the immune system in humans.
n
y This group of genes are present on chromosome 6 (with some exceptions) and encodes antigen-
presenting proteins.
.i
y HLA in humans correspond to MHC (major histocompatibility complex) in vertebrates.
al
y Any cell bearing HLA of non-self type is marked for elimination by immune response.
n
4.2 Tissue Grafting
ur
y Grafting refers to a surgical procedure used for moving a tissue from one site to another. This term is
o
not specific to within the same body or not.

uj
y HLA typing has to be carried out to check the compatibility of the donor cells inside the body of the
receiver.
Ed
y The pecking order for graft selection should be-

Identical twins > Siblings > Parents > Unrelated donor.
y Cyclosporine may be used as an immune-suppressant drug during/after tissue grafting.
y It can be understood that all this is of high significance from the point of view of transplantations.
4.3 Types of Tissue Grafting

y Autograft- (most successful) Transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another within the
same individual.
y Isograft- Transplantation of tissue in between the individual of same genetic constitution. E.g. graft
between identical twins
y Homograft or allograft- Tissue grafting in between genetically dissimilar individual of the same
species. E.g. Family members.
y Heterograft or Xenograft- Tissue grafting between organisms of different species.
8.15
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Anthrax is caused by
(A) Virus (B) Vibrio (C) Bacillus (D) Saimorrehra
2. A common disease of domesticated animals
(A) Anthrax (B) Syphilis (C) Cholera (D) Diphtheria
5. Disorders of the Immune System

5.1 Hyper Sensitive Disorder or Allergy
y The phenomenon of a person exhibits a highly above average response or hyper sensitiveness for a
common antigen or agent is called allergy.
n
y The agents which cause allergies are called allergens.
.i
y Pollen grains, some food preparations (egg, fish), medicines (penicillin) etc. are common allergens.
y The antibodies produced to these are of IgE type.
n al
y Symptoms include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing.
y It is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin, from the mast cells.
ur
y For determining the cause of allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses of
possible allergens, and the reactions studied.
o
y The use of drugs steroid based and other anti-histaminic drugs quickly alleviates (makes less severe)
uj
the symptoms of allergy.

Ed
y It is said that modern lifestyle which leads to a highly protected environment in early stages of life leads
to development of allergies.
Bronchial Asthma-
Mode of entry of the pathogen is via inhalation. It is characterized by the spasm of the smooth muscles
present in the walls of the bronchiole. It is caused due to the hypersensitivity to the foreign substances
present in the air passing through it. The mucous membranes on the wall of the air passage start secreting
excess amount of mucous.
Symptoms-
Coughing and difficulty in breathing mainly during expiration (Wheezing).
Prevention and cure-
Avoiding exposure to allergens.
Hypo-sensitisation by small doses of the specific allergen.
Antibiotic therapy for removing the infection if any and use of bronchodilator drugs, inhalers for symptomatic relief.
8.16
Hay fever-
Mucosa of eyes and upper respiratory passage become hyper secretory in response to the allergen (pollen
grain).
Eczema (Dermatitis)-
Symptoms include reddening of skin, scales formation.
Anaphylactic shock-
This is a severe form of allergy. If an allergen enters into the blood, it stimulates the secretion of histamines
from the mast cells of the whole body causing vasodilation and increasing the permeability of the blood
vessels. Resultantly a large amount of fluid is leaked out form blood vessel into extra cellular space. Excess
fall in the blood pressure may be fatal.
5.2 Autoimmune Disorder
n
y When the immune system is unable to discriminate between self and non-self antigens, antibodies are
formed against the self-antigen also.
.i
al
y These antibodies destroy the self-antigen bearing cells.
y Thus the antibody formation against self antigens is called auto immunity.
n
y This occurs due to the failure of the body to eliminate the immune cells with an ability to target self cells.
ur
Examples-
o
y Myasthenia gravis-
uj
Antibodies are formed against acetylcholine receptors resulting in their destruction. This leads to
reduced efficiency of impulse conduction by the nervous tissue.
Ed
y Pernicious anemia-
Antibodies are formed against some cells of the digestive system due to which vitamin B12 is not
absorbed in intestine and blood formation is decreased. This deficiency of blood is called pernicious
anemia.
y Hashimoto disease-
Antibodies are formed against the thyroid gland. These antibodies destroy the thyroid gland and cause
a deficiency of thyroid hormone.
y Rheumatoid arthritis-
In simple terms, the disease results due to the immune system attacking the joints. There is swelling of
the synovial membrane. The causes of this disease are not perfectly determined. Some genetic factors
are known to play a role.
8.17
Treatment-
Pain and inflammation can be alleviated by heat treatment and physiotherapy. Joint replacement
surgery may be carried out in extreme cases.
y Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus-
Antibodies are formed against some cells of the pancreas. This causes deficiency of insulin in body.
Symptoms are hyperglycemia, glycosuria, polyuria, polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyphagia (increased
food intake).
y Multiple sclerosis-
Antibodies are formed against the myelin sheath of nerve cells leading to destruction of myelin sheath
causing neurological dysfunction.
5.3 Immunodeficiency Disorders
n
y The body is unable to mount a proper immune response.
.i
y May be due to genetic mutation, absence of some genes, infection, malnutrition and accidents.
Examples-
n al
S.C.I.D or Severe Combined Immuno-Deficiency–
ur
This disorder is due to genetic mutations or deficiency of enzyme adenosine deaminase due to genetic
reasons. This enzyme involved in formation of T and B lymphocytes. SCID characterized by very low
o
number of circulating thymocytes. Affected individual die at a very early age.

uj
Treatment – Gene therapy

A.I.D.S. (Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome)–
Ed
Human Immunodeficiency Virusleads to destruction of T-helper cells. This causes the decrease count of
T-helper cells from normal 950/mm3 to less than 200/mm3.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Cholera is accompanied by
(A) Rapid loss of fluid from the intestine (B) Infection of heart muscles
(C) Peptic ulcers (D) Rose spots
2. Select a diarrhoeal disease from the tolfowing
(A) Cholera (B) Tetanus (C) Plague (D) Whooping cough
8.18
6. Immunotherapy
y Immunotherapy is the treatment of a disease by inducing, enhancing or suppressing an immune
response.
y Immune responses can be modulated bysuitably altering the working of the various components of the
immune system. They may include interleukins, interferons and tumor necrosis factors (TNFs).
y Immunomodulators are drugs that modulate the activity of a patient’s immune response to reach a
desired level of therapeutic effect.
Types-
y Immunoactivation therapy–
It aims to heighten the immune response. E.g. administration of preformed antibodies.
y Immunosuppressive therapy-
n
It aims to reduce the immune response by the use of cytokine inhibitors or other drugs.
.i
7. Diseases al
They can be of two types-
n
y Congenital or genetic disorders.
ur
y Acquired disorders.
o
7.1 Congenital or Genetic Disorders

uj
y They occur due to faults in the genome of the organism.

Ed
y They may be inheritable or non-inheritable

y They may be due to recessive type or dominant type genes.
y Gene therapy is the only proposed ‘cure’ for these disorders. Most approaches are in clinical trials.
y It is observed that almost all the existing treatments aim to alleviate the symptoms and improve ‘quality
of life’ rather than treat the disorder.
Autosomal Recessive Disorders
They are linked to autosomes. As the mutant genes are recessive many individuals may be carriers of the
mutant genes but may now suffer from the diseases as they have a dominant ‘healthy’ version of the gene.
Phenylketonuria (PKU)-
y It occurs due to the deficiency of an enzyme called phenyl alanine hydroxylase.
y The levels of phenylalanine in the blood increases.
8.19
y This phenylalanine or phenyl pyruvic acid accumulates in brain and destroys the brain cells.
y This causes mental retardation.
y Phenyl acetate is present in urine and sweat.
y If detected at an early age, a diet with low quantities of phenylalanine along with some medication can
be used to keep the levels of phenylalanine in check and thereby ensure proper brain development.
Alkaptonuria (Black Urine Disease)-
y It occurs due to deficiency of enzyme homogentisatedioxygenase which is involved in tyrosine
metabolism.
y There is accumulation of alkaptone and homogentisic acid in blood and in tissues like joints, ligaments,
tendons, cartilages
y It is also excreted in urine which leads to black colour of the urine when it is exposed to air.
y There is no cure for the disorder and the treatment includes C vitamin doses and monitored diet.
.i n
Albinism-
al
y This disorder is due to deficiency of the enzyme tyrosinase.
y Due to its necessity in melanin production, the body parts like skin, iris of eye etc., become melanin
n
deficient.
ur
y This leads to a ghostly white appearance.

o
y Melanin provides protection against U.V. rays.

uj
y There is no cure for this disorder. The patients use various optical aids and have to take precautions
in order to avoid sun-burns.
Ed
Tay-Sachs Disease-
y This disease was first reported by Tay and Sachs.
y This genetic disorder occurs due to the deficiency of enzyme β-N acetyl hexose aminidase which is
involved in fat metabolism.
y The fat accumulation damages the nervous cells leading to progressive destruction.
y Mental retardation and paralysis is seen.
y The child does not live beyond 3-4 years.
y There is no cure or treatment. Genetic screening is regarded as a promising approach with respect to
analyzing the risks before conception.
Thalassemia/Cooley’s anaemia-
y This disorder was, first noted in the population of Mediterranean region.
8.20
y Mutations cause a decrease in synthesis of β and α (mainly β-chain) polypeptide chain of hemoglobin.
y Hb in the body reduces and less RBCs are found in circulation.
y Treatments include blood transfusions (not in excess) and chelation therapy to remove excess iron
from the body. Some people do not require any major treatment.
Sickle cell anaemia-
y Glutamic acid is replaced by valine at the 6th position in the β chain of hemoglobin.
y This abnormal Hb changes the shape of RBCs from spherical to sickle shaped.
y Sickle cell anemia patients are resistant to malaria.
y Treatment approaches include blood transfusions, folic acid supplements, bone marrow transplant,
doses of antibiotics to prevent infections etc.
Autosomal dominant gene mutational disorder
n
They are linked to autosomes. Females do not have any specific protection with regard to these types of
disorders.
.i
Examples- al
y Polydactyly
n
Presence of extra fingers and toes
ur
y Brachydactyly
Presence of abnormal short fingers and toes.
o
y Huntington’s disease
uj
This disorder occurs due to the dominant mutation occurring on the 4th chromosome. Mental and
Ed
muscle degeneration is seen in patients. It causes abnormal movement of limbs and defective speech.
This disease manifests at the age of 25-55 yrs. of age. Nerve degeneration causes involuntary shaking
of legs, arms and head.
y Achondroplasia/Dwarfism
The defective formation of cartilaginous bones causes dwarfism
y Marfan syndrome
Mutation is present on the 15th chromosome. The connective tissue is affected. Sometimes the heart
valves and aorta are also affected leading to death.
X-Linked recessive disorders-
These are linked to genes on the X chromosome. They may not be manifested in females as they have
2 copies of the X chromosome and may have the ‘healthy’/non mutant version of the gene on one X
chromosome which negates the effect of the mutant on the other X chromosome.
E.g. Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency syndrome
8.21
y The G-6-PD enzyme is present in the RBCs.

y This enzyme stabilizes the membrane of R.B.Cs.
y Deficiency of this enzyme causes the rupture of R.B.Cs when it comes in contact with sulfa drugs,
chloroquine or some bean legumes.
Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
y Dystrophin protein is absent in muscles.
y This protein helps in the conduction of Ca++ ion.
y Due to deficiency of dystrophin protein muscles cannot contract properly.
X-linked dominant disorders-

The mutant genes causing these genes are dominant and hence females have no special protection against
them. E.g. - Goltz syndrome, Aicardi syndrome, Fragile X syndrome.
n
Fragile X syndrome
.i
The patients for this disease may satisfy the criteria for autism. They have cognitive disabilities. Other
Aneuploidy linked diseases-

n al
characteristics may include long faces, large testes etc.
They occur due to the occurrence of an abnormal number of chromosome in a cell.

ur
Autosomal Aneuploidy-
o
The number of autosomes is less or more than normal.

uj
Down’s Syndrome/Mongolism
y This disorder was first reported by John Langdon Down.
Ed
y It is first aneuploidy linked disorder to be discovered.

y It causes mental retardation in children.
y Its frequency or incidence 1 in 700 children.
y This abnormality or disorder occurs mostly by fusion of normal sperm with abnormal ovum. This
abnormal ovum contains an extra 21st chromosome.
y Women around the age of 45 are more likely to give birth to children having Down syndrome.
y Symptoms include short stature, rounded face, extra folds in eye lids (epicanthus), broad fore head,
retracted tongue and lower lips, flattened nasal bridge, open mouth, short neck, flat hands, stubby
fingers, undeveloped genitals and gonads and mental retardation.
y Amniocentesis can be carried out to detect this syndrome in embryonic stage.
8.22
Edward’s syndrome/Trisomy 18
y Its incidence is 1 in 8000 births.
y The symptoms include defective formation of ears and nervous system. Mental retardation, small eyes
(micropthalmia), small jaw (micrognatha) etc.may also be seen.
y As per name the abnormality exists in the number of copies of the 18th chromosome.
Patau’s syndrome/Trisomy 13
y Symptoms include polydactyly, small hands, tiny eyes, mental retardation.
y As per name the abnormality exists in the number of copies of the 13th chromosome.
y Incidence 1 in 15000 births
Cri-du-chat syndrome
y This disorder occurs due to partial deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5.
y Patients are mentally retarded and exhibit characteristic cat like cry.
n
y It occurs in 1 per 50000 births and is said to be more common in females.
.i
Sex chromosomal (Aneuploidy)
The number of sex chromosomes is abnormal.
n al
Klinefelter’s syndrome
ur
y It occurs when more than one X chromosome is present along with a lone Y chromosome.
y The features of a person suffering from this disorder are- person is male, sterility, weaker muscles, less
o
body hair, development of breasts and lack of interest in sexual activities etc.
uj
y In some cases the symptoms are very much less prominent making the detection very difficult.
Ed
y The severity of the symptoms increases with the number of X chromosomes.

y The disease occurs due to fusion of an egg with two or more X chromosomes with a normal sperm or
due to the fusion of an egg with a sperm having both X and Y chromosomes.
y The occurrence is 1 per 500-100 live male births.
Turner’s Syndrome
y The individuals are females. They have only one X chromosome. Thus they have only 45 chromosomes.
y Some cases may have one complete and 1 partial X chromosome.
y Symptoms – Sterile females, primary amenorrhoea (absence of menstruation), undeveloped ovaries,
small uterus, shielded chest, webbed neck, mental retardation, short stature.
y Cardiovascular malformation is present in many cases and is a cause of death.
y The frequency is 1 in 2000 to 5000 female births.
Jacob’s Syndrome
y Incidence is 1 in 1000 live male births.
8.23
y It occurs due to the fusion of a YY sperm with a normal egg or due to errors in cell division after the
formation of zygote.
y The use of the word ‘syndrome’ with respect to this case is highly debated as the individuals do not suffer
from any disease or disorder. They even have an IQ which is greater than the patients of Klinefelter’s
Syndrome or Turner’s syndrome and which is equal to the normal population. It goes undetected in
many cases.
y The testosterone production is high and hence the height is more than the average.
y As against previous beliefs, these males are not ‘by default more aggressive’ than XY males.
Super females
y They are females with more than 2 X chromosomes.
y Similar to Jacob’s syndrome, the symptoms are very mild and the individuals do not suffer from any
concrete disorders owing to the karyotype.
n
y They may show accelerated growth in their childhood and a more than average height.
.i
y They also may have some learning disabilities and a shy personality in their childhood.
al
Table 8.3: Disorders and the chromosomal abnormalities
n
Disorder Chromosome number
ur
Huntington’s Chorea 4th
Cri-du-chat syndrome 5th (short arm)
o
Cystic fibrosis 7th

uj
Sickle cell anemia 11th

PKU 12th
Ed
7.2 Acquired Disorders

These are diseases which an individual may acquire after birth. They may be caused due various infectious
agents like bacteria, viruses etc. Sometimes, certain chemicals may also be a cause of diseases. They are
not due to chromosomal aneuploidy. Categories of Acquired Disorders -
y Communicable/Contagious/Infectious diseases
They may be-
○ Bacterial
○ Viral
○ Protozoal
○ Helminthic
8.24
y Non-communicable or non-infectious disease

They may be-
○ Degenerative
○ Deficiencies
○ Cancer
7.2.1 Bacterial Diseases

Table 8.4: Bacterial diseases
Mode of
Disease Pathogen Symptoms Detection Treatment
transfer
Rifampicin,
Ethambutol etc.
n
Chronic cough,
fever, weakness, Direct
.i
Air borne. bloody sputum, Mantoux test Observation
Tuberculosis
Mycobacterium
tuberculosis Droplet
inhalation.
n al
breathlessness.
High grade
Sputum
analysis
Therapy (DOT)
to ensure that
fever, difficulty in medicines are not
ur
breathing skipped.
Vaccine- BCG
o
Fever, chills,
uj
fatigue, bluish skin

coloration, sore
Ed
throat, hoarseness, Erythromycin

Direct cough, headache, Isolation of Penicillin variants
Corynebacterium
Diphtheria contact. painful swallowing, pathogen
diphtheriae Vaccine-
Air borne difficulty breathing, from patient
rapid breathing, Quinvaxem
foul-smelling
bloodstained nasal
discharge
Isolation of
pathogen
Pertussis from host.
Erythromycin
Bordetella Severe cough, Polymerase
(100 days Air borne Vaccine is
pertussis Whooping cough Chain
cough) available.
Reaction
(PCR) based
detection.
8.25
Doxycycline
Electrolyte
Cholera Diarrhoea. Rice Dipstick supplements
Vibrio cholerae Water borne water stools, drop based test. Vaccine available.
in blood pressure. Stool test Filtration of water
using a cloth can
be useful.
Streptococcus Chest
Air borne, Amoxicillin
radiograph.
Pneumonia pneumoniae droplet Persistent large Amantadine
Also caused by inhalation. Blood culture.
bouts of cough. (If viral)
Haemophileus PCR based
influenzae Vaccine available
detection.
Anti-toxin
Soil, manure antibodies
n
coming in Muscle spasms. No specific Metronidazole
Tetanus Clostridium tetani
.i
contact with test
open wounds. Magnesium (IV)
al
Patches on skin, Symptoms
n
Vaccine available
Direct ulcers and nodules based on Dapsone
ur
Leprosy Mycobacterium contact. formation in skin isolation from
leprae Nasal and nerves, BCG vaccine may
host be useful
o
droplets. wasting of fingers

uj
and toes
Stomach pain,
Ed
constipation, Cephalosporins
Typhoid Contaminated
headache, high
Salmonella typhi food and Widal test Ampicillin
fever, loss of
water Vaccine available
appetite, intestinal,
ulcers, bradycardia
High fever,
headaches, Streptomycin,
enlargement
Plague Yersinia pestis Vector borne Blood tests gentamycin etc.
of axillary
lymph nodes, Vaccine available
unconsciousness
Note: The antibiotics mentioned are not the only ones used for the treatment of the disease.
8.26
7.2.2 Viral diseases

Table 8.5: Viral diseases
Mode of
transfer
No cure.
Antibiotics,
Polio virus physiotherapy
Fecal Fever, headache, etc.
Polio (Group-Picorna Testing CSF
matter limb damage
virus) Vaccination is
effective and
important.
Coughing, Amantadine,
Influenza sneezing, sudden Oseltamivir
n
(Avian, Swine Othomyxovirus Air borne fever after Throat swabs
Vaccine
.i
etc.) headache, nasal
discharge available
Air borne
n al
4 day fevers, Symptom based.
No specific
treatment. Rest
cough, brown Detection of viral etc.
Measles Paramyxovirus Direct
ur
patches across RNA in the nasal
contact the body Vaccine
discharges
available
o
No specific
uj
treatment.
Direct
Symptoms based. Wearing of
Ed
contact
PCR based test gloves, anti-itch
Chicken pox Pox virus Sometimes Fever, blisters of amniotic fluid ointments etc.
via coughs across the body for detection in Aspirin should
and embryos NOT be used
sneezes
Vaccine
available
No specific
cure.
Fever, white- Rest etc.
Respiratory Symptom based
Mumps Para myxovirus brown patches on Aspirin should
droplets PCR based
the body. NOT be used
Vaccine
available
8.27
PCR based tests No specific

Vector
Blood testing for drugs. Oral
borne.
Dengue Arbovirus High fever, rash WBC counts rehydration
Aedes
Torniquet tests for Vaccine NOT
aegypti
hemorrhage available.
No specific
cure
Vector Affects nervous
Fluorescent
Rabies Rhabdo virus borne. Dogs system, Vaccine
antibody test
etc. hydrophobia etc. available. It is
effective for
treatment also.
n
NO specific
cure
.i
Infects nose and
al As the number
upper respiratory of viruses
n
tract but not the causing it is
Common Droplet lungs, Nasal high and as
ur
Rhinovirus Symptoms based
cold infection congestion they mutate
and discharge, very fast, there
o
headache, is no vaccine
uj
tiredness. preparation
that has shown
Ed
promise
No specific
cure
Aspirin should
Vector PCR based NOT be used
Fever, joint pain, detection
Chikungunya Togaviruses borne. Vaccine not
arthritis.
Mosquitoes Nonspecific test available. In
experimental
stages
Tamiflu.
H1N1 Influenza Flu like Throat swabs used
Swine flu Air borne
virus symptoms for PCR based tests Vaccine
available
8.28
Some drugs
Hepatitis A, Blood to Blood chemistry, available.
Enterovirus Jaundice
B, C, D, E blood ELISA Vaccines
available
Unprotected
sexual
intercourse, Anti-Retroviral
Exposure Cocktail
AIDS to infected
HIV Reduced (At-least 3
Acquired bodily fluids Serological tests for anti-Retroviral
Human immunity.
Immuno- anti-HIV antibodies. drugs)
Immuno- Via sharing Opportunistic
deficiency Western blot
deficiency Virus of syringes infections Zidovudine
Syndrome
From No promising
n
infected vaccine
mother to
.i
fetus
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 8.3: Boy suffering from chicken pox Figure 8.4: Boy suffering from mumps
DID YOU KNOW

? Aspirin consumption (especially by children) during some viral infections can cause
Reye’s syndrome, a potentially fatal condition affecting the liver and the brain.
DID YOU KNOW

Typhoid Mary
? She was a cook by profession and was a typhoid carrier who continued to spread
typhoid for several years through the food she prepared. She was twice forcibly isolated
by public health authorities and died after a total of nearly three decades in isolation.
She is said to have infected 51 people.
8.29
7.2.3 AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)

y AIDS was first reported in 1981.
y It was first detected in homosexual males in USA at Centre for Disease Control, Atlanta.
y It has resulted to more than 25 million deaths.
y HIV I is more common in India and HIV II is more common in West Africa.
y It is characterized by decrease in number of helper T-cells.
y HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus)
○ It is roughly spherical
○ It is around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell,
○ It is composed of two copies of single-stranded RNA
○ The RNAs are enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24.
n
The RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins
.i
○
○
al
A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid.
The matrix is surrounded by the viral envelope that is composed of two layers of phospholipids.
n
○ A viral protein and some host proteins are embedded in the envelope. This glycoprotein enables
ur
the virus to attach to and fuse with target cells

o
uj
Ed
Figure 8.5: Human Immuno-deficiency Virus

y Modes of transfer
○ Due to unprotected sexual intercourse with infected partners.
○ Contact of blood with infected tissue/blood.
○ Use of unsterilized material for tattooing or any practice that punctures the skin.
○ From mother to fetus during pregnancy.
8.30
○ From mother to child during lactation.

○ AIDS does not spread through mere touch, hugging, sharing meals, shaking hands, mosquito
bites, coughing, sneezing etc.
y Infection
○ After getting into the body of the person, the virus enters into macrophages.
○ Here the RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA and makes use of the cellular
machinery to produce more and more virus particles.
○ HIV enters T-helper cells and continue to multiply.
○ The progeny viruses are released in the blood. They attack other T-helper cells.
○ This leads to a progressive decrease in the number of T-helper cells.
○ The person suffers from fever, diarrhoea and weight loss.
n
○ Due to decrease in the number of T-helper cells, the person suffers from infections that the immune
.i
system otherwise could have overcome.
○ The person becomes immuno-deficient.
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 8.6: Multiplication cycle of Retrovirus

8.31
Symptoms
y Asymptomatic phase
○ For 5-10 years antibodies are not produced against HIV.
○ There are no specific symptoms.
○ ELISA test comes out to be negative.
○ A fever and some illness may occur in 2-4 weeks after the infection.
y Full blown AIDS
○ The person suffers from fever, diarrhoea and weight loss.
○ The person becomes immunodeficient.
○ The person gets infected by opportunistic infections.
○ The person may suffer from Kaposi’s sarcoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, primary central nervous
n
system lymphoma and cervical cancer.
.i
○ Suffering from Pneumonia, TB is possible. al
y Diagnosis
n
○ ELISA- Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay-
ur
○ It is a sensitive test for detection of proteins.

o
○ Western Blot test for antibodies against HIV in the patient’s serum.
uj
○ PCR based test.

y Treatment
Ed
○ Reverse transcriptase inhibitors- Zidovudine (previously called AZT), Stavudine, Trizivir, Foscarnet,
DDI (Didexymidine) etc.
○ Protease inhibitors-Ritonavir, Nelfinavir etc.
○ HAART (Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy) includes both reverse transcriptase inhibitors and
protease inhibitor drugs.
○ Treatment does not cure. Only helps to reduce viral load.
y Prevention
○ Use of appropriate contraceptives/protection (condoms) during sexual intercourse.
○ Proper sterilization of surgical equipment.
○ Use of disposable instruments for any body puncture practice.
○ Avoiding intra-venous drug use and sharing of needles, razors etc.
○ Creating social awareness.
8.32
7.2.4 Protozoan diseases

Table 8.6: Diseases caused by protozoans
Mode of
transfer
Fever, chills, head- Chloroquine,
ache, body-ache,
severe weakness, hydroxychloroquine
shivering. Anti-pyretic drugs
The parasites first etc.
reside in the liver Spraying of anti-
asymptomatically mosquito chemicals
Plasmodium Vector borne. (1-4 weeks) and then on stagnant
vivax The parasite invade the RBCs. Blood film test. water and other
n
Plasmodium spreads They rupture RBCs PCR based areas, rearing
.i
Malaria
falciparum via female to infect new ones. tests are rarely of Gambusia
Plasmodium
malariae
Anopheles
mosquito.
al
These cycles of
rupture lead to the
n
used. fishes which eat
mosquito larvae,
bouts of fevers and use of mosquito-
ur
chills. repellent ointments,

mosquito nets etc.
The pathogen has
o
are preventive
adapted various measures.
uj
mechanisms to avoid
the action of immune No vaccine is
Ed
system. available.
Blood in stools, Metronidazole,
Contaminated aggressive diarrhoea, paromomycin etc.
Amoebic Entamoeba Testing of
food and fever, weakness,
dysentery hystolytica stools, blood Vaccine is NOT
drinks chills, abdominal
cramps etc. available
8.33
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 8.7: Life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica

8.34
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 8.8: Life cycle of Plasmodium
TRY IT YOURSELF
Elucidate the life cycle of Plasmodium.
8.35
7.2.4 Helminthic diseases

Table 8.7: Helminthic diseases
Mode of
transfer
Presence of worms/ Albendazole,
eggs in stools. Very mebendazole,
much asymptomatic levamisole
in initial phase. and pyrantel
pamoate.
The worms may
cause obstruction of No vaccine is
Ingestion intestine. Detection available. If
Ascariasis
Ascaris of eggs via The worms derive via testing the infection
Round worm lumbricoides stools (Kato is common in
n
contaminated nutrients from the
infection food, soil etc. host leading to technique) an area, all the
.i
school children
malnutrition
al and other
Swelling of liver may population may
n
be seen. Sometimes be given the
ur
the worms may enter medicines as
the lungs and come a preventive
out from the mouth.
o
measure.
Albendazole,
uj
ivermectin
Ed
No vaccine is
Nocturnal available. If
Wuchereria Vector borne. collection the infection
Elephantiasis bancrofti Extremely enlarged is common in
Culex of blood
or Filariasis limbs or genitals
W. malayi mosquito samples and an area all the
microscopy population may
be given the
medicines as
a preventive
measure.
8.36
A B
Figure 8.9: A. Normal foot and B. Foot affected by filariasis
7.2.5 STDs (Sexually Transmitted Diseases)
n
Table 8.8: Sexually transmitted diseases
.i
Mode of
transfer al Single dose of
n
intramuscular
ur
benzathine Penicillin G.
Doxycycline and
o
Sexual Ulcers on
tetracycline.
Treponema intercourse genitals, blisters
uj
Syphilis Blood tests No vaccine is available.

pallidum with an infected across the
Prevention- usage
Ed
person. body, nodules.

of condoms and
completely avoiding
sexual intercourse with
infected persons.
Ceftriaxone (pathogen
is resistant to most
Discharge of other drugs).
Sexual
white thick fluid Gram No vaccine is available.
Neisseria intercourse
Gonorrhoea from urethra, staining, PCR Prevention- usage
gonorrhoeae with an infected
pain during based testing of condoms and
person.
urination. completely avoiding
sexual intercourse with
infected persons.
8.37
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Anomaly in which chromosome causes Down’s syndrome?
2. Name any two sex-chromosome related disorders
3. What is the causative organism of tuberculosis?
4. Name a few antibiotic drugs.
5. Name any one acquired disease for which a vaccine is not available.
6. Roundworm disease is an STD (True/False).
8. Cancer
n
y Cancer is a major cause of death across the globe.
.i
y It can both be acquired or hereditary. al
y It is generally caused due to mutation in genes coding for cell division linked proteins.
n
y Cancer cells divide uncontrollably.
ur
y They derive their nutrition from the body itself.

o
y Tumors/Neoplasm
uj
○ Neoplasm means new growth.

○ Abnormal growth of tissue is termed as a tumor.
Ed
○ Tumors are of two types- malignant or benign.

○ The benign tumors do not spread and are generally covered by a capsule. They are non-invasive
and thus non-cancerous. They grow slower than malignant tumors. The cells in benign tumors are
more differentiated than the ones in malignant tumors.
○ Benign tumors are generally non-fatal. Some benign tumors do not require treatment.
○ Malignant means harmful.
○ Cells from malignant tumors delocalize and form new tumors where they settle again. This is called
metastasis. They divide faster than benign tumors.
○ Such tumors are invasive and cancerous. They do not have a capsule around them.
○ They are fatal if left untreated.
8.38
DID YOU KNOW

y Most animal cells exhibit a property called contact inhibition. They stop dividing
when they encounter a surface on a particular side.
? y Cancerous cells do not exhibit this property.
y Normal animal cells are capable of a certain number of cell divisions i.e. a cell will
divide x number of times and after x divisions it will not enter the cell cycle again.
y Cancer cells are generally capable of infinite number of cell divisions.
y Carcinogens
There are various factors that may lead to a normal cell becoming a cancerous cells. Agents that are
responsible for the same are called carcinogens.
n
Factors causing cancer-
.i
y Physical agents- al
○ UV radiation, X-rays etc. Radiation leads to DNA damage and a mutation caused may be cancerous.
n
○ Kangri- It is a pot filled with embers kept under the clothing by Kashmiri people to keep warm. The
ur
constant exposure to heat causes cancers in some cases.
○ It is said that extremely sharp teeth can cause cancer in the tongue. In general, constant friction
o
can cause cancer.

uj
y Chemical agents-
Ed
○ They may be carcinogenic due to various reasons. They can create oxidative stress or be
analogous to bases of the DNA and get incorporated in the DNA itself and cause mutations. Some
are intercalating agents E.g. Benzo[a]pyrene, Ethidium bromide are intercalating agents.
○ Carcinogens in cigarette smoke- Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons like benzopyrene, acrolein,
nitrosamines etc.
○ Artificial sweeteners, asbestos, some pesticides can also be carcinogenic.
y Biological agents-
○ Estrogen imbalance can cause breast cancer.
○ Some viruses can induce cancer in humans. E.g. Hepatitis B virus, Epstein Barr virus, Human
Papilloma virus etc.
○ Helicobacter pylori infections can increase the risk of some cancers in the colon.
8.39
y Carcinogens and organs-

Carcinogens Affected Organs
Soot Skin and lungs
Cigarette smoke Lungs
Coal tar Skin and lungs
Aflatoxin Liver
Cadmium oxide Prostate gland
Mustard gas Lungs
Asbestos Lungs
Nickel and Chromium compounds Lungs, Larynx
Vinyl chloride Liver
Arsenic Urinary bladder, lung, skin
n
Types of cancer
.i
y Carcinoma
○
n al
This type of tumor originates from the skin/epithelial tissue.
○ It is the most common kind of tumor. (85% cases of cancer are carcinomas).
Oral cancer is men and uterine cancer in females is more common in India.
ur
○
Examples-
o
○ Brain carcinoma
uj
○ Oral carcinoma
○ Gastric carcinoma
Ed
○ Colon carcinoma
○ Lung carcinoma
○ Cervical carcinoma
○ Adeno carcinoma (gland)
○ Breast carcinoma
y Sarcoma
○ It is a tumor of mesenchymal origin.
○ The forms 1 % of the instances of cancer.
Examples-
○ Bone cancer- Osteosarcoma
○ Muscle cancer- Myosarcoma
○ Lymph node cancer- Lymphosarcoma.
8.40
y Leukaemia
○ This is the cancer of white blood cells (WBCs).
○ It is the most common cancer in children (Note- 90% cases of leukemia are reported in adults).
○ It is reported more in developed countries.
y Mechanisms
○ Though cancer is one of the most complex phenomena of biology, some basic mechanisms can
be understood.
○ Some genes are ‘proto-oncogenes’. They code for proteins which may be cell cycle regulators etc.
○ When these genes are subjected to mutation, they may become ‘oncogenes’. After mutation/s, the
function of the proto-oncogene is disrupted. Thus it may stop producing a protein that regulates the
cell cycle or may start up-regulating the production of a protein that promotes cell division.
Thus mutation in a tumor suppressor gene can cause unchecked growth of tumors.
n
○
.i
○ Some cancers are also caused due to down-regulation of DNA repair proteins. Thus the DNA
damaged is not repaired properly and may lead to cancer.
al
Note- Not all mutations are carcinogenic.
n
y Diagnosis
ur
It can be on the basis of-

o
○ Detection of the abnormal cells or cancerous cell in blood.

uj
○ Detection of the tumor markers in blood. Most tumor markers are tumor antigens which can be
detected in blood or urine or tissue samples.
Ed
○ Monoclonal antibodies against known cancer antigens.

○ X-Rays, CT scans, MRI scans. Mammography is the X-Ray technique used to detect breast cancer.
○ Biopsy (tissue examination can be carried out to determine the condition of tissue.
○ Pap smear is used for cervical cancer.
y Treatment
There are various approaches for treatment
○ Surgery to remove cancerous tissue or lymph nodes.
○ Radiation like Cobalt-60 therapy, X-rays are used to destroy rapidly dividing cells.
○ Chemotherapy (use of chemicals to treat the disease).
○ Some drugs inhibit DNA synthesis and thereby affect the newly growing cells.
8.41
Example-
○ Vincristine a compound from Madagascar periwinkle or Cantharanthus roseus and similarly
Vinblastine from the same plant.
○ Immunotherapy by using monoclonal antibodies.
○ Some new approaches rely on using the immune system of the body by stimulating it in innovative
ways.
It should be noted that a combination of surgery, radiation and chemotherapy are used. Very rarely will
isolated therapies be preferred.
DID YOU KNOW

Prions and prion diseases
n
y A prion is a protein that can fold in multiple, structurally distinct ways, at least one
?
of which is transmissible to other prion proteins.
.i
y Consider a protein X which is a prion. When it comes in contact with other molecules
al
of protein X it causes them to misfold. The misfolded proteins do not perform the
n
function they are supposed to. Additionally these misfolded molecules aggregate
forming ‘amyloids’.
ur
y This leads to disorders called prion diseases. E.g. Mad cow disease, Kuru etc.
o
uj
TRY IT YOURSELF
Ed
1. Symptom of diphtheria is
(A) Suffocation (B) Fear of water (C) Gum bleeding (D) Stomach ache
9. General Preventive Measures for Diseases

y Maintenance of hygiene is very important. It is essential to keep the body clean, make best possible
attempts to purify drinking water and eat non-contaminated food. One must also keep once residence
and workspace clean. Garbage should be thrown in an appropriate manner and at an appropriate place.
y Civic bodies must provide clean drinking water and sanitation.
y One must undergo regular health check-ups. It is important to not ignore any symptoms of illness.
y The civic body must carry out inspections for stagnant water, waste disposal etc.
y Gambusia fish should be reared in ponds.
8.42
y Vaccination schedules should be followed.

y Isolations, curfews should be implemented when necessary.
y Health awareness, awareness about STDs and their preventive measures should be encouraged.
y Smoking, excess consumption of alcohol and drugs (narcotics etc.) should be avoided.
y The society as a whole should try to help those suffering from diseases rather than shun them. Sound
mental health is also important for leading a healthy life.
y Diet should be proper.
y Every person in the society should make attempts to reduce air, water sound pollution.
y The civic bodies should take strict action against the individuals/corporations following any practices
that may harm the health of the community.
y It should be very clearly noted that 'Prevention is always better than Cure'.
n
10. Mental Health
.i
y Definition of Mental health
n al
○ Just like the physical aspects of the body, the psychological ones also play an important role in the
well-being of an individual.
ur
○ It is the level of psychological well-being of an individual.

o
○ Absence of known psychological disorders is one of the criteria of being psychologically healthy.
uj
y Mental illnesses
Ed
It is a behavioral pattern that causes suffering or disability.

y Symptoms include-
○ Depression
○ Insomnia (lack of sleep) or Hypersomnia excessive sleeping
○ Compulsive actions
○ Feeling of hopelessness
○ Suicidal thoughts
○ Severe phobias/fears not within reason
○ Loss of memory
○ Behavior that is detrimental to one’s life and property
○ Anorexia (eating very less food)
○ Delusions (false beliefs)
○ Hallucinations (perceiving/sensing without external stimulus)
○ Social dysfunction.
8.43
They are of 2 types-

y Psychosis
○ It occurs due to a distorted perception of reality. The person does not live in the ‘real world’ in which
other normal individuals live.
○ Consequently the person typically will not accept that he/she is ill. The person will refuse to seek
any treatment.
○ It is more severe than neurosis.
○ It can be due to- brain damage due to alcohol, poisoning, old age or severe traumatic incidence/s.
y Neurosis
○ The person perceives the same reality as normal individuals. He/she has problem coping up with
it leading to a disorder.
○ Thus, the patient can be made to realize that he/she is suffering from some disorder and he/she
n
may be interested in getting cured.
.i
○ Anxiety disorders, mood disorders, attention deficit disorder etc. are types of neurosis.
11. Adolescence, Drugs and Alcohol Abuse

n al
11.1 Adolescence
ur
y It is loosely defined as the time of the life of an individual between the age of attaining puberty and the
age of becoming an ‘adult’.
o
y In modern times it is seen that characteristics of becoming an adolescent start manifesting themselves
uj
in the age prior to attaining puberty.

Ed
y It is an important period in the life of an individual.

y Adolescence is of major importance concerning mental health and addictions. This is because
adolescents are capable of making and implementing their choices but may not be in as positon to fully
understand or face the consequences of the choices.
y Common problems of adolescents
○ Acne - A long term skin problem which may include- blackheads, pimples, greasy skin etc.
○ Hypochondria - The condition of being concerned about one’s health. It may lead to anorexia
(skipping meals to lose weight) or other such disorders.
○ Neurasthenia - It is the inability to enjoy life and may comprise of irritability, fatigue, insomnia,
depression and headache.
○ Post-traumatic stress - Occurs due to some trauma.
○ Addiction - Uncontrollable use of alcohol, drugs, tobacco smoking and chewing.
○ Phobia - It is a fear of certain things like dogs, height etc.
○ Peer- Pressure may cause complications in adolescence.
8.44
11.2 Addiction
y Compulsive engagement in an activity is termed as addiction. It may interfere with normal life.
y Alcohol addiction or tobacco addiction are the most common addictions. Drug abuse is another common
addiction.
y Similarly, addictions can also be associated with activities like gambling etc. They may not cause any
direct damage to the body but affect the social life of an individual.
y Euphoria and a temporary feeling of wellness associated with drugs and alcohol is a cause of addiction.
Hence people begin to consume them even when they are not needed.
y With repeated usage, the body becomes ‘tolerant’ and hence the addicts consume more of the
substance to achieve the required ‘high’.
y Dependence is the condition in which the individual experiences unpleasant symptoms (anxiety,
shivering, nausea and sweating) when dosage is discontinued. The symptoms subside when dosage
is relieved.
n
y The symptoms may be life threatening and the person may need medical supervision.
.i
y All the above may cause financial and social problems in the life of an individual.
al
y Intravenous drug usage may lead to contraction of HIV infection if the needle is shared with an HIV
n
affected individual.
ur
11.2.1 Alcoholism
o
y Ethyl alcohol is consumed as a fermented beverages with low content of alcohol e.g. beer, wine
uj
y Distilled beverages have a relatively high percentage of alcohol. E.g. Rum, Whisky, Gin.
Alcohol is rapidly absorbed from the wall of stomach and enters the bloodstream within minutes of
Ed
y
ingestion.
y Consumption of alcohol causes a mild alcoholic flush. The person may experience a feeling of warmth
and freeness. As more and more alcohol is consumed, the person loses control over himself/herself.
This may lead to loss of balance, consciousness etc.
y Some research indicates that moderate consumption of alcohol may have some protective effects.
y In some cases the person gets addicted to consumption of alcohol and thus becomes and alcoholic.
y Overdose of alcohol can be fatal. The tolerance level may vary.
y Alcohol has the potential to cause permanent damage to the brain or other organs of the body.
y The ill effects of alcohol are commonly associated with the liver. Alcoholism leads to fatty liver and/or
liver cirrhosis.
y Excess alcohol consumption is detrimental to the gastro-intestinal tract.
y Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde which is regarded as a carcinogen.
8.45
y Excess consumption of alcohol is known to have effects on varied aspects of the body ranging from
hormonal imbalance to diabetes to sexual dysfunction.
y Excess consumption of alcohol causes impaired decision making and irrational behavior. Lack of co-
ordination may lead to accidents and reckless behavior which may affect the quality of and/or endanger
the life of the person.
y A person may commit a crime under the influence of alcohol or to finance his addiction.
y The reasons for resorting to alcohol vary from stress to peer pressure to recreation.
y Endorsement of alcoholism in various form of literature and movies are also said to play an important
role in its wide-spread usage/abuse.
y Sometimes alcohol vendors lace it with methanol and other chemical which can lead to serious cases
of ‘methanol poisoning’ which may be fatal.
11.2.2 Drug Abuse
n
y It means unnecessary usage and/or addiction to drugs. The scope of the term ‘drugs’ is not limited to
.i
recreational substances. It may also include analgesics, sedatives, stimulants, steroids etc.
y al
Commonly abused drugs include opiates, cannabinoids and coca alkaloids. Majority of these are
obtained from flowering plants while some are obtained from fungi.
n
y Opioids bind to specific opioid receptors present in the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract.
ur
Morphine and its modified form- heroin are opiates derived from poppy plant-Papaver somniferum.
y They are ingested via snorting or injection. Their consumption causes slowing down of body functions.
o
y Cannabinoids are a group of chemicals, which interact with cannabinoid receptors. They are obtained
uj
from the plant Cannabis sativa. The drugs include marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja. They are
ingested by inhalation and oral consumption. They induce euphoria and a ‘high’ very quickly. They also
Ed
tend to increase the appetite.

y Coca alkaloids like cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native to South America.
It affects the central nervous system, creating a sense of euphoria, competitiveness and energy.
Excessive dosage of cocaine causes hallucinations.
y Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, that are normally used as medicines to help
patients cope with mental illnesses like depression and insomnia, are often abused for recreation.
y Sports persons may develop addiction to pain-killers. Bodybuilders may resort to excessive use of
steroids to build up muscle tone. This type of drug abuse also has a very detrimental impact on the body.
Figure 8.10: Chemical structure of a Figure 8.11: Chemical Structure of cocaine

cannabinoid molecule
8.46
Combinations or cocktails of drugs

y Some addicts use mixtures of drugs to have immediate ‘kick’ or ‘high.
y Simultaneous use of drugs and alcohol may have dangerous effects and may be fatal.
y A mixture of cocaine and heroin, called speed ball, leads to the fast kick of cocaine and the prolonged
high of heroin.
Interaction of Alcohol and other Substances of abuse with some common drugs
Table 8.9: Effects of interaction of alcohol and narcotics
Drugs Effects
Alcohol and other depressants e.g.,
Dramatically increased depressant effect.
barbiturates
Alcohol + Antihistamines Marked drowsiness (normally little or no sedative effect).
n
Alcohol + Benzodiazepines Rapid increase in sedative effect ; often dramatic.
.i
Decreased coordination, increased reaction time,
Alcohol + Marijuana or Hashish al
impaired judgement.
Alcohol + Aspirin Increased risk of damage to gastric mucosa.
n
ur
11.2.3 Tobacco
o
y Tobacco has been used by human beings since historical times.

uj
y It is smoked, chewed or used as a snuff.

y Tobacco contains a large number of chemical substances including nicotine which stimulates the
Ed
release adrenaline which tends to raise blood pressure and increase heart rate.
y Smoking leads to increased incidence of cancers of lung, urinary bladder, throat etc.
y It can also cause bronchitis, coronary heart disease, gastric ulcer, etc.
y Tobacco chewing may lead to cancer of the oral cavity.
y Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) in the blood and reduces the concentration of haembound
oxygen. This causes oxygen deficiency in the body.
11.2.4 Treatment/Management and other remedies

y It can be understood that not engaging into excessive consumption or alcohol/smoking/drug abuse is
the best way to prevent all the disorders occurring due to their consumption.
y Awareness about their ill effects should be spread.
y School education must emphasize on the importance of these aspects.
8.47
y An addict should be provided proper medical attention and should be subjected to counselling. He/she
should be supported and not shunned. Similarly an addict should also try to seek medical help.
y Treatment as such can include drugs which may be antagonistic with the dependence related chemistry.
Some drugs like disulfiram slow down the removal of acetaldehyde from the system. This leads to
quickly induced and long lasting ‘hangover’ (discomfort associated with alcohol consumption). Thus
pleasantness associated with alcohol is cut down thereby reducing the addiction. It should be noted
that chemicals solely may not solve the problem.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. What is adolescence?
2. Name a few types of drugs that are abused for recreation.
3. Cocaine is an opiate. (True/False).
n
4. Describe the mode of action of disulfiram.
.i
Summary
n al
y Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, and not merely an absence of
disease or infirmity (W.H.O – 1948).
ur
y Disease is defined as a structural or functional abnormality in an organism which impairs the normal
o
functioning of its mind and/or body.

uj
y Pathogens are disease causing organisms. E.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis which causes TB.
y Humans have a highly evolved and complex immune system.
Ed
y There two arms of the immune system namely- The innate immune system and the Adaptive immune
system.
y The innate immune system is not pathogen specific. It serves as an infection prevention + containment
+ attack system which is in place to check the multiplication of the pathogen until the adaptive immune
system is active.
y The adaptive immune response is pathogen specific. It is highly effective.
y The adaptive immune system is of two major types- Cell mediated and Humoral immune system.
y The T cells are the major enforcers of cell mediated immunity.
y The antibody secreting B cells are the major enforcers of humoral immunity.
y Antibodies are proteins (immunoglobulins). They bind to antigens.
y There are 5 major types of antibodies- IgA, IgM, IgD, IgG, IgE (M A D G E).
y Adaptive immune response also has mechanisms for ‘memory’.
8.48
y The immune cells are trained to not recognize antigens present on self cells as foreign antigens.
y Error in the above (in)ability may lead to auto-immune disorder.
y Vaccination aims to introduce weaken pathogens/dead pathogens/components of pathogens in the body
to induce adaptive immune response and formation of memory cells. Thus when the actual pathogen
enter the body, the adaptive immune system is active and functional quickly thereby protecting the
individual from the pathogen.
y Recognition of ‘non self’ may cause problems in tissue grafting.
y Diseases are caused by various agents- protozoa, bacteria, viruses, prions, chemicals, physical factors etc.
y Some diseases are congenital and may be caused due to errors in chromosome segregation.
y Cancer is a disease in which some cells of the body start dividing uncontrollably. This occurs due to
mutation in genes encoding for cell cycle regulation proteins. The non-mutated versions of the genes
are called proto-oncogenes while the mutant ones are called oncogenes.
n
y The agents which may lead to cancer are called carcinogens.
.i
y Physical agents include UV rays, X-rays, heat etc.
y
n al
Biological agents include viruses like Epstein - Barr virus, HPV etc.
y Many chemicals found in cigarette smoke are carcinogenic.
ur
y Cancer can be treated by surgery, chemotherapy and radiation.

y There are various mental illnesses too.
o
y Compulsive engagement in an activity is termed as addiction. It may interfere with normal life.
uj
y Humans may be addicted to various substances like alcohol, tobacco, opiates, steroids etc.
Ed
y In cases of addictions or diseases ‘Prevention is always better than cure

8.49
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Health is
(A) Wealth
(B) Absence of disease or infirmity
(C) Weight of body according to height
(D) State of complete physical mental and social well-being.
Q.2 Which is a bacteriostatic drug?
n
(A) Penicillin (B) Tetracycline
.i
(C) Streptomycin (D) Ciprofloxacin
al
n
Q.3 Epidemiology is more helpful in
ur
(A) Non-communicable disease (B) Communicable disease
(C) Selective mating population (D) Random mating population.
o
uj
Q.4 Which is an analgesic drug?

(A) Chloramphenicol (B) Alprazolam
Ed
(C) Codeine and Morphine (D) Paracetamol
Q.5 Antihistamine drug is effective in

(A) Bacterial infection (B) Viral infection
(C) Paraplegia (D) Allergy
Q.6 Proteinuria is
(A) Protein in blood (B) Protein in urine
(C) Both (D) None of these
Q.7 Who is called the father of surgery?

(A) Hippocrates (B) Susruta
(C) Charaka (D) Robert Koch
8.50
Q.8 Agents used to kill microbes on living surfaces are called

(A) Disinfectant (B) Tranquilizers
(C) Antiseptic (D) (A) and (C) are correct
Q.9 Presence of R.B.C in urine is known as

(A) Hematuria (B) Urolethiasis
(C) Nephritis (D) Proteinuria
Q.10 Penicillin is bacteriolytic because –

(A) It checks spindle formation (B) It destroys chromatin
(C) It inhibit cell wall formation (D) It inhibit protein synthesis
n
Q.11 The pain killer aspirin is also related with
.i
(A) Antipyretic (B) Antiallergic
(C) Anticoagulant
n al
(D) All above
Q.12 Antiviral substances produced by many vertebrates in response to viral infection for resisting the
ur
multiplication of virus is known as
(A) Virion (B) Interferon
o
(C) Antivirin (D) Antigen

uj
Q.13 An excessive enlargement of a diseased organ due to an increase in the number of cells in called
Ed
(A) Atrophy (B) Ahyperplasia

(C) Necrosis (D) Angina
Q.14 First line of defence of body is
(A) Skin and Mucous membrane (B) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(C) Fever (D) Interferon
Q.15 Antigen is
(A) Substances which stimulates the production of venom
(B) Vaccine
(C) Antibody production stimulating agent
(D) Part of the body defence system
8.51
Q.16 Substances that regulate or coordinate other leucocytes are called.

(A) Interferon (B) Interleukin
(C) Phagocytic chemical (D) Enzyme
Q.17 Which is correct sequence of events of inflammation or phagocytosis –

(A) Vasodilation  Diapedesis  Adhesion  Chemotaxis  Phagocytosis
(B) Vasodilation  Adhesion  Emigration  Chemotaxis  Phagocytosis
(C) Adhesion  Vasodilation  Diapedesis  Chemotaxis  Phagocytosis
(D) Vasodilation  Adhesion  Chemotaxis  Diapedesis  Phagocytosis
Q.18 Immune system retain the memory of which response in vaccination process
(A) Passive immunization response (B) Primary immune response
n
(C) Secondary immune response (D) All the above.
.i
Q.19 D.P.T vaccine is an example of
(A) Passive immunity
n al
(B) Active immunity
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Interferon
ur
Q.20 Cell mediated immunity is provided by

o
(A) B-lymphocytes (B) Plasma cells

uj
(C) C-lymphocytes (D) Thymus cells or Thymocytes

Ed
Q.21 Which is a primary lymphoid organ?

(A) Bone marrow and spleen (B) Spleen and thymus
(C) Bone-marrow and tonsils (D) Thymus gland and bone marrow
Q.22 Clonal selection is

(A) Change in gene frequency (B) Proliferation of T and B-cell
(C) Formation of dolly sheep (D) Allergy
Q.23 Number of polypeptide chain present in a molecule of antibody –

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
8.52
Q.24 Which of the following is a circulating antibody that protect the body fluid?
(A) IgD (B) IgZ (C) IgG (D) IgA
Q.25 Nobel Prize for passive immunity was awarded to

(A) Edward Jenner (B) Von Behring (C) Wakmen (D) A. Fleming
Q.26 Which antibody is called secretary antibodies.

(A) IgE (B) IgA (C) IgG (D) IgM
Q. 27 At the time of birth, presence of which antibody indicates the infection of foetus (Intrauterine infection)?
(A) IgG (B) IgD (C) IgM (D) IgA
Q.28 Vaccination is a part of
n
(A) Treatment of disease (B) Etiology
.i
(C) Cow (D) Prophylaxis
al
n
Q.29 Vaccine is
ur
(A) Live oral pathogen (B) Inactivated antigen
(C) Inactivated pathogen (D) Complete pathogen
o
uj
Q.30 Immunisation is based on

(A) Memory of individuals (B) Pathogenic power
Ed
(C) Phagocytosis (D) Memory of immune system
Q.31 Second generation vaccine is

(A) Small pox vaccine (B) D.P.T vaccine
(C) Hepatitis – B vaccine (D) Polio vaccine
Q.32 Colostrum, the first milk secretion of mammary gland is rich in immunoglobulin
(A) IgE (B) IgM (C) IgA (D) IgG
Q.33 Cyto-toxic cells are

(A) T-cells (B) B-cells (C) Memory cells (D) Mast cells
8.53
Q.34 Interferons
(A) Kill the virus in virus infected cell
(B) Kill the virus and destroy cancerous cell
(C) Stimulate the T.I.P (Translation Inhibiting protein)
Q.35 Damage to thymus in a child may lead to

(A) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
(B) A reduction in stem cell production
(C) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
(D) Loss of cell mediated immunity
n
Q.36 Neutrophils and monocytes are important cells participating in
.i
(A) Phagocytosis (B) Perforin production
(C) Passive immunity
al
(D) Antibody production
n
Q.37 An antibody is a
ur
(A) component of blood

o
(B) Secretion of mammalian erythrocyte

uj
(C) Molecule that specifically react with an antigen

(D) White corpuscle which attack invading bacteria
Ed
Q.38 Which are not a type of T-lymphocyte?

(A) Helper (B) Suppressor
(C) Cytotoxic (D) Repressor
Q.39 Which of the following organs is not involved in the elicitation of immune response?
(A) Brain (B) Lymph nodes
(C) Spleen (D) Thymus
Q.40 Short lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the
infant is categorised as –
(A) Active immunity (B) Passive immunity
(C) Cellular immunity (D) Innate non-specific immunity
8.54
Q.41 Membrane attack complex (MAC) associated with

(A) B-lymphocytes (B) Compliments system
(C) Macrophages (D) T-lymphocytes
MAC = It causes pores in invading microbes
Q.42 BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Typhoid
(C) AIDS (D) Cholera
Q.43 Angiology is
(A) Study of Anxiety (B) Study of blood vessels
(C) Study of blood (D) Study of X-ray
.i n
Q.44 Allograft is
(B) Grafting in between the individuals of same species

n al
(A) Grafting in between the individuals of different species
(C) Heterograft
ur
(D) Isograft
o
Q.45 Now a days cornea transplant is very popular reason is that

uj
(A) Is easy to preserve (B) Is transplant very easily

Ed
(C) It can be easily obtained (D) Cornea is avascular.
Q.46 During deficiency of folic acid the number of leucocytes fall considerably and then the disease or
condition is called
(A) Leukaemia (B) Leucopenia
(C) Polycythemia (D) Tay-sac disease
Q.47 Vishuchika in Ayurveda is called

(A) Plague (B) Small pox (C) AIDS (D) Cholera
Q.48 Congenital diseases are

(A) Diseases present at birth (B) Deficiency diseases
(C) Spread from one individual to another (D) Occur during life
8.55
Q.49 Number of Barr body present in a female child with Down syndrome
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) All are correct
Q.50 Which is an autosomal chromosomal mutational disorder?

(A) Huntington chorea (B) Cri-du-chat
(C) Thalassemia (D) Jacob syndrome or super male
Q.51 Most common cause of mental retardation (Congenital in male children) is

(A) Jacob syndrome or super males (B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Patau’s syndrome (D) Phenyl ketonuria
n
Q.52 Which disorder is due to gene incompatibility?
.i
(A) Erythroblastosis foetalies (B) Jaundice
(C) Hemolytic disease of new born
n al
Q.53 Which disorder is due to 4th chromosomal abnormality?

ur
(A) Huntington chorea (B) Cri-du-chat or Cat-cry syndrome

(C) Tay-Sac disease (D) Achondroplasia
o
uj
Q.54 Thalassemia is due to

(A) Increased consumption of sea food
Ed
(B) Decreased synthesis of β-polypeptide chain of haemoglobin

(C) Decreased production of R.B.C that cause anemia
(D) All the above.
Q.55 Individuals with a karyotype of 45 chromosome 44 autosome and one sex chromosome have been
found to suffering from the abnormally called female dysgenesis or
(A) Down syndrome (B) Turner syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Testicular feminization.
Q.56 A person has long legs, female like appearance with breast (gynecomastia) and sterile will have one
of the genetic complement.
(A) XO (B) XXY (C) XXO (D) XXX
8.56
Q.57 Huntington chorea is a disease

(A) Which affects the kidney
(B) In which degeneration of nervous system leading to involuntary shaking of head, arms and legs
(C) Common in Korea
(D) Similar to diabetes
Q.58 Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in formation of

(A) Mucosa (C) Cartilage
(C) Membrane of joint (D) Bone
Q.59 Trisomic autosomal congenital disease is

(A) Criminal syndrome (B) Down’s syndrome
n
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Turner’s syndrome
.i
Q.60 Symptoms of Diphtheria is
(A) Gum bleeding
n al
(B) Fear of water
(C) Suffocation (D) Stomach ache
ur
Q.61 Which is an infectious disease?

o
(A) Coronary thrombosis (B) Diphtheria

uj
(C) Diabetes mellitus (D) Hypertension

Ed
Q.62 Diphtheria is connected with

(A) Lungs (B) Throat
(C) Blood (D) Liver
Q.63 Widal test is employed for detecting

(A) Yellow fever (B) Malaria
(C) Typhoid (D) Cholera
Q.64 Toxin produced by tetanus affects

(A) Voluntary muscles (B) Involuntary muscles
(C) Both voluntary and involuntary muscles (D) Jaw bones
8.57
Q.65 Syphilis a sexually transmitted disease is caused by

(A) Lephtospira (B) Vibrio
(C) Pasteurella (D) Treponema
Q.66 Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Dengue fever – Arbovirus (B) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(C) Syphilis – Trichuris trichura (D) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma
Q.67 ‘Lock Jaw’ is associated with

(A) Opisthotonus (B) Risus sardonicus
(C) Clostridium (D) All of these
n
Q.68 Which disease is caused by vector Xenopsylla cheopsis?
.i
(A) Plague (B) Black fever
(C) Yersinia pestis al
(D) All of these
n
Q.69 Multi Drug Therapy (M.D.T) is given in
ur
(A) Tetanus (B) Diphtheria

(C) Leprosy (D) All of these
o
uj
Q.70 Ciprofloxacin drug is ineffective in

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Chicken pox
Ed
(C) Pneumonia (D) Typhoid
Q.71 Mantoux test is done to detect.

(A) Leprosy (B) Typhoid (C) Tuberculosis (D) Diphtheria
Q.72 Tetanus affect

(A) Involuntary muscle (B) Voluntary muscle
(C) Lungs (D) Respiratory mucosa
Q.73 Schick test is associated with

(A) Bordetella pertussis (B) Chlamydia trochomatis
(C) Diplococcus pneumoniae (D) Cornebacterium diptheriae
8.58
Q.74 Causative agent of French pox (Syphilis)?

(A) Tryponema (B) Varicella
(C) H.I.V (D) Treponema pallidum
Q.75 Antibiotic used in tetanus is

(A) Erythromycin (B) Tetracycline
(C) Penicillin (D) Ciprofloxacin
Q.76 V.D.R.L test is done in
(A) Gonorrhoea (B) Diptheria
(C) Syphilis (D) A.I.D.S
Q.77 Bradycardia, high fever, anorexia, is found in
n
(A) Hepatitis – A (B) Kala – azar
.i
(C) Typhoid (D) A.I.D.S
al
n
Q.78 Causative agent of 100 days cough
ur
(A) Clostridium (B) Neisseria
(C) Bordetella (D) Corynebacterium
o
uj
Q.79 O.R.S is given in infection of

(A) Vibrio cholerae (B) Entamoeba histolytica
Ed
(C) Clostridium botulinum (D) All the above
Q.80 AIDS is caused by

(A) Fungus (B) Virus
(C) Bacteria (D) Helminth
Q.81 Which one is a viral disease?

(A) Syphilis (B) Rickets
(C) Measles (D) None of the above
Q.82 Jaundice a pathological disease of liver is commonly due to

(A) Bacterium (B) Virus
(C) Protozoan (D) Helminth
8.59
Q.83 Small pox and rabies are caused by

(A) Virus (B) Protozoan
(C) Bacterium (D) Nematode
Q.84 Which of the following is a viral disease?

(A) Tetanus (B) Dysentery
(C) Typhoid (D) None of the above
Q.85 Which of the following disease is spread by mosquito but not caused by virus?
(A) Dengue fever (B) Yellow fever
(C) Filariasis (D) Chicken pox
n
Q.86 Dengue fever is transmitted by
.i
(A) Aedes aegypti (Tiger mosquito) (B) Culex fatigaus
(C) Anopheles
n al
(D) Aedes donovoni
Q.87 Which is not a viral droplet infection?

ur
(A) Measles (B) Mumps

(C) Whooping cough (D) Influenza
o
uj
Q.88 Which safe vaccine is used in pulse polio programme ?

(A) Live vaccine (B) Killed vaccine
Ed
(C) Recombinant D.N.A vaccine (D) Third generation vaccine
Q.89 Most common cause of jaundice

(A) Yellow Fever (B) AIDS
(C) Hepatitis – A (D) Hepatitis – B
Q.90 Mumps affect which part of the body ?

(A) Parotid gland (B) Thyroid gland
(C) Testis (D) (A) and (C) is correct
Q.91 Tourniquet test is done in

(A) Diphtheria (B) Break bone fever (C) A.I.D.S (D) Hepatitis – A
8.60
Q.92 Dew drop like appearance on trunk is caused by which virus

(A) Corona virus (B) Myxo virus
(C) Varicella virus (D) Arbo virus
Q.93 Which disease is not transmitted through placenta

(A) Hepatitis –A (B) Hepatitis – B (C) A.I.D.S (D) Syphilis
Q.94 30 pregnant female A.I.D.S. patient are admit in female ward. Find out the probable number of
neonates (children) having the H.I.V. from these pregnant female
(A) 30 children (B) 20 Children (C) 10 children (D) 3 children
Q.95 Which of the following disease is eradicated from India

(A) Polio (B) Leprosy (C) Measles (D) Small pox
.i n
Q.96 Street virus affects
(A) Kidney (B) C.N.S
n al (C) Lungs (D) Eyes
Q.97 Arthritis is a disease of the inflammations of

ur
(A) Joint (B) Blood vessel (C) Brain (D) Intestine

o
Q.98 Myasthenia gravis due to

uj
(A) Interferon (B) Autoantibody (C) Antigen (D) Toxins

Ed
Q.99 The disease in which high level of uric acid in blood is characteristic is
(A) Arthritis (B) Rheumatism
(C) Gout (D) Rheumatic heart
Q.100 Which is not cancer?

(A) Leukaemia (B) Glaucoma (C) Carcinoma (D) Sarcoma
Q.101 Blood cancer is

(A) Leukemia (B) Thrombosis (C) Haemophilia (D) Haemolysis
Q.102 Which is carcinogen and pathogen?

(A) Mycobacterium (B) LAV (Lymphadenopathy Associated virus)
(C) Hepatitis – A virus (D) Cancero bacterium virus
8.61
Q.103 Radiation is a health hazard because it causes

(A) Haemophilia (B) Leucopenia
(C) Pneumonia (D) Leukaemia
Q.104 Which of the following is cancerous tumour?

(A) Benign tumour (B) Malignant Tumour
(C) Lipoma (D) All the above
Q.105 Most common type of tumour in the world (male) is

(A) Oral cancer (B) Breast cancer
(C) Blood cancer (D) Pulmonary cancer
n
Q.106 Causative factor of cancer is called
.i
(A) Oncogenes (B) Radiogens
(C) Estrogens
n al
(D) Carcinogens
Q.107 Treatment of cancer is

ur
(A) Surgery (B) Radiation (C) Chemotherapy (D) All of the above
o
Q.108 Nucleic acid in HIV

uj
(A) ss RNA (B) ds RNA (C) ss DNA (D) ds DNA

Ed
Q.109 Reason for trisomy in Down’s syndrome

(A) Non disjunction during sperm formation
(B) Non disjunction during egg formation
(C) Non disjunction at the time of egg or sperm formation
(D) Addition of one extra chromosome during mitosis
Q.110 Typhoid is caused by

(A) Rickettsia (B) Chlamydia
(C) Salmonella typhi (D) Mycobacterium
Q.111 HIV infects

(A) RBC (B) T- Helper cells (C) B – cells (D) Basophils
8.62
Q.112 Which of the following is an accurate pairing

(A) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (B) AIDS – Bacillus conjugalis
(C) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani (D) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae
Q.113 Mongolian idiots are due to trisomy in 21st chromosome is called

(A) Down’s syndrome (B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Triplex syndrome
Q.114 Salmonella is related with

(A) Typhoid (B) Polio
(C) T.B (D) Tetanus
n
Q.115 Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
.i
(A) Is caused by a variant of pneumococcus pneumonia
(C) Is an acute form of asthma

n al
(B) Is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (Corona virus)
(D) Affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians

ur
Q.116 Which of the following disease is 100% fatal with mode of transmission through infected animals?
o
(A) AIDS (B) Rabies

uj
(C) Tetanus (D) Hepatitis – B

Ed
Q.117 The bacterial disease cholera is accompanied by

(A) Peptic ulcers (B) Rapid loss of fluid from the intestine
(C) Infection of heart muscles (D) Rose spots
Q.118 AIDS is due to

(A) Reduction in number of helper T cells (B) Lack of interferon
(C) Reduction in number of killer T cells (D) Autoimmunity
Q.119 The best diagnosis of cancer is done by

(A) Biopsy (B) X-ray
(C) Microscopic examination of body fluids (D) Any of these
8.63
Q.120 Carcinoma is a cancer of

(A) Lymphocytes (B) Connective tissue
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Ectoderm and endoderm
Q.121 The disease pneumonia in humans which infects the alveoli of the lungs is caused by
(A) Plasmodium (B) Haemophilus influenzae
(C) Salmonella typhi (D) None of these
Q.122 Diphtheria is caused by

(A) Viruses (B) Eukaryotes
(C) Mycoplasma (D) Bacteria
Q.123 Which is not cancer?
n
(A) Leukemia (B) Trachoma
.i
(C) Carcinoma
n al
(D) Sarcoma
Q.124 HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material which is

ur
(A) ss-RNA (B) ds-RNA

(C) ds-DNA (D) ss-DNA
o
uj
Q.125 Turner’s syndrome is caused by

(A) Polyploidy (B) Autosomal aneuploidy
Ed
(C) Sex-chromosome aneuploidy (D) Trisomy
Q.126 Widal test is performed for

(A) Malaria fever (B) Cholera
(C) Typhoid fever (D) Dengue fever
Q.127 Klinefelter’s syndrome is denoted by chromosome

(A) 44 + XXY (B) 44 + XO
(C) 44 + XXX (D) 44 + YY
Q.128 Hepatitis – B is also called

(A) Epidermic jaundice (B) Serum jaundice
(C) Catarrhal jaundice (D) None of the above
8.64
Q.129 In India AIDS was reported in

(A) 1932 (B) 1986
(C) 1990 (D) 1992
Q.130 Plague is caused by

(A) Diplococcus pneumoniae (B) Yersinia pestis
(C) Corneybacterium diptheriae (D) All of the above
Q.131 Which of the following is correctly matched

(A) Anopheles – Malaria (B) House fly – Yellow fever
(C) Body louse – Typhoid (D) Sand fly – Plague
n
Q.132 Cancer cells are characterized by
.i
(A) Uncontrolled growth (B) Invasion of local tissue
(C) Spreading to other body parts
n al
(D) All of these
Q.133 The cause of Kala-azar disease is

ur
(A) Trypanosoma gambiense (B) Wuchereria bancrofti

(C) Leishmania donovani (D) Taenia solium
o
uj
Q.134 Which of the following group can be considered immune disorder?

(A) A.I.D.S and Cholera (B) S.C.I.D and Diphtheria
Ed
(C) S.C.I.D and A.I.D.S (D) Hepatitis and Leukemia
Q.135 Which of the following is a severe allergic reaction

(A) Hay fever (B) Asthma
(C) Anaphylactic shock (D) AIDS
Q.136 Autoimmunity against the synovial membrane at joint is called

(A) Multiple sclerosis (B) I.D.D.M
(C) Hashimoto disease (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Q.137 Cause of immunodeficiency is

(A) Mutation (B) Nutritional deficiency
(C) Infection of HTLV-III (D) All of these
8.65
Q.138 Which of the following is an air-borne disease

(A) A.I.D.S (B) Asthma
(C) Jacob syndrome (D) Thalassemia
Q.139 Euthanasia (mercy killing) was first legalized in

(A) Switzerland (B) Netherland
(C) France (D) Italy
Q.140 The disorders like Alkaptonuria and phenylketonuria are referred as

(A) Acquired disease (B) Infectious disease
(C) Congenital disease (D) All the above
Q.141 Allergy involves
.i n
(A) IgE (B) IgG
(C) IgA
n al
(D) IgM
Q.142 Fatty liver syndrome is due to

ur
(A) Infection by a virus (B) Intake of excessive fat

(C) Intake of excessive alcohol (D) Intake of tobacco through chewing
o
uj
Q.143 Emphysema is due to intake of

(A) Narcotics (B) Heroin
Ed
(C) Smoking (D) Opiates
Q.144 Tobacco chewing results in

(A) Mouth cancer (B) Lung cancer
(C) Bone cancer (D) Leukaemia
Q.145 In a drunk person, part of brain affected first is

(A) Cerebellum (B) Pons varolli
(C) Medulla oblongata (D) Cerebrum
Q.146 Opium is obtained from

(A) Thea sinensis (B) Coffea arabica
(C) Oryza sativa (D) Papaver somniferum
8.66
Q.147 Organ which is most affected by alcohol is

(A) Heart (B) Cerebrum
(C) Liver (D) Cerebellum
Q.148 Marijuana, Ganja, and LSD are

(A) Narcotics (B) Hallucinogens
(C) Stimulants (D) All the above
Q.149 Caffeine, amphetamine and cocaine are

(A) Sedative (B) Tranquillisers
(C) Hallucinogens (D) Stimulants
n
Q.150 Which of the following is a mental disorder
.i
(A) Tetanus (B) Neurosis
(C) Drug dependence
n al
(D) Alcoholism
Q.151 Effects of nicotine on human body include

ur
(A) Release of adrenaline and hence increased blood pressure and heart beat
(B) Stimulation of nerve impulse and muscle relaxation
o
(C) Decreased foetal growth

uj
(D) All the above

Ed
Q.152 In alcoholics liver gets damaged as it

(A) Accumulates excess of fats (B) Stores excess of glycogen
(C) Secretes more bile (D) Has to detoxify alcohol
Q.153 LSD is obtained from

(A) Cannabis (B) Claviceps
(C) Fusarium (D) Nostoc
Q.154 Addiction of tobacco is due to

(A) Histamine (B) Nicotine
(C) Cocaine (D) Caffeine
8.67
Q.155 Which one is a hallucinogen

(A) LSD (B) Heroin
(C) Morphine (D) Cocaine
Q.156 A factor responsible for cirrhosis of liver is

(A) Vitamins (B) Fats and oils
(C) Alcoholism (D) Sugar
Q.157 Which of the following drug if taken with alcohol may have dangerous effects?
(A) Morphine (B) Opium
(C) Aspirin (D) None
n
Q.158 The drug that causes chronic psychosis and severe damage to C.N.S in
.i
(A) Hashish (B) Charas
(C) Marijuana (D) LSD
n al
Q.159 The mildest stimulant is
ur
(A) Amphetamines (B) Caffeine

(C) Cocaine (D) Charas
o
uj
Q.160 The stimulant present in tea, cocoa and cola drink

(A) Cocaine (B) Tannin
Ed
(C) Opium (D) Caffeine
Q.161 The carcinogenic ingredient of tobacco smoke is

(A) Nicotine (B) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Tar
Q.162 The drug which relieves intense pain is

(A) Hallucinogens (B) Opiates
(C) Stimulants (D) Sedative
Q.163 Opium derivative is/are

(A) Morphine (B) Codeine
(C) Heroin (D) All of these
8.68
Q.164 Which of the following is not a mental disorder?

(A) Gout (B) Epilepsy
(C) Neurosis (D) Psychosis
Q.165 Tobacco smoke contain

(A) CO2, tar, nicotine
(B) Nicotine, CO, polycyclic aromatic compound and tar
(C) Nicotine and CO
(D) Nicotine and tar
Q.166 A useful drug that damages gastric mucosa, if taken along with alcohol is
(A) Antihistamine (B) Morphine
n
(C) Aspirin (D) Valium
.i
Q.167 Cannabis sativa (Hemp) yields
(A) Bhang
n al
(B) Charas
(C) Ganja (D) All of these
ur
Q.168 Alcoholism leads to

o
(A) Amnesia (B) Lung-damage

uj
(C) Cancer (D) None of these

Ed
Q.169 Amphetamines are central nervous stimulants, barbiturates are

(A) CNS stimulants (B) No effect on CNS
(C) Hallucinogenic (D) CNS-depressant
Q.170 Addiction of smoking leads to

(A) Lung cancer (B) Bronchitis
(C) Emphysema (D) All of these
Q.171 In the liver alcohol is converted into which toxic substance

(A) Formic acid (B) Acetaldehyde
(C) Nicotine (D) Urea
8.69
Q.172 Which of the following is related to tobacco addiction?

(A) Gastric and duodenal ulcers (B) Bronchitis
(C) Emphysema (D) All the above
Q.173 Effects of alcohol on human body includes

(A) Reduced blood sugar level (B) Fatty liver syndrome
(C) Amnesia (D) All the above
Q.174 Most potent hallucinogenic drug is

(A) Charas (B) Bhang
(C) Hashish (D) LSD
n
Q.175 Which one is a sedative drug
.i
(A) Amphetamines (B) LSD
(C) Barbiturates
n al
(D) Bhang
Q.176 Tobacco smoking commonly produces

ur
(A) Blood cancer (B) Lung cancer

(C) Cancer of pancreas (D) Bone cancer
o
uj
Q.177 Opiates narcotics are

(A) Morphine, codeine, heroine (B) Morphine, barbiturates, caffeine
Ed
(C) Codeine, heroin, cocaine (D) Cocaine, caffeine, codeine
Q.178 Cocaine is derived from

(A) Erythroxylon coca (B) Coffea arabica
(C) Thea sinesis (D) Cannabis sativa
Q.179 The most highly addictive of the drugs is

(A) Heroin (B) LSD
(C) Alcohol (D) Barbiturates
Q.180 Which is synthetic stimulant

(A) Cocaine (B) Amphetamine
(C) LSD (D) Mescaline
8.70
Q.181 Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation
and, drowsiness?
(A) Hashish (B) Morphine (C) Amphetamines (D) Valium
Q.182 A young drug addict used to show symptoms of depressed brain activity, feeling of calmness,
relaxation and drowsiness. Possibly he was taking
(A) Amphetamine (B) Marijuana
(C) Pethidine (D) Valium
Q.183 A person who shows unpredictable moods outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts
with other is suffering from
(A) Borderline personality disorder (BPD) (B) Mood disorder
(C) Addictive disorder (D) Schizophrenia
.i n
Q.184 Food poisoning (botulism) is caused by the Infection of a species of
(A) Azatobacter (B) Clostridium
n al
(C) Lactobacillus (D) Rhizobiurn
Q.185 Which of the following is equivalent to madness

ur
(A) Neurosis (B) Psychosis

o
(C) Epilepsy (D) All of these

uj
Q.186 Who asserted that health as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of certain humors
Ed
(A) Hippocrates (B) Indian Ayurveda system of medicine

(C) William Harvey (D) (A) and (B) Both
Q.187 Who stated that mind influences through neural system and endocrine system, our immune system
and that our immune system maintains our health?
(A) Chemistry (B) Biology
(C) Physiology (D) Genetics
Q.188 Health is affected by

(A) Genetic disorders – deficiencies (B) Infections
(C) Life style (D) All of these
8.71
Q.189 Mark incorrect about healthy person

(1) More efficient (2) High productivity
(3) Longevity of people (4) Increases infant and material mortality
(A) (1) and (2) (B) Only (4)
(C) (3) and (4) (D) All the correct
Q.190 Who disproved the ‘’good humor hypothesis’’ of health using thermometer to demonstrate normal
body temperature in person with blackbile?
(A) Hippocrates (B) Indian Ayurveda system of medicine
(C) William Harvey (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.191 Mark the correct statement
n
(1) Yoga has been practised to achieve physical and mental health
.i
(2) Infectious diseases are very common and everyone of us suffers from these at some time or other
(3) AIDS is an infectious disease
(4) Cancer is non-infectious disease
n al
(5) Healthy persons bring economic prosperity
ur
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5

o
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

uj
Q.192 Skin and mucus coating form…. barriers of innate immunity

Ed
(A) Physiological (B) Physical (C) Cellular (D) Cytokine
Q.193 N.K cells are types of

(A) Erythrocytes (B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes (D) Monocytes
Q.194 Mucosa is the lining of

(A) Respiratory tract (B) Urogenital tract
(C) GIT (D) All of these
Q.195 Anamnestic response is immune response

(A) Primary (B) Secondary
(C) Booster (D) Both (B) and (C)
8.72
Q.196 Consider the following four statement (I-IV) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct
ones out of these
(I) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppressants for a long time.
(II) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection
(III) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft
(IV) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.
(A) II and III (B) III and IV (C) I and III (D) I and II
Q.197 The letter ‘T’ and T-lymphocyte refers to

(A) Thyroids (B) Thalamus (C) Tonsil (D) Thymus
Q.198 Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from
n
(A) Allergy (B) Nausea (C) Cough (D) Headache
.i
Q.199 Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
al
(A) Ringworm, AIDS (B) Common cold, AIDS
n
(C) Dysentery, common cold (D) Typhoid, tuberculosis
ur
Q.200 To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the
o
eyes, belong?
uj
(A) Cytokine (B) Cellular (C) Physiological (D) Physical

Ed
Q.201 Which is safe technique to detect cancer?

(A) Radiography (B) CT (Computed tomography) scanning
(C) MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) (D) Biopsy
Q.202 Most cancers are treated by combination of

(1) Surgery
(2) Radiotherapy
(3) Chemotherapy
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
8.73
Q.203 Cancer detection is based on

(1) Biopsy
(2) Histopathological studies of tissues
(3) Blood test
(4) Bone marrow test
(A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.204 Which radiations cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation?

(1) Ionising radiations (2) X-rays
(3) Non-ionising radiations (4) UV –rays
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
n
Q.205 Plasmodium enters the human body as
.i
(A) Female anopheles mosquito (B) Sporozoites
al
(C) Trophozoite (D) Haemozoin
n
ur
Q.206 Toxin which is responsible for chill and high fever during malaria
(A) Haematin (B) Haemoglobin
o
(C) Haemozoin (D) Haem

uj
Q.207 Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica or amoebiasis is

Ed
(1) Parasite of small intestine

(2) Causes dysentery
(3) Houseflies are mechanical carriers
(4) Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramps
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 1, 3 (D) All are correct
Q.208 C-onc are

(A) Cellular oncogenes (B) Viral oncogenes
(C) Proto-oncogenes (D) Both (A) and (C)
Q.209 Haemophilus influenza cause

(A) Typhoid (B) Plague (C) Pneumonia (D) Influenza
8.74
Q.210 Widal test is done for

(A) Typhoid (B) Typhoid Mary
(C) Mary Mallon (D) All of these
Q.211 Match the column with regards to vector disease

Column I Column II
p. Culex i. Dengue
q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis
r. Aedes iii. Malaria
(A) P – i, q – ii, r – iii (B) p – ii, q – iii, r – i
(C) p – ii, q – I, r – iii (D) p – I, q – iii, r – ii
n
Q.212 House flies are mechanical carriers of
.i
(A) Amoebiasis
(C) Common cold
n al
(B) Malaria
(D) Plague
ur

Column I Column II
o
a. Peyer’s patches i. Aedes

uj
b. Rheumatoid arthritis ii. Neoplastic transformation

Ed
c. IgA iii. Cancer treatment

d. Interferon iv. Allergy
e. Gambusia v. Secondary lymphoid organ
f. Chikungunya vi. Metastasis
g. Tetanus vii. Colostrum
h. IgE viii. Autoimmunity
i. Malignant tumor ix. Antitoxin
j. Carcinogen x. Mosquito larvae
(A) A-(v), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x), F-(i), G-(ix), H-(iv), I-(vi), J-(ii)
(B) A-(vi), B-(vii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x), F-(ii), G-(ix), H-(iv), J-(iii)
(C) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(x), F-(i), G-(ix), H-(v), I-(vi), J-(ii)
(D) A-(x), B-(viii), C-(vii), D-(iii), E-(v), F-(i), G-(ix), H-(iv), I-(vi), J-(ii)
8.75
Q.214 Match the following

Column A Column B
I. Allergy i. Typhoid fever
II. T-helper cells ii. Single stranded RNA
III. Hallucinogens iii. Wuchereria
IV. Liver iv. IgE
V. Widal test v. Cirrhosis
VI. Filariasis vi. Atropa belladonna
VII. ELISA test vii. Activation of B-cells
VIII. AIDS virus viii. Carcinogens
IX. Treatment of cancer ix. AIDS
X. X-rays x. Immunotherapy
(A) I-(iv), II-(vi), III-(viii), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(vii)
n
(B) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(ii), IX-(x), X-(viii)
.i
al
(C) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(v), IV-(ii), V-(i), VI-(iii), VII-(ix), VIII-(vi), IX-(x), X-(viii)
(D) I-(iv), II-(vii), III-(vi), IV-(v), V-(i), VI-(ix), VII-(x), VIII-(ii), IX-(iii), X-(viii)
n
ur
Q.215 The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioid, cannabinoids and coca alkaloid, Majority of
these are obtained from… while some are obtained from…
o
(A) Fungi, non-flowering plants (B) Flowering plants, fungi

uj
(C) Fungi flowering plants (D) Non flowering plants, fungi

Ed
Q.216 Which of the options matches the descriptions?

(a) Smack (b) Diacetylmorphine (c) White (d) Odourless (e) Bitter crystalline compound
(f) Extracted from latex of poppy plant above statement/information is correct for
(A) Morphine (B) Heroin (C) Cocaine (D) Barbiturates
Q.217 Diagram is showing, skeletal structure of

(A) Morphine molecule (B) Cannabinoid molecule
(C) Opioids molecule (D) Coca alkaloid
Q.218 Which of the following is not associated with Narcotic drugs?

(A) Leaves of Cannabis sativa (B) Opium poppy
(C) Flowing branch of Datura (D) Pisum sativum
8.76
Q.219 Which of the following is associated with Narcotic drugs

(A) C. elegans (B) Mangifera indica
(C) Erythroxylum coca (D) Ficus religiosa
Q.220 The period between… of age may be thought of as adolescence period

(A) 18-21 yrs (B) 12-21 yrs (C) 12-18 yrs (D) 18-25 yrs
Q.221 Which disorder is not related with smoking

(a) Lung cancer
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Emphysema
n
(d) Coronary heart disease
.i
(e) Gastric ulcer
(f) Urinary bladder cancer
n al
(g) Throat cancer
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(A) a, b, e, g (B) a, b, c, f, g (C) c, d, f (D) None of these
Q.222 Which measure would be particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse
o
among adolescents?
uj
(a) Avoid undue peer pressure

Ed
(b) Seeking professional and medical help

(c) Looking for danger sign
(d) Education and counselling
(e) Seeking help from parents and peers
(A) a, b, d (B) a, c, d, e (C) c, e (D) a, b, c, d, e
Q.223 Diagram is showing chemical structure of Morphine, which is a natural

opiate like codeine, Morphine is a strong analgesic, also has sedative and
calming effect. It depresses respiratory centre, BP, heartbeat. Constipation
is a prominent feature of morphine action. How many ester linkage are
present in a morphine molecule?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) Absent
8.77
Q.224 The given diagram is showing skeletal structure of cannabinoid molecule. Cannabinoids interact with
cannabinoid receptors present principally in the brain. Natural cannabinoids are obtained from inflorescences
of the plant Cannabis sativa. Nature of cannabinoids is
(A) Aliphatic (B) Phenolic (C) Ketonic (D) Ether
Q.225 Opioids are the drugs which bind to specific opioid receptors present in out CNS and GIT. Heroin,
commonly called smack is chemically …… which is white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound, obtained
by …… of morphine?
n
(A) Diacetylmorphine, methylation (B) Diacetylmorphine, acetylation
.i
(C) Benzodiazepines, amination (D) Amphetamines, acetylation
al
Q.226 Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native of
n
(A) Soutica (B) Africa (C) Australia (D) China
ur
Q.227 Cocaine interferes with transport of

o
(A) GABA (B) Acetylcholine (C) Dopamine (D) Glutamate

uj
Q.228 Tobacco is
Ed
(A) Smoked (B) Chewed (C) Used as a snuff (D) All of these
Q.229 Nicotine
(A) Stimulates adrenal gland (B) An alkaloid
(C) is present in tobacco (D) All of these
8.78

Q.1 Who discovered vaccine against small pox? (NCERT 90)
(A) Fleming (B) Pasteur (C) Koch (D) Jenner
Q.2 Head quarter of World Health Organisation (AIPMT – 88)

(A) New York (B) Geneva (C) London (D) Paris
Q.3 Penicillin was discovered by (AIPMT 88)

(A) Fleming (B) Waksman (C) Burkholder (D) Dubois
Q.4 Surgical removal of thymus of a new born shall result in failure to produce (CPMT 93)
(A) Monocytes (B) B-lymphocytes (C) T- lymphocytes (D) Basophils
n
Q.5 During injury mast cells secrete (AIPMT 99)
.i
(A) Histamine (B) Heparin (C) Prothrombin
al (D) Antibodies
Q.6 Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test tube, this indicates (AIPMT 99)
n
ur
(A) Antibodies are present in plasma (B) Antigens are present on R.B.C
(C) Antigens are present in plasma (D) Antibodies are present on R.B.C
o
Q.7 The treatment of snake-bite by antivenin is an example of (AIIMS 2004)

uj
(A) Artificially acquired active immunity (B) Naturally acquired passive immunity
Ed
(C) Naturally acquired passive immunity (D) Specific natural immunity
Q.8 An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as
(AIIMS 2005)
(A) Histamine and dopamine (B) Histamine and kinins
(C) Interferons and opsonins (D) Interferons and histones
Q.9 Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between (AIIMS 2005)

(A) Two light chains
(B) Two heavy chains
(C) One heavy and one light chain
(D) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature
of antigen.
8.79
Q.10 The vaccination for which one of the following diseases is not covered in the immunization schedule
so far (AIIMS 2006)
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Diphtheria (C) Measles (D) Pneumonia
Q.11 Antibodies in out body are complex (AIPMT 2006)

(A) Prostaglandins (B) Glycoproteins (C) Lipoproteins (D) Steroids
Q.12 The most active phagocytic white blood cells are (AIPMT 2008)
(A) Lymphocytes and macrophages (B) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
(C) Neutrophils and monocytes (D) Neutrophils and eosinophils
Q.13 To which type of barriers under innate immunity, to the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes,
belong? (AIPMT 2008)
n
(A) Cellular barriers (B) Physiological barriers
.i
(C) Physical barriers (D) Cytokine barriers
Q.14 Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting

n al (Uttaranchal PMT 2004)
(A) Antibodies (B) Antigen (C) Antibiotic (D) Vaccination
ur
Q.15 Interferons are useful in controlling (C.G PMT 2004)

o
(A) TB (B) Cancer (C) Malaria (D) Blood Pressure

uj
Q.16 Immunoglobulins found in serum is (Jharkhand 2004)

Ed
(A) IgM (B) IgA (C) IgN (D) IgG
Q.17 DPT provide immunity against (Bihar 2003)

(A) Diphtheria (B) Whooping cough (C) Tetanus (D) all of these
Q.18 The vaccine of Hepatitis B is a (MP-CPMT 2003)

(A) First generation vaccine
(B) Interferon
(C) Second generation vaccine
(D) Third generation vaccine
8.80
Q.19 What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals (AIPMT 2003)

(A) There are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells helper T – cells and suppressor T –cells
(B) These originate in lymphoid tissue
(C) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(D) These are produced in thyroid
Q.20 Molecular weight of IgG antibody is (RPMT 2000)

(A) 146000 (B) 160000 (C) 190000 (D) 200000
Q.21 Antibodies are the macromolecule of (RPMT 2004)

(A) Fats (B) Protein (C) Carbohydrate (D) Nucleic acid
n
Q.22 Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because (AIPMT 2008)
.i
(A) It has no blood supply (B) It is composed of enucleated cells
(C) It is a non-living layer
al
(D) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
n
Q.23 Genes involved in cancer are - (MPPMT 93)
ur
(A) Cancer genes (B) Oncogenes (C) Tumour gene (D) Regulator genes
o
Q.24 Causative agent of TB is (RPMT 95, MPPMT 94)

uj
(A) Salmonella (B) Streptococcus (C) Mycobacterium (D) Pneumococcus

Ed
Q.25 Which of the following is not correctly matched (AIPMT 95)

(A) Dengue fever – Arbovirus (B) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(C) Syphilis – Trichuris trichura (D) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma
Q.26 Mumps is viral diseases that causes inflammation of (AIPMT 92)

(A) Parotid gland (B) Sublingual glands
(C) Submaxillary gland (D) Infra orbital gland
Q.27 In Polio the legs get paralysed and atrophied due to (AIPMT 92)
(A) Obstruction of muscles (B) Degeneration of bones
(C) Death of some muscles (D) Shrinkage of muscles
8.81
Q.28 Chicken pox is caused by (AIPMT 92)

(A) Varicella virus (B) Adeno virus
(C) Bacteriophage T2 (D) S.V. 40 Virus
Q.29 AIDS Virus has (MPPMT 94)

(A) Single strand DNA (B) Double strand DNA
(C) Single strand RNA (D) Double strand RNA
Q.30 Sarcoma is cancer of (AIPMT 94)

(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Mesodermal tissue
(C) Blood (D) Endodermal tissue
n
Q.31 Which of the following is the most infectious disease (AIPMT 2001)
.i
(A)) Hepatitis – B (B) AIDS
(C) Allergic cough and cold
n al
(D) Malaria
Q.32 Sickle cell anaemia is due to (AIPMT 2001)

ur
(A) Change of Amino Acid in α – chain of haemoglobin

o
(B) Change of Amino Acid to β – chain of Haemoglobin

uj
(c) Change of Amino Acid in both α and β chain of Haemoglobin

(D) Change of Amino acid either α or β chains of haemoglobin
Ed
Q.33 Which of the following is correct match? (AIPMT 2002)

(A) Down syndrome = 21st Chromosome
(B) Sickle cell anaemia = X – Chromosome
(C) Haemophilia = Y – Chromosome
(D) Parkinson Disease = X and Y chromosome
Q.34 Which of the following is used in the treatment of Thyroid cancer - (AIPMT 2002)
(A) 1131 (B) U238 (C) Ra224 (D) C14
Q.35 Stool of a person contain whitish grey colour due to malfunction of which type of organ (AIPMT 2002)
(A) pancreas (B) Spleen (C) Kidney (D) Liver
8.82
Q.36 Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to (AIPMT 2002)
(A) Rapid cell division (B) Lack of nutrition (C) Fast mutation (D) Lack of oxygen
Q.37 Which of the following is the example of sex linked disease (AIPMT 2002)
(A) AIDS (B) Colour blindness (C) Syphilis (D) Gonorrhoea
Q.38 Carcinoma refers to (AIPMT 2003)

(A) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(B) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(C) Malignant tumours of the colon
(D) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
n
Q.39 Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from a
mosquito borne infectious disease (AIPMT 2003)
.i
(A) Thalassaemia (B) Sickle cell anaemia
al
(C) Pernicious anaemia (D) Leukemia
n
ur
Q.40 Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are
(AIPMT 2004)
o
(A) Undergoing rapid division (B) Different in structure

uj
(C) Non-dividing (D) Starved of mutation

Ed
Q.41 A women with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by

(AIPMT 2005)
(A) Turner syndrome (B) Triploidy
(C) Down syndrome (D) Super femaleness
Q.42 G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis or (AIPMT 2005)

(A) Leucocytes (B) Lymphocytes (C) Platelets (D) RBCs
Q.43 AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects (AIPMT 2005)

(A) All lymphocytes (B) Activator B cells (C) T-4 lymphocytes (D) Cytotoxic T cells
Q.44 The disease, Tetanus also knows as (AIIMS 2003)

(A) Gangrene (B) Shingles (C) Lockjaw (D) Whooping cough
8.83
Q.45 The ‘’cri-du-chat’’ syndrome in caused by change in chromosome structure involving (AIIMS 2005)
(A) Deletion (B) Duplication (C) Inversion (D) Translocation
Q.46 A very much publicized treatment method ‘’DOTS’’ is being adopted for the cure of (AIIMS 2006)
(A) Bimentia (B) Tetanus
(C) Tuberculosis (D) Sexually transmitted disease.
Q.47 Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the (AIPMT 2006)

(A) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(B) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
(C) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
(D) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
.i n
Q.48 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying (AIPMT 2006)
(A) Thrombocytes
(C) B-lymphocytes
n al
(B) Helper T-lymphocytes
(D) Leucocytes
ur
Q.49 Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington’s chorea are (AIPMT 2006)
(A) Pollutant induces disorders (B) Virus related diseases
o
(C) Bacteria related diseases (D) Congenital disorders

uj
Q.50 Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from the African population immunity against malaria
Ed
(AIPMT 2006)
(A) It provides immunity against malaria (B) It is controlled by dominant genes
(C) It is controlled by recessive genes (D) It is not a fatal disease.
Q.51 Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/
linkage? (AIPMT 2008)
(A) Colour blindness – Y – linked
(B) Erythroblastosis foetalis – X linked
(C) Down syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO
(D) Klinefelter’s syndrome – 44 autosomes + XXY
8.84
Q.52 match the disease in column – I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in
(AIPMT 2008)
Column I Column II
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
(b) Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
(d) Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
(A) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii) (B) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(C) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i) (D) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
Q.53 Hela cells used in cell biology are (MP CPMT 2007)
n
(A) Cancerous cells used in cancer research laboratory
.i
(B) Cervical cancer cell derivatives
n al
(D) None of these
ur
Q.54 Immune deficiency syndrome could develop due to (AIIMS 92)

o
(A) Enteric fever (B) Defective thymus

uj
(C) AIDS virus (D) Defective bone

Ed
Q.55 Opium is got from (RPMT 95)

(A) Leaves (B) Fruits (C) Flowers (D) Roots
Q.56 Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug
specified? (AIPMT 2008)
(A) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(B) Morphine leads to delusions and disrobed emotion
(C) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(D) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
Q.57 Which of the following stimulates the heart? (MP CPMT 2006)
(A) LSD (B) Hashish (C) Mescaline (D) Epinephrine
8.85
Q.58 In alcoholics liver gets damaged as it (AIIMS 85)

(A) Accumulates excess of fats (B) Stores excess oflycogen
(C) Secretes more bile (D) Has to detoxify alcohol
Q.59 L.S.D is (AIPMT 2001)

(A) Hallucinogenic (B) Sedative (C) Stimulant (D) Tranquiliser
Q.60 The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by (NEET 2013)
(A) Thrombocytes (B) Erythrocytes
(C) T-lymphocytes (D) B-lymphocytes
.i n
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o ur
uj
Ed
8.86
ANSWER KEY
Objective Type
Q.1 D Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 C Q.5 D Q.6 B
Q.7 B Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 D Q.12 B
Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 B Q.18 B
Q.19 B Q.20 D Q.21 D Q.22 B Q.23 B Q.24 C
Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 D Q.29 C Q.30 D
Q.31 C Q.32 C Q.33 A Q.34 C Q.35 D Q.36 A
n
Q.37 C Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 B Q.41 B Q.42 A
.i
Q.43 B Q.44 B Q.45 D Q.46 B Q.47 D Q.48 A
Q.49 B Q.50 B Q.51 B al
Q.52 D
n
Q.53 A Q.54 B
Q.55 B Q.56 B Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 B Q.60 C
ur
Q.61 B Q.62 B Q.63 C Q.64 A Q.65 D Q.66 C
Q.67 D Q.68 A Q.69 C Q.70 B Q.71 C Q.72 B
o
Q.73 D Q.74 D Q.75 C Q.76 C Q.77 C Q.78 C

uj
Q.79 D Q.80 B Q.81 C Q.82 B Q.83 A Q.84 D

Ed
Q.85 C Q.86 A Q.87 C Q.88 A Q.89 C Q.90 D

Q.91 B Q.92 C Q.93 A Q.94 C Q.95 D Q.96 B
Q.97 A Q.98 B Q.99 C Q.100 B Q.101 A Q.102 B
Q.103 D Q.104 B Q.105 D Q.106 D Q.107 D Q.108 A
Q.109 C Q.110 C Q.111 B Q.112 A Q.113 A Q.114 A
Q.115 B Q.116 B Q.117 B Q.118 A Q.119 A Q.120 D
Q.121 B Q.122 D Q.123 B Q.124 A Q.125 C Q.126 C
Q.127 A Q.128 B Q.129 B Q.130 B Q.131 A Q.132 D
Q.133 C Q.134 C Q.135 C Q.136 D Q.137 D Q.138 B
Q.139 B Q.140 C Q.141 A Q.142 C Q.143 A Q.144 D
Q.145 D Q.146 C Q.147 B Q.148 D Q.149 B Q.150 D
8.87
Q.151 A Q.152 B Q.153 B Q.154 A Q.155 C Q.156 C

Q.157 D Q.158 B Q.159 D Q.160 B Q.161 B Q.162 D
Q.163 A Q.164 B Q.165 C Q.166 D Q.167 A Q.168 D
Q.169 D Q.170 B Q.171 D Q.172 D Q.173 D Q.174 C
Q.175 B Q.176 A Q.177 A Q.178 A Q.179 D Q.180 A
Q.181 B Q.182 A Q.183 D Q.184 B Q.185 D Q.186 D
Q.187 B Q.188 D Q.189 B Q.190 C Q.191 D Q.192 B
Q.193 C Q.194 D Q.195 B Q.196 D Q.197 D Q.198 A
Q.199 B Q.200 C Q.201 C Q.202 D Q.203 D Q.204 D
Q.205 B Q.206 C Q.207 A Q.208 D Q.209 C Q.210 D
Q.211 B Q.212 A Q.213 A Q.214 B Q.215 B Q.216 B
n
Q.217 B Q.218 D Q.219 C Q.220 C Q.221 D Q.222 D
.i
Q.223 A
Q.229 D
Q.224 B Q.225 B al
Q.226 A
n Q.227 C Q.228 D
ur

o
Q.1 D Q.2 B Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 A Q.6 B

uj
Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 C

Ed
Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 B Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 C

Q.19 A Q.20 A Q.21 B Q.22 A Q.23 B Q.24 C
Q.25 C Q.26 A Q.27 C Q.28 A Q.29 C Q.30 B
Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 A Q.34 A Q.35 D Q.36 A
Q.37 B Q.38 B Q.39 B Q.40 A Q.41 C Q.42 D
Q.43 C Q.44 C Q.45 A Q.46 C Q.47 D Q.48 B
Q.49 D Q.50 A Q.51 D Q.52 C Q.53 C Q.54 C
Q.55 C Q.56 A Q.57 C Q.58 D Q.59 D Q.60 C
BIOLOGY
XII STD |VOL.III|Unit 3
.i n
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Strategies for Enhancement

in Food Production
o
uj
Ed
9.1
CHAPTER 9
STRATEGIES FOR
ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD
n
PRODUCTION
.i
n al
1. Introduction
Topics Discussed
ur
yy Man has grown crops and reared animals for

Introduction his benefit since times immemorial.
o
Animal Husbandry, Poultry Farming, yy In some cases this has eased the life of
uj
the humans while in some cases it was an

Apiculture and Fisheries absolute necessity.
Ed
Animal Diseases yy It should be noted that the initial activities

Plant Breeding in this direction did not lay much focus on
‘increasing the yield’. They were focused on
Biofortification ‘getting the yield’.
Single Cell Protein yy The population of the world has greatly
Tissue Culture increased in the last few centuries.
Plant Diseases yy The quality and quantity of goods required/
demanded by this population has also risen
steeply.
yy To meet these demands it is necessary to
develop and implement technologies and
practices that will maximize the yield from the
existing resources.
9.2
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
Objectives
yy To learn about the concept and various types of animal husbandry.
yy To learn about animal diseases and some approaches to cure and prevent them.
yy To learn about the use of genetics to develop newer more useful varieties of existing plants/animals.
yy To learn about the techniques of plant tissue culture.
yy To learn about plant diseases.
2. Animal Husbandry
yy It is the rearing of animals by man for profit.
yy Commonly reared animals include livestock like cows, buffaloes, pigs, horses, cattle, sheep, camels,
n
goats, etc. it also includes poultry farming and fishery.
.i
yy Fisheries include rearing, catching and selling of fish, molluscs and crustaceans (prawns, crabs, etc.).
yy
n al
Estimates predict that more than 70 per cent of the world’s livestock population is in India and China.
yy However, their contribution to the world’s produce is only 25 per cent
ur
yy Thus the productivity per unit is very low.

yy Hence, it is essential to think about the adoption usage of new technologies and practices to improve
o
the yield and profitability.

uj
Ed
Did You Know

? The term ‘husbandry’ is related to the word ‘husband’ meaning the one who takes care.
Livestock
yy Livestock are domesticated animals raised in an agricultural setting to produce commodities such as
food, fiber and labor.
yy E.g. Cattle, buffaloes, sheep, goat, pigs, horses, camel etc.
Important Factors Necessary to Enhance the Yield from Animals

yy Suitable breed.
yy Clean shelter.
9.3
yy Good quality of appropriate food.

yy Vaccination and other relevant medical care
2.1 Animal Breeding

yy Breeding is important from the point of view of increasing the output from animals.
yy It allows the breeder to have animals with a desired set of characteristics.
Inbreeding
yy It is breeding between animals of the same breed.
yy It is the mating of closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations.
yy The cow or buffalo that yields more milk per lactation is called a superior female. Whereas the bull
which gives rise to superior progeny as compared to those of other males is called a superior male.
n
Superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs.
.i
yy The progeny obtained are evaluated and superior males and females among them are marked for
further mating.
n al
yy Inbreeding increases homozygosity. It is thus used for generating pure lines.
ur
yy Inbreeding tends to expose harmful recessive genes. The organisms with these genes can then be
taken out of the breeding program.
o
yy Thus inbreeding can help to increase the productivity.

uj
yy In some cases continued inbreeding, (especially between closely related individuals) reduces fertility
and even productivity. This is called Inbreeding depression.
Ed
yy As remedy for this is to allow mating with unrelated superior animals of the same breed.
Out-Breeding
yy The breeding of the unrelated animals, which may be between individuals of the same breed having no
common ancestors or of different breeds or of different species is called out-breeding.
a. Out-Crossing
The practice of mating of animals having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to
4-6 generations within the same breed is called out-crossing. The offspring of such a mating is known
as an out-cross. A single outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression. It also improves milk
productivity and growth.
b. Cross-Breeding
Superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another. Cross-breeding allows the
desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined. The progeny hybrid animals may themselves
9.4
be used for commercial production. Alternatively, they may be subjected to some form of inbreeding
and selection to develop new stable breeds that may be superior to the existing breeds. Many new
animal breeds have been developed by this approach. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
c. Interspecific Hybridization
A male and female of two different species are mated. In some cases, the progeny may combine
desirable features of both the parents, and may be of considerable economic value, E.g., Mules
(Offspring of a male donkey and a female horse) are sturdier and hardier than their parental species.
2.2 Cows (Bos indicus) and Buffaloes (Bubalus)

Cattle like cows and buffaloes are widely used for-
yy Agricultural Operations
n
For pulling carts and wagons.
For agriculture operations like ploughing, harrowing, levelling etc.
.i
yy Milk al
Milk which is an important foodstuff is provided by the cattle.
n
ur
yy Transport
For driving carts for transportation.
o
yy Manure
uj
The dung excreted out by cattle can be used as manure.

Ed
yy Fuel
The dung can be used as fuel in the form of dung-cakes and for the production of biogas.
yy Leather
Their skin can be processed for use in manufacture of leather goods.
yy Glue and gelatin
Glue and gelatin can be obtained from their bones, horns and hoofs.
yy Meat
Meat from buffaloes is consumed by some people.
Breeds of Buffaloes
Bubalus bubalis is called water buffalo. Some of the common breeds in India are-
Jaffrabadi, Surti, Nagpuri (ellichpuri), Bandawari, Niliravi, Murrah, Mehsana.
9.5
Breeds of cows
Important breeds reared from the point of view of obtaining milk are Jersey, Holstein, Guernsey, Brown
Swiss, Red Dane, Ayrshire etc.
Feeding/Nutrition
yy To get optimum output, be it milk or be it physical labor, it is of utmost importance to provide the cattle with
food that contains appropriate proportions of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins minerals and water.
yy Feed has two main components- Roughage and Concentrate
Roughage has large amount of fibres. It includes silage (a form of fermented fodder) and hay fibre.
The concentrate is a mixture of rice polish, cereal broken grams, cotton seeds, gram bran and oil
cake moistened in water.
yy Low purity of fodder is responsible for the lesser milk production in India.
yy Productivity is also affected by underfeeding or overfeeding the cattle.
n
Breeding
.i
yy Hybrid cows tend to yield more milk and hybrid oxen may be stronger. Gestation (carrying of embryo/
yy The breeding of cattle is done by two methods

n al
fetus inside the body) period of cows is about 9 months and buffaloes is about 10 months.
a. Natural Breeding.
ur
b. Artificial breeding.
o
a. Natural Breeding
uj
In this type of breeding the male and the female actually mate with each other.
Ed
It is of two types-
1. Random Breeding
Some pedigree bulls are introduced in the herd. Bulls not selected for mating are castrated.
2. Controlled Breeding
The males and females are separated into different groups before attaining puberty. This ensures
undesirable mating. Superior quality bulls are then introduced into the herd and allowed to mate
with native cows. E.g. Jersey Sindhi breed, Ayrshire Sahiwal breed etc.
b. Artificial Breeding
Bull semen is introduced into the reproductive tracts of cows. Actual mating does not take place.
The advantage is that a single bull can be used to inseminate multiple cows. The semen may be
used immediately or can be frozen and used at a later date. It can also be transported in a frozen
form to where the female is housed. Sometimes a male from a non-related male is not accepted in
a herd and the female and/or male may not mate with each other naturally. These difficulties are
overcome by artificial breeding.
9.6
Cows are injected with FSH like hormones and induced to produce 6-8 ovaries instead of the
normal one. These cows are then mated/inseminated and the fertilized embryos are removed and
transplanted into other cows. The superior breed female which was earlier used can be used for
one more round of the above process after a short period of life.
2.3 Sheep (Ovis aries)

yy Sheep are reared for their wool and meat.
yy They live for about 13 years.
yy They feed on grass and herbs.
Breeding of Sheep
yy Sheep can engage in reproduction after two years of age.
yy Generally cross breeding is preferred.
n
Breeds
.i
yy Patanwadi provides wool for army hosiery
n al
yy Deccani and Nellore breeds are raised only for mutton.
yy Narwari yields coarse wool

o ur
Did You Know

uj
Some breeds of Indian sheep and their specialities

Ed
Table 9.1: Breeds of Indian Sheep

Breed Use
yy Lohi Milk, good quality wool
? yy Rampur-Bashair Superior cloth, Brown colour fleece

yy Nali Superior carpet wool
yy Bhakarwal Undercoat used for high quality Shawl
yy Deccani Mutton, no wool
yy Nellore Mutton, no wool
yy Narwari Coarse wool
yy Patanwadi Wool for army hosiery
9.7
2.4 Goat (Capra)

yy Goats feed on a variety of wild plants even prickly ones.
yy It also yields a little amount of milk.
yy It is also called poor man’s cow.
yy Goat skin was used as water and wine containers in historic times.
yy Goat skin was also used as parchment for writing.
Breeding of Goats
yy A male adult (bully goat) is bred with a female adult (nanny goat or doe).
yy The offspring are called kids.
n
Did You Know
.i
Some Indian goat breeds
al
Table 9.2: Breeds of Indian Goat
n
Some Goat Breeds Breeds Distribution
ur
1. Gaddi Himachal Pradesh
? 2. Kashmiri Pashmina Hills of Kashmir, Tibet, HP

o
3. Jamunapur UP,MP
uj
4. Beetal Punjab
Ed
5. Marwari Rajasthan
6. Besari Maharashtra
7. Malabari Kerla
8. Bengla Bihar, Orissa
2.5 Some Other Animals

Yak (Poephagus grunnies)
It is reared in mountainous regions for meat, wool, hide, milk, transport and tilling.
Pig (Sus)
yy Pig is the most economical source of meat for human beings. Its meat is called pork.
yy Pig fat is used as cooking medium and for preparation of soap.
9.8
yy Pig hide can be used for leather production

yy Pig hair can be used for making brushes.
yy Pigs are susceptible to extreme heat and cold. Domesticated pigs are also called swine.
yy Pigs can have an excellent sense of smell.
yy Some varieties of pigs are kept as pets while some are even hunted.
Feeding of Pigs
yy Non-domesticated pigs generally feed on garbage and kitchen waste.
yy As pigs can feed on human feces they can be carriers of tapeworms.
yy Domesticated pigs are fed with grass, soya meal etc. enhanced with some vitamins and other nutrients.
Breeding
Pig breeding has now started on commercial scale in India.
.i n
Indigenous pigs in India
Deshi, Gahori etc.
n al
Exotic Pigs
ur
Berkshire, Large white Yorkshire, Landrace etc.

o
Camels
uj
yy It is known as the ship of the desert.

Ed
yy Camels are commonly for transport in deserts.

yy Milk is also obtained from them.
yy Their hair is used to make bristles in brushes.
yy Camels have strongly adapted to ‘desert life’.
yy They can store food and water in their bodies in significant quantities and can survive without the same
for about 10 days.
Try It Yourself
1. Best source for dietary protein fora vegetarian is
(1) Soy Bean (2) Gram (3) Groundnut (4) Milk
2. The number of cattle breeds in India is
(1) 5 (2) 18 (3) 26 (4) 36
9.9
3. Poultry Farming
yy Poultry farming is the rearing of domesticated birds like fowl, chicken and ducks, turkey and geese.
yy Birds contain more protein compared to fats.
yy Eggs laid by some birds are also consumed.
yy Poultry farming requires less space and investment.
yy The birds are fed with cereals, millets oil cakes, fish and meat meal, minerals and green vegetables,
fish silage, protein concentrate etc.
3.1 Hens
yy One of the most common poultry animals is the hen.
yy It starts laying eggs after 6 months.
n
yy Indian hens lay about 60 eggs/year. The exotic breeds lay about 260/year.
.i
yy Birds raised for meat are called broilers.
3.2 Ducks
n al
yy Ducks are close relatives of swans and geese.
ur
yy They are reared for eggs and also are hunted.

o
yy They feed on some specific aquatic animals and plants.

uj
3.3 Common Diseases of Poultry

Ed
Some of the commonly occurring disease of poultry are as follows

yy Viral Diseases
Fowlpox, bird flu, bronchitis and Ranikhet (Newcastle) disease are common viral diseases of poultry.
yy Bacterial Diseases
Fowl cholera, pullorum, coryza, mycoplasmosis and spirochaetosis.
yy Fungal diseases
Aflatoxicosis, aspergillosis and thrush.
yy Parasitic diseases
Internal Parasites – Round worms, tapeworms and threadworms.
External parasites – Fowlmite, chickenmite, fleas, ticks etc.
9.10
Knowledge Builder
yy The Newcastle disease virus (NDV) can infect humans causing mild flu.
yy NDV has shown some tendency to preferentially infect tumor cells. Thus it is also used in
anti-cancer research.
yy Sometimes the best solution to some poultry diseases is to destroy the affected population.
Try It Yourself
1. What is poultry farming?
2. Name a few diseases of poultry.
.i n
4. Apiculture al
yy Maintenance of honey bee colonies in hives is called apiculture.
n
yy Apiculture can provide us with honey.
ur
yy Bees pollinate our crops (E.g. sunflower) and hence are beneficial for farmers too.
o
yy Bees are social animals and show division of labor in their colonies.
uj
yy Other products harvested from the beehive include royal jelly, beeswax, beeglue etc.
Ed
4.1 Important Species of Honey - Bees

yy Apis dorsata (Rock bee)
It is also named as saarang bee. It is large sized and produces large quantities of honey. But due to its
aggressiveness and migratory behavior, it is not suitable for apiculture.
yy Apis indica (Indian Mona-bee)
It yields about 3- 4 kg of honey per hive. It is not aggressive and hence is suitable for apiculture.
yy Apis florea (Bhiringa – bee)
It is small and timid but yields only 250 gm of honey per hive. Hence it is unsuitable for commercial
apiculture.
yy Apis mellifra (European bee)
It is mild and produces more honey than Mona-bee. Hence it is important from the point of view of
apiculture.
9.11
4.2 Types of Bees

1. Queen bee
i. It is about 1.5 cm to 2 cm long
ii. Its body is about three times larger and heavier than a worker bee.
iii. Its main function being reproduction, it lays 2000 eggs/day.
iv. It develops from fertilized egg and has 32 chromosomes.
v. It feeds on royal jelly.
2. Drone bees
i. Their main function is to fertilize the eggs.
ii. They develop from unfertilized eggs.
iii. They have only 16 chromosomes.
n
iv. There are around 100 drones in a hive.
.i
v. They are 0.7 cm to 1.5 cm long
3. Worker bees
n al
i. Their function is to collect nectar.
ur
ii. They have a pollen sac and modified sucking mouthparts.

o
iii. They are sterile females which develop from fertilized eggs.
uj
iv. They also have wax glands.

Ed
4.3 Modern Apiculture

yy Artificial hives are used so that the extracting of products becomes simpler.
yy Protective clothing is used to avoid stings. Experienced bee-keeps may not use gloves as they hinder
delicate manipulations.
yy Smokers are used as defense mechanisms. Smoke calms bees down and also masks the scent of their
signaling mechanisms.
4.4 Bee Keeping

yy It does not require high investment and is not labor intensive.
yy The location of an apiary should be near an orchard or a flower garden.
yy The person should possess a knowledge of what type of hive can suit the species of the bees he has
chosen for apiculture.
9.12
yy The person should be able to catch a swarm of bees and transfer them into the hive.
yy The person should also possess certain skills required to extract honey and other products from the hive.
Figure 9.1: Cells in an honey comb Figure 9.2: An artificial beehive
.i n
4.5 Life Processes of Honeybees
yy
n al
Queen bees lay 2,000 eggs per day which hatch in about 3 days.
yy From the 4th day, the babies are fed with honey and pollen by the worker bees.
ur
yy From the 7th day royal jelly is secreted by worker bees. Royal jelly is fed to larvae and adult queen bees.
yy Beeswax and beeglue/propolis are secreted from the 12th day. Propolis is used by the honey bees to
o
seal unwanted spaces by the bees.

uj
yy Drone bees develop from the unfertilised eggs.

Ed
yy Queen bee grows to adult from egg within about 15-16 days, a drone takes 24 days while a worker
takes 18-22 days to mature.
Honey Preparation by the bees
yy Worker bees collect nectar.
yy Nectar is acted upon by salivary and other enzymes.
yy A glucose fructose and pollen based substance is stored in the hive.
yy This substance is then fanned by bees to remove excess water. This end product is honey.
yy The removal of water makes honey less susceptible to the growth of micro-organisms.
Communication by Dance
yy Honey bees have colour vision.
yy They communicate about the direction and distance of the food source by means of certain dancing
movements.
9.13
yy Karl Von Frisch won the Noble Prize in Medicine in 1973 for his work on ‘sensory perceptions of honey
bees’.
yy Waggle dance is used to communicate that the food is far away from the hive.
yy Also, the sun is used as a reference for the directions.
yy Round dance is used to indicate the location of food sources closer to the hive.
yy The dances and their meanings vary from species to species like dialects of humans from different
regions.
4.6 Commercial Importance of Apiculture

1. Honey
i. It is of high nutritive value
ii. It has medicinal properties.
n
iii. Honey is fermented to produce a beverage called mead.
.i
Composition of Honey-
n al
iv. Honey was traditionally used as a preservative in some cultures.
yy Water - 17-20%
ur
yy Fructose - 40-45%
o
yy Glucose - 32.37%
uj
yy Sucrose - 12%
yy Enzymes and pigments - 2.21%

Ed
yy Ash - 1%
yy Vitamins - B1, B6, C and D

2. Bee Wax
yy It is used in cosmetics.
yy Used in shoe polish and furniture polish.
yy It is used in some surgeries.
3. Bee Glue/Propolis
yy It is used for manufacturing some music instruments (varnish for their wooden parts).
yy It is used in some chewing gums.
yy It is used in the manufacture of car wax.

9.14
4. Royal Jelly
yy It is used for the manufacture of some food preparations with high nutritive value.
yy However some researches show that consumption of royal jelly may not be highly beneficial to
humans.
Try It Yourself
1. What is royal jelly?
2. Name two species of bees that are suitable for apiculture.
5. Fisheries
A fishery is a group of individuals engaged in catching and/or rearing fishes.
.i n
5.1 Some Species of Fishes
Freshwater fishes
n al
Catla catla (Catla)
Labeo rohita (Rohu/Carp)
ur
Mystus seenghala (Singhara)

o
Cyprinus carpio (Common carp, Exotic species)

uj
Marine Fishes
Ed
Hilsa
Eleutheronema (Salmon)
Sardinella (Sardine)
Harpodon (Bombay duck)
5.2 Culturing of Fishes

yy The fish species which yield good quality and quantity of food are cultured in ponds.
yy Generally, more than one species is cultured in the same pond at the same time.
yy In India Catla, Rohu and Mrigala are stocked in a pond in the ratio 3:3:4.
yy This is termed as composite culturing. Understandably, the species should be compatible with each
other.
9.15
5.3 Important Factors Pertaining to Culturing of Fishes

yy A suitable site has to be selected for building a tank.
yy The tank should have appropriate dimensions to cater to the specific requirements of the species of
fish being reared in it.
yy The tank walls should be treated with lime to ensure that a conducive pH is maintained.
yy The growth of aquatic plankton should be encouraged by addition of appropriate fertilizers. The plankton
serves as food for the fishes.
yy Growth of harmful weeds should be prevented.
5.4 Breeding
yy Healthy males and females of the desired species are induced to reproduce by injection of hormones
(analogous to FSH or LH or HCG).
n
yy They fertilized eggs are transferred to hatching tanks.
.i
yy The hatchlings also called sac fry are then transferred to nursery ponds.
yy
yy
al
They grow into a stage called ‘fry’. Fry can be fed with artificial food.
The fingerlings are the next step. They are kept in rearing or raising ponds. This step is called thinning.
n
Where they feed on both natural and artificial food. In rearing ponds, the fingerlings grow upto a size of
ur
15-20 cm long. Now these are transferred into stocking ponds.

Fingerlings grow upto 20 cm in raising ponds. They are then transferred to stocking ponds.
o
yy
They mature into adults in these ponds in 6-9 months. They are then captured with the use of nets or
uj
yy
hooks.
Ed
5.5 Products of the Fishing Industry

yy Fish are consumed as food. Marine food is rich in iodine.
yy Some fish are kept as pets.
yy Isinglass- It is prepared from the swim bladder of some fishes. It is used in gelatin manufacture and
clarification of beer.
yy Fish oil- It is a vitamin rich substance.
yy Fish meal- A calcium rich substance used as fodder for animals.
yy Fish protein- Can be used in ice creams, pharmaceuticals, paints, varnishes, textile, paper and
cosmetics.
yy Fish flour- A nutritive food supplement for infants.
yy Fish skin- It has leather-like applications i.e. manufacture of some cases etc.
9.16
6. Animal Diseases and their Control

6.1 Diseases of Animals
Disease and host Pathogen Details
Bacterial diseases
yy Blood mixed secretions from external
body openings is seen.
yy Animals die within 2-3 days of getting
infected.
Anthrax affects cattle, sheep, goats, yy The bacterium affects oxygen carriers
horses etc. Bacillus anthracis in the body. This leads to increased
It can affect humans also. respiratory rate.
n
yy Preventive measures include
vaccination and injection of antiserum.
.i
al yy Diagnosis is based on detection of the
presence of the bacteria in blood.
n
yy The modes of transmission are
aerosols and droplets along with milk.
ur
Bovine TB affects cattle and many

other animals. yy Rifampicin can be used for treatment.
Mycobacterium bovis
o
It can affect humans also (rare). yy The animals have to be separated

uj
from the herd to prevent the spread of

the disease.
Ed
yy The disease is caused due to a

toxin secreted by the bacteria. This
toxin affects the nervous system and
causes paralysis.
yy In cattle, the symptoms may include
Botulism affects sheep, poultry and drooling, restlessness, urine retention,
cattle. Clostridium botulinum
yy In sheep, the symptoms may include
Affects humans also. drooling, nasal discharge, stiffness
etc.
yy A vaccine is available but its
usefulness is unclear.
yy It can spread through honey also.
9.17
yy Cooking can destroy the toxin but

bacterial spores may survive it.
yy Anti-serum can be used for treatment.
Viral diseases
yy Symptoms include fever, oral
erosions, diarrhoea,
Rinderpest affects cattle. yy Death rates were extremely high.
No known record of affecting Morbillivirus genus. yy After extensive efforts the disease is
humans. supposed to be the second disease
(after smallpox) to be completely
eradicated.
.i n
Cowpox affects cattle. yy Symptoms include lesions on limbs.
It can affect humans.
n al
Orthopoxvirus genus.
yy Preventive measure is vaccination.
ur
yy Symptoms include sores and blisters,
fever, weakness and decrease in milk
o
Foot and Mouth Disease FMD production.

uj
affects cattle and sheep. yy Vaccines are available but are not
Picornavirus.
It can affect humans in extremely highly effective.
Ed
rare cases. yy FMD is associated with ethical

issues as sometimes animals are
unnecessarily slaughtered.
Protozoa borne diseases
Trypanosomiasis can affect a wide yy Symptoms include fever, anemia,
range of vertebrates. lethargy and weight loss.
Trypanosoma evansi
Infection by Trypanosoma evansi is yy Treatment can be carried out by
extremely rare in humans. chemotherapy.
yy Symptoms include fever anemia,
jaundice and enlarged lymph nodes.
Theilieriosis affects cattle. yy Tick control is an important preventive
Theileria annulata. measure.
It does not affect humans.
yy Tetracycline is effective in treatment.
yy Vaccine is available.
9.18
Helminth borne diseases

yy Symptoms may not be clear. Liver
Ascariasis affects cattle.
damage, intestinal blockage is
No recorded cases of affecting Neoascaris vitulorum observed.
humans.
yy Vaccine is not available.
Fungal diseases
Aflatoxicosis affects poultry and
dogs. yy It can cause liver damage.
Aspergillus flavus
The toxin can cause illness in yy Antidotes as such remain unavailable.
humans also.
6.2 Causes and Preventive Measures
n
yy Causes of diseases can be mutant genes (genetic diseases), improper nutrition and pathogens.
.i
yy Breeding aims to eliminate genetic diseases.
yy
n al
Nutrition is a factor that can be controlled by the humans operating the animal husbandry or similar
activity with relative ease.
ur
yy However, it is important to control the spread of disease due to pathogens. Not only do these diseases
affect the productivity, some of them also pose a risk to human health.
o
yy Some measures to check the spread of diseases include- vaccination, isolation of infected or even
uj
suspected to be infected cases, cleanliness and disinfection etc.

yy It is important to notify government bodies about the instance of any outbreak as they may initiate
Ed
measures to counter the same.
Try It Yourself
1. Name a few animal diseases and their causative organisms.
2. List down some preventive/control measures of animal diseases.
7. Plant Breeding
yy It should be understood that along with better management, it is highly essential to use improved
varieties of plants if the output is to be drastically improved.
yy Purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant varieties that have a better
yield, high tolerance to stress related factors and enhanced disease resistance is called plant breeding.
9.19
yy Desirable characters as such include better quantity and quality of yield, tolerance to draught, salinity,
high/low temperatures, disease resistance, pest resistance etc.
yy Generally pure lines with desirable characters are crossed.
yy Artificial selection is employed to obtain the desired variety.
yy Genetic tools are also being employed to achieve the same.
7.1 Steps Involved in Plant Breeding

yy Variability and Parent Selection
Variability is the basic necessity as unless there is no variability, there can be no ‘desirable characters’
which can be used to create an enhanced variety. The entire collection of plants and/or seeds having
all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given plant is called germplasm collection.
Plants possessing one or more of the desired characters are selected as parents.
n
yy Pureline Generation
.i
Purelines homozygous for one or more of the desired characters are generated whenever possible.
characters in the progeny.

n al
Understandably, the use of purelines highly increases the probability of incorporation of the desired
Crossing
ur
yy
The parental plants are crossed. As crop plants possess several genes it should be noted that the
o
frequency of occurrence of progeny possessing a combination of the desired genes from both the
parents will be very low.
uj
yy Selection and Generation of Purelines

Ed
The progeny has to be tested for the possession of the required genes/traits. The desired progeny then
has to be self pollinated to generate pure lines so that the traits are homozygous (not eliminated in the
subsequent generations).
yy Testing and Launch in the Market
The new plant variety is generally grown in test farms to analyse its performance outside the experimental
set up in comparison to cultivars already in use. Following positive results, it is marketed. Otherwise
it may have to undergo improvement. The cultivar is also tested in actual farms located in different
regions of the country.
7.2 The Green Revolution
yy It was the research, development and actual implementation of reforms in agriculture that lead to a
significant increase in yield.
9.20
yy In India implementation began in the 60s. Semi-dwarf varieties of rice and wheat were grown. The yield
increased tremendously.
yy Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were high yielding and disease resistant varieties of wheat which were
introduced all over the wheat-growing belt of India.
yy Rice varieties derived from IR-8 (Developed at International Rice Research Institute, Phillipines) and
Taichung Native-1 (Taiwan) were used. Later better-yielding semi dwarf varieties Jaya and Ratna were
developed in India.
yy Saccharum barberi variety of sugarcane was traditionally grown in North India. It had poor sugar content
and yield. Saccharum officinarum which was being grown in South India had thicker stems and higher
sugar content but did not grow well in North India. These two species were successfully crossed to get
varieties with desired characters that could grow well in North India too.
yy Hybrid varieties of maize, jowar and bajra having high draught resistance and producing more grains
were developed.
.i n
7.3 Plant Breeding for Disease Resistance
yy
n al
Resistance of the host plant is the ability to prevent the pathogen from causing disease.
yy Losses due to plant diseases can be extremely high.
ur
yy Lack of resistance can necessitate high use of pesticides or other chemicals which again can have a
lot of side effects (from reduction in yield to bio-magnification).
o
yy Steps for generating this type of cultivars is similar to the steps of conventional breeding. (Selection of
uj
parents, preparation of pure lines, their crossing, selection and development).

yy Examples- Himgiri wheat is resistant to hill bunt and leaf and stripe rust disease, Pusa Shubhra is
Ed
resistant to black rot and curl.

yy Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in bhindi (Abelmoschus esculentus) was transferred from a wild
species.
yy Sometimes a limitation is encountered due to lack of availability of a variety which possesses the
desired resistance. Sometimes it is possible to obtain these characters by inducing random or targeted
mutations in the plant’s genome.
yy Genetic engineering and variations arising in plants generated from tissue culture (somaclonal
variations) are also alternative approaches of obtaining resistant varieties.
yy Example- In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by
mutations.
9.21
7.4 Plant Breeding for Insect Resistance

yy Steps for generating this type of cultivars is similar to the steps of conventional breeding. (Selection of
parents, preparation of pure lines, their crossing, selection and development.
yy Examples- Pusa Gaurav variety of Rapeseed mustard is resistant to aphid infestation, Pusa Sawant
variety of Bhindi is resistant to infestation by fruit borer.
8. Biofortification
yy Breeding crops with higher nutritional value is called biofortification.
yy The new cultivar may have higher levels of vitamins and minerals, higher protein levels, healthier fat
profile etc.
yy It can lead to improvement in public health
yy In the year 2000, maize hybrids that had twice the amount of the amino acids, lysine and tryptophan,
n
compared to existing cultivars were developed.
.i
yy Atlas 66 a wheat variety having a high protein content can be used as a parental generation in
developing biofortified wheat.
n al
yy A rice variety with 5 times more iron than normal cultivars has been developed.
ur
9. Single Cell Protein (SCP)

o
yy The present quantity of agricultural production is not enough to cater to the increasing needs.
uj
yy More than 25% of human population is suffering from hunger and malnutrition.
yy It takes 3-10 kg of grain to produce 1 kg of meat by animal farming.
Ed
yy Thus it is essential to also explore alternative sources of food (other than plants and meat). One of them
is single cell protein or SCP.
yy Bacteria like spirulina can be grown on wastes from some industries. They can be consumed as food
containing proteins, carbohydrates, fats etc.
yy The advantage of this approach is the high biomass production by the bacteria.
yy An equivalent mass of spirulina can produce several times more proteins than a mammal like cow.
yy Many people are unwilling to consume SCP as food but it can be used as animal feed with relative
ease.
10. Tissue Culture

yy The growth of plant or animal tissues in culture medium is called tissue culture.
yy Plant tissue culture is extensively used in research aimed at enhancing food production.
9.22
yy Plants possess an ability to regenerate a whole plant from a single cell or explant. This ability is called
totipotency.
yy The explant (any part of the plant) is kept in a nutrient medium in sterile conditions. The medium should
have a carbon source, some specific salts, vitamins, some amino acids, auxins and similar growth
regulatory substances.
yy Large number of plants can be generated in a very short period of time using plant tissue culture. This
is called micro-propagation.
yy Each of the plants are clones of the original plant.
yy Bananas, apples etc. have been produced on a commercial scale by using plant tissue culture.
yy A plant obtained from meristem culture is free from virus or any other infection.
yy Cell wall of plants can be digested to form protoplast surrounded by plasma membrane. These
protoplasts can be fused to produce somatic hybrids.
yy Somatic hybridisation can be used to obtain hybrids that are not possible by sexual reproduction. (E.g.
n
tomato-potato hybrid, rice-carrot hybrid etc.)
.i
yy Anther culture can be used to obtain haploid plants. These plants can be used for crossing or in
yy
research. al
Embryo culture can be used to grow embryos that may not survive ordinarily.
n
ur
11. Plant Disease and their Control

Plant disease caused by fungi
o
uj
yy Fungi are parasitic organisms. They grow on various plant parts and damage the plant.
yy Infection can generally be seen as spots, patches and wilting.
Ed
yy Use of chemicals, use of resistant varieties and minimizing the contact between affected and non-
affected plants are the means of control.
yy Examples - Alternatia blight affecting fruit, vegetable and other plants
Nectria canker affecting bark of hardwood trees.
Plant disease caused by bacteria
yy The symptoms may not be visible. If visible they are somewhat similar to fungal symptoms. Slimy
secretions may be seen.
yy The prevention and control measures are similar to those which apply to fungal diseases.
yy Examples - Fire blight affecting apples, pears and some other fruit trees.
Stewart’s wilt affecting sweet corn.
9.23
Plant disease caused by viruses

yy The symptoms may not be visible and if they are they might be similar to those of fungal or bacterial diseases.
yy The prevention and control measures are similar to those which apply to fungal diseases.
yy Tobacco Mosaic Virus infecting tobacco plants and Cauliflower Mosaic Virus infecting cauliflower plants
In general there are no specific cures for plant diseases. Prevention and control of spread are the best
defences.
Try It Yourself
1. Rinderpest is The disease al
(1) Buffaloes (2) Cattle (3) Pigs (4) Horses
2. Fool and mouth disease Macke
(1) Cattle (2) Camels (3) Sheep and goats (4) Horses
.i n
Knowledge Builder
n al
yy Agriculture employs nearly 62% of the Indian population.
ur
yy Agriculture account for 33% of India’s GDP.

o
yy High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize increases the resistance to
stem borers in maize.
uj
yy Farming practice that help protect the environment by conserving water and energy and by
Ed
limiting the use of synthetic pesticides and fertilizers are termed as sustainable agriculture.
yy Wheat production increased from 11 million tonne to 75 million tonnes while rice production
went up from 35 million tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes during the period 1960 to 2000.
yy Sonalika and Kalyan sona are disease resistant high yielding varieties of wheat released
in 1963.
yy Hairy leaves in plants may be associated with resistance to insect pests E.g. resistance to
jassids in cotton and cereal leaf beetle in wheat.
yy Solid stems lead to non-preference by the stem sawfly in wheat.
yy Smooth leaved and nectar-less cotton varieties do not attract bollworms in cotton.
yy Atlas 66 variety of wheat has been used as donor for improving cultivated wheat as it has
high protein content.
yy Baculoviruses affect some insects and other arthropods. They can be used as biological
pesticidal agents.
9.24
Summary
yy It is important to note that the existing yield from agriculture and animal husbandry is not sufficient
enough to cater to the needs of the growing population. Improved methods should be used to enhance
this yield.
yy Breeding enables us to create animals or plants with a desired combination of beneficial traits from
different species. This is an important means of increasing the yield.
yy The animals/plants obtained from breeding commonly are able to produce better quality and quantity of
produce, have disease resistance and also may be able to thrive in stress conditions like temperature
extremes or high salinity.
yy Animal breeding can be natural or artificial (where actual mating does not take place). Mutation can be
used to obtain certain desirable characters in plants.
yy Other measures to improve yield from animals include proper nutrition, cleanliness, vaccination,
medical care etc.
n
yy Animal husbandry is the rearing of animals for obtaining food and commercial benefits.
Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, camels, yaks etc are some animals that are reared from the point of view of
.i
yy
food production.
yy
n al
Poultry farming is the rearing of birds from the point of view of food production.
yy Hens, ducks etc are the important birds reared by humans.
Apiculture is the rearing of bees.
ur
yy
yy Honey, beeglue, beeswax etc. are obtained from bees.
o
yy Apis mellifera and Apis indica are commercially important species of bees.
uj
yy Fishes are reared in fisheries.

yy In India, Catla, Rohu and Mrigala are the important carps that are reared.
Ed
yy Use of modern techniques can enhance yield from apiculture and fisheries.
yy Single cell protein or SCP is an alternative food source apart from plants and meat. It is bacteria like
spirulina grown on wastes from some industries.
yy The main advantage of SCP is the high biomass generation efficiency of bacteria as compared to
plants and animals.
yy Tissue culture is a technique of growing cells in artificial medium.
yy Plant tissue culture can be used to produce hybrids and also to produce large quantity of clones via
micro-propagation.
yy In comparison to human diseases, prevention is highly important (in comparison with treatment) in
plant and animal diseases.
yy It is important to use disease resistant varieties and minimize the contact between affected and non-
affected organisms.
yy It is also important to report instances of animal and plant diseases to government bodies as they can
take appropriate measures to check the spread of the disease.
9.25
EXERCISE
Objective Exercises
Q.1 Honey bee after discovering the new source of nectar/honey can convey this information but
(A) Cannot convey the direction
(B) Can convey the direction by round or tail waving dance
(C) Can convey the direction by round dance only
(D) Can convey the direction by tail waving dance only
Q.2 Maximum fat contents are present in the meat of
n
(A) Pork (B) Mutton (C) Beef (D) Chicken
.i
Q.3 If a honey bee is conveying an information, by round dance then the distance of source will be about
(A) 1000 metres
al
(B) 50 metres
n
(C) 2000 metres (D) 150 metre
ur
Q.4 Domestication of honey bee is called

o
(A) Sericulture (B) Apiculture (C) Tissue culture (D) Pisciculture

uj
Q.5 If the source is opposite to the direction of sun and distance is more than 75 metres then honey bee
Ed
will convey the direction by

(A) Clockwise round dance (B) Upright down tail waving dance
(C) Anticlockwise round dance (D) Opposite to 2
Q.6 Domestication of silk worm is called

(A) Sericulture (B) Pisciculture (C) Apiculture (D) Horticulture
Q.7 Which set is of beneficial insects, to man

(A) Honey bee, Lac insect, cochineal insect
(B) Silk worm, honey bee, wasp
(C) Honey bee, silk worm, and cockroach
9.26
Q.8 Silk is produced by

(A) Larva (B) Cocoon (C) Larva and adult moth (D) Adult moth
Q.9 Largest silk producing state of India is

(A) Karnataka (B) Bihar (C) Bengal (D) Assam
Q.10 The insect thrives on Morus alba is

(A) Lac insect (B) Cochineal insect
(C) Honey bee (D) Silk moth
Q.11 Queen bee is specified for

(A) Administration (B) Making hive
n
(C) Egg laying (D) Collection of food
.i
Q.12 Silk industry is related to
n al
(A) Sericulture (B) Apiculture (C) Pisciculture (D) Horticulture
ur
Q.13 A queen honey bee lays eggs of

o
(A) One type from which all castes develop

uj
(B) Two types, one forming queen and workers and second forming drones
(C) Three types forming queen, drone and workers
Ed
(D) Unfertilized eggs die while fertilised ones form all castes
Q.14 Lac is a product of

(A) Faecal matter (B) Secretion from body
(C) Excretion from body (D) Excess food oozing out of the body

(A) Larva (B) Adult moth
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Cocoon/Pupa
Q.16 Which among the following is real product of honey bee

(A) Honey (B) Pollen (C) Bee wax (D) Propolis
9.27
Q.17 Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are meant for improving
(A) Human race (B) Livestock (C) Poultry (D) Plants
Q.18 Worker Bees are

(A) Fertile males (B) Fertile females
(C) Sterile females (D) Sterile males
Q.19 Honey is collected by

(A) Wasp (B) Housefly (C) Butterfly (D) Bee
Q.20 Ranikhet disease is connected with

(A) Honey bee (B) Hens (C) Fishes (D) Pigs
.i n
Q.21 Induced breeding (Hyphophysation) is carried out in case of
(A) Pisciculture (B) Apiculture
al
(C) Sericulture
n
(D) Lac culture
ur
Q.22 Rearing of bees is
(A) Horticulture (B) Apiary (C) Apiculture (D) Poultry
o
uj
Q.23 Which of the following represents honey bee?

(A) Apis dorsata (B) Periplanata americana
Ed
(C) Mangifera indica (D) All of the above
Q.24 Lac is produced by

(A) Males
(B) Females
(C) Far more by females than males
(D) More by males than females
Q.25 Silkworm larva spins silk from

(A) Inside to outside (B) Outside to inside
(C) Random fashion (D) Anterior to posterior side
9.28
Q.26 Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more
economically as they have
(A) Positive interactions (B) Commensalism
(C) Symbiosis (D) No competition for food
Q.27 Fish introduced in India by foreigners is

(A) Labeo rohita (B) Mystus singhala
(C) Pomphret (D) Clarrus batrachus
Q.28 Best aquarium is located at

(A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Chennai
(C) Tarapur, Mumbai (D) Z.S.I Calcutta
.i n
Q.29 To increase milk yield, cow is given
(A) Sorbitol (B) Stibesterol
n al (C) Prolactin (D) Gonadotropin
Q.30 In Silkworm, if juvenile hormone is absent at the time of larval moulting, the worm will
ur
(A) Die (B) Moult into larval stage

o
(C) Moult into pupa (D) Moult into adult

uj
Q.31 Nagpuri buffalo is

Ed
(A) Milker (B) Draught cattle (C) Dual purpose (D) Grazer
Q.32 Which amongst the following is used in raising super-milk cows

(A) Artificial insemination with pedigree bull (B) Embryo transplantation
(C) Superovulation of high yielding cow (D) All of the above
Q.33 Inland fisheries are

(A) Deep sea fishing
(B) Capturing fishes from sea coast
(C) Raising and capturing fishes in fresh water
(D) Oil extraction from fish
9.29
Q.34 Silkworm is
(A) Beetle (B) Worm (C) Fly (D) Moth
Q.35 Which of the following is not a plant product

(A) Hemp (B) Silk (C) Cotton (D) Flax
Q.36 Pisciculture is rearing and production of

(A) Fishes (B) Birds (C) Reptiles (D) Wool yielding animals
Q.37 Hormone used for inducing lactation in sterile cows is

(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone (C) Relaxin (D) Stilbestrol
n
Q.38 Jaffarbadi, Murrah and Meshasna are breeds of
.i
(A) Cow (B) Buffalo (C) Goat (D) Sheep
n al
Q.39 Maximum silk is produced in
ur
(A) Assam (B) Karnataka (C) Gujrat (D) Kerala
o
Q.40 Tassar silk is obtained from

uj
(A) Antheraea roylei (B) Bombyx mori

(C) Apis indica (D) Apis dorsata
Ed
Q.41 Fishes reared in culture fishery in India are

(A) Salmon and Rohu (B) Salmon and Catla
(C) Catla and Magur (D) Rohu and Catla
Q.42 Exotic breeds of poultry are

(A) White leghorn and Rhode Island Red
(B) Rhode island red and Aseel
(C) Plymouth and Aseel
(D) White leghorn and aseel
9.30
Q.43 Best milch breed of cattle is

(A) Red sindhi (B) Deomi (C) Holstein-Friesian (D) Sahiwal
Q.44 A viral disease of silkworm is

(A) Muscardine (B) Pebrine (C) Maggot disease (D) Flacherie
Q.45 MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer) is method of

(A) Fish cultivation (B) Hybridisation of cattle
(C) Birth control (D) Cloning of sheep
Q.46 Larva of Bombyx mori is

(A) Caterpillar (B) Trochophore (C) Nymph (D) Cocoon
.i n
Q.47 Oak Silkworm is
(A) Bombyx mori (B) Antheraea roylei
n al
(C) Antheraea assamica (D) Attacus ricini
ur
Q.48 Life span of worker honey bee

o
(A) 30 days (B) 15 days (C) 45 days (D) 10 days

uj
Q.49 Which statement is correct

Ed
(A) Apis indica is largest wild honey bee

(B) Wax is waste material of honey bee
(C) F. Frish discovered the transmission methods in honey bee
(D) Drone of honey bee is diploid
Q.50 Which endangered animal is the source of the world’s finest, lightest, warmest and most expensive
wool the shahtoosh
(A) Nilgai (B) Cheetal (C) Kashmiri goat (D) Chiru
Q.51 The world highly prized wool yielding pashmina breed is

(A) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross (B) Goat
(C) Sheep (D) Goat sheep cross
9.31
Q.52 The respiratory organ of silkworm is

(A) Lungs (B) Tracheae (C) Malpighian tubules (D) Skin
Q.53 The gestation period of elephant is about

(A) 11 month (B) 15 month (C) 22 months (D) 32 months
Q.54 Oak silkworm is

(A) Antherea roylei (B) Apis florea
(C) Bombyx mori (D) Clarias batrachus
Q.55 Which of the following species of silkworm are found in India?

(A) Bombyx mori (B) Anthera paphia
n
(C) Kerria (D) All of these
.i
Q.56 Which of the following is a fresh water fish?
n al
(A) Pomphret (B) Rohu (C) Sardine (D) Salmon
ur
Q.57 Eri silk moth feeds on

o
(A) Mulberry leaves (B) Arundi leaves

uj
(C) Ficus leaves (D) Neem leaves

Ed
Q.58 Wax is obtained from

(A) Apiculture (B) Aquaculture (C) Lac culture (D) Sericulture
Q.59 Pebrine disease is found in

(A) Fish food (B) Honeybees (C) Silk moth (D) Hens
Q.60 Queen Bee is adapted for

(A) Laying eggs
(B) Laying eggs and rearing the young
(C) Preparing honey
(D) Controlling other bees
9.32

(A) Cuticle of larva (B) Salivary glands of larva
(C) Cocoon (D) Salivary gland of adult
Q.62 Lac is obtained from

(A) Laccifer (B) Bombyx (C) Dactylopius (D) Lytta
Q.63 Commercial silk is obtained from

(A) Cocoon (B) Caterpillar
(C) Adult moth (D) Both egg and adult moth
Q.64 A new breed of sheep developed in India by cross breeding, called ‘Hisardale’ It is a cross of
n
(A) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams
.i
(B) Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams
(C) Malavari ewes and Bikaneri rams
n al
(D) Bikaneri ewes and Malavari rams
ur
Q.65 Primary and secondary product of apiculture are

o
(A) Wax is primary product but honey is secondary product

uj
(B) Honey is primary product but wax is secondary product

(C) Both wax and honey are considered as secondary product as some nutritive substances are also
Ed
obtained from honey bee which are primary product

(D) No criteria is set to differentiate primary and secondary product in apiculture
Q.66 In MOET the animal is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated. The fertilized eggs are
collected to transfer to surrogate mothers. Which among these statements is correct
(A) Fertilized egg is collected at 8-32 cells stage and no need of surgery
(B) Fertilized egg is collected at 8-32 cells stage and surgery is done for it
(C) Fertilized egg is collected at only 4 cells stage and it is done by surgery
(D) Fertilized egg is collected at 64 cells stage and surgery is done for it
Q.67 Hybrid breed of sheep is

(A) Sunanhdini (B) Holstein (C) Brown swiss (D) Hisardale
9.33
Q.68 Surrogate mother is used for

(A) Artificial insemination
(B) Future mother with transplanted embryo
(C) Induction of lactation
Q.69 MOET is method of

(A) Fish cultivation (B) Cloning of sheep
(C) Hybridization in cattle (D) Bee-keeping
Q.70 which of the following is/are marine water fishes?

(A) Mackerel (B) Pomfrets (C) Sardines (D) All of the above
.i n
Q.71 Which among the following is real product of honey bee?
(A) Honey (B) Propolis
n al
(C) Beeswax (D) Pollen
Q.72 A milch breed of cow is

ur
(A) Haryana (B) Malvi (C) Kank raj (D) Sahlwell

o
uj
Q.73 Pisciculture is rearing and production of

(A) Sheep (B) Birds (C) Fishes (D) Honey bee
Ed
Q.74 Which of the following is a fresh water fish?

(A) Catla (B) Mackerel (C) Pomfrets (D) Hilsa
Q.75 Queen Bees are

(A) Sterile females (B) Fertile males
(C) Fertile females (D) Sterile males
Q.76 What is the root of any breeding programme?

(A) Mutation (B) Green revolution
(C) Genetic variability (D) Genetic similarity
9.34
Q.77 Which tropical canes grown in south India had thicker stems and high sugar content but did not grow
well in north India?
(A) Saccharum barberi (B) Saccharum spontaneum
(C) Sachharum robustum (D) Saccharum officinarum
Q.78 ‘’Pusa Komal’’ variety of cow pea, which developed by hybridisation and selection is mainly resistance
for
(A) Powdery mildew (B) Yellow mosaic virus
(C) Bacterial blight (D) White rust
Q.79 Drought breeds produce

(A) Good milk producing Cows (B) Good working bullocks
n
.i
(B) Cow pea
n al
Q.80 In which crop resistance to yellow mosaic virus were induced by mutation?
(A) Mung bean (C) Wheat (D) Brassica
ur
Q.81 Smooth leaved and nectar less cotton varieties do not attract which one of following pests?
o
(A) Aphids (B) Jessids (C) Boll worms (D) Shoot borer
uj
Q.82 The main steps of plant breeding programmes is given below

Ed
(1) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents

(2) Testing release and commericialisation of new cultivars
(3) Collection of variability
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
(5) Evaluation and selection of parents
Arrange above steps in a systematic way
(A) 5 3 1 2 4 (B) 3 5 1 2 4 (C) 3 5 1 4 2 (D) 5 3 1 4 2
Q.83 250 kg cow produces how much amount of protein in a days?

(A) 200 gm (B) 20 gm (C) 2 gm (D) 2000 gm
9.35
Q.84 In fungi plant symbiotic association, the fungus symbiont absorb which nutrient from soil and passes
it to the plants
(A) Nitrogen (B) Phosphorus (C) Manganese (D) Calcium
Q.85 Nobel laureate Norman E. Borlaug developed semi dwarf variety of

(A) Wheat (B) Sugarcane (C) Mustered (D) Chilli
Q.86 Which one of the following is an example of somatic hybridisation?

(A) Bt cotton (B) Pomato (C) Golden rice (D) All of these
Q.87 IARI, New Delhi has released several vegetables crops that are rich in
(A) Vitamin (B) Hormone (C) Minerals (D) Both (A) and (C)
.i n
Q.88 Which plant breeding step is very tedious and time consuming?
(A) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
(B) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
n al
(C) Collection of variability
ur
(D) Evaluation and selection of parents

o
uj
Q.89 Which vegetable crop rich in vitamin C has released by IARI New delhi?
(A) Spinach (B) Lablab (C) Mustared (D) Bathua
Ed
Q.90 Ladybird is useful to get rid of

(A) Aphids (B) Mosquitoes (C) Boll worm (D) Jessids
Q.91 You are a plant breeder. Which trait or character that you have firstly tried to incorporate into crop
plants?
(A) Increase crop yield and improved quality
(B) Increase tolerance to environmental stresses
(C) Increase resistance to pathogens
(D) Increase tolerance to insect pests
9.36
Q.92 Match the following

Column I Column II
(a) Brown rust of wheat (i) Virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic (ii) Bacteria
(c) Black rot of crucifers (iii) Fungi
(d) Red rot of sugarcanes (iv) Boll worm
(A) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv) (B) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)
(C) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i), d – (iv) (D) a – (iii), b – (i), c – (ii), d – (iii)
Q.93 How much percent of the population of India get employed by agriculture?
(A) 82 (B) 62 (C) 17 (D) 92
.i n
n al
ur
Q.1 Earliest animal to be domesticated by primitive man was : (CBSE 1996)

o
(A) Goat (B) Dog (C) Horse (D) Cat

uj
Q.2 Most commonly maintained species of bees by bee-keepers is : (AMU 2010)

Ed
(A) Apis mellifera (B) Apis dorsata

(C) Apis indica (D) Apis florea
Q.3 Identify the edible fresh-water teleosts? (KCET 2001)

(A) Sharks (B) Catla catla (C) Rays and skates (D) Hilsa hilsa
Q.4 Witch one is a viral disease in silkworm? (KCET 2001)

(A) Flacherie (B) Pebrine disease (C) Muscardine (D) Maggot disease
Q.5 MOET is method of : (KCET 2001)

(A) Fish cultivation (B) Cloning in sheep
(C) Hybridisation in cattle (D) Birth control in humans
9.37
Q.6 Which of the following combinations is generally recommended for composite fish farming in India ?
(MP-PMT 2000)
(A) Catla, Labeo and Cirrhinus (B) Catla, Cyprinus and Clarius
(C) Clarius, Channa and Cyprinus (D) Cirrhinus, Cyprinus and Channa
Q.7 Multiple ovulation and embryo transfer is the method of : (Kerala PMT 2002)
(A) Fish cultivation (B) Prawn cultivation
(C) Cloning monkeys (D) Hybridisation in cattle
Q.8 Which one of the following food fishes of U.P. is a carp, which is cultivated in U.P. but is not a native of
India ? (PCS 2002)
(A) Labeo rohita (B) Clarius betrachus
n
(C) Channa pinctatus (D) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix
.i
(A) Labeo bata (B) Catla catla
al
Q.9 Among the Indian major carps, the fastest rate of growth is observed in :
(C) Labeo rohita (D) Labeo calbasu
n (PCS 2005)
ur
Q.10 The drug used for deworming the poultry birds is : (EAMCET 2002)
o
(A) Antihistamine (B) Antiviral (C) Antihelminthic (D) Antibiotic

uj
Q.11 Bombay duck is : (EAMCET 2002)

Ed
(A) Hilsa hilsa (B) Harpadon neherius

(C) Pediceps ruficolis (D) Corrochromis mossambicus
Q.12 In Which country, the ‘DOGS’ were worshipped as ‘’GODS’’ ? (AIIMS 2003)
(A) Italy (B) Egypt (C) Greece (D) Mongolia
Q.13 The Mediterranean type of popular fowls are called : (EAMCET 2003)
(A) White Leghorn (B) New Hamshire
(C) Plymouth rock (D) Rhodesian red
9.38
Q.14 The production of new characteristics by introducing new genes and altering the genome is called :
(TN-PMT 2003)
(A) Spilcing (B) Genetics (C) Gene manipulation (D) Totipotency
Q.15 Plants raised through tissue culture techniques are : (TN-PMT 2003)
(i) Genetically uniform (ii) Used as inoculum
(ii) Genetically similar (iv) Called clones :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Q.16 Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix ‘’Bt’’ means: (AIIMS 2004)
(A) ‘Barium-treated’ cotton seeds
n
(B) ‘Bigger thread’ variety of cotton with better tensile strength
.i
(C) Produced by ‘Biotechnology’ using restriction enzymes.
al
(D) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
n
Q.17 India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible primarily due to: (CBSE 2004)
ur
(A) Mutations resulting in plant height reduction

o
(B) Quantitative trait mutations

uj
(C) Hybrid seeds

(D) Increased chlorophyll content
Ed
Q.18 The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called: (CBSE 2004)
(A) Micropropagation (B) Macropropagation
(C) Plantlet culture (D) Organ culture
Q.19 Mule is a product of : (AFMC 2004)

(A) Inbreeding (B) Mutation
(C) Recombination (D) Interspecific hybridization
Q.20 One of the following is a disease of poultry : (KCET 2004)

(A) Anthrax (B) Pebrine disease
(C) Ranikhet disease (D) Foot and mouth disease
9.39
Q.21 Choose the cat fish from the following : (KCET 2004)
(A) Catla catla (B) Wallaga attu (C) Labeo rohita (D) Cirrhinus mrigla
Q.22 Scientific name zebu of is : (KCET 2004)

(A) Bos indicus (B) Bombyx mori (C) Bubalus bubalus (D) Gallus gallus
Q.23 Dual breed variety of cattle is : (Manipal 2004)

(A) Jersey (B) Aryshire (C) Brown swiss (D) All of these
Q.24 Cryopreservation is done at temperature : (BV – Pune 2004)

(A) – 140°C (B) – 120°C (C) – 196°C (D) – 273°C
n
Q.25 Which pair is essential for the growth of fish in water? (AIIMS 2006)
.i
(A) Nitrates and sulphates
(B) Sulphanates and carbonates
(C) Calcium and phosphorus
al
n
(D) Carbonates and phosphates
ur
Q.26 The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with : (CBSE 2005)

o
uj
(A) Green revolution (B) Yellow revolution

(C) White revolution (D) Blue revolution
Ed
Q.27 In callus culture, roots can be induced by supply of : (BHU 2005)

(A) Auxin (B) Cytokinin (C) Gibberellin (D) Ethylene
Q.28 Which of the following is man made? (BHU 2005)

(A) Secale (B) Triticale (C) Triticum (D) Cicer arietinum
Q.29 Somaclonal variation is seen in : (AIIMS 2006)

(A) Tissue culture grown plants (B) Apomicts
(C) Polyploids (D) Vegetatively propagated plants
9.40
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 D Q.2 C Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 A
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 A Q.10 D Q.11 C Q.12 A
Q.13 B Q.14 B Q.15 A Q.16 C Q.17 B Q.18 C
Q.19 D Q.20 B Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 B Q.24 C
Q.25 B Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 B Q.30 D
Q.35 A Q.32 D Q.33 C Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 A
n
Q.37 D Q.42 B Q.39 B Q.40 A Q.41 D Q.42 A
.i
Q.43 C Q.44 D Q.49 B Q.46 A Q.47 B Q.48 C
Q.49 C Q.50 D Q.51 B
n al
Q.56 B Q.53 C Q.54 A
Q.55 A Q.56 B Q.57 B Q.68 A Q.63 C Q.60 A
ur
Q.61 B Q.62 A Q.63 A Q.64 A Q.65 A Q.66 A

Q.67 D Q.68 B Q.69 C Q.70 D Q.71 C Q.72 C
o
Q.73 C Q.74 A Q.75 C Q.76 C Q.77 D Q.78 C

uj
Q.79 D Q.80 A Q.81 C Q.82 C Q.83 A Q.84 B

Ed
Q.85 A Q.86 B Q.87 B Q.88 B Q.89 C Q.90 A

Q.91 A Q.92 D Q.93 B

Q.1 B Q.2 A Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 C Q.6 A
Q.7 D Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 C Q.11 B Q.12 B
Q.13 A Q.14 C Q.15 B Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 A
Q.19 D Q.20 C Q.21 B Q.22 A Q.23 B Q.24 C
Q.25 C Q.26 A Q.27 A Q.28 B Q.29 A
BIOLOGY
XII STD |VOL.III|Unit 3
.i n
al
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Microbes in Human Welfare

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Ed
10.1
CHAPTER 10
MICROBES IN HUMAN
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WELFARE
.i
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Topics Discussed
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Introduction 1. Introduction
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Microbes in Household Products Microbes or micro-organisms are microscopic

uj
yy
foodstuffs
living being and viruses.
Ed
yy They are the oldest life forms on earth.

Use of microbes in industrial products yy Some microbes are also capable of causing
Microbes in sewage treatment diseases.
Microbes in energy production yy Some microbes can thrive in very adverse
environments ranging from hot water geysers to
Microbes as biocontrol agents heavily polluted areas. Additionally, many also
Microbes as biofertilisers produce unique enzymes and carry out metabolic
pathways which may be absent in plants and
animals. This makes them extremely important
from the point of view of human welfare.
yy Many microbes can be grown in the laboratory
or in other set-ups, in the form of cultures.
yy Microbes can be used for industrial production,
sewage treatment etc. They can also be used
as biocontrol agents and have been used
extensively in research as well.
10.2
A B
.i n
Figure 10.1: Bacteria of various shapes
al
A. Rod shaped bacteria (bacilli); B. Spherical bacteria (cocci) and C. A rod shaped bacteria with flagella
n
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Ed
A B
C
Figure 10.2: Viruses of various shapes
A. A bacteriophage; B. An adenovirus and C. Rod shaped Tobacco Mosaic virus
10.3
A B
Figure 10.3: Microbial colonies on a petri plate

A. Bacterial colonies growing on a petri dish and B. Fungal colony on a petri dish
n
Did You Know
1. Microbiology is the science of microbes.
.i
2. It is not possible to culture all microbes in the laboratory. Designing growth media
al
? to suit non-culturable microbes is one of the challenges of microbiology.
n
3. Microbes possess some amazing abilities. D radiodurans is a bacterium that can
ur
survive high doses of radiation, high acidity, prolonged exposure to vacuum and
desiccation.
o
uj
Objectives
Ed

yy To know how microbes are used to produce house-hold products.
yy To know about the industrial uses of microbes.
yy To study the uses of microbes in sewage treatment.
yy To study the use of microbes as biocontrol agents and bio-fertilizers.
2. Microbes in Household Products

Microbes are involved in the production of various household products, mostly food.
2.1 Curd
yy Curd is made from milk. A small amount of curd (inoculum) is added to milk.
yy Milk contains a sugar called lactose. Curd has bacteria called ‘lactic acid bacteria’ or LABs.
yy The lactobacilli convert the lactose to lactic acid. Thus the taste of the mixture changes from sweet to
sour.
10.4
yy The lactic acids leads to coagulation of milk proteins. Thus the consistency changes from liquid to
semi-solid.
yy Lactobacilli also colonize the human gut and help to protect it against infection by bacteria that cause
enteric diseases.
yy Additionally, curd contains vitamin A and vitamin B12.
2.2 Cheese
yy Cheese is also made from milk. The processes themselves and their durations may vary according the
type of cheese to be manufactured.
yy Milk is acidified either with addition of an acid or by using lactobacilli (or some other microbes). This
makes casein the milk protein to coagulate.
yy An enzyme called rennet is added. Previously, rennet used to be isolated from slaughtered calves.
Now it is manufactured using recombinant microbes.
n
yy The liquid part is separated and the remaining solid part is heated and later kept aside for varying
.i
durations of time for ‘maturation or ripening’.
yy
yy
Cheese is regarded as a fatty food. al
Health benefits of cheese include a positive impact on dental health and sleep.
n
ur
2.3 Bread
yy Bread is prepared from dough.
o
Baker’s yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is added to dough. It produces carbon dioxide which is
uj
yy
responsible for the typical spongy and porous consistency. This is also called leavening.
Ed
yy Bread can also be flavored.
2.4 Other Foodstuffs

yy Dosa and Idli batter are also fermentation products.
yy Wine and some other beverages also involve the use of microbes.
yy Fermented fish, grass etc. can be used as animal fodder.
10.5
Knowledge Builder
Table 10.1: Dairy products and microbes associated with them
Dairy products Microbes
Yoghurt Lactobacillus bulgaricus
Curd Lactobacillus acidophilus
Butter milk Streptococcus cremoris
Camembert cheese Penicillium camembertii
Sour cream Streptococcus lactis
3. Microbes in Industrial Products
.i n
Microbial fermentation is also carried out on an industrial scale to produced fermented substances which
can be processed to produce commercial goods.
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3.1 Beverages
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yy S. cerevisiae is the preferred microbe of choice to produce fermented beverages.

yy It ferments sugar to ethanol.
o
yy The end product is different based on the starting products used. E.g. beer from grain mash, wine from
uj
grapes, mead from honey etc.

Ed
yy Distillation may be used to concentrate the ethanol. Distilled beverages include whisky, brandy, vodka,
tequila etc.
3.2 Antibiotics
yy Antibiotics are chemicals which inhibit the growth of or kill microbes.
yy They are perhaps one of the most important products obtained from microbes.
yy Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be used in medicine. It came to prominence at the end of World War
II and is regarded as one of the greatest discoveries in medicine.
yy It was obtained from Penicillium notatum.
yy It can be chemically modified to produce several other variants.
yy Tetracycline is manufactured using Streptomyces. It has saved several humans from deaths due to cholera.
10.6
Knowledge Builder
Table 10.2: Antibiotics and their sources
Antibiotic Source
From Eubacteria
Bacitracin - Bacillus licheniformis
From Actinomycetes
Chlorotetracycline/aureomycin/tetracycline - Streptomyces aureofaciens
i. Chloramphenicol or chloromycetin - S. venezuelae
ii. Erythromycin - S. erythreus
iii. Streptomycin - S. griseus
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iv. Neomycin - S. fradiae
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v. Oxytetracycline/Terramycin - S. rimosus
From Fungi
i. Penicillin
n al - Penicillium chrysogenum
ii. Griseofulvin - P. griseofulvum
ur
iii. Fumagilin - Aspergillus fumigatus

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3.3 Other Molecules

Ed
Apart from beverages and antibiotics microbes are used to produce a variety of compounds which are of
tremendous importance and hence have high commercial value.
yy Enzymes produced by bacteria may have various applications.
yy Lipases are used in detergents to remove oily stains. They can be obtained from Geotrichum
candidum.
yy Pectinases are used in ‘clearing’ of fruit juices.
yy Streptokinase is used in dissolving clots. (Used as TPA).
yy Trichoderma polysporum produces cyclosporins which can be used as immunosuppressants.
yy Statins produced by some bacteria are compounds that inhibit cholesterol synthesis.
yy Bacteria can be genetically engineered to produce many other proteins/hormones which are used
in medicine.
yy Organic acids used in healthcare products can also be obtained from bacterial fermentation.
10.7
Figure 10.4: Fermenters Figure 10.5: Fermentation plants
Try It Yourself
n
1. Milk is more nutritious than curd. (True/False).
.i
2. The process of the bread becoming spongy and porous is called hardening. (True/
False). al
3. Name 3 antibiotics and the organisms producing them.
n
4. Name 3 distilled alcoholic beverages.
ur
5. Distillation reduces the ethanol concentration in the beverage. (True/False).

o
6. Lipases are commonly used in _________. (Detergents/Insulin production).

uj
4. Microbes in Sewage Treatment

Ed
yy Tremendous amount of wastes are generated by households and industries.

yy Most of them are drained via the sewers. These wastes are termed as sewage.
yy Sewage cannot be disposed/let into a larger waterbody directly without treatment.
yy Bacteria play in important role in treatment of sewage water.
Various stages of treatment-
1. Pre-treatment
yy It generally includes filtration based processes to separate out large solid chunks from the sewage.
yy It can also include other processes for fat removal etc.
2. Primary treatment
yy It is basically a sludge removal phase.
yy The sewage is kept in a series of settling tanks where heavier materials are allowed to sediment
10.8
out.
yy These sediments are separated out and sent to sludge treatment plants. (Sludge can be subjected
to anaerobic treatment to produce biogas).
yy Generally no biological treatment is carried out.
3. Secondary treatment
yy It is the phase of biological treatment.
yy The liquid is kept in a tank and aerated to promote the growth of microbes in it.
yy The microbes form flocs and consume the organic compounds present in the sewage.
yy This process is carried out until the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of the mixture becomes
lesser than a stipulated value.
yy In the later stage, the mixture is allowed to stand still and the flocs settle down. This sediment is
called activated sludge.
.i n
yy Activated sludge is separated out and some of it may be used for the next batch of sewage in the
secondary treatment phase. al
n
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Ed
Figure 10.6: Activated sludge technique

4. Tertiary treatment
yy Sand and other solids may be separated out.
yy Nitrogen and phosphorus based compounds are targeted for degradation.
yy Disinfection by chlorination or using UV rays may be carried out.
yy Sometimes ozone is used in place of chlorine.
5. Quaternary treatment (In R & D stage)

yy It can be noted that some micro-pollutants may not be degraded in the above three treatments.
10.9
yy Therefore some pharmaceuticals which can have hazardous effects are targeted for removal.
yy As this removal is expensive, this treatment is still in experimental stages. It is generally not carried out
in normal sewage treatment plants.
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Figure 10.7: Anaerobic sludge digester

o
5. Microbes in Energy Production

uj
yy Microbes are used for anaerobic fermentation of biological wastes.

Ed
yy Sludge, dung etc. are sent to a 10-15 feet deep tank.

yy Methanobacteria are present in cow-dung. They
begin to anaerobically ferment the sludge to produce
methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide.
yy The top of the sludge layer is covered by a floating
layer. As the sludge mixture increases in volume, this
cover cannot be of ‘fixed’ type.
yy The gas collected from the tank is called biogas. It
has 50-70% methane and 30-40% carbon dioxide.
yy The calorific value of this mixture is 4429 kcal/m3.
yy This gas is combustible and can be used to power
motors. Figure 10.8: A schematic diagram of a
biogas plant
10.10
yy It has a great potential to be used in automobiles and electricity generation in a very significant manner.
yy A newer technology called MCF or microbial fuel cell can be used directly to generate current from
wastewater. This technology is in experimental stages but many companies have expressed interest in
working on commercializing it in the near future.
Try It Yourself
1. Aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertilizer is
(A) Sahrinizr (B) A zaria (C) Marselia (D) Ptericrkirr
2. Third generation pesticides are
(A) Insects repellents (B) Pheromones
n
(C) Pathogens (D) Insect hormone analogues
.i
6. Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
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yy Insects and pests cause huge losses to farmers.
yy Hence some farmers resort to the spraying of chemicals called insecticides and pesticides.
o
yy These chemicals generally aim to poison the insects that consume the plant.
uj
yy Though effective, these chemicals have tremendous hazardous effects on the environment. They tend
to accumulate in humans or animals consuming the plants on which they were sprayed upon. This
Ed
accumulation can be toxic and can cause various disorders.

yy Hence some farmers prefer to harness the natural predators or pathogens of these insects to keep
their population in check. These natural agents are called biocontrol agents. Microbes can be used as
biocontrol agents.
6.1 Bacillus Thuringiensis

yy This bacterium produces cry toxins which are endo-toxins to some insects like moths, butterflies,
beetles, sawflies etc. which feed on crop plants. Consumption of cry toxins will lead to death of the
insects.
yy Spores of this bacterium can be mixed with water and sprayed on vulnerable plants.
yy The gene for the cry toxin can be inserted into the plant genome thereby making the plant pest resistant.
10.11
6.2 Trichoderma
It is fungus which inhibits growth of harmful fungi by generation of antibiotics or by competition or by inducing
host plant resistance or by parasitism.
6.3 Baculoviruses
yy They are viruses infecting some insects.
yy Thus they can be used as biocontrol agents to reduce insect population.
yy These viruses cannot infect plant cells or cells of animals other than the insects they are targeted
against.
yy The genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV) is mostly used for biocontrol.
7. Microbes as Biofertilisers
n
yy Fertilizers are used to enhance the nutrient profile of the soil with an aim to increase the quality and
.i
quantity of the produce.
yy
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Chemical fertilizers have a lot of harmful effects on the environment which include eutrophication of
water bodies in which they accumulate, acidification of soil or accumulation of toxic metals in the soil.
n
Bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria are microbes that can be used as biofertilisers.
ur
yy
7.1 Bacteria
o
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yy Rhizobia are nitrogen fixing bacteria that form symbiotic association with root nodules of leguminous
plants.
Ed
yy These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which can be efficiently used by plants as
nutrients.
yy Azospirillum and Azotobacter are bacteria that can fix nitrogen without being associated with plant
roots and thereby enrich the nutrient profile of the small region of soil surrounding them.
7.2 Fungi
yy Some fungi can form symbiotic associations with roots of higher plants. These association are known
as Mycorrhiza.
yy Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
10.12
yy The fungus absorbs phosphorus from the soil and passes it to plant roots.
yy Plants having such associations also show an overall increase in plant growth and development along
with resistance to root pathogens and a tolerance to high salinity.
7.3 Cyanobacteria
yy They are a phylum of bacteria that obtain energy by photosynthesis.
yy The genera Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatoria live in soil and carry out nitrogen fixation.
yy They tend to improve the nutrient profile of the soil.
Try It Yourself
1. Baculoviruses are pathogenic to humans. (True/False)
n
2. Bacillus thuringiensis are commonly used as biofertilisers. (True/False)
.i
3. Name three microbes that can improve the nutrient profile of the soil.
n al
ur
Did You Know

1. Pseudomonas putida is used to degrade hydrocarbons after oil spills.
o
2. Rhizobium is used as fertilizer to grow soyabean.

?
uj
3. Florey and Chain shared the Nobel Prize with Fleming as they optimized methods
Ed
for the mass production of penicillin.

4. IARI and KVIC played a major role in the initiation of development of biogas
infrastructure in India.
10.13
Summary
yy Some microbes can live in very challenging environment like hot water springs or polluted water-bodies
while some can produce unique enzymes and carry out unique metabolic pathways.
yy These abilities make them suitable to tackle various environmental and other such problems faced by
humans.
yy Lactobacilli are used in production of curd and cheese while S. cerevisiae is used in the production of
bread and alcoholic beverages.
yy Some organisms from the genus Aspergillus and Streptomyces are used in the commercial production
of antibiotics like penicillin, tetracycline etc.
yy Lipases are used in detergents to remove oily stains. They can be obtained from Geotrichum candidum.
yy Trichoderma polysporum produces cyclosporins which can be used as immunosuppressants.
yy Statins produced by some bacteria are compounds that inhibit cholesterol synthesis.
n
yy Bacteria can be genetically engineered to produce many other proteins/hormones which are used in
.i
medicine.
yy
n al
Organic acids used in healthcare products can also be obtained from bacterial fermentation.
yy Microbes are used in the aerobic fermentation stage of sewage treatment.
ur
yy Microbes are used in the production of biogas.

Bacillus thuringiensis produce a protein which is an endo-toxin to some insects that feed on crops.
o
yy
They can thus be used to keep the pest population in check.
uj
yy The fungus Trichoderma can also be used as a biocontrol agent.

Ed
yy Additionally, Baculoviruses which affect insects can be used to reduce their population.
yy Some bacteria and cyanobacteria can improve the nutrient profile of the soil by carrying out nitrogen
fixation.
yy Some fungi form associations with plant roots. These associations called mycorrhizae improve
phosphorous intake by plants and also offer resistance to root borne pathogens.
10.14
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Identify the colonies labelled as a and b
.i n
(A) a-Fungal; b-Bacterial (B) a-Bacterial; b-Fungal
(C) a-Algal; b-Viral
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(D) a-Fungal; b-Algal
Q.2 Which of the following microbe is made up of protein only?

ur
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Viroid’s (D) Prions

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Q.3 The infectious agents made up of RNA only are

uj
(A) Viroids (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) Virus

Ed
Q.4 Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D
(A) Head, Neck, Collar, Tail (B) Capsule, Tail, Collar, Pins
(C) Head, Collar, Tail, Plate (D) Head, Tail, Collar, Prongs
10.15
Q.5 Microbial colonies

(A) Can be grown on nutritive media (B) Can be seen by naked eyes
(C) Are useful in study of microbes (D) More than one option is correct
Q.6 Match the following (column – I with column -II)

Column – I Column – II
(A)
i. Bacillus
(B)
.i n
n al ii. Cocci
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(C)
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iii. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)

uj
Ed
(D)
iv. Adenovirus
(A) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (B) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (C) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (D) a(i), b(ii), c(ii), d(iv)
Q.7 What is the beneficial role of LAB in our stomach?

(A) Causing souring of milk by decreasing nutritional quality
(B) Increases the amount of vitamin-D
(C) Checks disease causing microbes
(D) It produces alkali which coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins
10.16
Q.8 The microbe used for making bread is

(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (B) Saccharomyces ellipsoidens
(C) Saccharomyces pireformis (D) Saccharomyces sake
Q.9 Which of the following is traditional drink from some parts of southern India, made by fermenting sap
from palms?
(A) Tea (B) Toddy (C) Beer (D) Cashew apple
Q.10 Which of the following microbe is used for ripening of Swiss cheese?
(A) Penicillium roquefortii (B) P. camembertii
(C) Propionibacterium sharmanii (D) Streptomyces griseus
n
Q.11 Production of beverages at industrial scale requires growing microbes in very large containers known
as
.i
(A) Digesters (B) Fermenters
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(C) Dough (D) Concrete tank
Q.12 Find the one w.r.t. distilled alcoholic beverages

ur
(A) Rum (B) Beer (C) Brandy (D) Whisky

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Q.13 Brewer’s yeast is used for ____A____ of malted cereals and fruit juices to produce ___B____.
uj
(A) A-Distillation; B- CO2 (B) A-Distillation; B- organic acid

Ed
(C) A-Fermentation; B- CO (D) A-Fermentation ; B-Alcohol
Q.14 The chemicals which are “pro-life” with reference to human beings
(A) Are regarded as one of the most significant discovery of twenty first century
(B) Have rarely contributed to human welfare
(C) Are produced by some plants and all animals
(D) Can kill or retard the growth of disease-causing microbes
Q.15 Which of the following microbe is the source of first antibiotic?

(A) Penicillium notatum (B) Staphylococci (C) Aspergillus niger (D) Bacillus brevis
10.17
Q.16 The first antibiotic was discovered accidently by ____A___ while working on ____B____
(A) A-Waksman; B-Streptococcus (B) A-Fleming; B-Penicillium notatum
(C) A-Waksman; B-Bacillus brevis (D) A-Fleming; B-Staphylococci
Q.17 Commercial extraction of penicillin was done by

(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Emest Chain
(C) Howard Florey (D) More than one option is correct
Q.18 Identify the correct statements w.r.t. antibiotics

i. Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945.
ii. Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases
iii. Penicillin was used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War I
n
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) All are correct
.i
Q.19 Match the following (column – I with column - II)
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Column I (microbes) Column II (organic acid)
ur
(A) Aspergillus niger i. Butyric acid

(B) Clostridium butylicum ii. Citric acid
o
(C) Acetobacter aceti iii. Lactic acid

uj
(D) Lactobacillus iv. Acetic acid

Ed
(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (B) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (C) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (D) a(iii), b(i), c(iv),d(ii)
Q.20 _______are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from laundry.
(A) Ligases (B) Proteases (C) Lipases (D) Pectinases
Q.21 Select the microbe which is the source of ‘clot buster’ enzyme.
(A) Bacterium; Lactobacillus (B) Fungi; Aspergillus niger
(C) Fungi; Penicillium notatum (D) Bacterium; Streptococcus
Q.22 ___A___enzyme is used to remove clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone
___B___leading to heart attack.
(A) A-Streptokinase; B-Myocardial infraction (B) A-Lipases; B-Arteriosclerosis
(C) A-Proteases; B-Myocardial infraction (D) A-Pectinases; B-Atherosclerosis
10.18
Q.23 The bottled juices are clarified by the use of

(A) Pectinases (B) Proteases (C) Lipases (D) Both A & B
Q.24 An immunosuppressive agent used in organ-transplant patients is

(A) Streptokinase (B) Statins (C) Cyclosporine-A (D) Lipases
Q.25 Trichoderma polysporum is a source of

(A) Cyclosporine – A (B) Streptokinase (C) Statins (D) Clot buster
Q.26 The product of Monascus purpureus has been commercialized as

(A) Immunosuppressive agent (B) Blood- cholesterol lowering agent
(C) Clot buster (D) Bottled juices clarifying agents
.i n
Q.27_____are produced by yeast and act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis
of cholesterol. al
(A) Cyclosporine-A (B) Penicillin (C) Statins (D) Alcohol
n
ur
Q.28 Which of the following statement for sewage is correct?

(A) Municipal waste-water, whose major component is human excreta
o
(B) Contains large amount of organic matter and non-pathogenic microbes

uj
(C) Can be discharged directly into natural water bodies like rivers and streams
Ed
(D) It is generated in less quantities in cities and villages as compared to towns
Q.29 Treatment of waste-water is done by the

(A) Photoautotrophic microbes, naturally present in sewage
(B) Chemoautotrophic microbes, naturally present in sewage
(C) Heterotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage
(D) Heterotrophic microbes inoculated in the sewage from outside only
Q.30 In a sewage from treatment plant, primary treatment is

(A) Physical process which involves sedimentation only.
(B) Physical process which involves both filtration and sedimentation.
(C) Biological process which involves formation of primary sludge and effluent
(D) Biological process which involves both filtration and sedimentation.
10.19
Q.31 During primary treatment, all solids that settle forms ___A___ and the supernatant forms ____B____
(A) A-Primary sludge; B-effluent (B) A-Primary sludge; B-secondary effluent
(C) A-Activated sludge; B-clarified effluent (D) A-Activated sludge; B-effluent
Q.32 What are flocs?

(A) Masses of anaerobic bacteria.
(B) Masses of aerobic fungi only.
(C) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and fungi.
(D) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
Q.33 Which of the following is a bacteria?

(A) Paramoecium (B) E. Coli
n
(C) Amoeba (D) Plasmodium vivax
.i
al
Q.34 All are correct w.r.t. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand), except
n
(A) It refers to the amount of oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in one liter of water
were oxidized by bacteria.
ur
(B) The BOD test is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
o
(C) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting potential.
(D) Waste water is treated till BOD is reduced significantly.
uj
Ed
Q.35 What happens to activated sludge?

(A) It is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers and streams.
(B) It is completely pumped back into aeration tank to serve as inoculums.
(C) The major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters.
(D) It undergoes sequential filtration.
Q.36 The Ministry of Environment and forest has initiated Ganga action plan and Yamuna plan
i. to save these major rivers of our country from pollution
ii. it is proposed to build a large number of sewage treatment plants
iii. under these plans, only treated sewage may be discharged in the river
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct (D) All are correct
10.20
Q.37 Identify the parts labelled A, B & C w.r.t. biogas plant
.i n
(A) Gas, Sludge, Dung water (B) Gas, Gas holder, Digester
al
(C) Gas holder, Sludge, Dung water (D) Gas holder, Digester, Dung water
n
ur
Q.38 What is the composition of the biogas?
(A) Methane, carbon dioxide, oxygen etc.
o
(B) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, nitrogen dioxide etc.

uj
(C) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen etc.

Ed
(D) Methane, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide etc.
Q.39 The bacterium responsible for biogas production are collectively called
(A) Methanogens (B) Thermoacidophiles (C) Halophiles (D) Cyanobacterium
Q.40 The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of
(A) IPM (B) IARI and KVIC (C) IRRI (D) ICAR
Q.41 Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. biogas plant

(A) It consists of a concrete bank, 10-15 feet deep in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung
is fed
(B) A floating cover is placed over the slurry, which keeps on rising as the gas is consumed in the tank
(C) It has an outlet, which is connected to pipe to supply to nearby houses
(D) The spent slurry is removed and may be used as fertilizer
10.21
Q.42 Which of the following is not the belief of an organic farmer?

(A) The more variety a landscape has, the more sustainable it is
(B) The insects that are sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but instead are kept at manageable
levels by a complex system of checks and balances within a living and vibrant ecosystem
(C) For controlling plant diseases and pests, chemicals like insecticides and pesticides should be used
extensively
(D) Eradication of the pests is undesirable because they act as food or hosts for beneficial predatory and
parasitic insects
Q.43 The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful to get rid of ____ and ____ respectively
(A) Caterpillars and mosquitoes (B) Mosquitoes and fruit borer
(C) Mosquitoes and aphids (D) Aphids and mosquitoes
n
Q.44 The effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens are species of
.i
(A) Aspergillus (B) Baculoviruses al
(C) Trichoderma
n (D) Dragonflies
Q.45 Baculoviruses are /have

ur
(A) Pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods

(B) Members of genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus that are never used as biocontrol
o
(C) Species – specific, broad spectrum insecticides

uj
(D) Few negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fishes or even on non-target insects
Ed
Q.46 Identify the incorrect statement

i. Bacillus thuringiensis are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with kerosene and
sprayed on to vulnerable plants
ii. B. thuringiensis are used to control butterfly caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed
iii. The toxin of B. thuringiensis is released in the blood of larvae and the larvae get killed.
iv. By the development of methods of genetic engineering B. thuringiensis toxin genes have been
introduced into plants
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
10.22
Q.47 Biofertilisers
(A) Increase dependence on chemical fertilizers
(B) Are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of soil
(C) Include potash, phosphatic and nitrogenous organic and chemical compounds
(D) Are used regularly in the fields to deplete soil nutrients
Q.48 The main sources of biofertilisers are

i. Bacteria ii. Cyanobacteria iii. Fungi iv. Protists
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Q.49 The symbiotic association of fungi with plants is known as _____ which is formed by many members
of the fungal genus_____.
n
(A) Mycorrhiza; Glomus (B) Mycorrhiza; Penicillium
.i
(C) Lichen; Trebauxia (D) Lichen; Rhizocarpon
al
Q.50 In paddy fields, ______ serves as an important biofertilisers.
n
(A) Rhizobium (B) Anabaena (C) Glomus (D) Azospirillum
ur
Q.51 Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/ diseases using
o
microbes?
uj
(A) Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield

Ed
(B) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard

(C) Trichoderma sp. Against certain plant pathogens
(D) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against while rust in Brassica
Q. 52 Cyanobacteria helps farmers by

(A) Increasing the alkalinity of soil (B) Reducing the acidity of soil
(C) Reducing the alkalinity of soil (D) Water logging
Q.53 One of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect/ pest is that
(A) The method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides
(B) The practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas
(C) The predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest.
(D) The predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment
10.23
Q.54 Cochineal insects have proved very useful for the control of
(A) Cactus (B) Eichhornia (C) Milk weeds (D) Parthenium
Q.55 Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?

(A) Xanthomonas campestris (B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Trichoderma harzianum (D) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
Q.56 Natural insecticide pyrethrum is obtained from

(A) Derris elliptica (B) Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium
(C) Azadirachta indica (D) Nicotiana tobaccum
Q.57 Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for
n
(A) Biological control of plant pathogens (B) Bioremediation of contaminated soils
.i
(C) Reclamation of wastelands (D) Gene transfer in higher plants
al
Q.58 When a natural predator is applied on the other pathogen organism to control them, this process is
n
called
ur
(A) Artificial control (B) Biological control (C) Confusion technique (D) Genetic engineering
o
Q.59 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

uj
(A) Textile - Amylase (B) Detergents - Lipase

Ed
(C) Alcohol - Nitrogenase (D) Fruit juice - Pectinase
Q.60 Match column I and column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(A) Curd i. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(B) Cyclosporine iI. Monascus purpureus
(C) Statins iii. Lactobacillus acidophilus
(D) Bread making iv. Trichoderma polysporum
(A) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (B) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (C) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (D) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
10.24
Q.61 Read the following statement having two blanks (A) and (B). A drug named as _____A____ produced
by ____B____ has been commercialized as blood-cholesterol lowering agents, which acts by competitively
inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
Blank (A) Blank (B)
(A) Cyclosporine A i. Trichoderma polysporum
(B) Statins ii. Monascus purpureus
(C) Penicillin iii. Penicillium notatum
(D) Streptokinase iv. Streptococcus
Q.62 Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them:
(i) Dough, which is used for preparing foods such as Dosa and Idli is fermented by fungi and algae.
(ii) Toddy, a traditional drink of southern India is made by fermenting sap from palms.
n
(iii) Large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large amount of methane by Propionibacterium
.i
sharmanii.
al
(iv) In our stomach, lactic acid bacteria play very beneficial role in checking disease- causing microbes.
n
Which of the two statements have mistakes?
ur
(A) Statements (i) and (iii) (B) Statements (i) and (ii)
(C) Statements (ii) and (iii) (D) Statements (iii) and (iv)
o
uj
Q.63 Vigorous growth of microbes in sewage treatment significantly.

Ed
(A) Reduced BOD (B) Increased BOD

(C) No effect on BOD (D) Decreased in beginning but reduced later on
Q.64 The fungus used to control plant disease is

(A) Trichoderma (B) Aspergillus (C) Penicillium (D) Rhizopus
Q.65 Nucleopolyhedrovirus used as biological control against

(A) Insect (B) Bacteria (C) Fungi (D) All of these
Q.66 Yeast is used in the production of

(A) Bread and beer (B) Cheese and butter
(C) Citric acid and lactic acid (D) Lipase and pectinase
10.25
Q.67 Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of

(A) Citric acid
(B) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
(C) Ethanol
(D) Streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels
Q.68 Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for

(A) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial scale
(B) Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs. about their capacity to carry oxygen.
(C) Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(D) Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
n
Q.69 Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of
.i
(A) Aspergillus (B) Saccharomyces (C) Clostridium
al (D) Trichoderma
n
Q.70 The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
ur
(A) Molasses (B) Corn meal (C) Soya meal (D) Ground gram
o
Q.71 Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

uj
(A) Biological process (B) Physical process (C) Mechanical process (D) Chemical process
Ed
Q.72 Secondary treatment of sewage

(A) Removes grit and large pieces of organic matter
(B) Involves shredding, churning, filtration and sedimentation
(C) Does not require aeration
(D) Involves microbial digestion of organic matter
Q.73 In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of

(A) Butane (B) Methane (C) Propane (D) Carbon dioxide
Q.74 Which bacteria is utilized in gobar gas plant?

(A) Methanogens (B) Nitrifying bacteria
(C) Ammonifying bacteria (D) Denitrifying bacteria
10.26
Q.75 During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following
is left undergraded?
(A) Lipids (B) Lignin (C) Hemi-cellulose (D) Cellulose
Q.76 Bottled fruit juices are clarified by use of

(A) Pectinases and Lipases (B) Pectinases and Proteases
(C) Proteases and Cellulose (D) Cellulose and Amylase
Q.77 Select the correct statement from the following

(A) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is rich source of aerobic
bacteria
(B) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
n
(C) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
.i
(D) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
al
Q.78 Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilizer?
n
(A) Frankia (B) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
ur
(C) Mycorrhiza (D) Azolla pinnata

o
Q.79 Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their
uj
nutrition?
Ed
(A) Glomus (B) Trichoderma (C) Azotobacter (D) Aspergillus
Q.80 A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is

(A) Frankia (B) Tolypothrix (C) Spirulina (D) Anabaena
Q.81 Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?

(A) Mycorrhiza (B) Agrobacterium (C) Rhizobium (D) Nostoc
Q.82 Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
(A) Anabaena (B) Glomus (C) Rhizobium (D) Frankia
Q.83 An organism used as biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is

(A) Nostoc (B) Azotobacter (C) Azospirillium (D) Rhizobium
10.27
Q.84 Consider the following statement (i-iv) about organic farming

(i) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
(ii) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
(iii) Does not use pesticides and urea
(iv) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (ii) and (iii) only (B) (i) and (ii) only (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv) only
Q.85 Which of the following fern is an excellent biofertilizer?

(A) Marsilea (B) Pteridium (C) Azolla (D) Salvinia
Q.86 Which of the following species does not have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen?
.i n
(A) Azotobacter (B) Anabaena (C) Nostoc (D) Spirogyra
Q.87 The biofertilizers are

n al
(A) Anabaena and Azolla (B) Plants belonging to family Fabaceae
ur
(C) Quick growing crop ploughed under soil (D) More than one option is correct
o
Q.88 Consider the following four statements (i-iv) related to organic farming and select the correct option
uj
stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F).
Ed
The statements:
(i) Produces food crops rich in lipids, vitamins and iron
(ii) Uses biofertilisers which increases soil fertility
(iii) There is more use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
(iv) Raising unpolluted crops through the use of bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria
(A) T, T, F, F (B) F, T, F, T (C) T, F, T, F (D) T, F, F, F
Q.89 Continuous degradation of soil fertility is mainly due to

(A) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers (B) No crop rotation
(C) Water logging in soil (D) Water logging in soil
10.28
Q.90 Smoother crops are plants which

(A) Can absorb ground water (B) Show succulent nature of stem, root and leaf
(C) Do not allow weeds to grow (D) Have disease resistance gene
Q.91 The fungal partner of ectomycorrhiza belongs to the class

(A) Basidiomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Zygomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes
Q.92 Choose the correct statement

I. Biofertilisers are chemicals of biological origin.
II. Azospirillum and Azotobacter are symbiotic N2-fixing bacteria.
III. Members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
IV. Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria are found in paddy field.
.i n
(A) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct (B) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct
(C) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct
n al
(D) II, IV are incorrect but I, III are correct
Q.93 Due to which of the following organism, yield of rice increased?

ur
(A) Sesbania (B) Bacillus papilliae (C) Anabaena (D) Bacillus subtilis
o
Q.94 Which of the following is a correct matching of a microbe and its industrial product?
uj
(A) Mortierella renispora - Pectinase

Ed
(B) Aspergillus niger - Streptokinase

(C) Streptococci - Tissue plasminogen activator
(D) Lactobacillus bulgaricus - Gluconic acid
Q.95 A highly aerobic and metabolically versatile organism used in oil-spill clearing is
(A) Mycobacterium smegmatis (B) Azotobacter vinelandii
(C) Pseudomonas putida (D) Leuonostoc mesenteroides
10.29

Q.1 Lactobacillus mediated conversion of milk to curd results because of: [DPMT 2010]
(A) Coagulation and partial digestion of milk fats
(B) Coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins
(C) Coagulation of milk proteins and complete digestion of milk fats
(D) Coagulation of milk fats and complete digestion of milk proteins
Q.2 Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control: [DPMT 2010]

(A) Bacterial pathogens (B) Fungal pathogens
(C) Nematodes (D) Insect pests
n
Q.3 Probiotics are: [DPMT 2010]
.i
(A) Cancer-inducing microbes (B) Safe antibiotics
al
(C) Live microbial food supplements (D) Food allergens
n
ur
Q.4 Which of the following microbes is used for commercial production of ethanol? [DPMT 2010]
(A) Closteridium butylinum (B) Streptococcus
o
(C) Trichoderma polysporum (D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

uj
Ed
Q.5 Penicillin was discovered by: [DPMT 2010]

(A) A. Flemming (B) W. Flemming (C) Blackslee (D) Dodge
Q.6 A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen-fixing symbiont is found in: [CBSE 2011]

(A) Alnus (B) Cycas (C) Cicer (D) Pisum
Q.7 Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer? [CBSE 2011]

(A) Agrobacterium (B) Rhizobium (C) Nostoc (D) Mycorrhiza
Q.8 An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is: [CBSE 2011]
(A) Azotobacter (B) Azospirillum (C) Rhizobium (D) Nostoc
10.30
Q.9 The function of leghameoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is: [CBSE 2011]
(A) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity (B) Oxygen removal
(C) Nodule differentiation (D) Expression of nif gene
Q.10 Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants? [CBSE 2011]
(A) Glomus (B) Rhizobium (C) Frankia (D) Anabaena
Q.11 Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a: [CBSE 2011]

(A) Sulphur rock (B) Cattle yard
(C) Polluted stream (D) Hot spring
Q.12 Cyclosporin – A, which is used as an immunosuppressive agent, is produced by: [Kerala PMT 2011]
n
(A) Aspergillus (B) Clostridium (C) Saccharomyces (D) Monascus
.i
(E) Trichoderma
n al
Q.13 Flemming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Noble Prize in 1945 for the discovery of:
ur
[Kerala PMT 2011]
(A) HIV (B) CT-scan (C) Penicillin (D) Staphylococcus
o
(E) Antibodies
uj
Ed
Q.14 Which among these are produced by distillation of fermented broth? [Kerala PMT 2011]
(i) Whisky (ii) Wine (ii) Beer (iv) Rum (v) Brandy
(A) (ii) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) alone
(C) (iii) and (v) alone (D) (i), (iv) and (v) alone
(E) (iii) and (iv) alone
Q.15 Nitrifying bacteria: [CBSE 2011]

(A) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
(B) Convert proteins into ammonia
(C) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
(D) Oxidise ammonia to nitrates
10.31
Q.16 Ethanol is commercially produced through a peculiar species of: [CBSE 2011]
(A) Clostridium (B) Trichoderma
(C) Aspergillus (D) Saccharomyces
Q.17 Rotenene is a: [DUMET 2011]

(A) Bioherbicide (B) Commonly used biofertilizer
(C) Bionsecticide (D) Juvenile hormone
Q.18 Which of the following plants are used as green manure in crop fields and in sandy soils?
[Mah. CET 2011]
(A) Crotolaria juncea and Alhali comelorum
(B) Crotolaria procera and Phyllanthrus niruvi
n
(C) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
.i
(D) Dichanthum annulatum and Acacia nilotica
n al
Q.19 A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant disease is: [RPMT 2011]
ur
(A) Agrobacterium (B) Glomus

(C) Trichoderma (D) Baculovirus
o
uj
Q.20 In paddy fields, biological nitrogen fixation is chiefly brought by: [RPMT 2011]
Ed
(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Green algae

(C) Mycorrhizae (D) Rhizobium
Q.21 Cyclosporin-A, which is used as an immunosuppressant agent, is produced by:

[Kerala PMT 2011]
(A) Aspergillus (B) Closteridium (C) Saccharomyces
(D) Monascus (E) Trichoderma
Q.22 Food poisoning is caused by: [Mah. CET 2011]

(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Lactobacillus
(C) Escherichia coli (D) None of these
10.32
Q.23 The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to human in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are the ones categorised as: [CBSE 2012]
(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Archaebacteria
(C) Chemosynthesis autotrophs (D) Heterotrophic bacteria
Q.24 Monascus purpureus is a yeast commonly used commercially in production of: [CBSE 2012]
(A) Ethanol
(B) Streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels
(C) Citric acid
(D) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
Q.25 Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their
n
nutrition? [CBSE 2012]
.i
(A) Azotobacter (B) Aspergillus (C) Glomus (D) Trichoderma
al
n
Q.26 Yeast is used in the production of: [CBSE 2012]
ur
(A) Citric acid and lactic acid (B) Lipase and pectinase
(C) Bread and beer (D) Cheese and butter
o
uj
Q.27 A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in the rice fields is: [CBSE 2012]
Ed
(A) Spirullina (B) Anabaena (C) Frankia (D) Tolypothrix
Q.28 Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological of pests/diseases using microbes?
[CBSE 2012]
(A) Trichoderma spp. against certain plant pathogens
(B) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
(C) Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
(D) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
Q.29 Trichoderma is an example of which of the following group of Fungi? [J & K CET 2012]
(A) Phycomycetes (B) Zygomycetes
(C) Deuteromycetes (D) Basidiomycetes
10.33
Q.30 To speed up the malting process in brewing industry, the growth hormone used is: [AMU 2012]
(A) Auxin (B) Gibberllic acid
(C) Kinetin (D) Ethylene
Q.31 Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd and improve its nutritional quality by
increasing: [AMU 2012]
(A) Vitamin-A (B) Vitamin-B12
(C) Vitamin – B1 (D) Vitamin – C and A
Q.32 An alga which can be employed as food for human being is: [AIPMT 2014]
(A) Spirogyra (B) Polysiphonia
(C) Ulothrix (D) Chlorella
.i n
Q.33 What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters? [AIPMT 2014]
(A) methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
n al
(B) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
ur
(C) Methane and CO2 only

(D) methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
o
uj
Q.34 Which of the following is included in bioinsecticide? [Manipur Board 2014]

Ed
(A) Viruses and bacteria

(B) Viruses, bacteria and fungi
(C) Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoans and mites
(D) Viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa
10.34
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 D Q.6 B
Q.7 C Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 C Q.11 B Q.12 B
Q.13 D Q.14 D Q.15 A Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 A
Q.19 B Q.20 C Q.21 D Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 C
Q.25 A Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 A Q.29 C Q.30 B
Q.31 A Q.32 D Q.33 B Q.34 C Q.35 C Q.36 D
n
Q.37 B Q.38 C Q.39 A Q.40 B Q.41 B Q.42 C
.i
Q.43 D Q.44 C Q.45 A Q.46 C Q.47 B Q.48 A
Q.49 A Q.50 B Q.51 A
n al
Q.52 C Q.53 D Q.54 A
Q.55 A Q.56 B Q.57 A Q.58 B Q.59 C Q.60 B
ur
Q.61 B Q.62 A Q.63 A Q.64 A Q.65 A Q.66 A

Q.67 B Q.68 C Q.69 B Q.70 A Q.71 A Q.72 D
o
Q.73 B Q.74 A Q.75 B Q.76 B Q.77 A Q.78 D

uj
Q.79 A Q.80 D Q.81 B Q.82 B Q.83 D Q.84 A

Ed
Q.85 C Q.86 D Q.87 A Q.88 B Q.89 D Q.90 C

Q.91 A Q.92 A Q.93 C Q.94 C Q.95 C

Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 A Q.6 B
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 B Q.10 A Q.11 B Q.12 E
Q.13 C Q.14 D Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 C Q.18 A
Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 E Q.22 B Q.23 D Q.24 D
Q.25 C Q.26 C Q.27 B Q.28 A Q.29 C Q.30 B
Q.31 B Q.32 D Q.33 D Q.34 B
O O
|VOL.V |Unit 5
.in
al
rn
Organisms and
ou
Populations
uj
Ed
13.1
CHAPTER 13
ORGANISMS AND
n
POPULATIONS
.i
al
n
1. Introduction
ur
Topics Discussed
y In the previous chapter we have tried to
INTRODUCTION analyze the organization of living organisms
o
on a molecular, cellular, tissue, organ and

LEVELS OF ORGANIZATION
uj
organ system level.

ORGANISM AND ITS ENVIRONMENT This chapter focuses on the interactions and
Ed
y
HABITAT AND NICHE various characteristics of organisms and their
population.
POPULATIONS
y Ecology is the study of the interaction of
INTERACTIONS organisms with their environment.
POPULATION ATTRIBUTES
13.2
Organisms and Populations
Objectives
y To understand the concepts of population, habitat, niche etc.
y To study various interactions like mutualism, commensalism etc.
y To note the various aspects of the population, e.g., death rate, birth rate etc.
2. Levels of Organization
The various levels of ecological organization of organisms are- organism, population, community, biome
and biosphere.
1. Organisms
Any living thing is an organism.
n
2. Population
.i
A population is defined as a set of all organisms of a particular species or group which are capable of
3. Community
n al
interbreeding and reside in a particular geographical area.
A community (in terms of ecology) is an assemblage of population of two or more different species
ur
residing in a particular geographical area. The populations in the community may exhibit various levels of
interdependence and various interactions like competition, predation, amensalism etc.
o
4. Biome
uj
They are regions of the world with similar climate and flora and fauna.
Ed
5. Biosphere
The set of ecosystems on the earth is termed as a biome.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. A set of all organisms of a particular species or group which are capable of interbreeding
and reside in a particular geographical area is called ________ (Population/Biome)
2. Populations in a community never show any inter-dependence. (True/False)
3. Environment does not consist of abiotic factors. (True/False)
3. Organism and its Environment

y The set of biotic and abiotic factors around an organism is termed as its environment.
y These factors have a major impact on the various life processes and also the ‘behavioral traits’ exhibited
by the organism.
13.3
y Regional and local variations within each biome lead to the formation of wide variety of habitats.
y Organisms thrive in soaked rainforests as well as in dry deserts. Living beings are found deep inside
oceans as well as on high altitudes on mountains.
y Bacteria thrive inside the intestines of many animals.
y Abiotic environment includes three categories of factors- climatic, edaphic and topographic.
y Climatic factors are light, temperature, water and wind.
y Edaphic factors are factors related to soil.
y Topographic factors are the aspects related to altitude, slope etc., which are concerned with the surface
of the earth.
y Many organisms from the environment may interact with an organism. Some interactions may be beneficial
while some may be detrimental to an organism. Some interactions may even cause death (predation).
y Organisms generally adapt (or in a sense evolve in accordance with) the biotic and abiotic factors.
y Thus, it can be noted that biotic as well as abiotic factors have a great impact upon an organism.
.i n
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
al
Given is a short description of various types of environments/biomes/ecosystems
n
Table 13.1: Biomes and their brief description
ur
Sr. No. Biome Location Features

1 T r o p i c a l Equatorial and sub- y Rich in biodiversity
o
Rainforest equatorial region y 30-40 m tall trees

uj
of central America, y 4-5 strata

South America, parts
of Africa, Southeast y Buttress roots
Ed
Asia. y Drip tips

y E.g. Woody climbers and Epiphytes
2 Coniferous Cold temperate y 30-35 m tall trees
f o r e s t / region of Asia, North y Coniferous trees
Temperate America, Europe, y Evergreen trees
needle leaf/ South of tundra.
y Leaves long needle like
Taiga
y E.g., Pine, (Pinus), Deodar (Cedrus,)
Cypress (Cupressus), Silver fir
(Abies)
3 Temperate Temperate areas of y 25-30 m tall trees
broad leaf America, Europe, y Deciduous trees
forest Asia, New Zealand, y Broad leaf
Australia
y E.g. Several species of oak..
13.4
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
4 Grassland Steppes – Russia y Tree less biome
Prairies – N. America y Grasses (Poaceae)
Pampas – S. America y E.g., Non graminaceous herbs
Veldts – S. Africa mostly legumes.
Tussocks – New
Zealand
Dawns – Australia
5 Tundra North – Arctic tundra y Permafrost (sub soil remains frozen)
South – Absent y Scantly vegetation
n
y Trees absent
.i
y Grasses, sedges, mosses and lichens
n al y
present.
E.g., Birches (Betula) and Willows
(Salix)
ur
6 Desert Cold desert – Tibet, y Vegetation sparse. Three types of plants.

Gobi y Ephemerals or short lived annuals
o
Hot desert – Thar, herbs

uj
Sahara y Succulent xerophytes

Ed
y Deep rooted shrubs and small trees

E.g., Prosophis, Salvadora, Tamarix,
Cenchrus is a desert grass.
These are some characters that highlight the difference between these environments.
Table 13.2: Some distinguishing characters of biomes
Sr. no. Type of Biome Mean Annual Mean annual Important vegetation
o
temperature ( C) rainfall (mm)
1. Tropical rain forest 23-27 2000-3500 Dipterocarpus, Hopea
2. Tropical deciduous forest 22-32 900-1600 Sal, Teak, Tendu,
Chiraunji, Khair.
3. Temperate broad-leaf forest 6-20 1000-2500 Oak (Quercus)
4. Temperate needle leaf forest 6-15 500-1700 Pine, Deodar, Cypress,
Spruce, Silver fir
13.5
n
Figure 13.1: Biomes represented with respect to temperature and rainfall
.i
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 13.2: Tropical rainforest Figure 13.3: Desert
Figure 13.4: Beach

13.6
3.1 Major Abiotic Factors

3.1.1 Temperature
y Temperature decreases as one moves away from the equator or the ground surface.
y Every organism has some structural proteins and enzymes.
y Enzymes display optimum activity in a certain temperature range. At temperatures below and above
this range the enzymes are not efficient. At higher temperatures, proteins denature.
y This indicates that the temperature is an important aspect that will decide what type of organisms
survive in an environment and also what type of organisms flourish.
y In recent years, there has been a growing concern about the gradually increasing average global
temperatures (global warming).
y It is predicted that global warming will push tropics into temperate areas and temperate areas towards
the poles and higher altitudes in mountains. This may bring about a change in species distribution
n
across the biosphere.
.i
y Thus temperature is an important factor of the environment.
al
Based upon thermal tolerance, organisms are classified into two categories-
n
y Stenothermal organisms: Stenothermal organisms live in areas where the temperature is uniform
ur
throughout the year. They cannot tolerate large temperature variation. Majority of organisms belong to
this category.
o
y Eurythermal organisms: They can thrive in a wide range of temperature. E.g., Desert pupfish
uj
(can live in water at 4-45 ºC.)

Ed
3.1.2 Water
y Water is one of the most important requirements of living organisms.
y The solvent properties of water are important for many biological processes.
y Water is an important part of the photosynthesis process.
y Aquatic organisms breathe via the oxygen dissolved in water.
y Water covers 70-71% of the earth’s surface.
y Water also has a qualitative aspects associated with it. The pH, purity, temperature, salinity, flow or
stagnation of water is also important.
Based up on salinity tolerance, organisms are classified into two categories:
y Stenohaline organisms: They are organisms which are restricted to a narrow range of salinity. Due to
osmotic problems and lack of adaptations, many fresh water animals cannot live for long in sea water
and vice versa. E.g., Sharks (most species do not thrive in freshwater).
y Euryhaline organisms-They are organisms which can tolerate a wide range of salinity. E.g., Salmon.
13.7
3.1.3 Light
y Light is required for photosynthesis, which is perhaps the most important life process on the planet.
y Photosynthetically active radiations (PAR) have a range of 400-700 nm.
y Many plants depend on sunlight to meet their photoperiodic requirement for flowering.
y Light affects growth, movement and reproduction in plants.
y Marine plants thriving at different depths of the oceans, not receive all the components of the visible
spectrum. The vertical and horizontal distributions of red, green and brown algae are dependent on the
availability of sunlight.
y The vertical distribution of red, brown and green algae can be explained by their accessory photosynthetic
pigments. These are the pigments which give the sea weeds their characteristic colours (chromatic
adaptation).
y The accessory pigments of red algae absorb mostly green wavelengths. Blue-green light penetrates
n
deepest in coastal waters and therefore it is seen that red algae extend to the greatest depths the
.i
oceans.
n al
y Green algae have pigments absorbing mostly blue and red wavelengths that do not penetrate much in
seawater. Hence green algae are found near the surface of the water.
ur
y The accessory pigments of brown algae absorb intermediate wavelengths of light therefore brown
algae would be expected to be most abundant at intermediate depths.
o
y Many animals use the diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and duration as parameters for
uj
various activities involved with reproduction, migration etc.

y X-rays, gamma rays, UV rays can harm organisms by causing mutations and by other mechanisms.
Ed
Depending upon requirement of light intensity, plants are of two types

y Heliophytes: They require high intensity light. E.g., Sugarcane, Sunflower etc.
y Sciophytes: They require low intensity light and grow in shaded areas. E.g., Day blooming Jasmine
(Din ka raja).
3.1.4 Soil
y Soil is the combination of rock, mineral fragments, organic matter (dead and living), water and air.
y It is a nutrient medium for the growth of plants which are major food sources for humans and many
other animals.
y The pH, composition and consistency of soil greatly influences the plants thriving in the region. This
thereby influences the animals that thrive in the region (only those animals which can feed upon those
plants and their predators).
13.8
Flowchart 13.1: Abiotic factors
3.2 Responses to Abiotic Factors

y Factors like temperature can vary across the year.
.i n
y An organism must ensure that its biochemical processes and physiological functions proceed at optimal
rates. al
y An organism can be classified as a regulator, conformer or a partial regulator based on the processes
n
it carries out to ensure the above.
ur
y If the organism fails to do so, it will have a low reproductive rate and its population will tend to decrease.
It may not survive the conditions and even become extinct.
o
Types of organisms-
uj
1) Regulators-
Ed
y These are organisms that are able to regulate their body temperature and/or salt concentration.
y All birds and mammals and some lower vertebrate and invertebrate species, are able to maintain a
constant body temperature (thermoregulation), constant osmotic concentration (osmoregulation) etc.
by behavioral and/or physiological changes.
y Plants do not have mechanisms to maintain internal temperatures.
y In humans, evaporation of sweat cools down the body while shivering tends to heat it up.
y Some fishes migrate from freshwater to sea-water or vice versa. Some of them are able to maintain the
salinity levels in their bodies with the help of kidneys and associated structures.
y Increase in metabolism also tends to heat the body up.
y These mechanisms are widely credited for the evolutionary success of mammals.
2) Conformers-
y Majority of the organisms cannot regulate their physiological temperatures etc.
13.9
y It has to be noted that regulation is a metabolically and energetically expensive phenomenon.

y Its energetic requirements simply cannot be met by some organisms (mostly small organisms).
y This is the reason why conformers did not evolve to possess the abilities of regulators.
3) Partial regulators-
y Some species have evolved the ability to regulate only over a limited range of environmental conditions.
Beyond these conditions they simply conform. These organisms are known as partial or limited
regulators.
.i n
n al
Figure 13.5: Responses to abiotic factors
ur
Organisms follow two other alternatives to overcome adverse environmental conditions-

o
1) Migration-
uj
y Some organisms move away from the stressful habitat for some period of time to a more hospitable
area and return when the stressful period is over.
Ed
y During winter many animals and birds, undertake long distance migrations to move to hospitable areas.
y E.g., every winter the famous Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur) in Rajasthan hosts thousands of
migratory birds coming from Siberia and other cold northern regions.
2) Suspension-
y The organism changes it’s developmental, physiological, structural, and biochemical behavior to pass
through unfavorable conditions during a stage called suspension.
y Perennating structures may be produced by organisms to overcome adverse environmental conditions.
y Thick-walled spores are formed in bacteria, fungi and lower plants (algae).
y Higher plants produce dormant structures like seeds and other vegetative propagules. These structures
germinate and produce new organisms when conditions become favorable.
y Bears and some rodents undergo hibernation (winter sleep) and some organisms like snails undergo
aestivation (summer sleep).
y Some zooplankton also undergo a process of metabolic suppression called diapause.
13.10
3.3 Adaptations
y Adaptations are changes in the physiology or biochemistry of an organism that help it to cope with the
environmental condition. These changes may not be temporary as such. Examples of adaptations-
y Kangaroo rats, which live in North American deserts are capable of meeting their water requirements
through their internal fat oxidation where water is released as a by-product. Its urine is concentrated to
minimize water loss due to excretion.
y Mammals from colder regions have small ears (extremities) to minimize heat loss.
y Xerophytes have spines in place of leaves and deeply situated stomata to minimize water loss.
E.g., Opuntia.
y A thick layer of fat (blubber) is found below the skin of polar seals. This layer acts as an insulator and
reduces heat loss.
y Archaebacteria synthesize special proteins which do not denature but on the other hand exhibit optimum
functional efficiency at high temperatures. It should be noted that proteins are not the only adaptations.
n
y Antarctic fishes have body fluids containing antifreeze solutes due to which they can manage to keep
.i
their body fluids from freezing.
al
4. Habitat and Niche
n
ur
Habitat-
y It refers to the natural environment of an organism or species.
o
y A habitat is the specific physical place in which an organism lives.

uj
Niche-
Ed
y The ecological niche of an organism describes the role of the organism and how it interacts with the
environment and other organisms.
y It is based on the physiology, the biochemical needs of an organism and the way in which they are met by it.
Difference-
y The habitat of an organism is its preferred place of residence while the location as well as its role in the
environment collectively form a niche.
y Every species has a unique niche in the environment.
y If organisms of different species occupy the same niche, one of them will cause the other to totally or
partially leave the niche. This may not happen in case of occupying the same habitat.
y The survival of an organism depends on it having a unique niche or it being the ‘fittest’ one to occupy its niche.
y A habitat may have several niches. Organisms of more than one species may live in the habitat.
13.11
y The habitat of a red squirrel tends to be a coniferous forest. A red squirrel spends much of its time
searching for nuts and seeds, builds its nest in trees, and functions as a food source for the great
horned owl. It also fulfills an important role in the forest by spreading and burying seeds which later
germinate into trees.
y Different species of trees growing in the same forest (having the same habitat) may occupy different
ecological niches.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Name the major abiotic factors affecting the environment.
2. Temperature increases as one moves away from the ground surface. (True/False).
3. Kangaroo rat meets its water requirements by internal ___ oxidization. (Salt/Fat).
4. Xerophytes have _____. (spines/broad leaves)
n
5. Red algae are found at intermediate ocean depths. (True/False)
.i
n al
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
ur
y Mimicry is the resemblance of an organism to another or to natural objects which are
commonly found in its environment. During mimicry the subject is known as mimic and the
o
object it copies is called the model.

uj
y In Batesian mimicry, the mimic is palatable and model is unpalatable. E.g. Viceroy
butterfly mimics unpalatable toxic Monarch butterfly.
Ed
y In Mullerian mimicry, two or more unpalatable species attempt to resemble each other.
For example, Monarch butterfly and Queen butterfly.
y Edge effect is the phenomenon where species of organisms have evolved which can live
on the border between two ecosystems. These species are called as the edge species.
(Not to be confused with EDGE species).
y Ecological equivalents are organisms that occupy similar ecological niches in different
geographical regions.
y Bergman’s Rule- Warm-blooded animals (birds and mammals) have larger body size in
colder climates than in hotter areas.
y Rensh’s Rule- In colder climate, birds possess narrow and acuminate wings as compared
to broader wings of birds in warmer areas.
y Jordan’s Rule- As the temperature is lowered, some meristic (countable) features of fish
may increase. E.g., scales fins etc.
13.12
5. Population Attributes and Population Growth

y A population can be defined as a set of organisms of a species occupying a particular geographical
area, at a particular point of time, sharing and/or competing for similar resources.
y These organisms have no restrictions on interbreeding.
y They are isolated to from other similar groups of organisms.
y Although the term interbreeding implies sexual reproduction, a group of organisms resulting from
asexual reproduction is also considered as population.
y Natural selection operates at population level to select the desired traits. Population ecology is,
therefore, an important area of ecology.
5.1 Population Attributes

A population has some characteristics termed as attributes. Some of them are-
.i n
5.1.1 Birth Rate
y
al
It can be loosely defined as the number of new organisms getting added to a population due to
reproduction per total number of organisms in a population in a specific period.
n
It indicates how fast or slow the population is growing.
ur
y
y If in a pond there were 40 frogs last year. 10 new frogs got added due to reproduction, taking the
o
current population to 50. The birth rate is 10/40 = 0.25 offspring per frog per year.
uj
y Formula- Birth rate = ∆N/(N.∆t) Here, ∆N is the change in population (number), N is the population
(number) and ∆t is the time period in which the change took place.
Ed
5.1.2 Death Rate

y It can be loosely defined as the number of organisms getting reduced from a population due to deaths
occurring, per total number of organisms in a population, in a specific period.
y It indicates how fast or slow the population is reducing.
y If in a pond there were 40 frogs last year. 10 frogs got reduced as they died, taking the current population
to 30. The death rate is 10/40 = 0.25 frogs per frog per year.
y Formula- Death rate = ∆N/(N.∆t). Here, ∆N is the change in population (number), N is the population
(number) and ∆t is the time period in which the change took place
13.13
5.1.3 Sex Ratio

y In simple terms, it is the ratio of the number of females to the number of males.
y In most sexual species it is observed to be close to 1:1.
y Generally, having higher number of females may mean higher growth rate than higher number of
males.
y In humans it is believed to be 1.06 (males): 1 (female) but these values are debated and may not be
accurate.
5.1.4 Population Age Distribution Profiles

y There can be 3 stages in the life of an organism- pre-reproductive age, reproductive age and post-
reproductive age.
Age pyramids are commonly used to represent the age profile of the population.
n
y
.i
y It is a graphic representation of proportion of various age groups of a population.
y
y
al
Generally in human populations, males and females are not represented separately.
The shape of the pyramids reflect the growth status of the population.
n
y There are three types of age pyramids.
ur
1) Triangular pyramid
o
y The basal region of the triangle is the pre reproductive population.

uj
y The region near the vertex opposite to the base is the post reproductive population.
Ed
y The region in the middle is the population in the reproductive age.

y It can thus be concluded that the birth rate will rise once the pre-reproductive population grows and the
death rate will be relatively low.
y Thus the population will continue to grow.
2) Bell- shaped diagram

y Here the base of the triangle is not very broad. Area wise, the basal region is marginally greater than
the middle region.
y Thus, the number of pre-reproductive individuals is nearly equal to the number of reproductive
individuals. Thus there will not be a significant increase in the birthrate.
y Thus, the population will be stable. Its growth rate will be less than that of the same number with a
pyramidal profile.
13.14
3) Urn-shaped diagram
y The number of individuals in the pre-reproductive age is significantly lesser than the individuals in
reproductive age.
y Thus the birth-rate can be predicted to decline.
y Thus the population may even reduce.
A B C
Figure 13.6: Representation of age distribution for human population. A. Pyramidal (left),
B. Bell shaped (middle), C. Urn shaped (right)
.i n
5.1.5 Population Size
Can be defined with various parameters.
n al
1) Population number
ur
y It is the number of organisms in a population.
y Change in the population size can be used to analyze the effects of various processes, for example the
o
population of pests before and after the use of pesticides.

uj
2) Biomass or percent cover

Ed
y Some times the number of organisms is not the most appropriate measure of the population size. At
such times, the biomass may be considered.
y E.g., the ecological significance of a huge banyan tree cannot be underestimated on the basis of a fact
that other small plants greatly outnumber it.
3) Relative density
y Relative density of a species = Total number of individuals of the particular species / Total number of
individuals of all species x 100
y This parameter can be used to judge the ecological ‘success’ of the species in that particular habitat.
4) Indirect count
y Indirect counts are used when it is not possible to measure the population by direct counting.
E.g. pug marks or fecal pellets for estimating the count of tigers.
13.15
5.2 Population Growth

y There are various parameters that can offer clues regarding the fate of a population in the near future.
These parameters can also be used to analyze the causes and/or effects of certain phenomena.
y Natality is the number of individuals added to a population due to new births.
y Mortality is the reduction in population number due to deaths.
y Emigration is the reduction in population due to individuals moving out of the particular geographical area.
y Immigration is the increase in population occurring due to moving in of individuals of the same species
from another geographical area.
y Natality and mortality are generally more significant that immigration or emigration except in cases
where the original population itself is very low.
y Density of a population (N0) at time t0 can be expressed after a period of time t1 as :
n
N1 = N0 + [(B+I)-(D+E)]
.i
B- Number of births,
D-Number of deaths,
I-Number of immigrants,
n al
E-Number of emigrants
ur
Population size will increase; if number of (B+I)> number of (D+E)

Population size will reduce; if number of (B+I) < number of (D+E)
o
uj
Ed
Flowchart 13.2: Representation of effect of births, deaths, immigrations and emigrations.

13.16
5.2.1 Growth Models

1) Exponential growth
y The population of a species grows exponentially when the habitat has unlimited resources and no
competition.
y The intrinsic rate of natural increase is called as biotic potential (r). The value of r is an important
parameter to assess impact of environmental factors on population growth.
y Any species growing exponentially under non-limiting resource conditions can reach enormous
population densities in a short time.
Important aspects of exponential growth-
Any increase or decrease in a population (N0) during time t will be
dN/dt= (b-d) x N0,
n
b= per capita birth rate,
.i
d= per capita death rate,
If (b-d) = r, then
n al
dN/dt= rN
ur
In case when dN/dt= rN, a J-shaped curve may be obtained

The integral form of exponential growth equation will be
o
Nt= Noert,
uj
Where, Nt= Population density after time t

Ed
No = Population density at time zero

e=The base of natural logarithms (2.71828)
The magnitude of r was 0.0205 in 1981 for human population in India while it reached 0.0176 in 2001. The
magnitude of r values for Norway rat is 0.015 and flour beetle it is 0.12.
13.17
Figure 13.7: Population growth curve (a) when resources are not limiting the growth, plot is exponential,
(b) when resources are limiting the growth, plot is logistic, K is carrying capacity
.i n
2) Logistic growth
al
y This type of growth is seen when the habitat provides limited resources.
n
y The population number cannot cross a specific higher number. This natural limit for that species in that
habitat is called carrying capacity (K).
ur
y It influences the growth rate in a manner of (K–N)/K. N is the population. Thus the resistance to growth
o
increases as the population increases.

uj
y Limited resources may also mean competition between individuals. Thus only the fit individuals will
survive and reproduce.
Ed
y The sum of environmental factors that limit the population size is called environmental resistance.
Environmental resistance rises with the increase in population size.
y Since natural resources required for the growth of most animal populations are not unlimited and
become limiting sooner or later, the logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.
Important aspects of logistic growth-

y Any population generally shows an initial lag phase in its growth. This may happen because the
individuals have to get adjusted to the new habitat.
y Followed by the lag phase is the phase of accelerated growth.
y After the lag phase arises a stationary phase where the population number does not vary greatly. It may
be observed that in this phase the birth rate and death rate are approximately equal.
y Following the stationary phase may be a decline phase where the population reduces. (May not always
be seen).
13.18
y Logistic growth is thus represented by a sigmoid curve where the base is the lag phase and the top is
the stationary phase.
y This type of population growth is called Verhulst Pearl Logistic Growth.
y It is described by the equation-
dN/dt= rN (K-N)/K
Where,
N= Population density at time t
r= Intrinsic rate of natural increase
K= Carrying capacity
The integral form of logistic growth equation will be
N1= Noer[(K-N)/K]t
.i n
5.2.2 Variations in Modes of Reproduction
y
n al
Organisms vary with respect to their modes of reproduction.
y Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime E.g., Pacific salmon.
ur
y Some others can breed nearly throughout their lifespan. E.g., Humans.
y Some organisms produce several large sized offspring. E.g., Pelagic (open sea) fishes.
o
y Some others produce less number of large sized offspring. E.g., Mammals.
uj
y All this is done in accordance to the biotic and abiotic factors influencing the organism.
Ed
y The organism tries to keep its reproductive rate at the maximum. This is called maintenance of
Darwinian fitness.
DID YOU KNOW

? y The (human) population of the world is estimated to be 7265 million.
y The (human) population of India is estimated to be 1252 million.
13.19
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. ____________ leads to increase in population. (Immigration/Emigration).
2. Theoretically number of males should be more than females in any sexually reproducing
organism. (True/False).
3. If birth rate is less than death rate, the population will __________. (Increase/Decrease)
6. Population Interactions
y It should be noted that very rarely do organisms live completely isolated from other organisms.
y In nature, many niches may exist with the same habitat.
n
y Organisms tend to interact with other organisms of their own or of other species.
.i
y These interactions may be- 1) Beneficial (positive interaction). 2) Detrimental (negative interactions), 3)
Some of these interactions are-

n al
Neutral (neither beneficial nor harmful) to one of the species or both.
ur
6.1 Mutualism
o
y This interaction is beneficial to both the interacting organisms.

uj
y In general the interacting organisms are in close association with each other.
y Examples of plant and fungal mutualism-
Ed
1) Lichens-
A fungus and photosynthesizing green algae and/or cyanobacteria form a close association where
the Algal partner (phycobiont) produces food through photosynthesis whereas fungal partner
(mycobiont) absorb nutrients from soil.
2) Mycorrhizae: It is a relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants. Fungi absorb phosphate
nutrients from soil while the plant in turn provides carbohydrates to the fungi.
y Examples of Plant-animal mutualism: Plants need help of animals for pollinating their flowers (zoophily)
and dispersing their seeds (Zoochory). Plants in turn offer pollen and nectar for pollinators and nutritious
fruits for seed dispersers.
y Co-evolution is often seen in plant – animal interactions. Co-evolution is an evolutionary mechanism
where the evolution in one species is triggered by the evolution in another.
y The evolution of the flower and its pollinator species are tightly linked with one another. E.g.-
13.20
Fig and Fig wasp

For each species of fig there occurs a partner wasp species without which pollination cannot occur.
Female wasp uses the fig fruit as an egg laying or oviposition site. It also caters to nourishing its larvae.
The wasp thus pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-laying (oviposition) sites.
6.2 Competition
y It is the interaction of organisms striving to utilize the same resource.
y Competition amongst the individuals of same species for one or more common resources is termed as
intraspecific competition.
y Competition between the organisms of different species is called interspecific competition.
y Intraspecific competition is more acute because all organisms of the same species have similar
requirements for food and other resources. They also employ the same processes to utilize the resources.
n
y Gause, a Russian biologist carried out experiments to study competition.
.i
y Sometimes, competition may exist even when the resources are not limiting.
y
n al
Sometimes the feeding efficiency of an organism may drop down due the presence of its competitor.
This is called interference competition.
ur
y Competition can also be termed as a process in which fitness of one species (measured in terms of its
‘r’) is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
o
y It is seen that plants and herbivores are affected more due to competition.
uj
y Competition can take two forms.

Ed
(a) Competitive exclusion

(b) Competitive co-existence
a) Competitive exclusion-
y In this case the organism and species completely inferior to the stronger one is not able to survive after
some period of time.
y Example- Gause’s experiment with ciliates. Paramecium caudatum and Paramecium aurelia,
two closely related ciliate protozoans, when grown in separate cultures exhibited sigmoid population
growth. When both protozoans were inoculated in the same culture, P. aurelia alone survived after 16
days and thus ‘out competed’ or ’excluded’ P. caudatum for the limited resources.
y Introduction of goats on Galapagos islands in 1958, resulted in exclusion of Abingdon tortoise as goats
ate up vegetation faster.
b) Competitive co-existence-
13.21
y Sometimes the weaker organisms may be able to co-exist without getting extinct due to the stronger
species.
y Most notable examples of this phenomenon are the ‘Darwin’s finches’. They finches have developed
different feeding habits to co-exist without getting extinct.
y Warblers also avoid competition by changing foraging patterns.
6.3 Predation
y It is the act in which a predator organism feeds on a victim called prey. It may or may not result in the
death of the prey. (Mostly it does).
y It is a mechanism by which energy fixed by plants moves to the higher trophic levels.
y Example- tigers feed on deer.
y Predators play important roles in ecosystem.
n
y They help to keep the prey population under check.
.i
y They help to maintain species diversity in a community by reducing the intensity of competition among
competing prey species.
n al
Examples-
ur
y Grazers of a grassland may prevent a single dominant species from taking over.
y The elimination of wolves from Yellowstone National Park led to herbivores over-grazing many woody
o
browse species, affecting the area’s plant populations.

uj
y In addition, wolves often kept animals from grazing in riparian areas, which protected the food of
beavers. The removal of wolves had a direct effect on beaver populations, as their habitat became
Ed
territory for grazing.

Some aspects of predation-
y Prudent-predators: The predators that succeed in refraining from over- exploitation of their prey,
are described as “prudent” - and making “efficient” use of their prey. If they fail to do so, the prey will
become extinct and so will the predator.
y Evolution of various defenses (adaptations) in prey: With an aim to escape predation, preys
develop different defense mechanisms.
Camouflage- The organism visually resembles various natural objects commonly found in their
environment. It occurs in some species of insects and frogs to avoid their easy detection by the
predator. This also may help a predator achieve stealth.
Chemical defense- Some prey species are poisonous or have chemicals that make them
distasteful. Monarch butterfly is avoided by its predators because of a special chemical in its body
which makes it highly distasteful. This chemical is acquired from a poisonous weed.
Presence of thorns in plants- Such features make the plant highly less desirable for consumption.
13.22
E.g., cactuses
Production and storage of toxins- The herbivore may fall ill or even die when these plants are
consumed making them less likely to be eaten.
6.4 Parasitism
y Parasitism is an interaction between two organisms, where one organism spends a part or whole of its
life, on or inside the body of other organism for getting nourishment and shelter.
y The feeder organism is termed as parasite and the nutrition source organism as the host.
y Only one species benefits (parasite) while the interaction is detrimental to the other species (host).
y Many parasites are host-specific (they can parasitize only a single species of host).
y Parasites and hosts tend to co-evolve
y If the host evolves special mechanisms for defense against the parasite, the parasite in turn evolves
to gain mechanisms to counteract and neutralize the host defense in order to be successful with the
n
same host species.
.i
y Parasites which parasitize other parasites are called hyperparasites.
Adaptations shown by parasites-

n al
1. Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
ur
2. Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on the host

o
3. Loss of digestive system as they may feed on processed form of nutrients

uj
4. High reproductive capacity

5. Complex life cycle involving one or two intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate parasitization of its
Ed
main hosts e.g., Plasmodium used mosquitoes to infect humans.

It can be noted that points 1 and 3 help to reduce the energy requirements of the organism, thereby
contributing to the improvement in reproductory rate.
Impact that a parasite may have on hosts-
1. They may end up leaving the host dead.
2. They may also reduce the growth and reproduction of host thereby reducing their population density.
3. They may render the host more vulnerable to predation by making it weak.
An ideal parasite may thrive within the host without adversely harming it.
Based upon their occurrence with respect to the host body, parasites can be of two types-
1) Ectoparasites: They interact with the external surface of the host organism. They do not live inside the
host. E.g., lice on humans, ticks on dogs, copepods on marine fishes, Cuscuta (a non-green colour plant)
on hedge plants. It has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of evolution.
13.23
2) Endoparasites: Parasites that live inside the host body are termed as endoparasites. They generally
have developed highly specialized life processes as they need to survive inside hosts some of which have
a very potent immune system. Their life cycles may be complex. E.g., liverfluke
3) Brood Parasitism: Some birds lay their eggs in the nests of other birds which incubate them. E.g.,
cuckoo lays its eggs in a crow’s nest. The eggs of the parasite birds resemble the host’s eggs in size and
colour thereby reducing the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the
nest. This is an evolutionary mechanism.
6.5 Commensalism
y Commensalism is the interaction in which one species benefits and other is neither harmed nor
benefited.
y The species which is benefitted is termed commensal and the other species is called host.
y Commensalism is observed in diverse type of animals and plants.
n
Some examples of commensalism are as follow-
.i
y
al
1. Barnacles growing on the back of a whale benefits in the form of shelter. Whale remains unaffected.
2. Epiphytes (orchids) growing on larger plants like mango (host) gets benefits like shelter but host
n
neither derives any benefit nor suffers a loss.
ur
3. Cattle egrets (birds) forage close to where cattle are grazing because the cattle as they move, stir
up and flush out insects from the vegetation that otherwise might be difficult for the egrets to find
o
and catch.
uj
4. Clown fish that lives among sea anemone gets protection from predators which stay away due to
the stinging tentacles of sea anemone, while the anemone remain unaffected
Ed
6.6 Amensalism
y It is an interaction between two organisms of different species in which one species inhibits the growth
of other species by secreting certain chemicals.
y The organism which inhibits the growth of another organism is called amensal.
y Amensalism is also called allelopathy in plants, or antibiosis or biological antagonism in general.
y Chemicals isolated from amensals are used as antibiotics for curing various diseases caused by
bacteria in humans.
y Examples of amensalism-
1. Penicillium produces penicillin that inhibits the growth of large number of bacteria.
2. Different species of Streptomyces, an actinomycete, produce wide range of chemicals which
inhibit the growth of other bacteria.
13.24
3. Roots of black walnut (Juglans regia), secrete a chemical called Juglone which is toxic to other
plants like apple, alfalfa etc.
4. Convolvulus arvensis a bindweed inhibits the growth of wheat.
6.7 Protocooperation
y Protocooperation is an association interaction between individuals of two species where each organism
is benefitted by the interaction with the other but can live equally well without association.
y It must be noted that in mutualism the individual organisms cannot live well in isolation or without their
partners.
y Some examples of protocooperation are as follows-
1. Red billed ox-pecker and yellow billed ox-pecker sit on the back of black rhinoceros and feed on
the ticks. The birds also warn the rhinoceros of approaching danger. Both the partners are benefitted.
Both organisms are not obligatorily dependent on the other and both can live separately.
n
2. The crocodile bird feeds on leeches in the mouth of a crocodile. This interaction is beneficial to
.i
both but not an absolute necessity.
al
3. Sea anemone gets attached to the body of hermit crab. It tends to protect it from the enemies
with its nematocysts (teeth-like structures which may be venomous). The anemone can consume
n
pieces of food dropped by the crab. It also is carried to new places by the crab.
ur
Table 13.3: Population interactions

o
Name of interaction Species A Species B

uj
Mutualism + +
Competition - -
Ed
Predation + -
Parasitism + -
Commensalism + 0
Amensalism - 0
Protocooperation + +
‘+’ → Beneficial interaction, ‘-‘ → Detrimental interaction, ‘0’ → Neutral interaction
13.25
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. One organism suffers in mutualism. (True/False)
2. Insectivorous plants grow in soil which is deficient in ________.
3. Aquatic animals that are incapable of living in narrow range of salinity are called as
______.
4. Penicillin production comes under __________. (Predation/Amensalism).
DID YOU KNOW
n
y All orchids do not offer rewards to their insect pollinators. For example, the
Mediterranean orchid employs a mechanism called ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination
?
.i
done by a species of bee. One petal of its flower appears like a female of the bee.
al
The male bee perceives it as female covered with pollen dust. It tries to mate
carries out pseudo-copulation. When same bee pseudo-copulates with another
n
flower, it transfers pollen to it and thus pollinates the flower.
ur
y It should be noted that change in appearance of the female bee will lead high
reduction in the pollination of the plant. The plant will then have to co-evolve.
o
uj
Ed
13.26
Summary
y Ecology deals with the various principles which govern the relationships between organisms and their
environment.
y The various levels of ecological organization of organisms are- organism, population, community,
biome and biosphere.
y The set of biotic and abiotic factors around an organism is termed as its environment.
y These factors have a major impact on the various life processes and also the ‘behavioral traits’ exhibited
by the organism.
y Abiotic environment includes three categories of factors- climatic, edaphic and topographic.
y Climatic factors are light, temperature, water and wind.
y Edaphic factors are factors related to soil.
y Topographic factors are aspects related to altitude, slope etc. which are concerned with the surface of
the earth.
n
y Stenothermal organisms live in areas where the temperature is uniform throughout the year. Regulators
.i
are capable of homeostasis in the face of changing external environment. Others either partially regulate
y
their internal environment or simply conform. al
Eurythermal organisms can thrive in a wide range of temperature.
n
y Heliophytes require high intensity light.
ur
y Sciophytes require low intensity light and grow in shaded areas.

y The responses to ecological factors include- Regulation, Conformation, Partial regulation, Migration
o
and Suspension of some life processes.

uj
y The habitat of an organism is its preferred place of residence while the location as well as its role in the
environment collectively form a niche.
Ed
y Death rate, birth rate, sex ratio, age distribution and population size are the various attributes of
populations.
y Population growth is exponential when resources are unlimited but is logistic (sigmoidal curve) when
the resources are limiting. Generally logistic growth is observed in nature.
Table 13.4: Population interactions
Name of interaction Species A Species B
Mutualism + +
Competition - -
Predation + -
Parasitism + -
Commensalism + 0
Amensalism - 0
Protocooperation + +
‘+’ Beneficial interaction, ‘-‘ Detrimental interaction, ‘0’ Neutral interaction
13.27
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q. 1 Autoecology is the:
(A) Relation of a population to its environment
(B) Relation of an individual to its environment
(C) Relation of a community to its environment
(D) Relation of a biome to its environment
Q. 2 Ecotone is:
n
(A) A polluted area
.i
(B) The bottom of a lake
(C) A zone of transition between two communities
(D) A zone of developing community
n al
ur
Q.3 Biosphere is:
(A) A component in an ecosystem
o
(B) Composed of plants present in the soil

uj
(C) Life in the outer space

(D) Composed of all living organisms present on earth which interact with the physical environment
Ed
Q.4 Ecological niche is:

(A) The surface area of the ocean
(B) An ecological adapted zone
(C) Physical position and functional role of a species within the community
(D) Formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of lake
Q.5 According to Allen's Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
(A) Shorter ears and longer limbs
(B) Longer ears and shorter limbs
(C) Longer ears and longer limbs
(D) Shorter ears and shorter limbs
13.28
Q .6 Salt concentration (salinity) of the sea measured in parts per thousand is:
(A) 10-15 (B) 30-70 (C) 0-5 (D) 30-35
Q .7 Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
(A) 18 – 25 °C and 150 – 400 cm
(B) 5 – 15 °C and 50 – 100 cm
(C) 30 – 50 °C and 100 – 150 cm
(D) 5 – 15 °C and 100 – 200 cm
Q. 8 Which of the following forest plants control the light conditions at the ground?
(A) Lianas and climbers (B) Shrubs
(C) Tall trees (D) Herbs
n
Q.9 What will happen to a well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the
forest in a park?
.i
(A) It will grow normally al
(B) It will grow well because it is planted in the same locality
n
(C) It may not survive because of change in itsmicroclimate
ur
(D) It grows very well because the plant gets more sunlight
o
Q. 10 If a population of 50 Paramoecia present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be
the growth rate of population?
uj
(A) 50 per hour (B) 200 per hour

Ed
(C) 5 per hour (D) 100 per Hour
Q.11 What would be the per cent growth or birth rate per individual per hour for the same population
mentioned in the previous question (Question 10)?
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 50 (D) 150
Q. 12 A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the
status of the population after some years?
(A) It will decline (B) It will stabilize
(C) It will increase (D) It will first decline and then stabilize
Q.13 What parameters are used for tiger census in our country's national parks and sanctuaries?
(A) Pug marks only (B) Pug marks and fecal pellets
(C) Fecal pellets only (D) Actual head counts
13.29
Q.14 Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given habitat?
(A) Natality > mortality (B) Immigration > emigration
(C) Mortality and emigration (D) Natality and immigration
Q.15 A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What will be the number of protozoans in its population
after six generations?
(A) 128 (B) 24 (C) 64 (D) 32
Q. 16 In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008 died
during the year. Using exponential equation the number of people present in 2015 is predicted as:
(A) 25 millions (B) 17 millions (C) 20 millions (D) 18 millions
Q.17 Amensalism is an association between two species where:
n
(A) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
.i
(B) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(C) one species is benefitted and other unaffected
(D) Both the species are harmed.
n al
ur
Q.18 Lichens are the associations of:
(A) Bacteria and fungus (B) Algae and bacterium
o
(C) Fungus and algae (D) Fungus and virus

uj
Q.19 Which of the following is a partial root parasite?

Ed
(A) Sandal wood (B) Mistletoe

(C) Orobanche (D) Ganoderma
Q.20 Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in its life time?
(A) Banana plant (B) Mango (C) Tomato (D) Eucalyptus
Q.21 Magnolia and oaks occur in the following zone:

(A) Tropical (B) Sub-tropical (C) Alpine (D) Temperate
Q.22 Plant groups growing in zones where high temperature alternates with low temperature as called
as:
(A) Megatherms (B) Mesotherms (C) Microtherms (D) Hekistotherms
13.30
Q.23 According to Mr. Dougal, the parasitism caused due to fungi and bacteria represent interspecific
relationship which is:
(A) Social and antagonistic (B) Nutritive and antagonistic
(C) Social and reciprocal (D) Nutritive and reciprocal
Q.24 When one population is harmed and the other remains unaffected the relationship is called as:
(A) Amensalism (B) Predation
(C) Protocooperation (D) Parasitism
Q.25 The relationship between a climber and the host corresponds to:
(A) Neutralism (B) Commensalism
(C) Parasitism (D) Mutualism
n
Q.26 The relationship between the alga Cladophora and the snail shell on which it grows corresponds to:
.i
(A) Neutralism (B) Predation (C) Commensalism (D) Mutualism
al
Q. 27 The device or structure where plants are grown in a controlled environment:
n
(A) Culture chamber (B) Inoculation chamber
ur
(C) Phytotron (D) All of these
o
Q.28 The air density is maximum:

uj
(A) Above 32' (B) At the soil surface

(C) Between 32' - 64' from soil level (D) In the hydrosphere
Ed
Q.29 Plants growing in oxygen deficient soils have:

(A) No roots (B) Longer roots system
(C) Aerial roots system (D) Shallow roots system
Q.30 'Flag trees' are formed due to:

(A) Lodging (B) Erosion and evaporation
(C) Unidirectional wind (D) Salt spray
Q.31 Plants growing on burnt soil are called as:

(A) Heliophilous (B) Hydrophilous
(C) Pyrophilous (D) Pyriform
13.31
Q.32 As a result of fire there is destruction of the following components of soil:

(A) Litter (B) Organisms (C) Inorganic matter (D) All of these
Q.33 Plants growing on desert and steppe are called as:

(A) Oxylophytes (B) Lithophytes (C) Eremophytes (D) Psilophytes
Q.34 Plants growing on rocks are called as:

(A) Psychrophytes (B) Lithophytes (C) Halophytes (D) Sciophytes
Q.35 Plants growing on cold soil are called as:

(A) Oxylophytes (B) Sciophytes (C) Psammophytes (D) Psychrophytes
Q.36 Mark the rooted submerged hydrophyte:
n
(A) Ranunculus (B) Najas (C) Potamogeton (D) None of these
.i
Q.37 The mesophytes are characterizedby:
(A) Uniform mesophyll
n al (B) Absence of cuticle
(C) Well developed root-shoot systems (D) All of these
ur
Q.38 Mark the true xerophyte:

o
(A) Capparis aphylla (B) Solanum xanthocarpum

uj
(C) Euphorbia milli (D) All of these

Ed
Q.39 The seeds of Rhus can endure a temperature as high as :

(A) 40 °C (B) 60 °C (C) 65 °C (D) 80 °C
Q.40 The serotinous cones show

(A) In situ seed germination (B) Longer viability
(C) Early cone separation (D) All these characters
Q.41 As an adaptation to fire, some plants produce lignotubers which are:

(A) On the leaves (B) Present on the main stem
(C) Underground (D) Suspended from the branches
13.32
Q.42 In which of the following groups, all the plants belong to the same category?
(A) Nymphaea, Potamogeton, Victoria
(B) Utricularia, Typhar,Aponogeton
(C) Lemna,Spirodela, Azolla
(D) Ranunculus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
Q.43 When a plant first begins to wilt permanently in a pot, its 54.5 gm of soil has 4.5 gm of water. The
PWP of this soil is:
(A) 4.5% (B) 9% (C) 8.25% (D) 16.5%
Q.44 Plants growing on sand and gravel are called as:

(A) Eremophytes (B) Psammophytes (C) Psilophytes (D) Oxylophytes
n
Q.45 Adaptation to low temperature and freezing in animals occurs due to the production of:
.i
(A) Antifreeze proteins (B) Chaperonins
(C) Proline al
(D) Analine
n
Q.46 The rate of individuals taking birth per 1,000 per year is called:
ur
(A) Mortality rate (B) Vital rate

(C) Natality rate (D) Growth rate
o
uj
Q.47 Growth of the population of an area depends upon:

(A) Natality rate (B) Immigration
Ed
(C) Environmental resistance (D) All of these
Q.48 In terms of land area, India occupies in the world:

(A) 7th position (B) 8th position (C) 9th position (D) 6th position
Q.49 "Theory of Human Population" was written by:

(A) Charles Darwin (B) A.R. Wallace (C) T.R. Malthus (D) Lamarck
Q.50 The main factor for the growth of human population in India is:
(A) High birth rate (B) Low death rate
(C) Lack of education (D) All of these
13.33
Q.51 What are organisms that can tolerate a wide range of salinity?
(A) Stenohaline (B) Durohaline (C) Euryhaline (D) Haline
Q.52 Select the correct order of the phases.

(A) Exponential phase, lag phase and steady state phase
(B) Lag phase, log phase and steady state phase
(C) Steady state phase, lag phase and log phase
(D) Slow growing phase, lag phase and steady state phase
Q.53 Which of the following is true?

(A) Exponential curve of population growth is the one is commonly seen in nature.
(B) High death rate and low birth rate in absence of immigration or emigration will lead to an increase in
population.
n
(C) Log phase occurs before the lag phase.
.i
(D) Carrying capacity is a barrier or the specific number which the population number does not cross.
n al
ur
Q.1 The concept that population tends to increase geometrically while food increases arithmetically, was
o
put forward by: (CBSE 1995)

uj
(A) Stuart Hill (B) Adam Smith (C) Thomas Malthus (D) Charles Darwin
Ed
Q.2 The measure of maximum rate of reproduction under optimal conditions is called: (MP-PMT1995)
(A) Ultimate level (B) Carrying capacity
(C) Proximal level (D) Biotic potential
Q.3 Rapid decline in the population due to high mortality rate is called: (BHU1996)
(A) Population density (B) Population crash
(C) Population explosion (D) All of these
Q.4 Which of the following is most convincing reasons for increasing population growth in a country?
(AIIMS 1996)
(A) High birth rate (B) Low mortality rate
(C) Low population of old persons (D) High population of youth
13.34
Q.5 Study of trends of human population is: (MP-PMT1996)

(A) Demography (B) Biography (C) Kalography (D) Psychology
Q.6 The present world human population is about: (CBSE1997)

(A) 500 million (B) 100 million (C) 15 million (D) 6 billion
Q.7 What is the most important factor for the success of animal population? (CBSE 1997)
(A) Natality (B) Adaptability (C) Unlimited food (D) Interspecific activity
Q.8 If the rate of addition of new members increases with respect to the individuals lost from the same
population the graph obtained has: (AIIMS 1997)
(A) Declined growth (B) Exponential growth
n
(C) Zero population growth (D) None of these
.i
(A) 3 : 4 (B) 1 : 1
n al
Q.9 Average ratio of men and women in human population is :
(C) 3 : 5 (D) 1:2
(Har. PMT1997)
ur
Q.10 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of a population one of these is ability to
reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called : (CBSE 1998)
o
(A) Biotic potential (B) Mortality

uj
(C) Fecundity (D) Environmental resistance

Ed
Q.11 Different life forms, among organisms in relation to environment were given by: (BHU1998)
(A) Reiter (B) Odum (C) Raunkiers (D) Warming
Q.12 Zone of atmosphere that lies near the ground is: (AFMC 1998)
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Homosphere (D) All of these
Q.13 The population explosion has occurred in the last: (AFMC 1998)
(A) 500 years (B) 300 years (C) 100 years (D) 250 years
Q.14 The part of earth and atmosphere supporting life is: (CPMT1998)
(A) Biota (B) Biome (C) Ecotone (D) Biosphere
13.35
Q.15 One of the critical mechanisms by which environment controls the population of a species is:
(Har. PMT 1998)
(A) Biotic control (B) Mortality (C) Fecundity (D) Environmental resistance
Q.16 The exponential growth is maximum in: (CBSE 1999)

(A) Tissue culture cells (B) Embryo
(C) Unicellular organisms (D) Multicellular organisms
Q.17 In a population curve, the rate of growth becomes steady towards the end of exponential curve
due to: (CET Chd. 2000)
(A) Reproductive power is reduced (B) Environmental stress
(C) Migration (D) All of these
.i n
Q.18 When the number of immigration and births is more than emigration and deaths. Growth curve of
population will show:
n al (Har PMT 2000)
(A) Exponential phase (B) Lag phase
ur
(C) Declining phase (D) Steady phase

o
Q.19 Human population follows: (MP-PMT2000)

uj
(A) J-shaped growth curve (B) Z-shaped growth curve

Ed
(C) S-shaped growth curve (D) All of these
Q.20 Organisms living at the bottom of a lake are called: (MP-PMT 2000)
(A) Nektons (B) Benthos (C) Planktons (D) Pelagic
Q.21 Animals have shorter and smaller extremes in colder region. It is : (JIPMER 2000)
(A) Allen's rule (B) Cope's rule (C) Dollo's rule (D) Bargman's rule
Q.22 Which one is exclusive xerophytic adaptation? (Har. PMT 2000)

(A) Absence of stomata (B) Long tap root system
(C) Stipular leaves (D) Spines
13.36
Q.23 World Population Day is on : (Manipal 2000)

(A) 5th June (B) 11th July (C) 4th October (D) 21st March
Q.24 What is best pH of soil for cultivation? (CBSE 2000)

(A) 3.4-5.4 (B) 4.5-5.5 (C) 5.5 - 6.5 (D) 6.5 - 7.5
Q.25 Niche of a species is : (DPMT 2001)

(A) Place of living (B) Specific function and competitive power
(C) Habitat and specific function (D) None of these
Q.26 First human population explosion took place due to: (BV-Pune2001)
(A) Agriculture (B) Industrialization (C) Technology (D) Changes in culture
.i n
Q.27 Natality is balanced by mortality. There will be: (MH-PMT 2001)
(A) Decrease in population growth
(C) Increase in population growth
n al
(B) Zero population growth
(D) Overpopulation
ur
Q.28 Ozone layer is found in: (Kerala 2001)

o
(A) Thermosphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere

uj
(D) Lithospherer (e) Troposphere

Ed
Q.29 Ability to produce maximum offspring is: (CBSE 2002)

(A) Biotic potential (B) Carrying capacity
(C) Environmental resistance (D) None of these
Q.30 Which one of the following is important for speciation? (CBSE 2002)
(A) Seasonal isolation (B) Reproductive isolation
(C) Behavioral isolation (D) Temporal isolation
Q.31 Shallow lakes with abundant of organic matter are called: (BHU 2002)
(A) Saprotrophic (B) Oligotrophic (C) Eutrophic (D) Heterotrophic
13.37
Q.32 When births are equal to deaths, it is: (AFMC 2002)

(A) Plateau stage (B) Exponential stage
(C) Early growth stage (D) Acceleration stage
Q.33 Abundance of a species population within its habitat is called: (AUMS 2002)
(A) Absolute density (B) Regional density
(C) Relative density (D) Niche density
Q.34 Field capacity consist of: (DPMT2002)

(A) Capillary water (B) Gravitational water
(C) Hygroscopic water (D) Both (A) and (C)
n
Q.35 Plants growing in saline soil with high salt concentration are: (CPMT 2002)
.i
(A) Xerophytes (B) Halophytes (C) Heliophytes (D) Hydrophytes
Q.36 In asymptote state, population is:

n al (MP-PMT 2002)
ur
(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing (C) Changing (D) Stabilized
o
Q.37 Least porous soil is: (Har. PMT 2002)

uj
(A) Clayey soil (B) Sandy soil (C) Loamy soil (D) Gravelly soil
Ed
Q.38 Two opposite forces operate in growth and development of a population. One of them relates to ability
to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it, is called: (CBSE 2003)
(A) Fecundity (B) Biotic potential
(C) Environmental resistance (D) Morbidity
Q.39 Mechanical tissue is best developed in: (CPMT 2003)

(A) Hydrophytes (B) Hygrophytes (C) Xerophytes (D) Mesophytes
Q.40 Maximum amount of humus occurs in: (CPMT 2003)

(A) Lowermost layer (B) Upper layer (C) Middle layer (D) Same everywhere
13.38
Q.41 July 11 is observed as: (AIIMS 2003)

(A) World Population Day (B) No Tobacco Day
(C) World Environmental Day (D) World Health Day
Q.42 Loss of forests, urbanization and increasing pollution are due to: (KCET2003)
(A) Ozone depletion (B) Population explosion
(C) Global warming (D) Greenhouse effect
Q.43 Plants adapted to grow in shade are called: (CMC Ldh. 2003)
(A) Psammophytes (B) Sciophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Xerophytes
Q.44 Water holding capacity is maximum in: (CMC Ldh. 2003)
n
(A) Clay (B) Sand (C) Silt (D) Gravel
.i
Q.45 Submerged hydrophytes have dissected leaves for:
n al (Har. PMT 2003)
(A) Decreasing surface area (B) Increasing surface area
ur
(C) Reducing effect of water currents (D) Increasing number of stomata
o
Q.46 Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are: (CBSE 2004)
uj
(A) High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population r growth and a very young age distribution
(B) High mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age distribution
Ed
(C) High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and young age distribution
(D) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young age distribution
Q.47 The maximum growth rate occurs in: (CBSE 2004)

(A) Lag phase (B) Exponential phase
(C) Stationary phase (D) Senescent phase
Q.48 A terrestrial animal must be able to: (CBSE 2004)

(A) Actively pump salts out through the skin (B) Excrete large amount of salts in urine
(C) Excrete large amount of water in urine (D) Conserve water
13.39
Q.49 In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?
(CBSE 2004)
(A) Shrub land (B) Forest (C) Desert (D) Grassland
Q.50 Broad-leaved oak forests are found in: (AFMC 2004)

(A) Tropical deciduous forest (B) Mediterranean evergreen forest
(C) Temperate deciduous forest (D) North coniferous forest
Q.51 Greatest biological problem faced by humanity is of: (MP-PMT 2004)

(A) Population explosion (B) Depletion of ozone shield
(C) Depletion of natural resources (D) Land erosion
n
Q.52 Instrument used to measure the wind velocity is: (MP-PMT 2004)
.i
(A) Anemometer (B) Hydrometer (C) Lactometer (D) Photometer
Q.53 Science linking heredity with environment is:

n al (MP-PMT 2004)
(A) Ecology (B) Ecophysiology (C) Genecology (D) Genetics
ur
Q.54 Halophytes are: (Orissa JEE 2004)

o
uj
(A) Salt resistant (B) Fire resistant (C) Cold resistant (D) Sand loving
Ed
Q.55 A plant living for a few days is: (Orissa JEE 2004)
(A) Annual (B) Ephemeral (C) Biennial (D) Perennial
Q.56 Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example: (CBSE 2005)
(A) Colour change in Chameleon
(B) Enlargement of body by swallowing air in Puffer fish
(C) Poison fangs of snakes
(D) Melanin in moths
Q.57 At which latitude, heat gain through insolation approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial
radiation? (CBSE 2005)
(A) 22.5° N and S (B) 40° N and S (C) 42.5° N and S (D) 60° N and S
13.40
Q.58 Which is not true for species? (CBSE 2005)

(A) Members of a species can interbreed
(B) Gene flow does not occur between populations of same spp.
(C) A species is reproductively isolated from other species
(D) Variations occur among members of a spp.
Q.59 Which one represents correct match between organism and its ecological niche? (AIIMS 2005)
(A) Vallisneria and pond (B) Desert locust (Schistocerca) and desert
(C) Vultures and dense forest (D) Plant lice (aphids) and leaf
Q.60 Plants growing in average conditions of temperature and moisture are: (Manipur 2005)
(A) Hygrophytes (B) Hydrophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Epiphytes
.i n
Q.61 Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its: (CPMT2005)
(A) Topography (B) Trophic level
n al (C) Boundary (D) Ecological niche
Q.62 Ozone protects biosphere from high energetic: (DPMT2005)

ur
(A) Infra-red rays (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays
o
uj
Q.63 Which one is a xerophyte? (KPMT 2005)

(A) Capparis (B) Lotus (C) China rose (D) Casuarina
Ed
Q.64 Waxy coating on the surface of floating leaves prevents: (Orissa JEE 2005)
(A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Clogging of stomata (D) Transpiration
Q.65 Avicennia, Rhizophora and Atriplex are: (Orissa JEE 2005)

(A) Xerophytes (B) Halophytes (C) Hydrophytes (D) Mesophytes
Q.66 Plants which behave as mesophytes in rainy season and xerophytes in summer are: (Pb-PMT2005)
(A) Xerophytes (B) Phreatophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Tropophytes
13.41
Q.67 An orchid resembling the female of an insect so as to able to get pollinated is due to phenomenon
of: (Pb-PMT2005)
(A) Mimicry (B) Pseudo-copulation
(C) Pseudo-pollination (D) Pseudo-parthenocarpy
Q.68 Which mammal excretes solid urine to avoid water loss? (HP-PMT 2005)
(A) Crow (B) Kangaroo rat (C) Camel (D) Squirrel
Q.69 In India, human population has higher number of younger age group due to: (Pb. PMT 2005)
(A) Long life span and low birth rate (B) Short life span and high birth rate
(C) Short life span and low birth rate (D) Birth rate is equal to death rate
n
Q.70 Which of the following is wrongly matched? (Kerala PMT 2005)
.i
(A) Temperate zone - 20° to 40° latitude (B) Ozone layer - Stratosphere
(C) Profundal zone - Dark zone
n al (D) Ectotherms - Cold blooded animals
Q.71 Niche overlap is: (CBSE 2006)

ur
(A) Mutualism between two species (B) Active cooperation between two species
o
(C) Two different parasites on same food (D) Sharing resources between two species
uj
Q.72 Annual migration does not occur in: (CBSE 2006)

Ed
(A) Arc tern (B) Salamander (C) Salmon (D) Siberian crane
Q.73 Praying mantis is a good example of: (CBSE 2006)

(A) Camouflage (B) Mullerian mimicry
(C) Warning coloration (D) Social insect
Q.74 Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called; (BHU 2006)
(A) Acclimatization (B) Hibernation (C) Aestivation (D) Adaptation
Q.75 Soil transported by air is: (BHU 2006)

(A) Alluvial (B) Glacial (C) Colluvial (D) Eolian
13.42
Q.76 Warm blooded animals of cold climate have small extremities. This was stated by : (CET Chd. 2006)
(A) Bargmen (B) Gloger (C) Dollo (D) Allen
Q.77 Excessive aerenchyma is characteristic feature of : (BV-Pune 2006)

(A) Heliophytes (B) Xerophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Hydrophytes
Q.78 Which plant is found in mangrove zone? (RPMT2006)
(A) Rhizophora (B) Acacia (C) Pinus (D) Tectona grandis
Q.79 Micro-organisms having optimum temperature for growth below 15 ° C and cannot grow above 20 ° C
are called : (AMU 2006)
(A) Mesophils (B) Thermophiles (C) Psychrophiles (D) None of these
.i n
Q.80 Functional aspect of a species with reference to its place of occurrence is called: (Orissa JEE 2006)
(A) Ecology (B) Environment
n al
(C) Ecological niche (D) Species
Q.81 Sunken stomata occur in : (Orissa JEE 2006)

ur
(A) Xerophytes (B) Hydrophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Opsanophytes

o
Q.82 Biological organization starts with: (CBSE 2007)

uj
(A) Atomic level (B) Submicroscopic molecular level

Ed
(C) Cellular level (D) Organismic level
Q.83 If the mean and median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the
following is most likely to occur : (CBSE 2007)
(A) A skewed curve (B) A normal distribution
(C) A bi-modal distribution (D) A T-shaped curve
Q.84 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they: (CBSE 2007)
(A) Have same number of chromosomes
(B) Can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
(C) Have more than 90 per cent similar genes
(D) Look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites
13.43
Q.85 Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of : (CBSE 2007)

(A) Ecosystem (B) Biotic community (C) Population (D) Landscape
Q.86 The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season
followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show? (CBSE 2007)
(A) The population of its predators increases enormously
(B) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(C) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(D) Its population growth curve is of J-type
Q.87 Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) usually refers to the damages caused by: (AFMC 2007)
(A) Low temperature (B) High temperature (C) Radiations (D) Pollution
.i n
Q.88 Which law of evolution states that warm-blooded mammals of hot and humid areas have abundant
melanin pigment?
(A) Dollo's law (B) Gloger's law
n al (C) Cope's law
(BHU 2007)
(D) Gause's law
ur
Q.89 Competition of species leads to : (DPMT 2007)

o
(A) Extinction (B) Mutation

uj
(C) Greater number of niches (D) Symbiosis

Ed
Q.90 Mycorrhizae are more common in: (DPMT2007)

(A) Eutrophic soil (B) Oligotrophic soil (C) Both of these (D) None of these
Q.91 If non-limiting conditions are provided, then which happens? (DPMT 2007)
(A) Natality increases and mortality decreases (B) Mortality decreases
(C) Natality increases (D) Mortality increases
Q.92 The maximum growth rate occurs in: (Manipal 2007)

(A) Stationary phase (B) Senescent phase (C) Lag phase (D) Exponential phase
Q.93 A terrestrial animal must be able to: (Manipal 2007)

(A) Excrete large amount of water in urine (B) Conserve water
(C) Actively pump salts out through the skin (D) Excrete large amount of salts in urine
13.44
Q.94 Genetic drift operates in: (Haryana PMT 2007)

(A) Large isolated population (B) Fast reproductive population
(C) Small isolated population (D) Slow reproductive population
Q.95 Root cap is absent in: (Haryana PMT 2007)

(A) Xerophytes (B) Hydrophytes (C) Mesophytes (D) Halophytes
Q.96 The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called: (AIPMT 2014)
(A) Stratosphere (B) Troposphere (C) Ionosphere (D) Mesosphere
Q.97 More than 70% of world's fresh water is contained in : (JIPMER 2007)
(A) Antarctica (B) Glaciers and mountains
n
(C) Greenland (D) Polar ice
.i
Q.98 Which of the following is not true for a species?
(A) Members of a species can interbreed
n al (JIPMER 2007)
ur
(B) Variations occur among members of a species
(C) Each species is reproductively isolated from other species
o
(D) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
uj
Q.99 Biological species concept is mainly based on: (BVP2007)

Ed
(A) Reproductive isolation (B) Morphological features only

(C) Methods of reproduction only (D) Morphology and methods of reproduction
Q.100 Edaphology is: (KCET2007)

(A) Study of elephants (B) Study of snakes
(C) Study of amphibians (D) None of these
Q.101 Population density of terrestrial organisms is measured in terms of individuals per : (KCET2007)
(A) Meter2 (B) Meter (C) Meter3 (D) Meter5
Q.102 Top layer of soil is rich in: (CPMT 2007)

(A) Minerals (B) Humus (C) Litter (D) None of these
13.45
Q.103 Study of ecology of population is called: (MP-PMT 2007)

(A) Autoecology (B) Synecology (C) Ecotype (D) Demecology
Q.104 Psammophytes are plants which grow where soil is: (MP-PMT2007)
(A) Alkaline (B) Sandy (C) Acidic (D) Alluvial
Q.105 Species can be identified on the basis of: (MP-PMT2007)

(A) Interbreeding (B) Species diversity
(C) Reproductive isolation (D) None of these
Q.106 Ecological study of single species is called: (Orissa JEE 2007)

(A) Synecology (B) Limnology (C) Autoecology (D) None of these
.i n
Q.107 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tobacum flowers only during short days. If
al
raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and
can be cross fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris
n
and N. tobacum to be separate species? (AIIMS 2007)
ur
(A) They are physiologically distinct (B) They are morphologically distinct
o
(C) They cannot interbreed in nature (D) They are reproductively distinct
uj
Q.108 What is a keystone species? (AIIMS 2007)

Ed
(A) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge
impact on the community's organization and survival
(B) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community's organization
(C) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
(D) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affect many other
species
Q.109 Consider the following four statements about certain desert animals such as kangaroo rat:
(1) They are dark colored and have high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
(2) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick
13.46
hair
(3) They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
(4) They excrete highly concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature Which two of
the above statements for such animals are true? (CBSE 2008)
Q.110 A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water
term Azolla is : (AFMC2008)
(A) Tolypothrix (B) Chlorella (C) Nostoc (D) Anabaena
Q.111 The maximum growth rate occurs in : (AFMC2008)

(A) Stationary phase (B) Senescent phase (C) Lag phase (D) Exponential phase
.i n
Q.112 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two. different habitats is called : (BHU2008)
(A) Bottle neck effect (B) Edge effect
n al
(C) Junction effect (D) Pasteur effect
Q.113 July 11 is observed as: (AIIMS 2008)

ur
(A) World Population Day (B) No Tobacco Day

o
(C) World Environment Day (D) World Health Day

uj
Q.114 Study of ecology of a population is called: (Han PMT 2008)

Ed
(A) Autoecology (B) Synecology (C) Ecotype (D) Demecology
Q.115 The amount of freshwater of the earth frozen as polar or glacial ice is : (Kerala PMT 2008)
(A) 0.5% (B) 0.02% (C) 0.01% (D) 1.97%
Q.116 The change in population size at a given time interval t, is given by the expression Nt = No + B + I - D -
E, where I, B and D stand for : (Kerala PMT 2008)
(A) Immigrate rate, mortality rate, natality rate (B) Emigration rate, natality rate, mortality rate
(C) Mortality rate, natality rate, immigration rate (D) Mortality rate, immigration rate, natality rate
(E) Immigrate rate, natality rate, mortality rate
Q.117 The plants of this group are adapted to live partly in water and partly above substratum and free from
water: (Orissa JEE 2008)
13.47
(A) Xerophytes (B) Thalophytes (C) Helophytes (D) Hydrophytes
Q.118 Which one represents a mutualistic association of a fungus with roots of higher plant?
(Orissa JEE 2008)
(A) Mycorrhiza (B) Mycoplasma (C) Lichen (D) Myxomycetes
Q.119 If the stronger partner is benefited and the weaker partner is harmed, it is known as :
(J&KCET2008)
(A) Symbiosis (B) Predation (C) Allelopathy (D) Commensalism
Q.120 The equation ∆Nn/∆Nt = B represents which of the following? (WB-JEE 2008)
(A) Natality (B) Growth rate (C) Mortality (D) All of these
.i n
Q.121 Identify which one of the following is an example of incomplete ecosystem? (WB-JEE 2008)
(A) Grassland (B) Cave
n al
(C) River (D) Wetland
Q.122 Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of: (CBSE2009)
ur
(A) Xerophytes (B) Mesophytes (C) Epiphytes (D) Hydrophytes

o
Q.123 If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be: (AFMC 2009)
uj
(A) Decrease in population growth (B) Zero population growth

Ed
(C) Increase in population growth (D) Over population
Q.124 Xerophytes are mostly: (AFMC 2009)

(A) Succulents (B) Water related (C) Mesophytes (D) None of these
Q.125 Halophytes are grown in: (CPMT2009)

(A) Salty soil or saline soil (B) Near the river
(C) Rainy water (D) Desert
Q.126 Niche is defined as: (DPMT2009)

(A) Position of a species in a community in relation to other species
13.48
(B) Place where an organism lives

(C) Place where an organism lives and performs its duty
(D) Place where population performs its duty
Q.127 The assemblage of all the populations of different species that function as an integrated unit through
co-evolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called: (J&K-CET2009)
(A) Biome (B) Biotic community (C) Population (D) Ecosystem
Q.128 The species of plant that play a vital role in controlling the relative abundance of other species in a
community are called: (J&K-CET2009)
(A) Edge species (B) Keystone species (C) Pioneer species (D) Serai species
n
Q.129 Which one is the edaphic factor in biosphere? (J&K-CET2009)
.i
(A) Light (B) Temperature (C) Water (D) Soil
n al
Q.130 Genetically-adapted population to a particular area is called: (J & K - CET 2009)
(A) Ecotone (B) Biome (C) Ecotype (D) Niche
ur
Q.131 Ratio between mortality and natality is called: (MP-PMT2000 & J&K-CET2009)
o
(A) Vital index (B) Population ratio (C) Density coefficient (D) Census ratio
uj
Q.132 The figure below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What
Ed
do a, b and c represent respectively? (CBSE2010)

a b c
(A) Conformer Regulator Partial regulator
(B) Regulator Partial regulator Conformer
(C) Partial regulator Regulator Conformer
(D) Regulator Conformer Partial regulator
Q.133 A renewable exhaustible natural resource is: (CBSE2010)

(A) Coal (B) Petroleum (C) Minerals (D) Forest
13.49
Q.134 Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into flat green and
succulent structure? (CBSE Main 2010)
(A) Opuntia (B) Casuarina (C) Hydrilla (D) Acacia
Q.135 In cold climate, the animals have short tail, shorter limbs and ears, this is called: (AFMC 2010)
(A) Allen's law (B) Bergman's law (C) Cope's law (D) Jordan's law
Q.136 Which of the following is a long day plant? (AFMC2010)

(A) Glycinmax (B) Spinach (C) Chrysanthemum (D) Tobacco
Q.137 The species, though insignificant in number, determine the existence of many other species in a
given ecosystem. Such species is known as: (KCET2010)
n
(A) Endemic species (B) Sacred species
.i
(C) Extinct species (D) Keystone species
Q.138 Which of the following soil is transported by air?

n al (CPMT2010)
(A) Alluvial (B) Aeolian (C) Elluvial (D) Glacial
ur
Q.139 The timing of seasonal activities of plants in relation to change in environmental conditions is
o
termed as: (DPMT2010)

uj
(A) Dendrochronology (B) Biological clock (C) Lapse rate (D) Phenology
Ed
Q.140 Who is considered as Father of Ecology in India? (DPMT 2010)

(A) Ramdeo Misra (B) M. S. Swaminathan (C) P. Maheshwari (D) S.L. Mehta
Q.141 A common means of sympatric speciation is : (DPMT 2010)

(A) Polyploidy (B) Temporal segregation of breeding season
(C) Spatial segregation of mating sites (D) Imposition of geographical barrier
Q.142 Many fresh-water animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa mainly because of the:
(Kerala PMT 2010)
13.50
(A) Change in N-levels (B) Variations in light intensity

(C) Osmotic problems (D) Special quality of solar radiations
(E) Change in level of thermal tolerance
Q.143 The formula of growth rate for population in given time is: (Kerala PMT2010)
(A) dt/dN = rN (B) dt/rN = dN (C) rN/dN = dt
(D) dN/rN-dt (E) dN/dt = rN
Q.144 An evolutionary pattern characterized by rapid increase in the number and kinds of closely related
species is called: (AMU2010)
(A) Convergent evolution (B) Divergent evolution
(C) Adaptive radiation (D) Parallel evolution
.i n
Q.145 The volume and surface area of a deer are 150,000 cm3 and 19,000 cm2, and those of a squirrel are 625
n al
cm3 and 530 cm2. The area available for heat loss per cm3 volume of the squirrel with be approximately:
(AMU 2010)
(A) Seven times more than the deer (B) Five times less than the deer
ur
(C) Three times more than the deer (D) Eleven times more than the deer
o
Q.146 Consider the following four conditions (1-4) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to
uj
environment in desert lizards. The conditions:

Ed
(1) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature

(2) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(3) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(4) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis (CBSE 2011)
(A) (3), (4) (B) (1), (3) (C) (2), (4) (D) (1), (2)
Q.147 Inter-breeding animals belong to the same: (CBSE 2011)

(A) Genus (B) Family (C) Species (D) Order
Q.148 Lichens represent symbiotic relationship between: (AMU 2011)

(A) Alga and bacteria (B) Fungi and higher plants
13.51
(C) Alga and fungi (D) Viruses and bacteria
Q.149 Select the incorrect statement: (Kerala PMT 2011)

(A) An overwhelming majority of animals and nearly all plants maintain a constant internal environment
(B) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of commensalism
(C) In brood parasitism, the parasite bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host to incubate
them
(D) Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions
(E) In amensalism, one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected
Q.150 -1 °C to 13 °C annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature and 50 cm to 250 cm
annual variation in precipitation, account for the formation of a major biome as : (Kerala PMT 2011)
n
(A) Temperate forest (B) Coniferous forest (C) Tropical forest
.i
(D) Grassland (E) Desert
Q.151 Which is referred to as "Lungs of the Planet Earth"?

n al (Kerala PMT 2011)
(A) Western Ghats (B) Lake Victoria (C) Greenland (D) Amazon rainforest
ur
(E) Himalayas
o
Q.152 The study of the relation of an organism with its environment is called: (J&K CET2011)
uj
(A) Synecology (B) Bionomics (C) Autoecology (D) Herpetology

Ed
Q.153 Maximum survival and reproductive capacity shown by a population under optimal environmental
conditions is called: (J&KCET2011)
(A) Carrying capacity (B) Natality (C) Biotic potential (D) Vitality
Q.154 Pedology refers to study of: (J&K CET2011)

(A) Soil (B) Water (C) Population (D) Fossils
Q.155 The basic unit of study in ecology is : (DUMET 2011)

(A) Population (B) Organism (C) Community (D) Species
Q.156 The most important factor which determined the increase in human population in India during the
20th century was: (DUMET 2011)
13.52
(A) Natality (B) Mortality (C) Immigration (D) Emigration
Q.157 A population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows four phases of growth in the following
sequence: (DUMET 2011)
(A) Acceleration —> Deceleration —> Lag phase —> Asymptotic
(B) Asymptotic —> Acceleration —> Deceleration —> Lag phase
(C) Lag phase —> Acceleration —> Deceleration —> Asymptotic
(D) Acceleration —> Lag phase —> Deceleration —> Asymptotic
Q.158 Sigmoid growth curve is represented by: (DUMET2011)

(A) dN/dt = rN (B) dN/dt = rN (1 -N/K)
(C) Nt = No + B + I- D- E (D) dN/dt =1-N/K
n
Q.159 Age of pyramid with broad base indicates: (DUMET 2011)
.i
(A) High percentage of young individuals al
(B) Low percentage of young individuals
n
(C) High percentage of old individuals
ur
(D) Low percentage of old individuals

o
Q.160 Term "niche" was first used by: (UP CPMT 2011)
uj
(A) Clements (B) Grinell (C) Warming (D) Odum

Ed
Q.161 An interaction favorable to both the populations, but not obligatory to either is : (UP CPMT 2011)
(A) Proto-cooperation (B) Mutualism (C) Commensalism (D) Parasitism
Q.162 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called: (CBSE 2011)
(A) Detritus (B) Humus (C) Standing state (D) Standing crop
Q.163 Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by: (Manipur Board 2014)

(A) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
(B) Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen
(C) Protecting the plant from infection
(D) Serving as plant growth regulator
Q.164 In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called: (WBJEE2011)

(A) Biotic potential (B) Fertility (C) Carrying capacity (D) Birthrate
13.53
Q.165 The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed, is
called: (J&K CEE 2012)
(A) Amensalism (B) Commensalism (C) Mutualism (D) Predation
Q.166 The vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called as: (J&K CEE 2012)
(A) Stratification (B) Fragmentation (C) Mobilization (D) Mineralization
Q.167 The population limited to a particular geographical area is called: (J&KCEE2012)

(A) Pandemic (B) Endemic (C) Alien (D) Natural
Q.168 The carrying capacity of environment for a given population can be represented by the equation:
(AMU 2012)
n
(A) dN = rN-N/K (B) dN/dt = rN-N/K (C) dN/dt = rN-1/K (D) dN/dt = rN - (1-N/K)
.i
n al
Q.169 In fish Catla catla, the specific name is identical with the generic name. It is an example of:
(AMU 2012)
ur
(A) Autonym (B) Tautonym (C) Synonym (D) Homonym
o
Q.170 Some organisms are tolerant to a narrow range of salinity and are termed as: (AMU 2012)
uj
(A) Euryhaline (B) Stenohaline

(C) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) Saline
Ed
Q.171 Biologist who has been called the "Darwin of the 20 century" was: (AMU 2012)
(A) Linnaeus (B) Ernst Mayr (C) Diener (D) Whittaker
Q.172 Organisms capable of maintaining constant body temperature are: (AFMC2012)

(A) Stenothermal (B) Homeothermal (C) Poikilothermal (D) Conformers
Q.173 Which of the following causes parasitic castration of crab? (BHU2012)

(A) Sacculina (B) Adamsia (C) Spongilla (D) None of these
Q. 174 The stage of suspended development shown by zooplanktons is called : (Kerala PMT 2012)
(A) Desiccation (B) Diapause (C) Hibernation (D) Homeostasis
(E) Aestivation
13.54
Q.175 Which of the following statements is false regarding predators? (Kerala PMT 2012)
(A) Predators keep prey population under control
(B) Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community
(C) If a predator is not efficient, then the prey population would become extinct
(D) Herbivores (predators) have a greater advantage since the plants cannot run away to avoid predation
(E) Tiger is an example of a predator
Q.176 Lichen is an example of: (Haryana Board 2012)

(A) Mutualism (B) Commensalism (C) Predation (D) Competition
Q.177 Orchid growing on a mango branch is example of: (Haryana Board 2012)
(A) Mutualism (B) Commensalism (C) Predation (D) Competition
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Q.178 Cuscuta is an example of: (Haryana Board 2012)
(A) Mutualism (B) Commensalism
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(C) Parasitism (D) Competition
Q.179 A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that average natality was 250, average
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mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is: (NEET2013)
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(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 05 (D) Zero

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Q.180 A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is:
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(NEET 2013)
(A) Ectoparasitism (B) Symbiosis (C) Commensalism (D) Amensalism
Q.181 Full name of Professor Misra who is known as the "Father of Ecology" in India is: (AMU 2013)
(A) Ramesh Misra (B) Ramavtar Misra (C) Ramakant Misra (D) Ramdeo Misra
Q.182 Population growth curve is sigmoid, if the growth pattern is: (AMU 2013)
(A) Logistic (B) Geometric (C) Exponential (D) Accretionary
Q.183 Temperature increases with height in which of the following? (AMU 2013)
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) None of the above
13.55
Q.184 (dN/dt) × rN equation is applicable to…………….population growth. (Jharkhand Board 2013)

(A) Exponential (B) Logistic
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Not related to population
Q.185 A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have
become white- colored like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
(AIPMT 2014)
(A) Etiolated (B) Defoliated (C) Mutated (D) Embolised
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13.56
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 A Q.2 C Q.3 D Q.4 C Q.5 D Q.6 D
Q.7 A Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 C
Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 B Q.18 C
Q.19 A Q.20 D Q.21 D Q.22 B Q.23 B Q.24 A
Q.25 B Q.26 C Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 D Q.30 C
Q.31 C Q.32 A Q.33 C Q.34 B Q.35 D Q.36 C
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Q.37 C Q.38 A Q.39 D Q.40 B Q.41 C Q.42 C
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Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 A Q.46 C Q.47 D Q.48 A
Q.49 E Q.50 D Q.51 C al
Q.52 B
n Q.53 D
Previous Years Questions

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Q.1 C Q.2 D Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 A Q.6 D

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Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 B Q.10 D Q.11 C Q.12 A

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Q.13 D Q.14 D Q.15 D Q.16 A Q.17 B Q.18 A

Q.19 C Q.20 B Q.21 A Q.22 D Q.23 B Q.24 C
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Q.25 C Q.26 A Q.27 B Q.28 B Q.29 A Q.30 B

Q.31 C Q.32 A Q.33 D Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 D
Q.37 A Q.38 C Q.39 C Q.40 B Q.41 A Q.42 B
Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 C Q.46 C Q.47 B Q.48 D
Q.49 C Q.50 C Q.51 A Q.52 A Q.53 C Q.54 A
Q.55 B Q.56 C Q.57 D Q.58 B Q.59 D Q.60 C
Q.61 D Q.62 B Q.63 A Q.64 C Q.65 B Q.66 D
Q.67 A Q.68 B Q.69 B Q.70 A Q.71 D Q.72 B
Q.73 A Q.74 B Q.75 D Q.76 D Q.77 D Q.78 A
Q.79 C Q.80 C Q.81 A Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 B
Q.85 C Q.86 D Q.87 C Q.88 B Q.89 A Q.90 B
13.57
Q.91 A Q.92 D Q.93 B Q.94 C Q.95 B Q.96 A

Q.97 D Q.98 D Q.99 A Q.100 D Q.101 A Q.102 B
Q.103 D Q.104 B Q.105 C Q.106 C Q.107 C Q.108 A
Q.109 C Q.110 D Q.111 D Q.112 B Q.113 A Q.114 D
Q.115 D Q.116 E Q.117 C Q.118 A Q.119 B Q.120 B
Q.121 B Q.122 D Q.123 B Q.124 A Q.125 A Q.126 C
Q.127 B Q.128 B Q.129 D Q.130 C Q.131 A Q.132 D
Q.133 D Q.134 A Q.135 A Q.136 B Q.137 D Q.138 B
Q.139 D Q.140 A Q.141 B Q.142 C Q.143 E Q.144 C
Q.145 A Q.146 B Q.147 C Q.148 C Q.149 D Q.150 B
Q.151 D Q.152 B Q.153 C Q.154 A Q.155 B Q.156 A
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Q.157 C Q.158 B Q.159 A Q.160 B Q.161 A Q.162 D
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Q.163 A
Q.169 B
Q.164 A
Q.170 B
Q.165 B
Q.171 B
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Q.166 A
Q.172 B
n Q.167 B
Q.173 A
Q.168 D
Q.174 B
Q.175 C Q.176 A Q.177 B Q.178 C Q.179 D Q.180 B
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Q.181 D Q.182 A Q.183 B Q.184 A Q.185 A

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|VOL.V |Unit 5
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Ecosystem
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14.1
CHAPTER 14
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ECOSYSTEM
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed On earth surface wide range of living organisms
INTRODUCTION are present. Maintaining a balance in nature,
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all living organisms such as plants, animals and

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TYPES OF ECOSYSTEM microorganisms interact among themselves and

also with the surrounding physical environment.
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ECOSYSTEM- COMPONENTS, STRUCTURE AND A self-sustaining or functional unit of the living

FUNCTION world called as ecosystem. Interaction of biotic
component comprising living organisms and
ECOLOGICAL PYRAMIDS abiotic components comprising physical factors
like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals
ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION is an ecosystem. The term Ecosystem was coined
by Arthur G Tansley (1935). Other terms used
NUTRIENT CYCLE for ecosystem are Biocoenosis (by C. Mobius),
ECOSYSTEM SERVICES Microcosm (by Forbes), Giobiocoenosis (by
Sukhachev). This chapter gives overview of
different types of ecosystem, structural as well as
functional aspects related to productivity, energy
flow, decomposition, ecological efficiencies and
nutrient cycling.
14.2
Ecosystem
Objectives
y Learn about types of ecosystem.
y Establish components, structure and function of a typical ecosystem.
y Define the composition of ecological pyramids.
y Learn about ecological succession.
y Learn about nutrient cycle.
y Study the ecosystem services.
2. Types of Ecosystem
From a small pond to a large forest or a sea, ecosystem varies greatly in size. The entire biosphere is
considered by many ecologists as a global ecosystem as a composite of all local ecosystem on earth. This
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system is too complex and big to be studied at one time, so to make the study easier, it is broadly divided
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into two basic categories
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a. Terrestrial Ecosystem: consists of land. E.g., Forest, grassland, desert.
b. Aquatic Ecosystem: consists of water bodies. E.g., Ponds, lakes, fresh water rivers, wet lands,
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sea, salt water estuaries.
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Ecosystem which develops with or without human interference are of two types
a. Natural ecosystem: Ecosystem which develops in nature without human support or interference.
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E.g., Forests, marine ecosystem.

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b. Anthropogenic ecosystem or man-made ecosystem: Ecosystem which is created and maintained

by human beings.
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E.g., Crop fields, garden, aquarium. Agro ecosystem or agriculture is the largest man-made ecosystem.
2.1 Components/Constituents of Ecosystem

An ecosystem consists of two components namely abiotic and biotic components.
y Abiotic Components
The physical environmental factors or the non-living factors in an ecosystem are the abiotic components.
Three types of abiotic components i.e., climatic, edaphic, topographic are mentioned below.
O Climatic factors include temperature, water, light, wind, humidity, air currents.
O Edaphic factors include factors related to the structure and composition of soil, including its
physical and chemical properties.
O Topographic factors include factors related to physical features of earth like slope, valley,
mountain and plains etc.
14.3
Ecosystem
y Biotic Components
The biotic components of the ecosystem are living organisms i.e., plants, animals and microorganisms that
are present in environment. These are classified into three main groups on the basis of their role in the
ecosystem:
O Producers: Green photosynthetic plants entrap solar energy through chlorophyll to synthesize
organic food from inorganic raw materials and are called autotrophs (self-nourishing).
Major producers in terrestrial ecosystem are herbaceous and woody plants.
Major producers in aquaticeco system are phytoplanktons, algae and the floating, submerged
and margin alplants found at the edges.
Producers convert solar energy into chemical energy stored in the bonds of sugars, hence are also
known as “converters” or “transducers”.
O Consumers: Animals that are not capable of synthesizing their own food materials. Dependent on
producers directly or indirectly for their survival. Hence are also termed as heterotrophs. Consumers
are of following types
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(a) Primary Consumers (PC)/First Order Consumers: These are organisms/animals directly
feeding on producers for their main source of nutrients/food consumptions. They are also called as
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herbivores.
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Terrestrial ecosystem: Common herbivores are grasshopper, cow and deer.
Aquatic ecosystem: Common herbivores are mollusks, tadpole and mosquito larvae.
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(b) Secondary Consumers (SC)/Second Order consumers/Primary Carnivores: Organisms/

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animals feeding on PC/herbivores are Secondary Consumers.

Terrestrial ecosystem: Common SCs include toad, spiders, lizards, centipedes and
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insectivorous birds.
Aquatic ecosystem: Common SCs include Hydra, frog and some fishes.
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(c) Tertiary Consumers (TC)/Third Order Consumers/Secondary Carnivores: Carnivores

which feed upon secondary consumers. E.g., Large fishes (aquatic ecosystem), snake
(terrestrial ecosystem). There may be quaternary or fourth order consumers which prey upon
secondary carnivores.
(d) Top Carnivores: These are carnivores which are not eaten or attacked by other organisms
are called as top carnivores. They may belong to the category of primary, secondary, tertiary
carnivores. E.g. Man, tiger, lion, panthers and falcon/peacock.
O Decomposers/Osmotrophs: Saprophytic microorganisms deriving their food material from
organic matter present in dead remains of plants and animals are decomposers. Digestive
enzymes secreted by them converts complex organic substances into simpler molecules. The
microorganisms assimilate a part of the digested organic matter and the rest is broken down into
simpler inorganic compounds for recycling. Cyclic exchange of materials between biotic community
and the environment are brought about by decomposers. They are very essential components of an
14.4
Ecosystem
ecosystem. Capable of degrading the dead organisms they are also called as reducers. These are
the fungi, bacteria and flagellates especially abundant in the bottom of the pond.
Complex organic substances → Simple organic substances → Inorganic compounds
Functions of decomposers in ecosystem:
y They reduce the organic remains of earth and behave as natural scavengers.
y Replenish the soil naturally with minerals that are essential for growth of plants and hence,
maintenance of ecosystem.
Other categories namely scavengers, detrivores and parasites are included as living beings amongst the
biotic component of an ecosystem.
Parasites belong to diverse groups such as bacteria, fungi, protozoans, worms etc.
Detrivores are animals which feed on detritus such as termites, earthworm etc. which are helpful in quick
disposal of the dead bodies.
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Organisms/animals that feed on dead or injured animals and they clean the earth of organic garbage are
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scavengers. E.g., Carrion beetles, marabou storks, crow, hyenas and vultures which act as full-time
scavengers by surviving on scraps of dead flesh.
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Flowchart 14.1: Flowchart displaying arrangement of different components of ecosystem

14.5
Ecosystem
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 14.1: Components of a typical ecosystem with examples
Biotic Abiotic
Producers Consumers Decomposers Climatic Topographic Edaphic
(Autotrophs) (Heterotrophs) (Saprotrophs) factors factors factors
Herbaceous and Primary Scavengers Temperature, Physical Structure
woody plants, Secondary (carrion beetles, water, features and
phytoplanktons, marabou storks, light, wind, of earth composition
algae and Tertiary crow and humidity, air like slope, of soil,
the floating, Top vultures), currents valley, including its
submerged and detrivores mountain physical and
marginal plants (termites, and plain chemical
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found at the earthworm) etc. properties
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edges and parasites
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(bacteria, fungi,
protozoans,
worms)
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TRY IT YOURSELF
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1. Ecosystem: Forest, grassland, Estuaries, Pond, Lake, Wetland.

a. From the above given options, how many can be categorized into terrestrial and
aquatic ecosystem respectively?
b. Amongst these which is smallest ecosystem?
2. In terrestrial ecosystem what are major producers?
3. Chief producer in aquatic ecosystem is ______.
4. Which biotic component is involved in maintaining soil fertility?
5. Choose odd one out w.r.t. consumers: Insects, chemosynthetic bacteria, Tadpole.
14.6
Ecosystem
DID YOU KNOW

y Global ecosystem is biosphere and the two categories are terrestrial and aquatic.
y Three categories can be distinguished under biotic component of ecosystem i.e.,
producers consumers, decomposers.
y Whale, which is a mammal is considered as a secondary consumer in the aquatic
system since its major diet consists of aquatic plankton.
y Parasites surviving on plant are known as primary consumers since they directly
feed on the nutrients prepared by producers/autotrophs. On the other hand,
parasites thriving on/within animals such as bacteria E. coli, Entamoeba histolitica,
?
liver fluke, tapeworm etc., are known as secondary consumers since they consume
nutrients from the heterotrophs/carnivores who themselves derive food from other
sources including autotrophs.
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y All the insectivorous plants have double role as producers as well as secondary
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consumers because they are capable of synthesizing their own food through
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photosynthesis while also trapping insects simultaneously for nutrient/energy needs.
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y Man and peacock are labeled as omnivores since they feed on both autotrophic
plants as well as other heterotrophic organisms.
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y Organisms/microbes which feed on milk or curd are known as secondary consumers.

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2.2 Structure of Ecosystem

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Physical structure that is characteristic for each type of ecosystem is due to interaction of biotic and abiotic
components. Important structural features include
y Species Composition: Each ecosystem is an active and dynamic interaction between the different
species that it supports and nourishes. These components varies from one ecosystem to another.
y Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of an ecosystem is Species Composition.
E.g., Tropical rain forest is dense with amazing number of biological species. On the other hand,
vegetation is sparse in the desert ecosystem.
y Stratification: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is
Stratification. It is the structure recognizable pattern in spatial arrangement of the members of the
communities such as layering of the vegetation in a community (stratum – layer).
E.g., In a typical forest the generally observed vertical subdivisions are top layer occupied by trees;
the following second layer is abundant in shrubs and short bushes while the last bottom layer near the
base or ground is where grasses and herbs flourish.
14.7
Ecosystem
2.3 Function of Ecosystem

Eco system have a natural tendency to persist. This is made possible by a variety of functions (activities
undertaken to ensure persistence) performed by the structural components. The components of the ecosystem
are seen to function as a unit to ensure its persistence. The key functional aspects of the ecosystem are
2.3.1 Productivity
It is the rate of biomass production. Productivity in ecosystem is of two types – Primary and
Secondary productivity.
y Primary Productivity: Rate at which biomass or organic matter which is produced by plants or
producers during photosynthesis per unit area over a time period.
Primary Productivity can also be defined as the rate at which sunlight is captured by producers for the
synthesis of energy-rich organic compounds through photosynthesis.
It is expressed in terms of weight as gm m-2 yr-1 or energy as Kcal m-2 yr-1. To compare the productivity
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of different ecosystems it can be further divided into two categories:
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O Gross Primary Productivity (GPP): Rate of production or synthesis of organic matter by
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producers during photosynthesis per unit time and area. The energy capture process occurs in
the green, photosynthetic tissues; these as well as other plant tissues consume the food material
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or photosynthate during respiration. Hence, considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants
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in respiration.
O Net Primary Productivity (NPP): Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R). It is
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the rate of organic matter build up or stored by producers in excess of respiratory utilization per unit
time and area.
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NPP = GPP – R
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Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs i.e. both herbivores
and decomposers.
Factors affecting primary productivity: Primary productivity is affected by several biotic and abiotic factors
such as:
O The ability to utilize incident solar radiation to raise gross primary productivity i.e. photosynthetic
capacity of producers.
O Available solar radiations at a given point of time.
O Temperature.
O Soil moisture.
O Availability of Nutrients.
Productivity of biosphere: The annual NPP of calculated for the whole biosphere is approximately 170
billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. The productivity of oceans accounts for about 55 billion tons and
while for terrestrial system it is relatively higher at 115 billion tons. This despite water bodies occupying
nearly 70% of the earth’s surface.
14.8
Ecosystem
In deep marine habitats, two main limiting factors are the reasons for the low productivity of oceans:
O Light – Intensity decreases/reduces with depth.
O Nutrients – Nitrogen is the most limiting nutrient of marine ecosystem as compared to terrestrial
ecosystems where it is easily fixed.
y Secondary productivity: It is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
DID YOU KNOW
?
y Composition of species and stratification are the two important structural features
of ecosystem.
y There are four functional aspects of ecosystem namely productivity, decomposition,
energy flow and nutrient cycling.
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1. State True or False
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a Vertical stratification is more diverse in grassland than desert ecosystem.
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b Maximum species diversity is associated with tropical rain forest.

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c The magnitude of primary productivity is affected by only biotic factors.

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d Value of Net primary productivity is considerably higher than Gross primary productivity.
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e Rate at which sunlight is captured by autotrophs represents ___________________.

f Global area occupied by oceans is ______________ but productivity contribution
is _______________.
2.3.2 Decomposition
Synthesis and building processes are involved in productivity, decomposition is equally important.
Decomposition is breakdown of complex organic matter to inorganic raw materials like CO2, H2O, and
various nutrients by decomposers. The upper layer of soil in terrestrial habitats and bottom of water bodies
is the major site of decomposition. Raw material for decomposition constitute detritus which are dead
remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead remains of animals including faecal matter.
y Decomposition Processes: Fragmentation, leaching and catabolism are the three important steps in
the process of decomposition. These processes occur simultaneously.
14.9
Ecosystem
O Fragmentation of Detritus: Detrivores are small invertebrate animals such as earthworms, termites
that feed on detritus. They bring about its fragmentation. A part of detritus eaten by detrivores comes
out in highly pulverized state in their faeces. Detritus is changed into fine particles due to fragmentation
during eating and pulverization in digestive tracts having a large surface area.
O Leaching: In the fragmented and decomposing detritus (e.g. sugars, inorganic nutrients), part
of water-soluble substances present go down into the soil horizon by percolating water and get
precipitated as unavailable salts and is known as Leaching.
O Catabolism: Saprotrophic bacteria and fungi secrete digestive enzymes over the fragmented
detritus. These enzymes change complex organic compounds into simple compound and inorganic
substances are released in this process.
The rate of breakdown of different complex substances or catabolic action is different. This differential
decomposition produces two substances, inorganic nutrients and humus, by process called mineralization
and humification respectively, which occurs in soil.
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y Humification: Decomposition of detritus to form humus is termed as humification. A dark-colored,
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amorphous, more or less decomposed organic matter rich in cellulose, lignin, tannins, resin, etc. and is
highly resistant against microbial action is Humus. At an extremely slow rate it undergoes decomposition.
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Humus is slightly acidic, colloidal and functions as reservoir of nutrients.
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y Mineralization: The release of inorganic substances such as CO2, H2O, minerals from organic matter
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or humus during the process of decomposition is termed as mineralization. When digestive enzymes
are poured over organic matter by saprotrophic microbes they are formed along with simple and soluble
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organic substances.
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y Factors affecting decomposition: Chemical nature of detritus and a number of climatic factors control
the rate of decomposition of detritus.
Ed
O Chemical nature of detritus: If it contains lignin chitin, tannins (phenolic) and cellulose, decomposition
of detritus is slow. If detritus possesses more of nitrogenous compounds (like proteins, nucleic acids)
and water-soluble reserve carbohydrates or sugars it is rapid.
O Temperature: Decomposers are very active in soils having good moisture, aeration and at a
temperature of more than 25 oC. It takes less than 3-4 months for complete decomposition of detritus
in humid tropical regions. The rate of decomposition is very slow even if moisture and aeration are
optimum under low temperature conditions (<10 oC) of soils.
O Moisture: Detritus is quickly decomposed in optimum moisture. The rate of decomposition is reduced
by reduction in moisture as in areas of prolonged dryness like tropical deserts where otherwise,
the temperature is quite high. Excessive moisture also delays decomposition. The most important
climatic factors i.e. temperature and soil moisture regulate the decomposition through their effects on
the activities of soil microbes.
O Aeration: Required for activity of decomposers and detrivores. The process of decomposition will
slow down as aeration is reduced.
14.10
Ecosystem
Warm and moist environment favor decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition resulting in buildup of organic materials.
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Figure 14.1: Diagrammatic representation of the decomposition cycle in a typical terrestrial ecosystem
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DID YOU KNOW

Biosphere: Composed of all the biotic (living) as well as abiotic (non living) thing factors/
Ed
components of the earth/biome combined together, constituting a big ecosystem The

other terms for Biosphere is Ecosphere and was coined by Cole (1958).
Earth is also termed as biome/Biosphere
The Earth/biome is divided into the following sphere
? y Lithosphere–The biotic as well as abiotic components located on the earth surface
constitutes the lithosphere.
y Hydrosphere –The biotic as well as abiotic components located in the water
constitutes the hydrosphere
y Atmosphere –The biotic as well as abiotic components located in air constitutes
the atmosphere.
Earth as a biosphere is a closed system of minerals but is considered as an open
system w.r.t energy.
14.11
Ecosystem
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Which of the following terms are not associated with humus?
Amorphous, Light colored, Acidic, Colloidal, Labile, and Reservoir of nutrients.
2. Two major decomposers include ________________ and _______________________.
3. What results in the piling up of organic matter amongst the factors given below?
Warm environment, Anaerobic condition, Low moisture, < 10oC temperature
4. State True or False
a. Rate of decomposition is controlled by climatic factors only.
b. Fragmentation is performed by detrivores resulting in breakage of large size organic
matter into smaller one which increases surface are for action of microbes.
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2.3.3 Energy Flow
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Sequential process of the movement of energy in an ecosystem through a series of organisms is energy
energy. Flow of incident energy is shown below:

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flow. For all ecosystems on earth (except for deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem), sun is the only source of
Incident solar radiation (100%)

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Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) Absorbed by gases/ water vapours; reflected by

(Less than 50%) clouds; scattered by dust particles (More than 50%)
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Energy loss (45-49%)
Captured in photosynthesis (GPP)(1-5%)
Respiratory loss (0.2-1%)
NPP (0.8-4%)
Flowchart 14.2: Sequential flow of incident solar energy
14.12
Ecosystem
Source of Energy: From the incident solar radiation which is assumed to be 100%, less than 50% of it
is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). Only 2-10 % of PAR and 1-5% of incident solar radiation
are captured by plants for the synthesis of organic matter. Around 20% of the captured solar radiation is
consumed in respiration so the net primary productivity is 0.8-4% of incident radiation or 1.6-8% of PAR.
In any organisms energy does not remain trapped permanently and indefinately. It is either passed on to the
higher trophic level or becomes available to detrivores or decomposers after the organism dies. Herbivores
feed on producers. Some of the energy is used in digestion and assimilation. Some of the assimilated food
is broken down to release energy for performing body activities. A very small proportion becomes part of
the body of herbivore. Herbivores are eaten by primary carnivores, latter by secondary carnivores and so
on. So, energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional and moves in one way from Solar radiation
-> Producers -> Herbivores -> Carnivores-> Decomposers
The energy which passes from autotrophic plants to the herbivores does not pass back to the plants.
Energy flow follows laws of thermodynamics: This large expenditure of energy in the ecosystem is
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based on two basic laws of thermodynamics. In accordance with the first law of thermodynamics, which
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proposes that energy is neither created nor destroyed, but can be transformed from one state to another,
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solar energy from sunlight can be transformed into storage energy of food and heat energy. The second
law of thermodynamics proposes that no transfer of energy occurs unless and until it is accompanied by
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degradation or dissipation of energy from concentrated to dispersed form i.e. entropy or disorderliness of
the system increases. The transfer of energy from one organism to another is accompanied by degradation
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and loss of major part of food energy as heat energy. Energy of food is stored in concentrated form while its
highly dispersed/released form is heat.
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TRY IT YOURSELF
Ed
State True or False :

1. Energy transfer is cyclic.
2. Value of PAR is >50% of solar radiation.
3. Exception to source of energy is hydrothermal ecosystem.
4. Give a scheme or flow chart representing flow of energy in an ecosystem.
5. Energy of sunlight is fixed by green plants and trapped in C-C bond of sugars through
process of photosynthesis is explained by _______________ law of thermodynamics.
2.3.4 Food Chain

Journey/transfer of food energy from producers, through a series of organisms with repeated events of
eating and being eaten is termed as food chain. Each level or step in a food chain where transfer of energy
takes place is called as trophic level.
14.13
Ecosystem
Types of Food Chain:

y Grazing Food Chain (GFC)/Predator food chain: Consists of producers, consumers and
decomposers. Sun serves as the main source of energy for such food chain.
O Primary Producers (PP): Autotrophic organisms which fix up the solar energy and synthesize their
own organic food from organic raw material are termed as Primary Producers. They form base of
food chain constituting first trophic level (T1).
O Primary Consumers (PC)/Primary Carnivores: Animals which feed on green plants or plant
products are termed as Primary Consumers. They constitute the second trophic level (T2).
O Secondary Consumers (SC)/Primary Carnivores: Animals which feed on herbivores are termed
as Secondary Consumers and form the third trophic level (T3).
O Tertiary Consumers (TC)/Secondary Carnivores: Animals which feed on secondary consumers
constitute Tertiary Consumers and are on the fourth trophic level (T4) and so on.
n
Levels PP PC SC TC Top consumer
.i
Trophic levels T1 T2 T3 T4 T5
al
Terrestrial food chain: Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
n
Aquatic food chain: Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small Fish → Large Fish
ur
The major reservoir of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem is defined by GFC. It is commonly observed that at
higher trophic levels, size of the organisms progressively increases.
o
y Detritus Food Chain (DFC)/Saprophytic food chain: Detritus or dead organic matter initiates with
uj
Detritus Food Chain. DFC consists of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms mainly fungi
Ed
and bacteria. Detrivores act over the dead, decaying matter present in the detritus and hence the
food energy present in the detritus is passed into them. Consumption of detrivores and decomposers
by smaller carnivores which in turn are eaten by larger carnivores and so on.
A common detritus food chain with earthworm serving as detrivore is given below.
Detritus → Earthworm → Sparrow → Falcon.
Relatively higher fraction of energy flows through DFC as compared to GFC in terrestrial ecosystems.
14.14
Ecosystem
Figure 14.2: Schematic representation of the various trophic levels in a typical ecosystem
.i n
TRY IT YOURSELF
al
1. Mention the tropic level for the following organisms
n
i. Fruit eating birds Zooplanktons
ur
ii. Grasses Chemosynthetic bacteria

2. For the below food chain answer the following questions
o
Grass ->Rabbit -> Wolf

uj
i. Type of food chain ____________________.

Ed
ii. Trophic level of grass is _______________ and rabbit is ___________________.

iii. Wolf belongs to _____________________.
2.4 Food Web

At certain specific levels DFC may be connected with GFC chains. The GFC animals prey on some of the
organisms of DFC. In ecosystems, linear food chains as described above rarely exists, since every organism
at each trophic level has multiple sources of food. An animal may have preference for a particular prey,
but if the prey is present in small numbers, the particular animal may feed upon some other prey. Also the
primary carnivore animals may be eaten by different secondary carnivore animals and thus different food
chains get interconnected and one animal may serve as a link in more than one type of food chain. Food
web is the network of inter connected food chains at different trophic levels in a biotic community.
Occurrence of food webs provides stability to ecosystem. Organisms of one particular trophic level may
feed on organisms of different trophic levels and not just of the consecutive trophic level.
14.15
Ecosystem
E.g. Snakes feeds upon both mice (herbivores) and frogs (carnivores). Jackals/foxes are both
carnivores and scavengers. Sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits etc. and a
secondary consumer when it eats insects and worms.
.i n
Figure 14.3: Schematic representation of a typical terrestrial food web
n al
Ten Percent Law of Energy Transfer: In 1942, Lindeman proposed the Law of Energy Transfer. The
transfer of energy from one trophic level to another trophic level is accompanied by loss of energy at
each level or step. About 10% of energy in the food is fixed into animal flesh while 90% is consumed
ur
in ingestion, respiration, maintenance of body heat and other activities/processes when the plants
are eaten by herbivore. Again about 10% of energy is fixed when a carnivore consumes that herbivore.
o
Therefore, at each transfer only 10% of the total energy is actually available to the next trophic level. It is
uj
termed as 10% (ten percent) law.

Ed
Figure 14.4: Schematic representation of ten percent law of energy transfer

Residual energy reduced drastically within two-three trophic levels. An ecosystem can hence support
only a limited number of trophic levels sometimes between 3-5.
14.16
Ecosystem
Standing state/quality: The amount of all the inorganic substances present within in a particular ecosystem
per unit area at a given time is called as standing state or quality.
Standing crop: Amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time. It is expressed
as the numbers or biomass of organisms per unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms
of either fresh or dry weight. Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more preferred to avoid
variations in weight due to seasonal moisture differences in biomass.
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Figure 14.5: Diagrammatic representation of energy flow through the different trophic levels
Ed
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Mention the names of two omnivores.
2. At each trophic level the energy transferred is around 50%. (True/False)
3. Ecological Pyramids
Graphical representations of various ecological parameters at the successive trophic levels of food
chains with producers at the base, top carnivores located at the apex and intermediate levels in between
being occupied by other heterotrophic consumers is known as ecological pyramid. Ecological pyramid
were developed by Charles Elion in 1927 and hence are also called as Eltonian pyramid. Length of bar
in the graphical diagram represents quantity at each trophic level. Number of individuals, biomass and
energy at different trophic levels are the common parameters used in preparing ecological pyramids. The
three ecological pyramids studied are:
14.17
Ecosystem
3.1 Pyramid of Numbers

y Upright: The number of producers is maximum in mosteco systems. During transfer of food at any
trophic level, only 10% of the food becomes part of the next trophic level while 90% of the food is either
wasted (loss)or broken down during cellular respiration for providing energy for supporting various
life activities. Producers can thus support fewer herbivores and herbivores can support even fewer
carnivores and so on. Thus the amount of top carnivores is too small to support any other trophic
level and do not act as prey to any other organisms.
E.g. Only top three carnivores are supported in an ecosystem based on production of nearly 6 million
plants.
Thus, with each successive trophic level, the number/amount of individuals begin to reduce.
Hence, the pyramid of number is upright. E.g. Grassland ecosystem and Pond ecosystem.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 14.6: Diagrammatic representation of upright pyramid of number in a typical grassland ecosystem
o
uj
y Inverted: The number of the organisms at a particular trophic is higher than in the preceding one and
the size reduces gradually at each successive level. Shape of pyramid may be inverted.
Ed
E.g., A large-sized tree (producers) may support and provide nourishment to several birds. The
number of ectoparasites like mites, ticks, lices, bugs etc. dependent upon the number of birds for
nourishment therefore exist in much higher number than the birds. The number thus increases at
each trophic level.
A B
Figure 14.7: Diagrammatic representation of A. Inverted and B. Spindle pyramid of number in a typical
grassland ecosystem
y Spindle: A tree supports a number of smaller, herbivores birds. The smaller birds are eaten by one or
two larger hawks of the area. Hence, the number of smaller herbivorous birds is the largest while the
other trophic levels of trees and hawks have relatively smaller numbers.
14.18
Ecosystem
3.2 Pyramid of Biomass

y Upright: The amount of living matter expressed as weight at any particular trophic level at a given
time is termed as biomass. In terrestrial ecosystems, pyramid of biomass is usually upright. Total
biomass of plants which serve as producers in a specific area is higher than that of herbivores which
serve as primary consumers and it gradually decreases at each successive trophic level for upright
pyramid. It is least in the level consisting of top carnivores. E.g., Tree and grassland ecosystems.
n
Figure 14.8: Diagrammatic representation of upright pyramid of biomass showing a reduction in biomass
.i
at higher trophic levels
y
n al
Inverted: In aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass may be inverted. E.g. Biomass of
zooplanktons is higher than that of phytoplanktons as life span of former is longer while the latter
multiplies relatively quickly though despite having shorter life span. A number of generations of
ur
phytoplanktons may be consumed by a single generation of zooplanktons. Biomass of fish may

still be larger as fishes are much larger in size with longer life spans and a number of generations
o
of zooplanktons can be consumed by a single generation of fishes. However during transfer, only
uj
10% of the biomass of on egeneration is passed on to next trophic level.

Ed
Figure 14.9: Diagrammatic representation of inverted pyramid of biomass showing a higher biomass at
higher trophic levels of zooplanktons below which is the lower biomass of phytoplanktons
3.3 Pyramid of Energy

The flow of energy is unidirectional from producer to consumer level, hence the pyramid of energy
is always upright. Producers have the maximum energy content. Since a part of the energy is lost
as heat and major part of energy is liberated during respiration for use in various activities, the energy
decreases at each trophic level of food chain. As proposed by 10 percent law of Lindeman only 10% of
the energy of previous trophic level is received by the next trophic level.
E.g. Of the 10,000,000 J of incident solar energy, around 10,000 J of energy is stored in a plant
assuming plants trap 1% solar energy. Herbivores which feed upon plants, will retain 1,000 J of the
available stored energy and carnivores feeding upon them will gain only 100 J of the usable energy
giving below pyramid shape.
14.19
Ecosystem
Figure 14.10: Diagrammatic representation of an ideal upright pyramid of energy showing the reduced
energy transfer at higher trophic levels
TC 10 J
n
SC 100 J
.i
PC al →
1000 J
→
n
PP 10,000 J
ur
→
1,000,000 J of sunlight
o
Flowchart 14.3: Display of ten percent law of Lindeman

uj
Ed
All the pyramids of numbers, energy and biomass are upright in most ecosystems. Producers are higher
in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also, energy at a lower trophic level is always higher than
at a higher level.
Any calculation of energy content, biomass or numbers has to include all organisms at that trophic level.
Limitations of Ecological Pyramid:
y Same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. E.g., insectivorous plants is not taken into
account.
y Does not accommodate a food web as it assumes a simple food chain.
y In ecological pyramids, saprophytes, decomposers, microbes and detrivores are not given any
place.
14.20
Ecosystem
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Table 14.2: Types of Biome, their location and vegetation with examples
Biome Location Vegetation
Tundra region/Arctic Mountain tops such as peaks of Lichen, Moss, Grass.
desert/Alpine tundra Himalaya, Andes mountain etc. This biome is without trees.
Fragile biome a. Timber line – Line beyond
which trees are not found.
b. Perma frost – In this region soil
is covered by snow or ice.
Northern coniferous/ Lower regions of the Pine (Pinus), Deodar (Cedrus),
Needle leaf/Temperate mountainous and hilly terrain. Cypress (Cupressus torulosa),
n
forest Spruce (Picea smithiana),
.i
Silver Fir (Abies pindrow).
n al a. Coniferous forest have
characteristic needle like leaves
b. This forest is also known as
ur
taiga.
Temperate deciduous/ Base of the mountainous and Oak (Quercus).
o
Broad leaf forest hilly terrain. a. Trees shed their leaves in

uj
autumn season which flourish

again in spring season.
Ed
Tropical deciduous Located in abundance in the Sal (Shorea robusta), Teak

forest northern and southern part of (Tectona grandis), Tendu,
the country in plain and low hilly Chiraungi, Khair.
areas.
Leaves of most of the tree fall
before summer season.
Tropical rain forest Tropical rain forest are Dipterocarpus and Hopea are
found close to the equatorial most common tree species in
region around the Earth. India. Lianas are also found.
In India tropical rain forest
are distributed mainly along
western Ghats and Eastern
Himalayan regions.
Chaparral These forest are found along Draught resistant and fire
(Mediterranean) scrub the pacific coast of North resistant plant species are found.
forest America and the South E.g. Small tree, shrub (sage).
Australian coast
14.21
Ecosystem
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Tropical savanna Tropical savanna biome are Coarse grass – Dichanthium,
biome (Thorn forest)/ found in South America and Sechima, Phragmites.
Tropical grassland Australia. Trees – Acacia, Eucalyptus,
Zizyphus, Capparis
In this biome grass and scattered
tree are located in the same soil.
Grass land biome Prairies – North America
Pampas – South America
Tussocks – New Zealand
Steppes – Europe and Asia
Veldts - Africa
n
Desert Biome Hot Sahara desert – North Africa
.i
Hot Thar desert – Asia
al
Cold Gobi desert – Tibet, Asia
n
ur
TRY IT YOURSELF
o
State True or False

uj
1. Pyramid of biomass is always upright.

Ed
2. Upright pyramid can be seen for all the ecological parameters in grassland ecosystem.
3. 10% law of Lindeman justify upright shape of pyramid of energy.
4. Base of ecological pyramid represents producers.
4. Ecological Succession
Biotic community is always dynamic. Interactions between biotic and abiotic components changes its
composition with time. This change is orderly and sequential, parallel with the changes in the physical
environment. These changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and
is called as climax community. Ecological succession is defined as the gradual and fairly predictable
changes observed in the species composition of a given area. During succession, some species colonize
an area and their populations become more numerous, where as populations of other species decline
and even disappear.
14.22
Ecosystem
4.1 Types of Successional Communities

y Pioneer community: Pioneer community is the first biotic community that develops in a bare area.
E.g., Lichens on rock, phytoplanktons and zooplanktons in pond.
y Transitional or serial community: The pioneer community is followed by a specific orderly
sequence of series of plant communities known as serial communities.
E.g., Bryophytes, herbs, shrubs in xerosphere; submerged, floating etc. in pond.
y Climax community: Climax community is the last community in biotic succession which is
relatively stable and exists in near equilibrium with the environment of that area. E.g., Forests.
The entire series of communities occurring in biotic succession is called as sere. The individual
transitional communities are termed as seral stages or seral communities.
4.2 Types of Succession
n
y 1. Based upon nature of habitat it initates, succession is of two types
.i
O Xerosere/Xerarch succession – Occurs in dry areas like rock (lithosere), sand (psammosere)
and saline conditions (halosere). al
O Hydrosere/Hydrarch succession – Occurs in aquatic habitat.
n
y 2. Based upon the type of nudity of the area, succession is classified into the two types
ur
O Primary succession: It initiates at barren area with no signs of vegetation or living organism of
any type ever existing. The areas where primary succession starts are cooled volcanic lava, sand
o
dunes, igneous rocks, newly exposed sea or newly submerged terrestrial habitats in water,
uj
etc. This succession takes a very long time since it is very difficult for the pioneer community to get
established in these areas.
Ed
Before a biotic community of diverse organisms can become established, there must be soil.
Depending mostly on the climate, it takes natural processes several hundred to several thousand
years to produce fertile soil on bare rock.
O Secondary succession: Areas that somehow lost all the living organisms that existed on it leads
to secondary succession. Secondary succession is found in natural biotic communities that
have been destroyed such as in abandoned farmlands, burned or cut forestlands that have
been flooded.
This secondary succession is quicker since some soil or sediment is present. Climax is also
reached more rapidly. The species that invade in this succession depend on the condition of the
soil, availability of water, seeds or other present factors.
Ecosystem characteristics that change during succession:
i. Some species colonize an area and their populations become more numerous, whereas
populations of other species decline and even disappears i.e. change in diversity of
species.
14.23
Ecosystem
ii. Little to high degree of species diversity i.e., increase in the total number of species of
the ecosystem.
iii. Increase in the total biomass.
iv. Elevated humus content of the soil.
v. Aquatic or dry conditions to mesic conditions i.e., both Hydrarch and Xerarch succession
leads to medium water conditions which is termed as mesic, neither too dry which is termed
as xeric nor too wet which is termed as hydric.
vi. Changes/variations in vegetation in turn affects the food and shelter for various types of
animals. Thus, as succession proceeds, the number and types of animals and decomposers
also changes.
TRY IT YOURSELF
n
1. Climax community exhibits high species diversity. True/False.
.i
2. Succession and evolution had occurred simultaneously. True/False.
3. Choose the correct match
n al
(i) Primary succession (a) Fast
ur
(ii) Secondary succession (b) Cooled volcanic lava
(c) Slow
o
(d) Abandoned farm land

uj
Ed
The present day communities in the world have been formed because of the succession that has occurred
over millions of years since life began on planet earth. Actually succession and evolution would have been
parallel processes occurring at the same time.
DID YOU KNOW

? Reterogressive Succession: At any given time during the phase of occurrence of
primary or secondary succession, natural or human-induced disturbance such as fire,
deforestation can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage.
4.2.1 Succession of Plants

y Xerarch Succession: Primary succession on rocks is termed as xerarch succession. The xeric
conditions ultimately leads to mesic conditions.
14.24
Ecosystem
O Pioneer Community: Lichens are usually considered under pioneer community as they are able
to secrete acids to dissolve rock which helps in weathering and soil formation. This makes the
habitat more suitable for the next seral stage which is composed of bryophytes.
O Transitional Communities: Mosses/Bryophytes are able to hold in the small amount of soil
generated by lichens. Bryophytes show gregarious habit, their rhizoids can penetrate deeper
within the soil enhancing weathering or soil formation. During rainy season, the compact mat
formed by mosses on weathered rock retains sufficient moisture and the habitat thus become
suitable for germination of seeds of larger plants. Larger plants such as annual grass replaced by
perennial which is further replaced by shrubs stage.
O Climax community: The shrubs are very quickly replaced by hardy trees forming the stable climax
forest community. The climate of that area is responsible for the nature of the climax forest.
Sequence of various stages in a sere can be represented as
Lichens → Bryophytes → Herbs Shrubs → Forest
n
y Hydrarch Succession: The succession occurring in an aquatic habitat like freshly formed pond is
.i
termed as hydrosere. The successional series progress from hydrarch to mesic conditions as well.
al
O Pioneer Community: It is formed by the minute microscopic autotrophic organisms like diatoms,
unicellular, colonial or filamentous green algae and blue-green algae (cyanobacteria called as
n
the phytoplanktons. Winds or animals serve as the carrier which transports the spores of these
ur
organisms to the newly formed pond. High multiplying rates of such organisms make a suitable
habitat for zooplanktons which feed upon them. The organic matter formed by death and decay of
o
planktons, mixes with the clay and silt at the bottom of pond which results in the formation of soft
mud. The habitat thus becomes suitable for the growth of next stage.
uj
O Transitional Communities:
Ed
(a) Submerged plant stage: These plants are anchored in the mud at the bottom of water body with
their roots. E.g., Myriophyllum, Hydrilla, Vallisneria, Potamogeton etc.
(b) Submerged free-floating plant stage: Due to the accumulation of dead and decaying remains
the submerged plant bottom level is raised. The ponds also become rich in minerals (nutrients)
which become suitable for free-floating plants. E.g., Azolla, Wolffia, Pistia etc.
(c) Reed – swamp stage: More shallowing of plants takes place due to the continued siltation process
which paves the way for the growth of rooted emergent plants such as reeds which are amphibious
plants. E.g., Typha, Sagittaria, Phragmites etc.
(d) Marsh-meadow stage: Marshy plants invade the Reed- swamp stage. With increased settling of
silt and deposition of the dead organic matter derived from the floating and rooted species, the pond
becomes shallower until it gets transformed into terrestrial habitat. E.g., Carex, Juncas, Cyperus.
(e) Scrub stage: The Marsh- meadow stage is replaced by shrubs. E.g., Salix, Populus, Alnus.
O Climax community: The shrub stage is replaced by trees which grows to greater heights. The
nature of the climax community is highly influenced by the climatic conditions of that area. E.g., Forest.
14.25
Ecosystem
.i n
n al
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uj
Ed
Figure 14.11: Diagrammatic representation of the primary hydrarch succession in pond

14.26
Ecosystem
TRY IT YOURSELF
1 State True or False
a Lichen secretes weak acids.
b Pioneer community in newly formed pond in plankton stage.
c In hydrarch succession scrub stage is preceded by forest community.
d Climatic factors govern or decide type of community in secondary succession.
2. Answer appropriately as per the sere given below:
Lichens → ? → Herbs → Shrubs → Forest
a Mention the name of missing seral stage
b What type of environmental conditions occurs in climax community?
.i n
5. Nutrient Cycle al
Biogenetic Nutrients: They are essential elements provided by Earth required by organisms for their
n
survival, building and maintenance of the physical body and several metabolic processes. The standing
ur
state is the amount of nutrients present in the soil at any given time. It varies in different kinds of
ecosystems and also based on seasonal variations.
o
Circulation or exchange of biogenetic nutrients between the biotic and abiotic components is as the
uj
nutrient cycle or biogeochemical cycle when at global scale.

Whole living matter is composed of nutrients, either as structural components or biochemical as
Ed
enzymes. An ecosystem has a limited supply of biogenetic nutrients in its abiotic environment. A
major part of the organic matter is synthesized by the producers. From producers the nutrients in the form
of organic matter is transferred to the higher trophic levels. Decomposers release them back to abiotic
environment acting on the organic wastes and dead bodies of organisms. In this way the same nutrients
repeatedly move though living and non-living components i.e. biotic and abiotic components of the
ecosystem.
Bulk of nutrients are stored in the abiotic reservoirs relatively in in active state with only a smaller
active fraction, often existing in ionic form and involved in cycling.
Types of Biogeochemical Cycles
y Gaseous cycle
O Exchange of nutrients occurs in gaseous or vapour form
O Biogeochemical is non-mineral
O Atmosphere or hydrosphere is the reservoir pool.

14.27
Ecosystem
E.g., Nitrogen, Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen cycle.

y Sedimentary cycle
O Biogeochemical component is mineral.
O Earth’s crust or lithosphere is reservoir pool.
E.g., Sulphur, Phosphorous cycle.

The deficit which occurs due to imbalance in the rate of influx and efflux is the function of reservoir.
5.1 Carbon Cycle

Importance of carbon: Carbon is one of the most abundant element on earth. All organic components of
protoplasm like carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids, enzymes, hormones etc. have carbon
as their chief component. It constitutes 49% of dry weight of biotic organisms.
Source of carbon:
n
O 71% carbon of the total quantity of global carbon is dissolved in oceans.
.i
2
O Carbonates and graphites in rocks.
n al
O CO in the atmosphere is regulated by the carbon reservoirs found in the oceans.
O Fossil fuels and gases

ur
Circulation: Carbon cycling occurs through the atmosphere, hydrosphere namely rivers, sea and oceans
o
as well as through living and dead organisms.

uj
Utilization: It is estimated that 4 x 1013 kg of carbon is fixed annually in the biosphere through the
photosynthesis process.
Ed
Some amount of the fixed carbon is lost to sediments, shells, skeletons, and removed from circulation.
Addition:
O Through the respiratory activities of the producers and consumers a considerable amount of
carbon returns to the atmosphere as CO2.
O Decomposers also contribute substantially to the CO pool by processing of the waste materials and
2
the dead organic matter of land or oceans.
O Additional sources for releasing CO in the atmosphere are burning of wood, forest fire and
2
combustion of organic matter, fossil fuels, and volcanica ctivities.
O Human activities like rapid deforestation, transportation, massive burning of fossil fuels have
significantly influenced the carbon cycle by elevating the carbon dioxide level of the atmosphere.
14.28
Ecosystem
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 14.12: Diagrammatic representation of simplified carbon cycle occurring in the biosphere
5.2 Phosphorous Cycle

Importance of Phosphorous: Phosphorous is a major component of biological membranes, nucleic
acids and cellular energy (ATP) transfer system. It is also required by animals to synthesize shells,
bones and teeth. Phosphorous is the second most critical element, after nitrogen.
Main Sources: The natural reservoir of phosphorous is rock which is abundant in phosphates.
Utilization and Addition: Small amount of phosphate is always added to soil through weathering of rocks.
O Roots of the plants absorb it from the soil.
14.29
Ecosystem
O Herbivores and other animals obtain this element from plants.

O Excretion of animals and dead bodies of organisms are acted upon by decomposers which is
added back into the soil.
O Phosphorous released in the process becomes available for reutilization of plants.
Difference from carbon cycle:

O No respiratory release of phosphorous into the atmosphere as it exists as solid not gas.
O Inputs of phosphorous through rainfall are much smaller.
.i n
n al
ur
Figure 14.13: Schematic representation of simplified carbon cycle in the biosphere

o
6. Ecosystem Services
uj
The products of ecosystem have environmental, aesthetic and indirect economic value are named as
Ed
ecosystem services. For best services the ecosystems must be healthy. Following are ecosystem services:
O Purification of air and water by the healthy forest ecosystem.
O Mitigate droughts and floods.
O Nutrient cycles.
O Generation of fertile soils.
O Providing wild life habitat.
O Maintaining biodiversity.
O Pollination of crops.
O Providing storage site for carbon.
O Providing aesthetic, cultural and spiritual values.
Robert Constanza and his colleagues have put an average price tags of US $33 trillion a years on these
fundamental services i.e. nearly twice the value of a global GNP-US $ 18 trillion. The cost is distributed as such:
O Soil formation – 50%
14.30
Ecosystem
O Recreation < 10%

O Nutrient cycling - <10%
O Climate regulation – 6%
O Habitat for wildlife – 6%
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Stratification is the structural component of ecosystem. It represents the vertical
zonation in the community.
y The sum total biomass of benthic animals and brown algae exceeds that of the other
producers and consumers in an aquatic ecosystem.
y A tree ecosystem terminating in the parasitic food chain shows inverted pyramid
n
of number.
.i
y Secondary succession never initiates on a bare area.
y
called as nutrient immobilization.
n al
Nutrients incorporated in microbes become resistant to leaching or washing out and
y The study of lake is called as Limnology.

ur
y Succession on sand is called Psammosere.

o
y Photosynthetic carbon fixed annually in biosphere is estimated to be 4 X 1013 kg.

uj
y Large biotic communities of the world which is distinct in its climatic conditions and
has its specific type of plant and animal life is known as biomes.
Ed
y Major ecosystems (biomes) include terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem.

y Terrestrial biomes are of two types: Latitudinal and Altitudinal biomes.
y Latitudinal biomes include Tundra, Taiga, Temperate deciduous forests, Tropical
rain forests, Mediterranean scrub forest, Tropical savannah, grasslands
and deserts.
y Altitudinal biomes include alpine tundra and terai.
y Organisms which can shift between autotrophy and heterotrophy are known
as auxotrophs.
y Autotrophic metabolism occurs in the upper green belt, whereas maximum
heterotrophic metabolism occurs in the lower brown belt in aquatic ecosystem.
y Energy content per unit weight of biomass is known as caloric value.
y Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) are visible light which carries less than 50% of
the energy of total incident solar radiation and is available to producers for absorption.
14.31
Ecosystem
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Mention name of two elements, where reservoir pool is lithosphere.
2. Major reservoir of carbon is ______________
3. Maximum price tag is for which ecosystem service?
4. Mention name of ecosystem service which is involved in sexual reproduction of plants.
5. ____ percentage of the total cost of ecosystem service is devoted to soil formation. (40/50)
DID YOU KNOW

y Ecosystem: Sum total of interactions between living and non-living components which
is capable of independent existence.
n
y Stratification: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an
.i
ecosystem.
y
n al
Productivity: The rate of biomass production.
y Primary productivity: Rate of biomass production per unit area over a time period by
ur
plants during photosynthesis.
y Gross primary productivity: Rate of organic matter synthesized by producers per unit area
o
per unit time.

uj
y Net primary productivity: Rate of organic matter built up or stored by producers in their
bodies per unit time and area in excess of respiratory utilization.
?
Ed
y Secondary productivity: Rate of increase in energy containing organic matter or

biomass by heterotrophs or consumers per unit time and area.
y Community productivity: Rate of net synthesis or built up of organic matter by a
community per unit time and area.
y Ecological efficiency: Percentage of energy converted into biomass by a higher trophic
level over the energy of food resources available at the lower trophic level.
y Decomposition: Breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances with
the help of decomposers.
y Detritus: Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, and flower and dead remain of
animals, including fecal matter.
y Fragmentation: Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by detritivores.
y Leaching: Process of loss of water – soluble inorganic nutrients from top layer and
deposition into the lower soil horizon.
14.32
Ecosystem
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y A pond has two zones: production or euphotic zone which is the upper photosynthetic
part and decomposition or regeneration zone which is the lower part where
decomposition occurs.
y Deep sea is an incomplete system as the producers are absent due to total darkness
in the aphotic zone of ocean.
y Koala bears are monophagous and die if eucalyptus leaves are not available.
y Living organisms of specific area are collectively known as biota.
y Primary succession occurs in biological sterile area, while secondary succession
occurs in biologically fertile area.
n
DID YOU KNOW
.i
y Catabolism: Process of degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic substances by
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activity of bacterial and fungal enzymes.
n
y Humus: Dark colored amorphous substance that is highly resistant to microbial action and
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undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate to release nutrients.
y Humification: Process of formation of humus from detritus.
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y Mineralization: Release of inorganic substance from organic matter during the process of
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decomposition.
y Food chain: Sequence of living organisms due to interdependence in which one organism
Ed
? y
consumes another.
Food web: It is interconnection of food chains.
y Standing state: amount of all the inorganic substance present in an ecosystem per unit
area at a given time.
y Standing crop: Amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time.
y Ecological pyramid: Graphic representation of trophic levels of a food chain w.r.t. number
of individuals, biomass and energy.
y Nutrient cycling: Movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an
ecosystem.
y Ecological succession: Gradual and fairly predictable changes in the species composition
of a given area.
y Litter (Above Ground detritus): All dead, fresh organic matter fallen recently to the
ground.
y Duff: Partially decomposed litter.
14.33
Ecosystem
Summary
y A functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and with the surrounding
physical environment is an ecosystem.
y Abiotic components are inorganic nutrients, air, water and soil while biotic components are producers,
consumers and decomposers.
y Species composition and stratification are main structural features of an ecosystem.
y The functional components of ecosystem are studied with aspects like productivity, decomposition,
energy flow and nutrient cycling.
y The rate at which radiant energy is stored by producers is primary productivity. It is divided into two
types; gross primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP).
y The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is secondary productivity.
y Complex organic matter is converted into inorganic substances by the decomposers and is called
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decomposition. Important steps of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching and catabolism.
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y In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major conduit for energy flow while in a terrestrial ecosystem, a
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much larger fraction of energy flows through the DFC than through the GFC.
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y The pyramids, of number, of energy, and biomass are upright in most ecosystem.
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y Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids.
y Atmosphere or hydrosphere is the reservoir for the gaseous type of cycle, whereas Earth’s crust is the
o
reservoir for sedimentary type

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y Succession begins with invasion of a bare lifeless area by pioneers which later pave way for successors
and ultimately a stable climax community is formed.
Ed
14.34
Ecosystem
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Which of the following represents largest man made ecosystem?
(A) Zoo (B) Garden (C) Aquarium (D) Agroecosystem
Q.2 Natural scavengers are:

(A) Phytoplanktons, Zooplanktons (B) Insects, Birds
(C) Bacteria, Fungi (D) Lion, Tiger
Q.3 Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels represents:
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(A) Standing state (B) Stratification
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(C) Standing crop (D) Standing quality
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Q.4 Rate of production of organic matter by producers per unit time and area is:
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(A) GPP (B) NPP
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(C) NPP-R (D) More than one option is correct

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Q.5 Magnitude of primary productivity is affected by:

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(A) Temperature, Availability of nutrients.

(B) Solar radiations available, Availability of nutrients
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(C) Photosynthetic capacity of producers

(D) All of these
Q.6 Buildup of organic material in soil is under which of the following conditions?
(A) <10oC temperature, Absence of oxygen
(B) Warm temperature, Humid environment
(C) Aerobic conditions, > 25oC temperature
(D) Nitrogen rich detritus, Reduce moisture
Q.7 Humification results in the formation of ______ substance

(A) Colloidal, basic (B) Acidic, Dark coloured
(C) Amorphous, Light coloured (D) Light coloured, Colloidal
14.35
Ecosystem
Q.8 What percentages of PAR can be captured by plants?

(A) 1-5% (B) 2-10% (C) 20% (D) 50%
Q.9 Trees → Birds → Lice → Bacteria.

The above food chain is:
(A) Predatory (B) Grazing (C) Detritus (D) Parasitic
Q.10 Choose odd one out w.r.t. trophic level.

(A) Mollusca (B) Tadpole (C) Hydra (D) Grasshopper
Q.11 Choose incorrect option w.r.t. amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time:
(A) Can be measured as number
(B) Is equivalent to standing crop
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(C) Is always represented as dry weight only
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(D) Expressed both as biomass and number
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Q.12 For which of the following ecosystem pyramid of number can be both spindle shape and inverted?
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(A) Grassland (B) Pond
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(C) Tree (D) More than one option is correct

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Q.13 If 10,000 J of energy fall on place of land, then what is energy available at T2 level?
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(A) 1000 J (B) 10 J (C) 100 J (D) 1 J

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Q.14 Hydrosphere is composed of abiotic and biotic components present in:

(A) Water (B) Soil (C) Air (D) Fire
Q.15 Choose odd one out w.r.t. functional aspects of ecosystem.

(A) Energy flow (B) Decomposition
(C) Species composition (D) Nutrient cycling
Q.16 Major conduit of energy in land and aquatic ecosystem is transferred through _____ and ______
respectively.
(A) GFC, DFC, (B) PFC, GFC (C) DFC, GFC (D) GFC, GFC
Q.17 How many types of community groups are present in ecological succession?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Two (D) Five
14.36
Ecosystem
Q.18 In hydrarch succession, reed swamp stage is preceded by:

(A) Forest community (B) Scrub stage
(C) Sedge meadow stage (D) Floating stage
Q.19 Ecological succession is _____ and _____change in species composition

(A) Orderly and sequential (B) Unpredictable and orderly
(C) Gradual and nonsequential (D) Sequential and disorderly
Q.20 Pioneer community established on a bare rock is:

(A) Mosses (B) Lichens
(C) Phytoplanktons (D) Higher plants
Q.21 Succession proceeds from:
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(A) Xeric - Mesic conditions (B) Hydric - Mesic conditions
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(C) Mesic - Xeric conditions (D) More than one option is correct
Q.22 In gaseous cycle:

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(A) Nutrient is mineral (B) Reservoir is lithosphere
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(C) Rate of influx and efflux is fast (D) Withdrawal from reservoir pool is large.
Q.23 Carbon constitutes _____ of dry weight of organism and _____ percentage is present in oceans out
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of total global carbon

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(A) 49%, 71% (B) 71%, 49% (C) 49%, 49% (D) 71%, 71%
Ed
Q.24 Which of the following element is second most critical element after nitrogen?
(A) Phosphorus (B) Potassium (C) Sulphur (D) Oxygen
Q.25 Choose incorrect option for the cost distribution of ecosystem services:
(A) Soil formation – 50% (B) Nutrient cycling >10%
(C) Climate regulation – 6% (D) Habitat for wildlife – 6%
Q.26 Choose the correct change during ecological succession:

(A) Total biomass decreases (B) Decomposers also change
(C) Low degree of diversity (D) Humus content decreases
Q.27 The most common shape of pyramid of number is:

(A) Inverted (B) Upright
(C) Spindle (D) None of the above
14.37
Ecosystem
Q.28 Insectivorous plants can occupy more than one trophic levels, i.e.
(A) T1, T4 (B) T2, T1 (C) T3, T1 (D) T1, T5
Q.29 Which of the following organisms convert plant matter into animal matter?
(A) Earthworm (B) Tadpole (C) Termites (D) Frog
Q.30 Energy flow is _____and nutrients shows _____

(A) Bidirectional, cycling (B) Unidirectional, non-cyclic
(C) Unidirectional, cycling (D) Bidirectional, non-cyclic
Q.31 Productivity contributed by oceans is ______but area covered is comparatively _____

(A) High, less (B) Low, more (C) 10%, 71% (D) 50%, 71%
Q.32 Mineralization is performed by:
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(A) Small carnivores (B) Detrivores
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(C) Saprophytic bacteria and fungi (D) Earthworm, termites
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Q.33 Which terrestrial ecosystem has maximum productivity?
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(A) Coral reefs (B) Tropical rain forest
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(C) Grassland (D) Temperate forest

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Q.34 Converters and reducers respectively are:

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(A) Transducers and decomposers (B) Autotrophs and saprotrophs

(C) Consumers and decomposers (D) More than one option is correct
Ed
Q.35 To make the study of global ecosystem easier, it is broadly divided into how many basic categories?
(A) Three (B) Two (C) Four (D) Five
Q.36 Major site of decomposition in the soil and water bodies respectively is:
(A) Bottom and upper layer (B) Upper and bottom layer
(C) Upper and top layer (D) Bottom and top layer
Q.37 Raw material for decomposition represented by dried freshly fallen leaves is:
(A) Detritus (B) Litter (C) Duff (D) Humus
Q.38 Which of the following trophic levels are occupied by sparrow?

(A) Primary consumer, primary producer (B) Secondary consumer, top carnivore
(C) Primary producer, secondary producer (D) Primary consumer, secondary consumer
14.38
Ecosystem
Q.39 Amount of inorganic substances present in an ecosystem is _____which is a _____feature of

ecosystem
(A) Standing crop, structural (B) Standing state, functional
(C) Standing crop, functional (D) Standing state, structural
Q.40 Seral stages in succession:

(A) Possess low diversity
(B) Have higher biomass
(C) More numerous in secondary succession
(D) Show maximum niche specialization
Q.41 Choose odd one out w.r.t. gaseous cycle.

(A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen (C) Nitrogen (D) Phosphorus
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Q.42 Area where succession can take several thousand years to reach climax community is:
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(A) Burnt and cut forest (B) Sand dunes
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(C) Flooded land (D) Abandoned farm lands
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Q.43 Succession on bare rocks is called:
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(A) Psammasere (B) Hydrosere (C) Lithosere (D) Halosere

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Q.44 Major utilization of carbon from atmosphere is through:

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(A) Decomposition (B) Photosynthesis (C) Respiration (D) Human activities

Ed
Q.45 According to Robert Constanza average price tag for ecosystem services is:
(A) US $ 18 trillion (B) US $ 33 trillion
(C) US $ 180 trillion (D) US $ 13 trillion
Q.46 Which of the following organisms were not given any place in ecological pyramids?
(A) Working at several trophic levels (B) Decomposers
(C) Parasites (D) More than one option is correct
Q.47 Rate of formation of new organic matter at higher trophic levels is:
(A) Primary productivity (B) NPP
(C) GPP (D) Secondary productivity
14.39
Ecosystem
Q.48 Choose the correct sequence of transitional communities in Xerach succession.

(A) Mosses -> Lichens -> Grasses (B) Bryophytes -> Forest -> Shrubs
(C) Bryophytes -> Herbs -> Shrubs (D) Lichens -> Mosses-> Herbs
Q.49 Which of the following food chain shows spindle shaped pyramid of number?
(A) Grass -> Insects -> Frog
(B) Phytoplankton -> Zooplankton -> Small fish
(C) Tree -> Birds -> Hawks
(D) Tree -> Birds -> Insects -> Bacteria
Q.50 Choose odd one w.r.t. ecosystem.

(A) Pond (B) Lakes (C) Estuaries (D) Forest
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Q.51 In an ecosystem:
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(A) Primary producers are more than primary consumers
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(B) Primary consumers are larger than primary producers
(C) Secondary consumers are larger than primary producers
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(D) Primary consumers are least depend on primary producers
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Q.52 Ecosystem term coined by -

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(A) Odum (B) Mishra (C) Reiter (D) Tensley

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Q.53 Large ecosystems are called-

Ed
(A) Biomes (B) Ecotone (C) Ecads (D) Biocoenosis
Q.54 “Biocoenosis” name proposed by -

(A) Tensley (B) Reiter (C) Haeckel (D) Carl Mobius
Q.55 Vultures in an ecosystem are -

(A) Predators (B) Scavengers (C) Consumers (D) Top carnivores
Q.56 The maximum energy is stored at following tropical level in any ecosystem -
(A) Producers (B) Herbivores (C) Carnivores (D) Top carnivores
Q.57 The source of energy in an ecosystem is -

(A) Sunlight (B) Herbivores (C) ATP (D) RNA
14.40
Ecosystem
Q.58 Ecosystem may be defined as -

(A) A localized association of several plants and animals
(B) Different communities of plants, animals and microbes together with their Physico-chemical
environment.
(C) Different communities of plants microbes plus their Physico-chemical Environment
Q.59 The importance of ecosystem lies in:

(A) Flow of energy (B) Cycling of materials
(C) Both the above (D) None of the above
Q.60 Ecosystem is -
(A) Any functional unit that includes the whole community in a given area interacting with the abiotic
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factors
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(B) A group of green plants
(C) A group of animals interacting with environment
(D) Man and pets living together
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Q.61 Who proposed that ecosystem is symbol of structure and function of nature?
(A) Gardner (B) Odum (C) Tansley (D) Reiter
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Q.62 Largest ecosystem of the world are:

(A) Forests (B) grass lands (C) Great (D) Oceans
Ed
Q.63 Which of the following is a man made artificial ecosystem?

(A) Grassland ecosystem (B) Forest ecosystem
(C) Ecosystem of artificial lakes and dams (D) None of these
Q.64 A pond is a:-

(A) Biome (B) Natural ecosystem
(C) Artificial ecosystem (D) Community of plants and animals
Q.65 Nepenthes (Insectivorous pitcher plants) is -

(A) Producer (B) Consumer (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.66 Which one is omnivorous?

(A) Frog (B) Lion (C) Deer (D) Man
14.41
Ecosystem
Q.67 Which biotic components mainly help in recycling of minerals?

(A) Producers (B) Consumers (C) Decomposers (D) All the above
Q.68 Tropic levels are formed by -

(A) Only plants (B) Only carnivores
(C) Only animals (D) Organisms linked in food chain
Q.69 In a forest ecosystem green plants are -

(A) Primary producers (B) Consumers
(C) Primary consumers (D) Decomposers
Q.70 In an ecosystem the function of the producers is to:

(A) Convert organic compounds into inorganic compounds
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(B) Trap solar energy and convert it into chemical energy
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(C) Utilize chemical energy
(D) Release energy
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Q.71 With regard to ecological food chain, man is a -
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(A) Consumer (B) Producer
(C) Both consumer and producer (D) Decomposer
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Q.72 A plant, being eaten by a herbivore which in turn is eaten by a carnivore makes -
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(A) Food chain (B) Web of Food (C) Omnivores (D) Interdependence
Ed
Q.73 When peacock eats snake, which eats insects dependent upon green plants, peacock is –
(A) A primary consumer (B) A primary decomposer
(C) A final decomposer of plants (D) The apex of the food pyramid
Q.74 If we completely remove decomposers from an ecosystem, the ecosystem functioning will be
adversely affected because -
(A) Mineral movement will be blocked
(B) Herbivores will not receive solar energy
(C) Energy flow will be blocked
(D) Rate of decomposition of other components will be very high
Q.75 Bamboo plant is growing in afar forest them what will be the trophic level of it:-
(A) First tropic level (T1) (B) Second trophic level (T2)
(C) Third Trophic level (T3) (D) Fourth tropic level (T4)
14.42
Ecosystem
Q.76 Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is:

(A) Herbivorous → producer → carnivorous → decomposer
(B) Herbivorous → carnivorous → producer → decomposer
(C) Producer → carnivorous → herbivorous → decomposer
(D) Producer → herbivorous → carnivorous → decomposer
Q.77 Pyramid of energy are -

(A) Always upright (B) Always Inverted
(C) Mostly upright (D) Mostly inverted
Q.78 The ecological pyramid of numbers in pond ecosystem is -

(A) Upright (B) Inverted
(C) May upright or Inverted (D) First upright or Inverted
.i n
Q.79 An ecosystem resists change because it is in a state of -
(A) Homoeostasis
(C) Static Imbalance
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(B) Regular Illumination
(D) Food acumination
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Q.80 What is true about an ecosystem -
(A) It is self regulatory
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(B) It is self sustained

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(C) Top carnivores have climax trophic level position

(D) All
Ed
Q.81 The pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystem will be

(A) Up right (B) Inverted (C) Irregular (D) Linear
Q.82 Which ecosystem has maximum number of producers in an unit area -

(A) Pond (B) Grassland (C) Forest (D) Tundra
Q.83 The storage of energy at consumer level is known as -

(A) Grass primary production (B) Secondary productivity
(C) Net primary productivity (D) Net productivity
14.43
Ecosystem
Q.84 Gross primary productivity is-

(A) Rate at which organic molecules are formed in an autotroph
(B) Rate ate which organic molecules are used up by an autotroph
(C) Storage of organic molecules in the body of an autotroph
(D) Rate at which organic molecules are transferred to next higher trophic level
Q.85 Carbon cycle includes (the following is a logical sequence) -

(A) Producer - consumer - decomposer (B) Decomposer - consumer - producer
(C) Producer - decomposer - consumer (D) Consumer - producer - decomposer
Q.86 The bulk of nitrogen in nature is fixed by -

(A) Lightning (B) Chemical industries
(C) Denitrifying bacteria (D) Symbiotic bacteria
.i n
Q.87 The flow of materials from non living components to living components and back to the non living
components in a more or less cyclic manner is called a- al
(A) Gaseous cycle (B) Sedimentary cycle
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(C) Biogeochemical cycle (D) Hydrologic cycle
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Q.88 Which is best for plant growth?

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(A) Loamy soil (B) Silt (C) Sandy soil (D) Clay soil
uj
Q.89 The least porous soil among the following -

Ed
(A) Loamy oil (B) Clay soil (C) Sandy soil (D) Peaty soil
Q.90 The science dealing with soil is called:

(A) Pedology (B) Acarology (C) Geology (D) Peaty soil
Q.91 A good soil is that which:

(A) holds whole of the water entering into it
(B) Allows limited amount of water into it
(C) Allows the water to percolate slowly into it
(D) Allows the water to pass very quickly from it
Q.92 The soil near the surface is usually darker then the soil about one mater down. This is because the
top soil is:
(A) Young and wet (B) Richer in organic matter
(C) Richer in Ca and Mg (D) Dry
14.44
Ecosystem
Q.93 A soil is said to be fertile when

(A) It is rich in organic matter
(B) It has capacity to hold water
(C) It has a capacity to hold nutrients
(D) It holds water and all essential nutrients in a definite proportion
Q.94 What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of plants?

(A) 3.4 - 5.4 (B) 6.5 - 7.5 (C) 4.5 - 8.5 (D) 5.5 - 6.5
Q.95 Forest near equator region are called -

(A) Deciduous (B) Tropical rain forests
(C) Coniferous forests (D) Temperate forests
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Q.96 Grass lands with scattered tree are called -
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(A) Pampas (B) Stepps (C) Prairies (D) Savanna
Q.97 Temperate evergreen forests in India found in -

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(A) Himalaya (B) West Bengal (C) Andaman (D) Rajasthan
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Q.98 Which biome refers to arctic desert -

(A) Tundra (B) Taiga (C) Savannah (D) Thar desert
o
uj
Q.99 Which biome refers to arctic desert -

(A) Deciduous forests (B) Chaparral
Ed
(C) Tropical rain forests (D) Taiga
Q.100 Autumn colouration of leaves appear only in -

(A) Tropical regions (B) Evergreen plants
(C) Temperate deciduous plats (D) Deserts
Q.101 Veldts of Africa and Pampas of South America are

(A) Rain forest biomes (B) Chaparral biomes
(C) Temperate biomes (D) Grassland biomes
Q.102 Savannahs are

(A) Tropical rain forest (B) Desert
(C) Grassland with scattered trees (D) Dense forest with close canopy
14.45
Ecosystem
Q.103 All the living organisms and non-living factors of the earth constitute -
(A) Biosphere (B) Community
(C) Biome (D) Association
Q.104 The term biosphere is used for the zone of the earth where life exists
(A) On the lithosphere
(B) In the hydrosphere
(C) In the lithosphere and hydrosphere
(D) In the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
Q.105 A biosphere is composed of

(A) Living organisms
(B) Living organisms + lithosphere
n
(C) Living organisms + lithosphere + atmosphere
.i
(D) Living organisms + lithosphere + atmosphere + hydrosphere
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ur

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Q.1 Pond is an example of ______ ecosystem. [Uttaranchal 2005]

uj
(A) Artificial (B) Natural (C) Forest (D) Grassland

Ed
Q.2 Which of the following is the most productive ecosystem? [West Bengal JEE 2007]
(A) Estuary (B) Open sea (C) Desert (D) Mountain
Q.3 The pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem is [CG PMT 2004]

(A) Always upright (B) Always inverted
(C) Both upright and inverted (D) None of the above
Q.4 The importance of ecosystem is [CG PMT 2004]

14.46
Ecosystem
Q.5 Which is the correct path of energy flow in an ecosystem? [CG PMT 2004]
(A) Producers → Carnivores → Herbivores → Decomposers
(B) Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers
(C) Herbivores → Carnivores → Producers → Decomposers
(D) Herbivores → Producers → Carnivores → Decomposers
Q.6 The number of primary producers within a specified area would be maximum in [CG PMT 2004]
(A) Grassland ecosystem (B) Forest ecosystem
(C) Pond ecosystem (D) Deserts
Q.7 A food chain starts with [CG PMT 2004]

(A) Nitrogen fixation organisms (B) Photosynthesizing organisms
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(C) Respiration (D) Decomposers
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Q.8 Nepenthes is a
(A) Primary producer
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(B) Consumer
[CG PMT 2004]
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(C) Both primary producer and consumer (D) None of the above
Q.9 Biological equilibrium is found among [CG PMT 2005]

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(A) Producers and consumers (B) Producers and decomposers

uj
(C) Producers, consumers and decomposers (D) Producers and light

Ed
Q.10 The number of individuals of a species in a particular ecosystem at a given time remains constant due
to [CG PMT 2005]
(A) Man (B) Parasites (C) Predators (D) Available food
Q.11 The two components of an ecosystem are [CG PMT 2005]

(A) Biotic and abiotic (B) Plants and animals
(C) Weeds and microorganisms (D) Plants and light
Q.12 The pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is [CG PMT 2005]

(A) Linear (B) Upright (C) Irregular (D) Inverted
14.47
Ecosystem
Q.13 The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called [CG PMT 2006]

(A) Chemical cycle (B) Biogeochemical cycle
(C) Geological cycle (D) Geochemical cycle
Q.14 Which of the following bacteria has potential for nitrogen fixation? [CG PMT 2006]
(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobacter (C) Nitrosococcus (D) Rhizobium
Q.15 Ecosystem has [Jharkhand 2006]

(A) Plant and animal (B) Air and H2O
(C) Soil and light (D) Biotic and abiotic components
Q.16 Sal and teak are found in [Jharkhand 2006]
n
(A) Tropical rain forest (B) Tropical deciduous forest
.i
(C) Temperature board leaf forest (D) Temperature needle leaf forest
Q.17 Decomposers are

n al [Jharkhand 2005]
(A) Autotrophs (B) Heterotrophs (C) Organotrophs (D) Autoheterotrophs
ur
Q.18 During food chain, the maximum energy is stored in [Jharkhand 2005]
o
(A) Producers (B) Decomposers (C) Herbivores (D) Carnivores

uj
Q.19 In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available first to [Jharkhand 2005]
Ed
(A) Decomposers (B) Consumers (C) Producers (D) All of the above
Q.20 In a food chain, the total amount of living material is depicted by [Jharkhand 2005]
(A) Pyramid of biomass (B) Pyramid of energy
(C) Pyramid of number (D) Trophic levels
Q.21 Nitrates are converted to nitrogen [Jharkhand 2005]

(A) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (B) Ammonification bacteria
(C) Denitrifying bacteria (D) Nitrifying bacteria
Q.22 In pond ecosystem, diatoms represent [Jharkhand 2004]

(A) Producers (B) Primary consumers
(C) Secondary consumers (D) Tertiary consumers
14.48
Ecosystem
Q.23 Pyramids of biomass in pond ecosystem are [Bihar 2005]

(A) Inverted (B) Upright (C) Linear (D) Irregular
Q.24 Lion is kept under in Eltonian pyramid as [Bihar 2004]

(A) Producer (B) Primary consumer
(C) Secondary consumer (D) Tertiary consumer
Q.25 Bacteria and fungi developing on dead decaying organisms are [Bihar 2004]
(A) Parasites (B) Commensals (C) Saprophytes (D) Symbionts
Q.26 Phytoplanktons are important biotic components of [Bihar 2011]

(A) Grassland (B) Pond ecosystem (C) Forest ecosystem (D) None of these
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Q.27 Which ecological pyramid can never occur in an inverted form? [Bihar 2001]
.i
(A) Pyramid of number (B) Pyramid of biomass
(C) Pyramid of energy

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(D) Pyramid of species richness
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Q.28 Peacock eats snake and snake eats insect while insect eats green plant. Then the position of peacock
is [UP CPMT 2002]
o
(A) Primary producer (B) Secondary producer

uj
(C) Decomposer (D) Top at the apex of food pyramid

Ed
Q.29 Source of energy in an ecosystem is [UP CPMT 2002]

(A) Sun (B) ATP (C) Sugar made by plant (D) Green plant
Q.30 Legume plants are important for atmosphere because they [UP CPMT 2002]
(A) Help in NO2 fixation (B) Do not help in NO2 fixation
(C) Increase soil fertility (D) All of these
Q.31 Tropical dense forests are due to [UP CPMT 2002]

(A) Low rainfall and low temperature (B) High rainfall and low temperature
(C) Low rainfall and high temperature (D) High rainfall and high temperature
Q.32 Energy enters in food chain by [UP CPMT 2003]

(A) Producer (B) Primary consumers
(C) Secondary consumers (D) Tertiary consumers
14.49
Ecosystem
Q.33 In an ecosystem [RPMT 2000]

(A) Primary producers are more than primary consumers
(B) Primary consumers are larger than primary producers
(C) Secondary consumers are larger than primary producers
(D) Primary consumers least depend on primary producers
Q.34 In which types of forest is humus formed by dry and dead leaves? [RPMT 2011]
(A) Coniferous forest (B) Deciduous forest
(C) Tundra forest (D) Alpine
Q.35 A pond is a [RPMT 2002]

n
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Q.36 The importance of ecosystem lies in
(A) Energy flow
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(B) Cycling of materials
[RPMT 2003]

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Q.37 The concept of ecological pyramid was given by [RPMT 2004]

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(A) Odum (B) Elton (C) Darwin (D) Reiter

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Q.38 Stratification is found in [RPMT 2004]

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(A) Tundra (B) Tropical forest (C) Deciduous forest (D) Desert
Q.39 The driving force of ecosystem is [RPMT 2004]

(A) Producers (B) Plants with carbohydrates
(C) Biomass (D) Solar energy
Q.40 Ecosystem creates [RPMT 2005]

(A) Food chain (B) Food web (C) Any of the two (D) None of these
Q.41 The term ecosystem was coined by [RPMT 2005]

(A) P. Maheshwari (B) Tansley (C) R. Mishra (D) P. Odum
14.50
Ecosystem
Q.42 The importance of ecosystem lies in [CPMT 1980]

Q.43 A pond is a [CPMT 1980]

Q.44 Which biotic components mainly help in the recycling of materials? [CPMT 1980]
(A) Producers (B) Consumers (C) Decomposers (D) All the above
Q.45 Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is [MP PMT 2002]

(A) Herbivorous → Producer → Carnivorous → Decomposer
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(B) Herbivorous → Carnivorous → Producer → Decomposer
.i
(C) Producer → Carnivorous → Herbivorous → Decomposer
(D) Producer → Herbivorous → Carnivorous → Decomposer
n al
ur
Q.46 The number of primary producers in a specified area would be the maximum in
[RPMT 1985, CPMT 86, MP PMT 85, 95]
o
(A) Pond ecosystem (B) Grassland ecosystem

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(C) Forest ecosystem (D) Desert ecosystem

Ed
Q.47 Carbon cycle includes (the following is a logical sequence) [CPMT 1979]
(A) Producer → Consumer → Decomposer
(B) Decomposer → Consumer → Producer
(C) Producer → Decomposer → Consumer
(D) Consumer → Producer → Decomposer
Q.48 The bulk of nitrogen in nature is fixed by [CPMT 1982]

(A) Lightening (B) Chemical industries
(C) Denitrifying bacteria (D) Symbiotic bacteria
Q.49 Hydrological cycle is controlled by [RPMT 1985]

(A) Grasslands (B) Forests (C) Planktons (D) Epiphytes
14.51
Ecosystem
Q.50 In India, the temperate, evergreen type of vegetation is found mostly in [CPMT 1976]
(A) Western Himalayas above 3500 m
(B) Eastern and western Himalayas less than 3500 m
(C) Rajasthan and South Punjab
(D) Western Ghats and Assam
Q.51 If 20J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as
food in the following chain?
Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock [AIPMT 2014]
(A) 0.0002 J (B) 0.02 J (C) 0.002 J (D) 0.2 J
Q.52 Biosphere refers to [MP PMT 1980]
n
(A) Plants of the world (B) Special plants
.i
(C) Area occupied by living beings (D) Plants of a particular area
Q.53 Acacia, Prosopis, and Caparis belong to

n al [AIPMT 1998]
(A) Deciduous forest (B) Tropical forest
ur
(C) Thorn forest (D) Evergreen forest

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Q.54 The total amount of energy trapped by green plants in food is called [AIPMT 1998]
uj
(A) Gross primary production (B) Net primary production

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(C) Standing crop (D) Standing state
Q.55 In which biome may a new plant adapt soon? [AIPMT 1998]
(A) Tropical rain forest (B) Desert (C) Mangrove (D) Sea island
Q.56 Percentage energy transferred to higher trophic level in food chain is [AIPMT 1999]
(A) 1% (B) 10% (C) 90% (D) 100%
Q.57 What is the reason for the highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem? [AIPMT 2000]
(A) Nanoplankton, blue green algae, green algae
(B) Sea grass and slime molds
(C) Benthonic and brown algae
(D) Diatoms
14.52
Ecosystem
Q.58 Which of the following is a correct pair? [AIPMT 2002]

(A) Cuscuta – Parasite (B) Dischidia – Insectivorous
(C) Opuntia – Predator (D) Capsella – Hydrophyte
Q.59 Bamboo plant is growing in a tropical rain forest. Then what will be its trophic level? [AIPMT 2002]
(A) First trophic level (T1) (B) Second trophic level (T2)
(C) Third trophic level (T3) (D) Fourth trophic level (T4)
Q.60 Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (g/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem?
[AIPMT 2004]
(A) Tertiary production (B) Gross production (GP)
(C) Net production (NP) (D) Secondary production
n
Q.61 An ecosystem which can be easily be damaged but can recover after some time if the damaging effect
.i
stops will have [AIPMT 2004]
(A) High stability and low resilience
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(B) Low stability and low resilience
(C) High stability and high resilience (D) Low stability and high resilience
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Q.62 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? [AIPMT 2005]

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(A) Savanna – Acacia trees (B) Coniferous forest – Evergreen trees

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(C) Tundra – Permafrost (D) Prairies – Epiphytes

Ed
Q.63 Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids? [AIPMT 2005]
(A) Rate of energy flow (B) Fresh weight (C) Dry weight (D) Number of individuals
Q.64 Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
[AIPMT 2007]
(A) Temperature deciduous forest (B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Tropical deciduous forest (D) Temperature evergreen forest
Q.65 Quercus species is the dominant component in [AIPMT 2008]

(A) Scrub forests (B) Tropical rain forests
(C) Temperature deciduous forests (D) Alpine forests
14.53
Ecosystem
Q.66 Consider the following statements concerning food chain? [AIPMT 2008]
(1) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation.
(2) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers.
(3) The length of food chains is generally limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels due to energy loss.
(4) The length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels.
Which of the above two statements are correct?
(A) (1, 3) (B) (1, 2) (C) (2, 3) (D) (3, 4)
Q.67 The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their [AIPMT 2003]
(A) Anaerobic environment around them (B) Low cellulose content
(C) Low moisture content (D) Poor nitrogen content
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Q.68 Which one of the following types of organisms occupies more than one trophic level in a pond
.i
ecosystem? [AIPMT 2009]
(A) Frog (B) Phytoplankton
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(C) Fish (D) Zooplankton
Q.69 Study the four statements, (1) – (4), given and select the two correct ones out of them:
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[AIPMT 2009]
(1) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers.
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(2) Predator starfish helps in maintaining the species diversity of some invertebrates.
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(3) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species.

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(4) The production of chemicals such as nicotine and strychnine by plants are metabolic disorders.
The two correct statements are
Q.70 The biomass available for consumption by herbivores and decomposers is called [AIPMT Pre 2010]
(A) Net primary productivity (B) Secondary productivity
(C) Standing crop (D) Gross primary productivity
Q.71 Which of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community? [AIPMT Pre 2010]
(A) Stratification (B) Natality (C) Mortality (D) Sex-ratio
Q.72 Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond
ecosystem? [CBSE Prelims 2009]
(A) Zooplankton (B) Frog (C) Phytoplankton (D) Fish
14.54
Ecosystem
Q.73 The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is [CBSE Prelims 2009]

(A) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Hydrilla → Oak → Lantana
(B) Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus
(C) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia → Hydrilla → Valvax
(D) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus → Lantana → Oak
Q.74 The term Homeostasis in an ecosystem refers to [Chandigarh CET 2009]

(A) Feed back mechanism (B) Self regulatory mechanism
(C) Influence of production (D) State of equilibrium
Q.75 The plants constitute the [Chandigarh CET 2009]

(A) First trophic level (B) Second trophic level
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(C) Third trophic level (D) Fourth trophic level
.i
(A) Crops (B) Forests (C) Coral
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Q.76 Maximum energy amongst ecosystem is contributed by [Chandigarh CET 2009]
(D) Fuel gas
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Q.77 The biomass available for consumption by the herbivoers and the decomposers is called
[CBSE Prelims 2010]
o
(A) Gross primary productivity (B) Net primary productivity

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(C) Secondary productivity (D) Standing crop

Ed
Q.78 Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
[CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) Sex-ratio (B) Stratification (C) Natality (D) Mortality
14.55
Ecosystem
Q.79 Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the four blanks A,
B, C and D. [CBSE Main PMT 2010]
.i n
Options:
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1 2 3 4
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A Nitrification Ammonification Animal Plants

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B Denitrification Ammonification Plants Animals

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C Nitrification Denitrification Animals Plants

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D Denitrification Nitrification Plants Animals
Q.80 Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest ecosystem?
[CBSE Main PMT 2010]
(A) D (B) A (C) B (D) C

14.56
Ecosystem
Q.81 The plants convert light into chemical energy with a photosynthetic efficiency of
[Chandigarh CET 2010]
(A) 3-6% (B) 6-20% (C) 20-35% (D) 35-41%
Q.82 Ten percent law of energy transfer at successive levels in food chain was given by
(A) Elton (B) Haeckel (C) Lindman (D) Shimper
Q.83 What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) in the incident solar radiation?
[HP PMT 2010]
(A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 1 – 5% (D) 2 – 10%
Q.84 Primary succession is development of communities on [AMU 2006; HP PMT 2010]
n
(A) Cleared forest area (B) Previously unoccupied sites
.i
(C) Freshly harvested crop field (D) Pond filled after a day season
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Q.85 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called [CBSE Prelims 2011]
(A) Standing crop (B) Detritus (C) Humus (D) Standing state
ur
Q.86 Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is [CBSE Prelims 2011]
o
(A) About 70% (B) About 60% (C) Less than 50% (D) More than 80%
uj
Q.87 Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession? [CBSE Prelims 2011]
Ed
(A) It begins on a bare rock

(B) It occurs on a deforested site
(C) It follows primary succession
(D) It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace
Q.88 Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three
are correct? [CBSE Prelims 2011]
(A) It base is broad
(B) It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
(C) It is inverted in shape
(D) It is upright in shape
14.57
Ecosystem
Q.89 Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem
at the same time? [CBSE Main PMT 2011]
(A) Sparrow (B) Lion (C) Goat (D) Frog
Q.90 Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to [CBSE Main PMT 2011]
(A) Medium water conditions (B) Xeric conditions
(C) Highly dry conditions (D) Excessive wet conditions
Q.91 The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called
(A) Humification (B) Fragmentation (C) Mineralisation (D) Catabolism
Q.92 Which Pyramid is always upright and can never be inverted? [HP PMT 2011; WB JEE 2011]
n
(A) Pyramid of Number (B) Pyramid of Biomass
.i
(C) Pyramid of Energy (D) None of the above
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Q.93 Which one of the following is involved in sedimentary cycle? [HP PMT 2011; 2012]
(A) Carbon (B) Nitrogen (C) Hydrogen (D) Phosphorus
ur
Q.94 Identity the possible link “A” in the following food chain
o
Plant → Insect → Frog → “A” → Eagle [CBSE Prelims 2012]

uj
(A) Wolf (B) Cobra (C) Parrot (D) Rabbit

Ed
Q.95 The upright pyramid of number is absent in [CBSE Prelims 2012]

(A) Forest (B) Lake (C) Grassland (D) Pond
14.58
Ecosystem
Q.96 Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain
organisms at some of the different levels? [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “whale” on top level TC

(B) Level one PP is “pipal trees” and the level SC is “sheep”
(C) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”
(D) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds”
.i n
Q.97 Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Decomposition (B) Productivity
n al (C) Stratification (D) Energy flow
Q.98 Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem?
ur
[CBSE Prelims 2012]

(A) Phosphorus cycle (B) Nitrogen cycle (C) Carbon cycle (D) Sulphur cycle
o
uj
Q.99 The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like [CBSE Main PMT 2012]
(A) Salix (B) Vallisneria (C) Azolla (D) Typha
Ed
14.59
Ecosystem
Q.100 identify the likely organisms (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the food web shown below
n
Options:
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a b c d
A Rat Dog Tortoise
n al Crow
B Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
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C Deer Rabbit Frog Rat

D Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
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Q.101 The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland is called [CBSE Main 2012]
Ed
(A) Net primary productivity (B) Gross primary productivity

(C) Net productivity (D) Secondary productivity
Q.102 ‘Food web’ refers to [Chandigarh CET 2012]

(A) Transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next trophic level
(B) Unidirectional energy flow
(C) Capturing solar energy by autotrophs
(D) Connecting feeding pattern in a biotic community
Q.103 The study of interaction between groups of various organisms with their environment is
(A) Ecology (B) Zoogeography (C) Synecology (D) Systems biology
Q.104 The pyramid of biomass in sea is [HP PMT 2012]

(A) Upright (B) Slanting (C) Horizontal (D) Inverted
14.60
Ecosystem
Q.105 Natural reservoir of phosphorus is [NEET 2013]

(A) Rock (B) Fossils (C) Sea water (D) Animal bones
Q.106 Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described? [NEET 2013]
(A) Catabolism – Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition.
(B) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil.
(C) Fragmentation – Carried out by organism such as earthworm.
(D) Humification – Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes
microbial action at a very fast rate.
Q.107 Match the following and select the correct option [AIPMT 2014]
(1) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
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(2) Succession (ii) Detritivore
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(3) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
(4) Population growth (iv) Pollination
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(1) (2) (3) (4)
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(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

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(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
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14.61
Ecosystem
Q.108 Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks
(1 - 4). Identify the blanks [AIPMT 2014]
.i n
1 2
n al 3 4
(A) Producers Litter fall Rock minerals Detritus
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(B) Rock minerals Detritus Litter fall Producers

(C) Litter fall Producers Rock minerals Detritus
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(D) Detritus Rock minerals Producers Litter fall

Ed
14.62
Ecosystem
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 D Q.2 C Q.3 B Q.4 A Q.5 D Q.6 A
Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 D Q.10 C Q.11 C Q.12 C
Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 C Q.16 C Q.17 A Q.18 D
Q.19 A Q.20 B Q.21 D Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 A
Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 B Q.28 C Q.29 B Q.30 C
Q.31 B Q.32 C Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 B
n
Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 D Q.40 A Q.41 D Q.42 B
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Q.43 C Q.44 B Q.45 B Q.46 D Q.47 D Q.48 C
Q.49 C
Q.55 B
Q.50 D
Q.56 A
Q.51 B
Q.57 A
al
Q.52 D
Q.58 B
n Q.53 A
Q.59 C
Q.54 D
Q.60 A
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Q.61 C Q.62 D Q.63 C Q.64 B Q.65 C Q.66 D
Q.67 C Q.68 D Q.69 A Q.70 B Q.71 A Q.72 A
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Q.73 D Q.74 A Q.75 A Q.76 D Q.77 A Q.78 A

uj
Q.79 A Q.80 D Q.81 A Q.82 A Q.83 B Q.84 A

Ed
Q.85 A Q.86 D Q.87 C Q.88 A Q.89 B Q.90 A

Q.91 C Q.92 B Q.93 D Q.94 D Q.95 B Q.96 D
Q.97 A Q.98 A Q.99 C Q.100 C Q.101 D Q.102 C
Q.103 A Q.104 D Q.105 D

Q.1 B Q.2 A Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 B Q.6 C
Q.7 B Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 D Q.11 A Q.12 B
Q.13 B Q.14 D Q.15 D Q.16 B Q.17 B Q.18 A
Q.19 C Q.20 A Q.21 C Q.22 A Q.23 A Q.24 D
Q.25 C Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 D Q.29 A Q.30 C
14.63
Ecosystem
Q.31 D Q.32 A Q.33 A Q.34 B Q.35 B Q.36 C

Q.37 B Q.38 B Q.39 D Q.40 C Q.41 B Q.42 C
Q.43 B Q.44 C Q.45 D Q.46 A Q.47 A Q.48 D
Q.49 B Q.50 B Q.51 D Q.52 C Q.53 C Q.54 A
Q.55 A Q.56 B Q.57 C Q.58 A Q.59 A Q.60 B
Q.61 D Q.62 D Q.63 B Q.64 B Q.65 C Q.67 C
Q.68 C Q.69 B Q.70 A Q.71 A Q.72 D Q.73 D
Q.74 D Q.75 A Q.76 B Q.77 D Q.78 B Q.79 B
Q.80 C Q.81 A Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 B Q.85 A
Q.86 B Q.87 B Q.88 C Q.89 A Q.90 A Q.91 B
Q.92 C Q.93 D Q.94 B Q.95 A Q.96 D Q.97 C
n
Q.98 A Q.99 B Q.100 C Q.101 D Q.102 D Q.103 C
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Q.104 D Q.105 A Q.106 C al
Q.107 A
n Q.108 D
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Ed
B
|VOL.V |Unit 5
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Biodiversity and
ou
Conservation
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Ed
15.1
CHAPTER 15
BIODIVERSITY AND
n
CONSERVATION
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1. Introduction
Topics Discussed
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Our planet Earth if visited by an alien from a distant

INTRODUCTION galaxy,the enormous diversity of life that it would
o
encounter would amaze and baffle it. The rich

BIODIVERSITY- PATTERNS AND IMPORTANCE OF
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variety of living organisms with which they share

BIODIVERSITY this planet never ceases to astonish and fascinate
Ed
LOSS OF BIODIVERSITY even humans. The occurrence of biodiversity

is inherent in different types of environmental
CONSERVATION conditions in different parts of area on earth and
HOTSPOTS the presence of different life forms adapted to these
different environmental conditions. There are more
ENDANGERED ORGANISMS, EXTINCTION AND than 300000 species of beetles, 28000 species of
RED DATA BOOK, fishes, 20000 species of ants and nearby 20000
species of orchids which the common man would
NATIONAL PARKS AND SANCTUARIES. find hard to believe. Biodiversity is not uniform. In
certain regions it is low, in some moderate, while
in some places it is tremendous. The significance
of such a tremendous diversity are studied by
ecologists and evolutionary biologists.
15.2
Biodiversity and Conservation
Objectives
y To understand the concept and importance of biodiversity.
y To know about the various patterns of biodiversity.
y To learn about endangered species, their conservation and various conservation reserves.
2. Biodiversity
The term biodiversity was coined by , popularized by sociobiologist Edward Wilson who described
biodiversity as the combined diversity (or heterogeneity) at all the levels of biological organization right from
macromolecules within the cells, genes, species, ecosystems and biomes.
2.1 Hierarchical Levels of Biodiversity
n
y Genetic diversity
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At the genetic level, a single species might show high diversity over its distributional range. Measure of variety
al
in genetic information contained in the organisms is Genetic diversity. Eg.10-150 genes in virus, 450-700
genes in mycoplasma, 32000-50000 genes in Oryza sativa. Genetic diversity occurs in the differences of
n
alleles, entire genes and chromosomal structures within a species. Genetic diversity gives the population
ur
a chance to adapt to environmental changes occurring. Examples- it leads to variation in potency and
concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) present in medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing
o
in Himalayan ranges. More than 1000 varieties of mango, 50000 different strains of rice occur in India due
to genetic variations.
uj
y Species diversity
Ed
It is the variety of species within a region. For example, Western Ghats have greater amphibian species
diversity as compared to Eastern Ghats. The number of species per unit area is species richness, number
of individuals of different species represent species evenness or species equitability. Species diversity
is the product of species richness and species evenness.
y Ecological diversity
It is diversity at level of communities and ecosystem. The variety of ecosystems indicate diversity in the
number of niches, trophic levels, food webs, nutrient cycles and ecological processes sustaining energy
flow. For example, in India, ecosystem diversity is high due to presences of large number of ecosystems
like deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows. It is low
in small countries like Norway.
2.2 Types of Ecological Diversity
y Alpha Diversity: It is a local diversity within a community.
y Beta Diversity: It is diversity between two communities.
15.3
y Gamma Diversity: It is regional diversity, represents the total richness of the species found in all
habitats within a region or landscape.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Edward Wilson popularized the term biodiversity to describe the combined heterogeneity
at all levels of biological organization. (True/False)
2. Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity compared to Eastern Ghats.
(True/False)
3. Ecosystem diversity is in Norway. (High/Low)
4. What is alpha diversity, beta diversity and gamma diversity?
3. Species Present on the Earth and in India
n
The earth offers a wide array of ecosystems and thus ecological niches. Consequently, a vast diversity of
.i
organisms which have adapted to these varied environments thrive on the planet. India in general possesses
al
a rich biodiversity when compared to many other countries.
n
3.1 Species Present on The Earth
ur
According to the International Union of Conservation of Nature (IUCN, 2004), the total number of plant
and animal species described is slightly more than 1.5 million, but there is no clear idea of species yet to
o
be discovered. By comparing species richness between tropical and temperate areas scientists estimate
uj
the number of species present in tropics. Scientists have calculated that the total number of species in the
world ranges from 20 to 50 million on this basis. The number of global species diversity is about 7 million
Ed
according to Robert May and his conservative and scientific studies.

Interesting aspects about the earth’s biodiversity based on the currently available species
inventories:
y Number of animal species is more than 70%.
y Nearly 22% account for the total plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms and
angiosperms).
y Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, more than 70% of the total
animal species. It means, 7 insects are present out of every 10 animals on this planet.
15.4
.i n
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Figure 15.1: A representation of species diversity

uj
DID YOU KNOW

Ed
y Plants have achieved lesser diversification than animals due to reasons like-
○ Animals have nervous system to receive stimuli and respond against them.
○ Plants are immobile. They are fixed and require fewer evolutionary adaptations in
order to obtain their requirement of water, minerals and sunlight.
○ They are subjected to more constant environment to avoid competition. All this
has resulted in higher species diversity among animals than plants.
?
y Reasons of enormous diversification of insects-
A thick and strong chitinous cuticle covers the whole body of insects as an exoskeleton.
It provides strengths and protection to the body and prevents loss of water. Due to
their protective exoskeleton, the insects are, today the most successful animals of
nature. These are widespread and can be observed everywhere on land, in water,
and even in air.
y Number of fungi species (72000) in the world is more than the combined total of the
species of fishes (28000), amphibians (4780), reptiles (7150) and mammals (4650).
15.5
3.2 Biodiversity in India

India with only 2.4% of the world’s land area possesses 8.1% species diversity of the world due to varying
physical conditions and species grouping. It is because India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries
of the world. There are nearly 45000 species of plants and twice as many animal species. We estimate
that there are probably more than 100000 plant species and more than 300000 animal species yet to be
discovered and described according to May’s global estimates, only 22% of the total species have been
recorded so far. Applying this proportion to India’s diversity figures, we will require a large trained manpower
of taxonomists and lot of time to complete the inventory of the biological wealth of our country. However,
a very large number of species that are yet to be discovered may be facing the threat of becoming extinct
even before we discover them.
4. Patterns of Biodiversity
The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution.
Different patterns in diversity are latitudinal, altitudinal, geographical, topographical, humidity gradients but
n
most common is the latitudinal gradient in diversity.
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4.1 Latitudinal Gradients al
The biodiversity decreases as we move from low to high latitude i.e. from the equator to the poles. In other
n
words the biodiversity is maximum in tropical regions, moderate in temperate area and minimum in the
ur
arctic region (latitudinal range of 23.5o N to 23.5o S).

o
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Ed
Figure 15.2: A graph representing latitude gradients

Various examples of high diversity in tropical regions:
y About 1400 species of birds are found in Colombia located near the equator (tropical region). About
105 species in New York (41o N) in temperate area and about 56 species of birds Greenland (71o N)
in arctic area.
y Most of the land area of our country lies in tropics so India has more than 1200 species of birds.
y A tropical region forest like equator has 10 times more species of vascular plants as compared to
temperate region forest of equal area like midwest of the USA.
y Tropical Amazonian rain forest (South America) has the greatest biodiversity on earth. At least 2 million
insect species are yet to be discovered and named in these rain forest.
15.6
Table 15.1: Biodiversity in Amazonian rain forest

Taxa Number of species
Plant species More than 40000
Mammals 427
Birds 1300
Reptiles 378
Amphibians 427
Fishes 3000
Invertebrates More than 125000
Why Biodiversity is rich in tropics?

Various hypothesis proposed by Ecologists and evolutionary biologists explain the cause of high diversity
n
in tropics; important ones are as follows:
.i
y Speciation is a function of time. Most of the species in the past are killed in temperate areas due to
al
frequent glaciations. Species continue to flourish and evolve undisturbed for millions of years in tropics.
y In tropical areas, environments unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal due to favorable conditions
n
such as warm temperatures and high humidity, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant
ur
and favorable environment has helped tropical organisms to gain more niche specialization and lead
to a greater species diversity.
o
y As they are near to equator, the tropical areas receive more solar energy over the year. Hence more
uj
productive that can support a wider range of species in tropical communities.

Ed
4.2 Species-Area Relationships

While exploring the South American jungles, German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt,
found that within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area but only up to a limit.
The relationship between species richness and area turned out to be a rectangular hyperbola for a wide
variety of organisms like angiosperm plants, birds, bats and freshwater fishes.
Figure 15.3: A graph representing species area relationship

15.7
On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the equation.

S = CAZ
log S = log C + Z log A
Where,
S = Species richness
A = Area
Z = Slope of the line (regression coefficient)
C = Y-intercept
Significance of slope of regression (Z) in a species-area relationship
Slope of regression or regression coefficient of species-area relationship indicates that species richness
decreases with the decreases in area. The value of slope of regression (Z) of species-area relationships lies
in the range of 0.1 to 0.2 when analysis is done among small areas like plants in Britain, birds in California
n
or molluscs in New York state. However, if the species-area relationship is conducted for very large areas
.i
like the entire continent, the slope of the line is much steep with value of Z in the range of 0.6 to 1.2.
al
For example, it is 1.15 for frugivorous (fruit-eating) birds and mammals in the tropical forests of different
continents. Thus more is steepness of the slope of line, larger the explored area.
n
ur
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. New York temperate area has 56 species of birds. (True/False).
o
2. Tropical biomes unlike temperate ones, are more seasonal, relatively less constant
uj
and predictable. (True/False).

Ed
3. Slope of regression (Z) is for frugivorous birds and mammals in

tropical forests of different continents. (Write the number)
4. Why is biodiversity rich in tropics?
5. Value of slope of regression (Z) of species-area relationship lies in the range of
molluscs in New York State.
6. Colombia located near the equator has about species of birds.
5. The Importance of Species Diversity to the Ecosystem

The functioning of the ecosystem is based on the number of species in a community because rich biodiversity
is important for stability, productivity, resilience, alternative pathways and health of ecosystems.
5.1 Stability
Ecologists, consider that with more species, communities tend to be more stable than those with less
species. What exactly is stability for a biological community? Let us discuss it.
15.8
y Too much variation in productivity from year to year is not shown in stable community.
y It must be resistant to occasional natural as well as man-made disturbances.
y It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
David Tilaman’s long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots confirmed that these attributes are
linked to species richness in a community. He found that
y Less year-to-year variation in total biomass was seen in plots with more species.
y Higher productivity was due to increased diversity.
Now it is clear that species diversity is important for productivity, stability and resilience.
5.2 Ecosystem Health

If a few species become extinct it is often believed that little harm would occur to ecosystem. There should
not be much difference if one of the tree frog species is lost forever from Western Ghats ecosystems or
n
number of ant species is reduced from 20000 to 15000. However, rich biodiversity is important for ecosystem
.i
health but also for survival of human race on earth. Since large number of species have higher number
al
of niches, more interactions and more inter-relationships. Paul Ehrlich through Rivet popper hypothesis
explained the effect of reduction in biodiversity. In an airplane (ecosystem) all parts are joined together
n
using thousands of rivets (species). If every passenger travelling in it starts popping a rivet to take home
ur
(causing a species to become extinct), it may not affect flight safety (proper functioning of the ecosystem)
initially, but as more and more rivets are removed, the plane becomes dangerously weak over a period of
o
time. Which rivet is removed may also be critical. Loss of rivets on the wings (key species that drive major
ecosystem functions) is obviously is more serious threat to flight safety than loss of a few rivets on the seats
uj
or windows inside the plane.

Ed
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Deliberate eradication of species which are harmful to human beings like HIV, small pox virus,
Plasmodium etc. can be taught of. Such pathogens are not part of any food chain or food webs,
nor have role in bio control. They are neither producer nor decomposers of any ecosystem.
Hence, their extinction would not affect the functioning of ecosystems in any way. Poliovirus
is about to get eradicated. Efforts are continued to make this world free form diseases like TB,
AIDS, malaria hepatitis, Diphtheria, Tetanus etc.
6. Loss of Biodiversity
It is doubtful if any new species are being added (through speciation) into the earth’s treasury of species,
there is no doubt there is continuing losses. The biological wealth is declining rapidly of our planet. Complete
loss of genetic information happens due to complete disappearance or extinction of a species.
15.9
6.1 Types of Extinction

y Natural extinction: Some species disappear and others, which are more adapted to changed conditions,
take their place with the change in environmental conditions. This loss of species which occurred in the
geological past at a very slow rate, is natural extinction.
y Mass extinction: Due to catastrophes, the dying of or extermination of a large number of species. There
were five episodes of mass extinction of species during the long period (> 3 billion years) since the
origin and diversification of life on earth.
y Anthropogenic extinction: It is extermination of species caused directly or indirectly by human activities
like habitat destruction, over-exploitation, hunting, pollution etc.
○ More than 2000 species of native birds are extinct due to colonization of tropical pacific islands by
humans.
○ The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species in the last 500 years. It includes
338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants, Some examples of important recent extinctions
n
include the Dodo (Mauritius), Quagga (Africa), Thylacine (Australia), Steller’s sea cow (Russia),
.i
and three subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian) of tiger. In the last 20 years, 27 species become
extinct.
n al
○ Extinction across taxa are not random. For example, some groups like amphibians appear to be
more vulnerable to extinction.
ur
Presently some 15500 species world-wide are facing the threat of extinction. They include:
o
y 12 percent of all bird species

uj
y 23 percent of all mammal species

Ed
y 31 percent of all gymnosperm species

y 32 percent of all amphibian species
y Anthropogenic extinction is causing a sixth extinction of species. It is 100 – 1000 times faster than
the rate of natural extinctions. If the present trends continue ecologists warn that, nearly half of all the
species on earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years.
6.2 Results of Loss of Biodiversity

Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
y Decline in plant production or productivity.
y Reduced resistance to environmental perturbations like drought.
y Increased variability of ecosystem processes like productivity, water use, and pest and disease cycles.
15.10
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Rich biodiversity is not essential for ecosystem health but required for survival of
human race on earth. (True/False)
2. put forth the rivet popper hypothesis.
3. Loss of species which occurred in the geological past at a Rate, is
called natural extinction. (very slow/fast)
6.3 Causes of Loss of Biodiversity

The world is facing increased rates of species extinctions, due to human activities. There are four major
causes of biodiversity losses, called as ‘The Evil Quarter’.
y Habitat loss and fragmentation: Most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
n
○ The natural habitat of a species is changed or destroyed when people cut down trees, fill a wetland,
.i
plough a grassland or burn a forest. These changes can kill or force out many plants, animals and
al
microorganisms as well as disrupt complex interactions among the species. The most dramatic
examples of habitat loss come from tropical rain forests. These forests once occupied 14% of the
n
earth’s land area, today they occur on only 6% of land area. By the time you finish reading this
ur
chapter, 1000 more hectares of rain forest would have been lost. The Amazon rain forest (‘Lungs
of the planet’) harboring probably millions of species is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya
o
beans or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle.

uj
○ The degradation of many habitats by pollution besides total loss, also threatens the survival of
many species. Pollution may reduce and eliminate populations of sensitive species. For example,
Ed
pesticide linked decline of fish-eating birds and falcons. Another major cause of mortality of
many species, such as ducks, swans is lead poisoning. Species diversity drastically reduces
eutrophication (nutrient enrichment) of water bodies.
○ In habitat fragmentation large habitats are broken into small fragments due to various human
activities like human settlements, building of roads, digging of canals etc. Forest patches
having croplands, orchards, plantations and urban settlements on their outskirts are examples
of fragmented habitats. Animals requiring large territories (e.g. mammals, birds) and migrating
animals are badly affected, leading to population declines.
y Over-exploitation: Humans have always dependent on nature for food and shelter, but when ‘need’
turns to ‘greed’, it leads to over-exploitation of natural resources. It means, beyond the degree of their
renewability, biological systems should not be exploited. Overexploitation of a particular species reduces
size of its population to an extent so that it becomes vulnerable to extinction. Due to overexploitation
by humans dodo, staller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon have become extinct in the last 500 years.
Some commercially important species are marine fishes are likely to become endangered because
marine fish populations are being overharvested all over the world.
15.11
y Alien species invasions: New species entering a geographical region are called exotic or alien or
non-native species. Disappearance of native or indigenous species through changed biotic interactions
occur when alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately for whatever purpose.
A few examples of exotic species are as follows:
y Nile perch, a large predator fish was introduced into Lake Victoria of East Africa. Nile perch killed and
eliminated ecologically unique assemblage of over 200 species of cichlid fish that were endemic to this
freshwater aquatic system.
y Carrot grass (Parthenium) is a weed found in India as a contaminant with imported wheat. Many herbs
and shrubs are exterminated and it has occupied all open areas.
y Lantana is a straggling shrub of tropical America which got introduced in India accidentally. Today it
has become a serious weed which as replaced many species in forests.
y Water hyacinth (Eichhornia) was introduced by Europeans in India. It has clogged water bodies
including wetlands at many placed resulting in death of several aquatic plants and animals.
n
y The recent illegal introduction of the African catfish Clarias gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is
.i
posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in out rivers.
○
al
Co-extinctions: There are many obligate associations amongst different species in ecosystems.
When one of them becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory
n
way also become extinct. For example, coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism will result in extinction
ur
of one partner if the other is eliminated in nature. If the host fish become extinct, all the parasite
exclusively found on it will also become extinct.
o
DID YOU KNOW

uj
? Exotic species have the maximum harmful impact on island ecosystems because of the
Ed
small size and small number of species. Therefore, islands harbor much of the world’s
threatened biodiversity.
6.4 Red Data List/Red List

The IUCN Red List or Red Data List is an inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
IUCN aims to review the status of each species every 5 to 10 years. The list also is a means to convey the
necessity of urgency in implementing conservation plans.
6.5 Endangered Species of India

Mammals:
Black buck Antelope cervicapra (V) (a graceful antelope, native to India possessing two spirally twisted
horns in males. It is a state animal Punjab Asian Lion) (Panthera leo Perscia) (E); Golden langur Presbytis
geei; Pigmy Hog (Sus salvanius) (CR); Lion Tailed Macaque (E) – Macaca sitenus (E) Snow leopard
15.12
(Panthera uncia) (E) Lesser or Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) (E) Giant Panda (Ailuropoda metanoleuca) (E).
Tibetan Antelope (Chiru/Shahtoosh) (E). One horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicomis) (E). Kashmiri stag
(Hangul) – Cervus elaphus hangulu (E).
Musk deer (Muschus moschatus): it is hunted for musk a soft powdery reddish brown odorous, substance,
secreted in musk bag under the skin near reproductive organ of the male.
Blue whale Sibbaldus (Balaenoptera), Gangetic Dolphin (Plantanista gangeticus) (E), Indian elephant
(Elephas indicus) Panther / Leopard (Panthera pardus) (E), Himalayan Brown Bear (Selenarctos thibetans)
(E), Indian wild Ass (E), Nilgai (Boselaphustrago camelus), Chinkara (Gazelle):Gazella gazelle, Sambhar:
Crevus unicolor, Chital (Axis axis).
Reptiles
Gharial: Gavialis gangeticus (E), Turtle: Dermochelys coricacea (E), Crocodile : Crocodylus (E), Python :
Python moluras
Birds
n
Siberian Crane: Grus (E), Great Indian Bustard: Choriotis (Ardeotis nigriceps) (E)
.i
Extinct animals from India al
Passenger pigeon: Ectopistes migratorius (Ex), Dodo – Raphus cucullatus (Ex), Cheetah – Acinonyx
n
jubatus (Ex).
ur
Plants
Bentinckia nicobarica (E), Berberis nilghireiensis (CR), Acontium (E), Cupessus cashmeriana (V),
o
Cypripedium orchid (E), Nepenthes (Pitcher plant) (E), Rauwolfia serpentina, Podophyllum, Dioscorea
(Yam plant), Gingkobiloba, Osmunda, Colchicum, Sapria.
uj
Note-
Ed
Extinct (EX) – No known individuals remaining.

Critically endangered (CR) – Extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
Endangered (E) – High risk of extinction in the wild.
Vulnerable (V) – High risk of endangerment in the wild.
7. Biodiversity Conservation
Millions of years of evolution has resulted in this diversity in nature. If the present rates of species losses
continue we could lose all that wealth in less than two centuries. Biodiversity and its conservation are
important environmental issues of international concerns as it is of critical importance for our survival and
well-being on this planet.
Due to several factors like pollution, invasive species, over-exploitation by humans, climate change etc.
ecosystems are undergoing changes. Diversity at all levels-genetic, species and ecological is important and
needs to be conserved.
15.13
7.1 Why Should We Conserve Biodiversity?

There are many reasons (all equally important). They can be grouped into three categories: narrowly
utilitarian, broadly utilitarian, and ethical.
y Narrowly utilitarian (Direct or economic uses): Humans derive countless direct economic benefits
from nature.
○ Food: All the food we eat comes from plants and animals e.g., cereals, pulses, fruits, eggs, meats
etc.
○ Firewood: It is used as source of energy for cooking and heating.
○ Fibre: Jute, flax, hemp, cotton, coir are the source of natural fibers.
○ Construction material: Wood is used as timber in construction work, furniture, sports goods,
musical instruments etc.
○ Industrial products: Tannins, lubricants, dyes, resins, perfumes, paper, and rubber are some of
n
the industrial products obtained from plants.
.i
○ Drugs: More than 25% of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from a mere
al
120 species of plants. About 25000 species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines used
by native peoples around the world. Many more medicinally useful plants especially in tropical rain
n
forests, waiting to be explored.
ur
Bio prospecting or exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for products of economic
importance is going on vigorously. Nations with rich biodiversity are expected to reap enormous benefits.
o
uj
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Ed
1. 3000 species of plants have edible parts out of which 150 are commercially exploited.
2. The Anticancer drug Taxol has been obtained from bark of Taxusbaccata (yew plant).
3. Leaves of Lawsoniainermis provides us with henna.
y Broadly utilitarian (Ecosystem services): Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services
that nature provides.
○ Oxygen: Plants are replenishing O2 of the atmosphere due to their photosynthetic activity. Amazon
rain forest is estimated to produce 20% of it.
○ Pollination: A number of organisms like bees, bumblebees, birds, bats and few other animals are
involved in pollination of plants which is essential for formation of fruits and seeds. If humans are
made to do this duty, the cost would be many billions of dollars.
○ Aesthetic pleasure: Biodiversity has a lot of aesthetic and attraction value. It provides a lot of
pleasures of walking through thick woods, fresh oxygen rich air, watching flowers in full bloom,
hearing the voices of various birds or waking up to a bulbul’s song in the mornings.
15.14
○ Flood and Erosion control: Plant roots hold the soil particles, moving wind and water and thus
prevent soil erosion. Plants also increases the porosity of soil and thereby allow water to percolate
down into the soil and then in the water table. It helps conservation of water by retaining water and
preventing run off of rain water. Litter and humus of plants act as a sponge retaining most of the
rain water. As the soil is porous, the retained water downwardly and stored as underground water.
y Ethical: There are millions of plant, animal and microbial species who evolved just as we have evolved
and are sharing the planet with us. No organisms is useless. Every species has an intrinsic value,
though it may not be of direct use to us. It is therefore, our moral and ethical duty not to destroy them.
Instead we should take care of their wellbeing so to pass the rich biological legacy to future generations.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Classity under narrowly and broadly utilitarian services of biodiversity for the benefits
given in following.
n
(A) Taxol, (B) Gaseous composition, (C) Timber, (D) Flood control, (E) Quinine, (F)
control of soil erosion, (G) Traditional medicines, (H) Perfumes, (I) Pollinators, (J)
.i
Food, (K) Watching springs flowers in full bloom
al
2. Amazon forest is estimated to produce, through photosynthesis
n
percent of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.
ur
3. The argument for conserving biodiversity relates to what we owe to
millions of plants, animal and microbe species with whom we share this planet.
o
7.2 How to Conserve Biodiversity

uj
There are two basic strategies of biodiversity conservation, in-situ (on site) and ex-situ (off site).
Ed
y In-situ conservation: protection of whole natural ecosystem is emphasized in in-situ strategies,

leading to biodiversity protected at all levels. It means we save the entire forest to save the tiger.
Invariably, the number of species waiting to be saved from extinction far exceeds the conservation
resources available. On a global basis, this problem has been addressed by eminent conservationists.
In-situ conservation are of two types: hot spots and protected areas.
y Hot spots
The richest and the most threatened reservoirs of plant and animal life on earth are the hot spots.
The key criteria for determining a hot spot are:
○ Very high levels of species richness.
○ High degree of endemism (species confined to that region and not found anywhere else).
○ Degree of threat, which is measured in terms of habitat loss.
Initially 25 hot spots were identified globally. The number is raised to 34 with area of less than 2% of earth’s
land. Extremely high and strict protection of these hot spots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by
almost 30%.
15.15
y Biodiversity hot spots in India:

○ Western Ghats and Sri Lanka: Occurring along the western coast of India through Maharashtra,
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala extending over to Sri Lanka. Southern Western Ghats are
known as Malabar. The Agasthymalai hills, the Silent Valley and the new Amambalam Reserve,
are the major centres of diversity.
○ Indo-Burma: Extending from Bhutan to Myanmar covering most of the North-Eastern India.
○ Himalaya: One of the richest hot spot of biodiversity.
y Protected areas
Areas of land and/or sea, especially dedicated to the protection and maintenance of biological diversity, and
of natural and associated cultural resources are protected areas. These are managed through legal of other
effective means. World Conservation Center has recognized nearly 37000 protected areas.
India has 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks and 448 wildlife sanctuaries covering 4.7% of the land
n
surface, as against 10% internationally suggested norm.
.i
y National parks:
al
These are maintained by government and reserved for betterment of wildlife (both flora and fauna).
Grazing, felling of trees, habitat manipulation and cultivation are not allowed. The idea of National park
n
was formulated by George Catlin. First National park in India was Jim Corbett National Park (1935) in
ur
Uttarakhand.
y Sanctuaries:
o
These are tracts of land with or without lakes where animals (fauna) are protected from all types of
uj
exploitation and habitat disturbance. Collection of forest products, harvesting of timber, tilling of land,
etc. are allowed. Conservation is species oriented
Ed
e.g. pitcher plant, great Indian Bustard.

y Biosphere reserves:
These are a special category of protected areas of land and/or coastal environments, wherein tribal
people are an integral component of the system. These are representative example of natural biomes
and contain unique biological communities. Creation of Biosphere Reserve is a new approach for
conservation of Biodiversity of an area. There are 14 biosphere reserves in India. A biosphere reserve
consists of core, buffer and transition zones. An undisturbed and legally protected ecosystem is the
natural or core zone. The buffer zone surrounds the core area, and is managed to accommodate a
greater research and educational activities. The transition zone, the outermost part of the Biosphere
Reserve, is an area of active cooperation between reserve management and the local people, wherein
activities like settlements, cropping, forestry, recreation and other economic uses continues in harmony
with conservation goals.
15.16
Figure 15.4: Zonation in terrestrial biosphere

The main functions of biosphere reserves are:
○ Conservation
n
○ Development
.i
○ Scientific research, monitoring and education
al
Biosphere reserves are nominated by national governments and remain under the sovereign jurisdiction
of the states where they are located. Their status is internationally recognized. There are 651 biosphere
n
reserves in 120 countries, including 15 Trans boundary sites. They are distributed as follows:
ur
○ 67 in 28 countries in Africa
o
○ 28 in 11 countries in the Arab States

uj
○ 137 in 24 countries in Asia and the Pacific

○ 297 in 36 countries in Europe and North America
Ed
○ 122 in 21 countries in Latin America and the Caribbean.

List of Bioreserves in India are:
○ Nilgiri
○ Nanda Devi
○ Nokrek
○ Manas
○ Sunderban
○ Gulf of Mannar
○ Great Nicobar
○ Similipal
○ Dibru-Saikhova
15.17
○ Dehang-Dibang
○ Pachmarhi
○ Khangchendzonga
○ Agasthyamalai
○ Achanakmar- Amarkantak
○ Kachchh
○ Cold Desert
○ Seshachalam
○ Panna
y Sacred groves
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees of special religious importance to a particular
culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world. In many cultures, tracts of
n
forest were set aside, and all the trees and wildlife within were venerated and given total protection.
.i
These are found in several parts of India.
○ Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya
n al
○ Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan
ur
○ Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra

○ Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh
o
○ The sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants in
uj
Meghalaya.
Ed
y Ex-situ conservation
Threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting
where they can be protected and given special care is Ex-situ conversation. Ex-situ conservation is the
desirable approach if an animal or plant is endangered or threatened and needs urgent measures to
save it from extinction.
In recent years ex-situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened species in enclosures.
Using cryopreservation techniques, now gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable
and fertile condition for long periods, eggs can be fertilized in-vitro, and plants can be propagated
using tissue culture methods. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can
be kept for long periods in seeds banks.Strategies including establishment of botanical gardens, zoos,
conservation strands and gene, pollen seed, seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks are also included
in Ex-situ conservation.
15.18
Flowchart 15.1: Biodiversity conservation methods
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
n
1. Concept of hot spots was developed by Norman Myers. Nearly 25% of plant species and
.i
20% of human population living are included in Hot spot.
al
2. The Jim Corbett National Park was the first National Park established in India.
n
3. The concept of Biosphere reserves was launched in 1975 as a part of UNESCO’s Man
and Biosphere Programme (MAB)
o ur
Biodiversity knows no political boundaries and its conservation is a collective responsibility of all nations.
uj
The historic convention on Biological Diversity (‘The Earth summit’) held in Riode Janerio in 1992, called
upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of
Ed
its benefits. In a follow-up, the World summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg,
South Africa, 190 countries pledged their commitment to achieve by 2010, a significant reduction in the
current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional and local levels.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Initially 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified but subsequently more
have been added to the list.
2. India has biosphere reserves, national parks and
Wildlife sanctuaries.
3. Mass extinction is the extermination of a large number of species due to catastrophes.
(True/False)
4. Anthropogenic extinction is faster than the rate of natural extinctions.(True/False)
15.19
DID YOU KNOW

y Population characteristics for susceptibility to extinction are-
y Large body size e.g. Lion, Rhinoceros.
y Small population size and low reproductive rate e.g.Ghat panda and Blue whale.
y High trophic level in food chain e.g. Bengal tiger, bald Eagle.
y Fixed habitat and migratory routes e.g. Blue whale, whooping crane
y Some laws-
? ○ Biodiversity Bill - 2002
○ Wild life (protection) Act, 1972, amended in 1991
○ Forest Conservation Act, 1980
n
y 1st National Park established in India -Jim Corbett national park (Uttarakhand);
.i
Tiger protection.
y
forest.
n al
In Kerala, Silent valley is a tropical evergreen forest declared as National reserve
ur
y International organizations concerned with biodiversity conservation - IUCN and
WWF (World Wild Fund for Nature).
o
uj
Ed
15.20
7.3 Conservation Projects in India

Table 15.2: Some special projects for endangered animal species
Name of Project Details
1. Tiger project There are now tiger reserves (mainly Sunderban, Corbett,
Periyar and Ranthambore NP) to save tigers. It was launched
on 1st April, 1973. Nagarjuna Sagar is largest Tiger Reserve in
India.
2. Lion project (Gir Lion project) Asian lion is found in Gir forest of Gujrat. It was started in 1972.
3. Crocodile breeding project It was initially started in Orissa to save crocodiles in 1975. There
are three species of crocodiles in India (i) Salt water (Crocodylus
posrosus) (ii) Fresh water muggar (Crocodylus palustris) (iii)
n
Gharial (Gavialls gangeticus)
.i
4. Rhino Conservation project It was started in Assam in 1987. Dudhwa National Park
project.
n al
(Lakhimpur Kheri UP) was selected for the rhino reintroduction
ur
5. Snow leopard project There are 12 snow-leopard reserves throughout the Himalayas.
6. Hangul project It was started in 1790 Dachiagam Sanctuary, Sri Nagar (Kashmir)
o
to protect hangul or Kashmiri stag (Cervusel ephushangul)

uj
7. Brow-antler deer project It was started in Manipur since 1977 to protect brow-antler deer
Ed
(Cervuseldieldi)
8. Musk deer project It was started at Kedarnath Sanctuary Uttarakhand to protect
musk-deer (Moschus moschiferus). Shikari Devi Sanctuary in
Himachal Pradesh is also carrying this project
9. Elephant project It has been recently started (1991) to protect elephants
10. Yak Project Research Centre It is an Arunachal Pradesh
11. River Dolphin Project Vikramshila (Bihar)
12. Lion Tailed Macaque Project Silent valley National Park, Kerala
13. Great India Bustard Project Desert National park (Raj) and Great India Bustard sanctuary
(Maharashtra).
15.21
Summary
y Biodiversity is the sum total of diversity that exists at all levels of biological organization.
y Protecting diversity at all levels is the main aim of conservation.
y Nearly 6 million waiting to be discovered and named and more than 1.5 million species have been
recorded.
y More than 70 percent of named species are animals of which 70% are insects.
y All vertebrate species combined fungi has more species.
y One of the 12 mega diversity countries of world is India with 45000 species of plants and twice as many
species of animals.
y Species diversity is highest in the tropics and decreases towards the poles.
y Greater productivity and species richness in tropics is due to constant environment and more sunlight.
y Species richness is a function of area and species area relationship, generally a rectangular hyperbolic
n
function.
Communities with high diversity tend to be less variable, more productive and resistant to biological
.i
y
invasions. al
y Mass extinctions have occurred in the past but present rates are 100 to 1000 times higher largely due
n
to human activities.
Nearly 700 species became extinct in recent times and more than 15500 species (of which > 650 are
ur
y
from India) currently face threat of extinction.
o
y The main causes of extinction are Habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitations, biological
invasions and co-extinctions.
uj
y Biodiversity needs to be conserved for narrowly utilitarian, broadly utilitarian and ethical reasons.
Ed
y Direct benefits of biodiversity are food, fire, firewood, pharmaceuticals etc.

y Indirect benefits of biodiversity are through ecosystem services like pollination, pest control, climate
moderation and flood control.
y We have a moral responsibility to take good care of earth’s biodiversity and pass it on in good order to
our next generation.
y Biodiversity conservation may be in-situ as well as ex-situ.
y In-situ conservation is where endangered species are protected in their natural habitat.
y 34 biodiversity hotspots have been proposed for intensive conservation efforts in the world.
y Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, Himalaya and Indo-Burma cover India’s biodiversity rich regions.
y India’s in-situ conservation efforts are reflected in its 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks 448
wildlife sanctuaries and many sacred groves.
y Protective maintenance of threatened species in zoological parks, botanical gardens, in vitro fertilization,
tissue culture propagation and cryopreservation of gametes are included in ex-situ conservation.
15.22
methods. EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Which of the following taxon shows maximum species diversity?
(A) Fishes (B) Beetles (C) Ants (D) Orchids
Q.2 The variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges
represents
(A) Genetic diversity (B) Species diversity
(C) Ecological diversity (D) Community diversity
n
Q.3 Read the following statements
.i
(1) India has a greater ecosystem diversity than Norwayal
(2) According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is slightly
n
more than 15 million.
ur
(A) Both (1) and (2) are correct (B) Only (2) is correct
(C) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect (D) Only (1) is correct
o
uj
Q.4 More conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global species
diversity at about
Ed
(A) 1.5 million (B) 7 million (C) 1.7 million (D) 17 million
Q.5 Species diversity of plants on earth is

(A) 2.5 % (B) 22 % (C) 7.1 % (D) 32 %
Q.6 Insects are the most numerous with estimate of

(A) 7 out of 10 invertebrates (B) 4 out of 10 invertebrates
(C) 7 out of 10 animals (D) 4 out of 10 animals
Q.7 Which of the following is not an in situ technique?

(A) Cryopreservation (B) National parks
(C) Sanctuaries (D) Sacred forests
15.23
Q.8 Which of the following group represents minimum species diversity among vertebrates?
(A) Birds (B) Mammals (C) Reptiles (D) Amphibians
Q.9 In global biodiversity of plants, the

(A) Angiosperms represent maximum number
(B) Algae represent the minimum number
(C) Fungi represent the minimum number
(D) Mosses represent the maximum number
Q.10 Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying

(A) Amphibian species (B) Insect species
(C) Microbial species (D) Gymnospermic species
n
Q.11 India has % of the world’s land area. Its share of the global species diversity is an
.i
impressive %
(A) 8.1, 2.4 (B) 22, 12
n al
(C) 12, 22 (D) 2.4, 8.1
Q.12 What is the approximate ratio of animals and plants species in our country ?
ur
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 2

o
Q.13 Read the following statements :

uj
(1) Tropics harbor more species than temperate or polar areas.

Ed
(2) Colombia located near the equator has nearly 1400 species of birds.
(3) India has less than 105 species of birds.
(A) 1 and 2 are incorrect (B) 2 and 3 are incorrect
(C) 1 and C are incorrect (D) Only 3 is incorrect
Q.14 Amazonian rain forest in South America is home to more than species of plants and
species of fishes
(A) A – 3000, B – 40000 (B) A – 1500. B – 2500
(C) A – 40000, B – 3000 (D) A – 427, B – 378
15.24
Q.15 Select incorrect statement w.r.t greater biological diversity in tropics

(1) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus had a long
evolutionary time for species diversification.
(2) Tropical environments are more seasonal and less predictable than temperate.
(3) There is more solar energy available which contributes to higher productivity.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) only 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) only 1
Q.16 Relationship between species richness (S) and area (A) represented in the following graph is described
by the equation.
.i n
n al
ur
(A) Log S = log A + Z log C (B) Log S = log C + Z log A

(C) Log C = log A + S log A (D) Log C = log S + Z log A
o
uj
Q.17 Species are relationships among very large areas like the entire continents the Z values in the range of
(A) 0.1 to 0.2 (B) 1.15 (C) 0.3 to 0.6 (D) 0.6 to 1.2
Ed
Q.18 Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) A stable community should show much variation in productivity from year to year
(B) According to Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments increased diversity contributed to higher
productivity
(C) Stable community must be resistant to occasional disturbances
(D) Rich biodiversity is essential for ecosystem health but imperative for the very survival of the human race
on this planet.
Q.19 Which of the following ecologist gave ‘rivet popper’ hypothesis?

(A) David Tilman (B) Alexander Von Humboldt
(C) Robert May (D) Paul Ehrlich
15.25
Q.20 According to rivet popper hypothesis key species are represented by

(A) Air plane (B) Rivets on the windows
(C) Rivets on the wings (D) Both B and C
Q.21 Colonization of tropical pacific islands by humans have resulted in extinction of more than
Species of native birds.
(A) 2000 (B) 7000 (C) 784 (D) 75000
Q.22 Match the column I with Column II

Column I Column II
a. Thylacine (i) Russia
b. Dodo (ii) Mauritius
c. Quagga (iii) Australia
n
d. Steller’s sea cow (iv) Africa
.i
(A) a (ii), b (iii) c (i), d (iv) (B) a (iv), b (i), c (ii), d (iii)
(C) a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)
n al
(D) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)
Q.23 IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of species in the last years.
ur
(A) A – 500, B – 300 (B) A – 784, B – 500

o
(C) A – 645, B – 500 (D) A – 984, B – 300

uj
Q.24 Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to all the following, except
Ed
(A) Decline in plant production

(B) Lowered resistance to environment perturbations
(C) Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes
(D) Increased endemism
Q.25 The sixth extinction presently in progress is estimated to be times faster from the
previous episodes.
(A) 10 – 50 (B) 50 – 100 (C) 100 – 1000 (D) 1000 – 10000
Q.26 Presently % of all mammal species and % of all gymnosperm species in the world face
threat of extinction.
(A) A – 32, B – 12 (B) A – 22, B – 31 (C) A – 23, B – 31 (D) A – 31, B – 23
15.26
Q.27 The Evil Quartet represents the major causes of

(A) Soli pollution (B) Inbreeding depression
(C) Biodiversity losses (D) Air pollution
Q.28 Which of the following is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction?
(A) Alien species invasions (B) Co-extinctions
(C) Habitat loss and fragmentation (D) Over-exploitation

(1) Today tropical rain forests occur on 6% of land.
(2) Today Amazon rain forest is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans.
(A) Only 1 is correct (B) Both 1 and 2 are correct
n
(C) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect (D) Only 2 is correct
.i
fragments due to various human activities?
n al
Q.30 Which of the following organisms are badly affected when large habitats are broken up into small
(A) Mammals requiring small territories (B) Planktons showing diapause

ur
(C) Animals with migratory habits (D) Birds requiring small territories.
o
Q.31 Which of the following species have been extinct due to over-exploitation by humans in the last 500 years?
uj
(A) Water hyacinth and Quagga (B) Parthenium and Lantana

Ed
(C) Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon (D) African catfish and Pistia
Q.32 A weed, which has invaded many forest lands of India is

(A) Clarias gariepinus (B) Lantana
(C) Pistia (D) Water hyacinth
Q.33 Extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in Lake Victoria was due to introduction of
(A) African catfish (B) Nile perch
(C) Clariasgariepinus (D) Lantana
Q.34 When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same
fate. It is an example of
(A) Co-extinction (B) Alien species invasion
(C) Over-exploitation (D) Habitat loss
15.27
Q.35 More than % of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from
plants.
(A) 70 (B) 25 (C) 90 (D) 55
Q.36 Bio-prospecting is exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of
(A) Ecosystem services (B) Economic benefits
(C) Aesthetic pleasures (D) Both A and C
Q.37 The fast dwindling forest is estimated to produce percent of the total oxygen in earth’s
atmosphere
(A) A – Siberian, B – 30 (B) A – Temperate, B – 20
(C) A – Alpine, B – 15 (D) A – Amazon, B – 20
n
.i
(1) Pollination is broadly utilitarian services of biodiversity
al
(2) Philosophically or spiritually, we need to realize that every species has an intrinsic value.
n
(A) Only 1 is correct (B) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
ur
(C) Only 2 is correct (D) Both 1 and 2 are correct

o
Q.39 How many biodiversity hotspots have been identified in the world?
uj
(A) 30 (B) 3 (C) 34 (D) 20

Ed
Q.40 Which one of the following is not hot spot of biodiversity in our country?
(A) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka (B) Indo-Burma
(C) Madagascar (D) Himalaya
Q.41 Strict protection of biodiversity hotspots could reduce ongoing mass extinctions by almost
(A) 30 % (B) 15 % (C) 10 % (D) 5 %
Q.42 When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is protected. This
approach includes all of the following, except
(A) Biosphere reserves (B) Seed bank
(C) National parks (D) Sanctuaries
15.28
Q.43 Which of the following is not concerned with in-situ conservation of diversity?
(A) Wildlife sanctuaries (B) Zoological parks
(C) Biosphere reserves (D) National parks
Q.44 Mark the correct match

(A) Wildlife sanctuaries in India - 90
(B) Sacred groves - On-site conservation
(C) Western ghat - Rajasthan and M.P
(D) National park in India - 448
Q.45 In which of the following method threatened animals are taken out from natural habitat and placed in
special setting?
n
(A) Zoological park (B) Botanical garden
.i
(C) Biosphere reserves (D) Both A and B
al
Q.46 Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using
n
(A) Wildlife safari parks (B) On-site conservation
ur
(C) Cryopreservation (D) Botanical gardens

o
Q.47 Which of the following is correct match w.r.t biodiversity rich region?
uj
(A) National parks - 95

Ed
(B) Wildlife sanctuaries - 448

(C) Biosphere reserves - 24
(D) Zoological parks - 25
Q.48 Select incorrect match

(A) Aravalli hills - Gujrat
(B) Khasi and Jaintia hills - Meghalaya
(C) Sarguja - Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Ghats - Karnataka, Maharashtra
Q.49 How many countries pledged their commitment to achieve by 2010, a significant reduction in the
current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional and local levels in the World summit held in 2002?
(A) 119 (B) 121 (C) 190 (D) 195
15.29
Q.50 The historic convention on biological diversity held in

(A) Johannesburg (B) Rio De Janeiro
(C) Washington (D) California
Q.51 Select the correct statement about biodiversity

(A) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujrat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as
numerous rare animals
(B) Large scale planting of BT cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
(C) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
(D) Conventional taxonomic methods are more suitable for identifying microbial species
Q.52 Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
.i n
(A) Mango (B) Groundnut (C) Rice (D) Maize
al
Q.53 Total number of all plant and animal species in a given region is known as the regions
n
(A) Biota (B) Flora (C) Fauna (D) Diversity
ur
Q.54 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

o
(A) Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region

uj
(B) Species endemic to the region

(C) Endangered species found in the region
Ed
(D) The diversity in the organisms living in the region
Q.55 The highest number of plant species in the world is represented by

(A) Algae (B) Lichens (C) Fungi (D) Mosses
Q.56 Which one of the following have the highest number of animal species in nature?
(A) Mammals (B) Molluscs (C) Insects (D) Birds
15.30
Q.57 Which sample area shows maximum diversity?

(A) Birds - 4 (B) Crow - 8
Insects - 4 Pigeon - 8
Elephant - 4 Cuckoo - 8
Myana - 8
(C) Pigeon - 10 (D) Butter fly - 20
Crow - 3 Banana fly - 20
Insect - 7 Lizards - 20
Q.58 Which of the following is an in-situ method?

(A) Captive breeding (B) Cryopreservation
(C) National parks (D) Tissue culture banks
.i n
Q.59 India covers the world land area of and contributes the global diversity of
(A) 4 %, 8 %
n al
(B) 8.1 %, 2.4
(C) 2.4 %, 8.1 % (D) 8 %, 4 %
ur
Q.60 Degree of biodiversity increases from

o
(A) Equator to poles (B) Poles to equator

uj
(C) Low latitude to high latitude (D) Low altitude to high altitude
Ed
Q.61 Lion is more susceptible to extinction due to which one of the following population characteristics?
(A) Large body size (B) Small population size
(C) Low reproductive rate (D) Fixed habitat
Q.62 What is the major causes of diminishing wildlife number?

(A) Felling of trees (B) Paucity of drinking water
(C) Cannibalism (D) Habitat destruction
Q.63 Biodiversity Bill was introduced in India in

(A) 2002 (B) 1972 (C) 1991 (D) 1980
15.31
Q.64 The most important human activity, leading to the extinction of wildlife, is
(A) Pollution of air and water
(B) Hunting for valuable wildlife products
(C) Introduction of alien species
(D) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats
Q.65 Diversification in plant life appeared

(A) Due to long periods of evolutionary changes
(B) Due to abrupt mutations
(C) Suddenly on earth due to more seasonal variations
(D) By seed dispersal
n
Q.66 Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
.i
(A) Sundarbans (B) Western Ghats (C) Eastern Ghats
al (D) Gangetic plain
Q.67 Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?

n
(A) Species richness (B) Endemism
ur
(C) Accelerated species loss (D) Lesser inter-specific competition

o
Q.68 Total how many hot spots are distinguished over earth surface?
uj
(A) 25 (B) 27 (C) 31 (D) 34

Ed
Q.69 How many biodiversity hotspots are in India?

(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) One
Q.70 Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by

(A) Gene bank (B) Gene library (C) Herbarium (D) Gene pool
Q.71 Choose the odd one out w.r.t in-situ conservation

(A) Wild life sanctuaries (B) National parks
(C) Biosphere reserves (D) Zoological parks
Q.72 Sacred groves are especially useful in

(A) Generating environmental awareness (B) Preventing soil erosion
(C) Year-round flow of water in rivers (D) Conserving rare and threatened species
15.32
Q.73 In your opinion, which is the most effective in-situ strategies to conserve the plant diversity of an area?
(A) By tissue culture method (B) By creating biosphere reserve
(C) By creating botanical garden (D) By developing seed bank
Q.74 Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?
(A) National park, Sacred grooves (B) Sanctuary, National parks
(C) Botanical garden, Wildlife Safaris (D) Biosphere reserve, Sanctuary
Q.75 Mark the odd one (w.r.t national parks)

(A) Cultivation on land is not permitted (B) Meant for protection of both flora and fauna
(C) Forest products are not harvested (D) Grazing is allowed
n
Q.76 Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
.i
(A) National park (B) Wildlife sanctuary
(C) Seed bank
n al
(D) Sacred groves
Q.77 Which of the following is narrowly utilitarian aspect to conserve biodiversity?

ur
(A) Pollination (B) Aesthetic value

(C) Air purification (D) Medicinal value
o
uj
Q.78 World summit on Sustainable development (2002) was held in

(A) South Africa (B) Brazil (C) Sweden (D) Argentina
Ed
Q.79 Which of the following statement for biosphere reserve is incorrect?

(A) They are meant for preserving genetic diversity in representative ecosystems
(B) They are also notified as National parks
(C) Transition zone is legally protected area without utilizing their resources
(D) Protected areas for with multipurpose activities in peripheral zone.
Q.80 What is number of hotspots, biosphere reserves, national parks and wildlife sanctuaries in India
respectively?
(i) – 14 (ii) – 90 (iii) – 3 (iv) – 448
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
15.33
Q.81 Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?

(A) Brazil (B) South Africa (C) Russia (D) India
Q.82 Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

(A) Destruction of habitat (B) Invasion by alien species
(C) Keeping animals in zoological parks (D) Over-exploitation of natural resources.
Q.83 Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(A) Lantana (B) Cynodon (C) Parthenium (D) Eichhomia
Q.84 Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?
(A) Rainforest of North EastIndia (B) Sundarbans
(C) Thar Desert (D) Western Ghats
.i n
Q.85 Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots?
(A) Large number of species
al
(B) Abundance of endemic species
n
(C) Large number of exotic species (D) Destruction of habitat.
ur
Q.86 Match the animals in column A with their location in column B:

o
Column A Column B
uj
Dodo Africa
Quagga Russia
Ed
Thylacine Mauritius
Steller’s Sea cow Australia
(A) (i)- (a), (ii)- (c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (B) (i)- (d), (ii)- (c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(C) (i)- (c), (ii)- (a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (D) (i)- (c), (ii)- (a), (iii)-(d), (iv)- (b)
Q.87 What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia and Aconitum?
(A) All are ornamental plants
(B) All are phylogenic link species
(C) All are prone to over-exploitation
(D) All are exclusively present in the Eastern Himalayas.
Q.88 The one-homed rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary:

(A) Bhitar Kanika (B) Bandipur (B) Kaziranga (D) Corbett Park
15.34
Q.89 Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered
species?
(A) Insects (B) Mammals (C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles
Q. 90 Which one of the following is an endangered plant species of India?

(A) Rauwolfia serpentina (B) Santalum album
(C) Cycas beddomei (D) All the above
Q.91 What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and African Catfish?

(A) All are endangered species of India
(B) All of keystone species
(C) All are mammals found in India
n
(D) All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.
.i
Q.92 The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to:
(A) Increased number of predatory birds
al
(B) Over-exploitation by humans
n
(C) Non-availability of food (D) Bird flu virus infection.
ur

o
(A) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country

uj
(B) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes

Ed
(C) Steller’s Sea cow is an extinct animal

(D) Lantana is popularly known as Carrot Grass
Q.94 Among the ecosystems mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?
(A) Mangroves (B) Desert (C) Coral reefs (D) Alpine meadows
Q.95 Which of the following forests is known as the “lungs of the planet earth”?
(A) Taiga forest (B) Tundra forest
(C) Amazon rainforest (D) Rainforests of North East India
Q.96 The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from :

(A) Datura (B) Rauwolfia (C) Atropa (D) Papaver
15.35
Q.97 Which of the following group of plants exhibit more species diversity?
(A) Angiosperms (B) Algae (C) Bryophytes (D) Fungi
Q.98 Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?
(A) Tropics (B) Temperates. (C) Alpines (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.99 The historic convention of Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as :
(A) CITES Convention (B) The Earth Summit
(C) G-16 Summit (D) MAB Programme.
Q.100 What is common to the techniques?

(i) In vitro fertilization (ii) Cryopreservation and (iii) Tissue culture
n
(A) All are in-situ conservation methods
.i
(B) All are ex-situ conservation methods
(C) All require ultra modem equipment and large space
n al
(D) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms.
o ur

uj
Q.1 Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park? [CBSE Prelims 2009]
Ed
(A) Gir (B) Jim Corbett (C) Ranthambhor (D) Sunderbans
Q.2 The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the following Indian states?
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Assam
Q.3 Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation? [CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) National park (B) Wildlife sanctuary
(C) Seed bank (D) Sacred groves
Q.4 A renewable exhaustible natural resource in [CBSE Prelims 2010]

(A) Forest (B) Coal (C) Petroleum (D) Minerals
15.36
Q.5 Which one is famous for hosting thousands of migratory birds coming from Siberia in winter?
[HP PMT 2010]
(A) Kanha National Park, Balaghat, M.P.
(B) Keoladeo National Park, Bharatpur, Rajasthan
(C) Kaziranga National Park, Assam
(D) Corbett National Park, Nainital, Uttarakhand.
Q.6 The second trophic level in the lake is [HP PMT 2010]
(A) Phytoplankton (B) Zooplankton (C) Benthos (D) Fishes
Q.7 Who gave the “Rivet Popper hypothesis”? [HP PMT 2010; 2011]
(A) E.P. Odum (B) Ram Deo Misra
n
(C) Paul Ehrlich (D) A. Tansley
.i
Q.8 ‘Evil Quartet’ is related with al [HP PMT 2010; 2011]
(A) Loss of biodiversity (B) Loss of alien species
n
(C) Loss of standing crop (D) Loss of climax community
ur
Q.9 How many hot spots have been identified in the world? [HP PMT 2010]
o
(A) 10 (B) 34 (C) 20 (D) 25

uj
Q.10 Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct?
Ed
[CBSE Prelims 2011]

(A) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
(B) UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
(C) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
(D) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
Q.11 Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature [CBSE Prelims 2011]
(A) Fungi (B) Insects (C) Birds (D) Angiosperms
15.37
Q.12 Biodiversity of a geographical area represents [CBSE Main PMT 2011]

(A) Endangered species found in the region
(B) The diversity in the organisms living in the region
(C) Genetic diversity in the dominant species of the region
(D) Species endemic to the region
Q.13 Brow antlered deer is found in [Chandigarh CET 2011]

(A) Kaziranga National park (B) Corbett National Park
(C) Keibul Lamjao National Park (D) Bandipur National Park
Q.14 The only Floating National Park in the world is [Chandigarh CET 2011]
(A) Keibul Lamjao National Park (B) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
n
(C) Chilka Lake Sanctuary (D) Nal Sarovar Sanctuary
.i
Q.15 Sacred groves are found in
(A) Meghalaya
n al
(B) Punjab
(C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Bihar

ur
Q.16 Who have recently tried to put price tags on nature’s life support services [HP PMT 2011]
o
(A) Robert Constanza and his colleagues

uj
(B) Nile Perch and his colleagues

Ed
(C) Herbert Boyer and his colleagues

(D) Ram Deo Mishra and his colleagues
Q.17 India now has [HP PMT 2011]

(A) 10 Biosphere reserves, 50 National parks, and 400 Wildlife sanctuaries
(B) 14 Biosphere reserves, 50 National parks, and 400 Wildlife sanctuaries
(C) 10 Biosphere reserves, 90 National parks, and 448 Wildlife sanctuaries
(D) 14 Biosphere reserves, 90 National parks, and 448 Wildlife sanctuaries
Q.18 Chipko movement was first led by [Orissa JEE 2011]

(A) Sundarlal Bahuguna (B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Ramdev Mishra (D) Indira Gandhi
15.38
Q.19 5th June is celebrated as [Orissa JEE 2011]

(A) World Typhoid day (B) World AIDS day
(C) World Environmental Day (D) World Tobacco day
Q.20 The “World Intellectual Property day” is observed on [Karnataka CET 2011]
(A) February 29th (B) June, 30th (C) April 26th (D) September, 5th
Q.21 The highest number of species in the world is represented by [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Mosses (B) Algae (C) Lichens (D) Fungi
Q.22 Which one of the following areas in India is a hotspot of biodiversity? [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Gangetic Plain (B) Sunderbans
(C) Western Ghats (D) Eastern Ghats
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Q.23 Select the correct statement about biodiversity [CBSE Main PMT 2012]
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(A) Western Ghats have a high degree of species richness and endemism
(B) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries
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(C) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as
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numerous animals
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(D) large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity

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Q.24 Sacred groves are specially useful in: [CBSE Main PMT 2012]
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(A) Year round flow of water in rivers (B) Conserving rare and threatened species
(C) Generating environmental awareness (D) Preventing soil erosion
Q.25 Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is home for [Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) Golden langur (B) Water birds (C) Rhino (D) Porcupine
Q.26 Which region on the planet earth is rich in species diversity? [HP PMT 2012]
(A) North pole (B) Temperate region
(C) Tropical region (D) South pole
Q.27 Arrange the following in ascending order based on their numbers in India [HP PMT 2012]
(a) Biosphere reserves (b) Hot spots
(c) National parks (d) Wild life sanctuaries
(A) b a c d (B) b c d a (C) a b c d (D) d c b a
15.39
Q.28 Which one of the following is not used for ex-situ plant conservation? [NEET 2013]
(A) Shifting cultivation (B) Botanical Gardens
(C) Field gene banks (D) Seed banks
Q.29 The organization which publishes the Red List species is [AIPMT 2014]
(A) WWF (B) ICFRE (C) IUCN (D) UNEP
Q.30 A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called [AIPMT 2014]
(A) Extinct (B) Vulnerable (C) Endemic (D) Critically endangered
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15.40
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 B Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 B Q.5 B Q.6 C
Q.7 A Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 D Q.12 B
Q.13 D Q.14 C Q.15 B Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 A
Q.19 D Q.20 C Q.21 A Q.22 D Q.23 B Q.24 D
Q.25 C Q.26 C Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 B Q.30 C
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 A Q.35 B Q.36 B
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Q.37 D Q.38 D Q.39 C Q.40 C Q.41 A Q.42 B
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Q.43 B Q.44 B Q.45 A Q.46 C Q.47 B Q.48 A
Q.49 C Q.50 B Q.51 C
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Q.52 C
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Q.53 D Q.54 D
Q.55 C Q.56 C Q.57 A Q.58 C Q.59 C Q.60 B
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Q.61 A Q.62 D Q.63 A Q.64 D Q.65 A Q.66 B

Q.67 D Q.68 D Q.69 B Q.70 A Q.71 D Q.72 D
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Q.73 B Q.74 C Q.75 D Q.76 B Q.77 D Q.78 A

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Q.79 C Q.80 B Q.81 A Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 A

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Q.85 C Q.86 D Q.87 C Q.88 C Q.89 C Q.90 D

Q.91 D Q.92 B Q.93 B Q.94 C Q.95 C Q.96 B
Q.97 D Q.98 A Q.99 B Q.100 B

Q.1 A Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 A Q.5 B Q.6 B
Q.7 C Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 B
Q.13 C Q.14 A Q.15 A Q.16 A Q.17 D Q.18 A
Q.19 C Q.20 C Q.21 D Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 B
Q.25 C Q.26 C Q.27 A Q.28 A Q.29 C Q.30 D
I
|VOL.V |Unit 5
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Environmental Issues
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16.1
CHAPTER 16
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ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Human require food, shelter and other basic needs
INTRODUCTION for their survival. Human population has grown
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enormously in terms of number which is further

AIR POLLUTION AND ITS CONTROL
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increasing the demand for food, home, water,

NOISE POLLUTION AND ITS CONTROL electricity, etc. Thus, there is increased work, use
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WATER POLLUTION AND ITS CONTROL of fuels in cars, vehicles, electricity, cooking, which
increases pollution. These are just examples for
SOLIDWASTES the fuel usage, there are several other resources
AGROCHEMICALS AND THEIR EFFECT which are used by human for their benefit. The end
result is pollution in some way or other.
RADIOACTIVE WASTES There are major issues in environmental pollution
GREENHOUSE EFFECT AND GLOBAL WARMING and depletion of valuable natural resources which
change with location. It is high in urban areas
OZONE DEPLETION IN STRATOSPHERE whereas low in rural areas. The depletion of natural
DEGRADATION BY IMPROPER RESOURCE resources and its use has to be monitored in order
to check the pollution.
UTILISATION AND MAINTENANCE
DEFORESTATION
16.2

y Realize the effect of pollution on environment.
y Evaluate the seriousness to deal with pollution.
y Analyse the methods that can be used for the pollution reduction.
2. Pollution
y Any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristic of air, water and land which
is harmful to the man directly or indirectly through the animals, plants, industrial units or raw materials
is called as pollution.
y Pollutants: Any material or act on the part of man, or nature which leads to pollution is called pollutants.
y Pollutants are divided into the following categories:
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On the basis of their degradation:
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O Non-biodegradable pollutants: The pollutants which are usually not degraded or even if degraded
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are partially degraded in the environment. Aluminium pecks, BHC pesticides, iron, Glass, DDT
benzene, mercury compounds, phenolic compounds, etc. are few examples. Such pollutants are
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accumulated in the environment which cause pollution. These pollutants even in low concentration
are harmful and as their concentration increases, the level of harm caused also increases. There
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are no treatments yet discovered which can completely recycle or destroy such pollutants. However
there are two possible methods which can stop the pollution which is caused by such pollutants.
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They are chemicals or substances usage should be banned by law or if it is essential to be used,
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use their alternative substances.

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O Biodegradable pollutants: The pollutants created from domestic sewage, papers, woods,
garbage, livestock wastes, etc. are easily degraded completely in presence of microorganisms.
This degraded material becomes useful for other purposes. However when these wastes are in
high amounts in the environment, they cannot be degraded completely by microorganisms and
cause foul smell, mosquito and rodents to dwell in them which causes diseases and pollution.
On the basis of their occurrence in nature:
O Primary pollutants: They continue to exist in a form which is similar to the form they entered the
environment. E.g., DDT, CO etc.
O Secondary pollutants: They are produced from the chemical reaction between the primary
pollutants. The formation of secondary pollutants is called as synergism. Secondary pollutants
cause more harm than the primary pollutants. E.g., Photochemical smog, London smog, PAN, O3
On the basis of their existence in nature:
O Quantitative pollutants: They are the molecules which occur naturally however they turn into
pollutant when their concentration reaches above a threshold or tolerable value in the environment.
E.g. CO2, nitrogen oxide.
16.3
O Qualitative pollutants: They are the molecules which do not occur naturally in the environment
and are passed in it through various human activities. E.g., fungicides, herbicides, DDT etc.
On the basis of their origin:
O Natural pollution: It is caused by natural sources. E.g., CH4 from paddy fields and cattle, marsh,
forest fire.
O Anthropogenic pollution: It is caused by human activities. E.g., CO from automobiles, SO2
from manufacturing industries of plastic, rubber, etc.
On the basis of their effect on environment:
O Negative pollution: They affect the environment in negative ways. Loss of soil productivity. The
removal or absence of any desirable substance from the right place which results in loss of nature
in some way. E.g., Overgrazing, Soil erosion.
O Positive pollution: They affect the environment in positive ways. The presence or addition of
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undesirable compounds at wrong place which result in reduction of soil fertility. E.g., more use of
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bio fertilizer, land filling by wastes.
municipal sewage.
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Point source pollution is the effluent discharge that takes place at a specific site. E.g., factory outlet and
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2.1 Air Pollution
The air pollution is caused due to addition of unwanted substances or gases in the air directly or indirectly.
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The atmospheric pollution is mainly caused by the human activities which are concentrated in the inhabited
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and the industrial complexes in urban areas and are present in low concentrations in rural areas.
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2.1.1 Causes of Air Pollution

y The chimney in the thermal power plants, smelters, and other industries emit particulate and gaseous
pollutants mixed with harmless gases like nitrogen and oxygen.
y The fuels used in automobiles, cylinders, and electronics produce pollutants which constitute major
part of air pollution.
y The fossil fuels are used domestically and industrially where they are incompletely combusted. This
produces CO instead of CO2.
y The nature also contributes to air pollution which includes pollen, smoke, and dust.
2.1.2 Types of Air Pollution
The two main categories of air pollutants are Gases and Particulates.
y Gases: The gaseous materials consists of various gases and also the vapours of volatile substances
or the compound with a boiling point below 200 oC.
16.4
y Particulate matter: Particulate matter consists of solid particles or liquid droplets (aerosols) which are
so small that they can remain suspended in air e.g., soot, smoke, dust, asbestos, fibres, pesticides,
some metals (including Hg, Pb, Cu and Fe). Even biological agents like tiny dust, mites and flower
pollen grains.
Major air pollutants and their effects:
y Carbon monoxide (CO)
Source: The major air pollutant which is released from the smoke of automobile due to incomplete
combustion of fuels.
Effect: Carbon monoxide is a highly toxic gas, it enters organism’s body and it combines with the
haemoglobin in the blood which blocks the oxygen transportation. Thus, it impairs the respiration and
it causes death due to asphyxiation when it is inhaled in high quantities.
y Incompletely combusted Hydrocarbons (3, 4 Benzopyrine, Benzene)
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Source: The pollutants which are mainly released from the automobiles and burning of fossil fuels
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(petrol, diesel). The most abundant hydrocarbon is methane (CH4) in the atmosphere emitted from
marshy areas and paddy fields. al
Effect: Hydrocarbons causes lung cancer.
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y Ethylene
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Source: Ethylene is released in the air during the fruit ripening.

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Effect: The leaves fall even when they are healthy and flowering buds fall before time.
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y Nitrogen oxide (NO, NO2)

Source: Burning or combustion of fossil fuels in automobiles.
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Effect: NO form the photochemical smog in atmosphere, cause acid rains. These nitrogen oxide enter
the respiratory system and cause disorders like emphysema, bronchitis, swelling of lungs and lungs
cancer etc.
y Sulphur oxide (SO2, SO3)
Source:The most hazardous gaseous pollutants, emitted mainly from coal burning, smelters, oil
refineries.
Effect: Lichen and mosses do not grow in SO2 polluted areas thus are the natural indicators of SO2
pollution. Sulphur oxides destruct the chlorophyll which affects the plants in that area. Taj mahal also
gets effected.
y Smoke (SO2, SO3, NO2, NO, CO, CO2)
Source: The combustion or burning of organic matter emit carbon and other molecules.
Effect: Smoke affects clear visibility of the nature, roads, etc.
16.5
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Secondary pollutants
Smog (Smoke + Fog):
Dr. Des Voeux named smog (smoke) is measured with Ringlmann method. Smog is of these
two types:
y Los Angeles Smog or Photo Chemical smog:
Source: First observed in Los Angeles. The smoke, fog nitrogen oxide, hydrocarbons,
oxygen, UV light and high temperature are combined to form smog. These components
react among themselves and produce reddish brown smog (PAN + O3 + Nitrogen oxides)
or brown haze or brown air. Los Angeles smog is a light induced smog.
Effect: It causes eye irritation and affects the lungs. Also it affects elastic substances
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(rubber or tyers). When there is smog, peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is formed. PAN stops or
inhibits the photolysis of water in hill reaction of the photosynthesis which affects or inhibits
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the photosystem II. PAN also inhibits the chlorophyll production in plants.
y London smog or sulphur smog:
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Source: It was first observed in London. The coal, smoke, fog, sulphur oxide and low
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temperature combined together to produce London smog. These components react

among themselves and produce vapors (fog) of H2SO4 which is termed as London smog.
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Effect: The inhalation of H2SO4 vapor mixed in fog affected 4000 people which died in
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London in 1952.
Acid rains:
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Robert August named acid rains.

Source: NO2 and SO2 which is released from different sources form smoke and gets
dissolved in atmospheric water vapour. This water vapour condense to form sulphuric
acid and nitric acid (H2SO4 + HNO3). These acids mix with the rain water which is called
as acid rain.
Wet deposition: When the acid comes down on earth’s surface mixed with rain, fog
and smog, it is called as wet deposition. Dry deposition: When acid gets settled on the
earth surface through solid dust particles along with nitrate or sulphate, it is called as dry
deposition.
Note:
The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6. In acid rain the ratio of H2SO4 and HNO3 is 7 : 3
(70% H2SO4 + 30% HNO3). Effect: The acid rain causes increased acidity in the soil
and water. Acid rain also damages historical monuments. E.g. Tajmahal, Red fort.
16.6
2.1.3 Control of Air Pollution

(i) Control of particulate matter:
Two devices used to remove particulate air pollutants from air are Arresters and Scrubbers
(a) Arresters: They separate the particulate matters from the contaminated air. Arresters are of different
types:
y Cyclonic separators and Trajectory separators: They commonly separate out the particulate matter
which is emitted from the industrial wastes with minimum moisture content. These separators work on
the principle of centrifugation separation of dust.
y Electrostatic precipitator: The most efficient device which removes finer particulate pollutants. This
device works on the principle of electrical charging of the dust particles and collecting it on a differently
charged base or platform.
y There are many other ways of removing the particulate matter; however the most widely used is the
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electrostatic precipitator. It can remove over 99 % particulate matter which is present in the exhaust
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from a thermal power plant. There are electrode wires which are required to be maintained at several
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thousand volts, to produce a corona to release electrons. These electrons are attached to dust particles
giving them a net negative charge. The collecting plates or base attracts the charged dust particles.
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The velocity of air between the plates must be low which can allow the dust to fall.
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Figure 16.1: Electrostatic precipitator
(b) Scrubbers:
They are used to clean air for both - dust and gases. There are wet and dry scrubbers which are used
for dust separation. A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide. The exhaust is passed through
a spray of water which separates the pollutants.
16.7
(ii) Control of gaseous pollutants:

Combustion, absorption and adsorption methods are used to control gaseous pollutants.
(a) Combustion:
The oxidisable gaseous pollutants are combusted completely at a high temperatures. Petrochemical,
fertilizer, paints and varnish industries and combustion control of gaseous pollutants.
(b) Absorption:
The gaseous pollutants are absorbed in suitable (liquid) absorbent materials.
(c) Adsorption:
The method is used to control toxic gases, vapour and inflammable compounds that could not be
efficiently removed or transferred by other methods. Such air pollutants are adsorbed on large solid
surface.
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Table 16.1: Details of the most polluted cities in India
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Year II most polluted cities in India Rest of India
Before 1-4-2005
1 April 2005 to 31 march 2010 Euro - III
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Euro- II (Bharat stage – II) X
Euro – II
1 April 2010 to 1 April 2015 Euro - IV Euro - III
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2.1.4 A Case Study of Delhi

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There was huge vehicular air pollution in Delhi. The city leads in air pollution levels. In the 1990s, Delhi
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ranked fourth among the 41 most polluted cities of the world. It was so serious that Public Interest Litigation
(PIL) was filed in Supreme Court. Then the government had to take ways and methods which will take care
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of the pollution. The result was to switch from diesel or petrol to compressed natural gas (CNG). All the
buses were immediately converted to CNG.
Advantages of CNG (compressed natural gas)
CNG is the better than diesel because CNG burn most efficiently as compare to diesel or petrol in the
automobiles and very little of it is left unburnt. CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel.
According to a study, there is a substantial fall in CO2 and SO2 level in Delhi between 1997 and 2005.
Disadvantage
The government faced problem for CNG delivery and its pipelines through distribution points.
Other measures taken:
Use of unleaded petrol, use of low sulphur, petrol and diesel, use of catalytic converters in vehicles,
application of stringent pollution level norms for vehicles. The government of India established a new auto
fuel policy which will cut down vehicular pollution in Indian cities. More stringent concern for fuels is steadily
reducing the sulphur and aromatics content in petrol and diesel fuels.
16.8
Euro II norms: For example, it stipulates that sulphur can be controlled at 350 parts per million (ppm) in
diesel and 150 ppm in petrol. Aromatic hydrocarbons contain 42 % of diesel. The goal, according to the
roadmap, is to reduce sulphur to 50 ppm in petrol and diesel and bring down the level to 35 percent. As the
fuel is upgraded, the vehicle engines also need to be upgraded.
Eleven most polluted cities of India: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad,
Pune, Surat, Kanpur and Agra.
TRY IT YOURSELF
State True or False:
1. Motor vehicles are equipped with electrostatic precipitators to reduce pollution.
2. According to Central Pollution Central Board particulate size 2.5 m or less diameter
are responsible for causing greatest harm to human health.
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3. All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on CNG by the end of 2002.
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4. A scrubber can remove gaseous pollutants like sulphur dioxide.
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5. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are
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converted into carbon monoxide and water.
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2.2 Noise Pollution

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The noise or sound levels increased in the atmosphere is called noise pollution or sound pollution. Noise is
loud, disturbing, irritating, unwanted or unpleasant sound.
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Intensity: The intensity of sound is measured in bel or decibel (1 bel = 10 decibel). 25 decibel is the level
at which the atmosphere may be peaceful. However sound above 80 decibel intensity is called as noise
pollution.
Note: In India, the air (Prevention and control of pollution) act came into action in 1981 which was later
amended in 1987 to also include noise as an air pollutant.
2.2.1 Causes of Noise Pollution
It can be natural like thundering, or man-made like stereo or loud speakers. The main sources are:
y Irritating, unwanted and damaging sounds of various mills and industries.
y Defence materials like guns, infantry weapons, explosive rockets, helicopters, etc.
y Entertainment sources like stereo, loud speakers, radios, cassettes.
y Transport automobiles, honking sound, engines of buses, trucks, trains, etc.
16.9
2.2.2 Effects of Noise Pollution

A brief exposure to extremely high sound level, 150 dB or more generated during the take-off of a jet plane
or rocket may damage ear drums which can permanently impair the hearing ability. Even chronic exposure
to a relatively lower noise level of cities may permanently damage hearing abilities of humans. Noise also
results in sleeplessness, increased heart beating, altered breathing pattern, which creates stress in humans.
Note: Reduction in noise in our industries can be affected by use of sound absorbent materials or by
muffling noise.
2.2.3 Control of Noise Pollution
y Use of sound absorbent substances.
y Try to follow the permissible sound level of crackers, loudspeakers.
y Delimitation of horn-free zones around hospitals and schools.
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y Using ear plugs and ear muffs by traffic police personnel and factory workers who are constantly
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exposed to loud noise.
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along the road side, gardens, and societies.
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Green muffler scheme: Trees such as neem and ashoka absorb sound to a great extent, when planted
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DID YOU KNOW

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Table 16.2: Levels of sound which are named as per their effect on human ears
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Very Quiet 20 – 30 dB Sound quiet place is – 20 dB

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Motion picture studio, broadcasting

studio
Silence/Quiet 30/35 – 50 dB Hospitals (30 – 35), Schools (45 – 50),
Libraries (45 – 50), Offices (40 – 50)
? Normal voice 55 dB
Conversational speech 60 dB
Moderately loud 70 dB – 90 dB Average traffic – 70 dB
Heavy city traffic – 90 dB
Uncomfortable Above 100 dB Air craft (120 dB)
Painful Above 130 dB Rocket (180 dB)
Jet plane (150 dB)
16.10
2.3 Water Pollution

The addition of organic and inorganic chemicals as well as the biological materials which tends to change
the physical and chemical properties of the water which is a harmful process is called as water pollution.
2.3.1 Causes of Water Pollution

Domestic Sewage: Sewage matter, industrial wastage, agricultural wastage, domestic wastage, hotwater
of thermal plant and nuclear reactors, etc. are major causes of water pollution.
Note: Even 0.1 % impurities makes domestic sewage unfit for human use (figure).
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Figure 16.2: Composition of waste water
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The water at home is used for several purposes like cleaning, rinsing, bathing, etc. which creates various kinds
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of impurities in sewage. Domestic sewage mainly includes biodegradable organic matter (carbohydrates,
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proteins, fats, urea, inorganic salts, etc.), human faecal matter, animal wastes, etc. Also it includes huge
bacterial load from vegetables, cooked food, skin, faecal matter, etc.
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All these impurities are well classified as: Suspended solids, Colloidal particles, Dissolved materials.
Household Detergents: include the phosphate, nitrate, ammonium and alkyl-benzene sulphonate etc.
compounds which are harmful substances that gather in water.
Inorganic phosphorus and nitrogen: Such molecules in high concentration speeds the growth of algae. The
death of algae increases the organic matter. The presence of large amounts of organic material leads to
eutrophication because of this, amount of oxygen in water decreases. Some of the algae also secretes toxic
materials. This water used for drinking causes death of the cattle.
In order to control this pollution, phosphate salts are precipitated with lime ferric chloride, etc. Zirconium is
considered as the best precipitation agent.
BOD and COD are linked with sewage. This relationship is mentioned below:
y Biochemical oxygen demand (B.O.D): The organic wastes in the water is measured as its biochemical
oxygen demand. The amount of dissolved oxygen (D.O = Dissolved oxygen) which is required by the
microorganisms to decompose the organic wastes of the water. The BOD level in a given water sample
indicates the impurity level in it. Higher the BOD requirement, higher is the contamination level in the
16.11
water. BOD also helps to determine or calculate the biodegradable organic matter in the water. B.O.D
increased = high impurity level in water. When the B.O.D amount is increased, the dissolved oxygen
amount is decreased in water. The rates of decomposition is increased with higher amount of organic
waste in water. O2 (dissolved) is rapidly used by microbes for degradation, which drops the D.O content
in water.
y Daphnia is the indicator of B.O.D
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Figure 16.3: Effect of sewage discharge on some important characters
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Note:
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The above figure is an indication of changes in sewage water discharged in water. The microbes present in
water start the degradation which reduces the D.O rapidly. This decrease affects the aquatic fish and other
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animals and plants. There are several organic matter in water which causes increase in water algae or algal
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bloom, imparting distinct colour to the water. This algal growth causes water quality deterioration. The bloom
has algae which affects the animals and plants. There are bright coloured flowers growing or floating on water
bodies which look beautiful. However these flowers grow or spread along the water surface which interrupts
the water ways. Their growth speed is fast and thus difficult to remove them. Water hyacinth (Eichhorina
crassipes), is an aquatic weed which creates water problems in the whole world, also called as ‘Terror
of Bengal’. Domestic, industrial and hospital sewage contain several harmful chemicals and pathogenic
organisms which if not treated properly can cause various diseases, like cholera, jaundice, typhoid, etc.
y Chemical oxygen demand (C.O.D): The oxygen required by chemicals in the sewage for the oxidation
of total organic matter (biodegradable + non-biodegradable).
Note: C.O.D value is always higher than the B.O.D value
y Biological magnification: There are non-biodegradable pollutant in water which microbes are unable
to degrade like Al, Hg, Fe, D.D.T., pesticides, phenolic compound ABS (Alkyl benzene sulphonate).
Such chemicals are accumulated in the body tissue in increasing concentration once they enter the
food chain. This is called as biological magnification. The highest concentration of these chemicals is
found in top consumers.
16.12
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Figure 16.4: Biomagnification of DDT in aquatic world
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Note: High concentration of DDT disturbs the calcium metabolism in birds. This affects the egg shell
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formation thinning of egg shell) and their premature breaking that eventually declines the bird populations.
y Eutrophication: The excessive growth of organisms (algae, plants and animals) in water as there is
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high nutrient content in water. The process of nutrient enrichment of water can be due to the sewage
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contents, run-off fertilizers and microorganisms in it. There is consequent loss of species (or death of
aquatic animals) as the organisms increase causing them to compete for food, oxygen and sunlight.
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The lake which is showing the eutrophication is called as eutrophic lake. In this process presence of
nutrients in lake stimulates growth of algae (algae bloom) increase organic loading and bring about
reduction in the oxygen content of water causing death of aquatic animals.
O Natural Eutrophication: Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by the biological enrichment
or growth of its water. This natural aging of a lake does not occur in a day and may take a span of
thousands of years. The lake may finally get converted into land due to the deposition of silt.
O Accelerated or artificial Eutrophication: The pollutants that are due to human activities like the
industrial or domestic effluents can radically accelerate the aging process, this phenomenon is
called as accelerated eutrophication. The lakes now become shallow and warmer due to its organic
matter. This warming of lake water stops the growth of cold water organisms while enhances the
growth of warm organisms. B.O.D of eutrophic lake is very high.
y Industrial waste: The industrial wastes are discharged into the running water of the rivers and canals.
Such effluents mainly contain the inert suspended particles like dust, coal, toxins (acid, base phenols
cyanides, mercury, zinc etc.) inorganic reduced material like ferrous salts sulphide, oils and other
residues of organic material and hot water. The water which is polluted with heavy metals like mercury,
16.13
lead,etc. causes the disorganization of nervous system in animals when used for drinking or cooking.
Japan was affected (many people died) with Mina Mata disease which was caused by consumption of
polluted fishes grown in mercury polluted water.
The industrial wastes and toxic components should be purified before it is drained into rivers, lakes, sea and
ponds. Thus the water of the industrial effluents can be treated by suitable method to remove the pollutants.
The waste water from industries like petroleum, paper manufacturing, metal extraction and processing,
paper manufacturing, metal extraction and processing, chemical manufacturing, etc., are observed
to contain toxic substance,heavy metals (defined as elements with density > 5 g/cm3 such as mercury,
cadmium, copper, lead etc.) and a variety of organic compounds.
Water having D.O content below 8.0 mgL-1 may be considered as contaminated and below 4.0 mgL-1 heavily
polluted. D.O. is measured by oximeter.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
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Indication of pollution level
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Heavy metal Range al
Low 1500 µg/g
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Medium 1500 µg/g - 4000 µg/g
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High Above 4000 µg/g

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Water having dissolved oxygen (DO) content below 8.0 mg/L is considered as polluted. Heavily
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pollutes water have DO content below 4.0 mg/L.

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y Sewage: Sewage contains highest amount of carbonic materials and biological material, as pollutants.
These carbonic materials increase the number of decomposers like bacteria and fungus. The
acceleration of microbial activity increases BOD of water.
BOD is very less in pure water. The higher BOD is the indication of water pollution and the water of
polluted reservoir cannot be utilized.
y Heated (thermal) wastewaters: The water flowing out of electricity generating units e.g., thermal
power plants, constitute another important category of water pollutants. Thermal waste water eliminates
or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature. This may enhance the growth of
plants and fishes, which grow in high temperature water in cold areas. However they grow after causing
damage to the indigenous flora and fauna.
2.3.2 Types of Water Pollution

The water released from the agricultural, household and industrial use have these major pollutants:
16.14
y Biological: Microorganisms like bacteria, virus, protozoa, worms, etc. The major cause is organic
waste disposal in water.
y Chemical: Inorganic (phosphates, fluorides, chlorides, nitrates, etc.), organic (phenols, alcohols, dyes,
pesticides, etc.) and heavy metals (lead, mercury, cadmium, zinc, etc.)
y Physical: Temperature, viscosity, density of water.
2.3.3 Sewage Treatment

y Primary treatment: It is physical removal of large and small particles from the sewage through filtration
and sedimentation. Filtration stages are employed. Initially, floating debris is removed by sequential
filtration. Then the smaller ones (soil and small pebbles) are removed by sedimentation. All the solid
particles that settle, form the primary sludge, while the supernatant liquid forms the effluent or primary
effluent. The primary effluent from the primary settling tank is now ready for secondary treatment.
y Secondary treatment or biological treatment: The primary effluent is passed into large aeration
n
tanks and constantly agitated (mix) mechanically with the air pumped into it. This air and mixing allows
.i
vigorous growth of degrading aerobic microbes into flocks (masses of bacteria associated with fungal
al
filaments to form mesh like structures). These microbes consume the major part of the organic matter
in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD of the effluent.
n
After the sewage BOD is reduced significantly, the secondary effluent is then passed into a secondary
ur
settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocks’ form sediments. This sediment is called as activated sludge. The
sludge is pumped into large tanks called as anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, other kinds of bacteria,
o
which grow anaerobically, digest the aerobic bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. In this process, the
bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These
uj
gases are called as biogas as they can be used as source of energy due to its inflammable nature. The
Ed
effluent from the secondary treatment plant is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers
and streams.
Daphnia, trout fishes and larva of stone fly when start growing in water, indicate the water purity as they
are the clear indicators and Tubifex (an annelid), Chironomous larva, E. coli, sewage fungus, sludge
worms, blood worms are the polluted water indicators.
2.3.4 A Case Study of Integrated Waste Water Treatment
Wastewater including sewage can be treated in an integrated manner, by utilizing a mix of artificial and
natural processes. An example of such an initiative is the town of Arcata, situated along the northern coast
of California. Collaborating with biologists from the Humboldt state university. The towns people created an
integrated waste water treatment process within a natural system.
The cleaning occurs in two stages:
y The conventional sedimentation, filtering and chlorine treatment are given. After this stage, lots of
dangerous pollutants like dissolved heavy metals still remain. To combat this, an innovative approach
was taken and the biologists developed a series of six connected marshes over 60 hectares of marsh
16.15
land. Appropriate plants, algae, fungi and bacteria were seeded into this area, which neutralize, absorb
and assimilate the pollutants. Hence, as the water flows through the marshes, it gets purified naturally.
The marshes also constitute a sanctuary, with a high level of biodiversity in the form of fishes, animals and
birds that now reside there. A citizens group called friends of the Arcata marsh (FOAM) are responsible for
the upkeep and safeguarding of this wonderful project.
Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta, using dry composting toilets.
This is a practical, hygienic, efficient and cost-effective solution to human waste disposal. The key point to
note here is that with this compositing method, human excreta can be recycled into a resource (as natural
fertilizer), which reduces the need for chemical fertilisers. There are working ‘EcoSan’ toilets in many areas
of Kerala and Sri lanka.
TRY IT YOURSELF
Fill in the blanks
n
1. Domestic sewage is a _________ pollutant.
.i
2. Bio magnification is well known for _______ and _______.
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3. The Government of India has passed the water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
n
act, ___________ to safeguard our water resources.
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4. The Marshes also constitute a sanctuary, with a ________ of diversity.
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2.4 Solid Wastes

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The wastes that are discarded or goes out in trash or left over solids produced from human activities.
Ed
2.4.1 Sources of Solid Wastes

Hospitals
Household
Agriculture
Industries (plastic, paper, rubber)
2.4.2 Types of Solid Wastes
Municipal solid wastes: Wastes collected as well as disposed from homes, offices, stores, schools,
hospitals, etc., by the municipality. The municipal solid wastes generally include paper, food wastes,
plastics, glass, metals, rubber, leather, textile, etc. Such wastes are increasing as there is an increase in
non-biodegradable wastes. The covers or packets of food packages are made of several polymeric layers
(aluminium, plastic, paper) which are not easily degraded. Also the carry bags and cartons are plastics
which are not easily degraded.
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2.4.3 Disposal of Solid Wastes

The collection and categorisation of wastes, its transport to the disposal area, and its appropriate disposal
are the processes which are involved in wastes management. The simpler method is to divide the wastes
as biodegradable, recyclable and non-biodegradable. The biodegradable wastes are put in pits where they
are degraded. The recycled ones are collected and transported to the industries where it is recycled. The
non-degradable ones create problems.
The methods involved are:
y Burning: it reduces the volume of the wastes in two ways:
O Incineration – Solid wastes burning in presence of oxygen at 850 – 10000C. The use of incinerators
is crucial for the disposal of hospital waste.
O Pyrolysis – Solid wastes burning (combustion) in the absence of oxygen at 16500C.
O Although waste is generally not burnt completely and open dumps which often are the breeding
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ground for rats and flies.
.i
y Landfilling or dumping:
O al
Sanitary landfills: They were the substitute for open burning dumps. Here the wastes are dumped
in a depression or trench, and covered with dirt every day.
n
O Open landfills: Dumping the wastes in dump without covering it. The wastes is pressed to reduce it.
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O Landfills are also not really much of a solution since the amount of garbage generation especially
in the metros has increased so much that these sites are getting filled too. Also there is danger of
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seepage of chemicals, etc., from these landfills polluting the underground water resources.
uj
y Source being reduced: There is lot of refused groceries, vegetables, fruits, etc. from kitchen which
can be fed to animals and reduce the wastes load.
Ed
y Recovery and recycling: The wastes which can be recycled (tins, cans, glass, plastic, paper, cardboard,
etc.) are taken by rag pickers (kabadiwallahs) and dropped to the recycling centre by various steps.
2.4.4 Hospital Wastes
The wastes created by the hospitals, contain disinfectants, syringes, gloves, blood samples, tubes, and
other harmful chemicals, including pathogenic organisms. These wastes require special treatment before
their disposal. The incinerators are commonly used.
2.4.5 Electronic Wastes (E-Wastes)
The spares or parts of computers, mobiles, electronic goods, called as e wastes. The developing countries
like India, China import such wastes to extract the metals through recycling. Recycling is the only means of
such wastes treatment.
2.4.6 A Case Study of Remedy for Plastic Waste
A plastic sack manufacturer in Bangalore has reached on the plastics and thus concluded the ideal solution
16.17
to the ever-increasing problem of the accumulating plastic waste. Ahmed khan, aged 57 years old, has
been producing plastic sacks for 20 years. Around 8 years ago, he realized that the plastic wastes was a
real problem as it was impossible to recycle or destroy it. He developed Polyblend, which is a fine powder
of recycled modified plastic. This is mixed with the bitumen that is used to lay roads.
In collaboration with R.V. College of Engineering and the Bangalore City Corporation, Ahmad Khan proved
that mixture of polyblend and bitumen enhanced the bitumen’s water repellent properties, and helped to
increase the road lifeby three times than normal when it is used to lay roads. The raw material for creating
polyblend is any plastic film waste. So, against the price of Rs. 0.40 per kg that rag pickers had been getting
for plastic waste, Khan now offers Rs 6. Using Khan’s technique by the year 2002, more than 40 kms of
road in Bangalore has already been laid. At this rate, Khan will soon be running short of plastic waste in
Bangalore, to produce polyblend.
2.5 Agricultural Wastes

The green revolution initiated which increased the use of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides to enhance
n
the crop production. Pesticides and weedicides are being increasingly used in order to control pests and
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weeds. They also destroy soil diversity and prove harmful to birds, fishes in biomagnification. This leads to
eutrofication.
n al
the soil along with fertilizers run-off in water. This water then shows growth of excess of organisms as in
ur
2.5.1 A Case Study of Organic Farming
Integrated organic farming is a cyclical, zero waste product procedure, as the waste products from one
o
process are recycled as the nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilization of resource
uj
and increases the efficiency of production. Ramesh Chandra Dagar, a farmer in Sonipat, Haryana, is doing
just this. He includes bee-keeping, dairy management, water harvesting, compositing and agriculture in a
Ed
chain of processes, which support each other and allow an extremely economical and sustainable venture.
The chemical fertilisers are not used for crops, instead cattle excreta (dung) are used as manure. The natural
gas produced from biogas is used for satisfying the energy needs of the farm. Enthusiastic about spreading
information and help on the practice of integrated organic farming, Dagar has created the Haryana Kisan
Walfare club, with a current membership of 5,000 farmers.
2.6 Radioactive Pollution

The physical pollution of air, water and soil with radioactive elements.
Radioactivity is defined as the element’s capability to emit radiations (protons or alpha rays, electrons or
beta rays and gamma rays) spontaneously from their disintegrating nuclei. Elements that have radioactivity
are called as radioactive elements.
2.6.1 Sources of Radioactive Materials

y Natural sources – Cosmic rays, earth’s radiation such as radium – 224, Uranium 235, Uranium 238,
16.18
Thorium 232, Radon 222.

y Man made Radiation – The radiations are released in the atmosphere during mining and purification
of Thorium and plutonium, and in producing nuclear weapons etc.
y Nuclear reactor and nuclear fuel causes pollution by radioactive radiation. The nuclear fuel and coolants
are the sources of radioactive radiation. Radioactive waste is also most important radioactive pollutants
because these wastes are not dumped at particular or right place.
y Other sources – Some of the radioactive elements (isotopes) are used in experimental laboratories
for scientific researches which causes radioactive pollution. X-rays are also proved to have harmful
effects.
The first is accidental leakage of radiation occurred in the Three Mile Island and Chernobyl.
It has been recommended that storage of nuclear waste, after sufficient per-treatment, should be done
in suitably in shielded containers which is buried within the rocks, about 500 m deep below the earth’s
surface.
.i n
TRY IT YOURSELF
Fill in the blanks
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1. e-waste includes and
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2. The use of is crucial for disposal waste.

3. is adapted as substitute for open burning dumps.
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4. is the only solution for the treatment of e-wastes.

uj
5. State Governments across the country are trying to push for reduction in the use of
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and use of ecofriendly packaging.
2.7 Greenhouse Effect

Carbon dioxide is not considered as pollutant in its natural levels. However its higher concentration forms a
thick layer above the earth’s surface. The radiation of the heat from the earth’s surface is increased now a
days. This, increases the temperature of the earth’s surface, and is called as ‘’green-house effect’’ or global
warming. The name greenhouse comes from the effects of such gases in the greenhouse where the plants
are grown. The greenhouse effect is natural where the earth’s surface is heated along with the atmosphere.
2.7.1. Types of Gases

Main greenhouse gases are CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O, excluding this SO2, O3, water vapour which are also
released from industries and NO2 released from agriculture. All these gases are responsible for the increase
in the greenhouse effect.
16.19
Greenhouse affect Mechanisms

The clouds and gases reflect one fourth of the received solar rays and absorbs some part. However half of
incoming solar radiation falls on earth’s surface which heats it and just small portion is reflected back. The
reflection is in infrared ray form which is absorbed back by these gases on earth. These molecules radiate
heat which comes to earth again. This downward flux of radiation is called as greenhouse flux. This is a
repeated cycle which increases the earth’s temperature.
.i n
n al
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Figure 16.5: Sunlight energy at outer atmospheric layer

o
uj
Ed
Figure 16.6: Relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming
In this phenomenon cover of CO2 layer around the earth, allows the short wavelength incoming solar
radiation to come in but does not allow the long wavelength of outgoing heat radiation from warm surface
of earth and surface keep the earth warm. The consequent increase in the global mean temperature is
16.20
referred to as global warming.
2.7.2. Effects
y It has been observed that in the recent past, the level of CO2 in the atmosphere has increased from
280 ppm to 368 ppm in 1956 to 2002. If present growth rate is continued then the amount of CO2 will
be doubled up to 2020 century. Even 2-3 oC rise in temperature will lead to melting of glaciers and ice
caps of polar region and consequently the floods in rivers, rise in sea level and changes in cycle of rain.
Islands may be submerged in sea water.
y Carbon dioxide fertilization effect – Due to increased CO2 concentration the rate of photosynthesis will
increase (up to a few year). The response of the plants to elevated concentration of CO2 is known as
the CO2 fertilisation effect.
y The global mean temperature has increased by 0.6 oC in 20th century.
y Sea level has been raised by 1 to 2 mm per year during 20th century.
n
y Without greenhouse effect the average temperature at surface of earth would have been a chilly –
.i
18 oC rather than the present average of 15 oC.
y
n al
Increase in the level of greenhouse gases has led to considerable heating of Earth leading to global
warming. During the past century, the temperature of earth has increased by 0.6 oC, most of it during
the last three decades.
ur
2.7.3 Control Measures

o
Reducing deforestation, reducing use of fossil fuel, planting trees, developing substitutes for CFC and other
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harmful gases.
Ed
2.8 Ozone Depletion

Ozone is present in less quantity in atmosphere. But at the height of 16 km to 25 km on earth, concentration
ozone is maximum in stratosphere.
At normal temperature and pressure thickness of ozone layer is 3 mm. (But at poles thickness of ozone
layer is 4 mm). Ozone hole was first discovered in 1985 over Antarctica by Nimbus – 7 satellite.
Due to depletion of ozone layer harmful UV radiation are penetrating to the earth which causes skin cancer
(Melanoma) and also acts as strong mutagens. UV radiation of wavelengths shorter than UV-B, are almost
completely absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere. Given that the ozone layer is intact. But UV-B damages DNA
and mutation may occur. It causes aging of skin, damage to skin cells and various types of skin cancers. In
human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called
snow-blindness cataract, etc. Such exposure may permanently damage the cornea. UV radiation causes a
diseases, xeroderma pigmentosum.
The aerosols like C.F.C. (Chloro flouro carbon) release into the atmosphere from the refrigerators air
conditioners and jet planes deplete or reduce the ozone layer. This is called ozone depletion and these
16.21
substances are called O.D.S (ozone depleting substances). This thin layer ozone is also known as ozone
holes.
Number of pollutants like CFCs (14% of total depletion), nitrogen oxide (3.5%), CH4 and halogens (chlorine)
cause depletion of ozone layer. Maximum ODP (ozone depleting potential) is of CFCs due to release of
chlorine.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Ozone-depleting substances are Chlorofluoro carbon’s, CH4, CCl4, Halons and N2O.
CFC’s are most damaging and efforts are being made to replace CFC by HFC’s
(Hydrofluorocarbons).
Note:
.i n
y In this process one chlorine atom convert one lakh O3 molecules into O2 photodissociation.
y
y
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The life time of CF2Cl2 (CFC-12) is 139 year while that for CFCl3 (CFC = 11) is about 77 years.
Chemical process of ozone depletion – chain reaction. Thickness of ozone layer is measured in Dobson
n
unit (1Du = 1 ppb)
ur
y The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year between late august and early October and in
general Ozone hole occurs mainly during spring time (Feb – Apr) and lowest during (July- October).
o
2.9 Degradation by Improper Resource Utilisation and Maintenance

uj
The natural resources are degraded by pollutants and improper resources:

Ed
2.9.1 Soil Erosion and Desertification

The fertile top soil is developed in centuries of years which can be easily removed due to human activities
like over cultivation, unrestricted grazing, deforestation and also poor irrigation techniques. The land is then
converted to an arid patch. When a large barren patch is extended to acres of area, a desert is created.
Main affecting reason for desertification is urbanisation.
2.9.2 Water logging and Soil Salinity

Irrigation with improper drainage of water is a reason for water logging in the soil. A water logged soil has
poor aeration on the surface which results in poor plant growth. The salts in the water is deposited as thin
crust on land surface or starts collecting at plant roots which is not good or healthy for plants and damages
it. This is an observed problem along with water logging in green revolution.
2.10 Deforestation
The conversion of forest area to non-forest areas. Major forest areas are now lost in tropical areas of the
16.22
planet which is now affecting the climate there. 30% of land is covered with forest in India. Now it has
decreased to 19.4% while the recommended area of forest cover in India is 33 %.
2.10.1 Causes of Deforestation

y Conversion of forest area into residential or commercial area.
y Trees cutting down into timber, firewood or cattle grazing.
y Slash and burn cultivation: common practice in north eastern states. The farmers cut down trees of
forest and burn rest of plants. This ash is a fertiliser for several plants and land is used for grazing and
farming. Post farming, it is left for long duration till it is recovered. This is repeated in other areas as
well. The time gap is for the land to recover from agriculture but used for houses. This is a cause for
the deforestation.
2.10.2 Effect of Deforestation
n
Enhanced CO2 concentration in the atmosphere results in heat production on the surface. The trees if
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present hold the gas and convert it into O2.
of rains also.
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There is loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction of animals, birds, reptiles, etc. soil erosion, and loss
ur
2.10.3 Control of deforestation

Law should be passed to not cut the trees. The forest areas should be strictly under observance to not allow
o
the tree cutting.

uj
Reforestation: The process of growth of trees on areas which was once forests. This can be natural in
deforested areas while it can be enforced by human. There is Van Mahotosava practiced in major parts of
Ed
India since 1950. The plants are planted by government and private agencies both during February and
July each year.
2.10.4 A Case Study of Conversation of Plants

y King of Jodhpur in 1731, wanted to make a palace. He asked his minister to arrange the wood to
construct his new palace. The ministers along with the workers went to a forest which was connected to
a forest, Bishnoi. There were people inhabiting near Bishnoi area. Bishnoi women, Amrita Devi showed
exemplary courage as she hugged the tree and dared the King’s men to cut her first and then the tree.
The tree was of more importance than her life. The King’s men did cut the tree along with Amrita Devi.
This was followed by her three daughters and several hundreds of other women in the village who lost
their lives to save the tree. There are no such sacrifices anywhere when the person has sacrificed his
life for a tree.
y Chipko movement: In 1974, Gopeshwar in Chamoli district was headed by Chandi Prasad Bhaat
from Gopeshwar and Sunder lal Bahuguna from Silyara in Tehri region activated the movement. The
movement was for tree protection. Local women showed enormous bravery as they protected trees
16.23
from the contractors axe to cut it down.

y Joint Forest management: It was initiated by Indian Government in 1980 which will work with local
communities to protect the forest and manage it for best products. In return of their services to the
forest the communal health benefit of various forest products.
TRY IT YOURSELF
Fill in the blanks:
1. Without greenhouse effect the average temperature at surface of Earth would have
0 0
been a chilly C rather than the present average of C.
2. Ozone gas is continuously formed by the action of on molecular
oxygen in the stratosphere.
3. radiation damages DNA.
n
4. and soil salinity are some of the problem that have come in the waste
.i
of the green revolution.
True/False:
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1. According to an estimate, almost 40 percent forests have been lost in the topics,
ur
compared to only 10 percent in the temperate region.

2. Reforestation cannot occur naturally in a deforested area.
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3. During Chipko Movement of Garhwal Himalayas, local men showed enormous bravery
uj
in protecting trees from the axe of contractors by hugging them.

Ed
Important information
y Air pollution: According to central pollution control board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 micrometers
or less in diameter are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health. These fine
particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms,
irritation, inflammations and damage due to the lung and premature deaths.
y Catalytic converters: Automobiles are a major cause for atmospheric pollution in the metro cities.
Proper maintenance of automobiles along use of lead free petrol or diesel can reduce the pollutants
they emit.
y Catalytic converters, having expensive metals namely platinum – palladium and rhodium as the
catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. As the exhaust
passes the catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into CO2 and water, and CO and
nitric oxide are changed into CO2 and nitrogen gas respectively.
16.24
y Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the
petrol inactivates the catalyst.
y MIC (Methyl Isocyanine) was released in Bhopal gas tragedy on 3rd December 1984. Which is used
in the production of ‘’Savin’’ insecticide in Union Carbide.
y Tetraethyl lead and tetra methyl lead are formed by combustion of petroleum. They are known to
hamper haemoglobin formation.
O The disease produced by use of lead polluted water is called as plumbism
O Lead causes nervousness anaemia in human beings. It also damages kidney
O Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is 10 ug/100 ml.
y Common dust disease is known as Pneumoconiosis.
O Disease due to cotton dust in textile workers is – Lung fibrosis or Byssinosis
n
O Disease due to coal dust – Anthracosis
.i
O Disease due to asbestos dust – Asbestosis
O
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In stone grinders disease due to silica dust – Silicosis
O In Iron mill disease due to iron dust – Siderosis
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y Stone leprosy is caused due to acid rain because due to acid rain outer surface of metals, marbles,
and stone destroyed.
o
y Blue baby disease – This disease is caused by the high amount of nitrate in water. It is also known
uj
as methaemoglobinaemia or cyanosis.
y Hypertension and uremia – Caused by Copper
Ed
y Arsenic – It causes black-foot disease and poisoning in fodder plants which are eaten by livestock
and causes their death.
O Cadmium causes anemia, hypertension, and damage to liver and kidneys. In Japan it caused
bone softening or skeleton deformiticis called Itai-Itai disease or Ouch-Ouch
y Fluorides – The higher concentration of fluorides causes chlorosis or necrosis in tips and margin of
leaf (leaf lamina). The compounds of fluorine reach in the animals through the fodder and causes
abnormal calcification of teeth, this is called Fluorosis.
Note: The experts hold that the maximum levelof fluoride which the human body can tolerate is
1.5 parts per million (ppm). When ingested in excess over a long period of time causes ‘’Fluorosis’’.
y ELNino effect – It is the process in which water of Pacific Ocean get warm, in this process warm
water current flows to equator and Peru in between 5 to 8 year at Christmas time. Effect of ELNino
is flood, drought and monsoon damage in India. On the other hand when cold water comes in effect
in Pacific Ocean it is called La-Nina effect.
16.25
y Conference on human environment in 1972 held at Stockholm

y Recognizing the deleterious effect of ozone depletion, an international treaty, known as the Montreal
protocol was signed. In 1987, 27 industrialized countries signed the Montreal protocol at to protect
stratospheric ozone. Montreal (Canada) It’s effective in 1989. To, date more than 175 countries
signed the Montreal protocol.
y UNCED (United Nations Conference on Environment and Development) Earth Summit held at
Rio-de Jenerio (Brazil) in 1992 for reducing greenhouse gases and biodiversity conservation and
make Agenda 21
y Kyoto protocol conference held in Kyoto (japan) for climate change (1997). This protocol requires
countries to take appropriate measures to reduce their overall greenhouse gas emission to a level
at 5 percent below the 1990 level by the commitment period 2008-2012.
y Earth Summit or world summit on sustainable development (2002) was held in Johannesburg
(S. Africa).
.i n
y The 2009 United Nations Climate change Conference, commonly known as the Copenhagen
Summit, was held at the Bella center in Copenhagen, Denmark, between 7 December and
al
18 December. The Conference included the 15th conference of Parties (COP 15) to the United
n
nations Framework convention on Climate change and the 5th meeting of the parties (COP/MOP 5)
to the Kyoto Protocol.
o ur
DID YOU KNOW

uj
Environment law for controlling pollution

Ed
y The National Environment (Protection) Act (NEPA) 1986: This act clearly brings
the protection of water and soil quality, and the control environmental pollutants.
y The insecticide Act. 1968 – The act deals with the regulation of import, manufacture,
sale, transport distribution and use of insecticides with a view of preventing risk to
? human health and other organisms.
y The water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act 1974 – This act deals with the
preservation of water quality and the control of water pollution with a concern for
the detrimental effects of water pollutants on human health.
y The air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981 – This act deals with the
preservation of air quality and the control of air pollution with a concern for the
detrimental effect of air pollutants on human health and also on the biological world
y In 1987, important amendments to the air Act 1981 were made and noise was
recognized as an air pollutants.
16.26
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Full forms:
CEPHERI – An institution established in India to center radioactive pollution i.e. ‘’Central
Environmental and Public Health Engineering research institute’’ (CEPHERI).
This institution submits the measures on the basis of results of detailed survey
NEERI – National Environmental Engineering Research Institute – Nagpur, (Environmental
planning organization is related with NEERI)
IPCC – The ‘’Intergovermental Panel on Climate Change’’
I.A.P – Index of atmospheric pollution prepared with the help of lichens
I.W.P. – Index of water pollution, prepared by Daphnia, E.coli, Trout.
M.P.N – Most probable number of E.coli in water.
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Additional Information
.i
y Third pollution or land scape pollution – To make Fertile-land barren by dumping wastes
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y e.g. ash, industrial waste
n
y Incineration – Solid wastes burning in presence of oxygen. The use of incinerators is
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crucial to disposal of hospital waste.
y Pyrolysis – Solid wastes burning (combustion) in the absence of oxygen
o
y Flu gas – Gas which release of from chimneys.

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y Plume – Smoke which release from chimneys.

y Hydro thermal vents – These are hot water springs in the deep ocean having high concentration
Ed
of H2S, ocean water oxidized H2S producing energy which is used by bacteria, filter-Feeders
(clams) eat the bacteria so that this food chain based on chemical energy.
y Phytotrons – A such type of house where plants are grown in controlled environment
y Hydrocarbon – Are also known as volatile organic carbon (VOC).
y Electronic wastes is also called e-wastes.
O Irreparable computers and other electric goods are known as electronic wastes
(e-wastes). E-wastes are buried in landfills or incinerated.
O Eventually recycling is the only solution for the treatment of e-wastes.
y Ganga Action plan for controlling pollution in Ganga (1985) included city: (i) Kolkata (ii)
Kanpur.
y At 50 ppm. CO converts 7.5% of haemoglobin in to carboxy haemoglobin within 8 hours.
y Maximum greenhouse gas released by – USA
y Cotton dust is an important pollution in Ahmedabad.
16.27
Summary
y There are major issues which relate to the environmental pollution and depletion of valuable natural
resources that are different in dimension from local, regional to global levels.
y The main causes of air pollution is the burning of fossil fuel in industries and automobiles.
y The most common source of pollution in the water bodies is domestic sewage which reduces the
dissolved oxygen and increases the BOD.
y Domestic sewage has high N2 and P content which causes eutrophication and algal blooms.
y Industrial waste waters are often rich in toxic chemicals, especially heavy metals and organic
compounds.
y Municipal solid wastes are filled in the land fills after they are divided as per their degradation ability.
y Disposal of hazardous wastes like dysfunctional ships, radioactive wastes and e-wastes require
additional efforts like treatment before their disposal.
n
y Soil pollution primarily results from agricultural chemicals (e.g. pesticides) and leachates from solid
.i
wastes is deposited over it.
y
n al
The major global environmental issues that are responsible for increasing greenhouse effect, is
warming-up of the planet Earth and ozone depletion in the stratosphere.
ur
y Enhanced greenhouse effect is mainly due to the increase demission of carbon dioxide, methane,
nitrous oxide and CFCs and also due to deforestation.
o
y Ozone in the stratosphere, which protects the organisms on earth from harmful effects of ultraviolet
uj
radiation, is now depleting fast due to emission of CFCs thus increasing the risks of skin cancer,
mutation and other disorders.
Ed
y The degradation of natural resources occur, by the action of pollutants and by the improper resources
being used.
y Deforestation is the conversion of forested areas to non-forested ones by cutting the trees.
16.28
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Bloom occurs in -
(A) Oligotrophic lake (B) Eutrophic lake
(C) Fast flowing river (D) Rain water
Q.2 Rhododendron is characteristic vegetation of -

(A) Tropical region (B) Mangrove (C) Alpine region (D) Epiphytes
n
Q.3 Which of the following plant has become a water weed in this country?
.i
(A) Typha (B) Trapa (C) Cyperus (D) Eichornia
al
Q.4 What is not useful to increase agriculture production?
n
(A) Mechanization of agriculture (B) Enhanced irrigation facilities
ur
(C) Use of fertilizers (D) Deforestation

o
Q.5 Environmental planning organization is -

uj
(A) CSIR (B) CEPHERI (C) ICAR (D) NEERI

Ed
Q.6 Which is normally not an air pollutant?

(A) CO (B) SO2 (C) Hydrocarbons (D) CO2
Q.7 Acidic rains are due to -

(A) O3 (B) SO2 + NO2 (C) CO (D) CO2
Q.8 What is found in photochemical smog?

(A) CO (B) NO2 (C) Ozone (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.9 Lichens in habitat indicate -

(A) Zinc in soil (B) Copper in soil
(C) Carbon monoxide in air (D) Lack of air pollution
16.29
Q.10 Greenhouse effect mainly due to

(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) CO (D) O2
Q.11 Which pollutant exhibits biomagnification in food chain?

(A) DDT (B) SO2 (C) CO (D) PAN
Q.12 Which will not cause any atmospheric pollution?

(A) Hydrogen (B) Sulphur dioxide (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Carbon monoxide
Q.13 Which of the following is the main factor of waste pollution?

(A) Smoke (B) Industrial waste (C) Detergent (D) Ammonia
Q.14 Main air pollutant among the following is -
n
(A) CO (B) CO2 (B) Detergent (D) Sulphur
.i
Q.15 Which is more important for water pollution?
(A) Sound (B) SO2
n al (C) Salts of arsenic (D) Sewage
ur
Q.16 Which of the following atmospheric pollutants is not produced by the exhaust of motor vehicle in Delhi?
(A) SO2 (B) Hydrocarbon gases (C) Fly ash (D) CO
o
uj
Q.17 Pollution can be controlled by -

(A) Sewage treatment
Ed
(B) Checking atomic blasts

(C) Manufacturing electrically operated vehicles
Q.18 If water pollution continues at its present rate, the condition will eventually-
(A) Stop water cycle
(B) Prevent precipitation
(C) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants.
(D) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water plant
Q.19 Exposure of plants to high fluoride concentration results in necrosis or chlorosis characteristically in-
(A) Petiole but not in lamina (B) Only mid rib in lamina
(C) Leaf tip and leaf margins (D) Stem tips only
16.30
Q.20 In cities like Bombay and Calcutta the major air pollutants are -
(A) Ozone (B) Carbon monoxide and oxides of sulphur
(C) Hydrocarbons and air (D) Algal spores and marsh gas
Q.21 Recent reports of acid rains industrial cities are due to the effect of atmospheric Pollution by
(A) Excessive release of NO2 and SO2 by burning of fossil fuels.
(B) Excessive release of CO2 by burning of fuel like wood and charcoal, cutting of forests and increased
animal population.
(C) Excessive release of NH2 by industrial by plants and coal gas
(D) Excessive release of CO in atmosphere by incomplete combustion of coke, charcoal and other
carbonaceous fuels in pancity of oxygen.
Q.22 Which is the greatest air pollutant these days?
n
(A) Factories (B) Motor vehicles
.i
(C) Domestic appliances (D) animals
al
Q.23 Removal of the soil by the action of wind and water is known as -
n
(A) Erosion (B) Fossilization (C) Leaching (D) Calcification
ur
Q.24 Eutrophication refers to -

o
(A) High production in an aquatic ecosystem (B) Low production in an aquatic ecosystem
uj
(C) Low production in a terrestrial (D) Stable production in a terrestrial ecosystem

Ed
Q.25 Photochemical smog was first observed in -

(A) London (B) Los Angeles (C) Paris (D) Tokyo
Q.26 Domestic waste will lead to

(A) Biodegradable pollution (B) Non-degradable pollution
(C) Thermal pollution of soil (D) Air pollution
Q.27 The major source of BOD in the river Ganga is

(A) Leaf litter (B) Fishes (C) Human waste (D) Aquatic plants
Q.28 If a lake is contaminated with DDT, its highest concentration would be found in-
(A) Primary consumer (B) Secondary consumer
(C) Tertiary consumer (D) None of these
16.31
Q.29 The most harmful air pollutant produced by automobiles is -

(A) HNO2 (B) NO (C) SO2 (D) CO
Q.30 Sewage water can be purified by -

(A) Aquatic plant (B) Micro organism (C) Penicillin (D) Fishes
Q.31 Major pollutant in jet plane emission is -

(A) SO2 (B) CFC (C) CO (D) CCl4
Q.32 It is said that Taj mahal may be destroyed due to -

(A) Flood in Yamuna River
(B) Air pollutants released from oil refinery of Mathura
n
(C) Decomposition of marble as a result of high temperature
.i
(D) All the above al
Q.33 Melting of the ice caps might result from -
n
ur
(A) Depletion of ozone layer (B) Excess CFC in atmosphere
(C) Excess CO2 in the atmosphere (D) Excess water rain
o
Q.34 Cotton dust is an important pollutant in -

uj
(A) Delhi (B) Ahmedabad (C) Madras (D) Calcutta

Ed
Q.35 Some effects of SO2 and its transformation products on plant include -
(A) Chlorophyll destruction (B) Plasmolysis
(C) Golgi body destruction (D) None
Q.36 All the following contribute to pollution except -

(A) Thermal power plant (B) Automobiles
(C) Nuclear power plant (D) Hydroelectric power project
Q.37 The molecular action of ultraviolet light is mainly reflected through -

(A) Destruction of hydrogen bond in DNA (B) Photodynamic action
(C) Formation of pyrimidine (D) Formation of sticky metaphase
16.32
Q.38 Spraying of DDT on crops produces pollution of -

(A) Soil and water only (B) Air and soil only
(C) Air, soil and water (D) Air and water only
Q.39 Non ionizing radiations damaging to DNA are -

(A) X-rays (B) U.V.rays (C) Gamma rays (D) Beta rays
Q.40 Radiation is health hazard because it causes -

(A) Pneumonia (B) Leukemia (C) Hemophilia (D) Anemia
Q.41 What is B.O.D.?

(A) The amount of O2 utilized by organisms in water
(B) The amount of O2 utilized by microorganisms for decomposition
n
(C) The total amount of O2 present in water
.i
al
Q.42 What is the intensity of sound in normal conversation?
n
(A) 10 - 20 decibel (B) 30 - 60 decibel (C) 70 - 90 decibel (D) 120 - 150 decibel
ur
Q.43 Which of the following is absent in polluted water?

o
(A) Hydrilla (B) Water hyacinth (C) Larva of stone fly (D) Blue green algae
uj
Q.44 Maximum greenhouse gas released by which country?

Ed
(A) India (B) France (C) U.S.A. (D) Britain
Q.45 Ozone layer is being destroyed by:

(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Chlorofluorocarbon (D) Smog
Q.46 Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is:

(A) Hg (B) Cd (C) Pb (D) Cu
Q.47 B.O.D. is connected with -

(A) Organic matter (B) Microbes (C) Both (D) None
16.33
Q.48 Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is-

(A) Butane (B) Ethane (C) Methane (D) Propane
Q.49 The electrostatic precipitator can remove over % particulate matter.

(A) 99 (B) 100 (C) 89 (D) 45
Q.50 Find incorrect statement w.r.t catalytic converter.

(A) Platinum – palladium and rthodium as catalysts
(B) Lead in petrol activates the catalysts
(C) Reduced the emissionof poisonous gases
(D) CO and COx changed CO2 and N2 gas
Q.51 World’s most problematic aquatic weed is -
n
(A) Trapa (B) Azolla (C) Wolffia (D) Eichhornia
.i
(B) Fourth
n al
Q.52 Among the 41 most polluted cities of the world, Delhi is ranked -
(A) First (C) Second (D) Third
ur
Q.53 By the end of 2002 in Delhi which step is completed for reducing vehicular pollution?
(A) Phasing out of old vehicles (B) Uses of unleaded petrol
o
(C) Buses were converted to run on CNG (D) Use of catalytic converters
uj
Q.54 According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particle that are responsible for causing great harm
Ed
to human health are of diameter

(A) 5.0 micrometers (B) 2.5 micrometers
(C) 7.5 micrometers (D) 0.5 micrometers
Q.55 Which incident disproves that nuclear energy was a non-polluting way for generating electricity?
(A) Bhopal gas disaster (B) Three Mile Island and Chernobyl incidents
(C) Hiroshima and Nagasaki aromic blasts (D) Both (A) & (C)
Q.56 Ramesh Chandra Dagar includes for case study of organic family
(A) Bee-Keeping (B) Dairy management
(C) Water harvesting (D) All of these
16.34
Q.57 The domestic sewage in large cities

(A) Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
(B) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment
Plants (STPs)
(C) When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate
oxygen.
(D) Has very low amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts
Q.58 Prime contaminates leading to cultural or accelerated eutrophication are:

(A) Fecal matter and paper fibres (B) Sand and clay
(C) Phosphates and nitrates (D) Nitrates and sulphates
Q.59 Euro – II emission norms for reducing
n
(A) O3 and CO (B) NO2 and N2O
.i
(C) Sulphur and aromatic hydrocarbons (D) CO2 and particulate matter
Q.60 Ecosanitation is:

n al
(A) Sustainable system for handling human excreta
ur
(B) Sustainable system for handling agricultural wastes

(C) Sustainable system for handling industrial effluents
o
(D) Sustainable system for handling biomagnification

uj
Q.61 Phosphate pollution is caused by:

Ed
(A) Agriculture fertilizers only (B) Phosphate rocks only

(C) Sewage and agriculture fertilizers (D) Sewage and phosphorus cycle
Q.62 Hospital wastes are:

(A) Hazardous and disposed by incinerator
(B) Non- hazardous and disposed by incinerator
(C) Hazardous and disposed into water
(D) Non-hazardous and disposed into water
Q.63 In an aquatic food chain, if water body is having 0.003 ppb of DDT, its maximum concentration can
be observed in:
(A) Large fish (B) Phytoplanktons (C) Fish eating birds (D) Small fish
16.35
Q.64 The raw material for making polyblend is:

(A) Bitumen (B) Plastic film waste
(C) Recycled plastic (D) Any biodegradable waste
Q.65 Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone depletion, an international treaty known as
was signed at
(A) Montreal Protocol, Canada (B) Kyoto Protocol, Brazil
(C) Earth Summit, Montreal (D) World Summit, South Africa
Q.66 Find the odd one w.r.t. e-waste:

(A) India (B) China (C) Pakistan (D) France
Q.67 Match the column
n
a. Ozone thickness i. UV – rays
.i
b.
c.
CFC
EI Nino effect
n al ii.
iii.
Refrigerator
Temperature increase
d. Skin cancer iv. Dobson unit
ur
(A) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv) (B) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i)
o
(C) a (iv), b (ii), c (ii), d (i) (D) a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)
uj
Q.68 Over cultivation and unrestricted grazing are examples of:

Ed
(A) Improper resource utilization (B) Deforestation

(C) Jhum cultivation (D) Greenhouse effect
Q.69 Algal bloom in a lake:

(A) Increases CO2 level (B) Leads to oxygen depletion
(C) Kills fishes (C) All of these
Q.70 High concentration of DDT is found in:

(A) Phytoplankton (B) Small fish (C) Zooplanktons (D) Birds
Q.71 Thermal pollution is more prevalent near:

(A) Hot water springs (B) Coal based power plants
(C) Temperate zones (D) Tropical zones
16.36
Q.72 Ozone hole is maximum over:

(A) Europe (B) Antarctica (C) India (D) Africa
Q.73 DDT is:

(A) Biodegradable insecticide (B) Non-biodegradable insecticide
(B) Biodegradable fertilizer (C) Non-biodegradable fertilizer
Q.74 Match the followings

Column – I Column – II
a. UV – rays i. Biomagnification
b. Biodegradable organic matter ii. Eutrophication
c. DDT iii. Snow blindbess
n
d. Phosphates iv. BOD
.i
(A) a (iii), b (iv), c (i), d (ii) (B) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
(C) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)
al
(D) a (iv), b (ii), c (i), d (iii)
n
Q.75 The major source of noise pollution, worldwide is due to:
ur
(A) Transport system

o
(B) Oil refineries and thermal power plants

(C) Sugar, textile and paper industries
uj
(D) Office equipment

Ed
Q.76 Which of the following is not an effect of deforestation?

(A) Desertification (B) Habitat destruction
(C) Soil erosion (D) Biomagnification
Q.77 Pollutants which can be removed by a scrubber are?

(A) Particulate matter (B) Unburnt hydrocarbon
(C) SO2 (D) Sewage
Q.78 A substantial fall of which two gases has been found in Delhi between 1997 and 2005?
(A) CO2 and SO2 (B) SO2 and CO
(C) CFC and SO2 (D) N2O and CO2
16.37
Q.79 Consider the following statements

i. 40% of the forest has been lost in tropics
ii. JFM was introduced in 1965 by the UNCED
iii. Bishnoi community belongs to Odisha who played a major role in conservation of forest.
iv. Chipko movement started in Garhwal Himalayas.
(A) i and iii are correct (B) ii and iii are incorrect
(C) iii is correct (D) iii and iv are correct
Q.80 In a polluted lake:

(A) BOD and DO are high (B) BOD is high and DO is low
(C) Both are low (D) BOD is low and DO is high
n
Q.81 In automobiles catalytic converters change unbumt hydrocarbons into:
.i
(A) CH4 (B) CO2 and CH4 (C) CO (D) CO2 and H2O
Q.82 Which of the following is correct?

n al
(A) CFC is discharged in the lower part of the atmosphere, move upward and reach stratosphere
ur
(B) Montreal protocol was signed to reduce CO2
(C) Ozone hole is a small pore created in tropospheric ozone layer
o
(D) Jhum cultivation is a method of afforestation

uj
Q.83 According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), size of particulate matters which is responsible
Ed
for greatest harm to human health, is

(A) 5.2 – 3.5 µm (B) 2.5 µm or less (C) 3.5 µm or less (D) 1.0 mm or less
Q.84 The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of:

(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Chlorine (D) Sulphur dioxide
Q.85 UV – B damages DNA and mutation may occur which causes:

(A) Ageing of skin (B) Various types of skin cancer
(C) Snow – blindness (D) All of these
Q.86 Main motto of Chipko movement was for the protection of:
(A) Wet lands (B) Grasslands (C) Forests (D) Livestock
16.38
Q.87 BOD represents:

(A) The amount of O2 utilities by organisms in water
(B) The amount of O2 utilized by microorganisms for decomposition
(C) The total amount of O2 present in eater
(D) All of these
Q.88 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water:

(A) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
(B) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
(C) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water
(D) Gives a measure of Salmonella in the water
Q.89 When domestic sewage mixes with river water:
n
(A) Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
.i
(B) The increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
al
(C) The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
n
(D) The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%
ur
Q.90 Water pollution is best assessed by determining:

o
(A) Dissolved oxygen (B) BOD and turbidity

uj
(C) DO and acidity (D) Hardness and alkalinity

Ed
Q.91 DO (dissolved O2) of water with an increase in temperature.

(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) Remains constant (D) First increases then decreases
Q.92 A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following
reason for this
i. lot of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the crop in the vicinity
ii. The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
iii. The lake water turned green and stinky
iv. Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iii (C) iii, iv (D) i, iii
16.39
Q.93 Which one of the following is a quantitative pollutant?

(A) DDT (B) BHC (C) CO2 (D) Malathion
Q.94 The minamata disease in japan was caused through the pollution of water by
(A) Cyanide (B) Methyl Isocyanate (C) Lead (D) Mercury
Q.95 The most widely used method which can remove 99% of particulate matter from industrial exhaust is
(A) Cyclone (B) Scrubbers (C) Catalytic converters (D) ESP
Q.96 The maximum bio magnification would be in which of the following in case of aquatic ecosystem?
(A) Zooplanktons (B) Phytoplankton’s (C) Fishes (D) Kelps
Q.97 D.D.T. is
n
(A) Not a pollutant (B) An antibiotic
.i
(C) A non-biodegradable pollutant (D) A biodegradable pollutant
al
Q.98 In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because
n
(A) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
ur
(B) Many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch

(C) birds stopped laying eggs
o
(D) Earthworms in the area got eradicated

uj
Q.99 DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing bio magnification because DDT is
Ed
(A) Water soluble (B) Lipo soluble

(C) Moderately toxic (D) Non-toxic to aquatic animals
Q.100 Phosphate pollution is mainly caused by

(A) Detergents and fertilizers (B) Distilleries
(C) Refineries (D) Pesticides
Q.101 Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gasses as it
converts.
(A) Unburnt hydrocarbons into CO2 and H2O (B) CO2 into CO
(C) Nitrogen has into nitric oxide (D) More than one option is correct
Q.102 Eutrophication is often seen on/in:

(A) Mountains (B) Deserts (C) Fresh water lakes (D) Ocean
16.40
Q.103 Which of the following is a wrong stamens?

(A) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
(B) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon is freshwater bodies
(C) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
(D) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals
Q.104 Pure drinking water should have BOD:

(A) 1000 ppm (B) > 100 ppm but < 500 ppm
(B) 10 ppm (C) < 1 ppm
Q.105 Greenhouse effect lead to:

(A) Production of cereals (B) Warming of earth
n
(C) Cooling of earth (C) Trapping of UV rays
.i
Q.106 Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)
al
greenhouse gases that contribute to the total global warming?
n
(A) Methane 20%, N2O 18% (B) CFC 14%, Methane 20%
ur
(C) CO2 40%, CFSs 30% (D) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
Q.107 Reduction of soil fertility due to loss of its top layer is called:
o
(A) Negative pollution (B) Positive pollution

uj
(C) Landscape pollution (D) Third pollution

Ed
Q.108 Green muffler scheme involves growing green plants along road sides to reduce:
(A) Air pollution (B) Water pollution (C) Noise pollution (D) Soil pollution
Q.109 The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are:
(A) CO2 and N2O (B) CO2 and CH4 (C) CH4 and N2O (D) CFCs and N2O
Q.110 Which important greenhouse gas, other than methane, is being produced from the agricultural fields?
(A) Ammonia (B) Nitrous oxide (C) Arsenic (D) Sulphur dioxide
Q.111 Ozone in the stratosphere is

(A) Good ozone (B) Bad ozone (C) Chemical weed (D) Both (2) and (3)
Q.112 Formation of ozone hole is maximum over

(A) Europe (B) Africa (C) India (D) Antarctica
16.41
Q.113 In coming years, skin related disorders will be more common due to
(A) Water pollution (B) Depletion of ozone layer
(C) Pollutants in air (D) Use of detergents
Q.114 The supersonic jets cause pollution by the thinning of

(A) O2 layer (B) O3 layer (C) CO2 layer (D) SO2 layer
Q.115 Select incorrect statement.

(A) The nature ageing of a lake may span 100 to 200 years
(B) The water is cold, clear and supporting little life in a young lake
(C) As the lake’s fertility increases, plants and animals life burgeons and organic remains begin to be
deposited on the lake bottom
(D) Cultural eutrophication is caused by human’s activities
.i n
Q.116 Select correct statement w.r.t. the e-wastes.
(A) Represent municipal solid
n al
(B) Produced in developing countries and exported to developed countries
(C) Are buried in landfills or incinerated
ur
(D) Does not involve recycling

o
Q.117 Which one of the following is most effective ODS?

uj
(A) CO2 (B) CH4 (C) CFCs (D) N2O

Ed
Q.118 Prolonged water logging in an agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
(A) Poor aeration and low salinity
(B) Poor aeration and high salinity
(C) Poor aeration and high acidity
(D) Metal toxicity and proper aeration
Q.119 According to Euro II norms, reduced sulphur content in fuels should be

(A) 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in petrol (B) 150 ppm in diesel and 50 ppm in petrol
(C) 350 ppm in petrol and 150 ppm in diesel (D) 150 ppm in petrol and diesel both
16.42

Q.1 Anthracosis is caused [Orissa 2007]
(A) Coal dust (B) Iron dust (C) Cane fibres (D) Silica
Q.2 Checking of reradiating heat by atmospheric dust O3, CO2 and water vapours is [Karnataka 2007]
(A) Green house effect (B) Solar effect
(C) Ozone layer effect (D) Radioactive effect
Q.3 Chipko movement was launched for the protection of [CBSE Prelims 2009]
(A) Livestock (B) Wet lands (C) Grasslands (D) Forests
Q.4 Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include [CBSE Prelims 2009]
n
(A Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles
.i
(B) Use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks.
al
(C) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
(D) Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of period driven vehicles which tests for carbon
n
monoxide and hydrocarbons
ur
Q.5 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water: [CBSE Prelims 2009]
o
(A) Gives a measure of Salmonella in the water

uj
(B) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water

(C) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
Ed
(D Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water
Q.6 When domestic sewage mixes with river water: [CBSE Main PMT 2010]
(A) Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
(B) The increases microbial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron
(C) The increases microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
(D) The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%
Q.7 The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are [CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) CO2 and NO2 (B) CO2 and CH4 (C) CH4 and N2O (D) CFC5 and N2O
Q.8 dB is a stranded abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of: [CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) A certain pesticide (B) The density of bacteria in a medium
(C) A particular pollutant (D) The dominant Bacillus in a culture
16.43
Q.9 Which of the following practices has caused maximum damage to the biodiversity of Indian forests?
(A) Selective harvesting (B) Block cutting
(C) Taungya cultivation (D) Jhoom cultivation
Q.10 BOD level in fresh water should not exceed beyond: [Chandigarh CET 2010]
(A) 5 ppm (B) 10 ppm (C) 25 ppm (D) 50 ppm
Q.11 In human body, the chlorinated hydrocarbons keep on accumulating in: [Chandigarh CET 2010]
(A) Bones (B) Brain (C) Skin (D) Fatty tissue
Q.12 Biomagnification of DDT causes decline in Bird population by: [HP PMT 2010]
(A) Bringing disturbance in calcium metabolism
n
(B) Thinning of egg shell
.i
(C) Premature breaking of eggs
(D) All the above
n al
Q.13 Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta, using dry composting toilets.
ur
Such “Eco Save” toilets are working in many areas of: [HP PMT 2010]
(A) Assam and West Bengal (B) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
o
(C) Kerala and Sri Lanka (D) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
uj
Q.14 An international treaty: [HP PMT 2010]

Ed
(A) Kyoto Protocol (B) Earth Summit

(C) Rio Conference (D) Montreal Protocol
Q.15 Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of “Greenhouse effect”?
[CBSE Prelims 2011]
(A) CO2 and O3 (B) CO2 and CO (C) CFSs and SO2 (D) CO2 and N2O
Q.16 Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy? [CBSE Prelims 2011]
(A) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
(B) Thousands of human beings died
(C) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
(D) It took place in the night pf December 2/3, 1984
16.44
Q.17 “Good ozone” is found in the: [CBSE Main 2011]

(A) Mesosphere (B) Troposphere (C) Stratosphere (D) Ionosphere
Q.18 In which year Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was emended to include noise as an air
pollutant? [HP PMT 2011]
(A) 1972 (B) 1981 (C) 1987 (D) 1990
Q.19 In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly
because: [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Earthworms in the area got eradicated
(B) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
(C) Many of the birds eggs laid, did not hatch
(D) Birds stopped laying eggs
.i n
Q.20 Match the items of column I with column II and select the correct option. [Kerala PMT 2011]
P
Column – I
Electrostatic precipitator
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1.
al Column – II
Removes gases like
Q Scrubber 2. Reduces automobile emission
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R Catalytic converter 3. Removes particular matter

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(A) P – 2, Q – C, R - 1 (B) P – 3 , Q – 2 , R – 1
uj
(C) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3 (D) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2
(E) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2
Ed
Q.21 Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method used for: [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
(B) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale
(C) Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs about their capacity to carry oxygen
(D) Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water
Q.22 Which one of the following is a wrong statement? [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals
(B) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon
(C) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies
(D) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas
16.45
Q.23 The domestic sewage in large cities: [CBSE Main PMT 2012]
(A) When treated in STPs, does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate
oxygen
(B) Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.
(C) Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
(D) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment
plants (STPs)
Q.24 High amount of Escherichia coli in water indicates: [Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) Hardness of water
(B) Industrial pollution
(C) Sewage pollution
(D) Pollution due to electromagnetic radiations:
.i n
Q.25 Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at: [NEET 2013]
(A) CoP – 6 (B) CoP – 4
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(C) CoP – 3 (D) CoP – 5
Q.26 Global warming can be controlled by: [NEET 2013]

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(A) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population.

(B) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage.
o
(C) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel

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(D) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel.

Ed
Q.27 The air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in: [NEET 2013]
(A) 1985 (B) 1990 (C) 1975 (D) 1981
Q.28 The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called: [AIPMT 2014]
(A) Troposphere (B) Ionosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Stratosphere
Q.29 A scrubber in the exhaust of chemical industrial plant removes: [AIPMT 2014]
(A) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
(B) Gases like sulphur dioxide
(C) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
(D) Gases like ozone and methane
16.46
ANSWER KEY
Objective Quetions
Q.1 B Q.2 C Q.3 D Q.4 D Q.5 D Q.6 D
Q.7 B Q.8 D Q.9 D Q.10 B Q.11 A Q.12 A
Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 D Q.16 C Q.17 D Q.18 C
Q.19 C Q.20 B Q.21 A Q.22 B Q.23 A Q.24 A
Q.25 B Q.26 A Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 D Q.30 B
Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 B Q.35 A Q.36 D
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Q.37 A Q.38 C Q.39 B Q.40 B Q.41 B Q.42 B
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Q.43 C Q.44 C Q.45 C Q.46 C Q.47 C Q.48 C
Q.49 A Q.50 B Q.51 D
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Q.52 B
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Q.53 C Q.54 B
Q.55 B Q.56 D Q.57 B Q.58 C Q.59 C Q.60 A
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Q.61 C Q.62 A Q.63 C Q.64 B Q.65 A Q.66 D

Q.67 C Q.68 A Q.69 D Q.70 D Q.71 B Q.72 B
o
Q.73 B Q.74 A Q.75 A Q.76 D Q.77 C Q.78 A

uj
Q.79 B Q.80 B Q.81 D Q.82 A Q.83 B Q.84 D

Ed
Q.85 D Q.86 C Q.87 B Q.88 A Q.89 C Q.90 B

Q.91 A Q.92 D Q.93 C Q.94 D Q.95 D Q.96 C
Q.97 C Q.98 B Q.99 B Q.100 A Q.101 A Q.102 C
Q.103 D Q.104 D Q.105 B Q.106 B Q.107 A Q.108 C
Q.109 B Q.110 B Q.111 A Q.112 D Q.113 B Q.114 B
Q.115 A Q.116 C Q.117 Q.118 B Q.119 A
16.47

Q.1 A Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 D Q.5 B Q.6 C
Q.7 B Q.8 C Q.9 D Q.10 D Q.11 D Q.12 D
Q.13 C Q.14 D Q.15 D Q.16 C Q.17 C Q.18 C
Q.19 C Q.20 D Q.21 D Q.22 A Q.23 D Q24 C
Q.25 C Q.26 C Q.27 D Q.28 D Q.29 B
.in
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www.plancess.com
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REPRESENTATIVE SAMPLE
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BIOLOGY-NEET
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15.1
CHAPTER 15
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN
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HIGHER PLANTS
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
Nearly all of the members (with some exceptions)
Introduction categorized under the kingdom Plantae are autotrophic
o
in nature. Being autotrophic gives the plants the ability

Photosynthesis Process
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to synthesize their own food for their own nutrition and

Pigments Participating in Photosynthetic well being as well as providing a source of nutrition
Ed
Process for heterotrophic organisms which are incapable of

synthesizing their own food and hence are dependent
Light Reactions – Cyclic and Non-Cyclic on autotrophs. Plants fix gaseous carbon dioxide
Photophosphorylation from the atmosphere and water transported from
the roots in order to synthesize their food in the form
Dark reaction – C3, C4 and CAM of complex, organic substances, majorly sugars
Pathways and starches while releasing free, gaseous oxygen
Photorespiration which returns to the environment and is used by
other organisms apart from the plant itself during
Factors Affecting Photosynthesis respiration process. This process,which requires the
presence of electromagnetic radiations (light) or solar
energy (sun light) is termed as Photosynthesis. The
light is captured by specialized organs in the leaves
of plants termed as chloroplast which are abundant in
light capturing, mostly green colored pigments termed
as chlorophyll and the presence of these chlorophyll
15.2
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
pigments imparts green color to the leaves. Photosynthesis may appear like a single step process but is
in fact a series or cascade of mechanisms that is constantly monitored, heavily regulated and under huge
influence by a variety of factors.
Although higher plants and algae perform a majority of the photosynthetic activity, there are certain protists
and bacteria such as cyanobacteria (blue green algae) which possess a light harvesting pigment termed as
bacteriochlorophyll (ancient, archaic origin) and are also autotrophic in nature. However, their benefits to
humans are very limited and hence they are not as well researched as plants.
Objectives
At the end of this, chapter you will be able to:
yy Learn about photosynthesis process in higher plants. As mentioned before, photosynthesis is a
cascade of reaction mechanisms and involve several participants and hence their contribution needs
to be highlighted.
n
yy Focus on the organs and pigments involved in photosynthesis, the different reactions involved in light-
.i
dependent reaction which involves cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation along with Electron
Transport System (ETS) and ATP synthesis. al
yy Cover in details the mechanisms of light-independent reactions or dark reactions such as C3 pathway,
n
evolved C4 pathway of grasses and CAM pathway of succulent plants which shows how much plants
ur
have evolved and adapted their systems to efficiently synthesize their own food in accordance with
their environment.
o
yy Discuss the photorespiration process which show the dual nature, contrasting specific enzymes.
uj
yy Talk about Bacteriochlorophyll, which points towards an independent system of fixing carbon sources
Ed
into organic molecules as well as the factors influencing the photosynthetic processes will be discussed.
2. Photosynthesis
‘Photosynthesis is defined as the photo-biochemical/physicochemical mechanism, incorporating
anabolic, reductive and endergonic processes carried out by green plants, in which complex,
energy-rich organic compounds (carbohydrates such as sugars, starches) are synthesized from
simple inorganic raw materials composed of water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) in presence
of electromagnetic radiations (light or solar energy) and light capturing pigments (chlorophyll,
carotenoids) with release of oxygen (O2) as a byproduct.’
This mode of nutrition using photosynthesis process is termed as photoautotrophism.
The basic mode of photosynthesis occurs in the following steps:
yy Absorption and retention of electromagnetic radiations (composed of photons and waves) in the form
of light energy from the sun.
yy Conversion of the dynamic, solar light energy into stable, chemical potential (energy) which is stored.
15.3
yy Hence, the overall reaction of photosynthesis is shown as

Light
6CO2 + 12H2O  → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2 ↑
Pigments
Did You Know

yy Nearly 90% of the total photosynthesis seen on Earth is carried out by marine
plants composed of phytoplankton and algae while only 10% is carried out by
terrestrial plants.
?
yy Approximate annual fixation of carbon in the form of CO2 through photosynthesis
is around 258 billion tons.
yy In photosynthesis, light energy (dynamic) is converted into chemical energy (stable
and storage). Only about 0.2% of the total light energy falling on the earth is utilized
by photosynthetic organisms.
n
yy First organism capable of photosynthesis were bacteria but first true and oxygenic
.i
photosynthesis was discovered in cyanobacteria/blue green algae (BGA).
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2.1 Historical Landmarks in Studies of Photosynthesis
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A record of the early studies and experiments conducted which served as landmarks in the field of
photosynthesis are listed below
o
yy The first scientist to establish the fact that gaseous constituents of air and components of light, both
uj
contributes towards the building up of the plant body and photosynthetic nourishment occurring in
plants plant was Stephan Hales (1927).
Ed
yy He is also considered to have discovered the process of photosynthesis and is called as ‘Father of
Plant Physiology’.
yy Joseph Priestley (1770) demonstrated that purification of the respired air released by animals was
carried out by plants. In a series of experiments involving bell jar, candle, mint (pudina) plant and rat
the essential role of air in the growth, development and survival of green plants was demonstrated.
yy Priestley noted that candle burning on its own in a closed space such as a bell jar, gets extinguished
very quickly. Burning of the candle results in the generation of impure air which was labeled as
phlogiston. When a live mouse was placed along with the candle in the closed bell jar, it resulted in
the death of the mouse due to suffocation. However, on placing a live mint plant in the closed bell jar
containing the burning candle and live mouse both resulted in both the plant and mouse surviving while
the burning of candle continues. The final conclusion achieved was that the candle which requires air
continued burning and/or the animal that breathes air remained alive due to the presence of plants. The
hypothesis proposed by Priestley was that the restoration of the phlogiston to its pure form, which was
termed as dephlogiston was achieved by plants. This pure air or dephlogiston was whatever breathing
15.4
animals and burning candles remove. Oxygen as an essential gas for survival was also established by
Priestley (1774).
.i n
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Figure 15.1: Presley’s experiment

uj
A and B Animal does not survive as candle used up the oxygen.

Ed
C and D - The plant replenishes oxygen by using up the carbon-dioxide and hence the animal survives.
yy Jan Ingenhousz stated that green leaves give out dephlogisticated air (air rich in oxygen) in presence
of sunlight while in the absence of sunlight (in the dark) they give out phlogisticated air (air rich in CO2)
and make the air ‘impure’.
yy Jean Senebier discovered that green plants utilize carbon dioxide. This is regarded as a very important
discovery in the field of photosynthesis.
yy N.T. de Saussure showed that during photosynthesis, the volume of carbon dioxide consumed by
plants is equal to the volume of oxygen liberated by them. Saussure also proved that water is necessary
for photosynthesis.
yy Pelletier and Caventou denoted the green colored substance in the leaves as ‘chlorophyll’.
yy F.F. Blackman noted that photosynthesis is carried out in two steps: a photochemical reaction which
requires the presence of light and a reaction for which light is not necessary (light and dark reactions).
Blackman also out forth the law of limiting factor.
15.5
yy Warburg performed the Flashing experiment 1919.

yy Emerson and Arnold showed that the light reaction of photosynthesis has two distinct photochemical
processes.
yy Robert Hill using Stellaria showed that isolated chloroplasts in the presence of sunlight, water and
a suitable hydrogen acceptor, release oxygen, even if carbon dioxide is absent. This experiment is
considered to be equivalent to the light reaction. Hill used certain chemicals termed as ‘Hill’s reagents’.
They are redox dyes which change colours when reduced. The common electron acceptors are
ferricyanide, benzoquinone and dichlorophenol indophenol (DCPlP), while NADP+ is a natural H+
acceptor in photosynthesis.
yy Van Niel, carried out experiments using green and purple sulphur bacteria. He showed that hydrogen
released from suitable oxidisable compounds reduces CO2 to carbohydrates also put forth that water is
the source of oxygen in photosynthesis.
6CO2 + 12H2S → C6H12O6 + 12S + 6H2O
.i n
yy Mayer stated that green plants convert the solar energy into chemical (potential) energy in the form of
yy
organic substances. al
Ruben, Hassid and Kamen carried out experiments using radioactive oxygen (O18) and proved that
n
that the source of oxygen in photosynthesis is water.
ur
Light
6CO16 18
2 + 12H2 O 
Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O16 18
6 + 6H2 O + 6O2
o
yy Julius von Sachs (1854) discovered that the green parts in plants is where glucose is synthesized and
uj
that glucose is usually stored as starch.

Ed
yy T.W Engelmann worked using on Cladophora and Spirogyra. He noted that when light is split using a
prism and used to illuminate the algae, the organisms aggregate in the blue and red regions.
yy Melvin Calvin along with his co-workers used radioactive carbon to study the various reactions involved
in conversion of CO2 to carbohydrates. They elucidated a bio-chemical pathway called the C3 or the
Calvin’s cycle. Calvin won a Noble Prize in 1961.
yy MD Hatch and C.R Slack elucidated another bio-chemical pathway for CO2 fixation which is carried
out in tropical plants. The first compound in the pathway is 4 carbon compound and hence the pathway
is called the for C4 cycle.
yy Huber et. al. worked on understanding the 3-D stricture of the reaction center of the bacteria
Rhodopseudomonas viridis. They also won a Nobel Prize.
15.6
Did You Know

yy In the presence of monochromatic light longer than 680 nm wavelength, the
quantum yield of photosynthesis suddenly drops down, this phenomenon is called
? yy
as red drop.
When non-monochromatic light of wavelengths shorter and greater than 680 nm
(combined light) is provided the, photosynthetic, activity increases, this is called as
Emerson effect or enhancement effect.
3. Pigments Participating in Photosynthesis

There are three main types of photosynthetic pigments–Chlorophylls, Carotenoids and Phycobilins.
n
3.1 Chlorophylls
.i
yy Chlorophyll – Chloros in Greek means green while phyllon means leaf.
yy
yy
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They are the photosynthetic pigments found in higher plants and many other photosynthetic organisms.
They are the main pigments concerned with harvesting solar energy.
ur
yy They are specialized lipid molecules embedded in thylakoid membrane of the chloroplasts.
yy Arnoff and Allen (1966) recognized 9 types of chlorophylls.
o
Some of them are (1) Chlorophyll-a; (2) Chlorophyll-b, (3) Chlorophyll-c etc.
uj
yy Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b are the two main types of chlorophylls found in plants.
yy Generally light energy absorbed by other photosynthetic pigment is transferred to chlorophyll-a.
Ed
yy Chlorophyll-a:
OO Empirical formula of chlorophyll-a is C H O N Mg
55 72 5 4
OO Chlorophyll a molecule has a porphyrin (a tetrapyrrole closed ring derivative) head and a phytol
(C20H39OH) tail.
OO A vinyl group is present at the second carbon position in the tetrapyrrole ring.
OO A methyl group is present at the third carbon position of the tetrapyrrole ring.
OO An Mg atom in nonionic form is held within the head with two covalent and two coordinate bonds.
OO Chlorophyll-a absorbs violet blue and red lights with absorption maxima at 430 nm and 662 nm.
OO Except for bacteria, it is found in all photosynthetic organisms.

15.7
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Ed
Figure 15.2: Chlorophyll-a

15.8
yy Chlorophyll-b:
OO The empirical formula of chlorophyll-b is C H O N Mg.
55 70 6 4
OO It has a formyl (CHO) group at the third carbon position of the tetrapyrrole ring. Otherwise, it is
similar to chlorophyll-a.
OO It absorbs blue and orange wavelengths with the absorption maxima at 430 nm and 644 nm.
yy Chlorophyll-c:
OO Chlorophyll-c lacks phytol esterification.
OO It is found in brown algae, diatoms and dinoflagellates.
yy Chlorophyll-d:
OO It absorbs in far red wavelength of light.
OO It is found in brown algae and other organisms that thrive in moderately deep zones of water
bodies.
n
yy Bacteriochlorophyll:
.i
OO The molecular formula is C H O N Mg.
55 74 6 4 al
OO It is very similar to chlorophyll-a except for the presence of acetyl group instead of vinyl at the
n
second carbon position of the tetrapyrrole ring.
ur
yy Chlorobium chlorophyll:
OO Also known as bacterioviridin.
o
OO It has hydroxyl-methyl group (CH CHOH) at the second carbon position in the tetrapyrrole nucleus.
uj
3
OO Its general formula is C H O N Mg in (Chlorobium) photosynthetic bacteria.
51 67 64 4
Ed
3.2 Carotenoids
yy Carotenoids are yellow to orange lipid compounds
yy They occur in almost all higher plants.
yy Carotenoids are of two types- carotenes and xanthophylls.
yy Carotenes
OO Carotenes are reduced molecules. Their general form is C H .
40 56
OO Carotenes are of several types like α and β.
OO The most widespread and important carotene associated with chlorophyll inphotosynthetic
organisms is β-carotene. It is orange-yellow in colour.
OO A molecule of carotene is broken down into two molecules of vitamin A in vertebrates during
digestion.
OO A carotene called lycopene is responsible for the red colour of tomatoes.
15.9
yy Xanthophylls
OO Xanthophylls also contain oxygen along with carbon and hydrogen.
OO They are yellow colored pigments.
OO They are found in papayas peaches and prunes.
OO They are present in the human eye and help to protect it against ionizing effect of some radiations.
OO Examples include Lutein (C H O ), cryptoxanthin (C H O), etc.

40 56 2 40 56
3.3 Phycobilins
yy They are also called biliproteins.
yy They are accessory pigments found in red algae and cyanobacteria.
yy They have open chain tetrapyrrole structure.
n
yy They are soluble on hot water.
.i
yy Phycoerythrins and Phycocyanins are two types of Phycobilins.
yy
species and environment.
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Generally it is seen that both types occur together. However the proportion may vary according to the
ur
3.4 Quantasome
o
yy They are considered as the units of photosynthesis.

uj
yy They were first identified by Roderic B. Park in 1962.

yy They consist of lipids and proteins and are found in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts.
Ed
yy They contain various photosynthetic pigments and redox carriers.

yy They occur in 2 sizes- the smaller quantasome is thought to represent the site of photosystem I and the
larger one to represent the site of photosystem II.
3.5 Absorption and Action Spectra

yy Absorption spectrum is represented as a graph obtained by plotting Absorption vs Wavelength for a
particular pigment.
yy Different photosynthetic pigments absorb only certain wave lengths.
yy Action spectrum is a graph showing the effectiveness of different wavelengths of light in stimulating the
process under investigation.
yy It was first studied by Engelmann on Cladophora.
yy Effectiveness is measured by analyzing quantum yield or amount of action which can be denoted
through CO2 reduction, O2 release etc.
15.10
3.6 Photosystems
yy Photosystems are functional and structural units consisting of protein complexes involved in
photosynthesis.
yy They are located in the thylakoid membranes of plants and algae or in the cytoplasmic membrane of
photosynthetic bacteria.
yy There are two kinds of photosystems: Photosystem I and Photosystem II.
yy Both photosystems I and II are required for oxygenic photosynthesis.
yy The photosystem I was named "I" since it was discovered before photosystem II, but this does not
represent the order of the electron flow.
yy PSUs (Photosynthetic units) are present on the thylakoid membranes.
yy PSUs are made up of 250 - 400 molecules of various pigments.
yy The PS II is located in the appressed region of granal thylakoids.
n
yy PS I is found in the non appressed region of grana and stoma thylakoids.
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Knowledge Builder
yy
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The porphyrin head of the chlorophyll is hydrophilic and phytol tail is lipophilic (hydrophobic).
n
yy Chlorophylls are soluble only in organic solvents like ethers etc.
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yy In paper chromatography
o
Chlorophyll-a - Bright or blue–green.

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Chlorophyll-b - Yellow green/grass green.

Ed
Xanthophyll - Yellow
Carotenoids - Yellow to yellow–orange
yy Chlorophyll synthesis-
Light
Succinyl CoA + Glycine -> Protochlorophyllide Chlorophyll
2H
Try It Yourself
1. Raw materials for the synthesis of chlorophyll are and .
2. Chlorophyll has atom in co-ordination with the head. (Mg/Hg).
3. Xanthophylls are phycobilins. (True/False)
4. A vinyl group is present at the second carbon position in the tetrapyrrole ring.
(True/False)
15.11
4. Mechanism of Photosynthesis
Figure 15.3: The first step of photophosphorylation
n
4.1 Light Reaction/Hill Reaction
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powers (NADPH2 + ATPs)/Photophase.
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Alternate names – Light reaction/Hill reaction/Photochemical reaction/Generation of assimilatory
4.1.1 Cyclic Photophosphorylation

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OO In cyclic photophosphorylation, only PS-I works.

o
OO PS I consists of Chlorophyll –a 670, Chlorophyll-a

uj
683, Chlorophyll-a 695, carotenoids, some

molecules of Chlorophyll-b and reaction centre-
Ed
Chlorophyll-a 700 or P-700.

OO This form of photophosphorylation occurs on the
thylakoid membrane.
OO The electron begins PS I, passes from the primary
acceptor to ferredoxin reducing substance (FRS),
then to ferredoxin, then to cytochrome b6f and
then to plastocyanin before returning to PS I.
OO This process produces a proton-motive force,
pumping H+ ions across the membrane thereby
generating a concentration gradient that
can be used to power ATP synthase during
chemiosmosis.
OO Cyclic photophosphorylation neither produces O2
nor NADPH.
Figure 15.4: Cyclic photophosphorylation
15.12
OO Unlike non-cyclic photophosphorylation, NADP+ does not accept the electrons, they are instead
sent back to cytochrome b6f complex.
OO This process is mostly seen in bacteria and favored in anaerobic conditions.
Process overview-
Light- PS I  FRS  Ferredoxin  Cytochrome b6f  Plastocyanin  PS I
4.1.2 Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation

yy It is also termed as Z-scheme.
yy Both PS-I and PS-II involved in non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
yy PS-II (P-680) consists of Chlorophyll-a 660, Chlorophyll-a 673, Chlorophyll-a 690, Chlorophyll-b, or
Chlorophyll-c or Chlorophyll-d, carotenoids and phycobilins. Chlorophyll-a 680 is the reaction centre.
yy It occurs in stroma lamellae.
n
The electrons do not go back to the reaction centre but rather are accepted by NADP+.
.i
yy
yy
yy
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Photolysis of water uses up the electrons and leads to the formation of ATP and NADPH2.
The steps in the process begin with the PS II. Electrons are passed to Plastoquinone reducing substance
n
(PQRS). PQRS passes them to plastoquinone which passes them to the cytochrome system. The
ur
cytochrome system passes them to plastocyanin which in in turn passes them to PS I.

yy The steps afterwards include FRS, ferredoxin and NADP reductase.
o
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Photolysis-
yy Photolysis is a chemical reaction in which a compound is broken down by photons.
Ed
yy It is an important reaction in photosynthesis.
Figure 15.5: Non cyclic photophosphorylation

15.13
yy The photolysis reaction in photosynthesis is similar to-

H2A + 2 photons (light) → 2 e− + 2 H+ + A
yy In many cases the A is oxygen. In purple sulfur bacteria, the A is sulfur. Thus, in place of water these
bacteria use hydrogen sulfide.
yy Photolysis of water-
2H2O → 4H+ + 4e− + O2
NADP+ + 2H+ + 2e− → NADPH + H+
Process overview-
(Light-)PS II (Photolysis of water) → PQRS → PQ → Cytochrome complex → Plastocyanin →
(Light-) PS I → FRS → Ferredoxin → NADP Reductase system
n
Chemiosmotic theory:
.i
yy It was put forth by Peter Mitchell to explain ATP formation.
thylakoid lumen.
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yy During the electron transport chain of photosynthesis the H+ concentration gradually increases in
yy There are three causes of difference in H+ ion concentration –

ur
+
OO Photolysis of H O produces H
2
o
+
OO PQ shifting of H ion from stroma to lumen.
uj
+
OO NADP reductase mediated utilization of H form stroma.
Ed
yy A proton gradient and electrical potential is generated across the thylakoid membrane due to the
differential H+ ion concentration.
yy The gradient and the electrical potential are collectively called proton motive force (PMF).
yy The passage of H+ ions leads to activation of ATP synthase which synthesizes ATP from ADP and
Inorganic phosphate (Pi).
15.14
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Figure 15.6: Chemiosmotic hypothesis

o
uj
Table 15.1: Cyclic and Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

Ed
Cyclic photophosphorylation Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

Only PS-I involved in cyclic process. Both PS- II and PS-I works in non-cyclic process.
The e- expelled from chl-700 is cycled back. The e- expelled from reaction centre is not cycled
back. Its loss is compensated by e- from H2O.
Photolysis of water and evolution of O2 does not Photolysis of water and evolution of O2 takes
take place. place.
NADP+ is not reduced. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH.
680 nm light. Activated by light of wavelength 680 nm or
sometimes less.
15.15
Knowledge Builder
yy Quantum requirement –
The number of light Quanta or photons required for the evolution of 1 mol. of O2 in
photosynthesis = 8
yy Quantum Yield –
The number of oxygen molecule evolved by one quantum of light photosynthesis is called
as Quantum yield. Emerson calculated that the quantum requirement is 8. Hence, the
quantum yield is 0.125 or 12.5%
4.2 Dark Reaction/Calvin Cycle
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4.2.1 C3 Cycle/Pathway
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Alternative names – Dark Reaction/Blackman Reaction/Calvin cycle/C3-Cycle/Biochemical phase/
Carbon assimilation/photosynthetic carbon reduction cycle (PCR-cycle)/Reductive pentose
n
phosphates pathway-
ur
OO C cycle is comes under dark reactions, as no direct light is required for the process to be
3
carried out.
o
OO Calvin presented these reactions in a cyclic manner and it is thus called as Calvin cycle.
uj
A three carbon compound called PGA (Phosphoglyceric acid) is the first stable compound produced
during Calvin cycle. Hence, the cycle is also called as C3- cycle.
Ed
OO Calvin carried out his experiment using an algae system, chromatography and radioisotopy with
radioactive carbon- C14.
OO Rubisco (Ribulose bis-phosphate carboxylase-oxygenase) is an important enzyme of the Calvin
cycle. It is present in stroma. CO2-acceptor in Calvin cycle is RuBP.
OO In order to form one glucose molecule, 6 turns of Calvin cycle are required.
OO 12 ATP molecules are used up to form a molecule of glucose.
Did You Know

? yy
yy
The 1st compound formed in the Calvin cycle is unstable, it is 6 Carbon keto acid.
Rubisco is most abundant enzyme found in living systems.
15.16
.i n
n al
o ur
uj
Ed
Figure 15.7: Schematic representation of Calvin Cycle
Biochemical reaction of Calvin cycle are as follows –

yy Carboxylation
The enzyme Rubiscocatalyzes the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) a 5-carbon
compound, by carbon dioxide (a total of 6 carbons) in a two-step reaction.
15.17
Rubisco
6 molecules of RuBp (RuDp) + 6 molecules of CO2 (HCO3− ) 
(Carboxydismutase)
→ 6C
unstable compound → 12 molecules of 3 – PGA (3C)

yy Glycolytic reversal
The enzyme phosphoglycerate kinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of 3-PGA by ATP.
1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (1,3Bi PGA, glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate) and ADP are the products.
Phosphoglycerate kinase
12 molecules of 3 − PGA + 12ATP  → 12 molecules of 1,3 − Bi PGA
(3C)
yy Formation of G3P or PGAL
The enzyme glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes the reduction of 1,3 BPGA by
NADPH. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate or G3P is formed.
n
yy Isomerization of PGAL to DHAP (Dihydroxy acetone phosphate)
.i
Triose phosphate isomerase converts all of the G3P reversibly into dihydroxyacetone phosphate
yy
(DHAP), also a 3-carbon molecule.
n
Formation of a molecule of Fructose 6 Phosphate
al
Aldolase and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase convert a G3P and a DHAP into fructose-6-phosphate.
ur
Aldolase
3 molecules of PGAL + 3 molecules of DHAP  → 3 molecules of Fructose − 1,6 − Biphosphate
o
9C (3C x 3) (9C) (3C x 3) (18C) (6C x 3)

uj
yy Formation of Xylulose phosphate

Ed
F6P has two carbons removed by transketolase, giving erythrose-4-phosphate. The two carbons on
transketolase are added to a G3P, giving the ketose xylulose-5-phosphate (Xu5P).
Transketolase
2 molecules of Fructose − 6 − P + 2PGAL  → 2 molecules of Erythrose − P + 2 molecules of Xylulose − P

(12C) (6C) (8C) (10C)
yy Formation of Sedoheptulose Bisphosphate
E4P and a DHAP (formed from one of the G3P from the second CO2 fixation) are converted into
sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate (7C) by aldolase enzyme.
Aldolase
2 molecules of Erythrose − 4 − P + 2 molecules of DHAP → 2 molecules of Sedoheptulose − 1,7 − BiP

(8C) (6C) (14C)
yy Sedoheptulose 1,7- BiP to Sedoheptulose7P

Sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphatasecleaves sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate into sedoheptulose-7-
phosphate, releasing an inorganic phosphate ion into solution.
15.18
yy Formation of Ribulose phosphate

The ketose Sedoheptulose 7P has two carbons removed by transketolase, giving ribose-5-phosphate (R5P),
Trans Ketolase
2 molecules of Sedoheptulose − P + 2 PGAL → 2 molecules of Xylulose − P +
2 molecules of Ribose − P
(14C) (6C) (10C) (10C)
yy Xylulose Phosphate epimerization
Xylulose phosphate epimerizes to Ribulose phosphate catalyzed by phosphopentose epimerase.
Epimerase
2 molecules of Xylulose − P + 2 molecules of Xylulose − P    → 4 molecules of Ribulose − 5 − P
(10C) (10C) (20C)
yy Isomerization of Ribose 5P to Ribulose 5P
n
R5P is converted into ribulose-5-phosphate (Ru5P, RuP) by phosphopentose isomerase.
.i
2 molecules of Ribose − 5P 
(10C) (10C)
al
Isomerase
→ 2 molecules of Ribulose − 5P
n
ur
yy Phosphorylation of Ru5P
Phoribulokinase phosphorylates RuP into RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, completing the Calvin
o
cycle. This requires the input of one ATP.

uj
Kinase
6 Ribulose-5P + 6ATP  → 6 Ribulose-1, 5-BiP (CO2 acceptor) + 6 ADP
Ed
Figure 15.8: Stages of Calvin cycle- carboxylation, reduction and regeneration

15.19
Knowledge Builder
yy Rubisco enzyme has one large and one small subunit.
yy Magnesium ion is required for the proper functionality of Rubisco.
yy Interestingly, some scientists are hoping to genetically engineer the expression of Rubisco
with an aim to sequester more carbon-dioxide and thereby tackle global warming.
4.2.2 C4 Cycle/Pathway
Alternative names – CO2 concentrating mechanism/Co-operative photosynthesis/Dicarboxylic acid
cycle (DCA cycle)/C4 cycle/Hatch and Slack pathway
yy Kortschak and Hatch first observed that 4C, OAA (Oxaloacetic acid) is formed in sugarcane leaves
during dark reaction.
n
yy A pathway for dark reactions in sugarcane and maize leaves was proposed by Hatch and Slack.
.i
yy C4-cycle occurs in 19 families of angiosperms, but mostlyin monocots, belonging to families
al
Gramineae (True grasses) e.g. sugarcane, Maize, sorghum etc. and Cyperaceae (sedges) e.g.
n
water chestnut.
ur
yy Kranz Anatomy is seen in leaves of C4 plants.
yy Green bundle sheath cells (BS cells) present around the vascular bundles.
o
yy Two types of chloroplasts are present in the leaf cells. In mesophyll cells, chloroplasts are small and
uj
with grana while chloroplasts of B.S. cells are larger and without grana.
Ed
yy PEPCase (Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase) enzyme is present in mesophyll cells while Rubisco is
present in BS cells.
yy In the C4-plants, C3-cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells, while C4-cycle occurs in mesophyll cells.
yy Photosynthetically C4 plants are more efficient as there is no photorespiration. BS cells do not release
O2 and mesophyll cells pump more CO2 for C3 cycle.
yy C4-plants are found in tropical habitats. They have adapted themselves to the environment with high
temperature, low water availability and intense light.
yy Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 is PEP (phosphoenol pyruvate). It is a 3 carbon compound.
yy First carboxylation in C4-cycle is catalyzed by PEPCase in thecytoplasm of mesophyll cells.
yy The second carboxylation or final CO2 fixation occurs in BS cells by through the C3 cycle.
yy For the production of 1 hexose (Glucose) molecule in C4-plants, 30 ATP molecules are used up.
yy The enzyme pyruvate phosphate dikinase (PPDK) converts pyruvate to PEP by converting an ATP to
AMP. This regeneration of PEP helps C4 plants increase the efficiency of CO2 fixation.
15.20
Special features of C4 plants –

yy C4 plants are more efficient than C3 plants with respect to carbon fixation.
yy The productivity in C4 plants, does not increase when CO2 concentration is increased.
yy The reasons for this are-
OO Mesophyll cells pump more CO for Calvin cycle
2
OO Thus concentration of CO is high around the site of Rubisco in C plants.
2 4
.i n
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uj
Ed
Figure 15.9: Schematic representation of C4 pathway
Steps in C4 pathway
yy The pathway begins with the conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP), by the enzyme
pyruvate orthophosphate dikinase.
yy The next step is the fixation of CO2 into oxaloacetate (OAA) by the enzyme PEP carboxylase. Both of
these steps occur in the mesophyll cells.
yy OAA converted to malate, a simple organic compound, which is transported to the bundle-sheath cells.
yy Malate is decarboxylated to produce CO2 and pyruvate.
yy The CO2 now enters the Calvin cycle and the pyruvate is transported back to the mesophyll cell.
15.21
Figure 15.10: C3– C4 dependence on light intensity
.i n
Knowledge Builder
yy
n al
Calvin’s experiment that led to the elucidation of the Calvin’s cycle is also called as the
‘Lollipop experiment’ based on the shape of the apparatus used.
ur
yy Scientists are attempting to produce C4 rice. This variety will produce 50% more grain and
use less water. This can drastically improve the food security situation on the world.
o
uj
4.2.3 CAM Pathway

Ed
Alternative names – CAM-Plants/Crassulacean acid metabolism/Dark CO2 fixation/Dark acidification

yy It is observed in succulent xerophyte plants e.g. Kalanchoe, Bryophyllum, Sedum, Kleinia etc.
yy Primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP (Phosphoenol pyruvate)
yy Oxaloacetic acid is the first product of the carboxylation reaction.
yy In CAM plants stomata are of scotoactive type (they open at night). Organic acids are produced during
night and they are broken down during the day. Final CO2 fixation (C3 cycle) occurs in day time.
yy PEPCase induces carboxylation reaction in night.
yy PEP carboxylase and Rubisco present in mesophyll cells.
yy Kranz-anatomy is not seen.
yy Synthesis of 1 molecule of glucose requires 30 ATPs
yy Thus, CAM plants leave the stomata closed during the day. This highly reduces the water loss.
15.22
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Figure 15.11: CAM pathway
ur
5. Photorespiration
o
Photosynthetic carbon oxidation cycle/C2Cycle/ Photorespiration/Glycolate-Metabolism

uj
yy Rubisco has some affinity for O2. Hence, sometimes oxygen is added to RuBP instead of CO2.
Ed
yy Instead of PGA, phosphoglycolate (PA) is produced.

yy PA is recycled to produce PGA via the photorespiratory pathway.
yy Photorespiration is a wasteful process linked with C3 cycle. It consumes ATP.
yy It occurs in chloroplast, peroxisomes and mitochondria.
15.23
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Figure 15.12: The C2 Cycle

uj
Ed
Try It Yourself
1. PS II is involved in cyclic photophosphorylation. (True/False)
2. P 700 is involved in photophosphorylation. (Cyclic/Non-cyclic/
both Cyclic and Non-cyclic)
3. C4- plants are less efficient with respect to carbon fixation. (True/False)
4. Bundle sheath cells have large number of agranal chloroplasts. (True/False)
5. is the first stable product in the C3 cycle.
6. The full form of CAM is .
7. Describe photorespiration in short.
15.24
6. Factors Affecting Photosynthesis

yy Law of limiting factors states then when the rapidity of a process is dependent on more than one factor,
the rate at which the process occurs is controlled by the slowest factor.
yy In case pf photosynthesis,water may be a limiting factor in dry regions, light may be limiting on cloudy
days and in dense forests.
Factors-
(i) Light
yy There is a linear relationship between light intensity and rate of photosynthesis at low light intensity.
yy At extremely high light intensity photo-oxidation may occur and this may destroy the photosynthetic
apparatus.
yy Intensity of light, at which rate of photosynthesis, becomes equal to the rate of respiration in plants is
n
known as light compensation point.
.i
yy Net photosynthesis or net primary productivity at this point is zero.
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uj
Ed
Figure 15.13: Photosynthesis-light dependence
(ii) Temperature
yy Optimum temperature for C3 plants for photosynthesis is 20o–25oC and 30o–40oC for C4 plants.
yy The rate of photosynthesis decreases at higher temperature due to denaturation of enzymes
yy Dark reactions are more affected by temperature as compare to light reactions.
15.25
(iii) Concentration of CO2 (Between 0.03% and 0.04%)

yy An increase in CO2 concentration upto 0.05% boosts the rate of photosynthesis
yy Higher concentration of CO2 is toxic to plants and also leads to closure of stomata.
yy The CO2 concentration at which CO2 fixation in photosynthesis is equal to volume of CO2 released in
respiration when plant saturated with full light is called CO2 compensation point.
yy CO2 compensation point for C4 plants is 8 – 10 ppm, while for C3 plants it is 40 – 100 ppm.
.i n
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Figure 15.14: A graph of CO2 uptake vs the CO2 availability

Ed
(iv) Water
yy Reduction in availability of water reduces the rate of photosynthesis.
(v) Plant factors

yy Amount of chlorophyll present.
yy Leaves- The leaf number, size, age and leaf orientation can affect the rate of photosynthesis
(vi) Inhibitors
yy DCMU (Diuron/Dichlorophynyl Dimethyl Urea) CMU (Monuron), PAN, Atrazine, Simazime, Bromocil,
Isocil inhibit electron flow between P-680 and PQ and thereby by inactivate PS II system.
yy Diquat (herbicide), paraquate etc. inhibit electron flow between P-700 and Ferredoxin and thereby
inactivate the PS I system.
15.26
7. Bacterial Photosynthesis
yy Certain bacteria are capable for photosynthesis e.g. – Chlorobium (Green sulphur), Rhodospirillum,
Rhodopseudomonas (purple non-sulphur).
yy Cyclic photophosphorylation is an important method in bacterial photosynthesis.
yy PS II is absent. So non-cyclic photophosphorylation is absent.
yy Pigment system of bacteria denoted by – B-890 or B-870
yy Evolution of O2 if any is not linked to bacterial photosynthesis, because water is not the H+ donor. The
donor may be hydrogen sulfide.
IR light
6 CO2 + 12 H2S 
Pigments in chromatophores
→ C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 12S

n
Try It Yourself
.i
1. Name some inhibitors of photosynthesis.
2. al
State one ill effect of excess light on photosynthesis.
n
3. Cyclic respiration is absent in bacteria. (True/False)
ur
4. Bacteria give out O2 during photosynthesis. (True/False)
o
uj
Summary
yy ‘Photosynthesis is defined as the photo-biochemical/physicochemical mechanism, incorporating
Ed
anabolic, reductive and endergonic processes carried out by green plants, in which complex, energy-rich
organic compounds (carbohydrates such as sugars, starches) are synthesized from simple inorganic
raw materials composed of water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) in presence of electromagnetic
radiations (light or solar energy) and light capturing pigments (chlorophyll, carotenoids) with release of
oxygen (O2) as a byproduct.’
yy Chlorophylls are the main photosynthetic pigments that harvest solar energy.
yy Arnoff and Allen (1966) recognized 9 types of chlorophylls. Some of them are– (1) Chlorophyll-a; (2)
Chlorophyll -b, (3) Chlorophyll –c etc.
yy Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b are the two main types of chlorophylls found in plants.
yy Generally light energy absorbed by other photosynthetic pigment is transferred to chlorophyll-a.
yy Carotenoids are yellow to orange lipid compounds. They occur in almost all higher plants.
yy Carotenoids are of two types- carotenes and xanthophylls.
yy Phycobilins are accessory pigments found in red algae and cyanobacteria.
15.27
yy They have open chain tetrapyrrole structure.

yy Quantasomes are units of photosynthesis.
yy Absorption spectrum is represented as a graph obtained by plotting Absorption vs Wavelength for a
particular pigment.
yy Action spectrum is a graph showing the effectiveness of different wavelengths of light in stimulating the
process under investigation.
yy Photosystems are functional and structural units consisting of protein complexes involved in
photosynthesis.
yy They are located in the thylakoid membranes of plants and algae or in the cytoplasmic membrane of
photosynthetic bacteria.
yy There are two kinds of photosystems: Photosystem I and Photosystem II.
yy Both photosystems I and II are required for oxygenic photosynthesis.
.i n
Cyclic photophosphorylation
Only PS-I involved in cyclic process.
n al Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Both PS- II and PS-I works in non-cyclic process.
ur
The e- expelled from chl-700 is cycled back. The e- expelled from reaction centre is not cycled
back. Its loss is compensated by e- from H2O.
o
Photolysis of water and evolution of O2 does not Photolysis of water and evolution of O2 takes
uj
take place. place.

NADP+ is not reduced. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH.
Ed
Activated by light of wavelength greater than Activated by light of wavelength 680 nm or

680 nm light. sometimes less.
Characteristics C3 plants C4 plants

Cell type it. Which the Calvin cycle takes place Mesophyll Bundle sheath
Cell type in which the initial carboxylation reaction occurs Mesophyll Mesophyll
How many cell types does the leaf have that fix CO2 One Two
Which is the primary CO2 acceptor RuBP PEP
Number of carbons in the primary CO2 acceptor 5 3
Which is the primary CO2 fixation product PGA OAA
No. of carbons in the primary CO2 fixation product 3 4
Does the plant have Rubisco? Yes Yes
15.28
Characteristics C3 plants C4 plants

Does the plant have PEP case? Yes Yes
Which cells in the plant have Rubisco? Mesophyll Bundle sheath
CO2 fixation rate under high light conditions Medium High
Whether photorespiration is present at low light intensities Negligible Negligible
Whether photorespiration is present at high light intensities High Negligible
Whether photorespiration would be present at low CO2 concentrations High Negligible
Whether photorespiration would be present at high CO2 concentrations Negligible Negligible
Temperature optimum 20-25oC 30-40oC
Examples Wheat Maize
Rice Sugarcane
Sorghum
.i n
yy CAM pathway is observed in succulent xerophyte plants e.g. Kalanchoe, Bryophyllum, Sedum, Kleinia
al
etc. Primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP (Phosphoenol pyruvate).
n
yy In CAM plants stomata are of scotoactive type (they open at night). Organic acids are produced during
night and they are broken down during the day. Final CO2 fixation (C3 cycle) occurs in day time.
ur
yy Thus, CAM plants leave the stomata closed during the day. This highly reduces the water loss.
o
yy Photorespiration is a pathway that is used to recycle the phosphoglycolate.

uj
yy Light, water, leaf anatomy, amount of chlorophyll, CO2 etc. are factors that affect
Ed
15.29
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis comes from
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Water
(C) Chlorophyll (D) Phosphoglyceric acid
Q.2 Nine-tenth of the world photosynthesis is carried out by

(A) Shrubs (B) Herbs
(C) Trees (D) Algae
.i n
Q.3 The process of taking in CO2 by plants and releasing O2 is termed as
(A) Transpiration (B) Respiration
n al
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Endosmosis
ur
Q.4 In plants during the process of photosynthesis

o
(A) CO2 is taken in (B) O2 is taken in

uj
(C) CO2 is taken out (D) O2 is taken in and CO2 is given out
Ed
Q.5 Our present day view regarding photosynthesis is that

(A) Converts light energy into chemical energy (B) Creates useful energy
(C) Fixes CO2 into carbohydrates (D) Reverses the action of respiration
Q.6 In which of the following process, the light energy is converted into chemical energy
(A) Digestive action (B) Respiration
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Fermentation
Q.7 The dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because

(A) It can only occur in dark (B) It does not require light
15.30
Q.8 During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose comes from

(A) Water (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) O2 in air (D) Both from water and CO2
Q.9 The law of limiting factor for photosynthesis was given by

(A) R. Hill (B) Krebs
(C) Calvin (D) Blackman
Q.10 The percentage of light energy utilized by higher plants, in the process of photosynthesis is
(A) 100% (B) 10%
(C) 50% (D) 1% – 2%
Q.11 Photosynthesis is most active in
.i n
(A) Sun light (B) Yellow light
(C) Red light (D) Green light
n al
Q.12 If the CO2 content of the atmosphere is as high as 300 parts per million
ur
(A) All plants would be killed (B) The plants would not grow properly
(C) Plants would grow for some time and then die (D) The plants would thrive well
o
uj
Q.13 R. Hill used a dye for his famous Hill-reaction

(A) Dischlorophenol indophenol (DCPIP) (B) Sulphur green
Ed
(C) Methylene blue (D) Eosine
Q.14 The isotope of carbon used extensively for studies in photosynthesis

(A) C13 (B) C14
(C) C15 (D) C16
Q.15 Which is the evidence to show that oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from water
(A) Isotopic oxygen (O18) supplied as H2O appears in the O2 released in photosynthesis.
(B) Activated chloroplast in water released O2 if supplied potassium ferrocyanide or some other reducing
agent in the absence of CO2.
(C) Photosynthetic bacteria use H2O and CO2 to make carbohydrates, H2O and sulphur
15.31
Q.16 The path of CO2 in the dark reactions of photosynthesis was successfully traced by the use of the
following
(A) O218 (B) C14O2 (C) P32 (D) X-rays
Q.17 Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the existence of

(A) Two distinct photosystems (B) Light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
(C) Photophosphorylation (D) Photorespiration
Q.18 The colour of light not utilized during photosynthesis is

(A) Violet (B) Green (C) Red (D) Blue
Q.19 During the process of photosynthesis the raw materials used are
(A) Glucose (B) Chlorophyll (C) Starch (D) CO2 and H2O
.i n
Q.20 Name the scientist, who first pointed out that plants purify foul air by bell jar experiment
(A) Willstatter (B) Robert Hooke
n al
(C) Priestley (D) Lean Senebier
ur
Q.21 Of the total amount of water absorbed by the plant, its actual percentage used during photosynthesis is
o
(A) 50% (B) 90% (C) 1% (D) 25%

uj
Q.22 It is only the green part of the plant, which takes part in
Ed
(A) Respiration (B) Transpiration

(C) Photosynthesis (D) Osmosis
Q.23 Molls experiment explain that

(A) Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis
(B) Chlorophyll and water are necessary for photosynthesis
(C) Light and water are essential for photosynthesis
(D) All the above are correct
Q.24 Which of the following is not a significance of photosynthesis?

(A) Glucose synthesis for most of consumer
(B) Increase in greenhouse effect
(C) Provides O2 for synthesis of ozone umbrella
(D) Provides O2 for cellular respiration
15.32
Q.25 Oxygen during photosynthesis comes from water was proved by O18 experiment
(A) Ruben and Kamen (B) Hill (C) Warburg (D) Blackman
Q.26 Name of the scientist who pointed out the importance of different wavelength of light using a green
algae and aerobic bacteria
(A) Priestley (B) Ingen-Housz
(C) K.V. Thimann (D) Engleman
Q.27 Conversion of light energy into chemical energy within the plant body was first stated by ?
(A) Mayer and Anderson (B) Calvin
(C) Robert Mayer (D) Willstatter and Stoll
Q.28 The rate of photosynthesis decreases if the wavelength of visible light exceeds 680 nm. This was
n
shown by which scientist and what is its reason?
.i
(A) Black man – Law of limiting factors (B) Calvin and Benson – Photo oxidation
(C) Emerson and Arnold – Red drop
n al
(D) Ruben and Kamen – Photolysis
Q.29 Which of the following category of photosynthetic plants possess minimum transpiration ratio (TR)
ur
(A) C3 – plants (B) C4 – plants

o
(C) CAM-plants (D) All the above

uj
Q.30 The most effective wavelength of visible light in photosynthesis in the region of which of the following?
Ed
(A) Green (B) Yellow

(C) Red (D) Violet
Q.31 Which step of non-cyclic photophosphorylation is blocked by DCMU?

(A) Flow of e– between PS I to Fd (B) Flow of e– between cyto b6 to cyto. f
(C) Flow of e– between PC to PS I (D) Flow of e– between PS II to PQ
Q.32 The radiant energy is stored in the form of chemical energy in

(A) NADP (B) Stored food (C) RNA (D) DNA
Q.33 How many quanta are required to reduce one molecule of CO2 and produce one molecule of O2 in
green plant photosynthesis?
(A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32
15.33
Q.34 Photosynthesis is
(A) Oxidative, exergonic, catabolic (B) Redox-reaction, endergonic, anabolic
(C) Reductive, exergonic, anabolic (D) Reductive, endergonic, catabolic
Q.35 The significance of light and chlorophyll in photosynthesis was discovered by

(A) Priestley (B) Ingenhousz
(C) Englemann (D) Blackman
Q.36 Which of the following carries out non-oxygenic photosynthetic?

(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Crab grass
(C) Bacteria (D) Wheat plant
Q.37 What is the unique process which has supported life on this planet?
n
(A) N2 fixation (B) Photosynthesis
.i
(C) Protein synthesis (D) Respiration
n al
Q.38 Wavelength of light responsible for Emerson’s enhancement effect
ur
(A) Only 680 nm (B) Only 680 nm
(C) Infra red wavelength (D) Both 680 nm 
and 680 nm 
o
uj
Q.39 The ‘’red – drop’’ phenomenon is due to the disruption of the photo chemical activity of
(A) PS – I (B) PS–I and PS–II both
Ed
(C) PS – II (D) Carotenoids
Q.40 True for photosynthesis

(A) Oxidation of CO2 and reduction of H2O
(B) Process which connects the biotic and abiotic world
(C) Exergonic process
(D) Oxidation of Glucose
Q.41 Which of the following order is correct about the rate of photosynthesis?
(A) Blue > yellow > orange > red (B) Blue > red > yellow > orange
(C) Red > blue > yellow > orange (D) Yellow > orange > blue > red
15.34
Q.42 The process of photosynthesis takes place in

(A) Roots only (B) Shoot only
(C) All the cells of plant (D) Chlorophyll containing cells only
Q.43 Leaves appear green because

(A) They absorb green light (B) They reflect green light
(C) They absorb and reflect green light (D) They absorb green and reflects white light
Q.44 First of all which organism creates oxidizing atmosphere on earth?

(A) Cyanobacteria (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Ferns (D) Dicots
n
Q.45 The process of photo phosphorylation take place in
.i
(A) Chloroplast (B) Ribosomes (C) Mitochondria (D) Cell-wall
Q.46 PS I occurs in
n al
(A) Appressed part of granal thylakoids
ur
(B) Appressed and non appressed part of grana thylakoids

(C) Stroma
o
(D) Stroma thylakoids and non-appressed part of grana thylakoids

uj
Ed
Q.47 Photophosphorylation means synthesis of

(A) ATP from ADP (B) NADP (C) ADP from ATP (D) PGA
Q.48 Which one of the following pigment does not occurs in the chloroplast?
(A) Carotene (B) Xanthophyll
(C) Chlorophyll ‘b’ (D) Anthocyanin
Q.49 Start of manufacture of chlorophyll in a plant seedling is stimulated by

(A) Gibberellins (B) Indole acetic acid
(C) Kinin (D) Light
Q.50 Chlorophyll contains

(A) Fe (B) Mg (C) K (D) Mn
15.35
Q.51 Which pigment is water soluble?

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Carotene (C) Anthocyanin (D) Xanthophyll
Q.52 Chloroplasts fix
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Hydrogen
Q.53 ATP formation during photosynthesis is termed

(A) Phosphorylation (B) Photophosphorylation
(C) Oxidative phosphorylation (D) Photolysis
Q.54 The main site for dark reaction of photosynthesis is

(A) Stroma (B) Grana
n
(C) Intergrana (D) Mitochondria
.i
Q.55 What will be left if chlorophyll is burnt?
(A) Magnesium (B) Manganese
n al
ur
(C) Iron (D) Sulphur
Q.56 Chlorophyll is present

o
(A) In the grana of chloroplasts (B) On the surface of chloroplasts

uj
(C) Dispersed through out the chloroplasts (D) In the stroma of chloroplasts
Ed
Q.57 Solar energy is converted to ATP in

(C) Ribosome (D) Peroxisome
Q.58 In blue green algae photosynthesis takes place in

(A) Chloroplasts (B) Lamellisome
(C) Heterocysts (D) Carotene
Q.59 Condition necessary for photosynthesis are

(A) Light and suitable temperature (B) Chlorophyll and water
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) All of the above
15.36
Q.60 Photosynthesis is maximum during

(A) Continuous weak light (B) Continuous strong light
(C) Intermittent light (D) None of the above
Q.61 Process of photophosphorylation was first given by

(A) Hill (B) Willstatter and Stoll
(C) Arnon (D) Park and Biggins
Q.62 Which colour of light gives maximum absorption peak by chlorophyll ‘a’?
(A) Blue light (B) Green light (C) Violet light (D) Red light
Q.63 Which scientists are related with light reaction and what is its site?
n
(A) Arnon and Hill, Grana
.i
(B) Ruben and Kamen, stroma
(C) Willstatter, Stoll, inner membrane of chloroplast
(D) Calvin and Benson, outer membrane of chloroplast
n al
ur
Q.64 Presence of carotenes in chloroplast helps in

(A) ATP synthesis
o
(B) Transferring radiant energy into chemical energy

uj
(C) Protecting chlorophyll molecules from photo oxidation

Ed
(D) Absorption of longer wavelength of light
Q.65 Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase (Rubisco) is located in

(A) Golgi bodies (B) Peroxisome
(C) Chloroplast (D) Mitochondria
Q.66 Which of the following photosynthetic bacteria have both PS-I and PS-II?
(A) Purple sulphur bacteria (B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Purple non sulphur bacteria (D) Green sulphur bacteria
Q.67 The site of oxygen evolution and photosynthetic phosphorylation in chloroplast is

(A) Grana (B) Matrix
(C) Surface of chloroplast (D) Inner wall of chloroplast
15.37
Q.68 The formula of chlorophyll ‘a’ is

(A) C35H72O5N4 Mg (B) C55H70O3N4Mg
(C) C55H72O5N4 Mg (D) C51H70O6N4 Mg
Q.69 The number of pigment molecules in quantasome is

(A) 250 – 400 (B) 300 – 900 (C) 500 – 600 (D) 50 – 100
Q.70 The main difference between chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’ is

(A) Chlorophyll ‘a’ is a linear chain compound and ‘b’ is branched chain
(B) Chlorophyll ‘a’ has no Mg+ ion in centre of molecule
(C) In chlorophyll ‘a’ there is –CH3 group whereas in ‘b’ it is –CHO group
.i n
Q.71 For chlorophyll formation in plants elements needed are
(A) Sodium and copper
(C) Iron and magnesium
n al(B) Calcium and potassium
(D) Iron and calcium
ur
Q.72 Which one is the precursor of chlorophyll?

(A) Tryptophan (B) Protochlorophyll
o
(C) Bacteriochlorophyll (D) Bacterioviridin

uj
Ed
Q.73 The role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is

(A) Absorption of CO2
(B) Absorption of light
(C) Absorption of light and photochemical decomposition of water
(D) Absorption of water
Q.74 Chloroplast contains maximum quantity of

(A) Pyruvic carboxylase (B) Hexokinase
(C) RUBP carboxylase (D) None of the above
Q.75 Chlorophyll ‘a’ is found in

(A) All O2 releasing photosynthetic forms (B) Only higher plants
(C) Higher plants that photosynthesize (D) All photosynthetic eukaryotes
15.38
Q.76 In angiosperms, synthesis of chlorophyll occurs in presence of

(A) Phytochrome (B) Light
(C) Cytochrome (D) None of the above
Q.77 In pigment system I active chlorophyll is

(A) P-600 (B) P-680 (C) P-700 (D) P-720
Q.78 Chlorophyll ‘e’ is generally present in

(A) Thallophytes (B) Rhodophytes (C) Mycophytes (D) Xanthophytes
Q.79 In pigment system II the trapping centre of light energy is

(A) P-700 (B) P-680 (C) Carotene (D) Xanthophyll
n
Q.80 Basic structure of all chlorophyll comprises of
.i
(A) Cytochrome system (B) Flavoproteins
(C) Porphyrin system
n al
(D) Plastocyanin
Q.81 The chemical formula of bacteriochlorophyll is

ur
(A) C55H70O4N4 Mg (B) C55H72O5N4Mg

o
(C) C55H70O5N4 Mg (D) C55H74O6N4 Mg

uj
Q.82 What is the byproduct of bacterial photosynthesis?

Ed
(A) O2 (B) H2O (C) S (D) H2S
Q.83 Photosynthetic bacteria do not contain

(A) PS – I (B) PS – II (C) PS – I or PS – II (D) Quantasome
Q.84 In photosynthetic bacteria photosynthesis takes place in

(A) Chloroplast (B) Chromoplast (C) Chromatophores (D) Mesosomes
Q.85 What is the role of light in plants?

(A) Necessary for photosynthesis
(B) Controls growth and movement
(C) Controls distribution of hormones and flowering
15.39
Q.86 Photosynthetic units are referred as

(A) Quantasome (B) Oxysome
(C) Phycobillisome (D) F1 – Particles
Q.87 Rubisco constitutes

(A) 4% of the chloroplast protein (B) 11% of the chloroplast protein
(C) 16% of the chloroplast protein (D) 25% of the chloroplast protein
Q.88 Bio-chemical phase in photosynthesis was first discovered by

(A) Calvin (B) Blackman (C) Arnon (D) Hill
Q.89 The accepted size of chlorophyll molecule is
n
(A) Head; 15 x 10 Åand Tail; 25 Å (B) Head: 20 x 20 Å and Tail: 25 Å
.i
(C) Head: 10 x 10 Å and Tail: 15 Å (D) Head: 15 x 15 Å and Tail; 20 Å
al
Q.90 The photosynthetic pigment ‘’chlorophylls” are soluble in
n
(A) Water (B) Inorganic solvent
ur
(C) Organic solvent (D) Water and organic solvent

o
Q.91 Which of the following chlorophyll is lack of phytol tail?

uj
(A) Chl. ‘a’ (B) Chl. ‘b’ (C) Chl. ‘c’ (D) Chl. ‘e’
Ed
Q.92 Photosynthetic pigment phycobilins are not associated with

(A) PS II (B) Cyanobacteria (C) PS I (D) All the above
Q.93 Percentage of chlorophyll in a normal chloroplast

(A) 5-10% (B) 40-50% (C) 65-75% (D) 90-95%
Q.94 The correct formula for carotene is

(A) C40H56 (B) C40H50 (C) C40H56O2 (D) C41H56O3
Q.95 Normally phycobilins occurs in

(A) Red algae (B) Blue green algae
(C) Rhodophyceae (D) All of the above
15.40
Q.96 Which of the following protein is most abundant on the earth?

(A) Catalase (B) Rubisco (C) Amylase (D) None of these
Q.97 Porphyrin is occurs in

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Hemoglobin (C) Cytochrome (D) All the above
Q.98 Universal photosynthetic chlorophyll is

(A) Chl-a (B) Chl-b (C) Chl-c (D) Chl-e
Q.99 Which of the following is the site of photolysis of water?

(A) Stroma of chloroplast (B) Cristae of chloroplast
(C) Ribosome of chloroplast (D) Lumen of thylakoid sacs
n
Q.100 Which one of the following is precursor of Protochlorophyll?
.i
(A) Acetyl CoA (B) Succinyl CoA
(C) Oxaloacetic acid (D) α-ketoglutarate
n al
Q.101 The first step in photosynthesis is
ur
(A) Joining of three carbon atoms of from glucose

o
(B) Formation of ATP

uj
(C) Ionization of water

Ed
(D) Excitement of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
Q.102 The ultimate gain of light reaction is

(A) ATP and NADPH2 (B) NADPH2
(C) Only ATP (D) Only O2
Q.103 Photophosphorylation is the process in which

(A) CO2 and O2unite
(B) Phosphoglyceric acid is produced
(C) Aspartic acid is formed
(D) Light energy is converted in to chemical energy by production of ATP
15.41
Q.104 Algae and other submerged plants buoyant in water during day time and sink at night, because
(A) They come upto enjoy some time
(B) They lose weight at night
(C) They become buoyant due to accumulation of O2 as a result of photosynthesis
(D) They become light due to food material accumulation
Q.105 Which occurs during the light reaction of photosynthesis

(A) Chlorophyll is produced (B) Water splits to form 2H+ and O2
(C) CO2 is given off as a waste (D) Sugar is formed from CO2 and water
Q.106 The function of ATP in photosynthesis is the transfer of energy from the
(A) Dark reaction to the light reaction (B) Light reaction to the dark reaction
n
(C) Chloroplasts to mitochondria (D) Mitochondria to chloroplasts
.i
Q.107 In photosynthesis, hydrogen is transferred from the light reaction to dark reactions by
al
(A) DPN (B) DNA (C) ATP (D) NADP
n
ur
Q.108 Which of the following element is a component of ferredoxin
(A) Copper (B) Manganese (C) Zinc (D) Iron
o
Q.109 During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis

uj
(A) Liberation of O2 takes place

Ed
(B) Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place

(C) Liberation of O2 formation of ATP and NADPH2 takes place
(D) Assimilation of CO2 takes place
Q.110 Splitting of water in photosynthesis is called

(A) Dark reaction (B) Photolysis
(C) Electron transfer (D) Phototropism
Q.111 The product of hill reaction are

(A) ATP and NADPH2 in chloroplast
(B) ATP and NADPH2 in mitochondria
(C) Only oxygen
(D) A reduced substance NADPH2, ATP and O2 in chloroplast
15.42
Q.112 ADP + iP = ATP in grana is called

(A) Phosphorylation (B) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Photophosphorylation (D) Photolysis
Q.113 Which of the following is excited molecule during photosynthesis

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Water
Q.114 NADPH2 is also called

(A) Real power (B) Oxidising agent
(C) Power house of energy (D) Reducing power
Q.115 During ionization of H2O, H+ is ultimately captured by
n
(A) Chlorophyll (B) NADP (C) O2 (D) Cytochrome
.i
Q.116 At the time of ionization of H2O which initially captures the electron
(A) Chlorophyll (B) NADP
n al
(C) OH- (D) Cytochrome
Q.117 In cyclic photophosphorylation which one of the following is formed

ur
(A) NADP and ATP (B) ATP

o
(C) NADH2 and O2 (D) NADPH2, ATP and O2

uj
Q.118 Fixation of one CO2 requires

Ed
(A) 6 NADPH2 and 3 ATP (B) 2 NADPH.H2 and 3 ATP

(C) 4 NADPH.H2 and 3 ATP (D) 5 NADP.H2 and 3 ATP
Q.119 Photo oxidation of water in photosynthesis is in association of

(A) Cytochrome b6 (B) Pigment system – I
(C) Pigment system – II (D) Plastocyanin
Q.120 During ATP synthesis electron pass through

(A) Water (B) Cytochromes (C) O2 (D) CO2
Q.121 Which pigment system ultimately donates e- for the reduction of NADP
(A) PS II (B) PS I (C) CO2 (D) Plastoquinone
15.43
Q.122 Respiration and photosynthesis both require

(A) Green cells (B) Sunlight (C) Cytochromes (D) Organic fuel
Q.123 Photosynthesis is an oxidation reduction process, the materials that is oxidized is

(A) CO2 (B) NADP (C) H2O (D) PGA
Q.124 Element which helps in electron transport in the process of photosynthesis is

(A) Zinc (B) Molybdenum (C) Boron (D) Manganese
Q.125 Photo oxidation of chlorophyll is called

(A) Intensification (B) Chlorosis (C) Solarization (D) Defoliation
Q.126 Thebyproduct of photosynthesis is
n
(A) CO2 (B) Oxygen (C) Energy (D) Sugar
.i
(B) ATP
n al
Q.127 The electron ejected by P680 in light reaction is initially accepted by
(A) Plastoquinone (C) Ferredoxin (D) P-700
ur
Q.128 Decreased rate of photosynthesis at high concentration of O2 is referred to as
(A) Pasteur effect (B) Emerson effect
o
(C) Warburg effect (D) Richmond land effect

uj
Q.129 Which element are present in OEC (oxygen evolving complex)

Ed
(A) Mn++ (B) Cl- (C) Ca++ (D) All of the above
Q.130 Which one is Cu++ containing protein complex

(A) Ferredoxin (B) Plastocyanin
(C) Plastoquinone (D) Cytochrome
Q.131 Only pigment system I is concerned with

(A) Photolysis
(B) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(C) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(D) Oxidative phosphorylation
15.44
Q.132 The important role of PS – II in photosynthesis is

(A) To cause photolysis of water (B) To release energy
(C) To trap and assimilate CO2 (D) To reduce NAD to NAD. H2
Q.133 The first electron carrier molecule from P700 to NADP+ is believed to be
(A) Cytochrome (B) Cu protein/plastocyanin
(C) FeS protein/Ferredoxin (D) Fe-Mg Protein
Q.134 In plants, hill reaction occurs

(A) All the time
(B) Only in day time
(C) Only when the plants are grown in cold climate of hills
n
(D) When the plant carries out uphill task of salt absorption and food translocation
.i
Q.135 Pigment system II occurs in
(A) Grana (B) Stroma
n al
(C) Matrix (D) Oxysomes
ur
Q.136 The excess energy of e- (in ETS) is used in the synthesis of

(A) ATP from ADP and Pi (B) NADPH2 from NADP
o
(C) Organic compounds (D) ADP from ATP

uj
Ed
Q.137 During photosynthesis

(A) Water is reduced and CO2 is oxidized
(B) CO2 is reduced and water is oxidized
(C) Both CO2 and water get reduced
(D) Both CO2 and water get oxidized
Q.138 Photolysis is related to

(A) Calvin cycle (B) H.S.K cycle
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation (D) Non cyclic flow of electrons
Q.139 Connecting link between light phase and dark phase of photosynthesis
(A) Only ATP (B) Only NADH2 (B) Only NADPH2 (D) Both (A) and (C)
15.45
Q.140 When the two pigment systems absorb light in what direction does the energy flow between them
(A) PS-I -> PS-II (B) PS-II -> PS-I
(C) PS-II = PS-I (D) None of the above
Q.141 Which photosynthetic pigment converts nascent oxygen to molecular oxygen

(A) Chlorophyll-a (B) Carotenoids
(C) Phycobilins (D) Chlorophyll-b
Q.142 Which cofactor is necessary for photolysis of water.

(A) Mg (B) Mn (C) Fe (D) Cu
Q.143 Who proposed Z-scheme of light reaction
n
(A) Arnon (B) Calvin and Bensen
.i
(C) Emerson and Arnon (D) Blackman
Q.144 Detail study of pigment systems made by

n al
(A) Robert Hill (B) H.P. Nanda (C) Govindji (D) Emmerson
ur
Q.145 In photosynthesis CO2 combines with

o
(A) RUDP/RUBP (B) ATP (C) ADP (D) PGA

uj
Q.146 During the dark reactions of photosynthesis

Ed
(A) Water splits (B) CO2 is reduced to organic compounds

(C) Chlorophyll is activated (D) C6 sugar is broken into three carbon sugars
Q.147 The first stable product of photosynthesis in C3 plants is

(A) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (B) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(C) Fructose-1, 6-diphosphate (D) Ribulose-1, 5-di phosphate
Q.148 During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde which of the following
reaction occurs
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Electrolysis (D) Hydrolysis
Q.149 Which one of the following is a C4 plant

(A) Papaya (B) Potato (C) Maize (D) Pea
15.46
Q.150 Carbon refixation in C4 plants occurs in chloroplasts of

(A) Palisade tissue (B) Spongy Mesophyll
(C) Bundle sheath cells (D) Guard cells
Q.151 Tropical plants like sugarcane show high efficiency of CO2 fixation because of
(A) Calvin cycle (B) Hatch – Slack cycle
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation (D) TCA Cycle
Q.152 "Kranz" type of Anatomy is found in

(A) C4 plant (B) C3 plant
(C) Succulents (D) None of the above
n
Q.153 Carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 plants is
.i
(A) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid (PEP) (B) Ribulose-1, 5-di phosphate
(C) NADP al
(D) Ribulose -5- phosphate
n
Q.154 What is the first stable intermediate product of photosynthesis
ur
(A) Glucose (B) Formaldehyde

(C) Phosphoglyceric acid (D) PGAL
o
uj
Q.155 All the reactions from the reduction of CO2 to the formation of sugar are included in
Ed
(A) Light reaction (B) Photolysis

(C) Dark reaction (D) Hill reaction
Q.156 Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase enzyme, catalyze the carboxylation reaction between
(A) CO2 and ribulose-1, 5-diphosphate (B) Oxaloacetic acid and acetyl Co-A
(C) PGA and dihydroxyacetone phosphate (D) Ribulose diphosphate and phosphate glyceraldehyde
Q.157 Which of the following is C-4 plants

(A) Maize (B) Atriplex (C) Sugarcane (D) All of the above
Q.158 "Kranz Anatomy" is found in

(A) Flower (B) Seed (C) Leaves (D) Stem
15.47
Q.159 C4 plants are adapted to

(A) Hot and dry climate (B) Temperate climate
(C) Cold and dry climate (D) Hot and humid climate
Q.160 C4 plants are found among

(A) Only Gramineae (B) Only monocot
(C) Only dicot (D) Monocots as well as dicots
Q.161 In case of C-4 pathway, in the first step is

(A) CO2 combines with RUDP (B) CO2 combines with PGA
(C) CO2 combines with PEP (D) CO2 combines with RMP
n
Q.162 The enzyme which catalyzes the photosynthetic C4 cycle is
.i
(A) RUDP carboxylase (B) PEP carboxylase
(C) Carbonic anhydrase al
(D) None of these
n
Q.163 The family in which many plants are C4 type
ur
(A) Malvaceae (B) Solanaceae

(C) Crucifereae (D) Gramineae
o
uj
Q,164 In dark reaction, first reaction is the

Ed
(A) Carboxylation (B) Decarboxylation

(C) Dehydrogenation (D) Deamination
Q.165 Number of ATP molecules required for regeneration phase of RUBP during synthesis of 1 glucose
molecule
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 30
Q.166 Which of the following is likely to be the first substance that a green plant makes in photosynthesis
(A) A simple sugar (B) Starch
(C) Fats (D) Proteins
Q.167 Isotopes employed to study the process of photosynthesis reaction

(A) S35 and P32 (B) C14 and O18 (C) N14 and Co60 (D) N14 and O18
15.48
Q.168 Chloroplast is present in bundle sheath cells of

(A) C3-plants (B) C4-plants
(C) CAM plants (D) Photorespiring plants
Q.169 CO2 is accepted by RUBP in C4 plants in

(A) Mesophyll cells (B) Bundle sheath cells
(C) Stomatal guard cells (D) Epidermal cells
Q.170 How many type of photosynthetic cells occur in C4 plant is

(A) One type (B) Two type (C) Four type (D) Eight type
Q.171 Most efficient photosynthesis and presence of bundle sheath chloroplast are characteristics of
n
(A) C3-plants (B) C2 plants (C) C4 plants (D) CAM plants
.i
Q.172 In C4 pathway the fixation of CO2 by PEPCase occurs in
(A) Palisade tissue (B) Mesophyll
n al
(C) Bundle sheath (D) Guard cell
Q.173 Synthesis of fructose in C4 pathway occurs in the chloroplast of

ur
(A) Spongy mesophyll (B) Bundle sheath cells

o
(C) Guard cell (D) Palisade tissue

uj
Q.174 C2 and C3 cycles predominantly operates in

Ed
(A) Cytoplasm and mitochondria (B) Mitochondria and peroxisome

(C) Peroxisome and stroma (D) Stroma and grana of a chloroplast
Q.175 In addition to the 12 molecules of NADPH2 the energy required for the synthesis of one mole of
hexose by C3 and C4 pathway is
(A) 18 molecules of ATP
(B) 30 molecules of ATP
(C) 18 and 30 molecules of ATP respectively
(D) 30 and 18 molecules of ATP respectively
Q.176 How many molecules of water are needed by a green plant to produce one molecule of hexose/
reduce 6 molecules of CO2
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) Only one
15.49
Q.177 How much energy in terms of ATP equivalents is consumed in the photosynthetic production of a
mole of hexose
(A) 36 ATP equivalents (B) 38 ATP equivalents
(C) 40 ATP equivalents (D) 54 ATP equivalents
Q.178 How many molecules of Water would be consumed to support one Calvin cycles
(A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Six
Q.179 How many Calvin cycles would generate one molecules of glucose/hexose
(A) One cycle (B) Three cycles (C) Six cycles (D) Twelve cycles
Q.180 CAM – plants are mainly

(A) Succulent xerophyte (B) Hydrophytes
n
(C) Epiphytes (D) None of the above
.i
Q.181 Hatch and slack pathway occurs in
n al
(A) Amaranthus (B) Atriplex rosea
ur
(C) Saccharum (D) All of the above
o
Q.182 The first stable product of Calvin cycle and HSK-cycle are
uj
(A) 4-C and 3-C compounds (B) 4-C and 6-C compounds
(C) 3-C and 4-C compounds (D) 5-C and 4-C compounds
Ed
Q.183 Which one is the first seven carbon compound in the C3 cycle
(A) SHP (B) DHAP (C) SHDP (D) FDP
Q.184 Which compound is four carbon compound in the C3 cycle

(A) Erythrose-P (B) DHAP (C) PGAL (D) OAA
Q.185 Term-Apoplast and symplast first used by

(A) Clark (B) Munch (C) Dixon (D) Lungedardh
Q.186 Which of the following is used during discovery of Calvin cycle

(A) Spirogyra (B) Volvox (C) Chlamydomonas (D) Chlorella
15.50
Q.187 Primary receptor of CO2 in photosynthesis is

(A) Phosphoric acid (B) Ribulose phosphate
(C) Glucose (D) Ribulose -1, 5-biphosphate
Q.188 In photosynthesis energy from light reaction to dark reaction is transferred in the form of
(A) ADP (B) ATP (C) RUDP (D) Chlorophyll
Q.189 The rate of photosynthesis does not depend upon

(A) Light duration (B) Light intensity
(C) Light quality (colour) (D) Temperature
Q.190 Optimum temperature of photosynthesis is
n
(A) 10-15oC (B) 20-25oC (C) 20-35oC (D) 35-50oC
.i
Q.191 Which one of the following have high CO2 compensation point
(A) C2 plants (B) C3 plants
n al
(C) C4 plants (D) Alpine herbs
Q.192 Solarization is a process in which

ur
(A) Sugar are formed with the help of solar energy

o
(B) Chlorophyll is formed

uj
(C) Destruction of chlorophyll and ultimate death of protoplasmic components

Ed
(D) Mobilization of light energy
Q.193 Accumulation of food in assimilatory cells results in

(A) Increase in the rate of photosynthesis
(B) Decrease in the rate of photosynthesis
(C) No effect
(D) May increase or decrease
Q.194 The principle of limiting factor was given by

(A) Hill (B) F.F. Blackman
(C) Willstatter and Stoll (D) Calvin
15.51
Q.195 Etiolated plants are formed due to lack of

(A) Light (B) Hg (C) Fe (D) Mg
Q.196 During day light hours, the rate of photosynthesis is higher than that of respiration and the ration of
oxygen produced to that of consumed is
(A) 10: 1 (B) 5: 1 (C) 1: 1 (D) 50: 1
Q.197 Substrate for photorespiration is

(A) Serine (B) Glycolate (C) Indole acetic acid (D) Malic acid
Q.198 Generally atmo. CO2 is not limiting for hydrophytes

(A) Mesophytes plants fix H2S in their photosynthesis
(B) These plants obtain CO2 from water in the form of HCO3-
n
(C) Glucose is not required for their respiration
.i
(D) All the above
n al
Q.199 What is called ‘’Warburg’s effect’’ on photosynthesis
ur
(A) Low rate of process due to O2 supply
(B) Low rate of the process due to CO2 supply
o

uj

Ed
Q.200 Bacterial photosynthesis involves

(A) PS-I only (B) PS-II only
(C) Both PS-I and PS-II (D) None of the above
Q.201 Photorespiration occurs in

(C) Peroxisome (D) Cytoplasm
Q.202 What is C2 cycle

(A) Glycolate Cycle (B) Calvin cycle
(C) Kreb’s cycle (D) TCA – cycle
15.52
Q.203 Drosera is a photosynthetic plant but still captures insects why ?

(A) Grown in N2 rich soil
(B) Grown in N2 deficient soil
(C) It is connecting plant between plants and animals
(D) Insects helps in its pollination
Q.204 Plants which exhibit photorespiration are

(A) C4 plants (B) C3 plants (C) CAM plants (D) Alpine plants
Q.205 Glycolate accumulates in chloroplast at

(A) Low temperature (B) Low CO2
(C) Visible light illumination (D) High CO2
.i n
Q.206 Which of the following plants are low CO2 compensation plants
(A) C3 plants (B) C4 plants
n al
(C) C2 plants (D) Alpine plants
Q.207 In photorespiring plants the atmospheric CO2 is fixed via

ur
(A) HSK-cycle (B) Kreb’s cycle (C) Calvin cycle (D) Glycolate cycle
o
Q.208 Compensation point means

uj
(A) When the rate of photosynthesis is equal to rate of respiration

Ed
(B) When there is neither photosynthesis nor respiration

(C) When the entire food manufactured in photosynthesis remains unutilized
(D) When availability of water equalize with necessity of water
Q.209 At the compensation point there will not be

(A) Any photosynthesis
(B) Any gaseous exchange between the plant and its environment
(C) Any respiration in plants
(D) Loss in weight of the plant in dark
Q.210 What does not occur in photorespiration

(A) Utilization of O2 (B) Production of CO2
(C) Synthesis of ATP (D) All the above
15.53
Q.211 DCMU is an inhibitor of

(A) PS-I (B) PS-II (C) Calvin cycle (D) Kreb’s cycle
Q.212 Which of the following plants can carry out photosynthesis even at – 20oC/below freezing point
(A) Palms (B) Marine algae
(C) Diatoms (D) Lichens
Q.213 Photorespiration occur during

(A) Respiration (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Transpiration (D) Translocation
Q.214 Photorespiration is discovered by
n
(A) Decker and Tio (B) Van Sachs
.i
(C) Rouhani (D) O'Leary
Q.215 Photorespiration is favored by

n al
(A) High light intensity (B) High temperature
ur
(C) High O2 concentration (D) All of the above

o
Q.216 Photorespiration does not occur in

uj
(A) C-4 plants (B) C-3 plants (C) C-2 plants (D) None of these
Ed
Q.217 What is the value of temperature coefficient (Q10) for dark reaction
(A) 1 (B) 2 or 3 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
Q.218 Main factor which limits the rate of photosynthesis

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Light (C) CO2 (D) Water
Q.219 Photosynthetic bacteria differ from green plants in

(A) Nature of their pigments
(B) Type of electron donors
(C) Photosynthetic process being non-oxygenic
15.54

Q.1 During photosynthesis, oxygen is evolved from [MP PMT 2002]
(A) H2S (B) H2O (C) CO2 (D) HCO3
Q.2 Bacteriochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll ‘a’ in having [RPMT 2003]

(A) One pyrrole nucleus with one hydrogen
(B) One pyrrole nucleus with two hydrogen
(C) One pyrrole nucleus with three hydrogen
(D) One pyrrole nucleus with four hydrogen
Q.3 In chlorophyll molecule ‘’Mg’’ in situated in [AIPMT 2003]
n
(A) Centre of porphyrin ring (B) Corner of porphyrin
.i
(C) In phytol tail (D) In isocyclic ring
n al
Q.4 Which one of the following concerns with photophosphorylation [AIPMT 2003]
(A) ADP + AMP 
Lightenergy
→ ATP
ur
(B) ADP + Inorganic PO4 

Lightenergy
→ ATP
o
uj
(C) ADP + Inorganic PO4 

→ ATP
Ed
(D) AMP + Inorganic PO4 → ATP
Q.5 Hill reaction occurs in [AIIMS 2003]

(A) High altitude plants (B) Total darkness
(C) Presence of ferricyanide (D) Absence of water
Q.6 Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Water molecule (C) O2 (D) RUBP
Q.7 The enzyme that fixes atmospheric CO2 in C4 plants is [AIPMT 2003]
(A) PEP carboxylase (B) Hexokinase
(C) RUBP oxygenase (D) Hydrogenase
15.55
Q.8 Bundle sheath chloroplast of C4 plant are [KCET 2003]

(A) Large and agranal (B) Large and granal
(C) Small and agranal (D) Small and granal
Q.9 Photorespiration in C3 plants starts from [AIIMS 2003]

(A) Phosphoglycerate (B) Glycerate
(C) Glycine (D) Phosphoglycolate
Q.10 Photorespiration is favored by [RRMT 2004]

(A) Low light intensity (B) Low O2 and high CO2
(C) Low temperature (D) High O2 and low CO2
n
Q.11 The substrate of photorespiration is [MP PMT 2002]
.i
(A) Glycolate (B) Glucose al
(C) Pyruvic acid
n (D) Acetyl CO-A
Q.12 Tracer elements are [MP PMT 2002]

ur
(A) Micro-elements (B) Macro-elements (C) Radio-isotopes (D) Vitamins

o
Q.13 Choose the correct match [AIPMT 2002]

uj
Bladderwort, sundew, Venus flytrap

Ed
(A) Nepenthese, dionea, Drosera (B) Nepenthese, Utricularia, Vanda

(C) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea (D) Dionea, Trapa, Vanda
Q.14 Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration [AIPMT 2003]
(A) It occurs in chloroplasts (B) It occurs in daytime only
(C) It is a characteristic of C4 plants (D) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
Q.15 Plants adapted to low light intensity have [AIPMT 2004]

(A) Leaves modified to spines
(B) Large photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants
(C) Higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants
(D) More extended root system
15.56
Q.16 In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the [AIPMT 2004]

(A) Stroma (B) Outer membrane
(C) Inner membrane (D) Thylakoids
Q.17 Which one of the following categories of organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis
[AIIMS 2004]
(A) Red algae (B) Photosynthetic bacteria
(C) C4- plants with Kranz anatomy (D) Blue green algae
Q.18 Which pair is wrong [AIPMT 2001]

(A) C3 plant-maize (B) Calvin cycle PGA
(C) Hatch slack cycle (D) C4 plant Kranz anatomy
.i n
Q.19 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in [AIPMT 2005]
(A) Grana (B) Pyrenoid
n al
(C) Stroma (D) Both grana and stroma
ur
Q.20 As compared to a C3 plant how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of
one molecule of hexose sugar by C4 plants [AIPMT 2005]
o
(A) Two (B) Six (C) Zero (D) Twelve

uj
Ed
Q.21 Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by [AIPMT 2005]
(A) All bacteria, fungi and algae
(B) Fungi, algae and green plant cells
(C) Some bacteria, algae and green plants cells
(D) Viruses, fungi and bacteria
Q.22 Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths [AIPMT 2005]
(A) 400-700 nm (B) 450-920 nm (C) 340-450 nm (D) 500-600 nm
Q.23 In light reaction of photosynthesis oxygen comes from [RPMT 2005]

(A) Water (B) CO2 (C) Soil (D) Atmosphere
15.57
Q.24 Product of light reaction of photosynthesis is [RPMT 2005]

(A) Carbohydrate (B) ATP
(C) NADP and O2 (D) NADPH2, ATP and O2
Q.25 During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in [AIPMT 2006]
(A) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(B) Stroma of chloroplasts
(C) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
(D) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
Q.26 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is
[AIPMT 2007]
n
(A) Quinone (B) Cytochrome
.i
(C) Iron-sulphur protein (D) Ferredoxin
n al
Q.27 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
[AIPMT 2007]
ur
(A) Epidermis (B) Mesophyll (C) Bundle sheath (D) Phloem

o
uj
Q.28 In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Bundle sheath (B) Guard cells
Ed
(C) Epidermal cells (D) Mesophyll cells
Q.29 The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because [AIPMT 2008]
(A) The CO2 efflux is not prevented
(B) They have more chloroplasts
(C) 2 CO2 compensation point is more
(D) CO2 generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
Q.30 Electron from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by [AIPMT 2008]
(A) Quinone (B) Ferredoxin
(C) Cytochrome-b (D) Cytochrome-f
15.58
Q.31 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in [AIPMT 2009]

(A) Oscillatoria (B) Rhodospirillum
(C) Chlorobium (D) Chromatium
Q.32 Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of [AIPMT 2009]

(A) ATP and NADPH (B) ATP, NADPH and O2
(C) ATP (D) NADPH
Q.33 PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of [AIPMT pre 2010]
(A) Bryophyte (B) Gymnosperm (C) Angiosperm (D) Alga
Q.34 C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to [AIPMT pre 2010]
n
(A) Higher leaf area
.i
(B) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells
al
(C) Presence of thin cuticle
n
(D) Lower rate of photorespiration
ur
Q.35 Read the following four statements, A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct
o
statements [AIPMT mains 2010]

uj
Statements
Ed
(1) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in present of PSI only

(2) Only PSI is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
(4) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP
Options:
Q.36 CAM helps the plants in [AIPMT pre 2011]

(A) Conserving water (B) Secondary growth
(C) Disease resistance (D) Reproduction
15.59
Q.37 In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have [AIPMT mains 2011]
(A) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
(B) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
(C) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
(D) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
Q.38 A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is [AIPMT pre 2012]
(A) Photosynthesis (B) Photorespiration
(C) Transpiration (D) Glycolysis
Q.39 The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is [AIPMT pre 2012]
(A) Chloroplast-mitochondria-peroxisome
n
(B) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
.i
(C) Chloroplast-Golgi bodies-mitochondria
(D) Chloroplast-Rough endoplasmic reticulum-Dictyosomes.
n al
Q.40 In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is [AIPMT 2004]
ur
(A) Phosphoglyceraldehyde (B) Malic acid

o
(C) Oxaloacetic acid (D) 3-phosphoglyceric acid

uj
Q.41 What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts: [AIIMS 2008]
Ed
(A) Presence of pigments (B) Possession of thylakoids and grana

(C) Storage of starch, proteins and lipids (D) Ability to multiply by a fission like process
Q.42 Structurally chlorophyll a and b are different as: [J and K 2009]

(A) Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
(B) Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
(C) Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group
(D) Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
Q.43 Which one does not occur in cyclic photophosphorylation? [J and K 2009]
(A) Oxygen is not given off (B) Water is not consumed
(C) Only photosystem-I is involved (D) NADPH formation
15.60
Q.44 In higher plants, the shape of the chloroplasts is: [DUMET 2009]
(A) Discoid (B) Cup shaped (C) Girdle shaped (D) Reticulate
Q.45 In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells: [DUMET 2009]

(A) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange (B) Have large intercellular spaces
(C) Are rich in PEP carboxylase (D) Have a high density of chloroplasts
Q.46 Kranz anatomy is observed in: [AFMC 2009]

(A) C2 plants (B) C3 plants (C) C4 plants (D) CAM plants
Q.47 Primary CO2 acceptor of CAM plant: [UP-CPMT2009]

(A) OAA (B) PGA (C) PEP and RuBP (D) Citric add
.i n
Q.48 First stable compound in C3 plant is: [UP-CPMT2009]
(A) PGA (B) OAA
al
(C) RuBP
n
(D) PEP
ur
Q.49 Stomata of CAM plants: [UP-CPMT2009]
(A) Are always open (B) Open during the day and close at night
o
(C) Open during the night and close during the day (D) Never open
uj
Q.50 Stomata in the chloroplasts of higher plants contain: [CBSE 2009]

Ed
(A) Light independent reaction enzymes (B) Light dependent reaction enzymes
(C) Ribosomes (D) Chlorophyll
Q.51 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in: [CBSE 2009]

(A) Chromatium (B) Oscillatoria (C) Rhodospirillum (D) None of above
Q.52 The active component of photosystem-I is composed of: [AMU 2011]

(A) Chlorophyll a with absorption peak at 680 nm
(B) Chlorophyll a with absorption peak at 700 nm
(C) Chlorophyll h with absorption peak at 680 nm
(D) Chlorophyll a and h with absorption peak at 700 nm
15.61
Q.53 In photorespiration, the cell organelles involved are: [AMU 2011]

(A) Chloroplast and mitochondrion (B) Chloroplast only
(C) Chloroplast, mitochondrion and ribosome (D) Chloroplast, mitochondrion and peroxisome
Q.54 The conversion of phosphoglyceric acid to phosphoglyceraldehyde during photosynthesis can be

described as: [AMU 2011]
(A) Oxidation (B) Hydrolysis (C) Electrolysis (D) Reduction
Q.55 ATP can be formed in the photosynthesizing plant cells by: [AMU 2011]
(A) Photophosphorylation (B) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Substrate level phosphorylation (D) All of the above
n
Q.56 Energy released during movement of electrons through the photosystems in photosynthesis is used
.i
to drive protons across the membrane against concentration gradient. As a result the protons accumulate
in: [AMU 2011]
(A) Thylakoid lumen
n al
(B) Stroma
ur
(C) Intrathylakoid space (D) Stromal lamella
o
Q.57 The first event in photosynthesis is: [AMU 2011]

uj
(A) Photoexcitation of chlorophyll and electron emission

(B) Photolysis of water
Ed
(C) Release of oxygen

(D) Synthesis of ATP
Q.58 Rubisco is the most abundant enzyme in the world and present in very high concentration in
chloroplasts. It is required in very high concentration for photosynthesis because it: [AMU 2011]
(A) Is a very slow acting enzyme (B) Also acts as an oxygenase
(C) Catalyzes a reversible reaction (D) Is degraded very rapidly
Q.59 The enzyme, sucrose synthase, catalyzes the synthesis of sucrose from: [AMU 2011]
(A) UDPG + fructose (B) UDPF + glucose
(C) UDPG + glucose-6-phosphate (D) UDPG + fructose-6-phosphate
15.62
Q.60 Light reaction of photosynthesis occurs inside: [J&K 2011]

(A) Stroma (B) Grana
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Cytoplasm
Q.61 A reduction in the quantity of oxygen evolution during photosynthesis may be observed at:
[J&K 2011]
(A) Light having wave length more than 680 nm
(B) Light having wave length less than 680 nm
(C) Light having wave length 560 nm
(D) Light having wave length less than 360 nm
Q.62 Plants requiring low light intensity for optimum photosynthesis is called: [J&K 2011]
.i n
(A) Heliophytes (B) Pteridophytes (C) Sciophytes (D) Bryophytes
Q.63 Sunken stomata are usually found in:

n al [J&K 2011]
(A) C3 plants (B) CAM plants (C) Insectivorous plants (D) Phanerogams
ur
Q.64 Select the incorrect matched pair with regard to C4 cycle: [Kerala 2011]
o
(A) Primary CO2 fixation product - PGA

(B) Site of initial carboxylation - mesophyll cells
uj
(C) Primary CO2 acceptor - PEP

Ed
(D) C4 plant - maize

(e) Location of enzyme Rubisco - Bundle sheath cells
Q.65 In C3 cycle for the fixation of every CO2 molecule, the reduction and regeneration steps require:
[Kerala 2011]
(A) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2 (B) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH2
(C) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH2 (D) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH2
(e) 3 ATP and 1 NADPH2
Q.66 Which of the following is formed during photorespiration? [Kerala 2011]

(A) Sugar (B) Phosphoglycolate (C) NADPH
(D) ATP (E) Oxaloacetate
15.63
Q.67 Which of the following statements is true with regard to the light reaction of photosynthesis?
[Kerala 2011]
(A) In PSII the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at 700 nm, hence is called P 700
(B) In PSI the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption maxima at 680 nm and is called P 680
(C) The splitting of water molecule is associated with PS I
(D) Photosystems I and II are involved in Z scheme
(e) Lamellae of the grana have PS I and PS II and stroma lamellae membranes have PS II only.
Q.68 Read the following four statements (1 - 4): [AIPMT 2012]

(1) Both photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the
membrane
(2) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth
n
(3) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous
.i
(4) Symbiotic nitrogen fixers occur in free-living state also in soil
How many of the above statements are right?
n al
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) One
ur
Q.69 In the overall process of photosynthesis, the number of CO2, water, sugar and O2 molecules utilized
o
and produced is: [AMU 2012]

uj
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 19 (D) 31

Ed
Q.70 During Calvin cycle the total number of C02, ATP and NADPH molecules utilized and glucose, ADP
and NADP molecules generated is: [AMU 2012]
(A) 31 (B) 36 (C) 61 (D) 67
Q.71 Melvin Calvin was professor of: [AMU 2012]

(A) Botany (B) Plant physiology (C) Chemistry (D) Biochemistry
Q.72 The essential element needed for water splitting in photosynthesis leading to O2 evolution is:
[AMU 2012]
(A) Mo (B) Mn (C) Mg (D) K
15.64
Q.73 Non-cyclic photophosphorylation results in the production of: [J&K 2012]

(A) ADP (B) ATP (C) NADPH (D) ATP and NADPH
Q.74 Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) represents which of the following range of wavelength?
[BHU 2012]
(A) 500-600 nm (B) 450-950 nm (C) 340-450 nm (D) 400-700 nm
Q.75 Which elements are essential for the photophosphorylation? [AFMC 2012]
(A) Mg and P (B) Zn and I (C) K and Cl (D) Mn and Cl
Q.76 Kranz anatomy is usually associated with: [AIIMS 2012]

(A) C3 plants (B) C4 plants (C) CAM plants (D) C3 - C4 intermediate plants
.i n
Q.77 Which of the following statements regarding C4 pathway is false? [Kerala 2012]
n al
(A) The primary CO2 acceptor is phosphoenol pyruvate
(B) The enzyme responsible for CO2 fixation is PEP case
(C) The mesophyll cells lack RUBISCO enzyme
ur
(D) The C4 acid OAA is formed in the mesophyll cells.

o
(E) The bundle sheath cells contain the enzyme PEP case.
uj
Q.78 Consider the following statements with respect to photosynthesis: [Kerala 2012]
Ed
1. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is PGA

2. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during dark reaction is RuBP
3. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of ATP
4. Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis comes from water
Of the above statements:
(A) 1 and 2 alone are correct (B) 1 and 3 alone are correct (C) 3 and 4 alone are correct
(D) 2 and 3 alone are correct (E) 2 and 4 alone are correct
15.65
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 A Q.5 A Q.6 C
Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 D Q.10 D Q.11 A Q.12 D
Q.13 A Q.14 B Q.15 D Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 B
Q.19 D Q.20 C Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 B
Q.25 A Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 C Q.30 C
Q.31 D Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 B Q.36 C
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Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 C Q.40 B Q.41 C Q.42 D
.i
Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 A Q.46 D Q.47 A Q.48 D
Q.49 D Q.50 B Q.51 C
n al
Q.52 A Q.53 B Q.54 A
Q.55 A Q.56 A Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 D Q.60 C
ur
Q.61 C Q.62 A Q.63 A Q.64 C Q.65 C Q.66 B

o
Q.67 A Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 C Q.71 C Q.72 B

uj
Q.73 C Q.74 C Q.75 A Q.76 B Q.77 C Q.78 D

Q.79 B Q.80 C Q.81 D Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 C
Ed
Q.85 D Q.86 A Q.87 C Q.88 B Q.89 D Q.90 C

Q.91 C Q.92 C Q.93 A Q.94 A Q.95 D Q.96 B
Q.97 D Q.98 A Q.99 D Q.100 B Q.101 D Q.102 A
Q.103 D Q.104 C Q.105 B Q.106 B Q.107 D Q.108 D
Q.109 C Q.110 B Q.111 D Q.112 C Q.113 A Q.114 D
Q.115 B Q.116 A Q.117 B Q.118 B Q.119 C Q.120 B
Q.121 B Q.122 C Q.123 C Q.124 D Q.125 C Q.126 B
Q.127 A Q.128 C Q.129 D Q.130 B Q.131 B Q.132 A
Q.133 C Q.134 B Q.135 A Q.136 A Q.137 B Q.138 D
Q.139 D Q.140 B Q.141 B Q.142 B Q.143 A Q.144 C
Q.145 A Q.146 B Q.147 A Q.148 B Q.149 C Q.150 C
15.66
Q.151 B Q.152 A Q.153 A Q.154 C Q.155 C Q.156 A

Q.157 D Q.158 C Q.159 A Q.160 D Q.161 C Q.162 B
Q.163 D Q.164 A Q.165 A Q.166 A Q.167 B Q.168 B
Q.169 B Q.170 B Q.171 C Q.172 B Q.173 B Q.174 C
Q.175 C Q.176 B Q.177 D Q.178 B Q.179 C Q.180 A
Q.181 D Q.182 C Q.183 C Q.184 A Q.185 B Q.186 D
Q.187 D Q.188 B Q.189 B Q.190 A Q.191 C Q.192 B
Q.193 C Q.194 B Q.195 B Q.196 A Q.197 A Q.198 B
Q.199 B Q.200 A Q.201 A Q.202 C Q.203 A Q.204 B
Q.205 B Q.206 B Q.207 B Q.208 C Q.209 A Q.210 B
Q.211 C Q.212 B Q.213 D Q.214 B Q.215 A Q.216 D
n
Q.217 A Q.218 B Q.219 C
.i
n al
ur
Q.1 B Q.2 B Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 C Q.6 A

o
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 D Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 A

uj
Q.13 C Q.14 C Q.15 B Q.16 D Q.17 B Q.18 A

Ed
Q.19 A Q.20 D Q.21 C Q.22 A Q.23 A Q.24 D

Q.25 D Q.26 A Q.27 B Q.28 D Q.29 B Q.30 A
Q.31 A Q.32 C Q.33 D Q.34 B Q.35 D Q.36 A
Q.37 C Q.38 B Q.39 A Q.40 D Q.41 D Q.42 A
Q.43 D Q.44 A Q.45 D Q.46 C Q.47 C Q.48 A
Q.49 C Q.50 A Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 D Q.54 D
Q.55 A Q.56 A Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 D Q.60 B
Q.61 D Q.62 C Q.63 B Q.64 A Q.65 A Q.66 B
Q.67 D Q.68 A Q.69 D Q.70 D Q.71 C Q.72 B
Q.73 D Q.74 D Q.75 D Q.76 B Q.77 E Q.78 C
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|VOL.II|Unit 2
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Principles of Inheritance
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and Variation
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5.1
CHAPTER 5
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE
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AND VARIATION
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1. Introduction
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Topics Discussed
The branch of biology known as Genetics deals
INTRODUCTION with the inheritance, as well as the variation of
o
characters from parents to offspring. Inheritance

MENDEL’S LAWS OF INHERITANCE
uj
is the process by which ancestral characters are

DEVIATION FROM MENDELISM passed on from parent to progeny; it is the basis of
Ed
CHROMOSOME THEORY OF INHERITANCE heredity. Variation is the degree by which progeny

differ from their parents. We have all become
CHROMOSOMES AND GENES aware through simple observations that all living
LINKAGE AND CROSSING OVER beings have individuality. Another point of interest
is that a mango seed forms only a mango plant and
SEX LINKED INHERITANCE not any other plant, and an elephant always gives
MENDELIAN DISORDERS IN HUMANS birth only to a baby elephant and not some other
animal. These all can be accounted to one of the
CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS IN HUMANS most fundamental attributes of all living organisms,
which is reproduction. Progeny receives the
characters from parents in the form of egg and
sperm. Because of this feature, the progeny
resembles its parents.
As early as 8000-1000 B.C, humans knew that one
of the causes of variation was hidden in sexual
reproduction.
5.2
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
They exploited the variations that were naturally present in the wild populations of plants and animals
to selectively breed and select for organisms that possessed desirable characters. There has been an
inheritance of basic plan, distinctive of every species and due to which generations of every species
resembles its ancestors. Yet, there are differences between the parents and the progeny which forms the
main trigger for geneticists for further researches.
DID YOU KNOW

y The science of genetics arose with the rediscovery of Mendelism in 1900.
y The term ‘Genetics’ was coined by W. Beteson in 1905.
? y The study of Genetics enabled us to differentiate between hereditary and environmental

variations.
y The science primarily concerned with precise understanding of biological properties
n
which are transmitted from parent to offspring is called Genetics.
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y The process of transmission of characters from one generation to another is called
inheritance or heredity.
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ur
Objectives
o
y Learn about Principles of Mendelian inheritance with emphasis on Mendel’s work and results obtained
uj
during his experimentation.

Ed
y Focus on establishing the concept of multiple allelism as well as pleiotropy.

y Study the consequences, chromosomal mechanisms of sex determination and specific examples of
various sex-linked inheritance.
2. Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance

Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and
proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. Among the traits that Mendel studied were the colour
of a plant’s flowers, their location on the plant, the shape and colour of pea pods, the shape and colour of
seeds, and the length of plant stems. Mendel’s approach was to transfer pollen (which contains male sex
cells) from the stamen (the male reproductive organ) of one pea plant to the pistil (female reproductive
organ) of a second pea plant.
5.3
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Mendel chose garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his experiment due to the following advantages:
y The pea plant was self-fertilizing which helped to obtain pure-lines.
y The pea plant was easy to cultivate and took only one growing season to pass from one
generation to another.
y Peas possess many desirable features and sharply defined inherited characters.
y The cross-pollination and fertilization can also be achieved easily.
y The flowers are bisexual and hermaphrodite.
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Figure 5.1: Steps involved in cross pollination in pea plants
His experiments had a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he collected. Also,
the confirmation of his inferences from experiments on successive generations of his test plants, proved
that his results pointed to general rules of inheritance rather than being unsubstantiated ideas. Mendel
investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits, E.g. Tall or
dwarf plant; yellow or green seeds. The seven contrasting characters that were studied by Mendel are:
y Tall vine Vs Dwarf vine
y Axial flowers and pods Vs Terminal flowers and pods
y Light or dark green pods Vs Yellow pods
y Non-constricted or full pods Vs Constricted pods
y Grey seed coat Vs White seed coat
5.4
y Yellow endosperm Vs Green endosperm

y Round seeds Vs Wrinkled seeds.
Table 5.1: Display of contrasting traits i.e. Dominant and Recessive trait for the
different characters in pea (Pisum sativum) plant
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2.1 Inheritance of One Gene

o
Mendel discovered that the next generation, the

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“F1” (first filial generation), was comprised

entirely of individuals exhibiting only one of the
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traits. However, when this generation was

interbred, its offspring, the “F2” (second filial
generation), showed a 3:1 ratio i.e. three
individuals had the same trait as one parent and
one individual had the other parent’s trait.
Mendel then theorized that genes can be made
up of three possible pairings of heredity units,
which he called ‘factors’: AA, Aa, and aa. The
big ‘A’ represents the dominant factor and the
little ‘a’ represents the recessive factor. In
Mendel’s crosses, the starting plants were
homozygous AA or aa, the F1 generation were
Aa, and the F2 generation were AA, Aa, or aa.
The interaction between these two determines
the physical trait that is visible to us.
Figure 5.2: Diagrammatic representation of
monohybrid cross
5.5
Similar results were obtained with the other traits that he studied: only one of the parental traits was
expressed in the F1 generation while at the F2 stage both the traits were expressed in the proportion 3:1.
The traits did not show any blending at either F1 or F2 stage.
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of the zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants can be
understood from a diagram called Punnett Square. It was developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C.
Punnett. It is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in
a genetic cross. The ratio is
Phenotypic ratio = 3 (Tall) : 1 (dwarf)
Genotypic ratio = 1 (TT tall) : 2 (Tt tall) : 1 (tt dwarf)
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5.6
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Figure 5.3: Monohybrid cross for character trait of plant height in pea starting from
parental generation to F1 and F2 generations
5.7
Table 5.2: Punnet square for the monohybrid cross

Male/Female T t
T TT (Tall) Tt (Tall)
t Tt (Tall) tt (Dwarf)
Mendel’s observations and conclusions are summarized in the following two principles, or laws:
Law of Segregation:
The Law of Segregation states that for any trait, each parent’s pairing of genes (alleles) split and one gene
passes from each parent to an offspring. Which particular gene in a pair gets passed on is completely up
to chance.
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Flowchart 5.1: Possible gametes produced by Hybrid F1 plants possessing either

androecium or gynoecium
5.8
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Figure 5.4: Dihybrid cross for character traits of seed shape and seed color in pea plant
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starting from parental generation to F1 and F2 generations

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Law of Independent Assortment:

The Law of Independent Assortment states that different pairs of alleles are passed onto the offspring
independently of each other. Therefore, inheritance of genes at one location in a genome does not influence
the inheritance of genes at another location.
Mendel crossed pea plants differing in two characters (dihybrid cross) to verify the results of monohybrid
crosses. This helped him to understand inheritance of two pairs of factors at a time. A cross was made
between a pure round yellow-seeded pea plant (RRYY) with wrinkled green-seeded pea plant (rryy). Yellow
colour is dominant over green and rounded seed shape over wrinkled seed shape.
Mendel found that plants of the F1 generation have all yellow and round seeds because yellow and round
traits are respectively dominant over green and wrinkled traits. These results were identical to those that he
got when he made separate monohybrid crosses between yellow and green seeded plants and between
round and wrinkled seeded plants.
5.9
P generation Yellow Round Green Wrinkled
RR YY rr yy
F1 generation Rr Yy (Round Yellow)
F2 generation
Male/Female RY rY Ry ry
RY RRYY RrYY RRYy RrYy
(homozygous (hybrid round; (homozygous (hybrid round;
round; homozygous round; hybrid
n
homozygous hybrid yellow)
yellow) yellow) yellow)
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rY RrYY
(hybrid round;
rrYY
(homozygous
n al RrYy
(hybrid round;
rrYy
(homozygous
homozygous wrinkled; hybrid yellow) wrinkled; hybrid
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yellow) homozygous yellow)
yellow)
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Ry RRYy RrYy RRyy Rryy

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(homozygous (hybrid round; (homozygous (hybrid round;

round; hybrid hybrid yellow) round; hybrid homozygous
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yellow) yellow) green)

ry RrYy rrYy Rryy rryy
(hybrid round; (homozygous (hybrid round; (homozygous
hybrid yellow) green; hybrid homozygous wrinkled;
yellow) green) homozygous
green)
Phenotypic ratio: Round Yellow : Round Green : Wrinkled Yellow : Wrinkled Green
9/16 3/16 3/16 1/16
Genotypic ratio: 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (9 types of genotypes)
5.10
2.2 Concept of ‘Factors’

Based on these observations, Mendel proposed that something was being stable passed down, unchanged,
from parent to offspring through the gametes, over successive generations. He called these things as
‘factors’. We now call these factors “genes”. Therefore, a gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance.
They contain the information that is required to express a particular trait in an organism. Chemically gene is
a segment of DNA that has a particular function, the common being synthesis of polypeptide.
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles i.e., they are slightly different forms
of the same gene. Therefore, term gene can be used for any factor but term allele is used with reference to
another allele. We use alphabetical symbols for each gene, the capital letter is used for the trait expressed
at the F1 stage and small alphabet for the other trait. For example, if T is used for the ‘tall’ trait and t for
‘dwarf’ then T and t are alleles of each other. Therefore, in plants (Diploid) the pair of alleles for height would
be TT. Tt or tt. We should not use T for tall and d for dwarf because we will find it difficult to remember
whether T and d are alleles of the same character or not.
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Test Cross
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From the preceding paragraphs it is clear that though the genotypic ratios can be calculated using
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mathematical probability, by looking at the phenotype of a dominant trait, it is not possible to know the
genotypic composition. For example, whether a tall plant from F1 or F2 has TT or Tt composition, cannot be
n
predicted. Therefore, to determine the genotype of a tall plat at F2, Mendel crossed the tall plant from F2 with
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a dwarf plant. This is called a test cross. In a typical test cross, an organism showing a dominant phenotype
is crossed with the recessive parent instead of self-pollination. The progenies of such a cross can be easily
o
analysed to predict the genotype of test organism.

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Figure 5.5: Test cross for determination of genotype of the F1 generation of pea plant for colour of flower
5.11
E.g. If homozygous dominant F1 hybrid (TT) is crossed with the recessive parent, it will always result 100%
heterozygous tall hybrids.
If heterozygous dominant F1 hybrid (Tt) is test crossed with the recessive parent, only 50% will be tall and
the rest 50% will be dwarf.
A B
Figure 5.6: Test cross for determination of genotype of the F1 generation of pea plant for height of pea
plant. A. When F1 hybrid is homozygous dominant and B. When F1 hybrid is heterozygous dominant
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Table 5.3: Difference between Test cross and Back cross
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Test Cross al Back Cross
All test crosses are considered as backcrosses. Whereas, all backcrosses are not the test crosses.
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During test cross, F1 hybrid is always crossed During backcross, F1 hybrid is crossed back with any of
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back with the recessive parent. the parents, either homozygous or heterozygous.
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A B
Figure 5.7: Examples of back cross where ‘A’ is axial position of flower and ‘a’ is terminal position of flower
in pea plant A. Heterozygous dominant position of flower and B. Homozygous dominant position of flower
5.12
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
y Based on these observations, Mendel proposed that something was being stably passed
down, unchanged, from parent to offspring through the gametes, over successive
generations. He called these things as ‘factors’. Now we call them as genes. Genes,
therefore, are the units of inheritance.
y Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles, i.e., they are slightly
different forms of the same gene.
y Tall or dwarf pea variety the allelic pair of genes for height are identical or homozygous,
TT and tt, respectively. Whereas, hybrids have Tt. Since these hybrids contain alleles
which express contrasting traits, the plants are heterozygous. Bateson and Saunders
termed this condition as ‘heterozygous’.
y Complete genetic makeup of the individual with respect to characters/traits is termed as
n
Genotype while the physical manifestation of the genotypic arrangement due to various
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combinations of different alleles of genes, in the form of morphological characteristics
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is termed as phenotype. E.g. TT and tt are called the genotype of the plant while the
descriptive terms tall and dwarf are the phenotype.
n
y As Mendel found the phenotype of the F1 heterozygote Tt to be exactly like the TT parent
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in appearance, he proposed that in a pair of dissimilar factors, one dominates the other
(as in the F1) and hence is called the dominant factor while the other factor is recessive.
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y The Tt plant is heterozygous for genes controlling one character (height), it is a monohybrid
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and the cross between TT and tt is a monohybrid cross.

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TRY IT YOURSELF
1. How many types of gametes are possible from a diploid organism having genotype
AaBBCC?
2. Which of the following genotype will produce four different types of gametes?
(A) AAbbccddEE
(B) aaBbCCdd
(C) AaBbCC
(D) Aabb
5.13
TRY IT YOURSELF
3. In Pisum sativum, the pods may be green (G) or yellow (g). what proportion of the
offspring in the following crosses would be expected to be homozygous green?
a. Gg x gg
b. Gg x GG
4. In a cross between a yellow and a green seeded pea plants, all F1 members are yellow.
But F2 generation raised by crossing two such F1 consists of approximately 75% yellow
and 25% green seeded pea plants.
a. What will be the offspring be like if two F2 greens are mates?
b. What will be genotypic ratio in the population of yellow-seeded plants in F2
generation?
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3. Deviation from Mendelism
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3.1 Incomplete Dominance
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Incomplete dominance refers to a genetic situation in which one allele does not completely dominate
another allele, and therefore results in a new phenotype. When experiments on peas were repeated using
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other traits in other plants, it was found that sometimes the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either
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of the two parents and was in between the two.

Incomplete dominance is seen in cross-pollination experiments between red and white Snapdragon
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(Antirrhinum majus) plants. The allele that produces the red color (R) is not completely expressed over
the recessive allele that produces the white color (r). The resulting offspring are pink. The genotypes are:
(RR) Red, (rr) White, and (Rr) Pink in the ratio of 1:2:1. In heterozygous condition (Rr), phenotypic effect
of one allele is more pronounced than that of other and then mixing of both of the colours (red and white)
occurs that results in the development of pink colour.
5.14
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Figure 5.8: Complete result of a monohybrid cross in the plant Snapdragon displaying incomplete
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dominance for color of flower

Other examples include:
y A brown fur coat on a rabbit as a result of one rabbit’s red allele and one rabbit’s white allele not
dominating.
y A child with wavy hair as a result of one parent’s curly hair and the other’s straight hair.
y Combination of alleles responsible for long starch grain of rice and its short starch grain results in
intermediate starch grain of rice due to incomplete dominance.
3.2 Co-Dominance
In co-dominance, a hybrid organism shows a third phenotype --- not the usual “dominant” one and not the
“recessive” one ... but a third, different phenotype. With incomplete dominance we get a blending of the
dominant and recessive traits so that the third phenotype is something in the middle (red x white = pink).
In Co-dominance, the “recessive” and “dominant” traits appear together in the phenotype of hybrid organisms
5.15
The symbols used for co-dominant genes are different. One method is to show by their own capital alphatets.
E.g. R (for red hair in cattle) and W (for white hair in cattle). In another method, capital base symbols are
employed for both the alleles with different superscripts, e.g., IA, IB.
Example: ABO blood group is also a good example of co-dominance. For ABO system of blood groups,
allele IA produces N-acetylgalactosamyl transferase enzyme which recognises H antigen present in RBC
membrane and adds N-acetylgalactosamine to sugar part of H antigen to form A antigen. The allele
IB produces galactosyl transferase enzyme which adds galactose to sugar part of H antigen to form B
antigen. Allele i does not produce any sugar or antigen. IA and IB are completely dominant over i. In other
words when IA and i are present only IA expresses as i are present, only IB expresses. When both IA and
IB are present in a person, both enzymes thus both antigens A and B are produced. This is because of
co-dominance. These antigens determines the type of blood group. Blood group A have antigen A, group B
have antigen B, AB have both antigens while blood group O do not carry any antigen. Thus, six genotypes
and four phenotypes are possible.
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Table 5.4: Blood groups in humans and its genetic basis
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Allele from Allele from Genotype of Blood types of
al Antigen
Parent 1 Parent 2 offspring offspring
n
IA IA IAIA A A
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IA IB IAIB A, B AB
IA i IAi A A
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IB IA IAIB A, B AB
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IB IB IBIB B B
IB i IBi B B
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i i ii Neither O
3.3 Multiple Alleles

Multiple alleles is a type of non-Mendelian inheritance pattern that involves more than just the typical two
alleles that usually code for a certain characteristic in a species. With multiple alleles, that means there is
more than two phenotypes available depending on the dominant or recessive alleles that are available in
the trait and the dominance pattern the individual alleles follow when combined together.
A good example is different types of red blood cells that determine ABO blood grouping in human beings.
ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar
polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene (I) has
three alleles IA, IB and i/Io. Despite the presence of three alleles of the same gene in a population, an
individual (2n) can have only two alleles. Therefore, multiple alleles can be detected only in a population.
Since there are three different alleles. Therefore, six different genotypes are possible for this character
5.16
(IAIA, IAIO; IBIB, IBIO; IAIB; IOIO or ii). Now to know, how many phenotype are possible, we have to see the
detailed behaviour of alleles. Thus, six genotypes and four phenotypes are possible.
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Figure 5.9: The role of multiple alleles in determination of blood group

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3.4 Pleiotropy
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It means that ‘One Gene Can Affect Multiple Traits’. During his study of inheritance in pea plants,
Gregor Mendel made several interesting observations regarding the colour of various plant components.
Specifically, Mendel noticed that plants with coloured seed coats always had coloured flowers and coloured
leaf axils. Mendel also observed that pea plants with colourless seed coats always had white flowers and no
pigmentation on their axils. In other words, in Mendel’s pea plants, seed coat colour was always associated
with specific flower and axil colours.
Today, we know that Mendel’s observations were the result of pleiotropy, or the phenomenon in which a
single gene contributes to multiple phenotypic traits. In this case, the seed coat colour gene, denoted a,
was not only responsible for seed coat colour, but also for flower and axil pigmentation. Examples include:
a. In phenylketonuria, mutation of a gene that codes for the enzymes phenyl alanine hydroxylase,
results in a phenotypic expression characterized by mental retardation and a reduction in hair and skin
pigmentation.
b. In Drosophila, white eye mutation leads to depigmentation in many other parts of the body, giving a
pleiotropic effect.
5.17
c. Sickle cell anemia is a form of pleiotropy, caused by a distinctive mutation in one gene which leads to
a host of symptoms.
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
1. The term pleiotropy is derived from the Greek words pleio, which means “many,”
and tropic, which means “affecting.” Genes that affect multiple, apparently unrelated,
phenotypes are thus called pleiotropic genes.
2. Rh factor: it is an antigen protein on the surface of RBC, reported by Landsteiner and
Weiner in the blood of Indian brown Rhesus monkey (Macacus rhesus).
3.5 Elementary Idea of Polygenic Inheritance
n
Pleiotropy should not be confused with polygenic traits, in which multiple genes converge to result in a
single phenotype. Polygenic inheritance or qualitative inheritance is controlled by two or more genes in
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which dominant alleles have cumulative effect, with each dominant allele expressing a part of functional
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polypeptide and full trait is shown when all dominant alleles are present. Genes involved in this qualitative
inheritance are called polygenes.
n
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Examples of polygenic inheritance in humans include height, eye color and skin color. Physical traits
that have polygenic inheritance are influenced by more than one gene and typically display a continuous
distribution, such as a range of heights. Polygenic traits do not have the classic phenotypic ratios of
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Mendelian inheritance.
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5.18
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Figure 5.10: Complete result displaying polygenic inheritance of skin colour in man
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Figure 5.11: Graphical representation in the shape of bell-shaped curve for

skin pigmentation in human beings
Some other example of quantitative traits are cob length in maize, human intelligence, milk and meat
production, height in human and size, shape and number of seeds and fruits in plants.
5.19
a. Number of phenotype for polygenes = 2n + 1

b. Number of genotype for polygenes = 3n, where n represents pair of polygenes.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. When a cross is made between white and pink flowered Antirrhinum plants, what
phenotypic ratio is obtained in the resulting generation?
2. State True or False :
a. A gamete carries only one factor of a character
b. Starch synthesis in wrinkled seeded pea plants is most efficient.
c. Modified allele is always the recessive allele.
d. Human beings have three alleles for ABO blood grouping; IA, IB and IO. How many
n
of these alleles will be present in one individual and a gamete?
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e. A child has blood group B. If the mother has blood group AB and father blood
other offsprings.
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group A, workout the genotype of the parents and the possible genotypes of the
3. In a cross between two pea plants with genotypes TtYY (tall plant with yellow seeds)
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and Ttyy (tall plants with green seeds), what proportion of the offsprings could be
expected to be:
o
a. Tall and yellow

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b. Dwarf and green

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4. In an animal, assume that rough coat (R) is dominant over smooth coat (r) and the
black (B) is dominant over white (b). Consider that these two pairs of alleles assort
independently then
a. What proportion of the offspring from the cross RrBb x RRBB would be rough and
black?
b. From the cross RrBB x rrBB, how many progeny will be homozygous for both of
the characters?
5. Calculate the sum total of phenotypes and genotypes in F2 generation if a character is
controlled by two pair of polygenes.
5.20
4. Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance

Gregor Mendel’s experiments with pea plants established many of the rules of heredity and they were
widely accepted. At this time, however, it was not known what the mechanism of heredity could be - the
function of DNA was unknown. As such, though Mendel started his work on pea in 1856 and published it in
1865, his work did not receive any recognition, it deserved, till 1900. Mendel work remained unnoticed and
unappreciated. Later, due to advancements in microscopy that were taking place, scientists were able to
carefully observe cell division. This led to the discovery of structures in the nucleus that appeared to double
and divide just before each cell division. By 1902, the chromosome movement during meiosis had been
worked out. It was found that, there is a striking relationship between Mendelian factors and the chromosomes.
The breakthrough came when scientists recognized that chromosomes organized themselves into pairs
during meiosis; those pairs split during meiotic division in such a way that each daughter cell received only
one from each pair. If the chromosomes themselves carried the genetic information, then this behavior
explained Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
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Figure 5.12: Meiosis process and germ cell generation in a cell possessing four chromosomes
5.21
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Figure 5.13: Diagrammatic representation displaying independent assortment of chromosomes in

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heterozygous plants for seed colour and seed shape
DID YOU KNOW

y In 1902, Theodor Boveri observed that proper embryonic development of sea
urchins does not occur unless chromosomes are present. That same year, Walter
Sutton observed the separation of chromosomes into daughter cells during meiosis.
? Together, these observations led to the development of the Chromosomal Theory

of Inheritance, which identified chromosomes as the genetic material responsible
for Mendelian inheritance.
y de Vries found out the paper of Mendel and got it published in Flora in 1901.
y Bateson, Punnett and other subsequent workers found Mendel’s work to be
having universal application including animals.
5.22
As was proposed independently by Sutton and Boveri, ‘The Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance’ was
consistent with Mendel’s laws and was supported by the following observations:
y Like the hereditary traits the chromosomes retain their number, structure and individuality throughout
the life of an organism and from generation to generation. The two neither get lost nor mixed up. They
behave as units.
y Both chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs in the somatic or diploid cells. The two alleles of a
gene pair are located on homologous sites on homologus chromosomes. Both chromosomes as well
as genes segregate at the time of gamete formation such that only one of each pair is transmitted to a
gamete.
y A gamete contains only one chromosome of a type and only one of the two alleles of a trait.
y The paired condition of both chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors is restored during fertilization.
However, critics pointed out that individuals had far more independently segregating traits than they
had chromosomes. It was only after several years of carrying out crosses with the fruit fly, Drosophila
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melanogaster, that Thomas Hunt Morgan provided experimental evidence to support the Chromosomal
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Theory of Inheritance.
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A. Female B. Male
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Figure 5.14: A. Female and B. Male Drosophila melanogaster with their respective sex chromosomes
Table 5.5: Difference between Chromosomes and Genes

Chromosomes Genes
Occur in pairs Occur in pairs.
Segregate at the time of gamete formation such that Segregate at gamete formation and only one of
only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete. each pair is transmitted to a gamete.
Independent pairs segregate independently of One pair segregates independently of another pair.
each other.
5.23
5. Sex Determination
Sex determination is the establishment of sex through differential development in an individual at an early
stage of life. Different species use very different strategies for this purpose. Some organisms like turtles
rely entirely on environmental factors such as temperature for sex determination. Sex of human being and
insects like grasshopper, firefly, Drosophila etc. is determined genetically.
Chromosomal basis of sex-determination is of the following types:
Male heterogamety: In this type male individual produces two different types of gametes. Thus, the sperm
determines the sex of the offspring. it involves two types of sex determining mechanisms; XO type and XY type.
i. XO type (XX-XO type): It is observed in large number of insects e.g. Grasshopper. Number of
chromosomes are different in male and female individuals.
It is clear that, all eggs (ova) bear an additional X-chromosome besides the autosomes while only 50%
of the sperms bear X-chromosomes. In grasshopper, eggs fertilized by (A+X) type sperm become
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females while those fertilized by (A+O) type sperm become males. Therefore, sperm determines
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the sex of the offspring. Due to the involvement of the X-chromosome in sex determination, it was
designated to be the sex chromosome.
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Figure 5.15: XO type of sex determination in grasshopper

ii. XY type (XX-XY) type: In a number of other insects like Drosophila and mammals including human
beings, the males contains two types of sex chromosomes (X and Y) while females possess two similar
type of sex chromosomes (XX). Both male and females have same number of chromosomes. In males,
Y-chromosome is often shorter than the X-chromosome.
5.24
Figure 5.16: Sex determination in humans. The female has a pair of homogametic XX sex chromosomes
while the male has heterogametic XY sex chromosomes.
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5.1 Humans
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In humans, the male-specific Y chromosome plays a pivotal role in sex determination, and also bears
n
genes that are required for spermatogenesis. However, not all the genes that are needed to make a testis
or to make germ cells need to be on the Y chromosome, and many are known to be located on the X
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chromosome or on the autosomes. Human females have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have a
single X and a single Y chromosome (XY).
o
50% of the total sperm produced possess the X-chromosome and the rest 50% has Y-chromosome besides
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the autosome. There is an equal probability of fertilization of the ovum (22+X) with the sperm carrying either
Ed
X or y chromosome. If ovum fertilizes with (22+ X) type sperm, the zygote develops into a female (44+ XX).
Thus, genetic makeup of the sperm determines the sex of the child. It is also clear that in each pregnancy
there is always 50% or 1/2 probability of either a male or a female child.
5.25
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Figure 5.17: Determination of sex of offspring based on fusion of egg and sperm
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Ed
1. The foundation of this type was laid down by Henking (1891). He traced a specific nuclear
structure all through spermatogenesis in a few insects such as Firefly. Henking also
observed that only 50% of the sperm received this structure. This structure was termed
‘X body’ by him, but he could not explain its significance. Further investigations by other
scientists led to the conclusion that the ‘X body’ was actually a chromosome, therefore it
was given the name X-chromosome. Stevens (1902) discovered Y-chromosome. X and
y chromosomes named as sex chromosomes by Wilson and Stevens (1905).
2. In human beings, Y-chromosome carries a gene Sry (sex determining region) which
codes for a product called as testis – determining factor (TDF). TDF is required for the
development of male sex and its absence leads to the development of female sex.
5.26
5.2 Birds
The sex chromosomes in birds are designated Z and W, and the male is the homomorphic sex (ZZ) while
the female is heteromorphic (ZW). In most avian species, the Z chromosome is a large chromosome, usually
the fourth or fifth largest, and it contains almost all the known sex-linked genes. The W chromosome is
generally a much smaller microchromosome, containing a high proportion of repeat sequence DNA.
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Figure 5.18: ZW type of sex determination as seen in several birds.
5.3 Honey Bee

The sex-determination in honey bee is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives.
An offspring formed of the union of a sperm and an egg develops as a female (queen or worker), and an
unfertilized egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis. This means that the males have
half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes and
males are haploid, i.e., having 16 chromosomes. This is called as haplodiploid sex-determination system
and has special characteristic features such as the males produce sperms by mitosis shown in figure below,
they do not have father and thus cannot have sons, but have a grandfather and can have grandsons.
5.27
Figure 5.19: Sex determination in honey bee involving meiosis without fertilization resulting in haploid
male and meiosis as well as mitosis followed by fertilization resulting in diploid female
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Table 5.6: Different system based on chromosomal mechanism of sex-determination
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Gametes Zygotes
Type System al
Sperms Eggs Males Females
Male XO A+O (50%) A+X AA+XO AA+XX
n
heterogametic E.g. Grasshopper A+O (50%) (100%)
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XY A+ X (50%) A+X AA+XY AA+XX

o
E.g. Drosophila, A+ Y (50%) (100%)

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Homo sapiens (Humans)

Female ZW A+X (100%) A+Z(50%) AA+ZZ AA+ZW
Ed
heterogametic E.g. Birds A+W(50%)

5.28
TRY IT YOURSELF
a. In birds, both the sexes possess two sex chromosomes.
b. In butterflies, sex determination is exactly opposite the condition found in
grasshoppers.
a. In chicks, _____ individual produces two different types of gametes.
b. In butterflies, all _____ gametes contain autosomes as well as sex chromosome
3. Which of the following statement for grasshopper is incorrect?
a. Male individual is heterogametic due to two heteromorphic sex chromosomes.
n
b. Sperm determines the sex of offspring.
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c. Similar number of autosomes are found in male and female individuals both.
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d. All eggs contain autosomes as well as X-chromosome.
n
4. In third pregnancy of a human couple, what will be probability of having a son?
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6. Mutations
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The discontinuous (either spontaneous, induced or gradual) variations observed in the genotype, at the level
of chromosomes, genes and DNA and thus the phenotypic expression of biotic organisms over generation
Ed
is termed as mutation.
Based on the origin and cause, mutations in biotic organisms are of the following types:
6.1 Gene Mutation

Variations in the DNA molecules due to alterations in the sequence of nucleotides results in mutation of the
gene.
Point mutation: Single base pair alteration within the DNA molecule.
E.g. Sickle cell anaemia.
Gross mutation: Alterations in more than one nucleotide pair within the DNA molecule.
The process of gene mutation is of the following types
6.1.1 Frame-Shift Mutation
i. Deletion: Complete erasing/removal of one/single or more than one bases from the nucleotide
sequence of DNA.
5.29
E.g. For a gene sequence AAGCTA, removal of A results in A GCTA.

ii. Insertion/Addition: Adding of one/single or more than one bases in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
E.g. For a gene sequence AAGCTA, addition of C results in AACGCTA.
6.1.2 Substituion
One or more nitrogenous bases are replaced/substituted by other, distinct base(s).
Substitution is of following types
i. Transition: Substitution of purine nitrogenous bases (G or A) by another, distinct purine or substitution
of pyrimidine nitrogenous bases (C or T) by another, distinct pyrimidine.
E.g. For a gene sequence AAGCTA, replacement of A by T results in TAGCTA.
ii. Transversion: Pyrimidine nitrogenous base replaced by purine nitrogenous base or vice versa.
E.g. For a gene sequence AAGCTA, replacement of G by A results in AAACTA.
.i n
Spontaneous mutation: Natural and automatic manifestation of gene mutation due to internal factors and/
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or external factors which can be chemical or physical in nature.
These factors which cause/induce these mutations are termed as mutagens.
n
E.g. Physical factors such as temperature which is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands and its
ur
denaturation as well as UV radiations which result in the formation of thymine dimer are potential mutagens.
o
Chemical factors such as acridine molecules which interferes with replication process of DNA which induces
frame shift mutations and nitrous acid (HNO2) which causes oxidative deamination of the bases A, G and C.
uj
6.2 Chromosomal Aberrations

Ed
Chromosomes are composed of proteins, RNA and DNA. DNA exists in highly supercoiled, double helical
form in the chromosomes. Hence, alterations in chromosomes can occur due to deletions, insertions
or duplications in DNA sequences which finally results in manifestation of chromosomal aberrations
or abnormalities at both genotypic and phenotypic level. An important hallmark of cancer cells is the
occurrence of chromosomal aberrations.
6.2.1 Deletion
Loss of whole or part of chromosome results in deletion. Chromosomal deletion is of two types
i. Terminal Deletion: Terminal segment of chromosome is lost due to introduction of a single break in
the chromosome.
ii. Intercalary/Interstitial Deletion: Intercalary segment of chromosome is lost due to introduction of
multiple breaks.
Cri-du-chat syndrome is a condition seen in human which results due to loss of short arm of chromosome
number 5.
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Figure 5.20: Diagrammatic representation of terminal deletion and interstitial deletion
6.2.2 Duplication
The process of chromosomal duplication happens due to addition of part of other chromosome so that
replication of single gene or its segments is repeated and results in extra copies of the DNA/chromosomes.
.i n
Figure 5.21: Diagrammatic representation of duplication
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6.2.3 Translocation
n
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Physical breakage of part or whole of chromosome with its relocation and attachment to another non
homologous chromosome. Translocation of the following types
o
i. Simple translocation – Single breakage in chromosome and the attachment of the broken chromosomal
part to another non homologous chromosome.
uj
ii. Shift/Intercalary translocation – Nearly three breakages of interstitial parts of one chromosome and
Ed
the attachment of these broken parts to another non homologous chromosome.

iii. Reciprocal translocation/Illegitimate crossing over – Exchange of chromosomal segments between
chromosomes due to single breakage in both pairs of non homologous chromosomes.
Reciprocal translocation is termed as
a. Heterozygous – Each single chromosome of the two pairs of non homologous chromosomes are attached.
b. Homozygous – Both chromosomes of the two pairs of non homologous chromosomes are attached.
E.g. Philadelphia chromosome which is reduced chromosome number 22 resulting due to attachment of
end pieces of long arms of chromosomes number 9 and 22 with each other resulting in a longer than
normal chromosome 9 and short chromosome 22. Philadelphia chromosome has been associated with the
occurrence of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a type of leukemia in which there is excess synthesis of
granular leucocytes due to activation of latent oncogene due to this shortened Philadelphia chromosome.
iv. Multiple translocation – Attachment and interaction of segments of more than two pairs of non
homologus chromosome.
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6.3 Genomic Mutation

Alterations in the number of chromosome resulting in the manifestation of actual, visible phenotypic
symptoms/effects.
Genomic mutations are of following broad types
6.3.1 Aneuploidy
Significant alteration in the chromosomal number of an organism due to non-disjunction/non-separation of
the two chromosomes [2n – One (n) each] in the homologous pair during cell division so that one of the
resulting gametes possess an extra chromosome (n+1) with the other gamete lacking a chromosome (n-1).
.i n
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Figure 5.22: Diagrammatic representation of aneuploidy
o
6.3.2 Euploidy
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Alterations in the chromosomal number resulting in multiple copies of the basic set or pair of chromosomes
affecting the genomic constitution of the organism ultimately resulting in genetic variations.
Ed
i. Haploidy: Only single set of chromosome (n) present. Haploid organisms are preferred for studying the
effects of mutation since the manifestation of all the mutations which are either dominant or recessive
along (possible lethal effects of single copies) is very rapid due to the presence of only a single allele
or gene.
ii. Polyploidy: More than diploid (2n) set of chromosomes.
This condition results due to deficiency in cytokinesis during cell division resulting in elevation in the
chromosomal set of the organism.
E.g. Mostly seen in plants. Infact, commercially employed wheat used for making bread is hexaploid (6n)
while members of genus Brassica are tetraploid (4n).
When present in animals it mostly leads to sterility and therefore is not very common.
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KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
1. Various types of aneuploidy conditions are observed due to the fusion of the above gametes
(n+1) or (n-1) with a normal gamete possessing the correct order of chromosomes (n).
Table 5.8: Representation and combination of gametes for the different aneuploidy conditions
Aneuploidy condition Combination of gametes Representation
Monosomic n X (n-1) 2n-1
Nullisomic (n-1) X (n-1) 2n-2
Trisomic n X (n+1) 2n+1
Tetrasomic (n+1) X (n+1) 2n+2
Examples of conditions (phenotypic manifestation) of trisomy includes Klinefelter’s syndrome,
n
Down’s syndrome.
.i
Examples of conditions of monosomy includes Turner’s syndrome.
n al
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Figure 5.23: Diagrammatic representation of different types of aneuploidy

o
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2. Various types of polyploidy conditions are seen

Ed
Table 5.8: Representation and examples for the different polyploidy levels
Polyploidy level Polyploidy level Polyploidy level
Triploid (3n) Banana, Watermelon, Apple
Tetraploid (4n) Cotton, Potato, Peanut
Pentaploid (5n) Kenai Birch
Hexaploid (6n) Wheat, Kiwi, Oat
Octaploid (8n) Dahlia, Sugarcane
Decaploid (10n) Strawberry
Dodceaploid (12n) Hybrid sugarcanes
5.33
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
3. Based on chromosomal origin polyploidy is of two types:
a. Autopolyploidy: Polyploidy condition resulting due to multiple chromosomal sets
originating from a single/same organism/species.
E.g. Genome doubling seen in potatoes.
b. Allopolyploidy: Polyploidy condition resulting due to multiple chromosomal sets
originating from a different organisms/species.
E.g. Triticale which is allohexaploid hybrid (6n) of tetraploid (4n) Wheat (Triticum turgidum)
and diploid (2n) Rye (Secale cereale).
7. Linkage and Crossing Over
.i n
According to Mendel’s law of independent assortment, the gene controlling different characters get assorted
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independent to each other. It is correct if the genes are present on two different chromosomes, but if these
genes are present on same chromosome they may or may not show independent assortment. If crossing
n
over takes place between these two genes then the genes get segregated and they will assort independent
ur
to each other. But if there is no crossing over between these two genes there is no segregation, hence only
parental combination will be found in gametes.
o
Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were X-linked. The crosses
uj
were similar to the dihybrid crosses carried out by Mendel in peas.

Dihybrid crosses conducted by Morgan: At first (cross A) he crossed yellow-bodied (y) and white-eyed
Ed
(w) female with brown-bodied (y+) red–eyed (w+) male and got F1 generation in the form of brown–bodied
red-eyed female and yellow–bodied white–eyed male. In F2 generation, obtained by intercrossing of F1
hybrids, the ration deviated significantly from expected. He found 98.7% to be parental and 1.3% as
recombinants. In a second cross (B) between white-eyed and miniature-winged female (wwmm) with wild
red-eyed (w+) normal-winged male (m+) the F1 generation included red-eyed normal-winged female and
white-eyed miniature-winged male. After intercrossing the F1, progeny was found to be 62.8% parental and
37.2% recombinant type.
In both of the crosses (A and B), he observed that the two genes did not segregate independently of each
other and the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio. Phenotypic ratio as 9:3:3:1 in F2
generation is obtained in dihybrid cross if both genes are showing independent assortment. Morgan and his
group knew that the genes in both crosses were located on the X-chromosome (i.e., same chromosome).
In both crosses, Morgan found out that proportion of parental gene combination was much higher than the
non-parental gene combinations.
5.34
.i n
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Ed
Figure 5.24: Results of the two dihybrid cross conducted by Morgan. (+) – Dominant wild type alleles
5.35
Table 5.9: Dominant trait and Recessive trait for the different characters in Drosophila
Character Dominant trait/ Wild type Recessive trait
Body colour Brown body (y’) Yellow body (y)
Eye colour Red eye (w’) White eye (w)
Wings Normal (m’) Miniature (m)
Morgan attributed this due to the physical association of the two genes and coined the term linkage to
describe this physical association of genes on same chromosome and the term recombination to describe
the generation of non-parental gene combinations.
Morgan observed that recombinant types were low (1.3%) in cross A as compared to cross B, it means
genes for white eye and yellow body were very lightly linked. Genes for white eye and miniature wing were
loosely linked as they showed comparatively higher recombination (37.2%). Now it is clear that when genes
n
are grouped on same chromosome, some genes are tightly linked while some are loosely linked.
.i
Alfred Sturtevant (student of Morgan) used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the
al
same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and ‘mapped’ their position on the
chromosome. Two genes show higher frequency of crossing over if the distance between them is higher
n
and lower frequency if the distance is small. Today genetic maps are extensively used as a starting point
ur
in the sequencing of whole genomes as was done in case of the Human Genome Sequencing Project.
o
uj
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
Morgan attributed this due to the physical association or linkage of the two genes and coined
Ed
the term linkage to describe this physical association of genes on a chromosome and the term
recombination to describe the generation of non-parental gene combinations.
8. Sex Linked Inheritance

8.1 Haemophilia
This sex linked recessive disease, which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of
the male progeny has been widely studied. In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of
proteins involved in the clotting of blood is affected. Due to this, in an affected individual a simple cut will
result in non-stop bleeding. The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease
to sons. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a
female has to be at least carrier and the father should be haemophilic (unviable in the later stage of life).
The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a number of haemophilic descendents as she was a carrier
of the disease.
5.36
8.2 Colour Blindness

Colour blindness is a common inherited sex-linked disorder that affects a person’s ability to see or
recognize certain colours. The two genes that produce red and green light-sensitive proteins are located
on the X chromosome. Mutations in these genes can cause colour blindness. The colour blindness gene is
recessive to the gene for normal sight. As the males possess only one X chromosome and, therefore, only
a single sex-linked gene at each locus, they are said to be hemizygous. The females, however, with two
sex-linked genes, can be either homozygous or heterozygous.
It should be very much clear, colour blindness does not mean not seeing any colour at all, it means that
those who are colour blind have trouble in seeing the differences between certain colours. Most colour blind
people cannot tell the difference between red or green. That does not mean that they cannot do their normal
work. In fact, they can also drive- they learn to respond to the way the traffic signal lights up the red light is
generally on the top and green is on the bottom.
Cross A: If a colour blind man (XCY) marries a girl with normal vision (XX), the daughters would have
n
normal vision but would be carrier, while sons would also be normal.
.i
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Ed
Figure 5.25: Detailed representation of Cross A for determination of colour blind status of offsping
involving a normal woman and colour blind man
Cross B: If the carrier girl (heterozygous for colour blindness, XCX) now marries a colour blind man XCY,
the offspring would show 50% females and 50% males. Of the females, 50% would be carrier for colour
blindness and the rest 50% would be colour blind. Of the males, 50% would have normal vision and the
50% would be colour blind.
5.37
Figure 5.26: Detailed representation of Cross B for determination of colour blind status of offsping
involving a carrier woman and colour blind man
n
8.3 Sickle-Cell Anaemia
.i
al
Autosomal recessive disorder that is genetically transmitted to progenies from affected parents when both
the father and mother of the progenies are heterozygous carrier for the gene.
n
The single pair of alleles of gene HbA (normal form) and HbS (sickle form) govern sickle-cell anaemia,
ur
which results in the occurrence of three possible genotypes

i. Combination of HbA X HbA (Normal, non-carrier, homozygous) − 100% disease free
o
ii. Combination of HbA X HbS (Normal, carrier, heterozygous) − 50% probability of transmitting faulty
uj
HbS gene
Ed
iii. Combination of HbS X HbS (Homozygous, progeny weak and die before reaching maturity)
Mutation (transversion) of the HbA gene which encodes for the β-chain of haemoglobin resulting in a single
change in the amino acid arrangement of the β-chain forms the HbS allele. At 6th position of the β-chain, the
non-polar amino acid valine replaces the negatively charges, polar amino acid glutamic acid. HbS encodes
for the haemoglobin molecules which are capable of undergoing polymerization under lower oxygen tension
altering the shape of RBC from biconcave disc into sickle- shaped structure.
5.38
.i n
A
n al B
Figure 5.27: Shape of RBC and amino acid composition of the mutation in the specific section of β-chain
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of haemoglobin derived from A. a normal individual and B. an individual affected with sickle-cell anaemia
o
uj
Ed
5.39
KNOWLEDGE BUILDER
The study and analysis of genetic human disorders in various generations is termed as
pedigree analysis. This analysis is conducted for humans who follow the Mendelian principles
of inheritance although controlled crosses are rare in humans with the offspring numbers per
couple also being very low.
Symbols used in Human pedigree analysis
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Ed
Figure 5.28: Symbols used in pedigree analysis

Pedigree analysis helps in determining the inheritance of specific characteristics which is
present in the family tree over several generations. Hence, it is of essential significance in
genetic counselling of people of particular target group or couples who want to conceive but
have high probability of the offspring being affected.
E.g. Sickle cell anaemia, haemophilia, colour blindness, phenylketonuria although now a days
even general genetic counselling conducts this pedigree analysis.
5.40
9. Mendelian Disorders In Humans-Thalassemia

Thalassemia is a recessive autosomal genetic defect, originated in Mediterranean region – by their mutation
or deletion recessive autosomal. Thalassemia are a group of disorders caused by defects in the synthesis
of globin polypeptide in RBC. Absence or reduced synthesis of one of the globin chains results in an excess
of the other. In this situation free globin chains, which are insoluble, accumulate inside the red cells and
form precipitates which damage the cell, causing cell lysis and resulting in anaemia. There are two main
types of thalassemia in which synthesis of α or β globin is defective. It is common in Mediterrranean, Middle
East, Indian subcontinent and in south-east Africa.
Alpha (α) thalassemia: The α-thalassemia involve the genes HBA1 and HBA2, inherited in a Mendelian
recessive fashion. There are two gene loci and so four alleles. It is also connected to the deletion of the
16p (short-arm) chromosome. α –Thalassemia result in decreased α – globin production, therefore, fewer
alpha-globin chains are produced, resulting in an excess of β chains in adults and excess γ chains in
newborns. The excess β chains form unstable tetramers (called as Hemoglobin H or HbH of 4 beta chains)
n
which have abnormal oxygen dissociation curves.
.i
Beta (β) thalassemia: β-Thalassemia are due to mutations in the HBB gene on chromosome 11, also
al
inherited in an autosomal –recessive fashion. The severity of the disease depends on the nature of the
mutation. Mutations are characterized as βo or β thalassemia major if they prevent any formation of β chains
n
(the most severe form of β thalassemia) or characterized as β+ or β thalassemia intermedia if they allow
ur
some β chain formation to occur. In either case, there is a relative excess of α chains, but these do not form
tetramers; rather, they bind to the red blood cell membranes, producing membrane damage, and at high
o
concentrations they form toxic aggregates.

uj
Delta (δ) thalassemia: Just like β thalassemia, mutations can occur which affect the ability of this gene to
produce δ chains, α and β chains are present in hemoglobin but about 3% of adult haemoglobin is made
Ed
of alpha and delta chains.
10. Chromosomal Disorders in Humans

The chromosomal disorders on the other hand are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal
arrangement of one or more chromosomes.
10.1 Down’s Syndrome

Typically, the nucleus of each cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, half of which are inherited from each
parent. Down syndrome occurs when an individual has a full or partial extra copy of chromosome 21. This
failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s),
called aneuploidy.
It was first described in 1866 by Langdon Down. The disorder develop due to trisomy of chromosome
number 21. Trisomic condition arises due to the formation of n+1 male or female gamete by non-disjunction
and the subsequent fertilization by a normal (n) gamete. It is characterized by:
5.41
a. Short stature
b. Small round head
c. Furrowed tongue
d. Partially open mouth
e. Broad palm with characteristic palm crease
f. Many ‘loops’ on finger tips
g. Big and wrinkled tongue
h. Physical (underdeveloped gonads and genitals, loose joints), psychomotor and mental development
is retarded.
.i n
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Figure 5.29: Representative figure showing a child affected by Down’s syndrome
ur
10.2 Turner’s Syndrome

o
Turner syndrome is a chromosomal condition that affects development in females. The disorder is due to
uj
monosomy. It appears due to fusion of abnormal egg (22+0) and a normal sperm (22+X) or a normal egg
(22+X) and abnormal sperm (22+0). Such females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary besides other
Ed
features including lack of other secondary sexual characters.
A B
Figure 5.30: Representative figure showing adult human beings affected by A. Klinefelter’s syndrome and
B. Turner’s syndrome
5.42
10.3 Klinefelter’s Syndrome

It is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into 44+XXY type
chromosome complement. The defect appears due to union of an abnormal egg (22+XX) and a normal
sperm (22+Y) or normal egg (22+X) and abnormal sperm (22+XY). Such persons are sterile males with
overall masculine development and some female characteristics E.g. Feminine pitched voice, development
of breast or gynaecomastia.
TRY IT YOURSELF
1. Read the following paragraph carefully and find out the correct words for all the three
blanks indicated as (A), (B) and (C).
“The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base
substitution at the 6th codon of the β-globin from _____(A)____to _____(B)____.
n
The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under _____(C)_____
tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated
.i
sickle-like structure.
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a. Heterozygous female for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
ur
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused due to the presence of a additional copy of

X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXX.
o
c. Failure of segregation of homologous pair of chromosomes during cell division

uj
cycle results in Turner’s syndrome.

Ed
Summary
y Genetics is a branch of biology which deals with principles of inheritance and variation.
y Mendelian Inheritance (Mendelism)
ο Mendel proposed that something was being stably passed down, unchanged, from parent to
offspring through the gametes, over successive generations. He called these things as ‘factors’.
ο The dominant characters are expressed when factors are in heterozygous condition
(Law of Dominance).
ο The characters never blend in heterozygous condition.
ο The recessive characters are only expressed in homozygous condition.
5.43
ο A recessive trait that was not expressed in heterozygous condition may expressed again when
it become homozygous. Hence, characters segregate while formation of gametes (Law of
Segregation).
ο Mendel also studied the inheritance of two characters together and he found that the factors
independently assort and combine in all permutations and combinations (Law of Independent
Assortment).
y The factors on chromosomes regulating the characters are called the genotype and the physical
expression of the characters is called phenotype.
y Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the
behaviour of genes and used chromosome movement to explain Mendel’s laws.
y Mendel’s law of independent assortment is not true for the genes that were located on the same
chromosomes (i.e., linked genes).
y Closely located genes assorted together, and distantly located genes, due to recombination, assorted
n
independently.
.i
y Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome is a measure of the distance
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genes.
n
y Mutation is defined as change in the genetic material. A point mutation is a change of a single base
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pair in DNA. Some mutations involve changes in whole set of chromosomes (polyploidy) or change in
a subset of chromosome number (aneuploidy).
o
y Sickle-cell anaemia is caused due to change of one base in the gene coding for β-chain of haemoglobin.
uj
y Inheritance mutations can be studied by generating a pedigree of a family.

Down’s syndrome is due to trisomy of chromosome 21. In Turner’s syndrome, one X-chromosome is
Ed
y
missing and the condition is XO.
y In Klinefelter’s syndrome, the condition is XXY.
5.44
EXERCISE
Objective Questions
Q.1 The phrase “like begets like” is best analysed in the context of
(A) Forward genetics (B) Classical genetics
(C) Reverse genetics (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.2 The term genetics was coined by

(A) Bateson (B) Mendel (C) Morgan (D) Johanssen
n
Q.3 Which one of the following inheritance or theory is based on the blending concept and explains gemmule
as the basis of inheritance?
.i
(A) Preformation theory
(C) Reproductive blood theory
n al
(B) Pangenesis theory
(D) Mendelian inheritance
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Q.4 Mendel’s experimental plant; was Pisum sativum, but he also worked and failed to find similar results on
(A) Tobacco and sweet pea (B) Hieracium and Lablab
o
(C) Hieracium and sweet pea (D) Lablab and sweet pea
uj
Q.5 Predecessor/s of Mendel was/were

Ed
(A) Goss (B) Kolreuter (C) Naudin (D) All of these
Q.6 Mendel read out and presented his paper in the seminar of Natural History Society of Brunn in
(A) 1857 (B) 1859 (C) 1865 (D) 1866
Q.7 Who amongst the following found out the original paper of Mendel and got it published in Flora?
(A) De Vries (B) Correns (C) Tschermak (D) Kolreuter
Q.8 Find odd one out (with respect to pea traits).

(A) Yellow cotyledon (B) Yellow pod (C) Terminal flower (D) Constricted pod
Q.9 Which one of the following Mendelian traits is present on the fifth chromosome?
(A) Pod shape (B) Pod color (C) Flowers color (D) Pod position
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Q.10 The recombinant phenotypic ratio in F2 obtained from parental cross having genotypes TTRR x ttrr
will be
(A) 9 : 3 : 3: 1 (B) 3 :1 (C) 1 : 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 3
Q.11 Heterozygous tall and red flowered pea plants are selfed and total 2000 seeds are collected. What is
the total number of seeds for both heterozygous traits?
(A) 250 (B) 500 (C) 1250 (D) 750
Q.12 Types of gametes formed by the plant with genotype AABbccDD will be
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 2
Q.13 In monohybrid cross, pure homozygous plants will be

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
.i n
Q.14 Total 512 seeds are collected from the cross WwYy x WwYy. Find the number of plants produced with
first dominant and second recessive trait. al
(A) 288 (B) 96 (C) 32 (D) 320
n
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Q.15 Which Mendelian cross can produce two genotypes and two phenotypes?
(A) Monohybrid cross (B) Monohybrid test cross
o
(C) Incomplete dominance (D) Co-dominance

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Q.16 A trihybrid cross is made between two yeasts, both with genotypes AaBbCc. What proportion of
Ed
offsprings will be of genotype aabbcc?

(A) 0 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/16 (D) 1/64
Q.17 From the cross AABb x aaBb, genotypes AaBB : AaBb : Aabb : aabb are obtained in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1: 0 (C) 0 : 3 : 1: 0 (D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 0
Q.18 In a cross between a pure tall pea plant with green pod and a pure short plant with yellow pod, how
many short plants out of 16 would you expect in F2 generation?
(A) 9 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
5.46
Q.19 Find the correct match.

Column I Column II
a. Phenotype (i) G. Shull

b. Heterosis (ii) Johanssen
c. Heterozygous (iii) Correns
d. Incomplete dominance (iv) Bateson
(A) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iv), d – (iii) (B) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(C) a – (iv), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (ii) (D) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
Q.20 An allele is the

(A) Total number of genes for a trait (B) Total number of genes on chromosome
n
(C) Alternative form of a gene (D) Alternative form of a character
.i
Q.21 How many phenotypes are produced in a test cross of AaBBCC?
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Eight
n al
(D) Twelve
Q.20 Which parental combination represents outcross?

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(A) AA x BB (B) Aa x aa (C) aa x AA (D) Aa x AA

o
Q.23 Which one of the following crosses would have ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1?

uj
(A) TtRR x ttrr (B) TTRR x ttrr (C) TtRr x ttrr (D) TtRR x TTrr
Ed
Q.24 When red and white flowered Mirabilis plants are crossed, all pink flowers are produced in F1 generation.
When F1 progeny is selfed, the expected phenotypic and genotypic ratios are, respectively,
(A) 1 : 2 : 1 and 3 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 and 1: 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1
Q.25 If a character is controlled by six alleles of a gene, then the possible genotypes would be
(A) 21 (B) 729 (C) 64 (D) 42
Q.26 The ratio of children with blood groups A : B : AB : O, born to a set of parents in which the mother is
with blood group A and the father is with blood group B, will be
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 0 : 2 : 0 (C) 0 : 0 : 4 : 0 (D) All of these
Q.27 Possible blood groups in children from the parents with blood groups B and O are
(A) All B (B) All O (C) Both B and O (D) None of these
5.47
Q.28 Which one of the following genes influences the viability of the organisms when present in homozygous
condition?
(A) Curly wings gene in Drosophila (B) Plum eyes gene in Drosophila
(C) Sickle-cell gene (D) All of these
Q.29 Pleiotropic genes show

(A) One gene one character
(B) One gene regulates many phenotypic characters
(C) Polygenic inheritance
(D) Multiple allelism
Q.30 Emasculation of flower is done when

(A) Stamens are mature (B) Stamens are immature
n
(C) Stigma is mature (D) Stigma is immature
.i
resemble the first parent?
n al
Q.31 Consider the cross AaBbCcDdEe x aaBbccddee. What proportion of the progeny will genotypically
(A) 1/64 (B) 2/64 (C) 4/16 (D) 4/46

ur
Q.32 When only one allele of a pair is present, the condition is called
o
(A) Homozygous (B) Hemizygous

uj
(C) Heterozygous (D) Incomplete dominance

Ed
Q.33 Both the alleles are independently expressed in

(A) Eye color in Drosophila (B) Fruit color in Cucurbita
(C) Sickle-cell haemoglobin (D) Height in tobacco
Q.34 Reciprocal cross is

(A) Intraspecific hybridization
(B) Back cross
(C) Pollen grains from one variety deposited on the stigma of the contrasting variety and vice versa, in
hybridization experiments
(D) Test cross
Q.35 Bridge between two generations which contributes equally in the heredity of the offspring is
(A) Chromosome (B) Somatic cells
(C) Sperm and egg (D) Factor
5.48
Q.36 Sum total of genes with all these alleles at any time in a unit of evolution is called
(A) Genotype (B) Genome (C) Gene pool (D) Gene library
Q.37 Both chromosomes as well as genes do not occur in pairs in

(A) Somatic cells (B) Fertilized egg
(C) Megaspore mother cell (D) Microspore
Q.38 Parallelism between factors and chromosome led to the formation of

(A) Cell theory (B) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(C) Pangenesis theory (D) Pre-formation theory
Q.390 Who observed that the behavior of chromosomes at meiosis can serve as the cellular basis of both
segregation and independent assortment?
n
(A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Banden and Boveri
.i
(C) W. Flemming (D) Boveri and Brauer
al
Q.40 In a dihybrid test cross, if the parental types exceed the recombination types among the resultant
n
progeny, it is due to
ur
(A) Linkage (B) Complete linkage

(C) Independent assortment (D) Crossing-over
o
uj
Q.41 In the cross involving “linked genes,” who discovered that the assortment of genes during germ cell
formation is non-random in the violation of Mendel’s second law?
Ed
(A) Bateson and Punnet (B) Morgan (C) Sutton and Boveri (D) Sutton
Q.42 Test cross ratio 1 : 7 : 7 : 1 in sweet pea when two pairs of alleles do not show independent assortment
can be obtained from parental cross which is
(A) BBll x bbll (B) BbLl x BBll (C) BBll x bbll (D) bbll x Bbll
Q.43 Dihybrid test cross ratio with 82% parental type and 18% recombinants type shows that genes have
(A) Incomplete linkage (B) Complete linkage
(C) Independent assortment (D) Double crossing-over
Q.44 A dihybrid test cross ratio for two completely linked genes will be
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1:7:7:1 (D) 7 : 1 : 1 : 7
5.49
Q.45 Number of linkage groups in an individual is equal to

(A) Number of genes (B) ‘n’ number of chromosomes
(C) ‘2n’ number of chromosomes (D) Number of autosomes
Q.46 The bacterial and blue green algal cells contain

(A) Large number of linkage groups (B) Only one linkage group
(C) Four linkage groups (D) No linkage group
Q.47 Find the incorrect match with respect to linkage group.

(A) Neurospora – 2 (B) Zea mays – 10
(C) Pisum sativum – 7 (D) Drosophila – 4
Q.48 Coupling and repulsion phenomena are concerned with
n
(A) Mutation (B) Pleiotropism (C) Linkage (D) Crossing-over
.i
in meiosis is called
n al
Q.49 The exchange of chromosome segments between maternal and paternal chromatids after synapsis
(A) Interference (B) Crossing-over (C) Chiasma (D) Terminalization

ur
Q.50 Crossing-over occurs in__________stage.

o
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diakinesis

uj
Q.51 Crossing-over occurring at two-strand stage will show which one of the following types of ascospores
Ed
arrangement?
(A) 2 : 4 : 2 (B) 4 : 4 (C) 2: 2 : 2 : 2 (D) 4 : 2 : 2
Q.52 The cross-over frequencies between the genes P and Q, P and R, as well as Q and R are 6%, 15%,
and 21%, respectively. What is the possible sequence of genes on chromosome?
(A) P,Q,R (B) Q, P, R (C) P, R, Q (D) Either Q, P, R or R, P, Q
Q.53 In a linear chromosome, map distances between four loci are as follows: a-b-10, b-c-4, a-d-3, a-c-6.
The expected cross-over frequency between c and d is
(A) 3% (B) 9% (C) Either 3% or 9% (D) 4% to 12%
5.50
Q.54 Mendel did not recognize the linkage phenomenon in his experiments, because
(A) He did not have powerful microscope
(B) He studied only pure plants
(C) There were many chromosomes to handle
(D) Characters he studied were located on different chromosomes
Q.55 Sex-linked characters are generally

(A) Dominant (B) Recessive (C) Lethal (D) Not inherited
Q.56 Which one of the following defects in man is due to sex-linked inheritance?
(A) Albinism (B) Colour blindness (C) Beri-beri (D) Polydactyly
Q.57 A colour blind boy has 2 sisters, one colour blind and one normal. What can be the possible nature of
n
their parents?
.i
(A) Colour blind father and colour blind mother
(B) Normal father and colour blind mother
(C) Colour blind father and carrier mother
n al
(D) Colour blind father and normal mother
ur
Q.58 A normal woman, whose father had haemophilia, married a normal man. What is the chance of
o
occurrence of haemophilia in their children?

uj
(A) 25% children will be haemophilic (B) 50% children will be haemophilic
Ed
(C) 75% children will be haemophilic (D) None haemophilic but 75% will be carriers
Q.59 A holandric gene is known for hypertrichosis (long hairs on ears). When a man with hairy ears marries
a normal woman, what percentage of their daughters would be expected to have hairy ears?
(A) 100% (B) 0% (C) 50% (D) 25%
Q.60 Which one of the following trait is X-Y linked?

(A) Hypertrichosis (B) Porcupine skin
(C) Cystic fibrosis (D) Epidermolysis bullosa
Q.61 When sex determination occurs after fertilization it is called

(A) Progamic (B) Syngamic (C) Epigamic (D) Apogamic
Q.62 XX-XY type sex determination in plants was first discovered in

(A) Melandrium (B) Coccinia (C) Sphaerocarpos (D) Fragaria elatior
5.51
Q.63 In birds, the females are

(A) ZZ (B) ZW (C) ZO (D) YY
Q.64 Genic balance theory was given by

(A) Bridges (B) Morgan (C) Boveri (D) Muller
Q.65 According to the genic balance theory of Bridges, which is correct for AAA + XXY condition of
Drosophila?
(A) Supermale (B) Superfemale
(C) Intersex (D) Normal male but sterile
Q.66 Gynandromorph or sex mosaic is produced by

(A) Loss of X-chromosome (B) Non-disjunction of Y-chromosome
n
(C) Disjunction of X-chromosome (D) Disjunction of autosomes
.i
(B) Heredity
n al
Q.67 The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds true in an organism is visualized in the principle of
(A) Natural selection (C) Variations (D) Mutation
ur
Q.68 Gene mutation is caused by

(A) Reproduction
o
(B) Linkage
uj
(C) Change in the sequence of nitrogenous base

Ed
(D) Change in the sequence of genes in DNA
Q.69 Which radiations induce the formation of thymine dimers in DNA that interfere with its replication?
(A) UV radiations (B) X rays (C) Gamma rays (D) Infrared light
Q.70 Which of the following radiations do not result in any mutational change?
(A) X rays (B) Gamma rays (C) Ultraviolet rays (D) Infrared rays
Q.71 “Mutations can be induced by X rays” was revealed by

(A) Stanley Miller (B) Bridges (C) Muller (D) Darlington
Q.72 Which chemical mutagen results in deamination of bases?

(A) HNO2 (B) Base analogues (C) Acridine dyes (D) PEG
5.52
Q.73 “Burkitt lymphoma’’ in humans is due to

(A) Deletion (B) Translocation (C) Transition (D) Tautomeric shift
Q.74 Bar eye character in Drosophila is due to

(A) Deletion (B) Multiple alleles (C) Duplication (D) Inversion
Q.75 Find the incorrect match:

(A) 44 + XYY – Jacob’s syndrome (B) 44 + XO – Turner’s syndrome
(C) 44+XXXY – Huntington’s chorea (D) 2N + 1 – Down’s syndrome
Q.76 Find the correct match:

Column I Column II
a. 2N- 1 - 1 (i) Trisomy
n
b. 2N+ 1 (ii) Monosomy
.i
c. 2N+ 1 + 1 (iii) Nullisomy al
d. 2N- 2 (iv) Double trisomy
n
(v) Double monosomy
ur
(A) a – (v), b – (i), e – (iv), d – (iii) (B) a – (ii), b – (i), e – (iv), d – (iii)
(C) a – (v), b – (i), e – (iv), d – (ii) (D) a – (ii), b – (i), e – (iv), d – (v)
o
uj
Q.77 Syndrome due to “extra 18th autosomal chromosome” is known as

(A) Patau’s syndrome (B) Edward’s syndrome
Ed
(C) Cri-du-chat syndrome (D) Down’s syndrome
Q.78 If gene frequency for PTC non-taster is 0.4, then what will be the number of heterozygote tasters in a
population of 3000?
(A) 1080 (B) 1440 (C) 480 (D) 2520
Q.79 Cystic fibrosis is due to recessive gene mutation of

(A) Chromosome 4 (B) Chromosome 7 (C) Chromosome 11 (D) X-chromosome
Q.80 Albinism in man is caused by the absence of one enzyme necessary for the synthesis of melanin. It is
(A) Tyrosinase (B) Lysine (C) Melanase (D) Luciferase
5.53
Q.81 A normal woman whose father was albino marries a man who is albino. What proportion of normal and
albino can be expected among the offspring?
(A) All albino (B) 1 normal : 1 albino
(C) All normal (D) 2 normal : 1 albino
Q.82 Mark the correct statement (with respect to the Mendelian dihybrid cross where the two parents
differed in two pairs of contrasting traits: seed color and seed shape).
(A) 3/4th of F2 plants have green seeds and 1/4th have yellow
(B) Mendel cross-hybridized F1 plants and got 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio
(C) In F2 generation, round and wrinkled seed shape segregates just like in a monohybrid cross
(D) Parental phenotypic ratio is 1 : 1 in F2 generation
Q.83 ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by gene I. Gene I has three alleles in which
n
(A) IA, IB, and i produce a slightly different form of sugar
.i
(B) IB and i produce identical sugars
(D) Only allele i produces sugar

n al
(C) IA and IB produce a slightly different form of sugar
ur
Q.84 Starch grain size in garden pea, flower color in four’0 clock plant, and heterozygous individual for
sickle-cell anaemia are examples of
o
(A) Incomplete dominance (B) Non-allelic interaction

uj
(C) Co-dominance (D) Inter-allelic interaction

Ed
Q.85 Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in fruit fly and found that
(A) Loosely linked genes show low recombination
(B) The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of yellow
body and white eye
(C) Tightly linked genes show equal amount of parental and recombinant types in F2 generation
(D) All genes segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviates very significantly from the
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
5.54
Q.86 Consider the following four statements (1, 2, 3, and 4) and select the right option for incorrect
statements.
1. Mendelian experiments had large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he
collected.
2. Recessive allele influences the appearance of phenotype even in the presence of an alternative allele.
3. Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made.
4. In F2 generation of Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to their parental
types and showed blending.
The incorrect statements are
Q.87 Mr. Wilson is suffering from hypertrichosis and phenylketonuria. His father is heterozygous for
phenylketonuria, the probability of Wilson’s sperm having one recessive autosomal allele and holandric
n
gene is
.i
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/16 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2
al
Q.88 Select the incorrect match with respect to human genetic disorders.
n
Disorders Chromosome number Dominant/ recessive
ur
(A) Cystic fibrosis 7 Recessive

(B) Sickle-cell anaemia 15 Recessive
o
(C) Phenylketonuria 12 Recessive

uj
(D) Huntington’s chorea 4 Dominant

Ed
Q.89 Consider the following statements (a)-(d) each with one or two blanks:
(a) _____(i)_____ are commonly observed in cancer cells.
(b) During________(ii)_________ purine is replaced by another purine.
(c) Failure of____(iii)______ after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in whole set of
chromosomes in an organism and this phenomenon is known as_______(iv)______.
(d) In Down’s syndrome, the affected individual is short-statured with_______(v) _______round head and
partially open mouth.
Which one of the following options gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) to (v)
in the statements?
(A) (iii) Karyokinesis, (iv) polyploidy, (v) large
(B) (ii) Transversion, (iii) cytokinesis, (iv) chromosomal aberration
(C) (i) Chromosomal aberration, (iv) polyploidy, (v) small
(D) (ii) Transition, (iii) karyokinesis, (v) large
5.55
Q.90 The frequency of an autosomal dominant allele is 0.6. Calculate the frequency of recessive phenotype
in a population of 10,000.
(A) 1200 (B) 4000 (C) 1600 (D) 1000
Q.91 With increasing age, the linkage

(A) Becomes strong (B) Becomes weak
(C) Terminates (D) Remains unchanged
Q.92 If there were only parental combinations in F2 of a dihybrid cross, then Mendel might have discovered
(A) Independent assortment (B) Atavism
(C) Linkage (D) Repulsion
Q.93 Mendelian dihybrid and dihybrid with linkage are, respectively, related with how many chromosomes?
n
(A) 1 pair and 2 pair (B) 2 pair and 1 pair
.i
(C) 2 pair and 2 pair (D) 1 pair and 1 pair
al
Q.94 A dihybrid plant with incomplete linkage on test cross may produce how many types of plants?
n
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 1
ur
Q.95 The number of linkage groups in a cell having 10 pairs of chromosomes are
o
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20

uj
Q.96 The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are
Ed
(A) Lysosome and mitochondria (B) Chloroplasts and lysosomes

(C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (D) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
Q.97 Cross-over value (COV) of genes M and N is 5% while COV of genes N and P is 15%. The possible
sequence of three genes on chromosome is
(A) M-N-P (B) P-M-N (C) N-P-M (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.98 Which of the following conditions represent a case of codominant genes?

(A) A gene expresses itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles
(B) Genes those are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when together interact to
produce a different trait
(C) Alleles, both of which interact to product a trait, which may resemble either of the parental type
(D) Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in heterozygous condition
5.56
Q.99 A sinistral shelled female snail has Dd genotype cross with dextral shelled male having dd genotype.
What type of shell will be present in the progeny?
(A) All dextral 1 (B) All sinistral
(C) 50% dextral, 50% sinistral (D) None of these
Q.100 In female Drosophila, the linked gene exhibits recombination during the meiosis of gamete formation,
but such a recombination does not occur during the formation of sperm in male Drosophila because
(A) Male Drosophila is sterile
(B) Male Drosophila is parthenogenetic male
(C) No crossing-over occurs in male Drosophila
(D) Male Drosophila is haploid
Q.101 The condition in which only one allele of a pair is present is known as
n
(A) Homozygous (B) Heterozygous
.i
(C) Hemizygous (D) Incomplete dominance
al
Q.102 A colour blind man marries a daughter of a colour blind father. Then in the offspring,
n
(A) All sons are colour blind (B) All daughters are colour blind
ur
(C) Half sons are colour blind (D) No daughter is colour blind
o
Q.103 A woman with normal vision marries a man with normal vision and gives birth, to a colour blind son.
uj
Her husband dies and she marries a colour blind man. What is the probability of her children having the
abnormality
Ed
(A) 50% colour blind sons + 50% colorblind daughters

(B) All sons colour blind and daughters carrier
(C) All daughters colour blind and sons normal
(D) 50% sons colour blind and all daughters normal
Q.104 Albinism is determined by a recessive gene in man. The presence of albinism in 50% children born
to a couple proves that
(A) Both parents are heterozygous for albinism
(B) Father is homozygous normal and mother is heterozygous
(C) Father is homozygous for albinism but mother is heterozygous
(D) Both parents are homozygous
5.57
Q.105 A gene that shows its effect on more than one character is
(A) Polygene (B) Pleotropic gene
(C) Multifactor gene (D) Multiple gene
Q.106 In Drosophila, crossing-over occurs in females but not in males. Genes A and B are 10 map unit
apart on chromosome. A female Drosophila has genotype AB/ab and a male Drosophila has genotype AB/
ab. How many types of gametes are produced by female and male Drosophila, respectively?
(A) 4 types : 2 types (B) 2 types : 2 types
(C) 4 types : 4 types (D) 4 types : 1 type
Q.107 In polygenic inheritance trait, which is controlled by three pairs of genes, two individuals that are
heterozygous for three alleles crossed each other. Such type of cross produced phenotypic ratio
(A) 1:2:1 (B) 9:3:3:1 (C) 1:4:6:4:1 (D) 1:6:15:20:15:6:1
.i n
Q.108 In a cross between individuals homozygous for (a, b) and wild type (++), 700 out of 1000 individuals
were of parental type. Then the distance between a and b is
al
(A) 70 map units (B) 35 map units (C) 30 map units (D) 15 map units
n
ur
Q.109 In Drosophila, several alleles exhibit the same phenotype, E.g. W+s, W+c, W+g exhibit eye color.
These alleles are called
o
(A) Pseudoalleles (B) Isoalleles (C) Multiple alleles (D) All of the above
uj
Q.110 Which statement is incorrect about linkage?

Ed
(A) It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties.

(B) It helps in forming new recombinants.
(C) Knowledge of linkage helps the breeder to combine all desirable traits in a single variety.
(D) It helps in locating genes on chromosome.
Q.111 The first mutant reported by Morgan on Drosophila was

(A) Red eyed male (B) Red eyed female
(C) White eyed male (D) White eyed female
Q.112 Non-ionizing radiations commonly used for inducing mutations in organisms are
(A) UV rays (B) Beta rays (C) X rays (D) Gamma rays
5.58
Q.113 The smallest unit of genetic material which upon mutation produces a phenotypic effect is
(A) Sexual reproduction (B) Meiosis
(C) Mutation (D) Independent assortment
Q.114 Chemical mutagens are far more hazardous than radiations because
(A) Exposure to chemicals is more prevalent
(B) Organisms possess protection from radiation but no protection from chemicals
(C) Chemically induced mutations are more, deleterious
(D) Chemicals are synthetic
Q.115 Mutagens that are effective on DNA replication only are

(A) Base analogues and acridines
n
(B) Alkylating agents
(C) HNO2
.i
(D) α and β rays al
n
Q.116 Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies because
ur
(A) Recessive mutation is expressed in F1
(B) Recessive mutation is expressed in F2
o
(C) Dominant phenotype is expressed

uj
(D) Dominant phenotype is suppressed

Ed
Q.117 The type of gene mutation that involves the replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (Or)
The substitution of one type of base with another type of base is
(A) Transduction (B) Transversion (C) Translocation (D) Transcription
Q.118 Mutations induced by 5-bromo uracil are

(A) Transversional mutations (B) Transitional mutations
(C) Frame shift mutations (D) Backward mutations
Q.119 Deamination of adenine and guanine by HNO2 and UV rays produces

(A) Cytosine and uracil (B) Xanthine and hypoxanthine
(C) Hypoxanthine and xanthine (D) Xanthine and uracil
5.59
Q.120 In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene
frequency in a non-directional manner?
(A) Mutation (B) Random drift (C) Selection (D) Migration
Q.121 The “cri-du-chat” syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving

(A) Deletion (B) Duplication (C) Inversion (D) Translocation
Q.122 Chromosome with genes abcdefg becoming abedcfg is

(A) Duplication (B) Deletion (C) Translocation (D) Inversion
Q.123 Which one of the following scientists’ names is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(A) de Vries – Natural selection
(B) Mendel – Theory of pangenesis
n
(C) Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm
.i
(D) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters
al
Q.124 Which of the following is an example of substantive discontinuous variation?
n
(A) Hairless cat (B) Short legged ancon sheep
ur
(C) Polydactyly in humans (D) More than one option is correct

o
Q.125 Find the incorrect match.

uj
(A) Moist vapour theory proposed by — Pythagoras

Ed
(B) Theory of epigenesis — Homunculus

(C) Theory of pangenesis — Gemmules
(D) Theory of germplasm proposed by — Weismann
Q.126 Which of the following genotype represents heterozygous condition?

(A) TT (B) tt (C) Tt (D) RR
Q.127 In garden pea plant, S. Blixt led to locate Mendel’s seven characters on chromosomes numbers
(A) 1,4,5,7 (B) 1,4,5,6 (C) 4,5,6,7 (D) 2,3,4,7
Q.128 Mendel selected Pisum sativum for hybridization experiments because of

(A) Clear contrasting characters and short life span
(B) Long life span and non-fertile hybrids
(C) Presence of unisexual flowers
(D) Infertile hybrids and production of large number of seeds by each plant
5.60
Q.129 Mark the odd one (with respect to dominant trait in garden pea).
(A) Yellow pod (B) Inflated pod (C) Axial flower (D) Yellow seed
Q.130 The transmission of genetic characters from parents to offspring is

(A) Variation (B) Heredity (C) Blending (D) Somatoplasm
Q.131 Who coined the term “allele”?

(A) Saunders (B) Bateson (C) Johannsen (D) Mendel
Q.132 Which of the following trait of garden pea is present on the seventh chromosome?
(A) Pod shape (B) Pod color (C) Seed shape (D) Stem height
Q.133 Who amongst the following raised the status of Mendel’s generalizations to laws?
n
(A) Correns (B) de Vries (C) Tschermak (D) Goss
.i
(A) Dominance
al
Q.134 The phenotype of F1 hybrid resembles either of the two parents in
(B) Incomplete dominance
n
(C) Co-dominance (D) Intermediate inheritance
ur
Q.135 Mendel proposed the law of dominance and the law of segregation based on his observations on
o
(A) Monohybrid crosses (B) Dihybrid crosses

uj
(C) Test crosses (D) Outcrosses

Ed
Q.136 Which of the following phenotypic ratio was found by Mendel in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross?
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (D) 12 : 4
Q.137 Both phenotypic and genotypic ratios of F2 are the same in

(A) Co-dominance (B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Outcross (D) More than one option is correct
Q.138 The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effects is known as

(A) Pleiotropy (B) Co-dominance
(C) Incomplete dominance (D) Complete dominance
5.61
Q.139 How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism, if it is heterozygous for three
loci?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 3
Q.140 What will be the genotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid outcross?
(A) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
Q.141 A cross between F1 hybrid and its homozygous recessive parent is called
(A) Outcross (B) Test cross (C) Monohybrid cross (D) Dihybrid cross
Q.142 Select the correct option with respect to the law of independent assortment:
(A) It can be explained by using monohybrid cross
(B) The inheritance of one character is dependent on another character
n
(C) This law is not applicable universally
.i
(D) It was proposed by Bateson

n al
(A) Gamete — Pure for a trait
ur
(B) Co-dominance — Flower color in Snapdragon

(C) Lethal gene — Body color in mice
o
(D) Incomplete dominance — Carl Correns

uj
Q.144 Select the odd one out with respect to non-allelic gene interactions:
Ed
(A) Epistasis (B) Duplicate genes

(C) Incomplete dominance (D) Complementary genes
Q.145 Fruit color in Cucurbita pepo is an example of

(A) Complementary genes (B) Duplicate genes
(C) Dominant epistasis (D) Polymeric genes
Q.146 Complementary genes were demonstrated by Bateson and Punnet in

(A) Capsella (B) Lathyrus odoratus
(C) Antirrhinum (D) Mirabilis
5.62
Q.147 If dominant alleles of two gene loci produce the same phenotype, whether both genes inherited
separately or together, this inheritance will be
(A) Recessive epistasis (B) Dominant epistasis
(C) Duplicate genes interaction (D) Inhibitory genes interaction
Q.148 A gene which hides the action of another gene is termed as

(A) Co-dominant gene (B) Epistatic gene
(C) Hypostatic gene (D) Lethal gene
Q.149 In polymeric gene action, the modified dihybrid phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation is
(A) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (B) 13 : 3 (C) 9 : 6 : 1 (D) 12 : 3 : 4
Q.150 Which of the following genotype of sweet pea plant is related with the production of purple coloured
n
flowers?
.i
(A) CcPp (B) CCpp (C) ccPP (D) Ccpp
al
Q.151 Select the odd one out with respect to polygenic inheritance:
n
(A) Bell-shaped curve is obtained
ur
(B) Also called quantitative inheritance

(C) Recessive alleles show cumulative effect
o
(D) Intermediate phenotypes are more frequent

uj
Q.152 Select the correct match (with respect to dihybrid phenotypic ratio in F2 generation):
Ed
(A) Recessive epistasis – 12 : 3 : 1 (B) Dominant epistasis – 9 : 3 : 4

(C) Collaborative gene – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (D) Duplicate genes – 9 : 7
Q.153 Skin color in man is controlled by

(A) Three pairs of polygenes (B) Duplicate genes
(C) Six pairs of polygenes (D) Supplementary genes
Q.154 Select the odd one out with respect to the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
(A) It was proposed by Sutton and Boveri
(B) The behavior of chromosomes is parallel to the behavior of genes
(C) Chromosomes and genes occur in pairs in diploid and haploid cells, respectively
(D) The paired condition of both, chromosomes as well as Mendelian factors, is restored during fertilization
5.63
Q.155 The term gene for Mendelian factor was coined by

(A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Morgan (C) Bateson (D) Johannsen
Q.156 Morgan used Drosophila as experimental material because

(A) It cannot be reared and bred under lab conditions
(B) A single mating produces very few offspring
(C) It has large number of morphologically similar chromosomes
(D) It has a short life span
Q.157 Who carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex-linked?
(A) Morgan (B) Sutton (C) Bateson (D) Punnet
Q.158 Coupling and repulsion hypothesis in sweet pea plant was explained by
n
(A) Mendel (B) Bateson and Punnet
.i
(C) T.H. Morgan (D) Sutton and Boveri
al
Q.159 Find the odd one out with respect to complete linkage:
n
(A) 100% parental combinations in F2 generation
ur
(B) F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 in dihybrid cross

o
(C) Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1 : 1 in F2 generation

(D) Linked genes tend to separate frequently
uj
Ed
Q.160 The condition where an individual heterozygous for two pairs of linked genes (AaBb) possesses two
dominant genes on one homologous chromosome pair and two recessive on the other is said to be
(A) Cis-arrangement (B) Trans-arrangement
(C) Partly cis partly trans (D) More than one option is correct
Q.161 How many linkage groups are present in human male?

(A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 46 (D) 22
Q.162 Linkage ratio of 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 in case of dihybrid test cross means that there are
(A) 2 parental and 14 recombinant plants (B) 14 parental and 2 recombinant plants
(C) 9 parental and 7 recombinant plants (D) 8 parental and 8 recombinant plants
5.64
Q.163 Find the incorrect statement with respect to chromosomal mapping:

(A) Crossing-over is important in locating genes on chromosome
(B) Recombination frequency depends on the distance between the genes
(C) Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes
(D) The sequences and the relative distances between various genes are graphically represented in terms
of recombination frequencies
Q.164 Individuals having homomorphic sex chromosomes produce

(A) One type of gametes (B) Two types of gametes
(C) No gametes (D) Only one gamete in complete life span
Q.165 Holandric genes are present on

(A) X-chromosomes
n
(B) Y-chromosomes
.i
(C) Sex chromosomes as well as autosomes
(D) Autosomes
n al
Q.166 Mark the incorrect pair (with respect to sex determination).
ur
(A) ZW-ZZ type — Fishes (B) ZO-ZZ type — Birds

o
(C) XX-XO type — Dioscorea (D) XX-XY type — Melandrium

uj
Q.167 Which of the following statement about a Barr body is incorrect?

Ed
(A) Observed by Barr and Bertram

(B) Can be seen in neutrophils of females as drumstick
(C) The number of Barr bodies is one less than the number of autosomes
(D) Normal male has no Barr body
Q.168 In the XX-XO type of sex determination,

(A) Females produce only one type of eggs
(B) Females have only one X-chromosome
(C) Males have two X-chromosomes
(D) Males are homogametic
5.65
Q.169 Select the odd one out with respect to the genic balance theory of sex determination in Drosophila.
(A) Y-chromosome plays no role in sex-determination
(B) Given by C.B. Bridges
(C) If X/A ratio is 1, super-females are produced
(D) If X/A ratio is less than 0.5, super-males are produced
Q.170 Environmental mechanism of sex determination is seen in

(A) Bonnelia (B) Crepidula
(C) Grasshopper (D) More than one option is correct
Q.171 Select the odd one out with respect to haemophilia

(A) X-linked dominant disorder (B) Bleeder’s disease
n
(C) Criss-cross inheritance (D) X-linked recessive disorder
.i
(A) Sex-limited trait — Colour blindness
n al
(B) Sex-limited trait — Expressed in both sexes
ur
(C) Sex-influenced trait — More frequent in one sex than in the other
(D) Sex-influenced trait — Porcupine skin
o
Q.173 If a normal man marries a girl who is a carrier of haemophilia, then

uj
(A) All sons will be haemophilic

Ed
(B) All daughters will be haemophilic

(C) 75% of offspring will be haemophilic
(D) 50% of sons will be haemophilic
Q.174 Mark the odd one (with respect to genomatic mutation):

(A) Hypoploidy (B) Tetrasomy (C) Duplication (D) Allopolyploidy

(A) Somatic mutation – No evolutionary importance
(B) Genninal mutation – Gametic mutation
(C) Frame shift mutation – Gibberish mutation
(D) Chromosomal mutation – Transversion
5.66
Q.176 The substitution of a purine with another type of purine is called

(A) Transversion (B) Transition (C) Inversion (D) Translocation
Q.177 Inversion without involving the centromere is called

(A) Paracentric (B) Monosomy (C) Pericentric (D) Tautomerization
Q.178 Aneuploidy which results in the loss of a complete homologous pair of chromosomes is
(A) Trisomy (B) Tetrasomy (C) Nullisomy (D) Euploidy
Q.179 Which of the following chemical is a base analogue?

(A) 5-Bromouracil (B) Acridine (C) Nitrous acid (D) Hypoxanthine
Q.180 Cytoplasmic male-sterility in maize is due to defective
n
(A) Mitochondria (B) Lysosome (C) Golgi body (D) Leucoplast
.i
(A) Solid symbol shows the unaffected individual
n al
Q.181 Select the incorrect statement with respect to pedigree analysis:
(B) It is useful for genetic counsellors

ur
(C) Proband is the person from which case history starts

(D) It is an analysis of traits in several generations of a family
o
uj
Q.182 Which of the following abnormalities is due to X-linked recessive mutation?

Ed
(A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Thalassemia

(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome (D) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Q.183 If the frequency of recessive allele is 0.3, then find out the frequency of heterozygous individuals in
population?
(A) 42% (B) 21% (C) 10% (D) 49%
Q.184 All genes located on the same chromosome

(A) From different groups depending upon their relative distance
(B) Form one linkage group
(C) Will not form any linkage groups
(D) Form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
Q.185 Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called

(A) Aneuploidy (B) Polyploidy (C) Allopolyploidy (D) Monosomy
5.67
Q.186 Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows

(A) A direct relationship (B) An inverse relationship
(C) A parallel relationship (D) No relationship
Q.187 If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of
the male progeny, the disease is
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive
(C) Sex-linked dominant (D) Sex-linked recessive
Q.188 In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes
for valine?
(A) G G G (B) A A G (C) G A A (D) G U G
n
Q.189 Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of
.i
(A) Pleiotropy (B) Co-dominance
(C) Segregation al
(D) Incomplete dominance
n
Q.190 ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
ur
(A) Platypus (B) Snails (C) Cockroach (D) Peacock

o
Q.191 A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the
uj
genotypes of both the parents?

(A) TT and Tt (B) Tt and Tt (C) TT and TT (D) Tt and tt
Ed
Q.192 In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio, it denotes that

(A) The alleles of two genes are interacting with each other.
(B) It is a multigenic inheritance
(C) It is a case of multiple allelism
(D) The alleles of two genes are segregation independently.
Q.193 Which of the following not result in variations among siblings?

(A) Independent assortment of genes
(B) Crossing over
(C) Linkage
(D) Mutation
5.68
Q.194 Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the
(A) Non-homologous chromosomes
(B) Homologous chromosomes
(C) Extra nuclear genetic element
(D) Same chromosome
Q.195 Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(A) Multiple allelism (B) Mosaicism (C) Pleiotropy (D) Polygeny
Q.196 In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes and the others have 18 chromosomes. The
17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms are
(A) Males and females, respectively
(B) Females and males, respectively
n
(C) All males
.i
(D) All females
al
Q.197 The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the pedigree
n
analysis. Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to
ur
(A) Quantitative trait (B) Mendelian trait

(C) Polygenic trait (D) Maternal trait
o
uj
Q.198 It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent.
This proposition was based on the
Ed
(A) Result of F3 generation of a cross

(B) Observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters
shows only one character without any blending
(C) Self pollination of F1 offsprings
(D) Cross pollination of parental generations
Q.199 Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a diybrid cross involving these two genes, the F1 heterozygote is
crossed with homozygous recessive parental type (aa bb). What would be the ratio of offspring in the next
generation?
(A) 1:1:1:1 (B) 9:3:3:1 (C) 3:1 (D) 1:1
Q.200 In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross, the number of phenotypes and genotypes are
(A) Phenotypes – 4; genotypes-16 (B) Phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
(C) Phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8 (D) Phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9
5.69
Q.201 Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group respectively. What
would be the genotype of both mother and father?
(A) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is heterozygous for ‘B’
(B) Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is homozygous for ‘B’
(C) Both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively
(D) Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively

Q.1 The common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by [CBSEPMT (Pre) 2007]
(A) Crossing over of one F2 progeny with female parent
n
(B) Studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
.i
(C) Crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent
(D) Crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
n al
Q.2 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When
ur
RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized the F2 segregation will show [CBSE PMT (Pre) 2007]
(A) Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
o
(B) Segregation in 3 : 1 ratio

uj
(C) Higher number of parental types

(D) Higher number of the recombinant types
Ed
Q.3 In pea plant, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with
a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
[CBSE PMT (Pre) 2007]
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 50 : 50
Q.4 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by [CBSE PMT (Pre) 2007]

(A) Crossing of two inbred parental lines
(B) Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
(C) Including mutations
(D) Bombarding the seeds with DNA
5.70
Q.5 A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, ab pertaining to two diallelic characters
in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person? [CBSE PMT (Pre) 2007]
(A) AaBB (B) AABb (C) AABB (D) AaBb
Q.6 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they
[CBSE 2007]
(A) Help chromosome pairing (B) Prevent chromosome loss
(C) Act as replicons (D) Are RNA transcription initiator
Q.7 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) number of chromosomes are [CBSE 2007]
(A) n = 21 and X = 14 (B) n = 21 and X = 7
(C) n = 7 and X = 21 (D) n = 21 and X = 21
.i n
Q.8 Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by [CBSE 2007]
(A) Transcription factor
(C) RNS polymerase
n al
(B) Anticodon
(D) Ribosome
ur
Q.9 A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the
[CBSE 2007]
o
(A) DNA sequence (B) Ribosome

uj
(C) Transfer RNA (D) Messenger RNA

Ed
Q.10 Sickle cell anaemia is [AIPMT CBSE Prelims 2009]

(A) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
(B) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
(C) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(D) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
Q.11 The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC,
because “O” in it refers to having [AIPMT CBSE Prelims 2009]
(A) One antibody only – either anti A or anti B on the RBCs
(B) No antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(C) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
(D) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
5.71
Q.12 Study the pedigree chart given below and select the best option. [AIPMT CBSE Prelims 2009]
(A) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
(B) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked diseases like haemophilia
(C) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like
phenylketonuria
(D) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal
recessive trait
Q.13 Select the incorrect statement from the following [AIPMT CBSE Prelims 2009]
(A) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
(B) Baldness is a sex-limited trait
(C) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity
n
(D) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
.i
(A) XY (B) XYY
n
(C) XXY
al
Q.14 Klinefelter’s syndrome has a sex chromosome complement of:
(D) XO
ur
Q.15 Which of the following trait was not studied by Mendel? [Chandigarh CET 2009]
(A) Flower position (B) Seed colour
o
(C) Flower colour (D) Seed size

uj
Ed
Q.16 Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
[CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) Factors occur in pairs
(B) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(C) Out of one pair of factor one is dominant, and the other is recessive
(D) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in generation
Q.17 The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by:
[CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) Back cross (B) Test cross
(C) Dihybrid cross (D) Pedigree analysis
5.72
Q.18 Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross
[CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(B) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
(C) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(D) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
Q.19 Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
correct? [CBSE Prelims 2010]
(A) = male affected
(B) = mating between relatives
(C) = unaffected male
n
(D) = unaffected female
.i
al
Q.20 Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?
(A) Centromere is found in animal cells, which produce aster during cell division
n [CBSE Main 2010]
(B) The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
ur
(C) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides

(D) DNA consists of a core of eight histones
o
uj
Q.21 Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can
be drawn for the character [CBSE Main 2010]
Ed
(A) The female parent is heterozygous

(B) The parents could not have a normal daughter for this character
(C) The trait under study could not be colour blindness
(D The male parent is homozygous dominant
Q.22 In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red pink and white
flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used
for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and white by rr genes. [CBSE Main 2010]
(A) rrrr (B) RR (C) Rr (D) rr
Q.23 ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene l which has three alleles and show co-dominance. There
are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible? [CBSE Main 2010]
(A) Six (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
5.73
Q.24 The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of
chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because [CBSE Main 2010]
(A) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(B) A single mating produce two young files
(C) Smaller females is easily recognizable from larger male
(D) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
Q.25 The total amount of DNA in human diploid cells is not dissimilar from that of Chimpanzee but the
diploid number of chromosomes in Chimpanzee is [Chandigarh CET 2010]
(A) 44 (B) 46 (C) 48 (D) 50
Q.26 Which one of the following is a sex-linked disease? [Chandigarh CET 2010]
n
(A) Beri beri (B) Tylosis (C) Albinism (D) Colour blindness
.i
neck, often subnormal intelligence suggest
n al
Q.27 Phenotypically females having rudimentary ovaries, under developed breast, short stature, webbing
(A) Down’s syndrome (B) Turner’s syndrome
ur
(C) Haemophilic syndrome (D) Klinefelter’s syndrome

o
Q.28 Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance? [Chandigarh CET 2010]
uj
(A) Mendel (B) Lamarck

(C) Sutton and Boveri (D) Sutton and Morgan
Ed
Q.29 Haemophilia is [HP PMT 2010]

(A) Autosomal disease (B) Bacterial disease
(C) Viral disease (D) Sex linked disease
Q.30 In human beings, 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormally causes [HP PMT 2010]
(A) Down’s syndrome (B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome (D) Edward’s syndrome
5.74
Q.31 Nucleosome is [HP PMT 2010]

(A) An intron interrupted DNA form
(B) Negatively charged DNA wrapped around the positively charged Histone octamer
(C) Satellite DNA form
(D) Double helix DNA form
Q.32 Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the
given example? [CBSE Prelims 2011]
(A) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds
(B) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(C) XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex
(D) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila
.i n
Q.33 What are those structure that appear as ‘beads’ – on – string in the chromosomes when viewed under
electron microscope?
(A) Genes (B) Nucleotides
n al
(C) Nucleosomes
[CBSE Prelims 2011]
(D) Base pairs
ur
Q.34 When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of hybrid is often superior to
both its parents. This phenomenon is called [CBSE Prelims 2011]
o
(A) Heterosis (B) Transformation (C) Splicing (D) Metamorphosis

uj
Q.35 Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing [CBSE Main 2011]
Ed
(A) Between two genotypes with recessive trait

(B) Between two F1 hybrids
(C) The F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
(D) Between two genotypes with dominant trait
Q.36 Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human
female child? [CBSE Main 2011]
(A) Two X chromosomes (B) Only one Y chromosomes
(C) Only one X chromosomes (D) Only X and one Y chromosomes
Q.37 Mendelian principles are not applicable in case of [J and K CET 2011]
(A) Autosomal alleles (B) Asexually reproducing forms
(C) Sexually interbreeding forms (D) Diploid homozygous forms
5.75
Q.38 Allelism refers to [J and K CET 2011]

(A) Genic interactions controlling a character
(B) Multiple genes controlling a character
(C) Expression of many characters by a single genes
(D) Alternative forms of a gene at a given locus
Q.39 The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by [WB JEE 2011]
(A) Blood cells (B) Bone cells (C) Sex chromosomes (D) Autosomes
Q.40 Sickle cell anaemia is the result of ______ mutation in the haemoglobin gene. [AMU 2011]
(A) Frame shift (B) Deletion (C) Point (D) None of these
n
Q.41 Presence of recombinants is due to [AMU 2011]
.i
(A) Crossing over (B) Linkage
(C) Lack of independent assortment
n al
Q.42 If a colour blind man marries a girl who is normal (homozygous) for this character, then genotypically
ur
[AMU 2011]
o
(A) Sons and daughters will be normal

uj
(B) Sons will be colour blind daughters will be normal

(C) Sons will be normal, daughters will be carriers
Ed
(D) Both sons and daughters will be color blind
Q.43 If generation has all tall progenies and ratio of generation is 3 : 1 (tall : dwarf), then it proves
[Orissa JEE 2011]
(A) law of independent assortment (B) Law of segregation
(C) Law of dominance (D) Incomplete dominance
Q.44 Multiple phenotype is seen in [Orissa JEE 2011]

(A) Dominance relationship (B) Particulate inheritance
(C) Monogenic inheritance (D) Polygenic inheritance
Q.45 Mitotic chromosomes are stained with [Chandigarh CET 2011]

(A) Safranin (B) Fast green (C) Amido blue (D) Acetocarmine
5.76
Q.46 DNA packaging in eukaryotes is done by formation of [Chandigarh CET 2011]

(A) Chromosomes (B) Chromatin (C) Chromophore (D) Nucleosome
Q.47 Which of the following is an example of Pleiotropy? [Chandigarh CET 2011]

(A) Colour blindness (B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Blood groups (D) Phenylketonuria
Q.48 The term genetics was coined by [Chandigarh CET 2011]

(A) G.J. Mendel (B) William Bateson
(C) H.D. Vries (D) A. V. Leeuwenhoek
Q.49 ABO blood group is based on [HP PMT 2011]
n
(A) Co-dominance (B) Incomplete dominance
.i
(C) Epistasis (D) Multiple alleles
n al
Q.50 Which genetic disorder is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome
(A karyotype of 47, XXY)? [HP PMT 2011]
ur
(A) Klinefelter’s syndrome (B) Down’s syndrome

o
(C) Turner’s syndrome (D) Edward’s syndrome

uj
Q.51 In 1900 who independently rediscovered Mendel’s results on the inheritance of characters?
Ed
[HP PMT 2011]

(A) de Vries (B) Correns (C) Von Tschermak (D) All the above
Q.52 A normal-visioned man whose father was colour-blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour-
blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour-blind?
[CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Zero percent (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 100%
Q.53 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as
1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of: [CBSE Prelims 2012]
(A) Dihybrid cross
(B) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(C) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(D) Co-dominance
5.77
Q.54 Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits

in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this
pattern? [CBSE Main 2012]
(A) Haemophilia (B) Thalassemia
(C) Phenylketonuria (D) Sickle cell anaemia
Q.55 A test cross is carried out to:

[CBSE Main 2012]
(A) Assess the number of alleles of a gene
(B) Determine whether two species of verities will breed successfully
(C) Determine the genotype of a plant at
(D) Predict whether two traits are linked
n
Q.56 A woman with straight hair mates with a man with curly hair who is known to be heterozygous for that
.i
trait. What is the chance that their first child will have curly hair? [Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) No chance
n al
(B) One in two
(C) It is certain (D) One in four
ur
Q.57 Which of the following crosses and resultant phenotype ratios are mismatched?
o

uj
(A) Tt x Tt % 3 : 1 (B) tt x Tt % 2 : 1
(C) TtYy x ttyy % 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (D) TtYy x TtYy % 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Ed
Q.58 The segment of DNA which participate in crossing over is termed as [Chandigarh CET 2012]
(A) Recon (B) Cistron (C) Muton (D) Operon
Q.59 Lampbrush chromosomes are giant chromosomes which are commonly seen in
(A) Salivary glands of Chironomus (B) Salivary glands of Drosophila
(C) Oocytes of sharks (D) Gametes of Drosophila
Q.60 In which type of chromosome one arm is very long and one arm is very short? [HP PMT 2012]
(A) Acrocentric (B) Metacentric (C) Submetacentric (D) Telocentric
5.78
Q.61 Highest number of chromosomes is found in the gamete of [HP PMT 2012]
(A) Onion (B) Potato (C) Rice (D) Ophioglossum
Q.62 The X-chromosomes or the X-body was first observed by [HP PMT 2012]
(A) Mendel – 1901 (B) Castle – 1910
(C) Henking – 1891 (D) Bateson – 1906
Q.63 In a Hardy-Weinberg population, if gene has only two alleles A and a, and the gene frequency of allele
A is 0.4. What is the frequency of gene ‘a’? [HP PMT 2012]
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.48 (C) 0.16 (D) 0.36
Q.64 The human syndrome which has ‘XXY’ state in its somatic cells is [HP PMT 2012]
(A) Klinefelter’s (B) Turner’s (C) Down’s (D) Superfemale
.i n
Q.65 If both parents are carries for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the
chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
n al [NEET 2013]
(A) 25% (B) 100% (C) No chance (D) 50%
ur
Q.66 Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?
o
[NEET 2013]
uj
(A) Inheritance of one gene (B) Co-dominance

(C) Incomplete dominance (D) Law of dominance
Ed
Q.67 The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is [NEET 2013]

(A) It is a dominant disease
(B) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(C) It is a sex-linked disease
(D) It is a recessive disease
Q.68 Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
[NEET 2013]
(A) The genes show independent assortment
(B) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every
meiosis
(C) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(D) The genes are tightly linked
5.79
Q.69 A man whose father was colour blind married a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal
father. What percentage of male children of the couple will be colour blind? [AIPMT 2014]
(A) 75% (B) 25% (C) 0% (D) 50%
Q.70 In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa.
Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is [AIPMT 2014]
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.6
Q.71 A human female with Turner’s syndrome [AIPMT 2014]

(A) Is able to produce children with normal husband
(B) Has 45 chromosomes with XO
(C) Has one additional X chromosome
n
(D) Exhibits male characters
.i
Q.72 Fruit colour in squash is an example of
(A) Inhibitory genes
al
(B) Recessive epistasis
n [AIPMT 2014]
(C) Dominant epistasis (D) Complementary genes

ur
Q.73 In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t).
o
If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant with genotype rrtt, then [AIPMT 2004]
uj
(A) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit

Ed
(B) 25% will be tall with red fruit

(C) 50% will be tall with red fruit
(D) 75% will be tall with red fruit
Q.74 How many different types of gametes can be formed by F1 progeny resulting from the following cross:
AA BB CC x aa bb cc? [AIIMS 2004]
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 27 (D) 64
Q.75 In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having genotype AaBb, it
should be crossed with a plant with genotype [AIPMT 2005]
(A) AaBb (B) aabb (C) AABB (D) aaBB
5.80
Q.76 When a certain character is inherited only through the female parent, it probably represents the case
of [AIPMT 92]
(A) Mendelian nuclear inheritance (B) Multiple plastid inheritance
(C) Cytoplasmic inheritance (D) Incomplete dominance
Q.77 Which law would have been violated if Mendel had chosen eight characters in garden pea?
[RPMT 90, AIPMT 96]
(A) Law of dominance
(B) Law of segregation
(C) Principle of independent assortment
(D) Law of purity of gametes
n
Q.78 If Mendel would have studied 7 pairs of characters in a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14,
.i
then [AIPMT 98]
(B) He might have not discovered linkage

n al
(A) He might have not discovered independent assortment
(C) He might have discovered crossing-over

ur
(D) He might have not observed dominance

o
uj
Q.79 Plant that does not obey Mendel’s laws is [RPMT 96]
(A) Mirabilis jalapa (B) Pisum sativum
Ed
(C) Cicer arietinum (D) Iberis amara
Q.80 In case of incomplete dominance, F2 generation has [BHU 95]

(A) Genotypic ratio equal to phenotypic ratio
(B) Genotypic ratio 3 :1
(C) Phenotypic ratio 3:1
Q.81 Genes controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were actually located on [BHU 94]
(A) Seven chromosomes (B) Six chromosomes
(C) Four chromosomes (D) Five chromosomes
5.81
Q.82 When dominant and recessive alleles express themselves together, it is called [AIPMT 2001]
(A) Co-dominance (B) Dominance
(C) Amphidominance (D) Pseudo dominance
Q.83 The nucleus of a donor embryonal cell/somatic cell is transferred to an enucleated egg cell. Then after
the formation of organism, what shall be true? [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the donor cell
(B) Organism will have extra-nuclear genes of the recipient cell
(C) Organism will, have extra-nuclear genes of both donor and recipient cells
(D) Organism will have nuclear genes of recipient cell
n
(A) Chloroplast genome (B) Mitochondrial genome
.i
(C) Nuclear genome (D) Cytosol
al
Q.85 Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the source of the gametes
n
is reversed in one cross is known as [AIPMT 2003]
ur
(A) Test cross (B) Reciprocal cross

o
(C) Dihybrid cross (D) Reverse cross

uj
Q.86 The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be located on how
Ed
many different chromosomes? [AIPMT 2003]

(A) Seven (B) Six (C) Five (D) Four
Q.87 Extra-nuclear inheritance is a consequence of the presence of genes in [AIPMT 2004]

(A) Lysosomes and ribosomes
(B) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(D) Ribosomes and chloroplast
(A) Nuclear genome (B) Chloroplast genome
(C) Cytosol (D) Mitochondrial genome
5.82
Q.89 If selfing occurs in the plant having genotype RrYy, then the ratio of genotypes RRYY, RrYY, RRYy,
RrYy will be [RPMT 2006]
(A) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 2 : 2 : 1
Q.90 What ratio is expected in offsprings if father is colour blind and mother’s father was colour blind?
[AIPMT 1999]
(A) 50% daughters are colour blind (B) All sons are colour blind
(C) All daughters colour blind (D) All sons are normal
Q.91 Independent assortment of genes does not take place when [AIPMT 2001]
(A) Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(B) Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome
n
(C) Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
.i
Q.92 What is true for monoclonal antibodies?

n al [AIPMT 2001]
(A) These antibodies are obtained from one parent and for one antigen
ur
(B) These are obtained from different parents and for one antigen
(C) These are obtained from one parent and for many antigens
o
(D) These are obtained from many parents and for many antigens
uj
Ed
Q.93 Ratio of complementary genes is [AIPMT 2001]

(A) 9 : 3 : 4 (B) 12 : 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (D) 9 : 7
Q.94 Genes A and B are linked. What shall be the genotype of progeny in a cross bet: AB/ab and ab/ab?
[AIPMT 2001]
(A) AAbb and aabb (B) AaBb and aabb
(C) AABB and aabb (D) None of these
Q.95 Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently.
Then it is called [AIPMT 2001]
(A) Epistasis (B) Polygene
(C) Non-complimentary gene (D) Complimentary gene
5.83
Q.96 Male XX and female XY sometimes occur due to [AIPMT 2001]

(A) Deletion (B) Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes
(C) Aneuploidy (D) Hormonal imbalance
Q.97 Which of the following is the example of pleiotropic gene? [AIPMT 2002]
(A) Haemophilia (B) Thalassemia
(C) Sickle-cell anaemia (D) Colour blindness
Q.98 Pattern baldness, moustaches, and beard in human males are examples of [AIPMT 2003]
(A) Sex-linked traits (B) Sex-limited traits
(C) Sex-differentiating traits (D) Sex-determining traits
n
Q.99 When a cluster of genes show linkage behavior they [AIPMT 2003]
.i
(A) Do not show a chromosome map
(B) Show recombination during meiosis
n al
(C) Do not show independent assortment
ur
(D) Induce cell division
o
Q.100 Genetic map is one that [AIPMT 2003]

uj
(A) Establishes sites of genes on a chromosome

(B) Establishes various stages in gene evolution
Ed
(C) Shows the stage during cell division

(D) Shows the distribution of various species in a region
Q.101 One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concerned with
[AIPMT 2003]
(A) Baldness
(B) Red green colour blindness
(C) Facial hair/moustaches in males
(D) Night blindness
Q.103 The recessive genes located on the X-chromosome in humans are always [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Expressed in females (B) Lethal
(C) Sub-lethal (D) Expressed in males
5.84
Q.103 Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Crossing-over (B) Repulsion (C) Recombination (D) Linkage
Q.104 A normal woman whose father was colour blind is married to a normal man. The sons would be
[AIPMT 2004]
(A) All colour blind (B) 75% colour blind (C) 50% colour blind (D) All normal
Q.105 If father shows normal genotype and mother shows a carrier trait for haemophilia,
[OLYMPIAD 2004]
(A) All female children will be carrier
(B) A male child has 50% chances of active disease
(C) A female child has 50% chances of active disease
n
(D) All female children will be colour blind
.i
(A) Haemophilia (B) Cretinism
n al
Q.106 Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
(C) Cystic fibrosis
[AIPMT 2005]
(D) Thalassemia
ur
Q.107 A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose
that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy [AIPMT 2005]
o
(A) Must have normal color vision

uj
(B) May be colour blind or may have normal vision

Ed
(C) Will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele
(D) Must be colour blind
Q.108 Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because
[AIPMT 2005]
(A) This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
(B) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
(C) This disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
(D) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
5.85
Q.109 A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have
seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the
daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
[AIPMT 2005]
(A) Sex-limited recessive (B) Autosomal dominant
(C) Sex-linked recessive (D) Sex-linked dominant
Q.110 Grain color in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following cross AABBCC (dark color)
x aabbcc (light color), in F2 generation, what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?
[AIIMS 2005]
(A) None (B) Less than 5% (C) One-third (D) Half
Q.111 Hexaploid wheat are developed through [AIIMS 1997]
n
(A) Hybridomas (B) Chromosome doubling
.i
(C) Hybridization (D) Hybridization and chromosome doubling
n al
Q.112 Breeding is possible between two members of [AMU 2005]
ur
(A) Genus (B) Family (C) Order (D) Species
o
Q.113 In which one of the following combinations, (A)~(D), of the number of chromosomes is the present
uj
day hexaploid wheat correctly represented? [AIIMS 2006]

Combination (A) (B) (C) (D)
Ed
Monosomic 21 7 21 41
Haploid 25 28 7 21
Nullisomic 42 40 42 40
Trisomic 43 42 43 43
Q.114 In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of [AIPMT 2004]
(A) Frameshift mutation (B) Transcription (C) Transition (D) Transversion
Q.115 A normal-visioned man whose father was color blind marries a woman whose father was also color
blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be color blind?
[AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 100%
5.86
Q.116 F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as
1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of [AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) Dihybrid cross
(B) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(C) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
(D) Co-dominance
Q.117 A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His
one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor? [AIPMT Pre 2012]
(A) Blood group AB (B) Blood group O
(C) Blood group A (D) Blood group B
n
Q.118 According to Mendelism, which character is showing dominance? [AIPMT 2000]
.i
(A) Terminal position of flower (B) Green color in seed coat
(C) Wrinkled seeds al
(D) Green pod color
n
Q.119 Irregularity is found in Drosophila during the organ differentiation, e.g., in place of wing, long legs are
ur
formed. The gene responsible for this is [AIPMT 2000]

(A) Double dominant gene (B) Homeotic gene
o
(C) Complimentary gene (D) Plastid

uj
Ed
Q.120 Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to the deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due
to which enzyme? [AIPMT 2001]
(A) Amylase (B) Invertase
(C) Diastase (D) Absence of starch branching enzyme
Q.121 A gene is said to be dominant if [AIPMT 2002]

(A) It expresses its effect only in homozygous stage
(B) It expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
(C) It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions
(D) It never expresses in any condition
Q.122 A plant of F1 generation has genotype AABbCC. On selfing of this plant, what is the phenotypic ratio
in F2 generation? [AIPMT 2002]
(A) 3:1 (B) 1:1 (C) 9:3:3:1 (D) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
5.87
ANSWER KEY
Objective Questions
Q.1 D Q.2 A Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 D Q.6 C
Q.7 A Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 D Q.11 B Q.12 D
Q.13 B Q.14 B Q.15 B Q.16 D Q.17 B Q.18 B
Q.19 A Q.20 C Q.21 A Q.22 D Q.23 C Q.24 C
Q.25 A Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 D Q.29 B Q.30 B
Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 C Q.35 C Q.36 C
n
Q.37 D Q.38 B Q.39 A Q.40 A Q.41 A Q.42 C
.i
Q.43 A Q.44 B Q.45 B Q.46 B
al Q.47 A Q.48 C
Q.49 B Q.50 C Q.51 B Q.52 D Q.53 C Q.54 D
n
Q.55 B Q.56 B Q.57 C Q.58 A Q.59 B Q.60 D
ur
Q.61 C Q.62 C Q.63 B Q.64 A Q.65 C Q.66 A

o
Q.67 D Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 D Q.71 C Q.72 A

uj
Q.73 B Q.74 C Q.75 C Q.76 A Q.77 B Q.78 B

Q.79 B Q.80 A Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 C Q.84 D
Ed
Q.85 B Q.86 C Q.87 D Q.88 B Q.89 C Q.90 A

Q.91 A Q.92 C Q.93 B Q.94 B Q.95 B Q.96 C
Q.97 D Q.98 D Q.99 A Q.100 C Q.101 C Q.102 C
Q.103 A Q.104 C Q.105 B Q.106 A Q.107 D Q.108 C
Q.109 B Q.110 B Q.111 C Q.112 A Q.113 A Q.114 B
Q.115 A Q.116 A Q.117 B Q.118 B Q.119 C Q.120 B
Q.121 A Q.122 D Q.123 C Q.124 D Q.125 B Q.126 C
Q.127 A Q.128 A Q.129 A Q.130 B Q.131 B Q.132 C
Q.133 A Q.134 A Q.135 A Q.136 C Q.137 D Q.138 A
Q.139 C Q.140 C Q.141 B Q.142 C Q.143 B Q.144 C
Q.145 C Q.146 B Q.147 C Q.148 B Q.149 C Q.150 A
5.88
Q.151 C Q.152 C Q.153 A Q.154 C Q.155 D Q.156 D

Q.157 A Q.158 B Q.159 D Q.160 A Q.161 A Q.162 B
Q.163 C Q.164 A Q.165 B Q.166 B Q.167 C Q.168 A
Q.169 C Q.170 D Q.171 A Q.172 C Q.173 D Q.174 C
Q.175 D Q.176 B Q.177 A Q.178 C Q.179 A Q.180 A
Q.181 A Q.182 D Q.183 A Q.184 B Q.185 A Q.186 B
Q.187 D Q.188 D Q.189 B Q.190 D Q.191 B Q.192 D
Q.193 C Q.194 A Q.195 C Q.196 A Q.197 B Q.198 B
Q.199 A Q.200 D Q.201 C
.i n
Q.1 C Q.2 C Q.3 D
al
Q.4 A
n
Q.5 D Q.6 B
Q.7 B Q.8 A Q.9 A Q.10 A Q.11 B Q.12 D
ur
Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 D Q.16 D Q.17 B Q.18 A

o
Q.19 B Q.20 B Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 C Q.24 D

uj
Q.25 C Q.26 D Q.27 B Q.28 C Q.29 D Q.30 C

Q.31 B Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 A Q.35 C Q.36 A
Ed
Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 D Q.40 C Q.41 A Q.42 C

Q.43 B Q.44 D Q.45 D Q.46 D Q.47 B, D Q.48 B
Q.49 D Q.50 A Q.51 D Q.52 A Q.53 C Q.54 A
Q.55 C Q.56 B Q.57 B Q.58 A Q.59 C Q.60 A
Q.61 D Q.62 C Q.63 A Q.64 A Q.65 A Q.66 B
Q.67 A Q.68 D Q.69 D Q.70 D Q.71 B Q.72 C
Q.73 C Q.74 B Q.75 B Q.76 C Q.77 C Q.78 A
Q.79 A Q.80 A Q.81 C Q.82 A Q.83 B Q.84 B
Q.85 B Q.86 D Q.87 B Q.88 D Q.89 A Q.90 A
Q.91 B Q.92 B Q.93 D Q.94 B Q.95 D Q.96 B
Q.97 C Q.98 B Q.99 C Q.100 A Q.101 B Q.102 D
5.89
Q.103 D Q.104 C Q.105 B Q.106 B Q.107 B Q.108 B

Q.109 C Q.110 B Q.111 D Q.112 D Q.113 D Q.114 D
Q.115 A Q.116 C, D Q.117 B Q.118 D Q.119 B Q.120 D
Q.121 C Q.122 A
.i n
nal
o ur
uj
Ed

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L

The Living World

WHAT IS ‘LIVING’? How wonderful the nature is to show such a huge

diversity on one planet! The variety in living world

Figure 1.1: Jelly fish in ocean

Figure 1.3: Honey bee on a flower collecting nectar in a garden

Objectives of this Chapter

3. Characteristic of Living Beings

Flowchart 1.1: Characteristics of Living Figure 1.4: Various Living organisms

Any multicellular organism will grow by cell division of

culturing of tissues. Higher multicellular organisms

grow and multiply mutually. Growth of an organism is

clearly visible from its body mass. Mountains, boulders

living world also increase in mass. However, this kind

Life shows metabolism inside the organism’s body.

All living organisms are made of organic components

small or big, classified in various classes, sizes,

3.4 Cellular Structure

Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals.

4. Diversity in the Living World

4.1 Need for Classification of Organisms

Three Domains of Life

5. Taxonomy and Systematics

relationships amongst the organisms”.

i.e., morphological, cytological, biochemical, genetical etc. The term Biosystematics

where it was species.

DID YOU KNOW

3.Choose the correct statement

(B) Extrinsic growth is characteristics of non-living objects

(C) Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated in a cell-free system

(D) First step of taxonomy is classification

6.1 International Code of Nomenclature

6.2 Rules for Binomial Nomenclature

y For example names of subspecies and varieties are given below:

ο Corvus splendens splendens - Indian crow

Q.8 First life on earth was (AIPMT 2001)

Q.9 Reason for diversity among living beings is (AIPMT 2001)

Q.55 A Q.56 C Q.57 B Q.58 D Q.59 B Q.60 C

Q.61 A Q.62 D Q.63 D Q.64 D Q.65 D

Previous Years’ Questions

many approaches for classification all were in vain

and no results came out. The reason being that

KINGDOM: MONERA universal without linking it to the scientific logic.

At the end of this chapter, you will be able to:

y Describe the reasons for classification.

y Realize the emergence of the present classification system.

2.1 Artificial System of Classification

four group herbs, undershrub, shrubs and trees.

2.2 Natural Systems for Classification

2.3 Phylogenetic Systems for Classification

2.4 Phenetic System for Classification

2.4.2 Cladistic (Phylogenetic) Taxonomy

3.1 Two Kingdom Classification

Drawbacks: The problems faced by three kingdom classification were:

3.3 Four Kingdom Classification

Flowchart 2.3: Four Kingdom classification

3.4 Five Kingdom Classification

Flowchart 2.4: Five Kingdom classification

Figure 2.1: Five Kingdom classification with their major differences

3.5 Six Kingdom Classification