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In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500

AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School Program & 4423
FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017
FULL TEST – II

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong
results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. A box suspended by a rope is pulled to one side by a horizontal force. The tension in the rope
(A) Is less than before
(B) Remains unchanged
(C) Is greater than before
(D) May be any of the above, depending on the force applied

2. The co-efficient of kinetic friction between two steel surfaces is


(A) 0.57 N/kg (B) 0.7 N
(C) 0.63 N/m (D) 0.6 J/N-m

3. The head of an axe has a mass of 2.5 kg. It exerts a force of 80 kN as it penetrates 18 mm into
the trunk of a tree. The speed with which the axe head struck the tree was
(A) 1.2 m/s (B) 34 m/s
(C) 3.4 m/s (D) 107 m/s

4. A ball strikes a horizontal surface at an angle α with it and rebounds at an angle β, then find the
incorrect statement
(A) β may be equal to α (B) β may be less than α
(C) β may be greater than α (D) β can not be greater than α

5. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 second. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
measured to be 25 seconds. The percentage error in the measurement of time will be
(A) 0.1% (B) 0.8%
(C) 1.8% (D) 8%

Space for rough work

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6. An air chamber of volume V has a neck area of cross – section ‘a’ into which a
ball of mass m can move up and down without friction. If the ball is press down 
a little and released then find the time period of oscillation of ball. Here air is     
ideal & its temperature remains constant & the isothermal. Bulk modulus of air     
is B.     
(A) T= 2π (B) T= 2π  V  
(C) T= 2π (D) None of these     

7. A source when at rest in a medium produces waves with a velocity v and a wavelength of λ. If the
source is set in motion with a velocity vs what would be the wavelengths produced directly in front
of the source?
 v   v 
(A)  1  s  (B)  1  s 
 v  v
 v λv
(C)  1   (D)
 vs  v+v s

8. A car just leaves the road when it passes over a hump of radius 40 m. The car’s velocity is
(A) 20 m/s (B) 392 m/s
(C) 62 m/s (D) It cannot be found with the mass of the car

9. Two glass slabs of same thickness are joined to form an L as shown. t


A ray is incident on the combination as shown (in the plane of paper). 45°
The final emergent ray will

t
A
(A) Come out at point A in the same direction as that of the original ray.
(B) Come out at point A but not in the same direction as that of the original ray.
(C) Does not come out at point A but is in the same direction as that of the original ray.
(D) Does not come out at point A and is not in the same direction as that of the original ray.

Space for rough work

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10. A solid steel cylinder A and an identical wooden cylinder B are released from two identical
inclines from the same height. The incline of A has sufficient friction to ensure rolling and that of B
is frictionless, then
(A) A reaches the bottom first
(B) B reaches the bottom with greater Kinetic Energy
(C) Both reach the bottom with same Kinetic Energy
(D) A reaches the bottom with greater Kinetic Energy

11. A 400g piston in a compressor oscillates up and down through a total distance of 80mm. The
maximum force on the piston when it moves at 10 cycles/s is
(A) 64 N (B) 68 N
(C) 128 N (D) 132 N

12. Two monkeys A and B of equal mass ‘m’ can climb strings of a pulley
2
arrangement as shown in figure. Find magnitude of acceleration (in m/s )
of A with respect to rope so that the block remains stationary. It is given 
that B is just holding the string. Assume pulley is frictionless and string is
massless and inextensible. A
2 2

(A) 90 m/s (B) 100 m/s
2 2
B
(C) 110 m/s (D) 120 m/s 5m

13. A boiler in which the gauge pressure is 4 bar develops a leak. The velocity at which the water
comes out is
(A) 89 mm/s (B) 28 m/s
(C) 20 m/s (D) 0.8 km/s


14. A proton (mass m and charge e) is fired from origin with velocity v=v 0 ˆi+v 0 ˆj in a uniform

magnetic field B=B0 iˆ . In the subsequent motion of the particle the axis of the helical path is
mv0 mv0
(A) z=+ in xz  plane (B) z=+ in yz  plane
eB0 eB0
mv0 mv0
(C) z   in xz  plane (D) z   in yz  plane
eB0 eB0

Space for rough work

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15. Figure shows the anode potential vs photo-current graph when photons of 6eV are incident on
cathode in a photoelectric experiment set-up. In the same experimental set-up, if photons of 8eV
and same intensity are incident on cathode, then anode-potential vs photo-current graph will be
(assume 100% efficiency of photons to eject photo-electrons in both cases)
photocurrent
i0

-3V 0 anode potential


(A) (B)
i0 i0

-3V -3V
(C) (D)
i0 i0

-3V -3V
Space for rough work

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16. A uniform magnetic field B increases in magnitude with time 't' as given in fig. 1. A circular
2
conducting loop of area 8 × 10–4 m lies in the field, the field is  to the plane of loop. The
amount of charge 'q' that passed through the point A on the loop is given in fig. 2 as a function of
time 't' . The resistance of loop is:
    
 
 
  
    

 

 A  
9 6
B (mT)

q (mC)
6 4
3 2

1 2 3 1 2 3
t s  t s
(A) 2.4 m (B) 6 m
(C) 1.2 m (D) 4 m

17. P–V graph for an ideal gas undergoing polytropic process P


N
PV  constant is shown here. Then N is  P
(A) 1.5 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 3 2 105
37
5
4  10
V  m3 

18. Which of the following combination of units is equal to the watt?


2
(A) Js (B) A 
2
(C) V / A (D) V 2
Space for rough work

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19. A light bulb rated at 240 V, 150 W is connected to a 120 V power line. The current that flows in it
is
(A) 0.313 A (B) 1.25 A
(C) 0.625 A (D) 1.88 A

20. A network of three 5 Ω resistors cannot have an equivalent resistance of


(A) 1.67 Ω (B) 7.5 Ω
(C) 2.5 Ω (D) 15 Ω

21. Frequency of the k x-ray for the element calcium (Ca, z=20) is 8.95× Hz. Frequency of k x-
ray for element cadmium (Cd, z = 48) will be
(A) 5.46× Hz (B) 6.31× Hz
(C) 5.71× Hz (D) 6.31× Hz

22. In the circuit shown, switch S is initially open. At time t = 0, S is closed, at this instant the potential
difference across the 5 Ω resistor is
1H

S1
S2
+
10V 20

5

(A) 10 V (B) 2.5 V
(C) 5 V (D) 0 V

Space for rough work

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23. An organ pipe of length L is open at one end and closed at the other end. The air column in the
pipe is vibrating in second overtone. The minimum distance from the open end where the
pressure amplitude is half of the maximum value is
(A) L / 4 (B) L / 8
(C) L /12 (D) L /15

24. A long straight wire of circular cross-section is made of a non-magnetic material. The radius of
cross-section of the wire is a. The wire carries a current I which is uniformly distributed over its
cross-section. The energy stored per unit length in the magnetic field contained with the wire is
(A) μ /2π (B) μ /4π
(C) μ /8π (D) μ /16π

25. In the given circuit all diodes are ideal. The current through battery D1 5
(shown in figure) is
(A) 2 A (B) 1 A
(C) 4 A (D) 4 A 3
3
2 D2
2
20V

26. At certain time the activity of three radioactive materials are in the ratio of 3: 5:7. What will be the
ratio of their activities at any further date?
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1 : 1
(C) 3 : 5 : 7 (D) 7 : 5 : 3

27. Two moles of a monatomic gas is mixed with three moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific
heat of the mixture at constant volume is
(A) 1.9 R (B) 2.1 R
(C) 2 R (D) 1.67 R

Space for rough work

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28. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of
the bulb increases when:
(A) Number of turns in the coil is increased.
(B) A capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in the same circuit.
(C) An iron rod is inserted in the coil.
(D) Frequency of the AC source is increased.

29. A bar magnet of length ‘l’ and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in
the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole
moment will be  
3 2 2
(A) M (B) M
  r r
M 90
(C) (D) M
2

30. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain 12, the transistor used has trans
conductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one
with trans conductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be:
(A) 18 (B) 4
(C) 12 (D) 8

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. H H
H H
'A'is 'B'is
Cl Cl Cl H
Which of the following statement is correct about organic compounds A and B ?
(A) Both are optically active
(B) 'A' is optically active and B is optically inactive
(C) 'B' is optically active and 'A' is optically inactive
(D) Both are optically inactive.

2. Dilute solution of KOH reacts with I 2 and forms:


(I) KI (II) KI 3
(III) KIO
(A) II , II (B) I , III
(C) I (D) I , II , III

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3. Me

H CH2 + NBS six procucts:

Which of the following statements is incorrect about products?


(A) H Me

Me CH2Br , H CH2Br are two possible products.

(B) Me Br H Br

H H CH2 , Me H CH2 are other two possible products.

(C) Me H

Br CH2 , H CH2 are other two possible products.


H Me

H Br
(D) Me Br Br Me

H H CH2 , H2C H H are other two possible products.

4. 0.42g of Mg 2C3 reacts with water produces gas X. The gas X combination with O2 produce
CO2 . The volume of CO2 at STP:
(A) 112mL (B) 448mL
(C) 336mL (D) 448mL
Space for rough work

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5. Down the group 13 and group 14 , lower oxidation state compounds are more stable because:
(A) Down the group I .E. decreases
(B) Poor shielding of electrons in s & p  orbitals as compare to d & f-orbitals
(C) Down the group electronegativity decreases
(D) Outer shell electron are less shielded from nucleus due to presence of electrons in d-orbitals
of penultimate shell

6. Which of the following combination of atomic orbitals result into non-bonding?

A       
  

B       
 


  
 C  
  
     

 

D    
 

 

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7. Cl I BuLi
low temperature B   'C'
+BuLi  A low temperature
S S
HgCl2 , MeOH, H 2 O

'D'
Correct structure of compound 'D' is:
(A) (B) CH3CH 2 CHO
O
(C) O (D) CH 3CH 2CH 2CHO

 a 
8. Consider the Vander Waal’s equation of state  p   V  b   RT correct statements is:
 V2 
(A) Value of ' a ' of N 2 is larger than that of NH 3 due to higher molecular weight of N 2
(B) Gas ' A ' has Vander Wall’s constants 'a '  L atm / mol 
2 2
and ' b '  L / mol  as 7 and
2
4.98 10 , this gas cannot be liquid at temperature 200C however high pressure may be
applied.
b
(C) At high pressure above equation reduces to Z  1 
RTV
(D) If Z  1, attractive forces are dominating among the gaseous molecules
Na CS2 CH 3I
9. cis-2-phenylcyclohexanol   'A'  'B'   'C'
'C' is S-methyl xanthate, which on pyrolysis gives:
(A) 3-phenylcyclohexene (B) 1-phenylcyclohexene
Ph

(C) (D)
H
CH3

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10. Bond dissociation enthalpy of gaseous H 2 , Cl2 and HCl are 104,58 and 103 Kcal / mol
respectively. Then enthalpy of formation of HCl gas is:
(A) 22 kcal (B) 22 kcal
(C) 44 kcal (D) 44 kcal

11. Which of the following process would result into formation of 7-methyl-1-naphthol?
(A) cis-4-  p-Tolyl  -3-butenoic acid+HF
(B) trans-4-  p-Tolyl  -3-butenoic acid+HF
(C)
anhydraous Pd/C

AlCl3
  
O
Cl
(D)
anhyd.AlCl3 Pd/C FeSO4 /H 2 O2
    
Cl

12. When a hydrocarbon C x H y is burnt, gives 100ml of gaseous mixture of CO2 and H 2O
(vapour). On passing product mixture through anhydrous CuSO4 result into decrease of volume
by 60 ml . Which of the following lowest molecular weight hydrocarbon can satisfy the above
condition?
(A) CH 4 (B) C2 H 6
(C) C2 H 4 (D) C4 H10

3
13. While testing BO3 , there is green-edges flame on heating the salt with conc. H 2 SO4 and
CH 3OH . Green colour is of
(A)  CH 3 3 B (B)  CH 3O 3 B
(C) B2O3 (D) H 3 Bo3

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14. Vanillin  L  , C8 H 8O3 , is isolated from vanilla beans. It give an intense colour with FeCl3 and
positive Tollen’s test. It is not steam-distilled and does not react with HCl . It goes through
following steps:

L  OH
1. equivalent of CH 3 I
KMnO4
 M ,  C9 H10O3    N ,  C9 H10O4  ,  HCO3 soluble 

conc. HI 

3,4-dihydroxy benzoic acid


 Ag  NH 
2 Br2 
 3 2
L    O   P,  C7 H 6 Br2O2 
Which of the following is correct statement about various products?
(A) OH OH
CH3 Br OCH3
Lis and P is

COOH Br
(B) OH OH
CHO Br Br
Lis and P is

OMe OMe
(C) OH OH
OMe Br OMe
Lis and P is

CHO Br
(D) OH OH
Br
Lis and P is
OMe OMe
CHO Br

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15. [X] + H2SO 4  [Y] , a colourless gas with irritating smell
[Y] + K 2Cr2O7 + H2SO 4 
 Green solution
The species [X] and [Y] are
2 –
(A) SO3 , SO2 (B) Cl , HCl
(C) S2–, H2S (D) CO23 ,CO2

16. COOH
CH NH3

(CH2)3
CH2 NH
3
Lysine has pka1 , p ka2 , p ka3 values 2.18 , 8.95 and 10.53 respectively. Then value of its
isoelectric point  p  is:
I

(A) 7.22 (B) 5.565


(C) 6.355 (D) 9.74

17. The colour of potassium dichromate is due to:


(A) d-d transition (B) transition in K  ion
(C) ligand-to-metal charge transfer (D) metal to ligand charge transfer

18. The crystal field stabilization energy of high spin d7 octahedral complex is:
(Where P is pairing energy and 0 is octahedral splitting energy)
4 4
(A)  0  2P (B)  0  3P
5 5
9 9
(C)  0  2P (D)  0  3P
5 5

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19. Incorrect statement for metal carbonyl [M(CO)6 ] is:


(A)  bonding electrons are donated by CO group to the metal.
(B) d  p back bonding occurs from the filled metal orbitals.
(C) d  p back bonding makes M-CO bond stronger.
(D) C – O bond length is greater in CO molecules as compare to C – O bond length in given
complex.

20. O
H
N
+ mild acidic

conditions
Ph CH 2 Cl
 ' A '  ' B ' 

H / H 2O
C  D
 enamine 
The incorrect statement about various organic products in above sequence is:
(A) (B) CH 2Ph
A is N
Bis + Cl 
N

(C) (D)
Cis O D is N OH

CH2Ph

21. A 0.001 molal solution of a complex represented as Pt  NH 3 4 Cl4 in water had freezing point
depression of 0.0054 C. Given Kf for H2O = 1.86 K molality–1. Assuming 100% ionisation of the
0

complex. Which of the following is incorrect statement about the complex?



(A) Formula of Complex is Pt  NH 3 4 Cl4 
(B) 2 Cl atoms are attached as ligands in the complex
(C) The value of Van’t Hoff factor is 3
(D) The complex is octahedral in shape

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22.
O  1 LDA
 2  Ph-CH -Br  'A'
2

Which of the following is correct statement about compound 'A' :


(A) (B) O
O CH Ph
A is
CH2Ph
A is
(C) (D) HO CH2 Ph
CH Ph
A is
A is

23. An orange coloured compound (A) when treated with NaCl & conc. H 2 SO4 gives red brown
vapour B . This vapour when passed through NaOH gives yellow coloured solution  C  .
On addition of CH 3COOH and  CH 3COO  2 Pb to this yellow solution, yellow colured ppt
 D  is obtained. Which of the following compound is not resemble with above information:
(A) 'A' is K 2Cr2O7 (B) 'B' is CrO2Cl2
(C) 'C' is Na 2CrO4 (D) 'D' is PbCl2

24. Which of the following is correct Haworth projection for  -D glucopyranose?


(A) CH 2OH (B) CH 2OH
H O H H O OH
H H
OH H OH H
OH OH OH H
H OH H OH
(C) HOH2C (D) CH 2OH
O CH2OH O H
OH
H OH H
H OH H OH
H OH
OH H OH H

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25. Adsorption of gases on solid surface is generally exothermic because:


(A) chemical bonds are always formed
(B) adsorbate decreases the surface energy of adsorbent
(C) entropy increases
(D) free energy increases

26. Which of the following statement is false, if ' a ' is the unit cell edge length?
(A) 0.866 a is the shortest distance between cation and anion in CsCl crystal.
(B) 0.707 a is the shortest distance between two cations in CaF2 crystal
(C) 0.433a is the shortest distance between carbon atom in diamond
(D) 0.866 a is the shortest distance between two cation in rock salt crystal

27. 2A+C  P follows the mechansm as shown below


 B K  equilibrium constant 
2A 
 P K f  rate constant 
B+C 
d  P
The overall rate, + based on above mechanism is given by
dt
2 2
(A) KK f  A  C  B  (B) KK f A  C 
(C) K  A B  (D) K f  B C 

28. A current of 0.55Amp deposits 0.55gm of a metal in 100 minutes. Calculate atomic mass of
M .W .
the metal if equivalent weight  ?
3
(A) 100 (B) 45
(C) 48.25 (D) 144.75

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29.

R r

O
r
The radial part of wave function of an orbital is plotted against distance from nucleus. Which
orbital represent above graph?
(A) 1s (B) 2 s
(C) 3s (D) 2p

30. pH of 0.01M   NH 4  2 SO4 and 0.02M  NH 4OH buffer  p Ka of NH 4  9.26  is:


(A) 9.26 (B) 9.26  log 2
(C) 9.26  log 2 (D) 4.74  log 2

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. If n  s  represents the number of elements in the set S, such that n  A   10 and n  B   20 ,


then the value of n  AB  cannot be:
(A) 30 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 12

f  x
2. If x 2
 2 x  1  2  4, then the maximum value of f  x  is:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

 x x 1 3
3. The number of solution(s) of max  2 , 2 ,    x is:
 2 4
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) Infinitely many

1 2 2 2 n  n  3
4. Let    ....   nfN , then the value of k is:
3 2.3.4 3.4.5 n  n  1 n  2  k  n  1 n  2 
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

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5. A student preparing for IIT-JEE at FIITJEE is given 6 targets numbered to 1 to 6 of each subject
physics, chemistry and mathematics. He or she keeps all his books in different shelves (for each
subject) in order, number of ways to select all 18 books one by one such that books of each
subject must be selected in order (i.e. all books of one subject to the selected one after another,
then of second subject and then of third subject) is:
18! 18!
(A) (B)  3!
6!6!6! 6!6!6!
6!6!6! 18!
(C) (D)
3! 6!6!6!3!

6. If x is such that  2sin x   cos x   3 , for some x  0, 25 then range of the function
g  x   sin x  cos x, where . represents greatest integer function is:
(A)   2, 1
 
(B)   2, 1
 
 1  3   1  3 
(C)   2,  (D)  , 1
 2 
  2 
1
7. If f  x    x   x and g  x   sin x , then number of elements in the range of gof  x  is
(where 
. represents fractional part function):
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

1
8. The number of real solution of  x, y  where y  cos x and y  cos  cos x  , 2  x  2
is/are:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

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9. Let f  x    x  2  and g  x   cos x, where . denotes the greatest integer function. The

value of  fog  '  , is:
2
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) Does not exist

10. Number of points of non-differentiability of f  x   min 0, cos x,sin x in  0, 2n  is:
(A) 3n  1 (B) 3n
(C) 3n  1 (D) 3n  2

d2
11. If y  cos x then
dy 2
 sin5 x  is:
3
(A) 15sin x  20sin x (B) 15sin x  20sin 3 x
3 3
(C) 20sin x  15sin x (D) 20sin x  15sin x

12. Find the maximum possible area of rectangle such that it two vertices are on y-axis and other two
vertices on the lines y  x and 3 x  2 y  6 respectively and the rectangle is inscribed in
triangle, y  0, y  x, 3 x  2 y  6 is:
3 7
(A) (B)
10 10
9 11
(C) (D)
10 10

13. If the linex  my  n  0 is a normal to the curve xy  1, then possible value of  and m is:
(A)   2, m  1 (B)   2, m  1
(C)   2, m  1 (D)   1, m  2

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1 p q
14. In a PQR (with usual solutions) if 1 q r  0, then the value of cos 2 P  cos 2Q  cos 2R
1 r p
is:
1 1
(A) (B) 
2 2
3 3
(C) (D) 
2 2

15. The number of values of ' t ' for which the system of equations
 t  1 x  8 y  4t , tx   t  3 y  3t  1 has no solution is:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

16. If 4 x  ay  3 z  0, x  2 y  az  0 and ax  2 z  0 have a non-trivial solution, then the value


of a is:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 0

3x 2  2 x
17.  x6  2 x5  x 4  2 x3  2 x 2  5dx is equal to:
3 2
1 1  x  x  1  1 1  x 3  x 2  1 
(A) tan    C (B) sin  C
2  2  2  2 
1  x3  x2  1  1  x3  x 2  1 
(C) tan  C (D) sin  C
 2   2 
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 sin  t  dt , then f ' 1 is equal to:


2
18. If f  x  
1
x
3 1
(A) sin1 (B) sin1
2 2
(C) sin1 (D) 2sin1

 x2 
19. Area bounded by the curves y    1 , y  x  2 and x  0 above x-axis is, where .
 36 
denotes greatest integer function:
1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
5 7
(C) (D)
2 2

dy
20. If the equation represented by the solution of the differential equation  xy  1  y2  0
dx
passes through the points  2,1 and  k , e  , then the value of k is:
1
(A) e2 (B)
e
2 3
(C) (D)
e e
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21. Total number of unit vectors in xy  plane making on angle of 45 with the vector iˆ  ˆj and an
angle of 60 with the vector 3iˆ  ˆj is:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

22. If a and b are selected from the set 1, 2,3,.....10 , then probability that a 2  b 2 is divisible by
3 is:
1 4
(A) (B)
15 15
8 13
(C) (D)
15 15
13
23. The value of sum of the series C0 .14 C1 13 C1 .14 C2 13 C2 .14 C3  ..... 13 C13 .14 C14 is:
27 27
(A) C12 (B) C14
27 27
(C) C16 (D) C10

24. The distance of the point  2,3  from the line 2 x  3 y  9  0 measured along a line parallel to
x  y  1  0 is:
(A) 4 2 (B) 3 2
(C) 2 2 (D) 2

25. If the two circles x 2  y 2  1 and x 2  y 2  8 x  6 y   2  0 have exactly two common


tangents then the number of integral value of  is:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 5

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26. If PQ and RS are two perpendicular chord of the rectangular hyperbola xy  1 . If C is the
centre of this hyperbola then product of the slopes of CP, CQ, CR and CS is:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) Not defined


27. If z1 , z2 and z3 are the vertices of ABC , taken is anticlockwise order such that B  and
4
BC  2  AB  , then i  z2  z3  is equal to:
(A) z1  z2  z3 (B) z2  z3  z1
(C) z1  z3  2 z2 (D) z2  z3  2 z1

28. 6 person A, B, C , D, E and F are to be seated at a circular table. In how many ways can this
be done if A must always has either B or C on his right and B must always has either C or D on
his right:
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 18 (D) 30

29. Standard deviation of two distributions are same and their arithmetic means are 30 and 25
respectively. If their coefficient of variation is v1 and v2 , then 6v1  5v2 is equal to:
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

30. If A, G and H are arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means between three given numbers
a, b and c then the equation having a, b and c as its roots is:
3G 3 3G 3
(A) x 3  3 Ax 2 x  G3  0 (B) x 3  3 Ax 2 x  G3  0
H H
3 2 3G 3 3G 3
(C) x  3 Ax  x  G3  0 3 2
(D) x  3 Ax  x  G3  0
H H
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FIITJEE JEE (Main)-2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
FULL TEST – I

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
Program & 4423 Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type


This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A block of mass M is connected to a spring of force


constant k and is placed on a smooth horizontal
surface. The block is displaces and compresses the k
spring by a. The block is left free to move from this M M
position, when the block is at a distance a/2 from
the mean position it collides elastically with an Mean
identical block. Time the oscillating block takes to a/ a/ position
reach from extreme to the mean position is

M M 5 M
(A) 2 (B)  (C) (D) None
k k 6 k

2. A circular loop of mass m and radius R rests flat on a horizontal m


frictionless surface. A bullet of equal mass moving with a velocity
R
V strikes the hoop and gets embedded in it. The angular velocity
of the system after the impact is
v v R/2
(A) (B) m
4R 6R v
2v 3v
(C) (D)
3R 4R

3. A sound source is located somewhere along the x–axis. Experiment shows that the same wave
front simultaneously reaches listeners at x = -10 m and x = + 4.0 m. A third listener is positioned
along the positive y–axis. What is his y–coordinate (in m) if the same wave front reaches at him
at the same instant it does the first two listeners?
(A) 40 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 30

4. Assume that a star has uniform density. Then the gravitational pressure (P) on the surface of the
star related to volume (V) of star is.
(A) P  V 1/3 (B) P  V 2 /3 (C) P  V 4 / 3 (D) P  V 5 / 3

5. Two batteries one of the emf 3V, internal resistance 1 ohm and
the other of emf 15 V, internal resistance 2 ohm are connected
in series with a resistance R as shown. If the potential
difference between a and b is zero the resistance of R in ohm is
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 3 (D) 1

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6. Heat generated in the circuit when switch is shifted from 1 to 2


is
(A) 32J (B)16J
(C) 48J (D) 64J

7. A light pointer fixed to one prong of a tuning fork touches a vertical plate. The fork is set vibrating
and the plate is allowed to fall freely. Eight complete oscillations are counted when the plate falls
through 40 cm. The frequency of tuning fork is (g = 980 cm)
(A) 56 Hz (B) 8 Hz (C) 49 Hz (D) 28 Hz

8. A large tank is filled with water at the rate of 70 cm 3/s. A hole of cross – section area 0.25 cm 2 is
punched at the bottom of the tank. The maximum height to which the tank can be filled is
(A) 40 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 50 cm

9. Consider the following statements


(i) Young’s modulus is numerically equal to the stress which will double the length of a wire
(ii) The surface tension of a liquid decreases due to the presence of insoluble contamination
(iii) Viscosity of gases is greater than that of liquids.
The number of above statements that are true is
(A) zero (B) Three (C) Two (D) One

10. Two composite bar having coefficient of linear expansion 1 and  2 1


respectively, are shown in fig. If the temperature of the bar is raised 2
by toC then P Q
(A) Shape of the composite bar is concave toward PQ if 1   2

(B) Shape of the composite bar is convex toward PQ if 1   2


(C) Shape of the bar is concave towards PQ if 1   2
(D) Bar will not bend irrespective of the value of 1 and  2

11. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by 40 A, which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of 4 K  . The voltage gain of the amplifier is
(A) 2000 (B) 3000 (C) 4000 (D) 1000

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12. Loop A of radius (r << R) moves towards loop B with a constant


velocity V in such a way that their planes are always parallel. What
is the distance between the two loops (x) when the induced emf in
loop A is maximum :
R
(A) R (B)
2
R  1 
(C) (D) R  1  
2  2

13. Vernier constant of the Vernier caliper is


(A) least count of Vernier caliper (B) value of 1 division of main scale
(C) value of 1 division of Vernier scale (D) None of these

14. A block of mass m is placed on an another rough block of mass M and both are moving
horizontally with same acceleration a due to a force which is applied on the lower block, then
work done by lower block on the upper block in moving a distance s will be
M2
(A) Mas (B) m  M as (C) as (D) mas
m

15. An N – P – N transistor is connected


Ic
in common emitter configuration in
which collector supply is 9V and the C
voltage drop across the load IB B
resistance of 1000  connected in VCE 1000 RL 1 V
the collector circuit is 1V. If current RB
E
amplification factor is (25/26) and the + - - +
internal resistance of the resistor is
200 . . Then which of the following VBB Vcc
statement is incorrect.
(A) VCE  8V
(B) collector current is 1.0 mA
50
(C) voltage gain , power gain is 4.6
23
(D) emitter current is 2.04 mA

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16. The magnifying power of the telescope is found to be 9 and the separation between the lenses is
20 cm for relaxed eye. Then the focal lengths of component lenses are
(A) 18 cm, 2 cm (B) 10 cm, 10 cm
(C) 9 cm, 11 cm (D) None of these

17. In compound microscope


(A) The objective has a shorter focal length
(B) The objective has a shorter aperture
(C) (a) and (b) both are correct
(D) The aperture of objective and eye piece are same

18. The pipe shows the volume flow rate of an ideal liquid at certain time and its direction. What is the
value of Q in m 3/s (Assume steady state and equal area of cross section at each opening)
3  10 6 m3 / s 2  10 6 m3 / s

4  10 6 m3 / s

7  10 6 m3 / s
1 106 m3 / s

4  10 6 Q 8  106 m3 / s

(A) 12  106 m3 / s (B) 11 10 6 m3 / s


(C) 9  10 6 m3 / s (D) 13  10 6 m3 / s

19. A parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident on a narrow rectangular slit of width 1 mm.
When the diffraction pattern is seen on a screen placed at a distance of 2 m. The width of
principal maxima is found to be 2.5 mm. The wave length of light is
o o o o
(A) 6250 A (B) 6200 A (C) 5890 A (D) 6000 A

20. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitude of electric field is 1V/m. The frequency of wave is
5  1014 Hz. The wave is propagating along z – axis. The average energy density of electric field in
Joule/m3, will be
(A) 1.1 1011 (B) 2.2  10 12 (C) 3  10 13 (D) 4.4  1014

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21. Figure shows a bent coil with all edges of length 1m and y
carrying a current 1A, then torque acting on the loop is
(A) zero (B) 3 N-m
(C) 2 N-m (D) 1 N-m
B  1T

22. Find the minimum thickness of a film which will strongly reflect the light of wavelength 589 nm.
The refractive index of the material of the film is 1.25
(A) 118 nm (B) 120 nm (C) 118 mm (D) 120 mm

23. In the figure shown the reading of voltmeters are V1 = 40 V, V2 V1 V2 V3

= 40 V and V3 = 10 V. Find the peak value of emf


(A) 50V (B) 50 2V R=4 L
C
(C) 50 3V (D) 100 2V

 
E  E0 sin  100t  
 6

 x
24. If equation of transverse wave is y = x 0cos 2   nt   . Maximum velocity of particle is twice of
 
wave velocity, if  is.

(A) 2x 0 (B) x (C) (D) x0
x0

25. The focal length of the objective and the eyepiece of a microscope are 4 mm and 25 mm
respectively. If the final image is formed at infinity and the length of the tube is 16 cm. The
magnifying power of the microscope will be
(A) -327.5 (B) -32.75 (C) 3.275 (D) 32.75

26. An oscillator has a time period of 3 sec. Its amplitude decreases by 5% each cycle. Its energy
decreases in each cycle is
(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 1.0% (D) 2%

27. A mass 25  10 3 Kg is suspended from the lower end of a vertical spring having force constant
25 N/m. The mechanical resistance of the system is 1.5 N.s/m. The mass is displaced vertically
and released. Its period of oscillation is
(A) 0.314 (B) 0.628 (C) 3.14 (D) 6.28

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28. 5 moles of nitrogen gas are enclosed in an adiabatic cylindrical vessel. The
piston itself is a rigid light cylindrical container containing 3 moles of Helium
gas. There is heater which gives out a power 100 cal/sec to the nitrogen gas. A
power of 30 cal/sec is transferred to Helium through the bottom surface of the
piston. The rate of increment of temperature of the nitrogen gas assuming that
the piston moves slowly:
(A) 2 K/sec (B) 4 K/sec
(C) 6 K/sec (D) 8 K/sec

29. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 6 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such
that each polaroid is turned through 300 with respect to the preceding one. The percentage of
incident intensity that passes through the system will be
(A) 100% (B) 50 %
(C) 30% (D) 12%

30. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have minimum frequency


(A) Micro waves (B) Audible waves
(C) ultrasonic waves (D) Radio waves

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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The volume of an H2O2 solution (volume strength = 11.2) required to convert all the Fe+2 present
in 4 mole of Fe3O4 to Fe+3 is:
(A) 2 mL (B) 1 mL (C) 4 L (D) 2 L

2. In an excited sample of Li+2 ions with all the electrons in the same energy state (n1) produces 3
different spectral lines when all of them are now found to be in 1st excited state. What can’t be the
orbital angular momentum of the electron present in state n1?
(A) 12 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 20

d[P]
3. For a reaction P  Q, increases by a factor of 2 upon increasing the concentration of P
dt
by 8 times. The order of the reaction with respect to P is
(A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) 2 (D) 1/2

4. Assuming that, water vapour is an ideal gas, the internal energy change  U , when 1 mol of
water is vaporized at 1 bar pressure & 1000C, (given: molar enthalpy of vaporization of water at 1
bar & 373 K = 41 kJmol-1 & R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1) will be:
(A) 41.00 kJmol-1 (B) 3.7904 kJmol-1 (C) 4.100 kJmol-1 (D) 37.904 kJmol-1

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5. Maxwell’s Boltzmann’s distribution of molecular speeds for two ideal gases A and B at the same
temperature is given below:
A
Fraction of molecules
B

u
(speed)
Select the incorrect statement:
(A) Fraction of molecules moving with most probable speed of gas A is greater than that of gas B
(B) Most probable speed of molecules of gas B is greater than that of gas A
(C) Rate of diffusion of gas A < gas B under identical conditions
(D) Rate of diffusion of gas B < gas A under identical conditions

6. In an fcc arrangement of A and B in which A-atoms are at the corners of the unit cell and B –
atom at the face centres, one of the A – atom is missing from one corner in unit cells. The
simplest formula of the compound is:
(A) A7B3 (B) AB3 (C) A7B24 (D) A8B21

7. The pH of the following half – cell solution is:


Pt, H2 1 atm  H HCl ; E  0.25 V
(A) 2.21 (B) 8.46 (C) 4.23 (D) 0

8. Which is not correct for physical adsorption?


(A) Adsorption is spontaneous
(B) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are -ve
(C) Adsorption on solid is reversible
(D) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature

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9. The osmotic pressure of urea solution is 500 mm at 100C. The solution is diluted and the
temperature raised to 250C, when the osmotic pressure is found to be 105.3 mm.
Vfinal : Vinitial  X : 1
X is:
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 10

10. Select the correct statement:


(A) Al2Cl6 is a planar molecule
(B) I2Cl6 is a planar molecule
(C) B2H6 is a planar molecule

(D) is a planar molecule

11. Which of the processes are endothermic?


(i) Cl  g   e   Cl  g
(ii) N  g   e   N  g
(iii) Ne  g  e   Ne   g
(iv) Ne  g  Ne  g  e 
(v) Li  g  Li  aq hydration 
(vi) Cl  g   Cl  aq  hydration 
(A) (ii), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi)

12. The blue colour of dilute solution of alkali metals in ammonia slowly fades because:
(A) electrons get paired
(B) metals form MNH2 with release of H2 gas
(C) electrons loose energy eventually because of solvation
(D) electrons get trapped in holes of tetrahedrally arranged NH3 molecules

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13. Select the correct statement:


(A) D2O has higher dielectric constant, melting point, boiling point & ionic product than H2O
(B) D2O has higher melting point, boiling point & dielectric constant than H2O but lower value of
ionic product
(C) D2O has higher melting point, boiling point & ionic product but lower dielectric constant than
H2O
(D) D2O has higher melting point, boiling point but lower dielectric constant & ionic product than
H2O

14. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as follows:


 i X  Y  P  slow   ii P  XY  fast 
The energy diagram for the above process is best described by:
(A) (B)

Energy
XY Energy
P
P
X+Y
X+Y
XY
Reaction coordinate
Reaction coordinate
(C) (D)

Energy Energy
XY
P P
X+Y
X+Y
XY

Reaction coordinate Reaction coordinate

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15. Which of the following reactions depict the oxidizing behavior of H2SO4?
(A) Ba  NO3 2  H2 SO 4  BaSO4  2HNO3
(B) 2PCl5  H2 SO4 
 2POCl3  2HCl  SO2 Cl2
(C) 2NaOH  H2 SO4 
 Na2 SO4  2H2 O
(D) 2HI  H2 SO 4  I2  SO2  2H2 O

16. The process in which catalyst is not used:


(A) Thermite process (B) Contact process
(C) Haber’s process (D) Ostwald’s process

17. Complex compounds which are optically active and doesn’t depend upon the orientation of the
ligand around metal cation:
(i) CoCl3  NH3 3  (ii) Co  en 3  Cl3

(iii) Co  C2O 4 2  NH3 2 
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii) (B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) only (ii) (D) all of the above

18. What is the product of the following reaction?


excess HBr
OCH2CH2OH

(A) Br + BrCH2CH2Br

(B) Br + BrCH2CH2OH

(C) Br OCH2CH2Br

(D) OH + BrCH2CH2Br

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19. Which of the following does not give Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
(A) O (B) O

C NHBr H3C C NH2

(C) O (D) O
C NH2 C NH CH3

20. CH3  CH  CH  CH2  CO2H 



  X
major 
major product X is:
(A) CH3  CH  CH2 (B) H3C C CH2
CH 3
(C) CH3  CH  CH  CH3 (D) CH3  CH2  CH  CH2

21. Which of the following keto esters is not likely to have been prepared by a claisen condensation?
(A) O O (B) O CH3 O
(H3C)2 CHCH2 C HC C OCH2 CH3 (H3C)2 CH C C C OCH2 CH3
CH(CH3)2 CH3
(C) O O (D) O O
H5C 6 C HC C OCH2 CH3 H3CH2C C HC C OCH 2 CH3
CH3 CH3

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O
|| 18
H
22. 
Ph  C  OH  CH3  O H   y   H2O . y is:
O
O
|| 18 || 18
(A) Ph  C  O  CH3  Trans esterification  (B) Ph  C O CH3 Esterification reaction 

O O
|| || 18
(C) Ph  C  OCH3 hydrolysis  (D) Ph  C  O  CH3  saponification 
23. alc.KOH
Cl OH (X), product X is:

H H
(A) (B) O

Cl

(C) (D) OH

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24. In which of the following reactions, product is racemic mixture?


(A) H3C H (B) CH3  CH2  CH  CH2 
HBr

CCl4
HBr
C C
CCl4
CH3
H
(C) H3C CH3 (D) All of these
HBr
C C
CCl4
H
H

25. Select the enantiomers among the structures given below:

H H3C CH3 H Me Me

H3C H H CH3 H H
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I, II & III (B) I & III (C) I & II (D) II & III

26. Select the correct statement:


(A) H
F
C C C C is optically active & non-polar

H F
(B) H
F
C C C C is optically inactive & polar

H F
(C) F H
C C C is optically inactive & non - polar

H F
(D) F H

C C C is optically active & polar

H F

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27. Which of the following structure is most stable?


(A) Br (B) Br

NH2
NH2
(C) Br (D) Br

+ NH
2
: NH2
28. Which of the following compound give positive Tollen’s test?
(A) O OCH 3 (B) O

CH3
(C) O OH (D) O

OH
29. A sample of PCl5 is allowed to decompose in a container against a constant external pressure till
following equilibrium achieved:


PCl5  g  
 PCl3  g  Cl2  g
Select the correct option:
(A) The relative vapour density of sample increases till equilibrium is achieved & after that it
remains constant
(B) The degree of dissociation  '  '  , is dependent on the total pressure under which the
equilibrium is achieved
(C) The degree of dissociation  '  '  on attainment of the equilibrium is dependent on the total no.
of moles of PCl5 initially taken
(D) The molar mass of the sample increases and the density of the sample remains constant

30. A sparingly soluble salt A2B3 has concentration  A 3   SM in its saturated aqueous solution. So
its solubility (in M) is


A 2B3  s   3 2
 2A aq  3Baq
S
(A) S (B) 2S (C) (D) 4S
2

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Mathematics PART – III


SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Solution of differential equation


xdx  ydy
 x, given that y = 0 at x = 1
xdy  ydx
(A) y  1  x 2  y 2 (B) y  1  y 2  x 2 (C) y  y 2  x 2 (D) None of these

40
 x
2. The sum of the coefficient of all the integral power of x in the expansion of  1   is
 2 

340  1 340  1 320  1 320  1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
240 241 220 221

3. A family of lies is given by  2  3  x  1  2  y  6  12  0,  being a parameters. The line


belonging to this family at maximum distance from the point (4, 3) is L1 and from the point (-2, -4)
is L2. Then angle between lines L1 & L2 is
 11   23   17   19 
(A) tan1   (B) tan1   (C) tan1   (D) tan1  
 23   11   19   17 

p q r
4. If p, q, r are distinct complex number such that     , then sum of all values of  will be
q r p
(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) None of these

5. If f(x) is differentiable & satisfying


f x
 
f  x  y   f  x   f  y   x 2  y 2 xy  x, y  R and lim
x 0 x
 2 then f(x) will be

x4 x4
(A) 2  x 3 (B) 2x  (C) 2  (D) 2x  x 4  2
4 4

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6. Two numbers x and y are randomly selected on the real number line, such that 0  x,y  60. Find
the probability that the difference between selected no is not greater than 10.
11 11 11 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
36 38 40 42

7. On 8  8 Chess board. If two squares of 1 1 are selected randomly, what is probability that, they
have one side common.
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 18 20 22

8. Number of real value of x satisfy this equation, 22x  2x  3  5cos x   1  0


(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

9.
50
f  x     x  n 
51n  n2  then f  51 equal to
n 1 f '  51
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1275 2500 2550 5050

3 2
10. A function defied as R  R, f  x   e2 x  3 x  6 x 5 will be
(A) One – One & onto (B) One – One & into (C) Many – One & onto (D) Many – One & into

 cot 2
x  n 1   f n 1
11.  n  x  g  x   c where
cos x
n
   f  x   2  g  x  2 
f    1 then minimum value of      
2
(A) 1 (B) 2n (C) 22n (D) 24n

m 2n 1
 1
12. This equation   x  r   0 , has
r 1  2 
(A) only one real root (B) has all real root
(C) has 2n real root (D) has (2n +1) real root

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13. Consider number N = 75600 then sum of divisor of the form (4n + 2), n  N is
(A) 19840 (B) 29760 (C) 39680 (D) None of these

14. The inverse of the converse of  p   q  r will be equivalent to


(A)  r   q  p  (B)  r    p  q  (C) r   p  q (D) None of these

15. If a, b, c be the sides of a ABC and it roots of the equation a  b  c  x 2  b  c  a  x  c  a  b   0


A B C
are equal then cosec 2 , cosec 2 , cos ec 2 are in
2 2 2
(A) AP (B) GP (C) HP (D) None of these

16. Area of the ellipse 3x 2  4xy  3y2  2x  8y  6  0


 4
(A) (B) 5 (C) (D) 4 5
5 5

0
x 19
17. e
122 x
1  e  dx is equal to


19!121! 19!121! 19!121! 19!121!


(A) (B) (C) (D)
71! 70! 141! 140!

18. How many 6 letter words can be formed using the letter from the word ‘BORINGROAD’ if each
word has 3 vowels & 3 consonant
(A) 936 (B) 5616 (C) 17280 (D) 33676

19. A man can take a step forward, backward, left or right with equal probability. Then the probability
that after nine steps he will be just one step away from his initial position.
 15874   15875 
(A) P  E   4   9  (B) P  E   4   9 
 4   4 
 15876   15877 
(C) P  E   4   9  (D) P  E   4   9 
 4   4 

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n 1 n
 r
20. If   x  n    x, where n is the positive integer and [x] represent greatest integer of x.
r 0 r 0

Then total number of possible solution of x is


(A) 1 (B) n -1 (C) n (D) n + 1


8
x dx 
21.  1  cos 4x  sin 4x  b n2 then value of b is
0
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64

  x  1 e nx dx  ae
x p
22.  beq  cer then value of (p + q + r) will be
1
(A) 2 (B) e + 2 (C) e + 1 (D) None of these

23. If a, b, c represent the sides of triangle ABC and quadratic equation ax 2  cx  b  0 does not
have two distinct real root then which condition hold’s true
(A) b  4a  2c (B) b  4a  2c (C) b  2c  4a (D) b  2c  4a

24.    
cos1 x 2  3x  3     2cos 1 x 2  then total number of possible value of x satisfying this
equation is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

 1 2 3
25. If A  0 1 2 & BA = A where B represent 3  3 order matrix. If total number of ‘1’ in matrix
0 0 1
-1
A & matrix B are p & q respectively then p + q is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

sin A sin  C  2B 
26.  then a sinA, b sinB, csinC are in,
sinC sin  A  2C 
(A) AP (B) GP (C) HP (D) None of these

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27. The image of the parabola x 2  4y in the line x + y = 2 is


2 2
(A)  x  2   4  2  y  (B)  y  2  4  2  x 
2 2
(C)  x  2  4  2  y  (D)  y  2   4  2  x 

28. If  sin3A  sin3B  sin3C   12  sin A.sinB.sinC   3  sin A  sinB  sinC   0 then
(A) cosC  sin A  sinB (B) sinC  cos A  cosB
(C) sinA  sinB sinC (D) None of these

29. lt
e 2002x
 
 1  1  1001x  e1001x  e1001x 
x 0 x  e  1
x

2 2
(A) 1001 (B) 1001 (C)  2002  (D)  2002 

 2 
 x
 log2   log2x 1
30. Equation 2.x  
 8 2 has
(A) One real value of x (B) two real value of x
(C) three real value of x (D) None of these

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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - IV

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
Program & 4423 Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. A solid cylinder rolling down an inclined plane (with angle of inclination  ) without slipping which
of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) the friction force is dissipative
(B) the friction force will aid rotation
(C) the friction force will hinder translation
(D) the friction force will change if  is changed

2. The following field line does not represent any of the two fields given in which
option?
(A) Induced electric field and electrostatic field
(B) Magneto static field and induced electric field
(C) Gravitational field of a mass at rest and electrostatic field
(D) Magneto static field and Gravitational field of a mass at rest

3. A particle is projected from ground at angle  with horizontal, in such a way that a does not
recede towards the point of projection. The maximum value of sin  ?
2 2
(A) 2 (B)
3 3
3
(C) (D) this is not possible
2
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4. Figure shown plane waves refracted for air to water using Huygen's
principle a, b, c, d, e are lengths on the diagram. The refractive index of a
air c b
water w.r.t air is the ratio.
(A) a/e (B) b/e d e
(C) b/d (D) d/b water

5. In a Young's double slit experiment, green light is incident on the two slits. The interference pattern is
observed on a screen. Which of the following changes would cause the observed fringes to be more
closely spaced?

incoming
ligh waves
(A) Reducing the separation between the slits
(B) Using blue light instead of green light
(C) Used red light instead of green light
(D) Moving the light source further away from the slits.

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6. A wire loop is placed in a region of time varying magnetic field which is oriented orthogonally to
the plane of the loop as shown in the figure. The graph shows the magnetic field variation as the
function of time. Assume the positive emf is the one which drives a current in the clockwise
direction and seen by the observer in the direction of B. Which of the following graphs best
represents the induced emf as a function of time.
B

t1 t
t2 t1 +t 2

(A)  (B) 

t1 t2 t1 +t 2
t t
t1 t 2 t1 +t 2

(C)  (D) 

t1 t2 t1 +t 2
t2 t t
t1 +t 2 t1

7. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V from a cell and then disconnected
from it. A charge +Q is now given to its positive plate. The potential difference across the capacitor is
now:
Q
(A) V (B) V 
C
Q Q
(C) V  (D) V  , if V  CV
2C C
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8. An infinite number of concentric rings carry a charge Q each alternately 4


positive and negative. Their radii 1,2,4,8....meters in geometric progression Q 3
as shown in the figure. The potential at the centre of the ring will be. Q 2
Q Q 1
(A) Zero (B)
12πε 0
Q Q
(C) (D)
8πε 0 6πε 0

9. Select the correct choice:


(A) The gravitational field inside a spherical cavity, within a spherical planet must be non zero and uniform.
(B) When a body is projected horizontally at an appreciable large height above the earth, with a velocity
less than for a circular orbit, it will fall to the earth along a parabolic path.
( C ) A body of zero total mechanical energy placed in a gravitational field will escape the field
(D) Earth’s satellite must be in equatorial plane.

10. The rate of emission of radiation of a black body at 273°C is E, then the rate of emission of radiation of
this body at 0°C will be:
E E
(A) (B)
16 4
E
(C) (D) 0
8

11. A sphere of ice at 0°C having initial radius R is placed in an environment having ambient temperature > 0°C.
The ice melts uniformly, such that shape remains spherical. After a time ‘t’ the radius of the sphere has
reduced to r. Assuming the rate of heat absorption is proportional to the surface area of the sphere at any
moment, which graph best depicts r (t).
(A) r (B) r
R
R

t t
(C) r (D) r
R
R

t t

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12. If angular velocity of a disc depends an angle rotated as = 2 + 2, then its angular acceleration at
 = 1 rad is :
(A) 8 rad/sec2 (B) 10 rad/sec2
2
(C) 12 rad/sec (D) None

13. Two projectiles are thrown simultaneously in the same plane from the same point. If their velocities are v1
and v2 at angles 1 and 2 respectively from the horizontal. Then the trajectory of particle 1 with respect
to particle 2 will be
(A) a parabola because both move in parabolic path.
(B) a straight line because both move in parabolic path
(C) a parabola because both move with same acceleration.
(D) a straight line because both move with same acceleration.

14. Which of the following statements is true for a particle moving in a circle with a constant angular
speed?
(A) the velocity vector is normal to the circle.
(B) the acceleration vector is tangent to the circle.
(C) the acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle
(D) the velocity and acceleration vectors are parallel to each other

  
15 Three noncollinear vectors a, b & c are coplanar then which of the following is incorrect:
  

(A) a. b  c  0 
  
 
(B) b  a .c  0
  
 
(C) b  a  c  0
  
(D) a  k b  mc where k & m are two real numbers

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16. The acceleration-time (a-t) curves for two bodies A and B starting from a
rest are shown in the figure. Body A achieves maximum velocity Vm and a1
body B achieves maximum velocity Vm / 2 . Find the value of time t in a2 A
terms of a1 and a2 : B
4a2 4a2 t  2  t t
(A) (B)
 2a2  a1   a2  a1 
a2 2a2
(C) (D)
 2a2  a1   a2  a1 
17. The average total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is, if the rms value of the electric
field of the light coming from the sun is 500 NC 1 . :
(A) 4 106 Jm 3 (B) 3.7 1019 Jm3
(C) 1.35 10 12 Jm 3 (D) None of these

18. A rod is supported horizontally by means of two strings of equal length as shown in figure. If one
of the string is cut. Then tension in other string at the same instant will:

Mg
(A) remain unaffected (B) increase
(C) decreases (D) become equal to weight of the rod

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19. A uniform circular ring rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface. At any instant, its position is
as shown in the figure. Then mark the incorrect option:
B

v
A  C
O

D
(A) Section ABC has greater kinetic energy than section ADC
(B) Section BC has greater kinetic energy than section CD
(C) Section BC has the same kinetic energy as section DA
(D) None of these

20. A plane wave of sound travelling in air is incident upon a plane water surface. The angle of
incidence is 60°. If velocity of sound in air and water are 330 m/s and 1400 m/s, then the wave
undergoes:
(A) refraction only (B) reflection only
(C) both reflection and refraction (D) neither reflection nor refraction

21. A balloon filled with hydrogen has a volume 1 m 3 and its mass is 1 kg. Find the volume of a block
of light material which it can just lift (in m 3): [density of block = 300 kg/m 3 and that of air = 2
kg/m3]:
(A) 1/ 300 (B) 1/ 250
(C) 1/ 200 (D) 1/100

22. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the
top and the other is a circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When the tank is
completely filled with water, the quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are
same. Then, R is equal to:
(A) L / 2 (B) 2 L
(C) L (D) L / 2

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23. A piece of wire bent into an L shape with upright and horizontal portion of equal lengths 10 cm
each is placed with the horizontal portion along the axis of the concave mirror towards pole of
mirror whose radius of curvature is 1.0 cm. If the bend is 20 cm form the pole of the mirror, then
the ratio of the lengths of the images of the upright and horizontal portion of the wire is:
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1: 3
(C) 1:1 (D) 2 :1

24. An object is kept at a distance of 16 cm from a thin lens and the image formed is real. If the
object is kept at a distance of 6 cm from the same lens the image formed is virtual. If the size of
the image formed are equal, the focal length of the lens will be:
(A) 19cm (B) 17cm
(C) 21cm (D) 11cm

25. Under what condition current passing through the resistance


R can be increased by short circuiting the battery of emf E2.
The internal resistances of the two batteries are r1 and r2
respectively.
(A) E2r1 > E1 (R + r2)
(B) E1r2 > E2 (R + r1)
(C) E2r2 > E1 (R + r2)
(D) E1r1 > E2 (R + r1)

26. In the branch AB of a circuit, as shown in the figure, L=1H I R=1


a current I = 5 A is flowing, where t is the time in B A
second. At t =0, the value of 10V
(VA - VB) is
(A) 15 V (B) –5 V
(C) –15 V (D) 5 V

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27. A silver sphere (work function 4.6 eV) is suspended in a vacuum chamber by an insulating
thread. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 0.2 m strike on the sphere. The maximum electric
potential of the sphere will be (hc = 12400 eVÅ)
(A) 4.6 V (B) 6.2 V
(C) 1.6 V (D) 3.2 V

28. The count rate observed from a radioactive source at t second was N0 and at 4t second it was
N0  11 
. The count rate observed, at  t second will be
16 2
N N
(A) 0 (B) 0
128 64
N N0
(C) 0 (D)
32 256
tI

V 0
29. Charge on the capacitor is given by Q  Ie , where  and  are constant, t = time,

I = current, V = Potential difference then, dimension of is same as dimension of

1
(A) (B)  00
00
0 1
(C) (D)
0  00

30. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of an empty box falling in air near earth surface.
 
The total mass of system is M. The box experiences air resistance R   kv where v is the
velocity of box and k is a positive constant. After some time it is found that period of oscillation of
pendulum becomes double the value when it would have suspended from a point on earth. The
velocity of box at that moment (take g in air same as on earth’s surface)
Mg 3Mg
(A) (B)
4k 4k
Mg 2Mg
(C) (D)
2k k
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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. Most soluble hydroxide in benzene is:


(A) LiOH (B) NaOH
(C) KOH (D) RbOH

2. Referring to figure-1, identify the three spots obtained by electrophoresis at p H  7 of a mixture


of the proteins pepsin p I
 1.1 haemoglobin  p I  6.8  and Lysozyme  p I  11.0  :
Start
 +  electrode     -  electrode
A B C
Fig-1
Which of the following options are correct about position of various proteins?
(A) Lysozyme will be present at spot A (B) pepsin will be present at spot B
(C) pepsin will be present at spot A (D) haemoglobin will be present at spot C

3. Silver sulphide dissolves in sodium cyanide solution to form the complex?


(A) Na2  Ag  CN  4  (B) Na  Ag  CN  2 

(C) Na3  Ag  CN  4  (D) Na3  Ag  CN  

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4. Which of the following is incorrect statement/reaction?


(A) N N
+ aq.HCl
+
N N Cl
H H H
(B)
is less basic than
N N
H
(C) N
N
purine has 3 N's as basic sites
N N
H
(D) E

+ E
E +
N N
H N
H H  very minor product 
 major product 

5. Which of the following statement is wrong about complex anion Co  EDTA   ?
(A) oxidation state of Co is 3 (B) compound is optically active
(C) O (D) total number of five member rings is 6
O C
number of Co CH2 rings is 4
N

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6. Which of the following reaction is incorrect?


(A) O
-
Ph CH2 C CH2 1 OH
Cl 
2 H+
 Ph-CH 2 CH 2 COOH
 
(B) O
-
1 OH
Ph CH C CH3 
 2 H +
 Ph-CH 2 CH 2COOH
Cl
(C) O
Cl COOH
-
1 OH

2  H+

(D) O
-
O
1 OH
Ph CH2 CH2 C Cl 
 2 H +
 Ph

7. What will be the ratio of volumes of 2M FeSO4 and 3M KMnO4 in acidic medium for
2
oxidation of Fe solution?
2 15
(A) (B)
9 2
2 9
(C) (D)
15 2
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8. Which of the following reaction can be used for preparation of alcohol from carbonyl compound
(A) O H HO H
NaBH 4
COOH
 
COOH
(B) O H O CH2OH
LiAlH 4
COOH
 
(C) H CH2OH
O H
NaBH 4
COOH
 
HO H
(D) H H
O H LiAlH 4
 
COOH
HO CHO

9. Which of the following molecules/ions are attracted by an externally applied magnetic field?
2 2   2
(A) O2 , NO, N 2 , B2 , C2 (B) O 2 , NO, N 2 , C 2 , B2
2 2 2 2 2   2 2
(C) N 2 , N 2 , C2 , B2 , O2 (D) O2 , N 2 , B2 , NO, C2

10. When phenyl benzoate ( PhOCOPh ) undergoes electrophilic substitution, which of the following
indicates the site for attack of electrophile as major product?
(A) (B) O
O
C O
C O

(C) (D) O
O
C O
C O

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11. Which of the following statement about diffusion of gas is true?


(A) Rate of diffusion of a gas will increase if an inert gas is added to gaseous mixture and allowed
to diffuse through a pin hole
(B) Rate of effusion of O2 is 2 times that of SO2 , for every composition of O2 and SO2
mixture
(C) Rate of effusion decrease on increasing the temperature
(D) All are true.

12.
1 NaNH Na+EtOH
C CH 
 2  CH Br  'A' 
2
 'B'
3

(A) (B)
'A' is C C NH CH3 'B' is NH CH3
C C
H H
(C) (D)
'A' is CH3 'B' is H
C C C C
NH2 H H CH3

13. Which of the following redox reaction is balanced redox reaction?


 2   2
(A) IO3  SO3  4 H 
 I  SO4  2 H 2O
(B) 2 BaO  O2 
 2 BaO2
 
(C) 2 I  2 IO3 
 2 I 2  3O2
 2  2
(D) MnO4  C2O4  8 H 
 M n  2CO2  4 H 2O

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14. OH H 2SO4 NBS



120°C
 'A'   'B'

(A) (B) Br
'B' is 'B' is

Br
(C) O (D) O
'A' is

'A' is

15.
 P1 ,V1 
4 B
P 105 N / m 2 
A
1 
 P0 ,V0 
1 4
V  m  
3

The work done in changing state from A to B in following system is………
(A) 7.5 105 J (B) 7.5 105 J
5 5
(C) 7.5 10 J (D) 7.5 10 J

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16. P4  HNO3   H 3 PO4  NO2   H 2O


Product mixture is titrated with 0.1M NaOH , indicator shows colour change at second end
point and 100ml of NaOH is used for that. How much volume of 1M HNO3 is used is above
reaction?
(A) 20ml (B) 10ml
50
(C) 25ml (D) ml
3
17. When Lithium di-(3-pentyl) cuprate reacts with ethyl bromide produces:
(A) heptane (B) triethyl methane
(C) 2-ethylpentane (D) 3-methyl hexane

18. 2, 7-Octanedione on treatment with aq. KOH and 100°C produces?


(A) O (B) O

(C) O (D) O

19. Which of the following salts are soluble in NH4OH?


(A) CuSO4 (B) AlCl3
(C) FeCl3 (D) all of the above

20. Zinc on reaction with NaOH gives a salt (A) along with a gas (X) and (A) on reaction with a gas
H 2 S gives white precipitate (W). Which of the following is correct?
(A) (A) is Na4ZnO3, (Y) is H2S (B) (X) is H2, (W) is Zn (OH)2
(C) (A) is Na2ZnO2, (X) is O2 (D) (W) is ZnS, (X) is H2

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21. Which of the following substitution reaction SN  2


 does not give product as shown is reactions?

(A)  R   CH 3CH  Br  CH 2CH 3  MeO 
  S   CH 3CH  OMe  CH 2CH 3

(B)  S   CH 3CH  Br  CH 2CH 3  MeO 
  R   CH 3CH  OMe  CH 2CH 3
CH3 CH3

 C  S   Br  R 
COOEt CN  EtOOC CN

H H
-
(D) cis-4-iodoethylcyclohexane+OH 
 trans-4-ethylcyelohexanol

22. The aqueous solution of which salt is coloured


(A) Zn(NO3)2 (B) LiNO3
(C) Co(NO3)2 (D) Potash alum

23. Potassium crystallizes in BCC lattice with a unit cell length a  5.0 Å . What is the distance
between next nearest neighbours?
(A) 5.0Å (B) 4.33Å
(C) 3.5Å (D) 7.07Å

24. For the second order reaction;  B , time taken for the  A to fall to one-fourth value is
2A 
how many times the time it takes for  A to fall to half of its initial value?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7

25. What is the equilibrium constant of the reaction:


2M 3  N  
 2 M 2   N 3 ?
 2.303 RT
Given E N  / N  1.68V E N 3 / N  1.50 V , EM 3 / M 2  0.75V and  .06
F
(A) 110 22 (B) 11022
11 72
(C) 110 (D) 110

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1
26. If an electron has spin quantum number of  and magnetic quantum number of 1, it cannot
2
be present in:
(A) px  orbital (B) d xy  orbital
(C) p y  orbital (D) s  orbital

0
27. A solution of liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ having vapour pressure in pure state PA & PB0 . The solution
0
contains 30% mole of A which is in equilibrium with 60% mole of ‘A’ in vapour phase. If PB is
200 mm of Hg, then PA0 (in mm of Hg) is:
(A) 500 (B) 700
(C) 800 (D) 600
3 3
28. Crystal field splitting energy   0  of complexes CrCl6  3 , Cr  CN 6  and Cr  NH 3 6 

are x, y and z cm1 respectively. Then correct order 0 values is:


(A) x  y  z (B) x  z  y
(C) x  y  z (D) x  z  y

29. Optical isomerism is not shown by the complex:


3 
(A) Cr  ox 3  (B) Cis Co  en  2 Cl2 
 3
(C) Trans Co  en  2 Cl2  (D) Cr  en 3 

30. What concentration of Ag  is solution will just fail to give a precipitate of Ag 2CrO4 with a
2 4
solution in which CrO4   3  10 M ?

 Given K  Ag CrO   1.2 10 


sp 2 4
11

(A) 10 3 M (B) 2 101 M


3 4
(C) 2 10 M (D) 2 10 M

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

3x2  4 x  1
1.  2
dx is equal to:
x 2
 1 x 1
x 1 2 x 1
(A) c
2
(B)  c
x 1 x2  1
2 x
(C) (D) c
 x2  1 x  1  x 2  1 x  1
2. The general solution of the differential y xy  x  y   2 2 2
  dx   y  x  x  y   dy
3 2 2 2
is:

y 1 x 1 x y
(A)  2 c (B)  ln c
x x  y2 y 2 x y
2x 1 2x 1
(C)  2 c (D)  2 c
y x  y2 y x  y2
2
3. A line is drawn at an angle θ with positive direction of x-axis. It intersects the parabola y  8 x
at A and B. If AB is a normal chord which subtend a right angle at the vertex of the parabola,
then tan 2 θ equals:
1 3
(A) (B)
2 4
(C) 1 (D) 2

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4. The equation of a circle whose diameter is the common chord of the circle
x 2  y 2  4 x  8 y  5  0 and x 2  y 2  12 x  2 y  29  0 is:
(A) 41x 2  41 y 2  396 x  38 y  781  0 (B) 2 x 2  2 y 2  16 x  6 y  25  0
(C) 41x 2  41 y 2  396 x  38 y  781  0 (D) 17 x 2  17 y 2  300 x  154 y  901  0
11
3
5. 0
1  cos 2x dx is equal to:
11 3 3
(A) (B) 8 2 
2 2
3 22
(C) 8 2  (D)
2 3
 
6. Consider the vectors a  2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ and b  3iˆ  ˆj  kˆ . A parallelogram is constructed such
   
that its diagonal are along 2a  b and a  2b . The area of the parallelogram is:
9 10
(A) 9 5 sq. units (B) sq. units
2
(C) 9 10 sq. units (D) 18 5 sq. units

     
tan     tan     tan    
7. Let
4  4  4  . Then
5 3 2
2 2 2
12 sin      15sin       7 sin     is equal to:
1 1
(A)  (B)
2 2
(C) 1 (D) 0

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cos x 1 2
8. The angle of intersection of the curves y  1  x   sin x and y 
2
 x  x  2  at  h, k 
where h and k are integers, is  , then tan  equals:
3 4
(A) (B)
4 3
(C) 1 (D) 0

9. A plane 2 x  3 y  6 z  12 intersects the x-axis, y-axis and z-axis at A, B, C respectively. The


orthocentre of the triangle ABC is:
 24 36 72   36 72 27 
(A)  , ,  (B)  , , 
 49 49 49   49 49 49 
 24 16 1   36 72 24 
(C)  , ,  (D)  , , 
 49 49 49   49 49 49 

    x 1
10. The domain of the function given by f  x   log3  log 1  log 2  log 1  x      is:
 
   2 3    1  3x  4 x 2
 1 1 1
(A)  1,  (B)  , 
 3  4 3
1 1 1 1
(C)  ,  (D)  , 
9 4 9 3

3 x 3
11. If f  x  for all x  Q, then the value of
31 x  3x
 1   2   3   108 
f  f   f    ....  f   is:
 109   109   109   109 
(A) 54 (B) 55
(C) 108 (D) 2

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 n
1  2 3 
12. The value of cot  cot
n 1
 n2

k
k 1


1 1
(A) (B)
2 4
1 1
(C) (D)
3 6

13. The graph of the function y  f  x  has a unique tangent at  , 0  . If


a

ln 1  9 f  x    sin f  x  
n
A  lima
x  2 f  x
, then A
n 1
is equal to:

1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
1
(C) 4 (D)
4
4
14. 
Let f be a continuous and differentiable function in  a , b  , if f  x  . f '  x   x 1  f  x   and
2 1 2
lim  f  x    1 and lim  f  x    2 2
. Then the minimum value of  a  b 
x a x b 2
is .  represent greatest integer function  :
(A) 1 (B) 9
(C) 3 (D) 81

15. The chord of contact of tangents drawn from any point on the circle x 2  y 2  p 2 to the circle
x 2  y 2  q 2 touches the circle x 2  y 2  r 2 , then 2a  log e p, 4a  log e q, 6a  log e r are in (a
is real value):
(A) AP (B) GP
(C) HP (D) AGP

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16. If t1 ,t2 and t3 are distinct, the points  t1 , 2at1  at13  ,  t2 , 2at2  at23  and  t3 , 2at3  at33  are
4t1.6t2 .8t3
collinear, then is equal to:
2t1.3t2 .4t3
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1

17. The area of the triangle formed by the linex  y  2 and angle bisectors of the pair of straight
2 2
lines x  y  2 y  1 is a and coordinate of orthocentre of triangle is  b , c  , then 4a  b  c is
equal to:
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 3

th z4 z z2 z4
18. If z is the complex 5 root of unity, then    is:
z4 1 1 z z2 1 z  z 4
(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 4 (D) 1

x2 y2
19. If a tangent of slope 3 of the ellipse 2
 2  1 is normal to the circle x 2  y 2  4 x  1  0 then
a b
the maximum value of ab is:
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6

x
20. If F  x    f  t  .dt    x 1  x  , then value of f  4   n . Then unit place of
and F x
2 2

0
n2
 985697  is:
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 1 (D) 9

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21. The number of points where f  x   2  2  x is not differentiable is:


(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 0

22. If the sum of first n terms of the A. P. 85,90,95,.... is equal to the sum of first 3n terms of the A.
P. 9,11,13,..., then n equals:
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11

11
1
 sin  cos x dx is:
1
23. The value of
2 2 
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

24. The number of integral roots of the equations  x  1 x  3  2 x  1 2 x  3   3 is:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

25. The number of ways in which 7 different letters can be arranged in the figure given below such
that no row is empty is 59k . 7!

Then k is:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

Space for rough work

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3 1 1 A
26. If A  x  3
and B  x  , x   0,   and a is minimum value of 2 , then  a  is equal to
x x B
  is greatest integer function :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

27. Let f  x  be a function such that f  x   f  x  2   3 f  x  1 for all x  R, then f is


T
periodic with period T. Then value of is:
2
(A) 12 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 4

28. Let ar ' r  1, 2,3, 4 represent four positive real numbers other than unity such that
 1 
 log e ar ,  is a point on a circle whose abscissa of end of diameter are  and  ,
 log e , ar 
then the minimum value of a1  a2  a3  a4 is:
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

5m
29. The sum   
i 0
20
i
30
5 m i , p
Cq   qp   0 if p  q , is maximum, then m equals:
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

30. A nine digit number is formed from 1, 2,3, 4,5 such that product of all digits is always 1920 . The
total number of ways is 393  P  , where the value of r is:
9
r

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6

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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School

CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - III

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
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ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
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 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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AITS-CRT-III-PCM-JEE(Main)/17 2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. A ‘3m’ wide truck is moving with a uniform


velocity v0 = 5m/s along a straight
horizontal road. A person starts from rest v0
3m
to cross the road with an acceleration of
constant magnitude ‘a’ m/s2. When the Person
truck is ‘4’ m away from him. For what
minimum value of ‘a’ he can cross the 4m
road safely in 2 seconds.
75 5
(A) m / s2 (B) m / s2
8 2
125 3
(C) m / s2 (D) m / s2
8 2

2. A cabin is moving in the vertical plane with constant a0


acceleration ‘a0’ as shown. A particle is projected with a
velocity u0  10m / s wrt. the cabin from point ‘p’ as 300
shown. For what value of ‘a0’ the particle will hit point ‘p’
during its downward motion.  g  10 m / s 2  0
10
(A) m / s2
3
600
(B) 10 m / s2
P
(C) 10 3 m / s2
(D) All of the above

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3. A block of mass ‘m’ starts sliding down the incline with initial zero
m
velocity. The surface is rough and  varies as   0.5 x, where ‘x’ is
distance travelled down the incline. What is the distance travelled by x
the block till the speed achieved by it is half of its maximum possible
speed achieved by it during its motion?
3 3 3
(A) m (B) m   370
2 2
3
(C)
2

2 3 m  (D) 2 3  3 m  
4. In the circuit shown in figure, the energy lost in one cycle is R L
V 2RT
(A) zero (B) 0
2R
2
V0 RT
(C) (D) none of these V = V 0 sinwt
2  R2  2L2 

5. A block of mass ‘m’ is kept on rough inclined plane of inclination '  ', which is varied from   0

to   very slowly. Graph of friction force vs  is given by  s  k  2 sin 
2
 
(A) f (B) f

mg mg

 


2
2
(C) f (D) f

mg mg
2
2

q 
   
4 2 4 2

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6. A battery of emf E is connected in series with three resistances R, 2R and 3R. The voltage across
2R is measured with a voltmeter, whose resistance is 20 R. The percentage error (approximately)
will be.
(A) 3.25% (B) 5.25%
(C) 6.25% (D) 4.25%

7. A small sphere ‘A’ of mass ‘m’ is kept on a rough horizontal B


surface. Another identical sphere ‘B’ strikes it with velocity
‘v 0’ at an angle '  ' as shown. Value of ‘e’ for two spheres is
v0
‘1’ and for the sphere & surface is ‘zero’. Which of the
following statements is correct?    0.5  
A

3v 0
(A) Speed of sphere ‘A’ just after collision is for   370
5
(B) Friction acting on the sphere during collision will be
kinetic for   300
(C) Friction acting on the sphere during collision will be
static for   300
4
(D) Nature of friction cannot be determined at   tan1  
7

8. The diagram shows three infinitely long uniform line charges 2, 3  and Y
 placed on the X, Y and Z axis respectively. The work done in moving a 3
unit positive charge from (1, 1, 1) to (0, 1,1) is equal to
n2 n2
(A) (B)
2 0  0
(0, 0, 0) X
3n2 
(C) (D) none Z
2 0

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9. A thin ring of radius R, mass m and an infinitely long uniform wire m


of linear mass density  , is placed perpendicular to the plane of
the ring along the axis of the ring with one of its ends coinciding
with the centre of the ring, form a system. The gravitational force
of interaction between ring and the wire is

2Gm Gm 
(A) (B) C
R R
Gm  2Gm 
(C) (D)
2R 2

10. Consider an ideal gas with density  mg / cm3 at standard pressure and temperature. If speed of
sound propagation in this gas is v = 330 m/s, the degree of freedom of the gas is 5. Then the
density  is
(A) 1.3 mg / cm3 (B) 1.8 mg / cm3
3
(C) 2.5 mg / cm (D) 3 mg / cm3

11. A gas is undergoing an adiabatic process. At a certain stage A, V


the value of volume and temperature is V0 and T0.
 3R 
 Cv of the gas is 
 2 
A(V0, T0)
dV
Then at A, is
dt
V 3V0
(A) 0 (B)
3T0 T0 T
2V0 3V0
(C) (D)
3T0 2T0

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12. For given CE biasing circuit, voltage across collector –


emitter is 12 V, current gain is 100 and base current is
0.04 mA. Then the value of collector resistance ‘Rc’ is RB RC
(A) 1200  20V
(B) 200  C
(C) 400 
(D) 2000  B
E

13. Two identical metal plates with face area ‘A’ placed parallel to each other at separation ‘d’ are
given charges +4Q and +6Q. If they are connected by a thin conducting wire, amount of heat
produced will be given by
Q2 d 2Q2 d 5Q2 d Q2d
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0 A 0 A 20 A 20 A

14. Rain drops fall from a certain height with a terminal velocity ‘v’ on the ground. The viscous force is
F = 6rv. Here  is coefficient of viscocity, r is radius of rain drop and v is speed. Then work
done by all the forces acting on the ball till it reaches the ground is proportional to
(A) r 7 (B) r 5 (C) r 3 (D) r 2

15. The threshold frequency for certain metal is f 0. When frequency of incident light is increased from
2f 0 to 4f 0, maximum velocity of photoelectrons is increased from v 0 to v. The value of v is
(A) 2v 0 (B) 3v 0 (C) 4v 0 (D) 3v 0

16. A container has an ideal gas at pressure ‘P’ in thermal equilibrium. Let mass of a molecule is ‘m’
and all the molecules are moving with same speed ‘v’ in random directions. If ‘n’ molecules collide
with unit area of container wall per second, the value of ‘n’ will be
P P 2P 3P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
mv 2mv mv 2mv

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17. A room at 20oC is heated by a heater of resistance 20 connected to 200 V mains. The
temperature is uniform throughout the room and the heat is transmitted through a glass window of
area 1 m2 and thickness 0.2 cm. Calculate the temperature outside thermal conductivity of the
glass is 0.2 cal/msoC.
(A) 13.69oC (B) 15.24oC (C) 17.85oC (D) 19.96oC

18. A cork is attached to the bottom of a container filled with water with a string
as shown in figure. If the container accelerate in a horizontal direction
towards right. When the cork is in equilibrium w.r.t the container then which
one is correct?
1
(A) Inclination of string with vertical is tan  a g  towards left.
1
(B) Inclination of the string with vertical is tan  a g  towards right.

(C) Inclination of the string with vertical is  tan 1  a g  towards left.
2

(D) Inclination of the string with vertical is  tan 1  a g  towards right.
2
19. The temperature at the bottom of a lake of depth ‘L’ is 40C. The temperature of the air just above
the layer of ice frozen at the lake’s surface is -20C for a long time. Thermal conductivity of ice is 3
times that of water. Thickness of the frozen layer of ice should be
L L 3L 2L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 5 3

20. The de – Broglie wavelength of a photon is n times the de – Broglie wavelength of an electron. If
2c E
the speed of the electron is v e  , then the value of e is  E  kinetic energy 
100n Ep
(A) 10 2 (B) 1 (C) 102 (D) 10 4

21. A light rigid rod of length '  ' is suspended at its two ends by
two wires ‘A’ and ‘B’ of equal lengths and area of cross section
‘a’ and ‘2a’ respectively.  YA  Y0 & YB  3Y0  A B
A mass ‘m’ is suspended at points ‘1’ and ‘2’, one by one.
When it is suspended at point ‘1’, stress developed in both
wires is same; and when it is suspended at point ‘2’, strain 1 2
developed in both wires is same. Ratio of x1: x2 is given by
(A) 7 : 18 (B) 7 : 9 x1
(C) 7 : 3 (D) 14 : 3 x2

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22. Charge density for a sphere of radius R is distributed as   0r for


r  R. Total charge on the sphere is 10q and two point charges ‘-2q’
and ‘-4q’ are embedded in the sphere at distances ‘r1’ and ‘r2’ as -2q -4q
shown such that net force on them is zero. The value of r2 is
R R O
(A) (B) r1 r2
1 1

 5  2 1  2
 10  2 1  2

R R
(C) 1
(D) 1

 
2 5 1  2
 
2 2 1 2

23.  
For a glass prism   2 , the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism.
The angle of the prism is equal to
(A) 300 (B) 900 (C) 600 (D) 750

24. A certain material has negative refractive index. A ray is incident from this medium into air. Path
followed by the ray is given by
(A) (B)
M M

Air Air
(C) (D)
M M

Air
Air

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25. The figure shows an equi-convex lens. What should be the


condition of the refractive indices so that the lens become m1 m2 m3
diverging
(A) 23  1   2 (B) 2 2  1  3
(C) 2 2  21  3 (D) none of these

26. A resistance coil of resistance ‘r’ connected to an external battery is placed inside an adiabatic
cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston of same area. Cylinder contains 2 mol of ideal gas O2.
Current flows through the coil such that temperature of the gas varies as T  T0  t  t 2  t 3 ,
keeping pressure constant with time ‘t’. Current flowing through the coil at t = 1s is given by
 1 1 2 1 3 
 where   1 s ,   s ,   s 
 2 3 
7R  7 21R
(A)  T0   (B)
r  6 r
7R  7  R
(C)   (D) 7
r 6 r

27. A certain radionuclide is known to become weaker in activity by 5% every day. Mean life of the
radionuclide will be (Approximately)
(A) 20 days (B) 20 hours (C) 20 min (D) 20 sec

28. A   particle is moving along a circle of radius ‘R’ with a constant angular velocity '  '. Point ‘A’
2
lies in the same plane at a distance ' R' from the centre. Point ‘A’ records magnetic field
3
produced by the   particle. If the minimum time interval between two successive times at which
‘A’ records zero magnetic field is ‘t’, '  ' in terms of t’ is given by
2  3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3t 3t 4t 2t

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29. For the given displacement (s) vs ‘x’ graph for a sound wave, S
appropriate excess pressure (P) vs ‘x’ graph is

(A) P (B) P

x
x

(C) P (D) P

x x

30. If between wavelength  and  + d e and a are the emissive power and absorptive powers of a
body and E is the emissive power of a perfectly black body, then according to Kirchhoff’s law
which is true?
(A) e  a  E (B) e E  a
(C) e  a E (D) e a E  cons tan t

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. Which of the following pair from the same osazone derivative?


(A) D – Glucose and L - glucose (B) D – Glucose and D - fructose
(C) D – Glucose and D galactose (D) None of these

H2 Br2
2. CH3  CCH3 
Lindlar ' s Catalyst
 A   B. Then B is
(A) cis (B) trans (C) meso (D) racemic

3. Nineteen grams of molten SnCl2 is electrolyzed for some time using inert electrodes until 0.119 g
of Sn is deposited at the cathode. No substance is lost during the electrolysis. Find the ratio of the
masses of SnCl2 and SnCl4 after electrolysis.
(A) 65.71 (B) 71.62 (C) 85.4 (D) None

4. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic


substitution & choose correct option
Cl Cl Cl Cl

NO 2 NO 2 O 2N NO 2

, , ,

NO 2 O 2N

(B) (C) (D)


(A)
(A) A  B  C  D (B) C  B  A  D (C) B  A  C  D (D) None

5. Buna – s rubber is a polymer of


(A) H2C C CH CH2 (B) H2C C CH CH2
CH3 Cl
(C) CH2  CH  CH  CH2 & CH2  CHCN (D) CH2  CH  CH  CH2 & C6H5 CH  CH2

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6. The value of  n    (where n = principle quantum no and  


azimuthal quantum no) for the orbital shown by following curve
(A) 3 (B) 4
2
(C) 2 (D) None

7. A radioactive isotope Z A m (t1/2 = 10 days) decays to give Z  6 Bm 12 stable atom along with
  particle. If m gram of ‘A’ are taken & kept in a sealed tube. How much He will accumulate in
20 days. (calculate amt. in lit assuming process is occurring at STP).
(A) 22.4 lit (B) 2.25 lit (C) 50.4 lit (D) 100.8 lit

8. In 1 L saturated solution of AgCl K sp  AgCl   1.6  1010  , 0.1 mole of CuCl
K sp  CuCl   1.0  10 6  is added. The resultant conc. of Ag+ in the solution is 1.6  10 x and y =
10 – x, then the value of y is
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 3 (D) None

9. In seven possible crystal system how many crystal systems have    ?


(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

10. The distance between asoctahedral & tetrahedral void in fcc lattic would be
3a 3a 3a
(A) 3 a (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4

11. 0.1 M KI and 0.2 M AgNO3 are mixed in 3 :1 volume ratio. The depression of freezing point of the
resulting solution will be K f  H2 O   1.86 K Kg mol1  .
(A) 3.72 K (B) 1.86 K (C) 0.93 K (D) 0.279 K

12. An e- moves from the n  5 to n  1 energy level in H like atom and emits photons of energy 96J.
Then the ionization energy of the given species is:
(A) -96 J (B) +96 J (C) 100 J (D) None

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i NaOl SOCl C H NH Conc.HNO


13. P   
 ii H
  Q   R  
2
NaOH
  S  
6 5 2
Conc.H SO
 T major  2
3
4
1 eq

T can be:
(A) O (B) O
NO2
NH NH

NO 2
(C) H (D) None
O 2N NH 2
Cl

14. Which best described the product of the following reaction?


CH3
K+t - Buo-
CD3 Product
E2
Ph
Br
(A) Absolute configuration has been inverted (B) Absolute configuration has been retained
(C) Racemization has occured (D) Loss of chirality has occured

15.
O3 Conc. NaOH
(P) (Q) Product Q is
Zn + H2O

(A) - + (B) - +
COO Na H2C O Na
- +
COO Na COOH
(C) H2C OH (D) - +
COO Na
H2C OH H2C OH

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16. What happens when chromium hydroxide is treated with hydrogen peroxide in the presence of
NaOH?
(A) yellow coloured sodium chromate is obtained
(B) Blue coloured sodium chromate is obtained
(C) Cr+3 reduces to Cr+2
(D) orange solution is obtained

17. Which of the following is microcosmic salt?


(A) NaHCO3 (B) Na2S2O3 (C) Na(NH4)HPO4 (D) Na2CO3.10H2O

18. Which of the following equations is involved in Solvay process?


(A) NaCl  NH3  H2 O  CO2  NH4 Cl  NaHCO3
(B) CaO  2NH4 Cl 
 2NH3  H2 O  CaCl2
(C) 2NaHCO3  Na 2CO3  CO 2  H2O
(D) All

19. +
+
(1) H (2) OH H
(P) (Q)
 (Major)  (Major)
OH
The total number of  - hydrogens in P + Q is
(A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 17 (D) 19

20. When NO and NO2 are mixed the following equilibrium are readily obtained

2NO2 
 N2 O 4 K p  6.8 atm1


and NO  NO 2 
 N2 O3
In an experiment when NO and NO2 are mixed in the ratio of 1 : 2, the final total pressure was
5.05 atm and the partial pressure of N2O4 was 1.7 atm. Calculate the equilibrium partial pressure
of NO.
(A) 2.5 atm (B) 1.8 atm (C) 1.05 atm (D) None

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21. Which of the following can be most readily, liquefied


 Give  value of 'a ' for NH3  4.17, CO 2  3.59, SO2  6.71, Cl2  6.49 
(A) NH3 (B) Cl2 (C) SO2 (D) CO 2

 3 
22. 1 mole of an ideal gas A  Cv.m  3R  and mole of an ideal gas B are  Cv.m  R  taken in a
 2 
container and expanded reversibly & adiabatically from 1 lit to 4 lit starting from initial temperature
of 320 k. Eor U for process is
(A) -240 R (B) -205 R (C) -405 R (D) None

23. Magnetic behavior of complex Fe  en  2 Cl2  Cl (en = ethane -1, 2-diamine) is
(A) Paramagnetic with 2 unpaired e- (B) diamagnetic
-
(C) paramagnetic with one unpaired e (D) None

24. For reaction


CH3 CH3

(CH3CO)2O (i) Br2 H2SO4, NaNO2 H3PO2


- A B C + N2
(ii) OH , H2O 0 - 5 °C H2O
Heat 25 °C
NH2 NH
COCH3
Then C is
(A) CH 3 (B) CH3

Br
+
N2 NH2
(C) CH 3 (D) None

Br

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25. In sp3d3 hybridisation, which orbitals are involves?


(A) dx 2  y2 , dz2 ,dxy (B) dxy,dyz, d2 x
(C) dx 2  y2 , dxy, dxz (D) dz 2 , dyz, dzx

26. Which of following reaction does not occur in Bessemer converter?


(A) 2Cu2S  5O2   2CuSO4  2CuO
(B) 2Cu2S  3O2  2Cu2O  2SO 2 
(C) 2CuFeS2  O2  Cu2 S  2FeS  SO 2
(D) FeO  SiO  FeSiO3

27. Consider the following reaction



2XS  3O2   2XO  2SO2

2XO  XS   3 ' X ' SO 2
‘X’ can not be
(A) Hg (B) Pb (C) Zn (D) None

28. In the series reaction -


K1 K2 K3
A  B  C  D.
If K1 > K2 > K3 then the rate determine step of the reaction is
(A) A  B (B) C  D
(C) B  C (D) any step

29. FeCr2O 4  NaOH  air   A   Fe2 O3


 A   B   Na2Cr2O7
Then compound (A) and (B) are
(A) Na2 CrO4 , H2 SO 4 (B) Na2 Cr2O7 , HCl
(C) Na2 CrO3 ,H2 SO4 (D) None

30. For reaction:



Na2 Cr2O7  X   Cr2 O3

Cr2O3  Y   Cr
(X) and (Y) are
(A) C and Al (B) Al and C (C) C in both (D) Al in both

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct

1. The number of ways in which 10 persons can sit in a row having 40 chairs such that at least two
chairs remain vacant between any two persons is
(A) 22 C10 10! (B) 22 C10 12! (C) 40 C10 10! (D) 49 C10 10!

2. For any G.P, SK denotes sum of first ‘K’ terms, the quantities S2n ,2  S 2n  Sn  and S3n  Sn
always from
(A) G.P (B) A.P (C) H.P (D) none of these

 2  3  4 22  3  2 2  
3. If   K , then the value of is equal to
2 1 2K
1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 4 (D)
2 4

 qr n! 
4. The number of solution for ‘’ in the equation   1 sin2q .cos2r    1 , where p + q +
 p!q!r ! 
r = n, p, q, r  N is
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) can’t be solved manually

5. The inverse of the contrapositive of the conditional statement p   q is equivalent to


(A) the contrapositive of the inverse of p   q (B) negation of p   q
(C) negation of the converse of p   q (D) none of these

 1 
6. If the domain of the function g(x) is (0, 1) then the domain of the function y  g  x   g  ln x 
 2  1
(A)  0,  (B)  0,1 (C) 1,  (D) None of these

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mx 2  3x  4
7. If the inequality  5 is satisfied for all x  R, then
x 2  2x  2
11 71
(A) 1 < m < 5 (B) – 1 < m < 1 (C) 5  m  (D) m 
24 24

 1  2n 
8. The value of   ln2 n  is

n 1  n! 
2 e
(A) e – 2 (B) e (C) 4 (D) 2

9. If the lines x = a + m, y = - 2 and y = mx are concurrent, then the least value of |a| is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 2 2 (D) 2

10. Let f(x) be a continuous function on [0, 4] satisfying f(x)f(4 – x) = n-2. The value of the definite
4
1
integral  1  nf  x  dx is
0
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

11. Let AB be a line segment of length ‘d’ units with A on the line y = x and B on the line y = –x. The
locus of the midpoint of all such line segments
(A) circle (B) parabola (C) hyperbola (D) ellipse

 1  1  1   1 
12. If a1 = 1 and an  n 1  an1   n  2 , then the value of lim  1   1   1   ....  1  
n  a1   a2   a3   an 
1
1
(A) e (B) ln 2 (C) e 2 (D)
ln2
 1  sin x  t  1
 
13. The function f defined by f  x   lim   is
x  1  sin x t  1
   
(A) continuous in (–, ) (B) discontinuous at all integral values of x

(C) continuous at x = 0 only (D) none of these

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  
3 2
14. If , ,  are the roots px + qx + r = 0, the value of the determinant    is
  
(A) pq (B) qr (C) 0 (D) pr

0 1 2
15. If A  0 0 3  , then which of the following is true?
0 3 1
2
(A) A – A + 9I = 0 (B) A2 – A – 9I = 0
3 2 3 2
(C) A – A – 9A = 0 (D) A – A + 9A = 0
     
16. Vectors a,b,c are such that every pair is non-collinear and the vector a  b is collinear with c
     
and the vector b  c is collinear with a . The resultant of a  2b  3c is
 
(A) null vector (B) 2b (C) 3c (D) none of these

17. A plane meets the coordinate axes in A, B and C points such that the centroid of ABC is the
point (p, q, r). The equation is the plane is
x y z x y z
(A)    1 (B)   1
p q r 2p 2q 2r
x y z 3x 3y 3z
(C)   1 (D)   1
3p 3q 3r p q r

18. A and B are two independent witnesses (i.e. there is no collusion between them) in a case. The
probability that A will speak the truth is ‘x’ and the probability that B will speak the truth is ‘y’. A
and B agree in a certain statement. The probability that the statement is true is
xy xy
(A) (B)
xy 1  x  y  xy
xy xy
(C) (D)
1  x  y  2xy 1  x  y  2xy

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x
 1
19. A random variable x takes the value of 0, 1, 2, 3, … with probability proportional to  x  1   .
5
Then
9 9
(A) p  x  0   (B) p  x  1 
25 25
16
(C) p  x  1  (D) none
25

n
1
20.  15 
dx  A x  1  x 2   C , then
1 x 2
 2
x 1  x 
1 1
(A) A  , n  14 (B) A  , n  15
14 15
1 1
(C) A   , n  16 (D) A   , n  15
16 15

1
dx
21. If I   
, then
0
1 x2

(A) I > ln 2 (B) I < ln 2 (C) I  (D) none of these
4

1  x , x  1
22. Let f  x    , g  x   f  x  1  f  x  1  x  R then g(x) is
 0 , x 1
(A) odd only (B) even only
(C) neither odd or even (D) None of these

 x2  x
23. Area bounded by the curves y    2 , y = x – 1, x = 0 and y  sin1   is ([  ] denotes the
 64  4
greatest integer function)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2 3

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dy 
24. Solution of the differential equation 2y sin x.  sin 2x  y 2 cos x satisfying y    1
dx 2
(A) y 2  sin x (B) y  sin x
(C) y 2  cos x  1 (D) y 2 sin x  4cos2 x  1

25. If f  1  2 and g  2   4 , then the derivative of f  tan x  with respect to g  sex  at x  4 is

1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2

z 1 ei
26. If the imaginary part of the expression  be zero, then the locus of ‘z’ can be
ei z 1
(A) a straight line parallel to the x-axis (B) a parabola
(C) a circle of unity radius (D) None of these

2
27. If   , then the value of tan .tan 2  tan2.tan 4  tan 4.tan  is
7
(A) – 7 (B) – 4 (C) 0 (D) 4

x2 a
28. If  4x  13  sin   for some real value of ‘x’ then ‘a’ is equal to
3 x
 
(A)  2n  1 (B) 3  4n  1 (C) 3 1  4n   (D) None of these
2 2

29. If the parabola y = f(x), having axis parallel to y-axis, touches the line y = x at (1, 1) then
(A) 2f   0   f  0   1 (B) 2f  0   f   0   1 (C) 2f  0   f   0   1 (D) 2f   0   f  0   1

30. If x1, x2, x3 …., x10 are observations such that the sum of the algebraic deviations measured about
‘4’ is 10 and the sum of their squares is 100. The triangle formed by the sides equal to 4,
standard deviation and the mean of the sample is
(A) equilateral (B) scalene triangle (C) isosceles triangle (D) None of these

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FIITJEE JEE (Main)-2017
In JEE Advanced 2016, FIITJEE Students bag 36 in Top 100 AIR, 75 in Top 200 AIR, 183 in Top 500 AIR. 3541 Students from Long Term Classroom/ Integrated School
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - II

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
Program & 4423 Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/17 2

Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

2 2
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C /N-m

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The biding energy per nucleon for deuteron  H


2
1 and helium  4
2 
He are 1.1 MeV and
7.0 MeV respectively. The energy released when two deuterons fuse to form a helium
nucleus is
(A) 23.6 MeV (B) 47.12 MeV
(C) 34.4 MeV (D) 11.8 MeV

2. The K X-ray emission line of tungsten occurs at  = 0.021 nm. The energy difference
between K and L levels in this atom is about
(A) 0.51 MeV (B) 1.2 MeV
(C) 59 keV (D) 13.6 eV

1 1 1/v
3. vs graph for a spherical mirror is shown in the
v u
figure. The focal length of the mirror will be  1 1 1 
1
(A) 5 cm  2 cm ; cm 
 3 
(B) –5 cm
6 1/u
(C) cm
5
6
(D)  cm
5

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4. The lens combination having refractive indices 3


2
4 3
& as shown in the figure, is silvered. The 4
3 2 3
O
velocity of image will be? vo = 5 ˆi
(A) 1.8 ˆi (B) 3 ˆi R = 20 cm

(C) 3.6 ˆi (D) 5 ˆi 40 cm

5. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to x-axis in the A


x-y plane. A uniform magnetic field B pointing y

normally out of the plane exists throughout the C B
region. A force F acts perpendicular to the rod, so x
F
that the rod moves with uniform velocity v. The R
force F is given by (neglect resistance of all the
wires)
vB 2l2  t/RC vB 2l2
(A) e (B)
R R
vB 2l2 vB 2l2
(C)
R

1  e t /RC  (D)
R

1  e 2t/RC 

6. In a vernier calipers 9 divisions of it’s main scale match with 10 divisions on its vernier
scale. Each division of the main scale is of 20 units. Least count of apparatus is:
(A) 1 unit (B) 2 units
(C) 3 units (D) 4 units

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7. Two slits S1 and S2 lie on the x-axis and symmetric with


respect to y-axis are illuminated by a parallel
monochromatic light beam of wavelength  as shown. The
distance between slits is d (>> ). Point O is the mid point x
O
of the line S1S2 and this point is considered as the origin. S1 S2
The slits are in horizontal plane. The interference pattern
is observed on a horizontal plate (acting as screen) of m
mass m which is connected to one end of a vertical plate
massless spring of spring constant k. The other end of the k
spring fixed to ground. At t = 0, the plate is at a distance D
(>> d) below the plane of slits and spring is in its natural
length. The plate is released from rest from its initial
position. The rate by which fringe, width will increase
when acceleration of plate is zero, is
g m g m
(A) (B)
d k 3d k
g m g m
(C) (D)
4d k 2d k

8. A perfectly absorbing surface intercepts a parallel beam of monochromatic light of power


100W ( = 500 nm) incident on it normally. If the force exerted by light beam on the
10 6
surface is N, then n =
n
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

9. A solid sphere of mass M is attached to two massless


springs each of spring constant k. It can roll without slipping
along a horizontal surface. If the system is released after a
small stretch in spring, then the time period of oscillations
will be :
7M 7M
(A) 2 (B) 2
2k 5k
7M M
(C)  (D) 2
10k k

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10. A closed organ pipe of length L is vibrating in its first overtone. There is a point Q inside
the pipe at a distance 7L/9 from the open end. The ratio of pressure amplitude at Q to
the maximum pressure amplitude in the pipe is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3

11. Consider a spherical charge distribution of volume charge X X X


density  c /m3 Potential difference between A & B X X X X
X
X

2 2 X X X X X X X
C
(A) r (B) 0 X X X XA X XB
3 0 X r/4
X X X X X XD X
 2 r 2 r
(C) r (D) X X X X X
4 0 8 0 X X X X

12. The figure shows a network of resistors and a 2A


battery. If 1A current flows through the branch CF, i
then the emf E of the battery is i
(A) 24 V (B) 12 V
(C) 18V (D) 6V

13. Figure shows the circuit of a potentiometer. The length of the


E1 K1
potentiometer wire AB is 50 cm. The e.m.f. of the battery is 4
volt, having negligible internal resistance. Values of resistances R1
R1 and R2 are 15 ohm and 5 ohm respectively. When both the A B
keys are open, the null point is obtained at distance of 31.25 E2
G
cm from end A but when both the keys are closed, the balance R2
length reduces to 5 cm only. Given RAB = 10 . The e.m.f. of
the cell E2 is
(A) 1 volt (B) 2 volt
(C) 3 volt (D) 4 volt

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14. A particle charge q and mass m is projected with a velocity Magnetic field

v0 towards a circular region having uniform magnetic field B × ×O ×


perpendicular and into the plane of paper from point P as × × ×
shown in the figure. R is the radius and O is the centre of v0 × × ×
q,m P
the circular region. If the line OP makes an angle  with the
direction of v0 then the value of v0 so that particle passes
through O is
qBR qBR
(A) (B)
m sin  2m sin 
2qBR 3qBR
(C) (D)
m sin  2m sin 

B, m, L
15. A thin, uniform rod of mass M and length L is at rest on a smooth
horizontal surface. A particle of same mass M collides with the
rod at one end perpendicular to its length with velocity Vo and C
sticks to it. C is the middle point of the rod and D is a point at a
D
distance of L/4 from end A. The time taken by the rod to turn L/4
m
through 90o after collision is Vo A
L L
(A) (B)
Vo Vo
3 L 5L
(C) (D)
5Vo 12Vo

16. Velocity time equation of a particle moving in a straight line is V  t 2  5t  6 . The


distance travelled by the particle in the time interval from t = 0 to t = 4 sec
17
(A) 0 (B)
3
16
(C) 6 (D)
3

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17. In the shown figure two identical beads slide along a v0 v0


smooth horizontal rod as shown in figure. The
relation between v and v0 in the shown position will  
be
(A) v  v 0 cot  l l

(B) v  v 0 sin 
(C) v  v 0 tan 
v
(D) v  v 0 cos 

18. Water is flowing streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in
the tube is p where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is p/2,
the velocity of flow is (density of water   ) :
p p
(A) v2  (B) v2 
 
2p 2p
(C) v2  (D) v2 
 

19. A rod collides elastically with smooth horizontal surface after falling from a height.
For maximum angular speed of the rod just after impact, the rod should be released in
such a way that it makes an angle  with horizontal, the value of  will be
1
(A) 0° (B) cos1
2
1 1
(C) cos1 (D) cos1
3 6

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20. Three particles A, B and C are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of
side d at t = 0, each of the particles moves with constant speed u. A always has its
velocity along AB, B along BC and C along CA. Angular velocity of the line AB, at the
 2d 
time t,  0  t  
 3u 
u u 3
(A) (B)
2d  3ut 2d  3ut
2u
(C) (D) none of these
d 3  3 3 ut

21. A small ball of mass m is placed on top of the “super ball” of


m
mass M and the two ball are dropped to the floor from height h.
Height rise of small ball after the collision is Nh, then ‘N’ is:
M
(Assume that the collision with the superball are elastic, and the
m << M)
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11

22. In the figure shown, the spring is compressed by x0 = 4 m 2m


cm and released. Two locks A and B of masses m and 2 A B
m respectively, are attached at the ends of the spring of
force constant 4 N/m. Blocks are kept on a frictionless
horizontal surface and released. The work done by the
spring (in mJ) on A by the time compression of the spring
x
is reduced to o is:
4
(A) 1 (B) 1.5
(C) 2 (D) 3

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23. A hollow sphere of mass M and radius r is immersed in a tank


of water (density w). The sphere would float if it were set free.
The sphere is tied to the bottom of tank by two wires which
makes angle 45° with the horizontal as shown in figure. The
tension T1 in the wire is R M
T1
4
R3 w g  Mg
2
(A) 3
45° 45°
(B) R3 w g  Mg
2 3
4
R3 w g  Mg
4
(C) 3 (D) R3w g  Mg
2 3

k
24. A particle of mass m is moving with a velocity of v  in the
m m
v
horizontal direction at a height y0 from the ground (y0 = k/2mg). A
variable force F = k/y acts on the particle at t = 0 in the vertical direction yo
where y is the height of the particle from the ground. Find the speed of
the particle when its acceleration become zero for the very first time. ground
(k is a constant (N-m)
k n3 2k n2
(A) 2 (B)
m m
2k n3 k n2
(C) (D) 2
m m

25. In the following figure both the pulleys and the string are
massless and all the surfaces are frictionless.
Given: m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg, m3 = 3 kg. The acceleration of m1
is
40 30
(A) m / s2 (B) m / s2
7 7
20
(C) m / s2 (D) None of these
7

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x3 9x 2
26. Potential energy of a particle moving along x-axis is given by U =   20x . Find
3 2
out position of stable equilibrium state.
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
27. A conductor in the form of a right angle ABC with AB = 3 cm and BC = 4 cm carries a
current of 10 A. There is a uniform magnetic field of 5 T perpendicular to the plane of the
conductor. The force on the conductor will be
(A) 1.5 N (B) 2.0 N
(C) 2.5 N (D) 3.5 N
28. Curie temperature is the temperature above which:
(A) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
(B) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(C) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(D) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic.

29.  
Potential is varying with x and y as V = 2 x 2  y 2 . The corresponding field pattern is:
(A) y (B) y

x x

(C) y (D) y

x x

30. A tunnel is dug along diameter inside the surface of earth and a particle is projected from
the centre of tunnel. The minimum velocity of particle such that it escape out from the
earth’s gravitation field is (Radius of earth = Re)
3
(A) 2gRe (B) gR e
2

5
(C) 3gR e (D) gR e
2

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1.  P  
BaCl

KO2  S  2
 Q    White ppt.

HCl Carbon
 S    R  


gas

The unknown compounds P, Q, R and S in the above reaction sequence are


respectively
(A) K2SO3, BaSO3, BaS, H2S (B) K2S, BaS, CS2, H2S
(C) K2SO4, BaSO4, BaS, H2S (D) K2SO4, BaSO4, BaCO3, CO2

2. HCl
Borax   A   NaCl

 H2O
 C   B   

Mg
  Boron  D 

HNO3 
 E   D   F    O2
Which of the above unknown compound forms an alkaline solution when reacts with
water?
(A) C (B) D
(C) E (D) B

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3. Which of the following compound is most acidic in nature?


(A) CH3CHCH 2COOH (B) CH3CH2CHCOOH

CH3 CH3
CH3

(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH (D) H3C - C - COOH

CH3

4. Which of the following reaction produces nascent hydrogen?


(A) Passing of steam on red hot coke (B) Passing of steam on red hot iron
(C) Hydrolysis of ionic hydrides (D) Reaction of sodium with ethanol

5. The smog is essentially caused by the presence of


(A) O2 and O3 (B) O2 and N2
(C) SO2 and NO2 (D) O3 and N2

6. Which of the following carbonate needs maximum temperature for decomposition?


(A) Li2CO3 (B) Na2CO3
(C) MgCO3 (D) CaCO3

7. Which of the following is an electrophilic substitution reaction?


CH3 CH2Cl Cl

(A) (B)
h FeCl3
 Cl2    HCl  Cl2    HCl

Cl Cl
Cl OH
(C) (D)
CCl4 H2O
 Cl2    Cl2  

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8. The process of ‘eutrophication’ is due to


(A) increase in concentration of insecticide in water
(B) increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water
(C) the reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate in
water
(D) attack of younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacetyl nitrate

9. Which of the following is the most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant?


(A) CH4 (B) C2H6
(C) C3H8 (D) C4H10

10. In aqueous solution beryllium sulphate exists as:


(A) [Be(H2O)4]SO4 (B) [Be(H2O)6]SO4
(C) [Be(H2O)3]SO4 (D) [Be(H2O)5]SO4

11. Which of the following liquid has the highest boiling point?
(A) H2O (B) H2O2
(C) HCl (D) NH3

12. Which of the following ion does not cause hardness of water?
(A) Ca2+ (B) Mg2+
(C) NO3 (D) HCO3

13. The normal boiling point of a liquid ‘X’ is 500 K. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are incorrect for the following process?
X  liquid 
 X  gas 
(A) At 500 K and 1 atm pressure, G = 0
(B) At 500 K and 1.5 atm pressure, G = +ve
(C) At 500 K and 0.2 atm pressure, G = -ve
(D) At 520 K and 1 atm pressure, G = +ve

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14. Which of the following complex(es) does not show(s) geometrical isomerism?
(A) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (B) [Pt(NH2CH2COO)2]
(C) [PtCl2P(C2H5)3]2 (D) K2[Fe(CN)4(NH3)2]

15. Find H at 358 K for the reaction,


Fe 2O3 (s)  3H2 (g)  2Fe(s)  3H2 O( )
Given that, H298  33.29 kJ / mole and Cp for Fe2O3(s), Fe(s), H2 O( ) and H2 (g) are 103.8,
25.1, 75.3 and 28.8 J/K mole.
(A) 85.9 kJ/mole (B) –28.136 kJ/mole
(C) +28.136 kJ/mole (D) 85.9 J/mole

16. Heat of neutralization of four monobasic acids A, B, C and D are -13.7, - 9.4, - 11.2 and
– 12.4 Kcal / mole respectively, when they are neutralized by a common base. The acidic
character obeys the order
(A) A > B > C > D (B) A > D > C > B
(C) D > C > B > A (D) D > B > C > A

17. The amount of NaOH required to be dissolved in one litre of solution to give a pH of 11 at
25°C
(A)0.04 g/l (B) 0.4 g/l
(C) 0.01 g/l (D) 0.53 g/l

18. The number of  and  particles emitted in nuclear reaction 90 Th228 


 83 Bi212 are
respectively
(A) 4,1 (B) 3,7
(C) 8,1 (D) 4,7

19. A weak acid HX has the dissociation constant 1  10–5 M. It forms a salt NaX on reaction
with alkali. The percentage hydrolysis of 0.1 M solution of NaX is
(A) 0.0001% (B) 0.01%
(C) 0.1% (D) 0.15%

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20. What is the molar solubility of Mn(OH)2(Ksp = 4.51014) in a buffer solution containing
equal amounts of NH4+ & NH3(Kb=1.8105)
(A) 3.0105 (B) 1.38104
2
(C) 1.3810 (D) 7.3106

21. For the reaction,


C7H8(l) + 9O2(g)  7CO2(g) + 4H2O(l), calculated heat of reaction is 232.6 kJ/mol and
observed heat of reaction is 50.4 kJ/mol, then the resonance energy is
(A) – 182.2 kJ / mol (B) + 182.2 kJ / mol
(C) 172 kJ/ mol (D) None of these

22. Select the incorrect graph

(zero order) (second order)

(A)
(B)

1/[A]
[A]  conc. of reac tan t
rate

conc.  t 

(first order)

(C) (D) (log k) k=rate constant


t1/2

conc.  1/ T 

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23. The following two equilibria exist simultaneously in a closed container of volume 2 L
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g)
A2(g) + C(g) A2C(g)
Which of the following change does not affect the concentration of AB(g)
(A) Increase in pressure (B) Addition of C
(C) Addition of He gas at constant volume (D) All of these

24. An acid-base indicator has Ka = 3  10-5. The acid form of the indicator is red and the
basic form of the indicator is blue. By how much must the pH change in order to change
the indicator from 75% red to 75% blue? [log 3 = 0.4770]
(A) 4.05 (B) 0.95
(C) 5 (D) 9

25. For an elementary reaction


dx
aA + bB  P; =k[A]a. [B]b. If concentration of A is doubled, rate is doubled. If B is
dt
doubled, rate becomes four times. Which is correct?
d[A] d[B] d[A] 2d[B]
(A)  (B) 
dt dt dt dt
2d[A] d[B]
(C)  (D) none of these
dt dt

26. In borax bead test, which compound is formed?


(A) Meta borate (B) Ortho borate
(C) Tetra borate (D) Double oxide

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H SO
27. A + C2H5OH 
2 4
(B) , B on ignition gives green colour. A could be
(A) salt of sodium (B) salt of iron
(C) salt of boric acid (D) salt of meta phosphoric acid

28. AlF3 is most soluble in


(A) HF (B) KF
(C) KHF2 (D) F2

29. Solubility of PbCl2 in 0.5 M NaCl is S1 and that in 0.5 M Pb(NO3)2 is S2 then which of the
following is correct
S
(A) 12  1 (B) S1  S22  0
S2
S
(C) S1 - S22 < 0 (D) 1  0
S2

30. Which silicate is formed from [SiO4]4 tetrahedral units by sharing three oxygen atoms?
(A) Sheet silicate (B) Pyro silicate
(C) Linear chain silicate (D) 3-Dimensional silicate

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. Circles of radii 5, 5 and 8 are mutually externally tangent. If a fourth circle of radius r
touches all the three circles externally, then the value of r is
7
(A) 1 (B)
8
8 9
(C) (D)
9 11

2. If ,  are the roots the quadratic equation


x2  3  2
log2 3
3
log3 2
 x  2 3 log3 2

 2log2 3  0, then the value of  2    2 is equal to
(A) 11 (B) 7
(C) 3 (D) 5

x
3.  
If f  x    e t  3 dt, then which of the following is always true  x  R ?
0

(A) f  x  3   f  x  1  11 (B) f  x  1  f  x  1  4
(C) f  x  3   f  x  5   24 (D) f  x   f  x  1  21

4. If e1 and e2 are the roots of the equation x 2  ax  2  0, where e1 and e2 are the
eccentricities of an ellipse and hyperbola, respectively, then the value of a belongs to
(A)  3,   (B)  2,  
(C) 1,   (D)  ,1  1, 2 

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4 1 4 1
5. If 1  sin1  sin1 and 2  cos1  cos1 , then
5 3 5 3
(A) 1  2 (B) 1  2
(C) 1  2 (D) None of these

6. lx  my  1 is the equation of the chord PQ of y 2  4x whose focus is S. If PS and QS


meet the parabola again at R and T, respectively, then the slope of RT is
1 1
(A)  (B)
m m
2
(C) (D) None of these
m

7. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle, let KLMN be a rectangle with K, L on BC, M on AC


and N on AB. Suppose AN/NB=2 and the area of triangle BKN is 6. The area of the
triangle ABC is
(A) 54 (B) 108
(C) 48 (D) not determinable with the above data

8. The number of solutions in isosceles triangle ABC, tan A  tanB  tanC  ,   0, is


(A) 0 (B) infinite
(C) 1 (D) 2

 /2
9.  sin x sin2x sin3x sin 4x dx 
0

 
(A) (B)
4 8
 
(C) (D)
16 32

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d2 y
10. If x  y  y  x  c then equals
dx 2
2 2
(A) (B)
c2 c2
2 2
(C) (D)
c c

11. If the curves x 2  y 2  4 and xy  5 intersect at points A and B, then the possible
number of point(s) C on the curve x 2  y 2  4 such that triangle ABC is equilateral is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

 C C A B
12. If A  B  C   and sin  A    k sin , then tan tan is equal to
 2 2 2 2
k 1 k 1
(A) (B)
k 1 k 1
k
(C) (D) 1
k 1

13. The number of rectangles that can be obtained by joining four of the twelve vertices of a
12 – sided regular polygon is
(A) 66 (B) 30
(C) 24 (D) 15

14. If z2  p  iq z  r  is  0 where p, q, r, s are non – zero, has real roots, then
(A) pqs  s2  q2r (B) pqr  r 2  p 2s
(C) prs  q2  r 2p (D) prs  p2  s2 q

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15. Let a  1 be a real number and f  x   loga x 2 for x  0 . If f 1 is the inverse function of f
and b and c are real numbers then f 1  b  c  is equal to
(A) f 1  b  . f 1  c  (B) f 1  b   f 1  c 
1 1
(C) (D)
f b  c  f  b   f 1  c 
1

1 1
16. The number of points at which g  x   is not differentiable, where f  x   is
2 1
1 1
f x x
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

17. Cosine of the acute angle between the curves y  3 x 1 ln x and y  x x  1 is


(A) 0 (B) 1
3 1
(C) (D)
2 2

18. If A 1, A 3 ,......A 2n1 are n skew symmetric matrices of same order then
n
2r 1
B    2r  1 A 2r 1  will be
r 1

(A) symmetric (B) skew symmetric


(C) neither symmetric nor skew symmetric (D) data is inadequate

19. A class has three teacher. Mr. X. Ms. Y and Mrs. Z and six students A, B, C, D, E, F.
Number of ways in which they can be seated in a line of 9 chairs, if between any two
teachers there are exactly two students, is
(A) 18.6! (B) 12.6!
(C) 24.6! (D) 6.6!

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1 1 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 1 1
20. If x  2
 2  2  ........ y  2  2  2  2 ...... and z  2  2  2  2  ......, then
1 3 5 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
y x z
(A) x, y, z are in A.P. (B) , , are in A.P.
6 3 1
y x z
(C) , , are in A.P. (D) 6y,3x,2z are in H.P.
6 3 2

21. In the xy – plane, the length of the shortest path from (0, 0) to (12, 16) that does not go
2 2
inside the circle  x  6    y  8   25 is
(A) 10 3 (B) 10 5
5
(C) 10 3  (D) 10  5 
3

22. Suppose y  f  x  and y  g  x  are two functions whose graphs intersect at the three
points (0, 4), (2, 2) and (4, 0) with f  x   g  x  for 0  x  2 and f  x   g  x  for
4 4
2  x  4 . If   f  x   g  x   dx  10 and
0
 g  x   f  x  dx  5,
2
the area between two

curves for 0  x  2 , is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20

1 2
23. If A is square matrix of order 2  2 such that A 2  I; B    and C  ABA, then
0 1
2009
 C 
 1 2009 2   1 2009  2 
(A) A   (B) A  A
0 1  0 1 
1 2   1 2009 2 
(C) A  A (D) A  A
 0 2009  0 1 

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 
24. lim x 2 sin  loge cos  
x   x 

2
(A) 0 (B) 
2
2 2
(C)  (D)
4 8

 
x2 x x x
25. Let I1   6
dx,I2   6
dx, then
0 1  x  0 1  x 
(A) I1  2I2 (B) I2  2I1
2
(C) I1  I2 (D) I1  I2

26. Let AB be the chord of contact of the point (5, –5) w.r.t. the circle x 2  y 2  5 . Then the
locus of the orthocenter of the PAB, where P be any point moving on the circle, is
2 2 2 2 5
(A)  x  1   y  1  5 (B)  x  1   y  1 
2
2 2 2 2 5
(C)  x  1   y  1  5 (D)  x  1   y  1 
2

 
27. In the interval  0,  , the equation cos2 x  cos x  x  0 has
 2
(A) no solution (B) exactly one solution
(C) exactly two solutions (D) more than two solutions

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 n  2r  1 
28. If tan   tan1  2    961 then the value of n is equal to
 r 1
    
 r  r  1 r 2  r  1  2r 3  

(A) 31 (B) 30
(C) 60 (D) 61

29. Two tour guides are leading seven tourists. The guides decide to split up. Each tourist
must choose one of the guides, but with the condition that each guide must take at least
one tourist. Number of different groupings of guides and tourists are
(A) 120 (B) 124
(C) 126 (D) 127

1 4 3 1 F
30. If P F  
, P  G   ,P E  F  G   and P E ' F  G   , the value of P   is
2 5 10 10 G
3 1
(A) (B)
125 2
2 1
(C) (D)
5 3

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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST - I

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 02 and 09 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-A (03 to 08) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and – 2 marks for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

3 3
Density of water water = 10 kg/m

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The relation between time t and distance x moved by a particle is t  x 2  x where 


and  are constants. The retardation is (if v represents velocity)
(A) 2V 3 (B) 2V 3
(C) 2 V 3 (D) 22 V 3

2. An object is cooled from 750C to 650C in 2 minutes in a room at 300C. The time taken to
cool another identical object from 550C to 450C in the same room in minutes is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

3. A source of sound is moving towards a stationary observer with a speed of 50 m/s. The
observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. The speed of sound is 350
m/s. The apparent frequency measured by the observer when the source is moving
away after crossing the observer is
(A) 750 Hz (B) 850 Hz
(C) 1150 Hz (D) 1250 Hz

4. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density 1. It is falling through
a liquid of density 2(2 < 1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball
that is proportional to the square of its speed . i.e., Fviscous = –k2 (k > 0). The terminal
speed of the ball is
Vg(1  2 ) Vg1
(A) (B)
k k
Vg1 Vg(1  2 )
(C) (D)
k k

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5. A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is double the
length of the other. Then the long piece will have a force constant of
2 3
(A) k (B) k
3 2
(C) 3k (D) 6k

6. A particle is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity v0. If v be its
velocity at any instant, then the radius of curvature of the path of the particle at the point
(where the particle is at that instant) is directly proportional to
(A) v 3 (B) v 2
1
(C) v (D)
v

7. One half mole of a monoatomic ideal gas absorbs 1200 J of heat energy while
performing 2196 J of work. The temperature of the gas changes by
(A) 1600C (B) 800C
(C) 400C (D) -1600C

8. A train of mass m is moving on a circular track of radius R with constant speed v. The
length of the train is half of the perimeter of the track. The linear momentum of the train
will be
(A) Zero (B) mvR
v
(C) 2m (D) mv

9. A piano string 1.5m long is made of steel of density 7.7103 kg/m3 and Young's modulus
21011N/m2. It is maintained at a tension which produces an elastic strain of 1% in the
string. The fundamental frequency of transverse vibrations of string is
(A) 85Hz (B) 170Hz
(C) 340Hz (D) 310Hz

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10. Two organ pipes each closed at one end give 5 beats/sec when emitting their
fundamental notes. If their length are in the ratio 50:51, their fundamental frequencies
are
(A) 250,255 (B) 255,260
(C) 260,265 (D) 265,270

11. The escape velocity on earth is 11.2 km/s. What would be the escape velocity on a
planet whose mass is 1000 times and radius is 10 times than that of earth
(A) 112 km/s (B) 11.2 km/s
(C) 1.12 km/s (D) 3.7 km/s

12. The magnetic field at the centre O of the l


arc in figure is (r is the radius of circular l l
arc) 0
90 0 90
0
45 r

 0l  0 l   
(A)
4  r 
2  

(B) 
2r  4
1 2 1 

 
0 l   l 
(C)  2  r (D) 0   2  
4 r   4 r  4

13. A solid cylindrical uniform rod of mass 0.72 kg, length 50 cm B


L
and radius 6 cm rests on two parallel rails, as shown. The rod
caries a current I = 48A (In the direction shown) and rolls d
i
along the rails without slipping. If it starts from rest due to L
applications of uniform magnetic field of magnitudes 0.25 T
(directed perpendicular to the rod and the rail), then the
friction force (In N) between rod and rails is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

14. The critical angle for a prism and its surrounding interface is 36. The minimum angle of
prism for which no emergent ray is possible is
(A) 18 (B) 36
(C) 72 (D) 144

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15. A simple pendulum charged negatively to q coulomb oscillates


with a time period T in a downward electric field. If the electric
field is with-drawn, the new time period is:
(A) = T (B) > T E
(C) < T (D) none of these
m

16. Two electrons are moving with the same speed V. One electron enters a region of
uniform electric field while the other enters a region of uniform magnetic field. After
sometime if the de Broglie wavelength of the two are 1 and  2 , then (select the best
alternative)
(A) 1   2 (B) 1   2
(C) 1   2 or 1   2 (D) 1   2 or 1   2 or 1   2

17. The efficiency of carnot engine is 0.6. It rejects 20 J of heat to the sink. The work done
by the engine is
(A) 20 J (B) 30 J
(C) 33.5 J (D) 50 J

18. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor is L
0.6 A, while the current through the capacitor is 0.4 A. The current
drawn from the generator is
(A) 1.0 A (B) 0.4 A C
(C) 0.6 A (D) 0.2 A 
Generator

19. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed 0 about a diameter.
If its temperature is now increased by 1000C. What will be its new angular speed
(Given: brass  2.0  105 per 0C )
(A) 1.1 0 (B) 1.01 0
(C) 0.996 0 (D) 0.824 0

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20. Which of the following phenomenon is not common to sound and light waves?
(A) interference (B) diffraction
(C) polarization (D) reflection

21. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen
placed at some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5  10 2 m towards the
slits the change in fringe width is 3  10 5 m. If the distance between the slits is 10 3 m,
the wavelength of light used is
(A) 4000 Å (B) 5550 Å
(C) 6000 Å (D) 6500 Å

22. In the figure, AB is a uniform wire of length 100 cm 1.5 V


+ -
whose resistance is 5 . If galvanometer reads zero, 10
then AC =
C
(A) 10cm (B) 20cm A B
(C) 40cm (D) 80cm
0.2

1.8
+ -
2V

23. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside


world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive
index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the R

surface, the radius of this circle in cm is



(A) 36 5 12 cm

(B) 4 5
(C) 36 7
(D) 36 / 7

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24. A rod PQ is connected to the capacitor plates. The rod is x B x x x x


P
placed in a magnetic field (B) directed downward x x x x  x x
perpendicular to the plane of the paper. If the rod is pulled v M
x x x x x
out of magnetic field with velocity v as shown in figure. x x N
x x x x
(A) plate M will be positively charged x Q x x x
x
(B) plate N will be positively charged
(C) both plates will be similarly charged
(D) no charge will be collected on plates

25. A tank has a hole made at its bottom. The time needed to empty the tank from level h1
to h2 will be proportional to
(A) h1  h2 (B) h1  h2
(C) h1  h2 (D) h1  h2

26. In hydrogen like atoms the ratio of difference of energies E 4n  E 2n and E2n  En varies
with atomic number z and principle quantum number n as
z2 z4
(A) 2 (B)
n n4
z
(C) (D) none of these
n

27. A star initially has 1040 deutrons. It produces energy via the processes
2
1H + 1H2  1H3 + p and 1H2 + 1H3  2He4 + n.
If the average power radiated by the star is 1016 W, the deuteron supply of the star
is exhausted in a time of the order of [The masses of nuclei are: m(H2) = 2.014 u,
m(p) = 1.007 u, m(n) = 1.008 u, m(He4) = 4.001 u]
(A) 106 s (B) 108 s
12
(C) 10 s (D) 1016 s

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28. If the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photo electrons from a metal surface of work
function 2.5 eV, is 1.7 eV. If wavelength of incident radiation is halved, then stopping
potential will be
(A) 2.5 V (B) 5.9 V
(C) 5 V (D) 1.1 V

29. A light emitting diode (LED) has a voltage drop of 2V across it and passes a current of
10 mA. When it operates with a 6V battery through a limiting resistor R, the value of R is:
(A) 40 k  (B) 4 k 
(C) 200  (D) 400 

30. The number densities of electrons and holes in a pure germanium at room temperature
are equal and its value is 3 ×1016 per m3. On doping with aluminium, the hole density
increases to 4.5 × 1022 per m3. Then the electron density in doped germanium is
(A) 2.5  1010 m–3 (B) 2  1010 m–3
9 –3
(C) 4.5  10 m (D) 3  109 m–3

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. 100 mL of FeSO4 solution required 200 mL of 0.1 M acidified KMnO4 solution for
complete reaction. What is the molarity of the FeSO4 solution?
MnO4  Fe2  H  Mn2  Fe3  H2O
(A) 0.5 M (B) 1 M
(C) 2 M (D) 1.5 M

2. Which of the following molecule has the highest value of dipole moment?
(A) PCl3F2 (B) PCl2Br3
(C) PCl2F3 (D) PCl5

3. Which gas shows real behaviour?


(A) 16 g of dioxygen at STP occupies 11.2 L
(B) One gram dihydrogen in 0.5 L flask exerts pressure of 24.63 atm at 300 K
(C) One mole of ammonia at 300 K and 1 atm pressure occupies 22.4 L
(D) 5.6 L of CO2 at STP is equal to 11 g

4. The oxidation number and hybridization of sulphur in S8 molecule are respectively:


S S
S

S S
S

S S
2
(A) +2 and sp (B) +2 and sp3
(C) zero and sp2 (D) zero and sp3

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5. Which of the following is most soluble in water?


(A) BeSO4 (B) MgSO4
(C) CaSO4 (D) BaSO4

6. X  g   2 Y  g  
 Pr oducts
The rate equation of above reaction is given as follows:
Rate = k[X][Y]0.5
What is the unit of rate constant of above reaction?
(A) mol1/ 2L1/2 s 1 (B) mol1/2L1/2 s 1
(C) mol3/ 2L3/ 2s 1 (D) mol3/2L3/2 s 1

7. 
HCN  aq  H  aq  CN  aq
 

The ionization constant (Ka) of above acid increases by


(A) adding more water (B) adding more HCN
(C) removing H+ ions by adding bases (D) none of these

8.
0.8
Concentration (in M)

0.6
0.4

0.2

0
Time (in sec)
Above graph is given for the following reversible reaction.


X  g  
 Y  g
The equilibrium constant KC of above reaction is:
1 3
(A) (B)
4 2
2
(C) (D) 4
3
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9. Which of the following relation is correct for an equilibrium system?


(A) Ssystem = 0 (B) Ssurrounding = 0
(C) STotal = 0 (D) Ssystem = Ssurrounding

10. Which of the following compound on hydrolysis forms products that are polymerized to
silicones?
(A) SiCl4 (B) (CH3)2SiCl2
(C) SiH2Cl2 (D) H2SiF6

11. 

X  g  
 Y  g  Z  g
The equilibrium constant Kp of above reaction is 3 atm at a certain temperature. If equal
moles of X, Y and Z are present at equilibrium, the equilibrium pressure would be:
(A) 12 atm (B) 3 atm
(C) 6 atm (D) 9 atm

12. NaOH  CO   Pr oduct


Which of the following is/are the product(s) of above reaction?
(A) HCOONa (B) NaHCO3
(C) Na2CO3 + H2 (D) NaH + CO2

13. SO23  H 
  X   Y 
The unknown compounds of above reaction are:
(A) H2S and O2 (B) SO2 and H2O
(C) SO3 and H2 (D) SO2 and H2

14. For which of the following aqueous solution, there is maximum difference between the
normal and abnormal colligative properties?
(A) 0.1 m C6H12O6 (B) 0.1 m CH3COOH
(C) 0.1 m HCOOH (D) 0.1 m CH3OH

15. Which of the following aqueous solution is colourless?


(A) CuSO4 (B) Zn(NO3)2
(C) FeCl2 (D) KMnO4

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16. The relation between the molar conductance (m) and equivalent conductance (e) of the
solution of MgCl2.KCl.6H2O is
(A) m = e  8 (B) m = e  3
(C) e = m  3 (D) e = m  8

17. The strongest reducing agent out of the following is:


(A) NH3 (B) PH3
(C) AsH3 (D) BiH3

18. Which of the following interhalogen compound does NOT exist?


(A) IF3 (B) IF4
(C) IF5 (D) IF7

19. The hybridization of xenon in XeO3 is:


(A) sp3d2 (B) sp3d
(C) sp3d3 (D) none of these

25o C
20. Pb NO 3 2  excess   CrO2Cl2  NaOH  Pr oducts
Which of the following precipitates are formed in the above reaction?
(A) PbCrO3 and PbCl2 (B) PbCrO4 and PbCl2
(C) PbCr2O7 and PbCl4 (D) Na2PbO2 and PbCl4

21. How many effective no. of Na+ ions are present in the unit cell of NaCl if the ions along
all the body diagonals of the unit cell are removed?
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

22. The fraction of chlorine precipitated by AgNO3 solution from [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is


1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
2 1
(C) (D)
3 4
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23. Zn(s)| Zn2+(1M)|| Cu2+(1M)|Cu(s)


E0Zn2  / Zn  0.76 V and ECu
0
2
/Cu
 0.34 V
Which of the following relation(s) is/are correct for the above electrochemical cell?
(A) E0cell > 0 (B) Ecell > 0
(C) Ecell = E0cell (D) All are correct

24. Which one of the following has aromatic character ?


(A) Cyclopentadienyl cation (B) Cyclopentadienyl radical
(C) Cyclopentadienyl anion (D) Cyclopentadiene

25. How many optical isomer(s) is/are possible for fructose?


(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 12

26. Number of C = C bonds present in anthracene is


(A) 5 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 7

27. Which of the following is the strongest base?


CH2NH2 NHCH3
(A) (B)

NH2 NH 2

CH3
(C) (D)

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28. In order to response to xanthoproteic test. the amino acids should contain
(A) aliphatic vinyl group (B) phenyl group
(C) any cyclic group (D) allyclic group

i  NH4Cl;KCN equimolar 
29.  X 
 ii H  aq
 CH3 CH NH2  COOH

Compound[X] is
O
Cl (B)
(A)
O O
(C) (D)
H NH2

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30. Compound which gives same osazone as given by


CHO

CH 2OH

(A) CHO (B) CH 2OH

CH 2OH CHO
(C) CHO (D) CH 2OH

CH 2OH CHO

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

31 139 319  5 
1. Find the sum of the series cot 1  cot 1  cot 1  .....  cot 1  3n2   .
12 12 12  12 
13n  18 18n  13
(A) cot 1 (B) cot 1
12n 12n
36n 5 28n 3
(C) cot 1 (D) cot 1
12n 12n

2. A curve satisfying the initial condition, y 1  0, satisfies the differential equation,
dy
x  y  x 2 . The area bounded by the curve and the x – axis is:
dx
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 1
(C) (D)
4 6

log(   x )
3. The function f (x) = (x  0) is
log(e  x )
(A) increasing in [0, )
(B) decreasing in [0, )
   
(C) increasing in 0,  and decreasing in  ,  
 e e 
   
(D) decreasing in 0,  and increasing in  ,  
 e e 

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1
4. The total number of solutions of cot x  cot x  , x   0, 3 is
sin x
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

5. Let a   0, 1 satisfies the equation a 2016  2a  1  0 and S  1  a  a 2  ......  a2015 Sum


of all possible value(s) of S, is
(A) 2015 (B) 2016
(C) 2017 (D) 2018

6. Locus of all point P (x, y) satisfying x 3  y 3  3xy  1 consists of union of


(A) a line and an isolated point (B) a line pair and an isolated point
(C) a line and a circle (D) a circle and an isolated point

7. If f  x   x 2  bx  c and f  2  t   f  2  t  for all real numbers t, then which of the


following is true?
(A) f 1  f  2   f  4  (B) f  2   f 1  f  4 
(C) f  2   f  4   f 1 (D) f  4   f  2   f 1

8. The average sales and standard deviation of sales for four months for a company are as
follows :
Month 1 Month 2 Month 3 Month 4
Average Sales : 30 57 82 28
Standard deviation of sales: 2 3 4 2
During which month are the sales most consistent?
(A) month 1 (B) month 2
(C) month 3 (D) month 4

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 z  2i  
9. If arg    , then which of the following options gives the correct locus of z ?
 z  2i  6
Im(z) Im(z)

A(0, 2)
A(0, 2)

Re(z)
(A) Re(z) (B)

B(0, 2)
B(0, 2)

Im(z) Im(z)

A(0, 2) A(0, 2)

(C) Re(z) (D) Re(z)

B(0, 2) B(0, 2)

1 1 1 1 1
10. Let S     .....   .
sin8 sin16 sin32 sin 4096 sin8192
1
If S  where   (0, 90°), then the value of  (in degrees) is
sin 
(A) 4o (B) 2o
o
(C) 6 (D) None of these

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11. If f  x  is a differentiable function such that f '  2   6 and f ' 1  4, then

lim
 
f h3  3h  2  f  2 
equals:
h 0 f  2h  2h  1  f 1
2

4 4
(A) (B)
3 9
3 9
(C) (D)
4 4

12. If I   sin x.cos x.cos 2x.cos 4x.cos 8x.cos16 x dx , then the value of I is
sin16x cos 32x
(A) c (B)  c
1024 1024
cos 32x cos 32x
(C) c (D)  c
1096 1096

13. If the equation x 4  8x3  18x 2  8x  a  0 has four distinct real roots, then the range of
a is:
(A) (0, 9) (B) (–9, 0)
(C) (–8, 1) (D) (–1, 8)

14. y  f  x  is a function which satisfies:


(i) f  0   0
(ii) f "  x   f '  x  and
(iii) f '  0   1
then the area bounded by the graph of y  f  x  , the lines x  0, x  1  0 and y  1  0 ,
is:
(A) e (B) e  2
(C) e  1 (D) e  1

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15. Three parallel chords of a circle have lengths 2,3,4 and subtend angles , ,    at the
centre respectively (given      ) , then cos is equal to
15 17
(A) (B)
31 35
17
(C) (D) none of these
32

16. Let z1,z2 , z3 be three distinct points z  1. If 1,  2 and 3 be the arguments of z1,z2 , z3
respectively then cos  1  2   cos  2  3   cos  3  1 
3 3
(A)   (B)  
2 2
3
(C)  (D)  2
2

17. Number of solutions of the equation


1
  
log10 5 cos1 x  1  log10 2cos1 x  3  log10 5  1 is:
2

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) more than one but finite (D) infinite

1 x
x 2 x3
18. If the function f  x   4e 2
 1 x   and g  x   f 1  x  , then the value of
2 3
 7
g'    equals
 6
1 1
(A) (B) 
5 5
6 6
(C) (D) 
7 7
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19. If z is a complex number, then


 2

z z  1  2R e  z 
is equal to
2
z
1 1
(A) z  (B) z 
z z
(C) Re  z  (D) none

20. Two teachers are interviewing top 6 students in FTRE 2016 exam in two different
subjects, starting at the same time. Each teacher interviews a student for 15 minutes.
The number of ways in which the interviews can be scheduled is
(A) 6! (B) 5!
(C) 44 x 6! (D) 265 x 6!

21. The length of the perpendicular from the origin to the plane passing through the point
   
a and containing the line r  b  c is
     
a b c  a b c 
(A)       (B)    
ab  bc  c a ab  bc
     
a b c  a b c 
(C)     (D)    
bc  c a c a  ab

 cos  sin   An
22. If A    , then lim is (where   R )
n  n
  sin  cos  
(A) a zero matrix (B) an identity matrix
 0 1   0 1
(C)   (D)  
 0 1  1 0 

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ln2
2e3x  e2x  1
23. Let T   dx, then e T equals:
0 e3x  e2x  e x  1
7 7
(A) (B)
4 2
11 11
(C) (D)
2 4

24. A line is drawn from the point P (1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to a line with direction ratios
1, 1, 1 to intersect the plane x  2y  3z  4 at Q. The locus of Q is
x y5 z2 x y5 z2
(A)   (B)  
1 2 1 2 1 1
x y 2
(C) x  y  z (D)  
2 3 5

25. The lines 2x 2  3y 2  xy  3x  7y  2  0 represent two normals of a circle which passes


2 2
2  5  1
through the focus of the parabola  5x  15    5y     3x  4y   . The equation
 2  2
of the circle is
(A) 4x 2  4y 2  8x  8y  65  0 (B) 4x 2  4y 2  8x  8y  65  0
(C) x 2  y 2  2x  2y  73  0 (D) x 2  y 2  2x  y  73  0

1
26. The asymptotes of the hyperbola y  x  are
x
(A) y  0, y  x (B) y  0, y   x
(C) x  0, y   x (D) x  0, y  x

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AITS-CRT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/17 24

dy
27. If x  y  loge y  loge x  1 , then the solution of the equation is
dx
x y
(A) y loge    cx (B) x loge    cy
y x
y x
(C) loge    c x (D) loge    cy
x y

28. A man is dealt a poker hand (consisting of 5 cards) from an ordinary pack of 52 playing
cards. The number of ways in which he can be dealt a “straight” (a straight is five
consecutive values NOT of the same suit. e.g. {Ace 2, 3, 4, 5}, {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}……..and
{10 . J. Q. K. Ace}) is

(A) 10 4 5  4  (B) 4!.210
(C) 10.210 (D) none of these

2 2
29. The minimum value of  tan A  cosB    cot A  sinB  for all permissible independent
variables A and B is
(A) 0 (B) 2  1
(C) 3  2 2 (D) cannot be determined

30. From a set of numbers 1,2,3,......,999 , six distinct numbers are chosen. Out of these
six numbers three are chosen and labeled as a1,a2 ,a3 . The remaining are labeled as
b1,b2 ,b3 . The probability that a brick of dimensions a1  a2  a3 fits in a box of dimensions
b1  b2  b3 is equal to (assume that the brick can be rotated before putting into the box)
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 1
(C) (D)
4 5
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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017
FULL TEST – V

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A ball is thrown such that it strikes the ground with velocity v 0 y


making an angle  with the vertical. The height to which it rises v0
after the collision (if the coefficient of restitution is e) is x

e2 v 20 cos2  e2 v 02 sin2 
(A) (B)
2g 2g
e2 v 20 tan2  e2 v 20 cos2 
(C) (D)
2g g

2. The maximum potential energy that the spring connecting C v0 A k B


blocks A and B can have as a consequence of collision of m m m
block C with A is (ignore any friction.)
(A) mv 20
mv 20
(B)
2
mv 20
(C)
4
2mv 20
(D)
3

3. A block m1 strikes a stationary blocks m 3 inelastically. Another block m 2 is kept on m 3. Neglecting


the friction between all contacting surfaces, the maximum fractional decreases of K. E. of the
system in collision is:
m1 m1
(A) (B)
m1  m2  m3 m2  m3
m3 m2  m3
(C) (D)
m1  m3 m1  m2  m3

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4. A thin hollow sphere of mass m is completely filled with an ideal liquid of m


mass m. when the sphere rolls with a velocity v kinetic energy of the
system is equal to m
1
(A) mv 2 (B) mv 2
2
4 4
(C) mv 2 (D) mv 2
3 5

5. A projectile is fired with some velocity making certain angle with the horizontal. Which of the
following graphs is the best representation for the kinetic energy of a projectile (K. E.) versus its
horizontal displacement (x)?

K.E. K.E.

(A) (B)

O x O x
K.E. K.E.

(C) (D)

O x O x

6. A uniform rod of mass M and length a lies on a smooth M


horizontal plane. A particle of mass m moving at a speed v
perpendicular to the length of the rod strikes it at a A a A

distance of a/4 from the centre and stops after the a V
4
collision. The angular velocity of the rod about its centre
m v m
just after the collision is
3m v 2m v Before Collision After Collision
(A) (B)
Ma Ma
3Mv 4m v
(C) (D)
ma Ma

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 2  x1   2 x 2 
7. Two coherent waves represented by y1  A sin   t   and y 2  A sin   t  
  6   8
are superposed. Find the path difference  x1  x2  to produce constructive interference ( n  I ).
 1 
(A) n (B)  n  
 48 
(C)  n  48   (D) n  / 2

8. A small air bubble of radius r is found to form at a depth of H from the open surface of the liquid
contained in a beaker. If S is the surface tension and , the density of the liquid and p0, the
atmospheric pressure the pressure inside the bubble is
4S 2S
(A)  gH  p0 (B)  gH  p0
r r
4S 2S
(C)  gH  p0 (D)  gH  p0
r r

9. A block of mass m is suspended from a spring. Its frequency of oscillation is f.


The spring is cut into two identical halves and the same block is suspended from
one of the two pieces of the spring, such that it just touches the other spring
below in its equilibrium position. The frequency of small oscillations of the mass
m
will be
(A) f (B) 2 f
(C) 2f (D) 4f  
2 1

10. Two tuning forks with natural frequencies of 340 Hz each move relative to a stationary observer.
One fork moves away from the observer white the other moves towards him at the same speed.
The observer hears beats of frequency 3 Hz. The speed of the tuning fork is (velocity of sound =
340 m/s.)
(A) 1.5 m/s (B) 0.45 m/s
(C) 3 m/s (D) 4.5 m/s

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11. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken through a semi- P


circular thermodynamic process ACB shown in the P–V diagram.
The heat supplied to the system is 3P0
C
5  2  1 
(A) P02   (B) P0 V0   P0
A
B
 2   2 
5  V
(C) P0 V0 1   (D) P0 V0   V0 2V0
 2 

o
12. Water is flowing in a streamline down the incline having inclination 30 Wall
with the horizontal. A box ABCD, attached with the wall, is floating on T
the surface of the water keeping face CD of the box downward as shown B
in the figure. The box has a weight of 200 N and base are 1m 2. If the A
C
velocity of the streamline at a distance of 1 mm from the base CD is 0.1 D
m/s, then the tension in the string connecting the block to the wall as
shown is (Given viscosity of water = 0.1 N-s/m2.] = 30o
(A) 110 N (B) 90 N
(C) 95 N (D) 100 N

13. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by
2
y  1/ 1  x 2  at time t = 0 and by y  1/ 1   x  1  at t  2 seconds, where x and y are in
 
metres. The shape of the wave disturbance does not change during the propagation. The velocity
of the wave is
(A) 1 ms1 (B) 0.5 ms1
(C) 1.5 ms1 (D) 2 ms1

14. The particles each of mass M, are located at the vertices of an equilateral AM
triangle of side ‘a’. At what speed must they move if they all revolve under
the influence of their gravitational force of attraction in a circular orbit 30O
circumscribing the triangle while still preserving the equilateral triangle? O r
MG 2MG B
C
(A) (B) M M
a a
MG
(C) (D) None of the above
2a

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15. For a given thermodynamic process, the P –V diagram is as shown below: which of the following
is the V – T diagram for the process?
A B
A  B : Isobaric
P B  C : adiabatic
C  A : isothermal
C

V
C C

V B B
V
(A) (B)
A A

T T
B C

A B
V V
(C) (D)
C A

T T

16. In cylindrical magnetic field B is changing as B  B0  t . Find the value of x x


  x x x x
 E.d l for the path of BOA, as shown in the figure. Line AOB is semi x x Ox x
 x x x x
circular. ( E is the induced electric field in the region). A x 2a x B
a2   
(A) (B) a 2    1
2 2 
(C) a 2  (D)  a2 

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17. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V from a cell and then
disconnected from it. A charge +Q is now given to its positive plate. The potential difference
across the capacitor is now
Q
(A) V (B) V 
C
Q Q
(C) V  (D) V  , if V  CV
2C C

18. A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a resistance of 10. It is connected in series with an
external resistance and a cell of emf 2 volt and negligible internal resistance. A source of emf 10
mV is balanced against a length of 40 cm of the potentiometer wire. The value of external
resistance is
(A) 800  (B) 790 
(C) 825  (D) 745 

19. An AC source of angular frequency  is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The
current resistered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to /3 (but maintaining the same
voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be halved. The ratio of reactance to resistance at the
original frequency  will be.
3 5
(A) (B)
5 3
(C) 3/5 (D) 5/3

20. Consider the capacitor circuit shown in the figure initially only K1 is C 1 2C
closed and after sufficiently long time, K2 is also closed. The charge
flowing through section 1  2 after closing the K2 is
CE CE K2
(A)  from 2 to 1 (B)  from 2 to 1
2 6
CE E K1 2
(C) CE from 2 to 1 (D) from 1 to 1
4

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21. A layer of benzene floats on water. If the angle of incidence of 60o


the light entering benzene form air is 60o, then the angle that Air
light makes with normal in water is
(Refractive index of water = 4/3.)
o Benzene
(A) 30
Water
3 3 
(B) sin1 
 8 
 
 1 
(C) sin1  
 3
(D) data not sufficient

22. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex angle 30o and refractive
index 2 . The angle of deviation of the ray is
(A) 15o (B) 75o
o
(C) 30 (D) none of these
o
23. Light of wavelength 4000 A falls on a metal surface having work function of 2.0 eV. What is the
stopping potential?
(A) 3.1 V (B) 2.0 V
(C) 5.1 V (D) 1.1 V

24. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube is increased from V1 = 10 kV to V2 = 20 kV, the
wavelength interval between the K line and the short-wave cut-off of the continuous X-ray
spectrum increases by a factor =3.0. Find the atomic number of the element of which the tube’s
anti-cathode is made.
(A) 29 (B) 30
(C) 28 (D) none of the above

25. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constant 10 and  , respectively. If initially they
have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be
1/e after a time
(A) 1/(10) (B) 1/(11)
(C) 11/(10) (D) 1/(9)

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26. In the measurement of the acceleration due to gravity using a simple pendulum, the percentage
error in the measured value of the length of the pendulum is 2% and that in the time period of
oscillation is 1%. What is the percentage error in the measured value of the acceleration due to
gravity?
(A) 4% (B) 5%
(C) 6% (D) 3%

27. In a Coolidge tube, the potential difference used to accelerate the electrons is increased from
12.4 kV to 24.8 kV. As a result, the difference between the wavelengths of K line is
 hc o

  12.4 V A 
 e 
o o
(A) 1 A (B) (B) 0.5 A
o
(C) 1.5 A (D) 0

28. In the following circuit i1 and i2 are respectively (diodes 2k


are ideal)
(A) 0, 0
(B) 0, 5mA 10 V
(C) 5mA, 0
(D) 5mA, 5mA 12k
14k

IC
29. For a common base configuration of PNP transistor  0.98 then maximum current gain in
IE
common emitter configuration will be
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 6 (D) 48

30. Due to annihilation of electron-positron of same kinetic energy 0.95 MeV, a photon is produced
which can also be produced by an electron of energy E, the possible value (S) of E is e(mass of
electron C  9.1 1031kg, e  1.6  1019 c )
(A) 1.02 MeV (B) 2.42 MeV
(C) 1.03 MeV (D) 2.93 MeV

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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. When sum of radius ratio( using Bohr’s modal) of hydrogen atom obtained from following given

qualitative sketch of radial probability density P(r) vs r for p subshells is ‘x’. Then value of
( = value of bond order of c-c bond in benzene, and n1, n2, n3 are corresponding shell number
of p subshells whose sketches are given) is……

P(r) P(r) P(r)


n2p n3p
n1p

r r r
(A) 7 (B) 11.5
(C) 13.5 (D) 15.5

2. A zero order kinetic, 2A ------- P. The initial concentration of reactant is 0.05M is given. The
variation of degree of dissociation with time is …….



time

Using graph calculate value of rate constant .  a  degree of dissociation, tan  = 0.5  .
(A) 0.125 (B) 0.0125
(C) 1.25 (D) 12.5

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3. The titration curve of diprotic acid with standard KOH solution is given as:

A
pH
B
  β
2

Volume of KOH added

(A) The pH of amphiprotic anion represents at volume β.


(B) The pH (B) represent the 50% neutralization, pH that give idea about Pka1
(C) pH of salt solution at 100% neutralization obtained at volume .
(D) The pH (B) represents the end point at pH=7

4. NaNO3 on heating to 500°C decomposes to produce NaNO2 and oxygen, while salt on heating
above 800°C, decomposes to Na2O,N2 and O2 because of
(A) high heat of hydration of Na+ ion than NO3-
(B) solvated electron of Na in NaNO3 have high density than NaNO2
(C) greater effective nuclear charge of Na+ in NaNO3 than in NaNO2
(D) less polarizability of smaller nitrite ion than nitrate ion

5. The deposited mass of Metal M (molar mass = 50) on electrolysis of aq. MClx by passing 965
ampere current for 50 seconds is 5g.What will be the value of x+y+z of the following given ionic
equation where M used as reducing agent.
xMnO4- + yM + zH+ ---- aM+x + bMn+2 + cH2O
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 15

6. The PH of 0.1 molar monobasic acid is 2.The osmotic pressure of solution at 25°C is
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 2.69

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7. Which of the following will not give lassaigne test’ for nitrogen?
(A) NH2-NH2 (B) C6H5-N=NC6H5
(C) CH3CONH2 (D)CH3CN

8. The Product of the given reaction:


O
D2 O
?
Br
COOD COOH
D O
(A) (B) (C) (D)

D D

9. A stable molecule containing atoms of elements A,B and C has a following structure. Which of the
following is possible combination of elements?
C C
B
A A
C C
B B
A C
C
(A) N, P, Cl (B) O, S, Cl
(C) B, C, H (D) P, N, F

10. Which of the following statements are correct for SN2 reaction?
(A) In the gaseous phase, the order of reactivity of halide ions is F- > Cl- > I- while in methanol
the order of reactivity is I- > Br > Cl- > F-
(B) Among similar solvents, in general, the greater the polarity, slower the SN2 reaction.
(C) In an aprotic solvent such as dimethyl sulphoxide the order of reactivity of halide ions as
   
nucleophiles is F  Cl  Br  I
(D) All are correct.

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NH3 A O3/H2O B CaO


11. I C

(A) O (B) OH (C) O (D)


HOOC COOH

12. Which of the following reaction gives the alcohol, whose molecular weight is lowered by 14 unit
than its starting reactant?
(A) H 2 O2 ; H  (B) H 2O2 ; H 
 CH 3 2 CH  OH   Ph CH OH  
CH3
(C) H 2O2 ; H  (D) Ph CH H 2O2 ; H
OH 

CH 3CH 2OH   
Ph

13. Select the most effective drying agent at O•C out of the basis of following equilibria.
ACl2 6 H 2O  ACl2  2 H 2O  4 H 2O
(s) (s) (g)

K P  689  1012
A2 HPO4 12 H 2O  Na2 HPO4 7 H 2O  5H 2O
(s) (s)

K P  5.25  1013

ASO4 10 H 2O  ASO4  10 H 2O


(s) (s) (g)

K P  4.08  10 25
The vapour Pressure of water at 0 C is 458 torr in atmosphere?
0

(A) ACl2 2 H 2 O (B) AHPO4 7 H 2 O


(s)
(C) ASO4 (D) All are equal

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H H
14. Cr2 O72 
P X
 CrO42 
P Y
 Cr2O72
Select the correct option.
(A) X > Y (B) X < Y
(C) X = Y (D) X = Y = 7

15. Statements:
I. An especially favorable conformation for the peptide linkages in protein is the ‘  ’ helix
arrangement.
II. 
I4 O9 ionises as I3+ + IO3

 3

III. O2 reacts with PtF6 to give the compound O2 

 PF 
t 6 ,
IV. Froth floatation process used for concentration of sulphide ore where sodium ethyl
xanthate used as collector. Out of these statements,
(A) I, II and III are correct. (B) II, III, and IV are correct
(C) Only III correct (D) I, II, III and IV are correct.

16. Which of the following order(s) of properties given is/are correct?


I. Tendency of alkyl halides to undergoes dehydrohalogenation in williamson,
synthesis Follows the order 30 > 20 > 10
II. Propanol < 2 – methyl – 1 – Propanol < 2 – butanol < 2 – Methyl – 2 Propanol
(rate of reaction with HBr)
NH2 NH2 NH2

III.
  OMe
(Basic order)

OMe
IV. Toluene < m-dichlorobenzene < O- dichloro benzene < P- dichloro benzene - (Order of
dipole moment ).
Select correct option:
(A) I, II, IV, are correct (B) IV,I are correct
(C) II, II, IV, are correct (D) I, II, and III, are correct

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17. The specific conductivity of AB(aq) at 298 k is 1.26 10-6 and ionic conductivity of A  aq 

and B  aq  at infinite dilution are 62 s cm2 mol-1 and 76 s cm2 mol-1 respectively. The number of

B  ions in saturated solution per litre (aproximately)


(A) 1  1014 (B) 5  10-14
14 24
(C) 55  10 (D) 1  10

18. S8 exist as a mixture of S8 and S2 according to dissociation S8  4 S2


The rate of diffusion of mixture is 0.75 times more than that of pure sulpher(S8). The mass
percentage of S2 in the sample
(A) 40 % (B) 30 %
(C) 80 % (D) 52 %

19. In silicon dioxide


(A) There are double bonds between silicon and oxygen atoms
(B) silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
(C) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded two
silicon atoms.
(D) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to
two silicon atoms.

20. Statement not correct regarding ortho and para hydrogen


(A) Ortho is more stable than Para
(B) Ortho and Para hydrogen are called spin isomers.
(C) magnetic moment of Para is zero while ortho has twice that of proton.
(D) Conductivity of ortho and Para is equal.

21. Which of the following mixtures can be separated by using an NH3 solution?
(A) Fe+3 and Al+3 (B) Al+3 and Zn+2
+2 +3
(C) Sn and Pb (D) Cu+ 2 Cd+2

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22. CH3
*
(i) PBr3/Pyridine
C2H5 OH A?
(ii) CH3 O-
H

CH3
* (i) TsCl/Pyridine
C2H5 C OH B?
(P) (ii) CH3 O-
H
Select the correct statements:
(A) A and B have same configuration
(B) A and B are diastereomers with each other
(C) A have same configuration as the starting material
(D) A and B have same configuration as the starting material

23. Incorrect statement is:


OH 
(A) HCHO 
K
HCOO  CH 3OH , The reaction can have rate law expression,
2 2 2
r  K  HCHO  OH  or r  K  HCHO  OH 
(B) ortho chlorobenzaldehyde and meta chlorobenzaldehycle gives cannizarro reaction.
H
P 3.4 to 4 SOCl2
(C) O H N  OH   A   B,
2

where B is an amide.
(D) acid halide > acid anhydride > aldehydo > ketone > ester  carboxylic acid > amide >
carboxylate ion. (relative reaclivities towards Nuclcophile)

24. The group of negative charged colloids


(A) starch, Haemoglobin and ferric hydroxide
(B) Au, Ag and Aluminium hydroxide
(C) Clay Haemoglobin and starch
(D) Arsenic sulphide, starch, and clay

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25. The incorrect statement among the following is


2
(A)  Ni  CN  4  is square Planer complex
2

(B) ZnCl4  is tetrahedral complex
4
(C) In Cu  NO   tetragonal distortion takes place.
2 4

(D) The bond length of C – O’ in CO (free state) is more than in complex Fe (CO)5 (as a ligand)

26. Of the following mixture, the most likely, mixture nearer to ideal solution is
(A) NaCl – water (B) ethanol – benzene
(C) heptane – water (D) heptane - octane

27. A clourless salt changes to yellow on heating, salt is also soluble in NaOH as well in dil HCl. Salt
can be
(A) FeO (B) PbO
(C) ZnO (D) CdO

28. The temperature voltage coefficient for a simple alkaline torch battery is - 6 10-4 VK–1
What is the entropy change associated with battery discharge? The number of electrons
transferred in the cell reaction n = 2.
(A) -1.16 JK-1 mol-1 (B) 1.16 JK-1
-1 -1
(C) 11. 6 JK mol (D) -11.6 JK-1 mol-1

29. Vander wall constant for hydrogen chloride gas a = 3.67 atm litre-2 and b = .0408 mL mol-1. The
ratio of Tc (critical temperature) and Pc (critical pressure) of the gas is (approximately)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

30. How many moles of HIO4 (Periodic acid) are required for cleavage C- C bonds in the sucrose?
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 3

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Mathematics PART – III


SECTION – A
(Only One Option Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

 cos  x  1 | x  1|   x  1  dx
1 3
1. The value of integral is
0

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 

2. 
If ln 2 x  a
2 2
  ln  x 2
 2 x  3 , then set of values of ‘a’ will be
(A)  , 2    2,   (B)  , 1   0,  
(C)  2,   (D) R

  x 
3. f(x) = sin      , x  R.
 2 
Then
(A) f(x) is discontinuous where x = 2K, k  I.
(B) f(x) is discontinuous where x = 2K, k I
(C) f(x) is discontinuous every where except x = 2
(D) f(x) is continuous every where.

4. If x 2  x  1  2  x exhaustive set of x is
(A)  3 / 5,   
(B) 3 / 5,  


(C) 3 / 5, 2  (D)  2,  

x 1
5. If f  x   , then f  f  x   is
2x  1
(A) x (B) x + 1
(C) x – 1 (D) None of these

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6.  
If f  x   max 3  x ,| x  3 | then f(x) is non differentiable at exactly
3

(A) 4 point (B) 2 point


(C) 3 point (D) 1 point

2 A B 3c
7. If in a triangle ABC, b cos  a cos 2  , then a, b, c are in
2 2 2
(A) GP (B) AP
(C) HP (D) None of these

5sin A cos A
8. If tan B  , then the value of 4 tan  A  B   tan A is
1  5 cos 2 A
(A) -1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 4

9. If sin 3  4sin  sin 2 sin 4 , 0     , then the number of real solution for ' ' is
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 0 (D) 8

10. In a triangle ABC, I is incentre and I1, I2, I3 are excentres, then the value of  I I1    I I 2    I I 3 
is
2 2
(A) Rr (B) 2R r
2 2
(C) 2Rr (D) 16R r

2cos   1 tan  / 2
11. If cos   , when    ,    and tan   , then  is
2 cos  tan  / 2
(A) 600 (B) 450

1
 3
(C) tan   (D) 300

 2 

12. If 2 x  2 y  3z  0, x  ay  2 z  0 and 2 x  az  0 have a non-trivial solution, then


(A) a  1 (B) a  2
(C) a  0 (D) None of these

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a cos A  b cos B  c cos C


13. is
abc
r R
(A) (B)
R 2r
R 2r
(C) (D)
r R
3
14. If a cos   3a cos   sin 2   m and a sin 3   3a cos 2  sin   n then value of
2/3 2/3
 m  n    m  n  is
2 2/3
(A) a (B) 2a
1/3 3
(C) 2a (D) 2a

r
15. The coefficient of x where o  r  n  1 in the expression
n 1 n 2 n3 2 n 1
 x  2   x  2  x  1   x  2   x  1  .......   x  1 is

(A)
n
Cr  2r  1 (B)
n
Cr  2n r  1
(C)
n
Cr  2r  1 (D)
n
Cr  2n  r  1

10
 cos  
16. If the term independent of ‘x’ in the expansion  x sin    is f   , then value of
 x 
 
f   is
 12 
10 10 10
(A) C5 (B) 2 C5
5 10 5 10
(C) 2 C5 (D) 2 C5

17. The sum of last three digit if the number N = 7100 - 3100 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4

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18. If A + B = , then
2
(A) 1  tan A / 2 1  tan B / 2   2 (B) 1  cot A / 2 1  cot B / 2   2

(C) 1  sec A / 2 1  cos ec A / 2   2 (D) 1  cot A / 2 1  cot B / 2   2

19. If a1 , a2 , a3 ....., a20 are in AP and a1  a4  a7  10 and a2  a10  8 the sum of all terms is
(A) 110 (B) 120
110
(C) (D) 220
3

If the points A  x1 , y1  , B  x2 , y2  , C  x3 , y3  lie on the parabola y  2 x such that x1 , x2 , x3


2 2
20.
are in A.P. and y1, y2, y3 are in G.P. If the common ratio has two values r1 and r2, then r1 + r2 is
(A) 6 (B) 4 2
(C) 8 (D) – 6

2 2 2
21. If a1 , a2 , a3 ....an is an increasing GP and a1  a2  a3  91 also a1  a2  a3  13 , then Sn is
3n  3 3n1  3
(A) (B)
2 2
n1
n 3 3
(C) 3  3 (D)
4
2
22. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ax  bx  c  0 is equal to sum of the square of
their reciprocal, then, a , b , c are in
c a b
(A) AP (B) GP
(C) HP (D) none of these

23. A variable rectangle PQRS has its sides parallel to fixed directions, Q and S lie respectively on
the lines x = a, x = - a and P lies on the x-axis. Then locus of R is
(A) circle (B) parabola
(C) straight locus (D) Hyperbola

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2
24. From an external point P, pair of tangents are drawn to the parabola y  4 x,  and  are the

inclination tangents with x axis such that   . The locus of P is
4
(A) x  y  2  0 (B) x  y  1  0
(C) 2 x  3 y  1  0 (D) x  3 y  1  0

x2 y2
25. For an ellipse   1 with vertices A and A’, tangents are drawn at the point P in the first
9 4
quadrant meets the y-axis in Q and chord A’P meets y-axis in M. If O is the origin, then
OQ 2  MQ 2 is equals to
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 2

2 2 2
26. Let y  4ax and circle x  y  2bx  0 touch each other externally then the equations
ax 2  cx  b  0 will have
(A) Both roots are real and distinct all for all c  R
(B) Both roots are complex for all  R
(C) Both roots are real and distinct c  ab
(D) Both roots are complex c  ab

If the circle x  y  a intersects the hyperbola xy = c2 in four points


2 2 2
27.
P  x1 , y1  , Q  x2 , y2  , R  x3 , y3  , S  x4 , y4  , then
2 2
(A) x1  x2  x3  x4  c (B) x1  x2  x3  x4  c
2
(C) x1  x2  x3  x4  0 (D) y1  y2  y3  y4  c

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28. If A is a orthogonal matrix of order 4 and det (A) = 2, then value of det (A - I) is.
(A) 1 (B) -1
(C) 0 (D) 2

dy x 2  y 2  1
29. Genereal solution of  is
dy 2 xy
2 2 2 2
(A) y  1  x  cy (B) y  1  x  cx
2 2 2 2
(C) x  1  y  cy (D) x  1  y  cx

30. A fair coin is tossed ‘n’ number of times. The probability that head will turn up an even number of
times, is equal to
n 1 1
(A) (B)
2n 2
n 1 2 n 1  1
(C) (D)
2n 2n
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FIITJEE JEE (Main), 2017
FULL TEST – IV

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 432


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u l l y. Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n ut es
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

 Yo u a r e n o t a ll o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha ll b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE Advanced, 2016

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.


(i) Section-A (01 to 03 and 10 to 12) contains 6 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +8 marks for correct answer and – 2 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-A (04 to 09 and 13 to 30) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong
answer.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct.

1. The curvilinear motion of a particle is defined by v x  50  16t and y  100  4t 2 , where v x is in


meters per second, y is in meters, and t is in seconds. It is also known that x=0 when t = 0.
Determine its velocity and acceleration when the position y = 0 is reached.
(A) 30iˆ  40ˆj , 16iˆ  16ˆj (B) 40iˆ  30ˆj , 8iˆ  16ˆj
(C) 30iˆ  40ˆj , 16iˆ  8ˆj (D) 40iˆ  30ˆj , 16iˆ  8ˆj

2. A projectile is ejected into an experimental fluid at time t = 0. The initial speed is v 0 and the angle
to the horizontal is . The drag on the projectile results in an acceleration term aD = -kv, where k
is a constant and v is the velocity of the projectile. What is the terminal velocity? Include the
effects of gravitational acceleration.
g
(A) v 0 cos (B) 
k
v0
(C)  (D) Zero
k

3. At a certain instant, cylinder A has a downward velocity of 0.8 m/s and


an upward acceleration of 2 m/s2. Determine the corresponding
velocity and acceleration of cylinder B.
(A) vB = 1.2 m/s down, aB = 3 m/s2 up
(B) vB = 1.2 m/s up, aB = 3 m/s2 down
(C) vB = 2.4 m/s up, aB = 6 m/s2 down
(D) vB = 0.6 m/s down, aB = 1.5 m/s2 up

B
A

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4. The mean value of the kinetic energy and the root-mean-square velocity of helium molecules
under normal conditions is close to
(Given: the pressure and temperature of helium under normal conditions are
p0  1.013  105 Pa and T0  273K respectively. From tables, we find the molar mass of helium,
M  4  103 kg / mol, the Boltzmann constant k  1.38  1023 J / K, the Avogadro constant
NA  6.02  10 23 mol1 , and the density of helium under normal conditions, 0  0.18 kg / m3 . )
(A) 5.65 x 10–21 J, 1300 m/s (B) 9.34 x 10–21 J,1950 m/s
–21
(C) 5.65 x 10 J, 1950 m/s (D) 9.34 x 10–21 J, 1300 m/s

5. A telegram is sent from Delhi to Allahabad (The distance Rw


between the cities of 650 km) via a steel telegraph line carrying a
current of 1.7 mA at a voltage of 150 V. The cross-sectional area
l
2
of the wire is 5.0 mm . The voltage drop across the load RL
resistances is (resistivity of steel is 1.2 x 10–7  m)
(A) 53 V (B) 97 V V1 = 150 V
(C) 150 V (D) 0 V

5 2 C
6. Impedance of given circuit is (Given: R = 1  , C =  10 2
2 R
1
Farad, L  Henry, frequency of A.C. source = 100 Hz)
40 R
(A) 1  (B) 2  R L

(C) 2  (D) 2 2 
~ Vt

7. The sun forms an angle of 60o with the horizon. Determine the
length of the umbra at the bottom of an opaque vessel 
illuminated by sun light. The height of the vessel is 25 cm.
M
What will the change in the length of the umbra be when water 
is poured into the vessel to a height of 20 cm shown in figure. N
Given: H = 25 cm is the height of the vessel,  = 60o is the H
altitude of the Sun above the horizon, h = 20 cm is the height of
h
the water column. From tables, we take the refractive index for 
water, n = 1.33. The change l of the length of the umbra in
the vessel with water is A B C D
(A) 11 cm (B) 3.4 cm
(C) 14.4 cm (D) 25.4 cm

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8. Two coherent light sources emit light of wavelength 550 nm which d


S1 S2
produces an interference pattern on a screen (figure).
The sources are 2.2 mm apart and 2.2 m from the screen.
D
(A) Path difference at point O on screen is 2.2 m
(B) There is a bright fringe at O
(C) Path difference at point O on screen is 1.1 mm
(D) There is a dark fringe at O l
screen
O

9. A 1 kg object oscillates at the end of a vertical spring that has a spring constant of 100 N/m. The
effect of air resistance is represented by the damping coefficient 10 N-s/m. The angular
frequency of the damped oscillation is
(A) 10 s–1 (B) 5 s–1
(C) 5 3 s–1 (D) 5 2 s–1

10. A steel wire of length 30.0 m and a copper wire of length 20.0 m, both with 1.00 mm diameters,
are connected end to end and stretched to a tension of 150 N. During what time interval will a
transverse wave travel the entire length of the two wires?
(A) 0.137 sec (B) 0.192 sec
(C) 0.285 sec (D) 0.329 sec

11. Light of wavelength 587.5 nm illuminates a slit of width 0.75 mm. At what distance from the slit
should a screen be placed if the first minimum in the diffraction pattern is to be 0.85 mm from the
central maximum?
(A) 2 m (B) 10 m
(C) 1.1 m (D) 2.2 m

12. What is the energy of a photon that, when absorbed by a hydrogen atom, could cause an
electronic transition from the n = 2 state to the n = 5 state?
(A) 2.86 eV (B) 0.472 eV
(C) 1.92 eV (D) 10.2 eV

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13. The rectangle shown in figure has sides parallel to the x and

y
y axes. The position vectors of two corners are A  10.0 m 
 A
at 53o and B  12.0 m at 30.0o. Find the perimeter of the
rectangle. 
(A) 6.2 m (B) 24.8 m B
(C) 12.4 m (D) 18.6 m x

14. A solid piece of lead has a mass of 23.94 g and a volume of 2.10 cm 3. From these data, calculate
the density of lead in SI units (kilograms per cubic meter).
4 3 4 3
(A) 1.14 x 10 kg/m (B) 2.28 x 10 kg/m
3 3
(C) 2.14 x 10 kg/m (D) 1.28 x 10 kg/m3
3

15. A fixed mass of gas is trapped in a syringe. The volume of the syringe is slowly reduced,
compressing the gas without changing the temperature. The pressure exerted on walls of
syringe charges because
(A) The particles have more kinetic energy
(B) The particles collide with each other more often
(C) The particles hit the walls of the syringe with more force
(D) The particles hit the walls of the syringe more often

16. Light and sound can both be thought of as a wave. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) They can both transfer energy (B) They can both be polarised
(C) They can both be refracted (D) They can both be diffracted

17. An aircraft of mass 4000 kg produces a thrust of 10 Kn. The aircraft needs to travel at 35 m/s to
take off from a standing start, the time to become airborne is approximately.
(A) 2.5 s (B) 3.5 s
(C) 9 s (D) 14 s

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18. The initial activity of a radioactive isotope is 120 Bq and the half-life is 20 minutes. For a sample
of the same isotope with twice the mass, the values would be:
Initial Activity/Bq Half life/minutes
(A) 120 20
(B) 240 20
(C) 60 20
(D) 120 40

19. The average wavelength of light emitted from an incandescent torch bulb with a metal filament is
120 nm. Calculate the number of photons emitted by a 20 W torch bulb in one hour.
19 20
(A) 2.1 x 10 (B) 2.1 x 10
20
(C) 12 x 10 (D) 1.2 x 1019

20. Consider the circuit shown below. Is is a constant current


4R 2R
source, meaning that no matter what device is connected 4R 2R
between points A and B, the current provided by the Is
constant current source is the same. A B
2R 4R
Connect an ideal voltmeter between A and B. Determine
the voltage reading in terms of any or all of R and Is.
(A) 2iR (B) 0
iR
(C) iR (D)
2

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21. A particle moves along the x-axis. It collides elastically head-on with an identical particle initially
at rest. Which of the following graphs could illustrate the momentum of each particle as a function
of time?
(A) p (B) p

t t

(C) p (D) p

t t

22. The voltage – current graph for a filament light bulb is shown Current
below.
The graph has this shape because: Voltage
(A) Resistance of the filament increases as the current increases
(B) Resistance of the filament decreases as the current increase
(C) The filament has a higher resistance than the connecting wires
(D) The filament has a lower resistance than the connecting wires

23. A steel ball bearing is dropped onto a concrete floor and rebounds to 80% of its initial height. The
percentage of the kinetic energy lost in the collision is
(A) 80% (B) 64%
(C) 36% (D) 20%

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24. An air molecule of mass 5.0 × 10–26 kg and moving with a speed of 500 ms-1 has kinetic energy of
about (e  1.6  1019 C)
(A) 1 eV (B) 0.4 eV
(C) 40 meV (D) 4 meV

25. The Moon takes 2 minutes to sink below the horizon at the equator when observed at night
(about the same time as the Sun takes to set). If the radius of the Earth is 6400 km and the
radius of the Moon is 1700 km, what is the angular size of the Earth when observed from the
Moon?
0 0
(A) 3.8 (B) 3.5
0
(C) 1.9 (D) 0.30

26. A bubble is made from a soap film of uniform thickness enclosing a spherical volume of air. If the
diameter of the bubble is trebled, the thickness of the soap film, t, will become
(A) t/27 (B) t/9
(C) t/4 (D) t/3

27. The radius of the Sun is 6.9 × 105 km and that of the Earth is 6400 km. Approximately how many
rigid earth spheres could be fitted into the interior of the sun?
(A) 100 (B) 1200
(C) 10000 (D) 106

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28. An incompressible liquid flows through a pipe which has a section with a narrower bore. What is
the speed of the liquid and the volume rate of flow in the narrow section compared to the wider
section of the pipe?

Speed of flow/ms-1 Volume rate of flow /m 3s-1


(A) Slower Same
(B) Faster Less
(C) Faster Same
(D) Slower More

29. In the circuit shown below, the power


converted in RA is 1 W. The value of RA
is R, that of RB is 2R and RC. How much
power is supplied by the cell?
(A) 3W
(B) 4W RA
(C) 6 W
RC
(D) 8 W
RB

30. The neutral point between the Earth and the Moon is the point where the gravitational pull of the
Moon is equal to the gravitational pull of the Earth. If the energy a 1000 kg spacecraft needs in
order to reach the neutral point from the Earth is 6.0 × 1010 J and to reach the neutral point from
the Moon is 0.25 × 1010J, what is the minimum energy needed to send a 1 kg rock from the Moon
to the Earth?
(A) 0.25 × 107 J (B) 5.75 × 107 J
(C) 6.0 × 107 J (D) 6.25 × 107 J

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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct.

1. A mixture contains NaCl and unknown chloride MCl. (a) 1g of this is dissolved in water, excess of
acidified AgNO3 solution is added to it, so that 2.567 g of white ppt. is obtained (b) 1 g of original
o
mixture is heated to 300 C. Some vapours come out which are absorbed in AgNO3 (acidified)
solution. 1.341 g of white precipitate is obtained. Find molecular weight of unknown chloride.
(A) 53.50 (B) 45.5
(C) 58.5 (D) none of these

2. At 20oC, two balloons of equal volume and porosity are filled to a pressure of 2 atm, one with 14
kg N2 and other with 1 kg of H2. The N2 balloon leaks to a pressure of ½ atm in 1 hr. How long
will take for H2 balloon to reach a pressure of ½ atm?
(A) 4 min (B) 12 min
(C) 16 min (D) 20 min

3. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy, TA (expressed in eV) and de Broglie wavelength A. The maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is
TB = TA – 1.50 eV. If the de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A, then which is
not correct
(A) The work function of A is 2.25 eV (B) the work function of B is 1.20 eV
(C) TA = 2.00 eV (D) TB = 0.5 eV

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m m4 m4
4. A radioactive isotope decays as z A  z 1 C. The half-lives of A and B are 10 month
z  2 B 
and 6 month respectively. Assuming that initially only A was present, will it be possible to achieve
radioactive equilibrium for B. If so what would be the ratio of A and B at equilibrium? What would
happen if the half-lives A and B were 6 month and 10 month respectively?
(A) 1.66, no equilibrium (B) 1.77, t 1  t 1
A B
2 2

(C) 2.77, B   A (D) 2.88 B   A

5. An electric current is passed through two electrolytic cells connected in series, one containing
AgNO3 (aq) and other H2SO4 (aq). What volume of O2 measured at 25oC and 750 mm Hg would
be liberated from H2SO4, if
(a) 1 mole of Ag+ are deposited from AgNO3 solution
22 +
(b) 8 × 10 ions of Ag are deposited from AgNO3 solution
(A) 6.2, 0.823 (B) 3.27, 0.78
(C) 3.1, 5.26 (D) 1.12, 3.17

6. 1 g of Mg atoms in the vapour phase absorbs 50.0 kJ of energy. Find the composition of Mg+ and
Mg2+ formed as a result of absorption of energy. IE1 and IE2 for Mg are 740 and 1450 kJ mol—1
respectively.
(A) 68.28%, & 31.72% (B) 31.72% & 68.28%
(C) 70% & 30% (D) 20% & 80%

7. The following compounds have been arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities.
Identify the correct order:
K2CO3 (I) MgCO3(II) CaCO3(III) BeCO3(IV)
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) IV < II < III < I
(C) IV < II < I < III (D) II < IV < III < I

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8. The freezing point of a solution containing 0.2 g of acetic acid in 20.0 g benzene is lowered by
o
0.45 C. Calculate the degree of association of acetic acid in benzene. Assume acetic acid
dimerizes in benzene. Kf for benzene 5.12 K mol-1 kg.
(A) 46.6% (B) 94.6%
(C) 86.6% (D) 37.6%

9. For the system A2 (g) + B2 (g)  2AB(g),  H = – 80 KJ/mole


If the activation energy for the forward step is 100 kcal/mole. What is the ratio of temperature at
which the forward and backward reaction shows the same % change of rate constant per degree
rise of temperature ? (1 cal = 4.2 J)
(A) 0.72 (B) 0.84
(C) 0.42 (D) 1

10. At 273 K and one atm, ‘a’ litre of N2O4 decomposes to NO2 as : N 2O4  g   2 NO2  g  . To
what extent has the decomposition proceeded when the original volume is 25% less than that of
existing volume?
(A) 25% (B) 30%
(C) 60% (D) 33%

11. N2O4 dissociates as : N 2O4  2 NO2 . At 55oC and one atmosphere, N2O4 was decomposed to
50.3%. At what P and temperature, the equilibrium mixture has the ratio of N2O4: NO2 as
1 : 8?
(A) 2.18 (B) 0.19
(C) 3.7 (D) 1.18

12. An equilibrium mixture at 300 K contains N2O4 and NO 2 at 0.28 and 1.1 atmosphere respectively.
If the volume of container is doubled, calculate the new equilibrium pressure of two gases.
(A) 4.32 (B) 4.68
(C) 2.4 (D) 1.98

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13. Calculate the amount of NH3 and NH4Cl required to prepare a buffer solution of pH 9.0 when total
—1
concentration of buffering reagents is 0.6 mol L .
pK b for NH 3  4.7, log 2  0.30
(A) 0.2 M & 0.4 M (B) 0.4 M & 0.4 M
(C) 0.2 & 0.2 M (D) 2 M & 4 M

14. For a reaction,


1
M 2 O  s  
 2 M  s   O2  g 
2
—1 —1 —1
H=30 kJ mol and S=0.07 kJ K mol at 1 atm. Calculate upto which temperature, the
reaction would not be spontaneous.
(A) 528 K (B) 428 K
(C) 480 K (D) 820 K

15. Dipole moment will be zero in complexes


2
I :  Ni  CN  4  II : cis  Pt  NH 3  2 Cl2  III : trans   Pt  NH 3  2 Cl2 
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) II and III (D) I, II and III

16. Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (B). Compound (B)
is reacted with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A). When (A) is reacted with sodium metal it
gives compound (D), C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is
reacted with sodium. Give the structural formula of (A).
(A) n-butyl bromide (B) isobutyl bromide
(C) 1-bromo 2-methyl propane (D) butane

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17. Consider the following reaction,


O CH3
KMnO4/OH- Cu/
A

A formed is
(A) HO CH3 (B) O CH3
OH OH

OH O
(C) HO CH2OH (D) HO CHO

OH OH

HgSO4/H2SO4
18. C CH A, A is

O
O

(A) C CH3 (B)


CH2CHO
O
O OH

(C) (D)
COOH CH2CHO

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19. Identify E in the following:


CH3
Alkaline KMnO4 LiAlH4 conc. HCl (i) KCN BaO, 
A B C D E
ZnCl2,  (ii) H2O+
CH3

(A) O (B)

O
CH2COOH
CH2COOH C O
(C) (D)
Br
CH2COOH
CH2 COO

20. Amongst the following, total number of essential amino acids are:
valine, glycine, phenylalanine, lysine, leucine, isoleucine, methionine, alanine, threonine.
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 9

21. Which sequence of reactions will accompanish this transformation?


NH2
Br Br
?

CH3
CH3
(A) NaNO2/HCl/0oC, H3PO2 and Br2 (B) Br2, LiAlH4 and H3O+
(C) NaNO2/HCl/0oC, CuBr (D) Br2, NaNO2/HCl/0oC, H3PO2

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22. The amines shown are isomers. Choose the one with the lowest boiling point.
H
N

(A) (B) NHCH3

CH3

CH3 NH2
N
(C) (D)

23. An ester (A) on acidic hydrolysis gives (B) and (C). (B) gives violet colour and (C) gives blood red
colour with neutral FeCl3 solution. (A), (B) and (C) are
A B

A= COOC6 H5 B = COOH
(A)

OH

A= O C CH3 B= OH C = CH3COOH
(B)
O
(C) A= O C CH3 B= C = CH3COOH

(D) O O
A= CCH3 B = CH3OH COH

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24. An organic compound with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2, 4-DNP derivative, reduces
Tollen’s reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it give 1,
2-benzenedicarboxylic acid. Identify the compound.
(A) 2 ethyl benzaldehyde (B) 3-ethyl benzoic acid
(C) 2 methyl benzaldehyde (D) 3-ethyl benzaldehyde

25. From the following compounds, how many compounds are soluble in water?
C6 H 5OH  NO2  , C6 H 5COC6 H 5 , C6 H 5Cl , C6 H 5CHO, C6 H 5OH .
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 4

26. An organic compound (X) has molecular formula C7H6O2 and it does not effervesces with
NaHCO3. A on treatment with excess of HBr (aq) gives Y(C6H6O2) and CH2Br2. Y forms a violet
coloured solution with FeCl3. If X is treated with Br2/Fe, How many different monobromination
product would result?
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 4

27. An organic compound B is formed by the reaction of ethyl magnesium iodide (CH3CH2MgI) with a
substance A, followed by treatment with dilute aqueous acid. Compound B does not react with
PCC or PDC in dichloromethane. Which of the following is a possible candidate for A?
(A) O (B) H2C O
CH3CH
(C) O (D) O
H2C CH 2
CH3CH2C CH3

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28. Compound (A), C8H9Br gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation
of (A) gives and acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify the compound
(A).
(A) CH2 Br (B) CH 2Br

Br
CH3

(C) CH2Br (D) CH2Br

CH3

CH3

29. In XeF4, no. of lone pair e– are


(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4

30. 1 mole each of H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 will neutralise x moles of NaOH, y moles of Ca(OH)2
and z moles Al(OH)3 (assuming all as strong electrolytes). x, y, z are in the ratio of
(A) 3 : 15 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3
(C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 : 1

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Mathematics PART – III


SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only ONE is correct.
2
1. The total number of local maxima and local minima of f(x) = x |x – x| + |x – 2| is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 0

1 x
If f  x   x 
2
f  t  dt then total number of points where f  x  is not differentiable.
x 1
2.

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

3. If f(x) is a differentiable function for all x  1, f(1) = 1 and f '  x   2 f  x  , the total number of
in x  1,   is,
2x2
solution of the equation f(x) = e
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 4

 cos  sin  1 0
4. If A    and A( adj  A ) = k  the K is
 -sin cos  0 1
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4

Number of real roots of the equation f  x   x e  2e  3 in (-4, 0) is


2 x x
5.
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

Space for rough work

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x 2
6. The number of solution of the equation e  3x is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

2 2
7. Let tangent drawn form the point (3, 2) to the circle x  y  2 x  2 y  0 meet at the points A
and B. The ortho centre of triangle OAB is where ‘O’ is origin.
 67 56   67 1 
(A)  ,  (B)  , 
 25 25   25 25 
 57 4   57 4 
(C)  ,  (D)  , 
 25 25   25 25 
1 n m

8. The value of
 1  x 
0
is (where m,n  I )
t
1 n m 1
 1  x 
0

m 1 mn  n  1
(A) (B)
mn  1 mn  n
mn  n  1 n 1
(C) (D)
mn  n mn  n
9. The point on the curve which is nearest to line y = 2x – 1
(A) (1, 2) (B) (1,3)
(C) (-1, 3) (D) (-1, 2)

2
10. The number of complex numbers which satisfy the equation z  iz  | z | 2
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 1

Space for rough work

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x3
11. The general solution of the differential equation ydx – xdy + 3x2y2 e dx = 0, is
x x3 x 3
(A) e = C (B)  ex  C
y y
y 3 y 3
(C)  ex  C (D)  ex  C
x x

12. If f  a   0, f  b   3, f  c   1 , f  d   2, f  e   0 and
2

h(x) = x f '  x   x 2
 1 f '  x  f "  x  then min number of zeros of h(x) is,
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 10

13. f(x) is polynomial of 8th degree satisfies f(x) = f(1- x) n  R if f(x) = 0 has 6 distinct roots and two
equal roots then sum of the roots are
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 2

If f  x   x  2 x  4
5
14.
If g  x   f  x
1

 
Then value of f ' g '  x  . at x = - 4 is
35 37
(A) (B)
16 16
1 4
(C) (D)
2 16
15. The equation of circle having least radius which touches the line y = 2x at the point (1, 2) and also
touches the x axis is,
2 2
(A) x  y  2 5 x  y 5  5  5  0  2 2
 
(B) x  y  2 5 x  y 5  5  5  0
2
(C) x  y  2
2
5x  y 5  5   5  0 2
(D) x  y  2
2
5x  y 5  5   5  0

Space for rough work

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    
16. Resolved part of vector a along the vector b is a1 and that perpendicular to b is a 2 then
 
a1  a2 is equal to
     

a b b  a  b a
(A) 2 (B) 2
b a
       
 
a b b  a   
a b b  a 
(C) 2 (D)  2
a b
       
17. Angle between vector a and b where a, b, c are unit vectors satisfying a  b  3 c  0 is
(A)  (B) 
3 6
(C) 2 (D) 
3 12
  
18. Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a, b and c is 4 unit, Then the volume of the
     
parallelepiped determined by vectors. a  b, c  a, b  c is,
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 32 (D) 64

x f t 
2
 
19. If f(x) = 1  x  1   dt  , then f(7) is

1
1 t 
(A) -1 (B) -5
(C) 1 (D) 4

Space for rough work

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n
r 1  r n
20. The value of   1    Cr is
r 1  r 1 
1 1
(A) (B)
n 1 n2
1 n 1
(C) (D)
n 1 n2
11
21. If a1 , a2 , a3 …… a11 are in A.P if a6  10 then value of a
i 1
i is

(A) 110 (B) 50


(C) 100 (D) 95

2 n
22. 
If 1  x  x   a0  a1 x  a2 x 2  a3 x 3  ....  a2 n x 2 n Then a0  a3  a6  .....is
n1 n
(A) 3 (B) 3
n
(C) 2 (D) 2

z1  z2 z 
23. If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers such that z1 , z2  0, If  1 , then Arg  1  is
z1  z 2  z2 

(A) (B) 
3
 
(C) (D)
2 4

1
24. If |z| = 2 the locus of w  z  is,
z
(A) ellipse with eccentricity = 2/5 (B) ellipse with e = 4/5
(C)Hyperbola with e = 5/4 (D) Pe (z) = 0

Space for rough work

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49
1
25. 2
n 2
n 1
 2 n  1.5
is

250 250
(A) 4  49 (B) 6 
2 1 249  1
250
(C) 8  49 (D) None of these
2 1
100  m
26. The value of integral 0
2 x e2 x dx is
Where O  m  1 / 2 is
e 2 m  2m  1  201 e 2 m  m  1  201
(A) (B)
2 2
(C)
2m
e  201
(D)
 m  1 e2 m  201
2 2
2 2
27. The equation of tangents drawn from the point (0,4) to the hyperbola x  4 y  36 are
(A) 5 x  6 y  24  0 and 5 x  6 y  24  0 (B) x  4 y  16  0 and x  4 y  16  0
(C) 2 x  y  4  0 and 2 x  y  4  0 (D) none of these

Space for rough work

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x2 y2
28. There are exactly two points on the ellipse   1 whose distance from the center of the
a2 b2
a 2  2b 2
ellipse are equal and equal to . Eccentricity of this ellipse is equal to
2
3 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1 2
(C) (D)
2 3

29. The sum of two natural numbers m and n is equal to 100, The probability that their product being
greater than 1600 is,
10 13
(A) (B)
94 99
28 59
(C) (D)
99 99

2 x
x2  2 x 3 tan
30. If x1 is a solution 2  4   x 2  1 then . lim 1  sin  x  2
x  x1
2
(A) e (B) e
1 2
(C) e (D) e

Space for rough work

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