Sankalp Park, Opp. DAV Public School Gate No. 4, Near Shaswat Hospital, Aundh, Pune - 411007.

COURSE: NDA DATE:

MAX. TIME: 02 hrs. 30 min. TEST BOOKLET MAX. MARKS: 600
GENERAL ABILITY TEST

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your roll number on the Test Booklet

in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions) .Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,
mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.

4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

5. All items carry equal marks.

6. Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particular in the answer sheet as per instructions sent to you with your admission
certificate.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the test booklet.

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end.

9. Penalty for Wrong Answers:

THREE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one third of the marks assigned to the question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question Is left blank, i.e. , no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
-1- Only For the Students of MUSALE CLASSES
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 2
PART-A 13. His behavior at social gatherings is
LAUDABLE.
Directions (Q. 1 - 8): Each of the following items (a) Condemnable (b) Impolite
consists of a sentence followed by four words or (c) Unpleasant (d) Repulsive
group of words. Select the synonym of the word or 14. The characters in this story are not all
group of words (occurring in the sentence in capital FICTITIOUS.
letters) as per the context. (a) Common (b) Factual
1. The engineer ROUGHED OUT his ideas on a (c) Real (d) Genuine
piece of paper while he talked. 15. The RELUCTANCE of the officer was obvious.
(a) Shaped roughly (b) Rejected (a) Eagerness (b) Hesitation
(c) Drew a quick plan (d) Hollow (c) Enjoyment (d) Unwillingness
2. He fell into an ABYSS of despair. 16. He is a GENEROUS man.
(a) Well (b) Deep pit (a) Stingy (b) Uncharitable
(c) Sea (d) Hollow (c) Selfish (d) Ignoble
3. He had the ABDACITY to interrupt the SPOTTING ERRORS
Governor of the State while the latter was Direction (Q. 17 - 24):
addressing a gathering of academicians. (i) In this section, a number of sentences are given.
(a) Courage (b) Authority The sentences are underlined in three separate
(c) Foolishness (d) Arrogance parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c).
4. After weeks of FRENETIC activity, the ground Read each sentence to find out whether there is
was ready for the big match. an error in any underlined part. No sentence has
(a) Strenuous (b) Hurried more than one error. When you find an error in
(c) Excited (d) Hectic any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c),
5. The students took COPIOUS notes during the indicate your response on the separate Answer
lecture delivered by the visiting professor. Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that
(a) Extensive (b) Exhaustive there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter
(c) Bounteous (d) Abounding (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
6. Very few people are IMPERVIOUS to criticism. (ii) You are to indicate only one response for each
(a) Impenet rable (b) Unaffected item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate
(c) Unstoppable (d) Unmindful more than one response, your answer will be
7. The policemen kept on questioning the criminal considered wrong.) There may be a word
but failed to ELICIT the truth. missing or there may be a word which should be
(a) Evoke (b) Wrest removed.
(c) Obtain (d) Extort (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You
8. Teaching in universities is now considered a are required only to indicate your response on
LUCRATIVE job. the Answer Sheet.
(a) Risky (b) Profitable Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
(c) Honourable (d) Undignified The young child singed
P.
Directions (Q. 9 - 16): Each of the following items (𝑎) (𝑏)
consists of a sentence followed by four words. Select a very sweer song
the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence (𝑐)
in capital letters) as per the context. No error
9. He is man of EXTRAVAGANT habits. (𝑑)
(a) Sensible (b) Careful We worked very hare throughout the season
(c) Economical (d) Balanced Q.
(𝑎) (𝑏) (𝑐)
10.The employ only DILIGENT workers. No error
(a) Unskilled (b) Lazy (𝑑)
(c) Careless (d) Idle Explanation:
11. His success in the preliminary examination In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter
made him COMPLACENT. under this parts is (b), so (b) is the correct answer.
(a) Discontented (b) Self-satisfied Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as
(c) Curious (d) Militant the sentence does not contain any error.
12. In this competition, he has become the Whenever a person lost anything
VICTOR. 17.
(𝑎)
(a) Beaten (b) Frustrated
(c) Disappointed (d) Vanquished
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 3
the poor folk around are suspected the effect
(𝑏) (𝑐) Z. Some people believe that
P
No error is very bad
(𝑑)
𝑄
Still impressive is that
18. on children of cinema
(𝑎)
we achieve this selective attention 𝑅 𝑆
The correct sequence should be
(𝑏)
through our latent ability to lip−read. No error (a) P – S – R – Q (b) S – P – Q – R
(𝑎) (𝑑)
(c) S – R – P – Q (d) Q – S – R – P
As I entered the famous gallery Explanation:
19.
(𝑎) The proper way of writing the sentence is “Some
my attention was at once drawn people believe that the effect of cinema on children
(𝑏) is very bad”. This is indicated by the sequence
to the large sculpture in thecorner. No error P – S – R – Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
(𝑐) (𝑎) to the people to give relief
25. We are doing
Every day before I start work for my livelihood P 𝑄
20.
(𝑎) (𝑏) all we can but more funds are needed
I do my prayer. No error
𝑅 𝑆
(𝑐) (𝑑)
The correct sequence should be
21. Pooja went to her friend’s house at the (a) P – Q – R – S (b) R – Q – P – S
appointed hour;but she was told
(c) Q – P – R – S (d) S – P – Q – R
(𝑎) (𝑏) when he was
that her friend left half an hour earlier. 26. The man
(𝑐) P
No error
in the office last evening could not finish
(𝑑) 𝑄 R
Rekha is enough old all his work
22. S
(𝑎) (𝑏)
The correct sequence should be
to get married. No error
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) Q – R – S – P
(𝑐) (𝑑) (c) R – P – Q – S (d) R – S – P – Q
As far as I am concerned, they were going
23. 27. The people decided
(𝑎) P
I shall do everything how much to spend
(𝑏) Q R
possible to help ypu. 𝑁𝑜 𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟 on the construction of the school building
(𝑐) (𝑑) S
The person in the seat of justice The correct sequence should be
24. (a) Q – P – R – S (b) P – Q – R – S
(𝑎)
should be absolutely partial (c) P – R – Q – S (d) S – Q – P – R
and not those workers
(𝑏) 28. The man said that
treat his nearest and dearest with favour. P
would be given a raise
(𝑐)
𝑄
No error
who did not go on
(𝑑)
R
REARRANGING PARTS OF A SENTENCE strike last month
Directions (Q. 25-32): In the following items, some
S
parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You The correct sequence should be
are required to rearrange these parts which are (a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – R – S – Q
labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct (c) Q – P – R – S (c) R – S – P – Q
sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in the members
your Answer Sheet accordingly. 29. I think
P
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 4
are basically in agreement of the group The pilot _______did not see the tower.
Q R (a) likely (b) probably
on the following points (c) scarcely (d) hurriedly
S
37. The car we were travelling in ______a mile
The correct sequence should be from home.
(a) R – Q – P – S (b) S – Q – R – P (a) broke off (b) broke down
(c) P – R – Q – S (d) P – Q – S – R (c) broke into (d) broke up
I had 38. What are you _______in the kitchen cupboard?
30. While it was true that (a) looking in (b) looking on
p
to invest in industry some lands and houses (c) looking to (d) looking for
𝑄 𝑅
39. I did not see the point of ______waiting for
I did not have ready cash them, so I went home.
(a) hanging around (b) hang on
S
The correct sequence should be (c) hang together (d) hanging up
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – R – S – Q
(c) S – Q – P – R (d) Q – P – R – S 40. He lost confidence and _______of the deal at
But for your help to finish this work the last minute.
31. (a) backed out (b) backed on
𝑅 𝑄
(c) backed down (d) backed onto
COMPREHENSION
it would not have been possible in time Directions (Q. 41-50): In this section, you have
𝑅 𝑆 two short passages. After each passage, you will
The correct sequence should be find several questions based on the passage. First,
(a) P – R – Q – S (b) S – P – Q – R read a passage and then answer the questions
(c) R – P – Q – S (d) P – Q – R – S based on it. You are required to select your
in the competition answers based on the contents of the passage and
32. The boy
𝑃 opinion of the author only.
who was wearing spectacles won many prizes
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ have been solved for you.
Q R PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
held in our college
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or
S otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely
The correct sequence should be and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security
(a) P – Q – R – S and happiness. Different forms of life at different
(b) R – P – S – Q levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of
(c) Q – R – P – S this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they
(d) Q – P – S – R belong to the higher groups such as human beings
Directions (Q. 33-40): Each of the following items or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings
is followed by four words or groups of words. Fill primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is
in the blanks with the appropriate word or group of as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the
words. lowliest insect strives protection against dangers
33. Although I was ________of his plans, I that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to
encouraged him, because there was no one else live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
who was willing to help. I. The author’s main point is that
(a) skeptical (b) remorseful (a) different forms of life are found on the earth
(c) fearful (d) excited (b) different levels of existence are possible in
34. You have no business to _______pain on a nature
weak (c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
and poor person. living beings
(a) inflict (b) put (d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve
(c) direct (d) force its life
35. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps
rich. She suddenly_______ all her uncle’s is essential in developing the author’s position?
money. (a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(a) succeeded (b) caught (b) The will to survive of a creature is identified
(c) gave (d) inherited with a desire for peace
36. There was a major accident. The plane crashed. (c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 5
groups 45. The expression “the products of expensive
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and schools and universities often fail to make good”
life, and pain and death. means
Explanation: (a) they fail to make a mark in life
I. The idea represents the author’s main point is (b) they fail to become intelligent
“peace and security are the chief goals of all (c) they fail to earn proper living
living beings”, which is response (c). So (c) is (d) they do not earn good reputation
the correct answer. PASSAGE - II
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is The functional declines of advancing age are
“The will to survive of a creature is identified depressing. The heart’s ability to pump blood drops
with a desire for peace”, which is response (b). about one percent : blood flow to arms and legs
So (b) is the correct answer. decreases by thirty to forty percent in old age. The
PASSAGE –I amount of air a person can exhale after a deep
When we talk of education in our present age, we breath lessens and the chest wall stiffens with age.
think largely in terms of schools and colleges. The However, recent studies have shown that most of
man who is well-to-do spends money in sending his these age-associated declines can be delayed by
son to foreign lands, in the belief that some exercise. Exercise lowers the resting heart-rate and
wonderful process will take place there increases the amount of blood pumped with each
transforming a dull fellow into a genius. Yet the beat in older people. When stress is placed on
products of expensive schools and uni9versities bones through exercise, calcium content rises, with
often fail to make good. On the other hand, the poor the result that resistance to fracture is improved.
man who has struggled against adversity often 46. Old age is generally a depressing period,
earns the highest honor. The fact is that the true because
background of early education is the home. The (a) old people worry more than others
home, the influence of the mother, the inspiring (b) old people tend to regret their past
examples that are held before the child at an age (c) various organs of the body function less
while he is impressionable, are the true ground efficiently
work of character. (d) old people do very little work
41. According to the passage, who helps in our 47. The strength of bones can be increased by
character-building? exercise, because it
(a) A foreign university (a) increases the amount of blood pumped by the
(b) A well-to-do man heart
(c) Examples that inspire (b) increases calcium content in bones
(d) A man who has earned honour (c) Increases the amount of air exhaled by a person
42. The proper background of early education is (d) lessens the stiffness of the chest wall
(a) a school 48. The word ‘exhale’ means
(b) a college (a) breathe in (b) breathe out
(c) a religious institution (c) breathe slowly (d) breathe fast
(d) the home 49. Which one of the following statements is
43. From the passage, we get an impression that correct?
the highest honour is earned by (a) Exercise delays natural decay of old age
(a) a man who has received education in a foreign (b) Old-age problems increase due to exercise
country (c) the resting heart-rate becomes high
(b) a man who has struggled against adversity (d) the person’s ability to exhale sufficient air
(c) a man who has seen prosperity alone lessens
(d) the son of a prosperous man PART –B
44. A well-to-do man sends his son to foreign lands Direction (Q. 51-57): The following questions
(a) because it is the fashion of the day consist of two statements, statement I and II. You
(b) in the belief that his dull son will be are to examine these two statements carefully and
transformed into a genius select the answers to these items using the code
(c) so that the son may learn the customs of those given below:
countries Code:
(d) in order to make his son familiar with the (a) Both the statements are individually true and
persons and places of those countries Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 6
(b) Both the statements are individually true but (a) Lord Curzon, in a letter to the Secretary of
Statement II is not the correct explanation of States in 1900
Statement I (b) Lord Curzon, while announcing the partition of
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Bengal
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (c) Lord Dufferin, during the farewell speech at
51. Statement I: Calcutta
Coalition in India is always a post-poll (d) Lord Minto, while addressing the Muslim
phenomenon. delegation which met him at Shimla in 1906
Statement II: 59. The Copenhagen Summit for Climate Change,
The United Progressive Alliance was formed after 2009 saw
the Lok Sabha Election of 2004. (a) an agreement among the participants over CO2
52. Statement I: emission
The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution. (b) unanimity of views among the developed and
Statement II: BASIC bloc of countries
It provides Fundamental Rights to individuals. (c) rise of African countries as a bloc
53. Statement I: (d) acceptance of US as a leader to attain the
In order to create linguistic provinces in India, the objective of the Copenhagen Summit
Congress Party constituted Motilal Nehru 60. Consider the following paragraph and identify
Committee in 1928. with the help of the code given below the write
Statement II: referred to therein:
The Motilal Nehru Committee suggested creation She is the winner of the Sahitya Akademi Award,
of linguistic provinces in India. the Jnanpith Award and is also India’s first
54. Statement I: Principal Prince Claus laureate. One of the most
During the day, winds blow from sea to land. celebrated writers of contemporary Indian
Statement II: literature, she is noted for her novels which include
The land gets more heated than the surrounding sea, The Moth-Eaten Howdah of the Tusker, Pages
hence lower pressure develops over land as Stained with Blood and the Man from
compared to sea. Chinnamasta.
55. Statement I: Code:
Winds are deflected to their right in the northern (a) Anita Desai (b) Indira Goswami
hemisphere and to their left in the southern (c) Mahasweta Devi (d) Chitra Mudgal
hemisphere. 61. Consider the following paragraph and identify
Statement II: with the help of the code given below the Church
The Earth’s axis is inclined. referred to therein:
56. Statement I: Considered as one of the best examples of baroque
Pressure gradients determine the velocity of winds. architecture in India, this World Heritage
Statement II: Monument is dedicated to Infant Jesus. It houses
When isobars (lines of equal atmospheric pressure) the sacred relics of St. Francis Xavier, the patron
are closely spaced, the wind velocity would be saint, who died in 1552.
gentle. Code:
57. Statement I: (a) Santa Cruz Basilica
Temperatures of countries like United Kingdom, (b) St. Francis Church
Norway, the Netherlands and Denmark are higher (c) Church of the Holy Cross
as compared to places located on similar latitudes (d) Basilica of Bom Jesus
during the winter. 62. Ms. Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is the first
Statement II: Indian woman
United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and (a) to reach Antarctica
Denmark are located on the coast. (b) pilot inducted in Indian Air Force
58. Consider the following statement and identify (c) to ski to the South Pole
with the help of the code given below the Viceroy (d) to win the gold medal in Asian Boxing
who made the statement and when: Championship
In my belief, Congress is tottering to its fall and one 63. Which one among the following is the latest
of my great ambitions while in India is to assist it to milestone of Doordarshan, the public broadcaster of
a peaceful demise. India?
Code: (a) Launch of enrichment/cultural channel—DD
Bharati
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 7
(b) Launch of 24 hours news channel—DD News (b) nuclear bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki by
(c) Launch of sports Channel—DD Sports the Americans
(d) Fromation of Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting (c) growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of Nazis
Corporation of India) over the Jews
64. START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a (d) emergence of Soviet Union as a Superpower
treaty between/among 71. Which one of the following with regard to the
(a) China and Japan Poona Pact, 1932 is not correct?
(b) USA and Russia (a) Adequate representation of depressed sections
(c) USA and European Union in government jobs
(d) China, India, USA and Russia (b) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in
65. Which one of the following is not a member of the provincial legislature
BASIC bloc of countries? (c) Acceptance of joint electorate system
(a) South Africa (b) China (d) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in
(c) India (d) Australia the central legislature
66. Which of the following is/are instance (s) of 72. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based
violation of human rights? on
1. A person was detained by the security forces (a) the principle of federation and parliamentary
while going for casting vote in Parliamentary system
Election. (b) the principle of secession of the British Indian
2. A civilian was killed by the army while provinces
undertaking combing operation. (c) acceptance of independence of India
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) acceptance of the idea of a constituent assembly
below: to draft a constitution
Code: 73. Which of the following statements with regard
(a) 1 only to freedom struggle are correct?
(b) 2 only 1. The British rule could prevail in India on the
(c) Both 1 and 2 basis of the consent or acquiescence of many
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sections of Indian people.
67. Consider the following paragraph about one of 2. The social basis of the colonial regime was
the prominent personalities of India and identify among the Zamindars and upper classes.
him/her using the code given below: 3. The Indian National Army forced the British to
One of the founder members of the Progressive withdraw from India.
Artists Group, he / she painted several important 4. The Hindu Mahasabha supported the partition of
series of paintings like the Mahabharata and India.
Ramayana, Christ and the Lamb, Peace Doves, Select the correct answer using the code given
Women with Roosters and Mother Teresa. He / She below:
made a symbolic film, Through the Eyes of a Code:
Painter, which won him / her the Golden Bear (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Award at the Berlin Film Festival. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Code: 74. Which one of the following statements with
(a) Dhiraj Choudhury (b) Satish Gujral regard to ‘Direct Action Day’ is correct?
(c) M. F. Hussain (d) Amrita Shergil (a) Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct
68. Operation Vajraprahar is the joint counter- Action Day’
terrorism exercise between Indian Army and (b) ‘Direct Action’ took place in Delhi
(a) US Army (b) Chinese Army (c) ‘Direct Action Day’ led to the Bihar riot
(c) Russian Army (d) Nepalese Army (d) ‘Direct Action’ was endorsed by the Congress
69. The notion of saptanga that was introduced in Party
Arthashastra includes 75. Planning in India drew on
(a) kings, territory, administration and treasury (a) the New Economic Programme of Lenin
(b) music, dance, ragas and wrestling (b) the Fabian Socialism of Sidney and Beatrice
(c) ministers, civil servants, subalterns and those Webb
involved in espionage (c) the British welfare mechanism
(d) aristocrats, acharyas, traders and monks (d) new democratic development packages
70. The immediate cause of the revival of human 76. The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a
rights in post-Second World War period was milestone in Indian freedom struggle, because
(a) massive loss of lives in the War (a) it declared war on the British Empire
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 8
(b) it anointed Jawaharlal Nehru as the future Prime 83. According to Karl Marx, attainment of
Minister of India communism is possible only after
(c) of the introduction of the idea of a planning (a) resolution of tension between the leader and led
commission (b) completion of permanent revolution
(d) of the acceptance of the Government of India (c) emergence of exploitation-free society
Act, 1935 by the Congress (d) disappearance of difference between urban and
77. The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act deals rural areas
with 84. India’s ‘Look East Policy’
(a) local self-government 1. was articulated during the reign of H.D. Deve
(b) extension of reservation in educational Gowda as India’s Prime Minister
institutions 2. is directed towards South-East Asian countries
(c) basic structure of the Constitution of India 3. is about controlling terrorism
(d) appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of 4. seeks to develop a bond among various countries
India on the basis of economic cooperation
78. Which of the following statements is/are not Select the correct answer using the code given
violative of the principle of federalism? below:
1. The President of India takes over administration Code:
of provinces under the emergency provisions. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
make any law with respect to any matter not 85. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights
enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. because of
3. The distribution of powers between the Union (a) greenhouse effect
and Provinces in done through three different lists (b) depletion of ozone layer
enumerated in the constitution of India. (c) insolation
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) terrestrial radiation
below: 86. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Code: answer using the code given below the Lists:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 List-I List-II (Agent of
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 (Landform) erosion/deposition)
79. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked A. Inselbergs 1. River
with B. Stalagmite 2. Glacier
(a) judicial review (b) judicial activism C. Delta 3. Underground water
(c) judicial intervention (d) judicial sanctity D. Moraines 4. Wind
80. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical Code:
of railways, because they are A B C D
1. carriers of plague germs (a) 4 2 1 3
2. instruments for frequency of famines (b) 3 1 2 4
3. responsible for creating class division in the (c) 1 2 3 4
society (d) 4 3 1 2
4. accident-prone 87. If it is 12 noon in a city located on 900W
Select the correct answer using the code given longitude, what would be the time in a city located
below: on 1050W longitude?
Code: (a) 13 : 00 (b) 12 : 30
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 11 : 30 hours (d) 11 : 00
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 88. As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily
81. Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did range of temperature tends to
not define India as a ‘nation’, because they were (a) decrease (b) increase
(a) appreciative of cultural divisiveness (c) be constant (d) fluctuate
(b) opposed to the idea of homogeneity 89. Doldrums are characterized by
(c) supportive of ‘oneness’ (a) uniform low pressure
(d) critical of hegemonic culture (b) uniform high pressure
82. Socialism refers to (c) high wind velocity
(a) State-controlled economy (d) low humidity
(b) liquidation of the bourgeoisie 90. Glaciated region are associated with
(c) removal of peasantry from administration (a) V-shaped valley (b) U-shaped valley
(d) establishment of military dictatorship (c) sand dunes (d) stalactites
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 9
91. Which one of the following is generally found Select the correct answer using the code given
in sedimentary rocks? below:
(a) Basalt (b) Silica Code:
(c) Shale (d) Magnesium (a) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 (b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
92. The interval between two high tides is (c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 (d) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
approximately 99. Which of the following are west-flowing rivers?
(a) 4 hours (b) 6 hours 1. Krishna 2. Narmada
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours 3. Mahanadi 4. Sabarmati
93. Xerophytes thrive in 100. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) hot and arid condition 1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the
(b) cool and wet condition centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure.
(c) hot and wet condition 2. In a cyclone. The areas of low pressure surround
(d) cool and arid condition the area of high pressure.
94. Biodiversity is highest in 3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is
(a) Tundra zone (b) Prairie zone surrounded by the areas of low pressure.
(c) Torrid zone (d) Tropic zone 4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure is
95. Which of the following statements is/are surrounded by the areas of high pressure
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes below:
directly between the Sun and the Moon. Code:
2. Solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
directly between the Sun and the Earth. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
3. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun comes 101. Which part of brain controls fine movement,
directly between the Earth and the Moon. maintains balance and equilibrium of the body and
4. Solar eclipse happens when the Earth comes muscle tone in a human being?
directly between the Sun and the Moon. (a) Cerebrum (b) Thalamus
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus
below: 102. Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar,
Code: multiplies asexually by
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) budding (b) binary fission
(b) 3 and 4 (c) multiple fission (d) sporogony
(c) 1 and 2 only 103. Administering a vaccine provides protection
(d) 2 only by inducing synthesis of antibodies (proteins)
96. Iron ore from Kudremukh is most likely to be specific to the vaccine. The cell in the body
exported through responsible for the production of antibodies is
(a) Goa (b) Kochi (a) granulocyte
(c) Mangalore (d) Ennore (b) lymphocyte
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) erythrocyte (red blood cell)
answer using the code given below the Lists: (d) platelet
List-I List-II 104. Biological catalysts in living organisms are
(Type of vegetation) (State) known as
A. Mangrove 1. Madhya Pradesh (a) hormones (b) vitamins
B. Scrub 2. Karnataka (c) steroids (d) enzymes
C. Teak 3. Rajasthan 105. To which one of the following types of
D. Coniferous 4. Arunachal Pradesh organism do mushrooms belong?
Code: (a) Algae (b) Ferns
A B C D (c) Fungi (d) Lichens
(a) 4 1 3 2 106. Among the following elements, which one is
(b) 2 1 3 4 essential for the transmission of impulses in the
(c) 4 3 1 2 nerve fibre?
(d) 2 3 1 4 (a) Calcium (b) Iron
98. Arrange the following States on the basis of (c) Sodium (d) Zinc
ascending dates of the onset of monsoon: 107. Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. West Bengal (a) gene therapy (b) stem cell therapy
3. Kerala 4. Rajasthan (c) xenograft (d) transfusion
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 10
108. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get 118. The magnetic lines of force due to a bar
contaminated with magnet
(a) lead (b) aluminium (a) intersect inside the body of the magnet
(c) iron (d) magnesium (b) intersect at neutral points only
109. Which one among the following produces (c) intersect only at north and south poles
seeds but not flowers? (d) cannot intersect at all
(a) Cashew nut (b) Coffee 119. The specific resistance of a conducting wire
(c) Groundnut (d) Pine depends upon
110. Which among the following not a true fruit? (a) length of the wire, area of cross-section of the
(a) Apple (b) Date wire and material of the wire
(c) Grape (d) Plum (b) length of the wire and area of cross-section of
111. ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of sound that the wire but not on the material of the wire
depends upon its (c) material of the wire only but neither on the
(a) intensity (b) frequency length of the wire nor on the area of cross-section
(c) quality (d) None of these of the wire
112. The ratio of the focal length of the objective to (d) length of the wire only but neither on the area of
the focal length of the eyepiece is greater than one cross-section of the wire nor on the material of the
for wire
(a) a microscope 120. When X-rays are produced
(b) a telescope (a) heat is generated at the target
(c) both microscope and telescope (b) heat is absorbed at the target
(d) neither microscope nor telescope (c) the temperature of the target remains constant
113. The effective resistance of three equal (d) brilliant light is seen at the target
resistances, each of resistance r, connected in 121. Which one of the statements given below is
parallel, is not correct?
(a) 3/r (b) r/3 (a) A vertical plane passing through the axis of
(c) 3 r (d) r3 a freely suspended magnet is called the
114. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot magnetic meridian
weather, because (b) A vertical plane passing through the axis of
(a) our body radiates more heat in air rotation of the Earth is called the
(b) fan supplies cool air geographical meridian
(c) conductivity of air increases (c) The degree to which the magnetic field can
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly penetrate a medium is known as the relative
115. Which one of the following statements is permeability of the medium
correct? (d) The relative permeability is not a
(a) Only electrons reside inside the nucleus of an dimensionless quantity
atom 122. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature
(b) Both electrons and protons reside inside the of a concave mirror, the position of the image is
nucleus of an atom (a) at the principal focus
(c) Only neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an (b) between the principal focus and the centre
atom of
(d) Both protons and neutrons can reside inside the curvature
nucleus of an atom (c) at the centre of curvature
116. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of (d) beyond the centre of curvature
gamma rays 123. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror
(a) is < 1 (a) is zero
(b) is > 1 (b) is infinity
(c) is 1 (c) can be anywhere between zero and infinity
(d) depends upon the ratio of their frequencies (d) None of these
117. Which one of the following pairs of rays is 124. A coin in a beaker filled with water appears
electromagnetic in nature? raised. This phenomenon occurs because of the
(a) Beta rays and gamma rays property of
(b) Cathode rays and X-rays (a) reflection of light
(c) Alpha rays and beta rays (b) refraction of light
(d) X-rays and gamma rays (c) total internal reflection of light
(d) interference of light
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 11
125. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass plate. 132. To produce an erect image larger than the object,
A part of it is reflected and a part is refracted. one should be use a
The reflected and refracted rays can be (a) convex lens
perpendicular to (b) convex mirror
each other for (c) concave lens
(a) angle of incidence equal to 900 (d) concave mirror
(b) angle of incidence equal to zero 133. How many sixty watt (60 W) bulbs may be
(c) only one angle of incidence safely used in a 240-V supply with 4-ampere
(d) more than one angle of incidence fuse?
126. A man with a dark skin, in comparison with a (a) 4 (b) 8
man with a white skin, will experience (c) 12 (d) 16
(a) less heat and less cold 134. A vessel contains oil (density p1) over a liquid
(b) less heat and more cold of density p2; a homogeneous sphere of volume
(c) more heat and less cold V floats with half of its volume immersed in
(d) more heat and more cold the liquid and the other half in oil. The weight
127. Which one among the following denotes the of the sphere is
smallest temperature? (a) V(p2 – p1)/2 (b) V(p2 + p1)g/2
(a) 1o on the Celsius scale (c) V(p2 + p1) (d) V(p2 + p1)/2
(b) 1o on the Kelvin scale
(c) 1o on the Fahrenheit scale 135. For a simple pendulum in simple harmonic
(d) 1o on the Reaumur scale motion, which of the following statements is/are
128. A particle oscillates in one dimension about correct?
the equilibrium position subject to a force Fx (x) that 1. The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean
has an associated potential energy U(x). If k is the position.
force constant, which one of the following relations 2. The potential energy is maximum at the mean
is true? position.
(a) Fx(x) = - kx2 (b) Fx(x) = -kx 3. Acceleration us maximum at the mean position.
1 1 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) U(x) = kx (d) U(x) = kx below:
2 2
Code:
129. When a body moves with simple harmonic (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
motion, then the phase difference between the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
velocity and the acceleration is 136. The metal atom, which is present in
(a) 0o superphosphate, is
(b) 90o (a) sodium (Na) (b) potassium (K)
(c) 180o (c) calcium (Ca) (d) magnesium (Mg)
(d) 270o 137. The best and the poorest conductors of heat
130. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then are respectively
falls back on the ground. Its potential energy is (a) silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)
maximum (b) copper (Cu) and aluminium (AI)
(a) on the ground (c) silver (Ag) and gold (Au)
(b) at the maximum height (d) copper (Cu) and gold (Au)
(c) during the return journey 138. Which one among the following metals is
(d) both on the ground and at the maximum more reactive than hydrogen?
height (a) Mercury (b) Copper
131. Which one of the following pairs does not (c) Silver (d) Tin
have the same dimension? 139. The number of neutrons in 13AI27 is
(a) Potential energy and kinetic energy (a) 40 (b) 27
(b) Density and specific gravity (c) 14 (d) 13
(c) Focal length and height
(d) Gravitational force and frictional force
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 12
Directions (Q. 140-143): The following questions are based on the Table given below. You are to match
List-I with List-II and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(Element) (Property) (Property/Composition) (Property/Composition)
A. Diamond 1. Thermosetting I. Rigid structure i. Non-conductor
polymer
B. Graphite 2. Monomer II. Sheet-like ii. Ester
structure
C. Rayon 3. Soft III. Cellulose iii. Counductor of heat
D. Nylon 4. Viscose process IV. Soft on heating iv. Ether
E. Carbon fibre 5. Synthetic fibre V. Unreactive v. Silk-like thread
F. Polyvinyl chloride 6. High strength VI. Corrosion vi. Spacecraft
G. Terylene 7. Thermoplastic VII. Melts instead vii. Chlorine atom
of burning replaces
hydrogen atom
H. Bakelite 8. Polyester fibre VIII. Ethylene glycol viii. Cross-linked
9. Hardest natural IX. Phenol and ix. Terephthalic
substance formaldehyde acid
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 13
(a) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
140. List-I List-II List-III List-IV (b) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
(a) A 9 I i (c) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
(b) B 3 IV iv (d) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
(c) A 9 I ii 149. Vinegar is produced from
(d) B 3 II v (a) ethanoic acid (b) valeric acid
141. List-I List-II List-III List-IV (c) methanoic acid (d) butanoic acid
(a) C 4 II i 150. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) D 5 VII v answer using the code given below the Lists:
(c) C 6 V vi List-I List-II
(d) D 5 II iv A. Ozone gas 1. Combines with
142. List-I List-II List-III List-IV Haemoglobin
(a) E 6 I vi B. Nitrous oxide 2. Ultraviolet
(b) F 7 IV ix Radiation
(c) E 6 VI vi C. Carbon dioxide 3. Component of
(d) F 3 VI v air in small
143. List-I List-II List-III List-IV D. Carbon monoxide 4. Visible radiation
(a) G 8 I ix 5. Infrared
(b) H 4 IV iii Radiation
(c) G 8 VIII ix Code:
(d) H I VI viii A B C D
144. Which one of the following is a transition (a) 1 4 5 3
metal? (b) 2 3 5 1
(a) Aluminium (AI) (c) 1 4 3 2
(b) Mangenese (Mn) (d) 2 5 3 1
(c) Magnesium (Mg)
(d) Calcium (Ca)
145. Which one of the following gases, present in
the air near the surface of the Earth, has
maximum concentration?
(a) Oxygen (O2)
(b) Hydrogen (H2)
(c) Nitrogen (N2)
(d) Methane (CH4)
146. Which one of the following elements will
replace hydrogen from acids to form salts?
(a) Sulphur (S)
(b) Silicon (Si)
(c) Zinc (Zn)
(d) Phosphorus (P)
147. Which of the following represent a chemical
change?
1. Magnetization of iron
2. Condensation of liquid
3. Burning of fuel
4. Rusting of iron
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
148. Which one among the following is the correct
order of reactivity of the elements?
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 14
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 15
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 16
ANSWERS
GENERAL ABILITYTEST

1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (d) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (a)
41 (c) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (d) 53 (d) 54 (a) 55 (b) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (b) 65 (d) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (c)
71 (a) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (a) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (d)
81 (d) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (c) 86 (d) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (a) 90 (b)
91 (c) 92 (c) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (a) 100 (b)
101 (c) 102 (b) 103 (b) 104 (d) 105 (c) 106 (c) 107 (b) 108 (a) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (b) 112 (b) 113 (b) 114 (d) 115 (d) 116 (c) 117 (d) 118 (d) 119 (c) 120 (a)
121 (d) 122 (c) 123 (a) 124 (b) 125 (d) 126 (d) 127 (d) 128 (b) 129 (b) 130 (b)
131 (b) 132 (a) 133 (d) 134 (b) 135 (a) 136 (c) 137 (a) 138 (d) 139 (c) 140 (d)
141 (b) 142 (a) 143 (c) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (c) 147 (c) 148 (d) 149 (a) 150 (b)

PART A
1. ‘Roughed out’ is a phrasal verb which means to and ‘hollow’ however are not right as per the
draw a rough draft or give a preliminary idea context as the context means to say that he was
about something. in extremely sorrowful condition.
Option (a) means shaping something, ans-(c) is Hence,contextually
correct as it means to draw a tentative plan. only the word ‘sea’ fits here.
2. Abyss means a deep hollow infinite cauity well
3. ‘Audacity’ means the rashness or brashness to option in this context as mean to extract by use
do something, since it’s a negative word only of authority. Hence option (d).
option (d) fits here which is negative and 8. Bucrative means ‘worth while or profitable’ but
means the same question word. Option (a) is since the sentence is referring to teaching as job
positive. Hence, can not, replace audacity in the it definitely does’nt refer to profit in this case.
sentence. Hence option (b) is the literal meaning of the
4. Frenetic means ‘wildlty excited or active; word. Contextually option (c) is the best fit and
fuantic flunzied’ the sentence uses the word in a option (a) and (d) our clearly opposites.
positive context. Hence, option (c) and (b) can 9. Extravagant means ‘hardworking’ so opposite
be easily eliminate option (a) is also not of it will be option (c) option (d) and a donot
suitable as strenuous usually means physically go well in current context.
firing.Hence option (d) is most suitable. 10. Diligent means hardworking, so opposite of it
5. Copiers means abundant, plentiful. In the given will be option(b).
context the question word means 11. ‘Status quo’ hence opposite would be (a)
‘comprehensive’ hence the correct option is (b) 12. Victole mean ‘the winner’ hence opposite is
which means the same option (b) is the literal (d) which means the looser or defeated.
meaning of the question word but does not fit in 13.Landable means ‘Commandable’. Hence the
context. opposite is option (a) which means something
6. Impervious means in-accessible. In the current that should be condemned or censured.
context the question word means not ‘disturbed 14. Fictions means ‘something that is not real’ so
by’, Hence the correct answer option is (b). opposite will be option (c)
7. Elicit means ‘to extract’ option (a) is the literal 15. Reluctance means ‘unwwillingness’ hence
meaning of the word but doesn’t fit in the opposite will be (a)
context of the sentence. Extort would be correct 16. Generous means ‘benevolent’ so opposite will
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 17
be option (b) which means not big hearted. 38. Option (d) means to try and find something,
17.Option b is incorrect as it should be poor folks’ hence the answer is option (d).
since in option (c) we are referring to plurals 39. Option (a) means ‘to stay’, hence it fits the
(‘are’). Hence as per subject verb agreement current context.
option (b) is incorrect. 40. Option (a) means ‘to step back or opt out of a
18. Option (c) is incorrect and should be ‘with competition’ hence the answer is option (a).
our’ as the correct preposition is ‘with’ and
‘through’. PART B
20. Option (c) should be ‘I say my prayer’ as the 51. UPA and NDA was formed after Lok Sabha
correct verb to be used with prayers is ‘say’ Election (2004).
and not ‘do’. 52. Constitution of India is a liberal constitution.
21. Option (c) should friend had left…we need the In Indian constitution (Part-III) article 13 to 32
past perfect tense. the right of citizens are described.
22. Option (b) should ‘old enough’ and ‘enough’ 53. The Motilal Nehru committee suggested
as an adverb comes after the adjective it creation of linguistic provinces in India. In
describes. order to create linguistic provinces in India,
23. Option (b) should be ‘I will do’ as ‘shall’ is the Congress Party constituted Motilal Nehru
used for obligation and not for ‘willingness’. Committee in 1928.
24. Option (b) should be ‘absolutely impartial’ in 54. The land gets more heated than the
the current context of sentence. surrounding sea, hence lower pressure
25. R has to be followed by Q, hence option (b) is develops over land as compared to sea, during
correct. the day winds blow from sea to land.
26. R has to be followed by S as the adverbs come 55. Winds are deflected to their right in northern
in that order, hence option (d) is correct. hemisphere and to their in the southern
27. Q has to be followed by P as the verb is hemisphere. Earth’s axis is inclined.
contained in these parts, hence option (a) is 56. Both statements are individually true.
correct. 57. Both statements are individually true.

28. P has to be followed by R as it identifies the 58. Lord Curzon, in a letter to the secretary of
(persons mentioned in the previous part of states in 1990.
sentences hence option (b) is correct. 59. The Copenhagen summit for climate change
29. P has to be followed by R as it explains the 2009 saw an agreement among the participants
members mentioned in previous part of over CO2 emission.
sentences, hence option (c) is correct. 60. Indira Goswami was born on 14 Nov. 1942.
30. S has to be followed by Q as the verb and She achieve Sahitya academy prize in 1983 and
adjective phrase needs to come in this order Gyanpeeth Prize (2000), as a famous social
hence option (c) is correct. worker. She is India’s first principal prince
31. P has to follow R as it explains the ‘reasons’ clause laureate.
mentioned in the previous part of sentences. 61. Basilica of Bom Jesus is situated near about 8
Hence option (c) is correct. km from capital of Goa, Panji. Its devoted to
32. Q has to be followed by R as the verb clause is child jesus. This church is effected by Cent
contained in this part, hence option (c) is Paul Church.
correct. 62. Ms Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is 38 years
33. Option (a) spherical means ‘doubt ful’ and is old, she is experienced instructor.
the correct option as it fits the context. Option 63. Prasar Bharti is established in 23 Nov. 1997
(b) means to ‘repent’ and doesn’t fit in the Sport channel of Doordarshan start at 8 march,
context. 1999. Entertainment channel D.D. News was
34. Option (a) inflict means to ‘to impose’, hence telecast on 3 Nov. 2003.
the correct option in the current context. 64. START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is
35. Option (d) is clearly the answer as one inherits a treaty between USA and Russia on July 31,
property. 1991. It was ending on 5 Dec, 2009 after that
36. Option (b) is correct as it is the only word that ‘START-II’, treaty started on 8 April, 2010
fits in the context. between those countries.
37. Option (b) means its stop working hence 65. India, South Africa and China are the member
option (b) is correct. of ‘BASIC’ while Australia is not.
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 18
66. A civilian was killed by army while under 82. Socialism refers to state-controlled economy.
taking combing operating, a person was 83. According to Karl Marx, attainment of
detained by security forces while going for communism is possible only after emergence
casting vote in Parliamentary election. of exploitation free society.
67. M.F. Hussain is one of the founder members 84. India’s ‘Look East Policy’ is directed towards
of the progressive Artist Group. He made a South-East Asian countries, it seeds to develop
symbolic film ‘Through the Eyes of Painter’ in a bond among various countries on the basis of
1966 which won him the Golden Bear Award at economic cooperation.
the Berlin Film festival. 85. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights
68. Operation Vajraprahar is the joint counter- because of insolation.
terrorism exercise between Indian Army and 88. As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily
US Army. range of temperature tends to decrease.
69. The notion of Saptanga that was introduced in 89. Doldrums are characterized by uniform low
Arthashastra includes kings, territory, pressure.
administration and treasury. 90. Glaciated regions are associated with U-
70. The immediate cause of revival of human shaped valley.
rights in post-second world war period was 91. Basalt is generally found in sedimentary rocks.
growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of 92. The interval between two high tides is
Nazis over the Jews. approximately 12 hours.
71. Poona act (1932) was between Mahatma 93. Xerophytes thrive in hot and arid condition.
Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar. In which 94. Biodiversity is highest in Prairie Zone.
reservation of seat for depressed classes in the 95. Lunar eclipse takes place when earth comes
provincial legislature and in the central directly between the sun and moon, solar
legislature. eclipse happens when the moon comes directly
72. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based between the sun and earth, it takes place when
on the principle of federation and sun comes directly between the earth and
parliamentary system. moon.

73. The British rule could prevail in India on the 96. Iron are from Kudremukh is most likely to be
basis of the consent of many sections of exported through Mangalore.
Indian people. 99. Krishna and Sabarmati are west flowing rivers.
74. Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct 100. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at
Action Day’. centre surrounded by the areas of high
75. Planning in India drew on the New Economic pressure. In an anticyclone, the area of high
Programme of Lenin in Russia in 1924 for pressure is surrounded by areas of low
improvement in economical conditions. pressure.
76.The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a 101. Cerebellum (brain) controls fine movements,
milestone in Indian freedom struggle, because maintain balance and equilibrium of body
of the introduction of idea of a planning and musclestone in human being.
commission. 102. Leishmania, the causative agent of Kala-azar
77. The constitution (93rd Amendment) act deals multiplies asexually by binary fission.
with extension of reservation in educational 103. Lymphocyte cells (WBCs) are responsible for
institutions. the production of antibodies.
78. The President of India taxes over 104. Biological catalysts in living organism are
administration of provinces under the known as enzymes.
emergency provisions is violative of principle 105. Fungi is type of organism which belongs to
of federalism. mushrooms.
79. Judicial activism is linked with Public Interest 106. Sodium is essential for transmission of
Litigation (PIL). impulses in the nerve fibre.
80. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical 107. Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from
of railways, because they are carriers of plague stem cell therapy.
germs and accident-prone. 108. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get
81. Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did contaminated with lead.
not defined India as a ‘nation’, because they 109. Pine tree produces seeds but not flowers.
were critical of hegemonic culture. 110. Apple is not a true fruit.
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 19
111. ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of sound that same dimension.
depends upon its frequency. 132. (a)
112. The ratio of focal length of the objective to 133. (Power) P = V × I
the focal length of eyepiece is greater than P = 240 × 4 = 960 W
one for a telescope. 960
113. The effective resistance of three equal Number of bulb of 60 watt = = 16 bulb.
60
resistances, each of resistance r, connected in 134. Mass of homogeneous sphere
parallel is r/3. = mass of upthrust liquid
114. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during P +P
Average density (oil + liquid) = ( 2 2 1)
hot weather because our perspiration
evaporates rapidly. P +P
Mass of sphere (𝑚1 ) = ( 2 2 1 ) g
115. Both protons and neutrons can reside the
nucleus of an atom. 135. Kinetic energy is maximum at the mean
116. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of position.
gamma rays is 1. 136. Chemical formula of super phosphate –
117. X-rays and gamma rays are electromagnetic Ca(H2 PO4 )2 so calcium atom is present in it.
in nature. 137. The best and poorest conductors of heat are
118. The magnetic lines of force due to bar magnet respectively silver (Ag) and lead (Pb).
cannot intersect at all. 138. Tin is more reactive than hydrogen.
119. The specific resistance of a conducting wire 139. Number of Neutrons = Mass Number
depends upon material of wire nor on the area −Atomic Number
of cross section of the wire Atomic Number = 13, Mass Number = 27
120. When X-rays are produced heat is generated Number of Neutrons = 27 – 13 = 14
at the target. 140. Diamond is allotropic form of carbon. It is
121. The relative permeability is not a dimension- good conductor of temperature and heat,
less quantity. while graphite is soft and fibrous, sheet like
structure.

122. When object is placed at the centre of

curvature of a concave mirror, the position 141. Rayon is artificial silk polymer. It is obtained
of the image is at the centre of curvature. from cellulose by viscous methods while
123. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is Nylon is synthesized polymer which melts on
zero. heating.
124. A coin in a beaker filled with water appears 142. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a thermosetting
raised, it occurs due to property of refraction plastic which get soft on heating carbon
of light. filaments are very rigid in nature. In PVC
125. The refracted and reflected rays can be chlorine atom replaces hydrogen atom.
perpendicular to each other for only one 143. Terrelene is polymer of ethylene glycol and
angle of incidence. terephthalic acid.
126. A man with a dark skin, will experience more nHOCH2  CH2OH  nHOOC
ethylene glycol
heat and more cold.
127. 1o on the Reaunur scale denotes the smallest Due to presence of ester bonds terrelene is
temperature. also called as polyester.
128. A particle oscillates in one dimension about Bakelite is a polymer of phenol (C6H5OH)
the equilibrium position subjected to a force and formaldehyde (HCHO).
Fx(x) that has an associated potential energy 144. In transition metal electron enters in
U(x)x. If k is force constant: penultimate shell.
Electronic configuration orf given metal
Fx(x) = −kx
A13 = 2, 8, 3
129. When a body moves with simple harmonic
Mn25 = 2, 8, 13, 2
motion then the phase difference between
Mg12 = 2, 8, 2
velocity and acceleration is 90o.
Ca20 = 2, 8, 8, 2
130. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then
In Mn, last electron enters in penultimate
falls back on ground, its potential energy is
shell therefore Mn (Magnese) is a transition
maximum.
metal.
131. Density and specific gravity doesnot have
145. Air contains
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 20
78.09% − Nitrogen − Carbon mono oxide (CO) combine with
20.94% − Oxygen haemoglobin and form
1.9% − Other gases carboxyhaemoglobin, which causes
146. Metal which are more reactive than hydrogen suffocation.
are capable to donate electrons. Zn reacts
with acid to make salts and evolved hydrogen
gas while non-metals like S, Si, P etc are not
capable to donate electrons, so these do not
react with acid.
147. In chemical change, the chemical
composition of a substance is totally change
and new product is formed with different
chemical properties. In Burning cf fuel the
chemical composition is totally change so it is
a chemical change.
In rusting of iron Fe(iron) converts into iron
oxide (Fe2O3. xH2O), here chemical
composition of iron gets change so it is a
chemical change while in magnetization of
iron and condensation of liquid only physical
appearance changes and chemical
composition remains change so both of them
are physical changes.
148. The correct order of reactivity
Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
149. Vinegar (CH3COOH – acetic acid) is present
in ethanoic acid.
150. Ozone gas is the protective blanket of
atmosphere which protect us from ultraviolet
radiation
− Nitrous oxide is a component which is
present in air in small quantity (0.5 PPm)
− Carbondioxide (CO2) absorbs the infrared
radiation and maintains the temperature
of earth.