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Roll Number

STATE COUNCIL OF EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

STATE LEVEL NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2017

Class – X
Part – I
SCHOLASTIC A PTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES : kq}ƒL¡À]W¥¨Oç j]¡SÇw°¥ :
Read the following instructions before you answer S\Lh|°¥¨V D¾qU IuOfL¢ fOa°OÐf]jV oOÒV
the questions. Answers are to be given in a fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ j]¡SÇw°¥ yèÈU
SEPARATE OMR ANSWER SHEET provided vLp]¨OW. D¾qU j¤SWºfV KqO NkSf|W
inside this booklet. Break the seal and start
D¾q¨asLy]¤ (OMR) BeV. j]¡SÇw¾]jO SwxU
oLNfSo y}¤ fOr¨OvLjOU, D¾qU IuOfOvLjOU
answering the questions once asked to do so. kLaOçP.
1. Please write your ROLL NUMBER very 1. j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒ¡ (KqO Wç]p]¤ KqO
clearly (only one digit in one block) as given in A¨U oLNfU) v|©oLp] j]°tORa NkSvwj
your Admission Card. kNf¾]¤ fÐ]q]¨OÐfO SkLRs IuOfOW.
2. CT kq}ƒLkOñW¾]¤ 100 S\Lh|°tOºV.
2. There are 100 questions in this test. The S\Lh|°¥ fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkWLqU
questions are arranged in the following order : NWoRÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐO.
• Questions 1 to 40 belong to Science • 1 oOf¤ 40 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ wLNñ¾]¤
Subjects. j]ÐV.
• Questions 41 to 60 are on Mathematics • 41 oOf¤ 60 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ Ye]f
Subjects. ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
• 61 oOf¤ 100 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ yLoPz|
• Questions 61 to 100 are on Social Science. wLNñ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
3. Select the most suitable answer for each 3. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU D\]foLp D¾qU
question and completely darken the circle f]qR´aO¾V wq]pLp D¾qR¾ yP\]Õ]
corresponding to the correct alternative as ¨OÐ vQ¾U oLNfU fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ
v]i¾]¤ kP¡¹oLp] WrOÕ]¨OW.
shown below.
wq]pLp q}f] RfãLp q}f]
Correct Method Wrong Method
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
4. IŠL S\Lh|°¥¨OU KqO oL¡¨V v}fU.
4. All questions carry ONE MARK each. 5. j|Pj oL¡¨V CŠ. KLSqL wq] D¾q¾]jOU KqO
5. There is no negative mark. Every correct oL¡¨V v}fU sn]¨OU.
answer will be awarded one mark. 6. j]°tORa SkqV S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£SpL
6. Do not write your name on any part of the D¾q¨asLy]R£SpL KqO nLY¾OU IuOfO
question booklet or on the answer sheet. vL¢ kLa]Š.
SCERT 2017
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the SCERT and no part of it should be used by
anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the SCERT. The items are prepared
with best expertise. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by SCERT will be final.
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Class – X SAT

RE
HE
E
RIT
TW
NO
DO

M-1
Class – X SAT

There are 100 questions in all. For each BRW 100 S\Lh|°¥ DºV. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU
question four alternative answers are given (1), (2), (3), (4) IÐV AapLtRÕaO¾]p jLsV
marked as (1), (2), (3), (4). From these, find v|f|ñ D¾qU v}fU RWLaO¾]ŸOºV . Avp]¤
the most appropriate answer. The number wq]pLpSfL JãvOU AjOSpL^|oLpSfL Bp
denoting this answer is there in the answer D¾qU WºOk]a]¨OW. CT D¾qR¾ WOr]¨OÐ
sheet against the question number concerned. jÒ¡ D¾q¨asLy]¤ AfLfV S\Lh|¾]Rjf]Rq
DºV. CT jÒ¡ Aa°]p vQ¾U j}s ARŠË]¤
Darken the circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen
WrOÕV ox]pOç mL¥ Rk¢ DkSpLY]ˆV
only. Record the answers thus in the OMR
WrOÕ]¨OW. D¾q°¥ ANkWLqU OMR D¾q
answer sheet only. Do not write anything in
¨asLy]¤ oLNfU SqXRÕaO¾OW. S\Lh|°¥
the question booklet except your Roll Number
Aa°]p mO¨]R£ Wv¡ Sk^]¤ j]°tORa SrL¥
on the cover page and rough work in the jÒqOU, rlV v¡¨]jO Svº] fÐ]ŸOtt òs¾V
space provided for the purpose. Af]jOtt WOr]ÕOW¥ Ku]RW oRãLÐOU IuOfqOfV.

1. Identify the wrongly matched pairs. 1. RfãLp khS^Lc]W¥ f]qR´

a. Monocyte – Actively aO¨OW.
a. SoLSeLRRyãV – lLSYLRRyã ]
phagocytic
¨Lp] Nkv¡¾]
b. Thrombocyte – Produces ¨OÐO
antibodies b. SNfLUSmLRRyãV – B£]SmLc]W¥
c. Lymphocyte – Initiates blood D¤ÕLh]Õ]¨OÐO
clotting c. s]USlLRRyãV – q©U WŸ k]a]¨L¢
yzLp]¨OÐO
d. Eosinophil – Associated with d. CTy]SjLl]¤ – As¡^]pOoLp]
allergy mÌR՟]q]
(1) (a) and (b) ¨OÐO
(2) (b) and (c) (1) (a) pOU (b) pOU
(2) (b) pOU (c) pOU
(3) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) pOU (d) pOU
(4) (c) and (d) (4) (c) pOU (d) pOU

2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil 2. NWPScLp]s]Rs RRzSNcL WL¡m

spills by digesting hydrocarbons of eOWRt hz]Õ]ˆO RWLºV I¹
crude oil S\L¡ˆp]a°¥ vQ¾]pL¨L¢
DkSpLY]¨OÐ mLû}q]p
(1) Rhizobium meliloti
(1) RRrSyLm]pU Ros]SsLŸ]
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) mLy]ŠyV fOr]¢^|¢y]yV
(3) Pseudomonas putida (3) y|PScLSoLeLyV k|Pã]c
(4) Escherichia Coli (4) IyV\r}x| SWLRRt
M-1 -1- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
3. Pickout the feature of dicot plant. 3. h~]m}^ kNf yy|¾]R£ sƒeU
f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Leaves are isobilateral (1) CsW¥ yoh~]kL¡w~}poLeV
(2) Mesophyll is undifferentiated (2) kNfoi|oWs RRvv]i|
v¤¨q]ˆ]Ÿ]Š
(3) Roots show secondary growth (3) h~]f}p vt¡ˆ WLe]¨OÐ
(4) Vascular bundles are closed
SvqOW¥
(4) yUvzjvLz]WL SwXq°¥
Aa´vpLeV
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis ? 4. DTjnUYvOoLp] mÌR՟V wq]
(1) Meiosis reduces the number of pŠL¾ NkñLvj JfV ?
chromosomes to half (1) SNWLoSyLU yUX|Sp DTjnUYU
kWOf]pLp] WOràOÐO.
(2) Meiosis occurs during
(2) m}S^L¤Õ¾] yop¾LeV
gametogenesis
DTjnUYU ja¨OÐfV.
(3) Meiosis I results in two daughter (3) DTjnUYU I Wu]pOSÒL¥ qºV
cells kONf]WLSWLw°¥ DºLWOÐO.
(4) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis (4) NWonUY¾]jV yoLjoLeV DTj
nUYU I
5. The plant that shows hydrophily
5. ^skqLYeU WLe]¨OÐ yy|U
(1) Vallisneria (2) Maize (1) vŠ]yVSjr]p (2) S\LtU
(3) Pea (4) Rafflesia (3) kp¡ (4) rlVt}x|

6. Which one of the following is NOT 6. fLRu fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤ SW¥v]

associated with the process of hearing ? pOoLp] mÌo]ŠL¾SffV ?
(1) Tympanum (1) W¡ekaU
(2) Semicircular canals (2) A¡ivQ¾LWLq¨OusOW¥
(3) Cochlea (3) SWL„]p
(4) Auditory canal (4) W¡ejLtU

7. The skeletal joint that enables 7. KqO vwS¾¨Oç \sjU oLNfU

movement in only one direction is yLi|oL¨OÐ Aò]yÌ]
(1) Hinge joint (1) v]^LY]q] yÌ]
(2) Ball and socket joint (2) SYLtqyÌ]
(3) Gliding joint (3) RfÐ] j}°OÐ yÌ]
(4) Pivot joint (4) W}s yÌ]

M-1 -2-
Class – X SAT
8. The part of the nucleus that plays a 8. RRrSmLSyLoOWtORa j]¡ÚLe
major role in the synthesis of ribosomes ¾]¤ KqO NkiLj kËV vz]¨OÐ
(1) Chromatin reticulum j|P„]py]R£ nLYU
(2) Nuclear pore (1) RNWLoLã]¢ ^Ls]W
(2) j|P„]pL¡ yOx]qU
(3) Nucleoplasm
(3) j|P„]SpL†LyU
(4) Nucleolus
(4) j|P„]SpLsyV

9. Which is a fungal disease ? 9. lUYyV SqLYU JfV ?

(1) Athlete’s foot (1) AfVsãVyV lPŸV
(2) Filariasis (2) oÍV
(3) Measles (3) AµLUkj]
(4) Rabies (4) Skv]xmLi

10. Identify the statements related to dark 10. NkWLwyUS˜xe¾]Rs CqOº

reaction of photosynthesis. ZŸvOoLp] mÌR՟ NkñLvj
a. Takes place in the stroma W¥ WRº¾OW.
b. Formation of ATP a. SNy›Lop]¤ ja¨OÐO
c. Formation of glucose b. ATP DºLWOÐO
d. Evolution of oxygen c. …PS¨LyV DºLWOÐO
d. KLWõ]^¢ y~fNÍoLWOÐO
(1) (a) and (b)
(1) (a) pOU (b) pOU
(2) (b) and (c)
(2) (b) pOU (c) pOU
(3) (a) and (c)
(3) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (b) and (d) (4) (b) pOU (d) pOU

11. Which option indicates the parts of 11. ^j]kOa¾]R£ nLY°¥ yP\]Õ]
gynoecium ? ¨OÐ KLkVx¢ JfV ?
(1) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube (1) kqLYSqeO, fÍOWU,
nucleus A¼LwpU, a|PmV j|P„]pyV
(2) NiOv o¡Ú°¥, kqLYe òsU,
(2) Polar nuclei, stigma, ovule, style
KLv|P¥, ^j]h¼V
(3) Style, stamen, stigma, generative (3) ^j]h¼V , SWyqU, kqLYe
nucleus òsU, ^jSrã}vV o¡ÚU
(4) A¼LwpU, kqLY], fÍOWU,
(4) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei
NiOv o¡Ú°¥
M-1 -3- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
12. Which is NOT TRUE about lactic acid 12. sLû]WV By]cV Rl¡RoS£xjO
fermentation ? oLp] mÌR՟V wq]pŠL¾SffV ?
(1) Glycolysis is the initial phase (1) Nkgo ZŸU RR…S¨Lt]y]yLeV
(2) …PS¨LyV v]ZajU kP¡¹
(2) Glucose is broken down incompletely
oLWOÐ]Š
(3) Only two ATP molecules are (3) qºV ATP fÓLNfW¥ oLNfU
generated sn]¨OÐO
(4) Carbon dioxide is liberated (4) WL¡m¦RRcKLWVRRyc]Rj
kOrÍçOÐO
13. Match the items in Column – I with 13. SWLtU I DU SWLtU II DU S\qOUka]
Column – II and select the correct S\¡¾V fLRu fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤
option from those given below. j]ÐOU wq]pLp KLkV x ¢
Column – I Column – II
f]qR´aO¨OW.
a. Mutualism i. Lion and Rabbit
SWLtU – I SWLtU – II
a. yzv¡¾]f~U i. y]UzvOU oOpsOU
b. Commensalism ii. Loranthus on
Mango tree b. yzSnL^]f~U ii. oLv]¤ vtqOÐ
c. Parasitism iii. Flower and C¾]¥
Butterfly c. kq^}vjU iii. kPvOU \]Nf wsnvOU
d. Predation iv. Vanda on Ficus d. kqSnL^jU iv. B¤oq¾]¤
tree vtqOÐ oqvLu
(1) a – iv b – iii c–i d – ii (1) a – iv b – iii c – i d – ii
(2) a – iii b – iv c – ii d–i (2) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i
(3) a – ii b–i c – iv d – iii (3) a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii
(4) a – iii b – iv c–i d – ii (4) a – iii b – iv c – i d – ii

14. The hormone that promotes lactation 14. oOsÕL¤ \Oq¾LjOU Y¡nLwpU
ySËL\]Õ]¨LjOU yzLp]¨OÐ
and stimulates the uterus to contract SzL¡SoL¦
(1) Calcitonin (2) Thyroxine (1) WL¤y]SaLe]¢
(2) RRfSrLWõ]¢
(3) Oxytocin (4) Vasopressin (3) KLWõ]SaLy]¢
(4) vLSyLNky]¢

15. A box measures 10 cm × 11.2 cm × 10 cm. 15. KqO SmLWõ ] R£ AtvOW¥

10 cm × 11.2 cm × 10 cm. BeV.
Assume that this box is filled with neon
1atm o¡Ç¾]¤ 273 K DTxÜLv]¤
gas at 1 atm pressure and 273 K j]SpL¦ vLfWU CT SmLWõ]¤
temperature. How many electrons will j]rˆ]q]¨OWpLReÐV WqOfOW.
be there in the box ? CT SmLWõ ] ¤ INf CsSNûLeO
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023 WtLp]q]¨OU DºLp]q]¨OW ?
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 6.022 × 10 22
(4) 3.011 × 10 22
(3) 6.022 × 1022 (4) 3.011 × 1022
M-1 -4-
Class – X SAT
16. The key step for the manufacture of 16. y¥l|Pq]¨Ly]c]R£ j]¡ÚLe
sulphuric acid by contact process is ¾]jOkSpLY]¨OÐ yÒ¡¨
given below. NkNW]ppORa yONkiLj ZŸoLeV
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + heat fLRuR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐfV.
Which of the following are favourable 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + fLkU
for the contact process ? RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤ yÒ¡¨
NkNW]pàV AjOWPsoLpv JRfL
A. Pressure of 2 atm and temperature R¨pLeV ?
of about 450°C A) 2 atm o¡ÇvOU 450°C DTxÜLvOU
B. Removal of SO2 and O2 B) SO2 ,O2 IÐ]v j}¨U
R\áOÐfV
C. Use of V2O5 as catalyst
C) V2O5 D¤SNkqWoLp] DkSpLY]
D. Removal of SO3 ¨OÐfV
Choose the correct alternative. D) SO3 j}¨U R\áOÐfV
(1) (A) and (B) wq]pLpfV f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)

17. Which of the following sets contain 17. fLRu R¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐ Ye°
molecules with double or triple bonds ? t]¤ Jf]RsLR¨pLeV h~]mÌ
A. H2, Br2, H2O, NH3 jSoL Nf]mÌjSoL Dç fÓLNf
B. F2, O2, CO2, Cl2 W¥ DçfV ?
C. CO2, N2, H2, NH3 A. H2, Br2, H2O, NH3

D. NH3, Cl 2, CH4, CCl4 B. F2, O2, CO2, Cl2

(1) (A) and (C) C. CO2, N2, H2, NH3

(2) (B) and (C) D. NH3, Cl 2, CH4, CCl4

(3) (A) and (D) (1) (A) and (C) (2) (B) and (C)
(4) (B) and (D) (3) (A) and (D) (4) (B) and (D)

18. The number of electrons present in 18. SWLÕ¡ Bã¾]R£ d-ymVRxŠ]

d-subshell of copper atom sOç CsSNûLeOWtORa I¹U
(1) 3 (2) 9 (1) 3 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 8 (3) 10 (4) 8
M-1 -5- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
19. S\qOUka] S\¡¨OW.
19. Match the following :
a. W¹V WuOWOÐf]jV i. WL¡SmLe]WV
a. Eye wash i. Carbonic acid By]cV
b. Food preservation ii. Tartaric acid b. BzLqU SWaOWPaLRf ii. aL¡aLr]WV By]cV
c. Baking powder iii. Citric acid yPƒ]¨OÐf]jV
c. AÕ¨LqU iii. y]Na]WV By]cV
d. Flavouring drinks iv. Boric acid
d. kLj}p°tORa qO\]
v. Oxalic acid v¡È]Õ]¨OÐf]jV iv. SmLr]WV By]cV
Select the correct alternative. v. KLWVyLs]WV
By]cV
(1) a – iv b – iii c – ii d–i wq]pLpfV f]qR´aO¨OW.
(2) a – iii b – ii c–v d – iv (1) a – iv b – iii c – ii d–i
(2) a – iii b – ii c–v d – iv
(3) a – iv b – iii c – ii d–v (3) a – iv b – iii c – ii d–v
(4) a – v b – iii c – ii d–i (4) a–v b – iii c – ii d–i

20. fLRuR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
20. Which of the following is the IUPAC JfLeV yUpO©¾]R£ IUPAC
name of the compound ? jLoU ?
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
| | | |
CH3 − C H − C H − CH2 − CH3 CH3 − CH − CH − CH2 − CH3
| |
C2H5 C2H5
(1) 3 – CTRRg¤ – 2, 3 –
(1) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane
RRco}RRg¤ RkR£pV¢
(2) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl hexane (2) 3 – CTRRg¤ – 2, 3 –
RRco}RRg¤ RzWVRypV¢
(3) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl pentane
(3) 3 – CTRRg¤ – 3, 4 –
(4) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane RRco}RRg¤ RkR£pV¢
(4) 3 – CTRRg¤ – 3, 4 –
21. Liquid ammonia bottles are cooled
RRco}RRg¤ RzWVRypV¢
before opening the seal. Which of the 21. NhLvW ASoLe]pL, WOÕ]WtORa
y}¤ fOr¨OÐf]jV oOÒLp] AvRp
following laws is applied here ? feOÕ]¨OÐO. fLRu R¨LaO¾]q]
(1) Boyle’s law ¨OÐvp]¤ JfV j]pooLeV
Cv]Ra NkSpLY]ˆ]q]¨OÐfV ?
(2) Charle’s law (1) SmLp]¤ j]poU
(2) \L¥yV j]poU
(3) Avogadro’s law
(3) AvYLSNcL j]poU
(4) Graham’s law (4) NYzLU j]poU

M-1 -6-
Class – X SAT

22. The components of the alloy used for 22. ò]qWLÍU j]¡Ú]¨OvL¢ Dk
making permanent magnets SpLY]¨OÐ SsLzyËq¾]Rs
ZaW°tLeV
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni and C
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni and C
(2) Fe, Co, Ni and Al
(2) Fe, Co, Ni and Al
(3) Fe, Ni, Cu and C
(3) Fe, Ni, Cu and C
(4) Fe, Cu, Cr and C
(4) Fe, Cu, Cr and C

23. Which of the following are true ? 23. fLRuR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤

A. Ionisation energy increases from wq]pLpv JRfLR¨pLeV ?
left to right across a period A. KqO k]q}c]¤ Ca¾O j]ÐOU vs
S¾¨V ASpLe}Wqe DT¡²U
B. Atomic size decreases on going
WPaOÐO
down a group B. KqO NYPÕ]¤ fLSu¨OvqOU SfLrOU
C. Metallic character decreases from ASãLo]W vs]ÕU WOrpOÐO
left to right across a period C. KqO k]q}c]¤ Ca¾O j]ÐOU
vsS¾¨V SsLz}p y~nLvU
D. Electronegativity increases on
WOrpOÐO
going down a group D. KqO NYPÕ]¤ fLSu¨O vqOUSfLrOU
CsSNûL RjYã]v]ã] WPaOÐO
Choose the correct alternative.
wq]pLpfV f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (D)
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)

24. Type of isomerism exhibited by the 24. IÐ yUpO©U NkWa]Õ]

C 4H 8
compound C4H8 ¨OÐ RISyLRor]yU
(1) Chain isomerism only (1) R\p]¢ RISyLRor]yU oLNfU
(2) Chain isomerism and position (2) R\p]¢ RISyLRor]yvOU
isomerism RkLy]x¢ RISyLRor]yvOU
(3) RkLy]x¢ RISyLRor]yU
(3) Position isomerism only
oLNfU
(4) Functional isomerism only
(4) l‚V x e¤ RISyLRor]yU
oLNfU
M-1 -7- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
25. Which of the following methods is 25. fLRuR¨LaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
used for the concentration of the ore JfV q}f]pLeV Ys}j IÐ Ap]
galena ? q]R£ yLNÎ}Wqe¾]jOkSpLY]
(1) Froth floatation ¨OÐfV ?
(1) SNlL¾V SlæLSŸx¢
(2) Magnetic separation
(2) WLÍ]W Sv¡f]q]¨¤
(3) Leaching
(3) s}ˆ]UYV
(4) Gravity separation method (4) nPYOqOf~ Sv¡f]q]¨¤ q}f]

26. The number of moles of O2 required 26. 11.6 NYLU m|PRŸpV¢ kP¡¹oLpOU
for the complete combustion of 11.6 g ^~s]¨OÐf]jLvw|oLp KLWõ]^R£
of butane SoLtOWtORa I¹U
(1) 6.5 mol O2 (2) 11.6 mol O2 (1) 6.5 SoL¥ O2 (2) 11.6 SoL¥ O2
(3) 13 mol O2 (4) 1.3 mol O2 (3) 13 SoL¥ O2 (4) 1.3 SoL¥ O2

27. The gas produced when manganese 27. oLU Yj}yV cSpLWVRRycV
dioxide is treated with hydrochloric RRzSNcLS„Lr]WV By]cOoLp]
acid
Nkv¡¾]¨OSÒL¥ DºLWOÐ
vLfWU
(1) Cl 2 (2) O2 (1) Cl 2 (2) O2
(3) H2 (4) H2O (3) H2 (4) H2O

28. Which of the following does NOT 28. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ SWL¦SWvV

describe a ray that can be drawn for h¡Õe¾]Ss¨V vqàOÐ qwÜ]pLp]
a concave mirror ? v]wh}Wq]¨LjLv¾fV JfV ?
(1) An incident ray through the centre (1) h¡Õe¾]R£ vNWfLSWNξ]
of curvature, reflecting right back sPRa WaÐO SkLWOÐ kfj qwÜ]
through the centre of curvature Nkf]kf]ˆV vNWfL SWNξ]
(2) An incident ray through the centre
sPRa fRÐ f]q]RW SkLWOÐO.
of curvature, reflecting through the (2) h¡Õe¾]R£ vNWfL SWNξ]
focal point sPRa SkLWOÐ kfj qwÜ] Nkf]
kf]ˆV SlL¨y]¤ WPa] SkLWOÐO.
(3) An incident ray through the focal
(3) SlL¨y]¤ WPa] SkLWOÐ
point, reflecting parallel to the
kfj qwÜ] Nkf]kf]ˆV oOX|Aƒ
principal axis
¾]jV yoLÍqoLp] SkLWOÐO.
(4) An incident ray parallel to the
(4) oOX|Aƒ¾]jO yoLÍqoLp]
principal axis, reflecting through the SkLWOÐ kfjqwÜ] Nkf]kf]ˆV
focal point
SlL¨y]¤ WPa] SkLWOÐO.
M-1 -8-
Class – X SAT
29. The potential difference between the 29. fLRufÐ]q]¨OÐ RjãV v ¡¨]¤
points P and Q for the given network is P,Q IÐ} m]ÎO¨¥¨]ap]sOç
6Ω
RkLŸ¢x|¢ v|f|LyU INfpLeV ?
6Ω 6Ω

2A 2.5Ω 6Ω
P Q
2A 2.5Ω
3Ω
P Q
3Ω
(1) 8 V (2) 35 V

(3) 1 V (4) 7 V (1) 8 V (2) 35 V

(3) 1 V (4) 7 V

30. Which of the following statements 30. oLy]Rj Aa]òLjoL¨] fLRu

about mass is false ? fÐ]q]¨OÐ NkñLvjWt]¤ RfãL
(1) Mass remains constant at any place pfV JfV ?
on the Earth (1) nPo]p]¤ IŠLp]a¾OU oLyV
(2) SI Unit of mass is kg ò]qoLp]q]¨OU
(2) oLy]R£ SI pPe]ãV kg BWOÐO.
(3) Mass of an object can be measured
(3) KqO vñOv]R£ oLyV Ny× ] UYV
using spring balance
mLs¢yV DkSpLY]ˆV At¨LU
(4) Mass is a fundamental quantity
(4) oLyV KqO Aa]òLj AtvLeV

31. The SI Unit of specific heat capacity 31. v]w]ì fLkiLq]fpORa SI

of a substance is pPe]ãLeV
(1) Jkg–1K–1 (2) Calkg–1 (1) Jkg–1K–1 (2) Calkg–1

(3) Jkg–1 (4) CalkgK –1 (3) Jkg–1 (4) CalkgK –1

32. In a transformer the number of turns 32. KqO NaL¢yV S lLor]Rs RRNkor]
of primary coil and secondary coil are SWLp]s]RspOU Ry¨£r] SWLp]
5 and 4 respectively. If 240 V is
s]RspOU \OãOWtORa I¹U pgL
NWoU 5 DU 4 DU BeV. RRNkor]
applied to the primary coil, the ratio SWLp]s]¤ 240 V j¤W]pL¤
of current in primary coil and RRNkor] SWLp]s]RspOU Ry¨£r]
secondary coil is SWLp]s]RspOU Wr£]R£ AjO
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5 : 10 kLfU
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5 : 10
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 8 : 12
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 8 : 12
M-1 -9- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT

33. Identify the circuit in which the diode 33. cSpLcV SlL¡SvcV mpy]¤
is forward biased. Za]Õ]ˆ]q]¨OÐ Ry¡¨}ŸV WRº
D B ¾OW.
D B

(1)
(1)

D B
D B

(2)
(2)

D B
D B

(3)
(3)

D B
D B

(4)
(4)

34. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown 34. 100g oLyOç KqO vñO 5m/s
vertically upwards at an initial speed NkLqUn SvY¾]¤ oOWt]Ss¨V
of 5 m/s. The work done by the force Ir]pOÐO. vñO oOWt]Ss¨V
of gravity during the time the particle SkLWOÐ yopU nPYOqOf~LW¡xe
goes up is msU R\pÅ NkvQ¾] INfpLeV ?
(1) 1.25 J (2) 0.5 J (1) 1.25 J (2) 0.5 J
(3) – 0.5 J (4) – 1.25 J (3) – 0.5 J (4) – 1.25 J

M-1 -10-
Class – X SAT

35. On a stationary sail boat air is blown 35. j]ésLvòp]sOç KqO kLpV
from a fan attached to the boat. The vµ]p]¤ Af]¤ fRÐ DrÕ]
boat will ˆ]ŸOç KqO lLj]¤ j]ÐV WLãV
(1) Not move Aa]¨OÐO. vµ]
(2) Spin around (1) j}°OÐ]Š
(3) Move in the direction in which air is (2) \Oã]Wr°OÐO
blown (3) WLãa]ˆ h]wp]¤ j}°OÐO
(4) Move in the direction opposite to (4) WLãa]ˆf]R£ If]¡ h]wp]¤
that in which air is blown j}°OÐO

36. Sound signals were sent down from

36. KqO WÕs]¤ j]ÐV fLSu¨V Ap
àOÐ wýy]YVjsOW¥ 2sjO SwxU
a ship return after 2s. Find out the f]q]RW I¾OÐO. Was]R£ BuU
depth of the sea, if the speed of sound We¨L¨OW.
in water is 1.5 km/s ? (^s¾]¤ wý¾]R£ SvYf
(1) 3 km (2) 150 m 1.5 km/s)
(3) 300 m (4) 1.5 km (1) 3 km (2) 150 m
(3) 300 m (4) 1.5 km
37. An ice cube is suspended in vacuum 37. nPYOqOf~LW¡xeU CŠL¾ KqO
in a gravity free hall. As the ice melts it zLt]¤ wPj|fp]¤ KqO RIyV
(1) Will retain its cubical shape
W|PmV RWŸ] CŸ]q]¨OÐO. RIyV
DqOWOSÒL¥ AfV
(2) Will change its shape to spherical (1) W|Om]¨¤ BWQf] j]sj]¡¾OU
(2) SYLtLWQf]p]Ss¨V oLrOU
(3) Will fall down on the floor of the hall
(3) zLt]R£ frp]Ss¨V v}uOU
(4) Will fly up (4) Dp¡ÐO SkLWOU

38. When a glass rod rubbed with silk is 38. y]¤¨V RWLºV Dqy]p KqO …LyV
brought near the cap of an SrLcV KqO CsSNûLyV S WLÕ]jO
electroscope, then yo}k¾O vàOSÒL¥
(1) ht°t]¤ SNkqeU oPsoOç
(1) The leaf has an induced negative
RjYã}vV \L¡^V NWo}Wq]¨OÐO
charge
(2) ht°t]¤ KqO fqU \L¡^OU
(2) No charge is induced on the leaves SNkqeU R\áRÕa]Š
(3) Positive charge is induced on one (3) SkLy]ã}vV \L¡^V KqO ht¾]sOU
leaf and negative charge on the oSã ht¾]¤ RjYã}vV \L¡^OU
other leaf SNkqeU R\áRÕaOÐO
(4) The leaf has an induced positive (4) ht°t]¤ SNkqeU oPsoOç
charge SkLy]ã}vV \L¡^V NWo}Wq]
¨OÐO
M-1 -11- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
39. Which one of the following graphs 39. fLRu fÐ]q]¨OÐvp]¤ yoSvYU
shown below represents uniform yP\]Õ]¨OÐ NYLlV JfV ?
speed ?

↑ ↑
distance

(1)

hPqU
time → yopU →

↑ ↑

NkSvYU
velocity

(2)

time → yopU →

↑
↑
distance

(3)
hPqU

time → yopU →

↑ ↑
NkSvYU
velocity

(4)

time → yopU →
40. An iron ball and a wooden ball of 40. KSq BqoOç KqO CqOÒO SmLtOU
same radius are released from a KqO fa] SmLtOU wPj|fp]¤ h Dpq
height h in vacuum. The time taken ¾]¤ j]ÐV v}uOÐO. qºOU fr
by both of them to reach the ground p]Rs¾L¢ IaO¨OÐ yopU
are
(1) JWShwU fOs|oLeV
(1) Roughly equal
(2) fOs|oLeV
(2) Exactly equal
(3) fOs|oŠ
(3) Not equal
(4) nPoi|SqXp]¤ oLNfU fOs|oLeV
(4) Equal only at the equator
M-1 -12-
Class – X SAT

41. What is the smallest number which 41. 18, 24, 30, 42Cv RWLRºŠLU
leaves the same remainder 1 on zq]ˆL¤ KSq w]ìU 1 fRÐ w]ìU
division by 18, 24, 30, 42 ? W]ŸOÐ JãvOU R\r]p yUX|
IÍLeV ?
(1) 2519 (2) 2520
(1) 2519 (2) 2520
(3) 2521 (4) 2522
(3) 2521 (4) 2522

42. What is the sum of all factors of 256 ? 42. 256R£ IŠL ZaW°tORapOU
(1) 511 (2) 512
fOW IÍLeV ?
(1) 511 (2) 512
(3) 1023 (4) 1024
(3) 1023 (4) 1024

43. The difference of the squares of two 43. AaO¾aO¾ qºV I¹¤yUX|
consecutive natural numbers is 101. WtORa v¡Y°tORa v|f|LyU 101
What is the sum of the numbers ? BeV . CT yUX|WtORa fOW
(1) 102 (2) 101
IÍLeV ?
(1) 102 (2) 101
(3) 100 (4) 99
(3) 100 (4) 99

44. The sum of two numbers is 40 and 44. qºO yUX|WtORa fOW 40 DU,
their difference is 10. What is their v|f|LyU 10 DU BeV . yUX|
product ? WtORa YOejlsU IÍLeV ?
(1) 325 (2) 350 (1) 325 (2) 350
(3) 375 (4) 400
(3) 375 (4) 400

45. KqO yoLÍqSèe]pORa 5&LU khU

45. The 5th term of an arithmetic sequence
5 DU, Bh|R¾ 5 kh°tORa fOW
is 5 and the sum of the first 5 terms is
55 DU BeV. Sèe]pORa Bh|R¾
55. What is its first term ?
khU IÍLeV ?
(1) 15 (2) 16
(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) 17 (4) 18 (3) 17 (4) 18

M-1 -13- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

46. The sum of the first 11 terms and the 46. KqO yoLÍqSèe]pORa Bh|R¾
11kh°tORa fOWpOU, Bh|R¾
sum of the first 17 terms of an
17 kh°tORa fOWpOU fOs|oLeV.
arithmetic sequence are equal. What Bh|R¾ 28 kh°tORa fOW
is the sum of the first 28 terms ? RpÍLeV ?
(1) 28 (2) 1 (1) 28 (2) 1

(3) –1 (4) 0 (3) –1 (4) 0

47. There are two taps to fill a tank. If both 47. KqO aLË]¤ RvçU j]ràL¢ qºO
are opened, the tank fills in 1 hour. If
WOusOWtOºV . qºO WOusOWtOU
fOrÐO vˆL¤, 1oe]¨P¡ RWLºV
the smaller tap alone is opened, it
aLËV j]rpOU. R\r]p WOu¤ oLNfU
takes 3 hours to fill the tank. How
fOrÐO vˆL¤, aLËV j]rpL¢
many hours will it take to fill the tank, oPÐO oe]¨P¡ SveU. vs]p
if the larger tap alone is opened ? WOu¤ oLNfU fOrÐO vˆL¤, aLËV
j]rpL¢ INf oe]¨P¡ SveU ?
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 1½ (2) 1½
(3) 1 13 (3) 1 13

(4) 1¼ (4) 1¼

48. What is the number you get on 1 1 1 1 1

48. + 2 + 3 + ... + 10 + IÐ
simplifying the sum 3 3 3 3 2 × 310
fOW We¨L¨]pL¤ W]ŸOÐ
1 1 1 1 1
+ 2 + 3 + ... + 10 + ? yUX| IÍLeV ?
3 3 3 3 2 × 310
(1) 1
(1) 1

2 2
(2) (2)
3 3

1 1
(3) (3)
2 2

1 1
(4) (4)
3 3

M-1 -14-
Class – X SAT
49. What do we get on simplifying the x x +1 1
49. + − sZPWq]
x x +1 1 x +1 x x(x + 1)
expression + − ?
x +1 x x(x + 1) ˆL¤ W]ŸOÐfV IÍLeV ?
1 1
(1) 2 (2) (1) 2 (2)
2 2

1 1
(3) 2x (4) x (3) 2x (4) x
2 2

50 The figure shows a right triangle and 50. \]Nf¾]¤ KqO oŸNf]SWLevOU
a square inside it.
Af]jOç]¤ KqO yo\fOqvOU
vqˆ]q]¨OÐO.

2Ry.o}

1Ry.o}

What is the length of a side of the square ? yo\fOq¾]R£ KqO vw¾]R£

j}tU INfpLeV ?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 2 (4) 1

51. The sum of two numbers and the 51. qºO yUX|WtORa fOWpOU,
difference of their squares are both 10. AvpORa v¡Y°tORa v|f|LyvOU
What is the larger of these two numbers ? 10 fRÐpLeV. Cvp]Rs vs]p
yUX| IÍLeV ?
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 4½
(2) 4½
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 5½ (4) 5½

M-1 -15- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

52. Two dice marked with numbers 1 to 6 52. 1 oOf¤ 6 vRq yUX|WRtuOf]p
are rolled together. What is the qºO kW]aW¥ KÐ]ˆV DqOŸOÐO.
probability of getting an odd numbers KÐ]¤ KãyUX|pOU, oRãLÐ]¤
on one of these and a multiple of three oPÐ]R£ YOe]fvOU vqLjOç
on the other ? yLi|f IÍLeV ?

1 1
(1) (1)
6 6
1
(2) 1
3 (2)
3
11
(3) 11
36 (3)
36
13
(4) 13
36 (4)
36

53. KqO vQ¾¾]Rs jLsO m]ÎO¨¥

53. A square is drawn with vertices on a
SpL^]Õ]ˆV KqO yo\fOqU vq
circle. The area of the square is 4
pV¨OÐO. yo\fOq¾]R£ kqÕtvV
square centimeters. What is the area
4 \fOqèRy£]o}ãrLeV . vQ¾
of the circle (in sq.cm.) ?
¾]R£ kqÕtvV INf \fOqè

(1) π
Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?

(1) π
(2) 2π
(2) 2π
(3) 2 π
(3) 2 π
(4) 4 π
(4) 4 π

M-1 -16-
Class – X SAT

54. In the figure, the bisector of an angle 54. \]Nf¾]¤ vs]p Nf]SWLe¾]Rs
of the large triangle cuts the opposite KqO SWLe]R£ yonL^] If]¡ vw
side into two pieces. R¾ qºO nLY°tL¨] oOr]¨OÐO.

. o}.
Ry

Ry. o}. Ry. o}.

What is the length of the third side of Nf]SWLe¾]R£ oPÐLoR¾ vw

the triangle in centimeters ? ¾]R£ j}tU INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 3.5
(2) 3.5 (3) 4
(3) 4 (4) 4.5

(4) 4.5 55. \]Nf¾]Rs JãvOU vs]p

N f ] S W L e ¾]R£ vw°RtŠLU
55. In the figure, each side of the largest 1 o}ãrLeV . KLSqL Nf]SWLe¾]
triangle is 1 meter. By joining the R£pOU vw°tORa oi|m]ÎO¨¥
midpoints of the sides of each SpL^]Õ]ˆLeV Af]jOç]Rs
triangle, an inner triangle is drawn. Nf]SWLeU vqˆ]q]¨OÐfV.

What is the area of the smallest triangle JãvOU R\r]p Nf]SWLe¾]R£

(in sq.m.) ? kqÕtvV INf \fOqèo}ãrLeV ?
2 2
3⎛ 1 ⎞ 3 ⎛ 1⎞ 3⎛ 1 ⎞
2
3 ⎛ 1⎞
2
(1) (2)
4 ⎜⎝ 16 ⎟⎠ 4 ⎜⎝ 8 ⎟⎠ (1)
4 ⎜⎝ 16 ⎟⎠
(2)
4 ⎜⎝ 8 ⎟⎠

2 2 2 2
3 ⎛ 1⎞ 3 ⎛ 1⎞ 3 ⎛ 1⎞ 3 ⎛ 1⎞
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ 4 ⎜⎝ 4 ⎟⎠ 4 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ 4 ⎜⎝ 4 ⎟⎠

M-1 -17- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

56. In the figure, three vertices of a regular 56. \]Nf¾]¤ KqO yoAìnO^¾]R£
octagon are joined to form a triangle. oPÐO oPsW¥ SpL^]Õ]ˆV KqO
Nf]SWLeU vqˆ]q]¨OÐO.

What is the angle at the top vertex of Nf]SWLe¾]Rs oOW¥ oPsp]Rs

the triangle ? SWL¦ INf c]NY]pLeV ?
(1) 22½° (1) 22½

(2) 25° (2) 25

(3) 27½° (3) 27½

(4) 30° (4) 30

57. In the figure, O is the center of the 57. \]Nf¾]¤ O vQ¾SWNÎvOU, A

circle and A is a point on it. vQ¾¾]Rs m]ÎOvOoLeV.

. o}.
Ry

What is the length of AB in centimeter ? AB pORa j}tU INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) 3 (2) 3

1 1
(3) (3)
3 3

3 3
(4) (4)
2 2

M-1 -18-
Class – X SAT
58. In the figure below, what is the length 58. \]Nf¾]Rs Nf]SWLe¾]R£
of the smallest side of the triangle ? JãvOU R\r]p vw¾]R£ j}tU
INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?

Ry. o}.
(1) 6 (2) 6 (1) 6 (2) 6
(3) 2 6 (4) 2 3 (3) 2 6 (4) 2 3

59. What are the coordinates of the point 59. \]Nf¾]¤ Q IÐ m]ÎOv]R£
Q in the figure below ? yP\WyUX|W¥ IÍLeV ?

(1) (3, 2) (1) (3, 2)

(2) (– 4, 1) (2) (–4, 1)
(3) (− 3 2, 2 2 ) (3) ( −3 2, 2 2 )
(4) (– 3, 2) (4) (–3, 2)

60. The figure below shows a semicircle 60. \]Nf¾]¤ x- Aƒ¾]R£ KqO
drawn on a part of the x-axis as diameter.
nLYU v|LyoLp] A¡ivQ¾U
vqˆ]q]¨OÐO.

What are the coordinates of the other v|Ly¾]R£ oSã Aã¾]R£

end of the diameter ? yP\WyUX|W¥ IÍLeV ?
(1) (1, 0) (2) (2, 0) (1) (1, 0) (2) (2, 0)
(3) ( 2,0 ) (4) (1½, 0) (3) ( 2,0 ) (4) (1½, 0)
M-1 -19- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
61. Rearrange the following in 61. \OvRa fÐ]ŸOçvRp WLsYejL
chronological order. NWo¾]sL¨OW.
a. Second Continental Congress a. qºLU v¢Wq ySÚtjU
b. Treaty of Paris b. kLq}yV DaÒa]
c. Boston Tea Party c. SmLð¢ a} kL¡Ÿ]
d. End of the war between Britain and d. ASoq]¨¢ SWLtj]WtOU Nm]ŸjOU
the American Colonies fÚ]sOç pOȾ]R£ AvyLjU
(1) c, d, a, b (2) a, d, b, c (1) c, d, a, b (2) a, d, b, c
(3) c, a, d, b (4) a, c, d, b (3) c, a, d, b (4) a, c, d, b

62. The eighteenth century was called 62. kf]RjŸLU jPãLºV I°RjpLeV
(1) The Age of Conflict
Ar]pR՟fV ?
(1) yUZ¡x°tORa pOYU
(2) The Age of Reason
(2) pO©]pORa pOYU
(3) The Age of Ideas
(3) Bwp°tORa pOYU
(4) The Age of Nationalism
(4) Shw}pfpORa pOYU
63. Name the Chancellor of Austria 63. v]pÐySÚtjWLs¾V BNy›]p
during the Vienna Congress. pORa \L¢ys¡ BqLp]qOÐO ?
(1) Napoleon (1) RjSÕLt]p¢
(2) William II (2) v]Š|U II
(3) Tallyrand (3) aLs]rL£V
(4) Metternich (4) RoSã¡e]¨V

64. Which was known as “The War to End 64. ""IŠL pOÈ°tOU j]¡¾LjLp]
All Wars” ? KqO pOÈU'' IÐr]pR՟SffV ?
(1) Second World War (1) qºLU SsLWpOÈU
(2) French Revolution (2) NlµV v]†vU
(3) First World War (3) KÐLU SsLWpOÈU

(4) American Civil War (4) ASoq]¨¢ Bn|ÍqpOÈU

65. Which among the following is wrongly 65. \OvRa fÐ]ŸOçf]¤ SpL^]
related ? ¨L¾SffV ?
(1) WOr]\| WsLkU – SYLNf WsLkU
(1) Kurichya Revolt – Tribal Revolt
(2) j}sU WsLkU – W¡xWWsLkU
(2) Indigo Revolt – Peasant Revolt (3) yÍL¥ WsLkU – W¡xW
(3) Santhal Rebellion – Peasant Rebellion WsLkU
(4) Vellore Mutiny – Sepoy Mutiny (4) RvŠP¡ szt – w]kLp] szt
M-1 -20-
Class – X SAT
66. Match List – I with List – II and select 66. kŸ]W – I, kŸ]W– II IÐ]v kq]
the correct response from the options SwLi]ˆV wq]pLp] NWoRÕaO¾OW.
given. kŸ]W & I kŸ]W &II
List – I List – II
i. mOsLÍV h¡vLy a. xL^zL¢
i. Buland Darwaza a. Shahjahan
ii. sLSzLr]Rs b. KTrUYSymV
ii. Moti Masjid in b. Aurangazeb
Lahore SoL¾] oyV^]hV
iii. Jama Masjid c. Akbar iii. ^oLoyV^]hV c. AWVm¡
iv. Badshahi Mosque d. Jahangir iv. mLhVxLz]SoLyVWV d. ^zLUY}¡
(1) i – c ii – d iii – a iv – b (1) i – c ii – d iii – a iv – b
(2) i – c ii – a iii – d iv – b (2) i – c ii – a iii – d iv – b
(3) i – a ii – d iii – c iv – b (3) i – a ii – d iii – c iv – b
(4) i – a ii – b iii – d iv – c (4) i – a ii – b iii – d iv – c

67. Name the founder of the Virashaiva 67. v}qRRwv NkòLj¾]R£ òLk
movement. WR£ SkRquOfOW.
(1) Vallabhacharya (1) vŠnL\Lq|¢
(2) Ramananda (2) qLoLj΢
(3) Ramanuja (3) qLoLjO^¢
(4) Basavanna (4) myv¹

68. The high ranking official in charge of 68. AsLvOÇ}¢ X¤^]pORa nqe
controlling markets during the reign WLs¾V WSÒLt j]pNÍe¾]R£
of Alauddin Khalji D¾qvLh]f~oOºLp]qOÐ Dp¡Ð
(1) Wazir DSh|LYò¢
(1) vy}¡
(2) Shahna
(2) xzVj
(3) Wakil-i-Dar
(3) v¨}¤ C&hL¡
(4) Wali (4) vLs]

69. Nicolo Conti, who visited India during 69. v]^p jYq nqeWLs¾V CÍ|
the rule of Vijayanagar Empire was a yΡw]ˆ j]S¨LStL SWLº] JfV
native of qL^|¨LqjLp]qOÐO ?
(1) Russia (1) rx|
(2) Portugal (2) SkL¡ŸOY¤
(3) Africa (3) BNl]¨
(4) Italy (4) Cãs]

M-1 -21- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT
70. Consider the following statements 70. \OvRa fÐ]ŸOç NkñLvjW¥
and identify the correct response from kq]SwLi]ˆV AjOSpL^|oLp
Nkf]WqeU fLRu fÐ]ŸOçvp]¤
the options given.
j]ÐV WRº¾OW.
Statement – I : Swami Vivekananda NkñLvj – I : y~Lo]v]SvWLj΢
contributed to the rise of Indian CÍ|¢ Shw}pfpORa Bv]¡nLv
nationalism. ¾]jV yUnLvjW¥ j¤W].
Statement – II : Swami Vivekananda NkñLvj – II : 1893-¤ \]¨LSYL
p]¤ jaÐ y¡vof ySÚtj
attended the Parliament of Religions ¾]¤ y~Lo] v]SvWLj΢ kRË
held at Chicago in 1893. aO¾O.
(1) Statement I is true and Statement II (1) NkñLvj – I wq]pOU NkñLvj – II
is false RfãOoLeV
(2) Statement I is false and Statement II (2) NkñLvj – I RfãOU NkñLvj – II
is true wq]pOoLeV
(3) Both Statements are true and (3) qºV NkñLvjWtOU wq]pOU
Statement II is the correct NkñLvj – II, NkñLvj – I R£
wq]pLp v]wh}WqevOoLeV.
explanation of Statement I
(4) qºV NkñLvjWtOU wq]pLeV .
(4) Both statements are true but
IÐL¤ NkñLvj – II,
Statement II is not the correct NkñLvj – I R£ wq]pLp
explanation of Statement I v]wh}WqeoŠ.

71. Who started the ‘Swadesh Vastra 71. y~Shw] NkòLj¾]R£ nLYoLp]
Pracharini Sabha’ as a part of the "y~ShwV vNñ Nk\Lq]e] yn'
Swadeshi movement ? BqUn]ˆfLqV ?
(1) Bal Gangadhara Tilak (1) mLsYUYLiqf]sWV

(2) Lala Lajpat Rai (2) sLsLs^VkfV rLp]

(3) m]k]¢ \NÎkL¤
(3) Bipin Chandra Pal
(4) qm}NÎjLg aLSYL¡
(4) Rabindranath Tagore

72. The head quarters of the ‘National 72. jLxe¤ ØP¥ KLlV NcLopORa
School of Drama’ is at BòLjU ò]f] R\áOÐ òsU
(1) Bombay (1) SmLURm
(2) Kolkata (2) RWL¤¨¾
(3) New Delhi (3) j|Pc¤z]
(4) Pune (4) kPRj
M-1 -22-
Class – X SAT

73. The geographical factor which is NOT 73. r‰¡ WQx]¨V AjOSpL^|oŠL¾
favourable for the growth of rubber
nPo]wLNñZaWU
(1) 25°C jOU 35°C jOU Cap]sOç
(1) Temperature between 25°C and 35°C fLkj]s
(2) Clayey soil (2) Wt]o¹V
(3) 150 Ry. o}. p]¤ WPaOfsOç
(3) Rainfall above 150 cm ou sn|f
(4) Land free from water logging (4) RvçU RWŸ] j]¤¨L¾
nPNkShwU
74. The pair of ocean currents and 74. yoONh^s NkvLz°¥, yoONh
oceans NOT correctly matched °¥ IÐ]°Rj j¤W]p]ŸOç
Ocean currents Oceans S^Lc]Wt]¤ RfãLpfV
yoONh^s NkvLzU yoONhU
(1) Kuroshio current – Atlantic ocean (1) WOSrLy]SvL NkvLzU – AãVsL£]WV
yoONhU
(2) Oyashio current – Pacific ocean
(2) KpLx]SpL NkvLzU – kyl]WV
(3) Mozambique – Indian ocean yoONhU
(3) RoLyLUm]WV NkvLzU – CÍ|¢
current ozLyoONhU
(4) Gulf stream – Atlantic ocean (4) Y¥lV Ny›}U – AãV s L£]WV
yoONhU
75. The climatic region characterized by 75. RRwf|WLs ou yv]SwxfpL
winter rainfall pOç WLsLvòL SoXs
(1) Monsoon region (1) o¦yP¦ NkShwU
(2) DxVeSoXsL oqOnPo]W¥
(2) Tropical deserts
(3) Roc]ãSrj]p¢ NkShwU
(3) Medeterranean region
(4) fONÎL NkShwU
(4) Tundra region

76. The pressure belt that forms 76. AÍq}ƒvLpO fLuV Ð ]r°OÐ
exclusively due to the sinking of air is f]R£ lsoLp] yQì]¨RÕaOÐ
AÍq}ƒ o¡ÇSoXs
(1) Equatorial low pressure belt
(1) oi|SqXL j|Pjo¡ÇSoXs
(2) Sub tropical high pressure belt
(2) DSkLxVe Dˆo¡ÇSoXs
(3) Sub polar low pressure belt (3) DkNiOv}p j|Pjo¡ÇSoXs
(4) Polar high pressure belt (4) NiOv}p Dˆo¡ÇSoXs
M-1 -23- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
77. The State in India with the lowest sex 77. 2011Ry¢yyV NkWLqU CÍ|p]¤
ratio as per census 2011 JãvOU WOr´ Nñ} kOqOxL
(1) Punjab jOkLfU Dç yUòLjU
(2) Haryana (1) kµLmV
(2) zq]pLj
(3) Kerala
(3) SWqtU
(4) Tamil Nadu
(4) fo]uVjLaV

78. The river to which Indravati is a tributary 78. CNÎLvf] SkLxWjh]pLp jh]
(1) River Krishna (1) WQxVeLjh]
(2) River Godavari (2) SYLhLvq] jh]
(3) River Mahanadi (3) ozLjh]
(4) WLSvq] jh]
(4) River Kaveri
79. ‘A’, ‘B’ IÐ} qºV òs°¥
79. Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ are found
fÚ]sOç nPka¾]Rs AWsU
marked 10 cm apart on a map. What
10 Ry. o}. BeV . nPka¾]Rs
is the actual distance between these
SfLfV 1 : 50000 BReË]¤ nTSoL
two places on the ground if the scale
kq]fs¾]¤ NkñOf òs°¥
of the map is 1 : 50000 ?
fÚ]sOç hPqU INf ?
(1) 5 km (2) 20 km
(1) 5 W]. o}. (2) 20 W]. o}.
(3) 10 km (4) 0.5 km
(3) 10 W]. o}. (4) 0.5 W]. o}.
80. Which one of the following is NOT a
80. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ j]Sƒke
depositional landform ?
nPqPkoŠL¾fV
(1) Stalagmites (1) ðLsWVRRoãOW¥
(2) Mushroom rocks (2) WP¦w]sW¥
(3) Moraines (3) RoLRRrjOW¥
(4) Beaches (4) m}ˆOW¥

81. A steel plant established in India with 81. pO. RW. pORa yzLpS¾LRa
the collaboration of UK CÍ|p]¤ òLk]¨R՟]ŸOç
(1) Bhilai steel plant
CqOÒOqO¨OwLs
(1) n]sLpV CqOÒOqO¨OwLs
(2) Rourkela steel plant
(2) rP¡S¨s CqOÒOqO¨OwLs
(3) Bokaro steel plant
(3) RmL¨LSrL CqOÒOqO¨OwLs
(4) Durgapur steel plant (4) hO¡YLkP¡ CqOÒOqO¨OwLs
M-1 -24-
Class – X SAT
82. The one which occurs at divergent 82. v]SpL^W y}oWt]¤ yUnv]¨O
plate margins ÐfV
(1) Collision of plates (1) lsW°tORa WPŸ]oOŸ¤
(2) lsW°tORa vw°t]Ss¨Oç
(2) Lateral movement
RfÐ]oLr¤
(3) Formation of fold mountains (3) oa¨O k¡vf°tORa
(4) Sea floor spreading
qPk}WqeU
(4) yoONhfa v|LkjU
83. Which one of the following is NOT a
83. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ zq]f YQz
greenhouse gas ?
vLfWoŠL¾SffV ?
(1) Carbon dioxide (1) WL¡m¦ RRc KLWVRRycV
(2) Methane (2) o}Sg¢
(3) Nitrous oxide (3) RRjNayV KLWVRRycV
(4) Argon (4) B¡Y¦

84. Identify the wrong pair. 84. RfãLp S^Lc] WRº¾OW.

(1) Varanasi – Kanyakumari – NH 17 (1) vLqeLy] & Wj|LWOoLq] & NH 17
(2) Salem – Kanyakumari – NH 47 (2) SysU & Wj|LWOoLq] & NH 47
(3) Agra – Mumbai – NH 3 (3) BNY & oOURRm & NH 3
(4) Nasik – Pune – NH 4 (4) jLy]WV &kPRj & NH 4

85. The new Economic Policies which 85. Yv¦Ro£V j]pNÍe°Rt j]qL
disregard government control are Wq]¨OÐ kO¾¢ yLÒ¾]W
known as jp°Rt Ar]pRÕaOÐfV ?
(1) Liberalisation (1) DhLqv¤¨qeU
(2) Neo-liberalisation (2) jv DhLqv¤¨qeU
(3) Privatisation (3) y~WLq|v¤¨qeU
(4) Globalisation (4) BSYLtv¤¨qeU

86. The date on which the Reserve Bank 86. 2016 -¤ r]y¡vV mLËV KLlV CÍ|
of India (RBI) introduced the new JfV f]pf] oOfsLeV 2 , 000
` 2,000 notes in 2016 is qPkpORa SjLŸV NkLms|¾]¤
(1) November 7 RWLºOvÐfV ?
(2) November 8 (1) jvUm¡ 7
(3) November 9 (2) jvUm¡ 8
(3) jvUm¡ 9
(4) November 10
(4) jvUm¡ 10
M-1 -25- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
87. The expansion of ‘WTO’ is 87. ‘WTO’ pORa kP¡¹qPkU ?
(1) Web Trade Organisation (1) RvmV SNacV KL¡YRRjSyx¢
(2) World Tourism Organisation (2) Sv¥cV aPr]yU KL¡YRRjSyx¢
(3) World Trade Organisation
(3) Sv¥cV SNacV KL¡YRRjSyx¢
(4) RvmV aPr]yU KL¡YRRjSyx¢
(4) Web Tourism Organisation
88. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ RkSNaLt]¤
88. Which of the following is NOT made
j]ÐOU Sv¡f]q]RˆaO¨L¾ vñO
from Petroleum ? JfLeV ?
(1) Artificial fibres (1) WQNf]o jLqOW¥
(2) Mica (2) ANnU
(3) Vaseline (3) vLys]¢
(4) Kerosine (4) oR¹¹

89. Who is the present Governor of RBI ? 89. B¡.m]. RI. pORa CSÕLuR¾
Yv¡¹¡ BqLeV ?
(1) Dr. Urjit Patel
(1) ScL. DT¡^]fV kSŸ¤
(2) Dr. Raghuram Rajan (2) ScL. qZOrLU qL^¢
(3) Dr. Subba Rao (3) ScL. yO‰rLvO
(4) Dr. Ranga Rajan (4) ScL. qUYqL^¢

90. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ CÍ|p]Rs

90. Which one of the following is the
JãvOU vs]p WQx] Ai]xVb]f
biggest agro-based industry in India ?
v|vyLpU JfLeV ?
(1) Rubber (1) r‰¡
(2) Cotton Textiles (2) kqO¾] fOe]
(3) kµyLq
(3) Sugar
(4) \eU
(4) Jute
91. CÍ|p]Rs JãvOU vs]p
91. The biggest Commercial Bank in India is vLe]^| mLËV JfLeV ?
(1) Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) (1) KLr]pR£¤ mLËV KLlV
RWLSouVyV (K. m]. y].)
(2) HDFC Bank (2) IˆV. c]. IlV. y]. mLËV
(3) State Bank of India (SBI) (3) SðãV mLËV KLlV CÍ| (IyV.
m]. RI)
(4) Federal Bank (4) Rlcr¤ mLËV

M-1 -26-
Class – X SAT

92. Which one of the following is NOT 92. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ vLpV k àV

accepted as a security against loans CTaLp] vLe]^| mLËOW¥
by the Commercial Banks ?
y~}Wq]¨L¾ vñO JfLeV ?
(1) Approved salary certificate (1) AUY}WQf wÒt y¡Ÿ]l]¨ãV
(2) Gold (2) y~¡¹U
(3) Land Title Document (3) vñOv]R£ BiLqU
(4) Debit Card (4) Rcm]ãV WL¡cV

93. Findout the country where Direct 93. Nkf|ƒ ^jLi]kf|U j]sv]sO
Democracy existed. ºLp]qOÐfV Iv]RapLeV ?
(1) India (1) CÍ|
(2) England (2) CU…ºV
(3) Greece (3) NY}yV
(4) Arabia (4) ASrm|

94. Which among the following is formed

94. kSqLƒ q}f]p]¤ f]qR´aO¨
by indirect election ? RÕaOÐ ^jNkf]j]i] yn
(1) Legislative Assembly (1) j]poyn
(2) Rajya Sabha (2) qL^|yn
(3) Lok Sabha (3) SsLWVyn
(4) None of these
(4) CvRpLÐOoŠ
95. Number of Lok Sabha Constituencies
95. SWqt¾]Rs SsLWynL o¼s
in Kerala
°tORa I¹U ?
(1) 19 (2) 8
(1) 19 (2) 8
(3) 540 (4) 20
(3) 540 (4) 20

M-1 -27- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

96. Who among the following is eligible 96. CÍ|p]¤ SvLŸvWLw¾]jOç

for Voting Right in India ? A¡zf B¡¨LeV ?
(1) Any person, 21 years of age (1) 21 vpôLp JRfLqL¥¨OU
(2) 18 vpôV kP¡¾]pL¨]p CÍ|¢
(2) Any Indian citizen who has
kTq¢
completed 18 years of age
(3) 18 vpôV kP¡¾]pL¨]p
(3) Any person with formal education, JRfLqO An|òv]h|jOU
who has completed 18 years of age
(4) A person who has completed 18 (4) 18 vpôV kP¡¾]pL¨]p
years of age JRfLqL¥¨OU
97. To which of the following categories 97. ^]ŠLWsW› ¡ fLRuÕrpOÐf]¤
does the District Collector belong ? JfO v]nLY¾]¤ RkaOÐO ?
(1) All India Service (1) AX]SsÍ|L y¡v}yV
(2) Central Service (2) SWNÎy¡v}yV
(3) State Service (3) yUòLj y¡v}yV
(4) None of these (4) Cv KÐOoŠ
98. The First Election Commissioner of 98. y~fNÍ CÍ|p]Rs Bh|R¾
Independent India f]qR´aOÕO WÚ}xe¡
(1) T. N. Seshan (1) a]. I¢. Swx¢
(2) V. S. Ramadevi (2) v]. IyV. qoLShv]
(3) R. V. Khuraizi (3) B¡. v]. XORRrw]
(4) Sukumar Sen (4) yOWOoL¡ Ry¢

99. The minimum age limit for a person 99. qL^|ynL òLjL¡À]pLp] oÃq]
contesting elections to the Rajya ¨OÐ KqL¥¨OSvº JãvOU
Sabha WOr´ NkLpkq]i]
(1) 30 (2) 25 (1) 30 (2) 25
(3) 18 (4) 35 (3) 18 (4) 35

100. Which among the following is NOT a 100. f]qR´aOÕO WÚ}xR£ \Oofs
function of the Election Commission ?
p]¤ D¥RÕaL¾fV ?
(1) f]qR´aOÕO We¨OW¥
(1) To audit the Election Expenditure
kq]SwLi]¨OW
(2) To prepare the Voters List (2) SvLŸ¡ kŸ]W fáLrL¨OW
(3) To issue Election Symbols (3) \]ø°¥ AjOvh]¨OW
(4) To choose the candidates (4) òLjL¡À]WRt WRº¾OW
_______________

M-1 -28-
Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -29- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -30-