KHWAJA FAREED UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING

AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY, RAHIM YAR

KHAN
SECTION: BBA-C
SEMESTER: 1ST
DEPARTMENT: BBA
SUBMITTED TO: Ms. SADIA KALEEM
TOPIC: “IMMUNIZATION MCQs WITH ANSWERS”
 IMMUNIZATION
Multiple choice questions with their answers:
Q.1) The process of introduction of weakened pathogen into human body is called.

a. Immunization. b. Vaccination. c. Attenuation. d. None of these.

Q.2) The first vaccine was developed by:

a. Louis Pasteur b. Edward Jenner c. Carl Landsteiner d. Joseph Miester

Q.3) The concept of vaccination was first developed by

a. Louis Pasteur b. Edward Jenner c. Carl Landsteiner d. Joseph Miester

Q.4) The process of weakening a pathogen is called.
a. vaccination b. attenuation c. immunization d. virulence reduction

Q. 5) The first vaccine developed by Louis Pasteur was against

a. Pox virus b. hepatitis virus c. rabies virus d. none of these

Q.6) A vaccine can be

a. an antigenic protein b. weakened pathogen c. live attenuated pathogen d. all of these

Q.7) Passive immunization include

a. introduction of antibodies directly b. transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta c. transfer of

lymphocyte directly d. all of these

Q.8) Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination

a. vaccination is a method of active immunisation

b. vaccination is a method of passive immunisation
c. vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunisation
d. vaccination is a method of natural passive immunization

Q.9) Active immunity may be gained by

a. natural infection b. vaccines c. toxoids d. all of these

Q.10) Which of the following is a combined vaccine

a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Hib vaccine c. Var vaccine d. DPT vaccine

Q.11) The first recombinant antigen vaccine approved for human use is

a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Hib vaccine c. Var vaccine d. DPT vaccine

Q.12) Plasmids encoding antigenic protein from a pathogen that is directly injected into the cells
where it express constitute

a. protein vaccines b. nucleotide vaccines c. DNA vaccines d. recombined vaccines

Q.13) All the given vaccines are attenuated or inactivated whole pathogen except

a. salk b. sabin c. hepatitis A d. tetanus

Q.14) Which of the following statements are true regarding polio vaccines
a. Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines
b. Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine
c. Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine
d. all of these

Q.15) Which of the following is a polysaccharide vaccine

a. anthrax vaccine b. rabies vaccine c. hepatitis A d. Hib vaccine

Q.16) After receiving the influenza vaccine, when will the person have immunity against the virus.

a. immediately b. 1 week. c. 2 weeks d. 1 month.

Q.17) According to the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention), Which Population has the
highest hospitalizations due to influenza?

a. Pregnant women and small children.

b. people with underlying conditions/chronic illnesses.

c. Age 0-5 years.

d. 85 and other

Q.18) who should receive the pneumococcal vaccine?

a. People over 65 years.

b. People who smoke or have asthma.
c. People with an underlying disease process such as diabetes or AIDS.
d. All of these.

Q.19) which of the following groups has the lowest flu vaccination coverage?

a. Aides/Assistants
b. Pharmacists.
c. Physicians.
d. Nurses.

Q.20) Which of the following statements is true?

a. The administration of pneumococcal vaccines are only covered by Medicare between October and
March.
b. The administration of influenza vaccines are covered by Medicare between November and
February.
c. The administration of pneumococcal vaccines are covered by Medicare 12-months of the year.
d. The administration of influenza vaccines are covered by Medicare 12-months of the year.

Q.21) when is a person first able to spread the influenza virus?

a. 1 week before symptoms appear

b. 1 day before symptoms appear
c. As soon as symptoms appear
d. 1 day after symptoms appear

Q.22) Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which of the
following processes?

a. vaccination
b. drinking colostrum
c. natural birth
d. infection with disease causing organism followed by recovery.

Q.23) Which of the following convey the longest lasting immunity to an infectious agent?

a. Naturally acquired passive immunity

b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. All of these

Q.24) Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response unless they are bound
to a larger molecule?

a. Virus
b. Hapten
c. Miligen
d. Antibody

Q.25) B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in:

a. Bone marrow
b. The liver
c. The circulatory system
d. The spleen

Q.26) B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the

a. Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)

b. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
c. Bone marrow and GALT/Thymus
d. Liver/Kidneys
Q.27) Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular
pathogens?

a. T helper cells
b. B cells
c. Antibodies
d. Complement

Q.28) A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered:

a. A toxoid
b. Dormant
c. Virulent
d. Attenuated

Q.29) B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called:

a. Memory cells
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Killer cells

Q.30) The specificity of an antibody is due to

a. its valence
b. The heavy chains
c. The Fc portion of the molecule
d. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain

Q.31) In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a………

a. in precipitation reactions, the antigen is a……………

b. whole cell/soluble molecule
c. Soluble molecule/whole cell
d. Bacterium/virus

Q.32) B Cells are activated by

a. Antibody
b. Interferon
c. Memory cells
d. Antigen

Q.33) Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single:

a. Bacterium
b. Epitope
c. B cell
d. Virus

Q.34) Cell mediated immunity is carried out by………….. while humoral immunity is mainly carried out
by………………..

a. Epitopes/Antigens
b. T cells/B cells
c. Antibodies/Antigens
d. Antibodies/Phagocytes

Q.35) The ability of the immune system to recognize self antigens versus nonself antigen is an example
of:

a. Tolerance
b. Cell mediated immunity
c. Antigenic immunity
d. Humoral immunity

Q.36) Specific immunity can be acquired either naturally or artificially and involves

a. All of the below.

b. antibodies.
c. antigens.
d. the classical complement pathway.

Q.37) Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?

a. Artificially acquired active immunity

b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. None of the above

Q.38) An epitope is

a. A B-cell.
b. A hapten.
c. An antibody.
d. The antigen determinant site.

Q.39) An immunoglobulin is a

a. Carbohydrate.
b. Fatty acid.
c. Glycoprotein.
d. Protein

Q.40) Isotypes refer to variations in the:

a. Heavy chain constant region.

b. Heavy chain variable region.
c. Light chain constant region.
d. Light chain variable region.

Q.41) The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to

a. Antigen.
b. Lysosomes.
c. Some phagocytic cells.
d. Various cells of the immune system.
Q.42) Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the
immunoglobulin pool?

a. LAG
b. LGD
c. LGG
d. LMG

Q.43) Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?

a. IGA
b. LGD
c. LGE
d. LGM

Q.44) Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?

a. An adjuvant
b. A hapten
c. Antiserum
d. Crude antigen

Q.45) Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response.

a. Attains a higher LGD titer.

b. Has a longer lag phase.
c. persists for a longer plateau period.
d. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.

Q.46) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by

a. Hybridomas.
b. Lymphocytes.
c. Myeloma cells.
d. Plasma cells.

Q.47) Opsonization refers to

a. Adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.

b. Antibody mediated viral inactivation.
c. Coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.
d. Parasitic lysosomal degranulation.

Q.48) Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. LGM

Q.49) An anamnestic response involves a/an

a. Effector response.
b. High intensity.
c. Rapid memory.
d. All of the above.

Q.50) Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins or receptors
that can be measured in situ.

a. Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease.

b. In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always low.
c. Thousands of CDs have been characterized.
d. All of the above are true.

Q.51) The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies SPECIFICALLY on

a. combinatorial joinings.
b. somatic mutations.
c. variations in the splicing process.
d. B-cell clones.

Q.52) B-cells do which of the following?

a. Act as antigen-processing cells

b. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
c. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
d. All of the above

Q.53) Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT

a. The classification of leukemias.

b. The identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
c. The identification of tumor antigens.
d. The manipulation of the immune response.

Q.54) Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?

a. MHC class I molecules

b. MHC class II molecules
c. MHC class III molecules
d. None of the above

Q.55) Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ
transplant?

a. MHC class I molecules

b. MHC class II molecules
c. MHC class III molecules
d. All of the above