SREA-NEET Bit Bank PDF
SREA-NEET Bit Bank PDF
SREA-NEET Bit Bank PDF
NEET (Medical)
Bit Bank
Botany
Biological Classification - Pg. No. 1 - 18
Zoology
Animal Kingdom - Pg. No. 1 - 8
Physics
Current Electricity - Pg. No. 1 - 37
Chemistry
Chemical Bonding - Pg. No. 1 - 32
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SAI RAM EMPOWER ACADEMY | NEET Syllabus, Weightage & Exam Pattern
Exam Pattern:
Number of 180 questions (MCQs)
Questions
Exam Mode Offline mode only (pen and paper based mode)
Type of questions Objective type questions with 4 options and 1 correct answer
Duration of Exam The exam duration is 180 minutes (3 hours)
Subjects Questions are asked from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany & Zoology)
Language The question paper is asked in 8 languages English, Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Marathi, Gujarati and
Assamese.
Marking Scheme 4 marks are awarded for each correct answer.
Negative Marking 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer
NEET:
NEET or National Entrance cum Eligibility Test is an entrance exam for medical courses like MBBS, BDS, and PG in both private and government
medical colleges. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) is responsible for conducting NEET UG Exam every year in various parts of
India. It is an offline objective question based (MCQ) entrance test with 11 lakhs candidates applying every year.
The Honourable Supreme Court on April 28th, 2016 approved NEET or National Eligibility cum Entrance Test as the single examination. The
development which happened three days before the AIPMT 2016 exam had created a lot of confusion amongst medical aspirants who were
studying for various medical entrance exams all across the country.
PHYSICS
Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment. Magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron. Magnetic
field intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its axis. Torque on a magnetic dipole (bar
magnet) in a uniform magnetic field; bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, magnetic field lines; Earth’s magnetic field and
magnetic elements.
Para-, dia-and ferro-magnetic substances, with examples.
Electromagnetic and factors affecting their strengths. Permanent magnets.
PHYSICS
Weightage
Chapter
%
Physical World, Units and Measurements 2
Motion in a Straight Line 1.5
Motion in a Plane 1.5
Laws of Motion 3
Work, Energy and Power 4
Gravitation 2
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 5
Mechanical Properties of Solids 2
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 2
Thermal Properties of Matter 2
Thermodynamics 9
Kinetic Theory 3
Oscillations 1.5
Waves 1.5
Electric Charges and Fields 4.5
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 4.5
Current Electricity 8
Moving Charges and Magnetism 2.5
Magnetism and Matter 2.5
Electromagnetic Induction 4
Alternating Current 4
Electromagnetic Waves 5
Ray Optics And Optical Instruments 5
Wave Optics 5
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 6
Atoms 1.5
Nuclei 1.5
Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 6
CHEMISTRY
UNIT XII: Organic Chemistry- Some Basic Principles and Techniques Details:-
General introduction, methods of purification qualitative and quantitative analysis, classification and IUPAC
nomenclature of organiccompounds.
Electronic displacements in a covalent bond: inductive effect, electromericeffect, resonance and hyper conjugation.
Homolytic and heterolytic fission of a covalent bond: free radials, carbocations, carbanions; electrophiles and nucleophiles, types
of organic reactions.
CHEMISTRY
Chapter Weightage %
Structure of Atom 2
Periodic table 2
Chemical bonding 5
States of Matter 2
Thermodynamics 8
Equilibrium 6
Redox reactions 3
Hydrogen 3
s-block elements 2
Organic chemistry some basic principles and techniques - 1 2
Organic chemistry some basic principles and techniques - 2 2
Hydrocarbons 3
The Solid State 2
Solutions 5
Electrochemistry 2
Chemical Kinetics 3
Surface Chemistry 2
General Principles and process of Isolation elements 2
p-block elements(13 14) 3.5
p-block elements(15 16 17 18) 3.5
d-and f-block elements 4
Coordination Chemistry 9
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes; Amines 3
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 4
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 4
N containing Organic Compounds 3
Environmental Chemistry 2
Polymers 3
Bio Molecules 3
Chemistry in everydaylife 2
BIOLOGY
Five kingdom classification; salient features and classification of Monera;Protista and Fungi into major groups; Lichens; Viruses and
Viroids.
Salient features and classification of plants into major groups-Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
(three to five salient and distinguishing features and at least two examples of each category); Angiosperms- classification up to class,
characteristic features and examples).
Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to phyla leveland chordate up to classes level (three to five salient
features and at least two examples).
Animal tissues; Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems (digestive, circulatory, respiratory, nervous and
reproductive) of an insect (cockroach). (Brief account only)
Chemical constituents of living cells: Biomolecules-structure and function of proteins, carbodydrates, lipids, nucleic acids;
Enzymes-types, properties, enzyme action.
B Cell division: Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance.
Mineral nutrition: Essential minerals, macro and micronutrients and their role; Deficiency symptoms; Mineral toxicity;
Elementary idea of Hydroponics as a method to study mineral nutrition; Nitrogen metabolism-Nitrogen cycle, biological
nitrogen fixation.
Photosynthesis: Photosynthesis as a means of Autotrophic nutrition; Site of photosynthesis take place; pigments involved in
Photosynthesis (Elementary idea); Photochemical and biosynthetic phases of photosynthesis; Cyclic and non cyclic and
photophosphorylation; Chemiosmotic hypothesis; PhotorespirationC3 and C4 pathways; Factors affecting photosynthesis.
Respiration: Exchange gases; Cellular respiration-glycolysis, fermentation (anaerobic), TCA cycle and electron transport system
(aerobic); Energy relations- Number of ATP molecules generated; Amphibolic pathways; Respiratory quotient.
Plant growth and development: Seed germination; Phases of Plant growth and plant growth rate; Conditions of growth;
Differentiation, dedifferentiationand redifferentiation; Sequence of developmental process in a plant cell; Growth regulators-
auxin,gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, ABA; Seed dormancy; Vernalisation; Photoperiodism.
Locomotion and Movement: Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle
contraction; Skeletal system andits functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints; Disorders of
muscular and skeletal system-Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.
Neural control and coordination: Neuron and nerves; Nervous system in humans- central nervous system, peripheral nervous
system and visceral nervous system; Generation and conduction of nerve impulse; Reflex action; Sense organs; Elementary
structure and function of eye and ear.
Chemical coordination and regulation: Endocrine glands and hormones; Human endocrine system-Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Pineal,
Thyroid, Parathyroid, Adrenal, Pancreas, Gonads; Mechanism of hormone action (Elementary Idea); Role of hormones as
messengers and regulators, Hypo-and hyperactivity and related disorders (Common disorders e.g. Dwarfism, Acromegaly,
Cretinism, goiter, exopthalmic goiter, diabetes, Addison’s disease).
(Imp: Diseases and disorders mentioned above to be dealt in brief.)
Molecular basis of Inheritance: Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA
packaging; DNA replication; Central dogma; Transcription, genetic code, translation; Gene expression and regulation- Lac Operon;
Genome and human genome project; DNA finger printing.
Evolution: Origin of life; Biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution from Paleontology, comparative anatomy,
embryology and molecular evidence); Darwin’s contribution, Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution; Mechanism of evolution-
Variation (Mutation and Recombination) and Natural Selection with examples, types of natural selection; Gene flow and genetic
drift; Hardy-Weinberg’s principle; Adaptive Radiation; Human evolution.
Improvement in food production; Plant breeding, tissue culture, singlecell protein, Biofortification; Apiculture and
Animal husbandry.
Microbes in human welfare: In household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energygeneration and as
biocontrol agents and biofertilizers.
Ecosystem: Patterns, components; productivity and decomposition; Energy flow; Pyramids of number, biomass, energy; Nutrient
cycling (carbon and phosphorous); Ecological succession; Ecological Services-Carbon fixation, pollination, oxygen release.
Biodiversity and its conservation: Concept of Biodiversity; Patterns of Biodiversity; Importance of Biodiversity; Loss of
Biodiversity; Biodiversity conservation; Hotspots, endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book, biosphere reserves,
National parks and sanctuaries.
Environmental issues: Air pollution and its control; Water pollution and its control; Agrochemicals and their effects; Solid
waste management; Radioactive waste management; Greenhouse effect and global warning; Ozone depletion;
Deforestation; Any three case studies as success stories addressing environmental issues.
BIOLOGY
Chapter Weightage %
The Living World 2
Biological Classification 2
Cell: The Unit of Life, Biomolecules 2
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 2
Animal Kingdom 7
Plant Kingdom 4
Morphology of Flowering Plants 5
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 2
Structural Organisation in Animals 2
Transport in Plants 1
Mineral Nutrition 1
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 2
Respiration in Plants 1
Plant Growth and Development 1
Biomolecules 4
Digestion and Absorption 3
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 2
Body Fluids and Circulation 1
Excretory Products and their Elimination 2
Neural Control and Coordination 2
Locomotion and Movement 2
Chemical Coordination and Integration 4
Reproduction in Organisms 1
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 5
Human Reproduction 3
Reproductive Health 2
Principles and Inheritance and Variation 5
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 6
Evolution 2
Organisms and Populations 2
Human Health and Disease 3
Microbes in Human Welfare 2
Ecosystem 2
Biodiversity and Conservation 3
Environmental Issues 2
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 2
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 3
Biotechnology and its Applications 3
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21. The term antibiotic was first used by 31. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of
(a) Flemming (a) Smut of Barley
(b) Pasteur (b) Rust of Wheat
(c) Waksman (c) Ergot of Rye
(d) Lister (d) Powdery Mildew of Pea.
22. Temperature tolerance of thermal 32. Decomposers are organisms that
blue-green algae is due to (a) illaborate chemical substances, causing death of
(a) cell wall structure tissues
(b) cell organisation (b) operate in living body and simplifying
(c) mitochondrial structure organic substances of cells step by step
(d) homopolar bonds in their proteins (c) attack and kill plants as well as animals
23. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are (d) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the
(a) Azotobacter organic constituents of dead body
(b) Pseudomonas 33. Mycorrhiza represents
(c) soil fungi (a) antagonism
(d) blue-green algae (b) endemism
24. Rickettsiae constitute a group under (c) symbiosis
(a) bacteria (d) parasitism
(b) viruses 34. The plasmid
(c) independent group between bacteria and viruses (a) helps in respiration
(d) fungi (b) genes found inside nucleus
25. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong (c) is a component of cell wall of bacteria
to (d) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in micro-
(a) mosses organisms
(b) bacteria 35. Which of the following organism possesses
(c) green Algae characteristics of both a plant
(d) soil Fungi and an animal?
26. Protistan genome has (a) Bacteria
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in (b) Euglena
cytoplasm (c) Mycoplasma
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates (d) Paramecium
36. The function of contractile vacuole, in protozoa,
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins condensed is
together in loose mass (a) locomotion
(d) ucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance (b) food digestion
27. Entamoeba coli causes (c) osmoregulation
(a) Pyrrhoea (d) reproduction
(b) Diarrhoea 37. Macro and micronucleus are the characteristic
(c) Dysentery feature of
(d) None (a) Paramecium and Vorticella
28. Protists obtain food as (b) Opelina and Nictothisus
(a) photosynthesisers, symbionts and holotrophs (c) Hydra and Ballantidium
(b) photosynthesisers (d) Vorticella and Nictothirus
(c) chemosynthesisers 38. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through
(d) holotrophs (a) lobopodia
29. Protista includes (b) uroid portion
(a) heterotrophs (c) plasma membrane
(b) chemoheterotrophs (d) contractile vacuole
(c) chemoautotrophs 39. The organism, used for alcoholic fermentation, is
(d) all the above (a) Pseudomonas (b) Penicillium
30. Ustilago caused plant diseases called smut (c) Aspergillus (d) Saccharomyces
because 40. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) they parasitise cereals (a) root knot disease - Meloidogyne javanica
(b) mycelium is back (b) smut of bajra - Tolysporium penicillariae
(c) they develop sooty masses of spores (c) covered smut of barley - Ustilago nuda
(d) affected parts becomes completely black. (d) late blight of potato – Phytophthora infestans
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59. Which one of the following microorganisms is 69. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is
used for production of brought about by
citric acid in industries? (a) Saccharomyces
(a) Penicillium citrinum (b) Lactobacillus
(b) Aspergillus niger (c) Azotobacter
(c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) Penicillium
(d) Lactobacillus bulgaris 70. Interferons are synthesized in response to
60. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the (a) Mycoplasma
industrial production of (b) Bacteria
(a) citric acid (c) Viruses
(b) tetracycline (d) Fungi
(c) ethanol 71. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in
(d) butanol (a) Killer strain in Paramecium
61. Due to which of the following organisms, yield of (b) Colour blindness
rice has been increased? (c) Phenylketonuria
(a) Anabaena (d) Tay sach disease
(b) Bacillus popilliae 72. What is true for cyanobacteria?
(c) Sesbania (a) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(d) Bacillus polymexa (b) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
62. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in (c) Non-oxygenic with nitrogen
(a) leucoplasts (d) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
(b) chloroplasts 73. What is true for archaebacteria?
(c) chromoplasts (a) All halophiles
(d) chromatophores (b) All photosynthetic
63. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is (c) All fossils
(a) linear DNA with histones (d) Oldest living beings
(b) circular DNA with histones 74. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains
(c) linear DNA without histones (a) ss RNA (b) ds RNA
(d) circular DNA without histones (c) ds DNA (d) ss DNA
64. A good green manure in rice fields is 75. What is true for plasmid?
(a) Aspergillus (a) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
(b) Azolla (b) These are found in virus
(c) Salvinia (c) Plasmid contains gene for vital activities
(d) Mucor (d) These are main party of chromosome
65. Enzymes are absent in 76. Plant decomposers are
(a) Cyanobacteria (a) Monera and fungi
(b) Viruses (b) Fungi and plants
(c) Algae (c) Protista and animalia
(d) Fungi (d) Animalia and monera
66. A virus can be considered a living organism 77. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with
because it the help of
(a) responds to touch stimulus (a) mechanical pressure and enzymes
(b) respires (b) hooks and suckers
(c) reproduces (inside the host) (c) softening by enzymes
(d) can cause disease (d) only by mechanical pressure
67. In fungi stored food material is 78. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin
(a) glycogen containing medium due to
(b) starch (a) natural selection
(c) sucrose (b) Induced mutation
(d) glucose (c) reproductive isolation
68. Black rust of wheat is caused by (d) genetic drift
(a) Puccinia 79. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?
(b) Mucor (a) Methanogens
(c) Aspergillus (b) Nitrifying bacteria
(d) Rhizopus (c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Denitrifying bacteria
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80. In bacteria, plasmid is 88. Which one of the following statements about
(a) extra – chromosomal material viruses is correct?
(b) main DNA (a) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
(c) non-functional DNA (b) Viruses possess their own metabolic system
(d) repetitive gene (c) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
81. Which statement is correct for bacterial (d) Viruses are obligate parasites
transduction? 89. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size
(a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to (a) 700 × 30 nm
another bacteria through virus (b) 300 × 10 nm
(b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another (c) 300 × 5 nm
bacteria by conjugation (d) 300 × 20 nm
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly 90. Lichens are well known combination of an alga
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external source and a fungus where fungus has
82. Which of the following secretes toxins during (a) a saprophytic relationship with the alga
storage conditions of crop (b) an epiphytic relationship with the alga
plants? (c) a parasitic relationship with the alga
(a) Aspergillus (d) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
(b) Penicillium 91. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(c) Fusarium matched?
(d) Colletotrichum (a) Streptomyces - Antibiotic
83. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and (b) Serratia - Drug addiction
flowers? (c) Spirulina - Single cell protein
(a) Loose smut of wheat (d) Rhizobium - Biofertilizer
(b) Corn stunt 92. Which of the following statements is not true for
(c) Covered smut of barley retroviruses?
(d) Soft rot of potato (a) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of
84. During the formation of bread it becomes porous retroviruses
due to release of CO2 by the action of (b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA dependent DNA
(a) Yeast polymerase
(b) Bacteria (c) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
(c) Virus (d) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds
(d) Protozoans of cancer in man
85. The chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba 93. The most thoroughly studied fact of the known
is bacteria-plant interactions is the
(a) the chance to get rid of accumulated waste (a) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
products (b) gall formation on certain angiosperms by
(b) the ability to survive during adverse physical Agrobacterium
conditions (c) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing
(c) the ability to live for sometime without ingesting bacteria
food (d) plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising
(d) protection from parasites and predators bacteria
86. Viruses are no more ―alive‖ than isolated 94. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause
chromosomes because their lysis, are called
(a) both require the environment of a cell to replicate (a) lysozymes
(b) they require both RNA and DNA (b) lipolytic
(c) they both need food molecules (c) lytic
(d) they both require oxygen for respiration (d) lysogenic
87. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3 in 95. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed,
number and [2003] respectively, by:
(a) can be circular as well as linear within the same (a) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
cell (b) Some cyanobacteria and diatoms
(b) are always circular (c) the ability to live for sometime without ingesting
(c) are always linear food
(d) can be either circular or linear, but never both with (d) protection from parasite and predators
in the same cell
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96. All of the following statements concerning the 104. Which one of the following statements about
Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia mycoplasma is wrong?
are correct except that Frankia: (a) They are pleomorphic
(a) Can induce root nodules on many plant species (b) They are sensitive to penicillin
(b) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state. (c) They cause diseases in plants
(c) Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase (d) They are also called PPLO.
is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier 105. Which pair of the following belongs to
involving triterpene hopanoids Basidiomycetes
(d) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant (a) puffballs and Claviceps
through root hair deformation and stimulates cell (b) peziza and stink borns
proliferation in the host‘s cortex (c) Morchella and mushrooms
97. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is (d) birds nest fungi and puffballs.
(a) Methophilic bacteria 106. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
(b) Butyric acid bacteria (a) uncimula
(c) Helicobactor pylori (b) ustilago
(d) Streptococcus lactin (c) claviceps
98. There exists a close association between the alga (d) phytophthora.
and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus 107. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
(a) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for (a) Physarum (b) Thiobacillus
the alga (c) Anabaena (d) Rhizopus
(b) provides food for the alga 108. Which one of the following is linked to the
(c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular
(d) releases oxygen for the alga fungicide?
99. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between (a) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
RNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis? (b) Downy mildew of grapes
(a) Neomycin (c) Loose smut of wheat
(b) Streptomycin (d) Black rust of wheat
(c) Tetracycline 109. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species
(d) Erythromycin of
100. Which of the following statements regarding (a) Xanthomonas (b) Pseudomonas
cilia is not correct? (c) Alternaria (d) Erwinia
(a) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages 110. In the light of recent classification of living
(b) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin organisms into three domains of life (bacteria,
(c) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet archaea and eukarya), which one of the following
microtubules surrounding two single microtubules statements is true about archaea?
(d) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by (a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane (b) Archaea have some novel features that are absent
101. The thalloid body of a slime mould in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(Myxomycetes) is known as (c) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes
(a) plasmodium and eukaryotes
(b) fruiting body (d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
(c) mycelium
(d) protonema 111. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and
102. Which of the following environmental Methanobacterium exemplify:
conditions are essential for optimum growth of (a) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous
Mucor on a piece of bread? A. Temperature of about to eukaryotic core histones
25°C B. Temperature of about 5° C C. Relative (b) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling
humidity of about 5% D. Relative humidity of about those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is
95% E. A shady place F. A brightly illuminated place negatively supercoiled
Choose the answer from the following options: (c) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively
(a) A, D and E only (b) B, D and E only supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as
(c) B, C and F only (d) A, C and E only mitochondria
103. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a
(d) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and
(a) Prion (b) Worm
ribosomes
(c) Bacterium (d) Virus
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112. Which one is the wrong pairing for 122. Archegoniophore is present in:
the disease and its causal organism? (a) Marchantia
(a) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis (b) Chara
(b) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda (c) Adiantum
(c) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp (d) Funaria
(d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani 123. In eubacteria, a cellular component that
113. Phylogenetic system of classification is based resembles eukaryotic cells is:
on: (a) plasma membrane
(a) morphological features (b) nucleus
(b) chemical constituents (c) ribosomes
(c) floral characters (d) cell wall
(d) evolutionary relationships 124. Compared with the gametophytes of the
114. Mannitol is the stored food in: bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plant are
(a) Porphyra (a) smaller but have larger sex organs
(b) Fucus (b) larger but have smaller sex organs
(c) Gracillaria (c) larger and have larger sex organs
(d) Chara (d) smaller and have smaller sex organs
115. Single-celled eukaryotes are 125. The gametophyte is not an independent, free
included in: living generation in:
(a) Protista (a) Polytrichum
(b) Fungi (b) Adiantum
(c) Archaea (c) Marchantia
(d) Monera (d) Pinus
116. Ringworm in humans is caused by: 126. Organisms called methanogens are most
(a) Bacteria abundant in a:
(b) Fungi (a) sulphur rock (b) cattle yard
(c) Nematodes (c) polluted stream (d) hot spring
(d) Viruses 127. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
117.Which one of the following is a slime mould? matched while the remaining three are correct?
(a) Physarum (a) Penicillium - Conidia
(b) Thiobacillus (b) Water hyacinth - Runner
(c) Anabaena (c) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds
(d) Rhizopus (d) Agave - Bulbils
118. Virus envelope is known as: [2010] 128. Consider the following four statements whether
(a) Capsid they are correct or wrong?
(b) Virion (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate
(c) Nucleoprotein than that in mosses
(d) Core (B) Salvinia is heterosporous
119. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer? (C) The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
(a) Agrobacterium (D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on
(b) Rhizobium different trees
(c) Nostoc (a) Statements (A) and (C)
(d) Mycorrhiza (b) Statements (A) and (D)
120. Ethanol is commercially produced through a (c) Statements (B) and (C)
particular species of: (d) Statements (A) and (B)
(a) Saccharomyces 129. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
(b) Clostridium represent a significant step toward evolution of seed
(c) Trichoderma habit because:
(d) Aspergillus (a) female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like
121. Which one of the following organisms is not an seeds
example of eukaryotic cells? (b) female gametophyte lacks archaegonia
(a) Paramecium caudatum (c) megaspores possess endosperm and embryo
(b) Escherichia coli surrounded by seed coat
(c) Euglena viridis (d) embryo develops in female gametophyte which is
(d) Amoeba proteus retained on parent sporophyte.
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130. Compared with the gametophytes of the 138. Which of the following are likely to be present
bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plant are in deep sea water?
(a) smaller but have larger sex organs (a) Eubacteria
(b) larger but have smaller sex organs (b) Blue-green algae
(c) larger and have larger sex organs (c) Saprophytic fungi
(d) smaller and have smaller sex organs (d) Archaebacteria
131. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to
139. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
humans in making curd from milk and in production
(a) They are phagotrophs
of antibiotics are the ones categorised as:
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) They lack a rigid cell wall
(b) Archaebacteria (c) They are heterotrophs
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophs (d) They lack nuclear membrane
(d) Heterotrophic bacteria 140. Specialized cellsfor fixing atmospheric nitrogen
132. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as in Nostoc are
(a) protists (a) Akinetes
(b) golden algae (b) Heterocysts
(c) Slime moulds (c) Hormogonia
(d) blue green algae (d) Nodules
133. Which statement is wrong for viruses 141. Satellite RNAs are present in some
(a) All are parasites
(a) Plant viruses
(b) All of them have helical symmetry
(b) Viroids
(c) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and
(c) Prions
proteins
(d) Antibiotics have no effect on them (d) Bacteriophages
134. Which one single organism or the pair of 142. The causal organism for African sleeping
organisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic sickness is
group (a) Trypanosoma cruzi
(a) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to the same (b) T. rhodesiense
kingdom as that of Penicillium (c) T. tangela
(b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the (d) T. gambiense
symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan 143. The vector for sleeping sickness is
(c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus (a) House fly
(d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista (b) Tse-Tse fly
135. How many organisms in the list given below are
(c) Sand fly
autotrophs?
(d) Fruit fly
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara,Nitrosomonas,
Nitrobacter, 144. Trypanosoma belongs to class
(a) Four (b) Five (a) Sarcodina (b) Zooflagellata
(c) Six (d) Three (c) Ciliata (d) Sporozoa
136. In the five-kingdom classification, 145. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of
Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in (a) cryptomerozoites
(a) protista (b) metacryptomerozoites
(b) algae (c) merozoites
(c) plantae (d) trophozoites
(d) monera 146. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans
137. Which one of the following sets of items in the (a) Leishmania donovani
options 1 - 4 are correctly categorized with one (b) Trypanosoma gambiense
exception in it? Items- Category- Exception
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
(a) UAA, UAG, UGA -Stop codons -UAG
(d) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat –Australian marsupials -
Wombat 147. The ineffective stage of malarial parasite
(c) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma - Protozoan Plasmodium that enters humanbody is
parasites- Cuscuta (a) merozoite (b) sporozoite
(d) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria –Bacterial
(c) trophozoite (d) minuta form
diseases -Diphtheria
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6. Solution: (c)
148. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they Laveran discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C
(a) show association between algae and fungi of human beings and concluded that
(b) grow faster than others malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax. Sir
(c) are sensitive to SO2 Ronal Ross (1896) was the first to observe
(d) flourish in SO2 rich environment oocytes of Plamodium in female Anopheles.
149. Which one belongs to monera? 7. Solution: (a)
(a) Amoeba In human beings different types of malaria are caused
(b) Escherichia by 4 different species of Plasmodium.
(c) Gelidium They are:
(d) Spirogyra 1. Benign Tertian Malaria – Plasmodium vivax.
150. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram 2. Malignant (Pernicious or cerebral) Tertian Malaria –
(-)ve bacteria resides in their Plasmodium falciparum.
(a) cell wall 3. Quartan Malaria – Plasmodium malariae.
(b) cell membrane 4. Mild Tertian Malaria – Plasmodium ovale.
(c) cytoplasm 8. Solution: (a)
(d) flagella Chemosynthetic bacteria does not require sunlight as
a source of energy directly or indirectly. The energy
Solutions: for the synthesis of food is obtained by the oxidation
1. Solution: (a) of certain inorganic substances present in the
Trypanosoma is polymorphic i.e. it exists medium. The chemical energy obtained from
in different forms in the successive stages oxidation reaction is trapped in ATP molecules. The
of its life cycle. These are Leishmania, ATP is used in CO2 assimilation.
Leptomonad, Crituidial and trypanosomal 9. Solution: (c)
stages. I. African sleeping sickness disease also Called as
2. Solution: (c) trypansomiasis common in western and central parts
Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentry is caused of African continent.
by a parasite Entamoeba histolytica II. The disease is caused by parasite Trypanosoma
present in the upper part of large intestine gambiense of class zooflagellata.
of human. It is caused due to ingesting III. The parasite is transmitted (vector) through bite of
contaminated food or water with cyst Tse-Tse fly (Glossina palpalis).
(trophozoite) of Entamoeba. It feeds on IV. The disease appears when the causal organism
R.B.C of intestinal blood capillaries and enters into cerebrospinal fluid of human. V.
damages intestinal mucosa secreting an Trypanosoma is an obligate parasite, Digenetic and
enzyme - histolysin. Polymorphic organism.
3. Solution: (c) 10. Solution: (c)
Plasmodium belongs to class Sporozoa of Contractile vacuole in Amoeba and
protozoan profists. It is an endoparasite Paramecium maintain the water balance of
lacking any locomotony structure and the cell. This is known as osmoregulation.
contractile vacules. It reproduces through 11. Solution: (a)
spore formation. In bacteria asexual reproduction through
4. Solution: (c) binary fission is the most common method
Azotobacter is free living soil bacteria that of multiplication. Sexual reproduction
are able to pick up dinitrogen from the soil which comprises of syngamy and meiosis is
and fixes it into organic nitrogenous entirely absent. Hence no gamete formation
material like aminoacid. Clostridium is takes place. In sexually reproducing
anaerobic free living soil N2 fixing bacteria. organism alternation of generation occurs.
Rhizobium is symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria. 12. Solution: (a)
5. Solution: (b) Plasmodium vivax completes Sexual cycle or
Fungi are nutritionally saprophytes, which Gamogony in female Anopheles mosquito. Asexual
grow on dead and decaying matter. They cycle is passed in man (Schizogony).
secrete enzyme to the external medium 13. Solution: (b)
where digestion takes place and digested Lichens are composite organisms representing a
food absorbed by the body surface. They symbiotic association between fungus and a algae. It
convert complex organic constituents of can be Crustose, Foliose and Fruticose types. They
dead body into simple soluble forms. That are the pioneer organisms in a new habitat.
is why Fungi are decomposers. Lichens used as indicator of air pollution. It
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(see also avian influenza). • Influenza virus B Azotobacter is a free living nitrogen fixing
are known to infect humans and seals. • bacteria. Nitrosomonas converts ammonia
Influenza virus C are known to infect to nitrite. Rhizobium is a symbiotic
humans and pigs. nitrogen fixing bacteria living in the root
46. Solution: (b) nodules of leguminous plants Diplococcus
Bacterial chromosomes comprise of pneumoniae causes pneumonia.
circular DNA. 55. Solution: (c)
47. Solution: (a) Bacteria acts as decomposers in the
Interferons are virus induced proteins carbon cycle.
produced by cells infected with viruses. 56. Solution: (a)
They are antiviral in action. These are archaebacteria which can
48. Solution: (d) tolerate high temperature.
Lichens are composite dual organisms 57. Solution: (b)
formed by the association between a Transfer of genetic information from one
fungus and a photosynthetic symbiont. The bacterium to another by physical contact is
bulk of lichen body is formed of fungus. called conjugation while if it takes place by
49. Solution: (a) some other medium like virus than it is
Association of algae and fungi is referred to as lichen. called transduction.
Symbiotic association of Rhizobium with roots of 58. Solution: (b)
leguminous plants is referred to as symbiosis. Puccinia causes black rust of wheat. It
Mycorrhiza is symbiotic association between fungi completes its life cycle in two hostswheat
and roots of higher plants. The fungal partner of and barberry. Two types of spores are
mycorrhiza obtains food from roots of the higher produced on wheat - uredospores and
plant and in return supplies mineral elements to it. teleutospores.
50. Solution: (c) 59. Solution: (b)
In any kind of Bacteria (E.coli) double Aspergillus niger is known as guinea pig of
stranded DNA is present. kingdom fungi. The main source of
51. Solution: (a) commercial preparation of citric acid is the
Plasmids are the extrachromosomal DNA. fermentation of sugar with Aspergillus
52. Solution: (b) niger.
Viruses have either DNA or RNA as the 60. Solution: (c)
genetic material. Viruses having RNA as the Yeast performs alcoholic fermentation
genetic material are known as Retroviruses. because of enzyme ‗Zymase‘. It is used in
53. Solution: (b) the production of ethyl alcohol or ethanol.
The lichen fungus is typically a member of 61. Solution: (a)
the Ascomycota rarely a member of the Azolla is a freshwater fern harbouring a
Basidiomycota. The algal or cyanobacterial bluegreen alga - Anabaena in its leaf
cells are photosynthetic, and as in higher cavities. The alga fixes atmospheric
plants they reduce atmospheric carbon nitrogen and releases nitrogenous
dioxide into organic carbon sugars to feed compounds in leaf cavities. This symbiotic
both symbionts. Both partners gain water system is the main source of algal
and mineral nutrients mainly from the biofertilizer in rice fields. When rice paddies
atmosphere through rain and dust. The are flooded in the spring, they can be
fungal partner protects the alga by inoculated with Azolla, which then quickly
retaining water, serving as a larger capture multiplies to cover the water, suppressing
area for mineral nutrients and, in some weeds. As the plants die, they contribute
cases, provides minerals obtained from the nitrogen to the rice plants, and as the rice
substratum. If a cyanobacterium is paddy dries out, the Azolla all eventually
present, as a primary partner or another die, making an exceptional green manure.
symbiont in addition to green alga as in 62. Solution: (d)
certain tripartite lichens, they can fix Chloroplasts, chromoplasts and
atmospheric nitrogen, complementing the leucoplasts are the types of plastids found
activities of the green alga. in higher plants. Chloroplasts contain the
54. Solution: (a) green pigment chlorophyll. Chromoplasts
Escherichia and Agrobacterium are both contain coloured pigments. Leucoplasts are
used as vectors in genetic engineering. colourless and store starch granules.
Nitrobactor converts nitrites to nitrates.
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63. 73.
Solution: (d) Solution: (d)
In prokayotes nucleoid consist of double Archaebacteria are the most ancient and
stranded circular DNA without histone halogenous group of bacteria and are called
protein. living fossils.
64. 74.
Solution: (b) Solution: (c)
Aspergillus is a fungus, Mucor is also a Cauliflower mosaic virus contains double
fungus. Azolla harbours blue-green algae stranded DNA.
Anabaena which fixes N2, increasing 75.
fertility. Solution: (a)
65. Plasmids are small intranuclear circular
Solution: (b) DNAs which carry extra chromosomal
Enzymes are absent in viruses because genes in bacteria.
they are unable to transmit their nucleic 76.
acid from one host cell to another. Solution: (a)
66. Plant decomposers are Bacteria (Kingdom
Solution: (c) Monera) and Fungi.
Virus is an ultra microscopic 77.
nucleoprotein entity which becomes active Solution: (a)
only inside a living cell. It resembles living The fungal hyphae secrete enzymes which
beings due to presence of genetic material convert insoluble complex food material in
and reproduction. the substratum to the soluble ones. The
67. hyphae wall of intracellular hyphae come in
Solution: (a) contact with the host protoplasm and
Glycogen is a glucosanOhomopolysaccharide which is obtain food by direct diffusion.
the majorreserve food of animals, fungi and some 78.
bacteria is a also glucosanhomopolysaccharide and is Solution: (a)
a major reserve food of plants. Sucrose is formed Prevention of mating between two natural
ofone molecule of glucose and one molecule of populations of the same or different spaces
fructose due to presence of barriers to interbreeding
68. is called reproductive isolation. Genetic
Solution: (a) drift is the random change in the allele
Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia number and frequency in a gene pool.
graminis. The symptoms are seen in stem Natural selection is a type of force for
or leaf sheath as brownish spot. Yeast evolutionary processes. Here in this case it
helps in ethyl alcohol formation. allows the growth of only those bacteria
69. which have resistance towards
Solution: (a) streptomycin.
Lactobacillus is the milk bacteria while 79.
Azotobacter is the free living nitrogen fixing Solution: (a)
bacteria and Penicillium is the source of Methanobacillus (methanogen) occurs in marshes and
Penicillin. also in dung. It produces CH4 gas under anaerobic
70. condition and is utilized in gobar gas plant.
Solution: (c) 80.
Interferons are virus induced proteins Solution: (a)
produced by cells infected with virus. Plasmid is attached to mesosome in bacteria.
71. 81.
Solution: (a) Solution: (a)
Colour blindness follows sex-linked Transduction experiments were carried out
inheritance. Phenylketonuria is an in born by Hershey and Chase.
error of metabolism. 82. Solution: (a)
72. Solution: (a) Aspergillus flavus produces carcinogenic
Cyanobacteria are oxygenic fungus toxin (Aflatoxin) during storage
photoautotroph. Many members perform condition of crop plant.
nitrogen fixation.
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but have large sex organs. also Australian marsupials. They are shortlegged,
131. Solution: (d) muscular quadrupeds,
The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to approximately 1 metre (40 in) in length
humans in making curd from milk and in with a short, stubby tail. Diphtheria is an
production of antibiotics are the acute infectious disease caused by the
heterotrophic bacteria. Lactobacillis bacteria Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
bacteria convert milk into curd. Cuscuta, or Dodder plant, is not a
132. Solution: (d) protozoan. It is a parasitic vine that wraps
Cyanobacteria are also referred as blue around other plants for nourishment.
green algae, they perform oxygenic 138. Solution: (d)
photosynthesis. They are most successful Archaebactera live in some of the most
autotrophic organisms on earth which one harsh habitats such as extreme salty areas
found in all types of environment - fresh (halophiles), hot springs
water, sea water, salt marshes, moist (thermoacidophiles) and marshy areas
rocks, tree trunks, moist soils, hot springs, (methanogens) and in deep sea water.
frozen waters. 139. Solution: (c)
133. Solution: (b) Fungi lack chlorophyll, hence, they do not
All the viruses are obligate parasite i.e. prepare their food by photosynthesis. They
they remain inert outside the host cell. can grow where organic material is
They have ability to syntheize nucleic acids available. So, they are heterotrophs that acquire their
and proteins by using host cellular nutrient by absorption and store in the form of
machinery (ribosomes, tRNAs, aminoacids, glycogen.
energy). Three shapes are found in viruses 140. Solution: (b)
helical (elongate body e.g. T.M.V) cuboidal Heterocysts are large sized, thick-walled
(short broad body with rhombic rounded, specialised cells which occur in terminal,
polyhedral shape e.g. Poliomyelitis virus) intercalary or lateral position in
and binal (with birth cuboidal and helical filamentous cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc.
parts e.g. many bacteriophages like T2). They have enzyme nitrogenase and
Antibiotics have no effect on them, antiviral specialised to perform biological nitrogen
drugs can only kill them. fixation.
134. Solution: (c) 141. Solution: (a)
Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used in Plant viruses often contain parasites of
making bread (Baker‘s yeast) and their own, referred to as satellites. Satellite
commercial production of ethanol. RNAs are dependent on their associated
Paramoecium & Plasmodium are of animal (helper) virus for both replication and
kingdom while pencillium is a fungi. Lichen encapsidation. Example—Tobacco Necrosis
is composite organism formed from the Virus (TNV). Viroids are infectious agents
symbiotic association of an algae and a smaller than viruses. Bacteriophages are
fungus. Nostoc & Anabaena are examples viruses that infect the bacteria. A prion is
of kingdom monera. an infectious agent that is composed
135. Solution: (c) primarily of protein.
Autotrophs are those organisms that are 142. Solution: (d)
able to make energy-containing organic African sleeping sickness disease also
molecules from inorganic raw material by called trypanosomiasis common in Africa is
using basic sunlight. Nostoc, Chara, caused by parasite Trypanosoma
Porphyra and Wolffia are photoautotrophs gambiense. The parasite is transmitted by
while Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are Tse-Tse fly (Glossina palpalis).
chemoautotrophs.
143. Solution: (b)
136. Solution: (b) Vector for sleeping sickness is TseTse fly
Chlamydomonas & Chlorella have been (Glossina palpalis). The parasite
included in algae. Algae are chlorophyllus, Trypanosoma is transmitted through the
thalloid avascular plants with no cellular bite of this fly. Tse-tse have been
differentiation. Algae belong to thallophyta extensively studied because they are
of plant kingdom. biological vectors of the African
137. Solution: (c) trypanosomiasis, deadly disease which
UAG is also a stop codon. Wombats are include sleeping sickness in people and
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nagana in cattle. Tse-tse have existed in subtilis and which loses blue colour is Gram –ve e.g. E.
the modern morphological form for at least coli. In Gram –ve stain is washed due to high lipid
34 million years since fossil tse-tse have content in the cell wall having thick wall, Gram +ve
been recovered from the Florissant Fossil has single layered cell wall.
Beds in Colorado.
144. Solution: (b)
Zooflagellata of Protozoan Protista. They have flagella
and heterotrophic (Parasitic) mode of nutrition.
145. Solution: (c)
Malarial parasite, (Plasmodium vivax),
Protist of class Sporozoa, digenetic parasite
causes malarial fever in human. The
malarial parasite was discovered by
Laveran (1880). Sir Ronald Ross (1898)
discovered that Malaria disease is spread
by mosquitoes. Its life cycle completes in
two organisms-Primary host, female
Anopheles mosquito and man (Intermediate
or Secondary host). It enters into human
blood-through sporozoites. Malarial fever
begins with the release of merozoites in the
liver cells, from RBC of human.
146. Solution: (b)
Tse-Tse fly is vector of sleeping sickness
disease and it transmits Trypanosoma
gambiense through its bite.
147. Solution: (b)
The infective stage of Plasmodium that
enters human blood is sporozoite.
148. Solution: (c)
Lichens typically grow in harsh
environments in nature, most lichens,
especially epiphytic fruticose species and
those containing cyanobacteria, are
sensitive to manufactured pollutants.
Hence, they have been widely used as
pollution indicator organisms. Lichens are
symbiotic associations of a fungus with a
photosynthetic partner (called a photobiontor
phycobiont) that can produce food for
the lichen from sunlight.
149. Solution: (b)
Whittaker (1969) divided organisms into
five kingdoms: Monera, Protista, Plantae,
Fungi and Animalia. Kingdom Monera
includes all prokaryotes – Mycoplasma,
bacteria, actinomycetes, blue-green algae,
archaebacteria, methanogens. Escherichia
is bacteria, Amoeba, Gelidium come under
Protista, Spirogyra is algae.
150. Solution: (a)
Gram +(ve) and Gram –(ve) bacteria separates on the
basis of their cell wall composition. Christian Gram on
the basis of staining behaviour of the cell wall with
Gram‘s stain, grouped bacteria into Gram +ve and
Gram –ve type. The bacteria which retain blue or
purple colour after staining are Gram +ve e.g. Bacillus
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11. Which one of the following formulae does not correctly represent the bonding capacities of the two atoms
involved?
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(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
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33.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
34. Which of the following compounds has a -3 centre bond?
(a) Diborane
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Boron trifluroide
(d) Ammonia
35. The low density of ice compared to water is due to
(a) hydrogen-bonding interactions
(b) dipole-dipole interactions
(c) dipole-induced dipole interactions
(d) induced dipole-induced dipole interactions
36. The cylindrical shape of an alkyne is due to the fact that it has
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
37. N2 and O2 are converted into monocations, N2 +and O2 +respectively. Which of the following statements is
wrong?
(a) In N2, the N—Nbond weakens
(b) In O2, the O—Obond order increases
(c) In O2, paramagnetism decreases
(d) N2 +becomes diamagnetic
38. The AsF5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. The hybrid orbitals used by the As atom for bonding are
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
39. The number of anti-bonding electron pairs in O2-2 molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory is,
(Atomic number of O is )8
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
40. Among the following which one is not paramagnetic? [Atomic numbers: Be = 4, Ne = 10, As = 33, Cl = ]17
(a) Cl-
(b) Be+
(c) Ne+2
(d) As+
41. In PO43– ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P—O bond order respectively are
(a) –0.75, 0.6
(b) – 0.75, 1.0
(c) – 0.75, 1.25
(d) –3, 1.25
42. Which of the following molecules is planar?
(a) SF4
(b) XeF4
(c) NF3
(d) SiF4
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43.
(a) NO2-
(b) NO3-
(c) 3 PO43-
(d) 2 CO32-
51. In which of the following the bond angle is maximum?
(a) NH3 (b) SCl2 (c) NH4 + (d) PCl3
52. Which of the following two are isostructural?
(a) NH3, BF3 (b) PCl5, ICl5 (c) XeF2, IF2 – (d) CO3 –2, SO3 –2
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53. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, molecular orbital px and py overlap to form which of the following
orbital?
(a) (b)
(c) (d) No bond will be formed.
54.
(a) NO3–
(b) SO32-
(c) BO33-
(d) CO32-
56. In NO3– ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom respectively are
(a) 2, 2
(b) 3, 1
(c) 1, 3
(d) 4, 0
57. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms?
(a) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this
regard
(b) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(c) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively
(d) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
58. Among the following the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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62. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize
(a) lone pair - bond pair repulsion only
(b) bond pair - bond pair repulsion only
(c) lone pair - lone pair repulsion and lone pair - bond pair repulsion
(d) lone pair - lone pair repulsion only
63. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule?
(a) C2H6
(b) B2H6
(c) SiH4
(d) PH3
64. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by
(a) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
(b) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
(d) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
65. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar geometry?
(a) BF3
(b) NH3
(c) PCl3
(d) IF3
66. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?
(a) SiF4
(b) SF4
(c) XeF4
(d) BF3
67. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) The canonical structures have no real existence
(b) Every AB5 molecule does in fact have square pyramidal structure
(c) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds
(d) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids
68. The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number
16 is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2
69. In which of the following molecules all the bonds are not equal?
(a) BF3
(b) AlF3
(c) NF3
(d) ClF3
70. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole
moment of NH3 1.5( D) is larger than that of NF30.2( D) . This is because
(a) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in opposite
directions
(b) in NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
(c) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are in the same
direction
(d) in NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
71. Which of the following species has a linear shape?
(a) SO2 (b) NO2+ (c) O3 (d) NO2–
72. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4?
(a) SO42- (b) PO42- (c) NH4 4 (d) SCl4
73. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structure?
(a) SO32 – and NO3 – (b) BF3 an NF3 (c) BrO3 – and XeO3 (d) SF4 and XeF4
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74. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32- , CO2 is
(a) CO< CO32 – < CO2
(b) CO32 – < CO2 < CO
(c) CO< CO2 < CO32 –
(d) CO2 < CO32 – < CO
75. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of:
(a) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(b) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(c) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds
(d) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
76. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
77. Four diatomic species are listed below in different sequences. Which of these presents the correct order of
their increasing bond order?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
78. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a
gas?
(a) Dipole-dipole interaction
(b) Covalent bonds
(c) London dispersion force
(d) Hydrogen bonding
79.
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84. Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is
linear?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
85.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
86. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization) ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
87. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by:
(a) O2+
(b) O2-
(c) O22-
(d) O2
88. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?
(a) H2O
(b) BF3
(c) NH2-
(d) PCI3
89. The pair of species with the same bond order is:
(a) O22-, B2
(b) O2+, NO+
(c) NO, CO
(d) N2, O2
90. During change of O2 to O2- ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
91. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in
them:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
92. Which of the following is electron - deficient?
(a) (SiH3) 2 (b) (BH3) 2 (c) PH3 (d) (CH3) 2
93.
(a) H2O
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) CO2
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(a) (b)
(c) (d)
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Solutions
1.
ANS: (A)
2.
Ans: (b)
3.
Ans: (a)
4.
Ans: (d)
5.
Ans: (b)
6.
Ans: (b)
7. Ans: (c)
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8.
Ans: (a)
9.
Ans: (d)
10.
Ans: (a)
12.
Ans: (d)
13.
Ans: (c)
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14.
Ans: (c)
15.
Ans: (b)
16.
Ans: (c)
17.
Ans: (b)
18.
Ans: (b)
20.
Ans: (a)
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21.
Ans: (b)
22.
Ans: (d)
23.
Ans: (b)
24.
Ans: (b)
25.
Ans: (b)
26.
Ans: (c)
27.
Ans: (c)
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28.
Ans: (c)
29.
Ans: (b)
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34.
Ans: (a)
35.
Ans: (a)
36.
Ans: (d)
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46.
Ans: (d)
47.
Ans: (a)
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48.
Ans: (c)
49.
Ans: (a)
50.
Ans: (c)
51.
Ans: (c)
52.
Ans: (c)
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54.
Ans: (a)
55.
Ans: (b)
56.
Ans: (d)
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57.
Ans: (c)
59.Ans: (a)
60.
Ans: (d)
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61.
Ans: (a)
62.
Ans: (c)
63.
Ans: (b)
64.
Ans: (c)
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65.
Ans: (a)
66.
Ans: (b)
67.
Ans: (b)
68.
Ans: (d)
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69.
Ans: (d)
70.
Ans: (a)
71.
Ans: (b)
72.
Ans: (d)
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74.Ans: (c)
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76.
Ans: (b)
77.
Ans: (d)
78.
Ans: (d)
79.
Ans: (c)
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80.
Ans: (b)
81.
Ans: (c)
82.
Ans: (b)
83.
Ans: (b)
84.
Ans: (b)
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85.
Ans: (a)
86.
Ans: (d)
87.
Ans: (b)
88.
Ans: (a)
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89.
Ans: (a)
91.
Ans: (d)
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92.
Ans: (b)
93.
Ans: (a)
94.
Ans: (a)
95.
Ans: (a)
96.
Ans: (c)
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97.
Ans: (b)
98.
Ans: (d)
99.
Ans: (d)
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P H Y S I C S
NEET BIT BANK
SAI RAM EMPOWER ACADEMY | NEET Physics (Current Electricity) BIT BANK
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Q1.The masses of the three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1: 3: 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5:3:The
ratio of their electrical resistance is
(a) 1: 3: 5 (b) 5: 3: 1 (c) 1: 25: 125 (d) 125: 25: 1
Q2.
(a) 1/3 A and 3 V (b) 1/6 A and 4 V (c) 1/9 A and 9 V (d) 1/12 A and 12 V
Q3n equal resistors are first connected in series and then connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the
maximum to the minimum resistance?
(a) n (b) 1/n2 (c) n2 (d) 1/n
Q4. Forty electric bulbs are connected in series across a220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the remaining
39are connected again in series across the same supply.The illumination will be
(a) more with 40 bulbs than with 39 (b) more with 39 bulbs than with 40
(c) equal in both the cases (d) in the ratio 402: 392
Q5. A current of 2 A, passing through a conductor produces 80 J of heat in 10 seconds. The resistance of
theconductor in ohm is
(a) 0.5 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 20
Q6. Two identical batteries each of e.m.f 2V and internal resistance 1Ω are available to produce heat in
anexternal resistance by passing a current through it. Themaximum power that can be developed across R
usingthese batteries is
(a) 3.2 W (b) 2.0 W (c) 1.28 W (d) 8/9 W
Q7. You are given several identical resistances each ofvalue R= 10Ω and each capable of carrying a maximum
current of one ampere. It is required to make a suitablecombination of these resistances of 5Ω which can carry
acurrent of 4 ampere. The minimum number ofresistances of the type R that will be required for this job is
(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 20
Q8.
(a) 4/3 Ω
(b) 3/2 Ω
(c) 7Ω
(d) 8/7 Ω
Q9. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of
(a) energy (b) energy and magnetic field (c) charge (d) magnetic field
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Q10. The velocity of charge carriers of current (about 1amp) in a metal under normal conditions is of the order
of
(a) a fraction of mm/sec (b) velocity of light
(c) several thousand metres/second (d) a few hundred metres per second
Q11. Direct current is passed through a copper sulphatesolution using platinum electrodes. The elements
liberated at the electrodes are
(a) copper at anode and sulphur at cathode
(b) sulphur at anode and copper at cathode
(c) oxygen at anode and copper at cathode
(d) copper at anode and oxygen at cathode
Q12. Three resistances each of 4: are connected to forma triangle. The resistance between any two terminals is
(a) 12Ω (b) 2Ω (c) 6Ω (d) 8/3Ω
Q13.
(a) 9.6 V
(b) 2.6 V
(c) 4.8 V
(d) 1.2 V
Q14. A 4 μF capacitor is charged to 400 volts and thenits plates are joined through a resistance of 1k Ω. Theheat
produced in the resistance is
(a) 0.16 J
(b) 1.28 J
(c) 0.64 J
(d) 0.32 J
Q15.
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Q18. Two wires of the same metal have same length, buttheir cross-sections are in the ratio 3 Ω They are joined
in series. The resistance of thicker wire is 10 Ω. The totalresistance of the combination will be
(a) 10 Ω (b) 20 Ω (c) 40 Ω (d) 100 Ω
Q19. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 Ω at 50°C and 7Ω at 100°C, then the mean temperature coefficient of
resistance is
(a) 0.001/°C
(b) 0.004/°C
(c) 0.006/°C
(d) 0.008/°C
Q20.
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Q27. If nearly 105 coulombs liberate 1 gm-equivalent of aluminium, then the amount of aluminium (equivalent
weight ), deposited through electrolysis in 20 minutes by a current of 50 amp. will be
(a) 0.6 gm (b) 0.09 gm (c) 5.4 gm (d) 10.8 gm
Q28. A 5°C rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. When the current is doubled the
rise in temperature will be approximately
(a) 10°C (b) 16°C (c) 20°C (d) 12°C
Q29. The resistance of a discharge tube is
(a) zero (b) ohmic (c) non-ohmic (d) infinity
Q30.
(a) 1.6 A
(b) 2.0 A
(c) 0.32 A
(d) 3.2 A
Q31. In a metre-bridge, the balancing length from the left end when standard resistance of 1 Ω is in right gap is
found to be 20 cm. The value of unknown resistance is
(a) 0.25 Ω
(b) 0.4 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω
(d) 4 Ω
Q32. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 V, 40Wand other of200 V, 100 W are connected in a domestic circuit. Then
(a) they have equal resistance
(b) the resistance of 40Wbulb is more than 100 W bulb
(c) the resistance of 100Wbulb is more than 40 W bulb
(d) they have equal current through them
Q33. In electrolysis, the amount of mass deposited or liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to
(a) square of electric charge (b) amount of charge
(c) square of current (d) concentration of electrolyte
Q34. Potentiometer measures potential more accurately because
(a) it measures potential in the open circuit
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null deflection
(c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire
(d) it measures potential in the closed circuit
Q35.
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Q54. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of the three metre long wire of uniform thickness and
resistance of 100 ohm. The difference of potential between two points on the wire separated by a distance of 50
cm will be
(a) 1.5 volt
(b) 3 volt
(c) 3 volt
(d) 1 volt
Q55. A 5–ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse
wire is
(a) 0.04 ohm
(b) 0.2 ohm
(c) 5 ohm
(d) 0.4 ohm
Q56. When a wire of uniform cross–section a, length l and resistance R is bent into a complete circle, resistance
between any two of diametrically opposite points will be
(a) R/4
(b) 4R
(c) R/8
(d) R/2
Q57.
(a) 9V/35
(b) 18V/5
(c) 5V/9
(d) 5V/18
Q58.
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Q59. In producing chlorine through electrolysis, 100watt power at 125 Vis being consumed. How much
chlorine per minute is liberated? E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367 × 10-6 kg/ coulomb.
(a) 21.3 mg
(b) 24.3 mg
(c) 13.6 mg
(d) 17.6 mg
Q60.
(a) 1.0
(b) 0.5
(c) 3.0
(d) 2.0
Q61.
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Q65. Three resistances P, Q, Reach of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheat stone
bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value
of S?
(a) 3 Ω (b) 6 Ω (c) 1 Ω (d) 2 Ω
Q66. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an
additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750
amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is
(a) 2Ω (b) 0.2Ω (c) 2kΩ (d) 20Ω
Q67. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper volt a meter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical
equivalent of copper is 30 × 10-5 g coulomb-1 , the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be
(a) 0.50 g (b) 0.67 g (c) 0.27 g (d) 0.40 g.
Q68.
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Q73.
Q76. In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW power at 125 Vis being consumed. How much chlorine per
minute is liberated? (E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367×10-6 kg/ C)
(a) 1.76 × 10-3 kg (b) 9.67 × 10-3 kg (c) 17.61 × 10-3 kg (d) 3.67 × 10-3 kg
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(a) 30° C
(b) 450° C
(c) 400 ° C
(d) 225° C
Q79. A current of 2A flows through a 2 Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a
current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is
(a) 0.5 Ω
(b) 1/3 Ω
(c) 1/4 Ω
(d) 1 Ω
Q80.
(a) 4 volt
(b) 8 volt
(c) 10 volt
(d) 2 volt
Q81. The rate of increase of thermo–e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature of a thermocouple
(a) is positive
(b) is zero
(c) depends upon the choice of the two materials of thethermocouple
(d) is negative
Q82. A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f. of 40 μV/°C in the linear range of temperature.
A galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity is 1 μA/div, is employed with the thermocouple. The
smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be
(a) 0.5°C (b) 1°C (c) 0.1°C (d) 0.25°C
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Q83.
(a) –1V
(b) + 2V
(c) –2V
(d) + 1V
Q84. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value
(in ohm) of necessary shunt will be :
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.01
(c) 1
(d) 0.05
Q85.
(a) 4 V
(b) 2 V
(c) 12 V
(d) 6 V
Q86. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt-100 Watt B drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of
therated value by which the power would decrease is :
(a) 20%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
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Q87.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q88.
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Q92. The resistance of the four arms P, Q, Rand Sin aWheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and90
ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistanceof the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If
thegalvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawnfrom the cell will be
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.1 A (c) 2.0 A (d) 1.0 A
Q93.
(a) 0.117 V
(b) 0.00145 V
(c) 0.0145 V
(d) 1.7 × 10-6 V
Q95. Ten identical cells connected in series are neededto heat a wire of length one meter and radius ‘r’ by
10°Cin time ‘t’. How many cells will be required to heat thewire of length two meter of the same radius by the
sametemperature in time ‘t’?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
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Solutions
Q1.
(d)
Q2.
(a)
Q3.
(c)
Q4.
(b)
Q5.
(b)
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Q6.
(b)
Q7.
(c)
Q8.
(d)
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Q9.
(a)
Faraday’s law are based on the conversion of electrical energy into mechanical energy; which is in accordance
with the law of
Q10.
(a)
Q11.
(c)
In the electrolysis of CuSO4 , oxygen is liberated at anode and copper is deposited at cathode.
Q12.
(d)
Q13.
(c)
Q14.
(d)
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Q15.
(a)
Q16.
(d)
Power of heating coil = 100 W and voltage (V) = 220 volts. When the heating coil is cut into tow equal parts and
these parts are joined in parallel, then the resistance o the coil is reduced to one fourth of the previous value.
Therefore energy liberated per second becomes 4 times. i.e. 4 X 100 = 400 J
Q17.
(a)
Q18.
(c)
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Q19.
(a)
Q20.
(c)
Q21.
(b)
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Q22.
(a)
We know from the Kirchhoff’s first law that the algebraic sum of the current meeting at any junction in the
circuit is zero. (i.e. ∑I =0) or the total charge remains constant. Therefore, Kirchhoff’s first law at a junction
deals with the conservation of charge.
Q23.
(d)
Q24.
(b)
Q25.
(a)
Q26. (d)
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Q27.
(c)
Q28.
(c)
Q29.
(c)
In discharge tube the current is due to flow of positive ions and electrons. Moreover , secondary emission of
electrons is also possible. So V- I curve is non – linear; hence resistance is non – ohmic.
Q30.
(b)
Q31.
(a)
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Q32.
(b)
Q33.
(b)
Q34.
(a)
Potentiometer measures potential current more accurately because it measure potential in open circuit and
hence error in potential due to internal resistance is removed.
Q35.
(a)
Q36.
(d)
Q37.
(d)
Conductivity of semiconductor increases with increase in temperature while conductivity of metal decreases
with increase in temperature.
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Q38.
(a)
Q39.
(b)
Q40.
(a)
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Q41.
(a)
Q42.
(a)
Q43.
(b)
Q44.
(b)
Q45.
(a)
Q46.
(c)
Fuse wire : It is used in a circuit to control the maximum current flowing in circuit. It is a thin wire having high
resistance and is made up of a material with low melting point.
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Q47.
(d)
Q48.
(a)
Q49.
(a)
Q50.
(d)
Q51.
(c)
Q52.
(b)
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Q53.
(d)
A balanced whetstone’s bridge exists between A & B.Req = R
Current through circuit = V/R
Current through AFCEB = V/2R
Q54.
(d)
Q55.
(a)
Q56.
(a)
Q57.
(d)
Q58.
(d)
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Q59.
(d)
Q60.
(c)
Q61.
(c)
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Q62.
(a)
Kirchhoff’s first law deals with conservation of electric charge & the second law deals with conservation of
electrical energy.
Q63.
(d)
Q64.
(b)
Q65.
(a)
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Q66.
(a)
Q67.
(c)
Q68.
(d)
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Q69.
(b)
Q70.
(a)
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Q71.
(d)
Q72.
(d)
Q73.
(a)
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Q74.
(a)
Q75.
(b)
Q76.
(c)
Q77.
(d)
Junction law follows from conservation of charge and loop law is the conservation of energy.
Q78.
(d)
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Q79.
(b)
Q80.
(c)
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Q81.
(b)
Q82.
(d)
Q83.
(D)
Q84.
(A)
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Q85.
(B)
Q86.
(C)
Q87.(D)
Q88.
(C)
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Q89.
(C)
Q90.
(C)
Q91.
(A)
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Q92.
(A)
Q93.
(C)
Q94.
(A)
Q95.
(B)
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Z O O L O G Y
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SAI RAM EMPOWER ACADEMY | NEET Zoology (Animal Kingdom) BIT BANK
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62. Which one belongs to Platyhelminthes? 72. True coelom is the space lying
(a) Schistosoma between the alimentary canal and body
(b) Trypanosoma wall enclosed by the layers of
(c) Plasmodium (a) ectoderm on both sides
(d) Wuchereria (b) endoderm on one side and ectoderm on
63. Closed circulatory system occurs in the other
(a) snail (c) mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on
(b) cockroach the other
(c) cuttle Fish (d) mesoderm on both sides
(d) all of these 73. What is true about all sponges
64. Tube feet occur in without exception
(a) Cockroach (a) They are all marine
(b) Star Fish (b) They have flagellated collar cells
(c) Cuttle Fish (c) They have a mixed skeleton consisting of
(d) Cat Fish spicules and spongin fibres
65. All chordates possess (d) They reproduce only asexually by
(a) exoskeleton budding
(b) limbs 74. Functionwise, just as there are
(c) skull nephridia in an earthworm, so are
(d) axial skeletal rod of notochord (a) parotid glands in toad
66. A common characteristic of all (b) statocysts in prawn
vertebrates is (c) flame cells in liver fluke
(a) presence of skull (d) myotomes in fish
(b) division of body into head, neck, trunk 75. The flightless bird Cassowary is
and tail found in
(c) presence of two pairs of functional (a) Mauritius
appendages (b) Australia
(d) body is covered with an exoskeleton (c) New Zealand
67. Golden era/age of reptiles is (d) Indonesia
(a) palaeozoic 76. Animals/organisms floating on the
(b) mesozoic surface of water are
(c) recent (a) plankton
(d) proterozoic (b) pelagic
68. The organisms attached to the (c) benthos
substratum, generally, possess (d) neritic
(a) radial symmetry 77. Organ Pipe Coral is
(b) one single opening of digestive canal (a) Tubipora
(c) asymmetrical body (b) Astraea
(d) cilia on surface to create water current (c) Helipora
69. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the (d) Fungia
metamerism is exhibited by 78. Silk thread is obtained from Silk Moth
(a) cestoda during
(b) chordata (a) pupal state
(c) mollusca (b) larval state
(d) acanthocephala (c) nymph state
70. Pneumatic bones are expected to be (d) adult state
found in 79. A wood boring mollusc/Shipworm is
(a) pigeon (a) Chiton
(b) house lizard (b) Teredo
(c) frog‘s tadpole (c) Limax
(d) flying fish (d) Patella
71. Radial symmetry is usually 80. Association between Sucker Fish
associated with (Remora) and Shark is
(a) aquatic mode of life (a) Commensalism
(b) lower grade of organisation (b) Symbiosis
(c) creeping mode of locomotion (c) Predation
(d) sedentary mode of life (d) Parasitism
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20. 30.
Solution: (c) Solution: (c)
Sand fly is the vector of Kala azar Metamorphosis of insects is regulated
(Leishmaniadonovani), causes severe liver through ecdysone hormone.
infection. 31.
21. Solution: (b) Solution: (c)
Penguin is a flightless bird found in colder Musca is the zoological name of house fly
region like Antarctica. which is regarded as mechanical carrier of
22. Solution: (a) many diseases. It is very active and keeps
Stratum corneum is the outermost, on visiting on dirty things and eatables as
partially cornified layer of scale like cells. well.
Small fragments of this layer are 32. Solution: (b)
periodically shed off from the body known Larval stage of Echinoderms have bilateral
as ecdysis. The new layer is regularly symmetry and the adults have radial
formed by underlaying stratum symmetry, pentamerous i.e., body parts
germinativum. arranged in five or multiples of five.
23. 33. Solution: (b)
Solution: (d) Metanephric kidney is found differentiated
Skin in fact is a secondary or accessory into cortex and medulla and duct of such
respiratory organ in frog when frog kidney is ureter.
undergoes the hybernation or aestivation 34.
i.e. winter sleep or summer sleep & when it Solution: (b)
goes into the water for a long. Prototherians are egg laying mammals,
24. Solution: (b) they share characters with reptiles. e.g., -
Earthworm has 4 pairs of heart i.e., 2 Duck bill Platypus The Platypus
pairs Lateral hearts and 2 pairs Lateral (Ornithorhynchusanatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal
oesophageal hearts present in 7th and 9th endemic to eastern
and 12th and 13th segments respectively. Australia and Tasmania. Together with the
25. four species of echidna, it is one of the five
Solution: (a) species of monotremes, the only mammals
Bladderworm or cysticerus larva forms in that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live
Tapeworm. young. It is the sole living representative of
26. its family (Ornithorhynchidae) and genus
Solution: (a) (Ornithorhynchus), though a number of
Excretory system of Taenia consists of a related species have been found in the
pair of peculiar flame cells, which absorb fossil record.
the waste material from the body and 35.
discharges it through excretory duct. Solution: (a)
27. Presence of canal system - a network of
Solution: (b) channels for water transport - is an
The terms porifera was given by Grant, the important feature in sponges. Ascon type of
phylum includes animals with pores in canal is simplest in Porifera which brings
their body. Its classification based on in food, oxygen and carries away CO2 and
skeleton or spicules. nitrogenous waste.
28. Ascarislumbricoides infection 36.
occurs through Solution: (d)
(a) sole of uncovered feet The body of Taenia is ribbon like and is
(b) contaminated cooked measly pork divided into segments called proglottids.
(c) improperly cooked measly pork Each proglottid has one or two sets of male
(d) from air through inhalation and female reproductive organs.
29. Solution: (a) 37. Solution: (b)
Sexual dimorphism is found in cockroach. Ascaris larva is also called rhabditiform.
A pair of anal style are present in male 38.
cockroach only. Female has broader Solution: (c)
abdomenal segments. Periplanetaamericana (cockroach) cannot
act as a scavanger, it does not feed upon
dead animals.
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65. 75.
Solution: (d) Solution: (b)
All chordate possess: — Notochord at some Flightless birds are restricted to the
stage of life — Dorsal tubular nervous system — islands of Australia and New Guinea.
Pharyngeal gill slits at same stage of life cycle. 76.
66. Solution: (a)
Solution: (a) Organisms passively floating on the
Vertebrates are also known as Craniata surface of water are planktons. If floating
due to presence of skull in all its members. organisms are animals then it is
77. zooplankton and if plant – phytoplankton.
Solution: (b) 77.
Jurassic period of mesozoic era is known as the ‗Age Solution: (a)
of reptiles‘. Tubipora is organ pipe coral comes under
68. class Anthozia.
Solution: (a) 78. Solution: (a)
The organisms, which are attached to Caterpillar larva is a voracious eater, it
substratum, generally, possess radial gets matured and by secreting silk thread
symmetry in all vertical planes. changes into pupa & it encloses into silk
69. cocoon.
Solution: (b) 79. Solution: (b)
Metamerism is an important character of Teredo (shipworm) is the member of class –
annelida and arthropoda. The body is divided Bivalvia (double shell plates). Shipworms
externally into segments called metameres. are not in fact worms at all, but rather a
Metamerism is also exhibited by chordata due to group of marine mollusc
repetition of a succession of homologous structures (Eulamellibranchiata) in the family
alongthanterio-posterior axis. Teredinidae. They bore into submerged
70. Solution: (a) wood, and bacteria in a special organ called
Birds have pneumatic bones. the gland of Deshayes enable them to
71. digest cellulose. The shipworms belong to
Solution: (b) several genera of which Teredo is the most
refer answer commonly mentioned. The best known
72. species is Teredonavalis.
Solution: (d) 80.
Coelom is a fluid filled space between body Solution: (a)
wall and alimentary canal which is lined by Commensalism is an association between two
parietal peritoneum (mesoderm) on the organisms in which one is benefitted but the other is
outer side and visceral peritoneum not harmed.
(mesoderm) on the inner side. 81.
73. Solution: (c)
Solution: (b) Tortoise (Testudo) is a member of orderChelonia,
Sponges are marine with the exception of Class – Reptiles.
family spongilidae, the members of which 82. Solution: (b)
occur in fresh water e.g. Spongilla. Their Fire bellied toad (BombinaOrientalis) is a
endoskeleton is made of either spicules or member of family discoglossidae of order
spongin fibres or both. Sponges reproduce Anura of class Amphibia. Its belly is red or
asexually by fragmentation or by budding orange-red.
or through gemmules and reduction bodies. 83.
Sponges also exhibit sexual reproduction. Solution: (c)
74. Necturus (Mud puppy) order – Urodela class –
Solution: (c) Amphibia. It is a species of salamanders that is a part
Toads possess a pair of large parotid of the genus Necturus.
glands behind the tympana. They produce 84.
a milky poisonous fluid. Statocysts are the Solution: (c)
organs of equilibrium and sensory Typhols is a non poisonous blind snake.
perception located at the base of antennae. 85.
Flame cells in liver fluke are the excretory Solution: (c) Crop in birds stores & softens food and in
organs. pigeons secrete milk.
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