Bank Soal Ant I Period Ii 2017-1 PDF

TEST – ITEM BANK
FOR DECK OFFICER AT

MANAGEMENT LEVEL
ANT I PERIOD II 2017

BP3IP JAKARTA
ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II)
1. Plan a voyage and conduct navigation
2. Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by
any means
3. Determine and allow for compass errors
4. Coordinate search and rescue operations
5. Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures
6. Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from
navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision
making
7. Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and
associated navigation systems to assist command decision making
8.Forecastweatherandoceanographicconditions
9. Respond to navigational emergencies
10. Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions  
11. Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering
 systems and services 
12. Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch
covers  and ballast tanks and take appropriate action
13. Carriage of dangerous goods
14. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch
 covers and ballast tanks
15. Control trim, stability and stress
16. Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements
and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the
protection of the marine environment  
17. Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers
and the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and
other safety systems
18. Develop emergency and damage control plans and
handle emergency situations 
19. Use of leadership and managerial 
20. Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board

ANT - II
FUNGSI I . NAVIGASI KOMPETENSI 1.
1. Merencanakan pelayaran dan melaksanakan navigasi.
( Plan a voyage and conduct navigation )
1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

A. At the start of the sea voyage.
B. Before the voyage commences.
C. When requested by a pilot.
D. After the pilot has disembarked
2. What should a passage plan include ?

A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
C. The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage.
D. The master decides what to include in the passage plan
3. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from
the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the .
A. DR plot
B. Track line
C. Heading
D. Estimated course
4. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying
reefs and shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts
5. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the
North Atlantic Ocean?
A. Pilot chart
B. Coast Pilot
C. Current Table
D. Climatological Atlas
6. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the

A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
B. Longitude scale near the middle of the track line
C. Latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart
D. Latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale

7. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted depth of
an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel
clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest
time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May
1983 and meet these requirements?
A. 1610
B. 1728
C. 1821
D. 2350
8. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance

NOT approximately the same as the great circle distance?
A. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
C. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres
D. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both are near the 180th
meridian.
9. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information
about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in
that port?
A. American Practical Navigator
B. Notice to Mariners
C. Coast Pilot
D. Sailing Directions
10. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the .
A. Position and area of the current
B. Speed and direction toward which the current flows
C. Type and characteristic of the current's flow
D. None of the above
11. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship
would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the following
EXCEPT the .
A. Coast Pilot
B. Harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
C. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
D. Light List
12. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to
intercept vessel A?
A. 249°

B. 256°
C. 262°
D. 268°
13. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation
by means of .
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
B. Weekly Notices to Mariners
C. Corrected editions of charts
D. Light Lists
14. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by .

A. Local Notice to Mariners
B. Weekly Notice to Mariner
C. Marine broadcasts
D. All of the above
15. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in
.
A. The Philippines
B. Australia
C. Republic of Korea
D. Chile
16. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?

A. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA
warnings are the same.
B. NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and inland navigation in large
bays or sounds such as Puget Soun
C. The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in the
North Atlantic north of 7°N, and west of 15°W.
D. Long range radio navigational warnings are usually broadcast by radiotelephone,
radiotelegraph, and radio-teletypewriter.
17. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA- B Buoyage
System?
A. Poland
B. Morocco
C. Peru
D. Saudi Arabia
18. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?

A. Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S. Coast Guar
B. New editions are published by the National Ocean Service.
C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.

19. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine
information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
A. XI
B. IV and XI
C. V and X
D. VI and VII
20. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
A. Chart No. 1
B. Catalog of Charts
C. Guidance for Practical Navigator
D. Coast Guard Light List
21. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to port ?
A. World Port Index
B. Coast Pilot
C. Nautical Index
D. Sailing Directions
22. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is

A. Unpredictable
B. Generally too weak to be of concern
C. Predicted in Tidal Current Tables
D. Generally constant
23. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on .

A. Well-charted inner dangers
B. Port facilities
C. Coastal anchorages
D. Offshore traffic separation schemes
24. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a
red sector. The red sector _.
A. Indicates the limits of the navigable channel
B. Indicates a danger area
C. Is used to identify the characteristics of the light
D. Serves no significant purpose
25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

A. Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
B. Those set up by local authorities
C. Those defined on navigational charts
D. All of the above

26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330
nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long
A. 330 naut. Miles
B. 300 naut. Miles
C. 320 naut. Miles
D. 315 naut. Miles
27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is
in open waters ?
A. Just before the change of watch
B. Twice a watch
C. At least every 30 minutes
D. Only when the visibility drops
28. What chart should be used when navigating ?

A. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
B. Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through as long as it is
connected
C. The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area
D. The chart which covers the largest part of the passage
29. Define the required interval between position fixes.

A. Before the vessel is due to alter course
B. When the weather changes
C. Such as the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were incorrect
D. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by the effects of
wind, tide or current
30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from .

A. The chart catalogue
B. The Annual Notice to Mariners
C. The latest cumulative notices to mariners
D. The Guide to Port Entry
31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published a year.

A. Three times
B. Once
C. Four times
D. Twice
32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out .

A. Every day at noon when at sea
B. On completion of maneuvering in port
C. One to two hours prior sailing
D. Whenever an item of navigation equipment is not functioning

33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an
Indian Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
A. Port approach chart
B. Admiralty Sailing Directions
C. Admiralty list of Radio Signals
D. Guide to Port Entry
34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning a
passage in coastal waters?
A. Under keel clearance
B. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges
C. No - Go areas
D. Choice of ocean route
35. A voyage passage plan is made from .

A. Pilot station to pilot station
B. Fairway buoy to fairway buoy
C. Berth to berth
D. Berth to drop of pilot of that particular port and from arrival pilot station to the berth
36. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical
letters. This indicates the .
A. Rock is visible at low water springs only
B. Rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
C. Rock is dry at high water
D. Exact position of the rock is doubtful
37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships are on:
A. Parallel courses
B. Opposite courses
C. Diverging courses
D. Collision courses
38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the

ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
A. 5.5 and 6.0 to 1
B. 6.2 and 6.8 to 1
C. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
D. 8.2 and 8.5 to 1
39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on
hydrographic maps ?
A. Light houses
B. Church spires
C. Shore line

D. All the above
40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of ships, is known
as break water
B. The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel likely to be
berthe
C. The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and unloading is called a
mole
D. All the above
41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart. By
2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very goo What action would you take?
A. Keep looking out.
B. Call Master.
C. Stop engines.
D. Alter course.
42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
A. At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with vessels within the
lane
B. On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane
C. On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow
D. On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right angles to the
direction of traffic flow
43. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date
Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when
the vessel crosses the line?
A. 0900, 24 January
B. 2100, 24 January
C. 2100, 25 January
D. 0900, 26 January
44. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water
is called the .
A. Range of the tide
B. Plane of the tide
C. Stand of the tide
D. Reversing of the tide
45. Spring tides are tides that .

A. Have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
B. Have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
C. Are unpredictable

D. Occur in the spring of the year
46. Mean high water is the reference plane used for .

A. All vertical measurements
B. Heights above water of land features such as lights
C. Soundings on the East and West Coasts
D. Water depths on the East Coast only
47. The range of tide is the .

A. Distance the tide moves out from the shore
B. Duration of time between high and low tide
C. Difference between the heights of high and low tide
D. Maximum depth of the water at high tide
48. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is
.
A. Mean sea level
B. Mean high water
C. Mean low water
D. Half-tide level
49. Charted depth is the .

A. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom, plus the height of
tide
B. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
C. Average height of water over a specified period of time
D. Average height of all low waters at a place
50. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is
.
A. Mean low water
B. The same as that used for the charts of the locality
C. The highest possible level
D. Given in table three of the tide tables
51. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate .

A. A shallow depth reading
B. A zero depth reading
C. No depth reading
D. Two depth readings
52. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur?
A. Apogean
B. Perigean
C. Neap

D. Spring
53. Priming of the tides occurs .

A. At times of new and full Moon
B. When the Earth, Moon, and Sun are lying approximately on the same line
C. When the Moon is between first quarter and full and between third quarter and new
D. When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third quarter
54. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in shore's lines, traffic
corresponds to that region is :
A. Traffic Areas
B. Traffic lines
C. Range of Traffic
D. Leading Area
55. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area
A. Course lines
B. Trafiic lines
C. Leading lines
D. Heading lines
56. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to passage plan :
A. Bridge attention
B. Plan Changes
C. Passage changing
D. All the above
57. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra caution is
A. Dangerous area
B. Area to be avoid
C. Precautionary area
D. No Go Area
58. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning :

A. Checking, maintain and records
B. Planning, maintain and records
C. Excecution, maintain and monitoring
D. Planning, execution and monitoring
59. Area which may not navigate to get bearing with depth and danger of navigation is
A. Coution Area
B. No Go Area
C. Danger area
D. Area to be avoid

60. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by clasification indeed is :
A. Coution Area
B. No Go Area
C. Danger area
D. Area to be avoid
61. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship arriving at way point's is :
A. Way Point
B. Fix Position Cordinate
C. Wheel Over Point
D. Point to altering the course
62. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and
shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts
63. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show
which light characteristic?
A. Isophase
B. Quick flashing
C. Long flashing
D. Group Flashing (2 + 1)
64. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?

A. Any position
B. A known position
C. An assumed position
65. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that .

A. 1 inch is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
B. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
D. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the
Earth's surface
66. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on the
proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper
zone time?
A. 45°00'W
B. 52°30'W
C. 60°00'W

D. 67°30'W
67. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

A. They occur only at quadrature.
B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe
D. They have a decreased range from normal.
68. Safe water buoys may show ONLY .

A. Flashing red lights
B. Flashing green lights
C. White lights
D. Yellow lights
69. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a

A. Radar conspicuous beacon
B. Circular radio beacon
C. Radar transponder beacon
D. Radar calibration beacon
70. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean .

A. High water line
B. Low water line
C. Low water spring line
D. Tide level
71. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west
longitude. What is your local time?
A. You are in -12 time zone.
B. It is 1700, March 18.
C. It is 0500, March 16.
D. It is 0500, March 18.
72. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet
available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range
lights as shown on your starboard beam. You should .
A. Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of obstructions
B. Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights will be an
indication of dragging anchor
C. Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
D. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line
73. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to
a common time is a(n) .
A. Running fix

B. Dead-reckoning position
C. Fix
D. Estimated position
74. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) .

A. White light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
B. Occulting green light and may be lettered
C. Yellow light and will be numbered
D. Continuous quick white light and may be numbered
75. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining
positions and include which of the following?
A. All of these suggested answers
B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks
D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS
76. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if approved by the Flag State
D. Only if approved by the owner
77. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river,
when under pilot?
A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship
is under pilot
B. A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for transiting a canal under
pilotage.
C. A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board
D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot station at the
destination.
78. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge
team.
B. All navigational equipment fully functional.
C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently
D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective
operation
79. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing
the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?

A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in
the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
B. The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not
necessary
C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst
on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the
passage plan is not necessary
D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the
ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.
80. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would
most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to
steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing
by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather
routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds
C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive
within prescribed schedule
D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The
limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits
81. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?
A. Subtract the draft of the vessel.
B. Add the draft of the vessel.
C. Subtract the sea water correction .
D. Add the sea water correction.
82. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from
the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the .
A. DR plot
B. Track line
C. Heading
D. Estimated course
83. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a .

A. Sailing chart
B. General chart
C. Coast chart
D. Harbor chart
84. Tropic tides are caused by the .

A. Moon being at its maximum declination
B. Moon crossing the equator

C. Sun and Moon both being near 0° declination
D. Moon being at perigee
85. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

A. They occur only at quadrature.
B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe
D. They have a decreased range from normal.
86. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal perio
How long is this cycle?
A. 16 days
B. 18 days
C. 6 years
D. 19 years
87. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic
Coast is A. Interval
B. Mixed
C. Diurnal
D. Semidiurnal
88. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an
entrance or strait at what time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?
A. One hour after the predicted time
B. At the predicted time
C. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
D. 30 minutes before the predicted time
89. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side
of a channel would be marked by a .
A. Red can buoy
B. Black can buoy
C. Red conical buoy
D. Black conical buoy
90. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to

A. 11.5 fathoms
B. 12.6 fathoms
C. 69.0 feet
D. 78.6 feet
91. Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying?
A. Gnomonic
B. Lambert conformal

C. Mercator
D. Polyconic
92. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you
encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?
A. Pass it about 50 yards off on either side.
B. Leave it to your starboard
C. Leave it to your port.
D. Pass it well clear on either side.
93. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?

A. It is an equal-area projection.
B. It is a conformal projection.
C. Meridians appear as curved lines.
D. The scale is correct along any meridian.
94. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted .

A. Whenever an estimated position is plotted
B. When it agrees with your loran position
C. When coming on or going off soundings
D. At least every hour on the hour in the open waters of the sea
95. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about .

A. Average wind condition
B. Tidal currents
C. Magnetic variation
D. Average limits of field ice
96. Where will you find information about the duration of slack water?
A. American Practical Navigator
B. Sailing Directions
C. Tide Tables
D. Tidal Current Tables
97. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information
concerning the
A. Percentage of frequency of wave heights
B. Percentage of poor visibility conditions
C. Sea surface temperatures
D. Amounts of precipitation
98. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg limits,
you could find this information in the .
A. Pilot Chart
B. Coast Pilot

C. Notice to Mariners
99. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are
measured in reference to .
A. The meridian through the object of the bearing
B. The meridian through the ship's position
C. The meridian midway between the ship and the object
D. Any meridian
100. The marking A is .

A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course
101. The marking B is .

A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course
102. The marking C is .

A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course
103. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on .

A. Well-charted inner dangers
B. Port facilities
C. Coastal anchorages
D. Offshore traffic separation schemes
104. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules?

A. They list requirements for Traffic Separation Schemes.
B. They define moderate spee
C. They require communication by radiotelephone to reach a passing agreement.
D. All of the above
105. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment, which
document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS?
A. A report giving the result of the Conformance Test issued by an Approved Service
Provider on behalf of the flag

B. A report giving the result of the Performance Test, issued by the manufacturer in
compliance with the Flag State Authority requirements.
C. The Certificate of Compliance with SOLAS V/19-1, bearing the serial number of
the equipment installation.
D. A Statement of Installation and and Testing by the Approved ServiceProvider in
compliance with SOLAS V/26-4.
106. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a competent
person required under SOLAS?
A. Annually.
B. At the Intermediate Safety Equipment Survey.
C. When the battery is replace
D. When the data media is downloade
107. What is the main purpose of VTS?

A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity.
B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area
C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the are
D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS
steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing
by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather
routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds
C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive
within prescribed schedule
D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The
109. A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which
A. Is located between the scheme and the nearest land
B. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite
direction
C. Is designated as an anchorage area
D. Contains all the traffic moving in the same direction
110. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall .

A. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on as small an angle as is
practical
C. Only anchor in the separation zone

D. Use the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she is hindering other traffic
due to her slower speed
111. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall NOT .

A. Cross a traffic lane
B. Engage in fishing the separation zone
C. Proceed in an inappropriate traffic lane
D. Enter the separation zone
112. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall .

A. Only anchor in the separation zone
B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on a heading at as
small an angle as is practical
C. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
D. Use the separation zone for navigation through the scheme if she is hindering other traffic
due to her slower speed
113. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic
separation scheme which .
A. Is between the scheme and the nearest land
B. Contains all the traffic moving in one direction
C. Is designated as an anchorage area
D. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite
direction

2. Penentuan posisi dan ketepatan atas hasil akhir penentuan
posisi menggunakan berbagai cara.
(Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any
means )
1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass
bearings?
A. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
B. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
C. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore
it can be ignored
D. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is
Require
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other
means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the
most accurate?
A. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the
radar.
B. Compass bearings of three shore objects
C. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
D. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three
radio beacons
3. What is important to check when transferring a position

from the GPS output to a paper chart?
A. Any necessary corrections are applied to
convert between the GPS datum and the chart
datum
B. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3
dimensional position fixes.
C. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
D. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.
4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
A. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
B. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed
on the screen
C. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
D. The GPS display is always very accurate and does
not give any indication of lack of accuracy.

5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an
observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing
the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
A. Figure 4 is correct.
B. Figure 1 is correct.
C. Figure 2 is correct.
D. Figure 3 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude
of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
A. Calculation 3 is correct.
B. Calculation 1 is correct.
C. Calculation 2 is correct.
D. Calculation 4 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
A. Figure 2 is correct.
B. Figure 1 is correct.
C. Figure 3 is correct.
D. Figure 4 is correct.
8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.

A. Buoys close at hand
B. Fixed known objects on shore
C. Buoys at a distance
D. All of the above
9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because

__________.
A. Signals begin to blink
B. Signals begin to shift
C. Stations discontinue transmission
D. Stations transmit grass
10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered?
A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the
charted location.
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position.

D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has
been freshly painte
11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible
horizon when __________.
A. In high latitudes
B. The Sun is near or at a solstice
C. The declination is of a different name from the latitude
D. The Sun's declination is at or near 0°
12. When navigating a vessel, you __________.

A. Can always rely on a buoy to be on station
B. Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
C. Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
D. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
13. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that
time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets
available for evening sights is TRUE?
A. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
B. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
C. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
D. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position fix.
14. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
A. During calm weather only
B. During daylight only
C. Only when inside a harbor
D. Only when fixed aids are not available
15. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check.
What would the azimuth have to be?
A. 000°T
B. 090°T
C. 150°T
D. 240°T
16. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of
__________.
A. 3,600 miles
B. 5,400 miles
C. 12,500 miles
D. 21,600 miles
17. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use
to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?

A. 1842
B. 1652
C. 0728
D. 0652
18. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times
and advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Dead-reckoning position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. Running fix
19. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________.
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Saturn
D. Polaris
20. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you
use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 065
B. 0652
C. 1859
D. 1852
21. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
__________.
A. Assumed position
C. Fix
D. Running fix
22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________.
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Mars
D. Mercury
23. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards
which permit __________.
A. Every station in one chain to transmit at the same tim
B. Each station to transmit without reference to another station
C. On-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time
D. Each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and

signal ratio
24. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day
of the month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and
date is now __________.
A. 00h 02m on the 4th
B. 00h 02m on the 5th
C. 23h 50m on the 5th
D. 00h 02m on the 6th
25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?

A. Dead reckoning position
B. Leeway position
C. Estimated position
D. Set position
26. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What
is the right ascension of the planet?
A. 7 hours
B. 11 hours
C. 19 hours
D. 23 hours
27. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C
stations is very closely controlled and operates with __________.
A. An atomic time standard
B. Daylight Savings Time
C. Eastern Standard Time
D. Greenwich Mean Time
28. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
__________.
A. 1.25 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 75 minutes
29. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's
course and speed is a(n) __________.
A. Dead reckoning position
C. Fix
30. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken

at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.
C. Fix
D. Running fix
31. The date is the same all over the world at __________.
A. 0000 GM
B. 1200 GMT
C. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
D. No time
32. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
C. Fix
D. Running fix
33. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum
skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is receive This is called the
__________.
A. Skip zone
B. Blackout zone
C. Diffraction zone
D. Shadow zone
34. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
35. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
__________.
A. Index mirror
B. Horizon glass
C. Micrometer drum
D. Telescope
36. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westwar
What is your local time?
A. It is 1000, 5 July
B. It is 1000, 6 July.
C. It is 2200, 7 July.

D. It is 1000, 7 July.
37. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.

A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame
B. Mounted on the index arm
C. Between the horizon and the shade glasses
D. All of the above
38. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at
that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the
planets available for morning sights is TRUE?
A. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
B. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix
C. Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
D. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.
39. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites
that your receiver is locked onto?
A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
B. Selective Availability
C. Doppler Shifting
D. Precision Coding
40. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on
the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 40°
D. 60°
41. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time unit
C. Longitude in time units
D. Zone description
42. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

A. Radar station
B. Radar transponder beacon
C. Radio beacon
D. Aero light
43. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two dimensional

fix?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
44. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
B. Dip error
C. Negative correction
D. Semi diameter error
45. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If
you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the
apparent Sun cross the meridian?
A. 1148
B. 1200
C. 1212
D. It cannot be determined from the information given.
46. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix
your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
B. You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
C. The current cannot be determine
D. The drift is 0.25 knot.
47. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
B. Dip error
C. Negative correction
D. Semi diameter error
48. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you
are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your
meridian at __________.
A. 11-51-20 ZT
B. 12-00-00 ZT
C. 12-04-20 ZT
D. 12-08-40 ZT
49. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three
dimensional
fix that takes into account altitude?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
50. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index
error?
A. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
B. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
C. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
D. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
51. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
A. It is afternoon at Greenwich.
B. It is midnight at 126°E longitude.
C. The observer is in time zone -4.
D. All of the above are true.
52. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
A. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
B. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
C. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
D. Elliptical centering error
53. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may
be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is
__________.
A. Index error
B. Prismatic error
C. Perpendicularity of the horizon glass
D. Perpendicularity of the index mirror
54. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
__________.
A. Center bearings
B. Tangent bearings
C. Ranges
D. Objects that are close aboard
55. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and
advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Running fix
B. Dead-reckoning position
C. Fix

56. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30
knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
A. Cn 240°, 28.0 knots
B. Cn 270°, 28.0 knots
C. Cn 180°, 30.0 knots
D. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
57. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?

A. Prismatic error
B. Index error
C. Side error
D. Error of collimation
58. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the
longitude of the observer is the __________.
A. Right ascension
B. Meridian angle
C. SHA of the observe
D. Zenith distance
59. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________.
A. Index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set at zero
B. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
C. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame
D. Telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame
60. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to
indicate the __________.
A. Distance to the next port
B. Speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
C. Time of the next navigational satellite pass
61. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the
transmitting stations as __________.
A. Gains are made over the signal path
B. A result of variation in propagation conditions
C. The frequency of the pulses increases
D. The stations shift pulses
62. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.

A. Sextant frame

B. Horizon glass
C. Index mirror
D. Micrometer drum
63. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?

A. 127°33'E
B. 52°27'E
C. 61°52'W
D. 61°52'E
64. A polyconic projection is based on a __________.

A. Plane tangent at one point
B. Cylinder tangent at one parallel
C. Cone tangent at one parallel
D. Series of cones tangent at selected parallels
65. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the
horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated
about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has __________.
A. Error of perpendicularity
B. Side error
C. Prismatic error
D. Centering error
66. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

A. Should never use radar bearings
B. Should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the horizon
C. Can use radar information from one object to fix the position
D. Must use information from targets forward of the beam
67. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.

A. North and increasing
B. North and decreasing
C. South and increasing
D. South and decreasing
68. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other
during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the
induced ignition ?
A. A 3 cm radar.
B. A 10cm radar.
C. Neither a 10 cm or a 3 cm radar.

D. Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar.
69. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.

A. The radar of the nearest land
B. The radio direction finder
C. Buoys close at hand
D. Fixed known objects on the shore
70. In Loran C ___________.

A. The master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
B. The master station transmits one long pulse and the secondary stations transmit 8 short
pulses each
C. The master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8 pulses each
D. The master station transmits 8 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 9 pulses each
71. In Mercator sailing ________---.

A. D'long / DMP = Tan course
B. Dep / d'long = Cos Course
C. DMP = d'long x Secant Course
D. DMP = d'lat x Secant Course
72. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
A. Three bearing position lines are available of different objects
B. Only one bearing line is available
C. Two bearing lines from two different objects are available
D. A bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available
73. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
A. 1863.07
B. 634.77
C. 1248.92
D. 614.15
74. The Decca green zone has ________.

A. 18 lanes
B. 24 lanes
C. 30 lanes
D. 72 lanes
75. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.

A. The height of a bridge above sea level
B. A position line
C. A position circle

D. The ullage of a tank
76. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the
arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is
the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
A. 38?30.8'
B. 38?17.6'
C. 37?45.8'
D. 38?23.6'
77. What will be the d?Long for departure of 66.5? When the ship is on m?Lat of 29
degrees N.
A. 137?
B. 76?
C. 36.8?
D. 77.0?
78. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.

A. 137?18'
B. 96?37'
C. 80?47'
D. 90?52'
79. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.

A. By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
B. By the meteorological department of that country
C. By the mercantile marine department of that country
D. By national broadcasting corporations
80. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____.

A. Westerly
B. Easterly
C. Northerly
D. Southerly
81. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?S
position?
A. Doubling angle on the bow.
B. One bearing and distance of one object.
C. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
D. A three point bearing.
82. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer reading
'off the arc' was 32.8' and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the
sextant?

A. 0.8' off the arc
B. 0.4' off the arc
C. 0.8' on the arc
D. 0.4' on the arc
83. In latitude 42 36? N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26 30? W to longitude 21
12? W . What departure has she made?
A. 234.08 miles
B. 234.00 miles
C. 235.00 miles
D. 235.08 miles
84. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least _____.
A. 1 object
B. 2 objects
C. 3 objects
D. 4 objects
85. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is _______.
A. 360?
B. 090?
C. 180?
D. 270?
86. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when setting makes
an angle of 30? At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth?
A. 150?
B. 330?
C. 030?
D. 270?
87. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on GMT
on 20th March. What will be the error on 4th April?
A. 5m 48s
B. 6m 48s
C. 2m 48s
D. 3m 48s
88. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational mark is
available and radar cannot be used to find the distance off is called ____________.
A. A running fix
B. Plotting by DR Latitude and bearing line
C. Plotting by DR longitude and bearing line
D. Course line intersection technique

89. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________.
A. The Equator
B. 30?N Latitude
C. 30?S Latitude
D. 80?N Latitude
90. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units
C. Longitude in time units
D. Zone description
91. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial
navigation, it is used to determine __________.
A. Zone time
B. Sunrise
C. Time of local apparent noon
D. Local mean time
92. 90° - Ho = __________.

A. Sextant altitude
B. Co-latitude
C. LHA
D. Zenith distance
93. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs,
are for the __________.
A. Upper limb of a celestial body
B. Lower limb of a celestial body
C. Centers of the various celestial bodies
D. Lower limb of the Sun and Moon; center of the stars and planets
94. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
A. The objects lie in a straight line.
B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
95. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal
projection, __________.

A. A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
B. The chart should not be used outside of the standard parallels
C. The course angle is measured at the mid-longitude of the track line
D. Distance cannot be measured directly from the chart
96. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of
__________.
A. The angle between the horizontal and the line of sight to the visible horizon
B. Index error
C. Parallax
D. Terrestrial refraction
97. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
A. The objects lie in a straight line.
B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
98. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than
using a Mercator?
A. Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
B. Determining latitude and longitude of a fix
C. Measuring rhumb line distances
D. Measuring rhumb line directions
99. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always
subtract the dip because you are correcting __________.
A. Hs to the visible horizon
B. Hs to the sensible horizon
C. Hs to the celestial horizon
D. Ho to the celestial horizon
100. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for
__________.
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Venus
101. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.

A. Mars
B. The Moon
C. Jupiter
D. All of the above

102. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________.
A. Plane tangent at one point
B. Cylinder tangent at the equator
C. Cone tangent at one parallel
D. Infinite series of cones tangent at selected parallels
103. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on the
radar by __________.
A. A dashed line running from the center of the scope to the light
B. An audible signal when the sweep crosses the light
C. A circle appearing on the scope surrounding the light
D. A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the light
104. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by refraction,
increases as the __________.
A. Horizontal parallax decrease
B. Observer's height above sea level increases
C. Humidity of the atmosphere decreases
D. Altitude of the body decreases
105. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will be a(n)
__________.
A. Straight line
B. Arc
C. Parabola
D. Line parallel to the coast
106. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and transcribed
by the daily motion of the body, is called the __________.
A. Hour circle of the body
B. Parallel of declination
C. Vertical circle of the body
D. Parallel of altitude
107. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same accuracy
as a military receiver if __________.
A. Selective availability is set to zero
B. The satellites are all below 15° in elevation
C. Your vessel is equipped with a Doppler receiver
D. The horizontal dilution of precision is high

108. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on the
terrestrial sphere?
A. Altitude
B. Right ascension
C. Celestial meridians
D. Declination
109. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading
flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of
bearings are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic
110. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n)
__________.
A. Relative bearing
B. Range line
C. Track line
111. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is observed with
a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant
altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude?
A. Ho 4°18.6'
B. Ho 4°29.1'
C. Ho 4°36.3'
D. Ho 4°42.2'
112. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant
altitude (hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 31 feet (9.3
meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A. 31°06.2'
B. 58°53.1'
C. 58°12.2'
D. 58°03.2'
113. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?
A. Celestial Equator

B. Prime Meridian
C. Celestial Meridian
D. Prime Vertical Circle
114. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'. The
temperature is -10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye is 42 feet. The
index error is 1.9' off the ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A. 4°10.2'
B. 4°14.3'
C. 4°17.0'
D. 4°24.1'
115. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N and
LAT 31°30'N, which 30 mile scale should be used?
A. 33°00'N to 33°30'N
B. 32°30'N to 33°00'N
C. 32°45'N to 33°15'N
D. 32°15'N to 32°45'N
116. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________.

A. Direction of a target
B. Distance to a target
C. Size of a target
D. Shape of a target
117. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The
actual position of the vessel __________.
A. Is outside of the triangle
B. May be anywhere in the triangle
C. May be inside or outside of the triangle
D. Is the geometric center of the triangle
118. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest?
A. Antares + 1.2
B. Altair + 0.9
C. Vega + 0.1
D. Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not brightness
119. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the principal
vertical circle to the ____________ .
A. Greenwich celestial meridian
B. Hour circle of the body
C. Local celestial meridian
D. Vertical circle of the body

120. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe a
celestial body on which bearing?
A. 180°
B. 238°
C. 328°
D. 090°
121. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a
__________.
A. Longitude line
B. Latitude line
C. Line of position
D. Fix
122: When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your\ horizontal
accuracy to be better than __________.
A. 3 meter
B. 20 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 200 meters
123. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

A. Position
B. Electronic navigational chart source
C. Course made good history
D. All of the above
124. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at
a minimum, __________.
A. An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
B. A warning of loss of position
C. A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
D. All of the above
125. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent
to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
A. Transis
B. Selective Availability
C. Auto-correlation
D. Anti-spoofing
126. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by

__________.

A. DGPS, within a coverage area
B. SPS, without selective availability
C. PPS, without selective availability
D. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift

3. Menghitung dan Menggunakan Kesalahan Kompas.
(Determine and allow for compass errors )
1. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass.

They are ___
A. Accurate only in the Polar regions
B. Accurate electronic servomechanisms
C. Hand operated
D. Accurate only if the vessel is underway
2. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are

called_________
A. Magnetic latitudes
B. Magnetic declinations
C. Dip
D. Isogonic lines
3. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears

185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahead
This indicates that you(r) __________.
A. Must come right to get on the range
B. Course is in error
C. Compass has some easterly error
D. Are being affected by a southerly current
4. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic

compass_______
A. Remains aligned with compass north
B. Also turns to starboard
C. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
D. Turns counterclockwise to port
5. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart __________.

A. On the compass rose
B. On the mileage scale
C. Written on the chart title
D. At each line of longitude
6. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels?

A. Compass error is negligible at or near the earth's magnetic poles.
B. It does not have to be checked as often.
C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
D. All points on the compass rose are readily visible.

7. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic
8. Magnetic compass deviation __________.

A. Varies depending upon the bearing used
B. Is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north
C. Is published on the compass rose on most nautical charts
D. Is the angular difference between geographic and magnetic meridians
9. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________.

A. Vessel's geographic position
B. Vessel's heading
C. Earth's magnetic field
D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
10. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.

A. The vessel's heading
B. Sea conditions
C. Seasons
D. The vessel's position
11. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?

A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite
polarity attract.
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation.
D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the
isogonic lines of the Earth
12. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.

A. Speed
B. Vessel heading
C. Geographical location
D. Cargo
13. Variation is the angular measurement between __________.

A. Compass north and magnetic north
B. Compass north and true north
C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian
14. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.

A. True north
B. Magnetic north
C. The vessel's beam
D. The vessel's head
15. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.
A. Deviation
B. Annual rate of variation change
C. Precession
D. Compass error
16. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
because __
A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment
B. The quadrantal error is 0°
C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error
17. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when
the___________
A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles
C. Variation is near zero
D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator
18. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the
Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the_____________
A. North magnetic pole
B. South magnetic pole
C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian
D. Magnetic equator
19. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading
by_________
A. Compass error
B. Latitude
C. Variation
D. Deviation
20. Compass error is equal to the __________.
A. Deviation minus variation
B. Variation plus compass course
C. Combined variation and deviation
D. Difference between true and magnetic heading
21. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should
apply___________
A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Variation and deviation
D. A correction for the direction of current set
22. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
A. Poor steering
B. Leeway
C. Known compass error
D. Ocean currents
23. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even
keel, heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________.
A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the heeling
magnet
D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted
24. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________.

A. Flinders bar should be inverted
B. Heeling magnet should be inverted
C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180°
D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle
25. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________.

A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. Remove heeling error
D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
26. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to
compensate for _______
A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
B. The residual deviation
C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
27. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B. A single vertical magnet under the compass
C. The Flinders bar
D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle
28. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed

by the __________.
A. Flinders bar
B. Transverse magnets
C. Fore-and-aft magnets
D. Soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass
29. You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the
adjustment at sea, in what order should the following dockside adjustments be
made?
A. Flinders bar first, then the heeling magnet and spheres
B. Heeling magnet first, then the Flinders bar and spheres
C. Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet
D. Spheres first, then the Flinders bar and heeling magnet
30. When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets,
you should
A. Use the magnets one at a time, putting one in one side and then one on the
opposite side, one step higher.
B. Use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at the highest point of
travel
C. Use the magnets in pairs, from the bottom up, with the trays at the lowest point
of travel
D. Fill all the trays with magnets, then remove them one-by-one until the deviation
is removed
31. The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the __________.
A. Induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
B. Induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron
C. Permanent magnetism in ship's steel
D. Vessel's inclination from the vertical
32. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism
in vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of
the deviation?
A. The Flinders bar
B. The heeling magnet
C. Quadrantal soft iron spheres
D. Bar magnets in the binnacle
33. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used
to compensate for __________.
A. The horizontal component of the permanent magnetism
B. Deviation caused by the vessel's inclination from the vertical
C. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
D. Induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
34. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent
and induced effects of magnetism?
A. Quadrantal spheres
B. Heeling magnets
C. Athwartships magnets
D. Fore-and-aft magnets
35. Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heels over?
A. The soft iron spheres on the arms of the binnacle
B. Magnets placed in trays inside the binnacle
C. A single vertical magnet beneath the compass
D. The Flinders bar
36. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.
A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
C. 2° and is constant on all headings
D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°
37. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be
broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________.
A. Divisional parts
B. Coefficients
C. Fractional parts
D. Equations
38. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
__________.
A. Before correcting for any deviation
B. After correcting for variation
C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass
39. The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to __________.

A. Reduce the variation as much as possible
B. Reduce the deviation as much as possible
C. Reduce the magnetic dip as much as possible
D. Allow the compass bowl to swing freely on its gimbals
40. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation
due to permanent magnetism __________.
A. Increases
B. Remains the same
C. Decrease
D. Is unimportant and may be neglected
41. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then __________.
A. The deviation has been offset by the variation
B. There is something wrong with the compass
C. The compass is being influenced by nearby metals
D. There is no deviation on that heading
42. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?
A. Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
B. Red lines on the main body of the chart
C. In parenthesis on the lines of equal magnetic variation
D. Annual rate of change is not shown.
43. Deviation is the angle between the __________.

A. True meridian and the axis of the compass card
B. True meridian and the magnetic meridian
C. Magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
D. Axis of the compass card and the degaussing meridian
44. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart
provide?
A. Variation
B. True directions
C. Magnetic directions
D. Annual rate of variation change
45. The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of
the magnetic compass is __________.
A. Deviation
B. Variation
C. Compass error
D. Dip
46. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.
A. True directions
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Magnetic directions
47. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart?

A. Magnetic compass table
B. Magnetic meridians
C. Isogonic lines
D. Variation is not indicated on small-scale nautical charts.
48. Deviation changes with a change in __________.

A. Latitude
B. Heading
C. Longitude
D. Sea conditions
49. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.
A. True directions
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Magnetic directions
50. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the
Earth's, which statement is TRUE?
A. Compass error and variation are equal.
B. Compass north will be true north.
C. Variation will equal deviation.
D. There will be no compass error.
51. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________.
A. The handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226
B. The center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
C. The compass deviation table
D. Variation does not change.
52. Variation is a compass error that you __________.

A. Can correct by adjusting the compass card
B. Can correct by adjusting the compensating magnets
C. Can correct by changing the vessel's heading
D. Cannot correct
53. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.

A. Compass north
B. The direction of the vessel's head
C. Magnetic north
D. A relative bearing taken with an azimuth circle
54. The directive force of a gyrocompass __________.

A. Increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic poles
B. Decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
C. Is greatest when a vessel is near the Earth's magnetic equator
D. Remains the same at all latitudes
55. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?

A. Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
B. It seeks the true meridian.
C. It can be used near the Earth's magnetic poles.
D. If an error exists, it is the same on all headings
56. The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an
east-west direction is called __________.
A. Damping error
B. Ballistic deflection
C. Quadrantal error
D. Speed error
57. A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a

__________.
A. Spider element
B. Mercury ballistic
C. Gyrotron
D. Rotor
58. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________.
A. Spider element
B. Sensitive element
C. Link arm
D. Pickup transformer
59. Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the
__________.
A. Follow-up system
B. Transmitter
C. Phantom element
D. Azimuth motor
60. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to
be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings?
A. The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error must
be added to the compass to obtain true
B. The readings are too low and the amount of the error must be subtracted from
the compass to obtain true
C. The readings are too high (large numerically) and the amount of the error must
be added to the compass to obtain true
D. The readings are too high and the amount of the error must be subtracted from
the compass to obtain true
61. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?

A. The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all headings.
B. The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different headings of the ship.
C. Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped and restarte
D. Any error shown by a gyro repeater will be the same as the error of the master
compass.
62. The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is
by
__________.
A. Comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth of
the body
B. Comparing the gyro heading with the magnetic compass heading
C. Determining from the chart the course made good between celestial fixes
D. It cannot be determined accurately at sea due to drift of unknown currents
.
63. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply __________.
A. Magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
B. Deviation
C. Variation
D. Deviation and variation
64. Magnetic information on a chart may be __________.

A. Found in the center(s) of the compass rose(s)
B. Indicated by isogonic lines
C. Found in a note on the chart
D. All of the above
65. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) ______.
A. Must come right to get on the range
B. Course is in error
C. Compass has some easterly error
D. Are being affected by a southerly current
66. Horizon earth rate causes a free spinning gyro to appear to __________ to an
observer on the earth
A. Change in azimuth
B. Tip or tilt
C. Slow down
D. Spin very rapidly
67. If your gyro compass reads 20 degrees lower than your magnetic compass
A. You should be concerned as they should match fairly closely
B. The gyro is experiencing a large amount of deviation
C. The gyroscopic variation has become irregular
D. The magnetic compass could be experiencing large amount of variation
68. Gyroscopic inertia is that force which causes a gyroscope to

A. Seek true north
B. Remain pointing at a fixed point in space
C. Precessindefinately around the poles
D. Spin very rapidly
69. Vertical earth rate is

A. Maximum at the poles
B. Minimum at the poles
C. Non an effect on the gyrocompass
D. Impossible to compensate for
70. A torque applied carefully to one of the rings housing a gyro will cause the gyro
to
A. Swing wildly about
B. Precess in a direction 180 degrees opposite to the torque
C. Precess in a direction 90 degrees from the torque
D. Stop
71. The earth‘s magnetic field is

A. Constant over long periods of time
B. Decreasing overall and has lost 50% over the last 4000 years
C. Is increasing slowly due to magnetic sun storms
D. The only force effecting a magnetic compass
72. While your vessel is proceeding down a channel you notice a range of ligths in
line with your mast. If your vessel on a course of 001° per gyro compass and the
charted value of the range of lights is 359° T, what is the gyro error ?
A. 2° W
B. 2° E
C. 1° E
D. 1° W

73. Your vessel is proceeding up a channel, and you see a pair of range lights that
are in line ahead The chart indicates that the direction of this pair of lights is 311°
T, and the variation is 8° E. If the heading of your vessel at the time of sighting is
305° PSC, what is the correct deviation ?
A. 2° E
B. 2° W
C. 6° E
D. 6° W
74. You are swinging ship to determine the residual deviation by comparing the
magnetic compass against the gyrocompass. The gyro error is 2° W. The variation is
8° W. After completing the swinging you have the following readings :HEADING
HEADING PSC - PGC PSC – PGC 358.5° - 354° 122.5° -114° 030.5° - 024° 152.0° -144°
What is the deviation on a true heading of 157° ?
A. 2.0° W
B. 1.5° W
C. 1.0° E
D. 0° HEADING PSC – PGC 239.5° -234° 269.0° -264° 69
75. You are heading 328° PGC to make good a course of 332° T, correcting for 3° of
leeway due to southwesterly winds and 1° E gyro error. If the variation is 17° E,
what should the heading be to make good 332°T. If you were steering by magnetic
compass ? DEVIATION TABLE
A. 315° MAGNETIC HEADING DEVIATION
B. 318° 345 1° E
C. 343° 330 1° W
D. 345°
76. Your vessel is steering course 216°psc, variation for the area is 9° W, and the
deviation is 2° E. The wind is from the east, proceeding a 5° leeway. What true
course are you making good ?
A. 315°
B. 318°
C. 343°
D. 345°
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots
to intercept vessel A?
A. 249°
B. 256°
C. 262°
D. 268°
78. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________.

A. Vessel's geographic position
B. Vessel's heading
C. Earth's magnetic field
D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
79. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass
__________.
A. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
B. Also turns to starboard
C. Remains aligned with compass north
D. Turns counterclockwise to port
80. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.

A. The vessel's heading
B. Sea conditions
C. Seasons
D. The vessel's position
81. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?

A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite
polarity attract.
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation.
D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the
isogonic lines of the Earth.
82. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.

A. Speed
B. Vessel heading
C. Geographical location
D. Cargo
83. Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an
external field is called __________.
A. Permanent magnetism
B. Induced magnetism
C. Residual magnetism
D. Terrestrial magnetism
84. Variation is the angular measurement between __________.

A. Compass north and magnetic north
B. Compass north and true north
C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian

85. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.
A. True north
B. Magnetic north
C. The vessel's beam
D. The vessel's head
86. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.
A. Deviation
B. Annual rate of variation change
C. Precession
D. Compass error
87. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
because __________.
A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment
B. The quadrantal error is 0°
C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error
88. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the
__________.
A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles
C. Variation is near zero
D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator
89. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the
Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the
__________.
A. North magnetic pole
B. South magnetic pole
C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian
D. Magnetic equator
90. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by
__________.
A. Compass error
B. Latitude
C. Variation
D. Deviation
91. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a speed of 25 knots. The apparent
wind is from 30° off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative
direction, true direction and speed of the true wind?
A. Relative 80°true 040°T, 16.2 knots
B. Relative 40°true 080°T, 16.4 knots
C. Relative 80° true 060°T, 15.2 knots
D. Relative 60°true 040°T, 18.6 knots
92. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by __________.
A. Compass error
B. Variation
C. Magnetic dip
D. Deviation
93. Compass error is equal to the __________.

A. Deviation minus variation
B. Variation plus compass course
C. Combined variation and deviation
D. Difference between true and magnetic heading
94. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply
__________.
A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Variation and deviation
D. A correction for the direction of current set
95. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
A. Poor steering
B. Leeway
C. Known compass error
D. Ocean currents
96. How many degrees are there on a compass card?

A. 360°
B. 380°
C. 390°
D. 420°
97. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even
keel,heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________.
A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the heeling
magnet
D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted

98. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________.
A. Flinders bar should be inverted
B. Heeling magnet should be inverted
C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180°
D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle
99. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________.

A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. Remove heeling error
D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
100. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to
compensate for __________.
A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
B. The residual deviation
C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
101. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a
vessel?
A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B. A single vertical magnet under the compass
C. The Flinders bar
D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle
102. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
__________.
A. Before correcting for any deviation
B. After correcting for variation
C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass
103. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be
broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________.
A. Divisional parts
B. Coefficients
C. Fractional parts
D. Equations
104. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.
A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
C. 2° and is constant on all headings
D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°
4. Koordinasi di dalam kegiatan pencarian dan pertolongan
(Coordinate search and rescue operations )
1. According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person
in water of 4-10 degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing?
A. Less than 3 hours.
B. Less than 1 hour.
C. Less than 6 hours.
D. Less than 12 hours.
2. If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances,

decides not to proceed, what must he then do?
A. Inform the appropriate search and rescue authorities of his decision and enter the
reason in the ship's logbook.
B. If possible, inform the casualty of his decision and communicate his reasons.
C. Inform his owners of his decision and resume his passage at the earliest
opportunity.
D. Contact the SAR Mission Co-ordinator and secure his written agreement to the
release of his vessel from the operation.
3. In what format will an On-Scene Co-ordinator report such information as on-scene

weather and operation progress to other parties?
A. SITREP.
B. POSREP.
C. SARREP.
D. OSCREP.
4. It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the
effects of the sea, making it possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the
water. How many square metres does the IAMSAR Manual suggest may be calmed by
releasing 200 litres of lubricating oil slowly through a rubber hose with the outlet
maintained just above the surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed?
A. Approx 5,000 square metres.
B. Approx 500 square metres.
C. Approx 50 square metres.
D. Approx 50,000 square metres.
5. The recommended distance between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search

for a casualty by a surface vessel varies (amongst other factors) according to
visibility and the nature of the target in the IAMSAR Manual. These distances are
then normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions. If visibility was 5 nauticaL
miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft, what would the recommended
uncorrected track spacing be?
A. 3.6 nautical miles.

B. 2.5 nautical miles.
C. 5.0 nautical miles.
D. 0.7 nautical miles.
6. Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a

ship and a SAR helicopter?
A. On VHF Ch 16.
B. On VHF Ch 70.
C. On 121.5 mhz.
D. On 410 khz.
7. What are the three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual?

A. I Organization and Management II Mission Co-ordination III Mobile Facilities.
B. I Organization II Communications III Rescue Procedures
C. A Command and Control B Communications C Rescue Procedures
D. I Planning and Preparation II Rescue Control III Reference
8. What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International
Maritime Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which currently
outlines the organization and management of search and rescue activities at sea?
A. The International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
B. The Search and Rescue (IMOSAR) Manual.
C. The Merchant Ship Search and Rescue (MERSAR) Manual.
D. The Internation Maritime Search and Rescue (IMARSAR) Manual.
9. What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in

support of search and rescue operations?
A. The Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel Rescue (AMVER) System.
B. The International Search and Rescue Coordination System.
C. The Worldwide Maritime Mutual Assistance Programme (WMMAP).
D. The U.S. Command and Control Rescue (USCOMR) Service.
10. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most
effective when the location of the search object is known within relatively close
limits?
A. Expanding Square Search.
B. Sector Search.
C. Track Line Search.
D. Parallel Sweep Search.
11. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one
of will be designated as the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following
descibes how this appointment will be made?
A. The OSC will always be designated by the nearest Rescue Coordination Centre.
No other vessel may assume the role at any time.
B. The first rescue unit to arrive at the scene will normally assume the role of OSC,
until the unit appointed as OSC by the SAR Mission Co-ordinator at the applicable
RCC is in a position to take control.
C. The OSC will initially be a controlling aircraft. Once a suitable vessel is on scene,
the responsibility will be passed to them.
D. The role of OSC can only be taken by a naval ship with suitable command and
control capability. In many regions, such vessels are permanently assigned on stand-
by to assume such a role.
12. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?

A. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the
ship.
B. The General of Sea Transportation is responsible for the ship being at all times
adequately manned in accordance with National acts and regulat ions.
C. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and
composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility
for the ship being adequately manne
D. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately qualified
seafarers.
13. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it
be in each zone?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four
14. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?

A. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
B. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not members
of the ship's crew
C. A ship which carries passengers only
D. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or routes
15. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship
and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency
assistance to other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
16. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger
cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
B. Escape routes and alarm signals
C. Name of cabin attendant
D. Where to find thermal protective aids
17. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems
shall be kept on board __________.
A. For 1 year
B. For 2 years
C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection
D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
18. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest
compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
19. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

A. On their side if unconscious
B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D. Arms above their head
20. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You
should FIRST __________.
A. Boat the sea anchor
B. Paddle away from the fire
C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety
21. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above
the water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill
B. Is about to rise to periscope depth
C. Is on the bottom in distress
D. Is disabled and unable to surface
22. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe
at
the rate of how many breaths per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
23. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried

voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.
A. Mate's license
B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C. Second-class radio operator's license
D. Seaman's document
24. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered
at
the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B. Fire on board
C. Rescuing an individual from the water
D. Emergency towing
25. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has
bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action
should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the
container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
26. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would
fulfill the minimum requirements for fire protection?
A. One B-I extinguisher
B. One B-II extinguisher
C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D. One B-V extinguisher
27. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth
resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. Keeping the head elevated
C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. Holding the jaw down firmly
28. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
A. Shape
B. Shallow draft
C. Large sail area
D. All of the above
29. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the
Rules of the Road?
A. D
B. E
C. S
D. All of the above
30. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum
should be depressed about __________.
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches
31. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. Pushing up from under one end
D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of
the raft
32. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of
being launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable
conditions
of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
A. 6°
B. 12°
C. 20°
D. 25°
33. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
__________.
A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. Only with the help of two other people
C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. At ten-minute intervals
34. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing
apparatus be carried?
A. Emergency gear locker
B. Bridge or pilothouse area
C. Where they can be readily found
D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates
35. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You
hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause
of this?
A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate
C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
36. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

A. Having the proper equipment for the process
B. Starting the treatment quickly
C. Administering of oxygen
D. Treating for traumatic shock
37. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you
must
pull the safety pin and __________.
A. Pull the hook release handle
B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
38. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting
straps, and leaning backwards
B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and
leaning backwards
C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
39. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should
you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. Immediately upon launching
B. One to three feet before first wave contact
C. Upon first wave contact
D. Only when waterborne
40. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should
__________.
A. Go in a different direction in search of land
B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you

C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few
rafts as possible
D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
41. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members should __________.
A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
C. Immediately head for the nearest land
D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's
last known position
42. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If
possible, you should __________.
A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. Abandon ship to windward
C. Call for assistance
D. Keep going at half speed
43. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely
inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should
__________.
A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B. Plug the safety valve
C. Unscrew the deflation plugs
D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
44. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should
__________.
A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
45. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
A. BR
B. BS
C. BT1
D. BZ
46. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a
life jacket.
C. They should be tight fitting.
D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
47. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
48. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a

fishing vessel?
A. Recovering an individual from the water
B. Steering casualty
C. Emergency towing
D. Loss of propulsion power
49. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call
on channel __________.
A. 13
B. 16
C. 19
D. 23
50. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your

radiotelephone log must contain __________.
A. A record of all routine calls
B. A record of your transmissions only
C. The home address of the vessel's Master or owner
D. A summary of all distress calls and messages
51. Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is

INCORRECT?
A. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 khz by two dashes of 10 to 15
seconds duration.
B. Channel 16 (156.8 mhz) may be used for distress messages.
C. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the distress
call on any frequency available.
D. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 khz.
52. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to
which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
A. On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
B. In a separate radio compartment
C. Adjacent to the main power source
D. As high as possible on the vessel

53. Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles
from the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that
__________.
A. Is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger
B. Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate
C. Is protected against all physical hazards
D. All of the above
54. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the
__________.
A. VHF-FM service
B. Coastal harbor service
C. High seas service
D. Emergency broadcast service
55. The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"

is for the exclusive use of __________.
A. The Master or person in charge of the vessel
B. A person designated by the Master
C. A person on board to pilot the vessel
D. All of the above
56. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel

Rescue) is TRUE?
A. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
B. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel
in distress than a non-participant.
C. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance
notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from\ offshore.
D. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding to calls
for assistance.
57. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?

A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
B. They can go forward and backward more easily.
C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship.
D. There is no particular reason for this.
58. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

A. Placed in a position with the head lower than the body
B. Given an inhalation stimulant
C. Given something to drink
D. Treated for injuries until conscious

59. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain
a continuous listening watch on channel __________.
A. 6 (156.3 mhz)
B. 12 (156.6 mhz)
C. 14 (156.7 mhz)
D. 16 (156.8 mhz)
60. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This
indicates that __________.
A. A message about the safety of navigation will follow
B. Message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
C. The sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
D. You should secure your radiotelephone
61. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.

A. 156.8 mhz (channel 16)
B. 156.7 mhz (channel 14)
C. 156.65 mhz (channel 13)
D. 156.6 mhz (channel 12)
62. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require
immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your
situation with __________.
A. Mayday-Mayday-Mayday
B. Pan-Pan (3 times)
C. Securite-Securite-Securite
D. SOS-SOS-SOS
63. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that

__________.
A. A ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate
assistance
B. A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
C. The message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation
D. The message following is a meteorological warning
64. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

A. Shorter than the rowing oars
B. The same length as the rowing oars
C. Longer than the rowing oars
D. Unrelated to the length of the rowing oars
65. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift
in a liferaft?
A. Immediately use all the signals at once.
B. Use all the signals during the first night.
C. Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone.
D. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the are
66. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period
of
__________.
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 36 hours
67. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to
a ship on the horizon?
A. A red parachute flare
B. A red hand-held flare
C. A flashlight
D. A lantern
68. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by

radiotelephone?
A. Securite
B. Mayday
C. Breaker
D. Pan
69. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.

A. On or near the navigating bridge
B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat
D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat
70. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

A. Has no more than two compartments
B. Has two compartments in addition to the engine room
C. Will sink if any two compartments are flooded
D. Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded
71. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste
What should you do?
A. Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot.
B. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable
C. Stop your vessel instantly.
D. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering with
difficulty.
72. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
A. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require
B. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the only
distress signals require
C. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provide
D. A Very pistol with twelve flares is require
73. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
A. So as to float free
B. With the vessel's emergency equipment
C. Near the wheelhouse
D. As far forward as possible
74. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that
has a doctor and hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so
the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message
contain?
A. MAF
B. MAB
C. MAA
D. MAE
75. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

A. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
B. More than 6 short blasts
C. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
D. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds
76. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent
medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
A. MAB
B. MAD
C. MAA
D. MAF
77. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline
powered machinery must be __________.
A. Explosion-proof
B. Intrinsically safe
C. Ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere
D. All of the above
78. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds.
Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard
79. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.

A. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on
the general alarm
B. Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10
seconds
C. 1 short blast on the whistle
D. Alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle
80. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."
A. Place patient in hot bath
B. The wound should be stitched
C. You should pass a stomach tube
D. The wound should not be stitched
81. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3
short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard
82. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member,
youreceive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".
A. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours
B. Commence artificial respiration immediately
C. Give enema
D. Pass catheter into bladder
83. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
A. MPO
B. MPR
C. MPK
D. MPJ
84. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B. Find some wood for a fire
C. Get the provisions out of the raft
D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

85. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat"
by applying the __________.
A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's sides
and transom for each passenger
B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of deck
space available for passenger use
C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger to
rest his/her buttocks upon
D. Any or a combination of the above criteria
86. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
__________.
A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D. Starvation
87. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury
and
__________.
A. Application of CPR
B. Removal of any foreign objects
C. Administration of oxygen
D. For traumatic shock
88. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

A. Relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
B. Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
C. Preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
D. Providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration
89. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.
A. Boarding and operating procedures
B. Maintenance schedule
C. Navigational systems
D. Fuel consumption rates
90. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture
content
by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored
quantities of water?
A. Up to 3 days
B. 8 to 14 days
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 25 to 30 days

91. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival
craft, you should __________.
A. Go in one direction until the fuel runs out
B. Plot course for the nearest land
C. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
D. Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor
92. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action
should
be to __________.
A. Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
B. Head for the closest land
D. Get a majority opinion
93. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should
__________.
A. Plot a course for the nearest land
B. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
C. Stay in the immediate area
D. Go in one direction until fuel runs out
94. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
95. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no
rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.
A. Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the
water
B. Float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to theair
C. Remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors
D. Sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes
96. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no
rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.
A. Tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current
B. Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in
the center of the circle
C. Send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
D. From a raft by lashing their life jackets together

97. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been
established, the drinking routine should include __________.
A. Small sips at regular intervals during the day
B. A complete daily ration at one time during the day
C. One-third the daily ration three times during the day
D. Small sips only after sunset
98. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's
largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
A. 1 knot
B. 2 knot
C. 5 knot
D. 10 knot
99. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard

liferafts to look for __________.
A. Survivors in the water
B. Food and water
C. Land
D. Bad weather
100. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
A. Open equipment pack.
B. Post a lookout.
C. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
D. Pick up other survivors.
101. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away
from your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
A. Take measures to maintain morale
B. Prepare and use radio equipment
C. Identify the person in charge of liferaft
D. Search for survivors
102. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
A. Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search round
the course line between the last sighting and present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
B. The focus of the search should be from the present position as he probably went
overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.

C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from track
into account on the return course. The search should focus around this return track
back to the last sighted position
D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and all
ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the present
position.
103. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have
been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What
would you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
B. Leave the position as fast as possible
C. Do nothing and wait for assistance
D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders
104. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T,
and bears 042°T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10
knots?
A. 12h 30m
B. 12h 44m
C. 12h 58m
D. 13h 22m
033°T, and bears 284°T at 43 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 16 knots
to intercept vessel A?
A. 284°
B. 303°
C. 329°
D. 342°

5. Menetapkan pengaturan dan prosedur tugas jaga
(Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures )
1. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer
may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and
cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
B. The hydrodynamic interaction effects from the banks of the shallow water channel acts on
the stern causing the vessel to sheer strongly
C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning moment and results
in the ship swinging towards the bank.
D. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the vessel stops any
applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.

2. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little
wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the
tugs and at which position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's movement towards the
berth requires reducing by the tug
pulling off.
B. Made fast Forward and Aft using the centre leads.
C. Pushing on ship's side, but not made fast to allow the tug to move to another position if
needed
D. One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.

3. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship
in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
B. Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea
C. Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require
D. Pushing alongside
4. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow water.
The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed
through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of "Squat"
A. The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value
B. The squat effect will also be halve
C. There will be a significant change in the reduction of underkeel clearance, but the amount
varies from ship to ship
D. There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.
5. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead throughout the
turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees) at
half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the
turning circle?
A. No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same.
B. Yes, it would be a much smaller turning circle at half ahead
C. Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half ahea
D. Yes, there would be a change of shape of the turning circle; it would have an increase in the
transfer, but not the advance.

6. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by
the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be expected that there will be a
reduced pull exerted by the tug
B. No, when the speed of the ship is increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the tug will also be
increasing
C. Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any speed of the ship
D. Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be expected to be at
its greatest.
7. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At the
first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the second the
underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on

the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if the
draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
B. Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes
C. 25 tonnes
D. 75 tonnes
8. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons creating the
effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of water pressure around the ship's
hull
B. There is a decrease in the water velocity and an increased of water pressure around
the ship's hull
C. There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed
D. There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the ships motion.
DPKP
9. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and approaching
a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and what
other effects could be expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully monitored, some port rudder may be required to start the
swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection.
B. The wheel should be put hard over to port to keep the ship in the middle of the channel and
the heading carefully monitore
C. A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and the engines
should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre. The heading should be continually
monitored
D. The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to interaction and
rejection by the river bank
10. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements from
the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading? Both tugs have
similar bollard pull and are of conventional propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the
gyro heading
B. Much greater power on the aft tug than on the forward tug while monitoring the gyro
heading.
C. Equal power required by both tugs,but monitor the gyro heading to ensure sideward
movement only
D. It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this circumstance and it could
only be found by observation.

11. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain the
ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship's
gyro heading
B. Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while monitoring the ship's
gyro heading
C. Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
D. Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but continuously monitor the
ship's gyro heading

12. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double banking
two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods. Select which answer
is considered the most successful metho
A. When both vessels are underway, fig. 1
B. When the larger vessel is at anchor,fig. 2
C. When the smaller vessel is at anchor, fig. 3
D. When the larger vessel is stopped and drifting in the water, fig. 4
13. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which of the
following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to the vessel?
A. Williamson Turn
B. Scharnow Turn
C. Direct Turn
D. Evinrude Turn

14. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the
most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be
found?
A. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding the
forward
shoulder of the larger vessel.
B. The most dangerous position is when the tugis alongside the amidships section of the larger
vessel.
C. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the larger vessel and
enters into its associated positive pressure fiel
D. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing spring and is then
moving ahead of the larger vessel.
15. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If
the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the
engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
A. About 20 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. About 5 %
16. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much
"lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. There will be lift force remaining
DPKP
17. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to about
0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes the
aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
B. A further reduction of underkeel clearance and possible changes of the ship's trim
C. A reduced ability to stop the vessel and maintain steerage

D. Touching the bottom if there is any swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of
the vessel
18. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases
to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
A. The force will be Quadrupled
B. The force will be Tripled
C. The force will be Doubled
D. The force will be Quintupled
19. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion
to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be
considered to be located?
A. At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
B. At a position aft of amidships
C. At a position on the centreline, about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of the bow.
D. At a position in the vicinity of the ship's centre of gravity
DPKP
20. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?
A. A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing the load
on the steering motor.
B. A rudder with equal rudder area forward and aft of the turning axis, the turning axis being
at the geometrical centre of the rudder area
C. A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts of thrust to the
rudder
D. A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the rudder efficiency
21. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
A. The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot point
B. The experience of the tug crew.
C. The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's towing spring
D. The length of the towing spring
22. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally
unstable"?
A. The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course.
B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will continue on a straight course
C. The ship will only require small amounts of helm to maintain its course when steaming in a
heavy seaway
D. The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some specific courses

23. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the
rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
A. About 80 %
B. About 10 %.
C. About 30 %
D. About 50 %
24. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as "Squat".
Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the vessel?
A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim.
B. There will be an increase in the vessels draught while moving through the water
C. There will be a change of draught and a reduction in the spee
D. If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there will be no effect
due to Squat.
25. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best system
of connecting the tow?
A. Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the ship's anchor chain.
B. Wire from a deep sea tug through the forward centre lead of the ship and made fast onto
several mooring bits on the forecastle
C. Wire from a deep sea tug made fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's leeward side
D. Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and made fast on the
nearest mooring bits forwar
DPKP
26. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to
maintain during this operation?
A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
B. It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting
C. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed
D. The speed should be more than 7 knots
27. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post
B. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
C. Amidships
D. Between amidships and 1/4 of the vessel's length from the bow
28. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
B. 1/4 of vessel's length from the stern
C. Amidships
D. Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead
29. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing
steering power?
A. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4).
B. Tug running free alongside, ready to be made fast (figure 2)
C. Tug made fast forward on either shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)
D. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)
DPKP
30. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
B. Because the turning moment is created by the rudder, which is positioned at the stern of the
vessel
C. The ship moves laterally because it always tries to continue in a straight line.
D. The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels hull.
31. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for
berthing the vessel?
A. The approach speed is too fast.
B. The approach speed is essential to maintain steerage when coming alongside
C. The speed requirements are decided by the pilot and should not be the concern of the OOW.
D. The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.
32. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no
thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it comes alongside?
A. Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on deck
B. Reduce speed by going astern on the engines.
C. Let go port anchor to about 1 shackles on deck
D. Full starboard rudder and stop engines
DPKP
7. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on
fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?
After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if possible your vessel
should standby and offer assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel.
There is no statutory requirement to provide assistance as the actions of that vessel were the
primary cause of the collision
Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire fighting operation.
You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if your damage is not
serious, continue on your voyage.
8. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is in collision
with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is the best course of action
by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom as soon as possible
Attempt to stop the ingress of water by listing the ship over and bringing the damaged area of
the
hull out of the water.
Call for tug boat assistance as soon as possible
Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice
DPKP
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search round the course line
between the last sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current.
The focus of the search should be from the present position as he probably went overboard
when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from track into account on
the return course.
The search should focus around this return track back to the last sighted position
The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and all ships should
keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the present position.
10. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as reliable means
of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal are What are the initial steps
that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
Display NUC lights and investigate the tidal flow over the next 24 hours and the probable drift
of the vessel.
Display NUC lights and inform the nearest Coast Guard of you predicament.
Display NUC lights and determine if anchoring is possible
Display NUC lights and send out a navigational warning to all other vessels of your position
and situation
DPKP
11. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail completely
and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should there be any changes to
your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an operational ECDIS:
Increase the officers on the bridge to allow greater use of visual navigation
Change the passage plan to avoid areas of high density shipping, if possible
Post extra lookouts
No changes are necessary
12. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision.
What will your actions be following the collision?
Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to the other vessel
Continue the voyage to your destination
Call the Company Office
Start an argument with the other vessel about fault
13. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a
collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do?
Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
Leave the position as fast as possible
Do nothing and wait for assistance
Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders
DPKP
14. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What immediate
action should you take? Nothing, just standby and wait to see if any assistance is require
Contact one or both vessels involved in the incident and offer assistance.
Send out a distress message on their behalf.
Inform the local coast radio station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.
15. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the required
residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on board and informing
the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other immediate steps should be taken?
Complete soundings of all compartments to determine the number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability limitations within its statutory loadline requirements to determine
if still adequate.
Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in stability due to the lost buoyancy, to
determine if the final residual positive stability is sufficient to remain afloat.
Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of equilibrium. Ensure
this is sufficient to remain afloat
Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at theirlifeboat stations.

16. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Masterresponsible
for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess the extent of damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
Communicate with the other ship.
Determine is there is any evidence of pollution.
Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on board

17. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as Master tell
the Master on the other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel.
Explain your actions prior to the collision and request details of actions taken by the other
vessel
which resulted in the collision.
Ask if there is any assistance required by the other vessel.
There should be no communication with the other vessel.
18. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a navigational
warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the scheme. What actions should
be taken on the bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within the traffic lane and
give rogue vessel a wide berth
Take no actions but proceed with extra caution.
Move out of the traffic lane towards the coast.
Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts
DPKP
19. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the
lower light you should __________.
Come left
Come right
Continue on the present course
Wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line
20. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________.
The channel boundaries
That vessels must stop
The bridge is about to open
That traffic is approaching from the other side
21. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to ensure
that a correct trace is recorded?
Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
Set the zone pen on the correct quadrant
Line the course pen up on the exact heading of the ship
Adjust the chart paper to indicate the correct time
22. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open
for river traffic when __________.
The fixed, green light starts to flash
The amber light changes to green
The red light is extinguished
The red light changes to green
DPKP
23. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a
hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T
at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum
CPA?
77 miles
82 miles
87 miles
93 miles
24. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?
The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location.
The buoy may not be in the charted position.
The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly painte
25. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational channel span
will be indicated by __________.
A quick flashing red or green aid to navigation
A steady blue light in the center of the span
3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
A flashing green light in the center of the span
26. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated bythe ___.
Light characteristic
Color of the uppermost band
Shape of an unlighted buoy
Color of the light
DPKP
27. When navigating a vessel, you __________.
Can always rely on a buoy to be on station
Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
28. A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) __________.

Anchorage area
Fish net area
Bifurcation
Dredging area
29. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
During calm weather only
During daylight only
Only when inside a harbor
Only when fixed aids are not available
30. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________.
A shallow depth reading
A zero depth reading
No depth reading
Two depth readings
31. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to __________.
Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer
the surface at night
Receive a first return near the surface during the day, and a strong return at about 200 fathoms
(366 meters) at night
Receive false echoes at a constant depth day and night
Have to recalibrate every couple of days due to inaccurate readings
DPKP
32. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a
hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265°T
at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum
CPA?
76 miles
69 miles
63 miles
56 miles
33. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and
shoals?
Approach charts
General charts
Sailing charts
Coastal charts
34. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show
which light characteristic?
Isophase
Quick flashing
Long flashing
Group Flashing (2 + 1)
35. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an individual
cardinal buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be identified from the other
system by __________.
The differing light colors
One system having odd numbers while the other system has even numbers
One system using horizontal bands while the other system uses vertical stripes
The difference in the periods of the light
DPKP
36. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight.
Which statement is TRUE?
A safe-water buoy will display red and white vertical stripes of reflectivematerial.
All reflective material is white because it is the most visible at night.
A special-purpose mark will display either red or green reflective material to agree with its
shape.
A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to
agree with the top band of color.
37. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available.
You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights, as
shown, on your starboard beam. You should __________.
Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of obstructions
Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights will be an indication
of dragging anchor
NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line

38. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reachan
entrance or strait at which time in relation to the predicted time of the favorablecurrent?
One hour after
At the predicted time
30 minutes before
30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
DPKP
39. In a narrow channel, you are underway on vessel "A" and desire to overtake vessel "B".
After you sound two short blasts on your whistle, vessel "B" sounds five short and rapid blasts
on the whistle. You should __________.
Pass with caution on the port side of vessel "B"
Hold your relative position, and then sound another signal after the situation has
stabilized
Answer the five short blast signal then stop your vessel until the other vessel initiates a signal
Slow or stop and expect radical maneuvers from "B"
40. A vessel proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers sights another
vessel moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?
The vessel moving upstream against the current
The vessel moving downstream with a following current
The vessel located more towards the channel centerline
The vessel sounding the first whistle signal
41. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her on
your starboard side. You may __________.
Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals
Sound five short blasts
All of the above
42. A vessel displaying a flashing blue light is __________.

Transferring dangerous cargo
A law enforcement vessel
A work boat
Engaged in a race
DPKP
43. Which statement is TRUE concerning narrow channels?
You should keep to that side of the channel which is on your port side.
You should avoid anchoring in a narrow channel.
A vessel having a following current will propose the manner of passage in any case where two
vessels are meeting.
All of the above
44. Which term is NOT defined in the Inland Navigation Rules?

Seaplane
Restricted visibility
Underway
Vessel constrained by her draft
45. You have made your vessel up to a tow and are moving from a pier out into the main
channel. Your engines are turning ahea What whistle signal should you sound?
One prolonged and two short blasts
Three long blasts
One prolonged blast
Five or more short rapid blasts
46. Under the Inland Navigation Rules, what is the meaning of the two short blastssignal used
when meeting another vessel?
"I am turning to starboar"
"I am turning to port."
"I intend to leave you on my starboard side."
"I intend to leave you on my port side."
47. A power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way
over __________.
Vessels ascending the river
Vessels descending the river
All vessels ascending and descending the river
None of the above

48. Which lights are required for a barge, not part of a composite unit, being pushed
ahead?
Sidelights and a stern light
Sidelights, a special flashing light, and a stern light
Sidelights and a special flashing light
Sidelights, a towing light, and a stern light
49. A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current on the Great
Lakes or Western Rivers is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement is TRUE?
The downbound vessel has the right-of-way.
The downbound vessel must initiate the required maneuvering signals.
The downbound vessel must propose the manner and place of passage.
All of the above
50. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel, and can safely navigate only within the channel.
Another vessel is crossing your bow from port to starboard, and you are in doubt as to her
intentions. Which statement is TRUE?
The sounding of the danger signal is optional.
The sounding of the danger signal is mandatory.
You should sound two short blasts.
You should sound one prolonged and two short blasts.
51. The stand-on vessel in a crossing situation sounds one short blast of the whistle.
This means that the vessel __________.
Intends to hold course and speed
Is changing course to starboard
Is changing course to port
Intends to leave the other on her port side
DPKP
52. You are crossing the course of another vessel which is to your starboar You have reached
an agreement by radiotelephone to pass astern of the other vessel. You
MUST __________.
Sound one short blast
Sound two short blasts
Change course to starboard
None of the above
53. Passing signals shall be sounded on inland waters by __________.

All vessels upon sighting another vessel rounding a bend in the channel
Towing vessel when meeting another towing vessel on a clear day with a 0.6 mile CPA (Closest
Point of Approach)
A power-driven vessel when crossing less than half a mile ahead of another
power-driven vessel
All of the above
54. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you should
exchange __________.
One short blast, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard
One short blast, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
Two short blasts, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard
Two short blasts, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
55. A fleet of moored barges extends into a navigable channel. What is the color of the lights
on the barges?
Red
Amber
White
Yellow
DPKP
56. At night, a light signal consisting of two flashes by a vessel indicates __________.
An intention to communicate over radiotelephone
That the vessel is in distress
An intention to leave another vessel to port
An intention to leave another vessel to starboard
57. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her on
your starboard side. You may __________.
Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals
Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
Sound four short blasts
Any of the above
58. A barge more than 50 meters long is required to show how many white anchor
lights when anchored in a Secretary approved "special anchorage area"?
2
1
3
None
59. You are on vessel "B" and vessel "A" desires to overtake you on your starboard side as
shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals, you should
__________.
Alter course to the left
Slow your vessel until vessel "A" has passed
Hold course and speed
Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "A" more sea room
60. Which type of vessel is NOT mentioned in the Inland Navigation Rules?
An inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel
A seaplane
An air-cushion vessel
A vessel constrained by her draft

61. You are operating a vessel through a narrow channel and your vessel must stay within the
channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port,
and you are in doubt as to her intentions. You __________.
Must sound the danger signal
Are required to back down
May sound the danger signal
Should sound one short blast to show that you are holding course and speed
62. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you should
exchange __________.
One short blast, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard
Two short blasts, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard
One short blast, alter course to the right, and pass port to port
Two short blasts, alter course to the right, and pass port to port
63. Which indicates the presence of a partly submerged object being towed?
A diamond shape on the towed object
An all-round light at each end of the towed object
A searchlight beamed from the towing vessel in the direction of the tow
All of the above
64. The light used to signal passing intentions is a(n) __________.

All-round white light ONLY
All-round yellow light ONLY
All-round white or yellow light
Light of any color
65. Two vessels in a crossing situation have reached agreement by radiotelephone as to

the intentions of the other. In this situation, whistle signals are __________.
Required
Not required, but may be sounded
Required if crossing within half a mile
Required when crossing within one mile

66. Which statement is TRUE concerning the fog signal of a vessel 15 meters in length,
anchored in a "special anchorage area" approved by the Secretary?
The vessel is not required to sound a fog signal.
The vessel shall ring a bell for 5 seconds every minute.
The vessel shall sound one blast of the foghorn every 2 minutes.
The vessel shall sound three blasts on the whistle every 2 minutes.
67. Power-driven vessel, when leaving a dock or berth, is required to sound

__________.
Four short blasts
One long blast
One prolonged blast
No signal is require
68. Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a river as shown and will pass about 1/4 mile apart.
Which statement is TRUE?
Both vessels should continue on course and pass without sounding any whistle signals.
The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass port to port.
The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass starboard to starboard
The vessels should pass port to port and must sound whistle signals only if either vessel changes
course.
69. Whistle signals shall be exchanged by vessels in sight of one another when
__________.
They are passing within half a mile of each other
Passing agreements have been made by radio
Course changes are necessary to pass
Doubt exists as to which side the vessels will pass on
DPKP
70. You are on vessel "A" and vessel "B" desires to overtake you on the starboard side as
shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals you should
Alter course to the left
Slow your vessel until vessel "B" has passed
Hold course and speed
Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "B" more sea room
71. Two vessels are meeting on a clear day and will pass less than half a mile apart. In this
situation whistle signals __________.
Must be exchanged
May be exchanged
Must be exchanged if passing agreements have not been made by radio
Must be exchanged only if course changes are necessary by either vessel

72. You are approaching a sharp bend in a river. You have sounded a prolonged blast
and it has been answered by a vessel on the other side of the ben Which statement
is TRUE?
Both vessels must exchange passing signals when in sight and passing
within one-half mile of each other.
No further whistle signals are necessary.
The vessel downriver must stop her engines and navigate with caution.
Both vessels must immediately sound passing signals whether or not theyare in sight of each
other.
73. Which statement is TRUE concerning a passing agreement made by radiotelephone?

Such an agreement is prohibited by the Rules.
A vessel which has made such an agreement must also sound whistle signals.
Whistle signals must still be exchanged when passing within half a mile of each other.
If agreement is reached by radiotelephone, whistle signals are optional.
DPKP
74. INLAND ONLY You are aboard the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. You sound a
one blast whistle signal. The give-way vessel answers with a two blast whistle signal. You
should sound the danger signal and __________.
Maintain course and speed as you are the stand-on vessel
Come around sharply to port
Take precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made
Maneuver around the stern of the other vessel
75. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the
starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________.
Green conical buoy
Green can buoy
Red can buoy
Red conical buoy
76. What information is NOT found in the chart title?

Survey information
Scale
Date of first edition
Projection
77. When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off?
At anytime as long as it is properly logge
At the Master's professional judgment.
Only when the vessel is at anchor or in port.
Under no circumstance.
78. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should
this current be treated in determining the position?
The drift should be added to the ship's speed
The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the LOP.
The current should be ignore
The set should be applied to the second bearing.
79. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height
above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3 meters) and the visibility
is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first sight the light?
1.5 miles
2.0 miles
6.0 miles
12.7 miles
80. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be positively
identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List?
Rhythm
Period
Intensity
Color

6. Memelihara keselamatan bernavigasi dengan menggunakan
informasi Yang
diperolehdariperalatandansistemnavigasiuntukmembantumembuat
keputusanperintah.
(Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation
equipment and systems to assist command decision making)
82. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size
It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in
International Voyages
Over 10 000 dwt
An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team.
All navigational equipment fully functional.
Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently
The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation

Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity.
Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area
Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the are
Increase safety for ships participating in VTS
85. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours,
what management issues should the Master consider?
All of these answers
Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit
Suitable crew available for lock transits
86. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and
advice on the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the
same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is
required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary
The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's
characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.
87. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the
occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship
Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur
Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

88. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
The Panama Canal Authority
The ship's Master
The ship's company
The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to resolve the emergency
situation.
89. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of
Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you
consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational
hazards.
Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed down to half speed,
approximately 8 knots
Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible range
A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be
stopped within an appropriate distance
90. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a
right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What
would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full
ahead
Full ahead, rudder hard to port Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made.
91. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which
could be sounded by a __________.
Fishing vessel
Vessel anchored
Mineclearing vessel
Vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
92. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel
indicates that the vessel __________.
Is holding course and speed
Is turning to starboard
Intends to pass port to port
Will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel
93. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?

A black cone, apex upward
A black cone, apex downward
Two vertical black balls
A cylinder
94. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
Engaged in towing
Constrained by her draft
Under sail
All of the above
95. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?

The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
All of the above
96. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in restricted visibility
When overtaking in a narrow channel
When overtaking on open waters
When no other vessels are in the immediate area
97. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed
by one short blast?
When overtaking in restricted visibility
When overtaking in a narrow channel
When overtaking on open waters
When no other vessels are in the immediate area
98. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels
means __________.
"I am altering my course to starboard"
"I am altering my course to port"
"I intend to change course to starboard"
"I intend to change course to port"
99. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
A trawler fishing in close proximity to other trawlers
A vessel aground
A dredge
100. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A" __________.
Should sound two short blasts
Should sound the danger signal
Should sound one long blast
Will not sound any whistle signals
101. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
A vessel on pilotage duty
A vessel engaged in fishing
102. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?
A vessel not under command
A vessel being towed
A vessel sailing
103. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the
vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
No signal is necessary.
Two prolonged blasts
Two short blasts
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
104. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
Intends to alter course to port
Intends to pass starboard to starboard
Is altering course to port
Will alter course to port
105. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
Intends to alter course to starboard
Intends to pass starboard to starboard
Is altering course to starboard
Intends to pass port to port
106. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern.
After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel
on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
One short blast
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
107. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass on

the power-driven vessel's port side. The overtaken vessel will have to move to facilitate
passage. The sailing vessel is the __________.
Stand-on vessel and would sound two short blasts
Give-way vessel and would sound no whistle signal
Stand-on vessel and would sound no whistle signal
Give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
108. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.

Three all-round red lights
Two 225° red lights
Three all-round blue lights
Two 225° blue lights
109. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either
vessel means __________.
"I intend to alter course to port"
"I desire to pass starboard to starboard"
"I desire to pass port to port"
"I am altering course to port"

110. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
A single white light forward
Two masthead lights in a vertical line
Two towing lights in a vertical line
Two all-round red lights where they can best be seen
111. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in
relation to the available depth of water.
The term applies only to vessels in marked channels.
She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.
112. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, is
sounded by a vessel __________.
At anchor
Towing a submerged object
Being overtaken in a narrow channel
In distress
113. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels are
approaching. You should sound __________.
Three short blasts when leaving the slip
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is taken aboard
One prolonged blast only
The danger signal
114. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels
are approaching. You should sound __________.
Three short blasts when leaving the slip
The danger signal
115. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of the others?

A vessel engaged in underwater operations
A vessel engaged in trawling
116. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short blasts of the whistle. This
signal means that the vessel __________.
Is altering course to port
Is altering course to starboard
Intends to leave you on her port side
Intends to leave you on her starboard side
117. You are operating a vessel in a narrow channel. Your vessel must stay within the channel to
be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port, and you are in
doubt as to his intentions. According to Rule 9, you
Must sound one prolonged and two short blasts

Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and speed
118. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters as shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A" __________. (DIAGRAM 17 )
Should sound two short blasts
Should sound the danger signal
Should sound one long blast
Need not sound any whistle signals
119. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line on another vessel at night, it would be a
vessel ___
Aground
Dredging
Moored over a wreck
120. On open water two vessels are in an overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has just
sounded one short blast on the whistle. What is the meaning of this whistle signal?
"I request permission to pass you on my port side."
"I will maintain course and speed and pass you on your starboard side."
"On which side should I pass?"
"I am changing course to starboard"
121. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and two short
blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel __________.
Engaged in mineclearance
Engaged in fishing
Being towed
122. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft?
A fishing vessel
All of the above
123. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast, in that order is
given by a vessel __________.
Engaged on pilotage duty
In distress
At anchor
Being overtaken in a narrow channel
124. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near an area
of restricted visibility?
Four short blasts on the whistle
One prolonged blast on the whistle
One short blast on the whistle
One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle

125. In addition to her running lights, an underway vessel constrained by her draft may carry
in a vertical line __________.
A red light, a white light, and a red light
Two red lights
Two white lights
Three red lights
126. Which vessel is NOT regarded as being "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
A vessel engaged in dredging
A towing vessel with tow unable to deviate from its course
127. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near an area of restricted
visibility, any of the following signals may be given EXCEPT
A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short whistle blasts
Four short whistle blasts
Two short whistle blasts
128. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to PASS on the other vessel's
port side would sound __________.
One prolonged followed by two short blasts
One short blast
Two short blasts
129. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which would
be sounded by a vessel __________.
Overtaking another in a narrow channel
Anchored
Engaged in mineclearance
Engaged in fishing
Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts
Two prolonged blasts only
Two short blasts only
DPKP
Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts
Two prolonged blasts only
Two short blasts only
132. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern.
After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel
on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding…………..
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast
One short blast
133. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A" should __________.
Sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
Sound the danger signal
Not sound any whistle signals
Sound one long blast
134. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another?

One short blast on the whistle
Four short blasts on the whistle
One prolonged blast on the whistle
One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle
135. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle must be __________.
Used when the whistle is broken
A white light
Used only at night
Used prior to sounding the whistle
136. Which statement is TRUE concerning light signals?

The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.
The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
All of the above
137. While underway and in sight of another vessel, you put your engines full speed astern.
Which statement concerning whistle signals is TRUE?
You must sound three short blasts on the whistle.
You must sound one blast if backing to starboar
You must sound whistle signals only if the vessels are meeting.
You need not sound any whistle signals.
138. While underway at night, a power-driven vessel of less than 7 meters in length, whose
maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots, may show __________.
Sidelights combined in a single lantern, only
An all-round flashing yellow light, only
One all-round white light, only
A lantern showing a white light exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision, only
139. At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7 meters in length, with a maximum speed
which does not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when underway at least __________.
One white 360° light
A white light on the near approach of another vessel
The lights required of a vessel less than 12 meters in length

140. Lighting requirements in inland waters are different from those for international
waters for __________.
Barges being pushed ahead
Vessels restricted in their ability to maneuver
Vessels towing astern
Barges being towed astern
DPKP
141. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
Two towing lights in a vertical line
A towing light above the stern light
Two all-round red lights at the masthead
Two masthead lights in a vertical line
142. BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A towing light __________.

Flashes at regular intervals of 50-70 flashes per minute
Is yellow in color
Shows an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of not less than 180° nor more than 225°
All of the above
143. A towing light is ____________ .

Shown below the stern light
White in color
Displayed at the masthead
A yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light
144. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an __________.

Alternating red and yellow light
Alternating white and yellow light
All-round white or yellow light
All-round white light only
145. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.

Three all-round red lights instead of the lights required for a powerdriven vessel of her
class
The same lights as a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
Three all-round red lights in addition to the lights required for a powerdriven vessel of her class
The lights for a power-driven vessel which is not under command
146. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?

A black diamond
A cylinder
A black ball
A black cone, apex upward
147. If at night a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line, during the
day she may show __________.
Two cones, base to base
Three black balls in a vertical line
A cylinder
A cone, apex downward

148. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.
Restricted in her ability to maneuver
Not under command
Engaged in mineclearing operations
149. The International Rules of the Road apply __________.

To all waters
To any waters inside the territorial waters of the U.S.
Only to waters where foreign vessels travel
Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels
150. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

The term only applies to vessels in narrow channels.
She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of
her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water.
She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.DPKP
151. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

She is hampered because of her work.
She is unable to maneuver due to some exceptional circumstance.
She may be a vessel being towe
She must be a power-driven vessel.
152. Which vessel is NOT "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?

A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
A towing vessel with tow, unable to deviate from its course
A vessel engaged in dredging
153. Your vessel is constrained by her draft and operating in a narrow channel. Another
vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port. You are in doubt as to her
intentions. According to Rule 9, you __________.
Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and speed
Must sound one prolonged blast
154. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. You should __________.
Hold your course and speed
Not impede the other vessel
Exchange passing signals
Sound the danger signal
DPKP
155. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is restricte You should
sound __________.
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when leaving the slip the danger signal

156. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard to starboard
without changing course. You should __________.
Hold course and sound no whistle signal
Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal
Change course to starboard and sound one blast
Hold course and sound one blast
157. Which statement is TRUE concerning a situation involving a fishing vessel and a
vessel not under command?
They are required to communicate by radiotelephone.
If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must keep clear of the fishing
vessel.
The fishing vessel must keep out of the way of the vessel not under comman
Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.
158. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel pushing a barge
A vessel engaged in fishing
DPKP
159. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her
draft?
A sailing vessel
All of the above
160. A signal of intent must be sounded in international waters by __________.

A vessel meeting another head-on
A vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
A vessel crossing the course of another
The give-way vessel in a crossing situation
161. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle.
You should __________.
Sound two blasts and change course to the left
Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
Sound whistle signals only if you change course
Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted
162. A towing vessel and her tow are severely restricted in their ability to change course.
When making way, the towing vessel will show ONLY __________.
The masthead lights for a towing vessel
The lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
Sidelights, stern light, and towing light
All of the above.
163. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST __________.
Take all way off, if necessary
Stop your engines
Begin a radar plot
All of the above
DPKP
164. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged, and one short blast may be sounded by a
__________.
Vessel not under command
Vessel at anchor
Vessel towing
All of the above
165. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST __________.
Stop your engines
Take all way off, if necessary
Begin a radar plot
All of the above
166. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone __________.

In an emergency
To engage in fishing within the zone
To cross the traffic separation scheme
All of the above
167. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel
shall do so __________.
At as small an angle as possible
As nearly as practical at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow
Only in case of an emergency or to engage in fishing within the zone never
168. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________.

Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
Engaged in fishing in the separation zone
Cross a traffic lane
Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency
DPKP
169. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________.
Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
Engaged in fishing in the separation zone
Cross a traffic lane
Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency
170. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in a
vertical line, __________.
Three 360° red lights
Two 225° red lights
Three 360° blue lights
Two 225° blue lights
171. In addition to other required lights, a power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays __________.
Two all-round red lights in a vertical line
Two yellow towing lights in a vertical line
Two white masthead lights in a vertical line
Two lights on the stern, one yellow and one white
172. Which statement is true concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?

She must be a power-driven vessel.
She is not under comman
She may be a vessel being towe
She is hampered because of her work.
173. When moving from a berth alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must sound
__________.
Three short blasts
A long blast
A prolonged blast

174. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding
down a narrow channel. There is a vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow
half a mile away. According to Rule 9, which statement is TRUE?
You are not to impede the fishing vessel.
If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's intentions you may sound at least five short and
rapid blasts on the whistle.
You are to slow to bare steerageway until clear of the fishing vessel.
You must sound one prolonged blast to alert the fishing vessel.
175. The International Rules of the Road apply __________.

To all waters which are not inland waters
Only to waters outside the territorial waters of the United States
Only to waters where foreign vessels travel
Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels
176. A towing light is __________.

Shown at the bow
White in color
Shown in addition to the stern light
An all-round light
177. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to pass on the other
vessel's port side would sound __________.
One prolonged followed by two short blasts
One short blast
Two short blasts
DPKP
178. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of one
prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
Minesweeping
Engaged in fishing
Being towed

179. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.
Not under command
Aground
Dredging
180. At night, a power-driven vessel underway of less than 7 meters in length where its
maximum speed does not exceed 7 knots may show, as a minimum, __________.
The lights required for a vessel more than 7 meters in length
Sidelights only
One all-round white light
181. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel,
is sounded by a vessel __________.
Meeting another head-on
Crossing the course of another
Overtaking another
Any of the above
182. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all of the following signals may be
given EXCEPT __________.
A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
Four short whistle blasts
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short whistle blasts
Two short whistle blasts
DPKP
183. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or wharf must sound what signal?
Three short blasts
A long blast
A prolonged blast
184. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels are meeting, but
will pass clear starboard to starboard?
One short blast
Two short blasts
Five or more short blasts
185. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to overtake another on the other vessel's port
side, would sound a whistle signal of __________.
One short blast
Two short blasts
Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast
Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
186. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up dead astern of another vessel and
altering her course to starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the vessel
ahead would sound __________.
Two short blasts
One short blast
Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast
One long and one short blast
187. If a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line at night, during the day she
may show __________.
Three balls in a vertical line
A cylinder
Two diamonds in a vertical line
Two cones, apexes together
DPKP
188. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
Towing
Under sail
All of the above
189. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. What is your responsibility?
Hold your course and spee
Sound the danger signal.
Begin an exchange of passing signals.
Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel.
190. You are approaching another vessel and will pass starboard to starboard without
danger if no course changes are made. You should __________.
Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal
Hold course and sound no whistle signal
Change course to the right and sound one blast
Hold course and sound two prolonged and two short blasts
191. A fishing vessel is approaching a vessel not under comman Which statement is
TRUE?
The fishing vessel must keep clear of the vessel not under comman
If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must
keep clear of the fishing vessel.
They must exchange whistle signals.
Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.
192. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel ONLY?

A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to starboard"
A signal meaning, "I intend to overtake you on your starboard side."
A signal meaning that the vessel sounding it is in doubt as to the other
vessel's actions.
A signal sounded when approaching a ben
DPKP
112. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle is to be __________.
A. Used when the whistle is broken
B. Used prior to sounding the whistle
C. Used only at night
D. A white light

P
7. Memelihara keselamatan navigasi dengan menggunakan
ECDIS dan sistem navigasi yang terkait untuk mendukung
pengambilan keputusan perintah.
(Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and
associated navigation systems to assist command decision making)
194. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining
positions and include which of the following?
All of these suggested answers
Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks
Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS
195. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

Yes
No
Only if approved by the Flag State
Only if approved by the owner
196. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river,
when under pilot?
A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is
under pilot
A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for
transiting a canal under pilotage.
A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board
A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot station at the
destination.

197. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be
supervised by:
A responsible Officer
An experienced AB
The Bosun
The Sen.Off.Deck only
198. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size
It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in International Voyages
Over 10 000 dwt
An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge
team.
All navigational equipment fully functional.
Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently
The bridge equipment includes
ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation


DPKP
Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity.
Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area
Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the are
Increase safety for ships participating in VTS
201. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many
hours, what management issues should the Master consider?
All of these answers
Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit
Suitable crew available for lock transits
202. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing
the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the
navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in
the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is
required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary
The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's
characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.
DPKP
203. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart, what
Chart Datum should be selected?
Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections.
Select the datum stated on the chart in use
WGS78 and input the corrections stated on the chart into the GPS
WGS84 and plot the readout position directly on the chart
steer?
The anticipated weather and theneed for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by
great circle.
The ship's draught and the loadline limits
The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather
routing.
The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds
The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive within
prescribed schedule
The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The
DPKP
205. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the
occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship
Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur
Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur
206. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position
by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions.
Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.
Radar ranges from two radar destinctive headlands
GPS set on WGS84 datum
Bearing and distance from a navigation buoy close to the vessel
Gyro compass bearings from two lighthouses
207. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
The Panama Canal Authority
The ship's Master
The ship's company
The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to
resolve the emergency situation.
DPKP
208. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits
of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels,
when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when
establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2miles visibility; traffic density;manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational
hazards.
Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed down to half speed,
approximately 8 knots
Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible range
A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be
stopped within an appropriate distance.
209. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a
right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What
would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full
ahead
Full ahead, rudder hard to port
Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made
DPKP
210. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by
IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Hydrography
Aids to navigation
Tidal currents
Regulatory boundaries
211. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by
IMO/IHO?
Hydrography
Ferry routes
Regulatory boundaries
All of the above
212. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________.
Vector only
Raster only
Vector and raster
Imposed viewing
213. Raster-scan chart data is __________.

The only format recognized by IMO/IHO
Organized into many separate files
Composed of files that are smaller than vector files
A digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
214. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
ECDIS warnings and messages
Hydrographic Office data
Notice to Mariners information
All of the above
DPKP
215. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
Notice to Mariners information
ECDIS warnings and messages
Ship hydrodynamic information
Hydrographic Office data
216. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart
(ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and
(3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the________
Display base information
Standard display information
System electronic navigational chart
Chart display information
217. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on
ECDIS is the __________.
System electronic nautical chart
218. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and
consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all
circumstances is the __________.
System electronic nautical chart
DPKP
219. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross a safety contour
If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross the boundary of a
prohibited area
All of the above
If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
All of the above
When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
None of the above
222. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of
information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and
conform to the standards of (the) __________.
International Maritime Organization
International Hydrographic Organization
NASA
US Coast Guard
223. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

Radar targets
ARPA vectors
Hydrographic data
All of the above
DPKP
224. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the
previous __________.
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours

Position
Electronic navigational chart source
Course made good history
All of the above
a minimum, __________.
An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
A warning of loss of position
A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
All of the above
227. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent
to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
Transit
Selective Availability
Auto-correlation
Anti-spoofing
228. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.

DGPS, within a coverage area
SPS, without selective availability
PPS, without selective availability
NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift
DPKP
229. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satellites simultaneously?
Sequential
Continuous
Multiplex
None of the above
230. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS
receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position?
Five
Four
Three
Two

Soundings
Waypoints
Meteorological data
Radar targets

Water temperature
Climatology data
Speed of advance
Depth contours

Course made good history
Estimated time of arrival
Speed through the water
Shaft RPM
DPKP
a minimum, __________.
A warning of loss of position
A cross-track error alarm
An indication of a change in satellite configuration
An alarm if engine speed is suddenly reduced
a minimum, __________.
An alarm if engine speed is suddenly increased
An alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two seconds
An indication of a change in the number of satellites
None of the above.
236. As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________.

Obtain a weather forecast before setting out from port
Listen to weather forecasts on the radio while enroute
Understand all broadcast weather warning information
All of the above
237. NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1, WX-2
and WX-3 on a frequency of __________.
156.8, 157.1, 162.55 mhz
162.55, 162.00, 171.5 khz
162.55, 162.40, 162.475 mhz
2182, 2638, 2670 khz
238. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform?

Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum
Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two geographical points
All of the above
DPKP
239. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points
Determine magnetic compass deviation
Transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum
Convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
240. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous
__________.
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours
172

8. Ramalan cuaca dan kondisi laut.
(Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions)
241. Wind velocity varies __________.

Directly with the temperature of the air mass
Directly with the pressure gradient
Inversely with the barometric pressure
Inversely with the absolute humidity
242. What wind reverses directions seasonally?

Monsoon winds
Hooked trades
Jet stream
Secondary winds
243. What wind reverses directions seasonally?

Monsoon winds
Hooked trades
Jet stream
Secondary winds
244. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of
Mexico, particularly during the colder months, is called __________.
Tehuantepecer
Papagayo
Norther
Pampero
245. What will a veering wind do?

Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise manner in the
Northern Hemisphere
Vary in strength constantly and unpredictably
Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner in the Southern
Hemisphere
246. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the
Northern Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will __________.
Shift in a clockwise manner
Shift in a counterclockwise manner
Continue blowing from the same direction
Decrease in velocity

247. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the
Northern Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will __________.
Shift in a clockwise manner
Shift in a counterclockwise manner
Continue blowing from the same direction
Increase in velocity
248. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh n'ly
wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to
encounter
__________.
Smoother seas and warmer water
Steeper waves, closer together
Long swells
Cirrus clouds
249. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different
rates of warming of land and water is a __________.
Foehn
Chinook
Land breeze
Sea breeze
250. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night
than an adjacent water area?
Coastal breeze
Sea breeze
Land breeze
Mistral
251. A katabatic wind blows __________.

Up an incline due to surface heating
In a circular pattern
Down an incline due to cooling of the air
Horizontally between a high and a low pressure area
252. The most common form of solid precipitation is

Snow
Sleet
Glaze Ice
Hail
253. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is
High
Layere
Precipitation-free
Rain-producing
254. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe?

Maritime tropical Pacific
Maritime tropical Atlantic
Maritime polar Pacific
Maritime polar Atlantic
255. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots?

Beaufort force 0
Beaufort force 6.5
Beaufort force 12
Beaufort force 15
256. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would
indicate
__________.
High winds
High overcast clouds
Calm or light winds
Fog or steady rain
257. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure
diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation
toward the east and are known as the __________.
Geostrophic winds
Doldrums
Horse latitudes
Prevailing westerlies
258. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent, while
storms along a warm front
are short-lived and weak.
produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent.
are narrow, producing little rain and are always violent.
are long-lived, but always weak.
259. Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun
heats water and land?
Land heats more slowly than water does.
Water heats more slowly than land does.
Water and land absorb heat from the sun at the same rate.
Both absorb heat at the same rate, but water releases it faster.

260. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal
weather systems over the North American continent?
Subpolar easterlies
Northeast trades
Dominant southwesterly flow
261. In the doldrums you will NOT have __________.

High relative humidity
Frequent showers and thunderstorms
Steep pressure gradients
Frequent calms
262. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation
equals the rate of evaporation.
exceeds the rate of evaporation.
lowers the rate of evaporation.
raises the rate of evaporation.
263. The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40°S and 60°S latitude is
called the __________.
Polar easterlies
Roaring forties
Jet streams
264. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between
latitudes 5° and 30° are known as the __________.
Doldrums
Westerlies
Trades
Easterlies
265. The West Wind Drift is located __________.

Near 60°S
On each side of the Equatorial Current
In the North Atlantic between Greenland and Europe
In the South Pacific near 5°S
266. The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5°N to 30°N
are the __________.
Northeast trade winds
Southeast trade winds
Doldrums
267. The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the
equatorial currents are the __________.
Doldrums
Horse latitudes
Trade winds
268. Continental polar, maritime polar, continental tropical, and maritime tropical
are types of_____________
air fronts.
air masses.
air systems.
air flow.
269. Weather map symbols H and L indicate

precipitation.
temperature range.
air pressure centers.
wind velocity.
270. The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the
northeast trade winds is called the __________.
Subtropical high pressure belt
Intertropical convergence zone
Doldrum belt
Polar frontal zone
271. Fog differs from clouds in that fog

forms closer to the ground
forms in saturated air.
requires no condensation nuclei.
contains many ice crystals.
272. Lightning causes a rapid expansion and collapse of the air that produces
thunder.
cyclones.
hail.
rain.
273. You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong n'ly
wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to
encounter__________.
Cirrus clouds
Long swells
Smoother seas and warmer water
Steeper waves, closer together
274. Which of the following is not one of the three properties used by
meteorologists to classify clouds.
Basic, Shape
Cloud, Composition
Height, Ground
Whether or not precipitation is generated
275. Fog and stratus clouds are most common during which of the following times
of day.
Late, evening
Late, afternoon
Early, morning
Early, afternoon
276. Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and thunderstorms are the primary
source of which of the following cloud types.
Middle and high clouds
Low and middle clouds
Low and high clouds
High and middle clouds
277. High-cloud tops generally are limited by the height of the;

Mesopause
Stratopause
Mesosphere
Tropopause
278. The names of all three high-cloud genera contain which of the following
words in some form.
Alto
Cumulus
Cirrus
Stratus
279. The least common of the 10 cloud genera is:

Cumulonimbus
Cirrocumulus
Altostratus
Nimbrostratus
280. Which of the following would not be true concerning temperature change
taking place in a parcel of air at the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
The temperature rises as the parcel
The parcel does not gain or receive heat from its surroundings
Condensation does not occur during the process
The temperarute falls as the parcel rises
281. Which of the following is true of a parcel of air but not true of
theenvironment.
Temperature values differ erratically from one level to the next
Consists of different air molecules at each level
Humidity values differ erratically from one level to the next
Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates
282. Lenticular and stratiform clouds are caused in stable air by:
Entrainment
Surface heating
Orographic lifting
Buoyancy
283. Which of the following fog types is composed of unstable clouds.

Radiation fog
Evaporaton fog
Advenction fog
Orographic fog
284. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100
miles due east of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern
Hemisphere?
East to northeast
East to southeast
North to northwest
South to southeast
285. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the __________.
Equatorial current
Humidity
Rotation of the earth
Change of seasons
286. When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the center of low
pressure lies __________.
Directly in front of you
Directly behind you
To your left and behind you
To your right and behind you
287. The steady current circling the globe at about 60°S is the __________.
Prevailing Westerly
Sub-Polar Flow
West Wind Drift
Humboldt Current
288. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are __________.
Stronger than during the summer months
Weaker than during the summer months
Drier than during the summer months
Wetter than during the summer months
289. If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100
miles
due east of you, what winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere?
South-southwesterly
North-northwesterly
South-southeasterly
North-northeasterly
290. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the
Southern Hemisphere is __________.
Northwest, west, and south
Southwest, south, and southeast
North, northwest, and east
West, northwest, and north
291. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water

oceans except the __________.
Indian Ocean
North Pacific Ocean
South Pacific Ocean
South Atlantic Ocean
292. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical
characteristics, the storm becomes a(n) __________.
High pressure area
Extratropical low-pressure system
Tropical storm
Easterly wave
293. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the
Northern Hemisphere. If the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing
velocity, you are most likely __________.
In the right semicircle
In the left semicircle
On the storm track ahead of the center
On the storm track behind the center
294. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as
__________.
Sea
Waves
Fetch
Swell
295. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a
tropical wave?
Heavy rain and cloudiness
Good weather
A tropical storm
Dense fog
296. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not
have closed isobars?
Hurricane
Tropical disturbance
Tropical depression
Cyclone
297. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would youexpect
to see to the west of an approaching tropical wave?
Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction
High altostratus clouds in the morning hours
Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction
Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a north to south direction
298. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________.
North to south
West to east
East to west
None of the above
299. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle with
plenty of sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the
__________.
Starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
Starboard quarter, and make as much headway as possible
Port quarter, and make as much headway as possible
Port bow, and make as much headway as possible
300. Current refers to the __________.

Vertical movement of the water
Horizontal movement of the water
Density changes in the water
None of the above
301. Monsoons are characterized by __________.

Light, variable winds with little or no humidity
Strong, gusty winds that blow from the same general direction all year
Steady winds that reverse direction semiannually
Strong, cyclonic winds that change direction to conform to the passage of an
extreme low pressure system
302. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of
a hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to
bring the wind on the __________.
Starboard bow, note the course, and head in that direction
Starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
Port quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
Port bow, note the course, and head in that direction
303. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius of
circulation, gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically
formed cumulonimbus clouds?
A tropical disturbance
A tropical depression
A tropical storm
A typhoon
304. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) __________.

Easterly direction
Westerly direction
Northerly direction
Southerly direction
305. A steep barometric gradient indicates __________.

Calms
Light winds
Strong winds
Precipitation
306. A sea breeze is a wind __________.
That blows towards the sea at night
That blows towards an island during the day
Caused by cold air descending a coastal incline
Caused by the distant approach of a hurricane
307. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone?
Gale force winds from the north
An unusually long ocean swell
Steep, short-period waves and light wind
Thunderstorms and higher than usual humidity
308. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air
mass due to __________.
Pressure changes in the air mass
Movement of the air mass
The heterogeneous nature of the air mass
Upper level atmospheric changes
309. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at

sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions?
Rain and poor visibility
Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the Northern
Hemisphere
High winds and rising sea
Severe thunderstorms
310. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
The north polar regions are in continual darkness.
The Northern Hemisphere is having short days and long nights.
The Southern Hemisphere is having winter.
The Sun shines equally on both hemispheres.
311. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is

__________.
Clockwise and outward
Counterclockwise and outward
Clockwise and inward
Counterclockwise and inward
312. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and
are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate
latitudes, are called __________.
Altostratus
Altocumulus
Cirrostratus
Cirrocumulus
313. Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________.

Dry, fair weather
High winds and cloudiness
Gustiness and continuous precipitation
Overcast skies
314. Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________.

High clouds
Middle clouds
Low clouds
Vertical development clouds
315. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________.

Cyclone
Anticyclone
Cold front
Occluded front
316. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait
between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the
Bering Sea to form the __________.
Alaska Current
Subarctic Current
Kuroshio Current
Oyashio Current
317. Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms?

Cirrus
Stratus
Cumulus
Cumulonimbus
318. The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is
__________.
Counterclockwise
Variable
Clockwise
Anticyclonic
319. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed

__________.
Increasing
Decreasing
Remaining the same
Varying during the day
320. All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT
__________.
Steady rainfall
Hail storms
Thunderstorms
Tornadoes or waterspouts
321. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation

surrounded by higher pressure is a __________.
Low
High
Warm front
Cold front
322. If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would
indicate
__________.
Rain
Hurricane weather
Fair weather
Fog setting in
323. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.

Low barometric pressure
High barometric pressure
Steady barometric pressure
Changing barometric pressure
324. The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is generally associated
with fair weather is __________.
Nimbostratus
Stratus
Cirrocumulus
Cumulonimbus
325. When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________.
Improves
Worsens
Remains the same
Is unpredictable

326. Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering
either small or large portions of the sky are __________.
Cirrus
Cirrostratus
Altostratus
Cirrocumulus
327. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________.

Tornado
Anticyclone
Occluded cyclone or occluded front
Polar cyclone
328. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track (as you face the
same direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the
__________.
Windward side
Leeward side
Safe semicircle
Dangerous semicircle
329. High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and
often banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as
__________.
Cirrus
Cirrocumulus
Altostratus
Cumulonimbus
330. The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern
Hemisphere is
__________.
Counterclockwise and moving towards the high
Counterclockwise and moving outward from the high
Clockwise and moving towards the high
Clockwise and moving outward from the high
331. A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________.
Altostratus
Stratus
Cumulus
Cirrus
332. Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.

Low barometric pressure
High barometric pressure
Falling barometric pressure
Pumping barometric pressure
333. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone
because of the __________.
Recurvature effect
Extension of the low pressure ridge
Wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
Direction of circulation and pressure gradient
334. Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky?
Altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus
Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
Stratus, cirrostratus, altostratus
Altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus
335. Warm air masses will generally have __________.

Turbulence within the mass
Stratiform clouds
Heavy precipitation
Good visibility
336. A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is
called __________.
Cumulus
Nimbus
Stratus
Cirrus

9. Merespon keadaan darurat navigasi
(Respond to navigational emergencies )
1. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel
involved is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the
other vessel?
a. Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other
vessel and aid the fire fighting operation.
b. After checking the extent of the damage and
welfare of your crew, if possible your vessel should standby and offer
assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel.
c. There is no statutory requirement to provide assistance as the actions of
that vessel were the primary cause of the collision
d. You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if
your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.
2. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it
is in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What
is the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
a. Attempt to stop the ingress of water by listing the ship over and bringing
the damaged area of the hull out of the water.
b. Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom
as soon as possible
c. Call for tug boat assistance as soon as possible
d. Inform the local coast radio station of the
situation and ask for advice
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is
one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back,
calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal
point for any search pattern to be established?
a. The focus of the search should be from the present position as he
probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
b. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from
track into account on the return course. The search should focus around
this return track back to the last sighted position

c. The last sighted position should be the
focal point of any search pattern and all
ships should keep a good lookout in that
vicinity, moving outwards to the present
position.
d. Determine when the seaman was last
sighted and concentrate the search round the course line between the last
sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current.
4. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a
reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal
area. What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the
ship?
a. Display NUC lights and investigate the tidal flow over the next 24 hours
and the probable drift of the vessel.
b. Display NUC lights and inform the nearest Coast Guard of you
predicament.
c. Display NUC lights and determine if anchoring is possible
d. Display NUC lights and send out a navigational warning to all other
vessels of your position and situation
5. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars.
Should there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your
vessel is equipped with an operational ECDIS
a. No changes are necessary
b. Change the passage plan to avoid areas of high density shipping, if
possible
c. Increase the officers on the bridge to allow greater use of visual
navigation
d. Post extra lookouts
6. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
a. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to
the other vessel
b. Continue the voyage to your destination

c. Call the Company Office
d. Start an argument with the other vessel about fault
7. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have
been in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water.
What would you do?
a. Leave the position as fast as possible
b. Do nothing and wait for assistance
c. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
d. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders
8. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
a. Contact one or both vessels involved in the incident and offer assistance.
b. Send out a distress message on their behalf.
c. Inform the local coast radio station of the incident and submit your name
as a witness.
d. Nothing, just standby and wait to see if any assistance is required.
9. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm
on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what
other immediate steps should be taken?
a. Complete soundings of all compartments to determine the number of
compartments flooded. Check the vessels stability limitations within its
statutory loadline requirements to determine if still adequate.
b. Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in stability due to the
lost buoyancy, to determine if the final residual positive stability is
sufficient to remain afloat.
c. Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final
of equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat
d. Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at
their lifeboat stations.
10. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?

a. Organise someone to assess the extent of
damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
b. Communicate with the other ship.
c. Determine is there is any evidence of pollution.
d. Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on
board
11. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as
Master tell the Master on the other vessel?
a. Explain your actions prior to the collision and request details of actions
taken by the other vessel which resulted in the collision.
b. Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel.
c. Ask if there is any assistance required by the other vessel.
d. There should be no communication with the other vessel.
12. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of another vessel progressing the
wrong way within the scheme. What actions should be
taken on the bridge, if any?
a. Take no actions but proceed with extra caution.
b. Move out of the traffic lane towards the coast.
c. Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts.
d. Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within
the traffic lane and give rogue vessel a wide berth
13: A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall __________.
a. turn off her sidelights when not making way

b. when operating in restricted visibility, sound a whistle signal of two prolonged and
one short blast
c. show a day-shape of two diamonds in a vertical line
d. keep out of the way of a vessel engaged in fishing
14: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has
bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should
you take?
a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the

container.
d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
15: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If
a. put the vessel's stern into the wind

b. abandon ship to windward
c. call for assistance
d. keep going at half speed
16, During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship
steer?
a. As instructed by the helicopter pilot
b. With the wind astern so that the effect of the
wind is reduced as much as possible
c. Directly into the wind
d. With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area
17. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
a. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the fire zone to

the leeward of the ship
b. Keep the stem up against the wind if possible
c. Let the ship follow the wind in order to reduce the
oxygen supply
d. Continue on course and speed
18. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people
from outsides parties are asking questions. What shall you tell them?
a. Do not reply to any questions from outside

parties, except the Solicitor appointed by your
company.
b. You shall only tell them the truth and nothing but
the truth.
c. Do not tell anybody anything, except representatives from the main
newspapers, radio and TV. Remember, the people have the right to know.

d. To make sure that all parties are informed about the facts, show them the
extracts of the log-book.
19: If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
a. remain in the immediate vicinity

b. head for the nearest land
c. head for the closest sea-lanes
d. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
20: You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another vessel
about 20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist. You should __________.
a. alter course to starboard to pass around the other vessel

b. reduce your speed to bare steerageway
c. slow your engines and let the other vessel pass ahead of you
d. alter course to port to pass the other vessel on its portside
21: You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend because
of the height of the bank. You should __________.
a. stop engines and navigate with caution

b. stay in the middle of the channel
c. sound passing signals to any other vessel that may be on the other side of the bend
d. sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration
22: Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
a. She may show an all-round white light where it can best be seen.
b. She must show all-round white lights forward and aft.
c. The showing of working lights is optional.
d. None of the above
23: Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited in
sufficient time to prevent collision?
a. A 9-meter sailing vessel

b. A rowboat
c. A 6-meter motorboat
d. A small vessel fishing
24: You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and green
sidelights. The required action to take would be to __________.

a. carefully watch his compass bearing
b. start a radar plot in order to ascertain his course
c. alter your course to port
d. alter your course to starboard
25: You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in
succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
a. A vessel is in distress and needs assistance.

b. A vessel is fishing, hauling nets.
c. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
d. A vessel is towing.
26: What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?
a. When in sight of another vessel, any action taken must be accompanied by sound
signals.
b. The action taken must include changing the speed of the vessel.
c. The action must be positive and made in ample time.
d. All of the above
27: In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is also
propelled by machinery if she shows __________.
a. a basket
b. a black ball
c. a black cone
d. two black cones
28: Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any way
disabled. Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam. Which statement
is TRUE?
a. The other vessel must give way since your vessel is stopped.
b. Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
c. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel not under command.
d. You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver.
29: Vessels of less than what length may not impede the passage of other vessels which
can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway?
a. 10 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 30 meters
d. 40 meters
30: A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may
be hidden by an obstruction shall __________.

a. sound the danger signal
b. sound a prolonged blast
c. take all way off
d. post a look-out
31: You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a vertical
line on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean that __________.
a. you should pass on the port side of the dredge

b. there is an obstruction on the port side of the dredge
c. the dredge is not under command
d. the dredge is moored
32: Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?
a. A power-driven vessel underway, not making way

b. A vessel constrained by her draft
c. A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor
d. A vessel aground
33: Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?
a. Vessel engaged in fishing

b. Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
c. Sailing vessel
d. Vessel towing
34: A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many
degrees abaft the beam?
a. 0.0°
b. 11.25°
c. 22.5°
d. 45.0°
35: Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________.
a. in a crossing situation
b. in a meeting situation
c. when they are the overtaking vessel
d. on the inland waters of the U.S.
36: Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?
a. Risk of collision never exists if the compass bearing of the other vessel is changing.
b. Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
c. Risk of collision must be determined before any action can be taken by a vessel.
d. Risk of collision exists if the vessels will pass within half a mile of each other.

37: If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port side sees a sailing vessel to windward
and cannot tell whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or starboard side, she
shall __________.
a. hold course and speed

b. sound the danger signal
c. keep out of the way of the other vessel
d. turn to port and come into the wind
38: Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel "B" is on a course such that she is involved in
a head-on situation and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles away from vessel "A". To ensure a
safe passing, vessel "A" should __________.
a. maintain course
b. alter course to port
c. alter course to ensure a starboard to starboard passing
d. maneuver to ensure a port to port passing
39: What is a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
a. A vessel not under command

b. A vessel constrained by her draft
c. A vessel underway in fog
d. A vessel towing unable to deviate from her course
40: The Rules state that vessels may depart from the Rules when __________.
a. there are no other vessels around

b. operating in a narrow channel
c. the Master enters it in the ship's log
d. necessary to avoid immediate danger
41: You are approaching another vessel on crossing courses. She is approximately half a
mile distant and is presently on your starboard bow. You believe she will cross ahead of
you. She then sounds a whistle signal of five short blasts. You should __________.
a. answer the signal and hold course and speed

b. reduce speed slightly to make sure she will have room to pass
c. make a large course change, accompanied by the appropriate whistle signal, and slow
down if necessary
d. wait for another whistle signal from the other vessel
42: Your vessel is aground in fog. In addition to the regular anchor signals, you will be
sounding __________.
a. three strokes of the gong before and after the rapid ringing of the gong
b. a blast on the whistle

c. three strokes of the bell before and after the rapid ringing of the bell
d. no additional signals
43: A vessel shall slacken her speed, stop, or reverse her engines, if necessary, to
__________.
a. avoid collision
b. allow more time to assess the situation
c. be stopped in an appropriate distance
d. All of the above
44: The steering and sailing rules for vessels in restricted visibility apply to vessels
__________.
a. in sight of one another in fog

b. navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility
c. only if they are showing special purpose lights
d. only if they have operational radar
45: The Navigation Rules state that a vessel shall be operated at a safe speed at all times
so that she can be stopped within __________.
a. the distance of visibility

b. 1/2 the distance of visibility
c. a distance appropriate to the existing circumstances and conditions
d. the distance that it would require for the propeller to go from full ahead to full astern
46. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified
in the emergency plans?
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the
ship and the security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-
related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships
b. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
c. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
d. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
47. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to
take, on entering an area known for pirate activity?"
a. To turn off all lights

b. To confine all ship’s personnel to one room onboard
c. To transit with maximum safe speed
d. To transit at night time only
48. If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances,
decides not to proceed, what must he then do?
a. Inform the appropriate search and rescue authorities of his decision and
enter the reason in the ship's logbook.
b. If possible, inform the casualty of his decision and communicate his
reasons.
c. Inform his owners of his decision and resume his passage at the earliest
opportunity.
d. Contact the SAR Mission Co-ordinator and secure his written agreement
to the release of his vessel from the operation.
49. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The
sheer may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
a. The hydrodynamic interaction effects from the banks of the shallow water
channel acts on the stern causing the vessel to sheer strongly
b. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move
forward and cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
c. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning
moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank.
d. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the
vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective
a. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a
competent bridge team.
b. All navigational equipment fully functional.
c. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently
d. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and
effective operation

10. Olah gerak dan penanganan kapal dalam segala kondisi.
(Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions)
497. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water, having
been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be strong and
unexpected and is due to what reason?
The large volume of water dragged behind the
vessel continues to move forward and cause a
strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
The hydrodynamic interaction effects from the
banks of the shallow water channel acts on the
stern causing the vessel to sheer strongly
The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning moment and results in
the ship swinging towards the bank.
The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the vessel stops any applied
rudder will become suddenly more effective.
498. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little
wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at
which position?
Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case
the vessel's movement towards the berth requires
reducing by the tug pulling off.
Made fast Forward and Aft using the centre leads.
Pushing on ship's side, but not made fast to allow
the tug to move to another position if needed
One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.
499. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship in
maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahead
Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require
Pushing alongside
500. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow water.
The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed
through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of "Squat"
The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value
The squat effect will also be halve
There will be a significant change in the reduction of underkeel clearance, but the amount
varies from ship to ship
There will be very little change to the effects of Squat
501. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead throughout
the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees)
at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the
turning circle?
No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the
same.
Yes, it would be a much smaller turning circle at half ahead
Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half ahea
Yes, there would be a change of shape of the turning circle; it
would have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.
502. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug
be the same at any speed?
No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be expected that there will be a reduced
pull exerted by the tug
No, when the speed of the ship is increasing, the bollard pull
exerted by the tug will also be increasing
Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the
same at any speed of the ship
Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard
pull would be expected to be at its greatest.
503. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At
the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the second the
underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on
the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if the
draught is the same?
150 tonnes
Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes
25 tonnes
75 tonnes
504. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons creating
the effects of squat?
There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of
water pressure around the ship's hull
There is a decrease in the water velocity and an increased of
water pressure around the ship's hull
There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the
sea-bed
There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the ships motion.
505. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely round the bend
and what other effects could be expected in this situation?

The heading should be carefully monitored, some port rudder may be required to start the
swing, though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection.
The wheel should be put hard over to port to keep the ship in the middle of the channel and the
heading carefully monitore
A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and the engines should
be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre.
The heading should be continually monitored
The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to interaction and rejection
by the river bank
506. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements from
the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading? Both tugs have
similar bollard pull and are of conventional propulsion.
Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the gyro heading
Much greater power on the aft tug than on the forward tug while monitoring the gyro heading.
Equal power required by both tugs, but monitor the gyro heading to ensure sideward movement
only
It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this circumstance and it could
only be found by observation.
507. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain
the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro
heading
Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while monitoring the ship's
gyro heading
Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but continuously monitor the
ship's gyro heading
508. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double banking
two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods.
Select which answer is considered the most successful metho
When both vessels are underway,
fig. 1
When the larger vessel is at anchor,
fig. 2
When the smaller vessel is at
anchor, fig. 3
When the larger vessel is stopped
and drifting in the water, fig. 4
509. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which of the
following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to the vessel?
Williamson Turn

Scharnow Turn
Direct Turn
Evinrude Turn
510. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be decreased
by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position
of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?
The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding the forward
shoulder of the larger vessel.
The most dangerous position is when the tug is alongside the amidships section of the larger
vessel.
The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the larger vessel and
enters into its associated positive pressure fiel
The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing spring and is then
moving ahead of the larger vessel.
511. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If the
rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines are
stopped, how much lift force remains?
About 20 %
About 50 %
About 80 %
About 5 %
512. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much "lift
force" remains when the engine is stopped?
About 10 %
About 50 %
About 80 %
There will be lift force remaining
513. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to
about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes
the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
All of the suggested answers
A further reduction of underkeel clearance and possible changes of the ship's trim
A reduced ability to stop the vessel and maintain steerage
Touching the bottom if there is any swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the
vessel
514. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases
to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
The force will be Quadrupled
The force will be Tripled

The force will be Doubled
The force will be Quintupled
515. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to port
at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located?
At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
At a position aft of amidships
At a position on the centreline, about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of the bow.
At a position in the vicinity of the ship's centre of gravity
516. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?

A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing the load
on the
steering motor.
A rudder with equal rudder area forward and aft of the turning axis, the turning axis being at
the
geometrical centre of the rudder area
A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts of thrust to the
rudder
A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the rudder efficiency
517. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in the
manoeuvring of a large vessel?
The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot point
The experience of the tug crew.
The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's towing spring
The length of the towing spring
518. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally unstable"?
The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course.
When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will continue on a straight course
The ship will only require small amounts of helm to maintain its course when steaming in a
heavy seaway
The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some specific courses
519. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder-angle
is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
About 80 %
About 10 %.
About 30 %
About 50 %
520. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known a "Squat".
Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the vessel?
There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim.

There will be an increase in the vessels draught while moving through the water
There will be a change of draught and a reduction in the speed
If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there will be no effect due
to Squat.
521. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best system
of connecting the tow?
Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the ship's anchor chain.
Wire from a deep sea tug through the forward centre lead of the ship and made fast onto several
mooring bits on the forecastle
Wire from a deep sea tug made fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's leeward side
Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and made fast on the
nearest mooring bits forward
522. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain
during this operation?
The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting
A tug may be connected at any convenient speed
The speed should be more than 7 knots
523. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
Amidships
Between amidships and 1/4 of the vessel's length from the bow
524. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
1/4 of vessel's length from the stern
Amidships
Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead
525. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through narrow
waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing steering power?
The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4).
Tug running free alongside, ready to be made fast (figure 2)
Tug made fast forward on either shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)
The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)
526. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
Because the turning moment is created by the rudder, which is positioned at the stern of the
vessel
The ship moves laterally because it always tries to continue in a straight line.

The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels hull.
527. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for
berthing the vessel?
The approach speed is too fast.
The approach speed is essential to maintain steerage when coming alongside
The speed requirements are decided by the pilot and should not be the concern of the OOW.
The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.
528. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no
thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it comes alongside?
Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on deck
Reduce speed by going astern on the engines.
Let go port anchor to about 1 shackles on deck
Full starboard rudder and stop engines
529. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather
and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve
the strain you could __________.
Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
Reduce speed
Take a course which most eases the vessel
All of the above
530. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.
A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
A light vessel will be more affected by the win
A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.
531. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast overboard
Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar.
Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerge
All of the above
532. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when
__________.
Backing
Going slow ahead
Going full ahead
Turning

533. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forwar How will the vessel lie when drifting with
no way on?
With the wind from ahead
With the wind off the port beam
With the wind off the starboard beam
With the wind from abaft the beam
534. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.

Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off course
Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them
Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course
535. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed by
the __________.
Bow
Bridge
Centerline
Center of gravity
536. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has
been completed, is called the __________.
Advance
Pivoting point
Tactical diameter
Kick
537. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks
into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
Broaching
Fish tailing
Squatting
Parallel sinkage
538. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard
side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which step is NOT a part of a Williamson
Turn?
Step 1: Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T.
Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the man.
Step 3: Shift the helm to left full rudder.
Step 4: Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T.
539. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the
distance……………
Gained in the direction of the original course

Gained at right angles to the original course
The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction of the turn after the
rudder is first put over
Around the circumference of the turning circle
540. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line
directly over the first.
It makes no difference how the lines are place
Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through
the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar
Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on
the vessel and secure them on the winch.
541. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the rudder
is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the __________.
Advance
Drift angle
Pivoting point
Transfer
542. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twin-screw vessel
Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel
543. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel
to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on the
turning circle is known as __________.
Advance
Head reach
Tactical diameter
Transfer
544. The distance gained in the direction of the original course when you are making aturn is
known as __________.
Advance
Drift
Tactical diameter
Transfer
545. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as liste Based on
this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg

40 yards
140 yards
190 yards
230 yards
546. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________.
Tipping center
Bow
Outermost part of the ship while making the circle
Center of gravity
547. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.

At the hawsepipe
About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
Near the stern
548. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding
along a narrow channel?
It pulls the bow toward the bank.
It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
It pulls the stern toward the bank.
It heels the vessel toward the bank.
549. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now.
Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho
Stop the swing of the ship.
550. In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the
__________.
Difference between the vessel's speed through the water at any instant and the new speed
ordered on the telegraph
Distance the vessel has actually run through the water since a change of speed was ordered
Distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water
Speed at which a vessel should proceed to ensure that she will run a predetermined distance,
once her engines have been stopped
551. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm weather,
putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring
The bow in and the stern out
Both the bow and stern in

The bow out and the stern in
Both the bow and stern out
552. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs
available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain you
should pay out is __________.
5 to 7 times the depth of the water
1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
Equal to the depth of the water
You should NEVER use the anchor to help in docking
553. The helm command "meet her" means __________.

Use rudder to check the swing
Decrease the rudder angle which is on
Steer more carefully
Note the course and steady on that heading
554. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding
along a narrow channel?
555. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The
ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called __________.
Propeller velocity
Speed of advance
Wake distribution
Wake fraction
556. The term "Shift the Rudder" means __________.

Put the rudder amidships
Use right or left rudder
Check, but do not stop the vessel from swinging
Change from right to left or left or right
557. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?

It has no effect on the steering of the vessel.
It has no effect on the rudder when the helm is amidships.
Its velocity is the same as that of the wake.
The propeller gives it a helical motion.
558. A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by __________.
Crew members using their arms

A boat hook
Fenders
No fending is necessary due to the rugged construction of most towing vessels.
559. The helm command "shift your rudder" means __________.

Double your rudder angle or go to full rudder
Bring your rudder amidships
Change from right rudder to left rudder, or vice versa, an equal number of degrees
Check the swing of the vessel
560. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller
blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These voids
are known as
Advance
Cavitation
Edging
Slip
561. "Hard right rudder" means __________.

Put the rudder over to the right all the way
Jam the rudder against the stops
Meet a swing to the right, then return to amidships
Put the rudder over quickly to 15° right rudder
562. "Ease the rudder" means to __________.

Move the rudder slowly in the direction of the most recent rudder command
Bring the rudder amidships
Decrease the rudder angle
Steer the course which is your present heading
563. The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no
slip, is called __________.
Advance
Head reach
Pitch
Transfer
564. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left, depending
on rotation. This force is caused by __________.
Back current from the rudder
Greater pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation
Lower pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on rotation
Torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller
blades

566. A vessel is equipped with a single right-handed screw. With rudder amidships and calm
wind, the vessel will most likely back __________.
Straight astern
To port
To starboard
In no particular direction
567. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has
__________.
Headway
Sternway
No way on, with engines stopped
No way on, with engines full ahead
568. A towing vessel is tripped when __________.

It is overtaken by the tow
It is pulled sideways by the tow
The weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability
The propeller is fouled by the towing hawser
569. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________.
At the bow
About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
Aft of the propellers
570. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put
full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?
It will swing to the left, and will swing left faster as the vessel loses way.
It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as the vessel loses way.
It will swing to the left without increasing or decreasing its swing.
The bow will swing to the right
571. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships.
The vessel will generally back __________.
To port
To starboard

In a straight line directly astern
Downstream, the stern going in the direction of the current
572. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force
of the sea is known as __________.
Surge
Sway
Heave
Pitch
573. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________.
Course
Track
Heading
Course over the ground
574. Fetch is the __________.

Distance a wave travels between formation and decay
Stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
Time in seconds required for two crests to pass a given point
Measurement of a wave's steepness
575. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the
__________.
Water depth exceeding 100 feet
Fetch
Wind's velocity
Duration of the wind
576. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the proper
side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________.
Eddies under the bar
Swift current under the bar causing loss of control
Cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar
Cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar
577. Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead?

One-third the length of the combined unit forward of the towboat
One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head
At the head of the towboat
One-half the length of the combined unit

578. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahea If the distance from the stern
of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate location of the pivot
point of the unit?
At the head of the tow
250 feet from the head of the tow
579. You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing
ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close
alongside __________.
You will gain speed
Both boats will gain speed
The tows will tend to drift apart
The tows will tend to drift together
580. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the
__________.
Course
Heading
Bearing
Course over the ground
581. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for
your vessel is __________.
One flowing in the same direction as your course steered
One flowing in the opposite direction as your course steered
One that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
A rotary current in which the direction of current flow constantly changes
282. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________.

The density of the water
The air temperature
The presence of a high pressure area near it
Underwater soil conditions
583. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly
current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
Head your vessel slightly to the right
Head your vessel slightly to the left
Decrease your speed
Increase your speed
584. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard

side". You should instinctively __________.
Give full left rudder
Give full right rudder
Put the rudder amidships
Throw a life ring to mark the spot
585. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?

It provides lateral control without affecting headway.
It is fully effective at speeds up to about six knots.
It can be used to slow the ship in addition to backing down.
It will allow you to hold a position when the current is from astern.
586. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends
to __________.
Move aft
Move forward
Move lower
Remain stationary
587. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed
by the __________.
Center of gravity
Bow
Bridge
Centerline
588. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at
sea speed is __________.
Right at the bow
One-third the length of the vessel from the bow
One-half the length of the vessel from the bow
Two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow
589. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy
weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve
the strain you could __________.
Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
Reduce speed
Take a course which most eases the vessel
All of the above
590. The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full
astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________.
Advance
Head reach

Surge
Transfer
591. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's
speed past its "critical speed"?
Squatting
Smelling the bottom
Sinkage
Bank cushion
592. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.
A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
A light vessel will be more affected by the win
A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.
593. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsurethat the
Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the Master do?
Nothing; the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety of the vessel.
State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of the vessel.
Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot.
Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and anchor if necessary until the situation clears.
594. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when----------------
Backing
Going slow ahead
Going full ahead
Turning
595. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.

Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off course
Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them
Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course
596. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has
been completed, is called the __________.
Advance
Pivoting point
Tactical diameter
Kick
597. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks
into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?

Broaching
Fish tailing
Squatting
Parallel sinkage
598. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance
__________.
Or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm hard over
599. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the
distance__________.
The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction of the turn after the
rudder is first put over
600. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line
directly over the first.
It makes no difference how the lines are place
Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through
the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar
Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on
the vessel and secure them on the winch.
601. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twins crew vessel
Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a singles crew vessel
602. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel
to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on the
turning circle is known as __________.
Advance
Head reach
Tactical diameter
Transfer

603. You are on a large merchant vessel entering a port. There is a Pilot on board and he has
the conn. Which statement is TRUE?
The Pilot is solely responsible for the safe maneuvering of the ship only if he is required to be
on board by law.
The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is employed for his
local knowledge.
The Pilot is solely responsible for the internal working of the ship.
The Pilot becomes solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel only if the Master
relinquishes the conn.
604. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar
ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as liste Based on
this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg
40 yards
140 yards
190 yards
230 yards
605. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary responsibility of
the watch officer?
Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if necessary
Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed
Record the bells and their times in the bell book
Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette
606. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a
motionless tow is called __________.
Shaft horsepower
Delivered horsepower
Bollard pull
Towrope pull
607. Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________.

Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course
Vessel must be in extremis
Master should agree to sign a release of liability form
Master must first request the Pilot to take corrective action
608. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.

At the hawsepipe
About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
Near the stern

609. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a rudder
command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do?
Ask the Pilot if he relinquishes control.
Obey the Pilot.
Obey the Master.
Bring the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting positions.
610. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
Plan And Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care During

Voyage and Unloading Of Cargoe

784. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak height; what could be the result of this
situation?
a) Excessive stresses on tank top
b) Damage to hatch covers
c) Excessive stresses on transverse bulkheads
d) Excessive cargo sweat
785. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft after loading; what should be the actions
of the master?
a) Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until the maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
b) Record a lower draught and sail
c) Inform the port authorities and sail
d) There is not a problem as over loading is permitted
786. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations must the vessel comply?
a) IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of Timber Deck cargoes
b) International Code for the carriage of Dangerous Goods
c) Grain Regulations
d) Marine Pollution Regulations
KP
787. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small amount of the previous grain cargo is
found in a cargo hold; what is the significance of this situation?
a) The vessel may fail the pre-load survey and be declared off-hire
b) The affected cargo hold should be left empty
c) The cargo hold can be cleaned while other holds are loaded
d) The remaining cargo from the previous voyage can be ignored
788. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?

a) Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the longitudinal axes athwartships
b) Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes athwartships
c) Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the longitudinal axes fore and aft
d) Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes fore and aft
789. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling on a Bulk Carrier?
a) There is minimum pressure head on the tank top and pumps are not required
b) Ballasting is done more quickly
c) Free surface effect is eliminated
d) Ballasting can be done without any supervision
DPKP
790. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew of the disposal of garbage within and
outside Special Areas?
a) The vessel could be detained by port state control authorities
b) The vessel could be detained by its flag Administration
c) The classification society concerned could suspend the vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificate
d) The ship owner could be penalized by the P. & I. Club concerned
791. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
a) MARPOL regulations
b) SOLAS 74/88 regulations
c) Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes and Other Matter
d) The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes
792. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk Carrier can be achieved?
a) A good stern trim is maintained during deballasting operations
b) A trim by the bow is required
c) The vessel must be maintained at an even keel
d) The trim of the vessel is not important
DPKP
793. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to cargo spaces containing grain, are
excessively heated?
a) The grain cargo may be heated and damaged
b) The cargo may liquefy
c) The grain cargo may produce methane gas
d) No damage should occur
794. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
a) To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded
b) The calculate the stability of the vessel
c) To calculate the deadweight of the vessel
d) To calculate light displacement of the vessel
795. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on top of coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier?
a) Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo Code
b) Ventilation to be continuous?
c) Cargo not to be ventilated?
d) Cargo to be ventilated by opening hatch covers at sea?
796. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk Carrier?
a) Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
b) Cargo hold paintwork must be intact
c) Cargo hold ventilation systems must be satisfactorily tested
d) Cargo hold tank tops must be pressure-tested
797. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
a) IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk?
b) International Tankers and Terminal Code?
c) Classification Society Grain Rules?
d) Charters' Solid Bulk Cargoes Code?
DPKP
798. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a
Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
a) Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System (SMS) for guidance
b) There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea
c) Follow actions of previous crews
d) Check procedures and Arrangements manual
799. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk Carrier?
a) The York Antwerp rules
b) The Hague rules
c) The Hague Visby rules
d) The Hamburg rules
800. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?

a) IMO Grain Rules?
b) Classification Society Rules?
c) Statutory Regulations?
d) Port State Regulations?
801. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?

a) IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid
b) Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
c) The cargo securing manual
d) The timber deck cargo code published by IMO
e) Classification Society Rules
DPKP
802. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo holds?
a) Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
b) Because of inadequate dunnage placed over the tank top
c) Because of using inadequately sized lasing wires
d) Because of dunnage, provided at every tier of the cargo, not having been aligned
803. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk Carriers?
a) Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders
b) Because of variations in under keel clearances whilst alongside the berth
c) Because of the vessel's movement whilst berthing or unberthing
d) Because the vessel may pass under a bridge(s) whilst approaching or leaving the berth
804. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The master must report this loss of container
incident to:
a) The nearest Coastal state.
b) The Flag state.
c) The ship owner.
d) Vessels in the immediate vicinity.
805. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed across several flat rack containers. The most
appropriate method for lashing such cargo would be by:
a) Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points.
b) Taking all lashings to the hatch top.
c) Taking all lashings to the hatch coamings, pillars and lashing bridges.
d) Taking some of the lashings to flat-racks and rest to hatch tops.
DPKP
806. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part of the deck stow are additionally subjected
to:
a) The effect of wind on the containers.
b) Transverse accelerating load condition, leading to loss of GM
c) The effect of green seas breaking over the containers.
d) Lack of support from adjacent columns of containers.
807. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
a) On deck, away from sources of heat.
b) Away from reefer units, below deck.
c) Under deck, away from sources of heat.
d) Abaft the accommodation.
808. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
a) When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed in the IMDG Code.
b) When declared as a non-hazardous chemical.
c) When declared as bulk liquid foodstuff.
d) When the shipper instructs that the container be carried on-deck only.
809. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container vessel would be most concerned with:
a) The added weight of icing on container stacks, leading to loss of GM.
b) The presence of icebergs leading to hazard of navigation.
c) Temperature differential between air and seawater, leading to shell plating damage.
d) High wind and waves leading to speed reduction and high fuel consumption.
DPKP
810. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container vessel would be most concerned with:
a) Metacentric height of the vessel.
b) Current wave conditions.
c) Transverse distribution of container stack weights.
d) Hull form of the vessel
811. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most important document to refer is:
a) The Cargo Securing Manual.
b) The Code for the Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing.
c) The company's ISM handbook.
d) The Stability Manual.
812. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of containers is:
a) Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
b) Provided as per advice from the Supercargo.
c) Always upon the attending cargo surveyor.
d) Always upon the charterer of the vessel.
813. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give guidance for:
a) Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
b) Securing of deck cargoes.
c) Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas.
d) Port State Control Officers when carrying out ship inspections.
DPKP
814. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank containers is that:
a) They may contain flammable cargo residue.
b) They may not be declared as being empty.
c) They could explode if their vents are closed.
d) They are prone to collapse.
815. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll condition on large container ships is:
a) Head seas.
b) Beam seas.
c) Just forward of the beam seas.
d) Following or quartering seas.
816. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during a sea passage is to:
a) Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
b) Increase speed, whilst maintaining course.
c) Have the crew remove the ice.
d) Heave to and wait for ambient temperature to rise to safe levels.
817. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would be:
a) By internal shift of ballast.
b) By internal shift of cargo containers.
c) By internal shift of fuel oil.
d) By jettisoning of containers.
DPKP
818. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly manifested, but which is believed to contain
dangerous goods, about which insufficient information is supplied?
a) He has the authority to refuse it.
b) He must load it, but immediately advise his operations department and request full information.
c) If it it approved by the operations department, he can assume all safety checks have been carried out and should load
it.
d) He must load it, but ensure it is placed in a safe loaction, to which there is immediate access in the event of an
emergency.
819. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships,reference must be made to:
a) The ems Guide.
b) The ISPS Code.
c) SOLAS Chapter V – Safety of navigtaion.
d) The ship's Contingency plan.
820. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code it is not allowed to:
a) Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
b) Ship in open top half containers on deck.
c) Ship in Intermediate Bulk Containers (ibcs).
d) Carry the cargo transport units under deck.
DPKP
821. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, anexemption from carrying out a mandatory
prewash provided that the:
a) Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the same substance or another substance compatible with the previous one and
that the tank will not be washed or ballasted prior to loading.
b) Unloaded tank will be washed outside a special area.
c) Vessel temporarily has defective tank cleaning equipment and the prewash will be carried out at the first available
opportunity after repairs have been completed and the tank will not be loaded or ballasted before that time.
d) Vessel's stripping system can reduce the residues to less than 10 litres in the relevant tank and its associated piping.
822. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving port in compliance with MARPOL.
The resulting residues shall be discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized surveyor has reached a level of:
a) 0.1% by weight.
b) 0.1% by volume.
c) 0.2% by weight.
d) 0.3% by volume.
823. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s) designated as ―Special Areasǁ are:
a) The Antarctic.The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf of Aden, Oman Area of the
Arabian Sea, Southern South African Waters,
b) Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
c) The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic.
d) The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters
and North-West European Waters.DPKP
824. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to such an extent that the ballast contains
less than 1 ppm of the substance previously carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
a) That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water that is not less than 25 metres deep.
b) That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is proceeding on route.
c) That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the
vessel's wake.

d) Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been drawn from the tank and is stored on board,
there are no additional conditions to be imposed on such a discharge.
825. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by ventilation. This may be carried out provided
that:
a) The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 kpa at 20 degrees Celsius.
b) The cargo discharged has a vapour expansion coefficient of at least 1.025.
c) The vessel's ventilation system is capable of delivering a minimum of 20 changes of atmosphere per hour within the
compartment.
d) The volume of the tank does not exceed 1750 cubic metres, the maximum remaining residues are less than 75 litres and
ventilation is additionally possible directly down the pumpstack.
DPKP
826. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a ―Noxious Liquid Substanceǁ (other than products
provisionally assessed) can be obtained from:
a) The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
b) The pollution category of chapter 17 (only) of the International Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
c) The product groups within the list of cargoes contained in the Chemical Data Guide for Bulk Shipment by Water.
d) The Procedures and Arrangements Manual.
827. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low flash or static accumulator product:
a) The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content.
b) The product must be allowed settling time within the tank before recirculation is commenced.
c) All lids and other penetrations must be securely closed before recirculation is commenced.
d) The tank must already have been cleaned to Water White Standard to ensure no hazardous reaction with cargo
residues.
828. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category ―Xǁ, ―Yǁ & ―Zǁ Noxious Liquid Substances, the term ―Clean Ballastǁ
as defined in the IBC Code means:
a) Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo containing a substance in category
"X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the tank
emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
b) Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage ofballast or cargoes other than oil or
Noxious Liquid Substances as variously defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which is completely
separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems.
c) Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in accordance with the requirements of the
Procedures and Arrangements ManualDPKP
d) Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.
829. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture
containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the Cargo record Book, which shall include:
a) Time of occurrence Approximate quantity, substance(s) and category (ies) Circumstances of discharge or escape and
general remarks.
b) Date of occurrence Position (latitude and longitude) Estimated quantity and category (ies) Extract from Master's Log
Book detailing the incident.
c) Position at start and stop of accidental discharge Time at start and stop of accidental discharge Reason for accidental
discharge Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge. Date and Time of occurrence
d) Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and category of product discharged Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that
State contacted with applicable report reference.
830. The ‗dew point‘ of a liquid chemical can be defined as:

a) The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable component, as in operational terms is seen at
the point when air is saturated with moisture.
b) The temperature at which a condensable component is saturated with respect to a gas, as in operational terms is seen at
the point when moisture no longer detectable in air.
c) The temperature at which dry-ice melts in Acetone.
d) The temperature at which a saturated gas exhibits condensation.
DPKP
831. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code may be considered possible, provided it is
achieved through a ‗tri-partite agreement between:
a) The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port State of the Receiver.
b) The Shipper / the Receiver / the Operator or Charterer.
c) The IMO / the Port State of the Shipper / the Port State of the Receiver.
d) The Flag State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Charterer / the Flag State of the Receiver.
832. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction
and speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is:
a) Catalyst.
b) Reactant.
c) Accelerant.
d) Reagent.
833. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry a particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is
called:
a) The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
b) The IBC Code.
c) MARPOL.
d) The International Pollution Prevention Certificate for the Carriage of Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.
834. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category ―Xǁ substance on a chemical tanker constructed after 01 January 2007,
require the vessel to carry out:
a) Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge
below waterline.
b) Prewash / strip to 100 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route /
discharge below waterline.
c) Prewash for solidifying or high viscosity substances / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
d) Strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below
waterline.
835. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:

a) Category "Y".
b) Category "Z".
c) Category "OS" - other substances.
d) Category "A".
836. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF, under which tankers are inspected and the
results made available to potential charterers through a database of records?
a) The Ship Inspection Report Programme (SIRE).
b) The Chemical Distribution Institute (CDI) Inpsection programme.
c) The Enhanced Survey Programme.
d) The Tanker Inspection and Reporting System (TIRS).
837. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is important to ensure that:
a) Once cleaning commences, large quantities of washing water can be delivered as quickly as possible, so that the acid is
quickly diluted.
b) Once cleaning commences, washing water must be introduced in a controlled manner, allowing time for the acid and
water to mix slowly and thoroughly before the rest of the tank surfaces are flushed.
c) A mixture of hot fresh water and Sodium Hydroxide solution (50/50) is prepared beforehand and then circulated
around the tank, rapidly neutralising any remaining acid.
d) Any acid remaining in the sump should first be ejected and the tank ventilated for a minimum of 30 minutes before the
introduction of any water, ensuring that there are insufficient acid residues to create any dangerous reaction.
DPKP
838. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in order to facilitate the washing of
tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals, must be ensured that:
a) No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used, except those components that are readily
biodegradable and present in a total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No restrictions additional
to those applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shall apply.
b) The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which would apply to the additive had it been
carried as cargo. Tank washing procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the Procedures and
Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag State Administration.
c) No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic metres of tank volume is used in any one washing
operation.
d) If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200 litres is used in the washing operation for a
single cargo tank, then a prewash to shore must be carried out
839. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for eventual discharge in Australia, after the ship
has called at Singapore and Malaysia.None of the cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage require heating. None of the tanks
to be discharged in Singapore and Malysia will require hot washing after discharge. When determining the filling limits of the
tanks containing the Australian cargoes, you will need to consider that:
a) The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach bearing in mind ambient air and sea temperatures
to be encountered on passage, so that any expansion does not result in overflow.
b) The accuracy of the tank level monitoring systems in potentially sub-zero conditions.
c) The anticipated cargo loss due to the projected evaporation rates as the vessel passes through the tropics.
d) The potential damage to tank coating in the upper areas of any tanks which are not fully loaded due to the duration of
exposure to cargo vapour.
e) DPKP
840. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on deck compared with amidships under
deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because:
a) The dynamic stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel.
b) The forward of the vessel is subjected to more rolling conditions.
c) Heavier cargo is generally stowed forward.
d) The roll period is greater forward.
841. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time. During the voyage, ventilation in cargo
spaces should:
a) Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel is moving from warm to colder areas.
b) Should not be carried out as the vessel is moving from a cold area to a warmer area.
c) Should occasionally be carried out as the vessel is moving from a cold area to a warmer area.
d) Would only be carried out once, just before discharging the cargo.
842. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when:

a) Heavy weather is anticipated for the planned voyage.
b) Passing through the Summer Zone in winter months.
c) Passing through the Tropical Zone in winter months.
d) After the vessel has started to encounter heavy weather conditions.
843. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the maximum stowage height for containers
on deck is limited to:
a) One container high.
b) Two container high.
c) The height of the wheelhouse.
d) Three container high.
DPKP
844. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have on board a:
a) Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous goods.
b) SOLAS Safety Equipment Certificate.
c) Document of Authorization for the carriage of bulk IMDG Cargoes.
d) Safety Construction Certificate for carriage of IMDG cargoes in packaged form.
845. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required airchanges per hour should be:
a) 6
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
846. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel may be available by referring to:
a) The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.
b) The ship's stability manual.
c) The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes (BC Code).
d) The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
847. On a voyage from cold to hot climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a General cargo ship should:
a) Not be carried out at all.
b) Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
c) Be carried out during the day time only.
d) Be carried out during the night time only.
DPKP
848. On a voyage from hot to cold climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
a) Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
b) Not be carried out at all.
c) Be carried out during the day time only.
d) Be carried out during the night time only.
849. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule ofThumb', the total strength of the lashings on
each side of a heavy lift; what is thestated value?
a) The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal the weight of the cargo unit.
b) The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal the 50% weight of the cargo unit.
c) The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal twice the weight of the cargo unit.
d) The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal five times the weight of the cargo unit.
850. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods declaration on a General Cargo Vessel
should be:
a) IMO Class, UN Number, Gross weight, number of units of cargo, Proper Shipping Name.
b) IMO Class, weight, cargo brand name, stowage requirement.
c) Gross and net weight, volume of cargo, proper shipping name.
d) UN Number, Volume of units, stowage requirements, weight, centre of gravity.
DPKP
851. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a particular sea route on a General Cargo Vessel is:
a) Transverse accelerations.
b) The breaking strength of lashing materials.
c) Encountering heavy weather.
d) The size and weight of general cargo items to be loaded.
852. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General Cargo ship may be obtained by referring to:
a) The IMO International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code.
b) The IMO Bulk cargo Code.
c) The Cargo Securing manual.
d) IMO SOLAS Handbook.
853. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space of a General Cargo vessel would be:
a) Light reflective and compatible with edible cargoes.
b) Corrosion resistant and heat resistant.
c) Low odour and heat resistant.
d) Easy to clean and dark in colour.
854. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel coils?
a) Steel rebars
b) Hygroscopic cargoes
c) Chemicals
d) Fertilizers
DPKP
855. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo handling procedures?
a) By being able to provide comprehensive and verifiable documentary records of cargo operations.
b) By requesting that an audit takes place during cargo operations.
c) By providing a summary of out-turn figures for the auditor.
d) By providing a summary of incident and lost time figures for the auditor that reflects a successful and trouble-free
system on board.
856. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages, irregularities or short shipment and the phrase
"apparent good order and condition" is entered on the Bill of Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be?
a) A clean Bill of Lading.
b) An endorsed Bill of Lading.
c) A Bill of Lading completed for shipment.
d) A Due Title Bill of Lading.
857. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a vessel or her operators will not be held responsible for any damage
that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's receipt is marked as "unclean", such as
may apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have been waiting in a port facility for some time awaiting shipment?
a) A Letter of Indemnity.
b) A Letter of Credit.
c) An absolution clause in the shipping documents.
d) An addendum to the Bill of Lading.
e) DPKP
858. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due when a vessel is unable to load / discharge
her cargo within the allowed and contracted time?
a) Demurrage.
b) Deferment.
c) Discretion.
d) Contractual penalty discount.
859. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment?

a) A Through Bill of Lading.
b) An Ocean Bill of Lading.
c) A Destination Bill of Lading.
d) A Multi-Phase Bill of Lading.
860. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the two elements to be considered?
a) The potential severity of harm and the likelihood that harm will occur.
b) The chance of an incident re-occuring and thenpotential effects of an loss.
c) The time available to complete the task and the resources to hand.
d) The available manpower and their experience in this type of work.
861. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure measurement equipment?
a) +/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
b) +/- 1,00 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
c) +/- 0,50 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
d) +/- 0,0005 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
DPKP
862. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen‘s outfits" required to be carried on an LNG
carrier with a cargo capacity above 5,000 m3?
a) 5 sets
b) 4 sets
c) 2 sets
d) 3 sets
863. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What isthe solidifying temperature of CO2?
a) Approximately minus 78.5 C
b) Approximately minus 87.5 C
c) Approximately minus 30.5 C
d) Approximately minus 60.5 C
864. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?

a) Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
b) No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers.
c) Yes, but only annex IV.
d) Yes, but only annex V.
865. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
a) Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
b) No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers.
c) Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products.
d) OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels.
DPKP
866. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k value, is an important property of the
insulation material used in cargo containment systems. For a given rate of heat leakage across the insulation, which of the
following statements is true?
a) The higher the k value the thicker the insulation needs to be.
b) The higher the k value the thinner the insulation needs to be.
c) The rate of heat leakage is unaffected by the thickness of the insulation.
d) The k value depends on the thickness of the insulation material.
867. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier which of the given options, regarding
temperature, needs to be observed?
a) Never allow temperature of the insulation to fall below the safe minimum temperature.
b) Always control the outlet temperature of methane from the vaporiser.
c) Always control the vaporisers so that the temperature of methane vapour is lower than existing tank atmosphere
temperature.
d) Always control the temperature in the shore supply line.
DPKP
868. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo isunacceptable due to ice formation at low
carriage temperatures. How can watervapour in the tank atmosphere be removed prior to the cooling down and loading
operation?
a) By displacing the tank atmosphere with pre-dried inert gas.
b) By displacing the tank atmosphere with fresh air.
c) By displacing the tank atmosphere with warm inert gas direct from a combustion type inert gas generator.
d) By displacing the tank atmosphere with heated air.
869. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of 125000 cubic metre cargo capacity?
a) From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo.
b) From 0,30 % to 0,35 % per day of total cargo.
c) From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per day of total cargo.
d) From 0,75 % to 0,80 % per day of total cargo.
870. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading
LNG?
a) Introducing liquid LNG into the tank slowly through the spray lines.
b) Introducing liquid LNG into the bottom of the tank.
c) Introducing liquid LNG into the tank quickly through the liquid header.
d) Introducing liquid LNG into the tank through a heater.
871. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement systems?
a) +/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
b) +/- 0.5 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
c) +/- 1.0 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
d) +/- 0.7 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
DPKP
872. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles
on Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to?
a) Saturated Hydrocarbons
b) Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
c) Chemical Gases
d) Mixed Saturated and Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
\
873. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off from the header connected to each cargo
tank of an LNG carrier?
a) The low-duty compressor.
b) The fuel-feed compressor.
c) The high-duty compressor.
d) The medium-duty compressor.
874. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG carriers?
a) Because the carbon dioxide in combustion generated inert gas would freeze when in close proximity to the cargo.
b) Because of the high oxygen content of combustion generated inert gas.
c) Because of the high temperature of combustion generated inert gas.
d) Because of the high humidity in combustion generated inert gas.
875. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading operations, how can it be determined that the
cool down operation is complete?
a) When temperature monitor, or liquid level gauge, shows that liquid is forming in the bottom of the cargo tank.
b) When the outlet temperature from the spray header reaches minus 10 C.
c) When the temperature at the compressor vapour manifold reaches minus 25 C.
d) When vapour temperature from the HD compressor reaches minus 40 C.
DPKP
876. Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the cargo tanks must be cooled down slowly in order to minimise thermal
stresses for the vessel and the cargo containment system. What is the generally accepted cooling down rate?
a) 10 degrees C per hour.
b) 5 degrees C per hour.
c) 15 degrees C per hour.
d) 20 degrees C per hour.
877. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be inerted using either inert gas from a combustion type inert gas generator or by using
nitrogen. Is gassing up of an inerted cargo tank with LPG allowed when the tank contains combustion generated inert gas?
a) Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 5% by volume and the charter allows it.
b) Yes, it is always allowed if the atmosphere of the inerted tank has an oxygen content of less than 5% by volume.
c) Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 1% by volume and the charter allows it.
d) No, it is never allowed; the inert gas must first be replaced by oxygen free nitrogen.
878. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it is necessary to check the condition of the
atmosphere. If the gas detection equipmentto be used for the checks included a catalytic type combustible gas indicator, an
absorption type toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type oxygen analyser, which would be the preferred order for the checks?
a) Oxygen content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then toxic gas content.
b) Hydrocarbon gas content followed by oxygen content and then toxic gas content.
c) Hydrocarbon gas content followed by toxic gas content and then oxygen content.
d) Toxic gas content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then oxygen content
DPKP
879. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating to the carriage of bulk cargoes including the IGC Code for liquefied gas carriers.
What is the main purpose of the IGC Code?
a) To provide an international standard for the construction of, and equipment for, gas carriers to ensure the safe
carriage of liquefied gases in bulk.
b) To provide national standards for the construction of, and the equipment for, gas carriers to ensure the safe carriage of
liquefyed gases in bulk
c) To provide international standards regarding the maximum vessel size and the minimum manning levels for gas
carriers to ensure safe carriage of liquefied gases in bulk.
d) To provide guidance to the oil and gas companies as to which gases can be carried in liquefied state.
880. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas cargoes prior to loading to prevent or slow down polymerisation. An inhibitor
information form or certificate must be provided by the cargo shipper to the vessel. What sort of information must this
certificate contain about the inhibitor in addition to the technical name and quantity added?
a) Expected lifetime of the inhibitor, temperature limitations affecting the lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the
inhibitor was added.
b) Expected lifetime of the inhibitor, name of person who added the nhibitor and the temperature limitations affecting the
lifetime of the inhibitor
c) Date the inhibitor was added, the name of the person that added it and expiry date of the inhibitor
d) Expected lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the cargo tanks were inhibited
DPKP
881. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated propane directly onto a fully pressurised LPG carrier without additional
conditioning of the cargo or cargo spaces?
a) Only if the cargo containment system is designed for temperatures of minus 48 degrees C or less.
b) Only if the vessel is equipped with cargo cooling plant
c) Only if the loading rate is kept below 100m3/h.
d) Fully refrigerated propane can be loaded directly onto this type of vessel under any circumstances
882. It is necessary for personnel to enter a liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean up some dust and other loose debris. What
are the permit requirements before entry into the tank is allowed?
a) Both Enclosed Space Entry and Cold Work Permits are required.
b) Both Enclosed Space Entry and Hot Work Permits are required.
c) Both Enclosed Space Entry Permit and a Gas Free Certificate are required.
d) Only an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is required.
883. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as the temperature increases and therefore tanks are not allowed to be filled to 100%.
What is the maximum allowable filling limit for the cargo tanks on liquefied gas carriers?
a) Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 98% on gas carriers.
b) Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 95% on gas carriers.
c) Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 92% on gas carriers.
d) Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 90% on gas carriers.
DPKP
884. What is the full title of the IMO code which applies to all gas carriers built after 1986?
a) The International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC
Code)
b) The International Code for Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC code)
c) The Code for Existing Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the Existing Ship Code)
d) The Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the GC Code)
885. What is the main reason for adding inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such as ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride?
a) To prevent polymerisation of the cargo.
b) To reduce the boil-off rate of the cargo.
c) To reduce the toxicity of the cargo.
d) To control the temperature of the cargo.
886. What is the requirement for the atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding cargo tanks that require a secondary barrier
when carrying LPG cargoes?
a) The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition whenever there is cargo in the cargo tanks.
b) The hold spaces must be filled with clean dry air at all times.
c) The hold spaces must be filled with cargo vapour whenever there is cargo in the cargo tanks.
d) The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition at all times even when the cargo tanks are empty.
DPKP
887. What method should be used to discharge a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there is a break down on the cargo discharge
pump?
a) By pressurising the vapour space of the cargo tank using a vaporiser and cargo compressor to force liquidcargo ashore.
b) By using a portable submersible pump to empty the affected tank
c) By using the cargo compressor topump the cargo vapour ashore as it boils off.
d) By using the inert gas system to pressurise the cargo tank and force the liquid cargo ashore.
888. When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG virtually all traces of vapours must be removed. What is the allowable
concentration of ammonia vapour in the tank prior to loading the next cargo?
a) Less than 20 parts per million.
b) Less than 50 parts per million.
c) Less than 100 parts per million.
d) Less than 5 parts per million.

889. Which certificate is issued to LPG and other liquefied gas carriers in accordance with the IGC code?
a) The Certificate of Fitness is issued in accordance with the IGC code
b) The Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code.
c) The Cargo Ship Safety Construction Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code
d) The International Load Line Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code
DPKP
890. With some liquefied gas cargoes special conditions must be met before they can be loaded into a cargo tank. Is it permitted
load ammonia into an inerted cargo tank?
a) Only if the tank is inerted with nitrogen.
b) Only if the tank is inerted with combustion generated inert gas.
c) Ammonia cannot be loaded into any tank with an inert atmosphere.
d) Ammonia can be loaded into any inerted tank containing either inert gas or nitrogen.
891. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80 meters in open water with moderate swell running. How many shackles of anchor
chain should be used to aid a safe anchorage?
a) 11 shackles
b) 6 shackles
c) 8 shackles
d) 3 shackles
892. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board must be:
a) Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry.
b) Not less than 5 years after the date of the last entry.
c) Exactly 3 years from the date of the first entry.
d) Until the next port where it may be handed over to the Port State Authority.
DPKP
893. Any person who can assume overall charge of the ships crude oil washing operationmust have:
a) At least 12 months appropriate experience on oil tankers, have participated in at least two COW programmes and be
fully knowledgeable of the contents of the Operations and Equipment Manual.
b) At least three months experience on tankers, have participated in at least six washing operations and be aware of the
rocedures associated with the completion of the Oil Record Book.
c) At least six months experience on tankers, be knowledgeable of the cleaning procedures and equipment applicable on
board the vessel and be able to fully demonstrate understanding of the operation of the ODME equipment.
d) At least 12 months equivalent experience on a tanker of any type, provided at least three washing operations have been
witnessed in a supernumerary capacity and be able to demonstrate full knowledge of Annex I of MARPOL.
894. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed on oil tankers of:
a) 150 gross tonnes and above.
b) 400 gross tonnes and above.
c) Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers.
d) 50 gross tonnes and above.
DPKP
895. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be:
a) Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop tank on board.
b) Cleared to shore by the use of compressed air.
c) Drained directly (and only) to shore.
d) Discharged ashore or retained on board as per the pre-discharge agreement made between the ship and shore.
896. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast Water and
Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board to achieve:
a) 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
b) 100% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
c) 25% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
d) 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
897. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both vessels engaged in the cargo transfer operation
shall:
a) Have their main engines ready and available for immediate use
b) Have their duty engineers on stand-by so as to prepare the engines if required for use at any time
c) Their officer of the watch manning the bridge at all times, with engines on 30-minutes notice of readiness.
d) Their main engines on 1 hour readiness of readiness
DPKP
898. As per the US Code of Federal Regulations, the current Oil Transfer Procedures for a vessel carrying out discharge in US
ports must be:
a) Available on board, legibly printed in a language or languages easily understood by personnel engaged in the transfer
operation and permanently posted or available at a place where crew members can see and use them.

b) Available on board, legibly printed in the English and Spanish languages and permanently posted in the wheelhouse of
the vessel.
c) Available on board, in hard-copy or electronic format, to the OOW in a language with which he is familiar.
d) Available to the crew members, upon request from the terminal representatives .
899. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil Washing manual as unsuitable for COW
are:
a) Those with high pour point or viscosity.
b) Those with high basic sediment and water content.
c) Those with highbenzene content.
d) Those on the IMO Oil Tanker Technical Committee COW banned list.
900. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in atank containing 50,000 cubic metres
(314,491 barrels) of oil will result in which ofthe following volumes?
a) 25 cubic metres (157 barrels).
b) 35 cubic metres (220 barrels).
c) 7 cubic metres (44 barrels).
d) 16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).
DPKP
901. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located more than 50 nm from nearest land outside a special area and having in operation
its ODME, the maximum instantaneous rate of oil discharge (from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea is:
a) 30 litres per nautical mile.
b) 300 litres per nautical mile.
c) 60 litres per nautical mile.
d) 0.03 litres per nautical mile.
902. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be used for the carriage of oil:
a) When not being used for the carriage of slops and are included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel.
b) Only under exceptional circumstances and are not included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel.
c) Only on clean ballast tankers and are only included in the total cargo capacity of this type of vessel.
d) Only by agreement between the shipper, receiver and charterer. They are not normally included in the total cargo
capacity of the vessel.
903. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, ‗line displacement‘or ‗line pressing‘ must be conducted to ensure:
a) The verification of the shore line for calculation purposes.
b) The calibration of the ship's flow meter.
c) Balancing of a rigid cargo arm. Testing of the automatic shut-down
d) arrangements in the shore line system.
DPKP
904. The details of an internal transfer of oil must be entered in the Oil Record Book:
a) At all times whenever such an operation is carried out
b) Only is more than 25% of the total cargo volume is transferred
c) Only if required by the specific instructions of the owners or Flag State of the vessel
d) Only is such transfer has taken place within a port
905. The ideal maximum viscosity at which aromatic crude oil cargoes are best discharged at, is:
a) 250 cst (250 mm2/s)
b) 450 cst (450 mm2/s)
c) 45 cst (45 mm2/s)
d) 1,250 cst (1,250 mm2/s)
906. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is:
a) 5% by volume.
b) 8% by volume.
c) 12% by volume.
d) 2% by volume.
907. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning operations must be retained on board for a minimum period:
a) Of 3 years.
b) Of 5 years.
c) Till the end of the voyage in which the ODME operation took place
d) Of 12 months.
DPKP
908. The recommended guideline for avoiding the risk of electrostatic potential in a mist produced by using oil and water during
Crude Oil Washing operations is that:

a) Before washing begins, any tank that is to be used as a source of oil for Crude Oil Washing should be partly discharged
to remove any water that has settled out during the voyage. The discharge of a layer of at least 1 metreis necessary for
this purpose.
b) As washing begins, any water observed in the stream should be diverted to a slop tank, before Crude Oil Washing af
any cargo compartment is commenced.
c) If a slop tank is to be used to supply oil to drive a Crude Oil Washing operation in a cargo tank, then that slop tank
must not have contained slops with a water content of more than 2%.
d) Crude Oil Washing, where the oil source is stored in a slop tank or other tank that has previously contained slops,
should be avoided.
909. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters:
a) The person in charge must report the spill to the National Response Center or, if not practicable, to the Environmental
Protection Agency regional office or local U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Office. This must be done immediately that
person has knowledge of the spill.
b) The person responsible for the spill must report preliminary details to the appropriate State Police within 30 minutes of
the accidental discharge taking place.
c) The person or persons in charge must submit a full report of the incident through the vessel's agent to the appropriate
authorities within 24 hours of the incident.
d) The master of the vessel responsible for the spill must advise the Environmental Protection Agency National Incident
Reporting Center (or the appropriate regional office) within 2 hours of the incident being reported to that person.
DPKP
910. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate?
a) With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention certificate and the ship is classed to prevent oil
pollution
b) With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention certificate and the certificate prevent oil
pollution from the ship
c) With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention certificate and it is to prevent oil pollution
d) There isn‘t any IOPP certificate on gas carriers
911. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil tanker at a high flow rate with main cargo pumps, the instantaneous rate of
discharge of oil is calculated by formula:
a) Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x flow rate (m3/h) / speed (knots) x 1,000
b) Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x 1,000 / flow rate (l/h) x speed (knots)
c) Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/h) = oil content (ppm) x flow rate (l/h) / speed (knots) x 10,000
d) Instantaneous rate of discharge (ml/nm) = oil content (ml/nm) x flow rate (l/m) / speed (knots) x 100
DPKP
913. When internally transferring any oil cargo within the vessel, the correct procedure would be to:
a) Obtain permission from the charterers and document all operations fully in the Oil Record Book.
b) Obtain permission from the receivers and retain all e-mail correspondence for the attention of the cargo surveyors.
c) Transfer no more than 5% of the total cargo volume at any one time.
d) Transfer the cargo, and then make an appropriate entry in the deck log book.
914. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an ‗overboard discharge control is defined as:
a) A device which automatically initiates the sequence to stop the overboard discharge of the effluent in alarm conditions
and prevents the discharge throughout the period the alarm prevails.
b) A system which monitors the discharge into the sea of oily ballast or other oil-contaminated water from the cargo tank
areas.
c) A facility which prevents the initiation of the opening of the discharge valve or the operation of other equivalent
arrangements before the monitoring system is fully operational.
d) A system which receives automatic signals of oil content, flow rate, ship's speed, ship's position, date and time.
DPKP
915. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for harm or damage. Risk is determined
based on evaluation of two elements. Which two elements?
a) The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the consequences of the hazardous event
b) The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the financial consequences for the Company
c) The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard
d) The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard
916. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?

a) Every week
b) Every day
c) Every year
d) Every second year
917. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place on board passenger ships?
a) Weekly
b) Bi-weekly
c) Monthly
d) At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every month
DPKP
918. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
a) Weekly
b) Daily
c) Every two weeks
d) Every month
919. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?

a) In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
b) In a locker preferably on boat deck. The locker shall be clearly marked.
c) In the central store or in the engine room
d) In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge
920. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can be part of the safe manning and
assigned to emergency duties on board. What is minimum training requirement for all personnel?
a) Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd & Crisis Management Training Course
b) Basic Safety Training Course and Company Specific Familiarisation Course
c) Basic Safety Training Course
d) No Training Course is required as long as the personnel have relevant experience

921. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at certain intervals. Which of the
following surveys apply to passenger ships only?
a) Periodical survey every 12 months
b) Periodical survey every 24 months
c) Periodical survey every 6 months
d) A survey before the commence of each voyage
922. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with
regulations for the prevention/ control
of pollution from:
a) Harmful Substances in Packaged Form, Sewage, Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid
b) Substances in Bulk Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk, Harmful Substances in Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage
and Ballast Water
c) Proper Pollution Prevention Training
d) All Harmful Substances we have onboard
923. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?

a) All persons on board shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in
emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
b) Details and number of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be
recorded and communicated to the Master
c) It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
d) The safety officer shall count the number of passengers
924. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation?

a) Make sure all loose deck equipment at helicopter deck is stowed away and secured.
b) To light up the area for pick-up
c) To increase the speed of the vessel
d) To stop the vessel completely
925. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?

a) To provide all personnel including emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with that substance
in a safe manner
b) To provide personnel in deck- and engine department with procedures for handling or working with that substance in
a safe manner
c) To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner
d) To determine if the substance is flammable or not
926. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed space?
a) Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen content is measured. O2 content shall be
21% before entering the tank/ enclosed space
b) Use a breathing apparatus if the oxygen level is below 21%
c) Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems
d) Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes
DPKP
927. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a) SOLAS
b) MARPOL
c) STCW
d) ISM
928. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable Personal Protective Equipment where it
is needed?
a) The Company/ employer
b) The Master
c) The safety officer
d) The Head Department
929. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from the vessel's incinerator?
a) Discharge the ashes to a shore facility
b) Discharge the ashes at sea providing you are more than 25 nautical miles offshore
c) Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary
d) Nothing, ashes from any substance which is incinerated can be discharged over board
DPKP
930. A cellular container vessel is to load frozen ice cream in containers. Space is available either in the hold or as a deck stow.
Select, from the options given, the most suitable stowage position, with the reason, for this cargo.
a) The deck stow as it is less sensitive to temperature in the event of a mechanical problem.
b) The deck stow as it is more accessible for checking the status lights on the reefer panel.
c) The hold as it is more sheltered from the effects of bad weather.
d) The hold as it is more accessible for maintenance and repair in the event of a mechanical problem.
931. A conventional reefer vessel operating a Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is approaching the port of discharge in Northern
Europe. Which is the most suitable action to take from the options given?
a) Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly ventilate the cargo spaces under CA with fresh air just prior to arrival.
b) Continue to apply CA until the hatches are opened to maintain the condition of the cargo.
c) Continue to apply CA throughout the discharge to maintain the condition of the cargo.
d) Turn off the CA plant just prior to the start of discharge operations.
DPKP
932. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit alongside in a South African port. During loading another vessel arrives at an
adjacent berth to have its cargo discharged after having been towed in following a fire onboard which had resulted in
abandonment. What should concern the Master of the reefer vessel most about the situation?
a) That the cargo may be contaminated by the smell of smoke and the products of combustion from the damaged vessel.
b) The damaged vessel is unmanned and may not be cared for properly.
c) The cargo being discharged from the damaged vessel may be in poor condition and may contaminate the loading
vessel's cargo.
d) The speed of cargo operations may be hindered due to the discharge of cargo from the damaged vessel.
933. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of plantains and bananas. Due to space restrictions both have to be loaded into a common
space. The usual delivery temperature for bananas is about 13 degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7 degree Celsius. What
would be the best delivery temperature for the mixture of these two fruits?
a) 13 C as plantains are less sensitive to the consequences of a higher delivery temperature.
b) 7 C as plantains are more sensitive to the higher delivery temperature of the bananas.
c) 10 C as this is the mean temperature of the two cargoes and they would both carry satisfactorily at this temperature.
d) Adjust the set point of the delivery temperature to 7 C for 12 hour periods and 13 C for the intervening 12 hour
periods.
DPKP
934. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef, usually quarters, not packed in cartons). In
deciding which would be the most appropriate space on a conventional reefer vessel, which of the given options would be the
preferred choice?
a) 1C deck as this is the narrowest space on the vessel and will best constrain the cargo from any possible movement
during the voyage.
b) 4A deck as this is the largest square space on the vessel and will allow good access and air flow for the cargo.
c) Any space will be acceptable as this is a hard frozen cargo and relatively easy to handle and carry.
d) A cargo space low in the vessel as this cargo has a relatively high stowage factor.
935. A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a palletised cargo, has to have available sufficient cargo equipment including air
bags (dunnage bags), air lines and valves, cargo slings, wooden dunnage, nails, etc. These items are required to ensure a quick
loading operation and a successful passage. Complete the following statement from
the options given. "Air bags are particularly important in that ….
a) … they reduce the movement of the pallets and prevent short circuiting of the air flow."
b) … they are quick and easy to deploy."
c) … they protect the pillars and the vent trunking against damage during heavy weather."
d) … they secure the pallets against movement during the passage."
936. A situation arises where there is insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo space. There is a cooler arrangement
(cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans) positioned at one end of the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the best method for
stowage of the fruit.
a) Start at the end with the cooler arrangement and work away from the cooler.
b) Start at the opposite end to the cooler arrangement and work towards the cooler.
c) Start from one side of the space.
d) Start from the centre of the space and work towards both ends.
DPKP
937. A situation exists where a cargo of palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on a conventional reefer vessel. In order to
load all of the available cargo it is proposed to break down some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on top of the pallets;
there is just enough space to accommodate this below the deckhead. From the options given which is the most suitable action to
take?
a) Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the top of the stow will restrict the return air flow.
b) Accept the plan in order to carry all of the cargo.
c) Reject the plan as the extra handling will incur greater stevedoring costs.
d) Reject the plan as the charter is to carry only palletised cargo.
938. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer vessel is to designate the decks A to D from upper to lower deck. Decks A and B
common as are C and D with a gas tight
seal between B and C. Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with bananas in A and B. Which of the options is the best to
avoid the risk of crossover of temperature and respiration between the two cargoes?
a) Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks C and D.
b) Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks A and B.
c) Run the cargo fans intermittently in one of the spaces.
d) Operate the two spaces at equal pressures as the cargoes are compatible.
939. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a thorough inspection of the vessel should be carried out before presenting the
vessel for loading the next cargo. Amongst the reasons for this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from the previous cargo
are removed. This is particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to be loaded after a fish cargo has been carried. Select, from the
options given, the main reason for this requirement.
a) Fish is strong smelling and the odour may contaminate the next cargo.
b) Fish is usually carried frozen and there may be some damage to the insulation.
c) Fish can be oily and may leave an oily residue in the cargo space.
d) Ventilating with fresh air may only remove the odour temporarily and it will build up again if residues are present.
DPKP
940. Apart from temperature there are few differences between carrying cargoes of
chilled meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat, minus 18 degrees Celsius. A key difference is that for frozen meat the
cooling fans are operated at half speed or some are switched off whereas for chilled meat the fans are run constantly at full
speed. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this difference in fan operation.
a) The chilled meat is more sensitive to damage and therefore tighter temperature control is necessary.
b) The fans may be damaged if they were run at full speed delivering very cold air to the frozen cargo.
c) Running the fans at full speed would generate too much heat which may affect the frozen meat.
d) It is an energy saving measure since chilled meat cargoes do not require as much cold air.
941. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading the next cargo a careful inspection of the cargo spaces should be carried out. All
required maintenance and the repair of any damage identified during the inspection should be completed prior to loading.
Select, from the options given, the most appropriate action to be taken when the maintenance and any repairs are completed.
a) Make a detailed record of all maintenance and repairs carried out for presentation to the supervisor at the loading port
as proof that the vessel is in an acceptable condition for loading the cargo.
b) Keep a record of all the repairs in the planned maintenance schedule.
c) Don't bother recording anything as this type of work is considered routine.
d) Keep a record of the hours worked as a basis for a claim against the previous charterers.
DPKP
942. On some trades fruit cargoes may be subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also known as cold treatment. From the options
given which is the main purpose of this cold treatment?
a) To maintain a specified minimum temperature for a prescribed time period to kill off any fruit fly which may be
present when loading the cargo.
b) To ensure that the fruit is carried as cold as possible without damaging the fruit.
c) To achieve uniform quality of the fruit at discharge.
d) To maintain the temperature of the fruit within very tight tolerances.

943. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain' in the transport of perishable goods from the producer to the consumer. There
are times when hatches have to remain open in less than perfect conditions, for example strong winds. There are steps that can
be taken however to mitigate the effects of this on cargo that has already been loaded.
Which of the options given could be considered to be the most important measure to counter the effect of such conditions?
a) Cover the stow with a Tenasco (heavy plastic) sheet where possible to protect it from the wind.
b) Run the cargo fans continuously during cargo operations.
c) Reduce the air delivery temperature.
d) Refrain from ventilating the cargo with fresh air.
944. With the exception of some citrus fruits and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled to
the required carriage temperature prior to loading on a reefer vessel. In order to protect the cold chain, and to maintain the
temperature of the fruit, a minimum exposure time to ambient conditions during loading is necessary. What action
should the deck officers take during loading to achieve this minimum exposure time?
a) Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any break in cargo operations that exceed 30
minutes.
b) Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any overnight break in cargo operations.
c) Close the hatches for any break in cargo operations that exceed 60 minutes.
d) Request that the stevedores work faster to minimise loading time.
DPKP
945. A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction
and lashed by belts of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to secure the unit?
a) 9 on each side
b) 11 on each side
c) 11 on each side
d) One fore every securing point on the unit
946. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded fore and aft and lashed by belts
of SWL 0.6mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to secure the unit?
a) 4 on each side
b) 4 in total
c) 4 in total
d) 10 in total
947. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt.
How many lashing belts should be used to secure the unit?
a) 4 on each side
b) 4 in total
c) 4 in total
d) 10 in total
948. On a roro vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction and lashed by chains/turnbuckles of
SWL 5mt. By the general Rule How many sets of chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the unit?
a) At least 10 per side
b) At least 10 in total
c) At least 10 in total
d) At least 15 per side
DPKP
949. On a roro vessel, how often should a dangerous goods stowage plan be produced
a) Every time you load a dangerous cargo
b) Every time you load any cargo
c) Every time you load any cargo
d) You only ever produce one
950. On a roro vessel, if the vessel is loaded by stevedores, who is responsible for the lashing of the cargo
a) The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon as it crosses the ramp including its securing
b) The Stevedores who loaded the ship
c) The Stevedores who loaded the ship
d) The cargo owners
951. On a roro vessel, what dangers are associated with using a steep loading ramp?
a) The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged
b) The ramp's hoisting wires can be damaged
c) It will not be possible to drive vehicles off theramp
d) The ramp may slide off the pier
952. On a roro vessel, what instruction should be given to the crew about unlashing of cargo prior to arrival at the berth?

a) This can only be done when the bridge gives permission and no unit stowed on a ramp or incline can be unlashed.
Provided the company allow it.
b) The crew can start unlashing without the permission from the bridge
c) The crew can start unlashing without the permission from the bridge
d) You can remove half the lashings on any unit when the bridge givepermission
PKP
953. On a roro vessel, what must be considered when planning the loading of roro cargoes on ramps?
a) SWL and loading limit of the ramp and Minimum clearances for the operation of ramp doors
b) The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
c) The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
d) Cargo volumes
954. On a roro vessel, what must be ensured onboard the vessel prior to commencing cargo?
a) Cargo hold ventilation systems are operational
b) That all cargo is ready for loading
c) That all cargo is ready for loading
d) That the vessel has been cleared by immigration
955. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to prevent a blackout on board?
a) Check with the duty engineer before switching on motors, fans or other machinery
b) Check with the duty engineer before correcting the vessel's list
c) Switch off lights in idle cargo holds
d) Use the minimum number of deck lights at night
956. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to protect the Ramps when loading ro-ro units?
a) Units whose weights exceed the ramp load density/SWL must not be loaded
b) Damaged units should be rejected for loading
c) Damaged units should be rejected for loading
d) All ro-ro units must be thoroughly checked for damage prior to the loading ramp
DPKP
957. On a roro vessel, what stowage factors should be taken into account when planning the loading of cars?
a) The longitudinal and athwartship distances between the cars
b) Cargo dimensions
c) Cargo volumes
d) Cargo characteristics
958. On a roro vessel, which of the following is not required in the pre-stowage plan?
a) Checking communications equipment
b) The operation of gas-tight and watertight doors
c) Assigning crew duties
d) Stowage and securing of specialised cargoes
959. On a roro vessel, which of the ships trading certificates details the type and location that dangerous goods are allowed to be
stowed onboard
a) Certificate of compliance for the carriage of Dangerous goods
b) Safety Equipment certificate
c) Safety Equipment certificate
d) The Cargo Ship Safety construction certificate
960. On a roro vessel, which of these situations will result in an emergency shutdown of cargo operations?
a) Any of the listed situations
b) Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
c) Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
d) The vessel developing a sudden and unexpected list
DPKP
961. On a roro vessel, which regulations require supervising the embarkation of personson board ship?
a) The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code
b) The Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS) Convention
c) Standards of Training Certification and Watch-keeping (STCW) Code
d) International Labour Organization (ILO) standards
962. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum required air changes per hour for 'Special
Category Spaces' on a roro vessel,?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
d) 8

963. What must not be obstructed when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes?
a) Access to fire-fighting equipment
b) Fixed cargo lashing points
c) Ships' bracket connections to the deck
d) In-built non-skid bars
964. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for harm or damage. Risk is determined
based on evaluation of two elements. Which two elements?
a) The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the consequences of the hazardous event
b) The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the financial consequences for the Company
c) The likelihood that a hazard may occur and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard
d) The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard
DPKP
965. How can the Master ensure that all cargo loading doors, bow visors, weathertight ramps etc. Are locked and secured before
the ship proceeds on any voyage?
a) By having an effective system of supervision and reporting of the closing and opening of doors. Time of closing and
opening of doors shall be entered in the log-book.
b) By having experinced officers and crew to supervise the closing and opening of doors. Time of closing and opening of
doors shall be entered in the log-book.
c) Automatic systems will alarm you if the doors are not properly secured.
d) The bosun is always responsible to check the watertight integrity before the ship proceeds on any voyage.
966. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?

a) Every week
b) Every day
c) Every year
d) Every second year
967. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a) Weekly
b) Bi-weekly
c) Monthly
d) At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every month
DPKP
968. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in passenger ships?
a) Weekly
b) Daily
c) Every two weeks
d) Every month
969. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?

a) In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
b) In a locker preferably on boat deck.The locker shall be clearly marked.
c) In the central store or in the engine room
d) In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge
970. On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no requirement to carry out drills with the passengers. What is the most effective
ways of informing embarking passengers about the emergency procedures?
a) Information on boarding cards, public announcement on departure, posters in public areas and cabins, safety video
running continuously
b) Posters in public areas and cabins, safety video running continuously
c) Safety video and folders in tax free shops
d) Information from the crew
DPKP
971. Personnel on board ro-ro passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can be part of the safe manning and
assigned to emergency duties on board.
What is minimum training requirement for all personnel?
a) Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd & Crisis Management Training Course
b) Basic Safety Training Course and Company Specific Familiarisation Course
c) Basic Safety Training Corse
d) No Training Course is required as long as the personnel have relevant experience
972. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with
regulations for the prevention/ control of pollution from:
a) Harmful Substances in Packaged Form, Sewage, Air Pollution, Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk
b) Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk, Harmful Substances in Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage and Ballast Water
c) Proper Pollution Prevention Training
d) All Harmful Substances we have onboard
DPKP
977. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?
a) All persons on board shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in
emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
b) Details and number of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be
recorded and communicated to the Master
c) It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
d) The safety officer shall count the number of passengers
978. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation?

a) Make sure all loose deck equipment at helicopter deck is stowed away and secured.
b) To light up the area for pick-up
c) To increase the speed of the vessel
d) To stop the vessel completely
979. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?

a) To provide all personnel including emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with that substance
in a safe manner
b) To provide personnel in deck- and engine department with procedures for handling or working with that substance in
a safe manner
c) To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner
d) To determine if the substance is flammable or not
DPKP
980. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed space?
a) Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the oxygen content is measured. O2 content shall be
21% before entering the tank/ enclosed space
b) Use a breathing apparatus if the oxygen level is below 21%
c) Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems
d) Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes
981. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a) SOLAS
b) MARPOL
c) STCW
d) ISM
982. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable Personal Protective Equipment where it
is needed?
a) The Company/ employer
b) The Master
c) The safety officer
d) The Head Department
DPKP
983. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from the vessel's incinerator?
a) Discharge the ashes to a shore facility
b) Discharge the ashes at sea providing you are more than 25 nautical miles offshore
c) Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary
d) Nothing, ashes from any substance which is incinerated can be discharged over board
984. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore concentrate; what would be
the possible stability conditions produced?
a) The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a fast roll period
b) The vessel will normally have a small intact metacentric height (GM) and have a slow roll period
c) The vessel will be tender and have a poor curve of righting levers.
d) The vessel may have a list
985. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not weather tight prior to sailing; what is the legal
significance of this situation?
a) The vessel may well be judged to be un-seaworthy; this could invalidate some certification and hull and machinery
insurance
b) There are no legal concerns over this
c) The vessel is still seaworthy but repairs must be carried out at next port
d) The vessel may have its classification affected
DPKP
986. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the Master and shore representative must agree
a loading plan which covers which of the following aspects?
a) All of the items specified in the possible answers
b) Maximum permissible forces and moments on the ship
c) Quantity and rate of loading the cargo
d) Sequence of loading
987. How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor belts during discharge?
a) Via hydraulically-operated hopper gates at the bottom of each hold
b) Via mechanically-operated hopper gates at the bottom of each hold
c) By gravity through mechanical hopper gates at the bottom of each hold
d) Via remote-controlled hopper gates at the bottom of each hold
988. The high level water ingress alarm in number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates in bad weather at sea; what would be the
actions of a prudent Master?
a) Sound general alarm, muster ships crew and transmit a Mayday call and message.
b) Investigate when the weather improves
c) The alarms could be faulty and should be ignored
d) Assess all spaces for signs of damage if weather conditions permit
DPKP
989. Under international regulations for a Bulk Carrier, who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection
equipment?
a) The ship's crew
b) The master
c) The master and chief engineer
d) All cargo watch-keeping officers
990. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of personal to the dust created when carrying some
bulk cargoes?
a) A high standard of personal hygiene
b) The restricted loading of certain cargoes which may be excessively dusty
c) The code does not make any reference to this hazard
d) The responsibility of the Master to ensure that staff are wearing the correct Clothing
991. What extent of hatch cover spares should be available on board a Bulk Carrier at all times?
a) Specimen fittings shown in the hatch cover manufacturer's manual
b) Rubber packing and hatch cleat washers for one panel section
c) Rubber packing and hatch cleat washers for two panel sections
d) Rubber packing hatch cleat washers and glue for two panel sections
992. What height of water above the inner bottom will activate the cargo hold high level alarm on a Bulk Carrier
a) Any height above 2.0m
b) Any more than 2.2m
c) Any more than 2.5m
d) Any more than 2.8m
DPKP
993. What is the maximum period between the sampling/testing of the moisture content of a solid bulk cargo and the loading of
that cargo into a bulk carrier?
a) A maximum for seven (7) days, when there has been no change in the moisture content due to rain or snow
b) It must always be conducted immediately before loading
c) A test is not required each time of loading
d) Testing must be carried out on a random sampling basis.
994. What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in association with bulk carriers?
a) That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application
b) That the instrument complies with international regulations
c) That the instrument can measure flammable atmospheres
d) That the instrument can measure methane and hydrogen when used in low oxygen atmospheres
995. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more in length?
a) The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
b) The segregation requirements of the cargoes carried.
c) The ultimate strength of main deck plating
d) The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds
996. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
a) At the after end of each cargo hold
b) At the forward end of each cargo hold
c) In cargo hold bilges
d) At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold
DPKP
997. Which of the following is a warning sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system on a Bulk Carrier?
a) A fall in the hydraulic header tank level
b) The presence of dust and cargo particles around the piston gland
c) Noisy hatch cover operations
d) Dry greasing points
998. Who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
a) The entire ship's crew
b) The Master
c) The Master and Chief Engineer
d) Cargo watch-keeping officers
999. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
a) Because of enclosed or confined space entry requirements
b) Because it is good practice to have this equipment on board
c) Because the equipment is required under the International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC) Code
d) Because the equipment is required under MARPOL
DPKP
1000. Why do the cargo holds of a self-unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross section?
a) So that during discharge the cargo will automatically fall onto the underlying conveyor belts
b) So that cargoes are self-trimming during loading
c) To make it easier for cargo to be discharged by grabs
d) To reduce the extent of tank top damages when discharging cargo
1001. A vessel has lost several containers overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival into port, she is being inspected by the
attending surveyors. The most important item to be checked during this inspection would be:
a) Certificates of approval related to lashing equipment used to secure those containers.
b) The vessel's Safety Construction certificate.
c) The vessel's Class certificate.
d) The on-board cargo lashing inventory.
1002. An inspection in the amidships area of the weather deck of a Panamax container vessel has revealed cracks in the hatch
coamings. It is extremely important to urgently inspect the:
a) Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks in the amidships half length of the vessel.
b) Stiffening in the forepeak tank at approximately water line level.
c) Transverse bulkhead beneath the bridge front.
d) Transverse bulkhead immediately aft of the engine room.
e) DPKP
1003. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress calculations, it must be approved by:
a) A Classification Society.
b) IT Department of Ship owner.
c) Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel.
d) The Port State where vessel is currently loading.
1004. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:

a) The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in bulk.
b) The carriage of hazardous liquids, in bulk.
c) The carriage of liquid cargoes that do not have a Proper Shipping Name.
d) The carriage of liquid cargoes of a particular specific gravity.
1005. Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest deflection to:
a) The door end of the container.
b) The closed end of the container.
c) The base of the container.
d) The corner posts of the container.
1006. Shock loads in a container lashing system are generally caused by:
a) Loose cargo lashings.
b) Resonant rolling.
c) Ship vibrations.
d) Ship torsion.
1007. The correct weight of a wrongly declared container may be best indicated by:
a) Strain gauges fitted to the shore gantry cranes.
b) The container CSC plate.
c) The tare weight stamped on the container.
d) The ship's loading computer.
DPKP
1008. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive wear and tear is to:
a) Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
b) Repair them in the ships workshop, and then re-use.
c) Land them ashore for repair.
d) Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.
1009. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container stools on weather deck/hatch tops of a
container vessel would be:
a) Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack.
b) Uneven loading of the container on the deck.
c) Twist locks not being able to be fully closed.
d) Twist locks not being able to be removed after discharge.
1010. The most effective method of dealing with an under-deck cargo space fire on board a container ship, is to:
a) Deploy the fixed firefighting system.
b) Tackle the fire locally with fire hoses.
c) Turn the vessel off the wind to reduce the relative wind strength.
d) Boundary cool the cargo hold from the deck.
1011. The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is:
a) To transfer forces from the container stow to the ships structure.
b) To maintain a uniform level stow across the tier of containers.
c) To avoid excess load placed on the tank top.
d) To ensure an even distribution of weight throughout the stack.
1012. What contributes to wear-down of twistlocks on a container vessel?

a) The continuous action of longitudinal forces.
b) Careless handling by stevedores.
c) Improper greasing procedures.
d) Continuous use with containers exceeding 40' in length.
DPKP
1013. What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses?
a) Double stacking cones or link plates.
b) Twistlocks.
c) Single stacking cones.
d) Single stacking cones and bridge fittings.
1014. When planning the loading of containers, the planning officer must refer to:
a) The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
b) The Safety of Life at Sea Convention (SOLAS).
c) The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.
d) MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.
1015. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks on a chemical tanker. What effect does
this process have on the steel surface?
a) It restores and reforms the passive Chromium Hydroxide surface layer.
b) It restricts active corrosion on the surface steel.
c) It restores the surface steel to an even and smooth finish, thereby encouraging drainage during discharge.
d) It causes a chemical reaction, which produces a new inert Chromium Oxide layer on the surface of the steel.
1016. A cargo pumproom or other enclosed space which contains cargo handling equipment on a chemical tanker shall be fitted
with a mechanical ventilation system, capable of being controlled from outside the space. What is the minimum number of
atmosphere changes per hour, based on the total volume of the space, that such a system must deliver?
a) Not less than 30 changes per hour.
b) Not less than 10 changes per hour.
c) If the ventilation is permanent, it shall deliver at least 20 changes per hour;if it involves part recirculation, then it shall
deliver at least 30 changes per hour.
d) There is no specified minimum number of changes, provided it is running continuously throughout any cargo
operation.
1017. Basic manual dew point measurement devices are commonly used by surveyors
when monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to loading a liquid chemical product. Which of the descriptions below is a
summary of how the measurement is carried out?
a) A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to steadily reduce the
temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing over the
polished or mirrored surface of the container. When the first drop of mositure (dew) is observed to form on the
polished surface, the temperature of the Acetone bath is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the
reading for desired parameters.
b) A quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to steadily reduce the
temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously pumped through the liquid. Bubbles will be seen
to reach the surface of the bath until the dew point is reached. When the flow of bubbles ceases, the temperature of the
Acetone is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
c) A small quantity of dry-ice is placed into the device, submerged in deionized water. A sample of the atmosphere in the
tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing across a reagent filter. When the dew point is reached, this
reagent filter will change colour from white to green, indicating saturation. The temperature of the deionized water is
noted at this time and corresponds to the dew point. Reference to correction tables is required to correct the reading
for barometric pressure.
d) A small quantity of Methanol is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively added to it to steadily reduce the
temperature. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing over the
surface of the Methanol. When the first signs of evaporation are observed (smoke rising from the surface), the
temperature of the Methanol is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for calculation
purposes.
1018. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st July 1986, when carrying flammable
products with a flashpoint not exceeding 60 degrees Celsius, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the International Bulk
Chemical Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted with and use an inert gas plant provided certain conditions are
met. Which of the following is a summary of those conditions?
a) The cargo tank does not exceed 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5
cubic metres per hour delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines does not
exceed 110 cubic metres per hour.
b) The cargo tank is greater than 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank washing machine nozzle is capable of delivering a
minimum of 17.5 cubic metres per hour / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines must
be at least 110 cubic metres per hour.
c) The cargo tank does not exceed 1250 cubic metres capacity / each tank washing machine nozzle does not exceed 12.5
cubic metres per hour delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines does not
exceed 90 cubic metres per hour.
d) The cargo tank is greater than 1250 cubic metres capacity / the number of tank washing machines in use at any one
time must be such that no more than 17.5 cubic metres per hour is delivered / the minimum quantity of wash water
delivered in the washing operation must be greater than 110 cubic metres.
1019. High level and high-high level alarms must be tested at the tank for proper operation within 24 hours of the start of cargo
transfer on a chemical tanker. What acceptable alternative is there to this requirement?
a) That a function test is carried out by means of an automatic self-test and circuit monitoring facility within the alarm
system.
b) There is no alternative to this requirement. The test must be conducted at the tank location and the audible and visual
alrams sighted. The results must be logged accordingly.
c) That a function test is carried out on completion of cleaning operations following discharge.
d) That a programme of maintenance, including selective function tests, exists within the vessel's Planned maintenance
System, provided all such level alarms are tested at least once within a period of three months.
1020. How would you determine whether a particular cargo transfer hose was compatible with the chemical product to be
transferred?
a) Refer to the product entry in the hose manufacturer's chemical resistance chart.
b) Check the product classification mark stamped on the flange collar of the hose.
c) Check the colour of the hose against the general classification code in the IBC Code.
d) There will be no need to check. If the hose has been supplied to a chemical tanker, it will have been certified for the
transfer of all chemical products.
1021. 118. If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what minimum height above the weather
deck or catwalk should they be installed?
a) 3 metres
b) 2.5 metres
c) 4.5 metres
d) 6 metres
1022. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier plant as may be found on a modern chemical tanker, operating on a "rotating bed"
principle, what names are given to the two parts of the rotating bed?
a) The "process sector" and the "reactivation sector".
b) The "inbound sector" and "outbound sector".
c) The "active sector" and the "dormant sector".
d) The "live sector" and the "reserve sector".
PKP
1023. The IBC Code prescribes certain design conditions for a cargo heating or cooling system fitted to a chemical tanker. What
does it require in respect of pressure within such a system, for any condition other than when it is empty?
a) That a higher pressure can be maintained within the system than the maximum pressure head that could be exerted by
the contents of the cargo tank on that system.
b) That a lower pressure will be maintained within the system than the actual pressure head that is being exerted by the
contents of the cargo tank on that system.
c) That the system must be fitted with automatic control valves that will maintain the inlet pressure at not less than 0.2
bar above the return pressure.
d) That an automatic alarm is fitted to alert the operator when the pressure within the system drops to within 0.2 bar of
the pressure measured at the lowest located cargo pressure sensor within the tank.
1024. The specified maximum working pressure of a cargo hose in service on a chemical tanker should be at least which of the
following?
a) 10 bar gauge.
b) 12 bar gauge.
c) 5 bar gauge.
d) 1/3 design burst pressure.
1025. To what pressure will a new length of cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer prior to its supply to a vessel for service
onboard a chemical tanker?
a) Not less than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure, but not more than two-fifths of its bursting
pressure.
b) Not more than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure, but not less than two-fifths of its bursting
pressure.
c) Not less than one and a half times its You are carrying a bulk cargo of Phosphoric Acid nominal bursting pressure, but
not more than four-fifths of its specified maximum working pressure.
d) 2 times its designed working pressure, but not more than threefifths of its nominal bursting pressure.
DPKP
1027. What temperature defines "hot" water in the context of tank washing on a chemical tanker?
a) At least 60 degrees Celsius.
b) At least 70 degrees Celsius.
c) At least 40 degrees Celsius.
d) A minimum of 10 degrees Celsius above the discharge temperature of the cargo.
1028. When a submerged centrifugal cargo pump is being run at too high a speed during discharge of a viscous chemical cargo,
the pump may start racing, causing a heat build-up around the suction, possible localised solidification of the cargo and
consequent damage to the pump. What term is applied to this problem?
a) Cavitation.
b) Gravitation.
c) Aggregation.
d) Synthesis.
1029. Which of the following is a summary of the features of a "controlled tank venting system" as may be found on a chemical
tanker?
a) PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum in the tank; no shut-off valves may be fitted either above or below
the PV valves; provision may be made to by-pass the PV valves under certain operating conditions; such a system shall
consist of a primary and secondary means of allowing full flow of vapour, except that the secondary system may be
replaced by pressure sensors fitted within the tank.
b) PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum within the tank; the PV valves shall be capable of being isolated or
by-passed; the system shall be supplemented by pressure sensors within the cargo tank.
c) The system permits vapour recovery via a collection manifold which may be connected to a shore reception facility.
d) The system is fitted to a tank used for cargoes having a flash point not exceeding 60 degrees Celsius and is fitted with a
device to prevent the passage of flame into the cargo tank.
DPKP
1030.. Which components of the cargo pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging this particular cargo and why?
a) The cargo seals may be damaged from the abbrasive effect of any sediment.
b) The outer casing may be corroded by the unstable impurities within the acid.
c) The impeller veins may be damaged as a result of the relatively high density of the cargo if the pumps are run at too
high a speed.
d) The valves in the associated piping may be distorted by pressure surges created by cavitation as the acid is discharged
1031. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be carried out by:
a) A classification society surveyor.
b) The master.
c) A deck officer designated by the master.
d) A marine surveyor appointed by the company.
1032. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of
slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes.
In this case, it would be correct to state that:
a) The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two
tonnes.
b) The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the derrick.
c) The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by small amounts in cargo operations, since the
Breaking Load of the slings is much higher.
d) The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear must be at least 10% less than
the SWL of the derrick.
DPKP
1033. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be:
a) Ultra sonic test.
b) Chalk test.
c) Visual inspection.
d) Hose test.
1034. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition of the discharge equipment such
as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
a) Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
b) Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person Ashore(DPA).
c) Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
d) Provide ships equipment to discharge.
1035. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
a) Ships Capacity plan.
b) General Arrangement plan.
c) Docking plan.
d) Planned maintenance schedules.
1036. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
a) Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
b) The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
c) Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
d) Damage to the cargo by ship structures.
e) DPKP
1037. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to deteriorate would be:
a) Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
b) Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
c) Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
d) Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.
1038. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick should be tested to a proof load of:
a) 20T
b) 18T
c) 22T
d) 24T
1039. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo vessel, it is important to ensure that:
a) The cargo hold fire-fighting system is thoroughly examined.
b) The holds are inspected for signs of previous cargo residues.
c) Tank tops should be sheathed.
d) The cargo hold ventilation system is thoroughly examined.
1040. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles,
pad eyes and D rings etc., you must make sure that:
a) They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent damage.
b) They must all be visually inspected.
c) They must all be certified.
d) Lashing wires must be new whereas other accessories may be certified.
DPKP
1041. Proper guidance on the stowage and securing of general cargo may be obtained by referring to:
a) IMO Code of practice for stowage and securing of cargoes.
b) IMO Code of Practice for Bulk and General Cargoes.
c) International Load Line Regulations.
d) IMO Code of Practice for maintaining stowage safety on cargo ships.
1042. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel is proof load tested:
a) When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major modifications.
b) Only after initial installation of equipment.
c) Only when major repairs have been carried out to the equipment.
d) Every four years and after major repairs and modifications.
1043. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
a) To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
b) To prevent the ventilator fans from damage.
c) To prevent moisture from entering the hold.
d) To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft.
1044. The ship‘s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at intervals not exceeding:
a) 5 years
b) 3 years
c) 1 year
d) 6 months
DPKP
1045. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, itmust be ensured that the damage is
inspected by the:
a) Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
b) Class surveyor.
c) Surveyor representing the vessel's hull & machinery underwriters.
d) Surveyor representing the consignee.
1046. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is the requirement for vapour detection for
methane (LNG) cargoes?
a) Flammable vapour detection.
b) Toxic vapour detection.
c) Flammable and toxic detection.
d) Oxygen analyser.
1047. According to the IMO Gas Code, what is the requirement for the number of sets of portable gas detection equipment that
must be carried onboard an LNG carrier?
a) There must be at least two sets.
b) There must be at least one set.
c) Sets of portable gas detection equipment are onlyrequired to be carried when there is no fixed installation.
d) It is only necessary to carry a portable oxygen analyser.
1048. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what are the maximum time intervals for sampling and analysing samples from the
permanent installed gas detection system on a LNG carrier?
a) 30 minutes.
b) 20 minutes.
c) 45 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
DPKP
1049. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the required number of temperature indicating devices in the cargo tanks of an
LNG carrier?
a) At least two devices in each tank.
b) At least three devices in each tank. One placed at the bottom of the tank, one in the middle of the tank and one near the
top of the tank.
c) One device in each tank.
d) There is no requirement for the number of devices.
1050. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg? What is the liquid and vapour connection shut
off valve requirement for this type of tank according to the IMO gas codes?
a) Single shut-off valves with manual closing facility.
b) Double remote operated shut off valves.
c) One manually operated globe valve and one remotely operated valve.
d) Double butterfly valves fitted in series.

1051. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed water spray system for fire protection purposes for deck areas, deck tanks, deck
manifolds and pipelines. What is the minimum required flow rate of water per minute for horizontal and vertical surfaces
to ensure adequate, uniform coverage of these areas?
a) 10 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 4 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces.
b) 20 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 10 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces.
c) 100 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 50 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces.
d) 50 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 25 litre/m2 per minute for vertical surfaces.
DPKP
1052. Select, from the options given, the one that best describes a requirement of the remotely controlled valves fitted in the ESD
(Emergency Shut-Down) systems on an LNG carrier?
a) They must be fail-safe.
b) They must be pneumatically operated.
c) They must be hydraulically operated.
d) They must be electrically operated.
1053. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water glycol system for heating the cofferdam spaces next to cargo tanks when the
vessel is loaded. What is the purpose of this heating system?
a) To maintain the temperature inside the space above 5 degrees C to protect the steel.
b) To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 25 degrees C to prevent the fuel tanks from cooling
down too much.
c) To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 15 degrees C to protect the insulation.
d) To maintain the temperature inside the space at below minus 5 degrees C to reduce cargo vaporisation.
1054. What is the minimum requirement with respect to pressure relief valves on the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier where the
individual tanks are over 20 cubic metres capacity?
a) Two valves.
b) One valve.
c) Three valves.
d) There is no such requirement.
DPKP
1055. What is the preferred method of accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline systems on LNG carriers?
a) Use expansion loops.
b) Use sliding couplings.
c) Use expansion bellows.
d) Use Viking Johnson expansion couplings.
1056. What is the purpose of the "forcing vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo
plants?
a) To provide gas for burning in the boiler.
b) To displace inert gas from cargo tanks.
c) For initial heating in the insulating spaces.
d) To discharge cargo without a vapour return from shore.
1057. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall piping system must be used in the engine room. What condition should the
annular space between the concentric pipes be maintained in when the fuel system is in service?
a) Filled with nitrogen at a pressure greater than the LNG fuel pressure.
b) Filled with nitrogen at a pressure less than the LNG fuel pressure.
c) Filled with nitrogen at a partial vacuum.
d) Maintained at a full vacuum.
1058. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most commonly used in cargo systems for LNG carriers?
a) Submerged electric motor pumps.
b) Hydraulic driven submerged pumps.
c) Electric driven screw pumps.
d) Hydraulic driven screw pumps.
DPKP
1059. Which line can be utilized to prevent line surge when starting the main pumps of a LNG carrier's cargo system?
a) The condensate spray line.
b) The inert gas line.
c) The vent line.
d) The aeration pipes.
1060. Which of the following insulation materials that are used in the cargo containment systems for LNG carriers has the
highest diffusion resistance?
a) Polyurethane foam.
b) Balsa wood.
c) Perlite.
d) Mineral wool.
1061. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a chlorine absorption plant connected to the cargo tanks and cargo lines. This
requirement includes the provision of gas detectors for the spaces and areas around the cargo containment system and the
absorption plant outlet. What is the recommended setting for the visual and audible alarms of the gas detectors?
a) 5 ppm.
b) 10 ppm.
c) 15 ppm.
d) 20 ppm.
1062. Cargo heaters are frequently used when discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes into pressurised shore tanks. What would
be a typical "heating range" required from a
heater for discharge of fully refrigerated propane?
a) From - 45 C to - 5 C.
b) From - 55 C to - 15 C.
c) From - 35 C to + 5 C.
d) From -25 C to +15 C.
DPKP
1063. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas carriers have to be prototyped tested before being approved. When new hoses of an
already approved type are received onboard they also need to be pressure tested before being put into service. What are the IMO
Gas Code requirements for such hoses before they are put into service?
a) Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more than two fifths of bursting pressure at
ambient temperature.
b) Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more than two fifths of bursting pressure at the
expected cargo carriage temperature.
c) 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at ambient temperature.
d) 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at expected cargo carriage temperature.
1064. LPG carriers rely heavily on the compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction plant. Screw and reciprocating types are
widely used. Which type of reciprocating compressor is most common as a cargo compressor?
a) Double acting, single stage, oil free compressor.
b) Double acting, single stage, oil lubricated piston compressor.
c) Single acting, single stage, oil free piston compressor.
d) Double acting, two stage, oil free compressor.
1065. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG carriers use a direct cooling system. Which of the statements given in the options best
describes a direct cooling cycle?
a) Cargo vapours are drawn off by a compressor, compressed, condensed than passed through an expansion valve back to
the tank.
b) Cargo liquid is pumped to a condenser where it is cooled by seawater and then passed through an expansion valve back
to the cargo tank.
c) Refrigerant gas is passed through a cooling coil in the cargo tank vapour space which cools the cargo vapour below the
dew point turning it back into liquid cargo.
d) All direct cooling systems require a refrigerant gas cooled vapour condenser so that the lowest possible temperature is
achieved to change the vapour back to the liquid state.
1066. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with nitrogen generating equipment, often of
the membrane module design. What would be the expected purity of the nitrogen produced by such equipment?
a) 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.
b) 100% pure nitrogen.
c) 90 to 92% pure nitrogen.
d) 87 to 89% pure nitrogen.
1067. The IMO Gas Codes require that all liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted with pressure relief valves. Pilot operated
relief valves are frequently used, particularly
with refrigerated cargoes. What is the main advantage of using pilot operated relief
valves rather than simple spring loaded types for refrigerated liquefied gas cargoes tanks?
a) They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage pressures.
b) They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage temperatures.
c) The set pressure can be adjusted to above MARVS if problems occur with the reliquefaction plant.
d) When pilot operated valves are used only one valve per cargo tank is required irrespective of tank size.
1068. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling of liquefied gas cargoes can operate on either a direct or indirect cycle. On
which liquefied gas cargoes must indirect cycle cargo cooling plant be used according to the IMO Gas Codes?
a) Cargoes such as chlorine, ethylene oxide and propylene oxide for which the vapours cannot be compressed due to
temperature restrictions.
b) LPG cargoes being carried in north European waters during winter time
c) All liquefied cargoes in north European waters during winter time
d) Cargoes such as butadiene and vinyl chloride which need two stage cycle with intercooling.
DPKP
1069. There are a number of standard reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard LPG and other liquefied gas carriers.
What type of reliquefaction plant is required for a cargo of Ethylene Oxide?
a) Indirect cycle.
b) Cascade direct cycle.
c) Two-stage direct cycle.
d) Single-stage direct cycle.
1070. There are strict rules governing the placement and category of electrical equipment allowed in certain areas of liquefied
gas carriers. One such category is that of flameproof enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure?
a) One which can withstand the pressure build-up during an internal ignition of a flammable mixture and is designed to
cool any flames occurring within the enclosure to below the ignition temperature.
b) One which is maintained under positive pressure so preventing the formation of a flammable mixture.
c) One in which the equipment has such low electrical power that there is insufficient energy to ignite a flammable
mixture and cause a flame.
d) One which is filled with inert gas to prevent formation and possible ignition of a flammable mixture.
1071. What is the main disadvantage of using oil free, screw type compressors for the reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier?
a) The compressor has to run at very high speeds to compensate for internal leakage.
b) The compressor rotor elements wear quickly as they have no lubrication.
c) The compressors quickly overheat.
d) The compressor bearings wear out very quickly.
DPKP
1072. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-down system fitted onboard most liquefied gas carriers and how is it initiated?
a) To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a high level sensor in the cargo tank.
b) To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a back-pressure switch in the cargo loading line.
c) To prevent cargo tanks from being overcooled. It is initiated by a temperature switch on the cargo cooling plant.
d) To prevent overpressure of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a pressure switch in the cargo tank.
1073. What is the purpose of the purge gas condenser fitted to some liquefied gas carrier reliquefaction plants?
a) It is used to condense out any cargo vapours which have passed through the main condenser with incondensable gases.
b) It is used to condense out any nitrogen or inert gas that has collected in the main condenser.
c) It is used to condense all of the cargo vapours that have been used in purging a cargo tank.
d) It is used to generate the cargo vapours required for purging the cargo tanks.
1074. When measuring the liquid level in the cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a number of different corrections may be
necessary to get a true reading. Why do readings obtained from a float type ullage tape sometimes require a 'tape correction'?
a) The length of tape in contact with very cold cargo vapours may contract.
b) The float may become heavier and partly sink due to liquid cargo absorption.
c) The vessel may not be on an even keel when the readings are taken.
d) The vessel may have a list when the readings are taken.
DPKP
1075. Which type of reliquefaction plant can have the cooling coil placed directly in the vapour space of the cargo tank?
a) One type of the indirect cycle reliquefaction plants.
b) The cascade direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
c) The single-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
d) The two-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
1076. A ―Pellistorǁ is:

a) It is an electrical sensor unit fitted in a flammable gas detector for measuring hydrocarbon vapours and air mixtures to
determine whether the mixture is within the flammable range
b) It is the common term applied to the metal, ceramic or other heatresisting material which can cool even an intense
flame below the temperature required for ignition, as utilised in a flame arrester
c) It is the electrical sensor which detects low pressure in an Inert Gas generating control system
d) It is the reactive element in an oil / water interface detector
1077. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil tankers trading in US waters, the minimum requirement for testing of cargo transfer
hoses and associated piping system are:
a) That no leakage occurs under static liquid pressure of at least 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure.
b) That no leakage occurs under static liquid pressure of at least 1.25 times the maximum allowable working pressure.
c) That no leakage occurs under dynamic fluid pressure of less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working pressure.
d) That no leakage occurs at the nominal anticipated working pressure.
DPKP
1078. After passing through the scrubbing tower of an inert gas system, the pproximate level of carbon dioxide in the inert flue
gas should be:
a) 13%
b) 1%
c) 3%
d) 21%
1079. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for:
a) One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port.
b) One ballast and one loaded voyage, provided no cleaning operations are carried out.
c) An indefinite period as long as the owners can demonstrate they have ordered the spare parts for repairs.
d) One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the next 12 months.
1080. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to
perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the
machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity of crude oil required?
a) 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
b) 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil.
c) 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil.
d) 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.
DPKP
1081. As per IMO requirements, the mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump room shall be capable of making:
a) At least 20 air changes per hour
b) At least 30 air changes per hour
c) At least 40 air changes per hour
d) At least 50 air changes per hour
1082. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to
handle oil spillages of:
a) 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
b) 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).
c) 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
d) 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
1083. Fluid driven eductors operate on Bernoulli‘s principle, which states that:
a) The speed of a moving fluid increases as the pressure in the fluid decreases.
b) The volume of a fluid increases as the pressure in it decreases.The increase in pressure at the eductor inlet is inversely
proportional to the decrease in pressure
c) as measured at the discharge orifice.
d) The discharge rate is inversely proportional to the pressure applied in the drive inlet.
1084. Ship‘s cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of hydrocarbon gas concentration are:
a) No higher than 10% of LEL.
b) No higher than 15% of LEL.
c) No higher than 20% of LEL.
d) No higher than 5% of LEL.

1085. The automatic stripping systems fitted on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps operate on the principle that:
a) If cargo vapour can be stopped from entering the cargo pump suction inlet, the flow will continue without cavitation.
b) If the suction is fitted low enough in the cargo oil tank and a specified minimum trim is maintained, suction will be
available until the tank is completely discharged.
c) By automatically reducing the rate at which oil cargo enters the cargo pump, such that no vapour is lifted along with
the liquid, there will be no loss of suction.
d) By the optimum size and positioning of the suction inlet that feeds the automatic stripping system, the cargo oil tank is
discharged to the maximum possible extent.
1086. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
a) Fresh water.
b) The product being carried on that voyage.
c) Approved bio-degradable light oil
d) Sea water.
1087. The difference between the absolute pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo pump and the vapour pressure of the liquid
is called the:
a) Net Positive Suction Head Available.
b) Net Positive Suction Head Requirement.
c) Residual Suction Head Pressure.
d) Effective Suction Head Pressure.
DPKP
1088. The inert gas system shall be capable of delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks at
the rate of:
a) At least 125% of the maximum discharge capacity.
b) At least 150% of the maximum discharge capacity.
c) At least 200% of the maximum discharge capacity.
d) Equal to the cargo discharge capacity.
1089. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide gas in flue gas produced when burning high sulphur content fuels would be:
a) 2,000 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 4,000 ppm
d) 850 ppm
1090. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at which the P/V valves on board an oil tanker are required to activate are:
a) Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)
b) Pressure: 3.2 psi (0.22 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
c) Pressure 7 psi (0.048 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
d) Pressure: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar) Vacuum: 0.2 psi (0.014 bar)
1091. When in-service testing a hose used for cargo transfer on an oil tanker (and for which the elongation of the hose assembly
when new was greater than 2.5%), the maximum permitted elongation before the hose must be withdrawn from service should
be:
a) Not more than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured
b) when the hose assembly was new, as documented in the anufacturer's certificate.
c) Not less than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured when the hose assembly was new, as documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
d) Not more than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured at the previous in-service test, as documented in the ship's
annual test record. Not more than 1.25 times the temporary elongation measured when the hose assembly was last
tested, as documented in the appropriate certificate.
1092. When tank cleaning hoses are tested for electrical continuity, they must display a reading of:
a) Not greater than 6 ohms per metre length.
b) Not more than 10 ohms per metre length.
c) At least 8 ohms per metre length.
d) It depends on the manufacturer's recommendations.
1093. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What type of emergency
situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
a) Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its passenger and
crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships
b) Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
c) Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
d) Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
DPKP
1094. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which information shall as a
minimum be included in the emergency instructions?
a) The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
b) Escape routes and alarm signals
c) Name of cabin attendant
d) Where to find thermal protective aids
1095. Here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for lifesaving appliances?
a) Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
b) SOLAS
c) ISM Code
d) Safety Management System
1096. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?

a) Same number as beds in the cabin
b) At least 2
c) Twice the number of beds in the cabin
d) Non, they will be handed out at the muster station
1097. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above?
a) Two, one on each side of the ship
b) Two, and at least one of the rescue
c) boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
d) One Fast Rescue Boat
e) None
DPKP
1098. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and
upwards?
a) 3
b) 2
c) One for each survival craft
d) It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted in a survival craft
1099. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power sypply?
a) Yes, the public address system shall be connected to the emergency source of power
b) Yes, only if the voyage is more than
c) 12 hours
d) No, the crew will inform the passengers in case of any black out or power failure
e) No
1100. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board passenger ships?

a) Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary electric lighting
b) No, portable battery operated lamps shall be provided in alleyways and public spaces
c) No, passengers should bring their own flashlights
d) No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes
DPKP
1101. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board which type of ship?
a) Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
b) Chemical tankers
c) Tankers
d) Passenger ships fitted with car decks
1102. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In addition to this, how many
lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?
a) 5% extra
b) 10% extra
c) 25% extra
d) 50% extra
1103. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean
that a liferaft is automatically self-righting?
a) The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people
b) The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people
c) One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position
d) It means the same as self-righting lifeboats
1104. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons
gross tonnage and upwards?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
DPKP
1105. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 50% of the total number of lifebuoys
d) At least 1
1106. What is the name of this unit?

a) A hydrostatic release unit
b) A liferaft release unit
c) An antistatic release unit
d) A slip hook
1107. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?

a) To identify and eliminate, as far as practicable, congestion which may develop during an abandonment
b) To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less than 30 minutes
c) To provide port state control inspectors with reports
d) To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis
1108. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships?
a) 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
b) 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
c) 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given
d) There is no time limit
DPKP
1109. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire safety systems?
a) Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
b) SOLAS
c) ISM Code
1110. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships?
a) From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location
b) Navigation bridge Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
c) Captain's office
1111. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal lifesaving appliances do not correspond to
present regulations?
a) All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light and a smoke signal
b) Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2 lifebuoys provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals
c) All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle and a light
d) The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?
DPKP
1112. As part of the decommissioning process for old reefer vessels they are sent to a recycling yard where any refrigerant
remaining in the refrigeration system is dealt with. Which one of the actions given in the options needs to be carried out in
preparation for delivery of a vessel to a recycling yard?
a) Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard and note this in the Ozone depletion record Book prior to
discharging the gas into recovery bottles.
b) Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard prior to arrival at the yard and note this in the Ozone Depleting
Record Book.
c) Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard and note this in the Ozone Depleting Record Book before
discharging the gas to atmosphere.
d) Discharge the gas to atmosphere prior to arrival to minimise handling costs at the recycling yard.
1113. As well as having temperature sensors located in the cargo holds some reefer vessels are also fitted with ethylene sensors.
Why is it useful to have information regarding the ethylene content in a reefer vessel cargo hold when carrying fruit cargoes?
a) Some fruit cargoes are sensitive to ethylene and the quality of the cargo can deteriorate as they may over-ripen.
b) The ethylene content can be used as a guide as to when air change fans need to run.
c) The ethylene content is beneficial to perishable cargoes in transit so the content needs to be monitored in case the level
falls.
d) The ethylene content must be maintained to help ripen the fruit during the sea voyage.
DPKP
1114. Data loggers are a vital part of the temperature control and monitoring system on a reefer vessel. In a situation where the
data logger fails several days before the end of the voyage it is still necessary to maintain control of and monitor cargo
temperatures. How could an accurate, portable thermometer be used to the best effect, to achieve this, in such a situation?
a) Use the thermometer to check and control the delivery air temperature by inserting it in the delivery air ducting close
to the evaporators.
b) Use the thermometer to check and control the return air temperature by holding it in the return air space on top of the
cargo.
c) Use the thermometer to check the pulp temperature by entering the cargo space and placing it in the centre of the stow.
d) Use the thermometer to maintain the delivery air settings as they were prior to the data logger breaking down.
1115. Despite setting what appears to be the correct delivery air temperatures in accordance with shipper's instructions, large
cargo loss claims can still occur when operating reefer vessels. Which of the options given is likely to help avoid the majority of
these large claims?
a) By confirming the temperature scale that the shipper is using in his carriage instructions, Fahrenheit or Celsius.
b) By confirming that the shipper is supplying to a market that works in Fahrenheit or Celsius.
c) By confirming that the vessel plant is calibrated in the same temperature scale that the shipper is quoting.
d) By confirming the whether the shipper is referring to the delivery air or pulp temperature of the cargo.
DPKP
1116. Many fruit cargoes are carried refrigerated and also under controlled atmosphere (CA) conditions. A situation develops
where there is a problem with the main reefer plant that will take several hours to repair but the CA system is still operation.
Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in these circumstances?
a) The CA plant is only an adjunct for the refrigeration plant and therefore there should be concern about the condition
of the cargo.
b) The CA plant will take care of the cargo without the refrigeration plant and therefore there is no further action
required and no need for concern.
c) The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of carbon dioxide in the cargo space which will be sufficient to
preserve the fruit.
d) The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of nitrogen in the cargo spaces which will be sufficient to preserve the
fruit.
1117. Many reefer vessels are fitted with controlled atmosphere systems (CA). There are a number of different systems available
but generally they all work by introducing nitrogen into the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the main reason why
nitrogen is generally the gas chosen for controlling the atmosphere in the cargo spaces of a reefer vessel.
a) Nitrogen displaces the oxygen in the cargo space and allows the respiration of the fruit to be controlled.
b) Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas available.
c) Nitrogen remains as a gas at all temperatures used in refrigerated transport.
d) Nitrogen is inert and there is no risk of creating a flammable mixture in the cargo space.
DPKP
1118. Most fruit cargoes carried under refrigeration require introduction of fresh air into the cargo space to remove any excess
carbon dioxide and ethylene produced by respiration of the cargo and sensors are fitted to detect these gases. Shipper's
instructions will often indicate 'constant air change' as a requirement for a cargo.
Why, even though this is a crude method for controlling the cargo space atmosphere, is this type of instruction given?
a) Some cargoes are very sensitive to ethylene levels and it may be difficult to accurately measure the low levels that would
affect a cargo.
b) It is the standard method and it is always done that way for simplicity.
c) As much fresh air as possible should always be introduced into the cargo space throughout the voyage to maintain
cargo quality.
d) Fresh air helps to acclimatise the cargo to the prevailing ambient conditions.
1119. On a conventional reefer vessel is possible to ventilate the cargo spaces with fresh air using fans and trunkings. One of the
reasons for using fresh air ventilation is to control the relative humidity within the cargo space. Select the option which best
completes the following statement. "It is beneficial to be able to control the relative humidity within the cargo space because fruit
cargoes should be kept…
a) …relatively moist to avoid the cargo dehydrating during the passage."
b) … relatively dry to avoid the formation of fungus in the vent trunkings during the passage."
c) …relatively dry to avoid deterioration of the packaging during the passage."
d) ... As dry as possible to avoid build up of mould during the passage."
1120. On a reefer vessel air is passed over the cooling coils before entering the cargo hatch via trunking to cool the cargo. It is
important to ensure that the cooling coils are clear of any material such as plastic sheeting or bags. Why is this so important?
a) The plastic may interfere with the air flow over the cooling coils and subsequently the cooling of the cargo.
b) The plastic sheeting may be picked up by and foul the cooling fans.
c) The plastic material may block scuppers and bilges.
d) The plastic material may affect condensation forming on the cooling coils.
DPKP
1121. Prior to loading a reefer cargo it is good practise to carry out an 'ice test' of the temperature sensors within the cargo
space. Part of the test is to immerse the sensors in a test bucket of known temperature, usually zero degrees Celsius as this is the
melting point of ice. Which of the options is correct in relation to preparing the test bucket?
a) Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2 centimetres square and a small quantity of
distilled water to produce an icewater mixture. The ice cubes should be produced from clean distilled water.
b) Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2 centimetres square which have been made from
clean distilled water.
c) Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice produced in the vessel's low temperature chamber. A hole the exact size
of the sensor should be drilled into the ice and the sensor inserted into the hole to give a rapid test process.
d) Insulated ice buckets should be filled with crushed ice purchased in bulk from a shore supplier.
1122. Refrigerated cargo spaces are fitted with temperature sensors and in some cases
carbon dioxide sensors. From the options given select the one which best completes the following statement. "Monitoring the
carbon dioxide content in a cargo space loaded with fruit can be useful because…
a) … increasing levels indicate that the fruit may be starting to ripen."
b) … its presence indicates that the fruit is ripe."
c) … low levels indicate that there are insufficient numbers of air changes."
d) … its presence indicates that the fruit is still not ripe."
1123. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. "A conventional reefer vessel operating with a
controlled atmosphere plant must have cargo spaces which…
a) … have a gas tight seal."
b) … have a minimum number of deckhead and bulkhead penetrations."
c) … have the normal bulkhead and deckhead penetrations required for a reefer compartment."
d) … are fitted with variable speed fans."
DPKP
1124. The data logger on a reefer vessel normally records temperatures for air delivery, air return and cargo pulp. How would
the air delivery and return temperatures be expected to vary during the first few days of carrying a cargo of citrus fruit which
had not been pre-cooled before loading?
a) The difference between the two temperatures would steadily reduce.
b) The difference between the two temperatures would steadily increase.
c) The difference between the two temperatures would remain constant.
d) The two temperatures would remain constant
1125. To correctly interpret the readings on the printout from a reefer vessel‘s cargo data logger it is essential to have some
knowledge of the location of the temperature sensors. Where would the temperature sensor for the delivery air to a cargo hold be
expected to be located?
a) In the air flow path from the cooling coils, about 3 metres from the coils.
b) In the air flow path from the cooling coils, but at the opposite end of the cargo space to the coils.
c) Just above the cooling coils where the air returns from the cargo space.
d) Near the centre of the cargo space.
1126. What should be done with the data logger printouts after completing the discharge of a refrigerated cargo?
a) They should be retained onboard for a minimum of 2 years.
b) They should be retained onboard indefinitely.
c) They can be discarded once the discharge is completed.
d) They should be handed over to the cargo receiver.
1127. During sea passage on a roro vessel, how would you know if gasoline vapours were escaping from vehicles?
a) By using flammable gas detectors in the vehicle decks
b) By sense of smell
c) By using oxygen meters in the vehicle decks
d) By using carbon monoxide meters in the vehicle decks
DPKP
1128. On a roro vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting the structure and condition of movable car
decks?
a) Cracks in way of deck supports
b) General condition of the portable deck
c) Safety markings on the portable deck
d) Abrasions over the deck surface
1129. On a roro vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when loading a vehicle on an incline or fixed
Ramp
a) The Vehicle should also be chocked under its wheels
b) Double the normal lashings should be used
c) Lashings should be checked to make sure they are really tight
d) None
1130. On a roro vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load?

a) The load capacity of a device used to secure cargo on board
b) The combined capacity of several devices used to secure an item of cargo on board
c) The safe working load of a device used to secure cargo on board
d) The combined safe working loads of various devices used to secure an items of cargo on board
1131. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of 'D' rings?
a) 50% of the breaking strength
b) 25% of the breaking strength
c) 35% of the breaking strength
d) 40% of the breaking strength
1132. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of fibre ropes?
DPKP
1133. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of mild steel shackles?

1134. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of reusable use wire ropes?
1135. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of single use wire ropes?
1136. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of web lashings?
1137. On a roro vessel, when should a trailer horse be taken out of service
a) If there is any damage to the wheel or spring, the frame is rusted or distorted or the pads are worn out
b) Every 6 months for routine maintenance
c) Once per year
d) Never you use them until they collapse
DPKP
1138. On a roro vessel, where can you find the validity of web lashings?
a) On the certificate supplied with the equipment
b) On the bridge
c) In the cargo office
d) It does not have one they last forever
1139. On a roro vessel, where will escaping gasoline vapourssettle in a cargo hold? If the forced ventilation system is shut down
a) At the lowest levels
b) At deckhead level
c) In ventilator shafts
d) At all levels
1140. What must you ensure when using portable slopes to discharge ro-ro units?
a) They must be exactly aligned with the units' tyres
b) They must be new
c) They must be free of dirt
d) The surfaces must be of the fish-bone type
1141. When lowering a roro Cargo Side or Stern Ramp what must be ensured?
a) The vessel is securely moored and there is nothing beneath the ramp
b) The ramp must be lowered by the duty officer only
c) The ramp must be lowered at the minimum speed
d) The ramp surface must be clean
DPKP
1142. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What type of emergency
situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans?
a) Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its passenger and
crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships
b) Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
c) Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
d) Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
1143. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which information shall as a
minimum be included in the emergency instructions?
a) The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
b) Escape routes and alarm signals
c) Name of cabin attendant
d) Where to find thermal protective aids
1144. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?

a) Same number as beds in the cabin
b) At least 2
c) Twice the number of beds in the cabin
d) None, they will be handed out at the muster station
DPKP
1145. How many rescue boats should be provided on ro-ro passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above?
a) Two, and at least one of the rescue boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
b) Two Fast Rescue Boats, one on each side of the ship
c) One Fast Rescue Boat
d) None providing the ship has lifeboats
1146. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a ro-ro passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage
and upwards?
a) 3
b) 2
c) One for each survival craft
d) It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted in a survival craft
1147. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power sypply?
a) Yes, the public address system shall be connected to the emergency source of power
b) Yes, only if the voyage is more than 12 hours
c) No, the crew will inform the passengers in case of any black out or power failure
d) No
DPKP
1148. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board ro-ro ships?
a) Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary electric lighting
b) No, portable battery operated lamps shall be provided in alleyways and public spaces
c) No, passengers should bring their own flashlights
d) No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes
1149. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% forchildren. In addition to this, how many
lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?
a) 5% extra
b) 10% extra
c) 25% extra
d) 50% extra
1150. Ro-ro passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible liferafts. What does it
mean that a liferaft is automatically selfrighting?
a) The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people
b) The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people
c) One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position
d) It means the same as self-righting lifeboats
DPKP
1151. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must beprovided on passenger ships of 4000 tons
gross tonnage and upwards?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
1152. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 50% of the total number of lifebuoys
d) At least 1
1153. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?

a) To identify and eliminate, as far as practicable, congestion which may develop during an abandonment
b) To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less than 30 minutes
c) Provide port state control inspectors with reports
d) To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis
1154. What is the time limit for abandonment of ro-ro passenger ships?
a) 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
b) 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
c) 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given
d) There is no time limit
DPKP
1155. What is this?
a) A hydrostatic release unit
b) A liferaft release unit
c) An antistatic release unit
d) A slip hook
1156. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire safety systems?
a) Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
b) SOLAS
c) ISM Code
1157. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for lifesaving appliances?
a) Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
b) SOLAS
c) ISM Code
1158. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board ro-ro passenger ships?
a) From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location
b) Navigation bridge
c) Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
d) Captain's office
DPKP
1159. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal lifesaving appliances do not correspond to
present regulations?
a) All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light and a smoke signal
b) Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2 lifebuoys provided with selfigniting lights an self-activating smoke signals
c) All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle and a light
d) The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?
Pengangkutan muatan berbahaya (Carriage of dangerous goods)

1284. A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of:
a. 5 years
b. 4 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years
1285. IMO recommendations on allowance for water absorption in timber deck cargoes
on a General Cargo Vessel state that:
a. 15% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition.
b. 25% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition.
c. 5% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition.
d. 10% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition.
1286. On a General Cargo ship which of the following statements is correct?

a. Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in rain
b. Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rain
c. Cold rolled steel coils are always shipped in stainless steel envelopes
d. Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rusty condition
DPKP
1287. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly tend to cause:
a. Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
b. Large instantaneous fires.
c. Heavy amounts of ship's sweat.
d. Spontaneous combustion.
1288. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
a. Crushing and distortion.
b. Bending.
c. Tearing.
d. Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.
1289. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
a. Risk of explosion
b. Spontaneous combustion
c. Corrosion of steelwork
d. Build up of carbon dioxide gas
1290. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:

b. Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds.
c. Moisture absorption in the cargo holds.
1291. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct
to state that:
a. They must not be exposed to salt water contamination.
b. They can be loaded in heavy rain.
c. They must always be shipped in stainless steel envelopes.
d. They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.
1292. Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the
same space of a General Cargo vessel?
a. Drums of cement and steel pipes
b. Drums of cement and bagged milk powder
c. Pallets of pesticides and bagged grain
d. Rolls new carpets and drums lubricating oils
1293. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4
(flammable solids) cargoes loaded on a General Cargo vessel?
a. The goods require protection against movement and can only be loaded if a cargo declaration is supplied by the shipper
b. The cargo can be stowed anywhere on the vessel
c. The cargo is not covered by the requirements of the IMDG Code
d. The goods can only be carried in the forward part of the vessel
1294. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded
on a General cargo vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant
a. Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and preferably under deck if IMDG Code allows
b. Cargo of this type can be loaded anywhere on board the vessel
c. This cargo can only be loaded on deck
d. This cargo can only be loaded under deck
DPKP
1295. As understood within the IMDG Code, what is an "article"?
a. A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances.
b. A form that contains important information about a hazardous substance.
c. A device that is responsible for initiating a dangerous reaction.
d. Something that is packed within a freight container.
1296. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG
Code be read for security purposes?
a. Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code.
b. Part B of the ISPS Code and Chapter II of the Maritime Transport and Offshore Facilties Act.
c. Chapter V of SOLAS and Annex II of MARPOL.
d. IMO NVIC 24 and 46 CFR 2.05
1297. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term
"separated from". Which of the following is that definition?
a. In different compartments or holds when stowed "under deck". Provided an intervening deck is resistant to fire and
liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as equivalent. For "on deck" stowage, this segregation means a distance of
at least 6 metres.
b. Effectively segregated so that the incompatible goods cannot interact dangerously in the event of an accident, but may
be transported in the same compartment or hold or on deck, provided a horizontal separation, projected vertically, of 3
metres is obtained. Either in a vertical or horizontal separation: if the intervening decks are not resistant to fire and
liquid, then only in a longitudinal separation is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this means a distance of at least 12
metres. This distance also applies to one package stowed "on deck" and another in an upper compartment.
c. Either in a vertical or horizontal separation: if the intervening decks are not resistant to fire and liquid, then only in a
longitudinal separation is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this means a distance of at least 12 metres. This distance
also applies to one package stowed "on deck" and another in an upper compartment.
d. With an intervening compartment, being both a vertical and horizontal separation. Provided an intervening deck is
resistant to liquid and fire, a vertical separation of 6 metres is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this segregation
means a distance of at least 12 metres irrespective of compartment divisions.
1298. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG Code as
potentially being the most dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it?
a. Organic peroxides.
b. Liquefied gases.
c. Infectious substances.
d. Toxic substances.
1299. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous
Goods List of the IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories.
How are those categories designated?
a. 5 categories, labelled A-E.
b. 10 categories, numbered 1-10.
c. 10 categories, lattered A-K (excluding I).
d. Three categories, numbered I, ii and iii.
DPKP
1300. The Classes drawn up by the UN Committee of Experts for the safe handling of
hazardous substances, as listed in the IMDG Code, are drawn up on the basis of which of the following criteria?
a. The type of hazard they present.
b. Selective laboratory tests commissioned by the Committee.
c. Alphabetical order.
d. Chronological order in which they have been assessed.
1301. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine

pollutants is regulated under which international guidelines?
a. Protocol I of MARPOL.
b. Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
c. Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG Code.
d. The UN Convention on the Reporting of Accidents and Incidents which Present a Hazard to the Marine Environment
2004.
1302. Where should placards be located on a freight container?

a. One on each end and one on each side.
b. One on each end (only).
c. One on each side (only).
d. One of the back end and one on one of the sides (only).
DPKP
1303. Which of the following is a definition of the "Proper Shipping Name", as found
in the IMDG Code?
a. The name to be used in any documentation relating to the transportation of the dangerous substance, material or
article, such as on forms, labels and placards.
b. The name assigned by the manufacturer to a material, substance or article for the purposes of shipment.
c. The correct chemical name of a potentially hazardous material, as identified from the Chemical Cargo List.
d. The name under which a dangerous material, substance or article is described for export purposes in the country of
loading.
1304. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
a. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
b. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS 1974, as amended.
c. Any substance which is deemed hazardous to the marine environment
d. A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or because of its hazard potential to the aquatic
environment is subject to the provisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea accordingly.
DPKP
1305. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods?
a. IMDG code
b. SOLAS code
c. HB code
d. KLMNG code
Memeriksa dan melaporkan kecacatan dan kerusakan ruang

muat, tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara (Inspect and report defects
and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks )

1161. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose of 45 degrees; what does this
indicate?
a. The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
b. The cargo pile will be very unstable
c. The cargo should not be accepted to load
d. The cargo may self-heat
1162. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne (m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be loaded
what volume will this cargo occupy?
a. 1500 cubic metres ( m3)
b. 15000 cubic metres (m3)
c. 1000 cubic metres
d. 3000 tonnes
1163. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have been
loaded; what should the Master do?
a. Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club Representative
b. No action to be taken
c. Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master.
d. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)
1164. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is declared as having a high moisture content (but
less than the transportable moisture Limit (TML)); what must the Master ensure?
a. All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges can then be pumped out.
b. The bilges must not be pumped out
c. The bilges must be pumped out regularly
d. The bilges should have been sealed prior to loading
DPKP
1165. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the Chief Officer to be rusted; what must
the Master ensure?
a. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of the rusty coils and so make the Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
b. No action needs to be taken.
c. Steel coils to be discharged
d. Cargo temperatures measured on voyage
1166. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the transportable moisture limit of the cargo
is declared as 15, what should the Master do?
a. Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of cargo which may liquefy
b. Load the cargo as the moisture limits are within acceptable limits
c. Load cargo and ventilate on passage to remove water
d. Load part cargo only
1167. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a transportable moisture limit of 18, what should
the Master do?
a. Load the cargo as the moisture content is within acceptable limits
b. Refuse to load the cargo as the moisture content is outside acceptable limits
c. Seek advice from charterers and owners
d. Request additional moisture tests tobe done
DPKP
8. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?
a. Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in cargo and communicating spaces
b. Possible dust explosion due to excessive ventilation
c. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating
d. Possible liquefaction of cargo, en route
9. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose?

a. Liable to shift
b. Unlikely to shift
c. Always stable
d. Likely to produce toxic gas
1168. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk Carrier?
a. The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of water into the hold and a loss of stability
b. There are no special hazards associated with this cargo
c. This cargo maybe liable to spontaneous combustion
d. The cargo may be liable to self heat.
1169. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristics are dependant on what criteria?
a. The volume of air in the cargo
b. The volume of water in the cargo
c. They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone
d. The bulk density is standard at 900 kg/cubic meter
DPKP
1170. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate instruments to measure the concentration of
what gases within the cargo space?
a. The gases specified in all of these answers
b. The concentration of Methane only
c. The concentration of Oxygen only
d. The concentration of Carbon Monoxide only
1171. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?

a. When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content of the cargo is less than the Transportable Moisture Limit
(TML)
b. Once the actual moisture content of the cargo has been declared by the shipper
c. As soon as the cargo holds have been passed for loading
d. After a laboratory analysis of the cargo has been carried out
1172. A contain.er full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping fromit. You should:
a. Reject the container
b. Ensure that the container is stowed below deck.
c. Ensure that the container is stowed on deck.
d. Load the container and note protest.
DPKP
1173. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of ammonium nitrate is:
a. Explosion.
b. Environmental pollution.
c. Loss of ship stability.
1174. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying Calcium Hypochlorite under refrigeration is
beneficial so as to:
a. Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger zone.
b. Maintain a continuous air flow through the cargo.
c. Maintain a record of the temperature of the cargo.
d. Ensure the cargo is shipped in a clean container.
1175. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is generally considered dangerous, because:
a. It can spontaneously ignite.
b. This type of cargo will corrode the container.
c. The moisture will cause a huge increase in the weight of the cargo.
d. The cargo will not dry out en route enroute.
1176. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by:

a. Smothering.
b. Dousing with seawater.
c. Allowing cargo to smoulder.
d. Cooling with freshwater.
1177. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause:

a. Choking and possible loss of eyesight.
b. Loss of memory.
c. Instant death.
d. Instant unconsciousness.

1178. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish, because:
a. Heat is often produced due to chemical reactions within the cargo.
b. Water, if used, will always cause a chemical fire to flare up.
c. Such containers containing chemicals are always inaccessible.
d. Chemical fires always spread instantaneously to other containers.
1179. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:

a. To allow ventilation.
b. To restrict ventilation.
c. Not to use water to cool the container.
d. Not to use dry chemical to extinguish the fire.
1180. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because this can cause:
a. Failure of the corner posts of the containers stowed at the bottom of the stack.
b. The lashings to be overloaded.
c. The GM to become excessive leading to high roll accelerations.
d. Torsion effects on the hull.
1181. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning stowage of containers on a container vessel would
be:
a. Distribution and weight of the containers.
b. Distribution of the containers only.
c. Weight of the containers only.
d. The vessel's draft and trim.
DPKP
1182. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting operations , are
deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate
uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge into the marine
environment". Such substances are:
a. A category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II.
b. A category "X" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II.
c. An NLS as defined in ISGOTT, revision V.
d. A liquid cargo that is prohibited for carriage in vessels other than type 1 chemical tanker, as defined in the IBC Code.
1183. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and before the loading of "high-spec"
cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that might be expected to produce unsatisfactory results during initial wall- wash
analysis would be:
a. Hydrocarbons.
b. Non-volatile matter.
c. Odor.
d. Color.
1184. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are classified as:
a. "OS" (Other substances)"
b. Category Y
c. Category Z
d. Category X
DPKP
1185. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for defining Three shold Limit Value (TLV) is:
a. The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which a worker may be repeatedly exposed for a normal 8 hour
working day and 40 hour week without adverse health effects.
b. The maximum concentration of a vapour to which a worker may be repeatedly exposed for a maximum of 12 hours per
day, 5 days per week without serious health effects.
a. C. The maximum concentration of harmful vapour to which a worker may be exposed for a period of 15 minutes up to
4 times within any 24 hour period without adverse respiratory effects.
c. The concentration of a vapour expressed as a percentage of the oxygen content of an environment in which a fit human-
being can work continuously for a period of 8 hours.
1186. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to continuously monitor the atmosphere when
working inside a cargo compartment which still contains vegetable oil residues, because:
a. The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing the levels of oxygen in the tank and making
the atmosphere potentially dangerous.
b. Forced ventilation will create a hard "skin" on the residues, making them safer to stand on. Testing the atmosphere
will indicate when this skin has formed, as no further vapours will be released.Vegetable oils are commonly washed
using very hot water.
c. Forced ventilation will make the temperature inside the compartment better to work in. Monitoring the atmosphere
will indicate if the humidity is increasing.
d. For a tank which has contained vegetable oils, if it is continuously ventilated an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is not
required. However, for anyone entering the compartment without a permit in place, they must carry an oxygen meter
which continuously monitors the atmosphere.
DPKP
1187. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‗solidifying substances‘ as:
a. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 15°C which is at a
temperature of less than 5°C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a
melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the
time of unloading.
b. A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 20°C which is at a
temperature of less than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with
amelting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than 15°C above its melting point at the time of
unloading.
c. A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form at ambient, or less than ambient
temperatures unless an external heat source is applied.
d. A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form if exposed to an external heat
source.
1188. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‗high viscosity substance‘ as:

a. A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading
temperature.
b. A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius.
c. A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius.
d. Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped from a cargo compartment and its associated
piping and pumping system to equal to or less than 75 litres.
DPKP
1189. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products (ethyl ether, antiknock lead
compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing that:
a. They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure?
b. They shall be carried in tanks surrounded by water ballast?
c. They shall be carried only in centre tanks having double bottoms?
d. The cargo shall not have a height in any tank above that of the vessel's waterline?
1190. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly susceptible to polymerisation, especially through
exposure to heat?
a. Monomers.
b. Aliphatic Amines.
c. Paraffins.
d. Aldehydes.
1191. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time. What precaution will you take with the double
bottom tank located under the cargo tank containing the Phenol?
a. It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around the product because Phenol has a relatively
high melting point.
b. It should be inerted, because Phenol has a very low Flash Point.
c. It should be continuously vented to avoid the build up of condensation on the structure around the product.
d. It is not necessary to take any additional precautions with the double bottom tank because it is part of an entirely
separate pumping system.
DPKP
1192. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to clear the lines into the ship. The one
particular hazard that must be noted about this product would be that:
a. It is a static accumulator and settling time must be allowed before gauging.
b. It has a relatively low density. Tanks which are close to maximum filling are especially liable to overflow during the line
clearing operation unless the flow of blowing medium is strictly controlled.
c. It has a relatively high freezing point and additional line blowing will be required to ensure the vessel's lines are
completely clear.
d. It is a carcinogen but has a relatively high odor threshold value. Personnel may not readily detect any vapour that is
ejected through the vent risers and should therefore use filter masks while this operation is in progress.
1193. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with LNG cargoes. What is the main information that
can be obtained from a Mollier diagram?
a. Information about the exact values of the pressure, density, specific volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when
both the enthalpy and temperature are known.
b. Information about the exact values of pressure, enthalpy, specific volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when only
the temperature is known.
c. Information about the exact values of enthalpy, specific volume and dryness fraction of the vapour when the pressure
and temperature are known.
d. Information about the variation in vapour temperature for a known pressure.
DPKP
1194. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure. What is the IMO definition of the term
"saturated vapour pressure"?
a. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specified temperature.
b. The pressure at which all of the liquid becomes vapour.
c. The pressure at which all of the vapour returns to the liquid state.
d. A vapour mixture which has an equal mass of each of the different vapours in the mixture.

1195. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the cargo tank insulation which causes some boil off
of the cargo. This boil off changes the composition of the LNG as more of the lighter components will vaporise. Which
component of the LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than original percentage on arrival at the discharge port?
a. Methane.
b. Ethane.
c. Butane.
d. Pentane.
1196. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties and characteristics. With reference to the
physical properties of gas mixtures which of the given options is the SIGTTO definition of the term 'mole'?
a. The mass that is numerically equal to the molecular mass.
b. The volume occupied by one molecular mass in grams.
c. A graphic method of representing the heat quantities contained in air.
d. A substance capable of causing cancer.

DPKP
1197. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's definition of liquefied gases?
a. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas
Codes.
b. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +100 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas
Codes.
c. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +73.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas
Codes.
d. Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 8.2 bar absolute at +37.8 C and certain other chemicals listed in the Gas
Codes.
1198. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian Gulf LNG)?

a. Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
b. Methane 100%
c. Methane 80% - Ethane 15% - Propane 5%
d. Methane 75% - Ethane 12% - Propane 13%
1199. What is the relative liquid density of Methane?

a. 0.427
b. 0.583
c. 0.554
d. 0.624
1200. A number of substances are carried as cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those given in the options, which is the most
reactive, and therefore least compatible, with other liquefied gas cargoes?
a. Chlorine
b. Methane
c. Ethylene
d. Propane
DPKP
1201. Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its atmospheric boiling point. What is the
approximate atmospheric boiling point of ethylene?
a. Minus 104 degrees C
b. Minus 162 degrees C
c. Minus 48 degrees C
d. Minus 10 degrees C
1202. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may enter cargo pumps, block lubricating
passages, unbalance impellers and seize bearings. What is the most common practice to prevent such problems?
a. Inject a small quantity of freezing-point depressant into the pump.
b. Increase the cargo temperature
c. Slow down the pumping rate.
d. Hydrates can be avoided by using cargo filters
1203. Polymerisation may be a problem with some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl chloride and ethylene oxide. What is
the definition of polymerisation?
a. Polymerisation is when single molecules of the same compound join together to form a new compound usually with a
higher viscosity.
b. Polymerisation is when molecules of two or more different compounds join together to form a new compound.
c. Polymerisation is when the molecules of a compound split and form a new compound.
d. Polymerisation is when liquids cool down and become more viscous.

DPKP
1204. The 'Critical Temperature' is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes. What is the IMO Gas Codes'
definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
a. It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone.
b. It is the temperature at which a cargo of liquefied gas must be carried.
c. It is the temperature at which liquefied gas cargoes give off flammable vapours.
d. It is the temperature at which vapours from a liquefied gas cargo will selfignite.
1205. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal petroleum products are greater than the
density of air. What would be the approximate relative density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and propane
relative to 100% air?
a. 1.25
b. 2.0
c. 1.55
d. 1.8
1206. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is unsuitable for use in the vessel's fuel supply?
a. LPG vapour is heavier than air at atmospheric conditions and represent a risk as they may accumulate in machinery
spaces.
b. LPG is too expensive to use as fuel.
c. LPG vapour is too difficult to ignite.
d. Reliquefaction of LPG vapour is a simple process and is a cheaper option than burning the boil-off gas in the
boiler.
DPKP
1207. When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added One reason for this is to minimise the
formation of polymers. What is the other reason for adding inhibitors to this particular cargo?
a. To scavenge any oxygen that may be present to prevent peroxide formation.
b. To prevent an exothermic reaction of the cargo
c. To minimise pressure build up in the cargo tank.
d. To maintain the solubility of water in the cargo at low temperatures.
1208. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety data sheets, relating to the chemical and
physical properties and associated hazards of the most commonly transported liquefied gases, including LPG?
a. The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases)
b. The IGC code
c. The International Certificate of Fitness
d. The IBC Code
1209. Why must inert gas from a combustion-type generator never be used when preparing the cargo tanks of a liquefied gas
carrier for a cargo of ammonia?
a. Because inert gas from this type of generator contains carbon dioxide which reacts with ammonia to form carbamates.
b. Because inert gas from this type of generator has a high water content which can react with ammonia to produce high
pressure conditions.
c. Because the high oxygen content in inert gas from this type of generator will form a flammable mixture with ammonia.
d. Because the high temperature of the inert gas from this type of generator may ignite the ammonia.
DPKP
1210. When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier for loading it is important to consider the dew point of the vapour
mixtures present in the tank. What is the definition of the "dew point" of a vapour mixture containing water vapour?
a. The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to condense as the temperature decreases.
b. The dew point is the pressure at which the water vapour begins to condense as the temperature decreases.
c. The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to evaporate as the temperature decreases.
d. The dew point is the temperature at which all of the water vapour has completely condensed.
1211. Which of the given options is the approximate value of the flammable range for Methane measured as a percentage
volume in air?
a. 5.3 - 14.0% by volume.
b. 2.6 - 12.4% by volume.
c. 3.5 - 13.0% by volume
d. 1.4 - 10.8% by volume
1212. A petroleum product is considered ―Non-Volatileǁ when:

a. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (closed cup method), these liquids produce, when at any normal ambient
temperature, equilibrium gas concentrationsbelow the Lower Flammable Limit.
b. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or below (closed cup method), these liquids produce, when equal to or below any
ambient temperature, gas concentrations of less than 5% by volume.

c. With a Flashpoint of 37.8 degrees C or above (open cup method), these liquids produce, when at any normal ambient
pressure, equilibrium gas concentrations below the Lower Flammable Limit.
d. With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (open cup method), these liquids produce, when at any normal ambient
temperature, equilibrium gas concentrations above the Upper Flammable Limit.
1213. Anti-static additives are used to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to:
a. Ensure they become non-accumulator of static charge.
b. Ensure they become an accumulator of static charge.
c. Ensure their relaxation time after loading is extended.
d. Ensure they become mildly magnetic during the voyage.
1214. At which of the following concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness, headache, nausea, etc. Occur within
15 minutes of exposure, followed by loss of consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60 minutes of exposure?
a. 500-700 ppm.
b. 50-70 ppm.
c. 1,000 - 2,000 ppm.
d. 200-300 ppm.
1215. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is present in high concentrations in crude
oil, it can also cause:
a. Corrosion.
b. Polymerisation.
c. Acid build-up.
d. Settling and layering.
1216. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light Crude is:

a. 33 degrees.
b. 27 degrees.
c. 30 degrees.
d. 40 degrees.
DPKP
1217. The approximate density ratio of undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a typical crude oil is:
a. 1.5 times that of the air.
b. Twice that of the air.
c. 0.8 times that of the air (assuming atmospheric pressure above 1000 mb).
d. 1.8 times that of the air.
1218. The name given to compounds consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms joined together by single bonds is:
a. Saturated hydrocarbons.
b. Sour crude.
c. Unsaturated hydrocarbons.
d. Alkadienes.
1219. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined by the:

a. The Reid Closed Test method.
b. The Crude Open Test Method.
c. The API Open Cup Laboratory Method.
d. The ASTM Elementary Assessment Method.
1220. When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the items mentioned on the accompanying certificate include:
a. Inhibitor name; amount added; date added; period of efficiency; precautions if voyage length exceeds that period;
eventual temperature limitation.
b. Inhibitor class; amount added; date of expiry; minimum period of optimum efficiency; precautions to be taken when
added; minimum temperature requirement.
c. Inhibitor name; percentage applied; date of expiry; precautions to be taken on voyage and interval of application;
maximum temperature at which continuously effective.
d. Inhibitor class; percentage blended; date added; maximum period of efficiency and applicable temperature limits;
maximum storage period on board; contact number of manufacturer.
1221. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to carefully monitor ship‘s tanks during
passage, because these cargoes can:
a. Release oxygen, which they may have absorbed during the refining process, into the ullage spaces of ship‘s cargo tanks
b. Release acidic effluents which may make the entire cargo go off-spec resulting in financial claims
c. Release acids during tropical sea area transit, which may result in increased corrosion of the ships tanks and internals
d. Release vapours which may cause vapour contamination of the entire cargo
1222. When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the relationship between absolute and gauge pressure is:
a. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric pressure.
b. Gauge pressure = absolute pressure + barometric pressure.
c. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure x 0.947 barometric pressure.
d. Gauge pressure = barometric pressure / atmospheric pressure
DPKP
1223. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a ‗mercaptanǁ is:
a. A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell similar to rotting cabbage and which is generated naturally by the degredation
of natural organisms, as may be found where water has remained under oil for a long time.
b. A chemical additive blended with crude oil to inhibit the natural "rotton egg" smell associated with certain grades.
c. The component of hydrocarbon-based cargoes which is formed from Merolion Carbonized Tannin.
d. A device fitted to a cargo pump which automatically alerts the operator once traces of water start to be detected during
discharge.
1224. When referring to crude oil petroleum products, ―volatilityǁ means:
a. Their tendency to produce gas.
b. Their tendency to ignite.
c. Their ability to resist ignition.
d. A measure their vapour pressure.
1225. Which of the following type of crude oil requires special consideration in terms of carriage and cleaning?
a. Paraffinic Crude.
b. Sweet Crude.
c. Medium Crude.
d. Reconstituted Crude.
1226. With reference to chemistry of petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated hydrocarbons, then unsaturated
hydrocarbons are:
a. Alkenes.
b. Alkanes.
c. Pentenes.
d. Octanes.
KP
1227. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, ‗cloud point‘ is:
a. The temperature at which a liquid hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on a cloudy appearance, due to the bonding
of constituent paraffin compounds.
b. The temperature at which an oil product begins to emit vapours which can be observed in a spectroscope due to the
volume of solid particles extracted during evaporation.
c. The surface pressure at which vapours from an oil cargo overcome gravity and friction and are expelled from the
containing compartment.
d. The depth within a cargo above which no waxy solids are entrained.
1228. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is generally referred to as:
a. The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a representative sample of the crude oil.
b. The observed volume percentage of waxy deposits found in a cargo tank after discharge in relation to the total volume
of cargo previously carried.
c. The percentage of wax remaining in an oil product after distillation.
d. The amount of additive in an oil product, expressed in ppm, designed to inhibit solidification at lower temperatures.
1229. At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling ports and other openings which are to
be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage?
a. Before leaving the port
b. Before entering open waters
c. Before leaving the pilot station
d. Before leaving the berth
DPKP
72. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from:
a. Above the bulkhead deck
b. The bridge
c. The engine room
d. The section where the unsymmetrical flooding occurs
1230. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be in each zone?
a. Two
b. One
c. Three
d. Four
1231. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads which is in use at sea be operated (tested)?
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Every two weeks
d. Every month
1232. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships be so constructed that they cannot be opened without the consent
of the master of the ship?
a. Where the sills of the side scuttles are below the margin line
b. Where the sills are mounted below the bulkhead deck
c. Where the sills of the side scuttles are less than 500 mm above the deepest load line
d. Where the height of the side scuttles go through more than two decks
1233. Is there any requirements regarding double bottom for large passenger ships?
a. Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and upwards, a double bottom shall be fitted amidships, and shall extend to the fore and
after peak bulkheads, or as near thereto as practicable.
b. Yes, in ships of 76 m in length and longer, a double bottom shall be fitted amidships, and extend to the fore and aft not
less that ¼ of the ship length.
c. Yes, a double bottom shall be fitted amidship
d. No, a double bottom is not required
1234. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?

a. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
b. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not members of the ship's crew
c. A ship which carries passengers only
d. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or routes
1235. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory for all watertight doors aboard
passenger ships?
a. Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead deck
b. Where one or more doors are situated below deepest load line
c. When the ship is certified for more than 150 passengers
d. Where the ship is fitted with through-going car decks
DPKP
1236. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed or confined spaces, what action should be taken?
a. Arrangements should be made for testing of the atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and a carbon
monoxide content below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the space
b. Open both bow- and stern doors
c. Supply filter masks to all crew working on ro-ro deck
d. Ro-ro decks are always ventilated in advance of an operation
1237. Cargoes of frozen beef and chilled beef have approximate carriage temperatures of minus 18 and minus 1 degree
Celsius respectively. Greater care is required when carrying chilled beef as it is more sensitive to deviations from, and
requires finer control of, its recommended carriage temperature. Which option best completes the following statement?
"This additional care is worthwhile because…
a. …chilled beef commands a much higher price in the market."
b. . ...carrying chilled beef is a modern innovation."
c. …chilled beef is healthier for consumers."
d. …chilled beef can be kept longer than frozen beef."
1238. Certain live refrigerated cargoes such as fruit, salad, vegetable and plant cargoes are sensitive to ethylene during
shipment. Select the option which best completes the following statement. "Ethylene is described as a gas which …
a. ...is a natural fruit ripening hormone."
b. …can cause any type of refrigerated cargo to ripen."
c. …can cause a fruit cargo to ripen if it is present in a large concentration."
d. …is beneficial for the carriage of certain types of fruit."
DPKP
1239. During loading of bananas the fruit should be visually inspected frequently to check the quality and for any indications
as to its physiological development. Which one of the options given would indicate that the fruit is in suitable
condition for shipment?
a. The bananas have a uniform green colour with relatively sharp ridges along the length. They can be snapped or broken
with sap clinging between the broken parts.
b. The bananas are green with a yellow hue. They are not really hard and do not break cleanly.
c. The bananas are yellow with small black spots on the skin. They cannot be snapped but the skin can be peeled off.
d. The bananas are green in colour with patches on the shoulder from the effects of sunshine and have relatively sharp
ridges along the length They can be snapped with sap clinging to the broken parts.
1240. It is possible to successfully mix certain types of refrigerated cargo in the same space if they are compatible.
Sometimes apparently dissimilar cargoes can be successfully mixed. Which one of the combinations given in the
options could be successfully carried as a mixed cargo in the same cargo space?
a. Oranges and apples.
b. Oranges and bacon.
c. Oranges and butter.
d. Oranges and rock lobster.
1241. Most perishable cargoes are presented for shipment pre-cooled to the correct carriage temperature. If the cargo is not
pre-cooled or has warmed up due to the cold chain being broken it can result in increased metabolic rates. Which of
the given options would be the most difficult to deal with if such a situation occurred during a sea passage?
a. The heat produced by the cargo.
b. The carbon dioxide produced by the cargo.
c. The trace gases produced by the cargo.
d. The water produced by the cargo.
DPKP
1242. Refrigerated cargoes are generally easy to secure for a sea passage when compared to some bulk, timber and project
type cargoes. The cargo must be stowed so that it will not shift during the voyage and so that a good air flow can be
maintained through the cargo. Which one of the given options is most likely to result in this required outcome and a
successful carriage?
a. A tight uniform stow which forces air through the cargo.
b. A tight uniform stow but with vertical gaps in the cargo for air flow.
c. A loose uniform stow.
d. The stow is unimportant as it is only the temperature in the hold which determines whether or not the cargo is carried
successfully.
1243. Some perishable cargoes which are normally carried refrigerated can also be carried non-refrigerated even on a long
sea passage. This requires that the commodity is suitably packed and correctly ventilated during transport. Select the
option which correctly completes the following statement. "The type of cargo most suited for a sea passage under
ventilation only would be…
a. …onions."
b. …pineapples."
c. …grapes."
d. …strawberries."
DPKP
1244. Strawberries are a sensitive cargo with a relatively short carriage life and can only be carried on short sea passages.
They are often irradiated for transport. Select the true statement from the options given relating to the effect of
irradiation.
a. The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to transport is that it kills off any bacteria on the fruit.
b. The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to transport is that it improves the colour of the fruit.
c. The main effect of irradiating strawberries prior to transport is that it kills any flies on the fruit.
d. A cargo of irradiated strawberries must be stowed well away from the crew accommodation to reduce the possible
effects of cobalt 60 radiation.
1245. When considering how non-containerised perishable cargoes such as bananas and grapes are presented for loading the
temperature of the cargo is important. Which one of the statements included in the options is correct?
a. Bananas are loaded at field temperature while grapes are precooled.
b. Grapes are loaded at field temperature while bananas are precooled.
c. Bananas and grapes are both loaded at field temperature.
d. Bananas and grapes are both loaded pre-cooled.
DPKP
1246. In roro Cargo Planning What should be considered for the location of stowage of a heavy loads such as transformer,
locomotive or work boats?
a. The stability of the vessel, access to the location and the SWL of the stowage location
b. The discharge port rotation
c. Day of the week
d. Requests from the stevedore
1247. In roro Cargo planning where should you look to find information on securing cargos
a. In the vessels approved Cargo Securing Manual
b. On the bulkhead in the ships office
c. On the internet
d. In the maintenance guide for the cargo securing equipment onboard
1248. In roro cargo securing which of the following can be used as a general rule for deciding lashing requirements of a cargo
unit
a. The total of the MSL values of the securing devices on each side of a unit of cargo (port as well as starboard) should
equal the weight of the unit.
b. Total MSL for all securing devices should equal the weight of the cargo
c. Total MSL for all securing devices should be at least half the weight of the cargo
d. Put one lashing on each corner
1249. On a roro vessel in a wet climate what can happen to wheeled cargoes?
a. Lashings can become slack over time and the cargo is more likely to shift due to the wet weather
b. The lashings will become clean because of the water
c. Sticking of wheels to deck plating
d. The ship's paintwork flaking and falling onto the cargo
DPKP
1250. On a roro vessel, how should caterpillar crawlers stowed on hatch covers be secured?
a. By means of wire ropes or chains secured to the hatch covers and to the main deck from all four sides of the unit
b. By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch covers from all four sides of the unit
c. By means of wire ropes secured to the main deck from all four sides of the unit
d. By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch coamings
1251. On a roro vessel, what should be done first when cargo has shifted at sea on a roro vessel and re-lashing is not
possible?
a. Alter course and/or speed to reduce the accelerations and prevent further damage
b. Go Faster to outrun the problem
c. Nothing can be done carry on the same
d. Take action to improve stability
1252. On a roro vessel, what should be done when cargoes that transmit stack loads are to be loaded onto the vessel's decks
or hatch covers?
a. Stow the cargo on timbers of sufficient thickness so as to distribute the stack load
b. Weld additional steel plates to the deck and/or hatch covers where stack loads are transmitted
c. Stow the full length of cargo on any timbers reguardless of their
d. Load the cargo under-deck instead
1253. On a roro vessel, what should one consider prior to loading machinery with caterpillar crawlers on the hatch covers?
a. Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers and the horizontal restraint of hatch covers and coamings
b. Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers
c. The horizontal restraint of hatch covers
d. The horizontal restraint of hatch coamings
DPKP
1254. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
a. Tyre and bodywork damages
b. Tyre damage
c. Meltdown of internal plastic areas
d. Damage to vehicles' engines
1255. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature variations be stowed?
a. Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated machinery
b. On deck away from the accommodation
c. Anywhere under-deck
d. Anywhere along the side of the main deck
1256. At what time should lashings be released?

a. Lashings should not be released for unloading before the ship is secured at the berth, without the Master's express
permission.
b. Lashings should be released when the ship enters enclosed waters.
c. The crew can release lashings prior to arrival to avoid any delays.
d. As soon as the weather conditions are favourable, lashings can be released.
DPKP
1257. How can you arrange for safe movement of passengers on ro-ro decks?
a. Passengers should be warned of vehicle movements when entering or crossing car or vehicle decks.
b. They should preferably keep to walkways while moving about the ship. Passengers should stay in their cars until
loading is completed.
c. They should keep to walkways when leaving the car.
d. Passengers are responsible for their own safety while moving about ro-ro decks. It is easy, only drivers are allowed to
stay in the car during loading and unloading.
1258. Normally ventilation fans in enclosed ro-ro spaces must be run continuously whenever vehicles are on board, why?
a. An increased number of air changes may be required when vehicles are being loaded or unloaded, or where flammable
gases or liquids are stowed in closed ro-ro spaces
b. It is better to run the fans continuously instead of testing the atmosphere
c. It is easier for the crew, they don't have to think about starting and stopping of fans
d. The manufacturer of the fans recommends continuous operation to reduce maintenance cost
DPKP
1259. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly marked?
a. Refuse to load the vehicle
b. Ask the driver to write a declaration of contents and load
c. the vehicle As long as the driver looks ok, load the cargo
d. Load it, usually tank lorries are not clearly marked
1260. What type of cargo shall always be secured?

a. Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should always be secured.
b. Tank lorries should always be secured.
c. No cargo or vehicles have to be secured if the weather conditions are favourable.
d. The driver must ask the crew to secure the vehicle and its cargo
1261. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in ro-ro cargo spaces,
what action should be taken?
a. Arrangements should be made for testing of the atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and a carbon
monoxide content below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the space
b. Open both bow- and stern doors
c. Supply filter masks to all crew working on ro-ro deck
d. Ro-ro decks are always ventilated in advance of an operation
DPKP
1262. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods?
a. IMDG code
b. SOLAS code
c. HB code
d. KLMNG code
1263. Who should operate ships' ramps, car platforms, retractable car decks and similar equipment?
a. Only competent persons authorised by a responsible ships' officer, in accordance with the company's work instructions.
b. Only the ships' officers.
c. Bosun and the loading officer
d. All crew working on ro-ro deck
1264. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be carried out?
a. Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month.
b. Every year
c. Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually.
d. Every second year
1265. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the:
a. Load line certificate
b. Ship's safety certificate
c. Safety construction certificate
d. Ship's trading certificate
DPKP
1266. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific dutys and responsibilities related to
cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, a liquefied tanker?
a. A tankerman certificate
b. A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months
c. Documentation of the prescribed courses
d. Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months
1267. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly tend to cause:
b. Large instantaneous fires.
c. Heavy amounts of ship's sweat.
1268. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
a. Crushing and distortion.
b. Bending.
c. Tearing.
d. Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.
1269. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with:
a. Risk of explosion
b. Spontaneous combustion
c. Corrosion of steelwork
d. Build up of carbon dioxide gas

1270. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:
b. Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds.
c. Moisture absorption in the cargo holds.
DPKP
1271. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state that:
a. They must not be exposed to salt water contamination.
b. They can be loaded in heavy rain.
c. They must always be shipped in stainless steel envelopes.
d. They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.
1272. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be carried out by:
a. A classification society surveyor.
b. The master.
c. A deck officer designated by the master.
d. A marine surveyor appointed by the company.
1273. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient method of testing the weather tightness
of the hatch covers is considered to be:
a. Ultra sonic test.
b. Chalk test.
c. Visual inspection.
d. Hose test.
1274. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48 tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear
of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes. In this case, it would be correct to state that:
a. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two
tonnes.
b. The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the derrick.
c. The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by small amounts in cargo operations, since the
Breaking Load of the slings is much higher.
d. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the lifting gear must be at least 10% less than
the SWL of the derrick.
1275. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition of the discharge equipment such
as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
a. Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
b. Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person Ashore(DPA).
c. Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
d. Provide ships equipment to discharge.
1276. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General Cargo Vessel may be obtained
from:
a. Ships Capacity plan.
b. General Arrangement plan.
c. Docking plan.
d. Planned maintenance schedules.
1277. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to horizontal could result in:
a. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
b. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
c. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
d. Damage to the cargo by ship structures.
1278. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to deteriorate would be:
a. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
b. Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
c. Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
d. Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.
DPKP
1279. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
a. To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
b. To prevent the ventilator fans from damage.
c. To prevent moisture from entering the hold.
d. To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft.

1280. The ship‘s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined at intervals not exceeding:
a. 5 years
b. 3 years
c. 1 year
d. 6 months
1281. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it must be ensured that the damage
is inspected by the:
a. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
b. Class surveyor.
c. Surveyor representing the vessel's hull & machinery underwriters.
d. Surveyor representing the consignee.
1282. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
a. Tyre and bodywork damages
b. Tyre damage
c. Meltdown of internal plastic areas
d. Damage to vehicles' engines
DPKP
1283. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature variations be stowed?
a. Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated machinery
b. On deck away from the accommodation
c. Anywhere under-deck
d. Anywhere along the side of the main deck
1307. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a
ship, what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
a) Doubling the roll period
b) Doubling the pitch period
c) Halving the roll period
d) Halving the pitch period
1308. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?

a) By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the ship
b) By the virtual loss of GM
c) By the development of a negative GM
d) By an increase in the angle of pitch
1309. What does heaving result in?

a) Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
b) Shearing of container twistlocks
c) Longitudinal accelerations acting on hatch pontoons
d) Tipping of containers
1310. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
a) Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
b) Failure without warning
c) Low elasticity
d) Diminished cargo carrying capacity
1311. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?
a) The number of repeated stress cycles
b) Repeated plastic deformation of the hull
c) Panting stresses
d) Resonant rolling
DPKP
1312. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculatingrolling forces?
a) 24 - 30 degrees
b) 37 - 42 degrees
c) 30 - 36 degrees
d) 18 - 24 degrees
1313. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?

a) When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship
b) When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period ofthe ship
c) When wave heights experienced from either quarter exceed 6 meters
d) When wave heights experienced from the bows exceed 6 meters
1314. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
a) When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
b) When a ship is at its extreme angle of pitch and roll simultaneously
c) When a ship surges
d) During resonant rolling
1315. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?
a) When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
b) Whenever wind speeds exceed 60 knots
c) Whenever wind speeds exceed 70 knots
d) When on-deck containers are block-stowed
1316. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
a) Because pitching varies with ship‘s length
b) Because very large container vessels are more exposed to open seaconditions
c) Because vessel pitching varies with propeller pitch
d) Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed towind forces
DPKP
1317. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMOstability criteria cannot be achieved; the
vessel should do which of the following?
a) The grain surfaces in some or all ofthe cargo spaces must be secured
b) The cargo can still be loaded
c) An exemption certificate must beapplied for
d) An exemption certificate must beapplied for
1318. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what arethe major concerns of the changes in
stability?
a) Reduction of metacentric height (GM) andloss of freeboard forward
b) Excessive trim by the stern
c) Increase in metacentric height (GM)
d) Reduction of speed and additional fuelconsumption
1319. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in upper ballasttank amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what
must the Master do?
a) Inform Designated Person Ashore(DPA) and call in ClassificationSociety
b) Note the dimensions of the crackand measure regularly
c) Proceed on ballast voyage withoutballast in this tank
d) Repair with cement box or temporarywelded patch until next drydock
DPKP
1320. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 andcarrying cargo of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which
cargo hold should be able towithstand flooding?
a) Any cargo hold
b) The foremost cargo hold
c) The aftermost cargo hold
d) The midships cargo hold
1321. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 andcarrying cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or above,
which cargo hold is strengthenedto withstand flooding?
a) The foremost cargo hold
b) The aftermost cargo hold
c) The midships cargo hold
d) The ballast hold
1322. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which ofthe following parts of the vessel?
a) Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanksamidships
b) In number 1 and number 2 holds
c) In after peak area
d) On bottom plating in the after part of the vessel
1323. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverseframe beam knees are slightly distorted;
what is the significance of this?
a) This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and ispotentially serious
b) There are no concerns with this observation
c) This is an indication of excessive bending moment stress
d) The distorted areas should be painted
DPKP
1324. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a highdensity cargo. What reasons could be given
by the master to refuse to do this?
a) IMO do not recommend alternate loading ofcargo holds with high density cargoes.
b) The trim of the vessel will not be satisfactory.
c) Cargo space cleaning after discharge will beexcessive.
d) The summer deadweight will not be achieve
1325. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a
large metacentric height (GM)?
a) Have a fast roll period and possiblysuffer racking stresses
b) Have a slow roll and large rightinglevers
c) Have a slow roll and very smallrighting levers
d) Suffer torsional stresses and have smallrighting levers
1326. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargohold which can also be used for ballast on
a Bulk Carrier?
a) The ballast hold hatch cover must be fittedwith additional securing devices
b) There is no differences in design
c) This hold does not have ventilators
d) The coamings are much lower on theballast hold
1327. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
a) The minimum bow height must be maintained
b) The vessel is trimmed by the stern on completion,
c) The vessel is trimmed by the head on completion
d) The vessel should have a stern trim of 2.0 metres by stern.
DPKP
1328. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on abulk carrier indicate?
a) That shear forces have been exceeded
b) That the vessel is due for survey
c) That failure of the shell plating isimminent
d) That bulkhead failure is imminent
1329. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
a) Upper and lower connection of main side frames
b) Longitudinal deck plating outside hatches
c) The girders
d) Forecastle deck
1330. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravityfor each cargo compartment of a Bulk
Carrier?
a) Vessel stability book
b) Line drawing
c) Capacity Plan
d) Shell expansion
1331. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity
for each cargo compartment of a BulkCarrier?
a) Vessel stability book
b) Line drawing
c) Capacity Plan
d) Shell expansion
DPKP
1332. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe
environmental and safety hazards which require significant preventative measures
to preclude escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull construction, with a variety
of tank sizes / capacities is rated as:
a) A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
b) A type I chemical tanker as per the IBC Code.
c) A parcel chemical tanker as per the IACS Construction Regulations.
d) A chemical tanker for the purposes of the 1996 IMO directive MEPC/2.12cir On Mandatory Reporting Requirements
for Ships Carrying Dangerous orPolluting Goods.
1333. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks

containing cargoes or cargo residues which might react with each other in ahazardous manner, are all acceptable methods of
segregation in chemical tankerstowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be acceptable tohave:
a) An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo residues.
b) A common bulkhead, provided it is at least 10 mm thick.
c) A common bulkhead, provided it overlaps for less than 15% of the length of the bulkhead on the larger tank.
d) A cruciform joint, separating two tanks diagonally.
1334. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability
information booklet, which must be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker,
shall include:
a) Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluatingother conditions of loading and a summary of
the ship's survivalcapabilities, together with sufficient information to enable the master to loadand operate the ship in a
safe and seaworthy manner.
b) Summary details of light ship and fully loaded conditions and of arepresentative part-loaded condition, with examples
of calculations oftypical pre-departure stability conditions and an example of a damagestability calculation to enable
the master to determine survival capability inthe event of an emergency involving a breach of the hull.
c) Certificates confirming the testing and calibration of tank gaugingequipment, the ship's stability computer program
and the accuracy of draftand loadline marks.
d) Details of service and ballast conditions for loading based on the range ofproducts which a vessel is certified to carry,
incorporating the maximumpermissible DWT, the maximum permissible SG of any product, themaximum permissible
trim and any structural constraints that will impact aloading condition.
1335. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as:
a) One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
b) One which forms part of the ship's hull and structure and which is normallyessential to the structural completeness of
the ship's hull.
c) One which is not subject to the requirements of the IBC Code in respect ofthe loading and carriage of hazardous liquid
cargoes.
d) One which can be loaded with hazardous liquid chemicals that can not becarried in integral cargo tanks.
1336. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC Code states that for a single tank on a
type 3 chemical tanker:
a) There is no applicable filling restriction.
b) A restriction of 1250 cubic metres shall apply.
c) A restriction of 3000 cubic metres shall apply.
d) A restriction of 1750 cubic metres shall apply.
1337. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPO Land IBC Code, it has become mandatory
for vegetable oils to be carried in:
a) Double hull tankers.
b) Integral cargo tanks only.
c) Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only.
d) IMO type II chemical tankers only.
DPKP
1338. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the definition and requirements of a
―pressure tankǁ must be:
a) Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
b) Less than 0.7 bar gauge.
c) At least 1.0 bar gauge.
d) At least 2.1 bar gauge.
1339. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type1 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code
is:
a) 1250 cubic metres.
b) 3000 cubic metres.
c) 750 cubic metres.
d) 2400 cubic metres.
1340. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code
is:
a) 3000 cubic metres
b) 2400 cubic metres
c) 3400 cubic metres
d) 2750 cubic metres
1341. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's
shell plating and the outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type IIchemical tanker is:
a) Not less than 760 mm.
b) Not less than moulded breadth / 15.
c) Not less than moulded breadth / 5.
d) Not less than 1250 mm.
DPKP
1342. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of
deck cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately:
a) Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side of vessel.
b) Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weightswithin vessel and fill small ballast tank on highside of vessel.
c) Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lowerweights within vessel and fill small ballast tankon high side of vessel.
d) Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and emptysmall ballast tank on low side of vessel.
1343. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:

a) The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
b) All her certificates are in order.
c) The vessel's Safety Construction Certificate is vali
d) The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are watertight.
1344. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of
loading, the final level of the water would be at:
a) The top of the summer load line mark.
b) The bottom of the summer load line mark.
c) The top of the winter mark.
d) The mid point between the summer and the tropical mark.
1345. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have:
a) A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZLevers).
b) A fast roll period and small righting levers (GZLevers).
c) A long roll period and large righting levers.
d) A long roll period and small righting levers (GZ Levers).
DPKP
1346. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured
that:
a) There are minimum free surface moments in tanks.
b) All double-bottom tanks are empty.
c) The vessel has a small metacentric height( GM).
d) The vessel is listed to the side to which the load isto be lifte
1347. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is carrying timber deck cargoes is:
a) The International Tonnage Convention.
b) SOLAS 74/78.
c) The International Convention on Load lines.
d) MARPOL 73/78.
1348. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heelformula at?
a) Larger angles of heel.
b) 5 degrees angle of Heel.
c) Small angles of heel.
d) Less than 5 degrees angle of heel to the side of the heavy LOA
1349. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can
be denoted by the formula:
a) KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
b) KN - Corrected KG x Sin angle of heel.
c) KN - KG x Sin angle of list.
d) KM - Corrected KG x Sin angle of list.
DPKP
1350. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can
be maintained by:
a) Completely filling the ship's doublebottom tanks and continuouslymonitoring the loading operation.
b) Completely filling those doublebottom tanks below the cargo holdwhere heavy cargo is being loade
c) Monitoring the vessel's stabilityduring the loading operation and not allowing the vessel to list on the side of the LOA
d) Listing the vessel to the opposite side to which the load is being lifte
1351. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank
designed for transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure?
a) Carbon-Manganese steel.
b) 9% Nickel steel.
c) Stainless steel.
d) Aluminium.
1352. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deckscantlings must be maintained within "x" length
amidships, where "x" is:
a) 0.4 Length
b) Half Length
c) 0.6 of the Length
d) Quarter of the Length
1353. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for crude tankers in ballast condition is:
a) 2.0 + 0.02L
b) 2.0 + 0.002L
c) 2.0 + 0.15.l
d) 2.0 + 0.0015L
DPKP
1354. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1February 2002 shall comply with intact
stability whereby it must have a minimum
GM (metacentric height) in port of:
a) Not less than 0.15 m
b) Not less than 0.015 m
c) Not less than 0.25 m
d) Not less than 0.10 m
1355. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are:
a) Increased free surface effect and reduced transverse metacentric height.
b) Increased longitudinal bending moments and transverse metacentric height.
c) Increased likelihood of the vessel suddenly developing severe trimand list.

d) Potential hazards relating to damage to internal structure and pipelines.
1358. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
a) The draught for which the structuralstrength of the ship has been designed
b) The maximum draught determined by theLoadline Rules
c) The minimum draught amidships when inballast condition
d) The draught on which the fundamentaldesign parameters are based
DPKP
1359. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?
a) They support the stiffeners and alsotake up some of the sea forces
b) They transfer all the sea forcesacting on the plating
c) They transfer all the cargo forcesacting on the plating
d) They support the stiffeners
1360. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?

a) Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds. Position of controls for opening and closing of
watertight compartments.
Arrangement for correction of list due to flooding.
b) Arrangements for correction of listdue to flooding within 15 minutes
c) Instructions and procedures for reporting damage to the Company
d) A damage control plan is the same as an emergency plan
1361. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged condition?
a) Cross flooding arrangement
b) Ballast trimming system
c) Separate trim tanks
d) Self acting ballast trimming arrangement
1362. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships?
a) The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
b) SOLAS
c) International Safety Management code
d) ISPS
DPKP
1363. What is the result of a large metacentric height?
a) The ship will roll violently.
b) The ship will have a long roll period
c) Bending moment will increase.
d) The center of gravity will move upwards.
1364. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make
passenger ships able to withstand critical damage?
a) Maintain sufficient intact stability
b) Damaged stability to be increased by use of water ballast
c) Avoid overloading the ship
d) Damaged stability to be increased by weight redistribution.
1365. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged condition are
installed in passenger ships, what isthe maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization?
a) 15 degrees
b) 10 degrees
c) 20 degrees
d) 30 degrees
1366. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght?

a) The Master
b) The Shipping Company and the Classification Society
c) The Flag State Administration
d) The Shipyard
DPKP

1367. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer
vessel is a principal design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options givenrepresents the optimum cargo space shape?
a) A square space as would be foundin a midships lower deck.
b) A narrow tapered space as would befound in a forward lower deck.
c) A flared space that would be foundin a forward upper deck.
d) A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck.
1368.Conventional reefer vessels are usually designed with fine lines and large flared bows.Consequently, in adverse weather
conditions, especially from forward of the beam,the navigating officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options?
a) This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result instructural damage.
b) That the main engine governor may not be effective when the vessel pitchesheavily.
c) That the bow is ideal for keeping the forward decks dry and clear of water.
d) That the vessel design means that high speeds can be maintained and theperishable cargo can be delivered in good
condition.
1369. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying refrigerated air via ducting to
containers. Modern vessels are designed tosupply only electrical power to integral containers. Select the main reason for
thischange in design to the vessels and containers from the options given.
a) The 'porthole' system design was extremely complex and construction costswere high.
b) Ducted containers had to be transhipped to their final destination after discharge and still required refrigeration for
that part of the supply chain
c) A large amount of refrigerant gas was required to operate the 'porthole'system.
d) The introduction of more powerful diesel engines onto these vessels meantthey had sufficient electrical capacity to
supply the integral type containers.
1370. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween decks approximately 2 to 2.5 metres
in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5 metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more decks each
approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main reason for this fundamental design change?
a) There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets.
b) The increased proportion of chilled asopposed to frozen cargoes that are carrier
c) The increased number of container vessels has reduced the tendency tocarry general cargo outbound from Europe or
North America to Australia and New Zealand on reefer vessels.
d) It is easier to construct vessels with shallow decks.
1371. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?

a) By the cubic foot capacity.
b) By the pallet capacity.
c) By the grain capacity.
d) By the Suez Canal tonnage.
1372. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging from deck head rails in refrigerated
locker spaces. What position should the centre of gravity be assumed to be at when carrying out the stability calculations for a
vessel with such a stow?
a) At the deck head of the lockers.
b) At the mid-height of the hanging carcasses.
c) At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook.
d) At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability hand book with an arbitrary adjustment to take account
of the centre of mass of the hanging carcasses.
DPKP
1373. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following
statement. "Reefer vessels, loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a
small GM due to the fact that…
a) …they are designed with fine lines andthe biggest cargo spaces are at the top ofthe holds."
b) …they are designed with small fueltanks."
c) …they are designed that way to producea gentle rolling motion."
d) …they usually have large deck cranes."
1374. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involvesthe transhipment at sea, or at anchor, of a
cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits.Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes andvessel B
has 5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any, wouldbe best suited to this type of operation?
a) Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give more control ofthe operation at sea or at anchor.
b) Vessel A would be more suitable as the high speed cranes would allow theoperation to be completed more quickly.
c) Neither vessel would be suitable as none of the cargo handling equipment fitted could be used at sea or at anchor.
d) Vessel A would be more suitable as the greater lift capacity of the cranes would allow bigger pallets to be transhipped
1375. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship
types regarding seaworthiness?
a) They can roll to very large angles without taking in water
b) They are not easily damaged in heavy weather
c) Their large reserve buoyancy prevents capsizing
d) They can pitch to very large angles without taking in water via the ramp doors
1376. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations what else must be taken into account
when calculating the external forces acting on a cargo unit?
a) Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
b) Longitudinal and vertical forces by wind pressure
c) Vertical and transverse forces by wind pressure
d) Longitudinal forces by sea sloshing
1377. What special design feature is attributed to roro vessels which are only car carriers?
a) A very large wind age area
b) A stern ramp
c) Solid ballast
d) A small GM when fully loaded
1378. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?

a) When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
b) When wave lengths are equal to twice the ship's length
c) When wave lengths are equal to half the ship's length
d) In confused seas
1379. Why are pure Ro Ro car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where their stability is concerned
a) Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast operations are not handled correctly
b) Because they have few internal bulkheads
c) Because they have few internal bulkheads
d) Because of the relatively small clearance between waterline and stern rampsill when fully loaded
DPKP
72. Why is it important in a roro vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way
a) To prevent high sheer forces and bending moments on the vessel during the loading /discharge operations
b) Because it looks better and image is important
c) Because it looks better and image is important
d) Because it makes it harder to lash the cargo correctly if you don't
1380. What is the result of a "high metacentric height"?

a) The vessel will roll violently?
b) The vessel will have a great bending moment?
c) The vessel will roll slowly or be unstable?
d) The vessel's tweendeck heights is too high?
1381. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged?

a) It is unchanged
b) It first rises then lowers
c) It lowers
d) It rises
1382. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main deck in way of pillars inside
forecastle?
a) Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
b) Slamming in way of flat bottom forward of lightdraught
c) Impact pressure forces in way of abrupt or flaredbow
d) Forces created by waves on the forecastle
DPKP
1383. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data
corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1)
a) A calculation example showing the use of "KG" limitation curves.
b) Drawings and caculations documenting thestability of the ship, both in intact and allpossible damage condition.
c) A calculation example showing use of "GM" limitation curves.
d) Stability data produced by stability calculation instruments.
1384. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL
4/12.2)
a) The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in all loading condition.
b) Unless otherwise stated in the approved stability calculation, the total weight of the deck cargo shall not exceed 50
metric tons.
c) Centre of gravity shall be calculated with accuracy better than 5 percent.
d) In waters with the danger of icing, loading of deck cargo must be approved by competent authority.
1385. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength?

a) The master.
b) The management company.
c) The classification society.
d) The flag state administration.
DPKP
1386. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore concentrate; what would be
the possible stability conditions produced?
a) The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height(GM) and have a fast roll period
b) The vessel will normally have a small intact metacentric height(GM) and have a slow roll period
c) The vessel will be tender and have a poor curve of righting levers.
d) The vessel may have a list
1387. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more in length?
a) The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
b) The segregation requirements of the cargoes carrier
c) The ultimate strength of main deck plating
d) The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds
1388. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
a) At the after end of each cargo hold
b) At the forward end of each cargo hold
c) In cargo hold bilges
d) At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold
1389. Which of the following describes the term couple?

a) Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions along the center line of the Vessel
b) A point through which all of the upward forces affecting a vessel are considered to act.
c) Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions and along parallel lines.
d) None of the above.
83. The side to side, bodily motion of a vessel is known as
a) Yawing
b) Pitching
c) Heaving
d) Swaying

1390. Which motion of the vessel does a ship‘s officer most easily control through transverse stability stowage?
a) Swaying
b) Rolling
c) Yawing
d) Pitching
1391. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm?
a) GM
b) GZ
c) BM
d) ZM
1392. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the points B and M is known as:
a) Metacentric Height
b) Metacentric Radius
c) Height of the Metacenter
d) Buoyancentric Metadistance
1393. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition?

a) G is below M
b) G is abovem
c) G is at the same height as B
d) G is at the same height as M
DPKP
88. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as .
a) Angle of Heal
b) Angle of Loll
c) Angle of List
d) Angle of Doom
1394. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of
a) Hydrodynamics
b) Flotation
c) Gravity
d) Buoyancy
1395. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draft
of the vessel Is known as the vessel‘s .
a) 1396. Area of the water plane
b) 1397. Block coefficient
c) 1398. Water plane coefficient
d) 1399. Volume ratio
91. Morrish‘s Formula is used to determine

a) Metacentric Height
b) Height of the Center of Buoyancy
c) Height of the Center of Gravity
d) Metacentric Radius
1400. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about thelongitudinal axis?
a) The measure of a ship‘s resistance to heaving.
b) The measure of a ship‘s resistance to rolling.
c) The value of the metacentric radius divided by the displacement.
d) The ratio of the area of the water plane to the product of the length and breadth of the Vessel.
DPKP
93. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will?
a) Remain fixed on the transverse centerline.
b) Move below the center of buoyancy.
c) Move off of the transverse centerline.
d) Move down while staying on the transverse centerline.
1401. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18feet?
a) 9.5 feet
b) 19.5 feet
c) 31.2 feet
d) 26.1 feet
1402. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling?

a) It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as the oceanwave period
b) It occurs when the natural rolling period of the vessel differs from the oceanwave period
c) It occurs when the vessel is rolling in calm waters.
d) It occurs when two vessels have the same natural rolling period
1403. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight are considered to beconcentrated is the
a) 1404 Metacenter
b) 1405. Center of gravity
c) 1406. Center of buoyancy
d) Righting arm
1407. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel‘scenter of gravity will .
a) 1408. Move downward
b) 1409. Move upward
c) 1410. Remain in its original location
d) 1411. Move toward the center of gravity of the cargo.
485
DPKP
98. One long ton is equivalent to .
a) 2000 pounds
b) 1000 kilograms
c) 2 short tons
d) 2240 pounds
1412. A vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees. What is the value of the righting arm?
a) 2.3 feet
b) 0.7 feet
c) 1.4 feet
d) 10.6 feet
100. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vesselremain fixed, you would expect .
a) G and B to both move
b) G to move and B to remain fixe
c) G and B to remain fixe
d) G to remain fixed and B to move.
1413. Which of the following would represent the height of the center of gravity on avessel?
a) KM + GM
b) KB + BM –KG
c) KM –GM
d) KB + GM
1414. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from:

a) The keel to the metacenter
b) The enter of buoyancy to the metacenter
c) The center of gravity to the metacenter
d) The center of gravity to the center of buoyancy
DPKP
1415. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination?
a) KG
b) The righting moment
c) GM
d) BM
1416. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1 inch isknown as the
a) Moment to trim 1 inch
b) Tons per inch immersion
c) Area of the water plane
d) Block coefficient
1417. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a
vessel‘s stability?
a) The weight acts upon the vessel at it‘s actual height above the keel.
b) The weight acts upon the vessel from the position of the base of the craneon the vessel‘s Deck.
c) The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane
d) The weight acts upon the vessel from the spot on the deck directly below thesuspended Weight
1418. Which of the following is a characteristic of a ―stiff ship?ǁ

a) A small GM
b) A long rolling period
c) Neutral stability
d) A large GM

16.Memantaudanmengawasipelaksanaanpersyaratanketentuanyang berlaku, danlangkah-langkah yang
diambiluntukmenjaminkeselamatanjiwa di laut, keamanandanperlindunganlingkunganlaut. (Monitor and control
compliance with legislative requirements andmeasures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection
ofthe marine environment)
1420. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:

a) 5 years with control every 12 months
b) 2 years with control every 6 months
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
1421. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90

a) Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US port
b) Yes, if the vessel calls a US port for only a short stop
c) No exceptions
d) Yes, close to any US naval base
1422. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90)
a) Unannounced drills at any time
b) Participation in all announced drills
c) Maximum one drill a year
d) Maximum two drills a year
1423. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of 18?
a) One year.
b) Two years.
c) No time limit.
d) Three months.
DPKP
1424. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?
a) 1 - 2 years.
b) 3 - 4 years.
c) 5 - 6 years.
d) 8 years.
1425. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable?
a) For all listed vessels.
b) For tankers and other vessels carrying persistent oil as cargo.
c) For all vessels except passenger vessels.
d) For all vessels except those engaged in coastal trade.
1426. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?

a) For all vessels.
b) For all vessels except passenger vessels.
c) For passenger vessels only.
d) For tankers and other vessels carryingpersistent oil as cargo.
1427. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send toshore based management?
a) Annually.
b) Biannually.
c) Every three years.
d) Not mandatory to send reports.
1428. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1?
a) We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is theregulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
b) We find 5 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is theregulations for the prevention of pollution by sewage
c) We find 4 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulationsfor the prevention of pollution by garbage
d) We find 1 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulations for the preventionof pollution by chemicals.
1429. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?

a) Report to relevant authorities.
b) Inform the manager.
c) Start clean-up operations.
d) Inform the vessel's agent.
1430. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have to notify the NationalResponse Center (OPA-90)
a) Yes, within three (3) days
b) No, not if the local US State Authority iscorrectly notified
c) No, only the shipowner can notify NRC
1431. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct?

a) COTP-zones may have additional rules andregulations
b) OPA-90 specify rules and regulations for allCOTP-zones
c) After implementation of OPA-90 there are noarea specific rules and Regulations
d) OPA-90 specify all oil cargo related rules and regulations
1432. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What isthe main issue for the introduction of the
act?
a) To prevent oil spills in US waters
b) To enforce owners to use equipment of higherstandards that those of today?
c) To encourage owners to build double hullvessels for trading US waters?
d) To improve safety measures onboard?
DPKP
1433. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What doyou understand by the word "Sewage"?
a) Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
b) Mixture of sea water/oil.
c) Waste from galley.
d) Waste from synthetic materials.
1434. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oilywater separator which was previously
certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
a) 15 ppm
b) 50 ppm
c) 25 ppm
d) 10 ppm
1435. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI)?

a) QI is an authorised individual, situated in theUS, and contracted by the owner or operator ofthe vessel
b) QI is the owner‘s contingency leader
c) QI is representing the USCG
d) An individual certified by USCG to handle oil spills
1436. What are the functions of a flag state administration?

a) They have responsibility for setting, monitoring and enforcing standards ofsafety and pollution prevention on
vesselsflying the countries flag
b) They have responsibility for ensuring thatships are properly registered
c) The have responsibility for ensuring that ships are correctly manned andthat crews' terms and conditions of
employment are met satisfactorily
d) The maintain a record of all ship and their crews, and produce statisticsinvolving ships from their country.
DPKP
1437. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90)
a) Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violationof Federal Safety
b) Only gross negligence
c) Only wilful misconduct
d) Wilful misconduct and gross negligence
1438. What does STCW deal with?

a) STCW deals with minimum recommendation ofeducation for seafarers and minimum standards for training centre
and schools
b) STCW deals with minimum recommendation fortraining centre and schools
c) STCW deals with recommendation for training centre and schools and typeof education for seafarers
d) STCW deals with training centre and schools and standards for watch Keepers
1439. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean?

a) International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea
b) International Agreement for Security of Load and Ships
c) International Conference for Security of Loads aboard Ships
d) International Rules for Safe Ocean Lines and Sailing routes
1440. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?

a) The International Convention on Standards of Training,Certification and Watchkeeping of Seafarers
b) Seafarer's Training and Competence of Watchkeepers
c) The International Convention of Ship's Trading,Chartering and Waybills
d) The International Shipowners, Transport and Cargo Work Convention
DPKP
1441. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
a) All of the mentioned
b) Fuel oil
c) Sludge
d) Oil refuse
1442. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?
a) It is the SOLAS conventions that take care ofthe human safety at sea
b) It is the MARPOL conventions that take careof the human safety at sea
c) It is the STCW 78/95 that take care of thehuman safety at sea
d) There isn‘t any conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
1443. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?

a) Every person other than the Captain and themembers of the crew or other personsemployed or engaged onboard the
ship in thebusiness of that ship.
b) Everyone who travels with a passenger ship
c) Any person holding a ticket and travellingwith a passenger ship
d) Any person paying their voyage regardless of ship type
1444. What is full form of VRP (OPA-90)

a) Vessel Response Plan
b) Vessel Report Plan
c) Vessel Response Procurement
d) Vessel Reporting Procedures
DPKP
1445. What is SOPEP?
a) A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
b) A Ship-Owners Permitted Entry Plan
c) A Shipboard Oil Pollution Exemption Procedure
d) A Seafarer's Official Pension and Employment Payment scheme
1446. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislation before itis defined as intoxication?
a) 0,04 %
b) 0,07 %
c) 0,01 %
d) 0,1 %
1447. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be pumpedover board during a voyage?
a) 30 litres per nautical mile
b) 20 litres per nautical mile.
c) 40 litres per nautical mile.
d) 60 litres per nautical mile.
1448. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention?

a) Mandatory.
b) Supplementary to classification rules.
c) Should be consulted when the vessel is in distress.
d) Must be regarded as guidelines.
1449. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters (OPA-90)

a) Safety of ship and crew
b) Protection of the environment
c) Prevention of oil pollution
d) Any immediate action to prevent loss of time
DPKP
1450. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) shouldfail during a ballast voyage?
a) All of the mentioned must be performed
b) The failure must be noted in the Oil Record Book
c) The failure must be repaired
d) If the failure cannot be repaired onboard, the ODME must be repairedbefore the ship commences its next voyage
1451. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in the engineroom?
a) Both STCW and Class rules
b) International Standard for Training and
c) Watch keeping (STCW)
d) Class Rules
e) SOLAS
1452. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection,certificates were invalid or missing?
a) Rectification would be required before sailing
b) The ship would be allowed to sail to the nextport and rectification would take place then
c) The ship would be detained indefinitely
d) The deficiencies would be recorded in theship's register and the ship allowed to sail
1453. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
a) Anyone involved in the operation
b) Captain only
c) Shipowners only
d) Officers only
DPKP
1454. Where is OPA-90 applicable?
a) Within 200 nm of US waters includingGuam, Hawaii, Alaska and San Juan
b) Within US waters
c) 200 nm off US coast
d) 200 nm off coast of California
1455. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept?

a) In the Captain's office
b) In the Owner's office
c) In the Captain's safe
d) Posted up in a prominent place onboard the ship
1456. Where should the placard you are shown be located, according to U.S. Coastguardregulations? (Title 33-Navigation and
Navigable waters, § 155.440 )
a) Both in a conspicuous place in eachmachinery space and in a conspicuous placeat the bilge and ballast pump control
station
b) In the wheelhouse
c) In a conspicuous place in each machineryspace
d) In a conspicuous place at the bilge and ballast pump control station
1457. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea?
a) The SOLAS convention
b) The MARPOL convention
c) The STCW 78/95
d) There isn't any conventions that take care of thehuman safety at sea
DPKP
1458. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment etc.
a) SOLAS
b) MARPOL
c) Load Line convention
d) CRISTAL
1459. Which international convention deals with pollution prevention?

a) MARPOL.
b) SOLAS.
c) STCW.
d) ISGOTT.
1460. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaringnations?
a) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
b) International Labor Organization (ILO)
c) International Marine Association (IMA)
d) International Ocean Safety Organization (IOSO)
1461. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections ofships, and the issue of Safety
Certificates?
a) Government Authorities of the Flag State
b) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
c) International Labor Organization (ILO)
d) Ships Classification Associations (Lloyd's, American Bureau of Shipping,The Norwegian Veritas, Germanische Lloyd's,
etc.)

1462. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard?
a) Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer.
b) The individual person.
c) The safety officer.
d) The officer of the watch.
DPKP
1463. Who is responsible for keeping the required official publications onboard?
a) The master.
b) The radio officer.
c) The owner.
d) The authorities.
1464. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and mandatory radio routines?
a) The master.
b) The owners.
c) The radio officer.
d) Statutory authorities.
1465. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?
a) The master and department heads.
b) The individual person.
c) The bosun and the second engineer.
d) The safety officer.
1466. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oilleakage. Who should be called to handle
pollution claims and damages?
a) The P & I Club's nearest representative.
b) The Leading Hull Underwriter's nearest Average Agent.
c) The Classification Society's representative.
d) Flag state representative.
1467. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
a) MARPOL regulations
b) SOLAS 74/88 regulations
c) Convention on the Prevention of MarinePollution by Dumping of Wastes and OtherMatter
d) The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes
DPKP
1468. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea ona Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful
consideration?
a) Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System(SMS) for guidance
b) There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea.
c) Follow actions of previous crews.
d) Check procedures and Arrangements manual
1469. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaningor deballastingoperations , are deemed to
present a hazard to either marineresources or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of thesea and
therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge intothe marine environment". Such substances are:
a) A category "Y" substance as identified inMARPOL Annex II.
b) A category "X" substance as identified inMARPOL Annex II.
c) An NLS as defined in ISGOTT, revisionV.
d) A liquid cargo that is prohibited forcarriage in vessels other than type 1 chemical tanker, as defined in the IBCCode.
1470. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving port in compliance with
MARPOL. The resulting residues shall bedischarged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorizedsurveyor has reached a level of:
a) 0.1% by weight.
b) 0.1% by volume.
c) 0.2% by weight.
d) 0.3% by volume.
DPKP
1471. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molassesare classified as:
a) "OS" (Other substances)"
b) Category Y
c) Category Z
d) Category X
1472. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‗solidifying substances‘ as:

a) A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a meltingpoint of less than 15°C which is at a
temperature of less than 5°C above itsmelting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with amelting
point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of lessthan 10°C above its melting point at the time of
unloading.
b) A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a meltingpoint of less than 20°C which is at a
temperature of less than 10°C above itsmelting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with
amelting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than15°C above its melting point at the time of
unloading.
c) A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid format ambient, or less than ambient
temperatures unless an external heat sourceis applied.
d) A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond intosolid form if exposed to an external heat
source.
1473. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‗high viscosity substance‘ as:

a) A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal toor greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading
temperature.
b) A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to orgreater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius.
c) A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than37.8 degrees Celsius.
d) Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped froma cargo compartment and its associated
piping and pumping system to equalto or less than 75 litres.
DPKP
1474. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, thearea(s) designated as ―Special Areasǁ are:
a) The Antarctic.
b) The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulfof Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea,
Southern South African Waters,Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
c) The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic.
d) The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and theCaribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and
North-West EuropeanWaters.
1475. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washedto such an extent that the ballast contains
less than 1 ppm of the substancepreviously carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the dischargerate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, whichrequire:
a) That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in waterthat is not less than 25 metres deep.
b) That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and isproceeding on route.
c) That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge MonitoringEquipment and a visual watch is maintained on the
vessel's wake.
d) Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has beendrawn from the tank and is stored on board,
there are no additionalconditions to be imposed on such a discharge.
1476. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category ―Xǁ, ―Yǁ & ―Zǁ NoxiousLiquid Substances, the term ―Clean Ballastǁ
as defined in the IBC Code means:
a) Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargocontaining a substance in category "X","Y"
or "Z", has been thoroughlycleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the tank emptied
in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
b) Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage ofballast or cargoes other than oil or
Noxious Liquid Substances as variouslydefined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which iscompletely
separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems.
c) Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed inaccordance with the requirements of the
Procedures and ArrangementsManual.
d) Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.
1477. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of aNoxious Liquid Substance or mixture
containing such a substance, an entry shall bemade in the Cargo record Book, which shall include:
a) Time of occurrenceApproximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies)Circumstances of discharge or escape and
general remarks.
b) Date of occurrencePosition (latitude and longitude)Estimated quantity and category(ies)Extract from Master's Log
Book detailing the incident.
c) Position at start and stop of accidentaldischarge Time at start and stop of accidentaldischarge Reason for accidental
dischargeName of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge.
d) and Time of occurrenceName of Responsible Person, and Master of the vesselStatement of Responsible Person, and
Master of the vesselApproximate quantity and category of product dischargedIdentity of nearest sovereign State and
Authority of that State contacted withapplicable report reference.
1478. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:

a) Category "Y".
b) Category "Z".
c) Category "OS" - other substances.
d) Category "A".
DPKP
1479. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutantsis regulated under which international
guidelines?
a) Protocol I of MARPOL.
b) Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
c) Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG Code.
d) The UN Convention on the Reporting of Accidents and Incidents whichPresent a Hazard to the Marine Environment
2004.
1480. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added towater in order to facilitate the washing of
tanks which previously contained liquidchemicals, must be ensured that:
a) No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used,except those components that are readily
biodegradable and present in atotal concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No restrictionsadditional to
those applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shallapply.
b) The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, whichwould apply to the additive had it been
carried as cargo. Tank washingprocedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in theProceduresand
Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's FlagState Administration.
c) No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubicmetres of tank volume is used in any one washing
operation.
d) If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200litres is used in the washing operation for a
single cargo tank, then aprewash to shore must be carried out.
1481. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOLand IBC Code, it has become mandatory
for vegetable oils to be carried in:
a) Double hull tankers.
b) Integral cargo tanks only.
c) Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only.
d) IMO type II chemical tankers only.
DPKP
1482. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
a) A substance which is subject to theprovisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
b) A substance which is subject to theprovisions of Chapter V of SOLAS1974, as amended.
c) Any substance which is deemedhazardous to the marine environment.
d) A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, orbecause of its hazard potential to the aquatic
environment is subject to theprovisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by seaaccordingly.
1483. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?

a) Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types.
b) No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers.
c) Yes, but only annex IV.
d) Yes, but only annex V.
1484. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carryingliquefied natural gas (LNG)?
a) Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
b) No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers.
c) Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products.
d) OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels
1485. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may beallowed by a Port State Authority to trade for:
a) One ballast voyage before proceeding to arepair port.
b) One ballast and one loaded voyage,provided no cleaning operations are carriedout.
c) An indefinite period as long as the owners can demonstrate they haveordered the spare parts for repairs.
d) One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during thenext 12 months.
1486. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and aselected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to
perform a bottom wash with a verticalangle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of
themachine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and quantity
of crude oil required?
a) 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
b) 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil.
c) 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil.
d) 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.
1487. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length mustcarry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to
handle oil spillages of:
a) 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
b) 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).
c) 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
d) 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
1488. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
a) Fresh water.
b) The product being carried on that voyage.
c) Approved bio-degradable light oil
d) Sea water
DPKP
1489. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book onboard must be:
a) Not less than 3 years after the date of thelast entry.
b) Not less than 5 years after the date of thelast entry.
c) Exactly 3 years from the date of the firstentry.
d) Until the next port where it may be handedover to the Port State Authority.
1490. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed on oil tankers of:
a) 150 gross tonnes and above.
b) 400 gross tonnes and above.
c) Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers.
d) 50 gross tonnes and above.
1491. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be:
a) Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop tank on board.
b) Cleared to shore by the use of compressed air.
c) Drained directly (and only) to shore.
d) Discharged ashore or retained on board as perthe pre-discharge agreement made between theship and shore.
DPKP
1492. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast Water and
Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan onboard to achieve:
a) 95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on board at the previous port.
b) 100% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken onboardat the previous port.
c) 25% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
d) 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
1493. One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to ………….

a) To restrict the trade of foreign nations.
b) Limit the access of tankers to US waters
c) Create an international pollution regime.
d) Enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the event of a pollution incident.
1494. All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery equipment of sufficient capacity to
……………
a) Accommodate oil spilt on deck.
b) Combat a worst case spill.
c) Accommodate oil spilt in the Engine Room.
d) Clean up an accidental spill up to 500 barrels.
1495. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to …
a) Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.
b) Disperse floating oil.
c) Wash oil off the cargo deck.
d) Wash oil from the dock.
DPKP
1496. During oil spill clean-up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in………
a) Rough weather conditions in open sea.
b) Areas close to response centers.
c) Areas with waves with medium swells and significant height.
d) Calm weather conditions in coastal waters.
1497. The costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can …………

a) Greatly exceed the cost of the oil it self.
b) All of these.
c) Cost ship owners and operators their assets.
d) Lead to prosecution of those involved.

1498. The intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described as
a) An operational spill.
b) A casualty spill.
c) Willful misconduct.
d) A worst case scenario.
1499. OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from the time of ………….
a) The go ahead signal from the Coast Guard
b) Reaching the pollution scene
c) The call out
d) The occurrence of the oil spill
1500. Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used during fuel transfer or cargo oil
transfer must be secured …………..
a) With a blank flange.
b) By securing the manual values tight and padlocking the value wheels.
c) With a cement box.
d) By locking the hydraulic actuators to the respective line values.
1501. Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill should be followed ……
a) By obtaining feedback about the action taken and by repeated verbal reports are to be made if new information is
available.
b) Up in writing to facilitate clear communications
c) By the course of action and repeated verbal reports are to be made if new information is available.
d) By obtaining feedback about the action taken.
1502. Most landfills in the United States will not accept ………..
a) Residue from smelting plants.
b) Rock debris.
c) Ashes.
d) Oil soaked materials.
1503. Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the OSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which of the statements below
is true ?
a) The ships staff alone is to activate the OSRO directly within 30 minutesafter the spill after which the USCG is informed
b) The Harbour Master's office is to activate the OSRO immediately
c) The P & I club is to activate the OSRO within 24 to 48 hours
d) The shore management is able to activate the OSRO
1504. In event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier………….
a) Around cargo oil and bunkering manifolds.
b) To avoid oil spilled on the deck from escaping overboard via the fish plate openings.
c) To keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.
d) To contain small oil spills on the open deck.
DPKP
1505. Most important in monitoring the loading or bunkering rate is …………..
a) To keep a close eye on the manifold pressure.
b) To keep close radio contact with the jettybarge.
c) The remote control gauging system is to be observed.
d) That tanks should be sounded very regularly.
1506. A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has met the planning criteria of the OPA 90
a) Employing an OSRO.
b) Contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines for each area in which the ship is trading.
c) Trading only in high volume ports.
d) Having response equipment on board.
1507. Which major port is not a high volume port ?

a) Port Angeles
b) St. Croix
c) Mobile
d) New York.
1508. When reporting an oil spill to the National Response Center and a recorded message is heard and you are placed on hold,
your alternate contact should be …
a) The nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.
b) The local directory operator.
c) The National Transportation Safety Board.
d) Your head office
DPKP
1509. The penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government agency of an oil spill is………
a) Partial liability.
b) Unlimited liability.
c) A fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.
d) Ten years in prison.
1510. To ensure clear communications under OPA 90, all verbal reports should befollowed by
a) A telex, fax or cable.
b) More telephone calls.
c) The nautical translation.
d) A message in a bottle.
1511. A routine cause of operational oil spills is ………….

a) The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually remains on board.
b) Miscalculations
c) The tendency of the vessel to report a lesser amount of bunkers than actually remains on board and sole dependency on
remote gauging systems.
d) Sole dependency on remote gauging systems
1512. Basic spill prevention measurements include ……….

a) At least one person on board who can speak the language of both persons in charge on the terminal.
b) Attention to moorings.
c) Insertion of at least one bolt in every other hole of flanges.
d) A signed exchange between ship and terminal.
DPKP
94. The first phase of emergency response is …………
a) Breefing the incident commend system.
b) Containment and recovery.
c) Effective reaction to the situation on board.
d) Disposal of oily rags.
1513. A key element of the Incident Command System is ……………

a) Liaison with government agencies.
b) Reporting.
c) Containment.
d) Recovery.
1514. The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to……………

a) Petroleum oils.
b) Black oil.
c) Petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.
d) Diesel and kerosene fuels.
1515. The most important guideline for dealing with the news media is …………….
a) Not speculating about the issues.
b) Adherence to the Freedom of Information Act.
c) Refusing to comment.
d) All of these.
1516. Three functions of the Incident Command staff are……………

a) Information, safety and liaison.
b) Command, control and evacuation.
c) Incineration, recycling and disposal.
d) Fire fighting, lightering and salvage.
DPKP
1517. Who is responsible for the supervision of clean up until the Qualified Individual arrives on the scene?
a) The Environment Protection Agency.
b) The ship's staff.
c) The person in charge of oil transfer.
d) The local agent.
100. Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are …………….

a) Persistent oils.
b) Non persistent oils.
c) Vegetable oils.
d) Animal oils.
1518. The three types of boom are ……………

a) Light, medium and low.
b) Fire fighting, lightering and salvage.
c) Light, heavy and double extra strength.
d) Heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent.
1519. The primary forces that will affect the movement of oil on the water are……………
a) Sun light.
b) Vacuum trucks.
c) Currents, tides and winds.
d) Gravitational pull.
1520. According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group may involve underwater recovery ?
a) Group III
b) Group IV
c) Group I
d) Group V
DPKP
1521. OPA 90 regulations are effective up to ………..miles offshore.
a) 50
b) 10
c) 200
d) 150
1522. Under OPA 90 regulations actuation of Tier I response resources must be made………after discovery oil discharge.
a) Within one hour
b) Immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes
c) Within two hours
d) Within 45 minutes
1523. Under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will ……………

a) Burn.
b) Sink.
c) Float.
d) Disperse with wind and current.
1524. The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is ………….

a) United States legislation
b) Only enforceable in the Atlantic Ocean & US Gulf
c) An equivalent standard of Marpol 73/78
d) An international pollution law
1525. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions aresatisfied. One of these conditions for a
tanker is that……….
a) The tanker is within a Special Area.
b) The tanker is not within a Special Area
c) The tanker is within a Designated Zone
d) The tanker is not within a Designated Zone
DPKP
1526. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil
tanker is that…………
a) The tanker is more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest land.
b) The tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land.
c) The tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.
d) The tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.
1527. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions aresatisfied. One of these conditions for a
tanker is that ……….
a) The tanker is en route.
b) The tanker is in ballast condition.
c) The tanker is tank cleaning.
d) The tanker is loaded.

1528. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be nomore than ……..of the total quantity of
the particular cargo of which the residueformed part.
a) 1/25000
b) 1/100000
c) 1/15000
d) 1/50000
1529. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed ?
a) 120 litres per nautical mile
b) 100 litres per nautical mile
c) 75 litres per nautical mile
d) 30 litres per nautical mile
DPKP
1530. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most commoncases of oil pollution. Which flue of these
items are the main preventive measuresagainst tank overflow ?
a) II, IV, V, VI, VII
b) I. Ill, IV, V, VI
c) I, II, Ill, VI, VII
d) I, Ill, V, VI, VII
1531. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?

a) Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse andrefined products
b) Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil
c) Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
d) Any grade of crude oil
1532. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
a) A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm
b) A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm
c) A mixture with any oil content
d) A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
1533. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?

a) Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
b) Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals
c) Yes
d) No
DPKP
1534. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
a) A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil
b) A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C
c) Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliarymachinery
d) A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or Boilers
1535. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?

a) Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals
b) No, it is not
c) Yes, it is
d) Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
1536. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
a) A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage ofconstruction after 30 June 1976
b) A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995
c) A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979
d) All of these.
1537. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according toMarpol ?
a) The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment
b) The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant
c) The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered duringthe time of discharge by the ship
d) The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600
DPKP
1538. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?
a) An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions arerequired

b) A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions and in view of traffic special prevention is
required
c) An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged atanytime
d) A sea area where in view of its particular no overboard discharged of any oily mixtures
1539. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?

a) A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils
b) The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank
c) Any tank where slops or sludges are collected
d) A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings or other oily mixtures
1540. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol ?
a) Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traceson the shore lines.
b) Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon thesurface of the water or emulsion beneath the
water surface.
c) Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces onadjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the
sea.
d) If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day willnot produce visible traces of oil on the water
surface nor emulsion below
DPKP
1541. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?
a) The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines bythe clean ballast pump
b) Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for whichcargo pumps cannot be used
c) The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump
d) The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from cargo or fuel oil system and permanently
allocated to ballast
1542. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date units building contract would
read……………
a) After 1st January 1981.
b) After 31st of December 1980.
c) After 1st June 1982.
d) After 1st June 1979.
1543. Every oil tanker of ….. Tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of tonsgross tonnage and above shall be subject
to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
a) 500,1000
b) 400, 700
c) 150, 400
d) 250, 500
1544. The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to ensure compliance with the applicable
regulations shall include……
a) A complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks.
b) A complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, includingoil-discharging monitoring system, oil
tittering and separating systems.
c) A complete survey of all piping.
d) A complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systemsarrangements and materials in so far as the ship is
covered by this Annex.
DPKP
1545. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not to
exceed…………..
a) Two and a half years.
b) Three years.
c) Two years.
d) Five years.
1546. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate.
This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this survey called ?
a) The Annual survey
b) The Special survey
c) The Intermediate survey
d) The Midterm survey

1547. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its equipment remain in all respects satisfactory
for service. What are these inspections called ?
a) Annual Inspections
b) Unscheduled inspections
c) Obligatory inspections
d) Special surveys
1548. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading and bunkering. Which one of these is not
true ?
a) III - is not true
b) II - is not true
c) V - is not true
d) I- is not true
DPKP
1549. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it effect unscheduled Inspections carried out
according to Marpol ?
a) The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
b) Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required
c) Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years
d) Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year periode
1550. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?

a) Approved ship's officers
b) Port-State Control Inspectors
c) Coast Guard Inspectors
d) Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisationsrecognisedbyAdministrations
1551. Who may carry out marpol inspections ?

a) Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port inwhich the ship is located, generally referred
to as Port State Inspectors.
b) All of these.
c) Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.
d) Coast Guard officers.
1552. What is the meaning of a ―harmful substance" under Marpol ?

a) Petroleum products and petrochemicals
b) Hydrocarbons in any form
c) Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
d) Oils and fuels
DPKP
1553. These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines toinspectors and surveyors. Which item does
not belong ?
a) Item VII - does not belong
b) Item VI - does not belong
c) Item II - does not belong
d) Item V - does not belong
1554. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol ?
a) Dumping or disposal from the ship
b) Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship
c) Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship
d) Any release how ever caused
1555. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ?

a) The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances
b) The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
c) The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances
d) The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
1556. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be…..
a) Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs.
b) Imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation occurs.
c) Imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.
d) In all cases most severe.
1557. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol occurs ?
a) A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with Marpol Protocol 1.
b) A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration.
c) You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners ormanagers.
d) You are to note this incident in the Log Book.
1558. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as…
a) A product / chemical carrier
b) A crude oil I product carrier
c) A product carrier
d) A crude oil tanker
1559. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy therequirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with
Protective location as well as COWmay be designated as
a) Product carrier
b) Crude oil / product carrier
c) Crude oil tanker
d) Petrochemical / product carrier
1560. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and PL,but not fitted with COW should be
designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate.
a) Crude oil 1 product carrier
b) Crude oil tanker
c) Product carrier
d) Petrochemical tanker
DPKP
1561. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt NOTfitted with SBT and PL should be
designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate.
a) Crude oil tanker
b) Crude oil / product carrier
c) Petrochemical tanker
d) Product carrier
1562. Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT maybe designed as a …………….on the IOPP
certificate.
a) Crude oil /product carrier
b) Product oil carrier
c) Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
d) Crude oil tanker
1563. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on theIOPP certificate ?
a) As a product carrier
b) As a crude oil tanker
c) As a crude oil / product carrier
d) As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker
1564. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements ofSBT, what should their designation be on
the IOPP certificate ?
a) Product carrier
b) Crude oil tanker
c) Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
d) Crude oil / product carrier
DPKP
1565. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW system,what should their designation be on the
IOPP certificate ?
a) Product carrier
b) Crude Oil / product carrier
c) Crude oil tanker
d) Crude oil / petrochemical tanker
1566. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibitedexcept when, amongst other
requirements, which of the following equipment isfitted ?
a) An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
b) Interface oily water detector
c) A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system
d) A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system
1567. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ?

a) Any one of these
b) If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction
c) If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment orarrangements without sanction
d) If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction without Sanction
1568. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings orarrangements are carried out without sanction the
IOPP certificate ceases to be valid.
What is the exception?
a) Improvement in ships construction
b) The direct replacement of equipment and fittings
c) Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does notdeviate from Marpol requirements
d) Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is approved by theAdministration
DPKP
1569. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out asspecified ?
a) The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is carriedout, the stringency will depend on the
duration of the elapsed time
b) The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding tothe requisite survey is to be carried out .
c) The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3 monthsoverdue
d) The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an unscheduled inspectionis to be carried out by the Port State inspection
of the country of call.
1570. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker inorder to be allowed to discharge oily
mixtures into the sea ?
a) Segregated ballast tanks
b) 15 ppm oil filtering equipment
c) Double hulls
d) A slop tank arrangement
1571. A ship other than tanker of 3000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannotdischarge oily mixtures from machinery
spaces, unless certain conditions aresatisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?
a) II, IV, VIII
b) II, V, VII
c) II, III, VI
d) I, IV, VI
DPKP
1572. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when theship is not in a special area ?
a) 100 ppm
b) 50 ppm
c) Less than 15 ppm
d) 15 ppm
1573. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oilymixtures prior to discharge these into the
sea ?
a) Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm
b) Not allowed at all
c) Oil dispersants are allowed
d) Dillutants are allowed
1574. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to issuesof safety at sea ?
a) They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to liftsame in case of emergencies.
b) They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing thesafety of a ship or saving life at sea.
c) They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing oil inthe water .
d) They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.
1575. The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations willnot apply if the discharge is the result
of damage arising from which items in this list?
a) I, IV
b) IV, V
c) II, V
d) III, VI
DPKP
1576. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do notapply if the discharge is the result of
damage to the ship or its equipment. What isthe exception ?
a) Damage to ship and equipment due operational error
b) Crew negligence
c) Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage couldprobably result
d) Collision or groundings
1577. It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration,

(eg. Oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into
the sea. Under which of these conditions ?
a) II IV V
b) I, II, V
c) I, III
d) III,IV
1578. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast
tanks shall be such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet
which of these requirements ?
a) I, Ill, IV, VI
b) I, II, IV, V
c) I, II, IV. VII
d) I, IV, V, VII
1579. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo
tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise ?
a) IV, V
b) II, V
c) III, V
d) II, V
DPKP
1580. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers,which tanks may be included ?
a) Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks
b) Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.
c) Segregated ballast tanks only
d) Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks
1581. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdamsallowed to be included in the total capacity
determination of Cars for tankers ?
a) Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured
b) Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast watersystem
c) Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board
d) Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted.
1582. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating withCOW is to change its designation to
product carrier and vice versa, which provisionswill apply ?
a) Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey isrequired prior switching trades. Manual for
both procedures required.
b) The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade
c) Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in thecrude oil trd.
d) The COW system needs to be blanked.
1583. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified toimmobilise the ship, what are the requirements
for SOT, COT, PL and COW ?
a) The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply
b) The requirements for SBT do not apply
c) The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
d) The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
DPKP
1584. Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are therequirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ?
a) The requirement for SET does not apply
b) The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply
c) The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply
d) The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply.
1585. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballastshall be that it is e quipped with…….
a) A crude oil washing system.
b) Two separate slop tanks.
c) Segregated ballast tanks and PL.
d) An oil content meter.
1586. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if thetanker is engaged in specific trades
provided reception facilities are existing in ports.
What document is to be endorsed ?
a) The oil record book
b) The bill of lading
c) The charter party
d) The ship's IOPP certificate
1587. Which of the following is NOT classed as pollution prevention equipment ?

a) Scupper covers.
b) Sawdust/rubber buckets and shovels.
c) Empty drums and absorbent pads.
d) Air or electric portable pumps.
DPKP
1588. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trimrequirements without the use of ballast water,
may be considered to comply withSBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ?
a) II, IV V
b) I, II, VI
c) II, V, VI
d) III, IV VI
1589. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location ofSegregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ?
a) To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of groundingor collision
b) To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers
c) To reduce the bending moments on tankers
d) To reduce the shear forces on tankers
1590. Where is disposal of wooden dunnage allowed ?

a) Outside 25 miles offshore.
b) Only outside special areas.
c) It is never allowed.
d) Outside 12 miles offshore.
1591. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oiltank. What is the exception ?
a) Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, forexample: tugs, fishing boats
b) For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted andweather conditions are deteriorating
c) If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled withballast if stability requires this
d) In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships
DPKP
1592. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tankwashings, oil and dirty ballast
residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than% of the tank capacity.
a) 2.5
b) 5
c) 3
d) 1
1593. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ?

a) Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residueand tank washings from the cargo tanks.
b) Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metres.
c) Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities.
d) Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separationfilter.
1594. At least two slop tanks are required for……..

a) New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above.
b) New oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.
c) New and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt.
d) New oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.
1595. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead topollution are conducted on board of your ship
and ask yourself 3 questions. Whatare these questions ?
a) I, III, V
b) I, II, III
c) II, IV, VI
d) I, II, V
DPKP
1596. How can a ship dispose of plastic at sea ?
a) Anywhere outside 3 mite limit.
b) Outside special areas.
c) 1isposal of plastic is not allowed anywhere at sea.
d) Outside 25 miles offshore.
1597. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is requiredon board. This manual must mention
all operations and ……..
a) Instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged.
b) Shall be approved by the Administration.
c) All automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by theAdministration.
d) Shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions toensure that no oil can be discharged except in
compliance with regulations.
1598. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carryballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be
fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment forengine bilge discharge.
a) 100 ppm
b) 15 ppm
c) 30 ppm
d) 150 ppm
1599. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or mayit be part of the ship's official Log
Book ?
a) It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but mustcontain the required information.
b) It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.
c) It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but mustcontain all required information.
d) It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.
DPKP
1600. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed dischargein order to save life), a statement shall
be made in the oil record book explainingwhat ?
a) The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged
b) The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge
c) The report of the accident indicating precautions
d) The amount discharged and the reasons for it
1601. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record bookwithout delay and…..…..
a) The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and becountersigned by the Master.
b) The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by theMaster.
c) When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or incharge during the time of the operation.
d) Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and eachcompleted page will be signed by the
Master.
1602. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ?

a) A Notary Public
b) The Master
c) The Officers of the Flag State
d) Port Authorities
1603. Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshoreplatforms for which type or types is
Marpol73.(03 applicable ?
a) Type, I, Ill and IV
b) Type I only
c) Type IV only
d) Type I and Type IV534
DPKP
1604. What can be a major cause of pollution from a dry cargo ship without the vigilanceof the entire crew ?
a) Improper discharge from bilges and engine room.
b) Improper disposal of garbage.
c) Leaking hydraulic oil on deck.
d) Careless bunkering.
1605. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ?

a) Roofers Flux
b) Blending Stocks
c) Straight run residue
d) Solvent
1606. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of MarpolAnnex I ?
a) Clarified
b) Road Oil
c) Automotive
d) Spindle oil
1607. The following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I ofMarpol Annex I?
a) Reformates
b) Polymer fuel
c) Flashed feed stock
d) Alkylates fuel535
DPKP
1608. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I ofmarpolannexi?
a) Fuel oil No 1 D
b) Fuel oil No 1
c) Fuel oil No 4
d) Fuel oil No 2
1609. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for OilResidues (Sludges). What information is
recorded in this chapter ?
a) The location and capacity of the sludge tanks
b) The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue inaddition to the provision of sludge tanks
c) The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to opendeck sludge connection
d) The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements
1610. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk ofa capacity of …….or more, the
regulations of Annex I for oil tankers applies.
a) 100 T
b) 400 T
c) 500 cubic metres
d) 200 cubic metres
1611. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with pollutioncaused by ……..
a) I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV= Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution.
b) I = Garbage, II = Air pollution, Ill = Sewage, IV = Harmfulpackaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil.
c) I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmfulpackaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage.
d) I= Oil, II = Sewage, Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V= Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.
1612. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with ……

a) The construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operationalprocedures of petroleum tankers
b) The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfordischarge of cargo residues
c) The labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages
d) The handling and discharge of garbage
1613. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operationsconcerning processing and treatment of
sewage ?
a) Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being
b) It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant mustbe installed on board
c) Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant ison board
d) The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countrieshave adapted them and have stingent
regulations
1614. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations ?
a) Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be compliedwith
b) Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with
c) They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention
d) National regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must becomplied with537
DPKP
1615. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside theSpecial Areas. Which is the exception ?
a) Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 milesoffshore
b) Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore
c) Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond 12miles offshore
d) Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore
1616. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3miles from the nearest land and in all
inland waters……….
a) You cannot throw plastics overboard.
b) You cannot throw anything overboard.
c) You cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that floatoverboard.
d) You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboardunless ground to less than 25 mm.
1617. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining andpacking materials that float …….
a) Maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore.
b) May not be thrown overboard at anytime.
c) May be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore.
d) May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
1618. Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following precautions wouldyou say is most important?
a) Plug scuppers.
b) Exhibit International Code B flag and red light.
c) Check over-side for pollution.
d) Smoking and naked light restrictions and notices
1619. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags,metal , glass and food may be thrown
overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore,provided it is ground to less than ………in size.
a) 5mm
b) 10mm
c) 30 mm
d) 25 mm
1620. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the typeof garbage which can be thrown
overboard at a given distance offshore. Is thisuniversally accepted ?
a) Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions
b) Yes, accepted by all states and regions
c) Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage
d) Yes, except dunnage
1621. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ?

a) Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts areneeded to reduce them
b) Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard
c) Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools
d) Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which thenew crew member must become familiar
1622. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crewmember know clearly what is expected of
him ?
a) By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the weakspots which may cause pollution
b) By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on thepersonal responsibilities and duties of the
trainee539
DPKP
1623. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpolconcerning pollution of the seas ?
1624. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers aswell as cargo)206. For on board pollution prevention
training to work, it is important that …..
a) A quite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crewmember for the first week on board
b) The Master puts up a rigid discipline.
c) The trainees have an adequate background in pollution control
d) It is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations
1625. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead topollution are conducted on board of your ship
and ask yourself 3 questions. Whatare these questions ?
a) I, III, V
b) I, II, III
c) II, IV, VI
d) I, II, V
1626. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships maylead to a pollution incident ?
b) I, II, Ill, IV, VI
c) I, III, V, VII, VIII
d) II, IV, V, VII, VIII540
DPKP
1627. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and transferprocedures should be available on
board in a place where they can be easily seenand used. Where on board?
a) Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room ORnear the fuel oil transfer pumps
b) Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds
c) Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkersemergency shut off valves OR in the cargo —
control room
d) Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in theemergency headquarters.
1628. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankersbecause oil may backflow into the sea via
the sea chests. In order to prevent this anotice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ?
a) FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST
b) START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION
c) ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP
d) START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED
1629. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided ifprompt action and careful preparation for
containment is carried out. Which three ofthese items are vital ?
a) I, II, IV
b) I, III, IV
c) I, III, V
d) II, IV, V541
DPKP
1630. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspectedto make sure that……..
a) The fastenings are not worn.
b) The coating is intact.
c) They have not developed cracks or holes.
d) They are correctly fitting.
1631. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most commoncases of oil pollution. Which flue of these
items are the main preventive measuresagainst tank overflow ?
b) I. Ill, IV, V, VI
c) I, II, Ill, VI, VII
d) I, Ill, V, VI, VII
1632. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detainedbecause ……..No electrical drawing of
the oily bilge separator alarm was posted., No instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted,
No pollution placards were posted, No up to date deck port log was kept.
A master or any other person in authority on board treating a person in an impropermanner or fails to prevent his being so
treated by other persons onboard shall beliable to:
a) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
b) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 9 months.
c) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
d) Fines.542
DPKP
1633. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall beliable to:
a) Fines or in especially aggravatingcircumstances to imprisonment for aterm not exceeding three months.
b) Fines.
c) Fines or in especially aggravatingcircumstances to imprisonment for aterm not exceeding 6 months.
d) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
1634. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall beliable to fines or imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 1 year according to:
a) The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section65..
b) The Maritime Act
c) The Public Administration Act
d) The International Maritime Organization's
e) Act of Maritime Activities
1635. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leavesthe ship in distress or other danger while
the master still on board shall be liable to
a) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
b) Fines.
c) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
d) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
1636. Any shipmaster who in distress or other danger abandons the ship without thisbeing necessary shall be liable to:
a) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year.
b) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.
c) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
d) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years.543
DPKP
1637. Any shipmaster who refuses to provide any person carried on the ship withanything which he is entitled to receive in such
capacity, or who permits suchrefusal, shall be liable to:
a) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceedingyear if there are especially aggravating
circumstances.
b) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceedingmonths if there are especially aggravating
circumstances.
c) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
d) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months, but not exceedingyears if there are especially aggravating
circumstances.
1638. Anyone who without valid reason places, removes, changes or conceals nationalitymarks or registration marks of a
registered ship shall be liable to:
a) Fines.
b) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
c) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
d) Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months.
1639. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?

a) For at least two years
b) As long as the master or owner finds it necessary
c) It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at firstpracticable occasion
d) For at least five years.
1640. How can the master ensure obedience?

a) He shall ensure obedience by the use offorce if he finds it necessary, but not useharsher means than the circumstances
makenecessary.
b) He has the power of denying the seafarertheir democratic right if they refuse to obeyorders given.
c) By giving clear orders and referring to the necessity of having the workcarried out as ordered.
d) Only by giving clear orders in an understandable language. It is not allowedto use any means which may result in
personal injuries.
1641. If the master goes ashore, he is obliged to inform:

a) The deck officer of the highest rank present
b) Ship's agent
c) Chief Engineer Officer
d) The port authority
1642. What are the master's duties if punishable acts are committed on board?
a) If at sea, the master shall immediately undertake an investigation, secureevidence and take statements, inform
Norwegian Consulate/MaritimeDirectorate
b) The company shall be informed and shall take over the case.
c) Alleged suspects should be sent home at the first opportunity.
d) The least possible fuss should be made to ease over the situation.
1643. Who is responsible for ensuring that ratings forming part of a watch and personnelassisting or performing cargo
operations on tankers are properly qualified?
a) It is incumbent on the shipowners and the master to ensure that therequirements are complied with and documented.
b) The manning agent is responsible for proper documentation, but the mastermust confirm in writing that the seafarer is
able to carry out his duties.
c) The national authorities of seafarers are responsible for issuing properdocumentation after having controlled that the
personnel is adequatelyqualified.
d) The Administration of the flag state is responsible for controlling anddocumenting the qualifications of all seafarers
employed on board.545
DPKP
1644. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?
a) The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning ofthe ship.
b) NMD is responsible for the ship being at all times adequately manned inaccordance with Norwegian acts and
regulations.
c) The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number andcomposition of the crew is posted in the ship
and has the sole responsibilityfor the ship being adequately manned.
d) The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequatelyqualified seafarers.
1645. Are the seafarers entitled to free boat service to exercise their right to go ashore?
a) Where possible the master shall provide such service.
b) Cost and other circumstances may be taken intoconsideration. Yes, but only if it is combined with theagent's use of the
same boat.
c) Yes, but only if it is combined with the agent's use ofthe same boat.
d) No, but he should assist the seafarers in calling a boat.
e) No, boatservice to shore is up to the seafarers to acquire.
1646. Can any ground be given for dismissing a seafarer?

a) No, only those listed in the Seamen's Act as dereliction of duty.
b) Yes, if the master considers the reason to be proper
c) Yes, if the seafarer is unagreeable to the master
d) Yes, if the master is asked to do so by members of the crew
1647. Do regulations on the scope of the Seamen's Act apply:

a) To both passengers and cargo ships? Yes.
b) To ships and mobile oil drilling offfshore units? Yes.
c) To cargo ships only? Yes.
d) To Norwegian and foreign ships operating solely in Norwegian waters?Yes.546
DPKP
1648. Does the employer have to give a reason for a notice of termination?
a) Yes, if the seafrers demands it
b) Yes, if grounded on factors relating to the seafarer and the seafarer demandsit
c) Yes, if the notice of termination is grounded on factors relating to theowners
d) The circumstances shall only be disclosed to the manning agent
1649. Does the seafarer have a right to leave service on board for special reasons?
a) Yes, if the ship, for example, is not in a seaworthy condition for the voyageand the master fails to take steps to remedy
the defects
b) Yes, provided the authorities of the port do not deny him entry into thecountry
c) Yes, if the ship has been transferred to another Norwegian owner
d) No, unless he is taken seriously ill
1650. For how long shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be keptafter their completion?
a) For minimum 3 years
b) For as long as the seafarer is in service
c) For at least 5 years
d) Until the settlement of wages has been made
1651. How shall accidents and health hazards be prevented?

a) By all the other mentioned alternatives.
b) By ensuring that the work is properly organised and executed and thatappropriate accidental prevention equipment is
available and used.
c) By ensuring that the seafarer is properly qualified and informed of thehazards inherent to the work.
d) By having elected or appointed protection supervisors and establishing aWorking Environment Committee as
prescribed.547
DPKP
1652. Is it the duty of the Master to see to it that legislation and CWA/CBA are availableto seafarers on board?
a) The seafarers shall have available for their use the Seamen's and NIS-actswith regulations, together with all relevant
CWA's/CBA's.
b) It is sufficient that the master has the necessary legislation on board for hisuse. He can if necessary explain this to the
seafarers.
c) The seafarers have their contracts and that is sufficient.
d) If the seafarer have use for this, they may write to the manning agent forinformation.
1653. Is the crew entitled to compensation if the master has to reduce the diet during avoyage?
a) Yes
b) Yes, but only if the voyage has been longer then calculated
c) Not if the crew has eaten more than could be expected
d) No, the saving should be used to buy new supplies.
1654. Is there any particular procedure to be followed when dismissing a seafarer?

a) A hearing shall be held before a committee on board.
b) His wages shall be settled and he shall sign the settlement.
c) The agent and shipping company should be informed.
d) The manning agent ordered to send a new man onboard.
1655. On what kind of document shall working hours on board ships be kept?
a) On a time sheet arranged by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate
b) On a settlement wages form
c) In an approved logbook
d) There is no obligation to keep a journal
1656. Shall the seafarer receive a statement showing the calculation of his wages?
a) Yes, showing how it has been calculated and with possible deductions.
b) Yes, but only at the request of the seafarer.
c) Only for payments for overtime.
d) He shall be told and make a note himself.548
DPKP
1657. The restriction of overtime work is that the person shall not be required, undernormal circumstances, to work more than:
a) 14 hours per day
b) 12 hours per day
c) 16 hours per day
d) 10 hours per day
1658. What are the average total working hours per week that must be exceeded over aperiod of at most one year on board NIS
ships?
a) 56 hors
b) 63 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 40 hours
1659. What are the duties of a master if a seafarer gets ill at sea?
a) All the other mentioned alternatives according to the situation
b) Put him to bed and await the situation
c) After observation and checking the medical books, check the medicine chestto find suitable medication
d) Seek medical advice over radio (Radio Medico/Radio Medical).
1660. What are the duties of a master if he has to leave a sick or injured seafarer behind ina foreign port?
a) Notify nearest Norwegian Consulate
b) Inform the manning agent
c) Settle the bills. Say goodbye and send the seafarer flowers or a get-well card
d) Inform the seafarer next to him of his present address.
1661. What are the duties of the master if a seafarer dies in service on board?
a) The master shall notify next of kin/ Norwegian Consulate - arrange forburial/ repatriation of coffin/ashes - and
maritime inquiry
b) The master shall notify next of kin, have them make necessary arrangements
c) The master shall notify the consul of the seafarer's home country
d) The master may leave the case to an undertaker549
DPKP
1662. What are the duties of the master regarding a sick or injured seafarer?
a) He shall arrange for proper care, including medical care
b) He shall notify the seafarer's next of kin and await further orders
c) He shall immediately notify the manning agent and request guarantee forpayment in case of hospitalization
d) He shall arrange for proper care within what he may find to be reasonableexpenses.
1663. What is the difference between the Safety Representative and the WorkingEnvironment Committee's area of activity?
a) The Safety Representative's field is the work situation, the committee‘s thetotal environment, also spare time
b) The Safety Representative's duties relate to the ratings, the committee‘s toall seafarers
c) The committee is supervised by the protection supervisor
d) No difference
1664. What is the main rules as to period of notice of termination as per the Seamen'sAct?
a) One month
b) Three months for any employee
c) 14 days
d) 7 days
1665. Which mandatory handbooks for medical treatment shall be carried on board?
a) One control book for special medicines, one approved by Norwegianauthorities medical book ("International Medical
Guide for ships") and threepamphlets regarding first aid.
b) None. There are no mandatory requirements.
c) The first aid guide: Resuscitation on board.
d) An approved medical book550

DPKP
1666. Which of the below word(s) is defined as follows: "Service on board a ship whichgives the knowledge, insight and skills
required for the issue of a certificate or otherdocument referred to in these regulations"
a) Seagoing service
b) On-board training
c) Serving
d) Length of service.
1667. Which rights does a seafarer who is unfit for work normally have?
a) Care, wages, free passage home
b) Care
c) A compensation equal to wages for six months
d) Free passage home.
1668. Who is responsible for the storage and use of substances injurious to health onboard?
a) The shipping company and the master
b) The protection supervisor
c) The seafarer
d) The shipping company's inspector
1669. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies?

a) A pharmacy authorised or accepted by the Norwegian Board of Health or, ifno such pharnacy is available, the master
and a doctor approved by aNorwegian Consulate shall perform inspection once every 12 months.
b) The master shall ensure, at regular intervals, that the medical supplies aresufficient taking due respect to the areas in
which the ship is operating.
c) The master, or an officer authorised by him, shall check all medicalequipment at least twice a year and order
supplements to the stock from anapproved pharmacy.
d) The inspection shall be undertaken by a Norwegian pharmacy or by aperson holding a degree in pharmacy and
approved by the NorwegianMaritime Directorate.551
DPKP
1670. A rating has approved emergency preparedness training, a certificate forwatchkeeping in the deck department and 3 years
of service time on deck andnecessary knowledge of English. What post is a seafarer, with these requiredqualifications, qualified
for on a Norwegian cargo vessel?
a) As an able seaman
b) As an ordinary seaman
c) As a greaser
d) As a motorman
1671. A seaman's right to go ashore on a day when shops and offices are open is:
a) At least once a month if circumstances permit it
b) Whenever he feels like it
c) To the masters discretion
d) The first call after a seavoyage of 7 days or more
1672. An invalidated vessel's certificate shall be:

a) Returned to the Ship Control via a Norwegian Consulate
b) Kept on board for at least three years
c) Destructed by the master
d) Forwarded to NIS head office in Bergen, Norway
1673. For how long shall a ship's log-book be kept on board?

a) For at least three years
b) As long as the master or owner finds it necessary
c) It shall be delivered to a Norwegian Consulate at first practicable occasion
d) For at least five years.
1674. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate becarried out?
a) Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month.
b) Every year
c) Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually.
d) Every second year552
DPKP
1675. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the:
a) Load line certificate
b) Ship's safety certificate
c) Safety construction certificate

d) Ship's trading certificate.
1676. The restriction of overtime work is that no person shall be required, under normalircumstances, to work more than:
a) 14 hours a day
b) 12 hours a day
c) 16 hours a day
d) 10 hours a day.
1677. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English apply?

a) Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship aspart of the ship's complement with
designated safety or pollution duties
b) Persons for whom a certificate of competency is not required, only
c) Persons taking part in a navigational watch
d) The deck officers
1678. What are the contents of the book "Excerpts from the Norwegian Ship ControlLegislation" ?
a) A compilation of Norwegian laws and regulations concerning the safety ofships and crew.
b) Internationally adopted conventions for safety at sea and adequate manningof ships.
c) The International Classification societies instructions
d) The SOLAS convention.
1679. What is the ISM Code?

a) The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe management andoperation of ships and for pollution
prevention.
b) The ISM Code is an International standard for the maintenance of ships andmarine equipment.553
c) The ISM Code is a standard that is to ensure that rules and regulations of theflag state are complied with in its
territorial waters.
d) The ISM Code is an International maritime dangerous goods code.
1680. What is the purpose of the unscheduled inspections on board ships?

a) To determine wether the ship is seaworthy
b) To issue a certificate of seaworthiness
c) To issue a trading permit
d) Mainly to determine whether the manning regulations have been adhered to
1681. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specificdutys and responsibilities related to
cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, aliquefied tanker?
a) A tankerman certificate
b) A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months
c) Documentation of the prescribed courses
d) Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months.
1682. Where do you find regulations concerning washing of crockery and cutlery?
a) The regulations are a part of the Norwegian Ship Control Legislationregulations, concerning production and serving of
foodstuffs.
b) There are no official regulations, but it is incumbent on the shippingcompany to establish appropriate guidelines.
c) The regulations are obligatory to land based public places of refreshmentonly, but it is strongly recommended that
these regulations should beadhered to on ships.
d) There are no such regulations for Norwegian ships.
1683. Who has the overall responsibility for the general supervision of ships and formatters governing the seaworthiness of
ships?
a) The Norwegian Maritime Directorate
b) The maritime investigators
c) The recognized classification societies
d) The shipowners554
DPKP
1684. Who is responsible for keeping documentation of the qualifications required forpersonnel on board?
a) The ship's master
b) The Norwegian Maritime Directorate.
c) The ship's manning agent.
d) The ship owner.
1685. Who shall check the ship's medical supplies if the ship is in a foreign port, forexample outside Europe?
a) A pharmacy authorised to do so or if no such pharmacy is available, themaster and an approved seamen's doctor
b) Any doctor
c) The protection supervisor
a) A nurse from an approved seamen's hospital
1686. As per the legislation in question, a copy of the provisions, as you know, shallgenerally speaking be accessible to the crew.
Does this apply as well as to acollective wage agreement?
a) Yes, if an employment agreement refers to thecollective wage agreement
b) Yes, provided ther collective wage agreementapplies to a category of persons
c) No
d) The NIS Act does not regulate this.
1687. At what number of crew members is it mandatory to have an Working EnvironmentCommittee on board?
a) Minimum eight crew members.
b) Minimum twelve crew members.
c) Minimum four crew members.
d) Not mandatory.555
DPKP
1688. How many Working Environmental committee members should be elected on aship with a crew of 13 members?
a) 1 member
b) 2 members.
c) 5 members.
d) 0 members.
1689. To which Act(s) do(es) the special provisions relating to the seafarers in the Actchiefly relate?
a) The Act relating to hours of work and the Seamen's Act
b) The Seamen's Act and the Seaworthiness Act
c) The Seaworthiness Act
d) The Certification Act.
1690. Which provisions concerning holidays must the master ensure that is carriedonboard?
a) The Act relating to holydays and Regulations relating to holydays foremployees on ships.
b) The Act relating to holydays and the NIS Act.
c) The Act relating to holydays and the Seamen's Act.
d) The Regulations relating to holydays for employees on ships and therelevant wages agreement only.
1691. Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board?

a) Both master and shipping company.
b) Shipping company.
c) Master.
d) Government.556
DPKP
1692. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken intoaccount in ship operation through written
procedures. These requirements includethe following information: …………….
a) All of these.
b) The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations andprocedures for internal audits and management
review.
c) The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between andamongst shore and shipboard personnel.
d) The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with theprovisions of the Code.
1693. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop,implement and maintain a system which
includes the following :……………..
a) Maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required Lettersof Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship.
b) Contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control ofcountries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State
authorities.
c) A safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions andprocedures to ensure safe operations and protection of
the environment.
d) Safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chiefengineers 3) office staff Home telephone
numbers.
1694. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the objectivesof the ISM code willbe achieved.
a) Circulation of informative guidelines
b) Company regulations
c) A safety and environmental policy
d) Company newsletters557
DPKP
1695. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and EnvironmentalPolicy is …………….
a) Known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers.
b) Known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew.

c) Known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based aswell as shore based.
d) Known by all ships officers.
1696. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be …………..standardsrequired by the ismcode ?
a) Set above
b) Asubstrtute for
c) Set below
d) Deviating from.
1697. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set abovethe standards of the ISM code, should
be …………..
a) Totally disregarded since not enforceable.
b) Erased as far as excessive standards are concerned.
c) Encouraged and supported.
d) Discouraged.
1698. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company'swhich forms an integral part of the Safety
Management System ?
a) Legal policy objectives
b) Ethics and environment objectives
c) Safety management objectives
d) Trading policy objectives558
DPKP
1699. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the companywho ………..the ship.
a) Has chartered
b) Owns
c) Has mortgaged
d) Has assumed responsibility for the operation of
1700. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific shiprelated activities such as manning, technical
support or maintenance ?
a) Yes, it is allowed
b) No, it is not longer allowed
c) Yes, only for manning
d) Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance
1701. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning,technical support or maintenance, how many
Documents of Compliance are to beissued ?
a) Only one DOC can be issued to the Company
b) One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the themanning company only
c) One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor
d) One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for themaintenance as well as for the technical support
company, not for manning.
1702. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which issubcontracted……..
a) Remains the responsibility of the Company
b) Becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor
c) Becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor
d) Is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand559
DPKP
1703. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditormust be satisfied that the company is in
control of ……………
a) The subcontractors' personnel and resources.
b) All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have beensubcontracted.
c) The subcontractors' insurance system.
d) The financial portfolio of the subcontractors.
1704. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authorityand interrelation of all personnel who
manage, perform and verify work relating toand affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ?
a) By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and OfficersMess room.
b) By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships
c) By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety andpollution prevention activities for each
functional area
d) By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibilityand command flow chart.
1705. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person inorder to carry out his functions ?
a) All of these.
b) Freedom to travel worldwide at will
c) An executive salary and a company car
d) Adequate resources and shore based support.
1706. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person shouldinclude………….
a) Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation ofeach ship
b) Having overall control over all company departmental heads
c) Being a member of the Board of the Company
d) Final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities560
DPKP
1707. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ?
a) A master certificate
b) Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification andcontrol of safety and pollution prevention
requirements of the ISM code
c) Twenty years seagoing experience
d) A university degree.
1708. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ?

a) Every 2 to 3 months
b) May be necessary
c) Is not required at all
d) Frequent lengthy stays on board are required
1709. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety andEnvironmental Policy on board ?
a) The senior Officer's
b) The Designated Person's
c) The Master's
d) The entire crew's.
1710. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectivelyimplemented the Safety and Environmental
Protection policy as defined by theCompany ?
a) By the state of cleanliness on board
b) By judging the moral of the officers and crew on board
c) Through interviewing officers and crew
d) By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily waterseparator561
DPKP
1711. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmentalpolicy on board ?
a) The Master
b) The Company's shore based and shipboard management
c) All ships officers
d) The senior officers.
1712. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe theSafety and Environmental protection policy ?
a) Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will haveto pay their own air fare if they do not
observe the policy
b) Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from theimplementation as well as encouraging
reception of ownership
c) Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboardpersonnel
d) Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and theheavy fines to be paid for Pollution.
1713. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from theSEP policy and how could their perception
of ownership be encouraged ?
a) Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged toparticipate in the continuous development of
the objectives of the SEP
b) By distribution of Nature, Health &Wealth or the like magazines and byasking them to open a savings account
c) By encouraging then to join Green Peace or any other environmental group
d) By the Company's monthly newsletter562
DPKP
1714. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmentalpolicy and should issue appropriate
orders and instructions in a clear and simplemanner. How is this to be done ?
a) By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples
b) Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatheringsto officers and crew
c) By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice
d) By calling the ship's compliment together and give short orders in clearEnglish.

1715. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (proceduresand instructions) regarding the Safety
Management System are observed. Who willactually verify this on board ?
a) The Designated Person
b) The Master
c) The Master and Officers
d) The Chief Engineer.
1716. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures andinstructions) regarding the Safety
Management System are observed ?
a) By computerizing all specified requirements and have an officer assigned asinput controller
b) By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their ownSafety Work Book
c) By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities of crew members
d) By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master.
1717. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System andreporting its deficiencies to ………..
a) The shore based management
b) The classification society
c) The Flag state authorities
d) The Port state control of the next port of call563
DPKP
301. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should includeany deficiencies and may include ……
a) A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by theCompany.
b) A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are tobe promoted
c) Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving theSMS.
d) The officer's and crew's appraisal reports.
1718. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety,finds a deficiency in the Safety Management
system relevant to the ships operationhe should …………
a) Inform the P & I club.
b) Make note in the log book of this deficiency.
c) Correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the officiallog book.
d) Inform the Company.
1719. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to theCompany ?
a) Prior to change of command
b) The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
c) Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board
d) Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year.
1720. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system ?
a) The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge ofimplementing the SMS
b) The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to berepeated in the SMS
c) The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of thevessel
d) The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the shipcontains a clear statement emphasizing the
Master's authority
1721. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies …………….
a) In case of oil spill clean-ups
b) In normal circumstances
c) In both normal and extreme circumstances
d) In emergency and extreme circumstances
1722. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master hasoverriding responsibility and authority as
required …………..
a) By the Company's Main Policy Objective
b) By the SOLAS Convention
c) By the International Association of Classification Societies
d) By the Shipowners Trust Fund
1723. The Company must be sure that the Master is …………….

a) A safety and environmental protection licensed person.
b) A person in good standing with the P & I club association.
c) Properly qualified for command.
d) Not blacklisted by the U.S. Coast Guard or any other Port state control.
1724. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by …………..

a) Interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmentalawareness.
b) Drug and alcohol test.
c) Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with theSTCW convention.
d) Medical examination.565
DPKP
1725. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relatingto safety and environmental
protection by ……………..
a) Having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets
b) Including such requirements in operating instructions.
c) Reminding him time to time.
d) Having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.
1726. To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of them bythe Safety Management System
………..should be described.
a) The vessel's safety equipment
b) Safety and environmental protection hazards
c) Job responsibilities
d) The ship's voyage and cargo details.
1727. Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their dutiessafely. Support from the Company
includes ……………
a) Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port.
b) Having diver inspections carried out at least every 6 months.
c) Mantaining the required compliment and onboard expertise
d) Having the ship drydocked every 30 months.
1728. Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ……….with which theCompany should be familiar.
a) The shipping business
b) National and International requirements
c) The manpower industry
d) Crew management responsibilities
1729. The Company should have a system in place for firstly ………….personnel,especially if obtained through a manning agent.
a) Briefing
b) Joining and offsigning
c) Dismissing
d) Selecting566
DPKP
1730. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult …………
a) Since there is usually insufficient time for a thorough medical check up.
b) Since seaman have the tendency to hide illness.
c) Since there are no International or National standards.
d) Since medical certificates cannot be verified__
17. Memelihara keselamatan dan keamanan awak kapal dan

penumpang dan kondisi operasional alat-alat keselamatan dan
sistem keselamatan lainnya. (Maintain safety and security of the
ship’s crew and passengers and the operational condition of
lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems)
1728. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:
a) Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 200 mm
d) equally spaced, not less than 200 mm or more than 280 mm
1729. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested:
a. Every week
b. Every 2 weeks
c. Every 3 weeks
d. Every month
1730. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release
system, precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due
to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken?

a. The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
b. Arrange a watchman in the CO2 central.
c. No special precautions necessary.
d. Check the main valve for a potential leakage.
1731. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be
serviced:
a. Every 12 months.
b. Every 24 months.
c. Every 18 months.
d. Every 36 months.
DPKP
1732. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this
information recorded in the OLB?
a. Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
b. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test
c. Fortnightly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness
d. Monthly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness.
1733. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
a. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
b. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years
c. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed if the wire is in poor condition
d. Renewed every three years
1734. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is
equipped with fire detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the
detectors are to be observed?
a. All the mentioned alternatives.
b. Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in accordance with instructions in its manual)
c. Check that the actual detector is giving appropriate signals to the central control unit and that all electric connections
are in good order.
d. When testing detectors by suitable equipment (smoke and heat) check that the sensors self-controlling system, e.g. a
flashing control light etc. is functioning.
DPKP
1735. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:
a. length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
b. length = 380 mm, breadth = 145 mm, depth = 20 mm
c. length = 280 mm, breadth = 85 mm, depth = 10 mm
d. length = 580 mm, breadth = 165 mm, depth = 30 mm
1736. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present

regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)
a. Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-igniting lights
b. At least four life-buoys on each side of the ship shall be fitted with buoyant lifelines
c. All the life-buoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement
d. At least one lifebuoy with self-activating smoke shall be placed within the vicinity of the stern
1737. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present regulations?
a. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material
b. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be fitted with the manufacturers name and Logo
c. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be of such a colour that they are in contrast to the surrounding colour
d. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall have marking in red colour
DPKP
1738. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of lifesaving
appliances correspond to present regulations?
a. Instructions for on board maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided
b. At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life-saving equipment
c. Maintenance and repair of all lifesaving equipment shall be carried out by the certified ship staff only
d. Maintenance and repair of all the life-saving equipments will be carried out ashore in work shop only
1739. *On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and
lowering whenever practicable) must take place
a. every 4 months
b. every 2 months
c. every 3 months
d. every months
1740. *The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25% of the crew - or more - has not
participated in such drill during the last month, what is the time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port?
a. Within 24 hrs
b. Within 12 hrs
c. Within 30 hrs
d. Within 48 hrs
DPKP
1741. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew aboard and
manoeuvred in the water?
a. Every month
b. Every week
c. Every two weeks
d. Every six months
1742. *When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and instructions in the use of the
ship's fire-fighting appliances?
a. As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
b. As soon as possible
c. As soon as possible but not later than 2 days after he joins the ship
d. As soon as possible but not later than 24 hours after he joins the ship
1743. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements?

a. In the SOLAS convention and its annex
b. In manager's instructions
c. In classification society rules
d. In owner's instruction
1744. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?

a. instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances
b. Checking passenger's immersion suits
c. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals
d. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
DPKP
1745. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?
a. All the items mentioned
b. Starting a fire pump using at least two required jets of water to show that the system is in proper working order
c. Checking fireman's outfits and other personal rescue equipment
d. Reporting to stations and preparing for the duties described in the muster list
1746. *Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to present SOLAS regulation?
a. Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvred in the water with its assigned crew at least once every three months
during an abandon ship drill
b. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in a harbour
c. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills
d. On ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and manoeuvred in the water at least every six
months
1747. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water
according to SOLAS?
a. Every three months.
b. Every week.
c. Every two weeks.
d. Every month.
DPKP
1748. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
a. Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment
b. Lifeboat radio
c. Location of immersion suits and thermal protective aids
d. How to communicate using the hand-held radios
1749. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to SOLAS?
a. Once every month.
b. Once every 6 months.
c. Once every year.
d. Once every week.
1750. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?

a. Once every month
b. Once every week
c. Once every 6 months
d. Once every year
1751. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
a. Once every month
b. Once every week
c. Once every 6 months
d. Once a year
1752. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed:

a. Every week
b. Every two weeks
c. Every month
d. Every three months
DPKP
1753. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill
and one fire drill?
a. Monthly
b. Weekly
c. Every second week
d. This is only required when he joins the ship
1754. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary routines run and tested weekly.
Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate operation of
the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
a. In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel must be permitted and trained to operate the pump.
b. To ensure safe operation of the emergency pump, only dedicated personnel must be permitted to operate the pump.
c. Only senior engineers should operate the emergency pump.
d. Only senior deck officers should operate the emergency pump.
1755. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?

a. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned
b. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals
c. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
d. Checking that all crew and passenger moral is high
DPKP
1756. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations?
a. Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.
b. Manoeuvring the lifeboat in the water.
c. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances.
d. Launching and recovery of a survival craft.
1757. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?
a. The appointed lifeboat commander.
b. Sen.Off.Deck.
c. Sen.Off.Engine.
d. The first member of the crew arriving at the survival craft.
1758. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment on board your ship while it‘s berthed. For a period of time he‘s
left unsupervised and photographs schematics of the ship that he finds rolled up and stored in the corner of a nearby office.
Later, from home, he hacks into the network and prints off information about the ship‘s security procedures. Which of these
information security measures would have prevented his unauthorized access?"
a. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network."
b. "Protective markings, reference checks, and passwords."
c. "Firewall, protective markings, vetting and a secure network."
d. "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and protective markings."
1759. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take, on entering an area known for pirate
activity?"
a. To transit with maximum safe speed
b. To turn off all lights
c. To confine all ship‘s personnel to one room on board
d. To transit at night time only
DPKP
1760. "If drugs or suspected drugs are found on board your ship, follow the five C‘s. Confirm, Clear, Cordon, Control and:"
a. Check
b. Change
c. Chuck
d. Cheer
1761. "Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package the individual is carrying arouses your suspicion.
What do you do?"
a. Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get assistance.
b. Confront the individual and demand that he opens the package.
c. Call for help on the radio.
d. Take the package and open it.
1762. "Which of these precautionary measures can reduce the threat of piracy, if implemented?"
a. Sail at full speed.
b. Stay at least 15nm away from the shore.
c. Plan to arrive at port at night.
d. Turn off all of the ship‘s lights at night.
1763. "Your ship security plan must include procedures for responding to security threats, auditing security activities and
interfacing with the port facility."
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. C. .
d. D. .
DPKP
1764. A Ship Security Assessment is integral to the creation of your ship‘s security plan.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. C. .
d. D. .
1765. Assign men to search men and women to search women unless a device such as a metal detector is used.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. C. .
d. D. .
1766. Check the items that can be a possible threat

a. All alternatives
b. Bombing and Sabotage
c. "Piracy, Hijacking and Smuggling"
d. Cargo tampering and Stowaways
1767. Eavesdropping and phone taps are examples of which threat to information security?
a. Espionage
b. Sabotage
c. Terrorism
d. Subversion
1768. For a search to be effective it must be:

a. Centrally controlled.
b. Organized haphazardly.
c. Conducted by personnel with limited knowledge of the ship‘s layout.
d. Inclusive of all personnel.
DPKP
1769. If drugs are discovered onboard your ship….
a. Ensure the witness to the discovery signs your incident report.
b. Notify the authorities after you arrive at the next port of call.
c. Write a report a few days after the event and describe everything that occurred.
d. Disembark crew and passengers as quickly as possible at the next port of call so the authorities can conduct their
investigation.
1770. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS?

a. Your ship is conducting activities with a port or ship that is not required to implement an approved security plan.
b. Your ship is operating at a lower security level than the ship or port it is interfacing with.
c. There is a heightened security risk for your ship and a port facility.
d. Your ship has added a new port to its list of ports of call.

1771. Information about your ship‘s security arrangements and procedures is stored
electronically. Which of these measures will help safeguard it from potential threats?
a. Passwords
b. Protective markings
c. Encoded email messages
d. Work history verification
1772. One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is:
a. Security arrangements
b. Ship security survey
c. Threat scenarios
d. Weaknesses in security measures
DPKP
1773. Only search vehicle compartments where you suspect objects may be hidden.
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
c. C. .
d. D. .
1774. Records relating to breaches of security and changes in security level must be
secured against unauthorized access and available for review by contracting
governments.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. C. .
d. D. .
1775. Searches are often triggered by:

a. An increase in security level by the Flag State.
b. Lost baggage.
c. The receipt of a shipment of damaged stores.
d. News stories of stowaways.
1776. The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to:
a. Determine your needs and do some research.
b. Buy the most expensive equipment on the market.
c. Buy what everyone else is buying.
d. Buy the newest models.
1777. The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to:
a. "Seal spaces that are not in use while in port, and perform a search of the ship before leaving."
b. "Conduct routine, but irregular searches of the ship."
c. Conduct a Nominated Officers search.
d. Search the ship when you arrive at port and again just after leaving.
e. DPKP
1778. The Declaration of Security:
a. Addresses the security requirements shared between ships or between a port facility and a ship.
b. Details a ship‘s security measures.
c. Identifies the security responsibilities of shipboard personnel.
d. States the reporting procedures to government contact points.
1779. The DoS addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around the ship and the verification of increased threat
levels.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. C. .
d. D. .
1780. The first step in completing an SSA is to:

a. Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against your ship.
b. "Identify the key shipboard operations, systems, areas and personnel that are critical to protect."
c. List the existing security measures.
d. Develop an on board security survey checklist
1781. The International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre attributes the increased numbers of hijackings to:
a. The greater involvement in piracy of well-organized and armed crime networks.
b. Higher crime rates around the world.
c. More crew involvement.
d. Easy access to military weapons.
DPKP
1782. The most effective way to combat the threat of drug smuggling is to?
a. "Combining routine, but irregular searches of the ship with spontaneous targeted searches."
b. Organize crew into pairs and conduct weekly searches of the ship.
c. "Perform routine, but irregular searches using teams of two or more personnel from the same department."
d. Perform spontaneous targeted searches using teams of two or more personnel from the same department.
1783. The purpose of profiling is to?

a. Get beneath the outer shell of an individual to obtain a more complete picture.
b. Make judgements about people based on their appearance.
c. Categorize people based on their nationality and ethnicity.
d. Identify different personality types.
1784. What is a Continuous Synopsis Record?

a. A record of the vessels history
b. A plan including all security measures on board
c. A record of all security incidents
d. A plan for continuous maintenance of security equipment
e. DPKP
1785. What is a Declaration of Security?
a. A checklist jointly completed by the ship and shore security representatives
b. A checklist jointly completed by the Ship Security Officer and the U.S. Coast Guard
c. A document between the port and the cargo owner stating security
d. A document stating the ship‘s security level
1786. What percentage of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1?

a. The percentage is not specified.
b. 25-50% of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1.
c. 100% of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1.
d. 5-15% of the baggage is required to be checked at Security Level 1.
1787. What percentage of the ship‘s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3?
a. 100% of the ship‘s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.
b. 25-50% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.
c. 5-20% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.
d. 50-80% of the ship's stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.
DPKP
1788. What type of bomb search should you conduct to avoid panic when the
credibility of the threat is in doubt and you don‘t want to disrupt ship business?
a. Nominated officers search
b. External search team
c. Crew search
d. Known hiding spot search
1789. Which information should be included in your search plan?

a. Areas to be searched and personnel to be involved in the search.
b. Areas to be searched.
c. Personnel to be involved in the search.
d. Known hiding spots to be searched.
1790. Which of following are security duties?

a. All alternatives
b. Monitoring of restricted areas
c. Calibration of security equipment
d. Checking ID of visitors on board
1791. Which of these actions should you take it your ship is successfully boarded by armed pirates?
a. Assure your captors that you‘re not planning an attack to overthrow them.
b. Fight back.
c. Scream in fear and refuse to cooperate.
d. Keep quiet and ignore any questions you‘re asked.
DPKP
1792. Which of these conventions is The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code a part of?
a. SOLAS
b. MARPOL
c. The Anti Terrorist International Agreement
d. STCW – 95
1793. Which of these measures would you implement to prevent drugs from being smuggled on board your ship while it‘s
berthed?
a. Maintain restricted areas.
b. Check a portion of the bags and packages brought onboard.
c. "Search some of the packages, spares and stores received."
d. Eliminate fore and aft deck watch at night.
1794. Which of these statements about drug smugglers modes of operating is true?
a. "Drugs smuggled by an organized conspiracy are usually concealed in a primary ship system such as the engine room
or in a tank, void or compartment."
b. Individual entrepreneurs usually smuggle large quantities of drugs.
c. Drugs hidden by individual entrepreneurs are usually difficult to detect.
d. An organized conspiracy usually smuggles a small amount of drugs.
1795. Which of these statements about drug smuggling is true?

a. The risks to ships are not restricted to specific areas or trading routes.
b. Drugs are difficult to conceal onboard a ship.
c. "Drug smuggling is only a problem in certain ports, so only ships sailing in those ports need to implement preventative
measures."
d. "The preventative measures you incorporate into your ship‘s security plan should be exhaustive, regardless of the level
of threat identified by your ship‘s security assessment."
1796. Which of these statements about profiling is correct?

a. Verify that answers to questions match up with what‘s already known about the person being questioned.
b. Use only open-ended questions.
c. Check the ID of all visitors and some crew prior to boarding.
d. Pay less attention to body language and behaviour and more attention to answers to questions.
1797. Which of these tasks are performed as part of the SSA?

a. Assess the likelihood and potential consequences of security incidents.
b. Assign security duties to ship personnel.
c. Implement measures to address weaknesses in ship security.
d. Train shipboard personnel in their security duties.
1798. Which of this information must be included in a piracy attack alert?

a. Your ship‘s name and call sign.
b. The number of pirates/hijackers.
c. The type of weapons being carried by the pirates/hijackers.
d. The number of crew on board.
1799. Which statement about the use of profiling onboard a ship is true?
a. A random selection process must be established.
b. Only visitors can be profiled.
c. Detection equipment can be used in place of profiling.
d. Profilers need at least half an hour to gather the information they need.
DPKP
1800. Which two persons check the Declaration of Security?
a. The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship Security Officer
b. The Company Security Officer
c. The local Coast Guard Officer
d. The local Police Officer and Ship Security Officer
1801. Which type of profiling is used to obtain information about rival companies and their employees?
a. Industrial
b. Criminal
c. Commercial
d. General
1802. Who is responsible for completing the DoS on behalf of the ship?
a. Ship Security Officer
b. Company Security Officer
c. Chief Officer
d. Chief Engineer
1803. Who is responsible for ensuring that your ship‘s security plan meets the requirements of the ISPS Code?
a. Company Security Officer
b. Flag State Administration
c. Ship Security Officer
d. Recognized Security Organization
1804. Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?
a. Company Security Officer
b. Ship Security Officer
c. Flag State Administration
d. Recognized Security Organization
DPKP
1805. Who is responsible for issuing an ISPS certificate?
a. The Flag State
b. The Port State
c. US Coast Guard
d. The insurance company
1806. Who is responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan?
a. The Company Security Officer
b. The Classification Society.
c. The Port Facility Security Officer
d. The Ship Security Officer
1807. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship?
a. The Ship Security Officer
b. The Company Security Officer
c. The Classification Society.
d. The Port Facility Security Officer
1808. You can reduce the need for security guards in certain areas by installing:
a. Anti-intruder devices
b. Vapour detectors
c. Metal detectors
d. Water cannons.

Membuat rencana pengendalian keadaan darurat dan Kerusakan serta menangani situasi darurat.
( Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations )
1809. As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should beconsidered as an efficient one?
a. All the listed answers
b. To equip them with better communicationsystems
c. To train the fire brigade
d. To establish inner rules to perform work of aspecial risk
1810. The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be…
a. Evaluation of the situation, rescueand life-saving, confinement of fire,extinction, then feedback on theemergency
b. Extinction, confinement of fire, feedback on the emergency, rescue andlife-saving, then evaluation of thesituation
c. Extinction, evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and lifesaving
d. Evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-saving,extinction
DPKP
1810. Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in theTraining Manual?
a. How to recover survival craft andrescue boats including stowage andsecuring
b. How to use navigational equipmentfor survival crafts
c. How to use surface to air visualsignals to be used by survivors
d. How to use escape routes and other escape methods.
1811. *Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision ofsurvival craft corresponds to the SOLAS
regulation?
a. A deck officer or certificated personshall be placed in charge of eachsurvival craft to be used
b. Every motorised survival craft shallhave a certificated engineer assigned
c. There shall be at least 5 trainedpersons on board, mustering andassisting untrained persons
d. Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have adeck officer capable of operating the
equipment assigned
1812. *You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, makingimpossible the launching of the survival
craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats andliferafts are equally distributed on each side of the vessel. What should be the
totalnumber of persons that can be accommodated in the remaining survival craftstowed on the port side ? (*) N is the total
number of persons that vessel ispermitted to carry.
a. At least 200 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N)(*)
b. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)
c. At least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*)
d. At least 100 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)

1813. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?
a. As instructed by the helicopter pilot
b. With the wind astern so that theeffect of the wind is reduced as muchas possible
c. Directly into the wind
d. With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area
1814. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescuepurposes. What do you think the radius and
evacuating capacity of the helicopteris?
a. 200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons.
b. 500 nm and capacity for evacuatingmore than 25 persons.
c. 150 nm and capacity for evacuatingmore than 12 persons.
d. 100 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 10 persons.
1815. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has beensounded, what is the next action to be taken by
theChief Officer on duty?
a. Use the intercom to inform crewand passengers of the reason for thealarm
b. Call the nearest coastal radio station
c. Send distress signals to call for help
d. Use the VHF-radio telephone to askships in the vicinity to stand by
DPKP
1816. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergencyalarm signal be sounded?
a. Until all crew members and passengers havereported to their respective muster stations
b. 3 times
c. 3 minutes
d. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order"abandon ship" is given
1817. In what language/languages must the fire control plans or booklets (or copies ofthese) be written?
a. In the Flag State official language withcopies in English or French

b. In the Flag State official language
c. In the English language
d. In a national language where company headoffice is located
1818. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander?

a. Yes, you must attend to a courseheld by certified personnel, andprovide evidence of havingmaintained the required
standards ofcompetence every five years.
b. No, the only thing you need is one-hour instruction from a deck officer.
c. No
d. Yes, you must attend a one week course at a approved course centre.
DPKP
1819. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and theirlaunching controls. Which one of the
following requirements has to be included?
a. Give relevant instructions andwarnings
b. Give an overview of location of alllifesaving appliances
c. Give information on survival craftcapacity
d. Give information on survival craftspeed and seaworthiness
1820. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of thatfire. Which are the factors we should take
intoaccount?
a. Opacity, amount and colour
b. Amount and opacity only
c. There is no possible interpretation of a fireaccording to the smoke
d. Colour only
1821. The muster list must be prepared:

a. At any moment before the ship proceeds tosea
b. At least 2 hours before the ship proceeds tosea
c. At least 1 hour before the ship proceeds tosea
d. At least 2 hours after the ship has proceeded to sea
DPKP
1822. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Whichof the following duties shall be included
according to present regulations?
a. Manning of fire parties assigned todeal with fires.
b. Preparation of immersion suits forpassengers.
c. Special duties assigned with respectto the use of pyrotechnics
d. Operation of the vessel's propulsionsystem.
1823. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of thecrew. Which of the given duties necessarily
have to be included in the muster list?
a. Preparation and launching ofsurvival crafts
b. Clearing escape routes
c. Type of fires that can beencountered on board
d. Preparation and starting ofemergency generator
1824. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated wherever
possible. Which of the following objects have to be explained in detail in the manual according to present regulations?
a. Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits
b. Donning of fire protection clothing
c. Starting of Main Engine
d. Handling of stowaways
DPKP
1825. The Training Manual shall contain instructions and information on the lifesavingappliances and the best method of
survival. The training manual shallcontain detailed explanations of crew duties in relation to emergency situations.Which of the
following tasks or duties shall be included in the manual according topresent regulations?
a. The use of the ship's line throwingapparatus.
b. The use of navigational equipment forsurvival crafts.
c. The use of surface to air visual signals to beused by survivors.
d. The use of escape routes and other escapemethods.
1826. What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the firefighting?
a. Where the fire breaks out, howmany fire teams are available, thestrength of the fire, the shipsmobility, what is burning
andcommunication
b. Where the fire break out, how manyfire teams are available, what isburning, distance to the fire station
c. Distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade, what is burning,possibility to get water
d. Where the fire break out, the ships mobility, distance to the fire station andthe size of the fire brigade

1827. What is a contingency plan for ships?
a. Plan for safety preparedness
b. Plan for next voyage
c. Loading plan for general cargo
d. Plan for maintenance and repair
DPKP
1828. What is most important for crew members when preparing for emergencies?
a. That people are well trained
b. That people know where to find designatedequipment
c. That people know where to muster
d. That people listen to orders given
1829. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out?
a. The ship's management team mustorganise the fire teams and then theteams have to rescue missingpersonnel
b. The ship's management team mustfight the fire and then call the fireteams
c. The ship's management team mustcall the nearest fire brigade and police station
d. The ship's management team and the crew must evacuate the ship
1830. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
a. Reduce speed and, if possible, keepthe fire zone to the leeward of theship
b. Keep the stem up against the wind ifpossible
c. Let the ship follow the wind inorder to reduce the oxygen supply
d. Continue on course and speed
DPKP
1831. When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first
action be a decision that will directly solve the problem?
a. Not necessary, he shall use all availableresources. He should resist the temptation to stepin and do it all by himself
b. Yes, take full control. Do not delegate to otherofficers, to avoid mistake.
c. No, he should observe the situation, and let the other senior officers solve thesituation.
d. Yes, with his experience, it is most likely that he has the best solution.
1832. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as beingassigned to crewmembers in relation
topassengers?
a. Assembling passengers at musterstation
b. Ensuring that every passenger isprovided with an immersion suit or athermal protective aid
c. Ensuring that extra food and water istaken to the survival craft
d. Clearing the escape routes
1833. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as beingassigned to members of the crew?
a. Preparation and launching of thesurvival craft
b. Preparation of manoeuvres intendedto ease launching of the survivalcraft
c. Preparation of immersion suits forthe ship's passengers
d. Operation of the vessel's propulsionsystem
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1834. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list?
a. Action to be taken by crew andpassengers
b. The specific duties assigned topassengers that are in charge of agroup of others
c. The abandon ship signal consistingof two long blasts
d. The muster list has been prepared and approved by the administrationbefore the ship proceeds to sea
1835. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficientintervention in an emergency
a. All the listed answers
b. The installation of protective measures
c. Planning of the emergency
d. Training of the crew
1836. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster andembarkation arrangements correspond to the
present SOLAS regulations?
a. Muster and embarkation stations shall bereadily accessible from accommodationand work areas.
b. Davit-launched survival craft muster andembarkation stations shall be arranged toenable stretchers to be placed in
survivalcraft.
c. Muster and embarkation stations are to be arrangedseparately to improve working conditions.
d. Searchlights to be provided at the launching station.
DPKP

1837. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craftcorresponds to present SOLAS regulations?
Each survival craft shall be stowed:
a. In a secure and sheltered position andprotected from damage by fire or explosion.
b. Wherever space is available.
c. On the starboard side of the ship.
d. In a state of readiness so that two crewmemberscan prepare for embarkation andlaunching in less than 15 minutes.
1838. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats andlife-rafts corresponds to present SOLAS
regulations?
a. Lifeboats shall be stowed attached tolaunching appliances.
b. Life-rafts shall be stowed close to the sternof the vessel
c. Life-rafts intended for throw-overboardlaunching shall be stowed amidships securedto means for transfer to either
side.
d. Davit-launched life-rafts shall be stowed onstarboard side of the ship.
1839. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of
people from outsides parties are asking questions. What shall you tell them?
a. Do not reply to any questions fromoutside parties, except the Solicitorappointed by your company.
b. You shall only tell them the truthand nothing but the truth.
c. Do not tell anybody anything,except representatives from themain newspapers, radio and TV.
d. Remember, the people have theright to know. To make sure that all parties are informed about the facts, show them
theextracts of the log-book.
1840. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual:
a. Whenever regulations change
b. At least once every 6 months
c. At least once every 12 months
d. At least once every 18 months
1841. A moderate level of stress provides which useful function in an emergency?

a. To prepare for peak performance that will improve the chances of survival
b. To slow down the heart rate to conserve energy
c. To slow down the thought processes to ensure a thorough assessment of thethreat
d. To immobilize the individual until he has decided upon the best course ofaction
1842. Debriefing of an emergency drill:

a. Expands the experience of all personnel
b. Is most effective when held at a safety meeting
c. Focuses attention on the debriefer's feedback
d. Encourages crewmembers to focus on their duties
1843. For which emergency resource is it difficult to plan the best use?
a. Passengers
b. Crew
c. Company personnel
d. Emergency equipment
1844. In a crisis, which crew behaviours are most reassuring to passengers?

a. Enthusiasm, confidence, decisiveness
b. Enthusiasm, confidence, hospitality
c. Dependability
d. Keeping up with safety knowledge
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1845. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read orremember safety information. As an officer,
how can you best compensate for thisfact?
a. In an emergency, repeatedly tell passengers what's happening, what's beingdone, and what they should do.
b. Prior to departure, provide passengers with a good safety video.
c. Ensure that printed safety information onboard is of the highest quality.
d. Post large, graphic safety signs conspicuously throughout the ship.
1846. The Safety Management Manual contains checklists that are:

a. Clear, concise summaries of critical action items in the emergency plan
b. To be used when crewmembers feel especially stressed in emergencies
c. Clear, concise summaries of all action items in the emergency plan
d. Detailed descriptions of action items most easily forgotten in emergencies
1847. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles?

a. Lack of leadership
b. No lifeboat drills for passengers
c. Inadequate fire-fighting training
d. Inadequate fire-fighting provisions
1848. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisionsin an emergency?
a. Feedback from the crew
b. Input from company personnel
c. Planning of emergency procedures
d. Following safety regulations
1849. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ship’s crew?
a. The level of emergency-preparedness
b. The safety awareness of the senior officers
c. The shipboard training provided
d. The quality of emergency drills
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1850. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plansand procedures?
a. The design and layout of the ship
b. The ISM Code
c. MARPOL
d. The safety requirements of the USCG
1851. Which statement about stress is correct?

a. Individuals in a shipboard emergency experience different levels of stress.
b. An example of stress is a shipboard fire.
c. Stress is an unusual reaction to a threatening situation.
d. Stress interferes with an individual's ability to respond to a threat.
1852. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the__________.
a. Canop
b. Manropes
c. Sea painter
d. Righting strap
1853. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of __________.
a. Sewage
b. The galley trash can
c. An oily mixture of one part per million
d. All of the above
1854. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systemsshall be kept on board __________.
a. For 1 year
b. For 2 years
c. Until the next Coast Guard inspection
d. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
DPKP
1855. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixturewith air. If your instructions say that no one
shall enter the tank if the vapourconcentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable percentageof vapours
for men to enter?
a. .15%
b. .85%
c. 1.05%
d. 7.00%
1856. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should
you administer in each sequence?
a. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
b. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
c. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
d. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
1857. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for __________.
a. Signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility
b. Minimum hawser lengths when being towed
c. Lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
d. Mooring procedures for support vessels when transferring cargo
1858. What is the definition of transverse metacentre?
a. The distance between the actual centre of gravity and the maximumcentre of gravity that will still allow a positive
stability.
b. The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positivestability.
c. The sum of the centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity.
d. The transverse shift of the centre of buoyancy as a vessel rolls.
1859. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

a. On their side if unconscious
b. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
c. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
d. Arms above their head
1860. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.
a. Allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
b. Prevent outside air from entering the tank
c. Provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
d. Comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
1861. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.
a. Boat the sea anchor
b. Paddle away from the fire
c. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it
d. Get out of the raft and swim to safety
1862. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet abovethe water, would indicate that a submarine
__________.
a. Has fired a torpedo during a drill
b. Is about to rise to periscope depth
c. Is on the bottom in distress
d. Is disabled and unable to surface
1863. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.
a. You first start to receive fuel
b. Hoses are being blown down
c. Final topping off is occurring
d. Hoses are being disconnected
DPKP
1864. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.
a. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapourcontent
b. Makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level)capable of supporting combustion
c. In a non-combustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally ona regular basis
d. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor contentmakes the atmosphere above the UFL
(Upper Flammable Limit)
1865. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breatheat the rate of how many breaths per
minute?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 20
1866. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carriedvoluntarily, must hold at least a __________.
a. Mate's license
b. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
c. Second-class radio operator's license
d. Seaman's document
1867. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) forthe various angles of inclination will
__________.
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Remain unchanged
d. Be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle
DPKP
1868. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be
covered at the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
a. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
b. Fire on board
c. Rescuing an individual from the water
d. Emergency towing
1869. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.

a. Aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
b. Increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c. Force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outsideatmosphere
d. Lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearlyimpossible
1870. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft hasbobbed to the surface upon functioning of the
hydrostatic release. Which actionshould you take?
a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate andopen the container.
d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
1871. Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the
International Rules of the Road?
a. D
b. F
c. Q
d. U
DPKP
1872. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another countrysignatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is
TRUE?
a. The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of compliance withMARPOL 73/78.
b. The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
c. An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes outside the classesauthorized thereon.
d. AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for certification.
1873. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What wouldfulfil the minimum requirements for fire
protection?
a. One B-I extinguisher
b. One B-II extinguisher
c. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
d. One B-V extinguisher
1874. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

a. Incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon contentis below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)
b. Capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is abovethe UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
c. Capable of supporting a fire once started
d. Not safe for ballasting
1875. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and
__________.
a. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
b. Keeping the head elevated
c. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
d. Holding the jaw down firmly
DPKP
1876. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST
__________.
a. Invert the CO2 extinguisher
b. Squeeze the two trigger handles together
c. Remove the locking pin
d. Open the discharge valve
1877. Transverse stability calculations require the use of __________.

a. Hog or sag calculations or tables
b. Hydrostatic curves
c. General arrangement plans
d. Cross-sectional views of the vessel
1878. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
a. Electricity
b. Fuel
c. Oxygen
d. Heat
1879. Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall beequipped with an inert gas system if the
tonnage is more than __________.
a. 100,000 DWT (long tons)
b. 100,000 DWT (metric tons)
c. 50,000 DWT (long tons)
d. 50,000 DWT (metric tons)
1880. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
a. Shape
b. Shallow draft
c. Large sail area
d. All of the above
DPKP
1881. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the
Rules of the Road?
a. D
b. E
c. S
d. All of the above
1882. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?

a. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
b. It is not covered by the pollution laws.
c. It does little harm to marine life.
d. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.
1883. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and inthe vicinity of the paint locker exit is
__________.
a. One A-I
b. Two A-iis
c. One B-II
d. One C-II
1884. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and inthe vicinity of the paint locker exit is
__________.
a. One A-I
b. Two A-iis
c. One B-II
d. One C-II
1885. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmospherewithin a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or
too lean to support combustion?
a. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
b. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
c. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyser.
d. Use an explosiveve meter.
DPKP
1886. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternumshould be depressed about __________.
a. 1/2 inch or less
b. 1/2 to 1 inch
c. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
d. 1-1/2 to 2 inches
1887. A flame screen __________.

a. Permits the passage of vapour but not of flame
b. Prevents the passage of flammable vapours
c. Prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
d. Permits vapours to exit but not enter a tank
1888. Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spillsmust be reported to __________.
a. Environmental Protection Agency
b. Minerals Management Service
c. National Response Centre (USCG)
d. All of the Above
1889. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must__________.
a. Secure the engine room ventilation
b. Secure the machinery in the engine room
c. Evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of the above
1890. The advantages of using an inert gas system on a tank vessel is that it provides
__________.
a. For faster loading
b. Tank atmosphere with low oxygen content
c. Better fuel economy
d. All of the above
DPKP
1891. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.
a. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water
b. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
c. Pushing up from under one end
d. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on theunderside of the raft
1892. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

a. Heating surfaces adjacent to the fire
b. Removing combustibles from the endangered area
c. Increasing the oxygen supply
d. All of the above
1893. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?

a. They usually disappear quickly.
b. They usually stay in a small are
c. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative.
d. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area
1894. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers to be carriedin the vicinity of the radio room exit for a
tank vessel on an international voyage isone __________.
a. B-I
b. B-II
c. C-I
d. C-II
1895. What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?

a. Combustible gas indicator
b. Vapour indicator
c. Atmosphere analyser kit
DPKP
1896. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim'sbody should the pressure be applied?
a. Lower half of the sternum
b. Tip of the sternum
c. Top half of the sternum
d. Left chest over the heart
1897. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You
should secure the power, then __________.
a. Use a portable foam extinguisher
b. Use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
c. Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
d. Determine the cause of the fire
1898. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled tanker?

a. Bending moments
b. Initial stability
c. Draft
d. Trim
1899. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of thefireman's outfit?
a. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
b. Combustible gas indicator
c. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
d. Flame safety lamp
1900. Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank vessels?
a. Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems.
b. Helium is the preferred inert gas.
c. Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks.
d. All of the above
DPKP
1901. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.
a. Pushing up on one side
b. Standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwingyour weight backwards
c. Getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containingthe CO2 cylinder
d. Doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate
1902. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable ofbeing launched to the water at the minimum
operating draft, under unfavourableconditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
a. 6°
b. 12°
c. 20°
d. 25°
1903. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.

a. Equipment failure
b. Human error
c. Major casualties
d. Unforeseeable circumstances
1904. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers for stateroomson cargo vessels is __________.
a. One A-I
b. One B-I
c. One C-I
d. None required
DPKP
1905. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive
mixture is called the __________.
a. Auto-ignition point
b. Flash point
c. Lower explosive limit (LEL)
d. Threshold limit value (TLV)
1906. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done__________.
a. Without losing the rhythm of respiration
b. Only with the help of two other people
c. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
d. At ten-minute intervals
1907. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathingapparatus be carried?
a. Emergency gear locker
b. Bridge or pilothouse area
c. Where they can be readily found
d. The same location as the equipment it reactivates
1908. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel__________.
a. Has off-centre weights
b. Is taking on water
c. Has a greater draft forward than aft
d. Has poor stability
DPKP
1909. You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The barge is NOT gasfree. Regulations say that the cargo tank
hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworthplates on the barge may remain open without flame screens __________.
a. Without restriction
b. Only while in areas of good weather
c. When under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty
d. Only when the barge is empty

1910. The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
a. Cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
b. Acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceedthe safe working pressure in the hazardous zone
c. Prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into non-hazardous areas
d. Relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
1911. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate Youhear a continuous hissing coming from a
fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is thecause of this?
a. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
b. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate
c. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
d. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
1912. The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the amount of liquidloading required in the double bottom tanks to
meet a one compartment standard ST-0001
a. 338 tons
b. 309 tons
c. 281 tons
d. 263 tons
1913. The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling
system is that it __________.
a. Accelerates erosion
b. Reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives
c. Can form pockets of high chemical concentrates
d. Accelerates formation of sludge deposits
1914. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square feet. What will
fulfil the requirements for fire protection?
a. One B-I extinguisher
b. One B-II extinguisher
c. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
d. One B-V extinguisher
1915. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.
a. 0% to 1%
b. 1% to 10%
c. 10% to 15%
d. 12% to 20%
1916. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

a. Having the proper equipment for the process
b. Starting the treatment quickly
c. Administering of oxygen
d. Treating for traumatic shock
1917. Fire hose couplings __________.

a. Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
b. Should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
c. Are specially hardened to prevent crushing
d. Should be greased frequently

1918. What represents the center of gravity? (D001SA )
a. GZ
b. M
c. B
d. G
1919. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.
a. The name of the vessel on which it is located
b. The date that it was installed
c. The names of the individuals qualified to use it
d. An identification number
1920. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you
must pull the safety pin and __________.
a. Pull the hook release handle
b. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
c. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
d. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
1921. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
a. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding therighting straps, and leaning backwards
b. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps,and leaning backwards
c. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
d. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
1922. Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are __________.

a. Prohibited
b. Permitted for draining fuel from lines
c. Permitted for drawing fuel samples
d. Permitted for bleeding air from lines
DPKP
1923. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, whenshould you remove the safety pin and pull the
hook release?
a. Immediately upon launching
b. One to three feet before first wave contact
c. Upon first wave contact
d. Only when waterborne
1924. The required number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required for a
galley having an area of 3,500 square feet is __________.
a. One B-II
b. One C-II
c. Two B-II's or C-II's
d. Two A-II's or B-II's
1925. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.

a. 16%
b. 18%
c. 21%
d. 25%
1926. Before CPR is started, you should __________.

a. Establish an open airway
b. Treat any bleeding wounds
c. Insure the victim is conscious
d. Make the victim comfortable
1927. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially
discharge It should be __________.
a. Labelled empty and recharged as soon as possible
b. Replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%
c. Replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
d. Replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%
e. DPKP
1928. What represents the metacentric height? (D001SA )
a. M
b. GM
c. BM
d. GZ
1929. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not
cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
a. CO2
b. Water stream
c. Water spray
d. Foam
1930. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The
discharge should be directed __________.
a. To bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
b. At the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
c. Over the top of the fire
d. At the main body of the fire
1931. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
a. Go in a different direction in search of land
b. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you
c. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible intoas few rafts as possible
d. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
1932. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.

a. Put back in service if some C02 remains
b. Hydrostatically tested
c. Retagged
d. Recharged
DPKP
1933. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
a. Shut off all electrical power
b. Remove combustibles from direct exposure
c. Cool the bulkhead around the fire
d. Close all openings to the area
1934. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there is no portable fire
extinguishers in the pump room. To comply with regulations, you __________.
a. Need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are required in thepump room
b. Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit
c. Should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pump room
d. May substitute sand for the required extinguishers
1935. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank
barge which is NOT gas-free?
a. A three-cell flashlight
b. An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
c. A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp
1936. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his
mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
a. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
b. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
c. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.
d. Re-tip the head and try again.
DPKP
1937. To determine what navigation lights and day-shapes must be displayed on
mobile offshore drilling units under tow, you should check the __________.
a. American Bureau of Shipping classification rules
b. International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
c. Safety of Life at Sea Convention
d. Minerals Management Service rules
1938. Refer to the illustration below. Which represents the righting arm? (D001SA )
a. GM
b. GZ
c. BM
d. Angle MGZ
1939. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by__________.

a. Removing the fuel
b. Interrupting the chain reaction
c. Removing the oxygen
d. Removing the heat
1940. The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by 8' The vessel's
displacement in fresh water is 864 tons and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47.
What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
a. .32 foot
b. .80 foot
c. .96 foot
d. 1.12 feet
DPKP
1941. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members should __________.
a. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
b. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
c. Immediately head for the nearest land
d. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching atthe vessel's last known position
1942. If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights
were not functioning, you would send __________.
a. PB
b. PD1
c. MJ
d. LN1
1943. A spark arrestor __________.

a. Keeps sparks from falling into an open tank
b. Secures covers on ullage openings
c. Prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system
d. Grounds static electricity
1944. A B-III foam extinguisher contains __________.

a. 2-1/2 gallons of foam
b. 8 gallons of foam
c. 10 gallons of foam
d. 12 gallons of foam
1945. The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not
gas free is a lamp that is __________.
a. Battery fed
b. Self-contained
c. Approved explosion proof
d. All of the above
DPKP
1946. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge
into the marine environment of __________.
a. Oil
b. Garbage
c. Noxious liquid substances
1947. When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force
through B and the line of force through G is called the __________.
a. Metacentric height
b. Righting arm
c. Righting moment
d. Metacentric radius
1948. On a vessel of 10,000 tons’ displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric

height due to free surface in a hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40
feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height is __________.
a. Feet
b. 1.2 feet
c. 1.3 feet
d. 1.5 feet
a. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
b. Abandon ship to windward
c. Call for assistance
d. Keep going at half speed
DPKP
1950. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely
inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should__________.
a. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
b. Plug the safety valve
c. Unscrew the deflation plugs
d. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
e.
1951. In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I requireimmediate assistance" is __________.
a. AE
b. CB
c. DX
d. CP
1952. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the
requirements for __________.
a. Lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
b. The display of load line markings
c. Minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves
d. Lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed
1953. A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of __________.

a. 3 gallons of foam
b. 20 pounds of CO2
c. 10 pounds of dry chemical
d. All of the above
1954. What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
a. For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate
b. For the instant that it is made
c. Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened
d. Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapour content inthe space
e.
DPKP
1955. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
a. Speed healing
b. Prevent infection
c. Reduce inflammation
d. Increase blood circulation
1956. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350 feet long and has abeam of 55 feet. You have timed it's full rolling
period to be 15.0 seconds. What isyour vessel's approximate GM?
a. 1.18 feet
b. 1.83 feet
c. 2.60 feet
d. 3.36 feet
1957. A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's centre of gravity will__________.
a. Increase reserve buoyancy
b. Decrease the righting moments
c. Decrease KG
d. Increase KM
1958. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the
spread of fire by __________.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Ventilation
1959. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the
possibility of capsizing by __________.
a. Rigging a sea anchor
b. Constantly shifting the ruddervfs
c. Moving all personnel forward and low
d. Moving all personnel aft
DPKP
1960. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should__________.
a. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
b. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
c. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
d. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
1961. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
a. BR
b. BS
c. BT1
d. BZ
1962. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

a. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
b. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing alife jacket.
c. They should be tight fitting.
d. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
1963. What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?

a. A 2-1/2 gallon soda acid and water
b. A 1-1/4 gallon foam
c. A 2-1/2 gallon foam
d. A 20 pound dry chemical
1964. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument__________.
a. Over an electrically heated platinum filament
b. Where it is mixed with nitrogen
c. Where it is ignited by a sparking device
d. Where its specific gravity is measured
DPKP
1965. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.
a. With puncture wounds
b. When all other means have failed
c. When the victim is unconscious
d. To prevent bleeding from minor wounds
1966. What would be considered a vessel under the International Rules of the Road?
a. A jack-up rig under tow
b. A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow
c. A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking a tow line
d. All of the above
1967. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permitthe vessel to have positive stability is called
the __________.
a. Metacentric point
b. Metacenter
c. Metacentric radius
d. Tipping center
1968. Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529 feet long and has abeam of 71 feet. You have timed your full charge
rolling period to be 25.0 seconds.
What is your vessel's approximate GM?
a. 1.25 feet
b. 1.56 feet
c. 1.98 feet
d. 2.43 feet
1969. A negative metacentric height __________.

a. Will always cause a vessel to capsize
b. Should always be immediately corrected
c. Always results from off-center weights
d. All of the above are correct
DPKP
1970. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
a. Remain in the immediate vicinity
b. Head for the nearest land
c. Head for the closest sea-lanes
d. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
1971. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

a. Reduce reserve buoyancy
b. Increase righting moments
c. Increase GM
d. All of the above
1972. Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type B-III extinguisher?

a. 12 gallon soda acid
b. 20 gallon foam
c. 30 pound carbon dioxide
d. 20 pound dry chemical
1973. Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum products, the tank must be
certified by __________.
a. The Coast Guard
b. The American Bureau of Shipping
c. The shipyard fire department
d. A certified marine chemist
1974. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleedingexcessively. What can be done as an alternative to
suturing to close the wound?
a. Wrap a tight bandage around the woun
b. Apply a compression bandage.
c. Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
d. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
DPKP
1975. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
a. A righting line
b. Red hand flares
c. Pendants
d. Drinking water
1976. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will
heel outwards if __________.
a. The vessel has very little draft
b. G is above the center of lateral resistance
c. G is below the center of lateral resistance
d. The vessel is deeply laden
1977. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this draft, the displacement is8,000 tons. The length of the vessel is 475 ft.,
beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. CalculateKM. (See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the Stability Data ReferenceBook)
a. 18.8 feet
b. 20.9 feet
c. 22.7 feet
d. 32.0 feet
1978. The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine jacket water cooling
system is that it __________.
a. Causes colloid suspension in the cooling water
b. Reduces the capability of the lubrication system
c. Can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through the system
d. Leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls
DPKP
1979. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per
day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
a. 1 can
b. 1 pint
c. 1 quart
d. 1 gallon
1980. What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using
flashing light?
a. AAA
b. TTTT
c. EEEEE
d. AS
1981. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters of
the U.S. is FALSE?
a. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guard
b. Failure to report the spill may result in a fine.
c. The company can be fined for the spill.
d. The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean-up of the spill.
1982. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
a. Hand-portable fire extinguisher
b. Life preserver
c. Immersion suit
d. Lifeboat oar
1983. The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department
is the __________.
a. Master
b. Chief Mate
c. Chief Engineer
d. First Assistant
DPKP
1984. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumTo remove it you should
__________.
a. Pull it out with pliers
b. Cut the skin from around the hook
c. Push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
d. Have a surgeon remove it
1985. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low
as possible to __________.
a. Protect themselves from smoke
b. Obtain the best available air
c. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
d. All of the above
1986. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?

a. She will have a large metacentric height.
b. Her period of roll will be large due to her large metacentric height.
c. She will have an unusually high centre of gravity.
d. She will pitch heavily.
1987. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a

fishing vessel?
a. Recovering an individual from the water
b. Steering casualty
c. Emergency towing
d. Loss of propulsion power
1988. You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in ANNEX V ofMARPOL. How many miles from land must you be
to discharge ground rags, glass,and bottles into the sea?
a. 3
b. 12
c. 25
d. Must be retained aboard
DPKP
1989. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should beused during a prolonged period in a raft?
a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
b. Get plenty of rest.
c. Keep the entrance curtains open.
d. All of the above
1990. The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is __________.

a. One and one-half times the length of a dot
b. Twice the length of a dot
c. Three times the length of a dot
d. Four times the length of a dot
1991. Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the navigable waters ofthe U.S. is TRUE?
a. The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of the spill.
b. The Department of Interior is responsible for the clean up of the spill.
c. A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
d. The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast Guard
1992. Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary
inspections required is __________.
a. One
b. Three
c. Six
d. Twelve
1993. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
a. Lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops
b. Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
c. Apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops
d. Apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
DPKP
1994. A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter __________.
a. L
b. N
c. T
d. Z
1995. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is__________.
a. Evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
b. Concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
c. Concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
d. Concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
1996. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo liste
What is the height above the main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0002
a. 1.50 feet
b. 1.96 feet
c. 2.21 feet
d. 2.78 feet
1997. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathingapparatus?
a. The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottleand prevent the bottle from exploding.
b. In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can beoperated manually to give the wearer air.
c. When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmosphericpressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
d. The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psiabove atmospheric pressure.
DPKP
1998. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
a. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
b. Find some wood for a fire
c. Get the provisions out of the raft
d. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
1999. The standard rate of signalling by flashing light is __________.

a. Twenty letters per minute
b. Thirty letters per minute
c. Forty letters per minute
d. Fifty letters per minute
2000. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do afterreporting the discharge?
a. Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.
b. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
c. Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.
d. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
2001. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat"by applying the __________.
a. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along thevessel's sides and transom for each passenger
b. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet ofdeck space available for passenger use
c. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for eachpassenger to rest his/her buttocks upon
d. Any or a combination of the above criteria
DPKP
2002. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility
of the __________.
a. Master and Second Mate
b. Master and Chief Engineer
c. Master and union delegate
d. Master and Chief Mate
2003. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has beencontrolled by using a sterile dressing and direct
pressure. What should you do next?
a. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
b. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
c. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic
d. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood
2004. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

a. Concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
b. Concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
c. Evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
d. Concentrated and with the double bottoms full
2005. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

a. Concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
b. Concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
c. Evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
d. Concentrated and with the double bottoms full
2006. You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On board is the cargo listeWhat is the height above the main deck of
the center of gravity of the cargo? ST-0003
a. 2.15 feet
b. 1.83 feet
c. 1.64 feet
d. 1.19 feet
DPKP
2007. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to__________.
a. Control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
b. Allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
c. Release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode
d. Allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
2008. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
__________.
a. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
b. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
c. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
d. Starvation
2009. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

a. It is more effective than CO2.
b. It leaves no residue.
c. It is noncorrosive.
d. It is always non-toxic
2010. On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered semi-portable?

a. A-II
b. C-II
c. B-III
d. All of the above
2011. One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is

accomplished by __________.
a. Installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port
b. Keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage
c. Eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed
d. Trapping and/or poisoning the rats
DPKP
2012. In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by
__________.
a. Applying direct pressure to the wound
b. Submerging the wound in lukewarm water
c. Cooling the wound with ice
d. Applying a tourniquet
2013. The signal T 0735 means __________.

a. The Greenwich mean time is 0735
b. The zone time is 0735
c. The latitude is 7° 35'
d. The longitude is 7° 35'
2014. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of
lumber, you should __________.
a. Maximize your deck load
b. Distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per unit of weightare in the upper holds
c. Place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
d. Keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
possible you should __________.
a. Call for assistance
b. Abandon ship to windward
c. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
d. Keep going at half speed
2016. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

a. The canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes
b. The pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessiveair pressure
c. Deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
d. The entrance curtains should never be opened
DPKP
2017. If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be indicated by__________.
a. D120380
b. D801203
c. D031280
d. D800312
2018. According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be dispensed with if the__________.
a. Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a sister vessel
b. Projected cost is unreasonable
c. Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available
d. Vessel is of a proven design
2019. On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are considered semi portablewhen they have a gross weight of more than
__________.
a. 55 pounds
b. 75 pounds
c. 95 pounds
d. 125 pounds
2020. Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its possessions, the
responsible person from the vessel should determine that the source __________.
a. Is used by a city
b. Has been treated with chlorine
c. Is approved by the Public Health Service
d. Is not from surface water
2021. Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.

a. Applying direct pressure to the wound
b. Heavy application of a disinfectant
c. Pouring ice water directly onto the wound
d. Pinching the wound closed
DPKP
2022. A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this draft, the displacement is6780 tons. The length of the vessel is 450 feet,
beam is 50 feet, and TPI is 45.5.What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the Stability DataReference Book)
a. 28 feet
b. 26 feet
c. 22 feet
d. 12 feet
2023. Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?

a. It has a small GM.
b. It pitches heavily.
c. It has an unusually high center of gravity.
d. Its period of roll is short.
2024. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendicularstaken at the forward-most and the after-most
points on a small passenger vessel'swaterline at her deepest operating draft?
a. LBP
b. LOA
c. LWL
d. LLL
2025. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

a. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
b. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it.
c. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflate
d. All of the above
DPKP
2026. When signaling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be used to indicate a(n)__________.
a. Affirmative statement
b. Question
c. Change from affirmative to negative
d. Request for the identity signal of the receiving stations
2027. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution preventionregulations?
a. Petroleum and fuel oil
b. Sludge
c. Oil mixed with dredge spoil
d. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
2028. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station
No. "1", "2", "3", et The height of the letters and figures must be at least__________.
a. 1/2 inch
b. 1 inch
c. 1-1/2 inches
d. 2 inches
2029. What represents poor sanitary procedures?

a. Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water.
b. Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.
c. Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.
d. After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water ofat least 170°F (76.7°C).
2030. The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.

a. Direct pressure on the wound
b. Elevating the wounded area
c. Pressure on a pressure point
d. A tourniquet above the wound
DPKP
2031. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.
a. Determine the location of the metacentre
b. Determine the lightweight centre of gravity location
c. Verify the hydrostatic data
d. Verify data in the vessel's operating manual
2032. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll to a stiff vessel?
a. Concentrate weights on upper decks
b. Add weight near the centreline of the lower hold
c. Move weights lower in the ship
d. Ballast the peak tanks
2033. Where will you find the requirements for the lights that must be displayed on a
mobile offshore drilling unit that is being towed?
a. Notice to Mariners
b. COLREGS
c. Coast Pilot
d. Light List
2034. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
a. Use different fire hose pressures
b. Use fire hoses of different sizes
c. Not attack the fire from opposite sides
d. Not wear protective clothing
2035. Which signal given by flashing light changes a statement into a question?
a. C
b. RQ
c. N
d. NO
DPKP
2036. As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken steps to stop thedischarge of oil or oily mixture into a U.S. harbour,
what must he do FIRST?
a. Rig a boom for recovery.
b. Call the Coast Guar
c. Alert the fire department.
d. Inform the Environmental Protection Agency.
2037. The term "gross tonnage" refers to __________.

a. The weight of the vessel measured in long tons
b. The weight of a vessel with all tanks full
c. The weight of a grossly overloaded vessel
d. The vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed spaces lesscertain exempt spaces
2038. Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.
a. Fire-main system
b. Feed-water system
c. Freshwater sanitary system
d. Domestic water tank
2039. A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should__________.
a. Be assisted in walking around
b. Be examined then walked to a bunk
c. Not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
d. Not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

Menerapkan kepemimpinan dan manajerial (Use of leadership
and managerial )
1. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:

A. Concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively
B. All information reagrding the onboard training is given to the ship manager
C. All personnel participate in the training at the same time
D. Safety equipment is not used during the training
2. Master of every ship must provide:

A. A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore
B. Facilities to conduct training whenever required by the training officer
C. Proper rest to the crew after each training programme
D. The training during crews working hours only
3. Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:

A. It is an integral part of the overall training plan
B. It does not contravene with the rest hours of the crew
C. Each crew member is trained individually
DPKP
4. The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which
of the three main categories:
A. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and compensation
B. Maritime Safety, STCW, Maritime Security
C. Safety, Terrorism, ILO
D. There are no conentions that fall under IMO
5. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
A. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
B. Strict and authoritative while giving orders
C. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members
D. Give authority to others
6. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?

A. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew
B. It will prevent accidents from happening
C. It encourages crew to extend their contract
D. Crew comes to know each others problems
7. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?

A. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic
condition
B. To search for any contraband goods hidden on board It is a requirement as per flag state
C. To check for alcohol in cabins All necessary information for the next port of call should
be:Procured before departure from a port
D. Procured during the voyage prior arrival at the next port
E. Procured on arrival at the next port Requested on email
DPKP
8. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:
A. The fastest means available
B. The Telex to have a record
C. The email to save cost
D. The Sat-C
9. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest
full and proper attention he should:
A. Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
B. Report the matter to the harbour Master
C. Report to the vessel P & I club
D. Change the agent
10. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, as per present regulation, the
USCG requires:
A. 96 hours notice of arrival
B. 72 hours notice of arrival
C. 48 hours notice of arrival
D. 24 hour notice of arrival
11. Prior to ordering stores for any department;

A. The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items required
B. Consult the ISSA catalogue to ascertain what stores are available for ordering
C. Consult the ISSA catalogue and order whatever is available but not on board
D. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered

12. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained in order to:
A. Control the ship's budget
B. Order the required stores
C. Report to the office
D. Show to the port authorities
13. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible
treatment:
A. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications
B. Because you always have some faults in arrival/departure documents
C. Because the ship's trading certificate are not normally in order
D. Because you have undeclared dutiable items in excess of permitted on board
14. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be
found in:
A. The Ship's emergency contingency manual
B. Vessel health, safety and environment manual
C. Vessel operation manual
D. Radio log book
15. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
A. Master
B. Chief Engineer
C. Chief Officer
D. Chief Steward
DPKP
16. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on board a
vessel?
A. Ship's Office
B. Master's cabin
C. On the bridge
D. Telly clerk room
17. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
A. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
B. All arrival and departure time from port
C. All cases concerning cargo shortages
D. All near misses
18. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?

A. Leaders are born not made.
B. Great men rise up in times of crisis.
C. We can learn from the biographies of great leaders.
D. A great leader is only great in certain situations.
19. In leadership trait theory what is a trait?

A. A list of the things that make leaders different to everyone else.
B. A list of the key things that a leader should do to be great.
C. The list of key behaviours a leader exhibits.
D. A list of key characteristics that makes a leader great.
20. What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviourism?

A. Antecedents-behaviour-consequences
B. Attitude-behaviour-conclusions
C. Aptitude-behaviour-consequences
D. Antecents-behaviour-conditioning
DPKP
21. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
A. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
B. Provides clear instructions to the followers so that they know what they are doing.
C. Knows what their strengths are and makes the most out of them.
D. Spends time with their followers and therefore listens and responds to their needs.
22. A transactional leader is one who:

A. Inspires people and has strong interactions with them
B. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants
C. Is the ideal form of leadership
D. Works for long-term goals of the organization
23. What is a transformational leader?

A. Someone who is involved in organizational change.
B. A leader, like Taylor, who provided new ways of carrying out management.

C. A leader who inspires the workers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better
future.
D. A leader who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what they do.
24. What is post-heroic leadership theory?

A. A theory which states that there is too much emphasis on leaders and more attention
should be placed on followers.
B. A theory looking beyond current leadership styles to new, more creative ways of leading.
C. A theory which tries to create new organizations which do not need leaders.
D. A theory which tries to find the ideal form of leadership.
DPKP
25. What is the social construction of leadership?
A. The view that all leadership is social and what matters is how leaders interact with others.
B. Leadership is a made up idea that therefore we should pay more attention to more significant
aspects of the organization.
C. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the followers.
D. Leadership is something that the leader constructs as they meet with others.
26. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional aspects of leadership is
false?
A. Leaders can use rational techniques and/or emotional appeals in order to influence followers
B. Leadership includes actions and influences based only on reason and logic
C. Aroused feelings can be used either positively or negatively
D. Good leadership involves touching others‘ feelings
27. To many, the word management suggests

A. Dynamism
B. Risk-taking
C. Efficiency
D. Creativity
28. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with

A. Consistency
B. Planning
C. Paperwork
D. Change
DPKP
29. This is a conventional distinction made between managers and leaders.
A. Managers maintain while leaders develop
B. Managers innovate while leaders administer
C. Managers inspire while leaders control
D. Managers originate while leaders imitate
28. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is false?
A. Leadership is a value-laden, activity, management is not
B. Leaders focus on risk taking; managers perform functions such as planning and controlling
C. Leaders are thought to do things right, managers do the right things
D. Leaders develop, managers maintainunit 1 Examination 29 Leadership
29. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?
A. Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of overlap
B. A good leader can be a good manager, but the reverse is never true
C. Leadership and management are not related
D. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all practical purposes
30. What best describes the leader-follower relationship?

A. The relationship is a one-way street
B. Leadership and followership are the same thing
C. Leadership and followership merge and are linked concepts
D. It is based on the idea of ‗one-man leadership‘
31. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all of the following except
A. Honest
B. Competent
C. Forward-looking
D. Cooperative

32. According to a survey research by Judith Rosener, in terms of their leadership xperiences,
A. Women tended to describe themselves in transactional terms
B. Men tended to describe themselves in somewhat transformational terms
C. Men influenced others primarily in terms of personal characteristics
D. Women helped subordinates develop commitment for broader goals than their own self-
interest
33. What term did Rosener coin to describe how some women leaders encouraged participation and
shared power and information, but went far beyond what is commonly thought of as participative
management?
A. Autocratic leadership
B. Laissez faire leadership
C. Interactive leadership
D. Transactional leadershipunit 1 Examination 30 Leadership
34. Women leaders‘ interactive leadership style developed

A. Due to their socialization experiences and career paths
B. Because of exchanges with subordinates for services rendered
C. By influencing others primarily through their organizational position and authority
D. Because of their organizational position
35. According to female executives, what is the major factor that prevents senior female executives
from advancing to corporate leadership?
A. Lack of significant general management
B. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
C. Inhospitable corporate culture
D. Exclusion from informal networks
E. DPKP
36. According to female executives. Which of the following factors least prevents women from
advancing to corporate leadership?
A. Women not being in the pipeline long enough
B. Exclusion from informal networks
C. Inhospitable corporate culture
D. Lack of significant line experience

37. Most male ceos attribute the paucity of women in corporate leadership roles to which of the
following?
A. Exclusion from informal networks
B. Women not in pipeline long enough .
C. Male stereotyping and preconceptions
D. Inadequacies in the quality of experience for the top spots
38. According to a recent study, one of the general factors that explains the shift toward more women
leaders is that women themselves have change It is evident in all except:
A. A trend toward less stereotypically masculine characterizations of leadership
B. Women‘s aspirations and attitudes have become less similar to those of men over time
C. A legislation prohibiting gender-based discrimination at work
D. Changes in organizational norms that put a higher priority on results than an ―old boyǁ
network
39. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to important leadership positions
is evidence of the fact that
A. Culture has changed
B. Women themselves have changed
C. Leadership roles have changed
D. Organizational practices have changed
DPKP
40. Which of the following statements concerning the reflection component of the AOR model is
false?
A. Leaders are always aware of the value of reflection in leadership development
B. It is the most neglected component of the AOR model
C. It can provide leaders with a variety of insights into how to frame problems differently
D. A reason for the reflection component to be neglected often may be due to time pressure at
work
41. What describes a kind of learning between the individual and the environment in which learners
seek relatively little feedback that may significantly confront their fundamental ideas or actions?
A. Deutero-learning
B. Double loop learning
C. Triple-loop learning
D. Single-loop learning
42. Confronting one‘s beliefs, inviting others to challenge you and working on personal blind spots are
aspects of the process of
A. Attribution
B. Double-loop learning
C. Self-fulfilling prophecy
D. Single-loop learning
43. Mastering _____ can be thought of as learning how to learn.

A. Double-loop learning
B. Single-loop learning
C. Deutero-learning
D. Triple-loop learningunit 1 Examination 32
DPKP
44. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue of their
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Technical proficiency
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Intercultural competence
45. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights through close association with
an experienced person willing to take one under his/her wing. Such an individual is often called a
A. Supervisor
B. Facilitator
C. Role model
D. Mentor
46. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to socialize
and encourage younger organizational colleagues is called
A. Evaluating
B. Consulting
C. Mentoring
D. Networking
47. How are mentorees benefited in a mentoring relationship?

A. By gaining an influential ally and by learning about the subtler aspects of organizational
ethics
B. By the greater influence they accrue by having former mentorees in various positions across
the organization
C. By having a younger replacement ready to fill their position if they are promoted
D. By encouraging younger colleagues in the organization
DPKP
48. What is seen as an investment that can help change counterproductive behavior, often
interpersonal, that threatens to derail an otherwise valued manager?
A. Mentoring
B. Executive coaching
C. Team building
D. Change management
49. The proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook is to __________.

A. Erase the entry and rewrite
B. Draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
C. Completely black out the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
D. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
50. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for
drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine.
Which action should the Master take?
A. Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent.
B. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.
C. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.
D. Pay the seaman's fine.
51. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign port and
fails to return. The first report you make should be to the __________.
A. Customs Service
B. Immigration Service
C. Local police
D. OCMI
DPKP
52. Your vessel is on an extended foreign voyage. Several vacancies have occurred in your unlicensed
crew through sickness and repatriation. Which statement is correct?
A. Aliens may be employed except that all U.S. flag vessels must maintain no less than 90% U.S.
citizens in the crew.
B. Qualified aliens may be employed to fill the vacancies.
C. Seamen to fill vacancies must be flown from U.S. to join the vessel in the foreign port.
D. Vacancies can only be filled by U.S. citizens with valid Merchant Mariner's Documents.
53. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul, a seaman becomes violent
prior to sailing. The Master should __________.
A. Call local police, put the seaman in prison ashore, and sail the vessel
B. Pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to the original port of
signing on in the U.S.
C. Put the seaman in irons and sail to the next port where there is an American Consul
D. Send the seaman ashore and arrange with the agent to repatriate him by armed guard
54. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.
A. Intoxicated
B. The vessel is overloaded
C. There is a change of home port
D. There is a change of Master
DPKP
55. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the vessel is being sold to foreign
interests. The new owners request that the crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under these
circumstances, the crew __________.
A. Has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original port of
engagement
B. Must remain on board
C. Must comply with the decision made by the Master
D. Must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a mutually agreed upon
port
56. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be used following a serious
marine incident?
A. Qualified medical personnel
B. The marine employer
C. The U.S. Coast Guard
D. The local police department
57. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will be made by __________.
A. The Master on the Certified Crew List
B. The Master on the Shipping Articles
C. Consul on the Certified Crew List
D. Consul on the Shipping Articles
58. The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety
or Marine Inspection Office as soon as possible?
A. The crew members
B. The Master of the vessel
C. The port authorities
D. All of the above
DPKP
59. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon
discharge from Articles, he should be issued a __________.
A. Letter of service on company letterhead signed and sealed by the master
B. Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a duplicate book
C. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the Commandant
D. Mutual Release (CG-2119), and the articles should be annotated as to the loss
60. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book. Which statement is TRUE?
A. A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book.
B. An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge Form issued to the seaman.
C. If a vessel was on coastwise articles, the record of discharge will be made in the Official
Logbook.
D. The record of entry in the book must be submitted to the Coast Guard
61. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of the __________.
A. Master of the vessel
B. Steamship company
C. Custom Service
D. Coast Guard
62. Which action will take place if a crew member is replaced in a U.S. port after foreign articles have
been signed, and the ship proceeds foreign?
A. The Master will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List but not from
the articles.
B. The name of the new man is added to the articles but not to the Certified Crew List.
C. The U.S. Consul will remove the replaced man's name from the Certified Crew List.
D. The U.S. Consul will add the new man's name to the Certified Crew List.
63. The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a "T-Boat" involved in a marine casualty causing
injury that requires professional medical treatment must __________.
A. Immediately notify the nearest USCG MSO, MIO, or Group Office
B. Keep all voyage records and make them available to Coast Guard investigators
C. File a written report (CG2692) of the casualty within five days
D. All of the above
64. What requires a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death?

A. Collision with a bridge
B. Injury beyond first aid
C. Loss of life
D. All of the above
67. Operators of Uninspected Passenger Vessels are required to keep their Coast
Guard License aboard __________.
A. Only when operating more than one mile from shore
B. Only when operating at night
C. Only when carrying passengers for hire
D. At all times
68. You have completed a Dangerous Cargo Manifest for dangerous cargoes
loaded on boar It should be kept in a conspicuous location __________.
A. In the radio room
B. In the ship's office
C. On or near the bridge
D. Outside the Captain's stateroom
DPKP
2113. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under
most circumstances, this is best done by __________.
A. Stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas
B. Going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter
C. Taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum
to hold that position
D. Maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow
2114. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the
__________.
A. Manifest Certificate
B. Bill of Lading Certificate
C. Certificate of Documentation
D. Official Logbook
2115. The official identification of a vessel is found in the __________.

A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Classification Certificate
C. Load Line Certificate
D. Certificate of Documentation
2116. The term bullwhip effect is most closely related to:

A. Assertive customers
B. Demand variations
C. Inventory turnover
D. Return of inventory
E. Inventory security
2117. Cross docking results in cost savings associated with

A. Dock space
B. Ordering goods
C. Cargo ships
D. Storage space
DPKP
Down time
2118. Which one is not a requirement of effective supply chain management?
A. Low cost
B. Trust
C. Event management
D. Visibility
2119. The term "3PL" is most closely associated with

A. Outsourcing
B. E-commerce
C. Learning curves
D. Mass customization
E. Cross docking
2120. The letters RFID are most closely associated with

A. Outsourcing
B. Tracking items
C. Cross docking
D. Event management
E. None of these.
2121. Which one of these would have a negative impact on inventory costs?
A. Disintermediation
B. Delayed differentiation
C. Cross docking
D. Bullwhip effect
2122. Which one is not a reason for increased emphasis on supply chain management?
A. Increased levels of outsourcing
B. Increased transportation costs
C. Trends towards globalization
D. The need to improve internal operations
DPKP
2123. Which of the following statements concerning manufacturing and
service organizations is generally true?
A. A service facility is more likely to serve national or even
international markets
B. Manufacturing organizations generally find it more difficult to
match capacity with demand
C. In many service organizations customers themselves are inputs to
the transformation processes.
D. Most service organizations can buffer themselves against uncertain
demand by creating inventories and smoothing output levels.
2124. Operations typically differ in terms of volume of output, variety of output,

variation in demand or the degree of ‗visibility‘ (ie, customer contact) that they
give to customers of the delivery process. Please match the following element with
the most appropriate of the above dimensions. Low unit costs are most closely
matched to:-
A. Variety
B. Variation
C. Volume
D. Visibility
2125. Which of the following is an implication of low variety?
A. Low unit cost
B. Flexibility needed
C. High complexity
D. Matching customers specific needs
2126. In a service organisation faced with variable demand the Operations Manager
can help smooth demand by:
A. Using part-time help during peak hours
B. Scheduling work shifts to vary workforce needs according to demand
C. Increase the customer self-service content of the service
D. Using reservations and appointments
DPKP
2127. When developing the operations strategy one of the most important
considerations is that it:
A. Requires minimal capital investment
B. Utilises as much automation as possible
C. Utilises an equal balance of labour and automation
D. Supports the overall competitive strategy of the company
2128. A order qualifying characteristic could be described as :

A. A factor which significantly contributes to winning business
B. A factor which may be of significance in other parts of the organisation
C. A factor which is at a higher level than the standard for the industry
D. A factor which has to achieve a particular level to be considered by the
Customer
2129. Expansion by acquisition of suppliers and customers, illustrates which of the following
strategies
A. Vertical integration strategy
B. Facilities strategy
C. Planning and control systems strategy
D. Supplier development strategy
2130. Process design or redesign is most important when

A. Current performance is adequate
B. You have a significant competitive advantage
C. Competitive priorities have changed
D. The cost of inputs remain stable
2131. Service shops are characterised as which of the following?

A. Some customer contact, a degree of customisation and some staff discretion
B. Project orientated with little customisation
C. Many customer transactions, involving limited contact time
D. High-contact organisations where customers spend a considerable time
in the service process
DPKP
2132. A big advantage of a process layout is
A. Its flexibility
B. Its low cost
C. The ability to employ low-skilled labour
D. Its high equipment utilization
2133. As production systems move from projects to batch production to mass

production to continuous production
A. Processes become more flexible
B. Customer involvement with the process increases
C. Products become more standardised
D. Demand volumes decrease
2134. Which one of the following reactive alternatives would typically be

best to implement a chase strategy for a manufacturing firm?
A. Use creative pricing to modify demand
B. Build anticipation inventory to absorb the variability in demand
C. Increase overtime to satisfy peaks in demand
D. Use promotional campaigns to boost demand
2135. Buffer inventory is required as :

A. One or more stages in the operation cannot supply all the items it produces
simultaneously
B. Material cannot be transported instantaneously between the point of supply
and the point of demand
C. Compensation for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand
D. Compensation for differences in the timing of supply and demand
2136. At a strategic level, the essential role of inventory is to support :

A. Quality, dependability, flexibility, cost and speed
B. Flexibility, dependability and quality
C. Cost and speed
D. Range, speed, flexibility and dependability

DPKP
2137. Where demand is uncertain, a key purchasing objective will be :
A. Fast delivery
B. High quality
C. Low price
D. Dependable delivery
2138. In lean systems, if a defective product if found, which of the following is

generally NOT done?
A. The production line is stopped
B. The defective unit is passed on to the next workstation
C. The defective unit is returned to the worker responsible for creating
the defect
D. The production line is made aware of the problem without stopping the line
2139. Which of the following illustrates an activity that does not add value?
A. Training employees
B. Ordering parts from a supplier
C. Accumulating parts in front of the next work centre
D. Delivering the product to the customer
2140. Job design does not involve which one of the following considerations :
A. How much autonomy should be given to individual employees?
B. What tasks should be allocated?
C. Who should be involved / consulted?
D. Ignoring where the job is located
2141. Within a typical behavioural model of job design, which of the following
would be considered as representing core job characteristics?
A. Task combination / task identity / autonomy
B. Vertical loading / skill variety / output
C. Task identity / task significance / autonomy
D. Cultural advancement / absenteeism / nationality
DPKP
2142. When a worker has a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to
utilise in his/her job is characterised by :
A. Skill variety
B. Job identity
C. Job significance
D. Autonomy
2143. Which of the following is NOT considered effective in achieving and

maintaining service quality?
A. Encouraging service providers to be highly visible in dealing with
customers
B. Establishing peer groups among service providers to foster teamwork and a
sense of pride
C. Installing system of incentives that emphasises quality
D. Increasing supervision of service providers
2144. A quality variable

A. Takes discrete values
B. May be measured on a continuous scale
C. Is continually changing
D. Is highly undesirable
2145. Which of the following is an indirect benefit of improved quality?

A. Improved image
B. Reduced cost of inspection
C. Reduced scrap
D. Reduced inventory
2146. A ‗moment of truth‘ is NOT

A. An opportunity to influence a customer‘s perception of the service quality
B. Critical in achieving a reputation for superior quality
C. When the customer is forming an opinion about the efficiency of the service
D. An interaction between the customer and a service provider
DPKP
2147. Proactive quality management includes the concept of
A. Quality improvement costs more
B. Needing to find out who is responsible for the quality problem
C. Getting the service to the customer as soon as possible
D. Highlighting problems to help solve them
2148. Zero defects in manufacturing

A. Is an unobtainable and misleading ideal
B. Is the goal of TQM
C. Is readily achievable in all areas
D. Is a relevant goal only in electronic assembly
2149. Which of the following represent reasons for globalising operations?

A. To gain improvements in the supply chain
B. To improve operations
C. To expand a product‘s life cycle
D. All of the above
2150. Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager?

A. Understanding the needs of customer
B. Continually learning
C. Managing cash flows
D. Exploiting technology to produce goods and services
2151. Which of the following is not true regarding the differences between goods
and services?
A. Demand for services is easier to forecast
B. Customers participate in many services
C. Services cannot be stored as physical inventory
D. Patents do not protect services

DPKP
2152. Service organizations generally
A. Locate in close proximity to the customer
B. Rely on physical inventory
C. Take advantage of patents
D. Can delegate human behaviour and marketing skills
2153. The following terms - interchangeability of parts, division of labour,

highly repetitive tasks - best focus on ____.
A. Quality
B. Cost and efficiency
C. Quality
D. Time
2154. Which of the following is generally related to service operations?

A. Tangible product
B. Need for flexible capacity
C. Separation of production from consumption
D. Large amount of inventory
2155. Which function typically employs more people than any other functional area?
A. Information Systems
B. Operations
C. Marketing
D. Finance
2156. The ____ of a firm defines its reason for existence.

A. Strategy development
B. Strategic mission
C. Vision statement
D. Value and code of ethics
DPKP
2157. The ____ describes where the organization is headed and what it intends to be.
A. Strategy development
B. Strategic mission
C. Vision statement
D. Value and code of ethics
2158. A company‘s mission statement

A. Is changed quite frequently
B. Helps identify its target customers and competitors
C. Describes in specific terms what the company expects to accomplish
D. Occurs after strategy development
2159. Which of the following statements is false?

A. There are two possible operations objectives (cost and speed).
B. Strategy is concerned with the actions an organization takes in order
to survive and prosper in its environment over the long term.
C. Strategy can exist at three levels in an organization: corporate, business
and functional.
D. An organization‘s operations can be a source of competitive advantage
2160. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
A. Master
B. 3rd Officer
C. Chief Engineer
D. Chief Officer

Pengorganisasian dan pengelolaan alat kelengkapan
penanganan medis di kapal. (Organize and manage the provision of
medical care on board )
1. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the
body. Most damage occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the
treatment of electrical burns?
A. Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage.
B. Break blisters and secure with bandage.
C. Remove loose skin and apply ointment. Don't secure with bandage.
D. Apply lotions and ointment to injured area and secure with a bandage.
2. A diabetic has eaten too little food and the person may feel dizzy and lightheaded.
The skin becomes pale, with profuse sweathing. Limbs may begin to tremble and
pulse becomes rapid. The urine glucose reaction is negative. What kind of medicine
will the person need as soon as possible?
A. sweet.
B. Insuline.
C. A glass of cold milk.
D. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet
3. A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slimhinner become
very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows
positive. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
A. Insulin.
B. A glass of cold milk.
C. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet.
D. Nothing at all.
DPKP
4. A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus)
can upset the regularity of breathing. What is the symptoms and signs?
A. Difficulty in breathing in and the casualty may be unable to speak.
B. The casualty may start sweating profusely and develops a fever.
C. The casualty feel very hungry.
D. The casualty is speaking in a very load manner.
5. A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and

possibly torn, by violent or sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy
weights incorrectly. The treatment of strain may be remembered as the word
RICE.What is RICE an abbreviation for?
A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
B. Right Internal Cooperative Ending.
C. Rest, Injury, Care, Evaluation.
D. Rubber, Internal, Careful, Estimation.
6. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either

superficial or deep, and the affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid
should be given a person with frostbite ?

A. Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in persons opposite
armpit...)
B. Heat the affected area with hot-water bottles.
C. Rub the affected area.
D. Give the casualty a cigarette.
E. PKP
7. Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into
spasm. How can the asthma attacks be triggered off ?
A. Nervous tension,allergy, or none obvious cause.
B. Not keeping the diet
C. Loud music
D. Too much fresh air activity
8. Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals
may be absorbed through the skin and cause widespread and sometimes fatal
damage within the body. What is the first main treatment if someone is a victim of
chemical burns?
A. Remove any contaminated clothing and flood the affected area with slowly running
water.
B. Make sure that the contaminated water drains away freely and safely.
C. Break possible blisters around the eye and mouth.
D. Apply lotions, ointments to the affected area ASAP.
E. The casualty may be free to both rub the eye and the affected area.
9. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the
maximum recommended effective temperature (ET) for full work load in enclosed
spaces?
A. 30.5°C ET?
B. 27.5°C ET?
C. 35.0°C ET?
D. 29.0°C ET?
DPKP
10. How do the human body absorb toxicants?
A. The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment channel
B. The body absorb toxicants through respiration if the leak is big enough
C. The body absorb toxicants only through the aliment channel when eating
D. The body absorb toxicants only if we wear wrong clothes
11. How will you treat a seasick person?

A. Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air.
B. Force him to eat any kind of fat food.
C. Encourage him to drink a lot of lukewarm sea water.
D. Make him swallow seasick pills until he stops vomiting.
12. In which way may intake of poisoning material occur?

A. By inhaling, skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing
B. By skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing
C. By inhaling, skin penetrating and skin absorbing
D. By swallowing

13. Severe pains in the chest occur when the coronary arteries, which supply blood to
the heart, become too narrow for sufficient oxygenated blood to reach the muscles
of the heart. Normally these attacks only last a few minutes, and the pain stops if
the casualty rests. What kind of medicine to be taken when an Angina Pectoris
attack occurs?
A. Nitro glycerine tablets.
B. Petidin.
C. Nitro hydrogen tablets.
D. Chlorocin Phosphate.
DPKP
14. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. sea); can cause damage to
the skin and eyes. What is this type of burn called?
A. Radiation burns.
B. Electrical burns.
C. Dry burns.
D. Cold burns.
15. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns

(also called full-thickness burns) A large burn will almost certainly contain areas of
all three grades. How many per cent of the body may be burned before the danger
of shock occurs?
A. 15 percent.
B. 9 percent.
C. 35 percent.
D. 4 percent.
16. Water Jel is a unique product regarding protection and first aid of burns. Water
Jel is delivered in different sizes. Biggest is a carpet with the size 182cm x 152 cm.
What is the highest temperature the Water Jel carpet is resistant against?
A. 1530 C
B. 2500 C
C. 823 C
D. 414 C
17. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured?

A. Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body
B. Heavy coughing / Medication
C. Body temperature above 39C / Cooling down the body
D. Body temp below 23C / Slowly heat the body
DPKP
18. What is the first sign and symptom of a Cardiac Infarction?
A. Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest.
B. Strong and painful pulse.
C. Skin may be red and loss of movements in the right arm may occur.
D. Possible frothing at the mouth.
19. What is the purpose of a Medico Message?

A. Call an hospital for professional medical assistance by radio when needed.
B. Giving a regular statement of the health of the vessel's crew.
C. Calling the health department in the next port of call and ask for free radio practice.
D. Medico is the certificate which permit the Master to be doctor onboard.
20. Which organs absorb oxygen and part with carbon dioxide?
A. The respiratory organs.
B. The digestive organs.
C. The urine organs.
D. The skin

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TEST – ITEM BANK

FOR DECK OFFICER AT

ANT I PERIOD II 2017

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

2. What should a passage plan include ?

6. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

8. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

14. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by .

16. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?

18. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

22. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is

23. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on .

25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

28. What chart should be used when navigating ?

29. Define the required interval between position fixes.

30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from .

31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published a year.

32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out .

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

35. A voyage passage plan is made from .

38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

45. Spring tides are tides that .

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

46. Mean high water is the reference plane used for .

47. The range of tide is the .

49. Charted depth is the .

51. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate .

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

53. Priming of the tides occurs .

58. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning :

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

64. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?

65. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that .

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

67. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

68. Safe water buoys may show ONLY .

69. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a

70. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean .

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

74. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) .

76. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

83. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a .

84. Tropic tides are caused by the .

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

85. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?

90. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to

ANT I B PERIOD II 2017 HERI AMRAH

93. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?

94. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted .

95. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about .

FOR DECK OFFICER AT