Practice MCAT Test 1

Practice MCAT Test I
http://www.mcatprep.net
Practice MCAT
Test
I
PO3--
O
CH2
+
H N CH
O
H3C OH
Ken Evans, M.Sc., M.D.

Charlene Bramwell, M.Ed.
Reviewed by
Rodney Doyle, Ph.D.
Peter Minns, Ph.D.
Copyright  Ken Evans

MCATPrep.net™ 2005-2007, InstantDollarz Incorporated. All rights reserved.
1
Preface
Practice MCAT Test I is designed to be similar to an actual MCAT exam, both in content and in
presentation. However, in an actual MCAT exam you will be given each test booklet separately, and a
table of contents is not provided. Explanatory answers to this practice test are available from the authors
upon payment of the purchase price. We encourage you to study the answers, even for questions you
have answered correctly. Completing the practice test and studying the answers will help you become
familiar with the exam format and help you review and better understand the MCAT subject areas.
Practice MCAT Test I is offered through the internet for two reasons:
1. there are no printing and shipping costs so the price can be set low; and
2. potential buyers can test-drive before purchasing.
To order the solutions to this practice test, please visit http://www.mcatprep.net .
Practice MCAT Test I is in accordance with the 2003 changes in the MCAT.
Thank you for your interest in our publication and good luck on the MCAT.
Ken Evans
Charlene Bramwell
Cover: Structure of pyridoxal phosphate, which is a derivative of vitamin B6. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme involved in many reactions in the
metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids. A prominent example of its role is in the transamination of amino acids.
2
Contents
Preface 2
Contents 3
Physical Sciences 4
Passage I Electrochemistry
Passage II Electricity
Passage III Hesss Law
Independent Questions
Passage IV Electrophoresis
Passage V Standing Waves
Passage VI Solubility
Passage VII Capacitors
Passage VIII Thermodynamics
Passage IX Refraction
Verbal Reasoning 14
Writing Sample 30
Biological Sciences 31
Passage I Concentrations
Passage II Carbohydrates
Passage III Genetics
Passage IV Organic Synthesis
Passage V Kidneys
Passage VI Extraction
Passage VII Evolution
Passage VIII Alkenes
Passage IX Embryology
Passage X Transamination of Amino Acids
3
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes

Questions: 1-77
Directions: Most questions in the Physical Sciences

test are organized into groups, each preceded by a
descriptive passage. After studying the passage, select
the one best answer to each question. Some questions
are not based on a descriptive passage. You should
also select the one best answer to these independent
questions. A periodic table is provided and you may
consult it whenever you wish.
4
Periodic Table of the Elements
VII VIII
IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA
A A
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 17.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 40.0
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 97.9 101 102 106 107 112 114 118 121 127 126 131
57--
55 56 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
71
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
bel-
132 137 178 180 183 186 190 192 195 197 200 204 207 209 209 210 222
ow
89-
87 88 104 105 106 107 108 109
103
Fr Ra bel-
Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
223 226
ow
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
138 140 140 144 144 150 152 157 158 162 164 167 168 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
227 232 231 238 237 244 243 247 247 251 252 257 258 259 262
5
Passage I 5. A voltaic cell is set up with F2/F- as one half cell and Br2/
Br - as the other. What is the voltage of the cell at
Below is a table showing some Standard State Reduction standard state?
Potentials. A. 3.96 V
B. 1.78 V
Half reaction E (V) C. 1.09 V
F2 + 2e- → 2F- 2.87 D. 2.87 V
Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl- 1.36
Br2 + 2e- → 2Br- 1.09 6. NaCl is melted in a beaker and electrolysis carried out.
Ag+ + e - → Ag 0.80 What is the minimum potential difference required to
Fe3+ + e - → Fe 2+ 0.77 separate sodium and chlorine?
Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu 0.34 A. -4.07 V
2H+ + 2e- → H 2 0.00 B. -1.36 V
Pb 2+ + 2e- → Pb -0.13 C. 1.36 V
Ni 2+ + 2e- → Ni -0.25 D. 4.07 V
Zn2+ + 2e - → Zn -0.76
Na+ + e- → Na -2.71 7. If standard state oxidation potentials are used instead
of standard state reduction potentials and the half
1. What should happen when a piece of copper is placed reactions are listed in descending order, which one of
in 1M HCl? the following would be true?
A. The copper is dissolved by the acid. A. the lead reaction would be above the silver reaction
B. The copper is dissolved by the acid with the release B. the fluorine reaction would be above the chlorine
of hydrogen gas. reaction
C. The copper bursts into greenish flames. C. the iron reaction would be above the nickel reaction
D. Nothing happens. D. the hydrogen reaction would be below the copper
reaction
2. What should happen when a piece of lead is placed in
1M HCl? Passage II
A. The lead is dissolved by the acid.
B. The lead begins to dissolve with the release of A student is provided with a variety of electrical components
hydrogen gas. and asked to perform certain tasks.
C. The lead bursts into flames.
D. Nothing happens. 8. She is provided with three 2 Ω resistors. How many
different total resistances can be produced if all the
3. How many voltaic cells with a voltage greater than 2V resistors must be used in a circuit?
can be made using the standard half-cell reactions A. 3
listed? B. 4
A. 11 C. 5
B. 9 D. 6
C. 17
D. 15 9. What are the minimum and maximum total resistances
produced above?
4. Suppose that the half-cell reaction Ni2+ + 2e- → Ni is A. 0.67 Ω and 3 Ω
assigned to have a potential of 0.00 V The standard B. 1 Ω and 6 Ω
reduction potential for the reduction of Br2 would be? C. 1.33 Ω and 6 Ω
A. 1.34 V D. 0.67 Ω and 6 Ω
B. 0.84 V
C. 1.09 V 10. What is the total resistance of two 2 Ω resistors in parallel
D. 1.25 V connected to a third 2 Ω resistor in series?
A. 6 Ω
B. 1 Ω
C. 3 Ω
D. 1.33 Ω
6
11. The student connects three 2 µF capacitors in parallel. ∆ Hf

What is the total capacitance? (kJ/mol of product)
A. 0.67 µF C(s) + O2(g) → CO 2(g) -394
B. 6 µF Mg(s) + 1/2O2(g) → MgO(s) -602
C. 1.5 µF Mg(s) + C (s) + 3/2O2(g) → MgCO3(s) -1,096
D. 3 µF
12. The capacitors in parallel above are connected to a 6V 16. What is the approximate ∆H for the combustion of
d.c. voltage supply. What is the current in the circuit? ethyne in oxygen (per mole of ethyne)?
A. 0 A A. -996 kJ/mol
B. 1 A B. 996 kJ/mol
C. 1,000,000 A C. 1,992 kJ/mol
D. 2 A D. 1,992 kJ/mol
13. The capacitors in parallel above are connected to an 17. Which of the following has a ∆Hf of zero?
a.c. voltage of frequency 1 MHz. What is the A. H (g)
impedance? B. I2(g)
A. 1/(6π) Ω C. Hg (l)
B. 1/(2π) Ω D. CO(g)
C. 1/(12π) Ω
D. 1/(24π) Ω 18. Which of the following describes a reaction for which
∆H is equal to ∆Hf of the product?
14. The rms voltage of this circuit is 4 V. What is the rms I. 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
current? II. Mg (s) + C(s) + 3/2O2(g) → MgCO3(s)
A. 48π A III. MgO (s) + CO2(g) → MgCO3(s)
B. 24π A A. I and II
C. 40π A B. I and III
D. 3π A C. II and III
D. I only
15. A 2 milliHenry inductor is connected to an a.c. voltage
of frequency 1 MHz. What is the impedance? 19.What is ∆H for the reaction below?
A. 2,000π Ω MgO (s) + CO2(g) → MgCO3(s)
B. 4,000π Ω A. 2,092 kJ/mol
C. 400π Ω B. -2,092 kJ/mol
D. 40,000π Ω C. 100 kJ/mol
D. -100 kJ/mol
Passage III
20. Hesss law is valid because enthalpy is a state function.
Hesss law is used to predict the heat energy released or Which of the following is not a state function?
consumed in chemical reactions. It states that the enthalpy A. Volume
change is the same regardless of whether a reaction occurs B. Internal energy
in one step or in several steps. C. Work*
D. Entropy
Below are some bond dissociation energies and enthalpies
of formation. 21. What is the formal charge on the carbon atom in the
∆H (kJ/mol) carbonate ion?
C-H 415 A. 0
O-H 464 B. 1
O=O 498 C. 2
C=O 745 D. -2
C-C triple bond 837
7
Questions 87 to 92 are independent of any passage. 28. Glycine is predominantly deprotonated at

A. pH > 2.3
22. If the length of a pendulum is doubled, the period B. pH > 6.0
A. doubles. C. pH > 7.0
B. quadruples. D. pH > 9.6
C. triples.
D. increases by √2. 29. Which functional group in glycine is the strongest acid?
A. -NH 3 +
23. If the mass of a pendulum is doubled, the frequency B. -COOH
A. doubles. C. -CH2-
B. halves. D. None of the above
C. remains the same.
D. cannot be determined with the information given. 30. At which pHs does glycine exhibit the most buffering
effect?
24. In the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), the entropy A. 6.0 and 9.6
A. increases. B. 2.3 and 6.0
B. remains the same. C. 2.3 and 9.6
C. decreases. D. 6.0 and 7.4
D. cannot be determined with the information given.
31. The pH of cytoplasm is about 7.2. Which form of glycine
25. When the reaction N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) → 2NH 3(g) is at predominates in cytoplasm?
equilibrium, the reaction is far to the right. The forward A. H 3N +-CH 2-COO -
reaction must be B. H 2N-CH2-COOH
A. ectoplasmic. C. H 3N +-CH 2-COOH
B. exothermic. D. H 2N-CH2-COO -
C. endothermic.
D. endergonic. 32. A small quantity of glycine is placed in a buffer solution
of pH 2.0 and an electrical field is applied. What will
26. A man travels to a planet that has twice the radius of the happen to the glycine sample?
earth and twice the mass. His weight, compared to his A. It will migrate to the anode.
weight on earth, is B. It will migrate to the cathode.
A. double. C. It will not migrate.
B. triple. D. It will migrate, but in an unpredictable direction.
C. half.
D. cannot be determined with the information given. 33. The structure of glutamic acid is shown below.
O O
27. With the relevant standard state reduction potentials
and use of the Nernst Equation, one could calculate HO OH
I. solubility products NH2
II. equilibrium constants of reactions
III. the voltages of cells which are not in standard It has the following pKas:
states -COOH pKa = 2.2
A. I and II -CH2-CH2-COOH pKa = 4.7
B. I and III -NH 3 + pKa = 9.7
C. II and III The isoelectric point of glutamic acid is
D. All are true A. between pHs 2 and 3.
B. between pHs 3 and 4.
Passage IV C. between pHs 4 and 5.
D. between pHs 5 and 6.
Glycine is an amino acid with the formula H2N-CH 2-COOH.
The pKa of the -COOH group is 2.3 and the pK a of the -
NH3+ group is 9.6. The isoelectric point is at pH 6.0.
8
Passage V 40.Two electronic sound sources are placed in a room. One

emits a sound of frequency of 293 Hz and amplitude 4
A 50 cm long hollow glass cylinder open at both ends is units, the other 297 Hz and 10 units. What is the
held in the air. A device that produces pure tones is placed frequency of the beats produced? (Here amplitude is
adjacent to one end. The frequency of the sound is initially measured in arbitrary units at a certain equidistant point
set very low then increased gradually. At a frequency of 320 in the room.)
Hz, the tube resonates. A. 8 Hz
B. 590 Hz
34. What is the speed of sound in air during this experiment? C. 2 Hz
A. 320 m/s D. 4 Hz
B. 640 m/s
C. 330 m/s 41. A third sound source is added with a frequency of 300
D. 160 m/s Hz and amplitude 3 units. What is the minimum
instantaneous amplitude produced as a result of all three
35.The frequency is increased until resonance occurs again. sound sources operating at the same time?
What is this frequency? A. 9 units
A. 320 Hz B. 3 units
B. 960 Hz C. 11 units
C. 640 Hz D. 2 units
D. 1,280 Hz
Passage VI
36.What is the next higher frequency at which resonance
will occur? The concept of solubility is very important in chemistry.
A. 1,920 Hz Central to calculations regarding solubility is the solubility
B. 960 Hz product (Ksp ), which for a salt is the product of the
C. 990 Hz concentrations of the ions in a saturated solution, with each
D. 480 Hz concentration raised to a power equal to the coefficient of
that ion in the balanced equation for the solubility
37.The end of the cylinder farthest away from the sound equilibrium.
source is sealed with a glass cap. What are the three
lowest resonant frequencies? (Assume the speed of 42. A beaker contains equal concentrations of Mn2+ and
sound is 340 m/s) Ni2+ ions. It is found that NiS can be selectively
A. 150 Hz, 510 Hz, 850 Hz precipitated by adding a certain quantity of K2S to the
B. 170 Hz, 610 Hz, 850 Hz beaker. If the Ksp of NiS is 3.2 x 10-19, the Ksp of MnS must
C. 170 Hz, 510 Hz, 870 Hz be
D. 170 Hz, 510 Hz, 850 Hz A. less than 3.2 x 10-19
B. greater than 3.2 x 10-19
38.The setup in the previous question is placed in a chamber C. 3.2 x 10-19
filled with helium. What happens to the respective D. This cannot be determined with the information
resonant frequencies? provided.
A. They remain the same.
B. They increase. 43. MgF2(s) is added to a beaker of water until there is an
C. They decrease. amount at the bottom that will not dissolve. What is the
D. Some increase while others decrease. concentration of F- (Ksp of MgF2 is 6.5 x 10-9)?
A. 2.4 x 10-3 M
39.The setup in the previous question is now subjected to a B. 1.6 x 10-9 M
20 K decrease in temperature. What happens to the C. 2.4 x 10-4 M
respective resonant frequencies? D. 1.2 x 10-3 M
A. They remain the same.
B. They increase.
C. They decrease.
D. Some increase while others decrease.
9
Passage VII
44. What is the concentration of F- in the above solution if
MgCl2 is added so that the final concentration of Mg2+ The space shuttle is conducting an experiment with a large
is 0.1 M? parallel plate capacitor in the vacuum and weightlessness
A. 0.05 M of outer space.
B. 5.0 x 10-4 M
C. 5.0 x 10-3 M 50. A d.c. voltage of 12 V is applied across the plates. The
D. 2.5 x 10-4 M capacitance is 1.5 F. What is the charge on each plate?
A. 12 C
Questions 110 to 114 are independent of any passage. B. 18 C
C. 8 C
45. A police car is travelling towards you at 50 m/s. Its D. 0.8 C
siren is emitting a sound of 400 Hz. You are travelling in
the opposite direction to the police car at 20 m/s. What 51. When the plates are moved farther apart
is the frequency of the sound you hear (velocity of A. voltage decreases and the charge on each plate
sound in air is 330 m/s)? decreases.
A. 470 Hz B. voltage decreases and the charge on each plate
B. 485 Hz remains the same.
C. 450 Hz C. voltage remains the same and the charge on each
D. 500 Hz plate remains the same.
D. voltage remains the same and the charge on each
46. Referring to the previous question, what is the plate decreases.
frequency you hear after you pass each other?
A. 326 Hz 52. A thick sheet of glass (which acts as a dielectric) is
B. 500 Hz placed between the plates. The potential difference and
C. 400 Hz charge on each plate should
D. 375 Hz A. remain the same and increase, respectively.
B. remain the same and decrease, respectively.
47. A cannon is angled so that for every 4 feet traveled C. remain the same in both cases.
horizontally, it goes up vertically 3 feet. When a shell is D. increase in both cases.
fired, the speed on leaving the muzzle is 500 m/s. How
far does the shell travel (ignore air resistance)? 53. If the area of each plate is tripled
A. 20 km A. capacitance remains the same, while electric field
B. 18 km intensity increases.
C. 12 km B. capacitance and electric field intensity remain the
D. 24 km same.
C. capacitance is tripled, while electric field intensity
48. A 10 kg block is accelerated at 2 m/s2 up a frictionless remains the same.
plane inclined at 30 degrees to the horizontal. The force D. capacitance and electric field intensity are tripled.
acting parallel to the plane pushing the block upwards
is 54. An astronaut takes a hollow metallic ball out of a pouch
A. 100 N and, by means of electrostatic induction, gives it a net
B. 25 N positive charge of 2 C. What is the electric field
C. 50 N intensity inside the ball when it is between the plates
D. 70 N and far away from the plates, respectively?
A. 2 N/C and 6 N/C
49. When a 5B 8 atom decays by the emission of a positron, B. cannot be determined with the information
the resultant atom is provided and 0 N/C
A. 4Be8 C. 6 N/C and 2 N/C
B. 6C 8 D. cannot be determined with the information
C. 5B8 provided.
D. 3Li4
10
55. The ball is taken far away from the plates. What is the Compound ∆Hfo (kJ/mol) So (J/mol-K)
electric field intensity at a point 4 m away from the N2(g) 0 192
center of the ball? H2(g) 0 131
A. k/4 N/C NH3(g) -46 192
B. k/2 N/C
C. k/6 N/C 60. What is ∆Ho for the reaction,
D. k/8 N/C N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g) ?
A. -46 kJ
56. The astronaut now adjusts the capacitor plates so that B. -92,000 J
they are 3 m apart. The voltage is still 12 V Another ball C. 0 J
that has a negligible radius, a net positive charge of 2 C, D. 138 kJ
and a mass of 100 g is held inside the capacitor against
the positive plate. It is then released. What is the kinetic 61. What is ∆So for the reaction,
energy of the ball when it reaches the negative plate? N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g) ?
A. 12 J A. -201 J/K
B. 6 J B. -192 J/K
C. 24 J C. -131 J/K
D. 36 J D. 201 J/K
57. What is the force acting on the ball? 62. At 25oC, the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ↔ 2 NH3(g) is
A. 8 N A. spontaneous.
B. 4 N B. not spontaneous.
C. 16 N C. rapid.
D. The force will vary depending on its relative D. slow.
position between the plates
63. If the temperature is increased, the equilibrium position
58. What will happen to the force on the ball and its kinetic of the reaction should
energy if the voltage is doubled? A. increase.
A. They quadruple. B. stay the same.
B. They double. C. shift to the left.
C. They stay the same. D. shift to the right.
D. Force is doubled; kinetic energy is quadrupled.
64. At 25oC, myoglobin is a globular protein. At high enough
59. The voltage is turned back down to 12 V Another metal temperatures, however, it will become denatured as in
ball of mass 500 g is now given a net positive charge of the following reaction,
2 C and held at the positive plate. It is then released and globular myglobin → denatured myoglobin
it accelerates to the negative plate. What is its kinetic Given that ∆H = -175 kJ/mol and ∆S = -397 J/mol,
energy when it reaches the negative plate? what is the minimum temperature at which globular
A. 24 J myoglobin will become denatured?
B. 120 J A. 43oC
C. 4.8 J B. 97oC
D. 12 J C. 126oC
D. 168oC
Passage VIII
Passage IX
Chemical reactions can be viewed from a thermodynamic
perspective. Changes in enthalpy (∆H) and entropy (∆S) A biologist is studying the ecology of a lake. He uses a
are the two driving forces that determine whether a reaction glass-bottomed boat, an ordinary camera, two magnifying
is spontaneous. Gibbs free energy (∆G) combines these glasses, and a compound microscope for his study. In
two factors in one equation, preparing for his project, he assembled the following data.
∆G = ∆H - T ∆S n
vacuum water
= 1.33
n
vacuum glass
= 1.5
n
vacuum microscope oil
= 1.5
focal length of camera lens = 5 cm
focal length of each magnifying glass = 12 cm
11
65. When light travels from air to water, 72. He collects specimens in containers and examines one
A. its frequency increases. of them under the microscope in the laboratory. At a
B. its frequency decreases. magnification of 1,000 he finds that although the image
C. its wavelength increases. is larger, the level of detail is not improved (i.e. there
D. its wavelength decreases. is empty magnification). He decides to use the
technique of oil immersion to increase the resolution
66. What is waternglass? (i.e. the small space between the objective lens and
A. 1.42 the slide cover slip is filled with oil). Oil immersion
B. 0.89 increases the resolving power by
C. 1.125 A. filtering out scattered light.
D. 1.00 B. acting as another lens, magnifying the image even
more.
67. What is the maximum angle of incidence at the water/ C. decreasing the wavelength of light entering the
glass interface for a light ray to be seen by the biologist aperture of the objective lens.
on board the boat? D. increasing the frequency of light entering the
A. sin-1 0.67 aperture of the objective lens.
B. sin-1 0.75
C. sin-1 1 Questions 138 to 142 are independent of any passage.
D. sin-1 0
73. A 20 kg child is playing on a swing of negligible mass. It
68. He photographs some geese 5 m away. In order to have is attached to its pivot point with two 3 m ropes. The
a focused image, what must be the distance between maximum speed of the child during a swing cycle is
the lens and the film in the camera? found to be 3 m/s. What is the maximum tension in each
A. 7 cm rope?
B. 8 cm A. 200 N
C. slightly less than 5 cm B. 260 N
D. slightly more than 5 cm C. 60 N
D. 130 N
69. He examines a butterfly that has landed on the boat.
With the magnifying glass held 4 cm from the butterfly, 74. A brick is resting on a concrete surface. Which of the
what is the magnification obtained? following is true?
A. 1.5 I. the force required to overcome static friction
B. 3 is greater than the force required to overcome
C. 12 dynamic friction
D. 18 II. the force required to overcome dynamic
friction is greater than the force required to
70. He places the two magnifying glasses in contact with overcome static friction
each other. The combined focal length is III. friction is proportional to the component of
A. 4 cm. weight acting normally on the surface
B. 24 cm. A. All are correct.
C. 12 cm. B. I and II are correct.
D. 6 cm. C. I and III are correct.
D. II and III are correct.
71. He examines an underwater object by immersing a
magnifying glass in the water. The focal length of the 75. In the context of electrochemistry, standard state refers
magnifying glass to:
A. decreases. A. All solutions are 1 M; all gases have a partial
B. increases. pressure of 1 MPa; temperature is 273K.
C. remains the same. B. All solutions are 0.1 M; all gases have a partial
D. changes unpredictably. pressure of 0.1 MPa; temperature is 273K.
C. All solutions are 0.1 M; all gases have a partial
pressure of 0.1 MPa.
D. All solutions are 1 M; all gases have a partial
pressure of 0.1 MPa.
12
76. What is the pH of a 100 ml solution of 0.1M acetic

acid to which 50ml of 0.1M NaOH has been added (Ka
of acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5)?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. 10
77. Referring to the previous question, what happens to the

pH when a further 10 ml of 0.1M NaOH is added?
A. It goes up to 6 or 7.
B. It goes down.
C. It stays the same.
D. It goes up but only slightly.
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
QUESTION IN THE PHYSICAL SCIENCES TEST
BOOKLET.
13
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137
Directions: There are nine passages, each followed

by several questions. After reading a passage, select
one best answer to each question. If you are uncertain
of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know
to be incorrect and then select an answer from the
remaining alternatives.
14
Passage I somewhat under high-wind conditions, so that the force on

the surface increases rather more rapidly than as the square
Turbulent flow over a boundary is a complex phenomenon of the wind speed.
for which there is no really complete theory even in simple
laboratory cases. Nevertheless, a great deal of experimental Assuming that the force increases at least as the square of
data have been collected on flows over solid surfaces, both the wind speed, it is evident that high-wind conditions
in the laboratory and in nature, so that, from an engineering produce effects far more important than their frequency of
point of view at least, the situation is fairly well understood. occurrence would suggest. Five hours of 60-knot storm
The force exerted on a surface varies with the roughness winds will put more momentum into the water than a week
of that surface and approximately with the square of the of 10-knot breezes. If it should be shown that, for high
wind speed at some fixed height above it. A wind of 10 winds, the force on the surface increases appreciably more
meters per second (about 20 knots, or 22 miles per hour) rapidly than as the square of the wind speed, then the transfer
measured at a height of 10 meters will produce a force of of momentum to the ocean will turn out to be dominated
some 30 tons per square kilometer on a field of mown by what happens during the occasional storm rather than
grass or of about 70 tons per square kilometer on a ripe by the long-term average winds.
wheat field. On a really smooth surface, such as glass, the
force is only about 10 tons per square kilometer. 78. According to the passage, several hours of storm winds
(60 miles per hour) over the ocean would
When the wind blows over water, the whole thing is much A. be similar to the force exerted by light winds for
more complicated. The roughness of the water is not a several hours over glass.
given characteristic of the surface but depends on the wind B. create an ocean roughness which reduces the force
itself. Not only that, the elements that constitute the exerted by the high winds.
roughness - the waves - themselves move more or less in C. eventually affect ocean current.
the direction of the wind. Recent evidence indicates that a D. create a force not greater than 6 times the force of
large portion of the momentum transferred from the air a 10 mile-per-hour wind.
into the water goes into waves rather than directly into
making currents in the water; only as the waves break, or 79. According to the passage, a rough-like ocean surface
otherwise lose energy, does their momentum become A. is independent of the force of the wind.
available to generate currents, or produce Ekman layers. B. has the same force exerted against it by high and
Waves carry a substantial amount of both energy and light winds.
momentum (typically about as much as is carried by the C. is more likely to have been caused by a storm
wind in a layer about one wavelength thick), and so the than by continuous light winds.
wave-generation process is far from negligible. D. is a condition under which the approximate square
of wind speed can never be an accurate figure in
A violently wavy surface belies its appearance by acting, measuring the wind force.
as far as the wind is concerned, as though it were very
smooth. At 10 meters per second, recent measurements 80. The author indicates that, where a hurricane is followed
seem to agree, the force on the surface is quite a lot less by light winds of 10 meters per second or less,
than the force over mown grass and scarcely more than it I. ocean current will be unaffected by the light
is over glass; some observations in light winds of two or winds
three meters per second indicate that the force on the wavy II. ocean current will be more affected by the
surface is less than it is on a surface as smooth as glass. In hurricane winds than the following light winds
some way the motion of the waves seems to modify the III. the force of the light winds on the ocean would
airflow so that air slips over the surface even more freely be less than that exerted on a wheat field
than it would without the waves. This seems not to be the The correct combination is:
case at higher wind speeds, above about five meters per A. I only
second, but the force remains strikingly low compared with B. II and III
that over other natural surfaces. C. I and III
D. II only
One serious deficiency is the fact that there are no direct
observations at all in those important cases in which the
wind speed is greater than about 12 meters per second and
has had time and fetch (the distance over water) enough to
raise substantial waves. The few indirect studies indicate
that the apparent roughness of the surface increases
15
81. The main purpose of the passage is to discuss theory known as social darwinianism. It was a popular
A. oceanic momentum and current. view in the earlier presentation of the case for euthanasia,
B. the effects of wind on bodies of water. but it is less popular today since its consequences were
C. wind blowing over water as related to causing tidal seen in the social and racial policies of Nazi Germany.
flow. However, it may still be used to justify the euthanasia of
D. experiments in wind force. handicapped infants or adults suffering from severe dementia
or a persistent vegetative state.
82. The author would be incorrect in concluding that the
transfer of momentum to the ocean is dominated by 4. Argument from economic necessity
the occasional storm if Another social argument has been added to the case for
A. high-speed winds slipped over waves as easily as euthanasia in recent years with the recognition of the high
low speed winds. cost of the medical and social care of those people who
B. waves did not move in the direction of wind. might be candidates for euthanasia. The cost of the care of
C. the force exerted on a wheat field was the same as this type of patient can be very high indeed and it is thus
on mown grass. argued that the legalization and practice of euthanasia would
D. the force of wind under normal conditions release money which could then be used for the
increased as the square of wind speed. improvement of the health services for other sections of
the population.
83. A wind of 10 meters per second measured at a height of
10 meters will produce a force close to 30 tons per square We have now set out briefly the arguments used in favor of
kilometer on which of the following? the practice of euthanasia, but we cannot decide for or
A. Unmown grass against its use on the basis of these arguments alone. To do
B. Mown grass so would be to ignore the important assumptions that
C. Glass underlie its practice and to disregard the serious nature of
D. Water the deliberate killing of another person which euthanasia
involves. Before we look at the case against euthanasia we
Passage II must therefore look at these assumptions. There are at least
twelve assumptions, which may be set out in three separate
There are four arguments that may be used in the categories: philosophical, medical, and legal, as outlined
justification of the practice of euthanasia in its various forms. below.
These four arguments are the expression of the four possible
motives that may lie behind the intention to kill that is the 1. Philosophical
essential element in euthanasia. That man has a right to die
That the value of human life is measurable
1. Argument from compassion That human life can be dealt with in the same way as animal
This argument maintains that when a patient is faced with life
a situation of intolerable misery and distress arising from That suffering can have no beneficial function
an incurable disease, it is kinder to end his life rather than That an unmixed motive of compassion can be guaranteed
to allow him to live and to continue to suffer. Euthanasia is That a request for euthanasia is always rational and reliable
thus proposed out of compassion for the person whose life
it is felt has become unbearable. 2. Medical
That medical diagnosis and prognosis are always certain
2. Argument from the right to die That the degree of suffering of another person can always
According to this argument, a person with an incurable be realistically and objectively assessed
disease that is causing pain and distress that cannot be That effective alternative methods for the relief of suffering
relieved by any available means has the right to demand are not available
euthanasia. This right to demand their death is often That euthanasia is the justifiable duty of a doctor
regarded as part of a human autonomy by which patients
have the right to make decisions about their treatment by 3. Legal
health care professionals. That the legalization of euthanasia can control its abuse
That euthanasia can be clearly distinguished from murder
3. Argument from social progress
This argument claims that society has a eugenic obligation It is obvious from the sheer number and significant nature
to eliminate the physically and mentally unfit from amongst of these assumptions that they cannot be ignored and that
its members. This view is based on the utilitarian social any decision to legalize the practice of euthanasia is one
16
that will have serious ethical, legal, social, and professional on abortion in Britain has failed to control the abuse of
implications. The four arguments in favor of euthanasia abortion, and similar legislation on euthanasia cannot be
given above are of unequal value. The third and fourth expected to control its abuse either. The legal problem is
arguments have implications that do much to weaken their how to distinguish euthanasia from murder.
force. The argument from social progress has been
destroyed by the racial policies and genocidal activities of Euthanasia is practically unworkable. The various recent
Nazi Germany. The argument from economic necessity is schemes that have been suggested in Britain for the practice
not acceptable because it reduces human life and personal of euthanasia have all assumed that it would be administered
happiness to the impersonal terms of money and expediency, by doctors. However, doctors are trained to preserve life
which are not the terms in which the human situation should and not to destroy it. It is probable that there are few doctors
be assessed. The argument based on an alleged right to die who would wish to be known as the executioners of their
arises from a confusion of rights and liberties. Man is free patients, for this would undermine their doctor-patient
to end his life when he chooses, but this does not mean that relationship.
he has a right to do so. Such a right does not exist ethically,
legally, or socially. Euthanasia is increasingly unnecessary. When euthanasia
was first advocated in Britain and other countries in the
We are left then with the argument from compassion. This 1930s, the concept and practice of palliative medicine was
is especially strong in cases where relatives have been unknown. Doctors had no guidance and little experience in
obliged to watch a loved one suffer unbearable agony and the alleviation of distressing symptoms arising from
to listen to repeated requests for them to end it all by incurable disease. The most effective use of opioids to
euthanasia. Nevertheless, it remains doubtful how far control pain was not understood and other methods of
compassion can be allowed to over-ride the other principles relieving pain and other symptoms were not known. In
that govern human behavior in any given situation in the these circumstances, euthanasia often seemed to be the only
present state of human nature and society. If an action is solution to the patients problems. The situation is very
ethically wrong, or even legally wrong, then it is clearly different today and the use of euthanasia is increasingly
doubtful whether an appeal to a motive of compassion can unnecessary and even outdated as a method of coping with
make it ethically or legally right. distressing symptoms and situations. For this we have to
thank the pioneers of the hospice movement.
If we look at the assumptions that we have suggested
underlie the practice of euthanasia, it is clear that a number Even if we reject euthanasia as inadmissible ethically, this
of them are of questionable validity. This is particularly cannot be the end of the matter. The problem of the control
true of those we have classified as medical. of suffering still remains. What then ought we to do?
In addition to these considerations there are a number of The first thing to do is to try to prevent the occurrence of
arguments which can be advanced against the practice of those situations for which euthanasia has been suggested,
euthanasia which should be considered. by anticipating their onset and forestalling their
development. The second thing is to make available to our
Euthanasia is unnecessarily radical. It destroys the problem patients all the methods of relief and control of distressing
rather than solving it. By ending the life of the patient it symptoms that are now available. The third thing is to
deprives him of hope and any opportunity of regretting or encourage and promote research aimed at the improvement
reversing his decision. In cases of intolerable pain it destroys of the means of relief of suffering, so that new methods
the whole nervous system instead of the part in which the might be discovered and old ones made more effective.
pain is felt. Finally, we must recognize that the care of the sufferer
and the relief of his suffering are never purely medical
Euthanasia is ethically indefensible. There is an ethical concerns, and we must thus provide for his physical, mental,
principle of totality that allows a part to be sacrificed for and spiritual welfare by involving all the caring professions
the sake of the whole. There is no corresponding principle in an effective and sensitive approach to the patient and his
that allows the whole to he sacrificed for the sake of the family in order to support them in their situation of need.
part. That would be an illogical position and certainly an
unethical one.
Euthanasia is legally inadmissible. No country has so far

legalized euthanasia, although The Netherlands has come
very near to doing so. The danger in the legalization of
euthanasia lies in the possibility of its abuse. Legislation
17
84. According to the passage, the essential element in 90. Which of the following statements is not supported by
euthanasia is the passage?
A. the alleviation of distressing symptoms arising A. Some countries have legalized euthanasia.
from incurable disease. B. Pain and suffering can be controlled.
B. the intention to kill. C. The part can be sacrificed for the whole.
C. to provide no heroic measures. D. The strongest argument for euthanasia is
D. to make remaining life as happy and fulfilling as compassion.
possible.
Passage III
85. From the passage, it can be inferred that
I. there are 12 assumptions underlying the Cardiac radionuclide imaging is easily tolerated, relatively
concept of euthanasia. easy to perform, requires only moderately expensive
II. there are 4 arguments used to justify equipment, and exposes patients to less radiation than X-
euthanasia. ray studies that give comparable information. The
III. euthanasia is absolutely unacceptable procedures fall into 2 broad categories: those that show the
regardless of a patients situation. myocardium or myocardial infarcts (perfusion studies), and
IV. euthanasia is illegal. those that allow evaluation of ventricular function and wall
A. I, II, and III are correct. motion (ventriculography). They are widely used to evaluate
B. I and II are correct. certain patients with coronary artery disease (CAD),
C. I, II, and IV are correct. valvular or congenital disease, cardiomyopathy, and other
D. All are correct. cardiac disorders.
86. An appropriate title for this passage may be Myocardial perfusion imaging usually uses thallium 201
A. Put him out of his misery (Tl 201), a radioactive cation that is useful because it
B. Dying with dignity behaves as a potassium analog. Following IV administration,
C. Facing ones mortality thallium 201 rapidly leaves the vascular compartment and
D. Euthanasia: the arguments for and against enters the cells in proportion to initial blood flow. About
4% of the dose enters the myocardium temporarily; this
87. Which of the following statements is supported by the small accumulation shows the heart in relief against the
passage? low surrounding background of lung activity. After thallium
A. Patients have the right to die. 201 reaches its initial distribution, an equilibrium occurs
B. Incurable patients have the duty to die an early between myocardial thallium 201 and that in the blood and
death. other structures (e.g., skeletal muscles, liver, kidneys, etc).
C. Patients have the freedom to die. During this equilibration, the concentration in viable
D. Patients have the privilege to die. myocardium will change to reflect steady-state regional
blood flow. Thus, if thallium 201 is injected into someone
88. Generally, the author seems to be who is exercising, defects in the myocardial distribution
A. against euthanasia. will occur in nonviable areas (e.g., infarct, scar) and in
B. supportive of euthanasia. viable regions with reduced blood flow (e.g., an ischemic
C. neither for nor against euthanasia. zone distal to a hemodynamically significant coronary
D. ignorant of the main issues surrounding euthanasia. stenosis). Subsequently, after several hours with the patient
at rest, the distribution will change. If the original thallium
89. According to the passage, arguments in favor of 201 myocardial defect was caused by a nonviable scar, it will
euthanasia include all of the following except appear unchanged. However, if it was an ischemic area, the
A. eugenics. late image is likely to show disappearance or diminution of
B. scarce resources could be put to better use. the initial defect. This is the basis for detecting regions of
C. human autonomy. exercise-induced ischemia by sequential thallium 201 studies.
D. a patients inability to pay for health care.
The exercise test usually is done on a conventional treadmill,
using the Bruce protocol or a similar exercise schedule,
with patient monitoring. If no contraindications arise,
exercise is continued to at least 85% of the age-predicted
maximum, and thallous chloride T1 201 (2 to 3.5 mCi) is
injected while the patient is at peak exercise. The patient is
encouraged to continue at this level for an additional 30 to
18
60 sec to allow for distribution of radioactivity under the 91. Which of the following statements is not supported by
influence of exercise-related blood flow patterns. the passage?
A. Patients who cannot exercise can be given
An alternative to exercise testing is the use of the coronary dipyridamole.
vasodilator, dipyridamole. This drug increases myocardial B. A disadvantage of cardiac radionuclide imaging
blood flow in normal coronary arteries but not in arteries is the considerable exposure to ionizing radiation.
distal to a stenosis, resulting in increased 201 Tl uptake in C. SPECT is more sensitive than planar imaging.
the normal distribution or relatively decreased activity in the D. Oral dipyridamole is less reliable than IV dipyridamole.
stenotic distribution. The resulting image thus will appear
similar to one following exercise. Imaging of 201 Tl injected 3 92. On the whole, the author seems to be
to 5 min after IV dipyridamole 0.56 mg/kg has a sensitivity A. against the use of cardiac radionuclide imaging.
for CAD similar to that of exercise testing. IV dipyridamole is B. indifferent about whether cardiac radionuclide
now approved in the USA for clinical use. Oral dipyridamole imaging is used or not.
also has been used but is less reliable because of variability C. not very knowledgeable about the subject.
in drug absorption. Dipyridamole-induced ischemia can be D. supportive of the judicious use of cardiac
reversed by IV aminophylline. radionuclide imaging.
Imaging of 201 Tl distribution in the heart may be done as 93. Which of the following statements are supported by
a series of planar images using a conventional scintillation the passage?
camera or as a tomographic reconstruction following I. Cardiac radionuclide imaging requires a very
acquisition by a rotating camera system, using single photon heavy investment in equipment.
emission computed tomography (SPECT). Digital image II. Cardiac radionuclide imaging consists of two
enhancement, with or without quantification, usually is broad subgroups: perfusion studies and
performed before the study is interpreted. ventriculography.
III. Thallium 201 emits radiation, which is
Compared with coronary angiography as the standard, the detected by special cameras.
sensitivity of conventional 201 Tl imaging for significant IV. To a certain extent, coronary angiography and
CAD is 80 to 85% and its specificity is more than 90%. ECG stress testing could be considered
Stress redistribution 201 Tl imaging is more sensitive and substitutes for cardiac radionuclide perfusion
specific than is ECG stress testing in detecting significant imaging.
coronary ischemia; when 201 Tl results and stress ECG A. II, III, IV
findings are coupled, the sensitivity for CAD increases to B. I, II, III
more than 90%. Thus, 201 TI imaging can be used for C. I, III, IV
initial evaluation of certain patients with chest pain (i.e., D. I, II, IV
mainly those with pain of uncertain origin), to determine
the functional significance of coronary artery stenosis or 94. In performing cardiac perfusion studies, the passage
collateral vessels demonstrated by angiography, and to implies that
follow up procedures such as bypass surgery, transluminal A. the patient is injected with Tl 201, scanned,
angioplasty, or thrombolysis. It is also useful for exercised, then scanned again.
prognostication after acute myocardial infarction, and for B. the patient is scanned, injected with Tl 201,
assessing patients on digitalis, with bundle branch block, exercised, then scanned again.
who cannot exercise, or females. C. the patient is exercised, injected with Tl 201,
scanned, then scanned again after resting.
SPECT improves the overall sensitivity for CAD to at least D. the patient is injected with Tl 201, exercised,
90%, with most of the gain in detection of inferior and scanned, then scanned again after resting.
posterior abnormalities that are not well visualized on
conventional images. Identification of the vessels responsible 95. Which of the following statements is not supported by
for the defects also is improved. Small areas of infarction the passage?
that cannot be identified as persistent perfusion defects on A. Tl 201 is radioactive.
planar images can be seen on the tomographic slices. In B. Tl 201 can be used for ventriculography.
addition, the mass of both infarcted and viable myocardium C. Tl 201 can be used to assess the functional
can be quantified, which is valuable in determining significance of coronary artery disease.
prognosis. D. Tl 201 is a cation.
19
96. Which of the following statements are supported by and sometimes almost by accident. No other business so
the passage? starkly and extremely defines the meaning of risk and reward
I. To a certain extent cardiac radionuclide imaging and the profound impact of chance and fate.
and ECG stress testing complement each other.
II. The concentration of Tl 201 may be the same As we look toward the twenty-first century, it is clear that
in normal and ischemic myocardium when mastery will certainly come as much from a computer chip
the patient is at rest. as from a barrel of oil. Yet the petroleum industry continues
III. SPECT is more specific than planar cardiac to have enormous impact. Of the top twenty companies in
radionuclide imaging. the Fortune 500, seven are oil companies. Until some
IV. The purpose of exercise in cardiac radionuclide alternative source of energy is found, oil will still have far-
imaging is to detect viable regions of reaching effects on the global economy; major price
myocardium with reduced blood flow. movements can fuel economic growth or, contrarily, drive
A. II, III, IV inflation and kick off recessions. Today, oil is the only
B. I, II, III commodity whose doings and controversies are to be found
C. I, III, IV regularly not only on the business page but also on the
D. I, II, IV front page. And, as in the past, it is a massive generator of
wealth for individuals, companies, and entire nations.
97. The passage supports or implies which of the following
statements? The second theme is that of oil as a commodity intimately
I. Using dipyridamole is less sensitive than intertwined with national strategies and global politics and
exercising the patient. power. The battlefields of World War I established the
II. Tl 201 distributes itself in tissues in proportion importance of petroleum as an element of national power
to blood flow. when the internal combustion machine overtook the horse
III. IV adrenaline can reverse dipyridamole- and the coal-powered locomotive. Petroleum was central
induced ischemia. to the course and outcome of World War II in both the Far
A. I East and Europe. The Japanese attacked Pearl Harbor to
B. I and III protect their flank as they grabbed for the petroleum
C. II resources of the East Indies. Among Hitlers most important
D. I, II, and III strategic objectives in the invasion of the Soviet Union was
the capture of the oil fields in the Caucasus. But Americas
Passage IV predominance in oil proved decisive, and by the end of the
war German and Japanese fuel tanks were empty. In the
Though the modern history of oil begins in the latter half Cold War years, the battle for control of oil between
of the nineteenth century, it is the twentieth century that international companies and developing countries was a
has been completely transformed by the advent of major part of the great drama of decolonization and
petroleum. In particular, three great themes underlie the emergent nationalism. The Suez Crisis of 1956, which truly
story of oil. marked the end of the road for the old European imperial
powers, was as much about oil as about anything else.
The first is the rise and development of capitalism and Oil power loomed very large in the 1970s, catapulting
modern business. Oil is the worlds biggest and most states heretofore peripheral to international politics into
pervasive business, the greatest of the great industries that positions of great wealth and influence, and creating a deep
arose in the last decades of the nineteenth century. Standard crisis of confidence in the industrial nations that had based
Oil, which thoroughly dominated the American petroleum their economic growth upon oil. And oil was at the heart
industry by the end of that century, was among the worlds of the first post-Cold War crisis of the 1990s - Iraqs
very first and largest multinational enterprises. The invasion of Kuwait.
expansion of the business in the twentieth century
encompassing everything from wildcat drillers, smooth- Yet oil has also proved that it can be fools gold. The Shah
talking promoters, and domineering entrepreneurs to great of Iran was granted his most fervent wish, oil wealth, and
corporate bureaucracies and state-owned companies it destroyed him. Oil built up Mexicos economy, only to
embodies the twentieth-century evolution of business, of undermine it. The Soviet Union - the worlds second largest
corporate strategy, of technological change and market exporter - squandered its enormous oil earnings in the 1970s
development, and indeed of both national and international and 1980s in a military buildup and a series of useless and,
economies. Throughout the history of oil, deals have been in some cases, disastrous international adventures. And the
done and momentous decisions have been made among men, United States, once the worlds largest producer and still
companies, and nations sometimes with great calculation its largest consumer, must import half of its oil supply,
20
weakening its overall strategic position and adding greatly society are being challenged; and the oil industry in all its
to an already burdensome trade deficit - a precarious position dimensions is at the top of the list to be scrutinized,
for a great power. criticized, and opposed. Efforts are mounting around the
world to curtail the combustion of all fossil fuels - oil, coal,
With the end of the Cold War, a new world order is taking and natural gas - because of the resultant smog and air
shape. Economic competition, regional struggles, and ethnic pollution, acid rain, and ozone depletion, and because of the
rivalries may replace ideology as the focus of international specter of climate change. Oil, which is so central a feature
and national conflict, aided and abetted by the proliferation of the world as we know it, is now accused of fueling
of modern weaponry. But whatever the evolution of this environmental degradation; and the oil industry, proud of
new international order, oil will remain the strategic its technological prowess and its contribution to shaping
commodity, critical to national strategies and international the modern world, finds itself on the defensive, charged
politics. with being a threat to present and future generations.
A third theme in the history of oil illuminates how ours has Yet Hydrocarbon Man shows little inclination to give up
become a Hydrocarbon Society and we, in the language his cars, his suburban home, and what he takes to be, not
of anthropologists, Hydrocarbon Man. In its first decades, only the conveniences, but also the essentials of his way of
the oil business provided an industrializing world with a life. The peoples of the developing world give no indication
product called by the made-up name of kerosene and that they want to deny themselves the benefits of an oil-
known as the new light, which pushed back the night powered economy, whatever the environmental questions.
and extended the working day. At the end of the nineteenth And any notion of scaling back the worlds consumption of
century, John D. Rockefeller had become the richest man oil will be influenced by the extraordinary population growth
in the United States, mostly from the sale of kerosene. ahead. In the 1990s, the worlds population is expected to
Gasoline was then only an almost useless by-product, which grow by one billion people - 20 percent more people at the
sometimes managed to be sold for as much as two cents a end of this decade than at the beginning - with most of the
gallon, and, when it could not be sold at all, was run out worlds people demanding the right to consume. The
into rivers at night. But just as the invention of the global environmental agendas of the industrial world will
incandescent light bulb seemed to signal the obsolescence be measured against the magnitude of that growth. In the
of the oil industry, a new era opened with the development meantime, the stage has been set for one of the great and
of the internal combustion engine powered by gasoline. intractable clashes of the 1990s between, on the one hand,
The oil industry had a new market, and a new civilization the powerful and increasing support for greater
was born. environmental protection and, on the other, a commitment to
economic growth and the benefits of Hydrocarbon Society,
In the twentieth century, oil, supplemented by natural gas, and apprehensions about energy security.
toppled King Coal from his throne as the power source for
the industrial world. Oil also became the basis of the great 98. By Hydrocarbon Man, the author means
postwar suburbanization movement that transformed both A. our societys daily life is pervaded by and
the contemporary landscape and our modern way of life. dependent on oil.
Today, we are so dependent on oil, and oil is so embedded B. Mans advanced understanding of the chemistry
in our daily doings, that we hardly stop to comprehend its and uses of oil.
pervasive significance. It is oil that makes possible where C. Man is a terrible polluter.
we live, how we live, how we commute to work, how we D. Man is chemically composed mainly of carbon
travel - even where we conduct our courtships. It is the and hydrogen.
lifeblood of suburban communities. Oil (and natural gas)
are the essential components in the fertilizer on which world 99. According to the passage, in the decade of the 1990s,
agriculture depends; oil makes it possible to transport food the population of the world is expected to
to the totally non-self-sufficient megacities of the world. A. double.
Oil also provides the plastics and chemicals that are the B. increase by 20%.
bricks and mortar of contemporary civilization, a civilization C. increase by two billion.
that would collapse if the worlds oil wells suddenly went D. increase by 15%.
dry.
100.Which of the following statements can be inferred from
For most of this century, growing reliance on petroleum the passage?
was almost universally celebrated as a good, a symbol of I. The USAs position as a super power would
human progress. But no longer. With the rise of the be strengthened if it were less dependent on
environmental movement, the basic tenets of industrial oil.
21
II. Oil has been an important commodity following of the three unities of classical drama is a good
throughout recorded history. example, as is his defense of the supposedly illegitimate
III. If the world population explosion can be tragicomic mode of Shakespeares latest plays. Note, in
controlled, the future environmental particular, the basis of that defense: That this is a practice
challenges anticipated can be more easily contrary to the rules of criticism, Johnson wrote, will be
overcome. readily allowed; but there is always an appeal from criticism
to nature.
A. I only The sentiment thus expressed could easily be endorsed by
B. I and II any of the Romantics; the empiricism it exemplifies is a vital
C. I and III quality of Johnsons criticism, as is the willingness to jettison
D. I, II and III laws of criticism when to do so makes possible a more
direct appeal to the emotions of the reader. Addisons Cato,
101.Which of the following is not described as a highly praised in Johnsons day for its correctness, is
disadvantage of the oil industry? damned with faint praise by Johnson: Cato affords a splendid
A. Environmental pollution exhibition of artificial and fictitious manners, and delivers
B. The deterioration of inner cities just and noble sentiments, in diction easy, elevated, and
C. Potential political instability harmonious, but its hopes and fears communicate no
D. Potential economic instability vibration to the heart. Wordsworth could hardly demur.
102.The main purpose of the passage is to Even on the question of poetic diction, which, according to
A. discuss possible alternative energy sources. the usual interpretation of Wordsworths 1800 Preface to
B. analyze the economics of oil. the Lyrical Ballads, was the central area of conflict between
C. discuss the role oil has had in the rising nationalism Romantic and Augustan, Johnsons views are surprisingly
of former colonies. modern. In his Life of Dryden, he defends the use of a
D. discuss the impact oil has had in modern history. special diction for poetry, it is true; but his reasons are all-
important. For Johnson, poetic diction should serve the
103.Which of the following statements is not supported by ends of direct emotional impact and ease of comprehension,
the passage? not those of false profundity or grandiosity. Words too
A. Seven oil companies are part of the top twenty familiar, he wrote, or too remote, defeat the purpose of
companies in the Fortune 500. a poet. From those sounds which we hear on small or on
B. Before the internal combustion engine, the horse coarse occasions, we do not easily receive strong
and coal-powered locomotive were predominantly impressions, or delightful images; and words to which we
in use. are nearly strangers, whenever they occur, draw that
C. The USA imports a third of its oil supply. attention on themselves which they should transmit to
D. J.D. Rockefeller became rich primarily from the things. If the poetic diction of the neoclassical poets, at
sale of kerosene. its worst, erects needless barriers between reader and
meaning, that envisioned by Johnson would do just the
Passage V opposite: it would put the reader in closer contact with the
things that are the poems subject.
Many readers assume that, as a neoclassical literary critic,
Samuel Johnson would normally prefer the abstract, the 104.The author of the passage demonstrates his ideas
formal, and the regulated to the concrete, the natural, and concerning Johnson mainly by
the spontaneous in a work of literature. Yet any close A. contrasting Johnsons critical methods with those
reading of Johnsons criticism shows that Johnson is not of his contemporaries.
blind to the importance of the immediate, vivid, specific B. citing specific illustrations drawn from Johnsons
detail in literature; rather, he would underscore the need work.
for the telling rather than the merely accidental detail. C. alluding to contemporary comments concerning
Johnsons theories.
In other ways, too, Johnsons critical method has much in D. quoting Johnsons remarks about the critical
common with that of the Romantics, with whom Johnson approaches prevalent in his own day.
and, indeed, the entire neoclassical tradition, are generally
supposed to be in conflict. Johnson was well aware, for
example, of the sterility of literary criticism that is legalistic
or pedantic, as was the case with the worst products of the
neoclassical school. His famous argument against the slavish
22
105.The passage implies that the judging of literary works 109.Which one of the following statements best summarizes
according to preconceived rules the main point of the passage?
A. tends to lessen the effectiveness of much modern A. Although many of Johnsons critical opinions
literary criticism. resemble those of the neoclassical critics, his basic
B. is the primary distinguishing mark of the concerns are closer to those of the Romantics.
neoclassical critic. B. The usual classification of Johnson as a member of
C. was the primary neoclassical technique against the neoclassical school of criticism is based on an
which the Romantics rebelled. inaccurate evaluation of his critical theories and
D. characterizes examples of the worst neoclassical ideals.
criticism. C. The Romantic critics were mistaken in their belief
that the critical ideas they formulated represented
106.The passage implies that the neoclassical critics a departure from those propounded by Johnson.
generally condemned D. Although many of Johnsons critical opinions
A. Shakespeares use of the tragicomic literary resemble those of the Romantic critics, his basic
mode. concerns are closer to those of the neoclassical
B. the slavish following of the three unities in critics.
drama.
C. attempts to judge literary merit on the basis of Passage VI
correctness.
D. artificiality and abstraction in literary works. In the USA, the medical care system has developed without
strong direction from the local, state, or federal
107.According to the passage, Johnsons opinion of governments. The result is a confusing mix of ways in
Addisons Cato was which services are organized and paid for. The per capita
A. roundly condemnatory. cost of medical care and the proportion of the gross domestic
B. somewhat self-contradictory. product used for medical care are higher in the USA than
C. ultimately negative. anywhere else in the world, yet approximately 15% of
D. effusively adulatory. Americans still have no financial protection from the costs
of medical care. Moreover, the medical care cost inflation
108.According to the passage, Johnsons views concerning rate is one of the highest in the world. Because of the high
the use of a special diction in the writing of poetry were costs of medical care, a variety of cost-containment
A. modern in their rejection of a clear-cut division strategies have been developed. Two that are used
between the diction of poetry and that of prose. extensively today in the USA are the prospective payment
B. neoclassical in their emphasis on the use of system and managed care.
language with a direct emotional appeal for the
reader. Prospective Payment System
C. Romantic in their defense of the idea that a The prospective payment system (PPS) based on diagnosis-
special diction for poetry could be stylistically related groups has changed the way hospitals are reimbursed
effective. and the way hospitals and physicians think about the
D. modern in their underlying concern for the provision of care. Each hospital admission is classified into
impact of the literary work on the sensibility of a diagnosis-related group (DRG). A DRG may consist of a
the reader. single diagnosis or procedure, or it may consist of several
diagnoses or procedures that, on average, have similar
hospital costs per admission. An uncomplicated delivery
of an infant, for example, is coded as DRG #313, and a
non-radical hysterectomy in a woman who is under the age
of 70 and has no complicating condition is coded as DRG
#355.
DRGs were first developed to enable hospitals to look for

cost outliers. For example, hospitals could analyze and
identify those physicians who regularly generated greater
than average costs for care coded as DRG #313. The
hospitals could then try to find out why these physicians
generated excess costs and to devise methods to control
these costs in the future. The federal government, however,
23
decided to use the DRG system to pay hospitals on the In managed care, hospitalizations will be reimbursed by a
basis of a prospectively determined average cost for each of third-party payer only if the payer has approved the
the more than 470 DRGs. This system began to be used in admission beforehand (pre-admission review and
the treatment of Medicare patients in 1983. Although there certification). If a patient is admitted through the emergency
is no federal requirement that hospital payers other than department, this admission is reviewed the next day and if
Medicare use the DRG system for reimbursement, several not approved by the third-party payer, reimbursement may
states requested and received federal permission to not be paid (emergency department admission review). Once
incorporate DRGs into their own prospectively determined a patient is in the hospital, the length of stay is closely
rate-setting programs. When this happened, all third-party monitored, and the patient may be forced to leave the
payers in the state had to conform to the same prospectively hospital as soon as possible (concurrent review and
determined rates. This is referred to as an all-payer system. discharge planning). Other aspects of managed care include
Note that the hospital is actually reimbursed after a specific second opinions before elective surgery; use of primary
type of care is given; however, the amount of payment for care physicians as gatekeepers (all referrals to specialists
the specific type of care is decided prospectively (in are required to be approved by the patients primary care
advance). If a hospital can find a way to reduce the costs practitioner); high-cost case management; benefit design;
and provide the care for less than the amount reimbursed and the provision of financial incentives for physicians to
by the PPS, it can retain the excess amount. If a hospital is practice economically.
inefficient and has higher than average costs for a hospital
admission, it will lose money on that admission. Because The current medical care system in the USA has many
hospitals with the strongest administrative teams and data costly inefficiencies, which may not be able to be corrected
systems are best able to keep costs below PPS without major changes, such as national or regional health
reimbursements, there is a tendency for the strong hospitals insurance, a single-payer system, or a combination of both.
to get stronger and the weak hospitals to get weaker. Nevertheless, the possibly high initial costs of shifting to a
There have been some good results from the PPS. For new system, the uncertainty of its benefits, and the complex
example, there are now more and better data than before, and political compromises that would probably be required
hospitals have a greater ability than before to find suggest that, in the immediate future, there will be no major,
unnecessary costs. The full impact of the PPS on the quality rapid change in the organization or financing of medical
of medical care has not been determined. There is evidence care in the USA.
that some patients are being discharged sooner than
desirable, but no major change in medical care quality has 110.Managed care
been clearly discernible. Often, early discharge merely I. reduces the autonomy of physicians
passes the medical care problems (and therefore costs) down II. is a system of administrative controls
the line to the care institutions receiving the patients from III. seeks to better manage the utilization of health
the hospital: the home, home care agencies, and nursing services
homes. A. I and II are correct.
B. II and III are correct.
The PPS added urgency to an already-growing trend to C. I, II, and III are correct.
move as much medical care as possible out of acute general D. None are correct.
hospitals and into ambulatory surgery and diagnostic centers.
Because the PPS does not apply to ambulatory procedures, 111. According to the passage, the primary purpose of PPSs
providers in ambulatory settings could set their own rates. and HMOs is
A. to ensure more Americans have financial
Managed Care protection from health care costs.
In an analysis of the social structure of medical care, B. to control health care costs.
Freidson claimed that the characteristic that uniquely defines C. to improve the quality of health care.
the professions, including medicine, is autonomy in D. to make greater profits.
practice. With the advent of managed care, also known as
utilization management, the trend appears to be away from 112.If the costs of hospitalization for two medical different
physician autonomy in some aspects of medical practice, conditions are approximately the same, then
such as deciding which patients can be admitted to the A. they would be in the same DRG.
hospital and how long they may remain there. Managed B. they would be in different DRGs.
care is a system of administrative controls, the goal of C. they may or may not be in the same DRG.
which is to reduce the costs of medical care. D. they would be in the same DRG but in different
subsections.
24
113.Which of the following is supported by the passage?

A. The PPS has resulted in a decrease in the quality of Even on those rare occasions when a first class author has
care. enjoyed immense success during his lifetime, the majority
B. The PPS has helped stimulate the trend from in- has never appreciated him so sincerely as they have
patient care to outpatient care. appreciated second-rate writers. The first-class author has
C. DRGs are groups of diagnoses in which the same always been reinforced by the ardor of the passionate few.
organs and organ systems are affected. And in the case of an author who emerged into glory after
D. DRGs were first used for Medicaid patients. his death, this has been due solely to the obstinate
perseverance of the few. They kept on savoring him, and
114.The passage indicates that talking about him, and buying him, and they generally
A. while managed care endeavors to prevent behaved with such eager zeal, and they were so authoritative
unnecessary use of health services, PPSs endeavor and sure of themselves, that at last the majority grew
to keep the cost of each hospital stay within accustomed to the sound of his name and placidly agreed
reasonable bounds. to the proposition that he was a genius. The majority really
B. while PPSs endeavor to prevent unnecessary use did not care very much either way.
of health services, managed care endeavors to keep
the cost of each hospital stay within reasonable What causes the passionate few to make such a fuss about
bounds. literature? There can be only one reply. They find a keen and
C. Managed care and PPSs endeavor to prevent lasting pleasure in it. They enjoy literature as some people
unnecessary use of health services. enjoy beer. And what are the qualities of a book that give
D. Managed care and PPSs endeavor to keep the cost keen and lasting pleasure to the passionate few? This is a
of each hospital stay within reasonable bounds. question so difficult that it has never yet been completely
answered. You may talk lightly about truth, insight,
115.Managed care and PPSs knowledge, wisdom, humor, and beauty, but these
A. are mutually exclusive. comfortable words do not really carry you very far, for
B. can co-exist in the same health care system. each of them has to be defined, especially the first and last.
C. necessarily occur together. It is all very well for Keats in his airy manner to assert that
D. are unique to the USA. beauty is truth, truth beauty, and that is all he knows or
needs to know. I, for one, need to know a lot more. And I
116.Freidson claimed that the characteristic that uniquely shall never know. Nobody, not even a great critic like Hazlitt
defines the professions is or Sainte-Beuve, has ever finally explained why he thought
A. a relatively high income. a book beautiful.
B. monopoly on certain knowledge and skills.
C. autonomy in practice. A classic is a work that gives pleasure to the minority that
D. restricted entry. is intensely and permanently interested in literature. It lives
on because the minority, eager to renew the sensation of
Passage VII pleasure, is eternally curious and is therefore engaged in
an eternal process of rediscovery. A classic does not survive
The large majority of our fellow citizens care as much for any ethical reason. It does not survive because it
about literature as they care about archaeology or the conforms to certain canons or rules. It survives because it
program of the legislature. They do not entirely ignore it; is a source of pleasure.
they are not quite indifferent to it. But their interest in it is
faint and perfunctory; or, if their interest happens to be 117.Which of the following would be the most appropriate
intense, it is spasmodic. Ask the two hundred thousand title for the passage above?
persons whose enthusiasm made the vogue of a popular A. The Laws of Literary Greatness
novel ten years ago what they think of that novel now, and B. What Makes a Classic a Classic?
you will gather that they have utterly forgotten it. C. The Sources of Shakespeares Reputation.
D. The Indifferent Majority and the Fate of Literature
In the face of this, one may ask: Why does the great and
universal fame of classic authors continue? The answer is 118.According to the passage, the most fundamental source
that the fame of classic authors is entirely independent of of value in a work of literature is its
the majority. Do you suppose that if the fame of Shakespeare A. evocation of beauty.
depended on the man in the street it would survive for a B. truth to nature.
fortnight? The fame of classic authors is originally made, C. ability to give pleasure.
and it is maintained, by a passionate few. D. adherence to aesthetic canons or rules.
25
constraints of the parent tissue. Second, that cancers always

119.According to the passage, the role of the majority in show a degree of anaplasia, which is a loss of cellular
establishing certain literary works as classics is differentiation. This is associated with a lack of some of
primarily the functions of the normal, differentiated parent tissue.
A. antagonistic. Third, that cancers have the property of metastasis, that is
B. passive. the ability to spread from the site of origin to distant tissues.
C. supportive. While these features are present in most human malignant
D. commercial. neoplasms, some of these properties are not absolutely
distinct from normal tissues. Thus it is true that the normal
120.It can be inferred that the author of the passage would regulatory mechanisms controlling growth are defective in
probably consider the novel mentioned in the first cancer, but that is not to say that there is no check or
paragraph as an example of constraint on the pattern of growth of human neoplasms.
A. the kind of classic work that attains genuine renown Similarly, although we regard the most anaplastic of cancers
only after its authors death. as undifferentiated in the sense that they seem to have
B. a work that unites truth and beauty in the Keatsian arisen from the more primitive precursors of the
sense. differentiated tissue; many cancers none the less do retain
C. the work of a second-rate writer. some of the functions of the mature tissues. Metastasis is,
D. the kind of book that is truly appreciated only by however, a property unique to cancer. Furthermore, it is
the passionate few. metastasis that in most instances kills the patient and
understanding the biology of metastasis is one of the central
121.When the author talks about a writer emerging into problems of cancer research.
glory, he is referring primarily to
A. a first-class author who enjoys immense success There is now a considerable body of evidence that most
during his lifetime. human neoplasms are monoclonal in origin. This means
B. a second-rate writer whose works do not become that the original oncogenic event affected a single cell, and
popular until after his death. that the tumor is the result of growth from that one cell.
C. any writer who attains great personal fame while
his works remain little read. One problem with the concept of monoclonality is that it
D. a first-rate writer whose works are acclaimed has sometimes led investigators to believe that there is a
posthumously as classics. far greater uniformity of behavior of cancer than is in fact
the case. In spite of the monoclonal origin of neoplasms,
122.It can be inferred from the passage that the author significant heterogeneity appears to arise during the course
considers the aesthetic principle embodied in Keats of development of the tumors. This has important
assertion that beauty is truth, truth beauty to be implications for treatment and for understanding the nature
A. mysteriously apt. of metastases.
B. vague and inadequate.
C. unorthodox but refreshingly simple. How does heterogeneity arise? If the tumor is polyclonal
D. closely akin to the aesthetic principles of Hazlitt in origin then diversity can be explained on this basis. If
and Sainte-Beuve. monoclonal, other explanations are needed. It has been
postulated that the occurrence of malignancy confers an
123.With which of the following statements would the author inherent genetic instability on the clonogenic cells and that,
be most likely to agree? during the course of the growth of the tumor, phenotypic
A. A great work of literature embodies admirable differences in clonogenic cells develop. Thus there is the
moral as well as artistic qualities. development of mutants, some of which survive and undergo
B. A book that the average reader can appreciate is still further changes, whereas others, depending on their
one that is likely to be of lasting value. ability to survive hormonal, biochemical, or immunological
C. Those who truly love literature share certain tastes, adversity, die. The mature tumor can therefore be envisaged
though they cannot clearly define them. as being composed of cells that are monoclonal in origin,
D. If an author is destined to attain classic status, his but diverse in capacity to metastasize and to resist cytotoxic
worth is usually immediately obvious. drugs and immune attack.
Passage VIII Normal tissues vary greatly in both the rate of cell division
and the numbers of cells that are actively proliferating. An
The three major characteristics of malignant neoplasms in idealized representation of the way in which proliferation
humans are first, that growth is not subject to the normal occurs in a normal tissue is given by stem or progenitor
26
cells supplying a proliferating pool of cells which follow a varies with different classes of tumor. Likewise, a given tumor
particular differentiation pathway. These become mature type has a different tendency to metastasize in different
cells that are held to be incapable of further division and individuals. More disconcertingly, there may be
subsequently die. While this model may apply to human heterogeneity in the metastatic potential of its constituent
cancers, it is possibly an oversimplification. Tumors probably cells, even within a single tumor in an individual.
do contain progenitor and mature cells but it is not clear
whether cell renewal in a tumor comes from a small progenitor The idea that human tumors might be recognized as foreign
fraction. While the progeny of stem cell division go through to the host has obvious attractions, since if an immune
successive divisions, their number increases, but the number response to the tumor occurred as part of the disease, or
of further divisions they are programmed to make declines could be provoked artificially, there would be opportunities
concomitantly, and they eventually die. It is apparent that for using such an immune response diagnostically or
the stimulus to cell death and its mechanism is a programmed therapeutically. However, until tumor antigens are defined
process under genetic control. and the nature of the immune response to them, if any, is
elucidated, active specific immunity to cancer remains an
A normal tissue grows and develops to a point where cell elusive goal.
proliferation is balanced by cell death and the tissue remains
static in size, unless subjected to a changing environment, 124.Which of the following statements is not supported by
e.g. hormonal influences. In a cancer, on the other hand, the the passage?
regulatory mechanisms appear defective and the tumor A. Most human neoplasms are monoclonal in origin.
gradually increases in size. Nevertheless, this does not mean B. The cells that comprise a tumor can be very
a rapid growth. different from each other.
C. All cancers grow uncontrollably.
The malignant cell is able to escape from normal control D. The capacity for metastasis varies with different
of growth. When normal tissues proliferate, they do so to types of cancer.
the point where cell-to-cell contact appears to be able to
exert an inhibiting role on further mitosis. In contrast, 125.According to the passage:
transformed cells continue to grow after they have become I. metastasis is a property that distinguishes
confluent, that is to say, there is a loss of contact inhibition cancer from non-cancer.
of cell division. Tumors will grow and increase in size II. the cell surface glycoproteins of cancer cells
when planted subcutaneously in immune suppressed mice have increased salicylic acid content compared
while normal tissues will not. The nature of the cell surface to normal cells.
glycoproteins differs from normal cells with an increase in III. the microfilaments and microtubules of cancer
sialic acid content, and alterations in the surface charge. cells become disorganized.
The locomotor apparatus of cells (microfilaments and A. I is correct.
microtubules) become disorganized and the cells alter their B. II is correct.
shape and show membrane movement at sites of contact C. I and II are correct.
with normal cells. At the same time the tumor cells become D. I and III are correct.
locally invasive, although the biochemical basis of this
property is ill understood. 126.Which statement can be inferred from the passage:
A. Cancer is brought about by many cells turning
As the tumor grows, tumor blood vessels proliferate malignant at the same time.
probably under the influence of tumor angiogenesis factors, B. Natural killer cells and phagocytic cells may be
which stimulate capillary formation. One of the results of able to prevent metastasis.
local invasion is that tumor cells can enter vascular and C. Immunological therapies are one of the most
other channels of the body and metastasize. effective cancer treatments.
D. Tumors are able to grow regardless of how little
Having penetrated the vascular compartment, tumor cells blood supply there may be.
must withstand the process of arrest in the capillary bed of
an organ and then start to divide. At this site the tumor cell 127.Which of the following statements is supported by the
must leave the capillary bed of the new tissue. To do this passage:
the tumor cell must pass through the capillary endothelium A. Cancers grow very rapidly.
and survive attack by host defense mechanisms such as B. Chemotherapy is often used to combat metastasis.
phagocytic cells and so-called natural killer cells. C. Prevention is better than cure.
D. Cancer cells lose contact inhibition of cell division.
The capacity for invasion and colonization of distant tissues
27
128.The most appropriate title for this passage would be Calvin Bedient, who regards Davies critical theories as
A. Cancer Treatment wrongheaded, sees Davies best poetry as a tacit repudiation
B. Cancer of those theories; Davies finest lyrics, according to Bedient,
C. Cancer Biology were written in spite of, not because of, his critical ideas. For
D. The Causes of Cancer Bedient, the growth of Davies poetic skill reflects his gradual
escape from the influence of his own poetic ideals. But a
129.Which of the following statements is not supported by more careful reading of Davie suggests that, on the contrary,
the passage? Davies best poems are not ones in which he deviates from
A. Stem cells are the least differentiated cells in a tissue. his stated poetic ideals but rather those in which he comes
B. Unlike their progeny, stem cells are not programmed closest to embodying them; and this he has done with
to die. increasing frequency in his recent work.
C. Stem cells are the only cells in a tissue that can
divide. The canons of Davies criticism are basically four:
D. Natural cell death is under genetic control. (1) Poetry should be pure in diction, which involves,
primarily, economy and restraint in the use of metaphor.
130.Which of the following statements is/are implied or The poet, according to Davie, is concerned with purifying
inferred by the passage: as well as expanding the language; that is, not only must
I. Cancer may involve abnormalities of he coin new ways of seeing the world (new metaphors and
microtubules and microfilaments. images), but he must also preserve and refurbish the old
II. Cancer may involve abnormalities of the cell ways. Good poetry does this through the use of rhythm and
membrane. sound and through vivid, specific nouns and verbs that help
III. Cancer may involve abnormalities of the Golgi to revivify the meanings buried in dead metaphors and
apparatus. images.
A. I, II and III (2) Poetry should adhere closely to the twin models of, on
B. I and II the one hand, prose and careful conversation, and on the
C. II and III other, the usages of the great poets of the past. The poet
D. None of them must be chary of drastic innovation without a strong reason.
(3) Poetry should use, as far as possible, the syntax of
Passage IX ordinary language.
(4) Poetry should handle its meanings as clearly and explicitly
The poet and critic W. H. Alden once wrote, The critical as possible, drawing distinctions that are at once subtle and
opinions of a writer should always be taken with a large lucid. Poetry should be intelligent as well as passionate.
grain of salt. For the most part, they are manifestations of
his debate with himself as to what he should do next and Davie makes it clear that poetry that follows these canons
what he should avoid. While Alden denies the applicability may not be the only real poetry, or even the best poetry; as
of a poets critical theories to poetry in general, he he points out, this kind of prosaic strength is most
emphasizes the usefulness of those theories as a key to the characteristic not of great poets but of good ones, and Davie
poets own work. In this paper, I have used the criticism of lists Gower, Greville, Denham, Goldsmith, Jonson, and
Donald Davie as a gloss on Davies own poetry, taking the Cowper as examples. But it is this company of solid,
criticism not necessarily as an objective description of the intelligible, honest poets that Davie aspires to join, and it
real workings of the poetry but, as Alden might suggest, as is by their standards that we must accordingly judge Davies
an indication of Davies goals as a poet. work.
Over the twenty-odd years of Davies career, these goals 131.In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
have undergone no fundamental change. The style of poetry A. illustrating and defending the basic critical theories
Davie described as his ideal in his critical essay Purity of set forth by Davie.
Diction in English Verse, published in 1953, is the style B. demonstrating that the style of Davies poetry is a
Davies own poetry still aspires to in his most recent work. repudiation of Davies critical theories.
The changes in Davies poetry over the years have been C. showing the relevance of Davies critical writing
directed toward not an abandonment but a fuller realization to an understanding of Davies poetry.
of the goal he envisaged in the early fifties, which he D. indicating how Davies poetry both fails and
summarized as, in Eliots phrase, the perfection of a succeeds at bearing out Davies critical theories.
common language.
28
132.It can be inferred that the authors attitude toward Calvin

Bedients evaluation of Davies critical theories is one
of STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK
A. frank disagreement. YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY QUESTION
B. reluctant agreement. IN THE VERBAL REASONING TEST BOOKLET.
C. bemused uncertainty.
D. partial acceptance.
133.The author of the passage and Calvin Bedient are in

agreement on the idea that Davies poetry
A. represents an attempt to escape from the influence
of literary theories.
B. embodies Davies own critical ideas.
C. helps to clarify Davies critical theories.
D. has improved in quality over the course of his
career.
134.The author is interested in Davies 1953 work Purity of
Diction in English Verse primarily for the light it sheds
on
A. the work of the poets Davie admires.
B. Davies literary ideals.
C. Calvin Bedients analysis of Davies work.
D. Eliots influence on Davies criticism.
135.According to the passage, Davies concept of purity

of diction refers mainly to
A. the use of the syntax of ordinary language.
B. the acceptance of well-written prose as a model
for poetic style.
C. clarity and explicitness in the presentation of ideas.
D. a restrained use of metaphor.
136.The poets referred to in the last paragraph are mentioned

primarily because they
A. wrote the kind of poetry that Davie regards as the
greatest.
B. were influential in the formation of Davies critical
theories.
C. helped to shape Davies own poetic style.
D. wrote poetry that, in Davies view, exemplifies
certain of his critical theories.
137.The remainder of the paper from which the passage is

excerpted is most likely to contain
A. a more detailed explanation of Davies critical
theories.
B. an assessment of the validity of Davies critical
standards in the study of English poetry.
C. an analysis of Davies poetry in the light of his
own critical theories.
D. an in-depth analysis of the works of the poets listed
in the last paragraph.
29
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes total;

30 minutes per essay, each separately timed.
Essay Topic 1
The function of the press should be to report only the facts of daily events, not to influence the publics opinion about
those facts.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe
a specific situation when the press might be justified in attempting to influence the publics opinion. Discuss what you think
determines whether or not the press should attempt to influence public opinion.
Essay Topic 2
Technology solves many problems, but in the process often creates new problems.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above statement means. Describe
a specific situation in which a technology might not create a new problem. Discuss what you think determines when a
technologys benefits outweigh its potential problems.
30
Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes

Questions: 138-214
Directions: Most questions in the Biological Sciences

test are organized into groups, each preceded by a
descriptive passage. After studying the passage, select
the one best answer to each question. Some questions
are not based on a descriptive passage. You should
also select the one best answer to these independent
questions. A periodic table is provided and you may
consult it whenever you wish.
31
Periodic Table of the Elements
VII VIII
IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA
A A
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 17.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 40.0
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 97.9 101 102 106 107 112 114 118 121 127 126 131
57--
55 56 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
71
Cs Ba bel-
Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132 137 178 180 183 186 190 192 195 197 200 204 207 209 209 210 222
ow
89-
87 88 104 105 106 107 108 109
103
Fr Ra Unq Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
bel-
223 226
ow
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
138 140 140 144 144 150 152 157 158 162 164 167 168 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
227 232 231 238 237 244 243 247 247 251 252 257 258 259 262
32
Passage I Passage II
The next few questions refer to the following table. Carbohydrates are polyhydroxyaldehydes or
polyhydroxyketones. However, in actuality, the carbonyl
Quantity Formula Units groups are often present as hemiacetals and acetals. Below
Molarity moles of solute / L of soln M are the structures of some carbohydrates.
Molality moles of solute / kg of solvent m
Wgt per vol (w/v) g of solute / dL of soln %
Equivalents per litre moles x charge / L of soln Eq/L O O O O
Osmolarity moles of all particles / L of soln Osm/L
Osmolality moles all particles / kg of solvent Osm/kg H OH H OH H OH H OH
HO H H OH HO H H OH
138.Normal or isotonic saline (0.85% NaCl) is commonly
H OH H OH HO H HO H
used to treat dehydration. Which of the following
methods would produce normal saline? O
O OH O OH O OH OH
A. 850 mg of NaCl(s) is weighed out and placed in a
volumetric flask, which is then filled with distilled
water to the 100 mL mark. 1 2 3 4
B. 850 mg of NaCl(s) is weighed out and placed in a
143.The stereochemical relationship of compounds (3) and
water to the 1 L mark.
(4) is that they are
C. 8.5 g of NaCl(s) is weighed out and placed in a
I. diastereomers
II. enantiomers
water to the 100 mL mark.
III. epimers
D. 85 mg of NaCl(s) is weighed out and placed in a
A. III only
B. I and II
water to the 100 mL mark.
C. I and III
D. II and III
139.What is the molarity of the above solution?
A. 0.015 M
144.If the (-) enantiomer of each compound is oxidized by
B. 0.15 M
bromine water to yield the corresponding dicarboxylic
C. 1.5 M
acid, which will still be optically active?
D. 0.5 M
A. 2 and 3
B. 3 and 4
140.What concentration of a glucose solution would also
C. 1 and 2
be isotonic?
D. 1 and 4
A. 2%
B. 3%
145.To convert these compounds to riboses (five-carbon
C. 5%
sugars), one must
D. 10%
A. cyclize the chain by forming a hemiacetal with
the C-4 hydroxyl and the C-1 aldehyde.
141.Red blood cells are mixed in with the glucose solution.
B. oxidize the C-1 aldehyde to a carboxylic acid.
What happens to the cells?
C. reduce the C-5 carboxylic acid to an alcohol.
A. They swell.
D. reduce the C-5 carboxylic acid to an aldehyde.
B. They shrink.
C. They remain the same size and shape.
D. They change shape.
142.A patients serum is found to have a Ca2+ concentration

of 0.010%. This is equivalent to
A. 0.05 mEq/L
B. 0.5 mEq/L
C. 0.25 mEq/L
D. 5 mEq/L
33
146.Referring to the previous question, when compound 1 What type of inheritance is this likely to be?
is converted to a ribose, the cyclic hemiacetal it forms A. Autosomal dominant
is B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
A. B.
CH2 OH CH 2 OH 149.Another patient has a family history in which:
HO OH H OH 1 . nearly all affected persons were males
H OH HH 2 . all daughters of an affected male seemed to be
H OH HO OH carriers
H OH
3 . none of the sons of an affected male were affected
C. D. What type of inheritance is this likely to be?
CH 2 OH CH2 OH A. Autosomal dominant
HO OH HO OH
HH H OH
B. Autosomal recessive
H
OH H OH
OH H D. X-linked recessive
147.Which of the following compounds will give a negative 150.Another patient has a family history in which:
Benedicts test? 1. the disease was equally distributed among the male
and female offspring of affected females
2 . all daughters of an affected male were affected
3 . none of the sons of an affected male and unaffected
A. B.
female were affected
CH2 OH
OH What type of inheritance is this likely to be?
O OH O A. Autosomal dominant
H
OH
H
H H OH B. Autosomal recessive
HO H HO H C. X-linked dominant
H OH H OH D. X-linked recessive
OH
151.Another patient has a family history in which:
C. D.
1 . carrier females transmit the trait to half of their
CH2 OH O sons
O CH
H
H
3 2 . none of the carrier females daughters were
OH H
HO H
CH3 affected, but half were carriers
H OH
What type of inheritance is this likely to be?
A. Autosomal dominant
Passage III
Single-gene defects may be autosomal or X-linked, and
either dominant or recessive. A specialist in medical genetics
152.Another patient has a family history in which:
encounters the following cases.
1 . males and females were equally affected
2 . two of the offspring from two unaffected parents
148.A family history is obtained from a person affected with
were affected, while the other six offspring were
a suspected genetic disease. It shows a pattern of
unaffected.
inheritance in which:
What type of inheritance is this likely to be?
1 . every affected person had at least one affected
A. Autosomal dominant
parent
2 . normal persons had normal offspring, who in turn
also had normal offspring
3 . about the same number of males as females were
affected.
34
Questions 158 to 162 are independent of any passage.

157.You have at your disposal benzene, bromine, nitric acid,
153.Which of the following RNA sequences would be and sulfuric acid. How would you produce m-
transcribed if the sequence of the DNA coding strand bromonitrobenzene?
were TATTGCATCAA? A. m-bromonitrobenzene cannot be made with these
A. UAUUGCAUCAA materials.
B. AUAACGUAGUU B. Brominate the benzene, then nitrate.
C. TTGUTGCUUTU C. Nitrate the benzene, then brominate.
D. AUAAGCAUCAA D. Do either B or C.
154.A sarcomere on an electron micrograph is the region Passage IV

between
A. two Z lines. The following questions relate to the reaction sequence
B. two H bands. outlined below.
C. two A bands.
D. two I bands.
1 O C 2H 5 O
2 C2 H5
155.What is the main product of the following reaction? O O -O O
O
H3C CH2 EtO-/EtOH
CH O
+ CH H 3C H3C
CH3 Cl
A. H3C CH 2 O 4
O C2 H5
CH 2 O O O
H3C CH 3
CH3
+ CO2 H3 O+ / heat 3
H3C CH 3
OH
B. H 3C C
HC
158.Compound 1 is a/an
O Α. α-keto carboxylic acid.
Β. β-keto carboxylic acid.
C. H3C CH2
C C. α-keto ester.
D. β-keto ester.
HC
O 159.The first step in the sequence could be enhanced by
D. H3C CH A. replacing the hydrogens at the alpha position by
CH
two alkyl groups.
B. replacing one of the hydrogens at the alpha position
O by a chlorine atom.
CH3
C. replacing one of the carbonyl groups with iodine
atoms.
D. using ethanoate/ethanoic acid instead of ethoxide/
156.In humans, essential fatty acids are required for the ethanol.
synthesis of
A. estrogen. 160.Although sodium methoxide is readily available, it was
B. bile acids. not used in the first step because
C. purines. A. it is not as strong a base as ethoxide.
D. prostaglandins. B. it would cause an undesired transesterification.
C. it would be more difficult to hydrolyze a methyl
ester than an ethyl ester.
D. a hindered base is needed to protect the carbonyl
group.
35
161.The second step is a type of reaction known as 167.Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by
A. SN1. A. a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure.
B. SN 2. B. a narrowing in the renal artery.
C. electrophilic addition. C. disease resulting in fewer functioning glomeruli.
D. free radical substitution. D. an increase in plasma proteins.
162.The third step involves 168.Renin

I. protonation of O in the C=O of the ester A. causes loss of sodium and water from plasma.
group B. is secreted by the cells of the proximal tubule.
II. SN2 substitution of OC2H5 by OH C. converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
III. heat-induced decarboxylation D. converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
A. I and II
B. I and III 169.Which of the following is the least important in
C. II and III controlling the synthesis and secretion of aldosterone?
D. I, II, and III A. ACTH.
B. Angiotensin II.
163.What type of reaction does not occur in the sequence? C. Plasma sodium concentration.
A. Hydrolysis D. Blood pressure.
B. Acid-base
C. Reduction 170.The tubules (mainly proximal) of the nephron secrete
D. Decarboxylation ammonia into lumen to enhance the excretion of
hydrogen ions. Ammonia is an effective urinary buffer
Passage V because
I. its production can be increased if necessary
The kidneys adjust loss of water and electrolytes from the II. it has a low pKb (4.8)
body to keep body fluids constant in amount and III. the walls of the tubules are impermeable to
composition. They excrete wastes and foreign substances, NH 4 +
secrete the hormones erythropoietin and renin, and activate A. I and II are correct.
vitamin D. B. I, II, and III are correct.
C. II and III are correct.
164.Which of the following substances are mostly D. I and III are correct.
reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule?
I. water Passage VI
II. glucose
III. amino acids In various scientific pursuits, it is important to be able to
IV. urea purify substances so that they can be better studied or better
A. I and II are correct. used. Common methods of separating substances are
B. II and III are correct. extraction, recrystalization, distillation, and
C. I, II, and III are correct. chromatography.
D. All are correct.
165.Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all of

the following except
A. sodium.
B. hemoglobin.
C. albumin.
D. chloride.
166.The consumption of oxygen by the kidneys

A. is greatest in the medulla.
B. remains constant as blood flow increases.
C. is regulated by antidiuretic hormone.
D. is proportional to the level of sodium transport.
36
174.In extractions, the distribution constant is the ratio of

A mixture contains the three compounds shown in the table the concentrations of a particular species between two
below. solvents at equilibrium. If the distribution constant for
an organic acid (HA) between chloroform and water
is 100, i.e. [HA] CHCl / [HA] H O = 100, and the
3 2
dissociation constant of the acid in water is 10 -5,

Solubility (g/100 mL)
increasing the pH of the aqueous phase from 4 to 10
in H2O in ether will have what effect on the quantity of HA in the
chloroform phase? (Assume HA does not dissociate
COO H
or dimerize in the chloroform phase.)
1 A. The quantity is reduced to less than half of what it
0.31 25.0 was.
NO 2 B. The quantity is reduced but remains more than
half of what it was.
NH2 C. The quantity is increased but is not more than
double what it was.
2 D. The quantity is more than double what it was.
0.11 5.5
NO 2
175.For a species that is distributed between an aqueous
OH phase and an organic extraction phase, the quantity
extracted by the organic phase is
3 I. larger at higher temperatures if the solubility
3.02 106
in both layers remains unchanged
NO 2 II. larger if the total volume of the organic phase
is used in portions rather than all at once
III. larger if the species is weakly basic and an
171.The mixture is dissolved in a small amount of ether. To acidic aqueous phase is used
this is added an equal volume of 0.01 M HCl(aq). After A. I is correct.
shaking, two layers are formed: an aqueous layer and B. II is correct.
an ether layer. The layers are then separated. Which of C. III is correct.
the compounds will be found in the aqueous layer? D. II and III are correct.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only 176.A mixture of toluene (methyl benzene) and aniline (amino
C. 3 only benzene) is subjected to liquid column chromatography
D. 2 and 3 with alumina (Al2O3) as the solid phase. Which is most
likely to occur?
172.To the ether layer is added an equal volume of 0.01 M A. Toluene will be eluted first since it has a lower
NaOH (aq) . Again, two layers are formed. After boiling point.
separating them, which of the compounds will be found B. Separation will not occur since the molecules are
in the aqueous layer? about the same size.
A. 1 only C. Aniline will be eluted first since it is more polar
B. 3 only than toluene.
C. 1 and 3 D. Toluene will be eluted first since it is less polar
D. 2 and 3 than aniline.
173.This aqueous layer is evaporated to dryness leaving a Passage VII
solid residue of mass 0.31 g. Ten milliliters of aqueous
acid of pH 3 are added. After stirring, the residue is The theory of evolution maintains that all species came
smaller. What is the identity of the residue? into existence by gradual and continuous changes from
A. 1 only earlier forms. Evidence of the descent of separate species
B. 2 only from a common ancestor can be found from various sources
C. 3 only such as comparing anatomical structures, examining DNA,
D. 1 and 3 and studying the fossil record.
37
177.Current hypotheses concerning the Earths primordial 185.Which of the following is not a general characteristic of
atmosphere indicate that there was little or no free chordates?
A. oxygen. A. Vertebral column
B. hydrogen. B. Pharyngeal gill slits
C. carbon dioxide. C. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
D. nitrogen. D. Notochord
178.The best definition of an organisms fitness in the 186.All of the following are homologous structures except
evolutionary sense is its A. the wing of a penguin and the foreleg of a turtle.
A. probable genetic contribution to future generations. B. the wing of an insect and the wing of a bat.
B. ability to perform optimally in its environment. C. the arm of a human and the foreleg of a dog.
C. chance of surviving to maturity. D. The foreleg of a squirrel and the flipper of a seal.
D. reproductive health.
Questions 192 to196 are independent of any passage.
179.Which of the following conditions would not be
susceptible to natural selection? 187.Removal of the adrenal glands would be expected to
A. A dominant allele in the homozygous condition have all of the following consequences except
B. A dominant allele in the heterozygous condition A. poor mobilization and use of adipose tissue.
C. A recessive allele in the homozygous condition B. hyperglycemia.
D. A recessive allele in the heterozygous condition C. excessive loss of sodium in the urine.
D. poor resistance to infection.
180.Selection acts upon
A. species. 188.An infrared absorption spectrum is obtained from a
B. populations. compound known to have a hydroxyl group and a
C. genes. carbonyl group. Absorption due to hydroxyl group
D. individual phenotypes. O-H bond stretching occurs at 3,620 cm-1. At what
wavenumber would absorption due to C=O stretching
181.If selection acts to remove one extreme in a distribution likely occur at?
of phenotypes, this is called A. 3,620 cm-1
A. genetic drift. B. 7,200 cm-1
B. natural selection. C. 1,700 cm-1
C. balancing selection. D. 9,560 cm-1
D. directional selection.
189.Hyperglycemia can be induced by all of the following
182.Which of the following is not an assumption for Hardy- except
Weinberg equilibrium? A. thyroxine.
A. Large population B. aldosterone.
B. No selection C. ACTH.
C. Non-random mating D. glucagon.
D. No mutations
190.A hospital has possibly switched the babies of Couples
183.Random fluctuations in gene frequencies in small X and Y. Their blood types are as follows:
populations is called Couple X type A and type A
A. mutagenic disequilibrium. Couple Y type AB and type O
B. genetic drift. Baby 1 type O
C. selection. Baby 2 type B.
D. heterogenesis. Which baby belongs to which couple?
A. Both babies belong to Couple Y.
184.Which of the following is not a distinguishing B. Baby 1 belongs to Couple Y and Baby 2 belongs to
characteristic of a species? Couple X.
A. Sharing of a common gene pool C. Baby 1 belongs to Couple X, but Baby 2 could
B. Reproductive isolation from all other groups belong to either couple.
C. Ability to mate within the group D. Baby 1 belongs to Couple X and Baby 2 belongs to
D. A genetically distinct group of natural populations Couple Y.
38
191.Cholesterol is a precursor in the biosynthesis of all of A. Compound 1

the following except B. Compound 2
A. aldosterone. C. Compound 3
B. cortisol. D. Compound 4
C. endorphins.
D. testosterone. 195.What is the major product of the following reaction?
CH3 CH2
Passage VIII HBr,
H3C CH
ether
Alkenes are characterized by C=C bonds. As such, they CH3
are subject to electrophilic addition reactions. Most
electrophilic additions obey Markovnikovs rule; however,
there are some exceptions. Examples of alkenes are shown
below. A. CH3 B. CH3 CH3
CH3
H3 C HC H3C HC
Br
1 2 CH3 Br CH3
H3C CH3 H3 C CH3
C. D.
CH3
CH2 Br H3 C CH3
O H H3 C H
H3 C CH2 CH
CH3 H3C
CH3
H3C 3 CH3 H3C 4 CH3 196.What is the major product of the following reaction?
H3C H
Cl H (H3 C)2N H
Cl2 ,
H H2 O
CH 3
192.When HBr adds to compound 2 above, the main product
is
A. B.
A. B.
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 H3C H H3C H
Br H H Br Cl Cl Cl OH
CH3 H CH3 H H H
CH3 CH3
C. CH3 CH3 D. C. D.
H3C CH3
H3C H H3 C H
Br Br
HO OH Cl OH
H3C Br
CH3 H H H
CH3 CH3
193.What is the order of reactivity of the compounds above
to electrophilic addition of HBr? Passage IX
A. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
B. 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 Since frog embryos are easily available and easy to work
C. 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 with, they are often used in studies of animal development.
D. 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
After fertilization of a frog egg, the zygote divides many
194.Which of the compounds is most likely to form an times forming a ball of cells called a morula. Gradually,
addition product with the general structure shown this becomes hollow and the structure is called a blastula.
below? During gastrulation, an area on the blastula, called the
H3C CH3 blastopore, invaginates. The cells of the dorsal lip of the
Br blastopore migrate into the blastopore forming a three-
group
H H
layered gastrula. The three layers are the ectoderm,
mesoderm, and endoderm. Following this is neurulation.
A thick plate of cells forms a ridge along the ectoderm,
which folds over itself forming a buried tube called the neural
39
tube. The embryo at this stage is called a neurula. Eventually, 202.In the neurula, neural crest cells eventually become
the end of the neural tube farthest away from the blastopore detached. In an experiment, these cells were injected
will form the brain. with a dye and their migrations were followed. The
dye was later found in cartilage, Schwann cells, adrenal
197.When a frog gastrula is cut in half, the side containing glands, and sensory neurons. This indicates that
the blastopore develops into a mature frog while the A. neural crest cells are insensitive to induction.
other side dies. The most plausible explanation is that B. neural crest cells are relatively undetermined when
A. cells lacking a distinct morphology are unimportant they leave the neural tube.
to development. C. these four types of cells have the same basic
B. the blastopore is necessary to induce proper function.
development. D. these four types of cells have the same basic
C. the side that did not contain the blastopore failed structure.
to undergo any determination.
D. the side that did not contain the blastopore were Passage X
destined to become the placenta.
Reactions in living systems have basically the same
198.When the dorsal lip of the blastopore is microsurgically mechanisms as those carried out in laboratories. To make
transplanted into the blastocoele of another frog reactions proceed more rapidly, enzymes take the place of
gastrula, a siamese twin tadpole (joined at the belly) heat and inorganic catalysts. Also, these enzymes allow
sometimes results. This is because only specific reactions to occur and not numerous other
A. the transplanted dorsal lip induces a second possible reactions.
gastrulation in addition to the first one.
B. the transplanted dorsal lip carries different genetic An important metabolic pathway in the catabolism of
information. proteins is the transamination of amino acids.
C. the gastrula is very sensitive to disturbances; even Tansaminations use pyridoxal phosphate, a derivative of
agitation with a fine needle would produce the vitamin B6, as cofactor. Part of this pathway is shown below.
same result.
D. the transplanted dorsal lip causes dedifferentiation
and redevelopment of the cells around it. PO3 - -
O
199.Referring to the previous question, the hypothesis that CH 2 NH2
cells within the blastocoele induce the transplanted +
+ CH
dorsal lip cells to dedifferentiate is H N CH
R COO-
A. supported by the data. O
B. contradicted by the data. H3 C OH
C. neither supported nor contradicted by the data. step 1
D. None of the above.
PO3 - -
O
200.In the mature frog, the blastopore will have given rise to
A. the anus. H + CH 2
N
B. the brain.
N COO-
C. the mouth. H3 C CH
D. the liver.
OH R
step 2
201.If the mesoderm of a gastrula were disrupted in some
way, which organ would most likely be affected the most?
A. The spinal cord.
B. The intestines.
C. The heart.
D. The skin.
40
206.Step 3 involves
A. hydrolysis.
PO3 - -
B. oxidation.
O C. decarboxylation.
H CH 2 D. hydration.
N
N COO- 207.Step 4 involves
H3C A. condensation.
OH R B. tautomerization.
step 3 C. phosphorylation.
D. an aldol reaction.
PO3 - -
O
O 208.The overall effect of this pathway is that
H CH 2
+ A. An amino acid is oxidized to an β-keto acid.
N CH B. An amino acid is reduced to an β-keto acid.
NH 2 R COO-
C. An amino acid is oxidized to an α-keto acid.
H3 C
D. An amino acid is reduced to an α-keto acid.
OH
step 4 209.This pathway actually carries on for many more steps.
What is likely to occur further along the pathway?
PO3 - -
O A. Pyridoxal phosphate is regenerated
O
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
CH 2
N + CH
C. Substrate-level phosphorylation
NH 2 R COO- D. Glycolysis
H3 C
OH Questions 215 to 219 are independent of any passage.
210.Which of the following molecules are diastereomers?

203.Which of the following is/are true?
I. Pyridoxal phosphate has an aromatic ring.
II. Pyridoxal phosphate has a net positive charge. 1 COOH 2 COOH
III. Pyridoxal phosphate has an ester linkage. H NH2 H2N H
A. Only III is true. H OH HO H
B. I and II are true.
C. II and III are true. CH3 CH3
D. I and III are true.
3 COOH 4 COOH
204.Step 1 involves H NH2 H2N H
A. condensation.
HO H H OH
B. nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of
water. CH3 CH3
C. decarboxylation.
D. an aldol reaction. A. 1 and 2; 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3; 1 and 4; 2 and 3; 2 and 4
205.Step 2 involves C. 1 and 4; 2 and 3;
A. hydration. D. 1 and 3; 1 and 4; 2 and 4
B. oxidation.
C. decarboxylation. 211.The diameter of an erythrocyte (microscopists ruler)
D. deprotonation of an acid followed by bond is
rearrangements. A. 7 nm
B. 70 nm
C. 7 µm
D. 70 µm
41
212.A woman who is heterozygous for brown eyes (blue

is recessive) and heterozygous for brown hair (blond
is recessive) marries a man who has blond hair and is
heterozygous for brown eyes. What is the probability
they will have a son who has brown hair and brown
eyes, and who is capable of fathering children with
blue eyes?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
213.Physiologically-active thyroxine exists in which of the

following forms?
A. Bound to prealbumin
B. Bound to albumin
C. Bound to thyroxine-binding globulin
D. Unbound
214.What is the major product of the following reaction?
H2 C CH Cl2 , UV
CH3
Cl
A. CH CH3
Cl
B. CH3
Cl CH
C. H2 C CCl
CH3
D. H2 C CH
CH 2 Cl
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
QUESTION IN THE BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES TEST
BOOKLET.
END OF MCAT EXAM
42

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Practice MCAT Test I

Ken Evans, M.Sc., M.D.

Copyright  Ken Evans

Time: 100 minutes

Directions: Most questions in the Physical Sciences

Periodic Table of the Elements

89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

11. The student connects three 2 µF capacitors in parallel. ∆ Hf

Questions 87 to 92 are independent of any passage. 28. Glycine is predominantly deprotonated at

Passage V 40.Two electronic sound sources are placed in a room. One

76. What is the pH of a 100 ml solution of 0.1M acetic

77. Referring to the previous question, what happens to the

STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

Directions: There are nine passages, each followed

Passage I somewhat under high-wind conditions, so that the force on

Euthanasia is legally inadmissible. No country has so far

DRGs were first developed to enable hospitals to look for

113.Which of the following is supported by the passage?

constraints of the parent tissue. Second, that cancers always

132.It can be inferred that the authors attitude toward Calvin

133.The author of the passage and Calvin Bedient are in

135.According to the passage, Davies concept of purity

136.The poets referred to in the last paragraph are mentioned

137.The remainder of the paper from which the passage is

Time: 60 minutes total;

Time: 100 minutes

Directions: Most questions in the Biological Sciences

Periodic Table of the Elements

89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

142.A patients serum is found to have a Ca2+ concentration

Questions 158 to 162 are independent of any passage.

154.A sarcomere on an electron micrograph is the region Passage IV

162.The third step involves 168.Renin

165.Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all of

166.The consumption of oxygen by the kidneys

174.In extractions, the distribution constant is the ratio of

dissociation constant of the acid in water is 10 -5,

191.Cholesterol is a precursor in the biosynthesis of all of A. Compound 1

OH Questions 215 to 219 are independent of any passage.

210.Which of the following molecules are diastereomers?

212.A woman who is heterozygous for brown eyes (blue

213.Physiologically-active thyroxine exists in which of the

214.What is the major product of the following reaction?

STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

END OF MCAT EXAM

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132.It can be inferred that the authors attitude toward Calvin

135.According to the passage, Davies concept of purity

142.A patients serum is found to have a Ca2+ concentration