Productattachments Files Chapter-Wise Solved JEE Main 2019 January Questions Class XII 1 PDF

Solved JEE Main 2019 (January) Questions
Chapter-Wise (Class 12)
Chapter 1: Electric Charges and Fields

1. For a uniformly charged ring of radius R, the electric field on its axis has the largest
magnitude at a distance h from its center. Then value of h is
R
(1)
5
R
(2)
2
(3) R
(4) R 2 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let the total charge on the ring is Q then, electric field at the axis of a charged ring is given
by
kQA
E= 2
( R + h2 )3/2
dE
For maximum electric field, =0
dh
 3
 −   2h
2
 2
1
+  2
=0
( R + h 2 )3/ 2 (h 2 + R 2 )5/ 2
1 3h2
 = 2
(R + h )
2 2 3/ 2
(h + r 2 )5/ 2
R
 3h2 = h2 + r2  h =
2
Answer: (2).
2. Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed respectively, at distance, 0, d/2 and d from the origin, on
the x-axis. If the net force experienced by +Q, placed at x = 0, is zero, then value of q is
(1) –Q/4
(2) +Q/2
(3) +Q/4
(4) –Q/2 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Charge q is placed at center so, it is equilibrium condition for +Q placed at x = 0
For equilibrium,
Fa + Fb = 0
KQQ KQq
 + 2
=0
d2 d
 
2
kQ 2 kQq
 2
=− 2
d d
4
−Q
 Q = −4q  q =
4
1 Solved JEE Main 2019 (January) Physics Questions – Chapter-Wise (Class 12)
Copyright © 2019 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd. All rights reserved.
Answer: (1).
3. Two point-charges q1 ( 10 C) and q2 (−25 C) are placed on the x-axis at x = 1 m and x = 4
m, respectively. The electric field (in V/m) at a point y = 3 m on y-axis is
 1 
 take = 9  109 Nm 2 C −2 
 4 0 
(1) (63iˆ − 27 ˆj )  10 2
(2) (−63iˆ + 27 ˆj )  102

(3) (81iˆ − 81 ˆj )  102
(4) (−81iˆ − 81 ˆj )  102 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
We know that electric field vector is
kq(r )
E= 3
r
Let E1 and E2 are the electric field of q1 and q2.

For charge q = 10 μC
k 10  10−6 (−iˆ + 3 ˆj )
E1 = 3
10
9  109  10−6 (−iˆ + 3 ˆj )

=
10
ˆ
= (−9i + 27 ˆj )  102 V/m
For charge q2 = −25 μC
k (−25)  10−6 (−4iˆ + 3 ˆj )
E2 = 3
5
−9  109  10−6 (−4iˆ + 3 ˆj )
=
5
= −9  10 (−8iˆ + 6 ˆj )
2
= (72iˆ − 54 ˆj )
Therefore, total electric field vector is
E = E1 + E2
= (−9iˆ + 27 ˆj )  102 + (72iˆ − 54 ˆj )  102
= 102 (−9iˆ + 27 ˆj + 72iˆ − 54 ˆj)
= (63iˆ − 27 ˆj )  102 V/m
Answer: (1).
4. Charge is distributed within a sphere of radius R with a volume charge density
A
 (r ) = 2 e−2r / a , where A and a are constants. If Q is the total charge of this charge
r
distribution, the radius R is
(1) a log 1 −
Q 

 2 aA 
 
a  1 
(2) log  
2  1 − Q 
 2 aA 
 
 1 
(3) a log  
 1 − Q 
 2 aA 
(4) log 1 −

a Q 
 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
2  2 aA 
Solution:
Let Q be charge is distribution within a sphere of radius R
Q =   dV
=  (r )(4 r 2 dr )
A −a2 r
R
= 3
e 4 r 2 dr
0
r
 a
R
= 4 A e−2 r / a dr = 4 a  −  [e −2 R / G − e0 ]
0
 2
 −a  −2 R / a
= 4 a   [e − 1]
 2 
 Q = 2 aA[1 − e−2 R / a ]
 Q = 2 Aa − 2 aAe−2 R / a
2R 1
 = log
a Q
1−
2 aA
 
a  1 
 R = log  
2 1 − Q 
 2 aA 
Answer: (2).
5. Two electric dipoles, A, B with respective dipole moments d A = −4 qa iˆ and d B = −2 qa iˆ are
placed on the x-axis with a separation R, as shown in the figure.
The distance from A at which both of them produce the same potential is
R
(1)
2 +1
2R
(2)
2 +1
R
(3)
2 −1
2R
(4) (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
2 −1
Solution:
On the x axis in left on A potential due to A and B. But potential due to A is higher than that
of B, between sign of potential due to A and B is opposite. So, potential can be same only in
right of B on x-axis.
4qa 2qa
V= = 2
( R + x) 2
x
R+x
 = 12
x
 R+x= x 2
 R=x 2−x
 R = x( 2 − 1)
R
 x=
2 −1
R
Therefore, distance = +R
2 −1
R+R 2−R R 2
= =
2 −1 2 −1
Answer: (4).
6. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, −2) and (0, −2).
The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be
Q2  1 
(1) 1 + 
4 0  3
Q2  1 
(2) 1 + 
4 0  5
Q2
(3)
2 2 0
Q2
(4) (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
4 0
Solution:
Potential at origin is
kQ kQ kQ kQ
VA = + + +
2 2 22 + 42 24 + 42
kQ kQ kQ kQ
= + + +
2 2 20 20
kQ kQ
= 2 + 2
2 2 5
 1 
= kQ  1 + 
 5
Now, work done, W = qΔV
= q[VA − V ] [V = 0]
= qVA
 1 
= q kQ 1 + 
 5
Q2  1   1 
=  1+  k = 
4 0  5  4 0 
Answer: (2).
7. Charges –q and +q located at A and B, respectively, constitute an electric dipole. Distance AB
= 2a, O is the mid-point of the dipole and OP is perpendicular to AB. A charge Q is placed at
P where OP = y and y >> 2a. The charge Q experiences an electrostatic force F. If Q is now
moved along the equatorial line to P′ such that OP =   , the force on Q will be close to
y
3
y 
 2a 
3 
(1) 3F
F
(2)
3
(3) 9F
(4) 27F (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Electric field on equatorial plane of dipole is
F = QE
KP
At P, F = 3 Q (1)
y
KP
At P′, F  = Q
( y /3)3
27KPQ
 F = (2)
y3
Dividing Eq. (2) by Eq. (1), we get
27KPQ
F y3
=
F KPQ
y3
F
 = 27
F
 F  = 27 F
Answer: (4).
8. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right-angle isosceles triangle as
shown below. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if the value of Q is
−q
(1)
1+ 2
(2) +q
(3) −2q
− 2q
(4) 4 (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
2 +1
Solution:
Let a be the two equal sides of isosceles triangle.
Thus, net electrostatic energy is given as

Kq 2 KQ 2 KQq
U= + +
a a a 2
Since, the net electrostatic energy is zero.
Therefore,
Kq2 KQq KQq
+ + =0
a a a 2
 q 2 qQ Qq 
K + + =0
a a a 2
q 2 qQ  1
+ 1 +  = 0
 a a  C
q2 qQ  1 
 =− 1+
a a  
2
 1 
 q = −Q  1 + 
 2
−q 2
Q=
2 +1
Answer: (4).
9. Determine the electric dipole moment of the system of three charges, placed on the vertices of
an equilateral triangle, as shown in the figure:
ˆj − iˆ
(1) 3 ql
2
ˆi + ˆj
(2) (ql )
2
(3) 2ql ˆj
(4) − 3 ql ˆj (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Dipole moment is
P1 = ql cos θ
= ql cos 30° (1)
P2 = ql cos θ
= ql cos 30° (2)
Now, net dipole moment is
P = 2 × ql cos 30°
3
= 2  ql  = 3 ql
2
Since, direction of dipole moment is negative y axis.
Therefore, P = − 3ql ˆj
Answer: (4)
Chapter 2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
10. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two square plates of side ‘a’, separated by a distance d (d
≪ a). The lower triangular portion is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K, as shown
in the figure. Capacitance of this capacitance is
K 0 a 2
(1)
2d ( K + 1)
K 0 a 2
(2) ln K
d ( K − 1)
K 0 a 2
(3) ln K
d
1 K 0 a 2
2 d
Solution:
Consider a small element dx at a distance x.
y d
Thus, =
x a
d
y= x
a
d
 dy = (dx)
a
1 y d−y
 = +
dC KEadx  0 adx
1 1 V 
 =  + d − y
dC  0 adr  K
 0 a dx
 dC =
 y 
 + d − y
K
Integrating both the sides, we get
 a dx
 dC =  y 0
+d − y
K

a dy
d 0
 C = 0 a 
1 
d + y  − 1
K 
d
0 a2
   1  
C= ln d + y  − 1  
 1     K  
 − 1 d 0
K
 1 
K 0a2  d + d  K − 1 
= ln  
(1 − K )d  d 
 
K 0a2  1  K  0 a ln K
2
= ln   =
(1 − K )d  K  ( K − 1) d
Answer: (2).
11. A parallel plate capacitor with square plates is filled with four dielectrics of dielectric
constants K1, K2, K3, K4 arranged as shown in the figure. The effective dielectric constant K
will be
( K1 + K3 )( K 2 + K 4 )
(1) K =
K1 + K 2 + K3 + K 4
( K1 + K 2 )( K3 + K 4 )
(2) K =
2( K1 + K 2 + K3 + K 4 )
( K1 + K 2 )( K3 + K 4 )
(3) K =
K1 + K 2 + K3 + K 4
( K1 + K 4 )( K 2 + K3 )
(4) K = (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
2( K1 + K 2 + K3 + K 4 )
Solution:
The arrangement of capacitor shown in the figure
L  L 
K1 0  2 K 2  0  L 
2   2 
C1C2 d /2 d /2
C12 = =
C1 + C2  L 
 0 2  L 
( K1 + K 2 )  
 d /2 
 
K1 K 2  0 L2
C12 =
K1 + K 2 d
 L   L 
K3  0  L  K 4  0  L 
 2   2 
C3C4 d /2 d /2
C34 = =
C3 + C4  L 
 0 2  L 
( K3 + K 4 )  
 d /2 
 
K 3 K 4  0 L2
=
K 3 + 4n d
Ceq = C12 + C34
 KK K 3 K 4   0 L2
= 1 2 +  (1)
 K1 + K 2 K3 + K 4  d
k  0 L2
If Keq = k, then Ceq = (2)
d
K1 K 2 ( K3 + K 4 ) + K3 K 4 ( K1 + K 2 )
Keq =
( K1 + K 2 )( K3 + K 4 )
This Answer does not match with any given options.
Answer: (N*).
12. A parallel plate capacitor is of area 6 cm2 and a separation 3 mm. The gap is filled with three
dielectric materials of equal thickness (see figure) with dielectric constants K1 = 10, K2 = 12
and K3 = 14. The dielectric constant of a material which when fully inserted in above
capacitor, gives same capacitance would be
(1) 4
(2) 14
(3) 12
Solution:
Let K be the dielectric constant of material
10 0 A/3 12 0 A/3 14 0 A/3
Ceq = + +
d d d
K 0 A
C=
d
K  0 A 10 0 A/3 12 0 A/3 14 0 A/3
= + +
d d d d
K  0 A  0 A 10 12 14 
 =  + + 
d d 3 3 3
36
K= = 12
3
Answer: (3).
13. A charge Q is distributed over three concentric spherical shells of radii a, b, c (a < b < c) such
that their surface charge densities are equal to one another. The total potential at a point at
distance r from their common centre, where r < a, would be
Q ab + bc + ca
(1)
12 0 abc
Q(a 2 + b 2 + c 2 )
(2)
4 0 (a 3 + b3 + c3 )
Q
(3)
4 0 (a + b + c)
Q(a + b + c)
4 0 (a 2 + b2 + c 2 )
Solution:
Let potential at distance r from then common center is
kQ kQ kQ
V= a+ b+ c (1)
a b c
Since, Qa : Qb : Qc = a2 : b2 : c2
But surface change density for all are same.
 a2 
 Qa =  2 2 2  Q
a + b + c 
 b2 
 Q1 =  2 
Q
 a + b + c1 
2 2
 c2 
 Qi =  2 2 2  Q
 a + b + c1 
Put these values in Eq. (1), we get
K a2  k b2  k c2 
V=  2 2
Q +  2 2
Q +  2 2
a a + b 2
+ c  b  a + b 2
+ c  c  a + b 2
+ c 
 a+b+c 
= kQ  2 2 
a + b + c 
2
Q  a+b+c 
=  a 2 + b2 + c2 
4 0  
Answer: (4).
14. A parallel-plate capacitor having capacitance 12 pF is charged by a battery to a potential
difference of 10 V between its plates. The charging battery is now disconnected and a
porcelain slab of dielectric constant 6.5 is slipped between the plates. The work done by the
capacitor on the slab is
(1) 692 pJ
(2) 508 pJ
(3) 560 pJ
(4) 600 pJ (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Initial energy of capacitor
1 Q2
Ui =
2 C
1 120  120
=  [Q = CV = 12  10 pC = 120 pC]
2 12
= 600 J
Since battery is disconnected so charge remains same.
Final energy of capacitor is
1 Q2
Uf =
2 C
1 120  120
=  = 92 J
2 12  6.5
Therefore, work done is
W = Ui – Uf
= 600 – 92 = 508 pJ
Answer: (2).
15. The given graph shows variation (with distance r from centre) of
(1) electric field of a uniformly charged sphere.

(2) potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell.
(3) potential of a uniformly charged sphere.
(4) electric field of a uniformly charged spherical shell.
(JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Growth and decay of current in LR circuit is
LdI
−R − + = 0
dt
LdI
= + iR
dt
LdI
  = IR =
dt
dt dI
 L =   − iR
Let ε – iR = A
dt dt
  =
L A
R
 − t = ln P
L
R   − iR 
 − t = ln  
L   
R
t iR
 eL =1−

1

i=  1 − e 2  during growth
R 
L
Time constant, I =
R
1
−
i = imax e 2
during decay
Therefore, the given charge shows the potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell.
Answer: (2).
16. In the figure shown below, the charge on the left plate of the 10 μF capacitor is −30 μC. The
charge on the right plate of the 6 μF capacitor is
(1) + 18 μC
(2) + 12 μC
(3) −18 μC
(4) −12 μC (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
6 μF and 4 μF are parallel to each other. Total charge is 30 μF.
6
Charge on 6 μF capacitor =  30 [Q = CV]
6+4
= 18 μC
Therefore, charge on right plate is +18 μC.
Answer: (1).
17. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of
electric dipole moment is 10−29 C m. What is the potential energy of the electric dipole?
(1) −20 × 10−18 J
(2) −7 × 10−27 J
(3) −10 × 10−29 J
(4) −9 × 10−20 J (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Potential energy is
U = −P  E
= −PE cos θ
= −(10−29) (103) cos 45°
= –(0.707) × 10−26
= –7 × 10−27 J
Answer: (2).
18. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 μF, are to be connected in a configuration to obtain an
effective capacitance of   μF. Which of the combinations, shown in figures below, will
6
 
13
achieve the desired value?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)

Solution:
Effective capacitance is
6
Ceff = μF
13
Three capacitors are in parallel.
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + + +
Ceff 3C C C C C
1+ 3 + 3 + 3 + 3
=
3C
1 13
 =
Ceff 3C
3C 6
 Ceff = = μF
13 13
Answer: (2).
19. There is a uniform spherically symmetric surface charge density at a distance R0 from the
origin. The charge distribution is initially at rest and starts expanding because of mutual
repulsion. The figure that represents best the speed V(R(t)) of the distribution as a function of
its instantaneous radius R(t) is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
At any instant time t total energy of charge distribution is constant.
1 2 kQ 2 kQ 2
mv + = 0+
2 2R 2 R0
1 kQ 2 kQ 2
 mv 2 = −
2 2 R0 2R
2  kQ2 kQ2 
 v= −
m  2R0 2R 
2 kQ2  1 1 
 v= . −
m 2  R0 R 
kQ2  1 1 
 v= −
m  R0 R 
1 1
v=C −
R0 R
Also the slope of V-R curve will go on decreasing.
Answer: (3)
20. In the circuit shown, find C if the effective capacitance of the whole circuit is to be 0.5 μF.
All values in the circuit are in μF.
7
(1) F
11
6
(2) F
5
(3) 4 μF
7
(4) F (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
10
Solution:
From given circuit
7
C
Ceff = 3
7
C+
3
7C
1
 = 3
2 7 +C
3
7 14C
 +C =
3 3
7 + 3C 14C
 =
3 3
 7 + 3C = 14C
7
C=
11
Answer: (1).
21. A parallel-plate capacitor with plates of area 1 m2 each, are at a separation of 0.1 m. If the
electric field between the plates is 100 N/C, the magnitude of charge on each plate is
 C2 
 take  0 = 8.85  10 −12

 N m2 
(1) 7.85 × 10−10 C
(2) 6.85 × 10−10 C
(3) 8.85 × 10−10 C
(4) 9.85 × 10−10 C (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
By Gauss law electric field is

E=
0
Q
=
A 0
Charge on plate, Q = A0 E

= 1 × 8.85 × 10−12 × 100
= 8.85 × 10−10 C
Answer: (3).
22. The charge on a capacitor plate in a circuit, as a function of time, is shown in the figure
What is the value of current at t = 4 s?
(1) zero
(2) 3 μA
(3) 2 μA
(4) 1.5 μA (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd Shift)
Solution:
Slope of q-t graph gives current
dq
I=
dt
At t = 4 s, slope is zero.
Hence, current at 4 s will be zero.
Answer: (1).
Chapter 3: Current Electricity
23. A resistance is shown in the figure. Its value and tolerance are given, respectively, by
(1) 270 Ω, 10%

(2) 27 kΩ, 10%
(3) 27 kΩ, 20%
(4) 270 Ω, 5% (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
This resistor, read from left to right, has the colored bands of RED, VIOLET, ORANGE and
SILVER.
The resistance is,
R = (1st Digit × 10 + 2nd Digit) × Multiplier
R = (RED × 10 + VIOLET) × ORANGE = (2 × 10 + 7) × 1,000
= 27,000 Ω = 27 kΩ
Since, the last band is silver, the tolerance is 10%.
Answer: (2).
24. Drift speed of electrons, when 1.5 A of current flows in a copper wire of cross section 5 mm2,
is v. If the electron density in copper is 9 × 1028/m3 the value of v in mm/s is close to (take
charge of electron to be 1.6 × 10−19 C)
(1) 0.02
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0.2 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Cross section of copper wire, A = 5 mm2 = 5 × 10−6 m2
Current flows in a copper wire, I = 1.5 A
Charge, q = 1.6 × 10−19 C
h = 9 × 1028 /m3
Now, I = hAVq
I
 V=
neA
1.5
= = 0.02 m/s
9  1028  1.6  10−19  5  10−6
Answer: (1).
25. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% longer. The percentage change in its electrical
resistance if its volume remains unchanged is
(1) 2.2%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 0.5% (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Resistance is given by,
l
R=
A
We know that,
Al = Volume (constant)
V
 A=
l
l 2
R=
V
Now, percentage change is
R l
% = 2 %
R l
= 2 × 0.5 = 1%
Answer: (3).
26. When the switch S, in the circuit shown, is closed, then the value of current i will be
(1) 3 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 2 A (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let V be the voltage at C.
According to the Kirchhoff’s current law, we have
i1 + i2 – i = 0
20 − V 10 − V 0 − V
 + − =0
2 2 2
 V = 10
V 10
Current, i= = =5A
R 2
Answer: (2).
27. A carbon resistance has a following colour code. What is the value of the resistance?
(1) 530 kΩ ± 5%
(2) 5.3 MΩ ± 5%
(3) 6.4 MΩ ± 5%
(4) 64 kΩ ± 10%
(JEE MAIN 2019, 9 January 2nd Shift)
Solution:
Resistor code for Green = 5
Resistor code for Orange = 3
Resistor code for Yellow = 104
Tolerance for Golden = ±5%
Therefore, G O Y Golden = 5 × 10 + × 104 ± 5%
= 53 × 104 ± 5%
= 530 kΩ ± 5%
Answer: (1).
28. In the given circuit the internal resistance of the 18 V cell is negligible. If R1 = 400 Ω, R3 =
100 Ω and R4 = 500 Ω and the reading of an ideal voltmeter across R4 is 5 V, then the value of
R2 will be
(1) 300 Ω
(2) 450 Ω
(3) 550 Ω
(4) 230 Ω
Solution:
The voltage across resistance R4 is
V4 = 5V
Thus, current i1 = 5/500 = 0.01 A
Voltage across resistance R3 is
V3 = 0.01 × 100 = 1 V
Thus, Total voltage = V1 + V3 + V4
(since voltage across R2 is same as voltage across R3 and R4)
 18 = 1 + 5 + V1  V1 = 12 V
 i = 12/400 = 0.03 A
 i2 = i – i1 = 0.03 – 0.01 = 0.02 A
V 6
Therefore, R2 = 2 = = 300 
i2 0.02
Answer: (1).
29. A potentiometer wire AB having length L and resistance 12 r is joined to a cell D of emf ε
and internal resistance r. A cell C having emf ε/2 and internal resistance 3r is connected. The
length AJ at which the galvanometer as shown in figure, shows no deflection is
11
(1) L
12
11
(2) L
24
13
(3) L
24
5
(4) L (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
12
Solution:
Let at x distance it will show no deflection then current

i =
AB
13r
x  
In case of no deflection i   12r  =
L  2
 x  
   12r  =
13r  L  2
13L
 x=
24
Answer: (3).
30. A uniform metallic wire has a resistance of 18 Ω and is bent into an equilateral triangle. Then,
the resistance between any two vertices of the triangle is
(1) 4 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 12 Ω
(4) 2 Ω (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Given resistance of metallic wire = 18 Ω
It is bended into equilateral triangle and the length of each side is same.
Ans its resistance = 6 Ω
Now, Req between any two vertex is

1 1 1 1+ 2
= + =
Req 12 6 12
1 3
 =
Req 12
12
 Req =
3
 Req = 4 Ω
Answer: (1).
31. In the given circuit the cells have zero internal resistance. The currents (in Amperes) passing
through resistance R1 and R2, respectively, are
(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 2
(3) 0.5, 0
(4) 0, 1 (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Potential difference across
R1 = 10 – 0 = 10 V
10 1
Current i through R1 = =
20 2
= 0.5 Ampere
Potential difference across R2 = 0 – 0 Volt
Therefore, current i through R2 = 0
Answer: (3).
32. A 2 W carbon resistor is color coded with green, black, red and brown, respectively. The
maximum current which can be passed through this resistor is
(1) 20 mA
(2) 100 mA
(3) 0.4 mA
(4) 63 mA (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Resistor from color coding
R = 50 × 102 Ω = 5000 Ω
Power = 2 W
Power is
P = i2R
 2 = i2 × 5000
2
 i2 =
5000
0.4
 i2 =
1000
2
i= A = 20 mA
100
Answer: (1).
33. The Wheatstone bridge shown in figure here, gets balanced when the carbon resistor used as
R1 has the color code (orange, red, brown). The resistors R2 and R4 are 80 Ω and 40 Ω,
respectively. Assuming that the color code for the carbon resistors gives their accurate values,
the colour code for the carbon resistor, used as R3, would be
(1) Brown, Blue, Brown

(2) Brown, Blue, Black
(3) Red, Green, Brown
(4) Grey, Black, Brown (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Color code of Orange = 3
Color code of Red = 2
Color code of Brown = 10
So, R1 = 32 × 10 = 320 Ω
The balanced condition of wheat stone bridge is
R1 R2
=
R3 R4
320 80
 =
R3 40
320  40
 R3 = = 160
80
R3 = (1  10 + 6 )  10
| | |
Brown Blue Brown
Hence, the color code is Brown, Blue, Brown.

Answer: (1).
34. The actual value of resistance R, shown in the figure is 30 Ω. This is measured in an
V
experiment as shown using the standard formula R = , where V and I are the readings of the
I
voltmeter and ammeter, respectively. If the measured value of R is 5% less, then the internal
resistance of the voltmeter is
(1) 600 Ω
(2) 570 Ω
(3) 35 Ω
(4) 350 Ω
Solution:

i=
RV R
RA +
RV + R
 ( RV + R)
i=
RA ( RV + R) + RV R
RV R
V =
 R R 
( RV + R)  RA + V 
 RV + R
RV R
V =
RA RV + RA R + RV R
V
Now, Rreq =
i
5
 Rreq = 30 − 30 
100
 5 
= 30 1 − 
 100 
95
= 30  = 28.5
100
R R
Thus, Rreq = V
RV + R
RV R
 28.5 =
RV + R
RV  30
 28.5 = [R = 30 Ω]
RV + 30
 28.5 (RV + 30) = RV × 30
 28.5RV + 28.5 × 30 = 30RV
 28.5 × 30 = 30RV – 28.5RV
 28.5 × 30 = 1.5RV
28.5  30
 RV = = 570 Ω
1.5
Answer: (2).
35. A current of 2 mA was passed through an unknown resistor which dissipated a power of 4.4
W. Dissipated power when an ideal power supply of 11 V is connected across it is
(1) 11 × 10−5 W
(2) 11 × 10−3 W
(3) 11 × 10−4 W
(4) 11 × 105 W (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Power, P = i2R
4.4 = (2)2 × 10–6 × R
4.4
R= 2
(2)  10−6
 R = 1.1 × 106
Now, dissipated power is
(11)2
PD =
R
11  11
= = 11 × 10−5 W
1.1  106
Answer: (1).
36. In a Wheatstone bridge (see the figure), resistances P and Q are approximately equal. When R
= 400 Ω, the bridge is balanced. On interchanging P and Q, the value of R, for balance, is 405
Ω. The value of X is close to
(1) 401.5 Ω
(2) 404.5 Ω
(3) 403.5 Ω
(4) 402.5 Ω (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Balanced condition of Wheatstone bridge is,
P R
=
Q S
Now,
P 400
=
Q x (1)
And,
Q 405
=
P x
P x
 =
Q 405 (2)
From Eq. (1) and Eq. (2), we get
400 x
=
x 405
 x2 = 400 × 405
 x = 400  405
 x = 20 405
 x = 402.5 ohm
Answer: (4).
37. Two equal resistances when connected in series to a battery, consume electric power of 60 W.
If these resistances are now connected in parallel combination to the same battery, the electric
power consumed will be
(1) 30 W
(2) 60 W
(3) 120 W
(4) 240 W (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
In series condition, power consumed is
V2
P=
2R
V2
 60 =
2R
2
V
 = 120
R
In parallel condition, power consumed is
V 2 2V 2
= = 2(120) = 240W
Req R
Answer: (4).
38. The resistance of the meter bridge AB in given figure is 4 Ω. With a cell of emf ε = 0.5 V and
rheostat resistance Rh = 2 Ω the null point is obtained at some point J. When the cell is
replaced by another one of emf ε = ε2 the same null point J is found for Rh = 6 Ω. The emf ε2
is
(1) 0.3 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) 0.6 V
(4) 0.4 V (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let null point J be at l cm from A.
Then at balance condition we have
 6  4 1
E1   x =
4+2 L 2
x 1
 =
L 8
 6  4
E2 =    x
4+6 L
6 4 1
=  
10 1 8
= 0.3 V
Answer: (1).
39. In the experimental set up of meter bridge shown in the figure, the null point is obtained at a
distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10 Ω resistor is connected in series with R1, the null point shifts
by 10 cm. The resistance that should be connected in parallel with (R1 + 10) Ω such that the
null point shifts back to its initial position is
(1) 20 Ω
(2) 40 Ω
(3) 60 Ω
(4) 30 Ω (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Consider the following circuit,
Now using Wheatstone bridge equation, we have

R1 40 40
= =
R2 (100 − 40) 60
R 2 2
 1 =  R1 = R2
R2 3 3
R + 10 50
 1 =
R2 50
R1 + 10
 =1
R2
 R1 + 10 = R2
2
 R2 + 10 = R2
3
2
 10 = R2 − R2
3
 3R2 – 2R2 = 30
 R2 = 30 Ω
Thus, R1 = 30 – 10 = 20 Ω
Now,
30  R
30 + R = 2
30 3
30  R 2
 =
(30 + R)30 3
 90R = 180 + 60R
 30R = 180
 R = 60 Ω
Answer: (3).
40. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B is
(1) 1 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 6 V (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Potential difference across AB
E1 E2 E2
+ +
r1 r2 r3
VAB =
1 1 1
− + +
r1 r2 r3
1 2 3
+ +
=1 1 1
1 1 1
+ +
1 1 1
6
= =2V
3
Answer: (2).
41. An ideal battery of 4 V and resistance R are connected in series in the primary circuit of a
potentiometer of length 1 m and resistance 5 Ω. The value of R, to give a potential difference
of 5 mV across 10 cm of potentiometer wire, is
(1) 490 Ω
(2) 480 Ω
(3) 395 Ω
Solution:
Let i be the current flowing in the wire

V 4
i= =
R R+5
If resistance of 10 m length of wire is r, then
0.1
r = 0.5  = 5  
1
Potential difference, ΔV = ir
 4 
5  10−3 =   0.5
 R +5
 4  5
 5  10−3 =  
 R + 5  100
4
 = 10−2
R+5
 R + 5 = 400
 R = 400 – 5= 395 Ω
Answer: (3)
42. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1 m has a non-uniform cross-section such that, the
dR dR 1
variation of its resistance R with length l is  . Two equal resistances are
dl dl l
connected as shown in the figure. The galvanometer has zero deflection when the jockey is at
point P. What is the length AP?
(1) 0.2 m
(2) 0.3 m
(3) 0.25 m
(4) 0.35 m (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Balanced condition of Meter bride is

P R
=
Q S
(100 − l ) R
 =
l S
dR 1
Given 
dl l
dl
 dR = k (k = constant)
l
For zero deflection,
R1
=1
R2
 R1 = R2 (1)
l
dl
 R1 = k  =k 2 l
0 l
100 − l
dl
and R2 = k l l
= k (2 − 2 l )
Substitute the value of R1 and R2 in Eq. (1), we have

2k l = k (2 − 2 l )
 2k l = k2 − 2k l
 l =1− l
 l + l =1
 2 l =1
1
 l=
2
2
 ( l )2 =  
1
2
1
l= = 0.25 m
4
Answer: (3)
43. Two electric bulbs, rated at (25 W, 220 V) and (100 W, 220 V), are connected in series across
a 220 V voltage source. If the 25 W and 100 W bulbs draw powers P1 and P2, respectively,
then
(1) P1 =16 W, P2 = 4 W
(2) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 9 W
(3) P1 = 9 W, P2 = 16 W
(4) P1 = 4 W, P2 = 16 W (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Suppose R1 and R2 are Resistance of bulb

V1 2 (220) 2
R1 = =
P1 25
V2 2 (220)2
R2 = =
P2 100
Current
220
i=
R1 + R2
220
i=
 (220)2
(220) 2 
 25 + 100 
 
220
=
(220)2  1 
1+
25  4 
220
= 2
(220) (220)2
+
25 100
220
=
(220)2  1 
1+
25  4 
220  25  4 1
= =
(220)2  5 11
Now, Power
P1 = i2R1
1 1 (220)2
=  
11 11 25
400
= = 16 W
25
P2 = i2R2
1 1 (220)2 400
=    P2 =  P2 = 4 W
11 11 100 100
Answer: (1)
44. In the figure shown, after the switch S is turned from position A to position B, the energy
dissipated in the circuit in terms of capacitance C and total charge Q is
1 Q2
(1)
8 C
3 Q2
(2)
8 C
5 Q2
(3)
8 C
3 Q2
(4) (JEE MAIN 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
4 C
Solution:
Change on capacitor C before turning the switch S
Q = CE (1)
Since, when switch S is turned from A to B charge will be transferred from one capacitor to
another capacitor until potential will not same.
Let common potential is  
C + 0
 =
C + 3C
C 
= =
4C 4
1
Initial energy, Ei = CE 2
2
1  
2
Final energy, Ef = C  
2  4
 
2
1 1 2
= (3C )   = CE
2 4 8
Energy dissipated, E = Ei − Ef
1  1
= C 2 1 − 
2  4
1 3
= C 2  
2 4
3 3 Q2
= C 2 =
8 8 C
Answer: (2)
45. In the given circuit diagram, the currents, I1= −0.3 A, I4 = 0.8 A and I5 = 0.4 A, are flowing
as shown. The currents I2, I3 and I6, respectively, are
(1) 1.1 A, −0.4 A, 0.4 A

(2) 1.1 A, 0.4 A, 0.4 A
(3) 0.4 A, 1.1 A, 0.4 A
(4) −0.4 A, 0.4 A, 1.1 A (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
From using KCL at point S
I5 + I3 = I4
 I3 = 0.8 – 0.4
 I3 = 0.4 A (1)
At point P
I5 = I6 = 0.4 A (2)
At point Q
I3 + I6 = I1 + I2
 I2 = I3 + I6 – I1
= 0.4 + 0.4 – (–0.3)
= 0.4 + 0.4 + 0.3 = 1.1 A
Answer: (2).
Chapter 4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
46. A current loop, having two circular arcs joined by two radial lines is shown in the figure. It
carries a current of 10 A. The magnetic field at point O will be close to
(1) 1.0 × 10−7 T

(2) 1.5 × 10−7 T
(3) 1.5 × 10−5 T
(4) 1.0 × 10−5 T (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let B be the magnetic field at point O due to are of radius r.
I
B= 0  (1)
4 r
Given r1 = 3 cm = 3 × 10−2 m, r2 = 5 cm = 5 × 10−2 cm,

 = 45 = rad, I = 10 A
4
Therefore,
0 I  1 1  ˆ
B=   − k
4  r1 r2 
Since, both arcs have opposite direction of current
4  10−7  1 1 ˆ 
B=  10  − k =  10−5 T
16  3  10
−2
5  10−2  3
B  1.0  10−5 T
Answer: (4).
47. An infinitely long current-carrying wire and a small current-carrying loop are in the plane of
the paper as shown. The radius of the loop is a and distance of its center from the wire is d (d
≫ a). If the loop applies a force F on the wire, then
(1) F = 0
(2) F   
a
d 
 a2 
(3) F   3 
d 
2
a
(4) F    (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
d 
Solution:
Let the effective length of magnet be l.
So, magnetic moment is
M = i2πa2 × n (number of turns, n = 1)
= i2πa2 = ml
Suppose iw is the current flowing through the wire. The force on north pole of magnet = mB
and the force on south pole of magnet = mB. Then, resultant force is
F = 2mBcosθ
l
2 l
= 2mB = 2mB
 2
l2
d2 + 2 d2 +
4 4
0 I w i a 2  0 I w
= 2  i2 a 2  = 2 2
 2 l2 
2
 2 l2 
2  d +  2 d + 
 4  4 

a2
F
 2 l2 
d + 
 4
l << d, so l can be neglected.
a2
Therefore, F 
d2
Answer: (4).
48. A particle having the same charge as of electron moves in a circular path of radius 0.5 cm
under the influence of a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If an electric field of 100 V/m makes it to
move in a straight path, the mass of the particle is (Given charge of electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C)
(1) 9.1 × 10−31 kg
(2) 16 × 10−27 kg
(3) 1.6 × 10−19 kg
(4) 2.0 × 10−24 kg (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Suppose a particle of mass m and charge q, entering a uniform magnetic field induction B
at O with velocity V.
The force acting on the charge particle due to magnetic field is

F = qvB (1)
The force F on the charged particle due to magnetic field provides the required centripetal
force necessary for motion along the circular path of radius r
mv 2
F= (2)
r
mv 2
= Bqv
r
mv
 = Bq
r
 mv = Bqr (3)
Force due to electric field is

F = qE
Since, both are in straight line, then
qvB = qE
 E = vB (4)
From Eq. (3) and Eq. (4), we have
qB 2 vr
m=
vE
qB 2 r
 m=
E
1.6  10−19  (0.5)2  0.5  10−2
 m=
100
−24
= 2.0 × 10 kg
Answer: (4).
49. One of the two identical conducting wires of length L is bent in the form of a circular loop
and the other one into a circular coil of N identical turns. If the same current is passed in both,
the ratio of the magnetic field at the central of the loop (BL) to that at the centre of the coil
BL
(BC), that is, will be
BC
(1) N
1
(2)
N
(3) N2
1
(4) 2 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
N
Solution:
Let R be the radius of loop and r be the radius of circular coil of N turn.
For Loop,
L = 2πR (1)
For coil,
L = N × 2πr (2)
Fron Eq.(1) and Eq. (2), we get
R = Nr
Magnetic field at the centre of loop is
i
BL = 0
2R
Magnetic field at the centre of coil is
 Ni
BC =
2r
0 i
B 2r r
 R L = 2R = =
BC 0 Ni 2 RN rN .N
2r
BL 1
 = 2
BC N
Answer: (4).
50. In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from rest, by applying a voltage of 500 V.
Calculate the radius of the path if a magnetic field 100 mT is then applied. (Charge of the
electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C Mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg)
(1) 7.5 × 10−3 m
(2) 7.5 m
(3) 7.5 × 10−2 m
(4) 7.5 × 10−4 m (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
We know
mv
r=
qB
2mK 2mqV
= =
qB q2 B
2  9.1  10−31  500

=
100  10−3 1.6  10−19
75.4  10−6
=
100  10−3
 r = 7.5 × 10−4 m
Answer: (4).
51. A galvanometer having a resistance of 20 Ω and 30 divisions on both sides has figure of merit
0.005 ampere/division. The resistance that should be connected in series such that it can be
used as a voltmeter up to 15 V, is
(1) 100 Ω
(2) 120 Ω
(3) 80 Ω
Solution:
Deflection current is
i0 = nk
= 30 × 0.005
Thus, V = IR
 15 = (0.05 × 30 × 20) + (30 × 0.005 × R)
 15 = 3 + 0.15R
12
 R= = 80 Ω
0.15
Answer: (3).
52. The region between y = 0 and y = d contains a magnetic field B = Bzˆ. A particle of mass m
mv
and charge q enters the region with a velocity v = viˆ. If d = , the acceleration of the
2qB
charged particle at the point of its emergence at the other side is
qvB  1 ˆ 3 ˆ
(1)  i − j
m 2 2 
qvB  3 ˆ 1 ˆ 
(2)  i + j 
m  2 2 
qvB  − ˆj + iˆ 
(3)  
m  2 
qvB  iˆ + ˆj 
(4)   (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
m  2 
Solution:
Let us suppose that particles enter from circular path with center (0, d).
Radius of circular path is
mv
r=
qB
r
d=
2
q = a cos30(−iˆ) + a sin 30( ˆj )
a 3 ˆ a ˆj
= (−i ) −
2 2
 3 1 
= a  (iˆ) − ˆj 

 2 2 
F mv 2
Since, a = =
m rm
mv 2
a=
 mv 
 m
 qB 
qvB
a=
m
qvB  − 3 1 
a=  i− ˆj 

m  2 2 
Answer: (N*).
*Disputed question – None of the options is correct.
53. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric and magnetic field given by
E = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj; B = 4 ˆj + 6kˆ. The charged particle is shifted from the origin to the point P (x = 1; y
= 1) along a straight path. The magnitude of the total work done is
(1) (0.35)q
(2) 5q
(3) (2.5)q
(4) (0.15)q (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Electric and magnetic field is given by
E = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj , B = 4 ˆj + 6kˆ
F = qE + q(v  B)
= (2iˆ + 3 ˆj)q + q(v  (4 ˆj + 6kˆ)]
Work done by magnetic force = 0
So, F = (2iˆ + 3 ˆj )q
Therefore, work done by electric field = F  S
= [2iˆ + 3 ˆj ]q
= [2 × 1 + 3 × 1]q
= 5q
Answer: (2).
54. The galvanometer deflection, when key K1 is closed but K2 is open, equals θ0 (see figure). On
closing K2 also and adjusting R2 to 5 Ω, the deflection in galvanometer becomes 0 / 5. The
resistance of the galvanometer is, then, given by (neglect the internal resistance of battery)
(1) 5 Ω
(2) 22 Ω
(3) 25 Ω
Solution:
Let Rg is resistance of galvanometer

V
Case I: ig =
R + Rg
V
 ig = = C 0 (1)
220 + Rg
Case II:
 
 
ig = 
V   5 = C0 (2)
 5 Rg  R + 5 5
 220 + 
 5 + Rg 

5V C
 =
225 Rg + 1100 5
V C
 =
220 + Rg 5
225 Rg + 1100
 =5
1100 + 5 Rg
 225Rg + 1100 = 5500 + 25Rg
 225Rg – 25Rg – 5500 – 1100
 200Rg = 4400
4400
 Rg =
200
 Rg = 22 Ω
Answer: (2)
55. A galvanometer, whose resistance is 50 Ω, has 25 divisions in it. When a current of 4 × 10−4
A passes through it, its needle (pointer) deflects by one division. To use this galvanometer as
a voltmeter of range 2.5 V, it should be connected to a resistance of
(1) 250 Ω
(2) 200 Ω
(3) 6200 Ω
Solution:
Current flowing through galvanometer is
Ig = 4 × 10–4 × 25
= 10−2 A
Now,
2.5 = (50 + R) × Ig [V = IR]
 2.5 = (50 + R) × 10−2
 2.5 × 102 = 50 + R
 250 = 50 + R
 R = 200 Ω
Answer: (2).
Chapter 5: Magnetism and Matter
56. A bar magnet is demagnetized by inserting it inside a solenoid of length 0.2 m, 100 turns, and
carrying a current of 5.2 A. The coercivity of the bar magnet is
(1) 285 A/m
(2) 2600 A/m
(3) 520 A/m
(4) 1200 A/m (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Bar magnet requires a magnetic intensity μ.
The current through the solenoid is,

i=
n
μ = i × n (1)
Let n be the turns per unit length.
N
n=
l
Put this value in Eq. (1), we get
N
= i
l
100
=  5.2
0.2
Coercivity, μ = 2600 A/m
Answer: (2).
57. A magnet of total magnetic moment 10−2 iˆ A m2 is placed in a time varying magnetic field,
Biˆ(cos t ) , where B = 1 Tesla and ω = 0.125 rad/s. The work done for reversing the direction
of the magnetic moment at t = 1 s, is
(1) 0.01 J
(2) 0.007 J
(3) 0.028 J
(4) 0.014 J (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Magnetic moment,  = 10−2 iˆ A m2
Magnetic field B = Biˆ(cos t )
= 1cos(0.125t )iˆ
At t = 1 second
B = cos(0.125)
Therefore, Work done is
W = (  )  B
=2 × 10−2 cos (0.125)
= 0.019
Answer: (N*).
*Disputed question – None of the options is correct.
x
58. An insulating thin rod of length l has a linear charge density  ( x) = 0 on it. The rod is
l
rotated about an axis passing through the origin (x = 0) and perpendicular to the rod. If the rod
makes n rotations per second, then the time averaged magnetic moment of the rod is
(1)  n  l 3

(2) n  l 3
3

(3) n  l 3
4
(4) n  l 3 (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Magnetic moment M = NIA
Charge of element dq = ρdx
x
= 0 dx
l
dqvr
Magnetic moment of this charge element =
2
0 x dx x
 dM = x 
l 2
0 x2 dx
 dM =
2l
Integrating both the sides, we get
l
  x3 dx
M = 0
0 2l
0 l
=  x dx
3
2l 0
l
  r 4 
=  
2l  4  0
  l 4 
=  − 0
2l  4 
 0 l 4
= 
2l 4
0l 3
= [ω = 2πn]
8
2 n0l 3 
= = n 0 l 3
8 4
Answer: (4).
59. A hoop and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are made of a permanent magnetic
material with their magnetic moment parallel to their respective axes. But the magnetic
moment of hoop is twice of solid cylinder. They are placed in a uniform magnetic field in
such a manner that their magnetic moments make a small angle with the field. If the
oscillation periods of hoop and cylinder are Th and Tc respectively, then
(1) Th = Tc
(2) Th = 2Tc
(3) Th = 1.5Tc
(4) Th = 0.5Tc (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Let μ be the magnetic moment, M masses of hoop and solid cylinder and R is the radius of
hoop and solid cylinder.
Oscillation period of hoop is
Ih
Th = 2
B
MR 2
 Th = 2 (1) Th = MR 2 
(2 ) B
Oscillation period of cylinder is
Ic
Tc = 2
B
1
MR 2
 1 2
 Tc = 2 2
 I c = 2 MR 
B
MR 2
Tc = 2 (2)
2 B
MR 2
2
Th 2 B
=
Tc MR 2
2
2 B
Th
 =1
Tc
 Th = Tc
Answer: (1).
60. At some location on Earth the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is 18 × 10−6 T.
At this location, magnetic needle of length 0.12 m and pole strength 1.8 A m is suspended
from its mid-point using a thread, it makes 45° angle with horizontal in equilibrium. To keep
this needle horizontal, the vertical force that should be applied at one of its ends is
(1) 3.6 × 10−5 N
(2) 1.8 × 10−5 N
(3) 1.3 × 10−5 N
(4) 6.5 × 10−5 N (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
We have,
BH = BEarth cos 45
1
 BH = BEarth
2
 BEarth = 2 BH
l
 BEarth sin 45 = F   sin 45
2
Therefore, F = 2μBEarth
= 2 × 1.8 × 18 × 106
= 64.8 × 10−6
= 6.5 × 10−5 N
Answer: (4).
61. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 1 cm has a magnetic dipole
moment of 20 × 10−6 J/T when a magnetic intensity of 60 × 103 A/m is applied. Its magnetic
susceptibility is
(1) 3.3 × 10−2
(2) 4.3 × 10−2
(3) 2.3 × 10−2
(4) 3.3 × 10−4 (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Magnetic susceptibility is
I
=

 I = 
20  10−6
 =  (60  103 )
10−6
1
  =  10−3 = 3.3 × 10−4
3
Answer: (4).
62. As shown in the figure, two infinitely long, identical wires are bent by 90° and placed in such
a way that the segments LP and QM are along the x-axis, while segments PS and QN are
parallel to the y-axis. If OP = OQ = 4 cm, and the magnitude of the magnetic field at O is 10−4
T, and the two wires carry equal currents (see figure), the magnitude of the current in each
wire and the direction of the magnetic field at O will be (μ0 = 4π × 10−7N/A 2 )
(1) 20 A, perpendicular out of the page.

(2) 40 A, perpendicular out of the page.
(3) 20 A, perpendicular into the page.
(4) 40 A, perpendicular into the page. (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Magnetic field at O will be done by PS and QN

Given OP = OQ = 4 × 10−2
Magnetic field at point O is Bnet = 10−4 T
Magnetic field at Point O due to wire LP and MQ is zero.
Let current in each wire = i
Thus, Bnet = BPS + BQN (both inward)
i i
= 0 + 0
4 d 4 d
i
 Bnet = 0
2 d
2  10−7  i
 10−4 = = 20 A
4  10−2
Therefore, current is 20 A and it is perpendicular into the page.
Answer: (3)
63. A proton and an α-particle (with their masses in the ratio of 1 : 4 and charges in the ratio of 1 :
2) are accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. If a uniform magnetic field (B) is
set up perpendicular to their velocities, the ratio of the radii rp : rα of the circular paths
described by them will be
(1) 1: 2
(2)1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1: 3 (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Kinetic energy = qΔV

mv p
r= =
qB qB
2mqV
r=
qB
1 2mV
r=
B q
m
r
q
Given mp : mα = 1 : 4
qp : qα = 1 : 2
Therefore,
rp mp q
= 
r m qp
1 2 1
=  =
4 1 2
Answer: (1)
64. A paramagnetic material has 1028 atoms/m3. Its magnetic susceptibility at temperature 350 K
is 2.8 × 10−4. Its susceptibility at 300 K is
(1) 3.267 × 10−4
(2) 3.672 × 10−4
(3) 3.726 × 10−4
(4) 2.672 × 10−4 (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
As we know that relation between temperature and susceptibility is
1

TC
where, TC = Curie’s Temperature
 T
 1 = C2
 2 TC1
2.8  10 −4 300
 =
2 350
2.8  350  10−4
 2 =
300
= 3.266 × 10−4  3.267 × 10−4
Answer: (1).
65. The mean intensity of radiation on the surface of the Sun is about 108 W/m2. The rms value of
the corresponding magnetic field is closest to
(1) 1 T
(2) 102 T
(3) 10−2 T
(4) 10−4 T (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Intensity of EM wave is
1
I = 0 E 2c
2
 I =  0 cErms 2
As we know that
Erms = cBrms
So,
I =  0 c3 Brms
2
I
 Brms =
 0 c3
108
=
8.35  10−12  (3  108 )3
= 10−4 T
Answer: (4).
Chapter 6: Electromagnetic Induction
66. A conducting circular loop made of a thin wire, has area 3.5 × 10−3 m2 and resistance 10 Ω. It
is placed perpendicular to a time dependent magnetic field B(t) = (0.4 T) sin (50πt). The field
is uniform in space. Then, the net charge flowing through the loop during t = 0 s and t = 10
ms is close to
(1) 14 mC
(2) 7 mC
(3) 21 mC
(4) 6 mC (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
We have, A = 3.5 × 10−3 m2, R = 10 Ω
 1
Now, Q = =  A  ( B10 − B)
R 10
1 −3   
=  3.5  10   0.4sin − 0 
10  2 
1
=  3.5  10−3  0.4
10
= 1.4 × 10−4 = 14 mC
Answer: (1).
67. A solid metal cube of edge length 2 cm is moving in a positive y-direction at a constant speed
of 6 m/s. There is a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T in the positive z-direction. The potential
difference between the two faces of the cube perpendicular to the x-axis, is
(1) 12 mV
(2) 6 mV
(3) 1 mV
(4) 2 mV (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Potential difference between two faces = E × l
= (v × B)l
= 6 × 0.1 × 2 × 10–2
= 12 mV
Answer: (1).
68. There are two long coaxial solenoids of same length l. The inner and outer coils have radii r1
and r2 and number of turns per unit length n1 and n2, respectively. The ratio of mutual
inductance to the self-inductance of the inner-coil is
n r
(1) 2 . 1
n1 r2
n
(2) 1
n2
n2 r22
(3) .
n1 r12
n2
n1
Solution:
Self-Inductance is
L = μ0n12πr12l [ = Li ]
Mutual inductance is
M = μ0n1n2πr12l [1 = Mi2 ]
M 0 n1n2l r 2
Now, = 1
L 0 n12 r l
1
2
M n2
 =
L n1
Answer: (4).
69. A copper wire is wound on a wooden frame whose shape is that of an equilateral triangle. If
the linear dimension of each side of the frame is increased by a factor of 3, keeping the
number of turns of the coil per unit length of the frame the same, then the self-inductance of
the coil
(1) decreases by a factor of 9.
(2) increases by a factor of 27.
(3) increases by a factor of 3.
(4) decreases by a factor of 9 3. (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
The self-inductance of the coil is
N2A
L=
l
N
 = constant
l
 N l
 L  lA
 L  la 2
3a 2
 L
4
Therefore, self-inductance will increase by a factor of 3.
Answer: (1).
70. A 10 m long horizontal wire extends from North East to South West. It is falling with a speed
of 5.0 m/s, at right angles to the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field, of 0.3 ×
10−4 Wb/m2. The value of the induced emf in wire is
(1) 1.5 × 10−3 V
(2) 1.1 × 10−3 V
(3) 2.5 × 10−3 V
(4) 0.3 × 10−3 V (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Induced emf = Bvl sin θ
Since, θ = 45°
1
 = (0.3  10−4 )  (5)  (10) 
2
−3
= 1.06 × 10 V = 1.1 × 10 V −3
Answer: (2).
Chapter 7: Alternating Current
71. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step-down transformer with its
primary windings having 4000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the
transformer. If the current in the primary of the transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 90%,
the output current would be
(1) 50 A
(2) 45 A
(3) 35 A
(4) 25 A (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Vi
Efficiency,  = s s  100
Vp ip
230  is
 90 =  100
2300  5
i
 0.9 = s  50 × 0.9 = is
20  5
 is = 45 A
Answer: (2).
72. A series AC circuit containing an inductor (20 mH), a capacitor (120 μF) and a resistor (60 Ω)
is driven by an AC source of 24 V/50 Hz. The energy dissipated in the circuit in 60 s is
(1) 5.65 × 102 J
(2) 2.26 × 103 J
(3) 5.17 × 102 J
(4) 3.39 × 103 J (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Given R = 60 Ω, f = 50 Hz, C = 120 μF = 120 × 10−6 F
1
XC =
C
1
= (ω = 2πf)
2 fC
1
= = 26.52 Ω
2    60  120  10−6
Inductive Reactance
XL = ωL
= 2πfL
= 2 × π × 50 × 20 × 10−3
= 6.28 Ω
Now, XC – XL = 26.52 – 6.28
= 20.24
XC – XL ≈ 20
Impedance
Z = R 2 + ( X C − X L )2
= (60) 2 + (20) 2
= 3600 + 400
= 4000
= 20 10 
R 3
cos  = =
Z 10
Power consumed by the AC

 V
P = VI cos  I = 2 
 
V
= V . cos 
2
2
V
= cos 
2
(24)2 3
= 
20 10 10
= 8.64
Hence, energy dissipated in the circuit in 60s = 5.17 × 102 J
Answer: (3).
73. The self-induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. When the current in it is changed at uniform rate
from 10 A to 25 A in 1 s, the change in the energy of the inductance is
(1) 740 J
(2) 437.5 J
(3) 540 J
(4) 637.5 J (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
di
Induced emf, L = 25
dt
L  (25 − 10)
 = 25
1
L  15
 = 25
1
25 5
 L= =
15 3
Therefore, change in energy of inductance is
1 5
E =   (252 − 10)2
2 3
5
=  525 = 437.5 J
6
Answer: (2).
74. In the circuit shown, the switch S1 is closed at time t = 0 and the switch S2 is kept open. At
some later time (t0), the switch S1 is opened and S2, is closed. The behavior of the current I as
a function of time t is given by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
We have,
di
 −L − iR = 0
dT
di
 = L + iR
dT
di
  − iR = L
dT
Now, integrating both the sides, we get
dt di
 L =   − iR
Let ε – iR = P
dt −1 dP
 = 
L R P
−R
 t = ln P
L
−R   − iR 
 t = ln  
L   
R
− t iR
e L
=1−

 1

i= 1 − e  
R 
L
 =
R
1
−
 i = imax e  , during decay
Answer: (N*)
*Disputed question – As more than one option is correct [options (1), (2), (4) are correct].
75. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with resistance R = 5 Ω and an
inductance with L = 2 mH. An ideal battery of 1 5 V is connected in the circuit. What will be
the current through the battery long after the switch is closed?
(1) 5.5 A
(2) 7.5 A
(3) 3 A
(4) 6 A (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let I be the current in the circuit. Ideal inductor will behave like zero, resistance long time after
switch is closed
2E
I=
R
2  15
I=
5
I = 6 A
Answer: (4)
3 3
76. In the circuit shown here, C = μF, R2 = 20 Ω, L = H and R1 = 10 Ω. Current in L–R1
2 10
path is I1 and in C–R2 path it is I2. The voltage of AC source is given by V = 200 2 sin(100 t )
volts. The phase difference between I1 and I2 is
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 0° (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Given V = 200 2 sin100t
ω = 100
XL = ωL
3
=  100 = 10 3 
10
1
XC =
C
1
=
3
100   106
2
2  104
=
3
X 106 1000
Now, tan 1 = C = = = 577
R2 50 3  20 3
 1 = 89.9
90
Thus, θ1 is close to 90°
XL
tan 2 =
R1
10 3
 tan 2 =  tan 2 = 3
10
 θ2 = 60°
So, the phase difference = 90° + 60° = 150°
If R2 is 20 kΩ, then the phase difference = 60° + 30° = 90°.
Answer: (3).
Chapter 8: Electromagnetic Waves
77. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 50 MHz travels in free space along the positive x-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, E = 6.3 ˆj V/m. The corresponding magnetic
field B, at that point will be
(1) 18.9 10−8 kˆT
(2) 2.110−8 kˆT
(3) 6.3 10−8 kˆT
(4) 18.9 108 kˆT (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let B be the magnetic field, at a particular point E = 6.3 ˆj V/m
So,
E
B = ,
c
where c is the speed of light.
6.3
B = = 2.1 × 10–8 T
3  108
Unit vector
Eˆ  Bˆ = cˆ  ˆj  Bˆ = iˆ
iˆ
 Bˆ =  B̂ = kˆ
ˆj
 B = B Bˆ = 2.110−8 kˆ T
Answer: (2).
78. The energy associated with electric field is (UE) and with magnetic field is (UB) for an
electromagnetic wave in free space. Then
U
(1) U E = B
2
(2) UE > UB
(3) UE < UB
(4) UE = UB
Solution:
The average electric energy density is
1
U E = 0 E 2
2
The average magnetic energy density is
1 B2
UB =
2 0
In electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic field vary sinusoidally in free space so, in
above expression E and B are replaced by their rms values.
Therefore,
2
1 1 Brms
U E =  0 Erms
2
and U B =
2 2 0
 Erms 
2 2
Brms 1 Erms
 UB = =  Brms = c 
2 0 2 0 c 2  
1  1 
 UB =  0 0  Erms
2
c = 
20  0  0 
1
 U B =  0 Erms
2
2
Since energy density of electric and magnetic field is equal.
Hence, UB = UE
Answer: (4).
79. If the magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by (the speed of light = 3 × 108
  x 
m/s) B = 100 × 10−6 sin 2  2  1015  t −   , then the maximum electric field associated
  C 
with it is
(1) 6 × 104 N/C
(2) 3 × 104 N/C
(3) 4 × 104 N/C
(4) 4.5 × 104 N/C (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Speed of light is
c = 3 × 108 m/s
Magnetic field is
  x 
B = 100  10 −6 sin  2  2  105  t −  
  c 
Maximum magnetic field, B0 = 100 × 10−6 T
Therefore, electric field is
E0 = c × B0
= 3 × 108 × 100 × 10−6
= 3 × 104 N/C
Answer: (2).
80. The electric field of a plane polarized electromagnetic wave in free space at time t = 0 is
given by an expression E ( x, y) = 10 ˆj cos[(6 x + 8z )]. The magnetic field B (x, z, t) is given by
(c is the velocity of light)
1
(1) (6kˆ + 8iˆ)cos[(6 x − 8 z + 10ct )]
c
1
(2) (6kˆ − 8iˆ)cos[(6 x + 8z − 10ct )]
c
1
(3) (6kˆ + 8iˆ)cos[(6 x + 8 z − 10ct )]
c
1
(4) (6kˆ − 8iˆ)cos[(6 x + 8z + 10ct )]
c
Solution:
Electric field is
E = 10 ˆj cos(6 x + 8 z )
= 10 ˆj cos[(6iˆ + 8kˆ)( xiˆ − zkˆ)]
= 10 ˆj cos[k . r ]
Since, k = 6iˆ + 8kˆ is direction of waves
So, direction of B̂ will be along
6iˆ + 8kˆ 6iˆ + 8kˆ
cˆ  Eˆ = =
3b + 64 10
Let B = aiˆ − bjˆ + dkˆ and unit vector in direction of propagation of EM wave is
EB 6iˆ + 8kˆ
=
E B 10
10diˆ + kˆ(−10a) 6iˆ + 8kˆ

 =
10 a 2 + b 2 + d 2 10
E 10
 B= =
c c
c[10diˆ − 10akˆ] 6iˆ + 8iˆ
 =
10  10 10
 c diˆ + akˆ = 6iˆ + 8kˆ
6 −8
Thus, d = ,a =
c C
−8 ˆ 6 ˆ
B= i + k
c c
6kˆ − 8iˆ
Therefore, B = cos(6 x + 8 z − 10ct )
c
Answer: (2).
81. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 50 W/m2 enters in a medium of refractive index ‘n’
without any loss. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric fields, and the ratio of the
magnitudes of magnetic fields of the wave before and after entering into the medium are
respectively, given by
 1 
(1)  , n
 n 
 1 1 
(2)  , 
 n n
 1 
(3)  n , 
 n
(4) ( n , n ) (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
As we know that,
1
c= (1)
0  0
For transparent medium
1
v= (2)
K  0 0
1
c 0  0
=
v 1
K 0  0
c
 = K =n
v
We know that, intensity in term of electric field is
1
I =  0 E02 c (3)
2
1
I =  0 KE 2 v (4)
2
E02 c = KE 2 v
E02 Kv
 =
E2 c
2
E n2
 02 =
E n
E
 0 = n
E
Similarly, in terms of magnetic field
B2c
I= 0 (5)
20
B2v
I= (6)
20
B02 c B 2 v
=
20 20
B02 v 1
 2
= =
B c n
Answer: (3).
82. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area of 10 mm2. The magnitude of the maximum
electric field in this electromagnetic wave is given by
(Given: Permittivity of space  0 = 9  10−12 SI units; Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s.)
(1) 2 kV/m
(2) 0.7 kV/m
(3) 1 kV/m
(4) 1.4 kV/m (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Intensity of electromagnetic wave is given by
Power
I=
Area
1
=  0 E02 c
2
2P
Now, E =
 0 cA
−2  27  10−3  36  109
=
3  108  10  10−6
= 2  103 kV/m
= 14 kV/m
Answer: (4).
Chapter 9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
83. A convex lens is put 10 cm from a light source and it makes a sharp image on a screen, kept
10 cm from the lens. Now a glass block (refractive index 1.5) of 1.5 cm thickness is placed in
contact with the light source. To get the sharp image again, the screen is shifted by a distance
d. Then d is
(1) 1.1 cm away from the lens.
(2) 0.
(3) 0.55 cm towards the lens.
(4) 0.55 cm away from the lens. (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Distance of convex lens from source of light, u = −10 cm
Distance of convex lens from screen, v = 10 cm
Refractive index, μ = 1.5
Thickness of glass, t = 1.5 cm
1 1 1
As we know that, = −
f v u
1 1 1 1 2
 = − = (1 + 1) =
f 10 −10 10 10
1 1
 =
f 5
Therefore, f = 5 cm
 1
Now, the slab is shifted in the direction of incident ray = t 1 − 
 
 1  2
= 1.5 1 − = 1.5 1 −  = 0.5
 1.5   3
Distance of convex lens from source of light, u = −(10 – 0.5) = –9.5 cm

1 1 1
Again, = −
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 1
 = −  = −
5 v −9.5 v 5 9.5
1 9
 =
v 95
95
v=  v = 10.55 cm
9
Hence, the screen is shifted 0.55 cm away from the lens.
Answer: (4).
84. Consider a tank made of glass (refractive index 1.5) with a thick bottom. It is filled with a
liquid of refractive index μ. A student finds that, irrespective of what the incident angle i (see
figure) is for a beam of light entering the liquid, the light reflected from the liquid glass
interface is never completely polarized. For this to happen, the minimum value of μ is
5
(1)
3
3
(2)
5
5
(3)
3
4
3
Solution:
As we know that,
ip > ic
where ip = Angle of Brewster
ic = Critical angle
And sin ip > sin ic (1)
According to Brewester’s law,
g
tan ip = μ0 =
ω
sin ip 1.5
 =
cos ip 
1.5
 sin ip =
 + (1.5)2
2
Putting this value in Eq. (1), we get

sin ic < sin ip
1 1.5
 
  + (1.5)2
2
  2 + (1.5)2  1.5
Squaring both the sides, we get
 μ2 + (1.5)2 < (1.5μ)2
 μ2 + 2.25 < 2.25μ2
2.25 3
 2   
1.25 5
9 3
   
5 5
3
Thus, the minimum value of μ is .
5
Answer: (2).
85. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident on the first
mirror (M1) and parallel to the second mirror (M2) is finally reflected from the second mirror
(M2) parallel to the first mirror (M1). The angle between the two mirrors will be
(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 75°
Solution:
Let θ be the angle between two mirrors.
As we know that, sum of angle of triangle = 180°

θ + θ + θ = 180°
 3θ = 180°
 θ = 60°
Answer: (2).
86. A plano-convex lens of refractive index μ1 and focal length f1 is kept in contact with another
plano-concave lens of refractive index μ2 and focal length f2. If the radius of curvature of their
spherical faces is R each and f1 = 2f2, then μ1 and μ2 are related as
(1) μ1 + μ2 = 3
(2) 2μ1 – μ2 = 1
(3) 3μ2 − 2μ1 = 1
(4) 2μ2 – μ1 = 1 (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
We have,
f1 = 2f2 (1)
We know that
1  1 − 1  1 R
=  f1 =
f1  
1 R 2 − 1
1  2 − 1  −1  −R
=    f2 =
f 2  1   R  2 − 1
R 2R
=
1 − 1 2 − 1
 μ2 – 1 = 2μ1 – 2
 2μ1 – μ2 = 1
Answer: (2).
87. The eye can be regarded as a single refracting surface. The radius of curvature of this surface
is equal to that of cornea (7.8 mm). This surface separates two media of refractive indices 1
and 1.34. Calculate the distance from the refracting surface at which a parallel beam of light
will come to focus.
(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 4.0 cm
(4) 3.1 cm (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
We have,
 r i  r − i
− =
v u R
It is given that
4
u = −, r = = 1.34, R = 7.8 mm
3
4 i 4/3 − 1
 − =
3v  7.8
4−3
4
 −0= 3
3v 7.8
4 1
 =
3v 3  7.8
 v = 4 × 7.8
= 31.2 mm = 3.1 cm
Answer: (4).
88. An object is at a distance of 20 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.3 m. The lens forms an
image of the object. If the object moves away from the lens at a speed of 5 m/s, the speed and
direction of the image will be
(1) 1.16 × 10−3 m/s towards the lens.
(2) 3.22 × 10−3 m/s towards the lens.
(3) 0.92 × 10−3 m/s away from the lens.
(4) 2.26 × 10−3 m/s away from the lens. (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Lens equation is,
1 1 1
= −
f v u
1 1 1
 = −
13 v (−20)
10 1 1
 = +
3 v 20
1 10 1
 = −
v 30 20
200 − 3
=
60
1 197
 =
v 60
60
v=
197
60
v 197
Thus, m = =
u 20
60
= = 0.015
3940
Therefore, v1 = m2v0
= (0.015)2 (−5)
= 1.15 × 10−3 towards the lens
Answer: (1).
89. The variation of refractive index of a crown glass thin prism with wavelength of the incident
light is shown. Which of the following graphs is the correct one, if Dm is the angle of
minimum deviation?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
We have,
Dm = (μ – 1)A
Since, on increasing the wavelength, μ decreases and hence Dm decreases.
Answer: (1).
90. A monochromatic light is incident at a certain angle on an equilateral triangular prism and
suffers minimum deviation. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is 3, then the
angle of incidence is
(1) 90°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
Solution:
As we know that refractive index is given as
 A+ D
sin  
= 
2 
A
sin
2
Given A = 60 and  = 3
 60 + D 
sin  
 3= 
2 
sin(30)
60 + D 
 3 sin 30 = sin  
 2 
3  60 + D 
 = sin  
2  2 
 3  60 + D
 sin −1   =
 2  2
 3
 2sin −1   = 60 + D
 2 
 3
 D = 2sin −1   − 60
 2 
 D = 60°
Answer: (3).
91. What is the position and nature of image formed by lens combination shown in figure? (f1, f2
are focal lengths)
(1) 70 cm from point B at left; virtual.

(2) 40 cm from point B at right; real.
20
(3) cm from point B at right, real.
3
(4) 70 cm from point B at right; real. (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
As we know that lens formula is

1 1 1
− =
v u f
For first lens: u = −20; f = 5
1 1 1
= −
5 v (−2.0)
1 1 1 4 −1
 = − =
v 5 20 20
1 3 20
 = =
v 20 3
For second lens refraction,
20
u= −2
3
14
u=
3
And, f = −5
1 1 1
= −
f v u
1 1 1
 = −
−5 v 14
3
1 1
 =
v 70
 v = 70cm
Therefore, 70 cm from B at right, real.
Answer: (4)
92. A point source of light, S is placed at a distance L in front of the center of plane mirror of
width d which is hanging vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line
parallel to the mirror, at a distance 2L as shown below. The distance over which the man can
see the image of the light source in the mirror is
(1) d
(2) 2d
(3) 3d
d
2
Solution:
Consider ΔICD and ΔIAB.

Since, both are similar triangle so, ratio of identical side of triangle are equal.
2 y 3L
=
d L
 2y = 3d
Answer: (3)
93. A plano-convex lens (focal length f2, refractive index μ2, radius of curvature R) fits exactly
into a plano-concave lens (focal length f1, refractive index μ1, radius of curvature R). Their
plane surfaces are parallel to each other. Then, the focal length of the combination will be
(1) f1 – f2
R
(2)
2 − 1
2 f1 f 2
(3)
f1 + f 2
(4) f1 + f2 (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
For plano-convex lens:
1  1 1
= ( 1 − 1)  −  (1)
f1  −R  
For plano-concave lens
1 1 1 
= ( 2 − 1)  −  (2)
f2 R 
When both lenses are combined:
1 1 1
= +
f eq f1 f 2
1  − 1 2 − 1
 = 1 +
f eq −R R
1 −  + 1 + 2 − 1
 = 1
f eq R
1  − 1
 = 2
f eq R
R
 feq =
2 − 1
Answer: (2).
94. Formation of real image using a biconvex lens is shown in the figure. If the whole set up is
immersed in water without disturbing the object and the screen positions, what will one
observe on the screen?
(1) Image disappears

(2) Magnified image
(3) Erect real image
(4) No change (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Focal length
 1 1
F = (  − 1)  − 
 1
R R2
Since, whole set up is immersed in water without disturbing the object and screen position. Thus,
focal length of lens will change hence image disappear from the screen.
Answer: (1).
Chapter 10: Wave Optics
95. Two coherent sources produce waves of different intensities which interfere. After
interference, the ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 16. The intensity
of the waves is in the ratio
(1) 16 : 9
(2) 25 : 9
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 5 : 3 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
The ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity
I max 16
=
I min 1
We know that,
2
I max Amax
= 2
I min Amin
where, Amax and Amin are the maximum and minimum amplitudes of the wave.
Amax 16 4
 = =
Amin 1 1
A1 + A2 4
 =
A1 − A2 1
Using componendo and dividendo rule, we have
A1 5
=
A2 3
2
I  A  5
2
Therefore, 1 =  1  =  
I 2  A2   3 
I 25
 1 =
I2 9
Thus, the required ratio is 25 : 9.
Answer: (2).
96. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are placed 0.320 mm apart. Light of wavelength
λ = 500 nm is incident on the slits. The total number of bright fringes that are observed in the
angular range −30° ≤ θ ≤ 30° is
(1) 640
(2) 320
(3) 321
(4) 641
Solution:
Given λ = 500 nm, d = 0.32 mm, θ = 30°
Path difference
dsinθ = nλ
0.32 × 10−3sin30° = n × 500 × 10−9
1
0.32  10−3 
n= 2
500  10−9
0.32  10−3
 n=
1000  10−9
Therefore, n = 320
Answer: (2).
97. In a Young’s double-slit experiment with slit separation 0.1 mm, one observes a bright fringe
1
at angle rad by using light of wavelength λ1. When the light of wavelength λ2 is used a
40
bright fringe is seen at the same angle in the same set up. Given that λ1 and λ2 are in visible
range (380 nm to 740 nm), their values are
(1) 625 nm, 500 nm
(2) 380 nm, 525 nm
(3) 380 nm, 500 nm
(4) 400 nm, 500 nm (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Path difference is given by
d sin θ = nλ
1
And  = rad
40
1
 sin  =  =
40
 d × θ = nλ
d
Now, n =

1
0.1 
 n= 40

When λ = 380 nm
0.1 2500
n1 = =
40  380 380
= 6.578
When λ2 = 740 nm
0.1 2500
n2 = =
40  740 740
= 3.378
Thus, n = 4, 5, 6
For n = 4 λ = 625 nm
For n = 5 λ = 500 nm
Answer: (1).
98. Consider a Young’s double-slit experiment as shown in figure. What should be the slit
separation d in terms of wavelength λ such that the first minima occur directly in front of the
slit (S1)?

(1)
2( 5 − 2)

(2)
( 5 − 2)

(3)
2(5 − 2)

(5 − 2)
Solution:
At point P we have
x = 5d − 2d
= d ( 5 − 2)
For first minima we know that,

x =
2

 d ( 5 − 2) =
2

d=
2( 5 − 2)
Answer: (1).
99. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the path difference, at a certain point on the screen,
1
between two interfering waves is th of wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this point to
8
that at the center of a bright fringe is close to
(1) 0.94
(2) 0.80
(3) 0.74
Solution:
Let I be the intensity of each wave

x =
8
x
 =  2



= 8  2 =
 4
Now, I  = I + I + 2 I cos 
 
= 2 I + 2 I cos  
4
= 2I + 2I
= 2 I + (1.41) I
= (3.41) I
I  3.41
Therefore, = = 0.85
4I 4
Answer: (4).
100. In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303Å) falls on a double slit having a separation of
19.44 μm and a width of 4.05 μm. The number of bright fringes between the first and the
second diffraction minima is
(1) 10
(2) 05
(3 04
(4) 09 (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
For diffraction, first minima is

y1 = = 0.2469
a
Second minima is
2
y2 = = 0.4938
a
For interference, path difference at P
dV
= 4.8
D
Path difference at Q
dy
= 9.6
D
So, order of maxima is 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
Therefore, 5 bright fringes are there between the first and second diffraction minima.
Answer: (2).
101. A light wave is incident normally on a glass slab of refractive index 1.5. If 4% of light gets
reflected and the amplitude of the electric field of the incident light is 30 V/m, then the
amplitude of the electric field for the wave propagating in the glass medium will be
(1) 30 V/m
(2) 10 V/m
(3) 24 V/m
(4) 6 V/m (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let I be the incident energy and I  be the reflected incident energy.

I  = 0.96 I
Incident energy in air
1
I =  0 E02 c
2
Incident energy in glass

1
I  =  E 2v
2
1 2 1
 E v = 0.96  0 E02 c
2 2
 c
 E 2 = 0.96 0 E02
 v
0 2 c
 E 2 = 0.96 E [ = 0r ]
0r 0 v
1 c
 E 2 = 0.96 E02
r v
1
 E 2 = 0.96 2 E02 n
n
2
E
= 0.96 0
n
(30)2
 E 2 = 0.96 
1.5
 E2 = 576
 E = 576 = 24 V/m
Answer: (3)
Chapter 11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
102. Surface of certain metal is first illuminated with light of wavelength λ1 = 350 nm and then, by
light of wavelength λ2 = 540 nm. It is found that the maximum speed of the photoelectrons in
the two cases differ by a factor of 2. The work function of the metal (in eV) is close to
 1240 
 Energy of photon = eV 
  (in nm) 
(1) 1.8
(2) 2.5
(3) 5.6
Solution:
For λ1:
hc 1
−  = m(2v)2
350 2
hc 1
 −  = m(4v)2 (1)
350 2
For λ2:
hc 1
−  = mv 2 (2)
540 2
Now, dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get
hc
−
350 =4
hc
−
540
hc  hc 
 − = 4 −
350  540 
4hc hc
 − = 3
540 350
1  4 1  1  4  350 − 540 
 = hc  −  =  1240  
3  540 350  3  350  540 
 = 1.85 eV
Answer: (1).
103. The magnetic field associated with a light wave is given, at the origin, by B = B0[sin (3.14 ×
107)ct + sin (6.28 × 107)ct]. If this light falls on a silver plate having a work function of 4.7
eV, what will be the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?
(c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.6 × 10−34 J s)
(1) 6.82 eV
(2) 12.5 eV
(3) 8.52 eV
(4) 7.72 eV (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Given, magnetic field associated with light wave is
B = B0 [sin(3.14  107 c)t + sin(6.28  107 c)t ] (1)
where c is the speed of light
In above wave equation, there are two electromagnetic waves with different frequency.
To get maximum kinetic energy consider the photon with higher frequency
B1 = B0sin(π × 107 c)t
107
v1 = c
2
B2 = B0sin(2π × 107 c)t
v2 = 107c
v2 > v1
Kinetic energy of photoelectron will be a maximum for photon of higher energy.
E =  + KE [EPh = hf]
hf =  + KEmax
EPh = hf = 6.6 × 10−34 × 107 × 3 × 106

= 6.6 × 3 × 10−19
6.6  3  10−19
= eV = 12.37 eV
1.6  10−19
K.Emax = EPh − 
= 12.375 – 4.7 = 7.675
≈ 7.7 eV
Answer: (4).
104. In an electron microscope, the resolution that can be achieved is of the order of the
wavelength of electrons used. To resolve a width of 7.5 × 10−12 m, the minimum electron
energy required is close to
(1) 500 keV
(2) 100 keV
(3) 1 keV
(4) 25 keV (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Wavelength is given by
h
=
p
h
 p=

Therefore, required energy is
1
K.E. = mv 2
2
1 p 2 ( h / ) 2
= =
2 m 2m
(6.6  10−34 )2
=
(7.5  10−12 )(2  9.1  10−31 )
 KE = 25 keV
Answer: (4).
105. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of the light incident on a metal is changed from
300 nm to 400 nm. The decrease in the stopping potential is close to  = 1240 nm V 
hc
 e 
(1) 0.5 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 1.0 V
(4) 2.0 V (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
The potential necessary to stop any electron from reaching the other side
λ1 = 300 nm
λ2 = 400 nm
For λ1
hc
=  + eV1 (1)
1
For λ2
hc
=  + eV2 (2)
1
Subtracting Eq. (2) from Eq. (1), we get
1 1 
hc  −  = e(V1 − V2 )
 1 2 
hC  2 − 1 
 V1 − V2 =  
e  12 
 400 − 300 
=   1240
 400  300 
100
=  1240 1.03 1V
120000
Answer: (3).
106. In a Frank–Hertz experiment, an electron of energy 5.6 eV passes through mercury vapor and
emerges with an energy 0.7 eV. The minimum wavelength of photons emitted by mercury
atoms is close to
(1) 1700 nm
(2) 2020 nm
(3) 220 nm
(4) 250 nm (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
In Frank–Hertz experiment
12400
E (eV) =

12400
=
5.6 − 0.7
12400
=
4.9
= 2530 Å = 253 nm  250 nm
Answer: (4).
107. When a certain photosensitive surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of frequency
 , the stopping potential for the photocurrent is –V0 /2. When the surface is illuminated by
monochromatic light of frequency  / 2, the stopping potential is −V0. The threshold
frequency for photoelectric emission is
5
(1)
3
4
(2)
3
(3) 2
3
2
Solution:
Energy of incident photon is
V 
E = W0 + e  0 
2
eV
h = W0 + 0 (1)
2
h
= W0 + eV0 (2)
2
−3
W0 = h
2
−3
 h 0 = h
2
−3
 0 =
2
Answer: (4).
Chapter 12: Atoms
108. A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground state is excited by absorbing a photon of wavelength
980 Å. The radius of the atom in the excited state, in terms of Bohr radius a0, will be (hc =
12,500 eV Å)
(1) 25a0
(2) 9a0
(3) 4a0
(4) 16a0 (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Energy of Photon is
hc
E =

12500
=
980 = 12.75
Since, electron will excite to n = 4
Thus, R  n a0
2 2
= (4)2a0
 R = 16a0
Answer: (4).
109. If the de Broglie wavelength of an electron is equal to 10−3 times the wavelength of a photon
of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz, then the speed of electron is equal to (Given: speed of light = 3 ×
108 m/s; Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 J s; mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 −31 kg)
(1) 1.45 × 106 m/s
(2) 1.1 × 106 m/s
(3) 1.7 × 106 m/s
(4) 1.8 × 106 m/s (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
We have,
10−3  3  108
=
6  1014
= 0.5 × 10−9
 λ = 5 × 10−10
h
Since,  =
mv
h
v=
m
6.6  10−34
=
5  10−10  9.1  10−31
= 1.45 × 106 m/s
Answer: (1).
110. In a hydrogen-like atom, when an electron jumps from the M-shell to the L-shell, the
wavelength of emitted radiation is λ. If an electron jumps from N-shell to the L-shell, the
wavelength of emitted radiation will be
27
(1) 
20
16
(2) 
25
25
(3) 
16
20
(4)  (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
27
Solution:
From M-shell to L-shell
1  1 1
= (13.6 eV) z 2  2 − 2 
1 2 3 
 = (13.6 eV) z 2  − 
1 1 1
(1)
1  4 9
From N-shell to L-shell
1  1 1
= (13.6 eV) z 2  2 − 2 
2 2 4 
1 1 1 
 = (13.6 eV) z 2  −  (2)
1  4 16 
2 5 64
= 
1 36 12
20
 2 = 1
27
Answer: (4).
1
111. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U (r ) = kr 2 . If
2
Bohr’s quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary
with quantum number n as
(1) rn  n , En  n
1
(2) rn  n , En 
n
(3) rn  n, En  n
1
(4) rn  n2 , En  (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 1st shift)
n2
Solution:
1
Given U (r ) = kr 2
2
−dU
F =
dr
 2kr 
= − 
 2 
= kr
In circular motion
Fc = kr
mv 2
= kr
r
 mv 2 = kr 2 (1)
Bohr quantization is
nh
mvr =
2
nh
 mv = (2)
2 r
From Eq. (1), we get
m2 v 2
= kr 2
m
2
1  nh 
   = kr
2
m  2 r 
n2 h2
 = kr 2
4 2 mr 2
n2 h2
 r4 = 2
4 mk
1/4
 h2 
 r =  2  n1/2
4
 4 mk 
 r n
From Eq. (1), we get
U n
1
Thus, kinetic energy = mv 2
2
1
And potential energy = kr 2
2
Total energy E = KE + PE
1 1
= mv2 + kr 2
2 2
= kr 2  n
Answer: (1)
112. A particle A of mass m and charge q is accelerated by a potential difference of 50 V. Another
particle B of mass 4m and charge q is accelerated by a potential difference of 2500 V. The
ratio of de Broglie wavelengths A / B is close to
(1) 10.00
(2) 0.07
(3) 14.14
Solution:
Wave length is given by

h
=
p
h h
= = [K = qV]
2mK 2mqV
A 2mB qBVB
Thus, =
B 2mA qAVA
4mq  2500
=
mq  50
= 2 50 = 2 × 7.07

Therefore, A = 14.14
B
Answer: (3)
Chapter 13: Nuclei
113. A sample of radioactive material A, that has an activity of 10 mCi (1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010
decays/s), has twice the number of nuclei as another sample of a different radioactive material
B which has an activity of 20 mCi. The correct choices for half-lives of A and B would then
be, respectively,
(1) 5 days and 10 days.
(4) 20 days and 10 days. (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Activity is given as,
A = λN
for A λA NA = 10 (1)
for B λB NB = 20 (2)
A N A 1
=
B N B 2
 1 NB 1 1
 A = =  [NA = 2NB]
B 2 NA 2 2
 1
 A =
B 4
 λB = 4λA
(T1/2)A = 4(T1/2)B
If T1/2 = 5
(T1/2)A = 20 days
(T1/2)B = 5 days
Answer: (3).
114. At a given instant, say, t = 0, two radioactive substances A and B have equal activities. The
R
ratio B of their activities after time t itself decays with time t as e−3t. If the half-life of A is
RA
ln 2, the half-life of B is
(1) 4ln2
ln2
(2)
2
ln2
(3)
4
(4) 2ln2 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
We know that,
N = N0e−λt
If T1/2 be the half-life period, then at t = T1/2 and N = N0/2
N0
= N 0 e− T1/2
L
 eT / 2 = 2  T1/2 = loge 2
ln 2
 T1/2 =

Half-life of A = ln 2 [ln = loge]
λA = 1
At t = 0 RA = RB
Then, N A e−  T = N Be −  T
A B
NA = NB at t = 0
At t = t
RB N 0 e − Bt
 =  e− ( B − A )t = e−3t
RA N 0 e − A t
 −(λB – λA) = −3  λB – λA = 3
 λB = 3 + λ A = 3 + 1 = 4
ln 2 ln 2
 t1/2 = =
B 4
Answer: (3).
115. Using a nuclear counter, the count rate of emitted particles from a radioactive source is
measured. At t = 0 it was 1600 counts per second and t = 8 seconds it was 100 counts per
second. The count rate observed, as counts per second, at t = 6 seconds is close to
(1) 200
(2) 150
(3) 400
Solution:
At t = 0 s
dN
= A0 = 1600
dt
At t = 8s
dN
= A = 100 cps
dt
A 100
 =
Av 1600
 2n = 16
8
n=4=
T1/ 2
8
T1/ 2 =
4
T1/2 = 2 s
In t = 6 s number of half-life’s = 3
1600
Therefore, A = 3
2
1600
= = 200 cps
8
Answer: (1).
116. Consider the nuclear fission Ne20 → 2He4 + C12. Given that the binding energy/nucleon of
Ne20, He4 and C12 are, respectively, 8.03 MeV, 7.07 MeV and 7.86 MeV, identify the correct
statement:
(1) Energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied.
(2) 8.3 MeV energy will be released.
(3) Energy of 3.6 MeV will be released.
(4) Energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied. (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Ne2 → 2He4 + C12
Amount of energy
ΔE = 2 × (Binding energy of He4) + (Binding energy of C10) – (Binding energy of Ne20)
= 2 × (4 × 7.07) + (12 × 7.86) – (20 × 8.03)
= 56.56 + 94.32 – 160.6
= −9.72 MeV
Hence, the energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied.
Answer: (4).
117. 90 Th. At the end there are 6 α-particles and
In a radioactive decay chain, the initial nucleus is 232
4 β-particles which are emitted. If the end nucleus is ZA X, A and Z are given by
(1) A = 208; Z = 80
(2) A = 202; Z = 80
(3) A = 208; Z = 82
(4) A = 200; Z = 81 (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
We have,
6
232
90 Th ⎯⎯ → 78
208
Y + 42 He
208
78 Y ⎯⎯
→ 82
208
Y + 4 (Particle)
Hence Z = 82, A = 208 and element is Pb.
Answer: (3).
Chapter 14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
118. Mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the
applied electric field. If, for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is 1019 m−3 and
their mobility is 1.6 m2/(V·s) then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type
semiconductor contribution of holes is ignored) is close to
(1) 2 Ω·m
(2) 4 Ω·m
(3) 0.4 Ω·m
(4) 0.2 Ω·m (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Current in the semiconductor is,
I = neρAvd + nnρAvn
I = neρAvd [nnρAvn = 0]
We know that,
I = JA
 JA = ne eAvd
 J = neevd
E
 = ne evd

1 vd 1 vd 


= ne e   =  , E = e 
E  
Thus, σ = neeμe
= 1019 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 1.6 = 2.56
1 1
Therefore,  = = = 0.4 Ω m
 2.56
Answer: (3).
119. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3 V and 0.7 V, respectively. In the following figure if
Ge diode connection are reversed, the value of V0 changes by (assume that the Ge diode has
large breakdown voltage)
(1) 0.8 V
(2) 0.6 V
(3) 0.2 V
(4) 0.4 V (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
In the given circuit,
voltage, V = 12 V
Resistance, R = 5 kΩ
So,
12 − 0.3
Current, I =
5 k
11.7
=
5  103 
= 2.34 μA
Output voltage
V0 = RI
= (5 × 103) × (2.34 × 10−3)
= 11.7 V
When the connection of Ge diode are reversed then the current will be through Si.
12 − 0.7
Current I =
5 k
11.3
= = 2.26 μA
5  10−3
Therefore, output voltage
16 = 1R
= (2.26 × 10−3) × (5 × 103)
= 11.3
The value of V0 = (11.7 – 11.3) V
= 0.4 V
Answer: (4).
120. To get output 1 at R, for the given logic gate circuit the input values must be
(1) X = 0, Y = 1
(2) X = 1, Y = 1
(3) X = 1, Y = 0
(4) X = 0, Y = 0 (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
P = X +Y
Q=Y X
=Y + X
Output = P + Q
P + Q must be 0
Therefore, Y = 0, X = 1
Answer: (3).
121. A metal plate of area 1 × 10−4 m2 is illuminated by a radiation of intensity 16 mW/m2. The
work function of the metal is 5 eV. The energy of the incident photons is 10 eV and only 10%
of it produces photoelectrons. The number of emitted photo electrons per second and their
maximum energy, respectively, will be (1 eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J)
(1) 1014 and 10 eV
(2) 1012 and 5 eV
(3) 1011 and 5 eV
(4) 1010 and 5 eV
Solution:
Energy incident on plate per second = IA
= 1.6 × 10−3 × 1 × 10−4
= 1.6 × 10−7 W
Kinetic energy
K = hv − 
= 10 – 5 = 5 eV
Now,
Nhc
= 1.6  10−7

1.6−7
N=
10  1.6  10−19
 N = 1011
10
Therefore, number of emitted electrons per second = N 
100
10
= 1011  = 1010
100
Answer: (4).
122. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener diode is
(1) 9 mA
(2) 5 mA
(3) Zero
(4) 14 mA (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
If Zener diode does not undergo breakdown
V1 = 120 – 50
= 70
 V = IR
70 = I × 5 × 103
70
Now, I =
5  103
= 14 mA
V1 = 50 V
V1 = I1R
50 = 10 × 103 × I1
50
I= = 4 mA
10  103
Current through diode is
I2 = I – I1
= 14 – 5= 9 mA
Answer: (1).
123. In the given circuit the current through Zener Diode is close to
(1) 0.0 mA
(2) 6.0 mA
(3) 6.7 mA
(4) 4.0 mA (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
When potential drop across 1500 Ω is 10 V then current flowing through it is
10
I2 = [V = IR]
500
= 6.61 mA
Now, 2 V will be the potential difference across 500 Ω.
Thus, electric current flowing through it is
2
I1 =
500
= 4 mA
So, I2 > I1 this condition is not possible.
Therefore, voltage across Zener diode must be less than 10 V therefore it will not work in break
down region and its resistance will be infinite and current through it is equal to 0.
Answer: (1).
124. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50 Ω. If
the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through the 100 Ω resistance (in amperes) is
(1) 0.036
(2) 0.020
(3) 0.027
(4) 0.030 (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
The second diode is reverse biased. Thus, current only flow through first diode and its value is
6
i= = 0.02 A
300
Answer: (2).
125. The output of the given logic circuit is
(1) AB + AB
(2) AB + AB
(3) AB
(4) AB
Solution:
We have,
C = B + AB
D = A.( AB)
E = AB
Thus, Y = ( A + B ) A
= A + AB
= A( AB) = A( A + B )
= A + AB = AB
Answer: (3)
126. In the figure, given that VBB supply can vary from 0 to 5.0 V, VCC = 5 V, βdc = 200, RB = 100
kΩ, RC = l kΩ and VBE = 1.0 V. The minimum base current and the input voltage at which the
transistor will go to saturation, will be, respectively
(1) 25 μA and 3.5 V.

(2) 20 μA and 3.5 V.
(3) 25 μA and 2.8 V.
(4) 20 μA and 2.8 V. (JEE Main 2019, 12 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
For output, at saturation, VCE = 0
In CE circuit we have
VCC – ICRC = VCE
 VCC – ICRC = 0
V
 I C = CC
RC
5
= = 5 × 10−3 A
1  103
Now,
I
= C
IB
IC
 IB =

5  10−3
=
200
 IB = 25 μA
At input side in BE circuit
VBB = IBRB + VBE
= 25 × 10−6 × 100 × 103 + 1
 VBB = 3.5 V
Answer: (1).
Chapter 15: Communication Systems
127. In a communication system operating at wavelength 800 nm, only one percent of source
frequency is available as signal bandwidth. The number of channels accommodated for
transmitting TV signals of band width 6 MHz are (Take velocity of light c = 3 × 108 m/s, h =
6.6 × 10−34 J s)
(1) 3.75 × 106
(2) 3.86 × 106
(3) 6.25 × 105
(4) 4.87 × 105 (JEE Main 2019, 9 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
velocity
Frequency (f) =
wavelength
c 3  108
= =
 800  10−9
= 3.75 × 1014 Hz
Usable frequency = 1% of f
3.75  1014  1
= = 3.75  1012 Hz
100
3.75  1012
Therefore, required number of channel =
6  106
= 6.25 × 105
Answer: (3).
128. A TV transmission tower has a height of 140 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 40
m. What is the maximum distance upto which signals can be broadcasted from this tower in
LOS (line-of-sight) mode? (Given: Radius of Earth = 6.4 × 106 m).
(1) 65 km
(2) 48 km
(3) 80 km
(4) 40 km (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 1st shift)
Solution:
Let hr and hR be the height of transmitter tower and height of receiver respectively.
Maximum distance up to which signal can be broadcasted is
dmax = 2Rhr + 2RhR
 dmax = 2R ( hr + hR )
= 2  6.4  106 ( 104 + 40)
 dmax = 65 km
Answer: (1).
129. The modulation frequency of an AM radio station is 250 Hz, which is 10% of the carrier
wave. If another AM station approaches you for license what broadcast frequency will you
allot?
(1) 2750 kHz
(2) 2900 kHz
(3) 2250 kHz
(4) 2000 kHz (JEE Main 2019, 10 January 2nd shift)
Solution:
Amplitude modulated wave consist of three waves
fc, fc – fm, fc + fm, fc – fm and fc + fm are side band frequency
fc = 250 × 10 = 2500 kHz
 fc + fm = 2500 + 250 = 2750 kHz
 fc – fm = 2500 – 250 = 2250 kHz
For accepted frequency, two bandwidths do not overlap
f2 = fc + 2fm = 3000 kHz
or
f2 = fc – 2fm = 200 kHz
Answer: (4).
130. An amplitude modulated signal is given by V(t) = 10[l + 0.3 cos (2.2 × 104t)] sin (5.5 × l05t).
Here t is in seconds. The sideband frequencies (in kHz) are (Given: π = 22/7)
(1) 1785 and 1715.
(2) 892.5 and 857.5.
(3) 178.5 and 171.5.
(4) 89.25 and 85.75. (JEE Main 2019, 11 January 1st shift)
Solution:
We have,
3
V (t ) = 10 + [sin(572  103 t )sin(528 103 t )]
2
ω1 = 572 × 103
2πf1 = 572 × 103
572  103
f1 =
 22 
2 
 7
= 9.1 × 104
= 91 kHz
Now, ω2 = 528 × 103
2πf2 = 528 × 103
528  103
f2 =  f 2 = 84 kHz
22
2
7
Answer: (4).
131. An amplitude modulated signal is plotted below:
Which one of the following best describes the above signal?

(1) (9 + sin (2.5π × 105 t)) sin(2π × 104t) V
(2) (1 + 9sin (2π × 104 t)) sin(2.5π × 105t) V
(3) (9 + sin(2π × 104 t))sin(2.5π × 105t) V
(4) (9 + sin(4π × 104 t))sin(5π × 105t) V
Solution:
Carrier frequency is
2
c =
T
2
= = 2.5π × 105 s−1
8  10−6
Wave frequency is
2
s = = 2  104 s −1
100  10−6
Amplitude of the wave is
Vmax = Vc + Vs = 10
 Vmin = Vc – Vs = 8
 Vc = 9 mV
 Vs = 1 mV
Therefore, equation of AM wave is
VAM = (Vc + Vssinωst)sinωct
= {9 + sin(2π × 104)t} sin(2.5π × 105t) V
Answer: (3).
132. A 100 V carrier wave is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by a modulating signal. What
is the modulation index?
(1) 0.3
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.4
Solution:
Modulation index is given by

E
= m (1)
Ec
Now, maximum amplitude
Ec + Em = 160 V (2)
And minimum amplitude
Ec – Em = 40 V (3)
Solving Eq. (2) and Eq. (3), we get
Ec = 100 V; Em = 60 V
Substitute these values in Eq. (1), we get
60
= = 0.6
100
Answer: (3)
133. To double the covering range of a TV transmission tower, its height should be multiplied by
1
(1)
2
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 2
Solution:
Let d be the cover range of TV tower
Covering Range, d = 2hR
d h
Thus,
d1 h
= 1
d2 h2
Squaring both the sides, we get
d12 h1
=
d 22 h2
2
d 
 h2 = h1  2 
 d1 
2
 2d 
= h1  
 d 
 h2 = 4h1
Answer: (3).

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Solved JEE Main 2019 (January) Questions

Chapter-Wise (Class 12)

Chapter 1: Electric Charges and Fields

(2) (−63iˆ + 27 ˆj )  102

Let E1 and E2 are the electric field of q1 and q2.

9  109  10−6 (−iˆ + 3 ˆj )

(4) log 1 −

Thus, net electrostatic energy is given as

(1) electric field of a uniformly charged sphere.

(JEE Main 2019, 11 January 2nd shift)

Charge on plate, Q = A0 E

(1) 270 Ω, 10%

The voltage across resistance R4 is

Now, Req between any two vertex is

(1) Brown, Blue, Brown

Hence, the color code is Brown, Blue, Brown.

Now using Wheatstone bridge equation, we have

Let i be the current flowing in the wire

Balanced condition of Meter bride is

Substitute the value of R1 and R2 in Eq. (1), we have

Suppose R1 and R2 are Resistance of bulb

(1) 1.1 A, −0.4 A, 0.4 A

(1) 1.0 × 10−7 T

The force acting on the charge particle due to magnetic field is

Force due to electric field is

2  9.1  10−31  500

Let Rg is resistance of galvanometer

(1) 20 A, perpendicular out of the page.

Magnetic field at O will be done by PS and QN

Kinetic energy = qΔV

Power consumed by the AC

10diˆ + kˆ(−10a) 6iˆ + 8kˆ

Distance of convex lens from source of light, u = −(10 – 0.5) = –9.5 cm

Putting this value in Eq. (1), we get

As we know that, sum of angle of triangle = 180°

(1) 70 cm from point B at left; virtual.

As we know that lens formula is

Consider ΔICD and ΔIAB.

(1) Image disappears

Let I be the incident energy and I  be the reflected incident energy.

Incident energy in glass

EPh = hf = 6.6 × 10−34 × 107 × 3 × 106

Wave length is given by

(1) 25 μA and 3.5 V.

Which one of the following best describes the above signal?

Modulation index is given by

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