CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY STOMO USMF FINAL SEM 7 CS

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1. 2. CS . Choose the most effective drug used in status c 6. 3. CS Indicate heparin antagonist: d
epilepticus a) vitamin K;
A. chlorpromazine b) menadione;
B. oxazepam c) unitiol;
C. diazepam d) protamine sulfate;
D. magnesium sulfate e) calcium chloride.
E. lamotrigine
7. 3. CS Select the mechanism of action of clopidogrel d
2. 2. CS Select the principles of dosing of streptokinase in e and ticlopidine:
pulmonary artery thromboembolism: A. It prevents thromboxane synthesis (TX-A2)
A. For therapeutic purposes, 40.000-60 000 UA are B. It increases the amount of cAMP in platelets
administered in infusion for 4-6 hours, followed by the C. Direct action on platelet membrane
fractional introduction i/v of 5-10 000 UA every 4-6 D. Block of platelet receptors for ADP
hours 10-14 days. E. Block of thromboxane receptors (TX-A2)
B. 100-350 mg once daily or 300-500 mg once every 3
8. 3. CS. Which mechanism explains extrapyramidal c
days
antipsychotic disorders:
C. For therapeutic purpose 0.1ml / 10kg, twice a day,
A. M-cholinomimetic
prophylactic once a day for 10-14 days
B. G ABA-mimetic
D. 300-800 mg /on a day during the meal
C. Dopaminoblocker
E. Initially, 250 000 UA dissolved in 50 ml isotonic
D. dopaminomimetic
solution or 5% glucose solution in infusion for 30 min,
E. Adrenomimetic
then 750 000 UA dissolved in 500 ml saline or glucose
solution for 7-8 hours in infusion. 9. 3. SC. Which group of antibiotics is used as first choise e
in infections of the bones:
3. 2. CS Select the vitamin preparation, antagonist of the e
A. penicillins
anticoagulants with indirect action:
B. carbapenems
a) tocopherol;
C. cephalosporins
b) thiamine;
D. macrolides
c) cyanocobalamin;
E. lincosamides
d) riboflavin;
e) phytomenadione. 10. 4.CS Dopamine in high doses influences mainly: a
A. Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral
4. 2. SC. In which case the macrolides in stomatology will b
vasoconstriction)
be indicated:
B. Dopamine's receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal
A. Of ellection in any inflammatory dental process
and mesenteric vessels)
B. In case of beta lactamine allergy
C. Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhancing of
C. In infections with Pesudomonas aeruginosa
cardiac output )
D. In case of resistance to carbapenems
D. Beta-2 adrenoreceptors
E. Of election in anaerobic infections
E. All of the above
5. 3. CS Dopamine at medium doses influences mainly: c
11. 4. CS Indicate the topical remedy for stopping bleeding c
A. Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral
from small vessels:
vasoconstriction)
a) vitamin K;
B. Dopamine receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal
b) calcium chloride;
and mesenteric vessels)
c) thrombin;
C. Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhanced cardiac
d) acetylsalicylic acid;
output )
e) fibrinogen.
D. Beta-2 adrenoreceptors
E. All of the above
12. 4. CS Select the correct statement about folic acid: c 19. 5. SC. What is the duration of treatment with d
A. Inhibits the central nervous system Lincomycin in case of osteomyelitis:
B. It acts on the coagulation of blood A. 7 days
C. It influences the formation of purine and pyrimidine B. 5-7 days
nucleotides C. Up to 3 weeks
D. Stimulates the central nervous system D. 3 weeks and more
E. Acts directly on plasminogen E. Maximum 10 days
13. 4. CS. Which mechanism explains the anxiolytic effect d 20. 6. CS Name the fibrinolysis inhibitor: d
of benzodiazepines: a) pantripin;
A. M-colinoblocker b) lidase;
B. GABA-lytic c) terilithine;
C. Dopaminolytic d) aminocaproic acid;
D. GABA - allosteric mimetic e) pepsin.
E. Alfa-adrenolytic
21. 6. CS Select the correct answer about the b
14. 4. SC Which is the basic indication of lincosamides in d acetylsalicylic acid:
Dentistry: A. It possesses anti-aggregating effect at doses
A. Inflammatory processes of the oral cavity mucosa greater than 500mg
B. Acute gingivitis B. Administered in high doses, loses selectivity over
C. Chronic algic tooth syndrome platelet cyclooxygenase, responsible for the formation
D. Periodonta infectious inflammatory processes of TX A2
E. Trigeminal nerve neuralgia C. The anti-aggregating action is short-term and
requires frequent administration
15. 5. CS Select the correct answer for oral anticoagulants: c
D. Initially, it develops antipyretic and analgesic action
A. They do not penetrate the placental barrier
and after antiaggregant and anti-inflammatory action
B. They have no teratogenic effect
E. The latency of the anti-aggregating effect is 5-7
C. They can cause various malformations of the central
days.
nervous system (of the fetus), if they are used during
the pregnancy 22. 6. CS. Which mechanism explains the antivomitive c
D. They can be given for the treatment and prophylaxis effect of antipsychotics:
of thrombosis during pregnancy A. M-cholinomimetic
E. They do not cause liver, kidney injury B. GABA-mimetic
C. Dopaminoblocker
16. 5. CS Select the following preparations that CANNOT a
D. dopaminomimetic
be used as local hemostatic:
E. Adrenomimetic
a) phytomenadione.
b) thromboplastin; 23. 6. SC. What is characteristic for tetracyclines: b
c) thrombin; A. It is not used in dentistry
d) fibrin; B. It is used in dentistry only systemically
e) epinephrine; C. It is used in dentistry only locally
D. It is used in pediatric dentistry after 8 years
17. 5.CS Tick the group of drugs for treatment of shock with c
E. It has no hepatotoxic action
hypovolemia:
A. Positive inotropic drugs 24. 7. CS. Choose the group of sedative drugs that are used a
B. Vasoconstrictors in Dentistry:
C. Plasma expanders A. Benzodiazepines , low doses
D. Analeptics drugs B. Antagonistic of GABA
E. Vasodilators C. methylxanthines
D. phenylalkylamines
18. 5. CS. Which of the following drugs is part of the CNS c
E. Nootrope
excitatory group?
A. piracetam;
B. baclofen;
C. amphetamine;
D. Valproic acid;
E. Promethazine.
25. 7.CS Name the diuretic drug with high potency and fast a 31. 9. CS Aprotinin is indicated in bleeding by overdose of: b
action: A. Coumarin anticoagulants
A. Furosemide B. Fibrinolytic overdose
B. Spironolactone C. Standard heparin
C. Hydrochlothiazide D. Heparins with low molecular weight
D. Indapamide E. Anti-aggregants
E. Xipamide
32. 9. C S. What is the characteristic of Phenobarbital: d
26. 7. CS Select the indication of phytomenadione: a A. In large doses - sedative effect
A. Bleeding caused by overdosage with coumarin B. Inhibits liver enzymes
anticoagulants C. In small doses - hypnotic effect
B. Hemorrhages produced by fibrinolytic overdose D. It induces liver enzymes
C. Bleeding caused by overdose of standard heparin E. No matter the dose - psychostimulant effect.
D. Hemorrhages produced by overdose of heparins
33. 9. CS What is the mechanism of trypsin, like as b
with low molecular weight
proteolytic action?
E. Bleeding caused by overdose of antiaggregants.
a)direct action on the bronchial glands;
27. 7. SC. What is characteristic in oral administration of d b)fluidizes the sputum, depolymerizing the proteins;
tetracyclines: c)stimulates the bronchiolar muscles and the ciliated
A. Reduced toxicity epithelium;
B. Low absorbtion in the gut d)increases sputum secretion and fluidization;
C. Does not produce photosensitization e)intensifies the secretion of the bronchial glands in
D. It can produce candidomycosis, glossitis, gingivitis mod
E. First choice - children.
34. 9. SC. In which case Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid is of d
28. 8. CS Select the mechanism of action of ε- b choice:
aminocaproic acid: A. Treatment of stomatitis of any genesis
A. Decreases the capillary permeability, increases the B. Systemic periodontal antibacterial treatment
degree of platelet adhesion. systemic
B. Inhibits plasminogen activators by preventing C. Treatment of gingivitis
plasmin formation, stimulates platelet adhesion and D. Treatment of osteomyelitis
aggregation E. Treatment of infected dental
C. Participates in the synthesis of liver factors of
35. 10. CS Select the mechanism of action of low molecular d
coagulation
weight heparins (HMMM):
D. It specifically neutralizes the heparin
A. They inhibit the formation of coagulation factors and
E. Stimulates the platelet formation from
C, S proteins in the liver.
megakaryocytes
B. They specifically and irreversibly inhibit thrombin,
29. 8. CS. What is the specific side effect after long c including the thrombin from the thrombus, with which
bromides administration: they form a stable complex.
A. Hypersensitivity C. They are coupled with antithrombin III,
B. anaphylaxis predominantly inhibiting the action of factor II a and
C. Bromism partially of factor X a of coagulation.
D. Tolerance D. In complex with antithrombin III, they inhibit the
E. idiosyncrasy action of X a factor of coagulation
E. They are coupled with antithrombin III and factor X a
30. 8. SC. What is characteristic for chloramphenicol: a
A. In dentistry, it is mainly used locally - in ointments 36. 10. CS. Which drug from the barbiturates group is a a
B. The first choice in dental , respiratory and intestinal short-term hypnotic:
infections A. pentobarbital
C. It is used in the prophylaxis of infection diseases B. Phenobarbital
D. It has no neurotoxicity C. Ciclobarbital
E. First-line antibiotic in oro-maxillofacial infections D. amobarbital
E. barbital
37. 10. SC. What is the drug of choice in actinomycosis: c 44. 13. CS Name the selective thromboxane synthetase e
A. Polimixin inhibitor:
B. gentamicin A. Sulfinpyrazone
C. phenoxymethylpenicillin B. Pentoxiphylline
D. Nystatin C. Dipyridamole
E. Amantadine D. Tirofiban
E. Ridogrel
38. 11.CS Name the most common dextran adverse a
reaction: 45. 13. CS. What group of drugs are of choice in b
A. Allergic reaction premedication for surgical intervention:
B. Retrosternal pain A. barbiturates
C. Pulmonary edema B. benzodiazepines
D. Nephrotoxic effect C. Non-benzodiazepine derivatives
E. Cerebral edema D. phenylalkylamines
E. Antagonist of GABA.
39. 11. CS. What is the correct statement for a
benzodiazepines : 46. 13.CS What is the mechanism of action of isothyoureic c
A. Benzodiazepines less influences the sleep structure derivates?
B. Benzodiazepines marked influences the sleep A. Stimulation of alpha? adrenoreceptors
structure B. Stimulation of alpha and beta?adrenoreceptors
C. Benzodiazepines quickly develop tolerance C. Direct musculotropic action on vessels
D. Benzodiazepines regardless of their duration of D. Vasomotor centre stimulation
action can be used in any type of insomnia E. Stimulation of beta - adrenoreceptors
E. Benzodiazepines have a more intense postaction
47. 13. SC. In which case sulfamides will be used: b
syndrome
A. Superficial dental caries
40. 11. SC. Which is the antibiotic of choice in Vincent c B. Bacterial stomatitis
ulcerative necrotic gingivostomatitis: C. Periodontitis of baby teeths
A. chloramphenicol D. Patients allergic to furosemide and acetazolamide
B. Nystatin E. Patients with a history of psychotic
C. Metro nidazole
48. ??14. CS. In which cases in dentistry is Phenobarbital ?
D. acyclovir
used :
E. Aztrienam
A. Elders before dental intervention
41. 12. CS Name the specific blocker of glycopeptide IIb / d B. In children before intervention, surgery
IIIa receptors from platelet: C. Of choice - to all groups of patients
A. Sulfinpyrazone D. It is used for long-term treatment of depression
B. Pentoxiphylline E. It is indicated in postnatal depression.
C. Dipiritamole
49. 14. CS Name the mechanism of the anti-aggregating c
D. Tirofiban
action of acetylsalicylic acid:
E. Ridogrel
A. It inhibits thromboplastin activity and prevents the
42. 12. CS. What group of hypnotic drugs do not show post- c passage of prothrombin into thrombin
action phenomenon B. It binds calcium ions into the blood
A. benzodiazepines C. It inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins and
B. H1-histaminoblocker thromboxane
C. Non-benzodiazepine derivatives D. It activates antithrombin III
D. Nootrope E. It activates factors IX, X, XI, XII, and kalikrein.
E. Analeptic
50. 14. CS. Which is the main indcation for Metronidazole: b
43. 12. SC. In the case of highly contaminated wounds it is c A. Deep dental caries
recommended: B. Ulcerative gingivitis caused by anaerobic flora
A. Antibiotic prophylaxis + 8-24 hours C. Periodontitis of the baby teeths
B. Antibiotic prophylaxis + 24-48 hours D. Acute gingivitis during pregnancy
C. Antibiotic therapy + antibiotic prophylaxis E. Periodontal abscess
D. Antibiotic prophylaxis in case of risk factors
E. The use of antibiotics is not recommended
51. 15. CS. What is characteristic for the derivatives of d 58. 16. SC. What is characteristic for fluorquinolones: a
gamma - aminobutyric acid: A. Their use in dentistry is limited
A. It does not cross the blood-brain barrier B. The first choice drug in the treatment of oral cavity
B. It has no anesthetic action infections
C. No influence on breath, blood pressure. C. Low bioavailability for internal administration
D. Enhances the the action of anestheticsand D. Rapid elimination from the body
analgesics E. Accumulates on long-term administration
E. Resistance of the heart to hypoxia decreases
59. 17. CS Name the mechanism of action of fibrinolytics: b
52. 15. CS. What is the main indication of association beta- b A. Forms the complex with antithrombin III, which has
lactam and metronidazole: anticoagulant properties;
A. Ulcerative gingivitis B. Activates the plasminogen with formation of plasmin;
B. Severe odontogenic anarobic infection C. Inhibits platelet aggregation by different
C. Postoperatory infection prophylaxis of infected mechanisms;
D. Inflammatory diseases of the oral cavity caused by D. Inhibits hepatic synthesis of vit.K-dependent
prosthesis coagulation factors;
E. Deep dental caries E. Inhibits metabolism of arachidonic acid.
53. 15. CS Which of the anti-aggregates acts through b 60. 17. CS. What is characteristic for "Denta" drops: e
cAMP? A. It is a drug from the barbiturates group
A. Dextran 40; B. It is used for systemic effects
B. Prostacyclin; C. It has strong anti-inflammatory effect
C. Ticlopidine. D. It has local anesthetic effect
D. Clopidogrel; E. It is used in chronic dental pain.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid;
61. 17.CS Which is the most common adverse reaction for a
54. 15.CS Which plasma volume substitutes causes a dextrans?
pseudoaglutination? A. Allergic reaction
A. Dextran - 40, - 70 B. Retrosternal pain
B. Albumin C. Ototoxic effect
C. Hydroxyethyl starch D. Nephrotoxic effect
D. Crystalloid E. Hepatotoxic effect
E. Jelatinol
62. 17. SC. In which case is used amphotericin B: b
55. 16. CS. Chloralhydrat is characteristic: d A. Is used parenterally in hair mycosis
A. It has a gastroprotective effect B. Is used parenterally in easy and moderate systemic
B. No interaction with benzodiazepines mycoses
C. Therapeutic index - high C. Local - first choice in skin mycoses
D. It is used in the composition of materials to decrease D. Local - is used in case of resistance to others
pain after dental extraction antifungal drugs
E. Drug of choice in the treatment of insomnia. E. Local - is used at least one month
56. 16. CS Which drug is preferable for long-term a 63. 18. CS Name the mechanism of action of the protamine: c
prophylaxis of venous thrombosis? A. Activates the coagulation cascade;
A. Acenocumarol; B. Inactivates the antithrombin;
B. Standard heparin; C. Inactivates heparin;
C. Streptokinase; D. Activates the factors VIII and IX of coagulation;
D. Acetisalicylic acid; E. Activates the clotting factors XI and XII of
E. Dipyridamole. coagulation.
57. 16.CS Which is the most favorable quantitative report a 64. 18. CS Select keratoplastic drugs of animal origin: b
colloid/crystalloid to treat hypovolemic shock? A. tocopherol
A. 1:1 B. propolis
B. 1:2 C. methyluracil
C. 1:9 D. retinol
D. 1:4 E. groundnut oil
E. 1:10
65. 18. CS. What is characteristic for Flunitrazepam: b 72. 20. SC. What is the mechanism of action of b
A. It is indicated for long-term treatment of insomnia deoxyribonuclease as antiviral drug:
B. The injectable forms are used for preanesthesia A. It stimulates viral replication and their spread
C. It is not used for anesthesia induction B. Suppresses the development of DNA - depending
D. Doesn't maintain general anesthesia viruses
E. Doesn't develop dependence physique and mental C. Suppresses the development of RNA - depending
viruses
66. 18. SC. What is the drug of choice in orofacial herpetic c
D. It inhibits viral neuraminase
infection:
E. Inhibits N-glycosylation
A. saquinavir
B. ribavirin 73. 21. CS Indicate the medication in fibrinolytic overdose: b
C. acyclovir A. Phytomenadione;
D. polymyxin B. Aminocaproic acid;
E. amantadine C. Protamine sulphate;
D. Etamsylate;
67. 19.CS Name the best drug for long-term prophylaxis of b
E. Ticlopidine.
venous thrombosis:
A. Acenocoumarol; 74. 21. CS. What is the main indication in dentistry for d
B. Standard heparin; amitriptyline:
C. Streptokinase; A. Acute dental pain
D. Acetylsalicylic acid; B. For neuroleptanalgesia
E. Dipyridamole. C. Chronic overload
D. Trigeminal nerve neuralgia
68. 19. CS. What is the indication of neuroleptics in c
E. Preanesthetic. premedication
stomatology :
A. headache 75. 21.CS Which of the following is clinical effect of b
B. The treatment of paradontosis nitrates:
C. Enhancing the effect of analgesics in intense pain A. Increase heard oxygen consumption
D. Sleep disorders in children B. Reduce preload
E. Anxiety / restless in preoperatory period C. Reduce afterload
D. Increase peripheral resistance
69. 19. SC. What is the duration of treatment with acyclovir b
E. Decrease cardiac ejection as a result of reduced
in primary herpetic stomatitis:
afterload
A. 5 to 10 days
B. At least 2 weeks 76. 21. SC. What is the indication of valaciclovir in a
C. At least one month Dentistry:
D. 1 - 3 months A. Herpes simplex and zoster infection
E. More than 3 months B. Bacterial infections
C. Influenza infection
70. 20. CS Name the phytomenadione indication: d
D. Mycotic stomatitis
A. Keratitis;
E. Chronic periodontitis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis;
C. Angina pectoris; 77. 22. CS. In dentistry, MidaZolam is used in which case: c
D. Parenchymal hemorrhage; A. Chronic dental pain
E. Muscle pain. B. Depression
C. Premedication for surgical dental intervention
71. 20. CS. Which antidepressant drug is used in trigeminal b
D. insomnia
neuralgia :
E. Sleep disorders
A. fluoxetine
B. Amitriptyline
C. nialamide
D. pirlindole
E. moclobemide
78. 22.CS Name the mechanism of action of indirect e 85. 24. SC. Which drug is used for neuroleptanalgesia: c
anticoagulants: A. diazepam
A. Inhibits thromboplastin activity; B. amitriptyline
B. It binds calcium ions into the blood; C. droperidol
C. Inhibits the transformations of prothrombin and D. piracetam
proconvertin into active forms in the liver; E. barbital
D. Activates antithrombin III;
86. 25. CS Which of the following drugs is not from e
E. Activates the transformations of factors IX, X, XI, XII
antithrombotic group?
into active factors.
A. Heparin;
79. 22. SC. Which antibiotic group is mainly used as c B. Streptokinase;
antituberculosis: C. Ethyl biscumacetate;
A. macrolides D. Acetylsalicylic acid;
B. tetracyclines E. Aprotinin.
C. ansamicines
87. 25. SC. By what explains the effect of antiparkinsonian c
D. polymyxins
effect of levodopa ?
E. penicillins
A. stimulation of cholinergic processes in the central
80. 23. CS Indicate the drug that changes the coagulation a nervous system;
time: B. depression of cholinergic processes in the central
A. Heparin; nervous system;
B. Acenocoumarol; C. stimulation of dopaminergic processes in the central
C. Acetylsalicylic acid (in small doses); nervous system;
D. Carbazochrome; D. depressing dopaminergic processes in the central
E. Dipyridamole nervous system;
E. stimulation of serotoninergic processes in the
81. 23. SC. What drug will you indicate to the patient with b
central nervous system
depression with anxiety ?
A. diazepam 88. 25. SC. Determine the mechanism of action of the c
B. alprazolam single-component sulfamides:
C. amitriptyline A. inhibits cell wall synthesis
D. droperidol B. disrupts the permeability of the cytoplasmic
E. chlorpromazine membrane
C. inhibits dihydrofolic acid synthesis
82. 23. SC. Which antibiotic used as an anti-tuberculosis e
D. inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
drug is considered to be the most effective:
E. inhibits DNA-gyrase
A. amikacin
B. clarithromycin 89. 26.CS Select the laboratory investigation that ensure b
C. streptomycin the effectiveness and harmlessness of fibrinolytic
D. polymyxin medication:
E. rifampicin A. Coagulation time (maintained 2-3 times N);
B. Thrombin time (not more than 2 times the N value);
83. 24. CS Select the proportion between protamine b
C. Recalculation time (not more than 2 times the N
sulfate and heparin, necessary for neutralization of the
value);
last one:
D. Cephalin time (2 times the value of N);
A. 0.5 ml protamine at 100 U heparin;
E. Ethanol test (positive).
B. 1 ml protamine at 100 U heparin;
C. 1.2 ml protamine at 100 U heparin; 90. 26. SC. What is the mechanism of action of the c
D. 1.5 ml protamine at 100 U heparin combined sulfamides:
E. 2 ml protamine at 100 U heparin A. inhibits cell wall synthesis
B. disrupts the permeability of the cytoplasmic
84. 24. SC. What is the cause of isoniazid neurotoxicity: d
membrane
A. antagonism with folic acid
C. inhibits dihydrofolic acid synthesis and its conversion
B. cyanocobalamin antagonism
to tetrahydrofolic acid
C. antagomism with ascorbic acid
D. inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
D. pyridoxine antagonism
E. inhibits DNA-gyrase
E. antagonism with riboflavin .
91. 27. CS Atropine in dentistry is used in: b 98. 29. SC. Nitrofuran derivatives with resorbing action are d
A. xerostomia indicated mainly in:
B. hypersalivation before surgery A. ENT infections
C. acute dental pain B. respiratory infections
D. acute and chronic sialadenitis C. ophthalmological infections
E. calculations of the salivary glands D. urinary tract infections
E. giardiasis
92. 27.CS Name the drug that is not from hemostatic group: d
A. Phytomenadione; 99. 30.CS In acute thrombosis, if 6 months ago, the patient e
B. Etamsylate; made a treatment with streptokinase, it is
C. Aprotinin; recommended:
D. Acenocoumarol; A. To keep the drug, because its effectiveness has
E. Protamine sulfate. already been demonstrated;
B. To keep the drug, but to increase the dose;
93. 27.CS The antianginal effect of propranolol is attributed a
C. To keep the drug, but to reduce the dose;
to:
D. To change the drug, because tolerance to it has
A. Block of exercise-induced tachycardia
developed;
B. Decreased end-diastolic ventricular volume
E. To change the drug to avoid allergic reactions;
C. Dilations of constricted coronary vessels
D. Increased cardiac force 100. 30. SC. The mechanism of action of nitroimidazole b
E. Increased resting heart rate derivatives is reduced to the following action:
A. prevents the formation of folic acid
94. 27. SC. Which sulfamide group is mainly used in the b
B. prevents the production of hydrogen ions and
treatment of toxoplasmosis:
affects nucleic acids
A. Azo compounds
C. prevents ergosterol synthesis
B. combined sulfamides
D. prevents cell wall synthesis
C. ultra-long sulfamides
E. prevents the formation of microtubules
D. intestinal action sulfamides
E. topical sulfamides 101. 31.CS Name the topical drug used for stopping d
bleeding from small vessels:
95. 28.CS In which of clinical situation phytomenadione is d
A. Phytomenadione;
not so effective as a hemostatic?
B. Calcium chloride;
A. Bleeding from prolonged treatment with orally
C. Acetylsalicylic acid;
administered tetracycline or sulfamide;
D. Thrombin
B. Bleeding in patients with mechanical jaundice;
E. Fibrinogen.
C. Bleeding in patients with large bowel resection;
D. Bleeding by hyperfibrinolysis; 102. 31. SC. For the mechanism of action of metronidazole, d
E. Bleeding by overdose of coumarin anticoagulants. the statement is characteristic:
A. increases folic acid synthesis
96. 28. SC. The bacteriostatic effect of nitrofurans is b
B. prevents cell wall synthesis
determined by the following mechanism:
C. stimulates ergosterol synthesis
A. disruption of cell wall synthesis
D. increases the formation of the free radical NO
B. inhibits the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins
E. prevents the formation of microtubules
C. inhibits ergosterol synthesis in the cytoplasmic
membrane 103. 32.CS Name the criteria that confirms the effectiveness c
D. manifest antagonism with paraaminobenzoic acid of heparin:
E. inhibits mycolic acid synthesis A. The coagulation time after Li-Wait should be 7-10
minutes;
97. 29.CS Name the heparin antagonist: d
B. The coagulation time after Li-Wait should be 10-15
A. Thrombin;
minutes;
B. Acenocoumarol;
C. The coagulation time after Li-Wait should be 20-25
C. Menadione;
minutes;
D. Protamine sulfate;
D. The prothrombin index 50-70%;
E. Fibrinogen.
E. The prothrombin index 70-105%;
104. 32. SC. Which nerve may be affected by nitroxoline: d 111. 36.CS Name the drug with direct influence on the d
A. the vagus nerve factor X of the coagulation:
B. the trigeminal nerve A. Acenocoumarol;
C. the glossopharyngeal nerve B. Heparin;
D. optic nerve C. Sodium citrate;
E. facial nerve D. Nadroparin;
E. Warfarin.
105. 33.CS Name the mechanism of action of sodium citrate: a
A. It binds the calcium ions; 112. 36. CS. Which of the following substances used in the c
B. Inhibits thrombin activity; treatment of gingivitis and marginal periodontitis, does
C. Depresses the thromboplastin synthesis; NOT distort the microbial proteins?
D. Inhibits the synthesis (activation) of prothrombin and A Citric acid
proconvertin in the liver; B Chromic acid
E. It promotes platelet aggregation. C Potassium permanganate
D Salicylic acid
106. 33. SC. Which antibiotic can produce apnea through the a
E tannic acid
neuro-muscular block?
A. gentamicin; 113. 36. SC.Which echinocandin derivative is used as e
B. tetracycline ; antifungal:
C. erythromycin; A. fluonilide
D. ceftriaxon ; B. flucytosine
E. amoxicilline C. amorolfine
D. Naphtifine
107. 34.CS Which of the following affirmations is not true e
E. capsofungine
for heparin?
A. Heparin is isolated from animal tissues; 114. 37.CS Name the criteria that demonstrate the b
B. Bad heparin is absorbed from the digestive tract; effectiveness of indirect anticoagulants:
C. The rate of heparin clearance is dose-dependent; A. Prothrombin index> 40%;
D. The effect of heparin can be antagonized by B. The prothrombin index 50-70%;
protamine; C. Prothrombin index <70-100%;
E. Heparin passes into breast milk. D. International Standardization Index> 4;
E. International Standardization Index <2;
108. 34. SC. Which azole derivative is used exclusively in b
the treatment of systemic mycoses: 115. 37. CS Which is the most effective degreasing agent e
A. clotrimazole and does not cause undesirable effects on the dental
B. fluconazole tissues or the soft tissues?
C. econazole A. Chloroform
D. sulconazole B. Acetone
E. isoconazole C. Benzons
D. Alcohol
109. 35.CS Which of the anti-aggregants inhibits d
E. Distilled oil (neophylline)
prostaglandin synthesis?
A. Dextran 40; 116. 37. SC. Which drug is active against adenoviruses: e
B. Dipyridamole; A. amantadine
C. Prostacyclin; B. zanamivir
D. Acetylsalicylic acid; C. acyclovir
E. Ticlopidine. D. lamivudine
E. ribavirin
110. 35. SC. What is the mechanism of action of nystatin, b
amphotericin B and natamycin: 117. 38.CS What is the latency of the warfarin action? d
A. inhibits ergosterol synthesis A. 24 hours;
B. is irreversibly coupled with ergosterol B. 24-36 hours;
C. inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis C. 36-48 hours;
D. inhibits nucleic acid synthesis D. 48-72 hours;
E. inhibits protein synthesis E. 72-96 hours.
118. 38. SC. Which antiherpetic drug is analogous to a 124. 40. SC. Explain the antiherpetic action of docosanol: b
guanosine: A. blocks AND.polymerase
A. acyclovir B. blocks the fusion of viral and cellular membranes
B. foscarnet and entry of the virus into the cell
C. vidarabine C. blocks mRNA synthesis
D. trifluridine D. blocks the decapsidation of the virus
E. maribavir E. blocks viral protein kinase
119. 39.CS Which of the following statements about vitamin d 125. 41.CS Which drug from listed below may be indicated d
B12 is false? in atrioventricular block -II degree?
A. Vitamin B12 administration is therapeutically useful A. Verapamil
in case of deficiency; B. Propranolol
B. Macrocytic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency is C. Strophanthin K
improved by folic acid administration; D. Isoprenaline
C. Contrary to folic acid, vitamin B12 may favorably E. Digoxin
influence funicular myelosis that occurs in pernicious
126. 41. CS Which statement is false for H1- histamine e
anemia;
receptor blockers?
D. Vitamin B12 is the best antidote in case of
A. They are used to relieve itching;
administration of a maximum dose of methotrexate;
B. They reduce the symptoms of allergic rhinitis;
E. After gastrectomy, we expect a vitamin B12
C. They do not influence gastric acid secretion
deficiency even that orally intake is sufficient.
triggered by histamine;
120. 39. SC. Which antiherpetic drug is analogous to c D. Some H1 antagonists are used as sedatives;
adenosine: E. They are the first drugs of choice used in
A. cidofovir anaphylactic shock.
B. brivudine
127. 41. SC. Explain the antiherpetic action of nucleoside a
C. vidarabine
analogues:
D. trifluridine
A. inhibits viral DNA polymerase
E. maribavir
B. blocks the decapsidation of the virus
121. 40.CS Name the group of drugs allowed for use in a C. inhibits viral proteinokinase
pregnant women: D. blocks the fusion of viral and cellular membranes
A. Direct anticoagulants; E. inhibits reverse transcriptase
B. Indirect anticoagulants - coumarin derivatives;
128. 42.CS Select the contraindication for antihistamines H1: d
C. Indirect anticoagulants - indandion derivatives;
A. Bronchial asthma;
D. Anti-aggregant-inhibitors of cyclooxygenase;
B. Parkinson's syndrome;
E. ADP receptor anti-aggregants;
C. Postoperative vomiting;
122. 40.CS Select the drug for treatment the arrhythmias in c D. Drivers;
acute period of myocardial infarction: E. Contact dermatitis.
A. Quinidine
129. 42. CS The most effective chemical effect of zinc c
B. Disopyramide
chloride in 30% concentration is:
C. Lidocaine
A Vasoconstrictor
D. Verapamil
B Astringent
E. Amiodarone
C Cauterizing
123. 40. CS What chlorhexidine concentration is used in b D Vasodilator
supragingival irrigation to produce a total inhibition of E bacteriostatic
supragingival plaque formation?
130. 42 CS. Which of the following drugs is not useful in b
A 0.2%
dysmenorrhea?
B 0.02%
A. acetylsalicylic acid
C 20%
B. colchicine
D 0.5%
C. ibuprofen
E 2%
D. rofecoxib
E. naproxen
131. 42. SC. What is the main indication of trifluridine: e 138. 45. CS. What is the main indication of ganciclovir: d
A. orofacial herpes A. Epstein-Barr virus infection
B. genital herpes B. infection with varicella-zosterian virus
C. cytomegalic virus infection C. systemic herpetic infection
D. Epstein-Barr virus infection D. cytomegalic virus infection
E. herpetic keratitis E. genital herpes infections
132. 43.CS Name the most common side effects of dextran? a 139. 45 CS. Which of the following opioid agents is used in c
A. Allergic reaction; the treatment of acute opioid overdose?
B. Retrosternal pain; A pentazocine
C. Pulmonary edema; B methadone
D. Nephrotoxic effect; C naloxone
E. Cerebral edema. D remifentanil
E buprenorphine
133. 43.CS Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, chills, gooseflesh, d
hyperventilation, hyperthermia, mydriasis, muscular 140. 46 CS. Indicate the pure opioid receptor antagonist b
aches, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, and hostility are with a half-life of 10 hours:
effects of: A naloxone
A Opioid tolerance B naltrexone
B Opioid overdosage C tramadol
C Drug interactions between opioid analgesics and D pentazocine
sedative-hypnotics E tramadol
D Withdrawal syndrome
141. 46. CS. What is the importance of anti-herpes drugs c
E All the above
that have a longer half-life in cells than in plasma:
134. 43. SC. What is the main indication of docosanol: a A. have a higher bioavailability
A. recurrent orolabial herpes B. have a stronger coupling with plasma proteins
B. genital herpes C. have a more lasting effect
C. i infection with the cytomegalic virus D. have a shorter effect
D. Epstein-Barr virus infection E. it is metabolized more intensely
E. herpetic keratitis
142. 47 CS. Which of the following drugs has weak μ agonist b
135. 44.CS The diagnostic triad of opioid overdose is : b effects and inhibitory action on norepinephrine and
A Midriasis , coma, and hyperventilation serotonin reuptake in CNS?
B Coma, respiratory depression and miosis A loperamide
C Miosis, tremor and hypertermia B tramadol
D Mydriasis, chills and abdominal cramps C fluoxetine
E Miosis, tremor and vomiting D butorphanol
E nalbuphine
136. 44.CS What is the effective time of action of dextran a
70? 143. 47. SC. Which antiherpetic drug is an inhibitor of viral e
A. Up to 4 hours; protein-kinase:
B. Up to 8 hours; A. cidofovir
C. Up to 12 hours; B. brivudine
D. Only 60 min; C. vidarabine
E. Up to 24 hours. D. trifluridine
E. maribavir
137. 44. SC. What is the main indication of maribavir: c
A. ocular herpetic infection
B. systemic herpetic infection
C. cytomegalic virus infection
D. Epstein-Barr virus infection
E. infection with varicella-zosterian virus
144. 48 CS. Mu ( μ ) receptors are associated with: a 150. 50. SC. Which group of antibiotics should be used as c
a) Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical antituberculosis :
dependence A. macrolides
b) Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical B. tetracyclines
dependence C. ansamycins
c) Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor D. polymyxins
stimulation E. penicillins
d) Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical
151. 51 CS. List the opioid analgesic , which is a natural c
dependence
agonist:
e) Dysphoria, respiratory depression, physical
a) Meperidine
dependence
b) Fentanyl
145. 48.CS Which adrenoblocker is useful as cerebral b c) Morphine
vasodilator? d) Naloxone
A. Phentolamine e) Sufentanil
B. Nicergoline
152. 51 CS. Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is d
C. Tolazoline
noted for the alpha-adrenoreceptor- blocking effect?
D. Propranolol
a) Loratadine
E. Oxprenolol
b) Diphenhydramine
146. 48. SC. Which antiherpetic drug is inhibiting viral fusion: a c) Chloropyramine
A. docosanol d) Promethazine
B. fomivirsen e) Cetirizine
C. maribavir
153. 51. SC. What is the common characteristic for the c
D. foscarnet
absorption of triazole derivatives: C
E. cidofovir
A. reduced absorption
147. 49 CS. Which of the following types of opioid c B. good absorption , influenced by food
receptors is responsible for euphoria and respiratory C. high absorption , not influenced by food
depression? D. good absorption, but is inactivated in the intestinal
a) kappa receptors wall
b) delta receptors E. they are not absorbed from the digestive tract
c) mu ( μ ) receptors
154. 52 CS. Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is d
d) GABA-A receptors
noted for the highest local anesthetic effect?
e) benzodiazepine receptors
a) Loratadine
148. 49. SC. Which antibiotic is an obligatory component of a b) Fexofenadinea
the combined anti- tuberculosis drugs: c) Chloropyramine
A. isoniazid d) Promethazine
B. ethambutol e) Cetirizine
C. streptomycin
155. 52 CS. Which of these opioids may cause disforia, c
D. rifampicin
anxiety and hallucinations ?
E. pyrazinamide
a) Morphine
149. 50 CS. Indicate the type of opioid receptor that is a b) Fentanyl
responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation: c) Pentazocine
a) kappa receptors d) Methadone
b) delta receptors e) Naloxone
c) mu ( μ ) receptors
156. 52. SC. What is the mechanism of antimycotic action of a
d) alpha areno- receptors
imidazole and triazole derivatives:
e) GABA-A receptors
A. inhibits ergosterol synthesis
B. inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
C. inhibits protein synthesis
D. inhibits protein synthesis
E. inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
157. 53 CS. Indicate the opioid analgesic, which has 80 times a 163. 55.CS Which adrenomimetic drug is more effective in d
analgesic potency and respiratory depressant hypoglycemic coma?
properties of morphine, and is more effective than A. Ethylephrine
morphine in maintaining hemodynamic stability? B. Propranolol
a) Fentanyl C. Norepinephrine
b) Pentazocine D. Epinephrine
c) Codeine E. Salbutamol
d) Loperamide
164. 55 CS. Which of the following histamine H1 antagonists e
e) Tilidine
is a long-acting (up to 24h) antihistamine drug?
158. 53 CS. Which category of histamine H1 antagonists is a a) Chloropyramine
recognized as second-generation antihistamines? b) Cyproheptadine
a) Loratadine c) Promethazine
b) Diphenhydramine d) Diphenhydramine
c) Chloropyramine e) Loratadine
d) Promethazine
165. 55 CS. Which of the following opioid analgesics can b
e) Dezloratadine
cause increased pulmonary blood pressure and heart
159. 53. SC. What is the route of elimination for amoxacillin? e work ?
A. pulmonary; a) Morphine
B. gall; b) Pentazocine
C. liver; c) Codeine
D. intestinal; d) Methadone
E. kidney. e) Fentanyl
160. 54 CS. Which of histamine H1 antagonists is noted for b 166. 55. SC. Why are fluorquinolones contraindicated in d
the serotonin-blocking effect? children up to puberty (18
a) Chloropyramine years)?
b) Cyproheptadine A. leukopenia
c) Promethazine B. photosensitization
d) Diphenhydramine C. convulsions
e) Cetirizine D. cartilage lesions and erosions
E. angioneurotic edema
161. 54 CS. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used c
in combination with droperidol in neuroleptanalgesia? 167. 56 CS. Select the paraaminophenol derivative: a
a) Morphine A. paracetamol
b) Buprenorphine B. tramadol
c) Fentanyl C. morphine
d) Morphine D. ketamine
e) Tilidine E. diazepam
162. 54. SC. What is the main indication of metronidazole in b 168. 56.CS What is the therapeutic effect of e
dentistry sympathomimetic in bronchial asthma?
A. fungal infections A. Vasodilation
B. anaerobicinfections B. Striated muscle stimulation
C. infections with mycobacteria C. Cardiac stimulation
D. viral infections D. Vasoconstriction with hypertension, weak
E. aerobic infections bronchoconstriction
E. Bronchodilation and inhibition of histamine releasing
by reaction Ag + Ac
169. 57 CS. Contraindication of first-generation histamine a 175. 59.CS When installs the maximum effect of inhaled d
H1 antagonists are: glucocorticoids:
a) While driving or operating machinery A. 20-30 minutes after inhalation
b) Motion sickness B. 12 hours after inhalation
c) Insomnia C. 24 hours after inhalation
d) Gastric ulcers D. 5-7 days after systematical inhalation
e) Conjunctivitis E. 1 month after systematical inhalation
170. 57.CS The bronchodilatory effect of salbutamole c 176. 59 CS. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a c
inhaler administered, installs: strong kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor
A. After 4 days antagonist?
B. Slowly a) Naltrexone
C. Quickly b) Methadone
D. At the end of the first week of treatment c) Nalbuphine
E. Systematically, over a month of treatment d) Buprenorphine
171. 57 CS. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a c 177. 60 CS. Which of the following drugs has weak mu b
partial mu receptor agonist? agonist effects and inhibitory action on
a) Morphine norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in the CNS?
b) Methadone a) Loperamide
c) Buprenorphine b) Tramadol
d) Sufentanyl c) Fluoxetine
d) Butorphanol
172. 58 CS. Immunosupressive effect of glucocorticoids is a
e) Nalbuphine
caused by
a) Reducing concentration of lymphocytes (T and B 178. 61 CS. What is the mechanism of action of a
cells) and inhibiting function of tissue macrophages paracetamol?
and other antigen-presenting cells A. Inhibits COX-3 in the CNS
b) Suppression of cyclooxygenase II expression that B. Inhibits 5-lipooxygenase
results in reducing amount of an enzyme available to C. Stimulates opioid receptors
produce prostoglandins D. Non-selectively inhibits COX-1 and COX-2
c) Suppression of cyclooxygenase I expression that E. It inhibits nerve impulse transmission through nerve
results in reducing amount of an enzyme available to fibers.
produce prostoglandins
179. 62 CS. Select general anesthetic - barbiturate a
d) Activation of phospholipase A2 and reducing
derivatives:
prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis
A. sodium thiopental
e) Suppression of the nucleic acid synthesis
B. halothane
173. 58 CS. Indicate a partial mu receptor agonist, which has b C. morphine
20-60 times analgesic potency of morphine, and a D. ketamine
longer duration of action: E. diazepam
a) Pentazocine
180. 62 CS. Select the general anesthetic from the e
b) Buprenorphine
benzodiazepine group:
c) Nalbuphine
A. sodium thiopental
d) Naltrexone
B. halothane
174. 58.CS When appears the effect of corticosteroids at a C. morphine
intravenously administration? D. ketamine
A. 10-15 minutes after administration E. midazolam
B. One month after systematical administration
181. 63 CS. Select the general anesthetic - NMDA receptor d
C. After 5-7 days of systematical administration
antagonist:
D. Over 12 to 14 hours after administration
A. sodium thiopental
E. Over 24-72 hours after administration
B. halothane
C. Morphine
D. ketamine
E. midazolam
182. 63.CS The most likely complication of insulin therapy in b 189. 69.CS Excitation of which receptor produces the c
patients is: positive inotropic effect of dopamine?
A. Dilutional hyponatriemia A. alpha-1-adrenoceptors
B. Hypoglicemia B. alpha-2-adrenoreceptor
D. Pancreatitis C. beta-1-adrenoceptors
E. Severe hypertension D. beta-2-adrenoreceptor
C. Increased bleeding tendency E. N-cholinoreceptors
183. 64. In children over 4 years, the maximum dose of d 190. 70 CS. Choose the pyrazolone derivative: b
articaine is : a) Indomethacin
A 2 mg / kg body weight b) Metamizole
B 3 mg / kg body weight c) Paracetamol
C 6 mg / kg body weight d) Ketoralac
D 7 mg / kg body weight e) Acetylsalicylic acid
E 9 mg / kg body weight
191. 71 CS. In case of acetylsalicylic acid, unlike b
184. 65 CS. Which drug most likely can cause urinary a indomethacin, it is more pronounced:
retention? A. analgesic effect;
A. morphine; B. anti-aggregant effect;
B. lidocaine; C. anti-inflammatory effect
C. acetylsalicylic acid; D. inhibition of prostoglandin synthesis
D. ketorolac; E. the antipyretic effect
E. nitrous oxide.
192. 72 CS. What is the duration of the analgesic effect of b
185. 66 CS. Determine the most potent opioid analgesic: d morphine (at subcutaneous injection)?
A. Codeine; a) 20-30 min;
B. Pentazocine; b) 4-5 hours;
C. Morphine; c) 8-12 hours;
D. Fentanyl; d) 12-24 hours;
E. Trimeperidine. e) 1-2 hours.
186. 66 CS. Which central action analgesic has a mixed c 193. 73 CS. Peripheral non-opioids are especially effective a
(opioid/non-opioid) mechanism of action ? against pain associated with:
A. pentazocine ; A. inflammation or tissue damage
B. fentanyl; B. trauma
C. tramadol; C. myocardial infarction
D. tilidine; D. surgery
E. butorphanol. E. Cancer
187. 67 CS. Name the morphine antagonist: d 194. 74 CS. Peripheral non-opioid analgesics cause: b
A. Codeine; A. respiratory depression
B. Pentazocine; B. antipyretic effect
C. Morphine; C. euphoria
D. Naloxone; D. physical dependence
E. Trimeperidine. E. psychic addiction
188. 68 CS. Which of the following opioid analgesics is used a 195. 75 CS. Which of the following non-opioid agents a
in the treatment of acute pulmonary edema? predominantly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) in the
a) Morphine CNS?
b) Codeine A. paracetamol
c) Fentanyl B. ketorolac
d) Loperamide C. acetylsalicylic acid
e) Pentazocine D. ibuprofen
E. carbamazepine
196. 76 CS. List the non-opioid analgesic , which has no anti b 203. 83 CS. Select an adverse reaction which is the main b
- inflammatory effect : cause of metamizol withdrawal in many countries:
A. ibuprofen a. methemoglobinemia
B. paracetamol b. agranulocytosis
C. metamizole c. thrombocytopenia
D. acetylsalicylic acid d. liver necrosis
E. indomethacin e. drug addiction
197. 77 CS. Select drug for first-line treatment of d 204. 84 CS. Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory e
trigeminal neuralgia: irreversibly blocks cyclooxygenase?
A. ibuprofen a) Indomethacin
B. paracetamol b) Metamizole
C. metamizole c) Paracetamol
D. carbamazepine d) Ketoralac
E. ketorolac e) Acetylsalicylic acid
198. 78 CS. Select the drug - tricyclic antidepressant, used a 205. 85. cs Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is e
as analgesic: associated with an increased risk of Reye syndrome
A. amitriptyline developing?
B. ketorolac a) Indomethacin
C. acetylsalicylic acid b) Metamizole
D. ibuprofen c) Paracetamol
E. carbamazepine d) Ketoralac
e) Acetylsalicylic acid
199. 79 CS. Select the drug - antiepileptic used as e
analgesic: 206. -CS- ANALGESICS, GENERAL AND LOCAL b
A. amitriptyline ANESTHETICS
B. ketorolac 41 CS. Which of the following effects does NOT occur
C. acetylsalicylic acid in salicylate poisoning?
D. ibuprofen A. hyperventilation
E. gabapentine B. hypothermia
C. metabolic acidosis
200. 80 CS. Select the antidote used in paracetamol b
D. respiratory alkalosis
intoxication:
E. tinnitus
A. amitriptyline
B. acetylcysteine 207. -CS- Antibiotics/antifungal/antivirus a
C. ascorbic acid 1. SC. Penicillins will be indicated in:
D. activated sharcoal A. Preoperative - patients with positive anamnesis of
E. dexamethasone endocarditis
B. Dental extraction in children
201. 81 CS. What analgesic drug, most likely, cause liver e
C. Chronic algic tooth syndrome
necrosis:
D. gingivitis
A. amitriptyline
E. stomatitis
B. pregabalin
C. gabapentin 208. -CS- ANTI-INFLAMMATORY, ANTI-ALLERGIC c
D. ibuprofen 50 CS. Side effect of first-generation histamine H1
E. paracetamol antagonists is:
A. aplastic anemia
202. 82 CS. Select the general intravenous anesthetic used d
B. vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing
as analgesic:
C. sedation
A. propofol
D. gastric ulcers
B. sodium thiopetal
E. tolerance
C. midazolam
D. ketamine
E. diazepam
209. -CS- Antiseptics and disinfectants a 214. -CS- Teste hemostatasis b
26. CS Select the indications of antiseptic nucine in 1. CS The mechanism of action of direct anticoagulants
dentistry: consists of:
A. Bacterial and fungal diseases of the oral cavity A. Interfering the hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-
B. sterilization of instruments dependent coagulation factors
C. processing of the hands and the operating field B. Connection with antithrombin III to formation of a
D. bacterial and fungal vaginal disorders complex with anticoagulant action
E. disinfection of the eliminations of the patients C. Direct activation of plasminogen to formation of
plasmine
210. -CS- CNS TEST e
D. Inhibition of platelet functions by different
1. CS. Which drug below is of choice in seizures of
mechanisms
unknown genesis:
E. Direct injury of fibrin fibers.
A. Phenobarbital
B. felbamate
C. acetazolamide
D. clonazepam
E. diazepam
211. -CS- Drugs with influence on the mucosa of the oral d
cavity and the dental pulp
7. CS Explaining the mechanism of the astringent
action of organic drugs:
A. dissociates into anions and cations
B. dissociates into amino acids
C. interacts with thiol groups
D. it partially coagulates the proteins of the
extracellular fluid, the exudate and the mucus
E. releases molecular oxygen
212. -CS- Emergency stomatology: b
2. CS Dopamine at low doses influences mainly:
A. Alfa-adrenoreceptors (leads to peripheral
vasoconstriction)
B. Dopamine receptors (leads to vasodilation of renal
and mesenteric vessels)
C. Beta-1 adrenoreceptors (leads to enhanced cardiac
output )
D. Beta-2 adrenoreceptors
E. All of the above
213. -CS- Metabolism (vitamins, calcium, flour) c
8. CS For folic acid it is characteristic:
a)inhibits the central nervous system;
b)acts on the coagulation of blood;
c)intervenes in the formation of purine and pyrimidine
nucleotides;
d)stimulates the central nervous system;
e)acts directly on plasminogen.