IExcel Review and Training Center

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IE Refresher

Work Study and Ergonomics

1. In work measurement, personal time allowances are often established in the range of
a.0 - 2% c.4 - 7%
b.3 - 5% d.6 - 10%
2. The actual average observed time for a given job is 10 minutes. The performance rating is 80%, and allowances
are set by contract at 10%. What is the time standard?
a.8.80 minutes c.10 minutes
b.8.88 minutes d.19.0 minutes

3. The data below represent time study observations for an assembly operation. Assume a 7% allowance factor.
What is the normal time for element 3?

a.1.7 min. c.2.11 min.

b.1.96 min. d.10.1 min.
4. The accuracy of a labor standard is to be within 5%, and the confidence level is 95%. The standard deviation
of the sample is 2 and the mean is 8. What sample size should be used?
a.8 c.96
b.10 d.127
5. Which of these is the most common predetermined time standard?
a.CSD c.RCH
b.TMU d.MTM
6. A work sampling study requires an acceptable error level of 10 percent and z = 2 for 95.45 percent confidence.
The adequate sample size is _______ if the sample proportion is thought to be as large as 50 percent, but
________ if the sample proportion is thought to be about 20 percent.
a.50; 20 c.100; 16
b.100; 64 d.20; 50
7. Sample observations of a claims processor made over a 160-hourwork month reveal that the worker produced
a total of 384 completed claims forms. The performance rating was 80%. The worker was idle 20% of the time
(so that idle time should be subtracted from the total time when computing the average observed time). The
allowance factor is 8%. What is the normal time per unit?
a.0.42 minutes c.17.4 minutes
b.16.0 minutes d.20.0 minutes
8. Sample observations of a claims processor made over a 160-hourwork month reveal that the worker produced
a total of 384 completed claims forms. The performance rating was 80%. The worker was idle 20% of the time
(so that idle time should be subtracted from the total time when computing the average observed time). The
allowance factor is 8%. What is the standard time per unit? Use workday formula.
a.0.42 minutes c.17.4 minutes
b.16.0 minutes d.20.0 minutes
9. A Time Measurement Unit, or TMU, is
a.the same as a Therblig
b.0.00001 minute
c.0.00001 hour
d.the duration of the easiest GET motion

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10. Therbligs
a.were invented by Frederick W. Taylor
b.were used during the scientific management era, and are no longer in use
c.are hyperactive rodent-likepets, whose name is associated with time standards
d.were named by Frank Gilbreth
11. Therbligs are
a.the smallest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises
b.the largest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises
c.the smallest unit of basic motion used in methods time measurement exercises
d.the largest unit of basic motion used in methods time measurement exercises
12. Predetermined time standards are an outgrowth of basic motions called
a.flow diagrams
b.activity charts
c.SAE standards
d.therbligs
13. Among the advantages of predetermined time standards are all of the following except
a.unions accept them as fair
b.they are available before a task is actually performed
c.they can only be determined after work actually takes place
d.they can be established in a laboratory setting
14. All of the following are advantages of predetermined time standards except
a.they are customized to your company
b.they are well accepted
c.no performance ratings are necessary
d.the standard can be set before the task is done and then can be used for planning
15. Which of the following is true regarding work sampling?
a.The technique was developed in the 1890s.
b.It can be used to estimate the percentage of time workers spend in unavoidable delays.
c.The method was developed by Frank Gilbreth.
d.The method makes extensive use of rest allowances.
16. The data in the following table represent time-study observations on a new operation with three work
elements. On the basis of these observations, find the standard time for the process. Assume an 8%
allowance factor.

a. 374.9 seconds c. 372.5 seconds

b. 385.7 seconds d. 376.1 seconds
17. How many observations would be necessary for a time studies analyst to be 99% confident that the average
time is within .1 minutes of the true value if the average time is 10.5 minutes and the standard deviation is 3
minutes?
a. 59 c. 49
b. 54 d. 51
18. A work sampling study requires an acceptable error level of 10 percent and 95 percent confidence. What is the
adequate sample size if the sample proportion is as large as 50 percent?
a. 91 c. 107
b. 83 d. 98
19. In a preliminary work sample of an operation, out of 50 observations the operator was observed idle in 5
observations. What sample size is required for a work sampling study if the desired confidence level is 98% and
the desired accuracy level is 5%?
a. 191 c. 188
b. 195 d. 198

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20. A Methods and Measurements Analyst needs to develop a time standard for a certain task. The task involves
use of ruler, square, and portable electric saw to mark and cut the "notch" in a rafter (a standard carpentry task
of home construction). In a preliminary study, he observed one of his workers perform this task five times. The
observations were made in an air-conditioned, well lighted training facility, at ground level, with all tools and
equipment clean and readily available.
Observation: 1 2 3 4 5
Task time (seconds) : 82 74 80 83 76

What is the normal time for this task if the employee worked at a 20% faster pace than is typical for
adequately trained workers?

a. 94.8 seconds c. 95.2 seconds

b. 96.7 seconds d. 97.5 seconds
21. In reference to problem no. 21, what is standard time for this task if allowances are 8% constant and 6%
variable?

a. 108.07 seconds c. 109.07 seconds

b. 111.07 seconds d. 112.07 seconds
22. If the analyst then thought more carefully about his experiment, and decided that the variable allowances
needed to be increased to match the real (outside, unair-conditioned) work environment, and that the proper
variable allowance was not 6% but 12%, what is the revised standard time if it is added to the total time?

a. 117.5 seconds c. 116.5 seconds

b. 118.5 seconds d. 119.5 seconds

23. An initial analysis of a laboratory activity resulted in the first table below. After this analysis, the managers
determined that their element descriptions were not as accurate as they should have been—they had left out
an element, underestimated a distance, and understated the need for accuracy. They revised the table of
element data, which appears in the second table.

Calculate the total standard minutes for the original activity "pouring tube specimen."
a. 0.1428 minutes. c. 0.1430 minutes.
b. 0.1429 minutes. d. 0.1431 minutes.

24. In reference to no. 24, calculate the total standard minutes for the revised activity "pouring tube specimen."

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a. 0.1778 minutes. c. 0.1978 minutes.

b. 0.1678 minutes. d. 0.1878 minutes.

25. In reference to no. 23, what is the increase, in seconds, from the first version to the second?
a. 2.7 seconds c. 7 seconds
b. 8 seconds d. 10 second

Ergonomics

1. Ergonomics is not concerned with

a. levels of illumination, noise, temperature, and humidity
b. adjusting and providing input to the machine
c. feedback (providing information to the operator)
d. adequate compensation schemes
2. One of the elements of ergonomics is
a. allocating work time based on economic studies
b. the cost justification of technology
c. designing tools and machines that facilitate human work
d. the use of automation in a manufacturing organization
3. Managers should seek to control such work environment factors as
a. illumination
b. noise and vibration
c. temperature
d. all of the above
4. Which of the following is an ergonomics issue with ethical implications?
a. job enrichment
b. equal opportunity
c. equal pay for equal work
d. a noisy workplace
5. Products are more "environmentally friendly" when they are made
a. using cheaper materials
b. using less energy
c. according to OSHA standards
d. where environmental regulations are lax
6. Ergonomics is a body of knowledge concerned with:
A. Human abilities
B. Design of tools, machines, systems, tasks, jobs, and environments
C. Fitting the job or task to the person
D. All of the above
7. Which of the following would not be considered a physical work characteristic?
A. A drill
B. A 300-pound supervisor
C. A bushel of potatoes in a produce warehouse
D. A workplace temperature of 40 degrees Fahrenheit
8. The greater the match between worker capabilities and task demands:
A. The greater the chance of worker injury/illness
B. The lower the chance of worker injury/illness
C. Has no impact on chance of worker injury/illness
D. The greater the chance of being exposed to high risk jobs

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9. Maximum isometric strength capacity frequently is used to evaluate the risk of performing a job because:
A. At slow motions, maximum isometric strength is very similar to maximum isotonic strength
B. Maximum strength capability through a range of motion has not been measured by isokinetic
dynamometers
C. At all speeds of motion, maximum isometric strength is the same as maximum isokinetic strength
D. A prediction based on an isometric strength test better approximates actual performance of a dynamic task
than a prediction based on a dynamic strength test
10. Psychophysical experiments from Liberty Mutual Insurance Company have determined the maximum
acceptable weight or force for:
A. Lifting, lowering, carrying, and hammering tasks
B. Lifting, carrying, pushing, and female wrist flexion and extension tasks
C. Lifting, lowering, walking, and pulling tasks
D. Lifting, driving, and pushing and pulling tasks
11. The calculation output of the Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation is:
A. The compressive force through the L5/S1 disc
B. The Recommended Weight Limit and Lifting Index
C. The Acceptable Weight for Carry Tasks
D. The low back moment of the lift
12. Engineering controls involve:
A. Workplace policy, procedures, and practices that minimize the exposure of workers to risk
conditions
B. A change in the physical features of the workplace
C. Application of proper personal protective equipment
D. Medical management
13. Examples of administrative controls include all except:
A. Rest breaks
B. Rotating workers through different jobs
C. Installation of an adjustable height keyboard tray
D. An effective tool maintenance program
14. Four commonly recognized computer workstation postures are:
A. Sitting, standing on both feet, standing with one foot resting, reclined
B. Standing, sitting tilted forward, sitting upright, sitting tilted back
C. Standing forward, laying down, sitting up, sitting on knees
D. Sitting with arms supported, standing with no arm support, seated with foot support, seated with
no foot support
15. Which of the following could be considered an engineering control for an office ergonomics hazard:
A. Implementing a stretching program
B. Switching to a chair with greater adjustability
C. Implementing a pre-work screening process
D. Purchasing wrist braces

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16. A male worker performs a repetitive task that requires an energy expenditure rate of 7.5kcal/min for 4 hours.
Each hour, he works 40mins. And takes 20 minutes rest break. During rest breaks, his energy expenditure is
estimated to be 1.5kcal/min. Determine the time weighted average energy expenditure.
A. 2.5kcal/min C. 146.7kcal/min
B. 3.5kcal/min D. 5.5kcal/min
17. When using NIOSH Lifting equation, a worker should not be performing a task with a lifting index less than
A. 0.5 C. 1.5
B. 1 D. 2
18. The maximum load that should be lifted according to the revised NIOSH Lifting equation is
A.23kg C. 37kg
B. 43kg D. 51kg
19. LC=23kg HM=0.4 VM= 0.75 DM=0.9 AM=0.9 FM= 1 CM=0.8 LW=33lbs
Using the NIOSH Lifting equation, determine the lifting index
A. 7.38 C. 3.9
B. 3.3 D. 7.83
20. It was developed to evaluate the exposure of individual workers to ergonomic risk factors associated with
upper extremity MSD.
A. NIOSH Lifting Equation C. Office Ergonomics
B. Rapid Upper Limb Assessment D. MSD Assessment
21. The primary danger from biohazards is
A. sick building syndrome
B. infection
C. environmental damage
D. parasite infestation
22. The best way to deal with hazardous waste is to
A. eliminate or reduce its production
B. contain it in a tank, lagoon, or waste pile
C. treat it through biological, chemical, or physical processes
D. dispose of it through burial or incineration
23. Teratogens are chemical substances that
A. cause a fetus to be malformed
B. produce cancer in humans or animals
C. change the genetic structure of humans or animals, affecting future generations
D. displace oxygen, interfering with breathing and oxygen transport
24. "Local" effects from a chemical hazard are effects
A. from a chemical that damage organs or biological functions
B. that occur only after repeated exposure to a chemical
C. that occur after only one exposure to a chemical
D. from a chemical that injure the skin, eyes, or respiratory system
25. Formerly contaminated air can be recirculated if
A. it has been cleaned through a system that includes equally efficient primary and secondary systems
or a primary system accompanied by a fail-safe monitor
B. the recirculated air is tested regularly to ensure that it is safe
C. a process is in place to divert contaminated air outside or shut down the process generating the
contaminant if a problem occurs
D. All of the above
26. Which of the following statements regarding basal metabolic rate is correct?
A. Basal metabolic rate is defined as the lowest metabolic rate that occurs in any 24 hour period
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B. The basal metabolic rate is increased in people suffering from hypothyroidism.

C. Basal metabolic rate increases with age
D. Adult males have a higher basal metabolic rate than adult females
27. The oxygen consumption of a normal adult:
A. Is around 1 litre per min at rest.
B. Is a good measure of the metabolic rate.
C. Can be used to determine the type of food being metabolized by any individual.
D. May reach over 20 litres per min in maximal exercise.
28. Concerning the metabolic rate:
A. Metabolic rate increases slightly when walking slowly compared to sitting.
B. The metabolic rate is depressed after a meal.
C. Metabolic rate increases during starvation, as protein is broken down to make glucose.
D. Metabolic rate is increased following a protein-rich meal.
29. An unplanned event that results in harm to people, damage to property or loss to process.
A. Incident C. Accident
B. Harm D. Trauma
30. A repeated exposure to hazardous agent.
A. Chronic exposure C. Chemical exposure
B. Acute exposure D. Sporaidic exposure