1.

Identify who is responsible for the activity "Facilitate Process Institutionalization"

1. Everyone in the project staff
2. Project Manager
3. Account Quality Partner
4. Senior Management

2. Which of the following activities is NOT owned by PM?

1. Conduct client satisfaction survey
2. Perform Root cause analysis
3. Publish Account Status Report
4. Establish estimates

3. Identify what will NOT be considered as innovation

1. New practices brought in to comply with a new model or standard to cater to the business
2. Initiatives with High cost of definition and implementation
3. Initiatives with Organizational Impact
4. Initiatives involved with Significant gains

4. According to GIP, "Remark" is a status assigned to the QA Test Defect when

1. The defect is rejected as "not reproducible" by the Development team
2. The defect is raised by the QA Test team
3. The defect is rejected as "duplicate" by the Development team
4. The defect is fixed by the Development Team

5. A project manager decides to identify and map dependent requirements. Which artifact would be an output of
this?
1. BRS Log
2. Business Requirement Specification
3. Detail Software Requirement Specification
4. Scope and Traceability Matrix

6. Sumathy is the Quality Partner for a Project. What is Smithy’s role in developing the PTR for the project?
1. Modifies the PTR
2. Maintain PTR
3. Review PTR
4. Publish the PTR

7. What is the BEST method for preparation of User Manual?

1. Prepared by End User with the help of the team
2. Prepared by Project Sponsor with help of the Business Analyst
3. Prepared by the Technical Lead in consultation with the project manager
4. Prepared by the technical writer with inputs from the team

8. Due to time constraint the team has only limited time to close comments arising out of the work product audit.
What should be the BEST consideration to identify the subset of comments for closure?
1. All comments whose impact on non-implementation is high needs to be closed
2. All comments excluding comments related to code documentation need to be closed
3. All comments that are related to end user reports need to be closed
4. All comments that are related to processing codes need to be fixed
9. Risk management planning encompasses all of the following EXCEPT
1. Deciding the risk exposure threshold values beyond which the risks will be escalated
2. Identifying risks and developing responses
3. Deciding on the plan for risk management
4. Deciding risk management process during the project execution

10. Identify the CORRECT statement with respect to Physical Configuration Audits
1. Normally conducted by the tech lead
2. Optional for small development projects
3. Conducted prior to the release of a baseline
4. Mandatory for all projects.

11.The Process Tailoring Record, an artifact of the Environment Discipline is optional for which type of Project
A. Small Enhancement Project
B. Maintenance Project
C. Development Projects
D. SQA Projects

1. A, B and D
2. All client project require PTR
3. Only A
4. B and C

12. While performing the Detailed Design of a system, significant number of requirement related changes arise.
What could have BEST avoided this situation?
1. SARB review should have been done on requirements
2. Non-functional requirements should have been captured better
3. System Analysis should have considered preliminary design implication
4. Requirements should have been reviewed by the technical architect

13. Test report is developed by

1. Test Engineer
2. Design Architect
3. Test Lead
4. Test Lead and Test Engineer

14. Identify the discipline on which the integrity of the "Integrate System" is PRIMARILY dependent on
1. Project Management
2. Implementation
3. Configuration Management
4. Analysis and Design

15. Which among the list below is the PRIMARY source of the project goals in the QI Sheet?
1. Project Approach Document
2. Process Performance Baseline (PPB)
3. Statement of Work (SOW)
4. Master Services Agreement (MSA)

16. "Defect to Remark Ratio" metric is a DIRECT indicator of

1. Capability of the designer / architect
2. Efficiency of the requirements review
3. Efficiency of the QA Test Team
4. Effectiveness of defect fixing by the development team
17. Who conducts the Inception review in a project?
1. Account Manager
2. Project Manager
3. Quality Partner
4. Team Lead

18. At the end of an audit, who is responsible for classification of the findings as Major NC / Minor NC and AFI
1. The Auditors in consultation with Account Quality Partner
2. The Auditors as per guidelines provided in the GIP
3. Project Manager, Account Owner and Auditors collectively
4. The PQA of the project along with the internal audit team

19. Shyam is the technical architect at Virtusa for an online assessment system. For encryption of the questionnaire,
he decides to opt for a tool developed by the popular vendor AES. What is the MOST important activity that shyam
is to do next?
1. He should enter into an escrow arrangement with AES
2. He should ensure skills are available for integration of this tool in the project
3. He should ensure AES incorporation does not have any legal liability
4. He should obtain approval to use the tool from the Project Manager

20. Client Release Note is mandated for which Client releases?

1. As requested by the Client
2. For identified major releases
3. For all Client releases
4. Only for the initial release

21. Identify what is NOT a prerequisite for the "Integrate System" activity
1. Completion of unit testing for the sub components
2. Component availability in configuration management system
3. Integration Build Plan
4. Approved Deployment Plan

22. In a typical acceptance plan, with whom should Execution of acceptance test reside?
1. Project Manager
2. Business Quality partner
3. Client
4. Test Lead

23. Preparation of Configuration Management Plan is the responsibility of

1. Configuration Auditor
2. Project Manager
3. Configuration Manager
4. All the options

24. What is of LEAST importance as an input to process improvement initiatives

1. QA Testing reports
2. Team Score Card
3. Internal Audit Report
4. Project Risk List
25. A customer comes back to the project manager informing that the product delivered is not acceptable. The
project manager goes back to the acceptance plan but notices that the plan was not signed off by the customer,
due to which there was rework on the delivered product to meet client expectations. Which process has failed?
1. Communication Management
2. Requirements Development
3. Requirements Management
4. Stakeholder Management

26. Suyash is new to Virtusa. He has to choose the process framework for execution of his project. What would
help him in arriving at the MOST appropriate framework for his project
1. GIP PTR template
2. Contract document
3. Project Approach Document
4. PTR of similar projects

27.The QA testing report indicates certain critical errors which have been agreed to by the Project Team as
requiring closure. What is the FIRST step to be undertaken now?
1. Change Request should be raised for the agreed defects
2. The report and its finding should be discussed in the ATC review
3. Client should be updated on impact if any on schedule
4. Client must be updated of these critical issues

28. One of the teams just finished a very challenging and unique project with high CDI. Unfortunately when a
similar project came up, the project manager for the previous project executed had left. No one was aware of what
needs to be done and how, what value adds could be provided to the client. What should have the PM done to
ensure proper preservation of knowledge on project success/failure/lessons learnt/value add to customer?
1. Conduct meeting with all stakeholders and present the project details
2. Create and submit the Project Closure Report and Project Case Study documents
3. None of the options
4. Document project audit results/performance results

29. What is the PRIMARY consideration while deciding on the build or buy option
1. Cost Benefit Analysis
2. Availability of open source utilities
3. Competency within organization
4. Time available to cater to the requirement

30. What is NOT the intent of the Program Management discipline

1. To provide management attention to delivery
2. To manage resource utilization
3. Conflict resolution within project team members
4. To provide necessary trainings

31. Who is responsible for conducting Contract Compliance review

1. Delivery Head
2. BU Quality Partner
3. Account Owner
4. Project Manager

32. All of the following about Defect Density is true EXCEPT

1. Has an impact on Productivity of the team
2. One of the most important metrics that determines the state of the project
3. The higher the defect density, the more the rework
4. Could have an impact on the size of the system, the higher the defect density, the greater the size
33. What is NOT a key criteria for evaluating adequacy of a requirement statement
1. Accurate
2. Verifiable
3. Secure
4. Simple

34. All these are valid expectation from an implementation model EXCEPT
1. The amount of source code is consistent with the expectation based on the number of design classes
2. Number of implementation layers is less than ten
3. The workload for the Implementation Team is balanced
4. Unnecessary dependencies on lower-layer subsystems have been eliminated

35. When should a Configuration Management Plan be available for the project team?
1. During the Construction Phase
2. Before the construction phase
3. By beginning of Elaboration Phase ( Early of Elaboration Phase )
4. During the Elaboration Phase

36. Management of Acceptance tests is the activity performed by

1. Deployment Manager
2. Team Lead
3. Project Manager
4. Customer

37. What is the PRIMARY intent of an account delivery review?

1. To ensure senior management attention for high risk items
2. To review and provide management support to meet delivery
3. To review projects which have effort or schedule variances greater than 20%
4. To provide a platform for knowledge sharing within an account

38. Sumathy is testing her unit. She has detected four errors in the first round of testing. She has completed the
defect fixing. What should be the appropriate action to be taken now?
1. Sumathy should subject her unit to another round of developer testing
2. Sumathy should request a peer to perform defect closure testing
3. Sumathy should test the four test cases to ensure defects are closed
4. Sumathy should update the test log for tracking of defect closure

39. What is NOT true with respect to Metrics Council

1. Account owners review PPB
2. PQA group reviews the metrics
3. It has participation from PM and above
4. Metrics Council lead is a dedicated person

40. Identify what is NOT a direct intent of Change Management Process

1. Control of effort variance
2. Prevent implementation of unauthorized changes
3. Ascertaining impact of change
4. Consistent implementation of approved change

41. Which of the following are FALSE?

1. Specification limits are set by the organization
2. Specification limits can be changed based on appropriate approvals
3. Control limits are set by the project
4. Changing control limits require approvals
42. Suyash is the Project Manager. A minor NC is recorded in the project audit regarding absence of certain review
report documentation. Suyash contacts the reviewer and gets the documents prepared. What is this response best
categorized as
1. Preventive Action
2. Correction
3. Closure
4. Improvement

43. Deployment Plan is BEST prepared in

1. Early Elaboration Phase
2. After Construction Phase
3. Transition Phase
4. Early Construction Phase

 The Deployment Plan is started in the Elaboration phase and is refined in the Construction
phase

44. What is NOT a required input for designing of User Interface?

1. Business Requirement Specification
2. Project Engineering Guidelines
3. UI requirement specification
4. Detailed Software Requirement Specification

45. Identify the attribute that is measured to evaluate the Knowledge Management process within a project
1. Extent of reusable artifacts and methods
2. Schedule Variation
3. Effort Variation
4. Client Satisfaction

46. Sumathy is performing a configuration audit for a project. From where can she find information regarding
individuals authorized for change approval
1. Project Structure Document
2. Change Request Log
3. Team Score Card
4. Configuration Management Plan

47. What is NOT normally contained in an installation guide?

1. Troubleshooting information
2. FAQ
3. User Side Operator Details
4. Contact id for queries

48. A task has an optimistic value of 12 days, pessimistic value of 20 days. What would be its most likely estimate?
1. 13
2. Unknown
3. 15
4. 18
49. A website is developed and delivered to a retail client. The customer comes back informing that the website is
as per the functional requirements agreed upon but the website crashes when more than 500 users login at the
same time. This issue could have been prevented if
1. Requirements development was detailed with complete information on non functional requirements
(NFRs)
2. Product was tested exhaustively
3. Allocated requirements adhered to the design
4. There is no issue as the client did not specify this requirement

50. Identify the statement that is NOT correct with respect to PTR
1. PTR is frozen at inception phase and used subsequently as guiding principle
2. PTR is used for internal audit
3. PTR is owned by the Project Manager
4. PTR is created in the early inception Phase

51. What is verification and validation?

1. Verification is “Reviews” and Validation is “Testing”
2. “Build the product right” and “Build the right product”
3. Both are reviews/testing but Validation is internal and verification is external
4. “Build the right product” and “Build the product right”

52. Sumathy is testing her unit. She is using her peer reviewed Developer Test Plan to check her program. She finds
that a critical test mentioned in her test case is not being met by her unit. She fears this will involve a lot of rework
and hence a delay in delivery. What Sumathy should FIRST do
1. Sumathy should raise a change request
2. Sumathy should proceed with the defect closure
3. Sumathy should continue to complete the testing
4. Sumathy should understand the impact of this test defect

53. Select the valid statement regarding the Project Initiation Note
1. It is issued by the Client on approval of Project Approach Note
2. It issued by the Marketing team communicating sign off on the contract
3. It is issued by the Account Owner after the client kick off meeting
4. It is issued by the Senior Management intimating of Project Start

54. The effort estimate is derived by

1. Using the formula – Total resource*Hours of planned work+ (Buffer)
2. Applying effort to Size estimates of the project
3. Applying productivity value to the size estimates of the project
4. Using any of the above choices

1. Shyam is the technical architect for developing a configuration management system. The system will store
identified CI and track their lifecycle. System features are heavily dependent on the state of the CI at any point in
time. What would BEST help Shyam in detailing the system design?
1. Use Case Modeling
2. State Chart Diagram
3. Data Flow Diagrams
4. Entity Relationship diagrams
2. Shyam is a technical architect at Virtusa. He has been given some documents by his project manager as input
documents to design. Which document should he refer for restriction if any on design and technical aspect?
1. Detailed Software Requirement Specification
2. Architecture Document
3. Project Engineering Guideline
4. Detailed Software Technical design document

3. Sudha is to lead a project for a client in Japan. Language constraint is identified as a key challenge in the
requirement gathering phase. What is the MOST effective method to be adopted
1. Configure extra time for gathering requirements
2. Japanese Language training for her key team members
3. Recruit a local business analyst
4. Usage of "Use Case Diagramming Method"

4. What is TRUE about tailoring a PTR?

1. PTR can be modified during the course of the project
2. All Disciplines must be included
3. PTR is not applicable when Client templates are being followed
4. PTR is approved by the Delivery Head

5. Risk Mitigation must be performed for

1. High and Medium Risks
2. Only Direct Risks
3. High Risks
4. Direct and Indirect Risks

6. What is the applicability of the program management discipline?

1. Maintenance Projects
2. All the options
3. Pre sales projects
4. T&M projects

7. Identify the activity that will NOT lead to a change request

1. None of the Options
2. Client Requirement
3. Code Review
4. QA Testing

8. What is the purpose of refactoring the code

1. All the options
2. Improve Communication
3. Add Flexibility
4. Simplify the Code

9. As per GIP, inception review is to take place

1. By the 10th working day of the project start
2. Along with occurrence of the first milestone
3. There is no fixed time frame for inception review
4. Along with the internal kick off meeting
10. For projects with large code base, what is the recommended sampling % for work product audit?
1. 10-15%
2. 25-30%
3. 15-20%
4. 5-10%

11. Which of the following is FALSE?

1. Project team can define their own template for QATP
2. Project team can define metric specific to their projects
3. Project team can define their own engineering guidelines, provided they are signed off by appropriate
stakeholder
4. Project team can choose not to record any Minutes of Meeting

12. The project team develops various artifacts throughout the project. Where does the review plan related to
these artifacts documented?
1. PAD
2. None of the options
3. Chorus
4. Review logs

13. What is NOT an input for an Account Delivery Review?

1. Process Audit Report
2. Updated Project Schedule
3. Metrics
4. Account Status Report
5. Client Satisfaction Score Card
6. Change Request Log
7. Project Quality Indicators

14. A task has an optimistic value of 12 days, pessimistic value of 20 days. What would be its most likely estimate?
1. 18
2. 16
3. Unknown
4. 14

15. Suyash is peer reviewing a Developer Test Plan for a user profile maintenance screen. What would be of LEAST
concern to Suyash
1. Traceability of test cases
2. Audit Trail requirement
3. Encryption Requirement
4. Business Continuity Requirement

16. Identify who is authorized to raise a change request in a project?

1. Only Client
2. Any Project Staff
3. Change Control Board
4. Project Leadership Team

17. Which of the following is NOT a data integrity check?

1. Verifying that the tasks have correct standard codes
2. Verifying that defects are categorized correctly
3. Verifying that the current weeks value is within the specification limit
4. Verifying if corresponding rework effort is entered for defects captured
18. Which of the following is NOT an INPUT of the conduct client kickoff activity?
1. Process Tailoring Record
2. Project Initiation Note
3. Project Schedule
4. MoM

19. The delivery review team was meeting once in a month to review the Project progress. It has been decided that
this meeting will be held on a Fortnightly basis. Which one of the following is likely to get updated by this decision?
1. Communication technology
2. Staffing Management Plan
3. Issue Logs
4. Communication Management Plan

20. Who is responsible for verifying closure of all the configuration audit findings and action points?
1. Project Manager
2. All the options
3. Configuration Auditor
4. Configuration Manager

21. A work product auditor is identified and assigned to a project in the

1. None of the options
2. Monitoring and control stage
3. Initiation stage
4. Planning stage

22. Tailoring of GIP to project needs is the ownership of

1. Project Quality Partner
2. Account Manager
3. Project Manager
4. Project Manager and Project Quality Partner

23. While performing code review, the OUTPUT(S) can be

1. Defect Log
2. Change Request
3. Change Request and Defect Log
4. None of the options

24. What is the GIP recommended time frame for conducting phase/project closure for the project
1. Within 2 weeks of completion of the phase or project
2. On Baseline of the phase
3. Prior to start of the subsequent phase
4. As decided by the Project Manager

25. A project manager is identifying the criteria to select solutions during design with respect to Technologies,
COTS products, Reusable components and/or Design approaches etc. The project manager is
1. Selecting alternative solutions
2. Performing Decision Analysis
3. Developing a design
4. Establishing design interfaces
26. What is normally NOT discussed in an Account Delivery Review
1. Significant Project Risks
2. Project Account Receivable status
3. Client Satisfaction
4. Team Morale

1. What is NOT a purpose of the Requirements discipline?

1. To establish and maintain agreement with the customers and other stakeholders on what the system
should do
2. To provide system developers with a better understanding of the system requirements
3. To evolve a robust architecture for the system
4. To provide a basis for estimating cost and time to develop the system

2. The requirement discipline is NOT applicable for,

1. Internal projects
2. Customer projects
3. Onsite projects
4. Pre-sales activities

3. As per the roles defined in GIP, “Gather and Analyze Business Requirements” should be performed by,
1. System analyst
2. Business analyst
3. Project Manager
4. Tier 1 or Tier 0 resource

4. Amal is a new member for Virtusa and has asked to perform system analysis of a starting up project. What
document should he refer to perform this activity?
1. Business Requirements document
2. Scope and Traceability Matrix
3. DSRS and supporting documents, if any.
4. Business Requirements Log

5. Mangala is a system analyst assigned to the project Kingfisher and accountable for the DSRS document.
Typically, at which Phase he should initiate the DSRS document?
1. Pre-inception phase
2. Inception phase
3. Elaboration phase
4. Post-elaboration phase

6. As per GIP guidelines, what is NOT included in the DSRS document?

1. Details of functional requirements and non-functional requirements
2. Success criteria of the project
3. To be decided items
4. Bi-directional traceability details

7. Who should signoff the DSRS document?

1. A Signoff is not mandatory
2. Client
3. Delivery owner
4. Account owner
8. Development of Low level detailed design of the System to be implemented is part of,
1. Requirement discipline
2. Analysis and design discipline
3. Implementation discipline
4. Architecture and design discipline

9. What is NOT correct with regard to the activity “Perform Architectural Synthesis”?
1. The purpose of this is to analyze and define the software architecture based on architecturally significant
requirements.
2. One of the goals of this is to define the layering and organization of the system
3. It is recommended to get the involvement of the entire project team to perform this activity
4. This activity is best performed in the inception phase of the project

10. Viki is a technical lead at Virtusa and asked to design use cases for a specific functionality of the system. He
quickly used a one he created for his previous project and started modifying it. As per GIP guidelines, how do you
comment on this?
1. He is quite smart. GIP always encourage re-use
2. Disaster. There is a higher vulnerability for mistakes. Should undergo thorough reviews
3. He should always refer to the project engineering guidelines document. This is a clear deviation from
GIP
4. This is alright if the chief architect is fine with this behavior

11 At which phase the Detailed Software Technical Design should start?

1. Inception
2. Elaboration
3. Construction
4. No recommendations given by GIP

12. Latha, an engineer, wants to know the file structure for the project, which will indicate where the sets of code,
unit tests, executables, libraries etc. are to be placed during implementation. What should she do?
1. She should have given all instructions prior to her start in the project. She should be given the kick-off
presentation to refer
2. Ask someone else in the project and get the instructions
3. Refer to the DSTD document
4. Refer to the configuration management document

13. What is NOT correct with regard to the SARB review?

1. SARB stands for Software Architecture Review Board
2. A SARB review is conducted to detect any architectural design flaws
3. It is conducted to detect a potential mismatch between the requirements and the architecture such as
over-design and unrealistic requirements
4. Project manager should schedule the review meeting and give prior notice to the SARB team to reserve
their own time for the review

14. Which activity should be done at first in the Implementation discipline?

1. Plan the integration
2. Structure the implementation model
3. Implement components
4. Integrate the system
15. Mala, an engineer is asked to prepare the developer tests. When should she start the work?
1. As per the project schedule
2. As soon as the design model is defined and software components that need to be developer tested is
identified
3. As soon as she is thorough with the technology that the developer test is going to be written
4. It depends on her bandwidth and other priorities set by the project leadership.

16. What is the purpose of the developer release note?

1. It gives the client a broad view of the current release
2. It provides a snapshot of the features of the current development release to QA
3. It contains relevant information about the developers
4. It contains development related metrics and quality indicators

17. What is NOT correct with regard to the IP Usage registry?

1. It provides a detailed information on the usage of any third party software/images/design and others that
are used in the system
2. It should be signed off by the client
3. It is owned by the Project Manager
4. The primary audience of the document is the project team and the client

18. An auditor asked Kamala, a release engineer of a large scale project, the frequency of performing builds. The
answer suggests that he is not aware of such a plan. Which statement best explains this situation?
1. There is no role called ‘Release Engineer” defined in GIP. Therefore, this question is not fair
2. It is not his responsibility. A build would be performed whenever the developers are ready
3. He should be thoroughly aware of the CM plan and the project engineering guidelines
4. He seems be having no idea of how the entire system works

19. The more minds, more different personalities and life experiences in searching for error, the more chance you
have of catching problems early, before they become serious and expensive to fix. This phenomena is called,
1. The Safety Net Effect
2. The Sieve Effect
3. The Blender Effect
4. The Training Effect

20. What is NOT a purpose of the Configuration Management discipline?

1. Simultaneous Update
2. Limited Notification
3. Multiple Versions
4. Multiple backups

21. CCB stands for,

1. Change Control Board
2. Configuration Control Board
3. Configuration and Change Board
4. Configuration Capability Baseline

22. What is not included in the Configuration Management plan?

1. Configuration Items
2. Roles and Responsibilities of the project team
3. Configuration Audits and details
4. Release Management plan
23. Responsibilities of the CM Auditor includes,
1. Performing Physical Configuration Audit
2. Performing Functional Configuration Audits
3. Facilitating projects in identifying corrective actions for the Non-Conformances (NCs) identified
4. All three of them above

24. What is NOT correct with regard to the CM Plan?

1. CM Plan describes all CCM activities you will perform during the course of the product
2. It provides details about Configuration identification
3. It should be signed off by the account owner
4. It briefly describes releases

25. Which statement best explain the purpose of the skill gap analysis document?
1. It helps to properly estimate the project cost
2. It is a mechanism to transfer project risks to the higher management
3. It helps the project manager to identify the project risks with respect to resources to anticipate and
mitigate them
4. It helps to determine how the individuals improve their skills and capabilities over time

26. Which document is used to describe the chosen process for the project?
1. Project approach document
2. Project tailoring record
3. Project schedule
4. Detailed WBS

27. The primary purpose of Conducting the Client Satisfaction Survey is,
1. To give an opportunity for the client to express their views about the project deliveries
2. Because it is a mandatory activity that cannot be tailored out
3. To provide Virtusa management and project teams with a view into how clients feel about the project
and team performance
4. To understand the areas where most problems exists and compensate the team accordingly

28. What is NOT a purpose of the Test discipline?

1. Finding and documenting defects in software
2. Validating that the requirements have been implemented completely and appropriately
3. Provide a framework for managing the activities of the Assurance Group
4. Suggestion for the process improvement

29. What is NOT a workflow element of the test discipline

1. Plan test
2. Execute unit test
3. Evaluate test
4. Automate test

30. As defined in GIP, which role is assigned to create test automation scripts?
1. Test lead
2. Test analyst
3. Test engineer
4. Any role
 31. Which GIP artifact contains the test environment details?
1. Project approach document
2. Test design
3. Test plan
4. Test report

32. Who's signoff is mandatory for the test cases?

1. Test analyst
2. Test lead
3. Client
4. Signoff is not mandatory

1. Baseline criteria for a Business Requirement Document is

1. Acceptance by Project Leadership team
2. Sign off by Client
3. Acceptance by Delivery Head
4. Review by Project Leadership team

2. Out of these identify the MOST critical aspect to be recorded in the Test log against a defect?
1. Details for error simulation
2. Defect Categorization
3. Cause of the Defect
4. Tester Details

3. Subhadra is new to Virtusa. From where can Subhadra find the code naming conventions to be used in her
project?
1. Configuration Management Plan
2. Technology Standards
3. Requirements Management Plan
4. Configuration Status Report

22. Which document contains the naming conventions for the database tables to be used in the project?
1. Detailed Software Technical Design Document
2. Project Engineering Guideline
3. Project Approach Document
4. Technology Standards at Virtusa

4. What is normally NOT discussed in an Account Business Review

1. SARB Comments
2. Score Card Trends
3. CDI
4. New Business Opportunities

5. Sujatha is a developer and she attended a technical discussion session with the Onsite / Client Tech Lead. Which
Pulse category should she log this effort to?
1. Virtusa - Admin project (as there is no Pulse category called technical discussions in the project's pulse
categories)
2. Implementation - Others (because it is a meeting)
3. Construction
4. Project Management (because it is a meeting)
6. Against what would a POC be evaluated?
1. Against acceptance Criteria in Project Acceptance document
2. As defined in the Project Approach Document
3. Against Criteria in Project Engineering Guidelines
4. Against identified Architecturally Significant Requirements

7. With regards to GIP process components, what is NOT a valid relationship

1. An activity is performed by a role
2. A role is responsible for an artifact creation, maintenance and update
3. Software Engineering Process is organized into Disciplines
4. An activity refers to a template

8. Identify what will NOT normally give raise to a change request?

1. Code Change following Unit Testing
2. Changes to code due to QA review
3. Changes due to Client requirement during design review
4. Requirements Change to SARB review

9. The QATP needs to be approved by

1. Project Manager and Test Analyst
2. Test Analyst
3. Client
4. Project Manager and PQA

10. During Detailed Design how does one address non functional requirements?
1. By mapping Design elements to State Chart Diagram
2. By associating core technical service to individual class
3. Through traceability Matrix
4. By mapping design to PoC

11. Approving Authority for User Manual is

1. Business Quality Partner
2. Delivery Head
3. Deployment Manager
4. Client

12. Which artifact holds the list of ”To be Decided" requirements

1. Traceability Matrix
2. Business Requirement Document
3. Issue Log
4. Business Requirement Log

13. If the Project Manager prepares the PTR. Who needs to maintain it?
1. Account Quality Partner
2. SEPG
3. BU Quality Partner
4. Project Manager

14. What is the main intent of an Engineering Rigor Audit?

1. To evaluate the ability of the project team to meet the non-functional requirements
2. To identify instances in code where GIP standards have not be followed
3. To evaluate the maturity of engineering practices within a project
4. To evaluate the technical skills of the project team
15. Identify what will NOT influence the Quality Plan for a project?
1. None
2. Audit Summary Results
3. Feed from other Quality Partners
4. Areas of improvements for the project

16. What BEST describes the principle of classification of a nonconformance into Major or a Minor NC?
1. If there are multiple occurrence of the same lapse the finding is classified as a Major NC
2. If the discipline to which it is attributed is a delivery related discipline, it is a Major NC
3. Any finding against the performance of a process (Activity) is classified as a Major NC
4. Classification is based on the potential risk the lapse can cause to the project's success

17. "Perform Architectural Analysis and Design" is NOT required for

1. Small Enhancement Projects
2. Systems with existing well-defined architecture
3. Technology Migration Projects
4. For Maintenance Projects

18. What is the prescribed frequency for Account Delivery Review for a Strategic Account with AHI 5?
1. Weekly
2. Once in two months
3. Fortnightly
4. Monthly

19. All units have been tested and integration activities have been completed. The team now prepares the
developer release note. Identify the PRIMARY intent of the Developer Release Notes
1. Provides insight to the deployment manager on limitations of the system
2. Provides the Client an insight into limitation of the system
3. Provides key information on the current release to QA
4. Provides the deployment manger information about known defects

20. Rework effort index DOES NOT include

1. Correction to the Design components
2. Re-estimation
3. Code fixes
4. Writing the test cases for the functionality not covered which is identified duringtesting

21. Identify the condition which will NOT normally be tested in a developer testcase?
1. Boundary Condition behavior
2. Coverage Testing
3. Negative Testing
4. Stress Testing

22 . Who should approve the Project Approach Note (Doc)?

1. Account Owner, as he is the senior management representative
2. PQA, as he has to facilitate process implementation
3. Delivery Head, as he is the management representative
4. Quality Partner, as he is responsible for the process framework
23. What is the PRIMARY intent of bidirectional traceability?
1. To provide inputs for configuration management
2. To identify features in the deliverable that are aligned to requirements specified by users
3. To identify all requirements are translated into implementation, to verify all features implemented can
be traced to an approved source and traceability between requirements is maintained for ensuring
integrity
4. To identify features in the deliverable that are not mapped to any user specified or design driven
requirement

24. Which is the Group that is responsible for maintaining GIP?

1. Project Leadership
2. Quality Champions
3. OCM
4. SPI Team Lead

25. What does a PCI indicate?

1. Process Compliance Index
2. Project Capability Index
3. Process Capability Index
4. Project Compliance Index

26. Requirements Management Plan is to be signed off by

1. BU Quality Partner
2. Business Analyst
3. Change Control Board
4. Client

27. As per the GIP guidelines what is the thumb rule for affixing the size of the lowest node in a WBS?
1. The task should at least be 40 hours of duration
2. The task should not have any dependency
3. The task should NOT be in the critical path
4. The task should result in a measurable deliverable

28. What is NOT a prerequisite for initiating test at client site?

1. Agreed upon Test Environment Configuration
2. Availability of relevant infrastructure
3. Availability of relevant support software
4. Automated Defect tracking mechanism

29. What will NOT be described in a Configuration Management Plan?

1. Integration Testing Environment Details
2. UAT Environment Details
3. Development Environment Details
4. Control Test Environment Details

30. What is NOT normally done during an interim build process?

1. Deployment on test machine
2. Checking out code from repository
3. Logging build defects
4. Preparing build release note
31. What is NOT normally included in a deployment package?
1. Review reports
2. Installation Manual
3. Operational Manual
4. User Manual

32. What is incorrect about Contract Compliance Checklist?

1. The minimum prescribed frequency is fortnightly
2. It is prepared by Project Manager
3. It is published at agreed interval to the Client
4. The process is owned by Account Owner

33. Identify what is NOT an appropriate status during change approval?

1. Duplicate
2. Accepted
3. Rejected
4. Hold

34. Sumathy is to lead the QA testing of a system. Where can she find the acceptance criteria for the following
1. Release Management Plan
2. Project Approach Document
3. Requirements Management Plan
4. QATP

35. What is NOT an accurate statement about the GIP component ROLE?
1. Roles are NOT individuals but represent how they behave in the business environment
2. Roles are restricted to people within the organization
3. A role is an abstract definition of a set of activities performed and artifacts owned.
4. Roles perform activities

36. As per the PTR template in GIP, what are the Mandatory activities for a maintenance project?
1. Project Effort Estimate
2. QATP
3. Deployment Plan
4. None of the options

37. Where do you find the list of Business Objectives of Virtusa?

1. Metrics Description Document (MDD)
2. Metrics Profile Document
3. QI Sheet
4. Organizational Objectives Document

38. What is accurate about the activity "Designing of Core Technical Services"?
1. This activity involves planning for non-functional requirements
2. This activity is initiated in the Inception phase
3. This activity need not maintain DAR
4. This activity is performed on completion of PoC
1. The scope functionality traceability matrix holds which of the following information
A. Active requirement
B. Requirement dropped
C. Approved changes to Requirement
D. Reject changes

1. C and D
2. A, C and D
3. A, B and C
4. A and B

2. What will not be normally discussed in a team kick off meeting?

1. Acceptance Criteria
2. Project Overview
3. Project Vision
4. Detailed Project WBS

3. When the project risks should be identified and managed?

1. On milestone completion
2. Construction Phase
3. Throughout the project
4. Transition Phase

4. Of the given below, identify which will be considered in preparation of Quality Plan for PQA activities?
1. Consolidated reports for improvements areas in implementation rigor
2. Areas of improvement as identified by senior management
3. Audit summary results
4. All the options

5. Identify what is NOT intent of the Assurance Discipline

1. To provide early indicators with regards to process risks
2. Provide support to Project Leadership
3. Facilitate process Implementation
4. To define organizational processes

6. On development and maintenance projects, Quality Effort Index DOES NOT include
1. Estimation effort
2. System testing effort
3. Code review effort
4. Coding effort

6. What is the primary intent of an architectural POC?

1. Evaluate effort involved in system realization
2. Prove feasibility of the system to architecturally significant requirements
3. To explorer the best option for the system design
4. To identify major risks in designing of the system

7. A SARB review will be LEAST concerned with:

1. Performance
2. Scalability
3. Adherence to Requirement
4. Requirement Detailing
8. Who is authorized to “Close” an implemented CR?
1. Owner of the Change Request
2. Configuration Manager
3. Member of the CCB
4. Project Manager

9. What is ‘workload analysis’ used for?

1. Arriving at acceptance criteria
2. Arriving at the framework for performance testing
3. Arriving at database size
4. Arriving at leveling of work allocated to team members

10. Identify what is NOT an input for “Planning the Integration”

1. Implementation Model
2. Approved Change Request
3. Project Engineering Guideline
4. Developer Release Notes

11. Requirement Management Plan is to be signed off by

1. Business Analyst
2. Change Control Board
3. Client
4. BU Quality Partner

12. Identify the situation which mandates a formal Decision Analysis and Resolution Process
1. Approving Change Implementation
2. Deciding Mitigation
3. Evaluation of Tools
4. Closure of review comments

13. What will NOT usually be included in a Deployment Plan?

1. Training requirements for End Users
2. Process of Remediation
3. Key Software Features
4. Time Lines related to deployment

14. What is normally not included in a Deployment package?

1. Installation Manual
2. Review Reports
3. User Manual
4. Operations manual

15. The assertion that is true in its completeness with respect to work product audit
1. Project Manager provides waiver in case of non-closure of findings
2. As DSTD is subjected to SARB review, work product review is optional
3. Review of artifacts by the process consultant is considered as work product review
4. Every work product needs to be audited at least once

16. When should the project risks be identified and managed?

1. Throughout the project
2. Construction Phase
3. On milestone completion
4. Transition Phase
 17. Activity creates the scope and traceability matrix
1. Perform system analysis
2. Handle changes
3. Manage requirements
4. Develop Plan

18. What does ETVX imply in terms of a process description?

1. Entry Task Verification and Exit
2. Explore Task Verify and Explain
3. Entry Task Version and Example
4. Explore Task Verify and Explain

1. According to GIP, there are ______ number of severity levels assigned to defects
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

2. Where are the reuse area(s) identified for a project?

1. QATP and Reuse database
2. QATP
3. Reuse database
4. Project Approach Document

3. As per the PTR template in GIP, what are the Mandatory activity for a maintenance project?
1. Project Effort Estimate
2. None of the options
3. Deployment Plan
4. QATP

4. Success of the acceptance test is PRIMARILY dependent on

1. Good Supporting documentation
2. Well trained user community
3. Baseline Acceptance Plan
4. Strong deployment Manager

5. Contract compliance conducted by

1. Account owner
2. B U quality partner
3. PM
4. Delivery head

6. Identify the statement that is NOT true with respect to GIP recommendation for RCA
1. At least one RCA meeting is recommended in the "construction" phase
2. In Development projects, it is recommended that Root Cause Analysis be performed at least once before
the Construction Phase
3. At least one meeting per month is recommended for all kinds of projects.
4. For Maintenance Project RCA is not required

7. In Account Delivery meeting, which one of the following is not discussed

1. Client Satisfaction
2. Acct review status
3. Team Score Card
4. Project Risks (I gave this option)
8. Where can one find the information with regards to Testing Standards and Defect Management guidelines?
1. Project Initiation Document
2. Quality Assurance Plan
3. Project Engineering Guidelines
4. Business Requirement Specification

9. What can BEST describe the relationship of Program Management discipline to Project Management?
1. Program Management is Project Management on larger scope
2. Program Management is Project Management when applied to large projects
3. Program Management Supports Project Management
4. Program Management Oversees Project Management

10. What is of LEAST priority while designing QATP test cases

1. Requirement Validation
2. Boundary Value Analysis
3. UI validation
4. Performance Analysis

11. Sumathy is performing a Code Review of Surjit's work. What would be of LEAST Consideration
1. Readability
2. Error Handling routines
3. Coding Effort
4. Simplicity

12. A PM is regularly tracking the work performed through planned reviews as stated in the Project Approach
Document. The PM also ensures regular customer reporting on the work performed. Which activity is the PM
performing?
1. Initiate Project
2. Execute project
3. Monitor Project Status
4. Project Closure

13. Your project receives requirements from the client. As a part of understanding of those requirements you or the
project team seek clarifications for doubts/queries on the requirements. Which of the following is applicable?
1. Develop Q&A document
2. Develop BRS (Business Requirement Specification)
3. Develop DSRS (Detail Software Requirement Specification)
4. Tailor out BRS and DSRS from PTR

14. Risk tracking during project execution is done using:

1. All of the options
2. Risk database
3. Project risk list
4. Risk Management Plan

15. What is the source of CI for configuration audits?

1. As contained in the project configuration repository
2. As submitted by the team members
3. Source used in prior internal audit
4. As indicated by the Project Manager
16. A project manager is reviewing risks and issues in a project in one of the status reviews. Which activity is he
performing and in which project management phase
1. Manage communication, Plan the Project
2. Manage Risks and Issues, Execute the Project
3. Manage risks, Initiate project
4. Manage Risks and Issues, Project Monitoring and control

17. The final product to be validated is identified and recorded in

1. PTW
2. QATC
3. QATP
4. PAD

18. A configuration management plan will provide for all information BUT
1. Change Management policies and directives
2. Details of change requests
3. CCB authorities
4. Configuration audit schedule

19. Suyash is the Project Manager. His project contains a large code base. He is selecting the codes that would be
subjected to code review. Which is the BEST method for selecting the candidate codes?
1. Codes which pose a significant risk on not getting reviewed
2. At least one code per module
3. At least one code per category (maintenance/report etc)
4. At least one code per developer

20. The Team kickoff Meeting:

1. Can be tailored if Client Kickoff is conducted
2. Is not mandatory for testing projects
3. Is not mandatory for development projects
4. Is mandatory for all projects

21. A project has just developed a Requirement review log along with a Business requirement document. Which
activity has been performed?
1. Manage requirements
2. Gather and analyze business requirements
3. None of the options
4. Perform system analysis

23. Identify the artifact that is NOT an input for project initiation
1. Project Tailoring Record
2. Project Initiation Note
3. Presales Documents
4. Skill Gap Analysis Report

24. All units have been tested and integration activities have been completed. The team now prepares the
developer release note. Identify the PRIMARY intent of the Developer Release Notes.
1. Provides key information on the current release to QA
2. Provides the deployment manger information about known defects
3. Provides insight to the deployment manager on limitations of the system
4. Provides the Client an insight into limitation of the system
25. Identify the PRIMARY benefit of a DAR process
1. Provides Compliance to CMMI requirement
2. Demonstrates thought leadership
3. Helps justify costs
4. Provides a framework for option analysis and removes bias

26. Decision Analysis and Resolution is a MUST HAVE activity in which phase
1. All Phases
2. Transition
3. Elaboration
4. Construction

27. What is the SRC of CI for Performing Product Audit

1. PM Provides
2. Process Person provides
3. Found in Configuration Project Repository
4. Taken from Similar project

28. Identify what is NOT tracked normally as a part of Project Status Reviews
1. Work Completion
2. Risks and Issues
3. Team Score Card
4. Variation of effort and schedule

29. Identify the activity FIRST leads to the creation of Scope-Traceability Matrix
1. Handle Changes
2. Manage Requirements
3. Develop Plan
4. Perform System Analysis

30. Identify the approving authority for a PTR

1. PQA
2. Delivery Head
3. Account Owner
4. Business Quality Partner

31. When is the developer test case BEST written?

1. Before unit testing
2. Before Coding of the Unit
3. On completion of detailed design
4. As planned in the project schedule

32. The Engineering Rigor Plan document will contain

1. Findings
2. Root cause analysis
3. Plans to bridge the gaps
4. Tracking notes of progress

33. Identify what is NOT an activity of the Process Management Discipline

1. Monitor Project Audit Results
2. Deploy Process
3. Establish Process Performance Model
4. Monitor and Control SPI
34. The status "living" is assigned to a document. what does it mean?
1. Project management documents
2. Document that is changed throughout the life cycle
3. Document which is created and ready to review and enhance
4. Process documents

35. What is primary benefit of DAR (Design Analysis and Review)?

36. Suyash is new to Virtusa, where he can get the change requests
1. Change Request log,
2. Project approach plan

37. PM recognizes there is a training required for the resources….. What could have done to avoid client
dissatisfaction?
1. Training to employees before dev phase
5. Skill assessment approach during dev phase(During Inception Phase)

38. PM will get requirements and map it. What is the doc name?
1. Scope and Traceability matrix
2. BRS
3. process management

39. Defect density is high then which is not true

1. Size of project grows

CDI - Customer data integration

DSRS – Detailed Software Requirement Specification

POC – Proof Of Closure

QATP – Quality assurance test procedure

CI - Continuous Integration

Decision Analysis and Resolution (DAR) - Software Quality Assurance