SULIET PRE-TEST

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time approximately 20 minutes
(including the reading of the direction for each part)

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate you
ability to understand conversations and talk in English. There are three
parts to this section, with special directions for each part. Answer all the
questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you
hear. Do not take notes or write in your test book at any time. Do not turn
the pages until you are told to do so.

Part A

Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people.
After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation.
The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
choosen.

Listen to an example.

On the recording, you will hear:

(man) That exam was just awful.

(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) What does the women mean?

In your test book, you will read:(A) The exam was really awful.
(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C) It couldn’t have been more difficult.
(D) It wasn’t that hard.

You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very
difficult and that the women disagreed with the man. The best answer to the
question, “What does the woman mean?” is (D), “It wasn’t that hard.”
Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
Listening Comprehension

1. (A) The coffee is much better this morning.

(B) He’s feeling bitter this morning.
(C) The coffee isn’t very good.
(D) He cannot taste the butter.

2. (A) The two classes meet in an hour and a half.

(B) The class meets three hours per week.
(C) Each half of the class is an hour long.
(D) Two times a week the class meets for an hour.

3. (A) A few minutes ago, the flight departed.

(B) The fight will start in a while.
(C) They are frightened about the departure.
(D) The plane is going to take off soon.

4. (A) He hasn’t yet begun his project.

(B) He’s supposed to do his science project next week.
(C) He needs to start working on changing the due date.
(D) He’s been working steadily on his science project.

5. (A) At the post office.

(B) In a florist shop.
(C) In a restaurant.
(D) In a hospital delivery room.

6. (A) The professor drowned the cells in a lab.

(B) The topic was presented in a boring way.
(C) The professor divided the lecture into parts.
(D) The biologist tried to sell the results of the experiment.

7. (A) She needs to get a driver’s license.

(B) It is impossible to cash a check without two pieces of identification.
(C) The man should check to see if he needs credit.
(D) A credit card can be used to get a driver’s licens.
 Part B

Direction: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After
each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book
and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have choosen.

Rememer, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

8. (A) She’s a senior.

(B) She’s a junior.
(C) She’s a transfer student.
(D) She’s a graduate student.

9. (A) How to transfer to a junior college.

(B) How to find his way around campus.
(C) The course requirements for a literature major.
(D) Who won the campus election.

10. (A) Three.

(B) Five.
(C) Eight.
(D) ten.

11. (A) American literature.

(B) World literature.
(C) Literary analysis.
(D) Surveying
 Part C

Direction: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each
talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be
repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book
and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have choosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you will hear:

(narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.

(man) Artist Grant Wood was a guiding force in the school of

painting known as American regionalist, a style
reflecting the distinctive characteristic of art from rural
areas of the United States. Wood began drawing animals
on the family farm at the age of three, and when he was
thirty-eight one of his paintings received a remarkable
amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting, called
“American Ghotic.” Is a starkly simple depiction of a
serious couple staring directly out at the viewer.

Now listen to a sample question.

(narrator) What style of painting is known as American regionalist?

In your test book, you will read :

(A) Art frim America’s inner cities.
(B) Art from the central region of the U.S.
(C) Art from various uran areas in the U.S.
(D) Art from rural section of America.

The best answer to the question, “What style of painting is known as

American regionalist?” is (D), “Art from rural section of America.” Therefore,
the correct choice is (D).

Now listen to another sample question.

(narrator) What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?

 In your test book, you will read : (A) “American Regionalist.”
(B) “The Family Farm in Iowa.”
(C) “American Gothic.”
(D) “A serious Couple.”

The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most
successful painting?” is (C), “American Gothic.” Therefore, the correct choice
is (C).

Rememer, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

12.(A) To protect its members.

(B) To save the natural environtment.
(C) To honor the memory of John Muir.
(D) To improve San Francisco’s natural beauty.

13.(A) For less than a year.

(B) Only for a decade.
(C) For more than a century.
(D) For at least two centuries.

14.(A) San Francisco.

(B) All fifty states.
(C) The Sierra Nevadas.
(D) The eastern U.S.

15.(A) All over the world.

(B) In the entire United States.
(C) Only in California.
(D) Only in the Sierra Nevadas.

16.(A) Students signing up for athletic teams.

(B) Students going on a tour of a university campus.
(C) Students playing various sports.
(D) Students attending a university dedication ceremony.

17.(A) Membership on an athletic team.

(B) Enrollment in an exercise class.
(C) A valid student identification card.
(D) Permission from a faculty member.

18.(A) To the tennis courts.

 (B) To the arena.
(C) To the gymnasium.
(D) To the Athletic Departement office.

SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is

appropriate for standart written English. There are two types of question in
this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure
19.The hard palate _____ between the mouth and nasal passages.

(A) forming a partition

(B) a partition forms
(C) forms a partition
(D) a form and a partition

20._____, the outermost layer of skin, is about as thick as a sheet of

paper over most of the skin.

(A) It is the epidermis

(B) The epidermis
(C) In the epidermis
(D) The epidermis is

21.When fluid accumulates against the eardrum, a second more

insidious type of _____.

(A) otitis media may develop

(B) developing otitis media
(C) the development of otitis media
(D) to develop otitis media

22.A stock _____ at an inflated price is called a watered stock.

(A) is issued
 (B) issued
(C) it is issued
(D) which issued

23.Seismic reflection profiling has _____ the ocean floor is underlain by a

thin layer of nearly transparent sediments.

(A) reveal that

(B) revealed that
(C) the revelation of
(D) revealed about

24.The leaves of the white mulberry provide food for silkworms, _____
silk fabrics are woven.

(A) whose cocoons

(B) from cocoons
(C) whose cocoons are from
(D) from whose cocoons

25.Not only _____ generate energy, but it also produces fuel for other
fission reactors.

(A) a nuclear breeder reactor

(B) it is a nuclear breeder reactor
(C) does a nuclear breeder reactor
(D) is a nuclear breeder reactor

Written Expression

Directions: In these questions, each sentences has four underlined words

or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentences ar marked (A), (B),
(C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentences to be correct. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer you have choosen.

Look at the following example.

The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths.

A B C D
The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

26.Mosquitoes will accepts the malaria parasite at only one stage of the
A B C
parasite’s complex life cycle.
D

27.The counterparts of a negative electrons is the positive proton.

A B C D

28. Alexander Hamilton’s advocacy of a strong national government

A B
brought he Cinto bitter conflict with Thomas Jefferson.
C D

29.There are more than eighty-four million speciments in the National

A B
Museum of Natural History’s collection of biological, geological,
C
archeological, and anthropology treasures.
D

30.After George Washington merried widow Martha Custis, the couple

A B
comes to reside at Mount Vernon.
C D

31.Rubbberized asphalt can hardly be clasified as cutting edge at this stage

A B C

in their development.
D

32.Rhesus monkeys exhibit patterns of shyness similar to that in humans.

A B C D

33.In space, with no gravity for muscles to work against, the body becomes
A B C
weakly.
D
 SECTION 3
READING COMPRHENSION

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand

short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to
encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section contains
reading passages and questions about the passages.

Questions 34 – 42
The organization that today is known as the Bank of America did
start out in America, but under quite a different name. Italian American A.
P. Giannini established this bank on October 17, 1904, in a renovated
Line saloon in San Francisco’s Italian Community of North Beach under the
(5) name Bank of Italy, with immigrants and first time bank customers
comprising the majority of his first customers. During its development,
Giannini’s bank survived major crises in the form of a natural disaster and a
major economic upheaval that not all other banks were able to overcome.
One major test for Giannini’s bank occured on April 18, 1906, when a
(10) massive earthquake struck San Francisco, followed by a raging fire that
destroyed much of the city. Giannini obtained two wagons and teams of
horses, filled the wagons with the bank’s reserves, mostly in the form of
gold, covered the reserves with crates of oranges, and escaped from the
chaos of the city with his clients’ funds protected. In the aftermath of the
(15) disaster, Giannini’s bank was the first to resume operations. Unable to
install the bank in a proper office setting. Giannini’s opened up shop on the
Washington Street Wharf on a makeshift desk created from boards and
barrels.
In the period following the 1906 fire, the Bank of Italy continued to
(20) prosper and expand. By 1918 there were twenty-four branchesof the Bank
of Italy, and by 1928 Giannini had acquired numerous other banks,
including a Bank of America located in New York City. In 1930 he
consolidated all the branchesof the Bank of Italy, the Bank of America in
New York City, and another Bank of America that he had formed in
(25) California into the Bank of America National Trust and Savings Assosiation.
A second major crisis for the bank occured during the Great
Depression of the 1930’s. Although Giannini had already retired prior to the
darkest days of the depression, he became incenset when his successor
began selling off banks during the bad economie times Giannini is resumed
(30) leadership of the bank at the age of sixty two. Under Giannini’s leadership,
the bank weathered the strom of the Depression and supsequently moved
into a phase of overseas development.
34. According to the passage, Giannini

(A) Opened the Bank of America in 1904

(B) Worked in a bank in Italy
(C) Set up the bank of America prior to setting up the Bank of Italy
(D) Latter changed the name of the Bank of Italy

35. Where did Giannini open his first bank?

(A) in New York City

(B) in What used to be a bar
(C) on Washington street wharf
(D) on a makeshift desk

36.According to the passage, which of the following is not true about the San
Francisco earthquake?

(A) it happened in 1906

(B) it occurred in the aftermath of fire.
(C) it caused problems for Giannini’s bank
(D) it was a tremendous earthquake.

37.The word “raging” in line 10 could base be replaced by

(A) angered
(B) localized
(C) intense
(D) feeble

38.It can be inferred from the passage that Giannini used crates of oranges
after the earthquake

(A) to hide the gold

(B) to fill up the wagons
(C) to provide nourishment for his customers
(D) to protect the gold from the fire

39.The word “ chaos” in line 14 is clossest in meaning to

(A) legal system

(B)extreme heat
(C) over development
(D) total confusion

40.The word “consolidated” in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) hardened
(B) merged
(C) moved
 (D) sold

41.The passage states that after his retirement, Giannini

(A) began selling off banks

(B) caused economic misfortune to occur
(C) supported the bank’s new management
(D) returned to work

42.The expression “weathered the storm of” in line 32 coulde best be

replaced by

(A) found a cure for

(B) rained on the parade of
(C) survived of the ordeal of
(D) blew its stack at
 Questions 43 - 50
Thunderstroms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are
actually one of nature’s primary mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface
of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when low-lying pockets of
Line warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float
(5) upward through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets
cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is released above the
condensation line through the formation of cumulus clouds.
What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the
atmosphere. In winter, the air temperature differential between higher and lower
(10) altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass drops
more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to
remain rather stable. In summer, however, when there is a high accumulation of
heat near the earth’s surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder higher
up, the temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is much more
(15) pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the temperature drops
much more rapidly than it does in winter, when the temperature drops more than
four degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds aggregate
into a single massive cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead.
In isolation, a single thunderstroms is an impressive but fairly benign way for
(20) Mother Earth defuse trapped heat from her surface; thunderstroms, however, can
appear in concert, and the resulting show, while extremely impressive, can also
prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale collision between cold
air and warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of
thunderheads, may develop. It is common for a squall line to begin when an
(25) advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and
moist air, creating a line of thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of
approximately forty miles for hour. A squall line, which can be hundreds of miles
long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature
with incredible potential for destruction. Within the squall line, often near its
southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional
strength that serve as the source of tornadoes.
43.The topic of the passage is

(A) the development of thunderstorms and squall lines

(B) the devastating effects of tornadoes
(C) cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds
(D) the power of tornadoes

44.“Mechanisms” in line 2 are most likely

(A) machines
(B) motions
(C) methods
(D) materials

45.It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer,

(A) there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower
altitudes
(B) the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes
makes thunderstorms more likely to occur
(C) there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere
(D) the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter

46.The word “benign” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) harmless
(B) beneficial
(C) ferocious
(D) spectacular

47.The express “in concert” in line 21 could best be replaced by

(A) as a chorus
(B) with other musicians
(C) as a cluster
(D) in a performance

48.According to the passage, a “squall line” in line 27 is

(A) a lengthy cold front

(B) a serious thunderstorm
(C) a line of supercells
(D) a string of thundeheads

49.All the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells, EXCEPT
that they
 (A) are of short duration
(B) have circling winds
(C) have extraordinary power
(D) can give birth to tornadoes

50.This reading would most probably be assigned in which of the following

courses?

(A) Geology
(B) Meteorology
(C) Marine Biology
(D) Chemistry