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Aits 1920 Ot Jeem TD 09 02 2020 PDF
Aits 1920 Ot Jeem TD 09 02 2020 PDF
JEE (Main)-2020
TEST DATE: 09-02-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
• Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. A particle is projected with speed v at an angle to the horizontal. If the magnitude of instantaneous
velocity at time ‘t’ is equal to the magnitude of average velocity from t = 0 to t = t. Find the time ‘t’.
2v sin
(A)
3g
4v sin
(B)
3g
3v sin
(C)
4g
3v sin
(D)
2g
Ans. B
2. In the given figure two straight infinite conductors carry a current I. They are 2a
parallel and separated by a distance 2a. A circular conducting ring of radius
‘a’ in the plane of the parallel wires lies between the two straight conductors
and is insulated from them. The mutual inductance between the circular ring
and the straight conductors is I I
(A) 0 a
(B) 20 a
0 a
(C)
2
(D) 40 a
Ans. B
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/203
(A) 2rV
(B) 4rV
rV
(C)
2
rV
(D)
4
Ans. B
Q
Sol. V=
k40r
Q
= 4rv …(i)
k0
Q Q
I= J ds = E ds = k4 r
S S 0
2
4r 2 =
k0
= 4rv
4. A particle with charge q is travelling with a velocity v parallel to a wire with a uniform linear charge
distribution per unit length. The wire also carries a current I. What should be the velocity of the
charged particle to travel in a straight line parallel to the wire at a distance r from the wire?
(c = speed of light)
2c 2
(A)
I
c 2
(B)
2I
c 2
(C)
I
4 c 2
(D)
I
Ans. C
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 4
q q I
Sol. − 0 v=0
20r 2r
c 2
v= =
0 0I I
K
5. In an artificial medium, air pressure and volume are related as P = , where K is a constant.
V2
Considering air as an ideal gas of density , then the speed of sound in air is
2P
(A)
P
(B)
P
(C)
2
4P
(D)
Ans. A
B
Sol. Speed of sound, v =
PV2 = K
dP 2K
Bulk modulus, B = − V = = 2P
dV V 2
2P
v=
20 V
(A) 7.5 C
(B) 15 C
(C) 30 C
(D) 45 C
Ans. D
Sol. In steady state, potential difference across 6 F capacitor = 7.5 V
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Sa4 5
(A) n
2 3
Sa4 5
(B) n
3 3
Sa4 5
(C) n
4 3
Sa4 5
(D) n
5 3
Ans. B
r2 C 2a
msd − 0
− =
dt R
60 t
d
−mSR
80
( − 0 )
= dt
0
5
t = mSR n
3
4 3 a 5
t= a S n
3 4 3
Sa4 5
t= n
3 3
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8. An ancient piece of wood shows an activity of 7.8 disintegration per second, per gram of 14 C . What
is the age of piece of the wood if fresh 14 C , shows an activity of 31.2 disintegration per second per
gram? Half life of 14 C is 5570 years.
Ans. C
Sol. A = A 0 e−t
n2
− t
7.8 = 31.2e 5570
n2
−2 n2 = − t
5570
Solving, t = 11140 years
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 6 m/s
(C) 9 m/s
(D) 12 m/s
Ans. A
10. A small ball of mass ‘m’ is suspended from inextensible massless string C
of length l. At certain instant of time the velocity of point C is v 0 (in v0
leftward direction) and of ball D is 2v0 (in rightward direction). The
tension in the string at this instant of time is
D 2v0
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/207
4mv 02
(A) mg +
9mv 02
(B) mg −
mv 02
(C) mg +
9mv 02
(D) mg +
Ans. D
( )
2
m 3v 0
Sol. T − mg =
9mv 02
T = mg +
(A) 2 sec
(B) 3 sec
(C) 4 sec
(D) 5 sec
Ans. A
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 8
P0
A
O V0 2V0 V
(A) 3R
(B) 4R
9R
(C)
2
R
(D)
2
Ans. A
13. The electric field strength produced by the radiations coming from 200 W bulb at a 5 m distance is
E. The electric field strength produced by the radiations coming from 100 W bulb at the same
distance 5m is
E
(A)
2
(B) 2E
E
(C)
2
(D) 2E
Ans. C
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/209
14. A particle ‘A’ of mass ‘m’ moving with an initial velocity ‘v’ collides elastically with a particle B of
mass 2m which is initially at rest. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths A of the particles A
B
and B after collision is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 4
Ans. D
15. In YDSE of equal width slits, if the intensity at the center of the screen is I 0, then the intensity at a
distance of from the central maxima is ( is fringe width, d is separation between the slits, is
4
wavelength of light, D is separation between the plane of slits and the screen) (D>>d and d>>)
(A) I0
I0
(B)
2
I0
(C)
3
I0
(D)
4
Ans. B
D
Sol. When y = =
4 4d
y
Path difference, r = d sin = d = d = (for small ‘’)
D 4d 4
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2 2
Phase difference, = r = =
4 2
I
I = I0 cos2 = I0 cos2 = 0
2 4 2
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 4/3
(D) 5/3
Ans. D
2
Sol. A (2)g + A g = A 0 g
3 3
4
+ = 0
3 3
5
0 =
3
Specific gravity of the material of cylinder = 0/ = 5/3
17. A ring of circular cross section is made of a material of resistivity ‘’. The B = kt
inner and outer radii of ring are a and 2a respectively and its thickness
is ‘h’. The ring is placed in a time varying magnetic field B = kt (where k
is a constant) which is parallel to the axis of the ring as shown in the
figure. The induced current in the ring is a
h
2a
3kha2
(A)
4
3kha2
(B)
2
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2011
5kha2
(C)
4
5kha2
(D)
2
Ans. A
dI = a
2r
2a
kh r 2 3kha2
I= =
2 2 4
a
B D
Ans. B
1
Sol. Shift, dS = 1 − dx
t
t
dS = 1 − (t + x) dx
0 0
t
t − t n(t + x) 0 = t − t n2 = t(1 − n2)
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 12
19. In the figure shown, the friction coefficient between the block of = 0.4
mass 1 kg and the plank of mass 2 kg is 0.4 while that between 1 kg F
the plank and horizontal floor is 0.1. For what value of F will the = 0.1
2 kg
block move with double the acceleration of that of the plank?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 5N
(B) 6N
(C) 10 N
(D) 12.5 N
Ans. A
Sol. F − 4 = 2a …(i) 2a
4 − 3 = 2a …(ii)
F = 5N 1 kg F
4N
a
4N
2 kg
3N
(A) 130 k
(B) 160 k
(C) 190 k
(D) 220 k
Ans. C
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2013
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
Ans. 4
Y 1.6 10 11
4
v= = =
10 4 = 8000 m/s
2500 5 15 cm 70 cm 15 cm
Now, n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3
=15 : 70 : 15
= 1.5 : 7 : 1.5
No. of loops formed in the fundamental mode of vibration
= 1.5 + 7 + 1.5 = 10 loops
10(/2) =
= (2 )/10 = 0.2 m
v 8 103
fundamental frequency, f = = = 40 kHz
0.2
m1
m2
Ans. 1
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 14
m − m2
Sol. a= 1 g
m1 + m2
a g (m1 + m2 ) (m1 + m2 )
= + +
a g m1 − m2 m1 + m2
a 0.01 0.4 0.4
= + + = 1%
a 9.80 60 147
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. A small ball of mass 1 kg and charge 8 C is placed at the centre of a uniformly charged sphere of
1
radius 2m and charge mC . A narrow smooth groove is made in the sphere from centre to the
6
surface of sphere and the sphere is made to rotate about its vertical diameter at a constant rate of
1
revolution per second. Find the speed (in m/s) with respect to ground with which the ball slides
4
out from the groove. Ignore any magnetic force acting on the ball. (Take 2 = 1.41 )
Ans. 00002.82
1
Sol. = 2n = 2 = 0.5 rad/s
4
R
1 3 KQq KQq
mv r2 = − + m rdr
2
2 2 R R 0
1 KQq m2R2 kQq
mv r2 = + v r2 = + 2R2
2 2R 2 R
9 109 8 1
v r2 = 10−9 + 1 = 7 v r = 7 m/s
2 6
v t = R = 1 m/s
24. The eyepiece of a compound microscope has a focal length of 2.5 cm and the objective has a focal
length of 1 cm. Two lenses are separated by 26 cm. Microscope is used by a person with normal
eye (near point at 25 cm). If the minimum magnification of the microscope is 100x. Find the value
of x.
Ans. 00002.25
Sol. v + fe = 26 cm
v = 26 − 2.5 = 23.5 cm
1 1 1
− =
v u f0
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2015
v v v v 23.5
1− = = 1− = 1− = −22.5 cm
u f0 u f0 1
vD 25
Angular magnification, m = = −22.5 = −225
u fe 2.5
|m| = 225
100x = 225 x = 2.25
Ans. 00042.50
vS
v
Sol. fmax = f
v − vS
D
340
fmax = 360 Hz = 382.5 Hz observer
320
vS
v
fmin = f
v + vS
340
fmin = 360 Hz = 340.0 Hz
360
fmax − fmin = 42.50 Hz
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 16
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) The value of steric factor P (regarding Arrheneous equation) decreases as the complexity
of reacting molecules decreases.
(B) During any individual reactive collision, the total energy of the colliding particles remain
constant.
(C) During a free radical chain reaction, if chain termination is faster than chain branching and
chain propagation, explosion occurs.
Ans. B
Sol. (A) The value of steric factor decreases as the complexity of reacting molecules increases.
(C) If chain termination is slower than chain branching and chain propagation, explosion
occurs.
(D) N2 is used to remove the excess energy as O3 formed at lighter energy level can
redissociate.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans. C
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28. In which of the following M – F bond is strongest, among the given four compounds?
(M = central atom)
(A) CF4
(B) NF3
(C) BF3
(D) OF2
Ans. C
Sol. Due to highest electronegativity difference also due to bond order greater than 1 in BF3 (only).
(A)
(B)
(C)
Ans. A
30. During extraction of sodium by Down’s cell process CaCl 2 is mixed with NaCl, which lowers the
fusion temperature, the main reason(s) for lowering the fusion temperature is:
(A) It is difficult to maintain 1081 K (fusion temperature of NaCl) during electrolysis and also at
lower temperature the consumption of electricity is reduced.
(B) Both Na and Cl2 exert corrosive nature/action on the vessel used for electrolysis at such
high temperature (1081 K).
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(C) At lower/reduced fusion temperature (850 K), the sodium is obtained at iron cathode in
solid state.
Ans. D
Sol. Melting point of sodium (Na) is 371 K (approx), hence it is obtained in liquid state even at 850 K,
the temperature of operation.
31. What is the pH of a saturated aqueous solution of AgOH? [Given K SP(AgOH) = 1.5 × 10-8, log
(1.225) = 0.088; log(1.5) = 0.176];
(A) 8.176
(B) 7.824
(C) 4.088
(D) 10.088
Ans. D
(A) Kjeldahal’s method of estimation of nitrogen is not applicable to the compounds containing
nitrogen in nitro groups, azo groups and nitrogen present in the ring.
(B) In Duma’s method of estimation of nitrogen, the organic compound containing nitrogen is
heated with Cu2O in an atmosphere of CO2, to yield H 2O, CO2 and free N2 gas along with
free copper.
(C) During Carius method of estimation of halogen, a known mass of organic compound is
heated with dil. HNO3, in presence of AgNO3.
Ans. A
Sol. (B) Duma’s method, the organic compound is heated with CuO, not with Cu 2O.
(C) Fuming HNO3 is used in Carius method.
(D) N, S, X (halogen) and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by
Lassaigne’s test.
(A) H2CO3
(B) H2SO4
(C) HNO3
(D) H3PO4
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2019
Ans. D
34. Analyse the following reaction sequence and select the correct statement, following the reaction?
Cl
MeOH/NaOH → A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ (i) O3 (ii) Zn/H2O dil.OH−
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
⎯→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →C
( Major )
CH3
Ans. B
Sol.
A= B= H
; ; ; C=
O O O
(A) H D
+ HCOOH ⎯⎯
→ SN − product
Ph OTs
(B) OTs
+ CH3 COO−NH4+ ⎯⎯
→ SN − product
(C) Cl
+ CH3 COOK ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
CH COOH → SN − product
3
Ph
(D) Br
+ dil. NaOH ⎯⎯
→ SN − product
Ph Ph
Ans. B
36. In which of the following reaction, the given product is the major product of that reaction?
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 20
(A) Cl
(PhCO )
CCl4 + CH2 = CH − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 2
→ ;
CCl3
(B)
CCl3
(PhCO2 )2
CCl4 + ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ ;
Cl
(C) O O
+ h
⎯⎯⎯ →
H
(D) In all the reactions, the given products are major products.
Ans. D
37. During extraction process of Sn which of the following is the common method of reduction?
Ans. D
Sol. Carbon reduction is employed for extraction of Fe, Pb, Zn and Sn etc. generally.
38. Which of the following show geometrical isomerism as well as ionization isomerism, and possesses
spin only magnetic moment of 3.87 BM?
(A) Co(NH3)4Br2Cl
(C) Pd(NO2)2(NH3)2
(D) Co(CO)5Br(SO4)
Ans. B
Sol. Spin only magnetic moment of A, C and D are zero. ‘C’ cannot show ionization isomerism. While
‘D’ does not show geometrical isomerism.
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2021
() 2 3( )
CH3 CH2CH = CH − CH2 − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
( ii) H2 O → ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯ →?
O3 /H2 O i Br /red P
H2 O NH excess
(A)
+ −
H3 O /
(B) CH3 CH = CHCH3 ⎯⎯⎯→
O3 / Zn
⎯⎯⎯
NH4 Cl
NaCN
→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Very dil.OH
→?
3( )
CH3 CH = CHCH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯ →?
O3 /H2 O Br2 /red P NH excess
(C) H2 O
O
||
(D) CH3 C− COOH + NH3 ⎯⎯
→ ⎯⎯⎯→
H2 /Pd
?
Ans. C
H3C CH COO
Sol. By the processes defined in A, B and D, Alanine is formed.
NH3
Ans. C
(A) HCN
(B) CO2
AgCl2
−
(C)
(D) BaCl2
Ans. D
Sol. Shapes of MX2 (M = alkali earth metals) change from linear to bent from top to bottom.
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 22
Ans. C
43. Which of the following process is expected to have the largest value of equilibrium constant, at
room temperature?
Ans. A
Sol. The order of corresponding equilibrium constants is : K4 < K3 < K2 < K1.
Ans. C
45. Cl2 gas is passed into an aqueous solution of NaBr and NaI, followed by the addition of CHCl 3.
What colour of CHCl3 layer will be observed, ultimately?
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023
(A) Blue
(D) Violet
Ans. D
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. If value of equilibrium constant for the following equilibria is 10+x, then find the value of ‘x’.
2Fe3 + + 2I− 2Fe2 + + I2
o
Given: EFe3+
/Fe2+
= 0.77 V
EIo /I− = 0.53 V
2
2.303 RT
= 0.06
F
Ans. 8
47. 18 gm of glucose (C6H12O6) is treated with sufficient amount of HIO4, under requisite conditions.
How much formaldehyde (in gm) is formed?
Ans. 3
C6H12O6 ⎯⎯⎯
HIO
Sol. 4
→ 5HCOOH + HCHO;
(Glucose)
1 mole 180 gm glucose give 30 gm HCHO
Hence, 18 gm glucose give 3 gm of HCHO.
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AITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/20 24
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
48. Excess of NH4HS(s) is heated at 300 K, in a closed container and at equilibrium the partial pressure
of NH3 is found to be 1.5 atm. Some amount of NH3 is added to the reaction mixture so that at new
equilibrium, under same conditions, the partial pressure of NH3 becomes 2 atm, what is the ratio of
total pressures before adding NH3 and after addition of NH3.
Ans. 00000.96
49. Calculate the heat of formation of H2O(g) by the following data and give its numerical value only (in
kJ/mole).
H−H = 436 kJ / mole; O =O = 497 kJ / mole;
Average H−O = 492 kJ / mole
Ans. 00299.50
1
Sol. H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) ⎯⎯→ H2O ( g ) ;
2
1
Hf (H2O, g) =H−H + O =O −2 O −H
2
= - 299.50 (kJ/mole)
50. A metal (At. Mass = 65) has a fcc lattice with all the atoms at the lattice points. The edge length of
the unit cell is 300 pm. What is its density. (in gm/cm 3) (Given: NA = 6.022 × 1023)
Ans. 00015.99
ZM
Sol. Density = ;Z = 4 ( fcc )
N.a3
M = 65 gm/mole
a = 300 pm = 3 × 10-8 cm.
Hence, density = 15.99 gm/cm3.
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SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
51. (p q) (q r) is
(A) a tautology
(B) a contradiction
(D) equivalent to (p q) r
Ans. A
52. Let S = {(x, y) : x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0 & x2 + y2 – 2y = 0}, = set of circles which pass through
all point(s) in S. Then the number of elements in with unit radius that pass through all the point(s)
in S and the origin is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans. C
2 4 2
53. The number of solution(s) of the equation tan−1 x + − tan−1 − tan−1 x − = 0 is
x x x
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
Ans. C
Sol. x= 2
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a b c
54. For ABC, = = , where m, n R+. Given three statement(s):
1+ m n 2 2
m +n
2 2 (1 − m )(1 + n2 )
2
m mnbc
(I) BAC = 2 tan−1 , (II) ABC = 2 tan−1 mn and (III) area of ABC = 2 .
n m + n2
Which of the following options lists all the correct statements about ABC?
(A) I only
Ans. D
55. A statue built on a 50m high pedestal subtends 45 at two points, A1 and A2, 50m apart on the
ground. If the straight line joining A1 and A2 passes through the base of the pedestal, then what is
the height of the statue (without the pedestal) (assume that the statue and pedestal are vertical)
(A) 25 2
(B) 50
(C) 150
(D) 250
Ans. D
56. If tangents are drawn from a point P to the parabola y 2 = 4x with focus (S) such that the lengths of
the tangents are 5 and 10 , then SP is equal to
(A)
5
(1 + 2 )
2
(B) 5 2
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2 10
(C)
1+ 2
Ans. B
x2 y2
57. Let the tangents drawn to the ellipse + = 1 from the endpoints (AL and BL) of a chord (L)
4 9
passing through the point (1, 1) intersect at point CL. As L varies CL traces which of the following
curves
(A) an ellipse
(B) a parabola
(C) a circle
Ans. D
x y
Sol. + =1
4 9
58. Consider a chord to the hyperbola xy = 9 which has x-intercept 3 and y-intercept 15. The mid-point
of this chord is
15 3
(A) ,
2 2
3 15
(B) ,
2 2
(D) (12, 9)
Ans. B
y2
59. A chord of x 2 − = 1 subtending 90 at the centre of the hyperbola can have the equation
66
(A) 5x + 7y = 5 3
(B) 3x + 7y = 59
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(C) 7x + 2y = 3 6
(D) 7x + 4y = 66
Ans. D
y2 1 65
= ( x + my ) 1 −
2
Sol. x2 − 2
− − m2 = 0 2
+ m2 =
66 66 66
60. If (3a + c)(2a + 3b + 6c) < 0, then the number of roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 in interval (–5, 5) is
Ans. B
3 1
Sol.
−3
f ( x ) dx f ( x ) dx 0 , where f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
0
61. Let S be the set of points in the Argand plane satisfying |z – 3 – 4i| 5. If z1 S such that |z1 – 4 +
10 − ( z1 + z1 )
3i| |z1 – z0| z0 S, then is equal to
20 − i ( z1 − z1 )
(A) 1
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
5
1
(D)
7
Ans. D
Sol. z1 lies on line joining 3 + 4i and 4 – 3i, which also contains the point 5 – 10i. So, expression is
slope of perpendicular to this line
62. If c is directed along the internal bisector of the angle between the vectors a = 7iˆ − 4ˆj − 4kˆ and
b = −2iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ , with c = 5 6 , then c is
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(D)
5
( −5iˆ + 5ˆj + 2kˆ )
3
Ans. A
a b
Sol. c = − +
a b
63. If the area of the region bounded by the curves xy + x = 1, y2 = 12x and the x-axis is A, then
(A) A>1
(B) A < ln 2
1
(C) A2 <
2
1
(D) A>
2
Ans. D
1
3 1
1
Sol. A=
0
12x dx + − 1 dx
1
x
3
n −1
n2 i
64. lim
n→
i
i=1
4
+ n4
is equal to
(A) ln 2
1
(B) ln2
2
(C)
4
(D)
8
Ans. D
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i
n −1 1 1
1 n2 = x 1
−1 2
Sol. lim = tan x =
n→ n
i=1 1 + i
4
0
1+ x 4 2 0 8
2
n
65. If (z + 1)2n + (z – 1)2n = 0, where z is a complex number and n N, then which of the following is
always true?
(A) z=z
(B) z = z2
(C) z+z =0
(D) z2 + z 2 = 1
Ans. C
2n
z + 1
Sol. = −1
z − 1
66. Given a triangular plot of land as per the figure, the owner wants to build a fence ST such that the
plot is divided into 2 equal parts. The minimum length of fencing required is (where s is the semi-
perimeter of ABC)
C
b
a
T
S
B A
c
where a b c
(A) 2 ( s − b )( s − c )
(B) s (s − a)
(C) a (b + c )
s
(D)
2
Ans. A
1
Sol. ST2 = AS2 + AT2 – 2AS·AT·cos and AS·AT = bc
2
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1 1 1
67. If Sn = + + ..... + , then lim Sn is equal to
1 3 4 2 4 5 n n + 2 ) (n + 3 )
( n→
1
(A)
2
5
(B)
36
5
(C)
12
5
(D)
6
Ans. B
1 1
Sol. tn = +
( n + 1)( n + 2 ) ( n + 3 ) n (n + 1)(n + 2 ) (n + 3 )
; if x 0, 4
2
2
68. If A, B R such that the function f ( x ) = B tan−1 ; if x ( 4, 6 ) , is continuous in
x−4
−1 (
sin 7 − x ) + A 4 ; if x 6, 8
[0, 8], then A2 + B2 is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans. B
Sol. A = –1, B = 1
cos x x 1
f(x)
69. If f ( x ) = 2sin x x 2
2x , then lim is equal to
x →0 x
tan x x 1
(A) –2
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 2
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Ans. A
dy
70. If y = f(x) satisfies the differential equation x + y ( 2x + 1) = xex and f(0) = 0, then the number of
dx
2
solution(s) of f(x) = is equal to
x
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
Ans. C
xe3x e3x 1
Sol. xye2x = − +
3 9 9
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. 5 boys (B1, B2, B3, B4 and B5) and 5 girls (G1, G2, G3, G4 and G5) are to be seated around a round
table such that boy and girl sit alternately and Bi does not sit beside Gi i {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. If the
number of such arrangements is N, then the sum of digits of N is equal to
Ans. 6
72. A sample of 20 observations has mean of 50 and variance of 1, while a sample of 40 observations
has mean of 50 and standard deviation 2. The 2 samples are combined to give complete set of 60
observations with variance 2, then 32 is equal to
Ans. 9
20 1 + 40 22
Sol. 2 = = 3 (Because mean of both samples is the same)
60
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
1
x 3
73. Let f(x) = 27x3 + 8x2 + x + 1, then lim is equal to
x → f −1 ( 27x ) − f −1 ( x )
Ans. 00001.50
( )1
( 1
f x 3 27x f x 3 − 1 )
Sol. 1 1 for large enough x, now use Sandwich Theorem.
x3 x3
f x f − 1
3 3
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
74. A plane (P) is parallel to the line L = = . If the image of origin in P lies on the line
1 1 1
L, then the square of distance of (3, 2, 1) from P is equal to
Ans. 00004.50
3
Sol. Plane is –x + z = 1 d =
2
75. An aeroplane has 100 seats (numbered 1 to 100) and 100 passengers waiting to board each having
a ticket with a number from 1 to 100. No number is on 2 tickets or on 2 seats. The rules of boarding
are as below:
(i) Passengers board in the order of the number on their respective ticket,
(ii) The first passenger to board can sit on any seat, and
(iii) A passenger with ticket number i (i 1) boards the plane and sits on seat numbered ‘i’ if it
is empty, however if that seat is occupied he can sit on any empty seat.
If p is the probability that the 100th passenger sits in his assigned seat, then p2 + (1 – p)2 is equal
to
Ans. 00000.50
Sol. p = 0.5 as there is a bijection between the sequences where 100th passenger sits in his assigned
seat and the sequences where he doesn’t.
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