892 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics

20
Multiple Answer Type Questions
1. Thermodynamic system refers to a portion of
(a) Universe (b) Surroundings
(c) Control surface (d) None of these
2. Units of temperature, mass, time, length and energy in SI system of units are given by
(a) Celsius, kilogram, second, metre and watt
(b) Kelvin, kilogram, second, metre and joule
(c) Kelvin, gram, hour, metre and joule
(d) Kelvin, kilogram, second, centimetre, joule
3. Which of the following set has all intensive properties?
(a) Pressure, volume, energy, heat, specific volume
(b) Pressure, volume, energy, heat density
(c) Pressure, volume, temperature, density, specific volume
(d) Pressure, volume, heat, density, specific volume
4. Which of the following sets has all open systems?
(a) Window air conditioner, scooter engine, thermometer
(b) Boiler, gas turbine, compressor
(c) Pump, thermosflask, refrigerator
(d) None of these
5. Locii of the series of state change during heat addition to a gas shall be,
(a) Process (b) Path
(c) State change (d) All of the above
6. In engineering thermodynamics the macroscopic approach is followed and it may also be
called as:
(a) Statistical thermodynamics (b) Classical thermodynamics
(c) Microscopic study (d) None of these
7. Time, length, mass and temperature are:
(a) Primary dimensions (b) Secondary dimensions
(c) Both of above (d) None of these
8. Difference between the pressure of a fluid and the pressure of atmosphere is called as:
(a) Absolute pressure (b) Barometric pressure
(c) Gauge pressure (d) None of these
9. Which of the following sets has all properties as point functions?
(a) Pressure, temperature, heat
(b) Entropy, enthalpy, work
(c) Temperature, enthalpy, internal energy
(d) Heat, work, enthalpy
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 893
10. Which of the following is not property of thermodynamic system?
(a) Temperature (b) Work
(c) Pressure (d) Internal energy
11. At a given temperature and pressure all molecules of gas occupy the same volume. This is
called
(a) Charle’s law (b) Boyle’s law
(c) Avagadro’s law (d) Regnault’s law
12. At constant pressure the volume of gas is directly proportional to its temperature. This refers
to
(a) Charle’s law (b) Boyle’s law
(c) Dalton’s law (d) None of these
13. If temperature in degree Celsius is 37° then the equivalent temperature in Fahrenheit will be:
(a) 98.6 (b) 99
(c) 98.3 (d) 98
14. The characteristic gas constant R and universal gas constant R can be related through
molecular weight M as under,
(a) R = R ´ M (b) R = R ´ M
(c) R = R + M (d) R = R + M
15. ‘Work’ done upon the system and ‘heat’ added to the system shall have sign convention
as shown respectively.
(a) (–) and (–) (b) (–) and (+)
(c) (+) and (+) (d) (+) and (–)
16. In a constant volume gas thermometer the thermometric property used is
(a) length (b) volume (c) mass (d) resistance
17. A car’s tyre become hotter due to their exposure to sunlight. Considering air in tyre as
system determine sign of heat and work interactions.
(a) (+) and (+) (b) (–) and (+)
(c) (–) and (–) (d) (+) and (–)
18. Specific heats at constant pressure (Cp) and at constant volume (Cv) can be related by
(a) Cp = Cv (b) Cp < Cv
(c) Cp > Cv (d) Cp + Cv = 0
19. In reference to thermodynamic equilibrium it is required to have,
(a) Mechanical equilibrium
(b) Chemical equilibrium
(c) Thermal equilibrium
(d) Mechanical, chemical and thermal equilibrium
20. The real gas follows the modified form of gas equation involving compressibility factor Z
and may be given by:
RT
(a) P = ZR T (b) P =
Z
(c) P = RT (d) None of these
21. If ideal gas equation p = R T is used to model a real gas then modeling will becoming more
accurate when
894 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
(a) Pressure decreases, temperature decreases and molar mass decreases
(b) Pressure decreases, temperature increases and molar mass decreases
(c) Pressure increases, temperature increases and molar mass increases
(d) Pressure increases, temperature decreases and molar mass increases.
22. Compressibility factor (correction factor for real gas) is function of following properties of
real gas
(a) V and r (b) U and s
(c) P and T (d) T and U
23. In the van der Waals equation for real gas the constant b refers to
(a) Co-volume
(b) Mutual attraction amongst molecules
(c) Both
(d) None of these
24. Which of the following represent the real gas law?
(a) nRT = (P + a/v2) (v – b) (b) nRT = (P – a/v2) (v + b)
2
(c) nRT = (P – a/v ) (v + nb) (d) nRT = (P + n2×a/v2) (v – nb)
25. Gas constants for hydrogen and carbon dioxide shall be:
(a) 4.124 and 0.189 (b) 0.287 and 2.077
(c) 0.260 and 0.287 (d) 0.461 and 0.260
26. Steam point and ice point temperatures in Fahrenheit scale can be given as:
(a) 491.67 and 671.67 (b) 212 and 32
(c) 373.15 and 273.15 (d) 100 and 0
27. Triple point of water temperature in Rankine scale can be given by:
(a) 491.69 (b) 0.01 (c) 273.16 (d) 32.02
28. Solid, liquids and gases have how many values for specific heat of respective phases.
(a) 1, 1 and 1 (b) 2, 2 and 2
(c) 1, 1 and 2 (d) 0, 1 and 2
29. A polytropic process pVn = C having the value of index ‘n’ as infinity refers to
(a) Isobaric process (b) Isochoric process
(c) Isothermal process (d) None of these
30. For an ideal gas the hyperbolic process will be similar to:
(a) Isobaric process (b) Isochoric process
(c) Isothermal process (d) Isentropic process
31. As per the Zeroth law of thermodynamics if the two bodies A and B are in thermal
equilibrium with a third body C separately then the two bodies A and B shall also be in
thermal equilibrium with each other. Using this law as basis of temperature measurement of
the body A the thermometer shall be refering to
(a) Body A (b) Body B
(c) Body C (d) None of these
32. Which of the following temperature and volume relation is correct for an adiabatic process
between state 1 and 2?

(a)
T1
=
FV I 1
g -1
(b)
FT I = FV I
2 1
g -1

T2 HV K 2 HT K HV K
1 2

(c)
FT I
1
g -1
=
FV I
1
(d)
FT I = FV I
2
g -1
1
HT K
2 HV K
2 HT K
1 HV K 2
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 895
33. For a hyperbolic process between the states 1 and 2, the heat interaction can be given as,

(a) q = Cv
FG g - n IJ ´ (T2 – T1) (b) q = 0
H 1- n K
(c) q = Cp (T2 – T1) (d) q = Cv (T2 – T1) + RT1 ln
FG V IJ
2
HV K
1
34. The specific heat for polytropic process can be given as,

(a) Cn = Cv
FG g - n IJ (b) Cn = Cv
FG n - g IJ
H 1- n K H 1- n K
(c) Cn = Cv
FG 1 - n IJ (d) Cn = Cv
FG n - 1 IJ
H g -nK H g -nK
35. In case of free expansion between the states 1 and 2 following is correct, considering no
heat interaction.
(a) U1 = U2 (b) W1–2 = 0
(c) Q1–2 = 0 (d) All of these 2
36. The work interaction between two states 1 and 2, if given by W1–2 =
(a) Flow work (b) Non-flow work 1
z
P×dV refers to,

(c) Steady flow work (d) None of these

37. Enthalpy remains constant during which of the following process?
(a) Throttling process (b) Free expansion
(c) Isothermal process (d) None of these
38. Amongst the following which cannot be reversible process
(a) Isothermal (b) Throttling
(c) Adiabatic process (d) None of these
39. For a perfect gas the internal energy is the function of,
(a) Pressure only (b) Temperature only
(c) Volume only (d) None of these
40. Specific heat at constant pressure can be related to R and g as under,
gR R
(a) (b)
g -1 g -1
(c) g × R (d) None of these
41. The work done by 2m3 of air at 5N/m2 while getting expanded freely to 10 m3 shall be,
(a) 40 J (b) Zero
(c) 10 J (d) 50 J
42. For the expansion of air occurring between volume state V1 and V2 the adiabatic process
and isothermal process lines shall be as under,
(a) A : adiabatic, B : isothermal
(b) A : isothermal, B : adiabatic
(c) Any one may refer to any of process
(d) None of these
896 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics

43. Change in internal energy in a reversible process occurring in closed system will be equal
to heat transferred if process occurs at constant
(a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Enthalpy
44. Flow work between the state 1 and 2 is given by
2 2
(a) z
1
v dp (b) z
1
pdv

2 2
(c) z
1
vdp + z
1
p×dv (d) None of these

45. Steady flow energy equation when applied to boiler shall yield,
(a) Dq = h2 – h1 (b) Dq = Dw
(c) Dq = 0 (d) None of these
46. Law of energy conservation is also stated by,
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Second law of thermodynamics (d) Third law of thermodynamics
47. Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) h = u + pv (b) dq = du + dw
2
(c) Dh = z
1
Cp dT (d) All of these

48. Heat interaction in polytropic process can be given by,

(a)
FG g - n IJ × Dw (b)
FG g - n IJ × Dw
H g -1K H n -1K
(c)
FG g - n IJ × Dw (d)
FG g IJ × Dw
H n+g K H g -nK
49. If a Carnot engine rejects heat at temperature of 400 K and accepts at 750 K. What shall
be heat absorbed, if heat rejected is 1000 kJ,
(a) 946 kJ (b) 800 kJ (c) 1875 kJ (d) 750 kJ
50. A perpetual motion machine of second kind refers to a heat engine having 100% efficiency.
This heat engine will not be possible as it violates
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Second law of thermodynamics
(d) Third law of thermodynamics
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 897
51. Efficiency of Carnot engine depends upon the highest and lowest
(a) Temperatures (b) Pressures
(c) Volumes (d) None of these
52. Efficiency of Carnot engine having the limiting temperatures Tmax and Tmin, shall be minimum
when,
(a) Tmax > Tmin (b) Tmax = Tmin
(c) Tmin = 0 (d) None of these
53. Which of the following is correct in reference to first law of thermodynamics?
(a) No difference between heat and work
(b) No indication of direction of process
(c) Law of energy conservation
(d) All of these
54. Which amongst the following is not necessary requirement for a device to be heat engine?
(a) Cyclic processes
(b) Operation between high temperature source and low temperature sink
(c) Reversible processes
(d) Converting heat into work
55. A heat engine has efficiency of 60% and operates between temperatures of T1 and 300 K.
What shall be the temperature T1?
(a) 120 K (b) 750 K
(c) 120 K or 750 K (d) None of these
56. Joule’s law states that the internal energy of an ideal gas is function of only
(a) Temperature (b) Volume (c) Pressure (d) None of these
57. Coefficient of performance for heat pump may have value:
(a) Slightly more than 0 (b) Equal to 1
(c) Greater than 1 (d) All of these
58. Difference between the COP of heat pump and COP of refrigerator is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) > 1 (d) < 1
59. For reversible heat engine operating between source and sink having temperatures T1 and
T2 and heat interactions being Q1 and Q2 respectively thermodynamic temperature scale
states
Q1 T Q1 T
(a) = 1 (b) = 2
Q2 T2 Q2 T1
Q1 Q2
(c) + = 1 (d) None of these
T1 T2
60. In case of adiabatic process which of the following may not be true.
(a) Ds = 0 (b) DQ = 0
P1 V1 - P2 V2
(c) DW = (d) None of these
g -1
61. For a reversible adiabatic process the following is/are true.
(a) Ds = 0 (b) DQ = 0
P1 V1 - P2 V2
(c) DW = (d) All of these
g -1
898 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
62. Carnot cycle has following processes:
(a) Two adiabatics and two isothermal processes
(b) Two reversible adiabatics and two reversible isothermal processes
(c) Two isentropic processes and two isothermal processes
(d) None of these
63. C.O.P. of a reversible heat pump is 1.2. If it is reversed to run as reversible heat engine
then its efficiency shall be:
(a) 0.833 (b) 0.2 (c) 1.2 (d) None of these
64. For a reversible engine cycle the Clausius inequality says,

(a) zdQ
T
> 0 (b) zdQ
T
< 0

(c) zdQ
T
= 0 (d) None of these
65. For an irreversible process in isolated system the entropy change can be given as,
(a) dSisolated > 0 (b) dSisolated < 0
(c) dSisolated = 0 (d) None of these
66. For a reversible process in isolated system the entropy change can be given as,
(a) dSisolated > 0 (b) dSisolated < 0
(c) dSisolated = 0 (d) None of these
67. The entropy generated and the total entropy change for a process to be impossible shall be,
(a) Sgen or DStotal = 0 (b) Sgen or DStotal > 0
(c) Sgen or DStotal < 0 (d) None of these
68. The entropy change in polytropic process can be given by,

(a) Cv ln
F T I ×F n - g I
2
(b) Cv ln
F T I ×F n - 1 I
2
H T K H n -1K
1 H T K H n-g K
1

T
(c) Cv ln 2 (d) None of these
T1
69. Entropy change for an adiabatic process can be given by,
2
C p (T ) dT FG P IJ FG T IJ Fn I
(a) ∫
1
T
– R ln 2
HPK
1
(b) Cv ln 2
HT K
1
– R ln 2
Hn K
1

T2 T
(c) Cp ln (d) Cv ln 2
T1 T1
70. Which of the following relation(s) is/are correct?
(a) Tds = du + p×dv (b) dh = T×ds + v×dp
(c) Tds = Cp ×dT – v dp (d) All of these
71. On T-s diagram the slope of constant pressure line (mp) and the slope of constant volume
line (mv) can be related as,
(a) mp = mv (b) mv > mp
(c) mp > mv (d) mp × mv = 1
72. Exergy can not be less than zero as the maximum work interaction can not be
(a) Less than zero (b) Greater than zero
(c) Zero (d) None of these
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 899
73. Law of degradation of energy says that the unavailable energy is gradually increasing due to
(a) Increase in reversible processes
(b) Increase in irreversible processes
(c) Increase in unavailable energy
(d) None of these
74. Which of the following is/are correct? I: Irreversibility, A: Availability Wc, max: Maximum
work, T0: Dead state temperature, DSc: Combined system entropy change.
(a) I = T0 × DSc (b) Wc = A – I
(c) A = Wc, max (d) All of these
75. The efficiency of reversible and irreversible heat engine cycles can be related as,
(a) hrev = hirrev (b) hrev < hirrev
(c) hrev > hirrev (d) None of these
76. Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) Entropy is used as a convenient coordinate in thermodynamics.
(b) Entropy is used to decide whether a process is reversible, irreversible or impossible.
(c) Entropy is used to determine the heat transfer in reversible process
(d) All of these.
77. Equation DG = DH – T×DS tells us that an exothermic reaction will be associated with which
of the following:
(i) – ve DH (ii) + ve DH
(iii) More disordered, +ve Ds (iv) Spontaneous reaction
(v) More ordered – ve Ds
Possible answers
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (ii) and (v)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
78. Availability of a closed system at state 1 and dead states referred with subscript 0 is given
by
(a) (E1 – E0) + p0(V1 – V0) – T0(S1 – S0)
(b) (E1 – E2) + p0(V1 – V2) – T0(S1 – S2)
V2
(c) (h1 – h0) + g(Z1 – Z0) – T0(S1 – S0) + 1
2
(d) None of these
79. The availability of steadily flowing fluid, also called stream availability is given by; (the
current state is 1 and dead state is given by 0).
(a) (E1 – E0) + p0(V1 – V0) – T0(S1 – S0)

(b) (h1 – h2) + g(Z1 – Z2) – T0(S1 – S2) +

FGV12 - V22IJ
H 2 K
V12
(c) (h1 – h0) + g(Z1 – Z0) – T0(S1 – S0) +
2
(d) None of these
80. A characteristic function is one from which all properties of a substance can be obtained
by differentiation alone, so that no arbitrary functions requiring supplementary data for their
evaluation are required. Characteristic function is/are out of the following:
(a) f (u, v, s) = 0 (b) f (h, p, s) = 0
(c) f (g, p, t) = 0 (d) All of these
900 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
81. Which of the following is/are incorrect Maxwell equations?

(a)
¶TFG IJ= –
¶p FG IJ (b)
¶T FG IJ
=
¶vFG IJ
H K
¶v s ¶s v H K ¶p s H K ¶s H K p

(c)
FG ¶ p IJ F ¶ s IJ
= G (d) None of these
H ¶T K v
H ¶v KT
82. The equation relating the following three measurable properties is called:
(i) The slope of saturation pressure-temperature line
(ii) The latent heat
(iii) The change in volume during phase transformation
(a) Joule’s equation
(b) Clapeyron equation
(c) Maxwell relation
(d) None of these
83. Joule Thomoson coefficient has its value changing on two sides of inversion line as under,
(a) + ve to the right and – ve on the left of inversion line
(b) – ve to the right and + ve on the left of inversion line
(c) Zero on the right and zero on the left of inversion line
(d) None of these
84. Critical point pressure and temperature for water are,
(a) 22.12 MPa and 374.15°C (b) 0.23 MPa and –268°C
(c) 18.2 MPa and 899°C (d) None of these
85. On T-s diagram the state change during transformation of 0°C water to 0°C steam at
atmospheric pressure due to heat addition can be shown by
(a) Slant line (b) Vertical line
(c) Horizontal line (d) None of these
86. On T-s diagram the state change during transformation of 0°C water to 100°C water at
atmospheric pressure due to heat addition can be shown by
(a) Line with positive slope (b) Vertical line
(c) Horizontal line (d) None of these
87. Slope of constant pressure line on enthalpy-entropy diagram of steam with increasing
pressure.
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unaltered (d) None of these
88. The value of dryness fraction at critical point for water-steam phase transformation may be,
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) Either 0 or 1 (d) All of these
89. During the dryness fraction measurement using throttling calorimeter the wet state of steam
is throttled so as to lie in
(a) Superheated state (b) Wet state
(c) Subcooled state (d) None of these
90. The expression for air standard efficiency of Diesel cycle is

(a) h = 1 – g - 1
1
(b) h = 1 –
1 RS
rg -1 UV
r T a
g r g -1 r - 1 fW
(c) h = 1 – g - 1
1 RS g
a×r -1 UV (d) None of these
r a - 1 Ta f a
+ a ×g r - 1 fW
Here r, r, a are compression ratio, cut-off ratio and pressure ratio.
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 901
91. The mean effective pressure for Diesel cycle is,

(a) mep =
c
r rg -1
h a f
- 1 × p1 × a - 1
(b) mep =
a f c h
p1 × r g g × r - 1 - r 1 - g × r g - 1
ar - 1f ag - 1f ag - 1far - 1f
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
Here r, r, p1 and a are compression ratio, cut-off ratio pressure at beginning of compression
and pressure ratio.
92. Thermodynamic processes constituting a Rankine cycle are isobaric heat addition, adiabatic
expansion, isobaric heat release and ...,
(a) Adiabatic pumping (b) Isothermal pumping
(c) Polytropic pumping (d) None of these
93. Rankine cycle efficiency can be improved by
(a) Reduced heat addition in boiler (b) Increasing expansion work
(c) Reduced feed pump work (d) All of these
94. For the same compression ratio and same heat input the Otto, Diesel and Dual cycle
efficiencies can be given as,
(a) hOtto > hDual > hDiesel (b) hOtto > hDiesel > hDual
(c) hDiesel > hDual > hOtto (d) None of these
95. Carnot vapour power cycle comprises of following processes.
(a) Two reversible isothermals and two reversible adiabatic processes
(b) Two isothermals and two adiabatic processes
(c) Two isothermals and two isentropic processes
(d) Two isobarics and two adiabatic processes
96. The steam is superheated in boiler at
(a) Isothermal process (b) Isobaric process
(c) Isochoric process (d) None of these
97. Throttling process can be shown on Mollier diagram by,
(a) Vertical line (b) Horizontal line
(c) Inclined line (d) None of these
98. The heat required for vaporization of water to steam decreases with
(a) Increasing steam generation pressure
(b) Decreasing steam generation pressure
(c) Decreasing steam generation temperature
(d) None of these
99. Adding heat to wet steam causes increase in its dryness fraction while the temperature and
pressure remain constant in
(a) Subcooled region (b) Superheated region
(c) Wet region (d) None of these
100. Latent heat of vaporization of water at critical point is
(a) Zero (b) 539 kcal/kg
(c) 1 kcal/kg (d) None of these
101. The combustion analysis in which the fuel is separated into arbitrary constituents such as
moisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon and ash etc. is called as
(a) Ultimate analysis (b) Proximate analysis
(c) Stoichiometric analysis (d) None of these
902 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
102. A combustion has all the oxygen supplied with air to the reactants being used and no free
oxygen appears in products. Such air supplied is called as
(a) Stoichiometric air (b) Excess air
(c) Dry air (d) None of these
103. Composition of dry air on mass basis is
(a) 0.232 kg O2 and 0.768 kg N2 (b) 0.21 kg O2 and 0.79 kg N2
(c) 1 kg O2 and 3.31 kg N2 (d) None of these
104. Enthalpy of combustion of any fuel containing hydrogen in it and the H2O present in liquid
form in products is termed as,
(a) Higher heating valve (b) Lower heating valve
(c) Enthalpy of hydration (d) None of these
105. When the temperature of a pure substance approaches zero on Kelvin scale then the entropy
of substance approaches zero. This is stated by
(a) First law of thermodynamics (b) Second law of thermodynamics
(c) Third law of thermodynamics (d) None of these
106. The efficiency of Carnot cycle may be equal to which of the following cycle running
between same temperature limits,
(a) Rankine cycle (b) Stirling cycle
(c) Brayton cycle (d) Otto cycle
107. Which of the following is not vapour power cycle?
(a) Rankine cycle (b) Carnot vapour power cycle
(c) Otto cycle (d) None of these
108. The amount of energy added by heat transfer to the cycle to produce unit of net work output
is called
(a) Heat rate (b) Work ratio
(c) Back work ratio (d) Thermal efficiency
109. Difference between temperature of feed water outlet and saturation temperature of steam
entering the heater is called
(a) Pinch point (b) Terminal temperature difference
(c) LMTD (d) None of these
110. Deaerator is feed water heater of which type
(a) Closed type feed water heater (b) Surface type feed water heater
(c) Open type feed water heater (d) None of these
111. Effectiveness by second law of thermodynamics can be given by
Availability output h thermal
(a) (b)
Availability in h thermal, rev
Availability used
(c) (d) All of these
Availability supplied
112. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Availability follows the law of conservation
(b) Availability is function of states of matter under consideration and environment
(c) Availability always depends upon pressure
(d) Availability increases with temperature drop at low temperatures
113. For a reversible isothermal and isochoric process the Helmholtz free energy,
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant (d) Nothing can be said
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 903

114. Clausius-Clapeyron equation given by F dpI = hfg ×

FG d T IJ is valid for
H pK sat H RT K 2
sat
(a) Low pressure phase transformation of liquid-vapour type
(b) High pressure phase transformation of liquid-vapour type
(c) High pressure phase transformation of solid-vapour type
(d) None of these

115. Expression given by

RS 1 ×FG ¶ v IJ UV refers to
T v H ¶T K WP
(a) Isothermal compressibility (b) Coefficient of volume expansion
(c) Isothermal bulk modulus (d) None of these
116. Mayer’s relation is given by; (Here b and a are volume expansivity and isothermal
compressibility).
v ⋅T ⋅ β 2 v ⋅T
(a) Cp – Cv = (b) Cp – Cv =
α α
2
(c) Cp – Cv = v·T·b (d) None of these
117. Fuel-air mixture will be called lean when the equivalence ratio has its value
(a) < 1 (b) > 1 (c) 1 (d) None of these
118. Which of the following is/are type of coal?
(a) Peat (b) Lignite
(c) Bituminous coal (d) All of these
119. Natural gas has highest fraction of which of the following in it,
(a) CH4 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H6 (d) CO
120. Minimum air required per kg of fuel for complete combustion can be given by, (considering
mass fraction being C, H, O and S of respective constituent),
1 8 O 1 8 O
(a)
23 3
C+8 H- e 8
+S j (b)
21 3
C+8 H-
8
+S e j
1 O
(c)
23 e
8C + 8 H -
8
+Sj (d) None of these
121. Equipment used for carrying out volumetric analysis of dry products of combustion is
called,
(a) Bomb calorimeter (b) Orsat analyzer
(c) Gas calorimeter (d) None of these
122. Lancashire boiler has how many number of fire tubes in it?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Two (d) One
123. Cornish boiler has how many flue tubes in it?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None
124. Which of the following is/are super critical boiler?
(a) Cochran boiler (b) Locomotive boiler
(c) Benson boiler (d) Lancashire boiler
125. Which of the following is/are fire tube boiler(s)?
(a) Velox boiler (b) Nestler boiler
(c) Locomotive boilers (d) All of these
904 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
126. Water level indicator has how many vertical tubes?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
127. Fusible plug has plug made of copper and the body is made of
(a) Gun metal (b) Aluminium (c) Iron (d) Bronze
128. Feed pump in boilers may be of
(a) reciprocating pump type (b) centrifugal pump type
(c) injector type (d) All of these
129. The maximum discharge through a natural draught chimney can be given as function of m
(mass of air supplied per kg of fuel), Ta (atmospheric temperature) and Tg (hot gas
temperature).
T × 2 ( m + 1) T ×2m
(a) Tg = a (b) Tg = a
m ( m + 1)
T × ( m + 1)
(c) Tg = a (d) None of these
2m
130. The power requirement in forced draught and induced draught shall be related as,
(a) Pinduced = Pforced (b) Pinduced < Pforced
(c) Pinduced > Pforced (d) None of these
131. State which of the following is/are incorrect?
(a) Combustion is better in forced draught
(b) Fan size of induced draught is larger than forced draught fan
(c) Maintenance in F.D. fan is easy as compared to ID fan
(d) None of these
132. Steam jet draught is not of following type
(a) Natural draught (b) Induced draught
(c) Forced draught (d) Artificial draught
133. Boiler efficiency is given by the the ratio of heat used in steam generation and
(a) Heat recovered using artificial draught
(b) Heat lost due to use of natural draught
(c) Heat available due to fuel burning
(d) None of these
134. Mean temperature of heat addition gets increased and shows increase in cycle thermal
efficiency. This cycle is called,
(a) Regenerative cycle (b) Reheat cycle
(c) Carnot cycle (d) None of these
135. At a given compression ratio the Otto cycle efficiency for the working fluids having g = 1.2,
1.4 and 1.67 can be related as,
(a) hg = 1.2 > hg = 1.4 > hg = 1.67 (b) hg = 1.2 < hg = 1.4 < hg = 1.67
(c) hg = 1.2 = hg = 1.4 = hg = 1.67 (d) None of these
136. Intercooling in between the compression process of gas turbine cycle causes
(a) Reduction in expansion work (b) Increase in compression work
(c) Increase in expansion work (d) Reduction in compression work
137. Stagnation temperature can be related to the static temperature and dynamic temperature as
under
(a) Stagnation temperature = Static temperature – Dynamic temperature
(b) Stagnation temperature = Static temperature + Dynamic temperature
(c) Stagnation temperature = Dynamic temperature – Static temperature
(d) None of these
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 905
138. In case of multistage compressor inspite of constant stage efficiency the isentropic
compression efficiency goes on reducing with increasing pressure ratio due to
(a) Preheating effect
(b) Increase in temperature due to friction
(c) Friction in a stage results in more work requirement in next stage
(d) All of above
139. Modified index of compression (n) accounting for non-isentropic compression can be given
as function of compressor’s polytropic efficiency, hpoly,c as

(a)
n -1
=
FG g - 1 IJ (b)
n -1
=
FG g - 1 IJ hpoly,c
n H g ×hpoly,c K n H g K
(c)
n -1 F g ×h
= G
poly,c IJ (d) None of these
n H g -1 K
140. Modified index of expansion (n), accounting for non-isentropic expansion can be given as
function of turbine’s polytropic efficiency, hpoly,T.

(a)
n -1
=
FG g -1 IJ (b)
n -1
=
FG
h poly,T × (g - 1) IJ
n H K
g × h poly,T n H g K
(c)
n -1
= G
F h × g IJ
poy,T
(d) None of these
n H (g - 1) K
141. Which of the following cycles may have highest efficiency under ideal conditions?
(a) Ericsson cycle (b) Stirling cycle
(c) Carnot cycle (d) All of these
142. In a steam engine eccentric the ratio of ‘throw of eccentric’ and ‘radius of eccentric’ is
equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) None of these
143. Distance by which valve uncovers the steam port when piston is at dead centre is called
(a) Lead (b) Stroke
(c) Clearance (d) None of these
144. Expansion in steam engine cylinder is following type of thermodynamic process
(a) Adiabatic process (b) Isobaric process
(c) Isochoric process (d) Hyperbolic process
145. Mean effective pressure for steam engine without clearance volume can be given as function
of inlet pressure p1, back pressure pb, expansion ratio ‘r’ as under:
p (1 - ln r ) p (1 + ln r )
(a) 1 – pb (b) 1 + pb
r r
p1 (1 + ln r )
(c) – pb (d) None of these
r
146. Actual indicator diagram differs from the hypothetical indicator diagram in steam engine due to
(a) Pressure drop because of friction
(b) Non instantaneous operation of inlet and exit valves
(c) Expansion not occurring hyperbolically in actual engine
(d) All of these
906 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
147. Diagram factor in steam engines has its value
(a) Less than unity (b) Greater than unity
(c) Equal to unity (d) None of these
148. Condensation can be prevented in steam engines by
(a) Supplying superheated steam
(b) Providing steam jacket around cylinder wall
(c) Increasing speed of engine for certain output
(d) All of these
149. If all the steam states during expansion are found to be dry and saturated then the expansion
curve is called
(a) Saturation curve (b) Willan’s line
(c) Missing curve (d) None of these
150. A special kind of valve employed for cut-off governing of steam engine is called
(a) D-slide valve (b) Piston valve
(c) Meyer’s expansion valve (d) None of these
151. Compounding of steam engine offers the advantages of
(a) Possibility of increased pressure and temperature of steam at inlet
(b) Reduced thermal stresses
(c) Reduced condensation losses
(d) All of these
152. Two pistons of HP and LP cylinders are mounted in a compound steam engine with zero
phase difference. This type of engine is called
(a) Tandem compound engine (b) Woolf compound engine
(c) Receiver compound engine (d) None of these
153. The mean effective pressure of HP referred to LP cylinder can be given by
mep HP ´ D VLP mepHP ´ D VHP
(a) (b)
D VHP D VLP
mep LP ´ D VHP
(c) (d) None of these
D VLP
154. For equal power developed in each cylinder of compound steam engine having LP and HP
cylinders it can be said that
(a) mepLP = mepHP referred to LP (b) mepLP ´ mepHP = 1
(c) mepLP ´ DVHP = mepHP ´ DVLP (d) None of these
155. The variation of cross-sectional area (A), velocity of gas flowing (C), and Mach number (M)
during flow through a variable cross section area duct can be related as,
dA dC dA dC
(a)
A
=
C
b
1 - M2 g (b)
A
=
C
bM2 - 1 g
dC dA
(c) = (M2 – 1) (d) None of these
C A
156. For a subsonic flow the increase in velocity from inlet to exit may be obtained from a duct
of,
(a) Diverging cross-sectional area type
(b) Diverging-converging cross-sectional area type
(c) Converging cross sectional area type
(d) None of these
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 907
157. For supersonic flow the increase in velocity from inlet to exit may be obtained from a duct
of,
(a) Diverging cross-sectional area type
(b) Converging-diverging cross-sectional area type
(c) Converging cross-sectional area type
(d) None of these
158. The critical pressure ratio for maximum discharge through nozzle can be given as,
n n

(a)
FG 1 IJ n -1
(b) F n + 1I n -1
H n + 1K H 2 K
n -1 n

(c)
FG 2 IJ n
(d)
FG 2 IJ n -1

H n + 1K H n + 1K
159. The critical pressure ratio for air flowing through nozzle shall be,
(a) 0.528 (b) 0.545 (c) 0.577 (d) none of these
160. The maximum discharge per unit area at throat for critical conditions for perfect gas flowing
through nozzle can be given by,
g -1 g +1

(a)
p
g× 1
FG 2 IJ g +1
(b)
g × p1 FG 2 IJ g -1

v1 H g + 1K v1 H g + 1K
g +1

(c) g × p1 v1
FG 2 IJ g -1
(d) None of these
H g + 1K
161. When the back pressure of nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle
then the nozzle is called,
(a) Inder-expanding nozzle (b) Over-expanding nozzle
(c) Designed operation nozzle (d) None of these
162. When the back pressure of a nozzle is equal to critical pressure then such operating state
of nozzle is called,
(a) Under-expanding nozzle (b) Over-expanding nozzle
(c) Choked operation of nozzle (d) None of these
163. If the velocity at inlet to nozzle is C1 and the velocity at exit of nozzle during isentropic
expansion and non isentropic expansion are C2 and C 2¢ respectively, then the nozzle
efficiency shall be;
C22 - C12 C22' C12 - C22' C22¢ - C12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
C22' - C12 C22 C22 - C12 C22 - C12
164. Phenomenon of supersaturation, when occurring in nozzle causes,
(a) Increase in discharge (b) Reduced velocity at exit
(c) Increase in dryness fraction and entropy (d) All of these
165. The ratio of saturation pressure corresponding to the temperatures of steam states in stable
equilibrium and metastable equilibrium during steam flow through nozzle is called
(a) Degree of supersaturation (b) Degree of undercooling
(c) Critical pressure ratio (d) None of these
908 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
166. The difference between the saturation temperature corresponding to the steam states in
stable equilibrium and metastable equilibrium during steam flow through nozzle is called
(a) Degree of supersaturation (b) Degree of undercooling
(c) Critical temperature difference (d) None of these
167. In a steam turbine the substantial static pressure drop occurs in stationary nozzle and rotor
blade passage, the type of turbine may be
(a) Impulse turbine (b) Reaction turbine
(c) Branca’s turbine (d) None of these
168. In a steam turbine if the leakage along the mating surface of shaft and casing is reduced
by using the principle of steam throttling then the type of sealing arrangement may be
(a) Carbon rings (b) Packings
(c) Labyrinth glands (d) None of these
169. Radial flow turbines are also called as
(a) Rateau turbine (b) Ljungstrom turbine
(c) Curtis turbine (d) None of these
170. A steam turbine rejects steam at a pressure much above the atmospheric pressure and this
steam is being used for some purposes such as heating etc. This could be:
(a) Back pressure turbine (b) Passout turbine
(c) Mixed pressure turbine (d) None of these
171. Which of the following is not a part of impulse steam turbine?
(a) Nozzle (b) Symmetrical moving blades ring
(c) Aerofoil type blades (d) None of these
172. A steam turbine stage has nozzle followed by moving blade ring followed by fixed blade ring
and lastly moving blade ring. This could be
(a) Rateau turbine
(b) Curtis turbine
(c) Pressure compounded impulse turbine
(d) None of these
173. The ratio of blade velocity to steam velocity remains constant in which type of compounding
of impulse steam turbines
(a) Pressure compounding (b) Velocity compounding
(c) Pressure-Velocity compounding (d) None of these
174. The efficiency of a compound impulse turbine goes on decreasing with increase in the
number of stages. This could be,
(a) Pressure compounding (b) Velocity compounding
(c) Pressure-Velocity compounding (d) None of these
175. In case of an impulse turbine the blade velocity coefficient shall have its value for actual case
as,
(a) < 1 (b) > 1 (c) = 1 (d) None of these
176. The component of velocity which is responsible for maintaining the flow of steam across
the moving blade row is called,
(a) Relative velocity (b) Absolute velocity
(c) Tangential component of velocity (d) Axial component of velocity
177. In an impulse turbine the absolute angle at inlet should be selected depending upon
(a) Thrust requirement (b) Maintaining flow across the blade row
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 909
178. The ratio of work done to the energy supplied to rotor in a turbine stage is called,
(a) Blading efficiency (b) Stage efficiency
(c) Nozzle efficiency (d) None of these
179. The ratio of rate of work done and energy supplied to the stage in a turbine is called
(a) Blading efficiency (b) Stage efficiency
(c) Nozzle efficiency (d) None of these
180. Stage efficiency, nozzle efficiency and diagram efficiency can be related as,
h diagram
(a) hstage = (b) hstage = hdiagram ´ hnozzle
h nozzle
(c) hnozzle = hstage ´ hdiagram (d) None of these
181. The diagram efficiency is highest for a simple impulse turbine stage having smooth and
symmetrical blade when blade—steam speed ratio can be given as,
cosa 1 cosa 1
(a) cos a1 (b) (c) (d) none of these
4 2
182. Steam turbines having the complete nozzle coverage of blades are called,
(a) Full admission turbine (b) Partial admission turbine
(c) Reaction turbines (d) None of these
183. The optimum value of blade to steam speed ratio can be generalised for ‘n’ number of
moving blade rows in impulse turbine as,
cosa 1 cosa 1
(a) n
(b) (c) cos a1 (d) None of these
2 2×n
184. If the degree of reaction is 0.75 then the enthalpy changes occurring in rotor and stator
blades in a stage can be related as,
1
(a) Dhstator = × Dhrotor (b) 3 × Dhstator = 4×Dhrotor
3
1
(c) Dhrotor = × Dhstator (d) None of these
3
185. Which of the following may be reaction turbine?
(a) Curtis turbine (b) Rateau turbine
(c) Parson’s turbine (d) None of these
186. Reheat factor for steam turbine stages has its value,
(a) > 1 (b) < 1 (c) = 1 (d) None of these
187. The ratio of sum of actual output of stages and the available energy in turbine is called
(a) Reheat factor (b) Stage efficiency
(c) Internal efficiency (d) None of these
188. Use of condenser in a steam power plant offers advantages such as
(a) It permits the recirculation of condensate
(b) It allows for lower back pressure
(c) It increases the turbine output
(d) All of these
189. Condenser generally operates at
(a) Sub-atmospheric pressure (b) Atmospheric pressure
(c) Above atmospheric pressure (d) None of these
910 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
190. Which of the following can not be achieved by using condenser?
(a) Removal of air and other non-condensable dissolved gases
(b) Reduced load on water treatment plant
(c) Availability of hotter feed water
(d) None of these
191. The condenser in which there is direct contact between the steam and cooling fluid could
be
(a) Surface condenser (b) Jet condenser
(c) Evaporative condenser (d) None of these
192. A condenser is placed at low level such that the vacuum inside condenser draws cooling
water into condenser from river. Such condenser may be
(a) Low level jet condenser (b) High level jet condenser
(c) Surface condenser (d) None of these
193. A condenser is placed at a height more than that of water and water is to be injected into
condenser using a pump and condensate flows out of condenser due to gravity. This
condenser may be,
(a) Low level jet condenser (b) High level condenser
(c) Surface condenser (d) None of these
194. Ejector condenser does not require air pump because of
(a) No air present
(b) Air entraining effect of water jet itself
(c) Air being separated and released separately
(d) None of these
195. In ejector condenser in the event of failure of cooling water supply water may be sucked
from hot well to go into steam pipe. But this is prevented due to
(a) Non return valve in steam line (b) High pressure
(c) Low pressure (d) None of these
196. While designing the condenser it is desired to have,
(a) Maximum heat transfer between two fluids
(b) Effective air extraction
(c) No air leakage
(d) All of these
197. A surface condenser should preferably have,
(a) Uniform distribution of steam over cooling water tubes
(b) Minimum pressure loss of steam
(c) Minimum number of tubes
(d) All of these
198. Leakage of air into condenser causes,
(a) Reduction in work done per kg of steam due to increase in back pressure
(b) Increased heat exchange between water and steam
(c) Increased efficiency of auxiliary devices
(d) None of these
199. Air leakage into condenser could be identified by
(a) Drop in thermometer reading, after isolation of condenser from plant
(b) Soap bubble test
(c) Peppermint oil test (d) All of above
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 911
200. Vacuum efficiency of condenser can be given by,
Theoretical vacuum Actual vacuum
(a) (b) Theoretical vacuum
Actual vacuum
Condenser pressure
(c) (d) None of these
Ideal condenser pressure
201. Condenser efficiency is given by,
Actual cooling water temperature rise
(a)
Maximum possible temperature rise
Actual vacuum
(b)
Theoretical vacuum
Actual cooling water required
(c)
Minimum cooling water requirement
(d) none of these
202. Effectiveness of cooling tower diminishes due to,
(a) Humid weather conditions (b) Drift losses
(c) Poor atomization of hot water (d) All of these
203. The performance of cooling tower depends upon,
(a) Duration of contact between water and air
(b) Area of contact between water and air
(c) Relative velocity of air and water flow
(d) All of these
204. For delivery pressure more than 85 bar the number of stages desired in compressor may
be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
205. The compression work requirement is minimum in case of the compression following
process of,
(a) Adiabatic type (b) Isochoric type
(c) Isothermal type (d) Hyperbolic type
206. The ratio of volume of free air sucked into cylinder and the swept volume of LP cylinder
is called,
(a) Volumetric efficiency (b) Diagram factor
(c) Compression efficiency (d) None of these
207. Volumetric efficiency referred to free air conditions in case of reciprocating air compressor
can be given by,

(a)
FG P × T IJ |RS1 + C - C FG P IJ
1 a 2
1/ n
|UV (b)
F P × T I RS1 + C - C F P I UV
a 1 2
1/ n

H P ×T K |T
a 1 HPK
1 |W H P ×T K T
1 a HPK W
1

FG P × T IJ R|S1 - C + C FG P IJ
1 a 2
1/ n
U|
V|
(c) H P × T K |T
a 1 HPK
1 W (d) None of these

208. What will happen to the volumetric efficiency with increasing pressure ratio in case of single
stage compression in compressors?
(a) Decrease (b) Increase
(c) Remains unaffected (d) None of these
912 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
209. In order to get the same free air delivery from a compressor how should the size of cylinder
be changed with increasing pressure ratio?
(a) Increased (b) Reduced (c) No change (d) None of these
210. For the multistage compression with perfect intercooling the work requirement shall be
minimum when,
(a) Pressure ratio in each stage are equal
(b) Pressure ratio in first stage is greater than second stage
(c) Pressure ratio in second stage is double of pressure ratio in first stage
(d) None of these
211. Which of the following is not a positive displacement type compressor?
(a) Roots blower (b) Screw type compressor
(c) Vane type compressor (d) None of these
212. In vane type compressor the contribution of reversible pressure rise and irrversible pressure
rise is generally in the proportion of
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 1 (d) None of these
213. Slip factor for a centrifugal compressor may be given by the ratio of
(a) Actual whirl velocity and ideal whirl velocity
(b) Actual tangential velocity and ideal absolute velocity
(c) Relative velocity and absolute velocity
(d) None of these
214. For the centrifugal compressor having radial flow blades the stagnation pressure may be
given by
g g -1

(a)
LM1 + C T
p 01 OP ( g - 1)
(b)
LM1 + C T OP
p 01 g

N U 2
2 Q g
N U Q 2
2

(c)
LM1 + U 2
2 OP ( g - 1)
(d) None of these
N CTp 01 Q
215. The index of compression value in case of air compression process of cooled type in
centrifugal compressor may
(a) Be equal to adiabatic index (b) Be even less than adiabatic index
(c) Be more than from adiabatic index (d) None of these
216. What shall happen to surging if the number of diffuser vanes is increased in a centrifugal
compressor?
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged (d) None of these
217. In order to prevent surging due to flow reversal the number of diffuser vanes (nd) and the
number of impeller blades (ni) shall be as under in case of centrifugal compressor,
(a) nd = ni (b) ni < nd (c) ni > nd (d) None of these
218. Which of the following occurs due to stalling?
(a) Reduced stage efficiency (b) Increased vibrations
(c) Reduced delivery pressure (d) All of these
219. Which of the following refers to centrifugal compressor characteristics?
(a) For a given pressure ratio the increase in speed shows increase in flow rate and
simultaneous reduction in efficiency.
(b) For a particular speed of compressor the decrease in mass flow rate is accompanied
by increase in pressure ratio.
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 913
(c) At all speeds the compressor operation is limited by surging and choking at the two
ends.
(d) All of these
220. Which of the following refers to axial flow compressor characteristics?
(a) Flow rate changes too much with increase in pressure ratio at design conditions
(b) Efficiency decreases with decreasing flow rate
(c) Efficiency increases with decreasing pressure ratio
(d) All of these
221. Isentropic efficiencies for the centrifugal compressor and the axial flow compressor can be
related as,
(a) hisen, cent = hisen, axial (b) hisen, cent > hisen, axial
(c) hisen, cent < hisen, axial (d) None of these
222. Starting torque requirements of centrifugal compressor and axial flow compressor can be
related as,
(a) Tcentrifugal > Taxial (b) Tcentrifugal < Taxial
(c) Tcentrifugal = Taxial (d) None of these
223. Morse test is used for measurement of,
(a) Torque (b) Specific fuel consumption
(c) Brake power (d) Friction power
224. Which of the following are phases of combustion in CI engine?
(a) Ignition delay (b) Uncontrolled combustion
(c) Controlled combustion (d) All of these
225. One ton of refrigeration is equivalent to
(a) 3.87 kJ/s (b) 3 kJ/s
(c) 56 kcal/min (d) None of these
226. For a definite low temperature to be maintained, the COP of refrigerator can be related for
cold and hot days as,
(a) COPhot days > COPcold days (b) COPhot days < COPcold days
(c) COPhot days = COPcold days (d) None of these
227. Bell-Coleman cycle based refrigeration system has
(a) Isobaric heat addition (b) Isothermal heat release
(c) Isochoric heat addition (d) Isothermal heat addition
228. COP of Bell-Coleman cycle and reversed Carnot cycle can be related as
(a) COPBell-Coleman > COPCarnot (b) COPBell-Coleman < COPCarnot
(c) COPBell-Coleman = COPCarnot (d) None of these
229. For the compression of refrigerant beginning with wet state of refrigerant in compressor,
the compression process is called,
(a) Dry compression (b) Wet compression
(c) Adiabatic compression (d) None of these
230. Throttling of certain gases may be used for getting the refrigeration. The value of Joule-
Thomson coefficient for such throttling processes shall be,
(a) m = 1 (b) m < 0 (c) m > 0 (d) m = 0
231. Energy performance ratio (EPR) and Coefficient of performance (COP) can be related by,
(a) EPR = COP + 1 (b) EPR + COP = 1
(c) EPR = COP (d) None of these
914 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
232. The absorption refrigeration cycle employs following devices for raising pressure of
refrigerant,
(a) Compressor (b) Pump (c) Generator (d) Absorber
233. The coolant used in ammonia-LiBr, water absorption refrigeration system is
(a) Ammonia only (b) Water only
(c) Ammonia-LiBr (d) Ammonia-water
234. In ammonia-water absorption system the separation of ammonia from strong aqua-ammonia
solution requires,
(a) Heat addition to it (b) Heat extraction from it
(c) No energy interaction (d) None of these
235. Absorber used in ammonia-water absorption system should be kept at low temperature
because it,
(a) Helps in generating high pressure ammonia
(b) Facilitates better mixing of ammonia into water
(c) Drives out ammonia quickly
(d) None of these
236. The low pressure ammonia leaving expansion valve in ammonia-water absorption system is
(a) Pure vapour (b) Pure liquid
(c) Liquid-vapour mixture (d) Pure liquid or liquid-vapour mixture
237. Device used in absorption system for preventing the moisture accompanying refrigerant
from entering into the circuit of absorption cycle is called,
(a) Rectifier (b) Evaporator (c) Generator (d) Absorber
238. Which of the following are secondary refrigerants?
(a) Brine (b) Water
(c) Anti-freeze agents (d) All of these
239. For increasing the refrigerating capacity the refrigerant should have small value of specific
heat in liquid form and its specific heat value in vapour form should be,
(a) Small (b) Large
(c) Nothing can be said (d) None of these
240. Which of the following is/are desired properties of refrigerants?
(a) High viscosity (b) Low thermal conductivity
(c) Large specific volume (d) None of these
241. Humidity ratio can be given in terms of partial pressures of dry air (pa) and water vapour
(pv) as,

(a) 0.622
FG p IJ
a
(b) 0.622
FG p IJ
v
Hp Kv Hp K
a
F p IJ
(c) 0.622 G v
(d) None of these
Hp -p K
v a
242. Wet bulb depression in case of saturated air shall be,
w bt
(a) 0 (b) (c) wbt (d) dbt
d bt
243. The saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure of water vapour present in
moist air can be given as,
(a) Dry bulb temperature (b) Wet bulb temperature
(c) Dew point temperature (d) None of these
Multiple Answer Type Questions __________________________________________________ 915
244. If air is passed over the cooling coils then this process is termed as
(a) Sensible cooling (b) Cooling with humidification
(c) Cooling with dehumidification (d) None of these
245. If in a process the humidity ratio and dry bulb temperature increase then the process may
be,
(a) Sensible heating (b) Dehumidification
(c) Humidification (d) None of these
246. What processes could be there in summer air conditioning?
(a) Cooling (b) Humidification
(c) Dehumidification (d) All of these
247. The generally used comfort conditions required in air conditioned space in India are
(a) 30°C DBT and 60% relative humidity
(b) 15°C DBT and 50% relative humidity
(c) 25°C DBT and 60% relative humidity
(d) 25°C DBT and 50% relative humidity
248. Which of the following is demerit with vapour compression system over air refrigeration
system
(a) Large initial investment (b) Small refrigerant requirement
(c) Smaller operating cost (d) All of these
249. Which of the following is advantage with vapour absorption system over the vapour
compression system?
(a) No moving component (b) Less work input requirement
(c) Utilization of waste energy (d) All of these
250. Which of the following gives demerit with vapour absorption system over vapour
compression system?
(a) Large size (b) Requirement of heating source
(c) Poor COP at high loads (d) All of these

ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (d) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (c) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (c)
55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c)
67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (d) 71. (b) 72. (a)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (a)
79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (a)
85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (b)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (a) 101. (b) 102. (a)
916 ________________________________________________________ Applied Thermodynamics
103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (a)
109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (d) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (a)
115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (b) 122. (c) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (b)
127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (c) 131. (d) 132. (a)
133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (b) 136. (d) 137. (b) 138. (d)
139. (a) 140. (b) 141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (d)
145. (c) 146. (d) 147. (a) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (c)
157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (a) 160. (b) 161. (a) 162. (c)
163. (d) 164. (d) 165. (a) 166. (b) 167. (b) 168. (c)
169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (c) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (b)
175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (a)
187. (c) 188. (d) 189. (a) 190. (d) 191. (b) 192. (a)
193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (a) 196. (d) 197. (d) 198. (a)
199. (d) 200. (b) 201. (a) 202. (d) 203. (d) 204. (d)
205. (c) 206. (a) 207. (a) 208. (a) 209. (a) 210. (a)
211. (d) 212. (c) 213. (a) 214. (c) 215. (b) 216. (a)
217. (c) 218. (d) 219. (d) 220. (b) 221. (c) 222. (b)
223. (d) 224. (d) 225. (a) 226. (b) 227. (a) 228. (b)
229. (b) 230. (c) 231. (a) 232. (b) 233. (b) 234. (a)
235. (b) 236. (d) 237. (a) 238. (d) 239. (b) 240. (d)
241. (b) 242. (a) 243. (c) 244. (a) 245. (c) 246. (d)
247. (c) 248. (a) 249. (d) 250. (d)