1.

True or False: The right side of the heart is responsible for

pulmonary circulation.
Your Answer: False
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: TRUE
2. True or False: Any bradycardia less than 60 beats per minute is a
pathologic event.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
3. True or False: It is recommended to interrupt CPR when obtaining
IV access for an individual in asystole.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
4. True or False: Symptomatic bradycardia and poor perfusion may
degrade into cardiac arrest.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
5. True or False: Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the
management of acute strokes.
Your Answer: True
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: FALSE
6. True or False: There is never a pulse associated with VF;
therefore, you should follow the PEA algorithm with individuals in
VF.
Your Answer: True
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: FALSE
7. True or False: If the individual has no pulse and the rhythm is
NOT shockable, always insert an advanced airway before starting
CPR.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
8. True or False: Transcutaneous pacing is recommended for
asystolic individuals who fail to respond to pharmacological
interventions.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
9. True or False: If atropine is unsuccessful in treating bradycardia,
it is doubtful that the individual will respond to any other
interventions.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
10. True or False: Transcutaneous pacing should be used on a
bradycardic individual with insufficient perfusion before any other
intervention.
Your Answer: True
 INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: FALSE
11. True or False: If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other
options to consider.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
12. What does the BLS Survey want you to assess which of the
following?
o  Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get an AED, Circulation,
Defibrillation
o  Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
o  Responsiveness, Breathing, Cardiac Assessment, Drugs
o  Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
CORRECT
13. For an individiual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often
should they be ventilated?
o  Give one breath every 8 to 9 seconds, or 6 to 8 breaths per minute.
o  Give one breath every 3 to 4 seconds, or 15 to 20 breaths per
minute.
o  Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per
minute.
o  Give two breaths every 8 to 9 seconds, or 13 to 15 breaths per
minute.
CORRECT
14. Which of the following basic airway adjuncts can be used in a
conscious or semiconscious indivudual (with an intact cough and
gag reflex)?
o  Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
o  Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
o  Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
o  Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
CORRECT
15. The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to
placement of an advanced airway is:
o  30:02:00
o  15:02
o  30:01:00
o  20:01
CORRECT
16. What is the purpose of defibrillation?
o  To treat symptomatic bradycardia.
o  To stun the heart and allow its normal pacemaker to resume
electrical activity.
o  To restart the heart.
o  To provide electrically stimulated contraction of the heart.
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: TO STUN THE HEART AND
ALLOW ITS NORMAL PACEMAKER TO RESUME ELECTRICAL
ACTIVITY.
17. What reason is NOT valid during the critical early defibrillation for
individuals experiencing sudden cardiac arrest?
o  A common initial rhythm in out-of-hospital witnessed sudden
cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation (VF).
o  The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation (VF) is
electrical defibrillation.
o  Individuals in asystole respond well to early defibrillation.
o  The probability of successful defibrillation decreases quickly over
time.
CORRECT
18. The proper steps for operating an AED are:
o  Power on the AED, attach electrode pads, shock the individual,
and analyze the rhythm.
o  Power on the AED, attach electrode pads, analyze the rhythm, and
shock the individual.
o  Power on the AED, analyze the rhythm, attach electrode pads, and
shock the individual.
o  Power on the AED, shock the individual, attach electrode pads,
and analyze the
CORRECT
19. True statements about AED use in special situations include all of
the following EXCEPT:
o  Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode
pads directly over the patch.
o  Do not place the AED electrode pads directly over an implanted
defibrillator or pacemaker.
o  Extra care in placing electrode pads may be needed in individuals
with a hairy chest.
o  Do not use an AED in water.
 INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: LEAVE MEDICATION PATCHES IN
PLACE AND PLACE THE AED ELECTRODE PADS DIRECTLY OVER
THE PATCH.
20. For persistent VF/pulseless VT, vasopressors that may be given
during CPR include:
o  Amiodarone and diltiazem
o  Magnesium and potassium
o  Epinephrine
o  Epinephrine and dopamine
CORRECT
21. The order of priority for routes of access for drugs is:
o  IO route, IV route, ET route
o  ET route, IV route, IO route
o  IV route, IO route, ET route
o  IO route, ET route, IV route
CORRECT
22. Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT:
o  Hypothermia
o  Hyperkalemia
o  Hypoxia
o  Hyperventilation
CORRECT
23. The two most common and easily reversible causes of PEA are:
o  Hypoglycemia and cardiac tamponade
o  Hypovolemia and hypoxia
o  Acidosis and hypokalemia
o  Toxins and trauma
CORRECT
24. Early access to medical care, from EMS through reperfusion,
improves overall outcomes by:
o  Delaying onset of hypothermia
o  Increased access to social support services
o  Faster access to medications that increase blood clotting
o  Saving more heart tissue from cell death
CORRECT
25. Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than:
 o  120 beats per minute
o  100 beats per minute
o  90 beats per minute
o  150 beats per minute
CORRECT
26. Signs of unstable tachycardia may include all of the following
EXCEPT:
o  Abdominal tenderness
o  Hypotension
o  Ischemic chest discomfort
o  Acute heart failure
CORRECT
27. What is the first step in the treatment of persistent tachycardia
(heart rate > 150 bpm) causing hypotension, altered mental status,
and signs of shock?
o  Obtain a 12-lead ECG
o  Administer a calcium channel blocker
o  Defibrillation
o  Synchronized cardioversion
CORRECT
28. All of the following are found within the 8 D’s of Stroke Care
EXCEPT:
o  Decision
o  Detection
o  Debilitation
o  Delivery
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: DEBILITATION
29. Where is the start of the mechanical movement of the heart
generally thought to begin?
o  Right ventricle
o  Left ventricle
o  Left atrium
o  Right atrium
CORRECT
30. What does the PR interval on an ECG reflect?
o  Time between atrial and ventricular contraction
 o  Width of septum
o  T wave inversion
o  Opening of mitral valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
CORRECT
31. Which wave represents repolarization of the ventricles?
o  T wave
o  PR interval
o  P wave
o  QRS complex
CORRECT
32. You are alone when you encounter an individual in cardiac arrest.
They are not breathing, have no pulse, and have no suspected
cervical spine trauma. Which maneuver should you use to open
the airway?
o  Jaw-thrust maneuver
o  Blind finger-sweeps
o  Head-tilt only
o  Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver
CORRECT
33. The BLS Survey changed in the 2010 AHA update. Which of the
following describes this change?
o  Start with chest compressions instead of two rescue breaths.
o  Survey is no longer represented by the mnemonic ABCD; instead,
it is represented by the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4.
o  Chest compressions should be continued while preparing the AED
to minimize breaks.
o  All of the above
CORRECT
34. This is an example of which type of heart rhythm?

sal-42-acls
o  Ventricular fibrillation
o  Atrial flutter
o  Pulseless electrical activity
o  Atrial fibrillation
 CORRECT
35. Defibrillators have two different designs for delivering energy.
What are they?
o  A. Monophasic
o  B. Bicameral
o  C. Biphasic
o  D. Both A and C
CORRECT
36. During the post-cardiac arrest phase, which of the following
medications can be used to treat hypotension?
o  Dopamine
o  Epinephrine
o  Norepinephrine
o  All of the above
CORRECT
37. Treatment of PEA should include the following EXCEPT:
o  Epinephrine
o  Defibrillation
o  Identify and reverse etiologies of the arrest
o  Effective CPR
CORRECT
38. According to the 2015 AHA Guidelines, stopping chest
compressions for any reason, such as pulse checks, should be
limited to less than:
o  10 seconds
o  30 seconds
o  3 seconds
o  60 seconds
CORRECT
39. Which of the following can be a result of prolonged asystole?
o  Severe brain damage
o  Lack of oxygen to vital organs
o  Severe myocardial ischemia
o  All of the above
CORRECT
40. The following drugs and/or interventions may be used in the ACS
individual for cardiac reperfusion:
o  A. Fibrinolytic therapy
o  B. Atropine
o  C. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
o  D. Both A and C
CORRECT
41. In a bradycardic individual who is symptomatic and does not
respond to atropine, the next treatment to consider is:
o  Analgesics
o  Sedatives
o  Amiodarone
o  Transcutaneous pacing
CORRECT
42. Tachycardia may reduce coronary perfusion and cause a
myocardial infarction, which is also known as a(n):
o  Irregular ventricular rhythm
o  Stenosis of the heart
o  Stroke
o  Heart attack
CORRECT
43. Where does sinus tachycardia originate?
o  Atrioventricular node
o  Sinoatrial node
o  Septum wall
o  Purkinje system
CORRECT
44. For appropriate treatment, it is vital to discern if the QRS wave is
___________in a tachycardic individual.
o  Right or left
o  Wide or narrow
o  Positive or negative
o  Present or absent
CORRECT
45. After arrival of an acute stroke individual in the ED, in what time
frame should an assessment and an order for a CT scan be
completed?
 o  10 minutes
o  30 minutes
o  90 minutes
o  60 minutes
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: 10 MINUTES
46. Upon assessment, the individiual is confused and complains of a
headache and the left side of his body being numb. What do you
suspect is the most likely diagnosis?
o  Sepsis
o  Acute coronary syndrome
o  Unstable tachycardia
o  Acute stroke
CORRECT
47. Which of the following is correct regarding individuals with acute
stroke?
o  Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by the rupture of a blood vessel.
o  Ischemic stroke is caused by the occlusion of an artery.
o  Time between symptoms onset and time of arrival at an ED are
critical to individual's survival.
o  All of the above
CORRECT
48. Which of the following is the primary treatment in management of
ventricular fibrillation?
o  Carotid massage
o  Defibrillation
o  Sedatives
o  All of the above
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: DEFIBRILLATION
49. All of the following are goals of resuscitation EXCEPT:
o  Decrease glucose level.
o  Obtain normal sinus rhythm.
o  Maintain blood pressure.
o  Adequate perfusion.
CORRECT
50. Within what time period of arrival to the ED is percutaneous
coronary intervention (PCI) recommended for STEMI individuals?
 o  10 minutes
o  90 minutes
o  20 minutes
o  150 minutes
CORRECT