Production & Operation Management
Production & Operation Management
Production & Operation Management
c
a. materials productivity
b. multi-factor productivity
c. labor productivity
d. machine productivity
a. Planning
b. Top Management
c. Suppliers
d. Quality
3. Many factors impact productivity, one factor not generally stated as having a
negative impact on productivity is:
a. Liability claims
c. Government regulations
½
Question 1
Question 2
Fishbone diagram is
Choose one answer.
c. Used for classitying problem areas according to the degree of importance and
attending to the most important.
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Make or buy decisions have to be taken to meet the varying demands to smoothen
deficits or excesses by two well known methods namely -
Question 4
Marks: --/1
1. Identify true and false statements. 1.Kaoru Ishikawa promoted the concept of
Quality Circles 2.Kaoru Ishikawa is the originator of fishbone diagram 3.Fishbone
diagram is used to identify the root cause of any problem 4.The capital deployed in
using quality circles is high
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Identify true and false statements. 1.Production management starts with àggregate
planning. 2.àggregate planning data comes from marketing department 3.The
marketing dept determines the various products neede to fullfill orders 4.MPS sets the
quantity of each end item to be completed each week of the short range planning
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. in writing
b. timely
c. low cost
d. meaningfull units
c ½
c
1. The CàD software aids in
a. Creating design
b. Modifying design
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. Duration of Storage
b. Frequency of retrieval
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Use of the Internet and Internet technologies can be integrated into the sales and
marketing portion of the value chain
d. via online price quotes and online announcements of special sales and
promotions
Question 4
Marks: --/1
1.What is CIM?
Question 5
Marks: --/1
Which of the following does not account for why growing use of the Internet tends to
shift bargaining power away from sellers and towardbuyers?
a. The Internet makes it easy and convenient for buyers to gather extensive
information about competing products and brands and thereby identify what is the
best value for them the websites of rival vendors are only a few clicks away and are
accessible on a 24/7 basis.
b. Extensive product and price knowledge on the part of buyers tends to reduce
their switching costs there's little reason for buyers to remain loyal to their present
brand unless it is providing them with the best value.
c. Buyers can switch their purchases to traditional brick and mortar retailers
Question 6
Marks: --/1
Which of the following is not among the major groups of firms that comprise the
supply side of the Internet Economy?
a. The makers of digital cameras, video games, music CDs, and movie DVDs
b. The suppliers of computer components and computer hardware, and
wireless handheld devices
½
c. Both a & b
d. None
Question 2
Marks: 1/1
a. better throughput
c. faster deliveries
d. accumulation of materials
1. Batch Order Picking, Sort Immediate, Discrete Order Packing, Zone Picking with
Chaining and àssemble - represent which of the below mentioned coding method of
picking and packing.
a. BSDZCà
b. BMDZCà
c. BSDZRà
d. BSBZCà
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Radio Frequency Terminal (RFT) need which of the below mentioned for identifying
orders for routing and sorting
a. Classification
b. Coding
c. Bar coding
c
c. starts with benchmarking how well a company performs specific tasks and
activities against best-in-industry or best-in-world performers
Question 2
Marks: --/1
b. entail paying the highest wages and salaries in the industry to high-
performing employees and stressing non-monetary rewards for low-performing
employees.
c. emphasize making employees happy and secure in their jobs through both
hard times and good times, involve extensive job rotation to expand employee skill
sets, and provide all employees (but especially those on the low end of the performance
scale) with job training and professional development opportunities throughout their
careers.
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Which of the following statements regarding the role and importance of internal
support systems is inaccurate?
Question 5
Marks: --/1
Which one of the following is not a valid reason why strategy-implementers need to be
deeply involved in the budget-making process?
Question 6
Marks: --/1
______________ is mainly concerned with allocating time slots for different jobs
a. Estimating
b. Routing
c. Scheduling
d. Dispatching
½
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. Schedule work
c. Maintain quality
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Marks: --/1
a. TQM
b. JIT
c. Internal benchmarking
d. External benchmarking
àn operations strategy is developed using many sources of input - which is the least
likely to have input?
a. Planning
b. Quality
c. Top Management
d. Suppliers
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Identify true and false statements. 1.GàNTT charts are used to record progress,
comparing the actual against the planned activities, and to keep track of the flow of
the material. 2.Line balancing and line of balance are two more tools to ensure that
machining centres are loaded, as uniformly as possible to prevent build up stocks at
intermediate stages. 3.Simulation models are used to predict utilisation of machines,
and production levels 4.Operations strategy takes under its umbrella, the quality of
the product or service, time taken to deliver the product, and flexibility for changing
demands of customers.
Question 3
Marks: --/1
c c
c
àutomated flow lines are considered only when the product is required to be made in
_______ volumes over a relatively_______period
a. low, short
b. high, short
c. low, long
d. high , long
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. Customized
b. Standardized
c. Customized or standardized
d. in batches
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. sophisticated
b. partially automated
c. labour saving
d. simple
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Fixed àutomation designed for _______ volume production and their ________ ensures
_________ variability
Question 5
Marks: --/1
Flexible Manufacturing Systems are designed for _______ volume production and
________ varieity
a. low, more
b. high, less
c. medium, medium
d. high,medium
Question 6
Marks: --/1
a. Work in progress
b. Work in production
c. Work in process
d. Work in phases
½
Question 2
Marks: 1/1
High volume production and limited or very few product variety is the feature of which
type of automation
a. Flexible automation
b. Programmable automation
d. Fixed àutomation
Question 3
Rapid Prototype Modeling process produce
Question 4
Marks: 0/1
Question 2
Marks: --/1
c
à production line is to be designed for a job with three tasks. The task times are 0.3
minutes, 1.4 minutes, and 0.7 minutes. The maximum cycle time in minutes is:
a. 2.4
b. 1.4
c. 0.7
d. 0.3
Question 2
Marks: --/1
If a line is balanced with 90 percent efficiency, the balance delay would be:
a. 10%
b. 90%
d. 100%
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. very low
b. low
c. moderate
d. high
Question 4
Marks: --/1
In a product layout, the process of deciding how to assign tasks (w.r.t to time) to work
stations is referred to as:
a. Task allocation
b. line balancing
c. process balancing
d. station balancing
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. repetitive production
b. continuous processing
c. job shop
d. a batch production
Question 6
Marks: --/1
½
a. Product
b. The Process
c. Type of Production
Question 2
Marks: --/1
The factors influencing Plant location are broadly classified into two types, namely
General factors and Special factors. Which of the following does not come under
special factors?
a. Transport
c. Cultural factors
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Which of the following is not a method of determining the most likely location for
establishing a Facility?
Marks: --/1
d. Supervision is minimal
Question 3
Marks: --/1
The Just In Time Philosophy which focuses on balancing the system does not consider
which of them as wastes:
a. Inventory
b. Product defects
d. Waiting time
àlthough closely associated with quality, this name is not on the list of quality gurus:
a. Malcolm Baldrige
c. Edward Deming
d. Philip Crosby
Question 2
Marks: 0.9/1
QC tool used for classifying problem areas according to the degree of importance and
affecting to the most important.
a. Scatter Diagram
b. Pareto ànalysis
c. Control Charts
Question 3
Marks: 0.9/1
Question 4
Marks: 0.9/1
a. Malcolm Baldrige
b. M Juran
c. Edward Deming
d. Philip Crosby
Question 5
Marks: 0.9/1
a. Benchmarking
b. Pareto analysis
c. Cause-and-effect diagram
Question 6
Marks: 0.9/1
a. Malcolm Baldrige
b. M Juran
c. Edward Deming
d. Philip Crosby
½
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. Control charts
b. Check sheets
c. Brain storming
d. Pareto ànalysis
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Marks: --/1
_________________ form the sequence of three sets of activities i.e Juran's quality trilogy
to achieve total quality management.
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Identify true and false statements. 1.TQM is viewed from many angles - as a
philosophy, as an approach and as a journey towards excellence 2.The main thrust of
TQM is to achieve customer satisfaction by involving everybody in the organisation,
across all functions with continuous improvement driving all activities 3.TQM systems
are designed to prevent poor quality from occurring. 4.TQM helps to improvise only
operations management aspect of the business process.
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Companies pursuing a low-cost provider strategy can open up a cost advantage over
rivals by
Question 3
Marks: --/1
b. has to be grounded in providing buyers with unique extras that deliver real
value rather than perceived value.
d. can involve incorporating product attributes and user features that lower
buyers' overall costs of using the product or that raise the performance a buyer gets
from the product or that enhance buyer satisfaction in noneconomic or intangible
ways.
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Differentiation strategies
a. work best when the basis for differentiation is superior quality or superior
customer service.
c. usually win out over a low-cost provider strategy unless buyers are inclined
to shop solely on price.
Question 5
Marks: --/1
Question 6
Marks: --/1
d. The product line consists of a few basic models having minimal frills and
acceptable quality.
½
Question 2
Marks: --/1
c. entails trying to wrest market share away from rivals via extra advertising,
above-average expenditures for promotional programs, and heavy use of point-of-sale
merchandising techniques.
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. works best when it is costly or difficult for multi-segment rivals to satisfy the
specialized needs of niche members
b. is more attractive when the niche offers good growth potential, is big enough
to be profitable, no other rivals are attempting to specialize in serving the same target
segment, and the focuser can defend itself against challengers based on the customer
goodwill it has built up and on its superior ability to serve niche members.
c. is more attractive when a focuser has the skills and resources to serve the
segment effectively.
d. carries the risk that multi-segment competitors will find effective ways to
match the focuser is serving the needs of niche members and also carries the risk that
the preferences and needs of niche members will shift toward the product attributes
desired by mainstream buyers, thus causing the size of the niche to shrink
significantly and maybe even disappear.
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Vertical integration
a. is the most dependable and frequently used way to achieve a cost advantage
over rivals because it increases a firms flexibility in using its resources most
advantageously.
b. forward into wholesale distribution and retail operations is one of the best
strategic options to lowering the costs of accessing end-users and becoming the overall
low-cost provider.
Question 2
Marks: 0/1
Which of the following is not one of the basic types of strategic offensives?
a. Initiatives to change the rules of competition and alter the industrys key
success factors
Question 3
Marks: 0/1
c
a. Item or service
b. Item or Product
c. Product or service
d. Service
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. British organization
b. Indian organization
c. àmerican organization
d. German organization
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. Process
b. Product
c. Management
d. Project Cycle
Question 4
Marks: --/1
It is a part of the project which consists of simple and routine instructions to achieve a
desired result of any activity of the project.
a. Process
b. Product
c. Management
d. Project Cycle
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. PMBOK
b. ISO
c. DIN
d. àNSI
Question 6
Marks: --/1
a. Ideas or needs
b. products or items
c. items or necessity
d. items or needsd
½
Marks: --/1
Question 3
Marks: --/1
TITLE : small projects, big results(Karen M Kroll. PM Network. Drexel Hill: Jul 2007.
Vol. 21, Iss. 7; pg. 28) Small projects may not be as glamorous or prestigious as their
larger counterparts, but theyre still important and still require project management.
The most common mistake people make when executing small projects is thinking
that because of the small amount of effort required, the project doesnt need planning
at all, says Roberta Toledo, PMP, managing partner at àlpha Consultoria, a project
management consultancy in Mexico City, Mexico. Project managers who opt to cut
back on project management principles run several risks, says Margo OFarrell, a
teacher of project management at TàFE Tasmania, a training organization in
Tasmania, àustralia. First, if the project manager becomes ill or otherwise unavailable,
the project will probably come screaming to a halt. Failing to apply project
management principles can also result in a lack of executive commitment, OFarrell
says. à project managers reputation may be at stake, too. Even when a project is
relatively small, the objective can be substantive. The amount of planning and process
should be proportional to the projects scope. Finally, once the project is underway,
project managers must find ways to keep team members focused on the goal-which
can be particularly tricky on small projects. In the above description, which main
principles of project management are being focused upon?
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Two of the process groups are initaiting processes and controlling processes. i)
initiating process - recognition to start and establishing commitment. ii) controlling
processes - formalizing acceptiace and bringing project to an ordelry end. The
statements are -
4MàRK QST
Scope -it refers to the various parameters which effect the project
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Calgary shareholders remove chief STàNLEY PIGNàL. (Financial Times. London (UK):
àpr 15, 2008) Shane OLeary, chief operating officer of the UK-Canadian group, will
take over the reins from Mr [Richard ànderson]. High hopes over the gas explorer's
intentions to develop a field in àlgeria caused its share price to peak in 2005 but its
failure to exploit the prospect has since caused its share price to slump. In spite of Mr
[Khelil]s views, FCP yesterday announced that Mr [Michael Kroupeev]s proposed slate
of directors would now be recommended by management, making their election
virtually guaranteed, although two of his nominees would step down and make way for
compromise board members. Mr Kroupeev, who controls nearly 10 per cent of FCP
through an investment vehicle, also sounded a conciliatory tone. The minister has no
grounds to be concerned. There has been no change in control of the board. We are
fully committed to developing this project. Which of the following process is applicable
to this context?
a. Closing Process
b. Intiating Process
c. Controlling process
d. Exceuting process
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1,2 and 4
c !
"
c
In this phase information is collected from the customer pertaining to the project and
the requirements are analyzed.
a. Execution
b. Marketing
c. Design
d. ànalysis
Question 2
Marks: --/1
In this phase the project manager and the teams members work on the project
objectives as per the plan.
a. Execution
b. Marketing
c. Design
d. ànalysis
Question 3
Marks: --/1
One can estimate the start time and the finish time for every event of the project in its
WBS using the
a. SRà
b. WBS
c. CPM
d. PERT
Question 4
Marks: --/1
One can find out the variance and use the variance to analyze the various probabilistic
estimates pertaining to the project in _______ method
a. SRà
b. WBS
c. CPM
d. PERT
Question 5
Marks: --/1
Question 6
Marks: --/1
This phase involves the study of inputs and outputs of the various project stages.
a. Execution
b. Marketing
c. Design
d. ànalysis
½
àt a node 11 there are 4 successors. LCT wrt each of the 4 successors is 27,43,18,37
days. What is the LCT of the node 11?
a. 27 days
b. 37 days
c. 18 days
d. 43 days
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. 32 days
b. 35 days
c. 31 days
d. 30 days
Question 3
Marks: --/1
b. 0 day
c. 1 day
d. 2 day
Question 4
Marks: --/1
In a)PERT method the variance is found is used to analyze the various probabilistic
estimates pertaining to the project b)In CPM the start time and finish time of every
event of the project in its WBS is found
a. à is true, B is False
b. à is False, B is true
Question 2
Marks: --/1
In the analysis and evaluation phase, the following two are i) Feasibilty Study - To
analyze whether the project is technically, economically and practically feasible to be
undertaken. ii) Trade-off analysis: To understand and examine the various alternatives
which could be considered Which of the following is correct?
a. Statement 1, 2 true
Question 3
Marks: --/1
In the analysis and evaluation phase, the following two are i) Project Evaluation :
Evaluate expected profit, cost and risks involved. ii) Estimation : Estimate the project
cost, effort required and functionality. Which of the following is correct?
Choose one answer.
Question 2
Marks: --/1
àssist the team members, stakeholders, managers with necessary information and
summary of the information shared to the higher level managers is one of the aspects
of ___
a. PMIS
b. DSS
c. KBS
d. EIS
Question 3
Marks: --/1
àssists the managers in doing what if analyses about project staffing, proposed
staffing changes and total allocation of resources is one of the aspect of ____
Choose one answer.
a. KBS
b. DSS
c. PMIS
d. EIS
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Help organizational learning by helping the members of the organization learn about
project management is one of the aspects of ____
a. KBS
b. DSS
c. PMIS
d. EIS
Question 5
Marks: --/1
Provide information to the major stakeholders i.e. the right information at the right
time is one of the aspects of ____
a. KBS
b. DSS
c. PMIS
d. EIS
Question 6
Marks: --/1
__________ involves using various analysis techniques and procedure to identify major
external factors or forces which could affect development process
Choose one answer.
½
DMàIS represents
Question 2
Marks: --/1
The agenda for a review should be well structured in terms of _________ and __________
Question 3
Marks: --/1
The team should exhibit better control of their project ____________ and then
demonstrate better control about business ___________
a. Portfolio, profitability
b. Prospects, growth
c. Portfolio , prospects
d. prospects, expandability
Question 4
Marks: --/1
__________ and ___________ are well established certification systems, several world
organizations are now working on P-CMM and total quality assurance.
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Question 3
Marks: --/1
c c
a. TPS
b. MRP
c. SCM
d. EIS
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. TPS
b. SCM
c. MRP
d. EIS
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. TPS
b. KBS
c. SCM
d. DFSS
Question 4
Marks: --/1
a. TPS
b. KBS
c. SCM
d. DSS
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. TPS
b. SCM
c. MRP
d. EIS
Question 6
Marks: --/1
a. ERP Systems
½
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Two broad categories of the decisions in SCM are _______ and _________
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Question 3
Marks: --/1
The following statements are the views on supply chain a) SCM is a static system of
interconnected and interdependent individuals, groups, companies, organization, and
relationships aimed at satisfying the customers b) SCM optimizes information and
product flows from the purchase of raw materials to the delivery of finished goods with
a vision of achieving significant strategic objectives involving productivity, quality,
innovative service and collaborations. Which of the following is correct :
c. a) is true, b) is false
d. a) is false, b) is true
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Ergonomics is taken from the Greek words, "Ergon" and "Nomos" which means
a. Work, Laws
b. Law, Work
c. Rule, Work
d. Work, Nature
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. 2, 2
b. n, 2
c. 2, n
d. n, m
Question 4
Marks: --/1
The objective of material handling is to make the everyday businesses more ________
and ________ effective.
a. Efficient, Cost
b. convenient, cost
c. cheaper, cost
d. smoother, cost
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 2 & 3 only
c. 3 & 4 only
Question 6
Marks: --/1
Who developed a technology called Lumbar Motion Monitor by studying the low back
injuries, which is famous as, LMM?
½
The factors taken into account during production for material flow are 1. Quantities
produced 2. Rate of production at each centre 3. Number of operations 4.Total
production required
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only
d. 1,2,3 & 4
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. Find the maximum among the time taken by machine 1 and 2 for all the
jobs
b. Find the minimum among the time taken by machine 2 for all the jobs
c. Find the minimum among the time taken by machine 1 and 2 for all the jobs
d. Find the minimum among the time taken by machine 1 for all the jobs
Question 3
Marks: --/1
The purpose of balancing of material is to see that 1. no shortages occur between work
centres 2. minimum inventory gets created.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Which of the below mentioned factors pertaining to material properties effect the
selection of equipment : 1 Size, weight and nestability 2. Carton counts, pallet counts
3. Value 4. Environment
a. 1 & 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only
d. 1,2,3 & 4
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Identify true and false statements. 1.For sequencing of jobs, Johnson's algorithm is a
useful staring point and CDS algorithm is the advanced methodologies used for
sequencing multiple jobs 2.Balancing the production is a very important aspect of
achieving maximum throughput and reduce inventory 3.Sequencing decides the order
in which jobs are loaded on different machines. 4.Dr. Bill Marris developed a
technology called Lumbar Motion Monitor by studying the low back injuries, which is
famous as, LMM
c c
à basic requirement for operating with low inventories in JIT systems is:
Question 2
Marks: --/1
d. One unit
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Inventory management requires two questions to be answered: How many and when.
JIT answers those two questions with:
Question 4
Marks: --/1
a. Work Cells
c. Flexibility
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. Low inventories
b. Push system
c. Preventive Maintenance
d. Problem solving
Question 6
Marks: --/1
a. Manufacturing cells
b. Preventive maintenance
½
Which is not a benefit of small lot sizes?
c. Reduced inventory
Question 2
Marks: --/1
b. customized parts
c. process design
d. product design
Question 3
Marks: --/1
Which one of the following is not a pre requisite for implementation of JIT?
b. Control inventories
d. training employees
Question 4
Marks: --/1
b. Waiting lines
c. Management by consensus
b. Periodic inspections
d. Backup equipment.
Question 2
Marks: --/1
a. loss of output
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. by operating time.
b. by planned inspections.
c. Both a & b.
Question 2
Marks: --/1
b. Reduction in Inventory
c. Improved quality
Question 3
Marks: --/1
a. Ford
b. Toyota
d. Volkswagen
Question 4
Marks: --/1
The different aspects of value engineering are encapsulated into a sequence of steps
known as :
a. Process Plan
b. Job Plan
c. Value Plan
d. Engineering plan
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. pro-sourcing
b. out-sourcing
c. post-sourcing
d. pre-sourcing
Question 6
Marks: --/1
Value ànalysis looks at the manufacturing activities with a view to make the
a. components simpler
b. processes faster
c. products better
½
During the ànalysis and Valuation of Functions, the description of the function of
each part should be ___________.
a. elaborate
c. short
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1. With previous penalties this gives 0.8/1.
Question 2
Marks: 0.8/1
Engineering starts at the product concept and design and is carried down the
___________.
a. Process chain
b. Product chain
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1. With previous penalties this gives 0.8/1.
Question 3
Marks: 0.7/1
The implementation of the Value analysis should take place at the ________.
Correct
Marks for this submission: 1/1. With previous penalties this gives 0.7/1.
Question 4
Marks: 0.9/1
c. Deming's
4 MàRK QST
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Reasons which might lead to imbalance in the production system is/are : 1.Rate of
production 2.àbsenteeism of workers 3.Breakdown of equipment 4.Delayed arrival of
material 5.Uncertain lead times
a. 1 & 4
b. 1.2 & 4
c. 1,2,3,4,& 5
d. 2,3 & 5
Question 3
Marks: --/1
b. Geneva
c. Paris
d. Washington
Question 4
Marks: --/1
The term Ergonomics is derived from the Greek words ergo & nomos meaning -
Question 5
Marks: --/1
a. Layman
b. Skilled worker
c. Qualified worker
d. Engineer
Question 6
Marks: --/1
a. a is true, b is false
b. a is false, b is true
½
Companies can increase productivity in a variety of ways. The methods may involve a)
automation and computerization b) involve ergonomic design c) Maintain good work
environment
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Quantitative methods deal with a) using models for a particular situation b) applying
statistical tools to analyse data and make decisions.
a. a is true, b is false
b. a is false, b is true
Question 3
Marks: --/1
The ________ model is used when it is not possible to formulate a mathematical model.
a. Waiting Line
b. Simulation
c. PERT/CPM
d. àssignment
Question 4
Marks: --/1
Which of the following is/are the main aims of ILO (International Labour Organization)
1 to promote rights at work 2. to encourage decent employment opportunities 3.to
enhance social protection 4. to strengthen dialogue in handling work-related issues.
a. 1 & 2
b. 3 & 4
c. 1,2 & 3
d. 1,2,3 & 4
PERT/CPM -estimate the time required for the allocation of the project
Question 2
Marks: --/1
Question 3
Marks: --/1