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Subtest 1: Verbal Analogies: Practice Test For The Air Force Officer Qualifying Test

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Subtest 1: Verbal Analogies 5. Pride is to lion as school is to


Directions: This subtest measures your ability to rea- a. teacher
son and see relationships between words. You are to b. student
choose the answer that best completes the analogy c. self-respect
developed at the beginning of each question. The best d. learning
way to approach this type of test is to look for pat- e. fish
terns or comparisons between the first phrase and the
choices available to you. You have eight (8) minutes 6. Elated is to despondent as enlightened is to
to complete this subtest. a. aware
b. ignorant
Questions: 25 c. miserable
Time: 8 minutes d. tolerant
e. humble
1. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
a. dish 7. Embarrassed is to humiliated as frightened is to
b. soup a. terrified
c. spoon b. agitated
d. food c. courageous
e. saucer d. reckless
e. timid
2. Bicycle is to pedal as canoe is to
a. water 8. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to
b. kayak a. speed
c. oar b. hiking
d. fleet c. needle
e. lake d. direction
e. humidity
3. Window is to pane as book is to
a. novel 9. Fray is to ravel as
b. glass a. tremble is to roll
c. cover b. hungry is to eat
d. pages c. jolt is to shake
e. index d. stroll is to run
e. stitch is to tear
4. Play is to actor as concert is to
a. symphony 10. Elephant is to pachyderm as
b. musician a. mantis is to rodent
c. piano b. poodle is to feline
d. percussion c. kangaroo is to marsupial
e. violin d. zebra is to horse
e. tuna is to mollusk

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11. Psychologist is to neurosis as 17. Tailor is to suit as


a. ophthalmologist is to cataract a. scheme is to agent
b. dermatologist is to fracture b. edit is to manuscript
c. infant is to pediatrician c. revise is to writer
d. rash is to orthopedist d. mention is to opinion
e. oncologist is to measles e. implode is to building

12. Cotton is to bale as 18. Jaundice is to liver as


a. butter is to churn a. rash is to skin
b. wine is to ferment b. dialysis is to kidney
c. grain is to shock c. smog is to lung
d. curd is to cheese d. valentine is to heart
e. beef is to steak e. imagination is to brain

13. Division is to section as 19. Interest is to obsession as


a. layer is to tier a. mood is to feeling
b. tether is to bundle b. weeping is to sadness
c. chapter is to verse c. dream is to fantasy
d. riser is to stage d. plan is to negation
e. dais is to speaker e. highlight is to indication

14. Mechanic is to garage as 20. Slapstick is to laughter as


a. teacher is to recess a. fallacy is to dismay
b. actor is to role b. genre is to mystery
c. jockey is to horse c. satire is to anger
d. surgeon is to hospital d. mimicry is to tears
e. author is to book e. horror is to fear

15. Chickadee is to bird as 21. Verve is to enthusiasm as


a. crocodile is to alligator a. loyalty is to duplicity
b. giraffe is to reptile b. devotion is to reverence
c. Siamese is to cat c. intensity is to color
d. shepherd is to marsupial d. eminence is to anonymity
e. grasshopper is to ant e. generosity is to elation

16. Walk is to saunter as 22. Conviction is to incarceration as


a. trot is to race a. reduction is to diminution
b. swim is to dive b. induction is to amelioration
c. hop is to shuffle c. radicalization is to estimation
d. juggle is to bounce d. marginalization is to intimidation
e. rain is to drizzle e. proliferation is to alliteration

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23. Professor is to erudite as 2. Mr. James Rossen is just beginning a computer


a. aviator is to licensed consulting firm and has purchased the
b. inventor is to imaginative following equipment: 3 telephone sets, each
c. procrastinator is to conscientious costing $125; 2 computers, each costing $1,300;
d. overseer is to wealthy 2 computer monitors, each costing $950;
e. moderator is to vicious 1 printer, costing $600; and 1 answering
machine, costing $50. Mr. Rossen is reviewing
24. Dependable is to capricious as his finances. What should he write as the total
a. fallible is to cantankerous value of the equipment he has purchased so
b. erasable is to obtuse far?
c. malleable is to limpid a. $3,025
d. capable is to inept b. $4,025
e. incorrigible is to guilty c. $5,400
d. $5,525
25. Dominance is to hegemony as e. $6,525
a. romance is to sympathy
b. furtherance is to melancholy 3. One lap on a particular outdoor track measures
c. independence is to autonomy a quarter of a mile around. To run a total of
d. tolerance is to philanthropy three-and-a-half miles, how many laps must
e. recompense is to hilarity a person complete?
a. 7
Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning b. 9
Directions: This subtest measures mathematical rea- c. 10
soning and problem solving. Each problem is fol- d. 13
lowed by five possible answers. Decide which one of e. 14
the five answers is most nearly correct. A method for
attacking each of these questions is given in the an- 4. 5
8 × 47 =
5
swer block at the end of this chapter. You have a. 14
twenty-nine (29) minutes to complete this subtest. b. 208
c. 25
32
9
Questions: 25 d. 16
10
Time: 29 minutes e. 17

1. What is the estimated product when 157 and


817 are rounded to the nearest hundred and
multiplied?
a. 16,000
b. 80,000
c. 160,000
d. 180,000
e. 1,600,000

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5. Newly hired nurses have to buy duty shoes at 9. A child has a temperature of 40° C. What is the
the full price of $84.50, but nurses who have child’s temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?
served at least a year get a 15% discount. Nurses (F = 95 C + 32)
who have served at least three years get an a. 100° F
additional 10% off the discounted price. b. 101° F
How much does a nurse who has served at c. 102° F
least three years have to pay for shoes? d. 103° F
a. $63.78 e. 104° F
b. $64.65
c. $67.49 10. A woman drives west at 45 miles per hour.
d. $71.83 After half an hour, a man starts to follow her.
e. $72.05 How fast must he drive to catch up to her
three hours after he starts?
6. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the rate at a. 52.5 miles per hour
which our bodies use calories. The BMR for a b. 55 miles per hour
man in his twenties is about 1,700 calories per c. 60 miles per hour
day. If 204 of those calories should come from d. 65 miles per hour
protein, about what percentage of this man’s e. 67.5 miles per hour
diet should be protein?
a. 1.2% 11. Jason is six times as old as Kate. In two years,
b. 8.3% Jason will be twice as old as Kate is then. How
c. 12% old is Jason now?
d. 16% a. 3 years old
e. 18% b. 6 years old
c. 9 years old
7. How much water must be added to one liter of d. 12 years old
a 5% saline solution to get a 2% saline e. 15 years old
solution?
a. .5 liter 12. A flash drive shows 827,036 bytes free. If you
b. 1 liter delete a file of size 542,159 bytes and create a
c. 1.5 liters new file of size 489,986 bytes, how many free
d. 2 liters bytes will the flash drive have?
e. 2.5 liters a. 489,986 free bytes
b. 577,179 free bytes
8. All of the rooms in a building are rectangular, c. 681,525 free bytes
with 8-foot ceilings. One room is 9 feet wide by d. 774,863 free bytes
11 feet long. What is the combined area of the e. 879,209 free bytes
four walls, including doors and windows?
a. 90 square feet
b. 160 square feet
c. 180 square feet
d. 280 square feet
e. 320 square feet
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13. On the cardiac ward, there are 7 nursing 16. Based on the following information, estimate
assistants. NA Basil has 8 patients; NA Hobbes the weight of a person who is 5′5″ tall.
has 5 patients; NA McGuire has 9 patients;
Height Weight
NA Hicks has 10 patients; NA Garcia has
5′ 110 lbs.
10 patients; NA James has 14 patients; and
6′ 170 lbs.
NA Davis has 7 patients. What is the average
number of patients per nursing assistant? a. 125
a. 6 b. 130
b. 7 c. 135
c. 8 d. 140
d. 9 e. 145
e. 10
17. During exercise, a person’s heart rate should
14. A patient’s hospice stay cost one-fourth as be between 60% and 90% of the difference
much as his visit to the emergency room. between 220 and the person’s age. According
His home nursing cost twice as much as his to this guideline, what should a 30-year-old
hospice stay. If his total health care bill was person’s maximum heart rate be during
$140,000, how much did his home nursing exercise?
cost? a. 114
a. $10,000 b. 132
b. $20,000 c. 156
c. $40,000 d. 171
d. $60,000 e. 198
e. $80,000
18. A certain water pollutant is unsafe at a level of
15. At a certain school, half of all the students are 20 ppm (parts per million). A city’s water
female and one-twelfth of the students are supply now contains 50 ppm of this pollutant.
from outside the state. Half of the out-of-state What percentage of improvement will make
students are also female. What proportion of the water safe?
the students would you expect to be females a. 20%
from outside the state? b. 30%
1
a. 12 c. 40%
1
b. 24 d. 50%
c. 18 e. 60%
d. 16
e. 13

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19. A study shows that 600,000 women die each Aluminum Cardboard Glass Plastic
year in pregnancy and childbirth, one-fifth
more than scientists previously estimated. Recycler X 6 cents/pound 3 cents/pound 8 cents/pound 2 cents/pound

How many such deaths did the scientists Recycler Y 7 cents/pound 4 cents/pound 7 cents/pound 3 cents/pound
previously estimate?
a. 120,000 22. If you take recyclables to whichever recycler
b. 240,000 will pay the most, what is the greatest amount
c. 300,000 of money you could get for 2,200 pounds of
d. 480,000 aluminum, 1,400 pounds of cardboard,
e. 500,000 3,100 pounds of glass, and 900 pounds
of plastic?
20. What is 250 milligrams in terms of grams? a. $440
a. 0.0250 grams b. $447
b. 0.250 grams c. $454
c. 2.50 grams d. $469
d. 25 grams e. $485
e. 250,000 grams
23. A train must travel 3,450 miles in six days.
21. An Army food supply truck can carry three How many miles must it travel each day?
tons. A breakfast ration weighs 12 ounces, and a. 525
the other two daily meals weigh 18 ounces b. 550
each. Assuming each soldier gets three meals c. 600
per day, on a 10-day trip, how many soldiers d. 575
can be supplied by one truck? e. 625
a. 100 soldiers
b. 150 soldiers 24. A dormitory now houses 30 men and allows
c. 200 soldiers 42 square feet of space per man. If five more
d. 320 soldiers men are put into this dormitory, how much
e. 270 soldiers less space will each man have?
a. 5 square feet
b. 6 square feet
c. 7 square feet
d. 8 square feet
e. 9 square feet

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25. Ron is half as old as Sam, who is three times 4. Magnanimous


as old as Ted. The sum of their ages is 55. a. enormous
How old is Ron? b. scholarly
a. 5 years old c. generous
b. 10 years old d. dignified
c. 15 years old e. wealthy
d. 20 years old
e. 30 years old 5. Aversion
a. harmony
Subtest 3: Word Knowledge b. greed
Directions: This subtest measures your vocabulary c. weariness
comprehension. For each question you are to choose d. dislike
the answer that most closely means the same as the e. outrage
italicized word. If you are somewhat familiar with the
italicized word, you can quickly eliminate the options 6. Poignant
that you know are incorrect. You have five (5) min- a. varied
utes to complete this subtest. b. exclusive
c. singular
Questions: 25 d. distressing
Time: 5 minutes e. comprehensive

1. Gauche 7. Antagonist
a. awkward a. comrade
b. tactful b. leader
c. graceful c. master
d. experienced d. perfectionist
e. expert e. opponent

2. Enumerate 8. Perseverance
a. pronounce a. unhappiness
b. count b. fame
c. explain c. persistence
d. plead d. humility
e. exhaust e. efficiency

3. Triumphant 9. Homogeneous
a. defeated a. alike
b. vanquished b. plain
c. victorious c. native
d. musical d. dissimilar
e. beaten e. ordinary

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10. Conspicuous 16. Garbled


a. unknown a. lucid
b. excel b. unintelligible
c. obvious c. devoured
d. forgotten d. outrageous
e. stellar e. invalid

11. Recluse 17. Frail


a. prophet a. vivid
b. fool b. delicate
c. intellectual c. robust
d. hermit d. adaptable
e. perfectionist e. scarce

12. Tote 18. Vindictive


a. acquire a. disorderly
b. complete b. outrageous
c. tremble c. insulting
d. abandon d. offensive
e. carry e. spiteful

13. Preeminent 19. Oration


a. basic a. nuisance
b. final b. independence
c. observed c. address
d. responsible d. length
e. outstanding e. elaboration

14. Grotesque 20. Glib


a. extreme a. angry
b. frenzied b. superficial
c. bizarre c. insulting
d. typical d. dishonest
e. majestic e. descriptive

15. Outmoded 21. Eccentric


a. worthless a. normal
b. unusable b. frugal
c. obsolete c. wild
d. unnecessary d. selective
e. pretentious e. peculiar

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22. Panacea 1. The first digit of the square root of 112,092 is


a. cure a. 1
b. result b. 2
c. cause c. 3
d. necessity d. 4
e. problem e. 5

23. Detrimental 2. Roberta draws two similar pentagons. The


a. harmful perimeter of the larger pentagon is 93 feet;
b. beneficial one of its sides measures 24 feet. If the
c. cumulative perimeter of the smaller pentagon equals
d. angered 31 feet, then the corresponding side of the
e. outstanding smaller pentagon measures
a. 5s = 31
24. Ostentatious b. 93s = 24 × 31
a. hilarious c. 93 × 24 = 31s
b. pretentious d. 5 × 31 = s
c. outrageous e. 31 × 24 = s
d. obnoxious
e. obsequious 3. Which measurement uses the largest increment?
a. perimeter
25. Negligible b. area
a. insignificant c. surface area
b. delicate d. volume
c. meaningful e. They all use the same size increment.
d. illegible
e. nonchalant 4. What is the distance, in miles, around a
circular course with a radius of 49 miles?
Subtest 4: Math Knowledge (pi = 227)
Directions: This subtest measures your ability to use a. 154 miles
learned mathematical relationships. Each problem is b. 308 miles
followed by five possible answers. You must decide c. 462 miles
which one of the five answers is correct. The best d. 539 miles
method for attacking each of these questions is given e. 616 miles
in the answer block at the end of this chapter. When
you take the actual test, scratch paper will be pro-
vided for working out the problems. You have
twenty-two (22) minutes to finish this subtest.

Questions: 25
Time: 22 minutes

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n5
5. Examine (A), (B), and (C) and choose the best 9. =
n2
answer. a. n7
b. n2
(A) 0.5
c. n3
(B) 5%
d. 2n3
(C) 15
e. 7n
a. (A) is greater than (B).
b. (B) is greater than (A). 10. Simplify the following radical expression:
c. (C) is greater than (A). 3n2
d. (A) and (B) are equal. a. n 3
e. (B) times (A) is equal to (C). b. 9n
c. n 9
6. Examine (A), (B), and (C) and choose the best d. 9
answer. e. 3 n
(A) n × n
11. Look at this series: 16, 13, 12, 23, . . . What number
(B) n2
(C) n(n) should come next?
a. 1
a. (A) plus (C) equals (B). b. 46
b. (B) is greater than (C) but less than (A). c. 56
c. (A) is less than (C). d. 89
d. (A), (B), and (C) are all equal. 7
e. 12
e. (B) times (A) is equal to (C).
12. Find the volume of a pyramid with four
7. Find the circumference of a circle with a congruent base sides. The length of each base
diameter of 10 centimeters. side and the prism’s height measure 2.4 feet.
a. 3.14 cm a. 46 cubic feet
b. 31.4 cm b. 4.6 cubic feet
c. 62.8 cm c. 4.8 cubic feet
d. 6.28 cm d. 48 cubic feet
e. none of the above e. 1.2 cubic feet

8. Which of the measures represents an obtuse 13. What number is 42 less than 15 of 820?
angle? a. 98
a. 45° b. 112
b. 60° c. 122
c. 85° d. 210
d. 90° e. 222
e. 105°

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14. Simplify the following radical expression: 19. The expression 5 factorial equals
2 7 – 3 28 a. 14
a. –6 7 b. 16
b. 5 196 c. 50
c. –5 196 d. 120
d. 7 e. 500
e. –4 7
20. What number added to 15% of 30 equals 20?
8xy2
15. 2xy
= a. –25
a. 2xy b. 4.5
b. 4x2 c. 12
c. 16y d. 15.5
d. 4y e. 25.5
e. 4y2
21. The reciprocal of 10 is
16. What number is 6 less than 25 of 25? a. 0.1
a. –4 b. 0.2
b. 1 c. 0.5
c. 4 d. 1.0
d. 9 e. 2.0
e. 12
22. What number plus 2 times the same number
17. What number is 3 times 4% of 20? equals 99?
a. 2.4 a. 16
b. 5.4 b. 33
c. 24 c. 66
d. 27 d. 297
e. 32 e. 365

18. Examine (A), (B), and (C) and choose the best 23. Examine (A), (B), and (C) and choose the best
answer. answer.

(A) 72 (A) 2
5 of 100
(B) 43 (B) 1
2 of 80
(C) 32 + 6 (C) 1
8 of 160

a. (A) and (B) are equal. a. (A) is less than (B) or (C).
b. (A) is greater than (B). b. (A) and (B) are equal.
c. (B) minus (A) is equal to (C). c. (B) and (C) are equal.
d. (B) and (C) are equal to (A). d. (B) is greater than (A) but less than (C).
e. (B) times (A) is equal to (C). e. (B) times (A) is equal to (C).

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24. Isadora wants to know the perimeter of the


face of a building; however, she does not have a
ladder. She knows that the building’s
rectangular facade casts a 36-foot shadow at
noon, while a nearby mailbox casts a 12-foot
shadow at noon. The mailbox is 4.5-feet tall. If
the length of the façade is 54 feet, what is the
ARTIFICIAL ARTIFICIAL ARTIFICIAL
measure of the façade’s perimeter? HORIZON HORIZON HORIZON
Dial 1 Dial 2 Dial 3
a. p = 13.5 × 4
b. p = 54 × 4 If the aircraft is climbing, the fuselage silhouette
c. p = 4.5(2) + 12(2) is seen between the horizon line and the pointer. The
d. p = 13.5(2) + 54(2) greater the amount of climb, the greater the distance
e. p = 13.5 + 4 between the horizon line and the fuselage silhouette.
If the aircraft is banked to the pilot’s right, the pointer
25. Find the circumference, in meters, of a circle will point to the left of zero (Dial 2).
with a radius of 25 centimeters. If the aircraft is diving, the horizon line is be-
a. 1.57 m tween the fuselage silhouette and the pointer. The
b. 157 m greater the amount of dive, the greater the distance
c. 15.7 cm between the horizon line and the fuselage silhouette.
d. 78.5 m If the aircraft is banked to the pilot’s left, the pointer
e. 7.85 m will point to the right of zero (Dial 3).
The horizon line tilts as the aircraft is banked. It
Subtest 5: is always at a right angles to the pointer.
Instrument Comprehension In each test item, the right-hand dial is the com-
Directions: This test measures your ability to deter- pass. This dial shows the direction in which the air-
mine the position of an aircraft in flight by reading craft is headed. Dial 4 shows north, Dial 5 is west, and
instruments showing its compass heading, its Dial 6 is northwest.
amount of climb or dive, and its degree of bank to
right or left. In each test item, the left-hand dial is la- N N N

beled artificial horizon. The small aircraft silhouette


remains stationary on the face of this dial, while the
W W W
positions of the heavy black line and black pointer
vary with the changes in the position of the aircraft in
S S S
which the instrument is located. COMPASS COMPASS COMPASS
The heavy black line represents the horizon line, Dial 4 Dial 5 Dial 6

and the black pointer shows the degree of bank to


Each item in this test consists of two dials and
right or left. If the aircraft is neither climbing nor div-
four silhouettes of aircraft in flight. Your task is to de-
ing, the horizon line is directly on the silhouette’s
termine which of the four aircraft is closest to the po-
fuselage. If the aircraft has no bank, the black pointer
sition indicated by the two dials. Remember, you are
will point to zero (Dial 1).
always looking NORTH at the same altitude as each
plane. East is always to the RIGHT as you look at the

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page. (Note: C in Question 3 is the rear view of the aircraft, and B is the front view.) You have nine (9) minutes
to complete this subtest.

Questions: 20
Time: 9 minutes

1.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

2.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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3.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

4.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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5.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

6.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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7.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

8.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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9.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

10.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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11.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

12.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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13.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

14.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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15.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

16.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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17.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

18.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

19.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

20.
N

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

Subtest 6: Block Counting 2. Block 2 is touched by ______ other blocks.


Directions: This subtest measures your ability to see a. 2
into a three-dimensional stack of blocks to determine b. 3
how many pieces are touched by the numbered c. 4
blocks. It is also a test of your abilities to observe and d. 5
deduce what you cannot specifically see. Closely e. 6
study the way in which the blocks are stacked. You
may find it helpful to remember that all of the blocks 3. Block 3 is touched by ______ other blocks.
in a pile are the same size and shape. Each stack of a. 2
blocks is followed by five questions pertaining only to b. 3
that stack. You have three (3) minutes to complete c. 4
this subtest. d. 5
e. 6
Questions: 20
Time: 3 minutes 4. Block 4 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2
Use the following figure to answer questions 1 b. 3
through 5. c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
1

2 5. Block 5 is touched by ______ other blocks.


5 a. 2
b. 3
3 c. 4
4 d. 5
e. 6

1. Block 1 is touched by ______ other blocks.


a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

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Use the following figure to answer questions 6 10. Block 10 is touched by ______ other blocks.
through 10. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
6 d. 5
e. 6
9
7 Use the following figure to answer questions 11
through 15.
8

10
11

6. Block 6 is touched by ______ other blocks. 12


a. 2 13

b. 3
14
c. 4
15
d. 5
e. 6

7. Block 7 is touched by ______ other blocks. 11. Block 11 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2 a. 2
b. 3 b. 3
c. 4 c. 4
d. 5 d. 5
e. 6 e. 6

8. Block 8 is touched by ______ other blocks. 12. Block 12 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2 a. 2
b. 3 b. 3
c. 4 c. 4
d. 5 d. 5
e. 6 e. 6

9. Block 9 is touched by ______ other blocks. 13. Block 13 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2 a. 2
b. 3 b. 3
c. 4 c. 4
d. 5 d. 5
e. 6 e. 6

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14. Block 14 is touched by ______ other blocks. 18. Block 18 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2 a. 2
b. 3 b. 3
c. 4 c. 4
d. 5 d. 5
e. 6 e. 6

15. Block 15 is touched by ______ other blocks. 19. Block 19 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2 a. 2
b. 3 b. 3
c. 4 c. 4
d. 5 d. 5
e. 6 e. 6

Use the following figure to answer questions 16 20. Block 20 is touched by ______ other blocks.
through 20. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
18
e. 6
19

16 Subtest 7: Table Reading


Directions: This subtest assesses your ability to read
17 tables quickly and accurately. Notice that the X values
in each table are shown at the top of the table and the
Y values are shown on the left of the table. In this
20
subtest, you are to find the entry that occurs at the in-
tersection of the row and the column corresponding
16. Block 16 is touched by ______ other blocks. to the values given. On your answer sheet, fill in the
a. 2 letter that corresponds with the number at the inter-
b. 3 section of the X and Y values. Accuracy is important.
c. 4 You have seven (7) minutes to complete this subtest.
d. 5
e. 6 Questions: 40
Time: 7 minutes
17. Block 17 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

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Use the following table to determine the correct 4. 0,–1


value for the X and Y values given in questions 1 a. 85
through 5. b. 33
c. 53
X VALUE d. 70
e. 14
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3

–3 45 23 77 93 52 54 92 5. 3,1
YY a. 13
–2 82 12 71 55 25 48 30
b. 55
V
AV –1 13 65 33 14 50 38 19 c. 32
LA d. 83
UL 0 40 84 85 53 66 73 88
E e. 44
U
1 55 43 22 70 20 99 32
E
Use the following table to determine the correct
2 23 10 62 62 15 42 63
value for the X and Y values given in questions 6
3 32 44 55 72 83 11 60 through 10.

1. –3,2 X VALUE
a. 82
b. 54 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3

c. 23 Y –3 32 64 12 98 25 74 15
d. 44 Y
–2 35 57 97 66 43 52 44
e. 36
VV
A –1 76 49 84 12 68 14 68
2. 2,–2 LA
UL 0 45 29 79 61 37 82 11
a. 12 E
U
b. 10 1 92 28 63 24 77 29 65
E
c. 48
2 74 26 99 54 55 16 62
d. 42
e. 38 3 97 58 46 81 22 34 53

3. –2,3 6. 2,–1
a. 44 a. 99
b. 82 b. 88
c. 30 c. 55
d. 23 d. 43
e. 32 e. 14

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7. 0,0 Use the following table to determine the correct


a. 11 value for the X and Y values given in questions 11
b. 45 through 15.
c. 0
d. 61 X VALUE
e. 76
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3

8. –2,–1 Y –3 45 89 79 77 29 68 58
a. 25 Y
–2 86 27 48 38 97 66 96
b. 33 V
V
c. 39 A –1 39 37 43 36 45 56 78
AL
d. 45
LU 0 18 17 55 98 44 87 34
e. 49 E
U
1 88 49 31 59 28 69 67
E
9. –1,2
2 37 76 47 22 16 45 33
a. 24
b. 14 3 46 19 99 54 57 18 26
c. 29
d. 55 11. –1,–1
e. 99 a. 28
b. 43
10. 3,3 c. 41
a. 32 d. 45
b. 53 e. 26
c. 61
d. 82 12. –2,1
e. 62 a. 49
b. 56
c. 86
d. 93
e. 99

13. –3,0
a. 18
b. 77
c. 54
d. 34
e. 26

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14. 1,3 17. 2,2


a. 29 a. 14
b. 34 b. 53
c. 41 c. 34
d. 52 d. 23
e. 57 e. 13

15. –3,–2 18. –2,3


a. 96 a. 12
b. 86 b. 17
c. 33 c. 35
d. 18 d. 74
e. 89 e. 76

Use the following table to determine the correct 19. –1,0


value for the X and Y values given in questions 16 a. 22
through 20. b. 48
c. 34
X VALUE d. 52
e. 43
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3

Y –3 24 17 72 55 23 95 35 20. 0,2
Y a. 12
–2 12 53 93 97 66 32 13
V
b. 45
V
A –1 56 65 34 22 44 87 43 c. 64
LA
U
d. 93
L 0 75 52 43 48 92 45 85
E e. 97
U
1 84 87 36 16 76 54 82
E
2 46 15 86 64 83 14 26

3 73 74 62 33 225 63 42

16. –3,–3
a. 24
b. 35
c. 42
d. 73
e. 82

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Use the following table to determine the correct 22. –1,3


value for the X and Y values given in questions 21 a. 69
through 25. b. 88
c. 29
X VALUE d. 62
e. 53
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3

Y –3 12 92 69 63 29 43 13 21. 2,2
Y a. 13
–2 99 31 72 42 91 82 41
V
b. 22
V
A –1 33 97 39 28 18 42 53 c. 82
LA
U
d. 89
L 0 49 52 23 21 51 32 23
E e. 91
U
1 81 73 58 93 68 59 38
E
24. –3,1
2 78 89 61 79 98 22 19
a. 53
3 83 71 88 48 62 11 34 b. 69
c. 81
21. 2,–3 d. 88
a. 82 e. 93
b. 43
c. 11 25. 2,3
d. 92 a. 19
e. 71 b. 92
c. 71
d. 11
e. 99

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

Use the following table to determine the correct value for the X and Y values given in questions 26 through 40.

X VALUE

–9 –8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

–9 48 57 52 13 86 91 54 82 52 87 46 68 92 47 53 38 52 45 78

–8 78 58 26 90 54 77 50 41 24 18 12 32 54 16 39 28 59 83 57

–7 54 43 77 23 49 54 45 81 64 21 54 87 56 10 15 50 35 68 99

–6 52 56 21 42 25 62 70 88 28 55 15 48 56 15 85 52 87 74 62

–5 19 23 58 98 38 58 47 56 74 21 99 84 28 48 24 56 65 11 56

Y –4 25 82 54 12 33 76 25 43 93 53 31 10 20 34 76 92 28 33 52

–3 43 65 21 45 21 58 86 96 35 71 70 80 45 85 43 23 51 52 14
Y
–2 58 87 26 65 52 55 43 76 55 26 29 96 54 19 14 87 74 55 92
V
V
A –1 82 73 34 52 95 42 26 74 49 83 75 96 28 21 31 78 46 39 76
LA
UL 0 21 85 58 43 74 38 72 81 11 18 84 73 52 66 62 81 12 43 17
E
U
1 50 26 54 45 25 84 95 31 18 45 76 61 41 30 24 46 66 83 73
E
2 86 52 64 25 21 17 64 23 71 13 90 56 44 70 12 27 48 87 33

3 74 13 75 17 85 56 50 43 68 10 37 85 71 16 52 49 18 66 95

4 32 69 78 68 73 54 15 61 42 78 91 28 93 85 34 70 59 46 35

5 15 55 90 33 91 12 99 23 53 62 79 81 64 40 38 26 69 73 13

6 64 38 62 54 18 22 36 28 93 38 61 98 14 30 49 63 88 12 41

7 84 56 53 56 76 45 64 11 83 47 23 74 31 89 57 38 32 78 19

8 56 84 21 86 21 18 29 31 12 25 59 40 72 98 53 22 45 88 74

9 46 19 64 47 54 53 75 82 69 45 80 13 22 15 70 18 49 59 16

26. 9,–4 27. –5,9


a. 14 a. 54
b. 35 b. 90
c. 52 c. 32
d. 25 d. 53
e. 32 e. 56

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28. –1,–4 34. –9,3


a. 14 a. 43
b. 93 b. 74
c. 28 c. 54
d. 91 d. 92
e. 42 e. 47

29. –3,8 35. 1,–8


a. 29 a. 34
b. 75 b. 74
c. 50 c. 24
d. 72 d. 12
e. 52 e. 73

30. 5,–3 36. 0,0


a. 99 a. 84
b. 64 b. 11
c. 47 c. 18
d. 28 d. 87
e. 43 e. 80

31. 0,–7 37. –5,0


a. 74 a. 62
b. 47 b. 74
c. 58 c. 21
d. 12 d. 26
e. 21 e. 58

32. 4,–4 38. –2,7


a. 85 a. 81
b. 48 b. 87
c. 20 c. 11
d. 76 d. 74
e. 34 e. 14

33. 7,–3 39. –8,5


a. 32 a. 55
b. 21 b. 23
c. 52 c. 39
d. 31 d. 54
e. 51 e. 83

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40. –6,4 3. If the aileron is deflected, the aircraft will move


a. 26 about the ______ axis.
b. 68 a. centroid
c. 23 b. pitch
d. 74 c. roll
e. 92 d. yaw
e. none of the above
Subtest 8: Aviation Information
Directions: This subtest measures your knowledge of 4. Pushing the right rudder pedal in causes the
aviation. This portion is common to all three service rudder to deflect to the right of center, causing
selection tests, although the number of questions which movement of the aircraft?
varies from one service to another. Each of the ques- a. Pushes the tail of the aircraft right, and the
tions or incomplete statements is followed by several nose of the aircraft left.
choices. You must decide which one of the choices b. Pushes the tail of the aircraft left, and the
best completes the statement or answers the question. nose of the aircraft right.
Eliminating any obviously incorrect choices first will c. Pushes the tail of the aircraft left, and the
increase your chances of selecting the correct answer. nose of the aircraft left.
You have eight (8) minutes to complete this subtest. d. Pushes the tail of the aircraft right and the
nose of the aircraft right.
Questions: 20 e. None of the above.
Time: 8 minutes
5. What is the angle of attack?
1. If the rudder of an aircraft is deflected, the a. the angle between airfoil chord and relative
aircraft will move about the ______ axis. direction of motion
a. centroid b. the angle between blade center and angle of
b. pitch incidence
c. roll c. the angle between airfoil chord and angle of
d. yaw incidence
e. none of the above d. the angle between induced air flow and
relative direction of motion
2. If the elevator is deflected, the aircraft will e. none of the above
move about the ______ axis.
a. centroid 6. What do we call the force acting rearward on
b. pitch an aircraft caused by air friction and lift?
c. roll a. lift
d. yaw b. thrust
e. none of the above c. drag
d. weight
e. none of the above

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7. The shape of a wing’s cross-section, which 12. Used in aviation, Zulu time refers to what?
causes lift, is described using what term? a. Eastern Standard Time
a. camber b. Eastern Daylight Saving Time
b. delta c. Time at International Date Line
c. swept d. Greenwich Mean Time
d. straight e. Pacific Standard Time
e. none of the above
13. What does the Pitot Static system in an aircraft
8. Pulling back on the aircraft controls will deflect measure?
which control surface on the aircraft? a. airspeed and altitude
a. rudder b. fuel quantity and fuel weight
b. trim tabs c. manifold pressure and air pressure
c. ailerons d. cabin pressure and manifold pressure
d. flaps e. none of the above
e. elevators
14. Pitch angle is the angle between the fuselage of
9. Increasing which parameter will eventually the aircraft and what?
cause a stall of the aircraft? a. relative wind
a. air density b. horizon
b. angle of attack c. runway threshold
c. airspeed d. propeller
d. pitch angle e. none of the above
e. none of the above
15. In general, which statement is true when an
10. Aviation speeds are generally measured in aircraft fully extends its flaps and does not
nautical miles per hour (knots). Which change other parameters?
statement is true about knots? a. Wing produces more lift and more drag.
a. 100 knots is identical to 100 miles per hour b. Wing produces more lift, but less drag.
(mph). c. Wing produces same amount of lift, but
b. 100 knots is faster than 100 mph. more drag.
c. 100 knots is slower than 100 mph. d. Wing produces less lift and less drag.
d. 100 knots has no relationship to mph. e. Wing produces less lift, but more drag.
e. None of the above.
16. In relation to the air flowing beneath the wing,
11. The transponder codes for loss of communica- how does the air flowing over the top of a
tion and for emergency, respectively, are? wing, producing lift, move?
a. 7600 and 7500 a. same speed
b. 7700 and 7600 b. slower
c. 7600 and 7700 c. stops
d. 7500 and 7600 d. faster
e. 7500 and 7700 e. none of the above

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17. Airport runways are numbered according to 1. The element ______ is the most abundant
a. length and width. component of air.
b. wind direction. a. helium
c. the first two digits of compass direction. b. hydrogen
d. order of construction. c. nitrogen
e. aircraft type. d. oxygen
e. carbon
18. What causes wake turbulence?
a. wind from thunderstorms blowing across 2. According to Boyle’s law, if the pressure of a
runways fixed mass of gas is kept constant but the
b. microburst temperature is allowed to increase, the volume
c. vortices off wings of aircraft caused by of gas will
generating lift a. not increase.
d. dust devils b. decrease in proportion to the change in
e. solar bursts temperature.
c. increase in proportion to the change in
19. What are the colors of the port and starboard temperature.
running lights? d. increase at twice the rate of change in
a. white/white temperature.
b. red/green e. There is not enough information to
c. green/red complete the statement.
d. red/white
e. green/white 3. Ohm’s law describes how, if voltage is kept
constant, an increase in current results in
20. Mach 1 refers to what in aviation? a. an increase in resistance.
a. speed of light b. a decrease in resistance.
b. speed of sound c. an increase or a decrease in resistance.
c. speed of heat d. no change in resistance.
d. speed of any jet e. There is not enough information to
e. none of the above complete the statement.

Subtest 9: General Science 4. ______ wavelengths are longer than visible


Directions: This subtest measures your knowledge in light and therefore have lower frequencies.
the area of science. Each of the questions or incom- a. Infrared
plete statements is followed by five choices. You must b. Ultraviolet
decide which one of the choices best answers the c. X-ray
question or completes the statement. Again, if you are d. Gamma ray
unsure of an answer, use the process of elimination. e. None of the above
Remember, there are no penalties for guessing. You
have ten (10) minutes to complete this subtest.

Questions: 20
Time: 10 minutes
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5. If a substance has a pH of 1.0, it can be 10. Carbon dioxide is made up of


classified as a(n) a. carbon.
a. acid. b. oxygen.
b. base. c. both carbon and oxygen.
c. solvent. d. both carbon and nitrogen.
d. neutral compound. e. none of the above.
e. There is not enough information to
complete the statement. 11. What is a solution called when it can dissolve
no more solutes?
6. ______ in an atom’s nucleus have a positive a. unsaturated
electrical charge. b. supersaturated
a. Electrons c. saturated
b. Neutrons d. volatile
c. Ions e. stable
d. Photons
e. Protons 12. What is the total number of atoms present in
the molecule CH3NH2?
7. A vector is defined by a. 4
a. length. b. 5
b. direction. c. 6
c. neither length or direction. d. 7
d. both length and direction. e. 8
e. none of the above.
13. On the Celsius temperature scale, at what
8. The organ that is responsible for the produc- temperatures does water freeze and boil?
tion of insulin is the a. It freezes at –10° and boils at 100°.
a. spleen. b. It freezes at 32° and boils at 100°.
b. kidney. c. It freezes at 0° and boils at 212°.
c. pancreas. d. It freezes at 32° and boils at 212°.
d. liver. e. It freezes at 0° and boils at 100°.
e. intestine.
14. It is harder to stop a car moving at 60 miles per
9. The four planets in the solar system that are hour than a car moving at 15 miles per hour
considered the gas giants are because the car moving at 60 miles per hour
a. Mercury, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn. has more
b. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. a. momentum.
c. Venus, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. b. deceleration.
d. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Pluto. c. mass.
e. Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto. d. velocity.
e. density.

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15. What is the scientific notation for 617,000? 18. One hundred centimeters equals how many
a. 6.17 × 10–5 kilometers?
b. .617 × 102 a. 0.001
c. .617 × 103 b. 0.01
d. .617 × 104 c. 0.1
e. 6.17 × 105 d. 1.0
e. 10
16. If you throw a baseball forward, it will
accelerate downward because of 19. Which of the following contains fiber?
a. orbital motion. a. chicken breast
b. terminal velocity. b. raspberries
c. increase in resistance. c. steak
d. Newton’s third law of motion. d. butter
e. gravity. e. yogurt

17. What type of rock is formed by the cooling of 20. Which of the following ecosystems could be
lava? (An example is granite.) described as having a temperate climate and
a. metamorphic many leaf-shedding trees?
b. sedimentary a. a deciduous forest
c. igneous b. a tropical rain forest
d. salt c. a tundra
e. sandstone d. a taiga
e. a prairie

Subtest 10: Rotated Blocks


Directions: This subtest measures your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. For each question in
this test, you will be shown a picture of a block. You must find a second block that is identical to the first. You
have thirteen (13) minutes to complete this subtest.

Questions: 15
Time: 13 minutes

1. a. b. c. d. e.

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

2. a. b. c. d. e.

3. a. b. c. d. e.

4. a. b. c. d. e.

5. a. b. c. d. e.

6. a. b. c. d. e.

7. a. b. c. d. e.

8. a. b. c. d. e.

9. a. b. c. d. e.

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

10. a. b. c. d. e.

11. a. b. c. d. e.

12. a. b. c. d. e.

13. a. b. c. d. e.

14. a. b. c. d. e.

15. a. b. c. d. e.

Subtest 11: Hidden Figures be of the same size and in the same position as it ap-
Directions: This subtest measures your ability to see pears in the top set of figures. Look at each numbered
a simple figure in a complex drawing. Above each drawing and decide which one of the five lettered fig-
group of questions are five figures, lettered A, B, C, D, ures is contained in it. You have eight (8) minutes to
and E. Below this set of figures are several numbered complete this subtest.
drawings. You are to determine which lettered figure
is contained in each of the numbered drawings. Each Questions: 15
numbered drawing contains only one of the lettered Time: 8 minutes
figures. The correct figure in each drawing will always

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

Use the following figure to answer questions 1 through 5.

1. The hidden figure in block 1 is ______. 4. The hidden figure in block 4 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

2. The hidden figure in block 2 is ______. 5. The hidden figure in block 5 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

3. The hidden figure in block 3 is ______.


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

Use the following figure to answer questions 6 through 10.

6. The hidden figure in block 6 is ______. 9. The hidden figure in block 9 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

7. The hidden figure in block 7 is ______. 10. The hidden figure in block 10 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

8. The hidden figure in block 8 is ______.


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

Use the following figure to answer questions 11 through 15.

11. The hidden figure in block 11 is ______. 14. The hidden figure in block 14 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

12. The hidden figure in block 12 is ______. 15. The hidden figure in block 15 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

13. The hidden figure in block 13 is ______.


a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

Answer Key 7. a. If someone has been humiliated, they have


been greatly embarrassed. If someone is
Subtest 1: Verbal Analogies terrified, they are extremely frightened.
1. b. Coffee goes into a cup and soup goes into a Choice e may be related to a feeling of
bowl. Choices a, c, and e are incorrect fright, but it is not an extreme emotion and
because they are other utensils. The answer therefore is not as good a match as choice a.
is not choice d because the word food is too The answer is not choice b because an
general. agitated person is not necessarily frightened.
2. c. A bicycle is put into motion by means of a Choices c and d are incorrect because
pedal. A canoe is put into motion by means neither word expresses a state of being
of an oar. The answer is not choice a or e frightened.
because water does not necessarily put the 8. d. An odometer is an instrument used to
canoe into motion. Kayak (choice b) is measure mileage. A compass is an instru-
incorrect because it is a type of boat similar ment used to determine direction. Choices a,
to a canoe. Choice d is incorrect because a b, c, and e are incorrect because none is an
fleet is a group of boats. instrument.
3. d. A window is made up of panes, and a book is 9. c. Fray and ravel are synonyms, as are jolt and
made up of pages. The answer is not choice shake.
a, because a novel is a type of book. The 10. c. An elephant is a pachyderm; a kangaroo is a
answer is not choice b, because glass has no marsupial.
relationship to a book. Choices c and e are 11. a. A psychologist treats a neurosis; an
incorrect because a book is not made up of ophthalmologist treats a cataract.
covers or indexes. 12. c. Upon harvesting, cotton is gathered into
4. b. An actor performs in a play. A musician bales; grain is gathered into shocks.
performs at a concert. Choices a, c, d, and e 13. a. Division and section are synonyms; layer and
are incorrect because none include people tier are synonyms.
who perform. 14. d. A mechanic works in a garage; a surgeon
5. e. A group of lions is called a pride. A group of works in a hospital.
fish swim in a school. Teacher (choice a) and 15. c. A chickadee is a type of bird; a Siamese is a
student (choice b) refer to another meaning type of cat.
of the word school. The answer is not choice 16. e. To saunter is to walk slowly; to drizzle is to
c or d because self-respect and learning have rain slowly.
no obvious relationship to this particular 17. b. To tailor a suit is to alter it; to edit a
meaning of school. manuscript is to alter it.
6. b. Elated is the opposite of despondent; 18. a. Jaundice is an indication of a liver problem;
enlightened is the opposite of ignorant. rash is an indication of a skin problem.
19. c. Obsession is a greater degree of interest;
fantasy is a greater degree of dream.
20. e. Slapstick results in laughter; horror results in
fear.
21. b. Verve and enthusiasm are synonyms;
devotion and reverence are synonyms.

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22. a. A conviction results in incarceration; a 8. e. Each 9-foot wall has an area of 9(8), or
reduction results in diminution. 72 square feet. There are two such walls, so
23. b. Being erudite is a trait of a professor; being those two walls combined have an area of
imaginative is a trait of an inventor. 144 square feet. Each 11-foot wall has an
24. d. Dependable and capricious are antonyms; area of 11(8), or 88 square feet, and again
capable and inept are antonyms. there are two such walls: 88(2) = 176. Finally,
25. c. Hegemony means dominance; autonomy add 144 and 176 to get 320 square feet.
means independence. 9. e. Substituting 40 for C in the equation yields
F = (95)(40) + 32 = 72 + 32 = 104.
Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning 10. a. The woman will have traveled 3.5 hours
1. c. Round 157 to 200 and round 817 to 800: at 45 miles per hour for a distance of
200 × 800 = 160,000. 157.5 miles. To reach her in 3 hours, the
2. d. It is important to remember to include all man must travel at 157.5 miles per 3 hours,
three telephone sets ($375 total), both or 52.5 mph.
computers ($2,600 total), and both 11. a. J = 6K. J + 2 = 2(K + 2), so 6K + 2 = 2K + 4,
monitors ($1,900 total) in the total value. which means K equals 12. J equals 6K, or 3.
3. e. To solve this problem, you must convert 312 12. e. The 827,036 bytes free on the flash drive
to 72 and then divide 72 by 14. The answer, 284, plus 542,159 bytes freed when the file was
is then reduced to the number 14. deleted equals 1,369,195 bytes: 1,369,195
4. a. Cancel factors that are common to the bytes minus 489,986 bytes put into the new
numerator and denominator, then multiply: file leaves 879,209 bytes free.
4/
8 × 7 = (4/)(2) × 7 = 14
5 4 5 5
13. d. First, add the number of patients to find
5. b. You cannot simply take 25% off the original the total: 63. Then, divide the number
price, because the 10% discount after three of patients by the number of nursing
years of service is taken off the price that assistants: 63 divided by 7 is 9.
has already been reduced by 15%. Figure 14. c. Let E = emergency room cost; H = hospice
the problem in two steps: After the 15% cost, which is 14E; N = home nursing cost,
discount, the price is $71.83. Another 10% which is 2H, or 2(14)E. The total bill is E + H
off that gives you $64.65. + N, which is E + 14E + 24E = 140,000. Add
6. c. The problem is solved by dividing 204 by the left side of the equation to get 74E =
1,700. The answer, 0.12, is then converted 140,000. To solve for E, multiply both sides
to a percentage—12%. of the equation by 47. E = 140,000(47), or
7. c. Use the equation .05(1) = .02(x), where x is 80,000. H = 14E, or 20,000, and N = 2H,
the total amount of water in the resulting or 40,000.
2% solution. Solving for x, you get 2.5. 15. b. If half the students are female, then you
Subtracting the 1 liter of water already would expect half of the out-of-state
1 1
present in the 5% solution, you will find students to be female. One-half of 12 is 24.
that 1.5 liters need to be added. 16. c. A foot in height makes a difference of
60 pounds, or 5 pounds per inch of height
over 5′. A person who is 5′5″ is (5)(5 pounds),
or 25 pounds, heavier than the person who
is 5′, so add 25 pounds to 110 pounds to get
135 pounds.
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17. d. The difference between 220 and this Subtest 3: Word Knowledge
person’s age is 190. The maximum heart 1. a. To be gauche is to lack social experience,
rate is 90% of this: (0.9)(190) = 171. grace, or aplomb; not tactful.
18. e. An amount equaling 30 ppm of the pollutant 2. b. To enumerate is to ascertain the number of;
would have to be removed to bring the to count.
50 ppm down to 20 ppm (30 ppm is 60% 3. c. To be triumphant is to rejoice in celebration
of 50 ppm). of victory.
19. e. Let E = the estimate. One-fifth more than 4. c. To be magnanimous is to be noble of mind
the estimate would be 65, or 120%, of E, so or generous.
600,000 = (1.20)(E). Dividing both sides 5. d. To have an aversion to something is to have
by 1.2 leaves E = 500,000. a feeling of repugnance for it or to dislike it.
20. b. In terms of grams, 250 milligrams is 6. d. To be poignant means to be keenly
250
1000 gram, or 0.250 grams. distressing.
21. c. Three tons = 6,000 pounds. At 16 ounces 7. e. An antagonist is an opponent.
per pound, 6,000 pounds = 96,000 ounces 8. c. Perseverance means steadfast in one’s
that can be carried by the truck. The total course, or persistent.
weight of each daily ration is 12 ounces + 9. a. Homogeneous means of the same or a
18 ounces + 18 ounces = 48 ounces per similar kind; alike.
soldier per day, and 96,000 2,000
48 = 2,000. So 10 days 10. c. To be conspicuous is to be obvious to the
= 200 soldiers supplied. eye or the mind.
22. e. Multiply the weight of each recyclable by 11. d. A recluse is a person who lives withdrawn
the best price it will bring and add the from the world; a hermit.
amount together: 2,200(0.07) = $154; 12. e. To tote something is to haul or carry it.
$154 + 1,400(0.04) = $210; 13. e. To be preeminent is to be outstanding or
$210 + 3,100(0.08) = $458; have supreme rank.
$458 + $900(0.03) = $485. 14. c. Something that is grotesque is distorted,
23. d. The total number of miles, 3,450, divided by misshapen, or bizarre.
6 days is 575 miles. 15. c. To be outmoded is to be out-of-date or
24. b. The present number of men, 30, multiplied obsolete.
by 42 square feet of space is 1,260 square 16. b. A statement that is garbled is scrambled and
feet of space; 1,260 square feet divided by confusing, or unintelligible.
35 men is 36 square feet, so each man will 17. b. If something is frail, it is easily broken or
have 6 square feet of space less. delicate.
25. c. Let T = Ted’s age; S = Sam’s age = 3T; 18. e. To be vindictive is to be vengeful or spiteful.
R = Ron’s age = 2S , or 3T2 . The sum of the 19. c. An oration is a formal speech or an address.
ages is 55, which means T + 3T + 3T 2 = 55. 20. b. A glib remark is quick and insincere, or
To find the common denominator (2), you superficial.
can add to the left side of the equation: 21. e. To be eccentric is to be unconventional or
T = 10. If Ted is 10, then Sam is 30, and peculiar.
Ron is 3T2 , which is 15 years old. 22. a. A panacea is a remedy for all ills; a cure-all.
23. a. To be detrimental is to be obviously
damaging and harmful.

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24. b. To be ostentatious is to be showy or 9. c. When dividing variables with exponents, if


pretentious. the variables are the same, you subtract the
25. a. To be negligible is to be unimportant or exponents to arrive at your answer:
n5 n ⋅ n ⋅ n ⋅ n ⋅ n 3
insignificant. = = n5− 2 = n .
n2
n ⋅n
10. a. First, factor the radicand:
Subtest 4: Math Knowledge 3n2 = 3 ⋅ n ⋅ n
1. c. When a number is marked off in groups of Now take out the square root of the perfect
two digits each, starting at the decimal square: 3 ⋅ n ⋅ n = n 3
point, the square root of the largest square You arrive at n 3 , choice a.
in the left hand group, whether one or two 11. c. This is a simple addition series. Each number
digits, is the first digit of the square root of increases by 16.
the number. In this case (11-20-92), 9 is the 12. b. Volume = 4.6 cubic feet. This is a square-
largest square in 11, and 3 is the square root based pyramid; its volume is a third of a
of 9. cube’s volume with the same base
2. b. A proportion can find an unknown side of a measurements, or 13bh. Plug its measure-
figure using known sides of a similar figure; ments into the formula: 13(2.4 ft.)2.4 ft.
a proportion can also find an unknown side Volume of square pyramid = 13(5.76 sq. ft.)
93 31
using known perimeters. 24 = s . Cross- 2.4 ft. = 13(13.824 cubic ft.) = 4.608 cubic ft.
multiply: 93s = (31)(24). 13. c. In this question, 15 of 820 = 164;
3. d. Perimeter uses a single measurement such 164 – 42 = 122.
as an inch to describe the outline of a figure. 14. e. Simplify the second term of the expression
Area and surface area use square measure- by factoring the radicand:
ments, an inch times an inch, to describe 2 7 – 3 28 = 2 7 – 3 4 ⋅ 7
two-dimensional space. Volume uses the Now simplify the radicand:
largest measurement; it uses the cubic 7 – 3 4 ⋅7 = 2 7 – 3 · 2 7
measurement, an inch times an inch times Finally, combine like terms:
an inch. Volume is three-dimensional; 2 7 – 6 7 = –4 7 , choice e.
its measurement must account for each 8xy2 4xy2
15. d. Divide numerical terms: 2xy = xy .
dimension. When similar factors, or bases, are being
4. b. The circumference of a circle is two times divided, subtract the exponent in the
the radius times pi. So, in this case, the denominator from the exponent in the
distance is 2 times 49, times 22, divided 4xy2
numerator. xy = 4x1–1y2–1.
by 7, or 308 miles. Simplify: 4x0y1 = 4(1)y = 4y.
5. a. First, change (B) and (C) to decimals: The answer is 4y, choice d.
5% = 0.05; 15 = 0.2. Then, find out which 16. c. In this question, 25 of 25 = 10; 10 – 6 = 4.
choice is true. 17. a. In this question, 4% of 20 = 0.8;
6. d. (B) and (C) are both equal to n × n. 3 × 0.8 = 2.4.
7. b. You are given the diameter, so use C = πd. 18. c. First, solve for (A), (B), and (C): (A) = 49,
Plug in the diameter and pi and multiply: (B) = 64, (C) = 15. Then, find out which
(3.14)(10) = 31.4. choice is true.
8. e. Obtuse angles are greater than 90°. Only
one answer choice, e, is greater than 90°.

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19. d. The factorial of a positive integer is that 23. b. First, solve for (A), (B), and (C): (A) = 40,
integer times each of the integers between (B) = 40, (C) = 20. Then, find out which
it and 1. In this case, 5 times 4 times 3 times choice is true.
2 equals 120. 24. d. Using a proportion, find x: 12 4.5
36 = x .
20. d. In this question, 15% of 30 = 4.5; Cross-multiply: 12x = 36(4.5); x = 13.5.
20 – 4.5 = 15.5, choice d. Polygon CRXZ is a rectangle whose sides
21. a. The reciprocal of a number is that number measure 13.5, 54, 13.5, and 54. To find the
1
divided into one. In this case, that is 10, perimeter of rectangle CRXZ, add the
or 0.1. measures of its sides together.
22. b. First, set up the equation: n + 2n = 99. 25. a. You are given the radius, so use C = 2πr.
Then, solve: 3n = 99; n = 33. Plug in the radius and pi and multiply:
(2)(3.14)(22) = 157. So your answer is
157 cm, or 1.57 m, choice a.

Subtest 5: Instrument Comprehension

QUESTION ANSWER HEADING PITCH ROLL

1. D 068° east-northeast none right

2. C 090° east none left

3. B 170° south down right

4. A 235° southwest up right

5. B 045° northeast up left

6. C 270° west none none

7. C 225° southwest down left

8. B 270° west up left

9. B 180° south down none

10. B 270° west up left

11. A 135° southeast down left

12. A 270° west down right

13. C 180° south down none

14. C 255° west-southwest up left

15. A 270° west up right

16. A 045° northeast up right

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17. B 090° east up none

18. A 180° south down right

19. C 270° west up right

20. D 180° south up left

Subtest 6: Block Counting 13. e. Block 13 touches six blocks: three blocks
1. b. Block 1 touches three blocks: one block to the above, one block to the right, and two
left, one block below, and one block to the blocks below.
right. 14. d. Block 14 touches five blocks: two blocks
2. b. Block 2 touches three blocks: two blocks to above, one block below, one block to the
the right and one block below. right, and one block to the left.
3. c. Block 3 touches four blocks: one block 15. b. Block 15 touches three blocks: one block
above, one block below, and two blocks to above and two blocks to the left.
the right. 16. c. Block 16 touches four blocks: two blocks
4. c. Block 4 touches four blocks: one block above, one block to the left, and one block
above, one block to the left, and two blocks below.
below. 17. c. Block 17 touches four blocks: one block
5. b. Block 5 touches three blocks: two blocks to above, one block to the left, and two blocks
the left and one block below. below.
6. b. Block 6 touches three blocks: one block to 18. a. Block 18 touches two blocks: one block to
the left, one block to the right, and one the right and one block below.
block below. 19. a. Block 19 touches two blocks: one block to
7. e. Block 7 touches four blocks: two blocks the left and one block below.
below, one block to the right, and one block 20. a. Block 20 touches two blocks: one block
above. above and one block to the right.
8. d. Block 8 touches five blocks: one block
below, two blocks to the left, and one block Subtest 7: Table Reading
above. 1. c. The intersection of the –3 column with the
9. c. Block 9 touches four blocks: one block 2 row yields an answer of 23.
below, one block to the left, one block to the 2. c. The intersection of the 2 column with the
right, and one block above. –2 row yields an answer of 48.
10. d. Block 10 touches five blocks: four blocks 3. a. The intersection of the –2 column with the
above and one block to the right. 3 row yields an answer of 44.
11. b. Block 11 touches three blocks: one block 4. e. The intersection of the 0 column with the
below and two blocks to the right. –1 row yields an answer of 14.
12. e. Block 12 touches six blocks: three blocks 5. c. The intersection of the 3 column with the
above, one block to the left, and two blocks 1 row yields an answer of 32.
below. 6. e. The intersection of the 2 column with the
–1 row yields an answer of 14.

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7. d. The intersection of the 0 column with the 28. b. The intersection of the –1 column with the
0 row yields an answer of 61. –4 row yields an answer of 93.
8. e. The intersection of the –2 column with the 29. a. The intersection of the –3 column with the
–1 row yields an answer of 49. 8 row yields an answer of 29.
9. e. The intersection of the –1 column with the 30. e. The intersection of the 5 column with the
2 row yields an answer of 99. –3 row yields an answer of 43.
10. b. The intersection of the 3 column with the 31. e. The intersection of the 0 column with the
3 row yields an answer of 53. 7 row yields an answer of 21.
11. b. The intersection of the –1 column with the 32. e. The intersection of the 4 column with the
–1 row yields an answer of 43. –4 row yields an answer of 34.
12. a. The intersection of the –2 column with the 33. e. The intersection of the 7 column with the
1 row yields an answer of 49. –3 row yields an answer of 51.
13. a. The intersection of the –3 column with the 34. b. The intersection of the –9 column with the
0 row yields an answer of 18. 3 row yields an answer of 74.
14. e. The intersection of the 1 column with the 35. d. The intersection of the 1 column with the
3 row yields an answer of 57. –8 row yields an answer of 12.
15. b. The intersection of the –3 column with the 36. c. The intersection of the 0 column with the
–2 row yields an answer of 86. 0 row yields an answer of 18.
16. a. The intersection of the –3 column with the 37. b. The intersection of the –5 column with the
–3 row yields an answer of 24. 0 row yields an answer of 74.
17. a. The intersection of the 2 column with the 38. c. The intersection of the –2 column with the
2 row yields an answer of 14. 7 row yields an answer of 11.
18. d. The intersection of the –2 column with the 39. a. The intersection of the –8 column with the
3 row yields an answer of 74. 5 row yields an answer of 55.
19. e. The intersection of the –1 column with the 40. b. The intersection of the –6 column with the
0 row yields an answer of 43. 4 row yields an answer of 68.
20. c. The intersection of the 0 column with the
2 row yields an answer of 64. Subtest 8: Aviation Information
21. b. The intersection of the 2 column with the 1. d. The rudder is the control surface on the
–3 row yields an answer of 43. vertical stabilizer or tail. Any deflection of
22. b. The intersection of the –1 column with the the rudder makes the aircraft move about
3 row yields an answer of 88. the yaw, or vertical axis.
23. b. The intersection of the 2 column with the 2. b. The elevator is the control surface on the
2 row yields an answer of 22. horizontal stabilizer. Any deflection of the
24. c. The intersection of the –3 column with the elevator makes the aircraft move about the
1 row yields an answer of 81. pitch axis. The pitch axis runs from one
25. d. The intersection of the 2 column with the wingtip to the other, passing through the
3 row yields an answer of 11. aircraft’s center of gravity.
26. c. The intersection of the 9 column with the
–4 row yields an answer of 52.
27. a. The intersection of the –5 column with the
9 row yields an answer of 54.

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3. c. The aileron is the control surface on the 11. c. Transponder codes are as follows:
trailing edge of the wings. Any deflection of Hijacking 7500
the aileron makes the aircraft move about Loss of comms 7600
the roll axis. The roll axis runs the length Emergency 7700
of the aircraft from nose to tail, passing 12. d. Zulu time refers to the time in Greenwich
through the center of gravity. England, commonly known as Greenwich
4. b. Pushing the right rudder pedal in causes Mean Time. Zulu time is commonly used
the rudder control surface to move into the for aviation, especially when several time
windstream to the right, which pushes the zones will be crossed.
tail of the airplane left, and the nose of 13. a. The Pitot system measures airspeed by
the airplane right. measuring the impact pressure of the
5. a. Angle of attack is defined as the angle relative wind and comparing it to the static
between the airfoil chord and the relative pressure. The static system measures static
direction of motion. pressure, which indicates altitude.
6. c. Drag refers to the rearward force on an 14. b. Pitch angle of an aircraft refers to the angle
aircraft caused by air friction and lift. between the extended fuselage of the aircraft
More specifically, parasite drag refers to the and the horizon. For example, an aircraft
component of drag associated with friction, flying straight up would have a pitch angle
and induced drag refers to the component of 90°.
associated with lift. 15. a. A wing with flaps fully extended will
7. a. Camber refers to the side (cross-section) generally produce more lift and more drag.
view of a wing’s shape. This shape causes The flaps increase the wing’s camber, which
the air to travel faster over the top portion causes more lift and more induced drag.
of the wing and therefore causes lift. 16. d. The wind flowing over a wing, which is
8. e. Pulling back on the aircraft controls causes creating lift, moves faster than the wind
the elevators to be deflected up into the flowing beneath the wing. This increased
airstream, which pushes the tail of the velocity causes a lower air pressure on the
aircraft down and the nose of the aircraft up. top of the wing compared with the air
9. b. Increasing the angle of attack of an aircraft pressure below the wing. This difference
will eventually cause a stall as the airflow in air pressure is lift.
over the wing detaches from the wing’s 17. c. Airport runways are numbered according to
surface. the first two digits of compass heading, with
10. b. One knot (nautical mile per hour) is equal the zero omitted for headings between 010
to approximately 87 of a mph (mile per hour). and 090.
A nautical mile is approximately 6,080 feet, 18. c. Wake turbulence is caused by the higher-
but a statute mile is approximately 5,280 feet. pressure air under a wing escaping in an
The ratio of these distances can be outward direction from the wingtip to the
approximated with the ratio of 8:7. lower-pressure air flowing above the wing.
Therefore 100 knots is a faster speed than This escaping air will swirl upward, causing
100 mph. vortices, known as wake turbulence.

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19. b. The port running lights are red; the 12. d. The molecule CH3NH2 contains one atom
starboard lights are green. Positional lights of carbon, one atom of nitrogen, and five
are white. atoms of hydrogen, for a total of seven
20. b. Mach 1 is the speed of sound for a given atoms.
air density. 13. e. The Celsius scale is part of the metric
system. On the Celsius scale, the freezing
Subtest 9: General Science point of water is 0°; the boiling point is
1. c. Air consists of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 100°.
and the remainder is made up of noble 14. a. Momentum equals mass (amount of matter
gases and rare earth elements. in an object) times velocity (speed in a
2. c. Boyle’s law states that for a given pressure, given direction).
temperature and volume are directly 15. e. To express a number in scientific notation,
proportional. you move the decimal as many places as
3. b. Ohm’s law states that current and resistance necessary until there is only one digit to the
are inversely proportional. Therefore, any left of the decimal. For 617,000, you move
increase in one would result in a correspon- the decimal to the left by five decimal
ding decrease in the other. places. The fact that you had to move it to
4. a. Ultraviolet, x-ray, and gamma ray the left means that the 10 should be raised
wavelengths are all shorter than visible light. to a positive power, so the result is 6.17 × 105.
Infrared wavelengths are slightly longer 16. e. Gravity pulls the ball downward as it moves
than visible light on the electromagnetic forward.
spectrum. 17. c. Igneous rocks make up a group of rocks
5. a. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14. If a formed from the crystallization of magma
substance has a pH of 7.0, it is considered (lava).
neutral; pH values of less than 7 indicate 18. a. One hundred centimeters equals 1 meter,
acids, and values greater than 7 are bases. and 1,000 meters equals 1 kilometer.
6. e. Protons are subatomic particles located in 19. b. Fiber is found only in plants. Raw
the nucleus of an atom and have positive vegetables, fruit with seeds, whole cereals,
electrical charges. and bread are possible sources of fiber.
7. d. Vectors are defined by both length and 20. a. Deciduous forests are characterized by
direction. having mild temperatures and many trees
8. c. The pancreas is the organ responsible for that periodically shed leaves.
insulin production.
9. b. The four planets in our solar system that are Subtest 10: Rotated Blocks
considered gas giants are Jupiter, Saturn, 1. a.
Uranus, and Neptune. 2. a.
10. c. Carbon dioxide, or CO2, is made up of both 3. e.
carbon and oxygen. 4. c.
11. c. The dissolved solution is in equilibrium 5. c.
with the undissolved in saturated solutions. 6. d.
7. b.
8. c.

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9. a. 6. d.
10. b.
11. b.
12. a.
13. b.
14. a.
15. c.
7. e.
Subtest 11: Hidden Figures
1. b.

8. a.

2. c.

9. c.

3. e.

10. b.

4. d.

11. d.

5. a.

297
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–PRACTICE TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST –

12. c. 14. e.

13. b. 15. a.

For information on how the official AFOQT is scored,


see Chapter 3.

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