03/09/2020

Evening

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs. Questions & Answers M.M. : 300

for
JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2
(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-II : This section contains 5 SA type questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking for
wrong answer.
 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

PART–A : PHYSICS

4. Hydrogen ion and singly ionized helium atom

SECTION - I
are accelerated, from rest, through the same
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 potential difference. The ratio of final speeds of
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 hydrogen and helium ions is close to

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE (1) 2 : 1

is correct. (2) 1 : 2
(3) 10 : 7
Choose the correct answer :
(4) 5 : 7
1. To raise the temperature of a certain mass
of gas by 50°C at a constant pressure, Answer (1)
160 calories of heat is required. When the 5. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic
same mass of gas is cooled by 100°C at wave propagating along the x direction in
constant volume, 240 calories of heat is 
vacuum is E = E0 ˆj cos  t – kx  . The magnetic
released. How many degrees of freedom does
each molecule of this gas have (assume gas to 
field B , at the moment t = 0 is
be ideal)? 
(1) B = E0 0 0 cos kx  ˆj
(1) 6 (2) 7

(3) 3 (4) 5 (2) B = E0 0 0 cos kx  kˆ
Answer (1)  E0
(3) B =   cos kx  k
ˆ
2. Two sources of light emit X-rays of wavelength
0 0
1 nm and visible light of wavelength 500 nm,
respectively. Both the sources emit light of the  E0
(4) B =   cos kx  j
ˆ
same power 200 W. The ratio of the number
0 0
density of photons of X-rays to the number
density of photons of the visible light of the Answer (2)
given wavelengths is
6. A perfectly diamagnetic sphere has a small
1 1 spherical cavity at its centre, which is filled
(1) (2) with a paramagnetic substance. The whole
250 500

system is placed in a uniform magnetic field B .
(3) 500 (4) 250
Then the field inside the paramagnetic
Answer (2) substance is
3. A block of mass m attached to a massless
spring is performing oscillatory motion of
amplitude ‘A’ on a frictionless horizontal plane.
If half of the mass of the block breaks off P
when it is passing through its equilibrium point,
the amplitude of oscillation for the remaining
system become fA. The value of f is
 
(1) Much large than B and parallel to B
1
(1) (2) 2 
2 (2) B
 
1 (3) Much large than B but opposite to B
(3) 1 (4)
2 (4) Zero
Answer (1) Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

7. Which of the following will NOT be observed 10. The mass density of a planet of radius R varies
when a multimeter (operating in resistance with the distance r from its centre as
measuring mode) probes connected across a
 r2 
component, are just reversed? (r)  0  1  2  . Then the gravitational field is
 R 
(1) Multimeter shows NO deflection in both  
cases i.e. before and after reversing the maximum at
probes if the chosen component is
1 3
capacitor. (1) r  R (2) r  R
3 4
(2) Multimeter shows NO deflection in both
cases i.e. before and after reversing the
5
probes if the chosen component is metal (3) r  R (4) r = R
9
wire.
Answer (3)
(3) Multimeter shows a deflection,
accompanied by a splash of light out of 11. Amount of solar energy received on the earth’s
connected component in one direction and surface per unit area per unit time is defined a
NO deflection on reversing the probes if the solar constant. Dimension of solar constant is
chosen component is LED. (1) ML2T–2 (2) MLT–2
(4) Multimeter shows an equal deflection in (3) M2L0T–1 (4) ML0T–3
both cases i.e. before and after reversing
the probes if the chosen component is Answer (4)
resistor. 12. Two resistors 400  and 800  are connected in
Answer (3) series across a 6 V battery. The potential
difference measured by a voltmeter of 10 k
8. Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii R across 400  resistor is close to
and 4R hold charges Q 1 and Q2 respectively.
(1) 2.05 V (2) 1.8 V
Given that surface charge densities of the
concentric spheres are equal, the potential (3) 2 V (4) 1.95 V
difference V(R) – V(4R) is Answer (4)
13. A uniform magnetic field B exists in a direction
3Q 2
(1) 4  R perpendicular to the plane of a square loop
0
made of a metal wire. The wire has a diameter
of 4 mm and a total length of 30 cm. The
3Q 1
(2) 16 R magnetic field changes with time at a steady
0 rate dB/dt = 0.032 Ts–1. The induced current in
the loop is close to (Resistivity of the metal
Q2 wire is 1.23 × 10–8 m)
(3) 4  R
0 (1) 0.34 A (2) 0.61 A
(3) 0.53 A (4) 0.43 A
3Q 1
(4) 4  R Answer (2)
0

Answer (2) 14. A calorimeter of water equivalent 20 g contains

180 g of water at 25°C. ‘m’ grams of steam at
9. A metallic sphere cools from 50°C to 40°C in 300 100°C is mixed in it till the temperature of the
s. If atmospheric temperature around is 20°C, mixture is 31°C. The value of ‘m’ is close to
then the sphere’s temperature after the next 5 (Latent heat of water = 540 cal g–1, specific
minutes will be close to heat of water = 1 cal g–1 °C–1)
(1) 28°C (2) 35°C (1) 2 (2) 3.2
(3) 33°C (4) 31°C (3) 2.6 (4) 4
Answer (3) Answer (1)
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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

15. The radius of R of a nucleus of mass number A 18. If a semiconductor photodiode can detect a
can be estimated by the formula R = photon with a maximum wavelength of 400 nm,
(1.3 × 10 –15 )A 1/3 m. It follows that the mass then its band gap energy is
density of a nucleus is of the order of (Mprot.  Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J.s.
Mneut.  1.67 × 10–27 kg) Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s
(1) 1024 kg m–3 (2) 1010 kg m–3 (1) 1.1 eV (2) 2.0 eV
(3) 1017 kg m–3 (4) 103 kg m–3 (3) 3.1 eV (4) 1.5 eV
Answer (3) Answer (3)
16. Two light waves having the same wavelength 
in vacuum are in phase initially. Then the first 19. 
wave travels a path L1 through a medium of
FV
refractive index n 1 while the second wave
travels a path of length L2 through a medium of FH
 l
refractive index n 2 . After this the phase
difference between the two waves is

2
(1) (n2L1  n1L2 )


2   L1 L 2  A uniform rod of length ‘l’ is pivoted at one of


(2)   n1 n2  its ends on a vertical shaft of negligible radius.
When the shaft rotates at angular speed  the
2 rod makes an angle  with it (see figure). To
(3) (n1L1  n2L2 )
 find  equate the rate of change of angular
momentum (direction going into the paper)
2   L 2 L1 

(4)   n1 n2  ml2 2
 sin  cos  about the centre of mass
12
Answer (3)
(CM) to the torque provided by the horizontal
17. A particle is moving unidirectionally on a and vertical forces FH and FV about the CM. The
horizontal plane under the action of a constant value of  is then such that
power supplying energy source. The
displacement (s) - time (t) graph that describes
g 2g
the motion of the particle is (graphs are drawn (1) cos   2 (2) cos  
schematically and are not to scale) l 3l2

s
g 3g
(3) cos   2 (4) cos  
(1) 2l 2l2
t Answer (4)
s
20. A block of mass 1.9 kg is at rest at the edge of
(2) a table, of height 1m. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg
t collides with the block and sticks to it. If the
velocity of the bullet is 20 m/s in the horizontal
s
direction just before the collision then the
(3) kinetic energy just before the combined system
strikes the floor, is [Take g = 10 m/s2. Assume
t
there is no rotational motion and loss of energy
s after the collision is negligable.]

(4) (1) 19 J (2) 23 J

t (3) 20 J (4) 21 J
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

SECTION - II X
F
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/roundedoff to the second decimal place; E a G
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) using Answer (25)
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad 23. A galvanometer coil has 500 turns and each
in the place designated to enter the answer. turn has an average area of 3 × 10–4 m2. If a
torque of 1.5 Nm is required to keep this coil
21. A block starts moving up an inclined plane of parallel to a magnetic field when a current of
inclination 30° with an initial velocity of v0. It 0.5 A is flowing through it, the strength of the
comes back to its initial position with velocity field (in T) is __________.
v0
. The value of the coefficient of kinetic Answer (20)
2
friction between the block and the inclined 24. If minimum possible work is done by a
refrigerator in converting 100 grams of water
I at 0°C to ice, how much heat (in calories) is
plane is close to . The nearest integer to
1000 released to the surroundings at temperature
I is _________. 27°C (Latent heat of ice = 80 Cal/gram) to the
nearest integer ?
Answer (346)
Answer (8791)
22. An massless equilateral triangle EFG of side ‘a’
(As shown in figure) has three particles of 25. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm
mass m situated at its vertices. The moment of from a concave mirror, the image is formed at
inertia of the system about the line EX a distance of 10 cm from the mirror. If the
perpendicular to EG in the plane of EFG is object is moved with a speed of 9 cms–1, the
N speed (in cms–1) with which image moves at
ma2 where N is an integer. The value of N is that instant is _____.
20
_________. Answer (1)

‰‰‰

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

PART–B : CHEMISTRY
4. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) – (d)
SECTION - I
regarding acid rain is (are)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (a) It can corrode water pipes.
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
(b) It can damage structures made up of stone.
is correct.
(c) It cannot cause respiratory ailments in
Choose the correct answer :
animals.
1. The incorrect statement is (d) It is not harmful for trees.
(1) Manganate and permanganate ions are (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
paramagnetic
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only
(2) Manganate and permanganate ions are
tetrahedral Answer (3)
(3) Manganate ion is green in colour and 5. The increasing order of the reactivity of the
permanganate ion is purple in colour following compounds in nucleophilic addition
reaction is
(4) In manganate and permanganate ions, the
-bonding takes place by overlap of Propanal, Benzaldehyde, Propanone, Butanone
p-orbitals of oxygen and d-orbitals of (1) Propanal < Propanone < Butanone <
manganese Benzaldehyde
Answer (1) (2) Benzaldehyde < Propanal < Propanone <
2. Consider the hypothetical situation where the Butanone
azimuthal quantum number, l, takes value 0, 1,
(3) Benzaldehyde < Butanone < Propanone <
2, ... n + 1, where n is the principal quantum
Propanal
number. Then, the element with atomic number
(4) Butanone < Propanone < Benzaldehyde <
(1) 9 is the first alkali metal
Propanal
(2) 6 has a 2p-valence subshell
Answer (4)
(3) 8 is the first noble gas
6. Three isomers A, B and C (mol. formula C8H11N)
(4) 13 has a half-filled valence subshell give the following results
Answer (4)
Diazotization
3. The decreasing order of reactivity of the A and C 
following compounds towards nucleophilic
substitution (SN2) is (i) Hydrolysis R (product of A)
P  Q  
CH2Cl CH2Cl (ii) Oxidation S (product of C)
NO 2 (KMnO 4  H )

NO 2
R has lower boiling point than S
(I) (II)
CH2Cl C H SO Cl
CH2Cl B 
6 5 2  alkali-insoluble product

A, B and C, respectively are

NO 2
O2N NO2 NH 2 CH2NH 2 NH2
NO2
(III) (IV) (1)
, ,
CH2CH3
(1) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I) CH3 CH2 CH3
(2) (II) > (III) > (I) > (IV)
(3) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I) CH2 CH3 CH2NHCH 3 NH 2
(2)
(4) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I) , ,
CH2CH 3
Answer (3) NH 2

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

CH2CH 3 NHCH2 CH3 NH 2 (1) (i)-(d); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(e)

(3) , , (2) (i)-(d); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
H 2N CH2CH3
(3) (i)-(e); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(d)
NH 2 CH2 NHCH3 CH 2CH3 (4) (i)-(a); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(e)
(4) , ,
CH 2CH3 H2 N Answer (2)

Answer (4) 10. Consider the following molecules and

statements related to them
7. Among the statements (I – IV), the correct ones
O
are
H
(I) Be has smaller atomic radius compared to (A)
O
Mg. C H
(II) Be has higher ionization enthalpy than Al.
O
(III) Charge/radius ratio of Be is greater than O
H
that of Al. H
(IV)Both Be and Al form mainly covalent (B) O
compounds. C
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) (2) (I), (II) and (IV)
O
(3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (II), (III) and (IV) (a) (B) is more likely to be crystalline than (A)
Answer (2) (b) (B) has higher boiling point than (A)
8. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to (c) (B) dissolves more readily than (A) in water
it 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of
2 mL and the pH is continuously measured. Identify the correct option from below
Which of the following graphs correctly depicts (1) (a) and (c) are true
the change in pH? (2) Only (a) is true
(3) (b) and (c) are true
7 (4) (a) and (b) are true
pH 7
pH Answer (3)
(1) (2)
11. The strengths of 5.6 volume hydrogen peroxide
vol. of NaOH vol. of NaOH
(of density 1 g/mL) in terms of mass percentage
and molarity (M), respectively, are
7 (Take molar mass of hydrogen peroxide as
34 g/ mol)
pH 7 pH
(3) (4) (1) 1.7 and 0.5 (2) 0.85 and 0.5
vol. of NaOH vol. of NaOH (3) 1.7 and 0.25 (4) 0.85 and 0.25
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
3
9. Match the following drugs with their therapeutic 12. For the reaction 2A  3B  C  3P , which
2
actions statement is correct?
(i) Ranitidine (a) Antidepressant dnA 3 dnB 3 dnC
(1)  
dt 2 dt 4 dt
(ii) Nardil (b) Antibiotic
dnA dnB dnC
(Phenelzine) (2)  
dt dt dt
(iii) Chloramphenicol (c) Antihistamine dnA 2 dnB 4 dnC
(3)  
(iv) Dimetane (d) Antacid dt 3 dt 3 dt
(Brompheniramine) dnA 2 dnB 3 dnC
(4)  
dt 3 dt 4 dt
(e) Analgesic
Answer (3)
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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

13. The five successive ionization enthalpies of an 17. A mixture of one mole each of H2, He and O2
element are 800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and 32824 each are enclosed in a cylinder of volume V at
kJ mol–1. The number of valence electrons in temperature T. If the partial pressure of H2 is
the element is 2 atm, the total pressure of the gases in the
cylinder is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 14 atm (2) 38 atm
(3) 2 (4) 5
(3) 22 atm (4) 6 atm
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
14. An ionic micelle is formed on the addition of
18. The compound A in the following reactions is
(1) excess water to liquid
(i) CH MgBr/H O
A 
3 2

– (ii) Conc. H2SO 4 / 

SO4

N N (i) O
H 3C CH 3 B 
3
C  D
(ii) Zn/H2O

(2) excess water to liquid

(i) Conc. KOH
C   COO K +
+
CH2OH
(ii) 

 s
N N PF6
H 3C CH 3
CH3 O
I II
Ba(OH)2
D  H3C  C  CH  C  CH3
(3) sodium stearate to pure toluene 

(4) liquid diethyl ether to aqueous NaCl O

solution II
(1) C6H5  C CH2CH3
Answer (1)
O
15. The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en) 3]Cl 2 II
and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2, respectively are (2) C6H5  C  CH3

(1) t 62g e0g and t 62g e0g O

II
(3) C6H5  CH2  C  CH3
(2) t 62g e0g and t 2g
4
e2g O
II CH3
4
(4) C6H5  C CH
(3) t 2g e2g and t 2g
4
e2g CH3
Answer (3)
4
(4) t 2g e2g and t 62g e0g 19. Consider the following reaction :
Answer (2)
OHc
16. The major product in the following reaction is dHO CH3
OHb
I OHa

t  BuOH
 
Heat

Chromic
 'P'
anhydride
Ot-Bu
The product ‘P’ gives positive ceric ammonium
(1) (2) nitrate test. This is because of the presence of
which of these –OH group(s)?
(1) (d) only (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (4)
(3) (b) only (4) (b) and (d)
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

20. Complex A has a composition of H12O6Cl3Cr. If 22. 6.023 × 1022 molecules are present in 10 g of a
the complex on treatment with conc. H 2SO 4 substance ‘x’. The molarity of a solution
loses 13.5% of its original mass, the correct containing 5 g of substance ‘x’ in 2 L solution is
molecular formula of A is ______× 10–3.
[Given : atomic mass of Cr = 52 amu and Answer (25.00)
Cl = 35 amu] 23. An acidic solution of dichromate is electrolyzed
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 for 8 minutes using 2 A current. As per the
(2) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl·2H2O following equation

(3) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3]·3H2O Cr2 O72   14H  6e   2Cr 3  7H2 O

(4) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O The amount of Cr3+ obtained was 0.104 g. The
Answer (2) efficiency of the process (in%) is (Take :
F = 96000 C, At. mass of chromium = 52)
SECTION - II ______.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Answer (60.00)
contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is
24. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 N NaOH required to
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the neutralise 10 mL of 0.1 N phosphinic acid is
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, ______.
truncated/roundedoff to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) using Answer (10.00)
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad 25. If 250 cm3 of an aqueous solution containing
in the place designated to enter the answer. 0.73 g of a protein A is isotonic with one litre of
another aqueous solution containing 1.65 g of
a protein B, at 298 K, the ratio of the molecular
21. The number of C O groups present in a
masses of A and B is __________ × 10–2 (to the
tripeptide Asp – Glu – Lys is _______. nearest integer).
Answer (04.00) Answer (177)

  

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

PART–C : MATHEMATICS

5. Let a, b cR be such that a2 + b2 + c2 = 1. If

SECTION - I
 2   4 
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 a cos   b cos      ccos    , where
e
 3   3 
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 
  , then the angle between the vectors s
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE 9
is correct. aiˆ  bjˆ  ckˆ and biˆ  cjˆ  akˆ is :

Choose the correct answer : 

(1) 0 (2)
9
1/2 x2
1. If the value of the integral 0 (1  x2 )3/2
dx is
(3)
2
(4)

k 3 2
, then k is equal to :
6 Answer (4)
(1) 2 3   6. Suppose f(x) is a polynomial of degree four,
having critical points at –1, 0, 1. If T = {x  R |
(2) 3 2   f(x) = f(0)}, then the sum of squares of all the
elements of T is :
(3) 3 2  
(1) 4 (2) 2
(4) 2 3  
(3) 6 (4) 8
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
2. Let R 1 and R 2 be two relation defined as
follows : 7. Let e 1 and e 2 be the eccentricities of the
R1 = {(a, b) R2 : a2 + b2Q} and x2 y2
ellipse,   1 b  5  and the hyperbola,
R2 = {(a, b) R2 : a2 + b2Q}, where Q is the 25 b 2
x2 y2
set of all rational numbers. Then :   1 respectively satisfying e1e2 = 1. If 
16 b 2
(1) Neither R1 nor R2 is transitive. and  are the distances between the foci of the
(2) R2 is transitive but R1 is not transitive. ellipse and the foci of the hyperbola
respectively, then the ordered pair (, ) is
(3) R1 and R2 are both transitive. equal to :
(4) R1 is transitive but R2 is not transitive.
(1) (8, 10)
Answer (1)
3. Let p, q, r be three statements such that the  24 
(2)  , 10 
truth value of (p  q)  (~q  r) is F. Then the  5 
truth values of p, q, r are respectively :
 20 
(1) T, F, T (2) F, T, F (3)  , 12 
 3 
(3) T, T, T (4) T, T, F
(4) (8, 12)
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
4. Let the latus ractum of the parabola y2 = 4x be
the common chord to the circles C 1 and C2 8. If the term independent of x in the expansion of
each of them having radius 2 5 . Then, the 9
3 2 1 
distance between the centres of the circles C1  x   is k, then 18 k is equal to :
and C2 is : 2 3x 

(1) 8 (2) 12 (1) 9 (2) 11

(3) 8 5 (4) 4 5 (3) 5 (4) 7

Answer (1) Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

9. The set of all real values of  for which the 13. If z 1 , z 2 are complex numbers such that
quadratic equations, ( 2 + 1) x2 – 4x + 2 = 0 Re(z1)  z1 – 1 , Re(z2 )  z 2 – 1 , and
always have exactly one root in the interval
(0, 1) is : 
arg(z1 – z 2 )  , then Im(z1 + z2) is equal to
(1) (–3, –1) (2) (2, 4] 6
(3) (0, 2) (4) (1, 3] 3
(1)
Answer (4) 2
10. If the sum of the series
1
(2)
3 1 4 3
20  19  19  18  ... upto n th term is 488
5 5 5
2
and the nth term is negative, then (3)
3
(1) n = 41
2 (4) 2 3
(2) nth term is –4
5 Answer (4)
(3) n = 60 14. Let x i (1  i  10) be ten observations of a
(4) nth term is –4 10
Answer (4) random variable X. If  (xi  p)  3 and
i1
11. Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix such that 10

 2 –1 1   (xi  p)2  9 where 0  0 p  R, then the

i1
adj A  –1 0 2  and B = adj(adj A).
standard deviation of these observations is
 1 –2 –1 
7 9
(1) (2)
If A   and (B–1)T  , then the ordered pair,, 10 10

  ,  is equal to 3 4
(3) (4)
5 5
(1) (3, 81)
 1 Answer (2)
(2)  9, 
 9 15. If a ABC has vertices A(–1, 7), B(–7, 1) and
C(5, –5), then its orthocentre has coordinates
 1
(3)  3,  (1) (–3, 3)
 81 
 1  3 3
(4)  9, (2)   , 
  5 5
 81 
Answer (3) (3) (3, –3)

–1   3 3
12. If  sin
x
 1  x  dx  A(x) tan
–1
 x   B(x)  C, (4)  ,  
5 5
 
where C is a constant of integration, then the Answer (1)
ordered pair (A(x), B(x)) can be
16. The plane which bisects the line joining, the
(1)  x  1, – x  points (4, –2, 3) and (2, 4, –1) at right angles
also passes through the point:
(2)  x  1, x  (1) (4, 0, 1)
(2) (0, –1, 1)
(3)  x – 1, – x  (3) (0, 1, –1)
(4)  x – 1, x  (4) (4, 0, –1)

Answer (1) Answer (4)

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 JEE (MAIN)-2020 (Online) Phase-2

17. If the surface area of a cube is increasing at a

SECTION - II
rate of 3.6 cm2/sec, retaining its shape; then
the rate of change of its volume (in cm3/sec), Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
when the length of a side of the cube is contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is
10 cm, is:
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
(1) 9 (2) 20 correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(3) 10 (4) 18 truncated/rounded off to the second decimal place;
Answer (1) e.g. 06.25, 07.00, -00.33, -00.30, 30.27, -27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad
1 1 in the place designated to enter the answer.
(a  2x) 3  (3x) 3
18. lim (a  0) is equal to : 21. Let a plane P contain two lines
x a 1 1
3 3
(3a  x)  (4x) 
1  
r  ˆi   ˆi  ˆj ,   R and
 2   2 3 
(1)    
 9  3   
r   ˆj   ˆj  kˆ ,   R

1 If Q(, , ) is the foot of the perpendicular

 2   2 3 drawn from the point M(1, 0, 1) to P, then
(2)    
 3  9  3( +  + ) equals _______.
4
Answer (5.00)
 2 3
(3)  
3 22. The total number of 3-digit numbers, whose
4 sum of digits is 10, is ______.
 2 3
(4)   Answer (54)
9
23. Let S be the set of all integer solutions, (x, y, z),
Answer (2)
of the system of equations
19. If x 3dy + xy dx = x 2dy + 2y dx; y(2) = e and
x > 1, then y(4) is equal to : x – 2y + 5z = 0

e –2x + 4y + z = 0
(1)
2 –7x + 14y + 9z = 0
1
(2)  e such that 15  x 2 + y 2 + z 2  150. Then, the
2
number of elements in the set S is equal to
3 ______ .
(3)  e
2
Answer (8)
3
(4) e 24. If m arithmetic means (A.Ms) and three
2
geometric means (G.Ms) are inserted between
Answer (4)
3 and 243 such that 4 th A.M. is equal to 2 nd
20. The probability that a randomly chosen 5-digit G.M., then m is equal to _________ .
number is made from exactly two digits is :
Answer (39)
150 134
(1) (2) 25. If the tangent to the curve, y = ex at a point
10 4 10 4
(c, ec) and the normal to the parabola, y2 = 4x
121 135 at the point (1, 2) intersect at the same point on
(3) 4 (4)
10 10 4 the x-axis, then the value of c is ________ .

Answer (4) Answer (4)

  

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