Bank Soal

PERMESINAN KAPAL
1. The property of a fluid which enables it to resistten sile stress is known as

A.Compressibility
B. Surfacetension
C. Cohesion
D. I don’t know
2. Property of a fluid by which hmolecules of different kind so ffluid

sareattractedto each other is called
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Viscosity
D. I don’t know
3. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"

A. At normal pressure of 760 mm
B. At 4° C temperature
C. At mean sea level
D. I don’t know
4. Specific weight of waterin S.I. units is equal to
A. 1000 N/m3
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 xlo3 N/m3
D. I don’t know
5. When the flow parametersatany given in stant remain same at every point, then
flow is said to be
A. Quasi static
B. Steadystate
C. Laminar
D. I don’t know
6. Which of the following is demensionless
A. Specific weight
B. Specific volume
PERMESINAN KAPAL
C. Specific gravity
D. I don’t know
7. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
A. It is incompressible
B. It has uniform viscosity
C. It has zero viscosity
D. It is frictionless
E. It is at rest.
8. The pressure at appoint in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the
fluid is
A. Moving
B. Viscous
C. Viscous and static
D. I don’t know
9. An object having 10kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on aspring balance.The value of

'g'at this place is
A. 10m/sec2
B. 9.81 m/sec2
C. 10.2/msec
D. I don’t know
10. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Viscosity
D. I don’t know
11. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
A. More
B. Less
C. More or less depending on size of glass tube
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL
12. A perfect gas

A. Has constant viscosity
B. Has zero viscosity
C. Is in compressible
D. I don’t know
13. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
A. Remains same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. I don’t know
14. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain
A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. All of the above.
D. I don’t know
15. Viscosity of waterin comparison to mercury is

A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. I don’t know
16. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
D. I don’t know
17. The bulk modulus of elasticity
A. Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
B. Increases with pressure
C. Is large when fluid is more compressible
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL
18. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

A. Law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. Principle of buoyancy
D. I don’t know
19. The value of the coefficient to compressibility for water at ordinary pressure
and temperature in kg/cm is equal to
A. 1000
B. 2100
C. 10,000
D. I don’t know
20. The increase of temperature results in

A. Increase in viscosity of gas
B. Increase in viscosity of liquid
C. Decrease in viscosity of liquid
D. I don’t know
21. Surface tension has the units of
A. Newtons/m
B. Newtons/m
C. Newton m.
D. I don’t know
22. Surface tension
A. Actsin the plane of the interface normal to anyline in the surface
B. Is also known as capillarity
C. Has no units.
D. I don’t know
23. The stress-strain relation of the newtone on fluid is

A. Linear
B. Parabolic
PERMESINAN KAPAL
C. None of the above.

D. I don’t know
24. A liquid compress edincy linder has a volume of 0.04m3 at 50kg/cm2 and a
volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
A. 400 kg/cm2
B. None of the above.
C. 40 x 105 kg/cm2
D. I don’t know
25. The units of viscosity are
A. Metres2 per sec
B. Kg sec/metre
D. I don’t know
26. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

A. Pressure
B. Distance
C. Flow
D. I don’t know
27. Units of surface tension are

A. Energy/unit area
B. Distance
D. I don’t know
28. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity

A. Red wood
B. Saybolt
D. I don’t know
29. Choose the correct relationship
A. Specific gravity = gravityx density
PERMESINAN KAPAL
B. Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity density

C. Gravity = specific gravityx density
D. I don’t know
30. Dimensions of surface tension are

A. Mll°T2
B. Mll°Tx
C. Mll°t.
D. I don’t know
31. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

A. Higher surface tension
B. Lower surface tension
C. Surface tension is no criterion
D. I don’t know
32. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of

mercury will be following cm of water
A. 51cm
B. 50 cm
C. 51.7cm.
D. I don’t know.
33. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because

A. Its vapour pressure is low
B. It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
C. It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
D. I don’t know.
34. Increase in pressure at the outeredgeofadrumofradius R due to rotation at

corad/sec, full of liquid of density will be
A. Pco2/?2
B. Pco2/?2/2
D. I don’t know.
PERMESINAN KAPAL
35. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
A. Surface tension
B. Adhesion
C. All of the above.
D. I don’t know.
36. Choose the wrong statement
A. Fluids are capable of flowing
B. Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
C. Fluids have some degree of comprehensibility and offer little resistance to
form.
D. I don’t know
37. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C 20°C
D. I don’t know
38. If wisthe specific weigh to fliquid and the depth of any point from the surface,
then pressure in ten sityat that point will be
A. H
B. Wh
C. W/h
D. I don’t know
38. Choose the wrong statement
A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its
resistance to a shearing force
B.Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid
molecules
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with increasein
temperature
PERMESINAN KAPAL
D. I don’t know
39. The units of kinematic viscosity are

A. Metres2 per sec
B. Kg sec/meter
C. Newton-secper meter
D. I don’t know
40. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

A. Specific viscosity
B. Viscosity index
C. Kinematic viscosity
D. I don’t know
41. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

A. Dynamic viscosity/density
B. Dynamic viscosityx density
C. Density/dynamic viscosity
D. I don’t know
42. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

A. Pascal
B. Poise
C. Stoke
D. I don’t know
43. A one dimensional flow is one which

A. Is uniform flow
B. Is steady uniform flow
C. Takes place in one dimension
D. I don’t know
44. Alcohol is used in manometers because
A. It has low vapour pressure
PERMESINAN KAPAL
B. It is clearly visible
C. It can provide longer column due to low density
D. I don’t know
45. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
A. 25kn/m2
B. 245kn/m2
C. 2500kn/m2
D. I don’t know
46. Specific weight of seawater is more that of pure water because it contains
A. Dissolved air
B. Dissolved salt
C. Suspended matter
D. I don’t know
47. If 850kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
A. Specific weight
B. Specific mass
C. Specific density
D. I don’t know
48. Free surface of a liquid tendsto contract to the smallest possible are a due to
force of
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Friction
D. I don’t know
49. A bucket to water is hanging from as pring balance. Aniron piece is suspended
into water without to uching sides of bucket from another support.The spring
balance reading will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
PERMESINAN KAPAL
D. I don’t know
50. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. I don’t know
51. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are
A. Less
B. More
C. Equal
D. I don’t know
52. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid
and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glasstube will be
A. Higher than the surface of liquid
B. The same as the surface of liquid
C. Unpredictable
D. I don’t know
53. The point in the immersed body through which the result ant pressure of the
liquid may be taken to act is known as
A. Meta center
B. Center of pressure
C. Centerof buoyancy
D. I don’t know
54. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluicegate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2
m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
PERMESINAN KAPAL
C. 1500 kg
D. I don’t know
55. The result ant up ward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes' principle
D. I don’t know
.
56. The result ant up ward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. Up thrust
B. Buoyancy
C. Center of pressure
D. I don’t know
57. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
A. The meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
B. The center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same
vertical line
C. A righting couple should be formed
D. I don’t know
58. Poise is the unit of

A. Surface tension
B. Capillarity
C. Buoyancy.
D. I don’t know
59. Meta centric height is given as the distance between

A. The center of gravity of the body and the meta center
B. The center of gravity of the body and the center of
buoyancy
PERMESINAN KAPAL
C. The center of gravity of the body and the center of

pressure
D. I don’t know
60. The buoyancy depends on

A. Mass of liquid displaced
B. Viscosity of the liquid
C. Pressure of the liquid displaced
D. I don’t know
.
61.The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by animmersed body is
called
A. Meta-center
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. I don’t know
62. A piece of metal of specific gravity13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity

13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury ?
A. The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
B. The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
C. Metal piece wills ink to the bottom
D. I don’t know
63. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

A. The nature of the liquid and the solid
B. The material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
C. Anyone of the above
D. I don’t know
64. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest
possible are a due to the
PERMESINAN KAPAL
A. Force of adhesion
B. Force of cohesion
C. Force of diffusion
D. I don’t know
65. Rain drops are spherical because

of
A. Viscosity
B. Air resistance
C. Surface tension forces
D. I don’t know
66. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..

A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Surface tension
C. Force of adhesion
D. I don’t know
67. The capillary rise at 20° C in a clean glasstube of 1 mm bore containing water is
approximately
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. I don’t know
68. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
A. P=Txr
B. P=T/r
C. P=T/2r
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL
69. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

A. Cohesion pressure is negligible
B. Cohesion pressure is decreased
C. Cohesion pressure is increased
D. I don’t know
70. To avoid vapor is ation in the pipeline,the pipeline over the ridge is laid such
that it is not more than
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
D. I don’t know
71. To avoid an interruption in the flow of asyphon, an air vessel is provided

A. At the inlet
B. At the outlet
C. Aynay point between inlet and outlet
D. I don’t know
72. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

A. Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. I don’t know
73. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its
different layers is called
A. Surface tension
B. Co-efficient of viscosity
C. Osmosis
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL
74. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable
membrane is called
A. Viscosity
B. Osmosis
C. Surface tension
D. I don’t know
75. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

A. Metres2 per sec
B. Kg sec/meter
C. Newton-sec2 per meter
D. I don’t know
76. The continuity equation is connected with

A. Viscous / unviscous fluids
B. Compressibility of fluids
C. Open channel / pipe flow.
D. I don’t know
77. The rise or depression of liquid in atu be due to surface tension wim increasein
size of tube will
A. Increase
B. Remain unaffected
C. May increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
D. I don’t know
78. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
A. Boyle's law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal's law
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
1. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

A. water at 0°C
B. ice at – 4°C
C. solid and dry ice
D. I don’t know
2. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like

A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. reversed Camot cycle
D. I don’t know
3. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant

A. Ericsson
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. I don’t know
4. Ammonia - absorption refrigeration cycle requires

A. verylittle work input
B. maximum work input
C. nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
D.I don’t know
5. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

A. noisy operation
B. quiet operation
C. cooling below 0°C
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
6. The relative coefficient of performance is

A. actual COP/ the oretical COP
B. the oretical COP / actual COP
C. actual COP the oretical COP
D. I don’t know
7. Clapey ronequation is arelation between

A. temperature, pressure and enthalpy
B. specific volume andenthalpy
C. temperature, pressure, specific volurand’enthalpy.
D. I d o n ’ t k n o w
8. Clapey ronequation is applicable for registration at
A. saturation point of
vapour
B. saturation point of liquid
C. triple point
D. I don’t know
9. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

A. after passing through the condenser
B. before passing through thecondensei
C. after passing through the expansion throttle valve
D. I don’t know
10. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
B. before passing through the condenser
C. after passing through the expansion or throttle valve
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure

saturated liquid
A. afterpassing through the condenser
B. beforepassing through the condenser
C. before entering the expansion valve
D.I don’t know
12. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

D. I don’t know
13. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
D. I don’t know
14. The boiling point of ammonia is

A. -100°C
B. -50°C
C. -33.3°C
D. I don’t know
15. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect
corresponding to melting of 1000 kg ofice
A. in 1 hour
B. in 1 minute
C. in 24 hours
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
16. One ton refrigerat is corresponds to

A. 50 kcal/min
B. 50 kcal/kr
C. 80 kcal/min
D. I don’t know
17. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to
A. 210 kJ/min
B. 21 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. I don’t know
18. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycie

A. Rankine
B. Carnot
C. Reversed Rankine
D. I don’t know
19. Allowable pressureon high-pressureside or ammonia absorption system is of
the order of
A. atmosphericpressure
B. slightlyabove atmospheric pressure
C. 2-4 bars
D. I don’t know
20. Themoisturein a refrigerant is removed by
A. evaporator
B. safetyrelief valve
C. dehumidifier
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
21. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable

gases,as compared to that actually required for condensing temperatures
without non- condensable gases,
A. will be higher
B. will be lower
C. will remain unaffected
D. I don’t know
22. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
A. above which liquid will remain liquid
B. above which liquid becomes gas
C. above which liquid becomes solid
D. I don’t know
23. Critical temperatureis’ the temperature above which
A. agas will never liquefy
B. agas will immediately liquefy
C. water will evaporate
D. I don’t know
24. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
A. high sensible heat
B. high total heat
C. high latent heat
D. I don’t know
25. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
A. 0.1 ton
B. 5 tons
C. 10 tons
D. I don’t know
26. The COP of a domestic refrigerator
A. isless than 1
B. ismorethan 1
C. is equal to 1
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
27. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor

A. centrifugal
B. axial
C. piston type reciprocating
D. I don’t know
28. Presence of moisturein a refrigerant affects the working of

A. compressor
B. condenser
C. heat transfer.
D. I don’t know
29. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
A. Co2
B. Freon-11
C. Freon-22
D. I don’t know
30. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycleuses the
following type of expansion device
A. electrically operated throttling valve
B. manually operated valve
C. capillary tube
D. I don’t know
31. Air refrigeration operates on

A. Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Carnot cycle
C. Rankinecycle
D. I don’t know
32. Air refrigeration cycle isused in
A. domestic refrigerators
B. commercial refrigerators
C. air conditioning
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
33. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
A. liquid
B. sub-cooled liquid
C. wet vapour
D.I don’t know
34. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
A. lower than atmosphericpressure
B. higher than atmosphericpressure
C. equalto atmospheric pressure
D. I don’t know
35. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to

temperature in evaporator and condenser must be
A.small
B. high
C. under some conditions small and under some conditions high.
D. I don’t know
36. The bank of tubesat the back of domestic refrigerator are
A. condenser tubes
B. evaporator tubes
C. refrigerant cooling tubes
D. I don’t know
37. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
A. receiver
B. expansion valve
C. compressor discharge .
D. I don’t know
38. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be
A. near critical temperatureof refrigerant
B. above critical temperature
C. atcritica. temperature
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
39. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenserand flow

controlling device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is
A. less than 2 kg
B. morethan or equal to 3.65 kg
C. morethan 10 kg
D. I don’t know
40. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant
A. Freon-11
B. Freon-22
C. C02
D. I don’t know
41. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
A. reducecompressor overheating
B. reducecompressor dischargetemperature
C. ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion
(throttling) valve
D. I don’t know
42. The value of COP in vapour compression cycleis usually

A. always less than unity
B. always more than unity
C. equalto unity
D. I don’t know
43. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

A.more
B. less
C. same
D. I don’t know
44. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
A. ofcooling medium
B. offreezing zone
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
C. ofevaporator
D. I don’t know
45. Formation offrost on evaporator in refrigerator

A. results in loss of heat dueto poor heat transfer
B. increases heat transfer rate
C. can be avoided by proper design
D. I don’t know
46. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant

and the medium being cooled should be
A. high, of theorder of 25°
B. as low as possible(3 to 11°C)
C. any value
D. I don’t know
47. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of

compressor is used to collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to
compressor
A. detect liquid in vapour
B. superheat the vapour
C. increase refrigeration effect
D. I don’t know
48. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. I don’t know
49. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
50. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of +27°C and

evaporator temperature of -23°C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of
cycle will be
A. 0.2
B. 1.2
C. 5
D. I don’t know
51. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant

A. hightriiscibilitywith oil
B. low boiling point
C. goodelectrical conductor
D. I don’t know
52. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between
A. condenserand expansion valve
B. compressorandevaporator
C. expansion valve andevaporator
D. I don’t know
53. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to
other in ammonia absorption system
A. strong solution to weak solution
B. weak solution to strong solution
C.ammonia vapour to strong solution.
D. I don’t know
54. Efficiency of a Cornotengine is given as 80%. If the-cycle direction be
reversed, what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnotcycle
A. 1.25
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL A
55. Highest pressureen countered in a refrigeration system should be

A. critical pressureof refrigerant
B. much below critical pressure
C. much above critical pressure
D. I don’t know
PERMESINAN KAPAL PASCA 4
1. Mengelola pengoperasian peralatan mesinpendorong

(Managethe
operationofpropulsion plant)
1. A medium speed diesel engine is used to drive a controllable pitch propeller

through a suitable clutchan dreduction gearbox.What should the propeller
blade attitude normally be after the engine is started and before the clutch
can be engaged?
A. The blades should bein the zero thrust position.
B. The blades should bein the zero pitch position.
C. The blades should bein the full ahead position.
D. I don’t know
2. Anon - reversing medium speed diesel engine isused to drivea controllable

pitch propeller through a pneumatic clutch and reduction gearbox. The engine
has been tested and brought up to operating temperatures one ngine control.
Which of the options given would be the preferred status of the engine and
associated equipment when it is handed over to bridge control?
A. Engine running, clutch disengaged,
propeller at zero thrust.
B. Engine stopped with clutch
disengaged and propeller at zero
thrust.
C. Engine running with clutch engaged
and propeller in ahead position.
D. I don’t know
3. A vessel's main propulsion system consists of a pair of medium speed diesel

engines driving a single controllable pitch propeller through clutches and
coupled through are duction gearbox. What is the preferred sequence to follow
when going from two engine to single engine operation?
Assume engine Ais to be stopped and engine
Bis to continue running
A. Pitch to zero thrust, reduce speed to idling speed, disengage clutch of engine A,
increase speed of engine Band propeller
pitch as required. Stop engine A after suitable cooling period.
B. Pitch to zero thrust, disengage clutch of engineA, increase speed of engine
Band propeller pitch as required. Stop engine A after a suitable cooling
period.
C. Disengage clutch of engine A. Stop engine A aftera suitable cooling period.
D. I don’t know
4. Most medium and high speed engines formarin euseoperate on the four stroke
cycle and use direct admission of compressed air into the cylinders for starting
purposes. During which part of the cycled oesstartair admission normally take
place?
A. The first part of the expansion (power)
stroke.
B. The latterpart of the expansion (power)
stroke.
C. The first part of the air induction stroke.
D.. I don’t know
5. The over speed shutdown is to betested on a high speed four stroke diesel engine
driving through a pneumatic clutch. The over speed protection is provided by a
solenoid operated dump valve in the governor servo system activated by an
electrical signal from a small synchro motor.What is the preferred method of
testing such a shutdown?
A. With the engine of fload manually
increase the governor speed setting
until the shutdown operates, reduce
the shutdown set point if necessary.
B.With the engine on a high or fullload
suddenly disengage the clutch.
C. Reduce the set point so the shutdown

operates at normal engine speed.
D. I don’t know
6. Which of the following conditions will block the starting signal for the air start
system of a medium speed diesel engine which is being used for main propulsion
purposes?
A. Clutch engaged.
B. Valve rotators not operating.
C.. Low start air pressure
D. I don’t know
7. Alarge 2 stroke engine is normally controlled from thebridge during manoeuvring.

In thisty peofautomated control for the starting system what would normally
cause the Engine Failed to Start alarm to be activated and to lock out starting
from the bridge?
A. 3 failed start attempts.
B. A singlefailed start attempt.
C. 3 failed start attempt sifthe start air pressure had fallen to less than a set
value.
D. I don’t know
8. During operation of a larges low speed diesel engine it is sometimes necessary to

change over from heavy fuel oil to diesel oil, for example before manouevring.
How should this procedure becarried out?
A. Gradually to prevent gassing up
of the fuel system due to
overheating the diesel oil a sit
mixes with the hot heavy fuel oil.
B. As quicklyas possible to reduce HFO consumption.
C.Asquickly as possible to reduce

steam heating requirement.
D. I don’t know
9. In large 2 stroke diesel engines with oil cooled pistons it is normal practiceto
maintain circulation of the cooling oil for a period after the engine has stopped.
Why is this done?
A. To remove resi dual heat from
the piston sandavoidany coking
of the trapped oil.
B. To allow the piston cooling oil to
cool down
C. To allow the piston cooling oil
pump and motor to cooldown
gradually
D. I don’t know
10. What is the correct operation of the slow- turning facility fitted to some large 2
stroke main propulsion diesel engines?
A. Slow turning should be set to
operate automatically prior to
engine start when engine has
been stopped for 20 to 30
minutes during manoeuvring
B. Slow turning should be set to
operate automatically every 10
to 15 minutes when the engine is
on standby.
C. Slow turning should be set to operate automatically at finish with engines
to allow the engine to cooldown evenly.
D. I don’t know
11. When trying to reverse a larges low speed diesel engine in the astern direction it
cannot be turned on air even though it will start in the ahead direction. What is
the likely cause of this problem?
A. The start is blocked because the air
distributor has not moved to the astern
position.
B. The automatic valve for the air start system
has jammed shut.
C. The reversing servo for the fuel pumps has
stuck in the ahead position.
D. I don’t know
12. Why is an automatics low turning feature included in the start air system of
many large 2 stroke diesel engines?
A. To avoid damage during start of the engine in case water or other liquid
has gathered in the cylinders during an extended stop.
B. To reduce the start air consumption during start up ofthe engine.
C. To fill the cylinders with sufficient fresh air to ensure safe start of the
engine.
D. I don’t know
13. A main steam boiler is to be shutdown for a next ended period. Which of the
following methods for the lay up is best suited to maintain the boiler in good
order?
A. Lay the boiler up dry by draining
all of the water and fitting
heaters in the drums top revent
condensation forming which

may resultin corrosion.
B.Lay the boiler up wet with normal
working water level and
chemical treatment maintained.
C. Lay the boiler up dry by just draining all of the water and closing all the
access doors.
D. I don’t know
14. A second high pressure boiler is to be coupled to a non line boiler supplying
steam to the main turbine. How is the superheater section of the second boiler
normally prevented from overheating during the period prior to coupling while
raising the steam pressure?
A. The superheater ventvalveiskept
openuntilthe boiler sare coupled
to create a steam flow.
B. The superheater safety valve is
manually opened to create a
steam flow.
C. The lift pressure of the
superheater safety valve is
lowered to allow the valve to lift
and create a steam flow.
D. I don’t know
15. During startup of a steam plant it is necessary to warm through the steam range
prior to use. How should this warming through be carried out?
A. Using the bypass / warming
through line for the main stop
valve and with all line drains
open to ensure all condensate is
removed.
B. Crack openthe main stop valve

and keep the drains open.
C. Open the bypass / warming through valve and then fully open the main stop valve
over a period of two minutes to ensure the warming through is completed as quickly as
possible.
D. I don’t know
16. Following complete shutdown of the steam plant, the boiler has been heated in
accordance with the correct starting up procedure, and the steam pressure is
rising. What is the correct procedure to be adopted when opening the main
steam valve to the range?
A. Use the main steam valve
bypass / warming through line to
gradually heat up the steam
range with the drains open
before opening the main valve.
B. Open the main valve as quickly
as possible to get rid of any
water that has collected in the
steam range.
C. Open the main valve a little bit to allow the range to heat up.
D. I don’t know
17. What is the correct initial firing procedure to be adopted when bringing a main
steam boiler up to pressure from cold condition?
A.Start within termittent firing,
using small firing periods
and long intervals gradually
building up to longer firing
periods and shorter intervals
until steam pressure starts to
rise.
B. Start the firing on minimum rate

and continuously fire until boiler
is up to pressure.
C. Start the firing on maximum rate and raise the pressure in asshort a period
as possible, to save energy.
D. I don’t know
.
18. Which is the preferred state to have the main turbine in while shutdown for
ashort stay in port?
A. Turning with the turning gearand
gland steam on.
B. All steam shutoff with turning
gear switched off butengaged
to'lock' the rotor in position.
C. Gland steam left on to keep the
rotor and casing warm and with
turning gear switched off
but engaged to 'lock' the rotor in
position.
D. I don’t know
19. Maintenance is to be carried out on a diesel engine. How long after stopping the
engine should the cooling water and lubricating oil be kept circulating in order
to avoid any undue thermal stress from residual heat?
A. At least one hour.
B. 10 minutes is
sufficient.
C. At least 8 hours
D. I don’t know
20. The engine turns over normally when starting air is supplied but doesnot fire
even though normal starting rpm is achieved. What could be the probable cause
to this?
A. Air in the fuel oil system.

B. The turning gear interlock has
operated.
C. The lubricating oil temperature is
low.
D. I don’t know
21. The main propulsion diesel engine is normally started by direct admission of
compressed air. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. A heavily leaking starting air
valve may cause an explosion in
the starting air pipe system.
B. The starting air admission should
continue until the engine has
fired.
C. If the starting air pressure is too
low a pressur izedoxygen bottle
from the welding equipment can
be used for an emergency
start of the engine.
D. I don’t know
22. What is the purposeof the air distributor in adiesel engine air start
system?
A. Toensurethecylinderairstartvalvesoperate
in thecorrect sequence and for the
correct period.
B.To ensurethat the start air is distributed
equallyto theeach of theengine cylinders.
C. To ensure that the automatic valve in the air
start system opens and closes at the correct
time.
D. I don’t know
23. When starting air is applied to a diesel engine the engine fails to turn over but is
seen to oscillate back and forth. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. One or more cylinder air start valves are stuck
open
B.Starting air pressure is too low.
C. The automatic valve has failed to open.
D. I don’t know
24. Which one of the options given is the most likely cause of a diesel engine
failing to turn on air when the start signal is initiated?
A. An inter lock or blocking device in the
remote starting system is operating.
B. Start air compressor has cut out due to
sufficient pressure in system.
C. Slight leakage at the indicator
cocks.
D. I don’t know
25. A medium speed diesel engine, operating with apulse turbo charging system,
has been adjusted to have good power balance.What would the cylinder
exhaustgas temperatures, relative to each other, be expected to be ?
A. Plus or minus 30 degrees Celsius.

B. Plus or minus 5 degrees Celsius.
C. Plus or minus 70 degrees Celsius.

D. All cylinder exhaust temperatures should be equalifthe cylinder power
Balance is correct.
26.
For a 4 - stroke diesel engine, the exhaust gas from the funnel is seen to be
white / lightgreyincolour. Which of the options given is the most likely cause of
this.
A. Water leaking into the combustion chamber.
B. Faulty fuel injection valve.

C. The engine is overloaded.
D. The engine is burning lubrication oil.
27. From the options given , choose the one most likely to result in a high exhaust
gas temperature in one cylinder of a four stroke diesel engine.
A. The inletand exhaust valve tappet clearance is
incorrect.
B. Fuel injection valve opening pressure set too
high.
C. Clogged nozzle holes in the fuel injection
valve.
D. I don’t know
28. The oils used for medium and high speed diesel engine lubrication usually have
alkaline additives which give the oil a Total Base Number of about 30 to 40 mg
KOH/g. Why is it necessary to have such a TBN for these oils?
A. To neutralize the acids formed during combustion.
B. To counteract the effects of fuel leaking into the
crankcase.
C. To increase the load carrying capacity of the oil.
D. I don’t know
29. What is the best method for ensuring that the cylinder powers of a high speed
diesel engine, fitted with amono block multi – cylinder fuel pump, are correctly
balanced?
A. Have the fuel pump phased and calibrated in a test
workshop.
B. Take a set of indicator cards using a mechanical
Indicator and calculate the cylinder powers.

C. Measure the maximum pressure of each cylinder to
check that they are equal.
D. I don’t know
30. When checking the cylinder pressure so fa6 cylinder medium speed diesel
engine it is found that one of the cylinders has a high maximum pressure. What
is the most likely cause of this?
A. Fuel timing to that cylinder too far
advanced.
B. Fuel timing to that cylinder too far
retarded.
C. Fuel pressureto the engine is too high.
D. I don’t know
31. A power card from a slow speed diesel engine cylinder is abnormal with a low
height and the body of the diagram thicker than normal. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. Fuel timing is
retarded.
B. Partially blocked fuel injection
valve.
C. Scavenge pressure is too high.
D. I don’t know
32. An indicator card from a cylinder of a slow speed diesel engines hows a high
maximum pressure occurring earlier in the cycle than normal with a normal
compression pressure. From the options given, which action is most likely to
identify the cause of the problem?
A. Check if the fuel injection pump timing is
correct.
B. Check if the fuel injection valve is partly

blocked.
C. Check if the fuel viscosity and temperature are
correct.
D. I don’t know
33. During inspection and calibration of a cylinder unit, the liner is found to be
wornin a clover leaf pattern with maximum wear midway between the
lubrication points. What action is necessaryto rectifythe problem?
A. Increase the cylinder oil rate to neutralize
the corrosive action of the combustion
products or change to a more alkaline
cylinder oil.
B. Reduce the jacket cooling water
temperature to avoid thermal stress of the
cylinder liner.
C. Increase the jacket cooling water
temperature to avoid surface condensation
of any acidic products of combustion.
D. I don’t know
34. In a large, 2 stroke, main diesel engine cylinder lubricating oil is supplied
directly through lubrication point scut into the cylinder liner. At what point
during the cycle should the supply normally occur.
A. As the piston rings pass the lubrication
points.
B. At Top Dead Centre.
C. At mid-strokeof the
piston.
D. I don’t know
35. What type of lubricating oil Is generally used for for cylinder lubrication on a large,
2 – stroke diesel, main propulsion engine operating on heavy fuel oil?
A. Mineral based oil with high alkalin ityand

other additives.
B. Straight mineral
oil.
C. The same oil as the main lubricating oil system
D. I don’t know
36. Why is it important that the correct tension is maintained in a diesel engine
timing chain?
A. Correct tension ensures that the chainand
associated equipment is with in normal
loading limits.
B. Correct tension ensures that the fuel and
valve timing are correct
C. Correct tension ensures that there is
absolute lyno vibration in the chain.
D. I don’t know
37. Many marines team boiler designs in corporate external" downcomers". What is
the main purpose of these downcomers?
A. To ensure a dequate circulation in all boiler
operating conditions.
B. To provide extra support for furnace tubes.
C. To provide a flow path for the steam
bubbles.
D. To increase heating surface area.
38. Many modern boiler burners operate with automatic modulating combustion
control? Which of the following is necessary to ensure high efficiency and low
emissions through out the load range with this type of operating control?
A. High turn down ratio for the burner.
B. Shortened furnacepre-
purgesequence.
C. Operation on distillate fuels.
D. I don’t know
39. What effect will alow operating temperature of the boiler feed water system
have on the condition of the feed water supplied to a high pressure boiler?
A. It will cause the amount of dissolved oxygen in
the feed water to increase.
B. It will cause the amount of total dissolved solids
in the feed water to increase.
C.It will cause the ph value of the feed water to increase.
D. I don’t know
40. What is normally seen as the greatest risk when operating a high pressure,water
tube, steam boiler with an excessively high level of Total Dissolved Solids?
A. Foaming and carry over of water into the steam
range.
B. General corrosion of boiler tubes and fittings
C. Hard scale deposits on boiler tube sand fittings
D. I don’t know
41. When operating a steam boiler burner unit what is the best method for
evaluating that the correct amount of excessair is being supplied to the
furnace?
A. Thereading from the flue gas oxygen analyser
B. The colour of the flame in the
furnace.
C. The length of the flame in the

furnace.
D. I don’t know
42. Why is it important to keep the condensate ph value with in the correct range
when operating steam boilers?
A. To prevent corrosion in the feed system.
B. To minimise oxygen content in thefeed
waters.
C. To prevent sludge forming in the feed
tank.
D. I don’t know
43. A diesel engine is operating with retarded fuel timing resulting in increased
exhaust gas temperatures. How would you expect this to affect the turbo
charger?
A. Increased turbo charger revolutions.
B. Decreased turbo charger revolutions.
C . Reduced air and gas temperature after turbo charger
D. .I don’t know
44. Spray Painting has been carried out in the engineroom while the engine was
runnin g,andtheturbocharger in take filter was not protected.Which one of the
option s given is most likely to result from this?

A. Scavengeair pressure lower than normal.
B. Exhaust gas temperatures lower than normal.
C. Scavenging air pressure is higher than normal

D. I don’t know
45. The charge air pressure supplied to a diesel engine,which is normally 2.0bar, Is
reduced to 1.5 bar . What will be the likely effect on the engine operation?
A. The performance of the engine will be reduced noticeably.
B. The performance of the engine will be similar to normal
conditions.
C. The cylinder cooling water flow will increase.
D. I don’t know
46. The fuel injection timing of a diesel engine is delayed causing high cylinder
exhaust gas temperatures.What is the likely effect of this condition on turbo
charger operation?
A. Increased turbo charger revolutions
B. Decreased turbo charger revolutions
C. Continuous surging of the turbo charger
D. I don’t know
47. The image shows an indicator diagram taken from a diesel engine
cylinder.Which of the following options is the action most likely to identify the
fault.?
A. Check if the fuel pump injection
is too early, or fuel pump lead is
too great, for that cylinder.
B. Check If the fuel injection valve
is partly blocked.
C. Check that the fuel temperature
and viscosity are correct.
D. I don’t know
48. The majority of marine diesel engines operate with either apulse or a constant
pressure turbo charging system. What is the main difference between these two
systems?
A.Constant pressure systems have all engine cylinder exhausts connected to
a common large exhaust gas manifold.
B. Constant pressure systems only ever have a single turbo charger
irrespective of the number of cylinders on the engine.
C. Pulse systems always have a turbo charger for each group of three
cylinders.
D. I don’t know
49. The operation of a diesel engine is controlled by a mechanical-hydraulic,

compensated speed sensing governor. How will the governor control be affected
if the compensation needle valve is closed in and the engine load changes?
A. Engine speed control will be sluggish.
B. The governor will hunt resulting in erratic engine speed
control.
C. A changein load will not affect a speed sensing governor.
D. I don’t know
50. The turbo charger on a diesel engine is surging.Which one of the following
options would be the most likely cause?
A. Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side
B. Worn out bearings on the turbo charger
C. The lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning
. D. I don’t know
51. The water cooling space on a turbo charger isdamaged and there is no spare
casing. The cooling water must be shut off. Which option would you take to
keep the risk of further damage to a minimum?
A. Dismantlethe rotor and assemble the sealing
plates.
B. Run the engine at a lower speed..

C. Cool the turbocharger by means of air.
D. I don’t know
52. What do you understand by the term Maximum Continuous Rating, MCR, of a
diesel engine?
A. The maximum load that the engine can operate at
continuosly.
B. The maximum cylinder pressure that the engine
can operate at continuously.
C. The maximum charge air pressure that the engine
can operate at continuously.
D. I don’t know
53. When the vessel is operating in a tropical area with very high humidity, what
action should be taken to deal with the expected increase incondensate from the
main diesel engine's charge air cooler?
A. Ensure that condensate drains from the water
separator are monitored and operating correctly.
B. Decrease the scavenge air temperature to minimise
the condensate from the charge air cooler.
C. Increase the scavenge air temperature to minimize
the condensate from the charge air cooler.
D. I don’t know
54. Why is it important to reduce the diesel engine load during in service water
washing of theturbocharger gas side?
A. To prevent damage to the turbine
blades
B. To reduce the air pressure to the water dosage
pot.
C. To avoid cold corrosion of exhaust system.
D. I don’t know
55. Consider a vessel with a 6 cylinder main diesel engine operating with one
cylinder out of operation. What would you expect to be the approximate
maximum reduced engine load to allow safe emergency operation in this
condition?
A. Approximately 70% of MCR

B. Approximately 50% of MCR
C. Approximately 30% of MCR.
D. Approximately 90% of MCR
56. In the event of a diesel engine crankcase explosion which of the safety device fitted to the
engine is designed to minimise the risk of a secondary explosion?
A. Crankcase relief valves / doors

B. Crankcase oil mist detector
C. Crankcase extraction fan
D. I don’t know
57. Prior to the lunch break, theEngineer on Duty observes that the operating
generator set has an out put of 90%. With regard to operation of the generator,
what is the- most important- assumption(s)for him to check before switching to
UMS-mode?
A.That a secondary auxiliary set is switched to
automatic standby mode
B. That all operating parameters of the generator set
in operation are normal(e.g.Exhaust temp, lube
oil pressure, cooling water temperature etc.)
C. Visually checking the auxiliary engine that there are no leaks or other
obvious operating failures
D. I don’t know
58. The main engine is running steady with an average exhaust gas temperature of
approximately 350°C. What would be a typical alarm / slowdown setting for the
cylinder exhaust gas temperature deviation from the average?
A. +/-50° C
B. +/-30° C
C. +/-10° C
D. I don’t know
59. What is the main precaution to be taken prior to engaging the turning gear for a
diesel engine?
A. Isolate the starting air
supply.
B. Open the indicator cocks.
C. Open the crankcase
doors.
D. I don’t know
60. What is the normal slowdown / shutdown temperature for the jacket cooling
water outlet from a diesel engine cylinder?
A. 95 -98° C
B. 85 -88° C
C. 75 -78° C
D. I don’t know
61. Which of the following options would be a typical differential pressure setting
for a main engine slow down in the event of jacket cooling water system low
flow?
A. 0.2 to 0.5 bar
B. 1 to 2 bar.
C. 5 Bar
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
4. Mengelola pengoperasian bahan bakar, minyak

lumasdantolakbara(ballast)
(Managefuel,lubricationandballastoperations)
1. Prior to bunkering operation sitis necessary to check the quantity of fuel

remaining on board and that here is sufficient room for the fuel that is to be
loaded.What is the best method to use to establish this? Pasca (1.5)
A. Do a complete soundingof all fuel bunker tanks
B. Use the latest figures from the fuel record book.
C. Take a full set of readings from remote content gauges.
D. I don’t know
2. Telephones are being used to communicate between personnel on board and
ashore during a bunkering operation.What instruction would you give to ship
personnel regarding action to take in the eventof failure of the telephone
communication during the operation? (Pasca 1.5)
A. Stop the bunkering until alternative
reliable communications are established
B. Call the electrician, and get him to repair the telephone
while the bunkering operation continues.
C. Slow down the bunkering rate until alternative reliable
communications are established.
D. I don’t know
3. To avoid over bunkering and oil spill, it is very important that we closely monitor
the progress of the bunkering operation.What is the safest method to use to
minimise th erisk of overflow and spillage? (Pasca 1.5)
A. Continuously monitor remote guage readings and
confirm with regular sounding of the fuel tanks.
B. The remote gauge system will provide us with the
necessary information
C. Open all the bunker tank lids to manually watch them
filling.
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
4. When bunkering through the port side of the bunker manifold what action should
be taken with the valves on the starboard side of the manifold prior to bunkering
operations commencing?
A. Blank flanges should be fitted to the closed
starboard sidemanifold valves.
B.The blank flanges should be removed from the
starboard side manifold valves to check for any
leakage past the closed valves.
C. Just fit the blank flanges the nit doesn’t tmatter if the
Valves are closed ornot.
D. . I don’t know
5. When planning bunkering operations it is preferable to arrange for the new fuel
to be bunkered into empty or nearly empty tanks when ever possible.What is the
main reason for this?
A. To minimize the risk of incompatibility between
different fuels.
B. To make it easier to calculate the quantity of
fuel taken onboard.
C. To minimize the risk of microbial contamination
of the fuel.
D. . I don’t know
6. Why is it necessary to have an effective ballast water management plan which

includes provision for changing out ballast in open water rather than discharging
ballast in coastal waters?
A. To avoid the introduction of non-indigenous
species of marine life from one area to another.
B. To keep the ballast water fresh in the ballast tanks
during long voyages.
C. To ensure that ballast tanks are always pressed up
during a ballast voyage to avoid free surface effects.
D. . I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
7. You are in charge of a night bunkering operation. The delivery rate from the
supplier is high and you are filling six tanks simultaneously. You lose track of the
progress of the operation and feel that you are losing control of the situation.
What action should you take?
A. Stop bunkering, and establish facts, before
bunkering is resumed
B. Prepare yourself and the crew for an overflow.
C. Request are ductionin the delivery rate to try and
gain sometime.
D. I don’t know
8. What are items 'W'?
A. Ballast water tanks

B. Cargo hold bilge wells
C. Side water tanks
D. I don’t know
9. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge
wells..?
A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room
B. Because they are in accessible when cargo is loaded
C. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
10. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or
cargo operations ? (Pra 1.5)
A. There is no
covering
B. By perforated
plating
C.By sackcloth
D. I don’t know
11. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room
bulkhead ? (Pra 1.5)
A. Auto-closing valves
B. Bilgegate valves
C. Non-return screw downvalves
D. I don’t know
12. Here are some capacities of seawater pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast
Pump?
A. 140 m3/hourx 30 metres

B. 40 m3/hourx 55 metres
C. 110/410 m3/hour x70/35 metres
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
13. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh Water
Hydrophore Pump ?
A. 5 m3/hourx 25
metres
B. 40 m3/hourx 55
metres
C.5 m3/hourx 50 metres
D. I don’t know
14. What type of pump do you think is used forthe purpose shown here?
A. A vane
pump
B. A piston
pump
C. A gear
pump
D. I don’t know
15. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by
A. An air seal line from the compressed
airline.
B. A water seal line to the packing gland.
C. A special packing in the stuffing
box.
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
16. What is this component called ?
A. A Two way valve

B. A Dynamic valve
C. A lion return value
D. I don’t know
17. Which way does the fluid pass through the valve?
A. Neither direction
B. From 13 to
A
C. From to B
D. I don’t know
18. What are items "V"?
A. Vacuum suction boxes

B. Straight bilgegate valves
C. Non-return screw down valves
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
19. When are the high sea chestsused ?
A. When the ship is in shallow water

B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea
C. When the ship isin polluted waters
D. . I don’t know
20. What type of filtersare fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines?
A. Perforated plate fitters

B. Mesh wire
filters
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
C. All flush
filters
D. I don’t know
21. What is item '5"?
A. The automatic 15 ppm shut-down value

B. These a suction value of the pump
C. A mesh types trainer
D. I don’t know
22. What are items ''S" ancl what is their purpose?
A. Suction valves to pump the wells

B. Suction boxes to retain priming water
C. Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 1
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 2
5.Mengelolapengoperasianperalatankontrollistrikdanelektronik
(Manage operation ofelectricaland electronic control equipment)
1. In an automatic temperature control system, operating with a PID controller,

which of the following settings or parameter adjustments may result in
system oscillation? (Pasca 2.2)
A. Gain too high
B. Too short D-time
C. Gain too low
D. I don’t know
2. In process control some situations lead to a need for dynamic amplifying.
What is meant by dynamic amplifying...? (Pasca 2.2)
A. Amplitude of output signal divided by amplitude of input signal
B. Amplitude of input signal divided by
amplitude of output signal
C. Variable amplifying
D. . I don’t know
3. In terms of automated control systems, what is typical for a continuous

control system? (Pasca 2.2)
A. It is possibleto predict the control mathematically
B. The output signal is equal to the input signal
C. The control valve will always be changing position
D. . I don’t know
4. Som eautomated control systems use a master controller and a slave controller.
What is the meaning of “remote mode”related to a slave controller..? (Pasca 2.2)
A. The slave controller receives the set-point from the output signal
of the master controller
B. The slave controller can be tuned from
the engine control room
C. The slave controller can be tuned by a
hand carried remote controller
D. I don’t know
TIM PASCA FUNGSI 2
5. U-tube manometers are of ten used to measure differential pressure. Which

of the listed pressures are U-tube manometers mostly used for..? (Pasca 2.2)
A. Low differential pressures
B. High differential pressures
C. Cargo pressure
D. I don’t know
6. What principle of measurement are viscosity controllers usually based upon? (Pasca 2.2)
A. Measurement of differential pressure
B. Measurementof temperature
C. Measurementof flow
D. I don’t know
7. When tuning a cascade control system, which of the following actions
should be done first..? (Pasca 2.2)
A.Adjust the slave controller with the master
controller in manual mode
B. Adjust the slave controller with the master controller in auto mode
C. Adjust the master controller with the slave controller
disabled
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA 2
5.Mengelolapengoperasianperalatankontrollistrikdanelektronik
(Manage operation ofelectricaland electronic control equipment)
1. A6-Volt dc relay Is to be used with a 12-Volt powersupply. The relay

requiresa current of 0.1Amp. What is the series resistance required. (Pra 2.1)
A. 60 ohm
B. 80 ohm
C.120 ohm
D. I don’t know
2. In a PID controller it is possible to change the setting of the Proportional
band(P), the Reset time (I) and the Rate time(D). Please indicate which curve
shows the typical response to a step input, if the variables are well adjusted.
(Pra 2.1)
A. Figure2.
B. Figure1.
C.Figure3.
D. I don’t know
3. In a PID controller it is possible to change the setting of the Proportional

band(P), theReset time (I) and the Rate time(D). Please indicate which curve
shows the typical response to a step change in input, if the setting of the reset
time is too small. (Pra 2.1)
A. Figure 3.
B. Figure 2.
C. Figure 1.
D. I don’t know
4. In a PID controller the setting of the Proportional band (P), the Reset time (I)
and the Rate time (D) may be adjusted. Please indicate which curve shows
the typical response to a changein input, if the setting of the proportional
band is too wide. (Pra 2.1)
A. Figure 1.
B. Figure 2.
C. Figure 3.
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA 2
5. In control systems it is of ten necessary to convert from one type of unit to another.
Which is a common signal level for an I/P
converter? (Pra 2.1)
A. 4-20ma/3-15 PSI
B. 0-1 ma/1-2 BAR
C.0-20 ma/0-20 PSI
D. I don’t know
6. In fresh water tank we are using a pressure transmitter with a range of 0-0.5bar / 4-
20 mafor level measurement. The transmitter is installed 30 centimetres from
the bottom of the tank, and the tank is 5 meters high.What will the output
from the transmitter be when the tank is empty..? (Pra 2.1)
A. 4 ma.
B. 5,2 ma.
C. 2,8 ma.
D. I don’t know
7. In terms of an automated control system, what is meant by the expression ''Slave
Controller..? (Pra 2.1)
A. The secondary controller in a cascade control system
B. The controller is always working hard
C. Feed water controller
D. . I don’t know
8. In the contex to fan automated control system, which controller must be
tuned first in a cascade control system..? (Pra 2.1)
A. The secondary controller
B. he primary controller
C. Both at the same time
D. . I don’t know
9. In the context of an automated process control system, what is understood by
the expression Master Controller..? (Pra 2.1)
A. The primary controller in a cascade control system
B. The best possible control system
C. The Captain’s controller
D. . I don’t know
TIM PRA 2
10. In which of the following automated control processes will the time constant
of minor importance..? (Pra 2.1)
A. Level control
B. Temperature control
C. Pressure control
D. I don’t know 10
11. Some process control systems may have several inputs and controlled
variables. In this context what is meant by split-range..? (Pra 2.1)
A. Several control-valves are connected to the same
controller
B. Several controllers are connected to the same control-valve
C. Several control-loops for the same range
D. I don’t know
12. Temperature sensors maybe marked PT100. What does this mean? (Pra 2.1)
A. 100 ohm at 0° C
B. 20 ohm at 100° C
C.100 ohm at 20° C
D. I don’t know
13. Temperature sensors of all types are normally mounted in a
well, or pocket, when used in pipe lines. Why is this done..?
(Pra 2.1)
A. Allow removal of the sensor also when liquid is flowing in
the pipe.
B. Decrease the temperature gradient between the liquid and the sensor.
C. Avoid electriccurrent flowing from the sensor to the liquid.
D. I don’t know
14. Temperatures are often measured by using platinum resistance

thermometers. The characteristics shown a reall calibration curves for such
devices.Which of them is a calibration curve for a PT 100 sensor? (Pra 2.1)
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA 2
15. What is the effect of the I (integration) function of a PID controller? (Pra 2.1)
A. It will try to reduce the deviation between set-
point and process value
B. Quick control
C. It will slow down the control system
D. I don’t know
16. Which of the following detectors is preferred for detecting smoke from fire..? (Pra 2.1)
A. Ionization type
B. Thermometer
C.Thermocouple
D. I don’t know
17. Which ofthe following is typical for a feed-forward control system..? (Pra 2.1)
A. Control of theprocess inlet side
B. Mathematical calculation of the system response
C. Easy to obtain a perfect control
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
6. Menanganipencariankerusakan, memperbaikialat control

listrikdanelektronok, agar kembalipadakondisioperasional.
(Managetrouble-
shooting,restorationofelectricalandelectroniccontrolequipmenttoop
erating condition)
1. When selecting witch gear to work with High Voltage it is important to use an
appropria tearcing medium. What is meant by arcing medium? (Pra 3.1)
A. The gas, liquid or vapour which will minimize creation of an
electricarcas contacts open.
B. A material which assists a welding process.
C. Equipment which communicates information about thearcing.
D. I don’t know
2. When there Is a need to interrupt current flow in a high voltage system it
may be very difficult to quench the electrical arc which is generated at the
circuit breaker contacts. Which of the following arcing media is commonly
found in high voltage marine switch gear? (Pra 3.1)
A. Vacuum
B. Oil
C. Air
D. I don’t know
3. When work must be done on High Voltage equipment, it is vital that the
equipment is earthed (grounded) after isolation procedures have been carried
out. Why is this? (Pra3.1)
A. To ensure that no energy remains in the system and that it cannot be
recharged by external influences.
B. To ensure that it is dead, even if there was a flaw in the isolation
procedure.
C. To ensure that the equipment doesnot over heat due to currents circulating
Through earth (ground).
D. I don’t know
4. Which of the following is the minimum acceptable value of insulation resistance for
High Voltage equipment? (Pra3.1)
A. 100 M Ohms
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
B. 1 M Ohms
C. 1 G Ohms
D. I don’t know
5. A 5V dc source has an internal impedance of 0.2ohms. When a load of 2.3
ohms is applied what voltage will be measured at the source terminals?
(Pra3.1)
A. 4.6 V
B. 5.0 V
C. 4.8 V
D. I don’t know
6. A galley hot plate uses a Nichrome / Magnesium Oxide heating element and
is to be tested before being put into service for the first ime. An insulation
resistance testyields a reading of 0.3 M Ohm. Which action should betaken?
(Pra3.1)
A. Apply reduced voltage to the element for a few minutes. Then retest and
if ok put into service.
B. Put the element into service.
C. Wash the element in a degreasing agent. Then retest and if ok put it
into service.
D. I don’t know
7. At hermistor which provides feedback for a thermal control system is
suspected to have failed. Assuming there is no available replacement, which
of the following methods may be used to prove it has failed? (Pra3.1)
A. Disconnect the thermocouple lead from the controller and replace with
amv source.
B. Connect amv source in parallel with the thermocouple connections.
C. Disconnect the thermocouple lead from the controller and replace
with ama source.
D. I don’t know
8. Atriac isused to provide temperature control of an oven. The galley complain
that the oven only reaches approximately 50 % of demanded temperature.
Which of the following is a likely cause? (Pra3.1)
A. One of the main switching elements in the triac has failed.
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
B. The triac has completely failed.

C. The voltage supply to the oven controller is reduced by about 50%
D. I don’t know
9. In a closed loop control system the error signal is derived from which of the
following? (Pra3.1)
A. The demand and the feedback signal
B. The tolerance of the feedback sensor
C.The process and the feeedback sensor
D. I don’t know
10. Ordinary thyristors (SCR) must often be protected against reverse over
voltage transients because even over-voltages of extremely short duration
can destroy them. The sescrs have been given such over-voltage protection,
but only one of the mis correct. Which? (Pra3.1)
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. I don’t know
11. The coil of a 12V, 120 madc relay must be connected a cross a 24 V supply.
What action should be taken? (Pra3.1)
A. Install a 100 ohm resistor in series with the coil
B. Install a 100 ohm resistor in parallel with the coil
C. Install a 100 k ohm resistor in series with the coil
D. I don’t know
12. The diode shown performs which function? (Pra3.1)
A. Return inductive current to supply at switch off.
B. Reference the transistor to +15V.
C. Provide an over load route for transistor current.
D. I don’t know
13. This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change-over switch S, a resistor
R and a capacitor C. The voltage / time figures 1 to 4 show changes in the
voltage V(C) when the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at
time t=0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which (Pra3.1)
A. Figure 1
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. . I don’t know
14. What should be the healthy continuity resistance of a 220V, 2.2kw, 10A
heating element, when checked near to it's rated operating temperature?
(Pra3.1)
A. 22 Ohms
B. 220 Ohms
C. 0.1 Ohms
D. I don’t know
15. Why should the coil of an ac solenoid valve not been ergised when
demounted from the valve body? (Pra3.1)
A. The coil will over heat.
B. The coil will fail due to vibration.
C. The coil will lose it's residual magnetism
D. I don’t know
16. "Protective discrimination "means the progress
Sive grading of sizes or tripping times of: (Pra3.1)
A. Line fuses and over current relays
B. 440 V and 220 V transformers.
C. Generators and motors.
D. I don’t know
17. A 250V contactor has been fitted to a 220V supply. Which of the following
symptoms might be observed? (Pra 3.1)
A. Contactor chattering
(vibrating)
B. Contactor wont operate
C. Contactor overheating
D. I don’t know
18. A transformer overheats while taking a shore supply. Which is the likely cause? (Pra
3.1)
A. Incorrect frequency
B. Incorrect voltage
C. Incorrect current
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
D. I don’t know
19. Continuity testing of a delta connected three phase inductionmotor yieldsthe

followingresults;U1-V1=4ohms,V1-W1=4ohms,W1-U1=4ohms.Whatis the
value of continuityresistanceforeachwinding ie. U1-U2? (Pra 3.1)
A. 6 ohms
B. 4 ohms
C.12 ohms
D. I don’t know
20. Continuity testing of a delta connected three phase induction motor yields
the following results; U-V=3 ohms, V-W =3 ohms, W-U=6 ohms. Which
of the following is the likely condition? (Pra 3.1)
A. Open circuit winding between W and U
B. Short circuit winding between W and U
C. Short circuit between V and Earth
D. I don’t know
21. Power is available at a three-phase motor starter but no thing happens (at
start eror motor) when the start button is operated. Which of the following is
a likely cause? (Pra 3.1)
A. Faulty contactor coil
B. Faulty over current relay
C. Motor disconnected
D. I don’t know
22. Routine maintenance insulation testing of a three-phase induction motor
should cover which measurements? (Pra 3.1)
A. U-E, V-E, W-E, U-V,V-W, W-U
B. U1-U2, V1-V2, W1-W2, U-E, V-
E,W-E
C. U-V-W-E
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
23. The continuity yresistance of a 100 m long X25sq. Mm cable (rate dat 100
A) is to be checked. Which of the following results would you anticipate?
(Pra 3.1)
A. Between 0.1 and 1.0 ohm
B. Between 0.1 micro ohm and 1.0 micro ohm
C. Greater than 1 M ohms
D. I don’t know
24. Three earth lamps indicate – bright – bright - dark. Which of the following is
indicated by this condition? (Pra 3.1)
A. No faults on the system but a failed lamp
B. Two phases are good and one has a hard fault to earth
C. Two phases are good and one has a partial fault toearth
D. I don’t know
25. When performing electrical testing of a three phase motor, insulation
resistance measurements may be in fluenced by which of the following? (Pra
3.1)
A. Temperature, humidity and surface contamination
B. Temperature, pressure and dampness
C. Humidity,frequency and dampness
D. I don’t know
26. A diode is in good condition when which of the following test results are
obtained using a Digital Multi-Meter. (Pra 3.1)
A. With + to Anode a reading of about 0.6 V and
with probes reversed a reading of O/L.
B. With + to Cathodea reading of about 0.6 V and
with probes reversed a reading of O/L.
C. With + to Anode good continuity (lowohms) and
with the probes reversed a reading of infinity.
D. I don’t know
27. A diode may be tested by which method? (Pra 3.1)
A. Use a Digital Multi – Meter set to check forward voltage and
reverse current blocking
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
B. Use a Digital Multi- Meter set to measure ohms

in forward and reverse directions.
C. Use an insulation resistance tester (Megger)
D. I don’t know
28. Can a ZENER BARRIER be installed in a hazardous area? (Pra 3.1)

A. No, as only the output from the barrier is
intrinsically safe this is not allowed.
B. Yes, that's what the zener barrier is made for.
C. Only if properly marked for such installation.
D. I don’t know
29. In the diagram below we want to verify the resistance of the PT 100 sensor
fitted with compensation. What is the correct calculation? (Pra 3.1)
A. R (Pt 100) = R1 - R2
B. R (Pt 100) = R1 + R2
C. R (Pt 100) = R1 x R2
D. I don’t know
30. The circuit consists of two inductors, L (1) = 6 Hand L (2) = 12 H, in series.
Calculate the equivalent total inductance. (Pra 3.1)
A. L (S) =18 H
B. L (S) = 0.5 H
C. L (S) =1,5 H
D. I don’t know
31. The circuit diagrams illustrate four different methods of wiring between a Pt
100 temperature sensor and its signal processing electronics. Which of the
wiring methods gives the best measuring accuracy? (Pra 3.1)
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. I don’t know
33. The circuit shows a full - wave bridge rectifier. Which electronic component
should be connected between 'a' and 'b' in order to obtain reduce dripple
voltage to the load RL. (Pra 3.1)
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
A. Capacitor
B. Inductive reactor
C. Zener diode.
D. I don’t know
34. The figure shows a silicon controlled rectifier with a RC circuit connected
in parallel. What is the purpose of the RC circuit? (Pra 3.1)
A. Protect the SCR against damage caused by fast high voltage spikes
B. Provide a controlled time delay for the SCR
trigger pulse.
C. Obtain current resonance
D. I don’t know
35. The figures how a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical
working characteristic for the same component. Which component? (Pra 3.1)
A. Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)
B. Zener diode
C. Tunnel diode
D. I don’t know
36. The inductance which will inducean EMF of 1Volt in a conductor when the
current is changing at a rate of 1 Amp per second,is defined as (Pra 3.1)
A. One Henry
B. One Farad
C. One millihenry
D. I don’t know
37. The typical current gain for a common emitter transistor is (Pra 3.1)
A. 10-200
B. 500-5000
C. 1-100000
D. I don’t know
38. These circuits are all active filters. Which of the circuits is alow - pass filter? (Pra 3.1)
A. Figure
B Figure A
C. Figure B
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
39. This amplifier circuit is a common configuration used to amplify the

difference in voltage between two input signals; in this case input 1 and 2.
What is this amplifier called? (Pra 3.1)
A. Differential amplifier
B. Push – pull amplifier
C. Darlington connection amplifier
D. I don’t know
40. This circuit on sists of acurrent source I, a change – overswitch S , a resistor

R and a capacitor C. The current / time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes
in the current I when the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at
timet =0. Only one of the diagrams is correct.Which? (Pra 3.1)
A. Figure C
B. Figure A
C. Figure B
D. I don’t know
41. This circuit shown Is a logic gate with two 'high' input signals, A and B, and
one output signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate provide?
(Pra 3.1)
A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NAND gate
D. I don’t know
42. This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which type of gate? (Pra 3.1)
A. AND
B. OR
C. NAND
D. I don’t know
43.This is a typical emitter follower. What is the main reason for use ofane mitter follower?
(Pra 3.1)
A. The input impedance is made much larger than the output impedance
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
B. The input impedance is made much smaller than the output

impedance
C. The collector can be connected to as high voltageas 10 V DC
D. . I don’t know
44.What is the maximum current that a 15 Volt, 3 Watt Zener diode can handle
without damage? (Pra 3.1)
A. 0.2 A
B. 20 A
C. .45 A
D. . I don’t know
45. Which electronic component or system is thisgraphical symbolillustrating: (Pra 3.1)

A. Band pass filter
B. 3 – phases in e- wave generator
C. Transformer with ferromagnetic co re
D. I don’t know
46. Which of the 4 alternatives shows a NPN bipolar transistor ? (Pra 3.1)
A. Figure 3.
B. Figure 2.
C. Figure 1.
D. I don’t know
47. Which of the function shown is this operational amplifier circuit performing?
(Pra 3.1)
A. Integrator
B. Differentiator
C. Inverting amplifier
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA FUNGSI 3
49. When Considering instrumentation systems, what is a typical symptom of a fault
A. Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is not giving

100%output
B. Zero-pointand 100% are correct, but not at mid– range
C. Linearity problems
D. 100% output is accurate, but Zero-point is wrong
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
7. Mengelolaprosedurperawatandanperbaikansecaraamandanefektif.
(Manage safe and efective maintenance and repair procedures)
1. During maintenance work on the main engine a problem arises regarding the
lifting of a main component in that the manufacturer's instructions ado not apply
to the engine as fitted and present a hazard. In which of the information/record
sources given in the options, is it most important to record the information
relating to this anomaly? (Pasca 3.2)
A. ISM procedures in the ship's
safety manual.
B. Engine room log book.
C. Engine room planned
maintenance schedule.
D. Safety officers report.
2. Electric arc welding is to be carried out in the machinery spaces other than the
workshop. Which of the alternatives below would be the preferred method for
the connection of the "return" cable to the welding set?
(Pasca 3.2)
A. Use a "go and return" system with the return cable connected directly
from the welding set to the work piece if possible.
B. Have a short length of cable permanently connected to the ships
structure close to the welding set.
C. Weld a stud bolt close to the work piece and connect the return cable to
this. D. Move the welding set to the welding site.
3. How should the spare oxygen and acetylene gas welding bottles be stored
onboard the ship? (Pasca 3.2)
A. In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.

B. In the workshop in the engine room as close as possible to
welding equipment.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
C. In a refrigerated room.
D. In the steering flat.
4. In many cases the ship's Chief Engineer can carry out survey of machinery on
behalf of a Classification Society under arrangements covering Continuous
Surveys. As part of this arrangement a Surveyor from the Classification Society
must carry out a periodic audit of the documentation for the approved planned
maintenance system and undertake a confirmatory survey of the items surveyed.
What is the normal frequency for this audit? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Annual.
B. Bi-annual.
C. Every 4
years.
D. Every 5
years
5. It is noticed that some of the items that were to be used to lift some machinery
components during a maintenance routine had not been tested for over 5 years.
Which of the options given is the correct action to be taken in a situation like
this? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Mark the items as not to be used and store them securely until they can
be tested by a competent person.
B. Scrap the items immediately as they are unusable once they have not
been tested for 5 years.
C. Have them inspected immediately by a competent person so that they can
be used for the task.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
D. Return them to the lifting gear locker and make a note in the Register of
Lifting Gear that they need to be tested.
6. Prior to removing the access doors to a pressure vessel for internal

maintenance it should be ensured that all pressure has been relieved. As well
as a zero indication on a pressure gauge which other measure, from the options
given should be taken to confirm this prior to commencing the work? (Pasca
3.2)
A. Open the drain valve while pressure still shows on the gauge and to
check it is clear. Outflow should cease as the pressure gauge reaches
zero.
B. Back of the tensioning device for the relief valve to vent the pressure
to atmosphere.
C. Open the drain valve when the gauge reads zero to check that there is
no outflow.
D. Open the drain valve and when the outflow stops slacken off the drain
valve flange bolts and 'crack' open the flange in case the drain is blocked.
7. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. 'Prior to
allowing work to proceed in an onboard space testing of the atmosphere should
be carried out…(Pra 3.1)
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
A. …for any space with limited access or non-continuous ventilation

or is suspected of having a hazardous atmosphere.
B. ..only if the space has contained liquid oil at some point.
C. …only if the space has been used to carry any cargo or contains any cargo
related equipment.
D. …only if the space has a watertight door or watertight access opening.
8. The machinery detail plate is missing from a large electric motor and the weight
is unknown. As part of a routine maintenance check the motor has to be lifted to
access some other equipment. Which of the given options is the correct action
that should be taken? (Pasca 3.2)
A. As it is only a routine maintenance and not a breakdown then postpone

the task until full details of the motor can be obtained.
B. Try and lift it with the engine room crane as it is designed to lift the
heaviest components in the engine.
C. Use the biggest chain blocks and strops available and carry out a trial
lift. D. Estimate the weight of the motor and select a chain block and strop
with a
safe working load of 1.5 times the calculated load.
9. When carrying out repair or maintenance tasks involving hot work a hot work
permit must be issued. Select the correct option from those given which
completes the following statement. 'The permit for hot work…(Pasca 3.2)
A. ..should only cover specific hot work tasks and be valid for a specified
time period.'
B. ..can cover any additional hot work that arises during the completion of
the task during the specified time period.'
C. ..is valid for completion of the specific hot work tasks irrespective of
the time taken.'
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
D. ..should only cover specific hot work tasks, be valid for a specified
time period and be issued by the person carrying out the work.'
10. According to regulations cranes and other lifting appliances onboard

should, at regular intervals, be examined by ship's personnel and the
result recorded in Register of Ship's Lifting Appliances and Cargo Handling
Gear. How often should such examinations take place? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Annually.
B. Every 5 years.
C. Every 6
months. D.
Biannually.
11. At what calendar interval is a "Special Survey" required? (Pasca 3.2)
A. 5 years.
B. Annually.
C. At 20 years and every five years
thereafter. D. Every 2 1/2 years.
12. At what calendar interval must lifting appliances on board a vessel be

suitably tested by a competent person? (Pasca 3.2)
A. 5 years.
B.
Annually.
C. 2
years.
D. 2 1/2 years.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
13. During the 5-yearly overhaul and operational test of a lifeboat on-load release
gear, to what level should the gear be load tested? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Times the total mass of the lifeboat

when loaded with its full complement
of persons and equipment.
B. The equivalent to the total mass of the
lifeboat when loaded with its full
complement of persons and equipment.
C. 1.25 times the total mass of the lifeboat when loaded with its
full complement of persons and equipment.
D. 0.8 times the total mass of the lifeboat when loaded with its full
complement of persons, equipment and stores.
14. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT)
equipment, which document must be available to the
surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS? (Pasca 3.2)
A. A report giving the result of the

Conformance Test issued by an
Approved Service Provider on behalf
of the flag
B. A report giving the result of the
Performance Test, issued by the manufacturer in compliance with the Flag
State Authority requirements.
C. The Certificate of Compliance with SOLAS V/19-1, bearing the
serial number of the equipment installation.
D. A Statement of Installation and and Testing by the Approved Service
Provider in compliance with SOLAS V/26-4.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
15. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a

competent person required under SOLAS? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Annually.
B. At the Intermediate Safety Equipment
Survey.
C. When the battery is replaced.
D. When the data media is downloaded.
16. When a Classification Society surveyor identifies corrosion, structural
defects or damage to the hull of a vessel, machinery and / or any piece of
equipment which, based on the society's rules and in the opinion of the
surveyor affects the ship's class, which of the following is that surveyor likely
to issue? (Pra 3.1)
A. A Condition of Class.
B. A Notification of
Deficiency.
C. A Notification of
Detention.
D. A revised Class Notation.
17. Where would you find the document relating to the "Condition of Freeboard
Assignment" onboard? (Pasca 3.2)
A. With the Loadline Certificate.

B. With the Structural Survey
File.
C. With the Classification
Records.
D. With the Safety Construction Certificate.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
18. Where would you look for information on the ratings applied to a vessel's
fire ratings on her bulkheads, based on SOLAS requirements? (Pasca 3.2)
A. The Cargo Ship Safety Construction

Certificate.
B. The Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate.
C. The Safety Management
Certificate.
D. The MODU Safety Certificate.
19. Which Convention first placed on the ship owner an obligation to exercise
due diligence to make a ship seaworthy, requiring him "before and at the
beginning of a voyage…to….make the ship seaworthy…and…make the
holds...and all other parts of the vessel in which goods are carried, fit and
safe for their reception, carriage and preservation"?(Pasca 3.2)
A. The Hague-Visby
Rules.
B. The Antwerp
Convention.
C. The Nassau Protocol.
D. The Paris Memorandum.
20. Who will verify the computational results and actual ship data used by
the calculation program on a vessel's stability computer? (Pra 3.1)
A. The Classification
Society.
B. The manufacturer.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
C. The engineer attending the installation

and initial on-site testing.
D. The master.
21. Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or “The
Company” ? (Pra 3.1)
A. The Bareboat Charterer

B. The Manager
C. Could be any of these
D. The Owner
22. What is meant by a "Safety Management system" ? (Pra 3.1)
A. A documented shipboard system which lists each and every know

shipboard hazard to safety, health and environment.
B. The implementation on board ship of emergency response training
by documented training methods.
C. A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on
board ship.
D. A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board
to implement the company safety and environment protection policy.
23. Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity ? (Pasca 3.2)
A. A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement

B. Lack of comfort leading to health risks
C. A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking.
D. Not conforming with safe working practices which may ead to accidents
24. What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code ? (Pasca 3.2)
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
A. A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to

life.
B. A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge oil, chemicals
or toxic substances from the ship
C. A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master
is diminished
D. A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of
ship or personnel or to the Environment
25. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other
things
include ………….(Pasca 3.2)
A. Continuous improvement of safety management skills of

personnel including preparing for emergencies related to safety and
environmental protection
B. Hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training
of its shipboard personnel
C. Conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke
free passages on board
D. Holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered
into the water every week
26. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other
things
provide for …………(Pasca 3.2)
A. Supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition

date
B. Safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment
C. Shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the
required qualifications
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
D. Safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and

parkas
27. Safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things
establish …………..(Pasca 3.2)
A. Sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for

joint departmental use and consultation in case of emergency
B. A cooperative and informative atmosphere on board
C. Safeguards against all identified risks
D. A dictatorial regime on board
28. The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things,
that applicable codes, guidelines and standards recommended by …………..are
taken into account. (Pasca 3.2)
A. Classification Societies
B. Maritime industry organisations
C. The IMO, and Flag-State administrations
D. All of these.
29. The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place .
(Pasca 3.2)
A. That that the life saving appliances are well maintained on

board.
B. Compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.
C. That all Marpol requirements are complied with.
D. That Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.
30. All the requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into
account in ship operation through (Pasca 3.2)
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
A. Videos and books

B. Training by qualified instructors
C. Regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel
D. Written procedures and work instructions
31. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken
into account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements
include the following information: ……(Pasca 3.2)
A. All of these.
B. The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations
and procedures for internal audits and management review.
C. The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between
and amongst shore and shipboard personnel.
D. The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with
the provisions of the Code.
32. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to

develop, implement and maintain a system which includes the following ((Pasca
3.2)
A. 1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required

Letters of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship.
B. 1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control
of countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities.
C. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions
and procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the
environment.
D. 1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and
chief engineers 3) office staff Home telephone numbers.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
33. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements

(procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are
observed. Who will actually verify this on board ? (Pasca 3.2)
A. The Designated Person

B. The Master
C. The Master and Officers
D. The Chief Engineer
34. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures
and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed ?
(Pasca 3.2)
A. By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer

assigned as input controller
B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own
Safety Work Book
C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities cof crew members
D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master
35. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System

and
reporting its deficiencies to (Pasca 3.2)
………..
A. The shore based management
B. The classification society
C. The Flag state authorities
D. The Port state control of the next port of call
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
36. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should
include any deficiencies and may include (Pasca 3.2)
A. A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the

Company.
B. A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who
are to be promoted
C. Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the
SMS.
D. The officer's and crew's appraisal reports
37. When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with
safety and pollution prevention as primary objective, the focus is on (Pasca 3.2)
A.Prevention.
B.Finance.
C. Economy.
D. Response to accident
38. Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and
pollution prevention as a primary objective and should include amongst
other things (Pasca 3.2)
A. Methods to tower the

lifeboats.
B. Efficiency of the propulsion
machinery.
C. Measures to mitigate identified
risks.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
D. Accuracy of the trim and stability

calculations.
39. Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations it is
expected that the Company has identified risks associated with …(Pasca 3.2)
A. The carriage of liquid oil cargoes in

bulk
B. Drugs and alcohol
misuse
C. The shipping industry’s cost
structure
D. The particular type of vessel and its
trade.
40. Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible
risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment ? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of

steering
B. Cargo shifting, collision,
explosion
C. Inerting, tank cleaning, gas
freeing
D. Fire, flooding, grounding
41. The Company should establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to
……….. Emergency shipboard operations. (Pasca 3.2)
A. Potential
B. Assumed
C. Occuring
D. Theoretical
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
42. A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable

for use onboard the particular type ship being operated including the duties and
responsibilities of the crewmembers and (Pasca 3.2)
A. The methods of rescue available.

B. Shipboard communication methods
available.
C. The ways of combating a worst case
scenario.
D. The methods of reporting casualties to the Authorities.
43. Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established
maintenance requirements inclusive (Pasca 3.2)
A. Of a computerised planned maintenance system.

B. Of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines.
C. Of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work
routines and verification of their implementation by the appropriate
personnel.
D. Of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and
engine departments up to date.
44. Under the SMS as part of shipboard responsibilities, there should be routine
inspections of …(Pasca 3.2)
A. All crews belongings, luggage and items stowed in crew

cabins.
B. The accommodation.
C. All machinery and ships equipment in use.
D. Machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
45. Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be
expected to correct non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what
are “Non- Conformities" ? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Damage
B. Any one these
C. Deficiencies
D. Defects, malfunctioning
46. The Company should have procedures established for corrective action. Corrective
actions involves solutions which ……(Pasca 3.2)
A. Punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other

action afterwards.
B. Investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s)
involved.
C. May reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity.
D. Guaranty that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity.
47. The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment
and technical systems of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous
operations. Once identified (Pasca 3.2)
A. These items are checked at least once a week by the Master.

B. Tests and other procedures should be established to ensure
reliability.
C. A rigid maintenance program is to be established for this
equipment
D. It must be ensured that each and every component of these systems
and equipment is carried as spare on board.
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
48. The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems
associated with alternatives should be part of the Company's maintenance plan.
Example of tests are (Pasca 3.2)
A. Operation of alarms and emergency shut-downs.

B. Emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2
detectors)
C. Any or all of the other options
D. Pre-arrival and pre-departure tests
49. The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all
documents which are relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that:
(Pasca 3.2)
A. 1) Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviews

the documents 3) the Master implements the contents of documents.
B. 1) Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents
are to be reviewed by the Master 3) Documents are to be kept safe.
C. 1) Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents
are authorised by the Classification Society 3) Documents are
authorised by P
& I Club.
D. 1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are
reviewed and approved by authorised personnel 3) Obsolete documents
are removed prompt.
50. The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the
………….(Pasca 3.2)
A. Ship Management
Manual
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
B. Safety Management
Manual
C. Ship Maintenance
Manual
D. Shipboard Instruction Manual
51. The Company should carry out ……….. To verify whether safety and
pollution prevention activities comply with the Shipboard Management
System ? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Inspections by third party consultants

B. Drydock Inspections
C. External safety audits
D. Internal safety audits
52. SMS Management reviews should be initiated at least by ……(Pasca 3.2)
A. Analysis and investigation of accidents, results obtained

due implementation of SMS.
B. Changes in the market strategy, social and environmental
conditions.
C. Any of these
D. Recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdated
SMS in the light of new rules/ regulations brought in force.
53. Personnel carrying out audits should be……… the areas being audited. (Pasca
3.2)
A. Very
conversant
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
B. Familiarised
with
C. Independent
of
D. Experts in
54. A ……….. Should be issued for every Company complying with the
requirements of the ismcode by the Administration, or by the
Organisationrecognised by the Administration . (Pasca 3.2)
A. Safety Management Certificate

B. International Shipmanagement Certificate
C. Document of Compliance
D. Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate
55. When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate
in accordance with the approved SMS, a …….... Should be issued to the ship
by the Administration or organisationrecognised by it. (Pasca 3.2)
A. Safety Management Certificate

B. Certificate of Responsibility
C. Document of Compliance
D. Credibility Certificate
56. What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code ? (Pasca 3.2)
A. The international code for transporting of cargoes safety on board

ships as regulated by Marpol Annex III
B. An international management code for the safe operation of ships and
for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO
TIM FUNGSI 3.2
C. The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices
D. The International Ship Management Association's code For
navigational safety
57. Under ISM, which methods can the master use to implement the Company's
Safety and Environmental policy? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules

B. At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and
the workload on the ship, as well as weather conditions
C. As defined and documented by the Company
D. He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and
the shipboard safety committee
TIM PRA F.3
1. When selecting witch gear to work with High Voltage it is important

to use an appropria tearcing medium. What is meant by arcing
medium? (Pra 3.1)
A.The gas, liquid or vapour which will minim is ecreation of an electric

arcas contacts open.
B. A material which assists a welding process.
C. Equipment which communicates information about the arcing.
D. I don’t know
2. When there is a need to interrupt current flow in a high voltage system it may
be very difficult to quench the electrical arc which is generated at the circuit
breaker contacts. Which of the following arcing media is commonly found
in high voltage marine switchgear? (Pra 3.1)
A. Vacuum
B. Oil
C. Air
D. I don’t know
3.When work must be done on High Voltage equipment, it is vital that the
equipment is earthed (grounded) after isolation procedures have been
carried out.Why is this? (Pra3.1)
A. To ensure that no energy remains in the system and that it cannot be

recharged by external influences.
B. To ensure that it is dead, even if there was a flaw in the isolation

procedure.
TIM PRA F.3
C. To ensure that the equipment does not overheat due to currents

circulating through earth (ground).
D. I don’t know
4. Which of the following is the minimum acceptable value of insulation resistance

for High Voltage equipment? (Pra3.1)
A. 100 M Ohms
B. 1 M Ohms
C. 1 G Ohms
D. 100 k Ohms
5.A 5 V dc source has an internal impedance of 0.2ohms. When a load of 2.3

ohms is applied what voltage will be measured at the source terminals?
(Pra3.1)
A. 4.6 V
B. 5.0 V
C. 4.8 V
D. I don’t know
6. A galley hot plate uses a Nichrome / Magnesium Oxide heating element and
is to be tested before being put into service for the first time. An insulation
resistance test yields a reading of 0.3 M Ohm. Which action should be
taken? (Pra3.1)
A. Apply reduced voltage to the element for a few minutes. Then

retest and if ok put into service.
B. Put the element into service.
C. Wash the element in a degree singagent. Then retest and if ok

put it into service.
TIM PRA F.3
D. I don’t know
7.A thermistor which provides feedback for a thermal control system is

suspected to have failed. Assuming there is no available replacement,
which of the following methods may be used to prove it has failed?
(Pra3.1)
A. Disconnect the thermocouple lead from the controller and replace

with amv source.
B. Connect amv source in parallel with the thermocouple

connections.
C. Disconnect the thermocouple lead from the controller and

replace with ama source.
D. I don’t know
8. A triac is used to provide temperature control of an oven. The galley complain

that the oven only reaches approximately 50% of demanded temperature. Which
of the following is a likely cause? (Pra3.1)
A. One of the main switching elements in the triac has failed.
B. The triac has completely failed.
C. The voltage supply to the oven controller is reduced by about

50%
D. I don’t know
9. In a closed loop control system the error signal is derived from which
of the following? (Pra3.1)
A. The demand and the feedback signal
B. The tolerance of the feedback sensor

TIM PRA F.3
C.The process and the feeedback sensor
D. I don’t know
10 Ordinary thyristors (SCR) must often be protected against reverse

overvoltage transients because even over-voltages of extremely short duration
can destroy them. These scrs have beeng iven such over – voltage protection,
but only one of the mis correct. Which? (Pra3.1)
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. I don’t know
11.The coil of a 12 V, 120 madc relay must be connected a cross a 24

Vsupply. What action should be taken? (Pra3.1)
A. Install a 100 ohm resistor in series with the coil
B. Install a 100 ohm resistor in parallel with the coil
C. Install a 100 k ohm resistor in series with the coil
D. I don’t know
12. The diode shown performs which function? (Pra3.1)
A. Return inductive current to supply at switch off.
B. Reference the transistor to +15V.
C. Provide an overload route for transistor current.
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
13. This circuit consists of a voltage source V, a change – overswitch S, a

resistor R and a capacitor C. The voltage / time figures 1 to 4 show changes
in the voltage V(C) when the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to
2 at timet = 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct. Which (Pra3.1)
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. I don’t know
14. What should be the healthy continuity resistance of a 220V, 2.2kw, 10 A

heating element, when checked near to it's rated operating temperature?
(Pra3.1)
A. 22 Ohms
B. 220 Ohms
C. 0.1 Ohms
D. 10 Ohms
D. I don’t know
15 Why should the coil of an acsolenoid valve not be energised when

demounted from the valve body? (Pra3.1)
A. The coil will overheat.
B. The coil will fail due to vibration.

TIM PRA F.3
C. The coil will lose it's residual magnetism
D. I don’t know
16. "Protective discrimination" means the progress Sive grading of sizes or tripping
times of: (Pra3.1)
A. Line fuses and over current relays
B. 440 V and 220 V transformers.
C. Generators and motors.
D. I don’t know
17. A 250 V contactor has been fitted to a 220V supply. Which of the
following symptoms might be observed? (Pra 3.1)
A. Contactor chattering (vibrating)
B. Contactor wont operate
C. Contactor overheating
D. I don’t know
18. A transformer overheats while taking a shore supply. Which is the likely cause?
(Pra 3.1)
A. Incorrect frequency
B. Incorrect voltage
C. Incorrect current
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
19.Continuity testing of a delta connected three phase induction motor yields the
following results; U1-V1 = 4 ohms, V1-W1 = 4 ohms, W1-U1 = 4ohms.
What is the value of continuity resistance for each winding ie. U1-U2? (Pra
3.1)
A. 6 ohms
B. 4 ohms
C.12 ohms
D. I don’t know
20. Continuity testing of a delta connected three phase induction motor yields
the following results; U-V=3 ohms, V-W =3 ohms, W-U=6 ohms.
Which of the following is the likely condition? (Pra 3.1)
A. Open circuit winding between W and U
B.Short circuit winding between W and U
C.Short circuit between V and Earth
D. I don’t know
21.Power is available at a three – phase motor starter but no thing happens (at
start eror motor) when the start button is operated. Which of the following is
a likely cause? (Pra 3.1)
A. Faulty contactor coil
B. Faulty over current relay
C. Motor disconnected
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
22.Routine maintenance in sulation testing of a three – phase induction motor

should cover which measurements? (Pra 3.1)
A. U-E, V-E, W-E, U-V,V-W, W-U
B. U1-U2, V1-V2, W1-W2, U-E, V-E,W-E
C. U-V-W-E
D. I don’t know
23.The continuity resistance of a 100 m long X25 sq. Mm cable (rated at 100 A)is
to be checked. Which of the following results would you anticipate? (Pra 3.1)
A. Between 0.1 and 1.0 ohm
B. Between 0.1micro ohm and 1.0 micro ohm
D. Greater than 1 M ohms
D. I don’t know
24. Three earth lamps indicate – bright – bright - dark. Which of the
following is indicated by this condition? (Pra 3.1)
A. No faults on thesystem butafailed lamp
B. Two phases are good and one has a hard fault to earth
C. Two phases are good and one has a partial fault to earth
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
25.When performing electrical testing of a three phase motor, insulation resistance

measurements may be influenced by which of the following? (Pra 3.1)
A. Temperature, humidity and surface contamination
B. Temperature, pressure and dampness
C. Humidity, frequency and dampness
D. I don’t know
26.A diode is in good condition when which of the following test results are
obtained using a Digital Multi-Meter. (Pra 3.1)
A. With + to Anode a reading of about 0.6 V and with probes

reversed a reading of O/L.
B. With + to Cathode a reading of about 0.6 V and with probes reversed

a reading of O/L.
C. With + to Anode good continuity (low ohms) and with the probes
reversed a reading of infinity.
D. I don’t know
27. A diode may be tested by which method? (Pra 3.1)
A. Use a Digital Multi – Meter set to check forward voltage and

reverse current blocking
B. Use a Digital Multi- Meter set to measure ohms in forward and

reverse directions.
C. Use an insulation resistance tester (Megger)
D. I don’t know
28. Can a ZENER BARRIER be installed in a hazardous area? (Pra 3.1)

TIM PRA F.3
A. No, as only the output from the barrier is intrinsically safe this is
not allowed.
B. Yes, that's what the zener barrieris made for.
C. Only if properly marked for such installation.
D. I don’t know
29.In the diagram below we want to verify the resistance of the PT 100
sensor fitted with compensation. What is the correct calculation? (Pra
3.1)
A. R (Pt 100) = R1-R2
B. R (Pt 100) = R1 +R2
C. R (Pt 100) = R1 x R2
D. I don’t know
30. The circuit consists of two inductors, L (1) = 6 Hand L (2) = 12 H , in
series.
Calculate the equivalent total inductance. (Pra 3.1)
A. L (S) = 18 H
B. L (S) = 0.5 H
C. L (S) = 1,5 H
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
31. The circuit diagrams illustrate four different methods of wiring between a Pt
100 temperature sensor and its signal processing electronics. Which of the
wiring methods gives the best measuring accuracy? (Pra 3.1)
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. I don’t know
32.The circuit shows a full – wave bridge rectifier. Which electronic component
should be connected between 'a' and 'b' in order to obtain reduce dripple
voltage to the load RL. (Pra 3.1)
A. Capacitor
B. Inductive reactor
C. Zener diode.
D. I don’t know
33. The figure shows a silicon controlled rectifier with a RC circuit

connected in parallel. What is the purpose of the RC circuit? (Pra 3.1)
A. Protect the SCR against damage caused by fast high voltage spikes
B. Provide a controlled time delay for the SCR trigger pulse.
C. Obtain current resonance
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
34.The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component

and a typical working characteristic for the same component. Which
component? (Pra 3.1)
A. Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)
B. Zener diode
C. Tunnel diode
D. I don’t know
35. The inductance which will inducean EMF of 1 Volt in a conductor when the
current is changing at a rate of 1 Amp per second, is defined as (Pra 3.1)
A. One Henry
B. One Farad
C. One millihenry
D. I don’t know
36. The typical current gain for a common emitter transistor is (Pra 3.1)
A. 10 - 200
B. 500 - 5000
C. 1 - 5
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
37. These circuits are allactive filters. Which of the circuits is alow - pass filter?
(Pra 3.1)
A. Figure B
B. Figure A
C. Figure C
D. I don’t know
38.This amplifier circuit is a common configuration used to amplify the difference

in voltage between two input signals ; in this case input 1 and 2. What is this
amplifier called? (Pra 3.1)
A. Differential amplifier
B. Push – pull amplifier
C.Darling ton connection amplifier
D. I don’t know
39.This circuit consists of a current source I, a change – over switch S, a resistor

R and a capacitor C.The current / time figures 1 to 4 show possible changes
in the current I when the switch S is suddenly shifted from position 1 to 2 at
timet = 0. Only one of the diagrams is correct.Which? (Pra 3.1)
A. Figure C
B. Figure A
C. Figure B
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
40. This circuit shown is a logic gate with two 'high' input signals, A and B, and
one output signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate provide?
(Pra 3.1)
A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NAND gate
D. I don’t know
41. This graphical symbol is a logic gate. Which type of gate? (Pra 3.1)
A. AND
B. OR
C. NAND
D. I don’t know
42. This is a typical emitter follower. What is the main reason for use of an
emitter follower? (Pra 3.1)
A. The input impedance is made much larger than the output

impedance
B. The input impedance is made much smaller than the output

impedance
C. The collector can be connected to as high voltageas 10 V DC
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
43. What is the maximum current that a 15Volt, 3 Watt Zener
A.diodecan
0.2 A
Handle without damage? (Pra 3.1)

C. 0.45 A
D. I don’t know
.
I
d
44. When consideringinstrumentationsystems,whatisatypicalsymptomofafault

withthespan of an instrument? (Pra 3.1)
A. Zero-point is accurate, but 100% input is not giving
B. Zero-pointand 100%are correct, butnot at mid– range
D. I don’t know
45. Which electronic component or system is this graphical symbol illustrating:

(Pra 3.1)
50.Which electronic component or system is thisgraphical

symbolillustrating: (Pra 3.1)
A. Bandpass filter
B. 3-phasesine-wavegenerator
C. Transformer with ferromagnetic co
D. I don’t know
46. Which ofthe 4 alternatives shows a NPN bipolar transistor? (Pra 3.1)
TIM PRA F.3
A. Figure 3.
B. Figure 2.
C. Figure 1.
D. I don’t know
47. Which of the function shown is this operational amplifier circuit performing?
(Pra 3.1)
A. Integrator
B. Differentiator
C. Inverting amplifier
D. I don’t know
48. What does heaving resultin? (Pra 3.1)
A. Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
B. Shearing of container twistlocks
C. Tipping of containers
D. I don’t know
49. What is the dis advantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship
construction? (Pra 3.1)
TIM PRA F.3
A. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
B. Failure without warning
C. Low elasticity
D. I don’t know
50. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder? (Pra 3.1)
A. The number of repeated stress cycles
B. Repeated plastic deformation of the hull
C. Panting stresses
D. I don’t know
51. What roll amplitudeis generally used by classification societies in
calculating rolling forces? (Pra 3.1)
A. 24 -30 degrees
B. 37 -42 degrees
C. 30 -36 degrees
52. What would indicate the on set of Parametric Rolling? (Pra 3.1)
A. When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of
the ship
B. When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll
period of the ship
TIM PRA F.3
C. When wave heights experienced from the bows

exceed 6 meters
D. I don’t know
52. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum

values? (Pra 3.1)
A. When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
B. When a ship is at its extreme angle of pitch and roll

simultaneously
C. When a ship surges
D. I don’t know
53. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship? (Pra 3.1)
A. When the on - deck containers present a certain profile to the wind

direction
B. Whenever wind speeds exceed 60 knots
C. When on - deck containers are block – stowed

D. I don’t know
54. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel? (Pra
3.1)
A. Because pitching varies with ship’s length
B. Because very large container vessels are more exposed to open sea
conditions
TIM PRA F.3
C. Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed

to wind forces
D. I don’t know
55. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain ; pre loading calculations show that
IMO
Stability criteria cannot be achieved ; the vessel should do which of the

following? (Pra 3.1)
A. The grain surfaces in some orall of the cargo spaces must be secured
B. The cargo can still be loaded
C. An exemption certificate must be applied for
D. I don’t know
56. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck

forward, what are the major concerns of the changes in stability? (Pra
3.1)
A. Reduction of metacentric height (GM)

and loss of freeboard forward
B. Excessivetrim bythe stern
C. Reduction of speed and additional fuel consumption

D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
57. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in a nupper
ballast tank a mid ships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do? (Pasca
3.2)
A. Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and call in
Classification Society
B. Note the dimensions of the crack and measure regularly
C. Proceed on ballast voyage without ballast in this tank
D. I don’t know
58 In asing lesideskin bulk carrier of 155 m in length constructed in 2000 and

carrying cargo of density 1010 kg / cu .m. , which cargo hold should be able to
with stand flooding? (Pra 3.1)
A. Any cargo hold
B. The fore most cargo hold
C. The mid ships cargo hold
D. I don’t know
59. In asing lesideskin bulkcarrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and

carrying cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is
strength ened to withstand flooding? (Pra 3.1)
A. The fore most cargo hold
B. The after most cargo hold
C. The ballast hold
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
60. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks instructure in which
of the following parts of the vessel? (Pasca 3.2)
A. Around hatchcorners and upper ballast

tanks a mid ships
B. In number 1 and number 2 holds
C. In after peak area

D. I don’t know
61.On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse

frame beam knees ares lightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
(Pasca 3.2)
A. This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is potentially

serious
B. There are no concerns with this observation
C. This is an indication of excessive bending moment stress

D. I don’t know
62. The vessel is in structed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high
density cargo. What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this?
(Pra 3.1)
A. IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds with high

density cargoes.
B. The trim of the vessel will not be satisfactory.
C. Cargo space cleaning after discharge will be excessive.
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
DPKP
63. What are the effect sofa bulk vessel loading a high density cargo
resulting in a large meta centric height (GM)? (Pra 3.1)
A. Have a fast roll period and

possibly suffer racking stresses
B. Have a slow roll and large righting levers
C. Have as low roll and very small righting levers
D. I don’t know
64 What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a
cargo hold which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier? (Pra 3.1)
A. The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted with additional

securing devices
B. There is no differences in design
C. This hold does not haveventilators
D. I don’t know
65. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum
draft (Pra 3.1)
A. The minimum bow height must be maintained
B. The vessel is trimmed by the stern on completion,
C. The vessel is trimmed by the head on completion
.D. I don’t know

TIM PRA F.3
66. What would a cracked cross – deck plating found during a loaded passage on
a bulk carrier indicate? (Pra 3.1)
A. That shear forces have been exceeded
B. That the vessel is due for survey
C. That failure of the shell plating is imminent
D. I don’t know
67. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
(Pasca 3.2)
A. Upper and lower connection of main side frames
B. Longitudinal deck plating outside hatches
C. The girders
D. I don’t know
68. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of
gravity for each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier? (Pra 3.1)
A. Vessel stability book
B. Line drawing
C. Capacity Plan
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
69. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe

environmental and safety hazards which require significant preventative
measures top reclude escape of such cargo, usually of double – hull
construction, with a variety of tank sizes / capacitiesis rated as: (Pra 3.1)
A. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
B. A type I chemical tanker as per the IBC Code.
C. A chemical tanker for the purposes of the 1996 IMO directive

MEPC / 2.12 circ. On Mandatory Reporting Requirements for Ships
Carrying Dangerous or Polluting Goods.
D. I don’t know
70. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of
loading, the final level of the water would be at: (Pra 3.1)
A. The top of the summer load line mark.
B. The bottom of the summerload line mark.
C. The top of the winter mark.
D. I don’t know
71. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability
can be maintained by: (Pra 3.1)
A. Completely filling the ship's double bottom tanks and

continuously monitoring the loading operation.
B. Completely filling those double bottom tanks below the cargo hold
where heavy cargo is being loaded.
TIM PRA F.3
C. Monitoring the vessel's stability during the loading operation

and not allowing the vessel to liston the side of the load.
D. I don’t know
72. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank
designed for transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure? (Pra 3.1)
A. Carbon – Manganese steel.
B. 9% Nickel steel.
C. Stainless steel.
D. I don’t know
73. What is the purpose of girders in the tank? (Pra 3.1)
A. They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea forces
B. They transfer all the sea forces acting on the plating
C. They transfer all the cargo forces acting on the plating
D. I don’t know
74. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of
passenger ships? (Pra 3.1)
A. The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
B. SOLAS
C. International Safety Management code

TIM PRA F.3
D. I don’t know
75. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make
passenger ships able to with stand critical damage? (Pra 3.1)
A. Maintain sufficient intactstability
B. Damaged stability to be increased by use

of water ballast
C. Avoid overloading the ship
D. I don’t know
76. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght? (Pra 3.1)
A. TheMaster
B. The Shipping Company and the Classification Society
C. The Flag State Administration
D. I don’t know
77. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following
statement."Reefer vessels, loaded with a homo genous cargo, usually operate
with a small GM due to the fact that…(Pra 3.1)
A. …they are designed with fine lines and the biggest cargo spaces are at
the top of the holds."
B. …they are designed with small fuel tanks."

TIM PRA F.3
C. …they are designed that way to produce agent lerolling motion."
D. I don’t know
78. Why are pure roro car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels
where their stability is concerned. (Pra 3.1)
A.Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast

operations are not handled correctly
B. Because they have few internal bulk heads
C. Because they have few internal bulkheads
D. I don’t know
79. What is usually the effecton G when the ship is damaged? (Pra 3.1)
A. It is unchanged
B. It first rises then lowers
C. It lowers
D. I don’t know
80. What type of dynamic forces may cause in dentin plating on fore castle deck
and main deck in way of pillars inside fore castle? (Pra 3.1)
A. Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
B. Slamming in way of flat bottom forward of light draught

TIM PRA F.3
C. Forces created by wave son the fore castle
D. I don’t know
81. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength? (Pra 3.1)
A. The master.
B. The management company.
C. The classification society.
D. I don’t know
82. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo
such a sirono reconcentrate ; what would be the possible stability conditions
produced? (Pra 3.1)
A. The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM)
and have a fast roll period
B. The vessel will normally have as mallintact metacentric height

(GM) and have a slow roll period
C. The vessel will be tenderand have a poor curve of righting levers.
D. I don’t know
83. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm?
(Pra 3.1)
A. GM
B. GZ
C.BM
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
84. The geo metric center of the under water volume of a floating vessel is the
center of (Pra 3.1)
A. Hydro dynamics
B. Flotation
C. Gravity
D. I don’t know
85. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, bread than d
draft of the vessel is known as the vessel’s (Pra 3.1)
A. Area of the water plane
B. Block coefficient
C. Water plane coefficient

D. I don’t know
86. Which of the following best describes the moment of inerti about the
longitudinal axis? (Pra 3.1)
A. The measure of a ship’s resistance to heaving.
B. The measure of a ship’s resistance to rolling.
C. The ratio of the area of the water plane to the product of the length and
breadth of the vessel.
D. I don’t know
87.Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling? (Pra 3.1)

TIM PRA F.3
A. It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as the ocean
wave period.
B. It occurs when the natural rolling period of the vessel differs from the
ocean wave period.
C. It occurs when the vessel is rolling in calm waters.

D. I don’t know
88. The point at which all vertically down ward forces of weight are considered to
be concentrated is the (Pra 3.1)
A. 2000 pounds
B. Center of gravity
C. Center of buoyancy
D. I don’t know
89. One long ton is equivalent to (Pra 3.1)
A. 2000 pounds
B. 1000 kilograms
C. 2240 pounds
90. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination? (Pra 3.1)
A. KG
B. The righting moment
C. GM
D. I don’t know
TIM PRA F.3
91. The number of long tons necessary to change theme and raft of a vessel1inch is
known as the (Pra 3.1)
A. Moment to trim 1 inch
B. Tons per inch immersion
C. Area of the water plane
D. I don’t know
92. If a load issue spended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a
vessel’s stability?(Pra 3.1)
A. The weight acts upon the vessel at it’s actual height above the keel.
B. The weight acts upon the vessel from the position of the base of the
craneon the vessel’s deck.
C. The weight acts upon the vessel from the spot on the deck directly
below the suspended weight.
D. I don’t know
93. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “stiffship?” (Pra 3.1)
A. A small GM
B. A long rolling period
C. Neutral stability
D. I don’t know
94. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement.
'Prior to allowing work to proceed in an on board space testing of the
atmosphere should be carried out…(Pra 3.1)
A. …for any space with limited access or non-continuous ventilation or is

suspected of having a hazardous atmosphere.
TIM PRA F.3
B. ..only if the space has contained liquid oil at some point.
C. …only if the space has been used to carry any cargo or contains any
cargo related equipment.
D. I don’t know
95. When a Classification Society survey or identifies corrosion, structural

defectsor damage to the hull of a vessel, machinery and / or any piece of
equipment which, base don the society's rules and in the opinion of the survey
or affects the ship's class, which of the following is that surveyor likely to
issue? (Pra 3.1)
A. A Condition of Class.
B. A Notification of Deficiency.
C. A Notification of Detention.
D. I don’t know
96. Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or
“The Company”? (Pra 3.1)
A. The Bareboat Charterer
B. The Manager
C. Could be any of these
D. I don’t know
97. What is meant by a "Safety Management system" ? (Pra 3.1)

TIM PRA F.3
A. A documented ship board system which lists each and every

know ship board hazard to safety, health and environment.
B. The implementation on board ship of emergency response training by

documented training methods.
C. A structured and documented system enabling personnel on

board to implement the company safety and environment
protection policy.
D. I don’t know
A. FUNGSI 4
DPKP
.Memantau dan mengendalikan kepatuhan terhadappersyaratan

peraturan yang berlaku dan tindakan yang diambil untuk menjamin
keselamatan jiwa di laut, keamanan dan perlindungan lingkungan
laut(Monitorand control compliancewithlegislative
requirementsandmeasuresto ensure safety ofife atsea, securityand
protection ofthemarine environment)
1. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90)

(Pasca 4.2d)
A. Unannounced drillsat anytime
B. Participation in all announced drills
C. Maximum one drill ayear
D. Maximum two drills ayear
2. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of
18? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Oneyear.
B. Two years.
C. No timelimit.
D. Threemonths.
3. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee

elected? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. 1 - 2years.
B. 3 - 4years.
C. 5 - 6years.
D. 8 years.
4. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. For all vessels.

B. For all vessels except passenger vessels.
C. For passenger vessels only.
D. For tankers and other vessels carrying
persistent oil as cargo.
A. FUNGSI 4
5. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of

annex 1? (Pra 4.1c)
A. We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the

regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
B. We find 5 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the
regulations for the prevention of pollution by sewage
C. We find 4 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 regulations
for the prevention of pollution by garbage
D. Wefind 1 annexes in MARPOLandannex 1 regulations for the prevention
of pollution by chemicals.
6. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately? (Pra 4.1c)

A. Report to relevant authorities.
B. Inform themanager.
C. Start clean-up operations.
D. Inform thevessel'sagent.
7. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct? (Pra 4.1a)
A. COTP-zones may have additional rules and
regulations
B. OPA-90 specify rules and regulations for all
COTP-zones
C. After implementation of OPA-90 there are no
area specific rules and regulations
D. OPA-90 specify all oil cargo related rules and regulations
8. MARPOL-AnnexIV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do you

understand by the word "Sewage"?(Pra 4.1a)
A. Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
A. FUNGSI 4
B. Mixture of seawater/oil.
C. Waste from galley.
D. Waste from synthetic materials.
9. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily
water separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to: (Pra
4.1a)
A. 15 ppm
B. 50 ppm
C. 25 ppm
D. 10 ppm
10. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI) (Pra 4.1a)

A. Q Iis an authorised individual, situated in the
US, and contracted by the owner or
operator of the vessel
B. Q Iis the owner’s contingency leader
C. Q Iis representing the USCG
D. An individual certified by USCG to handle oil spills
11. What can lead to "Unlimited responsibility" (OPA-90) (Pasca 4.2b)

A. Wilful misconduct, gross negligence and violation
of Federal Safety
B. Only gross negligence
C. Only wilful misconduct
D. Wil ful misconduct and gross negligence
12. What does STCWdeal with? (Pra 4.1a)

A. STCW deals with minimum recommendation of
education for seafarers and minimum standards
for training centreand schools
B. STCW deals with minimum recommendation for
training centreand schools
C. STCW deals with recommendation for training centre and schools and type
of education for seafarers
D. STCW deals with training centreand schools and standards forwatch
keepers
A. FUNGSI 4
13. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean? (Pra 4.1a)
A. International Conventionforthe Safety of Lives at Sea
B. International Agreement for Security of Load and Ships
C. International Conference for Security of Loads aboard Ships
D. International Rules for Safe Ocean Lines and Sailing routes
14. What does theterm OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations? (Pra 4.1a)
A. All of thementioned
B. Fuel oil
C. Sludge
D. Oil refuse
15. What is full form of VRP (OPA-90) (Pra 4.1a)

A. Vessel Response Plan
B. Vessel Report Plan
C. Vessel Response Procurement
D. Vessel Reporting Procedures
16. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissibleunder US legislation before it
is defined as intoxication? (Pra 4.1a)
A. 0,04 %
B. 0,07 %
C. 0,01 %
D. 0,1 %
17. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention? (Pra 4.1a)
A. Mandatory.
B. Supplementary to classification rules.
C. Should be consulted when the vessel is in distress.
D. Must be regarded as guide lines.
A. FUNGSI 4
.Memelihara keselamatan dan keamanan awak kapal dan penumpang

dan kondisi operasional alat-alat keselamatan dan sistem
keselamatan lainnya. (Maintain safety and securityofthe ship’s
crewand passengersandthe operational condition ofifesaving,
firefightingand other safetysystems) (Pasca 4.2d)
18. *The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced a part by adistance
of: (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
B. 300 mm
C. 200 mm
D. equally spaced, not less than200 mm or more than
280 mm
19. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be
tested: (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Every week
B. Every 2 weeks
C. Every 3 weeks
D. Every month
20. During test and / or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release
system, precautions to ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due
to a mistake are to be ensured. What precautions should be taken? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. FUNGSI 4
A. The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
B. Arrange a watchman in the CO2 central.
C. No special precautions necessary.
D. Check the main valve for a potential leakage.
21. Every in flatable life raft, in flatable life jacket and hydrostatic release units shall
be serviced: (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Every 12 months.
B. Every 24 months.
C. Every 18 months.
D. Every 36 months.
22. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this
information recorded in the OLB? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Every three months. Details of test with signatures of
Master and witness
B. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test
C. Fort nightly, with signature of Chief Engineer and
witness
D. Monthly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness.
23. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
A. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and
renewed every 5 years
B. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years
C. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed
if the wire is in poor condition
D. Renewed every three years
24. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:
(Pra 4.1d)
A. length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25mm

A. FUNGSI 4
B. length = 380 mm, breadth = 145 mm, depth = 20mm
C. length = 280 mm, breadth = 85 mm, depth = 10 mm
D. length = 580 mm, breadth = 165 mm, depth= 30mm
25. Which of the following requirements regarding life – buoy scor respond to present
regulations? (SOLASIII/7.1) (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Not less than half the to tal number of life buoys
shall be provided with self - ignighting lights
B. At least four life – buoys on each side of the ship
shall be fitted with buoyant life lines
C. All the life – buoys shall be placed in holders with
quick – release arrangement
D. At least one lifebuoy with self – activating smokes hall be placed with in the
vicinity of the stern
26. *The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If
25% of the crew – or more – has not participated in such drill during the last month,
what is the time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port? (Pasca
4.2d)
A. Within 24 hrs
B. Within 12 hrs
C. Within 30 hrs
D. Within 48 hrs
27. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with
their assigned crew a board and manoeuvred in the water? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Every month
B. Every week
C. Every two weeks
D. Every six months
A. FUNGSI 4
28. *When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training
and instructions in the use of the ship's fire - fighting appliances ? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. As soon as possible but not later than 2
weeks after he joins the ship
B. As soon as possible
C. As soon as possible but not later than 2 days
after he joins the ship
D. As soon as possible but not later than 24
hours after he joins the ship
29. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements? (Pasca 4.2d)

A. In the SOLAS convention and its annex
B. In manager's instructions
C. In classification society rules
D. In owner's instruction
30. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. instruction in the use of radio life - saving
appliances
B. Checking passenger's immersion suits
C. Checking the distress signal rockets and other
distress signals
D. Checking the life boat provisions and supplies
31. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. All the items mentioned
B. Starting a fire pump using at least two
required jets of water to show that the
system is in proper working order
A. FUNGSI 4
C. Checking fireman's outfits and other
personal rescue equipment
D. Reporting to stations and preparing for
the duties described in the muster list
32. At least, how often shall lifeboats be launched with the iras signed operating crew a
board and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Everythreemonths. B.
Everyweek.
C. Everytwo weeks.
D. Everymonth.
33. How often are "abandonship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to
SOLAS? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Once every month.
B. Once every 6 months.
C. Once every year.
D. Once every week.
34. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Once every month
B. Once every week
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once every year
35. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship" - drill? (Pasca
4.2d)
A. Once every month
B. Once every week
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once a year
36. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed:

(Pasca 4.2d)
A. Every week
B. Every two weeks
A. FUNGSI 4
C. Every month
D. Every three months
.Membuat rencanapengendalian keadaan darurat dan kerusakan

serta menangani situasi darurat.( Develop emergency and damage
control plansand handle emergencysituations )
37. *The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be…(Pasca 4.2b)
A. Evaluation of the situation, rescue
and life - saving, confinement of
fire, extinction, then feed back on
the emergency
B. Extinction, confinement of fire, feed
back on the emergency, rescue and
life - saving, then evaluation of the
situation
C. Extinction, evaluation of the situation, confinemen to ffire, rescue and life -
saving
D. Evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life - saving,
extinction
A. FUNGSI 4
38. *Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of
survival craft corresponds to the SOLAS regulation? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. A deck officer or certificated person
shall be placed in charge of each
survival craft to be used
B. Every motorized survival craft shall
have a certificated engineer assigned
C. There shall be at least 5 trained
persons on board, mustering and
assisting untrained persons
D. Every life boat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have a deck officer
capable of operating the equipment assigned
39. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded,
what is the next action to be taken by the (Pasca 4.2c)
Chief Officer on duty?
A. Use the intercom to inform crew and
passengers of the reason for the
alarm
B. Call the nearest coastal radio station
C. Send distress signals to call for help
D. Use the VHF – radio telephone to ask
Ships in the vicinity to stand by
40. In a distresss situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency
alarm signal be sounded? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. Until all crew members and passengers have
reported to their respective muster stations
B. 3 times
C. 3 minutes
D. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order
"abandon ship" is given
41. In what language / languages must the fire control plans or book lets (or copies of
these) be written? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. In the Flag State official language with copies
in English or French
B. In the Flag State official language
C. In the English language
A. FUNGSI 4
D. Inanation a language where company head
office is located
42. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat - commander? (Pasca 4.2b)

A. Yes, you must attend to a course held
by certified personnel, and provide
evidence of having
maintained the required standards of
competence every five years.
B. No, the only thing you need is one
hour instruction from a deck officer.
C. No
D. Yes, you must attend a one week course at aapproved course center.
43. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of that fire.
Which are the factors we should take into
Account..? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. Opacity, amountand colour
B. Amount and opacityonly
C. There is no possible inter pretation of a fire
according to the smoke
D. Colour only
44. The muster list must be prepared: (Pasca 4.2b)

A.At any moment before the ship proceeds to sea
B. At least 2 hours before the ship proceeds to sea
C. At least 1 hour before the ship proceeds to sea
D. At least 2 hours after the ship has proceeded to sea
45. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew.Which of the
following duties shall be included according topresent regulations? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. Manning of fire parties assigned to
deal with fires.
B. Preparation of immersion suits for
passengers.
C. Special duties assigned with respect to
the use of pyrotechnics
A. FUNGSI 4
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion
system.
46. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew.
Which of the given duties necessarily have to be included in the muster list? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. Preparation and launching of
survival crafts
B. Clearing escape routes
C. Type of fires that can be
encountered on board
D. Preparation and starting of
emergency generator
47. What is a contingency plan for ships? (Pasca 4.2b)

A. Plan for safety preparedness
B. Plan for next voyage
C. Loading plan for general cargo
D. Plan for maintenance and repair
48. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out? (Pasca 4.2b)
A.The ship's management team must
organise the fire teams and then the
teams have to rescue missing
personnel
B.The ship's management team must fight
the fire and then call the fire teams
C. The ship's management team must
Call the nearest fire brigade and police station
D. The ship's management team and the crew must evacuate the ship
49. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire on board a ship? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. FUNGSI 4
A. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep
the fire zone to the leeward of the
ship
B. Keep the stem up against the wind if
possible
C. Let the ship follow the wind in order
to reduce the oxygen supply
D. Continue on course and speed
50. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being
assigned to members of the crew ? (Pasca 4.2b)
A. Preparation and launching of the
survival craft
B. Preparation of manoeuvres intended
to ease launching of the survival
craft
C. Preparation of immersion suits for the
ship's passengers
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion
system
B. FUNGSI 4
Mendeteksidanidentifikasipenyebabtidakberfungsinyaperm
esinandanmemperbaikikegagalan.
(Detect andidentify the cause ofmachinerymalfunctionsand correct
faults)
(Pasca 4.2d)
1. A heat exchanger of the tube and shell type is used for cooling ubricating oil
with seawater as the secondary fluid.Which of the options would indicate that
he tube stack was becoming fouled (scaled or coked) rather than blocked?
A. A reduced temperature
difference between the seawater
inlet and outlet and also between
the lubricating oil inlet and
outlet.
B. An increase in the temperature
difference between the seawater
inlet and outlet and a reduced
temperature difference between
the lubricating oil inlet and
outlet.
C. A reduced temperature difference between the seawater inlet and outlet
and an increase in the temperature difference between the lubricating
oil inlet and outlet.
D. I don’t know
2. A plate type heat exchanger in a central cooling system has seawater

leaking around the edges of some of the titanium plates. After inspection and
reassembly following the manufacturer's instructions the problem still exists.
What action, from the options given, should be taken to rectify the problem?
A. Fitnew gaskets to the each of the plates.
B. Scrap the plates and replace with a new plate
stack.
C. Reduce the pressure of the seawater.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
3. After a couple of hours of operation the failure alarm sounds for a heavy fuel
oil purifier which is operating on a timed automatics ludge cycle. Upon
investigation the purifier is found to be running slowly and when opened up
the casing and sludge outlet is heavily fouled with sludge in contact with the
bowl. From the options given what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The heavy fuel is unstable leading to excessive high viscosity sludge
formation.
B. The clutch for the drive shaft is worn and
slipping.
C. The dirty oil through put is excessive.
D. I don’t know
4. During inspection and overhaul of a 2-stage reciprocating air compressor the
main and bottom end bearing shells are found to be heavily scored with parts
of the overlay and bearing metal breaking away. The crank shaft pins are
found to have only very light surface scratches. Which of the given options is
the best action to be taken to remedy the problem?
A. Replace the bearing shells with new spares after cleaning out the crank
case and refilling with clean oil.
B. Replace the bearing shells and crank shaft with new spares and refill
the crank case with clean oil.
C. Clean up the bearing surface and crank shaft pins with scrapers and
grinding paste and refit them. Refill the crank case with clean oil.
D. I don’t know
5. Part of the outer surface of are frigeration compressor crank case and there
frigerant return line near the compressor ice up heavily during normal
operation. Which of the options given is the most likely cause of this
problem?
A. The super heat control setting for the thermostatic expansion valve is set
too low.
B. The filter drier unit in the liquid line is partly blocked.
C. The seawater flow control valve for the condenser is faulty allowing
insufficient cooling water flow.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
6. Shortly after starting up a fuel oil purifier oil is seen to be trickling out of the
sludge outlet. Which of the options given is the most likely cause of this
problem?
A. Damaged bowl seal.
B. Insufficient seal water supplied during
start up.
C. Incorrect gravity discfitted.
D. I don’t know
7. The HP discharge valves of a 2 stage air compressor suffer from build up of

carbon deposits even though the correct maintenance is carried out on them.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Worn scraper and piston
rings.
B. In effective air in take
filter.
C. Compressor cooling water temperature
too low.
D. I don’t know
8. The pressure delivered by a gear type fuel oil transfer pump suddenly reduces from
5 bar to 4 bar during transfer. From the options given, select the most likely
cause of this occurrence.
A. Part of the pump relief / recirculation valve spring has broken of
fallowing the valve to open further.
B. The pump drive has sheared.
C. The pump gears and casing have become worn.
D I don’t know.
9. Which of the following symptoms would indicate that the filter drier in a
refrigeration circuit has become blocked?
A. A large temperature drop across the
drier.
B. A hammering noise from the drier.
B. FUNGSI 4
C. A pressure rise before the drier.

D. I don’t know
10. A 2 term controller isused to control the fuel oil temperature for a thermal oil
system used for heating services. The control is very unstable with the
measured value hunting constantly. Select the most probable cause of this
problem from the options given.
A. Integral action reset time is set too
fast.
B. Integral action reset time is set too
slow.
C. Proportional band width is set too
narrow.
D. I don’t know
11. A mechanical – hydraulic speed control governor fitted to an auxiliary

engine is giving erratic speed control causing the engine to hunt wildly even
when there is only a small load change. From the options given which is the
most likely cause of this condition?
A. Compensation needle valve is open too
much.
B. Compensation needle valve is not open
enough.
C. Speed droop setting set too high.
D. I don’t know
12. A refrigeration plant is short cycling even though there is plenty of
refrigerant in the system and all of the rooms are above temperature. From
the options give select the one which is the most likely cause of the
problem?
A. Blocked filter drier causing the automatic low pressure cut out to operate.
B. Insufficient cooling water flow through the condenser causing the
automatic high pressure cut out to operate.
C. Low oil level in the sump causing the automatic low oil pressure cut
out to operate.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
13. A temperature control system is exhibiting hysteresis. Check son all of the
system components show that they are functioning correctly. Which of the
changes / modifications given in the options is most likely to correct this
problem?
A. Fit a valve positioner to the system.
B. Increase the pressure of the air supply to the controller.
C. Fit a new temperature sensor with an arrower temperature
range.
D. I don’t know
14. At wostep controller (open / close) has failed and the only available spare
controller isa P + I controller. Select, from the options given, how the P + I
controller could be set up to achieve approximate two step control.
A. Set the proportional band to maximum widt hand the integral action to
minimum (repeats per minute).
B. Set the proportional band to minimum widt hand the integral action
to minimum (repeats per minute).
C. Set the proportional band to minimum widt hand the integral action
to maximum(repeats per minute).
D. I don’t know
15. A viscosity controller for the main diesel engine fuel oil supply is giving
poor control resulting in the viscosity of the fuel oil being too low at the
engine.Which of the defects given in the options is likely to be the cause of
this problem?
A. Capillary tube in the viscometer is blocked giving high differential
pressure at the DP cell.
B. The bellows in the DP cell is ruptured giving no differential pressure
signal.
C. The airsupply pressure to the controller for controlling the steam
valve for Steam to the fuel heateris too low
.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
16. The auxiliary boiler for the supply of low pressure heating steam has an
automatic combustion control which operates on a two step control principle.
The boiler fails to attempt to start up during a period of normal operation
even though the steam pressure has fallen below the set point. What is the
most likely cause of this fault?
A. The pressures witch for low steam pressure is faulty and fails to
close.
B. The photo cell for detecting flame on is dirty.
C. The electrical supply for the control system is isolated.
D. I don’t know
17. The temperature control for a hot water system is very erratic with the
temperature gradually rising and then suddenly falling and vice versa even
though system demand is fairly constant. Which of the options given is the
most likely cause of this problem?
A. Control valve gland is over
tightened.
B. Control air pressure supply is
too low.
C. Controller integral action reset time is
too fast.
D. I don’t know
18. The temperature control for the central cooling system low temperature
circuithas failed and a new 3 term controller is to be fitted. Which of the
given options would be the correct method of setting up the controller?
A. Set the proportional
action first.
B. Set the integral action
first.
C. Set the derivative action first.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
19. The temperature of the feed water for an auxiliary boiler is automatically
controlled by a pneumatic ally actuated steam valve at the inlet to the pre
-heater. It Is noticed that during high demand the temperature falls by an
unacceptable amount and takes along time to return to the set temperature
even though the steam supply pressure remains constant. Select from the
options given the most likely cause of this.
A. The controller proportional band is set too wide and the reset time is
set too long.
B. The controller proportional band is set too
wide.
C. The controller reset time is set too long.
D. I don’t know
20. Alow exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine is not iced
during routine checks. Which of the options given is the most likely cause of
this?
A. Some of the nozzle holes of
the fuel injection valve are
blocked.
B. Injection valve opening
pressure is too low.
C. Charge air pressure is too high.
D. I don’t know
21. During inspection of the crank bearing for one of the units in the main
engine, the bearing shell was found as follows : Surface of the white metal
was black and very hard. Patches of black in crustations have worng roves in
the journal. What is the likely cause of this condition?
A. Water present in the lubricating oil during
service.
B. Dirt particles in the lubricating oil during
service.
B. FUNGSI 4
C. Poor casting of bearing shell white metal

lining.
D. I don’t know
22. During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on
one of the cylinders. The turbo charger starts surging and smoke is seen
coming out from the turbo charger inlet air filter. What is the most probable
cause?
A. Scavenge box fire
B. High back pressure in the exhaust system after the turbo
charger.
C. Turbo charger failure.
D. I don’t know
23. From the options given, select the one which is most likely to result in a high
exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine.
A. Scavenge ports dirty.
B. Speed governor defective.
C. Compression pressure too low.
D. I don’t know
24. Oil analysis results for a sample of diesel engine lubricating oil show a high
level of tin. What could be the possible cause?
A. Debris from damage to a white metal bearing.
B. Debris from fretting between bearing housing parts
C. Debris from damage to a rolling contact bearing.
D. I don’t know
25. One cylinder of a diesel engine has to be cut out to allow continued
operation of the engine. Which of the following options may be the cause of
the problem?
A. Injection pump failure.
B. Cam shaft timing incorrect.
C. Gas side of turbo charger
fouled.
D. I don’t know
26. One cylinder of a diesel engine is operating with a high exhaust gas temperature.
B. FUNGSI 4
From the options given, select the one most likely to cause this condition.
A. Fuel injection valve opening pressure is
too low.
B. Water leakage into the cylinder.
C. The charge air is delivered to the engine at too high a
temperature.
D. I don’t know
27. Over a period of a few hours of operation the main diesel engine speed
gradually falls off. From the options given what is the most likely cause of
this fault?
A. Fouling of turbo charger intake
filters.
B. Water in a cylinder.
C. Injection valve opening pressure is
too low.
D. I don’t know
28. Over a period of a few hours of operation the main diesel engine speed
gradually falls off. From the options given what is the most likely cause of
this fault?
A. Fouling of turbo charger intake
filters.
B. Water in a cylinder.
C. Injection valve opening pressure is
too low.
D. I don’t know
29. Select, from the options given,the one most likely to result in a sudden
reduction in main diesel engine operating speed during normal operation.
A. Loss of signal to engine
governor.
B. Bad fuel oil quality.
B. FUNGSI 4
C. Fuel oil pipes or filters becoming

fouled.
D. I don’t know
30. The exhaust temperature on one cylinder of a diesel engine is high ; what is
the most likely cause of this?
A. Leaking exhaust
valves.
B. Leaking inlet
valves.
C. Reduced fuel delivery from fuel injection pump.
D. I don’t know
31. The fuel consumption for the main diesel engine has gradually increased
over a period of a few months. All system pressures and temperatures appear
normal. From the options given, choose the one which is the most likely
cause of this.
A. Fouling of the hull
B. Water in the fuel.
C. Damaged propeller blade.
D. Sea water temperature changing.
32. The pressure in the fresh water cooling system for a diesel engine is
fluctuating while the engine is running. When the engine is stopped the
pressure is steady. What is the likely cause of this problem?
A. The engine has a cracked cylinder liner or cylinder
cover.
B. The fresh water expansion tank is empty.
C. The fresh water circulating pump is damaged.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
33. The turbocharger on a diesel engine is surging and making occasional, loud
"whoofing" noises. Which one of the options given is the most probable
cause of this?
A. Rapid changes in engine load due to rough sea
conditions.
B. Engine on bridge control.
C. Exhaust system recently cleaned.
D. I don’t know
34. What is the likely cause of a decrease in the ph – value and an increase of the
sulphate content of a diesel engine's cooling water system?
A. Exhaust gas leakage into the cooling water
system.
B. Sea water leakage into the cooling water
system
C. Over dosing of corrosion in hibitor treatment chemicals
D. I don’t know
35. What would be the most probable cause if the exhaust gas from a diesel
engine looked a bit blue in colour?
A. Engine burning too much
lubricating oil.
B. Bad fuel oil.
C. Engineis too cold.
D. I don’t know
36. Which of the following conditions could result in the exhaust from a
diesel engine being dark coloured?
A. Some or all of thecylinders overloaded.
B. Water in the fuel.
C. Low charge air temperature.
D. . I don’t know
37. Which of the following options is the most likely cause of high exhaust gas
temperatures in all cylinders of a diesel engine?
A. Partial blockage in the exhaust gas system.
B. Water in the fuel supply.
C. Worn or broken piston rings.
D. I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
38. Which of the following options is the most likely to result in the maximum cylinder
Pressure for all cylinders on a diesel engine to be lower than normal?
A. Poor quality fuel.

B. A leaking exhaust valve.
C. A worn fuel injector.
D. I don’t know
39. Which of the options given is the most likely reason for a drop in pressure at
the charge air manifold of a diesel engine?
A. Air filter to turbo charger fouled or
obstructed.
B. Charge air cooler fouled on water side
C. Increased engine load.
D. I don’t know
40. A combustible gas indicator of the catalytic filament type is used to check
the atmosphere in an enclosed space on board ship. When taking readings in
a fuel tank which has been emptied for cleaning the meter reading initially
rises and then falls back to zero. What is the likely defect, ifany, in the
instrument when this type of behaviour is displayed?
A. The filamentis contaminated due to
too high a concentration of hydro
carbons.
B. The batteries are flat.
B. FUNGSI 4
C. The filament has burnt out.

D. . I don’t know
41. A portable oxygen analyser for use on board ship is of the paramagnetic
sensing element type. It is being used to test the atmosphere of a space on
board ship but starts to give erratic readings. There is no obvious indication
as to why this is happening. Select from the options given the most likely
cause of this problem.
A. The sampling filter is partially blocked giving rise to wide pressure
variations in the sampling chamber.
B. The battery power is low.
C. The sampling filter is blocked preventing gas from entering the
sampling camber.
D. . I don’t know
42. A positive displacement type flow meter is defective and cannot be repaired.
It is to be replaced with a new instrument which uses a Venturity pesensor.
Which of the pneumatic relays given in the options will be required in order
for this type of instrument to function correctly?
A. Square root extractor
relay.
B. Summation relay.
C. Subtraction
relay.
D. . I don’t
know
43. A positive displacement, rotary type, volumetric flow meter read slow with
an error reading of 1 % when used to measure flow of heavy oil and 2.5 %
when used to measure the flow of diesel oil. From the options given select
the most likely cause of this difference in error?
A. The meter is worn internally.
B. The higher viscosity of the heavy oil is slowing down the rotary
element in the meter.
C. The lower mass of diesel oil results in a lower reading.
B. FUNGSI 4
D. . I don’t know
44. A tacho meter for a diesel engine is reading erratically. Th etacho meter is of
the non – contact type using magnetic proximity switches to generate the
signal. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The proximity switch is loose on its mounting.
B. The proximity switch has dirt on the outside
casing.
C. The shaft magnet has fallen off.
D. . I don’t know
45. A U tube manometer is used to measure the pressure delivered by a ventilation
fan.
Following replacement of the fan by a larger unit with a higher delivery rate
and pressure the liquid is blown out of the openend of the manometer. Which
of the options given will allow the manometer to be used to measure the
delivery pressure of the larger fan?
A. Refill the manometer with liquid with a higher
density.
B. Refill the manometer with liquid with a higher
viscosity
C. Refill the manometer with a reduced amount of
liquid.
D. . I don’t know
46. Fluid flow is measured using a pneumatic differential pressure transmitter
and is indicated on a direct reading instrument. The indicator is reading zero
even though fluid is flowing through the system. When the flow rate changes
the indicator initially registers a reading but then gradually returns to zero.
From the options given select the probable cause of this condition.
A. Diaphragm in the differential pressure transmitter is perforated.
B. The connection to the differential pressure transmitter high pressure
bellows is blocked.
C. The connection to the differential pressure transmitter low pressure
bellows is blocked.
D. . I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
47. The fuel consumption for the main engine is calculated using the readings
from the supply and return flow meters which are of the positive
displacement type. When compared to the quantities calculated from tank
sounding sand calibration tables and indicated on the contents gauges the
consumption appears consistently high. Which of the options given is the
most likely cause of this discrepancy?
A. The return flow meter is giving alow reading due to internal wear.
B. The supply flow meter is giving too high a reading due to internal
wear.
C. The tank calibration tables are incorrect.
D. . I don’t know
48. The fuel tank contents gauges on board a vessel are of the air bubble and bell type.
The gauges are calibrated for a different fuel type to the actual fuel in the
tanks. When correcting the actual contents of the tanks from the gauge
readings which of the parameters given in the options is the most important?
A. Fuel
density.
B. Fuel
viscosity.
C. Fuel
temperature.
D. . I don’t
know
49. The instrument air system is suffering from excess water carry over to the
instrument air lines. The air intake to the compressor has very high humidity.
Which of the actions given in the options will most likely result in reducing
this problem?
A. Reduce the superheat setting on the instrument air refrigeration /
dryer unit.
B. Shorten the time between automatic receiver drain blow downs.
C. Increase the cooling water flow through the compressor intercooler
and after cooler.
D. . I don’t know
B. FUNGSI 4
50. The remote reading temperature gauge for the meat room is reading a higher
temperature than the local liquiding lass thermometer. When removed and
tested the remote gauge is found to be reading accurately. Which of the
options given is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?
A. The sensing bulb for the remote gauge is placed in a relative 'local
hotspot' inside the meat room.
B. The liquid in glass thermo meter is reading incorrectly.
C. The liquid in glass thermo meter is positioned in a relative 'coldspot'
in the meat room.
D. . I don’t know
51. The torsion meter for the main propeller shaft is reading high. The torqueis
sensed using the angle of twist principle with two clamprings attached to the
shaft at a fixed distance, with stationary proximity switches for measuring
the angle of twist and also shaft speed fixed to a rigids tool. What is the most
likely cause of the high reading?
A. Circumferential slip of the after clampring in the opposite direction to
shaft rotation.
B. Axial slip of one of the clamp rings to bring them closer
together.
C. Axial slip of one of the clamp rings to move them further
apart.
D. . I don’t know
52. A high speed diesel engine has been subject to a major over speed incident
due to governor failure. During checks for damage it is found that some of
the bottom end bolt shaves lackened off slightly. There appears to be no
other damage to any of the bearings, the running gear or to the crank shaft.
From the options given select the action to be taken before bringing the
engine back into service.
A. Renew all of the bottom end bolts.
B. Renew all of the bottom end bolts that were found
slack.
C. Retighten the bottom end bolts that were slack back to There commended
torque.
B. FUNGSI 4
D. . I don’t know
C. FUNGSI 4
1. It is the Master's responsibility to ensurethat: (pasca 4-2d)

A. Concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme
effectively
B. All information regarding the on board training is given to the ship
manager
C. All personnel participate in the training at the same time
D. I don’t know
2. Master of every ship must provide : (pasca 4-2c)
A. A link between the ship board training officer and the company training
officer ashore
B. Facilities to conduct training when ever required by the training officer
C. Proper rest to the crew after each training programme
D. I don’t know
3. On board training should be organized in such away that: (pasca 4-2b)
A. It is an integral part of the overall training plan
B. It does not contravene with the rest hours of the crew
C. Each crew member is trained individually
D. I don’t know
4. The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fallin to
which of the three main categories :(pasca 4-2d)
A. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and

compensation
B. Maritime Safety, STCW, Maritime Security
C. There are no conentions that fall under IMO
D. I don’t know
5. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must
be : (pasca 4-2c)
A. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
B. Strict and authoritative while giving orders
C. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members
D. I don’t know
C. FUNGSI 4
6. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?(pasca 4-

2d)
A. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew
B. It will prevent accidents from happening
C. It encourages crew to extend their contract
D. I don’t know
7. All necessary information for the next port of call should be : (pasca 4-2b)
A. Procured before departure from a port
B. Procured during the voyage prior arrival at the next port
C. Procured on arrival at the next port
D. I don’t know
8 An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by :
(pasca 4-2d)
A. The fastest means available
B. The Telex to have a record
C. The email to save cost
D. I don’t know
9 . If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's
interest full and proper attention he should : (pasca 4-2d)
A. Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
B. Report the matter to the harbor Master
C. Report to the vessel P&I club
D. I don’t know
10. Prior to arrival at a US port from a foreign port, asper present regulation,
the USCG requires : (pasca 4-2d)
A. 96 hours notice of arrival
B. 72 hours notice of arrival
C. 48 hours notice of arrival
D. I don’t know
11. Prior to ordering stores for any department ; (pasca 4-2b)
C. FUNGSI 4
A. The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items
required
B. Consult the ISSA catalogue to as certain what stores are available for
ordering
C. Ask the departmental head for a list of store to be ordered

D. I don’t know
12. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained in order to :
(pasca 4-2b)
A. Control the ship's budget
B. Order the required stores
C. Report to the office
D. I don’t know
13. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best
possible treatment:(pasca 4-2d)
A. For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications

B. Because you always have some faults in arrival / departure documents
C. Because the ship's trading certificate are not normally in order
D. I don’t know
14. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can
be found in:(pasca 4-2d)
A. TheShip's emergency contingency manual

B.Vessel health, safety and environment manual
C. Radio log book
D. I don’t know
15. Theres ponsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is :
(pasca 4-2c)
A. Master
B. Chief Engineer
C. Chief Officer
D. I don’t know
16. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew
Passports and CDC on board a vessel?(pasca 4-2b)
C. FUNGSI 4
A. Ship's Office
B. Master's cabin
C. On the bridge
D. I don’t know
17. Which of the following will be reported to accompany on the emergency
phone ? (pasca 4-2d)
A. All accidents where crew are injured or killed
B. All arrival and departure time from port
C. All cases concerning cargo shortages
D. I don’t know
18.Which of these is not a principle of great man theory ? (pasca 4-2c)
A. Leaders are born not made.

B. Great men rise up in times of crisis.
C. We can learn from the biographies of great leaders.
D. I don’t know
19.In leadership trait theory what is a trait ? (pasca 4-2c)
A. A list of the things that make leaders different to everyone else.

B. A list of the key things that a leader should do to be great.
C. The list of key behaviours a leader exhibits.
D. I don’t know
20.What is Skinner's A-B-C of behaviour ism?(pasca 4-2c)
A. Antecedents – behaviour - consequences

B. Attitude – behaviour – conclusions
C. Aptitude – behaviour - consequences
D. I don’t know
21. Contingency theory is based on the assumption that the ideal leader:
(pasca 4-2c)
A. Shapes their leadership style depending on the situation.
B. Provides clear instructions to the followers so that they know what they are
doing.
C. FUNGSI 4
C. Knows what their strengths are and makes the most out of them.
D. I don’t know
22. A transactional leader is one who:(pasca 4-2c)
A. Inspires people and has strong interactions with them

B. Does deals with people in order to get them to do things the leader wants
C. Is the ideal form of leadership
D. I don’t know
23.What is a transformational leader?(pasca 4-2c)
A. Someone who is involved in organizational change.
B. A leader, likeTaylor, who provided new ways of carrying out

management.
C. A leader who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what
they do.
D. I don’t know
24.What is post – heroic leadership theory?(pasca 4-2c)
A. A theory which states that there is too much emphasison leaders and more
attention should be placed on followers.
B. A theory looking beyond current leadership styles to new, more creative
ways of leading.
C. A theory which tries to find the ideal form of leadership.
D. I don’t know
25.What is the social construction of leadership?(pasca 4-2c)
A. The view that all leadership is social and what matters is how leaders
interact with others.
B. Leadership is a made up idea that there forewe should pay more
attention to more significant aspects of the organization.
C. What counts as good leadership is a construction of the perceptions of the
followers.
D. I don’t know
26. Which of the following statements concerning the rational and emotional
aspects of leadership is false?(pasca 4-2c)
C. FUNGSI 4
A. Leaders can use rational techniques and / or emotional appeals

in order to influence followers
B. Leadership includes actions and influences based only on reason and logic
C. Aro used feelings can be used either positively or negatively
D. I don’t know
27. To many, the word management suggests (pasca 4-2c)
A. Dynamism
B. Risk - taking
C. Efficiency
D. I don’t know
28. According to the text, leadership is often more associated with (pasca
4-2c)
A. Consistency
B. Planning
C. Paperwork
D. I don’t know
29. This is a conventional distinction made between managersand leaders.
(pasca 4-2c)
A. Managers maintain while leaders develop
B. Managers innovate while leaders administer
C. Managers originate while leaders imitate
D. I don’t know
30. Which of the following statements about leaders versus managers is
false? (pasca 4-2c)
A. Leadership is a value-laden, activity, management is not
B. Leaders focus on risk taking ; managers perform functions such as
planning and controlling
C. Leaders develop, managers maintain unit1 Examination 29 Leadership
D. I don’t know
31.According to thetext, which ofthe following statements is true? (pasca
4-2c)
C. FUNGSI 4
A. Leadership and management have some unique functions with an area of

overlap
B. A good leader can be a good manager, but there verse is never true
C. Leadership and management are effectively the same for all practical
purposes
D. I don’t know
32. What best describes the leader - follower relationship? (pasca 4-2c)
A. The relationship is a one – way street

B. Leadership and follower ship are the same thing
C. Leadership and follower ship merge and are linked concepts
D. I don’t know
33. Ideal leaders according to a survey were commonly characterized as all
of the following except (pasca 4-2c)
A. Honest
B. Competent
C. Cooperative
D. I don’t know
34. The symbolic message often intended by appointment of women to
important leadership positions is evidence of the fact that (pasca 4-2c)
A. Culture has changed
B. Women them selves have changed
C. Leadership roles have changed
D. I don’t know
35. People who become leaders in any field tend to first stand out by virtue
of their(pasca 4-2b)
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Technical proficiency
C. Emotional intelligence
D. I don’t know
C. FUNGSI 4
36. In an organization, one can gain valuable perspectives and insights

through close association with an experienced person willing to takeone
under his / her wing. Such an individual is often called a (pasca 4-2c)
A. Supervisor
B. Facilitator
C. Role model
D. I don’t know
37. The process by which an older and more experienced person helps to
socialize and encourage younger organizational colleagues is called (pasca
4-2b)
A. Evaluating
B. Consulting
C. Mentoring
D. I don’t know
38. What is seen as an investment that can help change counter productive
behavior, often inter personal, that threatens to derailan other wise valued
manager?(pasca 4-2c)
A. Mentoring
B. Executive coaching
C. Team building
D. I don’t know
39.The proper wayto correct a mistake in the log book is to . (pasca 4-2b)
A. Erase the entry and rewrite
B. Draw several lines through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
C. Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction
D. I don’t know
40. Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew
members has been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Log book
shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine.
Which action should the Master take?(pasca 4-2b)
A. Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher a shore with the agent.
C. FUNGSI 4
B. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.
C. Leave the seaman in jail and log him as adeserter after the vessel
sails.
D. I don’t know
41. An alien crewmember with a D-1 permit leaves the vessel in a foreign
port and fails to return. The first report you make should be to the .(pasca 4-
2b)
A. Customs Service
B. Immigration Service
C. Local police
D. I don’t know
42. While a vessel is in a foreign port where there is no American Consul,
a seaman becomes violent prior to sailing. The Master should .(pasca 4-2b)
A. Call local police, put the seaman in prison a shore, and sail the vessel
B. Pay off the seaman and make arrangements with the agent to return him to
the original port of signing on in the U.S.
C. Send the seaman a shore and arrange with the agent to repatriate him by
armed guard
D. I don’t know
43. A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when
-------------.(pasca 4-2b)
A. In toxicated
B. The vessel is over loaded
C. There is a change of home port
D. I don’t know
44. A vessel arrives in a foreign port and the Master is informed that the
vessel is being sold to foreign interests. The new owners request that the
crew remain on board to complete the voyage. Under the secircumstances,
the crew .(pasca 4-2c)
A. Has the right to an immediate discharge and transportation to original
port of engagement
B. Must remain on board
C.Must remain aboard until the vessel is delivered to the new owners at a
mutually agreed upon port
C. FUNGSI 4
D. I don’t know
45. Who is responsible for providing urine specimen collection kits to be
used following a serious marine incident? (pasca 4-2b)
A. Qualified medical personnel
B. The marine employer
C. The U.S. Coast Guard
D. I don’t know
46. If there are any changes in the crew in a foreign port, the changes will
be made by.(pasca 4-2b)
A. The Master on the Certified Crew List
B. The Master on the Shipping Articles
C. Consul on the Certified Crew List
D. I don’t know
47.The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the nearest
Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as
possible? (pasca 4-2c)
A. The crew members
B. The Master of the vessel
C. The port authorities
D. I don’t know
48. A seaman lost his continuous discharge book during the voyage. Upon
discharge from Articles, he should be issued a .(pasca 4-2b)
A. Letter of service on company letter head signed and sealed by
the master
B. Record of Entry in a Continuous Discharge Book for use in applying for a
duplicate book
C. Certificate of Discharge with the white copy forwarded to the
Commandant
D. I don’t know
49. A seaman about to be discharged has a Continuous Discharge Book.
Which statement is TRUE?(pasca 4-2b)
A. A Certificate of Discharge Form should be attached to the book.
C. FUNGSI 4
B. An entry should be made in the book and a Certificate of Discharge

Form issued to the seaman.
C. If a vessel was on coast wise articles, the record of discharge will be made
in the Official Log book.
D. I don’t know
50. Total responsibility for shipping and discharging the seamen is that of
the. (pasca 4-2c)
A. Master of the vessel
B. Steamship company
C. Custom Service
D. I don’t know
51.What should you do if you are in the engine room and the alarm for
"CO2 release into the engine room" sounds? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Leave the engine room immediately.
B. Start the fire pump.
C. Immediately go for the nearest fire extinguisher.
D. I don’t know
52. When the engineroom crane is to be utilized for lifting or lowering a

piece of equipment to the lower decks through access hatches
designed specifically for the purpose, there are certain measures that
should be taken. What are they? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Securely rope off the area around open hatches and post
notices at the site.
B. Post a notice in the engine control room.
C. Post a notice at the crane controls.
D. I don’t know
53. When using portable ladders during work activities on board a ship
what precautions should be taken. (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Secure the ladder top and bottom and have a shipmate standing by while
you are working on the ladder.
C. FUNGSI 4
B. Prop the ladder against a suitable pipe and have a shipmate hold the
ladder while you are working on it.
C. Just secure the top of the ladder once you reach the top.
D. I don’t know
54. Which preparations and precautions are necessary before "hotwork"

commences on board ship? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Follow all ISM procedures relating to hot work including permit to work
and hotwork permit requirements.
B. Notify all persons on board at least 24 hours in advance of the

work commencing.
C. Just inform the Chief Engineer that the work is going to be carried out
D. I don’t know
55. On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A fire hose.
B. A fire alarm bell.
C. A push button fire alarm.
D. I don’t know
A. A sprinkler hea
B. A smoke detector.
C. A drypowder nozzle.
D. I don’t know
57. What does this symbol indicate ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A CO2 extinguisher.
B. A CO2 detector.
C. A CO2 warning horn.
D. I don’t know
58. On a fireplan, what does this symbol mean ? Pasca 4.2d

C. FUNGSI 4
A. A foam monitor.
B. A fire main.
C. A fire fighting water gun.
D. I don’t know
59. What does this symbol indicate ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A fire equipment locker.
C. A fire hose reel.
D. I don’t know
60. What would you do if someone's clothes catch fire? Pasca 4.2d
A. Go and find a fire hose.
B. Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket.
C. Shout for help while getting the first aid kit.
D. I don’t know
61. How do you direct a fire nozzle under full water pressure? Pasca 4.2d
A. Direct the nozzle slightly up wards.
B. Direct the nozzle slowly from side to side.
C. Direct the nozzle straight out.
D. I don’t know
62. What is meant when wesaya dressing is sterile? Pasca 4.2d
A. It is waterproof.
B. It will notstick to the wound and can be easily replace
C. It is free from germs.
D. I don’t know
63. What action should the watch officer take on being notified of man overboard?
Pasca 4.2d
C. FUNGSI 4
A. Call for a look out.
B. Release the bridge wing buoy, notify master and start

slowing down to maneuvering speed
C. Alter course180 degrees and sound the alarm.
D. I don’t know
64. What signal is used to mean "ABANDON SHIP" ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A verbal command given by the master or

officer in charge.
B. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle.
C. 7 short &1 long blast on the ship's whistle.
D. I don’t know
65.The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information

on the life- saving appliances carried on board. Which of these duties
must also be included ? Pasca 4.2d
A. Correct use of sea-anchors (drogues).
B. Correct donning of fire protective clothing.
C. Correct use of on-board communication equipment.
D. I don’t know
66. In terms of flash point,what definesif a container carrying a flammable liquid

must carry this sign? Pasca 4.2d
A. Required for any flammable liquid

regardless of the flashpoint.
B. Required for a flash point of 55 degrees

Cor below.
C. Required for a flash pointof 100 degrees

Cor above.
D. I don’t know
67. What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on board ? Pasca 4.2d
C. FUNGSI 4
A. The Hart'moo stretcher.
B. The Neil Robertson stretcher.
C. The SOLAS stretcher.
D. I don’t know
68. What is a Thermal Protective Aid? Pasca 4.2d
A. A portable electric heater.
B. A large plastic bag big enough to put a man inside.
C. Special clothes that prevent a survivor from loosing heat.
D. I don’t know
69. Which of these items of clothing would be best at preventing loss of body
heat ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A vest.
B. A woolen hat.
C. Thick woolen socks.
D. I don’t know
70. What is an immersion suit? Pasca 4.2d
A. Special clothing that allows the wearer to get close to a fire.
B. Special clothing to protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold
se
C. Special clothing that is worn by the look out whilst on watch.
D. I don’t know
71. If you had to board your life boat which of the following do you
think is most important? Pasca 4.2d
A. Carry your important documents such as passport and

seaman's book.
B. Keep all your belongings packed in a bag.
C. Wear as many layers of warm clothing

as possible.
D. I don’t know
C. FUNGSI 4
72. What is a Class B fire? Pasca 4.2d
A. A fire involving gases.
B. A fire involving solid materials.
C. A fire involving liquids or liquefied solids.
D. I don’t know
73.What type of boat is seen in this picture? Pasca 4.2d
A. Fast rescue boat.
B. An open free fall life boat.
C. A totally enclosed life boat.
D. I don’t know
74. What is a SART? Pasca 4.2d
A. Search And Rescue Transponder.
B. Satellite Activated Rescue Telephone.
C. Systematic Advised Rescue Tracker.
D. I don’t know
75. When should doors, sides cuttles, gang way doors, cargo ports and other
openings which are to be kept water tight at sea be closed at the start of the
voyage? Pasca 4.2d
A. Before encountering heavy weather.
B. Before entering open waters.
C. Before leaving the port.
D. I don’t know
C. FUNGSI 4
D. FUNGSI 4
9. Keselamatankerja(ensure safeworking practise) (Pra 4.1d)
1. During maintenancework on the main engine a problem a rises regarding the

lifting of amain component in that the manufacturer's instructions a do not
apply to the engine as fitted and present a hazar In which of the information /
record sources given in the options, is it most important to record the
information relating to this anomaly?
A. ISM procedures in the ship's
safety manual.
B. Engine room log book.
C. Engine room planned
maintenance schedule.
D. I don’t know
2. Electric arc welding is to be carried out in the machinery spaces other than
the workshop. Which of the alternatives below would be the preferred
method for the connection of the "return" cable to the welding set?
A. Usea "go and return" system with the return cable connected directly
from the welding set to the work piece if possible.
B. Have a short length of cable permanently connected to the ships
structure close to the welding set.
C. Weld a stud bolt close to the work piece and connect the return cable
to this.
D. I don’t know
3. How should the spare oxygen and acetylene gas welding bottles be stored
on board the ship?
A. In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.
B. In the workshop in the engine room as close as possible to
welding equipment.
C. In a refrigerated room.
D. I don’t know
D. FUNGSI 4
4. In many cases the ship's Chief Engineer can carry out survey of
machinery on be half of a Classification Society under arrangements
covering Continuous Surveys. As part of this arrangement a Surveyor
from the Classification Society must carry out a periodic audit of the
documentation for the approved planned maintenance system and under
take a confirmatory survey of the items surveye What is the normal
frequency for this audit?
A. Annual.
B. Bi-annual.
C. Every 4
years.
D. I don’t
know
5. It is noticed that some of the items that were to be used to lift some
machinery components during a maintenance routine had not been tested
for over 5 years. Which of the options given is the correct action to be taken
in a situation like this?
A. Mark the items as not to be used and store them securely until they
can be tested by a competent person.
B. Scrap the items immediately as they are unusable once they have
not been tested for 5 years.
C. Have them inspected immediately by a competent person so that they
can be used for the task.
D. I don’t know
6. Prior to removing the access doors to a pressure vessel for internal
maintenance it should be ensured that all pressure has been relieve As well
as a zero indication on a pressure gauge which of thermeasure, from the
options given should be taken to confirm this prior to commencing the
work?
A. Open the drain valve while pressure still shows on the gauge and to
check it is clear. Out flow should ceaseas the pressure gauge reaches
zero.
D. FUNGSI 4
B. Back of the tensioning device for the relief valve to vent

thepressureto atmosphere.
C. Open the drain valve when the gauge reads zero to check that there is no out flow.
D. I don’t know
7. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. 'Prior
to allowing work to proceed in an on board spacetesting ofthe at mospheres
hould be carried out…
A. …for any space with limited access or non-continuous
ventilation or is suspected of having a hazardous atmosphere.
B. ..only if the space has contained liquid oil at somepoint.
C. …only if the space has been used to carry any cargo or contains any cargo
Related equipment.
D. … I don’t know
8. The machinery detail plate is missing from a large electric motor and the
weight is unknown. As part of aroutine maintenance check the motor has to
belifted to access some other equipment. Which ofthe given options is the
correct action that should be taken?
A. As it is only aroutine maintenance and not a breakdown then
postpone the task until full details of the motor can be obtaine
B. Try and lift it with the engine room crane as it is designed to lift the
heaviest components in the engine.
C. Use the biggest chain blocks and strops available and carry out
atrial lift.
D. I don’t know
9. When carrying out repair or maintenance tasks in volving hot work a hot
work permit must be issue Select the correct option from those given
which completes the following statement. 'The permit for hot work…
A. ..should only cover spec if ichot work tasks and bevalid for aspecified
time perio'
B. ..can cover any additional hot work that arises during the completion
of the task during the specified time perio'
C. ..is valid for completion ofthe specific hot work tasks irrespective
of the time taken.'
D. FUNGSI 4
D. . I don’t know
10. A tank containing hydrocarbon residues requires manual cleaning by use of
shovels, scrapers et Which of the following is the correct procedureto
follow?
A. Open andventilate the tank,test oxygen content,have someone standing
by with rescue equipment,complete apermitto work and atankentry
permit and then commence work.
B. Open and ventilatethe tank,have someone standingby outside the tank
and then commence work.
C. Open the tank, provide ventilation and then commence work immediately.
D. Open the tank,have someone standingby outside the tank and
commence working.
11. Every person on board ship has a responsibility for safety and
security.General house-keeping rule should be follow Which of the listed
rulesis the most important onboard a tanker?
A. Never carry lighters or matches on the tank deck.
B. Always use the handrails when going up or
downladders.
C. Always wear safety shoes on deck..
D. Always use gloves when operating portable grinders and chipping
machines.
12. If the oxygen contentinan enclosed spaceis lessthan 20% andanon-essential
routine inspection of the space is due which of the following is the correct
course of action?
A. Postpone the inspection until the correct oxygen content can beachieve
B. Wear breathing apparatus while carrying outthe
inspection.
C. Carryout the inspection as quickly as possible.
D. Release oxygen into the space from an oxygen cylinder.
13. Ona UMS vessel gas welding operation sin the works hopare to be stopped
for a lunch break. Which of the following actions should be carried out prior
to taking the break?
D. FUNGSI 4
A. The main supply valves in the deck storage are closed and check smade
that nofire risk existsprior to switching on the fire alarm system and
going to UMS-mode.
B. The local acetylene/oxygen valve in the work shop is closed prior to
switching to UMS-mode
C. No precautions are necessary for a short break
inoperations.
D. I don’t know
14. Sounding pipes in the engine room are normally fitted with deadweight cock
sand screw caps. Which of thef ollowing statements is correct?
A. Caps and cocks should be closed at all times,except when sounding
tanks, top reventing ress of water or oil in to the engine room in case of
tank bottom damage or over flow.
B. Caps should be placed on top of sounding pipes to keep the engine
room tidy.
C. Deadweight cocks should be fasten edin the open position osave time
when sounding the tanks.
D. I don’t know
15. Under what circum stances would youre move guard sand safety devices
from machinery?
A. During overhaul and maintenance procedures.
B. When the safety devices keep stopping the machinery
C. To allow the shaft to be seen to confirm the machine is
running.
D. I don’t know
16. What action is required if the crank case relief valve on an air compressor is
operating and emitting an air and oil mixture?
A. Overhaul the compressor unit.
B. Increase the lift pressure of the relief valve.
C. Placeadrip can beneaththe valve to collect any escaping oil.
D. I don’t know
17. What action should you take if you have a flash - back during gas
welding?
D. FUNGSI 4
A. Close the regulator valves immediately, oxygen

first.
B. Run for your life.
C. Sea portable fire
extinguisher.
D. I don’t know
18. What is generally considered as them in imum safe time period before
opening a crank case door after the oil mist detector alarm has activated and
the engine has been stopped?
A. After at least 20 minutes
B. After at least 1 hour
C. After at least 5 minutes
D. I don’t know
19. What precautions should be taken for the deck covering in a steering gear
room where hydraulic oil is in use?
A. Coat the deck with non slip paint and use duck boards provided with
drainage.
B. Cover the deck with saw
dust.
C. Cover the deck with san
D. I don’t know
20. What should you do if you are in the engine room and the alarm for "CO2
release into the engine room" sounds? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Leave the engine room
immediately.
B. Start the fire pump.
C. Immediately go for the nearest fire extinguisher.
D. I don’t know
21. When the engine room crane is to be utilized for lifting or lowering a piece
of equipment to the lower decks through access hatches designed
specifically for the purpose, there are certain measures that should be taken.
What are they? (Pasca 4.2d)
D. FUNGSI 4
A. Securely rope off the area around open hatches and post notices at
thesite.
B. Post a notice in the engine control room.
C. Post a notice at the crane controls.
D. I don’t know
22. When using portable ladders during work activities on board a ship what
precautions should be taken. (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Secure the ladder top and bottom and have a shipmate standing by
while you are working on the ladder.
B. Prop the ladder against a suitable pipe and have a shipmate hold the
ladder while you are working on it.
C. Just secure the top of the ladder once you reach the
top.
D. I don’t know
23. Which of the following pump types could be damaged if the discharge valve
is closed before the motor is stopped? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Gear pump
B. Propeller pump
C. Centrifugal pump
D. I don’t know
24. Which preparations and precautions are necessary before "hotwork"

commences on board ship? (Pasca 4.2d)
A. Follow all ISM procedures relating to hot work including permit to
work and hot work permit requirements.
B. Notify all persons on board at least 24 hours in advance of the work
commencing.
C. Just inform the Chief Engineer that the work is going to be carried out
D. I don’t know
25. Why may wearing sweat rags slung round your neck when working in the
machinery spaces be hazardous? (Pra 4.1d)
A. The rags may be caught by running machinery or power
tools.
D. FUNGSI 4
B. The rags may be soaked with oil and catch fire.

C. The rags may causes weat rash.
D. I don’t know
26. Why should engine and boiler rooms be kept clean and any oil spillage
cleaned up immediately? (Pra 4.1d)
A. To reduce risk of fire and the risk of
slipping.
B. To avoid being fined by the port state
control.
C. To prevent oil spillage from damaging deck paint
coatings.
D. I don’t know
27. Where would you find details for your tasks and duties in case of an
emergency? (Pra 4.1d)
A. In notices posted in mess rooms, recreation rooms, etc
B. In notices posted in the crew's
cabins.
C. In the muster list.
D. I don’t know
28. What is a 'Rescue Sub- Centre (R.S.) ? (Pra 4.1d)

A. A centre for under water search and rescue
operation.
B. A unit sub ordinate to a rescue co-ordinating
centre.
C. A centre established to assist the main national rescue centre.
D. I don’t know
29. Which of these requirements regarding life buoys corresponds to the SOLAS
regulations? (Pra 4.1d)
A. It must have a mass greater than 2.5
kgs.
B. It must have sufficient air.
D. FUNGSI 4
C. It must be constructed of in herently buoyant material.

D. I don’t know
30. Which of these requirements regarding abandonship drill scor responds to the
SOLAS regulations? (Pra 4.1d)
A. All lifeboats shall belowered during drills.
B. For ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be
launched and maneuvered in water at least every six months.
C. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and

maneuvered in the waterat least once every three months.
D. I don’t know
31. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the
life - saving appliances carried on board Which of these duties must also be
included ? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts.
B. Correct use ofoars and other propulsion equipment for survival
crafts.
C. Correct use of survival craft facilities in order to survive.
D. I don’t know
32. What is a "RescueUnit" (RU)? (Pra 4.1d)

A. A unit ready for search and rescue operations at sea at anytime of the
day.
B. A unit composed of trained personnel suitably equipped expeditious
search
and rescue.
C. A unit specializing in search and rescue operations at sea
D. I don’t know
D. FUNGSI 4
A. Correct method of release of survival craft from launching

appliances.
C. Correct use ofoars in survival crafts.
D. I don’t know
34. What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE.. ? (Pra 4.1d)
A. A cone like device that is thrown into the sea to keep the lifeboat's
bow pointing into the wind
B. A piece of wood put through the painter allowing it to be untied even
when there is weight on the rope.
C. A device that allows an inflatable life raft to be deployed
automatically if a ship sinks.
D. I don’t know
35. What should you do first if you see a man fall over board? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Alert other crew members and try to keep him or the life buoy
in sight.
B. Inform the officer of the watch.
C. Release the nearest lifebuoy on the side he has fallen.
D. I don’t know
36. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and informationon the
life - saving appliances carried onboard Which of these duties must also be
A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival
crafts.
B. Correct use of surface to air visual signals by
survivors.
C. Correct use of ship's line throwing apparatus.
D. I don’t know
37. Which of these items has to be included in a distress message? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Weather in the immediate
vicinity.
B. Ship's destination.
D. FUNGSI 4
C. Ship's
identification.
D. I don’t know
38. What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing
installations on board ? (Pra 4.1d)
A. An automatic release system activated by fire
alarms.
B.A manual operated release only.
C. Any automatic release system.
D. I don’t know
39. The ship's training manual must contain instructions and informationon the
A. Correct method of revival of casualties.
B. Correct use ofoars and sails for survival crafts.
C. Correct boarding, launching and clearing of survival crafts and rescue
crafts.
D. I don’t know
40. What information is found on a ship's fire plan ? (Pra 4.1d)

A. The locations of various fire fighting appliances and
equipment.
B. The action to take if you heard the fire alarm..
C. The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire.
D. I don’t know
41. After abandoning ship in a life raft or life boat,which of these should be
done as soon as possible? (Pra 4.1d)
A. The occupants should all take a drink of liquor and then sing songs to
keep up their spirits.
B. Available rations should be shared out equally among all the
occupants.
D. FUNGSI 4
C. All occupants should take a sea sickness tablet.

D. I don’t know
42. The ship’s training manual must contain instructions and information on the
A. Correct donning of life-jackets.
B. Correct use ofoars and sails for survival
crafts.
C. Correct donning of protective clothing.
D. I don’t know
43. In cold climates what should be done by the occupants of a life raft to
provide more insulation? (Pra 4.1d)
A. In flate the floor of the
raft.
B. Deflate the floor of the
raft.
C. Close the doors and ventilators.
D. I don’t know
A. A fire hose.
C. A push button fire
alarm.
D. I don’t know
A. A sprinkler hea
B. A smoke detector.
C. A dry powder nozzle.
D. I don’t know
46. What does this symbol

indicate ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A CO2
extinguisher.
D. FUNGSI 4
B. A CO2
detector.
C. A CO2 warning
horn.
D. I don’t know
A. A foam
monitor.
B. A fire main.
C. A fire fighting water
gun.
D. I don’t know
48. What does this symbol
indicate ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A fire equipment
locker.
C. A fire hosereel.
D. I don’t know
49. What would you do if someone's clothes catch fire? Pasca 4.2d
A. Go and find a fire
hose.
B. Smother the flames with a blanket or
jacket.
C. Shout for help while getting the first
aid kit.
D. I don’t know
50. How do you direct a fire nozzle under full water pressure? Pasca 4.2d
A. Direct the nozzle slightly up
wards.
B. Direct the nozzle slowly from side to
side.
C. Direct the nozzle straight out.
D. I don’t know
D. FUNGSI 4
51. What is meant when wesaya dressing is sterile? Pasca 4.2d

A. It is water proof.
B. It will not stick to the wound and can be easily replace
C. It is free from germs.
D. I don’t know
52. What action should the watch officer take on being notified of man overboard?
Pasca 4.2d
A. Call for a look out.
B. Release the bridge wing buoy, notify master and start slowing
down to maneuvering speed
C. Alter course180 degrees and sound the alarm.
D. I don’t know
53. What signal is used to mean "ABANDON SHIP" ? Pasca 4.2d
A. A verbal command given by the master or officer in
charge.
B. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle.
C. 7 short &1 long blast on the ship's whistle.
D. I don’t know
life - saving appliances carried onboard Which of these duties must also be
included ? Pasca 4.2d
A. Correct use of sea-anchors (drogues).
C. Correct use of on-board communication equipment.
D. I don’t know
55. In terms of flash point, what defines if a container carrying a flammable
liquid must carry this sign? Pasca 4.2d
A. Required for any flammable liquid regardless
of the flash point.
B. Required for a flash point of 55 degrees Cor
below.
C. Required for a flash point of 100 degrees Cor
above.
D. I don’t know
56. What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on board ? Pasca 4.2d
D. FUNGSI 4
A. The Hart'moo stretcher.

B. The Neil Robertson
stretcher.
C. The SOLAS stretcher.
D. I don’t know
57. What is aThermal Protective Aid? Pasca 4.2d
A. A portable electric heater.
B. A large plastic bag big enough to put a man inside.
C. Special clothes that prevent a survivor from loosing heat.
D. I don’t know
58. Which of these items of clothing would be best at preventing loss of body heat ? Pasca
4.2d
A. A vest.
B. A woolen hat.
C. Thick woolen
socks.
D. I don’t know
59. What is an immersion suit? Pasca 4.2d
A. Special clothing that allows the wearer to get close to a fire.
B. Special clothing to protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold se
C. Special clothing that is worn by the look out whilst on
watch.
D. I don’t know
60. If you had to board your life boat which of the following do you think is
most important? Pasca 4.2d
A. Carry your important documents such as passport and seaman's
book.
B. Keep all your belongings packed in a bag.
C. Wear as many layers of warm clothing as
possible.
D. I don’t know
61. What is aClass B fire? Pasca 4.2d
A. A fire involving gases.
B. A fire involving solid materials.
D. FUNGSI 4
C. A fire involving liquids or liquefied

solids.
D. I don’t know
62.What type of boat is seen in this picture? Pasca 4.2d
A. Fast rescue boat.
B. An open free fall life
boat.
C. A totally enclosed
lifeboat.
D. I don’t know
63. What is a SART? Pasca 4.2d
A. Search And Rescue Transponder.
B. Satellite Activated Rescue
Telephone.
C. Systematic Advised Rescue
Tracker.
D. I don’t know
64. When should doors, sides cuttles, gang way doors, cargo ports and other
openings which are to be kept water tight at sea be closed at the start of the
voyage? Pasca 4.2d
A. Before encountering heavy
weather.
B. Before entering open waters.
C. Before leaving the port.
D. I don’t know
E. FUNGSI 4
1. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast

as defined by Marpol ? (Pra 4.a)
A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible
traces on the shore lines.
B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces
upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water
surface.
C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible
traces on adjoining shore lines, no remulsion in the sea.
D. I don’t know
2. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ? (Pra 4.a)
A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated
lines by the clean ballast pump
B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for
which cargo pumps cannot be used
C. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely

separated from cargo or fuel oil system and permanently
allocated to ballast
D. I don’t know
3. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel"? (Pra 4a)
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil, Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil

B. A cargo of refined oil with flash point above 60 degree C
C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and
auxiliary machinery
D. . I don’t know
4. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil" mean ? (Pra 4a)
A. Petroleumin any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil
refuse and refined products
E. FUNGSI 4
B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil

C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
D. . I don’t know
5. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in
tankers, which tanks may be Included ? (Pra 4a)
A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks

B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as
cofferdams.
C. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks
D. I don’t know
6. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and
cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of Cars
for tankers? (Pra 4a)
A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured

B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast
water system
C. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop

when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted
D. I don’t know
7. If a tanker with separate in dependent piping and pumps for CBT and
operating with COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice
versa, which provisions will apply? (Pra 4a)
A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No
survey is required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures
required.
B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade
C. The COW system needs to be blanked
D. I don’t know
8. If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to
immobilize the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and
COW? (Pra 4a)
E. FUNGSI 4
A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply

B. The requirements for SBT do not apply
C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply
D. I don’t know
9. Hian oil tanker isused to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers,what are the
requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW? (Pra 4a)
A. The requirement for SET does not apply

B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply
C. The requirement for SBTand PL do not apply
D. I don’t know
10. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean
Ballast shall be that it is equipped with…….(Pra 4a)
A. A crude oil washing

system.
B. Two separate slop
tanks.
C. Segregated ballast tanks and PL.
D. I don’t know
11. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply
if the tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are
existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed ? (Pra 4a)
A. The oil record book

B. The bill of lading
C. The ship's IOPP certificate
D. I don’t know
12. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect ship board
operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage? (Pra 4a)
E. FUNGSI 4
A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being
B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant
must be installed on board
C. Discharge is for the time being allowed any where as long a
sewage plant is on board
D. I don’t know
13. Which of the following pump types could be damaged if the discharge valve is closed
before the motor is stopped? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Gear pump
B. Propeller pump
C. Centrifugal pump
D. I don’t know
14. Why may wearing sweat rags slung round your neck when working in the
machinery spaces be hazardous? (Pra 4.1d)
A. The rags maybe caught by running machinery or power
tools.
B. The rags may be soaked with oil and catch fire.
C. The rags may causes weat rash.
D. I don’t know
15. Why should engine and boiler rooms be kept clean and any oil spillage
cleaned up immediately? (Pra 4.1d)
A. To reduce risk of fire and the risk of
slipping.
B. To avoid being fined by the port state
control.
C. To prevent oil spillage from damaging deck paint
coatings.
D. I don’t know
16. Where would you find details for your tasks and duties in case of an
emergency? (Pra 4.1d)
A. In notices posted in mess rooms, recreation rooms, etc
E. FUNGSI 4
B. In notices posted in the crew's

cabins.
C. In the muster list.
D. I don’t know
17. What is a 'Rescue Sub-Centre (R.S.) ? (Pra 4.1d)

A. A centre for under water search and rescue
operation.
B. A unit sub ordinateto a rescue co-ordinating
centre.
C. A centre established to assist the main national rescue centre.
D. I don’t know
18. Which of these requirements regarding life buoys corresponds to the SOLAS
regulations? (Pra 4.1d)
A. It must have a mass greater than 2.5
kgs.
B. It must have sufficient air.
C. It must be constructed of in herently buoyant material.
D. I don’t know
19. Which of these requirements regarding abandonship drills corresponds to the

SOLAS regulations? (Pra 4.1d)
A. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills.
B. For ships on short international voyages, each life boat shall be
launched and maneuvered in water at least every six months.
C. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and

maneuvered in the water at least once every three months.
D. I don’t know
A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts.
B. Correct use ofoars and other propulsion equipment for survival
crafts.
C. Correct use of survival craft facilities in order to survive.
E. FUNGSI 4
D. I don’t know
21. What is a "RescueUnit"(RU)? (Pra 4.1d)

A. A unit ready for search and rescue operations at sea at anytime of the
day.
B. A unit composed of trained personnel suitably equipped expeditious
search and rescue.
C. A unit specializing in search and rescue operations at se

D. I don’t know
A. Correct method of release of survival craft from launching
appliances.
C. Correct use ofoars in survival crafts.
D. I don’t know
23. What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE.. ? (Pra 4.1d)
A. A cone like device that is thrown into the sea to keep the life
boat's bow pointing into the wind
B. A piece of wood put through the painter allowing it to be untied even
when there is weight on the rope.
C. A device that allows an inflatable life raft to be deployed
automatically if a ship sinks.
D. I don’t know
24. What should you do first if you seaman fall over board? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Alert other crew members and try to keep him or the life buoy
in sight.
B. Inform the officer of the watch.
C. Release the nearest lifebuoy on the side he has fallen.
D. I don’t know
E. FUNGSI 4
A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival
crafts.
B. Correct use of surface to air visual signals by
survivors.
C. Correct use of ship's line throwing apparatus.
D. I don’t know
26. Which of these items has to be included in adistress message? (Pra 4.1d)
A. Weather in the immediate
vicinity.
B. Ship's destination.
C. Ship's
identification.
D. I don’t know
27. What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing
installations on board ? (Pra 4.1d)
A. An automatic release system activated by fire
alarms.
B.A manual operated release only.
C. Any automatic release system.
D. I don’t know
A. Correct method of revival of casualties.
B. Correct use ofoars and sails for survival crafts.
C. Correct boarding, launching and clearing of survival crafts and rescue
crafts.
D. I don’t know
29. What information is found on a ship's fire plan ? (Pra 4.1d)

E. FUNGSI 4
A. The locations of various fire fighting appliances and

equipment.
B. The action to take if you heard the fire alarm..
C. The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire.
D. I don’t know
30. After abandoning ship in a life raft or life boat,which of these should be
done as soon as possible? (Pra 4.1d)
A. The occupants should all take a drink of liquor and then sing songs to
keep up their spirits.
B. Available rations should be shared out equally among all the
occupants.
C. All occupants should take a sea sickness tablet.
D. I don’t know
31. The ships training manual must contain instructions and information on the
A. Correct donning of life-jackets.
B. Correct use ofoars and sails for survival
crafts.
C. Correct donning of protective clothing.
D. I don’t know
32. In cold climates what should be done by the occupants of a life raft to
provide more insulation? (Pra 4.1d)
A. In flate the floor of the
raft.
B. Deflate the floor of the
raft.
C. Close the doors and ventilators.
D. I don’t know

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PERMESINAN KAPAL

1. The property of a fluid which enables it to resistten sile stress is known as

2. Property of a fluid by which hmolecules of different kind so ffluid

3. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"

9. An object having 10kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on aspring balance.The value of

12. A perfect gas

15. Viscosity of waterin comparison to mercury is

16. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

18. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

20. The increase of temperature results in

23. The stress-strain relation of the newtone on fluid is

C. None of the above.

26. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

27. Units of surface tension are

28. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity

B. Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity density

30. Dimensions of surface tension are

31. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

32. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of

33. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because

34. Increase in pressure at the outeredgeofadrumofradius R due to rotation at

37. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

39. The units of kinematic viscosity are

40. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

41. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

42. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

43. A one dimensional flow is one which

50. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

58. Poise is the unit of

59. Meta centric height is given as the distance between

C. The center of gravity of the body and the center of

60. The buoyancy depends on

62. A piece of metal of specific gravity13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity

63. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

65. Rain drops are spherical because

66. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..

69. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

71. To avoid an interruption in the flow of asyphon, an air vessel is provided

72. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

75. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

76. The continuity equation is connected with

1. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

2. Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like

3. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant

4. Ammonia - absorption refrigeration cycle requires

5. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

6. The relative coefficient of performance is

7. Clapey ronequation is arelation between

9. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

11. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure

12. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

14. The boiling point of ammonia is

16. One ton refrigerat is corresponds to

18. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycie

21. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable

27. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor

28. Presence of moisturein a refrigerant affects the working of

31. Air refrigeration operates on

35. For better COP of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to