SAMPLE PAPER FOR CLASS 10

PHASE TEST – 8
Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

 The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into four sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of Social Science.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Maths.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
 Each question carries +1 marks.
 There is No negative marking.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

 SECTION – I
SOCIAL SCIENCE

HISTORY

1. What is true about Ordinance 10?

(A) Name of the movie by John Wayne which promoted Vietnam War
(B) French Law to regulate foreign trade
(C) A Law by Bao Dai’s regime to control “Go east movement”.
(D) French law that outlawed Buddhism.

2. The long established monarchy in China was overthrew by a revolution led by_____________________.
(A) Sun Yat Sen (B) Phan Boi Chau (C) Phan Chu Trinh (D) Ho Chi Minh

3. In 1903 , rat hunt began in Vietnam because of which one of the following reason?
(A) Rats were spoiling food
(B) People were unable to control breeding of rats
(C) Rats began to enter the homes of well cared.
(D) Rats carried the germs of Bubonic Plague.

4. What is not true about Poona Pact 1932?

(A) Depressed Classes were provided reservation of seats in provincial and central legislative councils.
(B) Dalits were to be voted as a General Electorate.
(C) Ambedkar accepted Gandhiji’s demand.
(D) Gandhi ji accepted Ambedkar’s demand.

5. “Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birth right of all.” Whose
words are these?
(A) Bhagat Singh (B) Pt. J. L. Nehru (C) Jatin Das (D) M.N. Roy

6. Which one of the following statements is wrong about Alluri Sitaram Raju?
(A) He claimed that he has got some special powers.
(B) He was inspired by Non Cooperation Movement
(C) He believed in the principle of Non Violence advocated by Gandhiji
(D) He persuaded people to give up drinking.

Directions for questions below: Read the following statements carefully and choose the most appropriate
option from the given options.

(A) Both the statements are correct and Statement 2 explains the Statement 1.
(B) Both the statements are correct and Statement 2 does not explains the Statement 1.
(C) Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 1 is correct.
(D) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.

7. Statement 1: The IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial
countries.
Statement 2: Both these institutions were equipped to cope with the challenge of poverty and lack of
development in the former colonies.

8. First ever Indian Jute mill was set up in 1917 in Calcutta by:
(A) Jamsetjee Jeejebhoy (B) Dinshaw Petit
(C) Dwarkanath Tagore (D) Seth Hukumchand
9. Who among the following nationalist leaders were regarded as “ the most dangerous enemy of our social
order” by Metternich?
(A) Garibaldi (B) Victor Emmanuel II
(C) Mazzini (D) Cavour

10. Match the following:

I. Robinson Crusoe (P) Benjamin Disraeli

II. Treasure Island (Q) Baba Padmanji

III. Henrietta Temple (R) Daniel Defoe

IV. Yamuna Paryatan (S) R.L. Stevenson’s

I II III IV
(A) P Q R S
(B) R P S Q
(C) R P S Q
(D) R S P Q

11. First printed edition of Ram Charit Manas came out in the year
(A) 1710 (B) 1579I (C) 1674 (D) 1810

12. India’s first city to get smoke nuisance legislation?

(A) Bombay (B) Calcutta (C) Madras (D) Surat

GEOGRAPHY
13. From among the marked major sea port regions in the following map of India, which are the ones dealing
in export of iron ore?

(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 7,8,9,10 (C) 2,3,7,8 (D) 3,4,5,9

14. How many Pincode zones are there in India

(A) Six (B) Seven (C) Nine (D) Ten
15. Cheapest means of transport is
(A) Airways (B) Railways (C) Roadways (D) Waterways

16. Naharkatia oil field belongs to the state of_____________________.

(A) Bihar (B) Gujarat (C) Maharashtra (D) Assam

17. What is Madhapur near Bhuj Gujarat?

(A) Largest Solar plant of India (B) Nuclear Power generation centre
(C) Oil Field (D) Major port

18. Which one of the following types of coal is used for smelting iron in blast furnace?
(A) Bituminous (B) Peat (C) Anthracite (D) Lignite

19. What is the established norm for occurance of Water Stress, as per the experts?
(A) 1000-1400 cubic metre per person per year.
(B) 1000-1600 cubic metre per person per year.
(C) 1000-1800 cubic metre per person per year.
(D) 1500-2000 cubic metre per person per year.

20. Spot the odd one out:

(A) Jute industry in India is mainly centred around West Bengal.
(B) Chotanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of Iron and Steel industries.
(C) Cement Industry plants are mainly located in Gujarat.
(D) None of the above

21. In the following areas marked as 1,2,3, and 4. Which are known for sugarcane production?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1,3 and 4 (D) 1,2,3 and 4

22. Match the following lists:

List I List II
A. Chos: 1. Lacustrine deposits in the valley of Kashmir
B. Karewas: 2. Small streams along Himalayan foothills in Punjab
C. Bhurs: 3. Terai regions of Bengal
D. Duars: 4. Sand deposits in parts of Upper Ganga

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (B) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
23. Match the following:

A. BHEL 1. Atomic

B. HAL 2. Electronic

C. SAIL 3. Aeronautics

D. BPCL 4. Chemicals

E. NPTC 5. Iron and steel

A B C D E
(A) 2 3 5 4 1
(B) 5 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4 5
(D) 4 2 3 1 5

24. Which one of the following northeastern state is a major cultivator of oranges and pineapple?
(A) Tripura (B) Mizoram (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Meghalaya

CIVICS

25. Spot the odd one out from among the following with respect to challenges faced by democracy:
(A) Foundational Challenge (B) Challenge of Expansion
(C) Religious Belief in democracy (D) Deepening of democracy

26. Outcome of democracy mainly comprises of:

(i) Accountable and responsible government.
(ii) Military Rule
(iii) Legitimate Government
(iv) Restricted Popular Participation
(A) i, iii, iv (B) iii, i, ii (C) i , ii (D) i , iii

27. Which of the following is an example of a Challenge to democracy?

(A) Women not allowed to take part in public activities in Saudi Arabia
(B) Breakdown of talks between LTTE and Sri lankan government leading to violence again.
(C) Money and muscle power in elections
(D) All the above

28. Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy ?

(A) People feel free and equal in a democracy
(B) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
(C) Democratic government is more accountable to the people
(D) Democracies are more prosperous than others

29. “Cultural Nationalism” is an integral element in the conception of Indian nationhood and politics for this
political party:
(A) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) (B) Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)
(C) Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) (D) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

30. Which one of the following countries doesn’t have Unitary form of government?
 (A) Japan (B) Germany (C) United Kingdom (D) France

31. Which of these political parties have been recognised recently as a national party in India?
(A) Trinamool Congress (B) Samajwadi Party
(C) Telugu Desam Party (D) Aam Aadmi Party

32. Community Government is a special feature of which country’s political system?

(A) Japan (B) Belgium (C) United Kingdom (D) France

ECONOMICS
33. Rupesh has subscribed for the sim card of PQRS telecom company but was later on dissatisfied with its
services so he applied under Mobile Number Portability to convert the service provider to XYZ telecom
company. This entire process is taking place because under Consumer Protection laws, a consumer is
given:
(A) Right to grievance seek redressal (B) Right to Choice
(C) Right to representation (D) Right to consumer education.

34. What do consumer Forums do to protect the consumer ?

(A) They represent individual producers in the consumer courts
(B) They create awareness among producers how to tackle consumer’s allegation in the court
(C) They guide consumers on how to file cases in the consumer court
(D) They provide financial assistance to the consumers for the expenses on court proceedings

35. MRP is abbreviated version of

(A) Market Retail Price (B) Manufacturing Retail Price
(C) Maximum Retail Price (D) Minimum Retail Price

36. Like Agmark is for agro-based products, Hallmark is for

(A) Clothes (B) Automobiles (C) Property (D) Jewellery

37. From among the following given cases, identify the most appropriate example of “conflicting goals of
development”.
(A) Hospitals with no medical staff.
(B)Transporters and petroleum industry on the issue of rising petrol prices.
(C) Parents and academic institutions with respect to fees hikes.
(D) Farmers demanding rise in MSP.

38. Income alone is not a completely adequate indicator of development of a country. Which one of the
following is not in tandem with respect to the given statement?
(A) Money cannot ensure a pollution free environment.
(B) Some people earn more than the others do.
(C) Money helps us to buy only material goods and services.
(D) Money does not ensure respect and dignity for individuals.

39. Terms of credit includes:

(A) Interest Rates (B) Collateral (C) Documents (D) All the above

40. What is the full form of MNC?

(A) Multinational Corporation (B) Multinational Company
(C) Merged National Company (D) Multiple National Company
 SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS

1. The value of the following expression is

1 1 1 1 1
 2  2  2  .....  2
2 1 4 1 6 1 8 1
2
20  1
10 13 15 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
21 27 22 33

1
2. If x   3 then the value of x18  x12  x6  1 is
x
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

3. The area of quadrilateral formed by the lines 3 | x | 2 | y | 6 is

(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24

4. In a month having 31 days. What is the probability that it has 5 Saturdays and 5 Sundays
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 4/7

5. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9

6. If a spherical marble of diameter 7 cm is put in a cup full of water of radius 7 cm and height 10 cm, then
how much water flowes out of the cylindrical cup ?
(a) 179.7 cm3 (b) 539 cm3 (c) 269.5 cm3 (d) 808.5 cm3

7. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of their
volumes is
(a) 3 : 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 : 2 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 : 1

8. The magnitudes of the volume of a closed right circular cylinder of unit height divided by the magnitude of
the total surface area of the cylinder is equal to (r – radius of the cylinder)
1  1 1 1  1  1 1 1 
(a)  1   (b)  1   (c)  1   (d)  1 
2 r 2 r  1 2 r 2  r  1

9. Find the probability that when a hand of 7 cards is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards, it contains
3 kings
1 46 18 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7735 7735 1547 1547

10. The letter of word “SOCIETY” are placed at random in a row. What is the probability that three vowels
come together
1 2 3 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
11. A card is drawn from pack of 52 cards and a gambler bets that, it is a Spades or an Ace. What are the
odds against his winning this bet ?
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 9 : 4 (c) 5 : 9 (d) 9 : 5

12. In a box containing 100 bulbs, 10 are defective. What is the probability that out of a sample of 5 bulbs,
none is defective
5 5
 1  9 9
(a) 10-5 (b)   (c)   (d)
 2  10  10
13. If the diameter of a circle is increased by 100%, its area is increased by
(a) 100% (b) 200% (c) 300% (d) 400%

14. From a circular sheet of paper with radius 20cm four circle of radius 5 cm each are cut out. What is the
ratio of the uncut to the cut portion ?
 (a) 1 : 3 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 3

15. Two identical circles intersect so that their centres and the points, at which they intersect from a square of
side 1 cm. The area in sq cm of the portion that is common to the two circles is
  
(a) (b)  1 (c) (d) 2  1
4 2 5

16. The equation of the straight line which passes through the point (-3, 8) and cut off positive intercepts as
the area whose sum is 7 is
(a) 3x  4y  12 (b) 4x  3y  12 (c) 3x  4y  12 (d) 4x  3y  12

17. In ABC , If DE || BC, AD = x ; DB = x – 2 ; AE = x + 2 and EC = x – 1 then value of x is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 3.5

18. PP’ and QQ’ are two direct common tangents to two circles intersecting in the points A and B. The
common chord when produced intersect PP’ in R and QQ’ in S. Then
(a) AB2 = RS2 + PP’2 (b) RS2 = PP’2 + AB2
(c) RS2 = QQ’2 + AB2 (d) AB2 = RS2 + QQ’2

19. If acos   bsin   m and asin   bcos   n then

(a) a2  b2  m2  n2 (b) a2  b2  m2  n2
(c) a2  b2  2m2  2n2 (d) a2  b2  2m2  2n2

20. The ratio of the sums of m and n terms of A.P. is m 2 : n2 show that the ratio of m th and nth term is
(a) (m - 1) : (n - 1) (b) (2m + 1) : (2n + 1)
(c) (2m - 1) : (2n - 1) (d) (m + 1) : (n + 1)

SECTION – II
PHYSICS

1. The terminal potential difference of a cell is greater than its e.m.f. when it is
(A) being discharged (B) in open circuit
(C) being charged (D) being either charged or discharged

2. The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of currents is shown 15A
here. The current will be 3A
(A) 3A (B) 13A 8A
(C) 23A (D) –3A
5A i

3. A straight long wire carries a current of 20A. Another wire carrying equal current is placed parallel to it. If
the force acting on a length of 10 cm of the second wire is 2.0  105 N, what is the separation between
them?
(A) 0.4m (B) 1.4
(C) 2.4 (D) 4

4. Two parallel wires separated by a distance of 10cm carry current of 10A and 40A along the same
direction where should a third current carrying wire be balanced so that it experiences no magnetic force?
(A) 2 cm from 10A (B) 4 cm from 10A
(C) 2 cm from 10A (D) 4 cm from 10A

5. In which case the image formed by a convex lens is virtual.

(A) 0 < u < f (B) f < u < 2f
(C) 2f < u <  (D) none of the above.
6. What will be the critical angle for a material of refractive index 2 , placed in air?
(A) 45 (B) 30
(C) 60 (D) 38.5

7. The deviation produced by a prism is

 (A) Same for all wavelengths (B) Greatest for red and least for violet
(C) Greatest for violet and least for red (D) not possible

8. Blue colour of the sky is a consequence of

(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Scattering (D) Dispersion

9. The reason of seeing the sun a little before the sunrise is

(A) Reflection of light (B) Refraction of light
(C) Scattering of light (D) Dispersion of light

10. The change in focal length of an eye –lens is caused by the action of the
(A) Pupil (B) retina
(C) Ciliary muscles (D) Iris

11. A person cannot see distant objects clearly. His vision can be corrected by using the spectacles
containing
(A) Concave lenses (B) Plane lenses
(C) Contact lenses (D) Convex lenses

12. Which of the following coloured light has the least speed in glass prism?
(A) Violet (B) Yellow
(C) Red (D) Green

13. Which of following colour of while light has the least wavelength?
(A) Red (B) orange
(C) voilet (D) Blue

SECTION – III
Chemistry

1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

2PbO(s) + C(s)   2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(I) Lead is getting reduced.
(II) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(III) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(IV) Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (I) and (III) (C) (I), (II) and (III) (D) (III) and (IV)

2. In an attempt to demonstrate electrical conductivity

through an electrolyte, the adjacent apparatus was set
up. Which among the following statement(s) is(are)
correct?
(I) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not acidic
(II) Bulb will glow because NaOH is a strong base
and furnishes ions for conduction.
(III) Bulb will not glow because circuit is incomplete
(IV) Bulb will not glow because it depends upon
the type of electrolytic solution

(A) (I) and (III) (B) (II) and (IV) (C) (II) only (D) (IV) only

3. Which one of the following properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
(A) Solubility in water (B) Electrical conductivity in solid state
(C) High melting and boiling points (D) Electrical conductivity in molten state

4. The soap molecule has a

 (A) hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail (B) hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
(C) hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail (D) hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail

5. Consider the isoelectronic species Na+, Mg2+, F- and O2-. The correct order of
increasing length of their radii is _________.
(A) F- <O2– < Mg2+ <Na+ (B) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
2– – +
(C) O < F < Na < Mg 2+ (D) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

6. Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain enthalpy)
is:
(A) F > Cl > Br > I (B) F = Cl = Br = I
(C) F < Cl > Br > I (D) F < Cl < Br < I

7. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to
(A) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
(B) atomic number of any element of the period.
(C) maximum Principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(D) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.

8. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) Helium has the highest first ionization enthalpy in the periodic table.
(B) Chlorine has less negative electron gain enthalpy than fluorine.
(C) Mercury and bromine are liquids at room temperature.
(D) Ionic radius of hydride ion is greater than that of fluoride ion .

9. Which of the following have no unit

(A) Electronegativity (B) Electron gain enthalpy
(C) Ionisation enthalpy (D) Atomic radius

10. The first member of alkyne homologous series is

(A) methanal (B) ethane (C) propyne (D) ethyne

11. An element belongs to 3rd period and group-13 of the periodic table. Which of the following properties will
not be shown by the element?
(A) Good conductor of electricity (B) Liquid, non metallic
(C) Solid, metallic (D) Ductility , malleability
12. Assertion (A) : Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium.
Reason (R) : The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than the 2p electron hence 2p
electron is more shielded by the inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons.
(A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(B) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(C) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(D) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

13. Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in the present
set up of the long form of the periodic table?
(A) 107 (B) 118 (C) 126 (D) 102

SECTION – IV
BIOLOGY

1. Green plants capture sunlight and convert it to food energy. What percentage of solar energy is being
utilised that fall on their leaves.
(A) 0.1% (B) 1%
(C) 10% (D) 100%

2. Amrita Devi sacrificed her life for the protection of which of the following trees near Jodhpur
(A) Khejrali (B) Angu
(C) Sal (D) Khejri

3. In which of the following parts of alimentary canal does the process of digestion ends
 (A) Duodenum (B) Large intestine
(C) Ileum (D) Rectum

4. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is a industrial chemical disaster which was due to

(A) Methyl Isocyanide (B) Methyl Isocyanate
(C) Methyl Isocarbide (D) Methyl Isocarbonate

5. Minamata disease is referred to a neurological syndrome due to which of the following metal poisoning
(A) Cadmium (B) Iron
(C) Mercury (D) Tungsten

6. Venous heart is the characteristic feature of

(A) Amphibians (B) Reptiles
(C) Mammals (D) Fishes

7. The ancient rain water harvesting structure in Kerala is known as

(A) Katta (B) Kulhs
(C) Surangam (D) Eris

8. Cushing syndrome is caused due to the

(A) Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids (B) Hypersecretion of Mineralocorticoids
(C) Hypersecretion of Mineralocorticoids (D) Hypersecretion of Glucocorticoids

9. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is

(A) Unidirectional (B) Bidirectional
(C) Multidirectional (D) Non–directional

10. The process of development of fruit without fertilization is known as

(A) Parthenogenesis (B) Parthenocarpy
(C) Apomixis (D) Both A & B

11. Which of the following is referred to as Bioindicators of SO2 pollution

(A) Algae (B) Pteridophytes
(C) Lichens (D) Bacteria

12. The constitution of embryo sac in an ovule is

(A) 8 Celled, 8 Nucleate (B) 7 Celled, 8 Nucleate
(C) 7 Celled, 7 Nucleate (D) 8 Celled, 7 Nucleate

13. Ozone layer is present in which of the following atmospheric layer

(A) Stratosphere (B) Troposphere
(C) Ionosphere (D) Mesosphere

14. Purity of gametes can be justified by which of the following laws of inheritance given by Mendel
(A) Law of unit character (B) Law of dominance
(C) Law of segregation (D) Law of Independent Assortment
 Answer Key
Section – I (Social Science)

1. d 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. b
8. d 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. b 13. c 14. c
15. d 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. c
22. b 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. d 27. d 28. d
29. d 30. b 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c
36. d 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. a

Section – II (Mathematics)
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. C
15. B 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. C

Section – III (Physics)

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. C

Section – IV (Chemistry)

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. B 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. C

Section – V (Biology)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. C
 HINTS & SOLUTIONS

MATHS

1. (A)
1 1 1 1 1
    .... 
1 3 3  5 5  7 7  9 19  21
1 2 2 2 2 
  ... 
2 1  3 3  5 5  7 19  21
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
       ....  
2 1 3 3 5 5 7 19 21
1 1  10
1 
2  21 21

2. (A)
1
x  3
x
Cube both sides to get solution

3. (B)
|x| |y|
 1
2 3
1
  4   2  3 = 12
2

4. (B)
Favourable outcome 2
P(E)  
Total outcome 7

5. (D)
4 3
r
3 1  64
4 3 27
r
3 2
r 4 s 16
 1   1 
r2 3 s2 9
6. (A)
4
Vs  r13 Vc  r 2h Vc  Vs
3

7. (C)
Vc : Vs : Vcy
1 2 2 3
r h : r : r 2h
3 3
2:3:1

8. (D)
r 2h
r 2  r
 1 r 2 h=1

9. (D)
 n(E)
P(E) 
n(s)
10. (A)
11. (B)
12. (C)
13. (C)
A  r 2
 (2r)2  4r 2
4r 2  r 2
% change   100  300%
r 2
14. (B)
A  r 2
15. (B)
16. (B)
By trial and error
17. (B)
By Thales theorem
18. (B)
Tangent to a circle concepts
19. (B)
acos   bsin   m
asin   bcos   n
Squaring and adding
a2 cos2   b2 sin2   2abcos  sin   m2
a2 sin2   b2 cos2   2abcos  sin   n2
a2 + b2 = m2 + n2

20. (C)
m
Sm  2a  (m  1)d m2
 2  2
Sn n n
[2a  (n  1)d]
2
am a  (m  1)d

an a  (n  1)d
2a  2(m  1)d

2a  2(n  1)d
2a  (2m  1  1)d

2a  (2n  1  1)d
Substitute m = 2m – 1 n = 2n – 1

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1.

E  emf, V  ter minal pot.diff.

V = E + ir
V E
2.
 Junction1:  i'  15  8  23A
Junction 2 :  i'''  i' 3  23  3  26A
Junction3 :  i''  8  5  13A
Junction 4 :  i'''  i' i
 26  13  i
 i  13A

F 0I1I2
3. Use formula 
L 2d
4.

 0 (10)  0 (40)

2x 2(10  x)
Solve for x.
5. Image formation by convex lens.

6. sin c  rarer
 denser
7. Higher the wavelength, lesser the deviation
8. Scattering effect
9. Atmospheric refraction
10. Basic function of ciliary muscles
11. Concave lens
12. V  f
13. VIBGYOR
 increases


HINTS & SOLUTIONS

CHEMISTRY

1. PbO is getting reduced as it is losing oxygen and carbon is getting oxidized as it is gaining oxygen.

2. NaOH is strong base and on dissociation it furnishes ions which conduct electricity.

3. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in solid state.

4. Soap molecule has hydrophobic tail and hydrophilic head.

5. For the isoelectronic mono-atomic species; the greater is the number of protons the smaller is the size .
6. Electron affinity of chlorine is more than that of fluorine.

7. Period number of element in the modern periodic table is given by the maximum value of principal
quantum number in the ground state electronic configuration of the element.

Z
8. for H = 0.5
e
Z
for F  = 0.9
e
Z
as  size  therefore F  is smaller than H .
e

9. Electronegativity is a tendency and hence it has no unit

10. Ethyne is the first member of alkyne homologous series.

11. The element is Aluminium and it is good conductor of heat and electricity , ductile , malleable and solid
at room temperature.

12. Due to greater penetration of 2s orbital to nucleus than 2p orbital it it is more difficult to remove a electron
from 2s orbital than from 2p orbital.

13. Present form of periodic table can accommodate elements of atomic number upto 118.