BBO2020

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Answers are not provided at this time.
Students are not expected to have memorised all the facts assessed, or be familiar
with all the topics presented. Their biological intuition and problem solving is being
assessed.
British Biology Olympiad 2020
This was split into 2 papers of 45 minutes each. There were originally 79 questions
in total.
You may use a calculator.
It is recommended that you have pen and paper to hand for rough work.
No marks are subtracted for incorrect answers.
Some questions have more than one answer you need to choose. For some
questions, you need to put the answers in the correct order.
Medal Mark Pupils

Gold 65% 6%
Silver 59% 11%
Bronze 55% 10%
High Commended 47% 26%
Commended 42% 18%
UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

Paper 1
Quickfire
Q1
In which of the following polymers would you find alpha glucose joined only by 1,4
glycosidic bonds?
A. Amylopectin
B. Amylose
C. Cellulose
D. Glycogen
Q2
Four different concentrations of glucose solution were each tested using Benedict's
solution. The same volume of glucose and Benedict's solution was used in
each case. After 5 minutes the colour of the precipitate was noted:
A. Sample 1: orange
B. Sample 2: yellow
C. Sample 3: green
D. Sample 4: brick-red
Place the samples in increasing order of concentration.
Q3
Which of the following statements about clones is true?
A. Human twins are always clones

B. Only bacteria can form clones
C. Their DNA is identical
D. They will always show identical phenotypes

Q4
Which of the following diseases may be treated with a course of antibiotics?
A. AIDS
B. Cholera
C. Common cold
D. Influenza
Q5
Put the stages of meiosis in the correct order.
A. Chiasmata form
B. Homologous chromosomes separate
C. Non-identical sister chromatids separate
D. Homologous chromosomes pair up
E. DNA replicates
Q6
The transpiration rate of a plant may vary during the day. Which of the following
would result in an increase in transpiration?
A. A decrease in temperature
B. Closure of stomata
C. Humidity increasing
D. Wind speed increasing

Q7
The amino acid alanine is shown below.
Which of the following parts of the molecule are the amino group, the
carboxyl group and the R (variable) group?
Amino Group Carboxyl Group R Group
A. CH3 COOH NH2

B. CH3 NH2 COOH
C. COOH CH3 NH2
D. NH2 COOH CH3
Q8
Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a double membrane?
A. Lysosome
B. Nucleus
C. Peroxisome
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Q9
The wave of depolarisation across the walls of the atria in the heart is initiated by:
A. Atrioventricular bundle
B. Atrioventricular node
C. Bundle of His
D. Sinoatrial node
Q10
Sufferers of DiGeorge syndrome may not develop a thymus gland correctly. Which
leucocytes (white blood cells) would be present in lower numbers in these
individuals?
A. B lymphocytes
B. Dendritic cells
C. Helper T lymphocytes
D. Macrophages
Q11
Titin is the largest known protein and is a component of muscle. In humans the
protein is 34,350 amino acids long.
What is the minimum length of the human gene for titin?
A. 34,350 bases
B. 68,700 bases
C. 103,050 bases
D. 137,400 bases
Q12
Which of the following levels of organisation represents a decrease in hierarchy?
A. Community, population, ecosystem

B. Ecosystem, community, species
C. Population, community, organism
D. Species, community, population

Biochemistry & cell biology
Q13
In which of the following would ribosomal RNA be found?
1. Chloroplast
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondrion
4. Nucleus
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Q14
Which factor impedes the movement of water molecules across a cell membrane?
A. Water molecules and the phospholipid fatty acid tails are both non-polar
B. Water molecules and the phospholipid fatty acid tails are both polar
C. Water molecules are non-polar but the phospholipid fatty acid tails are
polar
D. Water molecules are polar but the phospholipid fatty acid tails are non-
polar
Q15
Tannins are chemicals produced by plants to defend themselves against herbivores,
pathogens and UV radiation. They are found in grapes and help wine age.
In 2013 a group of scientists discovered that tannins are formed in separate

organelles inside plant cells which they termed tannosomes. Tannosomes
originate in chloroplasts as smaller vesicles and ultimately end up in the
vacuole. Which of the following statements must be true of tannosomes?
A. Tannosomes are able to convert light energy to chemical energy

B. Tannosomes are bound by a phospholipid bilayer
C. Tannosomes contain DNA and can replicate independently of the cell
D. Tannosomes can only be present in green plant cells

Q16
The coenzymes NAD and NADP are used in the processes of respiration and
photosynthesis. They can exist in oxidised or reduced forms.
What is the most likely ratio of the oxidised : reduced form in the
mitochondrial matrix and in the stroma of chloroplasts?
(A high ratio of oxidised : reduced indicates that most of the coenzyme is in

its oxidised form).
Mitochondrial Matrix Chloroplast Stroma

A. high ratio of oxidised : reduced high ratio of oxidised : reduced
B. high ratio of oxidised : reduced low ratio of oxidised : reduced
C. low ratio of oxidised : reduced high ratio of oxidised : reduced
D. low ratio of oxidised : reduced low ratio of oxidised : reduced

Q17
The graph below shows the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction at different
substrate concentrations.
Which of these statements are correct?
1. At X, the rate of reaction is limited by the concentration of enzyme.
2. At Y, all of the enzyme active sites are occupied by substrate

molecules.
3. At X, the rate of reaction is limited by the concentration of the

substrate.
4. A competitive inhibitor would not affect the maximum rate of

reaction.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q18
What volume of 125 mmoldm-3 MgCl2 stock solution would you need to use in order
to give a final concentration of 20 mmoldm-3 in a total volume of 25 μl?
A. 0.25 μl
B. 4.0 μl
C. 5.0 μl
D. 6.25 μl
Q19
The flow diagram shows some of the light dependent reaction (LDR) processes in
photosynthesis.
For the LDR to continue, photosystem 2 (PS2) must gain electrons. Where do
these electrons come from?
A. ATP production
B. Photolysis
C. Photosystem 1
D. Reduced NADP

Physiology
Q20
Which of the following would lead to the resting potential of a neurone becoming
more negative?
A. A decrease in the concentration of potassium ions inside the cell

B. A decrease in the permeability of the membrane to potassium ions
C. An increase in the concentration of potassium ions inside the cell
D. An increase in the permeability of the membrane to sodium ions
Q21
The following table gives the volume of oxygen stored in humans and seals per
kilogram of body mass.
Volume of oxygen / ml kg-1

Human Seal
Lungs 10.3 1.8
Blood 11.8 37.5
Muscle 3.4 9.0
Tissue 2.9 3.3
Total 28.4 51.7
Which molecule accounts for the high oxygen content in the muscles of
seals?
A. Actin
B. Haemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Myosin

Q22
Which of the following organs are shown in the following images?
Slide 1 Slide 2
Slide 3 Slide 4
Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3 Slide 4

A pancreas stomach ovary kidney
B stomach pancreas ovary kidney
C kidney ovary pancreas stomach
D stomach kidney pancreas ovary

Q23
The image below is of the trachea. Which tissues are represented by the letters A
and B?
A. A is cartilage, B is collagen
B. A is cartilage, B is smooth muscle
C. A is smooth muscle, B is collagen
D. A is smooth muscle, B is cartilage

Q24
Which tubular structure is shown in the image below?
A. Artery
B. Lymph vessel
C. Oesphagus
D. Vein

Q25
Which carbohydrate would be found in high concentrations in the tissue labelled A
in the image below?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Starch
D. Sucrose

Diversity of life
Q26
In which kingdom would a single-celled organism possessing a nucleus and
chloroplasts be classified?
A. Fungi
B. Prokaryotae
C. Protoctista
D. Plantae
Q27
The average efficiency of energy transfer between plants and herbivores is 10% but
from herbivores to carnivores is about 20%.
This difference is because:
A. Carnivores egest less material than herbivores

B. Carnivores have a more specialised diet
C. Herbivores eat a lower mass of plants
D. Herbivores lose more heat energy than carnivores
E. Plant material is richer in lipids
Q28
When herbivores consume autotrophs, they use energy in a number of ways. Which
of the following is not one of these:
A. Digestion
B. Heat loss
C. Movement
D. Releasing nutrients back into the food chain

Genetics
Q30
In the fruitfly Drosophila the dominant allele Cy causes curly wings when
heterozygous, but is lethal when homozygous. A fly homozygous for the
recessive allele, cy, forms normal, straight wings.
In a cross between a curly-winged fly and a straight-winged fly, how many of

the offspring would have straight wings?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
Q31
In the lac operon, which of the following proteins have DNA binding sites?
beta-galactosidase
galactose
RNA polymerase
repressor protein
A. beta-galactosidase and galactose only

B. galactose and repressor protein only
C. RNA polymerase and repressor protein only
D. RNA polymerase and galactose only

Q32
The diagram shows the pedigree of a family tree affected by a particular disease.
Which is the most likely explanation of the way the disease is inherited?
A. Sex linkage on the X-chromosome

B. Sex linkage on the Y-chromosome
C. Autosomal dominant allele
D. Autosomal recessive allele

Quickfire 2
Q34
The principle of competitive exclusion states that two species cannot occupy the
same niche in the same habitat. Why?
A. Members of one species will kill members of the other

B. One species will already be established before the other arrives
C. One species will be better adapted to the niche than the other
D. The two species will interbreed
E. There is not enough food for two species to share
Q35
Sometimes animals need to move quickly away from predators; however, digesting
food takes time.
Which is not a store of energy that can be used in a 100 meter sprint?
A. ATP
B. Fat
C. Glucose
D. Glycogen
E. Phosphocreatine
Q36
Which of the following does not need to use transporter proteins to cross cell
membranes?
A. ATP
B. Glucose
C. mRNA
D. Proteins
E. Testosterone

Q37
A neurone conveys information with an electrical signal. How does the electrical
signal change when the stimulus becomes stronger?
A. Different frequency
B. Greater amplitude
C. Opposite charge
D. Smaller amplitude
E. Travels in a different direction
Q38
Keystone species have a disproportionate effect on other species in a habitat
and increase the overall diversity of an ecosystem.
Which of these is least likely to be a keystone species?
A. Beaver
B. Coral
C. Great white shark
D. Oak tree
E. Zebra
Q39
Which of the following is an animal hormone?
A. Auxin
B. Cytokinin
C. Glucose
D. Glucagon
E. Glyphosate

Q40
Which pair of organelles has internal membranes?
A. Ribosomes and mitochondria

B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
C. Nuclei and chloroplasts
D. Nuclei and ribosomes

Plants
Q41
It is not known whether conservation programs for large mammals also benefit
other organisms in the habitat.
In Mozambique, a war severely disrupted the habitat. The biomass of large

mammals, the biomass of an invasive shrub, the diet of large mammals, and
rainfall, were measured.
In 2015, ecologists erected exclosures, which are fences around some areas
to keep out large mammals.
Which of the following hypotheses is supported by these data?
A. Rainfall had a greater impact on shrub biomass than herbivory

B. Preventing poaching of large mammals could help conserve a habitat
C. Large mammals died during the war mostly because their food supply
was destroyed
D. Large mammals do NOT like to eat the shrub if other options are available
E. Large mammal populations cannot recover easily once a habitat is
degraded
F. Rainfall determined the diet of large mammals

Q42
Atmospheric carbon dioxide is increasing rapidly from its long-term average of ~
280 parts per million to around 415 parts per million today.
Ignoring the effect of weather and climate, what effect will this have?
A. Faster rate of anaerobic respiration

B. Faster rate of breathing
C. Faster rate of photosynthesis
D. Oceans become more alkaline
E. Plants using C4 photosynthesis become more common
Q43
The development of each part of a flower is determined by whether three
transcription factors (A, B or C) are turned on. The table shows which parts of
the flower A, B and C are turned on in.
Sepal A
Petal A&B
Stamen B&C
Carpel C
Which of these predictions is true?
A. Flowers lacking gene A have petals

B. Flowers lacking gene B have petals
C. Flowers lacking gene C have stamens
D. Flowers lacking gene B have sepals and carpels
E. Flowers lacking gene C can be pollinated

Q44
Plants do not have a skeleton like animals.
How do they maintain their structure?
A. Plants are lightweight so do not need structural support

B. Plants lean on each other in forests
C. Proteins hold cell walls together making them rigid
D. The xylem is a strong rod down the middle of stems
E. Water pressure pushing against cell walls
Q45
Recently, there have been large fires in Australia.
Which characteristic will the plants which replace burnt woodland most likely
possess?
A. Grow best in shade

B. Long lifespans
C. Part of climax community
D. Rapidly growing
E. Slow to set seed

Q46
Which plant shows adaptations for living in dry environments?

Animals
Q46
The route blood flows around humans is shown.
In a rare disease, the veins of the lungs become blocked and constricted.
What is a symptom of this disease?
A. Ability to do physical activities and exercise increases

B. Arterial blood pressure in the body increases
C. Cardiac output (volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute)
increases
D. Less fluid is found within the lungs
E. Right side of the heart swells
Q47
Which of the following is true of human metabolism?
A. Fats are not needed except as an energy store

B. Fats can be used in anaerobic respiration
C. Proteins cannot be used as an energy source
D. Storing sugar results in more retention of water than storing fat
E. Sugars provide more energy than fat because they are less oxidised

Q48
Stereopsis is a way the brain uses the angle between images seen with each eye to
calculate how far away an object is.
To test whether cuttlefish use stereopsis, they were fitted with red (R) and
geen (G) filtered eyeglasses and red and green images of prey were projected
on a screen. The distance the cuttlefish reached with their tentacles to grab
the virtual prey was measured.
Which of these ideas is true?
A. If cuttlefish use stereopsis, cuttlefish 1 will reach further than cuttlefish 2

B. If cuttlefish use stereopsis, they do NOT need adjustable lenses in their
eyeball to focus objects at different distances
C. Stereopsis is better at determining the distance of near objects than
objects very far away
D. The conclusions of this experiment are more robust if different cuttlefish
are shown one projection each, than if the same cuttlefish are shown both
projections in a random order
E. This experimental technique only works for animals which can see colour

Q49
Insulin can be given to diabetics, but the effect it has depends on various factors.
What will not affect how a cell responds to insulin?
A. Concentration of insulin
B. The number of insulin receptors the cell expresses
C. The presence/absence of other hormones
D. Whether the insulin was produced in yeast or animals
E. Which genes are silenced in that cell type
F. Which type of insulin receptors the cells express
Q50
Which animal is behaving altruistically?

Q51
During the menstrual cycle, changes within the ovary and uterus are coordinated by
hormones.
Which of the following is true?
A. An LH tablet would work well as a contraceptive

B. LH stimulates the release of the egg
C. Progesterone stimulates the thickening of the uterine lining
D. The most likely time to get pregnant is when progesterone is high
E. You cannot get pregnant when FSH is high

Data handling
Q52
There are different kinds of clinical study:
1) Case-control study: A group of diseased people are compared to a group

of similar healthy people to see what is different between the diseased and
healthy people.
2) Longitudinal Study: Two groups of healthy people who are similar except
for one factor (e.g. smoking) are studied over time to see who develops
disease.
3) Controlled trial: A group of similar people are randomly administered an

intervention or a placebo to see if the intervention has an effect.
4) Mendelian randomisation: People who have alleles which cause them to be

exposed to a certain factor (e.g. alleles which cause obesity) are compared to
similar people who do not have those alleles to see if the factor causes
disease.
Different kinds of study have different disadvantages:
A) Very expensive to setup and carry out

B) Often unethical
C) Provides weakest evidence
D) Not practical for rare diseases
E) Results cannot be understood without prior knowledge of biology
Match the study to the disadvantage(s).
A. 1-C, 2A, 3-BE, 4-D

B. 1-C, 2-BD, 3-A, 4-E
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-AB, 4-E
D. 1-A, 2-D, 3-BE, 4-C
E. 1-A, 2-C, 3-DB, 4-E
F. 1-EA, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
G. 1-E, 2-C, 3-AD, 4-B
H. 1-B, 2-ED, 3-A, 4-C
I. 1-B, 2-AE, 3-C, 4-D
J. 1-DE, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
K. 1-D, 2-E, 3-C, 4-BA

Q53
There are several related theories of how bones sense forces:
1) Flexing of the bone forces fluid through micro channels in the bone
2) Bone is piezoelectric, so when it is bent, electrical charges separate

between the inside and outside of the curve
3) Bone growth is stimulated by hormones known as bone morphogenetic

proteins
4) High forces stimulate cells which deposit calcium compounds in bone
Several pieces of evidence support the importance of these theories for

regulating bone strength:
A) Applying a potential difference across a bone can strengthen it
B) Exercise routines with elasticated equipment prevents bone weakening in

astronauts
C) High frequency flexing of bone increases strength more than low

frequency flexing
D) Injecting viruses carrying certain genes can turn muscle into bone
Match the theory to the evidence
A. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

B. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
C. 1-A, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
D. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
E. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
F. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
G. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
H. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
I. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
J. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
K. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Q54
Piezo proteins are cell-surface proteins which allow cells to sense mechanical force
(e.g. touch). Unexpectedly, people with mutant Piezo proteins have been
found to have shrivelled red blood cells, which look like those of Sickle cell
anemia patients.
What is not a sensible hypothesis regarding Piezo proteins?
A. Piezo gene mutations are more common in Africa

B. People with Piezo gene mutations are resistant to Plasmodium infections
C. People with Piezo gene mutations have poor coordination
D. The allele frequency of Piezo gene mutations is less than 50%
E. There are exactly twice as many heterozygous Piezo gene mutation
carriers as homozygotes
Q55
In the UK, there is thought to be around 1 person with an undiagnosed HIV
infection for every 10 000 uninfected people. Data for two new self-testing
kits are shown:
Test A: Sensitivity = 99.9%, Specificity = 99.99%

Test B: Sensitivity = 99%, Specificity = 99.999%
Sensitivity: The percentage of sick people who are accurately diagnosed as

being sick
Specificity: The percentage of healthy people who are correctly identified as
being healthy.
People with a positive result are told to go to their doctor for a re-test and
then treatment.
What is true about these tests when they are taken in the UK?
A. If everyone is tests themselves, Test B will give more positive results than
Test A
B. Pharmacies should offer Test A rather than Test B
C. Someone with a negative result from Test B has a 1% chance of having HIV
D. Someone with a positive result from Test A is more likely to have HIV than
they are to not have HIV
E. Test A is better at ruling out false positive results than Test B

Q56
You want to estimate the number of cells in a sample.
You take a portion of the sample, dilute it and add it to a cell chamber
(haemocytometer) which contains squares of a known volume and look at it
with a microscope.
What is true about the estimate you make?
A. It will be higher if you add more sample to the cell chamber

B. It will be more accurate if you count all of the cells which overlap with the
borders of the squares you count
C. It will be more accurate if you count cells in more of the squares
D. It would be more accurate if the sample was diluted more
E. It would be more accurate if you use the small central squares to count
larger cells

Cell biology
Q57
Phages are viruses, containing both protein and DNA, that infect bacteria. Phages
were created which contained radioactive sulfur (35S) and phosphorus (32P),
instead of normal sulfur and phosphorus.
The phages were incubated with bacteria. The amount of radioactive sulfur
and phosphorus remaining in phage particles or transferred to the bacteria
was measured.
S
35
P
32
Proportion of radioactivity remaining in phage particles ~ 75% ~ 15%

Proportion of radioactivity transferred to bacteria ~ 25% ~ 85%
Secondly, the amount of radioactivity which was transferred to new phage

particles produced by the infected bacteria was measured.
S
35 32
P
Proportion of radioactivity transferred to new phage particles < 1% ~ 30%
What hypothesis is consistent with these data?
A. All phage particles are able to infect bacteria

B. Phage DNA contained sulfur but no phosphorus
C. Phage DNA was NOT recycled to make new phage particles
D. Phage proteins were NOT recycled to make new phage particles
E. Phages mostly injected their protein, rather than their DNA, into bacteria

Q58
Ribosomes catalyse multi-step reactions between peptide-tRNA and amino-acid-
tRNA. The empty tRNA is released after each step.
In an experiment, ribosomes and all the other factors needed for translation,
are mixed with radioactive tRNAs carrying amino acids.
In the presence of the drug tetracycline, the ribosomes are only half as
radioactive as they are usually, and peptide synthesis is slowed or
stopped.
In the presence of puromycin, ribosomes produce incomplete peptides

of variable length.
In the presence of both tetracycline and puromycin, the ribosomes are

not radioactive.
Which of these hypotheses is consistent with this data?
A. Puromycin and tetracycline bind the same site on ribosomes

B. Puromycin prevents the binding of amino acid-tRNA to ribosomes
C. Puromycin reacts with the peptide chain, replacing the amino-acid-tRNA
D. Ribosomes can bind 3 tRNAs at any one time
E. Tetracycline prevents the release of empty tRNA

Q59
The Ames test is used to test whether chemicals can cause mutations in DNA. The
bacteria on plate 1 have special edits in the gene used to produce the amino
acid histidine.
Which conclusion is correct?
A. Bacteria put on plate 1 can produce histidine

B. Bacteria put on plate 2 can produce histidine
C. Bacteria put on plate 4 can produce histidine
D. Chemical A causes mutations in DNA
E. Chemical B causes mutations in DNA

Q60
Genes A, B, C and D relay signals to one another in a chain, leading to the
development of the vulva (reproductive organ) of worms.
A → B → C → D → vulva
Mutant genotype Phenotype

Loss of gene A Multiple vulvas
Loss of gene B No vulva
Loss of gene C No vulva
Extra copies of gene D Multiple vulvas
Which of these predictions is correct?
A. Combined loss of gene A and B leads to multiple vulvas

B. Extra copies of gene A leads to no vulva
C. Gene A promotes vulva development
D. Gene B inhibits vulva development
E. Gene D has no role in vulva development

Q61
You want to insert a gene into a plasmid.
You test whether the gene inserted into the plasmid correctly by performing
a restriction enzyme digest, followed by gel electrophoresis.
Cut sites are shown with dashed lines. bp = base pairs, kb = kilobase pairs.

Q61- Continued
Which plasmid is in each lane of the gel?
A. 1=A, 2=B, 34=C

B. 1=A, 2=C, 34=B
C. 1=B, 2=C, 34=A
D. 1=B, 2=A, 34=C
E. 1=C, 2=B, 34=A
F. 1=C, 2=A, 34=B
G. Not possible to tell

Quickfire 3
Q62
When are DNA polymerases essential?
A. During mitosis
B. During PCR reactions
C. During transcription
D. During translation
E. Only in Eukaryotes
Q63
Which is a learned behaviour?
A. A bird chick pecking its mother for food

B. A turtle hatchling crawling towards the ocean
C. Ducklings following their mother in a flock of birds
D. Removing your hand from a hot stove
E. Stickleback fish attacking red fish in a shoal of fish
Q64
Which is not involved in making proteins from DNA?
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Nucleus
C. Nucleolus
D. Plasmodesmata
E. Ribosome
F. Spliceosome

Q65
An enzyme catalyses the production of glucose from glucose-6-phosphate.
At the beginning of the experiment glucose-6-phosphate was added to the

enzyme. After half an hour 60% of the glucose-6-phosphate remained.
What is true about this reaction?
A. Adding a second enzyme which breaks down glucose would speed up the
reaction
B. After an hour 20% glucose-6-phosphate would remain
C. The enzyme would probably work with sucrose-6-phosphate
D. The reaction can only occur in the presence of an enzyme
E. The reaction would happen quicker at 100 degrees C
Q68
Some breeds of cat can be black, yellow or tortoise shell (black and yellow patches).
Almost all tortoiseshell cats are female. They are the offspring of either tortoiseshell
females or of one black and one yellow parent. What contributes to this
phenomenon?
A. Female cats have colder skin

B. Fur colour is Y-linked (carried on Y the chromosome)
C. Half the X-chromosomes are inactivated in females
D. Male tortoiseshell cats are more likely to be predated
E. The same gene controls male sterility and tortoiseshell colour
F. Tortoiseshell colouring is switched on by oestrogen
END

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This paper is the British Biology Olympiad 2020.

Registered Charity in England and Wales, no. 1191037

Medal Mark Pupils

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

Place the samples in increasing order of concentration.

A. Human twins are always clones

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

Amino Group Carboxyl Group R Group

A. CH3 COOH NH2

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

What is the minimum length of the human gene for titin?

A. Community, population, ecosystem

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

In 2013 a group of scientists discovered that tannins are formed in separate

A. Tannosomes are able to convert light energy to chemical energy

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

(A high ratio of oxidised : reduced indicates that most of the coenzyme is in

Mitochondrial Matrix Chloroplast Stroma

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

Which of these statements are correct?

1. At X, the rate of reaction is limited by the concentration of enzyme.

2. At Y, all of the enzyme active sites are occupied by substrate

3. At X, the rate of reaction is limited by the concentration of the

4. A competitive inhibitor would not affect the maximum rate of

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

A. A decrease in the concentration of potassium ions inside the cell

Volume of oxygen / ml kg-1

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3 Slide 4

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

This difference is because:

A. Carnivores egest less material than herbivores

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

In a cross between a curly-winged fly and a straight-winged fly, how many of

A. beta-galactosidase and galactose only

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

A. Sex linkage on the X-chromosome

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

A. Members of one species will kill members of the other

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

Which of these is least likely to be a keystone species?

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

A. Ribosomes and mitochondria

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

In Mozambique, a war severely disrupted the habitat. The biomass of large

Which of the following hypotheses is supported by these data?

A. Rainfall had a greater impact on shrub biomass than herbivory

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

A. Faster rate of anaerobic respiration

Which of these predictions is true?

A. Flowers lacking gene A have petals

UKBiologyCompetitions.org BBO 2020

How do they maintain their structure?

A. Plants are lightweight so do not need structural support