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EC2102 Topic 4 - Solution Sketch

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Topic

4 – Solution Sketch
Wong Wei Kang

1.
There are more than one ways to solve this problem. It is generally the easiest to think from
the perspective of the intertemporal budget constraint (other approaches use this constraint in
one form or another). Without the tuition payment T but with initial wealth ω0, the
intertemporal budget constraint from lecture is:
Present value of lifetime spending = Present value of lifetime resources
c1 + c2/(1+r) = y1 + y2/(1+r) + ω0

With the tuition payment as part of lifetime spending, it becomes


c1 + (c2 + Tuition)/(1+r) = y1 + y2/(1+r) + ω0

Saving in the first year is s = y1 - c1


The rest is simple. Just substitute the values into this equation and solve for c, where c = c1 =
c2. As discussed in lecture, c1 = c2 when r = ρ = 10% in this case, there will be perfect
consumption smoothing regardless of the specific functional form of the utility function.

(a) y1 = y2 = $50,000, r = 10%, Tuition = $12,600.


c = $44,000. Then s = y1 - c = $50,000 - $44,000 = $6000.

(b)
(i) y1 = $54,000, y2 = $50,000, r = 10%, Tuition = $12,600.
c = $46,095. Then s = y1 - c = $7,905. This illustrates that a rise in current income
increases saving.

(ii) y1 = $50,000, y2 = $54,000, r = 10%, Tuition = $12,600.

c = $45,905. Then s = y1 - c = $4095. This illustrates that a rise in future income


decreases saving.

(iii) ω0 = 1,050.
c = $44,550. Then s = y1 - c = $50,000 - $44,550 = $5,450. The inheritance
represents an increase in wealth. This causes an increase in consumption. With
unchanged income, this reduces current saving (= y – c).

(iv) Tuition = $14,700.


c = $43,000. Then s = y - c = $50,000 - $43,000 = $7,000. The rise in targeted
wealth needed in the future raises current saving.

(v ) r = 25%. Here r is different from ρ and we can no longer assume perfect


consumption smoothing. If we assume perfect consumption smoothing, then we
would have found c = $44,400. Then s = y - c = $50,000 - $44,400 = $5,600. The
rise in the real interest rate, with a given wealth target, reduces current saving. But
this is incorrect. We will need to solve for the optimal consumption and saving from
first principle, as follows.

1
An individual’s utility maximization problem is:

max U (c1 ,c2 ) = u(c1 ) + δ u(c2 )


c1 ,c2

u(c) = c = c1/2

subject to
c2 y Tuition
c1 + = y1 + 2 − =ω
1+ r 1+ r 1+ r
ω = lifetime wealth after tuition payment

Thus,
c2 (c1 ) = (1+ r)(ω − c1 )
y2 Tuition
ω = y1 + −
1+ r 1+ r

Note: Using the values given:


y2 Tuition 50,000 12,600
ω = y1 + − = 50,000 + − = 79,920
1+ r 1+ r 1.25 1.25

Substituting c2(c1)=(1+r)(ω - c1) and the instantaneous utility function into the maximization
problem, we get an unconstraint maximization problem with only one variable

max c1 + δ (1+ r)(ω − c1 )


c1

The first order condition is:


1 −δ (1+ r)
+ =0
2 c1* 2 (1+ r)(ω − c1* )

Solving, we get
ω 79,920
c1* = = = 39,310.24
δ (1+ r) +1 (1/ 1.1) 2 (1.25) +1
2

s1* = y1 − c1* = 50,000 − 39310.24 = 10,689.76


c2* = (ω − c1* )(1+ r) = (79,920 − 39,310.24)(1.25) = 50,762.2

As expected, because r > ρ, c2 > c1

2
2.
a.




b.
An increase in lump-sum tax together with an equal increase in government
expenditure

↑ T → ↓ disposable income (Y – T) → ↓ Cd → ↑ Sd = Y – Cd – G
↑ G → ↓ Sd = Y – Cd – G

So there are two opposing effect. The net effect is ↓ Sd because 0 < MPC < 1

So Sd falls at any given level of real interest rate


→ Sd curve shifts to the left
→ ↑ r to clear the loanable fund market at any given level of real output Y

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