Mds Test 2 - Removed

PG MOCKTEST KU full syllabus-II (11th
JULY,2020)
Welcome to the Mock Test for PG-entrance exam in dentistry organized by the authors of
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1. Melanin pigmentation of gingiva starts appearing (1 point)

◯ In first trimester
◯ In second trimester
◯ In third trimester
⚫ After birth
Explanation:
Ans: d Afterbirth ((Carranza 11th ed page 25)
It may appear in the gingiva as early as 3 hours after birth and often is the only evidence of
pigmentation
2. Odland bodies are absent in (1 point)

◯ stratum spinosum
⚫ junctional epithelium
◯ orthokeratinization
◯ parakeratinization
Explanation:
Ans: B (Carranza 11th ed page-16)
In junctional epithelium, Lysosome-like bodies also are present, but the absence of
keratinosomes (Odland bodies) and histochemically demonstrable acid phosphatase, correlated
with the low degree of differentiation, may reflect a low defense power against microbial plaque
accumulation in the gingival sulcus.
3. Procedures such as extractions or periodontal surgery for ANUG patients, (1 point)

◯ Can be carried out once the patient is symptom free
◯ Can be carried out once the patient is symptom free for at least 1 week
◯ Can be carried out once the patient is symptom free for at least 2 weeks
⚫ Can be carried out once the patient is symptom free for at least 4 weeks
Explanation:
Ans: D
• Unless an emergency exists, procedures, such as extractions or periodontal surgery, are

postponed until the patient has been symptom free for 4 weeks, to minimize the
likelihood of exacerbating the acute symptoms.
4. Not a side effect of chlorhexidine (1 point)

◯ Brown discoloration of the teeth
◯ Taste perturbation where the salt taste appears to be preferentially affected
◯ Enhanced supragingival calculus formation
⚫ Intrinsic staining of the developing toothbud
Explanation:
Ans: D (Lindhe 5th ed)
In oral use as a mouth rinse, chlorhexidine has been reported to have a number of local side
effects (Flotra et al. 1971). These side effects are:
• Brown discoloration of the teeth and some restorative materials and the dorsum of the
tongue.
• Taste perturbation where the salt taste appears to be preferentially affected (Lang et al.
1988) to leave food and drinks with a rather bland taste.
• Oral mucosal erosion. This appears to be an idiosyncratic reaction
• Unilateral or bilateral parotid swelling. This is an extremely rare occurrence and an
explanation is not available.
• Enhanced supragingival calculus formation.
5. Local drug delivery is not preferred when (1 point)

◯ probing depths greater than 5 mm with inflammation still present after conventional
therapy
⚫ multiple sites present in the same quadrant
◯ barrier membranes are placed
◯ patient is medically compromised
Explanation:
Ans: B (Carranza 11th ed)
6. Which of the following is not an indication of occlusal correction? (1 point)

⚫ Wear facets
◯ Widening of periodontal ligament
◯ Pain during tooth contacts
◯ TMJ symptoms
Explanation:
Ans: a Wear facets
Wear facets can be seen in normal teeth as well.

7. Dose of sub-antimicrobial-dose doxycycline (SDD) as HMT is (1 point)
◯ 20-mg taken twice daily for 3 months, up to a maximum of 9 months of intermittent
dosing
◯ 20-mg taken once daily for 3 months, up to a maximum of 9 months of intermittent
dosing
⚫ 20-mg taken twice daily for 3 months, up to a maximum of 9 months of continuous
dosing
◯ 20-mg taken once daily for 3 months, up to a maximum of 9 months of continuous
dosing
Explanation:
Ans: C (Carranza 11th ed)
• It is taken twice daily for 3 months, up to a maximum of 9 months of continuous dosing.

• The 20-mg dose exerts its therapeutic effect by enzyme, cytokine, and osteoclast
inhibition rather than by any antibiotic effect.
• should not be taken with calcium supplements.
8. Adult periodontitis (1 point)

◯ Occurs in adult only
◯ occur in children and adolescents only
⚫ can occur at any age including the children and adolescent
◯ occurs in adult and old people
Explanation:
Ans: C (ref: Carranza 11th ed)
Although chronic periodontitis is most frequently observed in adults, it can occur in children and
adolescents in response to chronic plaque and calculus accumulation.
Hence, now called “chronic” periodontitis, which can occur at any age
9. The curettage of the mesial surface of the molars is done by Gracey # (1 point)
◯ 11-12
⚫ 13-14
◯ 9-10
◯ 7-8
Explanation:
Ans: B (ref: Carranza 11th ed)
Since the curettage procedures require opposite angulation than that of the root planing, the
Gracey curettes are exchanged.
10. Indications of gingivectomy are all except (1 point)

◯ Elimination of suprabony pockets, regardless of their depth, if the pocket wall is fibrous
and firm
◯ Elimination of gingival enlargement
◯ Elimination of suprabony periodontal ligament abscess
⚫ Bottom of pocket is apical to mucogingival junction
Explanation:
Ans: D (ref: Carranza 11th ed)
11. The first incision in a periodontal flap surgery is (1 point)

◯ Interdental incision
◯ Crevicular incision
⚫ Reverse bevel incision
◯ Releasing incision
Explanation:

Internal bevel incision has also been termed the first incision because it is the initial incision in
the reflection of a periodontal flap after crevicular (second) and interdental (third) incisions.
Internal bevel incision has also been termed as reverse bevel incision because its bevel is in
reverse direction from that of the gingivectomy incision.
The first three are also called horizontal incision.
12. Osseous surgery designed to restore the form of preexisting alveolar bone to (1 point)
the level present at the time of surgery or slightly more apical to this level
◯ Additive osseous surgery
⚫ Subtractive osseous surgery
◯ Resective osseous surgery
◯ Non- Resective osseous surgery
Explanation:
Osseous surgery can be either additive or subtractive in nature.
Additive osseous surgery includes procedures directed at restoring the alveolar bone to its
original level,
Subtractive osseous surgery is designed to restore the form of preexisting alveolar bone to the
level present at the time of surgery or slightly more apical to this level
13. Which of the following is not the method of root conditioning? (1 point)
◯ Use of fibronectin
⚫ Use of 10% citric acid (pH of 3.0)
◯ Use of 24% EDTA
◯ Tetracycline
Explanation:
Ans: B (Carranza 11th ed, page no 871)

3% citric acid (pH of 1.0) for 2 to 5 minutes is used for root conditioning.
14. The buccolingual width of the maxillary first molar is 10 mm. The furcation (1 point)
defect is not thorough and thorough measuring 6 mm from buccal and 5 mm
palatally. According to Glickman, the furcation involvement comes under
◯ Grade I
◯ Grade II
⚫ Grade III
◯ Grade IV
Explanation:
Ans: C (Carranza 11 th ed,)
The clinician may not even be able to pass a periodontal probe completely through the furcation
because of interference with the bifurcational ridges or facial/lingual bony margins.
However, if the clinician adds the buccal and lingual probing dimensions and obtains a
cumulative probing measurement that is equal to or greater than the buccal/lingual dimension of
the tooth at the furcation orifice, the clinician must conclude that a grade III furcation exists.
15. Which of the following factor does not cause “Gummy Smile”? (1 point)
◯ vertical maxillary excess
⚫ excessive exposure of the anatomic crown
◯ altered passive eruption
◯ short upper lip or excessive lip translation
Explanation:
Excessive gingival display, commonly called a “gummy smile,” may be caused by a skeletal
problem called vertical maxillary excess, by dentoalveolar extrusion, or by incomplete exposure
of the anatomic crown, often referred to as altered passive eruption.
It may be associated with a short upper lip or excessive lip translation.

There may be a combination of causative factors requiring more than one treatment option.
16. Which bevel is given to protect and support cusps during cusps capping (1 point)
◯ Long bevel
◯ Short bevel
⚫ counter bevel
◯ no bevel
17. Amount of gap required for cement in inlay restoration is (1 point)

⚫ 10-25 microns
◯ 2-4 microns
◯ 50-100 microns
◯ no gap required
Explanation:
• The gap for cementation is produced by using die spacers

• The commonly used die spacers are the insoluble paints applied in the thickness of 5
microns. This creates a space for cement with thickness of 25 microns
18. According to Fusayama, arrange the following areas in carious tooth from (1 point)
DEJ to pulp
⚫ DEJ, bacterial invasion front, discoloration front, softening front, pulp chamber wall
◯ DEJ, bacterial invasion front, softening front, discoloration front, pulp chamber wall
◯ DEJ, softening front, bacterial invasion front, discoloration front, pulp chamber wall
◯ DEJ, softening front, discoloration front, bacterial invasion front, pulp chamber wall
Explanation:
Ans: A, (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 291/292)
Remember the sequence: B, bacterial invasion front; D, discoloration front; S, softening front (@
BDS)
• In chronic (slow) caries, infected dentin usually is discolored, and the bacterial front is
close to the discoloration front, hence it is advisable in caries removal to remove all
discolored dentin unless judged to be within 0.5mm of the pulp.
• Because in acute (rapid) caries the discoloration is slight, and the bacterial front is well
behind the discoloration front, some discolored dentin may be left.
19. Not a Rule for Establishing Outline Form for Pit-and Fissure Tooth (1 point)
Preparation
◯ using enameloplasty
⚫ Extend the preparation depth until sound tooth structure is obtained
◯ connecting two close (<0.5mm apart) faults or tooth preparations
◯ preserving cuspal strength
Explanation:
Ans: B (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 301)
Extend the preparation margin (not depth) until sound tooth structure is obtained, and no
unsupported or weakened enamel remains.
20. Which is not an acceptable instrument grasp used with hand instruments? (1 point)
⚫ conventional pen grasp
◯ inverted pen
◯ palm-and-thumb
◯ modified palm-and-thumb
Explanation:
Ans: A (Ref: sturdevants 5th ed page no. 333)
There are four grasps used with hand instruments: (1) modified pen,(2) inverted pen,(3) palm-
and-thumb, and (4) modified palm-and-thumb. The conventional pen grasp is not an acceptable
instrument grasp
21. The shape of the number 245 bur is (1 point)
◯ Tapered fissure
⚫ Pear shaped
◯ Straight fissure
◯ Inverted cone
Explanation:
Ans: B (sturdevants 5th ed page no. 54, fig 7.6)
Names and Key Dimensions of Recommended Burs
Bur Head Length Taper angle Shape

diameter(mm) (degrees)
(mm)
1⁄4 0.50 0.40 Round
1⁄2 0.60 0.48 Round
2 1.00 0.80 Round
4 1.40 1.10 Round
331/2 0.6 0.45 12 Inverted cone
169L 0.9 5.6 4 Elongated tapered fissure
245 0.8 3.0 4 Pear, long /elongated
330 0.8 1.0 8.0 Pear, normal length
271 1.20 4.00 6 Tapered fissure
22. Bevel in Class III beveled conventional tooth preparation for composites is (1 point)
◯ 15-20 degrees
◯ 30-40 degrees
◯ 140-150 degrees
⚫ 45 degrees
Explanation:
Ans: D (ref: Sturdevants 5th ed, page no 536)
The cavosurface bevel or flare is best prepared with either a flame shaped or a round diamond
instrument, resulting in an angle approximately 45 degrees to the external tooth surface. A bevel
width of 0.25 to 0.5mm is considered sufficient.
23. When an endodontist entered into the pulp chamber, he saw gray color (1 point)
inside. What is the likely findings?
◯ Perforation
◯ Pulp stones
⚫ Floor of the pulp chamber
◯ Root canal orifices
Explanation:
ANS: C (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 248)
Clinical guide to color change (“Color is the language of endodontics.”)
• Enamel – White
• Dentin – Yellow
• Floor of pulp chamber – Gray
• Root canal orifices – Dark gray or Black
• Pulp stones – Pearly white/Dark yellow
• If other different colors – Multi-colored pulp stones
24. Which is the largest and straightest root canal system of all human teeth? (1 point)
⚫ Maxillary central incisors
◯ Palatal root of maxillary 1st molar
◯ Mandibular central incisors
◯ Maxillary canine
Explanation:
ANS: A (Ingle’s Endodontics; 7th edition; page 38)
25. The purpose of Orstavik’s periapical index is: (1 point)

⚫ To integrate radiographic score with histological characterisctics of the disease
◯ For histologic assessment of disease
◯ For grading the periradicular diseases
◯ All of above
Explanation:
ANS: A (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 69)
Orstavik et al. (1986) developed the most popular periapical index (PAI), in which periapical
lesions were classified into five scores based on the use of reference periapical radiographs of
teeth with confirmed histological diagnosis.
26. Which type of cutting is performed with the engine-driven endodontic (1 point)
instruments with radial land?
◯ Active cutting
⚫ Passive cutting
◯ Both type of preparation alternatively
◯ Doesn’t alter preparation
Explanation:
ANS: B (Cohen’s Pathways of Pulp; 11th edition; page 226)
The engine driven instruments can be grouped as:
Group-I: Passive preparations; Presence of radial land
• Profile
• Lightspeed
• GT & GTX files
• K3
Group-II: Active preparations; Absence of radial lands
• ProTaper
• HERO
• Flexmaster
• RACE
• Endosequence
• Twisted file
Group-III: Special cases
• Wave one
• Self adjusting file
27. Which of the following organisms has prolonged Viable But Not Cultivable (1 point)
state (VBNC) period?
◯ Parvimonas micra
⚫ Enterococcus faecalis
◯ Streptococcus spp
◯ Prevotella intermedia
Explanation:
ANS: B (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 47)
The survival and virulence factors of Enterococcus faecalis are:
• Endures prolonged periods of nutritional deprivation (VBNC – Viable But Not Cultivable
state)
• Binds to dentin and invades the dentinal tubules
• Alters host responses
• Suppresses the action of lymphocytes
• Possesses lytic enzymes, cytolysin, aggregation substance, pheromones, and lipoteichoic
acid
• Utilizes serum as nutritional source
• Resists intracanal medicaments
• Competes with other cells
• Forms a biolfilm
28. Which antibiotic is added in modified antibiotic paste? (1 point)

◯ 1st generation cephalosporin
⚫ 2nd generation cephalosporin
◯ 3rd generation cephalosporin
◯ 4th generation cephalosporin
Explanation:
ANS: B (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 235)
29. Apicoectomy is contraindicated in (1 point)

⚫ Extensive bone loss
◯ Overfilled root canals
◯ Lateral perforation at apical third
◯ Is not contraindicated
30. EDTA-C is (1 point)

⚫ EDTA + Cetavlon
◯ EDTA + Cetrimide
◯ EDTA + Ciprofloxacin
◯ EDTA + citric acid
31. Termination of all transmission of disease through extermination of (1 point)

infectious agent is
⚫ Disease eradication
◯ Disease elimination
◯ Disease control
◯ Disability limitation
Explanation:
Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th edition, Page no 44
Disease eradication: termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of infectious

agent through surveillance and containment
32. Association between oral hygiene instructions(provided or not) and the (1 point)
occurrence of new cavities with relevant data from 200 students of a dental
college is being studied.Which statistical test of hypothesis is advised in this
situation?
◯ Unpaired T-test
◯ Student t-test
◯ Analysis of variance
⚫ Chi-square test
Explanation:
Page no 607, Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th edition
Chi square test is used to test the significance of difference between two proportions and can be
used when there are more than two groups to be compared.
33. Co st -Benefit ratio is evaluated in (1 point)

◯ Relevance evaluation
◯ Effectiveness evaluation
⚫ Efficiency evaluation
◯ Impact evaluation
Explanation:
Page no 380, Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter, 5th edition
Types of evaluation
Efficiency evaluation: To relate the results obtained to the resources expended to maintain the
program.
Formative evaluation: Examination of the activity of the program, as they are taking place.
Summative evaluation: Done to judge the merit or worth of the program after it has been in
operation.
Relevance evaluation: Activities designed to determine whether the program is needed or
whether the programs is targeting its efforts to the individuals in need.
Process evaluation: Efforts made to assess whether the program implementation complies with
the program plan.
Effectiveness evaluation: To determine whether the program results meet predetermined

objectives.
Impact evaluation: Refers to the long term outcomes of the program.
34. Which one of the following is operating auxiliary according to the revised (1 point)
classification by WHO?
◯ Dental surgery assistant
◯ Dental lab technician
⚫ Dental therapist
◯ Dental health educator
Explanation:
Essentials of Public Health Dentistry by Soben Peter,5th edition,Page 476

Revised Classification:
Non-operating auxiliaries
-Dental surgery assistant
-Dental secretary/Receptionist
-Dental Lab Technician
-Dental Health educator
Operating auxiliaries
-School dental nurse

-Dental Therapist
-Dental Hygienist
-Expanded function dental auxiliaries
35. A study was conducted within a certain population of people in order to study (1 point)
the side effects of the use of oral contraceptives. This falls under which type
of the following clinical trials?
◯ Prophylactic trial
◯ Risk factor trial
⚫ Safety trial
◯ Therapeutic trial
Explanation:
Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th Edition, Page no 80
Prophylactic trial: e.g Immunization
Therapeutic trial: e.g Drug treatment
Risk factor trial: Proving the etiology of a disease by inducing it with the agent in animals or
withdrawing the agent through cessation
Safety trials: e.g side effects of oral contraceptives and injectibles
36. The total area and the standard deviation of a standard normal curve is (1 point)
same.It is
◯0
⚫1
◯2
◯3
Explanation:
Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th Edition, Page no 606
-Standard normal curve is bell shaped.
-Its mean is zero. All three measures of central tendency ;mean ,median and mode coincide.
-The curve is perfectly symmetrical based on an infinitely large number of observations
37. Indicator dye used in Snyder test (1 point)

◯ Diazo resorcinol
◯ Methylene blue
◯ Propylene glycol
⚫ Bromocresol green
Explanation:
Page no 284 Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th Edition
Salivary Reductase Test-Diazo-Resorcinol
Snyder test:
Measures the ability of the salivary microorganisms to form organic acid from carbohydrate
medium.The dye Bromocresol green changes color from green to yellow in the range of pH 5.4-
3.8. Indirectly this test is also a measure of acidogenic and aciduric bacteria.
38. Not an index tooth for Periodontal Disease Index (1 point)

◯ 16
◯ 21
◯ 41
⚫ 46
Explanation:
Page no 430 Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th edition
Periodontal Disease Index
-Developed by Sigurd P. Ramjford in 1959
-Instruments used: Mouth mirror and dental explorer
-Index tooth: 16 21 24 36 41 44
-Has three components:
-Plaque component
-Calculus component
-Gingival and Periodontal component
39. The concentration of fluoride in Duraphat fluoride varnish is (1 point)

◯ 0.32%
◯ 1.8%
◯ 2.1%
⚫ 2.26%
Explanation:
Page no 532, Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th edition
Duraphat
-Duraphat is the first fluoride varnish developed in Germany.
-viscous, yellowish material containing 22,600 ppm fluoride in a neutral colophonium base.
-Has shown caries reduction of 30-40% in permanent dentition and in between 7 %and 44% in
the primary dentition.
40. Which of the principles is regarded as the ‘’Booster dose’’ in health (1 point)
education?
◯ Credibility
◯ Comprehension
⚫ Reinforcement
◯ Motivation
Explanation:
Page no 116 Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th edition
Principles of health education
1. Credibility: The degree to which the message is perceived as trustworthy by the receiver.
2. Motivation: Fundamental desire for learning in an individual.
e.g. for a teenager, esthetics might be a motive to take care of his/ Her teeth
3. Participation: Chance to take part in the program leads to the acceptance of the program.
4.Comprehension: Refers to the level of understanding of the people who receive the health
education.
5.Reinforcement: Refers to the repetition needed in health education.
6.Interest
7. Known to unknown
8.Learning by doing
9.Setting an example
10.Good human relation
11.Feedback
12.Community leaders
41. The standard material for pulp capping of normal vital pulp tissue is (1 point)
◯ MTA
◯ Zinc Oxide Eugenol
◯ Formocresol
⚫ Calcium Hydroxide
Explanation:
Ans: McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent ,10th edition, Page no 228
Direct pulp capping should be limited to small exposures produced accidentally by trauma or
during cavity preparations or to true pinpoint carious exposures surrounded by sound
dentin. Pulp capping is only considered for teeth with absence of pain apart from discomfort
caused by intake of food.There should be no bleeding in the exposure in the exposure site or
bleeding should be in amount considered normal in the absence of hyperemic or inflamed pulp.
42. There was premature loss of primary molar tooth in a child. Assessment for (1 point)
use of space maintainer was being done. The underlying premolars will erupt
through how many milimeters of overlying bone in a period of 4-6 months?
⚫ 1mm
◯ 2mm
◯ 3mm
◯ 4mm
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, Page 422
Premolars usually require 4-6 months to move through 1mm of bone as measured on bitewing
radiographs.
Use of space maintainer is guided by the following factors
a. Incidence of space loss: almost all cases of early primary molar loss show decrease in arch
length. e.g mesial movement of first permanent molar
b.Time elapsed since loss: Most of the space loss usually takes place during first 6 months of
the primary tooth loss and is more rapid in the maxillary teeth
c.Stage of development or dental age: Significant space loss is most influenced by the stage of
eruption of first permanent molar with the high potential if primary tooth is lost just before or
during eruption of first permanent molar.
d.Amount of closure: Loss of maxillary second primary molar results in greatest amount of
closure i.e up to 8mm space loss in a quadrant.
e.Direction of closure: Maxillary posterior spaces close by mesial bodily movement and
mesiolingual rotation whereas mandibular spaces close by mesial tipping of the first permanent
molars
f.Eruption timing of permanent successor: it is found that teeth normally erupt when 3/4th of
root is developed regardless of chronological age
g.Amount of bone covering the non -erupted tooth
h.Abnormal oral musculature: Strong mentalis activity can cause distal drifting of anterior
segment after premature primary molar tooth loss
i Congenital absence of permanent successor:Before space maintenance ,the presence of

permanent successor must be ensured
43. Oxygen saturation level of pulpal circulation is measured with the help of (1 point)
◯ Laser doppler flowmetry
◯ Dual wavelength spectrometry
⚫ Pulse Oximetry
◯ Electric Pulp Test
Explanation:
Page 223, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent,10th edition
44. Pulp less primary incisor tooth in a 4 years old child (Due to abscess after (1 point)
trauma) can be effectively treated by
⚫ Pulpectomy
◯ Apexification
◯ Extraction followed by space maintainer
◯ Pulpotomy
Explanation:
Page no 230, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent,10th edition
Pulpectomy can be performed on a primary tooth when the coronal pulp tissue and the tissue
entering the pulp canals are vital but show evidence of hyperemia of the root canals show the
evidence of necrosis(suppuration)
45. Supraperiosteal anesthesia (1 point)

◯ Most effective in areas of infection
⚫ Used for pulpal anesthesisa of maxillary teeth
◯ Not effective for primary teeth in mandibular arch
◯ Effective in areas of dense cortical bone
Explanation:
Cohen's ,6th edition,Page no 571
Because of the presence of relatively thin cancellous bone in maxilla and the ability of the
anesthetic solution to diffuse through periosteum.
46. Which of the following does not occur in preschool children (1 point)
◯ Herpetic gingivostomatitis
◯ Dentinogenesis imprefecta
◯ Ectodermal dysplasia
⚫ ANUG
Explanation:
Page no 249, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 10th edition
ANUG is rare among preschool children,occasionally in children from 6-12 years and is most
commonly seen in young adults.
47. ''Paediatric Condition Falsification'' is the other name for (1 point)

◯ Battered Child Syndrome
◯ Emotional abuse
◯ Physical abuse
⚫ Munchausen Syndrome by proxy
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent,10th edition page no 111
Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy
-Most difficult type of child maltreatment /medical child abuse to identify
-A factitious disorder
-The perpetrator(usually mother) fabricates or exaggerates signs and/or symptoms of illness or

induces illness or signs and/or symptoms of illnesses causing unnecessary and harmful or
potentially harmful testing ,procedures and treatments to be performed on the child
-This is different from other forms of child maltreatment because medical community is
unwittingly a part of the abuse.
48. Eruption guidance appliance is the other name for (1 point)

⚫ Distal shoe
◯ Transpalatal
◯ Nance Palatal appliance
◯ Serial extraction
Explanation:
Page no 430, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent,10th edition
-When first permanent molar erupts,if second primary molar is not present as eruptive
guide,considerable loss in arch length can occur.
-It has posterior wire loop extension from the first primary molar that supports a vertical tissue
blade that contacts the erupting permanent molar.Depth of intragingival extension should be 1-
1.5mm beyond the mesial marginal ridge of the erupting molar.
49. Baume's spaces in the deciduous dentition are usual findings present (1 point)
◯ distal to upper canine and mesial to lower canine
⚫ mesial to upper canine and distal to lower canine
◯ Between maxillary first and second primary molar
◯ Between mandibular first and second primary molar
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery's Dentistry for Child and Adolescent,10th edition,Page no 416
Primate spaces are also known as-Simian space/Anthropoid space/Baume space.
-These spaces are utilized during early mesial shift of molars from end on to class I relation
50. The first dental visit of a newborn child should be within (1 point)
◯ 1 month
⚫ 1 year of birth
◯ 2 years
◯ 3 years
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent,10th edition, page no 133
The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommends the first dental visit of a child to be
approximately at the time of eruption of first tooth or at latest by the age of 12 months
51. The teeth usually unaffected by nursing bottle caries are (1 point)
◯ Maxillary molars
◯ Mandibular molars
◯ maxillary incisors
⚫ Mandibular incisors
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent ,10th edition, page no 158
Early carious involvement of maxillary anterior teeth,maxillary and mandibular first primary
molar and sometimes mandibular canines.The mandibular incisors are usually unaffected.
52. Immobilization of the extremities for protective stabilization utilizes which of (1 point)
the following
◯ Papoose board
◯ Pediwrap
⚫ Posey strap
◯ Triangular sheet
Explanation:
Ans: Page no 522, McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent,10th edition
For body
-Papoose board
-Triangular sheet
-Pedi-wrap
-Beanbag dental chair insert
-Safety belt
-Extra assistant
For extremities
-Posey strap
-Velcro strap
-Towel and tape

-Extra assistant
For head
-Forearm body support
-Head positioner
-Plastic bowl
-Extra assistant
53. A child’s subsequent visit to the dentist without any unpleasant experience (1 point)
results in extinction of fear, this falls under which principle of classical
conditioning?
◯ Generalisation
◯ Elimination
◯ Discrimination
⚫ Extinction
Explanation:
Page no 125, Shobha Tandon’s Textbook of Pedodontics, 2nd edition
Principles of classical conditioning

a.Generalisation: A child who has had a painful experience with the doctor in white coat
associates any doctor in white coat with pain.
b. Extinction
c.Discrimination: If a child is exposed to clinical settings which is different to those with the
painful experience, he learns to discriminate between the clinical settings
54. Parrot like repetitive speech can be seen in cases of (1 point)

⚫ Autism
◯ Mental Retardation
◯ Learning disability
◯ Dyslexia
Explanation:
McDonald and Avery's Dentistry for child and Adolescents,8th edition,page 543
Autism is a disturbance of mental and emotional development that causes problem in learning
and communication.It is manifested during the first three years of life.Children have poor muscle
tone,language disturbance,parrot like repetitive speech,extreme loneliness,aggressive or
destructive behaviour to fearful situations.
55. Contouring of the stainless-steel crowns is done at middle 1/3 of the crown to (1 point)
produce
◯ Shelling effect
◯ Drilling effect
⚫ Belling effect
◯ Jamming effect
Explanation:
Shobha Tandon’s Textbook of Pedodontics, 2nd edition,Page 367

56. The most commonly implicated organism in causation of subacute bacterial (1 point)
endocarditis is?
◯ Staphylococcus aureus
◯ Streptococcus pneumoniae
◯ Staphylococuus epidermidis
⚫ Streptococcus viridans
Explanation:
Davidson’s Principles and Practice of Medicine ,22nd edition, Page no 625
-The viridans group of Streptococci (Streptococcus sanguis, Streptococcus mitis) are

commensals in the upper respiratory tract that may enter the bloodstream during chewing or
tooth brushing or at the time of dental treatment. Most common causes of subacute bacterial
endocarditis.
-Staphylococcus aureus: Most common cause of acute endocarditis.
Others causes are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus pyogens
-Staphylococcus epidermidis: Most common cause of post-operative endocarditis
57. Absent 'a' wave in jugular venous pressure can be the result of (1 point)
◯ Tricuspid stenosis
◯ Pulmonary stenosis
⚫ Atrial fibrillation
◯ Pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:
Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine,20th , page no 1668
Prominent ‘a ‘wave- Pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary hypertension
Slow ‘y ‘descent -Pericardial tamponade, Tricuspid stenosis

Waves in jugular venous pressure
Positive waves
‘a’ wave-right atrial presystolic contraction
‘c’ wave -early systolic increase in right atrial pressure as the ventricle pushes the tricuspid valve
to the right atrium
‘v’ wave-atrial filling during ventricular systole
Negative waves
‘x’ wave-seen as the atrial pressure continues to fall
‘y’ wave-fall in right atrial pressure after tricuspid valve opening
58. Which of the following is not a cause of exudative pleural effusion? (1 point)
◯ Pneumonia
◯ Tuberculosis
◯ Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
⚫ Congestive Cardiac Failure
Explanation:
Exudative Pleural Effusion
-Tuberculosis
-Malignant disease
-Rheumatoid disease
-SLE
-Acute Pancreatitis
Transudative Pleural effusion
-Congestive cardiac failure
-Liver failure
-Renal Failure
-Nephrotic syndrome
59. A low serum iron and ferritin with an elevated total iron binding capacity are (1 point)
diagnostic of
⚫ Iron Deficiency anemia
◯ Sickle cell anemia
◯ Herditary spherocytosis
◯ Thalassemia
Explanation:
Page no 1023, Table 24.33, Davidson’s Principles and Practice of Medicine ,22nd edition
60. Chvostek’s sign associated in cases of tetany is (1 point)

◯ Carpopedal spasm on applying pressure thus arresting blood supply to hand
⚫ Tapping at the angle of jaw causing twitching of muscles of face
◯ Stridor caused Pedal spasm that is slightly less frequent
◯ spasm of the glottis
Explanation:
Page no 768, Davidson’s Principles and Practice of Medicine ,22nd edition
Latent tetany may be detected by:
Trousseau’s Sign: Inflation of sphygmomanometer cuff on the upper arm to more than the
systolic blood pressure is followed by carpal spasm within 3 minutes.
Chvostek’s sign: tapping over the branches of facial nerve as they emerge from the parotid gland
produces twitching of the facial muscles
61. Ignoring oral hygiene in orthodontic patient leading to channel (1 point)

decalcification gives a hint of:
◯ Imaginary audience
⚫ Personal fable
◯ Egocentricism
◯ Mood disorders
Explanation:
ANS: B [Proffit 5th Edition 63]
David Elkind, described two manifestations of adolescent egocentrism:
(i)The imaginary audience, that is the adolescent's tendency to believe that others are
preoccupied with his or her appearance and behaviour that he or she often performs as an actor in
front of audience. The imaginary audience, depending on what the adolescent believes, may
influence him to accept or reject treatment and to wear or not wear appliances.
(ii)The personal fable, that is, the adolescent's inner belief that he or she is special/unique,
omnipotent, invulnerable and therefore can take risks. The personal fable may make a patient
ignore threats to health such as decalcification of teeth from poor oral hygiene during
orthodontic therapy. The thought, of course is,"Others may have to worry about that, but I
don't."
62. Which of the following is not a mixed dentition analysis: (1 point)

◯ Huckaba
⚫ Peck and Peck
◯ Nance
◯ Ballard and Wylie modification
Explanation:
ANS: D [Kharbanda 2nd Edition 175]
MIXED DENTITION ANALYSIS:
1. Moyer's
2. Tanaka Johnston
3. Hixon and Oldfather prediction method
4. Nance
5. Ballard and Wylie modification
6. Huckaba
Peck and Peck determined the presence or absence of lower crowding and related to the shape of
lower anterior teeth. Also suggested a range of 88-92% for mandibular incisors and 90-95% for
mandibular lateral incisors. A large ratio suggests need for proximal recontouring.
63. A helix is placed for: (1 point)

◯ Activation
⚫ Increasing the flexibility and range
◯ Esthetics
◯ Retention
Explanation:
ANS: B [Bhalaji 3rd Edition 290]
64. A 12 -year-old boy reported with a Class II and Div I malocclusion with (1 point)
proclined upper incisor and deep bite. Intraoral examination revealed a
bilaterally symmetrical face, convex profile, potentially competent lips with
normal incisor display during rest and smile. Cephalometric finding showed
that the patient had a horizontal growth direction with CVMI stage III,
increased overjet and normal lower incisor inclination. What would be the
appliance of choice for this patient ?
⚫ Twin Block
◯ Activator
◯ Bionator
◯ Supermarionator
Explanation:
ANS: A [Proffit 4th Edition 511]
The two ways to correct this is use of cervical headgear and functional appliance. Functional
appliance is preferred as there are mandibular deficiencies. The twin block is the most accpetable
functional appliance which can also be fixed to the teeth by bonding. Twin block corrects both
deep bite and mandibular horizontal growth pattern. Lips are competent and there is normal
incisal display- indicating maxillary skeleton is normal and there is deficient mandible.
65. To cause minimum enamel damage, optimum speed of debonding with (1 point)
carbide bur is:
◯ 20,000 rpm
◯ 25,000 rpm
⚫ 30,000 rpm
◯ 35,000 rpm
Explanation:
ANS: C
Zachrisson and Bu yu kyilmaz indicated that about 30,000 rpm is optimal speed for resin
removal without enamel damage.
66. In skeletal Class III malocclusion, speech difficulty will be seen in: (1 point)
◯ Labio-lingual sounds
⚫ Labio-dental sounds
◯ Sibilants
◯ Linguo-alveolar sounds
Explanation:
ANS: B [Profit 5th Edition 158]
67. Long face Syndrome consist of all except: (1 point)

◯ Increased facial height
⚫ Anterior deep bite
◯ Posterior cross bite
◯ Increased mandibular plane angle
Explanation:
ANS: B [Gurkeerat Singh 2nd Edition 109]
68. Profile line of Merrifield: (1 point)

◯ Tangent soft tissue pogonion to lower lip
◯ Tangent soft tissue pogonion to most protruding lip
⚫ Tangent soft tissue chin to upper lip
◯ Tangent soft tissue to subnasale
Explanation:
ANS: C [Premkumar S. Textbook of Craniofacial growth 2011year Ed 397]
Merrifield's Z- line: is drawn tangent to the and the more protruding lip usually the upper.
Lower lip should lie on the line on the line or slightly behind it.
69. Binder Syndrome: (1 point)

◯ Scissor bite
◯ Open bite
◯ Class II
⚫ Maxillonasal Dysplasia
Explanation:
ANS: D [Indian J Yogesh C. Bhatt 2008 151-159]
Maxillonasal Dysplasia (Binder's Syndrome) is a congenital malformation characterized by

nasomaxillary hypoplasia due to an underdevelopment of the mid-face skeleton.
70. Which tooth movement should be done carefully in periodontally (1 point)

compromised conditions ?
◯ Tipping
◯ Extrusion
◯ Bodily movement
⚫ Intrusion
Explanation:
ANS: D [Graber 5th Edition 817]
Intrusion has been reported to alter cementoenamel junction and angular crest relationships and
to create only epithelial attachment roots; therefore a periodontally susceptible patient is at
greater risk of future periodontal breakdown.
71. Wagon wheel effect in orthodontics: (1 point)

◯ Torque less as tip added
⚫ Tip less as torque added
◯ Deepening of anterior bite due to heavy forces and increase tip in posterior bracket
◯ Deepening of anterior bite due to heavy forces and increasee tip in anterior bracket
Explanation:
ANS: B [Kharbanda 2009yr 417]
When buccal crown torque is incorporated in the wire, the roots of anterior teeth tend to
converge towards centrelike spokes of wheel. It has been often called Wagon wheel effect.
In a standard edgewise appliance system, Tweed suggested that a long V-bend should be
incorporated at mid incisorpoint to prevent the mesial tipping of the roots during retraction of
anterior segment. Following final space closure, required torque is attained by incorporation of
active root torque in the anterior segment. Incorporation of palatal root/ buccal crown torque
during retraction causes loss of tip; it is called Wagon wheel effect.
72. Average rate of intraoral molar distalization: (1 point)

⚫ 0.9 mm/month
◯ 0.9 mm/week
◯ 15 mm/month
◯ 15mm/week
Explanation:
ANS: A [Kharbanda 1st Edition 454]
Rate of distalization: Maxillary molar is distalized at the rate of 0.75-1 mm/month on an

average.
73. Maxillary canine position buccal or palatal is best confirmed by: (1 point)
◯ Occlusal + OPG
◯ Occlusal + IOPA
⚫ 2 IOPA via tube shift
◯ Occlusal
Explanation:
ANS: C [Kharbanda 1st Edition 626]
To locate the buccolingual position of an impacted tooth, it is recommended to take two

consecutive IOPA X-rays with Clark's "Tube shift method" using a long cone tube.
74. All increase anchorage except: (1 point)

◯ TAD
◯ Osteoprotegerin (OPG)
◯ Bisphosphonates
⚫ RANKL
Explanation:
ANS: D [Li Y, Tang L Medical Hypotheses 2009 178]
Elevating the levels of RANKL to be directly involved in bone resorption.
Osteoprotegerin(OPG) found to be a key factor in the inhibition of osteoclast differentiation and

activation and involved in mechano-modulation of bone modeling.
The duration of orthodontic treatment is increased for patients under Bisphosphonates

therapy as they interfere with the osteoclastic resorption.
TAD is a device that is temporarily fixed to the bone for the purpose of enhancing orthodontic
anchorage.
75. Canine erupts palatally in case of: (1 point)

◯ Mild space discrepancy
◯ Moderate space discrepancy
◯ Severe space discrepancy
⚫ Lateral incisors are anomalous
Explanation:
ANS: D [Orthodontic treatment of Impacted teeth, Adrian Becker 1st Edition 120]
Maxillary canine is blocked out buccally due to arch size-tooth material discrepancy due to fact
that it has long path of eruption and late sequence of eruption.
Palatal displacement of canines arises due to multitude of factors such as anomalous lateral
incisor, infraoccluded primary second molar.
76. The stability of complete denture will be enhanced when (1 point)

◯ The level of occlusal plane is above the dorsum of the tongue.
⚫ The tongue rest on the occlusal plane.
◯ The lingual contour of tongue is concave.
◯ The posterior teeth on the denture have a broad buccolingual width.
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Winkler's 2nd Ed page no 50
77. The anterior mandibular muscles of facial expression is generally (1 point)

……………………….
⚫ Tightened
◯ Loosened
◯ Atrophied
◯ Hypertrophied
Explanation:
Ans: A Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl Misch 3rd ed Page no 15
( The anterior muscles are tightened to hold and prevent the mandibular prosthesis from sliding
forward and the tongue of denture wearers is often flattened in the posterior areas to hold the
denture in position.)
78. The incisive papilla provides the guide for the anterio-posterior placement of (1 point)
maxillary anterior denture teeth. The labial surface of natural teeth are
generally 8 to 10 mm anterior to this structure
⚫ Both statements are true
◯ The first statement is true and second statement is false
◯ The first statement is false and the second statement is true
◯ Both statements are false
Explanation:
Ans A ref: Mosbys Review of NBDE Part II
(Hint: The incisive papilla provides a guide for the anterior-posterior position of the maxillary
anterior teeth. The labial surfaces of the central incisors are usually 8 to 10 mm in front of the
papilla. This distance varies depending of the amount of resorption of the residual ridge, the size
of the teeth, and the labiolingual thickness of the alveolar process.)
79. For conventional tooth supported fixed partial denture, abutment alignment (1 point)
of more than is not recommended.
◯ 20 degrees
⚫ 25 degrees
◯ 35 degrees
◯ 15 degrees
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. H. Shillingburg 4th edition Page no 83
80. During the fabrication of wax pattern, the proximal contacts are located (1 point)
slightly to the facial aspect of the middle of the posterior teeth, except for
contacts between:
⚫ Maxillary first and second molars
◯ Maxillary second premolar and first molar
◯ Mandibular first and second molar
◯ Mandibular second premolar and first molar
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 345
The contact between maxillary first and second molar is centered faciolingually as a result the
lingual embrasures are slightly larger than the facial embrasures. Contacts that are too narrow
allows fibrous foods to wedge between the teeth and contacts that are excessively wide
faciolingually do not adequately deflect food from gingival tissue.
The height of contour on the facial surface of posterior teeth usually occurs in cervical third;
middle third on the lingual surface of premolars and molars.
81. For the 5 units pier abutment restoration (1 point)
◯ The keyway of the connector should be placed in the mesial contour of pier abutment and
the key placed on distal side of mesial pontic.
◯ The keyway should be placed within the distal contour of pier abutment and key placed
on the mesial side of distal pontic.
⚫ The keyway should be placed within the distal contour of mesial abutment and key
placed on the mesial side of proximal pontic.
◯ The key way should be placed within the distal contour of distal pontic and key placed
on mesial side of distal pontic.
Explanation:
Ans C Ref H. Shillingburg 3rd edition page no 96
82. The twin techniques continue to offer dentists and patients a new standard (1 point)
for prosthodontic therapy. Twin Technique is
⚫ Traditional complete denture with natural teeth or implant abutments
◯ Single overdenture denture with implants as abutments
◯ Upper complete denture and lower implant retained overdenture
◯ Upper complete denture and lower teeth retained overdenture
Explanation:
Ans A Zarb 13th ed page no 102
83. Tissue contact resembles a letter in modified ridge lap pontic (1 point)
◯I
◯L
⚫T
◯U
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Rosenstiel 5th ed page no 682

84. Gingetage is used for (1 point)
◯ Reducing the gingival margin
◯ Supragingival placement of margin
⚫ Subgingival placement of margin
◯ Reduce bleeding from sulcus during impression making
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. H.Shillingburg 4th edition: 280
The other name of rotary curettage is gingetage it is a troughing technique, the purpose of which
is to produce limited removal of epithelial tissue in the sulcus.
85. In a removable partial denture, health of gingival tissue is ensured by (1 point)

◯ Keeping minimum of 6 mm distance for Maxillary major connector
◯ Keeping a minimum of 4 mm distance for Mandibular major connector
⚫ Both a and b
◯ Minor connector joining the major connector at less than 90 degrees
Explanation:
Ans C Ref. Stewart Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics,4th edition, page no 22
86. The major concern of RPD associated with a diabetic patient is (1 point)
◯ Selection of artificial teeth
⚫ Unfavourable response of supporting tissue
◯ Problems in impression procedures
◯ Nothing of special concern in diabetic patients
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics,4th edition, Page no 121,
87. The position of the clasp arm on the abutment is dependent upon (1 point)
⚫ Horizontal undercut and height of contour of an abutment
◯ Vertical undercut and height of contour of an abutment
◯ Doesn’t depends upon undercuts but only on the height of contour
◯ Doesn’t depends on the height of contour but only on the undercuts present
Explanation:
Ans A MacCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 12th edition, Page no 140
88. When it is not possible to make angle between rest and minor connector less (1 point)
than 90 degrees
◯ Give a restless denture
⚫ Secondary rest on opposite side
◯ Either a or b
◯ Embrasure hook
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. MacCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 12th edition 13th Page no
59
89. Functional impression technique can be applied in (1 point)

⚫ Uniformly firm ridge
◯ All variety of ridges
◯ Knife edge ridge
◯ Displaceable alveolar ridge
Explanation:
Ans A Ref. MacCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 12th edition, page no 241
90. Which is the most commonly used material for maxillo-facial reconstruction? (1 point)
◯ Polyurethane elastomers
◯ HTV-Silicone
◯ Chlorinated polyurethane
⚫ Foaming silicone
Explanation:
Ans: D (ref: Nallaswamy 1st ed, page 715)
91. The most compromising position of an implant is (1 point)

⚫ Too facial
◯ Too lingual
◯ Too mesial
◯ Too distal
Explanation:
Ans A Ref Ref. Contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl E. Misch 3rd ed Page no 189
When implant is placed too facial the resultant restoration is compromised in esthetics,
phonetics, lip position and function. The lingually positioned implant is more easier to correct in
final restoration as forces are directed more longitudinally to the implant body and the thicker
lingual cortical plate initial stability and the denser bone for improved force transfer to the
implant bone interface. The implant placed to more far mesial or far distal is of less consequence
if the lip position doesnot expose the cervical third of the restoration
92. 90 % of masticatory efficiency is generated in (1 point)

◯ Anterior to the distal half of mandibular second molar
◯ Anterior to mesial half of mandibular second molar
◯ Anterior to distal half of mandibular first molar
⚫ Anterior to mesial half of mandibular first molar
Explanation:
Ans D Ref Ref. contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl Misch 3rd ed Page no 196
93. Patients with implant dental bridges can perceive in the difference in (1 point)
◯ 20 micrometer
⚫ 50 micrometer
◯ 100 micrometer
◯ 150 micrometer
Explanation:
Ans B Ref. contemporary Implant Dentistry Carl Misch 3rd ed Page no 15
Proprioception is the awareness of the awareness of place. The patient with natural teeth can
perceive a difference of 20 micrometer and a patient with complete denture can perceive 100
micrometer.
The patient's function when wearing a denture may be reduced to 60 % from that formerly
experienced with natural dentition
94. When the lingual artery is injured during implant placement in the lower (1 point)
anterior
area, immediate management includes:

⚫ Pulling the tongue outside patient mouth
◯ Finger pressure on the lingual side
◯ Clamp the artery and ligate it
◯ Put hemostatic agent on the lingual flap
Explanation:
Ans A
( Pulling out the tongue will create the pressure on the injured site and the artery which will lead
to the haemostas
95. During implant placement in the posterior maxillary area, the implant may (1 point)
accidentally penetrate the maxillary sinus within 2 to 3 mm. The healing
tissue formation around the implant could be either soft tissue formation or
an infection around the apex of the implant with:
◯ Sinus membrane thickening
⚫ Bone formation from bone edge and covering the implant apex
◯ Periosteum will grow and cover the apex
◯ Polyp tissue formation
Explanation:
Ans B
96. Vapourization of monomer causing porous defect is called (1 point)

◯ Contraction porosity
⚫ Internal porosity
◯ Granular porosity
◯ External porosity
Explanation:
Ans B Ref Philips dental Materials 12th ed page no 487
Because resin is an extremely poor thermal conductor, the heat generated in a thick segment of
resin cannot be dissipated. When heating is poorly controlled, the peak temperature of this resin
can rise well above the boiling point of monomer (100.8 °C). This causes boiling of unreacted
monomer and produces porosity within the processed denture base.
97. The excess resin that will flow out of the mould after packing is called (1 point)
◯ Flush
◯ Flask
⚫ Flash
◯ Flusk
Explanation:
Ans C Ref Philips dental Materials 12th ed page no 479
98. Which of the following is the correct glass transition temperature of (1 point)
Impression compound?
◯ 43.5 degree C
⚫ 39 degree C
◯ 65 degree C
◯ 41.5 degree C
Explanation:
Ans B Ref Basic dental Materials 3rd edition Page no 163
99. Crystallization from starting nuclei during solidification of a metal does not (1 point)
occur in a regular fashion of atomic plane by atomic plane; instead, growth is
likely to be random and imperfect. When lattice positions have missing
atoms, displaced atoms or extra atoms, they are called
⚫ Point defects
◯ Line defects
◯ Vacancy
◯ Interstitial atom
Explanation:
Ans A Ref Philips dental Materials 12th ed page no 398

100. The direct technique for producing wax inlay patterns within prepared (1 point)
te eth is rarely used because
◯ It is technique sensitive
⚫ Wax sensitivity
◯ Poor patient acceptance
◯ Long chairside time
Explanation:
Ans B Ref Philips dental Materials 12th ed page no 195
Wax is sensitive to change in temperature. Because the thermal expansion coefficient of wax is
extremely high compared with the values for other dental materials, a wax pattern made in the
mouth (direct technique) will shrink appreciably as it is cooled to room temperature.
101. Di sulfiram like reaction occurs with all of the following except (1 point)
◯ Metronidazole
◯ Chlorpropamide
⚫ Clindamycin
◯ Nitrogycerin
Explanation:
Ans C
The disulfiram reaction is a very uncomfortable reaction characterized by severe flushing, and
may be accompanied by tachycardia and hypotension. These effects are caused by accumulation
of acetaldehyde, a major but toxic metabolite of alcohol formed by the enzyme alcohol
dehydrogenase
• Sulfonylureas: chlorpropamide, tolbutamide, glyburide

• Cardiovascular medications: Isosorbide dinitrate, nitroglycerin
• Cephalosporins
102. Which of the following anaesthetic agent is known as truth serum ? (1 point)
⚫ Thiopentone Sodium
◯ Propofol
◯ Ketamine
◯ Fentanyl
Explanation:
Ans A
"Truth serum" is a colloquial name for any of a range of psychoactive drugs used in an effort to
obtain information from subjects who are unable or unwilling to provide it otherwise. These
include ethanol, scopolamine, midazolam, flunitrazepam, sodium thiopental, and amobarbital.
Barbiturates is the drug of choice used for psychoanalysis of criminals.
103. Which of the following antithyroid drug is preferred during pregnancy? (1 point)
◯ Methimazole
◯ Carbimazole
◯ Thiocynates
⚫ Propylthiouracil
Explanation:
Ans D
Propylthiouracil is highly plasma protein bound hence less transferred across placenta & milk as
compared to carbimazole & methimazole. i.e. propylthiouracil is preferred during pregnancy &
lactation to prevent foetal hypothyroidism.
104. A 21 years old female is brought to the emergency department with the (1 point)
su spicion of paracetamol poisoning due to suicidal overdose. The antidote
fo r paracetamol overdose is
◯ Physostigmine
⚫ Acetylcysteine
◯ Calcium chloride
◯ Vitamin K
Explanation:
Ans B
Physostigmine: Anticholinergics
Acetylcysteine: Acetaminophen
Calcium chloride: Calcium channel blockers
Vitamin K: Warfarin
105. Am ong the first line drugs used for the treatment of Tuberculosis, least (1 point)
hepatotoxic is
◯ Isoniazid
◯ Pyrizinamide
⚫ Rifampicin
◯ Streptomycin
Explanation:
Ans C
Except rifampicin all of the above drugs are hepatotoxic, Isoniazid and pyrizinamide are more
potent but the most hepatotoxic is Pyrizinamide.
106. Gu bernacular canal guides the eruption of (1 point)

◯ All primary tooth
◯ All permanent teeth
⚫ All permanent except molars
◯ All permanent except premolars
Explanation:
Ans C
107. Wh ich of the following clacified tissue have minimum lag phase between (1 point)
matrix formation and mineralization?
◯ Dentin
⚫ Enamel
◯ Cementum
◯ Bone
Explanation:
Ans B
108. Which of the following is true of myoepithelial cell except : (1 point)

◯ Stellate or spider like with flattened nucleus, scanty perinuclear cytoplasm and long
branching process
◯ Embrace the intercalated duct cells and secretory cell
◯ One derived from epithelium and contain cytokeratin filament and contractile actin
filament and myoxin filament
⚫ Innervated by sympathetic nerve
Explanation:
Ans D
Myoepithelial cells are innervated through parasymphathetic nerves.
109. The area with thickest cortical bone? (1 point)

◯ Buccal plate of upper molar
◯ Buccal plate of mandibular Canine
⚫ Buccal plate of lower molar
◯ Facial of mandibular incisors
Explanation:
Ans C
110. The last primary tooth to be replaced by permanent tooth is : (1 point)

⚫ Maxillary Canine
◯ Maxillary second molar
◯ Mandibular canine
◯ Mandibular Second molar
Explanation:
Ans A
111. According to the Nuremberg code, which of the following is not one of the (1 point)
four attribute of consent, without which the consent cannot be considered as
valid?
◯ Legally competent
◯ Voluntary
◯ Comprehending
⚫ Written and well documented
Explanation:
Ref: Soben peter 3rd ed, page no 666
The basic four attribute are legally competent, voluntary, comprehending and informed.
112. Drugs that should not be combined to produce desired effect (1 point)
◯ Amoxicillin-clavulinic acid
◯ Amoxicillin-metronidazole
⚫ Amoxicillin-Tetracycline
◯ Metronidazole-ciprofloxacin
Explanation:
• Antibiotics that are bacteriostatic (e.g., tetracycline) generally require rapidly dividing
microorganisms to be effective. They do not function well if a bactericidal antibiotic
(e.g., amoxicillin) is given concurrently.
• When both types of drugs are required, they are best given serially, not in combination.
• The most effective combination is metronidazole conjunction with amoxicillin or
Augmentin on a daily basis for 1 to 2 weeks.
113. Drug best to avoid in an adult female taking oral contraceptive pills is (1 point)
◯ Ampicillin
◯ Carbamazepine
◯ Tetracycline
⚫ All should be avoided
Explanation:
Pregnancies have been reported among OC users taking ampicillin and tetracycline, which are
suspected to interfere with the enterohepatic recirculation of steroids or enzyme induction.
Phenoxymethylpenicillin should also be used with caution. Breakthrough bleeding and
pregnancy have been associated with chlordiazepoxide. Antihistamines and carbamazepine may
also reduce OC effectiveness.
114. According to WHO, surgical mask (1 point)

⚫ should always be worn with colored-side-out
◯ should always be worn with white-side-out
◯ may be worn with any side out as long as it has a standard filter
◯ Colored site out when you are sick and white side out when you don't want to be sick
Explanation:
reference site: USA Today
It has to be the blue color on the outside because it is waterproof and then white on the inside
because it is absorbent. The earlier concept as in option D is not valid these days.
115. Untrue about cidex used in dentistry (1 point)

⚫ 4 % aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde
◯ It is a high level disinfectant
◯ May act as sporicidal when used for 4 hours
◯ Should be changed in every two weeks
Explanation:
Cidex is a 2.4 % aqueous solution of gluteraldehyde.
116. A 31-year-old male is seen in the emergency room and undergoes a quick (1 point)
neurological evaluation following head trauma. He is unable to open his
eyes, has no motor movement, and makes no verbal sounds. What is his
Gl asgow coma scale (GCS) score?
◯ 0
⚫ 3
◯ 5
◯ 8
Explanation:
The least possible GCS score is 3.
117. Emergency kit content in a dental clinic should be checked (1 point)

◯ daily
◯ Weekly
⚫ Monthly
◯ Every three months
Explanation:
ref: MacDonald and Avery, 9th ed, page 640
118. The method of prepayment wherein the patient pays a percent of total cost (1 point)
◯ Loan
◯ Co-insurance
⚫ Reasonable fee
◯ Fee for service
Explanation:
ref: Soben peter, 5th ed, page 504
119. If the patient is not currently taking steroids but has received at least 20 mg (1 point)
of hydrocortisone (cortisol or equivalent) for more than 2 weeks within past
ye ar, the clinician can cease administration of supplemental steroids,
◯ On the day after surgery
◯ On the day of surgery
⚫ 6 days after surgery in a tapering form
◯ Supplemental steroids is not required for such patients
Explanation:
Ref: Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial surgery, 5th ed, page no 16
If the patient is not currently taking steroids but has received at least 20 mg of hydrocortisone
(cortisol or equivalent) for more than 2 weeks within past year,
1. Use an anxiety-reduction protocol.
2. Monitor pulse and blood pressure before, during, and after surgery.
3.Instruct the patient to take 60 mg of hydrocortisone (or equivalent) the day before and the
morning of surgery (or the dentist should administer 60 mg of hydrocortisone or equivalent
intramuscularly or intravenously before complex surgery).
4.On the first 2 postsurgical days, the dose should be dropped to 40 mg and dropped to 20 mg
for 3 days thereafter. The clinician can cease administration of supplemental steroids 6 days after
surgery.
120. In an anaphylaxis emergency, if laryngospasm is not quickly relieved with (1 point)

epinephrine one should consider,
◯ Nasal intubation
◯ Oral intubation
◯ Emergency tracheostomy
⚫ Cricothyrotomy
Explanation:
Ref: Contemporary 5th ed, page no. 25
For anaphylaxis,
• Stop administration of all drugs.

• Position patient supine on back board or on floor and have someone summon assistance.
• Administer epinephrine!
• Initiate basic life support and monitor vital signs.
• Consider cricothyrotomy if trained to perform and if laryngospasm is not quickly relieved
with epinephrine.
• Provide IV access.
• Give oxygen at 6 L/min.
• Administer antihistamine IV or IM.
• Prepare for transport.
121. A peptide bond: (1 point)

⚫ has a partial double-bond character.
◯ is ionized at physiologic pH.
◯ is cleaved by agents that denature proteins, such as organic solvents and high
concentrations of urea
◯ is stable to heating in strong acids.
Explanation:
Ref: Lippincot 5th ed page no 24
The peptide bond has a partial double-bond character. Unlike its components—the α-amino and
α-carboxyl groups—the –NH and –C=O of the peptide bond do not accept or give off protons.
The peptide bond is not cleaved by organic solvents or urea, but is labile to strong acids. It is
usually in the trans-configuration
122. A 67-year-old man presented to the emergency department with a 1 week (1 point)
history of angina and shortness of breath. He complained that his face and
extremities had a “blue color.” His medical history included chronic
an stable gina treated with isosorbide dinitrate and nitroglycerin. Blood
fo obtained
li r analysis was chocolate-colored. Which one of the following is the most
kely diagnosis?
◯ Sickle cell anemia
◯ Carboxyhemoglobinemia
⚫ Methemoglobinemia.
◯ β-Thalassemia
Explanation:
Oxidation of the heme component of hemoglobin to the ferric (Fe3+) state forms
methemoglobin. This may be caused by the action of certain drugs, such as nitrates. The
methemoglobinemias are characterized by chocolate cyanosis (a brownish-blue coloration of the
skin and mucous membranes), and chocolate-colored blood as a result of the dark-colored
methemoglobin. Symptoms are related to tissue hypoxia, and include anxiety, headache,
dyspnea. In rare cases, coma and death can occur.
123. In electron Transport chain, Electron transport is coupled to the (1 point)

phosphorylation of ADP by the transport (“pumping”) of protons (H+)
across the inner mitochondrial membrane from the matrix to the
intermembrane space at various Complexes to create a pH and electrical
gradient. This energy differences help in ATP synthesis.
Which of the following complex does not act as proton pump?

◯ Complex I
⚫ Complex II
◯ Complex III
◯ Complex IV
Explanation:
Ref: Lippincot 5th ed page no 77/78
124. Bacterial DNA gyrase is a unique target of a group of anti-microbial agents (1 point)
called quinolones, (e.g. ciprofloxacin). The enzyme DNA Gyrase
◯ Helps in unwinding the DNA during replication
◯ has the unusual property of being able to introduce negative supercoils into relaxed
circular DNA using energy from the hydrolysis of ATP
◯ Is a Type II topoisomerase
⚫ All of the above
Explanation:
DNA gyrase , a Type II topoisomerase found in bacteria and plants, has the unusual property of
being able to introduce negative supercoils into relaxed circular DNA using energy from the
hydrolysis of ATP. This facilitates the future replication of DNA because the negative supercoils
neutralize the positive supercoils introduced during opening of the double helix. It also aids in
the transient strand separation required during transcription.
125. A 5 year old male child is brought to your clinic with severe injury to the (1 point)
lower lip. The mother gives the history of self-mutilating habits like finger
and lip biting habit of the child.
Which is the biochemistry of this disease?

◯ Disorder in collagen metabolism
⚫ Disorder in nucleotide metabolism
◯ Disorder in porphyrin metabolism
◯ Disorder in Folic acid metabolism
Explanation:
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome:
This syndrome is a rare, X-linked, recessive disorder associated with a virtually complete
deficiency of HGPRT . This deficiency results in an inability to salvage hypo xanthine or
guanine, from which excessive amounts of uric acid, the end product of purine degradation, are
produced . The combination of decreased purine reutilization and increased purine synthesis
results in increased degradation of purines and the production of large amounts of uric acid,
making Lesch-Nyhan a heritable cause of hyperuricemia.
In patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the hyperuricemia frequently results in the formation of
uric acid stones in the kidneys (urolithiasis) and the deposition of urate crystals in the joints
(gouty arthritis) and soft tissues. In addition, the syndrome is characterized by motor
dysfunction, cognitive deficits, and behavioral disturbances that include self-mutilation (biting of
lips and fingers).
126. ‘Bisected pearls’ or ‘mercury drops’ appearance is the colony characteristic (1 point)
of
◯ Vibrio cholarae
◯ M. leprae
◯ Clostridium tetani
⚫ Bordetella pertusis
Explanation:
Page 933, Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology,9th Edition
Culture characteristics can be described as
-Loose clumps with clear spaces giving ‘thumb print’ appearance.
-Small, dome shaped, opaque, viscid, greyish white, glistening resembling ‘bisected pearls’ or
‘mercury drops’
-Aluminium paint appearance
127. 'Mitsuda Reaction’ as a part of studying delayed hypersensitivity is a part of (1 point)

⚫ Lepromin test
◯ Tuberculin test
◯ Mantoux test
◯ Widal test
Explanation:
Page no 367, Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology,9th Edition
Lepromin test
-First described by Mitsuda in 1919
-Early reaction is the early reaction of Fernandez which consists of erythema and induration
developing in 24-48 hours
-Late reaction is the Mitsuda Reaction starting 1-2 weeks and reaching the peak in 4 weeks.
Consisting of indurated skin nodule which may later ulcerate, histological infiltration of
lymphocytes, epithelioid cells and giant cells
128. Bullet shaped virus is (1 point)

◯ Pox virus
◯ Tobaccomosaic
◯ Ebola virus
⚫ Rabies virus
Explanation:
Page no 539 Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology,9th Edition
Pox virus-Brick shaped

Tobacco mosaic virus-Rod shaped
129. Most immunogenic antigen in salmonella typhi is (1 point)

◯ o antigen
⚫ H antigen
◯ Vi antigen
◯ somatic antigen
Explanation:
Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology,9th Edition, Page no 292
Salmonella possesses 3 types of antigens
-Flagellar antigen H
-Somatic antigen O
-Surface antigen Vi
130. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by (1 point)

⚫ IgM-FTA_ABS
◯ IgG-FTA-ABS
◯ VDRL
◯ TPI
Explanation:
Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology,9th Edition, Page no 376
Diagnosis of congenital syphilis:

As IgM does not cross placenta,its presence in neonatal serum confirms congenital syphilis and
helps differentiate it from seropositivity due to passively transferred maternal antibody
(syphilotoxemia).
131. Skull of a male differs from that of a female by all of the following except (1 point)
◯ Small frontal and parietal eminence
◯ Square shaped orbits
⚫ Muscular lines over occiput less marked
◯ Bigger size comparatively
Explanation:
Traits of skull Male Female

Size /architecture Big/Rugged Small/smooth
Orbit squared,low,rounded margins rounded,high,sharp margins
Zygomatic bone More pronounced Less pronounced
Frontal and parietal eminence Small Large
Nasal aperture High,thin ,sharp margins Lower,wide round margins
Muscle lines marked (Page no
Occipital Muscle lines not marked
725, Shafer's ,8th edition)
132. Among the secondary changes in tooth, the most useful one for age (1 point)
determination
◯ Attrition
◯ Secondary dentin deposition
◯ Root resorption
⚫ Root dentin transparency
Explanation:
Page no 729, Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology,8th edition

Gosta Gustafson, in 1950 developed a method for age estimation based on morphological and
histological changes of the teeth.
1.Amount of occlusal attrition(A)
2.Coronal secondary dentin deposition(S)
3. Loss of periodontal attachment(P)
4.Cementum apposition at the root apex(C)
5.Root resorption at the apex(R)
6.Dentin translucency(T)
Age estimation was done using 11.43+4.56X
133. ‘Sulci Labiorum Rubrorum’ is the name given to wrinkles and groves on the (1 point)
lips by
◯ Schour and Massler
◯ Gustaffson
◯ Lysell
⚫ Tsuchihashi
Explanation:
134. Ac cording to Webster’s classification of bitemarks on foodstuffs, bite mark (1 point)

on fruits such as apples would be
◯ Type I
⚫ Type II
◯ Type III
◯ Type IV
Explanation:
Type I-Food item fractures readily with limited tooth penetration, e.g. hard chocolates
Type II-fracture with considerable food penetration, e.g. apple and other firm fruits
Type III-Complete or near complete penetration of food with slide marks ,e.g. cheese
135. According to Demirjian’s method, completion of tooth calcification falls (1 point)

under
◯ Stage o
◯ Stage 5
◯ Stage 8
⚫ Stage 9
Explanation:
Demirjian's Method
Stage 0-Absence of crypt
Stage 1-Presence of crypt
Stage 2-Initial calcification

Stage 3-1/3 crown completed
Stage 4-2/3 crown completed
Stage 5-Crown almost completed
Stage 6-Crown completed
Stage 7-1/3 root completed
Stage 8-2/3 root completed

Stage 9-Root completed,apex open
Stage 10-Closed apical foramen
136. Ne umann’s tumor is also known as- (1 point)

◯ Pemphigus vegetans
◯ Myxoid liposarcoma
⚫ Congenital epulis of the newborn
◯ Bowen's disease
Explanation:
[Shafer’s 7th ed 194]
137. The type of circulating immunoglobulin directed against the cell surface of (1 point)
keratinocytes in pemphigus is-
◯ IgA
◯ IgE
⚫ IgG
◯ IgM
Explanation:
[Shafer’s 7th ed 824/826]
Circulating immunoglobulin is predominantly IgG but sometimes in combination with C3, IgA
and IgM also demonstrated in direct immunofluorescence.
138. If specimen must be preserved for several weeks, the preferred technique is- (1 point)
⚫ Fixation by infiltration and embedding with resin
◯ Fixation with formaldehyde
◯ 10% neutral buffered formalin fixation
◯ Fixation with 30% formalin
Explanation:
If specimen must be preserved for several weeks, the best way is to infiltrate and embed them in
resin. In this case, there is no time limit.
139. A newly born child of age 1 weeks presents with serious feeding problems. (1 point)
On examination, multiple oral ulceration and extremely fragile bullae are
present. What is your provisional diagnosis?
◯ Bullous pemphigoid
⚫ Epidermolysis bullosa
◯ Toxic epidermal necrolysis
◯ Herpetic gingivostomatitis
Explanation:
Junctional epidermolysis bullosa- onset at birth, bullae with extreme fragility, produces serious
feeding problems, death within 3 months of age.
140. Koplik’s spots are pathognomonic of which of the following disease? (1 point)
⚫ Rubeola
◯ Rubella
◯ Variola
◯ Varicella
Explanation:
[Shafer’s 7th ed 347/348]
Measles is also known as Rubeola. Rubella is German measles where Koplik’s spots do not
occur. Similarly, small pox = variola, chiken pox = varicella.
141. Bay cyst is- (1 point)
◯ True cyst
◯ Islands of secreatory epithelium
⚫ Developed from odontogenic rests of Malassez
◯ None of the above
Explanation:
142. A 43 years old female presents with swelling in the mucolabial fold of (1 point)
maxilla, near to ala of nose since 4 months. OPG shows no
ab any normality. What is your provisional diagnosis?
◯ Gingival cyst of newborn
⚫ Nasolabial cyst
◯ Nasopalatine duct cyst
◯ Globulomaxillary cyst
Explanation:
Nasolabial cyst are not primarily central lesions and therefore may not be visible on the
radiograph.
Nasopalatine duct cyst is the most common non odontogenic cyst .
143. Hibernoma is- (1 point)

⚫ A benign neoplasm of brown fat
◯ A benign neoplasm of yellow fat
◯ Not a true neoplasm but rather continuation of the normal process of fetal fat
development carried into postnatal life.
◯ Also known as verruciform xanthoma
Explanation:
Option C: Lipoblastoma
144. A 46 years old female presents with bilateral swelling over the cheek below (1 point)
th e ears since a week. The swelling was slowly evolving, undulating and
recurrent. Sialography shows ‘leafless tree’ pattern. What is your
diagnosis?
◯ Sjogren’s syndrome
◯ Mikuliz’s disease
⚫ Sialodenosis
◯ Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:
Sjogren’s syndrome: Branchless fruit laden tree/ Cherry blossom appearence
145. Fu ngal infection especially common in patient with diabetic ketoacidosis? (1 point)
◯ Candidiasis
◯ Geotrichosis
⚫ Mucormycosis
◯ Sporotrichosis
Explanation:
146. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1 point)

◯ Hematoxilin is essentially a nuclear stain.
◯ Eosin is commonly used for as a cytoplasmic stain.
⚫ Sudan black is used for demonstration of amyloid.
◯ PAS stain is used for demonstration of glycogen and mucopolysaccharides
Explanation:
[Pathology Practical Book- Harsh Mohan 3rd ed 15/16]
Sudan black is used for demonstration of fat. Congo red is used for demonstration of amyloid.
147. Which of the following is not a cause of metastatic calcification? (1 point)

◯ Multiple myeloma
◯ Brown tumor
◯ Renal failure
⚫ Heart failure
Explanation:
[Robin’s Basic Pathology 9th ed 26]
Metastatic calcification: deposition of calcium in normal tissues, caused by hypercalcemia.

Multiple myeloma and brown tumor- increased bone catabolism, renal failure- phosphate
retention leads to secondary hyperparathyroidism.
148. In which of the following shock, patient present with warm skin? (1 point)
◯ Neurogenic shock
⚫ Septic shock
◯ Cardiogenic shock
◯ Hypovolemic shock
Explanation:
[Robin’s Basic Pathology 9th ed 96/97]
Septic shock can initially cause cutaneous vasodilation, so the patient may present with warm,
flushed skin.
149. Barrett esophagus is a type of: (1 point)
◯ Hyperplasia
⚫ Metaplasia
◯ Dysplasia
◯ Anaplasia
Explanation:
Barrett esophagus is a complication of chronic GERD that is characterized by intestinal

metaplasia within the esophageal squamous mucosa.
150. In ischemic necrosis of bone, osteoclasts resorb some of the necrotic bony (1 point)
tr abeculae; any dead bone fragments that remain act as scaffolding for new
bone formation, a process called:
◯ Sequestrum formation
◯ Involucrum substitution
⚫ Creeping substitution
◯ Ostioconduction
Explanation:
This mechanism is employed in bone graft procedure.
151. As an emergency measure in tension pneumothorax, immediate (1 point)

decompression with insertion of the needle into the pleural space should be
done in
◯ Mid-sternal line five finger breadths left/right from the sternum
◯ Fifth inter-costal space, 5 cm from sternum
⚫ Mid-clavicular line two finger breadths below the clavicle
◯ Mid-clavicular line five finger breadths below the clavicle
Explanation:
[Bailey & Love 25th ed 290]
152. Wh ich of the biopsy technique is indicated for papilloma? (1 point)

◯ FNAB
⚫ Excisional biopsy
◯ Incisional biopsy
◯ Punch biopsy
Explanation:
[Textbook of ENT- PL Dhingra 6th ed 223]
Most of the papilloma are less than 1 cm in size, so treatment of choice is excisional biopsy.
153. Which treatment modality is preferred when multiple tumours are present (1 point)
in oral cavity?
⚫ Surgery
◯ Radiotherapy
◯ Brachytherapy
◯ Chemotherapy
Explanation:
Surgery is preferred when multiple tumours are present or there is extensive pre-malignant
change of the oropharyngeal mucosa. Other modalities are unsatisfactory due to severe
morbidity.
154. Wh ich of the following is primary reconstructive options in tumour (1 point)
in volving dentate mandible?
◯ Fibula
◯ Tibia
⚫ Iliac crest
◯ Ribs
Explanation:
Fibula is primary reconstructive options for edentulous mandible and alternative options for
dentate mandible.
155. Group of lymph node removed during modified radical neck dissection- (1 point)
◯ Group I- Group II
◯ Group I- Group III
◯ Group I- Group IV
⚫ Group I- Group V
Explanation:
Selective supraomohyoid neck dissection: Group I- Group III

Selective extended supraomohyoid neck dissection: Group I- Group IV
Radical full neck dissection: Group I- Group V
Modified radical neck dissection: Group I- Group V with preservation of IJV, accessory nerve
and/or sternocleidomastoid muscle.
156. One ampule of naloxane contains: (1 point)

◯ 0.02 mg
◯ 0.2 mg
◯ 0.04 mg
⚫ 0.4 mg
Explanation:
[Medical Emergencies in Dental Office, Malamed 6th ed 377]
1 ampule= 0.4 mg (adult)
1 ampule= 0.02 mg (children)
157. All of the following are factors that make impaction surgery more difficult (1 point)
in older patient except
⚫ Large follicle
◯ Long, thin roots
◯ Dense, inelastic bone
◯ Complete bony impaction
Explanation:
(Contemporary 6th edition 157)
If the follicular sac is wide (almost cystic in size), much less bone must be removed, which
makes the tooth more straightforward to extract.
Large follicle is present in younger patient and makes impaction surgery less difficult whereas
thin follicle is present in older patient and makes impaction surgery more difficult.
158. All of the following are principles of suturing, except: (1 point)

◯ The needle should enter the tissues perpendicular to the tissue surface
◯ The needle should be passed through the tissues along its curve
◯ The needle always pass through the thinner tissue to the thicker tissue
⚫ The needle should always pass from the fixed tissue to the movable tissue
Explanation:
[Neelima Malik 4th ed 98]
The needle always passes from the movable tissue to the fixed tissue.
159. During hemostasis, small vessels requires pressure for : (1 point)

⚫ 20 – 30 seconds
◯ 1-2 minutes
◯ 3 – 4 minutes
◯ 5- 7 minutes
Explanation:
(Contemporary 6th ed 40)
160. Edema occurs after surgery due to: (1 point)

◯ Exudation
⚫ Transudation
◯ Obstruction of lymphatics
◯ All of the above
Explanation:
[Contemporary 6th ed 41]
161. All of the following are effective way to reduce postoperative edema, except: (1 point)
⚫ Corticosteroids after surgery
◯ Minimal tissue damage
◯ Incision over connective tissue containing less loose connective tissue
◯ Patient positioning in comfortable postoperative position
Explanation:
Corticosteroids are useful for edema control only if administration is begun before tissue is
damaged. Early postoperative positioning of the surgical site above the rest of the body for few
postoperative days reduce the edema.
162. Im mediate treatment of choice for severe pericoronitis around an impacted (1 point)
mandibular third molar is
◯ Irrigation, antibiotics and removal of mandibular third molar
⚫ Irrigation, antibiotics and removal of opposing maxillary third molar
◯ Irrigation, antibiotics and removal of both maxillary and mandibular third molars
◯ Opperculectomy of the impacted mandibular third molar
Explanation:
[Contemporary 6thed 92]
To relieve impingement of the soft tissue overlying the mandibular third molar, removal of
maxillary third molar is indicated. If the mandibular 3rd molar is removed in the face of severe
pericoronitis, the incidence of complication increases. If the pericoronitis is mild and the tooth
can be removed easily, the mandibular 3rd molar can be extracted.
163. For laceration extending through the entire thickness of the lip: (1 point)
◯ Single suture should be placed in skin
◯ Single suture should be placed in mucosa
◯ Double layer suture should be placed in both skin and mucosa
⚫ Three layer suture should be placed in mucosa, muscle and skin
Explanation:
The wound is closed in layer from the inside out. The oral mucosa is first closed with silk or
resorbable suture. The orbicularis oris muscle is then sutured with interrupted resorbable suture.
Finally the dermal surface of the lip is sutured with 5-0 or 6-0 nylon suture.
164. Duration of immobilization for reimplanted mature tooth is (1 point)
⚫ 7-10 days
◯ 2-3 weeks
◯ 3-4 weeks
◯ 1-2 months
Explanation:

Stabilization period for dentoalveolar injuries are as follows
Mobile tooth: 7-10 days
Tooth displacement: 2-3 weeks
Root fracture: 2-4 months
Reimplanted tooth (mature): 7-10 days
Reimplanted tooth (immature): 3-4 weeks.
165. The most common intermaxillary fixation ( IMF ) technique is: (1 point)
◯ Continuous loop wiring
◯ Ivy’s wiring
⚫ Arch bar
◯ Gunning splint
Explanation:
Gunning splints are used for edentulous patient
166. Intentional fracture of zygomatic arch is done to treat (1 point)

◯ Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture
◯ Le Fort II fracture
◯ Fracture of the condyle
⚫ Chronic subluxation of the TMJ
Explanation:
[Neelima Malik 3rd ed 352/ 4th ed 347]
Intentional fracture of zygomatic arch is done to create a physical obstruction while treating
chronic subluxation of TMJ in Dautry’s method.
167. In a case of panfacial fracture, what is the most preferable sequence of (1 point)
reduction?
⚫ Reduction of the mandibular fracture and work superiorly through midface
◯ Reduction of midface fracture and work inferiorly through mandible
◯ Reduction of fracture involving soft bone first
◯ Reduction of fracture involving hard bone first
Explanation:
The rationale for the reduction of mandible is that it can be easily stabilized and the occlusion,
and reminder of the facial skeleton can be set to the reduced mandible. This was the technique
used prior to the advent of rigid fixation.
168. The frequency of activation of distraction device in distraction osteogenesis (1 point)

is known as
◯ Hertz
◯ Pitch
⚫ Rhythm
◯ Rate
Explanation:
169. Which of the vestibuloplasty technique can be employed to improve (1 point)

maxillary denture retention?
◯ Trauner’s Technique
◯ Caldwell’s Technique
◯ Clark’s Technique
⚫ Maxillary "Pocket Inlay" technique
Explanation:
This procedure involves surgically creating pockets in maxillary buttress and the piriform
aperature region and denture flange extensions into these pockets improves the total denture
retention.
170. Which of the muscles is cut during immediate decompression of (1 point)

submandibular region in Ludwig angina?
◯ Anterior belly of diagastric
◯ Posterior belly of diagastric
◯ Geniohyoid
⚫ Mylohyoid
Explanation:
[SRB Manual of Surgery 3rd ed 386]
Decompression of the submandibular region is done by making a deep incision extending into
the deep fascia and also cutting both the mylohyoid muscles.
171. What is the reason behind inadequate pulpal anaesthesia developing in the (1 point)
presence of subjective symptoms of adequate soft tissue anaesthesia?
◯ presence of tetradotoxin resistant fibres ( Hot tooth )
◯ presence lower pulpal pH
⚫ presence of core bundle fibres in pulpal innervations
◯ presence of mantle bundle fibres in pulpal innervations
Explanation:
[Malamed 6th ed 19]
Fasciculi that are located near the surface of the nerve termed mantle bundles. The mantle
bundles are the first ones reached by the LA and are expose to the higher concentration of LA,
and hence blocked completely shortly after injection of LA. Fasciculi found close to the center of
the nerve are called core bundes. These bundles are contacted by LA only after much delay and
by the lower anaesthetic concentration, because of the greatest distance that the solution must
transverse.The presence of core bundle fibres in pulpal innervations is the reason behind delay in
pulpal anesthesia.
172. Tachyphylaxis during LA administration is best described by: (1 point)

◯ A clinical situation which is characterized by tachycardia & tachypnea after LA
injection
◯ A special type of anaphylaxis due to the preservative of LA
⚫ An increasing tolerance to LA that is administered repeatedly
◯ An adverse reaction due to LA component which is unknown in type
Explanation:
[Malamed 6th ed 23]
173. Which of the following is the most used local anaesthesia in pediatric (1 point)
dentistry ?
◯ 2 % Lidocaine with epinephrine 1 : 100000
◯ 2 % plain Lidocaine
◯ 2 % Mepivacaine with Levonordefrin1 : 20000
⚫ 3% Plain Mepivacaine
Explanation:
[Malamed 6th ed 62]
174. Which of the following is not the complication of PSA nerve block? (1 point)
◯ A visible intraoral hematoma
◯ Injury to pterygoid plexus of vein
◯ Mandibular anaesthesia
⚫ Penetration of the orbit
Explanation:
[Malamed 5th ed 195]
175. Stages of surgical anesthesia is (1 point)

◯ Stage III plane 1
⚫ Stage III plane 3
Explanation:
[Short Textbook of General Anesthesia- Ajay Yadav 6th ed 88]
176. Ox ygen deficient cells are: (1 point)

◯ Radiosensitive
◯ Show Anti-collagenase activity
⚫ Radioresistant
◯ No effect of oxygen level during irradiation
Explanation:
ANS: C [Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation White and Pharaoh 4th Edition 29]
The radio-resistance of many biologic system increases by factor of 2 or 3 when irradiation is
conducted with reduced oxygen (hypoxia).
177. The overall degree of darkening of exposed film is: (1 point)

◯ Contrast
⚫ Density
◯ Fog
◯ Sharpness
Explanation:
ANS: C [W & P 6th Edition 58]
The overall degree of darkening of an film is referred to as radiographic density. It is influence

by exposure, thickness and density of the subject.
178. Ra diation induced caries occurs in: (1 point)

◯ 1 months
⚫ 3 months
◯ 6 months
◯ 9 months
Explanation:
ANS: B [Burket 12th Edition 239]
Radiation caries is the rapidly advancing caries which characteristically occurs at the incisal or
cervical aspects of teeth, especially incisor and canine. It may become evident as early as 3
months following the start of radiotherapy and may occur inspite of meticulous oral hygiene and
is seldom associated with pain.
179. Intensity of radiation at a distance of 4cm is R. At the distance of 2cm, the (1 point)
intensity will be?
◯ 2R
⚫ 4R
◯ ½R
◯R
Explanation:
ANS: B [White & Pharaoh 7th Edition 11]
The intensity of an X-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the
source. The reason for decrease in intensity is that an X-ray beam spreads out as it moves away
from its source. Thus if a dose is R at a distance of 4cm, the intensity becomes quadrupled at half
the distance, i.e. 4R.
180. The extraoral radiograph that best demonstrates the subcondylar portion of (1 point)
mandible is the:
◯ AP mandible
⚫ Towne's view
◯ Water's view
◯ Submentovertex
Explanation:
ANS: C [W & P 6th Edition 205]
181. Ca rbon monoxide poisoning causes: (1 point)

◯ Hypoxic hypoxia
⚫ Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left
◯ Cyanosis
◯ Diffusion capacity of lungs decreases
Explanation:
ANS: B [Ganong 22nd Edition 690]

CO poisoning is often referred as a form of anemic hypoxia. Hemoglobin affinity for CO is 210
times than O2. O2 content in blood is reduced.
When the COHb is present, the dissociation curve of the remaining HbO2 shift to the left,
decreasing the amount of O2 released.
182. Starling's law of the heart: (1 point)

◯ Does not operate in the failing heart
◯ Does not operate during exercise
⚫ Explains the increase in cardiac output that occurs when venous return is increased
◯ Explains the increase in cardiac output when the sympathetic nerves supplying the heart
stimulated
Explanation:
ANS: C [Sembulingam 5th Edition 554]
According to Frank-Starling law, "the force of contraction depends upon diastolic period and
ventricular filling." It also depends upon preload and after load.
183. Ce ll bodies of the neurons which carry taste sensation from the anterior (1 point)
2/ 3rd of the tongue are located in:
◯ Trigeminal ganglion
⚫ Geniculate ganglion
◯ Otic ganglion
◯ Superior cervical ganglion
Explanation:
ANS: B [Sembulingam 4th Edition 921]

184. Haemoglobin is the major buffer in blood, bicarbonate ions diffuses out of (1 point)
erythrocyte into plasma in exchange of:
◯ Potassium
◯ Phosphate
◯ Prothrombin
⚫ Chloride ion
Explanation:
ANS: D [Sembulingam 4th Edition 38]
This is called as Chloride shift or Hamberger phenomenon.
185. Which one of the cutaneous mechanoreceptors is best suited to encode the (1 point)
information regarding Tap, flutter 5-40 Hz sense ?
⚫ Meissners corpuscles
◯ Merkels disks
◯ Pacinian corpuscles
◯ Ruffini endings
Explanation:
ANS: A [Fundamental Neuroscience D U Haines 4th 227]
186. House Brackmann scale is for which nerve: (1 point)

⚫ Facial nerve
◯ Trigeminal
◯ Optic
◯ Hypoglossal
Explanation:
ANS: A
House-Brackmann score:
This is a score to grade the degree of nerve damage in a facial nerve palsy.
The measurement is determined by measuring the upwards (superior) movement of the mid-
portion of the top of the eyebrow, and the outwards (lateral) movement of the angle of the
mouth.
Each reference point scores 1 point for each 0.25cm movement, up to a maximum of 1cm. The
scores are then added together, to give a number out of 8. The score predicts recovery in those
with Bell's palsy.
187. Passavant's ridge: (1 point)

⚫ Consists of fibres of superior constrictor and palatopharyngeus
◯ Consists of fibres of middle constrictor and palatopharyngeus
◯ Consists of fibres of inferior constrictor and palatopharyngeus
◯ Consists of fibres of superior constrictor and palatoglossus
Explanation:
ANS: A [BDC H & N 4th Edition 212]
188. Nasal epistaxis occurs due to: (1 point)

⚫ Anastomosis between two arteries in anteroinferior part of nasal septum
◯ Anastomosis between two arteries in anterosuperior part of nasal septum
◯ Anastomosis between two veins in anteroinferior part of nasal septum
◯ Anastomosis between vein and artery at anteroinferior part of nasal septum
Explanation:
ANS: A [BDC H & N 6th Edition 241]
The anteroinferior part of the nasal septum contains anastomosis between:

• Superior labial branch of facial artery
• Branches of sphenopalatine, greater palatine and anterior ethmoidal arteries
These form a large capillary network called the Little's area (Kiesselbach's plexus). It is the
common site of bleeding from nose or epistaxis.
189. The palatine tonsil receives its arterial supply from all of the following (1 point)
except:
◯ Facial
◯ Ascending palatine
⚫ Sphenopalatine
◯ Dorsal lingual branch of lingual artery
Explanation:
ANS: B [BDC 5th Edition 216]
Arterial supply of tonsil are:
Main source: Tonsillar branch of facial artery
Additional sources:
• Ascending palatine branch of facial artery

• Dorsal lingual branches of lingual artery
• Ascending pharyngeal branch of ECA
• Greater palatine branch of maxillary artery
190. Carotid sheath contains all except: (1 point)

◯ Carotid artery
◯ Internal Jugular vein
◯ Vagus nerve
⚫ Phrenic nerve
Explanation:
ANS: D [BDC H & N 4th Edition 68]
The carotid sheath is a condensation of fibroareolar tissue around the main vessels of neck. It
encloses common and internal carotid arteries, internal jugular vein and the vagus nerve.
191. De smoplakin is the target antigen in: (1 point)

◯ Pemphigus vulgaris
⚫ Paraneoplastic pemphigus
◯ Drug induced pemphigus
◯ Pemphigus foliaceous
Explanation:
ANS: B [Burket 11th Edition 65]
Paraneoplastic pemphigus is a severe variant of pemphigus, associated with an underlying

neoplasm - most frequently non Hodgkin's lymphoma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, thymoma
and Castleman disease. Tumor antigens are hypothesized to evoke an immune response that
leads to the development of an autoimmune response to intercellular adhesins (plakins). This
autoantibody response leads to blistering in mucosa and other epithelia.
192. Kv eim Slitzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of: (1 point)

◯ Tubeculosis
⚫ Sarcoidosis
◯ Leprosy
◯ Cat scratch disease
Explanation:
ANS: B
Lip lesions of sarcoidosis resemble herpetic lesions or 'fever blisters'. Kveim-Slitzbach

intracutaneous test is an important aid in the early and accurate diagnosis of the disease.
193. A 60 year old male presents wit ha 2 day history of a severe left ear ache (1 point)
with a burning sensation in the ear and loss of taste. There is left sided
weakness of both upper and lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal.
A few vesicles are seen in the pharynx. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
◯ Bell's Palsy
◯ Acoustic neuroma
◯ Diptheria
⚫ Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Explanation:
ANS: D
Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome:
Clinical manifestations include facial paralysis, pain of the external auditory meatus and pinna of
the ear. Vesicular eruptions also occur in the oral mucosa and oropharynx, with hoarseness,
tinnitus, vertigo and other disturbances.
194. By electron microscopic examination the presence of "Birbeck granules" in (1 point)

the cytoplasm of the cells in one of the following conditions in characteristic
of:
◯ Adenolymphoma
◯ Plasmacytoma
◯ Burkitt's lymphoma
⚫ Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Explanation:
ANS: D
The old term histiocytosis X is replaced by new term called Langerhans cell histiocytosis
(LCH). The presence of Birbeck granules is characteristic finding in LCH.
195. Lincoln beard sign on bone scintigraphy is seen in: (1 point)

⚫ Paget's disease
◯ Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
◯ Cemento osseous dysplasia
◯ Fibrous dysplasia
Explanation:
ANS: A [Bal CS, Sahoo MK, Damle N. 2013 e310-1]
Classical appearance of "Lincoln's sign" on 99mTc-MDP bone scintigraphy has been described
in literature in cases of monostatic Paget disease of mandible showing increased radiotracer
uptake in the body of mandible. This pattern has also been described as "black beard" sign.
196. The treatment of Keratocystic odontogenic tumor is: (1 point)

◯ Surgical+Resection+Grafting
⚫ Enucleation+Ostectomy+Cauterization+Curettage
◯ Enucleation+Resection
◯ Segmental ostectomy+Grafting
Explanation:
ANS: B [Mervyn Shear's 4th Edition 54-57]
197. Cafe-au-lait pigmentation seen in all except: (1 point)

⚫ Peutz jegher syndrome
◯ Noonan syndrome
◯ Neurofibromatosis
◯ Legius syndrome
Explanation:
ANS: A [Pediatric clin North America 2010 1131-53]

Cafe-au-lait pigmentation is seen in:
• Neurofibromatosis type 1
• McCune Albright syndrome
• Legius syndrome
• Noonan syndrome
198. True about Amifostine: (1 point)

◯ Hypofunction of salivary gland
⚫ Xerostomia treatment
◯ Salivary gland infection
◯ Sialorrhea
Explanation:
ANS: B [KK Sharma 2nd Edition 858]
Amifostine is used for reducing the toxicities of anticancer drugs. It scavenges free radicals
produced by radiation and inactivates active species through formation of thioether conjugates.
It is indicated for:
• Cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity

• Radiation induced xerostomia
• Prevention of radiation induced toxicity
199. The causative agent for "Oculoglandular syndrome of Parinoud" is: (1 point)
◯ Arachnia propionica
⚫ Bartonella henselae
◯ Bifidobacterium dentinum
◯ Parasitic infection
Explanation:
ANS: B
Oculoglandular syndrome of Parinoud is unusual manifestation of cat scratch disease, which is

caused by Bartonella henselae, a gram negative bacillus. It consists of localised granuloma of
the eye with preauricular lymphadenopathy. The lymph nodes gradually become soft and
fluctuant, owing to necrosis and suppuration.
200. A 45 year old immunocompromised patient, having malodor from mouth, (1 point)
decreased salivation. Histopathological examination showing acinar necrosis
an d squamous metaplasia. The diagnosis is:
◯ HIV salivary sialodenitis
⚫ Necrotizing sialometaplasia
◯ Pleomorphic adenoma
◯ Diabetic necrotising sialadenitis
Explanation:
ANS: B [Nevile 2nd Edition 405]
The microscopic apperance of necrotizing sialometaplasia is characterized by acinar necrosis

in early lesions, followed by squamous metaplasia of the salivary ducts.
THANK YOU!
We want to thank
Dr. Deepak Kumar Roy (consultant, endodontics, KMCTH)
Dr. Megha Pradhan Joshi (HOD, Dept. of Pedodontics, KMCTH)
Dr. Junu Lohani (consultant, Prosthodontics, KMCTH)
And all the faculties of KMCTH who are constantly helping us in making these tests possible.
We also want to thank,

Dr. Pratima Adhikari (KMCTH)
Dr. Riti Gupta (KMCTH)
Dr. Shreya Kayastha (KUMS)
Dr. Sanjeev Bhandari (KDCH)
For their helping hands and constant support in making this test possible.
-CORE TEAM (TEAM TARGET MCQS IN DENTAL SCIENCE)
Dr. Niroj Bhattarai

Dr. Ankit Jaiswal
Dr. Saroj Pant
Dr. Milan Rai
Dr. Bikram Karki Chhetri
Dr. Kanchanmala Gautam

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PG MOCKTEST KU full syllabus-II (11th

1. Choose the best option.

We wish you All the Best.

1. Melanin pigmentation of gingiva starts appearing (1 point)

Ans: d Afterbirth ((Carranza 11th ed page 25)

2. Odland bodies are absent in (1 point)

Ans: B (Carranza 11th ed page-16)

3. Procedures such as extractions or periodontal surgery for ANUG patients, (1 point)

• Unless an emergency exists, procedures, such as extractions or periodontal surgery, are

4. Not a side effect of chlorhexidine (1 point)

5. Local drug delivery is not preferred when (1 point)

Ans: B (Carranza 11th ed)

6. Which of the following is not an indication of occlusal correction? (1 point)

Ans: a Wear facets

Wear facets can be seen in normal teeth as well.

Ans: C (Carranza 11th ed)

• It is taken twice daily for 3 months, up to a maximum of 9 months of continuous dosing.

8. Adult periodontitis (1 point)

Ans: C (ref: Carranza 11th ed)

Ans: B (ref: Carranza 11th ed)

10. Indications of gingivectomy are all except (1 point)

Ans: D (ref: Carranza 11th ed)

11. The first incision in a periodontal flap surgery is (1 point)

Ans: C (ref: Carranza 11th ed)

The first three are also called horizontal incision.

Ans: B (ref: Carranza 11th ed)

Osseous surgery can be either additive or subtractive in nature.

Ans: B (Carranza 11th ed, page no 871)

Ans: C (Carranza 11 th ed,)

Ans: B (ref: Carranza 11th ed)

It may be associated with a short upper lip or excessive lip translation.

17. Amount of gap required for cement in inlay restoration is (1 point)

• The gap for cementation is produced by using die spacers

Ans: A, (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 291/292)

Ans: B (ref: Sturdevants 5th edition page number 301)

Ans: A (Ref: sturdevants 5th ed page no. 333)

Ans: B (sturdevants 5th ed page no. 54, fig 7.6)

Names and Key Dimensions of Recommended Burs

Bur Head Length Taper angle Shape

Ans: D (ref: Sturdevants 5th ed, page no 536)

Clinical guide to color change (“Color is the language of endodontics.”)

ANS: A (Ingle’s Endodontics; 7th edition; page 38)

25. The purpose of Orstavik’s periapical index is: (1 point)

ANS: A (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 69)

ANS: B (Cohen’s Pathways of Pulp; 11th edition; page 226)

The engine driven instruments can be grouped as:

Group-I: Passive preparations; Presence of radial land

Group-II: Active preparations; Absence of radial lands

• Self adjusting file

The survival and virulence factors of Enterococcus faecalis are:

28. Which antibiotic is added in modified antibiotic paste? (1 point)

ANS: B (Grossman’s Endodontic Practice; 13th edition; page 235)

29. Apicoectomy is contraindicated in (1 point)

30. EDTA-C is (1 point)

31. Termination of all transmission of disease through extermination of (1 point)

Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th edition, Page no 44

Disease eradication: termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of infectious

Page no 607, Essentials of Public Health dentistry by Soben Peter,5th edition

33. Co st -Benefit ratio is evaluated in (1 point)