MODUL 1

1.1.7 Check
Your Understanding - OSPF
Features and Characteristics
1. Which of the following OSPF components is associated with the neighbor table?

Adjacency Database

2. Which of the following OSPF components is responsible for computing the cost of each route?

Dijkstra’s algorithm

3. Which of the following OSPF components is associated with the topology table?

Link-state database

4. Which of the following OSPF components is associated with the routing table?

Forwarding database

5. What is the correct order in the steps for Link-State operation?

1. Establish Neighbor Adjacencies

2. Exchange Link-state Advertisements
3. Build the topology table
4. Execute the SPF Algorithm
5. Choose the best route

1.2.5 Check Your Understanding - OSPF

Packets
1. Which of the following OSPF packets contains an abbreviated list of the LSDB of the sending
router?

Type 2: DBD Packet

2. Which of the following OSPF packets is used by routers to announce new information?
Type 4: LSU Packet
3. Which of the following OSPF packets is used by routers to request more information?

Type 3: LSR Packet

4. Which of the following OSPF packets is responsible for establishing and maintaining
adjacency with other OSPF routers?

Type 1: Hello Packet

5. Which of the following OSPF packets is used to confirm receipt of an LSA?

Type 5: LSAck Packet

6. Which of the following is used with the Hello Packet to uniquely identify the originating router?

Router ID

Check Your Understanding - OSPF

1.3.7

Operation
1. During this OSPF state on multiaccess networks, the routers elect a Designated Router (DR)
and a Backup Designated Router (BDR).

Two-way state

2. During this OSPF state, routers send each other DBD packets

Exchange State

3. An OSPF router enters this state when it has received a Hello packet from a neighbor,
containing the sending Router ID.

Init State

4. During this OSPF state on point-to-point networks, the routers decide which router initiates the
exchange of DBD packets.

ExStart State

5. During this OSPF state, routers have converged link-state databases

Full State
6. During this OSPF state, no Hello packets are received

Down State

7. During this OSPF state, routes are processed using the SPF algorithm

Loading State

Module Quiz - Single-Area OSPFv2

1.4.2

Concepts
1. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

To discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them

2. Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?

LSU

3. Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.)

- It is a link-state database that represents the network topology

- The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command

- When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables

4. What does an OSPF area contain?

Routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs

5. A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval
expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?

OSPF will remove that neighbour from the router link-state database

6. What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

Hello, DBD, LSR,LSU, LSAck

7. What is a feature of the OSPF routing protocol?

It scales well in both small and large networks

8. What is used to create the OSPF neighbor table?

adjacency database

9. What is identical on all OSPF routers within a single area?

link-state database

10. What function is performed by the OSPF designated router?

dissemination of LSAs

11. What are two reasons for creating an OSPF network with multiple areas? (Choose two.)

- to reduce SPF calculations

- to reduce use of memory and processor resources

12. At which OSPF state are neighbor routers converged and able to exchange routing updates?

Full

13. The OSPF hello timer has been set to 15 seconds on a router in a point-to-point network. By
default, what is the dead interval on this router?

60 seconds

14. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have
formed a neighbor adjacency?

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs

15. Which statement is correct about multiarea OSPF?

Arranging routers into areas partitions a large autonomous system in order to lighten the load on
routers

2.1.9 Check Your Understanding - OSPF Router ID

1. True or False? In the router ospf process-id command, the process ID value, which can any
number between 1 and 65,535, is globally significant. It must be the same on all routers in the
OSPF area.

True
2. Which of the following applies to the router ID? (Choose two)

- the router ID is used to determine the DR

- the router ID uniquely identifies the router

3. Which of the following is the order of precedence for choosing the router ID?

1. router ID that is explicitly configured

2. Highest IPv4 loopback address

3. Highest active configured IPv4 address

2.7.5 Module Quiz - Single-Area OSPFv2 Configuration

1. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

the router-id rid command

2. Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an
OSPF configuration? 

0.0.0.31

3. The following three networks are directly connected to an OSPF router; 192.168.0.0/24,
192.168.1.0/24, and 192.168.2.0/24. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the
192.168.1.0 network to neighbors?

router(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

4. Which three parameters should match in order for a pair of routers to form an adjacency when
running OSPFv2? (Choose three.)

- hello timer

- subnet mask

- OSPFv2 type of network

5. What are two features of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

- uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to build the SPF tree

- calculates its metric using bandwidth

6. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface
is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign
the router ID?

the loopback interface IP address

7. Which verification command would identify the specific interfaces on a router that were
configured with the passive-interface command?

show ip protocols

8. Which command, if applied on an OSPF router, would give a Gigabit Ethernet interface a
lower cost than a Fast Ethernet interface?

(config-router)# auto-cost reference-bandwidth 1000

9. A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in
an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the
new router ID?

Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command

10. Which command can be used to view the OSPF hello and dead time intervals?

show ip ospf interface

11. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links

12. What is one use of the router ID in OSPF routing?

The routes ID can be used to break a tie in the election process

13. What is the first criterion used by OPSF routers to elect a DR?

Highest priority

14. Which command could be used on a router to ensure that an OSPF adjacency is formed with
another router?

show ip ospf neighbour

15. A router in an OSPF enterprise network has a default static route that has been configured
via the interface that connects to the ISP. Which command would the network administrator
apply on this router so that other routers in the OSPF network will use this default route?
default-information originate

Check Your Understanding - Current State of

3.1.4
Cybersecurity

1. Which security term is used to describe anything of value to the organization? It includes
people, equipment, resources, and data.

Asset

2. Which security term is used to describe a weakness in a system, or its design, that could be
exploited by a threat?

Vulnerability

3. Which security term is used to describe a potential danger to a company’s assets, data, or
network functionality?

Threat

4. Which security term is used to describe a mechanism that takes advantage of a vulnerability?

Exploit

5. Which security term is used to describe the counter-measure for a potential threat or risk?

Mitigation

6. Which security term is used to describe the likelihood of a threat to exploit the vulnerability of
an asset, with the aim of negatively affecting an organization?

Risk

3.2.6 Check Your Understanding - Threat Actors

1. Which type of hacker is described in the scenario: After hacking into ATM machines remotely
using a laptop, I worked with ATM manufacturers to resolve the security vulnerabilities that I
discovered.

Gray Hat
2. Which type of hacker is described in the scenario: From my laptop, I transferred $10 million to
my bank account using victim account numbers and PINs after viewing recordings of victims
entering the numbers.

Black Hat

3. Which type of hacker is described in the scenario: My job is to identify weaknesses in my

company’s network.

White Hat

4. Which type of hacker is described in the scenario: I used malware to compromise several
corporate systems to steal credit card information. I then sold that information to the highest
bidder.

Black Hat

5. Which type of hacker is described in the scenario: During my research for security exploits, I
stumbled across a security vulnerability on a corporate network that I am authorized to access.

White Hat

6. Which type of hacker is described in the scenario It is my job to work with technology
companies to fix a flaw with DNS.

White Hat

3.3.5 Check Your Understanding - Threat Actor Tools

1. Which penetration testing tool uses algorithm schemes to encode the data, which then
prevents access to the data?

Encryption Tools

2. Which penetration testing tool is used by black hats to reverse engineer binary files when
writing exploits? They are also used by white hats when analyzing malware.

Debuggers

3. Which penetration testing tool is used to probe and test a firewall’s robustness?

Packet Crafting Tools

4. Which penetration testing tool is used by white hat hackers to sniff out any trace of evidence
existing in a computer?

Forensic ools

5. Which penetration testing tool identifies whether a remote host is susceptible to a security
attack?

Vulnerability Exploitation Tools

3.4.4 Check Your Understanding - Malware

1. Which malware executes arbitrary code and installs copies of itself in the memory of the
infected computer? The main purpose of this malware is to automatically replicate from system to
system across the network.

Worm

2. Which malware is non-self-replicating type of malware? It often contains malicious code that is
designed to look like something else, such as a legitimate application or file. It attacks the device
from within.

Trojan Horse

3. Which malware is used to gather information about a user and then, without the user's
consent, sends the information to another entity?

Spyware

4. Which malware typically displays annoying pop-ups to generate revenue for its author?

Adware

5. Which malware attempts to convince people to divulge sensitive information?

Phising

6. Which malware is installed on a compromised system and provides privileged access to the
threat actor?

Rootkit

7. Which malware denies access to the infected computer system and demands payment before
the restriction is removed?

Ransomware
 Check Your Understanding - Common Network
3.5.10
Attacks

1. What type of attack is tailgating?

Social Engineering

2. What type of attack is a password attack?

Access

3. What type of attack is port scanning?

Reconnaissance

4. What type of attack is man-in-the-middle?

Access

5. What type of attack is address spoofing?

Access

Check Your Understanding - IP Vulnerabilities and

3.6.7
Threats

1. Which attack is being used when threat actors position themselves between a source and
destination to transparently monitor, capture, and control the communication?

MiTM Attack

2. Which attack is being used when threat actors gain access to the physical network, and then
use an MiTM attack to capture and manipulate a legitimate user’s traffic?

Session Hijacking

3. Which attack is being used when threat actors initiate a simultaneous, coordinated attack from
multiple source machines?

Amplification and Reflection Attacks

4. Which attack is being used when threat actors use pings to discover subnets and hosts on a
protected network, to generate flood attacks, and to alter host routing tables?

ICMP Attack

5. Which attack being used is when a threat actor creates packets with false source IP address
information to either hide the identity of the sender, or to pose as another legitimate user?

Address Spoofing Attack

Check Your Understanding - TCP and UDP

3.7.6
Vulnerabilities
1. Which attack exploits the three-way handshake?

TCP SYN Flood attack

2. Which attack uses a four-way exchange to close the connection using a pair of FIN and ACK
segments from each endpoint?

TCP reset attack

3. Which attack is being used when the threat actor spoofs the IP address of one host, predicts
the next sequence number, and sends an ACK to the other host?

TCD session hijacking

4. A program sweeps through all the known ports on a server and sends ICMP echo requests to
each closed port. This causes the server to reply with numerous ICMP port unreachable
messages. Which attack is this?

UDP flood attack

3.8.8 Lab - Explore DNS Traffic

1. From the Wireshark results, what else can you learn about the network when you remove
the filter?
Without the filters, the result display other packets such as DHCP and ARP. From these
packet and the information contained within these packets, you can learn about other
devices and their functions within the LAN
** Tanpa filter, hasilnya menampilkan paket lain seperti DHCP dan ARP. Dari paket ini dan
informasi yang terkandung di dalam paket-paket ini, Anda dapat mempelajari tentang
perangkat lain dan fungsinya di dalam LAN

2. How can an attacker use Wireshark to compromise your network security?

An attacker on the LAN can use Wireshark to observe the network traffic and can get
sensitive information in the packet details if the traffic is not encrypted.
**Penyerang pada LAN dapat menggunakan Wireshark untuk mengamati lalu lintas jaringan
dan bisa mendapatkan informasi sensitive dalam detail paket jika lalu lintas tidak dienkripsi

3.9.6 Check Your Understanding - Network Security Best

Practices
1. Which network security device ensures that internal traffic can go out and come back, but
external traffic cannot initiate connections to inside hosts?

ASA Firewall

2. Which network security device contains a secure database of who is authorized to access and
manage network devices?

AAA Server

3. Which network security device filters known and suspicious internet malware sites?

ESA/WSA

4. Which network security device is used to provide secure services with corporate sites and
remote access support for remote users using secure encrypted tunnels?

VPN

5. Which network security device monitors incoming and outgoing traffic looking for malware,
network attack signatures, and if it recognizes a threat, it can immediately stop it?

IPS

3.10.10 Check Your Understanding - Cryptography

1. Which encryption method repeats an algorithm process three times and is considered very
trustworthy when implemented using very short key lifetimes?
Triple DES

2. Which encryption method encrypts plaintext one byte or one bit at a time?

Stream Cipher

3. Which encryption method uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?

Symmetric

4. Which encryption method is a stream cipher and is used to secure web traffic in SSL and
TLS?

Rivest Cipher

3.11.3 Module Quiz - Network Security Concepts

1. The IT department is reporting that a company web server is receiving an abnormally high
number of web page requests from different locations simultaneously. Which type of security
attack is occurring?

DDoS

2. What causes a buffer overflow?

attempting to write more data to a memory location than that location can hold

3. Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting data?

confidentiality

4. What type of malware has the primary objective of spreading across the network? 

worm

5. Which algorithm can ensure data confidentiality?

AES

6. What three items are components of the CIA triad? (Choose three.)

- integrity

- availability
 - confidentiality

7. Which cyber attack involves a coordinated attack from a botnet of zombie computers?

DDoS

8. What specialized network device is responsible for enforcing access control policies between
networks?

Firewall

9. To which category of security attacks does man-in-the-middle belong?

Access

10 What is the role of an IPS?

to detect patterns of malicious traffic by the use of signature files

11. Which type of DNS attack involves the cybercriminal compromising a parent domain and
creating multiple subdomains to be used during the attacks?

shadowing

12. Which two types of hackers are typically classified as grey hat hackers? (Choose two.)

- hacktivists

- vulnerability brokers

13. What is a significant characteristic of virus malware?

A virus is triggered by an event on the host system

14. A cleaner attempts to enter a computer lab but is denied entry by the receptionist because
there is no scheduled cleaning for that day. What type of attack was just prevented?

social engineering

4.1.5 Check Your Understanding - Purpose of ACLs

1. What are the permit or deny statements in an ACL called?

access control entries

2. Which packet filtering statement is true?

Standard ACLs filter at Layer 3 only

3. Which statement about the operation of a standard ACL is incorrect?

If there are no matching ACEs in the ACL, the packet is forwarded because there is an implicit
permit ACE automatically applied to all ACLs.

Check Your Understanding - Wildcard Masks in

4.2.5
ACLs
1. Which wildcard mask would permit only host 10.10.10.1?

0.0.0.0

2. Which wildcard mask would permit only hosts from the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

0.0.255.255

3. Which wildcard mask would permit all hosts?

255.255.255.255

4. Which wildcard mask would permit all hosts from the 192.168.10.0/24 network?

0.0.0.255

Check Your Understanding - Guidelines for ACL

4.3.3
Creation
1. How many total ACLs (both IPv4 and IPv6) can be configured on an interface?

2. Which of the following is an ACL best practice?

Write the ACL before configuring it on a router

4.4.5 Check Your Understanding - Types of IPv4 ACLs

1. Which ACL is capable of filtering based on TCP port number?
extended ACL

2. Which statement about ACLs is true?

Named ACLs can be standard or extended

3. Where should a standard ACL be placed?

Standard ACLs should be placed as close to the destination as possible

4. Where should an extended ACL be placed?

Extended ACLs should be located as close to the source as possible

4.5.2 Module Quiz - ACL Concepts

1. Which two conditions would cause a router to drop a packet? (Choose two.)

- No routing table entry exists for the packet destination, but the packet matches a
permitted address in an outbound ACL

- The packet source address does not match the source as permitted in a standard
inbound ACE.

2. A network administrator configures an ACL with the command R1(config)# access-list 1

permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255. Which two IP addresses will match this ACL statement? (Choose
two.)

- 172.16.15.36

- 172.16.0.255

3. Which two statements describe appropriate general guidelines for configuring and applying
ACLs? (Choose two.)

- If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default

- The most specific ACL statements sould be entered first because of the top-down
sequential nature of ACLs

4. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?
192.168.16.0
192.168.17.0
192.168.18.0
192.168.19.0

access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255

5. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.

- A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched

- An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE

- Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list

6. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to restrict access to certain servers in the data
center. The intent is to apply the ACL to the interface connected to the data center LAN. What
happens if the ACL is incorrectly applied to an interface in the inbound direction instead of the
outbound direction?

The ACL does not perform as designed

7. Which scenario would cause an ACL misconfiguration and deny all traffic?

Apply a standard ACL using the ip access-group outcommand

8. In applying an ACL to a router interface, which traffic is designated as outbound?

traffic that is leaving the router and going toward the destination host

9. When creating an ACL, which keyword should be used to document and interpret the purpose
of the ACL statement on a Cisco device?

remark

10. Which location is recommended for extended numbered or extended named ACLs?

a location as close to the source of traffic as possible

11. Which range represents all the IP addresses that are affected when network 10.120.160.0
with a wildcard mask of 0.0.7.255 is used in an ACE?

10.120.160.0 to 10.120.167.255

12. A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended
access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as
part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)

- tcp

- udp

- icmp
13. If the provided ACEs are in the same ACL, which ACE should be listed first in the ACL
according to best practice?

permit udp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 172.16.1.15 eq snmptrap

14. Which operator is used in an ACL statement to match packets of a specific application?

eq

5.5.4 Module Quiz - ACLs for IPv4 Configuration

1. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27
network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that
only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the
routers? (Choose two.)

- access-class 5 in

- access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

2. Consider the configured access list. 

R1# show access-lists
extended IP access list 100
deny tcp host 10.1.1.2 host 10.1.1.1 eq telnet
deny tcp host 10.1.2.2 host 10.1.2.1 eq telnet
permit ip any any (15 matches)

What are two characteristics of this access list? (Choose two.)

- Any device on the 10.1.1.0/24 network (except the 10.1.1.2 device) can telnet to the
router that has the IP address 10.1.1.1 assigned

- The access list has been applied to an interface

3. Which command will verify the number of packets that are permitted or denied by an ACL that
restricts SSH access?

show access-lists

4. Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port
4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10?

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
5. When configuring router security, which statement describes the most effective way to use
ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself?

The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted user from
connecting to an unsecured port

6. What packets would match the access control list statement that is shown below?

access-list 110 permit tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 22

SSH traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination network

7. Consider the access list command applied outbound on a router serial interface. 

 
access-list 100 deny icmp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any echo reply

What is the effect of applying this access list command?

No traffic will be allowed outbound on the serial interface

8. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-
class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is  shown?

R1# <output omitted>
Standard IP access list 2
10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches)
20 deny    any (1 match)

Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router

9. Which two commands will configure a standard ACL? (Choose two.)

- Router(config)# access-list 35 permit 10.20.5.0 0.255.255.255 any

- Router(config)# access-list 90 permit 192.168.10.5 0.0.0.0

10. To facilitate the troubleshooting process, which inbound ICMP message should be permitted
on an outside interface?

echo reply
11. What two ACEs could be used to deny IP traffic from a single source host 10.1.1.1 to the
192.168.0.0/16 network? (Choose two.)

- access-list 100 deny ip host 10.1.1.1 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

- access-list 100 deny ip 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

12. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access
from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in

6.1.5 Check Your Understanding - NAT Characteristics

1. Refer to the exhibit. What type of NAT address is the IP address of PC1 (i.e.,
192.168.10.10)?

Inside Local

2. Refer to the exhibit. Into what type of address has the IPv4 address for PC1 been translated
(i.e., 209.165.200.226)?

Inside Global

3. Refer to the exhibit. What type of NAT address is the IP address of the Web Server (i.e.,
209.165.201.10)?

Outside Global

Check Your Understanding - NAT Advantages and

6.3.3
Disadvantages
1. True or False? A side effect of NAT is that it hides the inside local IP address of a host from
the outside network.

True

2. True or False? With NAT overload, each inside local IP address is translated to a unique
inside global IP address on a one-for-one basis.
False

3. True or False? The use of NAT makes end-to-end traceability between source and destination
easier.

True

4. True or False? Tunneling protocols such as IPsec do not work well through NAT.

True

6.8.4 Module Quiz - NAT for IPv4

1. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying
NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

- NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion

- NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity

2. A network administrator wants to examine the active NAT translations on a border router.
Which command would perform the task?

Router# show ip nat translations

3. What are two tasks to perform when configuring static NAT? (Choose two.)

- Create a mapping between the inside local and inside global addresses

- Identify the participating interfaces as inside or outside interfaces

4. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing

5. What is one advantage of using NAT at the edge of the network?

Changing ISPs is simpler because the devices on the inside network do not have to be
configured with new addresses when the outside address changes

6. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4
addresses
7. What address translation is performed by static NAT?

An inside local address in translated to a specified inside global address

8. Using NAT terminology, what is the address of the source host on a private network as seen
from inside the network?

inside local

9. Which statement accurately describes dynamic NAT?

It provides an automated mapping of inside local to inside global IP addresses

10. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6
addresses is extremely large

11. A company designs its network so that the PCs in the internal network are assigned IP
addresses from DHCP servers, and the packets that are sent to the Internet are translated
through a NAT-enabled router. What type of NAT enables the router to populate the translation
table from a pool of unique public addresses, as the PCs send packets through the router to the
Internet?

dynamic NAT

12. What is a security feature of using NAT on a network?

allows internal IP addresses to be concealed from external users

13. When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt
to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?

The request to the server for the seventh user fails

14. A company has been assigned the 203.0.113.0/27 block of IP addresses by the ISP. The
company has over 6000 internal devices. What type of NAT would be most appropriate for the
employee workstations of the company?

dynamic NAT overload using the pool of addresses

15. Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a
single inside global address for connecting to the Internet?

PAT
7.1.6 Check Your Understanding - Purpose of WANs
1. Which two options describe a WAN? (Choose two.)
- A WAN provides networking services over large geographical areas

- WAN services are provided for a fee

2. Which topology type describes the virtual connection between source to destination?

logical topology

3. Which type of WAN network design is the most fault-tolerant?

fully meshed topology

4. Which is a type of WAN carrier connection that provides redundancy?

dual-carrier WAN connection

7.2.9 Check Your Understanding - WAN Operations

1. Which two statements about the WAN OSI Layer 1 are true? (Choose two.)
- It describes the electrical mechanical, and operational components needed to transmit
bits

- It includes protocols such as SDH, SONET, and DWDM

2. Which WAN term defines the point where the subscriber connects to the service provides
network

Point-of-Presence (POP)

3. Which two devices operate in a similar manner to the voiceband modem but use higher
broadband frequencies and transmission speeds. (Choose two.)

- cable modem

- DSL modem

4. Which communication method is used in all WAN connections?

Serial
5. Which two WAN connectivity options are circuit-switched technologies? (Choose two.)

- ISDN

- PSTN

6. Which two WAN connectivity options are packet-switched technologies? (Choose two.)

- Ethernet WAN

- Frame Relay

7. Which service provider fiber-optic technology increases the data-carrying capacity using
different wavelengths?

DWDM

Check Your Understanding - Traditional WAN

7.3.5
Connectivity
1. Which traditional WAN connectivity option uses T-Carrier or E-Carrier lines?

Leased Lines

2. Which two traditional WAN connectivity options are circuit-switched? (Choose two.)

- ISDN

- PSTN

3. Which two traditional WAN connectivity options are packet-switched? (Choose two.)

- ATM

- Frame relay

Check Your Understanding - Modern WAN

7.4.5
Connectivity
1. Which WAN connectivity option is based on Ethernet LAN technology?

Metro Ethernet

2. Which is a service provider WAN solution that uses labels to direct the flow of packets through
the provider network?
MPLS

7.6.3 Module Quiz - WAN Concepts

1. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain
connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to
support this scenario?

WAN

2. What is the recommended technology to use over a public WAN infrastructure when a branch
office is connected to the corporate site?

VPN

3. Which medium do service providers use to transmit data over WAN connections with SONET,
SDH, and DWDM?

fiber optic

4. Which statement describes a characteristic of a WAN?

WAN networks are owned by service

5. Which type of network would be used by a company to connect locations across the country?

WAN

6. A small company with 10 employees uses a single LAN to share information between
computers. Which type of connection to the Internet would be appropriate for this company?

a broadband service, such as DSL, through their local service provider

7. To which two layers of the OSI model do WAN technologies provide services? (Choose two.)

- physical layer

- data link layer

8. A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated
bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need?

Ethernet WAN
9. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on
the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

- cellular

- public infrastructure

10. An enterprise has four branches. The headquarters needs full connectivity to all branches.
The branches do not need to be connected directly to each other. Which WAN topology is most
suitable?

hub and spoke

11. What is a characteristic of a WAN?

WAN service providers include carriers such as a telephone network or satellite service

12. What are two common types of circuit-switched WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

- PSTN

- ISDN

13. A new corporation needs a data network that must meet certain requirements. The network
must provide a low cost connection to sales people dispersed over a large geographical area.
Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

- internet

- public infrastructure

8.1.5 Check Your Understanding - VPN Technology

1. Which VPN benefit allows an enterprise to easily add more users to the network?

Scalability

2. Which VPN benefit allows an enterprise to increase the bandwidth for remote sites without
necessarily adding more equipment or WAN links?

Cost Savings

3. Which VPN benefit uses advanced encryption and authentication protocols to protect data
from unauthorized access?

Security
4. Which type of VPN is used to connect a mobile user?

Remote-access

5. Which VPN solutions are typically managed by an enterprise? (Choose three)

- IPsec

- SSL

- DMVPN

8.2.8 Check Your Understanding - Types of VPNs

1. What type of VPN can be established with a web browser using HTTPS?

Clientless VPN

2. Which feature describes SSL VPNs?

Only requires a web browser on a host

3. What type of protocol is GRE?

Carrier protocol

4. What type of VPN enables an enterprise to rapidly scale secure access across the
organization?

DMVPN

5. What type of VPN enables an enterprise to emulate an Ethernet multiaccess LAN with remote
sites?

MPLS VPN

8.3.9 Check Your Understanding - IPsec

1. IPsec can protect traffic in which OSI layers? (Choose four.)

- layer 4

- layer 5

- layer 6

- layer 7
2. Which IPsec function uses pre-shared passwords, digital certificates, or RSA certificates?

Authentication

3. True or False: The IPsec framework must be updated each time a new standard is developed.

False

4. Which choices are packet encapslation options suported by IPsec? (Choose two.)

- AH

- ESP

5. Which choices provide for the Confidentiality function in the IPsec framework? (Choose three.)

- 3DES

- AES

- SEAL

6. Which choices provide for the Integrity function in the IPsec framework? (Choose two.)

- MD5

- SHA

7. Which choices are available for the Authentication function in the IPsec framework? (Choose
two.)
- PSK

- RSA

8. Which Diffie-Hellman group choices are no longer recommended?

DH groups 1, 2, and 5

8.4.2 Module Quiz - VPN and IPsec Concepts

1. Which two statements describe a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)

- it is used to connect individual hosts securely to a company network over the internet

- it may require VPN client software on hosts

2. The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of which of the five IPsec building
blocks?

confidientiality

3. Which type of VPN may require the Cisco VPN Client software?

remote access VPN

4. Which technique is necessary to ensure a private transfer of data using a VPN?

encryption

5. What are the two fundamental Dynamic Multipoint VPN tunnel types? (Choose two.)

- hub-to-spoke

- spoke-to-spoke

6. What are two reasons a company would use a VPN? (Choose two.)

- to connect remote users to the network

- to allow suppliers to access the network

7. True or False? All VPNs securely transmit clear text across the Internet.

false

8. Which solution allows workers to telecommute effectively and securely?

remote-access VPN

9. Which VPN type is a service provider managed VPN?

layer 3 MPLS VPN

10. Which IPsec framework protocol provides data integrity and data authentication, but does not
provide data confidentiality?

AH

11. What algorithm is used to provide data integrity of a message through the use of a calculated
hash value?

HMAC
12. Which statement describes the effect of key length in deterring an attacker from hacking
through an encryption key?

the longer the key, the more key possibilities exist

13. What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

site-to-site

Check Your Understanding - Network Transmission

9.1.5
Quality
1. What is the variable amount of time it takes for a frame to traverse the links between the
source and destination?

propagation delay

2. What happens when congestion occurs?

packet loss

3. What is the fixed amount of time it takes to transmit a frame from the NIC to the wire?

serialization delay

4. What is caused by variation in delay?

jitter

9.2.6 Check Your Understanding - Traffic Characteristics

1. Which type of traffic tends to consume a large portion of network capacity?

data

2. Which type of traffic requires at least 384 Kbs of bandwidth?

video

3. Which type of traffic is unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty?

video
4. Which type of traffic can be predictable and smooth?

voice

5. Which type of traffic cannot be retransmitted if lost?

voice

6. Which type of traffic must receive a higher UDP priority?

voice

9.3.7 Check Your Understanding - Queuing Algorithms

1. Which queuing algorithm simultaneously schedules interactive traffic to the front of a queue to
reduce response time?

WFQ

2. Which queuing algorithm provides support for user-defined traffic classes?

CBWFQ

3. Which queuing algorithm is effective for large links that have little delay and minimal
congestion?

FIFO

4. Which queuing algorithm classifies traffic into different flows based on packet header
addressing?

WFQ

5. Which queuing algorithm allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets
in other queues?

LLQ

6. Which queuing algorithm applies priority, or weights, to identify traffic and classify it?

WFQ

9.4.6 Check Your Understanding - QoS Models

1. Which QoS model provides per-request policy admission control?

integrated services

2. Which QoS model requires no special QoS mechanisms?

best effort

3. Which QoS model provides many different levels of quality?

differential services

4. Which QoS model uses explicit end-to-end resource admission control?

integrated services

5. Which QoS model is the most scalable?

differential services

Check Your Understanding - QoS Implementation

9.5.14
Techniques
1. Which detects when traffic rates reach a configured maximum rate and drops excess traffic?

traffic policing

2. Which determines what class of traffic packets or frames belong to.

classification

3. Which adds a value to the packet header?

marking

4. Which provides buffer management and allows TCP traffic to throttle back before buffers are
exhausted?

WRED

5. Which retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission
over increments of time?

traffic shaping
9.5.2 Module Quiz - QoS Concepts
1. What is the term used to indicate a variation of delay?

jitter

2. A network engineer performs a ping test and receives a value that shows the time it takes for a
packet to travel from a source to a destination device and return. Which term describes the
value?

latency

3. What role do network devices play in the IntServ QoS model?

network devices ensure that resources are available before traffic is allowed to be sent by a host
through the network

4. Which device would be classified as a trusted endpoint?

IP phone

5. Under which condition does congestion occur on a converged network with voice, video, and
data traffic?

if the request for bandwidth exceeds the amount of bandwidth available

6. Which type of traffic does Cisco recommend be placed in the strict priority queue (PQ) when
low latency queuing (LLQ) is being used?

voice

7. Which model is the only QoS model with no mechanism to classify packets?

best-effort

8. What happens when the memory queue of a device fills up and new network traffic is
received?

the network device will drop the arriving packets

9. What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)

- it consumes few network resources

 - it is delay sensitive

10. Which QoS model is very resource intensive and provides the highest guarantee of QoS?

IntServ

11. What happens when an edge router using IntServ QoS determines that the data pathway
cannot support the level of QoS requested?

Data is not forwarded along the pathway

12. In QoS models, which type of traffic is commonly provided the most preferential treatment
over all other application traffic?

voice traffic

13. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

CBWFQ

14. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then
replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

playout delay buffer

Check Your Understanding - Compare CDP and

10.2.5
LLDP
1. Which protocol is used to gather information about Cisco devices which share the same data
link?

CDP

2. Which protocol works with network devices, such as routers, switches, and wireless LAN
access points across multiple manufacturers’ devices?

LLDP

10.4.5 Check Your Understanding - SNMP Versions

1. Which SNMP version authenticates the source of management messages?
version 3

2. Which SNMP version provides services for security models?

both

3. Which SNMP version does not provide encrypted management messages?

version 2

4. Which SNMP version is supported by Cisco IOS software?

both

5. Which SNMP version includes expanded error codes with types?

version 2

6. Which SNMP version uses community-based forms of security?

version 2

7. Which SNMP version is used for interoperability and includes message integrity reporting?

version 3

10.5.6 Check Your Understanding - Syslog Operation

Refer to the following syslog output to answer the questions.

1. Refer to the syslog output. What security level generated the message?

debugging

2. Refer to the syslog output. What is the mnemonic for this syslog message?

NO_IFINDEX_FILE

3. Refer to the syslog output. What is the syslog reporting facility?

IFMGR
10.8.4 Module Quiz - Network Management
1. What are two reasons for an administrator to issue the copy running-config tftp command
on a switch or router? (Choose two.)

- to transfer the current configuration file to a server

- to save the running configuration file to a remote location

2. What information can be gathered about a neighbor device from the show cdp neighbors
detail command that cannot be found with the show cdp neighbors command?

the IP address of the neighbour

3. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB

objects?

community strings

4. What command must be issued on a Cisco router that will serve as an authoritative NTP
server?

ntp master 1

5. Which protocol or service can be configured to send unsolicited messages to alert the network
administrator about a network event such as an extremely high CPU utilization on a router?

SNMP

6. Which statement describes a syslog message severity level?

severity level 0 is the most critical severity level

7. What is an SNMP management agent?

software that is installed on devices managed by SNMP

8. What are two characteristics of SNMP community strings? (Choose two.)

- SNMP read-only community strings can be used to get information from an SNMP-
enabled device

- SNMP readl-write community strings can be used to set information on an SNMP-

enabled device
9. A network administrator issues the copy tftp running-config command on a router. What is
the administrator trying to achieve?

copy the configuration file from the TFTP server to the RAM of the router

10. What is a characteristic of the MIB?

The OIDs are organized in a hierarchical structure

11. What data would be saved and where would the data be placed if a network administrator
issued the following command? (Choose two.)

R1# copy startup-config tftp

- The data will be saved to a TFTP

- The data to be saved is the configuration that is stored in NVRAM

12. Which command would a network engineer use to restore the IOS image c1900-universalk9-
mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin to a router?

copy tftp: flash0:

13. Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

14. What are SNMP trap messages?

unsolicited messages that are sent by the SNMP agent and alert the NMS to a condition on the
network

11.1.8 Check Your Understanding - Hierarchical Networks

1. Which term is used to describe a network that is always accessible?

resilient

2. Which characteristic of a network allows it to expand and provide on-demand services?

modularity
3. Which term describes the ability of a network to use all available network resources and to
provide data load sharing?

flexible

4. Which network layer provides fault isolation and high-speed backbone switch connectivity?

core

5. Which network layer provides direct, switched network connectivity to the user?

access

6. Which network layer integrates with the backbone and users to provide intelligent switching,
routing, and security?

distribution

11.2.7 Check Your Understanding - Scalable Networks

1. Which three recommendations may be included in a network design strategy that is focused
on scalability? (Choose three.)

- Design a hierarchical network

- Choose routers or multilayer switches to limir broadcasts and filter other undesirable
traffic from the network

- User expandable, modular equipment, or clustered devices that can be easily upgraded
to increase capabilities

2. True or false? OSPF is well-suited for larger networks because it can be deployed using a
hierarchical design.

True
3. What are three important features that should be considered for implementation in a well-
designed, scalable network? (Choose three.)

- redundant links

- multiple links

- expandable, modular equipment

11.3.8 Check Your Understanding - Switch Hardware

1. Which category of switch is used to aggregate traffic at the edge of the network?

service provider switches

2. Field replaceable line cards are a feature found on which type of switch?

modular

3. This is the term used to describe switches that can be interconnected and managed as one
larger single switch.

stackable

4. This is the term used to describe the number of ports available on a single switch.

density

5. This is the term used to describe how much data a switch can process per second.

forwarding rate

6. Which type of switch supports routing protocols and can forward IP packets at close to Layer 2
forwarding rates?

multilayer
11.4.4 Check Your Understanding - Router Hardware
1. This type of router provides fast performance with high security for data centers, campus, and
branch networks.

network edge routers

2. This type of router provides end-to-end delivery of subscriber services.

service provider routers

3. This type of router provides simple network configuration and management for LANs and
WANs.

branch routers

4. This type of router is designed to provide enterprise-class features in rugged and harsh
environments.

industrial routers

5. This type of router delivers next-generation internet experience across all devices and
locations.

service provider routers

11.5.3 Module Quiz - Network Design

1. Which cost-effective physical network topology design is recommended when building a three-
tier campus network that connects three buildings?

extended star

2. How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of switching when operating at full wire
speed?  

48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

3. What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or
network service experiences problems?

failure domain

4. Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime
and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?

network edge routers

5. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

the use of the building switch block approach

6. What is a function of the distribution layer?

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

7. What is the function of PoE pass-through?

allow switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet
cables from an upstream switch

8. Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design

network access

9. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network
design?

add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

10. What is a collapsed core in a network design?

a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers

11. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is
considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?

core

12. Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant
links?

spanning tree protocol

13. Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the bandwidth by combining
multiple physical links into a single logical link?  

etherchannel

14. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

New cisco catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through

15. Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

implementing wireless connectivity

Check Your Understanding - Network

12.1.9
Documentation
1. Which topology diagram displays IP addresses?

logical topology

2. Which document could be referenced to identify the OS on a server?

end-system documentation

3. Which three statements will a network baseline answer? (Choose three.)

 - how does the network perform during a normal or average day?

- what part of the network is least used?

- what part of the network is most heavily used?

4. True or False? A network baseline never ends and continually gathers information on a yearly
basis.

false

5. Which command could be used to get detailed information about directly connected Cisco
neighbor devices?

show cdp neighbour

Check Your Understanding - Troubleshooting

12.2.8
Process
1. Which option lists the three troubleshooting stages in the correct order?

Gather symptoms, isolate the problem, and implement corrective action

2. In which step of the seven-step troubleshooting process, would you create a rollback plan
identifying how to quickly reverse a solution?

test hypothesis

3. Which are recommendations to be used when communicate with a user?

all the above

( always be considerate and empathize with users, always listen or carefully read what the user
is saying, speak at a technical level they can understand)

4. During the gathering information step, which command would display the configured protocols
and the global and interface-specific status of any configured Layer 3 protocol?
show protocols

5. What is the highest OSI layer that should be considered when troubleshooting routers and
Layer 3 switches?

layer 4

6. Which structured troubleshooting method should be used when a cabling problem is

suspected?

bottom-up troubleshooting method

7. Which structured troubleshooting method should be used when a software orientated problem
occurs?

top-down troubleshooting method

12.3.5 Check Your Understanding - Troubleshooting Tools

1. Which of these is an on-line network device vendor resource that can be used as a source of
information?

knowledge base

2. Which tool is useful to investigate packet content while flowing through the network?

protocol analyser

3. Which hardware troubleshooting tool is a multifunctional handheld device used to test and
certify copper and fiber cables for different services and standards?

cable analyser

4. Cisco IOS log messages fall into one of eight levels. Which syslog logging level is used to log
the highest severity level?

0
 Check Your Understanding - Symptoms and Causes
12.4.7
of Network Problems
1. Which OSI layer are you troubleshooting when the cause of network transmission errors is due
to late collisions, short frames, and jabber?

physical

2. Which OSI layer are you troubleshooting when investigating a spanning-tree loop?

data link

3. Which OSI layer are you troubleshooting when investigating a routing protocol loop?

network

4. Which OSI layer are you troubleshooting when investigating an extended ACL related
problem?

transport

5. Which OSI layer are you troubleshooting when investigating a DNS related problem?

application

6. Which IOS command can be used to test if other network protocols are working?

telnet

12.6.4 Module Quiz - Network Troubleshooting

1. Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?

it defines how hosts and network device connect to the LAN

2. A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem where users cannot access the FTP
server at the same IP address where a website can be successfully accessed. Which
troubleshooting method would be the best to apply in this case?

top-down

3. A computer technician performed a number of actions to correct a problem. Some actions did
not solve the problem, but eventually a solution was found. What should be documented?

everything that was done to try to solve the problem

4. A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem and can successfully ping between
two devices. However, Telnet between the same two devices does not work. Which OSI layers
should the administrator investigate next?

from the network layer to the application layer

5. While designing changes to a data center because of a new IoE implementation, a network
administrator has the job of diagramming the new physical topology of the area. What should be
included in the physical topology diagram?

cable locations and length between servers and switches

6. A network technician is troubleshooting an email connection problem. Which question to the

end-user will provide clear information to better define the problem?

when did you first notice your email problem?

7. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to pinpoint the distance to a break in a network cable?

cable tester

8. Which troubleshooting software is an example of a network management system tool?

WhatsUp Gold

9. What is the purpose of establishing a network baseline?

to help monitor and troubleshoot network performance

10. After which step in the network troubleshooting process would one of the layered
troubleshooting methods be used?

gathering symptoms from suspect devices

11. A company is setting up a web site with SSL technology to protect the authentication
credentials required to access the web site. A network engineer needs to verify that the setup is
correct and that the authentication is indeed encrypted. Which tool should be used?

protocol analyser

12. When should a network performance baseline be measured?

during normal work hours of an organization

13. A networked PC is having trouble accessing the Internet, but can print to a local printer and
ping other computers in the area. Other computers on the same network are not having any
issues. What is the problem?

the PC has a missing or incorrect default gateway

14. A technician installed a network adapter in a computer and wants to test network
connectivity. The ping command can receive responses from workstations on the same subnet
but not from remote workstations. What could be causing the problem?

the default gateway is incorrect

15. What network troubleshooting capability is provided by a cable analyzer?

testing and certifiying of copper and fiber cables

13.1.6 Check Your Understanding - Cloud Computing
1. Which cloud service provides programmers access to the development tool and services used
to deliver applications?

PaaS

2. Which cloud service provides users with access to services such as email, communications,
and Office 365 delivered over the internet?

SaaS

3. Which cloud service provides IT managers with access to network equipment, virtualized
services, and a supporting network infrastructure?

IaaS

4. Which cloud model represents two or more clouds where each part remains a distinctive
object, but both are connected using a single architecture?

hybrid cloud

5. Which cloud model is used to meet the needs of a specific industry, such as healthcare or
media?

community cloud

13.2.7 Check Your Understanding - Virtualization

1. What technology separates the OS from the hardware?

virtualization

2. What device uses all the RAM, processing power, and hard drive space devoted to one
service?

dedicated server
3. Which technology is a program, firmware, or hardware that adds an abstraction layer on top of
the physical hardware?

hypervisor

4. What are the major advantages of virtualization? (Choose three)

- requires less equipment

- faster provisioning

- increased server uptime

5. Which technology is installed on top of the existing OS to create and run VM instances?

type 2 hypervisor

Check Your Understanding - Virtual Network

13.3.4
Infrastructure
1. True or False. A Type 1 hypervisor is installed on top of the existing OS and is called the
hosted approach.

false

2. True of False. A Type 1 hypervisor requires a management console to manage the hypervisor.

true

3. True or False. Management consoles prevent server over allocation.

false

4. True of False. East-West traffic is exchanged between virtual servers in the same data center.

true
 Check Your Understanding - Software-Defined
13.4.5
Networking
1. Which characteristic best describes the control plane of a networking device? (Choose three.)

- information sent to this plane is processed by the CPU

- this plane makes forwarding decisions

- this plane contains router protocol neighbour and topology tables

2. Which characteristics best describe the data plane of a networking device? (Choose three.)

- this plane is used to forward traffic flows

- information in this plane is typically processed by a special processor

- this plane is typically made up of a switch fabric connecting the various ports on a
devices

3. True of False. A network administrator accesses the control plane to configure a device.

false

4. This network architecture offers a new approach to network administration and management
that seeks to simplify and streamline the administration process.

SDN

5. This is a logical entity that enables network administrators to manage and dictate how the data
plane of switches and routers should handle network traffic.

SDN controller

6. This is a standardized request from the SDN controller to define the behavior of the data
plane.

southbound APIs

13.5.8 Check Your Understanding - Controllers

1. This is a table that matches incoming packets to a particular flow and specifies the functions
that are to be performed on the packet.

flow table
2. This is a table that triggers a variety of performance-related actions on a flow including the
ability to rate-limit the traffic.

meter table

3. This type of SDN, a centralized location is responsible for managing devices throughout the
network.

controller-based SDN

4. In this type of SDN, the devices are programmable by applications running on the device itself
or on a server in the network.

device-based SDN

5. This type of SDN uses built-in applications that automate advanced configuration tasks via a
guided workflow and user-friendly GUI. No programming skills are required.

policy-based SDN

13.6.3 Module Quiz - Network Virtualization

1. A company uses a cloud-based payroll system. Which cloud computing technology is this
company using?

software as a service (SaaS)

2. For a data center, what is the difference in the server virtualization data traffic compared with
the traditional client-server model?

there are significant data exchanges between virtual servers

3. Which component in a traditional infrastructure device provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 functions
to create data paths within a network?

control plane

4. Which network traffic management technology is a basic element in SDN implementations?

open flow

5. Which two technologies are core components of Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose two.)
 - application network profile (APN)

- application policy infrastructure Controller

6. Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford
physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?

IaaS

7. Which services are provided by a private cloud?

multiple internal IT service in an enterprise

8. What are two reasons an organization might use cloud computing? (Choose two.)

-provides power and physical plants capable of meeting increased reqruirement

- enables global access corporate data

9. What is a characteristic of data flow processing in SDN?

each data flow through the network must be approved by the SDN controller first

10. What are three abstraction layers of a computer system? (Choose three.)

- hardware

- firmware

- service

11. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and
performed by an SDN controller?

control plane

12. Which term describes the data exchanges between virtual servers in a data center?

east-west-traffic

13. How is the control plane modified to operate with network virtualization?

the control plane function is consolidated into a centralized controller

14. Which Cloud computing service would be best for an organization that needs to
collaboratively create applications and deliver them over the web?

PaaS
14.1.4 Check Your Understanding - Benefits of Automation
1. You use online banking to pay a bill.

Not automation

2. Production levels are automatically tied to demand, eliminating unneeded product and
reducing the impact on the environment.

automation

3. Your GPS recalculates the best route to a destination based on current traffic congestion.

automation

4. The temperature and lighting in your home is adjusted based on your daily routine.

automation

5. A refrigerator senses that you are out of milk and places an order for more.

automation

6. You adjust the volume on the television set with a remote control.

not automation

7. Robots are used in dangerous conditions to reduce safety risks to humans.

automation

8. You open your car door with a remote control.

not automation

14.2.9 Check Your Understanding - Data Formats

1. Which of the following data formats is typically used to display web pages?

HTML

2. Which of the following describes a key/value pair?

A key describes the data and the value is the data itself

3. TRUE or FALSE: White space in JSON format is significant and must be correctly formatted.
false

4. This data format is a minimalist format that is very easy to read and is considered a superset
of another data format.

YAML

5. This data format is self-descriptive through the use of the <tag>data</tag> structure.

XML

14.3.6 Check Your Understanding - APIs

1. True or False: An API is a set of rules describing how one application can interact with
another, and the instructions to allow the interaction to occur.

true

2. Which of the following APIs would be used exclusively between Google and Cisco?

partner API

3. Which of the following APIs is used by Cisco to provide access to students to complete labs?

open or public API

4. Which of the following APIs would be used exclusively between computing devices within
Cisco?

internal or private API

5. Which of the following APIs provides flexible formatting and is the most widely used?

REST

14.4.7 Check Your Understanding - REST

1. An API in considered RESTful if it has which of the following features? (Choose three.)

- stateless

- cacheable

- client-server

2. Which of the following is a URL?

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/zone.html

3. Which of the following is a URN?

www.cisco,com/c/en/us/solutions/design-zone.html

4. Which of the following is a URI?

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/soultions/zone.html#~all-guides

5. Which of the following make up the query portion of a RESTful request? (Choose three.)

-key

-format

-parameters

Check Your Understanding - Configuration

14.5.6
Management
1. Which of the following are not typically used as configuration tools? (Choose two.)

- API

- SNMP

2. Identify the term for the following definition in relationship to configuration management tools:
Programmatically performing a task on a system such as configuring an interface or deploying a
VLAN.

automation

3. Identify the term for the following definition in relationship to configuration management tools:
The process of how all automated activities need to happen, such as the order they must be
done and what must be completed before another task is begun.

orchestration

4. True or False: Agentless means that the controller or master pushes the configuration to the
controlled device.

true

5. Which of the following configuration management tools use Python? (Choose all that apply.)

-ansible
 -saltstack

Check Your Understanding - IBN and Cisco DNA

14.6.10
Center
1. Which IBN feature is responsible for continuous validation and verification that the network is
meeting the expressed intent?

assurance

2. Which IBN feature enables the network administrator to express the expected networking
behavior that will best support the business intent?

translation

3. Which IBN feature installs policies that capture intent into the physical and virtual network
infrastructure using networkwide automation?

activation

4. True or False: The underlay limits the number of devices the network administrator must
program. It also provides services and alternative forwarding methods not controlled by the
underlying physical devices.

true

14.7.2 Module Quiz - Network Automation

1. What is JSON?

it is a data format for storing and transporting data

2. What is an architectural constraint to which a true RESTful API web service must adhere?

it runs as client/server model

3. In the RESTful API request example, http://www.mapquestapi.com/directions/v2/route?

outFormat=json&key=KEY&from=San+Jose,Ca&to=Monterey,Ca, which term describes the
component directions/v2/route?

resources

4. Which statement describes an API?

it is a set of functions and procedures that allows a client application to access the data of the
service application
5. Which term describes the process of managing configuration changes of network devices in
an orderly fashion?

orchestration

6. Which web service API can use multiple data formats including JSON, XML, and YAML?

REST

7. What are two reasons that most RESTful APIs require a key in the request? (Choose two.)

-to authenticate the requesting source

-to gather information on the people using the API

8. What is a difference between the XML and HTML data formats?

XML uses a self-descriptive data structure but HTML uses a standard document structure

9. A programmer is using Ansible as the configuration management tool. Which term is used to
describe a set of instructions for execution?

playbook

10. Which term is used to describe a set of instructions for execution by the configuration
management tool Chef?

cookbook

11, Which two configuration management tools are developed using Python? (Choose two.)

-saltstack

-ansible

12. Which function of the Cisco intent-based networking system (IBNS) enables network
operators to express the expected networking behavior that will best support the business intent?

translation

13. Which types of APIs are suitable for the data communication between a travel website and a
hotel chain inquiring about room availability data?

partner APIs

14. Which characters are used to enclose a JSON key?

quotation marks

15. Which character is used to separate JSON key/value pairs?

(comma) ,