Module 8
Module 8
Module 8
True/False
Topic: Accounts payable as a source of financing
LO: 1
1. Accounts payable are a short-term source of non-interest bearing financing.
Answer: True
Rationale: Accounts payable that arise from the purchase of goods and services usually do not
carry any interest charges and can represent a good source of short-term inexpensive financing.
Answer: False
Rationale: Deferred revenues can also be long-term liabilities.
Answer: True
Rationale: Companies must estimate accrued liabilities such as rent payable because there has
been no bill received or no transaction.
Answer: False
Rationale: If the accrued liabilities in this period are overestimated, then the current income is
lower than it should be. This error will be corrected in a following period, and will artificially inflate
income.
Answer: True
Rationale: Only ‘probable’ contingent liabilities are estimated and recorded on the balance sheet
or the income statement. Anything less than ‘probable’ liabilities (such as ‘reasonably possible’)
are referenced in footnotes.
Answer: False
Rationale: This bond sells at a premium, not a discount.
Answer: False
Rationale: Only the principal portion is classified as “current portion of long-term debt.”
Answer: False
Rationale: There exists a secondary market for previously issued bonds.
Answer: True
Rationale: Market prices fluctuate similar to stocks. The reasoning behind this is that bonds
compete with other investments and become more or less attractive based on the interest rates of
competing securities and the financial condition of the borrowing company.
Answer: False
Rationale: GAAP specifies that gains and losses should be included as extraordinary items
(below income from continuing operations) only if they meet the criteria of unusual and infrequent.
As relatively few bond repurchases meet these criteria, they are typically included as part of
income from ongoing operations.
Answer: False
Rationale: When a company provides collateral, it provides security for the debt in the form of
liens on the company’s assets. Secured debtholders have a priority claim on those secured
assets. These come before all stockholder claims, even those from preferred stockholders.
Answer: False
Rationale: Bonds are priced to yield the return (market rate) demanded by investors.
Consequently, the effective rate of a bond always equals the yield (market) rate.
Answer: False
Rationale: The market rate of interest is usually defined as the yield on U.S. Government
borrowings such as treasury bills, notes, and bonds, called the risk-free rate, plus a spread (also
called a risk premium).
Answer: True
Rationale: The credit rating agencies provide an assessment of their view of the likelihood that a
company will default on its debt obligations.
Answer: True
Rationale: The market rate of interest is usually defined as the yield on U.S. Government
borrowings such as treasury bills, notes, and bonds, called the risk-free rate, plus a spread (also
called a risk premium).
Answer: False
Rationale: The difference is significant. Highest credit-rated borrowers receive interest rates
approximately ½ that of lowest credit-rated borrowers.
Answer: b and c
Rationale: Contingent liabilities are only included when the amount is probable and estimable. An
obligation that is guaranteed at some point in the future is a liability, and one for which the liability
is less than reasonably possible does not need to be reported.
Answer: d
Rationale: The sale of goods on credit impacts non-cash assets, specifically accounts receivable;
all the other items are liabilities that the company must pay within the next year, hence current
liabilities.
Answer: c
Rationale: $80,000 × 9% × 17 / 365 days = $335.34.
Answer: c
Rationale: For a liability to be a contingent liability, the amount must be estimable and probable.
Answer: d
Rationale: The difference between paying early and paying when the bill comes due is 25 days
(45 days – 20 days). Foot Locker gets a 2% discount for those 25 days. Annualized, this is (365 /
25) × 2% = 29.2%.
Answer: c
Rationale: Based on management’s belief, the lawsuit at hand can be deemed less than
reasonably possible and therefore does not need to be disclosed in the financial statements.
a. $15,450
b. $15,000
c. $14,550
d. $12,750
e. None of the above
Answer: c
Rationale: If Acme paid within 15 days, it would pay cash of $14,550 ($15,000 – ($15,000 × 3%)).
Answer: d
Rationale: Bonds are issued to raise capital with repayment of the principal amount on a
specified date in the future (more than one year from the point of issue); therefore, bonds are
considered long-term liabilities.
Answer: a
Rationale: The quarterly interest charge is calculated by multiplying the loan amount ($10,000)
by the interest rate (6%) and then by the portion of the year outstanding (3/12), or $150 accrued
interest. The company needs to reflect the outstanding interest owed (accrued interest) by
increasing liabilities and increasing interest expense.
Answer: c
Rationale: APT = COGS / average Accounts payable = $1,814,765 / $154,998 = 11.71.
Topic: Computing and interpreting days payables outstanding– Numerical calculations required
LO: 1
11. Selected recent balance sheet and income statement information for Gap, Inc. follows:
(in millions) 2008
Year-end accounts payable $ 975
Average accounts payable 990
Sales 14,526
Cost of goods sold 9,079
Answer: a
Rationale: APDO = Accounts payable / average daily COGS = $975 / [$9,079 / 365 days] = 39.2
days
Gap, Inc.
(in millions) 2008
Year-end accounts payable $ 975
Average accounts payable 990
Sales 14,526
Cost of goods sold 9,079
Which of the two companies listed above is leaning on the trade more?
a. American Eagle because its accounts payable turnover is greater and its accounts payable
days outstanding is lower.
b. American Eagle because its accounts payable turnover is lower and its accounts payable days
outstanding is higher.
c. Gap because its accounts payable turnover is higher and its accounts payable days
outstanding is lower.
d. Gap because its accounts payable turnover is lower and its accounts payable days outstanding
is higher.
e. Gap because its accounts payable turnover is lower and its accounts payable days outstanding
is lower.
Answer: d
Rationale: Gap’s APT ($9,079 / $990.5 = 9.17) is lower than American Eagles’ APT ($1,235,620
/ $124,063 = 11.71).
Gap’s APDO ($975 / [$9,079 / 365 days] = 39.2 days) is higher than American Eagles’ APDO
($152,068 / [$1,814,765 / 365 days] = 30.59 days.
A company is said to be leaning on the trade more when it has a lower accounts payable turnover
and a higher accounts payable days outstanding.
Answer: a
Rationale: Coupon rates are used to compute the dollar amount in interest payments paid to the
bondholder semi-annually. Williams pays $50,000 × 8% × ½ year = $2,000.
Answer: e
Rationale: Coupon rates are used to compute the dollar amount in interest payments paid to the
bondholder semi-annually. Keskek pays $100,000 × 9% × ½ year = $4,500.
Answer: c
Rationale: For debt issued at a discount, interest expense reported on the income statement is
cash interest paid plus amortization of the discount.
Answer: b
Rationale: Present value of principal (10 periods, 3%) = $200,000 × 0.74409 = $148,818;
Present value of interest payments (10 payments, 3%) = $8,000 ×8.5302 = $68,242; Total
present value = $217,060.
Answer: a
Rationale: Present value of principal (10 periods, 4%) = $200,000 × 0.67556 = $148,818;
Present value of interest payments (10 payments, 4%) = $6,000 ×8.1109 = $51,181; Total
present value = $183,777.
Answer: d
Rationale: Present value of principal (20 periods, 6%) = $150,000 × 0.3118 = $46,770; Present
value of interest payments (20 payments , 6%) = $7,500 × 11.46992 = $86,024; Total present
value = $132,794.
Answer: c
Rationale: Credit ratings affect the bond’s yield but not the coupon payments determined by the
issuer.
Answer: c
Rationale: The probability a company will make timely payments, that is, the potential risk of
default. Bond investors are primarily concerned with a company’s ability to make interest and
principal payments per the bond agreement.
Answer: d
Rationale: As debt quality moves from AAA to CCC, the market interest rate required increases.
So, the required rate decreases from CCC to AAA.
Answer: d
Rationale: Corporate marketing is not a risk factored into the rating agencies’ determination of a
company’s credit rating.
Answer: a
Rationale: The risk premium can be found by subtracting the risk-free rate from the yield rate
(6.07% - 3.28% = 2.79%).
Answer: b
Rationale: The risk-free rate is the yield on U.S. Government borrowings such as treasury bills,
notes, and bonds.
Answer: e
Rationale: Moody’s considers many factors in deriving a credit rating, including profitability ratios,
covenants, solvency ratios, and collateral.
Answer:
a. This is a current liability as products have been acquired on credit but have not yet been paid
for.
b. This is included as a current liability as the money is owed but not yet paid. This is an accrued
liability.
c. This is not included as a liability. It is a line of credit that Favre Inc. has an option to use and is
currently not using.
Answer: If Acme paid within 15 days, it would pay cash of $19,400 ($20,000 – ($20,000 × 3%)).
Answer:
a. $12,000 × 0.07 × 35 days / 365 days = $80.55
b. $40,000 × 0.13 × 12 days / 365 days = $170.96
c. $24,000 × 0.14 × 61 days / 365 days = $561.53
Answer:
a. Not recorded as a liability, the transaction is happening next month.
b. $15,000 is recorded as a current non-operating liability.
c. $75,000 is recorded in accounts payable (current liability) on the balance sheet.
d. $40,000 is recorded as an accrued liability (current liability) on the balance sheet.
Answer:
Balance Sheet Income Statement
Answer:
a. APT = COGS / average accounts payable = $44,157 / $6,529 = 6.76.
b. APDO = Accounts payable / average daily COGS = $6,337 / [$44,157 / 365 days] = 52.38 days
Answer:
a. APT = COGS / average accounts payable = $58,564 / $3,845 = 15.23.
b. APDO = Accounts payable / average daily COGS = $3,822 / [$58,564 / 365 days] = 23.8 days
Answer:
a. K2 should record the estimated cost of product warranties at the time sales are recognized. To
do this, the company should estimate warranty obligation by reference to historical product
warranty return rates, material usage and service delivery costs incurred in correcting the
product. Should actual product warranty return rates, material usage or service delivery costs
differ from the historical rates, K2 should revise its warranty liability.
b. Warranty expense for 2008 = $1,934.7 million × 2% × 50% = $19.35 million.
c. During the year, the accrued warranty liability decreased. This means that K2 paid out more to
replace or repair warrantied goods than the expense the company recorded. Total cash paid out
is $8.43 million + $19.35 million - $6.49 million = $21.29 million.
(1) 0.05 × $5,000,000 = $250,000 interest expense. The difference between the installment cash
payment and the interest expense is the repayment of principal.
(2) 0.05 × ($5,000,000 - $25,000) = $248,750 interest expense. The difference between the
installment cash payment and the interest expense is the repayment of principal.
(3) 0.05 × ($5,000,000 - $25,000 - $26,250) = $247,438 interest expense. The difference
between the installment cash payment and the interest expense is the repayment of principal.
(4) 0.05 × ($5,000,000 - $25,000 - $26,250 - $27,562) = $246,059 interest expense. The
difference between the installment cash payment and the interest expense is the repayment of
principal.
Answer:
a. Present Value of Principal repayment ($300,000 × 0.45639) = $136,917
Present Value of Interest payments ($15,000 × 13.59033) =$203,855
Total $136,917 + $203,855 = $340,772
b. Present Value of Principal repayment ($300,000 × 0.3118) = $93,540
Present Value of Interest payments ($15,000 × 11.46992) =$172,049
Total $93,540 + $172,049 = $265,589
Answer: Interest received = Face Value × # of semiannual payments × semiannual interest rate
Interest received = $12 million × 14 payments × 3.35% = $5.628 million
Answer:
PV of the principal = 0.74409 × $1,300,000 = $967,317
PV of the interest payments = 8.53020 × $32,500 =$ 277,232
Total bond proceeds $967,317 + $277,232 = $1,244,549
Answer:
a. PV of principal repayment $550,000 × 0.74726 = $410,993
PV of interest payment ($550,000 × 0.05) × 4.21236= $115,840
Total bond proceeds= $526,833
b. PV of principal repayment $550,000 × 0.67556 = $371,558
PV of interest payment ($550,000 × 0.025) × 8.11090 = 111,525
Total bond proceeds = $483,083
Answer: $42,000 paid - $35,000 book value = $7,000 net loss on redemption
Answer: Gain (loss) on bond repurchase = Net book value of bonds - Repurchase payment
Gain (loss) = $195,000 - (99% of the bond face value) = $195,000 – $198,000 = ($3,000)
Loss = $3,000
Answer:
a. ComCom Cable Company: ComCom’s issue is teetering between an investment grade bond
and a high yield bond. With interest coverage ratios coming in right at the BBB benchmark and a
debt/equity ratio of 48%, which is also approximately right at the BBB benchmark it is likely that
this bond is a feasible investment option, especially attractive is the 11% yield. However,
ComCom’s ROE measure is well below the BBB benchmark and could be a cause for concern.
b. High Flier VOIP Technology: With a 3.2% debt/equity ratio, an attractive ROE of 25%, and
AAA quality interest coverage ratios, High Flier’s bond looks to be approximately a AAA quality
bond. Thus, this company is rather healthy, making this bond a relatively safe play.
c. Einstein Nuclear Weapons: This bond is unquestionably a high yield bond based the fact that it
has a profile that lies somewhere between a B grade bond and a CCC grade bond. Especially
troubling are the interest coverage ratios, which are both below B grade. The high yield that this
bond offers is inherent due to the high risk that is associated with it as well. There is a very good
chance that it will default, and as a result it would be an inappropriate investment for a pension
fund.
Summary - The most appropriate bond for a pension fund is probably High Flier. While it offers a
lower yield, it is relatively lower risk. Considering you manage a pension fund, you are more
interested in preserving capital than earning high returns.
Answer:
Ratio Increases / Decreases
Total debt/ equity (%) Increases
EBITDA interest coverage Decreases
Operating income/Sales (%) Decreases
Free operating cash flow/Total debt (%) Decreases
Return on equity (%) Decreases
FFO/Total debt (%) Decreases
Long-term debt/ equity (%) Increases
EBIT interest coverage Decreases
Required:
a. Calculate accounts payable turnover (APT) for 2008 and 2007. Did turnover improve in 2008?
b. In general do companies prefer a higher or a lower APT? Why?
c. Calculate accounts payable days outstanding for both years.
d. What effect does the change in APT have on net cash flows from operating activities?
Answer:
a. 2008 APT = $13,379 / $1,403 = 9.54 times per year
2007 APT = $12,735 / $1,454 =8.76 times per year
Turnover did not improve in 2008 because the company paid off its bills more quickly.
b. In general, companies prefer a lower APT because it means they are paying more slowly and
keeping their cash longer. However, if companies do not pay promptly, suppliers may cut them off
or offer less attractive credit terms.
c. 2008 accounts payable days outstanding = $1,301 / ($13,379 / 365) = 35.49 days
2004 accounts payable days outstanding = $1,505 / ($12,735 / 365) = 43.14 days
d. An increase in APT results in a decrease in net cash flows from operating activities because
3M is speeding up its payments to suppliers.
Required:
a. Calculate accounts payable turnover (APT) for 2008 and 2007.
b. In general do companies prefer a higher or a lower APT? Why?
c. Calculate accounts payable days outstanding for both years.
d. What effect does the change in APT have on net cash flows from operating activities?
Required:
a. Calculate accounts payable turnover (APT) for 2008 and 2007.
b. Calculate accounts payable days outstanding (APDO) for both years.
c. In general do companies prefer a higher or a lower number of days payables outstanding?
Why?
d. What effect does the change in APDO have on net cash flows from operating activities?
Answer:
a. 2008 APT = $189,185 / $26,093= 7.25
2007 APT = $192,744 / $25,751= 7.48
b. 2008 accounts payable days outstanding = $23,995 / ($189,185 / 365) = 46.29 days
2007 accounts payable days outstanding = $28,190 / ($192,744 / 365) = 53.38 days
c. In general, companies prefer a higher number of AP days outstanding because it means they
are paying more slowly and keeping their cash longer. However, if companies do not pay
promptly, suppliers may cut them off or offer less attractive credit terms.
d. A decrease in APDO from 53 to 46 days results in an decrease in net cash flows from
operating activities because Carmike Cinemas is speeding up its payments to suppliers.
Environmental Matters
The Company believes that it is in compliance in all material respects with applicable
environmental laws and regulations. In 2008, the Company incurred capital expenditures of
approximately $18.7 million for environmental protection facilities. The Company is also
remediating environmental contamination resulting from past industrial activity at certain of its
sites. Expenditures for remediation and environmental liabilities were $34.5 million in 2008,
$19.5 million in 2007, $12.6 million in 2006, and are estimated at $47.1 million for the years 2009
through 2013. These amounts do not consider potential recoveries from other parties. The
Company has taken an active role in identifying and providing for these costs and, in
management’s opinion, the liabilities for all environmental matters which are probable and
reasonably estimable have been accrued and totaled $89.5 million at December 31, 2008.
Although it is not possible to predict with certainty the outcome of these environmental matters, or
the ultimate costs of remediation, management does not believe that any reasonably possible
expenditures that may be incurred in excess of the liabilities accrued should exceed $70.0 million
in the aggregate. Management also does not believe that these expenditures should have a
material adverse effect on the Company’s financial position, results of operations, liquidity or
capital resources for any year.
Required:
a. How does Merck account for environmental liabilities that are probable and reasonably
estimable? At December 31, 2008, how much were these liabilities?
b. How does Merck account for environmental liabilities that are reasonably possible? At
December 31, 2008, how much were these liabilities?
c. The footnote mentions $47.1 million and $89.5 million as estimated future expenditures.
Explain what each of these amounts represents and why they differ.
d. Use the financial statement effects template below, to record Merck’s 2008 capital
expenditures for environmental protection facilities and to record the 2008 remediation and
environmental expenditures.
Required:
a. Explain in layman’s terms the liabilities labeled “Unearned premiums” and “Loss reserves.”
b. What percentage of Progressive’s total liabilities relates to current operating liabilities? Do you
believe that this number is higher than most companies or lower? Why?
c. Which current liability reported by Progressive is the least reliably measured – that is, the most
subjective? Explain.
2008 2007
(in millions) Carrying Carrying
Value Fair Value Value Fair Value
6.375% Senior Notes due 2012 (issued:
$350.0, December 2001) $ 348.9 $ 355.3 $ 348.6 $ 367.8
7% Notes due 2013 (issued: $150.0,
October 1993) 149.3 154.3 149.2 162.9
6 5⁄8% Senior Notes due 2029 (issued:
$300.0, March 1999) 294.6 272.0 294.4 311.8
6.25% Senior Notes due 2032 (issued:
$400.0, November 2002) 394.0 350.0 393.9 397.6
6.70% Fixed-to-Floating Rate Junior
Subordinated Debentures due 2067
(issued: $1,000.0, June 2007 988.7 450.0 987.8 936.5
$2,175.5 $1,581.6 $2,173.9 $2,176.6
On December 31, 2008, we entered into a 364-Day Secured Liquidity Credit Facility Agreement
with National City Bank (NCB). Under this agreement, we may borrow up to $125 million, which
may be increased to $150 million at our request but subject to NCB’s discretion. The purpose of
the credit facility is to provide liquidity in the event of disruptions in our cash management
operations, such as disruptions in the financial markets, that affect our ability to transfer or
receive funds. The revolving credit facility agreement discussed above replaced an uncommitted
line of credit with NCB in the principal amount of $125 million. Under this terminated agreement,
no commitment fees were required to be paid and there were no rating triggers. Interest on
amounts borrowed would have generally accrued at the one-month LIBOR plus .375%. We had
no borrowings under this arrangement during 2008, 2007, or 2006.
Aggregate principal payments on debt outstanding at December 31, 2008, are $0 for 2009, 2010,
and 2011, $350.0 million for 2012, $150.0 million for 2013, and $1.7 billion thereafter.
Required:
a. What amount does Progressive report for long-term debt on its balance sheet?
b. Why is there a difference between the fair value and the carrying value of Progressive’s long-
term debt?
c. Were the 6.375% notes originally issued at par, at a discount or at a premium? How do you
know?
d. What is the amount of the unamortized discount on the 7% notes as of December 31, 2008?
e. What cash interest payment did Progressive make for the 6 5/8 notes in 2008? What interest
expense did Progressive record for these notes during 2008? Assume for this question that
Progressive pays interest annually.
f. If Progressive were to repurchase all of its bonds on January 1, 2009, how would the income
statement be affected?
g. How much does the company owe under the line of credit with National City Bank at year end?
Why does Progressive discuss this in its debt footnote?
h. What is the current portion of long-term debt at December 31, 2008?
Interest Interest
Expense Paid Amortization Discount Bond Payable
Answer:
Interest Interest
Expense Paid Amortization Discount Bond Payable
0 1,376,487 18,623,513
1 1,117,411 1,100,000 -17,411 1,359,076 18,640,924
2 1,118,455 1,100,000 -18,455 1,340,621 18,659,379
3 1,119,563 1,100,000 -19,563 1,321,058 18,678,942
4 1,120,737 1,100,000 -20,737 1,300,321 18,699,679
Balance Balance
(in millions) Fiscal Year January 30, February 1,
Debt Category Interest Rates of Maturity 2009 2008
1
Secured debt:
Mortgage notes 7.00 to 8.25% 2018 $ 27 $ 33
Unsecured debt:
Debentures 6.50 to 6.88% 2029 694 694
Notes 8.25% 2010 500 499
Medium-term notes - series A 8.19 to 8.20% 2023 15 20
Medium-term notes - series B2 7.11 to 7.61% 2037 217 217
Senior notes 5.00 to 6.65% 2037 3,273 3,271
Convertible notes - 511
Capital leases and other 2030 347 371
Total long-term debt 5,073 5,616
Less current maturities 34 40
Long-term debt, excluding
current maturities $5,039 $5,576
1
Real properties with an aggregate book value of $35 million were pledged as collateral at
January 30, 2009, for secured debt.
2
Approximately 46% of these medium-term notes may be put at the option of the holder on the
20th anniversary of the issue at par value. The medium-term notes were issued in 1997. None
of these notes are currently putable.
Required:
a. What is the amount of long-term debt on Lowe’s balance sheet as of January 30, 2009?
b. What proportion of Lowe’s long-term debt is due before January 30, 2010?
c. How much of Lowe’s assets were pledged as collateral as of January 30, 2009?
d. What effect, if any, does Lowe’s collateral have on its debt rating and interest costs?
e. Assume that the Senior notes outstanding at the beginning of the year were 5.2% notes issued
to yield 5.5%. At the beginning of the year, these notes had an unamortized discount of $12
million. What cash interest payment did Lowe’s make for these notes? What interest expense did
Lowe’s record for these notes during the current year?
f. Explain in layman’s terms, the put feature on Lowe’s medium-term notes.
Answer: a. Total long-term debt at January 30, 2009 was $5,073 million.
b. Current portion is $34 million which is 0.67% of total debt outstanding ($34 / $5,073 =
0.00670).
c. $35 million of assets was pledged as collateral.
d. To the extent debt is secured, the debt holder is in a preferred position relative to other
creditors. The interest costs should be less to reflect the reduced credit risk.
e. Interest expense = Net book value of debt × effective interest rate = $3,271 million × 0.055 =
$179.91 million.
Cash paid for interest = Face value of debt × coupon rate = ($3,271 million + $12 million) × 0.52 =
$170.72 million.
f. With a put feature, bond holders can sell the bonds back to Lowe’s for the face value of the
bonds. Bond holders would only exercise this option if the fair value of the bonds was less than
face value on the anniversary date.
Principal payments required on long-term debt outstanding at December 31, 2008, are $1.0 billion
in 2009, $160 million in 2010, $2.0 billion in 2011, $1.0 billion in 2012, $265 million in 2013 and
$5.1 billion thereafter.
At December 31, 2008, Abbott's long-term debt rating was AA by Standard & Poor's Corporation
and A1 by Moody's Investors Service. Abbott has readily available financial resources, including
unused lines of credit of $5.3 billion that support commercial paper borrowing arrangements of
which a $2.3 billion facility expires in December 2009 and a $3.0 billion facility expires in 2012.
Related compensating balances, which are subject to withdrawal by Abbott at its option, and
commitment fees are not material. Abbott's access to short-term financing has not been affected
by the recent credit market conditions. Abbott's weighted-average interest rate on short-term
borrowings was 0.5% at December 31, 2008, 3.7% at December 31, 2007 and 5.0% at
December 31, 2006.
The fair value of long-term debt at December 31, 2008 and 2007 amounted to $10.5 billion and
$10.6 billion, respectively (average interest rates of 5.2% and 5.0%, respectively) with maturities
through 2037.
Required:
a. What is a Yen note? Why might Abbott Labs issue such notes?
b. What proportion of long-term debt will Abbott Labs repay in 2009?
c. Does Abbott Labs have unrealized gains or losses on its long-term debt at December 31, 2007
and 2008? Quantify the gains/losses each year.
d. How much does the company owe under the line of credit at year end? Why does Abbott Labs
discuss this in its debt footnote?
e. What is the purpose of an interest rate hedge contract?
f. How would you characterize Abbott Labs’ default risk?
Sales $150
Earnings before interest and taxes 90
Interest expense 6.4
Total liabilities 250
Total equity 325
Required:
a. Calculate RE Company’s times interest earned ratios.
b. Calculate RE Company’s liabilities-to-equity ratio.
c. What type of ratio are these two ratios? How do they affect RE’s credit rating?
d. According to Standard & Poor’s, what are the two types of risk factors considered in credit
analysis?
Answer:
a. Times interest earned = $90 / $6.4 = 14.06.
b. Liabilities-to-equity = $250 / $325 = 77%
c. These are both solvency ratios and they measure a company’s ability to meet its debt
obligations – both periodic interest payments and principal repayments. These ratios are
indicators of credit risk. Times interest earned ratio provides an indication of the company’s ability
to meet its interest obligations. The higher this ratio, the lower the credit risk. The Liabilities to
Equity ratio shows the level of debt relative to owners’ financing (equity). The higher this ratio, the
higher the credit risk. The higher the credit risk the worse the company’s credit rating.
d. According to Standard & Poor’s, the two types of risk factors considered in credit analysis are
business risk and financial risk
Answer: The allowance relates to anticipated payments for future insurance claims. This is a
liabilities now because the future claims arise from insurance coverage during the current and
prior years. Because loss reserves are the anticipated future payments, the number on the
balance sheet is very subjective. To estimate the reserve, Bank of America must estimate the
number of claims that will be made, the amount that will be ultimately paid out, and the timing of
such future payments. Such estimates are very difficult to audit. This makes it easy for
Progressive managers to manipulate the reserve number.
If managers want to increase current period income they could underestimate the reserve. This
would boost net income because the loss expense would be lower. Then in the next period, the
losses would be more than the accrual and next period earnings would decrease. For example, if
managers deliberately underestimated the reserve by $75 million (accruing $6,102.4 million
instead of $6,177.4 million) then 2008 income before tax would be higher by $25 million and 2009
or other future years’ income before tax would be lower by that amount.
Answer: By extending payables, companies can avail themselves of a source of low cost funds.
They are, in effect, using other companies’ funds to finance their operations. This is known as
“leaning on the trade” and it is a way to use accounts payable to finance the working capital of a
company. Leaning on the trade improves RNOA by reducing NOA with no effect on NOPAT so
long as the company does not take undue advantage of its suppliers. If the company lengthens
payables too much, the company’s reputation may be impugned and in the extreme, the credit
rating may worsen.
Answer: A contingent liability is an uncertain accrual. The obligation must be “probable” and the
amount “estimable” in order to require reporting on the face of the financial statements.
A company would like to keep its contingent liability as low as possible as it appears on the
balance sheet of a company as a liability. If the accruals are underestimated, it means that the
income and retained earnings are overestimated.
As a company can determine the amount of its contingent liability and whether its “probable” or
“reasonably possible”, it could choose to aggressively recognize these as part of a “big bath” to
relieve future periods of expense or provide a cookie jar if the expenses are over estimated.
Answer: GAAP recognizes a gain (loss) on debt repurchase as the carrying amount of the debt
less the repurchase price. In addition, gains (losses) can only be reported as extraordinary items
provided that they meet the tests of both unusual and infrequent. Aside from tax effects, there is
no economic gain (loss), despite the accounting treatment.
Gains (losses) are nonoperating and transitory. Further, they have no economic substance.
Current values for debt issues are not reflected on the balance sheet, and hence the income
statement, due to the presumption that debt will not be retired prior to maturity and, at maturity, its
market value will equal the face amount that will be repaid.
Answer: Gains/losses on band repurchases can only be reported as an extraordinary item if the
transaction meets the criteria of unusual or infrequent. Relatively few debt retirements meet
these criteria.
Answer: The effective cost of debt is determined by the price at which a bond is issued. If a bond
is issued at par, its effective cost of debt is the cash interest paid. However in many cases debt is
either issued at a discount or a premium. The effective cost of debt is always equal to the market
rate of interest, regardless of the debt’s coupon rate. It is the amount that is reported on the
issuer’s income statement as interest expense, and it is usually different from cash interest paid.
Answer: Liquidity – This is an important indicator of the firm’s ability to make short term financial
obligations. The more liquid the firm, the more cash on hand to pay expenses and to create new
business opportunities. Low liquidity indicates a higher risk investment.
Solvency – This is an important indicator of long-term ability to pay off debt. Firms with large
amounts of long-term debt are riskier investments due to the higher financial goals they must
achieve. Lower solvency indicates a riskier bond rating.
Profitability – This measure is indicative of the ability of the company to generate positive free
cash flows. The more profitable the company, the better the debt rating it should have.
Answer:
Investors use a number of critical ratios when determining the different classes of risk, including
EBIT Interest coverage
EBITDA from operations / total debt
Funds from operations / total debt
Free operating cash flow / total debt
Return on Capital
Operating Income / Sales
Long-Term Debt / Capital
Total Debt / Capital
Answer: Default is the nonpayment of interest and principal of the bond. If a company defaults on
its debt, bondholders may force the company into bankruptcy and require asset liquidation to
settle debt obligations. Default often leaves the bondholder with a loss. The analysis of the risk of
nonpayment is the work that goes into pricing bonds. S&P uses financial ratios related to a
company’s liquidity, profitability, and solvency to determine a company’s ability to pay its debt.